Category: CBSE Class 8

Here we are providing The Great Stone Face 1 Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 English Honeydew, Extra Questions for Class 8 English was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-english/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 English honeydew Chapter 9 The Great Stone Face I to revise the Questions and Answers in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

The Great Stone Face 1 Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 English Honeydew

The Great Stone Face 1 Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

The Great Stone Face 1 Extra Questions Answers Question 1.
What is “The Great Stone face”?
Answer:
The Great Stone Face is a work of nature, formed on the perpendicular side of a mountain by some immense rock, which had been thrown together so that when viewed at a proper distance, he resembles the face of human.

The Great Stone Face Extra Questions Question 2.
What were the mother and her little boy doing at the door of their cottage?
Answer:
The mother and her little boy, were sitting at the door of their cottage, gazing at the Great Stone Face and talking about it.

Great Stone Face 1 Extra Questions Question 3.
What was the old prophecy that Ernest’s mother told him about the Great Face?
Answer:
Ernest’s mother told him a story that, when she herself was younger, at some future day a child should be born here. That was destined to become the greatest & the noblest person of his time and whose face would be remember red with the great stone face.

Extra Questions Of The Great Stone Face 1 Question 4.
Write a short story of Ernest’s childhood to adult.
Answer:
Ernest spent his childhood in the log cottage where he was born. He was dutiful to his mother & helpful to her in many ways. She assisted her with little hand and with loving heart.

The Great Stone Face 1 Class 8 Extra Questions Question 5.
Why Ernest spent hours gazing at Great Stone Face?
Answer:
Ernest had no teacher, but the Great Stone Face became one of them. When his work was over he would gaze at him until he began to imagine that those vast features recognized him, & gave him a smile of kindness and encouragement.

The Great Stone Face 1 Extra Questions Question 6.
What were the rumour through out the valley about bearing a resemblance to the Great # Stone Face?
Answer:
In the valley, there were rumour that a young man had left the valley & settled, being sharp in business matters had become very rich and would decide to go back there and end his days where he had been born.

The Great Stone Face 1 Question Answer Question 7.
How did Mr. Gathergold arrive at the valley?
Answer:
A carriage, drawn by four horses, dashed round the turn of the road. Within it, the window appeared the face of an old man with yellow skin Mr. Gathergold.

Great Stone Face Extra Questions Question 8.
Did Ernest think that the old prophecy comes true when Mr. Gathergold arrives at valley? How do you know that?
Answer:
No, Ernest did not thought that, as he turned away sadly from the wrinkled shrewdness of that unpleasant face.

The Great Stone Face 1 Summary Questions And Answers Question 9.
How did the Great Stone Face seem to Ernest when he saw him sally after the arrival of Mr. Gather gold?
Answer:
The great stone face seemed to say that “He will come! Fear not, Ernest; the man will come!.

The Great Stone Face 2 Extra Questions Question 10.
Write the character sketch of Ernest.
Answer:
Ernest was industrious, kind & neighbourly. He helped his mother in works. He liked to gaze at the Great Stone Face. Great stone face was like a teacher for him. He had sentiments with the stone face.

The Great Stone Face 1 Extra Question Answer Question 11.
Who was the another child of valley which was thought that he would resemble with the great stone face?
Answer:
The another son of valley was a soldier. After a hard fighting, he was known as a commander. He was known as the name of Blood and thunder and desired to come at his native valley and might resemble the Great stone face.

Question 12.
Did the soldier actually resemble the Great Stone Face?
Answer:
According to the people of valley, soldier resembles with the Great Stone Face. But when Ernest saw soldiers and Great stone face together he could not recognise it.

Question 13.
How did the people of valley welcome soldier?
Answer:
On the day of general’s arrival, Ernest and all the other people of the valley left their work and proceeded to the spot where a great banquet had been prepared. Soldiers stood on guard flags and waved and the crowd roared.

Question 14.
(i) What was the Great Stone Face?
(ii) What did young Ernest wish he gazed at it?
Answer:
(i) The Great Stone Face was a work of Nature. It was formed on the side of the mountain by a huge rock. It looked like a human face.
(ii) Young Ernest wished that the stone could speak because Stone Face looked so kind that he thought its voice must be pleasant.

Question 15.
What was the story attributed to the stone face?
Answer:
The story that was attributed to the stone face was that at some future day, a child would be born near there, and he would be destined to become the greatest and noblest person of his time. His face, in manhood, would bear an exact resemblance to the Great Stone Face.

Question 16.
What gave the people of the valley the idea that the prophecy was about to come true for the first time?
Answer:
A youngman named Gathergold had left the valley many years ago. By the time he grew old, he had grown rich. When he returned to his native valley, a rumour spread that he resembled the stone face. People thought that the prophecy had come true.

Question 17.
(i) Did Ernest see in Gathergold the likeness of the Stone Face?
(ii) Who did he confide in and how was he proved right?
Answer:
(i) No, Ernest did not see the likeness of the Great Stone Face in Gathergold.

(ii) Ernest confided in his own heart that the Gathergold was not the right man he was waiting for. He was proved right because Gathergold died after some time. He was then a poor man. All the people then said that he had no likeness with the stone face. Ernest believed that the noblest man of his time would come sooner or later.

The Great Stone Face 1 Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Imagine you are Ernest. Narrate the story that his mother told him.
Begin like this: My mother and I were sitting at the door of our cottage. We were looking at the Great Stone Face. I asked her if she had even seen any one who looked like the Stone Face. Then she told me this story.
Answer:
On an afternoon, my mother and I were sitting at the door of our cottage. Our eyes were looking at the Great Stone Face. Suddenly I asked a question after my mom did. She saw anybody that resembles the face of Great Stone. After hearing this, mom started story related to prophecy of that Great Stone Face. She said that there is a belief that one day a child bearing exact resemblance to the great Stone Face, in manhood, would take birth nearby and would be destined to be the noblest and the greatest person of his time. Some people believe in the old prophecy and others take it as an idle tale.

Question 2.
Imagine you are Gathergold. Write briefly the incident of your return to the valley.
Answer:
Begin like this:
My name is Gathergold. I left the valley in a horse drawn carriage. The people mistook me for the Great stone face. They welcomed me and shouted “Sure enough, the old prophecy is true and the great-man has arrived at last”.

Question 3.
(i) What made people believe General Blood-and-Thunder was their man?
(ii) Ernest compared the man’s face with the stone face. What did he conclude?
Answer:
(i) General Blood-and-thunder rose to his present position in defence from a soldier. He desired to return to his native valley. The residents of the valley said that he bore the likeness of the great stone face. His childhood friends also said that the General had always looked life the Great Stone Face. It made people believe “General Blood-and-Thunder was their man.

(ii) Ernest compared the face of Blood-and -Thunder with the Great Stone Face. He could not recognize any similarity between them. His heart assured him that the General was not the right person he was waiting for. So Ernest concluded that the greatest and the noblest man of his time bearing the resemblance to the Great stone face had yet to come.

The Great Stone Face 1 Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Passage 1

The Great Stone Face was a work of nature, formed on the perpendicular side of a mountain by some immense rocks, which had been thrown together so that, when viewed at a proper distance, they resembled the features of a human face. If the spectator approached too near, he lost the outline of the enormous face and could see only a heap of gigantic rocks, piled one upon another. But seen from a distance, the clouds clustering about it, the Great Stone Face seemed positively to be alive.

It was the belief of many people that the valley owed much of its fertility to the benign face that was continually beaming over it. A mother and her little boy, as we said earlier, sat at the door of their cottage, gazing at the Great Stone Face and talking about it. The child’s name was Ernest. “Mother,” said he, while the Great Face smiled on him, “I wish that it could speak, for it looks so very kindly that its voice must indeed be pleasant. If I ever see a man with such a face, I should love him very much.”

Question 1.
What was ‘the Great Stone Face’?
Answer:
The Great Stone face was a work of nature formed on the perpendicular side of a mountain by some immense rocks.

Question 2.
Why is it named so?
Answer:
It was named so because when viewed at a proper distance, they resembled the features of a human face.

Question 3.
What was the belief of many people there?
Answer:
It was the belief of so many people that the valley owned much of its fertility to the benign face that was continually beaming over it.

Question 4.
What was the wish of the child?
Answer:
The child wished that the Great Stone face could speak. It looks so kindly that its voice must be pleasant.

Passage 2

His mother was an affectionate and thoughtful woman. It was proper, she thought, not to discourage the fanciful hopes of her little boy. So she said to him, “Perhaps you may.” And Ernest never forgot the story that his mother told him. It was always in his mind whenever he looked upon the Great Stone Face. He spent his childhood in the log-cottage where he was born, was dutiful to his mother and helpful to her in many things, assisting her much with his little hands, and more with his loving heart.

In this manner, from a happy yet often pensive child he grew up to be a mild and quiet youth. Ernest had had no teacher, but the Great Stone Face became one to him. When the work of the day was over, he would gaze at it for hours, until he began to imagine that those vast features recognised him, and gave him a smile of kindness and encouragement.

Question 1.
Why did the mother say “Perhaps you may”?
Answer:
The mother said that to boost the enthusiasm and to give fanciful hopes of her son.

Question 2.
How was Ernest as a boy?
Answer:
Ernest spent his childhood in the log – cottage where he was born. He was dutiful to his mother and assisted her.

Question 3.
How did ‘the Great Stone Face’ become his teacher?
Answer:
Ernest had no teacher, whenever he was free, he gazed at it. He began to imagine that those vast features recognized him.

Question 4.
What was the rumour about a man?
Answer:
There was a rumour that a great man had appeared who bore the resemblance to the Great Stone Face.

Question 5.
Give the meaning of ‘Pensive’?
Answer:
Thoughtful.

Passage 3

It so happened that another son of the valley had become a soldier many years before. After a great deal of hard fighting, he was now a famous commander. He was known on the battlefield by the name of Blood-and Thunder. Old and tired now, he had lately expressed a desire to return to his native valley. The inhabitants, his old neighbours and their grown up children, prepared to welcome the renowned commander. It was being said that at last the likeness of the Great Stone Face had actually appeared.

Great, therefore, was the excitement throughout the valley, and many people who had never once thought of glancing at the Great Stone Face now spent much time in gazing at it, for the sake of knowing exactly how General Blood-and-Thunder looked. On the day of the general’s arrival, Ernest and all the other people of the valley left their work, and proceeded to the spot where a great banquet had been prepared. Soldiers stood on guard, flags waved and the crowd roared. Ernest was standing too far back to see Blood-and-Thunder’s face. However, he could hear several voices.

Question 1.
Who was the ‘another son of the valley’?
Answer:
Another son of the valley was a famous commander.

Question 2.
Why was he called ‘another son’?
Answer:
The inhabitants observed that he had a similar face to that of the Great Stone Face.

Question 3.
Why did people assemble?
Answer:
The villages assembled on the spot where a great banquet had been prepared for general.

Question 4.
What was Ernest’s motive to see?
Answer:
Ernest proceeded to the spot to see the General’s face.

Question 5.
How was ‘the face had a symbolic importance’?
Answer:
The face was important as it was a popular belief that a man of similar face would bring a drastic change in the lives of the villagers.

Here we are providing The Tsunami Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 English Honeydew, Extra Questions for Class 8 English was designed by subject expert teachers.

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 English honeydew Chapter 2 The Tsunami to revise the Questions and Answers in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

The Tsunami Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 English Honeydew

The Tsunami Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

The Tsunami Class 8 Extra Question Answer Question 1.
What is Tsunami? What happened on 26 Dec, 2004?
Answer:
Tsunami is a very large and powerful wave caused by earthquakes under the sea. On 26 December 2004, a tsunami hit Thailand & parts of India such as Andaman & Nicobar Islands, and the Tamil ‘ Nadu Coast.

Tsunami Extra Questions Question 2.
Who first felt an earthquake at Andaman & Nicobar?
Answer:
Ignesious was the manager of a cooperative society in Katchall. His wife felt an earthquake at 6 a.m. in the morning. Ignesious carefully took his television set off its table and put it down on the ground so that it would not fall and break.

Tsunami Class 8 Extra Questions Question 3.
What happened with Meghna?
Answer:
Meghna was a 13-years old girl who swept away along with her parents and 77 other people. She spent two days floating in the sea, holding on to a wooden door 11 times. She saw relief helicopter overhead,. but they didn’t see her. At last, she was found walking on the seashore in a daze.

The Tsunami Extra Questions Question 4.
Who was Almas?
Answer:
Almas was a little girl who spent her days on wood floating and then she fainted. When she woke up, she was in a hospital in Kamorta from where she was brought to Port Blair. She didn’t talk with anyone about incident because she was still traumatised.

Ncert Class 8 English The Tsunami Extra Questions Question 5.
Who was Tilly Smith? Where she got awards?
Answer:
Tilly Smith was a British school girl. She was 10 years old and was able to save many lives when the tsunami struck Phuket beach in Thailand. That’s why she was awarded a number of awards.

The Tsunami Class 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 6.
What was the Smith family doing at Phuket beach in Thailand?
Answer:
The Smith family from South East England was celebrating Christmas at a beach resort in Southern Thailand.

Extra Questions Of The Tsunami Question 7.
How did Tilly Smith know that it was Tsunami?
Answer:
Tilly Smith sensed that something was wrong. Her mind kept going back to a geography lesson she had taken in England. She remembered that she had learnt this in class in a video of a tsunami that had hit the Hawaii; an Island in 1946. She knew that tsunami can be caused by earthquakes, volcanoes and landslide.

Tsunami Questions And Answers Question 8.
What did Tilly do to save the life of people at beach?
Answer:
Tilly screamed that it is Tsunami. Even though her mother did not know what it is still they went away from the beach. Tourists of the beach also went to the 3rd floor of the hotel and this is how they saved their life.

Question 9.
What behaviour of animal shows that they already get to know about disaster?
Answer:
Elephants screamed and ran for higher ground; dogs refused to go outdoors; flamingoes abandoned their low-flying breeding areas; and zoo animals rushed into their shelter. These behaviours tell us about their secret power.

Question 10.
What happens at Cuddaldre coast?
Answer:
At Cuddalore coast, thousands of people perished, but buffaloes, goats and dogs were found unharmed.

Question 11.
Why did dogs refuse to go outside at Galle?
Answer:
A Sri Lankan gentleman who lives on the coast near Galle said that his dogs refuse to go on the beach where they are usually excited to go on the outside. This is because dogs got some kind of alert from their super power that disaster is going to come. Thus, it saved the life of man also.

Question 12.
Why did Tilly’s family come to Thailand?
Answer:
Tilly’s family had come to Thailand to celebrate Christmas.

Question 13.
What were the warning sign that both Tilly and her mother saw?
Answer:
Both saw the sea rise and it started to form whirlpools.

Question 14.
Do you think Tilly’s mother was alarmed by them?
Answer:
Tilly’s mother could not understand what was happening and only realised that it was serious when Tilly got frightened and mentioned what a Tsunami was.

Question 15.
Where had Tilly seen the sea behaving in the same strange fashion?
Answer:
Tilly had seen the sea behaving in the same strange fashion in a video of tsunami which was shown in her class by her geography teacher.

Question 16.
Where did the Smith family and the others on the beach go to escape from the tsunami?
Answer:
The Smith family and the others on the beach took refuge on the third floor of a hotel.

Question 17.
How do you think her geography teacher felt when he heard about what Tilly had done in Phuket?
Answer:
Tilly’s geography teacher must have felt proud of her as she had made use of what she had learnt in class to help save so many lives.

Question 18.
In the tsunami 150,000 people died. How many animals died?
Answer:
Although no data is given in the story but it says the number of dead animals was far less compared to human casualties.

Question 19.
How many people and animals died in Yala National Park?
Answer:
Sixty visitors and two animals.

Question 20.
What do people say about the elephants of Yala National Park?
Answer:
The people at the Yala National Park had seen three elephants running away from the Patanangala beach about an hour before the tsunami hit.

Question 21.
What did the dogs in Galle do?
Answer:
The dogs at Galle refused to go out for their daily run on the beach.

The Tsunami Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Children should be imparted with valuable information. Discuss.
Answer:
Children are vigilant and observant by nature and can take prompt action when the time comes. Tilly Smith sensed the danger and spread awareness around. She successfully saved many lives because she had learnt about the causes and impacts of tsunami. She screamed in anticipation and became the hero just because she was prepared in advance. So is the important phase in one’s life. Where once learnt a thing can help them to develop instincts in favour or against them.

Question 2.
‘Understanding nature and its inhabitants’ can reduce causality in disasters. Comment.
Answer:
At the advent of any impending danger, nature sends prior signals. Big animals and even small creatures catch those signals and run for their lives to a safer place. In the lesson, the causalities were more of human than animals. Their sensibility works emphatically. Whereas human beings have aspirations and are engrossed in struggle of running their own lives. Animals live in peace and agreement with nature. However, human beings are exploiting nature.

Question 3.
How are Meghna and Almas’s stories similar?
Answer:
Meghna and Almas – both were lucky. Meghna was carried away with her parents and other people. But she alone survived. She was washed ashore by a wave. Almas climbed onto a log of wood. When she opened her eyes, she found herself in a hospital in Kamorta.

Question 4.
What are the different ways in which Tilly’s parents could have reacted to her behaviour? What would you have done if you were in their place?
Answer:
Not taking her seriously, Tilly’s parents could have tried to calm her down thinking that she had been frightened by something. As a result, they could have been washed away by the tsunami waves. If I were in their place. I too would have listened to her and realised that there was a danger approaching. Consequently, I too would have rushed away from the beach.

Question 5.
If Tilly’s award was to be shared, who do you think she should share it with – her parents or her geography teacher?
Answer:
If Tilly’s award was to be shared, she should share it with her geography teacher who made her aware of tsunami in the first place. It was this awareness that helped her save so many lives.

Question 6.
What are the two different ideas about why so few animals were killed in the tsunami? Which idea do you find more believable?
Answer:
Very few animals were killed in the tsunami. Perhaps they feel the tremor much before humans do. Secondly, the animals have sixth sense. They can guess the coming disaster and so-run away to safer place / higher ground. The idea that the animals are gifted with the sixth sense is more believable. They move fast to get over the crisis.

The Tsunami Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Passage 1

Thirteen year-old Meghna was swept away along with her parents and seventy-seven other people. She spent two days floating in the sea, holding on to a wooden door. Eleven times she saw relief helicopters overhead, but they did not see her. She was brought to the shore by a wave, and was found walking on the seashore in a daze.

Question 1.
How was Meghna swept away?
Answer:
Meghna was swept away by high sea waves due to Tsunami.

Question 2.
How did she manage to save herself?
Answer:
Meghna hold on to a wooden door floating in the sea for two days. Relief helicopters even ignored her. It pushed her towards the shore. Thus she was saved.

Question 3.
How many times did the helicopter miss her?
Answer:
The relief helicopter hovered over the sea about eleven times. Every time it missed her because it couldn’t trace her.

Question 4.
What was unusual about her survival?
Answer:
She was swept away by higher waves. She survived two days floating in the sea by holding onto a wooden door. Rescue helicopters couldn’t save her. It was her destiny that pushed her towards the shore. She was found walking on the seashore in a daze.

Question 5.
Give the meaning of overhead as (adverb) and (noun).
Answer:
(a) Overhead (adverb) – above the level of the head.
(b) Overhead (noun) – an overhead cost or expense

Passage 2

Almas’s mother and aunts stood clinging to the leaves of a coconut tree, calling out to her. A wave uprooted the tree, and they too were washed away. Almas saw a log of wood floating. She climbed on to it. Then she fainted. When she woke up, she was in a hospital in Kamorta. From there she was brought to Port Blair.

Question 1.
What did Almas’s mother and aunts do to save themselves?
Answer:
Almas’s mother and aunt stood clinging to a coconut tree. However, a rave uprooted the tree and were washed away.

Question 2.
Were they able to save themselves?
Answer:
Almas’s mother and aunts tried to hold fast a coconut tree, which was uprooted leaving them in water.

Question 3.
How did Almas reach Kamorta?
Answer:
Almas was making efforts to save herself. Then she climbed a log of wood and was fainted. She was taken to hospital in Kamorta through some unknown source.

Question 4.
What stopped her from discussing the incident?
Answer:
Almas was traumatised by the incident. She had faced tough times in Tsunami. So she was traumatized that stopped her from talking about the incident.

Question 5.
Change verb into noun of the following word ‘traumatize’.
Answer:
Trauma.

Passage 3

Tilly saw the sea slowly rise, and start to foam, bubble and form whirlpools. She remembered that she had seen this in class in a video of a tsunami that had hit the Hawaiian islands in 1946. Her geography teacher had shown her class the video, and told them that tsunamis can be caused by earthquakes, volcanoes and landslides. Tilly started to scream at her family to get off the beach. “She talked about an earthquake under the sea. She got more and more hysterical,” said her mother Penny. “I didn’t know what a tsunami was. But seeing my daughter so frightened, I thought something serious must be going on.”

Question1.
What was unusual that Tilly observed?
Answer:
Tilly observed that the waves in the sea slowly rise and whirlpools were formed.

Question 2.
What was the video about?
Answer:
The video was about a tsunami that had hit the Hawaiian Island in 1946.

Question 3.
What were the reasons behind occurrence of a Tsunami?
Answer:
Tsunamis can be caused by earthquakes, volcanoes and landslides.

Question 4.
Why did Tilly start screaming?
Answer:
Tilly was aware of the impending disaster in the form of Tsunami as she had already observed a video in her class room.

Question 5.
Give the meaning of‘hysterical’.
Answer:
Hysterical – crying or shouting loudly losing control over oneself.

 

 

Here we are providing Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Public Facilities was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Public Facilities Class 8 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 9

(1) ……………………… gives shave to the men. (Barber/Cobbler).
Answer:
Barbar

(2) In certain parts of the city ……………………… are not allowed.(hawkers/vendors).
Answer:
hawkers

(3) ……………………… sell things that are often prepared at home. (Hawkers/Vendors)
Answer:
Vendors

(4) The trend in the present day is for ……………………… .(ready-made garments/getting them stitched)
Answer:
ready-made garments

(5) ……………………… and ……………………… are towns near Delhi. (Ludhiana/Tripura/Noida/Gurgaon).
Answer:
Noida, Gurgoan.

Public Facilities Class 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
They say that ‘city never sleeps’. Explain.
Answer:
It means that business is going, on in the city for twenty- four hours and on all the days in a week. Some part of the city is always buzzing with activity.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
When does the work begin in a city?
Answer:
The work begins early in the morning in a big city and continues till late in the night.

Public Facilities Class 8 Extra Questions Question 3.
What does a vegetable vendor sell?
Answer:
The vegetable vendor sells vegetables like tomatoes, cucumbers, potatoes and other vegetables.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions Question 4.
Name different types of things sold by the vendors.
Answer:
Vendors sell things like vegetables, flowers, newspapers, etc.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Question Answer Question 5.
What is a ‘rented room’?
Answer:
It is a room for which payment is made, every month. It is on hire. Many people may share a rented room.

Class 8 Civics Chapter Public Facilities Extra Questions Question 6.
What percentage of people work on the street in the city of Ahmedabad? What work do they do?
Answer:
About 12 per cent of the workers work on the street, in the city of Ahmedabad. They mainly sell things or. repair them or provide a service.

Chapter 9 Civics Class 8 Extra Questions Question 7.
Who are vendors?
Answer:
Vendors sell things that are often prepared at home by their families They purchase, clean sort and make them ready to sell. e.g., those who sell food or snacks on the street prepare most of these at home.

Extra Questions Of Public Facilities Class 8 Question 8.
What is the difference between a hawker and a vendor?
Answer:
Hawker is a person who offers goods for sale in the market, e.g., newspaper hawker. Vendor is a person who sells things that are often prepared at home by their families, who purchase, clean, sort and make them ready to sell, e.g., those who sell food or snacks on the street, prepare most of them at home.

Class 8 Civics Ch 9 Extra Questions Question 9.
Name different categories of people who do work on daily wages.
Answer:
The people who work on daily wages are –

• People in the labour chowk are daily wage earners who wait with their tools for people to come and take them to work.
• People who work in factories and small workshops are daily wage earners. They are employed on casual basis, i.e., they are required to come when there they are needed.

Public Facilities Extra Questions Question 10.
What is a Call Centre? Write about the work done in the Call Centre. Why are they set up in India?
Answer:
A Call Centre is a centralised office that deals with problems and. questions that consumers/customers have regarding goods purchased and services like banking, ticket booking etc. It is a new form of employment in big cities. Call centres are generally set up as large rooms with workstations that include a computer, a telephone set, and supervisors stations.

India has become a major centre not only for Indian companies but also for foreign companies. Call Centres are set up in India because they can get people who can speak English and will work for lower wages.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Why was the vegetable vendor busy in arranging vegetables in baskets at his/her stall?
(а) So that it looked beautiful
(b) So that people could see what he/she had to sell
(c) So that more and more vegetables can be put
(d) So that he/she could carry it for a long way.
Answer:
(b) So that people could see what he/she had to sell.

2. Why is it said that “city never sleeps”?
(а) Business goes on in the city at night
(b) Business in the city goes on during the day
(c) Business goes on for twenty-four hours in the city
(d) People in the city suffers from sleeplessness.
Answer:
(c) Business goes on for twenty-four hours in the city.

3. What percentage of people work on the street in the city of Ahmedabad?
(a) 6%
(b) 12%
(c) 25%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(b) 12%.

4. Which one of the following refers to “the right of people to earn their livelihood”?
(а) According to the Constitution of India, people have the freedom to expression
(b) According to the Constitution of India, people have the freedom to follow any profession and earn their living
(c) People have the right to earn high income
(d) People have the right to live.
Answer:
(b) According to the Constitution of India, people have the freedom to follow any profession and earn their living.

5. Which one of the following refers to hawking zones?
(а) The areas in the city where hawkers are not allowed to sell their wares
(b) The areas in the city where hawkers are allowed to sell then-wares
(c) The areas of heavy traffic
(d) The eneas of less traiffic.
Answer:
(b) The areas in the city where hawkers are allowed to sell then- wares.

6. Which one of the following refers to casual workers?
(а) They are required to come as and when the employer needs them
(b) Those who works in the organised sector
(c) Those who works in the coal mines
(d) Those who works in the public sector
Answer:
(а) They are required to come as and when the employer needs them

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Mineral and Power Resources Class 8 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 3

Question 1.
Mention the physical properties of minerals.
Answer:
Colour, density and hardness.

Question 2.
Write any one chemical property of minerals.
Answer:
Solubility.

Question 3.
Classify the minerals on the basis of composition.
Answer:
Metallic and non-metallic.

Question 4.
Into which two types can metallic minerals be divided.
Answer:

1. Ferrous
2. Non-ferrous.

Question 5.
How are minerals extracted?
Answer:
Minerals are extracted by mining, drilling or quarrying.

Question 6.
Which continent produces more than half of the world’s tin?
Answer:
Asia.

Question 7.
Which countries are the leading producers of tin in the world?
Answer:
China, Malaysia and Indonesia.

Question 8.
Which country is the largest producer of high-grade iron-ore?
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 9.
Which countries of South America are the leading producers of copper 7
Answer:
Chile and Peru.

Question 10.
Which countries of South America are the world’s largest producers of tin?
Answer:
Brazil and Bolivia.

Question 11.
Which two areas of Australia are rich in gold deposits?
Answer:
Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie.

Question 12.
Which country is the largest producer and exporter of mica in the world?
Answer:
India.

Question 13.
In which part of India deposits of gold are found?
Answer:
Kolar in Karnataka.

Question 14.
Which minerals are obtained from quartz and bauxite?
Answer:
Mineral obtained from quartz is silicon and aluminium from bauxite.

Question 15.
Into which two categories can power resources be classified?
Answer:
Conventional and non-conventional resources.

Question 16.
Name two main conventional energy sources.
Answer:
Firewood and fossil fuels.

Question 17.
Give two examples of fossil fuels.
Answer:
Coal, petroleum.

Question 18.
How is wind energy generated?
Answer:
The high-speed winds rotate the windmill which is connected to a generator to produce electricity.

Question 19.
Name the greatest producers of nuclear power in the world.
Answer:
USA and Europe.

Question 20.
Where do geothermal plants are located in India?
Answer:

• Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh
• Puga Valley in Ladakh.

Question 21.
Which type of resources are coal and petroleum?
Answer:
Non-renewable.

Question 22.
What are minerals? How do they form?
Answer:
A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral. They are formed in different types of geological environments under varying conditions.

Question 23.
Write two characteristics of metals.
Answer:

1. Metals are hard substances that conduct heat and electricity.
2. They have a characteristic lustre or shine. For example, iron, aluminium, copper, etc.

Question 24.
Distinguish between open-cast mining and shaft mining.
Answer:
Open-cast mining – When minerals lie at shallow depths, they are taken out by removing the surface layer. This is called open-cast mining.
Shaft mining – When minerals lie at the great depth deep bores are made to extract. This is called shaft mining.

Question 25.
Certain minerals are found in igneous and metamorphic rocks. Give three such examples.
Answer:

• Iron-ore in north Sweden.
• Copper and nickel in Ontario, Canada.
• Iron, nickel, chromites and platinum in South Africa.

Question 26.
Name the minerals found in sedimentary rocks along with their location.
Answer:

• Limestone in Caucasus region of France.
• Manganese deposits of Georgia and Ukraine.
• Phosphate beds of Algeria.

Question 27.
Name the minerals found in Europe.
Answer:

• Iron ore is found in Russia, Ukraine, Sweden and France.
• Copper, lead, zinc, manganese and nickel are found in eastern Europe and European Russia.

Question 28.
Mention the three zones of North America where mineral deposits are located.
Answer:

1. The Canadian region north of the Great Lakes.
2. The Appalachian region.
3. The mountain ranges of the West.

Question 29.
Name the four countries of South America where mineral oil is found.
Answer:

1. Venezuela,
2. Argentina,
3. Chile,
4. Peru,
5. Columbia.

Question 30.
Write the minerals which have been predicted to be found in Antarctica.
Answer:

• Deposits of coal in the Trans-Antarctic Mountains.
• Iron near the Prince Charles Mountains of East Antarctica.
• Iron-ore, gold, silver and oil are also present.

Question 31.
Where is iron found in India?
Answer:
Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka.

Question 32.
In which states of India is bauxite found?
Answer:
Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

Question 33.
Write two advantages and disadvantages of petroleum.
Answer:
Advantages of petroleum –

1. It is easier to transport.
2. It is the basis of petrochemical industry.

Disadvantages of petroleum –

1. Oxygen gets depleted due to oil spillage and gas leakage.
2. Pollutants released while burning, cause acid rain.

Question 34.
Write two advantages and disadvantages of firewood.
Answer:
Advantages of firewood –

1. It is easily accessible.
2. It provides energy to a large number of people.

Disadvantages of firewood –

1. Collection of firewood is time-consuming.
2. It causes air pollution.

Question 35.
Write two merits and demerits of coal.
Answer:
Advantages of coal –

1. It is extensively available.
2. It can efficiently be converted into electricity.

Disadvantages of coal –

1. It pollutes the environment.
2. It is bulky to transport.

Question 36.
How are fossil fuels formed?
Answer:
Remains of plants and animals which are buried under the earth for millions of years get converted by the heat and pressure into the fossil fuels.

Question 37.
Write four uses of coal.
Answer:

1. It is used as a domestic fuel.
2. It is used in industries such as iron and steel industry, brick industry etc.
3. Coal is used to run steam engines.
4. It is used to generate electricity.

Question 38.
Why is coal referred to as Buried Sunshine?
Answer:
The coal was formed millions of years ago when giant ferns and swamps got buried under the layer of the earth. Therefore, coal is referred to as Buried Sunshine.

Question 39.
Name four coal producing countries of the world.
Answer:

1. China,
2. USA,
3. Germany,
4. Russia,
5. South Africa,
6. France.

Question 49.
Name the major coal-producing areas of India.
Answer:
Raniganj, Jharia, Dhanbad and Bokaro.

Question 41.
Name the products produced from crude oil.
Answer:
Diesel, petrol, kerosene, wax, plastics and lubricants.

Question 42.
Name the chief petroleum-producing countries.
Answer:
Iran, Iraq, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, USA, Russia, Venezuela and Algeria.

Question 43.
Name the leading oil producer states of India.
Answer:

• Digboi in Assam.
• Bombay High in Mumbai.
• Deltas of Krishna and Godavari rivers.

Question 44.
Where is natural gas found in India?
Answer:

• Jaisalmer
• Krishna-Godavari .delta
• Tripura
• Offshore in Mumbai.

Question 45.
Name the leading producers of hydel power in the world.
Answer:
Paraguay, Norway, Brazil and China.

Question 46.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of solar energy.
Answer:
Advantages of solar energy

1. It is inexhaustible.
2. It does not cause pollution.

Disadvantage of solar energy:
The method of extracting solar energy is costly.

Question 47.
Write one advantage and disadvantage of each tidal and nuclear energy.
Answer:
Tidal energy – Advantage – It is non-polluting and inexhaustible.
Disadvantage – It destroys wildlife habitat. It is also difficult to harness tidal energy.
Nuclear energy – Advantage- It emits large amount of energy.
Disadvantage – It generates radioactive wastes.

Question 48.
Write the uses of solar energy.
Answer:

• Solar energy is used in solar heaters, solar cookers, solar dryers.
• It is also used for community lighting and traffic signals.

Question 49.
Name the countries which are noted for their wind energy production.
Answer:
Netherlands, Germany, Denmark, UK, USA and Spain are noted for their wind energy production.

Question 50.
How is nuclear power generated?
Answer:
Nuclear power is obtained from energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of radioactive elements like uranium and thorium. These fuels undergo nuclear fission in nuclear reactors and emit power.

Question 51.
In which states of India are deposits of uranium and thorium found?
Answer:
Uranium is found in Rajasthan and Jharkhand. Thorium is found in the monazite sands of Kerala.

Question 52.
Name four hydel power stations of India.
Answer:

1. Bhakra Nangal
2. Gandhi Sagar
3. Nagarjuna Sagar
4. Damodar Valley.

Question 53.
Mention the major nuclear power stations of India.
Answer:

• Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu
• Tarapur in Maharashtra
• Rana Pratap Sagar near Kota in Rajasthan
• Narora in Uttar Pradesh
• Kaiga in Karnataka.

Question 54.
Write the uses of geothermal energy.
Answer:
Geothermal energy in the form of hot springs is used for cooking, heating and bathing.

Question 55.
Name the countries where geothermal plants are located.
Answer:

• USA has the world’s largest geothermal power plant.
• New Zealand
• Iceland
• Philippines
• Central America.

Question 56.
Locate on the outline map of the world.
(a) Mineral oils in India
(b) Coal mines in USA
(c) Coal mines in China
Answer:

Question 57.
Show the following on the outline map of the world.
(i) South Africa
(ii) China
(iii) India
(iv) USA
(v) Australia
Answer:

Question 58.
Describe the distribution of minerals in North America.
Answer:
In North America, mineral deposits are found in three zones –

1. The Canadian Shield- Iron-ore, nickel, gold, uranium and copper are found.
2. Appalachian region – Coal
3. Western Cordilleras – Copper, lead, zinc, gold and silver.

Question 59.
Africa is rich in mineral resources. Justify.
Answer:

• Africa is the world’s largest producer of diamonds, gold and platinum.
• South Africa, Zimbabwe and Zaire produce a large portion of the world’s gold.
• Copper, iron ore, chromium, uranium, cobalt and bauxite are the other minerals found in Africa.
• Oil is found in Nigeria, Libya and Angola.

Question 60.
Give a brief account of minerals found in Australia.
Answer:

• Australia is the largest producer of bauxite in the world.
• It is a leading producer of gold, diamond, iron ore, tin and nickel.
• Rich deposits of copper, lead, zinc and manganese are also found.
• Large deposits of gold are found in Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie.

Question 61.
Name two metallic and non-metallic minerals found in India. Also, mention the areas where they are found.
Answer:
Two metallic minerals of India are –

1. Copper-It is found in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
2. Manganese – It is found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Two non-metallic minerals of India are –

1. Limestone – Major limestone producing states are Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.
2. Salt – It is obtained from seas, lakes and rocks. Salt is extracted in Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Question 62.
Why is conservation of minerals necessary? Mention two ways by which minerals can be conserved.
Answer:
Conservation of minerals is important because:

1. It takes thousands of years for the formation and concentration of minerals.
2. The rate of formation of minerals is much slow in comparison to their consumption.

Two ways by which minerals can be conserved are –

1. To reduce the wastage in the process of mining.
2. Recycling of metals.

Question 63.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of hydel power.
Answer:
Advantages ;

• It does not cause environmental pollution.
• It promotes irrigation and fishing.
• It is cheap.

Disadvantages :

• It leads to the displacement of local community.
• It is expensive to set up a hydel power project.
• It affects the natural flow of the rivers. It also causes excessive sedimentation at the bottom of the reservoir.

Question 64.
Where are the reserves of natural gas found? Mention its uses. Also mention the major natural gas producing countries.
Answer:

• Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is brought to the surface.
• It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.
• The major natural gas producing countries are Russia, Norway, UK and Netherlands.

Question 65.
How is the hydel power produced?
Answer:
Water stored in the dams is made to fall from heights. The falling water flows through pipes inside the dam over turbine blades placed at the bottom of the dam. The moving blades then turn the generator to produce electricity.

Question 66.
Why is there need for using non-conventional sources of energy?
Answer:

• The sharp increase in the consumption of fossil fuels has led to their depletion at an alarming rate.
• The toxic pollutants released from burning the fuels cause environmental pollution.
• The conventional sources are non-renewable.
• It takes millions of years for the formation of fossil fuels.

Therefore, there is need for using non-conventional sources such as solar energy, wind energy. These sources are renewable.

Question 67.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of wind energy.
Answer:
Advantages :

• It does not cause environmental pollution.
• Once the windmill is set up, the cost of production of electricity is less.
• It is safe and does not leave any waste.

Disadvantages :

• It causes noise pollution.
• Windmills are costly to set-up.
• Windmills disturb radio and TV reception.
• Windmills are harmful to birds.

Question 68.
What is biogas? How is it obtained? Write its two uses.
Answer:

• Organic wastes such as dead plant and animal material, animal dung and kitchen waste can be converted into a gaseous fuel called biogas.
• The organic waste is decomposed by bacteria in biogas digesters to emit biogas which is essentially a mixture of methane and carbon dioxide.

Uses of biogas :
(a) Biogas is used for cooking and lighting.
(b) It produces huge amount of organic manure.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following is not a correct statement?
(a) The metallic minerals contain metal in raw form.
(b) Minerals occur in different types of rocks.
(c) Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dugout, by the process known as mining.
(d) Africa is the world’s largest producer of diamonds.
Answer:
(c) Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dugout, by the process known as mining.

2. Which one of the following is not a ferrous mineral?
(a) Lead
(b) Manganese
(c) Chromites
(d) Iron ore.
Answer:
(a) Lead.

3. Tick the odd ‘miniral-use’ pair in the following.
(a) Silicon – Computer
(b) Aluminium-Steel
(c) Copper – Coins
(d) Minerals – Gems.
Answer:
(b) Aluminium-Steel.

4. Jharkhand is a major producer of many minerals but it lacks :
(a) iron ore
(b) coal
(c) mica
(d) gold
Answer:
(d) gold.

5. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(а) Coal is referred to as ‘Buried Sunshine’.
(b) Petroleum and its derivatives (or products) are called ‘Black Gold’.
(c) Minerals are a renewable resource.
(d) Firewood and fossil fuels are conventional energy resources.
Answer:
(c) Minerals are a renewable resource.

Glossary:

→ Mineral – A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral.

→ Metallic minerals – The minerals which contain metal are called metallic minerals.

→ Non-metallic minerals – The minerals which do not contain metals are called non-metallic minerals.

→ Mining- The process of taking out minerals from rocks buried under the earth’s surface is called mining.

→ Open-cast mining – When minerals are extracted by removing the surface layer is called open-cast mining.

→ Shaft-mining- It is done to extract minerals found in great depths.

→ Drilling – When deep wells are bored to take out minerals is called drilling.

→ Quarrying – Minerals that lie near the surface are dug out by the process of quarrying.

→ Rock – A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals but without definite composition of mineral’s constituent.

→ Ores – Rocks from which minerals are mined are known as ores.

→ Conventional sources – Those sources of energy which have been in common use for a long time.

→ Thermal power – Electricity generated from coal is called thermal power.

→ Hydel power-The energy generated by falling water over the turbine blades.

→ Nuclear power – The energy obtained from energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring radioactive elements like uranium and thorium.

→ Geothermal energy- Heat energy obtained from the earth is called geothermal energy.

→ Tidal energy – Energy generated from tides is called tidal energy.

→ Biogas- Organic waste such as dead plant and animal material, animal dung and kitchen waste can be converted into gaseous fuel called biogas.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 8 History Chapter 10 Extra Questions and Answers The Changing World of Visual Arts was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/class-8-history-chapter-10-extra-questions/

The Changing World of Visual Arts Class 8 Extra Questions History Chapter 10

Question 1.
What was the population of India in 1947?
Answer:
Almost 345 million.

Question 2.
Who said, “India could not and must not become a Hindu Pakistan ?”
Answer:
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 3.
Had the franchise in U.K. or U.S.A. been granted all their citizens at the same time like India?
Answer:
No, this right had been granted in stages there.

Question 4.
Explain the term, Union List.
Answer:
A Union List with subjects such as taxes, defence and foreign affairs is the exclusive responsibility of the centre.

Question 5.
What is meant by a State List?
Answer:
A State List of subjects such as education and health which would be taken care of principally by the states.

Question 6.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Amhedkar.

Question 7.
Why was Nehru met with black flags and slogans during the election campaign in Telugu-speaking districts in 1952?
Answer:
Telugu-speakers were demanding a separate Andhra Pradesh while the government was reluctant on this issue.

Question 8.
Who was Potti Sriramulu ?
Answer:
He was the Gandhian leader who died fasting for a separate state for Telugu- speakers.

Question 9.
When has Andhra Pradesh come into existence?
Answer:
1 October 1953.

Question 10.
When was Bombay divided into Maharashtra and Gujarat?
Answer:
1 May 1960.

Question 11.
When was Punjab divided into Punjab and Haryana?
Answer:
1 November 1966.

Question 12.
When was a Planning Commission set up in India?
Answer:
In 1950.

Question 13.
What was the focus of the Second Five Year Plan?
Answer:
The plan focused strongly on the development of heavy industries such as steel, and on the building of large dams.

Question 14.
When was the Bhilai Steel Plant set up? Which country helped in setting up the Bhilai Steel Plant?
Answer:

• In 1959.
• The former Soviet Union.

Question 15.
Which international body was formed in 1945?
Answer:
The United Nations.

Question 16.
What is a Concurrent List?
Answer:
A Concurrent List, under which would come subjects such as forests and agriculture, in which the centre and the states would have joint responsibility.

Question 17.
State about the compromise in the Constituent Assembly regarding Hindi and English as an official language of India?
Answer:
A compromise was finally arrived at – while Hindi would be the “official language” of India, English would be used in the courts, the services and communications between one state and another.

Question 18.
What do you mean by the Cold War?
Answer:
The Cold War referred to the power rivalries and ideological conflicts between the U.S.A. and the U.S.S.R. during 1950s to 1980s. Both countries were creating military alliances.

Question 19.
What was the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)?
Answer:
Led by statesmen from Egypt, Yugoslavia, Indonesia, Ghana and India, NAM was the movement which urged countries not to join either of the two major alliances.

Question 20.
Who was H. J. Khandekar ? What he said about Harijan candidates to get into the prestigious Indian Administrative Service?
Answer:

• He was a member of the Constituent Assembly.
• He argued, it was the upper castes who were responsible for the Harijans “being unfit today”.

Question 21.
What role did India play during the Cold War?
Answer:

• Being a leader of NAM, India played an active role in mediating between the American and Soviet alliances.
• It tried to prevent war by taking often a humanitarian and moral stand against war.

Question 22.
When was Sinhala recognised as the sole official language of Sri Lanka (then Ceylon)? Why has a civil war raged in the country?
Answer:

• In 1956.
• A civil war raged in Sri Lanka due to the imposition of the Sinhala language on the Tamil-speaking minority.

Question 23.
Why was a States Reorganisation Commission set up? What did it recommend?
Answer:

• After the creation of Andhra Pradesh in 1 October 1953, other linguistic communities also demanded their own separate states. That was why a States Reorganisation Commission was set up.
• It submitted its report in 1956, recommending the redrawing of district and provincial boundaries to form compact provinces of Assamese, Bengali, Oriya, Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada and Telugu speakers respectively.

Question 24.
State any three problems that the newly independent Indian faced.
Answer:

1. As a result of partition, 8 million refugees had come into the country from what was now Pakistan. These people had to be found homes and jobs.
2. There was the problem of the princely states almost 500 of them, each ruled by a maharaja or a nawab. Each of whom had to be persuaded to join the new Nation.
3. The new nation had also to adopt a political system that would best serve the hope and expectations of its population.

Question 25.
Name the various divisions in which the population of India was divided in 1947.
Answer:
There were divisions between :

• high castes and low castes.
• Hindu community and other religious communities.
• the citizens spoke different languages.
• the people eating different kinds of food.
• the people having different professions.

Question 26.
Discuss the problems related to development in India at Independence?
Answer:

• At Independence, the vast majority of Indians lived in the villages. While farmers and peasants depended on the monsoon for their survival.
• In the case of non-farm sector, if the crops failed, barbers, carpenters, weave-s and other service groups would not get paid for their services either.
• Factory workers lived in crowded slams with little access to education or health care.
• There was urgent need to reduce poverty by increasing the productivity of agriculture and by promoting new jobs creating industries.

Question 27.
State the main features of the Constitution of India?
Answer:

• It adopted universal adult franchise. All Indians above the age of 21 (presently 18) would be allowed to vote in state and national elections.
• It guaranteed equality before the law to all citizens regardless of their caste or religious affiliation.
• It offered special privileges for the poorest and most disadvantaged Indians.
• The Constitution sought to balance between the powers of the central government and those of the state governments.

This was done by providing three lists of subjects :

• a Union List;
• a State List; and
• a Concurrent List.

Question 28.
What measures or privileges had our Constitution prescribed for the poorest and the most disadvantaged Indians?
Answer:

• The practice of untouchability was abolished.
• Hindu temples, previously open to only the higher castes, were thrown open to all, including the former untouchables.
• A certain percentage of seats in legislatures, as well as jobs in government, were reserved for the members of the lowest castes.
• The Adivasis or Scheduled Tribes were also granted reservations in seats and jobs.

Question 29.
On which grounds was the economic policy of India, during the early few decades criticised?
Or
Why was the focus on heavy industry and State regulation of the economy criticised?
Answer:
The critics had the following points :

• This approach had put inadequate emphasis on agriculture.
• It had neglected primary education.
• It had not taken account of the environmental implications of economic policies.

Question 30.
To what extent has India ful¬filled the ideals set out in its Constitution?
Or
Critically examine how well has the country done in more than sixty years of Independence?
Or
Examine successes and failures of India during more than sixty years of Independence?
Answer:
Successes :

• Despite many bad assumptions, India is still united. People speak different languages or practise different faiths but they have not come in the way of national unity.
• Many foreign observers had felt that India would soon come under military rule. But India is still democratic. There is free press and an independent judiciary. There have been thirteen successful general elections.

Failures :

• Even today, the untouchables or the Dalits face violence and discrimi¬nation. In many parts of rural India, they are not allowed access to water sources, temples, parks and other public places.
• Despite the secular ideals in the Constitution, there have been clashes between different religious groups in many states.
• The gap between the rich and the poor has grown over the years.
• The Constitution recognises equality before the law, but in real life, some Indians are more equal than others. Thus, India has achieved a mix response.

Question 31.
How did the partition affect life in Delhi?
Answer:

• The population of Delhi Swelled.
• The kinds of jobs people did changed.
• The culture of city become different.
• As streams of Muslims left Delhi for Pakistan. Their place was taken by equally large members of Sikh and Hindu refugee from Pakistan.
• Nearly 5,00,000 people were added to Delhi’s population, which had a little over 8,00,000 people in 1951.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. After independence, India faced a series of great challenges. One of them was the refugee problem. As a result of
partition,:- million refugees had come into the country.
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 8

2. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In independent India, unity and development had to go hand in hand.
(b) One feature of the Constitution was its adoption of universal adult franchise. All Indians above the age of 18 would be allowed to vote in elections.
(c) India choose to grant the right to vote to all its citizens regardless of gender, class or education.
(d) The Indian Constitution also guaranteed equality before the law to all its citizens.
Answer:
(b) One feature of the Constitution was its adoption of universal adult franchise. All Indians above the age of 18 would be allowed to vote in elections.

3. Who wrote the following in a letter to the Chief Ministers of states “ we have a Muslim minority who are so large in numbers that they cannot, even if they want, go anywhere else We must give them security and the rights of citizens in a democratic State.”
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru.

4. Which statement is not correct in the following?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is called the father of the Indian Constitution.
(b) The Constitution provided three lists of subjects: a Union List; a State List and a Concurrent List.
(c) A Gandhian leader Potti Sriramulu died fasting for a separate state for Tamil Speakers.
(d) Andhra Pradesh was the first Indian state to be formed in 1953 on linguistic basis.
Answer:
(c) A Gandhian leader Potti Sriramulu died fasting for a separate state for Tamil Speakers.

5. In addition to statesmen from India, Yugoslavia and Egypt, leaders from- and also urged countries not to join either of the two major alliances.
(а) Indonesia, Ghana
(b) Sri Lanka, Pakistan
(c) Malaysia, Burma
(d) Nigeria, Kenya.
Answer:
(а) Indonesia, Ghana.

6. Who was the first Prime Minister of India?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) J.L. Nehru
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambdekar.
Answer:
(b) J.L. Nehru.

Glossary:

→ Franchise – It refers to the right to vote.

→ Linguistic – Relating to language.

→ State – Concerned with the government.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Why Do We Need a Parliament was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Why Do We Need a Parliament Class 8 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 3

(1) In a ………………………………. the people give the powers to the government to make laws.
Answer:
country

(2) In a monarchy the ………………………………. do not have to explain their actions to the people.
Answer:
kings and queens

(3) Democratic governments in our times are called ………………………………. .
Answer:
representative democracies

(4) ………………………………. means that all adults have the right to vote
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise

(5) In India before independence only a ………………………………. was allowed to vote.
Answer:
small minority.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why do we need a government? Give two ways.
Answer:
We need a government to make decisions and get the things done, e g.,

• they can build roads and schools.
• they may think of ways to increase the supply of electricity.
• it runs trains and post and telegraph services.

Chapter 3 Civics Class 8 Extra Questions Question 2.
Why is it necessary for the government to undertake various activities?
Answer:
When human beings live and work together, there needs to be some kind of organisation, so that decisions can be made. The government has to undertake various activities because it has to fulfil various needs of the people. The wants are multifarious and they have to be fulfilled. As the science and technology makes progress, the activities of the government increase.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Important Question And Answer Question 3.
Name some of the rules that apply to everyone.
Answer:
Some rules have to be made that apply to everyone. For example, there is a need to control resources and protect the territory of a country so that people can feel secure. Government does this on behalf of the people by exercising leadership, taking decisions and implementing them among all the people living in the territory.

Class 8 Civics Ch 3 Extra Questions Question 4.
Name the three different levels at which the government works.
Answer:
The government works at different levels :

1. At the local level, it means it works in the village, town and locality.
2. The state-level means that it covers the whole state like Punjab or West Bengal.
3. The national-level relates to the whole country.

Ncert Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 5.
What are the three main functions of the government?
Answer:
The three main functions of the government are :

1. The government makes laws and everyone who lives in the country has to follows these rules.
2. Just like the government makes laws, it also has the powers to see that everyone obeys the laws, to enforce its decisions.
3. If the people do not obey the laws, the court can give decisions and orders about what should be done. In the same way, if a person feels that he is being exploited then he can also go to the court.

Ncert Solutions For Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 6.
Why do you think it is important that people abide by the law? Think of an example.
Answer:
It is important that people should abide by the law so that all the work can be organised properly. There will be no confusion and everyone will remain within their rights.
e.g., It is a law that every vehicle owner should stop at the red traffic light. If people abide by this law there will be a smooth flow of traffic, with little chances of accidents and even the pedestrians can easily cross the road. If the vehicle owners do not abide by this law, there can be traffic jams and accidents.

Ch 3 Civics Class 8 Extra Questions Question 7.
How did the women’s suffrage movement start?
Answer:
During the First World War many men were away fighting and women were called upon to do the work, that was earlier done by men. Women began to organise and manage work. The people wondered at their capabilities and abilities. So women were seen as being equally capable of making decisions.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following are the different levels of Indian government?
(a) State level and national level
(b) Local level and district level
(c) Local level, state level and national level
(d) Village level and state level.
Answer:
(c) Local level, state level and national level.

2. Which one of the following refers to the government at the local level?
(a) The government in your village, town or locality
(b) The government which covers an entire state
(c) The government which covers the entire country
(d) The government which covers the entire block.
Answer:
(a) The government in your village, town or locality.

3. Who makes laws in the country?
(a) The government
(b) Advocates
(c) University
(d) Citizens.
Answer:
(a) The government.

4. Who have to follow laws of the country?
(a) The government
(b) Foreigners
(c) Everyone who lives in the country
(d) Advocates.
Answer:
(c) Everyone who lives in the country.

5. Which of the following are the powers of the government?
(a) To make decisions
(b) To enforce its decisions
(c) To collect revenue
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

6. What can the people do if they feel that a particular law is not being followed?
(a) They may approach the court
(b) They cannot do anything
(c) They can increase the amount of taxes
(d) They may approach the foreign governments.
Answer:
(c) All adults of the country are allowed to vote.

7. Which one of the following refers to Universal Adult Franchise?
(a) All women in the country are allowed to vote
(b) All handicaps of the country are allowed to vote
(c) All adults of the country are allowed to vote
(d) There is no need to vote in the country
Answer:
(c) All adults of the country are allowed to vote.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 8 History Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers How, When and Where was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/class-8-history-chapter-1-extra-questions/

How, When and Where Class 8 Extra Questions History Chapter 1

Question 1.
Who asked James Rennet to produce maps of Hindustan?
Answer:
Robert Clive.

Question 2.
Is history all about dates? Why?
Answer:
No. This is because there are many events which cannot be associated with a fixed date.

Question 3.
Name any four British governors- Generals in India.
Answer:

1. Warren Hastings
2. Lord Wellesley
3. William Bentick
4. Lord Dalhousie.

Question 4.
Who was James Mill?
Answer:
James Mill was a Scottish economist – and political philosopher.

Question 5.
Name the work of James Mill.
Answer:
He wrote-‘A History of British India’.

Question 6.
Why do we divide history into different periods.
Answer:
We divide history into different periods to capture the characteristics of a time, its central features as they appear before us.

Question 7.
What was James Mill’s view about Asian societies?
Answer:
James Mill thought Asian societies to be at a lower level of civilisation than Europe.

Question 8.
What was the view of Mill about India?
Answer:
In Mill’s view, India was not capable of progress without British help.

Question 9.
In which other way have historians divided Indian history?
Answer:
Moving away from British classification, historians have classified Indian History into ‘ancient’, ‘medieval’ and ‘modem’ India.

Question 10.
Name two important sources of writing colonial history of India.
Answer:

1. Official records of the British administration.
2. The surveys conducted by the colonial government.

Question 11.
Are official records a good source for writing colonial history? Why?
Answer:
No. This is because, most of the time, the writers of these records were biased.

Question 12.
Name two more reliable sources for writing history.
Answer:

1. Dairies of the people.
2. Accounts of pilgrims and travellers.
3. Autobiographies of important personalities.

Question 13.
When was the National Archives of India set up?
Answer:
In 1920s.

Question 14.
Who was the first Governor-General of India?
Answer:
Warren Hastings.

Question 15.
Who wrote A History of British India?
Answer:
James Mill

Question 16.
Write any two issues that modem day historians like to write.
Answer:

1. They like to write on how people earned their livelihood.
2. They like to write on what people produced and ate.

Question 17.
According to James Mill, how was the Indian society before the British rule?
Answer:
James Mill describes that there prevailed religious intolerance, caste taboos, superstitious practices in the Indian social life before the British rule.

Question 18.
What were the purposes of surveys?
Answer:
Revenue surveys were conducted by the British to know the topography, the soil quality, the flora, the fauna, the local histories, the cropping pattern and many other things. They all helped them in proper administration.

Question 19.
Can we know everything in a right way from the official records of the British administration?
Answer:
No. These records do not always help us to understand what common people in the country felt and what laid behind their actions.

Question 20.
What do the official records of the British tell us?
Answer:
The official records tell us

• What the British officials fought.
• What they were interested in.
• What they wished to preserve for posterity.

Question 21.
What is colonisation?
Answer:
When the subjugation of one country by another leads to any kind of political, economic, social and cultural change, the process is referred to as colonisation.

Question 22.
What is meant by medieval period? Why do we call modem period as ‘colonial’ period?
Answer:

• Medieval period was a term used to describe a society where the features of modern society like science, reason, liberty, equality etc. did not exist.
• Under British rule, people did not have equality, freedom or liberty. Also, it was not the period of economic growth and progress. This is why many historians refer to this period as ‘colonial’ period.

Question 23.
What is history?
Answer:

• History is not only the study of dates, kings and dynasties.
• It is about changes in the society that occur over time.
• It is about finding out how local things were in the past and how things have changed.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) During the colonial period, Britannia was the symbol of British power.
(b) Lord Irwin was the last Viceroy of India.
(c) James Mill divided Indian history into three periods-Hindu, Muslim and. British.
(d) Mill thought that all Asian societies were at a lower level of civilisation than Europe.
Answer:
(b) Lord Irwin was the last Viceroy of India.

2. Which one is not correct in the
following statements?
(a) Some historians have divided Indian history into ancient, medieval and modem periods.
(b) Many historians do refer to the modem period in India as ‘Colonial’ period.
(c) All classes and groups in India experienced the changes during the British rule in the same way.
(d) One important source of Indian history is the official records of the British administration.
Answer:
(c) All classes and groups in India experienced the changes during the British rule in the same way.

3. The National Museum and the National Archives are located in :
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) New Delhi.
Answer:
(d) New Delhi.

4. Which statement is not correct in the following?
(a) From the end of the 19th century, Census operations were held every ten years.
(b) Botanical gardens and natural history museums, established by the British, collected plant specimens and information about their use.
(c) By the early 20th century, detailed surveys were being carried Out to map the entire country.
(d) The British set up record rooms attached to all administrative institutions to preserve documents and letters.
Answer:
(c) By the early 20th century, detailed surveys were being carried Out to map the entire country.

5. Calligraphists are specialised in the art of beautiful-
(a) writing
(b) printing
(c) presentation
(d) sketching
Answer:
(a) writing

Glossary:

→ Governor-General-Administrative head of the British rule in India.

→ Chronology – Something that is arranged in an order.

→ Taboos – Something that explains‘Do Nets’.

→ Tehsildar – A local administrative officer that kept record of revenue during the British rule in India.

→ Calligraphists – Those people who specialised in the art of beautiful writing.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Conservation of Plants and Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 7 was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-science/

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Conservation of Plants and Animals

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 1.
Name a sanctuary of India.
Answer:
Bharatpur bird sanctuary.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question Answer Question 2.
Name a national park of India.
Answer:
Kaziranga National Park.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Questions And Answers Question 3.
Name a wildlife sanctuary of India.
Answer:
Lockchao wildlife sanctuary.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Class 8 Question Answer Question 4.
Name a biosphere reserve of India.
Answer:
Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Class 8 Solutions Question 5.
What causes drought?
Answer:
Reduced rainfall causes drought.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Class 8 Question 6.
Name the areas meant for conservation of biodiversity
Answer:
Biosphere Reserve.

Question Answer Of Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question 7.
Name two wildlife sanctuaries of Panchmarhi biosphere reserve.
Answer:
Bori and Panchmarhi.

Chapter 7 Science Class 8 Question 8.
Give two examples each of flora and fauna.
Answer:
Examples of flora: Mango, Jamun Examples of fauna: Chinkara, cheetal.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question And Answer Question 9.
Name one endemic animal.
Answer:
Indian giant squirie1 is an endemic animal.

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Short Question Answer Question 10.
Name two endemic flora of Panchmarhi.
Answer:
Sal and wild mango are two endemic flora of Panchmarbi.

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 11.
Apart from wildlife sanctuaries, name one place where animals are protected?
Answer:
Zoo.

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Very Short Question Answer Question 12.
Name the first reserve forest of India.
Answer:
Satpura.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question Answers Question 13.
What is special about the forest of Satpura?
Answer:
The finest teak of India is found in this forest.

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question Answer Question 14.
Do the tribals still live in forest?
Answer:
Yes, many tribals still live in forests.

Ncert Solutions For Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question 15.
Name one animal which has become completely extinct?
Answer:
Dinosaur.

Class 8 Science Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question Answer Question 16.
Define biosphere.
Answer:
Biosphere is that part of earth in which living organisms exist or which support life.

Question 17.
What is biodiversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity is the variety of plants, animals and microorganisms generally found in an area.

Question 18.
Name two natural causes of deforestation.
Answer:
Two natural causes of deforestation are :

1. forest fire, and
2. severe drought.

Question 19.
Define endemic species.
Answer:
The species that are exclusively found in a particular area only and not naturally found anywhere else are known as endemic species.

Question 20.
What do you mean by species?
Answer:
Species is a group of populations which are capable of interbreeding with each other.

Question 21.
State some examples of fauna, endemic to Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
Bison, Indian giant squirrel and flying squirrel are some of the fauna endemic to the Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve.

Question 22.
What, does a sanctuary provide?
Answer:
It provides protection and suitable living conditions to wild animals.

Question 23.
Why are even protected forests not safe?
Answer:
Even protected forests are not safe because poachers encroach and destroy them.

Question 24.
What is a rock shelter?
Answer:
Rock shelters are the evidences of prehistoric human life in the jungles of Satpura National Park. They were meant for human living.

Question 25.
What idea do the rock shelters give?
Answer:
The rock shelters give us an idea about the life of the prehistoric/primitive humans.

Question 26.
What do you mean by the term Project Tiger?
Answer:
“Project Tiger” is the name of a project which was launched by the government of our country to .protect the tigers of the country.

Question 27.
What was the objective of Project Tiger?
Answer:
The objective of Project Tiger was to ensure the maintenance of a viable population of tigers in our country.

Question 28.
Why is Satpura Tiger Reserve a unique place?
Answer:
The Satpura Tiger Reserve is unique in the sense that a significant increase in the population of tigers has been seen here.

Question 29.
Are there different Red Data Books for plants and animals?
Answer:
Yes, there are different Red Data Books for plants, animals and other species.

Question 30.
What do you mean by reforestation?
Answer:
Reforestation means restocking of the destroyed forests by planting new trees.

Question 31.
Define endangered animals with two examples.
Answer:
Animals whose numbers are diminishing to a level that they might face extinction are known as the endangered animals. This is because survival of some animals has become difficult because of disturbances in their natural habitat.
The example of the endangered animals are: Indian elephant, Bengal tiger, Indian lion, Indian Rhino and Gharial.

Question 32.
What are the causes and consequences Of deforestation?
Answer:
Causes of deforestation :

• Forests are cleared for accommodating expanding urban areas and for meeting increasing demands.
• Forests are destroyed to clear land for crops and cattle grazing.
• Trees are cut down to be used for firewood.

Consequences of deforestation :

• Soil erosion
• Loss of biodiversity
• Floods and droughts
• Climate change due to global warming
• Disruption of water cycle

Question 33.
Explain the term Biosphere Reserve. What is its importance?
Answer:
Biosphere Reserves are the areas meant for conservation of biodiversity (plants, animals and microorganisms found in an area). Biosphere Reserves help to maintain the biodiversity and culture of that area.

Question 34.
Define the term “Wildlife Sanctuaries.” Name some threatened wild animals. How re they protected?
Answer:
Wildlife Sanctuaries are the areas where wild animals are protected and conserved. Some of the threatened wild animals like black buck, white-eyed buck, elephant, golden cat, pink-headed duck, gharial, marsh crocodile, python, rhinoceros, etc. are protected and preserved in different Wildlife Sanctuaries.

Question 35.
What are found in rock shelters of Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserves?
Answer:
There are rock paintings found in the rock shelters. Figures of animals, men shown as fighting, hunting, dancing, and
playing musical instruments are depicted in these rock paintings. Figures of man-eater tiger and a group of people are also shown in these rock paintings.

Question 36.
Define a desertification and deforestation with two consequences of each.
Answer:
Desertification: Excessive deforestation leads to removal of the top layer of the soil which exposes the lower, hard and rocky layers. This soil has less humus and is less fertile. Gradually the fertile land gets converted into deserts. It is called desertification. Agriculture, animal husbandry and groundwater pumping are all significant contributors to the process.
Consequences of desertification :

• Desertification affects the agriculture to a large extent.
• It results in decease in rainfall.
• Desertification exposes the land to floods.
• It results in decease in the level of groundwater.

Deforestation :
Clearing of forests by cutting down forest trees over a wide area is called deforestation.
Consequences of deforestation :

• Soil erosion
• Loss of biodiversity
• Floods and droughts
• Climate change due to global warming
• Disruption of water cycle.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Following irrigation system is more suitable for areas where sufficient water is not available
(a) Drip system
(b) Sprinkler system
(c) None.
Answer:
(a) Drip system.

2. An ecosystem is composed of
(a) Living component
(b) Non-living component
(c) Both.
Answer:
(c) Both.

3. In Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve Bison, Indian giant squirrels are found they are the example of
(a) endemic species
(b) endangered species
(c) extinct species
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) endemic species.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science

Here we are providing The Ashes that Made Trees Bloom Extra Questions and Answers Class 7 English Honeycomb, Extra Questions for Class 7 English was designed by subject expert teachers. We have created the most comprehensive NCERT Solutions for Class 7 English Chapter 4 The Ashes that Made Trees Bloom. These solutions are help to score more marks in your Board Exams. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-english/

The Ashes that Made Trees Bloom Extra Questions and Answers Class 7 English Honeycomb

The Ashes that Made Trees Bloom Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

The Ashes That Made Trees Bloom Extra Question Answer Question 1. How did the old couple treat their dog? Answer: The old couple treated the dog as their own child. The old farmer had created a cushion made of blue crepe for the dog. During the meals they used to feed the dog plenty of rice and tidbits of fish from their own chopstick. The Ashes That Made Trees Bloom Extra Questions Question 2. Did the farmer forget his virtues after becoming rich? Answer: No, he didn’t. The kind farmer bought a piece of land hosted a feast for his friends and helped his poor neighbours when he became rich. Ashes That Made Trees Bloom Extra Questions Question 3. Describe the change, the cherry tree, underwent after the kind old man poured a pinch of ash over it. Answer: It was winter season and the cherry tree in the old couple’s garden didn’t have leaves. The old man sprinkled a pinch of the ashes and blossoms sprouted out of it. Pink flowers came on it and their fragrance filled the air. Extra Questions Of The Ashes That Made Trees Bloom Question 4. How did the farmer please the daimios? Answer: The daimio was pleased by seeing the magic of the withered cherry tree bursting into blossom. The Ashes That Made Trees Bloom Question Answer Question 5. Why did the leader ignored the kind old man sitting on the cherry tree? Answer: The leader of the van allowed the old man to remain seated at the cherry tree considering him to be very old. Class 7 English Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 6. What preparations did the kind old couple make for the New Year? Answer: For the New Year the old couple planned to make rice pastries and bean sauce. The Ashes That Made Trees Bloom Question 7. Why daimios did punish the wicked couple? Answer: The wicked farmer was killed brutally by the daimios men and was thus punished for his greed. The Ashes That Made Trees Bloom Short Question Answer Question 8. How did the dog repay to the love of his masters? Answer: The dog was treated like a family member by the old couple. The dog made his masters rich by giving them gold coins. His masters became prosperous with it and bought a piece of land. He then asked them to collect the ashes which had the power to sprout blossoms of a withered tree. The magic was seen by the daimio who had rewarded the old couple. The Ashes That Made The Trees Bloom Extra Questions Question 9. The wicked farmer wanted to be rich like his neighbour. What happened every time when he tried to do so? Answer: First time when the neighbour tried to be rich, all he got was a foul smelling dead kitten. In their second . attempt, the old couple got heap of worms from the dough of rice pastry and bean sauce. In the third attempt, the old man failed to create magic with the ashes. He spoiled daimio’s procession and was killed by his men as punishment. Question 10. Why did the neighbours kill the dog? Ans. The neighbours killed the dog in anger. They have expected the dog to help them get a treasure, but the dog had rather taken them to a foul smelling dead kitten.

The Ashes that Made Trees Bloom Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1. The unconditional love of old couple made them rich. Elucidate. Answer: The old couple was issueless so when they found a little dog, they look after as if it were their child. Once he was taken to a heap with buried gold by digging. Later during the New Year feast, they were made rich. Further the king showered him with gifts. Thus if we spread selfless love to the animals, they too reciprocate with their bountiful love. So without having selfish interests one should unconditionally love the animals. The one who has selfish interest, would remain empty handed. Question 2. How does the story underscores values such as honesty, compassion, diligence with a hint of magical realism? Answer: The love of the dog for old couple was obvious as they look after it with affection. The story is different as magic of his appearance in dreams and of changing food into gold. These elements create interest of the reader. Moreover, the love, kindness and compassionate behaviour made the couple rich. However, they did not leave their virtues; they were appreciated by the king also. On the contrast, the cruel and wicked couple were punished for their misdeeds. Question 3. The old farmer is a kind person. What evidence of his kindness do you find in the first two paragraphs. Answer: The old farmer is a kind person. He loved his dog as if it was his own baby. He fed it with fish with his v- own chopsticks and all the boiled rice it wanted. He was patient and kind to everything that had life and often dug up a sod on purpose to give food to the birds. Question 4. What did the dog do to lead the farmer to the hidden gold? Answer: The dog came running to the farmer and kept on whining and ruining to and for till the farmer followed him. The dog began a lively scratching. Thinking it was possibly a buried bone or fish, the farmer struck his hoe in the earth and found the hidden gold. Question 5. (i) How did the spirit of the dog help the farmer first? (ii) How did it help him next? Answer: (i) The spirit of the dog came in the farmer’s dream and first asked him to chop the pine tree and make mortar and hand-mill out of it. With the mortar and mill it gave the farmer heaps of gold, (ii) The dog’s spirit again came in the farmer’s dream for the second time and told the farmer to collect ‘the ash of the mortar and the mill and sprinkle it on the withered trees and they will blossom’. The farmer did this in front of the daimio and was awarded with lavish gifts. Question 6. Why did the daimio reward the farmer but punish his neighbour for the same act? Answer: The daimio rewarded the farmer for making an old withered cherry tree blossom once again. Like the farmer his greedy neighbour also sprinkled ashes over a withered cherry tree. However, the result this time was different. The tree did not blossom, while the wind blew the dust into the noses and eyes of the daimio and his wife. This was the reason why the greedy neighbour was punished.

The Ashes that Made Trees Bloom Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Question 1. One day the dog came running.to him, putting his, paws against his legs and motioning with his head to some spot behind. The old man at first thought his pet was only playing and did not mind it. But the dog kept on whining and running to and fro for some minutes. Then the old man followed the dog a few yards to a place where the animal began a lively scratching. Thinking it was possibly a buried bone or bit of fish, the old man struck his hoe in the earth, when, lo! a pile of gold gleamed before him. (i) What was the intention of the dog? (ii) Why was the dog ‘whining and running’? (iii) What did the old man think was buried? (iv) What was there when he struck his hoe? (v) Write the past participle ‘gleam’. Answer: (i) The dog wanted to take his master to a heap. (ii) The dog was excited to show his master the heap of riches. (iii) The old man thought that it was possibly a buried bone or bit of fish. (iv) There was a pile of gold gleamed when struck his hoe. (v) Gleamed. Question 2. So the old man chopped down the tree and cut out of the middle of the trunk a section about two feet long. With great labour, partly by fire, partly by the chisel, he scraped out a hollow place as big as a small bowl. He then made a long handled hammer of wood, such as is used for pounding rice. When New Year’s time drew near, he wished to make some rice pastry. When the rice was all boiled, granny put it into the mortar, the old man lifted his hammer to pound the mass into dough, and the blows fell heavy and fast till the pastry was all ready for baking. Suddenly the whole mass turned into a heap of gold coins. When the old woman took the hand-mill, and filling it with beans began to grind, the gold dropped like rain. (i) What did the old man do to the tree? (ii) What did he wish to make for New Year? (iii) What did they do when the rice was boiled? (iv) What happened to the food? (v) Give the meaning of ‘Pounding’. Answer: (i) The old man chopped down the tree and cut out of the middle of the trunk a section about two feet long. (ii) When New Year’s time drew near, he wished to make some rice pastry. (iii) When the rice was all boiled, granny put it into the mortar, the old man lifted his hammer to pound the mass into dough. (iv) The whole mass turned into a heap of gold coins. When the old woman took the hand-mill and filling it with beans began to grind, the gold dropped like rain. (v) It means repeated and heavy striking or hitting someone or something. Question 3. Not long after that, the good old man dreamed again, and the spirit of the dog spoke to him, telling him how the wicked people had burned the mill made from the pine tree. “Take the ashes of the mill, sprinkle them on the withered trees, and they will bloom again,” said the dog-spirit. Questions (i) Who came in good old man’s dream? (ii) What did wicked man do with the mill? (iii) What instruction did the spirit give to the old man? (iv) What change happen to the withered trees? (v) Give past participle of ‘spoke’. Answer: (i) The spirit of the dog came in the good old man’s dreams. (ii) The wicked man had burned the mill. (iii) The spirit instructed the old man to take the ashes of the milk and to sprinkle them on the withered trees. (iv) The withered trees started blooming again. (v) Spoken. Question 4. Now, in? the days of the daimios, it was the custom, when their lord passed by, for all the loyal people to shut up their high windows. They even pasted them fast with a slip of paper, so as not to commit the impertinence of looking down on his lordship. All the people along the road would fall upon their hands and knees and remain prostrate until the procession passed by. The train drew near. One tall, competent man marched ahead, crying out to the people by the way, “Get down on your knees! Get down on your knees!” And everyone kneeled down while the procession was passing. (i) What was the custom of the daimyo’s? (ii) What did they paste on high windows? (iii) How long did they remain prostrate? (iv) Who cried out to the people? (v) Write an antonym competent’. Answer: (i) In the days of the daimio’s, it was the custom, when their lord passed by, for all the loyal people to shut up their high windows. (ii) They pasted the windows with a slip of paper. (iii) They remained prostrate until the procession passed by. (iv) One tall, competent man cried out to the people to get down. (v) Incompetent/ inefficient.