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In Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 7 The Necklace are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 7 The Necklace.

Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 7 The Necklace

TEXTUAL EXERCISES

Read and Find Out (Pages 39, 41 & 42)

Question 1.
What kind of a person is Mme Loisel—why is she always unhappy ? (V. Imp.)
Or
Why was Matilda always unhappy ? (CBSE 2015, 2016)
Answer:
Matilda had a romantic nature. She was lost in dreams. Matilda was unhappy because she had no dowry. She had no hope, no means of becoming known. She was pretty. She wanted to be known and loved by rich men. But she was born in a poor family.

Question 2.
What kind of a person is her husband ?
Answer:
Her husband is a very simple-hearted person. He is an ordinary person. He is a caring husband. He wants to see Mme Loisel happy.

Question 3.
What fresh problem now disturbs Mme Loisel ?
Answer:
The fresh problem is : Mme Loisel doesn’t have a pretty and proper dress for the party.

Question 4.
How is the problem solved ?
Answer:
The problem is solved when her husband gives her four hundred francs. It is to buy a pretty dress for the said party.

Question 5.
What do M. and Mme Loisel do next ?
Answer:
M. and Mme Loisel decide to borrow a diamond necklace. It is from her friend Mme Forestier.

Question 6.
How do they replace the necklace ?
Answer:
They borrow money. They shift to a cheap house. They save every sou possible. Mme Loisel does all her work herself. They buy a new real diamond necklace to replace the lost one which is fake.

Think About It (Page 46)

Question 1.
The course of the Loisels’ life changed due to the necklace. Comment.
Answer:
It is true that the course of the Loisels’ life changed due to the necklace. After the loss of the necklace, the Loisels shifted to a cheap house. Mme Loisel started doing all work herself. She went to buy things. She haggled for the last sou. She wore ordinary clothes. Her husband worked evenings. He copied at five sous a page. They somehow saved every sou. This life of hardships went on for ten years.

Question 2.
What was the cause of Matilda’s ruin ? How could she have avoided it ?
Or
What was the cause of Matilda’s ruin ? (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
The cause of Matilda’s ruin was her great love for her dreams. She dreamt to be loved by rich men. She wanted to be known as she was pretty. But in reality she was from an ordinary family.

She could have avoided it if she had not always remained in her dreamy world. She should have seen the realities of life also. The dreamy world can’t be the real one.

Question 3.
What would have happened to Matilda if she had confessed to her friend that she had lost her necklace ? (V. Imp.)
Answer:
It could have changed her life. She could not have seen the day of want and misery. She was the woman of the people. She grew old in her youth. She suffered a lot due to the harsh life of want. If she had confessed before Mme Forestier, she could have been excused. It was because the lost necklace was a fake one.

Question 4.
If you were caught in a situation like this, how would you have dealt with it?
Answer:
First of all, I would not have given much importance to dreams. For me dreams are alway deceptive. I would have cared much for the realities of life.

If I were caught in such a situation, I could have confessed before Mme Forestier at once. I could have done whatever she had asked me to do.

Talk About It

Question 1.
The characters in this story speak in English. Do you think this is their language ? What clues are there in the story about the language its characters must be speaking in ?
Answer:
The characters in this story speak in English. But this is not their language. There are many clues in the story that show this. The characters speak French because the story was originally written in French. It is translated into English. These clues are :

• names of characters : Mme Loisel, Mme Forestier, minister’s name is George Ramponneau
• currency : franc, sou
• shop’s location : Palais-Royal
• walk in the Champs Elysees

Question 2.
Honesty is the best policy.
Answer:
Honesty is really the best policy. If a man is honest, he will not do anything wrong. Any wrong thing has a harmful effect. Honesty always pays in the end. We should recognise that dishonesty and deception never pay. They cause troubles to others. To give troubles to others due to our selfishness is very bad. We should learn to be content within our means.

Question 3.
We should be content with what life gives us.
Answer:
It is a great virtue that we should be content with what life gives us. Life doesn’t give equal to all people. Some are bom great, some are born in poverty. We should not overlook the fact that life is different for different people.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 7 The Necklace help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 7 The Necklace drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 7 The Duck and the Kangaroo are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 7 The Duck and the Kangaroo.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 7 The Duck and the Kangaroo

COMPREHENSION QUESTIONS

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow each :

1. Said the Duck to the Kangaroo,
“Good gracious ! how you hop !
Over the fields and the water too,
As if you never would stop !
My life is a bore in this nasty pond,
And I long to go out in the world beyond !
I wish I could hop like you !”
Said the Duck to the Kangaroo. (Page 94)

Questions

(a) How does the Duck speak to the Kangaroo ?
(b) How does the Duck look at the Kangaroo’s jumping ?
(c) What is the Duck’s desire ?
(d) Give the meaning of‘hop’.

Answers

(а) The Duck speaks to the Kangaroo most respectfully.
(b) The Duck looks at the Kangaroo’s jumping over the fields and water as never-ending.
(c) The Duck wishes she could hop like him.
(d) It is ‘jump’.

2. “Please give me a ride on your back !”
Said the Duck to the Kangaroo.
“I would sit quite still, and say nothing but ‘Quack’,
The whole of the long day through !
And we’d go to the Dee, and the Jelly Bo Lee,
Over the land, and over the sea ;
Please take me a ride ! O do !”
Said the Duck to the Kangaroo. (Page 95) (Imp.)

Questions

(a) What did the Duck request the Kangaroo for ?
(b) What shall the Duck do the whole day ?
(c) How did the Duck request the Kangaroo ? How do you know ?
(d) Give the rhyme scheme used in this stanza.

Answers

(a) The Duck requested the Kangaroo for a ride.
(b) The Duck would quack the whole day.
(c) She requested the Kangaroo very much. It is seen in her repeating the request for a ride.
(d) It is ab ab cc dd.

3. Said the Kangaroo to the Duck,
“This requires some little reflection ;
Perhaps on the whole it might bring me luck,
And there seems but one objection,
Which is, if you’ll let me speak so bold,
Your feet are unpleasantly wet and cold,
And would probably give me the roo-
Matiz !” said the Kangaroo. (Page 95) (Imp.)

Questions

(a) What is ‘This’ in the second line here ?
(b) What is the objection ?
(c) How would the Kangaroo like to speak ?
(d) What will the Kangaroo have in the end ?

Answers

(a) This’ here means ‘giving the Duck a ride’.
(b) It is that the Duck’s feet are ‘wet and cold’.
(c) The Kangaroo would like to speak boldly.
(d) He will have cold.

4. Said the Duck. “As I sat on the rocks,
I have thought over that completely,
And I bought four pairs of worsted socks Which fit my web-feet neatly.
And to keep out the cold I’ve bought a cloak,
And every day a cigar I’ll smoke,
All to follow my own dear true
Love of a Kangaroo !” (Page 96) (V. Imp.)

Questions

(a) When did the Duck think over ‘that’ ? What is ‘that’ ?
(b) Why did the Duck buy socks ?
(c) What for did she buy a cloak and other things ?
(d) Give the meaning of‘neatly’.

Answers

(a) When the Duck sat on the rocks, she thought over ‘that’. That’ here is her request for a ride.
(b) She bought these to protect her feet from cold.
(c) She bought all these for the love of Kangaroo.
(d) It means ‘completely’.

5. Said the Kangaroo. “I’m ready !
All in the moonlight pale ;
But to balance me well, dear Duck, sit steady !
And quite at the end of my tail!”
So away they went with a hop and a bound,
And they hopped the whole world three times round ;
And who so happy—O who,
As the Duck and the Kangaroo ? (Page 96) (M. Imp.) (CBSE 2016)

Questions

(a) How djd the kangaroo react ?
(b) Where did the kangaroo ask the duck to sit ?
(c) What is the rhyme scheme of the stanza ?
(d) Give the meaning of ‘steady’.

Answers

(a) The kangaroo reacted saying that he was ready. But the duck should sit steady to balance him well.
(b) The kangaroo asked the duck to sit quietly at the end of his tail to balance him well.
(c) The rhyme scheme of the stanza is : ab ab cc dd.
(d) It means ‘still’ or ‘not moving’.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 7 The Duck and the Kangaroo help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 7 The Duck and the Kangaroo, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 8 On Killing a Tree are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 8 On Killing a Tree.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 8 On Killing a Tree

I. COMPREHENSION QUESTIONS

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow each :

1. It takes much time to kill a tree,
Not a simple jab of the knife
Will do it. It has grown Slowly consuming the earth,
Rising out of it, feeding
Upon its crust, absorbing
Years of sunlight, air, water,
And out of its leprous hide
Sprouting leaves. (Page 110)

Questions

(a) What will a simple jab of the knife not do to a tree ?
(b) Where has the tree grown ?
(c) What did the tree need to grow ?
(d) How does its bark look ?

Answers

(а) It will not kill a tree.
(b) It has grown on the earth’s surface.
(c) It needed sunlight, air, water and the earth’s crust.
(d) It looks like the leprous hide.

2. So hack and chop
But this alone won’t do it.
Not so much pain will do it.
The bleeding bark will heal
And from close to the ground
Will rise curled green twigs,
Miniature boughs
Which if unchecked will expand again
To former size. (Page 110) (Imp.)

Questions

(a) What alone will not do to the tree ?
(b) What will happen after the bark bleeds ?
(c) When will small boughs grow to their former size ?
(d) Give the meaning of ‘miniature’.

Answers

(a) Hacking and chopping will not kill the tree.
(b) It will soon heal.
(c) When they will not be checked.
(d) It is ‘small’.

3. No,
The root is to be pulled out —
Out of the anchoring earth ;
It is to be roped, tied,
And pulled out—snapped out Or pulled out entirely,
Out from the earth-cave, (Pages 110-111) (V. Imp.)

Questions

(a) What shall one have to do to kill the tree ?
(b) How does the earth give protection to the tree ?
(c) How is the earth seen in relation to it ?
(d) Name the poetic device used in the last line here.

Answers

(a) One shall have to pull out or snap out the tree from the roots.
(b) It anchors the tree and keeps it firmly standing.
(c) It is like a cave to preserve it.
(d) It is ‘metaphor’.

4. And the strength of the tree exposed
The source, white and wet,
The most sensitive, hidden
For years inside the earth. (Page 111)

Questions

(a) What happens when the tree is pulled out ?
(b) How does the source of the tree look ?
(c) Where has the source of the tree laid ?
(d) Give the meaning of ‘sensitive’.

Answers

(a) Its strength is seen.
(b) It looks white and wet.
(c) It has laid inside the earth.
(d) It is ‘that is easily affected’.

5. Then the matter
Of scorching and choking In sun and air,
Browning, hardening,
Twisting, withering,
And then it is done. (Page 111) (M. Imp.)

Questions

(a) What happens to the tree after it is pulled out ?
(b) Which colour does the tree acquire then and how does it look ?
(c) What happens to the tree after all these stages ?
(d) What is ‘it’ in the last line ?

Answers

(a) It is scorched and choked.
(b) It acquires brown colour. It looks hardened.
(c) It is then killed.
(d) ‘It’ here means the action of killing the tree.

II. TEXTUAL QUESTIONS
(Page 111)

Thinking About the Poem

I.

1. Can a “simple jab of the knife” kill a tree ? Why not ?
2. How has the tree grown to its full size ? List the words suggestive of its life and activity.
3. What is the meaning of “bleeding bark” ? What makes it bleed ?
4. The poet says “No” in the beginning of the third stanza. What does he mean by this ?
5. What is the meaning of “anchoring earth” and “earth cave” ?
6. What does he mean by “the strength of the tree exposed” ? (CBSE 2016)
7. What finally kills the tree ?

Answers

1. No, it can’t. It is because the bark of the tree will heal on its own after some time.
2. It has consumed the earth and fed on its crust. It has absorbed light, air and water for years. The words are : consuming, feeding, absorbing sunlight, air and water.
3. It means the bark giving out juice etc., after it is cut. A knife’s or axe’s cut makes it bleed.
4. By ‘No’ he means to say that to kill a tree one should not hack, chop or jab it with a
5. It means the earth that gives protection to the tree. The earth, that is, the soil keeps the tree in its grip and gives life to it. ‘Earth cave’ means a hole inside it. This looks like a small cave. The tree has its roots in it.
6. The strength of the tree are its roots. When the tree is pulled out, these are exposed.
7. Pulling out the tree in one jerk with ropes etc., finally kills the tree.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 8 On Killing a Tree help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 9 English Beehive Poem Chapter 8 On Killing a Tree, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource.

NCERT QUESTIONS

Exercises

Question 1.
What do you understand by ‘people as a resource’?
Answer:
People as a resource is a way of referring to a country’s working people in terms of their existing productive skills and abilities.

Question 2.
How is human resource different from other resources like land and physical capital?
Answer:
Human capital is in one-way superior to other resources like land and physical capital: human resource can make use of land and physical capital. Land and physical capital cannot become useful on its own.

Question 3.
What is the role of education in human capital formation?
Answer:
The role of education in human capital formation is as follows:

1. Educated people earn more than the uneducated people.
2. Literate population is an asset to an economy.
3. It leads to higher productivity.
4. It opens new avenues for a person.
5. It provides new aspirations and develops values of life.
6. It contributes to the growth of society.
7. It enhances the national income, cultural richness and the efficiency of the governance.

Question 4.
What is the role of health in human capital formation?
Answer:
The health of a person helps him to realise his potential and the ability to fight illness. An unhealthy person becomes a liability for an organisation. Health is an indispensable basis for realising one’s well being. Henceforth, improvement in the health status of the population has been the priority of the country. Our national policy, too, aimed at improving the accessibility of healthcare, family welfare, and nutritional service with a special focus on the underprivileged segment of the population.

Question 5.
What part does health play in the individual’s working life?
Answer:
Health plays a vital role in an individual’s working life since no firm would be induced to employ people who might not work efficiently as healthy workers because of ill health and not only that, people who are physically or mentally ill cannot work.

Question 6.
What are the various activities undertaken in the primary sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector?
Answer:
The various activities undertaken in these sectors are:

1. Primary sector: Agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing, poultry farming, and mining.
2. Secondary sector: Manufacturing and construction.
3. Tertiary sector: Trade, transport, communication, banking, education, health, tourism services insurance, etc.

Question 7.
What is the difference between economic activities and non-economic activities?
Answer:

Question 8.
Why are women employed in low paid work?
Answer:
Education and skill are the two determinants of the earning of any individual in the market. The women work in places where there is no job security. The various activities relating to legal protection are meagre. The majority of women has less education and low skill formation. All these factors lead to their irregular and low income. So, they are paid less as compared to men.

Question 9.
How will you explain the term unemployment?
Answer:
The term unemployment means a situation where a section of the people, who are able and willing to work, do not find any gainful work to do.

Question 10.
What is the difference between disguised unemployment and seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
Disguised UnEmployment Seasonal UnEmployment In case of disguised unemployment people appear to be employed. Seasonal unemployment happens when people are not able to find jobs during some months of the year. They have an agricultural plot where they find work. This usually happens among family members engaged in agricultural activity. People dependent upon agriculture usually face such kind of problem. The work requires the service of five people but engages eight people.

There are certain busy seasons when sowing, harvesting, weeding, threshing is done. Three people are extra. These three people also work in the same plot as five people.The contribution made by the three extra people does not add to the contribution made by the five people.If three people are removed the productivity of the field will not decline.The field requires the service of five people and the three extra people are disguisedly employed. Certain months do not provide much work to the people dependant on agriculture.

Question 11.
Why is educated unemployed a peculiar problem in India?
Answer:
Educated unemployed is a peculiar problem of India because they are not able to find jobs for themselves. This is a situation where the unemployment of graduates and post-graduates has increased faster than among the matriculates. A paradoxical situation is witnessed as there is surplus manpower in certain categories with a shortage of manpower in others. There is unemployment among technically qualified persons on one hand, while there are categories of technical skills required for economic growth. Thus, it is a peculiar problem in India.

Question 12.
In which field, do you think, India can build maximum employment opportunities?
Answer:
There is no further scope in the primary sector because there is already disguised unemployment. In the secondary sector, small scale manufacturing is the most labour absorbing sector. In the case of the tertiary sector, various new services like biotechnology and information technology are coming up and there is scope for further employment opportunities.

Question 13.
Can you suggest some measures in the education system to mitigate the problem of educated unemployed?
Answer:
Sriperambathur, Nanganneri, Koodangulam, etc. are some of the villages which did not have job opportunities earlier but later came up.

Question 14.
Can you imagine some village which initially had no job opportunities but later came up with many?
Answer:
Rampur was the village which initially depended on agriculture and on rainfall. Then, when electricity was provided, the people started using electricity to irrigate their fields and grow 2 to 3 crops in a year to get more work.

Some started small scale industries based on the use of electricity and provide employment to people. A school was established so that the people became educated and started getting employment in and outside the village. The village became prosperous and soon had better health, education, transport, and job facilities.

Question 15.
Which capital would you consider the best—land, labour, physical capital, and human capital? Why?
Answer:
Human capital is the best capital because it can make use of land, labour, and physical capital. The other factors cannot become useful on their own. The knowledge expertise in a human enables him to develop the land, labour, and physical capital to produce an output for his own use or to sell in the market.

Hope given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 are helpful to complete your homework.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 Democratic Rights

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 Democratic Rights.

NCERT QUESTIONS

Exercises

Question 1.
Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Bihar go to Punjab to work on the farms.
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools.
(c) Men and women government employees get the same salary.
(d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children.
Answer:
(d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children.

Question 2.
Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to criticise the government
(b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution
(c) Freedom to start a movement to change the government
(d) Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution
Answer:
(d) Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution

Question 3.
Which of the following rights is available under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Right to work
(b) Right to adequate livelihood
(c) Right to protect one’s culture
(d) Right to privacy
Answer:
(c) Right to protect one’s culture

Question 4.
Name the Fundamental Right under which each of the following rights falls:

1. Freedom to propagate one’s religion
2. Right to life
3. Abolition of untouchability
4. Ban on bonded labour

Answer:

1. Right to Freedom of Religion
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right to Equality
4. Right against Exploitation

Question 5.
Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid? Give reasons for your preference.
(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.
(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy.
(c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy.
Answer:
(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.
Reasons:

• Rights are necessary for the very existence of democracy.
• In a democracy, every citizen has the right to vote.

Question 6.
Are there restrictions on the Right to Freedom justified? Give reasons for your answer.

1. Indian citizens need permission to enter some border areas of the country for reasons of security.
2. Outsiders are not allowed to buy property in some areas to protect the interest of the local population.
3. The government bans the publication of a book that can go against the ruling party in the next elections.

Answer:

1. It is justified. The security of the country is the first duty of a government, and this cause can stop the people from visiting the border areas.
2. This action is also justified. The local population may not be financially strong to protect its interests. Outsiders can take away their rights in their own area, so such a step of the government is correct.
3. Not justified. The publication of a book can only be banned if it disturbs the peace and hurts the sentiments of a section of people, and not on grounds of protecting the ruling party’s prospects in the next election.

Question 7.
Manoj went to a college to apply for admission into an MBA course. The clerk refused to take his application and said “You, the son of a sweeper, wish to be a manager! Has anyone done this job in your community ? Go to the municipality office and apply for a sweeper’s position”. Which of Manoj’s fundamental rights are being violated in this instance.
Answer:
In Manoj’s case, two fundamental rights are being violated.

1. Right to Equality. Everyone is equal in the eyes of law. No one can be denied admission on the grounds of his birth. The person is also practising untouchability which is a punishable offence. His right to opportunity is also being violated.
2. Right to Freedom. Manoj has the right to apply for any job anywhere as long as he is qualified for it. No one can force him to do a certain job against his wishes.

Question 8.
When Madhurima went to the property registration office, the Registrar told her, “You can’t write your name as Madhurima Banerjee d/o A.K. Banerjee. You are married, so you must give your husband’s name. Your husband’s surname is Rao. So your name should be changed to Madhurima Rao.” She did not agree. She said “If my husband’s name has not changed after marriage, why should mine?” In your opinion, who is right in this dispute? and why?
Answer:
In this dispute, Madhurima is correct. She is entitled to right to equality and therefore she can choose to use either her maiden name or her husband’s surname. Forcing her to use to her husband’s surname will result in infringement of her right.

Hope given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 are helpful to complete your homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online tutoring for you.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India.

NCERT QUESTIONS

Exercises

Question 1.
How is food security ensured in India?
Answer:
Food security of a nation is ensured if all of its citizens have enough nutritious food available, all persons have the capacity to buy food of acceptable quality and there is no barrier to access to food.

Question 2.
Which are the people more prone to food insecurity?
Answer:
The people more prone to food insecurity are:

1. Landless people with little or no land to depend on.
2. Traditional artisans
3. Providers of traditional services, petty self-employed workers and destitutes, including beggars
4. Urban casual labourers engaged in seasonal activities.
5. The SCs, STs and some sections of the OBCs.
6. People affected by natural disasters.

Question 3.
Which states are more food insecure in India?
Answer:
The states of Uttar Pradesh (eastern and south-eastern parts), Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, West Bengal, Chattisgarh, parts of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra account for the largest number of food-insecure people in the country.

Question 4.
Do you believe that Green Revolution has made India self-sufficient in food grains? How?
Answer:
Green Revolution has made India self-sufficient in food grains. The country has avoided famines even during adverse weather conditions since the advent of the Green Revolution in the early 1970s. A variety of crops being grown all over the country is an outcome of the Green Revolution.

Question 5.
A section of people in India is still without food. Explain.
Answer:
A section of the people is insecure during a few months when they remain unemployed because of the seasonal nature of agricultural work. They are engaged in seasonal activities and are paid very low wages that just ensure bare survival. At times it so happens that they have to stay without food.

Question 6.
What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity?
Answer:
When there is a disaster or a calamity, the production of food grains decreases in the affected areas. This in turn creates a shortage of food in the area. Due to the food shortages, the prices go up. The raised prices of food affect the capacity of many people to buy the same. When a calamity occurs in a very wide area or is stretched over a long period of time, it may cause a situation of starvation. Massive starvation can take the form of famine.

Question 7.
Differentiate between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger.
Answer:
Hunger has chronic and seasonal dimensions.
Chronic Hunger Seasonal Hunger Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and/or quality. Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of their very low income and in turn inability to buy food even for survival. This is prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in urban areas because of casual labour.

Question 8.
What has our government done to provide food security to the poor? Discuss any two schemes launched by the government.
Answer:
The government has designed the food security system carefully to ensure the availability of food to all sections of society. The system is composed of two componfents, i.e.,

1.  Buffer Stock
2. Public Distribution System (PDS)

In addition to the above, the government has launched several Poverty Alleviation Programmes (PAPs) that comprise a component of food security. Some of these programmes are Mid-day Meals, Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY), and Food For Work (FFW).

The two schemes launched by the government in this direction are:

1. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY). This scheme was launched in December 2000. Under this scheme, one crore of the poorer among the BPL families, to be covered by the Public Distribution System, were identified. Twenty-five kilograms of food grains were made available to each of the – eligible families at a highly subsidized rate. After about two years, the quantity was enhanced from twenty-five kg to thirty-five kg. In June 2003 and August 2004, an additional fifty lakh families were added to this scheme twice. In this way, about two crore families have been brought under the AAY.
2. Annapurna Scheme (APS). It was launched in 2,000 with a special target group of ‘indigent senior citizens’. The functioning of the scheme was linked with the existing network of the PDS. Under this scheme, 10 kg of food grains were made available to them free of cost.

Question 9.
Why buffer stock is created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer stock is created by the government to ensure the availability of food to all the sections of society. It helps to resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during periods of calamity.

Question 10.
Write notes on:
(a) Minimum Support Price
(b) Buffer Stock
(c) Issue Price
(d) Fair Price Shops
Answer:
(a) Minimum Support Price. This is the pre-announced price at which the government purchases food grains particularly, wheat and rice, from the farmers to create a buffer stock. This price is announced by the government every year before the sowing season as an incentive to the farmers to raise the production of the desired crop. The rising MSPs have raised the maintenance cost of procuring food grains by the government as well as induced farmers to divert land from the production of coarse grains to the production of these crops.

(b) Buffer Stock. It is the stock of food grains, particularly wheat and rice, which the government procures through the Food Corporation of India (FCI). The FCI purchases these cereals directly from the farmers of those states where they are in surplus. The price of these commodities are announced much before the actual sowing season of these crops. The food grains thus purchased by the FCI are kept in big granaries and called ‘Buffer Stock’.

(c) Issue Price. In order to help the poor strata of the society, the government provides them food grains from the buffer stock at a price much lower than the market price. This subsidised price is known as the ‘Issue Price’.

(d) Fair Price Shops. The food grains procured by the government through the Food Corporation of India are distributed among the poorer sections of the society through ration shops. These are called ‘Fair Price Shops’ because food grains are supplied to the poor through these shops at a price lower than the market price, which is often high.

Question 11.
What are the problems with the functioning of ration shops?
Answer:
Out of Syllabus.

Question 12.
Write a note on the role of co-operatives in providing food and related items.
Answer:
The cooperatives are also playing an important role in food security in India especially in the southern and western parts of the country. The cooperative societies set up shops to sell low priced goods to poor people. For example, out of all fair price shops running in Tamil Nadu, around 94 percent are being run by the cooperatives.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 Electoral Politics

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 Electoral Politics.

NCERT QUESTIONS

Exercises

Question 1.
Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?
(a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government.
(b) People select the representative of their choice is an election.
(c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary.
(d) People can indicate which policies they prefer.
Answer:
Statement (c) is false.

Question 2.
Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.
(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful.
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.
(d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict.
Answer:
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.

Question 3.
List all the different election-related activities mentioned in the chapter and arrange them in a time sequence, beginning with the first activity and ending with the last. Some of these activities are given below: Releasing election manifesto, counting of votes, making of voters’ list, election campaign, declaration of election results, casting of votes, ordering of re-poll, announcing election schedule, filing nomination.
Answer:
Election-related activities:

1. Announcing election schedule
2. Filing nominations
3. Making of voters’ list
4. Releasing election manifesto
5. Election campaign
6. Casting of votes
7. Counting of votes
8. Declaration of election results.
9. Ordering of re-poll.

Question 4.
Surekha is an officer in charge of ensuring free and fair elections in an assembly constituency in a state. Describe what should she focus on for each of the following stages of election:

1. Election campaign
2. Polling day
3. Counting day

Answer:

1. Election campaign:
   • Sulekha should ensure that the candidates are not bribing the voters.
   • She should ensure that no candidate appeals for votes in the name of caste and religion.
   • She should make sure that no candidate uses government resources for campaigning.
   • No candidate should be allowed to spend more than 25 lakhs in a constituency for the Lok Sabha elections.
2. Polling day:
   • Sulekha should ensure that voting takes place in a fairway.
   • No unfair means like booth capturing should take place.
   • Once the polling is over, EVMs should be sealed and taken to a secure place.
3. Counting day:
   • On a fixed day, only EVMs from constituency should be opened.
   • The agents of all contestants should ensure that counting is done properly.
   • If she finds any foul play, an objection can be raised to the Election Commission, which will verily it and may go for re-polling in that constituency.

Question 5.
The table below gives the proportion of different communities among the candidates who won elections to the US Congress. Compare these to the proportion of these communities in the population of the US. Based on this would you suggest a system of reservation in the US Congress. If yes, why and for which communities? If no, why not?

Answer:
Based on the table, a reservation for the Hispanic community is a good idea. This is to make their representation in proportion to the percentage of their population.

Question 6.
Chinappa was convicted of torturing his wife for dowry. Satbir was held guilty of practicing untouchability. The court did not allow either of them to contest elections. Does this decision go against the principles of democratic elections?
Answer:
No, this decision does not go against the principle of democratic elections because:

1. Chinappa is a criminal as he was convicted of torturing his wife for dowry.
2. Satbir is also guilty of practicing untouchability, which is a crime.
3. If there are serious criminal cases pending against candidates they are not allowed to contest elections.
4. This system has been introduced in the directions from the Supreme Court.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Democracy in the Contemporary World

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Democracy in the Contemporary World.

NCERT QUESTIONS

Exercises

Question 1.
Which of the following does not lead to the spread of democracy?
(a) Struggle by the people.
(b) Invasion by foreign countries,
(c) End of Colonialism.
(d) People’s desire for freedom.
Answer:
(b) Invasion by foreign countries

Question 2.
Which of the following statements is true about today’s world?
(a) Monarchy as a form of government has vanished.
(b) The relationship between different countries has become more democratic than ever before.
(c) In more and more countries rulers are being elected by the people.
(d) There are no more military dictators in the world.
Answer:
(c) In more and more countries rulers are being elected by the people.

Question 3.
Use one of the following statements to complete the sentence:
Democracy in the international organisations requires that
(a) The rich countries should have a greater say.
(b) Countries should have a say according to their military power.
(c) Countries should be treated with respect in proportion to their population.
(d) All countries in the world should be treated equally.
Answer:
(d) All countries in the world should be treated equally.

Question 4.
Based on the information given in this chapter, match the following countries and the path democracy has taken in that country.

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)

Question 5.
What are the difficulties people face in a non-democratic country? Give answers drawing from the examples given in this chapter.
Answer:
Citizens of non-democratic countries face a lot of difficulties. These are listed below:

1. They are not allowed to choose their leader or raise a voice against changing their leader.
2. They aren’t entitled to form political parties without the consent of the one in power. They do not have the rights to form independent trade unions or are allowed to strike.
3. They do not enjoy the right to freedom of speech and expression because there is a possibility that people can be arrested for any trivial matter.
4. For example, the military coup of 1973 in Chile and the Communist government in Poland, which ruled till 1990, are examples of oppressive undemocratic rule.

Question 6.
Which freedoms are usually taken away when a democracy is overthrown by the military?
Answer:
When democracy is overthrown by the military, freedom is curbed and the following incidents are usually witnessed:

1. The military does whatever it wishes to do and no one has the authority to question them.
2. The military government tortures harass, imprisons, and also kills people who had gone against them during their takeover. Moreover, citizens are not allowed to show displeasure against any of their policies.
3. People are barred from expressing their opinions freely, from forming any trade unions or even having the right to vote.

Question 7.
Which of the following positions can contribute to democracy at the global level? Give reasons for your answer in each case.
(a) My country gives more money to international institutions. Therefore, I want to be treated with
more respect and exercise more power. .
(b) My country may be small or poor. But my voice must be heard with equal respect because these decisions will affect my country.
(c) Wealthy nations will have a greater say in international affairs. They cannot let their interests suffer just because they are outnumbered by poor nations.
(d) Big countries like India must have a greater say in international organisations.
Answer:
(b) Because in a democracy all nations must have equal powers while the rest of the statements support the rich and the developed nations. They cannot contribute to democracy on a global level.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

NCERT QUESTIONS

Exercises

Question 1.
Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how would you classify each of these countries. Write ‘democratic’ ‘Undemocratic’ or ‘not sure’ against each of these.
(a) Country A: People who do not accept the country’s official religion, do not have a right to vote.
Answer:
Undemocratic.
(b) Country B: The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty years.
Answer:
Not sure.
(c) Country C: Ruling party has lost in the last three elections.
Answer:
Democratic.
(d) Country D: There is no independent Election Commission.
Answer:
Undemocratic.

Question 2.
Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how would you classify each of these countries? Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sure’ against each of these.
(a) Country P: The Parliament cannot pass a law about the army without the consent of the Chief of Army.
Answer:
Democratic.
(b) Country Q: The Parliament cannot pass a law reducing the powers of the judiciary.
Answer:
Democratic.
(c) Country R: The country’s leaders cannot sign any treaty with another country without taking permission from its neighbouring country.
Answer:
Not sure.
(d) Country S: All the major economic decisions about the country are taken by officials of the central bank which the ministers cannot change.
Answer:
Undemocratic.

Question 3.
Which of these is not a good argument in favour of democracy? Why?
(a) Peope feel free and equal in a democracy.
(b) Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others.
(c) Democratic government is more accountable to the people.
(d) Democracies are more prosperous than others.
Answer:
(d) Democracies are more prosperous than others, it is not a good argument in favour of democracy eg. In India, it has not ended poverty and in other parts of the World like in countries of Asia, Africa, Latin America. Other countries, for example, eg. Russia and China are more prosperous than some democratic countries of Asia and Africa.

Question 4.
Each of these statements contains a democractic and an undemocratic element. Write out the two separately for each statement.
(a) A minister said that some laws have to be passed by the Parliament in order to conform to the regulations decided by the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
Answer:
(i) Undemocratic: Some laws have to be passed by the Parliament.
(ii) Democratic: In order to conform to the regulations decided by the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
(b)The Election Commission ordered re-polling in a constituency where large-scale rigging was reported.
Answer:
(i) Democratic: The Election Commission ordered re-polling in a constituency.
(ii) Undemocratic: Where large-scale rigging was reported.
(c) Women’s representation in the Parliament has barely reached 10 per cent. This led women’s organisations to demand one-third seats for women.
Answer:
(i) Undemocratic: Women’s representation in the Parliament has barely reached 10 per cent.
(ii) Democratic: This led women’s organisations to demand one-third seats for women.

Question 5.
Which of these is not a valid reason for arguing that there is a lesser possibility of famine in a democratic country?
(a) Opposition parties can draw attention to hunger and starvation.
(b) Free press can report suffering from famine in different parts of the country.
(c) Government fears its defeat in the next elections.
(d) People are free to believe in and practise any religion.
Answer:
(d) People are free to believe in and practise any religion has no relation with the lesser possibility
of famine in a country.

Question 6.
There are 40 villages in a district where the government has made no provision for drinking water. These villagers met and considered many methods of forcing the government to respond to their need.
Which of these is not a democratic method?
(a) Filing a case in the courts claiming that water is part of right to life.
(b) Boycotting the next elections to give a message to all parties.
(c) Organising public meetings against government’s policies.
(d) Paying money to government officials to get water.
Answer:
(d) Paying money to government officials to get water is not a democratic method.

Question 7.
Write a response to the following arguments against democracy:
(a) Army is the most disciplined and corruption-free organisation in the country. Therefore army should rule the country.
(b) Rule of the majority means the rule of ignorant people. What we need is the rule of the wise, even if they are in small numbers.
(c) If we want religious leaders to guide us in spiritual matters, why not invite them to guide us in politics as well. The country should be ruled by religious leaders.
Answer:
(a) If army is allowed to rule the country, it will lead to concentration of all powers in the army.
Power should be divided among the three organs of the government i.e.. legislature, executive and judiciary. Concentration of all powers with the army will lead to dictatorship e.g. Pinochet’s rule in Chile.
(b) Democracy is a form of government where all the adults have the right to vote. Restricting people to rule and govern only from minority bas ing ‘wise people’ would harm representational democracy.
(c) Politics and religion are two different fields. Religion takes us towards spirituality by teaching us what is good or bad. Combination of religion and politics leads to communalism or communal politics which is very dangerous.

Question 8.
Are the following statements in keeping with democracy as a value? Why?
(a) Father to Daughter: I don’t want to hear your opinion about your marriage. In our family children marry where the parents tell them to.
Answer:
Undemocratic: The daughter has been denied permission to express her views/opinions on her marriage.

(b) Teacher to student: Don’t disturb my concentration by asking me questions in the classroom.
Answer:
Undemocratic: The student is not being allowed to ask questions in the class.

(c) Employee to the officer: Our working hours must be reduced according to the law.
Answer:
Democratic: As the employee is asking working hours to be reduced according to the law.

Question 9.
Consider the following facts about a country and decide if you would call it a democracy. Give
reasons to support your decision.
(a) All the citizens of the country have the right to vote. Elections are held regularly.
Answer:
It is democratic because in a democracy there is Universal Adult Franchise.

(b) The country took a loan from international agencies. One of the conditions for giving loan was that the government would reduce its expenses on education and health.
Answer:
A democratic government works for the welfare of the country and enhances the dignity of the citizens. Therefore, it cannot perform any functions which go against the welfare of the country and its people. Moreover, it does not allow an international agency to interfere in the internal matters of a country.

(c) People speak more than seven languages but education is available only in one language, the language spoken by 52 percent of people of the country.
Answer:
It is undemocratic because the majority view is being imposed on the minority.

(d) Several organisations have given a call for peaceful demonstrations and nation wide strikes in the country to oppose these policies. Government has arrested these leaders.
Answer:
Democratic: In a democratic country the government follows such a policy to maintain law and order as is done in this case where strikers are arrested against the policies of the government.

(e) The government owns the radio and television in the country. All the newspapers have to get permission from the government to publish any news about the government’s policies and protests.
Answer:
Undemocratic: In a democracy, people have the right to freedom of speech and expression. Radio and television and the press are free from the government’s control.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Working of Institutions

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Working of Institutions.

Exercises

Question 1.
If you are elected as the President of India which of the following decision can you take on your own?
(a) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.
(b) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in the Lok Sabha.
(c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.
(d) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
(c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

Question 2.
Who among the following is a part of the political executive?
(a) District Collector
(b) Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
(c) Home Minister
(d) Director General of Police
Answer:
(c) Home Minister

Question 3.
Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false?
(a) Every law passed by the Parliament needs approval of the Supreme Court
(b) Judiciary can strike down a law if it goes against the spirit of the Constitution
(c) Judiciary is independent of the Executive
(d) Any citizen can approach the courts if her rights are violated
Answer:
(a) Every law passed by the Parliament needs approval of the Supreme Court

Question 4.
Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Parliament
Answer:
(d) The Parliament

Question 5.
Match the ministry with the news that the ministry may have released:

Answer:
(a)—(iv), (b)—(v), (c)—(ii), (d)—(iii), (e)—(i)

Question 6.
Of all the institutions we have studied in this chapter, name the one that exercises the powers on each of the following matters.
(a) Decision on allocation of money for developing infrastructure like roads, irrigation etc. and different welfare activities for the citizens
(b) Considers the recommendation of a Committee on a law to regulate the stock exchange
(c) Decides on a legal dispute between two state governments
(d) Implements the decision to provide relief for the victims of an earthquake
Answer:
(a) The prime minister and the Council of Minister
(b) The Parliament
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) The Civil Servants working together.

Question 7.
Why is the Prime Minister in India not directly elected by the people? Choose the most appropriate answer and give reasons for your choice.
(a) In a Parliamentary democracy only the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister.
(b) Lok Sabha can remove the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers even before the expiry of their term.
(c) Since the Prime Minister is appointed by the President there is no need for it.
(d) Direct election of the Prime Minister will involve a lot of expenditure on elections.
Answer:
(a) Elections are not fought for the post of the Prime Minister. Only parties fight elections and the majority party’s leader becomes the Prime Minister. In a Parliamentary democracy, only the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister.

Question 8.
A teacher was making preparations for a mock Parliament. She called two students to act as leaders of two political parties. She gave them an option: Each one could choose to have a majority either in the mock Lok Sabha or in the mock Rajya Sabha. If this choice was given to you, which one would you choose and why?
Answer:
Such films are only for entertainment purposes as real life is strikingly different. Governance in a democracy means taking everyone along with you. In addition, in a vast and diverse country like India, it is very difficult to consider only an individual’s decision. Moreover, decision implementation needs to be coordinated among various organs of the government.

Question 9.
After reading the example of the reservation order, three students had different reactions about the role of the judiciary, which view, according to you, is a correct reading of the role of the judiciary?
(a) Srinivas argues that since the Supreme Court agreed with the government, it is not independent.
(b) Anjaiah says that the judiciary is independent because it could have given a verdict against the government order. The Supreme Court did direct the government to modify it.
(c) Vijaya thinks that the judiciary is neither independent nor conformist, but acts as a mediator between opposing parties. The court struck a good balance between those who supported and those who opposed the order.
Answer:
Anjaiah’s view on the role of judiciary is correct because judiciary is independent and impartial. It is not under the control of the legislature or the executive. The judges do not act on the direction of the government or according to the wishes of the party in power.

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