Category: CBSE Class 10

RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 6 T-Ratios of Some Particular Angles Ex 6

These Solutions are part of RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 6 T-Ratios of Some Particular Angles Ex 6.

Other Exercises

• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 6 T-Ratios of Some Particular Angles Ex 6

Question 1.
Solution:
On substituting the value of various T-ratios, we get
sin60° cos30° + cos60° sin30°

Question 2.
Solution:
On substituting the value of various T-ratios, we get
cos60° cos30° – sin60° sin30°

Question 3.
Solution:
On substituting the value of various Tratios, we get
cos45° cos30° + sin45° sin30°

Question 4.
Solution:
On substituting the value of various Tratios, we get

Question 5.
Solution:

Question 6.
Solution:
On substituting the value of various Tratios, we get

Question 7.
Solution:
On substituting the value of various Tratios, we get

Question 8.
Solution:
On substituting the value of various Tratios, we get

Question 9.
Solution:
On substituting the value of various Tratios, we get

Question 10.
Solution:
(i)

(ii)

Question 11.
Solution:
(i)

R.H.S. = L.H.S.
Hence, sin60° cos30° – cos60° sin30° = sin30°

(ii)
L.H.S. = cos60° cos30° + sin60° sin30°

(iii)

R.H.S. = L.H.S.
Hence,2sin30° cos30° = sin60°

(iv)

R.H.S. = sin90° = 1
R.H.S. = L.H.S.
Hence, 2 sin 45° cos45° = sin90°

Question 12.
Solution:
A = 45° 2 A = 90°

(i)Sin 2A = sin90° = 1

(ii) cos2A = cos90° = 0

Question 13.
Solution:
A = 30 ⇒ 2A = 60

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

Question 14.
Solution:
(i)

(ii)

Question 15.
Solution:
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

Question 16.
Solution:

Hence, (A + B) = 45

Question 17.
Solution:
Putting A = 30° 2 A = 60°

Question 18.
Solution:
Putting A = 30° 2 A = 60°

Question 19.
Solution:
Putting A = 30° 2 A = 60°

Question 20.
Solution:
From right angled ∆ABC,

Question 21.
Solution:
From right angled ∆ABC,

Question 22.
Solution:
From right angled  ∆ABC,

(i)

(ii)
By Pythagoras theorem

Hence, (i) BC = 3cm and (ii) AB = 3cm.

Question 23.
Solution:
sin (A + B)= 1  sin (A + B) = sin90°

Adding (1) and (2), we get
2A = 90° ⇒ A = 45°
Putting A = 45° in (1) we get
45° + B = 90° ⇒ B = 45°
Hence, A = 45° and B = 45°.

Question 24.
Solution:

Solving (1) and (2), we get
2A = 90° ⇒ A = 45°
Putting A = 45° in (1), we get
45° – B = 30° ⇒ B = 45 – 30° = 15°
Hence, A = 45°, B = 15°.

Question 25.
Solution:

Solving (1) and (2), we get
2A = 90° ⇒ A = 45°
Putting A = 45° in (1), we get
45° – B = 30° ⇒ B = 45° – 30°  = 15°
A = 45°, B = 15°

Question 26.
Solution:

Question 27.
Solution:

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NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
All genes located on the same chromosome
(a) form different groups depending upon their relative distance
(b) form one linkage group
(c) will not from any linkage groups
(d) form interactive groups that affect the phenotype.
Answer:
(b) : Linked genes are the genes which occur on the same chromosome. ,A linkage group is a physical association of linked genes which are normally inherited together except for crossing over.

Question 2.
Conditions of a karyotype 2n ± 1 and 2n ± 2 are called
(a) aneuploidy
(b) polyploidy
(c) allopolyploidy
(d) monosomy.
Answer:
(a) : The chromosomal disorders are caused due to absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of one or more chromosomes. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of chromosome(s), is called aneuploidy. For example, Down’s syndrome results due to gain of extra copy of chromosome 21. Similarly, Turner’s syndrome results due to loss of an X chromosome in human females.

Question 3.
Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows
(a) a direct relationship
(b) an inverse relationship
(c) a parallel relationship
(d) no relationship.
Answer:
(a) : Linkage is the phenomenon of physical association of genes on a chromosome and recombination is the generation of non- parental gene combinations. Strength of the linkage between two genes is inversely proportional to the distance between the two, i.e., two linked genes show higher frequency of crossing over (recombination) if the distance between them is higher and lower frequency if the distance is small. But distance between gene has a direct relationship with percentage of recombination because with increase in distance between genes, percentage of recombination increases.

Question 4.
If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is
(a) autosomal dominant
(b) autosomal recessive
(c) sex-linked dominant
(d) sex-linked recessive.
Answer:
(d) : The sex linked recessive disease shows its transmission from unaffected carrier female to some of the male progeny e.g., haemophilia. The heterozyous female (carrier) of haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons. The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare because mother of such a female has to be at least carrier and the father should be haemophilic.

Question 5.
In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplets codes for valine?
(a) GGG
(b) A AG
(c) GAA
(d) GUG
Answer:
(d) :The sickle-cell anaemia is caused by the substitution of glutamic acid (Glu) by valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule. The substitution of amino acid in the globin protein results due to the single base substitution at the sixth codon of the beta globin gene from GAG to GUG. The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerisation under low oxygen tension causing the change in the shape of the RBC from biconcave disc to elongated sickle like structure.

Question 6.
Person having genotype /^A /^B would show the blood group as AB.This is because of
(a) pleiotropy
(b) codominance
(c) segregation
(d) incomplete dominance.
Answer:
(b) : ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I. The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has sugar polymers that protrude from its surface and the kind of sugar is controlled by the gene. The gene (I) has three alleles I^A, I^B and i. The alleles I^A and /^B produce a slightly different form of the sugar while allele i does not produce any sugar. Because humans are diploid organisms, each person possesses any
two of the three I gene alleles. I^A and /^B are completely dominant over /, in other words when I^A and i are present then only I^A expresses (because i does not produce any sugar), and when /^B and i are present I^B expresses. But when I^A and /^B are present together they both express their own types of sugars, this is because of codominance. Hence, in this case red blood cells have both A and B types of sugars.

Question 7.
ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is seen in
(a) platypus
(b) snails
(c) cockroach
(d) peacock.
Answer:
(d) : In birds and some reptiles both the sexes possess two sex chromosomes but unlike human beings the females contain heteromorphic sex chromosomes (AA + ZW) while the males have homomorphic sex chromosomes (AA + ZZ). Because of having heteromorphic sex chromosomes, the females are heterogametic (female heterogamety) and produce two types of eggs, (A + Z) and (A + W). The male gametes or sperms are of the one type (A + Z). 1:1 sex ratio is produced in the offspring.\

Question 8.
A cross between two tall plants resulted in offspring having few dwarf plants. What would be the genotypes of both the parents?
(a) TTandTt
(b) TtandTt
(c) TT andTT
(d) Tt and tt
Answer:
(b) : The genotypes of both the parents are :

Question 9.
In a dihybrid cross, if you get 9:3 :3 :1 ratio it denotes that
(a) the alleles of two genes are interacting with each other
(b) it is a multigenic inheritance
(c) it is a case of multiple allelism
(d) the alleles of two genes are segregating independently.
Answer:
(d) : Cross involving two contrasting characters is called dihybrid cross or a two factor cross. The two factors of each trait assort at random and independent of the factors of other traits at the time of meiosis (gametogenesis) and get randomly as well as independently rearranged in the offspring producing both parental and new combinations of traits. This explained the law of independent assortment given by Mendel.

Question 10.
Which of the following will not result in variations among siblings?
(a) Independent assortment of genes
(b) Crossing over
(c) Linkage
(d) Mutation
Answer:
(c) : Linkage will not result in variations among siblings because linked genes occur on the same chromosome and are transmitted together. In linkage there is a tendency to maintain the parental gene combinations except for occasional crossovers.

Question 11.
Mendel’s law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated on the
(a) non-homologous chromosomes
(b) homologous chromosomes
(c) extra nuclear genetic element
(d) same chromosome.
Answer:
(b) : According to the Mendel’s law of independent assortment, the pairs of “factors” segregate independently of each other when germ cells are formed. Homologous chromosomes synapse during meiosis and then separate to segregate independently into different cells which establishes the quantitative basis for segregation and independent assortment of hereditary factors.

Question 12.
Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called
(a) multiple allelism
(b) mosaicism
(c) pleiotropy
(d) polygeny
Answer:
(c) : Pleiotropic allele has more than one effect in an organism. For example, the allele that causes the erythrocytes to have a distorted form in sickle-cell anemia also causes these blood cell to rupture easily.

Question 13.
In a certain taxon of insects some have 17 chromosomes and the others have 18 chromosomes. The 17 and 18 chromosome­bearing organisms are
(a) males and females, respectively
(b) females and males, respectively
(c) all males
(d) all females.
Answer:
(a) : In certain insects XX – XO type of sex determination is observed where females have autosomes + i pair of sex chromosomes while males have autosomes + 1 sex chromosome.

Question 14.
The inheritance pattern of a gene over generations among humans is studied by the pedigree analysis. Character studied in the pedigree analysis is equivalent to
(a) quantitative trait
(b) Mendelian trait
(c) polygenic trait
(d) maternal trait
Answer:
(b) : Pedigree analysis is study of pedigree for the transmission of particular trait and finding the possibility of absence or presence of that trait in homozygous or heterozygous state in a particular individual.  It indicates that Mendel’s principles are also applicable to human genetics with some modifications like quantitative inheritance, sex linked characters and other linkages.

Question 15.
It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character is discrete and independent. His proposition was based on the
(a) results of F₃ generation of a cross
(b) observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having two contrasting characters shows only one character without any blending
(c) self pollination of F₁ offsprings
(d) cross pollination of F! generation with recessive parent.
Answer:
(b) : When plants having two contrasting characters are crossed, F, generation shows dominant phenotype and the recessive phenotype is not lost but appears in F₂ generation. This suggested that there is no blending of Mendelian factors in Fj generation but they stay together and only one of them is expressed. At the time of formation of gametes, these two factors obviously separate or segregate, otherwise recessive type will not appear in F₂ generation. The gametes which are formed are always pure for a particular character. That is why it is called as ‘principle of segregation’ or Taw of purity of gametes’.

Question 16.
In the F₂ generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and genotypes are
(a) phenotypes-4;genotypes-16
(b) phenotypes-9; genotypes-4
(c) phenotypes-4; genotypes-8
(d) phenotypes-4; genotypes-9.
Answer:
(d) : Mendel performed crosses involving two characters called as dihybrid cross. Results of the dihybrid cross where the two parents different in two pairs of contrasting traits i.e. seed colour and seed

Question 17.
Mother and father of a person with ‘O’ blood group have’A’and’B’blood group respectively. What would be the genotype of both mother and father?
(a) Mother is homozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is heterozygous for’B’.
(b) Mother is heterozygous for’A’blood group and father is homozygous for’B’.
(c) Both mother and father are heterozygous for’A’and’B’blood group, respectively.
(d) Both mother and father are homozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group, respectively.
Answer:
(c) : If mother and father of a person with ‘O’ blood group have ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group then both mother and father will be heterozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group respectively.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the cross between the progeny of F, and the homozygous recessive parent called? How is it useful?
Answer:
The cross between the progeny of F, and the homozygous recessive plant is known as test cross.-This tells about unknown genotype,  i.e., homozygous or heterozygous dominant nature of genotype.

Question 2.
Do you think Mendel’s laws of inheritance would have been different if the characters that he chose were located on the same chromosome?
Answer:
Mendel’s laws of dominance and segregation would have remained the same. Mendel’s law of independent assortment would have been different if the characters that he chose were located on the same chromosome. If the characters are present on the same chromosome they would not assort independently and show linkage.”

Question 3.
Enlist the steps of controlled cross pollination. Would emasculation be needed in a cucurbit plant? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Steps of controlled cross pollination are:

1. Selection of parent
2. Selfing
3. Emasculation
4. Bagging
5. Tagging
6. Artificial pollination
7. Seed setting and harvesting.

Cucurbit plants are generally unisexual plants. So, emasculation cannot be needed. Emasculation is done in bisexual plants to prevent self pollination.

Question 4.
A person has to perform crosses for the purpose of studying inheritance of a few traits/ characters. What should be the criteria for selecting the organisms?
Answer:
The criteria for selecting the organism to study inheritance of characters are as follows:

1. It should be easily available.
2. Shorter life span.
3. Breeding should be cheap and can be done throughout the year.
4. A large number of progeny can be produced.
5. Easily identifiable contrasting characters.

Question 5.
The pedigree chart given below shows a particular trait which is absent in parents but present in the next generation irrespective of sexes. Draw your conclusion on the basis of the pedigree.

Answer:
Given pedigree chart shows autosomal recessive trait. Both parents of generation I are heterozygous (i.e., Hb^A Hb^s) and carrier for the gene. The second and fourth child developed the trait so the genotype is homozygous recessive (i.e., Hb^s Hb^s). The first, third and fifth are carrier for the gene and genotype is heterozygous (i.e., Hb^AHb^s).

Question 6.
In order to obtain the F, generation Mendel pollinated a pure breeding tall plant with a pure breeding dwarf plant. But for getting the F₂ generation, he simply self-pollinated the tall Ft Why?
Answer:
Mendel cross pollinated plants of two different traits of the character of height in order to study their mixing in F1, generation. Only one trait appeared in F1 plants. For knowing the fate of other trait, he allowed the F1 plants to self-pollinate. F₂ generation showed both the traits indicating the recessive trait of the dwarfness remains in F1 generation, but without expresison.

Question 7.
“Genes contain the information that is required to express a particular trait.” Explain.
Answer:
Gene is a unit of inheritance which consists of linear chromosome situated at a specific locus, and carries coded information associated with particular trait. The process of gene expression involves central dogma of genetics e.g., transcription and translation.

Question 8.
How are alleles of particular gene differ from each other? Explain its significance.
Answer:
Allele has a unique nucleotide sequence, it is one of the alternative forms of a gene. In a diploid cell there are usually two alleles of any one gene which occupy the same relative position on homologous chromosomes. These allele may be similar or one allele may be dominant to the other (known as the recessive). It controls the expression of a character.

Question 9.
In a monohybrid cross of plants with red and white flowered plants, Mendel got only red flowered plants. On self-pollinating these F, plants got both red and white flowered plants in 3 : 1 ratio. Explain the basis of using RR and rr symbols to represent the genotype of plants of parental generation.
Answer:

‘R’ represent the dominant character gene whereas V represent the recessive character gene. In F, plants (Rr) both the factors for red and white colour are present. However, the factors for white colour is unable to express itself in the presence of red colour. Hence, the factor for red colour is dominant over the factor for white colour. The factor for white colour is recessive.

Question 10.
For the expression of traits genes provide only the potentiality and the environment provides the opportunity. Comment on the veracity of the statement.
Answer:
The observable characteristics of an organism are determined by its genes, the relationships between the alleles and by the interaction of genes with the environment. Phenotype = Genotype + Environment (Trait) (Potentiality) (Opportunity) Genes can provide only the potentiality and the environment provides the opportunity for the expression of traits. For example a genetically tall plant can become tall only if it receives proper amount of sunlight, minerals and water.

Question 11.
A, B, D are three independently assorting genes with their recessive alleles a, b, d respectively. A cross was made between individuals of Aa bb DD genotype with aa bb dd. Find out the type of genotypes of the offspring produced.
Answer:
The cross between AabbDD and aabbdd and the type of offsprings produced would be:

So, genotypes of offspring produced will be AAbbDd and aabbDd.

Question 12.
In our society a woman is often blamed for not bearing male child. Do you think it is right? Justify.
Answer:
In humans, sex of the child is determined at the time of fertilisation. The female parent produces only one type of egg with X-chromosome. The male gametes are of two types with X-chromosome and Y-chromosome. Fertilisation of the egg with sperm carrying X-chromosome produces a female child while fertilisation with sperm carrying Y-chromosome give rise to male child. Thus sex of the child is determined by male (father) and not by the female (mother).

Question 13.
Discuss the geneticbasisof wrinkled phenotype of pea seed.
Answer:
Seed shape is determined by a single gene, with the allele (R) for round peas domipant over the allele (r) for wrinkled peas (recessive trait). If the alleles for the gene controlling the seed shape are homozygous in a plant, it will show the character or phenotype of the same alleles i.e., RR-Round seed, rr-wrinkled seed. On the other hand, if the alleles of gene are heterozygous, they will express the phenotype of dominant allele. Rr – Round seed (r-wrinkled is recessive). This is the genetic basis of wrinkled phenotype of pea seed.

Question 14.
Even if a character shows multiple allelism, an individual will only have two alleles for that character. Why?
Answer:
Despite multiple allelism, an individual will have only two alleles because an individual develops from a zygote which is the result of fusion of sperm (carrying father set of (n) haploid chromosomes) and an egg (carrying mother set of haploid chromosomes). Sperm and an egg have only one gene (allele) for each trait. Hence an individual will have two alleles despite the occurrence of several alleles in the population.

Question 15.
How does a mutagen induce mutation? Explain with example.
Answer:
Mutagen is an agent that causes an increase in the number of mutants in a population. There are basically two types of mutagens – physical mutagens like UV-rays, gamma rays and chemical mutagens like hydroxyl radicals. Mutagens operate either by causing changes in the DNA of the genes, so interfering with the coding system, or by causing chromosome damage. A mutagen can induce mutation by inducing a change in the base sequence by insertion, deletion or substitution.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In a Mendelian monohybrid cross, the F₂ generation shows identical genotypic and phenotypic ratios. What does it tell us about the nature of alleles involved? Justify your answer.
Answer:
In Mirabilis jalapa (Four o’clock) and Antirrhinum majus (Snapdragon or dog flower), there are two types of flower colour in pure state.When the two types of plants are crossed, the hybrid or plants of F1 generation have pink flowers, lithe latter are selfed, the plants of F2 generation are of three types—red, pink and white flowered in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 1 both phenotypically and genotypically. The pink colour apparently appears either due to mixing of red and white colours (incomplete dom inance) oi expression of a single gene for pigmented flower which produces only pink colour (quantitative inheritance).

Question 2.
Can a child have blood group O if his parents have blood group ‘A’ and ‘B’. Explain.
Answer:
A child can have blood group O, if both the parents are heterozygous for their blood groups

Question 3.
What is Down’s syndrome? Give its symptoms and cause. Why is it that the chances of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases if the age of the mother exceeds forty years?
Answer:
Down’s syndrome is a congenital form of mental retardation due to a chromosome defect in which there are three copies of chromosome no. 21 instead of the usual two (i.e., trisomy). The affected individual has a short broad face and slanted eyes (as in the  Mongolian races), short fingers, and weak muscles. Down’s syndrome is caused when the chromosomes of the pair 21 pass into a single egg due to nondisjunction during oogenesis. Then, the egg possesses 24 chromosomes, instead of 23 and offspring has 47 chromosomes instead of 46. The frequency of Down’s syndrome increases, if the age of the mother exceeds forty years. It is due to factors that adversely affect meiotic chromosome behaviour with advancement of women age. In human females, meiosis starts in the foetus to produce egg cells, but it is not completed until after the egg is fertilised. During the long time prior to fertilisation, egg cells are arrested in prophase I. In this suspended state, chromosome may become unpaired. The longer the time in prophase I, the greater the chances for unpairing and chromosome nondisjunction.

Question 4.
How was it concluded that genes are located on chromosomes?
Answer:
The chromosomal theory of inheritance states that the Mendelian factors or genes are located at specific loci on the chromosomes. Occurence of genes over chromosomes was proved by Morgan (1910) during study of sex- linked inheritance of eye colour in Drosophila. It shows criss-cross inheritance, in which female fly passes its X-chromosome and eye colour to male offspring and male fly passes its X-chromosome and eye colour to female offspring.

Question 5.
A plant with red flowers was crossed with another plant with yellow flowers. If F, showed all flowers orange in colour, explain the inheritance.
Answer:
It is the phenomenon of neither of the two alleles being dominant so that expression in the hybrid is intermediate between the expressions of the two alleles in homozygous state. It is called incomplete dominance or intermediate inheritance. There are two types of flower colour in pure state: red and yellow. When the two types of plants are crossed, the hybrid or plants of F, generation have orange flowers. If the latter are selfed, the plants of F₂ generation are of three types – red, orange and yellow flowered in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 1. The orange colour apparently appears due to mixing of red and yellow colours (incomplete dominance).

Question 6.
What are the characteristic features of a true- breeding line?
Answer:
A true breeding line is a pure line that shows same traits, generation after generation due to presence of homozygous characters. They are produced by repeated self fertilisation or breeding between identical homozygous ancestors. They are not superior to high yielding varieties, but are maintained for cross breeding and formation of new varieties.

Question 7.
In peas, tallness is dominant over dwarfness, and red colour of flowers is dominant over the white colour. When a tall plant bearing red flowers was pollinated with a dwarf plant bearing white flowers, the different phenotypic groups were obtained in the progeny in numbers mentioned against them.
Tall, red = 138
Tall, white = 132
Dwarf, red = 136
Dwarf, white = 128
Mention the genotypes of the two parents and of the four offspring types.
Answer:
The result shows four types of offspring with almost similar in number with ratio 1 : 1 : 1 : 1. This kind of result is possible in case of dihybrid test cross. One parent is double hybrid (TtRr) and the other one is double recessive (ttrr).
The test cross can be shown as :

Question 8.
Why is the frequency of red-green colour blindness is many times higher in males than that in the females?
Answer:
Red and green colour blindness is due to X-linked recessive alleles. Males have XY sex chromosomes and presence of single recessive allele expresses itself. Females have XX sex chromosomes. The possibility of female being colour blind is very less because in females both X chromosome should carry the recessive trait, which is very rare due to large scale heterozygosity in human population.

Question 9.
If a father and son are both defective in red- green colour vision, is it likely that the son inherited the trait from his father? Comment.
Answer:
Red and green colour blindness is X-linked character. Colour blindness like any sex-linked trait, shows criss-cross inheritance, i.e., mother transfers traits to her granddaughter through their son, while the father passes traits to her grandson through his daughter. Males have XY type of sex chromosomes, and they get X chromosome from their mother. In this case it is possible that the mother of that male (son) must be a carrier for the character but not affected. Male to male inheritance of X-linked character is not possible.

Question 10.
Discuss why Drosophila has been used extensively for genetical studies.
Answer:
Drosophila is used extensively for genetical studies because of following advantages:

1. It is easily available hovering over ripe mango/banana fruits where it feeds over yeast cells present over the fruit surface.
2. The flies can be reared inside bottles having yeast culture over medium ^:         containing cream of wheat, molasses and agar.
3. A new generation can be raised within 2 weeks with single mating producing hundreds of individuals.
4. The animals can be temporarily inactivated with ether and examined by hand lens/dissection microscope.
5. Female is distinguishable from male by its larger size and ovipositor at the rear end.
6. The animals possess four pairs of chromosomes of different sizes. The male fly possesses XY sex chromosomes while the female has XX chromosomes. Y chromosome is hooked and easily distinguished.
7. Polytene chromosomes occur in salivary glands of larva which can indicate any type of abnormality.
8. Breeding Drosophila is quite cheap. Further, it can be done throughout the year.

Question 11.
How do genes and chromosomes share similarity from the point of view of genetical studies?
Answer:
Similarities of behaviour of chromo-somes with Mendel’s factors / genes.

1. Both pass from generation to generation in altered form.
2. Both are present singly in gametes.
3. An organism receives two genes and two chromosomes of each type from its two parents.
4. Both follows mendelian principles.
5. Each gene and each chromosome replicates during S-phase of cell cycle.

Question 12.
What is recombination? Discuss the applica­tions of recombination from the point of view of genetic engineering?
Answer:
Recombination is the rearrangement of genes that occurs when reproductive cells (gametes) are formed. It results from the I  independent assortment of parental sets of chromosomes and exchange of chromosomal material that occur during meiosis. Useful recombinations produced by crossing over are picked up by breeders to produce useful new varieties of crop plants and animals. Green revolution has been achieved in India due to this selective picking up of useful recombinations operation flood or white revolution is also being carried out on the similar lines. In genetic engineering, the desired genes can be taken from one source and introduce them in the cells of another organism in order to improve and change the same.

Question 13.
What is artificial selection? Do you think it affects the process of natural selection? How?
Answer:
Artificial selection is the modification of species by selective breeding. Animals or plants with desirable characteristics are interbred with the aim of altering the genotype and producing a new strain of the organism for a specific purpose. For example, sheep are bred by means of artificial selection in order to improve wool quality.Yes, it affects the process of natural selection. Natural selection selects trait based on their effect on the fitness of the organism. In artificial selection traits are selected based on human preference for improving traits.The process of natural selection leads to evolutionary change in the expression of the trait in the populations whereas the artificial selection being same process involves the traits preferred by humans for its own benefit. It is much faster than the natural selection, and it impose threat on diversity in long run making it unfit to the natural selected organism.

Question 14.
With the help of an example differentiate between incomplete dominance and co­dominance.
Answer:
Differences between incomplete dominance and codominance are as follows:

Incomplete dominance	Codominance
(1) Effect of one of the two alleles is more conspicuous	The effect of both the alleles is equally conspicuous.
(2) It produces a fine mixture of the expression of two alleles.	There is no mixing of the effect of the two alleles
(3) The effect in hybrid is intermediate of the expression of the two alleles, e.g., flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa Red, Pink, and White	Both the alleles produce their effect independently, e.g., AB blood group.
(4) Alleles show quantitative effect. One dominant allele produces half and two dominant alleles produce full phenotype	There is no quantitative effect of the alleles.

Question 15.
It is said, that the harmful alleles get eliminated from population over a period of time, yet sickle cell anaemia is persisting in human population. Why?
Answer:
Harmful alleles become lethal, whenever they occur in homozygous state. The affected individual does not transfer them to the next generation. Over a period of time, these alleles get eliminated from the population. This is not so in the case of sickle cell anaemia. Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder in which the erythrocytes become sickle shaped under oxygen deficiency as during strenuous exercise and at high altitude.
Despite having harmful effect, the allele for sickle cell anaemia continues to persist in «human population because it has survival value in malaria infested areas like tropical Africa. Malarial parasite is unable to penetrate the erythrocyte membrane and cause any harm. Further, the sickle cell heterozygotes do not always suffer from syndrome. Their erythrocytes appear normal till there is oxygen deficiency when some sickle-shaped erythrocytes may be observed.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In a plant tallness is dominant over dwarfness and red flower is dominant over white. Starting with the parents work out a dihybrid cross.What is’standard dihybrid ratio? Do you think the values would deviate if the two genes in question are interacting with each other?
Answer:

Tall red = 9
Tall white = 3 Phenotypic ratio = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 dwarf red = 3 dwarf white = 1
This is a standard dihybrid phenotypic ratio. Alleles of two or more independent genes interact to produce a phenotypic expression different from the normal expression. They show⁷ dominant epistasis (12 : 3 : 1), recessive epistasis (9:3:4), dominant recessive epistasis (13 : 3) etc.

Question 2.
(a) In humans, males are heterogametic and females are homogametic. Explain. Are there any examples where males are homogametic and females heterogametic?
(b) Also describe as to, who determines the sex of an unborn child? Mention whether temperature has a role in sex determination.
Answer:
(a) Human males are said to be heterogametic because they produce two types of gametes as they have two different sex chromosomes X and Y in addition to autosomes e.g. (A + X) and (A + Y) type of gametes. Whereas human females are homogametic because they produce only one type of gametes, as they have XX sex chromosomes in addition to autosomes (A + X), (A+X). In birds females are heterogametic and have ZW sex chromosomes and males are homogametic with ZZ sex chromosomes.

(b) Sex of unborn child in human is determined by male. Males produce two types of gametes (A + X) and (A + Y). Females produce only one type of gametes (A + X). If (A + X) x (A + X) – female child If (A + X) x (A + Y) – male child Therefore sex of the unborn child completely depends on males. In crocodile and some lizards temperature has a role in sex determination, high temperature induces maleness and low temperature induces femaleness.

Question 3.
A normal visioned woman, whose father is colourblind, marries a normal visioned man. What would be the probability of her sons and daughters to be colour blind? Explain with the help of a pedigree chart.
Answer:
Colour blindness is a recessive sex- linked trait in which eye fails to distinguish red and green colours. The gene for normal vision is dominant. The normal gene and its recessive allele are carried by X-chromosomes. In females, colour blindness appears only when both the sex chromosomes, carry the recessive gene (X^CX^C). The females have normal vision but function as carrier if a single recessive gene for colour blindness is present (XX^C). In males, the defect appears in the presence of a single recessive gene (X^CY) because Y-chromosome of male does not carry any gene for colour vision.Flere, woman is normal visioned, whose father is colour blind, so woman act as carrier because she has got one gene for colour blindness from her father. She marries a normal man, then her 50% daughters will be carrier and 50% will be completely normal. Her 50% sons will be colour blind and 50% will be normal.

Question 4.
Discuss in detail the contributions of Morgan and Sturtevant in the area of genetics.
Answer:
Morgan carried out many dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study the genes which were sex linked. He hybridised yellow bodied white eyed female to brown bodied red eyed males and intercrossed their F[ progeny. He observed that two genes did not segregate independently and deviated normal F,
ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
According to him if two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on same chromosome, the parental gene combinations are much higher than non-parental ones. He gave the term linkage to physical association of genes and recombination to non-parental characters.His students Alfred Sturtevant used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosomes as a measure of distance between genes and mapped their position on the chromosome. The first chromosome maps were prepared by Sturtevant in 1911 for two chromosomes in Drosophila. Genetic maps are extensively used these days as a starting point in sequencing of whole genome in Human Genome Project (HGP).

Question 5.
Define aneuploidy. How is it different from polyploidy? Describe the individuals having following chromosomal abnormalities.
(a) Trisomy of 21^st chromosome
(b) XXY
(c) XO
Answer:
Aneuploidy is the phenomenon of gain or loss of one or more chromosomes that results due to failure of separation of the members of the homologous pairs of chromosomes during meiosis. Polyploidy is a increase of entire set of chromosomes whereas aneuploidy is the addition or deletion of one or few chromosomes from the original genome. Polyploid occurs in nature due to the failure of chromosomes to separate at the time of anaphase either due to non-disjunction or due to nonformation of spindle. Aneuploidy commonly arises due to nondisjunction of the two chromosomes of homologous pair so that one gamete comes to have an extra chromosome (N + 1) while the other becomes deficient in one chromosome (N – 1).
(1) Trisomy of 21^st chromosome :
Trisomy of 21^st chromosome is commonly known as Down’s syndrome. Down’s syndrome is a relatively common birth defect caused by the presence of an extra chromosome number 21 (three instead of two number 21 chromosomes, or, trisomy 21). Both the chromosomes of the pair 21 pass into a single egg due to nondisjunction during oogenesis. This chromosome abnormality adversely affects both the physical and intellectual development of the individual.
The affected individuals have a very different but characteristic external appearance. They display prominent folding at the comer of eyes and have short stature. They have small round head; protruding furrowed tongue that cause the mouth to remain partially open; and short, broad hands with fingers showing characteristic fingerprint patterns. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded and the life expectancy is shortened.

(2) XXY:
An abnormal condition of male sexual characteristics in which the body cells contain one or more extra X-chromosomes. It is caused due to trisomy of sex (X) chromosome. It is known as Klinefelter’s syndrome. Characteristics include undeveloped testicles; long legs and female like breasts. The severity of the abnormalities increases with greater numbers of X-chromosomes. About 30-90 percent of all patients with Klinefelter’s syndrome have the karyotype 47 (2A+XXY). The man may appear generally normal, although infertile.

(3) XO:
It is known as Turner’s syndrome. Individuals having a single X chromosome 2A+XO (45) have female sexual differentiation but ovaries are rudimentary. Other associated phenotypes of this condition are short stature, webbed-neck, broad chest, lack of secondary sexual characteristics and sterility. Thus, any imbalance in the copies of the sex chromosomes may disrupt the genetic information necessary for normal sexual development.

 We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation help you. If you have any query regarding .NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 12 Biology chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy.

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Different contexts, different challenges

Question 1.
Each of these cartoons represents a challenge to democracy. Please describe what that challenge is. Also place it in one of the three categories mentioned in the first section.

Answer:

1. Rigging of elections – Challenge of deepening of democracy.
2. Use of muscle power in elections – Challenge of deepening of democracy.
3. Not adequate representation for women or discrimination against women – Challenge of expansion.
4. Use of money power in elections or too much expenditure on election campaign – Challenge of deepening of democracy.

Question 2.
In the following cases and context (as given in the Textbook page 104) give description of the challenges for democracy in that situation.
Answer:

Case and context	Your description of the challenges for democracy in that situation
Chile : General Pinochet’s government defeated, but military still in control of many institutions	Foundational challenges i.e., Establishing civilian control over all governmental institutions, holding the first multi-party elections, recalling all political leaders from exile.
Poland : After the first success of Solidarity, the government imposed martial law and banned solidarity.	Foundational challenges i.e., to bring down the existing non-democratic regime, to remove martial law and grant freedom of association.
Ghana : Just attained independence, Nkrumah elected president.	Challenge of expansion – to apply basic principles of democracy in all regions.
Myanmar : Suu Kyi under \ house arrest for more than 15 years, army rulers getting global acceptance.	Foundational challenge to keep military away from controlling government and establishing a sovereign and functional state.
International Organisations : US as the only super power disregards the UN and takes	Challenge of expansion – to ensure equal powers and cooperation among members to solve international problems.
Mexico : Second free election after the defeat of PRI in 2000; defeated candidate alleges rigging.	Challenge of deepening of democracy – to strengthen the institutions and practices of democracy; to conduct free and fair elections.
China : Communist Party adopts economic reforms but maintains monopoly over political power.	Challenge of deepening of democracy – no division of power or public participation. To have free and fair elections.
Pakistan : General Musharraf holds referendum, allegations of fraud in voters’ list.	Foundational challenge – to make transition to democracy – and establish civilian government on the basis of free and fair elections.
Iraq : Widespread sectarian violence as the new government fails to establish its authority.	Foundational challenge to democracy – to set up democratic government on the basis of free and fair elections
South Africa : Mandela  retires from active politics, pressure on his successor Mbeki to withdraw some concessions given to White minority.	Challenge of deepening of democracy – to safeguard the interests of White minority.
US, Guantanamo Bay : UN Secretary General calls this a violation of international law, US refused to respond.	Foundational challenge – to safeguard various rights of people including freedom. To refrain the USA from following unjust policies and compel them to obey international law.
Saudi Arabia : Women not allowed to take part in public activities, no freedom of religion for minorities.	Challenge of expansion – to grant equal rights to ‘ women without any discrimination. Interests of the minorities to be protected.
Yugoslavia : Ethnic tension between Serbs and Albanians on the rise in the province of Kosovo. Yugoslavia disintegrated.	Challenge of expansion of democracy – basic principles . of democracy should have been applied in Yugoslavia i.e., extension of federalism, to protect the interests of minorities etc.
Belgium : One round of constitutional change taken place, but the Dutch speakers not satisfied; they want more autonomy.	Challenge of deepening of democracy – to strengthen the institutions of democracy to realise the expectations of the people. More powers to local bodies.
Sri Lanka : The peace talks between the government and the LTTE break down, renewed violence.	Challenge of expansion of democracy – to adopt federal principles – to avoid majoritarianism. To accommodate minorities and protect their interests.
US Civil Rights : Blacks have won equal rights, but are still poor, less educated and marginalised.	Challenge of deepeni ng of democracy – equal opportunities in economic field, education to be provided such as reservation for SCs / STs / OBCs in India.
Northern Ireland : The civil war has ended but Catholics and Protestants yet to develop trust.	Challenge of expansion of democracy – extension of federal principle to all the units, women and minorities.
Nepal : Constituent Assembly about to be elected, unrest in Terai areas, Maoists have not surrendered arms.	Foundational challenge of making the transition – to democracy and setting up democratic government.To establish a sovereign functional state.

Question 3.
Different types of challenges :
Now that you have noted down all these challenges, let us group these together into some broad categories. Given below are some spheres or sites of democratic politics. You may place against each of these the specific challenges that you noted for one or more countries or cartoons in the previous section. In ease you find that some challenges do not fit into any of the categories given below, you can create new categories and put some items under that.
Answer:

Constitutional design	Nepal
Democratic rights	Poland, Myanmar, Pakistan, US and Guantanamo Bay, Saudi Arabia and US Civil Rights
Working of institutions	International organisations, Mexico and China
Elections	Mexico
Federalism, decentralisation	Yugosl avia an d Belgium
Accommodati on of diversity	Iraq and Northern Ireland
Political organisations .	Ghana and South Africa
Globalisation	Bolivia

Question 4.
Let us group these again, this time by the nature of these challenges as per the classification suggested in the first section. For each of these categories, find at least one example from India as well.
Answer:

Foundational challenges	Poland, Myanmar, Pakistan, Iraq, US, Guantanamo Bay, Nepal, India (Naxalites problems, insurgency in North-Eastern states)
Challenge of expansion	Ghana, International organisations, Saudi Arabia, Yugoslavia, Sri Lanka, Northern Ireland, India (More power to local governments)
Challenge of deepening	Mexico, South Africa, Belgium, US, Civil Rights, Bolivia, India (corruption, less public participation)

Question 5.
Now let us think only about India. Think of all the challenges that democracy faces in contemporary India. List those five that should be addressed first of all. The listing should be in order of priority, i.e., the challenge you find most important or pressing should be mentioned at number 1, and so on. Give one example of that challenge and your reasons for assigning it the priority.
Answer:

Priority	Challenges to democracy	Example	Reasons for preference
1.	Challenge of deepening	Use of money muscle power Free and fair elections Decentralisation – more powers to local governments to increase public participation.	To make India democratic in practice at all levels – national, state and local.
2.	Challenge of expansion	5. Representation of women to elected bodies.	Women consist of half of the population. They should have adequate representation.

Question 6.
Here are some challenges that require political reforms. Discuss these chal­lenges in detail, study the reform options offered here and give your preferred solution with reasons. Remember that none of the options offered here is ‘right’ or ‘wrong’. You can opt for a mix of more than one option, or come up with something that is not offered here. But you must give your solution’in details and offer reasons for your choice.

Doctors absenteeism	Political funding
Challenge: Uttar Pradesh government got a survey done and found out that most of the doctors posted in the rural primary health centres are simply not there. They live in a town, carry out private practice and visit the village where they are posted only once or twice in the entire month. Villagers have to travel to towns and pay very high fee to private doctors even for common ailments.	Challenge:    On an average, every candidate who contested the last Lok Sabha elections owned a property of more than ? 1 crore. There is a fear that only wealthy people or those with their support can afford to fight elections. Most of the political parties are dependent on money given by big business houses. The worry is that the role of money in politics will reduce whatever little voice the poor have in our democracy.
Reform proposals: Tire government should make it compulsory for the doctors to live in the village where they are posted, otherwise their service should be terminated. They should be given some monetary incentives.	Reform proposals: The financial accounts of every political party should be made public. These accounts should be examined by government auditors
District administration and police should carry out surprise checks to ensure the attendance of the doctors.	There should be state funding of elections. Parties should be given some money by the government to meet their election expenditure.
Village panchayat, should be given the power to write the annual report of the doctor which should be read out in the gram sabha meeting.	Citizens should be encouraged to give more donations to parties and to political workers. Such donations should be exempt from income tax.
Problems like this can be solved only if Uttar Pradesh is split into several smaller states which can be administered more efficiently.

Answer:
(1) Doctor’s absenteeism :

• Doctor’s absenteeism can be controlled by making it compulsory for the doctors to live in the village of their posting,
• Secondly, they should be debarred from doing private practice.
• They should be given some monetary incentives.
• These rules should be part of their terms and conditions for appointment.
• These conditions must be strictly followed,
• Surprise checks by the department should be made.
• The erring doctors should be punished by the department.

(2) Political funding :

1. Role of money in elections in India has been increasing for the last few years,
2. It is necessary to curb the role of money to make democracy more successful.
3. The first, two proposals e., auditing of accounts of the political parties and state funding are good because these reforms will bring transparency in the finances of the political parties.
4. Secondly, state funding will reduce the expenditure on elections. Role of money will be less and the poor candidates may also be able to fight elections.

Question 7.
Write your own definition of good democracy and its features.
Answer:

1. Definition of good democracy : A government that is run and elected by the people to look after the interests of all people – rich and poor, rural, adivasis and others without any discrimination. Basic needs of all should be-fulfilled.
2. Features :
   1. Government elected by the people.
   2. Run by the people directly or indirectly with maximum public participation at all levels.
   3. Public opinion should be respected as was done in Ram Rajya
   4. There should be no poverty, illiteracy, social divisions, unemployment in the state
   5. Citizens should be satisfied in different spheres of life. There should be no tension in the society.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 7 Trigonometric Ratios of Complementary Angles Ex 7

These Solutions are part of RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 7 Trigonometric Ratios of Complementary Angles Ex 7.

Other Exercises

• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 7 Trigonometric Ratios of Complementary Angles Ex 7

Question 1.
Solution:
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(vi)

Question 2.
Solution:
(i)  LHS = cos81° – sin9°
= cos(90° -9°)- sin9° = sin9° – sin9°
= 0 = RHS

(ii) LHS = tan71° – cot19°
=tan(90° – 19°) – cot19° =cot19° – cot19°
=0 = RHS

(iii) LHS = cosec80° – sec10°
= cosec(90° – 10°) – sec(10°)
= sec10° – sec10° = 0
= RHS

(iv) LHS = cosec² 72° − tan² 18°

(v) LHS = cos² 75° + cos² 15°

(vi) LHS = tan² 66° − cot² 24°

(vii) LHS = sin² 48° + sin² 42°

(viii) LHS = cos² 57° − sin² 33°

(ix) LHS = (sin 65° + cos 25°)(sin 65° − cos 25°)

Question 3.
Solution:
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(vi)

Question 4.
Solution:
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

Question 5.
Solution:
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(vi)

(vii)

Question 6.
Solution:
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

Question 7.
Solution:
(i)  LHS = sin (70° + θ) − cos (20° − θ)

(ii)  LHS = tan (55° − θ) − cot (35° + θ)

(iii)  LHS = cosec (67° + θ) − sec (23° − θ)

(iv)  LHS = cosec (65 °+ θ)  sec  (25° −  θ) − tan (55° − θ) + cot (35° + θ)

(v)  LHS = sin (50° + θ ) − cos (40° − θ) + tan 1° tan 10° tan 80° tan 89°

Question 8.
Solution:
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Question 9.
Solution:

Question 10.
Solution:

Question 11.
Solution:

Question 12.
Solution:

Question 13.
Solution:

Question 14.
Solution:

Question 15.
Solution:

We hope the RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 7  Trigonometric Ratios of Complementary Angles Ex 7 help you. If you have any query regarding RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 7  Trigonometric Ratios of Complementary Angles Ex 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights.

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Question 1.
Why are rules and regulations required in the marketplace ? Illustrate with a few examples.
Answer:
Rules and regulations are required in the marketplace to protect consumers. Sellers often abdicate responsibility for a low-quality product, cheat in weighing out goods, add extra charges over the retail price, and sell adulterated/ defective goods. Hence, rules and regulations are needed to protect the scattered buyers from powerful and fewer producers who monopolize markets. For example, a grocery shop owner might sell expired products and then blame the customer for not checking the date of expiry before buying the items.

Question 2.
What factors gave birth to the consumer movement in India ? Trace its evolution.
Answer:
(1) The following factors gave birth to the consumer movement in India :

1. There was the dissatisfaction of the consumers as many sellers indulged in various unfair practices such as less weight and measurement, more prices, and defective goods.
2. There was no legal system or law available to consumers to protect themselves from unethical and unfair trade practices and exploitation by the sellers.
3. In case of any defective product or deficiency of services, it was considered to be the responsibility of the consumer to be careful while buying a commodity or service.

(2) Evolution :

1. It took many years for organisations in India and around the world, to create awareness amongst people. This has also shifted the responsibility of ensuring quality of goods and services on the sellers.
2. In India, the consumer movement as a ‘social force’ originated with the necessity of protecting and promoting the interests of consumers against unethical and unfair trade practices.
3. Rampant food shortages, hoarding, black-marketing, adulteration of food and edible oil were also responsible for the rise of consumer movement in an organised form in the 1960s.
4. Till 1970s, consumer organisations wrote articles and held exhibitions.
5. Consumer groups were formed to look into the malpractices in ration shops and over­crowding in the road passenger transport.
6. In 1986, the Government of India enacted Consumer Protection Act 1986, popularly known as COPRA to protect the interests of the consumers.

Question 3.
Explain the need for consumer consciousness by giving two examples.
Answer:
There is a need for consumer consciousness so that the buyers themselves can take action against cheating traders. The ISI and Agmark logos are certifications of good quality. Consumers must look for such certifications while buying goods and services. Secondly, to be able to discriminate and make informed choices, a consumer needs to have adequate knowledge of the goods or services purchased by him/her.

Question 4.
Mention a few factors which cause exploitation of consumers.
Answer:
A few factors which cause exploitation of consumers are as mentioned below :

1. Individual consumers often find themselves in a weak position whenever there is a complaint regarding a good or service that had been bought, the seller tries to shift all the responsibility on to the buyers.
2. Consumers purchase in small amounts and are scattered. They do not bother about products of small value even if they are cheated.
3. Consumers do not take receipt for products of small value. Sometimes the shopkeepers too don’t give receipt for products of small value due to rush of customers as they don’t find time to issue receipts to each and every customer.
4. Limited supplies : Limited supplies ‘Of goods and services are made to exploit the consumers who are compelled to pay more than the actual price.
5. Limited competition : When one or a group of producers control the production of any product, they exploit the consumers by manipulating the prices. For example in the housing sector, where the producers and consumers are few, the sellers exploit the consumers.
6. Low literacy : Illiteracy too leads to exploitation of the consumers because they are unable to have complete knowledge about the products.
7. Life of the people is so busy that they do not find time for such matters. People have become habitual and exploitation by traders does not make any difference in their lives unless they suffer a substantial loss.

Question 5.
What is the rationale behind the enactment of Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
Answer:
The rationale behind the enactment of Consumer Protection Act of 1986 is to protect the consumer against unethical and unfair trade practices. Also, it recognises the consumer’s right to be informed, right to choose, right to seek redressal and right to represent himself/herself in consumer courts.

Question 6.
Describe some of your duties as consumers if you visit a shopping complex in your locality.
Answer:
Some of our duties as consumers are as given below :

1. While purchasing the goods, consumers should look at the quality of the products as well as on the guarantee of the products and services.
2. Consumers should ask for cash memo for the products purchased.
3. Exercise your right to choose a product of your liking without any conditions.
4. Wherever possible, consumers should insist for the warrantee card.
5. Consumers should preferably purchase products with ISI, Agmark etc.
6. Consumers should ask for expiry date about any eatables/biscuits etc. before buying the product.
7. Consumer should ask about the MRP of the product and should not pay more than MRP. On the other hand, it is his duty to ask the shopkeeper to reduce the rate.

Question 7.
Suppose you buy a bottle of honey and a biscuit packet. Which logo or mark will you have to look for and why?
Answer:
Agmark, because it is meant for agricultural products.

Question 8.
What legal measures were taken by the government to empower the consum­ers in India ?
Answer:
Legal measures taken by the government to empower consumers in India are plenty. First and foremost being the COPRA in 1986. Then, in October 2005, the Right to Information Act was passed, ensuring citizens all information about the functioning of government departments. Also, under COPRA, a consumer can appeal in state and national courts, even if his case has been dismissed at the district level. Thus, consumers even have the right to represent themselves in consumer courts now.

Question 9.
Mention some of the rights of consumers and write a few sentences on each.
Answer:
Consumer right is the right to have information about the quality, potency, quantity, purity, price, and standard of goods or services as it may be the case, but the consumer is to be protected against any unfair practices of the trade. It is therefore very essential for the consumers to know their rights which are given below:
(1) Right to safety:

1. According to this right the consumers have the right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property.
2. This right is important for safe and secure life.
3. This right includes concern for consumer’s long term interest as well as for their present requirement.
4. Sometimes the manufacturing defects in pressure cookers, gas cylinders and other electrical appliances may cause loss to life, health and property of customers.
5. Thus right to safety protects the consumers from sale of such hazardous goods or services.

(2) Right to information :

1. According to this right the consumer has the right to get information about the quality, quantity, purity, standard^– and price of goods or services as to protect himself against the abusive and unfair practices.
2. The producer must supply all the relevant information at a suitable place preferably on the product itself.
3. Since October 2005, the Right to Information Act ensures its citizens all the information about the functions of government departments.

(3) Right to choice :

1. A consumer has the right to choose the goods or services of his/her likings.
2. The right to choice means consumer’s access to variety of goods and services at a competitive price.
3. A consumer cannot be forced to buy things he may not wish to and is left with no choice.

(4) Right to be heard or right to representation :

1. In case a consumer has been exploited or has any complaint against the product or service then he has the right to be heard and be assured that his/her interest would receive due consideration.
2. This right includes the right to representation in the government and in other policy making’
   
3. Under this right the companies must have complaint cells to attend the complaints of customers.

(5) Right to seek redressal :

1. A consumer has the right to get compensation or seek redressal against unfair trade practices or any other exploitation.
2. This right assures justice to consumers against exploitation.
3. The right includes compensation in the form of money or replacement of goods or repair of a defect in the goods as per the satisfaction of consumer.
4. Various redressal forum e., three-tier quasi-judicial bodies under the Consumer Protection Act 1986 has been set at district, state and national level.

(6) Right to consumer education :

1. It is right of the consumer to adquire the knowledge and skills to be informed so that even the illiterate consumer may seek information about the existing acts, and agencies.
2. The government of India has included consumer education in the school curriculum and in various university courses.
3. Government is also making use of media to make the consumers aware of their rights and make wise use of their money.

Question 10.
By what means can the consumers express their solidarity?
Answer:
Consumers can express their solidarity by forming consumer groups that write articles or hold exhibitions against traders’ exploitation. These groups guide individuals on how to approach a consumer court, and they even fight cases for consumers. Such groups receive financial aid from the government to create public awareness. Participation of one and all will further strengthen consumer solidarity.

Question 11..
Critically examine the progress of consumer movement in India.
Answer:

1. It was on 24 December 1986 that the Indian Parliament enacted the Consumer Protection Act. This day i.e., 24th December is celebrated as National Consumers’ Day in the country.
2. The consumer movement has made progress in terms of numbers of organised groups and activities. There are more than 700 consumer groups in the country. Out of these groups 20­25 are well organised and recognised for their work.
3. However, the progress of the consumer movement in India has been slow. Even after twenty seven years of the enactment of COPRA in 1986, consumers are being exploited by the shopkeepers or traders. Defective or substandard home appliances are sold in the market. Duplicate articles are also being sold. There is adulteration and impurity in edible items. Incomplete information is found printed on various products. LPG gas cylinders with less weight are supplied to the housewives.
   But the main reason for this state of affairs is that the consumers have not realised their role and importance. Most of the people do not make a complaint to redress their grievances. To make consumer movement effective, it is necessary that every complaint, even for a small amount of money, should be made. People should actively get involved in the movement to protect their interests.

Question 12.

Match the following :

Answer:
(i) (e), (ii) (c), (iii) (a), (iv) (b), (v) (f), (vi) (d).

Question 13.
Say True or False :

1. COPRA applies only to goods.
   False
2. India is one of the many countries in the world which has exclusive courts for consumer redressal.
   True    
3. When a consumer feels that he has been exploited, he must file a case in the District Consumer Court.
   True,
4. It is worthwhile to move to consumer courts only if the damages incurred are of high value.
   False
5. Hallmark is the certification maintained for the standardization of jewellery.
   True
6. The consumer redressal process is very simple and quick.
   True
7. A consumer has the right to get compensation depending on the degree of the damage.
   True

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given Extra Questions for NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements.

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Question 1.
In what ways do pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics?
Answer:
Like an interest group, a movement group also attempts to influence politics rather than directly take part in electoral competition. But unlike the interest groups, movements have a loose organization. Their decision making is more informal and flexible. They depend much more on spontaneous mass participation than an interest group.

Question 2.
Describe the forms of relationship between pressure groups and political parties.
Answer:
In most cases, the relationship between parties and interest or movement groups is not so direct. They often take positions that are opposed to each other. Yet they are in dialogue and negotiation. Movement groups have raised new issues that have been taken up by political parties. Most of the new leadership of political parties comes from interest or movement groups.

Question 3.
Explain, how the activities of pressure groups are useful in the functioning of a democratic government.
Answer:
The activities of pressure groups are useful in the functioning of a democratic government in the following ways :

1. Deepens democracy and counter undue influence on the government : Sometime rich and powerful put pressure on the government to form a policy or take a decision in their interest. In such situations pressure groups can counter such move by putting pressure on the government to take a decision in the interest of ordinary citizens. To put pressure on the government in public interest is good and it strengthens democracy.
2. Sectional groups and balance of power : Even sectional interest groups play a valuable role. As there are different sectional groups, no one can achieve dominance over society. If one group brings pressure on government to make policies in its favour, another will bring counter pressure not to make policies in the way the first group desires. Thus, different sectional interest groups help the government to maintain a balance of power and accommodation of conflicting interests.

Question 4.
What is a pressure group ? Give a few examples.
Answer:
Pressure groups are organizations that attempt to influence government policies. But unlike political parties, pressure groups do not aim to directly control or share political power. These organizations are formed when people with common occupation, interests, aspirations, or opinions come together in order to achieve a common objective.

The struggle in Nepal was called a movement for democracy. We often hear the word people’s movement to describe many forms of collective action: Narmada Bachao Andolan, Movement for Right to Information, Anti-liquor Movement, Women’s Movement, Environmental Movement.

Question 5.
What is the difference between a pressure group and a political party ?
Answer:
A pressure group is an organised Or unorganised body that tries to promote its interests. They fight and try to achieve a common objective. They do not take part in competitive politics but try to influence the government by different means.
On the other hand, political parties take direct participation in competitive politics. They contest elections in order to win majority and form government. Their aim is to achieve political power. They have more than one interest. They have their own ideology and have their own way of achieving their aim.

Question 6.
Organisations that undertake activities to promote the interests of specific social sections such as workers, employees, teachers and lawyers are called …………….. groups.
Answer:
interest

Question 7.
Which among the following is the special feature that distinguishes a pressure group from a political
party ?
(a) Parties take political stances, while pressure groups do not bother about political issues.
(b) Pressure groups are confined to a few people, while parties involve larger number of people.
(c) Pressure groups do not seek to get into power, while political parties do.
(d) Pressure groups do not seek to mobilise people, while parties do.
Answer:
(c) Pressure groups do not seek to get into power, while political parties do.

Question 8.
Match List I (organisations and struggles) with List II and select the correct …………. answer using the codes given below the lists :

List I	List II
1. Organisations that seek to promote the interests of a particular section or group	A. Movement
2. Organisations that seek to promote common interest	B. Political parties
3. Struggles launched for the resolution of a social problem with or without an organisational structure	C. Sectional interest groups
4. Organisations that mobilise people with a view to win political power	D. Public interest groups

 

	1	2	3	4
(a)	C	D	B	A
(b)	c	D	A	B
(c)	D	C	B	A
(d)	B	C	D	A

Answer:
(b) C, D, A, B.

Question 9.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

List I	List II
1. Pressure group	A. Narmada Bachao Andolan
2. Long term movement	B. Asom Gana Parishad
3. Single issue movement	C. Women’s Movement
4. Political party	D. Fertiliser Dealers’Association

 

	1	2	3	4
(a)	D	C	A	B
(b)	B	A	D	C
(c)	C	D	B	A
(d)	B	D	C	A

Answer:
(a) D, C,A, B.

Question 10.
Consider the following statements about pressure groups and parties :
A. Pressure groups are an organized expression of the interests and views of specific social sections.
B. Pressure groups take positions on political issues.
c. All pressure groups are political parties.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) A, B and C
(b) A and B
(c) B and C
(d) A and C
Answer:
(b) A and B

Question 11.
Mewat is one of the most backward areas in Haryana. It used to be a part of district Gurgaon and Faridabad. The people of Mewat felt that the area will get better attention if it were to become a separate district. But political parties were indifferent to this sentiment. The demand for a separate district was raised by Mewat Educational and Social Organisation and Mewat Saksharta Samiti in 1996. Later Mewat Vikas Sabha was founded in 2000 and carried out a series of public awareness campaigns. This forced both the major parties, Congress and the Indian National Lok Dal, to announce their support for the new district before the assembly elections held in February 2005. The new district came into existence in July 2005. In this example, what is the relationship that you observe among movement, political parties, and the government? Can you think of an example that shows a relationship different from this one?
Answer:
It was a movement that was supported by different organizations viz., Mewat Educational and Social Organisation, Mewat Saksharta Samiti, and Mewat Vikas Sabha. The awareness campaigns started by Mewat Vikas Sabha forced two major parties, Congress and the Indian National Lok Dal to support them.

Generally, movements are started against the policies of the government. In the present case, the government of the Indian National Lok Dal was in power and it also supported the demand for the new district in view of coming elections in the state. None of the party wanted to go against the demands of the people. As Congress won the election in 2005 and had supported the movement, the new district came into existence in July 2005.

Thus, this movement was different from other movements. In other movements such as Narmada Bachao Andolan, different organizations were against the policy of the government regarding the construction of big dams. In such a movement, the government is not a party to the movement.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Federalism

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Federalism.

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Question 1.
Locate the following States on a blank outline political map of India: Manipur, Sikkim, Chhattisgarh, and Goa.
Answer:
The states have been shown in the map on page P – 15.

Question 2.
Identify and shade three federal countries (other than India) on a blank outline political map of the world.
Answer:
Federal states — USA, Brazil, and Australia have been shown in the map on page P-16.

Question 3.
Point out one feature in the practice of federalism in India that is similar to and one feature that is different from that of Belgium.
Answer:
(1) Similar features: Distribution of powers –

In both the countries, power has been divided among the national government, state (provincial) government, and local governments (community govt, in Belgium).

• In Belgium,
  1. The regional governments have jurisdiction over transportation, public works, water policy, education, public health, and housing, etc.
  2. The community government has the power regarding cultural, educational, and language-related issues.
• In India, for example
  1. The legislative powers have been divided between the Union Govt and the State Governments.
  2. It contains three lists – Union list, State list, and Concurrent list.
  3. By the Act of 1992, the third tier e., local govts, have been granted more powers.

(2) Different features: Forms of government – In Belgium in addition to Central and State government, there is a third kind of government that is community government. This is elected by people belonging to one language community – Dutch, French, and German-speaking – no matter where they live. This government deals with cultural, educational, and language-related issues. In India, there is no such government.

In India, there is a three-tier government. The third government is the local government i.e., Panchayats at the village level and Municipalities at the town level. These bodies have been given powers by constitutional amendment in 1992.
Some of the provisions of the Act are as mentioned below :

• Mandatory to hold regular elections to local govt, bodies.
• Reservation of seats for SC/ST/OBC.
• Reservation of 1/3 seats for women.
• State Election Commission to hold elections.
• State govt, to share some powers.

Question 4.
What is the main difference between a federal form of government and a unitary one? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Under the federal system, generally, there are two sets of government i.e., national and state. Powers are divided between the two. For example in India, there are three lists – Union list, State list, and Concurrent list. The central or national government makes laws on the subjects in the Union List. These are subjects of national importance such as defense, foreign affairs and currency.

The state governments enact laws on the subjects included in the state list. These subjects are of state and local importance such as police, trade, agriculture and irrigation. Both the governments can enact laws on the subjects included in the concurrent list which includes subjects of common interest. These are education, forest, trade unions, and marriage etc.

On the other hand, under the unitary system, there is only one level of government at the national level. There are no provincial or state governments as we have in India. There is, therefore, no division of powers. The units or provincial government if any, are subordinate to the central government or national government as in England. The central or national government has all the powers.

Question 5.
State any two differences between the local government before and after the Constitutional amendment in 1992.                                                                                      ,
Answer:
A major step towards decentralization was taken in 1992. The Constitution was amended to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective. Now it is constitutionally mandated to hold regular elections to local government bodies. Seats are reserved in the elected bodies and the executive heads of these institutions for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes.

At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women. An independent institution called the State Election Commission has been created in each State to conduct panchayat and municipal elections. The State governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies. The nature of sharing varies from State to State.

Question 6.
Fill in the blanks :

Since the United States is a (1)_________________________ type of federation, all the Constituent States have equal powers and States are (2)________________________ vis-a-vis the federal government. But India is a (3)_____________________ type of federation and some States have more power than others. In India, the (4)_______________________ govern­ment has more powers.
Answer:
(1) coming together (2) strong (3) holding together (4) central

Question 7.
Here are three reactions to the language policy followed in India. Give an argument and an example to support any of these positions.
Sangeeta: The policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity.
Arman: The language-based States have divided us by making everyone con­scious of their language.
Harish: This policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of English over all other languages.
Answer:
The position held by Sangeeta that the policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity is correct. The Central Government agreed to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes to avoid the Lankan kind of situation. Otherwise, the move­ment against Hindi would have taken a more ugly turn. The promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India. Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can impose Hindi on states where people speak a different language. The flexibility shown by our leaders helped our country avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in. Thus the policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity. Hindi is being used along with English for official purposes.

Question 8.
The distinguishing feature of a federal government is :
(a) National government gives some powers to the provincial government.
(b) Power is distributed among the legislature, executive, and judiciary.
(c) Elected officials exercise supreme power in the government.
(d) Governmental power is divided between different levels of government.

Question 9.
A few subjects in various Lists of the Indian Constitution are given here. Group them under the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists as provided in the table below :
Defence; B. Police; C. Agriculture; D. Education; E. Banking; F. Forests;  G. Communications; H. Trade; I. Marriages.

Union List
State List
Concurrent List

Answer:

1. Union List: Defence, Banking and Communications.
2. State List: Police, Agriculture and Trade.
3. Concurrent List; Education, Forests and Marriages.

Question 10.
Examine the following pairs that give the level of government in India and the powers of the government at that level to make laws on the subjects mentioned against each. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(a) State government	State List
(b) Central government	Union List
(c) Central and State governments	Concurrent List
(d) Local governments	Residuary powers

Answer:
(d) Local governments — Residuary powers. It is not correctly matched because the residuary powers have been given to the Central Government.

Question 11.
Match List I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

List I	List II
1. Union of India	A. Prime Minister
2. State	B. Sarpanch
3. Municipal Corporation	C. Governor
4. Gram Panchayat	D. Mayor

 

	1	2	3	4
(a)	D	A	B	C
(b)	B	C	D	A
(c)	A	C	D	B
(d)	C	D	A	B

Answer:
(c) A, C, D, B.

Question 12.
Consider the following statements:

(a) In a federation, the powers of the federal and provincial governments are clearly demarcated.

(b) India is a federation because the powers of the Union and State Govern­ments are specified in the Constitution and they have exclusive jurisdiction on their respective subjects.

(c) Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided into provinces.

(d) India is no longer a federation because some powers of the States have been devolved to the local government bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) A, B, and C
(b) A, C, and D
(c) A and B only
(d) B and C only

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Federalism help you. If you have any query regarding Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Test Yourself

These Solutions are part of RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Test Yourself.

Other Exercises

• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19a
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19b
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19c
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19d
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids MCQ
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Test Yourself

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RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids MCQ

These Solutions are part of RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids MCQ.

Other Exercises

• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19a
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19b
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19c
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19d
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids MCQ
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Test Yourself

Question 1.
Solution:
Correct option: (a)
A cylindrical pencil sharpened at one edge is the combination of a cylinder and a cone. Observe the figure, the lower portion is a cylinder and the upper tapering portion is a cone.

Question 2.
Solution:
Correct option: (b)
A shuttlecock used for playing badminton is the combination of a frustum of a cone and a hemisphere,the lower portion being the hemisphere and the portion above that being the frustum of the cone.

Question 3.
Solution:
Correct option: (c)
A funnel is the combination of a cylinder and frustum of a cone. The lower portion is cylindrical and the upper portion is a frustum of a cone.

Question 4.
Solution:
Correct option: (a)
A surahi is a combination of a sphere and a cylinder, the lower portion is the sphere and the upper portion is the cylinder.

Question 5.
Solution:
Correct option: (b)
The shape of a glass (tumbler) is usually in the form of a frustum of a cone.

Question 6.
Solution:
Correct option: (c)
The shape of a gill in the gilli-danda game is a combination of two cones and a cylinder. The cones at either ends with the cylinder in the middle.

Question 7.
Solution:
Correct option: (a)
A plumbline (sahul) is the combination of a hemisphere and a cone, the hemisphere being on top and the lower portion being the cone.

Question 8.
Solution:
Correct option: (d)
A cone is cut by a plane parallel to its base and the upper part is removed. The part that is left over is called the frustum of a cone.

Question 9.
Solution:
Correct option: (c)
During conversion of a solid from one shape to another, the volume of the new shape will remain altered.

Question 10.
Solution:
Correct option: (c)
In a right circular cone, the cross section made by a plane parallel to the base is a circle.

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We hope the RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids MCQ help you. If you have any query regarding RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids MCQ, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19d

These Solutions are part of RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19d.

Other Exercises

• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19a
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19b
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19c
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19d
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids MCQ
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Test Yourself

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RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19c

These Solutions are part of RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19c.

Other Exercises

• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19a
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19b
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19c
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Ex 19d
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids MCQ
• RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 10 Chapter 19 Volume and Surface Areas of Solids Test Yourself

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