Raju

Online Education for Human-Environment Interactions: The Tropical and the Subtropical Region Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 8

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 1.
Where does the equatorial region lie?
Answer:
The region which lies between 10°N and 10°S is referred to as the equatorial region.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 Worksheet Question 2.
What is river’s mouth?
Answer:
The place where a river flows into another body of water is called the river’s mouth.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 3.
Which parts are drained by the Amazon river basin?
Answer:

• Portions of Brazil,
• Parts of Peru,
• Bolivia,
• Ecuador,
• Columbia and
• Small part of Venezuela.

Human Environment Interactions The Tropical And The Subtropical Regions Extra Question 4.
Which is the largest river basin of the world?
Answer:
Amazon basin.

Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 5.
What are tributaries?
Answer:
The small riverS that join the main river are called tributaries.

Chapter 8 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 6.
What is catchment area or river basin?
Answer:
The main river along with all its tributaries that drain an area form a river basin or the catchment area.

Class 7 Geography Ch 8 Extra Questions Question 7.
Which type of vegetation is found in equatorial region? Why?
Answer:
Thick forests grow in the equatorial region because it rains heavily in this region.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 Question 8.
Name two plant parasites found in equatorial region.
Answer:
Orchids and bromeliads.

Geography Class 7 Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 9.
What are bromeliads?
Answer:
Bromeliads are special plants that store water in their leaves.

Class 7 Chapter 8 Geography Extra Questions Question 10.
What work do men and women perform in the rainforests?
Answer:
Men hunt and fish along the rivers, while women take care of the crops.

Class 7th Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 11.
Which crops are grown by the people of rainforests?
Answer:

• Tapioca,
• pineapple and
• sweet potato.

Ch 8 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 12.
Which type of agriculture is practised by the people of rainforests?
Answer:
Slash and burn agriculture.

Geography Chapter 8 Class 7 Extra Questions Question 13.
What is the food of the people residing in rainforests?
Answer:
Manioc (cassava) is the staple food.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 Question Answer Question 14.
Which cash crops are grown in the equatorial region?
Answer:

• Coffee,
• maize and
• cocoa.

Human Environment Interaction Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 15.
What is ‘Maloca’ in the Amazon basin?
Answer:
Large apartment-like houses with steeply slanting roofs are called Maloca in the Amazon basin.

Question 16.
Write the climatic conditions of the Amazon basin.
Answer:

• Amazon basin is characterised by hot and wet climate throughout the year.
• Both days and nights are almost equally hot and humid.
• It rains almost every day.

Question 17.
How have the rainforests of the Amazon basin been made accessible?
Answer:

• The Tranz-Amazon highway have made all parts of the rainforests accessible.
• Aircraft and helicopters are also used to reach various places of the rainforests.

Question 18.
How have developmental activities adversely affected the rainforests?
Answer:

• Development activities have led to gradual destruction of the biologically diverse rainforests.
• A large area of rainforests have disappeared in the Amazon basin.
• The topsoil washes away as the rain falls and the lush forest converts into a barren landscape.

Question 19.
What is slash and burn agriculture?
Answer:
Slash and burn is a way of cultivating land where farmers clear a piece of land by slashing or cutting down trees and bushes. After two or three crops, the soil loses fertility. So farmers abandon that patch and clear another plot of land to cultivate.

Question 20.
Amazon basin is rich in the variety of wildlife. Explain.
Answer:

• Birds such as toucans, hummingbirds, birds of Paradise are found here, which make loud sounds in the forests.
• Animals like monkeys, sloths and anteating tapirs are found here.
• Various species of reptiles and snakes also thrive in these jungles.
• Various species of reptiles and snakes also thrive in these jungles. Anaconda and Boa constrictor are some of the species.
• Basin is also home to thousands of species of insects.
• Several species of fishes including the flesh-eating Piranha fish is also found in the river.

Question 21.
Between which latitudes does the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin lie?
Answer:
The Ganga-Brahmaputra basin lies in the sub-tropical region that is situated between 10°N to 30°N latitudes.

Question 22.
Name the tributaries of the river Ganga.
Answer:

• The Ghaghra,
• the Son,
• the Chambal,
• the Gandak and
• the Kosi.

Question 23.
What are main features of the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin?
Answer:

• The plains of the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
• The mountains and the foothills of the Himalayas;
• The Sunderban delta.

Question 24.
Write the climatic conditions of the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin.
Answer:

• The Ganga-Brahmputra basin is dominated by monsoon climate.
• The monsoon brings rains from mid-June to mid-September.
• The summers are hot and the winters cool.

Question 25.
What is population density? Give one example.
Answer:
Population density means the number of persons that live in one square kilometre of area, e.g., the population density of Uttaranchal is 159.

Question 26.
Name the food crops which are grown in the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin.
Answer:
Rice, wheat, maize, sorghum, gram and millets.

Question 27.
Name the cash crops grown in Ganga-Brahmaputra basin.
Answer:
Sugarcane and jute.

Question 28.
Where is tea grown in the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin?
Answer:
West Bengal arid Assam.

Question 29.
Which type of cultivation is practised in the hilly region?
Answer:
Terrace cultivation.

Question 30.
Where is silk produced in the Ganga- Brahmaputra basin?
Answer:
Bihar and Assam.

Question 31.
Which regions are covered with mangrove and coniferous trees of Ganga- Brahmaputra basin?
Answer:

• The delta area is covered with the mangrove forests.
• Parts of Uttaranchal, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh are covered with coniferous trees.

Question 32.
Name the cities with population of more than ten lakhs located along the river Ganga.
Answer:
Allahabad, Kanpur, Varanasi, Lucknow, Patna and Kolkata.

Question 33.
Explain how topography plays a dominant role in the distribution of population.
Answer:

• The mountain areas with steep slopes have inhospitable terrain. Therefore, less number of people live in mountain areas.
• The plain areas provide the most suitable land for human habitation. The soil is fertile. Agriculture is the main occupation of the people. Therefore, the density of population of the plains is very high.

Question 34.
Name some places of the Ganga- Brahmaputra basin which are worth visiting.
Or
Why has tourism flourished in the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin?
Answer:
The places which are worth visiting in the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin –

• Taj Mahal on the banks of River Yamuna in Agra.
• Allahabad on the confluence of the River Ganga and Yamuna.
• Buddhist stupas in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
• Imambara in Lucknow.
• Kaziranga and Manas wildlife sanctuaries in Assam.

Question 35.
Describe the variety of wildlife found in the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin.
Answer:

• Elephants, tigers, deer and monkeys are common.
• The one-horned rhinoceros is found in the Brahmaputra plains.
• In the delta area, Bengal tigers, crocodiles and alligators are found.
• Aquatic life abounds in the fresh river waters, the lakes and the Bay of Bengal. The popular varieties of the fish are the Rohu, Catla and Hilsa.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following terms is used for the Tropical region lying between 10°N and 10°S latitudes?
(a) Temperate region
(b) Equatorial region
(c) Polar region
(d) Sub-Tropical region.
Answer:
(b) Equatorial region.

2. Which one of the following is not a part of the Amazon basin?
(a) Brazil
(b) Ecuador
(c) Columbia
(d) Argentina.
Answer:
(d) Argentina.

3. What kind of climate is found in the Amazon basin?
(a) Cloudy
(b) Hot and wet
(c) Rainy
(d) Cold.
Answer:
(b) Hot and wet.

4. Which one of the following types of forests is found in the Amazon basin?
(a) Tropical Rainforest
(b) Temperate Grasslands
(c) Tropical Deciduous forests
(d) Temperate Deciduous forests.
Answer:
(a) Tropical Rainforest.

5. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the crops growing in Amazon basin?
(a) Tapioca
(b) Wheat
(c) Pineapple
(d) Sweet potato.
Answer:
(b) Wheat.

6. Which one of the following is the staple food of Amazon basin?
(a) Manioc (Cassava)
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Coffee
(d) Tea.
Answer:
(a) Manioc (Cassava).

7. What type of agriculture is practised in the Amazon basin?
(a) Intensive agriculture
(b) Subsistence agriculture
(c) Slash and burn agriculture
(d) Plantation agriculture.
Answer:
(c) Slash and burn agriculture.

8. Which one of the following terms is used for the apartment like houses of Amazon basin?
(a) Flat
(b) Circular houses
(c) Composite houses
(d) Maloca.
Answer:
(d) Maloca.

9. By which one of the following mode of transportation the Amazon basin becomes accessible?
(a) Trans-Amazon Highway
(b) Trans-Siberian railway
(c) Leh-Manali Highway
(d) Trans-Canadian Highway.
Answer:
(a) Trans-Amazon Highway.

10. Which one of the following rivers forms the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin?
(a) Yamuna river
(b) Ganga-Brahmaputra rivers
(c) Krishna-Kaveri rivers
(d) Narmada and Tapi rivers.
Answer:
(b) Ganga-Brahmaputra rivers.

11. What is the latitudinal extent of the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin?
(a) 5°N to 10°N latitudes
(b) 10°N to 20°N latitudes
(c) 10°N to 30°N latitudes
(d) 10°S to 30°N latitudes.
Answer:
(c) 10°N to 30°N latitudes.

12. Which one of the following is the main features of Ganga-Brahmaputra basin?
(a) Malwa plateau
(b) Thar desert
(c) Peninsular plateau
(d) Sunderban delta.
Answer:
(d) Sunderban delta.

13. What type of climate is found in the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin?
(a) Monsoon type of climate
(b) Sub-Tropical type of climate
(c) Savanna type of climate
(d) Sudan type of climate.
Answer:
(a) Monsoon type of climate.

14. Which one of the following wild animals is found in the Brahmaputra plains?
(а) Wild Ass
(b) One horned rhinoceros
(c) Crocodiles
(d) Anaconda.
Answer:
(b) One horned rhinoceros.

15. Which one of the following is the staple food of the people of Ganga- Brahmaputra basin?
(a) Rice and Beans
(b) Wheat and Rice
(c) Rice and Fish
(d) Coffee and Tea.
Answer:
(c) Rice and Fish.

16. Which one of the following is an important port on the river Hooghly?
(a) Mumbai port
(b) Kandla port
(c) Kolkata port
(d) Marmagoa port
Answer:
(c) Kolkata port.

17. On which one of the following rivers is the Taj Mahal situated?
(a) River Ganga
(b) River Yamuna,
(c) River Narmada
(d) River Tapi.
Answer:
(b) River Yamuna.

18. Kaziranga and Manas Wildlife Sanctuaries are located in;
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Allahabad
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Assam.

19. Which one of the following cities is located on the confluence of the rivers Ganga and Yamuna?
(a) Patna
(b) Lucknow
(c) Agra
(d) Allahabad.
Answer:
(d) Allahabad.

20. Which one of the following regions is the Bengal tiger found?
(a) Mountains
(b) Delta areas
(c) Deserts
(d) Amazon basin
Answer:
(c) Deserts.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Industries Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Online Education for Industries Class 8 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 5

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
On what basis industries can be classified?
Answer:
Industries can be classified on the following bases –

• raw materials,
• size,
• ownership.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 2.
Classify the industries on the basis of ownership.
Answer:
Private sector, state-owned or public sector, joint sector and co-operative sector.

Chapter 5 Industries Class 8 Extra Questions Question 3.
Name the major industrial regions of the world.
Answer:

• Eastern North America,
• Western and Central Europe,
• Eastern Europe,
• Eastern Asia.

Industries Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Why do industrial accidents or disasters occur?
Answer:
Industrial accidents occur mainly due to technical failure or irresponsible handling of hazardous material.

Industries Class 8 Extra Questions Question 5.
Name the countries where iron and steel industry is located.
Answer:
Germany, USA, China, Japan and Russia.

Extra Questions For Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Question 6.
In which countries is textile industry concentrated?
Answer:
India, Hong Kong, South Korea, Japan and Taiwan.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Short Extra Questions Question 7.
In which countries do the major hubs of Information Technology (IT) industry lie?
Answer:

• Silicon Valley in Central California.
• Bangalore region of India.

Class 8 Industries Extra Questions Question 8.
Why is iron and steel industry called a feeder industry?
Answer:
Iron and steel industry is called a feeder industry because its products are used as raw materials for other industries.

Industries Class 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 9.
Write the names of great lakes of North America.
Answer:
Superior, Huron, Ontario, Michigan and Erie.

Ncert Class 8 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 10.
Name the regions of Pittsburgh where large steel mills are located.
Answer:

• Valley of Monogahela river.
• Valley of Allegheny river.
• Along the river Ohio.

Geography Class 8 Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 11.
Give examples of natural fibres.
Answer:
Wool, silk, cotton, linen and jute.

Chapter 5 Geography Class 8 Extra Questions Question 12.
Give examples of man-made fibres.
Answer:
Nylon, polyester, acrylic, rayon.

Extra Questions On Industries Class 8 Question 13.
Which countries are the important producers of cotton textiles?
Answer:
India, China, Japan and USA.

Class 8 Geography Ch 5 Extra Questions Question 14.
India has a glorious tradition of producing good quality cotton textiles. Give examples of Indian handspun and handwoven cloth.
Answer:

• Muslins of Dhaka
• Chintzes of Masulipatnam
• Calicos of Calicut
• Gold-wrought cotton pieces of Burhanpur, Surat and Vadodara.

Class 8th Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 15.
When and where was the first successful modem textile mill established?
Answer:
In 1854 at Mumbai.

Question 16.
Name an important textile centre of Japan.
Answer:
Osaka is an important textile centre of Japan. It is also known as ‘Manchester of Japan’.

Question 17.
From which countries does Japan import cotton?
Answer:
Egypt, India, China and USA.

Question 18.
Which industries have replaced the cotton textile industry of Osaka?
Answer:
Iron and steel, machinery, ship¬building, automobiles, electrical equipments and cement.

Question 19.
Define Information Technology industry.
Answer:
The information technology industry deals in the storage, processing and distribution of information.

Question 20.
Which factors guide the location of IT industry?
Answer:
Resource availability, cost and infrastructure.

Question 21.
Name the major hubs of the IT industry.
Answer:

• Silicon Valley, California
• Bangalore, India.

Question 22.
What do you understand by secondary activities? Explain with the help of example.
Answer:
Secondary activities change raw materials into products of more value to people. For example, pulp is changed into paper and paper into a notebook.

Question 23.
Explain how products of mineral-based industries feed other industries.
Answer:
Iron made from iron-ore is the product of mineral-based industry. This is used as raw material for the manufacture of various products such as heavy machinery, building materials and railway coaches.

Question 24.
What is the difference between private sector and public sector industries?
Answer:
Private-sector industries are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals. Public sector industries are owned and operated by the government.

Question 25.
Write the difference between joint sector and co-operative sector industries.
Answer:
Joint sector industries are owned and. operated by the state and individuals or a group of individuals.
Co-operative sector industries are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials, workers or both.

Question 26.
Name the major industrial regions of India.
Answer:

• Mumbai-Pune cluster
• Bangalore-Tamil Nadu region
• Hugli region
• Ahmedabad-Baroda region
• Chottanagpur industrial belt
• Visakhapatnam-Guntur belt
• Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region
• Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram region.

Question 27.
What was the cause of industrial disaster which occurred in Bhopal on 3 December 1984?
Answer:
The industrial disaster in Bhopal on 3 December 1984 occurred due to the leakage of highly poisonous Methyl Isocyanate (MIC) gas along with Hydrogen Cyanide and other reactive products.

Question 28.
What are ‘Sunrise Industries’? Give examples of such industries.
Answer:
Emerging industries are also known as ‘Sunrise Industries’. For example, Informa¬tion Technology, Hospitality and Knowledge.

Question 29.
Mention the inputs of iron and steel industry.
Answer:
The inputs of iron and steel industry are –

• Raw materials – iron-ore, coal, limestone
• labour,
• capital,
• land,
• other infrastructure.

Question 30.
Write two characteristics of steel.
Answer:

1. Steel is hard and it can easily be shaped, cut or made into wire.
2. Special alloys of steel can be made by adding other metals like aluminium, nickel and copper. It gives unusual hardness, toughness or ability to resist rust.

Question 31.
After 1950, why did iron and steel industry begin to be located on flat land and near seaports?
Answer:
After 1950 iron and steel industry began to be located on flat land near seaports because steelworks had become very large and iron-ore had been imported from overseas.

Question 32.
Name the import steel-producing centres of India. Also, mention the states where they are located.
Answer:

Steel producing centres	States where they are located
1. Bhilai	Chhattisgarh
2. Durgapur,	West Bengal
3. Burnpur	West Bengal
4. Jamshedpur,	Jharkhand
5. Bokaro	Jharkhand
6. Rourkela	Orissa
7. Bhadravati,	Karnataka
8. Vijaynagar	Karnataka
9. Visakhapatnam	Andhra Pradesh
10. Salem	Tamil Nadu

Question 33.
Why has the cotton textile industry spread to different parts of the country?
Answer:
Cotton textile industry has spread to different parts of the country because :

• Raw cotton is a pure and lightweight raw material.
• Humidity can be created artificially which is important for cotton textile.

Question 34.
Why could traditional cotton textile not compete with new textile mills of the West (Europe)?
Answer:

• The production of handwoven cotton textile was expensive and time-consuming.
• Textile mills of the West (Europe) produced cheap and good quality fabrics.

Question 35.
Name some major cotton textile centres of India.
Answer:
Coimbatore, Kanpur, Chennai, Ahmedabad, Mumbai, Kolkata, Ludhiana, Pondicherry and Panipat.

Question 36.
Why have textile mills been closed down in Ahmedabad?
Answer:
Textile mills have been closed down in Ahmedabad because:

• New textile centres have emerged in India.
• Machines and technology have not been upgraded.

Question 37.
Name the two major hubs of IT industry. Also, write their locations.
Answer:

1. Bangalore is located on the Deccan Plateau of India.
2. Silicon Valley is a part of Santa Clara Valley, located next to the Rocky Mountains of North America.

Question 38.
Name some emerging information technology hubs in India.
Answer:
Mumbai, New Delhi, Hyderabad, Chennai, Gurgaon, Pune, Thiruvananthapuram, Kochi and Chandigarh.

Question 39.
On the outline map of India show the following places. Ahmedabad.
Answer:
Ahmedabad.

Question 40.
Which industry is often referred to as the backbone of modern industry and why?
Answer:
Iron and steel industry is often referred to as the backbone of modem industry because almost everything we use is either made of iron or steel or has been made with tools and machinery of these metals.

Question 41.
How can industries be classified on the basis of raw materials? Explain.
Answer:
On the basis of raw materials, industries can be classified in the following ways –

• Agro-based industries use plant and animal-based products as their raw materials. For example, food processing.
• Mineral-based industries use mineral ores as their raw material. For example, iron and steel industry.
• Marine-based industries use products from the sea and oceans as raw materials. For example, manufacturing of fish oil.
• Forest-based industries utilise forest produce as raw materials. For example, paper and pulp, furniture and building.

Question 42.
What do you understand by Industrial System? Explain with the help of an example.
Answer:
Industrial System consists of inputs, processes and outputs.

• The inputs are raw materials, labour, cost of land, transport, power etc.
• The processes include a wide range of activities that convert the raw materials into finished products.
• The outputs are the end products and the income is earned from it.

For example, in textile industry the inputs are cotton, labour, factory building, transport cost, etc. The processes include ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing and printing. The output are the garments like shirt, trousers, etc.

Question 43.
Describe the utility of steel in our day-to-day life.
Or
Explain how steel is the backbone of modern industry.
Answer:

• Various modes of transport like ships, trains, trucks and autos are made of steel.
• The safety pins and the needles are also made of steel.
• Oil wells are drilled with steel machinery. Steel pipelines transport oil.
• Minerals are mined with steel equipment.
• Farm machines are made up of steel.
• Large buildings have steel frameworks.

Question 44.
Why was Sakchi (near Jamshedpur) chosen to set up the steel plant (TISCO)? Give reasons.
Answer:
Sakchi was chosen to set up the steel plant (TISCO) for various reasons –

• It was close to the iron ore, coal and manganese deposits. TISCO gets coal from Jharia coalfields and iron-ore, limestone, dolomite and manganese from Orissa and Chhattisgarh.
• The Kharkai and Subarnarekha rivers ensured sufficient water supply.
• Kolkata provided a large market.
• Government initiatives provided adequate capital for its later development.

Question 45.
Describe the locational advantages of Pittsburgh steel city in the United States of America.
Answer:
Locational advantages df Pittsburgh steel city –

• Coal is available locally.
• Iron-ore comes from the iron mines at Minnesota, about 1500 km from Pittsburgh.
• The world’s best route – the famous Great Lakes waterway is available for shipping ore cheaply.
• Trains carry the ore from the Great Lakes to the Pittsburgh area.
• The Ohio, the Monogahela and Allegheny rivers provide adequate water supply.

Question 46.
Describe the favourable locational factors that were responsible for the development of the textile industry in Ahmedabad.
Answer:

• Ahmedabad is situated in the “heart of a cotton-growing area. This ensures easy availability of raw material.
• The humid climate is ideal for spinning and weaving.
• The flat terrain is suitable for the establishment of the mills.
• The densely populated states of Gujarat and Maharashtra provide both skilled and semi-skilled labour.
• There are well-developed road and railway network.
• Nearby Mumbai port facilitates import of machinery and export of cotton textiles.

Question 47.
Why has the textile industry developed in Osaka (Japan)?
Or
Describe the geographical factors responsible for the location of textile industry in Osaka (Japan).
Answer:

• The extensive plain around Osaka ensured the availability of land for the growth of cotton mills.
• Warm humid climate is well suited to spinning and weaving.
• The river Yodo provides sufficient water for the mills.
• Labour is easily available.
• Location of port facilitates import of raw cotton and for exporting textiles.

Question 48.
Explain the classification of Industries
Answer:
Industries can be classified on the following basis –
Raw Materials-Agro-based and mineral-based like food processing iron and steel industry.

Question 49.
Explain the factors influencing the location of an industry.
Answer:
Factors which affect the location of an industry are:

• Availability of raw materials
• land
• water
• labour
• power
• capital
• transport
• market
• government policies
• communication.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Industry refers to …………………………….. activity that is concerned with production of goods, extraction of minerals or the provision of services.
(a) apolitical
(b) a social
(c) a cultural
(d) an economic
Answer:
(d) an economic.

2. What is not true about cottage industry?
(a) It is a type of small scale industry.
(b) Its products are manufactured by machines.
(c) It is also known as household industry.
(d) Basket weaving is a cottage industry.
Answer:
(b) Its products are manufactured by machines.

3. The processes such as ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing and printing are associated with the industry.
(a) steel industry
(b) chemical
(c) textile
(d) paper
Answer:
(c) textile.

4. operate for profit in the market.
(а) Government
(b) Private Companies
(c) Cooperative Societies
Answer:
(b) Private Companies.

Glossary:

→ Secondary activities or Manufacturing – These activities change raw materials into products of more value to people.

→ Industry- It refers to an economic activity that is concerned with production of goods, extraction of minerals or the provision of services.

→ Agro-based industries – These industries use plant and animal-based products as their raw materials.

→ Mineral-based industries – These industries use mineral ores as their raw materials.

→ Marine-based industries – These industries use products from sea and oceans as raw materials.

→ Forest-based industries – These industries utilise forest product as raw materials.

→ Cottage or household industries – Here products are manufactured by hand by the artisans.

→ Private sector industries – These are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals.

→ Public sector industries – These are owned and operated by the government.

→ Joint sector industries – These are owned and operated by the state and individuals or a group of individuals.

→ Co-operative sector industries – These are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials.

→ Smelting- It is the process in which metals are extracted from their ores by heating beyond the melting point.

→ TISCO – Tata Iron and Steel Company.

→ Information Technology – This industry deals in storage, processing and distribution of information.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Media Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Online Education for Understanding Media Class 7 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 6

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 1.
What is media?
Answer:
All means of communication are collectively referred to as media.

Understanding Media Class 7 Extra Questions Question 2.
Why are newspapers called print media?
Answer:
The newspapers are called print media, because these newspapers use print technology in reporting their news, etc.

Understanding Media Class 7 Worksheet With Answers Question 3.
What is censorship?
Answer:
When the government prevents media from making a news or programme or their parts public, it is called censorship.

Understanding Media Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 4.
What do you mean by mass media?
Answer:
Those forms of media that reaches millions of people or the masses, across the country and the world, are called mass media. For example, Television, radio and newspapers.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions And Answers Question 5.
How does the technology help media?
Answer:
The technology helps media to reach more people. It also improves the quality of print, sound and the images that reaches to the public.

Understanding Media Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 6.
What role does media play in democracy?
Answer:

• In democracy, the media plays a significant role in providing news arid discussing events that generally takes place in the country and the world.
• Through these news the citizen come to know about the work of the government and decide their action.

Class 7 Civics Ch 6 Extra Questions Question 7.
What is the role of TV in our live?
Answer:

• At present we can not imagine oiribes without TV. It has made us the members of the world community.
• It allows us to view news and entertainment ctannels across the world through satellites and cables.
• We can see live telecasts of any event, natural calamities, etc., happening in one, corner while sitting in other corners of the world. Thus, the TV has changed the world into a small village.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following terms is used to refer to the radio, TV, newspapers, internet and several forms of communications?
(a) LCD
(b) Mass Media
(c) Print Media
(d) Electronic Media.
Answer:
(b) Mass Media

Understanding Media Extra Questions

2. Which one of the following is an example of Print Media?
(a) Newspapers
(b) TV
(c) Radio
(d) Internet.
Answer:
(a) Newspapers.

Ncert Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions

3. Which one of the following is different from the other three, \Vith reference to the electronic media?
(a) TV
(b) Radio
(c) Stereo
(d) Magazines.
Answer:
(d) Magazines.

Class 7 Civics Understanding Media Extra Questions

4. Which one of the following is false about the changing technology?
(а) It improves the quality of sound.
(b) It can’t be used anytime and anyplace.
(c) It improves the images.
(d) It helps media to reach more and more people.
Answer:
(b) It can’t be used anytime and anyplace.

Chapter 6 Civics Class 7 Extra Questions

5. Television images travel huge distances through;
(а) electricity
(b) satellites and cables
(c) new technology
(d) improved machines.
Answer:
(b) satellites and cables.

Ch 6 Civics Class 7 Extra Questions

6. Which one of the following is mainly associated with Japan and United States?
(a) Serials
(b) Movies
(c) News
(d) Cartoon.
Answer:
(d) Cartoon.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions

7. Which, one of the following statements is true about the independent media?
(a) It should be controlled by high-class people.
(b) It should be controlled by university students.
(c) It should not be controlled and influenced by any organisation.
(d) It should be controlled by the government.
Answer:
(c) It should not be controlled and influenced by any organisation.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Question Answer

8. Which one of the following is important in a democracy? ,
(a) Independent media
(b) TVs
(c) Radios
(d) Newspapers.
Answer:
(a) Independent media.

Media And Democracy Class 7 Questions And Answers

9. Why is the media far from independence?
(а) Government’s control on the media
(b) Because it shows news only
(c) Because of the lack of entertainment
(d) Because they need money from big organisations.
Answer:
(а) Government’s control on the media.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Questions And Answers

10. In which one of the following periods, the media was censored by the government?
(a) 1990-1991
(b) 1975-1977
(c) 1976-1980
(d) 1980-1985.
Answer:
(b) 1975-1977.

Extra Questions On Understanding Media Class 7

11. The media influence our;
(a) food habits
(b) clothing
(c) lifestyle
(d) thoughts, feelings and actions.
Answer:
(d) thoughts, feelings and actions.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Civics Chapter 6

12. Which one of the following newspapers is run by eight Dalit women in Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Janata
(b) Khabar Lahriya
(c) Maro Gaun
(d) Meri Baat
Answer:
(b) Khabar Lahriya.

Important Terms:

Publish: Publish means to produce or print news reports, articles, interviews, stories, etc., in newspapers, magazines, journals and books for a wide audience to read.

Censorship: Censorship is the power that authorises the government to examine material or certain stories that is to be published and ban anything considered offensive or a threat to security either in part or whole of a media, i.e., book, film, newspapers, etc.

Broadcast: Broadcast is the process of transmission of different types of informative popular programmes by radio or television to aware and entertains the people.

Public protest: Public protest is a powerful way by which a large number of people come together and openly state their opposition to some issues or draw attention to injustices. It is generally done by organising public rallies and demonstrations, starting a signature campaign, blocking roads, etc.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Electoral Politics Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-social-science/

Online Education for Electoral Politics Class 9 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 4

Electoral Politics Class 9 Extra Questions Question 1.
What is considered as the barometer of democracy?
Answer:
Elections.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Extra Questions Learn Insta Question 2.
What is known as the lifeline of the election procedure?
Answer:
The political parties are known as the lifeline of the election procedure.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 Question Answers Question 3.
Name the state where the National Conference is active in politics.
Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
In which state AI’ADMK is a prominent party?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Important Questions Question 5.
What is the name of the Chief Election Commissioner during whose tenure a large number of electoral -reforms were carried out?
Answer:
T. N. Seshah.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 6.
What are the means Of electronic media?
Answer:

• Radio,
• Television,
• Cinema.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Important Questions Answers Question 7.
By whom the election procedure of our country is controlled?
Answer:
By the Election Commission.

Ncert Solutions For Class 9 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 8.
What is the election called which is held when Lok Sabha or the State Assembly is dissolved before die expiry of its full term?
Answer:
Mid-term election.

Class 9 Electoral Politics Extra Questions Question 9.
What is meant by an election?
Answer:
An election is the contest which is held between different political parties in order to get people’s support.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Extra Questions Learninsta Question 10.
On which principle is the system of universal adult franchise based?
Answer:
On the principle of “one person one vote”.

Extra Question Answer Of Chapter 4 Civics Class 9th Question 11.
What do you mean by the democracy?
Answer:
Democracy is the form of the government “which is elected by the people, ruled by the people and works for the welfare of the people.

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 12.
What is meant by the political equality?
Answer:
Political equality is the situation every political party has equal right to fight’ elections.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 3 Electoral Politics Extra Questions And Answers Question 13.
What is the difference between a party candidate and independent candidate?
Answer:
A party candidate fights an election on the basis of the principles of the party he belongs. He uses the party election symbol as his election symbol. On the other hand, an independent candidate fights election on his own principles. He uses the symbol provided, by the Election Commission specially to him.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Learn Insta Question 14.
Why are the symbols allotted to die political parties?
Answer:
The parties are allotted different symbols so that they can have their distinct identity and a voter can easily identify to which party candidate he is going to vote.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Questions Answers Question 15.
Which political party did Chaudhary Devi Lai form in 1987?
Answer:
Lok Dal.

Question 16.
Which movement did Chaudhary Devi Lai launch in 1987?
Answer:
Nyaya Yudh.

Question 17.
Which party ruled before the elections in Haryana before 1987?
Answer:
The Congress Party.

Question 18.
Which party formed the government after 1987 elections?
Answer:
The Lok Dal.

Question 19.
Was Devi Lai very popular at that time?
Answer:
Yes, Devi Lai was very popular at. that time.

Question 20.
Did Lok Dal make arty promises to people?
Answer:
The Lok Dal headed by Devi Lai promised to build a new Haryana.

Question 21.
Did Devi Lai fulfil promise to waive farmer loans on becoming Chief Minister?
Answer:
Yes, after, becoming Chief Minister, Devi Lai fulfilled the promise he made in election campaign by passing an order waiving the loans of the farmers, agricultural labourers, and small shopkeepers.

Question 22.
Devi Lai had not given any manifesto to the people. What are the other means by which people could know about his priorities?
Answer:
Devi Lai’s approach was direct- talking to liis audience.

Question 23.
What are the different methods used by political parties during the election campaign to seek vote?
Answer:
Processions, public meetings, door to door campaign, holding corner meetings, distributing pamphlets, badges etc.

Question 24.
How many seats did the Lok Dal also capture in the 1987 elections?
Answer:
60 seats out of 90; Lok Dal together with Bhartiya Janata Party captured 76 seats.

Question 25.
How many seats did the Congress Party obtain in 1987?
Answer:
5 seats.

Question 26.
Why are elections considered essential for any representative democracy in our times?
Answer:
The elections are considered essential for democracy because of the following reasons :

• The voters are able to choose who will make laws for them.
• They can choose who will sit in government and take major decisions.
• They can choose the party whose ‘ policies will guide the government and lawmaking.

These choices are not made once and for all. In democratic elections, the people get a chance to make a fresh choice after some time. If they want they can retain the same party’, the same government and the same representatives. But if they are hot, satisfied with the performance of any of these, they can make a change at that level or at all the levels. This ensures that representatives remain answerable to the people.

Question 27.
It is said that the elections are about political competition. Explain.
Answer:
Elections are all about political competition. The competition takes various forms. The most obvious form is the competition among political parties. At the level of constituency, it takes the form of competition among several candidates. Very often the competition turns into a personality race among the top leaders of various parties. Elections also involve competition among various policies and ideologies. If there is no competition, there is no point in having elections.

Question 28.
“Political competition provide a system of rewards and punishment”. Discuss.
Answer:
Political competition provides a system of rewards and punishment. It is a system where political leaders are rewarded for good work and punished for not serving the people. It is like school examinations; There is no need for examination if we could be sure that all the students will study sincerely all the times. But we cannot be sure of that. That is why, We have examinations as a system of rewards and punishment.

Question 29.
A political party won the elections in 1986. Since then no new elections have taken place and that party continues to run the government. Is this country democratic today? Give your reasons to argue for or against it? Why should it be necessary to contest elections again and again?
Answer:
In any democracy, elections have not to be only free and fair, they have to be conducted timely also, A political party, winning the elections and forming the government can not remain in power forever, nor that country be called democratic. For a country to be called democratic, elections have to be conducted frequently, i.e. at fixed times, and regularly as well.

Question 30.
Based on this account of Haryana. elections, are the following statements correct? Give facts from that example to support what you say.
(a) The party that ruled before the elections and the one that formed government after the elections was the same.
(b) Devi Lai fulfilled his promise to waive farmer loans on becoming chief minister.
(c) People vote. They can vote in support of existing government or support another party.
(d) Members of the majority party elect their leader. This person becomes the chief minister.
(e) Political parties tell the voters as to what they would do if voted to power.
(f) Political parties make their promises’ known to voters in a statement, called election manifesto.
(g) The contesting parties appeal to voters on the basis of a slogan.
Answer:
(a) No, party that ruled before the elections was the Congress Party; party that ruled after the elections was the Lok Dal
(b) It is correct: Devi Lai fulfilled the promise to waive the farmers’ loans after he took over as the chief minister.
(c) Yes, by voting, the people either support the existing, government or can support another party.
(d) True, the members of the legislature belonging to the majority party elect their leader; the leader is appointed, the chief minister, if the party belongs to a state.
(e) This is done by the political parties by issuing its election manifesto; promises made to the voters.
(f) Correct: this is what the election manifesto does.
(g) This is also true; numerous political parties resort to slogans. Devi Lai used the slogan in 1987; it was ‘Bharashtachar band aur pani ka prabhandh.

Question 32.
What type of legal declaration is given when the nomination form is filled?
Answer:
Every candidate, contesting elections, has to make a legal declaration giving details of:

• Serious criminal cases pending against them.
• Details of their and their family assets and liabilities.
• Education qualifications.

This system was started after, an important judgement of the Supreme Court of India.

Question 33.
What may be the reason to insist on a detailed statement of assets and liabilities?
Answer:
The reason to insist on a detailed statement of assets and liabilities is to avoid the risk of the candidate’s amassing money through unfair means.

Question 34.
Give some of the successful slogans by different political parties in various elections in India in the past.
Answer:
Some of the successful slogans are asunder:
The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi gave the slogan of “Remove Poverty” (Garibi Hatao) in the Lok Sabha elections of 1971. The party promised to recurrent all the policies of the government to remove poverty from the country.

“Save Democracy” was the slogan used by Janata Party in the next Lok Sabha election held in 1977. The party promised to undo the excesses committed during Emergency and restore civil liberties.

The Left Front used the slogan of “Land to the Tiller” in the West Bengal assembly elections held in 1977.
“Protect the Self-Respect of the Telugus” was the slogan used by N. T. Rama Rao, the leader of the Telugu Desam Party in Andhra Pradesh assembly elections in 1983.

Question 35.
Give details of the election laws which prohibit the candidates when they indulge in election campaign.
Answer:
According to our election laws, no party or candidate can:

• Bribe or threaten the voters.
• Appeal to them in the name of caste or religion etc.
• Use government resources for election campaign.
• Spend more than Rs. 25 Lakh for a Lok Sabha election or Rs. 10 Lakhs in an assembly election.

If they do so/their election can be rejected by court even after they have been declared elected. Minimum conditions of a Democratic Elections First, everyone should be able to choose; Everyone can vote and every vote should have equal value. Second, there should be something to choose from. Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections and should offer some real choice to the voters.

Third, the voice should be offered at regular intervals. Elections must be held regularly after every few years.
Fourth, the candidate preferred by the people should get elected. Fifth, elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner where people can choose as they really wish.

Question 36.
Mention the details about a model code of conduct for the election campaign as agreed by all the political parties in India.
Answer:
The following sum up the Model Code of conduct for the election campaign:

• Any place of worship shall not be used for election propaganda.
• Criticisms of the opponents shall be limited to their policies, programmes, past records and work and will not mention their personal lives.
• No flags, banners, notices, slogans shall be placed on any building without the permission of the owner.
• The government transport including official aircrafts, vehicles, machinery and personnel shall not be used by ministers and the ruling party.
• The ministers shall not lay foundation stones of any projects or make any promises of providing public facilities after elections have been announced.

Question 37.
Explain Universal Adult Franchise.
Answer:
The Universal Adult Franchise ‘ refers to the enjoyment of right to vote by all the adult citizens of the county, without any discrimination i.e., on the basis of caste, creed, colour, sex, education and place of birth. It is a well-known fact that every citizen of India who is 18 years of age and above and who is not otherwise disqualified, is entitled to vote in the elections.

Question 38.
“It is said elections are the barometers of Democracy”. What do you understand by this sentence?
Answer:
In a democratic form of government, tiie elections are considered as barometers of democracy because the elections are very crucial in democratic setup. Elections provide opportunity to the people to judge the performance of the representatives. Elections also generate a new political attitude which can determine the future course of the country at. large.

Question 39.
Write a short note on the Election Commission.
Answer:
The election commission is the highest body in our country to conduct the elections. It not only conducts tire elections but also controls and even supervises this process. All elections to the parliament and to the state legislatures and elections to the offices of the President and the Vice President are conducted by the Election commission. It is the Election Commission which fixes and announces the dates of the elections in our country. The Election Commission also makes sure that the party in power does not take undue advantage over other parties.

Question 40.
What is meant by Election Petition?
Answer:
When a candidate is not satisfied about the way the elections have been held in his constituency, he Can file a petition in the court and question the election of another candidate. This kind of petition is called an election petition. Being accepted, this kind of petition leads to a by-election to that particular seat.

Question 41.
What is the importance of the electoral symbols?
Or
Why that different political parties are given different electoral symbols?
Answer:
All the political parties, as well as the independent candidates, also are allotted symbols by the Election Commission. All the major well-Renown political parties have been allotted permanent symbols. These symbols are well-known and quite popular among the public An Indian can easily recognize a Congress candidate by the symbol of palm as well a BJP candidate by the lotus.

Election symbols are allotted mainly, because of the following reasons :

• These symbols help the ordinary man and even an illiterate to recognise the parties.
• These symbols help the. political parties to arrange their processions and meetings and carry on their propaganda from street to street.
• Symbols also help in the situation when there are more than one candidate of the same name in the same constituency
• In fact symbols make it easy to caste one’s vote.

Question 42.
State briefly the importance of regular electoral competitions.
Answer:
Regular electoral competition provides incentives to political parties and leaders. They know that if they do good work that would make them popular and increase their chances of victory in the next elections. But if, they fail to satisfy the voters with their work they will not be able ta win again. So, if a political party or leader was motivated only by desire to be in power and to continue to be so, even then they would be forced to serve the people.

This is a bit like market. Even if a shopkeeper is interested, only in his profit, he is forced to give good service to the customers, If he does not, the customer will go to some other shop. Similarly, political competition may cause divisions and some ugliness, but it finally, helps to force political parties and leaders to serve the people.

Question 43.
How is this election process complete in a country?
Answer:
The following steps are the major ones in the election process in our country :

• Elections are announced together with their dates for purposes such as of nomination filling ‘forms, scrutiny etc.,
• The Election Commission makes sure that the political party in power does not take any undue advantage over other parties.
• The candidates fill up the nomination papers.
• The nomination papers or the applications are scrutinized.
• The candidates not willing to contest any more withdraw their candidature.
• The final list of the candidates is published. ,
• Campaigning done by the candidates and their supporters.
• On the day of the election, casting of votes is performed in a free and fair atmosphere.
• After the counting, results are announced.
  Thus, the election procedure in Our country is completed.

Question 44.
Prepare a brief list of the minimum conditions of any democratic elections.
Answer:
The following is the list of minimum conditions in any democratic elections :

• First, everyone should be able to choose. This means that everyone should have one vote and every vote should have equal value.
• Second, there should be something to chose from/Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections and should offer some real choice to the voters.
• Third; the choice should be offered at regular intervals. Elections must be held regularly after every few years,
• Fourth, whoever people choose should get elected. Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner where people can choose as they really wish.

Question 45.
Give a brief account of election campaign.
Answer:
The main purpose of election is to give people a chance to choose the representatives, the government and’ the policies they prefer. Therefore, it is necessary to have a free and.open discussion about who is a better representative, which party will give a better government or what.is a good policy. This is what happens during election campaign. In our country, there are two weeks between the declaration of candidates and the polling of votes.

During this period the candidates contact their voters, political leaders address election meetings and political parties mobilise their supporters. This is also, the period when newspapers and television news are full of election related stories and debates. But election campaign is not limited to the two weeks only. Political parties start preparing for election, months before the election actually takes place.

Question 46.
State briefly some challenges to free and fair election.
Answer:
There are always challenges to free and fair election. Some of these are:

1. Candidates and parties with a lot of money may not be sure of their victory, but they do enjoy a big and unfair advantage over others.
2. In some parts of the country, candidates with criminal connection have been able to push others out of electoral race and secure ‘tickets from more parties;
3. Very often elections offer little choice to ordinary citizens, for both the major parties are similar to each other and do not wish to raise any major issue;
4. Smaller parties and independent candidates suffer a huge disadvantage compared to bigger parties; and
5. Election campaign often does not raise any basic questions and therefore does not offer any real voice to the people.

Question 47.
What is the importance of the independent Election Commission? How does such a commission help ensure free and fair elections?
Answer:
In our country, elections are conducted by an independent and very powerful Election Commission. A Commission enjoys the same kind of independence that the judiciary enjoys. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is appointed by the President of India. But once appointed the Chief Election Commissioner is not answerable to the President or the government. Even if the ruling party or the government does not like what the Commission does, it is virtually impossible for it to remove the CEC.

The Election Commission is a very powerful body:

• Our Constitution gives it tire power to take decision on every aspect of conduct and control of elections from the declaration of elections to the declaration of results;
• The Commission lias the power to implement the Code of Conduct and punish any a candidates or party that violates it;
• During the period of the elections, the EC can order, the government to follow some guidelines, including transferring some government officials like the Collector or SP; and
• When government officers work on election duty, they are under the control of the EC and not the government.

Question 48.
Why are certain constituencies reserved and for whom?
Answer:
There are some constituencies which are reserved for people who belong to the Scheduled Castes [SC] and Scheduled Tribes (ST). In reserved (SC) constituency, only someone who belongs to the Scheduled Caste can stand for election. Similarly, only those belonging to Scheduled Tribe can contest. election from a reserved (ST) constituency.

The number of seats so reserved is in proportion to their population. Currently, in the Lok Sabha, 79 seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes and 41 for the Scheduled Tribes. In the panchayat and Nagar Palika elections, one-third of the seats are reserved in a similar manner for women candidates. In many states, seats in panchayat and Nagar Palika are reserved for Other Backward Classes as well. This varies from state to state.

Why do we have this system? Isn’t this system unfair to those from other communities? It might seem so. But the gains of this system are much bigger. This system makes our democracy a representative democracy. If there were no system of reservation, very few persons from the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes would have been elected to the Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabhas. They would not have had the resources. the education and conditions to contest elections against others.

They would have been discriminated against by others and prevented from winning elections. If that had happened, our parliament and assemblies would have been deprived of the voice of a significant section of our population. In any case the reserved seats do not take away the legitimate share of anyone else. The proportion of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Tribes is exactly in proportion to their share in population. In fact, inspired by the success of this system, women’s movement has been demanding a similar system for women as well.

Question 49.
Give a list of slogan raised during elections.
Answer:
In election campagins, political parties try to focus public attention on some big issues. They want to attract the public to that issue and get them to vote for their party on that basis. Let us look at some oi the successful slogans givne by different political parties in various elections.

The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi gave the slogan of Garibi Hatao (Remove poverty) in the Lok Sabha elections of 1971. The party promised to reorient all the policies of the government to remove. poverty from the country. Save Democracy was the slogan given by Janata Party in the next Lok Sabha election held in 1977.

The party promised to undo the excesses committed during Emergency and restore civil liberties. The Left Front used the slogan of Land to the Tiller in the West Bengal Assembly elections held in 1977.
Protect the Self-Respect of the Telugus was the slogan used by N. T. Rama Rao, the leader of the Telugu Desam Party in Andhra Pradesh Assembly elections in 1983.

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) before the correct sentences and (✗) before the incorrect sentences:

(i) The election in our country is conducted by secret ballot.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) The candidates are given a date for withdrawal of their names.
Answer:
(✓)

(iii) Elections are the barometers of democracy.
Answer:
(✓)

(iv) Radio is a medium of the expression of the public opinion.
Answer:
(✓)

(v) Correct reporting is dependent on the freedom of the press.
Answer:
(✓)

(vi) No one can predict the result of an election.
Answer:
(✓)

(vii) The influence of the opposition parties spread over the whole country.
Answer:
(✗)

2. Complete the following sentences

(i). In 1998, general -elections, ………………………….. formed the government at the centre.
Answer:
Coalition

(ii) A single party getting the majority or ………………………….. of parties form the government.
Answer:
Group

(iii) ………………………….. is the electoral symbol of the Congress.
Answer:
Hand

(iv) The candidates are given a ………………………….. for withdrawal of their names.
Answer:
Date

(v) Election ………………………….. carry party’s promises about major issues.
Answer:
Manifestoes

(vi) In the general elections of …………………………..the Congress party was defeated for the first time.
Answer:
1977

3. Choose the Correct-answer from the alternatives given below:

(i) The following type of Samiti Devi Lai had formed in 1987:
(a) Nyaya
(b) Sanghparash
(c) Vidhan
(d) Sewa
Answer:
(b) Sanghparash

(ii) The Devi Lai Lok Dal party obtained the following number of seats in the Haryana Vidhan Sabha:
(a) 50
(b) 55
(c) 60
(d) 65
Answer:
(c) 60

(iii) The current Lok Sabha strength is:
(a) 540
(b) 541
(c) 542
(d) 543
Answer:
(d) 543

(iv) Currently, the number of the Scheduled Castes seats in the Lok Sabha are:
(a) 76
(b) 77
(c) 78
(d) 79
Answer:
(d) 79

(v) Currently, the number of the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is
(a) 41
(b) 42
(c) 43
(d) 44
Answer:
(a) 41.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Devotional Paths to the Divine Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Online Education for Devotional Paths to the Divine Class 7 Extra Questions History Chapter 8

Class 7 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 1.
What did Buddha teach?
Answer:
Buddha taught that it was possible to overcome social differences and break the cycle of rebirth through personal effort.

Class 7 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
What was the source of idea of Bhakti?
Answer:
The idea of Bhakti (devotion) was advocated in the Bhagavadgita.

Devotional Paths To The Divine Class 7 Extra Questions Question 3.
Who were Alvars and Nayanars?
Answer:
The saints devoted to Shiva and Vishnu were Nayanars and Alvars, respectively.

Chapter 8 History Class 7 Extra Questions Question 4.
Who was Tulsidas?
Answer:
Tulsidas was famous bhakti saint of north India. He composed Ramcharitmanas in Awadhi, the story of Lord Rama.

Devotional Paths To The Divine Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 5.
Who was Surdas?
Answer:
Surdas was an ardent devotee of Krishna. His compositions, compiled in the Sursagara, Sura Saravali and Sahitya Lahari, express his devotion.

Class 7 History Ch 8 Extra Questions Question 6.
Where can we find the Sakhis and pads of Kabir?
Answer:
Some Sakhis and pads of Kabir can be found in the Guru Granth Sahib, Panch Vani and Bijak.

Ncert Class 7 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 7.
What is the philosophy of Advaita?
Answer:
Advaita is the doctrine of the oneness of the individual soul and the Supreme God which is the ultimate reality.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 8.
How did Nayanars and Alvars spread their teachings?
Answer:
The Nayanars and Alvars went from place to place, composing exquisite poems in praise of the deities enshrined in the villages they visited and set them to music.

Extra Questions For Class 7 History Chapter 8 Question 9.
What is the philosophy of Vishishtadvaita?
Answer:
Vishishtadvaita is the doctrine of qualified oneness, in which the soul even when united with the Supreme God, remained distinct.

Class 7 History Devotional Paths To The Divine Extra Questions Question 10.
Name some bhakti saints of Maharashtra.
Answer:
The important bhakti saints of Maharashtra were Janeshwar, Namdev, Eknath, Tukaram, Sukkubai and family of Chokhamela.

Class 7 Chapter 8 History Extra Questions Question 11.
Name some famous Sufi saints of Chishti order.
Answer:
The Sufi saints of Chishti order were – Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti of Ajmer, Qutbuddin Bakhtiar Kaki of Delhi, Baba Farid of Punjab, Khwaja Nizamuddin Auliya of Delhi and Bandanawaz Gisudaraz of Gulbarga.

Class 7th History Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 12.
What did Shankaradeva of Assam do?
Answer:
He was a devotee to Vishnu. He composed poems and plays in Assamese. He began the practice of getting up namghars or houses of recitation and prayers.

Ch 8 History Class 7 Extra Questions Question 13.
Reaction to which religious ideas culminated in the Bhakti movement?
Answer:
The reaction to the following ideas culminated in the Bhakti movement :

• The cycle of birth, death and rebirth.
• The inequality of all human beings, not equal even at birth.
• Social privileges for high castes, etc.

History Class 7 Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 14.
Describe beliefs and teachings of Shankara.
Answer:

• Shankara advocated the doctrine of Advaita.
• He taught that Brahman, the only or ultimate reality, was formless and without any attribute.
• He considered the world around us to be an illusion or may a.
• He preached renunciation of the world and adoption of the path of knowledge to understand the true nature of Brahman and attain Salvation.

Class 7 History Chapter 8 Questions And Answers Question 15.
Discuss Ramanuja’s philosophy.
Answer:

• According to him, one can attain Salvation through intense devotion to Vishnu.
• He propounded the doctrine of Vishishtadvaita.
• His doctrine greatly inspired the new strand of Bhakti which developed in the north India.

Devotional Paths To The Divine Class 7 Worksheet Question 16.
What did the saints of Maharashtra do?
Answer:

• All saints of Maharashtra rejected all forms of ritualism outward display of piety and social differences based on birth.
• They even rejected the idea of renunciation and preferred to live with their .families.
• They earned their livelihood like any other person, while humbly serving fellow human beings in need.
• They insisted that Bhakti lay in sharing others’ pain.

Devotional Paths To The Divine Question Answer Question 17.
What is the uniqueness of the Bhakti saints?
Answer:

• The unique feature of most of the Bhakti saints is that their works were composed in regional languages and could be sung.
• They became immensely popular and were handed down orally from generation to generation.
• Usually, the poorest and women transmitted these songs, often adding their own experiences.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. What was the source of idea of Bhakti or devotion?
(a) Bhagavadgita
(b) Charak Samhita
(c) Arthashastra
(d) Aryabhattam.
Answer:
(a) Bhagavadgita.

2. Which of the following Gods were worshipped by Bhaktas?
(a) Shiva
(b) Vishnu
(c) Durga
(d) All of them.
Answer:
(d) All of them.

3. Who were Alvars and Nayanars?
(a) Shiva and Parvati
(b) Vishnu and Shiva
(c) Vishnu and Laxmi
(d) Brahma and Saraswati.
Answer:
(b) Vishnu and Shiva.

4. Who wrote Ramcharitmanas in Awadhi?
(a) Kalidas
(b) Mahadevi Verma
(c) Tulsidas
(d) Valmiki.
Answer:
(c) Tulsidas.

5. Which of the following is the composition of Surdas?
(a) Sursagara
(b) Meghdutam
(c) Ramcharitmanas
(d) Rachanavali.
Answer:
(a) Sursagara.

6. Where can we find the Sakhis and pads of Kabir?
(a) Guru Granth Sahib
(b) Panch Vani
(c) Bijak
(d) All of them.
Answer:
(d) All of them.

7. Who succeeded Guru Nanak?
(a) Guru Gobind Singh
(b) Guru Angad
(c) Guru Ramdas
(d) Guru Harkishan.
Answer:
(b) Guru Angad.

8. What is the philosophy of Advaita?
(a) The oneness of individual soul and the Supreme God.
(b) Differences in individual soul and the Supreme God.
(c) The existence of many Gods and Goddesses.
(d) It does not believe in rebirth.
Answer:
(a) The oneness of individual soul and the Supreme God.

9. Which of the following were the great Sufis of Central Asia?
(a) Ghazzali
(b) Rumi
(c) Sadi
(d) All of them.
Answer:
(d) All of them.

10. Which one of the following refers to Shariat?
(a) A Hindu marriage law.
(b) A Sufi moral law.
(c) A holy law developed by Muslim Scholars
(d) A Christian holy law.
Answer:
(c) A holy law developed by Muslim Scholars.

Important Years Or Periods:

8th century Shankara was born in Kerala.

1469 Guru Nanak was born.

1539 Guru Nanak died.

1604 Guru Arjun compiled the compositions of Guru Nanak and his three successor Gurus.

1606 Jahangir executed Guru Arjun.

1699 Guru Gobind Singh established Khalsa.

1706 Guru Gobind Singh authenticated the compilation and named it Guru Granth Sahib, the holy scripture of Sikhs.

Important Terms:

→ Hagiography: Writing of saints’ lives.

→ Hospice: House of rest for travellers, especially one kept by a religious order.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science