Category: CBSE Class 10

RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19b

These Solutions are part of RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19b.

Other Exercises

• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19a
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19b
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19c
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19d
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids MCQ
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Test Yourself

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We hope the RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19b help you. If you have any query regarding RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19b, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 4 Reproductive Health

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI   
(d) ET.
Answer:
(c) : ICSI or Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection is one of the techniques of Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) that helps couples to overcome their infertility. In ICSI, sperm is directly injected into ovum, in vitro to form zygote, which is implanted through ZIFT into woman.

Question 2.
Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will
(a) cause rapid increase in growth rate
(b) result in decline in growth rate
(c) not cause significant change in growth rate
(d) result in an explosive population/exp.
Answer:
(b) : If there is an increase in infant mortality rate (IMR) and decrease in maternal mortality rate (MMR), mothers are available to give birth to infants but the infants’ survival rate is low, which will ultimately hinder the growth rate of that particular population.

Question 3.
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
(a) suppression of gonadotropins
(b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins
(c) suppression of gametic transport
(d) suppression of fertilisation.
Answer:
(a) : Presence of prolactin hormone in the blood of lactating mothers suppresses the release of gonadotropins (FSH and LH) from the pituitary gland. Gonadotropins are required for ovulation to occur. Thus, in the absence of, gonadotropins, ovum is not released and hence chances of fertilisation are nil upto 6 months following parturition (if the mother is regularly breast-feeding). Therefore, intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive.

Question 4.
Sterilisation techniques are generally fool proof methods of contraception with least side effects. Yet, this is the last option for the couples because
(1) it is almost irreversible
(2) of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge/drive
(3) it is a surgical procedure
(4) of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country
Choose the correct option.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(d) : Sterilisation techniques are surgical procedures where, in males, vas deferens are cut and tied and in females, Fallopian tubes are cut and tied, preventing gamete transport.
Even though it is very effective it is often used as a last option by most couples. One, because it is almost irreversible. Second, because of some misconceptions like absence of ejaculation and lowering of sexual urge.Third, because it is a surgical procedure, there are certain risk of infection. Last but not least,
there are lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of our country (e.g., lack of hygiene, lack of qualified personnel etc.)

Question 5.
A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in
(a) 1950s
(b) 1960s
(c) 1980s
(d) 1990s
Answer:
(a) : The national level approach towards building a reproductively healthy society began with ‘family planning’ programmes in 1951. Over last 6 decades many other programmes have been started. In 2000, National Population Policy was launched and in 2005, National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched, with the aim of revamping the public health services in rural areas. Janani Suraksha Yojana has also been launched which includes conditional cash transfer. Other improved programmes are also initiated with the term of ‘Reproductive and child Health Care’ (RCH). Launching a number of schemes will benefit only when people are aware of them and those working at the various stages of implementation are doing their work honestly and with right intention.

Question 6.
Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
(a) 72 hrs of coitus
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(d) 72 hrs of implantation.
Answer:
(a)

Question 7.
Choose the right one among the statements given below.
(a) lUDs are generally inserted by the user herself.
(b) lUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus.
(c) lUDs suppress gametogenesis.
(d) lUDs once inserted need not be replaced.
Answer:
(b) : Copper releasing IUDs (CuT, multiload) increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms. The hormone releasing IUDs (progestaserf, LNG-20), make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms. IUDs are inserted and removed by trained doctors and they are ideal contraceptives for the females. IUDs, once inserted can be there for a long period of time (even years), especially, copper releasing IUDs. But eventually they need to be removed and replaced, as they are foreign to the body. Fertility returns, once IUDs are removed.

Question 8.
Following statements are given regarding MTP. Choose the correct options given below.
(1) MTPs are generally advised during first trimester.
(2) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method.
(3) MTPs are always surgical.
(4) MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel.
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)   
(d) (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(c) : Voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP). It is less riskier during first trimester (upto 12^th week) and requires assistance of qualified medical personnel. Surgical methods of termination of pregnancy include vacuum aspiration of the products of conception through an intra-uterine cannula, etc. It can also be induced using chemical drugs, e.g., mifepristone and prostaglandin. These drugs are taken only in the supervision of qualified medical personnel.

Question 9.
From the sexually transmitted diseases  mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs.
(a) Syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhoea
(d) Genital warts
Answer:
(b) : AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome) is caused by HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus, a retrovirus). It mainly affects the T-helper lymphocytes by infecting them. There is generally a long time lag between infection and occurrence of symptoms. Because of lowering of T-helper lymphocyte count, the person becomes vulnerable to infectious microorganisms, that otherwise, wouldn’t have caused any disease(opportunistic infection). A major example of this is tuberculosis. Weight loss also occurs in such persons.

Question 10.
Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.
(a) These are effective barriers for insemination.
(b) They do not interfere with coital act.
(c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d)

Question 11.
Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT procedure.
(a) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the Fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation.
(b) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the Fallopian tube.
(c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus.
(d) Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus.
Answer:
(None) : In test tube baby programme, ovum from donor female/wife and sperm from donor male/husband are induced to form zygote in the laboratory. The zygote is allowed to divide upto 8 blastomeres in the laboratory. Zygote or early embryo is then transferred into the Fallopian tube. This technique is called ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer).

Question 12.
The correct surgical procedure as a contracep­tive method is
(a) ovariectomy
(b) hysterectomy
(c) vasectomy
(d) Casttation
Answer:
(c) : Vasectomy is a surgical contracep­tion method performed in males. In vasectomy a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small cut on the scrotum.

Question 13.
Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the females. Choose the correct option from the statements given below.
(1) They are introduced into the uterus.
(2) They are placed to cover the cervical region.
(3) They act as physical barriers for sperm entry.
(4) They act as spermicidal agents.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) : Diaphragms are soft, hemispherical rubber cups fitted inside the vagina over the neck (cervix) of the uterus acting as physical barrier for sperm entry. When combined with the use of a chemical spermicide, they provide reliable contraception.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Reproductive health refers only to healthy reproductive functions. Comment.
Answer:
According to WHO (World” Health Organisation), reproductive health means total well being of a person in all aspects of reproduction, i.e. physical, emotional, behavioral and social. It does not only refer to healthy reproductive functions.

Question 2.
Comment on the Reproductive and Child Health Care programme of the government to improve the reproductive health of the people
Answer:
RCH (Reproductive and Child Health Care) Programme aims at improving reproductive health of the society. Various measures undertaken by this programme include creating awareness among people about various reproduction related aspects, providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society, educating fertile couples about birth control measures, prenatal and postnatal care of mother and child, etc.

Question 3.
The present population growth rate in India is alarming. Suggest ways to check it.
Answer:
Ways to check present population growth rate are:
(1) Educating people by various audiovisual means about the advantages of small families.
(2) Making them aware of ill effects of overpopulation.
(3) Implementing family planning pro­grammes sincerely to achieve zero population growth.
(4) Increasing marriageable age limit.

Question 4.
STDscan be considered as self-invited diseases. Comment.
Answer:
Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) can be considered as self-invited diseases because one could be free of these by following simple precautions. These are as follows:

• Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
• Always use condoms during coitus.
• In case of doubt, one should go to a doctor for early detection and complete treatment.

Question 5.
Suggest the reproduction related aspects in which counselling should be provided at the school level.
Answer:
Introduction of sex education in schools is another step to give right information to the young minds about reproductive organs, accessory organs of reproduction, secondary sexual characters, adolescence and related changes, safe and hygienic sexual practices, sexually transmitted diseases, birth control methods etc. This knowledge will save them from myths and misconceptions about sex related aspects.

Question 6.
Mention the primary aim of the “Assisted Reproductive Technology” (ART) programme.
Answer:
ART (Assisted Reproductive Technology) programme assists the infertile couples to have children through some special techniques. It includes various programmes like test tube babies, ZIFT, GIFT, AIT, ICSI etc.

Question 7.
What is the significance of progesterone- estrogen combination as a contraceptive measure?
Answer:
Birth control pills like Mala D and Mala N have progesterone-estrogen combinations, and are commonly called combination pills. They inhibit ovulation and implantation.

Question 8.
Strict conditions are to be followed in medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) procedures. Mention two reasons.
Answer:
Two reasons for following strict condi­tions in medical termination of pregnancy (MTPs) are:

1. It is being misused to abort even the normal female foetuses.
2. MTP performed after first trimester i.e., 12 weeks of pregnancy becomes riskier as foetus becomes more deeply associated with uterine tissue of mother.

Question 9.
Males in whom testes fail to descend to the scrotum are generally infertile. Why?
Answer:
Sperms need slightly lower temperature than body temperature to survive, which is provided by scrotal sac. If testes fail to descend into scrotum, sperms will get killed at high temperature present in abdomen and the person will become infertile.

Question 10.
Mention two advantages of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method.
Answer:
Two advantages of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method are as follows:

1. During intense lactation after parturition, mother does not undergo menstruation and ovulation as high levels of prolactin suppresses ‘ secretion of gonadotropins from anterior pituitary.
2. No medicines or devices are used in this method thus, side effects are almost nil.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Suggest some important steps that you would recommend to be taken to improve the reproductive health standards in India.
Answer:
Following measures are needed to be undertaken to improve the reproductive health standards in India :

1. Implementation of RCH (Reproductive and .Child Health Care) and family  planning programmes.
2. To follow child immunisation programme.
3. Introduction of sex education in schools to remove myths and misconceptions about sex related issues.
4. To impose statutory ban on amniocentesis and to check female foeticide.
5. To educate people about various health related programmes and family planning programmes.
6. To control sexually transmitted diseases.
7. Create fertility clinics to diagnose and treat disorders related to infertility.

Question 2.
The procedure of GIFT involves the transfer of female gamete to the Fallopian tube. Can gametes be transferred to the uterus to achieve the same result? Explain.
Answer:
The results will not be the same if gametes are introduced into the uterus, instead of Fallopian tube in the procedure of GIFT. This can be explained as follows. The Fallopian tube and its micro environment are ideal for fertilisation and early embryo development. The anatomy and physiology of Fallopian tube plays an important role in egg transport and fertilisation. Zygote formed as a result of fertilisation, divides to form embryo. Complex interactions take place between oviducal epithelium and the embryo. Human oviducal cells are known to secrete growth factors, cytokines and embryotrophic factors (ETFs) that enhance and support the development of the pre­implantation embryos. On the other hand, the uterine environment is not appropriate for the survival of the gametes, they may undergo degeneration or get phagocytosed in uterus and zygote formation will not be achieved.

Question 3.
Copper ions-releasing lUDs are more efficient than non-medicated methods. Why?
Answer:
Copper releasing IUDs like Cu-T, Cu-7, multi load 375 etc., are more efficient than non- medicated methods because non-medicated methods simply act as barriers for sperm entry into the reproductive tract of female and are not fool proof whereas copper ion releasing IUDs release Cu ions which suppress the sperm motility and fertilising capacity of the sperms and act as better contraceptives.

Question 4.
What are the probable factors that contributed to population explosion in India?
Answer:
Factors favouring population explosion are :

1. Lack of education in developing countries.
2. Lack of entertainment and gainful employ­ment in under-developed countries.
3. Early marriage, child labour.
4. Desire of male child, traditional religious beliefs etc.

Question 5..
Briefly explain IVE and ET. What are the conditions in which these methods are advised?
Answer:
In 1VF (In Vitro Fertilisation), fertilisation takes place outside the body of female in similar conditions as that in the body followed by E.T (Embryo Transfer). It is performed as follows:

1. Ova from the wife/donor female and sperms from husband/donor male are collected in hygienic manner.
2. Both ova and sperms are kept in culture medium under aseptic conditions.
3. Gametes are induced to fuse, and form zygote under simulated conditions.

In ET (Embryo Transfer) technique, developing embryo is transferred from culture medium to female reproductive tract. It is performed as follows:

1. Zygote is induced in culture medium to develop.
2. Endometrium is stimulated to be prepared for implantation.
3. Embryo is transferred to Fallopian tubes in 8 celled condition or transferred to uterus when it is at 16-32 celled stage. When in a woman normal conception is not possible because of blocked oviducts or spermicidal secretions in the vagina or when a woman cannot produce ova or man cannot produce sperms. In such conditions these methods are advised.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of natural methods of contraception over artificial methods?
Answer:
Natural methods of contraception include rhythm method, coitus interruptus and lactational amenorrhea. These methods do not involve use of any contraceptive or any chemical or surgery therefore, do not have any side effects. On the other hand, artificial methods of contraception which include IUDs, oral pills etc., have certain drawbacks. IUDs may cause occasional haemorrhage or infections. Combined oral pills generally have side effects like nausea, breast tenderness, weight gain, breakthrough bleeding and melasma etc.

Question 7.
What are the conditions in which medical termination of pregnancy is advised?
Answer:
The conditions in which medical termination of pregnancy is advised are as follows :

1. To get rid of unwanted pregnancy either due to unprotected intercourse or failure of the contraceptive used or rape.
2. If baby is suffering from an incurable and congenital developmental defect.
3. If continuation of pregnancy is harmful or even fatal either to mother, or to foetus or both.

Question 8.
Comment on the essential features required for an ideal contraceptive.
Answer:
An ideal contraceptive should be:

1. User friendly
2. Easily available and cheaper
3. Effective but also reversible
4. With no or least side effects
5. Should not interfere with the sexual act.

Question 9.
All reproductive tract infections RTIs are STDs, but all STDs are not RTIs. Justify with example.
Answer:
STDs are sexually transmitted diseases and include gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital warts, chlamydiasis, hepatitis B and AIDS. Hepatitis B and AIDS are not RTFs because they do not cause any infection in the reproductive tract but are spread through sexual means, whereas other diseases are STDs as well as RTIs.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the Assisted Reproductive Techniques practiced to help infertile couples? Describe any three techniques.
Answer:
Assisted reproductive techniques are employed to diagnose and treat the infertile couples to have children. A few techniques are described as follows:

(1) Test tube babies : In this technique the fusion of ovum and sperm is done outside the body of the female to form a zygote Which is allowed to divide to form an embryo. This embryo is- then implanted in the uterus, where it develops into a foetus.

(2) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) : This method is vised in females, who can not produce ova, hut can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and further development of embryo in the oviducts. In such cases, ovum from the donor female is introduced into the Fallopian tube of such female. Such women accept sperms from their husbands during copulation.

(3) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) : It is another specialised technique to form an embryo in laboratory in which a I  sperm is directly injected into the ovum placed in a nutrient broth. The zygote or early embryo is later transferred to the Fallopian tube of woman by ZIFT.

Question 2.
Discuss the mode of action and advantages/disadvantages of hormonal contraceptives.
Answer:
Various hormonal contraceptives are:

1. Hormone releasing IUDs
2. Oral pills
3. Implants
4. Hormone injections

(1) Hormone releasing IUDs – Hormone  releasing IUDs include progestasert and LNG-20. They turn the cervix hostile to spermatozoa and bring changes in  the uterus making it unsuitable for implantation.

(2) Oral pills – They contain progestin  (progesterone like synthetic hormone) alone or a combination of synthetic progesterone and oestrogen. They inhibit the secretion of FSH and LH from anterior pituitary and inhibit ovulation and implantation. They also retard the entry of sperms in the uterus by changing the quality of cervical mucus.

(3) Subcutaneous implants – In this contraception method, six matchstick sized capsules containing synthetic progesterone are inserted under the skin of inner arm above the elbow. It acts similarly to oral contraceptives by blocking ovulation and thickening the cervical mucus to prevent sperm transport.

(4) Hormone injections – These are pro­ gesterone injections which are given once every 3 months and release hormone slowly and prevent ovulation. follows :
Various contraceptive techniques play significant role in checking the uncontrolled growth of human population. They are required to prevent pregnancy.

Disadvantages of hormonal contraceptives are as follows :
These hormone releasing contraceptives especially have many side effects. Use of IUDs possesses the risk of perforation of uterus and infection. Oral contraceptives can cause nausea, weight gain, breast tenderness, breakthrough bleeding, high blood pressure and melasma.

Question 3.
STDs are a threat to reproductive health. Describe any two such diseases and suggest preventive measures.
Answer:
Sexually transmitted disease (STDs) are threat to reproductive health. They are infectious, communicable and acquired diseases. They may lead to various complications like PID (pelvic inflammatory diseases), abortions, still birth, ectopic pregnancies, infertility or even cancer of reproductive tract. Some sexually transmitted diseases are discussed as follows :
(1) AIDS — It is caused by Human Immuno­deficiency Virus (HIV)
Symptoms – Fever, lethargy, pharyngitis, weight loss, nausea, headache, rashes etc.
HIV attacks helper T-lymphocytes. The patient gets immune deficiency and he/ she is unable to protect himself/herself against infections.

(2) Hepatitis B – It is caused by Hepatitis B virus (HBV).
Symptoms – Fatigue, jaundice, persistent low grade fever, rash and abdominal pain. It can also cause cirrhosis and possibly liver cancer.
STDs can be prevented by following ways:

• Use of condoms during coitus.
• Avoiding sex with unknown partners/ multiple partners.
• In case of doubt, consulting a qualified doctor for early detection and getting complete- treatment if diagnosed with disease.

Question 4.
Do you justify the statutory ban on amniocentesis in our country? Give reasons.
Answer:
Amniocentesis (along with sonography) is being misused to determine the sex of the foetus. Due to small family norm, along with religion and social practices, every family wants a male child. The female foetus is destroyed. This has resulted in decline in female population to less than 50 per 100 males in certain areas. Such an imbalance in sex ratio is bound to create social problems for the future generations. Therefore, statutory ban on the test is a rational move.

Question 5.
Enumerate and describe any five reasons for introducing sex education to school-going children.
Answer:
Introduction of sex education is necessary in schools because of the following reasons:

1. ,It will provide correct information about sex related matters and reproductive organs and will help removing all misconceptions and myths.
2. It can explain changes during adolescence. Help can be provided if there is any abnormality.
3. It can predict the changes in behaviour and prevent development of mental problems.
4. It will explain the harms of early sex and early marriage.
5. It will provide proper knowledge of cleanliness of genitalia and other organs.
6. It will provide correct information about sexually transmitted diseases.
7. It will give information about methods of family planning and hygienic sexual practices.

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 4 Reproductive Health help you. If you have any query regarding .NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 4 Reproductive Health, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy.

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Question 1.
What do you understand by globalization? Explain in your own words.
Answer:
Globalisation in today’s world has come to imply many things. It is the process by which the people of the world are unified into a single society and function together. This term is also often used to refer to economic globalization: the integration of national economies into the international economy through trade, foreign direct investments, capital flows, migration and the spread of technology.

Question 2.
What were the reasons for putting barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment by the Indian government? Why did it wish to remove these barriers?
Answer:
Barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment were put by the Indian government to protect domestic producers from foreign competition, especially when industries had just begun to come up in the 1950s and 1960s. At this time, competition from imports would have been a death blow to growing industries. Hence, India allowed imports of only essential goods.

Later, in the 1990s, the government wished to remove these barriers because it felt that domestic producers were ready to compete with foreign industries. It felt that foreign competition would in fact improve the quality of goods produced by Indian industries. This decision was also supported by powerful international organisations.

Question 3.
How would flexibility in labour laws help companies?
Answer:
Flexibility in labour laws would help companies in the ways mentioned below :

• It will help companies in being competitive and progressive.
• Flexibility in labour laws can help the companies to decrease their production cost by employing labourers only for short period of time when there is need instead of employing them for long period of time or yearly basis.
• By easing up on labour laws, company heads (managers) can negotiate wages and terminate employment, depending on market conditions. This will increase the competitiveness of the companies.
• The companies can ask the workers to work overtime when there is more pressure to complete the work.

Question 4.
What are the various ways in which MNCs set up or control the production in other countries?
Answer:
The various ways in which MNCs set up, or control, production in other countries are by buying out domestic companies or making the latter work for them. Sometimes, MNCs buy mass produce of domestic industries, and then sell it under their own brand name, at much higher rates, in foreign countries. MNCs look towards developing nations to set up trade because in such places, the labour and manufacturing costs are much lower.

Question 5.
Why do developed countries want developing countries to liberalise their trade and investment ? What do you think should the developing countries demand in return ?
Answer:
(1)

• World Trade Organisation which was started at the initiative of the developed countries says that all barriers of foreign trade and investment are harmful. It is supposed to allow free trade for all.
• In practice it is seen that the developed countries have unfairly retained trade barriers.
• On the other hand, WTO rules have forced the developing countries to remove trade barriers.
• Developed countries produce goods at a very low cost. The surplus goods are sold in
  other countries at a fairly higher price. This way they earn profits. So developed countries want
  developing countries to liberalise their trade and investment.

(2) The developed countries are biased against the developing countries. They have been

following wrong practices. The example is the debate on agriculture sector. In the USA, the share of agriculture in GDP is 1% and its share in total employment a tiny 0.5%. And this very small percentage of people who are engaged in agriculture in the US receive massive sums of money from the US government for production and for exports to other countries at low prices. This adversely affects farmers in these countries.

In view the above facts the developing countries should demand for fair trade practices to be followed by the developed countries under which they should stop giving subsidies to their agricultural sector. Trade barriers put unfairly should be removed. Only then there would be a free and fair trade in the world and the interest of the developing countries would be protected.

Question 6.
“The impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Explain this statement.
Answer:
“The impact of globalisation has not been uniform”. The truth of this statement can be verified if we observe the impact of MNCs on domestic producers and the industrial working class. Small producers of goods such as batteries, capacitors, plastics, toys, tires, dairy products, and vegetable oil have been hit hard by competition from cheaper imports. Also, workers are now employed “flexibly” in the face of growing competition. This has reduced their job security. Efforts are now on to make globalisation “fair” for all since it has become a worldwide phenomenon.

Question 7.
How has the liberalization of trade and investment policies helped the globalization process?
Answer:
Liberalization has the following effects :

1. Goods can now be imported and exported easily.
2. Companies can set up factories and offices in other countries. For example, Ford Motors, an American company came to India in 1995 and set up a large plant near Chennai. This MNC not only produces cars for the Indian market, it also exports cars to other developing countries and exports car components for its many factories around the world.
3. Activities of many MNCs has increased foreign investment and foreign trade which has led to greater integration of production and markets across countries or globalisation process.

As a result of above, more and more countries are coming into closer contacts with each other due to MNCs. Therefore, liberalisation of trade and investment policies have helped in the globalisation process.

Question 8.
How does foreign trade lead to the integration of markets across countries ? Explain with an example other than those given here.
Answer:
Foreign trade leads to integration of markets across countries by the processes of imports and exports. Producers can make available their goods in markets beyond domestic ones via exports. Likewise, buyers have more choice on account of imports from other countries. This is how markets are integrated through foreign trade. For example, Japanese electronic items are imported to India, and have proved to be a tough competition for less-technologically-advanced companies here.

Question 9.
Globalisation will continue in the future. Can you imagine what the world would be like twenty years from now ? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
(a) Globalisation is a step towards the integration between countries through foreign trade and foreign investments by multinational corporations. Integration of production and integration of markets are the main objectives of globalisation. Rapid improvement in technol­ogy, liberalisation of trade and investment policies and the role of WTO has facilitated the process of globalisation.

(b) But in practice the globalisation has not benefited all the people. Moreover many rules of the WTO are biased against the developing countries. They are designed to force them to open their economies in the interest of the developed countries. For example, in the USA, the government gives massive sums of money to farmers whose share in total employment is only 0.5%, for production and for exports to other countries at abnormally low prices. Thus surplus farm products are sold in other country markets adversely affecting farmers in those countries. It is not a fair trade practice.

If such policies continue then the position of the developing countries may deteriorate. Many industries may not be able to compete and face closure. There will be less employment opportunities in the developing countries.

(c) However, efforts are being made to have a fair globalisation to ensure that its benefits are shared by all. Under these circumstances, the world after twenty years from now would bring people closer to each other. All the people would be benefited. The standard of living would improve and people would live a happier contented life than at present. But if the efforts for a fair globalisation fails then the condition of the developing countries of the world worsens because the regulations of the WTO will remain biased against the developing countries.

Question 10.
Supposing you find two people arguing: One is saying globalization has hurt our country’s development. The other is telling, globalisation is helping India de­velop. How would you respond to these arguments?
Answer:
Globalisation has hurt our country’s development because: firstly, it has led to the annihilation of small producers who face stiff competition from cheaper imports. Secondly, workers no longer have job security and are employed “flexibly”.
Globalisation is helping India develop on account of the following reasons: firstly, the competition it entails has led to rise in the quality of products in the market. Secondly, it has made available a wider variety of goods in the market, for the buyer to choose from. Now, imported goods are easily available alongside domestic products.

Question 11.
Fill in the blanks :

Indian buyers have a greater choice of goods than they did two decades back. This is closely associated with the process of (1)____________ . Markets in India are selling goods produced in many other countries. This means there is increasing (2)__________ with other countries. Moreover, the rising number of brands that we see in the markets might be produced by MNCs in India. MNCs are investing in India because
(3) ______ . While consumers have more choices in the market, the effect of rising (4)______ and (5)_________ has meant greater (6)___________ among the produc­tion
Answer:

1. globalisation
2. cooperation foreign
3. it has been beneficial for them
4. investment
5. foreign trade
6. competition

Match the following :

Question 12.

Answer:
(i)  (b) Garments, footwear, sports items
(ii)  (e) Trade barriers
(iii) (d)Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy
(iv) (c) Call centres
(v) (a) Automobiles.

Question 13.
Choose the most appropriate option :
(1) The past two decades of globalisation has seen rapid movements in
(a) goods, services, and people between countries.
(b) goods, services, and investments between countries.
(c) goods, investments, and people between countries.

(2) The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to
(a) set up new factories.
(b) buy existing local companies.
(c) form partnerships with local companies.

(3) Globalisation has led to an improvement in living conditions
(a) of all the people.
(b) of people in developed countries.
(c) of workers in developing countries.
(d) none of the above.
Answer:

1. (b) goods, services and investments between countries.
2. (b) buy existing local companies.
3. (d) none of the above.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 Gender Religion and Caste

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 Gender Religion and Caste.

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Question 1.
Mention different aspects of life in which women are discriminated or disadvantaged in India.
Answer:
Sexual difference is biological but gender difference is sociological. Women on the basis of gender have always been discriminated in almost all the societies of the world including India. Ours is a male-dominated patriarchal society. Women face disadvantage, discrimination, and oppression in various ways as mentioned below :

(1) Different aspects of life in which women are discriminated or disadvantaged in India are as given below :

1. Education :
   • Women are deprived of equal access to education. Thus, the literacy rate among women is only 54 percent as compared to 76 percent among men.
   • A smaller proportion of girl students go for higher education because in spite of their better performance than boys, they drop out as parents prefer to spend their resources for their son’s education,
   • They do not want to spend equally on their sons and.daughters.
2. Discrimination in job opportunities and remuneration or salary :
   • The number of women on highly paid jobs is less than men.
   • Women are discriminated in job opportunities as well as in appointment among highly paid and valued jobs,
   • Under Equal Wages Act, equal wages should be paid for equal work. In practice almost in every sphere, women are paid less than men, even when both do exactly the same work,
   • On average an Indian woman works one hour more than an average man every day. Yet much of her work is not paid and therefore often not valued.
3. Preference for sons: Even now in many parts of India, parents prefer to have sons, There are cases where a girl child is aborted before she is born. Due to sex-selective abortion, the sex-ratio has declined from 927 in 2001 to 850 or 800 in some places.
4. Cases of harassment, exploitation, and violence: Women are exploited by their employers. They are sexually assaulted at homes. They are not safe during their journey at night. They are subjected to various forms of domestic violence such as beating and harassment.

Question 2.
State different forms of communal politics with one example each.
Answer:
The most common expression of communalism is in everyday beliefs. These routinely involve religious prejudices, stereotypes of religious communities and belief in the superiority of one’s religion over other religions. This is so common that we often fail to notice it, even when we believe in it.

A communal mind often leads to a quest for political dominance of one’s own religious community. For those belonging to the majority community, this takes the form of majoritarian dominance. For those belonging to the minority community, it can take the form of a desire to form a separate political unit.

Question 3.
State how caste inequalities are still continuing in India.
Answer:
Caste has not disappeared from contemporary India. Some of the older aspects of caste have persisted. Even now most people marry within their own caste or tribe. Untouchability has not ended completely, despite constitutional prohibition. The effects of centuries of advantages and disadvantages continue to be felt today. The caste groups that had access to education under the old system have done very well in acquiring modern education as well. Those groups that did not have access to education or were prohibited from acquiring it have naturally lagged behind. That is why there is a disproportionately large presence of ‘upper caste’ among the urban middle classes in our country. Caste continues to be closely linked to economic status.

Question 4.
State reasons to say that caste alone cannot determine election results in India.
Answer:
The caste alone cannot determine election results in India due to the reasons as mentioned
below :

1. No majority of one caste in a constituency: No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one single caste. So, every candidate and party needs to win the confidence of more than one caste and community to win elections.
2. No votes of one cast/community: No party wins the votes of all the voters of a caste or community. When people say that caste is a vote bank of one party, it usually means that a large proportion of the voters from that caste vote for that party.
3. Candidates from the same caste :
   • Many political parties may put up candidates from the same caste if that caste is believed to dominate the electorate in a particular constituency.
   • In addition to this some voters have more than one candidate from their caste while many voters have no candidate from their caste. All these factors divide the voters between two or more candidates.
4. The ruling party and the sitting members frequently lose elections in our country. This could not have happened if all castes and communities were frozen in their political preferences.
5. Sometimes the voters have strong attachment to political parties which is often stronger than their attachment to their caste or community.
6. People within the same caste or community may have different interests depending on their economic condition. Rich and poor or men and women from the same caste often vote very differently.
7. Lastly people make their own assessment about the performance of their leaders and this differs with one another.
   Thus it can be concluded that caste alone cannot determine election results in India.

Question 5.
What is the status of women’s representation in India’s legislative bodies?
Answer:
In India, the proportion of women in the legislature has been very low. For example, the percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha has never reached even 10 percent of its total strength. Their share in the state assemblies is less than 5 percent. In this respect, India is among the bottom group of nations in the world. India is behind the averages for several developing countries of Africa and Latin America. In the government, cabinets are largely all-male even when a woman becomes the Chief Minister or the Prime Minister.

Question 6.
Mention any two constitutional provisions that make India a secular state.
Answer:
Two constitutional provisions that make India a secular state are given below :

1. There is no official religion in India. Our Constitution does not give a special status to any religion like Islam in Pakistan, Buddhism in Sri Lanka and Christianity in England. State observes an attitude of neutrality and impartiality towards all religions.
2. The Constitution provides to all persons and communities freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion or not to follow any.

Question 7.
When we speak of gender divisions, we usually refer to :
(a) Biological difference between men and women.
(b) Unequal roles assigned by society to men and women.
(c) Unequal child sex ratio. .
(d) Absence of voting rights for women in democracies.
Answer:
(b) Unequal roles assigned by society to men and women.

Question 8.
In India, seats are reserved for women in
(a) Lok sabha
(b) State legislative assemblies
(c) Cabinets
(d) Panchayati Raj bodies
Answer:
(d) Panchayati Raj bodies

Question 9.
Consider the following statements on the meaning of communal politics: Communal politics is based on the belief that :
A. One religion is superior to that of others.
B. People belonging to different religions can live together happily as equal citizens.
C. Followers of a particular religion constitute one community.
D. State power cannot be used to establish the domination of one religious group over others.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A, B and D
(c) A and C
(d) B and D
Answer:
(c) A and C

Question 10.
Which among the following statements about India’s Constitution is wrong?
(a) prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
(b) gives official status to one religion.
(c) provides to all individuals the freedom to profess any religion.
(d) ensures the equality of citizens within religious communities.
(b) gives official status to one religion.
Answer:
(b) gives official status to one religion.

Question 11.
Social divisions based on ……………… are peculiar to India.
Answer:
caste

Question 12.
Match List I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

	List I	List II
1.	A person who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men	A. Communalist
2.	A person who says that religion is the principal basis of community	B. Feminist
3.	A person who thinks that caste is the principal basis of community	C. Secularist
4.	A person who does not discriminate others on the basis of religious beliefs	D. Castiest

 

	1	2	3	4
(a)	B	C	A	D
(b)	B	A	D	C
(c)	D	C	A	B
(d)	C	A	B	D

Answer:
(b) B, A, D, C is the correct answer.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 Gender Religion and Caste help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 Gender Religion and Caste, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy.

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks using the correct option given in the brackets :

1. Employment in the service sector__________ increased to the same extent as production. (has/has not)
2. Workers in the__________ sector do not produce goods. (tertiary/agricultural)
3. Most of the workers in the___________ sector enjoy job security. (organised/unorganised)
4. A_______ proportion of labourers in India are working in the unorganised sector.  (large/small)
5. Cotton is a__________ product and cloth is a____________ (natural/manufactured)
6. The activities in primary, secondary and tertiary sectors are______________ (independent/interdependent)

Answer:

1. has not
2. tertiary
3. organised
4. large
5. natural; manufactured
6. interdependent

Question 2.

1. How the sectors are classified on the basis of ownership of enterprises?
2. What is the secondary sector?
3.  What is GDP?
4. In terms of GDP what was the share of the tertiary sector in 2003?

Answer:

1. Public and Private sector.
2. Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural process is called the secondary sector.
3. GDP is the sum total of the value of all final goods and services of three sectors.
4. Between 50 percent to 60 percent.

Question 3.

1. How the problem of unirrigated land can be solved?
2. How the problem of low prices for crops can be solved? Give one solution.
3. How the debt burden of the farmers can be reduced?
4. How people/farmers can be provided a job in the offseason?
5. “The farmers are compelled to sell their grains to the local traders soon after harvest.” How this can be avoided?

Answer:

1. The problem of unirrigated land can be solved by the construction of canals by the government.
2. This problem can be solved by setting up cooperative marketing societies.
3. The debt burden of the farmers can be reduced by banks by granting credit at low interest.
4. The farmers can be given jobs in the offseason by setting up agro-based mills.
5. This can be avoided by the procurement of foodgrains by the government at a reasonable/ fixed price.

Question 4.
Classify the following workers under their correct sector :
Tourist guide, vegetable vendor, cobbler, Sahara Airlines
Answer:

1. Tourist guide – Organised sector
2. Vegetable vendor – Unorganised sector
3. Cobbler – Service sector
4. Sahara Airlines – Private sector

Question 5.
A research scholar looked at the working people in the city of Surat and found the following :

Place of work	Nature of employment	Percentage of working people
(1) In offices and factories registered with the government	Organised	15
(2) Own shops, office, clinics in marketplaces with formal license		15
(3) People working on the street, construction workers, domestic workers		20
(4) Working in small workshops usually not registered with the government

Complete the table. What is the percentage of workers in the unorganized sector in this
city (in percent) ?                                                                                            ,
Answer:
Complete table is given below :

Place of work	Nature of employment	Percentage of working people
(1) In offices and factories registered with the government	Organised	15
(2) Own shops, office, clinics in marketplaces with formal license	Organised	15
(3) People working on the street, construction workers, domestic workers	Unorganised	20
(4) Working in small workshops usually not registered with the government	Unorganised	50

Question 6.
Do you think the classification of economic activities into primary, second­ary, and tertiary sectors is useful? Explain how.
Answer:
The classification of economic activities into primary, tertiary and secondary is useful on account of the information it provides on how and where the people of a country are employed. also this helps in ascertaining as to which sector of economic activity contributes more or less to the country’s GDP and per capita income.

If the tertiary sector is developing much faster than the primary sector, then it implies that agriculture is depleting, and the government must take measures to rectify this. The knowledge that the agricultural profession is becoming unpopular or regressive can only come if we know which sector it belongs to. Hence it is necessary to classify economic activities into these there sectors for smooth economic administration and development.

Question 7.
For each of the sectors that we came across in this chapter, why should one focus on employment and GDP? Could there be other issues that should be examined? Discuss.
Answer:
For each of the sectors mentioned in this chapter, our focus should definitely be on employment and GDP. This is because growth in GDP and full employment are common goals of Five Year Plans and they also determine the size of a country’s economy. A focus on employment and GDP helps us to calculate and monitor the most important factors like per capita income, productivity, changes in employment rate, and contribution to GDP by the three sectors of the economy and thus, takes necessary steps required for the upliftment of the country’s economy as a whole.
Yes, the other issues which should be examined are

1. balanced regional development
2. equality in income and wealth among the people of the country.
3. how to eradicate poverty
4. modernization of technology
5. self-reliance of the country
6. how to achieve surplus food production in the country.

Question 8.
Make a long list of all kinds of work that you find adults around you doing for a living. In what way can you classify them? Explain your choice.
Answer:
(1) List of working adults: Engineer, doctor, washerman, electrician, shopkeeper, milk vendor, insurance manager, professor, government employee, a zamindar, vegetable seller, domestic help, a factory owner.

(2) Classification of the above kinds of work :

• Primary sector: Zamindar (landowner).
• Secondary sector: Factory owner.
• Tertiary sector: Engineer, doctor, washerman, electrician, shopkeeper, milk vendor, insurance manager, professor, government employee, vegetable vendor, and domestic help.
• Organised sector: Engineer, insurance manager, and doctor.
• Unorganised sector: Washerman, vegetable vendor, milk vendor, shopkeeper, electri­cian and domestic help.
• Public sector: Government employee and professor in a government college.
• Private sector: Engineer and doctor.

Question 9.
How is the tertiary sector different from other sectors? Illustrate with a few examples.
Answer:
The tertiary sector different from other two sectors. This is because other two sectors produce goods but, this sector does not produce goods by itself. But the activities under this sector help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities are an aid or support for the production process. For example, transport, communication, storage, banking, insurance, trade activities etc. For this reason this sector is also known as service sector.

Question 10.
What do you understand by disguised unemployment? Explain with an example each from the urban and rural areas.
Answer:
(1)

1. Disguised unemployment is a situation in which more people are engaged in an activity than the required ones,
2. This kind of Buder-employment is hidden in contrast to someone who does not have a job and is clearly visible as unemployed.
3. Hence it is also called disguised unemployment,
4. Under disguised unemployment even if the surplus people are removed from work, the production does not suffer.

(2) Rural areas: In rural area in India, more people are employed in agriculture than necessary. Even if you move a few people out, production will not be affected. As such workers in the agricultural sector are underemployed.

(3) Urban areas:

1. The disguised unemployment or under-employment exists in urban areas too. For example, there are thousands of casual workers in the service sector who search for daily employment,
2. They are employed as painters, plumbers and repairpersons and other doing odd jobs,
3. Many of them do not find work every day,
4. Similarly, there are other people of the service sector on the street pushing a cart or selling something who may spend the whole day but earn very little. They do this work because they do not have better opportunities.

Question 11.
Distinguish between open unemployment and disguised unemployment.
Answer:
The differences between open unemployment and disguised unemployment are as mentioned below :

Open Unemployment	Disguised Unemployment
(1) Open unemployment implies a situation when a person is unable to find any gainful work or job	Disguised unemployment is a situation in which more people are engaged in an activity than the required ones.
(2)   A person is able and willing to work but does not find gainful work. He does nothing	person gets work and are actually engaged in such an activity that he appears to be employed but he is not fully employed. He does not work upto his full capacity.
(3) In open unemployment a person loses his personal identity and sometimes suffers from mental illness. He may commit crimes and even make an attempt of suicide because it leads to depression.	In such cases there are surplus workers and if they are removed from work, production does not suffer. In this all remain busy in doing work although they do not work to their maximum strength.

Question 12.
“The tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy.” Do you agree? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
No, I do not agree with the statement that tertiary sector is not playing any significant role in the development of Indian economy. The reasons are as follows:

1. In terms of GDP this sector emerged as the largest producing sector in India surpassing the primary and secondary sectors. In 1973, the share of the tertiary sector in GDP was about 35% which increased to more than 50% in 2003. Over the thirty years between 1973 and 2003, while production in all three sectors increased, it has been the most in tertiary sector.

2. In terms of employment also the rate of growth of employment in tertiary sector between the same period was nearly 250%. This was negligible in primary sector.

Question 13.
Service sector in India employs two different kinds of people. Who are these ?
Answer:
Service sector in India employs two different kinds of people as mentioned below :

1. There are highly skilled and educated workers such as teachers and doctors.
2. On the other hand, a large number of workers are engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons etc. who barely manage to earn a living. They perform these services because they do not have any other work to do.

Question 14.
Workers are exploited in the unorganised sector. Do you agree with this view ? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
It is a fact that the workers are exploited in the unorganised sector due to the following reasons :

1. The unorganised sector consists of small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government.
2. There are rules and regulations but generally these are not followed by the employers.
3. Workers are employed on irregular basis. They are low paid and there is no provision
   for overtime, paid leave, holidays, leave due to sickness and other facilities e.g., provident fund.
4. Jobs are not secured. They can be asked to leave without any reason at the sweet will of the employer. Generally, when there is less work due to any reason, some workers are asked to leave.
5. Workers in this sector face social discrimination too because most of them belong to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes.
6. Some workers who do repair work etc. are also exploited as they do not get regular work.
7. Farmers work on their own and hire labourers as and when they require.

Question 15.
How are the activities in the economy classified on the basis of employment conditions?
Answer:
Organised sector and unorganised sector.

Question 16.
Compare the employment conditions prevailing in the organised and unor­ganised sectors.
Answer:
The conditions in the organised and unorganised sectors are as follows :

Organised Sector	Unorganised Sector
(1) Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work.	(1) Unorganised sector is characterised by small and scattered units where the terms of employment are not regular and people have no assured work
(2) They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as Factories Act. Minimum Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act, Shops and Establishments Act etc.	(2) They are not registered by the government and do not follow any rules and regulations.
(3) It is called organised because it has some formal processes and procedures.	(3) It is called unorganised because it has no formal processes and procedures. All decisions are taken by the employers themselves.
(4) Some of these people may not be employed by any one but may work on their own but they too have to register (Tourist Guide) themselves with the government and follow rules and regulations.	(4) There is no need for registration. Employers are all in all. They take decisions in their own interest.
(5) They have fixed working hours. If they work more they get overtime. They get regular salary at the end of the month.	(5)There are no fixed working hours. The employees have to work according to their work and employers’ wish.
(6) Facilities such as PF, medical allowances are given to them.	(6) No facilities such as PF, medical allowance are generally given in this sector.
(7) They get paid holidays such as Sunday and other government holidays.	(7) They do not get paid holidays. However it is the sweet will of the employer to grant any holiday.
(8) Appointment letters with terms and conditions is issued to employees.	(8) Sometimes appointment letters are issued but these can be changed as and when desired by the employer.
(9)     Control of the government directly or indirectly.	(9) Generally, there is no control of the government. Rules are there but these are generally not followed by the employers.
(10)   In organised sector, a factory manager has to ensure facilities like drinking water and a safe working environment.	(10)  No arrangement such as of drinking water are made. Even if there is any such arrangement, that is rarely followed in practice.
(11) After retirement workers get pension ajid gratuity.	(11)  No pension and gratuity is granted in unorganised sector.

Question 17.
Explain the objective of implementing the NREGA 2005.
Answer:
The objective of implementing the NREGA 2005 was to provide 100 days of guaranteed employment to those people in rural India who can work, and are in need of work. This Right to Work has been implemented in 200 districts. If the government is unable to provide this employment, then it has to give unemployment allowances to the people.

Question 18.
Using examples from your area compere and contrast the activities and functions of private and public sectors?
Answer:
The activities and functions of private and public sectors in our area may be compared as mentioned below :

Private Sector	Public Sector
(1) The vegetable shops, grocery shops, sweet shops etc. are in private sector.	(1) Mother Dairy booths which sell vegetables, fruits, milk and milk products are in public sector.
(2) These are owned by private individuals.	(2) These are owned by public sector undertaking ‘Mother Dairy’
(3) Vegetables and other products are generally of good quality.	(3) The vegetables and fruits are generally of average or poor quality.
(4) The rates may be slightly higher	(4) The rates are lower than the market rates.
(5) The companies like Reliance, Tata, Airtel provide telephone and TV services which are of very good standard.	(5) MTNL provides telephone services. There are complaints against their services. On many occasions, telephones remain out of order, hut they do not charge for that period.
(6) The shopkeepers provide free home delivery service without any extra-charge.	(6) Mother Dairy or any other public under taking do not provide free home delivery service.
(7) Private schools provide education of good quality. Their students are well-dressed and disciplined. Their medium of in structions is always English.	(7) The schools run by MCD do not provide quality education. Their students are not well-dressed and disciplined. Their medium of instructions is generally Hindi.

Question 19.
Discuss and fill the following table giving one example each from your area :

	Well managed organisation	Badly managed organisation
Public sector
Private sector

Answer:

	Well managed organisation	Badly managed organisation
Public sector	MTNL	MCD
Private sector	Private Nursing Homes or Hospitals	TPDDL

 In the public sector, the services provided by MTNL are better than others and are cheap too. On the other hand, the services provided by the MCD such as sanitation are not satisfactory. Sometimes, the sewers are blocked during rainy season creating health problems in the area.

In the private sector, there are a few private nursing homes and hospitals which provide good medical facilities. But some of the companies such as TPDDL in the private sector have not risen up to the mark. There are still ‘breaks’ in the supply of electricity in the area which cause hardship to the people.

Question 20.
Give a few examples of public sector activities and explain why the govern­ment has taken them up.
Answer:
(1) A few examples of public sector activities are as mentioned below :

• Electricity – production and distribution.
• Selling of food grains – wheat and rice.
• Health and education.
• Safe drinking water.
• Housing facilities for the poor.
• To take care of the poorest and ignored regions.

(2) The government takes up the public sector activities due to the following reasons:

• The modern state is a welfare state which looks after the interests of the people. The government raises money through taxes and other ways and spends on public sector activities for the welfare of the people.
• Selling electricity at the cost of generation may push up the costs of production of industries. Small scale units may shutdown. Therefore government steps in by producing and supplying electricity at rates which these industries can afford. Govt, has to bear part of the cost.
• To have food security in the country, the government of India buys wheat and rice from farmers at a ‘fair price’. These are stored in its godowns and sold at a lower price to consumers through ration shops. The government bears some cost and in this way it supports both farmers and consumers.
• In modern welfare state, it is the responsibility of the government to provide health and education facilities for all citizens. Running proper schools and providing quality education is the duty of the government.
• In India half of children are malnourished. Hence government pays attention to aspects of human development such as availability of safe drinking water, housing facilities for the poor and food and nutrition.
• It is also the duty of the govt, to take care of the poorest and most ignored regions of the country through increased spending in such areas.

Question 21.
Explain, how public sector contributes to the economic development of a nation.
Answer:
Generally, economic development of a nation can be defined as long term increase in per capita income alongwith improvement in quality of life. The public sector contributes to the economic development of a nation in many ways as mentioned below :

• In public sector, the government owns most of the assets and provides services to the people. For example Railways and Post Offices. Railways is the biggest public undertaking. It is very useful for people, traders and industrialists. It is the most dependable mode of transport as it is least affected by weather conditions such as rain, fog compared to other modes of transport. It is better organised than any other form of transport. It is suitable for bulky and heavy goods.
  It is cheaper transport. It is the largest public undertaking. The railways provide greater employment opportunities for both skilled and unskilled labour. Over 16 lakh persons are depending upon railways for their livelihood. Thus it contributes a lot towards the economic development of the country.
• Public sector helps in development through Creation and infrastructure.
• It helps in the development of small, medium and cottage industries.
• It contributes to community development i.e., to the Human Development Index via health and educational facilities.
• It tries to ensure equality of income wealth and thus a balanced regional development.
• It ensures easy availability of goods at moderate rates.
  In India, the public sector has played a significant role in the eradication of illiteracy. The number of literates has increased from 9 per cent of females and 27 per cent of males in 1951 to 75 per cent of males and 54 per cent females in 2001. The government’s efforts in providing health facilities has raised average life expectancy from 32 years in 1950-51 to 61 years in 1993­Thus, we find that public sector contributes to the economic development of a nation in a significant way.

Question 22.
The workers in the unorganised sector need protection on the following issues : wages, safety and health. Explain with examples.
Answer:
(1) Wages: The workers in the unorganised sector do not get minimum wage fixed by the government. They are not paid any allowances like dearness allowance or city compensatory allowance. They are paid only their wages. They are not paid for the extra time, they work in the factory. They do not get any leave or paid holiday.

(2) Safety: No safety measures are taken in the factories for the protection of the workers. This results in injuries or death of labourers in the factory in case of fire or any other accident.

(3) Health: The workers in the unorganised sector are not provided any medical facilities. Whenever they fall ill or get injured, they get themselves treated by private doctors by paying for the treatment. Sometimes the working conditions are not hygienic. They are not paid any medical allowance too. Lack of medical facilities affect their health and efficiency badly.

Question 23.
A study in Ahmedabad found that out of 15,00,000 workers in the city, 11,00,000 worked in the unorganised sector. The total income of the city in this year (1997-98) was ? 60,000 million. Out of this ? 32,000 million was generated in the organised sector. Present this data as a table. What kind of ways should be thought of for generating more employment in the city ?
Answer:
(1) The data is given below as a table :

Sector	Year	Number of workers	Income
Organised	1997-98	4,00,000	32,000 million
Unorganised	1997-98	11,00,000	128,000 million
Total		15,00,000	60,000 million

(2) The following ways or steps should be taken by the government for generating more employment in the city :

1. Electricity should be provided to the factories regularly and at cheap rate especially to the small units. Government should bear part of the cost.
2. Adequate land should be given to people to’set up factories or small units.
3. Financial assistance should be given at less rate of interest.
4.  Raw materials should be made available to the factory owners and other small unit holders.
5. Transport and other facilities should be made’available.

Question 24.
The following table gives you the GDP in Rupees (crore) by the three sectors :

Year	Primary sector	Secondary sector	Tertiary sector
1950	80,000	19,000	39,000
2000	3,14,000	2,80,000	5,55,000

(1) Calculate the share of the three sectors in GDP for 1950 and 2000.
(2) Show the data as a bar diagram similar to Graph 2 in the chapter.
(3) What conclusions can we draw from the bar graph
Answer:
(1) The share of the three sectors in GDP for 1950 and 2000 was as given below :

	1950	2000
(a) Primary sector	57.97%	27.32%
(b) Secondary sector	13.77%	24.36%
(c) Tertiary sector	28.26%	24.36%

(2) Share of sectors in GDP is shown in the bar diagram given below :

(3) From the bar diagram the following conclusions can be drawn :

In 1950, the share of primary sector in GDP was more than other sectors. It was 57.97% in comparison to 13.77% and 28.26% of secondary and tertiary sectors respectively.
However in 2000, the share of primary sector decreased from 57.97% to 27.32% while the share of tertiary sector increased from 28.26% to 48.32%. The share of secondary sector too increased from 13.77% in 1950 to 24.36% in 2000

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit.

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Question 1.
In situations with high risks, credit might create further problems for the borrower. Explain
Answer:
Whether a credit would be useful or not, will depend on a number of factors like – risks involved, whether there is some support against a loss, terms of credit, etc. It is a fact that in situations with high risks, credit might create further problems for the borrower. For example, credit taken by farmers for cultivation might create problems for the farmer at some times. Crop production involves high costs on inputs such as HYV seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation etc.

Farmers generally take loans at the beginning of the season and repay the loan after harvest. But the failure of the crop makes loan repayment impossible. Then in order to repay the loan sometimes, they become bound to sell part of their land. So, their situations become worse than before. The incidences of farmers’ suicides especially in Maharashtra are the burning examples of this situation. Thus, whether credit would be useful or not, depends on the various risks involved in the situation.

Question 2.
How does money solve the problem of double coincidence of wants ? Explain with an example of your
own. [CBSE 2016]
Answer:

1. Money solves the problem of double coincidence of wants because it acts as an intermediate in the exchange process.
2. People may purchase anything with money.
3. There is no need to have any goods or commodities for exchange.
4. Money acts as a medium of exchange.

For example, a person working as an engineer in a government department gets salary from his office. With that money (salary) he purchases different goods from the market according to the requirements of his family. He makes payment in cash and does not need any product for exchange as required under the double coincidence of wants. Thus, money acts as an intermediate in the exchange process.

Question 3.
How do banks mediate between those who have surplus money and those who need money?
Or
What does the Bank do with the deposits which they accept from the public ?
Answer:
We know that banks accept deposits from the people who have surplus money and also pay interest on the deposits.
But banks keep only a small portion (15 percent in India) of their deposits as cash with themselves. This is kept as a provision to pay the depositors who might come to withdraw money from their accounts in the bank on any day. They use the major portion of the deposits to extend loans to those who need money. In this way, banks mediate between those who have surplus money and those who need money.

Question 4.
Look at a 10 rupee note. What is written on top ? Can you explain this statement ?
Answer:
The following words are written at the top of a 10 rupee note :
“Reserve Bank of India Guaranteed By The Central Government”
“I promise to pay the bearer the sum of Ten Rupees.” Governor.

1. It implies that the notes are issued by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The Governor of the Reserve Bank promises to pay tjie bearer the sum of ten rupees.
3. The notes have been guaranteed by the Central Government and in case of failure of the currency e. Ten Rupee notes, people can claim tile amount from the Central Government.
4. It also implies that the use of rupee is a legal currency and no one can refuse payment made in it.
5. It is medium of exchange in India.

Question 5.
Why do we need to expand formal sources of credit in India ?
Answer:
We need to expand formal sources of credit in India for many reasons:

1. Compared to formal lenders, most of the informal lenders charge much higher interest rates on loans like 3% to 5% per month i.e. 36% a year.
2. Besides the high-interest rate, informal lenders impose various other tough conditions. For example, they make the farmers promise to sell the crop to him at a low price. There is no such condition in the formal sector.
3. Informal lenders do not treat well with the borrowers. On the other hand, there is no such situation in the formal sector.
4. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans. In contrast, there no organization which supervises the credit activities of lenders in the informal sector.
5. Loans taken by poor people from informal lenders sometimes, lead them to debt-trap because of high-interest rates.
6. The formal sources of credit in India still meets only about half of the total credit needs of rural people.

So, it is necessary that the formal sources of credit expand their lending, especially in rural areas so that the dependence on informal sources of credit reduces as this will also help in the development of the country.

Question 6.
What is the basic idea behind the SHGs for the poor? Explain in your own words.
Answer:

1. The basic idea behind the SHGs (Self-Help Groups) is to organise rural poor, in particular women, so that they may pool their savings and help them to borrow money without collateral.
2. The banks are not present in every village. Even if there is a bank in rural area, getting a loan from a bank is much more difficult that taking a loan from informal sources because the bank loans require proper documents and collateral.
3. So to solye the problems of cheaper loans without collateral in rural areas SHGs have been formed.

Question 7.
What are the reasons why the banks might not be willing to lend to certain borrowers ?
Answer:
Bank loans require proper documents and collateral. People who do not apply for loan with proper documents and collateral are refused loans by the banks. Generally, the poor fall in this category and absence of collateral is one of the main reasons for not sanctioning loans to them.

Question 8.
In what ways, does the Reserve Bank of India supervise the functioning of banks ? Why is this
necessary ?                                                                            ,
Answer:
(1) The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of banks in the following ways :

• The RBI monitors that the banks actually maintain the required cash balance.
• It sees that the banks give loans not-just to profit-making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators, small-scale industries, small-borrowers.
• The banks submit information to the RBI about loans sanctioned to different categories of persons along with terms and conditions of the loans. In this way, RBI sees that the loans are sanctioned to all including the poor.

(2) The supervision of the Reserve Bank of India over the functioning of the banks is necessary. It is to know how much the banks are lending, to whom and at what interest rate. It is to ensure that the banks do not exploit the borrowers like the moneylenders in the rural areas.

Question 9.
Analyse the role of credit for development.
Answer:
Credit plays a crucial role in a country’s development. By sanctioning loans to developing industries and trade, banks provide them with the necessary aid for improvement. This leads to increased production, employment, and profits. However, caution must be exercised in the case of high risks so that losses do not occur.

This advantage of loans also needs to be manipulated and kept under an administrative hold because loans from the informal sector include high-interest rates that may be more harmful than good. For this reason, it is important that the formal sector gives out more loans so that borrowers are not duped by moneylenders, and can ultimately contribute to national development.

Question 10.
Manav needs a loan to set up a small business. On what basis will Manav decide whether to borrow from the bank or the moneylender? Discuss.
Answer:
Manav will decide to borrow from the bank or the moneylender on the following basis :

1. Rate of interest.
2. Terms for repayment of loan,
3. Other conditions such as collateral.
4. Wherever the above conditions favour him or are more satisfactory, he will take loan from
   them accordingly. Generally, in India, the terms and conditions that are offered in the formal sector i.e., the banks and cooperatives are better than the informal sector i.e., moneylenders who charge much higher rate of interest.

Question 11.
In India, about 80 per cent of farmers are small farmers, who need credit for cultivation.
(a) Why might banks be unwilling to lend to small farmers ?
(b) What are the other sources from which the small farmers can borrow ?
(c) Explain with an example how the terms of credit can be unfavourable for the small farmer.
(d) Suggest some ways by which small farmers can get cheap credit.
Answer:
(a) Banks might not be willing to lend to small farmers because they don’t have collateral security to deposit in the bank. Some of these farmers are not in the position of paying the loan, due to already existing loans.

(b) The other sources of borrowing are from moneylenders, employer, self-help group, landlord, etc.

(c) For example, if a person takes a loan from his/her landlord on the basis of security of his/her land. At the end, be/she is not able to pay the loan then the landlord can sell the land and get his money back.

(d) Small farmers can get cheap credit with the help of a self-help group (SHGs) from the bank and they can repay the loan easily after 3 or 4 years. The rate of interest is also low as compared to other sources of credit.

Question 12.
Fill in the blanks :

1. Majority of the credit needs of the_____________ households are met from informal sources.
2. ___________ costs of borrowing increase the debt-burden.
3. __________ issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government.
4. Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on ___________
5. _______ is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee until the loan is repaid to the lender.

Answer:

1. poor
2. High
3. Reserve Bank of India
4. deposits
5. Land

Question 13.
Choose the most appropriate answer :
(1) In an SHG most of the decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by
(a) Bank
(b) Members
(c) Non-government organization
(d) Formal sources of credit does not include
Answer:
(1) (b) Members

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity.

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Question 1.
Discuss three factors that determine the outcomes of politics of social divisions.
Answer:
Three factors are crucial in deciding the outcome of politics of social divisions. First of all the outcome depends on how people perceive their identities. If people see their identities in singular and exclusive terms, it becomes very difficult to accommodate. As long as people in Northern Ireland saw themselves as only Catholic or Protestant, their differences were difficult to reconcile. It is much easier if the people see that their identities are multiple and are complementary with the national identity.

A majority of Belgians now feel that they are as much Belgian as they are Dutch or German-speaking.
This helps them to stay together. This is how most people in our country see their identity: they think of themselves as Indian as well as belonging to a state or a language group or a social or religious community.

Second, it depends on how political leaders raise the demands of any community. It is easier to accommodate demands that are within the constitutional framework and are not at the cost of another community. The demand for ‘only Sinhala’ was at the cost of the interest and identity of the Tamil community in Sri Lanka. In Yugoslavia, the leaders of different ethnic communities presented their demands in such a way that these could not be accommodated within a single country.

Third, it depends on how the government reacts to the demands of different groups. As we saw in the examples of Belgium and Sri Lanka, if the rulers are willing to share power and accommodate the reasonable demands of minority community, social divisions become less threatening for the country. But if they try to suppress such a demand in the name of national unity, the end result is often quite the opposite. Such attempts at forced integration often sow the seeds of disintegration.

Question 2.
When does a social difference become a social division?
Answer:
People who feel marginalized, deprived, and discriminated against have to fight against the injustices. Such a fight often takes the democratic path, voicing their demands in a peaceful and constitutional manner, and seeking a fair position through elections.

Sometimes social differences can take the form of an unacceptable level of social inequality and injustice. The struggle against such inequalities sometimes takes the path of violence and defiance of state power. However, history shows that democracy is the best way to fight for recognition and also to accommodate diversity.

Question 3.
How do social divisions affect politics? Give two examples.
Answer:
Expression of various kinds of social divisions in politics often results in their cancelling one another out and thus reducing their intensity. This leads to the strengthening of democracy. But a positive attitude towards diversity and a willingness to accommodate it does not come about easily. People who feel marginalized, deprived, and discriminated against have to fight against the injustices.

Such a fight often takes the democratic path, voicing their demands in a peaceful and constitutional manner, and seeking a fair position through elections. Sometimes social differences can take the form of an unacceptable level of social inequality and injustice. The struggle against such inequalities sometimes takes the path of violence and defiance of state power. However, history shows that democracy is the best way to fight for recognition and also to accommodate diversity.

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks:
___________ social differences create possibilities of deep social divisions and tensions. ____________ social differences do not usually lead to conflicts.
Answer:
Overlapping social differences create possibilities of deep social divisions and tensions Cross-cutting social differences do not usually lead to conflicts.

Question 5.
In dealing with social divisions which one of the following statements is NOT correct about democracy?
(a) Due to political competition in a democracy, social divisions get reflected in politics.
(b) In a democracy it is possible for communities to voice their grievances in a peaceful manner.
(c) Democracy is the best way to accommodate social diversity.
(d) Democracy always leads to the disintegration of society on the basis of social divisions.
Answer:
(d) Democracy always leads to the disintegration of society on the basis of social divisions.

Question 6.
Consider the following three statements :
A. Social divisions take place when social differences overlap.
B. It is possible that a person can have multiple identities.
C. Social divisions exist in only big countries like India. Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) A, B, and C
(b) A and B
(c) B and C
(d) Only C
Answer:
(b) A and B

Question 7.
Arrange the following statements in a logical sequence and select the right answers by using the code given
below :
A. But all political expressions of social divisions need not be always dangerous.
B. Social divisions of one kind or the other exist in most countries.
C. Parties try to win political support by appealing to social divisions.
D. Some social differences may result in social divisions.
(a) D, B, C, A
(b) D, B, A, C
(c) D, A, C, B
(d) A, B, C, D
Answer:
(a) D, B, C, A

Question 8.
Among the following, which country suffered disintegration due to political fights on the basis of religious and ethnic identities?
(a) Belgium
(b) India
(c) Yugoslavia
(d) the Netherlands
Answer:
(c) Yugoslavia

Question 9.
Read the following passage from a famous speech of Martin Luther King Jr. in 1963. Which social division is he talking about? What are his aspirations and anxieties? Do you see a relationship between this speech and the incident in Mexico Olympics mentioned in this chapter?
‘I have a dream that my four little children will one day live in a nation where they will not be judged by the colour of their skin but by the content of their character. Let freedom ring. And when this happens, and when we allow freedom ring – when we let it ring from every village and every hamlet, from every state and every city, we will be able to speed up that day when all of God’s children – black men and white men, Jews and Gentiles, Protestants and Catholics – will be able to join hands and sing in the words of the old Negro spiritual: ‘Free at last! Free at last Thank God Almighty, we are free at last!’ I have a dream that one day this nation will rise up and live out the true meaning of its creed,: “We hold these truths to be self- evident: that all men are created equal.”
Answer:
Social division: He is talking about social divisions in the USA between the Blacks and Whites, Jews and Gentiles, Protestants, and Catholics.

His aspirations and anxieties: He aspires that all human beings must be free and there should be no discrimination on the basis of color and creed. He dreams that his four children would one day live in a nation where they would not be judged by the colour of their skin but by the content of their character. He dreamt that there would be freedom for all in every village, hamlet, city, state. He hoped that the time would come when all people – Black, White, Jews and Gentiles, Protestants and Catholics – without any discrimination, would join and ring the words of the old Negro spiritual: Free at last! Free at last! Thank God Almighty, we are free at last!” In short, he dreamt that one day all men would be treated as equal.

Relationship between the speech and the incident in Mexico Olympics: There is a relationship between the two because at the medal ceremony of the 200 meters race in the 1968 Olympics held in Mexico City, two African-Americans – Tommie Smith and John Carlos, who had won gold and bronze medals, had protested against Black poverty wearing black socks and no shoes.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

 

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given Extra Questions for NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties.

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Question 1.
State the various functions political parties perform in a democracy.
Answer:
Basically, the functions of political’parties are to fill political offices and exercise political power. This is done by performing the following functions as mentioned below :

(1) Contest elections : In democracies, elections are contested by the political parties by putting up their candidates. The candidates are selected in different ways. For example in USA, members and supporters of a party choose their candidates. In India, top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections.

(2) Put forward different policies and programmes : Political parties have their own ideologies and programmes. These are put forward before the voters at the time of elections in the form of a manifesto. A. party weighs different views and takes a basic position about policy matters and a government takes its decisions accordingly.

(3) Role in making laws for a country : Laws are passed according to the directions of the ruling party or alliance in case of a coalition government. Members of political party vote in the legislature according to the decision of the party, irrespective of their personal opinions.

(4) Formation of governments : Party or group of parties that gets majority in the legislature forms and runs the government. In a parliamentary democracy, this function is so important that government is known by the name of the Party e., Congress or BJP govern­ment etc. Generally big policy decisions are taken by the political executive and the government is run accordingly.

(5) Role of opposition : Those parties that lose in the elections play the role of opposition to the government. They voice their views and criticise government for its failure or wrong policies. They do this by raising various type of motions in the legislature or by asking questions.

(6) Role in shaping public opinion : Political parties raise and highlight different issues of public importance. Political parties have links with pressure groups which influence the policies of the government. Many pressure groups are the extensions of political parties. Movements are also launched by the political parties in support of demands of public interest.

(7) Access to government machinery and welfare schemes : Ordinary citizens approach local party leaders about their demands and grievances. They get information about govern­ment policies from them. For an ordinary citizen it is easy to approach a local party leader than a government officer. They feel close to parties even when they do not fully trust them. Parties have to be responsive to people’s needs and demands. Otherwise people can reject these parties the next elections.

Question 2.
What are the various challenges faced by political parties ?
Answer:
Political parties play an important role in a democracy. So it is natural for the people to blame parties for its failures to perform their functions well. Popular dissatisfaction and criticism has focussed on various problems in the working of political parties. These are as mentioned below :

(1) Lack of internal democracy : There is lack of internal democracy within parties. For example organisational elections are not held regularly. Most of the decisions are taken by the President or top leaders in the party. Ordinary members do not have any say in the decision making process of the party. Sometimes, those who disagree with the leadership find it difficult to continue in the party. More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leader becomes more important. As a result of it, there is tendency towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top.

(2) Dynastic succession : Family members pr people more close to top leaders are favoured at the time of granting tickets for contesting elections. Sometimes deserving members are denied tickets. Political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures. Top positions such as President or General Secretary are always controlled by members of one family. This is unfair to the other members of the party. It is also bad for democracy because people without adequate experience come to occupy the top positions in the party. This tendency is present in some measure all over the world, including in some of the older democracies.

(3) Use of money and muscle power : Political parties want to win elections at all costs. Parties use money power to purchase votes and finance high pitched campaigns. Rich candi­dates are nominated so that they may win elections. Not only this muscle power is also used during elections. It is used to coerce voters, capture booths and threaten opposition campaign. In some cases, political parties support and select criminals who can win elections. Democrats all over the world are worried about the increasing role of rich people and criminals in democratic politics.

(4) Hardly any meaningful choice : In order to offer meaningful choice parties must be significantly different. But in recent years there has been a decline in the ideological differences among parties in most parts of the world. For example the difference between the Labour Party and the Conservative Party in Britain is reduced. In our country too, the differences among all the major parties on the economic policies have reduced.People have no option available to them. Sometimes people cannot even elect very different leaders either, because the same set of leaders keep shifting from one party to another.

Question 3.
Suggest some reforms to strengthen parties so that they perform their functions well.
Answer:
Following reforms are suggested to strengthen political parties so that they perform their functions well :

(1) Regulate the internal affairs of political parties : A law should be made to regulate internal affairs of political parties. Basic principle of election from lower tier to higher level should be followed. Open elections to the higher posts should be held. The parties should maintain a register of its members. They should follow the party constitution and have an independent authority to act as a judge in case of party disputes.

(2) Representation to women candidates : It should be made mandatory for the political parties to give one-third tickets to women candidates. They should be given adequate represen­tation in the decision making bodies.

(3) State funding of elections : In order to put curb on money power, there should be state funding of elections e., the government should give parties money to support their election expenses. This support could be given in kind such as petrol, paper and telephone. It could be given in cash, on the basis of the votes secured by the party in the last election.There is, however, very little chance of accepting above suggestions by the political parties. Most of the parties find ways to cheat the laws. Besides, political parties will not agree to pass a law that is not liked by them. In such circumstance there are two other ways, as mentioned below to reform political parties.
‘
Pressure by people :

• People can also put pressure on political parties through petitions, publicity and agitations. Such pressure may make political parties more serious about reforms.
• People should join political parties large number so that they may improve the working of political parties being members of that party. It is easier to reform a party from within rather than from outside.

Question 4.
What is a political party ?
Answer:
A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. They agree on some policies and programmes for the society with a view to promote the collective good. A political party, therefore, possesses features like an organisation, definite views on political issues, a well formulated line of action, a will and desire to implement the proclaimed policies.

Question 5.
What are the characteristics of a political party ?
Answer:
The characteristics of a political party are as given below :

1. A political party is an organised body. Each party has its organisation.
2. It has definite views on various issues.
3. It has a general ideological identity. For example, a party may be a leftist or rightist party.
4. It represents a part of society. For example, a party may represent the capitalists, the poor, the upper class or a lower class. A party, therefore, may represent a particular part of a society.
5. A party has three components i.e., the leaders, the active members and the followers.

Question 6.
A group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government is called a_____________ .
Answer:
political party

Question 7.
Match List I (organisations and struggles) with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

List I	List II
1. Congress Party	A. National Democratic Alliance
2. Bharatiya Janata Party	B. State party
3. Communist Party of India (Marxist)	C. United Progressive Alliance
4. Telugu Desam Party	D. Left Front

 

	1	2	3	4
(a)	C	A	B	D
(b)	C	D	A	B
(c)	c	A	D	B
(d)	D	C	A	B

Answer:
(c) C, A, D, B.

Question 8.
Who among the following is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party ?
1. Kanshi Ram Sahu Maharaj
2. B.R.Ambedker D. JyotibaPhule
Answer:
(A) Kanshi Ram.                                                                              ‘

Question 9.
What is the guiding philosophy of the Bharatiya Janata Party ?

1. Bahujan Samaj B. Revolutionary democracy
2. Integral humanism D. Modernity

Answer:
(C) Integral humanism.

Question 10.
Consider the following statements on parties :

1. Political parties do not enjoy much trust among the people.
2. Parties are often rocked by scandals involving top party leaders.
3. Parties are not necessary to run governments.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) A, B and C
(b) A and B
(c) B and C
(d) A and C
Answer:
(b) A and B.

Question 11.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below : Muhammad Yunus is a famous economist of Bangladesh. He received several international honours for his efforts to promote economic and social development for the benefit of the poor. He and the Grameen Bank he started jointly, received the Nobel Peace Prize for the 2006. In February 2007, he decided to launch a political party and contest in the parliamentary elections. His objective was to foster proper leadership, good governance and build a new Bangladesh. He felt that only a political party different from the traditional ones would bring about new political culture. His party would be democratic from the grassroots level.

The launching of the new party, called Nagarik Shakti (Citizens’ Power), has caused a stir among the Bangladeshis. While many welcomed his decision, some did not like it. “Now I think Bangladesh will have a chance to choose between good and bad and eventually have a good government”, said Shahedul Islam, a government official. “That government, we hope, would not only keep itself away from corruption but also make fighting corruption and black money a top priority.”

But leaders of traditional political parties who dominated the country’s politics for decades were apprehensive. “There was no debate (over him) winning the Nobel, but politics is different – very challenging and often controversial”, said a senior leader of the Bangladesh Nationalist Party. Some others were highly critical. They asked why he was rushing into politics. “Is he being planted in politics by mentors from outside the country”, asked one political observer.

(a) Do you think Yunus made a right decision to float a new political party ?
(b) Do you agree with the statements and fears expressed by various people ?
(c) How do you want this new party organised to make it different from other parties ?
(d) If you were the one to begin this political party how would you defend it ?

Answer:
(a) Yunus made a right decision to float a new political party because in a democracy every citizen has a right to form political party or join a political party of his own choice. There is nothing wrong in it. Secondly, Yunus is a Nobel Peace Prize winner and is known in Bangladesh as well as by people all over the world. He has his own political ideas. He has set an example by setting up the Grameen Bank in Bangladesh. People may support him and enable him to form a good government and build a new Bangladesh of his dreams.
.
(b) I do not agree with the statements and fears expressed by various people because these are baseless. No doubt, politics is different from other fields but Yunus has achieved success by establishing Grameen Bank for the ,.welfare of the people. After all democracy is also for the welfare of the people. The statements and fears are from those people who may lose power in future.

(c) The new party should be organised on democratic lines. Organisational elections should be held regularly. There should be transparency in the working of the party. Due representation should be given to all sections of the society including women and minorities.

(d) I would defend the formation of the party on the ground that in a democracy, every citizen has a right to join or form a political party of his choice.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Test Yourself

These Solutions are part of RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Test Yourself.

Other Exercises

• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Ex 8a
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Ex 8b
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Ex 8c
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities MCQ
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Test Yourself

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We hope the RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Test Yourself help you. If you have any query regarding RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Test Yourself, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities MCQ

These Solutions are part of RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities MCQ.

Other Exercises

• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Ex 8a
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Ex 8b
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Ex 8c
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities MCQ
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Test Yourself

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Correct option: (b)
sec²60° – 1 = (2)2 – 1 = 4 – 1 = 3.

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We hope the RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities MCQ help you. If you have any query regarding RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities MCQ, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Ex 8c

These Solutions are part of RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Ex 8c.

Other Exercises

• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Ex 8a
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Ex 8b
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Ex 8c
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities MCQ
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Test Yourself

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We hope the RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Ex 8c help you. If you have any query regarding RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 8 Trigonometric Identities Ex 8c, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.