Unseen Passage for Class 9 Factual CBSE With Questions And Answers

The factual text deals with facts and everyday situations. It involves information in a straightforward, direct manner about a particular subject. Factual passages may give instructions or description or report of an event or a new finding.

This grammar section explains English Grammar in a clear and simple way. There are example sentences to show how the language is used. Read all classes unseen passage with questions and answers in English

Unseen Passage for Class 9 Factual CBSE With Questions And Answers PDF

Such a passage does not call for an imaginative, personal, or creative response.

Reading Comprehension for Grade 9 With Questions And Answers PDF (Solved)

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1 The most beautiful humming birds are found in the West Indies and South America. The crest of the tiny head of one of these shines like a sparkling crown of coloured light. The shades of colour that adorn its breast are equally brilliant. As the bird flits from one object to another, it looks more like a bright flash of sunlight than it does like a living being.

2 But, you ask, why are they called humming birds? It is because they make a soft, humming noise by the rapid motion of their wings—a motion so rapid, that as they fly, you can hardly see that they have wings. One day when walking in the woods, I found the nest of one of the smallest humming birds. It was about half the size of a very small hen and lays egg, and it was attached to a twig no thicker than a steel knitting needle. It seemed to have been made of cotton fibres and was covered with the softest bits of leaf and bark. It had two eggs in it, and each was about as large as a small sugarplum.

3 When you approach the spot where one of these birds has built its nest, it is necessary to be careful. The mother bird will dart at you and try to peck your eyes. Its sharp beak may hurt your eyes most severely and even destroy your sight.

4 The poor little thing knows no other way of defending its young, and instinct teaches it that you might carry off its nest if you find it.

(a) The most beautiful ………………………………… birds are found in the West Indies and South America.
Answer:
humming

(b) They are called humming birds because they make humming noise by the rapid ………………………………… of their wings.
Answer:
motion

(d) The shades of colour that adorn the breast of the humming bird is quite brilliant. (TVue/False)
Answer:
True

(e) The nest of the humming bird is made of silk fibres and covered with bits of hay and bark. (TVue/False)
Answer:
False

(f) Pick from the passage the synonym for ‘dash’ (para 3)
Answer:
‘dart’

(g) You can hardly see that the humming birds have wings because of the:
(i) rapid motion of their wings as they fly.
(ii) humming noise as they fly.
(iii) shining colour of their wings.
(iv) invisible wings due to a bright flash of sunlight.
Answer:
(i) rapid motion of their wings as they fly.

h. The mother bird will dart at you and try to peck your eyes when you:
(i) throw stones at her nest.
(ii) approach the spot where the nest is built.
(iii) try to steal her eggs from the nest.
(iv) threaten the bird near her nest.
Answer:
(ii) approach the spot where the nest is built.

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Harry and Annie lived a mile from town, but they went there to school every day. It was a pleasant walk down the lane and through the meadow by the pond. I hardly know whether they liked it better in summer or in winter.

2. They used to pretend that they were travellers exploring a new country and would scatter leaves on the road so that they might find their way back again. When the ice was thick and firm, they walked across the pond. But their mother did not like to have them do this unless someone was with them. Don’t go across the pond today, children, she said as she kissed them and bade them goodbye.

3. One morning it is beginning to thaw. “All right, mother,” said Harry, not very good-naturedly because he was very fond of running and sliding on the ice. When they came to the pond, the ice looked hard and safe. “There”, said he to his sister. “I knew it hadn’t thawed any”. Mother is always afraid we will drown.

4. Come along, we will have a good time sliding. The school bell will not ring for an hour at least. But you promised mother, said Annie. No, I didn’t I only said; All right and it is all right. I didn’t say anything, so I can do as I like said Annie.

5. So they stepped on the ice, and started to go across the pond. They had not gone far before the ice gave way, and they fell into the water. A man who was at work near the shore heard the screams of the children and plunged into the water to save them.

6. Harry managed to get to the shore without any help, but poor Annie was nearly drowned before the man could reach her. Harry went home almost frozen and told his mother how disobedient he had been. He remembered the lesson learned that day as long as he lived

(a) Harry and Annie used to pretend that they were travellers exploring a new country because they felt that their pleasant journey:
(i) down the lane and through the meadow by the pond, will lead them to their dreamland.
(ii) to their school through the meadow by the pond, is the source of their untold happiness.
(iii) is more important to them than going to school every day.
(iv) explores a new way to go to a new school.
Answer:
(i) down the lane and through the meadow by the pond, will lead them to their dreamland.

(b) “Don’t go across the pond today, children,” she said as she kissed them, is a warning to Harry and Annie for getting them:
(i) careful to cross the icy pond.
(ii) alert if they go for sliding on the ice in the pond.
(iii) cautious lest they be drowned in the pond.
(iv) frightened to cross the pond unless somebody was with them.
Answer:
(ii) alert if they go for sliding on the ice in the pond.

(d) Mother is always afraid we will ……………………………….. .
Answer:
drown

(e) Harry went home almost frozen and told his mother how ………………………………… he had been.
Answer:
disobedient

(f) Harry and Annie went to school, walking down the lane and through the meadow by the pond. (Ihie/False)
Answer:
True

(g) Mother of Harry and Annie liked them to practise sliding on the ice in the pond. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(h) Annie was nearly drowned in the icy pond. (True/False)
Answer:
True

3. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1 Many a time people feel fatigue because of poorly designed workspaces. Your desk, your chair, your computer and keyboard the placement, height, and angle of each of them – play a crucial role in preventing muscle and eye strain. That is what has given rise to an interest in the study of ergonomics. It is the applied science of equipment design at the workplace. Ergonomics is intended to reduce fatigue and discomfort for people sitting and working in offices.

2 So why does it make sense for organizations to follow ergonomic principles? In a recent study, it has been found that over 60% of individuals diagnosed with Repetitive Strain Injury (RSI) had received no training in strain injury at their offices and another 30% had received incorrect ergonomic advice.

3 Another interesting find has been that employees who turn up to work in spite of being in pain can cause massive productivity losses amounting to thousands of dollars annually. Research findings have shown that most offices in India are operating with furniture that is a mismatch to the highly networked work culture that exists and there is hardly any awareness among employees about ergonomics and how it impacts them. This has resulted in an alarming 71% of employees suffering from rapidly spreading Musculo Skeletal Disorders (MSD). The symptoms are back pain, shoulder pain of varying intensity, leading to lowering of productivity of employees at work.

4 To counter this problem, some companies have created volunteers who are part of a ‘train and trainers’ initiative. They act as custodians of their bays and monitor their colleagues’ postures and advise them on a day-to-day basis.

5 Talking about the part that employees can do to make their workplaces comfortable, some experts say that from an employee’s perspective having knowledge of what is a safe working position, and what are the right ways of relieving fatigue, how the current set-up can be optimized, what simple solutions can be incorporated, can go a long way in creating a stress-free environment with healthy employees.

(a) The study of ergonomics is essential in workplaces because it:
(i) plays a crucial role in preventing muscle and eye strain.
(ii) is intended to increase fatigue.
(iii) causes massive productivity gains.
(iv) cannot create a stress-free environment.
Answer:
(i) plays a crucial role in preventing muscle and eye strain.

(b) To create a stress-free environment with healthy employees, organisations:
(i) need to follow ergonomic principles.
(ii) must train the employees the science of ergonomics.
(iii) should engage specialist to detect the MSD (Musculo Skeletal Disorders).
(iv) are intended to look into the poorly designed workspaces.
Answer:
(i) need to follow ergonomic principles.

(d) The symptoms of MSD (Musculo Skeletal Disorders) are back ………………………………… pain.
Answer:
shoulder

(e) To counter the problem of ergonomics, some organisations have created ………………………………… who are part of a ‘train and trainers’ initiative.
Answer:
volunteers

(f) Your desk, your chair, your computer and keyboard are the indispensable components of ergonomics. (The/False)
Answer:
True

(g) Individuals diagnosed with RSI (Repetitive Strain Injury) and MSD (Musculo Skeletal Disorders) have a congenial, stress-free environment in the organisation. (Thie/False)
Answer:
False

(h) The right ways of relieving fatigue and discomfort for people sitting and working in offices is to design workspaces ergonomically. (Thw/False)
Answer:
True

4. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1 The Amazon is the world’s largest tropical rainforest. It covers an area of nearly 2.8 million square miles, which is nearly the size of the continent of Australia. The Amazon rainforest gets its life from the majestic Amazon river, the world’s second largest river, which runs directly through the heart of the region. The rainforest itself is simply the drainage basin for the river and its many tributaries. The vast forest itself consists of four layers, each featuring its own ecosystems and specially adapted plants and animals.

2 The forest floor is the lowest region. Since only two per cent of the sunlight filters through the top layers to the understory, very few plants grown here. The forest floor, however, is rich with rotting vegetation and the bodies of dead organisms, which are quickly broken down into nutrients and decomposers such as millipedes and earth worms use nutrients for food.

3 The understory is the layer above the forest floor. Much like the forest floor, only about 2-5 per cent of the sunlight reaches this shadowy realm. Many of the plants in the understory have large, broad leaves to collect as much sunlight as possible. The understory is so thick that there is very little air movement. As a result, plants rely on insects and animals to pollinate their flowers.

4. The layer above the understory is the canopy. This is where much of the action in the rainforest occurs. Many canopy leaves have specially adapted leaves which form “drip tips”. Drip trips allow water to flow off the leaves which prevents mosses, fungi, and lichens from occupying the leaves. Leaves in the canopy are very dense and filter about 80 per cent of the sunlight. The canopy is where the wealth of the rainforest’s fruits and flowers grow. Bromeliads, cut-like plants, provide drinking pools for animals and breeding locations for tree frogs.

(a) The Amazon rainforest gets its life from the majestic ………………………………… river, the world’s second largest river.
Answer:
Amazon

(b) The vast rainforest consists of ………………………………… layers, each featuring its own ecosystem.
Answer:
Four

(d) The Amazon is the world’s largest tropical rainforest. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(e) Plants never rely on insects and animals to pollinate their flowers. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(f) The forest floor is rich with rotting vegetation and the bodies of dead organism.
Answer:
True

(g) Very few plants grow on the top layers of the forests floor because:
(i) only two per cent of the sunlight filters through it.
(ii) hardly any light falls on it.
(iii) enough sunlight passes through it.
(iv) no sunlight filters through it. ‘
Answer:
(i) only two per cent of the sunlight filters through it.

(h) Drip-tips adapted by canopy leaves, are very useful as they:
(g) filter about 80 per cent of the sunlight.
(ii) allow water to flow off the leaves that prevent mosses, fungi and lichens.
(iii) help to grow the rainforest’s fruits and flowers.
(iv) can collect as much sunlight as possible.
Answer:
(ii) allow water to flow off the leaves that prevent mosses, fungi and lichens.

5. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. On 3 August 1996, Leander Paes became the first Indian to win an individual medal in 44 years when he defeated Fernando Meligeni of Brazil in an exciting match in the Centennial Olympic Games at Atlanta. Paes ranked 31 places below the Brazilian, played with gusto and determination against a player who has two ATP tour titles under his belt, and clinched the bronze medal. He was given a standing ovation when Paes raised his hand in triumph and said a silent prayer.

2 Leander’s father had won a bronze medal in the Munich Olympics 1972 as a member of the Indian hockey team. It is creditable to Leander Paes as he got it in an individual event.

3. Later he dedicated the medal to his coach and his doubles teammate. “They have helped me out and given me advice and kept me in good frame of mind. This medal doesn’t just show my efforts; it shows the efforts of the whole team.”

4. Paes was recognised as a prodigy by Vijay Amritraj in the ’80s. Even so, Paes’ true mentor has been Naresh Kumar, the former Indian Davis Cup Captain. His incredible Davis Cup record speaks for itself. While it may be said that some of his Davis Cup victories were achieved because he was playing on his favourite surface, grass and enjoyed home support. But at Atlanta, Paes had none of these advantages except his coach, close family members and the, expatriates.

5. While Davis Cup victories bring in good cash rewards and ATP (Association of Tennis Professionals) points, there he was playing for just a medal. Paes explains it all when he says, “When I am playing for my country I don’t expect anything.” That straightaway sets him apart. He succeeds because of his willingness to take his chances, swift reflexes and mental strength, and the fact that he does not accept defeat easily.

(a) Leander’s victory at Atlanta is significant because ………………………………… .
Answer:
He played against the player who has two ATP tour titles under his belt.

(b) His father’s Olympic triumph in 1972 was different from his own because it was
Answer:
a team game and he won individually.

(c) Leander gave credit to his coach and his teammate in doubles for his victory. How did they help him?
Answer:
They helped him by advising him and keeping in good frame of mind.

(d) If you are required to sum up Leander’s qualities as a player, which one would you like to highlight and why?
Answer:
His dedication towards his country. He doesn’t want any money or prize; he just wants to bring laurel to his country by performing well through the support of his loved ones.

(e) In India, while registering his victories in Davis Cup one could say that he won because ……………………………….. .
Answer:
he was playing on his favourite surface, grass and enjoyed home support.

(f) At Atlanta, he won because ……………………………….. .
Answer:
he was playing just for a medal.

6. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Crop plants and animals created for human consumption using latest molecular biology techniques can generally be termed GM foods or GMO (Genetically Modified Organisms). It has been possible to infuse the desired genetic traits such as disease and/or pest resistance and cold/draught tolerance into important crops to get better yield and nutritional content.

2. Similarly, GM technology is employed on farm animals to improve milk yield and meat quality. Traditionally, the enhancement of desired traits has been undertaken through breeding of plants and animals. The newer methods serve to relace or complement the traditional breeding processes that are not so precise besides being time-consuming.

3 The potential benefit arising from the use of GM technology in agriculture is increased food production, ensuring food security for the abounding millions. GM foods promise to meet the challenge of evolving cereal varieties with pest/disease resistance and those having tolerance to abiotic and biotic stress.

4. Crop losses due to pests can be staggering, leading to enormous loss and even starvation, particularly in developing countries. Chemical pesticides and herbicides, used in huge quantities, have health hazards like pesticide contamination and poisoning of water resources. Growing GM foods such as B.t. (Bacillus turengenesis) corn can eliminate the application of chemical pesticides and reduce the cost of cultivation. GM plants can also withstand resistance to diseases caused by viruses, fungi and bacteria. New developments are seen on transgenic fruits and vegetables having extended storage life, delayed and uniform ripening time, etc. The transgenic varieties of tomato are more robust, possess more solid and 2 to 5 times more lycopene content.

5. To date, no human health problems associated specifically with the ingestion of transgenic crops or their products have been reported. However, concerns have been raised on the potential for allergic reactions of food products consumed, the possible introduction or increase in the levels of toxic compounds and the anti-biotic resistance as markers used in the transformation process.

(a) GM (Genetically Modified) technology is employed on farm animals to ………………………………… milk yield and meat quality.
Answer:
improve

(b) The potential benefit that arises from the use of GM technology in ………………………………… is increased food production.
Answer:
agriculture

(d) Crop losses due to pests can be staggering, leading to enormous loss and even starvation. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(e) Latest molecular technology such as GMO (Genetically Modified Organisms) does not help to get better yields of crops. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(f) GM plants cannot withstand resistance to diseases caused by viruses, fungi and bacteria. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(g) On farm animals, GM technology is employed because it can:
(i) improve milk yield and meat quality.
(ii) defend diseases of the animals.
(iii) help to breed farm animals of better quality.
(iv) decrease the mortality rate of farm animals.
Answer:
(i) improve milk yield and meat quality.

(h) The newer methods of GMO (Genetically Modified Organisms) is beneficial to farm animals as they:
(i) boost up the growth of farm animals.
(ii) serve to replace or complement the traditional breeding processes.
(iii) are good to create healthy environment for farm animals.
(iv) save the animals from the epidemic.
Answer:
(ii) serve to replace or complement the traditional breeding processes.

7. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

The Future Cars

1. The story ‘The Fun They Had takes us to the world of the future where children study in a virtual classroom. The learning is through computer software or the Internet, or by a robotic teacher. Many exciting new technologies would continue to transform the world and improve human welfare. Here are two of them. When these become reality, the then generation may ask with surprise, “People were driving the cars!”

Self-driving Cars

2. Self-driving cars exist today that are safer than human-driven cars in most driving conditions. Over the next 3 – 5 years they will get even safer and be in the mainstream.

3. Just as cars reshaped the world in the 20th century, so will self-driving cars in the 21st century. In most cities, about 20 – 30% of usable space is taken up by parking spaces, and most cars are parked about 95% of the time. Self-driving cars will be in almost continuous use (most likely hailed from a smartphone app), thereby, dramatically reducing the need for parking. Cars, will communicate with each other to avoid accidents and traffic jams, and riders will be able to spend commuting time on other activities like work, education and socialising.

Drones and Flying Cars

4. “Roads? Where we’re going we don’t need… roads?” Dr Emmet Brown.
GPS (Global Positioning System) which started out as a military technology is now being used to hail taxis, get mapping directions, etc. Likewise, drones had started out as a military technology, but are increasingly being used for a wide range of consumer and commercial applications.

5. For example, drones are being used to inspect critical infrastructure like bridges and power lines, to survey areas struck by natural disasters, and many other creative uses like fighting animal poaching. There are startups that use drones to deliver medical supplies to remote villages that can’t be accessed by road.

6. There is also a new wave of startups working on flying cars including two funded by the cofounder of Google, Larry Page. Flying cars use the same advanced technology used in drones but are large enough to carry people. Due to advances in materials, batteries and software, flying cars will be significantly more affordable and convenient than today’s planes and helicopters.

(Adapted from ’11 reasons to be excited about the future of technology, by Chris Dixon, 19 Aug. 2016, Business Insider India)

(a) How will the self-driving cars or driverless cars be safe?
Answer:
Self driving cars will be in continuous use and using their smart phone app, communicate with each other to avoid accidents and traffic jams, thus will be safer than human-driven cars.

(b) What do you understand by ‘cars will communicate with each other’?
Answer:
‘Self-driven cars will have smart phone apps that will make sending messages easier to each other, i.e. communicating with each other.

(c) What are the advantages of self-driving cars?
Answer:
Self-driving cars will reduce the need for parking due to being in use continuously. They will help riders to save time for other activities like work, education and socializing.

(d) What is the use of GPS?
Answer:
GPS or Global Positioning System started as a military technology to keep track of the vehicles used in war or to track the enemy’s movement. It is now used to trace the location of almost anything that is important to us.

(e) What is a drone? What are its advantages?
Answer:
Drone is a military technology developed to send things in far off places in case of a calamity, etc. These are used to inspect critical infrastructure like bridges and power lines, and to spy illegal activities like animal poaching, etc.

(f) Which technology will be used in flying cars?
Answer:
Flying cars will use the same technology as the drones but these will be larger than drones.

(g) How will the flying cars be more convenient than planes and helicopters?
Answer:
Flying cars are larger and can carry more persons or supplies than a helicopter or plane. These will be more affordable and convenient due to advances in material, batteries and software.

8. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Mount Abu’s chief claims to fame are the Jain temple architecture at Dilwara, about 5 km from Nakki lake. Dilwara Temples are one of the finest Jain temples and many even consider them architecturally superior to the Taj Mahal. Built between 11th and 13th century, the most outstanding feature is its exquisite carvings in marble. The two temples, Vimala Vasahi and Luna Vasahi, are singled out by experts as superb examples of architecture.

2. The architecture is marked by carvings that are not just aesthetically beautiful in form but are often presented in a highly poetic context. For instance, one of the marble nayikas (maidens) is depicted as having just emerged from her bath. Droplets falling from her long hair are shown being drunk by a swan sitting by her feet. Perhaps the most outstanding feature of Jain temple architecture is at is an understatement. Wherever one looks, be it pillars, ceilings, walls and floor, Jain temples go to the extreme – and beyond it – when it comes to adorning their temples with the very stone they work with. Jain mythology, saints, gods and goddesses, monks, devotees or just good old religious motifs all find their way in a spectacular rendezvous in marble and rock.

3. Each nook and corner of the Jain temples is so diligently carved that it’s a wonder that the edifice was created out of plain stone. Carving is perhaps not the right word for Jain temples – chiselling would be more appropriate. Their fragile delicacy merged with an architectural lexicon is what constitutes the basis of these amazing temples. Simply put, there is not an inch where one can place one’s hand and not encounter a spectacular frieze.

4. In the temples in Mount Abu even chiselling was put aside, and artisans adopted the sedulous task of thinning the marble into carved images, a worth-noticing architectural splendour. This was done by gently scraping away the surface till a figure eventually emerged, so intricate and fine that it was intelligibly magnificent. This is the reason why the temples in Mount Abu and Ranakpur are said to be the finest Jain temples in the world.

(a) Many people consider Dilwara Temples architecturally superior to the:
(i) Lal Qila
(ii) Taj Mahal
(iii) Madurai temple (Meenakshi)
(iv) Akshardham temple
Answer:
(ii) Taj Mahal

(b) The most outstanding feature of Jain temple architecture is its:
(i) structure
(ii) grandeur
(iii) internal decoration
(iv) carvings
Answer:
(iv) carvings

(d) The edifice was created out of a plain stone. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(e) Mount Abu is in Madhya Pradesh. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(f) The ……………………………. process was adopted by scraping the surface of the marble till a fine figure emerged.
Answer:
thinning

(g) The chief motifs carved on these temples are …………… motifs.
Answer:
religious

(h) Write the synonym of the word ‘eye-catching from the passage. (para 2)
Answer:
spectacular

9. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Thomas Alva Edison was an American inventor and businessman who developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world. He lit up the world with his invention of electric light. Without him, the world might still be a dark place.

2. However, the electric light was not his only invention. He also invented phonograph, motion picture camera, and over 1,200 other things. About every two weeks he created something new. 3 Thomas A. Edison was born in Milan, Ohio, on February 11, 1847. His family moved to Port Huron, Michigan, when he was seven years old. Surprisingly, he attended school for only two months. His mother, a former teacher, taught him a few things, but Thomas was mostly self-educated. His natural curiosity led him to start experimenting at a young age with electrical and mechanical things at home.

4. When he was 12 years old, he got his first job. He became a newsboy on a train that ran between Port Huron and Detroit. He set up a laboratory in a baggage car of the train so that he could continue his experiments in his spare time. Unfortunately, his first work experience did not end well. Thomas was fired when he accidentally set fire to the floor of the baggage car.

5. Thomas then worked for five years as a telegraph operator, but he continued to spend much of his time on the job conducting experiments. He got his first patent in 1868 for a voice recorder run by electricity. However, the voice recorder was not a success. In 1870, he sold another invention, a stock-ticker, for $40,000. A stock-ticker is a machine that automatically prints stock prices on a tape. He was then able to build his first shop in Newark, New Jersey.

6. Thomas Edison was totally deaf in one ear and hard of hearing in the other, but thought of his deafness as a blessing in many ways. It kept conversations short, so that he could have more time for work.

(a) Thomas Alva Edison invented the:
(i) electric bulb
(ii) motion picture camera
(iii) phonograph
(iv) all of these
Answer:
(iv) all of these

(b) Thomas Edison accepted his deafness and hard of hearing disability as a blessing because:
(i) it kept the conversations short.
(ii) he had to keep quiet.
(iii) it kept him away from gossip.
(iv) none of these
Answer:
(i) it kept the conversations short.

(d) Thomas was mostly ……………….. He attended school for only two months.
Answer:
self-educated

(e) Edison got his first patent in 1868, for a ……………… run by electricity.
Answer:
voice recorder

(f) Edison got his first job at the age of 12. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(g) Edison was a British inventor and a businessman. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(h) Write the antonym of the word “powerlessness’ from the passage. (para 1)
Answer:
influenced

10. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Much of the information we have today about chimpanzees comes from the ground breaking, long-term research of the great conservationist, Jane Goodall.

2. Jane Goodall was born on April 3, 1934 in London, England. On her second birthday, her father gave her a toy chimpanzee named Jubilee. From an early age, Jane was fascinated by animals and animal stories. By the age of 10, she was talking about going to Africa to live among the animals there, At the time, in the early 1940s, this was a radical idea because women did not go to Africa by themselves.

3. Once in Kenya, she met Dr Louis Leakey, a famous paleontologist and anthropologist. He was impressed with her thorough knowledge of Africa and its wildlife, and hired her to assist him and his wife on a fossil-hunting expedition to Olduvai Gorge. Dr Leakey soon realized that Jane was the perfect person to complete a study he had been planning for some time.

4. Dr Leakey and Jane began planning a study of a group of chimpanzees who were living on the shores of Lake Tanganyika in Kenya. Jane faced many challenges as she began her work. The chimpanzees did not accept her right away, and it took months for them to get used to her presence in their territory. But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal. Little by little, she was able to enter their world.

5. At first, she was able to watch the chimpanzees only from a great distance, using binoculars. As time passed, she was able to move her observation point closer to them while still using camouflage. Eventually, she was able to sit among them, touching, patting, and even feeding them. It was an amazing accomplishment for Jane, and a breakthrough in the study of animals in the wild. Jane named all of the chimpanzees that she studied, stating in her journals that she felt they each had a unique personality.

(a) Jane was gifted on her second birthday:
(i) a teddy bear
(ii) a toy gun
(iii) a toy chimpanzee
(iv) a doll
Answer:
(iii) a toy chimpanzee

(b) What challenge did Jane face initially while working for chimpanzees?
(i) They accepted her only after a few months.
(ii) They did not accept her at all.
(iii) It took them a year to accept her.
(iv) They were hostile towards her all through
Answer:
(i) They accepted her only after a few months.

(d) Jane was born in New York, America. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(e) Dr. Louis hired Jane to assist him and his wife on a fossil-hunting expedition… (True/False)
Answer:
True

(f) Jane, initially watched the chimpanzees from a distance using ……………….
Answer:
binoculars

(g) Jane named each chimpanzee as she thought each had a unique …………………….
Answer:
personality

(h) Identify the word from the passage that is similar to ‘concealment. (para 5)
Answer:
camouflage

11. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

The World as I See It

In my opinion, the present symptoms of decadence are explained by the fact that the development of industry and machinery has made the struggle for existence very much more severe, greatly to the detriment of the free development of the individual. But the development of machinery means that less and less work is needed from the individual for the satisfaction of the community’s needs.

A planned division of labour is becoming more and more of a crying necessity and this division will lead to the material security of the individual. This security and the spare time and energy which the individual will have at his command can be made to further his development. In this way the community may regain its health, and we will hope that future historians will explain the morbid symptoms of present-day society as the childhood ailments of an aspiring humanity, due entirely to the excessive speed at which civilisation was advancing. (An extract from ‘The world As I See It’ by Albert Einstein)

(a) What is responsible for the present degradation of individual development?
Answer:
The development of industry and machinery is responsible for the present degradation of individual development.

(b) What is the meaning of development in relation to individuals?
Answer:
Development means less and less work will be needed from the individual for the satisfaction of the community’s needs.

(c) What is the ‘planned division of labour’? How will it be helpful in human development?
Answer:
A planned division of the labour means to balance the amount of work between machine and an individual. The security, spare time and energy saved by an individual due to machines can be used for individual development.

(d) What does the phrase “symptoms of decadence’ mean in the opening line?
(i) diagnosis of degradation
(ii) warning signs of depravity
(iii) signs of prosperity
(iv) diagnosis of indifference
Answer:
(ii) warning signs of depravity

(e) The phrase ‘crying necessity in the opening paragraph means:
(i) urgent need
(ii) weeping need
(iii) sad need
(iv) average need
Answer:
(i) urgent need

(f) Circle the odd one out
(i) presence, distance, existence, being, alive
(ii) possible, feasible, probable, unthinkable, obtainable
(iii) violence, assault, roughness, passivity, fierceness
(iv) conflict, contest, contention, rivalry, accord
(v) consolation, compassion, annoyance, sympathy, support
Answer:
(i) distance
(ii) unthinkable
(iii) passivity
(iv) accord
(v) annoyance

12. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Chyur tree is commonly known as “Phulwara’ in northern India, ‘Chyur’ in Nepal and ‘Gophal’ in Bengal. It is found in the Himalayan regions with an altitude of 500 to 1200 meters. Chyur tree resembles an umbrella. This tree is large and shady with dense leaves. Its pulpy fruit gets a thick skin on ripening. People in the mountains call it Kalpavriksha. It is also known as ‘Indian Butter · Tree’ as it produces oil seeds, which are rich in oil contents and at lower temperature transforms into fat and looks like butter or ghee.

2. Fertile, moist soil is required for planting and growing of Chyur tree. It bears flowers and fruits from October to January. As this tree blossoms, the atmosphere becomes fragrant and fascinating. The honey made from its flowers is of high quality and is full of nutrients. The oil extracted is called the ghee of Chyur.

3. Local people extract juice from its flowers and boil it to make Jaggery. Ayurvedic physicians use it as medicine. The seed oil, honey and gur make the tree prominent in rural economy. Many cosmetic industries in India use a chemical called palmolic oil which is made from the oil of this tree. Oil cake left after extracting the oil from seeds is used as manure in the fields. This oil cake contains a pesticde chemical saponin. If this chemical is separated from the oil cakes, it can become a nutritious food for animals. Chyur trees contribute greatly towards prevention of landslides and soil erosion. Its long and broad leaves have the ability to collect soil, water and food materials.

4. For the past many years, the Government of India have been formulating various plans for making the country self-sufficient in edible and non-edible oils. Whereas, the, wasteland development has been one of the thrust areas in the Government plans, on the one hand, the self-sufficiency in edible and non-edible oils has been identified as a timely demand on the other. Keeping in view of the above, the plantation of Chyur trees on wastelands throughout the Himalayan sub-tropical belt and in Andaman and Nicobar Islands would be a prudent and wise measure.

(a) Chyur tree is known by several names:
(i) Kalpvariksha
(ii) Phulwara
(iii) Gophal
(iv) All of the above
Answer:
(iv) All of the above

(b) The Chyur tree bears flowers from:
(i) October to December
(ii) October to November
(iii) October to January
(iv) October to February
Answer:
(iii) October to January

(d) This tree is small with dense leaves. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(e) Chyur tree is also called “Indian Butter Tree’. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(f) …………………….. is separated from the oil cakes to make them a nutritious food for animals.
Answer:
Saponin

(g) Local people extract juice from the flowers of Chyur tree and boil it to make ………………..
Answer:
jaggery

(b) Find the word from the passage that is similar in meaning to ‘that which can be eaten’. (para 4)
Answer:
‘edible’

13. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. A British linguist has cracked the code of a 600-year-old manuscript. This manuscript is deemed to be the most mysterious document in the world and is known as the Voynich manuscript. Professor Stephen Bax, who teaches Applied Linguistics at the University of Bedfordshire, and who has decoded the Voynich manuscript, says that the manuscript is not a hoax. In the course of his research he has found the manuscript is probably a treatise on nature and is perhaps in a Near Eastern or Asian language.

2. So far, Professor Bax has been able to decode ten words of the manuscript using an analytical approach. The manuscript, according to the method of carbon dating, affixes its origin to some time in the 1400s. It was picked up from among second-hand publications, in Italy, by an antique book dealer. The dealer, Wilfrid Voynich, had discovered the manuscript in 1912, and thereafter the find was named after him.

3. Among the words identified by Professor Voynich is the word Taurus alongside a picture of seven stars which seem to be the Pleiades. Another word in the script that he has deciphered is the word ‘Kantairon’ with a picture of the plant centaury (a herbaceous plant) alongside it.

4. The manuscript is full of illustrations of exotic plants, stars and mysterious human figures in addition to the unknown text. Up till this discovery, several scholars and cryptographers had worked. on the script but had failed to read even a single letter. Over time, the script had gained quite a. reputation and has even been featured in the computer game Assassin’s Creed and in the Indiana Jones novels. Many grand theories about it have been proposed. Some even go so far as to say that the script is the secret code of Leonardo Da Vinci as a boy. Others ascribe the code to the Cathars, or to the lost tribe of Israel, and, more recently, to the Aztecs.

5 Although at the present time, Professor Bax’s decoding is only partial, it has generated a lot of excitement.

(a) Subject matter of the manuscript according to professor Bax:
(i) deals with nature
(ii) deals with metaphysics
(iii) deals with languages
(iv) deals in material things.
Answer:
(i) deals with nature

(b) Where was the manuscript discovered?
(i) in Greece
(ii) in India
(iii) in Italy
(iv) In Egypt
Answer:
(iii) in Italy

(d) So far, Professor Bax has been able to ……………. ten words of the manuscript.
Answer:
decode

(e) The manuscript is known as ………………. manuscript.
Answer:
Voynich

(f) The manuscript is 400 years old. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(g) At the present time, Professor Bax’s decoding is only partial. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(h) Find from the passage a word similar to the meaning “a piece of writing’. (para 1)
Answer:
treatise

14. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Did you sleep well last night? Or did you wake up feeling fatigued and sluggish – perhaps even wondering if you really slept at all? Understanding your sleep behaviour and preparing for a sound slumber can help make sure every night is a good night for sleeping.

2 “Sleep is a behaviour and, like all behaviours, it varies greatly among people,” explains Dr Carol Landis, sleep researcher and associate professor in biobehavioural nursing and health systems at the University of Washington School of Nursing. “The greatest differences occur in the timing of sleep and the amount of sleep – the factors which are most important in determining whether you will wake up feeling rested.”

3. Nobody knows why we sleep, but we all need to. There are no rules about how much sleep is necessary but an average adult sleeps for 7 hours 20 minutes. About 8% of adults are happy with 5 hours or less and 4% want 10 hours or more. Babies need between 14 and 18 hours, whereas the elderly need less than they did when young but often take a nap during the day.

4. If you miss a couple of hours of sleep, no harm is done. You may feel tired and irritable the next day but the body soon makes up for the loss. If you try to stay awake night after night however, you soon begin to behave strangely. You lose the ability to concentrate and your judgement is impaired. You begin to imagine strange things and your behaviour becomes deranged.

5 There are a number of causes for sleeplessness. Worry and depression are the most common. All kinds of things in the environment can affect sleep — noise, light, heat, cold, new surroundings, etc. Pain in illness can also keep people awake. Many people become addicted to their sleeping pills but sleeping pills do not deal with the causes of insomnia and it is better to avoid them if you can. It is much better to identify the problem and remove it.

(a) The environmental factors that can affect sleep are:
(i) noise
(ii) heat and cold
(iii) new surroundings
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

(b) Babies need between:
(i) 13 to 15 hours of sleep
(ii) 14 to 18 hours of sleep
(iii) 14 to 16 hours of sleep
(iv) 13 to 16 hours of sleep
Answer:
(ii) 14 to 18 hours of sleep

(d) Worry and depression are not the most common causes of sleeplessness. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(e) Sleeping pills help induce sleep and are good for a person. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(f) The body makes up for the loss of ………………..
Answer:
sleep

(g) We can ensures a good night’s rest by understanding our sleep
Answer:
behaviour

(h) Write the word similar in meaning to ‘inability to sleep’ from the passage. (para 5)
Answer:
‘insomnia’

15. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits.

2. One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide-a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt, absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.

3 Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with little investment and a few hours of work.

4. Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money.

(a) Not many city parks can be made because:
(i) there is scarcity of space
(ii) land is required for essential urban development.
(iii) land is required for building flyovers, school, hospitals.
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

(b) Parks provide city people with:
(i) a place to relax
(ii) play sports
(iii) take refuge from the changing weather patterns
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

(d) Plants absorb carbon dioxide. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(e) Rooftop gardens will provide the same benefits as any other urban park. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(f) Parks provide many environmental …….
Answer:
benefits

(g) Rooftop gardens also lessen the Urban ……….. Effect.
Answer:
Heat Island

(h) Find the antonym of the word ‘simple’ from the passage. (para 3)
Answer:
‘complex

16. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Recycling means treating things that have already been used, so that they can be used again. Making new things from recycled ones takes less money, less energy and less of the earth’s resources. Since less energy is used in recycling, factories don’t release as many pollutants either. Recycling begins with people separating recyclable materials for other trash. The separated recyclable materials are collected, processed and then sold to manufacturers for use in new products.

2. Aluminum and steel cans, cardboard, glass, newspapers and plastic bottles are all recyclable materials. These items can be made into new things such as cans that hold food and drinks, cardboard boxes, glass jars and bottles, newspaper and office papers, plastic bottles and even playground equipment. Kitchen waste such as leftover foodstuff and vegetables peels can be separated rather than put in the trash.

3. This waste can be added to soil to form compost. Compost helps the plants to grow better. Composting is a cheap and useful process of speeding up the decay of waste. Garden waste, such as grass clippings, dried leaves and so on can be similarly converted into compost. Some types of trash are dangerous and need to be disposed of in special ways. Old paints, pesticides, cleaning chemicals, fluorescent lamps, mercury thermometers, batteries and electronic equipment can contaminate our land, water and air.

(a) Which of the following is recyclable material?
(i) steel cans and plastic bottles
(ii) cardboard glass
(iii) newspapers
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) ali of the above

(b) Which of the following trashes need to be disposed off in order to save our environment?
(i) old paints, cleaning chemicals
(ii) mercury thermometers
(iii) batteries and electronic equipment.
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

(d) Garden waste can be …………. into compost.
Answer:
converted

(e) Making new things from recycled ones takes less of earth’s ……………….
Answer:
resources

(f) Recycling means using things that have been treated, to use them again. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(g) Composting is an expensive process of speeding up the decaying of waste. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(h) Find the phrase from the text which is similar to ‘throw away’ in meaning. (para 3)
Answer:
‘dispose of

17. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. At Haridwar, the first thing that hits the eye is the presence of the Ganga. It certainly appears to be a big river. But look around and away from the water and the second thing that will strike the eye is the amount of constructions on the riverside and the ghats. There are bridges, pillars, staircases that seem to lead to nowhere in particular and some of them even seem to stick out of the river waters for no discernible reason. The third thing is the ads for underwear. It seems almost mandatory, like a dip in the river.

2. The river enters the plains at Haridwar, so while it does broaden out, it is still a swift flowing river. To take a dip in the river, therefore, the technique must be followed. Hang onto the chains that have been fixed to the stairs, duck and pray that the slush beneath your feet doesn’t make
you lose balance. That is the holy dip taken by 98% of visitors, in a nutshell.

3. But I am one of the 2% visitors who travel further upriver and camp on white beaches. I go to sleep in a tent listening to the tinkle of the river. Next morning, along with a few other campers, we prepare to hand over our lives to rubber dinghies, paddles muscle, and river guide, in a bid to enjoy the white water rafting sport on the Ganga. White water rafting is one of the most religious and extreme sports around, especially when you encounter one of the rapids on the course, then it seems the river wants to convey a message. She doesn’t respect you too much and seems to tell you that she has complete power over you.

4. As you begin to savour the calmness of a plain stretch on the river, the faint roar of a rapid around the bend reaches your ears. Palms grip paddles tighter and then the dinghy starts to roll and bounce around and all that you can do, is to paddle hard and trust that the river guide will soon find a safe track.

(a) What is the first thing that strikes the eye at Haridwar?
(i) presence of a bridge
(ii) presence of the Ganga
(iii) presence of dinghies
(iv) huge presence of people
Answer:
(ii) presence of the Ganga

(b) What percentage of the visitors travel upriver and camp on white beaches?
(i) 2%
(ii) 4%
(iii) 3%
(iv) 5%
Answer:
(i) 2%

(d) The river seems to have complete ………………. Over the person.
Answer:
power

(e) The second thing that strikes the eye is the ………………… on the riverside.
Answer:
construction

(f) There is a technique to be followed to take a dip in the river. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(g) White water rafting is one of the easiest water sports. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(h) Find the word from the passage similar in meaning to “visible’. (para 1)
Answer:
discernible

18. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. India’s most famous monuments have always drawn visitors from around the world. Till now, one had to physically visit these places to enjoy the sight. Not any more, as the best known monuments of India can now be viewed online. The iconic Taj Mahal, Red Fort, Humayun’s Tomb, amongst other popular historical sites, will now be available for online viewing with a 360-degree panoramic view, thanks to a recent initiative by Google and the Archeological Survey of India (ASI).

2. Under this scheme, 30 of 100 nationally acclaimed monuments will now be viewable to one-third of the world’s population. The Minister of Culture in India launched this project at Safdarjung’s Tomb. This enterprise will bring to the doorstep of every India lover a virtual view of their favourite and iconic monument of India. Millions of people will now be able to take a virtual walk through the rock-cut Jain temples of Dilwara, using the Street View Trekker technology, for the first time in India, or marvel at the Nagarjuna Konda Buddhist Stupas, in Andhra Pradesh and relive the history of Fatehpur Sikri as it was in the time of Emperor Akbar, said the organisers.

3 Besides viewing what lies inside the monuments, the organisers of this programme claim that with this device people all over the world will be able to understand India’s heritage and culture better. Thus before making up their minds about the part of India they would like to go to, they can take a virtual walk around its historical sites before coming to a firm decision.

4. According to the Google experts, a virtual view of the monument allows viewers to see the monument to the extent that is permitted at the actual site, by the authorities of the Archeological Survey of India. In this way, one can have visited many a place in India without actually taking the trouble of booking a trip to see these places. In short, it is as close to the real thing as one can possibly get.

(a) The device will provide the chance of viewing virtually India’s famous:
(i) pictures
(ii) buildings
(iii) statues
(iv) monuments
Answer:
(iv) monuments

(b) How will the device help the potential visitor to India?
(i) he/she can pick and choose the monument.
(ii) he/she has a broader choice.
(iii) he/she can take a virtual walking before making a decision.
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

(d) This initiative has been started by Google and the ASI. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(e) The Jain temples of Dilwara cannot be viewed online under this scheme. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(f) The street view trekker ……………. has been used for this kind of viewing.
Answer:
technology

(g) The monuments can be viewed in a ………………. panoramic view,
Answer:
360° degree

(h) Find the antonym of the word “real from the passage. (para 2)
Answer:
“virtual

19. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Indra Krishnamurthy Nooyi is an Indian American business executive. She is the Chairman and Chief Executive Officer of Pepsico. She is one among the world’s most powerful women. She delivered the following speech at the Rashtrapati Bhawan on 14 December 2013. She was named one of the 25 Greatest Living Legends by NDTV, and was awarded by the then President of India, Pranab Mukherjee at the Rashtrapati Bhawan.

2 Read the speech delivered by Indra Nooyi and answer the questions that follow.
Mr President and NDTV, thank you very much for this incredible honour. Malcom Gladwell in his book, Outliers says: “Who you are cannot be separated from where you came from.”

3 I left India 35 years ago, went to the USA and had tremendous success in the meritocracy. But none of that could have happened if I would not have had wonderful upbringing very much here in India. So I have a lot to thank India for. Now my three lessons I would like to share with you.

4. First, please be a lifelong student. You know when we were kids, we used to ask questions like “Why is the sky blue?”, “Why the birds flying so high?” But for some reasons, as we get older, that curiosity goes away. And if we are happy with the knowledge we have, then we are actually
going to atrophy. So, please remain a lifelong student, don’t lose that curiosity. :

5. Second, whatever you do, throw yourself into it, throw your head, heart and hands into it. I look at my job not as a job, I look at it as a Calling, as a Passion and I don’t care about the hours, about the hardships, because to me everything is a joy. So whatever you do, please look upon it as a Calling, a Passion, not as a job, not as something temporary. 6 The third and the most important one, please help others rise. Greatness comes not from a position, but from helping build a future. All of us in position of power have an obligation to pull others up. You know, as I stand here today,

I look at my responsibility not as accepting an honour, I look upon it as accepting a challenge and a responsibility, an obligation to actually make it possible for people who are younger to come up and achieve levels of greatness, so they too can be on the stage sometime in the future.

(Source: Speech delivered by Indra Nooyi at the Rashtrapati Bhawan on 14 December 2013)

(a) What has Malcom Gladwell said in his book, that Indra Nooyi is refering to in her speech?
Answer:
Malcom Gladwell says “Who you are cannot be separated from where you came from”.

(b) What according to Indra Nooyi helped her achieve great success?
Answer:
She thanks her upbringing in India that helped her achieve great success.

(c) What is the first lesson that Indra Nooyi has talked about in her speech?
Answer:
She asks us to always be a student i.e. never let that spark of curiosity go away. Keep increasing your knowledge.

(d) What element should we have to be a lifelong student?
Answer:
We must have curiosity to be a lifelong student.

(e) How does she look at her job?
Answer:
She looks at her job as a calling, as a position and she doesn’t care about the hardships and hours she has to put in.

(f) What is her third lesson? Why is it important?
Answer:
Her third lesson is to help others rise. It is important because greatness comes from helping build a future. Those who are in position of power have an obligation to pull others up. It’s their duty.

(g) What obligation does she talk about in her speech?
Answer:
Obligation means commitment or responsibility to make others also rise if we are capable of doing so because even we ourselves have been helped by someone to be at this position.