Category: CBSE Sample Papers

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 2021-2022 Pdf with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 with Solutions Answers Pdf Download Term 1 & Term 2 will give students an idea about the question paper pattern, frequently asked questions, and on which topics to emphasize more in a subject. CBSE Sample Papers of Class 11th Term 1 & Term 2 will boost their confidence level, and they will feel optimistic about the board exams.

CBSE Sample Papers Class 11 2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Maths
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physics
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Core
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Hindi
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Political Science
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Economics
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Business Studies
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Computer Science

We hope these Solved Sample Paper of Class 11 CBSE 2021 2022 Pdf with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on CBSE Class 11th Sample Papers Term 1 & Term 2 for their exam preparation.

Solved Sample Paper of Social Science SST for Class 10 CBSE with Answers 2021-2022 Term 1 & Term 2: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Answers 2021-2022 Pdf Download Term 1 & Term 2 will give students an idea about the question paper pattern, frequently asked questions, and on which topics to emphasize more in a subject. CBSE SST Sample Paper Class 10 2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 will boost their confidence level, and they will feel optimistic about the board exams.

CBSE SST Sample Paper Class 10 2021-2022 with Solutions | SST Sample Paper Class 10 Term 1 & Term 2

Download Social Science Class 10 Sample Paper and practice for your 2021-22 board exams. Sample Paper of Social Science Class 10 is prepared according to the CBSE Examination pattern and syllabus with each answer according to CBSE marking scheme. According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Carries 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the Solved Sample Paper of SST Class 10.

SST Sample Papers Class 10 with Solutions 2021-22 Term 2

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 1
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 2
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 3
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 4

SST Sample Papers Class 10 with Solutions (Old Pattern)

• SST Sample Paper Class 10 2020 with Solutions Set 1 (New 2020-21)
• Class 10 SST Sample Paper Set 2 (New 2020-21)
• Social Science Class 10 Sample Paper Set 3 (New 2020-21)
• Sample Paper of Social Science Class 10 Set 4 for Practice (New 2020-21)
• Sample Paper SST Class 10 Set 5 for Practice (New 2020-21)

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Question Paper Design 2022

Section	VSA* (2 Marks)	SA (3 Marks)	LA (5 Marks)	Case-based (4 Marks)	Map (3 Marks)
A	5Q	–	–	–	–
B	–	3Q (1 Internal Choice)	–	–	–
C	–	–	2Q (2 Internal Choices)	–	–
D	–	–	–	2Q	–
E	–	–	–	–	1Q (1 Internal Choice)
Total	10M	9M	10M	8M	3M

Social Science SST Sample Paper Class 10 Question Paper Design 2020-21

Typology of Questions	Total marks	% Weightage
1. Remembering and Understanding: Exhibiting memory of previously learned material by recalling facts, terms, basic concepts, and answers; Demonstrating an understanding of facts and ideas by organizing, translating, interpreting, giving descriptions, and stating main ideas.	28	35%
2. Applying: Solving problems to new situations by applying acquired knowledge, facts, techniques, and rules in a different way.	15	18.75%
3. Formulating, Analysing, Evaluating, and Creating: Examining and breaking information into parts by identifying motives or causes; making inferences and finding evidence to support generalizations; Presenting and defending opinions by making judgments about information, validity of ideas, or quality of work based on a set of criteria; Compiling information together in a different way by combining elements in a new pattern or proposing alternative solutions.	32	40%
4. Map Skill	5	6.25%
Total	80	100

CBSE Sample Paper of Class 10 Social Science

• CBSE SST Sample Paper Class 10 Paper 1
• SST Class 10 Sample Paper Paper 2
• Sample Paper Class 10 SST Paper 3
• Sample Paper SST Class 10 Paper 4
• Social Science Sample Paper Class 10 Paper 5
• Sample Paper of Social Science Class 10 Paper 6
• Sample Paper Social Science Class 10 Paper 7

We hope these Sample Papers of Social Science for Class 10 CBSE with Answers 2021-2022 Term 1 & Term 2 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on NCERT CBSE SST Sample Paper Class 10 2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 for their exam preparation.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Education with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 40

General Instructions :

• The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING & GRAMMAR and LITERATURE.
• Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading (13 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below :

We live in an age of wonders and miracles. It has been called the ‘Age of Science’, and different aspects of our life that changed in the preceding centuries have been attributed to science. This is completely true, but it is only one side of the coin. The flip side is that as we have advanced more in the field of technology, values such as empathy and concern for our fellow human beings are gradually being eroded.

Take the example of the Internet. On one hand, access to information and knowledge at the click of a button is a veritable boon to everyone (especially students) and this has made our lives much simpler. On the other hand, it has severely limited actual contact with teachers, friends and elders. Thus, the learning is incomplete because it lacks personal advice that a person gives on the basis of their knowledge and practical experiences.

Today, a small child can access and navigate the Internet with ease, but at the same time miss out on the basic human traits of friendship, relationships and family values. Owing to excessive technology, children often miss out on the most enriching childhood experiences, such as playing outdoor games with friends, which apart from being immensely enjoyable and physically exhilarating, also develop traits such as teamwork and discipline at an early age.

As friendship is gradually being limited to virtual friends, it has harsh implications on the personality development of a child because the time spent with computers or mobile phones can never substitute for the holistic benefits of outdoor play. As for me, I think this age of rapid development has created at least as many problems as it has solved, if not more.

The reason is that the basic goal of life, which should be the pursuit of happiness has now been replaced by the pursuit of money. Money and happiness are considered analogous in our present society, but they actually are not so. In this mindless pursuit of money, nobody has time now to appreciate the beauty of life, which consists not of multi-billion dollar skyscrapers, but a simple act of kindness to someone at the time of need.

So, there is an urgent need to stop for a moment and think about where we are actually heading- is it development or is it destruction? Do we have to wait until people have grown so much apart from each other that we cannot see the suffering of our own species due to our mindless greed, or can we still mend our ways?

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8 = 8)

(i) Give one point of evidence from the text that proves that it is like one side of the coin to say that life has changed owing to science.
Answer:
Different aspects of life have changed due to science. For example, values such as empathy and concern for our fellow human beings are gradually being eroded. So, it is only one side of the coin to say that life has changed owing to science.

(ii) State any one advantage of the internet mentioned in lines 8-10 in the passage.
Answer:
The Internet has enabled access to information and knowledge very easily.

(iii) What will be the consequence of our actions if we do not change our ways?
Answer:
If we do not change our ways, human beings will not feel each other’s suffering.

(iv) How does the internet hamper the holistic growth of a child?
Answer:
Because of excess use of technology, children miss childhood experiences like outdoor games. These activities develop traits such as teamwork and discipline at an early age. This hampers the holistic growth of the child.

(v) Rewrite the sentence replacing the underlined words with a word or phrase from lines 30 to 35 in the passage.

The relationship between a teacher and a student is similar in essence to that of a afatlter and a child.
Answer:
The relationship between a teacher and a student is analogous to that of a father and a child.

(vi) Why has the writer used the word ‘holistic’ to describe the benefits of outdoor play?
Answer:
Holistic means complete or whole. Outdoor games are enjoyable and also teach lessons in teamwork and discipline. They also provide physical exercise. As such, they are holistic.

(vii) Use a suitable phrase from lines 40-45 of the passage to complete this sentence.

The thief decided to after he listened to the sage’s advice on the fickleness of life.
Answer:
The thief decided to mend his ways after he listened to the sage’s advice on the fickleness of life.

(viii) True happiness lies in simple acts of kindness. What acts of kindness are expected from a school-going child?
Answer:
School-going children should be caring and kind. They should avoid being rude to others and help weak students in their studies. They should help old people and little children as much as they can.

(ix) What should be the basic goal of one’s life?
Answer:
The basic goal of one’s life is the pursuit of happiness.

Question 2.
Read the following passage. (5)

(1) Humour is infectious. The sound of roaring laughter is far more contagious than any cough, sniffle, or sneeze. When laughter is shared, it binds people together and increases happiness and intimacy. Best of all, this priceless medicine is fun, free, and easy to use.

(2) The ability to laugh, play, and have fun with others not only makes life more enjoyable but also helps you to solve problems. People who incorporate humour and play into their daily lives find that it renews them and all of their relationships.

(3) Life brings challenges that can either get the best of you or become playthings for your imagination. When you “become the problem” and take yourself too seriously, it can be hard to think out of the box and find new solutions. But when you play with the problem, you can often transform it into an opportunity for creative learning.

(4) Playing with problems seems to come naturally to children. When they are confused or afraid, they convert their problems into a game, giving them a sense of control and an opportunity to experiment with new solutions. Interacting with others in playful ways helps you retain this creative ability.

(5) As laughter, humour, and play become an integral part of your life, your creativity will flourish and new discoveries will occur to you daily. Humour takes you to a higher place where you can view the world from a more relaxed, positive, creative, joyful, and balanced perspective.

(A) On the basis of your reading the passage, make notes using recognisable abbreviations wherever necessary. Use a format you consider suitable, supply a suitable title. (3)
Answer:
(A) Laughter- A Priceless Medicine
1. Physical changes in body:
1.1. strengthens immne system
1.2. boosts energy , .
1.3. dimnshs pain
1.4. protects from stress.

2. Benefits of laughter.
2.1. makes life more enjyble
2.2. helps solve problems
2.3. connects with others

3. Laughter – An Integral Part of life
3.1. makes one creative
3.2. helps to balance prspctive
3.3. makes one more relaxed & positive

Key to Abbreviations
S.No.	Abbreviation	Word
1.	immne	immune
2.	dimnshs	diminishes
3.	enjyble	enjoyable
4.	prspetive	perspective
5.	&	and

(B) Make a short summary of the passage in about 50 words. (2)
Answer:
SUMMARY
Laughter is free, yet a priceless medicine. It makes the body healthy. Humour helps build better relationships. Problems are best solved by developing a child-like attitude of playing with them rather than brooding over them. Laughter should be an integral part of life to make it relaxed, positive and balanced.

Section – B
Writing and Grammar (12 Marks)

Question 3.
As President of the Residents Welfare Association of Mayur Colony, Delhi, design a poster in not more than 50 words for promoting cleanliness in the surroundings of your colony. (3)
Answer:
Commonly Made Error
Students tend to add unnecessary details to meet the word limit.

Answering Tip
Relevant details should be added. It should be such that the poster conveys the idea clearly.

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from (A) and (B) given below.
(A) You are Meena Saxena of Kanpur. You have come across an advertisement of a coaching centre that prepares students for Pre Medical tests. Write a letter to the Director of the institute asking for information that you require before you decide to join it. (5)

Sky-High Institute Excellent Coaching Centre 25, High Street, Kanpur Are You Aspiring To Be A Doctor? We Are Here To Help You! Batches Starting From February Register Now! Contact: Tel: 23417689

Answer:

Note: No marks are to be awarded if only the format is given. Credit should be given for the candidate’s creativity in the presentation of ideas. Format – 01 Mark Sender’s address Date Receiver’s address Subject/heading Salutations Content – 03 Marks Expression – 02 Marks Letter to The Director, Sky-High Institute – Intent of writing the letter – Enquiry about the courses

7 Greater Colony,
Kanpur
21st January, 20XX
The Director
Sky-High Institute
25, High Street
Kanpur

Subject: Enquiry Regarding Coaching Classes.

Sir,
This is with reference to your advertisement in “The Daily Times’ dated 18th January, 20XX. I am a student of Class XII and am preparing for pre-medical test. I am interested in joining your esteemed institute, but before I do so, I would like to have the following information.

I would like to know the duration and the timings of the course. What is the fee structure and the mode of payment? I would also like to know the strength of each batch and the success rate of your institute. Do you offer any discount to students who have excelled in academics?

I would be grateful if you could give me a prompt response so that I can take timely decision to join your institute.

Thanking you

Yours sincerely,
Meena Saxena

(B) “Private cars should be banned in the congested commercial areas of the cities.” Write a debate in 120-150 words either for or against the motion. (5)
Answer:

Private Cars should be banned

Respected Judges and teachers,
Today, I stand before you to present my views for the motion on the topic, ‘Private cars should be banned in the congested commercial areas of the cities’. There is no end to the number of vehicles being driven around the city each day. Traffic jams have become a rather common problem and have only increased in the last ten years.

In my opinion, allowing private cars in congested commercial areas only adds to the problem. Long traffic jams do not only mean consumption of extra fuel but also more number of people suffering from respiratory diseases due to pollution. I strongly feel if people take public transport to work or hire a cab or car-pool and drive vehicles which run on CNG, the problem of constantly rising pollution and heavy traffic jams can be reduced drastically.

The Earth belongs to all of us and it is our duty to safeguard it and keep it clean for our future generations. Thus, first step towards protecting our environment would be to stop abusing the available amount of petroleum and avoid creating pollution.

Thank you for listening to my views patiently.

Question 5.
A. Complete the following sentences with an appropriate word. (1 x 4 = 4)
(i) Take as ____________ stamps as you need.
(ii) I ____________ (be) to the doctor. (Fill in the blank using the present perfect tense.)
Answer:
(i) many
Explanation: Since ‘stamps’ are countable, many will be used.

(ii) I have been to the doctor.
Explanation: In Present Perfect Tense has been have been is used. Here the subject is T. So, ‘have been1 will be used.

B. Rearrange the given words to make meaningful sentences,
(i) had/winning a medal/he/my/I told him/until/about
(ii) on/my bicycle/to/go/I used to/my school
Answer:

• He had not known about my winning a medal until I told him.
• I used to go to my school on my bicycle.

Section C
Literature (15 Marks)

Question 6.
Answer the following questions within 30-40 words each. (2 x 3 = 6)
(i) How can overfishing and decimation of forests prove harmful?
(ii) How does the rain justify its claim: ‘I am the Poem of Earth’?
(iii) What according to the poem, ’Childhood’, is involved in the process of growing up?
Answer:
(i) Overfishing may lead to stripping of fisheries. Then man will lose a rich source of protein. The decimation of forests will harm ecology. Moreover, several species of life that live in forest will face extinction.

(ii) The poem ‘The Voice of the Rain/describes the cycle of rain. It shows how the rain rises out of the sea and is transformed into rain drops in the heavens. Thus, it is the poem of the earth.

(iii) According to the poem, ‘Childhood’, the loss of childhood is involved in the process of growing up. This loss is compensated by some gains which come with adolescence.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions within 70-80 words each. (3 x 3 = 9)
(i) Who was Joe Morgan? Why had he been waiting for Dr. Andrew Manson?
OR
How did Einstein’s medical certificate prove useless?
(ii) Mothers should be respected not ignored. Examine the problem confronted by Mrs. Pearson under the light of this statement. Who helps her solve this problem and how?
(iii) Give a brief account of the author’s visit to the medical college at Darchen and the effect of the Tibetan medicines on him.
Answer:
(i) Joe Morgan was a driller in Blaenelly, a mining town. He was a big, strong and heavy middle-aged person. Joe and his wife Susan, who had been married for nearly twenty years and were expecting their first child. Joe was waiting for the doctor to help Susan in the delivery of the child.
OR
Einstein managed to get a medical certificate with the help of Yuri but before he could submit it to the head teacher, he was called by the teacher and was expelled from the school. The school authorities were of the opinion that he was turning rebellious. So the medical certificate proved useless.

(ii) Mrs. Pearson’s problem is that she is neglected by her husband and children. She is very fond of her family. She runs after them all the time, takes their orders as if she is their servant. She stays at home every night while they go out enjoying themselves. She takes no holiday.

They have come to believe that she is there simply to look after them and wait for them. So they take, no notice of her. Her neighbour, Mrs. Fitzgerald, helps her solve this problem. She advises Mrs. Pearson to assert her rights as the mistress of the house if she wants them to treat her properly.

(iii) At first, the author was impressed neither by the building of the medical college nor the Tibetan doctor. The building looked like a monastery and the doctor himself appeared like any other Tibetan in a thick-pullover and wooly hat. He had no white coat.

The author, then, explained his sleepless symptoms and sudden aversion to lying down. The Tibetan doctor diagnosed his illness as a cold and effect of the altitude. So, he gave him a five-day course of Tibetan medicines in fifteen screws of paper.

The medicines, which appeared to be quite ineffective, worked wonders and only after his first full day’s course, the author was able to sleep soundly at night. He woke up quite fresh the next day and recovered completely after the five-day course.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Standard Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• There are 12 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
• This question paper has three sections: Section A, Section B, and Section C.
• Section A contains three questions of two marks each, Section B contains eight questions of three marks each, Section C contains one case study-based question of five marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question of two marks and two questions of three marks. You have to attempt only one of the chokes in such questions.
• You may use log tables if necessary but use of calculator is not allowed.

 SECTION – A
(Section A contains 3 questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
How is a p-type semiconductor formed? Draw energy band of p-type semiconductors and name the majority charge carriers in it. (2)
Answer:
1. If trivalent impurity atoms of B, Al, or In are doped in a pure semiconductor of Silicon or Germanium, we get a p-type semiconductor. Holes are the majority charge carriers in a p-type semiconductor. The diagram of energy band of p-type semiconductors is given below.

Related Theory
There are two types of dopants used for doping the tetravaLent Silicon or Germanium.
1. Pentavalent dopants which have five valence electrons like Arsenic, Antimony, and Phosphorus.
2. Trivalent dopants have three valence electrons like Indium, Boron, and Aluminium.

Question 2.
Photons, with a continuous range of frequencies, are made to pass through a sample of rarefied hydrogen.
Transitions of electrons are shown in figure:

(A) Identify the spectral series, of the hydrogen emission spectrum corresponding to these lines.
(B) Which of these lines corresponding to absorption of radiation of maximum wavelength?
OR
Plot a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with the frequency of incident radiation for two different photosensitive materials having work functions W₂ and W₂ (W₁ > W₂).
On what factors does the (i) slope and (ii) intercept of the lines depend? (2)
Answer:
(A) Transition I → Lyman series
Transition II → Balmer series
Transition III → Paschen series of spectral absorption lines in the continuous spectrum.

(B) Energy of electron in hydrogen atom
E_n = \(-\frac{13.6}{n^{2}}\) eV
E₁ = -13.6 eV
E₂ = – 3. 4 eV and similarly we can find E₃, E₄, ……………..
For transition III energy absorbed is:
ΔE = E₄ – E₃ = 0.66 eV

which is least out of three transitions. Transition III corresponds to the absorption of radiation of maximum wavelength.
OR
The graph of stopping potential Vs and frequency (v) for two metals 1 and 2 is shown in fig.

(A) Slope of graph tan θ= \(\frac{h}{e}\) and depends on h and e.
(B) Intersect of lines depend on the work function.

Question 3.
Distinguish between the metals and insulators on the basis of energy band theory. Why does a diamond behave as an insulator? (2)
Answer:
For metals, the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band have the possibilities,
either it is partially filled within extremely small energy gap between valence band and conduction band or it is empty, with two bands overlapping each other.

For insulators, the energy gap between the conduction and valence band are very large, also the conduction band is partially empty. When an electric field is applied across such a solid, the electrons find it difficult to acquire sufficient energy to jump to conduction band. There is a Large forbidden band of 6eV in diamond. It is difficult to excite the electrons from valence band to the conduction band. Due to the absence of free charges, diamond behaves as an insulator.

SECTION – B
(Section B consists of 8 questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 4.
(A) State Bohr’s postuLate to define stable orbits in hydrogen atoms. How does Louis de BrogUe’s hypothesis explain the stability of these orbits?
(B) A hydrogen atom initially in the ground state absorbs a photon which excites it to the n = 4 LeveL Estimate the frequency of the photon. (3)
Answer:
(A) Bohr’s postulate for stable orbits in hydrogen atom: An electron can revolve only in those circular orbits in which its angular momentum is an integral multiple of \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\). where h is Planck’s constant.

If n is the principal quantum number of orbit, then an electron can revolve only in a certain orbits of definite radii. These are called stable orbits. Louis de Broglie’s explanation of stabiLity of orbits:

According to de Broglie. orbiting electron around the nucleus is associated with a stationary wave. Electron wave is a circular standing wave. Since destructive interference will occur if the standing wave does not close upon itself only those Louis de Brog lie waves exist for which the circumference of circular orbit Contains a whole number of wavelengths i.e., for orbit circumference of nth orbit as 2nπr_n
2πr_n = nλ
2πr_n = n \(\left(\frac{h}{m v}\right)\)
mvr_n = n \(\left(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\right)\)
which is the quantum condition proposed by Bohr.

(B) In ground state, n = 1
In excited state, n = 4
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}=R\left[\frac{1}{(1)^{2}}-\frac{1}{(4)^{2}}\right]\) where R is Rydberg constant
\(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) = 1.097 x 10⁷ x \(\frac{15}{16}\)
= 1.028 x 10⁷ m^-1
Frequency, v = \(\frac{c}{\lambda}\) = 3 x 10⁸ x 1.028 x 10⁷
= 3.09 x 10¹⁵ Hz.

Question 5.
(A) When p-n junction Is said to be reverse-biased, what will be the direction of flow of majority charge carriers?
(B) Which semiconductors are preferred to make LED and why?
(C) Give two advantages of using LED. (3)
Answer:
(A) A p-n junctión ¡s set to be reverse biased when its p-region is maintained at lower potential with respect to its n-region. i.e, p-end is connected with negative terminal, and n-end is connected with positive terminal In a reverse-biased p-n junction.
majority charge carriers move away from the junction.
(B) MateriaLs Like gaLLium phosphide (Gap) Gallium arsenide (GaAs), etc., are used.
They emit the maximum amount of energy in form of tight radiation.
(C) The following are the advantages of LEDs:
(i) They are operational at two voltages.
(ii) They are quick in action and their power consumption is Low.

Question 6.
What is meant by the size of nucleus? A nucleus of mass number 225 splits into two fresh nucLei having radius R = 1.1 x 10^-15 A^1/3 m, find the radii of the new nuclei formed. (3)
Answer:
The extremely small central core of the atom in which whole of the positive charge and practically the entire mass is confined is known as nucleus. Different nuclei differ in size. The radius of nuclei is directly proportional to A^1/3.
where A is its mass number.
Here A = 225, R = 1.1 x 10^-15 A^1/3 m
Let A₁ and A₂ be the respective mass number of two new nuclei formed.
A₁= \(\frac{3}{(3+2)}\) A
= \(\frac{3}{5}\) x 225
= 135
And,
A₂ = \(\frac{3}{(3+2)}\) A
=\(\frac{2}{5}\) x 225 = 90

R₁= 1.1 x 10^-15 A^1/3
= 1.1 x 10^-15 x 135^1/3
= 5.643 x 10^-15 m

R₂ = 1.1 x 10^-15 A^1/3
= 1.1 x 10^-15 x 90^1/3
= 4.93 x 10^-15 m.

Question 7.
State Huygens’ principLe. Using this principle draw a diagram to show how a plane wavefront incident at the interface of the two media gets refracted when It propagates from a rarer to a denser medium. Hence, verify Snell’s Law of refraction. (3)
Answer:
(A) Huygens’ Principle:
(i) Each point on the primary wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets, transferring out a disturbance in all directions in the same way as the original source of Light does.
(ii) The new position of the wavefront at any instant is the envelope of the secondary wavelets at that instant.

(B) Refraction on the basis of wave theory:
(i) Consider any point Q on the incident wavefront
(ii) Suppose when disturbance from point P on incident wavefront reaches point P’ on the refracted wavefront, the disturbance from point Q reaches Q’ on the refracting surface XY.

(iii) Since P’A’ represents the refracted wavefront, the time taken by light to travel from o point on incident wavefront to the corresponding point on refracted wavefront should always be the same. Now, time taken by Light to go from Q to Q will be

t = \(\frac{Q K}{c}+\frac{Q K}{v}\) ………………………… (i)

In right-angled ΔAQK,
∠QAK = i
∴ QK=AK sin i …………………………………. (ii)
In right-angled ΔP’Q’K.
∠Q’P’K = r
and Q’K = KP’ sin r …………………………. (iii)
Substituting (ii) and (iii) in equation (i).

The rays from different points on the incident wave front will take the same time to reach the corresponding points on the refracted wave front i.e., given equation (iv) is independent of AK. It will happen so. if
\(\frac{\sin i}{c}-\frac{\sin r}{v}\) = 0
⇒ \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{c}{v}\)
⇒ n = \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\)
This is the Snells low for refraction of light.

Retated Theory
Wave theory explained Lows of reflection and refraction both.

Question 8.
Draw a labelled ray diagram of an astronomical telescope in the near-point adjustment position. A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an objective Lens of Focal Length 15 m and an eyepiece of focal length 1.0 cm. If this telescope is used to view the Moon, find the diameter of the image of the Moon formed by the objective lens.
The diameter of the Moon is 3.48 x 10⁶ m and the radius of lunar orbit is 3.8 x 10⁶ m.
OR
ExpLain the refraction of Light through a glass-slab with a neat ray diagram. (3)
Answer:
Astronomical teLescope in near points adjustment

Here, f₀ = 15 m,
f_e=1 cm = 0.1 m
Diameter of moon,
d = 3.48 x 10⁶ m

Radius of lunar orbit
μ₀ = 3.8 x 10⁸ m
size of the image of moon I = ?
The angle subtended by the moon at the objective lens,
α = \(\frac{d}{\left|\mu_{0}\right|}\) ………………………….. (i)
And the angle subtended by the image of the moon at the objective lens,
β = \(\frac{I}{f_{0}}\) ……………………… (ii)

Both these angles in equations (i) and (ii) wift be equal.
∴ \(\frac{d}{\left|\mu_{0}\right|}=\frac{1}{f_{0}}\)
⇒ I = \(\frac{d \times f_{0}}{\left|\mu_{0}\right|}\)
= \(\frac{3.48 \times 10^{6} \times 15}{3.8 \times 10^{8}}\) m
= 13.73 x 10^-2 m
= 13.73 cm.
OR

On entering into the glass medium-light ray bends towards the normal that is tight ray gets refracted on entering the gLass medium. After getting refracted this ray now travels through the glass slab and comes Out of the glass slab by refraction from the other interface boundary. Since ray goes from glass medium to air it again gets refracted and bends away from normal.

The incident ray and the emergent ray are parallel to each other. i₁ is the angLe of incidence, r₁ is the angLe of
refraction and r₂ is the angle of emergence. The angle of incidence and angle of emergence are equal as emergent ray and incident ray are parallel to each other. When a Lightray is incident normally to the interface of two media then there is no bending of tight ray and it goes straight through the medium.

Question 9.
In the study of a photoeLectric effect the graph between the stopping potential V and frequency y of the incident radiation on two different metals P and Q is shown below:
(A) Which one of the two metals has higher threshold frequency?
(B) Determine the work function of the metal which has greater value.
(C) Find the maximum kinetic energy of electron emitted by light of frequency 8 x 10¹⁴ Hz for this metal. (3)
Answer:
(A) Q has higher threshoLd frequency.
(B) Work function of Q
Φ_o = hv₀
hv0 = (6.6 x 10^-34) x \(\frac{6 \times 10^{14}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) eV
= 2.5 eV

(C) K_max = h(v – v₀)
= \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34}\left(8 \times 10^{14}-6 \times 10^{14}\right)}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}} \mathrm{eV}\)
= \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 2 \times 10^{14}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}} \mathrm{eV}\)
K_max=0.83eV.

Question 10.
(A) Monochromatic Light of wavelength 589 nm is incident from air on a water surface. If μ for water is 1.33, find the wavelength, frequency, and speed of the refracted light.
(B) A doubLe convex lens is made of a glass of refractive index 1.55, with both faces of the same radius of curvature.
Find the radius of curvature required, if the focal length is 20 cm. (3)
Answer:
(A) Given: m= 1.33
λ_a= 589 nm
We know that,
μ = \(\frac{C}{V}\)
v = \(\frac{c}{\mu}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{1.33}\)
Speed, v = 2.26 x 10⁸ m/s

Frequency remains same.
∴ v = \(\frac{c}{\lambda_{a}}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{589 \times 10^{-9}} \)
Frequency, v = 5.09 x 10¹⁴ Hz
Wavelength.
λ_w = \(\frac{\lambda_{a}}{\mu} \)
= \(\frac{589 n m}{1.33}\)
= 442.8 nm

(B) Given: μ= 1.55.
20 cm
We know that,

R = 20 x 0.55 x 2
R= 22 cm.

Question 11.
Which constituent radiation of the electromagnetic spectrum is used
(A) in radar
(B) to photograph internal part of a human body, and
(C) for taking photographs of the sky during night and foggy conditions?
Give one reason for your answer in each case.
OR
(A) When a convex Lens of Focal Length 30 cm is in contact with concave tens of focal length 20 cm, find out if the system is converging or diverging.
(B) Obtain the expression for the angle of incidence of a ray of light which is incident on the face of a prism of
refracting angle A so that it suffers total internal reflection at the other face. (Given the refractive index of the glass of the prism is μ.)
Answer:
(A) Microwaves are used .in the operation of radar because microwaves have small wavelengths and are not bent by objects coming in its path. Due to it, these waves can be sent in a particular direction as a beam signal.

(B) X-rays are used to photograph internal parts of a human body because X-rays are a quite short wavelengths. They can easily pass-through flesh but not bones.
(i) Infrared rays are used for taking photographs of the sky during night and foggy conditions because these
can easily pass-through fog and dark.
OR
(A) f₁= f_convex= 30 cm
f₂ = f_concave = – 20 cm
\(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{f_{1}}+\frac{1}{f_{2}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{30}-\frac{1}{20} \)
= \(\frac{2-3}{60}\)
\(\frac{1}{f}=-\frac{1}{60}\)
[∴ concave (diverging) lens)]

(B) μ = \(\frac{\sin \left(\frac{\delta_{\min }+A}{2}\right)}{\sin \frac{A}{2}}\)
Let C is the critica angle,
sin C = \(\frac{1}{\mu}\)

r₁+r₂ = A
r₁+C = A
r₁ = A – C
μ = \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r_{1}}\)
⇒ sin i = μ sinr₁
sin i = μ sin(A-C)
i = sin^-1μ sin(A-C)

SECTION – C
(Section C consists one case study-based quote of 5 marks.)

Question 12.
If the setup of Young’s doubLe slit experiment is immersed in a liquid then the Wavelength of the Light gets changed. Since an immersion frequency remains unchanged, velocity decreases hence, waveLength decreases. Now, alt those parameters which are dependent on wave Length will be affected. If the fringe width is air in \(\frac{\lambda D}{d}\) then in Light it will be \(\frac{\lambda D}{\mu d}\) in the same way, the angular fringe width also changes and the position of cringes on-screen aIs changes. (3)

(A) In Young’s experiment when sodium Light of waveLength 5893A° is used, then 62 fringes are seen in the field of view. Instead, if violet Light of waveLength 4358A° is used, then the number of fringes that will be seen in the field of view will be:
(a) 54
(b) 64
(c) 74
(d) 84
at x = 0. The third maximum (taking the central maximum as zero maximum) will be at x equal to:
(a) 1.67 x 10^-2 m
(b) 1.5 x 10^-2 m
(c)O.5 10^-2m
(d) 5.0 10^-2 m

(C) In Young’s experiment, the ratio of maximum to minimum intensities of the fringe system is 4:1. The amplitudes of the coherent sources are in the ratio:
(a) 4:1
(b) 3:1
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:1

(D) The displacement of two Interfering Light waves are y₁ = 4sinωt and Y₂ = 3sinω \(\left(\frac{\omega t+\pi}{2}\right)\) .The ampLitude of the resultant wave is:
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 1
(d) 0
(E) In Young’s experiment, tight of waveLength 4000Å is used to produce bright fringes of width 0.6 mm, at a
dipped in a Liquid of refractive index 1.5, then the fringe width will be:
(a) 0.2 mm
(b) 0.3 mm
(c) 0.4 mm
(d) 1.2 mm (5)
Answer:
(A) (d) 84
Explanation: From Young’s double slit experiment,
λ₁ = 5893 Å
λ₂= 4359 Å
\(\frac{n_{1} \lambda_{1} D}{d}\) = \(\frac{n_{2} \lambda_{2} D}{d}\)
The above condition is total extent of fringes is constant for both wavelengths.
\(\frac{62 \times 5893 \times 10^{-10} \times \mathrm{D}}{d}=\frac{n_{2} \times 4359 \times 10^{-10} \times \mathrm{D}}{d}\)
n₂ = \(\frac{62 \times 5893}{4359}\)
= \(\frac{365366}{4359}\) = 83.8
n₂ = 84

Related Theory:
In Young’s double-slit, experiment the number of fringes ate inversely proportional to the fringe width.
(B) (b) 1.5 x 10^-2 m
Explanation: x = (n) \(\lambda \frac{\mathrm{D}}{d} \)
= 3 x 5000 x 10^-10 x \(\frac{2}{0.2 \times 10^{-3}}\)
= 1.5 x 10^-2 m = 1.5 cm

Caution:
Students are often confused about the number of slits. In Young’s double-slit experiment two slits are there.
(C) (b) 3:1

Explanation: \(\frac{I_{(m a x)}}{I_{(m i n)}}=\frac{\left(a_{1}+a_{2}\right)^{2}}{\left(a_{1}-a_{2}\right)^{2}}\)
⇒ \(\frac{4}{1}=\frac{\left(a_{1}+a_{2}\right)^{2}}{\left(a_{1}-a_{2}\right)^{2}}\)

Related Theory:
In Young’s experiment, intensity of tight is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude.
(D) (a) S
Explanation: Here,
Φ = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Amplitude of first wave = A₁ = 4
Amplitude of second wave = A₂ = 3
Resultant = \(\sqrt{\left[(4)^{2}+(3)^{2}\right]}\)
= 16 + 9 = 5cm.

(E) (c) 0.4 mm
Explanation: Fringe width.

Caution:
Students are often confused in the relation of fringe width and wavelength of Light. Here, fringe width is
directly proportional of a wavelength of Light.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This question paper contains three sections-A. B and C. Each part is compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 short answer type (SA1) questions of 2 marks each.
• Section-B has 4 short answer type (SA2) questions of 3 marks each.
• Section-C has 4 long answer type questions (LA) of 4 marks each.
• There is an Internal choice in some of the questions.
• Q14 is a case-based problem having 2 sub parts of 2 marks each.

Section – A
(Section – A has 6 short answer type (SA-1) questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 1.

Question 2.
A die is rolled. If the outcome is an odd number, what is the probability that it is a prime number? (2)

Question 3.
A line makes the same angle θ with x and z-axes. If the angle β which it makes with y-axis is such that sin²β = 3 sin²θ, then find the value of cos²θ.
OR
If the distance of the point (1,1,1) from the origin is half its distance from the plane x + y + z + k = 0, then find k. (2)

Question 4.
Write the probability distribution of the random variable “number of heads” when one coin is tossed. (2)

Question 5.
Find the vector projection of \(\vec{a}\) on \(\vec{b}\), where \(\vec{a}\) = Sj – 3k and \(\vec{b}\) = î + ĵ + k̂. (2)

Question 6.
Show that xdy – (y + 2x²) dx = 0 is a linear differential equation. (2)
Answer:
We have,
x dy – (y + 2x²) dx = 0
or \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = \(\frac{y+2 x^{2}}{x}=\frac{y}{x}+2 x\)
⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}-\frac{1}{x} y\) = 2x
This is of the type \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + P(x)y = Q(x), where P(x)
= \(\frac{1}{x}\) and Q(x) = 2x. x
∴ The given differential equation is a Linear differential equation.
Hence proved.

SECTION – B
(Section – B has 4 short answer type (SA-2) questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 7.
Evaluate \(\int \frac{1}{3 \sin x+4 \cos x}\) dx. (3)
OR

Answer:
Let I = \(\int \frac{1}{3 \sin x+4 \cos x}\) dx
Let r cos α = 3 and r sin α = 4.
Then, r² = 25, i.e., r = 5 and α = tan^-1\(\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)\)
∴ 3 sin x + 4 cos x
= 5 cos α sin x + 5 sin α cos x
= 5 sin (x + α)
Now, I = \(\int \frac{1}{5 \sin (x+\alpha)}\) dx
= \(\frac{1}{5}\) ∫cosec (x + α) dx
= \(\frac{1}{5}\) log |cosec (x + α) – cot (x + α)| + C
= \(\frac{1}{5}\) log |cosec (x + tan^-1\(\frac{4}{3}\) – cot (x + tan^-1\(\frac{4}{3}\)| + C
OR

Question 8.
Show that the points A(- 2, 3, 5), B (1, 2, 3) and C (7, 0, -1) are collinear. (3)
Answer:

Question 9.
Prove that \(\vec{a} \times(\vec{b}+\vec{c})+\vec{b} \times(\vec{c}+\vec{a})+\vec{c} \times(\vec{a}+\vec{b})\) = 0. (3)
Answer:

Question 10.
Sketch the bounded region and find the area of the region bounded by the curve y = |x – 1| and the line y = 1.
OR
Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y² = 4x, the lines x = 1 and x = 4 and the x-axis in the first quadrant. (3)
Answer:
We have, y = |x – 1|

Now, required area = ar(rect OBCD) – ar(∆OAD) – ar(∆ABC)

OR
y² = 4x represents a parabola whose vertex is at the origin, axis of symmetry is x-axis, focus on the positive direction of x-axis and it opens to the right.

SECTION – C
(Section – C has 4 long answer type questions (LA) of 4 marks each.)

Question 11.
Show that the points (î – ĵ + 3k̂) and 3 (î + ĵ + k̂)are equidistant from the plane \(\vec{r}\). (5î + 2ĵ – 7k̂) + 9 = 0 and lies on opposite side of it.
OR
Find the point(s) on the line through the points A(l, 2, 3) and B (3, 5, 9) which are at a distance of 14 units from the mid-point of AB. (4)
Answer:
Mid-point of vectors (î – ĵ + 3k̂) and (3î + 3ĵ + 3k̂)

If the vectors (î – ĵ + 3k̂) and (3î + 3ĵ + 3k̂) are equidistant and lies on opposite side of the
plane \(\vec{r}\) . (5î + 2ĵ – 7k̂)+ 9 = 0, then their mid-point must satisfy the equation of the plane.
Since, (2î + ĵ + 3k̂) . (5î + 2ĵ – 7k̂) + 9
= 10 + 2 – 21 + 9
= 0 = R.H.S.
Hence, the vectors (î – ĵ + 3k̂) and (3î + 3ĵ + 3k̂) are equidistant and lies on opposite side of the given plane.
Hence, proved.
The equation of the line AB joining A(1, 2, 3) and B(3, 5, 9) is
\(\frac{x-1}{3-1}=\frac{y-2}{5-2}=\frac{z-3}{9-3}\)
⇒ \(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-2}{3}=\frac{z-3}{6}\) = λ(say)
∴ Any point on this line is
(2λ + 1, 3λ + 2, 6λ + 3) …(i)
Since, this point is at a distance of 14 units from the mid-point of AB i.e., \(\left(2, \frac{7}{2}, 6\right)\).
∴ \(\sqrt{(2 \lambda+1-2)^{2}+\left(3 \lambda+2-\frac{7}{2}\right)^{2}+(6 \lambda+3-6)^{2}}\) [Using distance formula]
i.e., (2λ – 1)² + (3λ – \(\frac{1}{2}\))² + (6λ – 3)² = 196 [squaring both sides]
⇒ 49λ – 49λ – \(\frac{735}{4}\) = 0
or 4λ – 4λ – 15 = 0
⇒ (2λ + 3) (2λ – 5) = 0
⇒ λ = \(\frac{5}{2}\), – \(\frac{3}{2}\)
Substituting the values of λ in (i), we get the
requirec points as (6, \(\frac{19}{2}\), 18) and (- 2, –\(\frac{5}{2}\), – 6).

Question 12.
Solve the differential equation: \(\frac{d y}{d x} \sqrt{1+x+y}\) = x + y – 1 (4)
Answer:
Given differential equation is:
\(\frac{d y}{d x} \sqrt{1+x+y}\) = x + y – 1 ……. (i)
Put \(\sqrt{1+x+y}\) = z
or 1 + x + y = z²
Differentiating w.r.t x, we get
0 + 1 + \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2z\(\frac{d z}{d x}\)
Substituting these values in (i), we get

⇒ 4 – 2z = A(z – 1) + B(z + 2)
⇒ 4 – 2z = (A + B)z – A + 2B
Comparing coefficients of z and constant terms both sides, we get
A + B = – 2
and – A + 2B = 4
Solving these equations, we get
B = \(\frac{2}{3}\), A = – \(\frac{8}{3}\)
∴ \(\frac{2 z^{2}}{z^{2}+z-2}\) = 2 + \(\left(-\frac{8}{3}\right) \frac{1}{z+2}+\frac{2}{3} \frac{1}{z-1}\)
Substituting this value in (ii), we get
⇒ \(2\left\{1+\frac{1}{3(z-1)}-\frac{4}{3(z+2)}\right\}\)dz = dx
Integrating on both sides, we have

= x + C
Which is the required solution of the given differential equation.

Question 13.
Evaluate (4)

Answer:

CASE-BASED/DATA-BASED

Question 14.
There are two shops in a village market named Vijay General Store and Anand General Store. In Vijay General Store, 30 tin of pure mustard oil, 40 tin of adulterated mustard oil, while in Anand General Store, 50 tin of pure mustard oil 60 tin of adulterated mustard oil are there. Mr. Gautam wants to buy one tin of mustard oil from any store selecting at random.
Based on the above information, answer the following two questions:
(A) Find the conditional probability than an
adulterated mustard oil tin is bought, given that (i) Vijay General Store is selected at random (ii) Anand General Store is selected at random. (2)
(B) Mr. Gautam wants to know quality of mustard oil Before purchasing, he selected a store at random and then selected a tin of mustard oil at random. If the tin selected at random has adulterated oil, then find the probability that the selected tin is from Vijay General Store. (2)
Answer:
Let E₁, E₂ and A be the events defined as follows:
E₁: Selection of Vijay General Store
E₂: Selection of Anond General Store
A: Purchasing of a tin having adulterated mustard oil.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
• Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below:

There is a time when everyone has to face grief. When someone dear to oneself dies, one is left in a state in which grief and shock overcome the ordinary life. One is left in a situation when one feels there is nothing one can do. Grief and mourning are always associated with death. It also happens with other kinds of losses. It could be the loss of one’s job, loss of one’s house or the loss of a close friend.

5. The best people able to cope with these are those who come from cultures that have strict, formal and intensive mourning ritual. In India, we have diverse rituals which nowadays are being discarded. But these help in surmounting the crisis. The near and dear ones come to share the grief and apply balm with their words of solace. In a modern society, one is expected to act as if nothing has happened, but research has shown that mourning is an essential part

10. of coming to terms with loss. There comes a time when one has to give up one’s grief and rejoin the main stream of life. Mourning in itself passes through these phases. Firstly, it is in the nature of shock and disbelief. A feeling of numbness overtakes. The brain is not in a position to accept. It so happens that one expects the arrival of the lost one, thinking that nothing will change and he/she will be with the lost one. In the second phase, one realises the truth that the loss has actually happened,

15. and it was not a dream. It is then that one feels the pain. Then one recollects the old moments and the memory of guilt creeps in. Here, the affected person displays odd behaviour and has difficulty in activities like eating and sleeping. One may remain in this stage for weeks, months and sometimes years.

In the next phase, one experiences relief from pain and negative feeling. This leads to the 20. positive side. Then one feels one must make alternative arrangements or replacements. Here, one is ready to cope with the situation. One knows one cannot recover what one has lost, but is conscious of the future, accepts the loss and is ready for the alternative.

On passing through all the stages of grief, it seems that time has passed like a river under the bridge. This shows that mourning has been successful. One cannot forget the loss but one 25. comes to terms with the reality.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8)
(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the writer’s opinion of mourning being a successful step in overcoming the loss. (1)

(B) State the way the people in modern society are expected to react to a loss that is evident from lines 7-12 and provide a reason for your choice. (1)

(C) The writer says that the best people to cope with loss are the ones who ‘come from a strict mourning culture’. Why does he think so? (1)

(D) Why does the writer say that a person who loses his loved one displays odd behaviours? (1)

(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 20 – 25.
Ram panicked when his experiment didn’t go well because he didn’t have any other set-up for the competition. (1)

(F) What does the use of the phrase ‘feeling of numbness’ suggest in the context of the writer’s viewpoint of grief? (1)

(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 15-25 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

I don’t understand why Amanda is being so reckless. She needs to have ……… that no matter how hard Ms. Casey tries not to let her in the cheerleading team again. (1)

(H) Grief and mourning are always associated with death. What are the other kinds of losses other than the ones given in the passage? (1)

(I) Analyse the better way of coping with a loss – ignorance or acceptance. (1)
Answer:
(A) As per the passage, a research states that mourning is an essential part of coming to terms with loss. As there are many phases of grief and disbelief in the loss of a lost one, mourning helps pass the affected person through these phases by making him understand and accept the loss over time.

(B) The people in modern society are expected to react as if nothing has happened. I think the reason behind it is that people think ignorance or suppressing emotions might help them overcome the loss or their feeling of sorrow.

(C) As per the writer, the best people to cope with loss are the ones belonging to a strict mourning culture because mourning makes it easy for the brain to accept that the loss has actually happened. It helps a person to overcome his pain by reliving it through lamenting.

(D) The writer says that a person, who loses a loved one, displays odd behavior because it is a big emotional damage that he goes through. So, in that grieving phase, he loses his control over all activities like eating or sleeping, and it takes a lot of time for him to get back to his normal lifestyle.

(E) alternative arrangements

(F) The writer uses the phrase ‘feeling of numbness’ to express that when a person experiences a loss of his loved one, his body, mind and soul is not ready to accept it. His emotions get so disturbed that he doesn’t even feel alive for a period of time.

(G) come to terms with reality

(H) The other kinds of loses that a person may face in his life are divorces, loss of a relationship with a close one, family fued, best friend tiffs, failure in exams, poor performance in a competition, losing after several trials, etc.

(I) The better way of coping with a loss is definitely acceptance. Ignorance may work only for a few hours or days but it keeps the guilt alive always. However, once you accept the Loss, you move on forever.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below:
On August 4th, the United Nations (UN) released the secretary-general’s policy brief on the impact of COVID-19 on the world’s education system. The policy’s brief points to the fact that the closure of schools and other learning spaces have impacted 94% of the world’s student population (up to 99% in

5. low and lower-middle-income countries). It suggests that despite the delivery of lessons by radio, TV and online, and efforts of teachers and parents, many students still do not have access to education. It highlights how learners with disabilities, those from marginalised communities, displaced and refugee students,

10. and those in remote areas are at highest risk of being left behind. And it warns that the knock-on effects on child nutrition, child marriage and gender equality could be enormous.

The cumulative impact of all these on children may lead to a “generational catastrophe” that could waste human potential, undermine decades of progress, and exacerbate.

15. entrenched inequalities. This is not good news for any nation, more so for those in the low and lower-middle-income segments such as India. According to UNESCO, nearly 321 million Indian children have been at home since 2020 March-end. There is no clarity on when schools will reopen.

20. In the last few decades, especially since the enactment of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, India has seen a surge in school enrolments and infrastructure development in the primary and secondary segments. But the learning outcomes have not kept pace. The pandemic has now exacerbated this existing challenge. In addition, the extended period of closure means students don’t have access to midday meals; 25. and with parental incomes under strain, there could be a spike in drop-out rates, especially among girls.

While the focus must be now be ensuring the safety of students, teachers and staff, and putting in place protocols for school reopening, there has to be an extensive assessment of the learning loss and well-thought-out plans.

30. to bridge the learning gap, and schemes to retain students. This entails tweaking the syllabus and changing pedagogy. This forced break must also be used to align the sector to the National Education Policy (NEP), which was released last week, especially to its foundational learning goals. Last but not least, governments will have to arrange for funds.

35. required for the sector. This will be a challenge post-COVID-19, but starving the education sector of finances will be irresponsible, for it is crucial to meeting India’s development goals and creating an inclusive society.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the seven questions given below. (1 x 6)

(A) What does the researcher mean by ‘exacerbate entrenched inequalities’? (1)
(B) What grave reality does the survey on the effect of COVID on Indian school kids from school closure shows for girls? (1)
(C) With reference to fig. 1, write possible reasons about the impact on children in China due to COVID. (1)
(D) What can be concluded for the methods used by the schools for keeping up with regular studies, with reference to fig. 3?
(E) The school closures may also lead to ill child nutrition. Substantiate. (1)
(F) Why are ‘placing protocols’ recommended as a significant step on school reopening? (1)
(G) Identify a word from lines 25-35 indicating the pattern of teaching a particular academic subject. (1)
Answer:
(A) By the given phrase, the researcher means that COVID has disrupted the entire education system in the world which may worsen the already rigid inequalities that are prevalent for children, especially in low-income segment countries like India.

(B) The survey shows that the loss in parental income under the COVID strain will lead to a big drop-out rate and the nearest target for that would be girls because parents in India would prefer their sons to daughters for continuing their studies.

(C) In fig.l, it is evident that the Chinese students are the most affected school kids. This may be due to a large number of cases of virus, high number of students’ enrolments, more schools, and a high population in the nation.

(D) Clearly in fig. 3, we can see that in spite of schools taking actions like referring their entire studies over online classes, app tutorial and webinars, nothing is proving to overcome the impact on t children as the number of students affected world wide are only rising.

(E) The school closures will surely affect the child nutrition as several of the children rely upon the ‘mid-day meal’ schemes for their daily nutrition and with the closure of schools, they will have no access to it.

(F) Placing protocols is very crucial on schools reopening because we must not forget that the presence of deadly viruses is still lingering. Crowded places like schools, including little children who aren’t able to keep their own safety properly, are at a higher risk.

(G) Pedagogy

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
You are Raj Krishna Agrawal, the Principal of St. Eve Modern School. You were invited to inaugurate the local book exhibition by the community. Draft a formal reply accepting the invitation. (3)
Answer:
Mr. Raj Krishna Agrawal thanks the community people for inviting him to inaugurate the local book exhibition in the city on Sunday, the 13th of April, 20XX, at 2.00 p.m. He accepts the invitation and is honored to be the Guest of Honour for the event. He will reach the venue at 1.50 p.m. sharp.

Regards
Mr Raj Krishna Agrawal
Principal, St. Eve Modern School

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.
(A) St. Agnes School, Ahemdabad, requires two sports coaches (one male and one female). Each should be a degree holder in physical education as well as an SAI-certified coach in athletics. You have seen their advertisement and you know that you have these qualifications. Write an application in 120- 150 words along with your resume. You are Brijnesh/Uma Patel of M-42, Saras Road, Ahemdabad.
OR
(B) Your state government has banned the use of plastic bags. Your are Sonali Singh Chadda. As a reporter of The Times of India, write a report in about 120-150 words on how the ban is being ignored and what damage the indiscriminate use of plastic bags is causing to the environment, covering all the details like people still seen with poly bags, plastic clogs drains, kill wildlife, non-biodegradable, toxic, etc.
Answer:
M-42
Saras Road
Ahmedabad
30th September, 20XX
The Principal
St. Agnes School
Ahmedabad

Subject: Application for the post of sports coach.

Sir/Ma’am,
This is with reference to your advertisement in The Gujarat Times, dated 28th September, 20XX, for the post of a sports coach.

I wish to apply for the same. I have all the qualities that would suit the post best. I am a certified SAI Coach in Athletics and I hold a bachelor degree in Physical Education. I have served as a Sports Coach in Mitabai Public School, Anand for three years and then joined the AVA Academy of Coach, Ahmedabad, from where I got my SAI certification.

I will be highly thankful to you if you shortlist me for the personal interview. I am enclosing my resume for your perusal.

Yours faithfully,
Brijnesh/Uma Patel

Resume
Father’s Name : Mr Akhilesh Patel
Name : Uma Patel
Address : M-42, Saras Road, Ahmadabad
Date of Birth : 4th or March, 19XX
MaritaL Status : Unmarried
EducationaL Qualifications : BPEd from Asaram Institute, Anand SAI certification in athletics from AVA Academy of Coach, Ahmadabad
Job experience : Sports Coach in Mitabai Public School, Anand for three years
Expected salary : negotiable

Caution :
Students often write irrelevant details of the candidate in the job letters. Avoid giving any confusing details of the candidate in both the body and the bio-data in the letter. Never give different details of the candidate in the body of the letter and the bio-data.

OR

Plastics Ban Ignored, threat to Environment
keeps going on
By Sonali Singh Chadda, Staff Reporter,
The Times of India

New Delhi, 12th August, 20XX: The government has banned the production and use of plastic bags in our country. But unfortunately, nobody seems to follow the rule. Not only people are seen using a huge number of poly bags daily but are also seen discarding them in the drains uncaring about the fact that they will block the flow of drain water. Polybags are a threat to our environment. They cause pollution, kill wildlife and are responsible for using up the natural resources of the earth. They are one of the main factors that litter the landscape. If burnt, they will infuse the surrounding air with toxic fumes.

The main problem of plastic bags is that they are non-biodegradable. The decomposition of plastic takes around a thousand years, so with the plastic rubbish produced each day it is likely that this problem will never be solved. While the government works out ways to lessen the impact of polybags on the environment, the citizens of the nation should too follow the ways laid.

Caution :
Students often get confused when they do not get sufficient details in the questions about any generic topic. In these questions, it is always better to write general information. Avoid giving any factual data without a backing.

Section – C
Literature (18 marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, with in 40 words each. (2 x 5)
(A) How was the crofter ‘generous with his confidences’ when he spoke to the peddler? (2)
(B) ‘Gandhi was a visionary’. Substantiate the statement in regard with the chapter ‘Indigo’.
You may begin your answer like this: Gandhi had a great quality of sightedness…
(C) Aunt Jennifer’s hands are ‘fluttering through her wool’. Expound both the literal and metaphoric meanings of the statement. (2)
(D) Validate why is grandeur associated with the ‘mighty dead’? (2)
(E) Why does Jack insist that it was the wizard that was hit and not the mother? (2)
(F) Rationalize what clues the answer sheet of Evans provided to the Governor. (2)
Answer:
(A) The crofter was generous with his confidences with the peddler. He told the peddler that he had been a crofter but now his cow supported him. He further added that the cow would give milk for the creamery every day, and that last month, he had received thirty kronors as payment from it. The crofter didn’t even think once before telling tales to the peddler.

(B) Gandhi had a great quality of sightedness and observation in him. He was definitely a visionary who saw that the peasants of Champaran need to be free from the shackles of their fear from the British and then fight for their rights. He knew that the fear in them is greater than their desire for justice.

(C) Literally, the statement means that as Aunt Jennifer has grown old and weak, she doesn’t have enough strength to pull through the needle. Metaphorically, her nervousness and fright from her household circumstances has made it difficult for her to pull throw the needle.

(D) The mighty dead rulers had sacrificed their precious lives for the sake of their nations and others. They are often associated with ‘grandeur’ because they lived a glorious and a heroic life.

(E) Jack does not want his daughter to have a negative opinion about a mother. He wants Jo to accept that a mother can never take any wrong decision for her children. Thus, from a mother’s perspective, he justifies Mommy Skunk hitting the wizard.

(F) The answer sheet had been cleverly attached to the last page of the question paper by Evans to outwit his opponents and mislead the police. It was from his answer-sheet that the police got the clue that Evans had hit McLeery whom Evans was himself impersonating. The six figure reference was a clue to a place that landed him in the middle of Chipping Norton.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)
(A) In the poem, ‘A Thing of Beauty’, John Keats compares a beautiful thing to things like a ‘bower’ and ‘endless fountain of immortal drink’. Expound in about 120-150 words. (4)
(B) The story ‘the Rattrap’ is based on a rattrap seller who thinks the world to be nothing but a rattrap. Explain how he himself ended up being caged in the same rattrap. Examine the story in the light of this statement, in about 120-150 words. (4)
(C) The question paper and correction slip had a crucial role to play in catching Evans in the chapter ‘Evans Tries an O-level. Substantiate with reference to text, in about 120-150 words. (4)
Answer:
(A) In this poem, John Keats says that a thing of beauty provides a soothing joy to our minds and souls forever. As a man’s life is full of trials and tribulations, he faces a lot of dilemmas and gloom. The things of beauty provide a relief from those everyday dilemmas to men. The poet then compares the thing of beauty with a ‘bower’ which is a cool shady sideway near the cold crystal water streams that gives a nice soothing place to rest in scorching heats. A beautiful thing similarly soothes a man’s stressed mind.

Next, he compares a thing of beauty to ‘an endless fountain of immortal drink pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink’. He says that all these beautiful things are a gift of nature which shower endlessly and continues forever. The imprints of beautiful things are permanent on our minds. They provide an endless source of inspiration. In fact, fountain of immortal drink refers to grandeur of heroism which inspires us and gives one the courage to flight for a cause.

(B) In the story, the peddler gets a revelation that this world is a huge ‘rattrap’ for human beings. It tempts people in the form of worldly riches, joys and materials as baits. When a person tries to get it for himself, he gets trapped into it forever. But later, when he gets easy access to steal the crofter’s thirty Kroners, he does it without giving the crofter’s trust a thought.

In this way, he himself gets attracted to the bait in the form of those thirty Kroners and then gets into the trap by finally stealing the money. He runs into the wood with the stolen money in his pocket, to get out of the place in order to avoid being caught by someone for it.

Later, when he finds that he is lost and is just spinning around the forest like a maze, he realizes that he is caught in the same rattrap that he thinks people end up in. when he loses his way in the forest, with the few kroners in his pocket.

(C) Indeed, the question paper and correction ’ slip had a crucial role to play in catching Evans. In one instance, we see that the Governor received a call from the Assistant Secretary of the Examination Board saying that there was a correction slip, which was not attached to the question paper. The Secretary requested the Governor if he could read out the correction to Evans. The correction read ‘zum goldenen Lowen’.

In reality, it was not a correction but an indication informing Evans about the location he needed to reach after his escape. Later, when the Governor learned about Evans’ escape, Rev. McLeery, who was Evans in real, showed him the question paper at the back of which, instructions were given to help Evans escape. These instructions were to misguide the prison authorities.

The paper also helped the Governor at the end. By putting together the index and centre numbers, the Governor got the hint of Evans location. With the six digit reference and the help of a survey map, the Governor got the hint that Evans had escaped to a place called Chipping Norton.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 7 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 13 questions.
• This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
• 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
• 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
• 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
• This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Question 1.
Find net value added at factor cost: (₹ Lakh)
(i) Durable use producer goods with a life span of 10 gears 10
(ii) Single-use producer goods 5
(iii) Sales 20
(iv) Unsold output produced during the year 2
(v) Taxes on production 1
Answer:
NVA_FC = Sales + Unsold Output – Single use
producer goods – Depreciation – Taxes on production
= 20 + 2 – 5 – (10/10) – 1
=20 + 2 – 5 – 1 – 1
= ₹15 lakhs

Question 2.
If in an economy: Change in Initial investments (Δl) = ₹700 crores Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.2 Find the values of the following:
(A) Investment Multiplier (K)
(B) Change in final income (ΔY) (2)
OR
Estimate the change in initial investment if Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is 0.10 and change in final income is ₹15,000 crores. (2)
Answer:
K = 1/M PS
K = 1/0.2 = 5
ΔY = K(Δl)
ΔY = 5 x ₹700
= ₹3.500 crores
OR
Investment Multiplier (K) = 1/MPS
K = 1/0.10 = 10
K = ΔY/Δl
10 = ₹15.000/Δl
Δl = ₹1.500
Change in initial investment
= ₹1.500 crore

Question 3.
State whether the following statement is true or false:
“As per Keynesian theory in an economy, full employment can never exist.”
OR
State whether the following statement is true or false:

Aggregate demand curve including aggregate expenditure at different levels of income slopes downward from left to right. (2)
Answer:
True
Full employment can never exist as some people mΔY not be willing to work at all or not willing to work at the prevailing wage rate. It is known as voluntary unemployment. Thus, some natural rate or unemployment alwΔYs exists in the economy.
OR
False
Expenditure is positively related to income thus, aggregate demand curve including aggregate expenditure at different levels of income slopes upward from left to right.

Question 4.
Distinguish between ‘Green Revolution’ and ‘Golden Revolution. (2)
Answer:
Green Revolution refers to the large increase in production of food grain resulting from the use of high yield variety (FIYV) seeds of food crops (like wheat and rice) and supportive technology during mid 1960s to mid 70s. Whereas, Golden Revolution refers to the process where India has emerged as a leader in producing a variety of horticulture crops.

Question 5.
Is it necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector? Why?
OR
Since independence, the benefits of the increase in economic growth in India have trickled down to the people at the bottom of population pyramid. Defend or refute with valid reason. (2)
Answer:
Workers and enterprises in the informal sector do not get regular income; they do not have any protection or regulation from the government. Workers are dismissed without any compensation. Technology used in the informal sector enterprises is outdated; they also do not maintain any accounts. Workers of this sector live in slums and are squatters. Thus, it is necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector.
OR
The statement is refuted as there have been different factors (like massive rate of growth of population, unequal distribution of wealth, skewed benefits accruing from green revolution, etc.) due to which benefits of increase in the Gross Domestic Product have not trickled down completely to the people at the bottom of population pyramid.

Question 6.
“Some infrastructural facilities have a direct impact on production of goods and services while others give indirect support by building the social sector of the economy.” Elucidate. (3)
Answer:
Some divide infrastructure into two categories – economic and social. Infrastructure associated with energy, transportation and communication are included in the former category thus, economic infrastructure is the basic facilities which directly benefit the process of production and distribution in an economy. Those related to education, health and housing are included in the latter thus, social infrastructure gives indirect support by building the social sector of the economy.

Question 7.
“The Great Leap Forward intended to transform China from an agrarian economy to modern society.” Explain.
OR
Nations incorporate international membership and encompass geopolitical entities that operationally transcend a single nation-state? Explain why. (3)

Read the following case carefully and answer questions number 8 and 9 given below:

Budget 2021: Covid-19 brings back focus on Yoga, industry puts these demands Yoga has been part of Indian culture for thousands of years and is widely accepted around the world for its health and wellness creating aspects. The global coronavirus pandemic, caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 or SARS-CoV-2, has once again shifted focus towards this age-old practice. While in a pre-COVID era most people opted for yoga as a weight loss measure, the pandemic has made them aware of the importance of their wellness, health, and immunity for which practicing yoga is best. Boosting immunity is an essential requisite to fight against highly infectious coronavirus. Several studies have proved that dedicated pranayamas and systematic tailor-made asana practices could build up the immunity in the body that will help fight the viral infection.

Experts believe that the yoga industry is making the desired impact on the people of India and in turn, it seems to create a change in the development of individuals and also become a national interest. Shilpa Ambre – CFO, SARVA Yoga – told Financial Express Online that it is the right time to promote the industry by extending all the required support. Praising the Modi government for exceptionally brilliant work in spreading the importance of yoga in the past few years, Mita Vinay said that allocating some dedicated budget will help the yoga industry flourish at the right time and the right way. She also feels that loans at a low-interest rate will help yoga teachers start their own yogashala or studios. “Many talented teachers are not able to go all out spreading the positive effects of yoga because of the lack of the opportunity, I would like to see a low-interest loan provided to the yoga teachers who wish to open their yogashala or studio.”

https://www.financialexpress.com/budget/budget-2021-covid-19-brings-back-focus-on-yoga-industry-puts-these-demands /2156744/
Answer:
The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign initiated in 1958 aimed at industrialising the country on a massive scale. People were encouraged to set up industries in their backyards. In rural areas, communes were started. Under the Commune system, people collectively cultivated lands. In 1958, there were 26,000 communes covering almost all the farm population.
OR
Regional economic integration/groupings are one of the major tools for developing international trade activities. It focuses on the transformation of a small nationaL economy into a larger economic unit. Regional and economic groups such as SAARC, European Union, ASEAN, G-8, G-20, BRICS, etc. are formed to increase economic cooperation between neighboring nations or those with similar economic interests. The formation of grouping is considered more important in developing countries because all developing countries face competition not only from developed countries but also within themselves due to the limited economic space. In addition, co-operation with other economies in our region is also necessary, as all major economic activities in the region contribute to the overall human development of the shared environment.

Question 8.
How allocating budget to popularize yoga will impact GDP? (3)
Answer:
Government expenditure on popularizing yoga raises Gross Domestic Product because it is government’s final consumption expenditure.

It is a productive expenditure which improves the productive capacity of the economy. Yoga helps to improve the quality of the labour force by enhancing mental and physical stability of the people. This improves the production process and higher the production efficiency, higher will be the GDP growth.

Question 9.
Government should allocate budget to popularize yoga among the masses. Analyse its impact welfare of the people. (3)
Answer:
Expenditure on spreading the importance of Yoga will raise welfare of the people because yogic exercises improve health and thus, raises efficiency of the people. Several studies have proved that dedicated pranΔYamas and systematic tailor-made asana practices could build up the immunity in the body that will help fight the viral infection and increases efficiency.

Question 10.
Answer the following questions on the basis of the following data:
(A) Comment upon the population growth rates among the three countries.
(B) Which country has most skewed in sex ratio?

Source: World Development Indicators, 2015.
www.worldbankorg
Answer:
(A) The given data shows that the annual
growth rate of population is maximum in Pakistan standing at 2.1%, whereas; the same stands at a meager 0.5% in case of China (might be a direct result of the One-Child Policy adopted). The annual population growth rate of India is in the danger zone of more than 1% p.a. India will be overtaking China as the most populous country in the world in near future.

(B) Amongst the three countries stated above, India has most skewed data sex ratio (929 female per 1000 male). This is one of the major concerns for the demographers in India.

Question 11.
(A) “Domestic/household services performed by a woman may not be considered as an economic activity”. Defend or refute the given statement with valid reason.

(B) ‘Compensation to the victims of a cyclone is an example of a welfare measure taken by the government”. State with valid reason, should it be included/not included in the estimation of national income of India. (5)
Answer:
(A) The given statement is defended; as it is difficult to measure the monetary value of the services performed by a woman (homemaker). Therefore, these activities mΔY not be considered as an economic activity.

(B) Compensation given to the victims of a cyclone is an example of a social welfare measure taken by the government. However, it is not included in estimation of national income as it is a transfer pΔYment which does not lead to corresponding flow of goods and services.

Question 12.
The saving function of an economy is given as:
S = – 25 + 0.25 Y.
If the planned investment is ₹200 crores, calculate the following:
(A) Equilibrium level of income in the economy.
(B) Aggregate demand at income of ₹ 500
crores. (5)
OR
Answer the following questions based on the data given below:
(i) Planned investment = ₹100 crore
(ii) C = 50 + 0.5 Y
(A) Determine the equilibrium level of income.
(B) Calculate the saving and consumption expenditure at equilibrium level of National Income. (5)
Answer:
(A) We know that the equilibrium level of income in an economy is determined when: S = l
According to the question:
– 25 + 0.25Y = 200
0.25Y = 225
Y = ₹900 crores

(B) We know that in an economy: AD = C + l According to the question, AD at income of ₹900 crores will be;
AD = 25+(l – 0.25)Y + 200
AD = 25+0.75(500) + 200
AD = ₹600 crore
OR
(A) At equilibrium level of income, Y = C + 1
Y = (50 + 0.5Y) +100
Y – 0.5Y = 150
Y = 150/0.5 = ₹300 crores
Equilibrium level of income
= ₹300 crores

(B) S = – C + (1 – b) Y
= – 50 + (1 – 0.5) (300)
= ₹ 100 crores
Y = C + S
300 = C + 100
C = 300 – 100 = ₹ 200 crores

Question 13.
“It refers to facilities and systems that enable the functionality of a community. The lack of it places pressure on the existing systems in place. Overcrowded schools and healthcare facilities, overpopulation, and unemployment lead to an underperforming economy.”

Identify the type of infrastructure and its importance for an economy. (5)
Answer:
Social Infrastructure: Importance of Social Infrastructure for an Economy:

• It contributes to the healthy and strong growth of the new generation so that we can be more productive human resources in the future.
• Social infrastructure contributes to the growth of society as it helps in the growth of literacy.
• Social infrastructure facilitates skill-building, which is an important parameter in the context of economic growth.
• It helps to improve and provide quality health care for the people.
• Social infrastructure contributes to the building of a working economy, which goes hand in hand with a significant amount of money to create an effective system for growth and development.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Maximum Marks : 35
Time : 2 hours

Instructions

• The question paper is divided into 3 sections -A, B and C.
• Section A, consists of 7 questions (1-7). Each question carries 2 marks
• Section B, consists of 3 questions (8-10). Each question carries 3 marks.
• Section C, consists of 3 questions (11-13). Each question carries 4 marks.
• Internal choices have been given for question numbers -1, 3, 8 and 12.

Section-A
(Each question carries 2 Marks)

Question 1.
The branches of Digital Cinemas were operating without any network between them. Looking at the advancement of digital technologies, they want to implement networks in their branches . Help them understand the advantages they would enjoy with networks. Also, inform about the different types of networks that can be implemented.
Or
While studying protocols, Mr. Thakur discovered existence of VoIP . Help him to understand the protocol and also explain him the advantages of it.
Answer:
There are some advantages of computer networking, which are as follows

• It enhances communication and availability of information.
• It allows for more convenient resource sharing.
• It makes file sharing easier.
• It is highly flexible.
• It is an inexpensive system.
• It increases cost efficiency.
• It boosts storage capacity.
• It lacks independence.

Categories of networks on the basis of distance, they support

• LAN (Local Area Network) A network of computers within a small area such as : a room, a building or a campus.
• MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) A network spread across a city.
• WAN (Wide Area Network) A network spread across countries, states and continents, i.e. a larger geographical area.

OR

VoIP is an IP telephony term for a set of facilities used to manage the delivery of voice information over Internet. It enables a user to make cheap telephone calls over a broadband Internet connection, instead of using a regular telephone service.

A major advantage of VoIP is that avoids the tolls charged by ordinary telephone service. A user can make a call locally or in other parts of US or Canada, or anywhere else in the world, eliminating long distance fees by using a VoIP service.

The concept of VoIP is used in wireless LAN networks and sometimes referred to as WVoIP, VoFI, VoWi-Fi and Wi-Fi VoIP.
Advantages of VoIP

• The biggest single advantage of VoIP has over standard telephone systems is low cost.
• Using services such as true VoIP, subscribers can call one another at no cost to other party.
• Routing phone calls over existing data networks eliminate the need for separate voice and data networks.
• The ability to transmit more than one telephone call over a single broadband connection.
• VoIP consists advance telephone features, e.g. call routing, screen POP and IVR.

Question 2.
(i) Anish is a web developer and can write web pages but he is not conversant with how to host the web pages to a server. Explain him the concept of web hosting.
Answer:
Web hosting is a service that makes our site or web application accessible on the Internet. It’s also one of the most essential elements to consider when building a website. Web hosting is typically provided by web hosts, which are businesses that maintain, configure and run physical servers that house websites.

(ii) Rishita finds the word www in front of all the URLs and website addresses. She is curious about what is www? Explain her the concept.
Answer:
WWW stands for World Wide Web, which is also known as the Web. It is a collection of websites or web pages stored in web servers and connected to local computers through the Internet. These websites contain text pages, digital images, audios, videos, etc. Users can access the content of these sites from any part of the world over the Internet using their devices such as computers, laptops, cell phones, etc. The WWW, along with Internet, enables the retrieval and display of text and media to your device.

Question 3.
Some of the MySQL numeric functions are not properly understood by Niharika . Help her with an explanation and example of each of the functions given below
(i) POWER()
(ii) MOD()
OR
Write the uses of following MySQL functions with one example of each.
(i) MID()
(ii) LEFT()
Answer:
(i) POWER()/POW() function returns the power of a number.
e.g. SELECT POWERt (2, 5);

(ii) MOD() function returns the remainder of a number dividing by another number.
e.g. SELECT MOD(12, 2);

Or

(i) MID() function returns a substring of the specified length starting from the specified position.
e.g. MID( ‘HELLO’ ,3);
Output

(ii) LEFT() function returns the left most number of characters as specified,
e.g. LEFT(‘HELLO’,1);
Output

Question 4.
Rishabh, a beginner in web surfing came to know that for surfing the web a computer/ smartphone equipped with a modem, an internet connection and a web browser is required . He understands the other requirements but has less knowledge about web browsers.
Explain him the concept of web browser.
Answer:
A web browser or simply browser, is an application used to access and view websites. Common web browsers include Microsoft Edge, Internet Explorer, Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox and Apple Safari.

A web browser takes you anywhere on the Internet. It retrieves information from other parts of the web and displays it on your desktop or mobile device. The information is transferred using the HyperText Transfer Protocol, which defines how text, image and video are transmitted on the web.

Question 5.
Samadrita wants to find the outputs of the following queries using SUBSTRQ and MOD() functions. Help her to find the outputs.
(i) SELECT SUBSTR(“testcases”,-5.3);
Answer:

The SUBSTR() function extracts certain number of characters from a string . Here the function extracts characters starting from position – 5 and then 3 characters from the right.

(ii) SELECT M0D( 17.7,3);
Answer:

The MOD() function returns the remainder of division.

Question 6.
Ramesh had learnt the ORDER BY and GROUP BY clauses of SQL a few time back. Now, he is not very comfortable about the terms . Help him to recall back the differences.
Answer:

ORDER BY clause	GROUP BY clause
It is used to arrange records of a table.	It is used to group records on common values of a column.
It works on individual records.	It works on groups of records.
The attribute can be under aggregate function under ORDER BY statement.	The attribute cannot be under aggregate function under GROUP BY statement.
It has two types-Ascending and Descending.	No such variations.

Question 7.
Priya is not able to find the outputs of the following SQL queries on the Drinks table. Her manager had instructed her to find out some aggregate results based on the table. Help her in finding the outputs.

Write the output of the following SQL commands.
(i) SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT Brand) FROM Drinks;
(ii) SELECT SUM(Price) FROM Drinks WHERE Brand=“Coca – Col a” ;
Or Write the output of the following SQL commands.
(i) SELECT MAX(Price).MIN(Price) FROM Drinks;
(ii) SELECT COUNT(Price) FROM Drinks;
Answer:

Section B
(Each question carries 3 Marks)

Question 8.
Mr. Siladitya wants to find outputs of some MySQL functions, although he is well conversant with some functions, but not all and specially when working with multiple functions together. Help him in finding the outputs in the following cases.
Write the output of the following SQL commands.
(i) SELECT UCASE(LEFT(‘school ’ ,4));
(ii) SELECT C0NCAT( LEFT(‘ Happy ’ , 2), RIGHT( ‘ Days ’, 2));
(iii) SELECT M0NTH(‘2021-09-08’);
Or
(i) SELECT SUBSTR(‘Christmas’,2,4);
(ii) SELECT SUBSTR( ‘ Wi ntervacati on ’ ,-5,3);
(ii) SELECT MIDC ’SCIENTIFIC’ ,3)
Answer:

Question 9.
Ankita is writing the following queries but not getting the proper outputs. Help her in correcting the errors.

(i) SELECT MAX(Salary) Employee;
Answer:
SELECT MAX(Salary) FROM Employee;

(ii) SELECT MEAN(Salary) FROM Employee;
Answer:
SELECT AVG(Salary) FROM Employee;

(iii) SELECT L0WEST(Sal ary) FROM Employee;
Answer:
SELECT MIN(Salary) FROM Employee;

Question 10.
Vijay is not clear about how he can use the following MySQL functions, explain him the uses of the following functions.
(i) TRIM()
Answer:
TRIM() It removes any extra spaces from right and left of a string,but not from the middle,
e.g.
SELECT TRIM(‘ Zebra crossing ’);

(ii) SUBSTR()
Answer:
SUBSTR() It extracts certain number of characters from any part of a string,
e.g. SELECT SUBSTR
(‘Elephantsinafrica’ ,2,4);

Output

(iii) RIGHT()
Answer:
RIGHT() It extracts characters from right of a string.
e.g. SELECT RIGHT(‘Writersbui1ding’,5);

Output

Section-C
(Each question carries 4 Marks)

Question 11.
Akhilesh a clerical staff in a Doctor’s Dispensary. He maintains records of visiting doctors in a table Doctor. He wants to analyse some data and find some results such as total number of doctors of certain departments , average charges in some departments etc. Help him in writing proper queries to get the results.

(i) To display the maximum charges among the Ortho doctors.
Answer:
SELECT MAX(Charges) FROM Doctor WHERE Dept=“0rtho”;

(ii) To display the doctor names in uppercase along with their department names concatenated.
Answer:
SELECT CONCAT(UCASE(Dname),Dept) FROM Doctor;

(iii) To display each department and the total number of doctors in them.
Answer:
SELECT Dept,COUNT(*) FROM Doctor GROUP BY Dept;

(iv) To display each department and the average charges of each.
Answer:
SELECT Dept, AVG(Charges) FROM Doctor GROUP BY Dept;

Question 12.
Simran has prepared a table storing details of some contractual job applicants. Her colleague who left the organisation, had written some queries to generate certain outputs from the table. She was told by her manager to find the outputs of the queries, Help her in finding the outputs.

(i) SELECT Name, JoinYear FROM Applicants WHERE Gender=‘F’ AND C_ID=‘A02’ ;
(ii) SELECT MIN(JoinYear) FROM Applicants WHERE l 3ender=‘M’;
(iii) SELECT AVG(Fee) FROM Applicants WHERE C_ID= ‘A01’ OR c_: [D=‘AO 5 ’ ;
(iv) SELECT SUM(Fee), C_ID FROM Applicants GROUP BY C_ID HAVING COUNT(*)=2;

OR
(i) SELECT MAX(Fee) FROM Applicants WHERE Name LIKE “A%”;
(ii) SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT Gender) FROM Applicants;
(iii) SELECT SUM(Fee) FROM Applicants WHERE Gender=“M”;
(iv) SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Applicants;
Answer:

Question 13.
Green Valley Public School has 4 buildings in its campus . Distance between the buildings and the number of computers in each is given below

Building	Number of Computers
A	150
B	10
C	25
D	30

 

Building	Distance
A-B	10 m
A-C	1250 m
A-D	25 m
B-C	30 m
B-D	2000 m

(i) Which building is best suitable for placement of server ?
Answer:
Building A, as it has maximum number of computers.

(ii) If building A to D is to be connected, which device will be required for strong signals ?
Answer:
A repeater would be required, as signals become weak in long distances which can be amplified by a repeater.

(iii) Which building would need a switch/hub ?
Answer:
Hub/switch would be required in all the buildings as they connect multiple computers.

(iv) Which topology would you suggest for connecting computers in each building ?
Answer:
Star topology would be the best as it has multiple positive features.

CBSE Sample Papers 2022-2023 for Class 12, 11, 10, 9, 8, 7 and 6 with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 2022-2023 with Solutions

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10
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• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English (Language and Literature)
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi (Course A & B)
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 IT (Information Technology Code 402)
• CBSE Class 10 Maths Mind Maps

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 2022-2023 with Solutions

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Maths
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics
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• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies
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• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices
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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 2022-2023 with Solutions

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Maths
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physics
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• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Business Studies
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Computer Science
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Informatics Practices
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education

Class X Sample Question Paper & Marking Scheme for Exam 2022-23

Subject	Sample Question Paper	Marking Scheme
Mathematics (Basic)	SQP	MS
Mathematics (Standard)	SQP	MS
Science	SQP	MS
Social Science	SQP	MS
English (Language & Literature)	SQP	MS
Hindi A	SQP	MS
Hindi B	SQP	MS
Sanskrit	SQP	MS
Computer Application	SQP	MS
Elements of Book Keeping and Accountancy	SQP	MS
Elements of Business	SQP	MS
Home Science	SQP	MS
NCC	SQP	MS
Hindustani Music (Melodic)	SQP	MS
Hindustani Music (Percussion)	SQP	MS
Hindustani Music (Vocal)	SQP	MS
Carnatic Music-Melodic Instruments	SQP	MS
Carnatic Music-Percussion Instruments	SQP	MS
Carnatic Music-Vocal	SQP	MS
Painting	SQP	MS
Arabic	SQP	MS
Bengali	SQP	MS
Assamese	SQP	MS
Bahasa Melayu	SQP	MS
Bhutia	SQP	MS
Bodo	SQP	MS
French	SQP	MS
German	SQP	MS
Gujarati	SQP	MS
Gurung	SQP	MS
Japanese	SQP	MS
Kannada	SQP	MS
Kashmiri	SQP	MS
Lepcha	SQP	MS
Limboo	SQP	MS
Malayalam	SQP	MS
Manipuri	SQP	MS
Mizo	SQP	MS
Marathi	SQP	MS
Nepali	SQP	MS
Odia	SQP	MS
Persian	SQP	MS
Punjabi	SQP	MS
Rai Language	SQP	MS
Russian	SQP	MS
Sherpa	SQP	MS
Sindhi	SQP	MS
Spanish	SQP	MS
Tamil	SQP	MS
Tamang	SQP	MS
Tangkhul	SQP	MS
Telugu AP	SQP	MS
Telugu Telangana	SQP	MS
Thai	SQP	MS
Tibetan	SQP	MS
Urdu A	SQP	MS
Urdu B	SQP	MS

Class XII Sample Question Paper & Marking Scheme for Exam 2022-23

Subject	Sample Question Paper	Marking Scheme
Applied Mathematics	SQP	MS
Mathematics	SQP	MS
Physics	SQP	MS
Chemistry	SQP	MS
Biology	SQP	MS
English Core	SQP	MS
English Elective	SQP	MS
Hindi Elective	SQP	MS
Hindi Core	SQP	MS
Sanskrit Core	SQP	MS
Sanskrit Elective	SQP	MS
Economics	SQP	MS
Geography	SQP	MS
History	SQP	MS
Political Science	SQP	MS
Accountancy	SQP	MS
Business Studies	SQP	MS
Entrepreneurship	SQP	MS
Home Science	SQP	MS
Informatics Practices	SQP	MS
Computer Science	SQP	MS
Sociology	SQP	MS
Psychology	SQP	MS
Physical Education	SQP	MS
Arabic	SQP	MS
Assamese	SQP	MS
Bengali	SQP	MS
Bharatanatyam	SQP	MS
Bhutia	SQP	MS
Biotechnology	SQP	MS
Bodo	SQP	MS
Carnatic Melodic	SQP	MS
Carnatic Percussion	SQP	MS
Carnatic Vocal	SQP	MS
Dance Manipuri	SQP	MS
Dance Odissi	SQP	MS
Engg. Graphic	SQP	MS
French	SQP	MS
German	SQP	MS
Gujarati	SQP	MS
Hindustani Music (Melodic)	SQP	MS
Hindustani Music (Percussion)	SQP	MS
Hindustani Music (Vocal)	SQP	MS
Japanese	SQP	MS
Kannada	SQP	MS
Kashmiri	SQP	MS
Kathak	SQP	MS
Kathakali	SQP	MS
Kuchipudi	SQP	MS
Legal Studies	SQP	MS
Lepcha	SQP	MS
Limboo	SQP	MS
Malayalam	SQP	MS
Manipuri	SQP	MS
Marathi	SQP	MS
Applied Arts (Commercial Art)	SQP	MS
Mizo	SQP	MS
NCC	SQP	MS
Nepali	SQP	MS
KTPI	SQP	MS
Odia	SQP	MS
Painting	SQP	MS
Graphic	SQP	MS
Sculpture	SQP	MS
Persian	SQP	MS
Punjabi	SQP	MS
Russian	SQP	MS
Sindhi	SQP	MS
Spanish	SQP	MS
Tamil	SQP	MS
Tangkhul	SQP	MS
Telugu (AP)	SQP	MS
Telugu (Telangana)	SQP	MS
Tibetan	SQP	MS
Urdu Core	SQP	MS
Urdu Elective	SQP	MS

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 with Answers

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths (Standard & Basic)
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English (Language and Literature)
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi (Course A & B)
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 IT (Information Technology Code 402)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 with Answers

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12
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• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Home Science

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 with Answers

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Maths
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Applied Mathematics
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• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology
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• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Economics
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Business Studies
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Computer Science
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Informatics Practices
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physical Education
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Home Science

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 in Hindi Medium with Answers

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths in Hindi Medium
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science in Hindi Medium
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science in Hindi Medium

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 with Answers

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Maths
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• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 English Language and Literature
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 English Communicative
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Hindi A
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• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Sanskrit

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 2022-2023 Pdf with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 with Solutions Answers Pdf Download Term 1 & Term 2 will give students an idea about the question paper pattern, frequently asked questions, and on which topics to emphasize more in a subject. CBSE Sample Papers of Class 10th Term 1 & Term 2 will boost their confidence level, and they will feel optimistic about the board exams.

CBSE Sample Papers Class 10 2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths (Standard & Basic)
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English (Language and Literature)
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi (Course A & B)
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Computer Applications
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CBSE Sample Papers Class 10 2022 with Solutions in Hindi Medium

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths in Hindi Medium
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science in Hindi Medium
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science in Hindi Medium

Class X Sample Question Paper & Marking Scheme for Exam 2022-23

Subject	Sample Question Paper	Marking Scheme
Mathematics (Basic)	SQP	MS
Mathematics (Standard)	SQP	MS
Science	SQP	MS
Social Science	SQP	MS
English (Language & Literature)	SQP	MS
Hindi A	SQP	MS
Hindi B	SQP	MS
Sanskrit	SQP	MS
Computer Application	SQP	MS
Elements of Book Keeping and Accountancy	SQP	MS
Elements of Business	SQP	MS
Home Science	SQP	MS
NCC	SQP	MS
Hindustani Music (Melodic)	SQP	MS
Hindustani Music (Percussion)	SQP	MS
Hindustani Music (Vocal)	SQP	MS
Carnatic Music-Melodic Instruments	SQP	MS
Carnatic Music-Percussion Instruments	SQP	MS
Carnatic Music-Vocal	SQP	MS
Painting	SQP	MS
Arabic	SQP	MS
Bengali	SQP	MS
Assamese	SQP	MS
Bahasa Melayu	SQP	MS
Bhutia	SQP	MS
Bodo	SQP	MS
French	SQP	MS
German	SQP	MS
Gujarati	SQP	MS
Gurung	SQP	MS
Japanese	SQP	MS
Kannada	SQP	MS
Kashmiri	SQP	MS
Lepcha	SQP	MS
Limboo	SQP	MS
Malayalam	SQP	MS
Manipuri	SQP	MS
Mizo	SQP	MS
Marathi	SQP	MS
Nepali	SQP	MS
Odia	SQP	MS
Persian	SQP	MS
Punjabi	SQP	MS
Rai Language	SQP	MS
Russian	SQP	MS
Sherpa	SQP	MS
Sindhi	SQP	MS
Spanish	SQP	MS
Tamil	SQP	MS
Tamang	SQP	MS
Tangkhul	SQP	MS
Telugu AP	SQP	MS
Telugu Telangana	SQP	MS
Thai	SQP	MS
Tibetan	SQP	MS
Urdu A	SQP	MS
Urdu B	SQP	MS

We hope these Solved Sample Paper of Class 10 CBSE 2021 2022 Pdf with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on CBSE Class 10th Sample Papers Term 1 & Term 2 for their exam preparation.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper consists of two Parts – A and B. There are total 12 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Part – A consists of Accounting Process.
• Part – B consists of Financial Accounting and Computers in Accounts.
• Question Nos. 1 to 2 and 5 to 6 are short answer type questions – I carrying 2 Marks each.
• Question Nos. 3 and 7 to 9 are short answer type questions – II carrying 3 Marks each.
• Questions Nos. 4 and 10 to 12 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part-A (12 marks)
Accounting Process

Question 1.
Calculate the due dates of the following bills: [2]

Date of Bill	Period
(a) 29th January 2020	1 month
(b) 23rd December 2020	60 days
(c) 13th April 2020	3 months
(d) 10th January 2019	2 months

Answer:
(a) 29^th Jan + 1 months + 3 days = 3rd March 2020
(b) 23^rd Dec + 60 days + 3 days = 21st February 2021
(c) 13^th April + 3 months + 3 days = 16lhAugust 2020
(d) 10^th Jan + 2 months + 3 days = 13th March 2019

Question 2.
The following is the Trial Balance of Thakur Bros, as at 28^th February 2018:

The following transactions were recorded during the month of March 2018 :
(a) Credit purchase of goods ₹ 2,20,000
(b) Credit sales of goods ₹ 3,75,000
(c) Purchase Return ₹ 15,000
(d) Sales Return ₹ 10,000
You are required to prepare the Trial Balance as on 31^st March 2018. [2]
Answer:

Commonly Made Errors: Students tend to subtract the Sales return and Purchase Return from the Sales and purchases respectively.

Answering Tip: Students need to keep in mind the journal entries of the returns and see the accounts affected by the transactions.

Percent yield calculator is online tool that finds the percent yield for the given amount of actual yield calculator and theoretical yield.

Question 3.
On 1st October, 2014, ₹ sells goods to Y for ₹ 25,000 and draws two bills of exchange on him: the first for ? 10,000 for two months and second for ₹ 15,000 for 3 months. Y accepts and returns these bills to ₹. Both the bills are sent to the bank for collection. In due course, ₹ receives the information from the bank that the bill for ₹ 10,000 has been duly met and the other bill for ₹ 15,000 has been dishonoured. Noting charges paid on the dishonour of the second bill are ₹100. Pass Journal entries in the books of ₹. [3]
OR
A purchased goods for ₹ 15,000 from B on 1st March. 2013 and gives him two Bills. One for ₹ 10,000 at two months and other for ₹ 5000 at four months. A meet the first bill at maturity but on 25th June, 2013 he was declared insolvent and 60 paise in a rupee amount was received from him on August 20,2013. Journalise in the books of B and prepare A’s A/c. [3]
Answer:

Commonly Made Errors: On the payment of second bill, some students debit the unreceived amount to discount A/c.

Answering Tip: Since A has been declared insolvent, the amount not received from him becomes unrecoverable. Therefore, this amount is to be debited to Bad debts A/c.

Question 4.
Rectify the following errors through Journal entries and also show the wrong entries passed:
(i) An amount of ₹ 4,500 spent for the extension of machinery has been debited to Wages Account.
(ii) ₹ 150 paid as cartage for the newly purchased furniture, posted to Cartage Account.
(iii) A builder’s bill for ₹ 3,000 for erection of a small cycle shed was debited to Repairs Account.
(iv) A cheque of ₹ 1,500 received from Komal was dishonoured and had been posted to the debit side of ‘Allowance A/c’.
(v) ₹ 750 paid for the newly purchased ‘Fan’ posted to Purchase Account. (RD [5]
Answer:

Commonly Made Errors:

• Students debit the Office expenseaccount instead of furniture and fixtures A/c in the rectification entry for purchase of fan.
• Students tend to debit Bank A/c for rectifying the entry of the dishonour of cheque.

Answering Tips

• As purchase of fan is a part of office fixtures, so it will be rectified by debiting the furniture and fixtures A/c.
• When Cheque received is dishonoured, the account of the person from whom the cheque was received is debited.

Part-B (28 marks)
(Financial Accounting and Computer In Accounts)

Question 5.
Operating profit earned by M/s Arora and Sachdeva in 2013-14 was ₹ 17,00,000. Its non-operating incomes were ₹ 1,50,000 and non-operating expenses were ₹ 3,75,000. Calculate the amount of net profit earned by the firm. [2]
Answer:
Net Profit = Operating Profit + Non- operating Income – Non-operating Expenses
= ₹ 17,00,000 + ₹ 1,50,000 – ₹ 3,75,000 = ₹ 14,75,000
Net profit earned by M/S Arora and Sachdeva in 2005-06 was ₹ 14,75,000.

Question 6.
From the following information, calculate capital at the beginning: [2]

	₹
Capital at the end of the year	4,00,000
Drawings made during the year	60,000
Fresh Capital introduced during the year	1,00,000
Profit of the current year	80,000

Answer:

Question 7.
Briefly discuss the functional components of a computer system. [3]
OR
Differentiate between Manual and Computerised Accounting System.
Answer:
A computer is a combination of hardware and software resources which integrate together and provide various functionalities to the user. Hardware is the physical component of a computer like the processor, memory devices, monitor, keyboard etc. while software is the set of programs or instructions that are required by the hardware resources to function properly. There are a few basic components that aids the working-cycle of a computer i.e. the Input- Process- Output Cycle and these are called as the functional components of a computer. It needs certain input, processes that input and produces the desired output. The input unit takes the input, the central processing unit does the processing of data and the output unit produces the output. The memory unit holds the data and instructions during the processing.

OR

Question 8.
Hari maintains his books of account on single entry system. His books provide the following information:

Particulars	Jan. 1,2012 (₹)	Dec. 31,2012 (₹)
Furniture	200	200
Stock	2,800	3,050
Sundry Debtors	2,100	3,400
Cash	150	200
Sundry Creditors	1,750	1,900
Bills Receivable	—	300
Loan	—	500
Investments	—	1,000

His drawings during the year were ₹ 500.
Depredate furniture by 10% and provide a reserve forbad debts at 10% on sundry debtors. Calculate profit or loss earned by the firm. [3]
OR
Ronak, who keeps his books on Single Entry System, has his capital on 31st March, 2016, ₹ 1,20,000 and on 1st April, 2015 was ₹ 1,16,700. He further informs that during the year, he withdrew for his personal expenses ₹ 19,400. He also sold his personal investment of ₹ 1,10,000 at 5% premium and brought that money into the business. Prepare a statement of Profit or Loss. [3]
Answer:

OR

Question 9.
Give Journal Entries for the following Adjustments in final accounts assuming CGST and SGST @9% each:
(A) Salaries ₹ 5,000 are outstanding.
(B) Insurance amounting to ₹ 2,000 is paid in advance
(C) ₹ 4,000 for rent have been received in advance.
(D) Commission earned but not yet received ₹ 1,000. [3]
Answer:

Commonly Made Errors: Students calculate GST for Salaries and Prepaid Insurance and Rent.

Answering Tip: Students need to recall that GST is not levied on Salaries and GST is not accounted on Prepaid expenses.

Question 10.
The following is the statement of affairs of Avinash as on 1^st April 2014:

His position on 31^st March 2015 are:
Cash in Hand ₹ 3,000; Cash at Bank ₹ 5,000; Stock ₹ 44,000; Debtors ₹ 21,000; Fixed Assets ₹ 80,000; Creditors ₹ 22,000.
You are informed that Avinash has taken stocks worth ₹ 4,500 for his private use and that he has been regularly transferring ₹ 2,000 per month from his business banking account by way of drawings. Out of his drawings, he spent ₹ 15,000 for purchasing a scooter for the business on 1st October 2017.
You are requested to find out his profit or loss and also prepare the Statement of Affairs after considering the following:
(a) Depreciate Fixed Assets and Scooter by 10% p.a.
(b) Write Bad-debts ₹ 1,000 and provide 5% for doubtful debts on Sundry Debtors.
(c) Commission earned but not received by him was ₹ 2,500.
Answer:

Working capital:

Question 11.
The following balance was extracted from the books of M/s Panchsheel Garments on March 31st, 2014.

Prepare the trading and profit and loss account for the year ended March 31st, 2014 and a balance sheet as on that date taking into account the following information:
(i) Unexpired insurance ₹ 1,000.
(ii) Salary due but not paid 1,800.
(iii) Wages outstanding 200.
(iv) Interest on capital @ 5%.
(v) Scooter is depreciated @ 5%.
(vi) Furniture is depreciated @ 10%.
(vii) Closing stock was valued at ₹ 15,000. {5]
OR
From the following balances of M/s Nilu Sarees as on March 31,2014. Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss account and balance sheet as on date.

Stock as on March 31st, 2011 ₹ 22,000.
Answer:

Working Note:

• Calculation of Interest on capital: 5% of ₹ 50,000 = ₹ 2,500
• Calculation of Depreciation on Scooter: 5% of ₹ 8,000 = ₹ 400
• Calculation of Depreciation on Furniture: 10% of ₹ 5,200 = ₹ 520

OR

Note: The balance of suspense account has been given in the credit side of the trial balance, hence is to be transferred to the liabilities side of the balance sheet.

Question 12.
Jagdish the new accounting manager wants to install the Accounting software for accounting to help his company in making the accounts faster. His C.E.O wants him to give a presentation in the board meeting. State the advantages of using Accounting Information System, that Jagdish can use in his presentation. [5]
Answer:
The advantages of using computerized accounting software are:
1. Automation: Since all the calculations are handled by the software, computerized accounting eliminates many of the mundane and time-consuming processes associated with manual accounting. For example, once issued, invoices are processed automatically making accounting less time-consuming.

2. Accuracy: This accounting system is designed to be accurate to the minutest detail. Once the data is entered into the system, all the calculations, including additions and subtractions, are done automatically by software.

3. Data Access: Using accounting software, it becomes much easier for different individuals to access accounting data outside of the office, securely. This is particularly true if an online accounting solution is being used.

4. Reliability: Because the calculations are so accurate, the financial statements prepared by computers are highly reliable.

5. Scalable: When a company grows, the amount of accounting necessary not only increases but becomes more complex. With computerized accounting, everything is kept straight forward. because shifting through data using software is easier than shifting through a bunch of papers.

6. Speed: Using accounting software, the entire process of preparing accounts becomes faster. Further more, statements and reports can be generated instantly at the dick of a button. Managers do not have to wait for hours, even days, to lay their hands on an important report.

7. Security: The latest data can be saved and stored in off-site locations, so it is safe from natural and man-made disasters like earthquakes, fires, floods and terrorist attacks. In case of a disaster, the system can be quickly restored on other computers. This level of precaution is taken by Clever Accounting.

8. Cost-effective: Since using computerized accounting is more efficient than paper-based accounting, work will be done faster and time will be saved. When one considers, Clever Accounting, one of the latest online accounting solutions, which starts at a low monthly subscription, then computerized accounting really becomes a no-brainer.

9. Visuals: Viewing your accounts using a computer allows you to take advantage of the option to view your data in different formats. You can view data in tables and using different types of charts.