Category: CBSE Class 12

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 2

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 2

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Please check that this paper contains 23 questions.
(ii) The paper contains two parts A and B.
(iii) Part A is compulsory for all.
(iv) Part B has two options—Option-1 Analysis of Financial Statements and Option-II Computerized Accounting.
(v) Attempt only one option of Part B.
(vi) All parts of a question should be attempted at one place.

PART – A
Partnership Firms and Company Accounts

Question 1.
Name the accounts which are maintained for the partners’ when capitals of the partners are fixed.

Question 2.
What is meant by sacrificing ratio?

Question 3.
What is meant by paid up capital?

Question 4.
List any two items that need adjustment in the books of accounts of a firm at the time of admission of a partner.

Question 5.
What is meant by under subscription?

Question 6.
Identify situation, under which the court may order for dissolution of a partnership firm.

Question 7.
Mukesh and Ramesh are Partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:1 respectively. They admit Rakesh as Partner with 1/4th share is profits with guaranteed that his share of profit shall be at least Rs 55,000. The net profit of the firm for the year ending 31st March 2013 was Rs 1,60,000. Prepare profit and loss appropriation account

Question 8.
F. Ltd. issued Rs 7,00,000,12% debentures of Rs 100 each at a premium of 5% redeemable at a premium of 20%. Pass necessary Journal entries.

Question 9.
(a) K,L and Z are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2 respectively.L retired and surrendered 1/9th of his share of profit to K and remaining in favour of Z. Calculate new profit sharing ratio of K and Z.
(b) Arun, Varun and Charan were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 1/2, 3/10 and 1/5 respectively. Varun retired from the firm and Arun and Charan decided to share future profits in 3:2 ratio. Calculate gaining ratio of Arun and Charan.

Question 10.
X Ltd. purchased a running business from G Ltd. for a sum of Rs 18,00,000 payable by issue of equity shares of Rs 100 each at a premium of Rs 20 per share. The assets and liabilities consisted of the following:
Plant Rs 3,50,000, Land Rs 6,00,000, stock Rs 4,50,000, and creditors Rs 1,00,000. Pass necessary Journal entries.

Question 11.
Hina and Neeraj were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their capitals were Rs 80,000 and Rs 50,000 respectively. They admitted Seema in the firm on 1st January, 2013 as a new partner for 1/5th share in the future profits. Seema brought Rs 60,000 as her capital. Calculate the value of Goodwill of the firm and record necessary journal entries on Seema’s admission.

Question 12.
B. Ltd was registered with an authorised capital of Rs 20,00,000 divided into equity shares of Rs 10 each. The company invited applications for the issue of 1,00,000 shares. Applications for 96,000 shares were received. All calls were made and were duly received except the final call of Rs 2 per share on 2,000 shares. All these shares were forfeited and later on re-issued at Rs 18,000 as fully paid.
(i) Show how share capital will appear in the balance sheet of B Ltd. as per schedule III of the companies Act 2013.
(ii) Also prepare notes to accounts for the same.

Question 13.
On 1-4-2013, NK Ltd. had 20,000,11% Debentures of Rs 100 each outstanding:
(i) On 1-4-2014, the company purchased in the open market 2,000 of its own debentures at Rs 102 each and cancelled the same immediately.
(ii) On 1-4-2015, the company redeemed at par debentures of Rs 8,00,000 by draw of a lot
(iii) On 28-2-2016, the remaining debentures were purchased for immediate cancellation for Rs 7,89,900.
Pass necessary joumal entries for the above transactions in the books of the company ignoring debenture redemption reserve and interest on debentures.

Question 14.
A, B and C were partners. They started business in one of the remote tribal areas of odisha. They were interested in the development of the tribal community by providing good education and health.
On 31st March, 2013 after making adjustments for profits and drawings, their capitals were A Rs 4,00,000, B Rs 3,00,000 and C Rs 2,00,000. The drawings of the partners were A Rs 4,000 per month, B Rs 3,000 per month and C Rs 2,000 per month. The profit of the firm for the year ended 31st march 2013 was Rs 6,00,000. Subsequently, it was found that the interest on capital @ 6% P.a due had been omitted. Showing your working notes clearly, pass necessary adjustment entry for the above. Also identify any two values highlighted in the above question.

Question 15.
Ram, Rahim and Robert were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 3 :1 respectively. The partnership deed provided that in case of death of a partner the deceased partner’s share of capital will be donated for the construction of a hospital in the tribal area. Due to ill health, robert died on 30th September, 2013. The balance sheet of Ram, Rahim and Robert on 31st March 2013 was as follows:

On the date of Robert’s death i.e. 30th September; 2013, the following was agreed upon:
(i) Goodwill is to be valued at two year’s purchase of average profit of last three completed years i.e. 2010-11 Rs 45,000,2011-12 Rs 90,000 and 2012-13 Rs 1,35,000.
(ii) Robert’s share of profit till the date of his death will be calculated on the basis of average profit of last three years.
(iii) Land was undervalued by Rs 25,000 and stock overvalued by Rs 8,000.
(iv) Provision for doubtful debts is to be made at 5% on debtors.
(v) Claim of workmen compensation estimated at Rs 5,000.
Prepare Robert’s capital account to be presented to his executor.
Also identify a value that Ram, Rahim and Robert wanted to communicate to the society.

Question 16.
W and R were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. On 31st march 2013, their balance sheet was as follows:

B was admitted as a new partner on the following conditions:
(i) B will get 4/15th share of profits.
(ii) B had to bring Rs 15,000 as his capital.
(iii) B would pay cash for his share of goodwill based on 21/2 years purchase of average profit of last 4 years.
(iv) The profits of the firm for the years ending 31st march 2010,2011,2012 and 2013 were Rs 10,000, Rs 7,000, Rs 8,500 and Rs 7,500 respectively.
(v) Stock was valued at Rs 10,000 and provision for doubtful debts was raised up to Rs 500.
(vi) Plant was revalued at Rs 20,000.
Prepare revaluation account, partners’ capital accounts and the balance sheet of he new firm.
OR
Kumar, Shyarii and Ratan were Partners in a firm sharing Profits in the ratio of 5 :3 : 2 respectively. They decided to dissolve the firm with effect from 1-4-2013. On that date, the balance sheet of the firm was as follows:

The dissolution resulted in the following:
(i) Plant of Rs 40,000 was taken over by Kumar at an agreed value of Rs 45,000 and remaining plant realised Rs 50,000.
(ii) Furniture realised Rs 40,000.
(iii) Motor van was taken over by Shyam for Rs 30,000.
(iv) Debtors realised Rs 1,000 less.
(v) Creditors for Rs 20,000 were untraceable and the remaining creditors were paid in full.
(vi) Realisation expenses amounted to Rs 5,000.
Prepare revaluation account, partners’ capital accounts and bank account of the firm.

Question 17.
Bhagwati Ltd. invited applications for issuing 2,00,000 equity shares of Rs 10 each. The amounts were payable as follows:
On application – Rs 3 per share
On allotment – Rs 5 per share
On first and final call – Rs 2 per share
Applications were received for 3,00,000 shares and pro-rata allotment was made to all the applicants. Money overpaid on application was adjusted towards allotment money. B, who was allotted 3,000 shares, failed to pay the first and final call money. His share were forfeited. Out of forfeited shares, 2,500 shares were reissued as full paid up @ Rs 8 per share. Pass necessary journal entries to record the above transactions.
OR
(a) A company forfeited 200 shares of Rs 20 each, Rs 15 per share called up on which Rs 10 per share had been paid. Directors reissued all the forfeited shares to B as Rs 15 per share paid up for a payment of Rs 10 each.
Give journal entries in the books of the company for forfeiture and reissue of shares.
(b) A Ltd. forfeited 100 equity shares of the face value of Rs 10 each, for the non payment of first call of Rs 2 per share. Rs 6 per share had already been called and paid. These shares were subsequently reissued as fully paid at the rate of Rs 7 per share.
Give journal entries in the books of the company for forfeiture and reissue of shares.

PART – B
“Financial Statement Analysis”

Question 18.
What is meant by cash flow statement?

Question 19.
Name any two tools of analysis of financial statements.

Question 20.
State under which major headings the following items will be presented in the balance sheet of a company as per schedule III of the companies Act 2013:
(i) Trade marks
(ii) Capital redemption reserve
(iii) Income received in advance
(iv) Stores and spares
(v) Office equipments
(vi) Current investments

Question 21.
From the following, calculate:
(a) Operating profit ratio
(b) Working capital turnover ratio
(i) Revenue from operations Rs 2,00,000
(ii) Gross profit Rs 75,000
(iii) Office expenses Rs 15,000
(iv) Selling expenses Rs 26,000
(v) interest on debentures Rs 5,000
(vi) Accidental losses Rs 12,000
(vii) Income from rent Rs 2,500
(viii) Commission received Rs 2,000
(ix) Current assets Rs 60,000
(x) Current liabilities Rs 10,000

Question 22.
On the basis of the following information extracted from the statement of profit and loss for the year ended 31st March, 2012 and 2013. Prepare a comparative statement of Profit and Loss:

Question 23.
Prepare a cash flow statement from the following balance sheet:


Additional information:
(i) An old machinery having book value of Rs 50,000 was sold for Rs 60,000.
(ii) Depreciation provided on machinery during the year was Rs 30,000.

Answer

Answer 1.
When capitals of the partners are fixed, two accounts viz. partner’s capital account and partner’s current account for each partner are maintained.

Answer 2.
The ratio in which the old partners have agreed to sacrifice their shares in the profit in favour of a new partner is called the sacrificing ratio

Answer 3.
Paid up capital is that part of called up capital which has actually been paid by the shareholders.

Answer 4.
At the time of admission of a partner, the two items that need adjustment are:
(i) Goodwill
(ii) Accumulated profits, reserve and losses.

Answer 5.
Shares are said to be under subscribed when the number of shares applied for by the public is less than the number Of shares offered by a company.

Answer 6.
On insolvency of all the partners, or all except one partner the court may order for dissolution of a partnership firm.

Answer 7.

Answer 8.
Journal of F Ltd.

Answer 9.
(a) Calculation of new ratio:

Answer 10.
In the books of X Ltd.

Answer 11.
I. Total capital of the new firm on the basis of Seema’s capital = 60,000 x 5 = 3,00,000.
II. Existing capital of the partners = 80,000 (Hina) + 50,000 (Neerja) + 60,000 (Seema) = 1,90,000.
III. Value of Goodwill of the firm = I – II = 3,00,000 -1,90,000 = 1,10,000
IV. Seema’s share in Goodwill = 1,10,000 x \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) = 22,000

Answer 12.

Notes: Profit on reissue of shares i.e. Rs 18,000 – 4,000 = Rs 14,000
Capital Reserve has not been shown as only the share capital has been asked to be shown in the question.

Answer 13.
(i) Journal of NK Ltd.

Answer 14.
Working notes:

Values highlighted:
(i) Concern for development of tribal area.
(ii) Concern for the education, health and upliftment of tribal community.

Answer 15.

Answer 16.

Answer 17.
In the Books of Bhagwati Ltd.

Answer 18.
Cash flow statement refers to a statement that shows flows of cash and cash equivalents during a specified period of time.

Answer 19.
Tools of analysis of financial statements: (i) Ratio analysis, (ii) comparative statements.

Answer 20.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

Answer 23.
Cash Flow Statement

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 7 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 7

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions nos. 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 20 words
3. Questions nos. 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words
4. Questions nos. 11 to 16 are of 4 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 100 words
5. Questions nos. 17 to 21 are of 5 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 150 words
6. Questions no. 21 is map based question
7. Questions nos. 22 to 27 are of 6 marks each. The answer to these questions should not i exceed 150 words

Question 1.
“Non-alignment does not imply neutrality or equidistant.” What does this statement mean?

Question 2.
When did China get independence?

Question 3.
Who took the command over Pakistan after its first constitution was framed?

Question 4.
What was Bombay Plan?

Question 5.
What is foreign policy?

Question 6.
Mention any two advantages of having international organisation in the world?

Question 7.
What is military threat?

Question 8.
Which interests were hidden behind the conflicts between Hindus and Muslims at the time of independence?

Question 9.
“India’s experiment with universal adult franchise appeared very bold and risky.” Justify the statement.

Question 10.
What is ‘Mixed Economy’?

Question 11.
What is Amnesty International? State its main functions.

Question 12.
What is Human Rights Watch? Describe its main contribution to the field of Human Rights?

Question 13.
What was the significance of linguistic reorganisation of Indian states to the nation building?

Question 14.
Did the prevalence of a ‘one-party dominant system’ affect adversely the democratic nature of Indian politics?

Question 15.
What were the reasons which led to the mid-term elections in 1980?

Question 16.
Would you consider the anti-arrack movement as a women’s movement? Why?

Question 17.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions:
Each of these countries was required make a total shift to a capitalist economy, which meant rooting out completely any structures evolved during this period. Above all, it me^nt that private ownership was to be the dominant pattern of ownership of property. Privatization of state assets and corporate ownership patterns were to be immediately brought in. Collective farms were to be replaced by private farming and capitalism in agriculture. This transition rules out any alternate or ‘third way’.
(i) Name any two countries which were required to make a total shift.
(ii) Why were the collective farms to be replaced by private farming?
(iii) Since the third way had been ruled out, what were the only two ways controlling the economy?

Question 18.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
Pakistan and Bangladesh have experienced both civilian and military rulers, with Bangladesh remaining democracy in the Post-Cold War period. Pakistan began the Post-Cold War period with successive democratic governments under Benazir Bhutto and Nawaz Sharif respectively. But it suffered a military coup in 1999 and has been run by a military regime since then. Till 2006 Nepal was a constitutional monarchy with the danger of the king taking over executive powers. In 2006, a successful uprising led to restoration of democracy and reduced the king to a nominal position. From the experience of Bangladesh and Nepal, we can say that democracy is becoming an accepted norm in the entire region of South Asia.
(i) How did Pakistan begin with Post-Cold War period?
(ii) Mention two reasons for the aspiration of democracy in South Asia.
(iii) Why these findings are significant?

Question 19.
Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Who is addressing the people in the Cartoon?
(ii) What does the people symbolise in it?
(iii) On which plan the Cartoon is highlighting?

Question 20.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
The US and Soviet Union signed a number of other arms control treaties including the Strategic Arms Limitations Treaty II (SALT II) and the Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START). The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 was an arms control treaty in the sense that it regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons, those countries that had tested and manufactured nuclear weapons before 1967 were allowed to keep their weapons; and those that had not done so were to give up the right to acquire them. The NPT did not abolish nuclear weapons; rather, it limited the number of countries that could have them.
(i) What is arms control treaty?
(ii) Was NPT an arms control treaty? Why?
(iii) What was the intention behind regulation of NPT?

Question 21.
On an outline map of India, five states are marked as A, B, C, D and E where National Democratic alliance (NDA) came to power after the Lok Sabha elections 2004. Identify the states and write their names.

Question 22.
The 1977 elections for the first time saw the opposition coming into power at the centre. What would you consider as the reasons for this development?
OR
Do movements and protests in a country strengthen democracy? Justify your answer with examples.

Question 23.
What led to the emergence of bipolar world? What were the arenas of Cold War between the two power blocs?
OR
What set of conflicts had occurred in Soviet Republics? Explain.

Question 24.
How did the Soviet Union suddenly disintegrate? Explain any six reasons. (A.I. 2016)
OR
Explain the importance and role of concept common but differentiated pertaining to environment. (Delhi 2013)

Question 25.
Throw light on the Swatantra Party and its policies.
OR
What was the major thrust of the First Five Year Plan? In which ways did the Second Plan differ from the first one?

Question 26.
Why did India declare the policy of Non-alignment? Describe the principles and policy of Non-alignment.
OR
How do the critics view the process of globalisation?

Question 27.
How did the coalition like character of the Congress Party give it an unusual strength?
OR
Explain any two merits and two demerits each of the Green Revolution.

Answers

Answer 1.
Neutrality refers to a policy of staying out of war and not to help end a war. Non-aligned countries including India worked to prevent wars and rivalries between others.

Answer 2.
1949

Answer 3.
General Ayub Khan.

Answer 4.
Bombay Plan was drafted in 1944 in the want of states to take major initiatives in industrial and other economic investment through a joint proposal of a section of the big industrialist for setting up a Planned Economy.

Answer 5.
Foreign policy of a nation reflects systematic statements of national interests along with the interplay of domestic and external factors.

Answer 6.

• To help countries in the matters of conflicts and differences.
• To make the countries cooperate and create better living conditions for humanity.

Answer 7.
Military threat refers to military action from another country to endanger the core values of country’s sovereignty, independence, and territorial integrity. Military action often targets the men and women i.e. ordinary citizens.

Answer 8.
Hindu and Muslim communities bear some political interests at the time of independence:

• Muslim League demanded a separate nation for Muslims to protect the interests of Muslims only.
• There were some Hindu organisations also which made efforts to look after the interests of Hindus only to make India a ‘Hindu Nation’.

Answer 9.
Because :

• Country’s vast size and electorates made these elections unusual.
• The year 1952, it was a big test for poor and illiterate country.
• Till then, democracy had been existed only in the prosperous countries mainly in Europe and North America where everyone was almost literate.

Answer 10.
Mixed economy is an economy to co-exist private and public sector both:

• Both the sectors work within invisible lands of market forces and visible lands of planning set by government.
• ‘State own’ means of production to aim social welfare and ‘private own’ means of production to be regulated by states.

Answer 11.
It is an NGO that campaigns for the protection of Human Rights.
Functions :

• It prepares and publishes reports on human rights.
• It mainly focuses on the misconduct of the government authorities.
• It works for the protection of the human rights.

Answer 12.
Human Rights refer to an international NGO involved in research and advocating on human rights. It is the largest international organisation in the USA.

• It draws the global media’s attention to human rights abuses.
• It helped in building international coalitions to ban landmines.
• It made efforts to stop the use of child soldiers, and to establish the international criminal court.
• It advocates freedoms in connection with fundamental rights of human beings, such as freedom of religion and freedom of the press.
• It opposes violations of what it considers basic human rights, which include capital punishment and discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation.

Answer 13.
In the early phase, it was felt that linguistic states may foster separatism and create pressures on newly founded nation. But India considered democracy and federalism by making a favour to linguistic states:

• Linguistic states enhanced democratic practices.
• Linguistic states reduced separatist attitude by accepting the regional linguistic claims of all regions.
• Linguistic reorganisation provided a uniform base to the nation and strengthened unity of nation.
• Linguistic states promoted the principle of unity in diversity, a distinct feature of nation.

Answer 14.
No, the prevalence of one party dominance system did not affect adversely the democratic nature of Indian politics because:

• The key role of the Congress in the freedom struggle gave it a head start over others.
• The Congress accommodated diversified interests, religion, beliefs and aspirations to strengthen democracy.
• Despite being taken place of free and fair elections, Congress won elections in the same manner again and again.
• The Congress Party consisted of various factions inside itself, based on ideological considerations who never taught together or went out of Congress.
• Hence, on the basis of above mentioned criterion, it can be concluded that Congress strengthened ideals of democracy and held unity and integrity of the country.

Answer 15.

• Janata Party lacked direction, leadership and a common programme.
• Janata Party government could not bring a fundamental change in policies pursued by Congress.
• There was a split in Janata Party and the government led by Morarji Desai which lost its majority in less than 18 months.
• Ch. Charan Singh government was formed due to support of Congress party which later decided to withdraw its support resulting resignation of Charan’Singh government within four months.
• All the above mentioned reasons led mid-term elections of 1980, which defeated Janata Party and again Congress led by Indira Gandhi came back to power by winning 353 seats.

Answer 16.
Yes, we would consider the Anti-arrack movement as a part of women’s movement to provide a platform for women to discuss private issues of domestic violence:

• This movement focused on issues of sexual violence against women either within family or outside.
• Women joined the campaign against dowry and demanded personal and property laws based on gender equality.
• These campaigns contributed a great deal in increasing social awareness as well as shifted from legal reforms to open social confrontations.
• Consequently, movement demanded equal representation to women in politics during the nineties. Hence, 73rd and 74th amendments granted reservations to women in local level political offices.

Thus, it can be concluded to be a part of women’s movement.

Answer 17.

• Russia and Kazakhstan.
• Private ownership was to be the dominant factor of ownership property. Collective farms were replaced by private farming and capitalism agriculture.
• Capitalist economy and Shock Therapy.

Answer 18.

1. Pakistan began with Post-Cold War period with successive democratic government under Benazir Bhutto and Nawaz Sharif.
2. Ordinary citizens rich or poor or belonging to different religions or institutions view democracy more suitable and support them.
3. Because it was earlier believed that democracy could flourish and find support only in prosperous countries of the world.

Answer 19.

• Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru is addressing the people in the Cartoon.
• The people sitting in the Cartoon are starved people who symbolise the poverty of India.
• The Cartoon is highlighting the Third Five Year Plan. The main aim of this plan was to make balance between agriculture and industry for achieving take off position.

Answer 20.

• To regulate the acquisition or development of weapons among countries,
• Yes, because it regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons to protect world from large seat destruction.
• It did not abolish nuclear weapons rather it limited the number of countries that could have them.

Answer 21.
A — Himachal Pradesh,
B — Arunachal Pradesh,
C — Punjab,
D — Chhattisgarh and
E — Rajasthan

Answer 22.
The 1977 elections were evolved as a shock to everyone as Congress Party was defeated for the very first time and opposition party came into power:

• The opposition adopted the slogan ‘Save democracy’ against imposition of Emergency earlier.
• The opposition campaigned non-democratic character of rule which provided various excesses.
• The opposition party highlighted the preventive detention and press censorship to favour public opinion.
• Janata Party also ensured not to divide non-Congress votes.
• Middle section of north India was moving away from Congress for whom Janata Party became a platform.
• Hence, elections of 1977 emerged many other factors instead about Emergency only.

OR

Yes, to some extent movements and protests in country strengthen democracy to have mixed reactions both for and against:
Arguments for :

1. Anti-arrack movement, Chipko movement, NBA etc., rectified some problems to be seen as integral part of democratic politics.
2. These movements ensured participation and representation from diverse groups to
   reduce possibility of deep social conflicts in democracy. ‘
3. These movements broadened the idea of participation in Indian democracy i.e., Anti¬arrack movement and Dalit Panthers.

Arguments against :

1. Collective actions, rallies, strikes, disrupt the functioning of a democracy and create a delay in decision making.
2. Routine functioning of democracy did not have enough space for the voices of these social groups.
3. It is possible to ignore demand of these movements with the presentation to be represented by one section of society only.
4. Political parties do not seem to be taking up issues of marginal social groups.
5. The relationship between popular movements and political parties has grown weaker over the years creating a vacuum in politics.

Hence, we may conclude that movements are not only about collective assertions or rallies or protest, but they also involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problems, demand and expectations.

Answer 23.
Emergence of bipolar world :

• Two superpowers expanded their own spheres of influence in different parts of the world.
• It divided the world into two alliances namely Western and Eastern alliance headed by the US and Soviet Union respectively.
• The smaller states in alliances got the promise of protection of weapons and economic aid against their local rivals, hence they remained tied to its protective superpowers to limit influence of other superpower and its allies.

Arenas of Cold War :

• Crisis and war occurred between alliance systems but did not cross certain limits.
• Many lives were lost in Korea, Vietnam and Afghanistan, but world was spared from nuclear war and global hostilities.
• The Cold War led to several shooting wars but it did not lead to another World War despite direct confrontations in Korea (1950-53), Berlin (1958-62) and the Congo (the early 1960s).

OR

1. In Russia :

• Chechnya and Dagestan had violent secessionist movements.
• Moscow’s method to deal with Chechen rebels and indiscriminate military bombings led to many human rights violation but for deter aspirations for independence.

2. In Central Asia:

• Tajikistan witnessed a civil war that went on for ten years till 2001.
• In Azerbaijan’s provinces of Nagorno-Karobakh, some local Armenians want to secede and join Armenia.
• In Georgia, the demand for independence came from two provinces resulting in a civil war.
• There are still movements against the existing regimes in Ukraine, Kyrgyzstan and Georgia. .
• Even countries and provinces are fighting over river water.

3. In Eastern Europe :

• Czechoslovakia split peacefully into two with the Czechs and Slovaks, forming independent countries.
• The severe conflict took place in the Balkan republics of Yugoslavia.
• After 1991, Yugoslavia broke apart with several provinces like Croatia, Slovania, Bosnia and Herzegovina declaring independence.
• Ethnic Serbs opposed this and a massacre of non-Serbs Bosanians followed.
• The NATO intervention and the bombing of Yugoslavia followed inter-ethnic Civil war.

Answer 24.
Inspite of all perfection, the Soviet system was full of loopholes.

1. The system was bureaucratic and over-centralised making life difficult for people.
2. It stifled the initiative of people due to lack of democracy and absence of freedom of speech and expression.
3. Nearly all the Soviet institutions needed reforms but the strict one party control by the communist party made all the institutions unaccountable to the people.
4. The Communist Party even refused to give freedom so people of 15 different republics of Soviet Union to retain and manage their own affairs including cultural affairs.
5. Though Russian Federation was only one of the 15 Soviet republics, it dominated the helm of affairs, neglecting people from other regions and making them feel oppressed.

Soviet system becatne so weak and Soviet economy stagnant due to the following reasons:

1. The Soviet economy used much of its resources in maintaining nuclear and military arsenals.
2. Soviet economy concentrated on the development of its satellite states in Eastern Europe especially in the five central Asian republics.
3. This led to a huge economic burden on people to be coped up with.
4. Ordinary citizens became more knowledgeable about the economic advancement of the West and backwardness of Soviet system.

OR

Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies to Save Planet Earth by the states but the states from North and South have different notions towards environmental issues:

1. The Northern States (Developed) are concerned with Ozone depletion and global warming whereas Southern States (Developing) want to address the relationship between economic development and environmental management.
2. The developed countries of the North want to discuss the environmental issues which stands equally responsible for ecological conservation.
3. The developing countries of the South feel that much of the ecological degradation in the world is created by developed countries through their industrial projects.
4. And if developed countries cause more environmental degradation they are supposed to take more responsibility on wards.
5. The developing countries are under process of industrialization .and they should be exempted from restrictions imposed on developed countries through various conventions like Kyoto Protocol etc.
6. The special needs of developing countries must be taken into considerations in the process of development, application and interpretation of rules of International Environmental Law.

All the above mentioned provisions were accepted in Earth Summit, 1992 while adopting common but differentiated responsibilities.

Answer 25.
The Swatantra Party was formed in August 1959 after the Nagpur resolution of the Congress which called for land ceiling, takeover of food grain trade by the state and adoption of cooperative farming. The party was led by old Congress leaders like C. Rajagopalachari, K.M. Munshi, N.G. Ranga and Minoo Masani. The party stood out from the other in terms of its position on economic issues.

The Swatantra Party wanted the government to be less and less involved in controlling the economy. It believed that prosperity could come only through individual freedom. It was critical of the development strategy of state intervention in the economy, centralised planning, nationalisation and the public sector. It instead favoured expansion of a free private sector.

The Swatantra Party was against land ceilings in agriculture, and opposed cooperative farming and state trading. It was also opposed to the progressive tax regime and demanded dismantling of the licensing regime. It was critical of the policy of non-alignment and maintaining friendly relations with the Soviet Union and advocated closer ties with the US.

The Swatantra Party gained strength in different parts of the country by way of merger with numerous regional parties and interests. It attracted the landlords and princes who wanted to protect their land and status that was being threatened by the land reforms legislation. The industrialists and business class who were against nationalisation and the licensing policies also supported the party. Its narrow social base and the lack of dedicated cadre of party members did not allow it to build a strong organisational network.

OR

The First Five Year Plan was commenced in 1951 to be drafted by young economist K.N. il Roy with the emphasis on poverty alleviation. Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India presented this to the Parliament of India. Its main thrusts were as follows:

• To invest in dams and irrigation to improve agricultural sector with the urgent j attention.
• Huge allocations were made for large scale projects like Bhakra-Nangal dam.
• It focused on land reforms for the development in rural areas.
• It aimed to increase level of national income.

The First Five Year plan differed from the Second Five Year plan:

• The Second Five Year Plan stressed on heavy industrialisation.
• It wanted to bring quick structural transformation in all possible directions in place of slow and steady growth like First live Year Plan.

Answer 26.
India decided not to align itself to any of the military alliances. It declared its foreign policy as a policy of Non-alignment.
Non-aligned Movement (NAM) was formed in 1961. The founding members were Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (India), Marshal Tito (Yugoslavia), Nasser (Egypt), Nkrumah (Ghana) and Sukarno (Indonesia).

The principles of NAM were formulated. Non-alignment does not mean that India will remain neutral and not take any position on major world problems. It simply means that India will not join any of the military alliances.

The Indian national movement was part of the worldwide struggle against colonialism and imperialism. It influenced the liberation movements of many Asian and African countries. Prior to India’s Independence, there were contacts between the nationalist leaders of India and those of other colonies, united as they were in their common struggle against colonialism and imperialism. The creation of the Indian National Army (INA) by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose during the Second World War was the clearest manifestation of the linkages established between India and overseas Indians during the freedom struggle. The foreign policy of a nation reflects the interplay of domestic and external factors. Therefore, the noble ideals that inspired India’s struggle for freedom influenced the making of its foreign policy. But India’s attainment of independence coincided with the beginning of the Cold War era.

OR

Globalisation has invited some strong criticisms also despite its positive impacts. Its critical arguments can be categorized as:

1. Economic
2. Political
3. Cultural

1. Economic :

• Reduction in subsidies on mass consumption goods to make foreign creditors powerful.
• It has grown disparity between the rich and the poor nations by making the rich more richer and the poor more poorer.
• Even states have also created the same disparities between developed and developing nations.

2. Political :

• Welfare functions of the state has been reduced.
• Sovereignty of states has been affected.
• States have become weak to take their own decisions.

3. Cultural :

• People lose their age old values and traditions.
• The world begins to look more like the dominant power over less powerful society.
• It leads to shrinking of rich cultural heritage of the entire globe.

Answer 27.

1. By the time of independence, the Congress was transferred into social coalition broadly representing India’s diversity in terms of classes and castes, religions and languages and various interests. Many of these groups merged than identify within the Congress,
2. The Congress Party became a social and ideological coalition for it merged different social groups along with their identity holding different beliefs:
3. The Congress was already a very well-organised party and by the time the other parties could even think of a strategy, the Congress had already began its campaign. In fact, many parties were formed only around independence or after that. Hence, the Congress had the first off the blocks advantage.
4. In pre-independence days, many organisations and parties with their own constitutions and organisational structures were allowed to exist within the Congress.
5. The Congress evolved as a pressure group in the beginning, but with the Civil Disobedience Movement, it launched to widened its social based and thus, it became a social coalition.
   • The party provided enough space to all sections of people like peasants and industrialists, urban dwellers and villagers, owners and workers, upper, middle and lower classes.
   • It also defined the area of leadership beyond the upper caste and upper class professionals to agriculture-based leaders with a rural orientation.
6. Congress became a platform for numerous groups, interacts and even political parties to take part in the national movement.

OR

Green Revolution was introduced in 1966 to bring about revolutionary changes in agriculture especially in foodgrains like wheat and rice to increase production through high yielding varieties of seeds, fertilisers and scientific irrigation—

1. The government offered high yielding varieties of seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and better irrigation facilities at subsidised prices to farmers.
2. The government fixed the prices also to purchase the produce of farmers at a given price.

Positive consequences or merits of the Green Revolution:

1. In many parts, the stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords produced conditions favourable for left wing organisations to organise the poor peasants.
2. Also the government offered various irrigational facilities at a subsidised prices, and high-yielding varieties of seeds.
3. It resulted in the rise the ‘Middle peasant sections’ who were farmers with medium size holdings. They benefitted from the changes and soon emerged politically influential in many parts of country.

Negative consequences or demerits of the Green Revolution:

1. This created a stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords.
2. It delivered only a moderate agricultural growth i.e. a rise in rice and wheat production by raising availability of foodgrains in country.
3. It increased polarisation between the classes and regions like Northern States i.e. Punjab, Haryana, West-UP become agriculturally rich but others remained backward.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 7 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 7

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Physical Education is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should approximately 10-20 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should approximately 30-50 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should approximately 75-100 words.

Questions.

Question 1.
What do you mean by planning in sports? 1

Question 2.
Define Food supplement. 1

Question 3.
Define Disability. 1

Question 4.
What is meant by OCD? 1

Question 5.
Define Tadasana. 1

Question 6.
Define Posture. 1

Question 7.
What do you understand by eating disorder? 1

Question 8.
How will you measure Muscular Strength? 1

Question 9.
Define Sports Medicine. 1

Question 10.
Define Strength. 1

Question 11.
What is friction? 3

Question 12.
Describe three disadvantages of League Tournament. 1

Question 13.
How will you define Food intolerance? 3

Question 14.
Explain the procedure and benefits of Bhujangasana. 3

Question 15.
My uncle, facing age-related health problems specially High Blood Sugar, Obesity and Hypertension etc. I consulted my physical education teacher regarding my uncle‘s health problem because once he had discussed this topic in class. He told me that he will meet my uncle at home. He came and suggested my uncle to start regular exercise or walking for at least one hour. My uncle started regular walking. After few months his above mentioned problems reduced. On the basis of the above passage, answer the following questions. 3
(i) Which two values are shown by the physical education teacher and the nephew?
(ii) What are the common age-related health problems?
(iii) Do physical activity help in maintaining functional fitness of aged population? State in brief.

Question 16.
Explain Harvard step test. 3

Question 17.
Explain three long term effects of exercise on circulatory system. 3

Question 18.
Write about the management of strain. 3

Question 19.
Explain the method of Speed development? 3

Question 20.
What is Bye? Draw a fixture of 21 teams on knock-out basis. 5

Question 21.
Elaborate the requirement of food intake for, during and after competition. 5

Question 22.
Explain postural deformities and their corrective measures in detail. 5

Question 23.
Explain arm curl test for upper body strength. 5

Question 24.
Explain gender differences in physical and physiological parameters. 5

Question 25.
Explain motivation and its types in details. 5

Question 26.
What is sports training? Explain the method of strength development. 5

Answers.

Answer 1.
According to Mitchell, “Planning is usually interpreted as a process to develop a strategy to achieve desired objectives, to solve problems and to facilitate action”.

Answer 2.
Food supplement is the concentrated sources of nutrients taken as dietary top-up like vitamins, minerals and herbs.

Answer 3.
Disability is an injury that restricts the functions or movements of a person.

Answer 4.
OCD is Obsessive – Compulsive Disorder. It is a common, chronic and long lasting disorder in which a person has uncontrollable, reoccurring thoughts which are characterized as obsessions.

Answer 5.
Tada = Palm tree. Tadasana is the beginning and ending asana of Surya Namaskar.

Answer 6.
The arrangement of body and its limbs is known as posture.

Answer 7.
Eating disorder is defined by abnormal eating habits that negatively affect a person’s physical or mental health.

Answer 8.
Greatest amount of force that muscles can produce in a single maximal effort.

Answer 9.
Sports medicines concerns all those medical problems that may affect athlete, professional
and amateur.

Answer 10.
Ability to exert power.

Answer 11.
Force acting along two surfaces in contact which opposes the motion of one body over the other.

Answer 12.
Disadvantages:
(i) It requires more time.
(ii) It costs more.
(iii) It requires more arrangement for sport officials and teams.
(iv) Most of the teams become psychologically down due to their defeat again and again.

Answer 13.
When individual elements of certain foods that cannot be properly processed and absorbed by our digestive system it is called as food intolerance. Its causes can be the absence of activity of breaking enzymes, diet related and due to illness. Its symptoms are nausea, stomach pain, diarrhoea, vomiting and headache.
Management of food intolerance:

• Seek expert medical help.
• There are many therapies-fructose intolerance therapy, histamine intolerance therapy, lactose intolerance therapy.

Answer 14.
Procedure – Lie down keeping the legs together, Put palms beside shoulders, head resting on the floor,Inhale, raise head up to the navel region and try to see the roof, 10 -60sec- maintain this position, inhale and exhale steadily,Return to original position slowly with deep exhalation, i 3-5 min.
Benefits – Develops flexibility of spine and leads to curing backache, Reduces stress, giving good massage to adrenal gland, Expands chest for normal breathing.

Answer 15.
(i) Care and concern
(ii) Obesity, backache, stress
(iii) Yes, yoga and regular exercise helps in keeping a person physically and mentally fit, refreshing the mind.

Answer 16.
Harvard step test was developed by Brouha and his associates in 1943. Purpose of this test is to measure cardiovascular fitness.
Equipment required:

1. Bench which is 20 inches/50.8 cm high.
2. Stopwatch
3. Metronome.

Procedure – The athlete is instructed to step up and down on the platform at a rate of 30 steps per minute for 5 minutes or until exhaustion occurs. The exhaustion is defined as when the athlete cannot maintain the stepping rate for 15 seconds and this can be administered by metronome. After the completion of stepping, the athlete is advised to step down. After this heart rate is measured between 1 to 1.5 minutes after finishing. The heart rate is the number of times the heart beats per minute.

Answer 17.
Long term effects of exercise on circulatory system:

• Stroke volume increases at rest – It is the volume of blood ejected per beat from left ventricle, it is increased to 90-110 ml/beat in elite endurance athletes via regular exercise.
• Blood flow increases – Supply of oxygen during exercise increases, so body increases its capillaries, as a result distribution of blood becomes more efficient.
• Decreases the blood pressure – Systolic and diastolic blood pressure decreases by 10 mm Hg at rest.

Answer 18.
Strain can be prevented by warming up and conditioning. Taping, knee caps, crape bandage can be helpful in preventing strain. The injured part should be elevated in the most comfortable position. The affected part should not be disturbed. An ice pack should be applied to affect joint or muscle to minimize the swelling. The ice must be applied for 20 minutes 6-10 times in first 24 hours. Next day heat and massage is given to absorb the clot

Answer 19.
Methods of speed development are:

• Acceleration runs – Adopted to develop speed, especially in attaining maximum speed from stationary position, runs are repeated again and again with sufficient intervals, sprinters usually achieve their maximum speed in 6 seconds after stationary position.
• Pace runs or races – Running the whole distance of race at a constant speed, athlete runs the race with uniform speed, in longer races such as 800m or above races he must conserve his energy by reducing his speed.
• Development of reaction time – Reaction time is the time taken to respond to a stimulus.

Answer 20.
Bye is a practice of allowing a player or team to advance to the next round without playing first round of the tournament.

Answer 21.
Food is a mixture of various substances which are essential for life whereas nutrition is a dynamic process in which body is made healthy by consumption of food. Sports nutrition is known as study and practice of nutrition and diet as it relates to sports performance. Good and adequate nutrition helps athletes to train hard, recover quickly and adapt more effectively with less risk of illness and injury. If an athlete lacks any constituents of diet it affects his or her performance. On the other hand, if he/she takes more than required calories, it shall hamper the performance and increase the body weight. Thus diet plays a crucial role in performance.

1. Fluid intake:
   • Before the competition – Drink at least 500 ml of water before 2 hours of the match.
   • During the competition – 180-240 ml of water should be consumed for matches lasting for less than an hour. For matches lasting more than one hour, consume 150-300 ml of water or carbohydrates after every 20 min.
   • After the competition – Take sodium after the competition.
2. Meal intake:
   • Before the competition – 80%-90% carbohydrates.
   • During the competition – Light food, low fat, low protein.
   • After the competition – Carbohydrate intake within 15 min to restore glycogen.

Answer 22.
In knock-knees both the knees knock or touch each other in normal standing position. The gap between ankles goes on increasing. The corrective measures for knock-knees are side steps-ups: done on weight bench and lying abduction.

Flat foot is found in newly bom babies. Children feel pain in the feet and cannot be efficient sports persons. It becomes a postural deformity if it still persists in the lateral childhood. The corrective measures for flat foot are heel stretch and using proper shoes.

Round shoulders is a postural deformity where shoulders become round and sometimes they seem to be bent forward. The corrective measures for round shoulders are standing chest stretch and supine chest stretch.

Lordosis is a deformity of increased forward curve in the lumber region. The corrective measures for Lordosis are hip flexor stretch and lower back stretch.

In bow-legs, there is a wide gap between the knees when standing with feet together. The Corrective measures for bow-legs are leg strengthening exercises and pilates (lying down on back and lifting both legs up off the ground and quickly move legs up and down).

Kyphosis is an increase of backward or posterior curve or a decrease or reversal of a forward curve. The corrective measures for Kyphosis are maintain good posture and do stretching while sitting on chair.

Answer 23.
Rikli and Jones test was developed by Dr. Roberta and Dr. Jessie Jones of Fullerton University. It is done to measure fitness level of senior citizens. It includes:

• Chair Stand Test – To measure leg strength and endurance
• Arm Curl Test – To measure upper body strength
• Chair Sit and Reach Test – To measure flexibility of lower body
• Back Scratch Test – To measure range of motion of shoulder
• Eight Foot Up and Go Test – To measure speed, agility and balance while moving
• Six Minute Walk Test – To measure aerobic fitness Arm Curl Test

Purpose – To measure upper body strength.
Equipment Required – Folding chair with straight back with arm rests, 4 lbs weight for women, 5 lbs weight for men and a stopwatch.
Procedure – The subject sits on the chair keeping the back straight and holds weight in strong hand. The subject performs arm curls in 30 seconds.
Scoring – The score is determined by counting no. of curls performed in 30 seconds.

Answer 24.
Gender differences in physical and physiological parameters-

• Body Size and Composition – At puberty, the endocrine system starts bringing changes.
  Estrogen and testosterone play an important role in both the sexes. Mainly in women estrogen plays a vital role in broadening of pelvis, breast development and enhances fat deposition. Men also produce estrogen but at lower levels than women. In men, estrogen is thought to affect sperm count. Men and women however differ in their body sizes and shapes.
• Strength – On an average, men are stronger than women because they are larger. Generally, women produce about two third the amount of total strength than men.
• Cardiovascular Functions – Heart is smaller in women; women have slightly higher heart rate. However in case of intense exercise men have better cardiac output than women.
• Respiratory Functions – Men have larger body size, women have lesser hemoglobin content. Tidal volume and ventilatory volume are smaller in women.
• Endurance – Men are found to be 10% better in endurance as compared to women.
• Bones And Ligaments – Men have longer and larger bones that facilitate better mechanical advantage over women. The ligaments of women are generally more lax and fragile than those of men.

Answer 25.
According to Goods, “Motivation is the process of arousing, sustain and regulating activity.” Types of motivation are-
Intrinsic – It is internal motivation, when people are compelled to do something out of 1 pleasure, importance or desire. It can be further classified into.

• Bodily needs – hunger, thirst, etc. can be motivational forces
• Instinctive – inborn qualities
• Social – social motives often move a person towards an aim
• Emotional – love and affection can directly affect and motivate an individual

Extrinsic – It is external motivation, when external factors compel the person to do something. Reward, punishment, praise, blame, or cash prize are examples of extrinsic motivation. It can be further classified into.

• Knowledge of the goal – learner must be acquainted well with the aim and objectives of the goal.
• Knowledge of the result – periodic evaluation is a strong motivational force.
• Rewards – effectively used in learning process, can be given in following terms:
  1. Cash prize
  2. Job promotion
  3. Social rewards
  4. Punishment is applied where reward fails to motivate
  5. Effective teaching
  6. Competition and cooperation
  7. Audio – visual aid
  8. Latest equipment and good environment

Answer 26.
Sports training is done for improving sports performance. According to David R. Lamb,”
muscular strength is best defined operationally as the greatest amount of force that muscles can produce in a single maximal effort.”
Types of strength are:

1. Dynamic/isotonic – These movements are clearly visible, used in pull-ups and pushups.
   It has 3 parts:
   • Maximum strength – ability to act against maximum resistance, used in weightlifting, shot put etc.
   • Explosive strength – ability to overcome resistance with high speed, used in sprint starts, javelin throw, and hammer throw, etc.
   • Strength endurance – ability to overcome resistance or to act against resistance under
     conditions of fatigue, used in long distance races, swimming etc. .
   • Static/isometric – Ability of muscles to act against resistance, measured by dynamometer, in weightlifting it is applied in phases.

Methods of Improving Strength:

1. Isometric exercises – Introduced by Hettinger and Muller, derived from two words iso (same) and metric (muscle strength), work is performed but it is not seen directly, muscles do not change their length, strength is improved, like pushing a wall.
2. Isotonic exercises – Introduced by De Lorme, derived from two words is (same) and tonic(muscle tone), movements can be seen directly. These exercises tone up the muscles, muscles become flexible, length of the muscle can increase, like on the spot running and jumping, weight training exercises, etc.
3. Iso-kinetic exercises – Developed by Perrine in 1968, contraction of muscle applies maximal force throughout the complete range of movement, through them explosive strength and strength endurance can also be improved.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 2 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 2.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 2

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Economics is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time : 3 hrs
M.M.: 80

General Instructions

• All questions in both the sections A and B are compulsory. However, there is internal choice in questions of 3,4 and 6 marks.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short answer type questions, carrying 1 mark each.
  They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short answer I type questions, carrying 3 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 60 words each.
• Question Nos. 7-9 and 19-21 are short answer II type questions, carrying 4 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 100 words each.
• Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit be adhered to as far as possible.

Section – A

Question 1.
State the fundamental problem of an economy that resulted in the emergence of central economic problem.

Question 2.
Average revenue of a monopolist firm is
(a) always more than the marginal revenue
(b) always less than the marginal revenue
(c) equal to marginal revenue
(d) None of these

Question 3.
Total Revenue (TR) – Total Variable Cost (TVC) is equal to
(a) gross profit
(b) net profit
(c) normal profit
(d) abnormal profit

Question 4.
How is total variable cost derived from marginal cost?

Question 5.
Suppose there are 20 consumers for a good and they have identical demand functions. d(p) = 50 – 6p for any price less than or equal to \(\frac { 20 }{ 6 } \) and d(p) = 0 at any price greater than \(\frac { 10 }{ 3 } \).
What is the market demand function?
Or
Consider the demand curve d(p)= 10 – 3p. What is the elasticity at price \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 } \) ?

Question 6.
What will be the impact on India’s PPC, if latest technology is imported from abroad?

Question 7.
Draw a diagram indicating the following situations:
(i) \(XY>\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \)
(ii) \(XY=\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \)
(iii) \(XY<\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \)
Where, XY = Marginal Rate of Substitution of Good x for Good y
P_x = Price of Good X, P_Y = Price of Good y
Which of the three indicates highest level of consumer’s satisfaction?
Or
A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y. State and explain the conditions of consumer’s equilibrium with the help of utility analysis.

Question 8.
Explain the ‘law of variable proportions’. Use schedule.

Question 9.
What do you understand by oligopoly market? Explain any three of its features.

Question 10.
Define demand. Explain the factors influencing individual household demand for a commodity in the market.

Question 11.
(i) Can Marginal Revenue (MR) be negative? Explain your answer with the help of example.
(ii) Total Revenue (TR) of a firm, dealing in a particular commodity, initially was ₹ 15,000. It reduces to ₹ 13,500. Also, AR increases from ₹150 to ₹ 270. Find the change in market demand for that commodity.
Or
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(i) When Marginal Revenue (MR) is constant and not equal to zero, then Total Revenue (TR) will also be constant.
(ii) As soon as Marginal Cost (MC) starts rising, Average Variable Cost (AVC) also starts rising.
(iii) Total Product (TP) always increases whether there is increasing returns or diminishing returns to a factor.

Question 12.
Explain profit and loss situation under perfect competition, during the short-run. Which economic value is affected if the firm is incurring abormal losses?

Section – B

Question 13.
What are the sources of borrowings for government other than the general public?

Question 14.
The currency notes do not carry as much value as denominated on it. Do you agree?

Question 15.
What do you mean by public goods?

Question 16.
The difference between narrow money and broad money is
(a) coins and currency
(b) only currency
(c) saving deposits of banks
(d) time deposits with banks

Question 17.
The saving function of an economy is S = -200 + 0.25F. The economy is in equilibrium when income is equal to ₹ 2,000. Calculate the following :
(i) Investment expenditure at equilibrium level of income
(ii) Autonomous consumption
Or
It is given that MPC is 1/3rd of MPS, while consumption at zero level of income is given as ₹ 100 crore. Derive the consumption and savings functions.

Question 18.
Inflationary gap and deflationary gap both are caused due to the displacement of aggregate demand from the full employment equilibrium level and both are harmful for a country. In spite of these similarities, there exist many differences between the two. Explain any three of those differences.

Question 19.
How will you treat the following while estimating national income of India?
(i) Dividend received by an Indian from his investment in shares of a foreign company.
(ii) Money received by a family in India from relatives working abroad.
(iii) Interest received on loans given to a friend for purchasing a car.
(iv) Dividend received by a foreigner from investment shares of an Indian company.

Question 20.
Giving a numerical example, explain the process of money creation by the commercial banks.
Or
Government of India has launched ‘Jan-Dhan Yojana’ aimed at every household to have at least one bank account due to which credit creation capacity of banks have seen expansion manifolds. Comment.

Question 21.
Explain the role of government budget in fighting inflationary and deflationary tendencies.

Question 22.
From the following information, calculate Gross National Product at Market Price (GNPMP)by
(i) Income method
(ii) Expenditure method

Or
Explain briefly the steps taken in estimating national income by the value added method. Also, explain any two precautions required to be taken in this method

Question 23.
What do you mean by Multiplier (K)? Explain the relationship between Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) and Multiplier (K).

24.
Explain the three major functions of foreign exchange market.

Answers

Section – A

Answer 1.
It is the problem of scarcity of resources in relation to human needs or desires.

Answer 2.
(a) Always more than marginal revenue

Answer 3.
(a) Gross profit

Answer 4.
Total variable cost is the sum total of marginal cost, i.e. TVC = ΣMC

Answer 5.
The above demand function indicates that in a market comprising of 20 consumers, the consumers are willing to buy only if the price is less than or equal to \(\frac { 20 }{ 6 } \) . Also, all the 20 consumers have identical demand function. Accordingly,
d_m (p) =20 x d p = 20x (50-6p)
= 1,000 – 120p for any price less than or equal to \(\frac { 20 }{ 6 } \).
If price exceeds \(\frac { 20 }{ 6 } \), then 6
d_m(p) = 0 because at this price no consumer is willing to purchase the good.
Or
Given demand curve d(p) = 10 – 3p
Where p is the price of good.
Now,
Price (p)= \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 } \)
q = 10 – 3 x \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 } \) = 10 – 5 = 5
Demand (q) = 5 unitsd(p) = 10 – 3p
Here, -3 indicates the rate at which q change in response to change in p.
∴ \(\frac { \triangle q }{ \triangle p } =-3\)
Elasticity of demand E_d = \(\left( – \right) \frac { p }{ q } \times \frac { \triangle q }{ \triangle p } =\left( – \right) \frac { \frac { 5 }{ 3 } }{ 5 } \times -3\)
\({ E }_{ d\quad }\left( – \right) \frac { 5 }{ 3 } \times \frac { 1 }{ 5 } \times -3\)
E<sub.d = 1
∴ Elasticity of demand at price \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 } \) = 1

Answer 6.
India’s PPC would shift rightwards/outwards because with other resources remaining constant, improved technology will raise the potential level of output in the economy.

PPC shift to a₁ b₁ as technology improves.

Answer 7.

Graph showing relation between MRS and \(\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \) at different points on indifference curve
The point where \({ MRS }_{ XY }=\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \) indicates the highest level of consumer’s satisfaction i.e. E is the point of maximum consumer satisfaction (or consumer equilibrium).
Or
The two conditions of consumer’s equilibrium are stated below:
(i) Ratio of Marginal Utility to Price of Two Goods are Equal to Marginal Utility of Money This condition can be expressed as \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ X } } =\frac { M{ U }_{ Y } }{ { P }_{ Y } } =M{ U }_{ M }\)
or \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ M{ U }_{ Y } } =\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \) [if MU_X = 1]
where, MU_X and MU_Y = Marginal Utilities of good X and good Y respectively
P_X and P_Y = Price of good X and good Y respectively
MU_M = Marginal utility of money
(ii) MU Falls as Consumption Increases If Marginal Utility (MU) does not fall as consumption increases, the consumer will end up buying only one good which is unrealistic and the consumer will never reach the equilibrium position.

Answer 8.
The law of variable proportions shows the impact on output when units of variable factors are increased, keeping fixed factors constant in the short-run.

The law states that if more and more units of a variable factor are employed with fixed factors, Total Physical Product (TPP) increases at an increasing rate in the beginning, then increases at a diminishing rate and finally starts falling. In other words, as units of variable factors are increased, marginal product first increases, reaches its maximum point, starts to fall, and eventually becomes negative.

Answer 9.
Oligopoly is a form of market in which there are only few big sellers of a commodity and large number of buyers.
e.g. there are only few car producers in the Indian auto market such as Toyata, Ford, GM, Audi, BMW and Volkswagen.
Oligopoly market exhibits the features given below:

1. A Few Firms A few firms, large in size dominate the market for a commodity. Each firm commands a significant share of the market which can impact market price of the product.
2. Large Number of Buyers There are large number of buyers of a commodity. The number is so large that no individual buyer can impact market price of the product.
3. Entry Barriers There are various barriers to the entry of new firms. These barriers are almost similar to
   those under monopoly. Entry of the new firm is extremely difficult, but not impossible.

Answer 10.
Demand means the quantity of a commodity that consumers wish to purchase in the market in a given period of time and at various prices.
Factors affecting individual household demand are explained below:

1. Own Price of a Commodity When the price of a commodity rises in the market, its demand contracts and with a fall in price, its demand expands.
2. Price of Related Goods Demand for a commodity is also influenced by change in price of related goods.
   These are of two types:
   • Substitute Goods These are the goods which can be substituted for each other, such as tea and coffee or ball pen and ink pen. In case of such goods, increase in the price of one, causes increase in demand for the other and decrease in the price of one, causes decrease in the demand for the other.
   • Complementary Goods These goods complete the demand for each other and are therefore, demanded together. Pen and ink, bread and butter, car and petrol, etc may be cited as examples. In case of complementary goods, a fall in the price of one, causes increase in the demand for the other and a rise in the price of one, causes decrease in the demand for the other.
3. Income of the Consumer Change in the income of the consumer also influences his demand for different goods. The demand for normal goods tends to increase with increase in income and vice-versa. On the other hand, the demand for inferior goods like coarse grain, etc. tends to decrease with increase in income and vice-versa.
4. Tastes and Preferences The demand for goods and services also depends on individual tastes and preferences. These terms are used in a broad sense. If there is a favourable change in tastes and preferences, demand increases and unfavourable change leads to decrease the demand.
5. Expectatibns If the consumer expects a significant change in the availability of the concerned
   commodity in the near future, he may decide to change his present demand for the commodity. Particularly, if the consumer fears acute shortage of the commodity in the near future, he may raise his present demand for the commodity at its existing price.

Answer 11.
(i) Yes, Marginal Revenue (MR) can be negative. It can be negative only when average revenue is decreasing or when the price is declining as under monopoly and monopolistic competition. This can be explained by the following example :
When price = ₹ 20, output = 50
Total revenue of 50 units (TR₅₀) = P x Q
= 20 x 50 = ₹ 1,000
When price fall to ₹ 19, output =51
Total revenue of 51 units (TR₅₁) = P x Q
= 19 x 51 = ₹ 969
MR₅₁ =TR₅₁ – TR₅₀
= 969 – 1,000 = ₹ (31)
i.e., Marginal Revenue (MR) is negative.
(ii) TR = ₹ 15,000, P(=AR) = ₹ 150

Change in market demand = 50 – 100 = -50 units i.e. market demand falls by 50 units

1. False. because when Marginal Revenue (MR) is constant, Total Revenue (TR) is increasing at a constant rate, only when Marginal Revenue is zero, Total Revenue is constant.
2. False, Average Variable Cost (AVC) can fall even when Marginal Cost (MC) starts rising. See Average Variable Cost (AVC) and Marginal Cost (MC) corresponding to output range (MQ) in the diagram.
3. True, because in a situation of increasing returns to a factor, Marginal Product tends to rise accordingly, Total Product (TP) should be increasing at an increasing rate. Under diminishing returns to a factor, Marginal Product (MP) tends to fall. Falling Marginal Product (MP) implies that Total Product (TP) should be increasing, though at a decreasing rate.

Answer 12.
In the short-run, equilibrium of a firm (under perfect competition) may occur when it is earning super normal profits or normal profits or is incurring super normal losses.
These conditions are discussed below :
(i) Super Normal Profit

In the given diagram, the producer is at equilibrium at point Q, where MR = MC, and MC cuts MR from below. At this point, Average Revenue (AR) exceed Average Cost (AC). So, the firm is earning abnormal profits equal to ESQT.
(ii) Super Normal Losses

In the given diagram, the firm is at equilibrium at point 0. At this point, AC exceeds AR, therefore the firm is incurring abnormal loss equal to NTQP.
(iii) Normal Profit

In the given diagram, the firm is at equilibrium at point Q. At this point AR = AC. So, this depicts the condition of normal profits.
If the firm is incurring abnormal losses then it affects the economic value of sustainability.

Section – B

Answer 13.
The government can borrow money from :
(i) The Reserve Bank of India
(ii) The rest of the world

Answer 14.
Yes, I agree. The face value of currency notes is more than its materialistic value. These notes are accepted
by people because they are backed by the government of the country.

Answer 15.
Public goods refers to the goods which cannot be provided by market mechanism due to its feature of non-rivalness and non-excludable in consumption, e.g. street light.

Answer 16.
(d) Time deposits with banks

Answer 17.
(i) At equilibrium, savings (S) are equal to planned investment (l). It is given that,
S = – 200 + Y
Equilibrium level of income is 2,000. Substituting the value of Y in the savings function, we get
S = -200 + 0.25 x 2,000
S =-200 + 500 ⇒ S =300
or l = 300 [v at equilibrium level of Income Savings (S) = Investment Expenditure (I)]
Thus, investment expenditure at equilibrium level of income is 300.
Autonomous consumption means the level of consumption expenditure when income is zero.
When Y = 0, Savings = -200
Consumption + Savings = Income Consumption + (-200) = 0
So, autonomous consumption = 200
Or
According to question, Marginal Propensity to consume (MPC) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \) Marginal Propensity of Save (MPS)
We know that,
MPC + MPS = 1
∴    \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \) MPS + MPS = 1
MPS = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \)
∴ MPS = 0.75 and
MPC = 1 – 0.75 = 0.25 Consumption function (C) = \(\overline { C } \) + bY,
where,
\(\overline { C } \) = Autonomous Consumption = ₹ 100 crore
b = MPC = 025
So, consumption function (C) = 100 + 025 Y
Saving function (S) = \(-\overline { S } \) + sY,
where,
\(-\overline { S } \) = Dissavings = Autonomous consumption = 100 and
S = Marginal Propensity to Save = 0.75
Therefore, Savings Function (S) = -100 + 0.75Y

Answer 18.
Difference between inflationary gap and deflationary gap are :

Answer 19.

1. Dividend received by an Indian from his investment in shares of a foreign company is included in National Income of India because it is a part of net factor income from abroad.
2. Money received by a family in India from relatives working abroad is not included in National Income of India because it is a kind of transfer income.
3. Interest received on loan given to a friend for purchasing a car is not included in National Income because loan is not being used for production purpose.
4. Dividend received by a foreigner from investment in shares of an Indian company is included in National
   Income of India as a negative component, because it is a part of net factor income paid to rest of the world.

Answer 20.
Money creation (or deposit creation or credit creation) by the banks is determined by

1. The amount of the initial fresh deposits and
2. Legal Reserve Ratio (LRR) i.e. the minimum ratio of deposit, legally required to be kept as cash by the banks. It is assumed that all the money that goes out of the banks, is re-deposited into the banks.

Let the LRR be 20% and there is a fresh deposit of ₹ 10,000. As required, the banks keep 20 %,i.e. ₹ 2,000 as cash. Suppose the banks lend the remaining ₹ 8,000. Those who borrow, use this money for making payments. As assumed, those who receive payments, put the money back into the banks. In this way, banks receive fresh deposits of ₹ 8,000. The banks again keep 20%, i.e. ₹ 1,600 as cash and lend ₹ 6,400, which is also 80% of the last deposits. The money again comes back to the banks leading to a fresh deposit of ₹ 6,400. The money goes on multiplying in this way and ultimately total money creation is ₹ 50,000.

Given the amount of fresh deposit and the LRR, the total money creation is
Total Money Creation = Initial Deposit x \(\frac { 1 }{ LRR } \)
Or
With the introduction of ‘Jan-Dhan Yojana’, many households have opened bank account. Due to this, primary deposits of commercial banks have increased. Banks create credit on the basis of primary deposits. Higher the primary deposits, higher is the credit creation capacity of comrftercial banks and vice-versa.

Now, with implementation of ‘Jan-Dhan Yojana’, since primary deposits have increased, reserves of bank to create credit have also swollen up. Therefore, credit creation capacity of commercial banks is increased manifolds.

Answer 21.
Government budget is of immense help in fighting the inflationary and deflationary tendencies. To curb the inflationary tendency, the government can prepare a surplus budget. A surplus budget is one in which estimated receipts exceed the estimated expenses. Such a budget reduces the money supply in the economy. With a fall in the money supply, the purchasing power of people also fall, leading to a fall in the level of aggregate demand. As aggregate demand falls, the price level or the rate of inflation also falls.

To curb the deflationary tendency, the government can prepare a deficit budget. A deficit budget is one in which estimated expenses exceed the estimated receipts. Such a budget increases the money supply in the economy. With increase in money supply, the purchasing power of people also rise, leading to an increase in the level of aggregate demand. As aggregate demand rises, the price level also rises and rate of deflation begins to fall.

Answer 22.
(i) Gross National Product at Market Price (GNPMP) by Income Method
Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDPFC ) = Compensation of Employees + Operating Surplus (Interest + Rent + Profit) + Mixed Income
= ₹ 1,500 + (400 + 400 + 1,000) + 0
= ₹ 1,500 + 1800
= ₹ 3,300 crore
GNP_MP = NDP_FC + Net indirect Tax (Indirect tax – Subsidies) + Net Factor Income from Abroad (Factor income from abroad – Factor income to abroad) + Depreciation
= ₹ 3300 + (300 – 100) + (100 -150) + 150
= ₹ 3300 + 200 + (-50) + 150 = 3,300 + 300
= ₹ 3,600 crore

(ii) Gross National Product at Market Price (GNP_MP) by Expenditure Method
Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDP_MP) = Private Final Consumption Expenditure + Government Final Consumption Expenditure + Gross Domestic Capital Formation + Net Exports
= ₹ 2,200 + 850 + (500 + 150)+ (200 – 250)
= ₹ 2200 + 850 + 650 + (-50)
= ₹ 2,200 + 850 + 600 = ₹ 3650 crore
GNP_MP = GDP_MP + Net Factor Income from Abroad
= ₹ 3650 + (100 – 150) = 3,650 – 50 = ₹ 3,600 crore
Or
Steps for measuring National Income by Value Added Method (Product method) are enumerated below :
Step I Classify All the Production Units The units are traditionally classified into primary, secondary and tertiary sectors which are further classified into sub-sectors like agriculture, manufacturing, banking, etc.
Step II Estimate NVAFC of each industrial sector by taking the following sub-steps :

1. Estimate Value of Output It can be estimated by two ways :
   • A sum of sales and net addition to stocks (If entire output is not sold within the year).
   • Quantity of output multiplied by price (If entire output is sold within the year).
2. Deduct Intermediate Consumption It should be deducted from the value of output to arrive at GVA_MO (Intermediate consumption already includes imports).
3. Deduct, Consumption of Fixed Capital It should be deducted from GVA_MP to arrive at NVA_MP.
4. Deduct Net Indirect Tax It should be deducted from NVA_MP to arrive at NVA_FC of an industrial sector.

Step III Take the sum of NVAFC of all the industrial sectors of the economy. By doing so, we will arrive at net
domestic product at factor cost.
ΣNVA_FC = NDP_FC
Step IV Add net factor income from abroad to NDP_FC to arrive at National Income.
National Income (NNP_FC) = NDP_FC + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA)
Precautions to be taken while computing National income by this method are given below :

1. Take the value of final product only i.e. intermediate goods not to be included.
2. Do not include exports, if total sales are given.

Answer 23.
Multiplier It means the ratio of change in income to change in investment.
According to Keynes, “Investment multiplier tells us that when there is an increment of aggregate investment, income will increase by an amount, which is K times the increment of investment.”
Relationship between MPC and Multiplier (K)
The value of Multiplier is determined by the value of MPC.

This shows that there is a direct relationship between multiplier (K) and Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC). As the value of MPC rises, the value of multiplier also rises and vice-versa.
e.g. if MPC = 0.75
then, \(\frac { 1 }{ 1-0.75 } =4\)
and when the value of MPC = 0.80, then K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 1-0.80 } =5\)
Thus, it is clear that the size of the Multiplier depends on the MPC. Higher the MPC, the larger the size of Multiplier and lower the MPC, the smaller is the size of Multiplier.

Answer 24.
Foreign exchange market performs the following functions :

1. Transfer Function This function implies the transfer of purchasing power in terms of foreign exchange across different countries of the world. It is performed through credit instruments like bills of foreign exhange, bank drafts and telephone transfers.
2. Credit Function This function allows the provision of credit in terms of foreign exchange for the export and import of goods and services across different countries of world. In this function, bills of exchange with maturity period of 3 months are used for international payments.
3. Hedging Function When exporters and importers enter into an agreement to sell and buy goods on
   some future date at a rate agreed upon today, it is called hedging. Through this function, exchange rate is locked for future supplies of foreign exchage which avoid losses that might occur due to. changes in exchange rate.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 2 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 2, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 1

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 1

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 1 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Please check that this paper contains 23 questions.
(ii) The paper contains two parts A and B.
(iii) Part A is compulsory for all.
(iv) Part B has two options—Option-1 Analysis of Financial Statements and Option-II Computerized Accounting.
(v) Attempt only one option of Part B.
(vi) All parts of a question should be attempted at one place.

PART – A
Partnership Firms and Company Accounts

Question 1.
X, Y and Z were partners sharing Profits in the ratio of 1/2, 3/10 and 1/5. X retired from the firm. Calculate the gaining ratio of the remaining partners.

Question 2.
State the rights acquired by a newly admitted Partner.

Question 3.
Distinguish between Dissolution of partnership and dissolution of partnership firm’ on the basis of Court’s intervention.

Question 4.
Give the meaning of reconstitution of a partnership firm.

Question 5.
A. Ltd. invited applications for issuing 10,00,000 equity shares of Rs 10 each. The Public applied for 8,55,000 shares. Can the company proceed for the allotment of shares? Give reason in support of your answer.

Question 6.
A. Ltd. Forfeited 100 equity shares of Rs 10 each issued at a premium of 20% for the non payment of final call of Rs 5 including premium. State the maximum amount of discount at which these shares can be reissued.

Question 7.
A and B were Partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their capitals were Rs 2,00,000 and Rs 1,00,000 respectively. They admit C on 1st April 2014 as a new partner for 1/5 share in the future profits. C brought Rs 1,00,000 as his capital. Calculate the value of goodwill of the firm and record necessary journal entries for the above transaction on C’s admission.

Question 8.
Rohan Ltd. issued 6,000 10% Debentures of Rs 100 each on 1st April 2013. The issue was fully subscribed. According to the terms of issue, Interest on the debentures is payable half-yearly on 30th September and 31st March and the tax deducted at source is 10%.
Pass the necessary journal entries related to the debenture interest for the half-yearly ending on 31st March 2014 and transfer of interest on debentures to statement of profit and loss.

Question 9.
Simmi and Ginni decided to start a partnership firm to manufacture low cost bags as plastic bags were creating many environmental problems. They contributed capitals of Rs 2,00,000 and Rs 1,00,000 respectively on 1st April, 2013. For this, Simmi expressed his willingness to admit Sunny as a Partner without Capital, who is specially abled but a very creative and intelligent friend of his. Ginni agreed to this. The terms of partnership were as follows:
(i) New profit sharing ratio will be 2:2:1.
(ii) Interest on capital will be provided @ 10% P.a.
Due to shortage of capital, Simmi contributed Rs 50,000 on 30th September, 2013 and Ginni contributed Rs 20,000 on 1st January, 2014 as additional capital. The profit of the firm year ended 31st March 2014 was Rs 1,80,000.
(a) Identify any two values which the firm wants to communicate to the society.
(b) Prepare profit and loss appropriation account for the year ending 31st March 2014.

Question 10.
A company had Rs 10,00,000 12% debentures outstanding as on 1st April, 2015. During the year, company took a loan of Rs 4,00,000 from the state bank of India for which the company placed with the bank debentures for Rs 5,00,000 as collateral security. Pass Journal entries if any. Also, show how the debentures and bank loan will appear in the company’s balance sheet

Question 11.
P and Q are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 7:5. On April 1,2015 they admit R as a new partner for 176th share. R contributed the following assets towards his capital and for her share of goodwill. Stock Rs 80,000, Debtors Rs 60,000, Land Rs 2,20,000, Plant and machinery Rs 1,00,000. On the date of admission of R, the Goodwill of fire firm was valued at ? 6,00,000. Record necessary journal entries in the books of the firm on R’s admission and prepare R’s capital account

Question 12.
Seema Ltd. was formed with a nominal share capital of Rs 60,00,000 divided into 60,000 shares of Rs 100 each. The company offers 40,000 shares to the public payable. Rs 30 per share on application, Rs 30 per share on allotment and the balance on first and final call, applications were received for
38,000 shares. All money payable on allotment was duly received, except on 1,000 shares held by Y. First and final call was not made by the company. How would you show the share capital in the balance sheet of seema Ltd.? Also prepare notes to accounts for the same.

Question 13.
(a) Give Journal entries for forfeiture and reissue of shares. D Ltd. forfeited 4000 Shares of Rs 10 each, Rs 7 called up issued at a premium of 20% (to be paid at the time of allotment) for non payment of a first call of Rs 2 per share, out of these, 2500 shares were reissued as Rs 7 paid up for Rs 4 per share.
(b) Which value has been affected by forfeiting above mentioned 4000 shares just after first call Suggest a better alternative.

Question 14.
P, Q and R were partners in a firm having capitals of Rs 1,20,000, Rs 1,20/100 and Rs 1,60,000 respectively. Their current account balances were P: Rs 20,000, Q: Rs 10,000 and C: Rs 4,000 (Dr.). According to the partnership deed the partners were entitled to interest on capital @ 10% P.a. R being the working partner was also entitled to a salary of Rs 10,000 P.a. The profits were to be divided as follows:
(a) The first Rs 40,000 in the proportion to their capitals.
(b) Remaining profits to be shared equally.
The firm made a profit of Rs 3,12,000 before charging any of the above items. Prepare the profit and loss appropriation account and pass necessary journal entry for appropriation of profit

Question 15.
Mala, Neela and Kala were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2:1. On 1-3-2014, their firm was dissolved. The assets were realised and liabilities were Paid off. The accountant prepared realisation account. Partners capital accounts and cash account, but forgot to post few amounts in these accounts.
You are required to complete these below given accounts by posting the correct amount

Question 16.
Z. Comp. Ltd, with an authorised capital of Rs 2,00,000 divided into 20,000 equity shares of Rs 10 each, issued the entire shares payable as follows:
Rs 5 on application (including Rs 2 as premium)
Rs 4 on allotment
Rs 3 on call
All share money is received in full with the exception of the allotment money on 200 shares and the call money on 500 shares (including 200 shares on which allotment money had not been paid). The above 500 shares are duly forfeited and 400 of these (including 200 shares on which allotment money had not been paid) are reissued at Rs 7 per share payable by the purchaser.
Make the necessary journal entries.
OR
A company issued 6,000 preference shares of Rs 10 each as fully paid to the vendors for the purchase of building : 20,000 equity shares of Rs 10 each were issued to the public of which, 18,000 were subscribed for During the first year Rs 6 per share were called up, payable Rs 3 on application, Rs 1 on allotment, Rs 1 on first call and Rs 1 on second call. The amounts received in respect of the equity shares were as follows:
on 16,000 equity shares, the full amount called
on 1,200 shares Rs 5 per share,
on 500 shares Rs 4 per share,
on 300 equity share Rs 3 per share.
The directors forfeited 800 equity shares on which less than Rs 5 per share had been paid. Show journal entries in the books of the company.

Question 17.
Pankaj, Naresh and Saurabh are Partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 :1. Naresh retired from the firm due to his illness. On that date, the balance sheet of the firm was as follows:

Additional Information:
(i) Premises have appreciated by 20%, stock depreciated by 10% and provision for doubtful debts was to be made 5% on debtors. Further, provision for legal damages is to be made for Rs 1,200 and furniture to be brought up to Rs 45,000.
(ii) Goodwill of the firm be valued at Rs 42,000.
(iii) Rs 26,000 from Naresh’s capital account be transferred to his loan account and balance be paid through bank, if required, necessary loan may be obtained from bank.
(iv) New profit sharing ratio of Pankaj and Saurabh is decided to be 5 : 1. Give the necessary ledger accounts and balance sheet of the firm after Naresh’s retirement.
OR
L and m share profits of a business in the ratio of 5 : 3. They admit N into the firm for a fourth share in the profits to be contributed equally by L and M. On the date of admission, the balance sheet of L and M was as follows:

The terms of N’s admission were as follows:
(i) N will bring Rs 25,000 as his capital.
(ii) Goodwill of the firm is to be valued at 4 years purchase of the average super profits of the last three years.
Average profits of the last three years are Rs 20,000. While the normal profits that can be earned on the capital employed are Rs 12,000.
(iii) Furniture is to be revalued at Rs 24,000 and the value of stock to be reduced by 20%. Prepare revaluation account, partners capital accounts and the balance sheet of the firm after admission of N.

PART – B
“Financial Statement Analysis”

Question 18.
Assuming that the debt equity Ratio is 1:2, state giving reason, whether the ratio will improve, decline or will have no change in case equity shares are issued for cash.

Question 19.
Mention the net amount of source or use of cash when a fixed assets (having book value of Rs 15,000) is sold at a loss of Rs 5,000.

Question 20.
Show the major headings with two sub headings each into which the assets side of company’s is balance sheet is organised and presented.

Question 21.
Prepare the common size income statement from the following information:

Question 22.
A company’s stock turnover is 5 times. Stock at the end is Rs 20,000 more than that at the beginning. Sales are Rs 8,00,000. Rate of gross profit on cost 1/4. Current liabilities Rs 2,40,000. Acid test ratio 0.75. Calculate current ratio.

Question 23.
The balance sheet of Kedar Ltd. as on 31st December 2010 and 31st December 2011 were as follows:-

Additional information:
(i) Rs 50,000 depreciation has been charged on plant and machinery during the year 2011.
(ii) A piece of machinery costing Rs 12,000 (book value Rs 5,000) was sold at 60% profit on book value. Prepare cash flow statement.

Answers

Answer 1.
Profit sharing ratio of X : Y : Z = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } :\frac { 3 }{ 10 } :\frac { 1 }{ 5 } \) = 5 : 3 : 2
Gaining ratio of Y and Z = 3 : 2
Gaining ratio will be the same as the old ratio which existed between Y and Z i.e. 3 : 2, since Y and Z gains in their old Ratio, unless agreed otherwise.

Answer 2.
Rights acquired by a newly admitted partner:
(a) Right to Share profits with other old partners in agreed ratio.
(b) Right to Share in the assets of the business.

Answer 3.
In dissolution of partnership, the court need not intervene as partnership can be dissolved by mutual agreement and in dissolution of partnership firm, A firm can be dissolved by the order of court.

Answer 4.
Reconstitution of a partnership firm means any change in the existing agreement of partnership. As a result, the existing agreement comes to an end and a new agreement comes into existence, though, the firm continues.

Answer 5.
The company can Proceed for allotment of shares because it is presumed that it is not a case of first allotment of shares.
In case of first allotment of shares, no allotment can be made unless the amount stated in the prospectus as the minimum subscription has been subscribed to.

Answer 6.
Amount received on application and allotment = 7 x 100 = Rs 700
These shares can be reissued up to a discount of Rs 7 per share or Rs 700

Answer 7.
Working Notes:
Total capital of firm based on C’s capital = 1,00,000 x 5 = 5,00,000
Combined capital of A, B and C = 2,00,000 + 1,00,000 + 1,00,000 = 4,00,000
Hidden goodwill of firm = 5,00,000 – 4,00,000 = 1,00,000
C’s share in goodwill = 1,00,000 x \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) = 20,000

Answer 8.
Books of Rohan Ltd.

Answer 9.
(a) Values, the firm wants to communicate to the society:
(i) Harmony among partners being from different walks of life.
(ii) Helping and caring thoughts for specially abled people.
(b) Profit and loss appropriation account for the year ended 31st March 2014

Answer 10.
Journal

Answer 11.
Journal

Answer 12.
Journal

Answer 13.
Journal of D Ltd.


(b) (i) Value affected by forfeiting the shares just after first call is the investors confidence and stimulus for applying in the public issue of companies.
(ii) Better alternative would have been giving him ample time to make the payment of first Call together with second call and then forfeit the shares after giving due notice.

Answer 14.
Profit and Loss Appropriation Account

Answer 15.

Answer 16.
Journal

Answer 17.

Answer 18.
Ratio will decline because with the issue of equity shares, shareholders funds increase whereas debt remains the same which will lead to decrease in Debt equity ratio.

Answer 19.
Net amount of source Rs 10,000.

Answer 20.
Balance Sheet

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

Answer 23.
Cash Flow Statement

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 1 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Paper 1, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 7

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 7

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labeling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
What is the basic goal of development?

Question 2.
Which country has the lowest sex ratio in the world?

Question 3.
Name two activities on which the earliest human beings were dependent for their sustenance.

Question 4.
Name the navigational canal that serves as a gateway of Commerce for both the continents of Asia and Europe.

Question 5.
Name any two states of India where Green Revolution strategy of agricultural development has largely been successful.

Question 6.
Which port is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation in the Hugh River?

Question 7.
Which plant was located on the basis of proximity to raw materials?

Question 8.
Explain any three characteristics of collective farming in the world.

Question 9.
Describe the main features of Addis Ababa, the capital city of Ethiopia.

Question 10.
Jute is a fibre crop grown in India. Discuss.

Question 11.
Study the following map carefully and answer the questions that follows.

(i) Name the state in which this steel plant is located.
(ii) Name one source each of coal and iron-ore for this plant.
(iii) Mention the source of water for this plant.

Question 12.
Define the term ‘Cio-energy’. Mention any four points of significance of Bio-energy.

Question 13.
In the rural areas, male selective out-migration leaving their wives behind puts extra physical as well mental pressure on the women. By which human values such social problems can be minimised or resolved?

Question 14.
Discuss the important characteristics of the economic activities of hunting and gathering practised in the world.

Question 15.
What is the importance of dairy farming? Why is it mainly practised near urban and industrial centres of the world? Explain.

Question 16.
Name any two countries through which river Rhine flows. Mention two cities between which this river is navigable. Explain the economic significance of River Rhine.

Question 17.
Explain the five types of urban settlements of the world classified on the basis of size, functions and services available.

Question 18.
What do you understand by non-metallic minerals? Discuss mica as non-metallic minerals. In which areas of India it is produced?

Question 19.
There are various factors and conditions responsible for having different types of rural settlements in India. Explain with examples.

Question 20.
“Inspite of numerous rivers in India, inland water ways are poorly developed.” Discuss its causes

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) A mega city
(B) An International Airport
(C) A major seaport
(D Largest country of the continent
(E) An area having highest density of population

Question 22.
Locate and label the following five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) An oil refinery situated in Andhra Pradesh.
(ii) An International airport of Gujarat.
(iii) The leading producer state of Jowar

Answers

Answer 1.
The basic goal of development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives.

Answer 2.
United Arab Emirates.

Answer 3.
Hunting and Gathering.

Answer 4.
Suez Canal.

Answer 5.
Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

Answer 6.
Kolkata

Answer 7.
Rourkela Steel Plant

Answer 8.
(i) Collective farming was introduced in erstwhile Soviet Union to improve upon the inefficiency of the previous methods of agriculture and to boost agricultural production for self sufficiency.
(ii) The farmers used-to pool in all their resources like land, livestock and labour. They were allowed to retain very small plots to grow crops in order to meet their daily requirements.
(iii) Yearly targets were set by the government and the produce was sold to the state at fixed prices. Produce in excess of the fixed amount was distributed among the members or sold in the market.

Answer 9.
(i) Adis Ababa is a new city which was established in 1878. The whole city is located on a hill-valley topography. Its road pattern bears the influence of the local topography. The roads radiate from the govt headquarter Piazza, Arat, and Amist Kilo roundabouts.
(ii) Mercato has markets which grew with time and is supposed to be the largest market between Cairo and Johannesburg.
(iii) A multi-faculty university, a medical college, a number of good schools make Addis Ababa, an educational centre. It is a terminal station for Djibouti-Adis Ababa rail route. Bole airport is a relatively new airport.

Answer 10.
(i) Jute is used for making coarse cloth, bags, sacks and decorative items. It is a cash crop in West Bengal and adjoining eastern parts of the country.
(ii) India lost large jute growing areas to East Pakistan during partition. India produces about three fifth of jute production of the world. West Bengal accounts for about three fourth of the production in the country.
(iii) Bihar and Assam are other jute growing areas. Being concentrated in few states it accounts for only about 0.5 percent of total cropped area in the country.

Answer 11.
(i) Chhatisgarh
(ii) Coal comes from-Korba and Iron ore- from Dalli-Rajhara.
(iii) Water comes from ‘Tanduladam’.

Answer 12.
(a) Bio-energy refers to energy derived from biological products which includes agricultural It residues.
(b) (i) Bio-energy is a potential source of energy conversion.
(ii) It can be converted into electrical energy, heat energy or gas for cooking.
(iii) It will also process the waste and garbage and produce energy.
(iv) It will improve economic life of rural areas in developing countries; reduce environmental pollution, enhance self-reliance and reduce pressure on fuel wood.

Answer 13.
(i) Social Awakening.
(ii) Respect and equality.
(iii) Women empowerment.

Answer 14.
(i) The earliest human beings depended on their immediate environment for their sustenance.
They subsisted on animals which they hunted and the edible plants which they gathered ‘ from forests in the vicinity.
(ii) Primitive societies depended on wild animals. People located in very cold and extremely hot climates survived on hunting.
(iii) The early hunters used primitive tools made of stones, twigs or arrow, the number of animals killed was limited.
(iv) Gathering is practised in regions with harsh climatic condition. It involves primitive : societies. They exploit both plants and animals to satisfy their needs for food, shelter and clothing.
(v) Such activity requires a small amount of capital investment and operates at very low level k of technology. The yield per person is very low and little or no surplus is produced.

Answer 15.
(a) Dairy farming is capital intensive. It is the most developed form of keeping milch animals. It provides milk, butter, cheese etc.
(b) (i) It is practised near the markets-urban areas and industrial centres.
(ii) They provide neighbourhood market for fresh milk and others dairy products.
(iii) Urban centres provide its transportation facility to send another parts where they are in need in very less time.
(iv) In urban or near urban, refrigeration, pasteurisation and other preservation process have increased the duration of storage of various diary products.

Answer 16.
(a) The Rhine flows through Germany and the Netherlands.
(b) River Rhine is navigable for 700 km from Rotterdam to Basel.
(c) (i) It flows through a rich coal field and the whole basin has become a prosperous manufacturing area.
(ii) Dusseldorf is the Rhine port for this region. Huge tonnage moves along the stretch south of Ruhr. This water way is the world’s most heavily used.
(iii) It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and Netherlands with the North Atlantic Sea Route.

Answer 17.
(i) Administrative Towns: Such towns are the national capitals; house the administrative offices of central governments, as-Canberra, New Delhi.
(ii) Industrial Towns: Towns which are rich in industries are known as industrial towns- Pittsburg, Jamshedpur, Kanpur.
(iii) Commercial Towns: The towns which are famous for their commercialised activities worldwide are Mumbai, London, Singapore, Shanghai.
(iv) Transport Towns: The towns which are the major centres of transport facilities that to be provided all around. Singapore, Baghdad, Cairo, New York.
(v) Cultural Towns: Places of pilgrimage, such as Jerusalem, Mecca, Jagannath Puri, and Varanasi are considered cultural towns. These centres are of great religious importance.

Answer 18.
(a) Non-metallic minerals are either organic in origin such as fossil fuels also known as mineral fuels, which are derived from the buried animal and plant life as coal and petroleum. Mica, limestone and graphite, they are inorganic metallic minerals in origin.
(b) (i) Mica is mainly used in the electrical and electronic industries. It can be split into a
very thin sheets which are tough and flexible.
(c) (i) High quality mica is obtained in Jharkhand, which is in a belt extending over a distance
about 150 km in length and about 22 km in width in lower Hazaribagh plateau.
(ii) Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh produces the best quality mica. In Rajasthan its belt extends for about 320 kms from Jaipur to Bhilwara and around Udaipur.
(iii) Mica deposits also occur in Mysore and Hasan districts of Karnataka. In Tamil Nadu- Coimbatore, Tiruchirapalli, Madurai and Kanyakumari are the main areas where mica is found.
Other than these areas, others are Alleppy in Kerala, Ratnagiri in Maharashtra, Purulia and Bankura in West Bengal.

Answer 19.
(a) Physical Features:
(i) Nature of Terrain
(ii) Altitude,
(iii) climate
(iv) Availability of water
(b) Cultural and Ethnic factors:
(i) Social structure,
(ii) Caste and religion
(c) Security factors: Defence against thefts and robberies.

Answer 20.
(i) Seasonal fluctuations in the volume of water level of most rivers.
(ii) Higher silting in the rivers is a threatening problem.
(iii) Make the reduction in water level due to diversion of water through canals etc for irrigation.
(iv) Lack of mechanised vessels and undulating topography.
(v) A great competition of roads, railways in the regards of convenience, to be provided the passengers as well as traders.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Englsih Core is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions

• This paper is divided into three sections: A, B and C. All the sections are compulsory.
• Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.Read these instructions very carefully and follow them faithfully.
• Do not exceed the prescribed Word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A
READING (30 MARKS)

Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully. (12 Marks)

1. Too many parents these days can’t say no. As a result, they find themselves raising ‘children’ who respond greedily to the advertisements aimed right at them. Even getting what they want doesn’t satisfy some kids; they only want more. Now, a growing number of psychologists, educators and parents think it’s time to stop the madness and start teaching kids about what’s really important: values like hard work, contentment, honesty and compassion. The struggle to set limits has never been toughter—and the stakes have never been higher. One recent study of adults who were overindulged as children, paints a discouraging picture of their future: when given too much too soon, they grow up to be adults who have difficulty coping with life’s disappointments. They also have distorted sense of entitlement that gets in the way of success in the work place and in relationship.

2. Psychologists say that parents who overindulge their kids, set them up to be more vulnerable to future anxiety and depression. Today’s parents themselves raised on values of thrift and self-sacrifice, grew up in a culture where no was a household word. Today’s kids want much more, partly because there is so much more to want. The oldest members of this generation were born in the late 1980s, just as PCs and video games were making their assault on the family room. They think of MP3 players and flat screen TV as essential utilities, and they have developed strategies to get them. One survey of teenagers found that when they crave for something new, most expect to ask nine times before their parents give in. By every measure, parents are shelling out record amounts. In the heat of this buying blitz, even parents who desperately need to say no find themselves reaching for their credit cards.

3. Today’s parents aren’t equipped to deal with the problem. Many of them, raised in the 1960s and 1970s, swore they’d act differently. Many even wear the same designed clothes as their kids and listen to the same music. And they work for more hours; at the end of a long wee, it’s tempting to buy peace with ‘yes’ and not mar precious family time with conflict. Anxiety about future is another factor. How do well intentioned parents say no to all the sports gear and arts and language lessons they believe will help their kids thrive in an increasingly competitive world? Express agree: too much love won’t spoil a child. Too few limits will.

4. What parents need to find, is a balance between the advantages of an affluent society and the critical life lessons that come from waiting, saving and working hard to achieve goals. That search for balance has to start early. Children need limits on their behaviour because they feel better and more secure when they live within a secured structure. Older children learn self-control by watching how others, especially parents act. Learning how to overcome challenges is essential to become a successful adult. Few parents ask kids to do chores. They think their kids are already overburdened by social and academic pressure. Every individual can be of service to others, and life has meaning beyond one’s own immediate happiness. That means parents eager to teach values have to take a long, hard look at their own. (Delhi 2014)

I. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (9 Marks)

(a) What values do parents and teachers want children to learn? 2
(b) What are the results of giving the children too much too soon? 2
(c) Why do today’s children want more? 1
(d) What is the balance which the parents need to have in today’s world? 2
(e) What is the necessity to set limits for children? 2

II. Find words from the passage which mean the same as: (1 × 3 = 3 Marks)

(a) a feeling of satisfaction (para 1)
(b) valuable (para 3)
(c) important (para 4)

Question 2.
Read the following poem carefully. (10 Marks)

To the Men of England

1. Men of England, wherefore plough
For the lords who lay ye low?
Wherefore weave with toil and care
The rich robes your tyrants wear?

2. Wherefore feed and clothe and save
From the cradle to the grave
Those ungrateful drones who would
Drain your sweat—nay, drink your blood?

3. Wherefore, Bees of England, forge
Many a weapon, chain, and scourge,
That these stingless drones may spoil
The forced produce of your toil?

4. Have ye leisure, comfort, calm,
Shelter, food, love’s gentle balm?
Or what is it ye buy so dear
With your pain and with your fear?

5. The seed ye sow, another reaps;
The wealth ye find, another keeps;
The robes ye weave, another wears;
The arms ye forge, another bears.

6. Sow seed—but let no tyrant reap:
Find wealth—let no imposter heap:
Weave robes—let not the idle wear:
Forge arms—in your defence to bear.

7. Shrink to your cellars, holes, and cells—
In hall ye deck another dwells.
Why shake the chains ye wrought? Ye see
The steel ye tempered glance on ye.

8. With plough and spade and hoe and loom
Trace your grave and build your tomb
And weave your winding-sheet—till fair
England be your Sepulchre.

By Percy Bysshe Shelley

I. Answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option : (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) ‘Lords’ in the second line refers to :

1. god
2. money lenders
3. rich masters
4. headman

(b) The figure of speech in the phrase ‘Bees of England’ is :

1. simile
2. metaphor
3. repetition
4. personification

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(c) What is the theme of the poem ‘To the Men of England’?
(d) Why must the workers revolt?
(e) Why are the idle rich called ‘drones’?
(f) Why is the worker’s lot sad?
(g) Which phrase strongly conveys the idea of the worker’s entire life?
(h) What does the poet wish to convey by the phrase ‘nay, drink your blood’?

III. Find words from the passage which are similar in meaning to the following. (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) to decorate (line 26)
(b) tomb (line 32)

Question 3.
Read the following passage carefully. (8 Marks)

I remember my childhood as being generally happy and can recall experiencing some of the most carefree times of my life. But I can also remember, even more vividly, moments of being deeply frightened. As a child, I was truly terrified of the dark and getting lost. These fears were very real and caused me some extremely uncomfortable moments. Maybe it was the strange way things looked and sounded in my familiar room at night that scared me so much. There was never total darkness, but a street light or passing car lights made clothes hung over a chair take on the shape of an unknown beast. Out of the comer of my eye, I saw curtains move when there was no breeze. A tiny creak in the floor would sound a hundred times louder than in the daylight and my imagination would take over, creating burglars and monsters. Darkness always made me feel helpless. My heart would pound and I would lie very still so that ‘the enemy’ wouldn’t discover me. Another childhood fear mine was that I would get lost, especially on the way home from school. Every morning, I got on the school bus right near my home — that was no problem. After school, thought, when all the buses were lined up along the curve, I was terrified that I would get on the wrong one and be taken to some unfamiliar neighbourhood. I would scan the bus for the faces of my friends, make sure that the bus driver was the same one that had been there in the morning, and even then ask the others over and over again to be sure I was in the right bus. On school or family trips to an amusement park or a museum, I wouldn’t let the leaders out of my sight. And of course, I was never very adventurous when it came to taking walks or hikes because I would go only where I was sure I would never get lost.

Perhaps, one of the worst fears I had as a child was that of not being liked or accepted by others. First of all, I was quite shy. Secondly, I worried constantly about my looks, thinking people wouldn’t like me because I was too fat or wore braces. I tried to wear ‘the right clothes’ and had intense arguments with my mother over the importance of wearing flats instead of saddled shoes to school. Being popular was very important to me then and the fear of not being liked was a powerful one.

One of the processes of evolving from a child to an adult is being able to recognize and overcome our fears. I have learnt that darkness does not have to take on a life of own, that others can help me when I am lost and that friendliness and sincerity will encourage people to like me. Understanding the things that scared us as children helps to cope with our lives as adult. (Delhi 2014)

A. On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it, using headings and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations (wherever necessary—minimum four) and a format you consider suitable. Also supply an appropriate title to it. (5 Marks)

B. Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 Marks)

SECTION B
ADVANCE WRITING SKILLS (30 MARKS)

Question 4.
You are the secretary of the welfare association of your colony. An unfortunate incident of dowry death has occurred in your colony. Design a poster in not more than 50 words highlighting the evils of the dowry system to create awareness among the people. (Delhi 2014) (4 Marks)
OR
You are a businessman who wants to set up a small garment shop in your city. Draft an advertisement seeking a suitable space for rent, to be published in the ‘Wanted Accomodation’ column of a local newspaper. Write the advertisement in not more than 50 words. (Delhi 2014)

Question 5.
You are Ketan Panday of 63, Civil Lines, Delhi. You saw an advertisement in the Hindu for the post of accountant in a reputed firm. Write an application in 120-150 words to the Area Manager of Gayatri Consultants, 2 Barakhamba Road, New Delhi, giving your detailed biodata. (Delhi (C) 2015) (6 Marks)

OR

You are awaiting your class 12 results. Meanwhile you would like to do a short term course on personality development. Write a letter to the Director, Personal Care, Hyderabad, enquiring about the course details. You are Kailash/Kusum of 148, Model Town, Delhi. (120-150 words)

Question 6.
In all big cities road rage has become a serious problem. A minor scratch, a little push, or a small brushing past can lead to a scuffle sometimes resulting even in murder. Write an article in 150-200 words on road rage. You are Ketan/Karuna. (10 Marks)

OR

Education has always been a noble profession. Our ancestors received their learning at gurukuls and ashrams. Even In the past pathshalas (schools) were associated with places of worship. Today, education is fasts becoming commercialised. Parents have to shell out a lot of money on coaching classes, tuition fees, etc. Write an article in 150-200 words on ‘The State of Education Today’. You are karun/karuna. (All India 2016)

Question 7.
The Lions Club and Apollo Hospital, Chennai organised a blood donation camp in your school. You reached there as a reporter. Write a report to be published in your school magazine in 150-200 words. (10 Marks)
OR
You are Nishant/Nisha, a student of class-XII. You are asked to participate in the debate competition and speak in favour of motion — Joint Family is the most appropriate way of life. Your debate should not exceed 200 words.

SECTION C
TEXTBOOKS AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (40 MARKS)

Question 8.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow : (Delhi 2014) (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

When Aunt is dead, her terrified hands will lie
Still ringed with ordeals she was mastered by.
The tigers in the panel that she made
Will go on prancing, proud and unafraid.

(a) Who is the aunt mentioned here?
(b) Why is she ringed with ordeals?
(c) What is the difference between her and the tigers?
(d) Name the poet.

OR

It would be an exotic moment (Delhi (C) 2015)
without rush, without engines;
we would all be together
in a sudden strangeness.

(a) Which exotic moment is referred to in these lines?
(b) Why would the moment be strange?
(c) What does the poet advocate in the poem?
(d) What does the poet mean by the word ‘engines’?

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words each: (4 × 3 = 12 Marks)

(a) What is the misadventure that William Douglas talks about? (NCERT)
(b) Is Saheb happy working at the tea stall? Explain. (NCERT)
(c) What were the poet’s feelings as she drove to Kochi airport? (Delhi (C) 2015)
(d) Why are Aunt Jennifer’s hands ‘terrified’?
(e) Why did Jackson ask Stephens to take Evans’s razor and nail-scissors out of the cell after he finished shaving?
(f) What was the fate of the man who locked himself up in his room? Why does Mr. Lamb give this example? (All India 2016)

Question 10.
Douglas fully realized the truth of Roosevelt’s statement ‘All we have to fear is fear itself.’ How did this realization help him brush aside his fear and become an expert swimmer? (120-150 words) (Delhi 2014) (6 Marks)
OR
Do you think truth prevails against all odds? Why do you think Gandhi considered the Champaran episode to be a turning point in his life?

Question 11.
Reflecting on the story what did you feel about Evans’ having the last laugh. (120-150 words) (NCERT) (6 marks)
OR
Why js an adult’s perspective on life different from that of a child’s? (NCERT)

Question 12.
Why did Mrs. Hall think that her conversational advances were ill-timed? (120¬150 words) (6 Marks)
OR
Marvel is the only character in ‘The Invisible Man, who interacts with Griffin and gains something. Comment. (120-150 words) (All India 2016)

Question 13.
Silas Mamer lost his hoard of gold. Describe the circumstances under which his ‘gold’ is restored to him in the form of Eppie. (120-150 words) (Foreign 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
How did Griffin make himself completely invisible at coach and horses? (120-150 words) (Foreign 2015)

ANSWERS

Answer 1.
I. (a) Parents and teachers want the children to learn the values like hardwork, contentment, honesty, compassion and setting limits.
(b) If children are given too much too soon, they would not be able to cope with life’s disappointments.
(c) Today’s children want more as there are more goods available in the market.
(d) The parents have to balance the advantages of an affluent society and critical life lessons.
(e) Living within limits make the children feel safe and in a secured structure.

II. (a) contentment (b) precious (c) critical

Answer 2.
I. (a) (iii) rich masters (b) (iv) metaphor
II. (c) The poem is a passionate plea for social justice.
(d) The workers must revolt against their rich masters as they exploit and bring them down.
(e) The idle rich are called drones because they live off the labour of others.
(f) The worker’s lot is sad because they are deprived of the fruit of their labour.
(g) The phrase ‘cradle to the grave’ conveys this idea.
(h) The phrase conveys the heartlessness, and savagery of the rich masters who are impervious to the plight of the masses whom they exploit incessantly.

III. (a) deck (b) sepulchre

Answer 3.

A. TITLE: My Childhood Fears

NOTES :

1. narrator’s childhood

1. generally happy
2. often marked by fear

2. foremost fear due to overactive imagintn.

1. strange appearance of familiar things
2. strange sounds
3. darkness
4. creaking doors

3. fear of getting lost

1. feared boarding wrong bus
2. made sure that the driver and frnds. were the same
3. remained close to group leaders on trips

4. fear of being unpop.

1. was shy
2. worried about looks

5. lessons learnt

1. overcoming fears—part of growing up
2. understanding our fears imp. to ovrcm. them

Key to Abbreviations

imagintn : imagination
frnds : friends
unpop : unpopular
imp : important
ovrcm : overcome

B. SUMMARY

The narrator had a generally happy childhood though it was not without some fears. His foremost fear was due to an overactive imagination . He feared the strange sounds and appearance of things. Darkness, creaking doors frightened him much. He also feared getting lost. He feared boarding the wrong bus, and would check the faces of the driver and his friends to ensure that he was on the right bus. He was shy and feared being unpopular. He has learnt the needs to understand one’s fears to overcome them.

Answer 4.

Answer 5.

63, Civil Lines
Delhi
19th September, 2016
Gayatri Consultants
2 Barakhamba Road
New Delhi

Sub: Application for the post of a librarian

Dedr Sir,

With reference to your advertisement in ‘The Hindu’ dated 7th September, 20×× inviting applications for the position of an accountant, I hereby offer my candidature for the same. As regards my qualifications and experience, I am enclosing my bio-data to enable you to make an assessment of my suitability for the given post. In case my application is considered, I will be available for the interview at any time suitable to you.

If selected, I assure you that I shall work with utmost dedication and sincerity to your full satisfaction.

Hoping for a favourable response.
Yours faithfully
Ketan Panday
Enclosure: Bio-Data

OR

148, Model Town
Delhi
7th April, 20××
The Director
Personal Care
Hyderabad

Sub: Enquiry regarding personality development course.

Sir

I am waiting for my class 12 board results which are due around the end of May. I am keenly interested in pursuing a course in personality development in this intervening time, from your prestigious institution.

You are requested to address the following queries regarding the course :

• When can I join?
• What is the duration of the course?
• What is the batch strength?
• What is the number of classes per week?
• What is the duration of the classes?
• What is the fees?

You are requested to reply at your earliest convenience to enable me to enroll for the course at the earliest.

Thank you

Yours sincerely
Kailash

Answer 6.

Road Rage: A Growing Menace
By Karuna

Any emotion of violence while driving can be called road rage or driver fury. Everyone knows the perils of road rage. It has been featured on TV shows, in movies, and even in video games. But what’s really the psychology behind the road rage phenomenon and what causes road rage and aggressive driving? A predisposition to road rage is cultivated as early as childhood. Drivers grow up being socialized into a culture of hostility rather than mutual support and peace.

Road rage can be controlled by cognitive therapy. One can immediately make loud funny noises or wailing, or if you prefer, burst out singing in a loud voice. These are the ways drivers can distract themselves from feelings of road rage. After a few seconds start talking to yourself. Give yourself all the rational reasons for not doing anything and to just forget the situation counting yourself lucky. Convince yourself you are more of a human being if you forgive, forget, and live to get to your destination without a side stop at the hospital or police station.”

Such avoidance techniques and proper education can work to help most drivers avoid road rage.

OR

The State of Education Today
By Karan

Education was something that was always driven by devotion and thought. Helped by their own volition, teachers were successful potters moulding men and women into good citizens. Sadly, today the department of education has been corrupted by the commercialization of education that manufactures solipsists but doesn’t nurture altruists. While it is true that education must evolve as time passes but commercialization of education is the worst thing that could ever have happened. In a race to excel more than most of one’s competitors, coaching classes along with other institutions have become a resort for the ‘betterment’ of students’ academic performances. They are perceived as simultaneously a compulsion, and criticized a lot for spoiling education, students’ lives, standard of schools, etc. Due to the attending of coaching classes by almost all students in cities, the interest of school teachers to impart knowledge to students has now started dipping gradually.

It is sad how the poor parents have been doubly- burdened. They have to shell out the exorbitant school fees along with the hefty, hourly charges of tuition classes. In fact taking extra tuitions is a matter of pride among the student group. Students are in fact relying on the tuition centers and not their own ability to study the books. They need to understand that there is no substitute for self study, not even tuition classes.

Answer 7.
Blood Donation Camp At Parag International School

Reported by Jaya Prakash

Nagpur, 20th March, 20××: A one day medical camp was organised in the school with the help of Lions Club and Apollo Hospital. 75 people were benefited in the one-day medical camp organised jointly by the Lion Club and Apollo Hospitals, Chennai. 50 Doctors with an equal number of Paramedical staff arrived at the school at 10 a.m. Students had already lined up to donate blood. Around 20 staff members were also ready to donate blood. The team was welcomed by the school principal Ms. Murti and her team of staff members. First of all they were served tea and a light breakfast. Then they set about collecting blood. The students had already been briefed about it. The team of doctors was happy to see the enthusiasm among the school children. Few parents had also arrived by the end of the day. The head doctor, Dr. Satish appreciated the efforts made by the school for this noble cause and thanked everybody for putting their share in this noble cause. Lions Club had made elaborate arrangements and the medical staff was provided by the Apollo Hospital, Chennai. The blood donation camp was a huge success.

OR

Respected Chairperson, honourable judges, members of staff and friends!

I, Nishant stand before you to speak for the motion on ‘Joint Family is the most appropriate way of life’ in the context of our age-old culture. We know that our culture lays much emphasis on human values of love, affection, pity, mercy, sympathy, help, compassion etc. Human life and survival are the most important aspects of life. Such a way of life is possible only in a joint family. In a joint family, the eldest member has all the worries of caretake of his entire family. In return he is respected and is honourable for all. Children and women are paid due attention as they are the future of the family lineage. Duties are shared as the joint family becomes a fine example of the division of labour. The weak and the old are equally looked after. Thus the joint family becomes the most desirable way of life in which members progress and are helped by all. Cooperation, sharing of work, taking care of the children, the weak and the elderly are its important aspects. The old don’t become victims of negligence as they become in a nuclear family

Answer 8.

(a) The aunt mentioned here is the narrator’s aunt Jennifer.
(b) She will be ringed with ordeals as she is surrounded by the problems of her married life. It seems that she will get no respite even after her death.
(c) Jennifer’s ‘tigers’ will go on jumping ahead, proud and unafraid. While the aunt will remain caught up in the mental and social shackles of matrimony.
(d) The poet is Adrienne Rich.

OR

(a) When we will be silent and still, it would be an exotic moment.
(b) For some time all humanity will be at a stand still. It will thus be strange as such a thing is unusual.
(c) The poet advocates peace, silence and rest for all human beings.
(d) ‘Engines’ refers to all the machines that humans have created to make lives easier.

Answer 9.

(a) At the age of ten or eleven William O. Douglas decided to learn how to swim at the Y.M.C.A pool because it was only two or three feet deep at the shallow end. He had an aversion to water but he felt comfortable when he paddled with his new water wings in the water. One day he went to the pool when no one else was there. He was waiting for others to come. Then there came a big bruiser of a boy and yelled; “Hi, skinny! How’d you liked to be ducked?” With that he picked Douglas and ducked him into the deep land. He landed in a sitting position, swallowed water and went at once to the bottom. He feared to be drowned. This misadventure caused a lot of trouble to Douglas.

(b) Saheb now works in a tea stall down the road. He is paid 800 rupees and all his meals. Bpt even then he doesn’t seem to be happy. The steel canister he carries now is heavier than the plastic bag he used to carry on his shoulders. He is ‘no longer his own master’. He is just a servant. So he is not happy working at the tea stall.

(c) The poetess realised the deep pain in her heart to see her mother’s face like that of a corpse. The poetess put that thought away by looking at the outside world.

(d) Aunt Jennifer’s hands are ‘terrified’ as she still bears the cruel burdens of her not so happy wedded life.

(e) The senior prison officer Jackson didn’t want to take any chance with ‘Evans the Breaker’. He asked Stephens to take away his razor and nail scissors after he had finished shaving. With the razor Evans could cut his throat. He could also use the razor and the nail-scissors as weapons against the invigilator McLeery.

(f) There was a man who was afraid of everything. A bus might run over him. A donkey might kick him to death. So he went into his room. He locked the door and stayed there. A picture fell off the wall on to his head and killed him. Mr Lamb doesn’t want Derry to alienate himself. He wanted Derry to embrace life fearlessly.

Answer 10.
Roosevelt has appropriately said, “All we have to fear is fear itself.” It implies that we fear from fear. Those who have undergone this experience of fear, can only appreciate its worth. William O. Douglas has faced it twice in life. He had a terrible fear of water. He could not go for swimming, canoeing, boating and rafting, etc. He realised that it would ruin his life since it was following and haunting him wherever he went. Fear is our hard core enemy. We must get rid of it at the earliest like Douglas. He hired an instructor to train himself properly. When he got rid of his fear, he checked his training repeatedly by swimming alone several times. When he was sure that no shred of fear remained in his psyche, he finally celebrated his victory over his fear.

OR

It is true that truth will always win despite all odds. Gandhiji was a great believer of truthful living and his handling of the Champaran case amply proved this point.

The Champaran episode proved to be a turning point in the life of Gandhi. He knew the atrocities of the landlord and the share croppers were to plant 15 percent of their holding with indigo and surrender the entire harvest to them as rent. In the meantime, Germany had developed synthetic indigo. Thus the price of the natural indigo would fall in the market sharply. The landlords had obtained agreements from the sharecroppers to pay compensation. Gandhi took up the cause of the poor peasants and he fought against the cruel injustice of the landlord.

Immediately Gandhi proceeded to investigate the facts but an official notice ordered him to quit Champaran immediately. As a result of this struggle, an official commission was set up that declared to refund the money to the sharecroppers. 25 percent of the money was to be paid to the sharecroppers. The British realised that the Indians are self-reliant and the foreigners could not order them in their land. Thus the Champaran episode was a turning point in his life as well in India.

Answer 11.
In ‘Evans Tries An O-Level’ we see a battle of patience and nerves. The Governor and his staff are outwitted by the wily Evans. In this tug of war, Evans proves to be the natural winner. He easily slips out of the net that had been laid to arrest him.

All precautions had been taken to ensure that Evans would not escape. No one wanted to take any chance with ‘Evans the Breaker’. The examination was to be conducted in the cell itself. One of the parsons Mr McLeery was to invigilate. The senior officer Jackson and Stephens had made all necessary arrangements. Evans’s razor and nail-scissors were also taken away. They could be used for cutting his throat or injuring McLeery.

But Evans frustrated all their plans. He could hide a false beard, a pair of spectacles, and some weapon in his cell. Actually, he managed to keep McLeery securely bound and gagged in his study in Broad Street. He had been there since 8.15 a.m. This meant that McLeery never went to prison. Secondly, it was Evans who impersonated McLeery and stayed in the cell. The last act of folly of the Governor was enough to let Evans slip out of their custody.

OR

Children look at this world from a different perspective. Their perspective on life reflects simplicity and innocence and anxiety to be accepted by peers. Jo has a deep sympathy for Roger Skunk. Roger’s bad smell kept all little animals away from him. The wizard made Roger smell of roses. He was happy. Other little animals were now attracted towards him. Jo’s main anger is against the “stupid mommy” of Roger Skunk. It was she who forced the wizard to make Roger Skunk smell very bad again. The hero of the story is always a role model for children. The tender-hearted Jo is shocked at the attitude of that ‘stupid’ mommy. She wants that Roger’s mommy must be punished. The wizard must hit on her head hard with his magic wand.

According to Jack, Roger’s mother doesn’t deserve such a bad punishment. For her Roger must smell like her son. For her the natural identity of Roger is priceless.

Answer 12.
When Mrs. Hall came to the visitor’s room to lay the table, she was surprised to see her visitor still wore his hat and coat, staring out of the window. She noticed that the melting snow from his shoulders dripped upon the carpet. She offered to take his coat and hat for drying but the visitor refused without turning himself. She tried to extend her conversation by saying that the room would be warmer soon. But the visitor made no answer and turned his face away from her. Mrs. Hall felt that the visitor must be tired and would like to be left alone. So she felt that her conversational advances were ill-timed and she whisked out of the room.

OR

Though marvel is the fat, local tramp, who appears to be good for nothing, he is not without intelligence. He is smart enough to realize when he stands to gain. In fact he alone truly gains due to his association with Griffin. His stories that he tells to the press bring him sympathy. In the end, after Griffin dies he finds himself in possession of Griffin’s research recorded in his books and all his stolen money. He also purchases an inn. He regales his customers by narrating to them the stories of the invisible man. He is shrewd enough to keep the books under wraps, perhaps waiting for the right customer. It is ironical that while a genius like Griffin met an undignified death, Marvel once a lazy idler \ comes into money and a respectable life.

Answer 13.

Silas had come to distrust people after his bitter experience in Raveloe. In Lantern Yard he immerses himself in weaving and the money thus earned gave much solace to him. After Dunstan steals Silas’ gold in Lantern Yard, Silas is heartbroken. He would often open his door in the unreasonable hope that it would return to him or some news of it would come to him, but to no avail. On the night of Christmas after Molly poisons herself, her little daughter, strays her towards the light that comes from Silas’s house. Silas saw her as a Christmas gift, the stolen ‘gold’ that was restored to him. He named her Eppie. To convey how invaluable Eppie was to Silas, George Eliot symbolically equates Silas’ lost gold with Eppie.

OR

At the Coach and Horses, Griffin had a showdown with Mrs. Hall on the issue of nonpayment of her dues. Griffin was forced to tell the gathering that he was indeed invisible. He removed the bandage from his head and as he proceeded further, Hall brought Jaffers, the police constable, into Coach and Horses. Jaffers tried to handcuff him. Griffin misled him by promising to surrender himself without the handcuff. In the meanwhile he quickly took off his shoes, socks, coat and trousers. Now he was completely invisible. In a naked state he had the advantage over all others, though he was chilled to the bone in the freezing cold of February.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Englsih Core Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 5 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 5.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 5

Time Allowed : 3 Hours

Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions 

• All questions are compulsory. There are 26 questions in all.
• This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
• Section A contains five questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains five questions of 2 marks each. Section C contains twelve questions of 3 marks each. Section D contains one value based question of 4 marks and Section E contains three questions of 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 1 question of 2 marks, 1 question of 3 marks and all the 3 questions of 5 marks weightage. You have to attempt only 1 of the choices in such questions.
• You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary :

Questions
SECTION : A

Question 1.
The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at a place is B and angle of dip is 60°. What is the value of vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at equator?

Question 2.
A heating element is marked 210 V, 630 W. What is the value of current drawn by the element when connected to a 210 V dc source?

Question 3.
Predict the directions of induced currents in metal rings 1 and 2 lying in the same plane where current I in the wire is increasing steadily.

Question 4.
Show on a graph, the variation of resistivity with temperature for a typical semiconductor.

Question 5.
Why should electrostatic field be zero inside a conductor?

SECTION : B

Question 6.
Draw a plot showing the variation of
(i) electric field (E) and
(ii) distance r due to a point charge Q.

Question 7.
Distinguish between ‘Analog and Digital signals’

OR

Mention the functions of any two of the following used in communication system :
(a) Transducer
(b) Repeater
(c) Transmitter
(d) Bandpass Filter

Question 8.
A ray of light incident on an equilateral prism (μ_g = \(\sqrt { 3 } \)) moves parallel to the base line of the prism inside it. Find the angle of incidence for this ray.

Question 9.
The susceptibility of a magnetic material is -2.6 x 10^-5. Identify the type of magnetic material and state its two properties.

Question 10.
Two identical circular wires P and Q each of radius R and carrying current ‘I’  are kept in perpendicular planes such that they have a common centre. Find the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field at the common centre of the two coils.

SECTiON : C

Question 11.
A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected to two external resistance R₁ and R₂ and a perfect ammeter. The current in the circuit is measured in four different situations :
(i) without any external resistance in the circuit
(ii) with resistance R₁only
(iii) with R₁ and R₂ in series combination
(iv) with R₁ and R₂ in parallel combination.
The currents measured in the four cases are 0.42 A, 1.05 A, 1.4 A and 4.2 A, but not necessarily in the order.Identify the currents corresponding to the four cases mentioned above.

Question 12.
Define self-inductance of a coil. Show that magnetic energy required to build up the current I in a coil of self inductance L is given by 1/2 LI²

Question 13.
(a) Why are coherent sources necessary to produce a sustained interference pattern?
(b) In Young’s double slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where path difference is λ, is K units. Find out the intensity of light at a point where path difference is λ/3.

Question 14.
When an ideal capacitor is charged by a dc battery, no current flows. However, when an ac source is used the current flows continuously. How does one explain this based on the concept of displacement current?

Question 15.

A rectangular loop of wire of size 4 cm x 10 cm carries a steady current of 2 A. A straight long wire carrying 5 A current is kept near the loop as shown. If the loop and the wire are coplanar,
find
(i) the torque acting on the loop and
(ii) the magnitude and direction of the force on the loop due to the current carrying wire.

Question 16.
In the figure a long uniform potentiometer wire AB is having a constant potential gradient along its length. The null points for the two primary cells of emfs ε₁ and ε₂ connected in the manner shown are obtained at a distance of 120 cm and 300 cm from the end A.
Find
(i) ε₁/ε₂ and
(ii) position of null point for the cell ε₁

How is the sensitivity of a potentiometer increased?

OR

Using Kirchhoffs rules determine the value of unknown resistance R in the circuit so that no current flows through 4 Q resistance. Also find the potential between A and D.

Question 17.
Write any two factors which justify the need for modulating a signal. Draw a diagram showing an amplitude modulated wave by superimposing a modulating signal over a sinusoidal carrier wave.

Question 18.
The current in the forward bias is known to be more (~ mA) than the current in the reverse bias (~ μA). What is the reason, then, to operate the photodiode in reverse bias?

Question 19.
A metallic rod of length ‘L’ is rotated with angular frequency of ‘ω’ with one end hinged at the centre and the other end at the circumference of a circular metallic ring of radius L about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field B parallel to the axis is present everywhere. Deduce the expression for the induced em/between the centre and the metallic ring.

Question 20.
Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation. State clearly how this equation is obtained using the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation. Write the three salient features observed in photoelectric effect which can be explained using this equation.

Question 21.

The figure shows a series LCR circuit with L = 5 H, C = 80 μF, R = 40 Ω connected to a variable frequency 240 V source, calculate
(i) the angular frequency of the source which drives the circuit at resonance,
(ii) the current at the resonating frequency,
(iii) the rmspotential drop across the inductor at resonance.

Question 22.
(i) What characteristic property of nuclear force explains the constancy of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) in the range of mass number ‘A’ lying 30 < A < 170?
(ii) Show that the density of nucleus over a wide range of nuclei is constant independent of mass number A.

SECTION : D

Questoin 23.
Renu and her friend went to see an exhibition. There, security guard standing on the entrance gate, asked them to come through a metal detector gate. Her friend was scared of it. But Renu convinced her and explained the purpose and working of a metal detector.
(i) What values Renu possess?
(ii) What is a metal detector and how it works?

SECTION : E

Question 24.
A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a potential difference V by a dc source. The capacitor is then disconnected from the source. If the distance between the plates is doubled, state with reason how the following will change;
(i) electric field between the plates
(ii) capacitance, and
(iii) energy stored in the capacitor

OR

(a) Define electric flux. Write its S.I. units.
(b) Using Gauss’s law, prove that the electric field at a point due to a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet is independent of the distance from it.
(c) How is the field directed if
(i) the sheet is positively charged,
(ii) negatively charged?

Question 25.
Define magnifying power of a telescope. Write its expression. A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 150 cm and an eye-piece of focal length 5 cm. If this telescope is used to view a 100 m high tower 3 km away, find the height of the final image when it is formed 25 cm away from the eye-piece.

OR

How is the working of a telescope different from that of a microscope? The focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece of a microscope are 1.25 cm and 5 cm respectively. Find the position of the object relative to the objective in order to obtain an angular magnification of 30 in normal adjustment.

Question 26.
Draw a simple circuit of a CE transistor amplifier. Explain its working. Show that the voltage gain A_v of the amplifier is given by

is the current again ; R_L is the load resistance and r. is the input resistance of the transistor. What is the significance of the negative sign in the expression for the voltage gain?

OR

(a) Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier using p-n junction diode. Explain its working and show the output, input waveforms.
(b) Show the output waveforms (Y) for the following inputs A and B of
(i) OR gate
(ii) NAND gate.

 Answers :
SECTION : A

Answer 1.
On the equator, the value of both angle of dip (5) and vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is zero. So, in this case,
B_v = 0.

Answer 2.
In dc source, P = VI
Given that P = 630 W and V = 210 V
So, I = P/V = 630/210 = 3 A.

Answer 3.
Using Lenz’s law we can predict the direction of induced current in both the rings. Induced current oppose the cause of increase of magnetic flux. So, it will be clockwise in ring 1 and anticlockwise in ring 2.

Answer 4.
The following curve shows the variation of resistivity with temperature for a typical semiconductor.

This is because for a typical semiconductor resistivity decreases rapidly with increasing temperature.

Answer 5.
Charge on conductor resides on its surface. So if we consider a Gaussian surface inside the conductor to find the electrostatic field,

Where, q = charge enclosed in Gaussian surface. q = 0, inside the conductor, hence the electrostatic field inside the conductor is zero.

SECTION : B

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 6

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 6

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 6 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
What is nomadic herding?

Question 2.
What are the retail trading services?

Question 3.
Name the terminal stations of the Orient Express Railway.

Question 4.
Name the metropolitan city of Kerala.

Question 5.
Name the air service which is widely used in the hilly areas of the north-eastern sector.

Question 6.
What type of pollution is responsible for acid rain?

Question 7.
Which port is specially designed to receive large quantities of petroleum and petroleum products and fertiliser?

Question 8.
Discuss the concept of New Determinism with suitable example.

Question 9.
Why is sex ratio unfavourable to women in the world? Mention any three reasons.

Question 10.
Explain the concept of productivity and empowerment as the pillars of human development.

Question 11.
Study the following map carefully and answer the questions that follows.

(i) Name the Trans Continental Railways.
(ii) Name the stations situated at both ends of this railways.
(iii) Name the ports situated at Bay of Spencer through which it passes.

Question 12.
Continued feelings of dejection may motivate people to fall in the trap of anti social activities like crime and drug abuse. Which human values are important that could bring a positive change among such people?

Question 13.
Explain any three points of distinction between rural and urban settlements of India.

Question 14.
Describe the main characteristics of Commercial Livestock Rearing.

Question 15.
Describe the factors affecting the location of rural settlements in the world.

Question 16.
Describe the important characteristics of the Panama Canal. 5×1 = 5

Question 17.
Explain any five factors which influenced the location of Tata Iron and Steel Plant.

Question 18.
What is wind energy? State two advantages of wind energy. Name the states of India having favourable conditions for the development of wind energy.

Question 19.
Describe important characteristics of India’s international trade.

Question 20.
What is an air pollution? How is the air get polluted? Explain any three effects of air pollution on human life.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) An area having highest density of population.
(B) Areas of extensive commercial grain farming
(C) A major seaport
(D) A mega city
(E) A major airport

Question 22.
Locate and label the following five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) A highly urbanised state, in terms of population.
(ii) A leading producer state in Groundnut.
(iii) An oil refinery that lies in Bihar.
(iv) Software Technology Park in Madhya Pradesh
(v) A major sea port.

Answers

Answer 1.
Nomadic herding is an activity in which the herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter tools and transport. They move from one place to another along with their livestock depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water.

Answer 2.
This is the business activity concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers. Most of the retail trading takes place in fixed stores solely devoted to selling.

Answer 3.
Paris in the West and Istanbul in the East.

Answer 4.
Kochi

Answer 5.
Pawan Hans.

Answer 6.
Air Pollution.

Answer 7.
Kandla Port.

Answer 8.
(i) Griffin Taylor introduced this concept which reflects a middle path between the two ideas of environmental determinism and possibilism.
(ii) It was termed as Neo-determinism or stop-and-go determinism and tried to explain with the example of traffic signals. The concept shows that neither is a situation of absolute necessity nor is there a condition of absolute freedom.
(in) It means that human beings can conquer nature by obeying it. They can proceed in their pursuits of development when nature permits the modifications. Possibilities can be created within the limits—that does not damage the environment and there is no free run without accidents.

Answer 9.
(i) If gender discrimination is rampant, the sex-ratio is bound to be unfavourable to women.
(ii) The practice of female foeticide, female infanticide and domestic violence against women.
(iii) Lower socio-economic status of women.

Answer 10.
(i) Productivity: Productivity means human labour productivity in terms of human work.
(ii) Productivity must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people as they are real wealth of nations. Efforts to increase their knowledge or provide better health facilities ultimately leads to better work efficiency.
Empowerment: It means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing freedom and capability. Good governance and people oriented policies are required to empower people. The empowerment of socially and economically disadvantaged groups is of special importance.

Answer 11.
(i) The Australian Trans Continental Railways.
(ii) Perth in the West and Sydney in the East.
(iii) Port Augusta and Port Pirie.

Answer 12.
(i) Awakening
(ii) Cooperation and counsellings
(iii) Harmony.

Answer 13.
(i) The rural settlements derive their life support from land based primary economic activities whereas urban settlements depend on processing of raw materials and manufacturing of finished goods and various services.
(ii) Cities act as nodes of economic growth and provide goods and services not only to urban dwellers but also to the people of rural settlements in their hinterlands in return for food and raw materials.
Functional relationship between the urban and rural settlements take place through transport and communication network.
(iii) Rural and urban settlements differ in terms of social relationship, attitude and outlook.
Rural people are less mobile; social relations among them are intimate. Way of life complex and fast; social relations are formal.

Answer 14.
(i) Commercial livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive.
(ii) Commercial livestock ranching is essentially associated with western culture and is practised on permanent ranches.
(iii) Ranches cover large areas and are divided into a number of parcel which are fenced to regulate the grazing.
(iv) The grass of one parcel is grazed, then animals are moved to another parcel. The number of animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying capacity of the pasture.
(v) It is a specialised activity in which only one type of animal is reared. Important animals include sheep, cattle, goat and horses. Rearing of animals in ranching is organised on a scientific basis.
(vi) The main emphasis is on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control and health care of the animals.

Answer 15.
(i) Water supply: Rural settlements are located near waterbodies such as rivers, lakes and
springs where water can be easily obtained. Most water based ‘wet point’ settlements have many advantages such as water for drinking, cooking, and washing. Rivers and lakes can be used to irrigate farm land.
(ii) Land: People choose to settle near fertile lands suitable for agriculture. In Europe, villages grew up near rolling country avoiding swampy, low lying land, while people in south east Asia chose to live near low-lying river valleys and coastal plains suited for wet rice cultivation.
(iii) Upland: It is not prone to flooding, was chosen to prevent damage to houses and loss of life. In low lying river basins, people chose to settle on terraces and levees which are ‘dry point’. In tropical countries people build their houses on stilts near marshy land to protect themselves from flood, insects and animal pests.
(iv) Building Materials: The availability of building materials—Wood and stone near settlement is another advantage. Early villages were built in forest clearings where wood was plentiful. In some areas of China, cave dwellings were important and African Savanna’s building materials were mud, bricks and the Eskimos use ice blocks to construct igloos.
(v) Defence: During the times of political instability, war, hostility of neighbouring groups, villages were build on defensive hills and islands. In Nigeria, upstanding Inselberges formed good defensive sites. In India most of the settlements are located on higher grounds or hills.

Answer 16.
(i) This canal connects the Atlantic Ocean in the east to the Pacific Ocean in the west.
(ii) It is about 72 km long and involves a very deep cutting for a length of 12 km.
(iii) It has a six lock system and ships cross the different levels through these locks before entering the Gulf of Panama.
(iv) It shortens the distance between New York and San Francisco by 13000 km by sea. The distance between Western Europe and the West coast of USA, and north, eastern and central USA and East and South-east Asia is shortened.
(V) Its economic significance is relatively less than the Suez canal. It is vital to the economies of Latin America.

Answer 17.
(i) The Tata Iron and Steel plant lies very’ close to the Mumbai-Kolkata railway line.
(ii) 240 km away from Kolkata, nearest port for the export of steel.
(iii) The rivers Subamarekha and Kharkai provide water to the plant.
(iv) The iron-ore for the plant is obtained from Noamundi and Badam Pahar and coal is brought from Joda mines in Odisha.
(v) Cooking Coal comes from Jharia and West Bokaro coal fields.

Answer 18.
(a) Wind energy is absolutely pollution free and an inexhaustive source of energy. The mechanism of energy conversion from blowing wind is simple.
(b) (i) It is non-conventional energy sources. It will provide more sustained, eco-friendly, and cheaper energy.
(ii) The kinetic energy of wind through turbines is converted into electrical energy. Land and sea breeze can also be used.
(iii) The ministry of non conventional sources of energy is developing wind energy in India to lessen the burden of oil import bill.
(c) In Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharastra and Karnataka favourable conditions for wind energy exist.

Answer 19.
(i) India’s International trade has undergone a sea change in recent years in terms of volume, composition as well as direction.
(ii) India’s contribution in the world trade is as low as one percent of the total volume. It plays significant role in the world economy.
(iii) U.S. A is the biggest International trade partner that is an important destination for India’s export.
(vi) Most of India’s foreign trade is carried through sea and air routes.
(v) A small portion is also carried through land route to neighbouring countries like Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Pakistan.

Answer 20.
(a) Air pollution is taken as addition of contaminants like dust, fumes, gas, fog, odour, smoke to the air in substantial proportion and duration that may be harmful to flora and fauna and to property.
(b) With increasing use of varieties of fuels as source of energy, there is a marked increase in emission of toxic gases into the atmosphere resulting in the pollution of air.
(c) (i) Air pollution causes various diseases related to respiratory, nervous and circulatory systems.
(ii) Smoky fog over cities called as urban smog is caused by atmospheric pollution. It proves very harmful to human health.
(iii) Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen, hydrocarbons, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide; lead and asbestos have direct effect on human being in various ways and are cause of many deadly diseases.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 6 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 6, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 5

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 5

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 5 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Which parts of U.S.A and Europe have density more than 200 persons per sq. km?

Question 2.
Define the term ‘positive growth of population’.

Question 3.
Which is the leading steel producing region of Germany?

Question 4.
Which is the busiest sea route in the world?

Question 5.
Name the metropolitan city of Bihar.

Question 6.
Name any two ferrous minerals other than iron ore.

Question 7.
Which port has been developed to relieve pressure of Chennai?

Question 8.
Explain with examples the three economic factors influencing the population distribution in the world.

Question 9.
What is subsistence agriculture? Mention any four characteristics of primitive subsistence agriculture.

Question 10.
Explain any three features of Semi-clustered settlement.

Question 11.
Study the diagram given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Why is the utilisation of surface water limited in Industrial sector in India?
(ii) Which sector utilises the most of surface water and why?

Question 12.
Which human values are important to minimise the air pollution as human activities are main causes?

Question 13.
Degradation of cultivation land is one of the most serious problems that arises out of faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development in India. Explain.

Question 14.
Explain any two functions of WTO. Why has this organisation been criticised? Mention three reasons in this regard.

Question 15.
How are technological innovations an important aspect of modern manufacturing industries? Explain.

Question 16.
Describe the main characteristics of quaternary activities.

Question 17.
What are the Trans-continental Railways? Write four features of trans-Siberian Railways.

Question 18.
How are physical and economic factors responsible for uneven distribution of population in India?

Question 19.
Define the term ‘Migration’. Explain four factors that are responsible for migration of people in India.

Question 20.
Discuss any five geographical factors that affect localisation of an industry at a particular place in India.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) A mega city
(B) A country having highest growth rate of population
(C) An area of Mediterranean agriculture
(D) A seaport
(E) An International airport

Question 22.
Locate and label theTollowing five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) A state with lowest gender ratio.
(ii) An oil refinery situated in Uttar Pradesh.
(iii) A leading producer state of Maize.
(iv) A software technology park situated in Odisha.
(v) A major seaport of Tamil Nadu.

Answers

Answer 1.
(i) North-Eastern parts of U.S.A. and North-Western part of Europe.

Answer 2.
Positive growth of population happens when the birth rate is more than the death rate between two points of time or when people from other countries migrate permanently to a region.

Answer 3.
The Ruhr region.

Answer 4.
The Northern Atlantic Sea Route is the busiest sea route in the world.

Answer 5.
Patna

Answer 6.
(i) Manganese
(ii) Chromite

Answer 7.
Tuticorin port was developed to relieve pressure of Chennai port.

Answer 8.
(i) Minerals: Areas with minerals deposits attract industries. Mining and industrial activities generate employment skilled and semi-skilled workers move to these areas and make them densely populated.
(ii) Urbanisation: Cities offer better employment opportunities; educational and medical facilities, better means of transport and communication, good civic amenities, attraction of city life. It leads to rural to urban migration.
(iii) Industralisation: It provides job opportunities and attract large number of people. These include not just factory workers but transport operators, shopkeepers, bank employees, doctors, teachers and others providers.

Answer 9.
(a) Subsistence agriculture is one in which the farming areas consume all or nearly so, of the products locally grown.
(b) (i) It is widely practised by many tribes in the tropics, especially in Africa.
(ii) The vegetation is usually cleared by fire, and the ashes add to the fertility of the soil.
(iii) Cultivated patches area very small and done with very primitive tools.
(iv) The farmer may return to the earlier patch after some time.

Answer 10.
(i) These may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlements.
(ii) More often such a pattern may also result from segregation of a large compact of village. One more sections of the village society choose or is forced to live a little away from cluster.
(iii) The land owning and dominant community occupies the central part of the main village whereas the people of lower strata of society and menial workers settle on the outer flanks of the village.

Answer 11.
(i) The availability of surface water is not sufficient.
(ii) (a) Agriculture sector.
(b) Agriculture needs sufficient water for irrigation throughout the year.

Answer 12.
(i) Awakening .
(ii) To follow the principle of sustainable development
(iii) Cooperation and Eco-friendly

Answer 13.
(i) One of the serious problems that arises out of faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development is degradation of land resources.
(ii) It may lead to depletion of soil fertility, alarming fall in water table in irrigated areas. A large tract of agricultural land has lost its fertility due to alkalisation and salinisation of soils and waterlogging.
(iii) Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides has led to their concentration in toxic amounts in the soil profile.
(iv) Leguminous crops have been displaced form the cropping pattern in the irrigated areas and duration of fallow has substantially reduced owing to multiple cropping.

Answer 14.
(a) (i) WTO deals with the global rules of trade between nations. It sets the rules for the global trading system and resolves disputes between its member nations.
(ii) It covers trade in services such as tele-communication and banking and other issues such as intellectual rights.

(b) (i) It has been criticised and opposed that free trade does not make ordinary peoples lives prosperous.
(ii) It is actually widening the gulf between rich and poor, by making rich countries more rich.
(iii) The influential nations in the W.T.O focus on their own commercial interests. Developed countries have not fully opened their markets to products from developing countries.

Answer 15.
(i) Technological innovations through research and development strategy are an important aspect of modem manufacturing for quality control; eliminating waste and inefficiency and combating pollution.
(ii) The importance of responsible factors for the localisation of industries are decreased regularly.
(iii) The structure and forms of industries are changed due to the progress in developed economy.
(iv) Many changes occurred in the activities of modem industries. Advanced technique is being used in industries forgetting production.
(v) Scattered units of small scales are being noticed in large areas in place of industries.

Answer 16.
(i) Quaternary activities involve in the collection, production and dissemination of information or even the production of information.
(ii) These activities centre around research, development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialised knowledge and technical skills.
(iii) Over half of all workers in developed economies are in the knowledge sector and great demand for the consumption of information-based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants, statisticians.
(iv) Working in office buildings, elementary schools and university classroom, hospitals and doctors’ offices, theatres, accounting and brokerage belong to the same.
(v) Quaternary activities can also be outsourced.

Answer 17.
(a) Trans-continental railways run across the continent and link its two ends. They were constructed for economic and political reasons to facilitate long runs in different directions.
(b) (i) It is a major rail route of Russia that runs from St. Petersburg in the west to Valadivostak on the Pacific coast in the east passing through Moscow, Ulfa, Novosibirsk, Irkutsk, Chita and Khabarovsk.
(ii) Most important route in Asia and the longest double-tracked and electrified Trans Continental Railway in the world.
(iii) It has helped in opening up its Asian region to West European markets. It runs across the Ural Mountains and Yenisei rivers.
(iv) Chita is an important agro centre and Irkutsk, a fur centre.
(v) There are connecting links to the south, namely to Odessa, Baku on the Caspian coast, Tashkent, Ulan-Bator etc.

Answer 18.
(A) Physical factors:
(i) Physical along with terrain and availability of water.
(ii) Development of transport network.
(iii) Availability of mineral and energy resources.

(B) Economic factors that determine the pattern of the population distribution:
(i) Development of Irrigation and evolution of settled agriculture and agricultural development.
(ii) Industrialisation and urbanisation.
(iii) Pattern of human settlement.

Answer 19.
Migration is the movement of people from one place to another in search of better opportunities with an intention to settle.
(i) Employment: In the rural areas, mostly people depend on agriculture and they do not have employment throughout the year so they move from village to city.
(ii) Marriages: It influences mainly women as they migrate from one place to another due to their marriages. They leave their parental houses which is the most important cause in the rural areas except in Meghalaya.
(iii) Education: It is an important cause. People who want to get higher education move from rural areas to the cities.
(iv) Lack of Security: As a pull factor and push factor where people are in dilemma and worried due to the security of life and property during political turmoil people migrate towards a safe area.

Answer 20.
(i) Raw materials Industries using weight losing raw materials are located in the regions where raw materials are located. Most of the iron and steel industries are located either near sources of invention (Bhadravati, Bhilai, and Rourkela) or near the coal fields (Bokaro, Durgapur).
(ii) Power: Power provides the motive force for machines. Certain industries, like aluminum and synthetic nitrogen manufacturing industries tend to be located near sources of power because they are power intensive and require huge quantum of electricity.
(iii) Market: Markets provide the outlets for manufactured products. Cotton textile industry uses a non-weight losing raw material and generally located in large urban centre, Ahmedabad, Surat, etc. Petroleum refineries are also located near the markets to make easier, the transport of crude oil. Koyali, Mathura and Barauni refineries are typical examples.
(iv) Transport: Industries are concentrated in Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi, and in and around Kolkata. It was due to the fact that they initially became the nodal point having transport links. Industries shifted to interior locations only when railways lines were laid. All major industries plants are located on the trunk rail rates.
(v) Labour: In India, labour is quite mobile and is available in large number due to our large population. Cheap labour available from thickly populated parts of the country.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 5 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 5 drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Biology is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. There are total 26 questions and five sections in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A contains question number 1 to 5, Very Short Answer Type Questions of one mark each.
3. Section B contains question number 6 to 10, Short Answer Type Questions of two marks each.
4. Section C contains question number 11 to 22, Short Answer Type Questions of three marks each.
5. Section D contains question number 23, Value Based Question of four mark.
6. Section E contains question number 24 to 26, Long Answer Type Questions of five marks each.
7. There is no overall choice in the question paper, however, an internal choice is provided in one question of two marks, one question of three marks and all three questions of five marks. An examiner is to attempt any one of the question out of the two given in the question paper with the same question number.
8. No. of printed pages are three.

SECTION-A

Question 1.
What are cleistogamous flowers?

Question 2.
What is coleorrhiza?

Question 3.
What are alleles?

Question 4.
What are introns?

Question 5.
What is apiculture?

SECTION-B

Question 6.
Explain MOET.

Question 7.
Write a note on discovery of penicillin.

Question 8.
What does the diagram below signify?

Question 9.
What are the basic steps involved in genetically modifying an organism?

OR

What is humus?

Question 10.
Represent the age pyramids for human population.

SECTION-C

Question 11.
Explain the parts of an ovule with a diagram

Question 12.
How is RNA synthesized in bacteria? Illustrate

Question 13.
Discuss the barrier methods for contraception

Question 14.
Explain convergent evolution with examples.

Question 15.
What are the major causes of cancer?

Question 16.
Is it possible to obtain large quantities of DNA from a single cell?

Question 17.
What are the advantages of GM plants?

Question 18.
Explain T_i plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

Question 19.
Give the equations of both exponential and logistic growth curves. Also represent them graphically.

OR

Present a case study for remedy of plastic waste

Question 20.
Complete the diagram below:

Question 21.
Haploid content of human DNA is 3.3 x 10⁹ bp and the distance between two consecutive
bp is 0.34 x 10 ⁹. What is the length of the DNA molecule?

Question 22.
Label the diagram given below:

SECTION-D

Question 23.
Rita and her parents were watching a TV serial in the evening. During a commercial break
an advertisement flashed on the screen which was promoting use of sanitary napkins. Rita
was still watching the TV when the parents got embarrassed and changed the channel. Rita
objected to her parent’s behaviour and explained the need for these advertisements.
(a) What values did the parents show?
(b) Briefly describe the phases of a menstrual cycle.

SECTION-E

Question 24.
What are the post pollination events?

OR

Explain endosperm development.

Question 25.
What are chromosomal disorders?

OR

List the observations of Human Genome Project.

Question 26.
Explain some interspecific relationship where no species is harmed.

OR

Explain ecological succession.

Answers

SECTION-A

Answer 1.
Self pollinating flowers in which stamens and pistil are in close proximity.

Answer 2.
In embryos of monocots the root cap and radicle are enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath j called coleorhiza.

Answer 3.
Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits.

Answer 4.
Intervening sequences in DNA which are not expressed in mature or processed RNA.

Answer 5.
Apiculture is the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production of honey.

SECTION-B

Answer 6.
Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET) is a programme for herd improvement. In this method, a cow is administered hormones, with FSH-like activity, to induce follicular maturation and super ovulation – instead of one egg, which they normally yield per cycle, they produce 6-8 eggs. The animal is either mated with an elite bull or artificially inseminated. The fertilised eggs at 8-32 cells stages, are recovered non-surgically and transferred to surrogate mothers. The genetic mother is available for another round of super ovulation.

Answer 7.
Alexander Fleming while working on Staphylococci bacteria, once observed a mould growing in one of his unwashed culture plates around which Staphylococci could not grow. He found out that it was due to a chemical produced by the mould and he named it Penicillin after the mould Penicillium notatum.

Answer 8.
The first diagram is that of the normal cells which show controlled growth due to property of contact inhibition.
The second diagram shows loss of contact inhibition by cancer cells. This uncontrolled cell growth leads to tumor

Answer 9.
Three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism are:

• Identification of DNA with desirable genes;
• Introduction of the identified DNA into the host;
• Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.

OR

Humus is a dark coloured amorphous substance which is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate. Being colloidal in nature it serves as a reservoir of nutrients. The process of humus formation is called humification.

Answer 10.

SECTION-C

Answer 11.

The ovule is a small structure attached to the placenta by means of a stalk called funicle.The body of the ovule fuses with funicle in the region called hilum. Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes called integuments. Integuments encircle the ovule except at the tip where a small opening called the micropyle is organised. Opposite the micropylar end, is the chalaza, representing the basal part of the ovule. Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of cells called the nucellus. Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food materials. Located in the embryo sac or female gametophyte.

Answer 12.

In a bacteria, there are three major types of RNAs: mRNA (messenger RNA), tRNA (transfer RNA), and rRNA (ribosomal RNA). The mRNA provides the template, tRNA brings aminoacids and reads the genetic code, and rRNAs play structural and catalytic role during translation. There is single DNA-dependent RNA polymerase that catalyses transcription of all types of RNA in bacteria. RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription (Initiation). It uses nucleoside triphosphates as substrate and polymerises in a template depended fashion following the rule of complementarity. It also facilitates opening of the helix and continues elongation. Only a short stretch of RNA remains bound to the enzyme. Once the polymerases reaches the terminator region, the nascent RNA falls off, so also the RNA polymerase. This results in termination of transcription.

Answer 13.
In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting. Such methods are available for both males and females.
(1) Condoms are made of thin rubber/latex sheath that are used to cover the penis in the male or vagina and cervix in the female, just before coitus so that the ejaculated semen would not enter into the female reproductive tract. This can prevent conception.

(2) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are also barriers made of rubber that are inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus. They prevent conception by blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix. They are reusable.

(3) Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are usually used along with these barriers to increase their contraceptive efficiency.

(4) Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs): These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina. These Intra Uterine Devices are presently available as the non- medicated IUDs (e.g., Lippes loop), copper releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375) and the hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert, LNG-20). IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms. The hormone releasing IUDs, in addition, make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms.

Answer 14.
Convergent evolution is a evolution of different structures for the same function and hence having similarity. It is the similar habitat that has resulted in selection of similar adaptive features in different groups of organisms but toward the same function.
For example the eye of the octopus and of mammals, the flippers of Penguins and Dolphins, sweet potato (root modification) and potato (stem modification) similarities in proteins and genes performing a given function among diverse organisms give clues to common ancestory.

Answer 15.
The major causes of cancer are:

1. Transformation of normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells which may be induced by physical, chemical or biological agents called carcinogens.
2. Ionising radiations like X-rays and gamma rays and non-ionizing radiations like UV cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation.
3. The chemical carcinogens present in tobacco smoke have been identified as a major cause of lung cancer.
4. Cancer causing viruses called oncogenic viruses have genes called viral oncogenes. Cellular oncogenes (cone) or proto oncogenes have been identified in normal cells which,when activated under certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells.
   

Answer 16.
Yes, it is possible to make large quantities of DNA from a single cell by

PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction. In this reaction, multiple copies of the gene (or DNA) of interest is synthesised in vitro using two sets of primers (small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA) and the enzyme DNA polymerase. The enzyme extends the primers using the nucleotides provided in the reaction and the genomic DNA as template. If the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment of DNA can be amplified to approximately billion times, i.e., 1 billion copies are made. Such repeated amplification is achieved by the use of thermostable DNA polymerase (isolated form a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus), which remain active during the high temperature induced denaturation of double stranded DNA. The amplified fragment if desired can now be used to ligate with a vector for further cloning.

Answer 17.
Advantages of GM plants are:

• GM crops are more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat).
• These have reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops).
• These crops helped to reduce post harvest losses.
• GM crops have increased efficiency of mineral usage which prevents early exhaustion of fertility of soil.
• These crops have enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g., Vitamin ‘A’ enriched rice.
• These crops have also helped in creation of tailor-made plants to supply alternative resources to industries, in the form of starches, fuels and pharmaceuticals.

Answer 18.
Agrobacterium tumifaciens is a pathogen of several dicot plants which has an ability to deliver ‘T-DNA’ that further transforms normal plant cells into a tumor and direct these tumor cells to produce the chemicals required by the pathogen. The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens has now been modified into a cloning vector which is no more pathogenic to the plants but is still able to use the mechanisms to deliver genes of our interest into a variety of plants.

Answer 19.

Answer 20.

Answer 21.
Haploid content = 3.3 x 10⁹.
Therefore, diploid content = 6.6 x 10⁹
Distance between bp = 0.34 x 10 ⁹
Therefore length = diploid content x distance between bp
⇒ 6.6 x 10⁹ x 0.34 x 10~⁹ = 2.24 m

Answer 22.

SECTION-D

Answer 23.
(a) The parents were traditional but understood the need for such advertisements.
(b)

SECTION-E

Answer 24.

Following compatible pollination, the pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a pollen tube through one of the germ pores. The contents of the pollen grain move into the pollen tube. Pollen tube grows through the tissues of the stigma and style and reaches the ovary. In plants, where the pollen grains are shed at the two celled stage, the generative cell divides and forms the two male gametes during the growth of pollen tube in the stigma. In plants which shed pollen in the three-celled condition, pollen tubes carry the two male gametes from the beginning. Pollen tube after reaching the ovary, enters the ovule through the micropyle and then enters one of the synergids through the filiform apparatus. Filiform apparatus present at the micropylar part of the synergids guides the entry of pollen tube. All these events are together referred to as pollen-pistil interaction.

OR

Endosperm development precedes embryo development. The primary endosperm cell divides repeatedly and forms a triploid endosperm tissue. The cells of this tissue are filled with reverse food materials and are used for the nutrition of the developing embryo. In the most common type of endosperm development, the PEN undergoes successive nuclear divisions to give rise to free nuclei. This stage of endosperm development is called free-nuclear endosperm. Subsequently cell wall formation occurs and the endosperm becomes cellular. The number of free nuclei formed before cellularisation varies greatly

Answer 25.
The chromosomal disorders are caused due to absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of one or more chromosomes. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a chromosome), called aneuploidy.

Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division results in an increase in a whole set of chromosomes in an organism and is called polyploidy.

Sometimes, either an additional copy of a chromosome may be included in an individual or an individual may lack one of any one pair of chromosomes: These situations are known as trisomy or monosomy of a chromosome, respectively.

Common examples of chromosomal disorders are Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, Klinefelter’s syndrome.

Down’s Syndrome: Caused by trisomy of 21 chromosome number.

Klinefelter’s Syndrome: Caused due to the presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting into a karyotype of 447, XXY.

Turner’s Syndrome: Caused due to the absence of one of the X chromosome, i.e. 45 with XO.

OR

The salient observations drawn from human genome project are:

1. The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.
2. The average gene consists of 3000 bases, but sizes vary greatly, with the largest known human gene being dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
3. The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000-much lower than previous estimates of 80,000 to 1,40,000 genes. Almost all (99.9 per cent) nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people.
4. The functions are unknown for over 50 per cent of the discovered genes.
5. Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for proteins.
6. Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.
7. Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA sequences that are repeated many times, sometimes hundred to thousand times. They are thought to have no direct coding functions, but they shed light on chromosome structure, dynamics and evolution.
8. Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968), and the Y has the fewest (231).
9. Scientists have identified about 1.4 million location where single base DNA differences (SNPs- single nucleotide polymorphism, pronounced as ‘snips’) occur in humans. This information promises to revolutionise the processes of finding chromosomal locations for disease-associated sequences and tracing human history.

Answer 26.
Some interspecific relationship where no species is harmed are:
(1) Commonalism: This is the interaction in which one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor benefited. For example: an orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch, barnacles growing on the back of a whale, the cattle egret and grazing cattle, and Sea anemones stinging tentacles protect the clown fish from predators that lives among them.

(2) Mutualism: This interaction confers benefits on both interacting species. For example, Lichens represent an intimate mutualjstic relationship between a fungus and photosynthesising algae or cyanobacteria.

(3) Plant-Animal Relationships: Plants need the help of animals for pollinating their flowers and dispersing their seeds; in return plants offer rewards or fees in the form of pollen and nectar for pollinators and juicy and nutritious fruits for seed dispersers.

The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called Ecological succession. During succession some species colonise an area and their populations become more numerous, whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called sere(s). The individual transitional communities are termed serai stages or serai communities. In the successive serai stages there is a change in the diversity of species of organism, increase in the number of species and organisms as well as an increase in the total biomass. Succession is a process that starts where no living organisms are there-these could be areas where no living organisms ever existed, i.e., bare rock; or in areas that somehow, lost all the living organisms that existed there. The former is called primary succession, while the latter is termed secondary succession.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.