Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E

Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities (Including Trigonometrical Ratios of Complementary Angles and Use of Four Figure Trigonometrical Tables) Ex 21E

These Solutions are part of Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions. Here we have given Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E.

Other Exercises

Question 1.
Prove the following identities :
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.1
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.2
Solution:

Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.3
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.4
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.5
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.6
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.7
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.8
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.9
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.10
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.11
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.12
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.13
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.14

Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.15
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.16
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.17
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.18

Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.19
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.20
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.21
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.22
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.23
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q1.24

Question 2.
If sin A + cos A = p and sec A + cosec A = q then prove that: q(p² – 1) 2p
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q2.1

Question 3.
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q3.1
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q3.2
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q3.3

Question 4.
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q4.1
Solution:

Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q4.2
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q4.3

Question 5.
If tan A=n tan B and sin A=m sin B, prove that:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q5.1
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q5.2
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q5.3

Question 6.
(i) If 2 sin A-1 = 0, show that:
sin 3 A = 3 sin A – 4 sin3 A.             [2001]
(ii) If 4cos2 A-3 = 0, show that:
cos 3A = 4 cos3 A – 3 cos A
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q6.1
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q6.2

Question 7.
Evaluate:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q7.1
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q7.2
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q7.3
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q7.4
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q7.5
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q7.6

Question 8.
Prove that:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q8.1
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q8.2
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q8.3

Question 9.
If A and B are complementary angles, prove that:
(i) cot B + cos B sec A cos B (1 + sin B)
(ii) cot A cot B – sin A cos B – cos sin B = 0
(iii) cosec2 A + cosec2 B = cosec2 A cosec2 B
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q9.1
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q9.2
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q9.3
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q9.4
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q9.5

Question 10.
Prove that:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q10.1
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q10.2
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q10.3
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q10.4
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q10.5
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q10.6
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q10.7
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q10.8
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q10.9
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q10.10
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q10.11
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q10.12
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q10.13

Question 11.
If 4 cos2 A – 3 = 0 and 0° ≤ A ≤ 90°, then prove that : 
(i) sin 3A = 3 sinA – 4 sin3A
(ii) cos 3A = 4 cos3 A – 3 cos A
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q11.1
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q11.2

Question 12.
Find A, if 0° ≤ A ≤ 90° and :
(i) 2 cos2 A – 1 = 0
(ii) sin 3A – 1 = 0
(iii) 4 sin2 A – 3 = 0
(iv) cos2 A – cos A = 0
(v) 2cos2 A + cos A – 1 = 0
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q12.1
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q12.2
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q12.3

Question 13.
If 0° < A < 90° ; find A, if :
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q13.1
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q13.2
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q13.3
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q13.4

Question 14.
Prove that : (cosec A – sin A) (sec A – cos A) sec2 A = tan A. (2011)
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q14.1

Question 15.
Prove the identity : (sin θ + cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ) = sec θ + cosec θ. (2014)
Solution:
Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E Q15.1

Hope given Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21E are helpful to complete your math homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online math tutoring for you.

Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21D

Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities (Including Trigonometrical Ratios of Complementary Angles and Use of Four Figure Trigonometrical Tables) Ex 21D

These Solutions are part of Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions. Here we have given Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21D.

Other Exercises

Question 1.
Use tables to find sine of:
(i) 21°
(ii) 34°42′
(iii) 47° 32′                    
(iv) 62°57′
(v) 10°20′ + 20° 45′
Solution:
From tables of sine of angles, we find that:
(i) sin 21°= 0.3584,
(ii) sin 34°42’= .5693
(iii) sin 47° 32′ = 0.7377
(iv) sin 62° 57′ = 0.8906
(v) sin 10° 20′ + 20°45′ = sin 31°5′
= 0.5162

Question 2.
Use tables to find cosine of:
(i) 2°4′
(ii) 8°12′
(iii) 26°32’                     
(iv) 65°41′
(v) 9°23′ +15°54′
Solution:
From tables of cosine of angle, we find that:
(i) cos 2°4′ = 0.9993
(ii) cos 8° 12’ = 0.9898
(iii) cos 26°32′ = 0.8946
(iv) cos 65°41′ = 0.4118
(v) cos 9°23′ + 15°54′ = cos 25° 17′
= 0.9042

Question 3.
Use trigonometrical tables to find tangent of:
(i) 37°
(ii) 42°18′
(iii) 17°27′
Solution:
From the tables of tangents, we find that
(i) tan 35° = 0.7536
(ii) tan 42°18’= 0.9099
(iii) tan 17°27’= 0.3144

Question 4.
Use tables to find the acute angle θ, if the value of sin θ
(i) 4848
(ii) 0.3827
(iii) 0.6525
Solution:
From the tables of series, we find that of :
(i) sinθ = 0.4848, then θ = 29°
(ii) sinθ = 0.3827, then θ = 20° 30′
(iii) sin θ = 0.6525, then θ = 40° 42’ + 2′ = 40°44′

Question 5.
Use tables to find the acute angle θ, if the value of cos θ is :
(i) 0.9848
(ii) 0.9574
(iii) 0.6885
Solution:
From the tables of cosines, we find that if :
(i) cos θ = 0.9848, then θ = 10°
(ii) cos θ = 0.9574, then θ = 16°48′- 1’=16°47’
(iii) cos θ = 0.6885, then θ = 46° 30′ or 46°30′
= 46° 29’

Question 6.
Use tables to find the acute angle θ, if the value of tan θ is :
(i) 2419
(ii) 0.4741
(iii) 0.7391                     
(iv) 1.06
Solution:
From the table of tangents, we find that if:
(i) tan θ = 0.2419, then θ=13° 36’
(ii) tan θ = 0.4741, then θ = 25° 18’ + 4’ = 25°22′
(iii) tan θ = 0.7391, then θ= 36°24’+ 4′ = 36°28′
(iv) tan θ = 1.06, then θ = 46°36′ + 4′ = 46°40′

Question 7.
If sin θ=0.857; find:
(i) θ                              
(ii) tan θ
Solution:
From the tables of T. Ratio’s we find this :
(i) If sin θ = 0.857, then θ = 58°54′ + 4.5′ = 58° 58′ or 58°59’
(ii) tan 58°58’= 1.6577 +43 = 1.662 or tan 58° 59′ = 1.6577 + 53 = 1.663

Question 8.
If θ is the acute angle and cos θ = 0.7258; find:
(i) θ
(ii) 2 tan θ – sin θ
Solution:
From the tables of T-ratio’s, we find that:
(i) If cos θ = 0.7258, then θ= 43° 30′ -2′ = 43°28’
(ii) Now 2 tan θ – sin θ= 2 tan 43°28′ – sin 43°28′
2 tan 43°28’ = 2 x (0.9457 + 0.0022)
= 0:9479 x 2 = 1.8958
and sin 43°28′ = 0.6871 + 0.0008 = 0.6879
∴ 2 tan 43°28′ – sin 43° 28′ = 1.8958 – 0.6879 = 1.2079

Question 9.
Let θ be an acute angle and tan θ = 0.9490 find:
(i) θ
(ii) cos θ
(iii) sin θ – cos θ

Solution:
From the tables of T-raios, we find that:
(i) if tan θ = 0.9490 , then θ = 43°30′
(ii) cos θ = cos 43°30′ = 0.7254
(iii) sin θ = sin 43°50′ = 0.6884
∴ sin θ – cos θ = 0.6884 – 0.7254 = -0.0370 = -0.037

Hope given Selina Concise Mathematics Class 10 ICSE Solutions Chapter 21 Trigonometrical Identities Ex 21D are helpful to complete your math homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online math tutoring for you.

Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 14 खानपान की बदलती तसवीर (प्रयाग शुक्ल)

In Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 14 खानपान की बदलती तसवीर (प्रयाग शुक्ल) are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 14 खानपान की बदलती तसवीर (प्रयाग शुक्ल).

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 7
Subject Hindi Vasant
Chapter Chapter 14
Chapter Name खानपान की बदलती तसवीर (प्रयाग शुक्ल)
Number of Questions Solved 13
Category NCERT Solutions

Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 14 खानपान की बदलती तसवीर (प्रयाग शुक्ल)

पाठ्यपुस्तक के प्रश्न-अभ्यास
(पृष्ठ 105-07)

निबंध से

प्रश्न 1.
खानपान की मिश्रित संस्कृति से लेखक का क्या मतलब है? अपने घर के उदाहरण देकर इसकी व्याख्या करें? [Imp.]
उत्तर
खानपान की मिश्रित संस्कृति से लेखक का तात्पर्य है सभी प्रांतों में खानपान के आधार पर मेलजोल होना। भारत में आजादी के बाद उद्योग-धंधों, नौकरियों के तबादलों के कारण खानपान की चीजें एक प्रदेश से दूसरे प्रदेश में पहुँची हैं। लोगों ने अपनी पसंद के आधार पर एक-दूसरे प्रांत की खाने की चीजों को अपने भोज्य पदार्थों में शामिल किया है। जैसे आज दक्षिण भारत के व्यंजन इडली-डोसा-साँभर-रसम उत्तर भारत में चाव से खाए जाते हैं और उत्तर भारत के ढाबे सारे भारत में महत्त्व पाते हैं। यहाँ तक कि पश्चिमी सभ्यता के व्यंजन बर्गर, नूडल्स का चलन भी बहुत बढ़ा है।
मेरा घर महाराष्ट्र में है। मैं मराठी परिवार से हूँ। मछली-चावल हमारा मुख्य भोजन है लेकिन हमारे घर में मछली-चावल से ज्यादा इडली-साँभर, चावल-चने-राजमाँ, पूरी-आलू, बर्गर व नूडल्स आदि अधिक पसंद किए जाते हैं। यहाँ तक कि हम यह सब बाज़ार से न लाकर घर में ही बनाते हैं क्योंकि आज हर प्रदेश के व्यंजन बनाने की पुस्तकें भी बाजार में उपलब्ध रहती हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
खानपान में बदलाव के कौन से फायदे हैं? फिर लेखक इस बदलाव को लेकर चिंतित क्यों है?
उत्तर-
खानपान में बदलाव के अनेक फायदे हैं। मसलन इससे स्थानीय व्यंजनों का प्रचार-प्रसार बढ़ गया है। राष्ट्रीय एकता को बढ़ावा मिलता है। अब स्थानीय व्यंजन कभी भी किसी जगह ढाबों में उपलब्ध होता है। मसलन दक्षिण भारतीय व्यंजन इडली डोसा अब उत्तर भारत में हमें आसानी से मिल जाता है। राष्ट्रीय एकता को बढ़ाने में मदद मिली है।

अब हम एक प्रकार का ही खाना नहीं खाते, बल्कि उसमें विविधता का समावेश हो गया है।

समय की बचत होती है। जैसे फास्ट फूड तुरंत तैयार होता है। उपरोक्त फायदों के बावजूद लेखक इस परिवर्तन को लेकर काफ़ी चिंतित है, क्योंकि लोग स्थानीय व्यंजनों को भूलते जा रहे हैं। वे बाजारों से गायब होते जा रहे हैं।

नई पीढ़ी विदेशी व्यंजनों को खाना अधिक पसंद करती है और उसको अधिक महत्त्व देती है।

अब स्थानीय व्यंजन तथा पकवान होटलों की वस्तु बनते जा रहे हैं। इन व्यंजनों का चलन कम होता जा रहा है, जिससे स्थानीय व्यंजनों के बारे में जानकारी ही नहीं, खाद्य पदार्थों में शुद्धता और गुणवत्ता की कमी होती जा रही है। स्थानीय व्यंजनों के स्वरूप बदलते जा रहे हैं। जिससे स्वास्थ्य पर प्रतिकूल प्रभाव पड़ रहा है।

प्रश्न 3.
खानपान के मामले में स्थानीयता का क्या अर्थ है?
उत्तर
खानपान के मामले में स्थानीयता का अर्थ है, किसी विशेष स्थान के खाने-पीने का विशेष व्यंजन। जिसका प्रचलन दूर-दूर तक हो। जैसे-मुंबई की पाव-भाजी, दिल्ली के छोले-कुल्चे, मथुरा के पेडे व आगरे के पेठे-नमकीन आदि। पहले स्थानीय व्यंजनों का अत्यधिक चलन था। हर प्रदेश में किसी-न-किसी विशेष स्थान का कोई-न-कोई व्यंजन अवश्य प्रसिद्ध होता था लेकिन आज खानपान की मिश्रित संस्कृति ने लोगों को खाने-पीने के व्यंजनों में इतने विकल्प दे दिए हैं कि स्थानीय व्यंजन प्रायः लुप्त होते जा रहे हैं। आधुनिक पीढ़ी तो कई व्यंजनों के नामों से भी, अपरिचित है। दूसरी ओर महँगाई बढ़ने के कारण इन व्यंजनों की गुणवत्ता में कमी होने से भी लोगों का रुझान इनकी ओर कम होता जा रहा है।

निबंध से आगे

प्रश्न 1.
घर में बातचीत करके पता कीजिए कि आपके घर में क्या चीजें पकती हैं और क्या चीजें बनी-बनाई बाजार से आती हैं? इनमें से बाजार से आनेवाली कौन सी चीजें आपके माँ-पिता जी के बचपन में घर में बनती थीं?
उत्तर
मैं उत्तर भारत का रहने वाला हूँ। हमारे घर में काफी चीजें पकती हैं। जैसे-दालें, सब्जियाँ, कड़ी, राजमाँ-चावल, चने-भटूरे, मांसाहारी भोजन आदि। इसके अलावा मेरी माँ पकौड़े, दही-भल्ले, इडली-साँभर, डोसा, रसम, नूडल्स, बर्गर, खीर, हलवा भी बहुत अच्छा बनाती हैं।
बाजार से समोसे, कचौड़ी, जलेबियाँ, गुलाबजामुन, आइसक्रीम, काठीरोल, ढोकला आदि आता है। माँ-पिता जी कहते हैं कि पहले हम समोसे-कचौड़ियाँ, गुलाबजामुन आदि घर में बनाया करते थे।

प्रश्न 2.
यहाँ खाने, पकाने और स्वाद से संबंधित कुछ शब्द दिए गए हैं। इन्हें ध्यान से देखिए और इनका वर्गीकरण कीजिए-
उबालना,     तलना,     भूनना,       सेंकना,      दाल,      भात,    रोटी,     पापड,
आलू,          बैंगन,       खट्टा,        मीठा,        तीखा,     नमकीन,       कसैला
NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 14 खानपान की बदलती तसवीर (प्रयाग शुक्ल) 1
उत्तर-
NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 14 खानपान की बदलती तसवीर (प्रयाग शुक्ल) 2

प्रश्न 3.
छौंक, चावल, कढ़ी
• इन शब्दों में क्या अंतर है? समझाइए? इन्हें बनाने के तरीके विभिन्न प्रांतों में अलग-अलग हैं। पता करें कि आपके प्रांत में इन्हें कैसे बनाया जाता है।
उत्तर-
सभी विद्यार्थी अपने-अपने परिवार में माँ से इनके बारे में पता करें।
छौंक–छौंक में थोड़ा-घी-तेल डालकर हींग-जीरे के साथ तेज़ गर्म किया जाता है। फिर दाल में छौंक लगाया जाता है।
चावल-चावलों को उबाला जाता है। पुलाव के लिए उसमें कई सब्ज़ियाँ और मेवे-पनीर डाला जाता है।
कढ़ी-खट्टी दही या छाछ और बेसन को मिलाकर उबालकर बनाया जाता है।

प्रश्न 4.
पिछली शताब्दी में खानपान की बदलती हुई तसवीर का खाका खींचें तो इस प्रकार होगा
सन् साठ का दशक – छोले-भटूरे
सन् सत्तर का दशक – इडली, डोसा
सन् अस्सी का दशक – तिब्बती (चीनी) भोजन
सन् नब्बे का दशक – पीजा, पाव-भाजी
इसी प्रकार आप कुछ कपड़ों या पोशाकों की बदलती तस्वीर का खाका खींचिए।
उत्तर-

दशक महिलाओं की पोशाक पुरुषों की पोशाक
सन् साठ साड़ी-ब्लाउज/लहँगा चोली, सलवार, कमीज धोती-कुर्ता पायजामा
सन् सत्तर साड़ी-ब्लाउज/सलवार कमीज़ स्कर्ट टॉप/बेलबाटम/टॉप पैंट-शर्ट, कुर्ता-पाजामा
सन् अस्सी साड़ी-ब्लाउज/सलवार, कमीज/जींस टॉप कोट-पेंट टाई/ जींस, टी शर्ट पैंट-शर्ट, कुर्ता-पाजामा
सन् नब्बे साड़ी-ब्लाउज/सलवार कमीज/स्कर्ट टॉप, जींस-टॉप। पैंट-शर्ट, कुर्ता-पाजामा, जींस-टीशर्ट। कोट पैंट टाई, शेरवानी, पठानी-सूट।

नोट – अलग-अलग दशकों में प्रत्येक पोशाक के आकार-प्रकार और स्वरूप में परिवर्तन आता रहा है। पोशाकों के आकार और बनावट में परिवर्तन होता आ रहा है।

प्रश्न 5.
मान लीजिए कि आपके घर कोई मेहमान आ रहे हैं जो आपके प्रांत का पारंपरिक भोजन करना चाहते हैं। उन्हें खिलाने के लिए घर के लोगों की मदद से एक व्यंजन-सूची ( मेन्यू) बनाइए।
उत्तर
पंजाब प्रांत की (मेन्यू) व्यंजन सूची
→ पानी व फल
→ चाय/कॉफी के साथ नमकीन एवं मीठा।
→ साग, मक्का की रोटी, पकौड़ी का रायता, मक्खन, अचार व लस्सी, मीठे में खीर।
→ शाम को चाय/कॉफी के साथ समोसा/कचौड़ी व बर्फी।

अनुमान और कल्पना

प्रश्न 1.
‘फ़ास्ट फूड’ यानी तुरंत भोजन के नफे-नुकसान पर कक्षा में वाद-विवाद करें।
उत्तर
कक्षा में करने योग्य है।

प्रश्न 2.
हर शहर कस्बे में कुछ ऐसी जगह होती हैं जो अपने किसी खास व्यंजन के लिए जानी जाती हैं। आप अपने शहर, कस्बे का नक्शा बनाकर उसमें ऐसी सभी जगहों को दर्शाइए।
उत्तर-
छात्र-स्वयं करें।

प्रश्न 3.
खानपान के मामले में शुद्धता का मसला काफ़ी पुराना है। आपने अपने अनुभव में इस तरह की मिलावट को देखा है? किसी फ़िल्म या अखबारी खबर के हवाले से खानपान में होनेवाली मिलावट के नुकसानों की चर्चा कीजिए।
उत्तर
खानपान के मामले में शुद्धता होनी अति आवश्यक है क्योंकि अशुद्धता बीमारियों को बुलावा देती है। हल्दी व कालीमिर्च ऐसे पदार्थ हैं जिनमें मिलावट आमतौर पर मिलती है। हल्दी में पीली मिट्टी व काली मिर्च में पपीते के बीज मिला दिए जाते हैं। पिछले दिनों समाचार पत्रों में यह बात स्पष्ट शब्दों में थी कि घीया जो एक सब्ज़ी है उसे इंजेक्शन देकर एक दिन में ही बड़ा कर दिया जाता है। वास्तव में ऐसा करने से यह सही पौध का नहीं रहता। ऐसा डॉक्टरों का मत है कि इससे स्वास्थ्य खराब हो जाता है। आँखों की रोशनी कम हो जाती है, साँस संबंधी रोग हो जाते हैं और शरीर में टेढ़ापन आने का कारण भी यह बन सकता है। पत्ता गोभी की खाद में गलत पदार्थ डालने से यह भी स्वास्थ्य हेतु हानिकारक होती जा रही है।

भाषा की बात

प्रश्न 1.
खानपान शब्द, खान और पान दो शब्दों को जोड़कर बना है। खानपान शब्द में और छिपा हुआ है। जिन शब्दों के योग में और, अथवा, या जैसे योजक शब्द छिपे हों, उन्हें द्वंद्व समास कहते हैं। नीचे द्वंद्व समास के कुछ उदाहरण दिए गए हैं। इनका वाक्यों में प्रयोग कीजिए और अर्थ समझिए।
सीना-पिरोना       भला-बुरा          चलना-फिरना
लंबा-चौड़ा          कहा-सुनी         घास-फूस
उत्तर
हर लड़की को सीना-पिरोना आना चाहिए।
मोहन ने कक्षा में झगड़ा होने पर मुझे भला-बुरा कहा।
रीढ़ की हड्डी पर चोट लग जाने के कारण स्नेहा को चलना-फिरना मना है।
मैंने जंगल में एक लंबा-चौड़ा वट वृक्ष देखा।
सास-बहू की कहा-सुनी होना तो आम बात है।
राम, लक्ष्मण और सीता वनवास में घास-फूस की झोंपड़ियों में रहे।

प्रश्न 2.
कंई बार एक शब्द सुनने या पढ़ने पर कोई और शब्द याद आ जाता है। आइए शब्दों की ऐसी कड़ी बनाएँ। नीचे शुरुआत की गई है। उसे आप आगे बढ़ाइए। कक्षा में मौखिक सामूहिक गतिविधि के रूप में इसे दिया जा सकता है
इडली-दक्षिण-केरल-ओणम्-त्योहार-छुट्टी-आराम।
उत्तर-
आराम-कुर्सी, तरण ताल-नहाना, नौका-दौड़, मौज-मस्ती, पेड़-जंगल, जानवर-चिड़ियाघर।

कुछ करने को

प्रश्न 1.
उन विज्ञापनों को इकट्ठा कीजिए जो हाल ही के ठंडे पेय पदार्थों से जुड़े हैं। उनमें स्वास्थ्य और सफ़ाई पर दिए गए ब्योरों को छाँटकर देखें कि हकीकत क्या है?
उत्तर-
छात्र स्वयं करें। समाचार-पत्र पत्रिकाओं के विज्ञापनों में देखें या पुस्तकालयों में पुराने पड़े समाचार पत्रों से एकत्रित कर उससे सहायता लें।

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Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 17 वीर कुंवर सिंह (विभागीय)

In Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 17 वीर कुंवर सिंह (विभागीय) are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 17 वीर कुंवर सिंह (विभागीय).

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 7
Subject Hindi Vasant
Chapter Chapter 17
Chapter Name वीर कुंवर सिंह (विभागीय)
Number of Questions Solved 11
Category NCERT Solutions

Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 17 वीर कुंवर सिंह (विभागीय)

पाठ्यपुस्तक के प्रश्न-अभ्यास
(पृष्ठ 127-28)

निबंध से

प्रश्न 1.
वीर कुंवर सिंह के व्यक्तित्व की कौन-कौन-सी विशेषताओं ने आपको प्रभावित किया?
उत्तर-
वीर कुंवर सिंह के व्यक्तित्व की निम्नलिखित विशेषताओं ने हमें प्रभावित किया है

  • वीर कुंवर सिंह महान एवं वीर योद्धा थे। 1857 विद्रोह में उन्होंने बढ़-चढ़कर भाग लिया व अंग्रेजों को कदम-कदम पर पराजित किया।
  • वे युद्ध कला में पूरी तरह कुशल थे। उन्हें छापामार युद्ध में महारत हासिल थी।
  • उनमें देशभक्ति और स्वाधीनता की भावना कूट-कूटकर भरी हुई थी।
  • वे जरूरतमंद गरीब एवं निर्धनों को सदैव मदद किया करते थे।
  • वे हिंदू और मुसलमानों में भेद-भाव नहीं किया करते थे। वे समाजसेवी एवं परोपकारी भी थे। यद्यपि उनकी आर्थिक स्थिति बहुत अचछी नहीं थी।

प्रश्न 2.
कुँवर सिंह को बचपन में किन कामों में मज़ा आता था? क्या उन्हें उन कामों से स्वतंत्रता सेनानी बनने में कुछ मदद मिली?
उत्तर
बचपन में कुंवर सिंह को पढ़ने-लिखने से अधिक घुड़सवारी, तलवारबाजी और कुश्ती लड़ने में मजा आता था। जब वे बड़े होकर स्वतंत्रता सेनानी बने तो इन कार्यों से उन्हें बहुत मदद मिली। तलवार चलाने व तेज घुड़सवारी से ही तो वे कदम-कदम पर अंग्रेजों को मात दे सके।

प्रश्न 3.
सांप्रदायिक सद्भाव में कुँवर सिंह की गहरी आस्था थी-पाठ के आधार पर कथन की पुष्टि कीजिए। [Imp.]
उत्तर
कुँवर सिंह की सांप्रदायिक सद्भावना में गहरी आस्था थी। इसका अनुमान इस बात से लगाया जा सकता। है कि जिस समय कुँवर सिंह हुए उस समय भारत में हिंदू और मुसलमान दोनों जातियों का समान प्रभुत्व था। वे सभी को समान समझते थे तभी तो उन्होंने सामाजिक कार्यों में पाठशालाएँ व मदरसे समान रूप में बनवाए। उनकी सेना में भी उच्च पदों पर मुसलमान सैनिक इब्राहिम खाँ और किफायत हुसैन आसीन थे।

प्रश्न 4.
पाठ के किन प्रसंगों से आपको पता चलता है कि कुँवर सिंह साहसी, उदार एवं स्वाभिमानी व्यक्ति थे?
उत्तर-
वीर कुंवर सिंह जगदीशपुर हार जाने के बाद भी संघर्ष को जारी रखा और अंततः उन्होंने जगदीशपुर पर पुनः अधिकार कर लिया। इतना ही नहीं, वे वीर एवं बहादुर भी थे। उन्होंने गंगा की तेज़ धारा में गोली से जख्मी अपने हाथ को काटने में जरा भी संकोच नहीं किया। वे एक उदार व्यक्ति थे। अपनी कमजोर आर्थिक स्थिति होने के बाद भी वे निर्धनों की। सहायता से पीछे नहीं हटते थे। उनमें स्वाभिमान कूट-कूट कर भरा था। देशवासियों पर अंग्रेजों के जुर्म और अत्याचार बर्दाश्त नहीं कर सके और वे अंग्रेजों से युद्ध करने के लिए तैयार हो गए।

प्रश्न 5.
आमतौर पर मेले मनोरंजन, खरीद फ़रोख्त एवं मेलजोल के लिए होते हैं। वीर कुंवर सिंह ने मेले का उपयोग किस रूप में किया?
उत्तर
आमतौर पर मेले मनोरंजन, खरीद-फ़रोख्त एवं मेल-जोल के लिए होते हैं लेकिन वीर कुंवर सिंह ने सोनपुर के मेले का उपयोग अंग्रेजों के विरूद्ध अपनी गुप्त बैठकों की योजनाओं के लिए किया। सोनपुर के मेले को एशिया का सबसे बड़ा पशु मेला माना जाता है। यह कार्तिक पूर्णिमा के अवसर पर लगता था। इसमें हाथियों को क्रय-विक्रय होता था। इसी ऐतिहासिक मेले में स्वाधीनता के लिए लोग एकत्रित होते ताकि अंग्रेजी सरकार को किसी प्रकार का शक न हो।

निबंध से आगे

प्रश्न 1.
सन् 1857 के आंदोलन में भाग लेनेवाले किन्हीं चार सेनानियों पर दो-दो वाक्य लिखिए।
उत्तर

  1. लक्ष्मीबाई-झाँसी की रानी लक्ष्मीबाई स्वाधीनता संग्राम की प्रथम वीरांगना थीं। स्वाभिमानिनी, कुशल योद्धा, कुशल प्रशासिका, विदुषी, भगवत गीता को मानने वाली थीं। अंत तक अंग्रेजों से लड़ती रहीं।
  2. ताँत्या टोपे-कुशल सेनापति, स्वाभिमानी, प्रखर देशभक्त, वीर योद्धा व अंग्रेजों से टक्कर लेने वाला था। राष्ट्रीय स्वाधीनता के स्वप्न देखते-देखते फाँसी के फंदे पर झूल गया।
  3. नाना साहेब पेशवा-ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी अर्थात् अंग्रेजों द्वारा निर्वासित मराठा पेशवा, स्वाभिमानी, कुशल सेनानी, प्रखर योद्धा व पक्के राष्ट्रभक्त थे। ताँत्या टोपे व लक्ष्मीबाई के प्रेरक रहे।
  4. अजीमुल्लाह खान-मौलवी अजीमुल्लाह खान नाना साहेब के विधिवेत्ता, प्रखर देशभक्त, धर्मनिरपेक्ष, वीर योद्धा व प्रखर स्वाधीनता सेनानी थे। अंत में अंग्रेज़ों के हाथों पकड़े गए।

प्रश्न 2.
सन् 1857 के क्रांतिकारियों से संबंधित गीत विभिन्न भाषाओं और बोलियों में गाए जाते हैं। ऐसे कुछ गीतों को संकलित कीजिए।
उत्तर-
छात्र स्वयं पुस्तकालय से पुस्तक लेकर कविता खोजकर लिख सकते हैं।

अनुमान और कल्पना

प्रश्न 1.
वीर कुंवर सिंह को पढ़ने के साथ-साथ कुश्ती और घुड़सवारी में अधिक मन लगता था। आपको पढ़ने । के अलावा और किन-किन गतिविधियों या कामों में खूब मज़ा आता है? लिखिए।
उत्तर
हमें पढ़ने के साथ-साथ मॉल में घूमना, टी.वी. देखना, कंप्यूटर पर खेल खेलना, नए-नए बैटरी चालित खिलौनों से खेलना अच्छा लगता है। इनके अलावा विभिन्न खेलों जैसे क्रिकेट, बैडमिंटन व कभी-कभी शौक से घुड़सवारी करना भी अच्छा लगता है।

प्रश्न 2.
सन् 1857 में अगर आप 12 वर्ष के होते तो क्या करते? कल्पना करके लिखिए।
उत्तर-
यदि मैं 1857 में 12 वर्ष का होता तो अंग्रेजों के विरुद्ध भारतीयों को एकजुट करने का प्रयास करता। घुड़सवारी और तलवारबाज़ी की ट्रेनिंग लेकर अंग्रेजों के विरुद्ध संग्राम में सम्मिलित होता।

प्रश्न 3.
अनुमान लगाइए, स्वाधीनता की योजना बनाने के लिए सोनपुर मेले को क्यों चुना गया होगा?
उत्तर
स्वाधीनता की योजना बनाने हेतु सोनपुर के मेले को चुना गया क्योंकि यह मेला एक पशु मेला होता था जिसमें अधिकतर हाथियों का क्रय-विक्रय होता था। इस मेले में इतनी भीड़ होती थी कि यदि स्वतंत्रता सेनानी यहाँ कोई योजना बनाने हेतु एकत्रित हो भी जाए तो अंग्रेज़ी सरकार को कभी शक नहीं हो सकता था।

भाषा की बात

आप जानते हैं कि किसी शब्द को बहुवचन में प्रयोग करने पर उसकी वर्तनी में बदलाव आता है। जैसे–सेनानी एक व्यक्ति के लिए प्रयोग करते हैं और सेनानियों एक से अधिक के लिए। सेनानी शब्द की वर्तनी में बदलाव यह हुआ है कि अंत के वर्ण ‘नी’ की मात्रा दीर्घ ‘ी’ (ई) से ह्रस्व ‘ि’ (इ) हो गई है। ऐसे शब्दों को, जिनके अंत में दीर्घ ईकार होता है, बहुवचन बनाने पर वह इकार हो जाता है, यदि शब्द के अंत में ह्रस्व इकार होता है, तो उसमें परिवर्तन नहीं होता जैसे-दृष्टि से दृष्टियों।
नीचे दिए गए शब्दों का वचन बदलिए-
नीति………… ज़िम्मेदारियों……….. सलामी…………..
स्थिति……….. स्वाभिमानियों……….. गोली……………
उत्तर

नीति                –   नीतियों
स्थिति              –   स्थितियों
ज़िम्मेदारियों     –    जिम्मेदारी
स्वाभिमानियों    –   स्वाभिमानी
सलामी            –  सलामियों
गोली              –   गोलियों

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Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 15 नीलकंठ (महादेवी वर्मा)

In Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 15 नीलकंठ (महादेवी वर्मा) are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 15 नीलकंठ (महादेवी वर्मा).

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 7
Subject Hindi Vasant
Chapter Chapter 15
Chapter Name नीलकंठ (महादेवी वर्मा)
Number of Questions Solved 15
Category NCERT Solutions

Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 15 नीलकंठ (महादेवी वर्मा)

पाठ्यपुस्तक के प्रश्न-अभ्यास
(पृष्ठ 116-118)

निबंध से

प्रश्न 1.
मोर-मोरनी के नाम किस आधार पर रखे गए?
उत्तर
नीलाभ ग्रीवा अर्थात् नीली गर्दन के कारण मोर का नाम रखा गया नीलकंठ। मोरनी सदा उसकी छाया के समाने उसके साथ-साथ ऐसे रहती जैसे राधा श्री कृष्ण के साथ रहती थी इसलिए उसका नाम राधा रखा गया।

प्रश्न 2.
जाली के बड़े घर में पहुँचने पर मोर के बच्चों का किस प्रकार स्वागत हुआ?
उत्तर
मोर और मोरनी को जब जाली के बड़े घर में पहुँचाया गया तो दोनों का स्वागत ऐसे किया गया जैसे नववधू के आगमन पर किया जाता है। लक्का कबूतर नाचना छोड़ उनके चारों ओर घूम-घूमकर गुटरगूं-गुटरगूं करने लगा, बड़े खरगोश गंभीर रूप से उनका निरीक्षण करने लगे, छोटे खरगोश उनके चारों ओर उछलकूद मचाने लगे, तोते एक आँख बंद करके उनका परीक्षण करने लगे।

प्रश्न 3.
लेखिका को नीलकंठ की कौन-कौन-सी चेष्टाएँ बहुत भाती थीं?
उत्तर-
लेखिका को नीलकंठ का गरदन ऊँची कर देखना, मेघों की साँवली छाया में अपने इंद्रधनुष के गुच्छे जैसे पंखों को मंडलाकार बनाकर नाचना, विशेष भंगिमा के साथ उसे नीची कर दाना चुगना और पानी-पीना तथा गरदन टेढ़ी कर शब्द सुनना आदि चेष्टाएँ बहुत भाती थीं।

प्रश्न 4.
‘इस आनंदोत्सव की रागिनी में बेमेल स्वर कैसे बज उठा’-वाक्य किस घटना की ओर संकेत कर रहा है?
उत्तर
‘इस आनंदोत्सव की रागिनी में बेमेल स्वर कैसे बज उठा’ यह इस घटना की ओर संकेत करता है कि नीलकंठ और राधा सदा साथ-साथ रहते थे। घर के सभी जीव-जंतुओं का भी आपस में अनन्य प्रेम था। एक दिन महादेवी वर्मा नखासकोने’ से निकली तो चिड़िया बेचने वाले बड़े मियाँ ने उन्हें एक मोरनी के बारे में बताया जिसका पाँव घायल था। लेखिका उसे सात रुपए में खरीदकर घर ले आई और उसकी देखभाल की। वह कुछ ही दिनों में स्वस्थ हो गई। उसका नाम कुब्जा रखा गया। वह स्वभाव से मेल-मिलाप वाली न थी। वह नीलकंठ और राधा को साथ-साथ न देख पाती। जब भी उन्हें साथ देखती तो राधा को नोंच डालती वह स्वयं नीलकंठ के साथ रहना चाहती थी। एक बार उसने राधा के अंडे भी तोड़ डाले।
इसी कोलाहल व राधा की दूरी ने नीलकंठ को अप्रसन्न कर दिया जो उसकी मृत्यु का कारण बना।

प्रश्न 5.
वसंत ऋतु में नीलकंठ के लिए जालीघर में बंद रहना असहनीय क्यों हो जाता था?
उत्तर
नीलकंठ को फलों के वृक्षों से भी अधिक पुष्पित व पल्लवित (सुगंधित व खिले पत्तों वाले) वृक्ष भाते थे। इसीलिए जब वसंत में आम के वृक्ष सुनहली मंजरियों से लद जाते और अशोक (वृक्ष का नाम) लाल पत्तों से ढक जाता तो नीलकंठ के लिए जालीघर में रहना असहनीय हो जाता। वह बार-बार बाहर जाने का प्रयास करता तब महादेवी को उसे बाहर छोड़ देना पड़ता।

प्रश्न 6.
जालीघर में रहनेवाले सभी जीव एक-दूसरे के मित्र बन गए थे, पर कुब्जा के साथ ऐसा संभव क्यों नहीं हो पाया?
उत्तर
जालीघर में रहने वाले सभी जीव एक-दूसरे के मित्र थे। कबूतर, खरगोश, तोते, मोर, मोरनी सभी मिल-जुलकर रहते थे। लेकिन कुब्जा का स्वभाव मेल-मिलाप का नहीं था। वह हरदम सबसे झगड़ा करती थी और सभी को अपनी चोंच से नोंच डालती थी। यही कारण था कि वह किसी की मित्र न बन सकी।

प्रश्न 7.
नीलकंठ ने खरगोश के बच्चे को साँप से किस तरबंचाया? इस घटना के आधार पर नीलकंठ के स्वभाव की विशेषताओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
उत्तर-
एक दिन एक साँप जाली के भीतर पहुँच गया। सब जीव-जंतु भागकर इधर-उधर छिप गए, केवल एक शिशु खरगोश साँप की पकड़ में आ गया। निगलने के प्रयास में साँप ने उसका आधा पिछला शरीर तो मुँह में दबा रखा था, शेष आधा जो बाहर था, उससे चींची का स्वर भी इतना तीव्र नहीं निकल सकता था कि किसी को स्पष्ट सुनाई दे सके। नीलकंठ दूर ऊपर झूले में सो रहा था। उसी के चौकन्ने कानों ने उस मंद स्वर की व्यथा पहचानी और वह पूँछ-पंख समेटकर सर से एक झपट्टे में नीचे आ गया। संभवतः अपनी सहज चेतना से ही उसने समझ लिया होगा कि साँप के फन पर चोंच मारने से खरगोश भी घायल हो सकता है।

उसने साँप को फन के पास पंजों से दबाया और फिर चोंच से इतने प्रहार किए कि वह अधमरा हो गया। ढीली पड़ते ही खरगोश का बच्चा मुँह से निकल गया। इस प्रकार नीलकंठ ने खरगोश के बच्चे को बचाया।

इस घटना से नीलकंठ के स्वभाव की कई विशेषताओं का पता चलता है। वह वीर था, साहसी था। उसमें मानवीय भावनाएँ भी विद्यमान थीं। अपने मित्रों के प्रति प्रेम और उसकी रक्षा करने का खयाल भी था।

निबंध से आगे

प्रश्न 1.
यह पाठ एक ‘रेखाचित्र’ है। रेखाचित्र की क्या-क्या विशेषताएँ होती हैं? जानकारी प्राप्त कीजिए और लेखिका के लिखे किसी अन्य रेखाचित्र को पढ़िए।
उत्तर
रेखाचित्र एक सीधी कहानी न होकर जीवन के कुछ मुख्य अंश प्रस्तुत करने वाली रचना होती है। इसमें संवेदना व भावात्मकता होती है। ये अत्यंत स्वाभाविक और सरल होते हैं इनमें बनावट लेशमात्र भी नहीं होती। अन्य रेखाचित्र महादेवी के संग्रह से पढ़िए।

प्रश्न 2.
वर्षा ऋतु में जब आकाश में बादल घिर आते हैं तब मोर पंख फैलाकर धीरे-धीरे मचलने लगता है-यह मनमोहक दृश्य देखने का प्रयास कीजिए।
उत्तर-
अभयारण्य में इस तरह के दृश्य देखे जा सकते हैं।
NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 15 नीलकंठ (महादेवी वर्मा) 2

प्रश्न 3.
पुस्तकालय से ऐसी कहानियों, कविताओं या गीतों को खोजकर पढ़िए जो वर्षा ऋतु और मोर के नाचने से संबंधित हों।
उत्तर
वर्षा ऋतु
NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 15 नीलकंठ (महादेवी वर्मा) 1

अनुमान और कल्पना

प्रश्न 1.
निबंध में आपने ये पंक्तियाँ पढ़ी हैं-‘मैं अपने शाल में लपेटकर उसे संगम ले गई। जब गंगा की बीच धार में उसे प्रवाहित किया गया तब उसके पंखों की चंद्रिकाओं से बिंबित-प्रतिबिंबित होकर गंगा का चौड़ा पाट एक विशाल मयूर के समान तरंगित हो उठा।’-इन पंक्तियों में एक भावचित्र है। इसके आधार पर कल्पना कीजिए और लिखिए कि मोरपंख की चंद्रिका और गंगा की लहरों में क्या-क्या समानताएँ लेखिका ने देखी होंगी जिसके कारण गंगा का चौड़ा पाट एक विशाल मयूर पंख के समान तरंगित हो उठा।
उत्तर
गंगा और यमुना के श्वेत-श्याम जल का मिलन प्रात:काल के सूर्य की किरणों से जब सतरंगी दिखाई देता है तो दूर-दूर तक किसी मयूर के नृत्य का दृश्य प्रस्तुत करता है। जो अत्यंत लुभावना व मनमोहक होता है। मानो महादेवी को अपने नीलकंठ का नृत्य स्मरण हो आया हो जो लहरों में सजीव हो उठा।

प्रश्न 2.
नीलकंठ की नृत्य-भंगिमा का शब्दचित्र प्रस्तुत करें।
उत्तर-
नीलकंठ को वर्षा ऋतु सबसे प्रिय है। वर्षा ऋतु के मेघों का उमड़ना-घुमड़ना उसके मन के भावों को आंदोलित कर देता है। मेघों की बरसती बूंदें उसके पैरों में गति ला देती है। मेघ जितना अधिक गरजता है बिजली उतनी अधिक चमकती है, बूंदों की रिमझिम जितनी अधिक तीव्र होती थी उतनी ही नीलकंठ का नृत्य तीव्र होता जाता था। वह अपने इंद्रधनुषी गुच्छे जैसे पंखों को मंडलाकार बना कर नाचता था। उसके नृत्य में एक सहजात लय-ताल रहता था।

भाषा की बात

प्रश्न 1.
‘रूप’ शब्द से कुरूप, स्वरूप, बहुरूप आदि शब्द बनते हैं। इसी प्रकार नीचे लिखे शब्दों से अन्य शब्द बताओ
गंध, रंग, फल, ज्ञान
उत्तर-
गंध – गंधहीन, सुगंध, दुर्गंध
रंग – रंगहीन, रंगीला, रंगीन, बदरंग
फल – फलहीन, फलदार, सफल, निष्फल
ज्ञान – ज्ञानहीन, ज्ञानवान, विज्ञान, ज्ञानी अज्ञानी।

प्रश्न 2.
विस्मयाभिभूत शब्द विस्मय और अभिभूत दो शब्दों के योग से बना है। इसमें विस्मय के यु के साथ अभिभूत के अ के मिलने से या हो गया है। अ आदि वर्ण हैं। ये सभी वर्ण-ध्वनियों में व्याप्त हैं। व्यंजन वर्गों में इसके योग को स्पष्ट रूप से देखा जा सकता है, जैसे—क् + अ = क इत्यादि। अ की मात्रा के चिह्न (T) से आप परिचित हैं। अ की भाँति किसी शब्द में आ के भी जुड़ने से अकार की मात्रा ही लगती है, जैसे-मंडल + आकार = मंडलाकार। मंडल और आकार की संधि करने पर (जोड़ने पर) मंडलाकार शब्द बनता है और मंडलाकार शब्द का विग्रह करने पर (तोड़ने पर) मंडल और आकार दोनों अलग होते हैं। नीचे दिए गए शब्दों के संधि-विग्रह कीजिए-
संधि                                                                                विग्रह
नील + आभ = …………..                                                     सिंहासन = ………………
नव + आगंतुक = …………..                                                 मेघाच्छन्न = ………………
उत्तर
नील + आभ = नीलाभ                                                      सिंहासन = सिंह + आसन
नव + आगंतुक = नवागंतुक                                               मेघाच्छन्न = मेघ+आच्छन्न

कुछ करने को

प्रश्न 1.
चयनित व्यक्ति/पशु/पक्षी की खास बातों को ध्यान में रखते हुए एक रेखा चित्र बनाइए।
उत्तर-
छात्र स्वयं करें।

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NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 5 Pastoralists in the Modern World

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 5 Pastoralists in the Modern World

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 5 Pastoralists in the Modern World. Free PDF download of NCERT solutions for Class 9 Social Science (India and the Contemporary World – I) Chapter 5 – Pastoralists in the Modern World. All questions are explained by the expert Social Science teacher and as per NCERT (CBSE) guidelines.

Question 1.
Explain why nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another. What are the advantages to the environment of this continuous movement?
Answer:
Nomadic tribes have to move from place to place to earn their living and to find pastures for their animals. All of them had to adjust to seasonal changes and make effective use of available pastures in different places. When the pasture was exhausted or unusable in one place, they moved their herds and flocks to new areas.
This continuous movement was advantageous to their environment.

  1. The pastoral movements allowed time for the natural restoration of vegetation growth.
  2. The flocks manured the fields.

Question 2.
Discuss why the colonial government in India brought in the following laws. In each case, explain how the laws changed the lives of pastoralists- Waste Land Rules, Forest Acts, Criminal Tribes Act, Grazing Tax.
Answer:
Waste Land Rules: To colonial officials all uncultivated land was unproductive, it produced neither revenue nor agricultural produce. It was considered as a wasteland, which had to be brought under the plough. Wasteland rules were enacted in the mid-19th century in many parts of the country. By these rules uncultivated land was taken over and given to select individuals. In most places, the land taken over was the grazing tracts used by the pastoralists. So the expansion of cultivation meant less pastures for the animals.

Forest Acts: In the mid-19th century various Forest Acts were enacted in different provinces. Through these Acts forests were divided into Reserved Forests and Protected Forests. The pastoralists had no access to the Reserved Forests. In the Protected Forests, some grazing rights were given to the pastoralists but their movement was restricted. The colonial officals believed that grazing destroyed the saplings and flocks munched away the shoots.

The Forest Acts changed the lives of the pastoralists. They were prevented from entering many forests, that had earlier provided good pastures. The pastoralists now needed a permit for entry. It specified the period during which they could stay in the forest. If they overstayed, they were fined. They had to leave the forest, even when forage was available.

Criminal Tribes Act 1871: The colonial government wanted to rule over a settled population. They wanted them to live in fixed places, with fixed rights on particular fields. Such a population could be ruled easily. Settled population was seen as peace loving and law abiding. The colonial people were suspicious of nomadic and pastoral tribes, who moved from place to place and hawkeld their goods. They had no fixed place of residence and moved every season to find pasture for the animals.

In 1871, the colonial government passed the Criminal Tribes Act. According to this Act many communities of pastoralists, craftsmen and traders were classified as Criminal Tribes. These communities had to live only in notified village settlements. They were not allowed to move out without a permit. The police kept a continuous watch on these people.

Grazing Tax: The aim of the colonial government was to collect as much revenue as possible, so tax was imposed on land, water, salt, trade goods and animals. By 1880, each pastoralist was given a pass. Each cattle herder had to pay tax for each cattle head. The amount paid was entered on the pass.

Question 3.
Give reasons to explain why the Maasai community lost their grazing lands.
Answer:
The Maasai community lost their grazing lands because:

  1. Before colonial times, Maasailand stretched over vast area from north Kenya to the steppes of northern Tanzania. In the late 19th century, the European powers scrambled for territorial possessions in Africa. Africa was soon divided between the European powers. In 1885, Maasailand was cut into half with an international boundary between British Kenya and German Tanganyika. The best grazing lands were gradually taken over for White settlement. The Maasai remained in a small area. The Maasai lost 60 per cent of their pre-colonial lands. They were pushed to arid land with little rainfall and poor pastures.
  2. From the late 19th century, British colonial government in east Africa encouraged the peasants to expand cultivation. As a result pasturelands were converted into cultivated lands.
  3. Large areas of grazing maasailand was converted into game reserves like Maasai Mara and Samburu National Park in Kenya and Serengeti Park in Tanzania. Pastoratists could not enter the reserves, they could neither graze their animals nor hunt animals.

Question 4.
There are similarities in the way in which the modern world forced changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa. Write about any two examples of changes which were similar for Indian pastoralists and the Maasai herders.
Answer:
The problems faced by the Indian pastoralist due to the enforcement of the Wasteland Rules was similar to the problem faced by the Maasai community in Africa. The British Colonial government in East Africa encouraged the local peasant communities to expand cultivation. Pasturelands were turned into cultivated fields and the Maasai community lost its grazing fields. Similarly, under the Wasteland Rules, pastoral land was taken from the pastoralists and given to a local individuals who in turn brought the land under cultivation. The Maasais and the Indian pastoralists lost their grazing grounds.

Yet another problem faced by the Maasais and the Indian pastoralists was the restriction that was imposed on them by the colonist. The Indian Forest Acts, restricted the Indian pastoralist from entering the reserved forests which were rich in pasture. Similarly, the colonist in East Africa converted grazing land into Game Reserves. The pastoralists were not allowed to enter these Reserves. The pastoral communities in India and East Africa had to endure many hardships as the demands of the modern world grew increasingly.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 6 Peasants and Farmers

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 6 Peasants and Farmers

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 6 Peasants and Farmers. Free PDF download of NCERT solutions for Class 9 Social Science (India and the Contemporary World – I) Chapter 6 Peasants and Farmers. All questions are explained by the expert Social Science teacher and as per NCERT (CBSE) guidelines.

Question 1.
Explain briefly what the open field system meant to rural people in eighteenth-century England.
Look at the system from the point of view of:
(a) A rich farmer:
Ans. The open-field system was not beneficial to the rich farmer because he could not have exclusive control of the commons. He could not expand his area under cultivation beyond the strips which were allocated at the beginning of the year.

(b) A labourer:
Ans. This system was beneficial to labourer because it provided additional sources of livelihood. The labourer could hunt rabbits and catch fish for getting some nutritious food. The commons provided some source of livelihood during off-seasons when farm work was not available. They pastured their cows and grazed their sheep.

(c) A peasant woman:
Ans. For a peasant woman, the commons provided ample space for collecting firewood, fruits, and berries.

Question 2.
Explain briefly the factors which led to the enclosures in England.
Answer:
Individual landlords usually created the early enclosures. The state or the church did not support them. After the mid-eighteenth century, however, the enclosure movement swept through the countryside, changing the English landscape forever. Between 1750 and 1850, 6 million acres of land was enclosed. The British Parliament no longer watched this process from a distance. It passed 4,000 acts legalising these enclosures. The new enclosures were different from the old. Unlike the sixteenth-century enclosures that promoted sheep farming, the land being enclosed in the late eighteenth century was for grain production. The new enclosures were happening in a different context; they became a sign of a changing time.

Question 3.
Why were threshing machines opposed by the poor in England?
Answer:
Threshing machines reduced the need for manual labour. After the end of the Napoleonic Wars, many soldiers who came back to villages could not find jobs because of threshing machines. For them, the threshing machine was a symbol of joblessness and hence they opposed the threshing machines.

Question 4.
Who was Captain Swing? What did the name symbolise or represent?
Answer:
Captain Swing was a mythical person. During the riots, the letters seeking to destroy threshing machines and farmhouses left by the rioters-carried the signature of Captain Swing. The name symbolised the protest of the poor against the rich farmers and against the new technology.

Question 5.
What was the impact of the westward expansion of settlers in the USA?
Answer:
By the early twentieth century, this landscape had transformed radically. White Americans had moved westward and established control up to the west coast, displacing local tribes and carving out the entire landscape into different agricultural belts. The USA had come to dominate the world market in agricultural produce. The story of agrarian expansion is closely connected to the westward movement of the white settlers who took over the land.

After the American War of Independence from 1775 to 1783 and the formation of the United States of America, the white Americans began to move westward. By the time Thomas Jefferson became President of the USA in 1800, over 700,000 white settlers had moved on to the Appalachian plateau through the passes. Seen from the east coast, America seemed to be a land of promise. Its wilderness could be turned into cultivated fields.

Question 6.
What were the advantages and disadvantages of the use of mechanical harvesting machines in the USA?
Answer:
Advantages and Disadvantages
For the big farmers of the Great Plains, the mechanical harvesting machines had many attractions. The prices of wheat were high and the demand seemed limitless. The new machines allowed these big farmers to rapidly clear large tracts, break up the soil, remove the grass and prepare the ground for cultivation. The work could be done quickly and with a minimal number of hands. With power-driven machinery, four men could plough, seed, and harvest 2,000 to 4,000 acres of wheat in a season.

For the poorer farmers, machines brought misery. Many of them bought these machines, imagining that wheat prices would remain high and profits would flow in. If they had no money, the banks offered loans. Those who borrowed found it difficult to pay back their debts. Many of them deserted their farms and looked for jobs elsewhere. But jobs were difficult to find.

Mechanisation had reduced the need for labor. And the boom of the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries seemed to have come to an end by the mid- the 1920s. After that, most farmers faced trouble. Production had expanded so rapidly during the war and post-war years that there was a large surplus. Unsold stocks piled up, storehouses overflowed with grain, and vast amounts of corn and wheat were turned into animal feed. Wheat prices fell and export markets collapsed. This created the grounds for the Great Agrarian Depression of the 1930s that ruined wheat farmers everywhere.

Question 7.
What lessons can we draw from the conversion of the countryside in the USA from a bread basket to a dust bowl?
Answer:
The conversion of the US countryside from a bread basket to a dust bowl teaches the importance of conservation of the ecosystem. Human development cannot take place at the cost of the natural environment. We need to respect nature and maintain its form in every possible way.

Question 8.
Write a paragraph on why the British insisted on farmers growing opium in India.
Answer:
The British were heavily dependent on China for tea imports. Since the Chinese authority did not allow foreign goods, so the British had to pay for tea in silver and billions. This had the potential danger of empting off the treasure of Britain. Opium was sought to be the commodity that could be easily smuggled into China. Profits from opium trade could thus be utilised to finance the tea imports. Therefore, the British insisted on farmers in India to grow opium.

Question 9.
Why were Indian farmers reluctant to grow opium?
Answer:
The Indian farmers were reluctant to grow opium, as they wanted to produce opium at a cheap rate and sell it at a high price to opium agents in Calcutta, who then shipped it to China. This difference between the buying and selling price was the government’s opium revenue. The prices given to the peasants were so low that by the early eighteenth century angry peasants began agitating for higher prices and refused to take advances. In regions around Benaras, cultivators began giving up opium cultivation. They produced sugarcane and potatoes instead. Many cultivators sold off their crop to traveling traders (pykars) who offered higher prices.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Climate

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Climate

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Climate.

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?
(a) Silchar
(b) Mawsynram
(c) Cherrapunji
(d) Guwahati
Ans:
(b) Mawsynram

(ii) The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as:
(a) Kaal Baisakhi
(b) Loo
(c) TVade Winds
(d) None of the above
Ans:
(b) Loo

(iii) Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in north-western part of India,
(a) Cyclonic depression
(b) Retreating monsoon
(c) Western disturbances
(d) Southwest monsoon
Ans:
(c) Western disturbances

(iv) Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:
(a) Early May
(b) Early July
(c) Early June
(d) Early August
Ans:
(c) Early June

(v) Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?
(a) Warm days and warm nights
(b) Warm days and cold nights
(c) Cool days and cold nights
(d) Cold days and warm nights
Ans:
(c) Cool days and cold nights

Question 2.
Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What are the factors affecting the climate of India?
Ans:
The factors controlling the climate of India are:

  • Latitude
  • Altitude
  • Pressure and winds (jet streams)
  • Distance from the sea
  • Relief or mountains

(ii) Why does India have a monsoon type of climate?
Ans:
India has a monsoon type of climate because of the strong influence of the monsoon winds over the sub-continent. The summer monsoons cause heavy rainfall when they blow from sea to land. The winter monsoon winds blow from the interior of the continent to the sea and do not cause much rain. There is a seasonal reversal of the wind system ‘monsoon’.

(iii) Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why?
Ans:
The Thar desert experiences the highest diurnal range of temperature. This is because during the day the temperature rises to over 50°C, and at night due to the absence of the sun and lack vegetation the temperature drops to below 15°C the same night.

(iv) Which winds account for rainfall along the Malabar Coast?
Ans:
Arabian Sea Branch of the South West summer Monsoons.

(v) What are jet streams and how do they affect the climate of India?
Ans:
Jet streams are a narrow belt of high altitude (above 12,000 m) westerly winds in the troposphere. Their speed varies from about 110 km/h in summer to about 184 km/h in winter. A number of jet streams exist but the most constant are the mid-latitude and the sub-tropical jet stream. The jet streams located over 27°-30° north latitudes are known as subtropical westerly jet streams. These jet streams blow south of the Himalayas throughout the year except in summer. These are responsible for the western cyclonic disturbances experienced in the north and north western parts of the country. These jet streams move north of the Himalayas with the apparent migration of the sun.
During the summers at about 14°N, an easterly jet stream called the subtropical easterly jet stream blows over peninsular India.

(vi) Define monsoons. What do you understand by “break” in monsoon?
Ans:
The word monsoon has been derived from the Arabic word ‘mausim’ which means season. In this season the winds blow from land to sea for 6 months and from sea to land for 6 months. The break in the monsoon rainfall refers to the dry spells when the monsoon rain takes place
only for a few days at a time. These breaks are related to the movement of the monsoon trough. When the axis of the monsoon trough lies over the plains, then the rainfall is heavier there. When the trough moves towards the Himalayas, the plains are dry but there is heavy rainfall occur over the mountains.

(vii) Why is the monsoon considered a unifying bond?
Ans:
The subcontinent of India has a great variation in temperature conditions, despite the moderating influence created by other factors. The monsoons have a unifying influence as the rainfall that is caused affects the entire country. Water is thus supplied for agricultural activities as well as to the rivers for use all over the country. The monsoons thus bind the entire continent, where all wait eagerly for their arrival.

Question 3.
Why does the rainfall decrease from the east to the west in Northern India?
Answer:
The low-pressure area in India lies in the northwest, towards which the South West Monsoon winds are attracted. After depositing moisture in south India, the Bay of Bengal branch of the South West Monsoons strikes the Khasi – Garo Hills. After causing heavy rainfall on the windward slopes, these winds turn westwards because of the presence of the lofty Himalayas. These winds then keep depositing rainfall they go up the Ganga valley towards the low-pressure area. The rainfall deposited thus keeps on decreasing as the winds proceed from east to west in Northern India, as this is the last region to be affected by the monsoons.

Question 4.
Give reasons as to why:

(i) Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian subcontinent?
Ans:
Land and water are of different densities, so the rate of heating and cooling varies. The Indian subcontinent is surrounded by water on three sides. In summer the land mass of India is warmer than the surrounding sea, therefore there is low pressure. The sea is cooler, thereby having higher pressure. So the winds blow from sea to land.
In winter the land has high pressure while the sea has low pressure. Therefore, the winds blow towards the sea. Thus a seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place.

(ii) The bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.
Ans:
In India the bulk of the rainfall is concentrated over a few months. The main source of rainfall is the monsoon wind which blows when there is intense low pressure on the land. The surrounding waterbody is cool and has high pressure. This ideal temperature and pressure is caused in May, when the rain falls between June – September and it becomes cooler (high pressure). Rest of the year is practically dry.

(iii) The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall winds.
Ans:
During the winter season the Tamil Nadu coast receives rain from the north east Monsoon which blow from land to sea. They do not cause any rain in the northern part of the country. But while crossing the Bay of Bengal they pick up moisture-and cause rain on the eastern coat of south India, mainly the Tamil Nadu coast.

(iv) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
Ans:
The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones as the low pressure conditions over north western India get transferred to the Bay the Bengal by early November. This shift is responsible for the occurrence of cyclonic depressions which originate over the Andaman sea. These then cross the eastern coast causing heavy widespread rain leading to great damage to life and property.

(v) Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought-prone.
Ans:
Relief/Mountains play an important role in the distribution of rainfall in India. The moisture laden winds (South West Monsoons) cause heavy rain on the windward slopes of the Western Ghats and Khasi-Garo hills. As the winds cross over to the leeward slopes, there is less rainfall as most of it has been deposited on the slope facing the winds. All the area on the leeward side is deprived of rain and is drought prone. Rajasthan also lies in the rain shadow of the Aravalli hills.

Question 5.
Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable examples.
Answer:
There is a great regional variation in the climatic conditions of India (mainly temperature and rainfall). In summer, the temperature rises above 50°C in some parts of Rajasthan while in Jammu and Kashmir it is about 20°C. The temperature in Drass during winters goes down to even minus 45°C while at Thiruvananthapuram it is 22°C.
The precipitation varies from over 400 cm in Meghalaya to less than 10 cm in Ladakh and western Rajasthan. While the precipitation in most of India is in the form of rain, the mountains experience snowfall. The larger part of the country receives rain between June to September. Parts of Tamil Nadu receive rain between November and December. Coastal regions have a moderate climate whereas areas in the interior have an extreme or continental climate.

Question 6.
Discuss the mechanism of monsoons.
Answer:
The following facts are important to understand the mechanism of the monsoons.

  • The difference in the heating and cooling rate of land and water bodies. In summer there is low pressure on the land and high pressure in the sea.
  • The shift of the position of the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone in summer over the Northern Plains (its normal position is about 5°N of the Equator).
  • The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, affects the Indian Monsoons.
  • The intense heating of the Tibetan plateau in summer causing low pressure.
  • The movement of the westerly and easterly jet stream over the Indian peninsular during summer.

Question 7.
Give an account of weather conditions and characteristics of the cold season.
Answer:
During the cold season, the skies are clear, temperatures and humidity are low and the winds are feeble and variable.
The temperature is higher in the south due to the moderating influence of the sea but decreases as one goes northwards where it ranges between 10° and 15° Celsius. Frost is common in the north and there is snowfall in the higher slopes of the Himalayas. Winds blow from land to sea and are dry except when they pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal and cause rainfall in Tamil Nadu.

A characteristic feature of the cold weather season is the low-pressure system which enters northwest India from the Mediterranean Sea. These are also known as the temperate or westerly depression cyclones and cause winter rain and snowfall in the hills/mountains. This rain is beneficial for the growth of ‘Rabi’ crops.

Question 8.
Give the characteristics and effects of the monsoon rainfall in India.
Answer:
The monsoon rain has certain characteristics which make it unique.
(a) Monsoon winds are unreliable, as the exact time of arrival and departure is not the same year after year.
(b) The rainfall is unevenly distributed. Certain areas receive heavy rainfall (windward slopes of the Western Ghats) while in other areas the rainfall is less (Thar Desert), causing floods and droughts.
(c) The monsoon rain is concentrated within the three months (June – September) of the year while the rest of the year is more or less dry.
(d) There is a seasonal reversal of winds.
The monsoon rains are important in India and its effect can be seen when they arrive. All over the country people eagerly wait for its arrival. The farmers are ready to sow their seeds and the agricultural activities begin. Water is provided to the rivers which carry it to different parts of the country. Plants and animals rejuvenate with the coming of the monsoons. The supply of water through rivers is very important for the generation of power.

Map Skills

Question 9.
On an outline map of India, show the following.
(i) Areas receiving rainfall over 400 cm.
(ii) Areas receiving less than 20 cm of rainfall.
(iii) The direction of the South-West Monsoon over India.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Climate img-1

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NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 1 The French Revolution

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 1 The French Revolution

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 1 The French Revolution. Free PDF download of NCERT solutions for Class 9 Social Science (India and the Contemporary World – I) Chapter 1 – The French Revolution. All questions are explained by the expert Social Science teacher and as per NCERT (CBSE) guidelines.

Question 1.
Describe the circumstances leading to the outbreak of revolutionary protest in France?
Answer:
The following circumstances led to the outbreak of revolutionary protest in France:

  1. Louis XVI was an autocratic ruler who could not compromise with his luxurious life. He also lacked farsightedness.
  2. When he ascended the throne the royal treasury was empty. Long years of war had drained the financial resources of France. Added to this was the cost of maintaining an extravagant court at the immense palace of Versailles.
  3. Under Louis XVI France helped the thirteen American colonies to gain their independence from Britain the war added more than a billion lives to a dept credit, now began to charge 10% interest on loans. So the French government was obliged to spend an increasing percentage of its budget on interest payments alone.
  4. The state finally increased taxes to meet its regular expenses such as the cost of maintaining an army, running government offices and universities.
  5. The French society was divided into three estates but only members of the first two estates i.e,, the clergy and the nobles were exempted to pay taxes. They belonged to the privileged classes. Thus the burden of financing activities of the state through taxes was borne by the third estate only.
  6. The middle class that emerged in the 18th century France was educated and enlightened. They refuted the theory of divine rights of the kings and absolute monarchy. They believed that a person’s social position must depend on his merit. They had access to the various ideas of equality and freedom proposed by philosophers like John Locke, Jean Jacques Rousseau, Montesquieu etc. Their ideas got popularised among the common mass as a result of intensive discussions and debates in saloons and coffee houses and through books and newspapers.
  7. The French administration was extremely corrupt. It did not give weightage to the French Common man.
    The state finally increased taxes to meet its regular expenses such as the cost of maintaining an army, running government offices and universities.

Question 2.
Which groups of French society benefited from the revolution? Which groups were forced to relinquish power? Which sections of society would have been disappointed with the outcome of the revolution?
Answer:

  1. The wealthy class of the third estate which came to be known as the new middle class of France benefited the most from the revolution. This group comprised of big businessmen, petty officers, lawyers, teachers, doctors and traders. Previously, these people had to pay state taxes and they did not enjoy equal status. But after the revolution they began to be treated equally with the upper sections of the society.
  2. With the abolition of feudal system of obligation and taxes, the clergy and the nobility came on the same level with the middle class. They were forced to give up their privileges. Their executive powers were also taken away from them.
  3. The poorer sections of the society, i.e. small peasants, landless labourers, servants, daily wage earners would have been disappointed with the outcome of the revolution. Women also would have been highly discontented.

Question 3.
Describe the legacy of the French Revolution for the peoples of the world during the nineteenth and the twentieth centuries.
Answer:
The French Revolution proved to be the most important event in the history of the world.

  1. The ideas of liberty and democratic rights were the most important legacy of the French Revolution. These ideas became an umpiring force for the political movements in the world in the 19th and 20th centuries.
  2. The ideas of liberty, equality and fraternity spread from France to the rest of Europe, where feudal system was finally abolished.
  3. Colonised people reworked on the idea of freedom from bondage into their movements to Create a sovereign nation state.
  4. The idea of Nationalism that emerged after the French Revolution started becoming mass movements all over the world. Now people began to question the absolute power.
  5. The impact of the French Revolution would be seen in India too. Tipu Sultan and Raja Rammohan Roy got deeply influenced by the ideas of the revolution. In the end, we can say that after the French Revolution people all over the world became aware of their rights.

Question 4.
Draw up a list of democratic rights we enjoy today whose origins could be traced to the French Revolution.
Answer:
Some of the democratic rights which we enjoy today can be traced to the French Revolution are as follows:

  1. Right to equality including equality before law, prohibition of discrimination and equality of opportunity in matters of employment.
  2. Right to freedom of speech and expression including right to practice any profession or occupation.
  3. Right against exploitation.
  4. Right to life.
  5. Right to vote.

Question 5.
Would you agree with the view that the message of universal rights was beset with contradictions? Explain.
Answer:

  1. The message of universal rights was definitely beset with contradictions. Many ideals of the “Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen” were not at all clear. They had dubious meanings.
  2. The French Revolution could not bring economic equality and it is the fact that unless there is economic equality, real equality cannot be received at any sphere. The Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen laid stress on equality but large section of the society was denied to it. The right to vote and elect their representatives did not solve the poor man’s problem.
  3. Women were still regarded as passive citizens. They did not have any political rights such as right to vote and hold political offices like men. Hence, their struggle for equal political rights continued.
  4. France continued to hold and expand colonies. Thus, its image as a liberator could not last for a long time.
  5. Slavery existed in France till the first half of the 19th century.

Question 6.
How would you explain the rise of Napoleon?
Answer:

  1. The political instability of the Directory paved the way for the rise of Napoleon Bonaparte Napoleon had achieved glorious victories in wars. This made France realise that only a military dictator like Napoleon would restore a stable government.
  2. In 1804, he crowned himself the emperor of France. He set out to conquer neighbouring European countries, dispossessing dynasties and creating kingdoms where he placed members of his family. Napoleon viewed himself as a moderniser of Europe.
  3. He introduced many laws such as the protection of private property and a uniform system of weight and measures provided by the decimal system. But his rise to power did not last for a long time. He was finally defeated at Waterloo in 1815.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India.

Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as
(a) Coast
(b) Island
(c) Peninsula
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c) Peninsula

(ii) Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectivity called
(a) Himachal
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Purvachal
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c) Purvachal

(iii) The western coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as
(a) Coromandel
(b) Konkan
(c) Kannad
(d) Northern Circar
Ans. (c) Kannad

(iv) The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is
(a) Anai Mudi
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Khasi
Ans. (c) Mahendragiri

Question 2.
Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What are tectonic plates?
Ans. Large fragments of the earth’s crust torn due to the rising convectional currents are called tectonic plates.

(ii) Which continents of today were part of the Gondwana land?
Ans. The continents are South America, South Africa, Australia and Antarctica.

(iii) What is the bhabar?
Ans. Bhabar is a narrow belt of the Ganga plain covered with pebbles lies along the foothills of the Shiwaliks.

(iv) Name the three major divisions of the Himalayas from north to south.
Ans. (a) The Greater Himalayas or Himadri (Inner Himalayas)
(b) Himachal or Lesser Himalayas (Middle Himalayas)
(c) The Shiwaliks (Outer Himalayas)

(v) Which plateau lies between the Aravali and the Vindhyan ranges?
Ans. Malwa plateau lies between the Aravali and the Vindhyan range.

(vi) Name the island group of India having coral origin.
Ans. Lakshadweep islands is the island group having coral origin.

Question 3.
Distinguish between:

(i) Converging and diverging tectonic plates
Ans:

Converging Plates Diverging Plates
(a) When tectonic plates come towards each other,they are called converging plates. (a) When tectonic plates move away from each other, they are called diverging plates.
(b) When they come towards each other, they either collide and crumble or one of them slides under the other. (b) When they move away from each other, they do not collide or crumble.
(c) Converging plates cause folding. (c) The diverging plates cause cracks or fractures on the earth’s curst.

(ii) Bhangar and Khadar
Ans:

Bhangar Khadar
(a) This is a highland composed of old alluvium. (a) This is a lowland composed of new alluvium.
(b) It is always above the level of flood plain. (b) It is flooded almost every year and new alluvium is deposited.
(c) It is often saturated with calcareous nodules known as kankar. (c) It is often characterised by clay soil, which is very fertile.
(d) This is not much suited for cultivation. (d) It is ideal for intensive agriculture.

(iii) Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
Ans:

Western Ghats Eastern Ghats
(a) Western Ghats mark the western edge of the Deccan Plateau. (a) Eastern Ghats mark the eastern edge of the Deccan Plateau.
(b) They are continuous and can only be crossed through passes only, e.g., Pal Ghat, Bhor Ghat etc. (b) They are discontinuous and irregular and have been dissected by the rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal.
(c) They lie parallel to the Western coast along the Arabian Sea. (c) They lie along the eastern coast along the Bay of Bengal.
(d) They are higher in south and the height increases towards the south. (d) They are higher in the north and the height increases towards the north.
(e) Average height is between 900 m to 1600 m. (e) Average height is 600 m.
(f) The highest peak is Anai Mudi with height of 2,695 m above sea level. (f) The highest peak is Mahendragiri with height of 1,501 m above the sea level.

Question 4.
Describe how the Himalayas were formed.
Answer:
(a) The oldest landmass of India (i.e. Peninsular part) was a part of Gondwana land, which included India, Australia, South Africa and South America as one single landmass.
(b) Convectional currents split the earth’s crust into’a number of fragments, thereby leading to the drifting of the Indo – Australian plate towards the north after being separated from Gondwana land.
(c) The northward drift resulted in the collision of this plate with much larger Eurasian plate.
(d) Due to this collision, the sedimentary rocks which were accumulated in the geosyncline called the Tethys, were folded to form the mountain systems of west Asia and Himalayas.
(e) The Himalayas represent a youthful topography with high peaks, deep valleys and fast-flowing rivers.

Question 5.
Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of the Himalayan region with that of the Peninsular plateau.
Answer:
The major physiographic divisions of India are:

  • The Himalayan Mountains
  • The Northern Plains of India
  • The Peninsular Plateau
  • The Indian Desert
  • The Coastal Plains
  • The Islands
Relief of Himalayan Region Relief of Peninsular Plateau
(a) Himalayas are young fold and loftiest mountains of the world comprising of several parallel ranges. (a) It is a high tableland made up of old crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks.
(b) They were formed due to folding of sedimentary rock strata in the bed of the Tethys Sea. (b) The Peninsular Plateau was born by breaking up of the Gondwana land.
(c) This region consists of the highest peaks of the world. Many of these peaks are above 6000 metres and snow covered throughout the year, e.g., Mt. Everest, Mt. K2 etc. (c) The hills of the Peninsular Plateau are rounded due to large scale erosion over a long period of time e.g., Aravalis and the Nilgiris etc.
(d) The Himalayas represent a youthful topography with high peaks, gorges, deep valleys and waterfalls. (d)The Peninsular Plateau represents a relief of rounded hills, broad and shallow valleys.

Question 6.
Give an account of the Northern Plains of India.
Answer:

  1. (a) The Northern Plains of India are alluvial plains of India. They are formed by the sediments brought from the mountains and deposited by the rivers in the depression formed after the uplift of the Himalayas namely the Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
  2. (b) The plains spreads over an area of 7 lakh sq. km. The length of this plain is 2,400 km long and 240 km broad.
  3. (c) It is densely populated and intensely cultivated area.
  4. (d) With adequate water supply and favourable climate, it is agriculturally a very productive part of India.
  5. (e) The Northern Plains of India are divided into three divisions.
    • Punjab Plains covers the western part of the Northern plains. They are formed by Indus river and its tributaries.
    • Ganga Plains extends between Ghaggar and the Teesta river, spread over the states of Haryana, Delhi, UP, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.
    • The Brahmaputra Plain lies to the east of the Ganga plains. It covers the area of Assam.

Question 7.
Write short notes on the following:

(a) The Indian Desert
Ans. (a) The Indian desert lies to the west of the Aravali hills. It is an uneven sandy plain covered with sand dunes.
(b) Barchans (crescent-shaped sand dunes) cover a larger part of the desert. Near the Indo-Pakistan border, longitudinal sand dunes are more common.
(c) It has arid climate with scarce vegetation and rainfall below 150 mm per year.
(d) Rivers/streams appear only during the rainy season and soon afterward disappear in the sand. They do not have enough water to reach the sea. JRiver Luni is the only large river in this area.

(b) The Central Highlands
Ans. (a) The Part of the Peninsular plateau lying north of the Narmada river is called Central Highlands. These highlands are made up of hard igneous and metamorphic rocks.
(b) It is bordered by Aravali range to the north-west. The Central Highlands include the Malwa plateau to the west and Chotanagpur plateau to the east.
(c) The Central Highlands are wider in the west and become narrow eastwards. The eastward extension of the Malwa plateau is locally called Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand. Chotanagpur plateau in the east is drained by Damodar river, a southern tributary of Ganga river.

(c) The Island Groups of India
Ans. India has two groups of islands namely:
(a) Lakshadweep Islands
(b) Andaman and Nicobar islands group

Lakshadweep Islands:
(a) These island groups are located in the Arabian Sea i.e., west of Malabar coast of Kerala.
(b) These islands are of coral origin formed by deposition of the dead remains,
(c) The total area of islands are 32 sq km. In Lakshadweep, administrative headquarters is in Kavaratti islands.
(d) They have a wide diversity of flora and fauna. The Pitti island, an uninhabited island has a bird sanctuaiy.

Andaman and Nicobar Island:
(a) These islands are located in the Bay of Bengal are the raised portion of the submerged mountain ranges projecting out of the sea water.
(b) Large in size and are more numerous. Some of them are of volcanic origin e.g. Barren island the only active volcano,
(c) These islands are of strategic importance as it lies very close to south-east Asia,
(d) The capital city is Port Blair,
(e) Experience equatorial climate and has thick forest cover.

Question 8.
On an outline map of India show the following.
(i) Mountain and hill ranges – the Karakoram, the Zaskar, the Patkai Bum, the Jaintia, the Vindhya range, the Aravali and the Cardamom hills.
(ii) Peaks – K2, Kanchenjunga, Nanga Parbat and Anai Mudi.
(iii) Plateaus – Chotanagpur and Malwa
(iv) The Indian Desert, Western Ghats, Lakshadweep Islands.
Answer:
NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India img-1

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NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 3 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 3 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 3 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler. Free PDF download of NCERT solutions for Class 9 Social Science (India and the Contemporary World – I) Chapter 3 – Nazism and the Rise of Hitler. All questions are explained by the expert Social Science teacher and as per NCERT (CBSE) guidelines.

Question 1.
Describe the problems faced by the Weimar Republic.
Answer:
After the defeat of Imperial Germany, the Weimar Republic came into existence. The Republic had a democratic constitution and a federal structure. The Republic was not well received by the people.

The Weimar Republic faced many problems on all fronts- economic, social, and political. It was held responsible for the defeat in the First World War. The Republic had to pay war compensation and this put the Republic in deep financial crisis. Germany had fought the war largely on loans and had to pay war reparations in gold. Subsequently, gold reserves depleted and the value of the German Mark fell. The prices of essential commodities rose dramatically.

The Weimar Republic faced problems on the political front also. The constitution had many defects. The constitution gave the President the powers to impose emergency, suspend civil rights, and rule by decree.

The Weimar Republic had 20 different cabinets within a short span of time. Soon people lost confidence in the democratic parliamentary system.

Question 2.
Discuss why Nazism became popular in Germany by 1930.
Answer:
Nazism became popular in Germany by 1930 in the following manner.

  1. The crisis in the economy, politics and society led to the rise of Hitler. He joined the German Workers’ party in 1919 and took its organisation. He renamed it the National Socialist German Workers’ Party. It came to be known as the Nazi Party.
  2. Nazism became a mass movement during the Great Depression. After 1929 banks closed, workers lost their jobs and the middle class was threatened with poverty. Nazi propaganda gave hope of a better future. By 1932, the Nazi Party became the largest party in the Reichstag with 37 percent votes.
  3. Hitler was a powerful speaker. He could draw the attention of the people. He promised to build Germany into a strong nation, wipe out the humiliation of the Treaty of Versailles and restore the dignity of the Germans. He promised employment and better future for the youth.
  4. He understood the importance of show-biz. Massive rallies were held where he addressed the SA and SS columns. Public meetings were held to show support for Hitler and instill unity among the people.
    The red banners with the Swastika, Nazi salute, the ritualised round of applause were part of all meetings. Hitler was projected as a saviour, who would end all misery and restore the dignity of Germany and the German people.

Question 3.
What are the peculiar features of Nazi thinking?
Answer:
Nazi ideologies were

  • There is no equality among people.
  • The Nordic German Aryans were the best race.
  • the Jews were considered the lowest rate.
  • Nazism believed in the survival of the fittest.
  • New territories had to be captured to enhance the motherland.
  • New territories would enhance natural resources and make Germany a powerful nation.
  • When the Nazi Party came to power it began to implement these ideologies.

Question 4.
Explain why Nazi propaganda was effective in creating a hatred for Jews.
Answer:

  1. Jews remained the worst enemy in Nazi Germany. Hitler’s hatred for the Jews was based on the pseudoscientific theory that conversion was no solution for the Jews. They had to be exterminated. Form 1933 to 1938, they were segregated, from 1939 to 1945 they were place in certain areas and finally they were killed in gas chambers of Poland e.g. Auschwitz.
  2. Media was used to popularise Nazi thinking. Their ideas were popularised through films, radio, posters, caricatures, slogans and leaflets. The most notorious film made on the Jews was The Eternal Jew.
  3. Jews were shown with flowing beard and wearing kaftans. They were referred to as vermin, rats and pests. Nazism workedon the thinking of the people and turned their anger and hatred towards the ‘undesirables’.
  4. One of the posters, showed a Jew sitting on a big bag of money. The caption read, ‘Money is the God of the Jews. In order to earn money, he can commit the greatest crime’.

Question 5.
Explain what role women had in Nazi society. Return to Chapter 1 on the French Revolution. Write a paragraph comparing and contrasting the role of women in the two periods.
Answer:
In Nazi, Germany women were considered to be different from men. The Nazis did not believe in equal rights for men and women. They felt that equal rights would destroy society. Young women were told to become good mothers, look after the home and rear pure-blooded Aryan children. Women who deviated from the prescribed code of conduct were severely punished.

In direct contrast to the women in Nazi Germany, women in France asserted themselves during the French revolution. Numerous women’s clubs were formed. Women demanded equal rights as men. The government introduced laws to improve the lives of women. Education was made compulsory for girls. Unlike Nazi women who were confined to their homes, the French women were given the freedom to work and run businesses. The French women also won the right to vote which was denied to their Nazi counterparts.

Question 6.
In what ways did the Nazi state seek to establish total control over its people?
Answer:
Adolph Hitler became the Chancellor of Germany in 1933. He passed many laws to gain total control over his people. The Fire Decree was passed on 28th February 1933.

  • the Decree abolished freedom of speech, press, and assembly Concentration Camps were set up and the Communists were sent there.

The Enabling Act was passed on 3rd March 1933.

  • All other political parties were banned.
  • Nazi Party took complete control of the economy, media, army, and judiciary.
  • Hitler became a Dictator

Special Surveillance and Security forces were formed to control the people. The Police, the Storm Troopers, the Gestapo, the SS, and the Security Service were given extraordinary powers to control and order the society in ways the Nazis wanted. The police forces acquired powers to rule with impunity and soon the Nazi State established total control over its people.

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