Raju

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Towns, Traders, and Craftsperson with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Online Education for Towns, Traders, and Craftsperson Class 7 Extra Questions History Chapter 6

Class 7 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Who was the architect of Rajarajeshvara temple in Thanjavur?
Answer:
Kunjaramallan Rajaraja Perun- thachchan was the architect of Rajarajeshvara temple in Thanjavur.

Towns, Traders And Craftspersons Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 2.
Where were bronze idols made in south India?
Answer:
In the town of Svamimalai, sculptors (chapatis) made exquisite bronze idols and tall, ornamental bell metal lamps.

Class 7 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 3.
Which lake exists near Ajmer?
Answer:
The famous and ancient Pushkar lake exists near Ajmer.

Towns Traders And Craftspersons Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
Name two famous guilds of south Indian traders.
Answer:
The two famous guilds of south Indian traders were-Manigramam and Nanadesi.

Class 7 History Ch 6 Extra Questions Question 5.
Name some famous trading communities of the subcontinent.
Answer:
Chettiars, Marwari Oswal, Gujarati Baniyas, Muslim Bohras were some of the famous trading communities of the subcontinent.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 6.
What is the most significant aspect of the Hampi fort?
Answer:
In the construction of Hampi fort, no mortar or cementing agent was used. The wall was made by wedging Stone bricks together by interlocking.

Ncert Class 7 History Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 7.
Which festival was celebrated in the Virupaksha temple?
Answer:
The festival of Mahanavmi or Navaratri was one of the most important festivals celebrated in Virupaksha temple at Hampi.

Towns Traders And Craftspersons Extra Questions Question 8.
In the 17th century which European companies had their factories in Surat?
Answer:
In the 17th century, Portuguese, Dutch and English had their factories and warehouses at Surat.

Towns Traders And Craftspersons Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 9.
On which river, Masulipatnam town flourished?
Answer:
The town of Masulipatnam flourished on the delta of the Krishna river.

Towns, Traders And Craftspersons Class 7 Worksheets With Answers Question 10.
What was the significance of Surat hundis?
Answer:
The Surat hundis were honoured in the far-off markets of Cairo in Egypt, Basra in Iraq and Antwerp in Belgium.

Question 11.
Name the trading groups in Masulipatnam.
Answer:
The Golconda nobles, Persian merchants, Telugu Komati Chettis and European traders were the trading groups in Masulipatnam.

Question 12.
What was the “system of advances”?
Answer:
The system of advances, while system under which craftspersons like weavers were given advance payments so that they had to weave cloths for European agents only.

Question 13.
What were the main features of medieval towns?
Answer:
The main features of medieval towns were as under:

• The towns probably emerged from large villages.
• Towns had mandapika (or mandi of later times) to which nearby villages brought their produce to sell.
• Towns also had market streets called hatta lined with shops.
• There were streets for different kinds of artisans such as potters, oil pressers, sugarmakers, toddy makers, smiths, stonemasons, etc.

Question 14.
How was the architecture of Hampi distinctive?
Answer:
Due to following reasons, the architecture of Hampi was distinctive :

• The buildings in the royal complex had splendid arches, domes and pillared halls with niches for holding sculptures.
• There were well-planned orchards and pleasure gardens with sculptural motifs such as lotus and corbels.
• The Wall of Hampi fort was constructed without using mortar or cement. The technique of wedging bricks together by interlocking was used.

Question 15.
What were the causes of decline of Surat as a commercial town?
Answer:

• From 17th century onwards the town of Surat began to decline in the commercial activities.
• The main cause was loss of markets and productivity because of the decline of the Mughal Empire.
• Sea routes were controlled by Portuguese.
• The newly built Bombay port gave tough English competition to the port of Surat.
• East India Company shifted its headquarters to Bombay in 1668.

Question 16.
Why did Masulipatnam port decline?
Answer:

• The Dutch and English Companies had settled in Masulipatnam.
• But the Qutb Shahi rulers of Golconda exerted their influence on the trade and settlement in the port city of Masulipatnam.
• After Mughal occupation of Golconda, Mughal Governor Mir Jumla who was also a merchant, began to play off the Dutch and English against each other.
• Due to this the European Companies looked for alternatives and hence, they developed the port city of Madras.
• Thus, Masulipatnam lost both its merchants and prosperity and declined.

Question 17.
How was the Indian textile business affected when the European Companies entered in it?
Answer:
The Indian textile business was affected when the European Companies entered it in the following ways :

• The demand of Indian textiles increased manifolds.
• This led to a great expansion of the crafts of spinning, weaving, bleaching, dyeing, etc.
• The employment opportunities also increased.
• Indian textile designs became increasingly refined.
• But due to the system of advances, the independent craftspersons declined.
• Indian traders, weavers, and merchants had to live in “Black Towns” whereas “White” people lived in superior residencies of Fort St. George in Madras or Fort St. William in Calcutta.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. What type of towns existed in the medieval period?
(a) Temple towns
(b) Administrative centres
(c) Commercial centres
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

2. Who was the architect of Rajarajeshvara temple in Thanjavur?
(а) Kunjaramallan Rajaraja Perunthachchan
(b) Iltutmish
(c) King Rajaraja Chola
(d) Todar Mai.
Answer:
(а) Kunjaramallan Rajaraja Perunthachchan.

3. Which were the neighbouring towns of Thanjavur?
(a) Fatehpur Sikri, Agra and Mathura
(b) Uraiyur and Swamimalai
(c) Madras, Kanchipuram and Mahabalipuram
(d) Kamalapuram, Hampi and Bijapur
Answer:
(b) Uraiyur and Swamimalai.

4. Which one of the following important temple towns of Indian subcontinent emerged in the medieval period?
(а) Gaya in Bihar
(b) Ayodhya in Uttar Pradesh
(c) Vrindavan in Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajgir in Bihar.
Answer:
(c) Vrindavan in Uttar Pradesh.

5. Which one of the following famous and ancient lakes exists near Ajmer?
(a) Naini lake
(b) Pushkar lake
(c) Chilka lake
(d) Dal lake
Answer:
(b) Pushkar lake.

6. Which of the following were the famous guilds of South Indian traders?
(a) Manigramam
(b) Nanadesi
(c) Chettiars
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

7. Which of the following is the famous trading community of Indian subcontinent?
(a) Chettiars
(b) Marwari Oswal
(c) Muslim Bohras
(d) All of them.
Answer:
(d) All of them.

8. Which one of the following is the most important aspect of the Hampi city?
(а) Cementing agent was used for the first time.
(b) Mortgr was used for the first time.
(c) No mortar or cementing agent was used, but the wall was made by wedging stone bricks together by interlocking.
(d) The wall was made of steel plates
Answer:
(c) No mortar or cementing agent was used, but the wall was made by wedging stone bricks together by interlocking.

9. Which temple was constructed in Hampi?
(а) The Sun Temple
(b) The Virupaksha Temple
(c) The Ganga Temple
(d) The Vishnu Temple
Answer:
(b) The Virupaksha Temple.

10. In the seventeenth century, which European companies had their factories in Surat?
(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) English
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

11. Why did the Qutb Shahi rulers of Golconda impose royal monopolies on the sale of textiles, spices and other items?
(a) To control price rise.
(b) To prevent the trade passing completely into the hands of the various East India Companies.
(c) To increase agricultural production.
(d) To increase revenue.
Answer:
(b) To prevent the trade passing completely into the hands of the various East India Companies.

Important Years Or Periods:

1336: Vijayanagara empire was established.

1498:Vasco da Gama reached Calicut.

1556:Vijayanagara empire was defeated by Deccani Sultans – the rulers of Golconda, Bijapur, Ahmadnagar, Berar and Bidar.

1668:East India Company of Britain shifted its headquarters from Surat to Bombay.

1686-1687: Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb annexed Golconda.

Important Terms:

→  Emporium: A place where goods from diverse production centres are bought and sold.

→  Hundi: It is a note recording a deposit made by a person. The amount deposited can be claimed in another place by presenting the record of the deposit.

→  Factor: Official merchant of the East India, Company.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers India-Size and Location Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided India Size and Location Class 9 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-social-science/

Online Education for India-Size and Location Class 9 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 1

Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Name the island group of India lying in the Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Geography Class 9 Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 2.
Which island group of India lies to its south-west ?
Answer:
Lakshdweep.

India Size And Location Class 9 Extra Questions Question 3.
Which canal shortened the distance between India and Europe ?
Answer:
Suez canal.

Extra Questions For Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Question 4.
Which ocean will have to be crossed by a ship going from Singapore to Mogadishu. •
Answer:
Indian ocean.

Important Questions For Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter  Question 5.
Point out the latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of India extends between 8° 4′ N and 37° 6′ latitudes touching Jammu and Kashmir in the North and Tamil Nadu in the south.

Chapter 1 Geography Class 9 Extra Questions Question 6.
Name the southernmost point of the Indian Union.
Answer:
The Indira Point.

Geography Chapter 1 Class 9 Extra Questions Question 7.
Where does the Indira point lie?
Answer:
In Andaman and Nicobar.

Class 9 Geo Ch 1 Extra Questions Question 8.
When was the Suez Canal opened?
Answer:
In 1869.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 9.
What is the importance of the Suez Canal for India?
Answer:
Suez Canal has reduced the distance between India and Europe by 7000 km.

Ncert Solutions For Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 10.
Where is Cape of Good Hope?
Answer:
In South Africa.

Class 9th Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 11.
Write the two routes by which India can reach North America, South America and Europe.
Answer:
These routes are:

1. The Cape of Good Hope
2. The Suez Canal.

Cbse Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 12.
Name the countries which are- larger than India in area.
Answer:

• Russia
• Canada
• China
• United States, of America
• Brazil
• Australia.

Class 9 Chapter 1 Geography Extra Questions Question 13.
Which tropic divides India into two arts?
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer.

Learn Insta Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Question 14.
What is the shape of the areas to the south of the Tropic of Cancer?
Answer:
Triangular.

Class 9 Geography Ch 1 Extra Questions Question 15.
What is the extension of the mainland of India?
Answer:
The mainland of India extends between 8° 4′ N and 37° 6′ N latitudes and 68° 7′ E and 97° 25’E longitude.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Short Questions And Answers Question 16.
In which hemisphere does India lie?
Answer:
In northern hemisphere.

Extra Questions Of Geography Class 9 Chapter 1 Question 17.
If the globe is divided vertically into eastern and western hemispheres, in which hemisphere will India lie?
Answer:
Eastern.

Ncert Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 18.
What is the length of the Indian coastline?
Answer:
About 7500 km.

India Size And Location Class 9 Short Questions Answers Question 19.
How many Indian States are touched by the Tropic of Cancer?
Answer:
9.

India Size And Location Class 9 Important Questions Question 20.
Name the two extreme, states of India touched by the Tropic of Cancer.
Answer:

1. Gujarat,
2. Mizoram.

Question 21.
State the seven largest countries of the world. ‘
Answer:
The seven largest countries, along with their sizes, are as follows:
Russia.: 17.07 million sq km;
China: 9.59 million sq km;
Canada: 9.21 million sq km;
USA: 9.07 million sq km;
Brazil: 8.51 million sq km;
Australia: 7.68 million sq km;
India: 3.28 million sq km.
This can be explained through a graph as under.

Question 22.
Explain with examples India’s link I with other countries.
Answer:
The exchange of ideas and commodities dates back to the ancient times. India’s link with West Asia, East Asia, Central and South Asia are a noteworthy feature. While Buddhism travelled from India to – Tibet, China and as far as Japan and Korean peninsula, on the other hand, the Mongols, the Turks, the Arabs and the Iranians contributed richly to the country’s architectural heritage. The ideas of the Upanishads, the Indian numeral and the decimal systems could also diffuse to many parts of the world due to these contacts.

Question 23.
Why the sun’s rays are more direct on the Nicobar Islands than on Jammu and Kashmir?
Answer:
It is a well-known fact that the sun always shines vertically on the Equator. Because of Bus fact a place the never to the Equator, the hotter it is Nicobar Islands are nearer to the Equator as compared to Jammu and Kashmir. Hence sun’s rays are more direct on the Nicobar Islands than on Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 24.
In which parts of India would be the sun’s rays more oblique?
Answer:
The sun’s rays would be more oblique on the northern frontiers of India. This is the reason why these areas have lesser amount of heat.

Question 25.
Point out the latitudinal extends of India. What are its implications?
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of India is about 3,200 km. It is the 1/2 of the total circumference of the earth. This fact has following implications:

• The southern parts of India get more heat from the sun than the northern parts.
• The difference between the duration of the day and night is lesser in southern parts of- India in comparison with the northern parts.
• As a matter of fact, the difference between the length of the day and night in the southernmost part of India is only 45 minutes while in the northern parts this difference is about 5 hours.

Question 26.
Point out the value of the Prime Meridian of India.
Answer:
To adopt one timing for the whole country, India has accepted 82° 30′ E longitude as the Standard Meridian of India. In fact India lies to the east of the Prime Meridian between 68° 7′ to 97° 25′ East Longitude. The local time at this Meridian has been accepted as the Indian Standard Time through India. It helped in avoiding a lot of confessions which, otherwise would have been created due to the difference among local timings. In fact, it has brought harmony in timings of the whole country.

Question 27.
Point out the reason behind the two hours time difference between the two eastern and western extremities of India.
Answer:
The earth takes about 4 minutes to rotate through 1° of longitude. The sun rises earlier in the east than in the west. The longitudinal extent of India is 30 degrees. Because of these facts, the difference in time in the easternmost part and the most western part of India would be 30 × 4=120 minutes=2 hours. This is the reason that the sun rises two hours earlier in the easternmost part of India.

Question 28.
What is the importance of the partially enclosed character of the land of India?
Answer:
The partially enclosed character of the land of India has strengthened the uniqueness of the country by assimilating new cultural elements coming from outside and yet fostering unity and homogeneity in the Indian society.

Question 29.
Answer the following questions after studying the map:
(i) Any two countries located in the East of India.
(ii) Any three countries located in the North of India.
(iii) Two neighbouring countries of India in the west.
Answer:
(i) Myanmar, Thailand.
(ii) Nepal, Bhutan, China.
(iii) Pakistan and Afghanistan.

Question 30.
Answer the following questions after studying the map:
(i) The nearest southern neighbour of India.
(ii) Any three southern states of India.
(iii) Any three northern states of India.
Answer:
(i) Sri Lanka
(ii) Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu,
(iii) Jammu-Kashmir, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh.

Question 31.
Give reasons:
(i) While the sun has already risen in Arunachal Pradesh, it is still dark in Gujarat.
(ii) Ahmedabad will see the sun overhead twice in a year,
(iii) Why has Meghalaya been named as such?
(iv) India is often referred to as a subcontinent.
Answer:
(i) Sun rises in Gujarat two hours later than in Arunachal Pradesh.
(ii) The Tropic of cancer which runs almost halfway through India divides it into two separate climatic zones. The areas which are situated beyond the Tropic of Cancer or are lying to the north of the Tropic of Cancer, never have mid-day Sun overhead.

On the other hand, the places which are within the tropics or the places which are lying to the north of the Tropic of Cancer experience the mid-day sun when the sun is Overhead, at Tropic of Cancer. Ahmedabad and Kolkata both fall within the tropics hence are able to see the noon sun exactly overhead twice a year.

(iii) Because Meghalaya literally means the abode of clouds.
(iv) It is rightly referred to as a subcontinent because it is separated from the rest of the continent by natural features such as mountains and river. Furthermore, it has its own specific climatic characteristics and distinct cultural identity.

Question 32.
Why 82° 30′ E has been selected as the Standard Meridian of India?
Answer:
From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, there is a time lag of two hours. Hence along the Standard Meridian of India (82° 30′ E) passing through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh is taken as the standard time of the whole of India.

Question 33.
What is the longitudinal extent of our country? State its significance.
Or
What do you mean by the longitudinal extent of India? Point out the implications of the longitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
Longitudinal extent of our country shows the geographical conditions of our country. Our country India lies Between 68° 7′ E to 97° 25’E longitudinal extent, Hence its longitudinal extent is about 30°. The longitudinal extent of India is quite vast.

Its east-west extent is quite wider which is very much significant The importance and implications of the Longitudinal extent of India can be pointed out in the following manner:
1. Because of the vast east-west extent of India it is quite dosed to East Asian Countries on the eastern side and to the West Asian countries like Afghanistan, Iran, Iraq, and Arabian countries on the Western side. This situation presides a vast seep for trade and commerce. It also helps India in having close relations between East Asian Countries and the West Asian Countries.

2. Because of the Vast east-west longitudinal extent India is quite near to Japan, Australia and other East African countries, as well as to many of the European countries. America lies equidistant to India whether. from the eastern or western side.

Question 34.
India’s strategic location on the head of the Indian Ocean has helped her in establishing land and maritime contacts with the outside world in the ancient and medieval times. Explain.
Answer:
India’s contacts with the world, in fact, have continued through the ages. In fact, the exchange of ideas and commodities dates back to the ancient times.

This fact is supported by the following facts:
1. The ideas of Upanishads and the Ramayana as well as the stories of the Panchatantra have reached many parts of the world.

2. The Indian numerals and the decimal system could reach many parts of the world from India because of this contact.

3. The spices, muslin and other merchandise were taken from India to different countries since the ancient time.

4. India was also influenced by the other countries and cultures. For example, the influence of Greek sculpture, and the architectural styles of dome and minarets from West Asia can be seen in different parts of our country.

5. The traders from India established links with Egyp, Sudan, Somalia, Kenya and Tanzania.

6. Several Indian merchants were even able to establish new kingdoms far away from their country.

Objective Type Questions

1. Fill in the following blanks with correct words:

(i) The highest peak of India is the ……………………. .
Answer:
Kanchenjunga

(ii) The Tropic of ………………………………… divides India into two almost equal parts.
Answer:
Cancer

(iii) India belongs to the ……………………. Hemisphere.
Answer:
Eastern

(iv) India is the ……………………. largest country in the world.
Answer:
Seventh

(v) The southern tip of the Indian mainland misses the ……………………. by only a few degrees.
Answer:
Equator

(vi) The southern part of the coast is called ……………………. .
Answer:
Koromandal.

2. Match the following two lists.

(i) Ganga: The largest country of the world.
(ii) Russia: River associated with religion.
(iii) Everest: Hill station.
(iv) Shimla: River of southern peninsula.
(v) Tapi The highest peak of the world.
Answer:
(i) Ganga: The river associated with religion.
(ii) Russia: The largest country of the world.
(iii) Everest. The highest peak of the world.
(iv) Shimla : Hill station.
(v) Tapi: River of southern peninsula.

3. Put (✓) before each correct sentence:

(i) The Tropic of cancer exists in 23° 30′ N.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) The Tropic of Cancer divides the country into almost two equal parts.
Answer:
(✗)

(iii) The areas to the south of the Tropic of cancer is round in shape.
Answer:
(✗)

(iv) The southernmost point of the India is Kanyakumari.
Answer:
(✗)

(v) Lakshadweep islands are comparatively more scattered.
Answer:
(✗)

(vi) The Tropic of cancer does not pass through Chhattisgarh.
Answer:
(✗)

(vii) The Equator passes through Kerala.
Answer:
(✗)

(viii) Guwahati is thie capital of Meghalaya.
Answer:
(✗)

4. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) India lies in the following hemisphere:
(a) northern
(b) eastern
(c) southern
(d) western:
Answer:
(a) northern

(ii) The Bay of Bengal is located on the following side of India:
(a) south-west
(b) south-east
(c) north-west
(d) north-east.
Answer:
(b) south-east

(iii) The Indira point was submerged in seawater during Tsunami in the following year:
(a) 2001
(b) 2002
(c) 2003
(d) 2004
Answer:
(d) 2004

(iv) The following is, territory wise, larger country than India:
(a) France
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Brazil
(d) Germany.
Answer:
(c) Brazil

(v) The Standard Meridian of India is:
(a) 97°25 E
(b) 68°7′ E
(c) 82°30′ E
(d) 83°20′ E.
Answer:
(c) 82°30′ E

(vi) The total number of the Union Territories, in India, are:
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 7

(vii) The Meridian in India passes through:
(a) Mirzapur
(b) Kanpur
(c) Jaipur
(d) Rajpur.
Answer:
(a) Mirzapur.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers On Equality was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Online Education for On Equality Class 7 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 1

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What is the essential condition for all democracies?
Answer:
Universal adult franchise is an essential condition for all democracies.

Ncert Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 2.
On what idea is the universal adult franchise based?
Answer:
The universal adult franchise is based on the idea of equality.

On Equality Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 3.
Which is one of the most common forms of inequality in India?
Answer:
Caste system is one of the most common forms of inequality in India.

Class 7 Civics Ch 1 Extra Questions Question 4.
What is ‘Joothan’?
Answer:
Joothan is an autobiography of a Dalit writer, Omprakash Valmiki.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 5.
What did the property dealer tell Mr and Mrs Ansari? How did they respond to the property dealer’s suggestion?
Answer:
The property dealer told Mr and Mrs Ansari to change their names from Mr. and Mrs Ansari to Mr and Mrs Kumar for finding accommodation in the apartment. But, they refused to do this.

Civics Class 7 Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 6.
What two steps did the government take to implement the equality guaranteed in the Constitution?
Answer:

1. The first step that the government has taken to implement equality is through making the law. For example, there is a law made which declares untouchability as a crime in India.
2. Second, the government has set up schemes or programmes to help disadvantaged communities. For example, midday meal scheme has been implemented in all government elementary schools.

Extra Questions On Equality Class 7 Question 7.
How were the African-Americans treated unequally in the United States of America?
Answer:
The African-Americans were treated unequally in a number of ways.

• For example, when travelling by bus, they either had to take the back seats in the bus or get up from their seats whenever a white person wished to sit.
• African-American children were not admitted in schools in which white men’s children studied. They attended separate schools specially set up for them.

On Equality Class 7 Extra Questions Question 8.
What is universal adult franchise?
Answer:

• Universal adult franchise is the essential condition for all democracies.
• It gives all adults, irrespective of what religion they belong to, how much educated, what caste they are from, or whether they are rich or poor, the right to vote.
• It is based on the principle of equality, i.e., one person one vote, and one vote one value.

Civics Chapter 1 Class 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
Who was Rosa Parks? How did her action prove to be the cause of the Civil Rights Act, 1964?
Answer:

• Rosa Parks was an African- American woman. On 1st December 1955, she was tired from a long day at work. While travelling by a bus, she refused to give up her seat to a white man.
• Her refusal caused a huge agitation against unequal treatment of the African- Americans by the white person:
• It took the form of the Civil Rights Movement. As a result, the Civil Rights Act was passed in 1964.
• The Act prohibited discrimination on the basis of race, religion or national origin among the citizens.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following is a key feature of democracy?
(a) Law
(b) Constitution
(c) Equality
(d) Government.
Answer:
(c) Equality.

2. Which one of the following is an essential aspect of all democracies?
(a) Universal Adult Franchise
(b) Right to Speech
(c) Right to Journey
(d) Religion.
Answer:
(a) Universal Adult Franchise.

3. Which one of the following is more common forms of inequality in India?
(a) Discrimination on the basis of work
(b) Caste system
(c) Unemployment
(d) Discrimination on the basis of colour.
Answer:
(b) Caste system.

4. Why are Om Prakash and Valmiki treated unequally?
(a) On the basis of employment
(b) On the basis of work experience
(c) On the basis of differences of caste and religion
(d) On the basis of education.
Answer:
(c) On the basis of differences of caste and religion.

5. The Indian Constitution recognises every person as;
(a) unequal on the basis of employment
(b) unequal on the basis of education
(c) unequal on the basis of caste
(d) equal on all basis.
Answer:
(d) equal on all basis.

6. What do you mean by the mid-day meal scheme?
(a) It is a scheme related to food for all citizens.
(b) It is a programme introduced in all government elementary schools to provide children with cooked lunch.
(c) It is a food-related scheme introduced by non-government agencies.
(d) It is introduced by private agencies.
Answer:
(b) It is a programme introduced in all government elementary schools to provide children with cooked lunch.

7. Which one of the following states was the first state in India to introduce the mid-day meal scheme?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Orissa
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala.
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu.

8. Which one of the following statements is false about the mid-day meal programme?
(a) It is not beneficial to students.
(b) Due to this programme, children have enrolling and regularly attending school.
(c) The attendance of students has improved.
(d) This programme has helped reduce caste prejudice.
Answer:
(a) It is not beneficial to students.

9. Who was Rosa Parks?
(a) An American woman
(b) An African-American woman
(c) An Australian woman
(d) An Indian woman.
Answer:
(b) An African-American woman.

10. Which one of the following acts are used to prohibit discrimination in America?
(a) Civil Rights Act (1964)
(b) Speech Rights Act
(c) Religion Act
(d) Education Act.
Answer:
(a) Civil Rights Act (1964).

11. Which one of the following is true about the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
(a) Discrimination on the basis of race
(b) Discrimination on the basis of caste
(c) Discrimination on the basis of education
(d) Prohibited discrimination on the basis of race, religion or national origin.
Answer:
(d) Prohibited discrimination on the basis of race, religion or national origin.

12. Discrimination is prohibited in which one of the following articles of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 10
(d) Article 12
Answer:
(b) Article 15.

Important Terms:

Universal adult franchise: This is an important aspect of every democratic society. It means that all adult (those who are 18 and above) citizens have the right to vote irrespective of their social, religious or economic backgrounds.

Dignity: This refers to thinking oneself and others as worthy of respect.

Constitution: This is a document that lays down the basic rules and regulations for people and the government in the country to follow.

Civil Rights Movement: A movement that began in the USA in 1950s in which African-American people demanded equal rights and an end to racial discrimination.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-social-science/

Online Education for Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 Extra Questions History Chapter 2

Socialism In Europe And The Russian Revolution Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Who was Derozio ?
Answer:
Derozio (1809-1831) was a great advocate of rationalisnt. He too was impressed by the ideas of liberty, equality and fraternity of the French revolution.

Class 9 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
Mention the two main objectives of the liberals of the 19th century.
Answer:

1. They wanted changes in the old order.
2. They adocated the ideas of religious tolerance.

Russian Revolution Class 9 Extra Questions Question 3.
What did the radicals want ?
Answer:
The radicals of the 18th-19th centuries Europe were opposed to the system of privileges and had wanted government of the common man.

Class 9 History Chapter 2 Very Short Questions And Answers Question 4.
Why were the conserve lives against the liberals and the radicals ?
Answer:
The conservatives were against the liberals and the radicals because, unlike them, they were opposed to changes in the system.

Class 9 History Chapter 2 Short Questions And Answers Question 5.
Who was Guiseppe Mazzini ?
Answer:
Guiseppe Mazzini was a great nationalist of early 19th century Italy.

Extra Questions For Class 9 History Chapter 2 Question 6.
What is the main thrust of socialism?
Answer:
Property to be collective and its benefits be shared by all equitably.

Class 9 History Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Question 7.
Who was Louis Blanc?
Answer:
Louis Blanc (1813-1882), a French who wanted that the government encouraged cooperatives. The cooperatives were to be associations of people which produced goods together and divided the profits according to the work done by them.

Socialism In Europe And The Russian Revolution Questions And Answers Question 8.
When was the Second International formed? ‘
Answer:
In 1889, the socialists formed an international socialist body, called the Second International.

Class 9 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 9.
When was the socialist revolution launched in Russia?
Answer:
In October 1917; according to the Russian calendar, in November 1917.

Class 9 History Ch 2 Extra Questions Question 10.
Who was the emperor in Russia on the eve of Revolution?
Answer:
Nicholas Ii, also known as Czar.

History Chapter 2 Class 9 Extra Questions Question 11.
What was the type of economy in Russia until 1917?
Answer:
Largely, the agricultural economy, with a low level of industrialisation.

Ncert Class 9 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 12.
When was the Russian Social Democratic Workers Party founded?
Answer:
The party was founded in 1898.

Russian Revolution Questions And Answers Pdf Question 13.
When was the Socialist Revolutionary Party (SRP) in Russia formed?
Answer:
The Socialist Revolutionary Party was formed in 1900.

History Class 9 Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 14.
What incident is called the Bloody Sunday?
Answer:
The incident in which about 100 workers were killed and about 300 wounded by an attack on the striking workers, on a day which was Sunday, is called the Bloody Sunday.

Russian Revolution Extra Questions Question 15.
What is Russian steam roller?
Answer:
The imperial Russian army, the largest aimed force in the world, was known as the Russian steam roller.

Socialism In Europe And The Russian Revolution Class 9 Extra Questions Question 16.
What were Lenin’s ‘April theses’?
Answer:
A group of demands such as

• war to be brought close;
• land be given to the peasants;
• banks be nationalized.

Ch 2 History Class 9 Extra Questions Question 17.
Which type of calender the Russian followed and what did it mean?
Answer:
The Russian followed the Julian calendar which was 13 days ahead of the Gregorian calendar. So the February revolution took place on March 12 and the October revolution on 7th November according to the Julian calendar. Until February, the Russians ‘ followed the Julian calendar.

Class 9th History Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 18.
What type of state was Russia after the October revolution?
Answer:
Russia (changed to the Union of Soviet Socialist Republic USSR in December, 1922) was a one-party state after the October revolution.

Class 9 Chapter 2 History Extra Questions Question 19.
Describe briefly the demands of the liberals of the 18th-19th centuries Europe.
Answer:
The liberals of the 18th-19th centuries Europe opposed

• the uncontrolled power and absolutism of dynastic rulers;
• they wanted to safeguard the rights of individuals against government;
• they argued for a representative, elected parliamentary government, subject to laws interpreted by a well-trained judiciary that was independent of rulers and officials,
• they felt men of property mainly should have the vote. They did not want the vote for women.

Chapter 2 History Class 9 Extra Questions Question 20.
Who were the radicals and what did they want?
Answer:
The radicals were those who wanted fundamental changes in the social and political systems of the 18th-19th centuries Europe.

In contrast, the radicals wanted a nation in which government was based on the majority of a country’s population. Unlike liberals, they opposed the privileges of great landowners and wealthy factory owners. They were not against the existence of private property but disliked concentration of property in the hands of a few.

Question 21.
Describe the major adverse effects of industrialisation.
Answer:
Industrialisation brought men, women and children to factories; Work. hours were often long and wages were poor, Unemployment was common, particularly during times of low demand for industrial goods.

Question 22.
Sum up the contribution of Marx and Engels.
Answer:
Karl Marx (1818-1883) and Friederich Engels (.1820-1895) were great socialists. They had argued that industrial society was capitalist. Capitalists owned the capital invested in factories and the profit of capitalists was produced by workers. The conditions of workers could not improve as long as this profit was accumulated by private capitalists.

Workers had to overthrow capitalism and the rule of private property. Marx believed that to free themselves from capitalist exploitation, workers had to construct a radically socialist society where all property was socially controlled. This would be a communist society.

Question 23.
What was Lenin’s perception of the Russian peasants?
Answer:
Lenin felt that the peasants were not one united group. Some were poor and others rich, some worked as labourers while others were capitalists who employed workers. Given this ‘differentiation’ within them) they could not all be part of a socialist movement. So he wanted to have the peasants in the second line of defence, workers being the first line.

Question 24.
What was the impact of World War I on Russian economy?
Answer:
The war also had a severe impact on industry. Russia’s own industries were few in number and the country was cut off from other supplies of industrial goods by German control of the Baltic Sea. Industrial equipment disintegrated more rapidly in Russia than elsewhere in Europe.

By 1916, railway lines began to break down. Able-bodied men were called up to “the war. As a result, there were labour shortages and small workshops producing essentials were shut down. Large supplies of grain were sent to feed the army. For the people in the cities, bread and flour became scarce. By the winter of 1916, riots at bread shops were common.

Question 25.
Give a brief account of the socialist society as was being envisaged in Russia after tire October 1.917 revolution:
Answer:
During the civil war, the Bolsheviks kept industries and banks nationalised. They permitted peasants to cultivate the land that had been socialised, the Bolsheviks used confiscated land to demonstrate what collective works could be, A process of centralised planning was introduced.

Officials assessed how the economy could work and set targets for a five-year period. On this basis, they made the Five Year Plans. The government fixed all prices to promote industrial growth during the first two ‘Plans’.

Question 26.
What were the economic, social and political- causes of the October 1917 Revolution in Russia.
Answer:
Politically, the people of Russia resented the autocracy of Czar Nicholas II. The losses that the Russian suffered during World War I further weakened Russia’s view of Nicholas. Socially, Czarist Russia stood well behind the rest of Europe in its industry and farming, resulting in few opportunities for fair advancement on the part of peasants and industrial workers. Economically, widespread inflation in Russia contributed to the revolution.

I. Economic courses

Russia’s outdated economy and the Tsar’s failure to modernise it constituted one great cause of the Russian Revolution. Its agricultural, economy still resembled that of medieval Europe, with peasants bound to an inefficiently managed village commune, and using outdated farming methods.

Factory workers also suffered due to Russia’s young industry that sought to catch up with the rest of Europe. They had to endure terrible working conditions, including twelve to fourteen hour days and low wages.

Peasant’s conditions constituted another cause. They led a miserable life with no infrastructure supporting them. By 1917, famine threatened many of the larger cities, Nicholas’s failure to solve his country’s economic suffering and communism’s promise to do just that comprised the core of the Revolution.

II. Social Causes

The social causes of the Russian Revolution mainly came from centuries of oppression towards the lower classes by the Czarist relgime and Nicholas’s failures in World War I- While rural agrarian peasants had been emancipated from serfdom in 1861, they still resented paying redemption payments to tire state, and demanded the land they Worked.

The rapid industrialisation of Russia also resulted in urban overcrowding and poor conditions for urban industrial workers. There was also no running water, and piles of human manure were a threat to the health of the workers.

The World War I then only added to the chads. Conscription swept up the unwilling in all parts of Russia. The vast demand for factory production of war supplies and workers caused many more labour riots and strikes.

III. Political Causes

Politically, most areas of Russian society had reason to be dissatisfied with the existing autocratic system. They had no representation in government, and the Tsar remained out of touch with the people’s problems.

Dissatisfaction with Russian autocracy culminated in the Bloody Sunday massacre, in which the Russian workers saw their pleas for justice rejected as protesters were shot by the Tsar’s troops. The response to the massacre crippled the nation with strikes, and Nicholas released his October Manifesto, promising a democratic parliament (the State Duma), to appease the people.

Question 27.
Give an account of the global influence of the Russian Revolution and the USSR.
Answer:
Existing socialist parties in Europe did not wholly approve of the way the Bolsheviks took power and kept it. However, the possibility of a workers state fired peoples imagination across the world. In many countries, communist parties were formed- like the Communist Party of Great Britain.

The Bolsheviks encouraged colonial peoples to follow their experiments. Many non-Russians from outside the USSR participated in the Conference of the Peoples of the East (1920) and the Bolshevik-founded Comintern (an international union of pro-Bolshevik socialist parties). By the 1950s it was acknowledged within the country that the style of government in the USSR was hot in keeping with the ideals of the Russian Revolution.

A backward country had become a great power. Its industries and agriculture had developed and the poor were being fed. But it had denied the essential freedoms to its citizens and carried out its developmental projects through repressive policies. By the end of the twentieth century, the international reputation of the USSR as a socialist country had declined though it was recognised that socialist ideals still, enjoyed respect among its people.

Objective Type Questions

1. Select the correct word given in the bracket and fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
……………… opposed the uncontrolled powers of the dynastic rulers. (Liberals, Conservatives)
Answer:
Liberals

Question 2.
………………… . was an English manufacture who believed in cooperative community called New Harmony. (Robert Owen, Charles Fourier)
Answer:
Robert Owen

Question 3.
Louis Blanc was ……………….. socialist. (Russian, French)
Answer:
French

Question 4.
………………. ruled Russia in 1914. (Nicholas I, Nicholas II)
Answer:
Nicholas II

Question 5.
……………….. was leader of the Bolshevik Party. (Lenin, Plekhanov)
Answer:
Lenin.

2. Choose true (✓ ) and false (✗) from the following:

Question 1.
During the World War I, Great Britain, France, Turkey formed one alliance.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 2.
Russia withdrew from the World War I in 1915.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Duma in Russian is a word which means parliament.
Answer:
(✓ )

Question 4.
Lenin had his demands in his May theses.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 5.
Lenin succeeded after Stalin’s death.
Answer:
(✗)

3. Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1.
Second International was convened in:
(a) 1864
(b) 1889
(c) 1914
(d) 1921
Answer:
(b) 1889

Question 2.
Who led the government in Russia after the October 1917 Revolution?
(a) Stalin
(b) Kerensky
(c) Marx
(d) Lenin
Answer:
(d) Lenin

Question 3.
One the following is correct:
(a) The peasants were a satisfied lot in February 1916
(b) They were a contended lot in February 1917
(c) They had no complaint against the government in September 1917
(d) They wanted the land that they tilled.
Answer:
(d) They wanted the land that they tilled.

Question 4.
The February revolution in Russia is called:
(a) Nationalist revolution
(b) Capitalist revolution
(c) Socialist revolution
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Capitalist revolution

Question 5.
The following followed the collectivization programme in 1929 in Russia:
(a) Lenin
(b) Kerensky
(c) Stalin
(d) Engels
Answer:
(c) Stalin.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resources Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Online Education for Resources Class 8 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 1

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What is resource?
Answer:
Anything that can be used to satisfy a need is a resource.

Ncert Solutions For Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Resources Extra Questions Question 2.
Which two factors can change substances into resources?
Answer:

1. Time and
2. Technology.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions And Answers Pdf Question 3.
Why do people are important resource?
Answer:
People are important resources because their ideas, knowledge, inventions and discoveries lead to the creation of more resources.

Resources Class 8 Extra Questions Question 4.
How resources are classified?
Answer:

• Natural,
• human-made and
• human.

Resources Class 8 Worksheets With Answers Question 5.
How natural resources are classified?
Answer:
Natural resources are classified on the basis of their

• level of development,
• use,
• origin,
• stock,
• distribution.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 One Mark Questions Question 6.
In India, where is energy generated by using windmills?
Answer:

• Nagercoil in Tamil Nadu
• Gujarat coast.

Geography Class 8 Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 7.
What is human resource development?
Answer:
Improving the quality of people’s skills so that they are able to create more resources is known as human resource development.

Ncert Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 8.
Mention few ways of conserving resources.
Answer:

• Reducing consumption,
• Recycling,
• Reusing.

Geography Chapter 1 Class 8 Extra Questions Question 9.
Name a renewable resourced
Answer:
Solar and wind energy.

Extra Questions For Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Question 10.
Give two examples of renewable resources.
Answer:
Solar and wind energy.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 11.
What are natural resources? Give few examples.
Answer:
Resources that are drawn front nature and used without much modification are called natural resources. examples: air, water, minerals.

Extra Questions For Class 8 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Question 12.
How BSTresources be classified on the basis of the level of their development? Write one point of difference between them;
Answer:
On the Basis of the level of development, resources can be classified into two groups – actual resources and potential resources. Actual resources are those whose quantity is known whereas the entire quantity of potential resources may not be known.

Class 8 Geo Ch 1 Extra Questions Question 13.
Distinguish between abiotic and biotic resources.
Answer:
Abiotic resources are non-living. For example, soils, rocks and minerals.
Biotic resources are living. For example, plants and animals.

Class 8 Resources Extra Questions Question 14.
What are human-made resources?
Answer:
People use natural resources to make buildings, bridges, roads, machinery and vehicles. These are known as human-made resources.

Class 8 Geography Ch 1 Extra Questions Question 15.
What is the difference between resource conservation and sustainable development?
Answer:
Using resources carefully and giving them time to get renewed is called’ resource conservation.
Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future is called sustainable development.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Important Questions Question 16.
How can we contribute to maintain and preserve the life support system?
Answer:

• The diversity of life on the earth must be conserved.
• The damage to natural environment system should be minimised.

Extra Questions Of Chapter 1 Geography Class 8 Question 17.
‘Bulb should be switched off when not need’. Do you agree with this statement? If yes, give reasons.
Answer:
We should conserve energy for the future. We should using resources carefully because it is very limited.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Resources Extra Questions Question 18.
What is a resource? Is human also a resource? How?
Answer:
Anything that can be used to satisfy a need is resource. YES, human is also a resource they make best use of nature to create more resource with the help of their knowledge, skill and technology.

Chapter 1 Geography Class 8 Extra Questions Question 19.
Distinguish between the renewable and non-renewable resources.
Answer:

Renewable resources	Non-renewable resources
Renewable resources get renewed or replenished quickly. Some of them are unlimited and are not affected by human activities, such as solar and wind energy.	Non-renewable resources have a limited stock. Once the stocks are exhausted, it may take thousands of years to be renewed or reply finished, For example: coal, petroleum and natural gas.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Worksheet With Answers Question 20.
When was the Ministry of Human Resource Development created? What was its main aim? Which are the two important departments within this Ministry?
Answer:
The Ministry of Human Resource Development was created in 1985. Its main aim is to improve people’s skills.
Two important departments within the Ministry of Human Resource Development are :

1. The Department of School Education and Literacy
2. The Department of Higher Education.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following is a human-made resource?
(a) Minerals
(b) Rocks
(c) Means of transportation
(d) Soils.
Answer:
(c) Means of transportation.

2. Which resource among the following has no commercial value?
(a) Grandmother’s home remedies
(b) Cotton cloth
(c) Iron ore
(d) Medicinal plants.
Answer:
(a) Grandmother’s home remedies.

3. Which statement among the following is not true?
(а) Anything can be used to satisfy a need is a resource.
(b) All resources have economic or commercial value.
(c) Utility or usability is what makes an object or substance a resource.
(d) Time and technology are two important factors that can change substances into resources.
Answer:
(b) All resources have economic or commercial value.

4. Which one of the following is a Aon renewable resource?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Water
(d) Minerals.
Answer:
(d) Minerals.

5. Non-renewable resources are……… .
(a) limited
(b) unlimited
(c) free of cost
Answer:
(a) limited.

6. Which of the following is a renewable resource?
(a) Goal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Gold
(d) Water
Answer:
(d) Water.

Glossary:

→ Resources – Anything that can be used to satisfy a need is a resource.

→ Patent – Patent means the exclusive right over any idea or invention.

→ Natural resources – Resources that sure drawn from nature and used without much modification.

→ Technology – It is the application of latest knowledge and skill in doing or making things.

→ Actual resources – Those resources whose quantity is known.

→ Potential resources – Those resources whose entire quantity may not be known and are not being used at present.

→ Abiotic resources – Resources which do not have life or non-living resources are called abiotic resources.

→ Biotic resources – Living resources or resources which have life are called biotic resources.

→ Stock of resources – It is the amount of resources available for use.

→ Renewable resources – Renewable resources are those which get renewed or replenished quickly.

→ Non-renewable resources – Those resources which are once used take thousands of years to be renewed or replenished.

→ Ubiquitous resources – Resources that are found everywhere are called ubiquitous resources.

→ Localised resources – Resources which are found only in certain places are called localised resources.

→ Human-made resources – Resources which are made by people by using natural resources are called human-made resources.

→ Resource conservation – Using resources carefully and giving them time to get renewed is called resource conservation.

→ Sustainable development – Carefully utilising the resources so that besides meeting the requirements of the present, also takes care of future generations.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 8 History Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/class-8-history-chapter-4-extra-questions/

Tribals, Dikus and the Vision of a Golden Age Class 8 Extra Questions History Chapter 4

Question 1.
To which tribes did Birsa belong?
Answer:
Munda tribe.

Question 2.
Where did Munda people live?
Answer:
Munda people lived in Chhotanagpur region of the present-day state of Jharkhand.

Question 3.
Name two other tribes who were the followers of Birsa.
Answer:
Santhals and Oraons.

Question 4.
Who were called dikus?
Answer:
The outsiders were called dikus by the tribes.

Question 5.
Where were the shifting cultivators found?
Answer:
Shifting cultivators were found in the hilly and forested tracts of northeast and central India.

Question 6.
Where did the Khonds live?
Answer:
The Khond people lived in the forests of Orissa.

Question 7.
How did Khond people obtain their livelihood?
Answer:
The Khond people obtain their livelihood by hunting and food-gathering.

Question 8.
How did the forest people obtain things that they did not produce in the forests?
Answer:
They mostly exchanged goods to fulfil their need of things they did not produce.

Question 9.
What did the forest people do when supplies of forest produce shrank?
Answer:
They wandered around in search of work as labourers.

Question 10.
Name any two tribes who lived by herding and rearing animals.
Answer:
Van Gujjars and Gaddis.

Question 11.
Where did the Baiga people live?
Answer:
The Baiga people lived in the forests in Central India.

Question 12.
Name any two settled tribal groups.
Answer:
Gonds and Santhals.

Question 13.
What did the British officials think about settled tribal groups?
Answer:
The British officials thought them to be more civilised than hunter-gatherers.

Question 14.
With which tribal groups the British were uncomfortable?
Answer:
The British were uncomfortable with those tribal groups who moved about and did not have a fixed home.

Question 15.
Why did the British want tribes to become peasant cultivators?
Answer:
This was because peasants were easier to control and administer than people who were always on move.

Question 16.
What were the Reserve Forests?
Answer:
They were the forests which produced timbers. The tribal people were not allowed to enter these forests.

Question 17.
Why were the forest villages established?
Answer:
The forest villages were established to ensure a regular supply of cheap labour for cutting trees for railway sleepers.

Question 18.
When and where did the revolt of Sonogram Sangma take place?
Answer:
The Sonogram Sangma revolt took place in 1906 in Assam.

Question 19.
When and where did the Forest Satyagraha take place?
Answer:
The Forest Satyagraha took place in the 1930s in the Central Provinces.

Question 20.
Name the tribe which reared cocoons.
Answer:
Santhals of Hazaribagh.

Question 21.
Where did tribes work as labourers in the late nineteenth century?
Answer:
They worked in tea plantations of Assam and coal mines of Jharkhand.

Question 22.
What was the aim of Birsa’s movement?
Answer:
His movement aimed at reforming tribal society and take it out of the hands of dikus.

Question 23.
What did people think about Birsa? What did Birsa proclaim about himself?
Answer:

• People believed that Birsa could cure all diseases and multiply grains.
• Birsa proclaimed about himself that God has appointed him to save his people from trouble and free them from the slavery of dikus.

Question 24.
Why were the Munda and other tribal people of the region unhappy with the British rule?
Answer:

• They were unhappy with the changes they were experiencing and the problems they were facing under the British rule.
• Their ways of life seemed to be disappearing, their livelihoods were under threat, and their religion appeared to be in danger.

Question 25.
Comment on tribal societies.
Answer:

• Most tribes had customs and rituals different from those laid down by Brahmins.
• The tribal societies did not have the same social divisions that were characteristics of caste societies.
• People who belonged to the same tribe thought of themselves as sharing common ties of kinship.

Question 26.
How did the shifting cultivators live their lives?
Answer:

• The lives of the shifting cultivators depended on free movement within the forest.
• Their lives depended on being able to use the land and forests for growing their crops.

Question 27.
What did the tribal people do when supplies of forest produce shrank?
Answer:

• Some of the tribal people did odd jobs in the villages.
• They carried load or got jobs in building roads.
• Some people laboured in the fields of peasants and farmers.

Question 28.
Why were Baiga people reluctant to do works for others?
Answer:

• The Baigas saw themselves as people of the forest, who could only live on the produce of the forest.
• The Baiga people considered it to be below the dignity of a Baiga to become a labourer.

Question 29.
Why did tribal people become dependent on traders and moneylenders?
Answer:
Following were the reasons of their dependence :

• The tribal people often needed to sell and buy goods in order to be able to get those goods which were not produced in their locality.
• Traders came around with things for sale. Money-lenders gave loans with which the tribals could meet their cash needs.

Question 30.
Why did the tribal people see moneylenders and traders as evil outsiders?
Answer:

• The traders sold them things at high prices and purchased goods from them at low prices.
• The moneylenders charged high-interest rates on the loans which they provided to the tribal people.
  This led to indebtedness and poverty among the tribal people. This was because they saw them as evil outsiders.

Question 31.
Discuss some herders and animal rearing tribal people.
Answer:

• The Van Gujjars of the Punjab hills and the Labadie of Andhra Pradesh were cattle herders.
• The Gaddis of Kulu were shepherds.
• The Bakarwals of Kashmir reared goats.

Question 32.
Discuss the state of rights of the land among Mundas.
Answer:

• Among Mundas, the land belonged to the Clan as a whole.
• All members of the Clan were regarded as descendants of the original settlers, who has first cleared the land. Therefore, all of them had the rights on land.

Question 33.
What happened to the British effort to settle jhum cultivators?
Answer:

• This effort was not very successful.
• Settled plough cultivation was not easy in the areas where water was scarce and the soil was dry.
• Jhum cultivators who undertook the plough cultivation often suffered, since their fields did not produce good yields. People started protesting settled ploughing.

Question 34.
Explain the reformist ideas of Birsa.
Answer:

• Birsa asked people to give up drinking liquor which was devastating people’s personal, family and social life.
• He urged people to clean their village and stop believing in witchcraft and sorcery.

Question 35.
What were the political aims of Birsa movement?
Answer:

• Birsa wanted to drive out missionaries, money-lenders, Hindu landlords and the government.
• This movement wanted to set up a Munda Raj with Birsa as its head.

Question 36.
Why did Munda people consider dikes as the cause of their misery and sufferings?
Answer:

• They felt that the land policies of the British were destroying their traditional land system.
• They saw that Hindu landlords and moneylenders were taking over their land.
• They saw that the missionaries were criticising their traditional culture.

Question 37.
What is colonial rules?
Answer:
When the powerful country has been administration the land and resource of a country it is called colonial rules.

Question 38.
What were the two main systems of indigo cultivation?
Answer:

1. NIJ-cultivation on planter’s own land.
2. ryoti-cultivation on ryot’s land.

Question 39.
Explain jhum cultivation.
Answer:

• This was done on small patches of land, mostly in the forest.
• The cultivators cut the trees and burnt the vegetation to clear the land for cultivation.
• They spread ash throughout the land. They did not plough the land.
• They broadcasted the seeds.
• Once the crop was ready and harvested, they moved to another field to follow the same process.
  This is because this is also known as shifting cultivation.

Question. 40.
Discuss the hunting and gathering amongst the Khonds.
Answer:

• The Khonds lived in the forests of Orissa. They were hunters and gatherers.
• They regularly went out on collective hunts and then divided the meat amongst themselves.
• They ate fruits and roots they collected from forests. They also cooked foods using oil extracted from the seeds of sal and mahua.
• They collected medicinal herbs and shrubs from the forest and sold them in the local market.
• They collected Kusum and Palash flowers from the forests and supplied them to the local weavers and leather workers.

Question 41.
What was the status of tribal chiefs before the arrival of the British?
Answer:

• In many areas, tribal chiefs were important people.
• They enjoyed a certain amount of economic power and had the right to administer and control their territories.
• In some places, they had their own police and decided on the local rules of land and forest management.

Question 42.
How was the tribal life affected by the forest laws?
Answer:

• The British extended their control over all forests and declared that forests were state property.
• Some forests were classified as Reserved Forests.
• In these forests, people were not allowed to move freely.
• They were prevented from practising jhum cultivation, collecting fruits or hunting animals in these forests.

Question 43.
In what ways was the Birsa movement important?
Answer:
This movement was important in the following two ways :

1. It forced the colonial government to introduce land laws in favour of the tribal people so that the dikus could not easily take over tribal lands.
2. It showed once again that the tribal people had the capacity to protest against injustice. They were able to express their anger against the exploitative and oppressive colonial rule.

Question 44.
What problems did shifting cultivators face under the British rule.
Answer:

• The Jhum cultivators who took to plough cultivation as per the British model often suffered.
• The fields did not produce good yields.
• Cultivators had to pay revenue fixed by the British.
• They wanted to shift back to the Jhum cultivation.
• Finally, they had to protest this new method.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Birsa was born in a family of a tribal group that lived in Chhotanagpur in Bihar.
(a) Mundas
(b) Santhal
(c) Orion
(d) Gonds.
Answer:
(a) Mundas.

2. Tick the correct pair in the following.
(а) Fallow-field is cultivated every year.
(b) Khonds – Gujarat.
(c) Baigas – Rajasthan.
(d) Jhum cultivation – shifting cultivation.
Answer:
(d) Jhum cultivation – shifting cultivation.

3. Which statement is not correct in the following?
(a) The Bakarwals of Kulu were shepherds.
(b) Shifting cultivators were found in the hilly and forested tracts of northeast and central India.
(c) The Van Gujjars of the Punjab hills were cattle herders.
(d) It was below the dignity of a Baiga to become a labourer.
Answer:
(c) The Van Gujjars of the Punjab hills were cattle herders.

4. Which is not a correct statement in the following?
(а) Verrier Elwin was a British anthropologist who lived among the Baigas and Khonds of Central India for many years.
(b) Among the Mundas of Chhota- Nagpur, the land belonged to the clan as a whole.
(c) Under the British rule, the functions and powers of the tribal chiefs changed considerably.
(d) The British officials saw shifting cultivators as more civilised than the Gonds and the Santhals.
Answer:
(d) The British officials saw shifting cultivators as more civilised than the Gonds and the Santhals.

5. How did Birsa Munda die in 1900?
(a) Died of plague
(b) Died of cholera
(c) He was hanged
(d) He was shot dead.
Answer:
(b) Died of cholera.

Glossary:

→ Fallow -A field left uncultivated for a while so that the soil recovers fertility.

→ Sal – A tree.

→ Mahua -A flower that is eaten or used to make alcohol.

→ Beware – A term used in Madhya Pradesh for shifting cultivation.

→ Sleeper – The horizontal planks of wood on which railway lines are laid.

→ ‘ Vaishnav-Worshippers of Lord Vishnu.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education Materials: Metals and Non-Metals Extra Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 4 was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-science/

Online Education for Class 8 Science Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Materials: Metals and Non-Metals

Materials Metals And Non Metals Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 1.
Do non-metals produce ringing sound?
Answer:
No, non-metals do not produce the ringing sound. It is a property of metals only.

Materials: Metals And Non Metals Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 2.
List the characteristic properties of metals.
Answer:
The metals have the following properties :

• Hardness,
• lustre,
• malleability
• ductility,
• sonority, and
• good conductivity of heat and electricity.

Metals And Non Metals Class 8 Question 3.
Name some metals.
Answer:
Iron, copper, gold, aluminium, magnesium, etc.

Cbse Class 8 Science Metals And Nonmetals Question 4.
Give some examples of non-metals.
Answer:
Sulphur, carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium, etc.

Metals And Non Metals Class 8 Extra Questions Question 5.
Name two metals which can be cut with knife.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium are two metals which are soft and can be cut with a knife.

Metal And Non Metals Class 8 Question 6.
Name a metal which is found in liquid state at room temperature.
Answer:
Mercury.

Materials Metals And Non Metals Questions And Answers Question 7.
Write the equation of rusting of iron.
Answer:
3Fe + 2H₂O + O₂ → Fe₃O₄ + 2H₂.

Extra Questions On Metals And Non-Metals Class 8 Question 8.
If the red litmus placed in a solution turns blue, the solution is called hydroxides.
Answer:
Basic.

Class 8th Science Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 9.
If the blue litmus paper turns red, the solution is called hydroxides.
Answer:
Acidic.

Class 8 Science Ch 4 Extra Questions Question 10.
When sulphur reacts in air (O₂), what is the product formed.
Answer:
It is sulphur dioxide (SO₂).

Class 8 Metals And Nonmetals Extra Questions Question 11.
What is formed when sulphur dioxide is dissolved in water? Also, write the equation.
Answer:
Sulphurous acid is formed.
SO₂ + H₂O →H₂SO₃ (Sulphurous acid).

Metal And Non Metal Class 8 Question 12.
What happens when a blue litmus paper is treated with an acid?
Answer:
The blue litmus paper turns red.

Science Class 8 Metals And Non Metals Question 13.
Name the non-metals in the following acids :
Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄), Hydrochloric acid (HCl) and Nitric acid (HNO₃).
Answer:
Sulphur, chlorine and nitrogen respectively.

Materials Metals And Nonmetals Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 14.
What happens when a small piece of sodium metal is placed in water?
Answer:
The metal piece starts moving in water with a hissing sound and then it catches fire.

Metals And Nonmetals Class 8 Questions Answers Question 15.
Why are metals used in making machinery?
Answer:
Metals are very hard, can withstand very high temperatures and are strong as well as lustrous. That is why they are used “in making various machinery.

Question 16.
Define element.
Answer:
The substances made up of only one type of atoms are called elements. Sulphur, iron, gold, calcium, hydrogen, etc. are elements. There are about 92 elements. Most of the elements are metals.

Question 17.
What is an atom?
Answer:
An atom is the smallest unit of an element. The atom of an element remains unaffected by any physical change in the element.

Question 18.
Describe how metallic and non-metallic oxides are formed.
Answer:
On burning, metals react with oxygen to produce metal oxides which are basic in nature. Non-metals react with oxygen to produce non-metallic oxides which are acidic in nature.

Question 19.
How can metals be distinguished from non-metals?
Answer:
Metals can be distinguished from non-metals on the basis of their physical and chemical properties.

Question 20.
Define malleability of a metallic substance. ‘
Answer:
The property of metals by which they can be beaten into thin sheets is called malleability. This is the characteristic property of metals.

Question 21.
Why is sodium stored in kerosene?
Answer:
Sodium metal is very reactive. It reacts vigorously with oxygen and water. A lot of heat is generated in the reaction. Therefore it is stored in kerosene to avoid its contact with air and water.

Question 22.
Explain the construction of a water filter with materials available at home.
Answer:
(a) Cut off the bottom of a plastic bottle and place the bottle upside down into the vase or tall drinking glass.

(b) Place cotton balls, cloth, or a coffee filter inside the bottle as the first layer. Add an inch of activated charcoal as the second layer. Over the charcoal, add about two inches of small stones as the third layer and add about three to four inches of clean sand on top of the gravel.

(c) Add gravel to the bottle as the final layer. Leave about a half-inch of space from the top of the upside-down bottle.

(d) Pour the glass of muddy water on top of the homemade water filter and watch the water drip clean into the glass below.

Question 23.
How metal reacts with
(a) Oxygen,
(b) Water and
(c) Acids
Answer:
(a) Metals react with oxygen and form their oxides.
Magnesium (Mg) + Oxygen (O₂) → Magnesium Oxide (MgO)
Sodium (Na) + Oxygen (O₂) → Sodium oxide (Na₂O)

(b) Metals react with water differently. Metals like sodium reacts with water vigorously and a lot of heat is produced. Whereas iron reacts with water slowly.
Sodium (Na) + Water (H₂O) → Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) + Hydrogen gas (H₂)

(c) Metals react with dilute acids and produce hydrogen gas that burns with a ‘pop’ sound.
Zinc (Zn) + Hydrochloric acid (HCl) → Sodium chloride (NaCl) + Hydrogen gas (H₂).

Question 24.
(a) What is a displacement reaction? Give an example for it.
(b) Which gas is released when acid reacts with a metal?
Answer:
(a) The chemical reaction in which a more reactive metal displaces/replaces a less reactive metal from its salt solution is called a displacement reaction. But a less reactive metal cannot replace a more reactive metal.
Copper sulphate (CuSO₄) + Zinc (Zn) (Blue) → Zinc sulphate (ZnSO₄) + Copper (Cu) (Colourless) (Reddish brown)

(b) Hydrogen gas is released when acid reacts with a metal.
Sodium (Na) + Water (H₂O) → Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH) + Hydrogen gas (H₂).

Question 25.
Write down three uses of metals and two uses of non-metals.
Answer:
Uses of metals :

• Metals are used in making machinery, automobiles, aeroplanes, trains, satellites and industrial gadgets, etc.
• Metals are used in making cooking utensils, water boilers, etc.
• Metals are used in making decorative arts, jewellery and coins.
• Aluminium foils are used for packaging medicines, chocolates, decorating sweets, wrapping food, etc.

Uses of non-metals :

• Non-metal essential for our life which all living beings inhale during breathing.
• Non-metals used in fertilisers to enhance the growth of plants.
• Non-metal used in water purification process.
• Non-metals used in crackers.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which is the industry responsible for corrosion of marble of the Taj Mahal?
(a) Textile industry
(b) Paper industry
(c) Steel industry
(d) Oil refinery.
Answer:
(d) Oil refinery.

2. Name the suffocating and corrosive gas.
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Oxygen
Answer:
(b) Sulphur dioxide.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science

Here we are providing Online Education Coal and Petroleum Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 5 was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-science/

Online Education for Class 8 Science Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Coal and Petroleum

Extra Questions For Class 8 Science With Answers Question 1.
Name three natural resources.
Answer:
Air, water and soil.

Coal And Petroleum Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 2.
Why air, water, minerals and soil are called natural resources?
Answer:
Because they are provided by nature. Human beings cannot make them.

Coal And Petroleum Class 8 Notes Questions And Answers Question 3.
Name two inexhaustible natural resources.
Answer:
Sunlight and air.

Coal And Petroleum Class 8 Question 4.
Name two exhaustible resources.
Answer:
Wildlife and minerals.

Class 8 Science Extra Questions Question 5.
Name the gas produced during destructive distillation of coal.
Answer:
Coal gas.

Coal Is An Example Of Class 8 Question 6.
What happens when a burning matchstick is taken near the mouth of the outlet tube during destructive distillation of coal?
Answer:
Coal gas catches fire.

Learn Insta Class 8 Extra Questions Question 7.
Name the black residue left behind in the glass tube during destructive distillation of coal.
Answer:
It is coke.

Coal And Petroleum Class 8 Question Answer Question 8.
What is the name of the process in which coal is heated in absence of air.
Answer:
The process is called destructive distillation of coal.

Coal And Petroleum Class 8 Pdf Question 9.
Name the pure form of carbon.
Answer:
The pure form of carbon is coke.

Extra Questions Class 8 Science Question 10.
How is coal gas used nowadays?
Answer:
Nowadays the coal gas is used as a source of heat rather than light.

Ncert Science Book Class 8 Extra Questions With Answers Question 11.
Where was the first oil well drilled?
Answer:
The world’s first oil well was drilled at Pennsylvania, USA in 1859.

Extra Questions Of Science Class 8 Question 12.
When and where was the first oil well drilled in India?
Answer:
In 1867 at Makum in Assam.

Extra Questions For Class 8 Science Question 13.
What is the name of the process of separating the different constituents fractions of petroleum?
Answer:
It is called refining.

Extra Question Of Class 8 Science Question 14.
What is the full form of PCRA?
Answer:
Full form of PCRA is Petroleum Conservation Research Association.

Extra Questions Of Class 8 Science Question 15.
What is termed as black gold?
Answer:
Coal is termed as black gold.

Question 16.
Define fossil fuel.
Answer:
Fossil fuel: The exhaustible natural resources like coal, petroleum and natural gas which were formed from the dead remains of living organisms (fossils) are called fossil fuels. They are found in the earth’s crust.

Question 17.
Define LPG.
Answer:
LPG is Liquefied Petroleum Gas. It is obtained during fractional distillation of petroleum. Its main components are: butane and propane. It is used in filling cylinders and for cooking purposes. It is also used as an industrial fuel.

Question 18.
Define inexhaustible natural resources.
Answer:
Those resources, which are present in unlimited quantity in nature and are not likely to be exhausted by human activities are called inexhaustible natural resources e.g., sunlight, air, etc.

Question 19.
Define exhaustible natural resources.
Answer:
The resources, which are present in limited quantity in nature and can be exhausted by human activities are called exhaustible natural resources e.g., forests, wildlife, minerals, coal, petroleum, natural as, etc.

Question 20.
How were exhaustible natural resources formed?
Answer:
These were formed from the dead remains of living organisms (fossils). So, these are also known as fossil fuels.

Question 21.
What gas is produced when coal is heated in air?
Answer:
When coal is heated in air, a gas called carbon dioxide (CO₂) is formed, which is a harmful gas and its presence in excess causes greenhouse effect and global warming.

Question 22.
Why is coal called fossil fuel?
Answer:
Since coal was formed from the remains of the vegetations (plants), it is called a fossil fuel.

Question 23.
Define carbonisation.
Answer:
The slow process of conversion of dead vegetation into coal is called carbonisation.

Question 24.
What do you mean by destructive distillation?
Answer:
The process of heating coal in the absence of air (oxygen) is called destructive distillation.

Question 25.
From where naphthalene balls are obtained? What is its use?
Answer:
Naphthalene balls are obtained from the coal tar. These balls are used to repel” insects and moths.

Question 26.
What fuel is used in heavy motor vehicles?
Answer:
Diesel is used as fuel in heavy motor vehicles.

Question 27.
Write any two uses of coke.
Answer:
Two uses of coke are :

1. Coke is used in the manufacture of steel.
2. Coke is used in the extraction of many metals.

Question 28.
Name the organisation in India which advises people ‘how to save petrol/ diesel’. Write its full form.
Answer:
In India, PCRA advises people ‘how to save petrol/diesel’ while driving. PCRA give important and valuable tips necessary to follow while driving. The full form of PCRA is Petroleum Conservation Research Association.

Question 29.
What are the uses of coal gas?
Answer:

• The coal gas is used as a fuel in the coal processing plant and in many industries situated near the coal processing plants.
• Earlier it was used for lighting but nowadays it is used as a source of heat.

Question 30.
What is petroleum? What is meant by refining?
Answer:
Petroleum is a dark oily liquid. It has an unpleasant smell. It is a mixture of various constituents such as petroleum gas, petrol, diesel, lubricating oil, paraffin wax, etc. The process of separating the different constituents/fractions is known as refining.

Question 31.
Write down five constituent of petroleum refining with their one use.
Answer:
Constituents of petroleum and their uses :

1. LPG: It is used as a fuel for home and industry.
2. Petrol: It is used as a motor fuel, aviation fuel, and solvent for dry cleaning.
3. Kerosene: It is used as a fuel for stoves, lamps and for jet aircrafts.
4. Diesel: It is used as a fuel for heavy motor vehicles, electric generators.
5. Lubricating oil: It is used for lubrication of moving machinery parts like fans, motors, etc.
6. Paraffin wax: Paraffin wax is used for making ointments, candles, vaseline, etc.

Question 32.
Define the following :
(a) Crude oil
(b) Coke
(c) CNG
(d) PCRA
(e) Natural gas
Answer:
(a) Crude oil: Crude oil is a dark, oily liquid with an unpleasant smell obtained from the layers of the earth crust. It is popularly termed as Petroleum. The term ‘petroleum’ has been derived from the Latin words: ‘petra’ – which means rock and ‘oleum’ – which means oil.

(b) Coke: It is a tough, porous and black substance. It is almost pure form of carbon and contains about 98% carbon. It is a good fuel and bums without smoke.

(c) CNG: Natural gas stored under high pressure in compressed form is called compressed natural gas (CNG). CNG is used for power generation. It is now being used as a fuel for transport vehicles because it is less polluting. It is a cleaner fuel.

(d) PCRA: PCRA advises people ‘how to save petrol/diesel’ while driving. PCRA give important and valuable tips necessary to follow while driving. The full form of PCRA is Petroleum Conservation Research Association.

(e) Natural gas: Natural gas is a fossil fuel found naturally as a gas mixture in the oil wells. Its main component is methane. Natural gas is a very important fossil fuel because it is easy to transport through pipes.

Question 33.
What is fuel? Write down four characteristics of an ideal fuel?
Answer:
A fuel is a substance that is burned to provide heat energy. Materials like coal, wood, diesel, natural gas etc. provide heat so used as fuels.
The characteristics of good fuel are :

1. It should be economical.
2. It should be available easily.
3. It should not emit poisonous gases on burning.
4. It should have a high calorific value.
5. It should be easy to transport and handles.
6. It should leave very little or no ash after burning.

Question 34.
Today large demand of petroleum has increased its drilling from various resources. What will happen if it continues? What steps should be taken in order to mitigate such conditions?
Answer:
The alarming increase in the demand and its drilling can lead to the following consequence :

• The reserve Or stock is limited, it will soon run away.
• Burning these fuels also cause air pollution as well as global warming.

In order to mitigate such situations, the following steps should be taken :

• We should use the fossil fuels judiciously so that they are available for a longer period.
• We must look for alternative sources, such as solar energy, tidal energy, wind energy, etc.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Choose the correct statement from the following :
(a) It is difficult to transport natural gas through pipes.
(b) The disadvantage of natural gas is that it cannot be used directly for burning in homes.
(c) Natural gas is stored under high pressure as compressed natural gas.
(d) Natural gas cannot be used for power generation.
Answer:
(c) Natural gas is stored under high pressure as compressed natural gas.

2. Which gas is produced when coal is burnt :
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(b) Carbon dioxide.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science