Wind Class 9 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 2

Online Education for Wind Class 9 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 2

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem 2 Wind with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 English with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Wind Class 9 English MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-english-with-answers/

Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem 2 Wind with Answers

Wind Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Name the poet of this poem.
(a) Robert Frost.
(b) Subramania Bharati.
(c) W.B. Yeats.
(d) Phoebe Cary.

Answer

Answer: (b) Subramania Bharati.


Class 9 Wind MCQ Question 2.
We can make friends with the wind god if we are—
(a) true.
(b) honest.
(c) strong.
(d) respectful.

Answer

Answer: (c) strong.


Wind MCQ Class 9 Question 3.
What does the wind poke fun at?
(a) Weak houses and weak doors.
(b) Weak rafters and weak wood.
(c) Weak hearts and weak bodies.
(d) Any living or non-living thing that is weak and crumbling.

Answer

Answer: (d) Any living or non-living thing that is weak and crumbling.


Wind MCQ Questions Class 9 Question 4.
Select the name of the poet of the poem ‘Wind’.
(a) Robert Frost
(b) Subrarnania Bharati
(c) Coates Kinney
(d) William Wordsworth

Answer

Answer: (b) Subramania Bharati.


Wind Poem Class 9 MCQ Question 5.
What is the effect of the wind on weak fires?
(a) makes them stronger
(b) blow them out
(c) let them burn as before
(d) all the options are correct

Answer

Answer: (b) blow them out


Class 9 English Wind MCQ Question 6.
What sort of houses does the poet ask us to make?
(a) luxury houses
(b) huts
(c) strong houses
(d) weak houses

Answer

Answer: (c) strong houses


The Wind Class 9 MCQ Question 7.
Who does the wind make fun of?
(a) the rich
(b) the strong
(c) the weak
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) the weak


Wind MCQ Questions Question 8.
What does the poet want the wind to do?
(a) don’t break the shutters of windows
(b) don’t scatter the papers
(c) don’t throw down the books
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above


Wind Class 9 MCQ Test Question 9.
Find a word from the poem for “thrown in different directions”
(a) scatter
(b) thrown
(c) blown
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (a) scatter


MCQ Of Wind Class 9 Question 10.
“He won’t do what you tell him”Who is he in this line?
(a) God
(b) Wind God
(c) wind
(d) all

Answer

Answer: (c) wind


Poem Wind Class 9 MCQ Question 11.
What should the people do to save their homes?
(a) use good cement
(b) build strong homes and close the doors firmly
(c) consult a good architect
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (b) build strong homes and close the doors firmly


Class 9 English Poem Wind MCQ Question 12.
How can we be friends with the wind?
(a) by building strong homes
(b) having strong body
(c) having a strong heart
(d) all

Answer

Answer: (d) all


Class 9 English Chapter Wind MCQ Question 13.
Which figure of speech has been used in the poem?
(a) alliteration
(b) anaphore and metophoric
(c) personification
(d) all

Answer

Answer: (b) anaphore and metophoric


MCQ Wind Class 9 Question 14.
What is the moral of this poem?
(a) be firm and strong and never be defeated by any obstacle
(b) pray to the wind
(c) don’t be weak
(d) request the wind

Answer

Answer: (a) be firm and strong and never be defeated by any obstacle


MCQ Of Poem Wind Class 9 Question 15.
Wht does the word prosper mean in the poem?
(a) keep going
(b) flourish
(c) keep moving
(d) proper

Answer

Answer: (b) flourish


Class 9th Wind MCQ Question 16.
Who are affected by the wind?
(a) weak
(b) strong
(c) people
(d) things

Answer

Answer: (a) weak


Question 17.
What is winnowing called?
(a) cleaning process
(b) sorting process
(c) Barsana ?
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) sorting process


Question 18.
Who broke the doors of the window?
(a) children
(b) a boy
(c) a naughty boy
(d) wind

Answer

Answer: (d) wind


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem 2 Wind with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 9 English Poem Wind MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 4 Practical Geometry with Answers

Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 4 Practical Geometry with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 4 Practical Geometry with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Practical Geometry Class 8 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-maths-with-answers/

Students can also refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 4 Practical Geometry for better exam preparation and score more marks.

Online Education for Practical Geometry Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Practical Geometry Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
How many sides does decagon has?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 12

Answer

Answer: (b) 10


Class 8 Maths Chapter 4 MCQ Question 2.
How many measurements can determine a quadrilateral uniquely?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (d) 5


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Maths Chapter 4 Question 3.
The diagonals of a square are ______________ each other
(a) equal to
(b) unequal to
(c) perpendicular bisectors of
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) perpendicular bisectors of


Class 8 Maths Ch 4 MCQ Question 4.
The opposite angles of a parallelogram are ______________ .
(a) Unequal
(b) equal
(c) complementary
(d) supplementary

Answer

Answer: (b) equal


Class 8 Math Chapter 4 MCQ Question 5.
What is the sum of the measures of angles of a convex quadrilaterals?
(a) 180°
(b) 90°
(c) 360°
(d) 45°

Answer

Answer: (c) 360°


MCQ On Practical Geometry Class 8 Question 6.
How many diagonals does a regular Hexagon has ?
(a) 2
(b) 9
(c) 3
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (b) 9


Maths Class 8 Chapter 4 MCQ Question 7.
How many sides does a heptagon have ?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (c) 7


Class 8 Maths Chapter 4 MCQ Online Test Question 8.
Minimum possible interior angle in a regular polygon is ______________.
(a) 70°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°

Answer

Answer: (b) 60°


Class 8 Chapter 4 Maths MCQ Question 9.
The diagonals of a square bisect each other at ______________ angle.
(a) acute
(b) right
(c) obtuse
(d) reflex

Answer

Answer: (b) right


MCQ Class 8 Maths Chapter 4 Question 10.
the diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at ______________ angles.
(a) acute
(b) right
(c) obtuse
(d) reflex

Answer

Answer: (b) right


Ncert Class 8 Maths Chapter 4 MCQ Questions Question 11.
A parallelogram each of whose angles measures 90° is ______________.
(a) rectangle
(b) rhombus
(c) kite
(d) trapezium

Answer

Answer: (a) rectangle


Ncert Class 8 Maths Chapter 4 MCQ Question 12.
The value of x in the following figure is
MCQ Of Practical Geometry Class 8
(a) 100°
(b) 90°
(c) 108°
(d) 120°

Answer

Answer: (c) 108°


MCQ Of Practical Geometry Class 8 Question 13.
The value of (x) in the following figure is
Practical Geometry Class 8 MCQ Questions
(a) 120°
(b) 80°
(c) 100°
(d) 60°

Answer

Answer: (d) 60°


Class 8 Ch 4 Maths MCQ Question 14.
Which of the following polygons is convex polygon?
Class 8 Ch 4 Maths MCQ

Answer

Answer: (c)


Chapter 4 Maths Class 8 MCQ Question 15.
The number of sides in a regular polygon is 15 , then measure of each exterior angle is
(a) 24°
(b) 36°
(c) 20°
(d) 18°

Answer

Answer: (a) 24°


Chapter 4 Class 8 Maths MCQ Question 16.
The angle sum of all interior angles of a convex polygon of sides 7 is
(a) 180°
(b) 540°
(c) 630°
(d) 900°

Answer

Answer: (d) 900°


Question 17.
Maximum number of right angles in a right angled triangle are
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: (b) 1


Question 18.
All the angles of a regular polygon are of ______________.
(a) 90°
(b) 60°
(c) equal measure
(d) equal length

Answer

Answer: (c) equal measure


Question 19.
Polygons that have any portions of their diagonals in their exteriors are called
(a) Squares
(b) triangles
(c) convex
(d) concave

Answer

Answer: (d) concave


Question 20.
A polygon with minimum number of sides is
(a) Pentagon
(b) Square
(c) triangle
(d) angle

Answer

Answer: (c) triangle


Question 21.
How many measurements are required to construct a quadrilateral, uniquely?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Three

Answer

Answer: (b) Five


Question 22.
To construct a quadrilateral, we need to know two diagonals and _____ sides.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) All four sides

Answer

Answer: (c) Three


Question 23.
If two diagonals and three sides are given, then:
(a) A quadrilateral cannot be constructed
(b) A quadrilateral can be constructed
(c) Insufficient information
(d) Any polygon can be constructed

Answer

Answer: (b) A quadrilateral can be constructed


Question 24.
If two diagonals are given, then we can construct a:
(a) Rhombus
(b) Rectangle
(c) Kite
(d) Parallelogram

Answer

Answer: (a) Rhombus
Hint:
The two diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at 90 degrees.


Question 25.
To construct a parallelogram we need to know:
(a) Length of its parallel sides
(b) Measure of interior angles
(c) Two adjacent sides and one angle
(d) Two adjacent sides and two angles

Answer

Answer: (c) Two adjacent sides and one angle
Hint:
Parallelogram has its parallel sides equal. Also, if one angle is known to us, then we can determine the other angle since the two angles are supplementary.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 4 Practical Geometry with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Practical Geometry CBSE Class 8 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Our Changing Earth with Answers

Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Our Changing Earth with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Our Changing Earth with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Our Changing Earth Class 7 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-7-social-science-with-answers/

Online Education for Our Changing Earth Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 MCQ Question 1.
The earth’s crust is broken into a number of huge parts. They are called
(a) lithospheric plates
(b) metamorphic plates
(c) sedimentary plates
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) lithospheric plates


Our Changing Earth Class 7 MCQ Question 2.
Which one of the following forces originates in the interior of the earth?
(a) Exogenic forces
(b) Endogenic forces
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Endogenic forces


MCQ Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Question 3.
Sudden movements in the earth are called
(a) earthquakes
(b) building mountains
(c) focus
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) earthquakes


Our Changing Earth Class 7 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
The place on the surface above the focus is known as
(a) epicentre
(b) focus
(c) forces
(d) lithosphere

Answer

Answer: (a) epicentre


Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
What is the name of the instrument used for measuring earthquake?
(a) Thermometer
(b) Seismograph
(c) Weighing machine
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Seismograph


Geography Class 7 Chapter 3 MCQ Question 6.
On which scale is the earthquake measured?
(a) Plane scale
(b) Richter scale
(c) Compass
(d) Divider

Answer

Answer: (b) Richter scale


Class 7th Geography Chapter 3 MCQ Question 7.
In which continent is the highest waterfall ‘Angel Falls of Venezuela’ located?
(a) South America
(b) South Africa
(c) South India
(d) North India

Answer

Answer: (a) South America


Class 7 Geography Ch 3 MCQ Question 8.
Where is ‘Niagara falls’ located?
(а) On the border between Canada and USA
(б) On the border between India and China
(c) On the border between India and Pakistan
(d) On the border between India and Nepal

Answer

Answer: (а) On the border between Canada and USA


Geography Chapter 3 Class 7 MCQ Question 9.
The triangular collection of sediments at the mouth of a river forms
(a) beach
(b) delta
(c) arches
(d) glaciers

Answer

Answer: (b) delta


Class 7 Chapter 3 Geography MCQ Question 10.
The steep rocky coast rising almost vertically above the sea water is called
(a) sea cliff
(b) beach
(c) sea cave
(d) erosion

Answer

Answer: (a) sea cliff


Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 MCQ Online Test Question 11.
Which of the following is an example of a glacier
(a) Gangotri
(b) Aravali
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Gangotri


Class 7 Our Changing Earth MCQ Question 12.
Deposition of sand in a low hill like structure is known as a:
(a) Glacier
(b) Sand dimes
(c) Hill
(d) Desert

Answer

Answer: (b) Sand dimes


Match the contents of Column A with that of Column B

Column A Column B
1. Mushroom rock (a) Zimbabwe and Zambia
2. Meander (b) Deserts
3. Stacks (c) S waves
4. Glacier (d) Second course of river
5. Victoria falls (e) River of ice
6. Transverse waves (f) Sea waves
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Mushroom rock (b) Deserts
2. Meander (d) Second course of river
3. Stacks (f) Sea waves
4. Glacier (e) River of ice
5. Victoria falls (a) Zimbabwe and Zambia
6. Transverse waves (c) S waves

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

1. Magma inside the earth moves in a …………. motion.

Answer

Answer: circular


2. A ………….. is a vent in the earth’s crust through which molten material comes out.

Answer

Answer: volcano


3. The place in the crust where the earthquake starts is called ……………

Answer

Answer: epicentre


4. The processes of ………… and …………. create different landform on the surface of earth.

Answer

Answer: erosion, deposition


5. Deposition of layers of fine soil along the bank of rivers forms …………..

Answer

Answer: flood plains


6. Sand deposits over larger areas are called …………….

Answer

Answer: loess


Write whether the given statements are true or false:

1. Sudden movements like earthquake do not cause mass destruction.

Answer

Answer: False


2. Deposition is breaking up of rocks on the earth’s surface.

Answer

Answer: False


3. Wearing away of the land by different agents like water, wind and ice is called erosion.

Answer

Answer: True


4. Sea caves become bigger and only the roof remains forming the sea arches.

Answer

Answer: True


5. Moraine is a depositional feature of glaciers.

Answer

Answer: True


6. River is an agent of erosion and deposition in the desert.

Answer

Answer: False


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Our Changing Earth with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Our Changing Earth CBSE Class 7 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 Equality with Answers

Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 Equality with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 Equality with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Equality Class 11 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Online Education for Equality Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Equality Class 11 MCQ Question 1.
In the sphere of religion, the Indian state policy
(a) Maintains principled distance
(b) Promotes and protect the majority religion
(c) Believes that religion is a private affair and religious ceremonies should not be allowed in public
(d) Is to press forward the religious ideology of Hindutava

Answer

Answer: (a) Maintains principled distance


Equality MCQ Class 11 Question 2.
The demand for legal equality was raised in:
(a) 17th century
(b) 19th century
(c) 18th century
(d) 20th century

Answer

Answer: (c) 18th century


Class 11 Political Theory Chapter 3 MCQ Question 3.
Some of the left parties in India are
(a) CPI, CPI(M), All India Forward Bloc
(b) CPI, RSS, Congress
(c) Socialist Party, Oppressed Peoples Party, VHP
(d) BJP, RJD, All India Forward Bloc

Answer

Answer: (a) CPI, CPI(M), All India Forward Bloc


MCQ Of Equality Class 11 Question 4.
Ambedkar and Gandhi both championed the cause of untouchables, but they could not agree on
(a) Reservations in the private sector
(b) Reservations
(c) Role of judiciary
(d) Role of cottage industry

Answer

Answer: (b) Reservations


MCQ On Equality Class 11 Question 5.
The Sixth Five Year Plan gave the status of partners in development to
(a) Dalits
(b) Tribals
(c) Urban youth
(d) Women

Answer

Answer: (d) Women


Class 11 Equality MCQ Question 6.
The statement that “Men by nature are equal” is given by:
(a) Hobbes
(b) Locke
(c) Rousseau
(d) Laski

Answer

Answer: (b) Locke


Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 MCQ Question 7.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Liberty and Equality are opposed to each other
(b) Liberty and Law are opposed to each other
(c) Liberty and Equality are supplementary
(d) Liberty and Equality are contradictory

Answer

Answer: (c) Liberty and Equality are supplementary


MCQ Of Chapter Equality Class 11 Question 8.
Mohit and Rohit are brothers. While Rohan is a successful doctor, Rohit is a sportsperson. Rohit enjoys fame and people often give him special treatment. This difference in treatment is a result of
(a) Different choices and preferences
(b) Difference in the equality of status
(c) Inequality in access to basic goods such as education, healthcare
(d) Luck

Answer

Answer: (a) Different choices and preferences


MCQ Questions For Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 Question 9.
Amnesty International is an example of
(a) Social diversity
(b) Biodiversity
(c) Cultural diversity organisation
(d) Civil liberties organisation

Answer

Answer: (d) Civil liberties organisation


Equality Class 11 MCQs Question 10.
For Marxist the fundamental equality is:
(a) Social equality
(b) Political equality
(c) Economic equality
(d) Legal equality

Answer

Answer: (c) Economic equality


Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 MCQ Question Answer Question 11.
In the US, the case for racial preferences in student admissions is made on the argument of:
(a) Uniformity
(b) Equality
(c) Diversity
(d) Fraternity

Answer

Answer: (c) Diversity


MCQ Questions On Equality Class 11 Question 12.
Campaign for equality
(a) is a movement against the death penalty
(b) is women’s rights movement in Iran
(c) seeks rehabilitation for Katrina survivors
(d) is meant for the victims of terrorism

Answer

Answer: (b) is women’s rights movement in Iran


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 Equality with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Political Science Equality MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Ratio and Proportion with Answers

Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Ratio and Proportion with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Ratio and Proportion with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Ratio and Proportion Class 6 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Students can also refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Ratio and Proportion for better exam preparation and score more marks.

Online Education for Ratio and Proportion Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

MCQ On Ratio And Proportion For Class 6 Question 1.
The cost of a pen is ₹ 10. The cost of a penci 1 is ₹ 2. How many times of the cost of a pencil is the cost of a pen?
(a) 5 times
(b) 2 times
(c) 10 times
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
10 = 5 × 2


Ratio And Proportion Class 6 MCQ Question 2.
The monthly salary of Hari Kishan is ₹ 80000. The monthly salary of Manish is ₹ 40000. How many times of the salary of Manish is the salary of Hari Kishan?
(a) 2 times
(b) 4 times
(c) 3 times
(d) 8 times.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
80000 = 2 × 40000


Ratio And Proportion MCQ Class 6 Question 3.
There are 30 boys and 20 girls in a class. The ratio of the number of girls to the number of boys is
(a) 2:3
(b) 3:2
(c) 2:5
(d) 3:5.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 20 }{ 30 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) = 2 : 3


MCQ Questions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Question 4.
There are 25 boys and 25 girls in a class. The ratio of the number of boys to the total number of students is
(a) 1:2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 2:3
(d) 3:2.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac{25}{25+25}\) = \(\frac { 25 }{ 50 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = 1 : 2


Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 MCQ Question 5.
The height of Apala is 150 cm. The height of Pari is 120 cm. The ratio of the height of Apala to the height of Pari is
(a) 4:5
(b) 5:4
(c) 5:2
(d) 4:1.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
\(\frac { 150 }{ 120 }\) = \(\frac { 15 }{ 12 }\) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 4 }\) = 5 : 4


MCQ Of Ratio And Proportion Class 6 Question 6.
The cost of a car is ₹ 3,00,000. The cost of a motorbike is ₹ 50,000. The ratio of the cost of motorbike to the cost of car is
(a) 1:6
(b) 1:5
(c) 1:4
(d) 1:3.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 50,000 }{ 3,00,000 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\) = 1 : 6


Class 6 Ratio And Proportion MCQ Question 7.
The speed of Shubham is 6 km per hour. The speed of Yash is 2 km per hour. The ratio of the speed of Shubham to the speed of Yash is
(a) 2:3
(b) 3:1
(c) 1:3
(d) 3:2.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
\(\frac { 6 }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 1 }\) = 3 : 1


MCQ On Ratio And Proportion For Class 7 Question 8.
The length and breadth of a rectangular park are 50 m and 40 m respectively. Find the ratio of the length to the breadth of the park.
(a) 4:5
(b) 4:1
(c) 5:1
(d) 5:4.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
\(\frac { 50 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 4 }\) = 5 : 4


Class 6 Maths Ratio And Proportion MCQ Question 9.
The ratio 40 cm to 1 m is
(a) 2:5
(b) 3:5
(c) 4:5
(d) 5:2.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
1 m = 100 cm
\(\frac { 40 }{ 100 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) = 2 : 5


MCQ Ratio And Proportion Class 6 Question 10.
In a family, there are 8 males and 4 females. The ratio of the number of females to the number of males is
(a) 1:2
(b) 1:4
(c) 1:8
(d) 2:1.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 4 }{ 8 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = 1 : 2


MCQ Questions On Ratio And Proportion For Class 6 Question 11.
Which of the following ratios is equivalent to 2:3?
(a) 4:8
(b) 4:9
(c) 6:9
(d) 6:12.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
2 : 3 = \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) = \(\frac{2 \times 3}{3 \times 3}\) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 9 }\) = 6 : 9


Ratio And Proportion Class 6 MCQ Questions Question 12.
Which of the following ratios is not equiva-lent to 10:5?
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 20:10
(d) 30:15.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
10 : 5 = \(\frac { 10 }{ 5 }\) = \(\frac{10 \div 5}{5 \div 5}\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 1 }\) = 2 : 1
20 ÷ 10 = \(\frac { 20 }{ 10 }\) = \(\frac{20 \div 10}{10 \div 10}\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 1 }\) = 2 : 1
30 ÷ 15 = \(\frac { 30 }{ 15 }\) = \(\frac{30 \div 15}{15 \div 15}\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 1 }\) = 2 : 1


MCQs On Ratio And Proportion For Class 6 Question 13.
Find the ratio of number of circles and number of squares inside the following rectangle:MCQs On Ratio And Proportion For Class 6
(a) 3:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 2:3
(d) 3:2

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
12 : 8 = \(\frac { 12 }{ 8 }\) = \(\frac{12 \div 4}{8 \div 4}\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\) = 3 : 2


Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Extra Questions Question 14.
There are 20 teachers in a school of 500 students. The ratio of the number of teachers to the number of students is
(a) 1:20
(d) 1:50
(c) 1:25
(d) 25:1.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
20 : 500 = \(\frac { 20 }{ 500 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 25 }\) = 1 : 25


Ratio And Proportion Class 6 MCQs Question 15.
The ratio of 25 minutes to 1 hour is
(a) 7:5
(b) 5:12
(c) 12:5
(d) 5:7.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
1 hour = 60 minutes
25 : 60 = \(\frac { 25 }{ 60 }\) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 12 }\) = 5 : 12


Ratio And Proportion MCQ Questions Question 16.
Out of 30 students in a class, 20 like cricket and 10 like Hockey. The ratio of the number of students liking Hockey to the total number of students is
(a) 3:1
(b) 1:3
(c) 2:3
(d) 1:2.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
10 : 30 = \(\frac { 10 }{ 30 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) = 1 : 3


Question 17.
The cost of 1 dozen bananas is ₹ 30. The cost of 6 oranges is ₹ 18. The ratio of the cost of a i banana to the cost of an orange is
(a) 3:2
(b) 2:3
(c) 6:5
(d) 5:6.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
30 : 2 × 18 = \(\frac{30}{2 \times 18}=\frac{30}{36}=\frac{5}{6}\) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 6 }\) = 5 : 6


Question 18.
The present age of Hari Kishan is 60 years. The present age of Manish is 30 years. The ratio of the age of Manish to the age of Hari Kishan 10 years ago was
(a) 2:5
(b) 5:2
(c) 2:3
(d) 3:2.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
30 – 10 : 60 – 10 = 20 : 50
= \(\frac { 20 }{ 50 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) = 2 : 5


Question 19.
100 students appeared in annual examination. 60 students passed. The ratio of the number of students who failed to the total number of students is
(a) 5:2
(b) 2:5
(c) 2:3
(d) 3:2.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
100 – 60 = 40
40 : 100 = \(\frac { 40 }{ 100 }\) = \(\frac{40 \div 20}{100 \div 20}\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) = 2 : 5


Question 20.
₹ 100 are divided between Sangeeta and Manish in the ratio 4:1. Find the amount Sangeeta gets.
(a) ₹ 80
(b) ₹ 20
(c) ₹ 60
(b) ₹ 50.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac{4}{4+1}\) × 100 = \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\) × 100 = 4 × 20 = 80


Question 21.
Which of the following are in proportion?
(a) 2,3,20,30
(b) 3,4,15,18
(c) 1,3,11,22
(d) 2,5,40,80.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
2 : 3 = 20 : 30


Question 22.
Which of the following is true?
(a) 15:40 :: 10:30
(b) 16:48 :: 25:75
(c) 40:60 :: 30:40
(d) 20:100 :: 30:120.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
16 : 48 = \(\frac { 16 }{ 48 }\) = \(\frac{16 \div 16}{48 \div 16}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) = 1 : 3
25 : 75 = \(\frac { 25 }{ 75 }\) = \(\frac{25 \div 25}{75 \div 25}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) = 1 : 3


Question 23.
Which of the following is false?
(a) 25 g : 30 g :: 40 kg : 48 kg
(b) 81 : 91 :: 24h : 27h
(c) 32 m : 40 m :: 6 minutes : 12 minutes
(d) 25 km : 60 km :: ₹ 10 : ₹ 24.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
32 m : 40 m = \(\frac { 32 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac{32 \div 8}{40 \div 8}\) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\) = 4 : 5
6 minutes : 12 minutes = \(\frac { 6 }{ 12 }\) = \(\frac{6 \div 6}{12 \div 6}\)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = 1 : 2
4 : 5 ≠ 1 : 2


Question 24.
Which of the following statement is not true?
(a) 4 : 7 = 5 : 9
(b) ₹ 5 : ₹ 25 = 12g : 60g
(c) 30 : 80 = 6 : 16
(d) 12 : 36 = 14 : 42.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
4 : 7 = \(\frac { 4 }{ 7 }\)
5 : 9 = \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
\(\frac { 4 }{ 7 }\) ≠ \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)


Question 25.
A car requires 5 litres of petrol to cover 80 km. How many litres of petrol are required to cover 32 km?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
\(\frac { 5 }{ 80 }\) × 32 = 2


Question 26.
The cost of 10 notebooks is ₹ 100. The cost of 1 notebook is
(a) ₹ 10
(b) ₹ 100
(c) ₹ 20
(d) ₹ 5.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 100 }{ 10 }\) = 10


Question 27.
The cost of 1 dozen pens is ₹ 24. Find the cost of 30 pens.
(a) ₹ 40
(b) ₹ 45
(c) ₹ 30
(d) ₹ 60.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
1 dozen = 12
\(\frac { 24 }{ 12 }\) × 30 = 60


Question 28.
The cost of 3 envelopes is ₹ 15. The cost of 10 envelopes is
(a) ₹ 20
(b) ₹ 30
(c) ₹ 45
(d) ₹ 50.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
\(\frac { 15 }{ 3 }\) × 10 = 50


Question 29.
The cost of 5 kg of tomatoes is ₹ 100. The cost of 2 kg of tomatoes is
(a) ₹ 20
(b) ₹ 40
(c) ₹ 30
(d) ₹ 50.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
\(\frac { 100 }{ 5 }\) × 2 = 40


Question 30.
The weight of 50 books is 10 kg. The weight of 25 books is
(a) 5 kg
(b) 8 kg
(c) 6kg
(d) 4kg.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 10 }{ 50 }\) × 25 = 5


Question 31.
The cost of 20 m of cloth is ₹ 400. The cost of 15 m of cloth is
(a) ₹ 100
(b) ₹ 200
(c) ₹ 300
(d) ₹ 360.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Hint:
\(\frac { 400 }{ 20 }\) × 15 = 300


Question 32.
The salary of a month of an employee is ₹ 4000. The annual salary of the employee is
(a) ₹ 48000
(b) ₹ 24000
(c) ₹ 12000
(d) ₹ 8000.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
1 year = 12 months
4000 × 12 = 48000


Question 33.
An aeroplane covers a distance of 5000 km in 5 hours. How much distance will it cover in 2 hours?
(a) 1000 km
(b) 2000km
(c) 3000 km
(b) 4000 km.

Answer

Answer: (b)
Hint:
\(\frac { 5000 }{ 5 }\) × 2 = 2000


Question 34.
The fare for 5 tickets from Kosi Kalan to Mathura is ₹ 150. The fare for 3 tickets is
(a) ₹ 90
(b) ₹ 60
(c) ₹ 75
(d) ₹ 45.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 150 }{ 5 }\) × 3 = 90


Question 35.
150 kg of oil can be filled in 10 containers. To fill 750 kg of oil, how many containers will be required?
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50.

Answer

Answer: (d)
Hint:
\(\frac { 10 }{ 150 }\) × 750 = 50


Question 36.
The cost of 8 almirahs is ₹ 8000. The cost of 1 almirah is
(a) ₹ 1000
(b) ₹ 2000
(c) ₹ 4000
(d) ₹ 6000.

Answer

Answer: (a)
Hint:
\(\frac { 8000 }{ 8 }\) = 1000


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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks with Answers

Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Minerals and Rocks Class 11 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Online Education for Minerals and Rocks Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is not among the eight elements?
(a) Oxygen and Silicon
(b) Aluminium and Iron
(c) Calcium and Sodium
(d) Mica and Granite

Answer

Answer:(d) Mica and Granite


Question 2.
Which of the following is not an example of metamorphic rocks?
(a) Slate
(b) Marble
(c) Limestone
(d) Schist

Answer

Answer:(c) Limestone


Question 3.
Which mineral group is abundantly found in the earth’s crust?
(a) Mica group
(b) Felspar group
(c) Oxide group
(d) Silicate group

Answer

Answer:(b) Felspar group


Question 4.
Which one of the following is the salient feature of metamorphic rocks?
(a) Changeable
(b) Quite
(c) Crystalline
(d) Foliation

Answer

Answer:(a) Changeable


Question 5.
Which one of the following are the hardest minerals?
(a) Topaz
(b) Diamond
(c) Quartz
(d) Feldspar

Answer

Answer:(b) Diamond


Question 6.
Which of the following is a ferrous mineral?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Iron Ore
(d) Tin

Answer

Answer:(c) Iron Ore


Question 7.
A non-metallic mineral in the following minerals is
(a) silver
(b) copper
(c) zinc
(d) coal

Answer

Answer:(d) coal


Question 8.
Igneous rocks are
(a) primary rocks
(b) secondary rocks
(c) tertiary rocks
(d) soft rocks

Answer

Answer:(a) primary rocks


Question 9.
Which one of the following is the component of sand and granite?
(a) Amphibole
(b) Quartz
(c) Pyroxene
(d) Mica

Answer

Answer:(b) Quartz


Question 10.
The most abundant rocks found on the earth’s crust are
(a) igneous rocks
(b) sedimentary rocks
(c) metamorphic rocks
(d) granite rock

Answer

Answer:(a) igneous rocks


Question 11.
Rocks that were originally either sedimentary, igneous, or metamorphic and have been changed further by heat and pressure are called:
(a) Volcanic
(b) Sedimented
(c) Metamorphic
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer:(c) Metamorphic


Question 12.
Which one of the following is not a sedimentary rock?
(a) Tillite
(b) Borax
(c) Breccia
(d) Marble

Answer

Answer:(d) Marble


Question 13.
Iron is a
(a) ferrous metal
(b) non-ferrous metal
(c) precious metal
(d) non-precious metal

Answer

Answer:(a) ferrous metal


Question 14.
What kind of colour does Pyroxene consist of?
(a) Green
(b) Black
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer:(d) None of the above


Question 15.
The minerals that do not contain metal contend are known as
(a) precious minerals
(b) ferrous minerals
(c) non-metallic minerals
(d) non-ferrous minerals

Answer

Answer:(c) non-metallic minerals


Question 16.
The parent material of soils is derived from
(a) Igneous rocks
(b) Metamorphic rocks
(c) Sedimentary rocks
(d) Biological action

Answer

Answer:(c) Sedimentary rocks


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 11 Geography Minerals and Rocks MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Online Education for Political Parties Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The rise of political parties is directly linked to
(a) Emergence of representative democracies
(b) rise of large scale economies
(c) rise of mechanism of restrain and support the government
(d) rise of internet
Answer:
(a) Emergence of representative democracies

MCQ On Political Parties Class 10 Question 2.
Which one of the following is a National Political Party”?
(a) Samajwadi Party
(b) Rashtriya Janata Dal
(c) Rashtriya Lok Dal
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Answer:
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party

MCQ Of Political Parties Class 10 Question 3.
Which one of the following facilities is offered by the “Election Commission” to a recognised political party?
(a) Party Name
(b) Election Funds
(c) Election Symbol
(d) Manifesto
Answer:
(c) Election Symbol

Class 10 Political Parties MCQ Question 4.
Who among the following recognises “Political parties” in India? [CBSE 2014]
(a) Election Commission
(b) President of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Supreme Court
Answer:
(a) Election Commission

Related Theory
More than 750 parties are registered with the Election Commission of India.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
……………… in which one of the following states does “Shiv Sena” exist as a regional political party?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:

Political Parties MCQ Class 10th Question 6.
Who among the following organised the dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930? [CBSE 2012]
(a) Kanshi Ram
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Gandhiji
(d) Alluri Sitaram Raju
Answer:
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Explanation: Dr. Ambedkar was known as the father of Indian Constitution and worked extensively for the Depressed classes. He arranged them into an association in 1932. It gave the Depressed Classes (Later to be known as the Schedule Castes) reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils, but they were to be voted in by the general electorate.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers Question 7.
Which one of the following political parties seeks to represent and secure power for Dalits, OBCs and Adivasis?
(a) Bahujan Samaj Party
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party
(c) Forward Bloc
(d) Janata Dal (s)
Answer:

MCQ Political Parties Class 10 Question 8.
The political party which believes in Marxism-Leninism is:
(a) Nationalist Congress Party
(b) Communist Party of India
(c) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK)
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Answer:
(b) Communist Party of India

Explanation: It was formed in 1925. The party espouses secularism and democracy.
It is opposed to the forces of secessionism and communalism. It accepts parliamentary democracy as a means of promoting the interests of the working class, farmers and the poor.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Political Parties Class 10 MCQs Question 9.
Which one of the following countries has one party system?
(a) China
(b) Indo-China
(c) Japan
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) China

Explanation: In some countries, only one party is allowed to control and run the government. These are called one-party systems.

MCQ Of Chapter Political Parties Class 10 Question 10.
Which of the following countries have bi-party system?
(a) United Kingdom and Belgium
(b) United States of America and Canada
(c) United Kingdom and United States of America
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) United Kingdom and United States of America

Political Party Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
Which of the following political party was founded in 1998?
(a) All India Trinamool Congress
(b) Nationalist Congress Party
(c) Aam Admi Party
(d) Bharatiya Janata Party
Answer:
(a) Alt India Trinamool Congress

Explanation: All India Trinamool Congress was founded under the leadership of Mamta Banerjee and is currently ruling in West Bengal since 2011.

Related Theory
This party became a national political party in 2016.

Political Parties MCQ Class 10 Question 12.
In this party system, generally power changes between two main parties:
(a) Bi-party system
(b) Single party system
(c) Multi-party system
(d) None of these
Answer:

MCQs Of Political Parties Class 10 Question 13.
What does UPA stands for?
(a) United Party Alliance
(b) United Progressive Alliance
(c) Unified Political Alliance
(d) None of the above
Answer:

MCQ Of Political Parties Question 14.
Which of the following statements are not associated with a regional political party in India?
(a) It gets 6 per cent of the total votes in the Lok Sabha election
(b) It gets 2 seats in the elections for state legislatures
(c) It gets 6 percent of the total votes in an election to the legislative assembly of a state
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) It gets 6 per cent of the total votes in the Lok Sabha election

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

MCQs On Political Parties Question 15.
Which of the following institutions in India has passed an order for every candidate who contests elections to file an giving details of property and criminal cases?
(a) Supreme court of India
(b) Election Commission of India
(c) Constitution of India
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Supreme court of India

Question 16.
The rise of political parties can be linked directly to the emergence of:
(a) Direct democracy
(b) Dictatorship
(c) Monarchy
(d) Representative democracy
Answer:
(d) Representative Democracy

Explanation: Political Parties are a symbol of Representative Democracy. Political parties are groups of politically aware citizens who’re interested in running the government/country as representatives of common people.

Related Theory
Large societies/countries need Representative Democracies. In a representative democracy, repre-sentatives are chosen through public support in elections to form a responsible government because direct democracy is not possible or feasible in these countries. Representatives take care of the needs and requirements of the people who’ve voted for him.

In direct democracies, people do not chose any representatives, rather decide everything through methods like referendum where everyone votes in negative or affirmative at the time of decision making.

Dictatorship is the rule of a single person. No Political parties are allowed to rise in Dictatorship because all powers lie in the hands of an individual and the will of the people is not considered important.

In Monarchy, power is vested in the hands of a non- elected ruler. This position is hereditary. The ruler runs the country and there’s no significance attached to the needs of the people.

Question 17.
What does NDA stands for?
(a) Natural Democratic Alliance
(b) Nominative Democratic Alliance
(c) Nautical Democratic Alliance
(d) National Democratic Alliance
Answer:
(d) National Democratic Alliance

Explanation: NDA is led by BJP and is ruling in the centre currently.

Question 18.
Which of the following political party draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Ramaswamy Naicker and Dr. Ambedkar?
(a) BJP
(b) BSP
(c) NCP
(d) CPI
Answer:
(b) BSP

Explanation: BSP was formed in 1984 under the leadership of late Kanshi Ram.

Related Theory
This party enjoys its main base in the state of Uttar Pradesh and formed governments in this state several times by taking support of different parties at different times.

Question 19.
Arrange political parties according to their year of formation in increasing order:
(i) BSP
(ii) BJP
(iii) INC
(iv) CPI
Options:
(a) (i)-(iv)-(iii)-(ii)
(b) (iii)-(iv)-(i)-(ii)
(c) (iv)-(i)-(ii)-(iii)
(d) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)
Answer:
(d) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)

Explanation: INC — 1885 CPI— 1925 BJP— 1980 BSP — 1984

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 20.
Uniform civil code for all people living in the country irrespective of religion is the agenda of:
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party
(c) Nationalist Party of India
(d) Nationalist Congress Party
Answer:
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party

Question 21.
Which one of the following party systems is against the basic principle of democracy?
(a) Multi-party system
(b) Bi-party system
(c) Single party system
(d) None of the above
Answer:

Question 22.
This party was founded in 1964 and believes in Marxism-Leninism. Identify the party:
(a) Communist Party of India
(b) Community Party of India
(c) Communist Party of India-Marxist
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Communist Party of India-Marxist

Explanation: This party is known as CPI-M and was formed after a spilt in the CPI in 1964.

Question 23.
In India, which of the following alliance is NOT active?
(a) National Democratic Alliance
(b) United Progressive Alliance
(c) Left Front
(d) Right Front
Answer:
(d) Right Front

Explanation: In India, there are three major alliances since the 2004 parliamentary elections-NDA (led by BJP), UPA (led by the Congress Party) and the Left Front.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given in each question.

Question 24.
Identify the party:
(1) Several parties compete for power
(2) More than two parties have a reasonable chance of coming to power.
(3) The government is formed by various parties coming together.
Answer:
Multi-party system.

Question 25.
Identify the party:
(1) Launched on 1 January, 1998 under the leadership of Mamata Banerjee.
(2) The party’s symbol is flowers and grass.
(3) Committed to secularism and federalism.
Answer:
All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)

Explanation: It has been in power in West Bengal since 2011. It also has a presence in Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura. In the General Elections held in 2019, it got 4.07 per cent votes and won 22 seats, making it the fourth largest party in the Lok Sabha.

Question 26.
Identify the party:
(1) It is critical of the new economic policies that allow free flow of foreign capital and goods into the country.
(2) It was in power in West Bengal without a break for 34 years.
(3) It was founded in 1964.
(4) The party believes in Marxism-Leninism
Answer:

Correct and Rewrite /True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 27.
India has evolved a multiparty system because the social and geographical diversity in such a large country is not easily absorbed by two or even three parties.
Answer:
True

Question 28.
‘National parties’ have one unit in one state only.
Answer:
False
‘National parties’ have units in various states all across the country.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 29.
Political parties are not crucial for the working of democracy.
Answer:

Question 30.
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Mayawati.
Answer:
False

Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.

Explanation: Formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram, BSP seeks to represent bahujan samaj and secure power for them, which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities. Mayawati is one of the leaders affiliated to the party.

Question 31.
The election commission is the most visible institution of any Democracy.
Answer:
False

A Political Party is the most visible institution of any Democracy.

Explanation: Political Parties link the lower most unit of the society- Humans to the entire administration and political system. They become a medium through which Democracy is executed at times of elections. They are the most visible institution because they play the most important role in helping people choose their true and correct representatives. They compete to bring up different issues and problems and compete for public support.

Question 32.
The Supreme Court passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organizational elections and file their income tax returns.
Answer:
The Election Commission of India passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organizational elections and file their income tax returns.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 33.
Indian National Congress wants that high in government be confined to natural-born citizens of the country.
Answer:
Nationalist Congress Party wants that high offices in government be confined to natural-born citizens of the country.

Fill in the blanks/tables with suitable information:

Question 34.
Complete the following table with regards to information about political parties:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers 1
Answer:
(A) 4
(B) 2

Question 35.
The ……….. was leading the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) government from 2004 to 2014.
Answer:
Indian National Congress

Question 36.
Any democratic system must allow at least parties to contest elections to provide fair chances.
Answer:

Question 37.
The body which recognizes and registers Political Parties in India is called
Answer:
Election Commission

Explanation: It is a specific body created to conduct elections in India and to check, recognise and moniror political parties. Central Election Commission recognises National Parties. State Election Commissions are subunits of central election commission at the state level.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 38.
The Bharatiya Janta Party came into power in 1998 as the leader of the ………….. coalition.
Answer:
NDA

Explanation: Bharatiya Janata Party headed the National Democratic Alliance led Coalition Government in 1998.

Related Theory
Coalition government means when any party is incapable of proving majority, single handedly, multiple parties come together and form a government.

Question 39.
………… was the last party to become a national level party in India.
Answer:
All India Trinamool Congress

Explanation: All India Trinamool Congress was formed in 1998 under the leadership of Mamta Banerjee, recognised as a national party in 2016 and in power in West Bengal since 2011.

Question 40.
………….. is the oldest party of India.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 41.
…………. is a National Political Party in India formed in 1984 by late Kanshi Ram.
Answer:
Bahujan Samaj party

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 42.
Match the following political parties from column A with their ideologies given in column B:

Column A (Political Parties) Column B (Ideologies)
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party (i) Believes in Marxism- Leninism
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party (ii) Supports new economic reforms with a human face
(c) Indian National Congress (iii) Seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj
(d) Communist Party of India (iv) Uniform civil code

Answer:

Column A (Political Parties) Column B (Ideologies)
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party (iv) Uniform civil code
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party (iii) Seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj
(c) Indian National Congress (ii) Supports new economic reforms with a human face
(d) Communist Party of India (i) Believes in Marxism- Leninism

Question 43.
Match the following political parties from column A with their years of foundation given in column B:

Column A (Political Parties) Column B (Year of Foundation)
(a) Communist Party of India (i) 1885
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party (ii) 1984
(c) Bahujan Samaj Party (iii) 1980
(d) Indian National Congress (iv) 1925

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 6

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 44.
Assertion (A): The quality of democracy depends on the degree of public participation.
Reason (R): Public participation brings transparency.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The problem of bad politics can be solved by more and better politics which can be achieved only when people participate more.

Question 45.
Assertion (A): It is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an affidavit giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him.
Reason (R): It makes the voters more informed.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 46.
Assertion (A): The fourth challenge is that very often parties do not seem to offer a meaningful choice to the voters.
Reason (R): The politicians are the same everywhere.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Parties and politicians agree on more fundamental aspects but differ only in details on how policies are to be framed and implemented. In India, the differences among all the major parties on the economic policies have reduced. Those who want really different policies have no option available to them.

Question 47.
Assertion (A): Party system is something any country can choose.
Reason (R): It evolves over time.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: The party system is not something any country can choose. It evolves over a long time, depending on the nature of society, its social and regional divisions, its history of politics and its system of elections.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Thus, parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society. Parties are about a part of the society and thus involve PARTISANSHIP. Thus a party is known by which part it stands for, which policies it supports and whose interest it upholds.

Which out of the following is not a feature of ‘Partisanship’?
(a) inability to take a balanced view.
(b) Partiality towards one group.
(c) Representation of only certain interests.
(d) Equal significance to all issues in the country.
Answer:
(d) Equal significance to all issues in the country. Explanation: Partisanship means inability to hold a balanced view. When one is a partisan, he is biased towards a group.

Question 2.
Observe the table given below and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers 2
Which area of the world shows maximum political participation through parties?
(a) America
(b) South Asia
(c) Africa
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) South Asia

Explanation: The proportion of those who said they were members of some political party is higher in India than many advanced countries like Canada, Japan, Spain and South Korea,

Question 3.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. They agree on some policies and programmes for the society with a view to promote the collective good.
Which one of these is NOT a function of a political party?
(a) To reflect fundamental political divisions in a society.
(b) To contest elections.
(c) To play a decisive role in making laws.
(d) To form and run governments.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
Only a handful of parties are effectively in the race to win elections and form the government. So the question, then is: how many major or effective parties are good for a democracy? In some countries, only one party is allowed to control and run the government. These are called one-party systems. China is one such country.
Based on your reading, complete the following statement:
The is the only political party that is allowed to function in China.
Answer:
The Chinese communist party

Explanation: China follows the One party system where only one party is allowed to contest elections. It is a flawed form of Democracy.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
Formed in 1999 following a split in the Congress party. Espouses democracy, Gandhian secularism, equity, social justice and federalism. Wants that high in government be confined to natural born citizens of the country. Identify this political party.
Answer:
Nationalist Congress party

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Most of the major parties of the country are classified by the Election Commission as ‘State parties’. These are commonly referred to as regional parties. Yet these parties need not be regional in their ideology or outlook. Over the last three decades, the number and strength has expanded. This made the Parliament of India politically more and more diverse. As a result, the national parties are compelled to form alliances with State parties. Since 1996, nearly every one of the state parties has got an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national level coalition government. This has contributed to the strengthening of federalism
and democracy in our country.
(A) What is a State party?
Answer:

(B) Which one of the following parties is active in Punjab?
(a) Samajwadi Party
(b) Akali Dali
(c) Trinamool Congress Party
(d) Communist Party of India
Answer:
(b) Akali Dal
Explanation: Samajwadi Party is active in UP, Trinamool congress and Communist Party of India are national parties.

(C) Which of the following has contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy in our country?
(a) that every regional political party has been a part of national governments through coalitions.
(b) that every national political party has been a part of state governments through coalitions.
(c) that every national and regional political party has been a part of state and national level coalition governments.
(d) that the national parties have allowed state parties to thrive.
Answer:
(a) that every regional political party has been a part of national governments through coalitions.
Explanation: Since 1996, there has been a trend of coalition governments in India in the centre particularly.

(D) Assertion (A): Over the last three decades, the number and strength of regional political parties has expanded.
Reason(R): More people are aware and enthusiastic to participate in the political process and articulate their interests through gaining power.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Seeks to represent and secure power for the bahujan samaj which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities. Draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Periyar
Ramaswami Naicker and Babasaheb Ambedkar. Stands for the cause of securing the interests and welfare of the dalits and oppressed people. It has its main base in the state of Uttar Pradesh and substantial presence in neighbouring states like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Delhi and Punjab. Formed government in Uttar Pradesh several times by taking the support of different parties at different times. In the Lok Sabha elections held in 2019, it polled about 3.63 per cent votes and secured 10 seats in the Lok Sabha.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the party mentioned in the source.
(a) BJP
(b) AITC
(c) Janata Dal
(d) BSP
Answer:
(d) BSP
Explanation: It was formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram. It seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj which includes the Dalits, Adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities.

(B) Fill in the blank by choosing an appropriate option:
AITC – Bengal; NCP- ………………
(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Kashmir
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

(C) Categorise the given party as a regional or national party based on the necessary criteria laid by Election Commission.
(a) Regional Party
(b) National Party
(c) Not recognised Party
(d) Recognised party but elects candidates for local self government bodies.
Answer:

(D) Identify the symbol of the party.
(a) Lion
(b) Lotus
(c) Elephant
(d) Grass and Flowers.
Answer:
(c) Elephant

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Political parties are easily one of the most visible institutions in a democracy. For most ordinary citizens, democracy is equal to political parties. If you travel to remote parts of our country and speak to the less educated citizens, you could come across people who may not know anything about our Constitution or about the nature of our government. But chances are that they would know something about our political parties. At the same time this visibility does not mean popularity. Most people tend to be very critical of political parties. They tend to blame parties for all that is wrong with our democracy and our political life.
Parties have become identified with social and political divisions.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Consider the following statements and mark which of them are true:
(I) Political parties do not enjoy much trust among the people in South Asia.
(II) Political parties are one of the least trusted institutions all over the world.
(III) The proportion of those who said they were members of some political party was higher in India than many advanced countries like Canada, Japan, Spain and South Korea.
(IV) Over the last three decades the proportion of those who report to be members of political parties in India has gone up steadily.
(V) Political parties are easily one of the most invisible institutions in a democracy.
(a) (l)&(V)
(b) (I) & (III)
(c) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III), (IV) & (V)
Answer:
(c) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

(B) Which of the following can be the right definition of Political parties?
(a) A political party is a group of people who contest elections.
(b) A political party is a group of people who come together for power.
(c) A political party is a group of people who are of different ideologies and contest elections for authority and power.
(d) A political party is a group of people who influence decision making.
Answer:
(c) A political party is a group of people who are of different ideologies and contest elections for authority and power.

(C) Why do people blame parties?
(a) Because there are no other way to blame anyone.
(b) Because they are undemocratic.
(c) Because they represent democracy the best.
(d) Because they are the most visible democratic institutions.
Answer:
(d) Because they are the most visible democratic institutions.
Explanation: They are the true representatives of democracy across the country. They are blamed due to that connection.

(D) What is the main purpose of a political party?
(a) To look for issues.
(b) To increase political participation.
(c) To change the country territorially.
(d) To bring reformation in political system of the country.
Answer:
(b) To increase political participation Explanation: Political parties incorporate more people through adding them as members, activists etc.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
We have seen how crucial political parties are for the working of democracy. Since parties are the most visible face of democracy, it is natural that people blame parties for whatever is wrong with the working of democracy. All over the world, people express strong dissatisfaction with the failure of political parties to perform their functions well. This is the case in our country too. Popular dissatisfaction and criticism has focussed on four problem areas in the working of political parties. Political parties need to face and overcome these challenges in order to remain effective instruments of democracy.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following challenges affects the internal working of a political party?
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties.
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.
(c) The challenge of dynastic succession.
(d) The challenge of not giving adequate choices to people.
Answer:
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.

Explanation: Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly. Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party. This affects internal working of a party.

(B) Mishra ji, a political party head is not ready to leave his position as the head of a party for any other leader except his son. Which challenge does this situation represent?
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties.
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.
(c) The challenge of dynastic succession.
(d) The challenge of not giving adequate choices to people.
Answer:

(C) Following are some suggestions to reform parties. Which of them is helpful to curb the misuse of money and muscle power in politics?
(I) There should be state funding of elections.
(II) Parties should give one-third of its tickets to women candidates.
(III) Parties should look for leaders from rural areas.
(IV) A body should be set up for regulation of economic affairs of the party.
(a) (I) & (IV)
(b) (II) & (III)
(c) (I), (II), (III)
(d) (IV) only
Answer:

(D) Berlusconi was the Prime Minister of Italy. He is also one of the top businessmen in Italy. He is the leader of the Forza Italia founded in 1993. His company owns TV channels, the most important publishing company, a football club (AC Milan) and a bank. Identify the challenge posed.
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties.
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.
(c) The challenge of dynastic succession.
(d) The challenge of not giving adequate choices to people.
Answer:
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties

Explanation: He controlled the economic market and could make decisions which forfeited him keeping aside all the interests of the people in his country.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 10.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow:
The first challenge is lack of internal democracy within parties. Allover the world there is a tendency in political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top. Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly. Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party. They do not have the means or the connections needed to influence the decisions. As a result the leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party.
The second challenge of dynastic succession is related to the first one. Since most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning, there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Questions:
(A) Name one state and one national political party in India?
Answer:
National Party: Indian National Congress State Party: Janata Dal(U) of Jharkhand

(B) What is the challenge of dynastic succession faced by a party?
Answer:
The challenge of Dynastic Succession in parties is a result of favouritism and nepotism practiced openly. It becomes difficult for an outsider/common man to rise to influential positions in a party regardless of his talent. Most powerful positions are reserved for relatives or friends.

(C) Suggest reforms which can help political parties to face the lack of internal democracy.
Answer:
To face lack of internal democracy, a party should make its functioning more transparent. Regular meetings should be held, communication should be made stronger, favouritism should be removed and everybody should be given an equal chance to contribute to party affairs. Apart from this, selection process or utilisation of funds should be made transparent by setting up a committee-properly represented by all areas of members present in the country

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Examine the reason to accept a multi-party system in India.
Answer:
India is a diverse country and needs to accommodate its diversity to help in better administration. This is possible only through a Multi-party system.

Question 2.
Correct the following statements and rewrite it.
Bahujan Samaj Party was formed under the leadership of the Mayawati.
Answer:
Bahujan Samaj Party was formed under the leadership of the Mayawati.

Question 3.
Name any one political party that has National level political organization but not recognized as the National Political Party.
Answer:
Rashtriya Janata Dal or Samajwadi Party

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 4.
Name an Alliance formed by the Congress Party?
Answer:

Question 5.
What is the guiding philosophy of Bharatiya Janata Party?
Answer:
India’s ancient culture, values and cultural nationalism (or ‘Hindutvaj is the guiding philosophy of BJP.

Question 6.
Name any two Regional parties of West Bengal.
Answer:
Forward Bloc and Trinamool Congress

Question 7.
If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all other members are neglected then what challenge is being faced by that party?
Answer:
The challenge of dynastic succession

Question 8.
Suggest any one way to make political parties more responsive to people’s needs and demands.
Answer:
Political parties can be- made more responsive through organised petitions, agitations and publicity by various groups.

Explanation: This shall make political parties pay more attention to people’s needs to secure their support.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 9.
Name any one regional party of Uttar Pradesh.
Answer:
The Samajwadi Party is one of the regional parties of Uttar Pradesh.

Related Theory
Regional political party (or state party) is a party that has its presence only in one or some states. Regional parties may not always be regional in their ideology or outlook.

Question 10.
Why is one party political system not considered a good democratic system?
Answer:
One party political system is not considered a good democratic system because it doesn’t offer a meaningful choice to the citizens of the country as they have no options to choose from.

Related Theory
Because of this, the right to vote given to the citizens of a democracy having one party political system is useless as there is only one party which wins the elections every time.

Question 11.
Suggest any one way to promote public participation in political parties for enhancing the quality of democracy.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 12.
Name any two Indian national political parties.
Answer:
Indian national political parties are:

  1. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
  2. Indian National Congress (INC)
  3. Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)
  4. All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)

Related Theory
A national political party is a party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four States and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha.

Question 13.
Which organization recognize ‘political parties in India?
Answer:
The Election Commission of India is responsible for recognizing and registering ‘political parties in India.

Related Theory
The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for organizing and administering election processes in India at national, state and district levels.

Question 14.
What is defection?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Question 15.
Name any one political party that is a national-level political organization but is not recognized as a national political party.
Answer:
Samajwadi Party is a political party that has a national-level political organization but is not recognized as a national political party.

Related Theory
Other examples of such political parties are Rashtriya Janata Dal and Samata Party. Such parties have their units in several states.

Question 16.
In which year did the Communist Party of India split into two parties?
Answer:
1964

Question 16.
Explain the meaning of political party.
Answer:

Question 17.
Why do political parties involve partisanship?
Answer:
Political parties involve partisanship because The parties are a part of the society and thus they involve partisanship.

Question 18.
Which type of government is formed when two or more political parties come together to form a government?
Answer:
Coalition Government

Explanation: At times, when no single party is able to gather majority votes, two or more parties come together to form a government. This is called Coalition Government.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 with Answers All Subjects

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Get Chapter Wise Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 with Answers PDF Free Download of all subjects are prepared here according to the latest CBSE syllabus and NCERT curriculum https://ncert.nic.in/. Students can practice CBSE Class 10 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to score good marks in the examination.

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Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers

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MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System with Answers

Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Science Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Online Education for Stars and the Solar System Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option in the following questions:

Stars And Solar System Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following does not belong to the family of solar system?
(a) Planet
(b) Galaxy
(c) Meteors
(d) Comet

Answer

Answer: (b) Galaxy


Class 8 Science Chapter 17 MCQ Question 2.
The Halley’s Comet is seen after every
(a) 76 months
(b) 76 years
(c) 56 months
(d) 56 years

Answer

Answer: (b) 76 years


Stars And The Solar System Class 8 MCQ Question 3.
Ursa Major is a
(a) star
(b) constellation
(c) seen only with telescope
(d) satellite

Answer

Answer: (b) constellation


Class 8 Science Ch 17 MCQ Question 4.
Which planet has the largest number of satellites?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Saturn
(c) Mercury
(d) Mars

Answer

Answer: (b) Saturn


Star And Solar System Class 8 MCQ Question 5.
Which unit is used to measure astronomical distances?
(a) Leap year
(b) Light year
(c) Century
(d) Sound year

Answer

Answer: (b) Light year


Class 8 Stars And Solar System MCQ Question 6.
The stars forming a recognizable shape is called
(a) constellation
(b) system
(c) galaxy
(d) asteroids

Answer

Answer: (a) constellation


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Science Chapter 17 Question 7.
Which star is nearest to Earth?
(a) Pole star
(c) Orion
(b) Cassiopeia
(d) Sun

Answer

Answer: (d) Sun


MCQ On Stars And Solar System Question 8.
What term is used for celestial bodies that revolve around the Sun in highly elliptical orbit?
(a) Comet
(b) Meteors
(c) Asteroids
(d) Planets

Answer

Answer: (a) Comet


MCQ On Stars And Solar System For Class 8 Question 9.
Which small objects revolve between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter?
(a) Satellites
(b) Comets
(c) Asteroids
(d) Meteorites

Answer

Answer: (c) Asteroids


Stars And Solar System MCQ Class 8 Question 10.
Which planet is called morning star or evening star?
(a) Venus
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Mercury

Answer

Answer: (a) Venus


Class 8 Science Stars And Solar System MCQ Question 11.
Our galaxy is known as
(a) Earth galaxy
(b) Sun galaxy
(c) Milky Way
(d) Constellation

Answer

Answer: (c) Milky Way


Ch 17 Science Class 8 MCQ Question 12.
Which of the following is not a planet?
(a) Mercury
(b) Saturn
(c) Jupiter
(d) Great bear

Answer

Answer: (d) Great bear


Ncert Class 8 Science Chapter 17 MCQ Question 13.
Orion is a
(a) constellation
(b) star
(c) planet
(d) satellite

Answer

Answer: (a) constellation


Stars And Solar System Class 8 MCQ Online Test Question 14.
Shooting stars are called
(a) asteroids
(b) galaxies
(c) meteors
(d) andromeda

Answer

Answer: (c) meteors


Class 8 Ch 17 Science MCQ Question 15.
The planet farthest from the Sun is
(a) Uranus
(b) Neptune
(c) Saturn
(d) Mercury

Answer

Answer: (b) Neptune


MCQ Questions On Stars And Solar System Question 16.
If I am 13 years old, I have gone round the sun ___ times.
(a) Never gone round the sun
(b) 13
(c) 26
(d) Shall go round the sun when I shall be 15

Answer

Answer: (b) 13


Question 17.
The least dense planet is
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Saturn
(d) Uranus

Answer

Answer: (c) Saturn


Question 18.
____ appears as a bright head with a long tail. The tail grows in size as it approaches the sun.
(a) Asteroid
(b) Comet
(c) Planet
(d) Meteor

Answer

Answer: (b) Comet


Question 19.
During a clear night sky, bright light streaks are often visible. They are called shooting stars. They are actually
(a) Falling stars
(b) Comet
(c) Meteors
(d) Planet

Answer

Answer: (c) Meteors


Question 20.
_____ was the first Indian satellite.
(a) INSAT
(b) EDUSAT
(c) IRS
(d) Aryabhatta

Answer

Answer: (d) Aryabhatta


Question 21.
If Saturn is thrown into an ocean,
(a) It will float
(b) It will sink
(c) It will dissolve
(d) It will soak all water

Answer

Answer: (a) It will float


Question 22.
It is difficult to observe Mars because
(a) It is the smallest planet of this universe
(b) It is too far away from our planet
(c) It is hidden by the glare of the sun
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) It is hidden by the glare of the sun


Question 23.
Ravi was looking for Venus in the sky at midnight. Mohan laughed at him because Venus
(a) Appears 1-3 hours after sunrise or 1-3 hours after sunset
(b) Appears 1-3 hours before sunrise or 1-3 hours after sunset
(c) Appears 1-3 hours before sunrise or 1-3 hours before sunset
(d) Appears 1-3 hours after sunrise or 1-3 hours before sunset

Answer

Answer: (b) Appears 1-3 hours before sunrise or 1-3 hours after sunset


Question 24.
Earlier we had 9 planets in our solar system of which one name has been eliminated as per IAU (2006). The planet is
(a) Uranus
(b) Neptune
(c) Pluto
(d) Earth

Answer

Answer: (c) Pluto


Question 25.
Light Year is
(a) Year full of light
(b) Year having light work
(c) Year which earth shall become lighter
(d) Distance travelled by light in 1 year

Answer

Answer: (d) Distance travelled by light in 1 year


Match the following items given in Column A with that in Column ‘B’:

Column A Column B
(i) Nearest of the Sun (a) Jupiter
(ii) Largest planet (b) Star
(iii) Comets (c) Artificial satellites
(iv) Alpha Centauri (d) A constellation
(v) INSAT 3E (e) Other than planets
(vi) Ursa major (f) Neptune
(vii) Planet (g) Mercury
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Nearest of the Sun (g) Mercury
(ii) Largest planet (a) Jupiter
(iii) Comets (e) Other than planets
(iv) Alpha Centauri (b) Star
(v) INSAT 3E (c) Artificial satellites
(vi) Ursa major (d) A constellation
(vii) Planet (f) Neptune

Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words:

1. ………….. are celestial bodies of the universe and continuously emit heat and light.

Answer

Answer: Stars


2. ………….. is the distance travelled by light in one year and is equal to 9.46 × 1012 kilometres.

Answer

Answer: Light year


3. ………….. is the star which appears to be stationary near the northern horizon.

Answer

Answer: Pole Star


4. ………….. is a group of stars arranged in a definite pattern.

Answer

Answer: Constellation


5. ………….. are bright objects that revolve around the Sun.

Answer

Answer: Planets


6. ………….. constitutes Sun, eight planets with their moons and all other objects that are bound to the Sun due to gravity, e.g., asteroids, comets and meteors.

Answer

Answer: Solar system


7. ………….. are minor planets that revolve around the Sun and are located between Mars and Jupiter.

Answer

Answer: Asteroids


8. ………….. are very small sized bodies that revolve around the Sun in highly elliptical orbits and are characterized with a small head and a long tail.

Answer

Answer: Comets


9. ………….. are small stony or metallic bodies (meteors) travelling in interplanetary space that actually reach the Earth’s surface.

Answer

Answer: Meteorites


10. ………….. are the celestial bodies revolving around a planet.

Answer

Answer: Satellites


State whether the statements given below are True or False:

1. Sun is a star

Answer

Answer: True


2. Orion has 10 bright stars

Answer

Answer: False


3. Mercury has no satellite of its own

Answer

Answer: True


4. Planets do twinkle

Answer

Answer: False


5. Jupiter is the largest planet.

Answer

Answer: True


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Stars and the Solar System CBSE Class 8 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 Visualising Solid Shapes with Answers

Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 Visualising Solid Shapes with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 Visualising Solid Shapes with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Visualising Solid Shapes Class 8 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-maths-with-answers/

Students can also refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 Visualising Solid Shapes for better exam preparation and score more marks.

Online Education for Visualising Solid Shapes Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Visualising Solid Shapes Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
The name of the shape is
MCQ On Visualising Solid Shapes Class 8
(a) cylinder
(b) square
(c) circle
(d) triangle.

Answer

Answer: (b) square


MCQ On Visualising Solid Shapes Class 8 Question 2.
The name of the shape is
Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 MCQ
(a) sphere
(b) cylinder
(c) cone
(d) triangle.

Answer

Answer: (c) cone


Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 MCQ Question 3.
The name of the shape is
Ncert Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 MCQ
(a) cone
(b) sphere
(c) cuboid
(d) cylinder.

Answer

Answer: (d) cylinder


Ncert Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 MCQ Question 4.
The name of the shape
Class 8 Maths Ch 10 MCQ
(a) triangle
(b) cone
(c) cylinder
(d) sphere

Answer

Answer: (a) triangle


Class 8 Maths Ch 10 MCQ Question 5.
The name of the shape is
Class 8 Visualising Solid Shapes MCQ
(a) cone
(b) circle
(c) cylinder
(d) cube.

Answer

Answer: (b) circle


Class 8 Visualising Solid Shapes MCQ Question 6.
The name of the shape is
MCQ Questions For Class 8 Maths Visualising Solid Shapes
(a) cuboid
(b) cube
(c) square
(d) cylinder.

Answer

Answer: (b) cube


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Maths Visualising Solid Shapes Question 7.
The name of the shape is
Visualising Solid Shapes MCQ
(a) cube
(b) cuboid
(c) sphere
(d) square.

Answer

Answer: (b) cuboid


Visualising Solid Shapes MCQ Question 8.
The name of the shape is
Visualizing Solid Shapes Class 8 MCQ
(a) circle
(b) sphere
(c) cylinder
(d) cone.

Answer

Answer: (b) sphere


Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 Extra Questions Question 9.
A cuboid has how many faces ?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 3.

Answer

Answer: (c) 6


Visualising Solid Shapes Class 8 Extra Questions Question 10.
How many faces does a cube have ?
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2.

Answer

Answer: (a) 6


Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 MCQ Questions Question 11.
How many vertices does a cuboid have ?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 3.

Answer

Answer: (c) 8


Visualising Solid Shapes MCQ Class 8 Question 12.
How many vertices does a cube have ?
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2.

Answer

Answer: (a) 8


The Side View Of A Cone Appears As Question 13.
How many edges does a cuboid have ?
(a) 12
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (a) 12


Class 8th Maths Chapter 10 MCQ Question 14.
How many edges does a cube have ?
(a) 12
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 8.

Answer

Answer: (a) 12


Class 8 Math Chapter 10 MCQ Question 15.
How many faces does a triangular pyramid have ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (d) 4


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 Question 16.
How many vertices does a triangular pyramid have ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (d) 4


MCQ Questions On Visualising Solid Shapes Class 8 Question 17.
How many edges does a triangular pyramid have ?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8.

Answer

Answer: (c) 6


Question 18.
How many faces does a triangular prism have ?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 6.

Answer

Answer: (a) 5


Question 19.
How many vertices does a triangular prism have ?
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3.

Answer

Answer: (a) 6


Question 20.
How many edges does a triangular prism have ?
(a) 11
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 3.

Answer

Answer: (b) 9


Question 21.
How many faces does a pyramid with square base have ?
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 6.

Answer

Answer: (a) 5


Question 22.
How many vertices does a pyramid with square base have ?
(a) 5
(b)4
(c) 3
(d) 6.

Answer

Answer: (a) 5


Question 23.
How many edges does a pyramid with square base have ?
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 5.

Answer

Answer: (a) 8


See the following solid and answer the following questions:
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 Visualising Solid Shapes with Answers 9
Question 24.
The number of faces is
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9.

Answer

Answer: (b) 7


Question 25.
The number of vertices is
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: (d) 10


Question 26.
The number of edges is
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 15.

Answer

Answer: (d) 15


Question 27.
For a polyhedron, if ‘F’ stands for number of faces, V stands for number of vertices and E stands for number of edges, then which of the following relationships is named as Euler’s formula ?
(a) F + V = E + 2
(b) F + E = V + 2
(c) V + E = F + 2
(d) F+ V = E – 2.

Answer

Answer: (a) F + V = E + 2


Question 28.
A cube has ______ faces.
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8

Answer

Answer: (c) 6
Explanation:
A cube is a three dimensional shape having six faces.


Question 29.
A sphere has how many faces ?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (d) None
Explanation:
A sphere is a round-shaped object having no faces and edges.


Question 30.
The top-view of a cone looks like:
(a) A Circle
(b) A Square
(c) A Rectangle
(d) A Triangle

Answer

Answer: (a) A Circle
Explanation:
The base of a right-cone is always circular. When we see it from the top, it looks like a circle with its vertex as the center of the circle.


Question 31.
The top-view of a cube looks like a:
(a) Circle
(b) Square
(c) Rectangle
(d) Triangle

Answer

Answer: (b) Square
Explanation:
Since all the faces of a cube are of equal length.


Question 32.
The base of a prism is:
(a) Circle
(b) Triangle
(c) Square
(d) Any shape

Answer

Answer: (d) Any shape
Explanation:
A pyramid is a polyhedron whose base is a polygon (of any number of sides) and whose lateral faces are triangles with a common vertex.


Question 33.
If a polyhedron has 6 vertices and 12 edges. What is the number of faces it has ?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 18

Answer

Answer: (b) 8
Explanation:
By Euler’s formula we know that:
For any polyhedron,
F + V – E = 2
F = 2 – V + E
F = 2 – 6 + 12 = 8


Question 34.
Number of vertices a cone has:
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

Answer

Answer: (a) One


Question 35.
An example of cone is:
(a) Tube
(b) A tent
(c) A ball
(d) A box

Answer

Answer: (b) A tent


Question 36.
The top-view of a cuboid looks like a:
(a) Circle
(b) Square
(c) Rectangle
(d) Triangle

Answer

Answer: (c) Rectangle


Question 37.
The side-view of a cone appears as:
(a) Circle
(b) Square
(c) Rectangle
(d) Triangle

Answer

Answer: (d) Triangle


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 Visualising Solid Shapes with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Visualising Solid Shapes CBSE Class 8 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

A Roadside Stand Class 12 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 5

Online Education for A Roadside Stand Class 12 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 5

Check the below Online Education for NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Poem 5 A Roadside Stand with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 English with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided A Roadside Stand Class 12 English MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Poem 5 A Roadside Stand with Answers

A Roadside Stand MCQ Questions Class 12 Question 1.
What does the speaker or narrator call the thought of the owner of the stand?
(a) A chid like longing
(b) a very good thought
(c) a wise thought
(d) A childish longing in vain

Answer

Answer: (d) A childish longing in vain


A Roadside Stand MCQ Class 12 Question 2.
What would be the state of poor rural folk at new location ?
(a) tension free as their needs will be looked after
(b) they will be able to visit city malls
(c) they will enjoy travelling malls and cinema halls
(d) they will be happy

Answer

Answer: (a) tension free as their needs will be looked after


Roadside Stand MCQ Class 12 Question 3.
What was the news?
(a) City people will give money
(b) city people will help the poor
(c) Relocation and resettlement of the rural folk to make them tension free by the government
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (c) Relocation and resettlement of the rural folk to make them tension free by the government


A Roadside Stand MCQ Questions With Answers Class 12 Question 4.
Who wanted to feel the money at hand and from whom?
(a) The rural folk from the government
(b) The rural folk from the social agencies
(c) The rural folk from the government officials
(d) The rural folk from the city people

Answer

Answer: (d) The rural folk from the city people


MCQ Of A Roadside Stand Class 12 Question 5.
Why is the word pathetic used for road side stand?
(a) for city people’s attitude
(b) for government’s declaration
(c) for city people’s behavior
(d) for poor condition of the owner of the stand

Answer

Answer: (d) for poor condition of the owner of the stand


A Roadside Stand Is Made To Help The Poor Class 12 Question 6.
What is the poet’s call to the polished traffic passing ahead?
(a) he admires this
(b) he is indifferent to this
(c) he condemns this indifferent attitude of the city folk and feels the pain of the rural folk
(d) all these

Answer

Answer: (c) he condemns this indifferent attitude of the city folk and feels the pain of the rural folk


A Roadside Stand Is Erected For Class 12 Question 7.
Why did a stopping car react?
(a) to point out at the wrongly marked N and S directions
(b) to buy some items
(c) to appreciate their hard work
(d) to soothe the villagers

Answer

Answer: (a) to point out at the wrongly marked N and S directions


A Roadside Stand Questions And Answers Pdf Class 12 Question 8.
What does support the flow of cities?
(a) travelling
(b) rural people
(c) government
(d) flow of money

Answer

Answer: (d) flow of money


A Roadside Stand Question Answer Class 12 Question 9.
Who will soothe the rural poor?
(a) Government and Social agencies
(b) Government officials
(c) Promises made by the Government
(d) City people will soothe ‘out of their wits’

Answer

Answer: (d) City people will soothe ‘out of their wits’


A Roadside Stand Questions And Answers Class 12 Question 10.
Why didn’t the polished traffic stop at the roadside stand?
(a) they didn’t like that place
(b) their focus was their interest of earning huge benefits
(c) they were greedy
(d) all these

Answer

Answer: (d) all these


Question 11.
What news in the poem ‘A Roadside Stand’ is making rounds in the village?
(a) City people are connive
(b) Villagers will be given homes near theatre and shopping malls
(c) Rural folk is earning money
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) Villagers will be given homes near theatre and shopping malls


Question 12.
Why are the city people called beasts of prey?
(a) because of their selfishness and tendency to dupe others for it
(b) because they are well dressed
(c) they know how to earn money
(d) all these

Answer

Answer: (a) because of their selfishness and tendency to dupe others for it


Question 13.
What is the special quality of the city people or folk?
(a) They are connive
(b) They are smart
(c) They are snobbish
(d) know how to get benefits in a calculative manner

Answer

Answer: (d) know how to get benefits in a calculative manner


Question 14.
Who are the greedy Doers?
(a) the government
(b) old people
(c) The Rural people
(d) The polished city folk

Answer

Answer: (d) The polished city folk


Question 15.
Why was the childish longing in vain ?
(a) because it was useless
(b) because they were shifting
(c) because their wish of earning from city folk couldn’t be realized or fulfilled
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (c) because their wish of earning from city folk couldn’t be realized or fulfilled


Question 16.
What is being sold on roadside stand?
(a) furniture
(b) cosmetics
(c) Diesel
(d) wild berries, golden squash and some other similar products

Answer

Answer: (d) wild berries, golden squash and some other similar products


Question 17.
Why was roadside stand built?
(a) so that people can wait there
(b) to make it a bus stop
(c) to earn money from polished city traffic
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (c) to earn money from polished city traffic


Question 18.
What does Frost describe in the poem?
(a) the feelings of the owners of a roadside shed
(b) the feelings of passengers
(c) the feelings of people on footpath
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (a) the feelings of the owners of a roadside shed


Question 19.
What does Frost’s poem deal with?
(a) human tragedies, fears and their solutions
(b) humans
(c) nature
(d) buildings

Answer

Answer: (a) human tragedies, fears and their solutions


Question 20.
Who is the poet of A Roadside Stand?
(a) Samuel Taylor Coleridge
(b) Robert Frost
(c) Lord Byron
(d) Percy Shelley

Answer

Answer: (b) Robert Frost


Question 21.
What is the open prayer from near the open window?
(a) For money to fall from the sky
(b) for more number of people to stop
(c) for getting money from the government
(d) for the sound of coming cars to stop at the road stand to help the owner to earn money from them

Answer

Answer: (d) for the sound of coming cars to stop at the road stand to help the owner to earn money from them


Question 22.
What does I stand for in the poem?
(a) owner of the stand
(b) city flower who stopped on the stand
(c) Poet of the poem-Robert Frost

Answer

Answer: (d) None


Question 23.
Who are the ‘pitiful kin’ in the poem?
(a) social agencies
(b) government officials
(c) city people with cars
(d) The poor rural folk and farmers

Answer

Answer: (d) The poor rural folk and farmers


Question 24.
Who went and waited in the lines?
(a) The rural folk to hear the government’s declaration
(b) The rural folk to talk to the social agencies
(c) The rural folk to have a word with the government officials
(d) The rural folk went to hear the sound of stopping cars

Answer

Answer: (d) The rural folk went to hear the sound of stopping cars


Question 25.
Who made roadside stand and where?
(a) The sarpanch made in the village
(b) The government made in the village
(c) social agencies made in the village
(d) The poor rural people made in the village

Answer

Answer: (d) The poor rural people made in the village


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Poem 5 A Roadside Stand with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 English Poem A Roadside Stand MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.