Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 2022-2023 Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 & Marking Scheme PDF Download

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 2022-2023 Pdf with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 with Solutions Answers Pdf Download Term 1 & Term 2 will give students an idea about the question paper pattern, frequently asked questions, and on which topics to emphasize more in a subject. CBSE Sample Papers of Class 10th Term 1 & Term 2 will boost their confidence level, and they will feel optimistic about the board exams.

CBSE Sample Papers Class 10 2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2

CBSE Sample Papers Class 10 2022 with Solutions in Hindi Medium

Class X Sample Question Paper & Marking Scheme for Exam 2022-23

Subject Sample Question Paper Marking Scheme
Mathematics (Basic) SQP MS
Mathematics (Standard) SQP MS
Science SQP MS
Social Science SQP MS
English (Language & Literature) SQP MS
Hindi A SQP MS
Hindi B SQP MS
Sanskrit SQP MS
Computer Application SQP MS
Elements of Book Keeping and Accountancy SQP MS
Elements of Business SQP MS
Home Science SQP MS
NCC SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Melodic) SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Percussion) SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Vocal) SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Melodic Instruments SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Percussion Instruments SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Vocal SQP MS
Painting SQP MS
Arabic SQP MS
Bengali SQP MS
Assamese SQP MS
Bahasa Melayu SQP MS
Bhutia SQP MS
Bodo SQP MS
French SQP MS
German SQP MS
Gujarati SQP MS
Gurung SQP MS
Japanese SQP MS
Kannada SQP MS
Kashmiri SQP MS
Lepcha SQP MS
Limboo SQP MS
Malayalam SQP MS
Manipuri SQP MS
Mizo SQP MS
Marathi SQP MS
Nepali SQP MS
Odia SQP MS
Persian SQP MS
Punjabi SQP MS
Rai Language SQP MS
Russian SQP MS
Sherpa SQP MS
Sindhi SQP MS
Spanish SQP MS
Tamil SQP MS
Tamang SQP MS
Tangkhul SQP MS
Telugu AP SQP MS
Telugu Telangana SQP MS
Thai SQP MS
Tibetan SQP MS
Urdu A SQP MS
Urdu B SQP MS

We hope these Solved Sample Paper of Class 10 CBSE 2021 2022 Pdf with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on CBSE Class 10th Sample Papers Term 1 & Term 2 for their exam preparation.

CBSE Sample Papers 2022-2023 for Class 12, 11, 10, 9, 8, 7 and 6 with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers 2022-2023 for Class 12, 11, 10, 9, 8, 7 and 6 with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 with Answers

Class X Sample Question Paper & Marking Scheme for Exam 2022-23

Subject Sample Question Paper Marking Scheme
Mathematics (Basic) SQP MS
Mathematics (Standard) SQP MS
Science SQP MS
Social Science SQP MS
English (Language & Literature) SQP MS
Hindi A SQP MS
Hindi B SQP MS
Sanskrit SQP MS
Computer Application SQP MS
Elements of Book Keeping and Accountancy SQP MS
Elements of Business SQP MS
Home Science SQP MS
NCC SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Melodic) SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Percussion) SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Vocal) SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Melodic Instruments SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Percussion Instruments SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Vocal SQP MS
Painting SQP MS
Arabic SQP MS
Bengali SQP MS
Assamese SQP MS
Bahasa Melayu SQP MS
Bhutia SQP MS
Bodo SQP MS
French SQP MS
German SQP MS
Gujarati SQP MS
Gurung SQP MS
Japanese SQP MS
Kannada SQP MS
Kashmiri SQP MS
Lepcha SQP MS
Limboo SQP MS
Malayalam SQP MS
Manipuri SQP MS
Mizo SQP MS
Marathi SQP MS
Nepali SQP MS
Odia SQP MS
Persian SQP MS
Punjabi SQP MS
Rai Language SQP MS
Russian SQP MS
Sherpa SQP MS
Sindhi SQP MS
Spanish SQP MS
Tamil SQP MS
Tamang SQP MS
Tangkhul SQP MS
Telugu AP SQP MS
Telugu Telangana SQP MS
Thai SQP MS
Tibetan SQP MS
Urdu A SQP MS
Urdu B SQP MS

Class XII Sample Question Paper & Marking Scheme for Exam 2022-23

Subject Sample Question Paper Marking Scheme
Applied Mathematics SQP MS
Mathematics SQP MS
Physics SQP MS
Chemistry SQP MS
Biology SQP MS
English Core SQP MS
English Elective SQP MS
Hindi Elective SQP MS
Hindi Core SQP MS
Sanskrit Core SQP MS
Sanskrit Elective SQP MS
Economics SQP MS
Geography SQP MS
History SQP MS
Political Science SQP MS
Accountancy SQP MS
Business Studies SQP MS
Entrepreneurship SQP MS
Home Science SQP MS
Informatics Practices SQP MS
Computer Science SQP MS
Sociology SQP MS
Psychology SQP MS
Physical Education SQP MS
Arabic SQP MS
Assamese SQP MS
Bengali SQP MS
Bharatanatyam SQP MS
Bhutia SQP MS
Biotechnology SQP MS
Bodo SQP MS
Carnatic Melodic SQP MS
Carnatic Percussion SQP MS
Carnatic Vocal SQP MS
Dance Manipuri SQP MS
Dance Odissi SQP MS
Engg. Graphic SQP MS
French SQP MS
German SQP MS
Gujarati SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Melodic) SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Percussion) SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Vocal) SQP MS
Japanese SQP MS
Kannada SQP MS
Kashmiri SQP MS
Kathak SQP MS
Kathakali SQP MS
Kuchipudi SQP MS
Legal Studies SQP MS
Lepcha SQP MS
Limboo SQP MS
Malayalam SQP MS
Manipuri SQP MS
Marathi SQP MS
Applied Arts (Commercial Art) SQP MS
Mizo SQP MS
NCC SQP MS
Nepali SQP MS
KTPI SQP MS
Odia SQP MS
Painting SQP MS
Graphic SQP MS
Sculpture SQP MS
Persian SQP MS
Punjabi SQP MS
Russian SQP MS
Sindhi SQP MS
Spanish SQP MS
Tamil SQP MS
Tangkhul SQP MS
Telugu (AP) SQP MS
Telugu (Telangana) SQP MS
Tibetan SQP MS
Urdu Core SQP MS
Urdu Elective SQP MS

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 in Hindi Medium with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper consists of two Parts – A and B. There are total 12 questions. All questions are compulsory.
  • Part – A consists of Accounting Process.
  • Part – B consists of Financial Accounting and Computers in Accounts.
  • Question Nos. 1 to 2 and 5 to 6 are short answer type questions – I carrying 2 Marks each.
  • Question Nos. 3 and 7 to 9 are short answer type questions – II carrying 3 Marks each.
  • Questions Nos. 4 and 10 to 12 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
  • There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part-A (12 marks)
Accounting Process

Question 1.
Calculate the due dates of the following bills: [2]

Date of Bill Period
(a) 29th January 2020 1 month
(b) 23rd December 2020 60 days
(c) 13th April 2020 3 months
(d) 10th January 2019 2 months

Answer:
(a) 29th Jan + 1 months + 3 days = 3rd March 2020
(b) 23rd Dec + 60 days + 3 days = 21st February 2021
(c) 13th April + 3 months + 3 days = 16lhAugust 2020
(d) 10th Jan + 2 months + 3 days = 13th March 2019

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 2.
The following is the Trial Balance of Thakur Bros, as at 28th February 2018:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 1
The following transactions were recorded during the month of March 2018 :
(a) Credit purchase of goods ₹ 2,20,000
(b) Credit sales of goods ₹ 3,75,000
(c) Purchase Return ₹ 15,000
(d) Sales Return ₹ 10,000
You are required to prepare the Trial Balance as on 31st March 2018. [2]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 2

Commonly Made Errors: Students tend to subtract the Sales return and Purchase Return from the Sales and purchases respectively.

Answering Tip: Students need to keep in mind the journal entries of the returns and see the accounts affected by the transactions.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Percent yield calculator is online tool that finds the percent yield for the given amount of actual yield calculator and theoretical yield.

Question 3.
On 1st October, 2014, ₹ sells goods to Y for ₹ 25,000 and draws two bills of exchange on him: the first for ? 10,000 for two months and second for ₹ 15,000 for 3 months. Y accepts and returns these bills to ₹. Both the bills are sent to the bank for collection. In due course, ₹ receives the information from the bank that the bill for ₹ 10,000 has been duly met and the other bill for ₹ 15,000 has been dishonoured. Noting charges paid on the dishonour of the second bill are ₹100. Pass Journal entries in the books of ₹. [3]
OR
A purchased goods for ₹ 15,000 from B on 1st March. 2013 and gives him two Bills. One for ₹ 10,000 at two months and other for ₹ 5000 at four months. A meet the first bill at maturity but on 25th June, 2013 he was declared insolvent and 60 paise in a rupee amount was received from him on August 20,2013. Journalise in the books of B and prepare A’s A/c. [3]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 3
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 4
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 5

Commonly Made Errors: On the payment of second bill, some students debit the unreceived amount to discount A/c.

Answering Tip: Since A has been declared insolvent, the amount not received from him becomes unrecoverable. Therefore, this amount is to be debited to Bad debts A/c.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 4.
Rectify the following errors through Journal entries and also show the wrong entries passed:
(i) An amount of ₹ 4,500 spent for the extension of machinery has been debited to Wages Account.
(ii) ₹ 150 paid as cartage for the newly purchased furniture, posted to Cartage Account.
(iii) A builder’s bill for ₹ 3,000 for erection of a small cycle shed was debited to Repairs Account.
(iv) A cheque of ₹ 1,500 received from Komal was dishonoured and had been posted to the debit side of ‘Allowance A/c’.
(v) ₹ 750 paid for the newly purchased ‘Fan’ posted to Purchase Account. (RD [5]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 6
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 7

Commonly Made Errors:

  • Students debit the Office expenseaccount instead of furniture and fixtures A/c in the rectification entry for purchase of fan.
  • Students tend to debit Bank A/c for rectifying the entry of the dishonour of cheque.

Answering Tips

  • As purchase of fan is a part of office fixtures, so it will be rectified by debiting the furniture and fixtures A/c.
  • When Cheque received is dishonoured, the account of the person from whom the cheque was received is debited.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Part-B (28 marks)
(Financial Accounting and Computer In Accounts)

Question 5.
Operating profit earned by M/s Arora and Sachdeva in 2013-14 was ₹ 17,00,000. Its non-operating incomes were ₹ 1,50,000 and non-operating expenses were ₹ 3,75,000. Calculate the amount of net profit earned by the firm. [2]
Answer:
Net Profit = Operating Profit + Non- operating Income – Non-operating Expenses
= ₹ 17,00,000 + ₹ 1,50,000 – ₹ 3,75,000 = ₹ 14,75,000
Net profit earned by M/S Arora and Sachdeva in 2005-06 was ₹ 14,75,000.

Question 6.
From the following information, calculate capital at the beginning: [2]

Capital at the end of the year 4,00,000
Drawings made during the year 60,000
Fresh Capital introduced during the year 1,00,000
Profit of the current year 80,000

Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 8

Question 7.
Briefly discuss the functional components of a computer system. [3]
OR
Differentiate between Manual and Computerised Accounting System.
Answer:
A computer is a combination of hardware and software resources which integrate together and provide various functionalities to the user. Hardware is the physical component of a computer like the processor, memory devices, monitor, keyboard etc. while software is the set of programs or instructions that are required by the hardware resources to function properly. There are a few basic components that aids the working-cycle of a computer i.e. the Input- Process- Output Cycle and these are called as the functional components of a computer. It needs certain input, processes that input and produces the desired output. The input unit takes the input, the central processing unit does the processing of data and the output unit produces the output. The memory unit holds the data and instructions during the processing.

OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 9

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 8.
Hari maintains his books of account on single entry system. His books provide the following information:

Particulars Jan. 1,2012 (₹) Dec. 31,2012 (₹)
Furniture 200 200
Stock 2,800 3,050
Sundry Debtors 2,100 3,400
Cash 150 200
Sundry Creditors 1,750 1,900
Bills Receivable 300
Loan 500
Investments 1,000

His drawings during the year were ₹ 500.
Depredate furniture by 10% and provide a reserve forbad debts at 10% on sundry debtors. Calculate profit or loss earned by the firm. [3]
OR
Ronak, who keeps his books on Single Entry System, has his capital on 31st March, 2016, ₹ 1,20,000 and on 1st April, 2015 was ₹ 1,16,700. He further informs that during the year, he withdrew for his personal expenses ₹ 19,400. He also sold his personal investment of ₹ 1,10,000 at 5% premium and brought that money into the business. Prepare a statement of Profit or Loss. [3]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 10
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 11

OR

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 12

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 9.
Give Journal Entries for the following Adjustments in final accounts assuming CGST and SGST @9% each:
(A) Salaries ₹ 5,000 are outstanding.
(B) Insurance amounting to ₹ 2,000 is paid in advance
(C) ₹ 4,000 for rent have been received in advance.
(D) Commission earned but not yet received ₹ 1,000. [3]
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 13

Commonly Made Errors: Students calculate GST for Salaries and Prepaid Insurance and Rent.

Answering Tip: Students need to recall that GST is not levied on Salaries and GST is not accounted on Prepaid expenses.

Question 10.
The following is the statement of affairs of Avinash as on 1st April 2014:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 14
His position on 31st March 2015 are:
Cash in Hand ₹ 3,000; Cash at Bank ₹ 5,000; Stock ₹ 44,000; Debtors ₹ 21,000; Fixed Assets ₹ 80,000; Creditors ₹ 22,000.
You are informed that Avinash has taken stocks worth ₹ 4,500 for his private use and that he has been regularly transferring ₹ 2,000 per month from his business banking account by way of drawings. Out of his drawings, he spent ₹ 15,000 for purchasing a scooter for the business on 1st October 2017.
You are requested to find out his profit or loss and also prepare the Statement of Affairs after considering the following:
(a) Depreciate Fixed Assets and Scooter by 10% p.a.
(b) Write Bad-debts ₹ 1,000 and provide 5% for doubtful debts on Sundry Debtors.
(c) Commission earned but not received by him was ₹ 2,500.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 15
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 16
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 17

Working capital:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 18

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 11.
The following balance was extracted from the books of M/s Panchsheel Garments on March 31st, 2014.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 19
Prepare the trading and profit and loss account for the year ended March 31st, 2014 and a balance sheet as on that date taking into account the following information:
(i) Unexpired insurance ₹ 1,000.
(ii) Salary due but not paid 1,800.
(iii) Wages outstanding 200.
(iv) Interest on capital @ 5%.
(v) Scooter is depreciated @ 5%.
(vi) Furniture is depreciated @ 10%.
(vii) Closing stock was valued at ₹ 15,000. {5]
OR
From the following balances of M/s Nilu Sarees as on March 31,2014. Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss account and balance sheet as on date.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 20
Stock as on March 31st, 2011 ₹ 22,000.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 21
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 22

Working Note:

  • Calculation of Interest on capital: 5% of ₹ 50,000 = ₹ 2,500
  • Calculation of Depreciation on Scooter: 5% of ₹ 8,000 = ₹ 400
  • Calculation of Depreciation on Furniture: 10% of ₹ 5,200 = ₹ 520

OR

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 23
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 24
Note: The balance of suspense account has been given in the credit side of the trial balance, hence is to be transferred to the liabilities side of the balance sheet.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 12.
Jagdish the new accounting manager wants to install the Accounting software for accounting to help his company in making the accounts faster. His C.E.O wants him to give a presentation in the board meeting. State the advantages of using Accounting Information System, that Jagdish can use in his presentation. [5]
Answer:
The advantages of using computerized accounting software are:
1. Automation: Since all the calculations are handled by the software, computerized accounting eliminates many of the mundane and time-consuming processes associated with manual accounting. For example, once issued, invoices are processed automatically making accounting less time-consuming.

2. Accuracy: This accounting system is designed to be accurate to the minutest detail. Once the data is entered into the system, all the calculations, including additions and subtractions, are done automatically by software.

3. Data Access: Using accounting software, it becomes much easier for different individuals to access accounting data outside of the office, securely. This is particularly true if an online accounting solution is being used.

4. Reliability: Because the calculations are so accurate, the financial statements prepared by computers are highly reliable.

5. Scalable: When a company grows, the amount of accounting necessary not only increases but becomes more complex. With computerized accounting, everything is kept straight forward. because shifting through data using software is easier than shifting through a bunch of papers.

6. Speed: Using accounting software, the entire process of preparing accounts becomes faster. Further more, statements and reports can be generated instantly at the dick of a button. Managers do not have to wait for hours, even days, to lay their hands on an important report.

7. Security: The latest data can be saved and stored in off-site locations, so it is safe from natural and man-made disasters like earthquakes, fires, floods and terrorist attacks. In case of a disaster, the system can be quickly restored on other computers. This level of precaution is taken by Clever Accounting.

8. Cost-effective: Since using computerized accounting is more efficient than paper-based accounting, work will be done faster and time will be saved. When one considers, Clever Accounting, one of the latest online accounting solutions, which starts at a low monthly subscription, then computerized accounting really becomes a no-brainer.

9. Visuals: Viewing your accounts using a computer allows you to take advantage of the option to view your data in different formats. You can view data in tables and using different types of charts.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 35

General Instructions:

  • There are 12 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
  • SECTION A – Q. No. 1 to 3 are very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
  • SECTION B – Q. No. 4 to 11 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
  • SECTION C- Q. No. 12 is case based question carrying 5 marks.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

Section – A
(Section A-Question No 1 to 3 are very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
Arrange the following in the increasing order of their property indicated (any 2):
(a) Benzoic acid, Phenol, Picric acid, Salicylic acid (pka values).
Answer:
Picric acid < salicylic acid < benzoic acid <phenol

Explanation:

  • Picric acid (2,4,6 – Trinitrophenol) – Presence of electron-withdrawing group (-NO2) increases the acidic character.
  • Salicylic acid (2-Hydroxy benzoic acid) – Stability of salicylate ion due to intramolecular H-bonding.
  • Benzoic acid (C6H5COOH) – More stability of benzoate ion due to resonance which is prominent on carboxylate ion.
  • Phenol (C6H5OH) – Stability of phenoxide ion due to resonance.

(b) Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Methyl tert butyl ketone (reactivity towards NH2OH).
Answer:
Methyl tert – butyl ketone < acetone< Acetaldehyde

Explanation:

  • More the steric hinderance, difficult is the attack of nucleophile.
  • Methyl tert-butyl ketone < Acetone < Acetaldehyde.
    (Max. steric hinderance) (Min. steric hinderance)

(c) ethanol, ethanoic acid, benzoic acid (boiling point) (2)
Answer:
ethanol

we can calculate the dilution of tube by dilution factor formula and…View the full answer.

Question 2.
Solutions of two electrolytes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are diluted. The Am of ‘B’ increases 1.5 times while that of A increases 25 times. Which of the two is a strong electrolyte? Justify your answer. Graphically show the behavior of ‘A’ and ‘B’. (2)
Answer:
B is a strong electrolyte. The molar conductivity increases slowly with dilution as there is no increase in number of ions on dilution as strong electrolytes are completely dissociated.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 1

Related Theory:
For strong electrolytes number of ions remains same at oil concentrations due to their complete dissociation. The ions become far apart from one another and their interionic forces decrease Hence, molar conductivity increases slowly with increase in dilution.

For weak electrolytes degree of dissociation increases with an increase in dilution, so molar conductivity increases maximum near-infinite dilution.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 3.
Give reasons to support the answer
(a) Presence of Alpha hydrogen in aldehydes and ketones is essential for aldol condensation.
Answer:
The alpha hydrogen atoms are acidic in nature due to presence of electron withdrawing carbonyl. group. These can be easily removed by a bose and the carbanion formed is resonance stabilized.

Explanation:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 2

(b) 3 -Hydroxy pentan-2-one shows positive Tollen’s test. (2)
Answer:
Tollen’s reagent is o weak oxidizing agent not capable of breaking the C-C bond in ketones . Thus ketones cannot be oxidized using Totlen’s reagent itseLf gets reduced to Ag.

Explanation:
3-Hydroxy pentan-2-one does not give Tollen’s test

Related Theory:
Aldehydes have a proton attached to the carbonyl carbon which can be abstracted, aUowing them to be easily oxidized to form carboxylic acids. The lack of this hydrogen, makes ketones generally inert to these oxidation conditions i.e with mild oxidizing agents Like Tollen’s reagent.

Section – B
(Section B-Question No 4 to 11 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.)

Question 4.
Account for the following:
(a) Aniline cannot be prepared by the ammonolysis of chlorobenzene under normal conditions.
(b) N-ethylethanamine boils at 329.3K and butanamine boils at 350.8K, although both are isomeric in nature.
(c) Acylation of aniline is carried out in the presence of pyridine.
OR
Convert the following:
(a) Phenol to N-phenylethanamide.
(b) Chloroethane to methanamine.
(c) Propanenitrile to ethanol. (3)
Answer:
(a) in case of chlorobenzene, the C—Cl bond is quite difficult to break as it acquires a partial double bond character due to conjugation.
So Under the normal conditions, ammonolysis of chlorobenzene does not yield aniline.

(b) Primary and secondary amines are engaged in intermolecular association due to hydrogen bonding between nitrogen of one and hydrogen of another molecule. Due to the presence of two hydrogen atoms, the intermolecular association is more in primary amines than in secondary amines as there is one hydrogen atom available for hydrogen bond formation in it

(c) During the acylation of aniline, stronger base pyridine is added. This done in order to remove the HCl so formed during the reaction and to shift the equilibrium to the right hand side.

OR

(a) Phenol into IM-pherylethanamide
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 3

(b) Chloroethane to methanamine
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 4

(c) Propanenitrile to ethanal
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 5

Related Theory:
(a) Since aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions due to resonance effect causing partial double bond character of C-X bond, so a of chiorobenzene cannot be substituted with ammonia (nucleophite).

(b) N-ethyl ethanamine CH3CH2NCH2CH3 is a secondary amine whereas butanamine (CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2) is a primary amine. Since intermolecular hydrogen bonding is more in 1° amines than those in 2° amines so boiling points of 1° amines are higher than those of2°amines.

(c) Pyridine is used to remove the side product formed in the acylation reaction i.e., HCl from the reaction mixture. Being a strong base, it acts as an acceptor for the acid by-product formed in the reaction.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 5.
Answer the following questions:
(a) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (ag) is green in colour whereas [Ni(H2O)4 (en)]2+ (aq) is blue in colour, give reason in support of your answer.
(b) Write the formula and hybridization of the following compound: tris(ethane-1,2-diamine) cobalt(III) sulphate
OR
In a coordination entity, the electronic configuration of the central metal ion is t2g3eg1
(a) Is the coordination compound a high spin or low spin complex?
(b) Draw the crystal field splitting diagram for the above complex.
Answer:
(a) The colour of coordination compound depends upon the type of ligand and d-d transition taking place.
H2O is weak field ligand, which causes small splitting, leading to the d-d transition corresponding green colour, however due to the presence of (en) which is strong field ligand , the splitting is increased . Due to the change in t2g – eg splitting the colouration of the compound changes from green to blue. :

(b) Formula of the compound is [Co(H2NCH2CH2NH2)3]2 (SO4)3
The hybridisation of the compound is: d2sp3
OR
(a) As the fourth electron enters one of the eg orbitals giving the configuration t2g3 eg1, which indicates ∆0< P hence forms high spin complex.

(b)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 6

Related Theory:
(a) The cause of the cotour of coordination compounds can be explained by Crystal Field Theory. The colours exhibited by transition- metal complexes are caused by

  • excitation of an electron from a lower-energy d orbital to a higher-energy d orbital, which is called a d-d transition,
  • The specific ligands(strong or weak) coordinated to the central metal atom.

(b) According to Valence Bond Theory (VBT), Co(en)3]2(SO4)3 forms inner orbital complex involving d2sp3 hybridization.
OR
Related Theory:
(a) According to Crystal Field Theory (CFT), given configuration t2g3 eg1 shows that splitting energy ∆o is less than pairing energy P(∆o < P) causing no pairing of electrons, so high spin complex will be formed.

Question 6.
Account for the following:
(a) Ti(IV) is more stable than Ti(II) or Ti(III).
(b) In case of transition elements, ions of the same charge in a given series show progressive decrease in radius with increasing atomic number.
(c) Zinc is a comparatively a soft metal, iron and chromium are typically hard. 3
Answer:
(a) Ti is having electronic configuration [Ar] 3d2 4s2. Ti (IV) is more stable as Ti4+ acquires nearest noble gas configuration on loss of 4 e.

(b) In the case of transition elements, ions of the same charge in a given series show progressive decrease in radius with T increasing atomic number.

As the new electron enters a d orbital each time the nuclear charge increases by unity. The shielding effect of a d electron is not that effective, hence the net electrostatic attraction between the nuclear charge and the outermost electron increases and the ionic radius decreases.

(c) Iron and Chromium are having high enthalpy of atomization due to the presence of unpaired electrons, which accounts for their hardness. However, Zinc has low enthalpy of atomization as it has no unpaired electron. Hence zinc is comparatively a soft metal.

Related Theory:
(a) By losing its four electrons of 3d2 4s2, Ti4+ attains stable configuration of the nearest noble gas with the complete octet.

Caution:
(b) Students should read the question carefully. Question is asking about the trend of ionic radii of transition metal ions and not about the trend of atomic radii of transition metal atoms because both the trends are different.

Related Theory:
(c) Zn has completely filled d-orbital, hence it cannot form metallic bonds (less enthalpy of atomization),while Cr has half filled d-orbital (3d5) and Fe has partially filled d-orbital (3d6) and can form metallic bonds (high enthalpies ofatomization). Since metallic bonds make a metal hard, Cr and Fe are hard metals and Zn is a soft metal.

Question 7.
An alkene ‘A’ (Mol. formula C5H10) on ozonolysis gives a mixture of two compounds ‘B’ and ‘C’. Compound ‘B’ gives positive Fehling’s test and also forms iodoform on treatment with I2 and NaOH. Compound ‘C’ does not give Fehling’s test but forms an iodoform. Identify the compounds A, B and C. Write the reaction for ozonolysis and formation of iodoform from B and C. (3)
Answer:
Compound A is an alkene, on ozonolysis, it will give carbonyl compounds. As both B and C have >C=0 group, B gives positive Fehling’s test so it is an aldehyde and it gives iodoform test so it has CH3C=0 group. This means the aldehyde is acetaldehyde. C does not give Fehling’s test, so it is a ketone. It gives a positive iodoform test so it is a methyl ketone means it has CH3C=0 group

Compound A (C5H10) on ozonlysis gives B (CH3CHO) + C (CH3COR) SO “C” is CH3COCH3
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 19

  • CH3CHO + 2Cu2+ + 5OH → CH3COO + Cu20 (red ppt) + 3H2O
  • CH3COCH3 + 2Cu2+ + 5OH → No reaction
  • CH3CHO + 3I3 + 3 NaOH → CHI3 (yellow ppt) + 3HI + HCOONa
  • CH3COCH3 + 3I2 + 3 NaOH → CHI3 (yellow ppt) + 3HI + CH3COONa

A = CH3CH = C(CH3)2
B = CH3CHO
C = CH3COCH3

Related Theory:
Alkenes on ozonolysis give carbonyl compounds > C = O group.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 7

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 8.
Observe the figure given below and answer the questions that follow: semi-permeable membrane
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 8
(a) Which process is represented in the figure?
Answer:
electrodialysis

Explanation:
Electrodialysis is a process by which a colloidal solution is purified under the influence of electric field.

(b) What is the application of this process?
Answer:
purification of colloidal solution.

Explanation:
During this process of purification, the colloidal solution containing ionic impurities is put in bag of parchment paper under electric field so that ions can pass through the parchment paper but colloidal solution does not.

(c) Can the same process occur without applying electric field? Why is the electric field applied? (3)
Answer:
Yes. Dialysis is a very slow process to increase its speed electric field is applied.

Explanation:
Electrodialysis is faster process than normal dialysis under the influence of electric field.

Question 9.
What happens when reactions:
(a) N-ethylethanamine reacts with benzenesulphonyl chloride.
(b) Benzylchloride is treated with ammonia followed by the reaction with Chloromethane.
(c) Aniline reacts with chloroform in the presence of alcohoLic potassium hydroxide.
OR
(a) Write the tUPAC name for the following organic compound:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 9
(b) Complete the following: (3)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 10
Answer:
(a) When N-ethylethanamine reacts with benzenesulphonyt chloride. N.N-diethylbenzenesutphonamide is formed.
(b) When benzytchloride is treated with ammonia , Benzytamine is formed which on reation with Chioromethane yields a secondary amine. N-methylbenzytamine.
(C) When aniLine reacts with chloroform in the presence of alcoholic potassium hydroxide. phenyl isocyanides or phenyt isonitrite is formed.
OR
(i) N-Ethyt-N-methytbenzenamine or N-EthyL-N-ethytaniline

(ii)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 11

Related Theory:
(a) The reaction of the benzene suiphonyl chionde (Hinsbergs reagent) with secondary amines like N-Ethylethanamine gibes a suiphonamide product (N, N-Diethylbenzenesulphonomide) that is NOT soluble ¡n alkall
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 12

(b) Benzy chloride (C6H5CH2Cl) undergoes nucleophilic substitution with ammonia (NH3) to give Benzylamine (CH5CH2NH,) which on reaction with chtorornethane (CH3Cl) undergoes alkylation to give N-methyl benzyiomine, a secondary amine.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 13

(c) Carbyl amine reaction/Ho ffmonWs carbytomines test/Isocyonide test: Aliphotic or aromatic primary amines on heating with chloroform and alcoholic KOH give foul smelting alkyt isacyariides or carbytamines. This test is not given by secondary or tertiary amines.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 14

Related Theory:
(a) It is a tertiary amine so alkyl groups attached to N atoms will be named first in their alphabetical order followed by the name of parent amine (with the largest olkyl group).

(b) Compound C and D given in the question are from the deleted portion of Chapter 13- Amines

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 10.
Represent the cell in whkh the following reaction takes place. The value of E° for the cell ¡s 1.260 V. What is the value of E?
2Al(s) + 3Cd2+(0.1M) → 3Cd(s) + 2Al3+(0.01M)
Answer:
Al(s)/Cd2+(0.1M)//Al3+(0.01M)/Cd(s)
2Al(s) + 3Cd2+(0.1M) → 3Cd(s) + 2Al3+(0.01M)

Ecell = E°cell\(\frac{-0.059}{n}\)log\(\frac{\left[\mathrm{Al}^{3+}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{Cd}^{2+}\right]^{3}}\)

Ecell = 1.26 – \(\frac{0.059}{6}\)log\(\frac{(0.01)^{2}}{(0.1)^{3}}\)
= 1.26 – \(\frac{0.059}{6}\)(-1)
= 1.26 + 0.009
= 1.269 V

Caution:
Students generally forget to put powers of stoichiometric coefficients on concentration of ions in Nernst equation so see the stoichiometric coefficients carefully and try to avoid the very common mistake.

NERNST Equation:
cell = Ecell – \(\frac{0.059}{n}\) log\(\frac{[P]^{x}}{[R]^{y}}\)

Question 11.
(a) Why are fluorides of transition metals more stable in their higher oxidation state as compared to the lower oxidation state?
(b) Which one of the following would feel attraction when placed in magnetic field: Co2+, Ag+, Ti4+, Zn2+
(c) It has been observed that first ionization energy of 5d series of transition elements are higher than that of 3d and Ad series, explain why?
OR
On the basis of the figure given below, answer the following questions:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 15
(a) Why Manganese has Lower melting point than Chromium?
(b) Why do transition metals of 3d series have Lower melting points as compared to 4d series?
(c) In the third transition series, identify and name the metal with the highest melting point. (3)
Answer:
(a) The ability of fluorine to stabilize the highest Oxidation state is attributed to the higher lattice energy or high bond enthalpy.

(b) Co2+ has three unpaired electrons so it would be paramagnetic in nature, hence Co2+ ion would be attracted to magnetic field.

(c) The transition elements of 5d series have intervening 4f orbitals. There is greater effective nuclear charge acting on outer valence electrons due to the weak shielding by 4f electrons. Hence first ionisation energy of 5d series of transition elements are higher than that of 3d and 4d series.

OR

(a) Manganese is having lower melting point as compared to chromium, as it has highest number of unpaired electrons, weak interatomic metal bonding, hence no delocalisation of electrons.

(b) There is much more frequent metal – metal bonding in compounds of the heavy transition metals i.e., 4d and 5d series, which accounts for lower melting point of 3d series.

(c) Tungsten

Related Theory:
(a) Transition metal fluorides in their higher oxidation station state forms smaller cation due to which lattice enthalpy increases and so the stability increases.

(b) Magnetic moment {μ = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\)}of Co2+ is maximum due to the presence three unpaired electrons so attracted by external magnetic field.

(c) First ionisation stionisation enthalpies of 5d elements are higher than those of 3d or 4d elements this is due to the greater effective nuclear charge acting on outer valence electrons because of weak shielding by Af electrons causing lanthanoid contraction.

OR

Related Theory:
(a) Manganese has 5 electrons in its d-orbital with half-filled stable configuration so delocalization of the electrons. Hence these electrons are not free to participate in metallic bonding. Manganese has less heat of atomization and hence its melting point is also low.

(b) The size of 4d-series transition metal elements is Consequently, the melting point of elements larger than 3d-series transition metal elements of 3d-series is lower than the elements of (atomic size increases down the group) so force 4d-series. of attraction of nucleus towards outermost electrons becomes Less. Hence the outer most valence electron is available for strong metallic bond formation so a large amount of heat energy is required to break this type of metallic bond.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Section – C
(Section C-Question No 12 is case-based question carrying 5 marks.)

Question 12.
Case Study-1
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Are there nuclear reactions going on in our bodies?
There are nuclear reactions constantly occurring in our bodies, but there are very few of them compared to the chemical reactions, and they do not affect our bodies much. All of the physical processes that take place to keep a human body running are chemical processes. Nuclear reactions can lead to chemical damage, which the body may notice and try to fix.

The nuclear reaction occurring in our bodies is radioactive decay. This is the change of a less stable nucleus to a more stable nucleus. Every atom has either a stable nucleus or an unstable nucleus, depending on how big it is and on the ratio of protons to neutrons. The ratio of neutrons to protons in a stable nucleus is thus around 1:1 for small nuclei (Z < 20). Nuclei with too many neutrons, too few neutrons, or that are simply too big are unstable. They eventually transform to a stable form through radioactive decay. Wherever there are atoms with unstable nuclei (radioactive atoms), there are nuclear reactions occurring naturally. The interesting thing is that there are small amounts of radioactive atoms everywhere: in your chair, in the ground, in the food you eat, and yes, in your body.

The most common natural radioactive isotopes in humans are carbon-14 and potassium-40. Chemically, these isotopes behave exactly like stable carbon and potassium. For this reason, the body uses carbon-14 and potassium-40 just like it does normal carbon and potassium; building them into the different parts of the cells, without knowing that they are radioactive. In time, carbon-14 atoms decay to stable nitrogen atoms and potassium-40 atoms decay to stable calcium atoms.

Chemicals in the body that relied on having a carbon-14 atom or potassium-40 atom in a certain spot will suddenly have a nitrogen or calcium atom. Such a change damages the chemical. Normally, such changes are so rare, that the body can repair the damage or filter away the damaged chemicals.

The natural occurrence of carbon-14 decay in the body is the core principle behind carbon dating. As long as a person is alive and still eating, every carbon-14 atom that decays into a nitrogen atom is replaced on average with a new carbon-14 atom. But once a person dies, he stops replacing the decaying carbon-14 atoms. Slowly the carbon-14 atoms decay to nitrogen without being replaced, so that there is less and less carbon-14 in a dead body. The rate at which carbon-14 decays is constant and follows first order kinetics. It has a half-life of nearly 6000 years, so by measuring the relative amount of carbon-14 in a bone, archeologists can calculate when the person died.

All living organisms consume carbon, so carbon dating can be used to date any living organism, and any object made from a living organism. Bones, wood, leather, and write in continuation to above line paper can be accurately dated, as long as they first existed within the last 60,000 years. This is all because of the fact that nuclear reactions naturally occur in living organisms.

(source: The textbook Chemistry: The Practical Science by Paul B. Kelter, Michael D. Mosher and Andrew Scott states)
(a) Why is Carbon -14 radioactive while Carbon -12 not? (Atomic number of Carbon: 6)
(b) Researchers have uncovered the youngest known dinosaur bone, dating around 65 million years ago. How was the age of this fossil estimated?
(c) Which are the two most common radioactive decays happening in human body?
(d) Suppose an organism has 20 g of Carbon -14 at its time of death. Approximately how much Carbon -14 remains after 10,320 years? (Given antilog 0.517 = 3.289)
OR
(d) Approximately how old is a fossil with 12g of Carbon -14 If it initially possessed 32 g of Carbon -14? (Given tog 2,867 = 0.4280) (5)
Answer:
(a) Ratio of neutrons to protons is 2.3:1 which is not the stable ratio of 1:1

(b) Age of fossils can be estimated by C-14 decay. All living organisms have C-14 which decays without being replaced back once the organism dies.

(c) Carbon-14 atoms decay to stable nitrogen atoms and potassium-40 atoms decay to stable calcium.

(d) t = \(\frac{2.303}{k}\) log\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{Co}}{\mathrm{Ct}}\right)\)
Co = 20 g Ct = ?
t = 10320 gears k = \(\frac{0.693}{6000}\) (half-Life given in passage) substituting in equation:
10320 = \(\frac{2.303}{\left(\frac{0.693}{6000}\right)}\)log\(\frac{20}{\mathrm{Ct}}\)
0.517 = Log\(\frac{20}{\mathrm{Ct}}\) antiLog (0.517) = \(\frac{20}{\mathrm{Ct}}\)
3.289 = \(\frac{20}{\mathrm{Ct}}\)
Ct = 6.17 g.
OR
t = \(\frac{2.303}{k}\)log\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{Co}}{\mathrm{Ct}}\right)\)
Co = 32g Ct = 12
t =? k = \(\frac{0.693}{6000}\) (half Life given in passage)
substituting in equation:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 16

(d) All nuclear reactions in radioactive decaj are of FIRST ORDER.
Formula used:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 17
Formula used:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 18

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Standard Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This question paper comprises two Parts – A and B. There are 12 questions in the question paper. Alt1 questions are compulsory.
  • Part-A is compulsory for all candidates.
  • Part-B has two options i.e., (i) Analysis of Financial Statements and (ii) Computerized Accounting. Students must attempt only one. of the given options.
  • There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

PART-A
(Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organisations, Partnership Firms, and Companies)

Fibonacci calculator is a simple and useful tool that can help you to calculate Fibonacci extension.

Question 1.
Following information has been provided by Fitbit Sports Academy. You are required to calculate the sports materials consumed during the year 2020-21:
Receipts and Payments Account (An Extract)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 1
Additional Information:
Sports Materials in Hand on 31st March 2020 – ₹ 11,000. (2)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 2
Alternatively, Sports Material consumed can also be calculated as
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 3
Sports Materials Consumed = Opening Stock + Purchases — Closing Stock
= ₹ 4,000 + ₹ 67,000 – ₹ 11,000
= ₹ 60,000.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

The Recursive Sequences Formula Calculator finds the equation of the sequence and also allows you to view the next terms in the sequence.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Revaluation Account and Realisation Account based on:
(A) Time of preparation
(B) Effect on accounts (2)
Answer:
Difference between Revaluation Account and Realisation Account

Basis of Difference Revaluation Account Realization Account
(A) Time of preparation A revaluation Account is prepared when there is any change in the partnership deed like admission of a partner, retirement of a partner, or death of a partner. The realization Account is prepared at the time of dissolution of a partnership firm.
(B) Effect on accounts In Revaluation Account, the assets and Liabilities accounts are revaluated not closed. In Realisation, accounts
are the assets and closed.

Question 3.
In a partnership firm, Juhi, Sakhi, Kiara, and Tiska were partners sharing profits and losses is the ratio of 3:2: 2:1. On February 1, 2021, Tiska retired from the firm and the new profit sharing ratio decided between Juhi, Sakhi and Kiara was 3/5, 1/5, and 1/5 respectively.

At the time of Tiska’s retirement, the goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹ 10,80,000. Paas the necessary journal entry in the books of the firm for the treatment of goodwill on Tiska’s retirement. Also, show working notes clearly. (2)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 4
Working Notes:
(1) Calculation of Gaining Rutio:
Old Profit sharing ratio of Juhi, Sakshi, Kiara and Tiska = 3: 2 : 2: 1
New profit sharing ratio of Juhi, Sokshi and Kiara = 3: 1: 1
Gaining Ratio = New Profit Shoring Ratio — Old Profit Shoring Ratio
Juhi Gain/Sacnfice = \(\frac{3}{5}-\frac{3}{8}=\frac{24-15}{40}=\frac{9}{40}\) (Gain)
Sakshi’s Gain/Sacrifice = \(\frac{1}{5}-\frac{2}{8}=\frac{8-10}{40}=\left(\frac{2}{40}\right)\) (Sacrifice)
Kiara s Gain/Sacrifice = \(\frac{1}{5}-\frac{2}{8}=\frac{8-10}{40}=\left(\frac{2}{40}\right)\) (Sacrifice)

(ii) CalcuLation of Share of Goodwill
Tiska’s Share of Goodwill = ₹ 10,80.000 x \(\frac{1}{8}\) = ₹ 1.35,000
As Sakshi and Kiara are also sacrificing partners, both of them wilt be compensated along with Tiska by Juhi in their sacrificing ratio.
Juhi’ Gain = ₹ 10,80.000 x \(\frac{9}{40}\) = ₹ 2,43,000
Sakshi’s Sacrifice = ₹ 10,80.000 x \(\frac{2}{40}\) = ₹ 54,000
Kiara’s Sacrifice = ₹ 10,80,000 x \(\frac{2}{40}\) = ₹ 54,000

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Question 4.
How are the following items of subscriptions shown in the Income and Expenditure Account of Picasa Club for the year ended 31st March 2020 and Balance Sheet as at 31st March 2020?

Particulars Amount (₹)
Subscriptions received during the year ended 31 March 2020 3,58,500
Subscriptions outstanding on 31 March 2019 30,000
Subscriptions received in advance on 31 March 2019 22,500
Subscriptions received in advance on 31 March 2020 13,500
Subscriptions outstanding on 3l March 2020 37,500

OR
In the foLLowing Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31 March 2021, determine
the missing information:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 5 (3)
Answer:
In the Books of Picasa Limited Income and Expenditure Account (An Extract)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 6
Balance Sheet (An Extract)
as at 31St March 2020

Liabilities Amount (₹) Assets Amount (₹)
Subscriptions Received in Advance 13,500 Subscriptions Outstanding 37,500

OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 7

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 5.
In a partnership firm ‘Sarega Limited’, Samar, Reeta, and Gagan are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4:3:1. As per the terms of the Partnership Deed of the firm, on the death of any partner, goodwill was to be valued at 50% of the net profits credited to that Partner’s Capital Account during the last three completed years before his/her death.
The profits and losses for the last five years were:
2016-17 ₹ 1,20,000
2017-18 ₹ 1,94,00
2018-19 ₹ 2,10,000
2019-20 ₹ 60,000
2020-2 1 ₹ 1,68O00
On 1st April, 2021, Samar dies. On that date, land and building was found undervalued by ₹ 1,60,000, which was to be considered.
Calculate the amount of Samar’s share of goodwill in the firm and pass the necessary adjusting journal entries of goodwill and revaluation of assets. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 8
Working Notes:
Total Profit of last three year’s = ₹ 2,10,000 + ₹ 60,000 +₹ 1,68,000 = ₹ 4,38,000
Sama’s share in prcMt already credited ta his account = ₹ 4, 38, 000 x \(\frac{4}{8}\) = ₹2,19,000
∴ Sarnar’s share of goodwill = Rs. 2.19.000 x \(\frac{50}{100}\) = ₹ 1,09,500.

Question 6.
On 1st Nov. 2020, Tata Ltd. issued 20,000, 10% debenture of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 5%, redeemable at par after four years. The debentures were fully subscribed. It has a balance of ₹ 40,000 in capital reserve and ₹ 75,000 in Securities Premium Reserve which the company decided to use for writing off the discount on issue of debentures. Pass the journal entries for issue of debentures and writing off the discount. Also, prepare discount on issue of Debentures Account.
OR
Wisdom Fireworks Limited issued 10,000, 12% debentures of ₹ 100 each at par for cash. It also raised a loan of ₹ 1,60,000 from Punjab National Bank, for which the company placed with the bark ₹ 2,00,000,12% debentures as collateral security.

As per the terms, Punjab National Bank is obliged and bound to immediately release the debentures as soon as the loan is repaid. How will you show the debentures in the Balance Sheet of Wisdom Fireworks Limited assuming that the company has recorded the issue of debentures as collateral in the book. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 9
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 10
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 11

Question 7.
The Balance Sheet of X, Y, and Z who were sharing profits and losses in ratio of their capitals stood as follows:
Balance Sheet
as on 31st March 2020
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 12
Y retired on 1st April, 2020 and the following adjustments were agreed upon:
(i) Out of the insurance premium debited to Profit and Loss Account, ₹ 1,500 to be carried forward as Prepaid Insurance.
(ii) Provision for Doubtful Debts to be brought up to 5% of Sundry Debtors.
(iii) Land and Building to be appreciated by 20%.
(iv) A provision of ₹ 4,000 be made in respect of outstanding bills for repairs.
(v) Goodwill of the firm was determined at ₹ 21,600.
(vi) Y’s share of goodwill be adjusted to that of X and Z who will share profits in future in the ratio of 3 :1.
Pass necessary Journal entries and prepare the Balance Sheet after Y’s retirement.
OR
Rohit and Virat are equal partners of a partnership firm ‘RV Limited’. They decided to dissolve their partnership firm on 31st March 2020, at which date the Balance Sheet of the firm stood as:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 13
Additional Information:
(i) The assets realized were:
Stock ₹ 22,000; Debtors ₹ 7,500; Machinery ₹ 16,000; Land & Building ₹ 35,000.
(ii) Virat took over the Furniture & Fittings at ₹ 9,000.
(iii) Rohit agreed to accept ₹ 2,500 in full settlement of his Loan Account.
(iv) Dissolution Expenses amounted to ₹ 2,500.
You are required to prepare:
(A) Realisation Account
(B) Capital Account of Partners
(C) Bank Account. (5)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 14
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 16
Working notes:
(1)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 17
(2)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 18

(3) Calculation of Old Ratio:
Capitol Ratio = CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 19
∴ Old Ratio of X, Y and Z= 3:2: 1

(4) CalcuLation of Gaining Ratio:
Old Ratio of X,Y and Z = 3:2:1
New Ratio of X and Z =3:1
Gaining Ratio = New Ratio – Old Ratio
X’s Gain = \(\frac{3}{4}-\frac{3}{6}=\frac{9-6}{12}=\frac{3}{12}\)
Z’ s Gain = \(\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{6}=\frac{3-2}{12}=\frac{1}{12}\)
Gaining Ratio of X and Z = 3: 1

(5) Adjustment of Good will:
Goodwiti of the Firm = ₹ 21,600
Y’s Share of GoodwilL = ₹ 21,600 x \(\frac{2}{6}\) = ₹ 7,200
Y’s share of goodwill will be compensated b X and Z in their Gaining Ratio i.e., 3: 1
X will compensate = 7.200 x \(\frac{3}{4}\) = ₹ 5,400
Y will compensate = 7,200 x \(\frac{1}{4}\) = ₹ 1,800
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 20
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 21
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 22

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 8.
Himadri Construction Limited engaged in the business of construction with a registered office in Bangalore, Karnataka was incorporated on 1st April 2016. The company is doing well and wants to penetrate their roots in other cities. With such objective Himadri Construction Limited purchased the running business of Godavari Construction Limited having business in Coimbatore, Mysore and Salem for a sum of ₹ 90,00,000. The assets and liabilities of Godavari Construction Limited consisted of the following:
Land ₹ 42,00,000
BuiLdings ₹ 36,00,000
Inventories ₹ 12,00,000
Sundry Debtors ₹ 18,00,000
Sundry Creditors ₹ 12,00,000
Himadri Construction Limited paid ₹ 18,00,000 in cash and for the balance amount issued 10% Debentures of? 100 each at par, redeemable after 6 years at par for the sum due to Godavari Construction Limited.

You are required to answer the following questions:
(A) Calculate the amount to be transferred to Capital Reserve Account.
(B) Pass journal entry to be passed at the time of purchase of business of Godavari Construction Limited.
(C) Pass journal entry for payment made in cash to Godavari Construction Limited.
(D) Calculate the number of debentures issued to Godavari Construction Limited.
(E) Pass journal entry for the allotment of debentures to Godavari Construction Limited. (5)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 23
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 24
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 25
(D) Amount paid in Cash = ₹ 18,00,000
Amount paid through Debentures = ₹ 90,00,000 – ₹ 18,00.000 = ₹ 72,00,000
Number of Debentures Issued to Godavari Construction Limited
= \(\)\frac{\text { Amount Due }}{\text { Issue Price }}=\frac{₹ 72,00,000}{₹ 100}[/lattex] = 72,000

(E) In the Books of Himadri Construction Limited
Journal
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 26

Question 9.
Following is the Receipts and Payments Account of Society Welfare Club for the year ended 31st March, 2020:
Receipts and Payments Account
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 27
Additional Information:

Particulars 31st March 2019 (₹ ) 31st March 2020 (₹ )
Outstanding Salary to Staff 2,400 3,600
Prepaid Insurance 1,400 600
Outstanding Subscriptions 7,500 5,000
Subscriptions Received in Advance 3,500 2,000
Outstanding Electricity Charges 2,500
Stock of Stationery 4,500 1,400
Equipments 51,200 1,00,400
Building 4,80,000 2,28,000
Investments 2,80,000 1,40,000

From the information provided, you are required to prepare Income and Expenditure Account of Society Welfare Club for the year ended 31st March 2020. (5)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 28
Working Note:
(1) CalcuLation of Depreciation on Equipments:
Amount of Depreciation on Equipments = Opening Balance + Purchase during the year – Sale during the year- Closing Balance
= ₹ 51,200 + ₹ 60,000 – 0 – ₹ 1,00,400
= ₹ 10,800

(2) CaLculation of Depreciation on Building:
Amount of Depreciation on Building = Opening Balance + Purchase during the year – Sale during the year – Closing Balance
= ₹ 2,40,000 + 0- 0 – ₹ 2,28,000
= ₹ 12,000

PART-B
Option-1
(Analysis of Financial Statements)

Question 10.
State which of the following transactions will result in inflow, outflow, or no flow of Cash and Cash Equivalents:
(A) Cash is withdrawn from Bank.
(B) Declaration of Interim Dividend. (2)
Answer:
(A) Cash withdrawn from Bank will, resuLt into no flow of Cash and Cash Equivalents.
(B) Declaration of Interim Dividend will resuLt into the outflow of Cash and Cash Equivalents.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Question 11.
From the following Statement of Profit and Loss, prepare Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 29
Notes to Accounts:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 30
OR
The Balance Sheets of Sohan Limited and Mohan Limited as at 31st March 2021 was as follows:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 31
You are required to prepare Common Size Balance Sheet as at 31st March 2021. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 32
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 33

Question 12.
From the following Statement of Profit and Loss for the year ended 31st March 2019, Balance Sheet as at 31st March 2019 and Notes to Accounts of Rathi Limited, prepare its Cash Flow Statement:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 34
Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2019
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 35
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 36 (5)

Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions 37

CBSE Sanskrit Sample Papers Class 10 2021-2022 with Solutions Pdf Term 1 & Term 2

Online Education Solved CBSE Sanskrit Sample Paper Class 10 2021-2022 with Solutions Pdf Term 1 & Term 2: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Sanskrit with Solutions Answers 2021-2022 Pdf Download Term 1 & Term 2 will give students an idea about the question paper pattern, frequently asked questions, and on which topics to emphasize more in a subject. CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Sample Question Papers with Answers will boost their confidence level, and they will feel optimistic about the board exams.

Online Education for CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Sample Paper 2021 2022 with Solutions | Sanskrit Sample Paper Class 10 with Answers Term 1 & Term 2

According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 10 Sanskrit Carries 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Sample Papers 2022 Solved Term 1 & Term 2.

CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Sample Papers 2022 with Solutions Term 2

CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Sample Papers 2021 with Solutions (Old Pattern)

CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Question Paper Design 2022

भाग
(Section)

प्रश्नों के प्रारूप
(Question Type)
0.5 Mark Questions 1 Mark Questions 2 Marks Questions 5 Marks Questions

कुल
(Section-wise)

अपठिताव बोधनम् अपठित गद्यांश: 2Q
(2 out of 3) + 1Q + 3Q (3 out of 4)
2Q
(2 out of 3)
10 अंक
रचनात्मक कार्यम् पत्र लेखनम् (औपचारिकम् एवं अनौपचारिकम्) 10Q 15 अंक
चित्रवर्णनम् अथवा अनुच्छेद लेखमन् 1Q
(anyone)
रचनानुवादः (वाक्यरचनाकौशलम्) 5Q
(5 out of 7)
पठिताव बोधनम् पठित गद्यांशः 2Q
(2 out of 3)
2Q
(2 out of 3)
15 अंक
पठित पद्यांशः 2Q
(2 out of 3)
2Q
(2 out of 3)
पठित नाट्यांशम् 2Q
(2 out of 3)
2Q
(2 out of 3)
श्लोकः अन्वयं पूर्तिः अथवा श्लोक : भावार्थ : पूर्तिः 4Q
(any one)
घटनाक्रम् 8Q
कुल 14 अंक 17 अंक 4 अंक 5 अंक 40 अंक

CBSE Class 10th Sanskrit Sample Paper Design 2020-21

CBSE Class 10th Sanskrit Sample Paper Design

CBSE Class 10 Sanskrit Sample Question Papers with Answers

We hope these CBSE Sanskrit Sample Papers Class 10 with Solutions Pdf 2021-2022 Term 1 & Term 2 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on NCERT Sanskrit Board Papers Class 10 2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 for their exam preparation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Students can access the Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  1. The question paper consists of 14 questions divided into 3 sections A, B, C.
  2. All questions are compulsory.
  3. Section A comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in two questions.
  4. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in one question.
  5. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 4 marks each. An internal choice has been provided in one question. It contains two case study-based questions.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

SECTION – A
(12 Marks)

Question 1.
Three cubes of a metal whose edges are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5, are melted and converted into a single cube whose diagonal is 12\(\sqrt{3}\) cm. Find the edges of the three cubes.
OR
The sum of the radius of base and height of a solid right circular cylinder is 37 cm. If the total surface area of the cylinder is 1628 sq. cm, find the volume of the cylinder. (2)
Answer:
Given: Ratio of edges of three cubes = 3 : 4 : 5
∴ Let the three edges be 3x, 4x and 5x respectively.

Also,
Diagonal of bigger cube = 12\(\sqrt{3}\)cm
∴ Edge of bigger cube = \(\frac{12 \sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}}\) = 12cm
[Diagonal of a cube = \(\sqrt{3}\) x Edge of the cube]

Now,
Volume of bigger cube = Volume of three cubes
⇒ (12)3 = (3x)3 + (4x)3 + (5x)3
⇒ 12 x 12 x 12 = 27x3 + 64x3 + 125x3
⇒ 12 x 12 x 12 = 216x3
⇒ x3 = \(\frac{12 \times 12 \times 12}{216}\) = 2 x 2 x 2
⇒ x = 2
∴ Edges of three cubes are 3x, 4x and 5x i.e. 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively.
OR
Let r, h be the radius of base and height of solid right circular cylinder.
Then, according to the question r + h = 37 cm
and TSA of cylinder = 1628 cm2
⇒ 2πr(h + r) = 1628
⇒ 2 x \(\frac{22}{7}\) x r x 37 = 1628
⇒ r = \(r=\frac{1628 \times 7}{2 \times 22 \times 37}=7\) = 7
So, h = 37 – r
= 37 – 7
= 30 cm

∴ Volume of cylinder = πr2h
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) x (7)2 x 30
= 4620 cm3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 2.
Mr. Rawat, HR manager of XYZ company, prepared a report on the number of leaves taken by its employees during the year 2020-21.

Number of leaves Number of employees
0-10 7
10-20 13
20-30 10
30-40 12
40-50 8
50-60 11

Find the frequency of the class, succeeding the modal class of the above distribution. (2)
Answer:
We know, class with maximum frequency is called modal class.
Here, class with maximum frequency i.e. 13 is 10 – 20
∴ Modal class = 10 – 20
So, class succeeding the modal class is 20-30. Hence, the frequency of required class 20 – 30 is 10.

Question 3.
Prove that tangents drawn at the ends of diameter of a circle are parallel to each other.
Answer:
Given: A circle with centre O and diameter AOB at which tangents PQ and MN are drawn.

To prove: PQ || MN
Proof: We know, tangent is perpendicular to radius at the point of contact.
∴ PQ ⊥ OA and MN ⊥ OB
∴ ∠OAP = 90° and ∠OBN = 90°
⇒ ∠OAP = ∠OBN
But ∠OAP and ∠OBN form a pair of alternate angles between the lines PQ and MN, which are intersected by a transversal AB.
∴ PQ || MN
Hence proved.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 4.
A ladder, leaning against a wall, makes an angle of 60° with it. If the length of the ladder is 15 m, find the height of the wall. (2)
Answer:
Let AB be the ladder and BC be the wall.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 5
Hence, height of the wall is 7.5 m.

Question 5.
The average score of boys in an examination of a school is 71 and that of the girls is 73. If the average score of the school in the examination is 71.8, then find the ratio of number of girls to the number of boys, who appeared in the examination. (2)
Answer:
Let the number of boys in the school be x and the number of girls be y.
Now, average score of boys = 71
∴ Total score of boys = 71 × x
= 71x
Also, average score of girls = 73
Total score of girls =73 × y
= 73y

Now,
Average score of school
\(=\frac{\text { Tota score of school }}{\text { Total number of students in school }}\)
⇒ 71.8 = \(\frac{71 x+73 y}{x+y}\)
⇒ 71.8 (x + y) = 71x + 73y
⇒ 71.8x – 71x = 73y – 71.8y
⇒ 0.8x = 1.2y
⇒ \(\frac{y}{x}=\frac{0.8}{1.2}\)
= \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Hence, the ratio of number of girls to the number of boys is 2 : 3.

Caution
In average score of school both boys and girls will be included, as a school constitute both boys and girls.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 6.
The following figure shows the observation of point C from point A. Find the angle of depression of point C from the point A.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 1
A tower of height h m casts a shadow 90 m long and at the same time, a pole 80 m long, casts a shadow 120 m long. Find the value of h. (2)
Answer:
In ΔABC
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 6
Now, angle of depression of point C from point A
= ∠XAC
= ∠ACB [Alternate angles]
30°

Caution
Here, we need to calculate ∠XAC, so calculating ∠ACB is not the final answer.
OR
Let AB be the tower and BC be its shadow. Similarly, let PQ be the pole and QR be its shadow.

Also, let angle of elevation of the Sun be θ.
∴ AB = h, BC = 90 m, PQ = 80 m, QR = 120 m and ∠C = ∠R = 0.
So, in ΔPQR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 7
Hence, the value of h is 60.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

SECTION – B
(12 Marks)

Question 7.
The sum of first seven terms of an A.P. is 63 and the sum of its next seven terms is 161. Find the tenth term of the A.P. (3)
Answer:
Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of the A.P.
We have, S7 = 63
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 8
Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
a = 3, d = 2
Now, 10th term, a10 = a + 9d = 3 + 9 x 2
= 21
Hence, tenth term of the A.P. is 21.

Caution
Here, 161 is the sum of next seven terms of the A.P. i.e. sum of 8th to 14th terms of the A.P., so apply the formula wisely.

Question 8.
Draw a line segment XY of length 5.4 cm and mark a point P on it such that PX = \(\frac{3}{5}\)XY. (3)
Answer:
We have,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 9

Steps of construction:

  • Draw a line segment XY of length 5.4 cm.
  • From point X, draw a ray XM such that ∠YXM is acute.
  • On ray XM, mark 2 + 3 e. 5 points, namely X1, X2, X3, X4 and X5 at equal distances.
  • Join X5Y.
  • From point X3, draw a line X3P, parallel to X5Y, intersecting XY at P.

Thus, point P divides XY in the ratio 3 : 2.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 9.
The angle of elevation of the top Q of a vertical tower PQ from a point X on the ground is 60°. At a point R, 40 m vertically above X, the angle of elevation of the top Q of tower PQ is 45°. Find the height of the tower PQ. [Use \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.732] (3)
Answer:
We have, RX = 40 m, ∠QRM = 45°, ∠QXP = 60°.
Here, RX = PM = 40 m and RM = XP
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 10
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 11
Hence, height of the tower PQ is 94.64 m.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 10.
Solve for x:
\(\frac{2}{x+1}+\frac{3}{2(x-2)}=\frac{23}{5 x}, x \neq 0,-1,2\)
OR
In a class test, the sum of Shrishti’s marks in maths and science is 45. If she had 1 more mark in maths and 1 less in science, the product of marks would have been 500. Find her marks in maths and science. (3)
Answer:
We have,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 12
Let the Shrishti’s marks in maths be x.
Then, her marks in science = 45 – x
Now, according to the question,
(x + 1) [(45 – x) – 1] = 500
⇒ (x + l) (44 – x) = 500
⇒ 44x + 44 – x2 – x = 500
⇒ x2 – 43x + 456 = 0
⇒ x2 – 24x – 19x + 456 = 0
⇒ x(x- 24) – 19(x- 24) = 0
⇒ (x – 19) (x – 24) = 0
x = 19, 24
if x = 19, then (45 – x) = 45 – 19 = 26
If x = 24, then (45 – x) = 45 – 24 = 21

Hence, she either got 19 marks in maths 26 marks in science or 24 marks in maths 21 marks in science.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

SECTION – C
(16 Marks)

Question 11.
Rohan has a solid wax cylinder of diameter 21 cm and height 21 cm. From it, he curved out a conical cavity of maximum volume. From the remaining wax, he formed a solid sphere. Find the diameter of the sphere. (4)
Answer:
For a conical cavity of maximum volume Diameter of cavity = Diameter of cylinder
= 21 cm
and,Height of cavity = Height of cylinder
= 21 cm
∴ Radius of cavity (r) = \(\frac{21}{2}\) cm
Let the radius of the sphere be R.
Since, volume of remaining wax = Volume of cylinder – Volume of cone
And the spherical ball is formed from this remaining wax,
∴ Volume of sphere = Volume of cylinder – Volume of cone
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 13
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 14
∴ Diameter of shere = 2R = 2 x \(\frac{21}{2}\) = 21cm.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 12
In the given figure, quadrilateral ABCD is circumscribing a circle with centre O and AD ⊥ AB. If the radius of incircle is 10 cm, then find the value of x.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 2
PA and PB are the two tangents to a circle with centre O in which OP is equal to diameter of the circle. Prove that ΔAPB is equilateral. (4)
Answer:
We know, tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal in length.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 15
∴ AP = AS, BP = BQ,
CQ = CR and DR = DS
Now, in quadrilateral OPAS,
OS = OP = Radii, AP = AS and ∠PAS = 90°
i.e. adjacent sides are equal and an angle is a right angle.
∴ OPAS is a square.
∴ AP = AS = 10 cm
Now, CR = CQ = 27 cm
So, BP = BQ
= BC – CQ
= 38 – 27
= 11cm
So, x = AB = AP + BP
= 10 + 11
= 21
Hence, the value of x is 21.
OR
Given: A circle with centre 0 in which tangent PA and PB are drawn from an external point P.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 16
Also, OP is equal to diameter of the circle.
To prove: ΔAPB is equilateral.
Construction: Join OA and OB.
Proof: Let radius of the circle be r.
∴ OA = OB = r and OP = 2r
Now, ∠OAP = ∠OBP = 90°
[Tangent ⊥ Radius]
Let ∠OPA = 0
Then, in right angled triangle AOP
\(\sin \theta=\frac{\mathrm{OA}}{\mathrm{OP}}=\frac{r}{2 r}=\frac{1}{2}=\sin 30^{\circ}\)
⇒ θ = 30°
Since, tangents are equally inclined to the line segment joining the centre of the circle to their common external point.
∴ ∠OPA = ∠OPB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ∠APB
or, ∠APB = 2∠OPA = 2 x 30° = 60°
We know, tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal in length.
∴ In ΔAPB,
PA = PB
⇒ ∠PBA = ∠PAB = x° (say)
So, \(x^{\circ}=\frac{180^{\circ}-\angle \mathrm{APB}}{2}=\frac{180^{\circ}-60^{\circ}}{2}\)
= 60°
i.e. ∠PBA = ∠PAB = ∠APB = 60°
∴ ΔAPB is an equilateral triangle.

Hence, proved.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 13.
Case Study-1
A loan is an amount which one receives from a bank with the assurance of returning it in the future along with some fixed annual interest.

Deepak took a loan of ₹ 1,18,000 from HDFC bank to invest in his start-up. He has to repay this loan by paying every month, starting with the first installment of ₹ 1000. Since, his start-up was going well, he decided to increase the installment of loan by ₹ 100 every month.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 3
Based on this information answer the following question.
(A) What amount of ban he still have to pay after the 30th installment? (2)
(B) What amount will be paid to the bank as the last installment of ban? (2)
Answer:
(A) Since installments paid by Deepak, each successive month, increases uniformly by a fixed amount, so his series of installments form an A.P. with a = 1000 and d = 100.
∴ Amount paid till 30 installments
= S30
= \(\frac{30}{2}\) [2 x 1000 + (30 – 1) x 100]
∵ [Sn = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2a + (n – 1)d]
= 15 x 4900
= 73500

So, amountto be pay after 30th installment = Total amount to be paid – A amount paid till 30 installments = ₹ (1,18,000-73,500)
= ₹ 44,500

(B) Let the loan of ₹ 1,18,000 be repaid to the bank in n months.
Then, Sn = 118000
⇒ \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2a + (n – 1)d]
= 118000
⇒ \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2 x 1000 + (n – 1) x 100] = 118000
⇒ \(\frac{n}{2}\) [1900+ 100n] = 118000
⇒ n(950 + 50n) = 118000
⇒ 50n2 + 950n – 2360 = 0
or n2 + 19n – 2360 = 0
⇒ (n + 59) (n – 40) = 0
⇒ n = -59, 40
Since, number of months cannot be negative
∴ n = 40
Amount paid in last installment = a40
= a + 39d
= 1000 + 39 x 100
= 4900
Hence, the amount paid in the last installment of the loan is ₹ 4900.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 14.
Case Study-2
‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’ is a country-wide campaign initiated by our Honourable Prime Minister of India, Mr. Narendra Singh Modi in the year 2014 to eliminate open defecation, to improve solid waste management and to accelerate the efforts to achieve universal sanitisation.

As part of the ‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’, some houses of a locality in Agra decided to clean up and beautify a Primary School of their locality by planting a number of plants. They involved the school kids and the local community in doing so.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 4
Here is the data indicating the number of plants contributed by different houses:

Number of plants contributed Number of houses
1-3 10
4-6 8
7-9 X
10-12 7
13-15 12
16-18 4

(A) If the mean number of plants contributed be 8.9, then how many houses contributed 7 to 9 plants? (2)
(B) Find the median number of plants contributed. (2)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 17
Hence, 9 houses contributed 7 to 9 plants.

(B)

Class Frequency Cumulative Frequency
0.5 – 3.5 10 10
3.5 – 6.5 8 18
6.5 – 9.5 X = 9 27
9.5 – 12.5 7 34
12.5 -15.5 12 46
15.5 -18.5 4 50
N = 50

Here, \(\frac{N}{2}=25\)
Cumulative frequency just greater than 25 is 27 which belongs to class 6.5 – 9.5.
∴ Median class = 6.5 – 9.5.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions 18

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Students can access the Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

Online Education for CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING & GRAMMAR and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION – A
Reading (10 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below.
What is Discipline? Is it absolute freedom to do what a person wants? Is freedom regardless of consequences? Does it mean corrective action after a problem occurs or a wrong is done? Is it an imposition? Is it abuse? Does it take away freedom?

The answer is none of the above. Discipline does not mean that a person takes a belt and 5. beats up kids. That is madness. Discipline is loving firmness. It is direction. It is prevention before a problem arises. It is harnessing and channelizing energy for great performance. Discipline is not something you do but you do for those you care about.

Discipline is an act of love. Sometimes you have to be unkind to be kind: Not all medicine is sweet, not all surgery is painless, but we have to take it. We need to learn from nature. We 10. are all familiar with that big animal, the- giraffe. A mama giraffe gives birth to a baby giraffe, standing. ALTofa sudden, the baby falls on a hard surface from the cushion of mama’s womb, and sits on the ground. The first thing mama does is to get behind the baby and give him a hard kick The baby gets up, but his legs are weak and Wobbly and the baby falls down. Mama goes behind again and gives him one more kick. The baby gets up but sits down again.
15. Mama keeps kicking till the baby gets on its feet and starts moving. Why? Because mama knows that the only chance of survival for the baby in the jungle is to get on its feet. Otherwise, it will be eaten up by wildcats and become dead meat

Children brought up in a loving, disciplined environment end up respecting their parents more and become law-abiding citizens. The reverse is just as true. Good parents are not 20. afraid of momentary dislikes by children to enforce the subject. Allowing a child to eat a box of chocolate could lead to sickness. At the same time, the discipline of eating one or two pieces a day can be an enjoyable experience for a longer time. Our instinct makes us do whatever we want regardless of the consequences. Freedom is not procured by a full enjoyment of what is desired but controlling the desire.
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer ANY FIVE questions from the six given below. (1 × 5)
(A) What does the writer mean by saying, ‘Discipline is loving firmness’? (1)
Answer:
By the given phrase, the writer means that discipline means to be determined and well-organized in life. It means to have a firm and steadfast lifestyle.

(B) Rewrite the following sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with a word that means the same from lines 10-15.
Payal was feeling so dizzy that she was walking unsteadily from side to side while returning to her home after the concert. (1)
Answer:
Payal was feeling so dizzy that she was walking wobbly while returning to her home after the concert.

(C) State the meaning of ‘channelizing ’ as implied in the passage. (1)
Answer:
Channelizing means to direct towards a particular End or Object. But in this passage, the word has been used in the sense of diverting one’s energy to make full use of their potential just as a flowing river channelize itself to control its flow and make full use of its resources.

(D) How has the writer recommended finding a balance in discipline? (1)
Answer:
The writer has recommended finding a balance in discipline by saying that neither discipline is about giving absolute freedom to the child nor it means to completely abandon freedom. Discipline should be done to control the desires and amount of freedom.

(E) List two things that we can learn from nature about discipline, other than the one going in the passage. (1)
Answer:
Nature teaches us discipline through many things. The sun rises and sets daily as per its routine. The seasons come and go on around the same time every year.

(F) How does the writer justify the children of disciplined families as ‘law-abiding citizen’? (1)
Answer:
The writer justifies the children of disciplined families as ‘law-abiding citizen’ by saying that children who are brought up with love in a disciplined environment are more respectful towards their parents’ decisions and eventually, abiding to the laws as citizens.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 2.
Read the following excerpt from a case study titled ‘Marie Curie’.
Of all the inventions of science, solar rickshaw is perhaps the most useful on the practical side of life. It is not just any rickshaw but an optimally designed, pedal-operated, and motor-assisted three-wheeler. This zero carbon, urban transport vehicle or ‘pedicab’ was designed and developed by a team of engineers from the Central Mechanical Engineering Research Institute, Durgapur, West Bengal.

5. Like a solar rickshaw, the gorgeous green phone is another wonderful invention of the scientific mind. We all know that mobile phones are must-haves these days. In fact, according to statistics, six out of ten people in this world own a cell phone. So, imagine the energy consumed and the e-waste generated by these devices. With this in mind, many handset manufacturers are going green, while some are even going solar.
Samsung, for instance, has unveiled a solar- powered phone—”Blue Earth”. It is a touch phone that has a full

10. solar panel on its back which can generate enough power to charge the phone. It is made from recycled plastic from water bottles and has a built-in pedometer to keep a tab on your carbon dioxide emissions. It is also small enough to fit into your pocket.
Like solar-powered homes, solar cars harness energy from the sun by converting it into electricity. This electricity fuels the battery that runs the car’s motor. Instead of using a battery, some solar cars direct the 15. power straight to an electric motor. Great examples of the latest solar-powered cars are the University of Michigan solar car, the MIT solar car, and the Berkeley solar car.

Solar cars use photovoltaic cells to convert sunlight into energy. Photovoltaic cells are the components in solar panels that convert the
sun’s energy to electricity. They’re made up of semiconductors, usually silicon, that absorb the light. The sun’s energy frees electrons in the semiconductors, creating a flow of electrons. 20. This flow generates electricity that powers the battery and the specialised motor in solar cars.

The History of Solar Power

  • Crocks used passive solar to heat buildings (400 BC).
  • Roman inproved by using glass to trap heat in the buildings and green houses (100 AD).
  • 1700: Antoine La Voisier builts a solar heater.
  • 1839: French physicist Antoine-Cesar i Becquerel observed that shining light on an electrode submerged in a conductive solution would create an electric current.
  • 1860: The first solar motor, heated water used to drive a steam motor, Auguste Mouchout.
  • 1941: American Russell Ohl invented a silicon solar cell.
  • 1954: Bell Labs researchers Pearson Chapin, and Fuller reported their discovery of 4.5 percent efficient silicon solar cells.
  • 1950’s: Solar cells developed for satellites.
  • 1960: Hoffman Electronics achieved 14 percent efficient PV cells.
  • 1973: OPEC energy crisis causes US to reexamine use of renewable energy sources; federal and state tax credits result in rapid growth for a new solar industry.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY FIVE questions from the six given below. (1 × 5)
(A) Why does the writer mean by saying that solar rickshaw is perhaps the most useful ‘on the practical side of life’? (1)
Answer:
By saying that the solar rickshaw is perhaps the most useful ‘on the practical side of life’, the writer means that perhaps other scientific inventions are only limited for scientific use but solar rickshaw can be used practically on roads and be taken into the life of a common man.

(B) Comment on the significance of ‘solar-powered phones’ as given in the lines 6-12. (1)
Answer:
‘Solar-powered phones’ are significant in reducing the energy consumption and the e-waste generation by mobile devices. Solar phones are also safer as they keep a tab on carbon dioxide emissions by these devices.

(C) Justify the use of ‘scientific minds’ in turning the world ecological. (1)
Answer:
The scientific minds have invented many solar-operated devices like solar rickshaws, phones, cars and houses. These solar devices ecologically harness energy from the sun by converting the absorbed sunlight into electricity.

(D) Why does the writer call mobile phones ‘must-haves’? (1)
Answer:
The writer calls mobile phones the ‘must- haves’ because one needs the device for completing majority of the tasks today. From online studies to e-shopping and online payments, all are done through mobile phones.

(E) Scientists have started using solar energy for research purposes from a very long time. How does evidence from table support this statement? (1)
Answer:
From the table, we can see that solar cells were developed for satellites way back in the 1850s by scientists.

(F) What is the purpose of crediting state and federal taxes for solar industry according to the table? (1)
Answer:
The federal and state taxes credit led to a rapid growth of new solar industry in the US.

Section – B
Writing And Grammar [10 Marks]

Question 3.
Attempt ANY ONE from (A) and (B)
(A) Study the concept chart from the survey done by the COSMOS on ARising Prices’.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 1
Write a paragraph in not more than 120 words, anaLysing the given information. (5)
Answer:

  • Life of a poor man is never easy but the past few years have been even more difficult The prices of staple food items have been rising steeply. The table shows a comparative study of prices over three years.
  • The rising prices mean that most of the food is beyond the common man’s reach. Since the table shows wholesale prices, their market rate must be more than double. When basic necessities cost so
    much, how is the common man supposed to feed his family? When parents cannot feed their children, they are malnourished and their growth is adversely affected.
  • In a country where rice, dal and chapati are staple foods, the skyrocketing prices mean that the poor cannot afford even one square meal. There needs to be a system where the prices are regulated and those who sell them at inflated prices should be dealt with severity.

(B) You are the manager of Fit & Fine Fitness Club, Gandhi Road, Ernakulam. You come across the following advertisement by Messrs. Pioneer Sports Co., Kochi.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 2
You want to place an order for fitness products with them for your gym. Write a letter to the Manager of Messrs. Pioneer Sports Co., Kochi, placing an order in about 120 words. (5)
Answer:
Fit & Fine Fitness Club Gandhi Road,
Ernakulam
1st June 20XX
The Manager
Messrs Pioneer Sports Co.
Kochi

Subject: Order for fitness equipments Dear sir/madam
This is with reference to your products leafier dated 25th May 20XX, giving details of the available products.
We are satisfied with the prices and would like to order the following items:

Product Number
1. Go Pro Fitness treadmilL 7
2. Kamachi Multipurpose treadmill 7
3. Paramount Fitness cycle 2
4. Precor Elliptical trainers 7
5. Dumbbells (25,15, 10.5 & 2.5 kg) 5 pairs each

The above items should be delivered on or before the 20th of June between 3-4 p.m. Please send your executive to help assembLe the equipment and also check their working condition. The balance amount will be paid within a week of it being checked via a transfer to your account.
Yours truly
Manager
Fit & Fine Fitness Club

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 4.
The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each Line. Identify the error and write its correction, against the correct blank number. Remember to underline the correction. The first one has been done for you. (1 × 3)

Childrens are fond of orange. It Is a juicy and citrous fruit, filled of vitamin C. Oronges grow on tropical or temperate climate One of the best city to have good oranges is Nogpur.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 3
Answer:
(a) of – with
Explanation: ‘of’ is the wrong preposition used in the sentence. The right preposition to be used here is ‘with’. So, ‘with’ is the right answer.
(b) on – in
Explanation: The preposition ‘on’ is used to identify the location while ‘in’ is used to identify time of happening. Hence, ‘in’ is the right answer.
(c) or – and
Explanation: ‘or’ is used to define a choice between two things while ‘and’ is used to define two things collectively. The correct conjunction to be used here is ‘and’. Hence, it is the right answer.

Question 5.
Read the conversation between a teacher and student and complete the passage that follows.

  • Medley: That kid in the school said some surely mean things about you today. How come you didn’t hit him?
  • Ron: Well, I have observed that whenever you hit somebody, they have a tendency to hit you back!
  • Medley: Oh! You are a shrewd judge of human nature Ron.

Medley is chilling out with her classmate, Ron. She is (a) ……………………… in school who said a lot of mean thing about Ron today. While saying so, Medley asks Ron about why he never hit the kid. Ron replied that he had observed that when a person hits somebody, there is a tendency that (b) …………………. Medley is speechless. She called Ron a shrewd judge of human nature. (1 + 1)
Answer:
(a) talking about the kid
(b) the other person will try to hit back

Section – C
Literature (20 marks)

Question 6.
Answer ANY SIX questions in 30-40 words each. (2 × 6)
(A) What is the significance of Greeks and Arabs in the descendancy of Coorgi people? (2)
Answer:
Coorgis are beLieved to be possibly the descendants of either Greeks or the Arabs. Coorgi martial traditions, marriages and religious rites are an evidence of their Greek origin while the dress that Coorgis wear is a long black coat tied with an embroided waist belt that is similar to the dress worn by the Arabs.

(B) Justify Custard’s look as that of a dragon in the poem, ‘The Tale of Custard the Dragon’. (2)
Answer:
In the poem, The Tale of Custard the Dragon’, Custard had big sharp teeth, spikes on top of him and scales underneath like that of a dragon. His mouth was like a fireplace, he had a chimney for a nose and daggers on his toes.

(C) Comment on the tone of Valli when she said, “Proud! Proud!” to her friends who described their bus journeys. (2)
Answer:
The tone of Valli in the phrase is jealousy because she found that her friends were getting into the bus but she could not. So, it was her self-respect hampered.

(D) Edcation is not necessary for a person’s shrewdness and presence of mind. Using evidence from the chapter, explain how this concept is represented in ‘The Hack Driver’. (2)
Answer:
In ‘The Hack Driver’, Oliver Lutkins is an uneducated countryman who outwits the lawyer who comes to serve summon to him. Although the lawyer belongs to a city and is quite educated, he is easily deceived by Lutkins’ great impression of being a hack driver named Bill.

(E) Why don’t animals ‘sweat and whine’ about their condition? (2)
Answer:
Animals don’t ‘sweat and whine’ about their conditions as they are satisfied with what they have in their life. They don’t expect more and get sad on not receiving it.

(F) Briefly state why Amanda wanted to escape to the world of her own. (2)
Answer:
Amanda’s mother’s constant naggings and instructions made her wanting to escape into a world of her own where she would be free to do anything. Amanda was fed up of all the constant questioning and rebuking by her mother.

(G) Bholi’s tragic fall from the cot changed her life. Comment. (2)
Answer:
Bholi was born as a fair and pretty child so she was named as Sulekha. However, events of mishaps befell her as she fell off the cot when she was just ten months old.
The falling off the cot damaged her part of brain and her name was thus, changed to ‘Bholi’ which means a ‘simpleton’.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 7.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 × 2)
(A) A person’s mood is subjected to transform with his surroundings. Critically examine the change in Valli’s mood on her return journey, based on your reading of the chapter, ‘Madam Rides the Bus.’ (4)
Answer:
In the chapter, ‘Madam Rides the Bus’, Valli was really excited and happy to see the vivid scenes on her jorney. She enjoyed her onward journey a lot but on her journey back to the village, Valli’s excitement for the ride was subdued as she saw the blood-smeared body of the cow that was running in front of the bus on her onward journey to the town. The frightful view of the cow changed Valli’s mood from being enthusiastic to pensive. She was brokenhearted to look at the harsh reality of death. After looking at the dead cow, she didn’t want to look out of the window any further. She glued to her seat till the bus reached the village.

(B) Lomov and Natalya have a complex relationship. Reflecting upon their character traits, develop a conversation between Natalya and Chubokov where they are discussing about Lomov’s prospects as Natalya’s future husband. (4)
Answer:

  • Natalya: Oh my heart, why did you turn him away father?
  • Chubokov: The burden on me! You both were arguing! The pettifogger had the nerve to claim the Oxen Meadows.
  • Natalya: But you know how much I want to marry him!
  • Chubokov: The land, ah the land!
  • Natalya: I know, father, but the land hardly costs anything. Oxen Meadows is ours, but I want Lomov father, please bring him back!
  • Chubokov: What? Bring him back now? Why, my heart! You both can hardly stand each other.
  • Natalya: Bring him back, oh I am feeling restless.
  • Chubokov: Oh, you want him back now? After all that he had done to us? Calling us hump-backed and charging our people for embezzlement! Ah, that turnipghost! Oh, you are a lovesick cat, Natalya! You have lost your senses! Fine, go on, then! Marry him. Have your will!

(C) Humility can also be a deceptive trait.
In context of the story ‘The Hack Driver’, evaluate how the hack driver proves the axiom that appearances can be deceptive. (4)
Answer:
Appearances are not always true and the hack driver proves that in the story The Hack Driver’. Even in the context of the statement, the ‘hack’ is an important metaphor. In the story also, we observe that a person who appears to be friendly, co-operative and understanding initially might prove to be the exact opposite later. The lawyer comes to the city looking for Oliver Lutkins and meets the hack driver who is willing to help.
The hack driver comes across as a simple and friendly country man. His affectionate conduct is endearing and the narrator is impressed. However, the lawyer finds out that the hack driver was Lutkins himself and his simple and unassuming appearance had befooled a wise man like the lawyer.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Students can access the Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  1. The question paper consists of 14 questions divided into 3 sections A, B, C.
  2. All questions are compulsory.
  3. Section A comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in two questions.
  4. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in one question.
  5. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 4 marks each. An internal choice has been provided in one question. It contains two case study-based questions.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

SECTION – A
(12 Marks)

Question 1.
If two tangents, inclined to each other at an angle of 60°, are drown to a circle of radius 3 cm, then find the length of each tangent.
OR
In the figure, AB and CD are common tangents to two circles of unequal radii. Prove that AB = CD.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 5
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 6
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 7
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 8
Hence, the length of each tangent is 3\(\sqrt{3}\)cm.

OR

Given: AB and CD are common tangents to two circles of unequal radii.

To prove: AB = CD

Construction: Extend BA and DC, so that they meet at point P.

Proof: We know, tangents drawn from an external point to a circLe are equal in Length.

So, for smaller circle,
PA = PC ……………………………………… (i)
And, for bigger circle,
PB = PD ……………………………………… (ii)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 9

Subtracting (i) from (ii), we get
PB – PA = PD – PC
⇒ AB = CD

Hence, proved.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 2.
A 1.6m tall girl stands at a distance of 3.2m from a lamp post and casts a shadow of 4.8m on the ground. find the height of the lam past. (2)
Answer:
Let AB be the girl and BM be its shadow. Similarly, let PQ be the lamp post and QM be its shadow. Also, Let θ be the angle of elevation of the Sun.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 10
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 11
Hence, height of the lamp post is 2.67m.

Question 3.
From a solid cube of side 7 cm, a conical cavity of diameter 6 cm and height 7 cm is hollowed out. Find the volume of the remaining solid. (2)
Answer:
Volume of remaining solid = Volume of cube – Volume of the cone
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 12

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 4.
Mr. Biswal, a class teacher of class X, prepared a table on the number of days his students missed the school during the term-1 of session 2021-22. Following data was recorded.

Number of absent days Number of students
0-5 2
5-10 6
10-15 9
15-20 7
20-25 4

Convert this frequency distribution to a more than type cumulative frequency distribution table.
Answer:

Class Cumulative Frequency
More than 0 2 + 6 + 9 + 7 + 4 = 28
More than 5 6 + 9 + 7 + 4 = 26
More than 10 9 + 7 + 4 = 20
More than 15 7 + 4 = 11
More than 20 4

Question 5.
A portion of 60 m long tree is broken by tornado and the top struck up the ground making an angle of 30° with the ground level. Find the height of broken part of the tree. (2)
Answer:
Let AB be the tree and C be the point on it, from where it is broken, so that the top A of the tree touches the ground at point A’.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 13

∴ AB = 60 m, ∠CA’B = 30°
Let BC = x
Then, AC = AB – BC = 60-x
∴ A’C = AC = 60 – x
Now, in ΔA’BC
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 14
Hence, the height of broken part of the tree is 40 m.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 6.
If the mean of the following data is 2.6, then find the missing frequency p.

x1 1 2 3 4 5
f1 4 5 p 1 2

OR
Find the mode of the following frequency distribution:

Class Interval Frequency
25-30 25
30-35 34
35-40 50
40-45 42
45-50 38
50-55 14

Answer:

xi fi Σfixi
1 4 4
2 5 10
3 P 3P
4 1 4
5 2 10
Σfi = 12 + p Σfixi = 28 + 3p

We know, Mean = \(\frac{f_{i} x_{i}}{f_{i}}\)
⇒ \(2.6=\frac{28+3 p}{12+p}\)
⇒ 2.6(12 + p) = 28 + 3p
⇒ 3p – 2.6p = 31.2 – 28
⇒ 0.4p = 3.2
⇒ p = 8
Hence, the value of p is 8.
OR
Here, maximum frequency = 50
And, class with maximum frequency is 35 – 40.
∴ Modal class = 35 – 40

We know,
Mode = l + \(\left(\frac{f_{1}-f_{0}}{2 f_{1}-f_{0}-f_{2}}\right)\) x h
Here, l = 35, f1 = 50, f0 = 34, f2 = 42, h = 5.
∴ Mode = 35 + \(\left(\frac{50-34}{100-34-42}\right) \times 5\)
= 35 + \(\frac{16}{24}\) x 5
= 35 + 3.33
= 38.33
Hence,the mode of given frequency distribution is 38.33.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

SECTION – B
(12 Marks)

Question 7.
Solve for x:
1 + 4 + 7 + 10 + …. + x = 287 (3)
Answer:
We have, 1 + 4 + 7 + 10 + ….. + x = 287
Here, the series 1,4, 7,10, ….. x forms an A.P.
with a = 1, d = 4 – 1 = 3 and l = x.
Let there be n terms in this A.P.
We know, sum of n term of an A.P. is given as
Sn = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2a + (n – 1)d]
⇒ 287 = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2 x 1 + (n – 1) x 3]
⇒ 574 = n(3n – 1)
⇒ 3n2 – n – 574 = 0
⇒ 3n2 – (42 – 41) n – 574 = 0
⇒ 3n2 – 42n + 41n – 572 = 0
⇒ 3n(n – 14) + 41(n – 14) = 0
⇒ (3n + 4) (n – 14) = 0
⇒ n = \(\frac{-4}{3}\), 14
Since, number of terms cannot be in fraction or negative
∴ n = 14
∴ a14 = x
⇒ a + 13d = x
⇒ 1 + 13 x 3 = x
⇒ x= 40
Hence, the value of x is 40.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 8.
Draw a circle of any radius and unknown centre. Take a point P outside the circle and construct a pair of tangents from this point to the circle. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 15
Steps of construction:

  1. Draw a circle of any radius and unknown centre.
  2. Draw two non-parallel chords AB and XY on the circle, drawn in step (1).
  3. Draw perpendicular bisectors of AB and XY. Let these two perpendicular bisectors intersect each other at point O. Thus, 0 is the centre of the circle.
  4. Take a point P outside the circle and join OP.
  5. Draw perpendicular bisector of OP to get its mid-point M.
  6. Taking M as centre and MO = MP as radius, draw a circle which intersects the circle, drawn in step (1), at points C and D.
  7. Join PC and PD.

Thus, PC and PD are the required tangents to the circle with centre O.

Concept Applied
Perpendicular bisector of a chard of a circle passes through its centre. So, perpendicular bisectors of chords AB and XY intersect each other at centre of the circle.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 9.
Find the value of p for which the quadratic equation (p + 1) x2 – 6(p + 1) x + 3(p + 9) = 0, p ≠ -1, has equal roots. Hence, find the roots of the equation. (3)
Answer:
Given equation is:
(p + 1) x2 – 6(p + 1)x + 3(p + 9) = 0 …………………………………… (i)
Since, the equation has equal roots
∴ Discriminant = 0
⇒ b2 – 4ac = 0
Here, a = (p + 1), b = -6(p + 1), c = 3(p + 9)
[-6(p + 1)]2 – 4 x (p + 1) x [3(p + 9)] = 0
∴ (p + 1) [36(p + 1) – 12(p + 9)] = 0
⇒ 36p + 36 – 12p – 108 = 0
[∵ p ≠ -1 (Given)]
⇒ 24p – 72 = 0
⇒ P = \(\frac{72}{24}\)
= 3
Putting p = 3 in equation (i), we get
4x2 – 24x + 36 = 0
⇒ x2 – 6x + 9 = 0
⇒ (x – 3)2 = 0
⇒ x = 3, 3
Hence, the value of p is 3 and the roots of the equation so formed are 3 and 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 10.
A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle of elevation of the top of a tree, standing on opposite bank of the river, is 60°. When he moves 40 m away from the bank, he finds angle of elevation to be 30°. Find the width of the river and the height of the tree.
OR
The shadow of a pole is three times as long as the shadow of the pole when the Sun rays meet the ground at an angle of 60°. Find the angle between the Sun rays and the ground at the time of longer shadow. (3)
Answer:
Let AB be the tree, PB be the river and P’ be the final position of the person.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 16

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 17
Putting PB = 20 in (i), we get
AB = 20\(\sqrt{3}\)
Hence, width of the river is 20 m and height ofthetreeis 20\(\sqrt{3}\)m.
OR
Let AB be the pole, BC be its shadow when angLe of elevation of the Sun is 60° and BD be its longer shadow.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 18
So, according to the question
BD = 3BC ……………………………….. (i)
Let the angle between Sun rags and the ground at the time of longer shadow be O.

Now, in ΔABC
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 19
Hence, the required angle is 30°.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

SECTION – C
(16 Marks)

Question 11.
Find mean and median of the following frequency distribution: (4)

Class Interval Frequency
0-20 13
20-40 10
40-60 15
60-80 8
80-100 11

Hence, find the mode.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 20
Calculation of Mean:
We know,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 21
Calculation of Median:
Here, \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{2}=28.5\)

Cumutativefrequencyjustgreaterthan 28.5 is 38, which beLongs to cLass 40 – 60.

∴ Median class 40 – 60

We know,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 22

Calculation of mode:
We know,
Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean
= 3 x 47.33 – 2 x 47.9
= 141.99-95.8
= 46.19
∴ Mean = 47.9, Median = 47.33, Mode = 46.19

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 12.
A peacock is sitting on the top of a pillar which is 9 m high. From a point 27 m away from the bottom of the pillar, a snake is coming to its hole at the base of the pillar. Seeing the snake, the peacock pounces on it. If their speeds are equal, at what distance from the hole is the snake caught?
OR
Vanya’s mother is 28 years older than her. Seven years ago, the product of their ages, in years, was 245. Find the present age of Vanya. (4)
Answer:
Let peacock be sitting on the top P of the pillar PQ. Also, T be a point on the ground level from where snake is approaching towards the pillar. Lastly, let M be the point on the ground where the peacock caught the snake.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 23
So, PQ = 9 m, QT = 27 m

Since, speed of both peacock and the snake is same, so both will cover equal distances in equaL intervals of time.
∴ Let PM = MT = x m
So, QM = (27 -x) m
So, in ΔPQM using Pythagoras theorem, we have
(PM)2 = (PQ)2 + (QM)2
⇒ x2 = 92 +(27 -x)2
⇒ x2 = 81 + 729 – 54x + x2
⇒ 54x = 810
⇒ \(\frac{810}{54}\) = 15
So, snake will caught at a distance of (27 – 15)m i.e. 12 m from the hole
OR
Let the present age of Vanya be x years.
Then, present age of Vanya’s mother = (x + 28) years
So, according to the question,
(x-7) [(x+28)-7)] = 245
⇒ (x – 7) (x + 21) = 245
⇒ x2+ 14x- 147 = 245
⇒ x2 + 14x – 392 =0
⇒ x2 + 28x – 14x – 392 = 0
⇒ x(x + 28) – 14(x + 28) = 0
⇒ (x – 14) (x + 28) = 0
⇒ x = 14, – 28
Since, age cannot be negative,
x = 14
Hence, the present age of Vanya is 14 years.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 13.
Case Study-1
The benefit of the vegetable garden, of any size, in houses, is that it can help us to stay healthy as vitamin content will be highest when we pick, vegetables right from our garden and eat them. Also, it reduces the risk of consumption of harmful chemicals which is sprayed and even injected in the vegetables to make them look fresh and healthy.

A portion of the backyard of a house has a triangular-shaped garden, on which vegetables are grown in a circular shape.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 1
If the triangular garden ABC is right-angled at B and the sides AB, BC and AC of the garden touches the circular region with centre O at points P, Q and R. respectively with AB = 8 m and BC = 6 m, then answer the following questions.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 2
(A) If the length side AP of the garden is 5 m, find the lengths of side BQ and CR. (2)
(B) Find the radius of the circular region which is inscribed in the triangular garden. (2)
Answer:
(A) Given: AP = 5 m
Also, AB = 8 m, BC = 6 m
We know, tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal in length.
∴ AP = AR = 5m,
BP = BQ,
CQ = CR
Now, BQ = BP = AB – AP
= 8 – 5
= 3
and, CR = CQ = BC – BQ
= 6 – 3
= 3 m
∴ BQ = CR = 3 m

(B) Let radius of the circle be r m.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 24
∴ OP = OQ = OR = r m
We have, AB = 8 m, BC = 6 m
Also, AC = 10 m [Applying Pythogoras theorem in ΔABC]

Now,
ar(ΔABC) = ar(ΔAOB) + ar(ΔBOC) + ar(ΔAOC)
⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\) x BC x AB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x AB x OP + \(\frac{1}{2}\) x BC x OQ+ \(\frac{1}{2}\) x AC x OR
⇒\(\frac{1}{2}\) x 6 x 8 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 8 x r + \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 6 x r + \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 10 xr
⇒ 24 = 4r+ 3r+ Sr
⇒ 24 = 12r
⇒ r = 2m
Hence, radius of the cirde is 2 m.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 14.
Case Study-2
A bird bath is a small shallow pond, or fountain, created like a basin in which birds may drink, bathe and cool themselves.

One day, Aniket, a student of class IV, saw some birds drinking water from potholes. He feels sad for them and asked his elder brother, Anshumann, who is in class X, to make a bird-bath. His brother bought some material from their store and prepare a bird bath in the shape of a cylinder with a hemispherical depression at one end as shown in the figure.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 3

If the height of cylinderical part of bird-bath of 1.4 m and diameter of base is 70 cm, then answer the following questions:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions 4

(A) Find the total surface area of the bird-bath. (2)
(B) Find the ratio of the volumes of cylindrical part and the hemispherical parts of the bird bath. (2)
Answer:
We have,
Radius of hemisphere = Radius of cylinder = \(\frac{70}{2}\) = 35 cm
and, Height of cylinder = 1.4 m
= 140 cm
∴ TSA of bird bath = CSA of cylindrical part + Area of base of cylinder + CSA of hemispherical part
= 2πrh + πr2 + 2πr2
= πr(2h + r + 2r)
= πr(2h + 3r)
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 35(2 x 140 + 3 x 35)
= 22 x 5(280 + 105)
= 110 x 385
= 42350 cm2

Volume of cylindrical part = πr2h
Volume of hemispherical part = \(\frac{2}{3}\) ≠ r3
∴ Required ratio = \(\frac{\neq r^{2} h}{\frac{2}{3} \neq r^{3}}=\frac{3 h}{2 r}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 140}{2 \times 35}=\frac{6}{1}\)
Hence, the ratio of volumes of cylindrical and hemispherical parts is 6:1.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course A & B with Solutions 2021-2022 Term 1 & Term 2

Online Education Solved CBSE Hindi Sample Paper Class 10 2021-2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions Answers Course A and Course B 2021-2022 Pdf Download Term 1 & Term 2 will give students an idea about the question paper pattern, frequently asked questions, and on which topics to emphasize more in a subject. Sample Paper of Hindi Class 10th CBSE 2020 will boost their confidence level, and they will feel optimistic about the board exams.

Online Education for Hindi Sample Paper Class 10 2021-2022 with Solutions | CBSE Class 10th Hindi Sample Paper Term 1 & Term 2

According to the new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Carries 20 Marks. Click on the link below to access the Solved Sample Paper of Hindi Class 10 Term 1 & Term 2.

Hindi Sample Paper Class 10 2022 Course A with Solutions Term 2

Hindi Sample Paper Class 10 2021-2022 Course B with Solutions Term 2

Hindi Sample Paper Class 10 2021 Course A with Solutions (Old Pattern)

Hindi Sample Paper Class 10 2020-2021 Course B with Solutions (Old Pattern)

CBSE Class 10 Hindi A Sample Question Paper Design 2022

खंड (Section) प्रश्नों के प्रारूप (Question Type) 2 Marks 2.5 Marks 3 Marks 5 Marks कुल
(Section-wise)

पाठ्यपुस्तक व पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक (Literature)
क्षितिज – गद्य खंड 4Q 20 अंक
क्षितिज – काव्य खंड 3Q
(3 out of 4)
कृतिका 2Q
(2 out of 3)

रचनात्मक लेखन (Writing)
अनुच्छेद लेखन 1Q
(1 out of 3)
20 अंक
पत्र लेखन (औपचारिक अथवा अनौपचारिक) 1Q
(1 out of 2)
विज्ञापन लेखन 2Q
(Internal choice in each)
संदेश लेखन 2Q
(Internal choice in each)
कुल 14 अंक 10 अंक 6 अंक 10 अंक 40 अंक

CBSE Class 10 Hindi B Sample Question Paper Design 2022

खंड (Section) प्रश्नों के प्रारूप (Question Type) 2 Marks 2.5 Marks 3 Marks 4 Marks 5 Marks 6 Marks कुल
(Section-wise)

पाठ्यपुस्तक व पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक (Literature)
स्पर्श 2Q
(2 out of 3)
14 अंक
1Q
(1 out of 2)
संचयन 2Q
(2 out of 3)

रचनात्मक लेखन (Writing)
अनुच्छेद लेखन 1Q
(1 out of 3)
26 अंक
पत्र लेखन (औपचारिक) 1Q
(1 out of 2)
सूचना लेखन 2Q
(Internal choice in each)
विज्ञापन लेखन 2Q
(Internal choice in each)
लघु कथा लेखन 1Q
(1 out of 2)
कुल 4 अंक 10 अंक 6 अंक 4 अंक 10 अंक 6 अंक 40 अंक

We hope these Solved CBSE Hindi Sample Paper Class 10 2021-2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on NCERT Class 10 Hindi Sample Paper 2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 for their exam preparation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Students can access the Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Ma×imum Marks: 40

सामान्य निर्देश :

  • निम्नलिखित निर्देशों को बहुत सावधानी से पढ़िए और उनका पालन कीजिए:
  • इस प्रश्न पत्र में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं।
  • इस प्रश्न पत्र में कुल सात प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। आपको सात प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं।
  • प्रश्नों में आंतरिक विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं। निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए।

कार्यालयी हिंदी और रचनात्मक लेखन [20 अंक]

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित दिए गए तीन शीर्षकों में से किसी एक शीर्षक का चयन कर लगभग 200 शब्दों का एक रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए। (5 × 1 = 5)
(क) प्रातः काल योग करते लोग
(ख) दुर्घटना से देर भली
(ग) जिन्हें जल्दी थी, वे चले गए
उत्तर:
किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 150 शब्दों में रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए:

  • भूमिका – 1 अंक
  • विषयवस्तु – 3 अंक
  • भाषा – 1 अंक

(क) प्रातःकाल योग करते लोग संसार का हर व्यक्ति सदैव सुखी रहकर दीर्घजीवी बनना चाहता है। केवल पौष्टिक भोजन करके मनुष्य सुखी नहीं रह सकता। अच्छे मकान व शान शौकत से रहकर मानव सुखी नहीं रह सकता। सुखी रहने के लिए स्वस्थ शरीर की आवश्यकता होती है, क्योंकि सुख व आनन्द किसी भी बाहरी वस्तु से प्राप्त नहीं होते हैं, वे तो अपने हृदय से ही प्राप्त किए जा सकते हैं। शरीर स्वस्थ न रहने से मन अशान्त रहता है, मनुष्य का स्वभाव चिड़चिड़ा हो जाता है। सर्व-सम्पन्न रहते हुए भी अस्वस्थ शरीर से कोई भी शान्ति प्राप्त नहीं कर सकता। स्वस्थ शरीर के लिए योग अत्यावश्यक है। जिस प्रकार मशीन को चलाने के लिए कलपुर्जी की सार संभाल जरूरी होती है, उसी प्रकार शरीर को चलाने के लिए उसके अंगों का सही होना जरूरी है और ऐसा केवल योग से ही सम्भव है। योग करने का सबसे उत्तम समय है प्रातःकाल।

जब सूर्य की लालिमा से गगन रक्तिम हो रहा हो तो मनुष्य को योग करके अपने शरीर को स्फूर्तियुक्त बनाने का प्रयास करना चाहिए। प्रातःकाल योग करने से मनुष्य के सभी मानसिक क्लेशों का नाश होता है और ध्यान में परिपक्वता आती है। यह मन की चंचलता को दूर करता है और स्मरण-शक्ति में वृद्धि करता है। लम्बे समय तक युवा बने रहने के लिए योग अत्यन्त महत्वपूर्ण है। योग तन-मन को शुद्ध करता है। प्रतिदिन योग करने वाले लोग शारीरिक और मानसिक स्तर पर स्वयं को तरोजाता महसूस करता है। प्रतिदिन योग करने वाले मनुष्य के जीवन में खुशी का संचार होता है। योग उसे महान बना देता है। उसके कार्य करने, सोचने और निर्णय लेने की शैली को श्रेष्ठ बनाता है।

(ख) दुर्घटना से देर भली हर व्यक्ति अपने दैनिक जीवन में कहीं न कहीं आने जाने के लिए सड़क का उपयोग अवश्य करता है। आज के व्यस्त जीवन में सब एक दूसरे से जल्दी अपनी मंजिल पर पहुंचना चाहते हैं जिससे कि रोज बहुत सी दुर्घटनाएँ घटित होती हैं। सड़क यातायात सुरक्षा एक ऐसी विधि है जिसमें नियम बनाकर दुर्घटना को रोका जा सकता है और लोगों को चोट लगने से बचाया जा सकता है। कहा जाता है कि दुर्घटना से देर भली। लोगों के तेज रफ्तार में गाड़ी चलाने, नशे में गाड़ी चलाने की वजह से ज्यादातर दुर्घटना होती है। हर व्यक्ति को जल्दी रहती है। वे जल्दी-से-जल्दी अपने गंतव्य तक पहुंचना चाहते हैं। हर रोज बहुत सी दुर्घटना घटित होती हैं जिससे कि बहुत से लोग अपनी जान खो देते हैं। मरने वाले लोगों में ज्यादातर युवा होते हैं जिससे कि देश अपनी युवा शक्ति को खोता जा रहा है। लोगों के वाहनों को नियंत्रण में रखने में सड़क हादसों को रोकने के लिए सड़क सुरक्षा नियम बनाए गए हैं। जिंदगी एक बार ही मिलती है और यह बहुमूल्य हैं हर व्यक्ति को चाहिए कि वह खुद को भी सुरक्षित करें और दूसरों को भी सुरक्षित रखें। सड़क पर किसी एक व्यक्ति की लापरवाही के कारण दूसरा भी अपनी जिन्दगी खो बैठता है। हम सबको यातयात के नियमों का पालन करना चाहिए। दो पहिया वाहनों को चलाने वालों को हैलमेट अवश्य पहनना चाहिए। यातायात के नियम हमारी सुरक्षा के लिए बनाए गए हैं और हम सबको बोझ न समझकर बल्कि जिम्मेदारी समझना चाहिए। हर नागरिक को चाहिए कि वह अपने साथ-साथ दूसरों को भी यातायात के नियमों का पालन करना सिखाए।

स्कूलों में भी सुरक्षा के इन नियमों के विषय मे बताया जाना चाहिए और अलग अलग स्तर पर परीक्षा भी होती है। जिन्दगी एक बार ही मिलती है और यह बहुमूल्य है। हर व्यक्ति को चाहिए कि वह खुद को भी सुरक्षित करें और दूसरों भी सुरक्षित रखें। सड़क पर किसी एक व्यक्ति की लापरवाही के कारण दूसरा भी अपनी जिन्दगी खो बैठता है। हम सबको यातायात के नियमों का पालन करना चाहिए । दो पहिया वाहनों को चलाने वालों को हेल्मेट अवश्य पहनना चाहिए। यातायात के नियम हमारी सुरक्षा के लिए बनाए गए हैं और हम सबको बोझ न समझकर बल्कि जिम्मेदार समझना चाहिए। हर नागरिक को चाहिए कि वह अपने साथ-साथ दूसरों को भी यातायात के नियमों का पालन करना सिखाए। स्कूलों में भी सुरक्षा के इन नियमों के विषय में बताया जाना चाहिए और अलग- अलग स्तर पर परीक्षा भी होती है।

(ग) जिन्हें जल्दी थी, वे चले गए
रफ्ता-रफ्ता घूम रही दुनिया सारी,
आप हो कर रहे दौड़ने की तैयारी।

यातायात का न कर पालन
वो किधर भी सैर किये,

जिन्हें जाने की बहुत जल्दी थी,
वे दुनिया से चले गये।

उपर्युक्त पंक्तियों से पता चलता है कि जल्दी का काम सदैव ही सुखद परिणाम नहीं देता है। ठीक है कुछ कामों में विलम्ब होना नुकसान देय है किन्तु व्यक्ति को उतनी भी जल्दी नहीं करनी चाहिए कि न आम बचे न गुठली। यद्यपि मैं विचार करता हूँ कि वो मतवाले भी थे जिन्हें जाने की शायद जल्दी ही होगी, तभी तो अपने देश की खातिर भरी जवानी में चले गये और देश को अपना ऋणी बना गये। निश्चित ही वे सरफिरे ही थे जिन्हें देश और हमारी मिट्टी का कर्ज चुकाने की इतनी जल्दी थी कि पूरे देश और देशवासियों को अपना कर्जदार बनाकर चले गये। अनेक क्रान्तिकारी देशभक्त और वीर जवानों की जल्दी तो समझ में आती है किन्तु आज की भागदौड़ में यह कहाँ तक तर्क संगत है कि जल्दी का अर्थ गति से लगाया जाए और बिना यातायात के नियमों का पालन किये सरपट दौड़े जा रहे हैं, और केवल अपने ही नहीं बल्कि दूसरों के प्राणों को भी संकट में डाल देते हैं। शायद उन्हें यातायात नियंत्रक बत्तियाँ और वाहनों में लगे गतिसूचक दिखाई नहीं देते। भारत में सड़क दुर्घटनाओं का आँकड़ा दुनिया में सबसे ऊपर की पंक्ति में दिखाई देता है। उन्हें जल्दी ही तो है जो सबको पीछे छोड़कर खुद ही चले जाने पर अमादा होते हैं।

आँकड़ों की मानें तो अतिगति और यातायात नियमों का अतिक्रमण करने में किशोर और युवा सबसे आगे हैं। वह कौन-सी मंजिल है, जहाँ इन्हें जल्दी पहुँचना है। निर्माण की जल्दी में हो तो समझ में आता है परन्तु विध्वंस की जल्दी तो समझ से परे है। ऊपर से आग में घी डालने का काम आधुनिक तकनीक करती है जो वाहनों की गति को निरन्तर बढ़ाती ही जाती है। और सुरक्षा स्वतः ही घटती जाती है। सरकार भी इस वावत सजगता दिखाती है तो जर्माना बढ़ा देती है, हैलमेट और सीट बैल्ट का प्रयोग पर जोर दिया जाता है, बिल्कुल सही है। इससे जल्दी जाने वालों को शायद गति अवरोध हो परन्तु केवल नियमों को कठिन बनाने और जुर्माना बढ़ाने भर से तो काम नही चलेगा, इसके साथ ही सड़कों की दुर्दशा पर भी ध्यान देना होगा। देश की अधिकांश सड़कें गड्डायुक्त और टूटी-फूटी हैं। पुलों और ओवरब्रिजों की रेलिंग टूटी हुई हैं, जो दुर्घटना का बड़ा कारण बनती है। बचपन से सुनते आ रहे हैं, जल्दी का काम शैतान का है, परन्तु अब तो लगता है कि जल्दी का काम यमराज से भेंट कराता है। जिन्हें जल्दी है वे चले जाते हैं। लेकिन कहाँ चले जाते हैं? क्या उन्हें वहाँ जाना चाहिए था जहाँ वे चले जाते हैं।

आज अति आवश्यक हो गया है कि युवाओं को यातायात नियमों के विषय में अच्छी तरह से बताया जाए । बल्कि यातायात के नियमों को विद्यालयों और महाविद्यालयों के पाठयक्रम में शामिल किया जाना चाहिए। साथ ही माता-पिता और अभिभावकों को भी जागरूक होना पड़ेगा। हम सभी को नियमों का पालन करना होगा। अन्यथा जिन्हें जल्दी थी, वे चले गये और जिन्हें जल्दी होगी वे जल्दी ही चले जायेंगे।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

प्रश्न 2.
अपने क्षेत्र के मुख्य चिकित्सा अधिकारी उनके चिकित्सकों और सहायक कर्मचारियों को कोरोना माल में उनके द्वारा किये गये कार्यों की प्रशंसा और सराहना करते हुए एक पत्र लिखिए। (5 × 1 = 5)
अथवा
बस चालकों की असावधानी से हो रही दुर्घटनाओं पर चिंता व्यक्त करते हुए किसी समाचार पत्र के संपादक को पत्र लिखिए।
उत्तर:
2 में से किसी 1 विषय पर पत्र (लगभग 80-100 शब्दा-सीमा)

  • आरंभ और अंत की औपचारिकताएँ – 1 अंक
  • विषयवस्तु – 3 अंक
  • भाषा – 1 अंक

124, डी ब्लॉक,
नया नगर,
कोटा
दिनांक : 25 जनवरी, 20XX
सेवा में,
श्री मुख्य चिकित्सा अधिकारी जी,
कोटा नगर निगम,
कोटा, राजस्थान।

विषय: कोरोना महामारी के चलते अपने क्षेत्र के सरकारी चिकित्सकों व उनके सहकर्मियों की उनकी अथक सेवाओं के लिए सराहना करते हुए पत्र। महोदय जी,

इस पत्र के माध्यम से मैं आपके सरकारी चिकित्सकों और सहकर्मियों का हार्दिक धन्यवाद करना करना चाहता हूँ। चिकित्सकों और उनके सहकर्मियों ने जिस प्रकार कोरोना महामारी के समय अपने परिवार और स्वयं की परवाह छोड देश के बाकी लोगों के लिए कार्य किया है वह सचमुच सराहनीय है। इस गम्भीर महामारी के समय आपके कर्मचारियों और चिकित्सकों द्वारा दी गई सुविधा के चलते कई सारे मरीज ठीक हो रहे हैं और साथ ही कुछ क्षेत्र ऐसे हैं जहाँ इनकी सेवाओं के चलते यह बीमारी अभी तक अपने पैर नहीं पसार पाई हैं। चिकित्सकों और उनके सहकर्मियों द्वारा समाज को दिए गए योगदान को हम हमेशा याद रखेंगे।
धन्यवाद
विनीत
कख ग.

अथवा

सेवा में,
संपादक महोदय,
दैनिक भास्कर
जयपुर

विषयः बढ़ती जा रही बस दुर्घटना पर चिंता प्रकट ।
महोदय

मैं आपके समाचर पत्र के माध्यम से अपनी और हमारे समाज के लोगों के प्रति चिंता व्यक्त करने जा रहा हूं। यह विषय बेहद गंभीर है। जी, हां महोदय हर वर्ष सड़कों को कभी पानी के पाइपलाइन के लिए खोदा जाता है, तो कभी केवल लाइन के लिए। उसके बाद सड़कों को ठीक नहीं किया जाता है। ऐसे में सड़के बन वे हो जाती है। जिस कारण रुट की बसों को दिक्कत होती है और जल्दबाजी में दुर्घटना की शिकार हो जाती है। आपकी पत्रों के माध्यम से मैं सड़क मंत्री को यह याद करवाना चाहता हूं कि उन्होंने वादा किया था कि सड़क पर कोई गड्ढे नहीं होंगे। फिर गड्ढे क्यों?

जल्द से जल्द सड़क ठीक करवाने की अपील की जा रही है। आशा है कि सरकार अवश्य कार्यवाही करेंगे।

धन्यवाद।
भवदीय
प्रतिष्ठा मेहरा
स्थानीय वासी।

प्रश्न 3.
(क) कहानी की परिभाषा बताते हुए इसके तत्त्वों के नाम लिखें। अथवा नाटक में अभिनय और संवाद योजना के महत्व को रेखांकित कीजिए। (3)
(ख) रेडियो नाटक की अवधि छोटी क्यों रखी जाती है?
अथवा
कहानी में क्लाइमेक्स का क्या महत्व है। (2)
उत्तर:
(क) कहानी गद्य साहित्य की वह सबसे अधिक रोचक एवं लोकप्रिय विधा है, जो जीवन के किसी विशेष पक्ष का मार्मिक, भावनात्मक और कलात्मक वर्णन करती है। “हिन्दी गद्य की वह विधा है जिसमें लेखक किसी घटना, पात्र अथवा समस्या का क्रमबद्ध ब्यौरा देता है, जिसे पढ़कर एक समन्वित प्रभाव उत्पन्न होता है,

उसे कहानी कहते हैं”।

  • कथावस्तु
  • चरित्र-चित्रण
  • कथोपकथन
  • देशकाल
  • भाषा-शैली
  • उद्देश्य

कहानी गद्य साहित्य की वह सबसे अधिक रोचक एवं लोकप्रिय विधा है, जो जीवन के किसी विशेष पक्ष का मार्मिक, भावनात्मक और कलात्मक वर्णन करती है। “हिन्दी गद्य की वह विधा है जिसमें लेखक किसी घटना, पात्र अथवा समस्या का क्रमबद्ध ब्यौरा देता है, जिसे पढ़कर एक समन्वित प्रभाव उत्पन्न होता है,

उसे कहानी कहते हैं।

  • कथावस्तु
  • चरित्र-चित्रण
  • कथोपकथन
  • देशकाल
  • भाषा-शैली
  • उद्देश्य

अथवा

  • अभिनय किसी अभिनेता या अभिनेत्री के द्वारा किया जाने वाला वह कार्य है जिसके द्वारा वे किसी कथा को दर्शाते हैं, साधारणतया किसी पात्र के माध्यम से।
  • अभिनय का उद्देश्य होता है किसी पद या शब्द के भाव को मुख्य अर्थ तक पहुँचा देना; अर्थात् दर्शकों या सामाजिको के हृदय में भाव या अर्थ से अभिभूत करना”।
  • संवाद-नाटक में नाटकार के पास अपनी और से कहने का अवकाश नहीं रहता। वह संवादों द्वारा ही वस्तु का उद्घाटन तथा पात्रों के चरित्र का विकास करता है। अतः इसके संवाद सरल, सुबोध, स्वभाविक तथा पात्रअनुकूल होने चाहिए।

अभिनय किसी अभिनेता या अभिनेत्री के द्वारा किया जाने वाला वह कार्य है जिसके द्वारा वे किसी कथा को दर्शाते हैं, साधारणतया किसी पात्र के माध्यम से। अभिनय का उद्देश्य होता है किसी पद या शब्द के भाव को मुख्य अर्थ तक पहुँचा देना; अर्थात् दर्शकों या सामाजिको के हृदय में भाव या अर्थ से अभिभूत करना”। संवाद-नाटक में नाटककार के पास अपनी और से कहने का अवकाश नहीं रहता। वह संवादों द्वारा ही वस्तु का उद्घाटन तथा पात्रों के चरित्र का विकास करता है। अतः इसके संवाद सरल, सुबोध, स्वभाविक तथा पात्रअनुकूल होने चाहिए । श्रव्य माध्यम में मनुष्य की एकाग्रता सीमित होती

(ख) श्रव्य माध्यम में मनुष्य की एकाग्रता सीमित होती है।

सामन्यतया यह माना जाता है कि मनुष्य की एकाग्रता की अवधि 15-30 मिनट की होती है। इससे अधिक अवधि के लिए मनुष्य की एकाग्रता धीरे-धीरे क्षीण होने लगती है। सिनेमा और नाटक देखने के लिए व्यक्ति बोर होने पर भी अपनी मर्जी से वहाँ से उठ कर नहीं जाता। इसके विपरीत रेडियो नाटक सुनने से बोर होने वाले व्यक्ति का ध्यान आसानी से कहीं भी भटक सकता है इसलिए रेडियो नाटक की अवधि छोटी रखी जाती है।

अथवा

चरम उत्कर्ष या क्लाइमेक्स कहानी का अंतिम तत्त्व होता है। इसमें कहानी के उद्देश्य की अभिव्यक्ति होती है। कहानी का उद्देश्य मनोरंजन के साथ-साथ जीवन-संबंधी अनुभूतियों से मानव-मन का निकट परिचय कराना है। चरम उत्कर्ष या क्लाइमेक्स कहानी का अंतिम तत्त्व होता है। इसमें कहानी के उद्देश्य की अभिव्यक्ति होती है। कहानी का उद्देश्य मनोरंजन के साथ-साथ जीवन-संबंधी अनुभूतियों से मानव-मन का निकट परिचय कराना है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

प्रश्न 4.
(क) समाचार लेखन की रचना प्रक्रिया को स्पष्ट कीजिए।
अथवा
फीचर कैसे लिखा जाता है। (3)
उत्तर:

  • उल्टा पिरामिड शैली
  • इंट्रो, बॉडी और समापन

समाचार लेखन की शैली उल्टा-पिरामिड शैली कहलाती है। यह शैली कहानी या कथा लेखन की शैली के ठीक विपरीत लिखी जाती है। इसमें क्लाईमेक्स सबसे अंत में आता है। उल्टा पिरामिड शैली में इंट्रो या मुखड़ा आरंभ में आता है। इस भाग में किसी भी घटना या जानकारी सबसे पहले लिखा जाता है। उसके बाद बॉडी के अंतर्गत कम महत्वपूर्ण सूचना आती है। अंत में समापन के अंतर्गत सूचना की समाप्ति होती है।

अथवा

फीचर लेखन किसी कहानी, उपन्यास की तरह ही कुछ बिंदुओं पर आधारित होता है-आंरभ, मध्य, चरम, समापन, भाषा-शैली, नेता तथा निष्कर्ष । फीचर लेखन का आरंभ किसी घटना, यात्रा आदि पर आधारित होता है। आरंभ में पाठक को कुछ ऐसी घटना का जिक्र करना चाहिए जिससे पूरा लेख पढ़ने की उत्सुकता पाठक के मन में बरकरार रहे। फीचर लेखन किसी कहानी, उपन्यास की तरह ही कुछ बिंदुओं पर आधारित होता है-आंरभ, मध्य, चरम, समापन, भाषा-शैली, नेता तथा निष्कर्ष । फीचर लेखन का आरंभ किसी घटना, यात्रा आदि पर आधारित होता है। आरंभ में पाठक को कुछ ऐसी घटना का जिक्र करना चाहिए जिससे पूरा लेख पढ़ने की उत्सुकता पाठक के मन में बरकरार रहे। समाचार और फीचर में प्रमुख अंतर प्रस्तुतीकरण की शैली और विषयवस्तु की मात्रा का होता है। जहाँ उल्टा पिरामिड शैली में लिखा गया। समाचार किसी विषय अथवा घटना को संक्षिप्त रूप में प्रस्तुत करता है, वहीं फीचर उस समाचार को विस्तार से प्रस्तुत करता है।

(ख) समाचार और फीचर में मुख्य अन्तर क्या होता
अथवा
समाचार लेखन के छ: ककार कौन-से हैं? (2)
उत्तर:
समाचार और फीचर में प्रमुख अंतर प्रस्तुतीकरण की शैली और विषयवस्तु की मात्रा का होता है। जहाँ उल्टा पिरामिड शैली में लिखा गया। समाचार किसी विषय अथवा घटना को संक्षिप्त रूप में प्रस्तुत करता है, वहीं फीचर उस समाचार को विस्तार से प्रस्तुत करता है।

अथवा

चार ककार (क्या, कब, कौन, कहाँ) सूचनात्मक व अन्तिम दो ककार (क्यों, कैसे) विवरणात्मक होते हैं।
समाचार लेखन में प्रायः छह ककार होते हैं- क्या, कब, कौन, कहाँ, क्यों और कैसे। किसी घटना या सूचना को लिखने के लिए इन ककारों को ही आधार बनाया जाता है। इंट्रो में चार ककार-क्या, कौन, कब और कहाँ का प्रयोग किया जाता है। इसके बाद समाचार की बॉडी में और समापन के पहले बाकी दो ककारों-कैसे और क्यों का जवाब दिया जाता है। इनमें से पहले दो ककार सूचनात्मक और तथ्यों पर आधारित होते हैं जबकि बाकी दो ककार विवरणात्मक, व्याख्यात्मक और विश्लेषणात्मक होते

पाठ्यपुस्तक आरोह भाग-2 तथा अनुपूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक वितान भाग-2 [20 अंक]

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 × 2 = 6)
(क) शमशेर की कविता ‘उषा’ गाँव के जीवन का जीवंत चित्रण है। पुष्टि कीजिए।
उत्तर:
राख से लीपा हुआ चौका बहुत काली सिल स्लेट पर या लाल खड़िया चाक मलना किसी की गौर झिलमिल देह का हिलना सूर्योदय से पहले आकाश का रंग शंख जैसा नीला था, उसके बाद आकाश राख से लीपे चौके जैसा हो गया। सुबह की नमी के कारण वह गीला प्रतीत होता है। सूर्य की प्रारंभिक किरणों से आकाश ऐसा लगा मानो काली सिल पर थोड़ा लाल केसर डालकर उसे धो दिया गया हो या फिर काली स्लेट पर लाल खड़िया मिट्टी मल दी गई हो । सूर्योदय के समय सूर्य का प्रतिबिंब ऐसा लगता है जैसे नीले स्वच्छ जल में किसी गोरी युवती का प्रतिबिंब झिलमिला रहा हो।

(ख) ‘कवितावली’ के अधार पर सिद्ध कीजिए कि तुलसीदास को अपने समय की आर्थिक-सामाजिक समस्याओं की समझ थी।
उत्तर:
‘कवितावली’ में उद्धृत छंदों के अध्ययन से पता चलता है कि तुलसीदास को अपने युग की ठ्यपुस्तक वितान भाग-2 20 अका आर्थिक विषमता की अच्छी समझ है। उन्होंने समाकलीन समाज का यथार्थपरक चित्रण किया है। वे समाज के विभिन्न वगों का वर्णन करते हैं जो कई तरह के कार्य करके अपना निर्वाह करते हैं। तुलसी दास तो यहाँ तक बताते हैं कि पेट भरने के लिए लोग गलत-सही सभी कार्य करते हैं। उनके समय में भयंकर गरीबी व बेरोजगारी थी। गरीबी के कारण लोग अपनी संतानों तक को बेच देते थे। बेरोजगारी इतनी अधिक थी कि लोगों को भीख तक नहीं मिलती थी। दरिद्रता रूपी रावण ने हर तरफ हाहाकार मचा रखा था। ‘कवितावली’ में उद्धृत छंदों के अध्ययन से पता चलता है कि तुलसीदास को अपने युग की आर्थिक विषमता की अच्छी समझ है। उन्होंने समाकलीन समाज का यथार्थपरक चित्रण किया है। वे समाज के विभिन्न वगों का वर्णन करते हैं जो कई तरह के कार्य करके अपना निर्वाह करते हैं। तुलसी दास तो यहाँ तक बताते हैं कि पेट भरने के लिए लोग गलत-सही सभी कार्य करते हैं। उनके समय में भयंकर गरीबी व बेरोजगारी थी। गरीबी के कारण लोग अपनी संतानों तक को बेच देते थे। बेरोजगारी इतनी अधिक थी कि लोगों को भीख तक नहीं मिलती थी। दरिद्रता रूपी रावण ने हर तरफ हाहाकार मचा रखा था।

(ग) फिराज की गलज में अपना परदा खोलने से क्या आशय है?
उत्तर:
परदा खोलने से आशय है-अपने बारे में बताना । यदि कोई व्यक्ति किसी दूसरे की निंदा करता है या बुराई करता है। तो वह स्वयं की बुराई कर रहा है इसीलिए शायर ने कहा कि मेरा परदा खोलने वाले अपना परदा खोल रहे हैं। परदा खोलने से आशय है-अपने बारे में बताना । यदि कोई व्यक्ति किसी दूसरे की निंदा करता है या बुराई करता है। तो वह स्वयं की बुराई कर रहा है इसीलिए शायर ने कहा कि मेरा परदा खोलने वाले अपना परदा खोल रहे हैं।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित चार प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 × 3 = 9)
(क) जाति प्रथा को श्रम विभाजन का ही एक अंग न ‘मानने के पीछे डॉ. आंबेडकर के क्या तर्क थे?
उत्तर:

  • जाति प्रथा श्रम का ही विभाजन नहीं करती बल्कि यह श्रमिक को भी बाँट देती है।
  • जाति प्रथा में श्रम का जो विभाजन किया गया है, वह व्यक्ति की रुचि को ध्यान में रखकर नहीं किया गया है।
  • जाति प्रथा में पेशे का निर्धारण एक मनुष्य को जीवनभर के लिए दे दिया जाता है।
  • जाति प्रथा श्रम का ही विभाजन नहीं करती बल्कि यह श्रमिक को भी बाँट देती है। ।
  • जाति प्रथा में श्रम का जो विभाजन किया गया है, वह व्यक्ति की रुचि को ध्यान में रखकर नहीं किया गया है।
  • जाति प्रथा में पेशे का निर्धारण एक पनुष्य को जीवनभर के लिए दे दिया जाता है।

(ख) नमक कहानी में नमक की पुड़िया इतनी महत्वपूर्ण क्यों हो गयी थी? कस्टम अधिकारी उसे लौटाते हुए भावुक क्यों हो उठा था?
उत्तर:
इस कहानी में नमक की पुड़िया के महत्त्पूर्ण बनने का यह कारण है कि भारत-पाक के बीच नमक का व्यापार गैरकानूनी था। दूसरे, यह विभाजन की यादों से जुड़ी है। कस्टम अधिकारी नमक की पुड़िया लौटाते हुए भावुक हो उठा क्योंकि हर व्यक्ति को जन्मभूमि से लगाव होता है। उस प्रेम की अनुभूति से वह भावुक हो उठा। इस कहानी में नमक की पुड़िया के महत्त्पूर्ण बनने का यह कारण है कि भारत-पाक के बीच नमक का व्यापार गैरकानूनी था। दूसरे, यह विभाजन की यादों से जुड़ी है। कस्टम अधिकारी नमक की पुड़िया लौटाते हुए भावुक हो उठा क्योंकि हर व्यक्ति को जन्मभूमि से लगाव होता है। उस प्रेम की अनुभूति से वह भावुक हो उठा।

(ग) बाबा भीमराव आंबेडकर के अनुसार उनकी कल्पना का आदर्श समाज कैसा होना चाहिए? अपने शब्दों में अभिव्यक्त करें।
उत्तर:

  • उनका यह आदर्श समाज स्वतंत्रता, समता व भ्रातृता पर आधारित होगा। बाबा भीमराव आम्बेडकर के अनुसार उनकी कल्पना के आदर्श समाज में निम्नलिखित बातें होनी चाहिए
  • उनका यह आदर्श समाज स्वतंत्रता, समता व भ्रातृता पर आधारित होगा।
  • उस समाज में गतिशीलता होनी चाहिए जिससे कोई भी वांछित परिवर्तन समाज के एक छोर से दूसरे तक संचारित हो सके।
    ऐसे समाज के बहुविधि हितों में सबका भाग होगा तथा सबको उनकी रक्षा के प्रति सजग रहना चाहिए।
  • सामाजिक जीवन में अवाध संपर्क के अनेक साधन व अवसर उपलब्ध रहने चाहिए। डॉ. आंबेडकर के विचार निश्चित रूप से क्रांतिकारी हैं, परंतु व्यवहार में यह बेहद कठिन हैं। व्यक्तिगत गुणों के कारण जो वर्ग समाज पर कब्ज़ा किए हुए हैं, वे अपने विशेषाधिकारों को आसानी से नहीं छोड़ सकते। यह समाज कुछ सीमा तक ही स्थापित हो सकता है।

(घ) ‘ढोल में जो जैसे पहलवान की जान बसी थी।’ ‘पहलवान की ढोलक’ पाठ के आधार पर तर्क सहित पंक्ति को सिद्ध कीजिए।
उत्तर:
पहलवान का सारा जीवन ही ढोल की आवाज़ से उठता-गिरता है, पहलवान की ढोलक पूरे गाँव में संजीवनी बूटी का कार्य करती है, ढोल की थाप से पहलवान की कुश्ती के दाँव-पेंच निश्चित होते थे। लुट्टन सिंह जब जवानी के जोश में आकर चाँद सिंह नामक मैंजे हुए पहलवान को ललकार बैठा तो सारा जनसमूह, राजा और पहलवानों का समूह आदि की यह धारणा थी कि यह कच्चा किशोर जिसने कुश्ती कभी सीखी नहीं है, पहले दाँव में ही ढेर हो जाएगा। हालाँकि लुट्न सिंह की नसों में बिजली और मन में जीत का जज्बा उबाल खा रहा था। उसी थाप का अनुसरण करते हुए उसने ‘शेर के बच्चे को खूब धोया, उठा-उठाकर पटका और हरा दिया। इस जीत में एकमात्र ढोल ही उसके साथ था। अतः जीतकर वह सबसे पहले ढोल के पास दौड़ा और उसे प्रणाम किया।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 + 2 = 5)
(क) एन फ्रैंक की डायरी किट्टी को सम्बोधित कर ही क्यों लिखी गई है? यह डायरी वह किसी अपने को भी सम्बोधित कर सकती थी, तर्क सहित उत्तर दीजिए।
अथवा
मोहनजोदड़ो की सभ्यता को लो-प्रोफाइल सभ्यता क्यों माना गया है? (3)
उत्तर:
अपनी डायरी में अपनी गुड़िया को वह पत्र लिखती है। गुड़िया को पत्र लिखते हुए अपरोक्ष रूप से वह खुद से ही बातें करती है। वह जानती है। कि जिन बातों को वह लिख रही है, शायद उन्हें दूसरे व्यक्ति ठीक ढंग से न समझ पायें। इसीलिए उसे अपनी गुड़िया को संबोधित करते हुए पत्र लिखना पड़ा। अपनी डायरी में अपनी गुड़िया को वह पत्र लिखती है। गुड़िया को पत्र लिखते हुए अपरोक्ष रूप से वह खुद से ही बातें करती है। वह जानती है। कि जिन बातों को वह लिख रही है, शायद उन्हें दूसरे व्यक्ति ठीक ढंग से न समझ पायें। इसीलिए उसे अपनी गुड़िया को संबोधित करते हुए पत्र लिखना पड़ा।

अथवा

लेखक ने सिंधु सभ्यता को ‘लो प्रोफाइल’ सभ्यता कहा है। संसार के अन्य स्थानों पर खुदाई करने से राजतंत्र को प्रदर्शित करने वाले महल, धर्म की ताकत दिखाने वाले पूजा स्थल, मूर्तियाँ तथा पिरामिड मिले हैं। मोहनजोदड़ो में ऐसी कोई चीज नहीं मिली है जो राजसत्ता या धर्म के प्रभाव को दर्शाती है। लेखक ने सिंधु सभ्यता को ‘लो प्रोफाइल’ सभ्यता कहा है। संसार के अन्य स्थानों पर खुदाई करने से राजतंत्र को प्रदर्शित करने वाले महल, धर्म की ताकत दिखाने वाले पूजा स्थल, मूर्तियाँ तथा पिरामिड मिले हैं। मोहनजोदड़ो में ऐसी कोई चीज नहीं मिली है जो राजसत्ता या धर्म के प्रभाव को दर्शाती है। अकेलापन ही ऐन फ्रैंक के डायरी लेखन का कारण बना। यद्यपि वह अपने परिवार और वॉन दंपत्ति के साथ अज्ञातवास में दो वर्षों तक रही लेकिन इस दौरान किसी ने उसकी भावनाओं को समझने का प्रयास नहीं किया। पीटर यद्यपि उससे प्यार करता है लेकिन केवल दोस्त की तरह। जबकि हर किसी की शारीरिक जरूरतें होती हैं लेकिन पीटर इसकी इस जरूरत को नहीं समझ सकता । माता-पिता और बहनें ने भी कभी उसकी भावनाओं को गम्भीरता से नहीं। समझती शायद इसकी कारण वह डायरी लिखने लगी।

(ख) “काश, कोई तो होता जो मेरी भावनाओं को गम्भीरता से समझ पाता। अफसोस, ऐसा व्यक्ति मुझे अब तक नहीं मिला।” एन फ्रैंक की इस पंक्ति का आशय स्पष्ट करें।
अथवा
सिंधु सभ्यता के केन्द्र में समाज था, राजा या धर्म नहीं! सिद्ध कीजिए। (2)
उत्तर:
अकेलापन ही ऐन फ्रैंक के डायरी लेखन का कारण बना। यद्यपि वह अपने परिवार और वॉन दंपत्ति के साथ अज्ञातवास में दो वर्षों तक रही लेकिन इस दौरान किसी ने उसकी भावनाओं को समझने का प्रयास नहीं किया। पीटर यद्यपि उससे प्यार करता है लेकिन केवल दोस्त की तरह। जबकि हर किसी की शारीरिक जरूरतें होती हैं लेकिन पीटर इसकी इस जरूरत को नहीं समझ सकता। माता-पिता और बहनें ने भी कभी उसकी भावनाओं को गम्भीरता से नहीं। समझती शायद इसकी कारण वह डायरी लिखने लगी।

अथवा

इस सभ्यता को लेखक ने साधन-सम्पन्न माना है। इस सभ्यता ने भव्यता को महत्व नहीं दिया है। एक कलात्मकता को महत्व देती है। हम हम कह सकते हैं कि यहाँ के लोग बोध कला में रूचि रखते हैं। यहाँ की नगर व्यवस्था, पतीर तथा धातु से बनी मूर्तियाँ, पशु-पक्षियों की आकृतियाँ, सुन्दर मुहरें, खिलौने, बालों को संवारने का कंघा, गहने इत्यादि इसके सौन्दर्य बोध का प्रमाण देते हैं। यहाँ पर आपको राजचिन्ह या धर्म से सम्बन्धित चिन्ह नहीं मिलते हैं। यदि मिलते होते तो इसकी स्थिति बिल्कुल अलग होती। यहाँ आम जनता से जुड़े चिन्ह अधिक बिखरे हुए हैं। जिनका सौन्दर्य बोध इसी कारण विद्यमान है। यह सभ्यता हर तरह से समाज पोष्ज्ञित सभ्यता को दर्शाती है। यहाँ तक ताकत के चिन्ह नहीं मिलते। यह सभ्यता आपसी समझ के कारण लम्बे समय तक चली। यह आडम्बर रहित है। इस सभ्यता को लेखक ने साधन-सम्पन्न माना है। इस सभ्यता ने भव्यता को महत्व नहीं दिया है।

एक कलात्मकता को महत्व देती है। हम हम कह सकते हैं कि यहाँ के लोग बोध कला में रूचि रखते हैं। यहाँ की नगर व्यवस्था, पतीर तथा धातु से बनी मूर्तियाँ, पशु-पक्षियों की आकृतियाँ, सुन्दर मुहरें, खिलौने, बालों को संवारने का कंघा, गहने इत्यादि इसके सौन्दर्य बोध का प्रमाण देते हैं। यहाँ पर आपको राजचिन्ह या धर्म से सम्बन्धित चिन्ह नहीं मिलते हैं। यदि मिलते होते तो इसकी स्थिति बिल्कुल अलग होती। यहाँ आम जनता से जुड़े चिन्ह अधिक बिखरे हुए हैं। जिनका सौन्दर्य बोध इसी कारण विद्यमान है। यह सभ्यता हर तरह से समाज पोष्ज्ञित सभ्यता को दर्शाती है। यहाँ तक ताकत के चिन्ह नहीं मिलते। यह सभ्यता आपसी समझ के कारण लम्बे समय तक चली । यह आडम्बर रहित है।