Prasanna

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Political Science Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The question paper has 3 Sections A, B &C.
• Section A has 8 questions of 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 50 words each.
• Section B has 3 questions of 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 100 words each.
• Section C has 2 questions of 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 170 words each.

Section – A
(2 x 8 = 16)

Question 1.
What is a draft of the proposed law is called? [2]
OR
Who elects the members of the Legislative Assembly? [2]

Question 2.
While appointing the Prime Minister, whom does the President select? [2]

Question 3.
The person who has been recognized as the greatest leader of South Africa, fought against racial discrimination? [2]

Question 4.
The Constitution of India prohibits discrimination on which grounds? [2]

Question 5.
Mention the five kinds of inequalities which Ram Manohar Lohia identified to fight. [2]

Question 6.
How do liberals uphold the principle of competitiveness in the most efficient and fair way? [2]

Question 7.
What does the struggle for freedom represent? [2]

Question 8.
What is the role of the State in upholding freedom of its citizens? [2]

Section – B
(4 x 3 = 12)

Question 9.
State four advantages of unicameral legislature. [3]

Question 10.
The Presidential form of the government is the best for India. Why or why not? [3]

Question 11.
Map Based Question
In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per format that follows: [3]
(i) Lai Bahadur Shastri belong to this state.
(ii) The Supreme Courts of India is located in this city.
(iii) Zail Singh belonged to this state.
(iv) The state to which the former Prime Minister Morarji Desai was related.

Section – C
(6 x 2 = 12)

Question 12.
State the composition of Supreme Court and High Court. [6]
OR
Why is judiciary important in a democratic country? [6]

Question 13.
Briefly discuss the three principles of justice outlined in the chapter. Explain each with examples. [6]
OR
Does the principle of considering the special needs of people conflict with the principle of equal treatment for all? [6]

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Political Science Term 2 Set 3 for Practice

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The question paper has 3 Sections A, B &C.
• Section A has 8 questions of 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 50 words each.
• Section B has 3 questions of 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 100 words each.
• Section C has 2 questions of 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 170 words each.

Section – A
(2 x 8 = 16)

Question 1.
Name any two states that have bicameral legislature. [2]
OR
Mention any two advantages of Unicameral Legislature. [2]

Question 2.
Write four features of Presidential executive. [2]

Question 3.
Explain term Swaraj. [2]

Question 4.
What do critics of positive discrimination contend? [2]

Question 5.
What was the cause behind the campaign of Ambedkar and Gandhi? [2]

Question 6.
Write a note on freedom of speech and expression. [2]

Question 7.
Write a note on natural liberty. [2]

Question 8.
Which political and moral philosophy is based on liberty, consent of the governed and equality before the law? [2]

Section – B
(4 x 3 = 12)

Question 9.
Differentiate between: [3]
(a) Government bill and Private member bill.
(b) Ordinary bill and a money bill.

Question 10.
How is the council of ministers constituted? [3]

Question 11.
Map Based Question
In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per format that follows: [3]
(i) The city where the Supreme Court in India located.
(ii) The state to which Minister for Communications in the first ministry of free India belonged.
(iii) In 1979, newspapers published reports about ‘under trials’ reports of Tihar jail is located in this state.
(iv) Deepa Mehta, film maker, wanted to make a film about widows of which city.

Section – C
(6 x 2 = 12)

Question 12.
What are the different concepts of justice? [6]
OR
Briefly discuss the three principles of justice. Explain each with examples. [6]

Question 13.
Mention the Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India. Discuss the Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India. [6]
OR
What are the various subordinate courts in India? Discuss jurisdiction of each. [6]

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Political Science Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The question paper has 3 Sections A, B &C.
• Section A has 8 questions of 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 50 words each.
• Section B has 3 questions of 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 100 words each.
• Section C has 2 questions of 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 170 words each.

Section – A
(2 x 8 = 16)

Question 1.
Write two special powers of Rajya Sabha. [2]
Answer:
The two special powers of Rajya Sabha are:

• It can declare a any matter of state list as a subject of National importance by 2/3 majority resolution.
• It can declare a service as All-India Service by 2/3 majority resolution.

Question 2.
How the President of India is elected? [2]
The President of India is elected for a period of five years. The President of India is not elected directly by the people. Instead, the President of India is elected by MLAs and MPs. This election takes place in accordance with the principle of proportional representation with single transferable vote.

Question 3.
What are the benefits of positive freedom? [2]
Answer:
Positive freedom ensures:

• End of oppression and injustice to minorities.
• Equal opportunities across all sections of the society.

Question 4.
What is equality of opportunities? [2]
Answer:
Equality of opportunities implies that all the people are entitled to get rights and opportunities to develop their talent, skill and potentialities without any discrimination and to achieve their desired goal in different areas of life.

Question 5.
Is freedom necessary for progress of human beings?[2]
Answer:
Yes, freedom is a prerequisite for growth of the human beings. Human beings can grow only if they are provided adequate freedom of activities. However, such freedom needs to be refrained when it starts hurting the freedom of fellow being. As a result, refrained and not absolute freedom is necessary for growth of human beings.

Commonly Made Error:
starts hurting the freedom of fellow being. As a result, refrained and not absolute freedom is necessary for growth of human beings.

Answering Tip:

• Some students are not able to link freedom with progress/growth.
• Freedom is the prerequisite for growth of human beings.

Question 6.
Do liberty and authority coexist? Give reasons for your views. [2]
Answer:
Yes, there is a striking relationship between liberty and authority. Liberty in absence of authority leads to conflicts and corruption. Over-authority curtails individual liberty. The two are separated by thin line, yet they are bound to coexist.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Feminism? [2]
Answer:
Feminism is a movement, either it is a thinking or philosophy which indicates the change of understanding about the capabilities and capacities of women and about her place in the society.

Question 8.
“Sometimes, it is necessary to treat people differently in order to ensure that they can enjoy equal rights”. Explain this statement with one example. [2]
Answer:
Yes, sometimes it is necessary to treat people differently in order to ensure that they can enjoy equal rights. For example, disabled people may justifiably demand special ramps in public spaces. These should not be seen as infringements of equality but as enhancement of equality.

Section – B
(4 x 3 = 12)

Question 9.
Explain the composition of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. [3]
Answer:
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are two houses of the Indian Parliament. Lok Sabha is the Lower house and Rajya Sabha is the upper house. Lok Sabha has a maximum capacity of 552 members which are elected by the people by direct elections. A person of a minimum of 25 years of age can be a member of the Lok Sabha. Every person who is of 18 years of age or above, is eligible to cast his or her vote in this election. Rajya Sabha is the Permanent house and cannot be dissolved. The capacity of Rajya Sabha is 250 members and the members are indirectly elected. Every member enjoys the tenure of 6 years. Its one- third of members are retired after every second year and new members are elected by the respective state assembly by a single transferable vote system.

Question 10.
Why did India adopt a Parliamentary system? [3]
Answer:
There was a debate in Constituent Assembly whether to adopt a Parliamentary system of government or Presidential system. Some members were in favour of the Parliamentary system and others were for the Presidential system. ‘But ultimate constitution-makers took the decision in favour of Parliamentary system as we had already experience of running a Parliamentary system under the Government of India Act 1919 and 1935. This experience had shown that in the Parliamentary system executive is effectively controlled by the legislature. Constitution makers wanted a responsible and responsive Government for India which can be answerable to the people and could serve the need of the people. The Parliamentary System provides an effective mechanism to check the executives by the people in the Parliamentary System

Question 11.
Map Based Question
In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per format that follows: [3]
(i) The city where the Supreme Court in India located.
Answer:
New Delhi.

(ii) The state to which Minister for Communications in the first ministry of free India belonged.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

(iii) Mahatma Gandhi belongs to this state.
Answer:
Gujarat.

(iv) Lokmanya Tilak belongs to this state.
Answer:
Maharashtra.

Section – C
(6 x 2 = 12)

Question 12.
What do you mean by Judicial Activism? Discuss its Negative Impacts. [6]
OR
Write the composition and role of the Supreme Court of India. [6]
Answer:
The term Judicial Activism is much talked about in legal, political and academic circle in India. On the basis of Judicial Activism, the courts have given revolutionary decisions is different areas which have demoralized the legislature and executive who are particularly vocal infusing the concept of Judicial Activism. However, it is found to be more people-friendly. Judicial Activism means working of Judiciary beyond its limit, which is permitted under the principle of procedure established by law which says –

Under this jurisdiction, the Supreme Court listens to the case related to:
(a) Dispute between the Centre and State.
(b) The dispute between two states.
(c) Fundamental Rights.
(d) Interpretation of the Constitution.

Also, there is the negative side of Judicial Activism which are as under:

• It is the violation of principle separation of power.
• It is an attack on the autonomy of executive and legislative.
• An ultimate representative of the people of the interest of the people is legislative which are elected by the people.
• It will lead to high handedness of Judiciary.
• It will lead to conflict between the legislature and judiciary and will be a hindrance in the working of the government.

OR

Judiciary in India occupies the place of dignity and prestige. We have an independent, impartial and powerful judiciary. It is an integrated one. At its apex is Supreme Court which has administrative and supervisory control on the Lower Courts. The Supreme Court consists of 34 Judges including the Chief Justice of India. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India by the principle of seniority. Other Judges are appointed by the President with the consultation of Chief Justice of India. The Judges of the Supreme Court enjoy long tenure. They get retirement at the age of 65 years. They can be removed from the office by way of impeachment by Parliament. Supreme Court of India has a power of Judicial review and exercises the jurisdiction in the following areas:

• Original Jurisdiction.
• Appellate Jurisdiction.
• Advisory Jurisdiction.

Supreme Court of India has assumed more and more powers and role in Indian Political System. It is working beyond its/jurisdiction and has the renowned name of Judicial activism. L.N. Bhagwati has filter done revolutionary step by accepting the principle of PIL (Public Interest Litigations) which means by filing the case by anothers the aggrieved person who an unable to move to the courts themselves. Judiciary has played’ important role in the following manners:

• Checking the arbitrations of executive in India.
• It is defending the democracy in India.
• It is protecting the Fundamental Rights of the people.
• It is working as guardian of the Constitution.

Question 13.
Explain social justice? How does the Indian Constitution seek to achieve social justice? [6]
OR
Give the arguments in favor of State intervention for the promotion of social justice. How a democratic framework is more favorable for social justice? [6]
Answer:
Social justice has been considered as the most important and necessary condition for human life, justice has other aspects also like economic, political, and social. The very essence of justice has been the just system and just relationship and just place of every man in the society. Just means that everyone should occupy one’s position. Another important feature of justice has been the equality of treatment so that everyone could lead a dignified life. The third important requirement of social justice is the availability of minimum needs to everyone and also the fair distribution of resources.

Indian Constitution is considered as the embodiment of social justice because the objective of the Constitution laid down in the preamble indicates that the entire Constitution seeks the total transformation of Indian society for the promotion of social justice. The dignity of man is placed on the top. The mechanism has been provided for the transformation of society and the economy. Polity has been made responsible, responsive, and participatory. The common man is given due place in the decision-making process at different levels. Social evils like untouchability have been abolished. Weaker sections and women have been given a place of preference in the matter of development and welfare. All these measures and features are meant for social justice.

OR

Although there are a number of arguments in favour of a free-market economy that show certain negative tendencies also which are violative of the basics of social justice. Free market leads to competition and concentration of powers in few hands only which generates the classes-of haves and haves not which creates the situation of injustice. To check this inhuman competition and concentration of resources in few hands only, the state intervention is considered useful and desirable to create balances for social justice. State intervention will ensure that basic facilities are made available to all the members of society.

The state acts as an arbiter in the matter of management of the resources and their fair distribution for the promotion of social justice. The democratic framework of society and policy is considered more conducive for the availability of social justice because it tends to respect human dignity and seeks to improve the quality of life by ensuring fair and equitable distribution of minimum basic needs for the people.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Political Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The question paper has 3 Sections A, B &C.
• Section A has 8 questions of 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 50 words each.
• Section B has 3 questions of 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 100 words each.
• Section C has 2 questions of 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 170 words each.

Section – A
(2 x 8 = 16)

Question 1.
What is Legislature? [2]
OR
Which is more powerful and why-Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha? [2]
Answer:
The legislature is one of the three organs of the Government of the modern state. Although, its main function is to make a law but it performs a number of other functions like representational and deliberate functions. The legislature has financial and administrative control over the executive.

OR

Lok Sabha is more powerful than Rajya Sabha as it controls the executive.

Commonly Made Error:
Also, a money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and sent to the Rajya Sabha for recommendation. If the Rajya Sabha does not return the bill within 14 days, it is assumed to be approved.

Answering Tip:

• A few students answered as both the Houses are equally powerful which is not correct.
• Since India is a democracy, the House of the People is more powerful than the Council of States.

Question 2.
Write any two features of Parliamentary Democracy. [2]
Answer:
The two features of Parliamentary Democracy are: (Any two)

• The leadership of Prime – Minister as a real head.
• Executive individually and collectively responsible replace for with to the legislature.
• Political homogeneity.
• Uncertain Tenure.

Question 3.
What does Aung San Suu Kyi, in her book of essays bearing the title ‘Freedom from Fear’, states? [2]
Answer:
Aung San Suu Kyi, in her book of essays bearing the title ‘Freedom from Fear’, states that living a ‘dignified human life’ requires us to be able to overcome fear.

Question 4.
State any two essentials of the positive aspect of equality? [2]
Answer:
Essentials of the positive aspect of equality are as under: (Any two)

• Equal opportunities.
• Acess to minimum needs.
• Equal treatment with all.
• Fulfilment of basic needs.
• Availability of resources.

Question 5.
Name any two dimensions of equality.[2]
Answer:
The two dimensions of equality are: (Any two)

• Political.
• Economic.
• Social.

Question 6.
Who argued that the root cause of economic inequality was private ownership of important economic resources? [2]
Answer:
Marx was an important nineteenth century thinker who argued that the root cause of economic inequality was private ownership of important economic resources. He stated that to tackle inequality in society, try and ensure public control over essential resources and forms of property.

Question 7.
What is the ideology behind “Long Walk to Freedom”? [2]
Answer:
The ideology behind “Long Walk to Freedom” is based around the resistance of the Black Majority against the White Minority in South Africa on account of their segregating policies. It is an autobiography narrating excerpts about the struggle against Apartheid by Nelson Mandela.

Question 8.
List any two phases of positive liberty. [2]
Answer:
The two phases of positive liberty are:

• It averts conflicts that may arise between the citizens and the society.
• They form a apart of various measures that help in ensuring freedom of citizens.

Section – B
(4 x 3 = 12)

Question 9.
What are the qualifications for the person to be a member of Legislative Assembly? [3]
The person must be:

• Citizen of India.
• Not less than 25 years of age.
• Of a sound mind.
• Not holding any office of profit under the government.

Question 10.
What does the executive of India comprise of? [3]
India has adopted a parliamentary system of executive which includes the following officers:

• President.
• Vice-President.
• Prime Minister.
• Council of Ministers.
• Civil Servants (Bureaucracy)

Question 11.
Map Based Question
In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per format that follows: [3]
(i) The state having a bicameral legislature.
Answer:
Karnataka.

(ii) The city where Cabinet Secretariat is located.
Answer:
New Delhi.

(iii)Justice V Ramaswami, was accused of misappropriating funds while he was Chief Justice of this state.
Answer:
Punjab.

(iv) The state related to former Congress President K. Kamraj.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu.

Section – C
(6 x 2 = 12)

Question 12.
Explain the original and appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India. [6]
OR
What is the importance and impact of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) Court? [6]
Answer:
Original Jurisdiction:
Original jurisdiction means cases that can be directly considered by the Supreme Court without going to the Lower Courts. The Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court establishes it as an umpire in all disputes regarding federal matters. In any federal country, legal disputes are bound to arise between the Union and the States; and among the States themselves. The power to resolve such cases in entrusted to the Supreme Court of India. It is called original jurisdiction because the Supreme Court alone has the power to deal with such cases. Neither the High Courts nor the Lower Courts can deal with such cases. In this capacity, the Supreme Court not just settles disputes but also interprets the powers of Union and State Government as laid down in the Constitution.

Appellate Jurisdiction:
The Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal. A person can appeal to the Supreme Court against the decisions of the High Court. However, High Court must certify that the case is fit for appeal, that is to say that it involves a serious matter of interpretation of law of Constitution. Additionally, in criminal cases, if the Lower Court has sentenced a person to death then, an appeal can be made to the High Court or Supreme Court. Of course, the Supreme Court holds the powers to decide whether to admit appeals even when appeal is not allowed by the High Court.

Appellate jurisdiction means that the Supreme Court will reconsider the case and the legal issues involves in it. If the Court thinks that the law or the Constitution has a different meaning from what the Lower Courts understood, then the Supreme Court will change the ruling and along with that also give new interpretation of the provision involved. The High Courts too, have appellate jurisdiction over the decision given by courts below them.

OR

PIL is a revolutionary development in Indian Judiciary and is the consequence of Judicial Activism and is an indicator of the changes which are taking place in social and economic set up in India. Through the PIL, the courts have expanded the idea of rights, clean air, pure drinking water, decent living and dignified living are accepted as the essential rights of every man in the society. It was therefore, felt by the courts that the individuals are part of the society must have the right to seek Justice when such rights are involved.

Through PIL Judiciary has become more liberal and humane, Judicial activism has a manifold impact on Indian Political System. People have largely found it and accepted as people-friendly. It has also made the executive more conscious and accountable to the people. Transparency in official working is the impact of Judicial activism. In fact, through Judicial activism, Judiciary has put the executives on their toes.

Question 13.
How the principle of equal treatment for equals serves as the cause of social justice? [6]
OR
Discuss the idea of ‘veil of ignorance’ as given by John Rawls in his theory of social justice. [6]
Answer:
In modern society, the principle of equal treatment is considered to be the essential condition for the realization of social justice. However, it is not easy to calculate, how much a person should get or what exactly is one’s due. For this treating equals equally is considered a necessity. It is considered that all individuals share certain characteristics as human beings. Therefore, they deserve equal rights and similar treatment and equal dignified behaviour at least in similar conditions.

Besides equal rights, the principle of treating equals equally would require that people should not be discriminated against on grounds of caste, color, race, and gender. A person’s due place in society should be judged on the basis of one’s abilities, talent, words, and actions and not on the basis of class, caste, or group one belongs to. For example, if a male or female worker is performing the same work in a similar situation, both should be given equal wages and no discrimination should be made between male and female workers in terms of wages and behaviour, only then the cause of justice will be served.

OR

John Rawls imagines a situation of uncertainty about the composition of society and different roles to be given to the different people or the class of the people. He is of the view that future society would be fair to all. In fact, this uncertain and imaginative situation is referred to by John Rawls as ‘Veil of ignorance’. He says that it will be the situation of complete ignorance about our possible position and status and role. Each person will behave in terms of their own interests as human beings generally do.

Since, it is a situation of uncertainty, each will accept the future society from the point of view of the worst off. In this situation, justice will be constituted to see that important resources like education, health, shelter are available to all irrespective of their status in the society. The merit of the veil of ignorance is that it expects people to be just, fair and rational.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Term 2 Set 5 for Practice

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into four sections – Section A, B, C and D.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section – A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section – B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 150-200 words.
• Section – C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
• Section – D: Question no, 10 is map based carrying 2 marks.
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
                 Short Answer Type Questions  (3 x 4 = 12)

Question 1.
Why were Venice and Genoa different from other parts of Europe? [3]

Question 2.
How did industrialisation give birth to imperialism? [3]
OR
How were the lives of different classes of British women affected by the Industrial Revolution? [3]

Question 3.
Describe the contributions made by the Arabs in the fields of science and philosophy. [3]

Question 4.
What is meant by the ‘Great Leap Forward’? What were its benefits? [3]

Section – B
                 Long Answer Type Questions (6 x 3 = 18)

Question 5.
“The industrialisation was a mixed blessing”. Examine and elucidate the statement. [3]
OR
Discuss the improvements that took place in the field of transportation and communication during the 18th-19th century. How was it helpful in the process of rapid industrialisation? [3]

Question 6.
How did Japan escape colonisation? [3]

Question 7.
What factors were responsible for the winds of change in Australia? [3]
OR
What do you know about wind of change in the USA and Canada? [3]

Section – C
Case Based Question (4 x 2 = 8)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: [1+1+2 = 4]
Trade and travel, military conquest and diplomatic contacts linked Italian towns and courtp with the world beyond. The new culture was admired and imitated by the educated and the wealthy. Very few of the new ideas filtered down to the ordinary man who, after all, could not read or write. In the fifteenth and early sixteenth centuries, many scholars in universities in north Europe were attracted to humanist ideas. Like their Italian colleagues, they too focused on classical Greek and Roman texts along with the holy books of the Christians. But, unlike Italy, where professional scholars dominated the humanist movement, in north Europe humanism attracted many members of the Church.

They called on Christians to practise religion in the way laid down in the ancient texts of their religion, discarding unnecessary rituals, which they condemned as later additions to a simple religion. There was a radically new view of human beings as free and rational agents. Later philosophers were to return to this over and over again, inspired by the belief in a distant God who created man but allowed him complete freedom to live his life freely, in pursuit of happiness ‘here and now’. Christian humanists like Thomas More (1478 – 1535) in England and Erasmus (1466 – 1536) in Holland felt that the Church had become an institution marked by greed, extorting money at will from ordinary people. One of the favourite methods of the clergy was to sell ‘indulgences’, documents which apparently freed the buyer from the burden of the sins he had committed.

Christians came to realise from printed translations of the Bible in local languages that their religion did not permit such practices. In almost every part of Europe, peasants began to rebel against the taxes imposed by the Church. While the common folk resented the extortions of churchmen, princes found their interference in the work of the state irritating. They were pleased when the humanists pointed out that the clergy’s claim to judicial and fiscal powers originated from a document called the ‘Donation of Constantine’ supposed to have been issued by Constantine, the first Christian Roman Emperor. Humanist scholars were able to point out that this was not genuine, and had been forged later. In 1517, a young German monk called Martin Luther (1483 – 1546) launched a campaign against the Catholic Church and argued that a person did not need priests to establish contact with God. He asked his followers to have complete faith in God, for faith alone could guide them to the right life and entry into heaven.

This movement – called the Protestant Reformation – led to the churches in Germany and Switzerland breaking their connection with the Pope and the Catholic Church. In Switzerland, Luther’s ideas were popularised by Ulrich Zwingli (1484-1531) and later by Jean Calvin (1509-64). Backed by merchants, the reformers had greater popular appeal in towns, while in rural areas the Catholic Church managed to retain its influence. Other German reformers, like the Anabaptists, were even more radical: they blended the idea of salvation with the end of all forms of pocial oppression. They said that since God had created all people as equal, they were not expected to pay taxes and had the right to choose their priests. This appealed to peasants oppressed by feudalism. ‘

Question 8.1
During which century were the scholars in universities in northern Europe attracted to humanist ideas? [1]

Question 8.2
Who discarded unnecessary rituals and supported simple religion? What did they say? [1]

Question 8.3
Who started the Protestant Reformation Movement? Explain the movement. [2]

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows: [1+1+2 = 4]
In 1968, people were electrified by a lecture by the anthropologist W.E.H. Stanner, entitled ‘The Great Australian Silence’ – the silence of historians about the aborigines. From the 1970s, as was happening
in North America, there was an eagerness to understand natives not as anthropological curiosities but
as communities with distinct cultures, unique ways of understanding nature and climate, with a sense
of community which had vast bodies of stories, textile and painting and carving skills, which should
be understood and recorded and respected. Underlying it all was the urgent question which Henry
Reynolds later articulated in a powerful book, Why Weren’t We Told? This condemned the practice of
writing Australian history as though it had begun with Captain Cook’s ‘Discovery’.

Since then, university departments have been instituted to study native cultures, galleries of native ,
art have been added to art galleries, museums have been enlarged to incorporate dioramas and
imaginatively designed rooms explaining native culture, and natives have begun writing their own
life histories. This has been a wonderful effort. It has also occurred at a critical time, because if native cultures had remained ignored, by this time much of such cultures would have been forgotten. From 1974, ‘multiculturalism’ has been official policy in Australia, which gave equal respect to native cultures and to the different cultures of the immigrants from Europe and Asia.

From the 1970s, as the term ‘human rights’ began to be heard at meetings of the UNO and other international agencies, the Australian public realised with dismay that, in contrast to the USA, Canada and New Zealand, Australia had no treaties with the natives formalising the takeover of land by Europeans. The government had always termed the land of Australia terra nullius, that is belonging to nobody. There was also a long and agonising history of children of mixed blood (native European) being forcibly captured and separated from their native relatives. Agitation around these questions led to enquiries and to two important decisions: one, to recognise that the natives had strong historic bonds with the land which was ‘sacred’ to them, and which should, be respected; two, that while past acts could not be undone, there should be a public apology for the injustice done to children in an attempt to keep ‘white’ and ‘coloured’ people apart.

Question 9.1
Who wrote the book ‘Why Weren’t We Told?’ What is it’s significance? [1]

Question 9.2
Which country had no treaties with the natives formalizing the takeover of land by Europeans? [1]

Question 9.3
What has been the official policy of Australia since 1974? Describe any one feature of that policy. [2]

Section – D
Map Based Question [1+1=2]

Question 10.
On the given outline map of Britain, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol.
(I) Famous for iron and coal manufacturing centre.
OR
(II) Famous for cotton textile manufacturing centre.
(III) On the same map of Britain, A is marked as a place where in August 1819, 80,000 people gathered peacefully at St Peter’s Fields to claim democratic rights. Identify it and write its name on the line drawn near them.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into four sections – Section A, B, C and D.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section – A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section – B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 150-200 words.
• Section – C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
• Section – D: Question no, 10 is map based carrying 2 marks.
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
 Short Answer Type Questions (3 x 4  = 12)

Question 1.
“Nation-states marked a step forward in man’s progress”. Discuss. [3]

Question 2.
Explain the main features of the emperor system. [3]

Question 3.
Discuss the beginning of economic development in Australia with the establishment of European colonies. [3]
OR
Why was the history of the Australian native people left out of history books? [3]

Question 4.
Describe the economic reforms introduced under the Meijis. [3]

Section – B
   Long Answer Type Questions (6 x 3 = 18)

Question 5.
Discuss the rise of the Protestant Movement launched in Europe in the 16th – 17th century. [3]
OR
How did Renaissance Humanism impact Christianity. Discuss with emphasis on Protestant Reformation. [3]

Question 6.
Briefly discuss the debates on the ‘Industrial Revolution’. [3]

Question 7.
Discuss the different images that Europeans and native Americans had of each other and the different ways in which they saw nature. [3]
OR
What is the significance of the year 1974 in the Australian Policy? [3]

Section – C
Case Based Question (4 x 2 = 8)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: [l+l+2 = 4]
Canals were initially built to transport coal to cities. This was because the bulk and weight of coal made its transport by road much slower and more expensive than by barges on canals. The demand for coal, as industrial energy and for heating and lighting homes in cities, grew constantly. The making of the first English canal, the Worsley Canal (1761) by James Brindley (1716-72), had no other purpose than to carry coal from the coal deposits at Worsley (near Manchester) to that city; after the canal was completed the price of coal fell by half.

Canals were usually built by big landowners to increase the value of the mines, quarries or forests on their lands. The confluence of canals created marketing centres in new towns. The city of Birmingham, for example, owed its growth to its position at the heart of a canal system connecting London, the Bristol Channel, and the Mersey and Humber rivers. From 1760 to 1790, twenty-five new canal-building projects were begun. In the period known as the ‘canal-mania’, from 1788 to 1796, there were another 46 new projects and over the next 60 years more than 4,000 miles of canal were built.

The first steam locomotive, Stephenson’s Rocket, appeared in 1814. Railways emerged as a new means of transportation that was available throughout the year, both cheap and fast, to carry passengers and goods. They combined two inventions, the iron track which replaced the wooden track in the 1760s and haulage along it by steam engine. The invention of the railways took the entire process of industrialization to a second stage. In 1801, Richard Trevithick (1771-1833) had devised an engine called the ‘Puffing Devil’ that pulled trucks around the mine where he worked in Cornwall. In 1814, the railway engineer George Stephenson (1781-1848) constructed a locomotive, called ‘The Blutcher’, that could pull a weight of 30 tons up a hill at 4 mph.

The first railway line connected the cities of Stockton and Darlington in 1825, a distance of 9 miles that was completed in two hours at speeds of up to 24 kph (15 mph), and the next railway line connected Liverpool and Manchester in 1830. Within 20 years, speeds of 30 to 50 miles an hour were usual.In the 1830s, the use of canals revealed several problems. The congestion of vessels made movement slow on certain stretches of canals, and frost, flood or drought limited the time of their use.

The railways now appeared as a convenient alternative. About 6,000 miles of railway was opened in Britain between 1830 and 1850, most of it in two short bursts. During the Tittle railway mania’ of 1833-37, 1400 miles of line was built, and during the bigger ‘mania’ of 1844-47, another 9,500 miles of line was sanctioned. They used vast amounts of coal and iron, employed large numbers of workers and boosted activity in the construction and public works industries. Most of England had been connected by railway by 1850.

Question 8.1
What appeared as a convenient alternative for canals? [1]

Question 8.2
Why were the canals built in the 18th century? [1]

Question 8.3
Who made the Worsley Canal? What was its purpose? [2]

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: [1+1+2 = 4]
As per the new constitution, the first direct election since 1971 was held in December 1987. But due to the opposition parties’ failure to unite, a fellow military leader of China’s military faction, Roh Tae-Woo, was elected. However, Korea continued along the path of democracy. In 1990, long-time opposition leader Kim Young-sam compromised with Roh’s party to create a large ruling party. In December 1992, Kim, a civilian, was elected the President after decades of military rule.

With his election and the consequent dissolution of authoritarian military power, democracy made its forward march. Under the export-driven policy of the new administration, several companies grew to global prominence, which continued until the early 1990s. With governmental support, Korean conglomerates invested in capital-intensive heavy and chemical industries, as well as, electronic industries, while the government continued to focus on building industrial and social infrastructure.

Meanwhile, under increasing Neo liberalist pressure to open its market, the Kim administration joined the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) in 1996 and attempted to strengthen Korea’s international competitiveness. But amidst increasing trade deficits, poor management by financial institutions, reckless business operations by conglomerates, and more, Korea was met with a foreign currency crisis in 1997. The crisis was dealt with through emergency financial support provided by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). Simultaneous efforts were also made to improve the country’s economic constitution as the citizens actively contributed towards foreign loan repayment through the Gold Collection Movement.

In December 1997, long-time opposition party leader Kim Dae-jung was elected the president for the first time in Korea, marking a peaceful transfer of power. The second peaceful transfer of power came in 2008, when conservative Lee Myung- Bak was elected as the President, following the progressive Roh Mu-hyun administration. In 2012, conservative Park Geun-Hye was elected as the first female President. At the beginning of her presidency, she gained support due to the political legacy of her father, Park Chung-Hee. But in October 2016, as it came to light that she had let a friend secretly manage government affairs, she met with nationwide protests, leading to her impeachment and removal from office in March 2017. In May 2017, Moon Jae-In was elected the President, in a peaceful transfer of power for the third time.

Question 9.1
When was the first election held as per the new Constitution? [1]

Question 9.2
Who had created a large ruling party in Korea and when? [1]

Question 9.3
Who was elected as President in 2012? How did she gain the support at the beginning of her presidency? [2]

Section – D
Map Based Question [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 10.
On the given outline map of Australia, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol.
(I) Country named after Lord Sydney.
OR
(II) State named by a British explorer, James Cook when he reached the island of Botany Bay in 1770.
(III) On the same map of Australia, a place was established as the capital of Australia in the year 1911. It has been marked as A. Identify it and write its name.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Term 2 Set 3 for Practice

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into four sections -Section A, B, C and D.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section – A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section – B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 150-200 words.
• Section – C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
• Section – D: Question no, 10 is map based carrying 2 marks.
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
Short Answer Type Questions (3 x 4 = 12)

Question 1.
Why were Italian towns the first to experience the ideas of humanism? [3]

Question 2.
When and why did the British Parliament enact the Combination Acts? State the provisions of the Act. [3]

Question 3.
How did the invention of steam engine revolutionise the industry and transport? [3]
OR
Describe the expansion of banks in England with special reference to the Bank of England. [3]

Question 4.
What did the natives and the Europeans think of the goods they exchanged? What was the reaction of the natives? [3]

Section – B
Long Answer Type Questions (6 x 3 = 18)

Question 5.
What does the term “Renaissance” mean? Describe any five key features of Renaissance. [3]
OR
“The concept of Renaissance does not truly define the changes that made the 14th century a turning point in history”. Discuss. [3]

Question 6.
Describe the two roads to modernisation as adopted by Japan and China. [3]

Question 7.
What did the ‘frontier’ mean to the Americans? [3]
OR
Why were the history of the Australian native people left out of history books? [3]

Section – C
Case Based Question (4 x 2 = 8)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: [1+1+2 = 4]
England was fortunate in that coal and iron ore, the staple materials for mechanization, were plentifully available, as were other minerals – lead, copper and tin – that were used in industry. However, until the eighteenth century, there was a scarcity of usable iron. Iron is drawn out from ore as pure liquid metal by a process called smelting. For centuries, charcoal (from burnt timber) was used for the smelting process. This had several problems: charcoal was too fragile to transport across long distances; its impurities produced poor-quality iron; it was in short supply because forests had been destroyed for timber; and it could not generate high temperatures. The solution to this problem had been sought for years before it was solved by a family of ironmasters, the Darbys of Shropshire. In the course of half a century, three generations of this family – grandfather, father and son, all called Abraham Darby – brought about a revolution in the metallurgical industry.

It began with an invention in 1709 by the first Abraham Darby (1677 – 1717).
This was a blast furnace that would use coke, which could generate high temperatures; coke was derived from coal by removing the sulphur and impurities. This invention meant that furnaces no longer had to depend on charcoal. The melted iron that emerged from these furnaces permitted finer and larger castings than before.The process was further refined by more inventions. The second Darby (1711 – 68) developed wrought iron (which was less brittle) from pig-iron. Henry Cort (1740 – 1823) designed the puddling furnace (in which molten iron could be rid of impurities) and the rolling mill, which used steam power to roll purified iron into bars. It now became possible to produce a broader range of iron products.

The durability of iron made it a better material than wood for everyday items and for machinery. Unlike wood, which could burn or splinter, the physical and chemical properties of iron could be controlled. In the 1770s, John Wilkinson (1728 – 1808) made the first iron chairs, vats for breweries and distilleries, and iron pipes of all sizes. In 1779, the third Darby (1750 – 91) built the first iron bridge in the world, in Coalbrookdale, spanning the river Severn. Wilkinson used cast iron for the first time to make water pipes (40 miles of it for the water supply of Paris).

Question 8.1
Name the family who brought about a revolution in the metallurgical industry. [1]

Question 8.2
Who mad the first iron chair, vats for breweries and distilleries, and iron pipes of all sizes? [1]

Question 8.3
What were the staple materials for mechanization? [1]

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows: [2+1+1 = 4]
Fukuzawa Yukichi (1835 – 1901):
Born in an impoverished samurai family, he studied in Nagasaki and Osaka learning Dutch and Western sciences and, later, English. In 1860, he went as a translator for the first Japanese embassy to the USA. This provided material for a book on the West, written not in the classical but in the spoken style that became extremely popular. He established a school that is today the Keio University. He was one of the core members of the Meirokusha, a society to promote Western learning. In, The Encouragement to Learning, (Gakumon no Susume,1872 – 76) he was very critical of Japanese knowledge: All that Japan has to be proud of its scenery’. He advocated not just modern factories and institutions but the cultural essence of the West – the spirit of civilisation. With this spirit it would be possible to build a new citizen. His principle was: ‘Heaven did not create men above men, nor set men below men’.

Question 9.1
Who was Fukuzawa Yukichi? Briefly describe his early life. [2]

Question 9.2
Who did he advocate? [1]

Question 9.3
Name the school established by Fukuzawa Yukichi. [1]

Section – D
         Map Based Question (1 + 1 = 2)

Question 10.
On the given outline map of Italy, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol.
(I) The most important city and capital of Italy.
OR
(II) The city of republics.
(III) On the same map of Italy, A is marked as a city where Humanism taught. Identify it and write its name.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into four sections – Section A, B, C and D.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section – A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section – B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to this question should not exceed 150-200 words.
• Section – C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
• Section – D: Question no, 10 is map based carrying 2 marks.
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
Short Answer Type Questions (3 X 4 = 12)

Question 1.
What was the objective of the European countries to establish colonies? What was their nature of control over the colonies? [3]
Answer:
The main objective of the European countries to establish colonies was to earn profit The nature of
control was different in different colonies:
1. In South Asia, the East India Company was established to trade with India but ultimately succeeded in becoming a political power by defeating the local rulers and annexing their territories.

2. In Africa, the Europeans initially traded on the coast, but later the imperialist powers agreed to divide Africa as colonies among themselves.

3. The Europeans settled in countries like Ireland, NewZealand and Australia and South Africa and became to be known as ‘settlers’.

Question 2.
‘Britain was the first country to experience modern industrialisation’. Examine the factors responsible for it. [3]
OR
What are the relative advantages of canals and railway transportation? [3]
Answer:
Britain was the first country to experience modern industrialisation’ because:
1. Britain had accumulated large amounts of money by foreign trade. The British merchants were very rich and could invest their capital in industries. Raw materials for factories were easily available in the colonies.

2. The agricultural revolution had greatly increased the number of landless peasants in Britain and these became the workforce for the factories.

3. Britain had sufficient natural reserves of coal and iron that helped in establishing industries. They had amassed huge wealth which was necessary for the functioning of industries.

4. There were many technological inventions in Britain that accelerated the pace of industrialisation.

OR

Advantages of canal and and railway transportation was:
1. Canals helped meet and transport economically the increasing demand for coal as industrial energy for heating and lighting. The confluence of canals also created marketing centers in new towns. All the navigable sections of the river flowed into the sea. Therefore, cargo on the river was easily transported to coastal ships. However, the congestion of vehicles slowed the movement of cargo on certain stretches.

2. Railways emerged as a new means of transportation available throughout the year. It was both cheap and fast, to carry passengers and goods.

3. In the second stage, the invention of the railways took the entire process of industrialisation.

Question 3.
Why did the tribes not attempt to produce a surplus? [3]
Answer:
The tribes did not attempt extensive agriculture and since they did not produce a surplus, they did not develop kingdoms and empires as in Central and South America. There were some instances of quarrels between tribes over territory but by and large, the control over land was not an issue. They were content with the food and shelter they got from the land without feeling any need to ‘own’ it. An important feature of their tradition was that of making formal alliances and friendships and exchanging gifts. Goods were obtained not by buying them, but as gifts.

Question 4.
Discuss the political system under Tokugawa Shogun. [3]
Answer:
The main features of political system under Tokugawa were:
(i) The political system was based on a rigid social structure headed by the emperor whose role was largely symbolic. The country was in effect controlled by the Tokugawas. The Shoguns were followed by the Daimyos. These lords exercised power over 250 domains, into which the country was divided. Each Daimyo exercised autonomous control over his domain and was responsible for maintaining troops and collecting taxes.

(ii) The Shogun sought to maintain control over the Daimyos by what has been called the ‘alternate attendance system’ and ‘hostage system’. This required the families of Daimyos to remain in Edo while the Daimyo took care of his domain.

(iii) The Daimyos were followed by the warrior class the ‘Samurai’. Since most of the Tokugawa period
was peaceful, these came to be a part of ‘privileged idlers’. Then came the peasants and the last was the merchant class

Section – B
Long Answer Type Questions (6 x 3 = 18)

Question 5.
Name the Renaissance scientists who contribute to the revolution in science. [3]
OR
What do you understand by the term ‘Renaissance’? Analyse the role of the printing press in Renaissance and the rapid spread of humanist culture of Italy. [3]
Answer:
Renaissance scientists represented a new trend with a focus on questioning, observation, and experimentation.
(i) Copernicus (1473 – 1543):
Represented the turning point in European science. He was the first to put forth the theory that the earth rotates on its axis and revolves around the sun. This was a complete break from the traditional system of thought which believed that the earth was the center of the world. It was a sinful place and the heavy burden of sin made it immobile.

(ii) Galileo (1564 – 1642):
He invented the telescope and used it to observe heavenly bodies. Based on his observations he confirmed Copernicus’ theory.

(iii) Kepler (1571 – 1630):
Kepler was responsible for creating Kepler’s laws of planetary motion. Kepler popularised the theory that the earth was a part of a sun-centered system and demonstrated that the planets moved around the sun in elliptical orbits and not circles. Kepler was one of the first to incorporate the field of physics and the field of astronomy.

(iv) Isaac Newton (1642 – 1726):
He put forth the Theory of Gravitation which proved that all heavenly bodies move according to their gravitational force.

(v) Vesalius (1514 – 1564):
Based on his study of dissection of the human body, he provided a complete description of the human body. This marked the beginning of modern anatomy.

(vi) John Napier:
He originated the concept of logarithms as a mathematical device to aid in calculations.
The Renaissance scientists began learning by observation and experimentation popularly termed the scientific method. It emphasized knowledge as distinct from belief. This method is to date applied to various fields and is termed the Scientific Revolution. Increasingly nature rather than God was seen as the source of all creation. This thought was popularised by scientific societies such as Paris Academy (1670) and the Royal Society in London (1662).

OR

Renaissance means ‘rebirth’. It occurred in Italy in the 15th century. A It is a French word. It gave a new dimension to art and culture and created awareness among the people. It started from Italy.
Role of Printing Press:
(i) The invention of the printing press made books available to the people in various towns and cities.

(ii) Rome, Florence and Venice became the centers of art and learning. Many artists, scholars and writers were patronized by the rich people in the cities and towns.

(iii) A printed book promoting ideas could quickly reach hundreds of readers.
The rapid spread of humanist culture of Italy:

(iv)The main reason behind the rapid spread of humanism was the fast circulation of the printed books rapidly across the Alps.

Question 6.
Do you think that Mao Zedong and the Communist Party of China were successful in liberating China and laying the basis for its current success? [3]
Answer:
It is true that Mao Zedong and the Communist Party of China were successful in liberating China and laying basis for its current success. In 1925, after the death of Sun Yat-sen, the Guomindang was headed by Chiang-Kai-shek. Previously, the Communist Party of China was founded in 1921. He tried his best to strengthen the rule of the Guomindang. But no initiatives were taken to achieve the three revolutionary principles of Sun Yat-sen, i.e., nationalism, democracy and socialism. He also made an attempt to raise a new class of landlords. They always exploited the peasantry. Mao Zedong, a Communist leader formed the Red Army. It was formed to strengthen the Peasant Movement. He became its chairperson in 1930. He also started a guerrilla war against Chiang-Kai-shek’s army.

He defeated Chiang’s army four times. But for the fifth time, he left the idea of war and started the Long March. Mao Zedong formed a Communist front against Japan in 1935. It was his opinion that his struggle against Japan would make his mass movement more effective. He suggested that a United Front be formed in collaboration with Red Army. But Chiang completely denied his proposal and he was imprisoned by his own soldiers. The increasing power of Mao Zedong worried Chiang-Kai-shek. He was not interested in working with him.

Even then he came with Mao in the war against Japan. After the end of war, Mao put the proposal of coalition government before Chiang but he declined. Mao continued his struggle and was elected the chairman of the Chinese Government. Chiang Kai-shek was worried about increasing power of Mao Zedong. After many persuasions he became ready to stand by Mao against Japan. In 1949, Chiang fled to Formosa to seek asylum. Mao was elected the Chairman of the Chinese Government. He held his office till his death.

Question 7.
How did the Industrial Revolution in England affect India’s economy? [3]
OR
What sort of reforms through laws were made by the British government to improve the condition of workers? [3]
Answer:
Industrial Revolution in England became the main cause of poverty in India. As India was a colony of England, it hit the Indian economy adversely. Due to the Industrial Revolution in England India’s economy was affected in the following ways:
(i) The Industrial Revolution enabled England to produce more goods than needed there. Indian markets were flooded with the machine made goods from England. In this way, India became a big consumer of the English goods.

(ii) The Industrial Revolution in England threw the Indian artisans and handicrafts men out of job. As a result, small industries of India collapsed.

(iii) The British Government forced the Indian farmers to sell their raw materials at cheap rates to the British factory owners. The policy of exploiting the Indian economy for the benefit of the British capitalist was the direct consequence of the Industrial Revolution on India’s economy.

(iv) The unemployed artisans again became the farm labourers. They became a burden on the Indian agriculture. In this way, within very short-time, India became a poor country where agriculture was the only occupation of the people.

(v) Before the Industrial Revolution, India was the major producer of cotton, woollen and silken clothes. Now India suffered a severe setback in these industries. Clothes made by the British mills were cheaper than the Indian clothes.

(vi) The Indian goods could not compete with the British goods. The British Government in India
imposed heavy duties on the Indian goods and discouraged the Indian craftsmen in many ways so that they could never think of competing with the British goods.

OR

The reforms through laws made by the British government were as follows:
(i) Act of 1819:
In 1819, laws were passed. It prohibited the employment of children under the age of nine in factories. It limited the hours of work of those between the age of 9 and 16 to 12 hours a day.

(ii) Act of 1833:
Under the Act of 1833, children under the age of nine were permitted to be employed only in silk factories. This act also limited the hours of work for older children. A number of Factory Inspectors Act were also employed to ensure that the Act was enforced.

(iii) Ten Hours Bill:
In 1847, the Ten Hours Bill was passed. This bill limited the hours of work for women and children and secured a ten-hour day for male workers.

(iv) The Mines Commission of 1842:
The Mines Commission was set up in 1842. This commission revealed that working conditions in mines had become worst, because more children had been put to work in coal mines.

(v) The Mines and Collieries Act of 1842:
The Mines and Collieries Act of 1842 banned children under ten and women from working in underground mines.

(vi) Fielder’s Factory Act of 1847:
In this act, it was laid down that children under eighteen and women should not work more than ten hour a day.

Section – C
Case Based Question (4 x 2 = 8)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:  [1+1+2 = 4]
Much of the writings of the Greeks and Romans had been familiar to monks and clergymen through the ‘Middle Ages’, but they had not made these widely known. In the fourteenth century, many scholars began to read translated works of Greek writers like Plato and Aristotle. For this they were indebted not to their own scholars but to Arab translators who had carefully preserved and translated ancient manuscripts (Plato was Aflatun, and Aristotle Aristu in Arabic).

While some European scholars read Greek in Arabic translation, the Greeks translated works of Arabic and Persian scholars for further transmission to other Europeans. These were works on natural science, mathematics, astronomy, medicine and chemistry. Ptolemy’s Almagest (a work on astronomy, written in Greek before 140 CE and later translated into Arabic) carries the Arabic definite article ‘al’, which brings out the Arabic connection. Among the Muslim writers who were regarded as men of wisdom in the Italian world were Ibn Sina (‘Avicenna’ in Latin, 980 – 1037), an Arab physician and philosopher of Bukhara in Central Asia, and al-Razi (‘Rhazes’), author of a medical encyclopaedia.

Ibn Rushd (‘Averroes’ in Latin, 1126 – 98), an Arab philosopher of Spain, tried to resolve the tension between philosophical knowledge (faylasuf) and religious beliefs. His method was adopted by Christian thinkers. Humanists reached out to people in a variety of ways. Though, the curricula in universities continued to be dominated by law, medicine and theology, humanist subjects slowly began to be introduced in schools, not just in Italy but in other European countries as well.

Question 8.1
Among the Muslim writers who was regarded as the man of wisdom ? [1]
Answer:
Among the Muslim writers Ibn Sina and A1 Razi were regarded as men of wisdom.

Question 8.2
Who was the author of the medical encyclopaedia? [1]
Answer:
Ibn Sina an Arab physician and philosopher of Bukhara in Central Asia, and Al-Razi, were the authors of the medical encyclopedia.

Question 8.3
What is Ptolemy’s Almagest all about? [2]
Answer:
Ptolemy’s Almagest is a 2nd – century Greek-language mathematical and astronomical treatise on the apparent motions of the stars and planetary paths, written by Claudius Ptolemy. It is also a key source of information about ancient Greek astronomy.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:  [1+1+2 = 4]
As in the Americas, human habitation in Australia has a long history. The ‘aborigines’ (a general name given to a number of different societies) began to arrive on the continent over 40,000 years ago (possibly even earlier). They came from New Guinea, which was connected to Australia by a land-bridge. In the natives’ traditions, they did not come to Australia, but had always been there. The past centuries were called the ‘Dreamtime’ – something difficult for Europeans to understand, since the distinction between past and present is blurred. In the late eighteenth century, there were between 350 and 750 native communities in Australia each with its own language (even today 200 of these languages are spoken). There is another large group of indigenous people living in the north, called the Torres Strait Islanders.

The term ‘Aborigine’ is not used for these as they are believed to have migrated from elsewhere and belong to a different race. Together, they make up 2.4 per cent of Australia’s population in 2005. Australia is sparsely populated, and even now most of the towns are along the coast (where the British first arrived in 1770) because the central region is arid desert. The story of the interaction between the European settlers, the native peoples and the land in Australia has many points of similarity to the story of the Americas, though it began nearly 300 years later. Initial reports from Captain Cook and his crew about encounters with natives are enthusiastic about their friendliness. There was a sharp reversal of feeling on the part of the British when Cook was killed by a native – not in Australia, but in Hawaii. As often happened, a single incident of this nature was used by colonisers to justify subsequent acts of violence towards other people.

They did not foresee that in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries nearly 90 per cent of them would die by exposure to germs, by the loss of their lands and resources, and in battles against the settlers. The experiment of settling Brazil with Portuguese convicts had been abandoned when their violent behaviour provoked angry reprisals from the natives. The British had adopted the same practice in the American colonies until they became independent. Then they continued it in Australia. Most of the early settlers were convicts who had been deported from England and, when their jail term ended, were allowed to live as free people in Australia on condition that they did not return to Britain. With no recourse but to make a life for themselves in this land so different from their own, they felt no hesitation about ejecting natives from land they took over for cultivation.

Question 9.1
Who were the Aborigines? [1]
Answer:
he aborigines are Australia’s indigenous people.

Question 9.2
Who were Torres Strait Islanders? [1]
Answer:
Torres Strait Islanders were indigenous people living in the north of the Australian continent.

Question 9.3
Who were the early setters of Australia? [2]
Answer:
Most of the early settlers were convicts who had been deported from England and when their jail term ended, were allowed to live as free people in Australia on condition that they would not return to Britain.

Section – D
Map Based Question (1 + 1 = 2)

Question 10.
On the given outline map of East Asia, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol.
(I) Sun Yat-sen unanimously regarded as the founder of modern version of this country.
OR
(II) This country had been a Japanese colony since the Chinese ceded it after the 1894-95 war.
(III) On the same map of East Asia, A is a country which became a member of United Nations in the year 1956. A. Identify it and write its name.
Answer:
(I) China
(II) Taiwan
(IiI) Japan

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into four sections-Section A, B, C and D.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section – A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section – B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 150-200 words.
• Section – C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
• Section – D: Question no, 10 is map based carrying 2 marks.
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
Short Answer Type Questions (3 x 4 = 12)

Question 1.
State the features of Humanist thought. [3]
Answer:
The features of Humanist thought are:

1. The humanist thought, implied that religious teachings alone could not provide answers to a holistic life.
2. It stressed the human skills individually. The person with various skills and interests was called as Renaissance
3. These subjects were not drawn from or connected with religion.

Question 2.
Explain the meaning of Industrial Revolution. [3]
OR
How did the political stability of England contribute to the advent of the Industrial Revolution? [3]
Answer:
The transformation of industry and economy in Britain between the 1780s and 1850s is referred to as the Industrial Revolution. In order words, Industrial Revolution means the transformation of industry and economy of a country with quick succession than normal slow rate. The technological changes introduced novel ways of working and living and fundamentally transformed society. This led to increased production and efficiency, lower prices, more goods, improved wages and migration from rural areas to urban areas.

OR

England was politically more strong and stable than the other European countries since the 17th century. England, Wales and Scotland were unified under a constitutional monarchy and peace prevailed in the country. There were common laws and a common currency and a common market system that was not fragmented by local authorities. With political stability people could takes out loans which led to entrepreneurs making new machines and expanding their businesses. Political stability, thus, contributed in a major way to the advent of the Industrial Revolution.

Question 3.
What changes helped in the revival of the Italian culture after the fall of the Western Roman Empire. [3]
Answer:
Political and cultural centres in Italy were destroyed after the fall of the Western Roman Empire. There was no unified government during those times. Pope was not strong though he was sovereign in his own state. For a long time, the regions of Western Europe were shaped by feudal relations unified under the Latin Church. Changes were brought about in Eastern Europe under the Byzantine empire. Islam too was creating a common civilisation in the west. The revival of trade gave a new lease of life to the port cities of Italy which became centres of growing commerce. Here the merchants and the bankers assumed an important role instead of the clergy or the state. These changes helped in revival of the Italian culture.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Tanaka Shozo. [3]
Answer:

1. Tanaka Shozo was a self-taught son of a farmer, who rose to become a major political figure. He participated in (1841 – 1913) the popular rights movement in the 1880s, which demanded constitutional government in Japan.
2. He was elected to the Diet. He believed that people’s lives should not be sacrificed for industrial progress Solutions.
3. He, therefore, launched the first agitation against industrial pollution in 1897. The mass protest forced the government to take action. Thus, he played an important role in the movement towards environmental destruction.

Section – B
Long Answer Type Questions (6 x 3 = 18)

Question 5.
Discuss some characteristics of the natives of America. [3]
OR
When and how did things improve for the natives of the USA and Canada? Discuss. [3]
Answer:
The characteristics of the natives of America are:
(i) These people lived in bands in villages along the river valleys, ate fish and cultivated vegetables and maize. They searched for meat, chiefly of the bison that roamed the grasslands. However, they killed only as many animals as they needed for food. They practiced subsistence level agriculture and did not produce surplus.

(ii) There were some instances of quarrels between tribes over territory but by and large they were content with food and shelter they got from the land and did not feel the need to own it.

(iii) An important feature of their tradition was of making formal alliances friendships and exchange of gifts. They exchanged ‘wampum belts’ after the treaty was agreed to. They did not believe in commodifying goods but obtained them as ‘gifts’.

(iv) They spoke numerous languages but these were not written down. They believed time moved in cycles and each tribe had accounts about their origins which were passed from one generation to another by word of mouth. They could understand the climatic changes and different landscapes.

(v) They were extremely superstitious but simple people, who loved and lived close to nature. E.g., when the Europeans slaughtered hundreds of beavers for fur, the natives were not only puzzled by their greed, but feared the animals would take revenge on them for their destruction.

OR

Things began to improve for the natives of the USA and Canada from the 1920s. In 1928 a survey report by social scientist, Lewis Meriam titled, “The Problems of Indian Administration” painted a grim picture of the poor health and education facili ties for natives in reservations. Sympathy among “whites” for the natives who were denied benefits of citizenship and being discouraged from the full exercise of their cultures led to a landmark law in the USA, the Indian Re¬organisation Act of 1934. This gave the natives the hitherto denied right to buy land and take loans in reservations. Attempts by the USA and Canadian governments to end the special provisions for the natives and make them join the mainstream ended in failures.

In 1954, in the “Declaration of Indian Rights” prepared by them, the native people accepted the citizenship of the USA but on the condition that their reservation would not be taken away and their traditions would not be interfered with. In Canada, the government announced in 1969 that they would “not recognise aboriginal rights” the natives mustered support and organised opposition by holding debates and a series of demonstrations. Ultimately the government relented and by the Constitutional Act of 1982 accepted the . existing aboriginal and treaty rights of the natives. Today while the natives in both the countries are much reduced in numbers they have been able to assert their right to their own cultures and particularly in Canada to their “sacred lands” in a way their ancestors could not have done in the 1880s.

Question 6.
Describe the condition of Japan before the Meiji Restoration. [3]
Answer:
Political condition:
Japan was ruled by an emperor from Kyoto while the actual powers were in the hands of the Shoguns. From 1603 to 1867, the members of the Tokugawa family held the position of the Shogun, the country was divided into 250 domains each ruled by a daimyo. The daimyos were given a large degree of autonomy and were ordered to live in the capitals of their domains. By the mid 17th century the daimyo’s capitals became bigger.

Social condition:
Edo was the most populated city in the world by the mid-17th century. Osaka and Kyoto were the other large cities in Japan. There were about half a dozen castle-towns with population over 50,000. A person’s merit was valued more than his status. A vibrant culture grew around the towns. Habit of reading increased among the people and many writers could earn their living solely by writing.

Economic conditions:
Growth of cities led to the growth of a commercial economy. Financial and credit system came into existence. Japan was considered rich as it began to import luxury goods like silk from China and textiles from India. There was an increased use of money. There was a stock market in rice which was a sign of economic prosperity in those days.

Question 7.
Describe in detail the effects of Industrial Revolution in Britain. [3]
OR
What do you know about Luddism? Explain.[3]
Answer:
The Industrial Revolution deeply affected all aspects of public life in England. It transformed Britain an from agriculture-dominated country into an industrial country.
Following were the major effects of the Industrial Revolution:
(i) It made England one of the largest industrial nations. She established her trade relations with other countries and with increased exports her national income increased. London had acquired a global significance.

(ii) The machines invented during this period could not be installed at home so innumerable factories were set up in the country. Consequently, cottage industries almost ended.

(iii) The Industrial Revolution Contributed to the establishment of large towns such as Manchester, Lancashire, Birmingham. This pace of growth was not matched with the provision of adequate housing, sanitation or clean water for the rapidly growing urban population.

(iv) Invention of machines resulted in the sufficient production of goods. As these were cheaper, more and more people began to buy them.

(v) One of the worst effects was the elimination of the home industries. As a single machine could do the work of many people, people who rendered manual labour were left unemployed.

(vi) The Industrial Revolution forced small farmers to sell their land and work in the factories. The bigger landlords bought up small farms near their own properties and enclosed the village common lands. Thus, the number of landless labour increased.

(vii) The Industrial Revolution was a time of important changes in the way that children and women worked. The earnings of women and children were necessary to supplement men’s meagre wages. Factory managers considered child labour to be important training for future factory work.

(viii)The condition of workers was quite miserable. They became victims of restlessness, epidemics and diseases.

OR

The movement known as Luddism (1811 – 17) was led by General Ned Ludd. Luddism was not merely a backward-looking assault on the machines. Its participants demanded a minimum wage, control over the labour of women and children, work for those who had lost their jobs because of machines and the right to form trade unions so that they could legally represent their demands.

During the early years of industrialization, the working population possessed neither the vote nor legal methods to express their anger at the drastic manner in which their lives had been overturned. In August 1819 around 80,000 people had gathered peacefully at St. Peter’s Fields in Manchester to claim democratic rights of political organization, public meetings and of the freedom of the press.

The movement was brutally suppressed and it what came to be known as the Peterloo Massacre and the rights they demanded were denied by the Six Acts, passed by Parliament the same year. These extended the restrictions on political activity introduced in the two Combination Acts of 1795. But there were some gains. After Peterloo, the need to make the House of Commons more representative was recognized by liberal political groups and the Combination Acts were repealed in 1824 – 25.

Section – C
Case Based Question (4 x 2 = 8)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:  [1+1+2 = 4]
The earliest universities in Europe had been set up in Italian towns. The universities of Padua and Bologna had been centres of legal studies from the eleventh century. Commerce being the chief activity in the city, there was an increasing demand for lawyers and notaries (a combination of solicitor and record-keeper) to write and interpret rules and written agreements without which trade on a large scale was not possible. Law was therefore a popular subject of study, but there was now a shift in emphasis. It was studied in the context of earlier Roman culture. Francesco Petrarch (1304 – 78) represented this change. To Petrarch, antiquity was a distinctive civilisation which could be best understood through the actual words of the ancient Greeks and Romans. He therefore, stressed the importance of a close reading of ancient authors.

This educational programme implied that there was much to be learnt which religious teaching alone could not give. This was the culture which historians in the nineteenth century were to label ‘humanism’. By the early fifteenth century, the term ‘humanist’ was used for masters who taught grammar, rhetoric, poetry, history and moral philosophy. The Latin word humanitas, from which ‘humanities’ was derived, had been used many centuries ago by the Roman lawyer and essayist Cicero (106 – 43. BCE), a contemporary of Julius Caesar, to mean culture: These subjects-were not drawn from or connected with religion and emphasised skills developed by individuals through discussion and debate.

These revolutionary ideas attracted attention in many other universities, particularly in the newly established university in Petrarch’s own home-town of Florence. Till the end of the thirteenth century, this city had not made a mark as a centre of trade or of learning, but things changed dramatically in the fifteenth century. A city is known by its great citizens as much as by its wealth and Florence hadcome to be known because of Dante Alighieri (1265 – 1321), a layman who wrote on religious themes and Giotto (1267-1337), an artist who painted lifelike portraits, very different from the stiff figures done by earlier artists. From then it developed as the most exciting intellectual city in Italy and as a centre of artistic creativity. The term “Renaissance Man’ is often used to describe a person with many interests and skills, because many of the individuals who became well known at this time were people of many parts. They were scholar-diplomat-theologian-artist combined in one.

Question 8.1.
Who was Giotto? [1]
Answer:
Giotto (1267 – 1337), was an Italian painter who painted lifelike portraits, very different from the stiff figures done by earlier artists.

Question 8.2.
Which universities legal studies during the 11th century? [1]
Answer:
The universities of Padua and Bologna had been centres of legal studies from the plevenfh century.

Question 8.3.
Who was Petrarch? Why was he famous? [2]
Answer:
etrarch was an Italian scholar, poet and humanist. Francesco Petrarch is known as ‘Father of Humanism’. He is best known for the Lyric poetry of his Canzoniere and is considered one of the greatest love poets of world literature.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:  [1+1+2 = 4]
The Gold Rush and the Growth of Industries there was always the hope that there was gold in North America. In the 1840s, traces of gold were found in the USA, in California. This led to the “Gold Rush’, when thousands of eager Europeans hurried to America in the hope of making a quick fortune. This led to the building of railway lines across the continent, for which thousands of Chinese workers were recruited. The USA’s railway was completed by 1870, that of Canada by 1885.

“The old nations creep on at a snail’s pace’ said Andrew Carnegie, a poor immigrant from Scotland who became one of the first millionaire industrialists in the USA, ‘the Republic thunders on at the speed of an express’. One reason why the Industrial Revolution happened in England when it did was because small peasants were losing their land to big farmers and moving to jobs in factories. In North America, industries developed for very different reasons to manufacture railway equipment so that rapid transport could link distant places and to produce machinery which would make large-scale farming easier. Industrial towns grew and factories multiplied, both in the USA and Canada.

In 1860, the USA had been an undeveloped economy. In 1890, it was the leading industrial power in the world. Large-scale agriculture also expanded. Vast areas were cleared and divided up into farms. By 1890, the bison had almost been exterminated, thus, ending the life of hunting the natives had followed for centuries. In 1892, the USA’s continental expansion was complete. The area between the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans was divided up into states. There no longer remained the ‘frontier’ that had pulled European settlers west for many decades. Within a few years the USA was setting up its own colonies in Hawaii and the Philippines. It had become an imperial power.

Question 9.1.
Who was Andrew Carnegie? [1]
Answer:
Andrew Carnegie was a poor immigrant from Scotland who became one of the first millionaire industrialists in the USA.

Question 9.2.
What was the Gold Rush? [1]
Answer:
In the 1840s, traces of gold were found in the USA, in California. This led to the ‘Gold Rush’ when thousands of eager Europeans hurried to America in the hope of making a quick fortune.

Question 9.3.
In North America, industries developed for very different reasons. Why? [2]
Answer:
In North America, industries developed for very different reasons so as to manufacture railway equipment so that rapid transport could link distant places and to produce machinery which would make large-scale farming easier.

Section – D
Map Based Question (1+1=2)

Question 10.
On the given outline map of Britain, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol.
(I) A place known for iron and coal manufacturing centre. [1]
OR
(II) A place known for cotton textile manufacturing centre. [1]
(III) On the same map of United Kingdom, A is marked as a place where James Watt created the Soho. [1]
Answer:
(I) Shropshire
(II) Manchester
(III) Birmingham

 

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography Term 2 Set 5 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D & E.
• In Section A question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer Type Questions. Attempt any 3 Questions.
• In Section B question number 4 is Source Based Question.
• In Section C question number 5 &6 are Short Answer Based Questions.
• In Section D question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer Based Questions.
• In Section E question number 10 is a Map Based Question.

Section – A

             (Very Short Answer Type Questions) (2 x 3 = 6)
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of ocean currents? [2]
OR
How do the sun’s rays while passing through the atmosphere gets absorbed? [2]

Question 2.
Why are tides important? [2]

Question 3.
What is the objective of Project Elephant? [2]

Section – B
Source Based Question (1 x 3 = 3)

Question 4.
EI – Nino and the Indian Monsoon:
EI – Nino is a complex weather system that appears once every three to seven years, bringing drought, floods and other weather extremes to different parts of the world. The system involves oceanic and atmospheric phenomena with the appearance of warm currents off the coast of Peru in the Eastern Pacific and affects weather in many places including India. EI – Nino is merely an extension of the warm equatorial current which gets replaced temporarily by cold Peruvian current or Humbolt current (locate these currents in your atlas). This current increases the temperature of water on the Peruvian coast by 10°C. This results in:

1. The distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation.
2. Irregularities in the evaporation of seawater.
3. Reduction in the number of planktons which further reduces the number of fish in the sea.

The word EI – Nino means ‘Child Christ’ because this current appears around Christmas in December. December is a summer month in Peru (Southern Hemisphere). EI – Nino is used in India for forecasting long-range monsoon rainfall. In 1990-91, there was a wild EI – Nino event and the onset of southwest monsoon was delayed over most parts of the country ranging from five to twelve days.

Attempt All Questions:

(i) What are the effects of El – Nino? [1]

(ii) How is EI – Nino used in India? [1]

(iii) What does the word ‘EI – Nino’ mean? [1]

Section – C
Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 3 = 6)

Question 5.
Differentiate between convectional rain and orographic rain? [3]

Question 6.
When was the comprehensive Wildlife Act enacted and what were are its objectives? [3]
OR
What do you know about saline soils? [3]

Section – D
                Long Answer Type Questions (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 7.
Mention the causes responsible for soil erosion. [5]

Question 8.
Explain the factors that affect the insolation of the surface of the earth. [5]
OR
Draw a suitable diagram for the structure of the atmosphere and label it and describe it? [5]

Question 9.
Explain the different types of soil erosion. [5]

Section – E 
Map Based Questions (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 10.
On the outline map of India indicate and mark the following features. (Attempt any 5)
(i) A place where Arid Soil is found in North India.
(ii) Largest Mangrove forest in India.
(iii) A South Indian state where Red Soil is found.
(iv) Biosphere reserves of Nanda Devi.
(v) The district where the first biosphere in India was developed.
(vi) The state where Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is situated.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D & E.
• In Section A question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer Type Questions. Attempt any 3 Questions.
• In Section B question number 4 is Source Based Question.
• In Section C question number 5 &6 are Short Answer Based Questions.
• In Section D question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer Based Questions.
• In Section E question number 10 is a Map Based Question.

Section – A

(Very Short Answer Type Questions) (2 x 3 = 6)
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
What do you know about the oxygen cycle? [2]
OR
Mention the importance of biodiversity. [2]

Question 2.
Differentiate between precipitation and condensation. [2]

Question 3.
Differentiate between spring tides and neap tides? [2]

Section – B
Source Based Question (1 x 3 = 3)

Question 4.
Tropical Thorn Forests:
Tropical thorn forests occur in areas that receive rainfall less than 50 cm. These consist of a variety of grasses and shrubs. It includes semi-arid areas of south-west Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. In these forests, plants remain leafless for most of the year and give an expression of scrub vegetation. Important species found are babool, ber, and wild date palm, khair, neem, khejri, palas, etc. Tussocky grass grows up to a height of 2m as the undergrowth.

Attempt All Questions

(i) Where are tropical thorn forests found in India? [1]

(ii) Where do tropical thorn forests occur? [1]

(iii) Name any two trees found in the tropical thorn forest. [1]

Section – C
Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 3 = 6)

Question 5.
State the main features of montane forests? [3]

Question 6.
What are the primary forces that influence the currents? [3]
OR
How does the distance from the sea affect the temperature of an area? [3]

Section – D
Long Answer Type Questions (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 7.
‘Natural vegetation is an outcome of climate.’ Substantiate the statement by taking example of Indian vegetation. [5]

Question 8.
Discuss the processes through which the earth-atmosphere system maintains heat balance. [5]
OR
Explain the spatial variation in the rainfall throughout the country. [5]

Question 9.
What objectives have been determined for the conservation of forests according to National Forest Policy? [5]

Section – E
Map Based Questions (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 10.
On the outline map of the India indicate and mark the following features. (Attempt any 5)
(i) The sun is almost overhead all year-round at the southernmost tip of this island.
(ii) State where Manas National Park is located.
(iii) State where Simlipal National Park is located.
(iv) A state where Black Soil is found.
(v) A South Indian state where Red Soil is found.
(vi) An earthquake prone area in Northern plains.