Class 10 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Work-Life and Leisure

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Work-Life and Leisure Class 10 Extra Questions History Chapter 6

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Questions And Answers Question 1.
From where do the migrants usually come in the cities. Mention one example.
Usually, the migrants come from nearby rural areas. In 1851, more than three fourth of the adults in Manchester (Britain) were people from the nearby rural region.

Writing And City Life Extra Question And Answer Question 2.
Name the five types of industries which grew in London in the 19th century.

1. Clothing and footwear,
2. wood and furniture,
3. metal and engineering,
4. printing and stationary precision products such as surgical instruments.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Questions And Answers In Bengali Question 3.
Who is a philanthropist?
Someone who works for social upliftment and charity donating time and money is known as philanthropist.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Mcq With Answers Question 4.
What is a metropolis?
Metropolis is a large densely city of a country.

History Class 10 Chapter 6 Question Answer Question 5.
Note the second largest city of the world.
Mumbai, also an important city of the Indian subcondiment.

Ncert Solutions For Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 6 Question 6.
How can you define urbanisation?
Urbanisation is the development of a city or town terms” of trade and expanding of population.

Work, Life And Leisure Class 10 Solutions Question 7.
When was the underground railway opened in London and between which two places?
The underground railway was opened on January 10, 1863, and between Paddington and Farrington street in London.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Question 8.
What is asphyxiation?
Asphyxiation is suffocation due to lack of oxygen supply.

Question 9.
Give two reasons which enabled large number of people to live outside London and travel to work.

1. Better planned suburbs and
2. a good railway network.

Question 10.
What do you mean by individualism?
Individualism is a theory which promotes liberty rights, or independent action of the individual rather than of the”community.

Question 11.
What and when were the entertainment resorts in the 19th century London?
Pleasure gardens became entertainment resorts in the 19th century London providing facilities such as sports and entertainments and refreshments for the well-to-do.

Question 12.
What was the Bloody Sunday of November 1887?
A riot brutely suppressed by the Police in 1887 is known as Bloody Sunday in London.

Question 13.
Why is a large city an opportunity?
A large city is an opportunity because it provides employment, as it did with the industrialization coming in.

Question 14.
Name the three Presidencies and their cities in the colonial India.
The three Presidencies were: Bengal, Bombay and Madras, and three Presidencies were Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras.

Question 15.
When and where was the first cotton textile mill established in India?
The first cotton textile till was established in Bombay in 1854.

Question 16.
When and why was the women mill workforce drop in Bombay?
Between 1919 and 1926, the women mill workforce was 27% of the total workers. It dropped to 10% by 1930, due to machines or men taking on the jobs.

Question 17.
What is ‘mill village’?
Place of living by the workers near their place of work.

Question 18.
What do you mean by chawls in reference to Bombay?
Chawls, in reference to Bombay, were multi-storeyed structures built in the native parts of the city of Bombay.

Question 19.
What were the three major groups of people in Singapore in the early days of its formation?
Do yourself.

Question 20.
Give an account of expansion of the city of London.
By 1750, one out of every nine people of England and Wales lived in London. It was a colossal city with a population of about 675,000. Over the nineteenth century, London continued to expand. Its population multiplied fourfold in the 70 years between 1810 and 1880, increasing from 1 million to about 4 million.

Question 21.
Why did the poor die of the lack of housing accommodation in late 19lh century London?
The lack of proper housing becomes a cause for early death and of poverty. Charles Booth, a Liverpool shipowner writes that as many as a million Londoners (about one-fifth of the population of London at the time were very poor and were expected to live only up to an average age of 29 (compared to the average lile expectancy of 55 among the gentry and the middle class).

These people were more than likely to die in a ‘workhouse, hospital or lunatic asylum. London, he concluded ‘needed the rebuilding of at least 400,000 rooms to house its poorest citizens.

Question 22.
Why were people afraid of travelling underground when the underground railway began functioning?
The people, at first, were afraid of travelling the unground railways. This is what one newspaper reader reported: “The compartment in which I sat was filled with passengers who were smoking pipes. The atmosphere was a mixture of sulphur, coal dust and foul fumes from the gas lamps above so that by the time we reached Moorgate, I was near dead of asphyxiation and heat should think these underground railways must soon be discontinued for they eat health.

Question 23.
How do you explain that the curly industrial life was largely male-dominated?
With industrialisation and urbanisation, men and women did not have equal access to this new urban space. As women lost their industrial jobs and conservative people tailed against their presence in public spaces, women were forced to withdraw into their homes.

The public space became increasingly a male preserve and the domestic sphere was seen as the proper place for women. Most political movements of the nineteenth century, such as Chartism (a movement demanding the role for all adult males). and the 10-hour movement (limiting hours of work in factories), mobilised large numbers of men.

Question 24.
Give examples of leisure and entertainment activities as cities grew.
As cities grew, there also grew leisure, art, and entertainment. In London, libraries and museums came up: seaside holidaying was resorted; music halls beginning functioning. When the entry to the British Museum Library became free in 1810, visitors swamped the museum their number jumped to 127,643 in 1824-25, shooting up to 25,901 by 1846. Music-halls were popular among the lower classes, and, by the early twentieth century, cinema became the greal mass entertainment for mixed audiences.

British industrial workers were increasingly encouraged to spend their holidays by the sea, so as to derive the benefits of the sun and bracing winds Over 1 million British people went to the seaside at Blackpool in 1883, by 1939 their numbers had gone up to 7 million,

Question 25.
Give a brief history of the city of Bombay.
In the 17th century, Bombay was a group of seven islands under Portuguese control. In 1661, control of the islands passed into British hands after the marriage of Britain’s King Charles. It to the Portuguese princess. The East India Company quickly shifted its base from Surat, its principal western port to Bombay.

At first, Bombay was the major outlet for cotton textiles from Gujarat. Later, in the nineteenth century, the city functioned as a port through which large quantities of raw materials such as cotton and opium would pass. Gradually, it also became an important administrative centre in western India, and then, by the end of the nineteenth century, a major industrial centre.

Question 26.
When was the Bombay improvement Trust established? What was the object of the Rent Act of 1918?
The city of Bombay Improvement Trust was established in 1898. It focused on clearing poorer houses out of the city centre, By 1918, Trust schemes had deprived 64,000 people of their homes, but only 14,000 were rehoused. In 1918, a Rent Act was passed to keep rents reasonable, but it had the opposite effect of producing a severe housing crisis since landlords withdrew houses from the market.

Question 27.
What was the contribution of the Bombay Port Trust in reclaim nation project?
A successful reclamation project was undertaken by the Bombay Port Trust, which built a dry dock between 1914 and 1918 and used the excavated earth to create the 22-acre Ballard Estate. Subsequently, the famous Marine Drive or Bombay was developed.

Question 28.
Give a brief account of the life of the working women in numerous jobs.
Factories employed large numbers of women in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries. With Technological developments, women gradually lost their industrial jobs and were forced to work within households.

The 1861 census recorded a quarter of a million domestic servants in London, of whom the vast majority were women, many of them recent migrants A large number of women used their homes to increase family income by taking in lodgers or through such activities as tailoring, washing or matchbox making.

However, there was a change once again in the twentieth century. As women got employment in wartime industries and offices, they withdrew from cosmetic service.

Question 29.
Mention a variety of steps which were taken to clean up London during 19th-20th centuries.
A variety of steps were taken to clean up London.

• Attempts were made to decongest localities, green the open spaces, reduce pollution and landscape the city.
• Large blocks of apartments were built, akin to those in Berlin and new York-cities which had similar housing problems.
• Rent control was introduced in Britain during the First World War to case the impact of a severe housing shortage.
• (iv) Many wealthy residents of London were able to afford a holiday home in the countryside.
• Architect and planner Ebenezer Howard developed the principle of the Garden City, a pleasant space full of plants and trees, where people would both live and work. Following Howard’s ideas, Raymond Unwin and Barry Parker designed the garden city.
• There were common grade 1 spaces, beautiful views and great attention to detail.
• Between the two world wars (1919-39) the responsibility for housing the working classes was accepted by the British state and a million houses, most of them single-family cottages, were built by local authorities.

Question 30.
What are Chawls of Bombay? Give an account of life and living in a Chawl.
Chawls are multi-storeyed structures which had been built in 1860s in the town occupied by the indigenous natives, mostly owned by landlords and merchants. Each chawl was divided into smaller one-room tenements which had no private toilets.

Many families could reside at a time in a lenement The Census of 1901 reported that the mass of the island’s population or 80 percent of the total resides in tenements of one room, the average number of occupants lies between 4 and 5. High rents forced workers to share homes, eiiter with relatives or caste fellows who were streaming into the city.

People had to keep the windows of their rooms closed even in humid weather due to the close proximity of filthy gutters, privies, buffalo stables etc.’Yet, though water was scarce, and people often quarrelled every morning for a turn at the tap observers found that houses were kept quite clean.

The homes being shall, streets and neighbourhoods were used for a variety of activities such as cooking, washing and sleeping Liquor shops and akharas came up in any emply spot. Streets were also used for different types of leisure activities.

Chawls were also the place for exchange of news about jobs, strikes, riots or demonstrations.
Caste and family groups in the mill neighbourhoods were headed by someone who was similar to a village headman. Sometimes, the jobber in the mills could be the local neighbourhood leader He settled disputes, organised food supplies, or arranged informal credit.

Question 31.
Give a brief description of how Singapore developed as a planned nation.
Singapore is a successful, rich, and well-planned city, a model for city planning worldwide. Yet the city’s rise to this status is quite recent. Until 1965, Singapore, though an important port, shared all the problems of other Asian cities, Planning was known in Singapore since 1822, but benefited only the small community of white people who ruled Singapore.

For the majority of its inhabitants, there was overcrowding, lack of sanitation, poor housing and poverty. All this changed after the city became an independent nation in 1965 under the leadership of Lee Kuan Yew, President of the People’s Action Party.

A massive housing and development programme was undertaken and it completely altered the face of the island nation. Through a programme of total planning which left nothing to chance, every inch of the island’s territory was controlled in its use. The government itself wen popular support by providing nearly 85 percent of the population with ownership housing of good quality.

The tall housing blocks, which were well ventilated and serviced, were examples of good physical planning. But the buildings also redesigned social life: crime was reduced through external corridors, the aged were housed alongside their families, ‘void decks’ or empty floors were provided in all buildings for community activities.

Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the most appropriate alternative:

Question 1.
Metapolisis
(a) large but not a densely city
(b) a densely but a small city
(c) large as well as densely city
(d) none of the above
(c) large as well as densely city

Question 2.
The capital of Britain is:
(a) Manchester
(b) London
(c) Liverpool
(d) Blackpool
(b) London

Question 3.
Baron Haussmann was a French
(a) poet
(b) legislator
(c) architect
(d) shoemaker
(c) architect

Question 4.
Dadasahab Phalke made the following movie :
(a) Raja Harishchandra
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Raja jai Singh
(d) Raja and Rani
(a) Raja Harishchandra

2. Choose true (✓) or False (✗):

Question 1.
Bombay is India’s film capital
(✓)

Question 2.
Ismat Chughtai and Saadat Hasan Manto were associated with tea trade in India
(✗)

Question 3.
Haussmann was an architect.
(✓)

Question 4.
Individualism is a theory of community.
(✗).

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Minerals and Energy Resources

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Minerals and Energy Resources Class 10 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 5

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 1.
When did the Energy Conservation Act in India come into effect?
In March 2002.

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
How much wind power potential does India have?

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Important Questions Question 3.
Where is the largest solar plant of India located?
In Madhapur near Bhuj.

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Extra Questions Question 4.
What is the non-conventional energy potential of India?
Trie non-conventional energy potential of India is estimated at about 95,000 MW.

Extra Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Question 5.
How much electricity is generated from nuclear plants?
The gross electricity generated from nuclear plants is 2720 MW per day.

Geography Chapter 5 Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 6.
How many thermal power plants does India have?
India has more than 310 thermal power plants.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Question Answer Question 7.
What is the share of thermal electricity in India?
The share of thermal electricity in India is about 70%.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Important Questions Question 8.
What is the share of hydroelectricity in our country?
Hydroelectricity accounts for 25% of the total electricity.

Minerals And Energy Resources Extra Questions Question 9.
What is the total hydel power potential of India?
Total hydel power potential for India is estimated at 150,000 MW.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 10.
How much of the total hydel power potential has already been developed?
Only one-sixth.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Question 11.
Differentiate between thermal power and hydel power.
Thermal Power
1. It is generated by using coal, petroleum and natural gas.
2. This type is power is not eco-friendly
3. Thermal power cannot be the permanent source of electricity as the sources of generating this type of power are limited and are showing signs of exhaustion.

Hydel Power
1. It is generated from turbines which run by the use of running water.
2. This type of power is comparatively eco-friendly.
3. This can be the source of electricity supply because water is a non-exhaustible resource because 2/3 of our earth is covered by water.

Minerals And Power Resources Extra Questions Question 12.
Point out the importance of natural gas.

• Natural gas has been proved a very convenient source of energy.
• The use of natural gas in cooking has saved a huge quantity of coal and wood and has saved out world from pollution to a large extent.
• Natural gas-based power plants save much time and expenditure.
• Natural gas-based power plants save much time and expenditure.
• Natural gas can be used as an industrial raw material in petrochemical industry.

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 13.
Point out the reason why the annual production of gold has been dwindling in India?
The annual production of gold has been dwindling in India because of the following reasons-

• The reserve of gold are in fact very small.
• Gold mines are very deep in India. Hence it is quite difficult to extract gold from them.
• The mining of gold has been in progress in India for a long time.
• Hence much of the gold ore has already been exhausted and there is very little ore to be mined.

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Map Work Question 14.
Point out the importance of Neyveli Lignite fields.

1. Neyveli Lignite fields are in Tamil Nadu. These have been just like a boon for the state.
2. Thermal power produced from the lignite coal of Neyveli fields has proved very useful for the industrialization of Tamil Nadu.

Extra Questions Of Mineral And Power Resources Question 15.
Explain the reasons why solar energy in Rajasthan and Biogas in the Northern plains have greater potential as non-conventional energy?
The solar energy in Rajasthan and Biogas in the Northern plains gets more importance because of the geographical characteristics of these places. For example-

• In Rajasthan, it gets unperturbed sunshine for the most part of the year.
• In Northern India, animal waste is abundantly available hence biogas is more easily prepared here.
• These parts of India are climate-wise very appropriate for the biogas production.

Question 16.
“As compared to coal and mineral oil, hydroelectricity is a key source of energy.” Explain.
Or
Which is the best source of energy among coal, mineral oil and hydroelectricity? Give your point of view.
Coal and mineral oil have been considered as the main source of power supply for a long time. The industrial developed countries have always used them as the main source of power supply. On the other hand, countries with limited reserves of these resources were forced to import these.

Because of all these facts, the world reserves of these minerals have begun to show the signs of exhaustion. In the teeth of fear of their exhaustion, some new sources of power supply had been invented and developed.

Hydel power is one such source. Hydel power has become more important nowadays in comparison to both coal and mineral oil. Because of this fact, every effort is being made to convert it into a permanent source of power supply. For this purpose, many large dams are being raised to maintain a constant supply of water to produce electricity.

That is why the hydel power has been developed mostly in both the developing and developed countries especially by those countries which posses limited or no coal reserves. Hydel power in comparison to coal and mineral oil is cheaper as well as pollution-free. It also provides advantages to hydel power in comparison to coal and mineral oil.

Question 17.
Give an account of the various uses of petroleum and the potential petroleum reserves in India.
Or
Write short notes on the following points-
1. Potential of the areas of the mineral oil deposits,
2. Production trend of mineral oil in India.
3. Increased demand and growth of mineral oil in India.
Petroleum is the only multipurpose fuel of today’s world. It is also the most important source as thermal energy and motive power. In the recent years, the consumption, production, import and export of the mineral oil has assumed a wide scope especially for the developing countries like India. The uses of petroleum and petroleum resources is getting more and more importance every day.

Potential of the areas of the mineral oil deposits: The potential oil-bearing areas of deposits in India are tentatively estimated to be over one million square km. It covers Assam, the northern plains, the coastal strips, Gujarat, desert area, Thar, southern areas, Andaman and Nicobar islands and offshore sea.

The most important oil fields which are already serving the nation are located at Digboi, Naharkatiya, Moran, Ankleshwar, Cambay, Bombay-High, Kalol etc. Gas reserves are generally found in association with oil fields. However, there are certain other areas which are exclusively known for gas reserves. These areas are located in Tripura, Rajasthan, Offshore oil fields of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Orissa.

Production trend of mineral oil in India : Before independence, Assam was the only state drilling and refining mineral oil. After independence, various new fields were found elsewhere in India like Gujarat, Bombay-High etc. India continued developing its technology and investing new areas. As a result, the production in the field of oil and natural gas has shown a continuous upward trend.

Increased demand and growth: Though India is producing more and more oil yet production of mineral oil in India is much less than the need of the country. In fact because of the development in every field and sector, the demand for mineral oil is increasing day by day. To fulfill its demand India is importing it. It is putting a great burden on our foreign exchange reserves. Hence India must find out alternative options.

Refining industries in India: Before its independence, India had only one oil refinery at Digboi in Assam. However today India has 8 refineries. All of these are helping India to fulfil its needs to a great extent, The refining capacity of these refineries is about 112.52 million tonnes a year. However, about 50 million tonnes of petroleum and petroleum products are being imported today.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The following region produces more than 50% of the country’s copper:
(a) Balaghat
(b) Khetri
(c) Katni
(d) Nellore.
(a) Balaghat

Question 2.
One of the following is not the major mica producing area:
(a) Ajmer
(b) Nellore
(c) Koderma
(d) Balaghat.
(d) Balaghat.

Question 3.
The following is the low-grade coal:
(a) Bituminous
(b) Anthracite
(c) Lignite
(d) None of these.
(c) Lignite

Question 4.
Naharkatiya is in the following state:
(b) Assam
(c) Maharashtra
(b) Assam

Question 5.
Uranium and thorium are available in:
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Jharkhand
(d) West-Bengal
(b) Haryana

Map Skills

Question 1.
Show the main minerals produced in India on the outline map of India.

Question 2.
On the outline map of India. show the following:
(a) Iron ore belt
(b) Iron ore mines,
(c) Exporting ports.

Question 3.
On the outline map of India, show the following:
(a) Mica belts,
(b) Manganese ore area
(c) Bauxite area,
(d) Mica area.

Question 4.
On the outline map of India, show the following:
(a) Nuclear Plants
(b) Thermal Plants

Question 5.
On the outline map of India, show the following:
(a) Coal mines
(b) Oil Fields
(c) Major Natural Gas Reserves
(d) Natural Gas Pipelines

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Lifelines of National Economy

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Lifelines of National Economy with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 7

Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
How many foreign tourists visit India per year?

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 2.
How much rupees were earned by India in the year 2004?

Lifelines Of National Economy Extra Questions Question 3.
What was the part constituted by import in India’s foreign trade in 2000-01?

Extra Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Question 4.
What is the length of India’s coastline?
75166 km.

Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 Important Questions And Answers Question 5.
How many ports are there in India?
India has 12 major and 181 medium and minor seaports.

Chapter 7 Sst Class 10 Geography Question 6.
How many radio stations are there in India?
200.

Chapter 7 Geography Class 10 Important Questions Question 7.
How many telephone exchanges are there in India?

Extra Questions Of Chapter Lifelines Of National Economy Question 8.
What is the length of Champakara canal?
14 km.

Class 10 Geography Lifelines Of National Economy Important Questions Question 9.
Which of the national waterways is the smallest one?
The Champakara canal.

Extra Questions Of Lifelines Of National Economy Question 10.
When was the air transport nationalised?
In 1953.

Lifelines Of National Economy Important Questions Question 11.
Point out the significance of the unsurfaced roads in India.
The significance of the unsurfaced roads in India are the following-

• The unsurfaced roads are easy to construct and easy to maintain.
• They can even be made to pass easily through forests and deserts and mountains.
• These are of great importance, especially in rural areas.
• They connect different villages easily.
• These roads also connect villages with national highways.

Class 10 Sst Extra Questions Question 12.
What is the importance of road transport as a means of transport?
The importance of road transport as a means of transport are the following-

• This means of transport is comparatively more flexible.
• With the help of it, the goods can be carried out from the very doors of the seller to those of the buyers.
• In the hilly area road transport assures a great importance of its own.
• Roads are comparatively easy to construct and also easy to maintain.
• This transport provides link to railways also.
• The roads can also be conducted to connect even the remotest of villages with the national highways or other important places.

Social Science Class 10 Extra Questions Question 13.
Write down the importance of air transport.
Or
Air transport is getting more and more important these days. Give points.
Or ‘
Why is the air transport getting more and more importance these days?
The importance of air transport in present context is getting more and more important because of the following reasons:

• Air travel is the faster means of transport.
• It saves a lot of time and energy.
• It facilitates business transactions and bring administrative efficiency.
• It makes accessibility possible in the remotest areas also.
• Air transport fulfils the needs of every type ranging from military to the civilian.

Important Questions Of Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 Question 14.
Point out the major changes in the development of the Indian railway since independence.
Or
Why are the means of transport and communication the lifelines of a nation and its economy?
Or
What do you understand by the lifeline of our country?
Or
Write down in you own words the importance of transport and communication.
In today’s modern world the means of transport and communication have no doubt turned as the lifelines of a country and also of its economy. The various forms of transport that are used to carry passengers and goods from one place to another are called the means of transport. On the other hand, communication means sending messages from one place to another.

These are known as the ‘Lifelines’ of a country because of the following reasons-

• They bring the far-flung areas of a country quite closer to each other.
• They carry the greatest number of passengers in longest journeys in lesser time but with greater comforts.
• They carry thousands of tonnes of different commodities from one part of the country to the other and thus avoid much hardships to the people.
• Also in the war times, their importance can hardly be emphasized. They bring the whole country at the back of the armed forces and facilitate the movement of arms, ammunition and other supplies.
• These means of communication and transport also help the Government to maintain law and order.
• These various means have also forged the bonds of national unity in our country by promoting social and cultural contacts between the various people of the country.

Ncert Extra Questions Class 10 Social Science Question 15.
Giving the various examples from the different parts of India, compare and contrast roads and railways as a means of transport.
Or
Transport is the prerequisite for modem industry. Explain.
Or
Does the road transport score over the railway’s transport?
In the today’s modern industrial age, roads and railways, as means of transport, have great importance. They are in fact just like the lifelines of modern industries and in modern economy. In fact, both of these means of transport are interdependent on each other and can help each other in numberous ways. For example, the trucks can take the raw materials from the railway stations. The railway can carry these heavy goods to long distances and then trucks can take these materials to the different markets.

Though both the railways and roads are necessary for the development of the modern industries yet the road transport has acquired great importance of its own. It has in fact the following facts in its support- Roads are of considerable significance for passengers and goods traffic in India. Roads are relatively easy to construct and also to maintain.

Road transport is easier and trans-shipment from one gauge to another is easily facilitated by the road transports.
Road transport is easier and also easier for private use. Trucks or buses can be hired at any time and for any place.
Inspite of all the above factors, as the means of transport both the railways and the roadways are needed for the full development of the industries in our country because they have their own specific uses. As a matter of fact in our country long-distance routes in India are connected by railways whereas shorter distances are connected by road. Hence facilitating each other. So we must pay attention to the development of both of the transport means.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
International trade is carried between:
(a) Two and more cities
(b) Two and more towns
(c) Two and more provinces
(d) Two and more countries.
(d) Two and more countries.

Question 2.
The air transport was nationalised in:
(a) 1953
(b) 1954
(c) 1955
(d) 1956
(a) 1953

Question 3.
Haldia port was developed to help relieve the growing pressure of the following:
(a) Mumbai port
(b) Chennai port
(c) Kolkata port
(d) None of these
(c) Kolkata port

Question 4.
The Ganga waterways between Allahabad and Haldia is:
(a) 891 km
(b) 1620 km
(c) 168 km
(d) None of these
(b) 1620 km

Map Skills

Question 1.
On the outline map of India, show the following:
(i) National Highways
(ii) Railways ‘
(iii) Major sea routes, ports, International Airports.
(iv) None of these
(v) Map No. 1.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10

We are solving NCERT class 10 textbook Solutions for Maths, Science, Social Science and Hindi. These solutions are developed according to the CBSE marking scheme.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10

Here we have Provided Updated NCERT Solutions for Class 10 for 2019 CBSE Board Exams. Class 10 NCERT Solutions clear your concepts to the core ensuring to stay with you in the long run. These are created by experts in accordance with the CBSE curriculum. You can find 100% accurate step-by-step solutions for every question in all the latest NCERT 10th Class books. Practice with these daily to perform better in board Exams.

Why NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Solutions are important?

The Central Board of Secondary Education has reintroduced the board exams for class 10 from 2017-18 and onwards. CBSE has prescribed NCERT books for all students who are studying CBSE schools. Most of the board exams questions are based on NCERT books.

Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11

In this page, we are providing Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 11 pdf download. NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers will help to score more marks in your CBSE Board Exams. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-science/

Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Extra Questions and Answers Human Eye and Colourful World

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers Solutions

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Very Short Answer Type

Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Extra Questions Question 1.
Why is the colour of the clear sky blue? (NCERT Exemplar)
Colour of the clear sky is blue: The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have size smaller than the wavelength of visible light.

When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the fine particles in air scatter the blue colour more strongly than red.

Human Eye And The Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
Why do stars appear to twinkle?
Stars appears to twinkle due to atmospheric refraction.

Human Eye Class 10 Extra Questions Question 3.
Define farthest point of an eye.
Farthest point of an eye: The farthest point upto which the eye can see objects clearly is called far point of the eye. It is infinity for normal eye.

Human Eye And Colourful World Extra Questions Question 4.
Define power of accommodation.
Power of accommodation: The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called accommodation.

Human Eye And The Colourful World Extra Questions Question 5.
Define least distance of distinct vision.
Least distance of distinct vision: Minimum distance at which an object can be seen distinctly without any strain from the normal eye, i.e., 25 cm for normal vision.

Human Eye And Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions Question 6.
Define Tyndall effect.
Tyndall effect: The phenomenon of scattering of light by colloidal particles gives rise to Tyndall effect.
Tyndall effect can be observed when sunlight passes through a canopy of a dense forest. Here tiny droplets in mist scatters light.

Class 10 Science Ch 11 Extra Questions Question 7.
Define atmospheric refraction.
Atmospheric refraction: If physical conditions of the refracting medium (air) are not stationary, the apparent position of the object fluctuates.

Extra Questions Of Human Eye And The Colourful World Question 8.
Why are danger signal lights red in colour?
Danger signal lights are red in colour because red colour is least scattered by fog or smoke.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Short Answer Type I

Cbse Class 10 Physics Human Eye And Colourful World Extra Questions Question 1.
What is meant by advance sunrise and delayed sunset? Draw a labelled diagram to explain these phenomena.
Advance sunrise and delayed sunset is due to atmospheric refraction.
When the sun is slightly below the horizon, the sunlight coming from the less dense (vacuum) to more dense (air) medium is refracted downwards. So the sun appears to be above the horizon.

Similarly, even after actual sunset, the sun can be seen for a few minutes due to refraction of sunlight.

Class 10 Human Eye Extra Questions Question 2.
Explain formation of rainbow.

Rainbow formation: A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after rain shower. It is caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere. The water droplets act like small prism. They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally and finally refract it again.
Due to dispersion of light and internal reflection different colours appear.

Chapter 11 Science Class 10 Extra Questions Question 3.
Explain the refraction of light through a triangular glass prism using a labelled ray diagram. Hence define the angle of deviation. (NCERT Exemplar)
Refraction of light through prism

PE – Incident ray
EF – Refracted ray
FS – Emergent ray
∠A – Angle of the prism
∠i – Angle of incidence
∠r – Angle of refraction
∠e – Angle of emergence
∠D – Angle of deviation

Refraction of light through a triangular glass prism

1. The refraction of light takes place at two surfaces firstly when light enters from air to prism and secondly when light emerges from prism.
2. Angle of prism: The angle between the two lateral faces of the prism is called angle of prism.
3. Angle of deviation: The angle between incident ray (produced forward) and emergent ray (produced backward).

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Short Answer Type II

Human Eye And The Colourful World Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 1.
What is the difference in colours of the sun observed during sunrise/sunset and noon? Give explanation for each.
In the morning and evening, the sun lies near the horizon. Sunlight travels through a larger distance in the atmosphere and most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered away by the particles. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelength. This gives rise to the reddish appearance of the sun.
At noon sun appears white as only a little of blue and voilet colours are scattered.

Extra Questions Of Chapter 11 Science Class 10 Question 2.
Define the term dispersion of white light. Name the colour of light which bends (i) the most, (ii) the least, while passing through a glass prism. Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.
Dispersion of white light by a glass prism
Dispersion: The splitting of light into its component colours is called dispersion.
The red light bends the least while violet bends the most.
Spectrum: The band of the coloured components of a light beam is called spectrum.
i.e., VIBGYOR

The Human Eye And The Colourful World Extra Questions Question 3.
Explain twinkling of stars.
Twinkling of stars:

• The twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight.
• When starlight enters the earth’s atmosphere, it suffers refraction continuously. Since the physical conditions of the earth’s atmosphere are not stationary the stars appear twinkling.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Long Answer Type

Human Eye And Colourful World Class 10 Questions With Answers Question 1.
List four common refraction defects of vision. Suggest the way of correcting these defects. (CBSE 2014)
Defects of vision:
(i) Cataract: Crystalline lens of people at old age becomes milky and cloudy. This condition is called cataract.
It is possible to restore vision through cataract surgery.

(ii) Myopia: (Near sightedness)
A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects clearly.

Cause:

• Due to excessive curvature of the eye lens.
• Elongation of the eyeball.

Correction:
Concave lens of suitable power.
(a) Far point of myopic eye

(b) Myopic eye

(c) Correction for myopia

(a), (b) The myopic eye, and (c) correction for myopia with a concave lens

(iii) Hypermetropia (far-sightedness)
A person with hypermetropia can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly.

Cause:

• The focal length of the eye lens is too long.
• The eyeball has become too small.

Correction:
Convex lens of suitable power.

(a), (b) The hypermetropic eye, and (c) correction for hypermetropia

(iv) Presbyopia
The power of accommodation of the eye usually decreases with ageing. In this eye defect it is difficult to see nearby objects comfortably and distinctly without corrective eye glasses.

Cause:
Weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of eye lens.

Correction:
By using Bifocal lens: Upper portion consists of concave lens and lower part is convex lens.

Question 2.
Explain the structure and functioning of the human eye. How are we able to see nearby as well as distant objects?

• Cornea: A thin membrane through which light enters the eye, maximum refraction occurs at the outer surface of cornea.
• Iris: A dark muscular membrane which controls size of pupil.
• Pupil: Regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye.
• Eye lens: Composed of fibrous, jelly like material, with adjustable curvature, forms an inverted and real image of object at retina.
• Retina: It is a light sensitive screen on which image is formed.

The power of accommodation, that is, the ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length, help us to see near and far objects clearly.

Human Eye and Colourful World HOTS Questions With Answers

Question 1.
How will you use two identical prisms so that a narrow beam of white light incident on one prism emerges out of the second prism as white light? Draw the diagram.
When an inverted prism is kept a little distance away from the prism causing dispersion or basically in the path of splitted beam, the spectrum recombines to form white light.

Recombination of the spectrum of white light

Question 2.
Is the position of a star as seen by us in its exact position? Justify your answer. (NCERT Exemplar)
No, the starlight, on entering the earth’s atmosphere, undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches the earth. The atmospheric refraction occurs in a medium of gradually changing refractive index. Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the apparent position of the star is slightly different from its actual position.

Question 3.
Why do we see a rainbow in the sky only after rainfall?
The rainbow in the sky appears only after rainfall because the suspended water drops behave like prism, and refract, disperse and reflect the light rays internally.

Question 4.
A person needs a lens of power – 4.5 D for correction of his/her vision.
(a) What kind of defect in vision is he/she suffering from?
(b) What is the focal length of the corrective lens?
(c) What is the nature of the corrective lens?
(a) Myopia
(b) f = $$\frac{1}{P}$$ = $$\frac{100}{4.5}$$ = 22.2 cm
(c) Concave lens

Question 5.
A narrow beam PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in the diagram. (CBSE 2014)

Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path of the emergent beam as observed on the screen DE.
(i) Write the name and cause of the phenomenon observed.
(ii) Where else in nature is this phenomenon observed?
(iii) Based on this observation, state the conclusion which can be drawn about the constituents of white light.
(i) Dispersion of light, because different colours of light bends through different angles.
(ii) Rainbow formation
(iii) White light contains seven colours i.e., VIBGYOR

Question 6.
On which factor does colour of scattered light depends?
The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles. Very fine particles scatter mainly blue light while particle of larger size scatters light of longer wavelengths.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Akshay, sitting in the last row in his class, could not see clearly the words written on the blackboard. When the teacher noticed it, he asked if any student sitting in the front row would volunteer to exchange his seat with Akshay. Salman immediately agreed to exchange his seat with Akshay. Akshay could now see the words written on the blackboard clearly. The teacher thought it fit to send message to Akshay’s parents advising them to get his eyesight checked.
In the context of the above event, answer the following questions:
(a) Which defect of vision is Akshay suffering from? Which type of lens is used to correct this defect?
(b) State the values displayed by the teacher and Salman.
(a) Myopia, concave lens
(b) Teacher is very caring and knowledgeable. Salman has great concern for his friend, Akshay, and is very helpful.

Question 2.
On the rainy day, Ram reached his grandfather’s place in village. On the way to the house he saw a beautiful rainbow in the sky. In the night, he saw lots of twinkling stars in the clear sky. He was very excited to see these beautiful natural phenomenon, which he was not able to see in the city, where he lived with his father. Explain the phenomenon on the basis of science. Do you think that pollution in the atmosphere affects the formation of rainbow and twinkling of stars. Do you agree with the fact that pollution free environment will strengthen such natural phenomenon in the cities as well. Elaborate.

• The twinkling of star is due to atmospheric refraction.
• The formation of rainbow is due to dispersion, refraction and internal reflection.
• Yes, pollution in atmosphere affects the formation of rainbow and twinkling of stars.

Question 3.
Vinay’s father cannot read a book placed 25 cm from his eye. But he feels a little comfortable when the book is placed 50 cm away. Vinay adviced his father for checkup of the eyes.
(a) From which defect of vision Vinay’s father may be suffering from? Give the proper correction.
(b) State the values of Vinay.
(a) Hypermetropia, correction can be done by using suitable convex lens.
(b) Vinay is caring and intelligent.

Question 4.
Ankit’s grandma is facing a problem of clouded, blurred and dim vision. Ankit took her to the doctor.
(a) From which defect of vision Ankit’s grandma may be suffering from? Give proper correction.
(b) State the values of Ankit.
(a) Cataract. It is possible to restore vision through cataract surgery.
(b) Ankit is caring and intelligent.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Gender Religion and Caste

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Gender Religion and Caste with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Gender Religion and Caste Class 10 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 4

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 1.
Define gender division.
Gender division refers to the unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women.

Gender, Religion And Caste Class 10 Notes Questions And Answers Question 2.
What is the result of the sexual division of labour?
The result of sexual division of labour is that women have been confined to the private domain of family, while the public domain has been monopolised by the men.

Important Questions Of Chapter Gender, Religion And Caste Class 10 Question 3.
Why does girl child gets dropped out from the school as compared to male child?
Because parents prefer to spend their resources for their boy’s education rather than spending equally on their sons and daughters.

Gender, Religion And Caste Class 10 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 4.
What is the sex ratio in India?
Sex ratio means number of girl child per one thousand boys. According to census of India 2001, the sex ratio in India was 927:1000.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Important Questions Question 5.
What were Gandhiji’s views on religion?

• Gandhiji did not consider religion as Hinduism, Islam or Christianity. To him, every religion was based on some belief system supported by rituals. He tried to get rid of rituals as far as possible.
• To him religion was a human institution that helped people solve practical affairs. He believed that the moral values drawn from all the religions should be used to guide the political system.

Gender Religion And Caste Extra Questions Question 6.
Write down Human Rights Groups views about religious minorities.

• Human rights groups in India have argued that most of the victims of communal roits in our country are people from religious minorities.
• They have demanded that the government should take special steps to protect religious minorities.

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 7.
Why was India declared a secular state?
Communalism was and continues to be one of the major challenges to democracy in our country The makers of our Constitution were aware of this challenge. That is why they chose the model of a secular state.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions And Answers Question 8.
Name a few leaders who worked for ending casteism in India.
Political leaders and social reformers like Jotiba Phule, Mahatma Gandhi, Dr. Ambedkar and Periyar Ramaswami Naicker advocated and worked to establish a society in which caste inequalities are absent.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Question Answer Question 9.
“Exclusive attention to caste can produce negative results also.”. Explain.

• As in the case of religion, politics based on caste identity alone is not very healthy in a democracy.
• It can divert attention from other pressing issues like poverty, development and corruption.
In some cases casteism leads to tensions, conflicts and even violence.

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Extra Questions Question 10.
What do you mean by the term ‘Secular’.
It means being neutral or matters of faith and having no special preference to any religion. It involves giving freedom to people to follow religion of their own choice. The state treats every religion equally.

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Important Questions Question 11.
Define family laws.
The family laws are related to families. They apply differently to different religions. They deal with family-related issues such as inheritance, marriage, adoption, divorce etc.

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 12.
How can women’s representation be increased in politics?

• One way to solve this problem is to make it legally binding to have a fair proportion of women in the elected bodies.
• This is what the Panchayati Raj has done in India. One-third of seats in local government bodies – in panchayats and municipalities-are now reserved for women.
• Now there are more than 10 lakh elected women representatives in rural and urban local bodies.
• Women’s organisations and activists have been demanding a similar reservation of at least one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha and the state assemblies for women.

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 13.
Can religion be used positively in politics? How?

• Gandhiji always preached for using the moral values of all the religions as a guide to the political system. He believed that all the religions have some belief system and the ethics. It should be used in politics as a guide.
• Ideas, ideals and values should have a place in politics. People should be able to voice their needs and interests as a religious community. Also, the leaders should regulate the religion to ensure that it is not used for discrimination and oppression.
• However, the use of religion in politics should be done with careful thought and analysis. No religious demand or interest should be raised if it is against any other religion.
• Religion should be used to bind the people together and not arouse feelings of distrust and suspicion.

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 14.
Why is the work done by the males more visible than the work done by the females?

• The work is generally divided on the basis of the gender of a person. The women of the family are supposed to do all the household work and the men are supposed to go out for work.
• The work done by women is generally unpaid for like cooking, cleaning, washing clothes and taking care of children. Also, no specific skill is required to do the household work.
• While the male members earn money for their work and some skills are needed for the work. Due to this, the work done by men is respected more in the society and hence, considered as more visible than the work done by females.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Questions And Answers Question 15.
When does the problem of communalism become acute?
Communalism creates an acute problem when:

• Religion is used in politics as an exclusive factor where people belonging to different religions are treated differently
• Demands of one religion are against the demands of another religion and there is feeling of distrust among the people of different religions
• Beliefs and ideas of one religion are shown to be superior to the beliefs and ideas of another religion.
• Various religious groups are in opposition to each other and the winning or defeat of a particular group is associated with respective religion’s winning or defeat.

Question 16.
Explain “political mobilization on communal line”.

1. Communalism means promoting the ideas of one religion within a particular group and undermining the ideas of other religions. It becomes a problem when religion is used to divide the society.
2. It believes that people belonging to different religions form different communities and cannot live together as one nation.
3. Communalism in politics sometimes takes the shape of political mobilization on communal lines. It means that political leaders appeal to people of different religions to gain votes. It involves the use of sacred religious symbols and religious leaders to appeal to the people of that religion.
4. It attempts to bring all the people of one religion together. The political leaders pay special attention to the demands of one religion at the cost of the other religions.

Question 17.
What do you mean by caste inequalities?

• Unlike gender and religion, the caste division is special to India. All societies have some kind of social inequalities and some form of division of labour.
• In most societies, occupations are passed on from one generation to another. Caste system is an extreme form of this.
• What makes it different from other societies is that in this system hereditary occupational division was sanctioned by rituals.
• Members of the same caste group were supposed to form a social community that practiced the same or similar occupation married within the caste group and did not eat with members from other caste groups.

Question 18.
“Caste and caste system in India have undergone great changes.” Explain.

1. Caste and caste system in modern India have undergone great changes. With, economic development, large scale urbanization, growth of literacy and education, occupational mobility and the weakening of the position of landlords in the villages the old notion of caste hierarchy are breaking down.
2. Now, most of times in urban areas it does not matter much who is walking along next along next to us on a street or eating at the next table in a restaurant.
3. The Constitution of India prohibited any caste-based discrimination and laid the foundations of policies to reverse the injustices of the caste system.
4. If a person who lived century ago were to return to India, he/she would be greatly surprised at the change that has come about the country.

Question 19.
“Caste can take various form in politics.” How?
Caste can take various forms in politics:

1. When parties choose candidates in elections, they keep in mind the caste composition of the electorate and nominate candidates from different castes so as to muster necessary support to win elections. When the governments are formed, political parties usually take care that representatives of different castes and tribes find a place in it.
2. Political parties and candidates in elections make appeals to caste sentiments to muster support. Some political parties are known to favour some castes and are seen as their representatives.
3. Universal adult franchise and the principle of one-person-one-vote compelled the political leaders to gear themselves up to the task of mobilizing and securing political support. It also brought new consciousness among the people of castes that were hitherto treated as inferior and low.

Question 20.
How does politics influence caste?
It is not politics that gets caste-ridden, it is the caste that gets politicised. This takes several forms:

• Each caste group tries to become bigger by incorporating within it neighbouring castes or sub-castes which were earlier excluded from it.
• Various caste groups are required to enter into a coalition with other castes or communities and thus enter into a dialogue and negotiation.
• New kinds of caste groups have come up in the political arenas like ‘backward’ and ‘forward’ caste groups.
• Thus caste plays different kinds of roles in politics. In some ways, it is a routine factor that works all over the world mobilise social groups and communities in order to get their votes.
• In some situations, expression of caste differences in politics gives many disadvantaged communities the space to demand share of power. In this sense caste, politics has helped people from Dalits and OBC castes to gain better access to decision making. Several political and non¬political organisations have been demanding and agitating for the end of discrimination against particular castes, for more dignity and more access to land, resources and opportunities.

Question 21.
“Case continues to be very strongly linked to economic status in many important ways.” Explain.
As the evidence from the National Sample Survey shows, caste continues to be very strongly linked to economic status in many important ways:

• The average economic status (measures by criteria like monthly consumption expenditure) of caste groups still follows the old hierarchy – the ‘upper’ castes are best off, the Dalits and Adivasis are worst off, and the backward castes are in between.
• Although every caste has some poor members, the proportion living in extreme poverty (below the official ‘poverty line’) is much higher for the lowest castes and much higher for the upper castes, with the backward castes once again in between.
• Although every caste has some members who are rich, the upper castes are heavily over-represented among the rich while the lower castes are severely under-represented.

Question 22.
Explain the concept of sexual division of labour.

• Gender division does not mean the biological difference between men and women. It refers to the unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women.
• Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of women is housework and bringing up children.
• This is reflected in a sexual division of labour in most families: women do all work inside the home such as cooking, cleaning, washing clothes, tailoring, looking after children, etc. and men do work outside the home.
• It is not that men cannot do housework; they simply think that it is for women to attend to these things. When these jobs are paid for, men are ready to take up these works. Most tailors or cooks in hotels are men.
• Similarly, it is not that women do not work outside their home. Women fetch water and collect fuel in villages, they work in the fields, they often do shopping and are increasingly taking up paid jobs. But their work is not valued and does not get recognition.
• The result of this division of labour is that women have been confined to the private domain of family, while the public domain has been monopolized by the men.

Question 23.
“Women face disadvantage, discrimination and oppression in various ways.” Give some instances to support the statement.
In our country, women still lag much behind men despite some improvement since independence. Ours is still male-dominated, patriarchal, society.

Women face disadvantages, discrimination and oppression in various ways:

The literacy rate among women is only 54 per cent compared to 76 per cent among men. Similarly, a smaller proportion of girl students go for higher studies. When we look at school results, girls perform as well as boys, if not better in some places. But they get dropped Out because parents prefer to spend their resources for their boys education than spending equally on their sons and daughters.

No wonder the proportion of women among the highly paid and valued jobs is still very small. On an average Indian woman works one hour more than an average male every day. Yet much of her work is not paid and therefore often not valued.

In many parts of India parents prefer to have sons and find ways to have the girl child aborted before she born. This has led to a decline in child sex ratio (number of girl child per thousand boys) in the country to merely 927.

There are reports of various kinds of harassment, exploitation and violence against women. Urban areas have become particularly unsafe for women. They are not safe even within their own home from beating and other forms of domestic violence.

The Equal Wages Act provides that equal wages should be paid to equal work. However, in almost all areas of work; women are paid less than men, even when both do exactly same work.

Question 24.
Write a note on communal politics and its consequences.

• Communal politics is based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social community. Communalism involves thinking along the following lines.
• The followers of a particular religion must belong to one community. Their fundamental interests are the same. Any difference that they may have is irrelevant or trivial for community life
• It also follows that people who follow different religions cannot belong to the same social community.
• If the followers of different religions have some commonalities these are superficial and immaterial.
• Their interests are bound to be different and involve a conflict.

Question 25.
How can you say that communalism can take various forms in politics?
Communalism can take various forms in politics:

The most common expression of communalism is in everyday beliefs. These routinely involve religious prejudices, stereotypes of religious communities and belief in the superiority of one’s religion over other religions. This is so common that we often fail to notice it, even when we believe in it.

A communal mind often leads to a quest for political dominance of one’s own religious community. For those belonging to majority community, this takes the form of majoritarian dominance ‘For those belonging to the minority community, it can take the form of a desire to form a separate political unit

Political mobilisation on communal lines is another frequent form of communalism. This involves the use of sacred symbols, religious leaders, emotional appeal and plain fear in order to bring the followers of one religion together in the political arena. In electoral politics, this often involves special appeal to the interests or emotions of voters of one religion in preference to others.

Sometimes communalism takes its most ugly form of communal violence, riots and massacre. India and Pakistan suffered some of the worst communal riots at the time of the partition. The post-independence period has also seen large scale communal violence.

Question 26.
“India is a secular state”. Justify.

There is no official religion of the Indian state. Unlike the status of Buddhism in Sri Lanka, that of Islam in Pakistan and that of Hinduism in Nepal till recently, our Constitution does not give a special status to any religion.

The Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion, or not to follow any.

The Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.

At the same time the Constitution allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities. For example, it bans untouchability.

Understood in this sense secularism is not just an ideology of some parties or persons. This idea constitutes one of the foundations of our country.

Communalism should not be seen as a threat to some people in India. It threatens the very idea of India. That is why communalism needs to be combated. A secular Constitution like ours is necessary but not sufficient to combat communalism. Communal prejudices and propaganda needs to be countered in everyday life and religion-based mobilization needs to be countered in the arena of politics.

Question 27.
“The focus on caste in politics can sometimes give an impression that elections are all about caste and nothing else. But that is far from true.” Justify.
The focus on caste in politics can sometimes give an impression that elections are all about caste and nothing else. That is far from true. Just consider these examples:

• No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one single caste. So, every candidate and party needs to win the confidence of more than one caste and community to win elections.
• No party wins the votes of all the voters of a caste or – community. When people say that a caste is a vote bank’ of one party it usually means that about two-thirds of the voters of that community.
• The ruling party and the sitting MP or MLA frequently lose elections in our country. That could not have happened if all castes and communities were frozen in their political preferences.
• The voters have strong attachment to political parties which is often stronger than their attachment to their caste or community. People within the same caste or community have different interests depending on their economic condition.

Multiple Choice Questions
Four choices are given to the following questions.
Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Ours is a …………………… society.
(a) Matriarchal
(b) Patriarchal
(c) Feminist
(d) Elders
(b) Patriarchal

Question 2.
The literacy rate among women in India is:
(a) 54%
(b) 65%
(c) 48%
(d) 55%
(a) 54%

Question 3.
The literacy rate among men in India is:
(a) 54%
(b) 65%
(c) 76%
(d) 80%
(c) 76%

Question 4.
On an average an Indian woman works – how much more than an average man every day:
(a) 1 hour more
(b) 2 hours more
(c) 3 hours more
(d) 4 hours more
(a) 1 hour more

Question 5.
Child sex-ratio in India is:
(a) 935
(b) 952
(c) 980
(d) 927
(d) 927

Question 6.
Now, there are more than elected women representatives in rural and urban local bodies:
(a) 2 lakhs
(b) 5 lakhs
(c) 7 lakhs
(d) 10 lakhs
(d) 10 lakhs

Question 7.
How many seats is local government bodies are now reserved for women?
(a) 1/3
(b) 2/3
(c) 3/4
(d) none
(a) 1/3

Question 8.
India is a:
(a) Religious state
(b) Secular state
(c) Autocratic state
(d) None of these
(b) Secular state

Question 9.
In 2001, population of STs in India was:
(a) 0.8%
(b) 16.2% .
(c) 19%
(d) 8.2%
(d) 8.2%

Question 10.
Who are majority in India?
(a) Muslim
(b) Hindus
(c) Christians
(d) None of these.
(b) Hindus

Question 11.
Shift of population from rural area to urban areas is called:
(a) Urbanisation
(b) Rural Migration
(c) Dwelling
(d) None of these
(a) Urbanisation

Question 12.
BPL for rural areas was fixed at spending of:
(a) ₹ 454
(b) ₹ 550
(c) ₹ 327
(d) ₹ 800.
(c) ₹ 327

Question 13.
BPL for urban areas was fixed at spending of:
(a) ₹ 800
(b) ₹ 327
(c) ₹ 550
(d) ₹ 454
(d) ₹ 454.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Forest and Wildlife Resources

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Forest and Wildlife Resources with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Forest and Wildlife Resources Class 10 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 2

Question 1.
Define an ecosystem.
Eco-system is meant as the physical environment of a place formed by all kinds of plants, birds and animals of that area.

Question 2.
What factors are responsible for the distribution of plants and animals in India?
The distribution of plants and animals is mainly determined by the climate of that area. The other determining factors of this distribution are soil, relief and drainage etc.

Question 3.
What is bio-reserve? Give two examples.
A bio-reserve is a place which consists of fairly vast wild land and is devoted to the protection and preservation of flora and fauna of the country in the very natural form. Examples : Gulf of Mannar, Nilgiri.

Question 4.
Which was the form of life which appeared on the earth?
Plants and vegetation.

Question 5.
What is the importance of the plants for us?
Every form of life in the earth is dependent either directly or indirectly on the plants hence these are very significant.

Question 6.
How many flowering plants are there in India?

Question 7.
What is the use of Sarpagandha?
Sarpagandha is used for the treatment of the blood pressure.

Question 8.
How many species of the plants have been listed as endangered in India?
52.

Question 9.
Which of the international agencies has included Indian plants in the medical list?
The World Conservation Union.

Question 10.
Name the Indian regions where Tropical deciduous forests are found.

• The north-eastern states,
• The foothills of the Himalays,
• Jharkhand,
• West Orissa,
• Chhattisgarh,
• Eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.

Question 11.
Name two animals having habitat in different types of vegetation.

1. Tropical Rain Vegetation: Elephant, monkey
2. Deciduous Vegetation: Lion, tiger
3. Thorn-Scrubs: Fox, Lion.
4. Temperate Vegetation: Kashmir Stag, Leopard
5. Alpine-Tundra: Yak, Leopard
6. Tidal vegetation: Tiger, turtles.

Question 12.
Point out the importance of the biosphere reserves.

• The biosphere reserves are very important in reserving the endangered species of animals and plants.
• These are the important source of transmission of the natural heritage to the future generations.
• These inspire the people of the surroundings areas to protect the wildlife.
• These provide opportunities for research.
• These are also important for promoting tourism.

Question 13.
Name the states where the following biosphere reserves are situated.
(i) Nilgiri
(ii) Nanda Devi
(iii) Manas
(iv) Simlipal
(v) Nokrek
(vi) Sundarban
(vii) Pacha-in
(viii) Dehang Debong
Biosphere Reserves:

 (i) Nilgiri Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala (ii) Nanda Devi Uttrakhand (iii) Manas Assam (iv) Simlipal Orissa (v) Nokrek Meghalaya (vi) Sundarban West Bengal (vii) Pachmarhi Madhya Pradesh (viii) Dehang Debong. Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 14.
What is the reason that the tropical deciduous forests shed their leaves during the summer?
Tropical deciduous forests are the trees like sal, sandal, shisham etc. All of these trees shed their leaves in summer. The main reason behind this fact is that the leaves get dry by the scorching heat of the summer and as a result, they leave the branches automatically.

Question 15.
What are the main reasons that the evergreen forests are found in the western slopes of the Western Ghats?
The evergreen forests are found in the western slopes of the Western Ghats because of the following reasons:

• The western slopes of the Western Ghats get heavy rainfall because they are on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and here the monsoon winds are very active.
• The trees grown here do not have a distinct season of sheding leaves as the region is warm and wet throughout the year.

Question 16.
Why such an importance is given to conserve the natural vegetation?
Or
Describe the importance of the natural vegetation.
Natural vegetation is no doubt very important for the environment as well as for human life. Hence, it is very essential to consume it, The main importance of the natural vegetation are the following:

• The natural vegetation adds beauty to nature.
• The natural vegetation provides habitat to the wild life including both birds and animals.
• Without the natural vegetation, the coming generation would be deprived of great variety of fauna.
• Natural vegetation greately helps us attracting the monsoon clouds and making them to rain.
• Natural vegetation also provides us many useful products like wood which gives up material for the construction purposes of domestic as well as furniture and many other things. Many industries are based on the forest products.
• Forests give us fuel.
• The raw material for paper industry, match-making and sports material are also derived from the forests.
• The natural vegetation also gives the sandal, gums, resins, turpine oil etc.
• Many other very useful products like herbs, honey, lac etc. are also taken from natural vegetation whether directly or indirectly.
• The grass form of the natural vegetation provides grazing field for cattle. Hence natural vegetation is undoubtedly one of the most essential elements of life. Hence it must be protected.

Question 17.
Which steps should be taken to preserve the natural vegetation?
To preserve the natural vegetation following steps should be taken:

• Cutting of the trees in the forests must be stopped. The government has taken adequate steps in this direction. Forest department has been created for this purpose. Laws have, been implemented to punish die persons found in felling and cutting of the trees. However, awareness among the people is more important Without this awareness desired results cannot be achieved.
• The people must cooperate to check the feeling of trees. They infact must take active part in this regard.
Fortunately, many persons have come forward in this direction. Movement like ‘Chipko Andolan’ has been launched by the people themselves.
• Necessary wood for industrial purposes and for other activities must be taken through planned manner. So that purposes-industrial growth and the environment protection-can be achieved.
• Wherever the trees have been cut for whatever reason; new trees must be planted to maintain the ecological balance.
• Function like ‘Vanmahotsava’ should be celebrated everywhere. It would help in growing the awareness.
• 33% of the total land area must be brought under forest area.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1.
The following is a tree found in tropical rain forests:
(a) mahogany
(b) shisham
(c) palms
(d) spruce.

Question 2.
The following is a type of animal found in tropical rain forests:
(a) tiger
(b) elephant
(c) rabbit
(d) snow leopard

Question 3.
The following is the type of animal found in the Alpine and Tundra Vegetation:
(a) worms
(b) camels
(c) yaks
(d) turtles

Question 4.
The following type of timber is found in deciduous forests:
(a) acacias
(b) silver fir
(c) ebony
(d) sandalwood

Question 5.
There are the following number of national parks in India:
(a) 89
(b) 90
(c) 91
(d) 92

Question 6.
To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to
(a) Tundra,
(b) Tidal
(c) Himalayan
(d) Tropical Evergreen.

Map Skills

Question 1.
With the help of India’s map, show the following.
(i) Areas of Evergreen Forests
(ii) Areas of Dry Deciduous Forests

Question 2.
Show the following in the map of India.
Two National parks each in Northern, Southern, Eastern and Western Parts.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Water Resources

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Water Resources Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Water Resources Class 10 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 3

Water Resources Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Wherefrom the Brahmputra originates?
From Tibet.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
In which direction does the Brahmaputra flow?
The Brahmaputra flows in eastward direction parallel to the Himalayas.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 3.
What does the Brahmputra do in Namecha Barwa?
The Brahmputra reaching Namcha Barwa takes a U-turn and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh.

Water Resources Class 10 1 Mark Questions Question 4.
What is a river basin?
A river basin is meant by the area which is drained by a single river system. This is also known as drainage basin.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 One Mark Questions Question 5.
Name two saltwater lakes on the eastern coast of India.

1. The chilka-in Orissa.
2. The Pulicat-in Tamil Nadu.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions In Hindi Question 6.
In which states does the Brahmaputra flow in India?

• Assam.

Water Resources Class 10 Important Questions And Answers Question 7.
By which name the mainstream of Ganga is known in Bangladesh?

Water Resources Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 8.
When is the Ganga as Jamuna?
In Bangladesh when the Brahmaputra joins the Ganga, it is known as Jamuna.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Questions And Answers Question 9.
Where does the Jhelum fall into the Indus?
A little over Mithankot.

Water Resources Class 10 Very Short Questions And Answers Question 10.
What is meant by the dendritic pattern of streams?
The dendritic pattern of streams indicate the streams resembling like the branches of a tree.

Extra Questions Of Water Resources Class 10 Question 11.
Point out the prominent features of the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.

• It is the largest delta of the world.
• It is one of the most fertile areas of the world.
• It is a triangular-shaped area.
• It is a well-watered area.
• The lower part of this delta is marshy.
• Mangroves are found only in this place of the whole India.

Water Resources Class 10 Short Questions And Answers Question 12.
How would you differentiate between a glacier and a river?

 Glacier River 1. Glaciers are in the solid form. 1. River are in liquid form. 2. Glaciers look like a mountain of ice. 2. Rivers may be seen flowing. 3. Glaciers move very slowly. 3. Rivers move with a greater speed 4. The movement of a glacier is not discernible. 4. The movement of a river is easily discernible.

Class 10 Water Resources Extra Questions Question 13.
How the lakes are formed?

• Lakes are formed in the mountainous area when the glaciers block the valleys and large amount of water is collected in that place.
• The violent movements of the earth, like the earthquakes, also create lakes when the depressions formed on the crust of the earth are filled with rainwater.
• Human beings also form lakes for various purpose.

Water Resources Class 10 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 14.
What is meant by the Indus water treaty?
Indus water treaty is a treaty between India and Pakistan. This treaty is about the sharing of the waters of the Indus system. According to this treaty, India can use only 20% of the total of the water carried by the Indus river system.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Important Questions Q. 15.
Which are the important peninsular riv¬ers of India?
Or
Give a brief account of the different peninsu¬lar rivers of India.
The Narmada: It rise from Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh. It flows west-southward in a trough for a distance about 1300 km. The Narmada gorge in the marble rocks of Madhya Pradesh is very famous for its beauty.

The Tapi: It rises from the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. It flows in a trough parallel to the Narmada. However, it is smaller in size than of the Narmada.

The Godavari: It is also known as the Dakshin Ganga and Vridha Ganga. It is the largest among the peninsular rivers of India. It rises in Nashik district of Maharashtra. Its length is about 15000 km. It drains into the Bay of Bengal.

The Mahanadi: It rises in Chattisgarh and flows through Orissa and reaches the Bay of Bengal.

The Krishna: It rises from the spring near Mahabaleshwar. It flows for nearly about 1400 km. Its drainage basin in shared by Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

The Kaveri: It rises in the Brahmagir ranges of the Western Ghats. It flows over 800 km. Near the Kaveripatnam, it reaches the Bay of Bengal.

Question 16.
What is the reason of the water pollution? How the pollution level can be reduced?
Or
Suggest some measures to reduce the pollution of water.
Water pollution indicates that the water is not pure and safe for the health. Today many factors are causing the water pollution. It is very dangerous for health as well as for the environment. The large number of the dead fishes found in Yamuna at Agra proved it. Factories, specially the chemical industries, paper mills, sugar mills, tanneries etc. are causing the water to be polluted. The disposal of sewage of urban areas into the rivers also lead to this pollution.

As for example, the Najafgarh Nala in Delhi may be taken. Water is also being polluted by the use of pesticides and fertilizers in the nearby fields.
To reduce the pollution level, the following steps should be taken:

• The effluents from the factories should not be allowed to fall into the rivers.
• No chemical industry, paper mill, sugar mill should be allowed to stagnate their effluents on land at any cost. So that it do not pollute the underground water through seepage.
• Effluents of the mills and the factories should be scientifically treated and recycled to be used again.
• Sewage should be treated and diverted to irrigate the fields and the wastelands.
• Oil spills from tankers must not be allowed to enter any water form or river. In fact being a little more aware and taking care of otherwise looking small matters, magic can be created. It would surely make the rivers and other water bodies pollution-free. It will also do magic for our environment.

Glacier:

1. Glaciers are in solid form.
2. Glaciers look like a mountain of ice.
3. Glaciers move very slowly.
4. The movement of a glacier is not discernible.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below;

Question 1.
The river Indus rises from the following:
(a) Mansarovar
(b) Gangotri
(c) Nasik
(d) Mahabaleswar.
(a) Mansarovar

Question 2.
The Ganga is also known as:
(a) Krishna
(b) Bhagirathi
(d) Kaveri
(b) Bhagirathi

Question 3.
The following is a peninsular riven
(a) The Ganga
(b) The Tapi
(c) The Indus
(d) The Brahmaputra.
(b) The Tapi

Question 4.
The following is the largest peninsular river:
(b) Krishna
(c) Godawari
(c) Godawari

Question 5.
The following is the range from where the river Tapi rises:
(a) Satpura
(b) Aravalli
(c) Vindhya
(d) None of these.
(d) None of these.

Map Skills

Question 1.
On the outline may of India, show major dams.

Question 2.
On the outline map of India locate the following: Satluj, Damodar, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi and Brahmputra.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Consumer Rights

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Consumer Rights Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Consumer Rights Class 10 Extra Questions Economics Chapter 5

Extra Questions For Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Question 1.
Which is the apex body of the consumer courts in our country?
The National Consumer Commission.

Consumer Rights Class 10 Extra Questions Question 2.
Which is the most important consumer court?
The District forum.

Consumer Rights Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 3.
In which year the Consumer Protection Act was enacted?
In 1986.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Mcq With Answers Question 4.
By which name was the BIS earlier known as?
BIS was earlier known as the Indian Standards Institution.

Consumer Rights Class 10 Important Questions Question 5.
Where is the headquarter of the BIS?
At New Delhi.

Consumer Rights Extra Questions Question 6.
What is DMI?
DMI stands for the Directorate of Marketing.

Consumer Rights Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 7.
Where was the Codex Alimentarious Commission Intelligence created?
In 1963.

Consumer Rights Questions And Answers Question 8.
For what does ISO stand?
ISO standas for the International Organisation for Standardisation.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Question 9.
When was the ISO established?
In 1947.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Important Questions Question 10.
What are the four basic consumer rights?

1. Choice,
2. Information,
3. Safety,
4. Right to be heard.

Consumer Rights Important Questions Question 11.
When were the four basic consumer rights recognised?
In 1962.

Questions On Consumer Rights Class 10 Question 12.
When is the World Consumer Rights Day celebrated?
On 15th of March every year.

Cbse Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Mcq Question 13.
Is it necessary to take professional help from a lawyer to file a complaint in the consumer court?
No.

Cbse Class 10 Chapter Consumer Rights Objective Questions And Answers Question 14.
How many district courts are there. In our country?

Class 10 Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 15.
In which country did the first consumer movement begin?
In England.

Question 16.
Who is called as the father of consumer movement?

Question 17.
Describe any four rights of the consumers.

1. Right to be informed,
2. Rights to choose,
3. Right to seek redressal,
4. Right to represent.

Question 18.
For what the abbreviations APL and BPL stand?
APL: Above Poverty Line.
BPL Below Poverty Line.

Question 19.
Where is International Organisation for standardization located
Geneva.

Question 20.
On which day does India observe the National Consumer Day?
24th December.

Question 21.
Write down the advantages of public distribution system.
The public distribution system is very helpful preventing hoarding, black-marketing, overcharging. In addition to all these it also ensures food security to the poor.

Question 22.
What is meant by Agmark?
Or
Write down the functions of Agmark.
Agmark is implemented under the Agricultural Product Act, 1937. This act was amended in 1986. Agmark is a scheme run by the Directorate of Marketing and Intelligence in the Ministry of Agriculture of the Government of India. Products like honey masala, etc. carry this AGMARK as the sign of purity.

Question 23.
What are the legal formalities for filing a complaint against a trader?
There is no legal formalities for filing a complaint against a trader or a manufacturer in a consumer court. All one has to do is to write his or her complaint on a plain paper and attach the supporting documents like guarantee or warrantee card and cash memo and one can file this very simple complaint in a consumer court. Also there is no need to take any professional help from a lawyer as one can plead the case by oneself.

Question 24.
What do you know about the ISO.
The ISO stands for the International Organization for Standardization. It is located in Geneva. It serves to provide a common reference standard at the international level. It is a non-governmental organisation. It was established in 1947. ISO’s work results in international agreements.

These are published as international standards. ISO 9000, ISO 6000, ISO 14000 and the like, indicate specific levels of standards for a particular industry or group of products or institutions.

Question 25.
What do you know about Codex Alimentarius Commission?
Or
Write down the functions of the Codex Alimentarius Commission.
The Codex Alimentarius Commission was created in 1963. It is an international body for setting international food standards. This commission was actually created by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and World Health Organisation (WHO). This commission is located in Rome, Italy.

The works of Codex Alimentarius Commission:

• It develops food standards.
• Prepares guidelines and codes of practices for production.
• Prepares guidelines and codes also for the international trade in food products.

Question 26.
Mention the organizations that provide certification of standardization in India.
To protect the consumers from lack of quality and varying standards of goods; the Government has set mainly two institutions

1. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
2. AGMARK, BIS caters to the industrial and consumer goods. On the other hand, Agmark is meant for the agricultural products.

Question 27.
Name the consumer courts at the district, state and national levels.
Levels Consumers Courts

1. District District court
2. State State Consumer Commission
3. National consumer commission.

Question 28.
Present a brief sketch on the history of the consumer movement.
Consumer protection is not a new concept for India as references to the protection of consumer’s interests have also been presented in Kautilya’s Arthashastra Kautilya in his Arthashastra has given a detailed sketch of how consumers interests should be protected against the exploitation by trade and industry, underweight and measurement, adulteration. Punishment for these offences were also made in Kautilya’s Arthashastra.

However in recent era, the modern organised and systematic movement to safeguard the interest of consumers has developed in the late 1980s and early 1990s when the Indian Economy opened up its door for liberalisation and globalisation. At the world level, first consumer movement began in England after the II World War.

However, the modern declaration about the consumer’s rights was first:

Rights of safety: The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 protects the consumers against the marketing of goods and services hazardous to their life and property.

Rights of information: This Act provides the consumer every right of information. It includes quality, quantity potency purity standard and also the price of the goods.

Right to choose: This Act of 1986 provides assurance of access to variety Of goods and services at competitive price. By this act the consumer is assured of satisfactory quality and service at a fair price.

Right to be heard: This Act clearly states that the consumer’s interests should receive due consideration at appropriate forums relating to consumer welfare.

Right to seek redressal: The Act of 1986 provides the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices and the exploitation of consumers and rights to fair settlement of grievances. Act also includes the rights to knowledge about goods and issues relating to consumers welfare.

Question 29.
Mention and discuss numerous measures with regard to the protection of consumers interest.
The following are measures with regard to the protection of consumers interests.

• The legislative measures include enactment of the Consumer Protection Act.
• The administrative measures include PDS which distributes essential commodities to the people directly.
• On the other hand technical measures consist of the standardization of the products.

To protect the rights of the consumers the Government of India has enacted the Consumer Protection Act in 1986. This Act provides for the establishment of Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies at district, state and also at national levels. This Act has led to setting up of separate Department of Consumer Affairs in central/ and state governments, which focus exclusively on the rights of the consumers as enshrined in the Act.

Also there are no legal formalities for filing the complaint. One can write the complaint on a plain paper and attaching supporting documents like guarantee or warantee card and cash memo with the complaint can submit it in the district consumer court. Consumer courts have settled nearly 77% of the cases.

Moreover, Indian Government has taken the following steps to protect the rights of a consumer

Apart from ensuring food security to the poor as a part of certain administrative measures, the Indian Government has also started public distribution system to prevent hoarding, black marketing and overcharging by traders.

The other important measure taken by the Government to protect the rights of a consumer is standardisation of products. It protects the consumers from lack of quality:

The Government of India has established the Bureau of Indian Standards to make sure about the quality of a product.

While BIS caters to the industrial and consumer goods, the Agmark is meant for the agricultural products.

Agmark is implemented under the Agricultural Produce Act, 1937. This Act was again amended in 1986.

For setting international food standards, there is a similar body called Codex Alimentarious Commission. This commission was created in 1963 by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and World Health Organisation (WHO).

Question 30.
What are various ways in which a consumer is exploited?
A consumer is exploited by the traders in various ways, some very common ways of this exploitation are the following
Underweight and under measurements: It is a very common practice by the traders not to weigh and measure the things properly and correctly.

Substandard quality: Many of the times goods sold are substandard quality. For example, selling of expired medicines and supply of deficiency or defective home appliances have generally become the regular grievances of consumers.

High Price: Very often the traders charge a price higher than the prescribed retail price

Duplicate articles: Many times in the name of genuine parts and goods, fake and duplicate items are sold to the consumers.

Adulteration: In costly items like ghee, oil, spices etc. adulteration is very commonly practised to make higher profit in a undue manner. It makes the customers lose their money as well as their health.

Lack of safety devices: Many of the times electrical devices and various electronic goods are sold without proper safeguard.

Unsatisfactory after-sale services: Many of the times suppliers do not provide the satisfactory after-sale services despite proper payments. It creates unnecessary tension to the customers.

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) or (✗) before the following sentences

Question 1.
Codex International is located in Rome.
(✓)

Question 2.
Rome is the capital of United Kingdom.
(✗)

Question 3.
BIS was earlier known as ISCO.
(✗)

Question 4.
ISO was established in 1947.
(✓)

Question 5.
ISO is located in Geneva.
(✓)

Question 6.
The consumers have the right to be protected against marketing of goods and services.
(✓)

Question 7.
You cannot file your complaint to the consumer court without legal support.
(✗)

Question 8.
You yourself can plead your case in the consumer court.
(✓)

Question 9.
There are about 200 district consumer courts in our country
(✗)

Question 10.
National Consumer Commission is located in Pune.
(✗)

Question 11.
In India the concept of consumer protection is absolutely new.
(✗)

Question 12.
The level of consumer consciousness in our country is generally low.
(✓)

2. Match the following list

 List A List B (i) National Consumer Commission Rome (ii) Codex Alimentarius Commission Geneva (iii) International Organisation for Standardisation Delhi (iv) Bureau of Indian Standards New Delhi

 List A List B (i) National Consumer Commission Delhi (ii) Codex Alimentarius Commission Rome (iii) International Organisation for Standardisation Geneva (iv) Bureau of Indian Standards New Delhi

3. Fill up the following blanks with suitable words:

(i) In India liberalization of economy began in early…………………………..
1990s.

(ii)The Consumer Protection Act was enacted in …………………………. .
1986.

(iii)Agricultural Product Act, 1937, was amended in …………………………. .
1986.

(iv) Codex Alimentarious Commission was created in…………………………. .
1963.

Areas Related to Circles Class 10 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 12 with Solutions Answers

Here we are providing Areas Related to Circles Class 10 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 12 with Answers Solutions, Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-maths/

Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths Areas Related to Circles with Answers Solutions

Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 12 Areas Related to Circles with Solutions Answers

Areas Related to Circles Class 10 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Area Related To Circle Class 10 Extra Questions With Solutions Question 1.
Find the area of a square inscribed in a circle of diameter p cm.

Solution:
Diagonal of the square = p cm
∴ p2 = side2 + side2
⇒ p2 = 2side2
or side2 = $$\frac{p^{2}}{2}$$ cm2 = area of the square

Areas Related To Circles Class 10 Extra Questions Question 2.
Find the area of the circle inscribed in a square of side a cm.

Solution:
Diameter of the circle = a

Areas Related To Circles Extra Questions Question 3.
Find the area of a sector of a circle whose radius is and length of the arc is l.
Solution:
Area ola sector ola circle with radius r

Area Related To Circle Class 10 Extra Questions Question 4.
Find the ratio of the areas of a circle and an equilateral triangle whose diameter and a side are respectively equal.
Solution:

Areas Related To Circles Class 10 Extra Questions With Answers Question 5.
A square inscribed in a circle of diameter d and another square is circumscribing the circle. Show that the area of the outer square is twice the area of the inner square.

Solution:
Side of outer square = d {Fig. 12.5]
∴ Its area = d
Diagonal of inner square = d
∴ Side = $$\frac{d}{\sqrt{2}}$$
⇒ Area = $$\frac{d^{2}}{2}$$
Area of outer square = 2 × Area of inner square.

Class 10 Maths Chapter 12 Extra Questions Question 6.
If circumference and the area of a circle are numerically equal, find the diameter of the circle.
Solution:
Given, 2πr = πr2
⇒ 2r = r2
⇒ r(r – 2) = 0 or r = 2
i.e. d = 4 units

Area Related To Circles Extra Questions Question 7.
The radius of a wheel is 0.25 m. Find the number of revolutions it will make to travel a distance of 11 km.
Solution:

Area Related To Circle Class 10 Extra Questions With Solutions Pdf Question 8.
If the perimeter of a semi-circular protractor is 36 cm, find its diameter.
Solution:
Perimeter of a semicircular protractor = Perimeter of a semicircle
= (2r + πr) cm
⇒ 2r + πr = 36
⇒ r$$\left(2+\frac{22}{7}\right)$$ = 36
⇒ r = 7cm
Diameter 2r = 2 × 7 = 14 cm.

Area Related To Circle Class 10 Extra Questions Pdf Question 9.
If the diameter of a semicircular protractor is 14 cm, then find its perimeter.
Solution:
Perimeter of a semicircle = πr + 2r
= $$\frac{22}{7}$$ × 7 + 2 × 7 = 22 + 14 = 36cm

Areas Related to Circles Class 10 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 1

Area Related To Circle Class 10 Important Questions With Solutions Question 1.
If a square is inscribed in a circle, what is the ratio of the areas of the circle and the square?

Solution:
Let radius of the circle be r units.
Then, diagonal of the square = 2r

Area Related To Circle Difficult Questions Question 2.
What is the area of the largest triangle that is inscribed in a semi circle of radius r unit?
Solution:

Area of largest ∆ABC = $$\frac{1}{2}$$ × AB × CD
$$\frac{1}{2}$$ × 2r × r = r2 sq. units

Extra Questions Of Area Related To Circles Class 10 Question 3.
What is the angle subtended at the centre of a circle of radius 10 cm by an arc of length 5π cm?
Solution:

Areas Related To Circles Class 10 Important Questions Question 4.
What is the area of the largest circle that can be drawn inside a 4 rectangle of length a cm and breadth b cm (a > b)?

Solution:
Diameter of the largest circle that can be inscribed in the given b
rectangle = b cm
∴ Radius = $$\frac{b}{2}$$ cm

Ch 12 Maths Class 10 Extra Questions Question 5.
Difference between the circumference and radius of a circle is 37 cm. Find the area of circle.
Solution:
Given 2π r – r = 37
or r (2π – 1) = 37

Extra Questions For Class 10 Maths Areas Related To Circles Question 6.
The radii of two circles are 8 cm and 6 cm respectively. Find the radius of the circle having area equal to the sum of the areas of the two circles.
Solution:
Let r be the radius of required circle. Then, we have
πr2 = π(8)2 + π(6)2
⇒ πr2 = 64π + 36π
⇒ πr2 = 100π
∴ r2 = $$\frac{100 \pi}{\pi}$$ = 100
⇒ r = 10cm
Hence, radius of required circle is 10 cm.

Class 10 Areas Related To Circles Extra Questions Question 7.
The radii of two circles are 19 cm and 9 cm respectively. Find the radius of the circle which has circumference equal to the sum of the circumferences of the two circles.
Solution:
Let R be the radius of required circle. Then, we have
2πR = 2π(19) + 2π (9)
⇒ 2πR = 2π (19 + 9)
⇒ R = $$\frac{2 \pi \times 28}{2 \pi}$$ = 28
⇒ R = 28 cm
Hence, the radius of required circle is 28 cm.

Area Related To Circle Extra Questions Question 8.
Find the area of a circle whose circumference is 22 cm.
Solution:
Let r be the radius of the circle. Then,
Circumference = 22 cm

Class 10 Maths Ch 12 Extra Questions Question 9.
The area of a circular playground is 22176 m2. Find the cost of fencing this ground at the rate of ₹50 per m.
Solution:
Area of circular playground = 22176 m2
πr2 = 22176
⇒ $$\frac{22}{7}$$ r2 = 2176
⇒ $$\frac{22176 \times 7}{22}$$
⇒ r = 84 m
∴ Circumference of the playground =2πr = 2 × $$\frac{22}{7}$$ × 84 = 44 × 12 = 528 m .
∴ Cost of fencing this ground = ₹ 528 × 50 = ₹ 26400.

Class 10 Area Related To Circles Extra Questions Question 10.
Find the area of a sector of a circle with radius 6 cm if angle of the sector is 60°.
Solution:
We know that

Important Questions Of Area Related To Circle Class 10 Question 11.
Find the area of a quadrant of a circle whose circumference is 22 cm.
Solution:
Let r be the radius of circle, then circumference = 22 cm

Chapter 12 Maths Class 10 Extra Questions Question 12.
The length of the minute hand of a clock is 14 cm. Find the area swept by the minute hand in 5 minutes.
Solution:
Since the minute hand rotates through 6° in one minute, therefore, area swept by the minute hand in one minute is the area of a sector of angle 6° in a circle of radius 14 cm.

Extra Questions On Areas Related To Circles Question 13.
To warn ships for underwater rocks, a lighthouse spreads a red coloured light over a sector of angle 80° to a distance of 16.5 km. Find the area of the sea over which the ships are warned. (Use π = 3.14)
Solution:
We have, r = 16.5 km and 0 = 80°
∴ Area of the sea over which the ships are warned =

Areas Related to Circles Class 10 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 2

Area Related To Circles Class 10 Extra Questions Question 1.
If the perimeter of a semicircular protractor is 66 cm, find the diameter of the protractor
(Take π = $$\frac{22}{7}$$).
Solution:
Let the radius of the protractor be r сm. Then,
Perimeter = 66 cm
= πr + 2r = 66 [∴ Perimeter of a semicircle = πr + 2r]

Extra Questions Areas Related To Circles Class 10 Question 2.
The circumference of a circle exceeds the diameter by 16.8 cm. Find the radius of the circle.
Solution:
Let the radius of the circle be r сm. Then,
Diameter = 2r cm and Circumference = 2πr cm
According to question,
Circumference = Diameter + 16.8
⇒ 2πr = 2r + 16.8
⇒ 2 × $$\frac{22}{7}$$ × r = 2r + 16.8
⇒ 44r = 14r + 16.8 × 7
⇒ 44r – 14r = 117.6 or 30r = 117.6
⇒ r = $$\frac{117.6}{30}$$ = 3.92
Hence, radius = 3.92 cm.

Question 3.
A race track is in the form of a ring whose inner circumference is 352 m, and the outer circumference is 396 m. Find the width of the track.
Solution:
Let the outer and inner radii of the ring be R m and r m respectively. Then,
2πR = 396 and 2πr = 352

Hence, width of the track = (R – r) m = (63 – 56) m = 7 m

Question 4.
The inner circumference of a circular track [Fig. 12.10] is 220 m. The track is 7 m wide everywhere. Calculate the cost of putting up a fence along the outer circle at the rate of ₹2 per metre.
Solution:

Let the inner and outer radii of the circular track berm and R m respectively. Then,
Inner circumference = 2πr = 220 m

Since the track is 7 m wide everywhere. Therefore,
R = Outer radius = r + 7 = (35 + 7)m = 42 m
∴ Outer circumference = 2πR = 2 × $$\frac{22}{7}$$ × 42m = 264m
Rate of fencing = ₹ 2 per metre
∴ Total cost of fencing = (Circumference × Rate) = ₹(264 × 2) = ₹ 528

Question 5.
The wheels of a car are of diameter 80 cm each. How many complete revolutions does each wheel make in 10 minutes when the car is travelling at a speed of 66 km per hour?
Solution:
The diameter of a wheel = 80 cm.
radius of the wheel = 40 cm.
Now, distance travelled in one complete revolution of wheel = 2π × 40 = 80π
Since, speed of the car is 66 km/h
So, distance travelled in 10 minutes = $$\frac{66 \times 100000 \times 10}{60}$$
= 11 × 100000 cm = 1100000 cm.
So, Number of complete revolutions in 10 minutes

Question 6.
An umbrella has 8 ribs which are equally spaced (Fig. 12.11). Assuming umbrella to be a flat circle of radius 45 cm, find the area between the two consecutive ribs of the umbrella.

Solution:
We have, r = 45 cm

Question 7.
A horse is tied to a peg at one corner of a square shaped grass field of side 15 m by means of a 5 m long rope (Fig. 12.12). Find (i) the area of that part of the field in which the horse can graze;
(ii) the increase in the grazing area if the rope were 10 m long instead of 5 m. (Use π = 3.14)

Solution:
Let the horse be tied at point O and the length of the rope is OH (Fig. 12.13).
Thus, (i) the area of the part of the field in which the horse can graze
= Area of the quadrant of a circle (OAHB)

(ii) Now r = 10 m and

Increase in the grazing area
= (78.5 – 19.625) m2
= 58.875 m2

Question 8.
A car has two wipers which do not overlap. Each wiper has a blade of length 25 cm sweeping through an angle of 115o. Find the total area cleaned at each sweep of the blades.
Solution:
We have, r = 25 cm and θ = 115°.
∴ Total area cleaned at each sweep of the blades
= 2 × (Area of the sector having radius 25 cm and angle θ = 115°).

Question 9.
In Fig. 12.15, sectors of two concentric circles of radii 7 cm and 3.5 cm are shown. Find the area
of the shaded region.
Solution:
Let A1 and A2 be the areas of sectors OAB and OCD respectively. Then, A, = Area of a sector of angle 30° in a circle of radius 7 cm.

Question 10.
The minute hand of a clock is 10 cm long. Find the area of the face of the clock described by the minute hand between 9 AM and 9.35 AM.
Solution:
We have,
Angle described by the minute hand in one minute = 6°
∴ Angle described by the minute hand in 35 minutes = (6 × 35)° = 210°
Area swept by the minute hand in 35 minutes = Area of a sector of a circle of radius 10 cm

Question 11.
Find the area of the sector of a circle with radius 4 cm and of angle 30°. Also, find the area of the corresponding major sector. (Use π = 3.14)
Solution:

Area of the sector OAPB = $$\frac{\theta}{360^{\circ}} \times \pi r^{2}$$
$$\frac{30^{\circ}}{360^{\circ}}$$ × 3.14 × 4 × 4 cm2
= $$\frac{12.56}{3}$$cm2
= 4.19 cm2 (approx.)
Area of the corresponding major sector = πr2 – Area of sector OAPB
= (3.14 × 4 × 4 – 4.19)cm2 = (50.24 – 4.19) cm2
= 46.05 cm2 = 46.1 cm2 (approx.)

Question 12.
A chord of a circle of radius 15 cm subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find the areas of the corresponding minor and major segments of the circle. (Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73)
Solution:
We have, r = 15 cm and θ = 60°
Given segment is APB

Now, area of major segment = Area of circle – Area of minor segment
= π(15)2 – 20.44 = 3.14 × 225 – 20.44
= 706.5 – 20.44 = 686.06 cm

Question 13.
A chord of a circle of radius 12 cm subtends an angle of 120° at the centre. Find the area of the corresponding segment of the circle. (Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73)
Solution:
We have, r = 12 cm and θ = 120°
Given segment is APB
Now, area of the corresponding segment of circle
= Area of the minor segment

Question 14.
A round table cover has six equal designs as shown in Fig. 12.19. If the radius of the cover is 28 cm?, find the cost of making the designs at the rate of ₹ = 0.35 per cm2. (Use √3 = 1.7)
Solution:
Area of one design = Area of the sector OAPB – Area of ΔAOB

Area of 6 such designs = 77.47 × 6 = 464.8 cm2
Hence, cost of making such designs = ₹ 162.69

Question 15.
Find the area of the shaded region in Fig. 12.20, if PQ = 24 cm, PR = 7 cm and O is the centre of the circle.
Solution:

Here, ROQ is the diameter of given circle, therefore ∠RPQ = 90°
Now, in right angled ΔPRQ, we have
RQ2 = RP2 + PQ2 (by Pythagoras Theorem)
RQ2 = (7)2 + (24)2 = 49 + 576 = 625
RQ = $$\sqrt{625}$$ = 25 cm
Therefore, radius r = $$\frac{25}{2}$$ cm
Now, area of shaded region
= Area of the semi-circle – Area of ARPQ

Question 16.
Find the area of the shaded region in Fig. 12.21, if radii of the two concentric circles with centre 0 are 7 cm and 14 cm respectively and ∠AOC = 40°.
Solution:
Area of shaded region
= Area of sector AOC – Area of sector OBD

Question 17.
Find the area of the shaded region in Fig. 12.22, if ABCD is a square of side 14 cm and APD and BPC are semicircles.
Solution:
We have, radius of semicircles = 7 cm
∴ Area of shaded region
= Area of square ABCD – Area of semi-circles (APD +BPC)

Question 18.
Find the area of the shaded region in Fig. 12.23, where a circular arc of radius 6 cm has been drawn with vertex 0 of an equilateral triangle OAB of side 12 cm as centre.
Solution:
We have, radius of circular region
= 6 cm and each side of ΔOAB = 12 cm.
∴ Area of the circular portion
= Area of circle – Area of the sector

Quesiton 19.
From each corner of a square of side 4 cm, a quadrant of a circle of radius 1 cm is cut and also a circle of diameter 2 cm is cut as shown in Fig. 12.24. Find the area of the remaining portion of the square.
Solution:
We have, the side of the square ABCD = 4 cm
Area of the square ABCD = (4)2 = 16 cm2
Since, each quadrant of a circle has radius 1 cm.
∴ The sum of the areas of four quadrants

Question 20.
In Fig. 12.25, ABCD is a square of side 14 cm. With centres A, B, C and D, four circles are drawn such that each circle touches externally two of the remaining three circles. Find the area of the shaded region.

Solution:
We have, each side of square ABCD = 14 cm
∴ Area of square ABCD = (142)cm2 = 196 cm2
Now, radius of each quadrant of circle,
r = $$\frac{14}{2}$$ = 7 cm
∴ The sum of the area of the four quadrants at the four corners of the square

Now, area of shaded portion
= Area of square ABCD – The sum of the areas of four quadrants at the four corners of the square
= (196 – 154) cm2 = 42 cm2

Question 21.
On a square handkerchief, nine circular designs, each of radius 7 cm are made (see Fig. 12.26). Find the area of the remaining portion of the handkerchief.

Solution:
Total area of circular design = 9 × Area of one circular design
= 9 × π × (7)2
= 9 × $$\frac{22}{7}$$ × 7 × 7 = 1386 cm2
Now, each side of square ABCD = 3 × diameter of circular design
= 3 × 14 = 42 cm
∴ Area of square ABCD = (42)2 = 1764 cm2
∴ Area of the remaining portion of handkerchief
= Area of square ABCD – Total area of circular design
= (1764 – 1386) cm = 378 cm2

Question 22.
In Fig. 12.27, OACB is a quadrant of a circle with centre O and radius 3.5 cm. If OD = 2 cm, find the area of the (i) quadrant OACB, (ii) shaded region.
OR
In the given figure, OACB is a quadrant of a circle with centre O and radius 3.5 cm. If OD = 2 cm, find the area of the shaded region.
Solution:

Question 23.
In Fig. 12.28, a square OABC is inscribed in a quadrant OPBQ. If OA = 20 cm, find the area of the shaded region. (Use π = 3.14).
Solution:
We have,

= 200 × 3.14 – 400 = 628 – 400 = 228 cm2

Question 24.
Calculate the area of the designed region in Fig. 12.29, which is common between the two quadrants of circles of radius, 8 cm each.
Solution:
Here, radius of each quadrant ABPD and BQDC = 8 cm

Question 25.
In the given Fig. 12.30, find the area of the shaded region.
Solution:

Clearly, diameter of the circle
= Diagonal BD of rectangle ABCD
Now, BD

Let r be the radius of the circle. Then, r = $$\left(\frac{10}{2}\right)$$cm = 5 cm
Hence, area of the shaded region = Area of the circle – Area of rectangle ABCD
= πr² – l × b = (3.14 × 5 × 5) – (8 × 6)
= (78.50 – 48) cm2 = 30.50 cm2

Question 26.
A square park has each side of 100 m. At each corner of the park, there is a flower bed in the form of a quadrant of radius 14 m as shown in Fig. 12.31. Find the area of the remaining part of the park.
Solution:

We have,
Area of 4 quadrants of a circle of radius 14 m

Area of square park having side 100 m long
= (100 × 100) m2 = 10,000 m2.
Hence, area of the remaining part of the park
= Area of square – Area of 4 quadrants at each corner
= (10,000 – 616) m2 = 9384 m2

Question 27.
Find the area of the shaded region in Fig. 12.32, where ABCD is a square of side 14 cm each.

Solution:
Area of square ABCD = 14 × 14 cm2 = 196 cm2
Diameter of each circle = $$\frac{14}{2}$$ cm = 7 cm
So, radius of each circle = $$\frac{7}{2}$$ cm

∴ Area of shaded region = Area of square – Area of 4 circles
= (196 – 154) cm2 = 42 cm2

Question 28.
In Fig. 12.33, ABCD is a trapezium of area 24.5 sq. cm. In it, AD || BC, ∠DAB = 90°, AD = 10 cm and BC = 4 cm. If ABE is a quadrant of a circle, find the area of the shaded region. [Take π = $$\frac{22}{7}$$
Solution:

Area of trapezium = 24.5 cm2
$$\frac{1}{2}$$[AD + BC] AB = 24.5
$$\frac{1}{2}$$[10 + 4] × AB = 24.5
AB = 3.5 cm ⇒ r = 3.5 cm
Area of quadrant = $$\frac{1}{4}$$πr2
.025 × $$\frac{22}{7}$$ × 3.5 × 3.5 = 9.625 cm2
The area of shaded region = 24.5 – 9.625 = 14.875 cm2

Question 29.
In Fig. 12.34, O is the centre of a circle such that diameter AB = 13 cm and AC = 12 cm. BC is joined. Find the area of the shaded region. (Take π = 3.14)
Solution:

In ΔABC, ∠ACB = 90° (Angle in the semicircle)
∴BC2 + AC2 = AB2
∴ BC2 = AB2 – AC2
= 169 – 144 = 25
∴ BC = 5 cm
Area of the shaded region = Area of semicircle – Area of right ΔABC

Question 30.
In Fig. 12.35, are shown two arcs PAQ and PBQ. Arc PAQ is a part of circle with centre 0 and radius OP while arc PBQ is a semi-circle drawn on PQ as diameter with centre M.
If OP = PQ = 10 cm show that area of shaded region is $$25\left(\sqrt{3}-\frac{\pi}{6}\right)$$cm2.
Solution:
Since OP = PQ = QO
⇒ ΔPOQ is an equilateral triangle
∴ ∠POQ = 60°
Area of segment PAQM

Areas Related to Circles Class 10 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
PQRS is a diameter of a circle of radius 6 cm. The lengths PQ, QR and RS are equal. Semicircles are drawn on PQ and QS as diameters is shown in Fig. 12.36. Find the perimeter and area of the shaded region.

Solution:
We have,
PS = Diameter of a circle of radius 6 cm = 12 cm
∴ PQ = QR = RS = $$\frac{12}{3}$$ = 4 cm
Fig. 12.36 QS = QR + RS = (4 + 4) cm = 8 cm
Hence, required perimeter
= Arc of semicircle of radius 6 cm + Arc of semi circle of radius 4 cm + Arc of semi-circle of radius 2 cm
= (π × 6 + π × 4 + π × 2) cm = 12π cm = 12 × = $$\frac{22}{7}$$ = $$\frac{264}{7}$$ = 37.71 cm.
Required area = Area of semicircle with PS as diameter + Area of semicircle with PQ as diameter – Area of semi-circle with QS as diameter

Question 2.
Figure 12.37 depicts an archery target marked with its five scoring areas from the centre outwards as Gold, Red, Blue, Black and White. The diameter of the region representing Gold score is 21 cm and each of the other bands is 10.5 cm wide. Find the area of each of the five scoring regions.
Solution:

Question 3.
The short and long hands of a clock are 4 cm and 6 cm long respectively. Find the sum of distances travelled by their tips in 2 days.
Solution:
In 2 days, the short hand will complete 4 rounds.
Distance moved by its tip = 4 (Circumference of a circle of radius 4 cm)

Question 4.
Fig. 12.38, depicts a racing track whose left and right ends are semicircular. The distance between the two inner parallel line segments is 60 m and they are each 106 m long. If the track is 10 m wide, find:
(i) the distance around the track along its inner edge.
(ii) the area of the track.
Solution:

Here, we have
OE = O’G = 30 m
AE = CG = 10 m
OA = O’C = (30 + 10) m = 40 m
AC = EG = FH = BD = 106 m

(i) The distance around the track along its inner edge
= EG + FH + 2 × (circumference of the semicircle of radius OE = 30cm)

(ii) Area of the track = Area of the shaded region
= Area of rectangle AEGC + Area of rectangle BFHD + 2 (Area of the semicircle of radius 40 m – Area of the semicircle with radius 30 m)

Question 5.
The area of an equilateral triangle ABC is 17320.5 cm. With each vertex of the triangle as centre, a circle is drawn with radius equal to half the length of the side of the triangle (see Fig. 12.39). Find the area of the shaded region. (Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73205)
Solution:

Let each side of the equilateral triangle be x cm. Then,
Area of equilateral triangle ABC = 17320.5 cm (Given)

Question 6.
In a circular table cover of radius 32 cm, a design is formed leaving an equilateral triangle ABC in the middle as shown in Fig. 12.40. Find the area of the design.
Solution:
Here, ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle. Let O be the circumcentre of circumcircle.
Radius, r = 32 cm.
Now, area of circle = πr2

Question 7.
In Fig. 12.41, AB and CD are two diameters of a circle (with centre O) perpendicular to each other and OD is the diameter of the smaller circle. If OA = 7 cm, find the area of the shaded region.
Solution:

Question 8.
In Fig. 12.42 ABC is a quadrant of a circle of radius 14 cm and a semicircle is drawn with BC as diameter. Find the area of the shaded region.
Solution:
In ∆ABC, we have

Hence, area of the shaded region = Area of the semi-circle BQC – Area of the segment BPC
= (154 – 56)cm2 = 98cm2

Question 9.
In Fig 12.43, a circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle ABC of side 12 cm. Find the radius of inscribed circle and the area of the shaded region. [Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73]

Solution:
Construction:
Join OA, OB and OC
Draw OZ ⊥ BC, OX ⊥ AB and OY ⊥ AC.
Let the radius of the circle be r сm.
Area of ∆ABC = Area of ∆AOB + Area of ∆BOC + Area of ∆AOC

= 1.73 × 3 × 12 – 3.14 × 4 × 3
= 62.28 – 37.68 = 24.6 cm2

Question 10.
In Fig. 12.45, PSR, RTQ and PAQ are three semicircles of diameters 10 cm, 3 cm and 7 cm respectively. Find the perimeter of the shaded region. [Use π = 3.14]
Solution:

Radius of semicircle PSR = $$\frac{1}{2}$$ × 10 cm = 5 cm
Radius of semicircle RTQ = $$\frac{1}{2}$$ × 3 cm = 1.5 cm
Radius of semicircle PAQ = $$\frac{1}{2}$$ × 7 em = 3.5 cm
Perimeter of shaded region = Circumference of semicircle PSR + Circumference of semicircle RTQ + Circumference of semicircle PAQ.

= π[5 + 1.5 + 3.5]= 3.14 × 10 = 31.4cm

Question 11.
An elastic belt is placed around the rim of a pulley of radius 5 cm. (Fig. 12.46). From one point C on the belt, the elastic belt is pulled directly away from the centre O of the pulley until it is at P, 10 cm from the point O. Find the length of the belt that is still in contact with the pulley. Also find the shaded area. (Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73)
Solution:

PA = 5√3 cm = BP [Tangents from an external point are equal]

Question 12.
In Fig. 12.47, a sector OAP of a circle with centre O, containing ∠θ. AB is perpendicular to the radius OA and meets OP produced at B. Prove that the perimeter of shaded region is

Solution:

Question 13.
Find the area of the shaded region in Fig. 12.48, where APD, AQB, BRC , CSD are semi-circles of diameter 14 cm, 3.5 cm, 7 cm and 3.5 cm respectively. (Use π = $$\frac{22}{7}$$ )
Solution:

Question 14.
A chord PQ of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends an angle of 60° at the 14 cmcentre of circle. Find the area of major and minor segments of the Fig. 12.48 circle.
Solution:
Area of minor segment
= Area of minor sector having angle 60° at centre – area of equilateral ∆OPQ

Question 15.
In the given figure, ∆ABC is a right-angled triangle in which ∠A is 90°. Semicircles are drawn on AB, AC and BC as diameters. Find the area of the shaded region.
Solution:
∵ ABC is right angled triangle

Question 16.
In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle with AC = 24 cm, AB = 7 cm and ∠BOD = 90°. Find the area of the shaded region.
Solution:
In right angle triangle ABC

Areas Related to Circles Class 10 Extra Questions HOTS

Question 1.
Two circles touch internally. The sum of their areas is 116 ncmo and distance between their centres is 6 cm. Find the radii of the circles.
Solution:

Let R and r be the radii of the circles [Fig. 12.52].
Then, according to question,
⇒ πR2 +πr2 = 116π
⇒ R2 + r2 = 116 …..(i)
Distance between the centres = 6 cm
⇒ OO’ = 6 cm
⇒ R – s = 6 …(ii)
Now, (R + r)2 + (R – 1)2 = 2(R2 + m2)
Using the equation (i) and (ii), we get
(R + r)2 + 36 = 2 × 116
= (R + r)2 = (2 x 116 – 36) = 196
= R + r = 14 …..(iii)
Solving (ii) and (iii), we get R = 10 and r = 4
Hence, radii of the given circles are 10 cm and 4 cm respectively.

Question 2.
A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in moving 11 km. Find the diameter of the wheel.
Solution:
Let the radius of the wheel be r сm.

∴ Diameter = 2r cm = (2 × 35) cm = 70 cm
Hence, the diameter of the wheel is 70 cm.

Question 3.
Find the area of the shaded design of Fig. 12.53, where ABCD is a square of side 10 cm and semicircles are drawn with each side of the square as diameter (use π = 3.14).

Solution:

Let us mark the four unshaded regions as I, II, III and IV (Fig. 12.53).
Area of I + Area of III
= Area of ABCD – Areas of two semicircles of radius 5 cm each

= (100 – 3.14 × 25) cm2 = (100 – 78.5) cm2 = 21.5 cm2
Similarly, Area of II + Area of IV = 21.5 cm2
So, Area of the shaded design
= Area of ABCD – Area of (I + II + III + IV)
= (100 – 2 × 21.5) cm2
= (100 – 43) cm2 = 57 cm2

Question 4.
A copper wire, when bent in the form of a square, encloses an area of 484 cm2. If the same wire is bent in the form of a circle, find the area enclosed by it.
Solution:
We have, Area of the square = a2 = 484 cm2
∴ Side of the square = √1484 cm = 22 cm
So, Perimeter of the square = 4 (side) = (4 × 22) cm = 88 cm
Let r be the radius of the circle. Then, according to question,
Circumference of the circle = Perimeter of the square

Question 5.
Two circles touch externally. The sum of their areas is 130 r sq. cm and the distance between their centres is 14 cm. Find the radii of the circles.
Solution:

If two circles touch externally, then the distance between their centres is equal to the sum of their radii.
Let the radii of the two circles be r, cm and r2 cm respectively [Fig. 12.55).
Let C, and C, be the centres of the given circles. Then,
C1C2 = r1 +r2
= 14 = r1 +r2
[∵ C1C2 = 14 cm given]
= r1 +r2 = 14
It is given that the sum of the areas of two circles is equal to 130 n cm2

Solving (i) and (iv), we get r1 = 11 cm and r2 = 3 cm.
Hence, the radii of the two circles are 11 cm and 3 cm.

Question 6.
In Fig. 12.56, from a rectangular region ABCD with A
AB = 20 cm, a right triangle AED with AE = 9 cm and DE = 12 cm, is cut off. On the other end, taking BC as diameter, a semicircle is added on outside the region. Find the area of the shaded region. [Use π = 3.14]

Solution:
Area of shaded region
= Area of rectangle – Area of triangle + Area of semicircle. In right ∆ADE.
AD2 = AE2 + DE2

Area of rectangle = AB × BC = 20 × 15 = 300 cm2
Area of shaded region = 300 + 88.31 – 54 = 334.31 cm2

Question 7.
In the given Fig. 12.58, the side of square is 28 cm and radius of each circle is half of the length of the side of the square where O and O’ are centres of the circles. Find the area of shaded region.

Solution:
Area of shaded region
= Area of square + Area of 2 major sectors having angle 270° at centre

Question 8.
In the given Fig. 12.59, ABCD is a rectangle of dimensions 21 cm × 14 cm. A semicircle is drawn with BC as diameter. Find the area and the perimeter of the shaded region in the figure.
Solution:

Area of shaded region
Area of shaded region
= Area of rectangle – Area of semicircle
=(l × b) – $$\frac{1}{2}$$ × π × r2
= (21 × 14) – $$\frac{1}{2}$$ × π × 7 × 7
= 294 – $$\frac{1}{2}$$ × $$\frac{22}{7}$$ × 7 × 7
= 294 – 77 = 217 cm2
Now, perimeter of shaded region = 2l + b + circumference of semicircle i.e.; πr
= 2 × 21 + 14 + $$\frac{22}{7}$$ × 7
= 56 + 22 = 78 cm

Class 10 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers The Age of Industrialisation

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers The Age of Industrialisation Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions History Chapter 5

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions Question 1.
Give two examples where modern development, as associated with progress, has created problems.

1. Modern development, through industrialisation, has led to the destruction of the pre-industrial system. The Indian textiles industry has harmed artisans
2. Industrialisation has created pollution and damaged ecological balance. Environmental problems are around everywhere.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Notes Questions And Answers Question 2.
Who had controlled the pro-industrial system?
Merchants used to control the pre-industrial system while the goods were produced by the peasants.

Class 10 History Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Name some of the production process of the 18th century.
Carding, twisting, spinning and rolling.

Class 10 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 4.
Who had created the cotton mill?
Richard Arkwright.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions Question 5.
Name the first leading sector of the first phase of industrialisation.
Cotton was the first leading sector of the first phase of industrialisation.

Age Of Industrialisation Extra Questions Question 6.
Why was in the first phase of industrialisation technological charges were not initially acceptable to the industrialists and the merchant?
The new technology was expensive. Hence the merchants and the industrialists were cautious about using it.

Class 10 The Age Of Industrialisation Important Question Answer Pdf Question 7.
Who had produced the steam engine and who had, and with what improved it?
Newcomen had produced the steam engine and James Watt improved it by planting the new engine in 1781.

Extra Questions Of The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 8.
Why did the upper-class people in Victorian Britain preferred things produced by hand?
Things produced by hand used to symbolize with the upper-class people, refinement, and clasy. Moreover, the handmade products were better finished and carefully designed and individually produced.

Extra Questions And Answer Of Age Of Industrialisation Question 9.
Why did the employment opportunities increase after 1840s?
As the building activity intensified in the cities, roads widened, new railway stations came up employment opportunities greatly increased.

Extra Questions Of Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 10.
Explain with an example that there was a decline in textile export in India during the first half of the 19th century.
The first half of the 19th century saw the decline of the textile export in India. In 1811-12, piece goods (textile) accounted for 33% of India’s export; by 1850-51, it was no more than 3%.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 11.
What were the two significant problems faced by the cotton weavers in India?

1. Weavers export market had collapsed; the British government did not allow foreign sale of cotton in the country.
2. Their local market also shrank, Manchester imports were common.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 12.
Why could not weaving industries survive?
By the end of the 19th century, there was a lot of machine-made goods available in India. This led to the destruction of the weaving, industries.

The Age Of Industrialisation Extra Questions Question 13.
From where did the workers come?
From Ratnagiri, villages of Kanpur district: United Provinces districts, surrounding areas near Calcutta.

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Important Questions And Answers Question 14.
Why did the Indian industrialists shift from yam to cotton production in the early years of the 20th century?
Indian export of yarn to China declined. That is why the Indian industrialists shifted to cotton production.

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 15.
How are consumers created?
Consumers are created through numerous means. One such means is advertisements.

Question 16.
As numerous industries worked on seasonal labour, the industrialists preferred hand- labour. Explain.
In many industries, the demand for labour was seasonal Gasworks and breweries were especially busy through the cold months. So they needed more workers to meet their peak demand. Bookbinders and printers, catering to Christmas demand, too needed extra hands before December.

At the waterfront, winter was the time that ships were repaired and spruced up. In all such industries where production fluctuated with the season industrialists usually preferred hand labour, employing workers for the season.

Question 17.
How was the lives of the workers with the abundance of labour in the market?
The abundance of labour in the market affected the lives of workers. As news of possible jobs travelled to the countryside, hundreds tramped to the cities. The actual possibility of getting a job depended on existing networks of friendship and kin relations. If one had a relative or a friend in a factory, one were more likely to get a job quickly. But not everyone had social connections. Many jobseekers had to wait weeks, spending nights under bridges or in other shelters.

Question 18.
Why Bombay and Calcutta as new ports grew in place of Surat and Hoogly ports?
While Sural and Hoogly decayed, Bombay and Calcutta grew. This shift from the old ports to the new ones was an indicator of the growth of colonial power. Trade through the new ports came to be controlled by European companies and was carried in European ships while many of the old trading houses collapsed, those that wanted to survive had to now operate within a network shaped by European trading companies.

Question 19.
Which European agencies controlled the large sector of the Indian industries till the World War I?
Till the First World War, European Managing Agencies in fact controlled a large sector of Indian industries. Three of the biggest ones were Bird Heiglers & Co, Andrew Yule, and Jardine Skinner & Co. These Agencies mobilised capital, set up joint-stock companies and managed them. In most instances, Indian financiers provided the capital while the European Agencies made all investments and business decisions.

Question 20.
How do you say that despite the large-scale industries, there was the domination of the small-scale industries in India?
While factory industries grew steadily after the war, large industries formed only a small segment of the economy. Most of them about 67 per cent in 1911 were located in Bengal and Bombay. Over the rest of the country, small-scale production continued to predominate Only a small proportion at the total industrial labour force worked in registered factories. 5 per cent in 1911 and 10 per cent in 1931. The rest worked in small workshops and household units, often located in alleys and bylanes, invisible to the passer-by.

Question 21.
Look at Figs. 3, 7 and 11 (Textbook. Page 111) then reread source B. Explain why many workers were opposed to the use of the Spinning Jenny.
Source B: A magistrate reported in 1790 about an incident when he was called in to protect a manufacturer’s property from being attacked by workers. From the depredations of a lawless Banditti of colliers and their wives, for the wives had lost their work to spinning engines they advanced at first with much insolence, avowing their intention of cutting to pieces the machine lately introduced in the woollen manufacture; which they suppose, if generally adopted, will lessen the demand for manual labour.

The women became clamorous. The men were more open to conviction and after some expostulation were induced to desist from their purpose and return peaceably home.
J.L. Hammond and B. Hammond, The Skilled Labourer 1760-1832, quoted in Maxine Berg, The Age of Manufactures.

• With the introduction of Spinning Jenny, productivity increased, as many spindles could be yarned at a time from one wheel.
• This led to unemployment for many people. Their income also went down. So they opposed Spinning Jenny.

Question 22.
Explain how rapid was the process of industrialisation? Did industrialisation mean growth of factory industries only? Give reasons.
The process of industrialization can be stated as follows :
First; The most dynamic industries in Britain were clearly cotton and metals. Growing at a rapid pace. Cotton was the leading sector in the first phase of industrialisation up to 1840s. After that, the iron and steel industry led the way. With the expansion of railways, in England from the 1840s and in the colonies from the 1860s, the demand for iron and steel increased rapidly. By 1973 Britain was exporting iron and steel worth about £ 77 million, double the value of its cotton expert.

Second: The new industries could not easily displace traditional industries. Even at the end of the nineteenth century, less than 20th percent of the total workforce was employed in technologically advanced industrial sectors. Textiles was a dynamic sector, but a large portion of the output was produced not within factories, but outside, within domestic units.

Third: the pace of change in the traditional industries was not set by steam-powered cotton or metal industries, but they did not remain entirely stagnant either seemingly ordinary and small innovations were the basis of growth in many non-mechanised. Sectors such as food processing building, rottery glass work tanning, furniture making and production of implements.

Fourth: technological changes curred slowly. They did my spread dramatically across the industrial landscape. New technology was expensive and merchants and industrialists wife cautious about using it. The machines often broke down and repair was costly. They were not as effective as their inventors and manufacturers claimed.

Question 23.
Substantiate that silk and cotton goods from India dominated the international market before the age of industrialisation.
Before the age of machine industries, silk and cotton goods from India dominated the international market in textiles. Corser cotton were produced in many countries, but the liner varieties often came from India Armenian and Persian merchants took the goods from Punjab to Afghanistan, eastern Persia and Central Asia.

Bales of fine textiles were carried on came back via the northwest frontier, through mountain passes and across desires. A vibrant sea trade operated through the main pre-colonial ports. Surat on the Gujarat coast connected India to the Gulf and Red Sea Ports. Masulipatam on the Coromandel coast and Hoogly in Bengal had trade links with Southeast Asian ports.

A variety of Indian merchants and bankers were involved in this network of export trade financing production, carrying goods and supplying exporter Supply merchants linked the port towns to the inland regions. They gave advances to weavers, procured the woven cloth from weaving villages and carried the supply to the ports. At the port, the big shippers and export merchants had brokers who negotiated the price and bought goods from the supply merchants operating inland.

Question 24.
Why did the industrial groups begin worrying about imports from other countries with the development of cotton industries in England?
As cotton industries developed in England, industrial groups began worrying about imports from other countries. They pressurised the government to impose import duties on cotton textiles so that Manchester goods, could sell in Britain without any competition from outside. At the same time, industrialists persuaded the East India Company to sell British manufactures in Indian markets is well. Exports of British cotton goods increased dramatically in the early nineteenth century.

At the end of the eighteenth century there had been virtually no import of cotton piece-get into India But by 1850 cotton piece-goods, constituted over 31 per cent of the value of non-imports and by the 1870, this figure was over 50 per cent. Cotton weavers in India thus faced we problems at the same.

Time their export market cold and the local market shank, being pulled with Manchester import Produced by machines at lower costs, the imported cotton goods were so cheap that weavers could not easily compete with them. By 1950s, reports from most weaving regions of India narrated stories on decline anil desolation.

Question 25.
Give a brief account of the role of advertisements in selling goods.
One way in which new consumers are created is through advertisements Advertisements make products appear desirable and necessary. They try to shape the mind of people and create new needs Today we live in a world where advertisements surround us. They appear in newspapers, magazines, hoarding streel walls television screens.

But if we look back into history we find that from the very beginning of the industrial age, advertisements have played a role in expanding the markets for products, and in shaping a new consumer culture. When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they pul labels on the cloth bundles The label was needed to make the place of manufacture and the name of the company familiar to the buyer The Label was also to be a mark of quality.

Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the most appropriate Iterative:
(i) The following was the first symbol of new era of industrialisation
(a) cotton
(b) rubber
(c) iron
(d) silk
(a) cotton

(ii) Spinning Jenny was devised by
(a) Hargreaves
(b) Watt
(c) Newcomen
(d) Boulton
(a) Hargreaves

(iii) The first cotton mill was set up at
(a) Kanpur
(c) Surat
(d) Mumbai
(d) Mumbai

(iv) The first jute mill was set up in:
(a) Jallandhar
(b) Kanpur
(c) Cochin
(d) Bengal
(d) Bengal.

2.Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word:

(i) J.N. Tata set up the iron and steel factory at
Jamshedpur

(ii) Dwarkanath Tagore made profit from trade.