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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

March 1, 2023

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Gender, Religion and Caste Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following countries has a record of high participation of women in the political sphere of the society?
(a) India
(b) Bangladesh
(c) France
(d) Finland
Answer:

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
On an average an Indian woman works…………..more than an average man every day.
(a) One hour
(b) Half an hour
(c) Two hours
(d) One and a half hour
Answer:
(a) One hour

Gender Caste And Religion Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
………………… provides that equal wages should be paid to equal work.
(a) Wages act
(b) Equal Remuneration Act
(c) Equal Wages Act
(d) Labour Code

Gender Religion And Caste MCQs Question 4.
Fill in the blank in regards to the information about the Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years) of India in 2011?
Ratio 901-925- Himachal Pradesh; Ratio below 850-……………..
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Punjab
(c) Kerala
(d) Haryana
Answer:
(b) Punjab

Gender Religion And Caste MCQ Question 5.
Sexual Division of labour signifies which of the following statements?
(1) Gender division emphasises not all people can do all kinds of work.
(2) Gender division means division between communities.
(3) Caste is the basis of Gender Division.
(4) Type of the work decides whether a man will do it or a woman will do it.
(5) Religion decides which work should be done by who.
(a) (1). (3) & (4) (b) (1), (2) & (4)
(c) (1) & (3) (d) (4) & (1)
Answer:
(d) (4) & (1)

MCQ Of Chapter Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Question 6.
In local self-government institutions, at least one third of all positions are reserved for„
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Children
(d) Scheduled tribes
Answer:
(b) Women

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers In Hindi Question 7.
Identify the reason why caste alone cannot determine elections in India.
(I) No party can win the votes of all the voters of a caste or community.
(II) Political parties appease certain castes and ignore others.
(III) No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one single caste, people from different castes live in each constituency.
(IV) Mobilising and securing political support has brought new consciousness among the lower castes.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (I) & (IV) only
(d) (i), (II) & (III) only
Answer:

MCQ On Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Question 8.
In India, seats are reserved for women in:
(I) Lok Sabha
(II) State legislative assemblies
(III) Cabinet of Chief Minister
(IV) Panchayati Raj bodies
(a) (I), (M) & (IV)
(b) (II), (III) & (IV)
(c) (II) & (III)
(d) (I) & (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I) & (IV)

Explanation: One-Third of seats in local government bodies – in panchayats and municipalities – are now reserved for women. There are more than 10 lakh elected women representatives in rural and urban local bodies.

Question 9.
Which among the following statements about the Constitution of India is wrong?
(a) It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
(b) It gives official status to one religion.
(c) It ensures equality of citizens within religious communities.
(d) It ensures everyone’s freedom to profess any religion.
Answer:

Question 10.
Human rights groups in our country have argued that most of the victims of communal riots in our country are
(a) Women
(b) Children
(c) Religious minorities
(d) People with disabilities
Answer:
(c) Religious minorities

Question 11.
What is the literacy rate of men in India?
(a) 73%
(b) 76%
(c) 75%
(d) 78%
Answer:

Question 12.
What is the child sex ratio (number of girl children per thousand boys) in India?
(a) 999
(b) 872
(c) 919
(d) 912
Answer:
(c) 919

Question 13.
A ………….. proportion of women attend higher educational institutions than men.
(a) Greater
(b) Smaller
(c) Equal
(d) Almost negligible
Answer:
(b) Smaller

Explanation: Women are not allowed to study in a lot of families, especially when the resources are limited because it is considered that men are supposed to work and provide for the family while women are supposed to do caregiving activities.

Question 14.
The proportion of women among the highly paid and valued jobs is still very
(a) Large
(b) Small
(c) Negligible
(d) Equal to that of men
Answer:
(b) Small

Question 15.
Castes in India have:
(a) Stayed the same throughout the time
(b) Changed completely in the last 5 years
(c) Experienced certain changes but not many.
(d) Increased its influence
Answer:
(c) Experienced certain changes but not many.

Question 16.
Which of the following instances express the severest form of communal politics?
(a) Violence and Riots
(b) Elections
(c) Inter-caste marriages
(d) Abstinence from religion
Answer:

Question 17.
The total percentage of Backward Classes estimates their population to be around per cent.
(a) 61%
(b) 54%
(c) 42%
(d) 41%
Answer:
(d) 41%

Question 18.
Which of the following principles compelled political leaders to gear up to the task of mobilising and securing political support?
(a) Universal adult franchise
(b) Communalism
(c) One man- One vote- One woman- no vote
(d) Religion is the base of politics
Answer:
(a) Universal adult franchise

Explanation: Universal adult franchise and the principle of one-person-one-vote compelled political leaders to gear up to the task of mobilising and securing political support. It also brought new consciousness among the people of castes that were hitherto treated as inferior and low.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 19.
Identify the following on basis of the hints given:
(1) In 2011, this group of Castes were 16.6 percent of total people in India.
(2) The group is also known as Dalits.
(3) They were subjected to exclusion and untouchability.
Answer:

Correct and Rewrite / True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 20.
Gender division tends to be understood as natural and unchangeable.
Answer:
True

Question 21.
Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of women is housework and bringing up children.
Answer:
True

Question 22.
Earlier, only women were allowed to participate in public affairs, vote and contest for public offices.
Answer:
False

Earlier, only men were allowed to participate in public affairs, vote and contest for public offices.

Explanation: Although women constitute half of humanity, their role in public life, especially politics, is minimal in most societies. In fact women, women had to fight for their voting rights to participate in elections.

Question 23.
Political expression of gender division and political mobilisation does not help to improve women’s role in public life.
Answer:

Question 24.
The percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha has touched 14.36 per cent of its total strength for the first time in 2014.
Answer:
False

The percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha has touched 14.36 per cent of its total strength for the first time in 2019. Explanation: One Third of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies have been reserved for women.

Question 25.
In Indian government, cabinets are largely all-female even when aman becomes the Chief Minister or the Prime Minister.
Answer:
False

In Indian government, cabinets are largely all-male even when a woman becomes the Chief Minister or the Prime Minister.

Question 26.
Although women constitute half of humanity, their role in public life, especially politics, is minimal in most societies.
Answer:
True

Question 27.
Expression of caste differences in politics gives many advantaged communities the space to demand their share of power.
Answer:

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 28.
Castes and Caste system in modern India have undergone a great change because of [CBSE 2019]
Answer:
Urbanisation, growth of literacy and education

Question 29.
The Indian Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion because
Answer:
India is a secular State.

Explanation: Indian Secularism believes in equal respect and equal distance from all religions to promote equality. Western secularism believes abstinence from religion. Indian Constitution does not have any official religion.

Question 30.
The representation of women in Indian Parliament is still low as compared to European countries because
Answer:
women are not educated, trained and encouraged enough.

Question 31.
……………. is the literacy rate among men and ………… is the literacy rate for women in India.
Answer:
76% and 54%

Question 32.
The Equal wages Act was passed in……………
Answer:

Question 33.
In 2011, the Scheduled Castes were ………… and the Scheduled Tribes were of the country’s population.
Answer:
16.6 percent and 8.6 percent

Question 34.
Scandinavian countries like ………. the participation of women in public life is very high.
Answer:
Sweden

Question 35.
The disproportionately large presence of ‘upper caste’ among the urban middle classes in our country is because
Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 4

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 36.
Assertion (A): It is not politics that gets caste-ridden, it is the caste that gets politicized.
Reason (R): Politics brings caste into the political arena.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 37.
Assertion (A): Elections are all about caste and nothing else.
Reason (R): Every candidate and party needs to win the confidence of more than one caste and community to win elections.
Answer:

Question 38.
Assertion (A): Caste is an important source of economic inequality.
Reason (R): It regulates access to resources of various kinds.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Caste decided the allocation of resources. A Lot of backward classes have become even worse because of inequality of education and opportunities.

Question 39.
Assertion (A): The ruling party and the sitting MP or MLA frequently lose elections in our country.
Reason (R): Caste is the only factor that affects Politics.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Caste is not the only factor that affects politics. The performance of the leaders, their control and their decisions, their ideologies and methodologies also affect the result of elections.

Question 40.
Assertion (A): Caste groups that had access to education under the old system have done very well.
Reason (R): Education helps in development of people.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Unless women control power, their problems will not get adequate attention.
Reason (R): They are not given attention because the decision making bodies have no representation of women and men are unable to relate to women issues.
Answer:

Question 42.
Assertion (A): Politics based on caste identity alone is not very healthy in a democracy.
Reason (R): It can divide the society into different communities and cause inequalities.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 43.
Assertion (A): Caste division leads to tensions, conflict and even violence.
Reason (R): Violence is a positive expression of caste divisions.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Violence is a negative expression of caste divisions. The negative expression of caste division leads to tensions, conflict and even violence.

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Caste matters in electoral politics.
Reason (R): Caste affects the choice of people in elections. People choose according to their castes.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Caste affects the choice of people. A lot of other factors affect electoral politics.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of women is housework and bringing up children women do all work inside the home such as cooking, cleaning, washing clothes, tailoring, looking after children, etc., and men do all the work outside the home. It is notthat men cannot do housework; they simply think that it is for women to attend to these things.
Which of the following concepts have been reflected in this source?
(a) Communalism
(b) Sexual division of labour
(c) Family structure of India
(d) Society of India
Answer:
(b) Sexual division of labour

Explanation: Sexual division of labour entails stereotyping of labour-related works according to sexes. For example, works like cooking, cleaning and washing clothes have been categorised into works to be done by women while works Like earning and providing are categorised into works to be done by men.

Question 2.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Shree was livid. He wanted a wife who would cook for him, wash his clothes and take care of his ailing parents. Instead, Kriti was a woman or a man who believed in equal rights and opportunities for men and women. She wanted Shree to help her at home so she could also go for her job. She also wanted to provide for their family equally.
Which of the following words can replace the underlined sentence?
(a) Feminist
(b) Patriarch
(c) Ideal Housewife
(d) Modern
Answer:
(a) Feminist

Question 3.
Read the table given below and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following is the reason for women’s income generating work figures being drastically less than those of men?
(a) Women work less
(b) Women sleep more
(c) The work of women remains invisible.
(d) The work of women is not worth money.
Answer:
(c) The work of women remains invisible.

Explanation: Work of the women remains invisible. The work done by men is more visible because most of their work leads to generation of income. A bulk of women’s work is household related and thus remains unpaid and invisible.

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Most tailors or cooks in hotels are men. Similarly, it is not that women do not work outside their home. In villages, women fetch water, collect fuel and work in the fields. In urban areas, poor women work as domestic helpers in middle class homes, while middle class women work in offices. In fact the majority of women do some sort of paid work in addition to domestic labour. But their work is not valued and does not get recognition. The result of this division of labour is that although women constitute half of humanity, their role in public life, especially politics, is minimal in most societies.
(A) Give a label to the tendency of stereotyping labour/works based on gender.
(a) Female exploitation
(b) Sexual Division of Labour
(c) Casteist Division of Labour
(d) Labour determinism
Answer:
(b) Sexual Division of Labour
Explanation: A system in which all work inside the home is either done by stereotyping or labelling of certain tasks as female-oriented and others as male oriented.

(B) Who does the employers discriminate against while paying wages?
(a) Women
(b) Men
(c) High Caste groups
(d) Middle Class groups
Answer:

(C) What do feminist movements stand for?
Answer:
Feminist women stand for equal political, social, employment related and educational opportunities for women.

(D) Assertion (A): Political movements and mobilisation helped women gain strength.
Reason(R): It helped them raise their voices against the indiscriminate practices.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The Census of India records the religion of each and every Indian after every ten years. The person who fills the Census form visits every household and records the religion of each member of that household exactly the way each person describes it. If someone says she has ‘no religion’ or that he is an ‘atheist’, this is exactly how it is recorded. Thus we have reliable information on the proportion of different religious communities in the country and how it has changed over the years.
Since Independence, the total population of each community has increased substantially but their proportion in the country’s population has not changed much. In percentage terms, the population of the Hindus, Jains and Christians has declined marginally since 1961. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following committees is also called the Sachar Committee?
(a) Prime Minister’s High Level Committee
(b) Home Affairs Committee
(c) NSSO
(d) Ministry of Statistics and High Committee
Answer:
(a) Prime Minister’s High Level Committee

(B) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
Scheduled Tribes- Adivasis; Scheduled Castes- …………………
(a) Subcastes
(b) Outcastes
(c) Below Castes
(d) Tricaste
Answer:
(b) Outcastes

(C) Who of the following is the perfect definition of an atheist?
(a) Ram worships Lord Krishna and visits temples everyday.
(b) Srikanth does not wear any religious thread and does not let his brother wear any because he believes there is no supreme power.
(c) Ali does not eat any meat during holy month.
(d) Kriya visits the church every day.
Answer:

(D) Which of the following groups have declined in population since 1961?
(a) Hindus
(b) Scheduled Caste
(c) Muslims
(d) Scheduled Tribes
Answer:
(a) Hindus

Explanation: In percentage terms, the population of the Hindus, Jains and Christians has declined marginally since 1961. The proportion of Muslim, Sikh and Buddhist population has increased slightly.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Partly due to their efforts and partly due to other socio-economic changes, castes and caste system in modern India have undergone great changes. With economic development, large scale URBANISATION, growth of literacy and education, OCCUPATIONAL MOBILITY and the weakening of the position of landlords in the villages, the old notions of CASTE HIERARCHY are breaking down.
Now, most of the times, in urban areas it does not matter much who is walking along next to us on a street or eating at the next table in a restaurant. The Constitution of India prohibited any caste-based discrimination and laid the foundations of policies to reverse the injustices of the caste system. If a person who lived a century ago were to return to India, she would be greatly surprised at the change that has come about in the country. Yet caste has not disappeared from contemporary India. Some of the older aspects of caste have persisted.

Even now most people marry within their own caste or tribe.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following leaders have contributed in changing the caste system?
(a) EVRPeriyar
(b) Abdul Kalam
(c) Pt. Nehru
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
(a) EV R Periyar

(B) Which of the following has not been instrumental in changing the Caste system in India?
(a) Urbanisation
(b) Growth of literacy and education
(c) Occupational Mobility
(d) Change in geography of a country
Answer:
(d) Change in geography of a country

(C) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
……………. is an old aspect of caste which has persisted even today.
(a) Caste marriages
(b) Widow remarriage
(c) Untouchability
(d) Child marriage
Answer:
(c) Untouchability
Explanation: Other social issues do not relate to Caste groups in general.

(D) Which of the following is the correct definition of Caste Hierarchy?
(a) Caste hierarchy is a ladder-like formation in which all caste groups are placed from the ‘highest’ to the ‘lowest’ caste.
(b) Caste hierarchy is a pool of castes.
(c) Caste hierarchy is a bucket of castes where they are arranged according to alphabets.
(d) Caste hierarchy is a ladder-like formation in which all lingual groups are attached.
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Unlike gender differences, the religious differences are often expressed in the field of politics.
Consider the following: Gandhiji used to say that religion can never be separated from politics. What he meant by religion was not any particular religion like Hinduism or Islam but moral values that inform all religions. He believed that politics must be guided by ethics drawn from religion. Human rights groups in our country have argued that most of the victims of communal riots in our country are people from religious minorities. They have demanded that the government take special steps to protect religious Minorities. Women’s movement has argued that FAMILY LAWS of all religions discriminate against women. So they have demanded that governments should change these laws to make them more equitable.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following beliefs about religion and Politics were that of Gandhiji?
(a) Religion and politics can never be together.
(b) Religion and politics complete each other.
(c) Religion is important for politics to be ethical
(d) Politics is important for religion to sustain.
Answer:

(B) Which one of the following is not a cause of communalism?
(a) Religion as the basis of the nation.
(b) One religion pitted against the other.
(c) State with an official religion.
(d) Religion-less state.
Answer:
(d) Religion-less state.
Explanation: Religion causes communalism when expressed negatively. A religion-less state will never face the issue of communalism.

(C) Which of the following groups form a religious minority?
(a) Scheduled Castes
(b) Jains
(c) Children below 2 years
(d) Underprivileged people
Answer:
(c) Jains
Explanation: The other three are not religious minorities.

(D) Which of the following laws are discriminatory according to women?
(a) Civic Laws
(b) Criminal Laws
(c) Family Laws
(d) Moral Laws
Answer:
(c) Family Laws
Explanation: The other three are non- discriminatory towards any group.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention one special feature of the caste system in India?
Answer:
In most societies, occupations are passed on from one generation to another. Occupational divisions are sanctioned by rituals.

Question 2.
Name a few political leaders and social reformers who advocated and worked to establish a society without any inequalities
Answer:

Question 3.
What does the term ‘Scheduled’ denote in ‘Scheduled castes’ and ‘Scheduled tribes’?
Answer:
These groups include hundreds of castes or tribes whose names are listed in an official Schedule in the Indian Constitution. Hence, they are called Scheduled.

Question 4.
What was the child sex ratio in India in the 2011 census?
Answer:
The child sex ratio is 919 females to 1000 males.

Question 5.
Read the following information and write a single term for it.
The Constitution of India provides freedom to profess and practice any religion to all its citizens. The Constitution of India prohibits discrimination on religious grounds.
Answer:
The Constitution of India promotes Secularism.

Question 6.
“Caste system is still prevalent in the Indian society.” Suggest anyone measure to abolish it.
Answer:
Casteism can be abolished by providing educational, employment opportunities, and health facilities to all the citizens of the country without any prejudice or discrimination.

Question 7.
“Sometimes elections are all about castes in India.” How can this situation be avoided?
Answer:

Question 8.
Suggest any one way to protect women from domestic oppression.
Answer:
Educating women can help them stay aware. This way, they can also learn about various laws made for their protection and save themselves from domestic oppression.

Question 9.
Suggest any one way to create communal harmony among various communities of India.
Answer:
One way to create communal harmony among communities is to respect and accept all religions equally.

Question 10.
Suggest any one way to change ‘family laws’ of all religions.
Answer:

Question 11.
How much representation do local governments provide for women in India?
Answer:
One-Third of all the seats present in the institutions are reserved for women.

Question 12.
What do you mean by patriarchal society?
Answer:
Patriarchal society is a male-dominated social system wherein males hold primary and maximum power. In this society, women are not given equal chances.

Question 13.
In which constitutional institution have seats been reserved for women?
Answer:
Local Self Government bodies.

Question 14.
By what term is a p jrson known who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women?
Answer:
Feminist

Question 15.
State any one provision in the Indian constitution which makes India a secular state.
Answer:

Question 16.
Has the caste system really disappeared from India? Justify with reasons.
Answer:
No, the Caste System has not disappeared. Politics is still dominated by religion and caste.

Question 17.
What is urbanisation ?
Answer:
Urbanisation is the shift of population from rural areas to urban areas.

Question 18.
Mention any one of the factors that are decisive in elections.
Answer:

Question 19.
Stdte any one negative result of paying exclusive attention to caste in a democracy.
Answer:
This can lead to diversion of interest and attention from poverty, development and corruption.

Question 20.
How has the relationship between caste and economic status changed?
Answer:
It is possible to find very rich and very poor people in every caste which was not true decades ago. Thus , there are cases where caste and economic status are different.

Question 21.
Define Below Poverty line?
Answer:
Below the poverty line means those who spent Rs. 327 or less per person per month in rural and Rs. 454 or less per person per month in urban areas

Question 22.
What is sexual division of labour ?
Answer:
It is a system in which work is divided based on one’s gender.

Explanation: All work inside the home is either done by the women of the family, or organised by them through the domestic helpers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 1 साखी with Answers

March 1, 2023

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 1 साखी with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided साखी Class 10 Hindi Sparsh MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-hindi-sparsh-chapter-1/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 1 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

साखी Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Sakhi Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
बिरह भुवंगम तन बसै मन्त्र न लागे कोय | का भाव स्पष्ट कीजिये |
(a) जब शरीर में किसी से बिछुरने का दुःख हो तो कोई दवा या मन्त्र काम नहीं करता
(b) मन्त्र जपने से सेहत अच्छी होती है
(c) जब दुःख हो तो मन्त्र काम करते हैं
(d) कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) जब शरीर में किसी से बिछुरने का दुःख हो तो कोई दवा या मन्त्र काम नहीं करता

Kabir Ki Sakhi Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
कबीर के अनुसार कौन ज्ञानी नहीं बन पाया ?
(a) मोती पुस्तके पढ़ने वाला
(b) मोटी पुस्तके पढ़ने वाला
(c) दूसरों को ज्ञान देने वाला
(d) अज्ञानी

Answer

Answer: (b) मोटी पुस्तके पढ़ने वाला

Kabir Ki Sakhi Class 10 Hindi MCQ Question 3.
दीपक दिखाई देने से अँधेरा कैसे मिट जाता है ?
(a) कोई भी नहीं
(b) बादल दूर होते हैं
(c) अहंकार रुपी माया दूर होती है जब ज्ञान रुपी दीपक दिखाई देता है
(d) माया दूर होती है जब ज्ञान रुपी दीपक दिखाई देता है

Answer

Answer: (c) अहंकार रुपी माया दूर होती है जब ज्ञान रुपी दीपक दिखाई देता है

Sakhi MCQ Class 10 Question 4.
कबीर के अनुसार सुखी कौन है ?
(a) सांसारिक लोग जो सोते और खाते हैं
(b) आध्यात्मिक लोग
(c) लालची लोग
(d) सांसारिक लोग जो खाते हैं

Answer

Answer: (a) सांसारिक लोग जो सोते और खाते हैं

Saakhi Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
अपने स्वभाव को निर्मल रखने के लिए कबीर ने क्या सुझाव दिया है ?
(a) निंदक को नमस्ते करने को कहा है
(b) निंदक से दूर रहने को कहा है
(c) निंदक पास रखने को कहा है
(d) निंदा पास रखने को कहा है

Answer

Answer: (c) निंदक पास रखने को कहा है

Kabir Class 10 MCQ Question 6.
कबीर का जन्म कब और कहाँ हुआ ?
(a) १३९८ में काशी में
(b) १३२१ में बोधगया में
(c) १३५४ में उत्तराखंड में
(d) १३९५ में काशी में

Answer

Answer: (a) १३९८ में काशी में

Kabir Ki Sakhi MCQ Question 7.
दोहा छंद के क्या लक्षण हैं ?
(a) १३ और ११ के विश्राम से २४ मात्रा
(b) १२ और ११ के विश्राम से २४ मात्रा
(c) १२ और ११ के विश्राम से २८ मात्रा
(d) १३ और ११7के विश्राम से २४ मात्रा

Answer

Answer: (d) १३ और ११7के विश्राम से २४ मात्रा

Kabir Sakhi Class 10 MCQ Question 8.
कबीर की साखियों में किन भाषाओं का स्पष्ट प्रभाव दिखाई देता है ?
(a) अवधी
(b) राजस्थानी
(c) भोजपुरी और पंजाबी
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) सभी

Kabir Ke Dohe Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
साक्ष्य का क्या अर्थ है ?
(a) प्रत्यक्ष ज्ञान
(b) साक्ष्य ज्ञान
(c) सांसारिक ज्ञान
(d) मायावी ज्ञान की

Answer

Answer: (a) प्रत्यक्ष ज्ञान

Class 10 Hindi Sakhi MCQ Chapter 1 Question 10.
साखी शब्द किसका तद्भव रूप है ?
(a) साक्षी
(b) साखी
(c) सखि
(d) साक्ष्य

Answer

Answer: (b) साखी

Question 11.
कवि कैसा प्रकाश फैलाना चाहते हैं?
(a) ज्ञान का
(b) घृणा का
(c) दिये का
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) ज्ञान का

Question 12.
‘पोथी पढ़ि-पढ़ि’ में कौन-सा अलंकार है?
(a) अनुप्रास
(b) यमक
(c) श्लेष
(d) उपमा

Answer

Answer: (a) अनुप्रास

Question 13.
‘अषिर’ का क्या अर्थ है?
(a) शब्द
(b) पंक्ति
(c) पुस्तक
(d) अक्षर

Answer

Answer: (d) अक्षर

Question 14.
राम और कस्तूरी में क्या समानता है?
(a) दोनों तरल पदार्थ हैं।
(b) दोनों सुगंधित हैं।
(c) दोनों वन में रहते हैं।
(d) दोनों भीतर स्थित हैं।

Answer

Answer: (d) दोनों भीतर स्थित हैं।

Question 15.
कुंडलि का अर्थ है
(a) नाभि
(b) छंद
(c) मृग
(d) मन

Answer

Answer: (a) नाभि

Question 16.
बिरही मनुष्य की स्थिति कैसी होती है?
(a) वह बहुत खुश रहता है
(b) वह रोता रहता है
(c) उस पर कोई उपाय असर नहीं करता
(d) वह पागलों जैसा हो जाता है

Answer

Answer: (d) वह पागलों जैसा हो जाता है

Question 17.
“जिवै तो बौरा होइ’ का आशय है
(a) जीवन नहीं रहता।
(b) जीवित रहता है तो पागल जैसा हो जाता है
(c) जीवित रहने पर सुखी नहीं रहता
(d) मर जाता है

Answer

Answer: (b) जीवित रहता है तो पागल जैसा हो जाता है

Question 18.
‘सुखिया सब संसार है’ में कौन-सा अलंकार है
(a) अनुप्रास
(b) यमक
(c) उत्प्रेक्षा
(d) रूपक

Answer

Answer: (a) अनुप्रास

Question 19.
सारे संसार के सुखी होने का क्या कारण है?
(a) सारा संसार वास्तविक आनंद लूट रहा है
(b) सारा संसार खाने-पीने और सोने में मस्त है
(c) सारा संसार प्रभु के प्रति सजग है
(d) क्योंकि सभी सांसारिक सुखों को अंतिम सत्य मानते हैं

Answer

Answer: (d) क्योंकि सभी सांसारिक सुखों को अंतिम सत्य मानते हैं

Question 20.
‘मन का आपा खोने’ का क्या तात्पर्य है?
(a) मन का खो जाना
(b) अपने आप में खोना
(c) अहंकार को त्यागना
(d) अहंकार को अपनाना

Answer

Answer: (c) अहंकार को त्यागना

Question 21.
मीठी वाणी का औरों पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है?
(a) दूसरे क्रोधित हो जाते हैं
(b) दूसरे सुख और संतोष का अनुभव करते हैं
(c) दूसरे मीठी वाणी सुनकर दुखी हो जाते हैं
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (b) दूसरे सुख और संतोष का अनुभव करते हैं

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 1 साखी with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding साखी CBSE Class 10 Hindi Sparsh MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Chapter 20 विप्लव गायन with Answers

March 1, 2023

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 20 विप्लव गायन with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided विप्लव गायन Class 7 Hindi MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-7-hindi-with-answers/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Chapter 20 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

विप्लव गायन Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Class 7 Hindi Chapter 20 MCQ Question 1.
कवि अपनी कविता के माध्यम से आह्वान कर रहा है
(a) स्वतंत्रता सेनानियों
(b) देशवासियों से
(c) नवयुवकों से
(d) सेना से।

Answer

Answer: (c) नवयुवकों से

Viplav Gayan MCQ Class 7 Question 2.
‘उथल-पुथल मचने’ से कवि का क्या अभिप्राय है?
(a) विद्रोह का होना
(b) क्रांति का आगमन होना
(c) आँधी का आना
(d) समाज में परिवर्तन का होना।

Answer

Answer: (b) क्रांति का आगमन होना

Class 7 Hindi Ch 20 MCQ Question 3.
कवि देशवासियों को कैसी तान सुनाना चाहता है?
(a) प्राचीन परंपराओं को समाप्त करने की
(b) परिवर्तन एवं नवनिर्माण करना
(c) बदलाव की
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी।

Answer

Answer: (d) उपर्युक्त सभी।

MCQ Questions For Class 7 Hindi Chapter 20 Question 4.
इस कविता के रचयिता कौन हैं?
(a) रामधारी सिंह दिनकर
(b) बालकृष्ण शर्मा ‘नवीन’
(c) सुमित्रानंदन पंत
(d) सूर्यकांत त्रिपाठी ‘निराला’।

Answer

Answer: (b) बालकृष्ण शर्मा ‘नवीन’

Ncert Class 7 Hindi Chapter 20 MCQ Class 7 Question 5.
कवि कैसा गीत नहीं लिख पा रहा है-
(a) रुद्र गीत
(b) क्रांति गीत
(c) मारक गीत
(d) प्रेम गीत।

Answer

Answer: (c) मारक गीत

Viplav Gayan Extra Questions Class 7 Question 6.
कवि की वीणा में कैसी चिनगारियाँ आ बैठी हैं?
(a) शांति की
(b) भ्रांति की
(c) क्रांति की
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी।

Answer

Answer: (c) क्रांति की

Class 7th Hindi Chapter 20 MCQ Question 7.
यह गीत कैसा गीत है?
(a) वीरतापूर्ण
(b) ओजस्वी
(c) रौद्र
(d) हास्य।

Answer

Answer: (b) ओजस्वी

(1)

कवि कुछ ऐसी तान सुनाओ-
जिससे उथल पुथल मच जाए,
एक हिलोर इधर से आए,
एक हिलोर उधर से आए।
सावधान! मेरी वीणा में
चिनगारियाँ आन बैठी हैं,
टूटी हैं मिज़राबें, अंगुलियाँ
दोनों मेरी ऐंठी हैं।

Class 7 Hindi Chapter 20 Extra Questions Question 1.
कवि और कविता का नाम लिखिए।

Answer

Answer: कवि का नाम-बालकृष्ण शर्मा ‘नवीन’
कविता का नाम-विप्लव-गायन।

Question 2.
कवि अपनी कविता के माध्यम से किसका आह्वान कर रहा है?

Answer

Answer: कवि अपनी कविता के माध्यम से नवयुवकों से अह्वान करना चाहता है।

Question 3.
कवि कैसी तान सुनना चाह रहा है।

Answer

Answer: कवि ऐसी तान सुनाना चाह रहा है जिससे चारों ओर उथल-पुथल मच जाए यानी क्रांति का आगमन हो जाए।

Question 4.
कवि की वीणा में से कैसे स्वर निकल रहे हैं?

Answer

Answer: कवि की वीणा से चिनगारी जैसे क्रांतिकारी स्वर निकल रहे हैं।

Question 5.
कवि की अँगुलियाँ क्यों ऐंठ जाती हैं ?

Answer

Answer: वीणा में क्रांति के स्वर निकालने के क्रम में कवि की अँगुलियाँ ऐंठ जाती हैं।

Question 6.
कवि किसके पक्षधर हैं ?

Answer

Answer: कवि शोषितों (किसान-मज़दूरों) का पक्षघर है।

(2)

कंठ रुका है महानाश का
मारक गीत रुद्ध होता है,
आग लगेगी क्षण में, हृत्तल में
अब क्षुब्ध-युद्ध होता है।
झाड़ और झंखाड़ दग्ध है
इस ज्वलंत गायन के स्वर से,
रुद्ध-गीत की क्रुद्ध तान है
निकली मेरे अंतरतर से।

Question 1.
कवि विनाश के गीत क्यों गाना चाहता है?

Answer

Answer: कवि विनाश के गीत इसलिए गाना चाहता है, क्योंकि विध्वंस पर ही नवनिर्माण होता है।

Question 2.
कवि की स्थिति क्या हो गई है ?

Answer

Answer: कवि का कंठ रुक गया है और वह चाहकर भी मारक गीत नहीं लिख पा रहा है। सब उसके हृदय में शासन के प्रति क्रोध, आक्रोश और घृणा के भाव जाग गए हैं।

Question 3.
महानाश का मारक गीत रुक क्यों जाता है ?

Answer

Answer: महानाश के मारक गीत इसलिए रुक गए हैं, क्योंकि मारक गीत के स्वर वीणा से निकलते क्रम में कवि की अँगुलियाँ ऐंठ जाती हैं जिसके कारण कंठ अवरुद्ध हो जाता है और मारक गीत रुक जाता है।

Question 4.
क्रांति के गीत में क्या होगा?

Answer

Answer: इस क्रांति के गीत से विद्रोह की ज्वाला भड़केगी। इसका प्रभाव पूरे संसार पर पड़ेगा।

Question 5.
क्रांति गीत का ज्वलंत गायन स्वर किसे जलाकर राख कर देता है?

Answer

Answer: क्रांति का ज्वलंत गायन स्वर जड़ता और अंधविश्वास जैसे उन झाड़-झंखाड़ को राख कर देता है, जो विकास और गतिशीलता के मार्ग में अवरोध बनकर खड़े हैं।

(3)

कण-कण में है व्याप्त वही स्वर
रोम-रोम गाता है वह ध्वनि,
वही तान गाती रहती है,
कालकूट फणि की चिंतामणि ।
आज देख आया हूँ-जीवन के
सब राज़ समझ आया हूँ,
भ्रू-विलास में महानाश के
पोषक सूत्र परख आया हूँ।

Question 1.
कण-कण में कौन-सा स्वर व्याप्त है?

Answer

Answer: कण-कण में क्रांति के स्वर व्याप्त हैं।

Question 2.
कवि के गीत का क्या प्रभाव होगा?

Answer

Answer: कवि के गीत का प्रभाव दूर-दूर तक जाएगा।

Question 3.
कवि को जीवन का क्या राज समझ में आ गया है?

Answer

Answer: कवि के जीवन का यह राज समझ में आ गया कि क्रांति के बिना नव-निर्माण या परिवर्तन संभव नहीं है।

Question 4.
इस काव्यांश में कवि का कौन-सा विश्वास प्रकट होता है?

Answer

Answer: इस काव्यांश में कवि का विश्वास प्रकट होता है कि शेष नाग जैसी अपनी मणि की चिंता करता है वैसे ही हर व्यक्ति के हृदय में यह गीत गूंजेगा और नव निर्माण की चिंता करेगा।

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 20 विप्लव गायन with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 7 Hindi विप्लव गायन MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity with Answers

March 1, 2023

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-science-with-answers/

Electricity Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Electricity Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The values of mA and µA are:
(a) 10^-6 and 10^-9 A respectively
(b) 10^-3 and 10^-6 A respectively
(c) 10^-3 and 10^-9 A respectively
(d) 10^-6 and 10^-3 A respectively
Answer:
(b) 10^-3 A and 10^-6 A.

Explanation: An ampere is the SI unit of electric current
1A = 1000mA Or 1mA = $\frac{1 \mathrm{~A}}{1000}$ = 10³A

∴ 1 µA = 10^-3 × 10^-3 A = 10^-6A

Electricity MCQ Class 10 Question 2.
A cylindrical conductor of Length ‘l’ and uniform area of cross-section ‘A’ has resistance ‘R’. Another conductor of Length 2.5 1 and resistance 0.5 R of the same material has area of cross-section.
(a) 5A
(b) 2.5A
(c) 0.5A
(d) $\frac{1}{5}$ A

Class 10 Electricity MCQ Question 3.
Identify the circuit in which the electrical components have been properly connected.

(a) (I)
(b) (II)
(c) (III)
(d) (IV)
Answer:
(b) (II)

Explanation: In figure (I), the voltmeter is connected in series (not parallel). Similarly, in figure (III). the ammeter ¡s in parallel which should be in series. In figure (IV), the negative terminal of battery has been connected to the positive terminal of the ammeter, whereas it should be connected to the negative terminal

Related Theory:
Essential conditions when components connected:

The voltmeter should be connected in parallel
The ammeter should be connected in series.
Positive terminals of the voltmeter arid ammeter should be connected to the positive terminal of the cell and their negative removals should be joined to the negative terminal of the cell

Electricity Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
If a person has five resistors each of value Ω, then the maximum resistance he can obtain by connecting them ¡s:
(a)1 Ω
(b)5 Ω
(c) 10 Ω
(d) 25 Ω
Answer:

MCQ On Electricity Class 10 Question 5.
What is the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors, each of $\frac{1}{5}$ Ω?
(a) $\frac{1}{5}$ Ω
(b) $\frac{1}{25}$ Ω
(c) $\frac{1}{10}$ Ω
(d) 25 Ω
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 12 MCQ Question 6.
The resistance of a resistor is reduced to half of its initial value. In doing so, if other parameters of the circuit remain unchanged, the heating effects in the resistor will become:
(a) two times
(b) half
(c) one-fourth
(d) four times
Answer:
(a) two times

Explanation: Resistance of a resistor R Q New resistance of a resistor Q

All other parameters of the circuit remain unchanged

By applying Joule’s law of heating H = I²Rt

As per Ohms Law V = IR Or I = $\frac{V}{R}$

Hence, the heating effect in the resistor will become two times if all other parameter of the circuit remain same.

Class 10 Science Chapter 12 MCQ With Answers Question 7.
At the time of short circuit, the electric current in the circuit:
(a) vary continuously
(b) does not change
(c) reduces substantially
(d) increases heavily
Answer:

MCQ Electricity Class 10 Question 8.
Two bulbs of 100 Ω and 40 Ω are connected in series. The current through the 100 Ω bulb is 1 A. The current through the 40 Ω bulb will be:
(a) 0.4 A
(b) 0.6 A
(c) 0.8 A
(d) 1A
Answer:
(d) 1 A

Explanation:

In a series combination of resistors (bulbs) the current is the same in every part of the circuit as current does not change in series combination so both the bulbs get equal amount of current Hence the current through the 40 Ωbulb will be 1A.

Ch 12 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
When a 4 V battery is connected across an unknown resistor there is a current of 100 mA in the circuit. The value of the resistance of the resistor is:
(a) 4 Ω
(b) 40 Ω
(c) 400 Ω
(d) 0.4 Ω
Answer:
(b) 40 Ω
V = IR, V = 4 V,
I = 100 mA = 0.1 A
Hence R = $\frac{V}{1}=\frac{4}{0.1}$ Ω = 40 Ω.

Class 10 Science Ch 12 MCQ Question 10.
The equivalent resistance of a series combination of two resistances is X Ohm. If the resistance are of 10 Ohm and 40 Ohm respectively, the value of X will be:
(a) 10 Ohm
(b) 20 Ohm
(c) 50 Ohm
(d) 40 Ohm [Diksha]
Answer:

Class 10 Physics Electricity MCQ Question 11.
Unit of electric power may also be expressed as:
(a) volt-ampere
(b) kilowatt-hour
(c) watt-second
(d) joule-second
Answer:

Class 10 Electricity MCQ Questions Question 12.
if the resistance of a certain copper wire is 1 Ω, then the resistance of a similar nichrome wire will be about:
(a) 25 Ω
(b) 30 Ω
(c) 60 Ω
(d) 45 Ω
Answer:
(c) 60 Ω

Explanation: if the resistance of a certain copper wire is 1 Ω, the resistance of a similar nichrome wire will be about 60 Ω because the resistivity of nichrome is 60 times the resistivity of copper.

Electricity Class 10 MCQ Learn Cbse Question 13.
The resistivity of a certain material is 0.6 Ω m, The material is most likely to be:
(a) an insulator
(b) a superconductor
(c) a conductor
(d) a semiconductor
Answer:

MCQs On Electricity Class 10 Question 14.
A cell, a resistor, a key, and an ammeter are arranged as shown in the circuit diagrams of the figure. The current recorded in the ammeter will be:

(a) Maximum in (I)
(b) Maximum in (II)
(c) Maximum in (III)
(d) The same in all the cases
Answer:
(d) The same in all the cases

Explanation: In series connections, the order of elements in the circuit will not affect the amount of current flowing in the circuit.

Class 10 Science Electricity MCQ Question 15.
The instrument used for measuring electric current is:
(a) galvanometer
(b) ammeter
(c) voltmeter
(d) potentiometer
Answer:

MCQs Of Electricity Class 10 Question 16.
A student plots V-l graphs for three samples of nichrome wire with resistances R₁, R₂ and R₃. Choose from the following the statement that holds true for this graph.

(a) R₁ = R₂ = R₃
(b) R₁ > R₂ > R₃
(c) R₃ > R₂ > R₁
(d) R₂ > R₁ > R₃
Answer:
(d) R₂ > R₁ > R₃

Explanation: As is clear from the graph, the current for A₂ conductor is less than A₁ and A₁ is Less than A₃. We can say IA₂ < IA₁ < IA₃
R₂ > R₁ > R₃ (AS, R = V)

Chapter 12 Class 10 Science MCQ Question 17.
The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance $\frac{1}{2}$ Ω is:
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 1 Ω
(c) 2.5 Ω
(d) 8 Ω
Answer:
(a) 2 Ω

$The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance $\frac{1}{2}$ Ω is:$

Explanation: When a number of resistances are connected in series the resultant resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances and is greater than any individual resistance. Four resistors are given:

Hence, the maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance $\frac{1}{2}$ Ω is 2 Ω.

Electricity Class 10 MCQs Question 18.
A current of 2 A is drawn by a conductor on applying a potential difference of 6 V across its ends. The number of electrons passing through a cross-section of the conductor and the heat generated in the conductor in 8 seconds is:

Number of Electrons Passing in 8 s	Heat Generated in 8 s
(a) 1.6 × 10^-20	24J
(b) 10²⁰	96J
(c) 1.28 × 10^-18	3.6 × 10⁶J
(d) 10³⁰	96J

Answer:

Class 10th Science Chapter 12 MCQ Question 19.
The resistivity of four wires A, B, C, and D are of the order of 10¹², 10^-6, 10^-8, and 10¹⁴ respectively. !f the wires are of equal lengths and equal areas of cross-section, then select the row containing the correct information:

Resistance	Nature
(a) Resistance of C will be the least	C is the conductor best of electricity
(b) Resistance of A will be the largest	A is a good conductor of electricity
(c) Resistance of B will be the largest	B is a poor conductor of electricity
(d) Resistance of D will be the least	D is the conductor best of electricity

Answer:

Question 20.
Given below are four statements on resistance of a conductor. Select the incorrect statements:
(I) If in an electric circuit, the resistance is doubled the voltage also gets doubled.
(II) If in an electric circuit, the resistance is halved the current gets doubled.
(III) Variable resistance is a component used to regulate voltage without changing the current.
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: According to Ohm’s law, V = IR.
Therefore, l = $\frac{V}{R}$.

It means that if resistance R is doubled, the current gets halved, but the voltage remains the same. Similarly, if resistance is halved, currently gets doubled.

Question 21.
Given below are four statements about resistivity. Select the incorrect statements:
(I) Resistivity is a characteristic property of the material and varies with temperature.
(II) Resistivity depends on the length and area of the cross-section of the conductor.
(III) Metals and alloys have very low resistivity and are good conductors of electricity.
(IV) Insulators have low resistivity of the order of 10¹² to 10¹⁷ Ohm.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (iV)
Answer:

Question 22.
Select the correct statements from the statements given below:
(I) In a parallel circuit the current is constant throughout the electric circuit.
(II) In a parallel circuit the other components keep working even if one component fails.
(III) In a series circuit when one component fails, the circuit is broken and the other components stop working.
(IV) in a series circuit, the current is divided among the electrical gadgets depending upon their resistance.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III), and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: In a series circuit, the current is constant through the electric circuit and if one component fails, the other components also stop working. Whereas in a parallel circuit, the current is divided among the different components depending upon their resistance, and if one component fails, the other components keep working.

Question 23.
The unit of potential difference is:
(a) JC
(b) J/C
(c) J
(d) C/J
Answer:
(b)J/C

Explanation: Potential difference between two points in an electric field of a given charge is defined as the work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another. As V = $\frac{W}{q}$ , the unit of potential difference is Joule/ Coulomb or J/C.

Question 24.
If both the length of a conductor and its radius is doubled, the ratio of new resistance and original resistance will be:
(a) 1:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 1: 2
Answer:

Question 25.
When a 2 Ω resistor is connected across the terminals of a 6 V battery, the charge (in coulombs) passing through the resistor per second is:
(a) 0.5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Explanation: The charge passing through a resistor per second is the same as the current passing through the resistor since current is defined as the rate of flow of charges. The current flowing is found by using Ohm’s law, V = IR. Therefore, I = V/R = 6/2 = 3A, which is the same as the charge passing in one second.

Question 26.
A battery of 6V is connected in series with resistors of 0.1 ohms, 0.2 ohms, 0.3 ohms, 0.4 ohms, and 2 ohms. How much current would flow through the 0.3-ohm resistor?
(a) 0.895A
(b) 1.2 A
(c) 2 A
(d) 3 A

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 12

For the following questions, two statements are given – One labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R), select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c), and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 27.
Assertion (A): At high temperatures, metal wires have a greater chance of short-circuiting.
Reason (R): Both resistance and resistivity of a material vary with temperature.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: At high temperatures, the free electrons start moving at a greater speed and more heat is evolved. The increased amount of heat melt the insulation of wires and wires have a greater chance of short-circuiting. Sometimes the short circuit may even melt the wire and it may cause fire.

Both resistance and resistivity vary with temperature. When the temperature is increased, the random motion of electrons increases. As a result the number of collisions increases between atoms and electrons.

Question 28.
Assertion (A): When two ends of a metallic wire are connected across the terminals of a cell, then some potential difference is set up between its ends. The direction of electrons are from a positive terminal to negative terminal of the cell.
Reason (R): Electrons are flowing through the conductors from its higher potential to its lower potential end. [Diksha]
Answer:

Question 29.
Assertion: A fuse wire is always connected in parallel with the mainline.
Reason: If a current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit, fuse wire melts.
Answer:

Question 30.
Assertion(A): Electric appliances with the metallic body have three pin connection, whereas an electric bulb has a two pin connection.
Reason (R): Three pin connection reduce heating of connecting wires. [Diksha]
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: The three connection of electric appliances with metallic body are live wire, neutraL wire and earth wire. The live and neutraL wire supply electric current to the appliance, whereas the earth wire, which is connected to the metal body of the electric appliance, protects us from electric shock in case we touch the metal body of appliances.

In case of an electric shock, the current passes directly to the earth through the earth wire and we do not feel the electric shock.

On the contrary, three-pin connection do not reduce heating of connecting wires.

Question 31.
Assertion (A): In a purely resistive circuit, the source energy is dissipated in the form of heat.
Reason (R): The potential difference across the ends of a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it.
Answer:

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices like electric ion and heater.
Reason (R): Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals but the alloys have low melting points then their constituents, metals.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.

Related Theory
Alloys have more resistivity than of its constituent elements because alloys have better properties than that of metals. Resistivity is the property of a material that explains how strongly the material opposes flow of electrons. Higher the resistivity, smaller will be the conductivity i.e. why alloys are used in electrical heating devices.

Metals have a higher melting point as the atoms are arranged in a regular manner and form a strong bond whereas alloys are made up of different metals. The different sizes of atoms in an alloy make their arrangement less regular than a pure metal. This makes the bonds between the atoms weaker and lowers the melting point.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
The following table given below shows the resistivity of three materials X. Y and Z Analyse the table and answer the following questions:

(A) Arrange the samples in increasing order of conductivity.
Answer:
Conductivity is inversely proportional to resistivity so Y < X < Z.

(B) Which of these is the best conductor?
Answer:
Z is the best insulator as it has the least resistivity.

(D) Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon:
(a) Its length
(b) Its thickness
(c) Its shape
(d) Nature of the material
Answer:
(d) Nature of the material

Explanation: The resistivity of a material depends on the nature and the temperature of the conductor, but not its shape and size.

Question 2.
Shivani 8 had studied in her class that an electric bulb consists of a filament made up of a metal having high melting point such as tungsten. Also, the bulbs are filled with a chemically inert gas such as nitrogen or argon to prolong the life of filament.

A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of anelectric bulb. The number of electrons passingthrough a cross-section of the filament in 16seconds would be roughly:
(a) 10²⁰
(b) 10¹⁶
(c) 10¹⁸
(d) 10²³
Answer:
(a) 10²⁰
Explanation: Electric current, 1 = 1 A Time, t = 16 seconds No. of electrons, n = ?

We know that current is the amount of electric charge passing through a given point of conductor in 1 second.

The number of eectrons flowing is 1020 electrons.

Question 3.
The following table given below shows the information about two heaters A and B. Analyse the table and answers the following questions:

(A) Which Heater has higher resistance?
(B) If 1KWh is priced at 30 paise, which heater wilt be costlier if they run for 1 hours each?

Question 4.
Prateek bought a new battery for his Laptopas the earlier battery would not stay charged for more than 5 minutes. He Learnt that a battery consisted of celLs combined together in a particular manner.

The proper representation of series combination of cells obtaining maximum potential is:

(a) (I)
(b) (II)
(c) (III)
(d) (IV)

Question 5.
Take a nichrome wire, a torch bulb, a 10 W bulb and an ammeter (0 – 5 A range), a plug key and some connecting wires. Set up the circuit by connecting four dry cells of 1.5 V each in series with the ammeter leaving a gap XV in the circuit, as shown in Fig. below.

Complete the circuit by connecting the nichrome wire in the gap XY Plug the key. Note down the ammeter reading. Take out the key from the plug. Replace the nichrome wire with the torch bulb in the circuit and find the current through it by measuring the reading of the ammeter. Now repeat the above step with the 10 Wbu(bin the gap XY

Next, complete an electric circuit consisting of a cell and ammeter, a nichrome wire of Length l [say, marked (1)] and a plug key, as shown in Fig. below.

Now, plug the key. Note the current in the ammeter. Replace the nichrome wire by another riichrome wire of same thickness but twice the length, that is 21 [marked (2) in the Fig. Note the ammeter reading. Now replace the wire by a thicker nichrome wire, of the same length l [marked (3)]. A thicker wire has a larger cross-sectional area. Again note down the current through the circuit Instead of raking a nichrome wire, connect a copper wire [marked (4) in Fig.] in the circuit Let the wire be of the same length and same area of cross-section as that of the first nichrome wire [marked (1)].
(A) The observation regarding ammeter readings on connecting the different components nichrome wire, torch bulb and a 10 w bulb in the gap XY is tabulated below.
Select the row containing the correct observation and its explanation.

Observation	Explanation
(a) Reading of ammeter will be same in all cases	Current flowing in a circuit depends only on the potential difference
(b) Reading of ammeter will be same in all cases	All the components used are good conductors of electric current.
(c) Reading of ammeter will be different for different	All components resist the flow of electric current by different amounts components
(d) Reading of ammeter will be different for different components	All components offer equal resistance to the flow of electric current.

Answer:
(c) Observation: Reading of ammeter will be different for different components: Explanation: All components resist the flow of electric current by different amounts

Explanation: The current is different for different components as certain components offer an easy path for the flow of electric current while the others resist the flow. The motion of electrons through a conductor isretarded by its resistance.

(B) Refer to the second activity and select the incorrect observations:
(I) The ammeter reading will be same in both cases when nichrome wire, marked (1), and copper wire, marked (4), both of length l and area of cross-section A are connected one by one in the circuit.
(II) The ammeter reading will be different in both cases when nichrome wire, marked (1), and copper wire, marked (4), both of same length and cross-section are connected one by one in the circuit.
(III) The current will be double when nichrome wire, marked (2), of length 21 and area of cross-section A is connected as compared to nichrome wire, marked (1) of length l and area of cross-section A.
(IV) The current will be double when nichrome wire, marked (3), of length l and area of cross-section 2A is connected as compared to nichrome wire, marked (1) of length l and area of cross-section A.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (II)

Explanation: The ammeter reading will be different in both cases when nichrome wire, marked (1), and copper wire, marked (4), both of same length and cross section are connected one by one in the circuit. This is because copper and nichrome are made up of different materials and resistance of a wire depends on the nature of the material.

The current will be double when nichrome wire, marked (3), of length l and area of cross section 2A is connected as compared to nichrome wire, marked (1) of length l and area of cross section A. This is because a thicker wire offers lesser resistance and hence current flowing will be more through a thicker wire as compared to a thinner wire. However, on increasing the length of a conductor to 21. the resistance also becomes double and therefore current decreases to half of its value.

(C) Select the incorrect statement:
(a) The flow of electrons within a conductor is restrained by the attraction of the atoms among which they move.
(b) The electrons are completely free to move within a conductor.
(c) The motion of electrons through a conductor is retarded by its resistance.
(d) A component of a given size that offers a low resistance is a good conductor.
Answer:

(D) What will be the effect on current flowing in the circuit when length is made double?
(a) Current will remain same
(b) Current will become double
(c) Current will become half
(d) Current will become four times
Answer:

(E) What will be the least count of an ammeter of range 0 – 1.5 A shown below:

(a) 0.1 A
(b) 0.2 A
(c) 0.02 A
(d) 0.05 A
Answer:

Question 6.
Wires used for electrical connections have different properties and hence different ratings. So, one must select wires of proper rating to be used for different appliances as different appliances have different requirements.

Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire-depends upon:
(a) Its Length
(b) Its thickness
(c) Its shape
(d) Nature of the material

Question 7.
Join three resistors of different values, say, 1 Ω, 2Ω and 3 Ω etc.. and a battery of 6 Vin series. Connect them with a battery, an ammeter and a plug key, as shown in Fig. below.

Plug the key. Note the ammeter reading. Change the position of ammeter to anywhere in between the resistors. Note the ammeter reading each time.

In the next activity. insert a voltmeter across the ends X and Y of the series combination of three resistors as shown in Fig. below. Plug the key in the circuit and note the voltmeter reading. It gives the potential difference across the series combination of resistors. Let it be V. Now measure the potential difference across the two terminals of the battery. Compare the two values. Take out the plug key and disconnect the voltmeter. Now insert the voltmeter across the ends X and P of the first resistor, as shown in

Plug the key and measure the potential difference across the first resistor. Let it be V1. Similarly, measure the potential difference across the other two resistors, separately. Let these values be V2 and V3, respectively.

(A) Refer to the first activity and circuit diagram at fig. 1. A student recorded his observations in a tabuLar form as shown below. SeLect the row containing correct observations/readings.

Answer:
(a) Position of Ammeter: Between battery and 1 O resistor as shown in figure; Ammeter Beading: 1A; Voltmeter Reading: 6 V.

Explanation: The value of the current in the ammeter is the same and does not depend on its position in the electric circuit.
The total resistance resistance = R1 + R2 + R3 = 6 D.
Therefore, reading of ammeter = I = V / R = 6/6 A = 1 A

(B) Select the correct concLusion based the observations recorded in activity 1 above:
(I) The resistances R1, R2 and R3 are connected in series in the activity.
(II) In a series combination of resistors the current is different in different parts of the circuit.
(III) In a series combination of resistors the current is the same through each resistor.
(IV) In a series combination of resistors the potential difference is the same across each resistor.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(C) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(C) In the second activity (refer fig. 2), the values of potential difference V, V₁, V₂ and V₃ are:
(a) V = 6 V, V₁ = 1 V, V₂ = 2 V, V₃ = 3 V
(b) V = 6 V, V₁ = 1V, V₂ = 2 V, V₃ = 3 V
(c) V = 6 V, V₁ = 1 V, V₂ = 2 V, V₃ = 3 V
(d) V = 6 V, V₁ = 1 V, V₂ = 2 V, V₃ = 3 V
Answer:
(d) V = 6 K V₁ = 1 V, V₂ = 2 K V₃ = 3 V

Explanation: The potential difference across the resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ can be calculated by applying Ohm’s law.
As current I = 1 A, V₁ = IR₁ = 1 V. Similarly, V₂ = 2 V and V₃ = 3V.
The potential difference V is equal to the sum of potential differences V1, V2, and V3.

(D) Which of the following relations for V and I is correct for a series combination of three resistors as shown above?
(a) I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
(b) V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃
(c) $\frac{1}{V}=\frac{1}{V_{1}}+\frac{1}{V_{2}}+\frac{1}{V_{3}}$
(d) $\frac{1}{I}=\frac{1}{I_{1}}+\frac{1}{I_{2}}+\frac{1}{I_{3}}$
Answer:

(E) Suppose in the above activity, each resistance is doubled. Select the correct observation:
(a) The total current is doubled
(b) The potential difference is doubled
(c) The total current is halved
(d) The potential difference is halved.
Answer:

Question 8.
Rahman wanted to change the electric bulb in his study room as he felt that the present bulb was not bright enough for him to study properly. So, he called the electrician. The electrician came and changed the bulb by holding the illuminated bulb with a piece of cloth as the bulb was very hot.

The temperature of the filament of bulb is 2700°C when it glows. Why does it not getburnt up at such high temperature?
Answer:

Question 9.
Electric force is the force that pushes apart two like charges, or that pulls together two unlike charges. The electric potential (also called the electric field potential, potential drop, the electrostatic potential) is the amount of work energy needed to move a unit of electric charge (a Coulomb) from a reference point to the specific point in an electric field. The graph of variation of electric potential arising from a point charge Q with distance r from the charge q is shown below:

Note: Both the charges Q and q are positive charges.
(A) The conclusion that can be made from the above graph between electric potential (V) and distance (r) from the given charge is:
(I) The electric potential decreases as the point charge Q is brought near the given charge q.
(II) The electric potential of a given charge q is inversely proportional to the distance of the point charge from the given charge.
(III) Work is done on a charge to move it closer to another charge of the same sign.
(IV) Less energy is required to bring the point charge Q closer to the given charge q.
Which of the above conclusions are correct?
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)

(B) The unit of electric potential is:
(a) J/C
(b) JC
(c) J/s
(d) J/A

(C) The work done in moving a charge of 5 C across two points having a potential difference 12 V is:
(a) 2.4 J
(b) 60 J
(c) 0.42 J
(d) 120 J

(D) The instrument which is used to measure potential difference between two points and type of connection is given below. Select the row containing the correct information.

Name of instrument	Type of connection
(a) Ammeter	Series
(b) Voltmeter	Parallel
(c) Voltmeter	Parallel
(d) Voltmeter	Series

(E) When 120 J work is done to move 8 C charge from one point to another in an electric field, the potential difference developed between the two points is:
(a) 15 V
(b) 960 J
(c) 960 V
(d) 7.5 V
Answer:
(D) (c) Name of instrument: Voltmeter; Type of connection: Parallel
Explanation: The instrument used to measure the potential difference between two points is voltmeter and is always connected in parallel across thepoints between which the potential difference is to be measured.

Question 10.
Potentiometers, or spots” for short, are used for volume and tone control in electric guitars. They allow us to alter the electrical resistance in a circuit at the turn of a knob. The guitar pickups provide the voltage and current source, while the potentiometers provide the resistance. From Ohm’s Law, we can see how increasing resistance decreases the flow of current through a circuit while decreasing the resistance increases the current flow. If two circuit paths are provided from a common voltage source, more current will flow through the path of least resistance.

We can visualize the operation of a potentiometer from the drawing below.

Imagine a resistive track connected from terminal 1 to 3 of the pot. Terminal 2 is connected to a wiper that sweeps along the resistive track when the potentiometer shaft is rotated from 0° to 300°. This changes the resistance from terminals 1 to 2 and 2 to 3 simultaneously, while the resistance from terminals 1 to 3 remains the same. As the resistance from terminal 1 to 2 increases, the resistance from terminal 2 to 3 decreases, and vice-versa.

(A) When we turn the knob in the potentiometer or pots used in electric guitars, it alters the:
(a) Resistivity of the circuit
(b) Resistance in the circuit
(c) Voltage in the circuit
(d) Effective resistance of the circuit.
Answer:

(B) Four statements are given below regarding the “cold” and “hot” terminals in the diagram of potentiometer.
Select the correct statements:
(I) The “cold” terminal refers to 0° rotation of the potentiometer shaft and the “hot” terminal refers to 300° rotation of potentiometer shaft.
(II) The “cold” terminal refers to 300° rotation of the potentiometer shaft and the “hot” terminal refers to 150° rotation of potentiometer shaft.
(III) When shaft is at “cold” terminal, resistance in the circuit is maximum, whereas it is minimum when shaft is at “hot” terminal.
(IV) When shaft is at “cold” terminal, resistance in the circuit is minimum, whereas it is maximum when shaft is at “hot” terminal.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: When the potentiometer shaft is turned at 0°, it refers to the “cold” terminal and at this position the resistance is minimum. When the potentiometer shaft is turned at 300°, it refers to the “hot’’ terminal and at this position the resistance is maximum.

(C) When the shaft undergoes 50% rotation, the effective resistance between its terminals is:
(a) R
(b) R/3
(c) 2R
(d) R/2
Answer:

(D) The device that is used to change resistance in a circuit is:
(a) Rheostat
(b) Fuse
(c) Transformer
(d) Circuit breakers
Answer:
(a) Rheostat

Explanation: in many cases it may be necessary to increaseor decrease the current in an electric circuit. A component used toregulate current without changing the voltage source is called variabLeresistance. In an electric circuit, a device called rheostat is used tochange the resistance in the circuit.

(E) The table below lists the change in resistance of a wire on changing the physical parameter such as length (l) and area of cross section (A) of the wire. Select the row containing the income Answer:

Change in Parameter	Change in Value of Resistance
(a) Length is tripled	Resistance becomes three times
(b) Area is halved	Resistance becomes double
(c) Wire is pulled to double its Length	Resistance becomes double
(d) Diameter is doubted	Resistance becomes one fourth

Answer:

Question 11.
Ohm law’s application ranges from household appliances like heaters to the high tension wires and massive projects like rockets and spaceships. Ohm’s law is used to maintain the desired voltage drop across the electronic components. Ohm’s law is also used in dc ammeter and other dc shunts to divert the current. We can control the speed of the fans at our homes by moving the regulator to and fro. Here the current flowing through the fan is controlled by regulating the resistance through the regulator. A circular knob on the component can be rotated to achieve a variable resistance on the output terminals. For any specific value of the input, we can calculate the resistance, current and thus power flowing through Ohm’s Law.

(A) Refer to the figure-2 above. Select the row containing the correct information:

Answer:

(B) The current flowing through a fan is controlled by:
(a) Regulating the voltage through the regulator
(b) Regulating the speed through the regulator
(c) Regulating the resistance through the regulator
(d) Regulating the resistivity through the regulator
Answer:

(C) A resistance of 5 ohms is further drawn so that its length becomes double. Its resistance will now be:
(a) 20 ohms
(b) 10 ohms
(c) 7.5 ohms
(d) 5 ohms
Answer:

(D) For a fixed supply voltage the current flowing through a conductor will decrease when
(a) The cross-sectional area of the conductor is increased
(b) The length of the conductor is increased
(c) The length of the conductor is decreased
(d) The cross-sectional area is increased and length is decreased
Answer:

(E) Observe the V-l graph plotted below and select the incorrect observations:

(I) The graph between current (I) and potential difference (V) is a straight line not passing through the origin.
(II) With increase in potential difference, current flowing through the conductor increases.
(III) The slope of the above graph gives the resistivity of the conductor.
(IV) The resistance of the given conductor is 25 Ohm.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (111) and (IV)
Answer:

(C) (a) 20 ohms
Explanation: When a 5 ohm resistance is drawn so that its length becomes double, the area of cross section becomes half. As
R = ρ$\frac{l}{A}$ = 5 Ohm, the new resistance will be A
R’ = ρ$\frac{2l}{A/2}$ = 4 × ρ$\frac{l}{A}$ = 4 × 5 = 20 Ohm.

Question 12.
Electric heaters, toasters, geysers, iron and kettles are common appliances used throughout the world. The heaters have a metal coil that has high resistance that permits a certain amount of current to flow through them to provide the required heat as per the Joule’s law of heating. The electric kettle and irons have a lot of resistors in them. The resistors limit the amount of current to flow through them to provide the required amount of heat. The size of resistors used in them is determined by using Ohm’s Law.

(A) According to Joule’s law of heating, the heat produced in a resistor in time t is:
(I) Directly proportional to the square of current for a given resistance
(II) Inversely proportional to the potential difference across the resistance
(III) Directly proportional to resistance for a given current
(IV) Inversely proportional to the time for which the current flows through the resistor.
Select the correct statements.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
Answer:
(d) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: According to Joule’s law of heating, the heat produced in a resistor in time t is given by H = Pt = Vlt = l²Rt ⇒H ∝ l², H ∝ R, H ∝ t

(B) If the resistance of a resistor is reduced to half of its initial value, potential difference remaining unchanged, the heating effects in the resistor will become:
(a) Half
(b) One fourth
(c) Two times
(d) Four times
Answer:

(C) Another common application of Joule’s heating is the fuse used in electric circuits. Select the incorrect statement regarding fuse:
(a) It protects circuits and appliances by stopping the flow of any unduly high electric current.
(b) The fuse is placed in parallel with the device.
(c) It consists of a piece of wire made of a metal or an alloy of appropriate melting point.
(d) If a current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit, the fuse wire melts and breaks the circuit.
Answer:

(D) Consider an electric iron which consumes 1 kW electric power when operated at 220 V. The table below gives the rating of ideal fuse that should be used in this case and the heat generated in the electric iron in 30 seconds.

Ideal Rating of Fuse (A)	Heat Generated in 30 s (J)
(a) 4A	3.0 × 10⁴
(b) 10A	1.0 × 10⁴
(c) 5A	3.0 × 10⁴
(d) 5A	3.6 × 10⁶

Answer:

(E) A resistance of 30 ohm is connected to a 6 V battery. The heat energy in joules generated per minute will be:
(a) 72 J
(b) 144 J
(c) 288 J
(d) 36 J
Answer:
(A)
(E) (a)72J
Explanation: The heat generated in a resistor is given by Joule’s law of heating,
H = I²Rt.
Here, I = $\frac{V}{R}=\frac{6}{30}$ = 0.2A , R = 30 Ohm and t = 60 s.
Therefore, H = (0.2)² × 30 × 60 = 72 J

Question 13.
Electrical energy is the energy derived from electric potential energy or kinetic energy of the charged particles. In general, it is referred to as the energy that has been converted from electric potential energy. In many cases it is necessary to calculate the energy usage by an electric device or a collection of devices, such as in a home. The electrical energy (E) used can be reduced either by reducing the time of use or by reducing the power consumption of that appliance or fixture. This will not only reduce the cost, but it will also result in a reduced impact on the environment. Improvements to lighting are some of the fastest ways to reduce the electrical energy used in a home or business. About 20% of a home’s use of energy goes to lighting, while the number for commercial establishments is closer to 40%. A few common electrical appliances and their power ratings are given below:

Load Types	Power Ratings
(1) Light bulbs (incandescent)	60W, 80W, 100W
(2) Electric (steam) iron	2400W
(3) Standing fan	70W
(4) Water heater/Kettle	2000W
(5) Electric blender	350W
(6) Refrigerator	200W
(7) Microwave oven	1200W
(8) Hand dryer	1800W

(A) Which of the following can be concluded from the table shown above?
(I) The energy consumption of an electrical appliance depends on the power rating and the usage time.
(II) The larger the power rating in the electrical appliance, the lesser is the energy used every second.
(III) The Longer the usage time, the more electrical energy is consumed.
(IV) Appliances that have a heating effect usually have a high power rating and consume more electricity.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

(B) An electrical water heater/kettle which is marked 2000 W, 220 V means that:
(a) The electric kettle will consume 2000 J of electrical energy every 1 second if it is connected to a 220 V supply.
(b) The electric kettle will consume 7.2 X 10⁶ J of electrical energy every 1 second if it is connected to a 220 V supply.
(c) The electric kettle will consume 440 J of electrical energy every 1 second if it is connected to a 220 V supply.
(d) The electric kettle will consume 3.6 X 10⁶ J of electrical energy every 1 second if it is connected to a 220 V supply.

(C) Students calculated the number of electrical units consumed daily by operating a hand dryer (Power rating 1800 W) for 2 h daily on a supply of 220 V, the total electrical energy consumed in the month of June (in Joule) and the cost of electricity for the month of June if one unit costs Rs. 5.50 and assuming that no other appliance is used.
Select the row containing the correct entries.

(D) The resistance of the refrigerator (Power rating 200 W, 220 V) is:
(a) 44 kilo Ohm
(b) 44 Ohm
(c) 242 Ohm
(d) 484 Ohm

(E) If the microwave oven and the electric blender of power ratings 1200 W and 350 W respectively are both used for 5 hours daily, the electrical energy consumed in a day is:
(a) 6.0 units
(b) 7.75 units
(c) 15.5 units
(d) 232.5 units
Answer:
(E) (b) 7.75 units

Explanation: The electrical energy consumed in a day is given by E = Pt = 1200 × 5 + 350 × 5 Wh = 7750 Wh = 7.75 kWh or 7.75 units

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define resistance. Give its S.i. unit.
Answer:

Question 2.
Define the term electrical resistivity of a material.
Answer:
Electrical resistivity is defined as the electrical resistance of a conductor having cross¬sectional area 1 m2 and a length 1 m.

Related Theory

SI unit of electrical resistivity is ohm m (Wm)
It is a characteristic property of the material and varies with temperature.
Metals and alloys have very low resistivity but insulators have very high resistivity.

Question 3.
How will the heat produced in a resistor R change if its resistance is reduced to half of its initial value, other parameters of the circuit remain unchanged?
Answer:

Question 4.
The temperature of the filament of bulb is 2700°C when it glows. Why does it not get burnt up at such high temperature?
Answer:
Filament of bulb is made using strong metals having high melting points such as Tungsten which has melting point of 3380 °C, which is higher than the temperature at which it glows

Question 5.
Should the resistance of an ammeter below or high? Give reason.
Answer:

Question 6.
Two unequal resistances are connected in parallel. If you are not provided with any other parameters (eg. Numerical value of I and R). What can be said about the voltage drop across the tow resistors?
Answer:

Voltage-drop is same across both the resistors. Explanation: In parallel connection, all the elements are connected between same two points hence the voltage drop across any number of resistors or other elements
Connected in parallel is same. Thus the voltage drop across the two resistors is same

Question 7.
Some work is done to move a charge Q from infinity to a point A in space. The potential of the point? A is given as V. What is the work done to move this charge from infinity in terms of Q and V?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 3 Constitutional Design with Answers

March 1, 2023

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 3 Constitutional Design with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Constitutional Design Class 9 Civics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

Constitutional Design Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Constitutional Design Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India on
(a) 26 January 1950
(b) 26 November 1949
(c) 26 January 1949
(d) 15 August 1947

Answer

Answer: (b) 26 November 1949

Constitutional Design Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Which of the following sentences is wrong about Dr B.R. Ambedkar?
(а) He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
(b) He was born in Maharashtra.
(c) He was law minister in post-independence India.
(d) He was the founder of the Republican Party of India.

Answer

Answer: (b) He was born in Maharashtra.

Class 9 Constitutional Design MCQ Question 3.
Who among the following was not the member of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) T.T. Krishnamachari
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer

Answer: (a) Mahatma Gandhi

Class 9 Civics Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
Nelson Mandela remained in the jail for
(a) 28 years
(b) 29 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 31 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 28 years

Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Constitutional Design Question 5.
Apartheid in South Africa was discrimination on the basis of
(a) gender
(b) religion
(c) race
(d) economic status

Answer

Answer: (c) race

Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 Constitutional Design MCQs With Answers Question 6.
How many members had the Constituent Assembly that wrote the Indian Constitution?
(a) 200
(b) 199
(c) 198
(d) 190

Answer

Answer: (b) 199

MCQ On Constitutional Design Class 9 Question 7.
Which of the following terms is not included in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
(a) Liberty
(b) Equality
(c) Secular
(d) Religion

Answer

Answer: (d) Religion

MCQ Of Civics Class 9 Chapter 2 Constitutional Design Question 8.
The Indian Constitution came into effect on
(a) 26 January 1949
(b) 26 January 1950
(c) 26 January 1952
(d) 26 November 1950

Answer

Answer: (b) 26 January 1950

Class 9 Civics Chapter 3 MCQ Question 9.
On what charges was Nelson Mandela sentenced to life imprisonment?
(a) For treason
(b) For breaking the laws
(c) For corruption charges
(d) for possessing illegal property

Answer

Answer: (a) For treason

MCQ Of Constitutional Design Class 9 Question 10.
In which way did the system of apartheid discriminate among the South Africans?
(a) Restricted social contacts between the races
(b) Segregation of public facilities
(c) Created race-specific job categories
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Constitutional Design MCQ Class 9 Question 11.
why did the white regime decide to change its policies?
(a) Increase in protests and struggles
(b) Government realised that repression was becoming difficult
(c) Rise of sympathetic attitude in government for the blacks
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

Ch 3 Civics Class 9 MCQ Question 12.
when did South Africa become a democratic country?
(a) 26 April, 1995
(b) 26 April, 1994
(c) 24 March, 1994
(d) 27 April, 1996

Answer

Answer: (b) 26 April, 1994

MCQ Questions For Class 9 Civics Chapter 2 Constitutional Design Question 13.
Name the autobiography of Nelson Mandela.
(a) The Long Walk to Freedom
(b) South Africa Wins Freedom
(c) Walk to Freedom
(d) Our Freedom

Answer

Answer: (a) The Long Walk to Freedom

Class 9 Civics Ch 3 MCQ Question 14.
what did the white minority want from the new Constitution?
(a) Protect its privileges and property
(b) A separate country for themselves
(c) Reservation in legislature
(d) some special rights

Answer

Answer: (a) Protect its privileges and property

Class 9 Civics Constitutional Design MCQ Question 15.
which of the following sentences is correct?
(a) All countries that have constitutions are necessarily democratic
(b) All countries that are democratic necessarily have constitutions
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above)

Answer

Answer: (b) All countries that are democratic necessarily have constitutions

Question 16.
Where was the 1931 session of Indian National Congress held?
(a) Nagpur
(b) Karachi
(c) Calcutta
(d) Delhi

Answer

Answer: (b) Karachi

Question 17.
According to which Act were the elections held to provincial legislatures in India in 1937?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1909
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Government of India Act, 1935

Question 18.
which revolution in the world inspired the Indians to set up a socialist economy?
(a) French Revolution
(b) Turkish Revolution
(c) Russian Revolution
(d) American War of Independence

Answer

Answer: (c) Russian Revolution

Question 19.
when did the Assembly adopt the Constitution?
(a) 26 November, 1949
(b) 26 December, 1949
(c) 26 January, 1950
(d) 26 January, 1949

Answer

Answer: (a) 26 November, 1949

Question 20.
How many amendments were considered before adopting the Constitution?
(a) Around 500
(b) Around 2000
(c) Around 1550
(d) Around 1000

Answer

Answer: (b) Around 2000

Question 21.
Who among these leaders was a bitter critic of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer

Answer: (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 22.
The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values. What is it called?
(a) Preface
(b) Preamble
(c) Introduction
(d) Article

Answer

Answer: (b) Preamble

Question 23.
which of these countries is/are examples of a Republic?
(a) USA
(b) India
(c) South Africa
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 24.
which of these positions is correct in relation to the ‘Sovereign’ status of India?
(a) USA can decide India’s foreign policy
(b) USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here
(c) The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies
(d) Pakistan can control India’s Armed Forces

Answer

Answer: (c) The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies

Question 25.
which of the following days is celebrated to mark the enforcement of the constitution?
(a) Republic Day
(b) Independence Day
(c) Gandhi Jayanti
(d) Constitution Enforcement Day

Answer

Answer: (a) Republic Day

Question 26.
The Constituent Assembly met for how many days?
(a) 114
(b) 280
(c) 365
(d) 150

Answer

Answer: (a) 114

Question 27.
When did the Indian constitution come into force?
(a) 26th Nov, 1949
(b) 15th August, 1947
(c) 26th Jan, 1950
(d) 26th Jan, 1930

Answer

Answer: (c) 26th Jan, 1950

Question 28.
When was the Constitution of India adopted?
(a) 26th Nov, 1949
(b) 26th Jan, 1949
(c) 26th Jan, 1950
(d) 26th Nov, 1950

Answer

Answer: (a) 26th Nov, 1949

Match the Following:

Column A	Column B
1. Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Munshi	a. Captain of the first national hockey team
2. Jawaharlal Nehru	b. Leader of the Communist Party of India
3. Somnath Lahiri	c. Three times the president of Congress
4. Baldev singh	d. Founder of the Swatantra Party
5. Jaipal Singh	e. Education Minister in the first union cabinet
6. Rajendra Prasad	f. Defence Minister in the union cabinet
7. Abul Kalam Azad	g. Advocate of socialism, democracy and anti-imperialism

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Munshi	d. Founder of the Swatantra Party
2. Jawaharlal Nehru	g. Advocate of socialism, democracy and anti-imperialism
3. Somnath Lahiri	b. Leader of the Communist Party of India
4. Baldev singh	f. Defence Minister in the union cabinet
5. Jaipal Singh	a. Captain of the first national hockey team
6. Rajendra Prasad	c. Three times the president of Congress
7. Abul Kalam Azad	e. Education Minister in the first union cabinet

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution with Answers

March 1, 2023

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-science-with-answers/

Heredity and Evolution Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to pure short plants in F₂ generation will be:
(a) 1: 3
(b) 3:1
(c) 1:1
(d) 2:1
Answer:
(c) 1:1

Explanation: The genotype ratio of F₂ generation is: TT: Tt: tt = 1: 2: 1. Therefore, the ratio of TT and tt plants of F₂ generation will be the same.

Heredity Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Two pink-colored flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink, and 1 white flower progeny. The nature of the cross will be:
(a) Double fertilization
(b) Self-pollination
(c) Cross-fertilization
(d) No fertilization
Answer:
(c) Cross-fertilization

Explanation: The nature of the cross will be cross fertilization, which is the transfer of pollen from one plant to the stigma of flower; borne on a different plant of the same species.

Related Theory:

Self-pollination: Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower of the same plant.
Cross-pollination: Transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower.
Double fertilization: This process occurs when one male nucleus fertilizes (fuses) with the egg cell to form a zygote cell and the other male nucleus fuses (fertilizes) with two polar nuclei to cause triple fusion. These two types of fertilization take place at the same time in the ovule of the plant.

Heredity And Evolution MCQ Question 3.
In human males, all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. These unpaired chromosomes are:
(I) Large chromosome
(II) Small chromosome
(III) Y chromosome
(IV) X chromosome
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (III) and (II)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Class 10 Heredity And Evolution MCQ Question 4.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) For every hormone there is a gene.
(b) For every protein there is a gene.
(c) For production of every enzyme there is a gene.
(d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene.
Answer:
(d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene. Explanation: A section of DNA that provides information for one protein is called the gene for that protein. Hormones and enzymes are proteins, and the formation of any particular protein is controlled by a particular gene. Fat biosynthesis occurs through metabolic reaction. They are not related to genes.

MCQ On Heredity And Evolution Question 5.
Which one is a possible progeny in F2 generation of purebred tall plant with round seed and dwarf plant with wrinkled seeds?
(a) Tall plant with round seeds
(b) Tall plant with wrinkled seeds
(c) Dwarf plant with round seed
(d) All of the above

Heredity And Evolution MCQ Questions Question 6.
If a round, green-seeded pea plant (RR yy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant, (rr YY), the seeds production in the F₁ generation are:
(a) Round and yellow
(b) Round and green
(c) Wrinkled and green
(d) Wrinkled and yellow
Answer:
(a) Round and yellow

Explanation: The cross between RR yy and rr YY seeds will obtain RrYy offspring which will exhibit round and yellow phenotype, as these traits are the dominant ones.

MCQ Questions On Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 7.
A zygote which has an X chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a:
(a) Boy
(b) Girl
(c) X chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
(d) Either boy or girl
Answer:
(b) Girl

Explanation: Humans follow XX- XY mechanism of sex determination i.e., women are XX while men are XY. All children will inherit an X chromosome from their mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls. Thus, the sex of the children will be determined by what they inherit from their father. A child who inherits an X chromosome from her father will be a girl and the one who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a boy.

Heredity MCQ Class 10 Question 8.
Select the incorrect statement:
(a) The frequency of certain genes in a population change over several generations resulting in evolution.
(b) The reduction in the weight of an organism due to starvation is genetically controlled.
(c) Low weight parents can have heavy weight progeny.
(d) Traits which are not inherited over generations do not cause evolution.
Answer:

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Question 9.
Select the correct statement:
(a) The tendril of a pea plant and the phylloclade of Opuntia are homologous.
(b) The tendril of a pea plant and the phylloclade of Opuntia are analogous.
(c) The wings of birds and the limbs of lizards are analogous.
(d) The wings of bird and the wings of bats are homologous.
Answer:

MCQs On Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 10.
If the fossil of an organism is found in the deeper layers of earth, then we can predict that:
(a) The extinction of the organism occurred recently.
(b) The extinction of the organism occurred thousands of years ago.
(c) The fossil position in the layers of Earth is not related to its time of extinction.
(d) The time of extinction cannot be deter¬mined.
Answer:
(b) The extinction of the organism occurred thousands of years ago.

Explanation: If we dig into the earth and start finding fossils, the fossils we find closer to the surface are more recent than the fossils we find in deeper layers.

Related Theory
Depth of each stratum signifies the relative age of fossils present in it. The deeper the stratum, the older the rock and the fossils present in it

Class 10 Science Chapter 9 MCQ Question 11.
A trait in an organism is influenced by:
(a) Paternal DNA only
(b) Maternal DNA only
(c) Both maternal and paternal DNA
(d) Neither paternal nor maternal DNA
Answer:
(c) Both maternal and paternal DNA

Explanation: DNA is contributed to an offspring by both the parents; hence, traits are influenced by both maternal and paternal DNA. During sexual reproduction, both mother and father pass their genes to their children, thus determining their traits; or characteristic features.

MCQ Of Heredity And Evolution Question 12.
New species may be formed if:
(I) DNA undergoes significant changes in germ cells.
(II) The chromosome number changes in the gamete.
(III) There is no change in the genetic material.
(IV) Mating does not take place.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:

MCQ On Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 13.
which of the following statements is not true with respect to variation?
(a) All variations in a species have equal chances of survival.
(b) Change in genetic composition results in variation.
(c) Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis of evolutionary processes.
(d) Variation is minimum in asexual reproduction.
Answer:

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 14.
According to the evolutionary theory, for¬mation of a new species is generally due to:
(a) Sudden creation by nature.
(b) Accumulation of variations over several generations.
(c) Clones formed during asexual reproduction.
(d) Movement of individuals from one habitat to another.
Answer:

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ Learn Cbse Question 15.
The theory of the evolution of species by natural selection was given by:
(a) Mendel
(b) Darwin
(c) Morgan
(d) Lamarck
Answer:

Question 16.
Some dinosaurs had feathers although they could not fly but birds have feathers that help them to fly. In the context of evolution this means that:
(a) Reptiles have evolved from birds.
(b) There is no evolutionary connection between reptiles and birds.
(c) Feathers are homologous structures in both the organisms.
(d) Birds have evolved from reptiles.
Answer:

Question 17.
Select a set of homologous organs from the following:
(a) Wings of a bat and wings of a butterfly
(b) Wings of a pigeon and wings of a bat
(c) Wings of a butterfly and wings of a pigeon
(d) Forelimbs of a duck, forelimbs of a cow and forelimbs of a lizard
Answer:
(d) Forelimbs of a duck, forelimbs of a cow and forelimbs of a lizard

Explanation: Wings of a bat and wings of a butterfly (A), Wings of a pigeon and wings of a bat (B) and Wings of a butterfly and wings of a pigeon (C) are analogous organs as they all use wings for flying but the wings have different structures.

Bat wings consist of flaps of skin stretched between the bones of the fingers and arm, wings of pigeon consist of feathers extending all along the arm whereas butterfly wings are covered in scales.

On the other hand, Forelimbs of a duck, forelimbs of a cow and forelimbs of a lizard are homologous organs as they all have similar structures which have been modified to perform different functions.

Question 18.
Select the correct statements regarding monohybrid cross between a pure tall pea plant and pure short pea plant performed by Mendel:
(I) All plants of the F₁ generation were tall.
(II) The tall plants in the F₁ generation were exactly the same as the tall plants of the parent generation
(III) One-quarter of the F₂ progeny of the F₁ tall plants were short.
(IV) Both the tallness and shortness traits were inherited in the F₁ plants
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: When a pure tall pea plant is crossed with a pure short plant, it was observed that all plants of the F₁ generation were tall. But the tall plants in the F₁ generation were not exactly the same as the tall plants of the parent generation. The genotype of the pure tall plant is TT, whereas the genotype of the tall plant in the F₁ generation was Tt. The ratio of the tall and short plants in the F₂ generation was 3:1. As 25 % of the pea plants in the F₂ generation were tall, it means that both the shortness (t) and tallness (T) trait were inherited in the FI plants.

Question 19.
Which of the following are acquired traits?
(I) Attached or free earlobe
(II) Muscular body of a wrestler
(III) Body weight of starving animals
(IV) Brown and curly hair
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 20.
Consider the plants the pitcher plant, venus fly trap, poinsettia and cactus.
Select the row containing incorrect information regarding the leaves of these plants in terms of evolutionary relationships.

(a) Leaves of these plants are homologous organs	The leaves are structurally similar but modified to perform different functions
(b) Leaves of these plants are analogous organs	The leaves are structurally dissimilar but perform similar functions
(c) Leaves of these plants are vestigial organs	Leaves are homologous to similar leaves in other plants
(d) Leaves of these plants are neither homologous nor analogous	The leaves have no structural or functional similarity

Answer:

Question 21.
Study the organs and evolutionary relationship mentioned alongside. Select the row containing incorrect information.

Organs Relationship	Evolutionary
(a) limbs of human being and frog	Homologous organs
(b) wings of bird and bat	Analogous organs
(c) Thorns and spines in plants	Analogous organs
(d) Tendril of pea plant and grape plant	Homologous organs

Answer:
(d) Organs: Tendril of pea plant and grape plant; Evolutionary Relationship: Homologous organs

Explanation: Thorn is modification of stem and spine is modification of leaf. Tendrils in plant show similar function but they are different in origin. Pea plant has Leaf tendril whears. Grape plant has Stem tendril

Question 22.
which of the statements regarding evolution is correct?
(a) One species is always eliminated in order to give rise to a new species.
(b) The newly formed species are better than the old species.
(c) Evolution is the generation of diversity and the shaping of the diversity by environmental selection.
(d) More and more complex body designs have emerged over time as the older designs are ineffcient.
Answer:

Question 23.
which of the following cannot be an outcome of Mendel’s Experiment on crossing a tall pea plant with a short pea plant?
(a) 3 tall 1 short plant
(b) 4 tall plants and 1 medium height plant.
(c) 24 tall and 8 short plants
(d) 8 tall and 0 short plants
Answer:

Question 24.
Which of the following have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes?
(a) Only Girls
(b) Only Boys
(c) Both girls and boys
(d) It depends on many other factors
Answer:
(a) Only Girls

Explanation: Girls have a perfect paired 23rd chromosome, which is XX, whereas boys have a mismatched 23rd pair of chromosomes, which is XY.

Question 25.
Select the incorrect option.
Genetic drift is:
(a) A mechanism of evolution in which allele frequencies of a population remain constant over generations.
(b) It occurs in all populations of non-infinite size, but its effects are strongest in small populations.
(c) It may result in the loss of some alleles.
(d) It can have major effects when a population is sharply reduced in size by a natural disaster.
Answer:

Question 26.
Select the group which shares the maximum number of common characters:
(a) Two individuals of a species
(b) Two species of a genus
(c) Two genera of a family
(d) Two genera of two families
Answer:

Question 27.
Select the statements that describe the characteristics of genes:
(I) Genes are specific sequence of bases in a DNA molecule.
(II) A gene does not code for proteins.
(III) In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome.
(IV) Each chromosome has only one gene.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (I) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) (I) and (III)

Explanation: Genes are units of heredity and are responsible for inheritance. Genes control the expression of a trait or a character in an organism. Genes are located on the chromosomes, which is present inside the nucleus of the cell in the crytoplasm.

Question 28.
The number of pair(s) of sex chromosomes in the zygote of humans is:
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 9

For the following questions, two statements are given: one Labeled Assertion (A) and the other Labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 29.
Assertion (A): The wing of an insect and wing of a bird are analogous organs
Reason (R): The organs which are quite different in fundamental structure and origin but perform the same function in different species are called analogous organs
Answer:

Question 30.
Assertion (A): The sex of a child in human beings will be determined by the type of chromosome he/ she inherits from the father.
Reason (R): A child who inherits ‘X‘ chromosome from his father would be a girl (XX), while a child who inherits a ‘Y‘ chromosome from the father would be a boy (XY).
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: Human beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes. Out of which one pair is sex chromosomes and 22 pairs are autosomes. In men, sex chromosome pair is mismatched pair ‘XY‘, ‘X‘ is normal sized and Y is shorter than ‘X‘ chromosomes. Human females have ‘XX chromosomes. Males produce two types of sperms whereas females produce only one ovum having ‘X’ chromosomes. A child who inherits the ‘X’ chromosome from a father would be a girl ‘(XX)’.

While a child who inherits a Y chromosome from the father would be a boy (XY).

Question 31.
Assertion: A geneticist crossed a pea plant having violet flowers with a peaplant with white flowers, he got all violet flowers in first generation.
Reason: White colour gene is not passed on to next generation.
Answer:

Question 32.
Assertion (A): New combination of traits are observed in F₂ offspring when tall plants with round seeds are crossed with short plants with wrinkled seeds.
Reason (R): Tallness and round seed are both dominant traits.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Lokesh was very fond of dogs. So, one day his friend called him to show a white dog and a black dog which he had recently got from his friend. Lokesh was wondering as to how different dogs have different colours!

Dogs having black coat colour when crossed with dogs having same colour, produced 200 offsprings. Out of this 150 were black and 50 were white. The genotype of dogs is:
(a) BB and bb (B: Black; b: white)
(b) Bb and bb (B: Black; b: white)
(c) Bb and Bb (B: Black; b: white)
(d) BB and Bb (B: Black; b: white)
Answer:
(a) BB and bb (B: Black; b: white)

Explanation: As the ratio of black: white dogs = 150 : 50 = 3 :1, black coat colour is dominant over white. Further, both black and white dogs are homozygous (BB and bb).

Question 2.
A giant 70 million year old fossil of a fish that lived amongst dinosaurs has been discovered in Argentine Patagonia, a team of researchers said on Monday.Argentine paleontologists “found the remains of a predator fish that was more than six meters long,” the researchers said in a statement.The discovery was published in the scientific journal Alcheringa: An Australasian Journal of Palaeontology.The fish “swam in the Patagonian seas at the end of the Cretaceous Period, when the temperature there was much more temperate than now,” the statement said.

Mention any two methods of estimating life of a fossil.
Answer:
The two methods of estimating the life of a fossil are:
(1) By digging the earth and start finding fossils. The fossils found closer to the surface are more recent as compared to the fossils found in deeper layers.
(2) By detecting the ratios of different isotopes of a radioactive element in the fossil material, such as Carbon-14.

Question 3.
Inheritance from the previous generation provides both a common basic body design, and subtle changes in it, for the next generation. The original organism at the top will give rise to two individuals, similar in body design, but with subtle differences. Each of them, in turn, will give rise to two individuals in the next generation. Each of the four individuals in the bottom row will be different from each other. While some of these differences will be unique, others will be inherited from their respective parents, who were different from each other. Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis for evolutionary processes.
(A) If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing species and a trait B exists in 60% of the same population, which trait is likely to have arisen earlier?
Answer:
Trait B is likely to have arisen earlier because in asexual reproduction traits are carried from parents to offspring with least variations so since trait B has higher percentage it is likely to have arisen earlier.

(B) How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival?
Answer:
The Y chromosome in the zygote

Explanation: A child who inherits an X chromo¬some from her father will be a girl and the one who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a boy. Thus the maleness of a child is determined by the presence of the Y chromosome in the zygote inherited from the father.

(C) Give any one factor that could lead to the rise of a new species?
Answer:
The factors could lead to the rise of a new species are:
(1) Natural Selection
(2) Method of Genetic Drift
(3) Gene Variation on Mutation
(4) Geographical and environmental factors

Related Theory
Specialtion is the process by which new species form. It occurs when groups in a species become reproductively isolated and diverge.

(D) Which of the processes, sexual reproduction or asexual reproduction, brings about maximum variations in the offsprings?
Answer:

Question 4.
When Simran visited the hospital, maternity ward to see her little brother born just a day before, she was pleasantly surprised to see so many new born babies in the hospital nursery. So, she thought, how many of these are male babies and how many are female?

The genetic makeup of a male embryo is determined by
(a) The X chromosome in the zygote
(b) The Y chromosome in the zygote
(c) The cytoplasm of the germ cell which determines the sex
(d) Sex is determined by chance
Answer:
(b) The Y chromosome in the zygote
Explanation: A chiLd who inherits an X chromosome from her father wilt be a girL and the one who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a boy. Thus the maleness of a chiLd is determined by the presence of the Y chromosome in the zygote inherited from the father.

Question 5.
In the F₂ generation of a cross, progeny having different traits are produced in the ratio 3:1.
(A) State whether it is a monohybrid cross or a dihybrid cross? Give one example of such a cross.
(B) Exchange of genetic material takes place in:
(a) Vegetative reproduction
(b) Asexual reproduction
(c) Sexual reproduction
(d) Budding
Answer:
It is a monohybrid cross.

Example: when two hybrids tall Pea plants crossbreed with each other they will produce three tall plants and one dwarf planet in the F₂ generation.

(C) A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall plants because:
(a) Tallness is the dominant trait
(b) Shortness is the dominant trait
(c) Tallness is the recessive trait
(d) Height of pea plant is not governed by gene ‘T’ or ‘t’
Answer:

Question 6.
Observe the ears of all the students in the class. The lowest part of the ear, called the earlobe, is closely attached to the side of the head in some of us, and not in others. Free and attached earlobes are two variants found in human populations.

Prepare a list of students having free or attached earlobes and calculate the percentage of students having each. Find out about the earlobes of the parents of each student in the class. Correlate the earlobe type of each student with that of their parents. Based on this evidence, suggest a possible rule for the inheritance of earlobe types.
The percentage of people having free earlobes and attached earlobes is shown below:

(A) Based on the findings in the NCERT activity, it can be concluded that:
(I) The gene responsible for free earlobes in dominant.
(II) The gene responsible for free earlobe may be dominant or recessive.
(III) The gene responsible for attached earlobe may be dominant or recessive.
(IV) The gene responsible for attached earlobe is recessive.
Select the correct statements.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) The earlobes of a child whose parents have free earlobes will be:
(a) Free earlobe
(b) Attached earlobe
(c) Can be free or attached earlobe
(d) Neither free nor attached
Answer:
(B) (c) Can be free or attached earlobe

Explanation: Parents with free earlobes can have both a copy of the dominant and recessive allele and they may give birth to a baby with free or attached earlobes.

(D) Mrs. and Mr. Sharma have six children. Three of them have attached eartobes Like their father, and the other three have free earlobes like their mother.
Taking F for free earlobes and f for attached earLobes, seLect the row containing the correct genotype of parents and children from the table below:

Answer:
(b) Mrs. Sharma: Ff; Mr. Sharma: Ff; Children with free earlobes: Ff; Children with attached earlobes: ff

Explanation: All of the individuals with attached earlobes must be ff. AIL of the individuals with free earlobes can be FF or ff. In this particular case, the parent having free earlobe has children who have attached earlobes, so that parent must have an f, and is thus Ff. And all of the children have one parent with attached earlobes, so they must also all have at Least one f, and are thus Ff. So the answer is, Mr. Sharma is ff, Mrs. Sharma is Ff. The three chiLdren with attached earlobes are ff, and the three with free earlobes are Ff.

(E) A child has attached earlobes.
Select the most appropriate statement regarding the earlobe of his/her parents.
(a) Earlobes of either parent may be attached or free.
(b) Both parents have attached earlobes.
(c) One parent has attached earlobes
(d) Cannot be determined.
Answer:

Question 7.
Natural selection is the differential survival and reproduction of individuals due to differences in phenotype. It is a key mechanism of evolution, the change in the heritable traits characteristic of a population over generations.

Charles Darwin popularized the term “natural selection”, contrasting it with artificial selection, which in his view is intentional, whereas natural selection is not.

Natural selection can cause microevolution (change in allele frequencies), with fitness-increasing alleles becoming more common in the population. Fitness is a measure of reproductive success (how many offspring an organism leaves in the next generation, relative to others in the group). Natural selection can act on traits determined by alternative alleles of a single gene, or on polygenic traits (traits determined by many genes). Natural selection on traits determined by multiple genes may take the form of stabilizing selection, directional selection, or disruptive selection.
(A) Which of the following are examples of natural selection?
(I) In an ecosystem, lizards that had long legs could climb better to avoid floods and reach food.
(II) Insects become resistant to pesticides very quickly, sometime in one generation and if an insect is resistant to the chemical, most of the offspring will also be resistant.
(III) Cultivation of wild cabbage as a food plant, and generation of different vegetables from it
(IV) Dog breeding for various desired characteristics.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:

(B) Natural selection acts on an organism’s:
(a) Environment
(b) Chromosome
(c) Phenotype
(d) Genotype
Answer:

(C) Imagine a population of brown and white rabbits, whose coat color is determined by dominant brown (B) and recessive white (b) alleles of a single gene. A predator such as a hawk can see white rabbits more easily than brown rabbits against the backdrop of a grassy field.
What is likely to happen? Select the incorrect answer:
(a) Brown rabbits are more likely than white rabbits to survive hawk predation.
(b) The b alleles may disappear from the population after several generations due to selection.
(c) The next generation will probably contain a higher frequency of B alleles.
(d) The next generation will probably contain a higher frequency of b alleles.
Answer:
(d) The next generation will probably contain a higher frequency of b alleles.

Explanation: Natural selection can shift allele and phenotype frequencies to make a population better-suited to its environment. If we imagine that half of the white rabbits (but none of the brown rabbits) are eaten by hawks, then the frequency of B allele will increase.

Natural selection acts on phenotypes, not genotypes, as a hawk can tell a brown rabbit from a white rabbit, but it can’t tell an BB rabbit from a Bb rabbit.

(D) Humans have, over more than two thousand years, cultivated wild cabbage as a food plant, and generated different vegetables from it by selection.
Select the row containing incorrect information.

Desirable Characteristic	Name of Vegetable Evolved from Wild Cabbage
Short distances between leaves	Cabbage
For sterile flowers	Kale
For arrested flower development	Broccoli
For swollen parts	Kohlrabi

Answer:
(b) Desirable characteristic: For sterile flowers: Name of vegetable evolved from wild cabbage: Kale

Explanation: For sterile flowers, man of made cauliflower and for leafy vegetable, made kale.

(E) In a habitat there are red bugs and green bugs. The birds prefer the taste of the red bugs, so soon there are many green bugs and few red bugs. The green bugs reproduce and make more green bugs and eventually there are no more red bugs.
The above is an example of:
(a) Natural selection
(b) Genetic drift
(c) Geographical isolation
(d) Speciation
Answer:

Question 8.
X-linked recessive inheritance is a mode of inheritance in which a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome causes the phenotype to be always expressed in males (who are necessarily homozygous for the gene mutation because they have one X and one Y chromosome) and in females who are homozygous for the gene mutation. Females with one copy of the mutated gene are carriers. X-linked inheritance means that the gene causing the trait or the disorder is located on the X chromosome.

In humans, inheritance of X-linked recessive traits follows a unique pattern as shown below:

The first is that affected fathers cannot pass x-linked recessive traits to their sons because fathers give Y chromosomes to their sons. Second, x-iinked recessive traits are more commonly expressed in males than females.
This is due to the fact that males possess only a single X chromosome, and therefore require only one mutated X in order to be affected. The last pattern seen is that x-linked recessive traits tend to skip generations, meaning an affected grandfather will not have an affected son, but could have an affected grandson through his daughter.

(A) In the cross shown above, if the father is unaffected and mother is also unaffected, but mother is a carrier (X-linked recessive allele present), then which of the following statements are correct about their children:
(I) Both sons will be unaffected but will be carriers.
(II) One son will be unaffected and one son will be affected.
(III) Both daughters will be unaffected
(IV) One daughter will be unaffected and one daughter will be affected.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: Females have two X chromosomes while males have one X and one Y chromosome. Carrier females who have only one copy of the mutation do not usually express the phenotype. So, the son who receives the X chromosome containing the dominant allele will be unaffected whereas the son who receives X chromosome containing the recessive allele will be affected. Both daughters will be unaffected, but the daughter who receives the recessive allele from her mother will be carrier.

This means that males affected by an x-linked recessive disorder inherited the responsible X chromosome from their mothers.

Women possess two X chromosomes and thus must receive two of the mutated recessive X chromosomes (one from each parent). A popular example showing this pattern of inheritance is that of the descendants of Queen Victoria and the blood disease hemophilia.

(B) Study the cross shown above and select the row containing incorrect information:

Answer:

(C) Sex-linked genetically inherited traits:
(a) can appear in both males and females
(b) are only found in males
(c) are only found in females
(d) appear only in F₂generation
Answer:

(D) X-linked recessive traits are more commonly expressed in males than females because:
(a) Females have both X chromosomes which will be mutated at the same time
(b) Males possess a Y chromosome which can be mutated
(c) Males possess only a single X chromosome, and therefore require only one mutated X in order to be affected
(d) Chances of mutation of both X chromosomes in females is very low
Answer:

(E) Insects also follow an XY sex- determination pattern and like humans, Drosophila males have an XY chromosome pair and females are XX. Eye color in Drosophila was one of the first X-linked traits to be identified. In fruit flies, the wild-type eye color is red (XW) and is dominant to white eye color (Xw).
In a cross between a white-eyed female fruit fly and red-eyed male, what percent of the female offspring will have white eyes? (White eyes are X-linked, recessive)
(a) 100 %
(b) 50 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 0 %
Answer:
(d) 0%

Explanation: The genotype of a white-eyed female fruit fly will be XWXW and of red-eyed male will be XWY. When we cross them, the genotype of offspring will be:

XWXW (Red eyed female), X (White-eyed male), XWXW (Red-eyed female) and XWY (white-eyed male).
All of the females are thus red-eyed and heterozygous. All of the males are white-eyed and hemizygous.

Question 9.
In mice, black coat colour (B) is dominant over brown coat colour (b), and a solid pattern (S) is dominant over white spotted (s). Colour and spots are controlled by genes that assort independently. A homozygous (both alleles identical) black, spotted mouse is crossed with a homozygous brown, solid mouse.
(A) The genotypes of the parents is:
(a) Bbss and bbSS
(b) BBss and bbSs
(c) BbSs and BbSs
(d) BBss and bbSS
Answer:

(B) Select the incorrect statements regarding the F₁ progeny obtained:
(I) Phenotype of all mice of F₁ generation is brown coat with solid pattern.
(II) Phenotype of all mice of F₁ generation is black coat with solid pattern.
(III) Genotype of all mice of F₁ generation is BbSs.
(IV) Genotype of all mice of F₁ generation is BBSs.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Genotype of the homozygous black, spotted mouse is BBss and of the homozygous brown, solid mouse is bbSS.
When these are crossed, all F₁ progeny will be black coat with solid pattern (BbSs) as gametes of homozygous black, spotted mouse will be Bs and of homozygous brown, solid mouse is bS.

(C) The table below shows the phenotypic ratio of F₂ generation when mice of F₁ generation are crossed with each other.
Select the row containing correct information:

Answer:

(D) From the cross mentioned in (B) above, it can be concluded that:
(a) The phenotype of progeny is independent of inherited genes.
(b) The black/brown colour of coat and solid/spotted pattern are inherited independently.
(c) The genotype of progeny does not decide the phenotype.
(d) The phenotype and genotype of progeny are independently inherited.
Answer:
(b) The black/brown colour of coat and solid/spotted pattern are Inherited independently.

Explanation: The genes responsible for coLour (black or brown) and spotting (solid pattern or spotted) are assorted independently.

(E) Suppose a test cross is carried out by mating FI mice with brown, spotted mice. The percentage of progeny having black coat with solid pattern will be;
(a) 75 %
(b) 50 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 0 %
Answer:

Question 10.
Remember the Hindi film Ghajini where Aamir Khan had sported a new hairstyle? It became a rage and later, several boys started to experiment with their hairstyle in unique ways.

From the list given below, select the character which can be acquired but not inherited:
(a) Colour of eyes
(b) Colour of skin
(c) Size of body
(d) Nature of hair
Answer:

Question 11.
A big challenge with species conservation is trying to limit and reduce the negative genetic effects of small or isolated populations. Founder’s effect or bottleneck effect can lead to small populations which are highly susceptible to genetic drift. This means there is a serious reduction in genetic variation within the population, making that population less able to adapt to new selective pressures (“Bottleneck and founder effects”). Even if the species’ numbers were to rebound, the new generations would only carry the limited set of alleles passed down by the small population.

A population bottleneck is an event that drastically reduces the size of a population. The bottleneck may be caused by various events, such as an environmental disaster, the hunting of a species to the point of extinction, or habitat destruction that results in the deaths of organisms. The population bottleneck produces a decrease in the gene pool of the population because many alleles, or gene variants, that were present in the original population are lost. Due to the event, the remaining population has a very low level of genetic diversity, which means that the population as a whole has few genetic characteristics.

(A) Select the correct statements:
(I) A population bottleneck decreases genetic variation in a species or subspecies.
(II) Gene flow increases genetic diversity by introducing new alleles into the population.
(III) Mutation decreases genetic diversity in a population.
(IV) Species can become extinct if genetic diversity recovers after the bottleneck.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Gene pool frequencies do not change as a result of migrations in or out of a population.
(b) Gene flow occurs only as a result of migrations.
(c) Gene flow can cause new alleles to enter a population’s gene pool.
(d) Gene flow is possible only in aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:
(c) Gene flow can cause new alleles to enter a population’s gene pool.

Explanation: Since gene flow alters the recipient population’s gene pool, it causes evolution independent of any other evolutionary mechanism.

(C) Which of the following is not true of genetic drift?
(a) It can lead to alleles being fixed in a population
(b) It results from the random transmission of alleles from parents to offspring in a population
(c) It can lead to loss of alleles from a population
(d) It can increase the genetic diversity of a population
Answer:

(D) In a population where the allele frequency shifts by random chance, the mechanism of evolution at work is:
(a) mutation
(b) genetic drift
(c) natural selection
(d) migration
Answer:
(b) genetic drift

Explanation: Genetic drift occurs as a result of chance events causing changes in the allele frequency of a population. It doesn’t favor the fittest individuals, but occurs at random.

(E) Mutation may be described as:
(a) Continuous genetic variation
(b) Phenotypic change
(c) Discontinuous genetic variation
(d) Change due to hybridization
Answer:

Question 12.
When a friend showed Uma two photographs and asked her to identify the relation between the persons shown in the photograph, she immediately replied that the photographs are of identical twins as they had identical features. But to her surprise, the photograph was of a father when he was a kid and of his daughter. The similarity in their features was remarkable!

Answer:
Cellular DNA is the information source for making proteins in the cell. As genes are responsible for controlling various processes in an organism and are made up of DNA, we can say that DNA is the carrier of basic genetic information in organisms.

Question 13.
Speciation, the formation of new and distinct species in the course of evolution. Speciation involves the splitting of a single evolutionary lineage into two or more genetically independent lineages. Speciation occurs when a group within a species separates from other members of its species and develops its own unique characteristics. The demands of a different environment or the characteristics of the members of the new group will differentiate the new species from their ancestors.
There are many hypotheses about how speciation starts, and they differ mainly in the role of geographic isolation and the origin of reproductive isolation (the prevention of two populations or more from interbreeding with one another).

(A) Select the incorrect statement.
Speciation is possible in isolated populations of the parent species because:
(a) There will be an accumulation of different changes in each sub-population due to genetic drift.
(b) Natural selection may operate differently in these different geographic locations.
(c) isolated populations are no longer able to interbreed.
(d) Increased gene flow
Answer:
(d) Increased gene flow

Explanation: Speciation is possible when the parent species is subdivided into subpopulations. Each sub-population has a different gene pool and accumulation of different changes due to genetic drift. Moreover, different variations may be selected in the subpopulations by environmental factors. Eventually, the organisms belonging to the sub-populations may no longer be able to interbreed. However, if gene flow decreases, then the groups will evolve along separate paths.

(B) Two separate squirrel species inhabit the north and south rims of the canyon when Arizona’s Grand Canyon formed. This is an example of:
(a) Genetic Drift
(b) Geographical isolation
(c) Natural selection
(d) Variation
Answer:

(C) New species may be formed if
(I) DNA undergoes significant change in germ cells
(II) Chromosome number changes in the gamete
(III) There is no change in the genetic material
(IV) Mating is no longer possible
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)

Explanation: New species may be formed due to significant change in DNA such that the organisms are no longer able to inter breed. Then, a new species is said to have been formed.

(D) Wild cabbage has evolved into new varieties like cabbage, broccoli and cauliflower by
(a) genetic drift
(b) natural selection
(c) reproductive isolation
(d) artificial selection
Answer:

(E) Imagine a situation in which a population extends over a broad geographic range, and mating throughout the population is not random. Individuals in the far west would have zero chance of mating with individuals in the far eastern end of the range.

Which of the following can lead to the formation of a new species in such a situation?
Select the most appropriate answer in the given context.
(a) Geographical isolation
(b) Reduced gene flow
(c) Increased gene flow
(d) Genetic drift
Answer:

Question 14.
When Priyanka went to the market to buy some pulses, she was quite surprised when the shopkeeper mentioned the different varieties of pea. There was green and round variety as well as yellow and wrinkled and also yellow and round varieties!

Round and green seeds of pea plant were crossed with wrinkled and yellow seeds. Progeny of F₁ generation were all having round and green seeds. These F₁ progenies were used to generate F₂ progeny. Select the row containing incorrect observation or remarks:

Observation	Remarks
(a) Genotype of parents of F₁ progeny was RRyy (Round, green) and rrYY (Wrinkled, yellow)	Roundness and yellow were dominant as all F₁ progeny had round and yellow seeds
(b) Genotype of 50% F₁ progeny was RRYY and RrYy for the remaining 50% F₁ progeny.	As alt F₁ progeny had round/yellow seeds, roundness and yellow were dominant.
(c) Some F₂ progeny showed new combinations	The round seed/ wrinkled seed trait and yellow! green trait are independently inherited.
(d) Phenotype ratio of F₂ progeny was 9:3:3:1	9 (round/yellow)
	3 (round green)
	3 (wrinkled yellow)
	1 (wrinkled green)

Answer:
(b) Observation: Genotype of 50% F₁ progeny was RRYY and RrYy for the remaining 50% F₁ progeny: Remarks: As all F₁ progeny had round/yellow seeds, roundness and yellow were dominant.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mendel took tall pea plants and short pea plants and produced F₁ progeny through cross-fertilisation. What did Mendel observe in the F₁ progeny?
Answer:
When Mendel cross-fertilized tall pea plants and short pea plants, he observed that all plants in the F₁progeny were tall.

Related Theory

When these F₁ progeny are self crossed, he observed that the F₂ progeny are not all tall. The ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants comes to be approximately 3:1.
This indicates that both the tallness (T) and shortness (t) traits were inherited in the F₁ plants, but only the tallness trait was expressed.
Above experiment led Mendel to propose that two copies of factor (now called genes) controlling traits are present in sexually reproducing organisms.
Traits like T which are expressed are called dominant traits, while traits like’t’ are called recessive traits.

Question 2.
How is the normal number of chromosomes restored in the progeny of sexually reproducing organisms?
Answer:
Each cell has two copies of each chromosome, one each from the male and female parents. Each germ cell or gamete takes one chromosome from each pair and when two germ cells combine, the original number of chromosomes is restored in the progeny.

Question 3.
Do all variations in a species have equal chances of surviving in the environment in which they find themselves?
Answer:
No, all variations in a species do not have equal chances of surviving in the environment in which they find themselves. Depending upon the nature of variations, each individual would have different advantages of survival.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Chapter 4 दीवानों की हस्ती with Answers

March 1, 2023

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Vasant Chapter 4 दीवानों की हस्ती with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided दीवानों की हस्ती Class 8 Hindi MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-hindi-with-answers/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Hindi Chapter 4 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

Online Education for दीवानों की हस्ती Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Class 8 Hindi Chapter 4 MCQ Question 1.
‘दीवानों की हस्ती’ कविता के रचयिता कौन हैं?
(a) महादेवी वर्मा
(b) भगवतीचरण वर्मा
(c) सुभाष गताडे
(d) जया जादवानी

Answer

Answer: (b) भगवतीचरण वर्मा

Diwano Ki Hasti Class 8 MCQ Question 2.
इस कविता में किसकी हस्ती की बात कही गई है?
(a) कवि की
(b) दीवानों की
(c) आम लोगों की
(d) सभी की

Answer

Answer: (c) आम लोगों की

Diwano Ki Hasti MCQ Question 3.
मस्ती भरा जीवन जीने वाले लोगों के बीच क्या बन जाते हैं ?
(a) आदर्श
(b) शोक
(c) मेहमान
(d) उल्लास

Answer

Answer: (d) उल्लास

Class 8 Hindi Ch 4 MCQ Question 4.
वे संसार से कैसा भाव रखते हैं?
(a) मैत्रीभाव का
(b) समान भाव का
(c) ईर्ष्या भाव का
(d) भावुकता से भरा भाव

Answer

Answer: (b) समान भाव का

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Hindi Chapter 4 Question 5.
बलि-वीरों के मन में बलि होने की चाहत किसके लिए है?
(a) परिवार के लिए
(b) राज्य के लिए
(c) देश के लिए
(d) अपने-आप के लिए

Answer

Answer: (c) देश के लिए

Deewano Ki Hasti MCQ Question 6.
सुख-दुख में कौन-सा समास है?
(a) तत्पुरुष
(b) द्विगु
(c) वंद्व
(d) कर्मधारय

Answer

Answer: (c) वंद्व

Deewanon Ki Hasti MCQ Question 7.
यह दुनिया किनकी है?
(a) भिखमंगों की
(b) दीवानों की
(c) कवि की
(d) सभी की

Answer

Answer: (a) भिखमंगों की

Ch 4 Hindi Class 8 MCQ Question 8.
दीवानों को क्या पछतावा है?
(a) भिखमंगे बनने का
(b) स्वच्छंद प्यार लुटाने का
(c) लोगों को मस्त न बना पाने का
(d) कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (c) लोगों को मस्त न बना पाने का

(1)

हम दीवानों की क्या हस्ती,
हैं आज यहाँ, कल वहाँ चले,
मस्ती का आलम साथ चला,
हम धूल उड़ाते जहाँ चले।
आए बनकर उल्लास अभी,
आँसू बनकर बह चले अभी,
सब कहते ही रह गए, अरे,
तुम कैसे आए, कहाँ चले?

Ncert Class 8 Hindi Chapter 4 MCQ Question 1.
कवि एवं कविता का नाम लिखिए।

Answer

Answer:
कवि का नाम-भगवतीचरण वर्मा।
कविता का नाम-दीवानों की हस्ती।

Hindi Class 8 Chapter 4 MCQ Question 2.
दीवाने शब्द किसके लिए प्रयोग किया गया है? वे एक जगह पर टिककर क्यों नहीं रहते?

Answer

Answer: दीवानों शब्द का प्रयोग देश के लिए बलिदान देने वाले स्वतंत्रता सेनानियों के लिए किया गया है। वे स्वतंत्रता सेनानी देश को आजाद कराने के लिए एक जगह स्थिर नहीं रहते हैं। क्योंकि अंग्रेज़ी सरकार कभी भी पकड़कर एक से दूसरे जेल में भेजती रहती थी और वे स्वयं उनसे बचने के लिए एक जगह से दूसरे जगह भटकते रहते हैं।

Class 8 Chapter 4 Hindi MCQ Question 3.
दीवानों के बारे में लोग क्या-क्या कहते हैं?

Answer

Answer: दीवानों के बारे में लोग कहते हैं कि अरे, तुम अभी-अभी आए और अभी कहाँ चले।

Class 8 Hindi Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 4.
दीवाने वहाँ से इतनी जल्दी क्यों जा रहे हैं?

Answer

Answer: दीवानों को देश की आज़ादी दिलाने हैं इसलिए उन्हें नई योजना बनाना है। यदि वे एक जगह रुकते हैं तो अंग्रेज़ी सरकार द्वारा बंदी बनाए जाने का डर है।

Deewano Ki Hasti Class 8 MCQ Question 5.
लोगों की खुशियाँ लंबे समय तक क्यों नहीं बनी रह पाती है?

Answer

Answer: ये देश भक्त अपनी योजना को अमल में लाने केलिए जल्दी-जल्दी स्थान का परिवर्तन किया करते हैं। वे एक जगह टिक नहीं पाते हैं।

(2)

किस ओर चले? यह मत पूछो,
चलना है, बस इसलिए चले,
जग से उसका कुछ लिए चले,
जग को अपना कुछ दिए चले,
दो बात कही, दो बात सुनी;
कुछ हँसे और फिर कुछ रोए।
छककर सुख-दुख के घुटों को
हम एक भाव से पिए चले।

Question 1.
कवि एवं कविता का नाम लिखिए।

Answer

Answer:
कवि का नाम-भगवतीचरण वर्मा
कविता का नाम-दीवानों की हस्ती

Question 2.
दीवाने ने क्या लिया और क्या दिया?

Answer

Answer: दीवानों ने अभावग्रस्त तथा खुशियों से वंचित लोगों के दुखों को लिया तथा उन्हें खुशियाँ प्रदान की।

Question 3.
जग के बारे में क्या रवैया है?

Answer

Answer: वे अगर देश से कुछ लेते हैं तो वे देश को अपना सर्वस्व न्योछावर भी कर देते हैं।

Question 4.
सुख-दुख के प्रति उनका क्या दृष्टिकोण है ?

Answer

Answer: सुख-दुख के प्रति दीवानों का दृष्टिकोण यह है कि उन्हें एक भाव से ही लेना चाहिए।

Question 5.
काव्यांश में निहित संदेश स्पष्ट कीजिए।

Answer

Answer: उपरोक्त पद्यांश यह संदेश देता है कि देश में गरीब तथा अभावग्रस्त जीने वाले लोग भी खुशियों के हकदार हैं। हमें उन्हें खुश करने का प्रयास करना चाहिए।

(3)

हम भिखमंगों की दुनिया में,
स्वच्छंद लुटाकर प्यार चले,
हम एक निसानी-सी उर पर,
ले असफलता का भार चले।
अब अपना और पराया क्या?
आबाद रहें रुकनेवाले!
हम स्वयं बँधे थे और स्वयं
हम अपने बंधन तोड़ तले।

Question 1.
कवि ने दुनिया को कैसा बताया है और क्यों?

Answer

Answer: कवि ने दुनिया को भिखमंगा बताया है क्योंकि यहाँ लोग सिर्फ लेना ही जानते हैं, देना नहीं।

Question 2.
दीवानों के सीने पर किस असफलता का भार है?

Answer

Answer: दीवानों के सीने पर अपने लक्ष्य स्वतंत्रता तथा लोगों को खुशहाल न बना पाने की असफलता का भार है।

Question 3.
कवि ने दुनिया को भीखमंगा क्यों कहा है ?

Answer

Answer: कवि ने दुनिया को भिखमंगा कहा है, क्योंकि इस संसार के पास देने के लिए कुछ नहीं। यह तो केवल लेना ही जानता है। यह राष्ट्रगान गाकर वीरों के हौंसले नहीं बढ़ा सकता लेकिन ये राष्ट्र के दीवाने सभी पर खुशियाँ लुटाते हुए आगे बढ़ते हैं। वे सभी से प्रेम करते हैं। उनके लिए अपने पराए सभी समान हैं।

Question 4.
दीवाने लोगों के लिए क्या कामना करते हैं?

Answer

Answer: दीवाने लोगों के लिए कामना करते हैं कि जहाँ भी रहें हँसी-खुशी भरा जीवन बिताएँ।

Question 5.
दीवाने अपने बंधन तोड़कर किस ओर बढ़ना चाहते हैं?

Answer

Answer: दीवाने अपने बंधन तोड़कर अन्यत्र लोगों को खुशियाँ बाँटते हुए स्वतंत्रता के लिए कुरबान होने की दिशा में बढ़ना चाहते हैं।

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Vasant Chapter 4 दीवानों की हस्ती with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 8 Hindi दीवानों की हस्ती MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Working of Institutions with Answers

March 1, 2023

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Working of Institutions with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Working of Institutions Class 9 Civics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

Working of Institutions Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Working Of Institutions Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Who exercises all governmental powers?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(d) Chief Election Commission

Answer

Answer: (b) Prime Minister

Working Of Institutions Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
The Second Backward Classes Commission was appointed by the government of India in
(a) 1979
(b) 1981
(c) 1985
(d) 1999

Answer

Answer: (a) 1979

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which one of the following statement about the President is wrong?
(a) He is the head of the state.
(b) He is the highest formal authority in the country.
(c) He exercises only nominal powers.
(d) He is elected directly by the people.

Answer

Answer: (d) He is elected directly by the people.

Class 9 Working Of Institutions MCQ Question 4.
The strength of the Council of Ministers ranges from
(a) 60 to 80
(b) 60 to 100
(c) 70 to 85
(d) 80 to 100

Answer

Answer: (a) 60 to 80

Working Of Institutions MCQ Question 5.
Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot rejected it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it by
(a) 14 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 17 days

Answer

Answer: (a) 14 days

MCQ Of Working Of Institutions Question 6.
When was the Second Backward Class Commission appointed?
(a) 1989
(b) 1979
(c) 1999
(d) 2001

Answer

Answer: (b) 1979

MCQ On Working Of Institutions Class 9 Question 7.
What do the Civil Servants do?
(a) They take important policy decisions
(b) They implement the ministers’ decisions
(c) They settle the disputes
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) They implement the ministers’ decisions

Working Of Institutions Class 9 MCQ Online Test Question 8.
What is ‘Parliament’?
(a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level
(b) A body consisting of appointed ministers
(c) Body comprising judges
(d) Assembly of only appointed members

Answer

Answer: (a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level

Class 9 Civics Working Of Institutions MCQ Question 9.
Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Governor
(d) President

Answer

Answer: (d) President

MCQ Working Of Institutions Class 9 Question 10.
For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?
(a) 15 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 3 months
(d) 14 days

Answer

Answer: (d) 14 days

MCQs On Working Of Institutions Class 9 Question 11.
Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
(a) President, according to his own wishes
(b) President, on the advice of the PM
(c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

Working Institutions Class 9 MCQ Question 12.
Two features of Indian judicial system are:
(a) Independent Judiciary
(b) Integrated Judiciary
(c) Dependent Judiciary
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

Working Of Institutions Class 9 MCQ Byju’s Question 13.
Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the country?
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Parliament

Answer

Answer: (d) The Parliament

Class 9 Civics Ch 5 MCQ Question 14.
Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights?
(a) District Courts
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Election Commission
(d) Legislature

Answer

Answer: (b) Supreme Court

Class 9 Civics Chapter Working Of Institutions MCQ Question 15.
Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent executive?
(a) Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions
(b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people
(c) Political leaders are more educated
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people

Question 16.
Whom does the President appoint as the Prime Minister?
(a) Anyone he likes
(b) Leader of the majority party
(c) MP who has secured the largest number of votes
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Leader of the majority party

Question 17.
What is the government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties called?
(a) Cooperation government
(b) Coalition government
(c) Consensus government
(d) Cooperative government

Answer

Answer: (b) Coalition government

Question 18.
Which of these options is/are correct regarding the powers of the Prime Minister?
(a) He chairs the Cabinet meetings
(b) He distributes work to the different departments
(c) He can dismiss ministers
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 19.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The Judiciary safeguards the laws
(b) The Legislature implements the laws
(c) The political executives are more powerful than the permanent executives
(d) The permanent executives comprises the civil servants

Answer

Answer: (b) The Legislature implements the laws

Question 20.
The president of India is elected by
(a) Direct Election by citizens … 18 years of age
(b) Indirect Election by the Electoral College
(c) The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Indirect Election by the Electoral College

Question 21.
The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Law Minister

Answer

Answer: (a) President

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Working of Institutions with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Working of Institutions CBSE Class 9 Civics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

March 1, 2023

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Money and Credit Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Money And Credit Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The exchange of goods for goods is a process of ………………
(a) Buying goods through currency
(b) Selling goods through currency
(c) Bartering goods
(d) Making goods
Answer:
(c) Bartering goods

Money And Credit MCQ Question 2.
What portion of deposits is essential for the banks to maintain in liquid cash for their day to day transaction?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
Answer:
(b) 15%

Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which of the following statements is an essential feature of barter system?
(a) Money can easily be used to buy any commodity or service.
(b) The barter system is based on the double coincidence of wants.
(c) The barter system promises payments at a later date than the day of transaction.
(d) The barter system helps the people to buy and sell goods easily and quickly.
Answer:
(b) The barter system is based on the double coincidence of wants.

MCQ On Money And Credit Class 10 Question 4.
Which one of the following agencies issues currency notes on behalf of the government of India?
(a) The Finance Minister of India issues them.
(b) Reserve Bank of India issues the currency.
(c) All the banks of the country can issue notes.
(d) World Bank issues notes
Answer:
(b) Reserve Bank of India issues the currency.

Money And Credit Class 10 MCQs Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a modern form of money?
(a) Paper currency
(b) Demand Deposits
(c) Coins
(d) Precious metals
Answer:
(d) Precious metals

Explanation: Gold, Silver and Copper were used to make coins in ancient times.

Class 10 Money And Credit MCQ Question 6.
Why do banks keep a small proportion of the deposits as cash with themselves?
(a) To extend loan to the poor
(b) To extend loan facility
(c) To pay salary to their staff
(d) To pay the depositors who might come to withdraw the money.
Answer:

MCQ Money And Credit Question 7.
Which of the following refers to investment?
(a) The money spent on religious ceremonies.
(b) The money spent on social customs.
(c) The money spent to buy assets such as land.
(d) The money spent on household goods.
Answer:
(c) The money spent to buy assets such as land.

MCQ Of Money And Credit Class 10th Question 8.
Which one of the following is a formal source of credit?
(a) Traders
(b) Cooperative sectors
(c) Money lenders
(d) Friends and relatives
Answer:
(b) Cooperative sector

MCQ Of Money And Credit Class 10 Question 9.
Which among the following issues currency notes on behalf of the central government?
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Commercial Bank of India
(d) Union Bank of India
Answer:
(b) Reserve Bank of India

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India is the monitoring agency and the Central Bank of India that issues currency on behalf of the Government of India. No other person can issue any legalised currency. Other banks are all involved in public dealing of money but don’t issue any currency.

MCQs Of Money And Credit Question 10.
Which one of the following options is NOT correct about a typical Self-Help Group?
(a) It has 15-20 members
(b) It does not have any male members.
(c) Its members usually belonging to one neighbourhood
(d) Saving per member varies in it.
Answer:
(b) It does not have any male members.

MCQ Of Chapter Money And Credit Class 10 Question 11.
What percentage of their deposits as cash, do the banks in India keep with themselves?
(a) 20 per cent
(b) 15 per cent
(c) 12 per cent
(d) 10 per cent
Answer:

MCQs On Money And Credit Question 12.
Money is accepted as a medium of exchange because:
(a) It is authorized by the government of India
(b) It is issued by the Reserve Bank of India
(c) It is legalised as a medium of payment in India
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Money And Credit MCQ Class 10 Question 13.
Find the incorrect option:
(a) Demand deposit share the essential features of money
(b) With demand deposit payments can be made without cash
(c) Demand deposits are a safe way of money transformation
(d) Demand deposit facility is like cheque
Answer:
(d) Demand deposit facility is like cheque.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 MCQ Question 14.
What do people do with the extra cash in hand? Choose the most correct option from the following:
(a) They deposit it with one of the informal lenders
(b) They deposit it with an NGO
(c) They deposit it with the bank manager
(d) They deposit it with the banks by opening a bank account in their name.
Answer:
(d) They deposit it with the banks by opening a bank account in their name.

Money And Credit MCQ Questions Question 15.
When do people have the provision to withdraw money? Choose the most appropriate option from the following:
(a) They can withdraw money at the time of severe illness
(b) They cannot withdraw money before it reaches to it maturity level.
(c) They can withdraw money as and when they require
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) They can withdraw money as and when they require.

Explanation: People deposit money with the bonks by opening a bank account in their name and receive an amount as interest from the bank on this deposit which can be withdrawn by them as and when they require it.

Related Theory
Since the deposits in the bank accounts can be withdrawn on demand, these deposits are called demand deposits.

Question 16.
Money borrowed from banks and cooperative societies comes under which source of credit?
(a) Informal
(b) Formal
(c) Semi-Formal
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Formal

Explanation: Formal sources of credit include Banks and Cooperative Societies which: provide credit at the low rate of interest to the borrowers and are regulated and supervised by the RBI on behalf of the Central Government in India.

Related Theory
The informal lenders include moneylenders, traders, employers, relatives and peer groups. Such lenders are not monitored or regulated by any agency. Most of the times, lenders fix extremely high rates of interest and push borrowers into debt traps through their informal rules.

Unorganized sources of Credit correspond to Informal sources of credit and cannot be trusted.

Question 17.
In a self-help group most of the decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by which one of the following:
(a) Bank
(b) Members
(c) NGOs
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Members

Question 18.
Formal sources of credit do not include
(a) Banks
(b) Cooperatives
(c) Employers
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Employers

Explanation: Employers, moneylenders, neighbors, friends, relatives etc fall under informal sources of credit who charge high interest on loans that they give to the borrowers.

Question 19.
Arrange the following forms of currency according to their usage from oldest to recent use:
(i) Paper Currency
(ii) Grain and cattle
(iii) Coins
(iv) Net banking and digital payments
(a) (iii)-(iv)-(i)-(ii)
(b) (ii)-(iii)-(i)-(iv)
(c) (i)-(ii)-(iiii)-(iv)
(d) (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i)
Answer:
(b) (ii)-(iii)-(i)-(iv)

Explanation: In early times, Grain and Cattle were used as barter to buy items of necessity. This was later replaced by silver, gold and copper coins. Post the invention of paper, paper currency dominated the scene. Today net banking and digital payments have replaced paper currency.

Question 20.
Bank deposits are also called
(a) Collateral
(b) Demand deposits
(c) Cheque
(d) Currency
Answer:
(b) Demand deposits

Explanation: Banks provide the facility of depositing surplus cash of citizens safely. They also provide interest on this deposit. Customers can withdraw or deposit cash at any time according to their demand. Hence this is called a demand deposit.

Question 21.
Terms of credit do not include:
(a) Bank deposits
(b) Interest rate
(c) Collateral
(d) Mode of repayment
Answer:
(a) Bank deposits

Explanation: Interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement, and the mode of repayment together comprise what is called the terms of credit. Together, they are all that a lender or borrower needs to consider before borrowing or lending money.

Question 22.
Rampur is an area where 80% people borrow money from the bank while 10% don’t borrow and the rest 10% take it from their friends, relatives or local moneylenders. Where will Rampur be situated?
(a) In an Urban Region
(b) Semi-Urban area
(c) In a Rural region
(d) Capital of a country
Answer:
(a) In an Urban Region

Explanation: Rampur is located in an area with proper access to banks, however not all the people are convinced borrowers from the bank. In an urban area, most people go to the bank while some people might also resort to friends and relatives for money, due to small or extremely urgent need.

Related Theory
The country’s capital is generally a High-tech city with all educated and skilled people. Hence Rampur can’t be a Capital. It cannot be situated in a rural area because of the large number of banks and easy accessibility. It cannot be a Semi-urban area due to similar reasons.

Question 23.
Find the correct option:
(a) Collateral is what pushes the lender in to a painful debt trap situation.
(b) Collateral is the amount that RBI gets from other banks.
(c) Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee to a lender against the amount borrowed.
(d) Collateral does not include jewellery.
Answer:
(c) Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee to a lender against the amount borrowed.

Explanation: Collateral acts like a guarantee to a lender until loan is repaid, if the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender can reimburse his loan by selling the collateral or confiscating it.

Related Theory
Property such as land titles, deposits with banks(Jewellery, bonds), livestock are some common examples of collateral used for borrowing. Collateral is a safety valve to lender’s benefit. It does not put the lender in a debt trap because lender lends and not borrows.

Identify

Question 24.
Identify the financial institution on basis of the hints given:
(1) Monitors other Banks
(2) Regulates lending activities
(3) Issues Currencies
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 25.
Banks and cooperatives are informal sources of credit.
Answer:
False
Banks and cooperatives are formal sources of credit.

Explanation: Informal sources of credit are locaL moneylenders, sahukars, jewelers, relatives or friends who lend without any proper documentation and charge exorbitant rates of interest. Banks and Cooperatives are backed by the government and hence are formal sources of credit.

Double coincidence of wants is an essential feature of Barter system.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 27.
………….. is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee until the loan is repaid to the lender.
Answer:
Collateral

Explanation: Property such as land, building, vehicle, livestock, jewellery, bonds deposits with banks are some common examples of collateral used for borrowing.

Match the Columns

Choose the correct pairs option from the following:
Match the correct people involved in a variety of occupations with the appropriate reason they might borrow money for:

Column A	Column B
(a) Auto-rickshaw driver	(i) To buy a house
(b) A businessman whose factory has closed down	(ii) To buy a shop of his own
(c) Small trader	(iii) To revive his business
(d) A person in government service	(iv) To buy his own vehicle

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Auto-rickshaw driver	(iv) To buy his own vehicle
(b) A businessman whose factory has closed down	(iii) To revive his business
(c) Small trader	(ii) To buy a shop of his own
(d) A person in government service	(i) To buy a house

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Economics Chapter 3

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c), or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 29.
Assertion (A): Not all the money that is deposited in the bank by the depositors is kept by the banks themselves.
Reason (R): They use it to further extend loans to people so that the difference between interest earned and interest is given can be further invested and the chain will continue to go on.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Banks make use of the deposits to meet the loan requirements of people. In this way, banks mediate between those who have surplus funds (the depositors) and those who are in need of these funds (the borrowers). They don’t invest the interest earned again, they use it to provide income to their employees.

Question 30.
Assertion (A): If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender does not have the right to sell the asset or collateral to obtain payment.
Reason (R): Collateral acts like a guarantee against the borrowed money.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell the asset or collateral to obtain payment.

Question 31.
Assertion (A): The terms of credit vary substantially from one credit arrangement to another.
Reason (R): Interest rates, time periods vary from one arrangement to other.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas.
Reason (R): They pool their funds together.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Cooperatives are formed with the purposes of sharing resources and collecting resources.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): Banks have to submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to whom, at what interest rate, etc.
Reason (R): This is done to ensure the rich get enough loans.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Banks have to submit periodical reports and this is done to ensure appropriate amounts of loans are given to the poor and vulnerable classes.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Match the items in Column A to those in Column B

Column A (Organisation)	Column B(Its Field of Interest)
(A) NSSO	(I) Data on Self Help Groups
(B) NABARD	(II) Economic planning
(C) RBI	(III) Formal and Informal Sector Credit data and survey
(D) NITI AAYOG	(IV) Monitors the banks and credit activities

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:

Question 2.
Study the picture given below and answer the question that follows:

Currency in the era of kings were made from:
(a) Gold, Silver and Copper
(b) Ivory and Bones
(c) Grains and Water
(d) Rice and Water
Answer:
(a) Gold, Silver and Copper

Question 3.
Rita has taken a loan of ? 7 lakhs from the bank to purchase a car. The annual interest rate on the loan is 14.5 per cent and the loan is to be repaid in 3 years in monthly instalments.
The bank retained the papers of the new car as collateral, which will be returned to Rita only when she repays the entire loan with interest.
Analyse the loan information given above, and point out which one of the following is the correct option that describes the above statements accurately.
(a) Mode of re-payment
(b) Terms of credit
(c) Interest on loan
(d) Deposit criteria
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
No individual in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees. Hence, the rupee is widely accepted as a medium of exchange.
Who legalises the use of rupee as a medium of payment that cannot be refused in settling transactions in India?
(a) SBI
(b) Indian Law
(c) RBI
(d) The constitution of France
Answer:
(b) Indian Law

Question 5.
Observe the picture carefully.

Describe this image in your own words.
Answer:
This image showcases a meeting of a women self-help group.

Explanation: A typical Self Help Group has 15-20 members, usually belonging to one neighbourhood, who meet and save money regularly. Members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their needs on smaller rates of interest.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives, industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place. Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.
(A) The Cooperatives can be classified into sector.
(a) Formal
(b) Informal
(c) Mixed
(d) Unorganised sector
Answer:
(a) Formal
Explanation: Cooperatives are registered and monitored by regulating authorities.

(B) The cooperatives lend without which of the following terms of credit:
(a) Collateral
(b) Interest Rate
(c) Identification
(d) Specific time period for repayment
Answer:
(a) Collateral

(D) Assertion (A): Informal sector loans prove to be worse than formal sector loans.
Reason(R): Formal sector loans need less paperwork.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Informal sector loans prove to be worse than formal sector loans because the former have no paperwork or documentation. It leads lenders into debt traps.

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Swapna, a small farmer, grows groundnut on her three acres of land. She takes a loan from the moneylender to meet the expenses of cultivation, hoping that her harvest would help repay the loan. Midway through the season the crop is hit by pests and the crop fails. Though Swapna sprays her crops with expensive pesticides, it makes little difference. She is unable to repay the moneylender and the debt grows over the year into a large amount. Next year, Swapna takes a fresh loan for cultivation. It is a normal crop this year. But the earnings are not enough to cover the old loan. She is caught in debt. She has to sell a part of the land to pay off the debt Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Swapna obtains credit from which of the following sectors?
(a) Formal Sector
(b) Informal Sector
(c) Public sector
(d) Private sector
Answer:
(b) Informal Sector

(B) Which of the following conditions holds true for Swapna?
(a) Her crop was destroyed and this raised her income.
(b) She borrowed from the moneylender and it did not do anything to add to her incomes and thus it was a bad credit.
(c) She was easily able to pay back what she borrowed.
(d) The credit was good but Swapna was not a good farmer.
Answer:

(C) How could Swapna improve her situation?
(a) She could borrow more.
(b) She could borrow less.
(c) She could stop farming.
(d) She could borrow form bank
Answer:
(d) She could borrow from banks.
Explanation: Formal Sector lends at a lowest rate and thus helps the lender to actually increase his income and lifestyle.

(D) What does Swapna’s situation portray about the rural households and credit?
(a) Rural Households cannot handle credit.
(b) Rural Households need more credit.
(c) Rural Households borrow mostly from Informal sources.
(d) Rural Households borrow throughout the year.
Answer:
(c) Rural Households borrow mostly from informal sources.

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In recent years, people have tried out some newer ways of providing loans to the poor. The idea is to organise rural poor, in particular women, into small Self Help Groups (SHGs) and pool (collect) their savings. A typical SHG has 15-20 members, usually belonging to one neighborhood, who meet and save regularly. Saving per member varies from Rs. 25 to Rs. 100 or more, depending on the ability of the people to save. Members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their needs. The group charges interest on these loans but this is still less than what the moneylender charges. After a year or two, if the group is regular in savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from the bank. The loan is sanctioned in the name of the group and is meant to create self-employment opportunities for the members.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Apart from saving and lending, what else is the Self Help Group useful for?
(a) It is a place for taking political decisions
(b) It is a place for discussing social issues
(c) It is a place for entertainment
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
Explanation: The regular meetings of the group provide a platform to discuss and act on a variety of social issues such as health, nutrition, domestic violence, etc.

(B) What is their saving per member in the group?
(a) Between 20-100 rupees
(b) Below 20 rupees
(c) Above 100 rupees
(d) Varies with states
Answer:
(a) Between 20-100 rupees

(C) What does a Self Help Group have to do to become eligible to borrow from the bank?
(a) Save more
(b) Spend more
(c) Save regularly
(d) Save, lend and repay regularly
Answer:
(d) Save, lend and repay regularly

Explanation: After a year or two, if the group is regular in savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from the bank.

(D) Who takes the decisions regarding the savings and loan activities in a Self Help Group?
(a) Head of the Self Help Group
(b) Mayor
(c) Zila Parishad
(d) All the members of the Self Help Group
Answer:
(d) All the members of the Self Help Group.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In rural areas, the main demand for credit is for crop production. Crop production involves considerable costs on seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, water, electricity, repair of equipment, etc. There is a minimum stretch of three to four months between the time when the farmers buy these inputs and when they sell the crop. Farmers usually take crop loans at the beginning of the season and repay the Loan after harvest. Repayment of the loan is crucially dependent on the income from farming. Credit, instead of helping Swapna improve her earnings, left her worse off. This is an example of what is commonly called debt-trap. Credit in this case pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following will be an appropriate reason farmers can lend money?
(I) to arrange for funds for sister’s marriage.
(II) to buy a new factory
(III) to build a new swimming pool
(IV) to buy new fertiliser
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III) only
(c) (I) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II) & (IV) only
Answer:
(c) (I) & (IV) only

(B) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Farmers generally borrow loans from sector.
(a) Unorganised
(b) Organised
(c) Formal
(d) Informal
Answer:
(a) Unorganised

(C) Which of the following situations will lead to a debt trap?
(a) When loans do not add anything to the income of the borrower, it becomes difficult for him to repay, then he has to borrow more to repay, this leads to a debt trap.
(b) When loans help to increase the income, a debt trap is formed.
(c) When loans are paid on time, a debt trap is formed.
(d) When loans are borrowed again and again, a debt trap is formed.
Answer:
(a) When loans do not add anything to the income of the borrower, it becomes difficult for him to repay, then he has to borrow more to repay, this leads to a debt trap.

(D) Which role does credit play according to the situation given in the source?
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Neutral
Answer:
(b) Negative

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do deposits with banks become their source of income?
Answer:
They charge different rates of interest on the money they loan and the deposits of the customers. The difference forms their revenue and source of income.

Question 2.
Why do farmers require credit?
Answer:
Farmers require credit to buy seeds, fertilisers or other equipment related to farming apart from personal or family needs.

Question 3.
M. Salim wants to withdraw Rs. 20,000 in cash for making payments to Prem after Prem receives the money he deposits it in his own account? What is the result?
(a) Salim’s balance in his bank account increases and Prem’s balance increases.
(b) Salim’s balance in his bank account decreases and Prem’s balance increases.
(c) Salim’s balance in his bank account increases, and Prem’s balance decreases.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Salim’s balance in his bank account decreases and Prem’s balance increases.

Question 4.
Why is the higher cost of borrowing bad for investors?
Answer:

Question 5.
Why is it difficult for poor people to get loans from the Banks?
Answer:
It is difficult because often they do not have the required collateral or documents necessary for borrowing money.

Question 6.
Krishna is working in a neighboring field on very less wage. Expenses on sudden illnesses or functions in the family are also met through loans. The landowner charges an interest rate of 5% per month. At present, she owes the landowner ₹ 5,000.
Analyse his credit arrangements given above.
Answer:

Question 7.
How is money beneficial in transactions?
Answer:
Money has made transactions easy as it solves the problem of double coincidence of wants by acting as a medium of exchange.

Related Theory
Double coincidence of wants occurs when two individuals swap their goods, in exchange for one another’s. This is also referred to as the ‘perfect barter exchange’.

Question 8.
Give one example each of modern currency and older currency.
Answer:
Examples of modem currency are paper bills/notes, coins, credit cards etc., whereas examples of older currency are coins made of precious metals like gold or silver and also terracotta coins, etc.

Related Theory
Money can be defined as anything that acts as medium of exchange, store of value and unit of accounting to facilitate the economic activities and transactions.

Question 9.
Explain the inherent problem of the ‘barter system’.
Answer:

Question 10.
Why are demand deposits considered as money?
Answer:
Demand deposits are considered as money because they can be withdrawn from the bank as and when needed. Also, they are accepted widely as a means of payment by way of a cheque instead of cash.

Related Theory
People with surplus money or extra amount deposit it in banks. Banks keep the money safe and give an interest on it. The deposits can be drawn at any time on demand by the depositors. That is why they are called demand deposits.

Question 11.
Which bank issues ‘currency notes’ in Indie on behalf of the central government?
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes in India on behalf of federal government.

Related Theory
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages and monitors the working of other banks and also plays the role of a bank to other banks as well as the government

Question 12.
How do the deposits with banks become their source of income?
Answer:
Banks use a major portion of its deposits to extend loans to people, for which they charge high interests and this is how the deposits with banks become their source of income.

Related Theory
The banks mediate between the depositors and the borrowers. Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they pay on the deposits. The difference between the interest charged from the borrowers and what is paid to the depositors is, thus, the main source of income for the banks.

Question 13.
Why is money called a medium of exchange?
Answer:
Money is accepted as a ‘medium of exchange’ because it acts as an intermediary in the process of exchange. A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or service.

Related Theory
Money helps to facilitate trade because people in the economy generally recognise it as valuable. Earlier, barter system was used as a medium of exchange and later, gold was adopted as an intermediary.

Question 14.
What can be the alternative mode of payment in place of cash money?
Answer:
Cheques and demand deposits’ are two alternative modes of payment that can be used in place of cash money.

Related Theory
Digital payment through the internet and mobile wallets is also a good alternative for cash. Plastic money like credit and debit cards are also used instead of cash in the market.

Question 15.
Explain the meaning of currency.
Answer:
Currency in the form of money: paper notes and coins.

Question 16.
How is a double coincidence of wants not appreciable in the contemporary scenario?
Answer:
Double coincidence of wants not appreciable: What a person desires to sell is exactly not what the other wishes to buy.

Question 17.
Why do banks ask for collateral while giving loans?
Answer:
Banks use collateral as a guarantee until the loan is repaid.

Question 18.
How do the Demand Deposits offer facilities
Answer:
Demand Deposits offer facilities as:
It offers essential characteristics of money/ Safe transfer of money.

Question 19.
What is credit?
Answer:

Question 20.
What are formal sources of credit?
Answer:
Banks and Cooperative societies which charge less interest on loan are called formal sources of credit.

Question 21.
Give one reason that prevents a rural poor from getting a formal loan.
Answer:
Lack of collateral

Question 22.
What is a cheque?
Answer:
A cheques is a paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from the person’s account to the person in whose name the cheque has been issued.

Question 23.
What do terms of credit include?
Answer:
The terms of credit include interest rate, collateral, documentation requirement, mode of payment.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

March 1, 2023

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following countries was not a united nation-state when Frederic Sorrieu painted “Democratic and Social Republics”?
(a) Switzerland
(b) Sicily
(c) Ireland
(d) Germany
Answer:
(d) Germany

Explanation: In Sorrieu’s painting, nations were represented through a group of citizens bearing their respective nation’s symbols. Germany was shown reaching towards the Statue of Liberty as a nation but the country was comprised of a group of divided German¬speaking principalities in 1848.

She attained the status of a united nation¬state in 1871.

Related Theory
Switzerland was already a liberal nation-state and led the procession of states along with the USA. Ireland and Sicily were behind Germany in the procession. They were united as a nation but had not attained liberty by 1848.

Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following statements is true about nation-states?
(a) Citizens share a common sense of shared identity or history.
(b) Nation-state is a state ruled by one absolute ruler.
(c) Commonness is forged through linguistic factors only.
(d) Nation-States are directly ruled by people and based on the heterogenization of society.
Answer:

Class 10 History Chapter 1 MCQ Question 3.
Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi – Britain
(b) Otto Von Bismarck – Italy
(c) Friedrich Wilhelm IV – Germany
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini – Italy
Answer:
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini – Italy

Explanation: Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary who struggled to unify Italy and set up secret societies in order to achieve that His efforts were however in vain.

Related Theory
Correctly matched pairs: Giuseppe Garibaldi was one of the most celebrated of Italian freedom fighters. He led his volunteers to win several wars in order to unify Italy.

Otto Von Bismarck was the Prussian chief minister who took up the task of unifying Italy along with his bureaucracy and army.

Friedrich Wilhelm IV was the King of Prussia who opposed the elected assembly after Frankfurt Parliament.

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe MCQ Question 4.
Fill in the blank by choosing the right answer from the options given below:
Bohemia: German, Galicia:
(a) Magyar
(b) French
(c) Polish
(d) Russian
Answer:
(c) Polish

Explanation: Eastern and Central Europe was divided into multipLe autocratic monarchies where ethnically and culturally diverse people resided. They spoke different languages and did not share a sense of collective identity.

The aristocratic class of Bohemia spoke German predominantly. The aristocratic class of Galicia was majorly Polish-speaking.

Related Theory
Magyar was spoken in Hungary.

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of nationalism?
(a) French Revolution
(b) Russian Revolution
(c) Glorious Revolution
(d) The Revolution of Liberals
Answer:

Class 10 History Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
A custom union that was formed in 1834 at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the German states was called:
(a) Zollverein
(b) Plebiscite
(c) Utopian
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Zollverein

Related Theory
Plebiscite means a direct vote which gives power to the people of a region to accept or reject a proposal. Utopian means an imaginary ideal society that principally does not exist.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 History Chapter 1 Question 7.
Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
(a) Otto Von Bismarck – Germany
(b) Napoleon – Spain
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi – France
(d) Bourbon Kings – Italy
Answer:
(a) Otto Von Bismarck – Germany

Explanation: Otto Von Bismarck, was the Chief Minister of Prussia Germany. He was the architect of the process of unification of Germany, which was carried out with the help of the Prussian army and bureaucracy.

Related Theory

Corrected pairs:
Napoleon – France
Guissepe Garibaldi – Italy
Bourbon Kings – Spain

History Chapter 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 8.
Which one of the following claimed that true German culture was discovered among the common people-das volk?
(a) Karol Karpinski
(b) Louis Philippe
(c) CarlWelcker
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder
Answer:
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder

Explanation: Johann Gottfried Herder was a German Philosopher.

Related Theory
Louis Philippe was the constitutional monarch of France and his reign was known as July monarchy as he came in power after the July Revolution of 1830. Karol Karpinski was a polish music composer.

Carl Welcker was a liberal politician and an elected member of the Frankfurt Parliament which convened in the Church of St. Paul on 18 May 1848.

Ch 1 History Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
Which among the following best signifies the idea of liberal nationalism of nineteenth-century Europe?
(a) Emphasis on social justice
(b) State planned socio-economic system
(c) Freedom for individual and equality before law
(d) Supremacy of state oriented nationalism.
Answer:

History Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 10.
In 1789, France was a full-fledged territorial state under the rule of which of the following:
(a) A Federal Republic
(b) An Absolute Monarch
(c) A Democratic Ruler
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) An Absolute Monarch

Explanation: Louis XVI, a Bourbon King was an absolute monarch in France in 1789.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Chapter 1 Question 11.
“When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”. Who among the following said this popular line ?
(a) Giseppe Mazzini
(b) Metternich
(c) Otto Von Bismarck
(d) Guiseppe Garibaldi
Answer:

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ With Answers Pdf Question 12.
Who among the following was proclaimed as the first German Emperor in 1871?
(a) William I
(b) William II
(c) Friendrich William I
(d) Friedrich William II
Answer:
(a) William I

Explanation: In January 1871, the Prussian king, William I, was proclaimed the first German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.

MCQ For Class 10 History Chapter 1 With Answers Question 13.
Study the picture and answer the question that follows:
Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of Germania?
(a) Heroism and Justice
(b) Folk and Cultural Tradition
(c) Austerity and Asceticism
(d) Revenge and Vengeance

Answer:
(a) Heroism and Justice

MCQ Of Chapter 1 History Class 10 With Answers Question 14.
Which of the following reform/s was/were introduced by Napoleon?
(a) Standardized system of weights and measures
(b) A common national currency
(c) Abolition of the feudal system
(d) All of the above
Answer:

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ With Answers Pdf Download Question 15.
Which one of the following attributes stands for ‘Willingness to make peace’?
(a) Breastplate with eagle
(b) Olive branch around the sword
(c) Broken chain
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Olive branch around the sword

Explanation: An olive branch symbolises peace and the sword symbolises readiness to light but together an olive branch around the sword symbolises willingness to make peace.

Related Theory
Breastplate with eagle stands for ‘symbol of German empire-strength’ while broken chain refers to ‘Being freed’

Question 16.
which of the following was NOT visualized by Frederic Sorrieu in his first print of series of four prints made up of ‘Democratic and the Social Republic’?
(a) The people of America and Europe-men and women of all ages
(b) Social classes marching in a long train
(c) Offering homage to the Statue of Unity
(d) All of these
Answer:

Question 17.
He was described as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’ by Metternich. Who was he?
(a) Lord Byron
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Garibaldi
(d) Napoleon
Answer:
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini

Explanation: Mozzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened the conservatives in Europe and so was described as the ‘most dangerous enemy of our social order’ by Metternich-chancellor of Austria who himself was a conservative.

Question 18.
Which one of the following was NOT among the symbols of the new Britain when a new ‘British nation’ was forged through the propagation of a dominant English culture?
(a) Union Jack
(b) God Save Our Noble King
(c) English Language
(d) Irish Language
Answer:
(d) Irish Language

Explanation: Union Jack-the British flag. God Save Our Noble King-the national anthem and the English language were actively promoted after the United Kingdom was formed. Whereas scotland and Ireland became subordinate partners of the united kingdom.

Question 19.
The French Revolution artists used the female allegory to portray which of the following ideas?
(a) Liberty
(b) Justice
(c) Republic
(d) ALL of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 20.
In visual representations, who wears a crown of oak Leaves?
(a) Marianne
(b) Germania
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Germania

Explanation: Germania wearing a crown of oak [earns symbolizing heroism became the allegory of the German nation white Marianne was of France.

Question 21.
A government or system of rute that has no restraints on the powers exercised is called:
(a) Absolutist
(b) Utopian
(c) Democratic
(d) Conservatist
Answer:

Question 22.
Sorrieus vision of society which is so idealistic that it is unLikeLy to exist is called
(a) Utopian
(b) Democratic
(c) AbsoLutist
(d) Conservatist
Answer:
(a) Utopian

Explanation: Utopian Vision of French Artists was so ¡deal- so perfect and unadulterated that it was impossible to find such a vision to materialise in reality.

Related Theory
Absolutism is a type of governance or system of rute that has no restraints on the power exercised.
Democracy is the supremacy of will of common people, government ¡s run by representatives chosen by common people.

Conservatism is a patitical philosophy that stressed the importance of tradition, established institutions and customs and preferred gradual development to quick change.

Question 23.
Arrange the following events of world history in increasing order of their date of occurrence
(i) Unification of Italy
(ii) Vienna Peace Settlement
(iii) Napoleonic wars begin
(iv) Unification of Germany
Options:
(a) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
(b) (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i)
(c) (ii)-(i)-(iii)-(iv)
(d) (iii)-(ii)-(i)-(iv)
Answer:

Question 24.
Choose the INCORRECT option from column A and column B.

Column A	Column B
(a) Frederic Sorrieu	(i) A British Artist
(b) Bismarck	(ii) Unification of Germany
(c) Lord Byron	(iii) An English poet
(d) Karol Karpinski	(iv) A Polish music composer

Answer:
(a) Frederic Sorrieu-(i) A British Artist

Explanation: Frederic Sorrieu was a French Artist.

Related Theory:
In 1848, Frederic Sameu prepared a series of four prints visualizing his dream of a world made up of Democratic and Social Republics

Question 25.
Choose the CORRECT option from column A and column B.

Column A	Column B
(a) Absolutist	(i) A vision of society
(b) Utopian	(ii) A form of government
(c) Plebiscite	(iii) A system of direct vote
(d) Suffrage	(iv) A system of holding election

Answer:
(c) Plebiscite – (iii) A system of direct vote

Explanation: (a, b, and d are incorrect)
A plebiscite is a system of direct voting by which all the people of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal.

Related Theory
Absolutist refers to a form of monarchial government or system of rule that has no restraints on the power exercised
Utopian means a vision of society that is so ideal that it is unlikely to actually exist.
Suffrage refers to the right to vote.

Question 26.
Which one of the following statements if asle regarding the Act of Union 1707 ?
(a) It was an agreement between England and Scotland.
(b) It was an agreement between England and Ireland.
(c) It resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Gret Britain’.
(d) It gave England control over Scotland.
Answer:
(b) It was an agreement between England and Ireland.

Explanation: England was unified through an Act called the Act of Union 1707 passed by the English Parliament. This Act forged a union between England and Scotland. England gained supremacy and suppressed Scottish identity through its political, economic and diplomatic power. Ireland was joined later in 1801, after revolts from Irish Catholics.

Question 27.
Which among the following was the main reason for the weavers to revolt against contractors in Silesia, in 1845 ?
(a) Contractors reduced their payments drastically.
(b) They stopped the supply of raw materials to them.
(c) They refused to place orders for finished textiles.
(d) Condition of weavers was very pitiable.
Answer:

Question 28.
Which one of the following states was ruled by an Italian princely house before unification of Italy ?
(a) Kingdom of Two Sicilies
(b) Lombardy
(c) Venetia
(d) Sardinia-Piedmont
Answer:
(d) Sardinia-Piedmont

Explanation: Italy was divided into seven states/principalities. Sardinia-Piedmont was the only one ruled by an Italian princely house.

Related Theory
Venetia and Lombardy located in the north were under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by the Pope and the southern regions (the two kingdoms of Sicily were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain.

Question 29.
Which one of the following is not true about the female allegory of France ?
(a) She was named Marianne.
(b) She took part in the French Revolution.
(c) She was a symbol of national unity.
(d) Her characteristic were drawn from those of Liberty and the Republic.
Answer:
(b) She took part in the French Revolution.

Explanation: French Allegory Marianne was a symbolical figure which represented the country of France. She was not a human but a symbol and hence she did not take part in the French Revolution.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given in each question.

Question 30.
Identify the personalities:
(1) They were two brothers who studied law, they soon developed an interest in collecting old folktales.
(2) They spent six years traveling from village to village, talking to people and writing down fairy tales.
(3) They also published a 33-volume dictionary of the German language.
Answer:
Jacob and Wilhelm Grimm

Explanation: They were born in Germany and published Grimm’s Fairy Tales for Children.

Question 31.
Identify the personality :
(1) He was an Austrian Chancellor.
(2) He hosted the Congress of Vienna.
(3) He said “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”.
Answer:
Duke Metternich

Explanation: He was the Austrian Chancellor and believed that conservative order was the best type of government to rule and unify the state.

Question 32.
Identify the class:
(1) They owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses.
(2) They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society.
(3) Their families were often connected by ties of marriage.
Answer:

Correct and Rewrite/True-False
State whether the statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement:

Question 33.
Germania wears red cap, the tricolour, the cockade.
Answer:
False

Germania became the allegory of the German nation and wears a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.

Explanation: Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries personified nations and basic values of liberty, truth, justice through female figures. These were called female allegories. Germania was the allegory of Germany. She wears crown of German Oak leaves which stands for Heroism.

Question 34.
Napoleon abolished the feudal system in various parts of Europe.
Answer:

Question 35.
Louise Otto-Peters was a political activist who founded a women’s journal and subsequently a feminist social union.
Answer:
Louise Otto-Peters was a political activist who founded a woman’s journal and subsequently a feminist political association.

Question 36.
The Bourbon kings who had been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815 were now overthrown by radical conservatives.
Answer:
The Bourbon kings who had been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815 were now overthrown by liberal revolutionaries.

Question 37.
The 1830s were years of great political uprising in Europe.
Answer:
The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 38.
The most serious source of nationalist tension in South-eastern Europe after 1871 was in the area called…………………
Answer:

Question 39.
The German philosopher ……….. claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people-das volk.
Answer:
Johann Gottfried Herder

Question 40.
Name the term used for the countries to the east of the Mediterranean, usually referring to Asia.
Answer:
Orient

Explanation: Western countries see this region as pre-modern, traditional and mysterious. The name Orient also means the same.

Question 41.
Giuseppe Mazzini was a revolutionary from
Answer:
Italy

Question 42.
……………….. mobilized nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe.
Answer:

Question 43.
Read the source given:
The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.

Answer the question.
Vienna Peace Settlement was signed in ……………………

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 44.
Match the following symbols from column A with their meanings from column B.

Column A (Symbols)	Column B (Meanings)
(a) Broken chains	(i) Heroism
(b) Sword	(ii) Being freed
(c) Crown of oak leaves	(iii) Symbol of the German empire strength
(d) Breastplate with eagle	(iv) Readiness to fight

Answer:

Column A (Symbols)	Column B (Meanings)
(a) Broken chains	(ii) Being freed
(b) Sword	(iv) Readiness to fight
(c) Crown of oak leaves	(i) Heroism
(d) Breastplate with eagle	(iii) Symbol of the German empire strength

Question 45.
Match the following famous personalities from column A with their actions from column B.

Column A (Personalities)	Column B (Their Actions)
(a) Friedrich Wilhelm IV	(i) Organised funds and went to fight in the war
(b) Louise Otto-Peters	(ii) Proclaimed man-the stronger and woman-the weaker
(c) Carl Weicker	(iii) Founded a women’s journal
(d) Lord Byron	(iv) Joined other monarchs to oppose the elected assembly

Answer:

Question 46.
Match the following years from column A with important events from column B.

Column A (Years)	Column B (important Events)
(a) 1707	(i) Ireland was incorporated into the UK
(b) 1801	(ii) The Act of Union
(c) 1821	(iii) William-I The Prussian King
(d) 1871	(iv) Greek struggle for independence begins

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 History Chapter 1

In each of the following questions, a statemant of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 47.
Assertion (A): Serfdom and bonded Labour were aboLished in Habsburg dominion and Russia.
Reason (R): Monarchs had realised that revolution could be resisted only by granting concessions to liberal- nationalist rebels.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: To curb repression and threats of revolution, autocratic monarchies of Europe (central and eastern) began to introduce changes and concessions to lure the rebels. Thus, both serfdom and bonded labour were abolished and they were treated better.

Question 48.
Assertion (A): The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial one within the Liberal movement.
Reason (R): Women were considered inferior and dependent upon men by the society, despite their enthusiastic performance in Liberal Movement.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 49.
Assertion (A): In the years after 1848, the autocratic monarchies of Central and Eastern Europe began to introduce the changes that had already taken place in Western Europe before 1815.
Reason(R): Napoleon won over Europe once again.
Answer:

Question 50.
Assertion (A): Nationalism, aligned with imperialism, led Europe to disaster in 1914.
Reason(R): Many countries in the world which had been colonized by the European powers in the nineteenth century began to oppose imperial domination.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The aspirations of Russia, Germany, England, Austro-Hungary about extending their own control over more area led to the first World War in 1914 which was the disaster being mentioned in the assertion. Though the imperial domination of Britain was opposed, it gained momentum after the First World War ended.

Question 51.
Assertion (A): The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the Greeks which began in 1831.
Reason(R): Greece was suffering under subjugation of the Ottoman Empire.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Which of the following statements stands true about the Statue of Liberty?
(I) The Statue of Liberty holds the torch of Enlightenment and bears the Charter of Rights of Man in her hand.
(II) Frederic Sorrieu painted the statue of Liberty and Statue of Republic in his “Democratic and Social Republics.”
(III) The Statue of Liberty is situated in France.
(IV) The Statue of Liberty is allegorical representation of value of Liberty.
(a) (I) & (III) only
(b) (I) & (IV) only
(c) (II), (III) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(b) (I) & (IV) only

Explanation: Statue of Liberty is situated in Liberty Island, USA and was painted in Sorrieu’s painting titled “Democratic and Social Republics” of 1848 as an allegorical representation of Liberty. She holds the torch of Enlightenment and the Charter of the Rights of Man in her hands.

Nations were shown marching towards it with aspirations of attaining liberty and a status of nation-state.

Question 2.
Read the source and answer the question that follows:
The members of this class were united by a common way of life that cut across regional divisions. They owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses. They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society. Their families were often connected by ties of marriage.
Identify the class mentioned in the source given above:
(a) Aristocratic Class
(b) Peasant Class
(c) Nobility
(d) Capitalist class
Answer:
(a) Aristocratic Class
Explanation: Landed aristocracy was a dominant class in Europe and were rich since they owned their fields and others cultivated these fields for them. They were numerically small.

Related Theory:
Nobility or the ruler class did not own farmlands and the peasant class cultivated the fields of aristocrats. They were tenants and did not own the lands upon which they worked hard.

Question 3.
Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Column A	Column B
(A) Tready of Constantinople	(I) 1815
(B) Vienna Peace Settlement	(II) 1832
(C) Ceremony at Versailles	(III) 1707
(D) Act of Union	(IV) 1871

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D) -(III)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:

Question 4.
Study the picture and answer the question that follows.

Explain as to what does this image of‘The courier of Rhineland’ say about Napoleon?
Answer:
This picture shows the loss of territories under Napoleon after his defeat at Battle of Leipzig in 1813.

Explanation: Napoleon in this picture is shown as a postman on his way back to France after he lost the battle of Leipzig in 1813. Each letter dropping out of his bag shows the names of the territories he lost after this battle.

Question 5.
Which of the following statements stand true for the nation of Poland?
(I) Poland was partitioned in eighteenth century.
(II) With the end of Poland, the sentiments of nationalism among the Polish people ended as well.
(III) Karl Kurpinski was a polish artist.
(IV) Poland was ruled over by Russia and Polish language was used as a weapon of struggle against Russian Dominance.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (IV) only
(c) (I), (III) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I), (III) & (IV) only

Explanation: Polish nationalism was preserved and continuously promoted through music and language by its artists and revolutionaries. Poland was given to Russia after Vienna Peace Settlement.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Other Romantics such as the German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder (1744¬1803) claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people – das volt It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation (volksgeist) was popularised. So collecting and recording these forms of folk culture was essential to the project of nation¬building. The emphasis on vernacular language and the collection of local folklore was not just to recover an ancient national spirit, but also to carry the modern nationalist message to large audiences who were mostly illiterate.
(A) Which of the following statement best describes the Romantic Movement?
(a) It was about the emotions of patriotism towards one’s state.
(b) It was a cultural movement which sought to develop nationalist sentiments.
(c) It was a literary movement to focus on vernacular languages.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:

(B) Who among the following celebrated nationalism through opera music?
(a) Garibaldi
(b) Grimm Brothers
(c) Karol Kurpinski
(d) Mazzini
Answer:
(c) Karol Kurpinski

(C) Define Volksgeist.
Answer:
Volksgeist is the spirit of nation a set of intellectual, moral and cultural traits that define nations.

(D) Assertion (A): It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation was popularised.
Reason(R): Recording these forms of foIk culture was essential to the project of nation-building.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The first half of the nineteenth century saw an enormous increase in population all over Europe. In most countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment. Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums. Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England, where industrialisation was more advanced than on the continent.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following revolutions were caused due to economic reasons?
(a) The Liberal Revolution
(b) Revolution of Silesian weavers
(c) Greek War of Independence
(d) Germany’s war with Austria
Answer:
(b) Revolution of Silesian weavers

Explanation: Silesian weavers in 1845, revolted against their contractors because despite ordering them and supplying them with raw materials, they had reduced their payments drastically.

(B) Who ruled France in 1830s and was forced to flee after unemployment caused workers to revolt on roads?
(a) King Emmanuel II
(b) King William I
(c) King Louis Philippe
(d) King Wilhelm (2)
Answer:
(c) King Louis Philippe

Explanation: King Louis Philippe had to flee when the revolutions started getting more frequent and violent. He ruled France up till 1848.

(C) Which right was guaranteed after the people came out on roads to revolt in France in 1830s?
(a) Right to work and vote
(b) Right to strike
(c) Right to elect their king
(d) Right to choose their profession
Answer:

(D) Why were the 1830s years of great economic hardship in Europe?
(a) Industrial Revolution had created less economic opportunities than expected.
(b) Workers were on a strike hence industries were closed.
(c) Population had risen exponentially and job opportunities were less.
(d) Aristocratic class had snatched the jobs of worker class.
Answer:

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The model of the nation or the nation-state, some scholars have argued, is Great Britain. In Britain the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or revolution. It was the result of a long-drawn- out process. There was no British nation prior to the eighteenth century. The primary identities of the people who inhabited the British Isles were ethnic ones – such as English, Welsh, Scot or Irish. All of these ethnic groups had their own cultural and political traditions. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following statements stands true about the process of unification of Britain:
(a) The process was a result of thirty year long war between people of different ethnicities in which only the English remained unscathed.
(b) The process was a political struggle.
(c) The unification was achieved through political and social subjugation of various ethnicities by the English.
(d) The unification was based on attack and conquer plan by the king of England.
Answer:
(c) The unification was achieved through political and social subjugation of various ethnicities by the English.

Explanation: English suppressed the Irish and Scottish ethnic identities through its political, social and territorial supremacy and forced them in a union.

(B) which of the following statements stands true for England?
(I) England was a powerful nation and its world domination was on the basis of the nation’s pride.
(II) England was economically very strong and brought Scotland under its debt.
(III) The United Kingdom of Great Britain was forged through an act in 1807 and it joined England and Scotland.
(IV) England and Scotland together suppressed Ireland to bring it under their union.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III) only
(c) 0) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:

(C) England was a kingdom before the English Parliament snatched powers in 1688. Fill in the blank choosing the most appropriate answer:
(a) Republican
(b) Monarchical
(c) Democratic
(d) Directly ruled
Answer:

(D) Who was the allegory of Britain?
(a) Britannica
(b) Alexandria
(c) Britannia
(d) Melania
Answer:
(c) Britannia

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
In 1867, Garibaldi led an army of volunteers to Rome to fight the last obstacle to the unification of Italy, the Papal States where a French garrison was stationed. The Red Shirts proved to be no match for the combined French and Papal troops. It was only in 1870 when, during the war with Prussia, France withdrew its troops from Rome that the Papal States were finally joined to Italy.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Who was Garibaldi?
(a) Chief Minister of Italy
(b) King of Sardinia-Piedmont
(c) A Revolutionary who established Young Italy and Young Europe secret Societies.
(d) A freedom fighter who helped Cavour to unify Italy.
Answer:

(B) What was the Young Italy Movement related to?
(a) Freedom of Italy from the subjugating rule of the Ottoman rulers.
(b) A mission to educated the Youth of Italy.
(c) A mission to hold elections in Italy for the first time
(d) Unification of Italy since it was divided into various states.
Answer:
(d) Unification of Italy since it was divided into various states.

Explanation: Italy was divided into various principalities and each was ruled by a different ruler. To unify it. the Young Italy Movement was instituted by Giuseppe Mazzini and joined by Garibaldi.

Column A	Column B
(A) Sardinia Piedmont	(I) Pope
(B) North Italy	(II) Spanish Rulers
(C) South Italy	(III) Italian Rulers
(D) Central Italy	(IV) Austrian Rulers

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D) -(III)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:

(D) Who was proclaimed the ruler of united Italy?
(a) Cavour
(b) Kaiser William I
(c) Victor Emmanuel II
(d) King Wilhelm IV
Answer:
(c) Victor Emmanuel II

Related Theory
Camillo de Cavour was the chief minister of Sardinia- Piedmont.
Kaiser William I was proclaimed the king of united Germany in 1871.
King Frederich Wilhelm IV was the ruler of Prussia.

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The Bourbon kings who had been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815 were now overthrown by liberal revolutionaries who installed a constitutional monarchy with Louis Philippe at its head.
‘When France sneezes,’ Metternich once remarked, ‘the rest of Europe catches cold.’ The July Revolution sparked an uprising in Brussels which led to Belgium breaking away from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Why did Duke Metternich say “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”?
(a) France was situated in a colder weather zone than the rest of Europe.
(b) French flu was highly contagious.
(c) France was the forbearer of any revolution or movement that took place in Europe.
(d) France was situated on the gateway of Europe.
Answer:

(B) Where did the Bourbon Kings belong to?
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Spain
(d) Austria
Answer:
(c) Spain

(D) which of the following stands true about the conservative order?
(a) Conservatives did not accept the changed brought by Napoleon.
(b) Conservatives believed in dissent and conversation.
(c) Conservatives abolished serfdom to rule in peace.
(d) Conservatives wanted to abolish the bureaucracy.
Answer:

Question 11.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow:
The ideas of national unity in early-nineteenth- century. Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism. In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital. During the nineteenth century this was a strong demand of the emerging middle classes. Napoleon had created a confederation of 39 states. Each of them had their own currency, weights and measures. A customer travelling from Hamburg to Nuremberg in 1833 to sell his goods had to pass through 11 customs barrier and pay a customs duty of about 5 percent at each one of them. Duties were often levied according to the weight or measurement of the goods. The measure of cloth, was the elle which in each region stood for a different length. An elle of textile in Frankfurt got a person 54.7 cm of cloth, in Mainz 55.1 cm, in Nuremberg 65.6 cm, in Freiburg 53.5 cm.
(A) Who was Napoleon?
Answer:
Napoleon Bonaparte was a famous French statesman and military leader who led several successful campaigns during the French Revolutionary Wars and conquered various countries in Europe. Fie incorporated Napoleonic Code establishing equality before Law.

(B) Explain what do you mean by Liberalism in your own words.
Answer:
According to me, Liberalism stands for easing of implied restrictions. The restrictions might be political, social or even economical. To be liberal means to be more accommodative of new emerging practices. In economic sphere, it stood for freedom of markets and the abolition of state imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Examine the significance of the Statue of Liberty in Frederic Sorrieu’s paintings, ‘The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republics’.
Answer:
The Statue of Liberty has been used as an allegory to signify liberty.

The painting shows independent nations marching towards the Statue of Liberty, therefore symbolising fraternity among the nations of the world.

Question 2.
Why was Otto Von Bismarck considered as the architect of the unified Germany ?
Answer:
Otto Von Bismark as the architect of the unified Germany:
He carried out unification with the help of Prussian army and bureaucracy.

Question 3.
What major issues were taken up by liberal nationalists?
Answer:
The freedom for the individual and equality of all before the Law were some of the issues taken by the liberal nationalists.

Question 4.
Name the Act which resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain.
Answer:
The Act Of Union 1707 resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain. Explanation: The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain. England imposed its rule on Scotland.

Question 5.
Explain the aim to form Zollverein, a customs union, in 1834 in Germany.
Answer:

Question 6.
Who became the allegory of the German nation?
Answer:
Germania became the allegory of the German nation.

Related Theory
In visual representations, Germania wears a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.

Question 7.
when did Napoleon invade Italy?
Answer:

Question 8.
Why did most ‘conservative regimes’ impose censorship laws to control printed material associated with the French Revolution in 1815?
Answer:

Question 9.
Which country did the artist Frederic Sorrieu belong?
Answer:
Frederic Sorrieu belonged to France.

Question 10.
Which nation was identifiable in the revolutionary tricolour in Sorrieu’s utopian vision?
Answer:
The French nation was identifiable in the revolutionary tricolour in Sorrieu’s utopian vision.

Related Theory
In 1848, Frederic Sorrieu, a French artist, prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world made up of ‘democratic and social republics’. In Sorrieu’s utopian vision, the people of the world are grouped as distinct nations, identified through their flags and national costume, marchling towards the statue of Liberty.

Question 11.
What were the effects of revolutionary upheaval in France in 1830?
Answer:
The Bourbon dynasty that had been ruling the region was deposed.

Related Theory
In its place, constitutional monarchy was set up with Louis Philippe at its head. Belgium was freed of United Kingdom of Netherlands through an uprising.

Question 12.
Who was called as the architect of Germany’s unification?
Answer:
Otto Von Bismarck.

Question 13.
Why big European powers met in Berlin in 1885?
Answer:
European powers met in Berlin in 1885 to complete the carving up of Africa among them.

Related Theory
It was incepted with the aim of abolishing tariff and trade barriers among the German states. It helped in strengthening the nationalistic sentiments among the citizens who were already boiling with vigour and patriotism during those times.

Question 14.
Who implemented the Civil Code of 1804 in France?
Answer:
Napoleon Bonaparte implemented the Civil Code of 1804 in France.

Related Theory
The Civil Code of 1804 was also known as the ‘Napoleonic Code’. It was passed by Napoleon Bonaparte in 1804 in many parts of Europe which he had conquered after rising to power in France. It was passed by him to maintain control in his territory.

Question 15.
Name the Treaty of 1832 that recognised Greece as an independent nation.
Answer:
The Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation.

Question 16.
What was the meaning of liberalism in the early nineteenth century in Europe?
OR
Explain the meaning of ‘liberalism’.
Answer:
In the early nineteenth century in Europe, liberalism stood for freedom of the individual and equality of all before the law.

Related Theory
The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free. Politically, it emphasised the concept of government by consent Nineteenth-century liberals also stressed the inviolability of private property.

Question 17.
Why did Slavic nationalist struggle in the 19th century? Give one reason.
Answer:

Question 18.
What was the main aim of the French revolutionaries?
Answer:
The main aim of French revolutionaries was:
To create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.

Question 19.
What is the meaning of concentration camps?
Answer:
A prison where people are detained without due process of law.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

March 1, 2023

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Nationalism in India Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Nationalism In India Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The growth of modern nationalism in India is intimately connected to which of the following events:
(a) Anti-Racial Movement
(b) Religious Reform Movements
(c) Anti-Imperial Movement
(d) Secessionist movements of Sikhs
Answer:
(c) Anti-Imperial Movement

Explanation: India was facing the despotic rule of Britain and its repercussions on its economy, society and polity. Its people were struggling for independence. They were mistreated and repressed in their own country. This led to the birth of Anti-Imperial sentiments and gave birth to modern nationalism in the country.

Nationalism In India MCQ Question 2.
What was the Inland Emigration Act of 1859 related to?
(a) Peasants and agricultural workers
(b) Workers of Tea Plantation
(c) Cotton Mill Workers
(d) Civil Services Officers
Answer:
(b) Workers of Tea Plantation

Explanation: Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers working on tea plantations in Assam were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission which was not given readily when asked.

MCQ On Nationalism In India Class 10 Question 3.
Martial law was imposed after the Rowlatt Act Hartal and took command.
(a) General Dyer
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) John Simon
(d) Lord Curzon
Answer:

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Chapter 3 Question 4.
Which of the following leaders were two radical leaders and members of Congress?
(a) Bhagat Singh and Battukeshwar Dutta
(b) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G. D. Birla
Answer:
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose

Explanation: Congress was divided among the two factions- moderates and radicals. Moderates Like C.R Das supported the reformation of British institutions through constitutional ways, they believed British were good for India’s progress. While Radicals like Nehru and Bose were of the opinion that only peaceful mass agitation and movements could drive British out of India.

Related Theory
Bhagat Singh and Battukeshwar Dutta were hardcore revolutionaries. They tried to kill British Lords and used violent methods to protest.

Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G. D. Birla were industrialists and supported the Civil Disobedience movement.

Caution
Jawaharlal Nehru was a radical leader while his father Motilal Nehru was a moderate leader. Both were members of the Indian National Congress.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Question 5.
Fill in the blank by choosing the correct answer from the options given below:
Hind Swaraj: Gandhiji, Anand Math:
(a) Abanindranath Tagore
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(d) Raja Ravi Varma
Answer:

Class 10 History Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Identify the appropriate reason from the following options, for the non¬participation of industrial workers in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
(a) Industrialists were close to the Congress
(b) British offered them good salaries
(c) They were reluctant to boycott foreign goods
(d) Growth of socialism.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Pdf Question 7.
Which of the following organisation/s was/ were formed by industrialists in colonial India? [Diksha]
(a) Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920
(b) Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Explanations: Indian merchants and industrialists like Purshotamdas Thakurdas and G.D. Birla formed the FICCI in 1927 and IICC in 1920 to organise their business interests.

Related Theory
These industrialists like Purshotamdas Thakurdas and G.D. Birla attacked colonial rule over the Indian economy and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement when it was first launched by giving financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported goods.

Class 10 Nationalism In India MCQ Question 8.
which of the following session of Congress, the non-cooperation programmed was adopted?
(a) Calcutta Session
(b) Nagpur Session
(c) Madras Session
(d) None of the above
Answer:

MCQ Of Nationalism In India Class 10 Question 9.
Why did the Simon Commission come to India? Identify the correct reason from the following options:
(a) To control the campaign against the British in cities
(b) To look into the functioning of the British
(c) To initiate salt law in India
(d) To suggest changes in the functioning of the constitutional system in India.
Answer:
(d) To suggest changes in the functioning of the constitutional system in India.

Related Theory
However, not a single Indian was consulted to make changes in the constitutional system of India. Both the Congress and the Muslim League demonstrated against the commission.

Nationalism In India Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 10.
Which of the following event happened on 31 January, 1930?
(a) Gandhi ji wrote a letter to Lord Irwin.
(b) Lahore Session of Congress was concluded.
(c) The Salt March was launched by Gandhi
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) Gandhi ji wrote a letter to Lord Irwin

Explanation: In his letter to Lord Irwin, Gandhi ji included 11 demands and one of them was to abolish the salt tax.

Related Theory
Lord Irwin did not negotiate with Gandhi ji and so Gandhi ji launched the Salt March on 11 March, 1930 along with his 78 volunteers from Sabarmati Ashram, covering 240 miles in 24 days Gandhi ji reached Dandi on 6 April, 1930 where he violated the salt law, manufacturing salt by boiling seawater. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

MCQ Of Nationalism In India Question 11.
Who among the following wrote ‘Vande Mata rami
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(c) Abanindranath Tagore
(d) Dwarkanath Tagore
Answer:
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Explanation: In the 1870s, he wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland. Later it was included in his novel ‘Anandamath’ and widely sung during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal.

Related Theory
Abanindranath Tagore painted a portrait of Bharat Mata, while Rabindranath Tagore was a great Bengali poet who wrote ‘Geetanjali.’ Dwarkanath Tagore was an industrialist.

Nationalism In India Class 10 MCQs Question 12.
Who of the following leaders headed the Oudh Khan Sabha?
(a) Gandhi ji and Baba Ramchandra
(b) Gandhi ji and Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Baba Ramchandra
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra and a few others.
Answer:
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra and a few others.

Explanation: In October 1920 during the peasant movement in Oudh (now known as Awadh) Kisan Sabha was set up and within a month, it had over 300 branches in the villages around the region.

Related Theory
Baba Ramachandra had began a movement against landlords who demanded high rents from peasants in Oudh. The peasants had to work without payment or even permanent employment. Jawaharlal Nehru and a few others joined this movement in 1920.

Nationalism In India MCQ Class 10 Question 13.
In which congress session the demand of ‘Purna Swaraj’ was formalized in 1929?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Bombay
(c) Lahore
(d) Nagpur
Answer:

Nationalism In India MCQs Question 14.
What were the main demands of the peasant movement led by Baba Ramchandra in Awadh?
(a) Reduction of revenue
(b) Abolition of begar
(c) Social boycott of oppressive landlords
(d) AU of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation: The peasants in Awadh were Landless laborers working in farms of rich Landlords. Most of the time, the Landlords would not pay the peasants demanding high rent and cess. Sometimes, the peasants were evicted without warning. The peasant movement started by Baba Ramachandra decided to resolve these problems for the peasants.

Nationalism In India Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 15.
Read the given source and answer the following:
The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax. Salt was something consumed by the rich and the poor alike, and it was one of the most essential items of food. The tax on salt and the government monopoly over its production, Mahatma Gandhi declared, revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.

To protest against the salt tax, Gandhiji undertook:
(a) Non-cooperation Movement
(b) Civil disobedience
(c) Dandi March
(d) Protests against Simon Commission
Answer:
(c) Dandi March

Explanation: To express his displeasure against the salt tax, Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi. On 6 April he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling seawater. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Related Theory
Civil Disobedience Movement followed Dandi March. It openly encouraged people to break colonial laws. Thousands in different parts of the country broke the salt law, manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of government salt factories. As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted, and liquor shops were picketed.

Question 16.
Which of the following incident happened on 6 January 1921?
(a) Gandhiji wrote a letter to Lord Irwin.
(b) Lahore Session of Congress was concluded.
(c) The Salt March was launched by Gandhi
(d) The police fired at peasants
Answer:

Question 17.
Which one of the following statements is not related to Gandilrwin Pact?
(a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass agitation against the British
(b) Gandhiji agreed to participate in a Round table conference
(c) Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience movement
(d) The British agreed to release the political prisoners
Answer:
(a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass agitation against the British.

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi called off the Civil disobedience movement and entered into a pact with Lord Irwin on 5 March 1931. Under the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Gandhiji consented to participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London and the government agreed to release the political prisoners. Gandhiji returned from the conference disappointed and re¬launched the movement but in its second phase, it lost its momentum and came to end by 1934.

Question 18.
Which of the following community chanted Gandhiji’s name and raised slogan demanding ‘Swatantra Bharat’ during the Non-Cooperation Movement?
(a) The tribals
(b) The Dalits
(c) The women
(d) Plantation workers
Answer:

Question 19.
Which of the following options is incorrect related to Dandi March organized by Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi started the Dandi March from Sabarmati Ashram
(b) Dandi March is also known as salt march
(c) Dandi March was started on 11 March 1930
(d) Mahatma Gandhi accompanied 72 of his trusted members.
Answer:
(d) Mahatma Gandhi accompanied 72 of his trusted members.

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi demanded the abolition of the salt tax and served an ultimatum. When there was no reply from the British Government, on 11th March, Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi.

Question 20.
Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj party from the options given below:
(a) Wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics
(b) Wanted members of Congress to ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians
(c) Wanted members of Congress to ask Dominion State for India
(d) Wanted members of Congress to oppose Simon Commission
Answer:
(a) Wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics.

Question 21.
In which of the following places did Mahatma Gandhi organize Satyagraha for the first time in India? [CBSE 2014]
(a) Dandi
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Kheda
(d) Champaran
Answer:
(d) Champaran

Explanation: He travelled to Champaran in 1916 to organise a satyagraha there with the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.

Question 22.
Who among the following was associated with the formation of ‘Swaraj Party’ within the Congress? [CBSE 2014]
(a) Subhas Chandra Bose
(b) Motilal Nehru
(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer:
(b) Motilal Nehru

Explanation: Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das organized Swaraj Party within Congress to contest council elections which had been boycotted by the Indian National Congress due to the ongoing National Movement.

Question 23.
Which one of the following agreements gave reserved seats to the ‘Depressed Classes’ in Provincial and Central legislative Councils?
(a) Lucknow Pact
(b) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(c) Poona Pact
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Poona Pact

Explanation: It gave the Depressed Classes (or Scheduled Castes) reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils in return of being voted in by the general electorate.

Question 24.
Which one of the following statements is not related to the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
(a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mas agitations against the British.
(b) Gandhiji agreed to participate in the Round Table Conference.
(c) Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement.
(d) The British agreed to release the political prisoners.
Answer:
(a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass agitations against the British. Explanation: Gandhiji did not promise anything related to future national movements. He only wanted British to give more independence and remove repressive colonial laws.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 25.
Identify the movement:
(1) The movement was truly a mass movement which brought into its ambit thousands of ordinary people, namely students, workers and peasants. It also saw the active participation of leaders, namely,
(2) Jayprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali and Ram Manohar Lohia and many women such as Matangini Hazra in Bengal, Kanaklata Barua in Assam and Rama Devi in Odisha.
(3) The British responded with much force, yet it took more than a year to suppress the movement.
Answer:
Quit India Movement

Explanation: In Wardha on 14 July, 1942, the Congress Working Committee passed the historic ‘Quit India’ resolution demanding the immediate transfer of power to Indians and quit India. On 8 August, 1942 in Bo?v’uay, the

All India Congress Committee called for a non-violent mass struggle on the widest possible scale throughout the country.

Question 26.
Identify the leader:
(1) He served as the president of the Indian National Congress
(2) He set up the Oudh Kisan Sabha
(3) He was a radical leader.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru played a momentous role in the Indian Independence movement and supported the cause of non-violence agitations of mass wholeheartedly. He set up the Oudh Kisan Sabha in 1920 with Baba Ramchandra’s help.

Question 27.
Identify the incident:
(1) This march was a part of Civil Disobedience Movement
(2) March was accompanied by 78 of Gandhiji’s trusted volunteers.
(3) It began at his ashram in Sabarmati.
Answer:
Salt March or Dandi March

Explanation: Gandhiji began the Civil Disobedience Movement beginning with the Dandi March which was a 240 mile march from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, a coastal town in Gujarat, to ceremonially break the Salt Law by producing some of his own. He was accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. He reached Dandi on 6th April, 1930.

Correct and Rewrite/True-False

Question 28.
Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das had formed the Swaraj Party. State whether the statement is True or False. If False, correct the Statement.
Answer:
True

Explanation: After the withdrawal of Non-Cooperation movement, some Congress Leaders felt it was important to oppose British policies within the councils, argue for reform and also to demonstrate that these councils were not truly democratic. Swaraj Party was formed for this purpose in 1923.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 29.
After the ………….. incident, Gandhiji was forced to halt the Non-Cooperation movement.
Answer:
Chauri Chaura

Explanation: At Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur, a peaceful demonstration in a bazaar turned into a violent clash with the police. With this, the Non-Cooperation movement became violent and a police station was set on fire by the protesters and Gandhiji realized that India was not ready for a pan-India movement. Hence he called off the movement.

Question 30.
………… meant labour in return of no compensation.
Answer:
Begar

Explanation: Begar was a system which forced the labourers to contribute or to work at the farms of their landlords without any payments. Baba Ramchandra led the peasants in a protest against this system of begar and demanded social boycott of oppressive landlords.

Question 31.
During the ‘Swadeshi Movement’ in Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow) was designed. It had eight lotuses, representing the eight provinces of British India. It also had a crescent moon,……………
Answer:

Question 32.
Oudh Kisan Sabha was setup and headed by…………… and
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru and Baba Ramchandra

Explanation: The movement in Awadh was against talukdars and landlords who demanded from peasants exorbitantly high rents and a variety of other cesses. Peasants had to do begar and work at landlords’ farms without any paymentln June 1920, Jawaharlal Nehru began going around the villages in Awadh, talking to the villagers, and trying to understand their grievances. By October, the Oudh Kisan Sabha was set up headed by Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra and a few others.

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 33.
Match the important years from Column A with related events given in column B:

Column A (Important Years)	Column B (Related Events)
(a) 1918	(i) Simon Commission arrived in India
(b) 1922	(ii) First Independence Day
(c) 1928	(iii) Satyagrqha for cotton mill workers
(d) 1930	(iv) NCM was called off

Answer:

Question 34.
Match the keywords from Column A with (heir meanings given in Column B:

Column A (Keywords)	Column B (Meanings)
(a) Forced recruitment	(i) Labour without any payment
(b) Boycott	(ii) A form of demonstration
(c) Picket	(iii) A form of protest
(d) Begar	(iv) A process of making people to join the army

Answer:

Column A (Keywords)	Column B (Meanings)
(a) Forced recruitment	(iv) A process of making people join the army
(b) Boycott	(iii) A form of protest
(c) Picket	(ii) A form of demonstration
(d) Begar	(i) Labour without any payment

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 History Chapter 3

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 35.
Assertion (A): The non-cooperation movement was adopted in the Madras Congress session in 1919.
Reason (R): Chauri Chaura was the place where the non-cooperation movement was called off.
Answer:

Question 36.
Assertion (A): A growing anger against the colonial government was thus bringing together various groups and classes of Indians into a common struggle for freedom in the first half of the twentieth century.
Reason(R): Diverse groups were all tortured by British in one way or the other.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Industrialists, workers, farmers, cultivators, etc were all tortured due to their race and called barbaric and corrupt to justify the despotic rule over them, even though with different intensities.

Question 37.
Assertion (A): The British saw Indians as backward and primitive, incapable of governing themselves.
Reason(R): Indians were inefficient workers.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: British believed Indians were backward and portrayed the same to justify their ill-behavior with Indians. They also beLieved this because Indian history was heavily misinterpreted by them. Indians were hard workers even in the toughest situations.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Arrange the following events in the correct chronoLogicaL order by choosing the correct options:
(I) Satyagraha at Kheda
(II) Hartal due to Rowtatt Act
(III) Mahatma Gandhi comes back to Indio
(IV) Congress adopts Non-Cooperation Movement
(a) (IV)-(I)-(III)-(II)
(b) (IV)-(I)-(II)-(III)
(c) (III)-(I)-(IV)-(II)
(d) (III)-(I)-(II)-(IV)
Answer:

Question 2.
Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Column A	Column B
(A) 1930	(I) Abanindranath Tagore painted Bharat Mata
(B) 1919	(II) All Parties Conference
(C) 1928	(III) Rowlatt Act
(D) 1905	(IV) Depressed Class Association was formed

(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
(b) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
Answer:
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

Explanation: Depressed Class Association was formed by Ambedkar in 1930.
Rowlatt Act was passed by Imperial Legislative Council in 1919.
All Parties Conference took place in 1928 where M.R. Jayakar of Hindu Mahasabha clashed with Jinnah on the questions of reservation of seats of Muslims.
Image of Bharat Mata- Allegory of India was painted by Tagore in 1905.

Question 3.
Read the source and answer the question that follows:
The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in January 1921. Various social groups participated in this movement, each with its own specific aspiration. All of them responded to the call of Swaraj, but the term meant different things to different people.
Which of the following statements stand true for the Non-cooperation Movement?
(I) Boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools, and foreign goods was a program.
(II) It showcased Hindu-Muslim Movement.
(III) It was adopted in one of the sessions of All India Conference of Parties
(IV) lt was suggested by Gandhiji.
(a) (I) & (III) only
(b) (I) & (IV) only
(c) (I), (II) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I), (II) & (IV) only
Explanation: It was adopted at the Congress session at Nagpur in December 1920.

Question 4.
Certain events are given below. Choose the appropriate chronological order:
(1) Coming of Simon Commission to India
(2) Demand of Purna Swaraj in Lahore Sesson of INC
(3) Government of India Act, 1919
(4) Champaran Satyagraha Choose the correct sequence:
(a) (3)-(2)-(4)-(1)
(b) (1)-(2)-(4)-(3)
(c) (2)-(3)-(1)-(4)
(d) (4)-(3)-(1)-(2)
Answer:

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Source: The Movement in the Towns
The movement started with the participation of the middleclass participation in the cities. Thousands of students left government- controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt that entering the council was one way of gaining some power something that usually only Brahmas had access to.

The effects of Non-cooperation movement on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from Rs. 102 crore to Rs. 57 crore. In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.
(A) Explain the role of the Justice Party in boycotting council elections.
Answer:
The Justice Party in Madras (Chennai) wanted to contest the council elections to gain power which was only available to Brahmans till then.

(B) How were the effects of ‘Non-coope-ration movement on the economic front’ dramatic?
Answer:
Merchants burnt foreign clothes in huge bonfires, refusing to buy foreign goods
completely and even picketed liquor shops. Import of foreign goods reduced to half due to their dramatic reaction.

(C) Explain the effect of the ‘boycott’ move-ment on ‘foreign textile trade’.
Answer:
The boycott movement affected foreign trade negatively. Imports of clothes were reduced to half in initial value. Businessmen refused to finance foreign trade or wear foreign goods. People began discarding imported clothes and started wearing only Indian made fabrics, from mills and handlooms.

Question 6.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow.
Source A: The Rowlatt Act Emboldened with this success, Gandhiji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act (1919). This Act had been hurriedly passed through the Imperial Legislative Council despite the united opposition of the Indian members. Mahatma Gandhi wanted non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws, which would start with a hartal on 6 April.

Rallies were organised in various cities, workers went on strike in railway workshops, and shops closed down. Alarmed by the popular upsurge, and scared that lines of communication such as the railway and telegraph would be disrupted, the British administration decided to clamp down on nationalists.
Source B: Why Non-cooperation?
In Hind Swaraj, Mahatama Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India with the cooperation of Indians, and had survived only because of this cooperation. If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule in India would collapse within a year, and swaraj would come. How could non-cooperation become a movement? Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages.
Source C: The Salt March and The Civil Disobedience Movement On 31 January 1930, Gandhiji sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands. Some of these were of general interest; others were specific demands of different classes, from industrialists to peasants. The idea was to make the demarjds wide-ranging, so that all classes within Indian society could identify with them and everyone could be brought together in a united campaign. The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax.
Source A: The Rowlatt Act
(A) Which famous incident followed protests after the hartal on April 6th?
Source B: Why Non-cooperation?
Answer:
After the hartal against Rowlatt Act on 6th April, the infamous Jallianwala Bagh tragedy took place on 13th April where General Dyer open fired on a large crowd assembled for annual Baisakhi fair to spread terror among Satyagrahis. Hundreds of people died in this incident.

(B) List two methods that Gandhiji proposed to adopt to launch the non-cooperation movement
Source C: The Salt March and The Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer:
Gandhiji proposed that to convert non-cooperation into a movement, people should first surrender the titles, awards, rewards or any favours awarded to them by the government and boycott all services under government control such as educational, legal, political, military etc. This meant leaving schools, courts, colleges and offices.

(C) Why was Salt chosen as a symbol of national unity?
Answer:
Gandhiji chose salt to represent national unity because it was the only item used by all-rich or poor, Hindus or Muslims etc. and could be used successfully to unite them against their common enemy-the British.

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow;
It was again a tricolour (red, green and white) and had a spinning wheel in the centre, representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help. Carrying the flag, holding it aloft, during marches became a symbol of defiance. Another means of creating a feeling of nationalism was through reinterpretation of history. By the end of the nineteenth century many Indians began feeling that to instill a sense of pride in the nation, Indian history had to be thought about differently. The British saw Indians as backward and primitive, incapable of governing themselves. In response, Indians began looking into the past to discover India’s great achievements.
(A) Why was the flag mentioned in the source?
(a) The flag represented Britain as a nation.
(b) The flag wanted to spread the idea of self-help among people.
(c) The flag represented the idea and spirit of India as a nation.
(d) The flag was created to decorate the image of Bharat Mata.
Answer:
(c) The flag represented the idea and spirit of India as a nation.

Explanation: The flag represented Gandhian idea of self help and was also a symbol of independence a self-rule. ^ Hence it represented Indian aspirations of nationhood, independence and self-rule. It was a manifestation of the dreams of millions of Indians.

(B) Which of the following symbols were not used to unify people?
(a) Literature
(b) Rivers and Mountains
(c) History of India
(d) FolkSongs
Answer:
(b) Rivers and Mountains

(D) Assertion (A): Indian history had to be thought about differently.
Reason(R): Facts were written wrong.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the N questions that follow:
If the demands were not fulfilled by 11 March, the letter stated, the Congress would launch a civil disobedience campaign. Irwin was unwilling to negotiate. So Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi. The volunteers walked for 24 days, about 10 miles a day. Thousands came to hear Mahatma Gandhi wherever he stopped, and he told them what he meant by swaraj and urged them to peacefully defy the British. On 6 April he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the . most appropriate option.
(A) Which movement was Kickstarted by Dandi March?
(a) Non-Cooperation Movement
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Protest against Simon Commission
Answer:
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement

(B) Which of the following statements are true with respect to the demands as mentioned in the source?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi wrote a letter to Lord Curzon.
(b) Mahatma Gandhi stated 11 important demands for the welfare of Indians.
(c) Mahatma Gandhi was frustrated by the failure of Gandhi-lrwin Pact and hence he sent the demands.
(d) Irwin fulfilled all of those demands afterwards.
Answer:
(b) Mahatma Gandhi stated 11 important demands for the welfare of Indians. Explanation: Gandhi was frustrated by the failure of Second round table conference and hence gave an ultimatum to Lord Irwin to accept his demands regarding the welfare of Indians else a full blown Civil disobedience Movement.

(C) Where did Mahatma Gandhi go to attend a Round Table Conference before sending his 11 demands?
(a) New York
(b) Delhi
(c) London
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) London

(D) The demands that Mahatma Gandhi sent were about ….
(a) Wide ranging demands of the general public of Indian for their welfare.
(b) Specific demands from the Non Residential Indians
(c) Demands about independence of the country
(d) Demands about abolishing custom duties.
Answer:
(a) Wide ranging demands of the general public of Indian for their welfare.

Explanation: Gandhi presented Irwin with his wide ranging demands, general to all the communities and specific demands of social groups to promote equality and welfare of all.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
They wanted protection against imports of foreign goods, and a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports. To organise business interests, they formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927. Led by prominent industrialists like Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G. D. Birla, the industrialists attacked colonial control over the Indian economy, and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement when it was first launched. They gave financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported goods.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following class/social group is mentioned in the given source?
(a) Industrial workers
(b) Farmers and rich landlords
(c) Industrialists
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:

(B) What was the reaction of the given class when this movement was called off?
(a) They encouraged re-launching of this movement.
(b) They were happy because they could no longer financially support the movement.
(c) They were content because they could not disrupt their business for so long.
(d) They were sad because their interests had not been achieved.
Answer:
(c) They were content because they could not disrupt their business for so long.

Explanation: Supporting the movement meant the business was stalled for days and Industrialists were worried about their profit. Hence when the movement could not achieve realisation of their interest, they were at least content that it would not disrupt business anymore.

(C) Why was the given class interested in supporting the Civil Disobedience Movement?
(a) They wanted their business to flourish which could only happen if British industries were closed
(b) They wanted to open more industries in India.
(c) They wanted to stop exporting Indian materials
(d) They wanted their business to flourish which could only happen if Indian exports were encouraged.
Answer:

(D) When was this movement adopted?
(a) 1920
(b) 1921
(c) 1930
(d) 1931
Answer:
(c) 1930
Explanation: The Civil Disobedience movement began in 1930 with the Dandi March.

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
During his trial, Bhagat Singh stated that he did not wish to glorify ‘the cult of the bomb and pistol’ but wanted a revolution in society: ‘Revolution is the inalienable right of mankind. Freedom is the imprescriptible birth right of all. The labourer is the real sustainer of society… To the altar of this revolution we have brought our youth as incense, for no sacrifice is too great for so magnificent a cause. We are content. We await the advent of revolution.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following leaders supported Bhagat Singh in organising this revolution?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) C.R. Das
(d) Ajay Ghosh
Answer:

(B) Which organisation did Bhagat Singh organised to support the cause of his revolution?
(a) FICCI
(b) INA
(c) HSRA
(d) INC
Answer:
(c) HSRA

Explanation: In 1928, the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA) was founded at a meeting in Feroze Shah Kotla ground in Delhi by Bhagat Singh, Jatin Das and Ajoy Ghosh.

(C) Which of the following statements was said by Bhagat Singh?
(a) Jai Jawan, Jai Kisaan
(b) Inquilab Zindabad
(c) Simon Go Back
(d) Do or Die
Answer:
(b) Inquitab Zindabad

Explanation: This translates to “Long live the revolution”. This slogan was coined by the Urdu poet, Indian freedom fighter and socialist Maulana Hasrat Mohani in 1921 and used heavily by Bhagat Singh.

Related Theory
Lai Bahadur Shastri, India’s second Prime Minister used “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan”

(D) Which of the following term clearly described the tendencies of Bhagat Singh?
(a) Moderate nationalist
(b) Radical Nationalist
(c) Internationalist
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
When the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the slogan ‘Go back Simon’. All parties, including the Congress and the Muslim League, participated in the demonstrations. In an effort to win them over, the viceroy, Lord Irwin, announced in October 1929, a vague offer of ‘dominion status’ for India in an unspecified future, and a Round Table Conference to discuss a future constitution. This did not satisfy the Congress leaders. The radicals within the Congress, led by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose, became more assertive.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Why did the Simon Commission arrive in India?
(a) They were to analyse the working of Indian Constitution and suggest reforms.
(b) He was elected as the viceroy and came to take charge.
(c) He wanted to change the name of Hindustan to British India.
(d) He came to arrest Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:

(B) Which of the following leaders rejected the invitation to First Round Table Conference?
(a) Jinnah
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) J. Nehru
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer:
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: First Round Table Conference was rejected by Congress.

(C) What was the offer of Dominion Status for India?
(a) India was to be an independent country.
(b) India was to change its status from a colonised country to a dominated country.
(c) India was to continue to be colonised country but with more participation of Indians in the administration.
(d) India was to become part of another country called Scotland.
Answer:

(D) Who was Lord Irwin?
(a) He was the viceroy of India during 1930s.
(b) He was the Secretary of state for India.
(c) He was the King of Britain.
(d) He was the Prime Minister of Britain.
Answer:
(a) He was the viceroy of India during 1930s.

Question 12.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow:
This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement. How was this movement different from the Non-Cooperation Movement? People were now asked not only to refuse cooperation as they had done in 1921-22, but also to break colonial laws. Thousands in different parts of country broke salt law, manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of government salt factories.
As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted and liquor shops were picketed. Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes, village officials resigned, and in many places forest people violated forest laws, going to collect wood and graze cattle.
(A) When did the Civil Disobedience Movement start?
Answer:
Civil disobedience movement was launched in April 1930.

(B) Who launched Civil Disobedience Movement and how?
Answer:
Civil disobedience movement was launched by Gandhiji by breaking Salt law after he carried out Dandi March in March with 78 of his followers. He drove the point of breaking laws in this movement home by breaking the salt law.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the reason for calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer:
The Chauri Chaura incident happened where general public violently clashed with the police in Gorakhpur, United Provinces in 1922. This made Gandhiji realise that Indians were not yet ready for a peaceful agitation and hence he called the movement off.

Question 2.
The Resolution of Poorna Swaraj was adopted at which Congress session?
Answer:
Lahore Session, 1929

Question 3.
Who announced a vague offer of Dominion Status for India in 1929?
Answer:
Lord Irwin, the then viceroy of India.

Question 4.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi organise, Satyagraha in the Kheda district of Gujarat in 1917? Give the main reason.
Answer:
Peasants affected from crop failure and plague epidemic wanted relaxation in revenue collection. Mahatma Gandhi organised a Satyagraha with these peasants against revenue collectors for the same in 1917.

Question 5.
What happened to the workers in plantations of Assam?
Answer:

Question 6.
Who wrote the song ‘Vande Matram’?
Answer:
‘Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay’ wrote the song Vande Matram’.

Related Theory
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote ‘Vande Matram’ as a hymn to the motherland in, 1870s. Later it was included in his novel ‘Anandamath’ and widely sung during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal

Question 7.
Name the author of the novel ‘Anandmath’.
Answer:
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay is the author of ‘Anandmath’.

Related Theory
The image of Bharat Mata was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. In the 1870s he wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland which was later included in his novel ‘Anandamath’.

Question 8.
State the slogan with which Simon Commission was greeted in 1928 in India.
Answer:
Simon Commission was greeted with the slogan ‘Simon Go back’ in 1928 in India.
Related Theory
Simon Commission was constituted by the Tory government in Britain as a response to the nationalist movement. It had no Indian member and when it arrived in India, all parties like the Congress and Muslim League opposed it.

Question 9.
Why did Indians oppose the ‘Simon Commission’?
Answer:

Question 10.
Read the source given below and name the pact of compromise signed later between Gandhiji and Dr B.R Amdbedkar on the position of Dalits in India in future.
Dr B.R. Ambedkar, who organised the dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930, clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the second Round Table Conference by demanding separate electorates for dalits. When the British government conceded Ambedkar’s demand, Gandhiji began a fast unto death. He believed that separate electorates for dalits would slow down the process of their integration into society.
Answer:
Poona Pact

Explanation: The Poona Pact signed in September 1932 between Mahatma Gandhi and B. R. Ambedkar. This pact gave the Depressed Classes (later to be known as the Schedule Castes) reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils, but they were to be voted in by the general electorate.

Question 11.
Who was the author of ‘Hind Swaraf ?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi was the author of ‘Hind Sawaraj.

Question 12.
When did Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occur?
Answer:
The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred on 13th April, 1919.

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