Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 6 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Section A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below:

It is popularly believed that wireless technology was created in the year 1880, when Alexander Graham Bell and Charles Sumner Tainter invented the telephone. In that moment they changed the very course of human civilisation. Today you would be hard- pressed to find an adult (or even a child) who does not have access to mobile technology.

5. Wireless communication is the transfer of information or power between two or more points that are not connected by an electrical conductor. The most common wireless technologies use radio waves. With radio waves, distances can be short, such as a few metres for Bluetooth, or as far as millions of kilometres for deep-space radio communications. It encompasses various types of fixed, mobile, and portable applications, including two-way radios, cellular telephones, personal digital assistants (PDAs), and wireless networking. In fact, all our Wi-Fi devices also emit radio waves.

10. Wireless networks are gaining popularity due to their convenience. This ease of connectivity comes at a price. On-going research has identified that signals from a wireless network are potentially dangerous to humans. The constant proximity to wireless signals can cause headaches, insomnia, cardiac arrest and other health issues. Researchers have established that Wi-Fi network signals predominantly affect the lower half of the human body and can trigger liver and pancreatic cancer.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

15. In 2011, the World Health Organization’s International Agency for Research on Cancer classified wireless radiations from cell phones, baby monitors, tablets, cell towers, radar, Wi-Fi etc. as Class 2B carcinogens. This Class 2B carcinogen classification applies to appliances with an operating frequency ranging from 30 kHz to 300 GHz. This means all this while, as we were scrolling through online entertainment, we have been sitting on a ticking time bomb.

20. With the rapid growth of mobile phone devices in the market, technology has developed in such a way that it has ended up creating a horrifying situation for the human body. The normal biological systems of the human body have not developed in any way to adapt to or protect against harmful radio waves.

25. This has led to a rise in serious ailments such as diseases of brain-like cancer, brain tumours, Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease and so on. Not to forget the short-term effects like hormone disruption, loss of concentration, impairment of cognitive function, behavioral problems, attention deficit: and long-term effects like DNA damage, male infertility.

30. For children, the wireless devices have even more grave consequences because they have thinner bony skulls, more aqueous bodies/ brains, higher rate of cell turnover and, hence their neural systems are not completely developed. Beyond physical impairments, children are also vulnerable to stunted socio-emotional, cognitive and behavioral development.

35. Given the ubiquity of technology in today’s society and the importance of this issue for policy and practice, it is essential to understand the impacts of technology use on the developing brains and bodies of children in the 21st century in order to guide policy delineating safe and effective use. Parents and guardians should be discerning when it comes to guidelines and research, while governments and groups with policy influence should be cautious of prescribing policy without exploring the evidence base in a holistic and thorough manner.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

40. International exposure guidelines have been developed to provide protection against established effects from radio frequency fields by the International Commission on Non¬Ionizing Radiation Protection (ICNIRP, 1998) and the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE, 2005). It is up to national authorities to adopt these international standards to protect their citizens against adverse levels of radio wave exposure. They should restrict access to areas where exposure limits may be exceeded.

45. France has banned all wireless devices, including cell phones from all public schools starting September 2018, and California Public Health is actively educating their public regarding risk of harm from wireless radiation. Even in India, several eminent scientists have begun a crusade to caution the Government against the roll-out of 5G technology-based services in the country.

50. We can make smarter choices about the way we use technology by making changes in our everyday usage patterns. For instance, adults carrying cell phones (and other wireless devices) can either turn off the device or convert device to ‘airplane mode’ when servicing or interacting with children and pregnant mothers.

55. Precautionary measures for adults include increasing the distance, duration and frequency of wireless device use; reducing multiple device use; and reducing exposure to high wireless radiation areas. By making minor modifications to our daily routines and habits, we can try and minimize the harmful effects of wireless technology.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8)

(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the writer’s statement of wireless signals leading to cancer is true. (1)

(B) State any one trait of children that is evident from lines 30-35 that makes them vulnerable to harmful radio waves.

(C) The writer said that it is ‘hard-pressed’ to find a person without an access to the mobile technology. What does he mean by ‘hard-pressed’? (1)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

(D) Why does the writer say that new technologies have created a horrifying situation for the human body? (1)

(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 20-25.

The fast-paced development of the GDP in Turkey has made it one of the strongest countries in the world. (1)

(F) What does the use of ‘airplane mode’ suggest in the context of the writer’s precautions for harmful signals? (1)

(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 50¬58 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

Sleep disorder can be improved if we can make in our daily routine. (1)

(H) France has banned all wireless devices in public schools. How can we this help people? (1)

(I) Analyse the ways in which parents can save their children from harmful signals.
(A) As per the passage, in 2011, the World Health Organization’s International Agency for Research on Cancer classified wireless radiations from cell phones, baby monitors, tablets, cell towers, radar, Wi-Fi, etc. as Class 2B carcinogens. This study proves the fact that the writer’s statement of wireless signals leading to cancer is true.

(B) Children have thinner bony skulls and due to this, their neural systems are not fully developed. This makes them vulnerable to harmful radio waves.

(C) The writer said that it is ‘hard-pressed’ to find a person without an access to the mobile technology. By this, he meant that it is very difficult to find such a person.

(D) The writer says so because with the advent of new technologies in the market, it has become horrible for humans to process the signals as the body is not able to adapt or protect against harmful radio waves.

(E) Rapid growth

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

(F) The writer suggests switching to ‘airplane mode’ in devices as it is a mode wherein the network gets cut off from the phone and there are no signals or radio waves around the device until the mode is removed.

(G) minor modifications

(H) By limiting the use of wireless devices at certain places, the risk of harm to people from the deadly radio waves and signals can be controlled.

It is recommended for parents to keep a check on the use of mobiles and tablets by their children. Parents should limit the timings to use such devices and try to make them avoid it as much as possible.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below:

Cricket is a passion for people around the globe. It is played everywhere from test match arenas to village greens, tropical beaches, and dusty backlots. Cricket is the world’s second most popular spectator sport after soccer.

5. The origin of cricket can be traced back to the Dark Ages. All research concedes that the game is derived from a very old, popular, and uncomplicated pastime by which one player served up an object, be it a small piece of wood or a ball, and another hit it with a suitably fashioned club. The game of cricket was first recorded in 16th-century England, and it was played in grammar schools, farming communities, and everywhere in between. But things really took off when 18th-century nobles realized it was a great sport.

10. The oldest surviving set of cricket laws dates to 1744, which was printed on a handkerchief. Naturally, it’s now in the MCC Museum at Lord’s in London. The oldest permanent fixture is the annual Eton Vs Harrow match, played since 1805. A young Lord Byron turned out for Harrow in the first match, though history doesn’t record how poetic – or “mad, bad, and dangerous” – his bowling was.

15. The first international match was held in 1877 when Australia beat England in Melbourne. The match was dubbed a ‘Test’, since the grueling nature of playing over five days was deemed the ultimate test for any side. However, it was Australia’s first win on the English soil – in 1882 at The Oval in London – that led to matches between the two nations being christened as the ‘Ashes’. Following the defeat, newspapers published an obituary mourning “the death of English cricket,” adding that “the body will be cremated and the ashes taken to Australia.”

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

20. A One Day International (ODI) is a form of limited-overs cricket, played between two teams with international status, in which each team faces a fixed number of overs, usually 50. The Cricket World Cup is played in this format The international one-day game is a late-twentieth-century development. The first ODI was played on 5 January 1971 between Australia and England at the Melbourne Cricket Ground.

25. Table 1 represents the list of Cricket world cup winning countries as well as the runners-up for every Cricket World Cup played until 2015.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the seven questions given below. (1 x 6)

(A) What does the writer mean by calling the test match as ‘grueling’? (1)

(B) What is the purpose behind keeping a track of the winning teams of Cricket World Cup? (1)

(C) With reference to the table, write one conclusion about Australia’s performance in the Cricket World Cup. (1)

(D) Identify the team that has never won a Cricket World Cup, with reference to the table. (1)

(E) The newspapers published an obituary mourning the ‘death of English Cricket’. Substantiate. (1)

(F) How can we say that cricket is one of the most beloved sports in the world, according to the passage? (1)

(G) Identify a word from lines 15-20 that indicates the process of giving a Christian name to a baby under baptism. (1)
(A) The writer wants to justify the name of a ‘test’ match as the schedule for it is of about five days long, which is really a test for both the sides to perform for so long.

(B) It is very important to keep a track of the details of the games that are related to such a large number of spectators and have their history tracing back all the way to the 16th century.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

(C) From the table, it is evident that Australia has the most number of wins from the year 1975 to 2015.

(D) According to the table, it is only New Zealand that had been a runner up in the year 2015 but had not been the winner in any year from 1975 to 2015.

(E) In the first international test match between Australia and England, the former won on the English soil. This made Englishmen feeL like they lost their precious kingship in the Cricket and so, they mourned it.

(F) Cricket is indeed one of the most beloved sports in the world as it is the world’s second most popular spectator sport after soccer, according to the passage.

(G) Christened.

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
As a coach of the District Basketball Team, you have been invited by St. Era School to coach students for a basketball match for their upcoming tournament. Draft a formal reply in not more than 50 words accepting the invitation. (3)

Mr. Rajan Shah thanks the Principal, staff and the students of St. Era School to invite him to be the coach for their Basketball team for their upcoming Basketball tournament. He cordially accepts the invitation and would like to inform the school that he will reach the school on 23rd August 20XX at 10.00 a.m. sharp.

Rajan Shah
District Basketball Coach

Question 4.
You have read an advertisement in the newspaper, Gwalior Times for the post of software engineer in AVD Software, Gwalior. You believe that you possess the requisite qualifications and experience and your innovative ideas will prove to be an asset to the company. Write an application in 100-120 words emphasising your strong points and your suitability for the post. Also include your bio-data. You are Dev/Devika, 1-B, Changi Street, Gwalior.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Situation Vacant
Wanted a young talented Software Engineer for AVD Software, Gwalior. The candidate must have a degree from a reputed college and minimum three years’ experience in a software company.

Contact: the HR manager, AVD Software: 9897xxxxxx
You are Amit/Amita. As a Staff Reporter for Deccan Herald, write about a recent daylight robbery that took place in a house in the city, covering all the details like robbery happening in day, robbers armed with guns and bars, owners filing complaints, valuable ornaments lost, etc. in about 120-150 words.
21-B, Changi Street
10th September, 20XX
The Manager
AVD Software

Subject: Application for the post of a Software Engineer

Respected Sir/Ma’am,

In response to your advertisement in the Gwalior Times, dated 7th September, 20XX for the post of a software engineer, I hereby offer my candidature for the same. I believe that my skills and qualifications match your requirements.

I have worked as a software engineer at Vibha Telecom for the last five years. It has been my dream to work for a magnificent company like AVD Software. My abilities are quite strong in user-interface and system coding. If given the opportunity, I am sure I will be able to prove my capabilities to you practically.

I would be glad to get this opportunity and speak more about my work in a personal interview. I am available to come to your office at your convenience. For your reference, I am enclosing my detailed bio-data along with the letter.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Dev/Devi ka
Enel.: Bio-data and Work Experience Certificate


Name : Dev/Devika
Father’s Name : Mr. Natwar Agarwal
Date of Birth : 2nd November 20XX
Address : 1-B, Changi Street, Gwalior
Hobbies : Reading, Music, Photography and Sports
Languages Know : Hindi, English, and Punjabi
Nationality : Indian
Educational Qualifications : Graduation in Software Engineering from IIT, Delhi Diploma in Graphic Design from Pearl Academy, Gwalior
Experience : Worked as a Manager – Technology for five years at Vibha Telecom, Gwalior
Expected Salary : Negotiable
References :

  • Mr. Bharat Bansal (HOD), Pearl Academy, Gwalior
  • Mrs. Poorvi Jain, HR, Vibha Telecom, Gwalior


Daylight Robbery in the City
By Amit/Amita, Staff Reporter,
Deccan Herald

Agra, 2nd September, 20XX: The city witnessed a daylight robbery once again in the posh residential area. Agra’s Saket Colony which is housed by city’s rich businessmen is notorious for daylight house break-ins. As per the report filed by the couple of the house at the Saket Police Station, a group of five young robbers, who had covered their faces, broke in the house at 2:00 pm, thinking the inmates to be sleeping during the noon time. When their pet Labrador of the house constantly barked on seeing the robbers, there was a panic in the house.

The robbers were armed with two guns and iron bars. They took away gold jewellery worth 10 lac and three lac rupees in cash from the safe. In the attempt of catching the robbers, Bijoy Kapoor, the owner of the house, got beaten by the iron bar on the head. He had been injured badly with 8 stitches in his head. The police are on search for them everywhere and hope to catch them soon.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Caution :
While writing a newspaper report, if cues aren’t given in the question, students tend to give irrelevant details that read weird. In such questions, try to invent relevant details and keep it realistic.

Section – C
Literature (18 Marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, within 40 words each. (2 x 5)

(A) The peddler first declines the ironmaster’s invitation to his house but then accepts the same from Edla. Why? (2)
(B) “The battle of Champaran is won.” Explain Gandhiji’s exclamation regarding the text.
You may begin like:
A multitude of lawyers told Gandhiji that they were ready to……. (2)
(C) ‘Aunt Jennifer’s efforts to get rid of her fear proved to be futile’. Comment. (2)
(D) Rationalise how beautiful things help us to live a happy life. (2)
(E) What qualities of Mr Lamb attracted Derry to him? (2)
(F) Validate in your opinion, whose version of the Skunk’s story was better: Jo’s or Jack’s. (2)
(A) First, the peddler declines the ironmaster’s invitation to his house because the former has the stolen thirty kronors with him and thinks it to be risky to accept the ironmaster’s invitation. However, when Edla invites him for the same, he accepts the invitation because Edla’s sympathy and compassion allays his fears and makes him comfortable. This makes him think that he is free to flee away from the house anytime as he may feel like.

(B) The peddLer was a poor rattrap seller. Everybody treated him badly and looked upon him as an unacceptable human being. No one has ever treated him with kindness and compassion and so, he had lost faith in humanity. But when he knocked at the crofter’s door, he was surprised to receive the warm welcome and the generous hospitability shown by the crofter to him.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

(C) Aunt Jennifer’s effort of embroidering tigers will not get her rid of the fear that she has for her husband. It will prove futile because the poet says that even after her death, the fear of her husband’s tyranny will keep on haunting Aunt Jennifer.

(D) Yes, I do sympathise with Aunt Jennifer because she is like any other submissive housewife. She has to do all the household chores without any respite. Her husband is very cruel and often tyrannises her, which makes her an oppressed person.

(E) Derry is a young boy who is filled with pessimism and has a complex personality all due to his burnt face. On the contrary, Mr. Lamb who himself has a disability of having a tin-leg, is full of motivation, confidence and love. His words of encouragement attracted Derry towards him.

(F) In my opinion, Jack’s version of Skunk’s story was better because as a mother, mommy Skunk was correct. She wanted her son not to lose his unique identity. Their bad smell saved them from predators and mommy skunk always wanted her son to be protected. Jack’s story was correct from the end of a mother.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)

(A) A thing of beauty is a joy forever. Support the statement with reference to the poem ‘A Thing of Beauty’. Write your answer in about 120-150 words. (4)

(B) The peddler was a changed man at the end of the story ‘The Rattrap’. Examine the peddler as a person in the light of this statement, in about 120-150 words. (4)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

(C) It was sheer negligence on the part of the prison staff that helped Evans to escape. Substantiate with reference to text, in about 120-150 words. (4)
(A) The main theme or the message conveyed by the poem ’A Thing of Beauty’ is for Keats, the world of beauty is an escape from the dreary and painful life that a beautiful thing, big or small, gives a permanent joy to person. The nature has given us various rich bounties which are so beautiful to look at and feel. The poet then gives examples of the sun, moon, stars, cool water rills, sheep, daffodils and a lot more that bring instant happiness on our faces as soon as we look at them. Joy increases, with the passing time, as one realls a thing of beauty.

The world is full of grief and sorrows. But the nature has provided us so many beautiful things that give us relief from the gloom of our lives. The beauty of a thing does not get diminished with the passing time but its memories just get increased. A thing of beauty leaves a permanent imprint on our minds forever. Poetry, for Keats, exists not as an instrument of social revolt nor of philosophical doctrines, but for the expression of beauty.

(B) In the story, the peddler gets a revelation that this world is a huge ‘rattrap’ for human beings. It tempts people in the form of worldly riches, joys and materials as baits. When a person tries to get it for himself, he gets trapped into it forever. But later, when he gets easy access to steal the crofter’s thirty Kroners, he does it without giving the crofter’s trust a thought.

In this way, he himself gets attracted to the bait in the form of those thirty Kroners and then gets into the trap by finally stealing the money. He runs into the wood with the stolen money in his pocket, to get out of the place in order to avoid being caught by someone for it.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Later, when he finds that he is lost and is just spinning around the forest like a maze, he realizes that he is caught in the same rattrap that he thinks people end up in. when he loses his way in the forest, with the few kroners in his pocket.

(C) Yes, I agree that the prison staff was negligent towards Evans because when the prison authorities have taken a lot of precautions, how was it so easy for Evans to escape it? The first instance where the negligence is shown is when Officer Jackson sees Evans wearing a hat but doesn’t ask him to remove it. The hat concealed Evans’ clipped hair which he made to impersonate McLeery.

Next, the prison staff does not verify McLeery’s identity when he entered the prison. Then, the staff doesn’t recognize Evans impersonating McLeery. All this helps him to escape prison easily.

At the end, though the Governor is able to catch him red-handed at the capitaL Evans escapes once again, and this time audaciously in the prison van. Therefore, it proves that it is sheer negligence on the part of the prison staff that helps Evans to escape.