Category: CBSE Class 12

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 7 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 7

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Chemistry is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions

• All questions are compulsory.
• Question number 1 to 5 are very short answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
• Question number 6 to 10 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
• Question number 11 to 22 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
• Question number 23 is a value based question and carry 4 marks.
• Question number 24 to 26 are long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
• Use log table, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Which of the 3d series element of the transition metals exhibits the largest number of oxidation state?

Question 2.
Write IUPAC name of the following compound:
PhCH = CHCHO

Question 3.
In a reaction, 2A → Products, the concentration of reactant-‘A’ decreases from 0.5 mol L^-1 to 0.4 mol L^-1 in 10 minutes. Calculate the average rate during this time interval.

Question 4.
Write the structure and reaction for preparation of semicarbazone of cylcobutanone.

Question 5.
Write Freundlich’s relation for adsorpion in solution.

Question 6.
Complete the following reactions

1. AgCl (s) + NH₃ (aq) →
2. XeF₂ + H₂O →

OR

1. S + HNO₃ (conc.) →
2. P₄ + NaOH →

Question 7.
Define the following terms:

1. Isotonic solutions
2. Azeotropic solutions

Question 8.
Draw the structures of the following:
(a) IF^–₄
(b) PF⁺₄

Question 9.
For the following reaction,find the standard Gibbs energy.

Question 10.
Write the equation involved in the following reactions:

1. Coupling reaction
2. Ammonolysis

Question 11.
420 g of liquid A (molar mass 140 g mol^-1) was dissolved in 900 g of liquid B (molar mass 180 g mol^-1). The vapour pressure of pure liquid B was found to be 500 torr. Calculate the vapour pressure of pure liquid A and its vapour pressure in the solution, if the total vapour pressure of the solution is 487.5 torr.

Question 12.
The electric resistance of a column of 0.05 mol L^-1 NaOH solution of diameter 1 cm and length 50 cm is 5.55 × 10³ ohm. Calculate its resistivity, conductivity and molar conductivity.

Question 13.
Explain [Fe(CN)₆]^4- and [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ are of different colours in dilute solution.

Question 14.
Discuss the effect of temperature and pressure on the physisorption & chemisorption, in case of adsorption of gases on solid surface. Describe its applications in controlling humidity.

Question 15.
The initial concentration of N₂O₅ in the following first order reaction:
N₂O₅ (g) → 2NO₂ (g) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) O₂ (g) was 1.24 × 10^-2 mol L^-1 at 318 K
The concentration of N₂O₅ after 60 minutes was 0.20 × 10^-2 mol L^-1. Calculate the rate constant of the reaction at 318 K.

Question 16.
Arrange according to the given instruction in increasing order:
(a) CH₃CH₂CH₂Br, CH₃CH₂ – CH₂ – Cl, CH₂ = CH – CH₂F (for S_N2 reaction)
(b) CH₃ = CH CH(Br) CH₃, CH₃CH₂CH (Br) CH₃, CH₂ = CH – Br (for S_N1 reaction)
(c) C₆H₅Cl, p-C₆H₄Cl(NO₂), C₆H₁₁Cl (cyclohexyl chloride) (for S_E reaction)

Question 17.
Write the reaction involved in the following process:
(a) Leaching of bauxite ore to prepare pure Alumina
(b) Refining of zirconium by Van-Arkel method
(c) Recovery of gold from its leached ore with NaCN solution.

Question 18.
Give the structures of A,B and C in the following reactions

Question 19.
Write the structures of the monomers of the following polymers:
(a) Nylon 6, 6
(b) PHBV
(c) Nylon, 2, 6

Question 20.
Answer the following questions:

1. Why do soap not work in hard water?
2. What are analgesics?
3. What are antacids?

Question 21.
Assign suitable reason for the following:

1. N₂ is less reactive at room temperature.
2. H₂S is less acidic than H₂Te.
3. Halogens are strong oxiding agents.

Question 22.
Carry out the following conversions in not more than 2 steps:
(a) Ethanol to 3-Hydroxybutanal
(b) Benzaldehyde to Benzophenone
(c) Benzaldehyde to 3-phenyl propar -1-ol

Question 23.
Seeing the growing cases of diabetes and depression among young children, Mr. Lugani, the principal of a reputed school organised a seminar in which he invited parents and principals. They all resolved this issue by strictly banning junk food in schools and introducing healthy snacks and drinks like soup, lassi, milk etc. in school canteens. They also decided to make compulsory half an hour of daily physical activities for the students in the morning assembly. After six months Mr. Lugani conducted the health survey in most of the schools and discovered a tremendous improvement in the health of the students. After reading the above passage, answer the following question:

1. What are the values [at least two] displayed by Mr. Lugani?
2. As the student how can you spread awareness about such issues?
3. What are antidepressant drugs? Give one example.
4. Name the sweetening agent used in the preparation of sweets for a diabetic patient.

Question 24.
Account for the following:
(a) La³⁺ (Z = 57) and Lu³⁺ (Z = 71) do not show any colour in the solution.
(b) There are irregularities in the electronic configuration of actinoids.
(c) There is great horizontal similarity in the properties of the transition elements than those of the main group elements.
(d) Write the reactions involved in preparation of KMnO₄ from pyrolusite ore.
OR

1. Compare the chemistry of actinoids with that of lanthanoids with reference to:
   1. atomic size
   2. oxidation state
   3. chemical reactivity
2. Indicate the steps in the preparation of K₂Cr₂O₇ from chromite ore.

Question 25.
(a) Niobium (93 amu) crystallises in bcc structure. Its density is 8.55 g cm^-3. Calculate the atomic radii of niobium.
(b) What are the two main non stoichiometric defects? Name these defects and explain with a suitable example.
OR
(a) What is meant by intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors?
(b) If KCl is doped with 5 × 10^-2 mol % of TlCl₃, what is the concentration of cation vacancies.

Question 26.

(b) Nitration of phenol gives only o and p-product. Give reason
OR
(a) Identify A,B & C:

(b) (i) Anisole is treated with HI, what are the resultant products?
(ii) Write IUPAC name of salicylaldehyde.

Answers

Answer 1.
Mn (Manganese)

Answer 2.
3-Phenyl prop-2-enal

Answer 3.
Rate = \(\frac { 0.4-0.5 }{ 10 } =-\frac { 0.1 }{ 10 } \) = – 0.01 mol L^-1 minute^-1

Answer 4.

Answer 5.

where \(\frac { x }{ m }\) = mass of adsorbate per unit mass of adsorbent m
n = number of layers of adsorption
C = concentration (mol L^-1)
K = Constant for adsorption

Answer 6.

1. AgCl (s) + NH₃ (aq) → [Ag(NH₃)₂]Cl
2. 2XeF₂ + 2H₂O → 2Xe(g) + 4HF + O₂ (g)

OR

1. S + HNO₃ (conc.) → H₂SO₄ + NO₂ + H₂O
2. P₄ + NaOH → PH₃ + NaH₂PO₂

Answer 7.

1. Isotonic solutions : Two solutions having same osmotic pressure at a given temperature are called isotonic solutions.
2. Azeotropic solutions : Some liquids on mixing form azeotropes which are the binary mixtures having the same composition in liquid and in the vapour phase and boils at a constant temperature. Such solutions are known as azeotropic solutions.

Answer 8.

Answer 9.
The reaction is
2Cr(s) + 3Cd²⁺ (aq) → 2Cr³⁺(aq) + 3Cd(s)

= -0.40 V – (- 0.74 V) = + 0.34 V
Change in number of electrons = +6
ΔG° = – nFE°
= -6 × 96500 × 0.34 = 196860 J/mole

Answer 10.

1. Coupling reaction : When benzene diazonium chloride reacts with aniline or phenol, orange azo dye in formed. This reaction is known as coupling reaction.
   
2. Ammonolysis : When alkyl halide reacts with NH₃, amines are formed. Such reactions are known to be ammonolysis.
   C₂H₅Cl + NH₃ → C₂H₅NH₂ + HCl

Answer 11.

Answer 12.

Answer 13.
Fe (28) = [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s²
Fe²⁺ → [Ar] 3d⁶
Arrangement of electrons in [Fe(CN)₆]^4- and [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is as follows:

It does not have any unpaired electron so it is white in colour.

There are 4 unpaired electrons which makes this complex coloured.

Answer 14.
Effect of Temperature on physisorption and Chemisorption : On increasing the temperature, physisorption decreases due to increase in kinetic energy of adsorbate. On the other hand chemisorption increases initially with increase in temperature. The reason being it provides activation energy for the chemical adsorption and after that desorption takes place like physisorption.

Effect of pressure : On increasing the pressure physisorption increases initially with a very fast rate and slowly it decreases.
But in case of chemisorption initial increase in pressure increases the extent of adsorption, but after that the extent of adsorption becomes constant.

Applications of adsorption in controlling humidity : Silica gel adsorbs moisture from air which helps control humidity.

Answer 15.
From question: At 318 K,
At t = 0, [N₂O₅] = 1.24 × 10^-2 mol L^-1
At t = 60 minutes, [N₂O₅] = 0.20 × 10^-2 mol L^-1
Calculate K = ?
For a first order reaction

K = 0.03 min^-1

Answer 16.
(a) CH₃CH₂CH₂-Cl < CH₃CH₂CH₂Br < CH₂ = CH-CH₂F

Answer 17.
(a) Al₂O₃ + NaOH(aq) → Na[Al(OH)₄] (aq)
Na[Al(OH)₄ ] \(\xrightarrow [ { CO }_{ 2 } ]{ dilution }\) Al₂O₃ . xH₂O (s) + NaHCO₃
Al₂O₃ . xH₂O(s) \(\underrightarrow { 1470K } \) Al₂O₃ (s) + xH₂O
(b) Van Arkel process :

Answer 18.

Answer 19.

Answer 20.

1. Soap forms scum with hard water:
   
2. Analgesics : Class of drugs used to reduce pain without causing impairment of consciousness, mental confusion etc.
3. The drug which curtails excess acid formation in stomach, which causes irritation and pain are known as antacids.

Answer 21.

1. Due to strong triple bond (pπ-pπ multiple bonding) between two nitrogen atoms, it is less reactive at room temperature.
2. E-H bond length increases down the group, hence H₂Te is more acidic than H₂S.
3. Due to high electron gain enthalpy and lower bond dissociation enthalpy of halogens, these acts as strong oxidising agents.

Answer 22.

Answer 23.

1. Concern for health and well being of students, creating awareness, social responsibility, sense of belongingness etc.
2. As a student one can talk to friends, share it on social media, placing posters etc. on classroom and school notice board.
3. Tranquilizers are the antidepressant drugs. A few examples are → Iproniazid, phenelzine etc.
4. Sucralose

Answer 24.
(a)

1. Electronic configuration. La³⁺ → [Xe] 4f⁰ and Lu³⁺ → [Xe] 4f¹⁴
   Since in both of these ions there is no unpaired electron, so they do not show any colour in the solution.
2. Due to comparable energy of 5f, 6d and 7s orbitals, there is more irregularity in electronic configuration of actinoids.
3. In transition elements, electrons are filled in the same atomic orbital which has the poor shielding effect and hence there is not much difference in properies in a series. On the other hand, there is all together different properties of main group elements due to lack of d-orbitals, multiple bond formation, different bond enthalpy etc.

(b) Reactions involved in the preparation of KMnO₄ :

OR
(a) Comparison of Lanthanoids and Actinoids:

1. Atomic size : Atomic size of both the series decreases from left to right but decrease is more in case of actinoids from element to element due to poorer shielding effect of 5if electrons.
2. Oxidation state : Lanthanoids show +3 as general oxidation state except +2(Eu, Yb) and +4 (Ce etc.) for some elements. But actinoids show variable oxidation state from +3 to +7, (Although +3 and +4 are most common).
3. Chemical reactivity : Actinoids are more reactive than lanthanoids due to bigger atomic size and lower ionisation energy as well as comparable energy of 5f, 6d and 7s orbitals, variable oxidation is also responsible for their more reactivity.

(b) Preparation of K₂Cr₂O₇ :
Step I: Chromite ore is mixed with Na₂CO₃ and heated to melt as O₂ gas is passed to give sodium chromate

Step II : Acidification of sodium chromate

Step III : Treatment with KCl

Answer 25.
(a) For bcc arrangement, Z = 2 and √3a = 4r.
density (d) – 8.55 g cm^-3, atomic mass = 93 g mol^-1 atomic radii = ?
d = \(\frac { ZM }{ { a }^{ 3 }{ N }_{ A } } \)

(b) Non stoichiometric defects are of two types, depending upon whether positive or negative ions are in excess. These defects are known as:

1. metal excess defect;
2. metal deficiency defect

1. Metal excess defect : When negative ion is missing from its lattice site and creates a hole which is occupied by the electron to maintain the electrical neutrality, e.g. NaCl crystals , turns yellow if excess of Na is present.
2. Metal deficiency defect : In many solids due to variable oxidation state it is difficult to prepare them in pure state and as a result there is a metal deficiency, e.g. due to Fe⁺² and Fe³⁺ state of iron, there are always chances of formation of compounds like Fe_0.95O, Fe_0.98O etc.
OR

(a) Intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors : Pure substances like silicon and germanium shows an increase in electrical conductivity with increase in temperature and they are called intrinsic semiconductors.
On the other hand small quantity of arsenic boron, etc. when introduced in substances like silicon, germanium the conductivity of the substance is significantly increased and such substances are known as extrinsic semiconductors. These are the two types: n-type and p-type semiconductors.

(b) In TlCl₃, Tl³⁺ ions are there, to accomodate such ions in KCl lattice three K⁺ ions needs to be replaced for electrical neutrality. It means there will be two vacancies for each Tl³⁺ ion. Hence for
5 × 10^-2 mol % TlCl₃ doping → 2 × 5 × 10^-2 cation vacancies will be generated.
Concentration of cation Vacancies = 2 × \(\frac { { 5\times 10 }^{ -2 } }{ 100 } \) × 6.002 × 10²³ = 6.022 × 10²⁰

Answer 26.

(b) In resonance structures of phenol, negative charge appears on ortho and para position, hence electrophilic substitution reaction is possible only on these two positions.

OR

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 7

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Biology is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. There are total 26 questions and five sections in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A contains question number 1 to 5, Very Short Answer Type Questions of one mark each.
3. Section B contains question number 6 to 10, Short Answer Type Questions of two marks each.
4. Section C contains question number 11 to 22, Short Answer Type Questions of three marks each.
5. Section D contains question number 23, Value Based Question of four mark.
6. Section E contains question number 24 to 26, Long Answer Type Questions of five marks each.
7. There is no overall choice in the question paper, however, an internal choice is provided in one question of two marks, one question of three marks and all three questions of five marks. An examiner is to attempt any one of the question out of the two given in the question paper with the same question number.
8. No. of printed pages are three.

SECTION-A

Question 1.
A human zygote has XXY sex chromosomes along with 22 pairs of autosomes. What sex will the individual be?

Question 2.
Define linkage.

Question 3.
What is Brood Parasitism?

Question 4.
Which enzyme is known as ‘molecular scissors’?

Question 5.
Expand ELISA.

 SECTION-B

Question 6.
Give an account of surgical sterilization methods in males and females.

Question 7.
What are biological response modifiers?

Question 8.
What are histones?

Question 9.
What is soluble RNA? Illustrate.

Question 10.
What are the pre-fertilisation events in plants?

SECTION-C

Question 11.
Write the importance of bagging of unisexual flowers in crop improvement programme.

Question 12.
Elaborate the asexual mode of reproduction in the following:
(a) Chalmydomonas
(b) Hydra
(c) Yeast

Question 13.
What are the symptoms of the disease which are confirmed by a Widal test?

OR

What are the complexities involved in transcription of eukaryotic DNA?

Question 14.
Describe the responsibility of GEAC, set up by the Indian Government.

Question 15.
Explain the hormonal control of spermatogenesis in humans.

Question 16.
During his studies on genes in Drosophila that were sex-linked, T.H. Morgan found population
phenotypic ratios deviated from expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. Explain the conclusion he arrived at. 3

Question 17.
A person claimed that he has seen sounds, heard colours and smelt light.
(1) What could be the possible reasons?
(2) Name two chemicals responsible for this condition.
(3) Mention any one source of these chemicals.

Question 18.
What are the requisites of a cloning vector?

Question 19.
Explain gene therapy with an example.

Question 20.
What are the factors that contribute to Population density?

Question 21.
(a) Name the technology that has helped the scientists to propagate on large scale the desired crops in short duration. List the steps carried out to propagate the crops by the said technique.
(b) How are the somatic hybrid obtained?

Question 22.
What is “The Evil Quartet?

SECTION-D

Question 23.
Hanshal purchased one high milk yielding exotic breed of cow. Within a few years he earned lot of money by selling calves by using MOET. The mother cow met with a premature death. Raman objected to Hansal earning money by this way.
(a) What values in life did Raman possess?
(b) Expand MOET.
(c) Briefly describe the process.

SECTION-E

Question 24.

The following graph shows the species-area relationship. Answer the following questions as directed: 5
(a) Name the naturalist who studied the kind of relationship shown in the graph. Write observations made by him.
(b) Write the situations as discovered by the ecologists when the value of ‘Z’ (slope of the line) lies between
1. 0.1 and 0.2
2. 0.6 and 1.2
What does ‘Z’ stand for?
(c) When would the slope of the line ‘ff become steeper?

OR

List the observations of Human Genome Project

Question 25.
Explain and illustrate the development of the embryo sac.

OR

How are infertility problems overcome?

Question 26.
Elaborate on the key abiotic elements that contribute to the variation in habitats.

OR

Explain sickle cell anemia and its inheritance as a pedigree chart.

Answers

SECTION-A

Answer 1.
The individual will be a male.

Answer 2.
When two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on the same chromosome, the proportion of
parental gene combinations is much higher than the non-parental type. This physical association of genes on a chromosome is termed as linkage.

Answer 3.
The parasitic bird lays it eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host bird incubate its eggs.
This is called Brood parasitism. The eggs of the parasitic bird have evolved to resemble the host’s egg in size and colour to reduce the chances of the host bird detecting the foreign eggs and ejecting them from the nest.

Answer 4.
Restriction enzymes.

Answer 5.
Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay.

SECTION-B

Answer 6.
Surgical Sterilization method in male is called ‘vasectomy’ where a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on the scrotum.
The surgical method followed in female is called tubectomy where a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in the abdomen or through vagina.

Answer 7.
Biological Response Modifiers (BRM) are the substances given to the cancer patients which activates the immune system for detection and destroying of tumor cell. For example, interferon. List the specific symptoms of typhoid. Name its causative agent.

Answer 8.
Specific symptoms of typhoid are:

1. Constant high fever (39° to 40° C).
2. Weakness
3. Stomach pain
4. Loss of appetite.

Its causative agent is Salmonella typhi.

OR

Histones are positively charged, basic proteins that are organised to form a unit of eight molecules called as histones octamer. The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a structure called nucleosome.

Answer 9.
Soluble RNA or tRNA is an adapter molecule that would on one hand read the code and on other hand bind to the specific amino acids thereby facilitating protein synthesis. The term was coined by Francis Crick.

Answer 10.
The two main pre-fertilisation events in plants are:
(1) Gametogenesis: Refers to the process of formation of two gametes — male and female.
These gametes can be homogametes (haloid) or heterogametes (diploid), sperm and ovum.
(2) Gamete Transfer: Male and female gametes are physically brought together to facilitate fusion.

SECTION-C

Answer 11.
Bagging is a process where the emasculated flowers are covered with a bag of butter paper to prevent contamination of stigma with unwanted pollen. When this stigma attains receptivity, mature pollen grains of the desired plants with required traits are dusted on the stigma and the flowers are rebagged to allow the fruits to develop. This ensures the pollen grains of only desired plants are used for fertilisation of the stigma to develop the desired plant variety.

Answer 12.
Chlamydomonas is an alga which reproduces by formation of zoospores which are
(a) micropscopic motile structures.

(b) Hydra reproduces by the formation of buds which bud from the parent body.

(c) In Yeast, the division is unequal and small buds are produced that remain attached initially to the parent cell which, eventually gets separated and mature into new yeast organisms.

Answer 13.
Typhoid fever is confirmed by Widal test.
Substained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite are some of the common symptoms of this disease. Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases.

OR

There are two complexities involved in transcription of eukaryotic DNA:
(a) There are at least three RNA polymerases in the nucleus (in addition to the RNA polymerase found in the organelles)

• The RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S, and 5.85), whereas the
• The RNA polymerase II transcribes precursor of mRNA, the heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA).
• RNA polymerase III is responsible for transcription of tRNA, and 5snRNA, and snRNAs
  (small nuclear RNAs)

(b) Secondly, the primary transcripts contain both the exons and the introns which are non-functional. Hence, it is subjected to a process called splicing where the introns are removed | and exons are joined in a defined order.

Answer 14.
GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee) is an Indian Government organisation. Its  responsibilities are:
(1) To examine the validity of GM (Genetic Modification of Organism) research.
(2) To inspect the safety of introducing GM for public services and for their large scale use.

Answer 15.
Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of
Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH). The increased levels of GnRH then acts at
the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of two gonadotropins – Luteinising
[ Hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH). LH acts at the Leydig cells and
stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens. Androgens, in turn, stimulate the process of spermatogenesis. FSH acts on the sertolli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors which
f help in the process of spermiogenesis.

Answer 16.
He observed that when the two genes in a dihybrid cross are located on the same chromosome the proportion of parental gene combinations in the progency was much higher than the non-parental or recombination of genes:
(1) Morgan and his group found that when genes are grouped on the same chromosome, some genes are tightly linked and show less recombination.
(2) When the genes are loosely linked, they show higher combination.

Answer 17.
(1) Hallucination.
(2) LSD, Cocaine.
(3) Erythroxylum cocal/Athropa belladona/Datura sps.

Answer 18.
Requisites of a cloning vector are:
(a) Origin of replication (ori): This is a sequence where replication of DNA starts within the host cells.

(b) Selectable Marker: These help in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permits the growth of the transformants.

(c) Cloning sites: This involves linkage of the alien DNA of the vector to a recognition sites
for the commonly used restriction enzymes.

Answer 19.
Gene therapy is a technique of genetic engineering with a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has been diagnosed in child/embryo by the insertion of a normal functional gene into the individual or embryo to take over the function of and compensate for the non-functional gene.
For example, the first clinical gene therapy was given for adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency which was caused due to the deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase. It can be cured by bone marrow transplantation or enzyme replacement therapy, in which functional ADA is given to the patient by injection.
Steps included in Gene therapy are:

1. Lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture outside the body.
2. A functional ADA cDNA (using a retroviral vector) is then introduced into these lymphocytes, which are subsequently returned to the patient.
3. Periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes into the patient.
4. The gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA introduced into cells at early embryonic stages could be a permanent cure.

Answer 20.
The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period, fluctuates due to changes in four basic processes.
(a) Natality refers to the number of births during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density.
(b) Immigration is the number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat from elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
(c) Mortality is the number of deaths in the population during a given period.
(d) Emigration is the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
Hence, Natality and Immigration contribute to an increase in population density whereas Mortality and Emigration decrease it.

Answer 21.
(a) The technology that has helped the scientists to propagate the desired crops on large scale is tissue culture or micropropagation.
The steps to propagate crops are:

1. Obtaining an explant from a plant.
2. Growing the explant in a test tube under sterile conditions.
3. A special nutrient or culture medium is provided for growth.

(b) Isolated single cells are separated from the plants. Their cell walls are digested to obtain protoplasts. Isolated protoplasts from two different plant varieties are fused to get hybrid protoplasts.

Answer 22.
Accelerated rates of species extinction are due to four main causes which is called the Evil Quartet. These are:
(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(b) Over-exploitation
(c) Alien species invasions
(d) Co-extinctions.

SECTION-D

Answer 23.
(a) Raman was bold, having love for animals. He had ethics and prudence.
(b) Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology.
(c) A cow is administered with FSH-like activity, to induce follicular maturation and super ovulation to produce 6-8 eggs in a single cycle.

1. The superovulated cow is either mated with an elite bull or artificially inseminated,
2. The fertilised eggs at 8-32 cells stages, are recovered non-surgically and transferred to surrogate mothers.
3. The genetic mother is available for another round of super ovulation.

SECTION-E

Answer 24.
(a) Alexander Von Humboldt
He observed that within a region, species richness increased in explored area but only up to a limit.
(b)

1. The slopes regression lines are similar when unaffected distribution in an area is analysed.
2. The slope of regression is steeper when we analyse the species area relationship among very large areas like entire continent. Z (slope of line) is the regression co-efficient.

(c) If species richness is more, i.e., in the range 0.62-1.2.

OR

The salient observations drawn from Human Genome Project are:

1. The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.
2. The average gene consists of 3000 bases, but sizes very greatly, with the largest known human gene being dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
3. The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000-much lower than previous estimates of 80,000 to 1,40,000 genes. Almost all (99.9 per cent) nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people.
4. The functions are unknown for over 50 per cent of the discovered genes.
5. Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for proteins.
6. Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.
7. Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA sequences that are repeated many times, sometimes hundred to thousand times. They are thought to have no direct coding functions, but they shed light on chromosome structure, dynamics and evolution.
8. Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968), and the Y has the fewest (231).
9. Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where singlebase DNA differences (SNPs-single nucleotide polymorphism, pronounced as ‘snips’) occur in humans. This information/promises to revolutionise the processes of finding chromosomal locations for disease-associated sequences and tracing human history.

Answer 25.
The nucleus of the functional megaspore divides mitotically to form two nuclei which move to the opposite poles, forming the 2-nucleate embryo sac. Two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in the formation of the 4-nucleate and later the 8-nucleate stages of the embryo sac. Nuclear divison are not followed immediately by cell wall formation. After the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are laid down leading to the organisation of the typical female gametophyte or embryo sac. Six of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and organised into cells; the remaining two nuclei, called polar nuclei are situated below the egg apparatus in the large central cell. There is a characteristic distribution of the cells within the embryo sac. Three

cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus. The egg apparatus, in turn, consists of two synergids and one egg cell. The synergids have special celluclar thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus, which play an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid. Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals. The large central cell has two polar nuclei. Thus, a typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity is 8-nucleate and 7-celled.

OR

Infertility problems are overcome by Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART). Some ART techniques are depicted below:
(a) In vitro fertilisation (IVF): This method is popularly known as test tube baby programme, where ova from the wife/donor (female) and sperms from the husband/donor (male) are collected and are induced to form zygote under simulated conditions as that in the body followed by embryo transfer (ET) in the laboratory.
The zygote or early embryo with upto 8 blastomeres is then transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT-zygote infra fallopian transfer). If the embryo is with more than 8 blastomeres, it is transferred into the uterus (IUT-intra uterine transfer) to complete its further development. This technique can also be used to assist females who cannot conceive.

(b) GIFT-Gamete Intro Fallopian Transfer: Here, ovum collected from a donor is transferred into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation.

(c) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI): An embryo in the laboratory is formed by injecting sperm directly into the ovum. The embryo so formed is later transferred by IUT. (e) Artificial Insemination (AI) Technique: In this technique, the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI-intra-uterine insemination) of the female.

Answer 26.
The important abiotic components that contribute to the variation in habitats are:
(1) Temperature: It affects the kinetics of enzymes activity and other physiological functions of the organism. The levels of thermal tolerance of different species also determine their geographical distribution to a larger extent.

(2) Water: The productivity and distribution of plants is heavily dependent on water. For aquatic organisms the quality (chemical composition, pH and salinity) of water becomes important. Some organisms are tolerant of a wide range of salinities while others are restricted to a narrow range (stenohaline). Many freshwater animals cannot live for long in sea water and vice versa because of the osmotic problems, they would face.

(3) Light: It is required for
(a) photosynthesis,
(b) flowering, and
(c) diurnal and seasonal migrations of organisms, for e.g., photopheriodism and hibernation.

(4) Soil: It is a very important ecological factor as it provides water, minerals and nutrients and support to the producers.

OR

Sickle cell anemia is an autosome linked recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents to the offspring when both the partners are carrier for the gene (or heterozygous).
The disease is controlled by a single pair of allele, HbA and HbS. Out of the three possible genotypes only homozygous individuals for HbS (HbSHbS) show the diseased phenotype. Heterozygous (HbAHbS) individuals appear apparently unaffected but they are carrier of the diseases as there is 50 per cent probability of transmission of the mutant gene to the progeny, thus exhibiting sickle-cell trait. The defect is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule. The substitution of amino acid in the globin protein results due to the single base substitution at the sixth codon of the beta globin gene from CAG to GUG. The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerisation under low oxygen tension causing the change in the shape of RBC from biconcave disc to elongated sickle like structure.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 6 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 6.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 6

Time Allowed : 3 Hours

Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions 

• All questions are compulsory. There are 26 questions in all.
• This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
• Section A contains five questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains five questions of 2 marks each. Section C contains twelve questions of 3 marks each. Section D contains one value based question of 4 marks and Section E contains three questions of 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 1 question of 2 marks, 1 question of 3 marks and all the 3 questions of 5 marks weightage. You have to attempt only 1 of the choices in such questions.
• You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary :

Questions
SECTION : A

Question 1.
What are permanent magnets? Give one example.

Question 2.
What is the geometrical shape of equipotential surface due to a single isolated charge?

Question 3.
Which of the following waves can be polarized
(i) Heat waves
(ii) Sound waves? Give reason to support your answer.

Question 4.
A capacitor has been charged by a dc source. What are the magnitude of conduction and displacement current, when it is fully charged?

Question 5.
Write the relationship between angle of incidence ‘i’, angle of prism ‘A’ and angle of minimum deviations A_m for a triangular prism.

SECTION : B

Question 6.
The given graph shows the variation of photo-electric current (I) versus applied voltage (V) for two different photosensitive materials and for two different intensities of the incident radiations. Identify the pairs of curves that correspond to different materials but same intensity of incident radiation.

Question 7.
A 10 V battery of negligible internal resistance is connected across a 200 V battery and a resistance of 38 Ω as shown in the figure. Find the value of the current in circuit.

Question 8.
The emf of a cell is always greater than its terminal voltage. Why? Give reason.

Question 9.
(a) Write the necessary conditions for the phenomenon of total internal reflection to occur.
(b) Write the relation between the refractive index and critical angle for a given pair of optical media.

Question 10.
State Lenz’s law. A metallic rod held horizontally along east-west direction, is allowed to fall under gravity. Will there be an emf induced at its ends? Justify your answer.

SECTION : C

Question 11.
A convex lens of focal length 25 cm is placed co-axially in contact with a concave lens of focal length 20 cm. Determine the power of the combination. Will the system be converging or diverging in nature?

Question 12.
An ammeter of resistance 0.80 Ω can measure current up to 1.0 A.
(i) What must be the value of shunt resistance to enable the ammeter to measure current up to 5.0 A?
(ii) What is the combined resistance of the ammeter and the shunt?

Question 13.
In the given circuit diagram a voltmeter ‘V is connected across a lamp ‘L’. How would
(i) the brightness of the lamp and
(ii) voltmeter reading ‘V’ be affected, if the value of resistance ‘R’ is decreased? Justify your answer.

Question 14.
(a) An EM wave is travelling in a medium with a velocity v = v\(\overrightarrow { i }\) . Draw a sketch showing the propagation of the EM wave, indicating the direction of the oscillating electric and magnetic fields.
(b) How are the magnitudes of the electric and magnetic fields related to velocity of the EM wave?

Question 15.
Block diagram of a receiver is shown in the figure :
(a) Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’
(b) Write their functions.

Question 16.
Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of a photo diode. Write briefly how it is used to detect the optical signals.

OR

Mention the important consideration required while fabricating a pn-j unction diode to be used as a Light Emitting Diode (LED). What should be the order of band gap of an LED if it is required to emit light in the visible range?

Question 17.
(a) Why photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave nature of light? Give reasons.
(b) Write the basic features of photon picture of electromagnetic radiation on which Einstein’s photoelectric equation is based.

Question 18.
A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volts. The charge stored in it is 360 μC. When potential across the capacitor is reduced by 120 V, the charge stored in it becomes 120 μC.
Calculate :
(i) The potential V and the unknown capacitance C.
(ii) What will be the charge stored in the capacitor, if the voltage applied had increased by 120 V?

OR

A hollow cylindrical box of length 1 m and area of cross section 25 cm is placed in a three dimensional coordinate system as shown in the figure. The electric field in the region is given by \(\overrightarrow { E }\) = 5Ox \(\overrightarrow { i }\) where E is in NC andx is in metres.

Find
(i) Net flux through the cylinder.
(ii) Charge enclosed by the cylinder.

Question 19.
(a) In a typical nuclear reaction, e.g.

although number of nucleons is conserved, yet energy is released. How? Explain.
(b) Show that nuclear density in a given nucleus is independent of mass number A.

Question 20.
Write three important factors which justify the need of modulating a message signal. Show diagrammatically how an amplitude modulated wave is obtained when a modulating signal is superimposed on a carrier wave.

Question 21.
A metallic rod of length L is rotated with a frequency v with one end hinged at the centre and the other end at the circumference of a circular metallic ring of radius r, about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring. A constant uniform magnetic field B parallel to the axis is present everywhere. Using Lorentz force, explain how emf is induced between the centre and the metallic ring and hence obtained the expression for it.

Question 22.
Output characteristics of an n-p-n transistor in CE configuration is shown in the figure.
Determine :
(i) dynamic output resistance
(ii) dc current gain and
(iii) ac current gain at an operating point V_CE = 10 V, when I_B = 30 pA.

SECTION : D

Question 23.
While travelling back to his residence in the car, Mr. Ram was caught up in a thunderstorm. He stopped driving the car and waited for thunderstorm to stop. He saw a child standing under the tree. He asked the boy not to stand under a tree in thunderstorm and to come inside the car till the thunderstorm stopped. Later he dropped the boy at his residence. The boy requested that he should meet his parents. The parents expressed their gratitude to him for his concern for safety of their child.
Answer the following questions based on the above information :

1. Why is it safer to sit inside a car during a thunderstorm?
2. Which two values are displayed by Mr. Ram in his action?
3. Which values are reflected in parents’ response to Mr. Ram?
4. Give an example of similar action on your part from everyday life.

SECTION : E

Question 24.
(a) Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation by a compound microscope. Hence obtain expression for total magnification when the image is formed at infinity.

OR

(a) State Huygens principle. Using this principle draw a diagram to show how a plane wave front incident at the interface of the two media gets refracted when it propagates from a rarer to a denser medium. Hence verify Snell’s law of refraction.
(b) When monochromatic light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, explain the following, giving reasons:
(i) Is the frequency of reflected and refracted light same as the frequency of incident light?
(ii) Does the decrease in speed imply a reduction in the energy carried by light wave?

Question 25.
(a) State the working principle of a potentiometer. With the help of the circuit diagram, explain how a potentiometer is used to compare the emfs of two primary cells.  Obtain the required expression used for comparing the emfs.
(b) Write two possible causes for one sided deflection in a potentiometer experiment.

OR

(a) State Kirchhoff’s rules for an electric network. Using Kirchhoff’s rules, obtain the balance condition in terms of the resistance of four arms of Wheatstone bridge.
(b) In the meter bridge experimental set up, shown in the figure, the null point ‘D’ is obtained at a distance of 40 cm from end A of the meter bridge wire. If a resistance of 10 Q is connected in series with R₁, null point is obtained at AD = 60 cm. Calculate the values of R₁ and R₂

Question 26.
(a) Derive the expression for the torque on a rectangular current carrying loop suspended in a uniform magnetic field.
(b) A proton and a deuteron having equal momenta enter in a region of a uniform magnetic field at right angle to the direction of the field. Depict their trajectories in the field.

OR

(a) A small compass needle of magnetic moment ‘m’ is free to tum about an axis perpendicular to the direction of uniform magnetic field ‘B’. The moment of inertia of the needle about the axis is T. The needle is slightly disturbed from its stable position and then released. Prove that it executes simple harmonic motion. Hence deduce the expression for its time period.
(b) A compass needle, free to turn in a vertical plane orients itself with its axis vertical at a certain place on the earth. Find out the values of
(i) horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field and
(ii) angle of dip at the place.

Answers
SECTION : A

Answer 1.
The magnets which have high retentivity and high coercivity are known as permanent magnets. For example : Steel.

Answer 2.
The equipotential surfaces of an isolated charge are concentric spherical shells and the distance between the shells increase with the decrease in electric field and vice-versa.

Answer 3.
Heat waves can be polarized as they are transverse waves whereas sound waves cannot be polarized as they are longitudinal waves. Transverse waves can oscillate in the direction perpendicular to the direction of its transmission but longitudinal waves oscillate only along the direction of its transmission. So, longitudinal waves cannot be polarized.

Answer 4.
Electric flux through plates of capacitor,

Here q is constant, the capacitor is fully charged.

As voltage becomes constant when capacitor is fully charged.

Answer 5.
The relation between the angle of incidence i, angle of prism A, and the angle of minimum deviation A , for a triangular prism is given by i = (A + A_m)/2

SECTION : B

Answer 6.
Curves 1 and 2 correspond to similar materials while curves 3 and 4 represent different materials, since the value of stopping potential for 1,2 and 3,4 are the same. For the given frequency of the incident radiation, the stopping potential is independent of its intensity.

So, the pairs of curves ( 1 and 3) and (2 and 4) correspond to different materials but same intensity of incident radiation.

Answer 7.

Since, the positive terminal of the batteries are connected together, so the equivalent emf of the batteries is given by
E = 200- 10= 190 V
Hence, the current in the circuit is given by
I = E/R = 190/38 = 5 A

Answer 8.
The emf of a cell is greater than its terminal voltage because there is some potential drop across the cell due to its small internal resistance.

Answer 9.
(a) Necessary conditions for total internal reflection to occur are :

1. The incident ray on the interface should travel in optically denser medium.
2. The angle of incidence should be greater than the critical angle for the given pair of optical media.

(b)

Where a and b are the rarer and denser media respectively. C is the critical angle for the given pair of optical media.

Answer 10.
Lenz’s law states that the polarity of induced emf is such that it produces a current which opposes the change in magnetic flux that produces it. Emf will be induced in the rod as there is change in magnetic flux.

When a metallic rod held horizontally along east-west direction, is allowed to fall freely under gravity i.e. fall from north to south, the magnetic flux changes and the emf is induced in it.

SECTION : C

Answer 11.
We have focal length of convex lens,
f₁  = +25 cm = +0.25 m
Focal length of the concave lens,
f₁ = -20 cm = -0.20 m
Equivalent focal length,

∴ The focal length of the combination = -1 m = -100 cm As the focal length is negative, the system will be diverging in nature.

Answer 12.
We have, resistance of ammeter, R_A = 0.80 ohm
Maximum current across ammeter, I_A = 1.0 A.
So, voltage across ammeter, V= IR = 1 x 0.80 = 0.8 V
Let the value of shunt be x.
(i) Resistance of ammeter with shunt,

(ii) Combined resistance of the ammer and the shunt,

Answer 13.

The given figure is Common Emitter (CE) configuration of an n-p-n transistor. The input circuit is forward biased and collector circuit is reverse biased. If resistance R decreases, forward biased in the input circuit will increase, thus the base current (I_B) will decrease and the emitter current (I_E) will increase. This will increase the collector current (I_c) as
(I_E) = (I_B) + (I_c).
When I_c increases which flows through the lamp, the voltage across the bulb will also increase making the lamp brighter and the voltmeter is connected in parallel with the lamp, the reading in the voltmeter will also increase.

Answer 14.
(a) Given,
Velocity, v = v \(\overrightarrow { i }\) and E is the electric field along Y-axis and B is the magnetic field along Z-axis.
The propagation of EM wave is shown below :

(b) Speed of EM wave can be given as the ratio of magnitude of electric field (E₀) to the magnitude of magnetic field (B₀)

Answer 15.
From the given block diagram of demodulator of a typical receiver, we can conclude the following things :
(a) X represents Intermediate Frequency (IF) stage while Y , represents an amplifier.
(b) At IF stage, the carrier frequency is transformed to a lower frequency then in this process, the modulated signal is detected. The function of amplifier is to amplify the detected signal which may not be strong enough to be made use of and hence is essential.

Answer 16.
A junction diode made from light sensitive semiconductor is called a photo diode.

An electrical device that is used to detect and convert light into an energy signal with the use of a photo detector is known as a photo diode. The light that falls on it controls the function of pn-junction. Suppose, the wavelength is such that the energy of a photon hcfk is enough to break a valence bond. There is an increase in number of charge carriers and hence the conductivity of the junction also increases. New hole-electron pairs are created when such light falls on the junction. If the junction is connected in a circuit, the intensity of the incident light controls the current in the circuit.

OR

1. The reverse breakdown voltage of LEDs are very low, which is around 5 V. So enough care is to be taken while fabricating a pn-junction diode such that the high reverse voltages do not occur across them.
2. There exist very small resistance to limit the current in LED. So, a resistor must be placed in series with the LED such that no damage is occurred to the LED.The semiconductor used for fabrication of visible LEDs must atleast have a band gap of 1.8 eV.

Answer 17.
(a) Wave nature of radiation cannot explain the photoelectric effect because of :

1. The immediate ejection of photo electrons.
2. The presence of threshold frequency for a metal surface.
3. The fact that kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is independent of the intensity of light and depends upon its frequency. Thus, the photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave nature of light.

(b) Photon picture of electromagnetic radiation on which Einstein’s photoelectric equation is based on particle nature of light. Its basic features are :

1. In interaction with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made up of particles called photons.
2. Each photon has energy (E = hv), momentum (p =hv /c) , and speed c, the speed of light.
3. All photons of light of a particular frequency v, or wavelength X, have the same energy
   
4. By increasing the intensity of light of given wavelength, there is only an increase in the number of photons per second crossing a given area, with each photon having the same energy. Thus, photon energy is independent of intensity’ of radiation.
5. Photons are electrically neutral and are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
6. In a photon – particle collision (such as photon-electron collision), the total energy and total momentum are conserved. However, number of photons may not be conserved.

Answer 18.
(i) Initial voltage, V₁, = V volts and charge stored, Q₁ = 360 μC
Q₁ = CV₁            ………(1)
Changed potential,
V₂ = V -120
Q₂ = 120 μC
Q₂ = CV₂       ………. (2)
By dividing (1) by (2), we get

(ii) If the voltage applied had increased by 120 V, then
V₃ =180 + 120 = 300 V
Hence, charge stored in the capacitor,
Q₃ = CV₃  = 2 x 10^-6  x300 = 600 μC

OR

(i) Given,

Answer 19.


Which shows that the density is independent of mass number A.

Answer 20.
Three important factors which justify the need of modulating a message signal :

(i) Size of antenna or aerial :
For communication within the effective length of the antennas, the transmitting frequencies should be high, so modulation is required.
(ii) Effective power which is radiated by antenna :
Since the power radiated from a linear antenna is inversely proportional to the square of the transmitting wavelength. As high powers are needed for good transmission, so higher frequency is required which can be achieved by modulation.
(iii) The interference of signals from different transmitters :
To avoid the interference of the signals there is a need of high frequency which can be achieved by the modulation.

Answer 21.
Suppose the length of the rod is greater than the radius of the circle and rod rotates anticlockwise and suppose the direction of electrons in the rod at any instant be along +y direction. Suppose the direction of the magnetic field is along +z direction.
Then, using Lorentz law, we get the following :

Thus, the direction of force on the electrons is along x-axis. So, the electrons will move towards the centre i.e., the fixed end of the rod. This movement of electrons will result in current and thus it will generate an emf in the rod between the fixed end and the point touching the ring.
Let 0 be the angle between the rod and radius of the circle at any time t.

Answer 22.
(i) Dynamic output resistance is given as :

SECTION : D

Answer 23.

1. It is safer to be inside a car during thunderstorm because the car acts like a Faraday cage.
2. Awareness and humanity
3. Gratitude and obliged
4. Once I came across to a situation where a puppy was shuck in the middle of a busy road during rain and was not able to cross due to heavy flow, so I quickly rushed and helped him.

SECTION : E

Answer 24.
(a) A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses parallel separated by some distance. The lens nearer to the object is called the objective. The lens through which the final image is viewed is called the eyepiece. Magnifying power, when final image is at infinity: The magnification produced by the compound microscope is the product of the magnifications produced by the eyepiece and objective.
M = M_e x M₀       ……… (i)

∴ Where, M_e and M₀ are the magnifying powers of the eyepiece and objective respectively.
If u₍₎ is the distance of the object from the objective and v₀ is the distance of the image from the objective, then the magnifying power of the objective is

Where, h, h’ are object and image heights ; respectively and f₀ is the focal length of the a” objective.
L is the tube length i.e., the distance between the second focal point of the objective and the first focal point of the eyepiece : When the final image is at infinity,

Magnifying power of compound microscope,

OR

(a) Huygens Principle :

• Each point on the primary wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets, transferring out disturbance in all directions in the same way as the original source of light does.
• The new position of the wavefront at any instant is the envelope of the secondary wavelets at that instant.Refraction on the basis of wave theory
• Consider any point Q on the incident wave front.
• Suppose when disturbance from point P on incident wave front reaches point P’ on the refracted wavefront, the disturbance from point Q reaches Q’ on the refracting surface XY.

Since P’A’ represents the refracted wavefront, the time taken by light to travel from a point on incident wavefront to the corresponding point on refracted wavefront should always be the same. Now, time taken by light to go from Q to Q’ will be

This is the Snell’s law for refraction of light.

(b)

1. The frequency of reflected and refracted light remains constant as the frequency of incident light only depends on the source of light.
2. Since the frequency remains same, hence there is no reduction in energy.

Answer 25.

(a) Working principle of Potentiometer :
When a constant current is passed through a wire of uniform area of cross-section, the potential drop across any portion of the wire is directly proportional to the length of that portion.

Applications of Potentiometerfor comparing emfs of two cells :
The following figure shows an application of the potentiometer to compare the emf of two cells of emf E₁ and E,. 1, 2, 3 form a two way key.
When 1 and 3 are connected, E₁ is connected to the galvanometer (G). Jockey is moved to N₁ which is at a distance l₁ from A, to find the balancing length. Applying loop rule to AN₁G31 A,

Thus, we can compare the emfs of any two sources. Generally, one of the cells is chosen as a standard cell whose emf is known to a high degree of accuracy. The emf of the other cell is then calculated from equation (3).

(b)

1. The emf of the cell connected in main circuit may not be more than the emf of the primary cells whose emfs are to be compared.
2. The positive ends of all cells are not connected to the same end of the wire.

OR

(a) Kirchhoff’s First Law – Junction Rule :
The algebraic sum of the currents meeting at a point in an electrical circuit is always zero.
Let the currents be I₁  , I_{2 ,} I₃ and I₄

Convention :
Current towards the junction – positive Current away from the junction – negative
I₃+ (- I₁) + (- I₂) +(- I₄) = 0

Kirchhoff’s Second Law – Loop Rule :
In a closed loop, the algebraic sum of the emfs is equal to the algebraic sum of the products of the resistance and current flowing through them.

For closed part BACB,
E₁ + E₂  =  I₁ R₁– I₃ R₃  + I₂ R₂
For closed part CADC,
E₂ =  I₃ R₃   + I₄ R₄   + I₅ R5

(b) Considering both the situations and writing them in the form of equations. Let R’ be the resistance per unit lenght of the potentiometer wire,

Answer 26.
(a) Consider a rectangular loop-ABCD carrying current I.

Case I :
The rectangular loop is placed such that the uniform magnetic field B is in the plane of loop. No force is exerted by the magnetic field on the arms AD and BC. Magnetic field exerts a force
∴  F₁ = IbB  = F₁
Magnetic field exerts a force F₂ on arm CD.
F₂ = IbB = F₁

Net force on the loop is zero.
The torque on the loop rotates the loop in anti-clockwise direction.

τ = BIA
If there are n such turns the torque will be nIAB
Where, b →Breadth of the rectangular coil
a → Length of the rectangular coil
A = ab → Area of the coil.

Case II :

Plane of the loop is not along the magnetic field, but makes angle with it. Angle between the field and the normal is θ. Forces on BC and DA are equal and opposite and they cancel each other as they are collinear. Force on AB is F, and force on CD is F₂.
F₁= F₂ = IbB

Where A = ab
(b) We know, Lorentz force, F = Bqv sin θ
Where θ = angle between velocity of particle and magnetic field = 90
So, Lorentz force, F = Bqv
Thus, the particles will move in circular path.

Let m_p = mass of proton, m_d = mass of deuteron, v = velocity of proton and v_d = velocity of deuteron The charge of proton and deuteron are equal.

As (1) and (2) are equal, so Thus, the trajectory of both the particles will be same.

OR

(a) The torque on the needle is τ = m x B In magnitude, τ= mB sin θ
Here τ is restoring torque and 0 is the angle between m and B.

Negative sign with mB sin θ implies that restoring torque is in opposition to deflecting torque. For small values of 0 in radians, we approximate sin θ = θ and get

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions nos. 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 20 words
3. Questions nos. 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words
4. Questions nos. 11 to 16 are of 4 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 100 words
5. Questions nos. 17 to 21 are of 5 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 150 words
6. Questions no. 21 is map based question
7. Questions nos. 22 to 27 are of 6 marks each. The answer to these questions should not i exceed 150 words

Question 1.
Mention the Second World War period and Korean War period.

Question 2.
What is a capitalist economy?

Question 3.
What is meant by hegemony?

Question 4.
Why was State Reorganisation Commission set up?

Question 5.
Why were the states reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 195 ?

Question 6.
Give the significance of the following dates.
(i) 8 Aug. 19 7
(ii) 25 March 1957.

Question 7.
Mention the features of SAFTA.

Question 8.
What are the Millennium Development Goals?

Question 9.
“India’s experiment with universal adult franchise appeared very bold and risky.” Justify the statement.

Question 10.
What are the key conflicts associated with Orissa (Odisha) reserved iron resources?

Question 11.
Highlight any two/four major objectives of the Prime Minister Nehru’s foreign policy.

Question 12.
Write a note an Arms Race and its effects.

Question 13.
What were the important land reforms started by the Government of India? Why did some of them become unpopular in India?

Question 14.
What is meant by environment? Suggest any two steps for the environmental improvement.

Question 15.
Bring out three differences each between Socialist Party and the Communist Party and between Bharatiya Jana Sangh and Swatantra Party.

Question 16.
What are the various positions on the issue of regional autonomy for Kashmir? Which of these do you think are justifiable? Give reasons for your answer.

Question 17.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
The Soviet system, however, became very bureaucratic and authoritarian, making life very difficult for its citizens. Lack of democracy and the absence of freedom of speech stifled people who often expressed their dissent in jokes and cartoons. Most of the institutions of the Soviet state needed reform the one-party system represented by the communist party of the Soviet union had tight control over all institutions and was unaccountable to the people. The party refused to recognise the urge of people in the fifteen different republics that formed the Soviet Union to manage their own affairs including their cultural affairs. Although, on paper, Russia was only one of the fifteen republics then together constituted the USSR in reality Russia dominated everything, and people from other regions felt neglected and often suppressed.
(i) What was Soviet system?
(ii) How many republics formed Soviet Union?
(iii) Which republic dominated in the USSR?
(iv) Why did people become dissatisfied with the rule of Communist Party of Soviet Union?

Question 18.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Some people argue that it is strategically more prudent to take advantage of the opportunities that hegemony creates. For instance, raising economic growth rates requires increased trade, technology transfers and investment, which are best acquired by working with rather than against the hegemon. Thus, it is suggested that instead of engaging in activities opposed to hegemonic power, it may be advisable to extract benefits by operating within the hegemonic system. This is called the bandwagon strategy.
(i) What is prudent during a period of hegemony?
(ii) What benefits can be acquired within the hegemonic system?
(iii) What is the bandwagon strategy?

Question 19.
Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) What does the cartoon represent?
(ii) What does the term ‘Tug of war’ refer to?
(iii) Who has been shown on the branches of tree?

Question 20.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Once an emergency is proclaimed, the federal distribution of powers remains practically suspended and all the powers are concentrated in the hands of the union government. Secondly, the government also gets the power to curtail or restrict all or any of the Fundamental Rights during the emergency. From the wording of the provisions of the Constitution, it is clear that an Emergency is seen as an extra¬ordinary condition in which normal democratic politics cannot function. Therefore, special powers are granted to the government.
(i) When was Emergency imposed?
(ii) Who recommended Emergency to be imposed and to whom?
(iii) Mention the implications of Emergency.

Question 21.
Study the following map of European Union and mark the new member countries and older member countries.

(i) Given the significance of the circle of stars for Europe.
(ii) Why are there 12 stars in the circle of the European Union flag?
(ii) Name any two members of the European Union.

Question 22.
How are the external powers influencing bilateral relations in South Asia? Take any one example to illustrate your point.
OR
Critically evaluate the difficulties involved in implementing the suggested reforms to reconstruct the UN.

Question 23.
Looking at the Indian scenario, what type of security has been given priority in India, traditional or non-traditional? What examples could you cite to substantiate the arguments?
OR
What are the economic implications of globalisation? How has globalisation impacted on India with regard to this particular dimension?

Question 24.
Analyse any six consequences of the partition of India in 1947.
OR
What were the major differences in the approach towards development at the time of Independence? Has the debate been resolved?

Question 25.
Write a note on the war and peace with Pakistan.
OR
Discuss the major issue which led to the formal split of the Congress Party in 19 9.

Question 26.
“Emergency was a Blackmark in Indian History”? Comment.
OR
The Bharatiya Kisan Union is a leading organisation highlighting the plight of farmers. What were the issues addressed by it in the nineties and to what extent were they successful?

Question 27.
“The decade of 1980s witnessed tragic turn of events which complicated the problem of Punjab.” Justify the statement in the contest of Operation Blue Star.
OR
Many people think that a two-party system is required for successful democracy. Drawing from India’s experience of last twenty years, write an essay on what advantages the present party system in India has.

Answers

Answer 1.
The Second World War 1939 – 45

Answer 2.
In this economy, land and productive assets are owned and controlled by the capitalists.

Answer 3.
An international system to dominate world by only one superpower.

Answer 4.
It was set up to look into the matter to redraw the boundaries of states.

Answer 5.
States were reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 1956 to maintain unity and integrity of the nation to avoid violence and conflicts among the people.

Answer 6.

1. 8 Aug. 1967 — ASEAN was established.
2. 25 March 1957 – Six countries signed the treaties of Rome to establish the European Economic Community (EEC) and the European Atomic Energy Community (EURATOM).

Answer 7.
South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed by SAARC members in 2004 with the following features:

• Formation of Free Trade Zone for whole South Asia.
• To sustain mutual trade and cooperation among SAARC members.

Answer 8.
The Millennium Development Goals can be categorised as follows:

• Environmental Protection
• Promotion of globalisation
• Anti-terrorism initiatives
• Enhancement and protection of Human Rights.

Answer 9.
Because :

• Country’s vast size and electorates made these elections unusual.
• The year 1952, it was a big test for poor and illiterate country.
• Till then, democracy had been existed only in the prosperous countries mainly in Europe and North America where everyone was almost literate.

Answer 10.

• These iron resources lie in most underdeveloped and predominant tribal districts.
• Tribal population feared that the setting up of industries would mean displacement from their name and livelihood.
• The environmentalist feared to be polluted the environment due to mining and industrial activities.

Answer 11.

• The first objective was to follow NAM, not to join either the military blocs formed by USA or Soviet Union.
• To promote rapid economic development and maintain cordial relations with other nations.
• To prefect the territorial integrity.
• To preserve sovereignty of India and also respecting others sovereignty.

Answer 12.
As all the countries want to protect their military and economic interests to become powerful at international level, a stiff competition emerged among the nations. The powerful and weak both want to become more powerful by stocking arms including nuclear weapons. After the Second World War, it became worse as all the countries including developing nations spent a major portion of their budget on military alliances. The scientists have declared that this blind and unending arms race will harm the food, air and water and ultimately lead to devastation. Money spent on it should be used for welfare purpose.

Answer 13.
To get secure access to land for the poor section of the sociely since independence policies of land reform were implemented to benefit poor and landless poorer section of society. After that various land reforms have been done by the government. Some of them are:

• Abolition of Zamindari System
• Consolidation of small land holdings
• Putting an upper limit or ceiling on the maximum amount of land one can possess.

The main objective of the land reforms was to remove rural poverty and increase agricultural production, but it became unpopular because of the following reasons:

• Some of these land reforms could not be properly implemented because the land owners had both power and political influence.
• These land reforms were not defined into laws and remained only on papers.

Answer 14.
Environment refers to surroundings of a region which can be improved by taking following steps:

1. More focus should be on afforestation i.e. planting more trees to maintain ecological balance, prevent soil erosion and enhance water cycle also.
2. Eco-friendly industries should be set up as well as industries adherent should be disposed with scientific methods and industries should be established at far away places from populous/residential areas.

Answer 15.
(i) Differences between Socialist party and Communist party:

(ii) Defferences between Bharatiya jana Sangh and Swtatantra Party:

Answer 16.
On the issue of regional autonomy for Kashmir, the following positions are states as:

1. Kashmiris were promised to make accession on reference of people after situation created by tribal invasion, becomes normal. But it has not been fulfilled, hence, it generated the demand for “Plebiscite”.
2. Sometimes, it was felt that special federal status guaranteed by Article 370 has been eroded practically which led the demand for restoration of autonomy or “Greater State Autonomy”.
3. It is felt that democracy, which is practised in rest of India has not been similarly institutionalised in Jammu and Kashmir.

We prefer the first position because ‘Plebiscite’ provides better opportunity to people of J & K to protect and sustain their regional autonomy in a very democratic manner.

Answer 17.

1. • Soviet system was bureaucratic and authoritarian making life difficult for citizens.
   • Soviet system lacked democracy and the freedom of speech of people was also snatched away.
2. 15 Republics
3. Russia
4. • Soviet Union had tight control over all institutions.
   • Soviet Union was unaccountable to people.
   • Soviet Union Refused 15 Republics to manage their own affairs.

Answer 18.

• To take advantage of opportunities that a hegemon creates.
• Increase trade, technology transgers and investment
• To extract benefits by operating within hegemonic system in place of being engaged in the opposed activities.

Answer 19.

• Cartoon represents dominance of the Congress which is being tug by opposition parties to throw the Congress out of power.
• ‘Tug of war’ refers to pulling out the Congress by criticism and mentioning its weaknesses in an honest and justified manner.
• Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru along with his Cabinet Ministers.

Answer 20.

1. 25 June 1975.
2. The Prime Minister Indira Gandhi recommended to impose Emergency to the President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad.
3. • The federal distribution of powes emains practically suspended.
   • All the powers ae concentrated in the hands of Union government.
   • The government also gets power to restrict all of any of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.

Answer 21.

1. The circle of stars stands for harmony and solidarity between the Europeans.
2. There are 12 stars in the circle of the European Union flag because, the no. 12 is considered the symbol of unity, perfection and completeness traditionally.
3. Lithuania and Poland.

Answer 22.
The external powers influence bilateral relations in South Asia because no region exists in the vacuum. It is influenced by outside powers and events no matter how much it may try to insulate itself from non-regional powers:

1. China and the US remain key players in South Asian politics.
2. Sino-Indian relations have improved significantly in the last ten years, but China’s strategic partnership with Pakistan remains a major irritant.
3. The demands of development and globalisation have brought the two Asian giants closer and their economic ties have multiplied rapidly since 1991.
4. The Us enjoys good relations with both India and pakistan and works as a moderator in Indo-Pak relations.
5. Economic reforms and liberal economic policies in both the countries have increased the depth of American participation.
6. The large South Asian economy remains in the US and the huge size of population and markets of the region give America an added stake in the future of regional security and peace.

OR

In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution which reflected three main complaints—

• The Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
• Its decisions reflect only Western values and interests and are dominated by a few powers.
• It lacks equitable representation. In view of these growing demands for the restructuring of the UN, on 1 January, 1997, the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan initiated an inquiry into how the UN should be reformed. How for instance, should new Security Council members be chosen?

In the years since then, the following are just some of the criteria that have been proposed for new permanent and non-permanent members of the Security Council. A new member, it has been suggested, should be a major economic power, a major military power, a substantial contributor to the UN budget, etc. Clearly, each of these criteria has some validity. Governments saw advantages in some criteria and disadvantages in others depending on their interests and aspirations.

It has also been suggested that the veto power of the five permanent members should be abolished. Many perceived the veto to be in conflict with the concept of democracy. But there is also a realisation that the permanent members are unlikely to agree to such a reform.

Answer 23.
India has faced traditional (military) and non-traditional threats to its security that have emerged from within as well as outside its borders.
Its security strategy has four broad components i.e.:

1. To strengthen its military capabilities :
   • India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours as Pakistan in 1947-48, 1965, 1971 and 1999 and China in 1962.
   • In South Asian Region, India is surrounded by nuclear armed countries. Hence, India’s decision to conduct nuclear test in 1998 was justified to safeguard national security.
   • India first tested nuclear device in 1974.
2. To strengthen international norms and international institutions :
   • India’s first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru supported Asian solidarity, disarmament, decolonisation and the UN as a forum to settle down international conflict.
   • India took initiatives to bring about a universal and non-discriminatory non¬proliferation regime to enjoy some rights and obligations with respect to weapons of mass destruction.
   • It used non-alignment to help to carve out an area of peace outside the blocs.
   • India signed Kyoto Protocol in 1997 to be a part of roadmap for reducing the emissions of greenhouse gases to check global warming.
3. To meet security challenges within the country :
   • Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab, Kashmir have sought to break away from India.
   • India makes efforts to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system by providing freedom of speech and expression alongwith the right to vote.
4. To develop its economy :
   • India develops the way to lift vast mass of citizens out of poverty, misery and huge economic inequalities.
   • A democratically elected government is supposed to combine economic growth with human development without any demarcation between the rich and the poor.

OR

(A) Economic implications of globalisation

• It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
• It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries.
• The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
• This has spread internet and computer related services across national boundaries.

Impact of globalisation on India

• More new jobs have been created in the MNCs like cell phones, fast food etc.
• India is playing a crucial role among developing countries in trade and commerce by making some companies multinational themselves i.e. Tata Motors, Ranbaxy etc.
• Direct Foreign Investment have also been increased.
• It has invited inflow of private foreign capital and export-oriented activities.

Answer 24.
Consequences of the partition of India :

1. The year 1947 was the year of one of the largest, most abrupt, unplanned and tragic transfer of population that Indian history was known. In the name of religion, people of a community killed and maimed people of the other community. Cities like Lahore, Calcutta (Kolkata) and Amritsar were titled as communal zones.
2. Muslims would avoid going into areas where mainly Hindus and Sikhs lived. Similarly, the Hindus and Sikhs stayed away from Muslim areas.
3. People went through immense sufferings because they were forced to abandon their homes and move across borders. Minorities on both sides of the border fled their homes and often secured temporary shelter in ‘refugee camps’. They often found helpless local police and administration helpless in what was till recently their own country. They travelled to the other side of the new border by all sorts of means, often by foot. Even during this journey they were often attacked, killed or raped. Thousands of women were abducted on both sides of the border. They were made to convert to the religion of the abductor and were forced into marriage. In many cases, women were killed by their own family members to preserve the ‘family honour’. Many children were separated from their parents.
4. Those who did manage to cross the border found that they had no home. For lakhs of these ‘refugees’ the country’s freedom meant life in refugee camps, for a long time,
5. While recounting the trauma of partition, they have often used the phrase that the survivors themselves used to describe partition—as a division of hearts.
6. The partition was not merely a division of properties, liabilities and assets, or a political division of the country and the administrative apparatus. The employees of the government and the railways were also divided. Partition forced about 80 lakh people to migrate across the new border. About 5 to 10 lakhs people were killed in partition-related violence. However, beyond the administrative concerns and financial strains, the partition posed another deeper issue, the leaders of the Indian national struggle did not accept the two-nation theory. And yet, partition on religious had taken place.

OR

At the time of Independence, development was about becoming more like the industrialised countries of the West, to be involved with the break down of traditional social structure as well as rise of capitalism and liberalism.

1. Modernisation referred to growth, material progress and scientific rationality.
2. India had two models of modern development at the time of independence into considerations to be adopted i.e. the liberal capitalist model like Europe and the US and the socialist model like the USSR.
3. A debate had been occurred regarding adoption of model of development as communists, socialists and Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru supported the socialist model to reflect a broad consensus to be developed during national movement,
4. Above mentioned intentions cleared that the government made the priority to poverty
   alleviation alongwith social and economic redistribution.
5. At the same time, these leaders differed and debated:
   • Industrialisation should be the preferred path or
   • Agricultural development should take place, or
   • Rural poverty should be alleviated.

Answer 25.
Indo-Pak conflict started just after partition over the dispute on Kashmir. A proxy war broke, out between the Indian and Pakistani armies in Kashmir during 1947 itself. But this did not turn into a full war. Both the governments of India and Pakistan worked together to restore the women abducted during partition to their original families. A long¬term dispute about the sharing of river waters was resolved through mediation by the World Bank. The India-Pakistan Indus Waters Treaty was signed by Nehru and General Ayub Khan in 1960.„Despite all ups and downs in the Indo-Pak relations, this treaty has worked well.

In April 1965, Pakistan launched armed attacks in the Rann of Kutch area of Gujarat. This was followed by a bigger offensive in Jammu and Kashmir in August-September. Pakistan did not get support from the local people there. In order to ease the pressure on the Kashmir front, Indian Prime Minister Lai Bahadur Shastri ordered Indian troops to launch a counter-offensive on the Punjab border. In a fierce battle, the Indian army reached close to Lahore.

The hostilities came to an end with the UN intervention. Later, Shastri and Pakistan’s General Ayub Khan signed the Tashkent Agreement, brokered by the Soviet Union in January 1966.

OR

The formal split in Congress took place in 1969 on the issue of nomination of the candidate during presidential elections:

1. Despite, Indira Gandhi’s reservations, the Syndicate nominated Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy, as the official Congress candidate for ensuing Presidential elections.
2. Indira Gandhi retaliated the situation by encouraging V.V. Giri, the then Vice-President, to be nominated as an independent candidate.
3. During election, the then Congress President S. Nijalingappa issued a whip asking all Congress MPs. MLAs to vote for N. Sanjeeva Reddy.
4. On the other hand, after silently supporting V.V. Giri, the Prime Minister Indira Gandhi openly called for a conscience vote to vote the way they want’.
5. Elections went in favour of V.V. Giri due to this diplomatic effort and N. Sanjeeva Reddy was defeated.
6. The defeat of N. Sanjeeva Reddy, the formal Congress candidate, formalised the split of party into two:
   • Congress (0), i.e. organisation led by syndicate, known as Old Congress.
   • Congress (R) i.e. requisitionists led by Indira Gandhi, known as New Congress.

Answer 26.

• Emergency was declared on the ground of internal disturbances on 25 June 1975 to invoke Article 352 of the Constitution.
• The Prime Minister Indira Gandhi recommended to impose Emergency to the President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad.
• Emergency was one of the most controversial episodes which possessed different virus regarding imposition of Emergency.
• Emergency practically suspended the democratic functioning.
• ‘Shah Commission’ exposed many excesses committed during emergency.
• Emergency highlighted some hidden matters over constitutional battle between the Parliament and judiciary.
• Tensions or conflicts had been arisen between institution based democracy and popular participation of people.

OR

Bharatiya Kisan Union (BKU) is an organisation of farmers from the western UP and Haryana regions. It is one of the leading farmers’ movements to protest against the policies of process of liberalisation of Indian economy. The Meerut agitation of farmers was a great show of rural farmers and cultivators.
Issues addressed by BKU :

• Higher government floor prices for sugarcane and wheat.
• Guaranteed supply of electricity at reasonable rates.
• To wave off repayments due on loan to farmers.
• To provide government pension to farmers.
• Abolition of restrictions on the inter-state movement of farm produce.

Highlighted the plight of farmers :

• BKU conducted rallies, demonstrations, and Jail Bharo agitations.
• These protests involved thousands of farmers-sometimes over a lakh-from various villages in western UP and adjoining regions.
• BKU operated as a pressure group in politics with its strength of sheer members.

Extent of Success :

• BKU became the most successful social movements. ‘
• It sustained for a long time due to clan networks among its members.
• These networks mobilised funds, resources and activities of BKU.
• An outcome of political bargaining powers by its members.
• BKU farmers dominated regional electoral politics also.

Answer 27.
The leadership of Akali movement passed from the moderate Akalis to the extremist elements and took the form of armed insurgency. These militants made their headquarters inside the Sikh holy shrine, the Golden Temple in Amritsar, and turned it into an armed fortress. In June 1984, the Government of India carried out ‘Operation Blue Star’ code name for army action in the Golden Temple.

In this operation, the government could successful flush out the militants, but it also damaged the historic temple and deeply hurt the sentiments of the Sikhs. A large proportion of Sikhs in India and abroad saw the military operation as an attack on their faith and this gave further impetus to militant and extremist groups.

More tragic turn of events complicated the Punjab problem further. On 31 October 1984, the whole nation was in mourning when Indira Gandhi was assassinated by her bodyguards outside her residence. Both the assassins were Sikhs and wanted to take revenge for Operation Blue Star. While the entire country was shocked by this development, in Delhi
and in many parts of northern India violence broke out against the Sikh community. In this violence, hundreds of Sikhs were killed in other parts of the country. Many Sikh families lost their male members and thus suffered great emotional and heavy financial loss.

OR

In the first decade of electoral politics, India did not have a recognised opposition party. But some of vibrant and diverse opposition parties had come into being even before the first General Election of 1952 as the non-Congress parties. Hence, the roots of almost all the non-Congress parties of today can be traced to one or the other of the opposition parties of 1950s.

All these opposition parties gained only a representation, still their presence played a crucial role in maintaining democratic character of system. Hence due to following reasons two party system is required for successful democracy:

1. Within two party systems, the opposition party offers a sustained and principled criticism of policies and practices of ruling party keeping it under a strict check.
2. By keeping democratic political alternative alive, these parties prevented the resentment with the system from turning anti-democratic.

On the basis of above mentioned features it is justifiable to have a two party system which have following advantages:

1. India has arrived at more competitive politics.
2. Political parties act within the spheres of consensus.
3. New forms, vision, pathways of development have been identified.
4. Issues like poverty, displacement, minimum wages, livelihood and social security are being put on political agenda.
5. Issues of justice and democracy are being voiced by various classes, castes and regions to remind states its responsibility.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 7 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 7

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Englsih Core is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions

• This paper is divided into three sections: A, B and C. All the sections are compulsory.
• Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read these instructions very carefully and follow them faithfully.
• Do not exceed the prescribed Word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A
READING (30 MARKS)

Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully. (12 Marks)
“It is impossible to think about the welfare of the world unless the condition of women is improved. It is impossible for a bird to fly on only one wing.” — Swami Vivekananda

1. Women are not born, but made. What is better than India to exemplify this statement by Simone de Beauvoir. With the whole world celebrating International Women’s Day with great pomp and show, it would be only apt to analyze the position and space Indian women occupy today, and comparing it to the times 60 years ago when the country had just gained independence. With the women participating in nationalist movements to being pushed into the domestic household space, to their resurgence as the super-women today, women in our country have seen it all.

2. There have been innumerable debates about gender in India over the years. Much of it includes women’s position in society, their education, health, economic position, gender equality, etc. What one can conclude from such discussions is that women have always held a certain paradoxical position in our developing country. On the one hand, the country has seen an increased percentage of literacy among women, and women are allowed to enter into professional fields, while on the other hand the practices of female infanticide, poor health conditions and lack of education still persist. Even the patriarchal ideology of the home being women’s real domain and marriage being her ultimate destiny hasn’t changed much. The matrimonial advertisements, demanding girls of the same caste, with fair skin and slim figure, or the much criticized fair and lovely ads, are indicators of the slow changing social mores. If one looks at the status of women then and now, one has to look at two sides of the coin; one side which is promising, and one side which is bleak.

3. When our country got its independence, the participation of women nationalists was widely acknowledged. When the Indian Constitution was formulated, it granted equal= rights to women, considering them legal citizens of the country and as an equal to men in terms of freedom and opportunity. The sex ratio of women at that time was slightly better than what it is today, standing at 945 females per 1000 males. Yet the conditions of women screamed a different reality.

4. They were relegated to their households, and made to submit to the male-dominated society, as has always been prevalent in our country. Indian women, who fought as an equal to men in the nationalist struggle, were not given that free public space anymore. They became homemakers, and were mainly meant to build a strong home to support their men who were to build the new independent country. Women were reduced to being secondary citizens. The national female literacy rate was an alarmingly low 8.9 per cent. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) for girls was 24.8 per cent at primary level and 4.6 per cent at the upper primary level (in the 11-14 years age group). There existed insoluble social and cultural barriers to education of women and access to organized schooling.

(Extract from ‘Here’s How The Status Of Women Has Changed In India [Since 1950 Till Date]’posted on March 11, 2012 in Society By Tanima Banerjee)

I. On ftieToasis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

(a) The writer says that the women have seen it all because:

1. they participated in nationalist movements.
2. they were pushed into household space.
3. they have become superwomen today.
4. all of the above.

(b) Pick one statement which brings out the paradoxical nature of women’s position in society today:

1. They are entering professional fields and becoming literate.
2. They lack education and female infanticide is still rampant.
3. They are still victims of patriarchal mindset.
4. While they are allowed to enter professional fields they are still victims of patriarchal mindset.

(c) The Indian Constitution did not ensure:

1. that women get equal rights.
2. that they were considered equal to men.
3. that the sex ratio would be 945 females to 1000 males.
4. that they were legal citizens of India.

(d) Despite the provisions of the Constitution:

1. women were relegated to the household.
2. women were not allowed free space.
3. women were dictated by patriarchy.
4. all of the above.

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 5 = 5 Marks)

(e) What is the patriarchal ideology about women?
(f) What are the areas of concern about women?
(g) Who said that ‘Women are not born, but made’. What did he mean by it?
(h) Cite one example to show that our social mores are changing very slowly?
(i) What are the ‘insoluble barriers’ to women’s education?

III. Find words from the passage which mean the same as: (1 × 3 = 3 Marks)

(a) recognized (para 3) (b) ironic, absurd (para 2)
(c) countless (para 2)

Question 2.
Read the following passage carefully. (10 Marks)

1. One day Pahom was sitting at home, when a peasant passing through the village, happened to call in. He was allowed to stay at the night, and supper was given to him. Pahom had a talk with this peasant and asked him where he came from. The stranger answered that he came from beyond the Volga, where he had been working. One word led to another, and the man went on to say that many people were settling in those parts. He told how some people from his village had settled there. They had joined the Commune, and had twenty-five acres of land per man granted. The land was so good, he said, that the rye sown on it grew as high as a horse, and so thick that five cuts of a sickle made a sheaf. One peasant, he said, had brought nothing with him but his bare hands, and now he had six horses and two cows. Pahom’s heart kindled with desire. He thought:

2. “Why should I suffer in this narrow hole, if one can live so elsewhere? I will sell my land and my homestead here, and with the money I will start afresh over there and get everything new. In this crowded place one is always having trouble. But I must first go and find out all about it myself.”

3. Towards summer he got ready and started. He went down the Volga on a steamer to Samara, then walked another three hundred miles on foot, and at last reached the place. It was just as the stranger had said. The peasants had plenty of land: every man had twenty-five acres of Communal land given him for his use, and any one who had money could buy, besides, at fifty-cents an acre as much freehold land as he wanted. Having found out all he wished to know, Pahom returned home as autumn came on, and began selling off his belongings. He sold his land at a profit, sold his homestead and all his cattle, and withdrew from membership of the Commune. He only waited till the spring, and then started with his family for the new settlement.

4. As soon as Pahom and his family arrived at their new abode, he applied for admission into the Commune of a large village. He stood treat to the Elders, and obtained the necessary documents. Five shares of Communal land were given him for his own and his sons’ use: that is to say-125 acres (not altogether, but in different fields) besides the use of the Communal pasture. Pahom put up the buildings he needed, and bought cattle. Of the Communal land alone he had three times as much as at his former home, and the land was good corn-land. He was ten times better off than he had been. He had plenty of arable land and pasturage, and could keep as many head of cattle as he liked.

(Source: How Much Land Does a Man Need? by Leo Tolstoy)

I. Answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option: (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) The stranger did not tell Pahom that:

1. many people had been settling in those parts.
2. some people from his village had settled there.
3. they had been given 125 acres of land.
4. the land was very good.

(b) Pahom thought of leaving his home as:

1. it was a crowded place.
2. he did not like it.
3. he wanted to start afresh and get everything new.
4. both (i) and (ii)

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(c) Where had the stranger come from?
(d) How had the farmer acquired six horses of his own?
(e) How did Pahom reach the place?
(f) What was the rate of land at the new settlement?
(g) What was Pahom busy doing in autumn?
(h) What did Pahom undertake as soon as he reached his new abode?

III. Find words from the passage which are similar in meaning to the following. (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) bundle (para 1)
(b) accommodation (para 4)

Question 3.
Read the following passage carefully. (8 Marks)

Ayurveda is one of the oldest sciences of medicines whose origin can be dated back to 3000-5000 years.

Ayurveda is a method of holistic healing and is based on prevention rather than cure of the illness. The approach to healing is done on a personalized basis and people of all ages and following different occupations are known to have benefited both personally and spiritually owing to Ayurveda’s wisdom of healing.

Ayurvedic medicines heal your spirit and minds instead of just treating the affected body parts. It is based on purification of the body in a natural way and the environment created helps remove all toxins and help regain body’s natural tolerance or resistance from the diseases and help rejuvenate your body and regain your good health.

The metaphysics of the five elements that make up this universe namely: earth (prithvi), water (jal), fire (agni), air (vayu) and space (akash) form the basis of the science of Ayurveda. Ayurveda explains the constitution of human to be of three forms which are known as ‘doshas’ or the life forces. These three doshas: Vat a, Pitta, Kapha determine physical characteristics and personality traits of a person.

Pitta dosha is believed to control the hormone function and digestion, thus an increased pitta dosha in a person will create indigestion and overheating. Such people will have heated emotional reactions.

Vata dosha controls the heart and breathing functionality in addition to the excretory function. Skin conditions are more common in people suffering from Vata dosha.

Kapha dosha is what governs your immune system and overall strength. Diseases like cancer and diabetes are likely to arise in people with aggravated kapha dosha. An Ayurvedic doctor or practitioner will analyze the dosha based on the systems of your disease or illness and suggest an individualized treatment to heal your body and strengthen your personality.

Vat a dosha is constituted from Ether and air and thus nerve impulses, respiration and elimination are known to be regulated by this dosha. The process of transformation and metabolism is controlled by Pitta dosha which is composed of fire and water. Kapha dosha t contains water and earth elements and is responsible for growth, adding of body structure unit by unit and also offers protection.

Ayurveda has its popularity to the use of natural, non-invasive components used in medicines unlike the other ways of treatment which use only chemicals and toxins into your body.

Ayurveda is not only based on medicines but focuses on lifestyle changes, change in diet patterns, suggesting yogic exercises, and meditation, breathing or relaxation exercises. It is known that certain chronic ailments can be treated by means of Ayurvedic way of natural healing avoiding the need for any surgery. Herbal remedies are also a part of Ayurvedic medicines which can be recommended for healing. Ayurvedic supplements help ‘ pacify one or more increased doshas in your bodies.

Thus, Ayurveda aims at aligning your body, mind and spirit in order to achieve a sound health. Yoga and meditation are known to have a positive impact on your physical condition and help relax your mind and muscles. Ayurveda insists on a spiritual way of living and gives importance to self-realization to bring real health and energy, in whatever tasks we perform. Ayurveda is a rational system of medicine and is sensitive to nature and Earth. Ayurveda has gained popularity in the West also as yoga ashrams and Ayurvedic classes and programmes are being introduced in many parts of the West.

A. On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it, using headings and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations (wherever necessary—minimum four) and a format you consider suitable. Also supply an appropriate title to it. (5 Marks)
B. Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 Marks)

SECTION B
ADVANCE WRITING SKILLS (30 MARKS)

Question 4.
You are Kala/Lalit. You lost your briefcase containing important documents while travelling in a DTC bus. Write an advertisement in not more than 50 words for the LOST column of a local daily giving relevant details. (4 Marks)
OR
You are Lalit/Lalita. You have just cleared your NIFT admission test and wish to throw a party for your friends. Write an informal invitation for your friends giving all details.

Question 5.
You are interested in doing a course in fashion designing. For this you wish to get admission in NIFT. NIFT holds a competitive examination for admission. Sapphire Academy, Dadar, Mumbai gives coaching for the admission test. Write a letter in 120-150 words to the Director, Sapphire Academy requesting him to provide you with all necessary information. You are Karan/Kirti, 48 Fort Apartments, Pune. (All India (C) 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
You recently had your first trip in a Delhi Metro Train. You were quite impressed with its services and decided to write a letter to the editor of The Times of India. Write this letter as Karan/Kirti of 1-90, Jungpura, Delhi. (120-150 words)

Question 6.
A landslide in your area has caused untold destruction. Write an article in 150-200 words on the destruction caused by natural calamities and the precautions to be taken to prevent them. You are Jai Kant/Jai Kanta. (Delhi 2014) (10 Marks)
OR
You are the sports captain of your school. The Annual Sports Day was conducted last month. Write a report in 150-200 words on the conduct of the same. You are Manish/ Mita of Hind Public School, Mall Road, Amritsar. (Delhi 2014)

Question 7.
It is said that if you educate a boy, you educate a person and if you educate a girl you educate a family. As member of the NGO, Shiksha, write a speech on the importance of educating girls in 150-200 words. (10 Marks)
OR
The Prime Minister’s campaign, ‘Swachh Bharat’ has become popular throughout India. Inspired by this you, the Principal of a reputed school, decide to address the students on ‘The value of cleanliness’. Write your speech in 150-200 words. (All India (C) 2015)

SECTION C
TEXTBOOKS AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (40 MARKS)

Question 8.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow: (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

Far far from gusty waves these children’s faces.
Like rootless weeds, the hair torn around their pallor.
The tall girl with her weighed-down head. The paper-
seeming boy, with rat’s eyes.

(a) Name the poet?
(b) Who appears to be like ‘rootless weeds’ and why?
(c) What does the phrase ‘paper-seeming’ suggest to you?
(d) Identify a figure of speech and cite the line.

OR

doze, open mouthed, her face
ashen like that
of a corpse and realised with pain
that she was as old as she
looked but soon
put that thought away

(a) Who is the speaker? Who is the speaker referring to?
(b) Why is the person being referred to as ‘ashen’?
(c) What did the speaker realize?
(d) Why did the speaker put away the thought?

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words each: (3 × 4 = 12 Marks)

(a) What do you think is the colour of ‘sour cream’? Why do you think the poet has used this expression to describe the classroom walls? (NCERT)
(b) Why has the poet brought in the image of the merry children ‘spilling out of their homes’? (NCERT)
(c) Franz thinks, “Will they make them sing in German. Even the pigeons?” What could this mean?
(d) How was the YMCA pool safer than the Yakima river?
(e) Why did the ironmaster speak kindly to the peddler and invite him home? (NCERT)
(f) Do you think that Dr Sadao’s final solution to the problem was the best possible one under the circumstances?

Question 10.
Dr Sadao faced a dilemma. Should he use his surgical skills to save the life of a wounded person or hand an escaped American prisoner of war over to the Japanese police? How did he resolve this clash of values? (120-150 words) (All India 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
While we condemn the crime, we are sympathetic to the criminal. Is this the reason why prison staff often develop a soft corner for those in custody? (NCERT)

Question 11.
Why do you think Gandhi considered the Champaran episode to be the turning point in his life? (120-150 words) (NCERT) (6 Marks)
OR
How would you describe the character and temperament of Sophie’s father? (120-150 words) (NCERT)

Question 12.
Attempt a character sketch of Dr. Kemp. (120-150 words) (6 Marks)
OR
Eppie is a character in her own right but also has symbolic significance in the novel Silas Mamer. Discuss. (120-150 words)

Question 13.
What is the theme of the novel The Invisible Man? (120-150 words) (6 Marks)
OR
Chance and coincidence have much role in the novel Silas Marner. Discuss. (120-150 words)

ANSWERS

Answer 1.

I. (a) (iv) all of the above.
(b) (iv) while they are allowed to enter professional fields they are still victims of patriarchal mindset.
(c) (iii) that the sex ratio would be 945 females to 1000 males.
(d) (iv) all of the above.

II. (e) The patriarchal ideology regarding women is that home is women’s real domain and marriage is her ultimate destiny.

(f) The areas of concern about women are their education, health, economic position, gender equality.

(g) Simone de Beauvoir said this. He meant that women do not have a voice of their own. They are led by ideologies created for them.

(h) The matrimonial advertisements, demanding girls of the same caste, with fair skin and slim figure, or the much criticized fair and lovely ads, are indicators of the slow changing social mores.

(i) The insoluble social and cultural barriers to education of women and access to organized schooling are the patriarchal ideas which earmark a secondary role to women and push them into the household.

III. (a) acknowledged (b) paradoxical (c) innumerable

Answer 2.

I. (a) (iii) They had been given 125 acres of land.
(b) (iv) both (i) and (iii)

II. (c) The stranger had come from beyond the Volga.

(d) The farmer had started working in the new settlement where the land was very fertile. Soon he had become rich enough to acquire six horses of his own.

(e) He went down the Volga on a steamer to Samara, then walked another three hundred miles on foot, and at last reached the place.

(f) The rate of land at the new settlement was fifty cents an acre.

(g) As autumn came on, Pahom began selling off his belongings. He sold his land at a profit, homestead and all his cattle, and withdrew from membership of the Commune.

(h) As soon as Pahom and his family arrived at their new abode, he applied for admission into the Commune of a large village. He stood treat to the Elders, and obtained the necessary documents.

III. (a) sheaf (b) abode

Answer 3.

A. TITLE: Ayurveda: An Ancient Science of Medicine

NOTES:

(a) Introduction — ayu:

(i) 3000-5000 yrs old
(ii) method of healing by prevention
(iii) heals body and soul
(iv) removes toxins thus purifying the body
(v) the five elements-fundamntl to ayu
(vi) spiritual way of healing
(vii) gives imp’ce to self realizn :

(b) theory of ayu:
(i) human constn composed of 3 doshas
(x) vata-controls hrt, breathing, excretion, skin
(y) pitta-controls hormone, digestion
(z) kapha-controls immunity, strength

(ii) doshas determine personality
(iii) Dr analyses dosha to prescribe cure and lifestyle changes

(c) popularity of ayu:
(i) natural, non invasive ways
(ii) no chem.

Key to Abbreviations
ayu : ayurvedic
fundamntl : fundamental
imp’ce : importance
realizn : realization
con.stn : constitution
hrt : heart
chem : chemical
chngs : changes
nati : natural
invsiv : invasive

B. SUMMARY

Ayurveda is 3000-5000 years old healing system which focuses on prevention rather than cure. It aims to heal the body and the mind. It removes toxins thus purifying the body. The five elements are fundamental to its theory. It believes in self-realization. The human body is composed of Vata which controls heart, breathing and skin. Pitta controls digestion and hormonal functions. Kapha controls personality and strength. A doctor analyses the dosha and then prescribes medicines and lifestyle changes. Ayurveda is popular as it is non-invasive, natural and free of chemicals.

Answer 4.

Answer 5.

48 Fort Apartments,
Pune 7th October, 20××
The Director
Sapphire Academy
Dadar, Mumbai

Sub: Enquiry regarding coaching for NIFT Dear Sir

I have come to know that your institute offers excellent coaching for NIFT entrance test. Since I wish to pursue this course I want to join your reputed coaching for the same. would be obliged if you kindly provide the following information regarding the coaching classes:

• Duration of the course
• Frequency, timing of the classes
• Whether classes are held in the evenings
• Fee and the mode of payment
• Is there any fee concession?

You are requested to provide the information at your earliest convenience to enable me to decide about joining the earliest batch.

Thank you
Yours sincerely
Karan

OR

1-90, Jungpura
Delhi
6th October, 20××
The Editor
Times of India
Barakhamba Road
Delhi

Sub: Appreciation of Delhi Metro

Dear Sir

I recently had my first journey by Delhi Metro Train from Dwarka to Akshardhaam. I wish to put on record the memorable experience that I had of the metro service.

The punctuality and frequency of the trains is commendable. It was heartening to see that Delhi Metro is fully committed towards safety and security of women passengers. Delhi Metro understands the needs of women passengers and has reserved a coach especially for lady passengers. The first coach of a train in moving direction is reserved for ladies. Delhi Metro is perhaps India’s first public transport system with adequate features for 1 differently-abled persons. The spacious, clean and fully air-conditioned interiors make the journey restful and comfortable. In fact I noted so many passengers reading a book or listening to their favourite music.

Security is a high priority with the DMRC as was evident by the scanner and the many police personnel moving about vigilantly at the station.

Facilities like clean toilets, metro card, and lost and found facility have made Delhi Metro a world class facility. I request you to give space to my letter so that it will reach the public and authorities.

Thank you
Yours sincerely
Karan

Answer 6.

Natural Disasters
By Jai Kanta

Natural calamities have been a cause of great destruction and devastation on Earth. Natural calamities are unpredictable in nature and often occur all of a sudden. Due to this nature, avoiding them is almost impossible. However, we can take certain precautions that will help keep the level of devastation down and save precious human lives.

For disasters like floods and landslides, plantation of trees is a good long-term solution. Floods and landslides are hard to avoid. These could include passing of laws that prohibit cutting down of trees and building of houses in regions that are flood prone. Disasters like drought can be avoided by proper planning and allocation of resources. Measures can be taken at community level so that no one is misusing or overusing their share of resources like water and food.

As far as earthquakes are concerned, people should calmly leave the building they are in when the quake strikes. In case of damage, people are encouraged and taught to help pull out other people from the debris. On a larger scale, buildings can be constructed in a way that ensures they are less likely to collapse during an earthquake. In Japan for instance, there are shock absorbers installed at the base of the buildings which enables the building to move with the earthquake and prevent collapse.

OR

Annual Sports Day Celebrated At Hind Public School

Amritsar, 10th March: The Annual Sports Day in Hind Public School was held on 3rd October, 20xx at the school grounds. The programme commenced with the school choir reciting the prayer. The Chief Guest of the day Mr. Jagannath Shetty-a National level athlete and weight lifter, along with the other dignitaries received the salute during the parade. During the flag raising ceremony worthy sports persons Pratvik Sama, Sougandh, Nitin Desa and Prateek Roy were the flag bearers.

Vice Principal, Ms Lalita Mason delivered the welcome address. The Chief Guest received the torch and declared the sports meet open.

During the oath taking ceremony, Hon’ble Sports Minister Jitendra Singh recited the pledge. This was followed by a spectacular Mass drill display by students of Opal House, Coral House, Jade House and Amber House.

Various sports events like 100m race, 200m playing, 800m race and 4 x 100 m relay were organised. Winners were awarded with certificates and medals.

The Chief Guest during his address stated “Sports is very important. Everyday children should spare some time for sports.”

Answer 7.
Good morning respected principal, teachers and my dear friends! Today I wish to talk to you about the importance of educating girls. Educated women are capable of bringing socio-economic changes. The constitution of almost all democratic countries, including India, guarantees equal rights to both men and women. Education will empower women to come forward and contribute towards the development and prosperity of the country. So long as women remain backward and economically dependent on men, the helpless condition of them cannot be changed. Education helps a woman to lead a good life. Her identity as an individual would never get lost. She can read and learn about her rights. Educated girls and women are aware of the importance of health and hygiene. Educated mothers can take better care of both herself and her baby.

Educated women are now looked upon with dignity and honor. Educated women are more informed of their rights for justice. It would eventually lead to decline in instances of violence and injustice against women such as dowry, forced-prostitution, child-marriage, female foeticide, etc.

A girl-child should get equal opportunity for education, so that, she can plan to become a successful doctors, engineer, nurse, or choose any other profession of her choice.

Thank you

OR

Good morning, respected Principal, teachers and my dear friends! As you know the Prime Minister’s campaign, ‘Swachh Bharat has become popular throughout India. I wish to take this opportunity to talk to you about the value of cleanliness. Cleanliness is important for healthy mind, body and spirit. Our first duty is to be clean. Every morning, as soon as you get up, you must clean your teeth, and wash your face, hands and feet. Many boys and girls, when they write with ink and pen soil their fingers. With a little care and effort they can avoid it.

If possible, you may bathe and wash your whole body. Bathing is necessary for good health. If you allow dirt to accumulate on your body, you very soon get itch or other diseases of the skin.

After your body, you must look into your clothes. You should always wear clean clothes. Now, do not mistake rich clothes for clean clothes. You do not require any money at all to keep your body clean, and you want very little to keep your clothes tidy. We should get into the habit of being clean.

Besides, we should keep our surroundings clean. We should not throw garbage here and there. Instead, we should throw it only into a dustbin.

Hence, you should always maintain cleanliness and join hands to make ‘Swachh Bharat” campaign a success.

Thank you

Answer 8.

(a) The poet is Stephen Spender.
(b) The children sitting in the elementary classroom of the slum school are like the rootless weeds as they appear malnourished, sad and dispirited.
(c) The phrase ‘paper-seeming’ suggests a thin malnourished boy who is as thin as paper.
(d) Like ‘Rootless weeds,’ the hair torn around their pallor the second line is an example of simile.

OR

(a) The speaker is the daughter, Kamla Das. The speaker is referring to her mother.
(b) The word ‘ashen’ means like ash. The mother appears to be old and grey.
(c) She comes to realize that her mother was not young any longer, and that her appearance had caught up with her age. .
(d) The painful thought of the mother’s death made her determined to focus her attention on something else.

Answer 9.
(a) Sour cream indicates the colour cream or dirty white. The poet has used this expression to describe the poor dull and ill-equipped environment of the classroom in the slums. The walls were painted long ago and since then no attention has been given to them. We see the neglect that these children face. It adds to the dull ambiance.

(b) The contrast between the ageing mother and the merry children enhances the poetic effect. The poet’s mother who is sitting beside her is dozing. Her ‘ashen’ face looks lifeless and pale like a corpse. She is an image of ageing, decay and passivity. On the other hand, the children are gay and happy. They are moving out of their homes in large numbers. Here is an image of happiness and spontaneous overflow of life.

(c) Franz innocently wonders whether the Germans will make the pigeons speak German too. It highlights the foolishness and high-handedness of the Germans who presumed to think that a mere order could make people lose their language. Language is a part of one’s identity. Germans can impose German language on the people of Alsace and Lorraine powerfully but their power cannot make the pigeons speak German.

(d) William’s mother continually warned him against his going to the Yakima River for swimming. The river was treacherous. Many persons had drowned in it. But the YMCA pool was safe. It was only two or three feet at the shallow-end and nine feet at the deeper-end. The slope was also gradual.

(e) The ironmaster of the Ramsjo ironworks watched both night and day that the work at the mills was being done well. On his nightly round for inspection, he saw the ragged fellow, near the furnace. He walked near to him to look closely. Taking him to be his old acquaintance, Nils Olof, he invited him home. It would be pleasant to have him for Christmas. So he spoke kindly to the peddler and invited him home.

(f) Dr. Sadao knew that the wounded American sailor could be arrested anytime. He washed his wound, brought the bullet out of his body and gave a new lease of life to the American prisoner of war. He didn’t want to throw him into the jaws of death again. He asked the young soldier to take his private boat at night. He should row in the cover of darkness to a little deserted island nearby. If he harboured the prisoner longer, he himself could be prone to danger. The general had quite forgotten to help him. So his solution was the best one.

Answer 10.
Dr Sadao and his wife Hana remained in a state of conflict for quite a long time. They couldn’t throw a wounded man again into the sea. If they gave shelter to him in their house, they could be arrested. Handing him over to the police, would have meant throwing him into the jaws of death. They were in a fix. Ultimately, the duty of a doctor overpowered all other petty considerations. The servants revolted at the idea of serving a white man. Hana herself washed the wound. Dr Sadao had decided to operate on Tom.

Hana obeyed her husband without a word. Hana was to give the anaesthetic if the patient needed it. The doctor made a clean and precise incision. The bullet was out. Thus love for humanity and the ethics of a doctor won over petty racial considerations.

OR

The Bible says that one should condemn the sin and not the sinner. Even the worst of criminals have a small core of humanity in their hearts. Prison staff are responsible for the criminals in their custody. Nevertheless, being humans, they often become friendly and lenient towards them often permitting them things which are strictly disallowed according to rules. This is amply supported in the story Evans Tries an O-Level. Evans pleaded with Jackson that he was like a ‘lucky charm’ for him. Jackson relented and allowed Evans to wear his hat on his head. This proved to be a lapse on the part of Jackson as later on Evans used it cleverly to change his appearance.

Answer 11.
Rajkumar Shukla apprised Gandhi about the injustice done to sharecroppers by the landlords in Bihar. He knew the atrocities of the landlord. The sharecroppers were to plant 15 per cent of their holding with indigo and surrender the entire harvest to them as rent. Germany had developed synthetic indigo. Thus the price of the natural indigo would fall in the market sharply. The landlords had obtained agreements from the sharecroppers to pay compensation. Some signed while others engaged lawyers. Gandhi fought against the cruel injustice of the landlord. An official commission declared to refund the money to the sharecroppers. As per agreement 25 per cent of the money was paid to the sharecroppers. This movement encouraged Indian peasants to know their rights. He made the British realise that the Indians are self reliant and the foreigners cannot order them on their land. Thus the Champaran episode was a turning point in his life.

OR

Sophie’s father is a dominating personality. He is a typical representative of the lower middle class family. He is poor but somehow manages to pull on with his family. He lacks refined manners or sophistication. The way he eats the pie exposes his rough eating habits. He tosses one of little Derek’s shoes from his chair on to the sofa. He doesn’t seem to be much interested in the family. Watching football on the television is his favourite pastime. Sophie’s father has passion for football. He is an old admirer of Tom Finny, a great footballer. He adores the upcoming young footballer Casey. So he makes a ‘weekly pilgrimage’ to watch United and Casey in action.

Sophie’s father doesn’t seem to be very sympathetic towards his daughter. But he understands his daughter well. He doesn’t believe in her meeting with Casey. He considers it another of her “wild stories”.

Answer 12.
Kemp is referred to as “the doctor,” but his degree seems to be an academic one rather than a medical one. He continues his own study in the hope of being admitted to “the Royal Fellows.” His own experiments and fascination with science enable him to listen sensibly to Griffin, but in spite of being rather contemptuous of his fellow citizens, his common sense and decency prevent him from being a part of Griffin’s schemes. Kemp is also the only “cool headed” person in the town once the final attack begins. He runs to escape Griffin, but as soon as Griffin catches him, he has the presence of mind to turn the capture around. He is also the first to realize that even though Griffin is invisible, he is injured, and, ultimately, dead. He is a conscientious person in contrast to Griffin who though a genius, is a depraved man.

OR

A symbol is an object that not only demands attention in itself but also refers to another object or to a concept. Often there is no one concept attached to a given object. Instead, a whole range of ideas may be brought into play.

The tale of Silas Marner certainly must be understood symbolically as well as literally. Eppie is cute golden haired toddler when she wanders into Silas’ cottage. Silas is then in the throes of a fit. When he wakes he sees a lock of gold which belongs to Eppie. He adores her and gradually she brings meaning into his life. Eppie is explicitly put forward as a substitute for Silas’ treasure, and this raises questions of the nature of treasures-literal and spiritual. Eppie is a symbol of treasure—a compensation for the real gold that he had lost earlier. Thus she operates at a literal and also symbolic level.

Answer 13.
The theme of corruption in the absence of social law is embodied in the character of Griffin. The narrator uses the invisible man to experiment with the depth to which a person can sink when there are no social restrictions to suppress his behaviour. When Griffin first kills his father, he excuses it by saying that the man was a “sentimental fool”. On the contrary, he resorts to committing atrocities because they are necessary to his survival. The novel also explores the theme of Science without Humanity. The theme is represented in the character of Kemp as well as in Griffin himself. Kemp wants to stop Griffin more out of fear for himself than out of concern for the community, but he is nonetheless fascinated by the accomplishment of this misguided college student. Griffin pursued the idea of invisibility in order to unleash a reign of terror.

OR

Chance and coincidence influence the action in this novel. The novelist, George Eliot has shown how chance and coincidence contribute a lot to the development in the life of the protagonist Silas Marner. The villagers at Lantern Yard arrange draw of lots to pick-up the identity of thief who had stolen the deacon’s money. This is done following an article of their religion. The result of this draw is a matter of chance. Also Eppie’s entry into Silas’ life happens purely by chance. The entry of Eppie the little girl reanimates him. Thus Eppie is the best compensation for his loss of gold. Godfrey’s orders for the stone- pits to the drained of all their waters and the discovery of Dunstan’s skeleton along with Mamer’s lost gold guineas are matter of co-incidence but crucial events and revelations hinge on them.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Englsih Core Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Physical Education is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should approximately 10-20 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should approximately 30-50 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should approximately 75-100 words.

Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by anxiety? 1

Question 2.
Define Disability and Disorder? 1

Question 3.
What do you mean by motor development? 1

Question 4.
What are postural deformities? 1

Question 5.
What do you mean by ageing? 1

Question 6.
Define energy. 1

Question 7.
Define Yoga? 1

Question 8.
Define Adduction and Abduction movement in sports? 1

Question 9.
Briefly state about menopause. 1

Question 10.
Define nutrition. 1

Question 11.
What do you understand by seeding? 1

Question 12.
Elaborate Yoga asana as a preventive measure of health? 3

Question 13.
Discuss the test items of Barrow General Motor Ability test. 3

Question 14.
Discuss any three physiological factors determining speed. 3

Question 15.
Discuss any three pitfalls of dieting. 3

Question 16.
Elaborate any three physiological benefits of exercise on children. 3

Question 17.
Sudha was a good boxer from her school days. She used to come to school from a remote village. Most of the aged persons of the village used to object her for taking part in boxing. They even said to her father not to allow her for sports but he wanted his daughter to be an international level boxer. He did not listen to them. He tried to give every facility to his daughter. Now after ten years of hard training she has been selected for world cup boxing Championship. She is sure to win laurels for her country. 3
On the basis of above passage answer the following questions:
(i) Do you agree with the views of most of the villagers? Answer in brief.
(ii) What values are shown by Sudha’s father regarding her sports participation?
(iii) What lesson do you learn from the above passage?

Question 18.
Discuss any three advantages of correct posture. 3

Question 19.
Distinguish between Intramural and Extramural programmes. 3

Question 20.
Explain the administration of AAPHER youth fitness test. 5

Question 21.
Elaborate the prevention of sports injuries. 5

Question 22.
Discuss the muscles involved in Throwing? 5

Question 23.
Define strength and discuss the methods of improving strength in detail. 5

Question 24.
Elucidate the psychological effects of regular exercise on individual. 5

Question 25.
Discuss any five effects of exercise on respiratory system. 5

Question 26.
Draw a fixture of 11 teams on knockout basis. 5

Answers.

Answer 1.
Anxiety is feeling of worry, nervousness or unease about something with an uncertain outcome.

Answer 2.
Disability is an injury that restricts the functions or movements of a person. It is a term associated with impairment causing restrictions to the functions and movement of a person.
Disorder is an illness that causes disruption to the functions of a person. It is any ailment that disturbs the health of a person.

Answer 3.
Motor development refers to the development of a child’s bone, muscles and ability to move around and manipulate his environment. Motor development means the development of movement and various motor abilities from birth till death.

Answer 4.
Postural deformities are the improper alignment of body parts. One who has postural deformities cannot perform his work efficiently. Some deformities are Kyphosis, Scoliosis, etc.

Answer 5.
Ageing is an inevitable and extremely complex, multi-factorial process. It is characterized by progressive degeneration of organ systems and tissues.

Answer 6.
Energy is the capacity to do work. However, there are various forms of energy but in the field of games and sports our main concern is about mechanical energy.

Answer 7.
Yoga is a science of balancing between mind, body and spirit. It is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Yuj’in spiritual terms mean the union of the individual consciousness with the universal consciousness.

Answer 8.
Adduction refers to a movement towards the midline or centre, it is a movement of a body part towards the median plane.
Abduction is a movement away from the midline or centre, it refers to any movement of the body part away from the median plane.

Answer 9.
Menopause is the time when a woman stops having menses. It occurs when menstruation ceases for a period of one year. Usually, it occurs in women in mid-life between 45 and 55 years of age.

Answer 10.
Menopause is the time when a woman stops having menses. It occurs when menstruation ceases for a period of one year. Usually, it occurs in women in mid-life between 45 and 55 years of age.

Answer 11.
Seeding, the players participate directly in quarter- final or semi-final. They need not to wait for longer duration.

Answer 12.
Yoga asana for prevention:
(i) Yoga as a rejuvenation activity:

• Provide Physical Relaxation
• Prevents Stress
• Facilitate emotional control

(ii) Yoga as a Supplementary activity:

• Improves muscle tone
• Facilitate Physical functioning

(iii) Yoga as a Compensatory activity:

• Prevent Muscular Disbalance
• Facilitate Rehabilitation

Answer 13.
Harold M Barrow developed a test of motor ability for college men and high school boys.

• Standing Broad Jump – to measure power, agility, speed and strength. It is done by taking a long jump with the feets together. Three trials are given. Final score is distance in inches from the best jump
• Zigzag Run – to measure agility and speed. Subject is advised to stand behind the starting line. Running is done in zigzag manner and three rounds are completed.
• Six Pound Medicine Ball Put – to measure strength of arms and shoulders including their coordination, speed and balance. Subject is advised to put the ball. Three trials are given.

Answer 14.
Factors determining speed.
(i) Mobility of the nervous system – Contraction and relaxation of muscles is controlled by nervous system. Frequency of contraction and relaxation is determined by excitability of nerve impulse.
(ii) Muscle composition – The percentage of white muscle and red muscle fibre is genetically determined and cannot be changed through training.
(iii) Explosive strength – It Depends on, muscle composition muscle size, muscle coordination and metabolic process.

Answer 15.
The Pitfalls of Dieting:
(i) Drinking Your Calories – when we try to lose weight, often the focus is on what you eat and not what you drink. Beverages can play a huge role depending on what you drink. Let’s take a standard Double coffee for example: If you get a medium double from Tim Horton, you will be consuming 210 calories each time. For coffee addicts, this can add up quick. Also consider other calorie ridden beverages such as pop, iced tea, juice, smoothies and flavoured ice drinks.

(ii) Not getting enough protein – I find this is more of an issue with my female clients, but protein is just as important as fibre for filling you up. Protein also helps you to feel more alert. Therefore, if you are eating a morning breakfast with very little protein, you may end up feeling sluggish and be more prone to snacking. You don’t need a lot of protein either: Try adding peanut butter to your toast in the morning or a few walnuts to your cereal or even a boiled egg at your snack. You’ll feel more satisfied and be able to go longer without eating.

(iii) Eating Too Few Calories –1 know it seems a tad backwards but your body has systems from fighting against starvation and some diets are so restrictive they do just that. When we under eat our body goes into ‘starvation mode’, causing our metabolism to drop and for our bodies, to hold on to more calories out of fear that food isn’t widely available. Also eating the same number of calories daily can have the same affect. That’s why it’s a good idea to have a reward meal once per week to prevent this. A reward meal should not turn into a reward week though.

Answer 16.

1. Exercise Controls Weight – Regular exercise helps in controlling weight. In fact weight gain occurs when child takes more calories than the requirement of his body. The unused or excess calories are accumulated as fats in his body. In this way, he starts gaining weight which ultimately leads him towards overweight and obesity. Nowadays a lot of children not only in India but throughout the world are getting obese which is the root cause of various physiological problems. Regular exercise helps such children in burning excess calories. The more intense the activity or exercise, the more calories they bum. Regular exercise takes the fat away and lowers the excess weight.
2. Exercise Strengthens Bones – Exercise builds strong bones. As a matter of fact, exercise increases bone density which helps in preventing osteoporosis. If regular exercise is not performed, the bones usually lose their density, becomes weak, fragile and porous.
3. Exercise Strengthens the Lungs – Exercise is beneficial for children because it enhances the lungs capacity and their efficiency in inhalation and exhalation. It increases the size of lungs. Tidal air capacity and vital air capacity are increased. Even unused alveolus becomes active. So, it can be said that lungs are strengthened and becomes capable to perform various activities for a longer duration.

Answer 17.

1. No, the villagers depict the orthodox beliefs of domesticating the women and not giving them opportunities for studying or winning name and fame for their country.
2. Sudha’s father is open minded and motivated her daughter to participate in sports. Open mindedness motivation.
3. Do fight for the right things. Work hard and believe in yourself.

Answer 18.
(i) Physical Appearance – It is a natural phenomenon that every individual wants to have a good physical appearance. It also becomes more important in the presence of opposite sex. For creating a good impression on the other people, good appearance is prerequisite.
(ii) Grace and efficiency of Movements – Physical posture plays a vital role in the field of sports and games .Sports and games involved various types of movements. Walking, running, jumping and throwing depend upon the abilities of movements .An athlete requires a variety of efficient movement’s .The apex marks can be achieved in the field of sports if movements of the sportsman are efficient and graceful.
(iii) Physical fitness – Physical fitness is essential to live a fruitful life .Physical fitness can be achieved, if you have good posture. The balance, coordination, flexibility etc. are the components of fitness

Answer 19.

Answer 20.
AAPHER Youth Fitness Test was formed in 1965 in United States. It was a test in which these items were included:

• Pull Ups For Boys – to measure arm and shoulder strength.
  Procedure – the bar adjusted according to the height of the subject is used for this test. The student is advised to raise his body so that the chin reaches the level of the bar. One score is awarded for each pull ups. One trial is given.
• Flexed Arm Stand For Girls – to measure arm and shoulder strength.
  Procedure – the adjusted bar is held with hand grasp. The student lifts her body with help of assistance of testing personnel so that her chin reaches bar level. The elapsed time is taken as score. The score is nearest second.
• Standing Long Jump – to measure power.
  Procedure – the student is advised to stand on restraining line with feet close and he/she dips at the knee and swinging arms before jumping. The student lands on both feet together. The distance from take offline to the heel is measured in inches. The best of three trials is recorded as final score.
• 50 Yard Dash – to measure speed.
  Procedure – the student is advised to run 50 yards and the time is recorded nearest to 10th of a second.
• 600 Yard Run Walk – to measure endurance.
  Procedure – the student is advised to run or walk 600 yards and the time is recorded in minutes and seconds.

Answer 21.

• Proper conditioning – It is well known fact that many injuries are caused by weak muscles which are not ready to meet the demand of your sports or games. So, getting proper muscular strength, proper conditioning of your body is essential.
  Weight training and circuit training methods are significant methods of proper conditioning. These methods of conditioning also improve the Neuro- muscular coordination which is also helpful in preventing sports injuries.
• Proper Warming – Before sports training or participation in sports competition, proper warm-up is essential. It definitely reduces the chances of getting injury because muscles remain in tone up position after getting proper warm-up.
• Nutritional Inadequacy – Balanced diet is also essential for the prevention of sports injuries because the lack of essential minerals and vitamins such as calcium, phosphorous and vitamin ‘D’ etc.
• Use of protective equipments and facilities – It is an easy and best way to prevent from sports injuries. These protective equipments protect the sportspersons from getting injured. The stress should be laid down on the quality of protective equipments.
• Unbiased officiating – If the officiating specially in team games is unbiased, the chances of getting injury will be rare. If the officials of the match are biased, there may be more chances of indiscipline among players which may further lead to injuries.

Answer 22.
Throwing comprises of two phases, the preparatory phase and the throwing phase.
Most actions are rotational in the transverse plane and longitudinal axis and the two joints primarily involved are the elbow and shoulder.
The elbow is a hinge joint formed by the humerus and ulna.
The shoulder is a ball and socket joint formed between the humerus and the scapula.

Answer 23.
Strength is the ability of the muscles to overcome resistance. It is an essential element or component of physical fitness.
Method of Improving Strength Development-Isometric, Isotonic, Isokinetic.

(i) Isometric Exercise – Theses exercises are not visible. In fact, there are no direct movements, hence they cannot be observed, in these exercises, work is performed but it is not seen directly. In these exercises, a group of muscles carry out tension against the other group of muscles. When these exercises are done, muscles do not change their length. They remain fixed or constant. Although, muscles do not remain constant or still completely. Muscles feel slight tremor if exercise is done for some time. The more we exert strength or force, the more tremors will be in the muscles. In a general term we can say that work is done during these exercises but scientifically, we cannot say that work is done. For example, if we push a concrete wall, we will be unable to move it from its place. So, we should not consider it as work. Our muscles exert force, whole pushing a wall, but we see that work is not done because work is said to be done when the point of application of a force moves. Work done = Force x distance moved in the direction of force.
When we do these exercises, expenditure of energy is a usual phenomenon. Sometimes temperature may increase while performing these exercises. When we do these exercises, expenditure of energy is a usual phenomenon. Sometimes, temperature may increase while performing these exercises. If we perform these exercises regularly, muscles will be changed in relation to size and shape. These exercises are used for the development of strength. The strength improved through isometric exercises is usually not of much value in sports. These exercises need less time and can be performed anywhere because no equipment is required to do these exercises. There are some positive points to do these exercises; hence these exercises can be used for strength development. These exercises are valuable for rehabilitation. These exercises should not be performed by children and untrained people.

(ii) Isotonic Exercise – These exercises are such in which movement can be seen directly. Work is done in these exercises. These exercises tone up the muscles. Muscles become flexible. Length of the muscles can be increased by isotonic exercises. These exercises are of much value in sports field. They are best for strength development. Calisthenics
exercises, running and jumping on the spot, weight training exercises, exercises with medicine ball are the best examples of isotonic exercises. These can be done with or without apparatus.

(iii) Iso-kinetic Exercise – These are performed on specially designed machines. These exercises were developed by Perrine in 1968. These exercises involve a specific type of muscle contraction, which is usually not applicable in sports and games. In isotonic exercises, contraction of muscle applies maximal forces only at a particular angle of ► its range of movement, whereas, in iso-kinetic exercises contraction of muscle applies maximal forces throughout the complete range of movement. According to the individual’s capacity the speed of contraction can be adjusted. The individual, who performs iso-kinetic exercises on machine, should keep in his mind that he has to apply his force throughout the range of movement. By fixing the number of repetition and by reducing or increasing the speed, the Isokinetic exercises can be used effectively for the development of strength. With the help of these exercises explosive strength and strength endurance can also be improved.

Answer 24.
Psychological effects of exercise:

• Improves mood – exercise is a great source of energy. It helps in changing mood. It
  stimulates various brain toxins which make us feel happy.
• Develops self-confidence – regular exercise increases strength which leads to better fitness
  and develops self confidence.
• Reduces depression – exercise act as antidepressant and recreational activities.
• Reduces anxiety and stress – regular exercise reduces muscle tension, frustration and
  anxiety. Exercise also reduces build up of stress hormones. .
• Increases relaxation – people who do not work out regularly often face insomnia. Meditation is also a great source of relaxation.
• Improves self-esteem – regular exercise improves body image, self-worth and self esteem.

Answer 25.
(i) Strong will – power. Regular exercises increase will- power of the individual. As pranayama, the specific exercise for lungs increases the will power of the doer.

(ii) Increase in tidal air capacity – Tidal air is the amount of air that flows in and out of the lungs in quiet respiratory movement. But tidal air capacity is the amount of air that can be breathed in and breathed out, over and above the tidal air by the deepest possible inspiration/expiration respectively. It is estimated at about 500-800 cc. after doing regular exercise, it has been noted that this tidal air capacity can be increased.

(iii) Decrease in Rate of Respiration – It is certain that when a beginner starts exercise, the rate of respiration increases. But when the same individual performs exercise daily, his rate of respiration decreases in comparison to the beginning stage at rest.

(iv) Strengthens Diaphragm and Muscles – Regular exercise strengthens the diaphragm and muscles of the chest.

(v) Avoids Second Wind – For a beginner, the stage of second wind is, indeed, a crucial stage. But for a regular exercise, it is hardly felt sometimes when experienced athlete does not feel it in his course of activity.

(vi) Unused Alveoles become active – Regular exercise activates the unused alveolus because much amount of 02 is required in vigorous and prolonged exercise of daily routine. The passive alveolus becomes active.

Answer 26.
Total number of teams =11
Upper half = n + 1/2 = 11 + 1/2 = 6
Lower half = n – 1/2 = 11 – 1/2 = 5
Power of two’s = 24 n. of teams = 16-11= 5
No. of Byes = 5
No. of Byes in Lower Half = nb + 1/2 = 5 + 1/2 = 3
No. of Byes in Upper Half = nb – 1/2 = 5 – 1/2 = 2

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 3

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Economics is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time : 3 hrs
M.M.: 80

General Instructions

• All questions in both the sections A and B are compulsory. However, there is internal choice in questions of 3,4 and 6 marks.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short answer type questions, carrying 1 mark each.
  They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short answer I type questions, carrying 3 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 60 words each.
• Question Nos. 7-9 and 19-21 are short answer II type questions, carrying 4 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 100 words each.
• Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit be adhered to as far as possible.

Section – A

Question 1.
Kamakshi’s brother Divij gave her ₹ 1,000 on the occassion of Rakshabandhan. She wants to buy a jeans which costs ₹ 900 and a pair of shoes which cost ₹ 600. However, with the . available amount, she cannot purchase both and has to choose amongst the two. Which problem is being faced by Kamakshi?

Question 2.
When there are diminishing returns to factor, total product first increases at increasing rate and then starts falling. The given statement is
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) None of these

Question 3.
Draw fixed cost curve.

Question 4.
For a firm, Total Cost= Total Profit= ₹ 100. This is a situation of
(a) abnormal profit
(b) normal profit
(c) break-even point
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 5.
Vishnu consumes two commodities X and Y, whose prices are ₹ 16 and ₹ 24 per unit whether Vishnu is in equilibrium? If not, then tell what should he do to achieve equilibrium.
Or
Differentiate between individual demand curve and market demand curve.

Question 6.
Gulf countries have acquired more capital goods by selling oil to various countries. What would be its impact on Production Possibility Curve?

Question 7.
Explain monopoly and monopolistic competition.

Question 8.
Price of a commodity rises from ₹ 5 to ₹ 6. As a result, its demand falls from 100 units to 80 units. Find out Price Elasticity of Demand (E_d) by percentage method.
Or
If a fact is given that the slope of a straight line demand curve = \(\frac { \triangle }{ \triangle Q } \), how do you relate it to own price elasticity of demand, Also, find price elasticity of demand, if demand is perfectly elastic.

Question 9.
A firm’s fixed cost is ₹2,000. Compute Total Variable Cost (TVC), Average Variable Cost (AVC), Total Cost (TC) and Average Cost (AC) with the help of the following table.

Question 10.
Explain with the help of diagram, the effect of following changes on the demand for a commodity.
(i) A fall in the price of complementary goods
(ii) A rise in the price of substitute goods.

Question 11.
State the Law of Supply, the assumptions on which it is based and exceptions to the law of supply.

Question 12.
When both demand and supply fall simultaneously, what will be the effect on
Or
Explain the effect of decrease in supply when
(i) demand is perfectly elastic
(ii) demand is perfectly inelastic

Section – B

Question 13.
What do you mean by Escheat?

Question 14.
Interest received on loans is a capital receipt of the government. Do you agree?

Question 15.
In case of credit money
(a) Money value = Commodity value
(b) Money value > Commodity value
(c) Money value < Commodity value
(d) None of these

Question 16.
What type of losses a depositor has to bear if he withdraws his fixed deposit before the due date of maturity?

Question 17.
In an economy, investment increases by ₹ 100 crore. As a result, income increases by ₹ 250 crore. What is the value of multiplier? What does this imply?

Question 18.
Distinguish between voluntary unemployment and involuntary unemployment.
Or
Write any three points of difference between ex-ante investment and ex-post investment.

Question 19.
Find compensation of employees.

Question 20.
In a developing economy, Central Bank plays a prominent role. Comment.
Or
Briefly explain the components of money supply in India.

Question 21.
‘Mission Develop India’ is the plan of government to create basic infrastructure. It comprises of projects on irrigation, roads, housing, water supply and telecommunication connectivity. Above stated example is a government expenditure or government revenue. Elaborate it. Also, state the impact of this programme on rural growth.

Question 22.
Calculate Gross Domestic Product at Market Price ( ) by using
(i) Product Method
(ii) Income Method

Question 23.
What do you understand by Aggregate Demand (AD)? Also explain its components briefly.
Or
Given that National Income is ₹ 80 crore and Consumption Expenditure is ₹ 64 crore, find out Average Propensity to Save (APS). When income rises to ₹ 100 crore and Consumption Expenditure to 178 crore, what will be the Average Propensity to Consume (APC) and Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)?

Question 24.
How is exchange rate determined under flexible exchange rate system? Also enumerate the sources of demand and supply of foreign exchange. If demand for foreign exchange is continuously rising then which economic value stands affected?

Answers

Answer 1.
Kamakshi is facing problem of choice. This problem arises because wants are unlimited and resources are scarce and have alternative uses.

Answer 2.
(b) The given statement is false.

Answer 3.

Answer 4.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer 5.
A consumer strikes his equilibrium when, \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ X } } =\frac { M{ U }_{ Y } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \)
Now, as per the given information, \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ X } } =\frac { 6 }{ 16 } =\frac { 3 }{ 8 } \) and \(\frac { M{ U }_{ Y } }{ { P }_{ Y } } =\frac { 4 }{ 24 } =\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \)
∴ \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ X } } \neq \frac { M{ U }_{ Y } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \)
So, Vishnu is not in equilibrium
Now, \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ X } } >\frac { M{ U }_{ Y } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \left[ \because \frac { 3 }{ 8 } >\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \right] \)
Therefore, to attain equilibrium, Vishnu should start consuming more of Good X and less of Good Y so that
MU of good X declines and MU of Good Y increases till the point. Where \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ X } } =\frac { M{ U }_{ Y } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \)
Or
Difference between individual demand curve and market demand

Answer 6.
It is an example of growth of resources. Therefore, it results in rightward shift of Production Possibility Curve. It leads to higher level of output for the gulf countries.
It is depicted in the graph given below :

Answer 7.
Monopoly It refers to that form of market in which there is a single firm (or producer) producing a good/service, for which there are no close substitutes, e.g. Indian Railways, Reserve Bank of India, etc.
The main features of monopoly are stated below :

1. Single producer
2. No close substitutes
3. Barriers to entry
4. Independent price policy
5. Price discrimination is possible

Monopolistic Competition It is a market situation in which there are many sellers of a particular product but the product of each seller is differentiated from the other, e.g. soaps and toothpastes.
The main features of monopolistic competition are stated below :

1. Large number of buyers and sellers
2. Freedom of entry or exit
3. Product differentiation
4. Imperfect knowledge
5. Selling costs
6. High transportation costs

Answer 8.
Here, price and quantity for the commodity are as follows:

Given,
Initial Price (P)= ₹ 5 Change in Price(∆P) = ₹ 1(6-5)
Initial Quantity (Q) = 100 units Change in Quantity (∆Q) = 20 units (100 – 80)
We know that,
Elasticity of Demand \(\left( { E }_{ d } \right) =\left( – \right) \frac { \triangle Q }{ \triangle P } \times \frac { P }{ Q } \)
\(=\left( – \right) \frac { 21 }{ 1 } \times \frac { 5 }{ 100 } \)
∴ E_d = (-1)
Or
We know that, price elasticity of demand \(\left( { E }_{ d } \right) =-\frac { \triangle Q }{ \triangle P } \times \frac { P }{ Q } \)
It is given that, the slope of demand curve = \(\frac { \triangle P }{ \triangle Q } \)
We can write that, \({ E }_{ d }=\frac { 1 }{ Slope\quad of\quad Demand\quad Curve } \times \frac { P }{ Q } \)
Where, P = Initial Price, Q = Initial Quantity, ∆P = Change in Price ∆Q = Change in Quantity
So it follows that, price elasticity of demand is the reciprocal of the slope of the demand curve multiplied by the ratio of price to quantity.
If demand is perfectly elastic, slope of demand cunve = 0
By formula,
\({ E }_{ d }=\frac { 1 }{ Slope\quad of\quad Demand\quad Curve } \times \frac { P }{ Q } =\frac { 1 }{ 0 } \times \frac { P }{ Q } =\infty \)
∴ Price elasticity of demand is at infinity, if demand is perfectly elastic.

Answer 9.
Cost Schedule

Formulae used
TVC = ΣMC
AVC = TVC / units of output
TC = TFC + TVC
AC = TC / units of output

Answer 10.
(i) Complementary Goods It refers to those goods, which are used together for satisfaction of wants, e.g., car and petrol, pen and refill, needle and thread, tea and sugar, etc.
Effect of Fall in the Price of Complementary Goods The demand for a commodity increases with the fall in the price of complementary goods. If there is a fall in the prices of complementary goods, the demand curve shifts to the right which shows increase in demand at a given price of the commodity itself. The shifting of demand curve for a commodity to the right with fall in the price of complementary good is shown in the diagram given below :
Diagram Showing Increase in Demand for Complementary Goods

(ii) Substitute Goods These are those goods which can be substituted for each other, such as tea and coffee, ball pen and ink pen, etc.
Effect of Rise in the Price of Substitute Goods In case of such goods, increase in the price of one causes increase in the demand for the other, e.g. demand curve of tea shifts to right when price of the substitute commodity, i.e. coffee increases.
The shifting of demand curve for a commodity to the right with rise in the price of substitute good is shown in the diagram given below :

Answer 11.
Law of supply derives the relationship between price and quantity supplied. According to this law, quantity supplied of a commodity is directly related to the price of a commodity, provided all other determinants are constant. The quantity supplied increases with increase in price and vice-versa.
Assumptions of the Law of Supply
The various assumptions of the Law of Supply are given below :

1. There is no change in the price of the factors of production.
2. There is no change in the techniques of production.
3. There is no change in the goal of the firm.
4. There is no change in the price of related goods.

Exceptions to the Law of Supply
The following are the exceptions to the Law of Supply :

1. Agricultural Goods Law of Supply does not apply for agricultural goods, as their supply depends on climatic conditions and not on price.
2. Perishable Goods Perishable goods like fruits, vegetables, milk and milk products cannot be held for long. Therefore, suppliers are willing to supply these products, even when prices are less, for fear that they would become totally useless.
3. Antique Goods, Rare Articles and Paintings These goods are highly priced, but still their supply is limited, as supply here is affected by factors other than price, e.g., the supply of Hussain’s paintings cannot be increased even if buyers are willing to pay high price for it.
4. Future Expectations Regarding Prices If prices are rising, but sellers anticipate that they would rise further in future, then they would not increase their supply now.
5. Lack of Resources In underdeveloped or backward economies, supply cannot be increased due to lack of resources.
6. Labour Market In the labour market, it is observed that as the wage rate rises, the workers tend to work for less hours, so as to enjoy more leisure. This causes the supply of workers to decrease at increased wage rate.

Answer 12.
Equilibrium Price The price at which market demand equals market supply is termed as equilibrium price: When demand and supply both fall simultaneously, there are three possible conditions under this situation :
(i) No Change in Equilibrium Price If there is proportionately equal change in demand and supply, the equilibrium price will remain constant, as shown in the following figure :

(ii) Equilibrium Price can Fall If decrease in demand is greater than decrease in supply, then equilibrium price will fall, as shown in the following figure :

(iii) Equilibrium Price can Rise If decrease in demand is less than decrease in supply, then equilibrium price will increase, as shown in the following figure :

The effect of decrease in supply when
(i) Demand is Perfectly Elastic Decrease in supply of commodity does not cause any change in its price in case demand for the commodity is perfectly elastic. Only equilibrium quantity tends to change.

Demand is infinite at existing price. So, decrease in supply does not cause any change in price.
(ii) Demand is Perfectly Inelastic Decrease in supply of commodity causes rise in price and equilibrium quantity remains constant when demand for commodity is inelastic.

Demand is constant at every price. So, decrease in supply does not cause any change in price.

Section – B

Answer 13.
Escheat is the revenue which government makes out of the property that people leave without a legal heir.

Answer 14.
No, this is a revenue receipt of the government, as it neither increase liabilitie nor reduce assets.

Answer 15.
(b) Money value > Commodity value

Answer 16.
A depositor will loose interest and certain amount out of the principal money, if he withdraws his fixed . deposits before due date. It is a financial loss.

Answer 17.
Given, Increase in Investment (∆/) = ₹ 100 crore; Increase in Income (∆Y) = ₹ 250 crore
We know that, Investment Multiplier \(\left( K \right) =\frac { \triangle Y }{ \triangle l } \Rightarrow \frac { \triangle Y }{ \triangle l } =\frac { 250 }{ 100 } =2.5\)
This implies that for every unit increase in investment, income increases 2, 5 times.

Answer 18.
Difference between voluntary unemployment and involuntary unemployment are :

Or
Difference between ex-ante Investment and ex-post Investment are

Answer 19.
Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDP_FC)
NDPFC Compensation of Employees + Operating Surplus (Profit + Interest-)- Rent) + Mixed Income
∴ Compensation of Employees = NDP_FC – Operating Surplus – Mixed Income
= 4,000 – (500 + 400 + 600) – 1,500
= 4,000 – 3,000 = ₹ 1,000 crore
So, compensation of employees = ₹ 1,000 crore

Answer 20.
In a developing economy like India, the main objective of central banking is to promote economic growth.
The role of a Central Bank in a developing economy is discussed below :

1. Control and Regulation of Banking System The Central Bank is expected to perform its traditional functions of controlling and directing the banking structure of the country.
2. Promotional Functions Since the monetary and banking structure in a developing economy is backward, the Central Bank helps in the expansion and promotion of the banking structure.
3. Developmental Functions The main problem of developing economies is economic development. The Central Bank must, therefore, take all those steps which help in the advancement of economic growth.

Or
Money supply refers to the stock of money in circulation in an economy at a given point of time. Money supply includes currency in the form of paper money and coins held by individual and business firms and net demand deposits held by commercial banks.
According to M, money measure, money supply has following components:
M₁ = C + DD + OD
Here, C is the currency held by public, DD refers to demand deposit of people with commercial bank and OD includes demand deposits with RBI of other institutions and government.

Answer 21.
It is an example of government expenditure, the principle component of fiscal policy. Such expenditure of government on construction of roads, education, defence of the country are made by the government to correct the situation of excess demand or deficient demand in the economy.
When there is excess demand, government expenditure is reduced and when there is a deficient demand, government expenditure is increased.
It is a flagship programme by the government of India. This project is an investment in rural infrastructure which will unlock the growth potential of rural India.

Answer 22.
(i) By Product Method
Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDP_mp)
=Value of Output (Primary Sector +Secondary Sector + Tertiary Sector)
– Intermediate Consumption (Primary Sector + Secondary Sector + Tertiary Sector)
= (2,000 + 1,800 + 1,400) – (1,000 + 800 + 600) = 5200 – 2,400
GDP_MP = ₹ 2,800 crore

(ii) By Income Method
Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDP_FC)
= Compensation of Employees + Operating Surplus + Mixed Income
= 800 + 600 + 1,300 = ₹ 2,700 crores
GDP_MP = NDP_FC + Net Indirect Tax + Depreciation
= 2,700 + 20 + 80 = ₹ 2,800 crore

Answer 23.
Aggregate Demand (AD) refers to the sum total of expenditure that the people plan to incur on the purchase of goods and services produced in an economy (during the period of an accounting year) corresponding to their different levels of income.
Components of AD are: AD = C + I + G + (X-M)

1. Household Consumption Expenditure (C) This measures the demand for consumer goods .i.e. that expenditure which people wish to make on consumer goods corresponding to different levels of income in economy.
2. Producer Investment Expenditure (/) This measures the demand for producer goods which lead to capital formation i.e. that expenditure which people wish to make on producer goods corresponding to different levels of income in economy.
3. Government Expenditure (G) It refers to public consumption expenditure (such as purchase of foods and clothes for military personnel) and investment expenditure (such as construction of road) made by government.
4. Net Exports (X – M) Exports (X) increase aggregate demand in domestic economy, while imports (M) decrease it. Therefore, value of net exports (X – M) contributes to AD in domestic economy.

Or
Here in first condition, Y = ₹ 80 crore and C = ₹ 64crore
Hence, S = Y – C = 80 – 64 = ₹ 16crore
Now, Average Propensity to Save (APS)
\(APS=\frac { S }{ Y } =\frac { 16 }{ 80 } =0.20\)
Again, when income and consumption expenditure rise,
Y = ₹ 100 crore and C = ₹ 78 crore
So, Average Propensity to Consume (APC)
\(APS=\frac { C }{ Y } =\frac { 78 }{ 100 } =0.78\)
Here, ∆Y = 100 – 80 = ₹ 20 crore
∆C = 78 – 64 = ₹ 14 crore
So, Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)
\(MPC=\frac { \triangle C }{ \triangle Y } =\frac { 14 }{ 20 } =0.70\)
Where, ∆C = Change in Consumption, ∆Y = Change in Income
∆/ = Change in Investment, K = Multiplier
MPC = Marginal Propensity to Consume, APC = Average Propensity to Consume
APS = Average Propensity to Save

Answer 24.
Foreign exchange rate is determined by the demand and supply of foreign exchange.
The rate of foreign exchange is said to be in equilibrium, when the demand for some currency in terms of another currency equals its supply.

In the given figure, the line SS shows the supply of foreign currency which is positively related to the rate of exchange. The line DD shows the demand for foreign currency which is negatively related to the rate of exchange. The point £, at which demand is equal to supply, represents the equilibrium rate of exchange.
Sources of Demand for Foreign Exchange
Foreign exchange is demanded for the following purposes :

1. Purchase of foreign goods by domestic residents, i.e. imports.
2. Payments of international loans.
3. Gifts and grants to the rest of the world.
4. Investments in the rest of the world.
5. Tourism to abroad.

Sources of Supply of Foreign Exchange
Supply of foreign exchange depends on the following factors :

1. Purchases of domestic goods by the foreigners, i.e. exports.
2. Foreign Direct Investment as well as portfolio investment from rest of the world.
3. Speculative purchases of foreign exchange.
4. Tourism and remittances from abroad.
5. Transfer of foreign exchange by the residents of the country abroad. (IB)

If demand for foreign exchange is rising continuously then this leads to an unfavourable exchange rate. This affects the goodwill of the domestic currency in the international market.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 3

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Please check that this paper contains 23 questions.
(ii) The paper contains two parts A and B.
(iii) Part A is compulsory for all.
(iv) Part B has two options—Option-1 Analysis of Financial Statements and Option-II Computerized Accounting.
(v) Attempt only one option of Part B.
(vi) All parts of a question should be attempted at one place.

PART – A
Partnership Firms and Company Accounts

Question 1.
When does the capital account of a partner not show a debit balance in spite of regular losses incurred by the firm?

Question 2.
The balance sheet of a partnership firm had an investment fluctuation reserve of Rs 10,000. A new partner is admitted, value of investments is Rs 60,000 against its book value of Rs 70,000. What amount of the investment fluctuation reserve will be distributed among partners?

Question 3.
A, B and C are sharing profits is the ratio 5 : 4 :1. B retires on 1st January 2015 and his son Z is admitted into partnership in his place. The new profit sharing ratio of A, C and Z is 1:1:1. Do you think in spite of the fact that B’s son Z is admitted in his place, Goodwill will have to be valued? Give reason.

Question 4.
What is meant by private placement of shares?

Question 5.
Raman Industries purchased and installed anti-pollution machines to keep a check on environmental pollution. Highlight the value involved in this decision.

Question 6.
Why is Goodwill considered to be an intangible asset and not a fictitious asset?

Question 7.
A company issues 5,000 equity shares of Rs 10 each payable Rs 2 on application, Rs 3 on allotment and Rs 5 on call. All money was duly received except for the following: Ankur, a holder of 200 shares paid only the application money.
Bahadur, a holder of 300 shares paid the application and allotment money.
All the above shares were forfeited by the company after the call was made and later reissued at Rs 12 per share. Pass journal entries for forfeiture and reissue of shares.

Question 8.
The combined capital of X and Y is Rs 2,00,000 and the market rate of Interest is 12%. Annual salary to partners is Rs 5,000 each. The profits for the last three years were Rs 32,000, Rs 45,000 and Rs 55,000. Goodwill is to be valued at 2 years’ purchase of last three years average super profits. Calculate the goodwill of the firm.

Question 9.
Z Ltd. has an authorised capital of Rs 10,00,000 divided into equity shares of Rs 10 each. The company invited applications for 50,000 shares. Applications for 48,000 shares were received. All calls were made and duly received except the final call of Rs 3 per share on 1,000 shares. These shares on which the final call was not received were forfeited. Show how the share capital will appear in the balance sheet of the company as per schedule III part I of the Companies Act 2013. Also prepare notes to accounts for the same.

Question 10.
Nishant Ltd. was running a business of readymade garments. To expand further, it acquired assets of Rs 25,00,000 and took over creditors of Rs 5,00,000 from Ram Enterprises for a purchase consideration of Rs 24,00,000. In order to pay back to the society, it decided to distribute free garments to the inmates of the old age home on the eve of New year. It issued 20,000,9% Debentures of Rs 100 each at a premium of 20% to Ram Enterprises, to be redeemed at par after 5 years.
Pass the necessary journal entries for the above transactions and also identify the values which the company wants to communicate to the society.

Question 11.
(a) Radha and Rekha are Partners in a firm. Calculate interest on drawings for the year @ 12% per annum. Radha withdraws Rs 5,000 at the beginning of every alternate month and Rekha withdraws Rs 5,000 at the end of every quarter.
(b) What are the two main rights acquired by a new partner?

Question 12.
X, Y and Z are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 :1. From 1st January 2015, they decided to share profits and losses equally.
The partnership deed provides that in the event of any change in the profit sharing ratio, the goodwill should be valued at two years’ purchase of the average profits of the preceding five years. The profits and losses for the proceeding year are 2010 profit Rs 90,000,2011 profit Rs 70,000, 2012 loss Rs 30,000,2013 profit Rs 50,000 and 2014 profit Rs 70,000.
It was realised that the following omission was made. A computer purchased on January 1st 2014 for Rs 25,000 was wrongly considered as revenue expenditure and debited to profit and loss account, on which depreciation is to be charged @ 20%.
Calculate value of goodwill after the above adjustment and give the necessary single adjusting entry to record the above arrangement

Question 13.
(a) R Ltd. Purchased machinery Rs 6,00,000 from Avinash Ltd. 20% of the amount was paid by accepting a bill of exchange and the balance was paid by issue of 10% debentures at a premium of 20%. Pass the necessary journal entries in the books of R Ltd.
(b) G Ltd. purchased 2,000 of its own 9% debentures of Rs 1,000 each at Rs 982 per debenture. The debentures were purchased with the purpose of cancellation.
Record the necessary journal entries in the books of the company.

Question 14.
Ali, Ahmed and Ahsan are partners in a firm. Their balance sheet as on 31st March, 2015 was as under:

Ahmed died on 30th June 2015. Under the terms of the deed, the executors of the deceased partner was entitled to the following:
(i) Amount standing to the credit of the partner’s capital account
(ii) Interest on capital at 12% P.a.
(iii) Share of goodwill on the basis of twice the average of past three years profit
(iv) The deceased partner will be entitled to his share of profit upto the date of death, calculated on the basis of previous years profits.
(v) There was a claim on workmen’s compensation of Rs 4,800.
(vi) Share of profit from the closing of the last financial year to the date of death calculated on last years profits.
Profits for the last three years were 2012-13 Rs 1,02,000,2013-14 Rs 1,10,400,2014-15 Rs 1,11,600. Ahmed’s executors was to be paid Rs 50,000 in two annual installments along with interest @ 6% per annum the balance to be paid immediately.
Prepare Ahmed’s capital A/c and his executors A/c till it is finally closed.

Question 15.
Sneha, Alka and Megha were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of their capitals. Their balance sheet as on 31st March, 2015 stood as under;

On the above date, Sneha retired.
Goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs 30,000 and is to be adjusted in the capital accounts of Alka and Megha, who decide to be equal partners in future.
Fill the missing information in the revaluation account, partners’ capital accounts and the balance sheet of the new firm after Sneha’s retirement

Question 16.
Following is the balance sheet of Rina and Pravita as on 31st march, 2014.

On the above date, the firm was dissolved on the following conditions:
(i) 5% of debtors proved bad, stock realised Rs 28,000, Goodwill – Nil, land and building realised 10% more than its book value.
(ii) Rina decided to take over the investments at its book value.
(iii) Creditors were payable after one month, but were paid immediately and the firm availed a discount of 5% per annum.
(iv) An unrecorded asset was taken over by Pravita at Rs 5,000.
(v) Realisation expenses of Rs 3,000 were paid by Rina.
Prepare necessary ledger accounts.
OR
Anand and Vishnu are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:1. Their balance sheet as at 31st March, 2015 stood as follows:

On 1st April 2015, they admitted Krishna as a Partner. The new profit sharing ratio is agreed as 3 : 2 : 1.
Other adjustments are as under:
(i) Krishna is to bring Rs 90,000 as capital and it was decided that the capital of all partners shall be in proportion to their profit sharing ratio.
(ii) The goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs 1,20,000 and Krishna will contribute his share of goodwill in cash.
(iii) All debtors are good.
(iv) Depreciate furniture by 10%.
(v) Anand will pay off the bank overdraft.
(vi) Any deficiency or excess of capital will be adjusted through cash.
Prepare revaluation A/c, partners’ capital A/c and the balance sheet of the newly constituted firm.

Question 17.
Govind Ltd. invited applications for 40,000 equity shares of Rs 10 each payable Rs 3 on application, Rs 4 on allotment (including premium) and Rs 4 on first and final call. The issue was oversubscribed by 20,000 shares.
Allotment was made as under:
To applicants of 30,000 shares — 30,000 shares
To applicants of 5,000 shares — Nil
To balance applicants — 10/100 shares
Excess money received on application was adjusted against sums due on allotment and call. All money was duly received. Give journal entries to record the above transactions and show the balance sheet of the company.
OR
Ganpati Ltd. offered for public subscription 20,000 equity shares of Rs 100 each at Rs 110 per share. The amount were payable as follows:
On application – Rs 30 per share
On allotment – Rs 40 per share (including Rs 10 as premium)
On first and final call – Rs 40 per share
Applications for 24,000 shares were received and prorata allotment was made.
Kapil, an applicant for 240 shares, failed to pay the allotment and call money.
Binal, a holder of 300 shares failed to pay the first and final call
All these shares were forfeited.
Out of the forfeited shares, 300(the whole of Kapil’s share being included) were reissued @ 80 per share fully paid up. Journalise the above transactions.

PART – B
‘Analysis of Financial Statements’

Question 18.
Under which type of activity will you classify dividend received by a finance company while preparing cash flow statement.

Question 19.
State with reason whether ‘Discount received on making payment to suppliers would result in inflow, outflow or no flow of cash.

Question 20.
Under which main heads and sub heads of equity and liabilities are the following items shown in the balance sheet of a company as per schedule III.
(i) Unclaimed dividend,
(ii) Calls in arrears,
(iii) Interest accrued but not due on debentures and
(iv) Arrears of fixed cumulative preference dividends.

Question 21.
(a) From the following information, calculate the inventory turnover ratio.
Revenue from operations – Rs 2,00,000, gross profit 25% on cost, opening inventory is 1/3rd of the value of the closing inventory, closing inventory is 30% of revenue from operations.
(b) Net profit ratio of a company was 10%. Its indirect expenses were Rs 40,000 and its cash revenue from operations were Rs 1,50,000. The credit revenue from operations was 60% of the total revenue from operations. Calculate the gross profit ratio of the company.

Question 22.
Prepare a comparative statement of profit and loss from the following information:

Question 23.

Additional information:
(i) A machinery having a net book value of Rs 1,00,000 (Depreciation provided there on Rs 1,62,500) was sold at a loss of Rs 20,000.
(ii) Tax paid during the year Rs 75,000.

Answers

Answer 1.
When partners maintain fixed capital account, all adjustments including share of profit or loss is shown in their current account. Hence, the capital account of the partners will not be distributed and thus, will not show a debit balance in spite of regular losses.

Answer 2.
Nil. There is no excess amount in the investment fluctuation reserve account as the fall in the value of the investment is equal to the reserve.

Answer 3.
Goodwill will still have to be valued due to the re-constitution of the firm. The gaining partners will need to compensate the sacrificing partners.

Answer 4.
Private placement of shares means issue and allotment of shares to a selected group of persons privately and not to the general public. It is made by private companies.

Answer 5.
The value highlighted by the company is to protect the environment.

Answer 6.
Goodwill is not a fictitious asset because it has a realizable value. It is an intangible asset because it cannot be seen and touched.

Answer 7.
In the Books of a company

Answer 8.
Balance sheet of S Ltd. (An extract)

Answer 9.
Balance sheet of S Ltd. (An extract)

Answer 10.
In the books Nishant Ltd.

Value the company wants to communicate to the society are:
(i) Creating employment opportunity through expansion of business.
(ii) Fulfilling social responsibility by distributing readymade garments in old age home.

Answer 11.
(a) Calculation of Interest on Drawings:

(b) The two main rights acquired by a new partner are:
(i) Right to share the profit of the business.
(ii) Right over the assets of the firm.

Answer 12.

Answer 13.
(a) In the books of R. Ltd.

Answer 14.

Answer 15.

Answer 16.

Answer 17.
In the books of Govind Ltd.

Answer 18.
Dividend received by a finance company will be classified under operating activity.

Answer 19.
No flow. Receiving discount does not affect cash.

Answer 20.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

Answer 23.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 6 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 6.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 6

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 6 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Chemistry is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions

• All questions are compulsory.
• Question number 1 to 5 are very short answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
• Question number 6 to 10 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
• Question number 11 to 22 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
• Question number 23 is a value based question and carry 4 marks.
• Question number 24 to 26 are long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
• Use log table, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Which of the 3d series element is not considered as a transition element?
OR
Which transition element of group XII shows two different oxidation states?

Question 2.
Write IUPAC name of the following compound:
CH₃COCH2-CH = CH-CHO

Question 3.
For a reaction in 10 minutes concentration of reactant reduced from 0.12 µ to 0.06 µ and in next 10 minutes it becomes 0.03 µ. Find order of reaction for this reaction.

Question 4.
Draw structure of the methyl hemiacetal of formaldehyde.

Question 5.
Why does physisorption decrease with the increase of temperature?

Question 6.
Complete the following reactions:

1. Pb(NO₃)₂ \(\underrightarrow { Heat }\)
2. XeOF₄ + H₂O →

OR

1. P₄ + HNO₃ (Conc.) →
2. PCl₃ + 3H₂O →

Question 7.
Define the following terms:

1. Mole fraction
2. Reverse osmosis

Question 8.
Draw the structures of the following:
(a) (HPO₃)₃
(b) XeF₂

Question 9.
Calculate the equilibrium constant of the following reaction at 298 K:
Cu(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Cu²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s), E_Cell° = 0.46 V

Question 10.
Write the equation involved in the following reaction

1. Sandmeyer’s reaction
2. Hinsberg’s reagent with 1° amine

Question 11.
Henry’s law constant for the molality of CH₄ in benzene at 298 K is 0.562 k atm. Calculate the solubility of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mmHg.

Question 12.
Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with 0.1 M KCl solution is 100 Ω. If the resistance of the same cell when filled with 0.02 M KCl solution is 520 Ω, calculate the conductivity, molar conductivity of the cell having 0.02 M KCl solution. (The conductivity of 0.1 M KCl solution is 1.29 S/m).

Question 13.
(a) Using VBT predict the geometry and magnetic behaviour of [CoF₆]^3-.
(b) Draw the structures of geometrical isomers of [Fe(CN)₄(NH₃)₂]^–.

Question 14.
Define lyophilic and lyophobic colloids. Give one example of each type. Which one of these two types of sol is easily coagulated and why?

Question 15.
The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of N2Os(g) at constant volume:

Calculate the rate constant.

Question 16.
Among the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula C₅H₁₂, identify the one that on photochemical chlorination yields:
(a) A single monochloride which does not gives elimination reaction.
(b) Three isomeric monochloride
(c) Four isomeric monochloride

Question 17.
State briefly the principle involved in the following processes:

1. Froth flotation process
2. Chromatography
3. Magnetic separation

Question 18.
Give the structures of A, B and C in the following reactions

Question 19.
Write the structures of the monomers used for the following polymer:
(a) PVC
(b) Nylon-6
(c) Teflon

Question 20.
Give reason for the following:

1. Aspartame is limited to cold food only.
2. Allergic action is caused by histamine.
3. Medicines should not be taken without consulting doctors.

Question 21.
Assign suitable reason for the following:
(a) Bond angle of NO^–₂ is less than NO⁺₂.
(b) Sulphur in vapour phase shows paramagnetic behaviour.
(c) Noble gases have very low Boiling point.

Question 22.
Give reasons for:

1. Aldehydes are more reactive towards addition nucleophilic reaction as compared to ketones.
2. Phenol is less acidic than carboxylic acid though it has more number of resonating structures.
3. During the preparation of ester from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst, ester should be distilled off as soon as it forms.

Question 23.
Sapna a domestic helper of Mrs. Sheela had a wound on her arm but she was not caring for it. Sheela applied dettol on her wound and asked her to show it to a doctor if it does not heal.

1. What type of drugs are applied on wounds to prevent the growth of micro-organisms?
2. Name the components of dettol.
3. Name two other chemical substances of this category.
4. What values are associated with Mrs. Sheela?

Question 24.

1. 1. Name a member of the lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +4 oxidation state.
   2. Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element them lanthanoid contraction. Give reason.
2. Complete the following chemical reactions
   1. MnO^–₄ + I^– (aq) \(\underrightarrow { { OH }^{ – } } \)
   2. NO^–₂ + MnO^–₄ + H⁺ →
   3. Cr₂O^2-₇ + Fe²⁺ + H⁺ →

OR
On the basis of lanthanoid contraction, explain the following:

1. Nature of bonding in La₂O₃ and Lu₂O₃.
2. Trends in the stability of oxosalts of lanthanoid as from La to Lu.
3. Stability of the complexes of lanthanoids.
4. Radii of 4d and 5d block elements.
5. Trends in acidic character of lanthanoid oxides.

Question 25.
(a) A compound is formed by two elements M & N. The element N form ccp array and atoms
of the element M occupy 1/3 rd the tetrahedral void. What is the formula of the compound?
(b) An element has a ccp structure with radii of atom 141.4 pm. The density of the element is 8 g/cm³. How many atoms are present in 220 g of this element?
OR
(a) Describe the two main types of semiconductors and contrast their conduction mechanism.
(b) An element with molar mass 2.7 × 10^-2 kg/mol forms a cubic unit cell with edge length 405 pm. It its density is 2.7 kg/m³, what is the nature of the cubic unit cell?

Question 26.
(a) Give the mechanism for formation of ethoxyethane from the ethanol.
(b) Distinguish the following pairs:
(i) Ethanol and propan-l-ol
(ii) Anisole and phenol
(iii) Ethoxyethane and ethanol

OR
(a) Arrange according to the given instruction:
(i) Methoxy phenol, o-chlorophenol and o-nitrophenol (Acidic strength)
(ii) Ethanol, propane, methoxy methane (Boiling point)
(iii) Butan-1-ol, 2-methyl propan-2-ol, Butan-2-ol (elimination reaction)
(b) (i) Phenol is more acidic than ethanol. Why?
(ii) Write the chemical reaction for the preparation of phenol from cumene

Answers

Answer 1.
Zinc (Zn) element of 3d-series is not considered as a transition element.
OR
Hg (Hg⁺ and Hg²⁺)

Answer 2.
5-oxohex-2-enal

Answer 3.
Since in every 10-minutes concentration becomes half, so it is a first order reaction.

Answer 4.

Answer 5.
Physiosorption is an exothermic process. Thus with increase in temperature, the tendency of physiosorbed molecules to be retained on the surface of adsorbent decreases.

Answer 6.

1. 2Pb(NO₃)₂ \(\underrightarrow { Heat }\) 4NO₂ + 2PbO
2. XeOF₄ + H₂O → XeO₂F₂ + 2HF

OR

1. P₄ + 20HNO₃ (Conc.) → 4H₃PO₄ + 20NO₂ + 4H₂O
2. PCl₃ + 3H₂O → H₃PO₃ + 3HCl

Answer 7.

1. Mole fraction : It is fraction of a component present in each mole of solution
   
2. Reverse osmosis : It is the movement of pure solvent molecules from solution through semi-permeable membrane on application of pressure greater than osmotic pressure to the higher concentration side.

Answer 8.

Answer 9.
Cu(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Cu²⁺(aq) + 2Ag (s) n = 2
Since ΔG° = – nFE_Cell° = – 2.303 RT log K_c

Answer 10.

1. Sandmeyer’s reaction : Freshly prepared diazonium salt on mixing with cuprous chloride or bromide gives chloro or bromo benzene respectively. Such a reaction is known as Sandmeyer’s Reaction.
   
2. Hinsberg’s reagent with 1° amine :
   Benzene sulphonyl chloride is known as Hinsberg’s reagent:
   

Answer 11.
K_H = 0.562 k atm = 0.562 × 10³ atm
Pressure of gas P(g) = 760 mm Hg = 1 atm
from Henry’s law

Answer 12.
Since,
Cell constant (G*) = Conductivity (K) × resistance (R)
= 1.29 S/m × 100 Ω = 129 m^-1 = 1.29 cm^-1
∴ K for 0.02 M KCl solution

Answer 13.
(a) According to V.B.T the electronic arrangement of [COF₆]^3-.
Co(27) → [Ar] 3d⁷4s²
Co³⁺ → [Ar] 3d⁶

It’s Geometry is octahedral, and it is paramagnetic in nature.
(b) Geometrical isomers of [Fe(CN)₄ (NH₃)₂]^– :

Answer 14.

• Lyophilic colloids : In these, there are attracting forces acting between particles of dispersion medium and dispersed phase and hence these are known as lyophilic colloids. These are reversible in nature.
• Lyphobic Colloids : There is no interaction or have very little interactions between the particles of dispersed phase and dispersion medium, i.e. these are solvent repelling colloids. Hence they known lyophobic colloids and they are irreversible in nature.
  Example of Lyophilic colloids -Starch sol, gum, gelatine.
  Lyophilic colloids -Arsenic sulphide sol, Au sol, sulphur sol etc.
  Lyophobic sols can easily get coagulated.
• Reason : Due to very less interactions between dispersed phase and dispersion medium, coagulation takes place easily.

Answer 15.
If pressure of N₂O₅ (g) decrease by 2x atm, then

Total pressure P_t = 0.5 + x = 0.512
So x = 0.012
Pressure of N₂O₅ at time t = 100 s is 0.5 – 2x
i.e. P_t = 0.5 – 2 × 0.012 0.476 atm
Since for a first order reaction

K = 4.98 × 10^-4 s^-1

Answer 16.

Answer 17.

1. Froth floatation process : Different wettability of ore and gangue particles is the principle involved.
2. Chromatography : The principle involved in this process is different adsorbability of various components of a mixture.
3. Magnetic separation : This is based on the principle of different magnetic properties of the ore components. If either the ore or the gangue particles is capable of being attracted by a magnetic field, then such separation can be carried out.

Answer 18.

Answer 19.

Answer 20.

1. Aspartame gets decomposed at cooking temperature, hence limited to cold food only.
2. When foreign proteins, flower pollens or any disease causing pathogens attached to mast cell it produces histamine for allergic action to act against these foreign particles.
3. Drugs are the chemicals which produces a biological response (pharmacological effect) even when taken in very small dose and may prove fatal. Doctors are aware of all sorts of useful and ill effects of such drugs. Therefore, doctors must be consulted before taking any medicine.

Answer 21.

(b) In vapour phase, sulphur exists as S₂ molecule like O₂ and posses impaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbitals (π^*_3Px and π^*_3Py).
(c) There is weak vander wall’s forces exist among noble gas molecules, hence they have low boiling points.

Answer 22.

1. There is more +I-effect from the two alkyl group of ketones, hence carboxyl carbon has less positive charge and so it will be less reactive than an aldehyde.
2. Phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures but the negative charge lies on less electronegative carbon atoms, hence contribution of such structures is negligible as compared to the resonating structure of carboxylate ion where negative charge lies on the oxygen atom. So the contribution of resonance structures is much more in case of carboxylate ion.
3. Esterification reaction is a reversible reaction, hence ester is distilled off as soon as it is formed.
   

Answer 23.

1. Antiseptics
2. Chloroxylenol, isopropanol, castor oil, soap and pine oil.
3. Iodoform, Tincture iodine
4. Care for all human beings, knowledge of science, concern for maid servant.

Answer 24.

1. 1. Cerium (Ce) (others Gd, Ho, Dy etc)
   2. 5f orbital has poorer shielding than 4f orbital, as a result element to element actinoid contraction is greater than lanthanoid contraction.
   1. MnO^–₄ + I^– \(\underrightarrow { { OH }^{ – } } \) MnO₂ + IO^–₃
   2. NO^–₂ + MnO^–₄ + H⁺ → NO^–₃ + Mn²⁺
   3. Cr₂O^2-₇ + Fe²⁺ + H⁺ → Cr³⁺ + Fe³⁺ + H₂O

OR

1. La₂O₃ is ionic because ‘La’ has largest atomic size and largest ionisation enthalpy among the lanthanoids, whereas Lu₂O₃ is covalent because Lu has smaller size and higher ionisation enthalpy.
2. As the size decreases from La to Lu, therefore the stability of oxo-cations also decreases.
3. The stability of complexes increases as the size of lanthanoids decreases.
4. Radii of 4d and 5d elements are almost same due to lanthanoid contraction.
5. Acidic character of oxides of lanthanoids increases from La to Lu because metallic character decreases due to decrease in atomic size and increase in ionisation enthalpy.

Answer 25.
(a) Since element N is in CCP array there will be 4 ‘N’ atoms and 8 tetrahedral voids, out of which 1/3 is occupied by m atoms, hence formula of the compound:
M_{4×\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)} N₃ ⇒ M₂N₃ is the formula for the given compound.
(b) From question:
Z = 4 for ccp arrangement
radii = 141.4 pm, d = 8 g/cm³
mass of sample = 220 g
No. of atoms in sample (n) = ?

OR
(a) Two main types of semiconductors are:
(i) n-type semiconductor
(ii) p-type semiconductor
n-type semiconductors are formed when an element of higher valency is doped in element of lower valency, e.g. Si is doped with Arsenic (As). The extra electron not involved in covalent bond formation increases the conductivity of doped element, p-type semiconductors are formed when element of higher valency is doped with element of lower valency, e.g. Si is doped with Gallium (Ga). It leads to the formation of holes or electron vacancy in doped element.

Conduction mechanism :
n-type semiconductors-Conduction is due to delocalisation of free electrons in the element lattice.
p-type semiconductors-Conduction is due to movement of holes in doped element lattice.
(b) From the given information
Molar mass (M) = 2.7 × 10^-2 g mol^-1 = 27 g/mol
Edge length (a) = 405 pm = 405 × 10^-10 cm
density (d) = 2.7 × 10³ kg/m³ = 2.7 g/cm³

Alternately: in CGS unit
Z = 4

Answer 26.

(b) (i)

(ii)

(iii)

OR

(ii) Propane < methoxy methane < ethanol
(iii) Butan-1-ol < Butan-2-ol < 2-methyl propan-2-ol
(b) (i) Phenoxide ion is resonance stablised, hence phenol is more acidic than ethanol.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 6 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 6, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education  Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education  Paper 3.

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of
Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Physical Education is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should approximately 10-20 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should approximately 30-50 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should approximately 75-100 words.

Questions.

Question 1.
Define yoga? 1

Question 2.
What do you mean by correct Posture? 1

Question 3.
What do you understand by Circuit Training? 1

Question 4.
Define flexibility and its type in sports? 1

Question 5.
What do you mean by Physical Activity? 1

Question 6.
What is contusion? 1

Question 7.
What do you mean by stroke volume? 1

Question 8.
Define Friction in sports? 1

Question 9.
Define Aerodynamics in sports? 1

Question 10.
Define Flexion and Extension? 1

Question 11.
What is knockout Tournament? 1

Question 12.
Describe the Disability Etiquettes required for inclusivity in physical education program? 3

Question 13.
Briefly discuss the deformities of spinal curvature? 3

Question 14.
Describe the Asanas helpful for health and wellness? 3

Question 15.
Elucidate the meaning and need of food supplements for children? 3

Question 16.
Differentiate between Disability and Disorder among children? 3

Question 17.
My uncle facing age-related health problems especially high blood sugar obesity and
hypertension etc. I consulted my physical education teacher regarding my uncle’s problems because once he had discussed this topic in my class. He told me that he will meet my uncle at home. He came and suggested my uncle to start regular exercise or walking for at least one hour. My uncle started regular walking. After few months his above mentioned problems reduced.
On basis of the above passage answer the following questions. 3
(i) What values are shown by the physical education teacher and the nephew?
(ii) What are the common age -related health problems?
(iii) Do physical activity help in maintaining functional fitness of aged population? State in brief.

Question 18.
What are the aims of sports medicine? Describe any two aims in brief. 3

Question 19.
Explain any three objectives of intramurals. 3

Question 20.
Draw fixture of 19 teams on knockout basis. 5

Question 21.
Define speed and discuss the types of speed in detail. 5

Question 22.
Mention the management of sprain in detail. 5

Question 23.
Define motivation? Elucidate any four techniques of motivation. 5

Question 24.
Enumerate any five effects of exercise on muscular system? 5

Question 25.
Discuss the muscles involved in running? 5

Question 26.
Describe the procedure for administering Rikli and Jones Sr. Citizen fitness Test. 5

Answers.

Answer 1.
Yoga is a science of balancing between mind, body and spirit. It is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Yuj’ in spiritual terms mean the union of the individual consciousness with the universal consciousness.

Answer 2.
“Correct posture is applied to right position of the body assumed while doing any action so that minimum energy is consumed in order to get maximum efficiency.

Answer 3.
Is a method of training that maximizes the volume of work done in a short period of time through the help of different training stations lined up in a planned order of workout. Circuit training is a great tool to use for people who are interested in weight loss, muscle gain and overall strength increases.

Answer 4.
Flexibility is the ability to execute movements with greater amplitude or range.
There are three types of flexibility in sports:

• Dynamic flexibility
• Static Active flexibility
• static passive flexibility

Answer 5.
Physical activity is defined as any bodily movement produced by skeletal muscles that requires energy expenditure. Level of physical activity can be between moderate to high, walking, jogging, participating in sports are examples of physical activity.

Answer 6.
Contusion – Direct impact with blunt object which causes bleeding deep with muscles due to damage in capillaries. It is in bluish color due to tom blood vessels. It is also commonly called as bruise.

Answer 7.
Stroke volume (SV) is the volume of blood pumped from the left ventricle per beat. Stroke volume is an important determinant of cardiac output, which is the product of stroke volume and heart rate. The stroke volume at rest remains up to 50-70 ml/beat in untrained individuals, 70-90 ml/beat in trained individual and 90-110 ml/beat in elite endurance athletes.

Answer 8.
The action of one surface or object rubbing against another. It is the resistance that one surface or object encounters when moving over another.

Answer 9.
Aerodynamics is the study of forces and the resulting motion of objects through the air. It is related to the flow of air around a projectile, which can influence the speed and direction of the object. Aerodynamics in sports study of how air resistance and drag affect sports objects and influence performance.

Answer 10.
Flexion refers to a movement that decreases the angle between two body parts. Flexion at the elbow is decreasing the angle between the ulna and the humerus. When the knee flexes, the ankle moves closer to the buttock, and the angle between the femur and tibia gets smaller.
Extension refers to a movement that increases the angle between two body parts. Extension at the elbow is increasing the angle between the ulna and the humerus. Extension of the knee straightens the lower limb.

Answer 11.
Knock- out Tournament – Most of the tournaments are organized on the basis of knock-out. In this type of tournament, a team which is once defeated, automatically gets eliminated from the tournament. Only the winning teams continue in the tournament. It means that second opportunity is not given to the defeated team.

Answer 12.

• Disability etiquette is a set of guidelines dealing specifically with how to approach people with disabilities. Always use person Disability in writing or addressing.
• Keep you tone low
• Communicate with them slowly and clearly.
• If necessary use communication add as communication book or communication device.
• Give them time to respond. It should be two way communication.
• Ask them before offering any help
• Never do physical or verbally bully to them or about them in your surrounding
• Never play with their equipment’s
• Make surrounding disable friendly and comfortable.
• Make rapport with them for example talk about their liking or disliking

Answer 13.
Deformity of spine is any abnormality of the formation, alignment, or shape of the vertebral column. Spine deformity can happen when unnatural curvature occurs, as in scoliosis (side-to-side curvature), lordosis or kyphosis There are three types of spinal deformities.

• Kyphosis
• Lordosis
• Scoliosis

1. Kyphosis – Kyphosis is an abnormal posterior curve, usually found in the thoracic region of the spine. As such, it is an exaggeration of the normal posterior curve (flexion).
2. Lordosis – Excessive or hyperlordosis is commonly referred to as swayback or saddle back, a term that originates from the similar condition that arises in some horses. A major factor of lordosis is anterior pelvic tilt, when the pelvis tips forward when resting on top of the femurs.
3. Scoliosis – Scoliosis is a lateral curvature or deviation (right or left) of the spine and associated with vertebral rotation. In scoliosis, the vertebral column seen from the front or back is no longer straight. It is Postural adaptation of the spine in lateral direction. A simple or single curve to the left or convexity left is commonly called a ‘c’ curve. Scoliosis curves may be found in ‘S’ shape.

Answer 14.
Asana are very effective for health and wellness

• Meditative Asana – Meditative asana posture are very effective for:
  (a) Energy balancing of the body
  (b) For performing pranayam
  (c) Remove dosha from the body
  (d) Providing concentration and attention
  Example: Padamasan, Vajrasan, Sukhasan
• Cultural Asana – are the asana posture resembling various objects and help in:
  (a) Improving flexiblility of the body
  (b) Develop muscular strength
  (c) Improves functioning of body systems
• Relaxative Asana – are the asana postures without any movement and with great stability, it helps in:
  (a) Relaxation of the body
  (b) Normalization of the respiratory and circulatory systems.

Answer 15.

• Develops immunity.
• Enhance growth and development.
• Add on to taste, which is greatly required if child lacks nutrition.
• Their excess dosage may lead to harm, esp a the fat soluble items.

Meaning and Need of Food Supplements for children.

• Meaning of food supplement. Food supplement means a nutrient that is added to your diet to nurish your body that you are not getting in your regular diet. Food supplements generally include vitamins, minerals, fiber, fatty acids or amino acids, among other substances. These supplements may be in the form of a tablet or powder which can be added to water or milk for consumption.
• Need of food supplements for children: No doubt that food supplements play a vital role is the proper growth and development of children. Though, it is not essential to consumer food supplements but it becomes necessary when there is a lack of proper nutritions diet. In fact, it can be said that food supplements are unnecessaiy if a child takes a balanced diet regularly. Moreover, there are various food supplements which have no practical effect. For example, food supplement omega-3 fatty acids has been shown to be without benefit for health by children.

Answer 16.

1. Any degree of physical disability, malformation or disfigurement that is caused by bodily injury, birth defect or illness, includes, epilepsy, a brain injury, any degree of paralysis, amputation, lack of physical coordination, blindness or visual impairment, deafness or hearing impairment, speech impairment
2. A condition of mental impairment or a developmental disability
3. A learning disability, or a dysfunction in one -or more of the processes involved in understanding or using symbols or spoken language
4. It is an impairment that may be cognitive, developmental, intellectual, mental, physical, sensory, or some combination of these. It substantially affects a person’s life activities and may be present from birth or occur during a person’s lifetime.
5. Disorder is the disturbance which affects the normal functions that is performed by an individual.
6. ADHD – Attention deficit hyper disorder
7. ASD – Autism spectrum disorder
8. SPD – Sensory processing disorder
9. ODD
10. Down syndrome(Syndrome)
11. Cerebral palsy
12. Learning disorder

Answer 17.
(i) Values:

• Importance toward exercise
• Motivation for healthy life style
• Concern for age-related issue
• Consulting an expert for professional support

(ii) Common age – related health problems

• Blood Pressure
• Obesity
• Hypertension

(iii)Physical activity is an effective medium toward health life style and wellbeing. Elderly people can benefit a lot with regular exercise and activity. Low intensity or moderate activities like walking, yoga, gardening are very effective for maintaining muscle tone, heart functioning, respiratory system and provided enough oxygen to various parts of the body for optimal physiological functioning of the body. Physical activity also help in providing social cohesion and opportunity to interact with people for social development and helps to maintain emotional health of elderly people.

Answer 18.
“Sports medicine is a branch of medical science that deals with treatment of injuries related to sports and games.
Aims and scope of sports Medicine:

• To provide the knowledge about the causes of injuries – it is well known fact that each injury has specific causes. Another aim of sports medicine is to provide the knowledge about the causes of injuries. There were no injuries or any kind of misconduct during the event may be various causes of injuries such as improper conditioning, faulty techniques, improper warming up, environment factors, improper fitness, etc.
• To provide means of treatment for sports injuries and for rehabilitation of injuries – Aim , of sports medicine is to provide means of treatment of sports injuries and for rehabilitation
  of injuries. After providing first aid to the injured sportsperson, the specialist of sports medicine must be informed of providing treatment to the injured athlete, various medical treatments such as hydrotherapy, electrotherapy, and infrared rays may be used.

Answer 19.
Objectives of Intramurals:

• To provide opportunity to every student to participate in games and sports- To provide ample opportunities to every student in games and sports is one of the major objectives of intramurals. Generally few students are able to participate in zonal level and district level games and sports .So, the mass participation of students from a school is impossible at such levels of competitions. But in intramurals each and every student can take part in games and sports.
• To develop the leadership qualities among students-Intramural activities are helpful in developing leadership qualities among the students who participate in these activities. Although all the students do not become the leaders yet intramural activities help in developing the leadership qualities among those students, who have some innate qualities of leadership.
• To develop the feeling of cooperation – It is really very difficult to get success alone in the field of sports and games. In fact, cooperation is essential to achieve an apex position in games and sports. Intramural activities help in developing the feeling of cooperation among students.

Answer 20.
Total number of teams =19
Upper half = n + 1/2 = 19+1/2 = 10
Lower half = « — 1/2 = 19-1/2 = 9
Power of two’s = 24n of teams =
32-19=13

No. of Byes =13
No. of Byes in Lower Half = nb + 1/2 13 + 1/2 = 7
No. of Byes in Upper Half = nb – 1/2 13 – 1/2  = 6

Answer 21.
Speed as the rate at which a person can propel his body or parts of his body”.
Speed is the ability to move from one place to another in the shortest possible time. It means that the velocity with which an individual can execute his movements. In other words, it means the capacity of moving a body part or the whole body with the greatest possible velocity. For example, the movement of a smasher’s arm in volleyball has the maximum speed or velocity at the time of smashing the volley ball.
Types of Speed:
Speed appears in different forms in different sports. The main forms in which speed appears are stated below:

• Reaction Ability – Reaction ability depends completely on coordinative processes. So, it is also considered a coordinative ability. Reaction ability is the ability to react effectively I and quickly to any action or signal. In games and sports signals can be of various types such as visual or tactile. In games and sports, reaction ability is not only significant to react quickly to a signal but the reaction should also be accurate according to situation. Reaction ability can be classified into simple reaction ability and complex reaction ability,
  (a) Simple Reaction Ability – It is the ability to react quickly in already determined manner to a known signal. For example, the reaction of a racer in the start of sprint races is already known to the racer.
  (b) Complex Reaction Ability – It is the ability to react quickly and accurately to undetermined or unexpected signals. These signals are unexpected for sportsperson because he does not know when and to which signal he has to react such as facing a ball in cricket by a batsman.
• Acceleration Ability – It is the ability to achieve maximum speed from a stationary position or from low speed state. Generally, sprinters achieve their maximum speed after approximately six seconds. This ability mainly depends upon explosive strength, technique and flexibility. This ability is important in all games and sports in which maximum speed f are to be achieved in quickly such as races, swimming (short distance), hockey, football and gymnastics etc.
• Movement Speed – It is the ability to do a movement in minimum time. It depends upon technique, explosive strength, flexibility and coordinative abilities. It plays a vital role in boxing, wrestling, throws, jumps, gymnastics, and turns in swimming and in sprinting starts. It can be measured by the time taken to complete the movement.
• Locomotor Ability – It is the ability to maintain maximum speed for maximum time or distance. This ability is very significant in only a few sports events such as 100m, 200m, 400m races, short sprints in track cycling, speed skating, swimming, hockey and footballetc.
• Speed Endurance – Speed endurance is the ability to perform movements with high speed under conditions of fatigue. Speed endurance is a very complicate ability which depends upon explosive strength, speed and endurance. It also depends upon technique, local muscular endurance and lactic tolerance ability.

Answer 22.
Sprain-Sprain: It is a ligament injury. It may occur due to overstretching or tearing of ligament. Generally, sprain occurs at wrist joint and ankle joint Sometimes, fracture is also possible
along with the sprain. In such injury, swelling, inflammation, severe pain and tenderness are common symptoms. There can be laxity in the ligament. All the above mentioned symptoms depend on the severity of sprain.
Prevention:

1. A thorough warm-up is necessary for preventing sprain, specially all the joints should be exercised well during warm-up.
2. Proper conditioning should be done during the preparatory phase. 3. All the sports equipments must be of good quality.
3. Playfields/Courts should be smooth and clean.
4. Good officiating is essential for preventing such injury.

Answer 23.
Motivation is the internal process that activate, guide and Maintain behaviour. It is one of the main determinant of an individual’s behavior. The term ‘motivation ‘is derived from the word ‘Motive’. Motive is a combination of thought, feeling or condition that causes one to act. Human behavior is controlled, directed and modified through certain motives. Motivation is one main psychological factor which affects the performance. It means to be inspired to do something. Technique of Motivation

• Goal Setting: It is one of the most important techniques of motivation. If you do not see a goal, you cannot achieve apex positions in your life. So, the sportspersons should be encouraged to set a few ambitious but achievable long term goals according to their capabilities and capacities the coaches or physical education teachers should not too rigid while setting a goal for a sportsperson.
• Elaborate arrangement of competitions: It plays a very significant role in motivation. Sportspersons perform better in competitions if there are elaborate arrangements of competitions.
• Presence of Opposite Sex: Opposite sex plays a vital role in motivation. This is an innate tendency of human beings. Even girls as well as boys try to be smart, active in the presence of opposite sex.
• Spectators: If there is a huge number of a spectator, it will have a positive effect on the players. But its effectiveness depends upon the experience and maturity of athletes. An inexperienced athlete is usually overpowered by fear.

Answer 24.
Muscular system:

1. Change in shape and size of muscle.
2. Formation of more capillaries
3. Muscle remains in tone position
4. Controls extra fat
5. Change in the connective tissue (becomes Powerful)
6. Efficiency in the movement of muscles.
7. Delays Fatigue.
8. Increases food storage.
9. Exercise makes figure beautiful.

Answer 25.
Muscular Analysis of Sprinting:

1. The leg action in running is one that takes place in a sagittal plane about a frontal axis and involves the hip, knee and ankle joints.
2. The bones of the hip involved are the femur and pelvic girdle which form a ball and socket joint.
3. The bones of the knee involved are the femur and tibia which form a hinge joint.
4. The bones of the ankle involved are the tibia and calcaneus which form a modified joint.

Each of these joints produces two actions, one when the leg is in contact with the ground (driving phase) and one when the leg is not in contact with the ground (recovery phase).

Answer 26.
Rikli And Jones Senior Citizens Fitness Test was developed by Dr. Roberta and Dr. Jessie Jones of Fullerton University. It includes:

• Chair Stand Test – to measure leg strength and endurance
  Procedure – the Subject is advised to sit on the chair with arms crossed around the wrists and hands are kept close to the chest. After this, the subject stands completely and then reaches again the same sitting position. This activity is repeated for 30 seconds.
• Arm Curl Test – to measure upper body strength
  Procedure – the subject sits on the chair keeping the back straight and holds weight in strong hand. The subject performs arm curls in 30seconds.
• Back Scratch Test – to measure range of motion of shoulder
  Procedure – the subject is advised to stand initially. After this, one hand is placed behind the head and other arm is bent behind the back. Test administrator helps in guiding the subject about the alignment of the fingertips. If the tip of both index finger touches, then the score is awarded zero. In case it is no, touching the gap is measured and this is awarded as negative score. While overlapping distance is given as positive score. Reading is taken twice and the best score is awarded.
• Eight Foot Up and Go Test – to measure speed, agility and balance while moving Procedure – a cone is placed 8 feet away from the chair which is placed away from wall. On the command “go” the subject starts before sitting on chair. The subject is advised to walk briskly and turn around the cone and again sits on the chair. The time is measured for this whole activity. The two trials are conducted. The best trial is counted for scoring.
• Six Minute Walk Test – to measure aerobic fitness
  Procedure – the walking course is marked in a 50 yard (45.72 meters) rectangular area dimensions 45 x 5 yards.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 3

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions nos. 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 20 words
3. Questions nos. 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words
4. Questions nos. 11 to 16 are of 4 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 100 words
5. Questions nos. 17 to 21 are of 5 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 150 words
6. Questions no. 21 is map based question
7. Questions nos. 22 to 27 are of 6 marks each. The answer to these questions should not i exceed 150 words

Question 1.
When did Socialist Revolution take place in Russia?

Question 2.
Which two languages were spoken in Bombay state before it was divided in 1960?

Question 3.
What is Development?

Question 4.
Mention the names of member states of SAARC.

Question 5.
Name the members of Security Council who have used veto power for the maximum and minimum number of times respectively.

Question 6.
Mention some points of agreement between India and Nepal.

Question 7.
Which interests were hidden behind the conflicts between Hindus and Muslims at the time of independence?

Question 8.
Who founded the Congress Party and why?

Question 9.
What is the meaning and importance of Economic Planning in Indian context?

Question 10.
In which context India started participating in the world affairs as an independent nation j state?

Question 11.
Access any four principles of India’s foreign policy.

Question 12.
What does the term ‘syndicate’ mean in the context of the Congress party of the sixties? What role did the Syndicate play in the Congress party?

Question 13.
How can we see re-emergence of Indira Gandhi to power in 1971?

Question 14.
Is terrorism a traditional or non-traditional threat to security?

Question 15.
What is meant by Global Commons? How are they exploited and polluted?

Question 16.
Mention negative impact of globalisation.

Question 17.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
Pakistan and Bangladesh have experienced both civilian and military rulers, with Bangladesh remaining democracy in the Post-Cold War period. Pakistan began the Post-Cold War period with successive democratic governments under Benazir Bhutto and Nawaz Sharif respectively. But it suffered a military coup in 1999 and has been run by a military regime since then. Till 2006 Nepal was a constitutional monarchy with the danger of the king taking over executive powers. In 2006, a successful uprising led to restoration of democracy and reduced the king to a nominal position. From the experience of Bangladesh and Nepal, we can say that democracy is becoming an accepted norm in the entire region of South Asia.
(i) How did Pakistan begin with Post-Cold War period?
(ii) Mention two reasons for the aspiration of democracy in South Asia.
(iii) Why are these findings significant?

Question 18.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Thus, with the elections of 1989, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. Since then, there have been nine governments at the Centre, all of which have either been coalition governments or minority governments supported by other parties, which did not join the government. In this new phase, any government could be formed only with the participation or support of many regional parties. This applied to the National Front in 1989, the United Front in 1996 and 1997, the NDA in 1997. BJP-led coalition in 1998, NDA in 1999 and the UPA in 2004.What is meant by coalition politics?
(ii) Name any two regional political parties which were a part of coalition government.
(iii) Write the full form of NDA.
(iv) What does a minority government mean?

Question 19.
Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) What does the cartoon comment?
(ii) What is referred under the title ‘Yesterday’?
(iii) What message does the title ‘Today’ convey?

Question 20.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
Countries have conflicts and differences with each other. That does not necessarily mean they must go to war to deal with their antagonisms. They can, instead, discuss contentious issues and find peaceful solutions; indeed, even though this is rarely noticed, most conflicts and differences are resolved without going to war. The role of an international organisation can be important in this context. An international organisation is not a super-state with authority over its members. It is created by and responds to states. It comes into being when states agree to its creation. Once created, it can help member states resolve their problems peacefully.
(i) Is this necessary to engage into wars during conflicts among countries?
(ii) Is an international organisation a super state?
(iii) What is the significance of international organisation?

Question 21.
On a political outline map of the world, locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

(i) Five permanent members of UN Security Council and symbolise them as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
(ii) Locate and label peace keeping operations.

Question 22.
“The accommodation of regional demands and the formation of linguistic states were also seen as more democratic.” Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments.
OR
Did the prevalence of a ‘one-party dominant system’ affect adversely the democratic nature of Indian politics?

Question 23.
What was the major thrust of the First Five Year Plan? In which ways did the Second Plan differ from the first one? 6
OR
What was Shock Therapy? Was this the best way to make a transition from communism to capitalism?

Question 24.
“Resistance is the only option available to overcome the hegemony.” Justify the statement by comparing it to other anti-hegemony strategies. 6
OR
What makes the European Union a highly influential regional organisation?

Question 25.
Do movements and protests in a country strengthen democracy? Justify your answer with examples. 6
OR
Describe the secessionist movement of Mizos. How as per the provisions of the Constitution, was it resolved on accommodation of diversities?

Question 26.
Many people think that a two-party system is required for successful democracy. Drawing from India’s experience of last twenty years, write an essay on what advantages the present party system in India has.

Question 27.
Analyse any six consequences of the partition of India in 1947.
OR
How can the US hegemony be checked?

Answers

Answer 1.
1917.

Answer 2.
Gujarati and Marathi.

Answer 3.
Development refers to the process of improving living standard of country/people and economic level in reference to industrialisation and modernisation to be judged by the improvements in the quality of life.

Answer 4.
India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Pakistan and Maldives.

Answer 5.
Maximum – 122 times by Russia
Minimum – 4 times by China

Answer 6.
India and Nepal enjoy the following agreements :

1. Allow their citizens to travel and work without visas and passport.
2. India is the largest aid giver to Nepal to provide financial and technical assistance in areas of trade, scientific cooperation, common natural resources and electricity generation.

Answer 7.
Hindu and Muslim communities bear some political interests at the time of independence:

1. Muslim League demanded a separate nation for Muslims to protect the interests of Muslims only.
2. There were some Hindu organisations also which made efforts to look after the interests of Hindus only to make India a ‘Hindu Nation’.

Answer 8.
Congress was founded by Dr. A.O. Hume in 1885 as a view to express the feelings of discontentment changed to a political party in the form of social and ideological coalition i by accommodating different social groups and individuals holding different beliefs and ideologies. Even in pre-independence days, many organisation and parties with their own Constitutions and organisational structures were allowed to exist within the Congress.

Answer 9.
Economic Planning in India refers to a systematic regulation of economic activities by government to reduce the wastage of time and resources:

• Economic planning helps to achieve national goals in a continuous process of development.
• It is a rational process to associate with the future needs and goals to evaluate alternate proposals also.

Answer 10.

• British government left the legacy of many international disputes.,
• Priority to the poverty alleviation.
• Pressures created by the partition.

Answer 11.
India’s foreign policy is based on principles of Panchsheel, which is derived from two words ‘Panch’ means Five and ‘Sheel’ means a ‘Code of Conduct’ for peaceful co-existence.
Principles :

• Panchsheel
• Non-alignment (NAM)
• Mutual benefits and equality
• Mutual non-aggression
• Non-intervention in each others international affairs
• To maintain international peace and understanding

Answer 12.
Syndicate was a group of powerful and influential leaders from within the Congress :

1. Syndicate was led by K. Kamaraj, former Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu and the then president of Congress party. It also includes some powerful leaders like S.K. Patil, S. Nijalingappa, N. Sanjeeva Reddy and Atulya Ghosh.
2. In the sixties, Syndicate played a decisive role by installing both Lai Bahadur Shastri and Indira Gandhi as a Prime Minister.
3. Syndicate played decisive say in Indira Gandhi’s first Council of Ministers and formation and implementation of policies.
4. After a split, two groups in Congress were created i.e. Congress (O), led by Syndicate and Congress (R), led by Indira Gandhi.
5. Congress (R) won popularity after 1971 and Syndicate lost power and prestige.

Answer 13.
Congress (R) under Indira Gandhi had an issue, an agenda and a positive slogan which was lacked by its opponents. The ‘Grand Alliance’ had only one common programme ‘Indira Hatao’

1. In contrast to this, Indira Gandhi put forward a positive slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’.
2. By this, she generated a support base among poor, minorities, landless labourers, dalit, women and unemployed youth.
3. Except it, she focused on the growth of public sector, imposition of ceiling on rural land holdings and urban property, removal of disparity etc.
4. Thus, the slogan of Garibi Hatao and programmes became the part of Indira Gandhi’s political strategy of building an independent nationwide political support base during the electoral contest of 1971.

Answer 14.
Terrorism is a non-traditional threat to wound the peace and order in the country:

• Terrorism refers to political violence to target civilians deliberately and indiscriminately.
• Civilians are usually terrorised to be it as a weapon against national government and other parties in the conflict.
• Terrorism involves hijacking planes or planting bombs in trains, cafes, markets and other crowded places.
• After a terrorist attack on World Trade Centre on 11 September 2001, the other governments and public also are paying more attention to terrorism.

Answer 15.
The areas or regions located outside the jurisdiction of any one state and region, common governance by international community are Global Commons i.e. Earth atmosphere, Antarctic Ocean floor and outer space. They are exploited and polluted due to

• Vague scientific evidences, their lack of consensus on common environmental issues.
• North-South inequalities and their exploitative activities and competition lack proper management area out space.
• Technological and Industrial development have also affected the earth’s atmosphere and ocean floor.

Answer 16.

• Globalisation has not generated much more employment opportunities because it needs highly skilled people only.
• The foreign companies focus on their profit orientation projects only in place of social welfare.
• It has widened income disparities by making the rich richer and the poor more poorer.
• Gradually, globalisation is also a reason for depletion of flora and fauna in country.
• Even farmers are supposed to be well educated if they want to use modern methods of cultivation.

Answer 17.

1. Pakistan began with Post-Cold War period with successive democratic government under Benazir Bhutto and Nawaz Sharif.
2. Ordinary citizens rich or poor or belonging to different religions or institutions view democracy more suitable and support them.
3. Because it was earlier believed that democracy could flourish and find support only in prosperous countries of the world.

Answer 18.

• Coalition politics does not have majority even to a single party but parties may enter into an alliance or get support of other parties to form government.
• NDA and United Front
• National Democratic Alliance
• Minority governments are supported by other parties which did not join the government.

Answer 19.

• Cartoon comments on the changing scenario due to globalisation.
• It refers to earlier conditions of developing countries who were starving due to less growth in their economy.
• Globalisation opened doors for new entrants from developing nations and resulted into brain drain.

Answer 20.

• No, instead countries can discuss contentious issues to find peaceful solutions.
• No, it is created by and responds to states and comes into being when study agrees to its creation.
• To help member states to resolve problems peacefully without going to war.

Answer 21.

1. • France
   • Russia
   • The UK
   • The US
   • China
2. • Cyprus 1964
   • Lebanon 1978
   • Israel 1974
   • Sudan 2005
   • East Timor 2006

Answer 22.

1. The States Reorganisation Commission was set up in 1953 by the Central Government to redraw the boundaries of the states.
2. The Commission accepted that the boundaries of the state should reflect the boundaries of different languages. On the basis of this, the States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956. This led to creation of 14 states and 6 union territories.
3. In the early phase, it was felt that linguistic states may foster separation and create pressures on newly founded nation. But India considered democracy and federalism by making a favour to linguistic states only. It was hoped that if people accept the regional and linguistic claims of all regions, the threat of division and separatism would be reduced. When linguistic states were formed, they –
   • enhanced democratic practices.
   • reduced separatist attitude by accepting the religional linguistic claims of all religions.
   • provided a uniform base to the nation and strengthened unity of nation.
   • promoted the principle of unity in diversity, a distinct feature of nation.

Therefore, the accommodation of regional demands and the formation of linguistic states were also seen as more democratic.

OR

No, the prevalence of one party dominance system did not affect adversely the democratic nature of Indian politics because:

1. The key role of the Congress in the freedom struggle gave it a head start over others.
2. The Congress accommodated diversified interests, religion, beliefs and aspirations to strengthen democracy.
3. Despite being taken place of free and fair elections, Congress won elections in the same manner again and again.
4. The Congress Party consisted of various factions inside itself, based on ideological considerations who never taught together or went out of Congress.
5. Hence, on the basis of above mentioned criterion, it can be concluded that Congress

Answer 23.
The First Five Year Plan was commenced in 1951 to be drafted by young economist K.N. Roy with the emphasis on poverty alleviation. Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India presented this to the Parliament of India. Its main thrusts were as follows:

1. To invest in dams and irrigation to improve agricultural sector with the urgent attention.
2. Huge allocations were made for large scale projects like Bhakra-Nangal dam.
3. It focused on land reforms for the development in rural areas.
4. It aimed to increase level of national income. The First Five Year plan differed from the Second Five Year plan:
   • The Second Five Year Plan stressed on heavy industrialisation.
   • It wanted to bring quick structural transformation in all possible directions in place of slow and steady growth like First Five Year Plan.

OR

Shock Therapy was a painful process of transition from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system. This transformation system was influenced by the world bank and the IMF in Russia, Central Asia and East Europe. Though it varies in intensity and speed amongst the former second world countries but its direction and features were quite siihilar.
This was not the best way to make a transition from communism to capitalism due to following drawbacks:

1. Russia, the large state controlled industrial complex lost about 90 per cent of its industries through sales to private individuals and companies.
2. It created “the largest garage sale in history” which led virtual disappearance of entire industries for the restructuring was carried out by market forces in place of government owned policies.
   Hence, industries were undervalued and sold at throwaway prices.
3. It systematically destroyed old system of social welfare.
4. The value of‘ruble’, the Russian currency, declined dramatically due to high rate of inflation and real GDP of Russia also declined between 1989 to 1999.
5. The withdrawal of government subsidies pushed large sections of society into poverty and it emerged mafia to start controlling many economic activities.
6. Privatisation led to new disparities which divided Russia between rich and poor people creating economic inequality.
7. Hence, Shock Therapy brought ruin to economies and disaster upon the people of entire region.

Answer 24.
Bandwagon Strategy :

1. The best way to resist hegemony is to work with other than against the hegemony. So, instead of engaging in activities opposed to hegemonic power, it may be to extract benefits by operating within the hegemonic system. .
2. Another strategy named ‘Hide’ implies staying away from the dominant power as far as possible. All the big powers like China, Russia, the European Union are seeking to stay below the radar but this cannot go on for a long time.
3. Some people believe that resistance to the US hegemony is the only solution but not from states who are unable to face the hegemony.
4. Therefore, challenges to the US hegemony will emerge in the economic and cultural realms and will come from a contribution of Non-Governmental organizations social movements and public opinion.
5. Resistance may be from the section of media and intellectuals, artists and writers.

OR

As a supernational organisation, the European Union bears economic, political diplomacy and military influence as a regional organisation in the following manner:

1. Economic Influence :
   • Three times larger share in world trade than the US.
   • Its currency Euro, can pose a threat to the dominance of the US dollar.
   • The EU functions as an important bloc in the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
2. Political and Diplomatic Influences :
   • The EU also includes various non-permanent members of the UNSC.
   • The European Union plays an influential role in diplomacy and negotiations except the military force i.e. the EU’s dialogue with China on human rights and environmental degradation is remarkable.
3. Military Influence :
   • The EU’s combined armed forces are second largest in the world.
   • Its total expenditure on military is second to the US.
   • The EU is world’s second most important source of space and communications technology.

Answer 25.
Yes, to some extent movements and protests in country strengthen democracy to have mixed reactions both for and against:
Arguments for :

1. Anti-arrack movement, Chipko movement, NBA etc., rectified some problems to be seen as integral part of democratic politics.
2. These movements ensured participation and representation from diverse groups to reduce possibility of deep social conflicts in democracy.
3. These movements broadened the idea of participation in Indian democracy i.e., Anti¬arrack movement and Dalit Panthers.

Arguments against :

1. Collective actions, rallies, strikes, disrupt the functioning of a democracy and create a delay in decision making.
2. Routine functioning of democracy did not have enough space for the voices of these social groups.
3. It is possible to ignore demand of these movements with the presentation to be represented by one section of society only.
4. Political parties do not seem to be taking up issues of marginal social groups.
5. The relationship between popular movements and political parties has grown weaker over the years creating a vacuum in politics.

Hence, we may conclude that movements are not only about collective assertions or rallies or protest, but they also involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problems, demand and expectations.

OR

1. After Independence, the Mizo hills was made an autonomous district within Assam.
2. Some Mizos believed that they were never a part of British India and not to belong to Indian Union.
3. The movement of seccession gained popular support after Assam government failed to respond adequately to great famine of 1959 in Mizo hills.
4. It led to formation of Mizo National Front (MNF) under leadership of Laldenga.
5. In 1966, the MNF started an armed campaign for independence.
6. The MNF fought gurilla war, got support from Pakistan government and secured shelter in then East Pakistan.
7. At the end of two decades of insurgency, Mizoram under leadership of Laldenga started negotiations with Indian government.
8. 1986, a peace agreement was signed between Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga which granted statehood to Mizoram with special powers and MNF agreed to give up seccessionist struggle.
9. Today, Mizoram is one of the most peaceful places in the region alongwith big strides in literacy and development.

Answer 26.
In the first decade of electoral politics, India did not have a recognised opposition party. But some of vibrant and diverse opposition parties had come into being even before the first General Election of 1952 as the non-Congress parties. Hence, the roots of almost all the non-Congress parties of today can be traced to one or the other of the opposition parties of 1950s.
All these opposition parties gained only a representation, still their presence played a crucial role in maintaining democratic character of system. Hence due to following reasons two party system is required for successful democracy:

1. Within two party systems, the opposition party offers a sustained and principled criticism of policies and practices of ruling party keeping it under a strict check.
2. By keeping democratic political alternative alive, these parties prevented the resentment with the system from turning anti-democratic.

On the basis of above mentioned features it is justifiable to have a two party system which have following advantages:

1. India has arrived at more competitive politics.
2. Political parties act within the spheres of consensus.
3. New forms, vision, pathways of development have been identified.
4. Issues like poverty, displacement, minimum wages, livelihood and social security are being put on political agenda.
5. Issues of justice and democracy are being voiced by various classes, castes and regions to remind states its responsibility.

Answer 27.
Consequences of the partition of India :

1. The year 1947 was the year of one of the largest, most abrupt, unplanned and tragic transfer of population that Indian history was known. In the name of religion, people of a community killed and maimed people of the other community. Cities like Lahore, Calcutta (Kolkata) and Amritsar were titled as communal zones.
2. Muslims would avoid going into areas where mainly Hindus and Sikhs lived. Similarly, the Hindus and Sikhs stayed away from Muslim areas.
3. People went through immense sufferings because they were forced to abandon their homes and move across borders. Minorities on both sides of the border fled their homes and often secured temporary shelter in ‘refugee camps’. They often found helpless local police and administration helpless in what was till recently their own country. They travelled to the other side of the new border by all sorts of means, often by foot. Even during this journey they were often attacked, killed or raped. Thousands of women were abducted on both sides of the border. They were made to convert to the religion of the abductor and were forced into marriage. In many cases, women were killed by their own family members to preserve the ‘family honour’. Many children were separated from their parents.
4. Those who did manage to cross the border found that they had no home. For lakhs of these ‘refugees’ the country’s freedom meant life in refugee camps, for a long time.
5. While recounting the trauma of partition, they have often used the phrase that the survivors themselves used to describe partition—as a division of hearts.
6. The partition was not merely a division of properties, liabilities and assets, or a political division of the country and the administrative apparatus. The employees of the government and the railways were also divided. Partition forced about 80 lakh people to migrate across the new border. About 5 to 10 lakhs people were killed in partition-related violence. However, beyond the administrative concerns and financial strains, the partition posed another deeper issue. The leaders of the Indian national struggle did not accept the two-nation theory. And yet, partition on religious had taken place.

OR

1. The US hegemony has been symbolised as the global village and other countries as its neighbours.
2. If the headman of global village becomes intolerable, neighbours do not have any choice of leaving it, but develop a resistant.
3. Though there are some rules and norms called laws of war that restrict but do not prohibit war.
4. No single power can challenge the US militarily.

Still, to overcome the US hegemony, the following strategies have been found out:

1. Bandwagon strategy emphasises not to oppose hegemonic power, instead take advantage of opportunities that hegemon creates i.e. increased trade and technology transfer and investments to extract benefits by operating within hegemonic system.
2. To hide strategy implies to stay as far removed from the dominant power as possible as China, Russia and the European Union. This strategy is applicable to small states but states may not be able to hide for substantial length of time.
3. Non-state actors as writers, artists and intellectuals have no boundaries to work with. They can reach beyond the limits of the states to mould the minds of people through their expressions.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.