## NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

In this chapter students will learn about writing chemical equations, balancing chemical equations, different types of chemical equations, decomposition reaction, displacement reaction, double displacement reaction, oxidation and reaction, corrosion, rancidity.

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations. LearnInsta.com provides you the Free PDF download of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science (Chemistry) Chapter 1 – Chemical Reactions and Equations solved by Expert Teachers as per NCERT (CBSE) Book guidelines. All Chapter 1 – Chemical Reactions and Equations Exercise Questions with Solutions to help you to revise complete Syllabus and Score More marks.

### NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 In Text Book Questions

Question 1.
Why should magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air ?
Magnesium ribbon has generally a coating of basic magnesium carbonate on its surface. It is a mixture of magnesium hydroxide and magnesium carbonate and is slowly deposited on the surface of the metal by the action of moist air. The coating or layer prevents the metal from burning when flame is brought in contact with the metal. The surface should be properly cleaned preferably with a sand paper before burning the ribbon in air in order to remove the layer of magnesium oxide.

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Question 2.
Write the balanced equations for the following chemical reactions :
(i) Hydrogen + Chlorine ———> Hydrogen chloride
(ii) Sodium + Water ———> Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
(iii) Barium chloride + Aluminium sulphate ———> Barium sulphate + Aluminium chloride.
The balanced equations are written for the symbol equations and not for word equations.

Question 3.
Write the balanced equations with state symbols for the following reactions :
(i) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble barium sulphate and solution of sodium chloride.
(ii) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with hydrochloric acid solution (in water) to produce sodium chloride (in water) and water.
The symbol equations in balanced form for the reactions are :

Question 4.
A solution of the substance ‘X’ is used for white washing.
(i) Name the substance ‘X’ and write its formula.
(ii) Write the reaction of the substance ‘X’ with water.
(i) The substance lX’ is calcium oxide (also called quick lime). Its formula is CaO

Question 5.
With the help of an experiment show that in the electrolysis of acidulated water, the volume of one gas is twice the volume of the other gas. Name the gas.
The gas is hydrogen and its volume is twice that of oxygen

Question 6.
When you mix solutions of lead (II) nitrate and potassium iodide,
(i) What is the colour of the precipitate formed ? Name the compound involved.
(ii) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction
(iii) Is this a double displacement reaction ?
(i) The precipitate is yellow in colour. The compound is lead (II) iodide with chemical formula Pbl2.
(ii) pb(NO3)(aq) + 2KI (aq) ———-> Pbl(s) + 2KNO(aq)
(iii) Yes, it is a double displacement reaction.

Question 7.
Why does the colour of copper sulphate change when an iron nail is dipped in it ?
Iron nail acquires a brown coating of copper as a result of the displacement reaction in which iron has displaced copper from copper sulphate solution. The solution becomes light green.

Question 8.
Give one example of the double displacement reaction.

Question 9.
Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following reactions :

(i) In this reaction, sodium (Na) is oxidised to sodium oxide (Na2O). This means that oxygen (O2) has been reduced.
(ii) In this reaction, hydrogen (H2) is oxidised to water (H2O) while copper (II) oxide (CuO) is reduced to copper (Cu).

Question 10.
Magnesium ribbon burns with a dazzling flame in air (or oxygen) and changes to white substance magnesium oxide. Is magnesium being oxidised or reduced in this reaction ?
The balanced chemical equation for the reaction is :

Magnesium (Mg) is oxidised to magnesium oxide (MgO) in this reaction.

### NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 NCERT End Exercises

Question 1.
WTiich of the following statements about the reaction given below are incorrect ?

(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised
(d) Lead oxide is getting reduced
(i) a and b
(ii) a and c
(iii) a, b and c
(iv) all are incorrect
(i) a and b are both incorrect
Pb is getting oxidised to PbO in backward reaction.
CO2 is getting reduced to C in backward reaction.

Question 2.
The above reaction is an example of :
(a) combination reaction
(b) double displacement reaction
(c) decomposition reaction
(d) displacement reaction
(d). It is an example of displacement reaction. The aluminium (Al) metal has displaced iron (Fe) from Fe2O3 when the reaction is carried in aqueous solution. Please note that Al lies above Fe in the reactivity series.

Question 3.
What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron fillings ? Tick the correct answer :
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced
(c) No reaction takes place
(d) Iron salt and water are produced.
(a). Iron chloride and hydrogen gas are produced according to the reaction

Question 4.
What is a balanced chemical equation ? Why should chemical equations be balanced ? (CBSE 2013)
Balanced chemical equation. A chemical equation is said to be balanced if :

1. the atoms of different elements on both sides of the equation are equal.
2. the equation is molecular i.e.. the gases if involved in the equation must be in the molecular form (eg., H2, O2, N2, Cl2 etc.)

Necessity to balance chemical equations. The chemical equations have to be balanced to fulfill the requirement of law of conservation of mass. According to the law,
In a chemical reaction, the mass of reactants must be the same as the mass of products and this is possible only if the atoms of different elements of the reactants and products are equal.

Counting atoms calculator step-by-step explanation.

Question 5.
Transfer the following into chemical equations and balance them :
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and precipitate of barium sulphate.
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
(a) The symbol equation for the reaction is :
H2 + N2 ———> NH3
The balancing of equation is done in the following steps :
Step I: Let us count the number of atoms of all the elements of the reactants and the products on both sides of the equation.

 Elements No. of atoms of reactants      (L.H.S.) No. of atoms of products (R.H.S.) H 2 3 N 2 1

A simple look at the equation reveals that neither the number of H nor of N atoms are equal on both sides of the equation.
Step I: In order to equate the number of H atoms on both sides, put coefficient 3 before H2 on the reactant side and coefficient 2 before NH3 on the product side.
3H2 + N2 ———–> 2NH3
Step III: On counting, the number of N atoms on both sides of the equation are also the same (2). This means that the equation is balanced.
(b) The symbol equation for the reaction is :
H2S + O2 ———–> H2O + SO2
The balancing of equation is done in the following steps :
Step I: Let us count the number of atoms of all the elements on both sides on the equation.

 Elements No. of atoms of reactants (L.H.S.) No. of atoms of products (R.H.S.) H 2 2 S 1 1 O 2 3

A simple look at the equation reveals that the number of H and S atoms are equal on both sides. At the same time, the number of O atoms are not equal.
Step II: In order to equate the number of O atoms, put coefficient 3 before O2 on the reactant side and coefficient 2 before SO2 on the product side.
H2S + 3O2 ———–> H2O + 2SO2
Step III: O atoms are still not balanced. To achieve this, put coefficient 2 before H2O on the product side.
H2S + 3O2 ————> 2H2O + 2SO2
Step IV: To balance S atoms, put coefficient 2 before H2S on the reactant side.
2H2S + 3O2 ————> 2H2O + 2SO2
On inspection, the number of atoms of all the elements in both sides of the equation are equal. Therefore, the equation is balanced.
(c) The symbol equation for the reaction is :
BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 ———-> A1Cl3 + BaSO4
The balancing of equation is done in the following steps :
Step I: Let us count the number of atoms of all the elements on both sides of the equation.

 Elements No. of atoms of reactants (L.H.S.) No. of atoms of products (R.H.S.) Ba 1 1 A1 2 1 Cl 2 3 S 3 1 O 12 4

A simple look at the equation reveals that only Ba atoms are equal on both sides. The rest of the atoms are to be balanced. It is done as follows :
Step II: In order to equate the number of Al atoms, put coefficient 2 before AlCl3 on the product side.
BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 ———-> 2AICl3 + BaSO4
Step III: In order to balance Cl atoms, put coefficient 3 before BaCl2 on the reactant side.
3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 ———–> 2AlCl3 + BaSO4
Step IV: To balance Ba atoms, put coefficient 3 before BaSO4 on the product side.
3BaCl2 + Al2(SIO4)3 ———-> 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4
Step V: On inspection, the number of S and O atoms on both sides of the equation are also found to be equal. Thus, the equation is in balanced form.
(d) The symbol equation for the reaction is :
K + H2O ———–> KOH + H2
The balancing of the equation is done in the following steps :
Step I. Let us count the number of atoms of all the elements on both sides.

 Elements No. of atoms of reactants (L.H.S.) No. of atoms of products (R.H.S.) K 1 1 H 2 3 O 1 1

A simple look at the equation reveals that the number of K and O atoms on both sides of the equation are equal. At the same time, the number of H atoms are not equal.
Step II: To balance the number of H atoms, put coefficient 2 before KOH on the product side and 2 before H2O on the reactant side.
K + 2H2O ———> 2KOH + H2
Step III: To balance the number of K atoms in the above equation, put coefficient 2 before K atom on the reactant side.
2K + 2H2O ———> 2KOH + H2
Step IV: On inspection, the number of atoms of all the elements are found to be equal on both sides of the equation. It is balanced.

Question 6.
Balance the following chemical equations :

(a) The symbol equation as given for the reaction is :
HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 ——–> Ca(NO3)2 + H2O
The balancing of the equation is done in the following steps :
Step I: Let us count the number of atoms of all the elements on both sides of the equation.

 Elements No. of atoms of reactants (L.H.S.) No. of atoms of products (Products) H 3 2 O 5 7 N 1 2 Ca 1 1

A simple look at the equation reveals that the number of Ca atoms are equal on both sides.
Step II: In order to equate the number of N atoms, put coefficient 2 before HNO3 on the reactant side.
2HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 ———-> Ca(NO3)2 + H2O
Step III: In order to equate the number of H atoms, put coefficient 2 before H2O on the product side.
2HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 ———-> Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O
Step IV: On inspection the number of O atoms on both sides of the equation is the same i.e., 8. Therefore, the equation is balanced.
(b) The symbol equation as given for the reaction is :
NaOH + H2SO4 ———-> Na2SO4 + H2O
Step I: Let us count the number of atoms of all the elements on both sides of the equation.

 Elements No. of atoms of reactants (L.H.S.) No. of atoms of products (R.H.S.) H 3 2 O 5 5 Na 1 2 S 1 1

A simple look at the equation reveals that the number of O and S atoms are equal on both sides.
Step II: In order to equate the number of Na atoms, put coefficient 2 before NaOH on the reactant side.
2NaOH + H2SO4 ———-> Na2SO4 + H2O
Step III: In order to equate the number of H atoms, put coefficient 2 before H2O on the product side.
2NaOH + H2SO4 ———> Na2SO4 + 2H2O
Step IV: On inspection, the number of O atoms on both sides of the equation is the same i.e., 6. Therefore, the equation is balanced.
(c) The symbol equation as given for the reaction is already balanced.
NaCl + AgNO3 ———-> AgCl + NaNO3
On inspection, the number of atoms of all the elements are found to be equal on both sides of the equation. It is in the balanced form.
(d) The symbol equation as given for the reaction is :
BaCl2 + H2SO4 ———-> BaSO4 + HCl
Step I: Let us count the number of atoms of all the elements on both sides of the equation.

 Elements No. of atoms of reactants (L.H.S.) No. of atoms of products (R.H.S.) Ba 1 1 H 2 1 O 4 4 S 1 1 Cl 2 1

A simple look at the equation reveals that the number of Ba, S and O atoms are equal on both sides.
Step II: In order to equate the number of Cl atoms, put coefficient 2 before HCl on the product side.
BaCl2 + H2SO4 ———> BaSO4 + 2HCl
Step III: On inspection, the number of H atoms on both sides of the equation is the same i. e., 2. Therefore, the equation is balanced.

Question 7.
Write the balanced equations for the following reactions :
(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide ———-> Calcium carbonate + Water
(c) Barium chloride + Sodium sulphate ———-> Barium sulphate + Sodium chloride
(d) Zinc + Silver nitrate ———–> Zinc nitrate + Silver.
All these equations are in word form whereas the balanced equations are written in symbol form.
(a) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ———-> CaCO3 + H2O
(b) Pb + CuCl2 ———-> PbCl2 + Cu
(c) BaCl2 + Na2SO4 ———> BaSO4 + 2NaCl
(d) Zn + 2AgNO3 ———–> Zn(NO3)2 + 2Ag

Question 8.
Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions and identify the type of reaction :
(a) Potassium brormide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq) ————> Potassium iodide(aq) + Barium bromide (aq)
(b) Zinc carbonate (aq) ————> Zinc oxide (aq) + Carbon dioxide (aq)
(c) Hydrogen (aq) + Chlorine (aq) ———> Hydrogen chloride (aq)
(d) Magnesium (aq) + Hydrochloric acid (aq) ———–> Magnesium chloride (aq) + Hydrogen(aq).
(a)          2KBr (aq) + BaI(aq) ——–> 2Kl (aq) + BaBr2 (aq)
The reaction is known as double displacement reaction.
(b)          ZnCO3(s) ———-> ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
The reaction is known as decomposition reaction. ‘
(c)          H2(g) + Cl2(g) ———–> 2HCl (g)
The reaction is known as combination reaction.
(d)          Mg (aq) + 2HCl (aq) ———–> MgCl(aq) + H2(g)
The reaction is known as displacement reaction.

Question 9.
What do you mean by exothermic and endothermic reactions ? Give examples.
A chemical reaction is said to be exothermic in which a certain amount of heat energy is released. The container in which reaction is carried gets heated up. For example,
N(g) + 3H2(g) ———> 2NH3 (g) + 92 kj
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ———> CO(g) + 2H2O (l) + 890 kj
NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) ———> NaCl (aq)+ H2O (aq) + 57.5 kj
A chemical reaction is said to be endothermic in which a certain amount of heat energy is absorbed. The container in which the reaction is carried becomes cold. For example,
N2(g) + O(g) ———-> 2NO (g) – 180 kj
C(s) + H2O (aq) ———-> CO (g) + H2(g) – 130 kj

Question 10.
Why is respiration considered an exothermic reaction ? (CBSE 2011)
Respiration is the most important biochemical reaction which releases energy in the cells. When we breathe in air, oxygen enters our lungs. It binds itself to haemoglobin present in red cells and is carried to millions of cells present on the body. Respiration occurs in these cells and is accompanied by the combustion of glucose producing carbon dioxide water and heat energy.

Question 11.
Why are decomposition reactions called opposite of combination reactions ? Write equations for these reactions.
Combination reaction may be defined as the reaction in which two or more substances combine under suitable conditions to form a new substance. For example,

A decomposition reaction may be defined as the reaction in which a single substance decomposes or splits into two or more substances under suitable conditions.
For example,

It may be concluded that a certain substance is formed or synthesised in combination reaction and it breaks or splits in decomposition reaction. Therefore, the two reactions oppose each other.

Question 12.
Write equations for each decomposition reaction, where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light and electricity.

Question 13.
What is the difference between displacement and double displacement reactions ? Write equations for these reactions. (CBSE 2011)
In a displacement reaction, one element takes the place of another in a compound dissolved in a solution. For example,
Fe(s) + CuSO4 (aq) ———> FeSO4 (aq) + Cu(s)
In a double displacement reaction, one component each of both the reacting molecules get exchanged to form the products. For example,
HCl (aq) + NaOH(aq) ———> NaCl (aq) + H2O (aq)

Question 14.
In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from silver nitrate solution involved displacement by copper metal. Write chemical equation involved.
The chemical equation for the displacement reaction is :
Cu(s) + 2AgNO(aq) ———-> Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2Ag (s).

Question 15.
What do you mean by precipitation reaction ? Explain giving examples.
In a precipitation reaction, one of the products formed during the reaction does not dissolve in solution and gets settled at the surface of the container (beaker or tube). It is known as a precipitate. For example,

Question 16.
Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of oxygen with two examples of each,
(a) oxidation
(b) reduction.
(a) Oxidation involves the gain of oxygen by a substance in a chemical reaction. For example,

(b) Reduction involves the loss of oxygen from a substance in a chemical reaction. For example,

Question 17.
A shining brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in’ air becomes black in colour. Name the element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed. (CBSE 2013)
The element ‘X’ is copper and the black coloured compound is copper (II) oxide also known as cupric oxide.

Question 18.
Why do you apply paint on iron articles ?
Paint forms a protective coating on the surface of iron. Both oxygen and moisture (present in air) cannot have a direct contact with the surface of the iron metal. Therefore, the surface gets protected against rusting.

Question 19.
Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why ?
Oil and fat containing food items or etables get rancid due to oxidation by air or oxygen. In case the container or bag is flushed with nitrogen, then oxidation or rancidity will be checked.

Question 20.
Explain the following terms wih one example of each.
(a) Corrosion
(b) Rusting.
Corrosion may be defined as the chemical process of slow eating up of the surfaces of certain metals when kept in open for a long time.
Quite often, when we open the bonet of a car after a long time, we find a deposit around the terminals of the battery. This is because of corrosion of the terminals. Black coating on the surface of silver and green layer on the surface of copper are the examples of corrosion. In case of iron, corrosion is called rusting. Rust is a chemical substance which is soft and also porous. It is brown in colour and is formed by the chemical action of moist air (containing COand H2O) on iron. It is basically an oxidation reaction and formula of rust is Fe2O3.xH2O. It is very slow in nature and once started keeps on.

Both corrosion and rusting are very harmful and cause damage to the buildings, railway tracks, automobiles and other objects/materials where metals are used. We quite often hear that an old building has collapsed of its own causing loss of both lives and property. This is on account of the rusting of iron which is used in making the structures particularly the roof. Corrosion also causes constant damage to the statues made up of marble which is chemically calcium carbonate (CaCO3). Both sulphuric acid and nitric acid present in the rain water dissolve calcium carbonate to form calcium sulphate and calcium nitrate respectively.
CaCO3 + H2SO———— > CaSO4 + CO2 + H2O

CaCO3 + 2HNO3 ———— > Ca(NO3)2 + CO2 + H2O

In addition to this, traces of hydrogen sulphide gas (H2S) present in atmosphere form black stains on these statues due to calcium sulphide which is black in colour.
CaCO3 + H2S  ———–> CaS + H2O + CO2
Corrosion has caused huge damage to our historical monuments including ‘Taj Mahal’ which is regarded as the eighth wonder. Marble is chemically CaCO3. Polluted air contains both H2SO4 and HNO3 along with traces of H2S gas. They react chemically with CaCO3 as shown above. As a result, this historical monument which is the pride of India is being constancy corroded. Every effort must be made to protect ‘Taj Mahal’ and other similar monuments which are our treasure. Corrosion (or rusting) occurs in metals only. We shall study it detail and the measures to check corrosion in chapter 3 on Metals and Non-Metals.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Hope given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 are helpful to complete your science homework.

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## RS Aggarwal Class 10 Solutions Chapter 11 Arithmetic Progressions Ex 11A

These Solutions are part of RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 11 Arithmetic Progressions Ex 11A

Other Exercises

Question 1.
Solution:
(i) 9, 15, 21, 27, …
Here, 15 – 9 = 6,
21 – 15 = 6,
27 – 21 = 6
d = 6 and a = 9
Next term = 27 + 6 = 33
(ii) 11, 6, 1, -4, …
Here, 6 – 11 = -5,
1 – 6 = -5,
-4 – 1 = -5
d = -5 and a = 11
Next term = -4 – 5 = -9

Question 2.
Solution:
(i) AP is 9, 13, 17, 21, ……
Here, a = 9, d = 13 – 9 = 4

Question 3.
Solution:

Question 4.
Solution:
If the terms are in AP, then
a2 – a1 = a3 – a2 = …….
a2 = 3p + 1
a1 = 2p – 1
a3 = 11
⇒ (3p + 1) – (2p – 1) = 11 – (3p + 1)
⇒ 3p + 1 – 2p + 1 = 11 – 3p – 1
⇒ p + 2 = 10 – 3p
⇒ 4p = 8
⇒ p = 2
Then for p = 2, these terms are in AP.

Question 5.
Solution:
(i) AP is 5, 11, 17, 23, ……
Here, a = 5, d = 11 – 5 = 6
Tn = a (n – 1)d = 5 + (n – 1) x 6 = 5 + 6n – 6 = (6n – 1)
(ii) AP is 16, 9, 2, -5, ……
Here, a = 16 d = 9 – 16 = -7
Tn = a + (n – 1)d = 16 + (n – 1) (-7)
= 16 – 7n + 7 = (23 – 7n)

Question 6.
Solution:
nth term = 4n – 10
Substituting the value of 1, 2, 3, 4, …, we get
4n – 10
= 4 x 1 – 10 = 4 – 10 = -6
= 4 x 2 – 10 = 8 – 10 = -2
= 4 x 3 – 10 = 12 – 10 = 2
= 4 x 4 – 10 = 16 – 10 = 6
We see that -6, -2, 2, 6,… are in AP
(i) Whose first term = -6
(ii) Common difference = -2 – (-6) = -2 + 6 = 4
(iii) 16th term = 4 x 16 – 10 = 64 – 10 = 54

The common difference calculator takes the input values of sequence and difference and shows you the actual results.

Question 7.
Solution:
In AP 6, 10, 14, 18,…, 174
Here, a = 6, d= 10 – 6 = 4
nth or l = 174
Tn = a + (n – 1)d
⇒ 174 = 6 + (n – 1) x 4
⇒ 174 – 6 = (n – 1) x 4
⇒ n – 1 = $$\frac { 168 }{ 4 }$$ = 42
n = 42 + 1 = 43
Hence, there are 43 terms in the given AP.

Question 8.
Solution:
In AP 41, 38, 35,…, 8
a = 41, d = 38 – 41 = -3, l = 8
Let l be the nth term
l = Tn = a + (n – 1) d
⇒ 8 = 41 + (n – 1)(-3)
⇒ 8 – 41 = (n – 1)(-3)
⇒ n – 1 = 11
⇒ n = 11 + 1 = 12
There are 12 terms in the given AP.

Question 9.
Solution:
the AP is 8, 15$$\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$$ , 13, …, -47

There are 27 terms in the given AP.

Question 10.
Solution:
Let 88 be the nth term
Now, in AP 3, 8, 13, 18, …
a = 3, d = 8 – 3 = 5
Tn = a + (n – 1) d
88 = 3 + (n – 1)(5)
⇒ 88 – 3 = (n – 1) x 5
⇒ $$\frac { 88 }{ 5 }$$ = n – 1
⇒ 17 = n – 1
n= 17 + 1 = 18
88 is the 18th term.

Question 11.
Solution:
In the AP 72, 68, 64, 60, …..
Let 0 be the nth term
Here, a = 72, d = 68 – 72 = -4
Tn = a + (n – 1)d
0 = 72 + (n – 1)(-4)
⇒ -72 = -4(n – 1)
⇒ n – 1 = 18
⇒ n = 18 + 1 = 19
0 is the 19th term.

Question 12.
Solution:

n = 13 + 1 = 14
3 is the 14th term.

Question 13.
Solution:
In the AP 21, 18, 15, ……
Let -81 is the nth term
a = 21, d = 18 – 21 = -3
Tn = a + (n – 1)d
⇒ -81 = 21 + (n – 1)(-3)
⇒ -81 – 21 = (n – 1)(-3)
⇒ -102 = (n – 1)(-3)
⇒ n – 1 = 34
n = 34 + 1 = 35
-81 is the 35th term

Question 14.
Solution:
In the given AP 3, 8, 13, 18,…
a = 3, d = 8 – 3 = 5
T20 = a + (n – 1)d = 3 + (20 – 1) x 5 = 3 + 19 x 5 = 3 + 95 = 98
The required term = 98 + 55 = 153
Let 153 be the nth term, then
Tn = a + (n – 1)d
⇒ 153 = 3 + (n – 1) x 5
⇒ 153 – 3 = 5(n – 1)
⇒ 150 = 5(n – 1)
⇒ n – 1 = 30
⇒ n = 30 + 1 = 31
Required term will be 31st term.

Question 15.
Solution:
AP is 5, 15, 25,…
a = 5, d = 15 – 5 = 10
T31 = a + (n – 1)d = 5 + (31 – 1) x 10 = 5 + 30 x 10 = 5 + 300 = 305
Now the required term = 305 + 130 = 435
Let 435 be the nth term, then
Tn = a + (n – 1)d
⇒ 435 = 5 + (n – 1)10
⇒ 435 – 5 = (n – 1)10
⇒ n – 1 = 43
⇒ n = 43 + 1 = 44
The required term will be 44th term.

Question 16.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference, then

Question 17.
Solution:

T16 = 6 + (16 – 1)7 = 6+ 15 x 7 = 6 + 105 = 111

Question 18.
Solution:
AP is 10, 7, 4, …, (-62)
a = 10, d = 7 – 10 = -3, l = -62
l = Tn = a + (n – 1)d
⇒ -62 = 10 + (n – 1) x (-3)
⇒ -62 – 10 = -3(n- 1)
-72 = -3(n – 1)
n = 24 + 1 = 25
Middle term = $$\frac { 25 + 1 }{ 2 }$$ th = 13th term
T13 = 10 + (13 – 1)(-3) = 10+ 12 x (-3)= 10 – 36 = -26

Question 19.
Solution:

Question 20.
Solution:
AP is 7, 10, 13,…, 184
a = 7, d = 10 – 7 = 3, l = 184
nth term from the end = l – (n – 1)d
8th term from the end = 184 – (8 – 1) x 3 = 184 – 7 x 3 = 184 – 21 = 163

Question 21.
Solution:
AP is 17, 14, 11, …,(-40)
Here, a = 17, d = 14 – 17 = -3, l = -40
6th term from the end = l – (n – 1)d
= -40 – (6 – 1) x (-3)
= -40 – [5 x (-3)]
= -40 + 15
= -25

Question 22.
Solution:
Let 184 be the nth term of the AP
3, 7, 11, 15, …
Here, a = 3, d = 7 – 3 = 4
Tn = a + (n – 1)d
⇒ 184 = 3 + (n – 1) x 4
⇒ 184 – 3 = (n – 1) x 4
⇒ $$\frac { 181 }{ 4 }$$ = n – 1
⇒ n = $$\frac { 181 }{ 4 }$$ + 1 = $$\frac { 185 }{ 4 }$$ = 46$$\frac { 1 }{ 4 }$$
Which is in fraction.
184 is not a term of the given AP.

Question 23.
Solution:
Let -150 be the nth term of the AP
11, 8, 5, 2,…

Question 24.
Solution:
Let nth of the AP 121, 117, 113,… is negative

Question 25.
Solution:

Question 26.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of an AP
Tn = a + (n – 1)d
T7 = a + (7 – 1)d = a + 6d = -4 …(i)
T13 = a + 12d = -16 …..(ii)
Subtracting (i) from (ii),
6d = -16 – (-4) = -16 + 4 = -12
From (i), a + 6d = -4
a + (-12) = -4
⇒ a = -4 + 12 = 8
a = 8, d = -2
AP will be 8, 6, 4, 2, 0, ……

Question 27.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of an AP.
T4 = a + (n- 1)d = a + (4 – 1)d = a + 3d
a + 3d = 0 ⇒ a = -3d
Similarly,
T25 = a + 24d and T11 = a + 10d = -3d + 24d = 21d
It is clear that T25 = 3 x T11

Question 28.
Solution:
Given, a6 = 0
⇒ a + 5d = 0
⇒ a = -5 d
Now, a15 = a + (n – 1 )d
= a + (15 – 1)d = -5d + 14d = 9d
and a33 = a + (n – 1 )d = a + (33 – 1)d = -5d + 32d = 27d
Now, a33 : a12
⇒ 27d : 9d
⇒ 3 : 1
a33 = 3 x a15

Question 29.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of an AP.
Tn = a + (n – 1)d
T4 = a + (4 – 1)d = a + 3d
a + 3d = 11 …(i)
Now, T5 = a + 4d
and T7 = a + 6d
Adding, we get T5 + T7 = a + 4d + a + 6d = 2a + 10d
2a + 10d = 34
⇒ a + 5d = 17 …(ii)
Subtracting (i) from (ii),
2d = 17 – 11 = 6
⇒ d = 3
Hence, common difference = 3

Question 30.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of an AP.

Question 31.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference, then

Question 32.
Solution:
In an AP,
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference, then

Question 33.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference in an AP, then

Question 34.
Solution:
In an AP,
Let d be the common difference,
First term (a) = 5
Sum of first 4 terms
= a + a + d + a + 2d + a + 3d = 4a + 6d
Sum of next 4 terms
= a + 4d + a + 5d + a + 6d + a + 7d = 4a + 22d
According to the condition,

Question 35.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference in an AP, then

a = 1, d = 4
AP = 1, 5, 9, 13, 17, …

Question 36.
Solution:
In AP 63, 65, 67, …..

Question 37.
Solution:
Let first term of AP = a
and common difference = d

Question 38.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference, then

Question 39.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference, then

Question 40.
Solution:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference, then

Question 41.
Solution:
Let a be the first term, d be the common difference, then

Question 42.
Solution:
Two-digit numbers are 10 to 99 and two digit numbers divisible by 6 will be
12, 18, 24, 30, …, 96

Question 43.
Solution:
Two digit numbers are 10 to 99 and
Two digit numbers which are divisible by 3 are
12, 15, 18, 21, 24, … 99

Question 44.
Solution:
Three digit numbers are 100 to 999 and numbers divisible by 9 will be
108, 117, 126, 999

Question 45.
Solution:
Numbers between 101 and 999 which are divisible both by 2 and 5 will be
110, 120, 130,…, 990

Question 46.
Solution:
Let number of from a rows are in the flower bed, then

Question 47.
Solution:
Total amount = ₹ 2800
and number of prizes = 4
Let first prize = ₹ a
Then second prize = ₹ a – 200
Third prize = a – 200 – 200 = a – 400
and fourth prize = a – 400 – 200 = a – 600
But sum of there 4 prizes are ₹ 2800
a + a – 200 + a – 400 + a – 600 = ₹ 2800
⇒ 4a – 1200 = 2800
⇒ 4a = 2800 + 1200 = 4000
⇒ a = 1000
First prize = ₹ 1000
Second prize = ₹ 1000 – 200 = ₹ 800
Third prize = ₹ 800 – 200 = ₹ 600
and fourth prize = ₹ 600 – 200 = ₹ 400

Question 48.
Solution:
The first term between 200 and 500 divisible by 8 is 208, and last term is 496.
So, first term (a) = 208
Common difference (d) = 8
Now, an = a + (n – 1 )d
⇒ 496 = 208 + (n – 1) x 8
⇒ (n – 1) = $$\frac { 288 }{ 8 }$$
⇒ n – 1 = 36
⇒ n = 36 + 1 = 37
Hence, there are 37 integers between 200 and 500 which are divisible by 8.

Hope given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 11 Arithmetic Progressions Ex 11A are helpful to complete your math homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online math tutoring for you.

## Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Power Sharing

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Power Sharing Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

## Online Education for Power Sharing Class 10 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 1

Why did the Dutch-speaking people resent in Belgium?
Because the minority French-speaking community of is Belgium was relatively rich and powerful.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 2.
Why was the conflict more acute in Brussels?
The conflict between the two communities was more acute in Brussels because the Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but a minority in the capital.

Power Sharing Class 10 Extra Questions Question 3.
Who are the majority and minority social groups of Sri Lanka?
Sinhla speaking people 74% Tamils 18% er ar Christians – 7%.

Power Sharing Extra Questions Question 4.
Define majoritarianism.
A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority.

Class 10 Political Science Chapter 1 Extra Questions And Answers Question 5.
When was the demand for independent Tamil state raised?
By 1980s several political organizations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam in north-eastern Sri Lanka.

Extra Questions For Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Question 6.
Why was Belgium Constitution amended four times?
Between 1970 -1993, the constitution of Belgium was amended four times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country.

Extra Questions Of Power Sharing Question 7.
What do you mean by “Community government”?

• The “Community government” in Belgium is elected by people belonging to one language community Dutch, French and German-speaking no matter where they live.
• This government has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues.

Civics Class 10 Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 8.
What is civil war?
A violent conflict between opposing groups within a country that becomes so intense that it appears like a war.

Power Sharing Extra Question Answer Question 9.
What is the main difference between prudential reasons and moral reasons?
While prudential reasons stress its beneficial consequences, moral reasons emphasise the intrinsic worth of power-sharing.

Power Sharing Class 10 1 Mark Questions Question 10.
Which government can be called legitimate?
A legitimate government is one where groups through participation, acquire a stake in the system.

Class 10 Power Sharing Extra Questions Question 11.
What do you mean by prudential?
Prudential means based on prudence or on careful calculation contrasted with those decisions based purely on moral considerations.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions And Answers Question 12.
Define ‘horizontal distribution of power’.
When power is shared among different organs of government, such as legislature, executive and judiciary, this is called horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.

Power Sharing Class 10 Important Questions Question 13.
What do you understand by federal government?
When power is shared among governments at different levels, for example, a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial, sub-national or regional level. Such a general government for the whole country is called federal government.

Class 10 Civics Ch 1 Extra Questions Question 14.
Describe ‘federal division of power’.
In those countries where there are different levels of governments, the constitution clearly lays down the powers of different levels of governments. This is called federal division of power.

Extra Question Answer Of Power Sharing Class 10 Question 15.
Explain ‘Vertical division of power’.
The federal division of power can be extended to levels of government lower than he state government such as the municipality and panchayat. All such divisions involving higher and lower levels of government are called “vertical division of power”.

Ncert Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 16.
Why the provision of “reserved constituencies” have been made in our country?
Arrangements such as provision of reserved constituencies in and the parliament of our country is meant to give space in the government and administration to diverse social groups who otherwise feel alienated from the government.

Power Sharing Class 10 Question Answers Pdf Question 17.
Describe the ethnic composition of Belgium.
The ethnic composition of Belgium, a small country in Europe is very complex. Of the country’s total population, 59 per cent live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch language.

Another 40 per cent live in the Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining I per cent of the Belgians speak German. In the capital city Brussels, 80 per cent people speak French while 20 percent are Dutch-speaking.

Civics Chapter 1 Class 10 Extra Questions Question 18.
What was the main reason of tension between the Dutch and the French-speaking people of Belgium?

• The minority French-speaking community of Belgium was relatively rich and powerful,
• This was resented by the Dutch-speaking community who got the benefit of economic development and education much later.
• This led to tensions between the Dutch and the rrench speaking communities during the 1950s and 1960s.

Class 10th Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 19.
How was the majoritarian dominance established in Sri Lanka?

• Sri Lanka got independence in 1948. The leaders of Sinhla community wished to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority.
• The democratically elected government adopted a series of majoritarian measures to establish Sinhala supremacy in Sri Lanka.
• In 1956, an Act was passed to recognize Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil
• The Sinhala speaking people were given preference in university position and government jobs.

Extra Questions Of Civics Class 10 Chapter 1 Question 20.
Explain the outcomes of Belgian model of governance?

• The Belgian model is very complicated even for the Belgian people. But these arrangements have so far worked well, They helped avoid civic strife between the two major communities and a possible division of the country on linguistic lines.
• When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union, Brussels who chosen as its headquarters.

Question 21.
“Belgium and Sri Lanka both are democracies, yet they dealt with the question of power-sharing differently.” Justify.

• Belgium and Sri Lanka, both are democratic Yet they dealt with the question of power-sharing differently
• In Belgium, the leaders have realized that the unity of the country is possible only by respecting the feelings and interests of different communities and regions.
• Such a realization resulted in mutually acceptable arrangements for sharing power.
• Sri Lanka shows us a contrasting example. It shows us that if a majority community wants to force its dominance over others and refuses to share power, it can undermine the unity of the country.

Question 22.
Write a short note on checks and balances.
Power-sharing among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different power. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.

Each organ checks the others. This results in balance of power among various institutions. For example, even though the ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the parliament or state legislatures. Similarly, although the judges are appointed by the executive, but they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by legislatures. This arrangement is also called a system of checks and balances.

Question 23.
What do you mean by Pressure groups or interest groups?
Pressure groups or interest groups are those organized groups which influence the government decisions. They demonstrate the demands of the industrialists, traders, farmers, working-class and other professional people.
They use various methods with a view to influencing public opinion.

They organize big demonstrations and rallies and get newspapers columns written by prominent people to arouse public opinion for or against a particular Bill or Law. Makenzie defined it as, “the organized groups possessing both formal structure and real common interests, in so far as they influence the decisions of public bodies.”

Question 24.
Analyse the results of majoritarian dominance in Sri Lanka.

• In 1956, the Government of Sri Lanka passed an Act to recognize Sinhla as official language. The state declared to protect and foster Buddhism. The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhla applicants for university positions and government jobs. All these, government measures, coming after one another, gradually increased the feeling of alienation among Sri Lankan Tamils.
• They felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhalese were sensitive to their language and culture.
• They fell that the constitution and government policies denied them equal political rights, discriminated against them in getting jobs and other opportunities and ignored their interests,
• It resulted in strained relations between the Sinhalese and Tamil communities.
• The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and started struggling for the recognition of Tamil as an official language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs.
• Their demand for more autonomy to provinces with more Tamil populations was repeatedly denied. By 1980s, several political organizations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam in north-eastern Sri Lanka.

Question 25.
How did the Belgian leaders solve the problems of regional differences and cultural diversities?

• The Belgian leaders recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities.
• They amended their constitution four times between 1970 to 1993, so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country.

The arrangement is very innovative. Some important elements of the Belgian model is a follows:

(a) Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central government. Some special laws require the support of majority of members from each linguistic group. Thus, no single community can make decisions unilaterally.

(b) Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments for the two regions of the country. The state governments are not subordinate to the central goverment.

(c) Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation. The French-speaking people accepted equal representation in Brussels because the Dutch-speaking community has accepted equal representation in the central government.

(d) Apart from the central and the state government there is a third kind of government. This ‘community government7 is elected by people belonging to one language community Dutch, French and German-speaking- no matter where they live. This government has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues.

Question 26.
Why power sharing is desirable for democracy?
(a) Prudential Reasons: Two different sets of reasons can be given in favour of power-sharing. Firstly power-sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups. Since social conflict often leads to violence and political instability, power-sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.

Imposing the will of majority community over others may look like an attractive option in the short run, but in the long run it undermines the unity of the nation. Tyranny of the majority is not just oppressive for the minority; it often brings rum to the majority as well.

(b) Moral Reasons: There is a second, deeper, reason why power sharing is good for democracies. Power-sharing is the very spirit of democracy, A democratic rule involves sharing power with those attected by its exercise, and who have to live with its effects.

People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed. A legitimate government is one where groups, through participation, acquire a stake in the system. While prudential reasons stress its beneficial consequences, moral reasons emphasise the intrinsic worth of power-sharing.

Question 27.
“The idea of power-sharing had emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided political power.” Justify.

• The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided, political power.
• For a long time it was believed that all power of a government must reside in one person or group of persons located one place.
• It was felt that if power to decide is dispersed, it would not be possible to take quick decisions and to enforce them.
• But these notions have changed with the emergence of democracy. One basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all political power.
• In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-governance.
• In a good democratic government, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society and everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies. Therefore it follows that in a democracy political power should be distributed among as many citizens as possible.

Question 28.
“Power can be shared among governments at different levels.” How?

• Power can be shared among governments at different levels: for example, a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial, sub-national or regional level. Such a general government for the entire country is usually called federal government.
• In India, we refer to it as the Central government. The governments at the provincial or regional level are called by different names in different countries. In India, we call them State governments.
• This system is not followed in all the countries. There are many countries where there are no provincial or state governments.
• But in those countries, where there are different levels of governments, the constitution clearly lays down the powers of different levels of government. This is what they did in Belgium, but was refused in Sri Lanka. This is called federal division of power.
• The same principle can be extended to levels of government lower than the State government, such as the municipality and panchayat. All such divisions of power involving higher and lower levels of government are called vertical division of power.

Question 29.
How can we share power among different social groups?
Power can be shared among governments at different levels, such as the religious and groups. ‘Community government in Belgium is a good example of this arrangement. In some countries, there are constitutional and legal arrangements whereby socially weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration. There is a system of ‘reserved constituencies’ in assemblies and the parliament of our country.

This type of arrangements is meant to give space in the government and administration to diverse social groups who otherwise would feel alienated from the government. This method is used to give minority communities a fair share of power.

Objective Type Questions

Four Choices are given to the following questions.

Question 1.
When the power is shared among different organs of government this is called:
(a) Vertical distribution of power
(b) Horizontal distribution of power
(c) Triangular distribution of power
(d) None of these.
(b) Horizontal distribution of power

Question 2.
Although the judges are appointed by the executive, but they can check the functioning executive laws made by the legislatures This arrangement is also called:
(a) A system checks
(b) A system of balances
(c) A system of checks and balances
(d) None of these.
(c) A system of checks and balances

Question 3.
What is the population of Belgium
(a) 35 lakh
(b) 58 lakh
(c) 80 lakh
(d) more than 1 crore
(d) more than 1 crore

Question 4.
How many people speak Dutch in Belgium:
(a) 59
(b) 40
(c) 8
(d) 10
(a) 59

Questions 5.
What is the percentage of people living in Waillona region and speaking French?
(a) 59
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 10
(c) 40

Question 6.
Which community is relatively rich and powerful in Belgium?
(a) Dutch
(b) French
(c) Danish
(d) Spanish
(b) French

Question 7.
Who constituted a majority in Belgium :
(a) The French
(b) The Dutch
(c) The Spanish
(d) Anglo-Indians
(c) The Spanish

Questions 8.
What is the percentage of Sinhla speakers in Sri Lanka:
(a) 74%
(b) 18%
(c) 7%
(d) 55%.
(a) 74%

Questions 9.
Tamil natives of Sri Lanka in:
(a) Indian Tamils
(b) Anglo Tamils
(c) Muslim Tamils
(d) Sri Lanka Tamils.
(d) Sri Lanka Tamils.

Questions 10.
How many people in Sri Lanka speak Tamil:
(a) 18%
(b) 74%
(c) 55%
(d) 7%.
(a) 18%

Question 11.
What is the official language of Sri Lanka:
(a) Tamil
(b) Sinhla
(c) Hindi
(d) English
(b) Sinhla

Question 12.
Which community in Sri Lanka is in majority:
(a) Tamil
(b) Christian
(c) Sinhla
(d) Indians
(c) Sinhla

Question 13.
In which year several political organization were formed demanding an independent Tamil:
(a) 1980s
(b) 1990s
(c) 1970s
(d) 1950s
(a) 1980s

Question 14.
How many times was the Belgian constitution ainended between 1970¬1991 :
(a) Three times
(b) Eight times
(c) Ten times
(d) four times
(d) four times

Question 15.
Both Belgium and Sri Lanka are
(a) Democracies
(b) Autocracies
(c) Monarchies
(d) None of these
(a) Democracies.

## Online Education for RS Aggarwal Class 10 Solutions Chapter 10 Quadratic Equations Test Yourself

These Solutions are part of Online Education RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 10 Quadratic Equations Test Yourself.

Other Exercises

Objective Questions (MCQ)
Question 1.
Solution:
(a) x² – 3√x + 2 = 0
It is not a quadratic equation, it has a fractional power of √x
(b) x + $$\frac { 1 }{ x }$$ = x²
⇒ x² + 1 = x3
It is not a quadratic equation.
(c) x² + $$\frac { 1 }{ { x }^{ 2 } }$$ = 5
⇒ x4 + 1 + 5x²
It is not a quadratic equation.
(d) 2x² – 5x = (x – 1)²
⇒ 2x² – 5x = x² – 2x + 1
⇒ x² – 3x – 1 = 0
It is a quadratic equation. (d)

Question 2.
Solution:
(a) (x² + 1) = (2 – x)² + 3
⇒ x² + 1 = 4 + x² – 4x + 3 is not a quadratic equation.
(b) x3 – x² = (x – 1)3
⇒ x3 – x² = x3 – 3x² + 3x – 1
⇒ 3x² – x² – 3x + 1 = 0
⇒ 2x² – 3x + 1 = 0
(c) 2x² + 3 = 10x – 15 + 2x² – 3x
⇒ 3x – 15 – 3 = 0
It is not a quadratic equation. (b)

Question 3.
Solution:
(a) It is a quadratic equation.
(b) (x + 2)² = 2(x² – 5)
⇒ x² + 4x + 4 = 2x² – 10
⇒ x² – 4x – 14 = 0
(c) (√2 x + 3)² = 2x² + 6
⇒ 2x² + 3√2 x + 9 = 2x² + 6
⇒ 3√2 + 3 = 0
It is not a quadratic equation.
(d) (x – 1)² = 3x² + x – 2
⇒ x² – 2x +1 = 3x² + x – 2
⇒ 2x² + 3x – 3 = 0
It is a quadratic equation. (c)

Question 4.
Solution:
x = 3 is solution of 3x² + (k – 1)x + 9 = 0
It will satisfy it
3(3)² + (k – 1)(3) + 9 = 0
⇒ 27 + 3k – 3 + 9 = 0
⇒ 3k + 33 = 0
⇒ k = -11 (b)

Question 5.
Solution:
2 is one root of equation 2x² + ax + 6 = 0
It will satisfy it
2(2)² + a(2) + 6 = 0
⇒ 8 + 2a + 6 = 0
⇒ 2a = -14
⇒ a = -7
a = -7 (b)

Question 6.
Solution:
In equation x² – 6x + 2 = 0
Sum of roots = $$\frac { -b }{ a }$$ = $$\frac { -(-6) }{ 1 }$$ = 6 (c)

Question 7.
Solution:
In equation x² – 3x + k = 10
x² – 3x + (k – 10) = 0
Product of roots = $$\frac { c }{ a }$$ = $$\frac { k – 10 }{ 1 }$$ = k – 10
k – 10 = -2 then k = 10 – 2 = 8 (c)

Question 8.
Solution:
In equation 7x² – 12x + 18 = 0

Question 9.
Solution:
In equation 3x² – 10x + 3 = 0

Question 10.
Solution:
In equation 5x² + 13x + k = 0

Question 11.
Solution:
In equation kx² + 2x + 3k = 0
Sum of roots = $$\frac { -b }{ a }$$ = $$\frac { -2 }{ k }$$

Question 12.
Solution:
Roots of an equation are 5, -2
Sum of roots (S) = 5 – 2 = 3
and product (P) = 5 x (-2) = -10
Equation will be
x² – (S)x + (P) = 0
⇒ x² – 3x – 10 = 0 (b)

Question 13.
Solution:
Sum of roots (S) = 6
Product of roots (P) = 6
Equation will be x² – (S)x + (P) = 0
x² – 6x + 6 = 0 (a)

Question 14.
Solution:
α and β are the roots of the equation 3x² + 8x + 2 = 0

Question 15.
Solution:
In equation ax² + bx + c = 0

Question 16.
Solution:
In equation ax² + bx + c = 0
Let α and β are the roots, then

Question 17.
Solution:
In equation 9x² + 6kx + 4 = 0, roots are equal
Let roots be α, α then

Question 18.
Solution:
In equation x² + 2 (k + 2) x + 9k = 0
Roots are equal
Let α, α be the roots, then

Question 19.
Solution:
In the equation
4x² – 3kx + 1 = 0 roots are equal
Let α, α be the roots

Question 20.
Solution:
Roots of ax² + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0 are real and unequal if D > 0
⇒ b² – 4ac > 0 (a)

Question 21.
Solution:
In the equation ax² + bx + c = 0
D = b² – 4ac > 0, then roots are real and unequal. (b)

Question 22.
Solution:
In the equation 2x² – 6x + 7 = 0
D = b² – 4ac = (-6)² – 4 x 2 x 7 = 36 – 56 = -20 < 0
Roots are imaginary (not real) (d)

Question 23.
Solution:
In equation 2x² – 6x + 3 = 0
D = b² – 4ac = (-6)² – 4 x 2 x 3 = 36 – 24 = 12 > 0
Roots are real, unequal and irrational, (b)

Question 24.
Solution:
In equation 5x² – kx + 1 = 0
D = b² – 4ac = (-k)² – 4 x 5 x 1 = k² – 20
Roots are real and distinct
D > 0
⇒ k² – 20 > 0
⇒ k² > 20
⇒ k > √±20
⇒ k > ±2√5
⇒ k > 2√5 or k < -2√5 (d)

Question 25.
Solution:
In equation x² + 5kx + 16 = 0
D = b² – 4ac = (5k)² – 4 x 1 x 16

Question 26.
Solution:
The equation x² – kx + 1 = 0
D = b2 – 4ac = (-k)² – 4 x 1 x 1 ⇒ k² – 4
Roots are not real
D < 0
⇒ k² – 4 < 0
⇒ k² < 4
⇒k < (±2)²
⇒ k < ±2
-2 < k < 2 (c)

Question 27.
Solution:
In the equation kx² – 6x – 2 = 0

Question 28.
Solution:
Let the number be = x

Question 29.
Solution:
Perimeter of a rectangle = 82 m
and Area = 400
Let breadth (b) = x, then
Length = $$\frac { P }{ 2 }$$ – x = $$\frac { 82 }{ 2 }$$ – x = 41 – x
Area = lb
400 = x (41 – x) = 41x – x²
⇒ x² – 41x + 400 = 0
⇒ x² – 25x – 16x + 400 = 0
⇒ x (x – 25) – 16(x – 25) = 0
⇒ (x – 25) (x – 16) = 0
Either, x – 16 = 0, then x = 16
or x – 25 = 0, then x = 25

Question 30.
Solution:
Let breadth of a rectangular field = x m
Then length = (x + 8) m
and area = 240 m²
x (x + 8) = 240
⇒ x² + 8x – 240 = 0
⇒ x² + 20x – 12x – 240 = 0
⇒ x (x + 20) – 12 (x + 20) = 0
⇒ (x + 20) (x – 12) = 0
Either, x + 20 = 0, then x = -20 which is not possible being negative,
or x – 12 = 0, then x = 12

Question 31.
Solution:
2x² – x – 6 = 0

Question 32.
Solution:
Sum of two natural numbers = 8
Let first number – x
Then second number = 8 – x
According to the condition,
x (8 – x) = 15
⇒ 8x – x² = 15
⇒ x² – 8x + 15 = 0
⇒ x² – 3x – 5x + 15 = 0
⇒ x(x – 3) – 5(x – 3) = 0
⇒ (x – 3)(x – 5) = 0
Either, x – 3 = 0, then x = 3
or x – 5 = 0, then x = 5
Natural numbers are 3, 5

Question 33.
Solution:
x = -3 is a solution of equation x² + 6x + 9 = 0 Then it will satisfy it
LHS = x² + 6x + 9 = (-3)² + 6(-3) + 9 = 9 – 18 + 9 = 0 = RHS

Question 34.
Solution:
3x² + 13x + 14 = 0
If x = -2 is its root then it will satisfy it
LHS = 3(-2)² + 13(-2) + 14 = 3 x 4 – 26 + 14 = 12 – 26 + 14 = 26 – 26 = 0 = RHS

Question 35.
Solution:
x = y is a solution of equation 3x² + 2kx – 3 = 0, then it will satisfy it

Question 36.
Solution:
2x² – x – 6 = 0
⇒ 2x² – 4x + 3x – 6 = 0

Question 37.
Solution:
3√3 x² + 10x + √3 = 0

Question 38.
Solution:
Roots of the quadratic equation 2x² + 8x + k = 0 are equal
Let α, α be its roots, then

Question 39.
Solution:
px² – 2√5 px + 15 = 0
Here, a = p, b = 2√5 p, c = 15
D = b² – 4ac = (-2√5 p)² – 4 x p x 15 = 20p² – 60p
Roots are equal.
D = 0
⇒ 20p² – 60p = 0
⇒ p² – 3p = 0
⇒ p (p – 3) = 0
p – 3 = 0, then p = 3

Question 40.
Solution:
1 is a root of equation
ay² + ay + 3 = 0 and y² + y + b = 0
Then a(1)² + a(1) + 3 = 0
⇒ a + a + 3 = 0
⇒ 2a + 3 = 0
⇒ a = $$\frac { -3 }{ 2 }$$
and 1 + 1 + b = 0
⇒ 2 + b = 0
⇒ b = -2
ab = $$\frac { -3 }{ 2 }$$ x (-2) = 3
Hence, ab = 3

Question 41.
Solution:
The polynomial is x² – 4x + 1
Here, a = 1, b = -4, c = 1

Question 42.
Solution:
In the quadratic equation 3x² – 10x + k = 0

Question 43.
Solution:
px (x – 2) + 6 = 0
⇒ px² – 2px + 6 = 0
D = b² – 4ac = (-2p)² – 4 x p x 6 = 4p² – 24p
Roots are equal
D = 0
Then 4p² – 24p = 0
⇒ 4p (p – 6) = 0
⇒ p – 6 = 0
⇒ p = 6

Question 44.
Solution:
x² – 4kx + k = 0
D = b² – 4ac = (-4k)² – 4 x 1 x k = 16k² – 4k
Roots are equal
D = 0
16k² – 4k = 0
⇒ 4k (4k – 1) = 0
⇒ 4k – 1 = 0
⇒ k = $$\frac { 1 }{ 4 }$$

Question 45.
Solution:
9x² – 3kx + k = 0
D = b² – 4ac = (-3k)² – 4 x 9 x k = 9k² – 36k
Roots are equal
D = 0
9k² – 36k = 0
9k (k – 4) = 0
Either, 9k = 0, then k = 0
or (k – 4) = 0 ⇒ k = 4
k = 0, 4

Question 46.
Solution:
x² – (√3 + 1) x + √3 = 0
D = b² – 4ac
= [-(√3 + 1)]² – 4 x 1 x √3
= 3 + 1 + 2√3 – 4√3
= 4 + 2√3 – 4√3
= 4 – 2√3
= 3 + 1 – 2√3
= (√3 – 1)²

Question 47.
Solution:
2x² + ax – a² = 0
D = B² – 4AC = a² – 4 x 2(-a)² = a² + 8a² = 9a²

Question 48.
Solution:
3x² + 5√5 x – 10 = 0
D = b² – 4ac = (5√5)² – 4 x 3 x (-10)
= 125 + 120 = 245 = 49 x 5 = (7√5)²

Question 49.
Solution:
√3 x² + 10x – 8√3 = 0

Question 50.
Solution:
√3 x² – 2√2 x – 2√3 = 0

Question 51.
Solution:
4√3 x² + 5x – 2√3 = 0

Question 52.
Solution:
4x² + 4bx – (a² – b²) = 0

Question 53.
Solution:
x² + 5x – (a² + a – 6) = 0
a² + a – 6 = a² + 3a – 2a – 6 = a(a + 3) – 2(a + 3) = (a + 3)(a – 2)
and 6 = (a + 3) – (a – 2)
x² + (a + 3)x – (a – 2)x – (a + 3) (a – 2) = 0
x (x + a + 3) – (a – 2) (x + a + 3) = 0
(x + a + 3)(x – a + 2) = 0
Either, x + a + 3 = 0, then x = -(a + 3)
or x – a + 2 = -0 then x = (a – 2)
x = -(a + 3) or (a – 2)

Question 54.
Solution:
x² + 6x – (a² + 2a – 8) = 0

Question 55.
Solution:
x² – 4ax + 4a² – b² = 0
4a² – b² = (2a)² – (b)² = (2a + b)(2a – b) – 4ax = (2a + b)x + (2a – b)x
x² – 4ax + 4a² – b² = x² – (2a + b)x – (2a – b)x + (2a + b)(2a – b) = 0
⇒ x (x – 2a – b) – (2a – b)(x – 2a – b) = 0
⇒ (x – 2a – b)(x – 2a + b)
Either, x – 2a – b = 0, then x = 2a + b
or x – 2a + b = 0, then x = 2a – b
Hence, x = (2a + b) or (2a – b)

Hope given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 10 Quadratic Equations Test Yourself are helpful to complete your math homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online math tutoring for you.

## Online Education HOTS Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce?

These Solutions are part of Online Education HOTS Questions for Class 10 Science. Here we have given HOTS Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce?

Question 1.
What does the diagram depict

Tubectomy or cutting and ligating the oviducts of a women.

More Resources

Question 2.
Identify the material shown in the diagram.

Yeast showing budding.
A – Parent
B – bud

Question 3.
How does Bryophyllum multiply vegetatively ?
By leaves which bear adventitious buds in their marginal notches.

Question 4.
When is menstruation absent in a lady ?
Before menarche, after menopause and during pregnancy.

Question 5.
What is normal fertility period ?
14th to 16th day of menstrual cycle.

Question 6.
(a) Name the parts labelled A, B, C, D and E.

(b) Where do the following functions occur l

1. Production of an egg
2. Fertilization
3. Implantation of zygote.

(c) What happens to the lining of uterus ?

1. Before release of a fertilized egg
2. If no fertilization occurs. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008 C)

(a)

1. A-Fallopian tube
2. B-Ovary
3. C-Uterus
4. D-Cervix
5. E-Vagina

(b)

1. Ovary
2. Fallopian tube
3. Uterus

(c)

1. Repair and growth of endometrium followed by its thickening and development of glands.
2. Breakdown of endometerial lining and rupturing of its blood vessels producing menstural flow.

Hope given HOTS Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? are helpful to complete your science homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online science tutoring for you.

## Our Environment Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15

In this page, we are providing Online Education for Our Environment Class 10 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 15 pdf download. NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers will help to score more marks in your CBSE Board Exams. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-science/

## Online Education for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Extra Questions and Answers Our Environment

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers Solutions

### Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Very Short Answer Type

Our Environment Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Give an example each of natural and an artificial ecosystem.
Natural ecosystem : Forest or pond
Artificial ecosystem : Crop field or aquarium.

Extra Questions Of Our Environment Class 10 Question 2.
What is the full form of CFCs and UNEP?
CFC = Chlorofluorocarbons
UNEP = United Nations Environment Programme.

Our Environment Extra Questions Question 3.
Define ecosystem and name its components.
The living and non-living components of an area interact with each other to form an ecosystem. Components of ecosystem are: Biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living)

Class 10 Our Environment Extra Questions Question 4.
What is the role of ozone? Why is it being depleted?
Ozone protects us from harmful UV radiations. It is being depleted due to excess use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

Our Environment Class 10 Important Questions Question 5.
What is ten per cent law?
Ten per cent law states that only 10% of the energy available at a trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level.

Our Environment Class 10 Extra Questions Question 6.
List two advantage of decomposers to the environment.  [CBSE 2008]

1. They replenish the soil nutrients.
2. They help to clean the environment by degrading the dead remains of plants and animals.

Chapter 15 Science Class 10 Extra Questions Question 7.
What is the ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem? Which process helps to trap this energy in producers?
Sun is the ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem. Photosynthesis helps to trap this energy in producers.

Ch 15 Science Class 10 Extra Questions Question 8.
What is the major cause of ozone depletion? Where are these substances used?  [CBSE 2012]
Chlorofluorocarbons are major cause of ozone depletion. They are used in refrigerator and aerosol sprays.

Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Extra Questions And Answers Question 9.
Biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste should be discarded in two separate dustbins as it will make it easier to recycle the recyclable wastes. This will also save time and energy.

Extra Questions On Our Environment Class 10 Question 10.
What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?  [CBSE 2011]
Killing all the organisms in one trophic level would decrease availability of food at the next trophic level and also result in excess of organisms at the previous trophic level. This would cause an imbalance in the food chain.

### Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Short Answer Type I

Our Environment Class 10 Short Questions And Answers Question 1.
Arrange these organisms in a food chain Snake, Plants, Frog, Bird
Plants → Frog → Snake → Bird

Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Extra Questions Question 2.
Draw an ecological pyramid, depicting the trophic levels.

Extra Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment Question 3.
The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant. Why?  [CBSE 2015]
Green plants contain a pigment called chlorophyll which traps the energy from the Sun and converts it into chemical energy to be utilised by the members of the next trophic level. So, the first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant.

Extra Question Of Our Environment Class 10 Question 4.
List two environment friendly practices or habits which need to be followed by every member of a family community. Explain how these practices will support the “save the environment” mission.  [CBSE 2014]

1. Use of paper bags or jute bags instead of plastic bags.
3. Use fuels like CNG, unleaded petrol or other ecofriendly fuels in vehicles.
Due to uses of environment friendly practices or habits we can save our environment.

Our Environment Extra Questions Class 10 Question 5.
Write the harmful effects of using plastic bags on the environment. Suggest alternatives to plastic bags. [CBSE 2013]
Harmful effects of plastic bags

• They clog the drainage system.
• They choke the alimentary canal of cattle when they get eaten by them.
• On burning they release toxic gases.
• They are non-biodegradable and do not decompose easily.

Alternative to plastic bags:

• Use of jute bags or paper bags.
• Reusable cloth bags.

Extra Questions Of Chapter Our Environment Class 10 Question 6.
Construct an aquatic food chain showing four trophic levels.  [CBSE 2010]
Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small fish → Bird.

Biology Class 10 Our Environment Extra Questions Question 7.
Why is improper disposal of waste a curse to the environment?  [NCERT Exemplar]
The improper disposal of wastes pollutes our environment and can cause harm to living organisms.

Class 10 Science Our Environment Extra Questions Question 8.
What are the advantages of cloth bags over plastic bags during shopping?  [NCERT Exemplar]
Cloth bags are better than the plastic bags because they:

• can be used to carry many things
• can be reused
• do not pollute the environment.

Our Environment Class 10 Worksheet With Answers Question 9.
Why are crop fields known as artificial ecosystems?  [NCERT Exemplar]
The crop fields are prepared and maintained by a man so they are man-made ecosystems. Hence, they are also called an artificial ecosystems.

Our Environment Class 10 One Mark Questions Question 10.
We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned. Why? [NCERT Exemplar]
A pond or a lake is a natural, self-sustaining, and complete ecosystem. But, an aquarium is an artificial and incomplete ecosystem that needs human intervention for its cleaning and upkeep.

### Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Short Answer Type II

Extra Questions For Our Environment Class 10 Question 1.
Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances with the help of one example each. List two changes in habit that people must adapt to dispose non-biodegradable waste for saving the environment.  [CBSE 2015]
1. Biodegradable substances: Substances that can be slowly destroyed and broken down into very small parts by natural processes by bacteria, fungi, etc. For example, organics wastes like vegetables and fruit peels.

2. Non-biodegradable substances: Substances that cannot be broken down or decomposed into the soil by natural agents are called as non-biodegradable. For example, plastic.
Habits to dispose non-biodegradable waste are:

• Segregating and treating the non-biodegradable waste before putting in dustbins.
• Recycle the plastics or glass present in non-biodegradable wastes.
• Motivate people to use paper or jute bags instead of plastic bags.

Our Environment Important Questions Question 2.
Our food grains such as wheat and rice, vegetables and fruits, and even meat are found to contain varying amounts of pesticide residues. State the reason to explain how and why it happens?  [CBSE 2014]
The harmful pesticides like DDT enter the plant body on being absorbed from the soil. When these are eaten by animals they get accumulated in the animal’s body as they are neither metabolized nor excreted out of their body. The concentration of these harmful chemicals gets increased at successive levels and are thus found in food grains as well as meat.

Our Environment Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 3.
How is ozone formed in the higher level of the atmosphere? “Damage to ozone layer is a cause of concern”. Justify this statement.  [CBSE 2010]
Ozone is formed due to action of UV rays on oxygen molecules to form free oxygen atom which subsequently combines with another molecule of oxygen to form ozone. The reaction is:

O + O2 → O3 (Ozone)

Ozone depletion is a cause of concern because it protects us from the harmful ultraviolet radiations of the Sun by absorbing them. The UV rays can cause skin cancer, ageing, cataract, etc. to human beings if they are not absorbed by ozone due to ozone depletion.

Question 4.
Explain phenomenon of “biological magnification”. How does it affect organisms belonging to different trophic levels particularly the tertiary consumers?  [CBSE 2010]
The levels of harmful toxicants/pesticides like DDT gets increased at successive trophic levels as they are neither metabolised nor excreted by the organism. They get accumulated in organism’s body with their higher concentrations at higher trophic levels. This is called as biological magnification.

Since, the tertiary consumers are at the top of the food chain, so a higher amount of these toxicants is present in them compared to the lower trophic levels.

### Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Suggest any four activities in daily life which are eco-friendly.  [NCERT Exemplar]
The eco-friendly activities in life are

• Planting of trees.
• Using cloth bags, jute bags or paper bags instead of plastic bags.
• Creating awareness on environment protection through initiatives and campaigns.
• Using of manures and organic agricultural methods.
• Using less of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
• Controlling pollution by using fuels like CNG.

Question 2.
Make food chains in (i) forest (ii) grassland (iii) pond. How does food chain differ from a food web?
Food chains in:
(i) Forest: Plants → Deer → Lion
(ii) Grassland: Plants → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle
(iii) Pond: Aquatic plants → Scorpion Fish → Flamingo

Food Chain: It is a series of organisms feeding on one another.
Food Web: It is a network of food chains consisting of a number of interlinked food chains.

Question 3.
Indicate the flow of energy in an ecosystem. Why is it unidirectional?  [NCERT Exemplar]
The flow of energy generally is
Sun → Producer → Herbivore → Carnivore

The flow of energy is unidirectional because it goes progressively from one trophic level (lower) to another trophic level (higher) and does not revert back.
It is impossible for energy to flow in the reverse direction as the available energy decreases in the higher trophic levels.

Question 4.
Name the wastes which are generated in your house daily. What measures would you take for their disposal? [NCERT Exemplar]
The wastes generated in our house daily are:

• Kitchen wastes
• Paper wastes like newspapers, bags, envelopes
• Plastic bags
• Vegetable/fruit peels/rinds

The measures which can be taken for their disposal are:

• Dispose of the plastic bags and bottles in a proper way.
• Vegetable/fruit peels can be used to make compost.
• Paper wastes can be used for recycling.
• Prepare a vermicompost pit for the organic wastes from the kitchen.

Question 5.
What are the by-products of fertiliser industries? How do they affect the environment?  [NCERT Exemplar]
The harmful by-products of fertiliser industries are the harmful gases like SO2 and NO. They cause air pollution and combine with the water vapour in the atmosphere to cause harmful acid rain.

Question 6.
Explain some harmful effects of agricultural practices on the environment.  [NCERT Exemplar]

• Change in the chemistry of soil and killing of useful microbes due to excessive use of fertilisers.
• Biological magnification occurs due to excessive use of chemical pesticides.
• Water table gets lowered due to the excess use of ground water.
• Soil fertility is lost due to extensive cropping.
• The natural ecosystems is harmed due to ploughing during agriculture.

### Our Environment HOTS Questions With Answers

Question 1.
“Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional”. Justify this statement. Explain how the pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently get into our body.  [CBSE 2014]
The flow of energy in an ecosystem occurs from a lower trophic level to the next trophic level i.e., from producers to consumers. It follows the ten percent law and thus cannot return back to producers from consumers. Hence, the flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional.

The pesticides like DDT enter the food chain after getting absorbed by plants from the soil. Once they enter the food chain, they are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body of the organism. Its concentration increases in the successive trophic level of the food chain.

Question 2.
In a food chain, if 10000 Joules of energy is available to the producer, how much energy will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary consumer? [CBSE 2012]
(i) Energy available to producers = 10,000 Joules.
Energy transfer to producer = 1% of 10,000 Joules = 100 Joules.

(ii) According to Ten per cent law,
Energy transfer to primary consumer = $$\frac{10}{100}$$ × 100 = 10 Joules.

(iii) Energy transfer to secondary consumer = $$\frac{10}{100}$$ × 10 = 1 Joule

(iv) Energy transfer to tertiary consumer = $$\frac{10}{100}$$ × 1 = 0.1 Joule

### Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Rakshit observed a gardener collecting dry leaves from a garden and burning them. He went to the gardener and advised him to utilise the dry leaves for making manure instead of burning.
(a) Name the two process which can be used to make manures from the dry leaves.
(b) Why did Rakshit advise the gardener not to burn leaves?
(c) What are the values shown by Rakshit?
(d) Why are organic manure better than chemical fertilisers?
(a) Composting and vermicomposting
(b) Burning of leaves emits smoke and harmful gases which pollute the environment.
(c) Environment friendly, concern for life, awareness, scientific attitude, logical thinking, etc.
(d) Organic manures are better than chemical fertilisers as excess use of chemical fertilisers leads to (i) loss in soil fertility (ii) increase in soil salinity.

Question 2.
The students of a school formed an Environment Club and started Campaign to Recycle waste, No cracker campaign and No-plastic campaign.
(а) What are the harmful effects of plastic waste?
(b) What are the alternatives to use of plastic bags?
(c) What are the values exhibited by the students of the school?
(d) Why is it necessary to recycle wastes?
(a) The excess use of plastics causes the following problems:

• It causes environmental pollution.
• Plastic bags are non-biodegradable and can cause problems in the digestive system of animals if they eat these plastic bags.

(b) Alternatives are the use of Jute bags or paper bags.
(c) Values are: Eco-friendliness, Concern for life, Responsible, Creative thinking.
(d) To reduce the amount of garbage generated.

Question 3.
The Government of Delhi has proposed the odd-even formula for the use of cars on an alternate basis. The move is aimed at reducing the level of pollution in the city. Further, this move will also help in the conservation of fuel resources.
(a) Mention the values inherent in such a decision of the Government.
(b) What other options (any two) can be used to reduce the level of pollution in city?
(c) How can such a move help in conservation of fuel resources?
(d) How can we ensure lesser emission of pollutants from the vehicles?
(a) Concern for environment, judicious use of energy resources, environmental health, concern and care for public health.
(b) Use of CNG as fuel, lesser use of diesel vehicles.
(c) The vehicles usually run on petrol and diesel which are non-renewable energy resources. This less use of these will help in their conservation.
(d)

• Strict pollution control norms.
• Better engines with higher fuel efficiency.
• Ensuring lesser emissions of exhaust gases from vehicles.
• Use of cleaner fuels like CNG.

## Online Education for Animals Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English First Flight

Here we are providing Online Education for Animals Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English First Flight, Extra Questions for Class 10 English was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-english/

## Online Education for Animals Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English First Flight

Animals Class 10 Extra Question Answer Question 1.
Why does the poet wish to live with animals?
The poet wishes if he could be transformed and live with animals. The poet thinks that animals Eire self contained, peaceful, unambitious, uncomplaining, simple Eind honest. He finds himself more like Einimsds.

Animals Class 10 Extra Questions Question 2.
About what do the animals not ‘whine’ and ‘weep’?
The animals do not show anxiety or distress nor do they moan about the condition in which they live.. The animals do not lie awake in the dark and weep for their sins.

Animals Poem Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 3.
‘Not one kneels to another, nor to his. kind that lived thousands of years ago.’ How does the poet distinguish between animals and human being in these lines?
The poet wishes to convey that the EinimEils do not kneel before others especially before the ones who lived thousand of years ago. But the humsm beings indulge in hero worship and kneel to another human beings, who might have lived thousands of years ago.

Animals Poem Class 10 Extra Questions Question 4.
What does the poet wish to convey through the follow ing lines?
‘Not one is dissatisfied, not one is demented with the mania of owning things’.
The poet feels more at home with animals than with human beings. It is because he thinks that none of the animals is discontented about its condition. Moreover, like humanbeings the animals are not crazy about possessing the material things.

Animals Extra Questions Question 5.
How does the poet react to man’s ways? Why?
OR
“The poem ‘Animals’ is a satirical comment on man’s way”. Justify.
MEUI commits sin, repents, complains about his condition; preach about his duties to God. He desires to own everything. He encourages differences Eind pretends to be concerned for the whole earth. The poet dislikes and is fed up of all this. So he wishes to turn away from man’s world and live with animals.

Animals Extra Questions Answers Question 6.
What message does the poem “Animals’ wish to convey?
OR
What is the central idea of the poem “Animals”?
The poem “AnimEds” comments upon man’s degraded condition. He himself has dropped his goodness way behind and now, he suffers due to lack of it. So, man should not lose his basic nature—his simplicity, satisfaction, honesty and place. He should not create differences in the name of god.

Extra Questions Of Animals Class 10 Question 7.
How, according to the poet, have animals got the ‘token’?
According to the poet, humans have been just like animals in their basic nature a long time ago. In their march to civilization, they grew negligent towards it. Thus, they lost their basic nature Eind virtues, but animals still possess their basic nature. The poet imagines that animals got it from where humans lost it and have retained and preserved it since then.

Animals Poem Extra Questions Question 8.
How are animals better than man?
OR
Mention three things that humans do and animals don’t?
The poet has drawn three comparisons between humans and animals.

• Humans sweat and work hard to make a living and later whine and sulk about the amount of work they have to do to survive. Animals, on the other hand, do not whine about their condition.
• Humans lie awake at night and cry for the wrongs they have done. Animals do not weep for anything they do and sleep peacefully.
• Finally, humans make each other sick by discussing their duties to god. However, animals do not have any god and they live and survive without any prayers or fasts.

Extra Questions Of Poem Animals Class 10 Question 9.
We must not cry at our work condition rather we must either try to accept or improve if we can’—Explain it with reference to the poem ‘Animals’ composed by Walt Whitman.
Change is the rule of nature. Everything undergoes some change with the passage of time. Some changes face the better conditions while some touch the worse. Being partner of the changing situations, we should be able to accept both happiness and sadness that emerge from the womb of change. They are cyclic. We must not be selective all the time. We must not weep over our sadness.

This is what one of things the poet finds missing among human beings unlike animals. Animals never weep or bother for their worsening condition. They embrace whatever comes in their ways be it joy or pain. They do not set back and start grudging and grumbling about their bad condition. The poem teaches us that we should learn from the qualities of animals who live in peace and content of atmosphere.

Class 10 Animals Poem Extra Questions Question 10.
It is not complaining but accepting a situation is the key to happiness in life. Elaborate in context of the poem “Animals”.
The greatest quality which a person can posses is to accept the situation quietly. If we learn to do things quietly then earth will sure become nice place to live on. We have dropped certain token of love, fellow feelings, sympathy, respect, co-operation, friendship, these qualities will only make us accept the things as they are and not to lose our identity. A person who has lived in a given situation peacefully, has always strived to the top.

The poem ‘Animals’ gives very important- messages. We human beings are gripped with feelings of ill- will, hatred, despise but animals are faraway from these ideas. We should learn from animals to be happy and let others live happily.

Animals Class 10 Important Questions Question 11.
The poet in the poem (Animals’ laments the loss of certain values on part of human beings, where as animals seem to have retained them and are self-contained. Analyse the cause of degeneration of values in today’s hard times.
The poet, Walt Whitman, has got a clear understanding of this universe. He has very rightly brought before us the importance of traditions and values. He has understood that animals are self contained and fully satisfied with their lot. We human beings are never satisfied.

The values of human life are degenerating and rise in materialism is the major cause of these conflicts. Human beings are developing qualities such as ill-will, hatred, bloodshed and cruelty. Due to these conflicts there is no love and understanding. Thus dwindling human values are making people blood thirsty and evil.

Question 12.
Write the central idea of the poem “Animals’.
In the poem “Animals’ the poet ‘Walt Whitman’ praises animals for being better than human beings. The human beings have left the qualities of kindness and innocence. The poet wants to live among the company of animals and experience life free of sins. The poet believes that long ago humans possessed those qualities which have been left. The poem teaches us to learn from qualities of animals who live in peace and contentment.

Question 13.
Notice the use of the word ‘turn’ in the first line, “I, think I could turn and live with animals…” What is the poet turning from?
The poet is turning away from living with other humans as he finds them complicated and false. He would rather live with animals that are self-contained and non-complaining.

Question 14.
Mention three things that humans do and animals don’t.
The poet has drawn three comparisons between humans and animals.

• Humans sweat and work hard to make a living and later whine and sulk about the amount of work they have to do to survive. Animals, on the other hand, do not whine about their condition.
• Humans lie awake at night and cry for the wrongs they have done. Animals do not weep for anything they do and sleep peacefully.
• Finally, humans make each other sick by discussing their duties to god. However, animals do not have any god and they live and survive without any prayers or fasts.

Question 15.
Do humans kneel to other humans who lived thousands of years ago? Discuss this in groups.
Yes, human beings eulogise and kneel to other human beings who lived thousands years ago. For instance they worship their heroes, their warriors or their saints unlike animals. As only human beings have the sense to do so, they worship their heroes and saints, but animals do not do it.

Question 16.
What are the ‘tokens’ that the poet says he may have dropped long ago, and which the animals have kept for him? Discuss this in class. (Hint: Whitman belongs to a Romantic tradition that includes Rousseau and Wordsworth, which holds that civilisation has made humans false to their own true nature. What could be the basic aspects of our nature as living beings that humans choose to ignore or deny)?
The poet says that long ago he might have dropped the tokens or symbols of a feeling, a fact, an event etc or memorials of affection which the animals have kept from him. The poet holds that civilisation has made humans false to their own true nature. That is why he considers animals more natural, innocent and true as compared to human beings.

### Animals Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Question 1.
I think I could turn and live with animals, they are
so placid and self-contain’d,
I stand and look at them long and long.

(i) Name the poem and poet.
(ii) Who is “I” in the stanza.
(iii) What does the speaker wish to do?
(iv) Whom does the poet look at?
(i) This line have been taken from the poem “Animals” composed by Walt Whitman’.
(ii) T refers to the poet in the stanza—Walt Whitman’.
(iii) The speaker (poet) wishes to live with the ‘Animals’.
(iv) The poet looks at the animals for a long time while standing.

Question 2.
They do not sweat and whine about their condition,
They do not lie awake in the dark and weep for their sins,
They do not make me sick discussing their duty to God,
Not one is dissatisfied, not one is demented with the mania of owning things,

(i) Who are ‘the/ in the stanza?
(ii) What is the general attitude of a man?
(iii) Pick out the word from the stanza that means the same as—‘complain’.
(iv) Name the poem and poet.
(i) ‘They’ in the stanza stands for the ‘Animals’.
(ii) The general attitude of a man is repressed, dissatisfied and complaining.
(iii) “Whine’ means complain.
(iv) The poem “Animals” written by “Walt Whitman’.

Question 3.
Not one kneels to another, nor to his kinds that
live thousands of years ago,
Not one is respectable or unhappy over the whole earth.

(i) What is the attitude of the animals towards other animals?
(ii) What do the animals do not do?
(iii) Explain ‘not one is respectable’.
(iv) Name the poem and poet.
(i) The animals do not consider other animals as their superior.
(ii) The animals do not worship their look alike.
(iii) It means that, unlike men, all are equal among animals.
(iv) The poem “Animals” written by Walt Whitman’.

Question 4.
So they show their relations to me and I accept them,
They bring me tokens of myself, they evince
them plainly in their possession.

(i) What facts does the speaker accept?
(ii) What does the speaker mean by the phrase ‘tokens of Myself?
(iii) What have the animals preserved?
(iv) Name the poem and poet.
(i) The speaker accepts the facts that there is a close relation between the man and the animals.
(ii) The speaker means simplicity and other basic features of the early mankind.
(iii) Animals have preserved and retained the tokens dropped by the men.
(iv) The poem “Animals” written by Walt Whitman’.

Question 5.
I wonder where they get those tokens,
Did I pass that way huge times ago and negligently drop them?

(i) According the poet what have the animals retained?
(ii) Why, according the poet, man has lost his basic goodness?
(iii) Pick out the word from the stanza that means the same as—‘irresponsibly’.
(iv) Name the poem and poet.
(i) According to the poet, the animals have retained the basic simplicity and honesty dropped by men.
(ii) Man has lost his basic goodness because of his negligence.
(iii) ‘negligently ‘
(iv) The poem “Animals” written by Walt Whitman’

## Tenses Exercises for Class 10 CBSE With Answers

This grammar section explains Online Education English Grammar in a clear and simple way. There are example sentences to show how the language is used. NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English will help you to write better answers in your Class 10 exams. Because the Solutions are solved by subject matter experts. https://ncertmcq.com/tenses-exercise-for-class-10/

## Online Education Tenses Exercises for Class 10 CBSE With Answers

Tenses at a Glance

Tense Exercise For Class 10

♦ Sequence of Tenses:

1. According to the Sequence of Tenses the tense of the verb in a subordinate clause follows the tense of the verb in the Principal Clause.

2. There are two main rules for the Sequence of Tenses.
Rule No. 1. If the verb in the Principal Clause is in the Present or Future Tense, the verb in the Subordinate Clause may be in any tense, according to the sense; for example:

Rule No. 2. If the verb in the Principal Clause is in the Past Tense, the verb in the Subordinate Clause must also be written in the corresponding Past Tense, for example:

1. I knew he was telling a lie.
2. He worked hard so that he might pass.
There are, however, some exceptions to this rule.

(i) If the verb in the Subordinate Clause expresses some universal truth or habitual action, it is always in the Present Tense, even if the verb in the Principal Clause is in the Past Tense; for example:

1. The old father told his sons that union is strength.
2. I was sorry to hear that he has a bad temper.

(ii) If the verb in the Subordinate Clause is introduced by the conjunction of comparison ‘than’, the verb may be of any tense, even though there is Past Tense in the Principal Clause, for example:

1. She liked him more than she likes you.
2. He helped us more than he helps his relatives.

Note 1. If the comparison is expressed by “as well as” instead of “than”, the same rule holds good. Any tense may be followed by any tense, according to the sense intended by the speaker. For example,

1. He likes you as well as he liked me.
2. He will like you as well as he has liked me.

Note 2. If no verb is expressed after “than” or after “as well as”, the tense of the verb understood in the subordinate clause is the same as that of the verb expressed in the principal clause. For example,

1. He liked you better than (he liked) me.
2. He will like you as well as (he will like) me.

Note 3. The word “lest”-“that not”. The only auxiliary verb that can be used after “lest” is should, whatever may be the tense of the verb in the principal clause. For example,

(iii) If the Subordinate Clause is an adverbial clause of place or reason, sequence of tenses may be in any tense according to the tense/sense implied, for example:
He failed because he has weak health.

Rule No. 3. The conjunctions ‘as if and ‘as though’ always take ‘were’ in the subordinate clause, whatever the tense in the Principal Clause, for example:

1. He talks as if he was mad.
2. He worked as though he were a giant.

Fill up the blanks by using the correct tense form of the verbs given in brackets.

Tenses Exercises With Answers Pdf Class 10 Question 1.
(a) We …………… (go) to Guwahati by Rajdhani Express last month.
(b) Rajdhani train …………… (be) a fully air-conditioned train.
(c) It …………… (provide) food, cold drinks, water, and the blankets at night.
(d) The journey …………… (be) cool. It imparted solace to the soul and mind.
(e) On the opposite, there …………… (be) a priest.
(f) He …………… (be) in the church of Patna for the past twenty years.
(g) I was informed that he …………… (read) a book.
(h) He did not say when he …………… (come).
(i) I hope that you …………… (pardon) me soon.
(j) He taught me that good deeds …………… (b) never lost.

(a) went
(b) is
(c) provides
(d) was
(e) was
(f) has been
(h) would come
(i) will pardon
(j) are

Exercises On Tenses For Class 10 With Answers Pdf Question 2.
(a) Arjun …………… (be) a good friend of Lord Krishna.
(b) He never …………… (want) to fight with his brother Duryodhan.
(c) It was Krishna who …………… (inspire) Arjun by giving him Upadesas of Gita.
(d) Arjun …………… (bow) before his Guru and then he started fighting.
(e) The Mahabharata …………… (write) by Ved Vyasji.
(f) The Mahabharata …………… (be) an epic.

(a) was
(b) wanted
(c) inspired
(d) bowed
(e) was written
(f) is

Tenses Class 10 Exercise Question 3.
(a) Malaria …………… (be) caused by female Anopheles mosquito.
(b) They …………… (be) also called carriers.
(c) When a Mosquito …………… (bite) a person, the microbes enter into the bloodstream.
(d) We should …………… (keep) the surrounding clean to avoid the breeding of mosquitoes.
(e) Disease-causing microbes …………… (be) called pathogens.
(f) Yeast …………… (be) a friendly microbe.

(a) is
(b) are
(c) bites
(d) keep
(e) are
(f) is

Tenses Exercise Class 10 Question 4.
Last week I (a) ……………. (visit) the trade fair. It (b) ……………. (inaugurate) by the President of India. I (c) ……………. (accompany) by my friend who (d) ……………. (come) from the U.S.A. last week. He (e) ……………. (live) in the U.S.A. since last five years. He (f) ……………. (do) his M.B.A. from the New York University.

(a) visited
(b) was inaugurated
(c) was accompanied
(e) has been living
(f) is doing

Class 10 Tenses Exercise Question 5.
Kate Middleton may (a) …………….(be) looked dainty and fairy-like in her wedding gown but (b) ……………. (talk) doing the rounds (c) ……………. (be) that the‘dress bore a striking similarity with Grace Kelly’s wedding outfit. Royal wedding fans couldn’t (d) ……………. (help) noticing that both the brides (e) ……………. (wear) dramatic gowns with similar V-shaped necklines and long white lace sleeves at their respective weddings, (f) ……………. (report) the New York Daily.

(a) have
(b) talks
(c) are
(d) help
(e) wore
(f) reports

Tenses Class 10 Worksheet Question 6.
(a) Mrs Talwar ………………. (live) in a village.
(b) She ………………. (be) three children.
(c) Her hobby………………..(be) singing and praying in solitude.
(d) She ……………………. (love) to look after the poor children.
(e) Her children ………………. (be) abroad.
(f) She ………………. (be) a staunch devotee of Lord Krishna.

(a) lives
(b) has
(c) is
(d) loves
(e) are
(f) is

Tenses Exercises With Answers Class 10 Question 7.
Honey, amla, gums, resins, tubers and tamarind; all these and more (a) ………………. (come) fromforests and (b) ………………. (find) their way into our lives. But the tribals who (c) ………………. (pluck), dig and extract them get a pittance. Now, the government (d) ………………. (decide) to provide a minimum support price (MSP) for some select forest produce on the lines of wheat and paddy. The step could (e) ………………. (help) around 40 million tribal families which still (f) ………………. (depend) part or whole year on income from forests.

(a) come
(b) have found
(c) pluck
(d) has decided
(e) help
(f) depend

Tense Questions For Class 10 Question 8.
A new study has (a) ………………. (find) that birds living in cities (b) ………………. (be) larger brains while species with smaller brains (c) ………………. (find) almost exclusively in rural locations. Researchers at Sweden’s Uppsala University (d) ………………. (look) at 82 bird species in central. European cities and in the surrounding countryside and (e) ………………. (found) that birds with relatively large brains, such as crows and magpies (f) ………………. (inhabit) urban areas.

(a) found
(b) have
(c) are found
(d) have looked
(e) have found
(f) inhabit

Tenses Questions For Class 10 Question 9.
When I (a) ………………. (be) sixty years old, I (b )………………. (be) open a club. All the members (c) ……………… (be) a share in it. It (d) ………………. (be) comprise forty members who should be fifty-plus in age. Health centre, swimming pool, and a dancing floor (e) ………………. (be) be the features of that club. Membership fees (f) ………………. (be) 5 lacs.

(a) will be
(b) will
(c) will have
(d) will
(e) will
(f) will be

Exercise On Tenses For Class 10 Question 10.
Peddacheppalli (a) ………………. (become) a habitation after Pakistani Kapu brothers who (b) ………………. (come) from Northern India, (c) ………………. (cut) down a forest and (d) ………………. (level) it, and hence the village (e) ………………. (name) Peddacheppalli after the eldest of the brothers. Sage Agastya (f) ………………. (live) here for some time.

(a) became
(b) came
(c) cut
(d) levelled
(e) was named
(f) lived

Tenses Worksheet Class 10 Question 11.
With the onset of Kaliyuga, none (a) ……………… (perform) pooja and the area (b) ……………. (turn) into a forest with wild shrubs and mud hills (c) ………………. (form) on the Shivlingam. When chappals (d) ………………. (get) trees cut down for (e) ………………. (form) a village, a valmeekam (f) ………………. (surface) and local people offered prayers.

(a) performed
(b) turned
(c) formed
(d) got
(e) forming
(f) surfaced

## Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Forest and Wildlife Resources

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Forest and Wildlife Resources with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

## Online Education for Forest and Wildlife Resources Class 10 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 2

Question 1.
Define an ecosystem.
Eco-system is meant as the physical environment of a place formed by all kinds of plants, birds and animals of that area.

Question 2.
What factors are responsible for the distribution of plants and animals in India?
The distribution of plants and animals is mainly determined by the climate of that area. The other determining factors of this distribution are soil, relief and drainage etc.

Question 3.
What is bio-reserve? Give two examples.
A bio-reserve is a place which consists of fairly vast wild land and is devoted to the protection and preservation of flora and fauna of the country in the very natural form. Examples : Gulf of Mannar, Nilgiri.

Question 4.
Which was the form of life which appeared on the earth?
Plants and vegetation.

Question 5.
What is the importance of the plants for us?
Every form of life in the earth is dependent either directly or indirectly on the plants hence these are very significant.

Question 6.
How many flowering plants are there in India?

Question 7.
What is the use of Sarpagandha?
Sarpagandha is used for the treatment of the blood pressure.

Question 8.
How many species of the plants have been listed as endangered in India?
52.

Question 9.
Which of the international agencies has included Indian plants in the medical list?
The World Conservation Union.

Question 10.
Name the Indian regions where Tropical deciduous forests are found.

• The north-eastern states,
• The foothills of the Himalays,
• Jharkhand,
• West Orissa,
• Chhattisgarh,
• Eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.

Question 11.
Name two animals having habitat in different types of vegetation.

1. Tropical Rain Vegetation: Elephant, monkey
2. Deciduous Vegetation: Lion, tiger
3. Thorn-Scrubs: Fox, Lion.
4. Temperate Vegetation: Kashmir Stag, Leopard
5. Alpine-Tundra: Yak, Leopard
6. Tidal vegetation: Tiger, turtles.

Question 12.
Point out the importance of the biosphere reserves.

• The biosphere reserves are very important in reserving the endangered species of animals and plants.
• These are the important source of transmission of the natural heritage to the future generations.
• These inspire the people of the surroundings areas to protect the wildlife.
• These provide opportunities for research.
• These are also important for promoting tourism.

Question 13.
Name the states where the following biosphere reserves are situated.
(i) Nilgiri
(ii) Nanda Devi
(iii) Manas
(iv) Simlipal
(v) Nokrek
(vi) Sundarban
(vii) Pacha-in
(viii) Dehang Debong
Biosphere Reserves:

 (i) Nilgiri Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala (ii) Nanda Devi Uttrakhand (iii) Manas Assam (iv) Simlipal Orissa (v) Nokrek Meghalaya (vi) Sundarban West Bengal (vii) Pachmarhi Madhya Pradesh (viii) Dehang Debong. Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 14.
What is the reason that the tropical deciduous forests shed their leaves during the summer?
Tropical deciduous forests are the trees like sal, sandal, shisham etc. All of these trees shed their leaves in summer. The main reason behind this fact is that the leaves get dry by the scorching heat of the summer and as a result, they leave the branches automatically.

Question 15.
What are the main reasons that the evergreen forests are found in the western slopes of the Western Ghats?
The evergreen forests are found in the western slopes of the Western Ghats because of the following reasons:

• The western slopes of the Western Ghats get heavy rainfall because they are on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and here the monsoon winds are very active.
• The trees grown here do not have a distinct season of sheding leaves as the region is warm and wet throughout the year.

Question 16.
Why such an importance is given to conserve the natural vegetation?
Or
Describe the importance of the natural vegetation.
Natural vegetation is no doubt very important for the environment as well as for human life. Hence, it is very essential to consume it, The main importance of the natural vegetation are the following:

• The natural vegetation adds beauty to nature.
• The natural vegetation provides habitat to the wild life including both birds and animals.
• Without the natural vegetation, the coming generation would be deprived of great variety of fauna.
• Natural vegetation greately helps us attracting the monsoon clouds and making them to rain.
• Natural vegetation also provides us many useful products like wood which gives up material for the construction purposes of domestic as well as furniture and many other things. Many industries are based on the forest products.
• Forests give us fuel.
• The raw material for paper industry, match-making and sports material are also derived from the forests.
• The natural vegetation also gives the sandal, gums, resins, turpine oil etc.
• Many other very useful products like herbs, honey, lac etc. are also taken from natural vegetation whether directly or indirectly.
• The grass form of the natural vegetation provides grazing field for cattle. Hence natural vegetation is undoubtedly one of the most essential elements of life. Hence it must be protected.

Question 17.
Which steps should be taken to preserve the natural vegetation?
To preserve the natural vegetation following steps should be taken:

• Cutting of the trees in the forests must be stopped. The government has taken adequate steps in this direction. Forest department has been created for this purpose. Laws have, been implemented to punish die persons found in felling and cutting of the trees. However, awareness among the people is more important Without this awareness desired results cannot be achieved.
• The people must cooperate to check the feeling of trees. They infact must take active part in this regard.
Fortunately, many persons have come forward in this direction. Movement like ‘Chipko Andolan’ has been launched by the people themselves.
• Necessary wood for industrial purposes and for other activities must be taken through planned manner. So that purposes-industrial growth and the environment protection-can be achieved.
• Wherever the trees have been cut for whatever reason; new trees must be planted to maintain the ecological balance.
• Function like ‘Vanmahotsava’ should be celebrated everywhere. It would help in growing the awareness.
• 33% of the total land area must be brought under forest area.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1.
The following is a tree found in tropical rain forests:
(a) mahogany
(b) shisham
(c) palms
(d) spruce.

Question 2.
The following is a type of animal found in tropical rain forests:
(a) tiger
(b) elephant
(c) rabbit
(d) snow leopard

Question 3.
The following is the type of animal found in the Alpine and Tundra Vegetation:
(a) worms
(b) camels
(c) yaks
(d) turtles

Question 4.
The following type of timber is found in deciduous forests:
(a) acacias
(b) silver fir
(c) ebony
(d) sandalwood

Question 5.
There are the following number of national parks in India:
(a) 89
(b) 90
(c) 91
(d) 92

Question 6.
To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to
(a) Tundra,
(b) Tidal
(c) Himalayan
(d) Tropical Evergreen.

Map Skills

Question 1.
With the help of India’s map, show the following.
(i) Areas of Evergreen Forests
(ii) Areas of Dry Deciduous Forests

Question 2.
Show the following in the map of India.
Two National parks each in Northern, Southern, Eastern and Western Parts.

## Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Language and Literature Paper 1

In Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Language and Literature Paper 1 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Language and Literature Paper 1.

## Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Language and Literature Paper 1

 Board CBSE Class 10 Subject English Language and Literature Sample Paper Set Paper 1 Category CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 10 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme, as prescribed by the CBSE, is given here. Paper 1 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Language and Literature is given below with free PDF download Answers.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

• The paper consists of 3 sections: A, B, C.
• Attempt all the questions.
• Don’t write anything on the question paper.
• All the answers must be correctly numbered and written in the answer sheet provided to you.
• Strictly adhere to the word limit given in the question paper. Marks will be deducted for exceeding the word limit.
• Ensure that questions of each section are answered together.

SECTION A

Question 1.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (8)
1. Necessity is indeed the mother of invention. When areas in and around Leh began to experience water shortages, life didn’t grind to a halt. Why? Because Chewang Norphel, a retired civil engineer in the Jammu and Kashmir government came up with the idea of artificial glaciers.
2. Ladakh, a cold desert at an altitude of 3,000-3,500 meters above sea level, has a low average annual rainfall rate of 50mm. Glaciers have always been the only source of water. Agriculture is completely dependent on glacier melt unlike the rest of river/monsoon-fed India. But over the years with increasing effects of climate change, rainfall and snowfall patterns have been changing, resulting in severe shortage and drought situations. Given the severe winter conditions, the window for farming is usually limited to one harvest season.
3. It is located between the natural glacier above and the village below. The one closer to the village and lowest in altitude melts first, providing water during April/May, the crucial sowing season. Further layers of ice above melt with increasing temperature thus ensuring continuous supply to the fields. Thus, farmers have been able to manage two crops instead of one. It costs about Rs. 1,50,000 and above to create one.
4. Fondly called the “glacier man”, Mr. Norphel has designed over 15 artificial glaciers in and around Leh since 1987. In recognition of his pioneering effort, he was conferred the Padma Shri by President Pranab Mukherjee, in 2015.
5. There are few basic steps followed in creating the artificial glacier.
6. River or stream water at higher altitude is diverted to a shaded area of the hill, facing north, where the winter sun is blocked by a ridge or a mountain range. At the start of winter/November, the diverted water is made to flow onto sloping hill face through distribution channels. Stone embankments are built at regular intervals which impede the flow of water, making shallow pools and freeze, forming a cascade of ice along the slope. Ice formation continues for 3-4 months resulting in a large accumulation of ice which is referred to as an “artificial glacier”. (349 words)

1.1. Attempt any eight of the following questions on the basis of the passage you have read. (1 x 8 = 8)
(a) Who was Chewang Norphel?
(b) What kind of land form is Ladakh?
(c) Why have Glaciers been the only source of water for Ladakh?
(d) Why has the pattern of snowfall and rainfall changed?
(e) How are Glaciers significant for irrigation?
(f) How do farmers manage to grow two crops instead of one?
(g) In which year did President Pranab Mukherjee confer Padma Shri to Mr. Norphel?
(h) How many months does the ice formation continue for?
(i) Find the word in the paragraph 6 which means the same as ‘gathering’?

Question 2.
1. Have you ever failed at something so miserably that the thought of attempting to do it again was the last thing you wanted to do?
2. If your answer is yes, then you are “not a robot.” Unlike robots, we human beings have feelings, emotions, and dreams. We are all meant to grow and stretch despite our circumstances and our limitations. Flourishing and trying to make our dreams come true is great when life is going our way. But what happens when it’s not? What happens when you fail despite all of your hard work? Do you stay down and accept the defeat or do you get up again and again until you are satisfied? If you have a tendency to persevere and keep going then you have what experts call, grit.
3. Falling down or failing is one of the most agonizing, embarrassing, and scariest human experiences. But it is also one of the most educational, empowering, and essential parts of living a successful and fulfilling life. Did you know that perseverance (grit) is one of the seven qualities that have been described as the keys to personal success and betterment in society? The other six are curiosity, gratitude, optimism, self-control, social intelligence, and zest. Thomas Edison is a model for grit for trying 1,000 plus times to invent the light bulb. If you are reading this with the lights on in your room, you know well he succeeded. When asked why he kept going despite his hundreds of failures, he merely stated that what he had been not failures. They were hundreds of ways not to create a light bulb. This statement not only revealed his grit but also his optimism for looking at the bright side.
4. Grit can be learned to help you become more successful. One of the techniques that help is mindfulness. Mindfulness is a practice that helps the individual stay at the moment by bringing awareness of his or her experience without judgment. This practice has been used to quiet
the noise of their fears and doubts. Through this simple practice of mindfulness, individuals have the ability to stop the self-sabotaging downward spiral of hopelessness, despair, and frustration.
5. What did you do to overcome the negative and self-sabotaging feelings of failure? Reflect on what you did, and try to use those same powerful resources to help you today.

2.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words each. (2 x 4 = 8)
(a) According to the passage, what are the attributes of a human?
(b) What is perceived as grit?
(c) How is ‘failing’ an educational and empowering part of human life?
(d) In what ways can grit be developed?
(e) How does mindfulness help?

2.2. On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer any four of the following: (1 x 4 = 4)
(a) While inventing the light bulb, Thomas Edison had failed …………
(i) 1000 times
(ii) 10000 plus times
(iii) 1000 plus times
(iv) 10000 times

(b) Failure is a part of …… life.
(i) normal
(ii) common
(iii) human
(iv) ordinary

(c) In paragraph 2, ……… means continue.
(i) robots
(ii) satisfied
(iii) persevere
(iv) flourishing

(d) In paragraph 3, the synonym of distressing is …………
(i) embarrassing
(ii) scariest
(iii) agonizing
(iv) failing

(e) ………….. helps in preventing individuals from going down the lines of despair.
(i) success
(ii) fear
(iii) doubt
(iv) mindfulness

SECTION B
(Writing & Grammar – 30 Marks)

Question 3.
You are Sujal/Sujata of Pragya Public School, Nangal, Punjab who had arranged a trip for fifty students of Nanital in summer vacations for ten days with ‘Mount Travels and Tourism’. The arrangements done by the travel agency were far below standard. The accommodation and food facilities were inferior in quality. Write a letter of complaint . to the director of the agency to stop duping tourists with false promises as it tarnishes the image of locals. (100-120 words) (8)
OR
India is a highly populated country. People lack in maintaining proper sanitation and hygiene, as a result, they suffer from various diseases. India has a serious sanitation challenge; around 60 percent of the world’s open defecation takes place in India. Poor sanitation causes health hazards including diarrhea, particularly in children under S years of age, malnutrition, and deficiencies in physical development and cognitive ability. You are Nitish/Nikita, head boy/girl of Anand Public School, Jaipur. Write a letter to the editor of a national daily, highlighting the problem and suggesting practical ways to ensure public sanitation and the right to dignity and privacy. (100-120 words) (8)

Question 4.
Develop a short story with the help of the given visual/starting line. Give a suitable title to your story. (150-200 words)

OR
It was an amazing day. Full of fun and frolic. We all stood aghast to see a strange flying object over our heads. We started guessing… (write in 150-200 words).

Question 5.
Fill in any four of the blanks choosing the most appropriate option from the ones given in the box. Write the answers in your answer sheet against the correct blank numbers. (1 x 4 = 4)
Butterflies are abundant (a) ……….. the Central African Republic. It (b) ………… home to nearly 600 identified species. Many butterflies are brilliantly colored and small (c) ……….. some are as big as saucers. Farmer Philippe (d) …………. solace in collecting butterfly wings from his fields and turning them into works of art. My favorite hobby, since my childhood, is (e) ………… butterflies.
(a) (i) in (ii) from (iii) for (iv) into
(b) (i) has (ii) is (iii) was (iv) are
(c) (i) if (ii) therefore (iii) so (iv) while
(d) (i) find (ii) to find (iii) finding (iv) finds
(e) (i) catch (ii) caught (iii) catching (iv) has been catching

Question 6.
In the following passage, one word has not been edited in each line. Write the incorrect word along with the correct word in the space provided. Do any four. (4)

Question 7.
Rearrange any four of the following groups of words or phrases to make meaningful sentences. (4)
(a) enters / millions tons / the / every year / of7ocean / plastic
(b) are / waters / sightings / junk-filled / of / common
(c) population / middle-class / increasing / is / coastlines/along
(d) trash / increase / has led / waste management / lack / of / in / to
(e) close / like / others / helping / my / friends

SECTION C
(Literature : Textbook & Long Reading Text – 30 Marks)

Question 8.
Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow: (1 x 4 = 4)
The moon was coming up in the east, behind me, and stars were shining in the clear sky above me. There wasn’t a cloud in the sky. I was happy to be alone high up above the sleeping countryside.
(a) Who narrates the above lines?
(b) Which type of weather conditions is being discussed in the above lines?
(c) Explain the term ‘the sleeping countryside’?
(d) Why is the narrator happy?
OR
At about the age of twenty-five, the Prince, thereof shielded from the sufferings of the world, while hunting out glanced upon a sick man, then an aged man, then a funeral procession, and finally a monk begging for alms. These sights so moved him that he at once became a beggar and went out into the world to seek enlightenment concerning the sorrows he had witnessed.
(a) Whose age has been referred here?
(b) What was the effect of those sights on the prince?
(c) How did witnesses sorrow change him?
(d) What does ‘glance’ imply in the given lines?

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in 30-40 words each: (2 x 4 = 8)
(a) Hari Singh is both a thief and a human being. Explain.
(b) How does the necklace change the course of the Loisel’s life?
(c) Explain the qualities of the post office employees?
(d) Why would you not agree with Lencho calling them ‘a bunch of crooks’?
(e) Bholi’s heart was overflowing with a ‘New hope and a new life’. What does the phrase ‘the new hope and the new life’ mean?

Question 10.
Attempt any one out of two long answer type questions in (100-120 words). (8)
People should always try to live within their means. Aspirations have no limits but one should never forget the ground realities. Elaborate on the basis of the chapter, “The Necklace”.
OR
Simple moment proves to be very significant and saves rest of the day of the poet from being wasted. Explain on the basis of the poem ‘Dust of Snow’.

Question 11.
Kitty plays a vital role in Anne’s life. Elucidate.
OR
In spite of the heartrending circumstances in which ‘The Diary’ was written, it was not an inspiring rather depressing book. Explore.
OR
How did Miss Anne Sullivan help Helen to communicate properly?
OR
Give a pen portrait of Helen Keller.

1.1. (a) Chewang Norphel was a retired civil engineer.
(b) Ladakh is a cold desert.
(c) Because Ladakh is a cold desert at 300-3500 meters. The annual rainfall rate is just 50 mm.
(d) The pattern of snowfall and rainfall has changed because of climate change.
(e) Glaciers provide water in the months of April/May. It is crucial for irrigation.
(f) Glaciers and their layers close to the village melt with increasing temperature and provide the continuous supply of water to the fields.
(g) In 2015 president Pranab Mukherjee conferred Padma Shri to Mr. Norphel.
(h) The ice formation continues for 3-4 months.
(i) Accumulation.

2.1. (a) According to the passage, grit, curiosity, gratitude, optimism, self-control, social intelligence and zest are the attributes of a human.
(b) If you have a tendency to persevere and keep going, we have what experts call grit.
(c) Failing teaches us how to be perseverant and keep going for one’s goals. Each failure makes one understand what to do and what not to do.
(d) We should not accept defeat. Instead, we should make efforts to overcome our limitations, and not to stay down. Thus, we can develop grit.
(e) Mindfulness is a practice that helps the individual stay in the moment by bringing awareness of his or her experience without judgment. This practice is a technique that many have used to quiet the noise of their fears and doubts.

2.2. (a) (iii) 1000 plus times
(b) (iii) human
(c) (iii) persevere
(d) (iii) agonizing
(e) (iv) mindfulness

Pragya Public School
Nagal, Punjab
23rd November, 20xx
The Director
Mount Travels and Tourism
Nagal, Punjab.

Sub: Inferior quality of food and accommodation.

Dear Sir,
I am constrained to express my displeasure and resentment at inferior arrangements made during our tour to Nainital summer vacations. Our tour was for ten days and arrangement made by your agency was below standard when we came back home, most of the students fell ill and they are unable to attend classes. During our negotiation for the tour, following promises were made:
(a) Stay in good hotels
(b) Food at a good restaurant.
As above promises were fulfilled, we stayed in a lodge and were forced to eat local foods. Consequently, most of the students fell ill.
Certainly, we are cheated by our agency. You are requested that you should not dupe local people because it tarnishes our image.

Yours sincerely
Sujal/Sujata

OR

Anand Public School
Jaipur
23rd November, 20xx
The Editor
Rajasthan Patrika
Jaipur.

Sub: Need for public sanitation.

Sir,
Through the column of your esteemed daily, I want to highlight the serious problem of sanitation. Everybody knows that India is a highly populated country. The people have no proper sanitation and hygiene facilities. Around 60 percent of the world’s open defecation takes place in India. As a result, people suffer from various diseases. Diarrhea, among various health hazards, is very common among the children of below five years of age. Poor sanitation also causes deficiencies in physical development and cognitive ability among people.
The government and the concerned authorities must take steps in this regard. They should put the public sanitation facilities at important places of villages, towns, and cities. Besides, people should be made aware of diseases caused by open defecation. Sanitation should become our right to ensure dignity and privacy.

Yours faithfully
Nitish

A Brave and Courageous Sailor

Yesterday I went to the beach with my friends. We were quite happy. We arrived at the beach at around 10:30 am. We selected a sport by the sea and placed our packets on the benches. After reaching the beach, we decided to play some games on the sand. As we had brought two footballs and there were six children, we started jumping and exchanging the ball with one another. During our play, the ball slipped away near the date tree and I hurried towards the tree to bring back the ball. Fortunately, I watched a strange man near some bench. He was a tall man and wearing a long coat and hat. A big knife was fitted into his strong belt. As he had a different look and dress, I became interested in the man and watched him.

I went near the man who was calling someone and a hawk was flying near his leg. But the strange man was lame in his left leg and he was filled with courage and excitement. I thought him to be seaman and desired to meet him. Fortunately, his eyes caught my presence and he called me there and then.

I gathered courage and approached him. The man was pleased with me. I asked him several questions, and he politely answered them all. During our gossip, I came to know that he was John and a sailor by profession. He had brought up the hawk since he was of five years. He belonged to France and his father was also a sailor.
In the meantime, my friends arrived at the spot. They were also surprised at the sailor. Although he was lame, he often liked to visit the new places. Now he is in our country and would stay for two more days. Really he was the bold and courageous sailor.

OR

A Spy Camera

It was an amazing day, full of fun and frolic. We all stood aghast to see a strange flying object over to our heads. We started guessing about the object. My friend Deepak is very intelligent. He always gets high scores in science. I called him and wanted to take his help. He came to the place where I was standing and stared at the object. After some observation, he said, “I think the strange object may be a part of the plane and may have detached away from the plane body. Now it is flying in the air and may fall upon the ground anytime.”

As I was not satisfied with my friend’s observations, I decided to make my own observation because two strange objects was a curious thing for me. Certainly, I was filled with curiosity and wanted to know the object in detail. But Deepak wanted to go back home as it was getting dark. Certainly, I could not stay Deepak further on the spot so my friend left me and I remained on the spot.

When the evening set in there was faint dark everywhere. I was still standing watching the strange object or UFO. When the strange object was at the short distance over my head, I could clearly see it. I found that it was a very big box fitted with huge cameras. It was an act of some enemy country because it was a sky camera. I found the country was in danger. So, I immediately called the police. The camera was brought down on the ground with the help of the helicopter, and an extensive investigation was made. My information was correct. Hence, I helped the country.

(a) (i) in
(b) (ii) is
(c) (iv) while
(d) (iv) finds
(e) (iii) catching

Incorrect Correction
(a) a the
ib) or and
(c) has is
(d) irrigating irrigate
(e) requiring require

(a) Millions of tons of plastic enter the ocean every year.
(b) Sightings of junk filled waters are common.
(c) The middle-class population is increasing along the coastline.
(d) Lack of waste management has led to increasing in trash.
(e) My close friends like helping others.

(a) The pilot narrates the above lines.
(b) Weather was favorable, as the sky was clear.
(c) It means everything was going well.
(id) Because he is all above.
OR
(a) Gautam Buddha’s age has been referred here.
(b) All the sights moved the prince.
(c) He left his palace and went in search of enlightenment.
(d) ‘Looked at’.

(a) No doubt Hari is a thief as well as good human being. Situations compel a person to become either beast or remain as a human being. Even goodness and nobility of a person change anyone’s heart and mind.
(b) Only because of the necklace and showing off, Loisel fell in a debt trap which forced her to live like an ordinary lower-middle-class housewife. She started doing all the household chores which a lady of her status normally does not do. Aspirations have no limits but one should never forget the ground realities.
(c) The post office employees were kind and helpful.
(d) Lencho was not at all justified in calling them ‘a bunch of crooks because they helped him by collecting money.
(e) It means, ‘To serve her parents in old age and to teach the students in the same school when she had learned too much’.

Matilda was a pretty young woman. But she was a day-dreamer. Although she was born in a poor family, yet she dreams to have costly dresses and jewelry. She wanted to be honored ‘ and respected like rich. One day her husband showed her an invitation from a minister. She emotionally forced to buy a new and costly dress for the ball. After this, she borrowed a diamond necklace from her friend Forestier. She enjoyed the party heartily. She danced with enthusiasm. But she lost the necklace and in this way, their problems started. To replace the necklace her husband had to borrow amount on a very high rate of interest. To repay that amount, they lived in the rented house. She did all the household work herself. Mr. Loisel worked extra to earn small wages.

Thus, it is correctly said that we should always they to live within one means. Our aspirations have no limits. But we should never forget the ground realities. If Matilda had knowledge of this fact, her life would not have changed into realities.
OR
In this poem, Robert Frost praises and describes different positions of nature. Here he touches different aspects of natural sights. There are many things in nature that are not considered auspicious like—crow and hemlock. Crow is not considered a good bird. Similarly, hemlock tree is a poisonous tree and that is why it is the symbol of sadness. When the crow shakes off the dust of snow from the hemlock tree, it falls on the poet. Thus the poet’s mood changes due to this incident. Robert Frost, in this poem, represents the crow and hemlock tree as inauspicious. But when the crow shakes off the dust of snow from the hemlock tree, it falls on the poet. It changes his dejected mood and saves the day from being spoilt.

Anne received a number of gifts from her parents and friends on her thirteenth birthday which was celebrated on 12th, June 1942. She received a diary, a bunch of roses, a decorative plant and some peonies (plants with showy flowers) from her parents. The first gift she opened was a diary which she liked the most. Other things she received from various friends were Camera Obscura, a party game, lots of sweets, chocolates, a puzzle game, an ornamental brooch. The books she received were “Tales and Legends of the Netherlands” by Joseph Cohen and “Daisy’s Mountain Holiday” which were terrific books. She also got some money with which she was able to buy “The Myths of Greece and Rome.” It was that diary which became her confidant in her hiding in Amsterdam. She named it “Kitty” and considered it her best friend and wrote all her experiences of the two years hideout in the Secret Annexe. Obviously, it became her proud possession.
OR
Though Anne had daring parents and a sister Margot Frank, thirty friends, relatives, uncles and aunts who cared for her a lot, a number of boyfriends who were anxious to become her close friends, but she still lacked something in her life. She could make fun and joke of them but would not disclose her inner feelings of a young girl turning into a woman.

There was a saying that “paper is more patient than men” which clicked in her mind one sad day. She found the diary to be her intimate friend she could trust completely. Undoubtedly she had waited so long for such a great thing. The main reason behind Anne’s writing a diary was that she had no such real friend. Moreover, she understood that it was only a diary that could listen to her patiently without any comments and complaints. She called it “Kitty”. She made her first entry in that diary on 14th June 1942. She knew that no one would be interested in knowing the secrets of a thirteen-year-old schoolgirl. She put all her deeply buried thoughts in this diary.
OR
The child who can hear learns the everyday expressions through constant repeating and imitation. The conversation he hears in his home stimulates his mind and he puts forward his own thoughts orally. This natural exchange of ideas is denied to the deaf child. Miss Sullivan overcame this deficiency of a deaf child (the narrator) by being determined to supply the kind of stimulus that the narrator lacked. She did it by repeating to her as far as possible, by spelling word by word on the hand, what she heard, and by showing her how she could take part in the conversation.

For a long time, the narrator was still. She was not thinking of the beads in her lap but was trying to find a meaning for the word ‘love’. At that time the sun had been under a cloud all day, and there had been brief showers, but suddenly the sun broke forth in all its southern splendor. She enquired from Miss Sullivan if what she saw was ‘love’. Miss Sullivan replied that love is something like the clouds that were in the sky before the sun came out. She explained that one cannot touch the clouds, but one can feel the rain and know how glad the flowers and the thirsty earth are to have it after a hot day. She said that one cannot touch love either, but one can feel the sweetness it pours into everything. She added that without love one would not be happy or want to play.
OR
Like Wordsworth, Helen learned to find solace in nature and its peaceful serenity. Her power of observation was commendable. How beautifully she has described the details of her observations! Even those with eyes and ears cannot describe as beautifully as she has done. Natural beauty was abundant around her house. The Keller homestead was quite near a rose- bower. Its old-fashioned garden was the paradise of her childhood. Before Miss Sullivan’s arrival, this garden was the place where Helen went to find comfort and hide her hot face in the cool leaves and grass. Helen felt extremely happy in that garden of flowers, wandering happily from spot to spot. She could recognize each vine and plant by touching them.

Helen was a prodigy child since her early childhood! However, the challenges she faced were quite arduous—as if Nature had planned a special obstacle course for her to help her bring her best out! After being rendered blind and disabled in hearing and speaking, Helen’s frustration to learn more and more about life mounted very high. Her hearing disability combined with a visual disability made the teaching and learning more challenging. Helen was a very industrious girl; she always did her best to learn. She had such a natural, innate passion for learning which always motivated her. Manual alphabet, reading, arithmetic, etc., all were formidable challenges for her initially, but Helen overcame them. The most arduous of all of them was learning to speak. Learning to speak is almost an impossible task for those who have a hearing disability. So Helen had to work very hard. She had to repeat each word and sentence many times for the right tone and pronunciation. She practiced untiringly. At times she became discouraged and weary too, but she never gave up. She faced all the difficulties courageously. Her courage and perseverance are the source of inspiration for all mankind!.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Language and Literature Paper 1 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Language and Literature Paper 1, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

## Online Education RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19a

These Solutions are part of Online Education RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19a.

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We hope the RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19a help you. If you have any query regarding RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19a, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.