NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
The food mixes thoroughly with the acidic gastric juice of the stomach by the churning movements of its muscular wall. What do we call the food then?
Solution:
For 4-5 hours, the food is stored in stomach and gets thoroughly mixed with the acidic gastric juice of stomach by the churning movements of its muscular wall. The food at this stage is called as chyme.

Question 2.
Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme of pancreatic juice. An enzyme, enterokinase, activates it. Which tissue/cells secrete this enzyme?/ How is it activated?
Solution:
Trypsinogen is activated to trypsin in the presence of which enzyme enterkinase is secreted by the intestinal mucosa.

Question 3.
In which part of alimentary, canal does absorption of water, simple sugars and alcohol takes place?
Solution:
The absorption of water, simple sugars, alcohol and some lipid soluble drugs take place by the stomach wall.

Question 4.
Name the enzyme involved in the breakdown of nucleotides into sugars and bases?
Solution:
The enzymes nucleotidases and nucleosidases are involved in the breakdown of nucleotides into sugars and bases.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 14

Question 5.
What do we call the type of teeth attachment to jaw bones in which each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaws bones?
Solution:
The type of attachment where teeth are embedded in the socket of jaw bone is called thecodont.

Question 6.
Stomach is located in upper left portion of the abdominal cavity and has three major parts. Name these three parts.
Solution:
The three major of stomach are cardio, fundus and pylorus.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 1

Question 7.
Does gall bladder make bile?
Solution:
Gall bladder is involved in the storage of bile and not associated with the bile formation rather, bile is secreted and from the hepatic cells of the liver.

Question 8.
Correct the following statements by deleting one of entries (given in bold).
(a) Goblet cells are located in the intestinal mucosal epithelium and secrete chymot- rypsin/mucus.
(b) Fats are broken down into di-and monog-lycerides with the help of amylase/lipases.
(c) Gastric glands of stomach mucosa have oxyntic cell/chief which secrete HC1.
(d) Saliva contains enzymes that digest starch/ protein.
Solution:
(a) Goblet cells are located in the intestinal
mucosal epithelium and secrete mucus.
(b) Fats are broken down into di and monoglycerides with the help of lipases. Fats —Llp‘’e’ > Diglycerides —> Monoglycerides.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 2
(c) Gastric glands of stomach mucosa have oxyntic cells which secrete HCl
(d) Saliva contains enzymes that digest starch
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 3

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
What is pancreas? Mention the major secretions of pancreas that are helpful in digestion.
Solution:
The pancreas is both exocrine and as well as gland endocrine situated between the limbs of ‘U’ shaped duodenum.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 4
Internal structure of pancreas consist of two parts, i.e., the exocrine and endocrine part.
(i) Exocrine part consists of rounded lobules called acini, that secretes alkaline pancreatic juice of pH 8.4 and is mainly involved in the digestion of starch, proteins, fats and nucleic acids.
(ii) Endocrine part secretes hormones like, insulin and glucagon that regulate glucose metabolism.

Question 2.
Name the part of the alimentary canal where major absorption of digested food takes place. What are the absorbed forms of different kinds of food materials?
Solution:
The principle organ for the absorption of nutrients small intestine is the proces’s of digestion complete here and the final products of digestion are absorbed through the mucosa into the blood stream.
The absorbed form of different food materials are
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 5

Question 3.
List the organs of human alimentary canal and name the major digestive glands with their location.
Solution:
Humn digestive system consists of two main parts: alimentary canal and digestive glands. The organ of human alimentary canal are mouth, pharynx oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum and anus. Major digestive glands with their locations are as follows:
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 6

Question 4.
What are three major types of cells found in the gastric glands? Name their secretions.
Solution:
Following are the three major types of cells found in gastric glands. –
(i) Mucous neck cells (Goblet cells) are involved in the secretin of mucus and are present throughout the epithelium of gastrointestinal tract.
(ii) Peptic of Chief cells (Zymogenic cells) are Involved in the secretion of gastric enzymes such as proenzymes pepsinogen and prorenin and usually basal in location.
(iii) Parietal or oxyntic cells are large and most numerous present on the side walls of the gastric glands. They are involved in the secretion of HC1 and Castlis intrinsci Factor (CIF).

Question 5.
How is the intestinal mucosa protected from the acidic food entering from stomach?
Solution:
The intestinal mucosal epithelium has goblet cell which secrete mucus. The mucus along with bicarbonate present in the gastric juice help in lubrication and protection of mucosal epithelium from the acidic food entering from the stomach.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
A person had roti and dal for his lunch. Trace the changes in those during its passage through the alimentary canal.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 7
Solution:
Digestion of Roti (Carbohydrates)
(a) Digestion of Carbohydrates in the Oral Cavity
In oral cavity, the roti get mixed with saliva that contains an enzyme salivary amylase (ptyalin), which converts starch of roti into maltose, isomaltose and small dextrins called a – dextrin. 30% of starch is hydrolysed in the oral cavity.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 8
(b) Digestion of Carbohydrates in the Small Intestine
The partially digested roti passes from oral cavity to oesophagus and then reaches to stomach by peristalsis. The stomach stores the food for 4-5 hours. The gastric juice does not contain carbohydrate digesting enzyme. The partially digested food is now called as chyme. In intestine, following action occurs.
(i) Action of Pancreatic Juice – Carbohydrates in the chyme are hydrolysed by pancreatic amylase into disaccharides.
Polysaccharides(starch) —Amylas’: > Disaccharides
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 9
(ii) Action of Intestinal Juice – Intestinal Juice contain maltase, isomaltase, sucrase (invertase), lactase and a – dextrinase. hi the presence of these enzymes food is converted into simpler compounds like glucose, fructose, galactose, etc.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 10
Digestion of Protein
Proteins are made up of amino acids. So proteins are broken down to amino acid during the process of digestion.
Saliva lacks any protein digesting enzyme so, digestion starts further in stomach.
(a) Digestion of Protein in Stomach. The stomach normally stores food for 4-5 hours. The gastric glands of the stomach secrete gastric juice that contains HCI, proenzymes like-pepsinogen and prorennin. Various reactions in stomach are discussed bwlow.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 11
(b) Digestion of Protein in Small Intestine (i) Action of Pancreatic Juice – The enzymes , trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen and procarboxypeptidase in pancreatic juice are all concerned with the protein digestion.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 12
(ii) Action of Intestinal Juice – Intestinal juice contain enzymes enterokinase, amino peptidase and dipeptidase
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption 13
The macromolecules are broken down into simpler components are the products of roti and dal (carbohydrates and proteins) which are further absorbed by the villi in small intestine and the rest undigested food is removed in the form of faeces by large intestine.

Question 2.
Discuss mechanisms of absorption.
Solution:

  • Absorption is a process by which the end product of digestion passes through the intestinal mucosa into the blood or lymph.
  • It is carried out by passive, active or facilitated transport mechanism. Small amount of monosaccharide like glucose, amino acids and some electrolytes like chloride ions are absorbed by simple diffusion.
  • Some of the substance like fructose and some amino acids are absorbed with the help of the carrier ions like Na+ are absorbed by the active transport.
  • Fatty acid and glycerol are insoluble, thus they cannot be absorbed by the blood. They are first incorporated into small droplets called micelles which move into the intestinal mucosa.
  • They are reformed into very small protein coated fat globules called chylomicrons which are transported into the lacteals of the villi. The lacteals ultimately release the absorbed substance into the blood stream.
  • The maximum absorption of food takes place in small intestine.

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Fill the places with appropriate word/words.
(a) A phase of growth which is maximum and fastest is ………
(b) Apical dominance as expressed in dicotyledonous plants is due to the presence of more ……. in the apical bud than in the lateral ones.
(c) In addition to auxin, a ……. must be supplied to culture medium obtain a good callus in plant tissue culture.
(d)…….. of a vegetative plants are the sites of photoperiodic perception.
Solution:
(a) A phase of growth which is maximum and latest is exponential phase.
(b) Apical dominance as expressed in dicotyledonous plants is due to the presence or more auxins in the apical bud than in the lateral ones.
(c) In addition to auxin, a cytokinin must be g supplied to culture medium to obtain a good callus in plant tissue culture.
(d) Leaves of vegetative plants are the sites of photoperiodic perception.

Question 2.
Plant Growth Substances (PGS) have innumerable practical applications. Name the PGS you should use to
(a) increase yield of sugarcane
(b) promote lateral shoot growth
(c) cause sprouting of potato tuber
(d) inhibit seed germination
Solution:
(a) Spraying gibberellins
(b) Application of auxins
(c) Ethylene
(d) ABA

Question 3.
A primary root grows from 5 cm to 19 cm in a week. Calculate the growth rate and relative growth rate over the period.
Solution:
Growth depends upon three factors – initial size (WQ), rate of growth (r) and time interval (+) for which the rate of growth is retained.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development 1

Thus absolute growth rate is 0.1907 while relative growth rate is 3.8 cm.

Question 4.
Gibberellins were first discovered in Japan when rice plants were suffering from bakane (the foolish seedling disease) caused by a fungus Gibberella fujikuroi.
(a) Give two functions of this phytohormone.
(b) Which property of gibberellin caused foolish seedling disease in rice?
Solution:
Following are the two functions of gibberellin:
(i) It produces the phenomenon of bolting i. e., the growth of the intemodal region of stem in rosette plants.
(ii) It induces seed germination and break bud and seed domancy.
(b) The rice seeding/plant show excessive growth in their intemodal region when gets infected by fungus Gibberellafujikuroi. This fungus produces excessive amount of plant hormone GA that makes plants taller in comparison to the normal plant foolishly and many results into death of the plant.

Question 5.
Classify the following plants into Long Day Plants (LDP), Short Day plants (SDP) and Day Neutral Plants (DNP) Xanthium, henbane (Hyoscyamus niger), spinach, rich, strawberry, Bryophyllum, sunflower, tomato, maize.
Solution:
Long Day Plant (LDP) The plants that requires the exposure light for a longer period exceeding a well defined critical duration of light are long day plants.

Among the above given plant LDP are for henbane, Bryophyllum and spinach. Short Day Plants (SDP) The Plants that requires light for a period less than well defined critical duration of light, e.g., Xanthium, rice, strawberry.

Day Natural Plants (DNP) The exposure to light does not affect the flowering in certain plants, e.g, DNP, sunflower, tomato, maize.

Question 6.
A farmer grows cucumber plants in his field. He wants to increase the number of female flowers in them. Which plant growth regulator can be applied to achieve this?
Solution:
Ethylene, is a plant growth regulator that has feminizing effect on sex expression. Ethylene promotes formation of female flowers in monoecious plants like cucumber.

Question 7.
Where are the following hormones synthesised in plants?
(a) IAA
(b) Gibberellins
(c) Cytokinins
Solution:
(a) IAA i.e., Indole acetic acid. It is synthesised at the growing apices of the plant, e.g., shoot tip, leaf primordia and developing seeds.
(b) Gibberellins It is synthesised in the apical shoot buds, young leaves, root tips and developing seeds.
(c) Cytokinins are synthesised mainly in routs, but synthes also occurs in the endosperm of seeds, growing embryo etc.

Question 8.
Growth is one of the charactristic of all living organism? Do unicellular organism also grow? If so, what are the parameters?
Solution:
1. Lag phase- In this phase growth is slow.
2. Exponential phase- It shows rapid growth and maintains maximum growth for sometime.
3. Stationary phase- In this phase Growth diminishes and ultimately stops.

Question 9.
In the figure of sigmoid growth curve given below, label segments 1,2 and 3.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development 2
Solution:
Growth is the main characteristic that distinguish living organisms from non-living. All living organism grow in number and then accumulate biomass and grow in size as well.

Increase in number of cells as well as increase in size and length of each cell, exhibits growth of all living organism.
In unicellular organism, the growth is synchronized with reproduction.

These organism when divide they produce offspring (reproduction) i.g., each cell accumulate (synthesise) protoplasm and increase in size but at a certain a limit and divide to from two cells.

Question 10.
The rice seedlings infected with fungus Gibberellafujikuroi is called foolish seedlings? What was the reason behind it?
Solution:
The rice seedling infected with fungus Gibberella fujikuroi are called foolish seedling because infected plants grow excessively taller than rest of the non infected rice plants in the field fall over and be unharvestable.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Nicotiana tobacum, a short day plant, when exposed to more than critical period of light fails to flower. Explain.
Solution:
Short day plants are those plants that flower only when the exposure to duration of light is below critical period. Tobacco, being a short day plant is unable to show flowering when it is exposed to light above than the critical period.

Question 2.
Explain in 2-3 lines each of the following terms with the help of examples taken from different plant tissues.
(a) Differentiation
(b) De-differentiation
(c) Re-differentiation
Solution:
(a) Differentiation is permanent in composition
structure size and function of cells, tissue or organs. For example the meristematic tissues in plants gives rise to new cells which then mature and get differentiated into tissue or an organ of the plant, e.g., cells, distal to root apical meristem form root cap, cell of the periphery form epiblema, followed by cortex, etc.
(b) De-differentiation is the process of regain of differentiated cells so that they again become differentiated and able to divide, e.g., in dicot stem, the cortical cells get de-differentiate and become meristematic to form cambium (interfascicular cambium, and fascicular cambiums).
(c) Re-differentiation The cambium cells thus formed, again re-differentiate to form secondary cortex cells, secondary xylem and phloem elements and phelloderm in case of secondary growth of woody dicot plants.

Question 3.
The role of ethylene and abscissic acid is both positive and negative. Justify the statement.
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development 3

Question 4.
In animals, there are special glands secreting
hormones, whereas there are no glands in plants. Where are plant hormones formed? How are the hormones translocated to the site of activity?
Solution:
The plant hormones are synthesised by the plant cells needed. Few hormones are specifically synthesised at a particular part of the plant like auxin synthesised in growing shoot apices and ethylene is secretes by ripened fruits.

Cytokinin is found in dividing cells. Unlike plants animal 1 being more advanced, and organised they have proper hormone secreting glands and organs.

These are transported through the transport system of their body in both plant and animals. In plants, hormone are translocated via xylem and phloem to the site of activity.

Question 5.
In a slide showing different types of cells can you identify which type of the cell may be meristematic and the one which is incapable of dividing and how?
Solution:
On the basis of the following characteristics the meristemtic cells can be identified.
(i) Cell consist thin cellulose wall and dense cytoplasm with large nucleus.
(ii) Among meristematic cells, plasmodesmal connections are more numerous.
(iii) Cell division, i. e., mitosis arid its various stages are distinctly visible.
(iv) Chromosomes of cells replicate and divide into two homologous chromatids.
All these features contribute to open ended growth where structure is in complete in meristematic regions.
Whereas, cells incapable of dividing show features such as
(i) Attains particular shape, size and thickening.
(ii) Undergoes structural and physiological differentiation.
(iii) Different types of cell are formed such as epidermis, cortex, vascular tissues.

Question 6.
A rubber band stretches and reverts back to its original position. Bubble gum stretches, but it would not return to its original position.
Is there any difference between the two processes? Discuss it with respect to plant growth (hint elasticity (reversible) plasticity (irreversible).
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development 4

Question 7.
Label the diagram.
A. This is which part of a dicotyledonous plants?
B. If we remove part 1 from the plant, what will happen?
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development 5
Solution:
Representation the labelling of the given diagram is as follows
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development 6

A. the plant part in the given diagram is growing shoot apex.
B. Removal of shoot apex will help to overcome the apical dominance. Thus, the lateral buds grow faster, giving rise to branches and give the plant a bushy appearance.

Question 8.
Both animals and plants grow. Why do we say that growth and differentiation in plants is open and not so in animals? Does this statement hold true for sponges also?
Solution:

  1. Growth in plant is totally different from the animal growth as growth in plant is unlimited and indefinite.
  2. Root and shoot in tips in the plants are open ended i.e. they always grow and form new organ to replace the older and senescent one due to presence of meristem cells, which are capable to grow and divide.
  3. Thus, the plant growth continues throughout the life. On the contrary, animal growth is limited as growth /stops as soon as they mature. Sponges are those animals which show cellular level of organisation.
  4. These animals posses totipotent cells which are capable of giving rise to all other cells in sponges.
  5. A small part detached from a sponge can regenerate into a whole new sponge.
  6. However growth in sponges cannot be called open or indefinite as they cannot grow beyond a certain size.
    Practically, they do not show open ended growth.

Question 9.
Define parthenocarpy. Name the plant hormone used to induce parthenocarpy.
Solution:
Parthenocarpy is the process where fruit develop without fertilisation and so, it lacks contain seed. Seedless fruits are developed in some plants. Certain phytohormone induce development of fruit without fertilisation. This can also be induced artificially by spraying auxin an*i gibberellins in certain plants like, grapes, papaya, etc. ,

Question 10.
While eating watermelons, all of us wish it was seedless. As a plant physiologist can you suggest any method by which this can be achieve.
Solution:
The seedless, fruits can be produced by the process of parthenocarpy. In this fruits are
developed without fertilisation, so, seeds are not formed in the fruit. Artifically parthenocarpy can be induced by spraying auxin and gibberellin to produce seedless watermelons.

Question 11.
On germination a seed first produces shots with leaves, flowers appear later,
A. Why do you think this happens?
B. How is this advantageous to the plant?
Solution:
A. With the germination of seeds the plant
enters into vegetative growth period. This period tabes light stimulus i. e., photoperiod) and synthesise the florigen (a flowering hormone) that flowering.
B. The vegetative growth period prepares the plant to bear reproductive structure like flower, fruits and seeds, and allows it to grow, mature and reproduce.

Question 12.
Fill in the blanks
A. Maximum growth is observed in …… phase.
B. Apical dominance isdue to ………. .
C. …… initiate rooting.
D. pigment involved in phote photoperception in fiowering plants in ……….
Solution:
A. Exponential
B. Auxin
C. Cytokinin
D. Phytochrome.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Some varieties of wheat are known as spring wheat while others are called winter wheat. Former variety is sown and planted in spring and is harvested by the end of the same season. However, winter varieties, if planted in spring, fail to flower or produce mature grains within a span of a flowering season. Explain, why?
Solution:

  • Some annual plants such as wheat do not flower, unless they experience a low temperature during spring they remain vegetative but after receiving low temperature (in winter) they grow further to bear flowers and fruits.
  • During winter the low temperature prevents precocious reproductive development in autumn, thus enabling the plant to reach vegetative maturity before reproductive phase.
  • Thus, in spring when spring varieties are planted they flower and bear fruits prior to end of growing season.
  • But, if the winter varieties are planted in spring, they fail to flower and produce mature grains before the end of growing season, as they could not perceive low temperature of winters.

Question 2.
Name a hormone which
A. is gaseous in nature
B. Is responsible for phototropism
C. induces femaleness in flowers of cucumber
D. is used for killing weeds (dicots)
E . induces flowering in long day plants.
Solution:
A. Ethylene is a hormone which is gaseous in nature.
B. Auxin (synthetic auxin 2-4D) is responsible for phototropism.
C. Ethylene induces ferminising effect. External supply of very small quantity of ethylene can increase the number of female flowers and hence fruits as in cucumber.
D. Synthetic auxin (2-4D) that kills broad leaved dicot weeds and is used as weedicides.
E. Gibberellins induces flowering in long-day plants.

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
What is the importance of pneumatic bones and air sacs in Aves?
Solution:
Birds possess light wfi’ght bones that contain internal spaces filled with air, which are pneumatic bones. They are an adaptation for flight as they help in, reducing the body weight. Aerodynamic lungs with specialized air sacs are an additional feature that aids birds in flying (e.g., bald eagle, pigeon).

Question 2.
What is metagenesis? Mention an example which exhibits this phenomenon.
Solution:
The phenomenon in which one generation of certain plants and animals reproduce asexually, followed by the sexually reproducing generation is metagenesis. Both the forms in metagenesis are diploid hence, it is known as the false alternation of generation. Coelenterates exhibit metagenesis (e.g., Obelia) where in its life cycle polyp form alternates with medusa.

Question 3.
What is the role of feathers?
Solution:
Feathers are the epidermal out growths that form distinctive outer covering or plumage in birds.
A variety of role are played by feathers which includes:
(i) They provide life and help in flight, by creating airfoil shape for wings.
(ii) They help in maintaining body temperature.
(iii) Feathers play a vital role in mating by providing secondary sexual that characters in both the sexes the colour and markings determine the alteractiveness of mate.

Question 4.
Which group of chordates posses sucking and circular mouth without jaws?
Solution:
Class-Cyclostomata is comprised of living jawless fishes. They have a circular mouth and lack jaws, hence they are also called agnathans. The mouth works like a sucker and is surrounded by tentacles (e.g., lampreys and haglish). These also prosses rectroctable teeth that are homy.

Question 5.
Mention two modifications in reptiles required for terrestrial mode of life.
Solution:
Certain characters acquired by reptiles for the terrestrial adaptations include.
(i) Body is covered with dry and comified skin and epidermal scales or scutes.
(ii) Internal fertilisation.

Question 6.
What is the role of radula in molluscs?
Solution:
The radula is a special rasping structure present many molluscs. It is used to scrape and scratch the food and to create depressions in rocks used as habitat.
It bears many rows of tiny teeth that are replaced
as they wear down e.g., Limplet is a marine invertebrate that uses its radula for creating home by boring a shallow hole in the rock.

Question 7.
Name the animal, which exhibits the
phenomenon of bioluminescence. Mention the
phylum to which it belongs.
Solution:
Bioluminescence is the phenomenon of production and emission of light by an organism as a result of chemical reaction during which chemical energy is converted to light energy. The phenomenon of bioluminescence is exhibited by Ctenoplana from phylum- Ctenophora.

Question 8.
Write one example for each of the following in the space providing.
(a) Cold blooded animal
(b) Warm blooded animal
(c) Animal possessing dry and comified skin
(d) Dioecious animal
Solution:
(a) A cold blooded animal is Crocodilus (crocodile)
(b) Elephas maximus (elephant), (mammal) is a warm blooded animal.
(c) Testudo (tortoise) bears dry and comified skin.
(d) Ascaris (roundworm) is a dioecious animal.

Question 9.
Differentiate between a diplobastic and triploblastic animal.
Solution:
Diploblastic animals are animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, an external ectoderm and an internal endoderm (e.g., coelentrates). Animals in which the developing embryo has a third germinal layer, i. e., mesoderm lying between the ectoderm and endoderm are calledtriploblastic animals, (e.g., chordates).

Question 10.
Give an example of the following
(a) Roundworm
(b) Fish possessing poison sting
(c) A limbless reptile/amphibian
(d) An oviparous mammal
Solution:
(a) Roundworm – A scans
(b) Fish possessing poison sting – Trygon
(c) A limbless reptile/amphibian – Ichthyophis
(d) An oviparous mammal – Duck billed platypus.

Question 11.
Provide appropriate technical term in the space provided.
(a) Blood-filled cavity in arthropods
(b) Free-floating form of cnidaria
(c) Stinging organ of jelly fishes
(d) Lateral appendages in aquatic annelids
Solution:
(a) The blood-filled cavity in arthropods containing haemolymph is haemocoel.
(b) A form in cnidarians in which the body is shaped like an umbrella which can float freely in sed water is medusa.
(c) Capsules of specialised cells in cnidarians which act as a paraylysing sting are nematocytes.
(d) The paired unjointed lateral outgrowth in annelids bearing chaetae are parapodia.

Question 12.
Match the following.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom 1.1
Solution:
A. —> (iii)
B. —> (i)
C. —> (iv)
D. —> (ii)
(a) Octopus The appendages in invertebrates that are used for grasping food and for locomotion are tentacles.
(b) Crocodile for locomotion, and swimming limbs are used.
(c) Catta Fins are means of locomotion and are used to generation optimum thrust thus controlling the subsequent motion.
(d) Ctenoplana Locomotory organs formed by strong cilia with fused bases are comb plates.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Differentiate between
(a) Open circulatory system and closed circulatory system.
(b) Oviparous and viviparous characteristic.
(c) Direct development and indirect development.
Solution:
Differentiation between these are as below
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom 1.2

Question 2.
There has been an increase in the number of chambers in heart during evolution of vertebrates. Give the names of the class of vertebrates having two, three or four chambered heart.
Solution:
(a) In organisms like fishes two chambered heart is present. Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood blood occurs as only one atria and one ventricle is present which are not separated.
(b) After division of auricle into right and left halves three chambered heart develops and in amphibian. In ventiricles mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood occurs.
(c) In reptilies an intermidiary heart is present in which ventricles get partially divided through a septum which is incomplete thus having a false four-chambered heart e.g., Crocodiles.
(d) Both the auricle and ventricle are divided into two halves in four chambered heart and so no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood occurs, e.g., birds and mammals.

Question 3.
Fill up the blank spaces appropriately
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom 1.3
Solution:
Excretion involves the elimination of metabolic waste products from the animal body. In the process of excretion in different animals different organs are involved.
(a) In arthropods excretory products from haemolymph are removed by the malpighian tubules.
(b) The excretory organ occurs as segmentally arranged coiled tubules called nephridia in annelids.
(c) Excretion occurs by paired structures called organ of Bojanus in molluscs also called metanephridia.
(d) Mesonephric kidneys are associated with excretion in amphibians.
The circulation of blood and lymph along with oxygen carbondioxide, hormones, blood cells, etc, within the body system for the nourishment of cells, fighting diseases, and for stabilising body temperature and pH is involved blood circulation.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom 1.4

Respiratory organs are involved in the
exchange of gases from the atmosphere.
Different respiratory organs in various animals.
(a) Lungs and skin in amphibians.
(b) Lung/gills/tracheal system in arthropoda and molluscs.
(c) Skin in annelids.

Question 4.
Match the following
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom 1.5

Solution:
A. —> (v)
B. —> (iii)
C. —> (ii)
D.—> (i)
E. —> (vi)
F. —> (iv)
A. Amphibians are found in both aquatic and terrestrial habitat. Their large is completely aquatic while adult lives in terrestrial as well as in aquatic habitat.
B. Mammals produce milk in the mammary glands and feed their young one. The mammary glands are enlarged exocrine modified sweat glands functional in female mammals.
C. Chondrichthyes have (notochord) in the young stage which is gradually replaced by cartilage.
D. Osteichthyes possess air bladder which is a vesicle or sac containing air.
E. Cyclostomes have sucking and circular mouth without jaws which is surrounded by tentacles and the tongue bears teeth, e.g., lamprey and hagfish.
F. Aves comprise of light weighted bones with internal spaces field with air called pneumatic bones and aerodynamic lungs with specialised air sacs. These are the adaptations which enable birds to fly.

Question 5.
Endoparasites are found inside the host body. Mention the special structure, possessed by these and which enables them to survive in those conditions.
Solution:
Endoparasites such as Taenia solium and Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke), etc., are found inside body the host and survive due to the presence of certain characters.
Endoparasites special characters which include:
(i) The is respiration is anaerobic and the gaseous exchange in via general body surface.
(ii) They bear additional organs for the attachment to the host. Taenia solium posses hooks and suckers for the attachment with the host. Fasciola hepatica possesses acetabulum or posterior sucker for the attachment.
(iii) they have well developed reproductive organs. They are generally, harmaphrodite and self fertilisation occurs commonly.
(iv) They have a thick tegument (body covering) which is resistant to the host’s digestive enzymes and antioxins.
(v) Locomotary organs are absent.
(vi) They lack digestive organs because digested and semi digested food of the host is directly absorbed through their body surface.

Question 6.
Mention two similarities between
(a) Aves and mammals
(b) A frog and crocodile
(c) A turtle and Pila
Solution:
(a) Following are the similarities between aves and mammals
(i) Presence of four chambered heart.
(ii) The members of both the groups are homeotherms, i.e., warm blooded. They are able to maintain constant body temperature.
(b) Similarities between frog and crocodile include:
(i) They are cold blooded animals. The members of both the groups are poikilotherms, i.e., they lack the capacity to regulate their body temperature.
(ii) Frogs and crocodiles are oviparous animals.
(c) Similarities between turtle and Pila include
(i) Body is covered with dry and comified skin in both animals. In turtle, the epidermal covering is known as scales whereas in case of Pila, it is known as calcareous shell.
(ii) Both animals are oviparous.

Question 7.
Name
(a) A limbless animal
(b) A cold blooded animal
(c) A warm blooded animal
(d) An animal possessing dry and comified skin
(e) An animal having canal system and spicules
(f) An animal with cnidoblasts
Solution:
(a) Ichthyophis does not possess limbs.
(b) A cold blooded animal scoliodon (dog fish).
(c) warm blooded animal is Columba (pigeon).
(d) Naja naja (snake) possesses dry and cornified skin.
(e) Sycon (sponge) possesses canal system and bear spicules.
(f) Obelia bears cnidoblast.

Question 8.
Excretory organs of different animals are given below. Choose correctly and write in the space provided.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom 1.6

Solution:
Metabolism in body leads to the formation of waste that can affect body’s vital organs so it has to be removed from body. Different classes of organisms possess different types of excretory organs to eliminate the byproduct of metabolism.
A. —> (vi)
B. —> (ii)
C. —> (v)
D. —> (iii)
E. —> (vi)
F. —> (i)
A. Balanogolossus – Proboscis glands. This gland excretes brown granules and is present in front of central sinus.
B. Nephridia in Leech. It helps in osmoregulation and excretion.
C. Malpighian tubules in Locust open into gut and help in excretion.
D. The Flame cells of liver fluke are specialised cells in Platyhelminthes which helps in osmoregulation and excretion. These are also called protonephridia.
E. Sea urchin-absent Specialised excretory organs are absent in sea urchin.
F. It TV/a-Metanephridia is a type of excretory gland or nephridium found in many types of invertebrates such as annelids, arthropods, and molluscs (in molluscus nephridia is also known as Bojanus organ).

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
What is the relationship between germinal layers and the formation of body cavity in case of coelomate, acoelomates andpseudocoelomates?
Solution:
Multicellular organisms typically possess a concentric arrangement of tissues in the body. These tissues are derived from the three embrycnio cell, layers called germinal layers.
(i) The outer layer is the ectoderm, the middle layer is the mesoderm and the innermost layer is the endoderm.
(ii) Ectoderm is associated with the formation of CNS, eye lens, ganglia, nerves and glands.
(iii) Mesoderm forms the that in structural components of the body like the skeletal muscles the skeleton, the dermis of the
skin connective tissue, etc.
(iv) Endoderm layer is associated with the formation of the stomach, colon, liver, pancreas urinary bladder and other vital organs is an organism.
(v) Coelom is the body cavity that is lined by mesoderm and the animals possessing coelom are called as ceolomates. e.g., phylum-Annelida, Mollusca, Arthropoda, Echnidermata, Hermichordata and Chordata.
(vi) In some organisms, body cavity is not lined by mesoderm, instead mesoderm is present in the form of scattered pouches in between ectoderm and endoderm, Such body cavity is called pseudocoelom and animals possessing there stusturs are refered to as pseudocoelomates e.g., As car is.
(vii) The animals in which there is complete absence of body cavity are called acoelomates. e.g., Platyhelminthes.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom 1.7

Question 2.
Comment upon the habitats and external features of animals belonging to class- Amphibia and Reptilia.
Solution:
Amphibians
(i) They can dwell in aquatic as well as terrestrial habitats. They are ectothermic or (cold blooded).
(ii) They are tetrapods having (4 limbs) which facilitate movement on land.
(iii) Their limbs have evolved from the pectoral and pelvic fins.
(iv) Skin is thin, covered by mucus and remains mostly moist. It also serves as an accessory source of oxygen.
(v) They breathe through gills and lung gills usually appear in the larval stage, replaced by lungs in the adults stage.
(vi) Their heart is three chambered with two atria and one ventricle.
(vii) Females are oviparous and fertilisation is mostly external.
(viii) Larva is a tadpole, which metamorphose into adult e.g., Rariu frog, Nectureus (mud puppy), Salamandera (salamander).
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom 1.8
Reptiles
(i) They are mostly terrestrial animals and their body is covered by dry, and comified skin, epidermal scales or scutes.
(ii) In reptiles the mode of locomotion is creeping and crawling.
(iii) Lungs are well developed and present in all stages of life.
(iv) Claws are present in toes.
(v) s Appendages are well adapted for land movement.
(vi) Heart possesses a partially divided ventricle and 2 atria.
(vii) They lay amniotic eggs which are inclubated on land.
(viii) They are poikilothermic or cold blooded animals. Temperature is regulated mechanically and not metabolically by moving in and out; source of heat is usually the sun.
(ix) Fertilisation is internal. They are oviparous and development of young ones is direct e.g., Chelone (turtle), Naja (cobra), Crocodicus (crocodile).
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom 1.9

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Energy is released during the oxidation of 3. compounds in respiration. How is this energy stored and released as and when it is needed?
Solution:
The energy currency of every living cell Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP).
Complex organic food molecules such as sugars, fats and proteins are rich sources of energy for cell because much of the energy used to form these molecules is stored within the chemical bonds that hold them together. So, the cells release the stored energy through a series of oxidation reactions.

During oxidation of food, the product of reaction has a lower energy content than the donor molecule. At the same time, electron acceptor molecules capture some of the energy lost during oxidation and store it for later use.

Cells convert the energy from oxidation reactions to energy-rich molecules such as ATP that can be used through the cell for metabolism and construct new cellular components.

Question 2.
How does Respiratory Quotient 5. (RQ) indicate which type of substrate, i.e., carbohydrate, fat or protein is getting oxidised?
R.Q=A/B
What do A and B stand for?
What type of substrates have R.Q. of 1,< 1 or > 1?
Solution:
The ratio of C02 evolved and 02 consumed in respiration is called the Respiratory Quotient (RQ) or respiratory ratio.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 1
Example:
(i) During aerobic respiration carbohydrates have RQ = 1
(ii) During germination of seeds proteins and fats have RQ of < 1. (iii) Under aerobic conditions substrates like organic acids have RQ of > 1

Question 3.
F0 – F1 particles participate in the synthesis of …… .
Solution:
F0 – F1 particles present in the inner mitochondrial membrane are involved in the Adenosine Triphosphate synthesis. It is known as the energy currency of the cell.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 2

Question 4.
When does anaerobic respiration occur in man and yeast?
Solution:
In animals anaerobic respiration occurs in the situation of oxygen deficiency during heavy exercise, when pyruvic acid is reduced to lactic acid by the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase.

In yeast, the incomplete oxidation of glucose occurs in anaerobic conditions, during which pyruvic acid is converted to COz and ethanol by the action of enzyme pyruvic acid decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase.

Question 5.
Which of the following will release more energy on oxidation? Arrange them in ascending order.
(a) 1 gm of fat
(b) 1 gm of protein
(c) 1 gm of glucose
(d) 0.5 gm of protein + 0.5 gm glucose
Solution:
The ascending order of substrate that will release more energy on oxidation will be as follows
1 gm protein < 0.5 gm in protein < 1 gm glucose < 1 gm fat + 0.5 gm glucose

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
If a person is feeling dizzy, glucose or fruit juice is given immediately but not a cheese sandwich, which might have more energy. Explain.
Solution:
The glucose is absorbed and reaches blood quickly and gives instant energy. Whereas, cheese sandwich require time for digestion, and absorption. Sick person needs immediate energy supply, so glucose or fruit juices containing glucose are given to them.

Question 2.
Pyruvic acid is the end product of glycolysis. What are the three metabolic fats of pyruvic acid under aerobic and anaerobic conditions? Write in the space provided in the diagram.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 3

Solution:
The three metabolic products formed under 3. aerobic and anaerobic conditions are Lactic acid, Ethanol and Acetyl Co-A Lactic acid is formed under anaerobic condition in skeletal muscles by the oxidation of pyruvic acid.

Ethanol is formed under anaerobic condition by the oxidation of pyruvic acid in yeast.

Acetyl Co-A is formed by the oxidation of pyruvic acid that take place within the mitochondria under aerobic condition.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 4
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 5

Question 3.
Oxygen is an essential requirement for aerobic respiration by it enters the respiratory process at the end? Discuss.
Solution:
Aerobic respiration needs oxygen in order to generate ATP. Oxygen acts as final acceptor in respiratory process.

In pulse e (electrons) that energy from the electron transport chain ETC and take up protons from medium to form water.

It plays a vital role in respiration. 02 enters in the respiratory process at the end. It drives the process of aerobic respiration by removing hydrogen from the system. Thus, acting as final hydrogen acceptor.

By the process of oxidative phosphorylation the energy is produced, utilising the energy of oxidation reduction reactions.

Question 4.
The figure given below shows the steps in glycolysis. Fill in the missing steps A, B, C, D and also indicate whether ATP is being used up or released at step E?
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 6

Solution:
Process ofglycolysis is summarised as follow
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 7

Question 5.
Do you know any step in the TCA cycle where there is substrate level phosphorylation.
Which one?
Solution:
In an intermediate reaction TCA cycle,
succinyl Co-A is converted succinic acid and one GTP molecule is synthesised through substrate level
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 8
GTP formed in this reaction gives rise to ATP as follows
GTP+ADP GDP + ATP

Question 6.
In a way green plants and cyanobacteria have synthesised all the food on the earth. Comment.
Solution:
Cyanobacteria are unicellular prokaryotic organisms. Besides, some primitive cellular cell organelles, they have photosynthetic lamellae where photosynthetic pigments like chlorophyll-a c, phycocyanin and phycoerythrin, are present.

These coloured pigments confer typical blue green colour to the bacteria and enable them to manufacture food for themselves and aquatic animals.

Green plants are multicellular are organisms, which is capable of making food by using C02, H20 and light energy in specialized cell organelles called chlorcplast. So bacteria and green plants make food for living organisms on earth.

Question 7.
When a substrate is being metabolised, why does not all the energy that is produced get released in one step. It is released in multiple steps. What is the advantage of step-wise release?
Solution:
This is an enzyme that has dual nature. When C02 concentration is good enough in atmosphere. It acts as carboxylase. But if concentration of O2 increase, its nature changes and it binds with O2 and acts as oxygenase enzyme that forces CO2 to enter in C2 cycle that leads to photorespiration and loss of CO2.

Question 8.
Respiration requires 02. How did the first cells on the earth manage to survive in an atmosphere that lacked O2?
Solution:
Respiration always does not require O2. There are some organisms which respire in anaerobic condition i.e. in the absence of O2.
The first cells of earth i.g., chemosynthetic bacteria, which are the primitive organisms found earlier on earth. They obtain energy by breaking down inorganic molecules like H2S, NO2 – etc.
12H4S + 6 CO2 -> C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 12S

Question 9.
It is known that red muscle fibres in animals can work for longer periods of time continuously. How is this possible?
Solution:
There are basically two kinds of muscle fibres red muscles and white muscles
Red muscles work continuously for a longer time because
(i) These muscle fibres are dark red, due to the presence of red haemoprotein called myoglobin. It binds and stores oxygen as oxymyoglobin in the red fibres. Oxymyoglobin liberates oxygen for utilisation during muscle contraction.
(ii) Mitochondria are more in numbers, hence they work for long periods of time.
(iii) Red muscles possesses less sarcoplasmic reticulum.
(iv) They carry out considerable aerobic oxidation without accumulating much lactic acid. Thus without fatigue red muscle fibres can contract for a longer period.
(v) These muscle fibre have slow rate of contraction for long periods, e.g., extensor muscles of the human back.

Question 10.
RuBP carboxylase, PEPcase, pyruvate dehydrogenase, ATPase, cytochrome oxidase, hexokinase, lactate dehydrogenase, Select/ choose enzymes from the list above which are involved in
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Respiration
(c) Both in photosynthesis and respiration
Solution:
RuBP Carboxylase is an enzyme that takes part in dark reaction of photosynthesis. It catalyses the fixing of C02 in C3 cycle
PEPcase an enzymes that takes part in photosynthesis of C4 plants. It catalyses the reaction of fixing of C02 to form first stable product oxaloacetate. 4 carbon compound.

Pyruvate dehydrogenase is an enzyme involved in aerobic respiration and catalyses the reaction ( of formation of acetyle Co-A from pyruvic acid.

It requires the participation of NAD and Co- enzyme-A.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 9
ATPase is a part of both respiration and photosynthesis. Both these processes uses etc, associated proton pump and ATP synthase.
These all play a key part in the process is used by ETC pump hydrogen ions across a membrane.
The protons flows back through ATP synthase, driving the production of ATP.

Cytochrome Oxidase is involved in both respiration and photosynthesis. It acts as electron carrier in the electron transport chain. Hexokinase is an enzymes which is also involved in, respiration. In glycolysis, it catalyses the first reaction, i.e., formation of glucose -6- phosphate from glucose molecule.

It uses one ATP molecule which transfers P04 group to glucose molecules.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 10
Lactate Dehydrogenase is an enzyme which is involved in anaerobic respiration in bacteria Lactobacillus.

Pyruvic acid formed at the end of glycolysis is converted to lactic acid by the help of homo- fermentative lactic acid bacteria. Hydrogen from NADH molecule is transferred to pyruvate is then transferred to pyruvate molecule lactic acid molecule leading to the formation of acid.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 11

Question 11.
How does a tree trunk exchange gases with the environment although it lacks stomata?
Solution:
The old tree trunk is covered by dead woody tissue called cork. The epidermal layers of such tree get ruptured and outer cortical cells are loosely arranged. These structures are called as lenticels.
These are the sites of gaseous exchange and transpiration.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 12

Question 12.
Mention the important series of events of aerobic respiration that occur in the matrix of the mitochondrion as well as one that take place in inner membrane of the mitochondrion.
Solution:
Kreb ’ s cycle occurs in the matrix of mitochondria. It is given in the following series of reactions
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 13
Electron transport chain is carried out in the inner mitochondria membrane
The inner mitochondrial membrane is specific about possessing proton (H+) and electron (e ) acceptors in a particular sequence called electron transport chain. It consists four enzyme complexes.
The electrons either follow the pathway of complexes I, III and IV or II, III and IV that depends that upon the substrates from Kreb’s cycle.
Following are the ways through which the transfer of electrons and hydrogen atoms takes place.
Complex I It consists of flavoproteins of NADH dehydrogenase (FPN), of which FMN is the prosthetic group. It is combined with the flavoprotein is non-heme iron of NADH dehydrogenase. This complex spans inner mitochondrial membrane and is also able to translocate protons across it form matrix side to outer side.
Complex II It consists of flavoprotein of succinate dehydrogenase, of which FAD is the prosthetic group. It is combined with the flavoprotein is non-heme iron of succinate dehydrogenase.
Between complexes II and in the mobile carrier coenzyme-Q (Co-Q) or ubiquinone (UQ) is present
Complex III It consists of cytochrome-/) and cytochrome-c that is associated with cytochrome-h is non-heme iron of complex III. Between complexes III and IV is the mobile carrier cytochrome-c.
Complex IV It consists of cytochrome-a and cytochrome-a3, and bound copper that are required for this complex reaction to occur. This cytochrome also called cytochrome oxidase. It is the only electron carrier in which the heme iron has a free ligand that can react directly with molecular oxygen.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 14

  1. Thus, hydride ions are transferred from the substance to be oxidised to NAD+. From NAD+ the hydrogen atoms are transferred to FMN of flavor protein 1 (Fp’N). After FMN the hydrogen atom splits into an electron and a proton.
  2. In further stages transfer of e~s occur but there is no longer a transfer of hydrogens. The electron passes to co-enzyme-Q, and from co-enzyme Q to cytochromes- b, cp c, a and ay The proton is released free.
  3. As the hydrogen atom or electron passes down by F0 – F1 particle at the same time oxidation of one coenzyme and reduction occurs at another steps. Oxygen is able to diffuse inside the mitochondria.
  4. It is converted to anionic form 02-, combines with 2H+ and forms metabolic water reduced co-enzyme NADH + H+ that helps in pushing out three pairs of H+ to outer chamber while FADH2 sends two pairs of H+ to outer chamber.
  5. Oxidative phosphorylation is the synthesis of ATP molecules, with the help of energy liberated during oxidation of reduced co-enzyme (NADH2, FADH2) produced in respiration.
  6. The enzyme required for this synthesis is called ATP synthase present in inner mitochondria membrane.

The following figures shows this process
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants 15

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Oxygen is critical for aerobic respiration. Explain its role with respect to ETS.
Solution:
The oxidation of glucose starts with glycolysis in cytoplasm which followed by Krebs’ cycle and finally Electron transport Chain (ETC) in inner mitochondrial membrane. The end of ETC 02 is required.
Where, it acts as final hydrogen acceptor. 02 is responsible for removing electrons from the system. In the absence of oxygen, electrons could not be passed through the co-enzymes, intum proton pump will not be established and ATP will not be produced via oxidative phosphorylation. Thus oxygen plays an important role in aerobic respiration in mitochondrial matrix.

Question 2.
Enumerate the assumptions that we undertake in making the respiratory balance sheet. Are these assumptions valid for a living system? Compare fermentation and aerobic respiration in this context.
Solution:
The assumption that we undertake is making the respiratory balance sheet one as follows:
(i) Respiratory substrate is glucose
(ii) There is sequential pathway i.e., glycolysis in cytoplasm, TCA cycle in mitochondrial matrix and ETS in inner mitochondriol membrane.
(iii) NADH synthesised in glycolysis enters into ETC for phosphorylation.
(iv) None of the intermediates in the pathway are utilised to synthesise any other compound.
These assumptions are not valid for a living system because of following reasons:
(i) Glycolysis, TCA and ETC work simultaneously and do not take place one after the other.
(ii) ATP is uutilised when needed.
(iii) Rate of enzyme actions are controlled by multiple means.
Comparison between fermentation and aerobic respiration in this context is as follows:
(i) Fermentation is partial breakdown of glucose whereas aerobic respiration is complete breakdown of glucose.
(ii) Net gain of only 2 ATP in fermentation whereas in aerobic respiration 38 ATP is produced.

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Food is stored as floridean starch in Rhodophyceae. Mannitol is the reserve food material of which group of algae?
Solution:
Mannitol is a reserve food material of the members of Phaeophyceae (brown algae).

Question 2.
The plant body in higher plants is well differentiated and well developed. Roots are the organs used for the purpose of absorption. What is the equivalent of roots in the less developed lower plants?
Solution:
Root like structure called rhizoids are present instead of roots in less developed lower plants (bryophytes and pteridophytes). The plant tissue system in these is not differentiated into true leaf, stem and roots as it is found in higher plants (gymnosperm and angiosperm).

Question 3.
Most algal genera show haplontic life style. Name an alga which is
(a) Haplo diplontic
(b) Diplontic
Solution:
Haplo diplontic type of life cycle is exhibited by Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia and Kelps. The main plant body is saprophytic in Fucus and it shows diplontic type of life cycle.

Question 4.
In bryophytes male and female sex organs are called …………….. and …………..
Solution:
In bryophytes the male sex organ in antheridium and female sex organ is archegonium.
Antheridium produces flagellate antherozoids which are male gametes.
Archegonia is the female part which bears a single egg cell.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Why are bryophytes called the amphibians of the plant kingdom? Amphibians can their in water as well as on terrestrial habitat.
Solution:
Bryophytes are a group of primitive plants having a dominant gametophytic plant body. These plants can live in soil but depend on water for movement of male gametes called antherozoids to reach the archegonium (female organ bearing egg cell) so that fertilisation can occur, so bryophytes are called the amphibians of the plant kingdom.

Question 2.
Heterospory, i.e., formation of two types of spores— microspores and megaspores is a characteristic feature in the life cycle of a few members of pteridophytes and all spermatophytes. Do you think heterospory has some evolutionary significance in plant kingdom?
Solution:

  1. The production of spores of two different sizes and sexes by the sporophytes of land plants is heterospory. Two types ofspores are produced by heterosporic plants.
  2. Small spores are microspores which germinate into the male gametophyte and large spores are macrospores which develop into the female gametophyte.
  3. Pteridophytes are intermediate between bryophytes and gymnosperms in the evolution of plants.
  4. All bryophytes are homosporous and all gymnosperms are heterosporous. This condition is advanced as sexual dimorphism results in cross fertilisation.
  5. Primitive or earlier pteridophytes are homosporous while later pteriodophytes are heterosporous e.g., Dryopteris, Pteris homosporous Selaginella, Sn/vrao-heterosporous.

Question 3.
Each plant group of plants has some phylogenetic significance in relation to evolution Cycas, one of the few living members of gymnosperms is called as the ‘relic of past’. Can you establish a phylogenetic relationship of Cycas with any other group of plants that justifies the above statement?
Solution:
Cycas is an evergreen plant which resembles palm. It has an unbranched stem and large compound leaves. It exhibits phylogenetic relationship with pteridophyte. Its evolutionary characters include thefollowing:
(i) Growth is redundant.
(ii) Shedding of seed while the embryo is still immature.
(iii) Minimal secondary growth and manoxylic wood.
(iv) Megasporophylls are leaf like.
(v) Sperms are flagellate even when pollen tube is present.
(vi) Leaf bases are persistent.
(vii) Ptysix is circinate.
(viii) Arrangement of microsporangia in well defined archegonia.

Question 4.
Comment on the life cycle and nature of fem prothallus.
Solution:
The life cycle of ferm (Dryopteris) clearly depicts the alternation of generation. The gametophytic stage (n) alternates with the sporophytic stage (2n) in the life cycle as shown in the figure.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom 1.1
The prothallus of the fem is a multicellular, free living, thalloid, haploid and autotrophic structure. It develops from the spores produced by sporophyte after reduction division.
These spore germinate within a germtube with an apical cell and forms a filament of 3-6 cells and one or two rhizoids at the base which later develops into gametophytic plant.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom 1.2

Question 5.
How are the male and female gametophytes of pteridophytes and gymnosperms different from each other?
Solution:
The male and female gametophytes of pteridophytes and gymnosperms different from each other as:
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom 1.3

Question 6.
How are the male and female gametophytes of pteridophytes and gymnosperms different from each other?
Solution:

  1. Symbiosis is a type of interaction of two living organisms where both the associated partners derive some benefit from each other both co¬exist and flourish well.
  2. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between fungus and the roots of vascular plants. The fungus colonizes the roots of the host either intra or inter cellularly. It helps in the nutrient absorption from soil for the plant.
  3. Mycorrhizal associations are present in conifers, i.e.,Pinus, Cedrus, Abies and Picea.
  4. Coralloid roots develop in Cycas. It is produced in clusters at the base of the stem and protrudes out on the ground.
  5. It is dichotomously branched and greenish in colour. It contains algal zone in cortex.
  6. This algal zone contains blue green algae like Anabaena and Nostoc which grow in symbiotic association with coralloid roots.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Explain why sexual reproduction in angiosperms is said to take place through double fertilisation and triple fusion. Also draw a labelled diagram of embryo sac to explain the phenomena.
Solution:

  • An angiospermic plants reproduces sexually by the formation of male and female gametes.
  • The male gamete is a pollen which contains two male nuclei and the female gamete is an egg cell produced in ovule (female gametophyte).
  • The pollen grains germinate on the stigma of a flower and the results in growth of pollen through the tissues of stigma and style and reach the egg apparatus.
  • The two male gametes are discharged within the embryo sac. One of the male gamete fuses with the egg cell to form a diploid zygote.
    This’fusion is known as fertilisation or syngamy. The second male gamete fuses with the diploid secondary nucleus and forms the triploid Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN). This fusion is known as triple fusion.
  • Because of the involvement of two fusion, this event in angiosperms is termed as double fertilisation. The zygote then develops into embryo and PEN develops into endosperm which provides nourishment to the developing embryo.
    NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom 1.4

Question 2.
Draw labelled diagrams of
(a) Female and male thallus of a liverwort.
(b) Gametophyte and sporophyte of Funaria.
(c) Alternation of generation in angiosperm.
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom 1.5
(a) Liverworts
(i) Male thallus of Marchantia polymorpha
(ii) Female thallus of Marchantia polymorpha
(b) Funaria
(gametophyte and sporophyte)
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom 1.6

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NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
What is the principle underlying the use of cyanobacteria in agricultural fields for crop improvement?
Solution:
Cyanobacteria are abfs to fix atmospheric nitrogen and make it available to the plants and thus are used in agricultural crop improvement.
This improves crop yield and also reduces the cost of application of nitrogen fertilisers, e.g., Anabena and Nostoc.

Question 2.
How is the five kingdom classification advantageous over the two kingdom classification?
Solution:
The five kingdom classification, proposed by RH whittaker is based upon cell structure, body structure (unicellular, multicellular), nutrition (autotrophic, heterotrophic) reproduction and habitat either aquatic, terrestrial, or aerial and phylogenetic relationship.
It is thus more useful as compared to two kingdom system of classification which does not distinguish between prokaryotes and eukaryotes and no other kingdom except plant and animal are identified.
Polluted water bodies have high growth of algae due to the presence of nutrient. These nutrients increase the rapid growth of water plants, i.e.,

Question 3.
Polluted water bodies have usually very high abundance of plants like Nostoc and Oscillitoria. Give reasons.
Solution:
algae especially Nostoc and Oscillitoria, etc., and result in colonies. These colonies are generally surrounded by a gelatinous sheath and leads to the formation of blooms in water bodies.

Question 4.
Are chemosynthetic bacteria autotrophic or heteroterophic?
Solution:
Chemosynthetic bacteria are capable of oxidising various inorganic substances such as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia and use the released energy for production of ATP and thus they are autotrophs and not heterotrophs.

Question 5.
The common name of a pea is simpler than its botanical (scientific) name Pisum sativum why then is the simpler common name not used instead of the complex scientific/botanical name in biology?
Solution:
The common or vernacular names cause confusion regarding the identification of specific specimen as they change with the change in place whereas the scientific names are in latin and universally accepted and understood. Scientific names are thus preferred over the common vernacular names.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Diatoms are also called as ‘pearls of ocean’, why? What is diatomaceous earth?
Solution:

  1. Diatoms and desmids are included under chrysophytes, kingdom-Protista.
  2. These are the main producers in the ocean. They prepare food for themselves and for the other life forms in the ocean as were a siliceous shell known as frustule cores the body of diatoms, this is the reason they are also called as ‘pearls of ocean. ‘
  3. Diatomaceous earth’ is the accumulation of large deposits of diatoms that forms a siliceous covering extending for several 100 metres formed in billions of years.
  4. The material obtained from these deposits is used in polishing and filtration of oils and syrups.

Question 2.
There is a myth that immediately after heavy rains in forest, mushrooms appear in large number and make a very large ring or circle, which may be several metres in diameter. These are called as ‘fairy rings’. Can you explain this myth of fairy rings in biological terms?
Discuss the mycilial structure in Agaricus and its soil borne nature.
Solution:
The fruiting bodies in Agaricus are known as basidiocarps. They form a concentric ring like structure from the mycelium present in the soil. These basidiocarps resemble button in shape and develop to form a ring like structure.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1.1
This fairy ring structure in Agaricus stimulate productivity in plants. This rings are the fruiting bodies of this fungus and the diameter of this fairy ring increases every year due to the spread of mycelium.

Question 3.
Neurospora an ascomycetes fungus has been •arsed as a biological tool to understand the mechanism of plant genetics much in the same way as Drosophila has been used to study animal genetics. What makes Neurospora so important as a genetic tool?
Solution:
Neurospora fungus can be grown easily under laboratory conditions by providing ‘minimal medium’ like inorganic salts, carbohydrates source and vitamin (biotin) and thus was selected to be a very good tool in genetics. The mutations can be also easily introduced in the fungal cells and meiotic division can be easily seen under X-ray treatment.

Question 4.
At a stage of their cycle, ascomycetes fungi produce the fruiting bodies like apothecium, perithecium or cleistothecium. How are these three types of fruiting bodies different from each other?
Discuss the type of fruiting bodies formed by ascomycetes fungus and differentiate accordingly on the basic of there structures.
Solution:
Ascomycetes consist of sporangial sac called ascus. Asci (singular-ascus) may occur freely or in aggregated form with dikaryotic mycelium to form the fruitification bodies called ascocarps.
The fruitification formed by asci include the following :
(i) Apothecium is cup like structure, e.g., Peziza.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1.2
(ii) Perithecium is flask shaped, e.g., Neurospora
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1.3
(iii) Cleistothecium is closed with a slit, e.g., Penicilium
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1.4

Question 5.
What obsrevable features in Trypanosoma would make you classify it under kingdom- Protista?
Discuss cell structure of Trypanosoma also discuss its different strain brief.
Solution:
Trypanosoma is included under flagellated protozoans on the basis of locomotary organ. It resembles Protisia in the following characters.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1.5
(i) It is unicellular.
(ii) It reproduces asexually i.e., by binary fission.
(iii) Possess centrally located nucieus and also contain an prominent nucleus endosome.
(iv) Reserve food material is in the form of granules.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Algae are known to reproduce asexually by variety of spores under different environmental conditions. Name these spores and the conditions under which they are produced.
Solution:
Asexual reproduction in algae is very common mean of reproduction. Algae and their spores exhibit significant diversity and vary greatly in their level of specialisation. Asexual reproduction by spores and their types include:
(i) Zoospores are mobile flagellated spores. In this protoplasm of each vegetative cell undergoes repeated longitudinal division either into 2 or 4, rarely 8 or 16 daughter protoplasts. Before the onset of division the parent cell loses its flagella.

  • Each daughter protoplast after the last series of division secretes a cell wall and a neuromotor apparatus that develops two flagella, eyespots and contractile vacuoles.
  • Each of the daughter cell thus formed resembles the parent cell in all aspects except the small size.
  • Under favourable conditions formation of zoospores is very common.
    NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1.6

(ii) Aplanospores are the non-motile spores. They are formed asexually within a cell, in which protoplast withdraws itself from the parent wall, rounds up and develops into aplanospores which germinate either directly or may divide to produce zoospores.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1.7

(iii) Hypnospores- In this, the protoplasm withdraws from the cell wall, rounds up and develops a thick wall under unfavourable conditions. These resting spores are called as hypnospores. Due to presence of haematochroma they are red in colour e.g., Vancheria, Ulothrix.
(iv) Akinetes are special vegetative thick walled cells present in the filaments which remain under dormant state and resume germination under favourable conditions. They can also withstand unfavourable condition as Spirogyra.
(v) Statospores are thick walled spores ‘ produced in diatoms.
(vi) Neutral spores are the protoplast, of vegetative cells directly functioning as spores (e.g., Ectocarpus).

Question 2.
Apart from chlorophyll, algae have several other pigments in their chloroptast. What pigments are found in blue, green, red and brown algae, that are responsible for their characteristic colours?
Solution:

  • All photosynthetic organisms comprise of one or more organic pigments that are capable of absorbing visible, radiations, which will initiate the photochemical reaction of photosynthesis.
  • The three major classes of pigments found in plants and algae are the chlorophylls, the carotenoids and the phycobilins.
  • Carotenoid and phycobilins are called accessory pigments since, the quanta absorbed by theese pigments can be transferred to chlorophyll.
  • The diversity of light harvesting pigments in alga implies that the common ancestor was primitive and that no close affinity exist between blue, green, red, brown, golden brown and green algae.
    NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1.8

 

Question 3.
Make a list of algae and fungi that have commercial value as source of food, chemicals, medicines and fodder.
Solution:
Algae
Around 70 species of marine ailgae are used for food, chemical and medicinal purpose.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1.9
Fungi
The role of fungi was established in early history. Since, the beginning of cultivation yeast have been used in making of bread and alcohol. The discovery of penicillin that marked the beginning of a new approach to microbial dis eases in human health.
Products of fungi in medicine, chemical and food include.
Around 70 species of marine aigae are used for food, chemical and medicinal purpose.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1.10

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NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Examine the figure.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis 1
(b) Can these be passed on to the progeny? How?
(c) Name the metabolic process taking place in the places marked (A) and (B).
Solution:
(a) Figure shows the chloroplast, which is green
in colour and performs photosynthesis in plants. The structure is present in plant cell.
(b) Yes, chloroplast has the power of self replication because of presence of extra nuclear DNA. Hence, known as semi- autonomous organelle.
(c) The metabolic processes that occurs in the marked places are as follows.
A-It is the stroma of chloroplast, where dark reaction of photosynthesis takes place.
B-It is the structure of extra nuclear DNA that is responsible for replication of chloroplast, when it is required in the photo synthesising cells.

Question 2.
2H2O—>4H+ + O2 + 4e
Based on the above equation, answer the following questions
(a) Where does this reaction take place in plants?
(b) What is the significance of this reaction?
Solution:
(a) This reaction takes place in reaction centre
PS II, that is located on the inner surface of thylakoid membrane. It is known as water splitting centre, where electrons are extracted from water and the reaction is catalysed by Mn+ and Cl ions.
(b) Spliting of water is an important event in photosynthesis are
(i) It liberates molecular oxygen as byproduct of photosynthesis and is the significant source of oxygen in air, or is essential for all living beings on earth.
(ii) Hydrogen ions produced takes part in reducing NADP to NADPH. It is a strong reducing agent.
(iii) The electrons released are transferred from PS II to PS I through a series of electron carriers thus, creating a gradient for the ATP synthesis.

Question 3.
Cyanobacteria and some other photosynthetic bacteria don’t have chloroplasts. How do they conduct photosynthesis?
Solution:

  1. In Cyanobacteria complex lamellar system (thylakoids) are present instead of chloroplast. These thylakoids are functionally analogous to the plastids of eukaryotic cells.
  2. Pigment like chlorophyll-a, C-phycocyanin, C-phycoerythrin embedded in these lamellar system and they trap solar energy and perform photosynthesis. They perform oxygenic photosynthesis.
  3. Photosynthetic bacteria possess related pigments called bacterichlorophyll which are of different types (a,b,c,d,e,f and g). Groups that contain chlorophyll, perform photosynthesis, but do not evolve oxygen.
  4. Bacteriochlorophyll, perform photosynthesis but do not evolve oxygen.
  5. Bacteriochlorophylls are photoreceptors similar to chlorophylls except for the reduction of an additional pyrrole ring and other minor differences that shift their absorption maxima to near infrared, to wavelength as long as 1000 nm.
  6. Thus, they utilize light wavelengths not used by green plants or cyanobacteria.
  7. Bacteriopheophytin is a variant of bacteriochlorophyll that has two protons are present instead of magnesium ion at its centre.

Question 4.
(a) NADP reductase enzyme is located on ……..
(b) Breakdown of proton gradient leads to release of ……….. .
(b) ATP molecules
Solution:
(a) NADP reductase enzyme is located on the outer side of thylakoid membrane.
(b) ATP molecules

Question 5.
Can girdling experiments be done in monocots? If yes, how? If no, why note?
Solution:
The girdling experiment cannot be done in monocots. The monocots vascular bundles are scattered all over the width of stem, so we cannot get the specific band of the phloem tissue which we get in dicot.

Question 6.
3CO2, + 9ATP + 6NADPH + water –>Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate + 9ADP + 6NADP+ + 8Pi.
Analyse the above reaction and answer the following questions
(a) How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required to fix one molecule of CO2?
(b) Where in the chloroplast does this process occur?
Solution:
(a) 2 molecules of ATP for phosphorylation and
two molecules ofNADPH for reduction are required to fix one molecule of CO2 (b) The calvin cycle occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast.

Question 7.
Does moonlight support photosynthesis? Find out.
Solution:
Moonlight does not carry enough energy to excite chlorophyll molecules, i.e; reaction centre PSI and PSII, so light dependent reactions are not initiated. Thus, photosynthesis cannot occur in moonlight.

Question 8.
ATPase enzyme consists of two parts. What are those parts? How are they arranged in the thylakoid membrane? Conformational change occur in which part of the enzyme?
Solution:
ATP synthase enzyme consists of two parts:
(a) F1– head piece is a peripheral membrane protein complex and contain the site for synthesis of ATP from ADP + pi (inorganic phosphate).
(b) F0-integral membrane protein complex that form the channel through which proton cross the inner membrane.
The arrangement of F1 and F0 in thylakoid membrane is as follows.
F0– is a portion present within the thylakoid membrane.
F1 is a portion of ATP synthase enzyme present in the stroma of chloroplast.
The conformational change occurs in F1 portion of ATP synthase thus, it facilitates the ATP synthesis.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Succulents are known to keep their stomata closed during the day to check transpiration. How do they meet their photosynthetic C02 requirements?
Solution:
Succulent plants grow in dry and xeric conditions so, to prevent water loss through transpiration the stomata remains closed during day time. So that the gaseous exchange does not take place.

Thus plants have developed the mechanism to fix C02 during night in the form of malic acid, which is a 4 carbon compound and are released during the day, inside the photosynthetic cells.

Question 2.
Chlorophyll-‘a’ is the primary pigment for the light reaction. What are accessory pigments? What is their role in photosynthesis?
Solution:
Accessory pigments are also photosynthetic pigments, like chlorophyll-/), xanthophyll and carotenoids which are not directly involved in emission of excited electron, but they help in harvesting solar radiation and pass it on to chlorophyll-o.

This pigment itself absorbs maximum radiation at blue and red region. So the chief pigment of photosynthesis is chlorophyll and others (i.e, chlorophyll-/; xanthophyll and carotenoid) are accessory pigments.

Question 3.
Do reactions of photosynthesis called, as ‘Dark Reaction’ need light? Explain.
Solution:
Dark reactions is a type of independent reactions. Through various biochemical reactions CO2 is reduced to produce C6H12O6 (glucose) which does not need light. But they depend on the products formed during light reactions, i.e., NADPH2 and ATP.

Question 4.
How are photosynthesis and respiration related to each other?
Solution:
Photosynthesis and respiration are related to each other as in both mechanisms, the plants gain energy.
In photosynthesis, plants gain energy from solar radiations whereas, in respiration, they break down glucose molecule to get energy in the form of ATP molecules.

The product of photosynthesis i.e., glucose (food) is utilised in respiration to yield energy in the form of ATP. While doing so, it release many other simple molecules (CO2 + H2O) that are utilised in photosynthesis to produce more sugar.

Question 5.
If a green plant is kept in dark with proper ventilation, can this plant carry out photosynthesis? Can anything be given as supplement to maintain its growth or survival?
Solution:
The plant in given conditions cannot carry out photosynthesis. Light is necessary for any green plant to make its own food. The plant should be watered properly for its survival.

Question 6.
Photosynthetic organisms occur at different depths in the ocean. Do they receive qualitatively and quantitatively the same light? How do they adapt to carry out photosynthesis under these conditions.
Solution:
Mostly algae are present at various depth in ocean. These show great variations in its photosynthetic pigment. These can absorb different wave lengths of light and could perform photosynthesis.
Green algae-chlorophyll-o, (absorbs red) and b(absorbs blue violet).
Brown algae-chlorophyll-o, c and fucoxanthin (absorbs yellow).
Rhodophyceae-chlorophyll-o, d and phyocoerythrin.

Question 7.
What conditions enable RuBisCO to function as an oxygenase? Explain the ensuing process.
(a) Can we artificially induce the property of nitrogen-fixation in a plant, leguminous or non leguminous?
(b) What kind of relationship is observed between mycorrhiza and pine trees?
(c) Is it necessary for a microbe to be in close association with a plant to provide mineral nutrition? Explain with the help of one example.
Solution:
This is an enzyme that has dual nature. When CO2 concentration is good enough in atmosphere. It acts as carboxylase. But if concentration of O2 increase, its nature changes and it binds with O2 and acts as oxygenase enzyme that forces CO2 to enter in C2 cycle that leads to photorespiration and loss of CO2.

Question 8.
Why does the rate of photosynthesis decrease at higher temperatures?
Solution:
Photosynthesis is an enzyme specific process. All enzymes works at an optimum temperature (/. e., 25-35°C). As temperature increases, enzyme gets denatured thus leading to fall in the rate of photosynthesis.

Question 9.
Explain how during light reaction of photosynthesis, ATP Synthesis is a chemiosmotic phenomenon.
Solution:

  1. In light reaction plants solar radiation is trapped by photosynthetic pigments, which converts light energy into chemical energy.
  2. Photophosphorylation is the main event of light reaction i.e., formation of ATP from ADP + Pi by using energy of excited electron movement through electron transport chain, that is present in thylakoid membrane.
  3. The movement of ions across a selectively permeable membrane, down the electrochemical/ proton gradient is known as chemiosmosis.
  4. Chemiosmosis hypothesis of ATP formation was first proposed by Mitchell (1961), according to ATP generated by enzyme ATP synthase via a membrane, proton pump and proton gradient.
  5. ATP synthase allows ions 02 protons to pass through membrane and proton pump.
  6. Which creates a high concentration of protons (H+) in the lumen and hence diffuses across the membrane to activate ATPase, releasing ATP molecules. One molecule of ATP is released for every two (H+) ions passing through ATPase.
    NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis 2

Question 10.
In What kind of plants do you come across ‘Kranz anatomy’? To which conditions are those plants better adapted? How are these plants better adapted than the plants, which lack this anatomy?
Solution:

    1. Kranz anatomy how dimorphism in the chloroplast structure. It is found in C4 plants. The cells of leaves consists two types of chloroplast in them.
    2. Granal Chloroplast is found in the mesophyll cells of leaves.
    3. Chloroplast have well developed grana in them. These chloroplast fixes C02 effectively even if it is present in lower concentrations.
    4. PEP carboxylase fixes CO2 to form oxaloacetic acid (4 carbon compound).
    5. Agranal Chloroplast is found in bundle sheath cells of the leaves. C3 cycle occurs in these cells in the presence of RuBisCo enzyme.
    6. The C4 plants are well adapted to high O2 concentrations and high temperature.
      C4 plants can absorb CO2 even when CO2 concentration in much low thus C4 plants can perform high rate of photosynthesis even the stomata are closed or there is the shortage of water thus, they can conserve water.
    7. Since, PEP-carboxylase is insensitive to O2 thus excess O2 has inhibitory effect in C4 pathway and no photosynthesis occurs in C4 plant.
    8. Thus, C4 plants are better adapted to tropical and desert (hot acid habitats) areas than the plants, that lack kranz anatomy.

Question 11.
Tomatoes, carrots and chilies are red in colour due to the presence of one pigment. Name the pigment. Is it a photosynthetic pigment?
Solution:
The pigments are chromoplasts, these are fat soluble carotinoid pigments like carotenes and xanthophylls. These are called accessory pigments, they absorb light and transfer energy to Chlorophyll a.

Question 12.
Observe the diagram and answer the following.
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis 3
(a) Which group of plants exhibit these two types of cells?
(b) What is the first product of C4 cycle?
(c) Which enzyme is there in bundle sheath cells and mesophyll cells?
Solution:
(a) Monocot plants that belongs to Graminae/
Poaceae family, e.g., sugarcane, maize etc., possess these two types of cells, i.e., bundle sheath and mesophyll cell (in kranz anatomy).
(b) First product of C4 cycle is 4-carbon compound oxaloacetic acid.
(c) Mesophyll cells consists PEP carboxylase enzyme to fix atmospheric C02 to form 4-carbon compound oxalo acetic acid, whereas bundle sheath cells consists RuBP carboxylase that fixes C02 to form 3-carbon compound 3 PGA (3 phosphoglyceric acid).

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
In the figure given below, the back line (upper) indicates action spectrum for photosynthesis and the lighter line (lower) indicates the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll-a, answer the following
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis 4
(a) What does the action spectrum indicate? How can we plot an action spectrum? Explain with an example.
(b) How can we derive an absorption spectrum for any substances?
(c) If chlorophyll-a is responsible for light reaction of photosynthesis, why do the action spectrum and absorption spectrum not overlap?
Solution:
(a) Action spectrum depicts the relative rates of
photosynthesis at different wavelenghths of light. Action spectrum of photosynthesis can be plotted by measurement of oxygen evolution at different wavelength. Englemann (1882) by using a green algae plotted action spectrum.
(b) Absorption spectrum of a substance can be derived by calculating amount of energy of different wavelength of light absorbed.
(c) Chlorophyll a is responsible for light reaction of photosynthesis, but the action spectrum and absorption spectrum do not overlap because, though chlorophyll a is the main pigment responsible for the absorption of light, other thylakoids pigment like chlorophyll b, xanthophylls, carotenoids,

which are accessory pigments also absorb and transfer the energy to chlorophyll a. Indeed they not only enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming light to be utilized for photosynthesis but also protect chlorophyll from photo-oxidation.

Question 2.
What are the important events and end products of the light reaction?
Solution:
Following are important events of light reaction:
(i) Excitation of chlorophyll molecule to release a pair of electrons and use their energy in the formation of ATP from ADP + Pi. This process is known as photophosphorylation.
(ii) Splitting of water molecule
(a) 2H2O —» 4H+ + 4e + 0+
(b) NADP + 2H+ ->NADPH2
End products of light reaction are NADPH and ATP. Reducing power is produced in the light reaction i.e., ATP and NADPH2 molecules that are used up in dark reaction and O2 is evolved as a by product by the splitting of water.

Question 3.
Why does not photorespiration take place in C4 plants?
Solution:

  • Photorespiration is associated with C3 cycle, where plant lose CO2 fixation due to the increase in concentrate ion of O2 change in the nature of activity of RuBP carboxylase-oxygenase.
  • While C4 plants have evolved a mechanism to avoid loss of CO2.
  • There is not a direct involvement of RuBP carboxylase-oxygenase as C3 cycle operates in bundle sheath cells, where both temperature and oxygen level low.
  • CO2 fixation occurs by another enzyme PEP carboxylase in mesophyll cells andoxaloacetate is formed, that is later converted into malic acid and transported to bundle sheath cells.
  • There, it liberates CO2, which is used in Calvin cycle, operating in bundle sheath cells of C4 plants.
  • We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 13 Photosynthesis, help you.
  • If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 13 Photosynthesis, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

 

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NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 The Living World

NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 The Living World

These Solutions are part of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 The Living World.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Couplet in taxonomic key means……. .
Solution:
Couplet in taxonomic key is a pair of a contrasting characters used as tool foi” identification to aid in identification of a newly discovered organism.

Question 2.
What is a monograph?
Solution:
Monograph is a specialised work of documenting information on a particular taxon, /. e., family or genus or on aspect of subject, usually by a single author.
The main purpose of monograph is to present primary research and original work.

Question 3.
Amoeba multiplies by mitotic cell division. Is this phenomena growth or reproduction? Explain.
Solution:
Amoeba multiplies by simple mitotic cell divisions giving rise to two daughter Amoebae. Growth here is synchronous with reproduction, i.e., increases in number.

Question 4.
Define metabolism.
Solution:
Metabolism is the sum total of all biological reactions occurring in any living cell, which are controlled absolutely by enzymes. These reactions are of two types breaking down reactions (catabolism, e.g., cell ‘ respiration) and synthesing reactions (anabolism,
e.g., photosynthesis).

Question 5.
Which is the largest botanical garden in world? Name a few well known botanical gardens in India.
Solution:
A botanical garden is dedicated to collection, cultivation and display of wide range of plants labelled with their botanical names.
The largest botanical garden in the world is Royal Botanical Garden (in Kew, London). In India the famous well known botanical gardens are
(i) National Botanical Garden (NBG) Lucknow, UP.
(ii) Botanical Garden of FRI, Dehradun (UK).
(iii) Lloyd Botanical Garden, Daijeeling.
(iv) Indian Botanical Garden, Sibpur, Kolkata.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
A ball of snow when rolled over snow increases in mass, volume and size. Is this comparable to growth as seen in living organisms? Why?
Solution:

  1. Living organisms, grow, have metabolism and respond to external stimuli and reproduce as well. These characteristics are not shown by non-living objects.
  2. In biological terms growth is characteristic feature of all living organisms. It relates to increase in size by accumulation of protoplasm in the cell thus resulting in increase in the size of the cell.
  3. Increase in number of cell by cell division on other hand results in the size of individual organism.
  4. Snow is an inanimate (non-living) object, while rolling over, it gathers more snow on its surface thus, it increases in size by physical phenomenon but not by biological phenomenon.
  5. This growth cannot be thus compared to that seen in living organisms.

Question 2.
In a given habitat we have 20 plant species and 20 animal species. Should we call this as ‘diversity or biodiversity’? Justify your answer.
Solution:
There are existing 20 plant species and 20 animal species in the given habitat. They will exhibit the biodiversity in that given habitat because diversity refers to variation in a broad term and can be applied to any area whereas biodiversity is a degree of variation of life forms within a specified area.

Question 3.
International Code of Botanical Nomenclature (ICBN) has provided a code for classification of plants. Give hierarchy of units of classification, botanists follow while classifying plants and mention different ‘suffixes’ used for the units.
Solution:
ICBN has specified certain rules and principles in order to facilitate the study of plants by botanists. It helps in correct positioning of any organism newly discovered through the pressure of proper identification and nomenclature.
The taxonomic hierarchy, which is used while
classifying any plant given below
Kingdom-Plan tae
Division-phyta
Class-ae
Order-ales
Family-eae/ceae
Genus-First name of organism usually Latin word and written in italics.
Species-Second word of scientific name, also written in italics.

Question 4.
What are hormone receptors? What are the modes of their action ?A plant species shows several morphological variations in response to altitudinal gradient. When grown under similar conditions of growth, the morphological variations disappear and all the variants have common morphology. What are these variants called?
Solution:
These morphological variants are called bio types. It includes group of genetically similar plants showing similarity when grown in same environmental and geographical regions. The same environment provides them the similar abiotic factors like soil, pH, temperature, etc.
When growth in two different geographical regions, they are exposed to different abiotic characters which affects their growth, and development bringing changes in their external morphological features but, their genetic constitution remain same.

Question 5.
What is the difference between flora, fauna and vegetation? Eichhornia crassipes is called as an exotic species, while Rauwoljia serpentina is an endemic species in India. What do these terms exotic and endemic refer to?
Solution:
Following are the difference between flora, fauna and vegetation
NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 The Living World 1.1

Question 6.
Brinjal and potato belong to the same genus Solamim, but to two different species. What defines them as seperate species?
Solution:
Genus is a taxonomic rank used in bionorr.’al nomenclature comprising of a group of related species sharing few common characters.
Solanum is the largest genus of flowering plants which includes few economically important plants, e.g., potato, tomato, tobacco and brinjal. All these plants show some common morphological structures related to vegetative and reproductive similarities. So, they are are included in the same common genus Solanum.

Question 7.
The number and kinds of organism is not constant. How do you explain this statement? Change is law of nature.
Solution:
The number and kind of organisms is not constant, because of the following reasons new organism are added due to mechanisms of.
(i) sexual reproduction
(ii) mutation
(iii) evolution
The number of organisms get reduced due to
(i) environmental threats
(ii) loss of habitat
(iii) anthropogenic activities

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Brassica campestris Linn
(a) Give the common name of the plant.
(b) What do the first two parts of the name denote?
(c) Why are they written in italics?
(d) What is the meaning of Linn written at the end of the name?
Solution:
Brassica campestris Linn
(a) The common name of Brassica compestris Linn is mustard.
(b) The first part of the name denotes the genetic name and the second part is the species name of the plant.
(c) According to ICBN, all scientific names are comprised of one genetic name followed by a species name, which require to be always written in italics. It is a rule of bionomial nomenclature.
(d) Linn means Linnaeus. He was the first to discover the plant. He identified, named and classified the plant, so the plant is named after him by adding suffix ‘Linn’, after the scientific name B. campestris.

Question 2.
What are taxonomical aids? Give the importance of herbaria and museums. How are Botanical gardens and Zoological parks useful in conserving biodiversity?
Solution:
The aids which help in identification, classification and naming of a newly discovered organisms (plant or animal) the taxonomic aids.
It could be in the form of a preserved document like herbaria or specimen kept at museums or scientific institutions. Other aids include written document like monography, taxonomic keys, couplets, etc.
A new organism found can be studied while comparing it with living plants and animals living in protected areas like Botanical gardens, Zoological parks, etc. Botanical gardens helps in conservation of plants by
(i) Plant species growing important local and keeping record of them.
(ii) Growing and maintaining species that rare are and endangered.
(iii) Supplying seeds for different aspects of botanical research.
Zoological parks contribute in conserving biodiversity by
(i) Providing natural environment and open space to animals.
(ii) Providing home to different native and exotic wild animals.
(iii) Rescue of endangered species.
(iv) Facilitating breeding animal and releasing them free. Thus, both botanical gardens and zoological parks play an important role in conservation of biodiversity.

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 1 The Living World, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 11 Biology at Work Chapter 1 The Living World, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry Chapter 13

Here we are providing Class 11 chemistry Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons. Chemistry Class 11 Important Questions are the best resource for students which helps in Class 11 board exams.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Important Extra Questions Hydrocarbons

Hydrocarbons Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Give different isomers of C4H10 with their I.U.P.A.C. names.
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 1

Question 2.
Give the I.U.P.A.C. name of the lowest molecular weight alkane that contains a quaternary carbon.
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 2
It is and its I.U.P.A.C. name is 2, 2-Dimethylpropane.

Question 3.
Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
(i) 2-methylpentane
(ii) 2, 3 – dimethylbutane
(iii) 2, 2-dimethylbutane.
Answer:
(i) 2—methyl pentane has the largest surface area and hence has the highest boiling point.

Alkene-reactions-cheat-sheet-summary-for-organic-chemistry-reactions.

Question 4.
Give the structure of the alkene (C4H8) which adds on HBr in the presence and in the absence of peroxide to give the same product C4H9Br.
Answer:
2-Butene with structure CH3 – CH = CH — CH3 being symmetrical gives the same product, i.e., 2-bromobutane CH3 CH (Br) CH2CH3.

Question 5.
How will you separate propene from propyne?
Answer:
Bypassing the mixture through ammoniacal AgNO3 solution when propyne reacts while propene passes over.

Question 6.
Name two reagents that can be used to distinguish \ between ethene and ethyne.
Answer:
Tollen’s reagent | Ammoniacal AgNO3 | and amm. CuCl solution.

Question 7.
How will you detect the presence of unsaturation in an organic compound?
Answer:
Either by Baeyer’s reagent
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 3
or by Br, in CC14.

Question 8.
Arrange the following In order of increasing volatility: gasoline, kerosene, and diesel.
Answer:
Diesel, kerosene, gasoline.

Question 9.
Arrange the following: HCl, HBr, HI, HF in order of decreasing reactivity towards alkenes.
Answer:
HF, HCl, HBr, HI.

Question 10.
Out of ethylene and acetylene which is more acidic and why?
Answer:
Acetylene. Ethylene and acetylene have sp2, sp hybridized C atoms respectively. Due to the 50% S character of the C – H bond of acetylene rather than the 33% S-Character of the C – H bond in ethene, acetylene is more acidic.

Question 11.
Write the structure of the alkene which on reductive ozonolysis gives butanone and ethanal.
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 4

Question 12.
Write the I.U.P.A.C. names of
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 5
Answer:
3-methylpent-l— en—4-yne.

(ii) CH2 = CH – CH (CH3) – CH = CH – CH – CH2,
Answer:
3-methylhept-1, 4, 6—triene.

Question 13.
Draw the structures of the following:
(i) Dicyclopropyl methane
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 6

(ii) 2-methyl-3—isopropyl heptane.
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 7

Question 14.
What effect the branching of an alkane has on its boiling point?
Answer:
Branching decreases the boiling point.

Question 15. Which of the following polymerizes most readily?
(i) Acetylene
(ii) Ethene
(iii) Buta —1, 3—diene
Answer:
(iii) Buta—1, 3—diene polymerizes most readily, being more reactive.

Question 16.
Arrange the following in increasing order of their release of energy on combustion
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 8
Answer:
The more the number of C atoms having maximum hydrogen hydrogens, i.e., CH3 groups, the greater is the heat of combustion. Thus the increasing order of heat of combustion is (iii) < (iv) < (i) < (ii).

Question 17.
Arrangement of the following set of compounds in order of their decreasing relative reactivity with an electrophile E+.
(i) Chloro benzene, 2, 4 —dinitrochlorobenzene p—nitrochlorobenzene.
(ii) toluene, p – CH3 – C6H4 – CH3, p – CH3 – C6H4 – NO2, p – O2N – C6H4 – NO2
Answer:
Electron-donating groups increase the reactivity towards an electrophile E+, while electron-withdrawing groups decrease the reactivity. Thus
(i) Chlorobenzene > p — nitrochlorobenzene > 2. 4—di nitrochlorobenzene.
(ii) p – CH3 – C6H4 – CH3 > toluene > p – CH3 – C6H4 – NO2 > p – O2N – C6H4 – NO2.

Question 18.
What is the order of reactivity of halogen and alkyl groups in the dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides to give alkenes?
Answer:

  • Halogens: Iodine > Bromine > Chlorine
  • Alkyl group: Tert > secondary > primary.

Question 19.
What products are formed when zinc reacts with
(i) vicinal C2H4Br2 and
Answer:
CH2Br – CH2Br + Zn → CH2 = CH2 + ZnBr2.

(ii) CH3CHBr – CH2Br.
Answer:
CH3 – CHBr – CH2Br + Zn → CH3 — CH = CH2 + ZnBr2.

Question 20.
What does L.P.G. stand for?
Answer:
L.P.G. stands for liquefied petroleum gas.

Question 21.
What do the terms (i) CNG and LPG stand for?
Answer:

  • CNG: Compressed natural gas
  • LPG: Liquefied Petroleum gas.

Question 22.
What are sources to obtain:
(i) LPG
Answer:
LPG is obtained by the fractional distillation of petroleum.

(ii) CNG?
Answer:
CNG is obtained by the fractional distillation of coal tar.

Question 23.
Write down the structures and names of all isomers with a molecular formula of C5H12.
Answer:

  1. (i) CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — CH3 is n-Pentane or Pentane.
  2. Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 9
    is iso-pentane or 2-Methylbutane.
  3. Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 10
    is neo-pentane or 2, 2-Dimethylpropane.

Question 24.
The sodium salt of which acid will give ethane on heating with soda-lime? Give reaction.
Answer:
Propionic acid.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 11

Question 25.
What products are obtained by the acidic dehydration of
(i) Ethanol
Answer:
Ethene

(ii) Propan – 2—ol.
Answer:
Propene.

Question 26.
Out of cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene which is polar and which one is non-polar?
Answer:
Cis – 2 – butene is polar (μ = 0.33 D) and trans – 2 – butene is non-polar (μ = 0). .

Question 27.
Arrange the following in the decreasing order of acidic character.
(i) C2H4, C2H6, C2H2
Answer:
H – C ≡ C H > H2C = CH2 > H3C – CH3

(ii) CH3 – C = CH, C2H2, CH3 – C = C – CH3
Answer:
HC = CH > CH3 — C ≡ CH > > CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3.

Question 28.
Name two industrial sources of hydrocarbons.
Answer:

  1. Petroleum
  2. Coal.

Question 29.
Arrange the following in the increasing order of C – C bond length C2H6, C2H4, C2H22.
Answer:
C2H2 < C2H4 < C2H6.

Question 30.
What type of hydrocarbons is present in high octane gasoline?
Answer:
Branched-chain aliphatic and/or aromatic hydrocarbons.

Question 31.
What are the chief constituents of light oil fraction?
Answer:
Benzene, toluene, and xylenes.

Question 32.
Which of the following shows geometrical isomerism?
(i) CHCl = CHCl
(ii) CH2 = CCl2
(iii) CCl2 = l. Give the structures of cis-and transforms.
Answer:
(i) HC (Cl) = CH (Cl);
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 12

Question 33.
Name the product formed when methyl bromide is treated with sodium and ether.
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 13

Question 34.
Which of the following shows geometrical isomerism?
But-1—ene or but—2—ene.
Answer:
But-2—ene CH3 – CH = CH – CH3.

Question 35.
Write the structure and I.U.P.A.C. name of Acetonitrile.
Answer:
Acetonitrile is CH33 CN. Its I.U.P.A.C. name is Ethane nitrile.

Question 36.
Why does carbon has a larger tendency of catenation than silicon although they have the same number of valance electrons?
Answer:
It is due to the smaller length of the C – C bond which is stronger (335 kJ mol-1) than the Si-Si bond (225.7 kJ mol-1).

Question 37.
Give name atm structure to the first organic compound synthesized in the laboratory.
Answer:
Urea
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 14

Question 38.
Benzene is highly unsaturated, yet it does not give usual addition reactions readily. Why?
Answer:
Benzene is highly unsaturated, yet, resonance imparts extra-stability to benzene and it does not give additional reactions.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 15

Question 39.
What is Lindlar’s catalyst? What is it used for?
Answer:
Pd/BaSO4 poisoned with quinoline. It is used for the partial reduction of alkynes to cis-alkenes.

Question 40.
How will you detect the presence of unsaturation in an organic compound?
Answer:
Either by Baeyer’s reagent or by Br2 in CCl4. The color is discharged.

Question 41.
How can ethylene be converted to ethane?
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 16

Question 42.
Arrange the following in increasing order of C — C bond length C2H6, C2H4, C2H2.
Answer:C2H2 < C2H44 < C2H6.

Question 43.
What type of hybridization is involved in
(i) planar and
Answer:
sp2

(ii) linear molecules?
Answer:
sp.

Question 44.
Name the chain isomer of C55H12 which has a tertiary hydrogen atom.
Answer:
2-Methyl butane (CH3), CHCH2CH3.

Question 45.
What type of isomerism is shown by butane and isobutane.
Answer:
Chain or nuclear isomerism,

Question 46.
What do you mean by cracking?
Answer:
The thermal decomposition of higher hydrocarbons into lower hydrocarbons in the presence or absence of a catalyst is called cracking.

Question 47.
Complete the reaction HC ≡ CH
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 17
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 18

Question 48.
Out of Octane and is heptane, which has a lower octane number?
Answer:
n-Octane.

Question 49.
What are the main components of LPG?
Answer:
Butane and isobutane.

Question 50.
Write a chemical reaction to illustrate the Saytzeffs rule.
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 19

Hydrocarbons Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
The following organic compounds are known by their common names
(i) Neopentane
Answer:
Neopentane is
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 20
& its h.U.P.A.C. name is 2, 2—dimethyl propane.

(ii) Acetone
Answer:
Acetone is
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 87
and its I.U.P.A.C. name is Propanone.

(iii) Vinyl chloride
Answer:
Vinyl chloride is CPU = CH — Cl and its I.U.P.A.C. name are chloroethene.

(iv) Tert butyl alcohol. Write their structural formulae and I.U.P.A.C. names.
Answer:
Tert; butyl alcohol
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 21
and its I.U.P.A.C. name is 2-methyl propan-2-ol.

Question 2.
What are the various products expected when propane reacts with fuming nitric acid?
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 22

Question 3.
How will you convert methane into
(i) Methanol
Answer:
Conversion of methane into methanol:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 23

(ii) Methanal.
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 24

Question 4.
What is aromatization? How will you convert ^hexane into benzene?
Answer:
Aromatization. It is the process that involves cyclization, isomerization, and dehydrogenation with the application of heat and catalyst to convert alkanes containing six or more carbon atoms into aromatic hydrocarbons.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 25

Question 5.
Give the different conformations of ethane with their
(i) Sawhorse representation and
(ii) Newmann Projection formulae.
Answer:
Sawhorse representation Newmann projection models
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 26
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 27

Question 6.
What are the relative stabilities of different conforma¬tions of ethane? Is it possible to isolate these at room temperature?
Answer:
The staggering form of ethane is more stable than the eclipsed form because the force of repulsion between hydrogen atoms on adjacent C atoms is minimum. The energy difference between the staggered form and eclipsed form of ethane is just 12.55 kJ mol-1. Therefore, it is not possible to separate these two forms of ethane at room temperature.

Question 7.
What is Saytzeff Rule? What are the expected products when 2-Bromobutane is dehydrohalogenation with ale. KOH?
Answer:
Saytzeff Rule. Whatever two alkenes are theoretically possible during a dehydrohalogenation reaction, it is always the more highly substituted alkene that predominates.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 28

Question 8.
What is the order of reactivity of H2C = CH2, (CH3)2, H2C = CH2, CH3 – CH = CH2, CH3 – CH = CH – CH3, (CH3)2 C = C (CH3)2, (CH3)2 C = CH CH3 towards electrophilic addition reactions?
Answer:
The order of reactivity of the above alkenes towards electrophilic addition reactions decreases in the order.
(CH3)2 C = C (CH3)2 > (CH33)2 C = CH CH3 > (CH3)2 C = CH2 > CH3 CH – CH – CH3 > CH3 – CH = CH, > CH2 = CH2.

Question 9.
Define Markownikov rule. Explain it with an example.
Answer:
Markownikov rule states. The negative part of the addendum adding to an unsymmetric alkene goes to that C atom of the double bond which is attached to a lesser number of C atoms.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 29

Question 10.
What is the Peroxide effect/Kharasch Effect? Illustrate with an example.
Answer:
In the presence of peroxides such as benzoyl peroxide, the addition of HBr (but not of HCl or HI) to an unsymmetrical alkene takes place contrary to the Markownikov rule. This is known as the peroxide/Kharsch effect.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 30

Question 11.
An alkene with the molecular formula C7H14 gives propanone and butanal on ozonolysis. Write down its structural formula and its I.U.P.A.C. name.
Answer:
The structures of the compounds on ozonolysis of C7H14 and
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 31
Remove the oxygen atoms and connect them by a double bond, the structure of the alkene is
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 32

Question 12.
How will you prepare propyne and I-Butyne from acetylene;?
Answer:
(i) Preparation of propyne from acetylene
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 33

(ii) Preparation of 1-butyne from acetylene
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 34

Question 13.
Describe a method to distinguish between ethane, ethene, ethyne.
Answer:
(i) Ethene (C2H4) and ethyne (C2H2) decolorize bromine in carbon tetrachloride whereas ethane (C2H6) does not.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 35

(ii) Ethyne (and not ethane, ethene) reacts with ammoniacal AgNO3 (Tollen’s reagent) to form white precipitates.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 36

Question 14.
Give the mechanism of an electrophilic addition of chlorine into propene.
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 37
Cl4 (chloronium ion) formed by the heterolytic fission of Cl2 in step (i) being an electrophile attacks propene in (ii) step, propene undergoes electrometric effect combined with + I effect to form carbocation which, is a slow step. In (iii) step Cl ion being a. nucleophile attacks carbocation and forms the product. It is a fast step.

Question 15.
Identify the correct order of reactivity in electrophilic substitution reactions of the following compounds: [I.I.T. 2002]
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 38
Answer:
— NO2 group in structure IV is an electron attracting group, it deactivates the benzene ring largely towards electrophilic substitution reactions. Cl group in III is also a deactivating group, but its deactivation is lower too — NO2, where—CH3, a group in II is an electron-releasing group and so activates the benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution. Therefore, the order of reactivity is
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 39

Question 16.
What is meant by (i) delocalization
Answer:
Delocalisation: Delocalisation means that pairs of 7t electrons extend over 3 or more atoms. They belong to the whole molecule. For example, 6n electrons present in benzene are delocalized and are spread on the whole of the ring and this imparts extra stability to the molecule.

(ii) resonance energy.
Answer:
Resonance energy: The difference between the energy of the most stable contributing/canonical structural and the energy of the resonance hybrid is known as resonance energy. In the case of benzene, the resonance hybrid has 147 kJ mol-1 than either A or B below. Thus resonance energy of benzene is 147 kJ mol-1.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 40

Question 17.
Describe Friedel’s craft reaction with suitable examples.
Answer:
When an alkyl or acid halide is treated with benzene or its derivative in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 as a catalyst, we got alkyl or acyl benzene.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 41

Question 18.
Classify the following hydrocarbons into alkanes, alkenes, alkynes, and arenes.
(i) (CH3)4C
Answer:
Alkane

(ii) C2H2
Answer:
Alkyne

(iii) C3H6
Answer:
Alkene

Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 42
Answer:
Arene.

Question 19.
Write all possible structures of C5H8 and give their I.U.P.A.C. names.
Answer:
Structural isomers of C5H8 (Pentyne) are
(i) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – C ≡ CH (Pent-l-yne)
(ii) CH3 – CH2 – C ≡ C – CH3 (Pent-2-yne)
(iii) Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 43
(3-Methylbut-l-yne)

Question 20.
How does ethylene undergo polymerization? What is the use to which the polymer obtained is put?
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 44
Low-density polythene [LDPE] and high-density polyethylene [HDPE] as used for the manufacture of plastic bags, squeeze bottles, refrigerator dishes, toys, pipes, radio, and T.V. cabinets, etc.

Question 21.
What is the action of water on
(i) Ethyne
(ii) Propyne? Name the end products obtained.
Answer:
(i) Action of water on ethyne: When ethyne is warmed with dilute H2SO4 at 333K and H8SO4 as catalyst ethanol is obtained.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 45
(ii) Action of water on Propyne CH3 — C ≡ CH + H2O
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 46

Question 22.
Propene reacts with HBr to give Isopropyl bromide but does not give n-propyl bromide. Why?
Answer:
The addition of unsymmetrical addendum (HBr) to unsymmetrical olefines (CH3CH = CH2) takes place according to Markownikov rule, the negative part of reagent (i.e. Br-) adds on the carbon atom having a minimum number of hydrogen atoms. Hence Isopropyl bromide will be formed.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 47

Question 23.
An oxidizing agent is needed in the iodination of methane but not in the chlorination or bromination. Give reason.
Answer:
In the iodination of methane, H — I is also formed as the product with iodomethane, since it is a strong reducing agent, it reduces iodomethane back to methane & makes the reaction reversible. In order to destroy HI, an oxidizing agent like HIO3 (or HNO3) is needed. But HCl& HBr formed in the chlorination & bromination reactions of methane & not in a position to react with the monosubstituted products (CH3Cl & CH3Br) since they are comparatively weak reducing agents.

Therefore, no oxidizing agent is needed for these reactions.
CH4 + I2 ⇌ CH3I + HI
5HI + HIO3 → 3H2O + 3I2

Question 24.
The dipole moment of trans 1, 2-chloroethene is less than the cis isomer. Explain.
Answer:
The structure of the trans isomer is more symmetrical to the cis isomer. In the trans isomer, the dipole moments of the polar C—Cl bonds are likely to cancel with each other & the resultant dipole moment of the molecule is nearly zero. But in the cis isomer, these do not cancel. Therefore, the cis isomer has a specific moment but is zero in the case of the trans isomer.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 48

Question 25.
Write l.U.P.A.C. names of the products obtained by addition reactions of HBr to hex-l-ene.
(a) In the absence of Peroxide
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 49
(b) In the presence of Peroxide.
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 50

Question 26.
How will you distinguish between the following:
(a) Butyne-l & Butyne-2 ,
Answer:
Butyne-1 having an acetylene hydrogen atom will give white ppt. With ammoniacal silver nitrate & red ppt. with ammonical cuprous chloride. On the other hand, butyne-2-having no acetylenic hydrogen atom does not respond to either of the two reagents.

(b) Butene-1 & Butene-2
Answer:
Butene-1 & butene-2 can be distinguished either by ozonolysis or by oxidation with acidic KMnO2 solution with which they give different carbonyl compounds.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 51

Question 27.
Alkynes are less reactive than alkenes towards addition reaction even though they contain 2-7t bond. Give reason.
Answer:
This is due to

  1. greater electronegativity of sp-hybridized carbon of alkynes than sp2 hybridized carbon atoms of alkenes which holds the π-electrons of alkynes more tightly and
  2. greater delocalization of π-electrons in alkynes (because of the cylindrical nature of their n electron cloud) than in alkenes. As a result, n electrons of alkynes are less easily available for addition reactions than those of alkenes.

Consequently, alkynes are less reactive than alkenes towards addition reactions.

Question 28.
Why do addition reactions occur more readily with alkenes & alkynes than with aromatic hydrocarbons?
Answer:
The energy gained by forming two sigma bonds (of four sigma bonds) more than compensates for the loss of one or two n bonds when addition occurs to an alkene or alkyne. However, in aromatic hydrocarbons, the aromatic ring is specially stabilized by the delocalization of n electrons about the ring.

It, therefore, requires substantial activation energy to cause the loss of its aromatic character. The most usual reaction in arenes is thus substitution rather than addition, since substitution does not result in loss of aromatic character.

Question 29.
A Hydrocarbon A, adds one mole of hydrogen in presence of platinum catalyst from n-Hexane. When A is oxidized vigorously with KMnO4, a single carboxylic acid, containing three carbon atoms is isolated. Give the structure of A & explain.
Answer:

  1. Since hydrocarbon A adds one molecule of H2 in presence of platinum to form n-hexane. A must be a hexene.
  2. Since A on vigorous oxidation with KMnO4 gives a single carboxylic acid containing three carbon atoms, therefore, A must be asymmetrical hexene i.e. hex-3-ene.
    Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 52
    Thus, the given hydrocarbon A is hex-3-ene.

Question 30.
How would you carry out the following conversion?
Answer:
Propene to Ethyne
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 53

Hydrocarbons Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
How would you convert the following compounds to benzene?
(i) Acetylene
Answer:
Acetylene into benzene. Ethyne (Acetylene) in passing through a red hot iron tube at 873 K undergoes cyclic polymerization as shown below.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 54

(ii) Benzoic acid
Answer:
Benzoic acid into benzene
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 55

(iii) Hexane
Answer:
Hexane into benzene
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 56

(iv) Benzene diazonium chloride
Answer:
Benzene diazonium chloride into benzene
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 57

Question 2.
How will you convert benzene into
(i) Nitrobenzene
Answer:
Benzene into Nitrobenzene
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 58

(ii) Benzene sulphonic acid
Answer:
Benzene into benzene sulphonic acid
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 59

(iii) Toluene
Answer:
Benzene into Toluene
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 60

(iv) Acetophenone?
Answer:
Benzene into Acetophenone
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 61

Question 3.
What is the mechanism of nitration of benzene?
Answer:
Nitration of benzene. It is carried out by treating benzene with a mixture of cones. HNO3+ Cone. H2SO4. The various steps involved are:
Step I: Generation of an electrophile, i.e., NOt (nitronium ion)
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 62

Step II: Formation of complex or carbocation intermediate
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 63
This step is slow and hence is the rate-determining step of the reaction.

Step III: Loss of a proton from the carbocation intermediate
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 64
This step is fast and does not affect the rate of the reaction.

Question 4.
(a) What is the general formula of Alkynes?
Answer:
The general formula of alkynes ¡s CnH2n-2.

(b) Give the I.U.P.A.C. names and structure of all alkynes having the molecular formula C2H8.
Answer:
C5H8 has the following isomers.
(i) CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — C ≡ CH Pent-1-yne
(ii) CH3 CH, C ≡ C — CH3 Pent-2-yen
(iii) Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 65
3-Methyl but-1-yen

(c) Give any two methods for preparing acetylene.
Answer:
Acetylene can be prepared by the following two methods
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 66
(ii) By dehydrohalogenation of dihaloalkanes
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 67
(d) Discuss any three chemical properties of acetylene.
Answer:
(i) Addition of Hydrogen:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 68

(ii) On oxidation with alkaline KMnO4, it gives oxalic acid.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 69

(iii) When acetylene is passed through a red hot iron tube, it trickeries to give benzene
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 70

Question 5.
(a) Write structures of different chain isomers of alkanes corresponding to the molecular formula C6H14. Also, write their I.U.P.A.C. names.
(b) Write structures of different isomeric alkyl groups corresponding to the molecular formula C5H11. Write IUPAC names of alcohols obtained by attachment of —OH groups at different carbons of the chain.
Answer:
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 71
(b) Structures of – C5H11 group Corresponding alcohols
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 72
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 73

Question 6.
How will you prepare Alkanes by
(i) Wurtz reaction
Answer:
Methods of preparation of Alkanes
Wurtz reaction. Alkyl halides on treatment with sodium in dry ether give higher alkanes, preferably containing an even number of carbon atoms.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 74
(ii) Decarboxylation of sodium salts of fatty acids
Answer:
Sodium salts of fatty acids on heating with-soda lime (a mixture of NaOH and CaO) give alkanes containing one carbon atom less than the carboxylic acid. The process of elimination of carbon dioxide from a carboxylic acid is known as Decarboxylation
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 75

(iii) Kolbe’s electrolytic method.
Answer:
Kolbe’s electrolytic method. An aqueous solution of sodium or potassium salt of a carboxylic acid on electrolysis gives alkanes containing an even number of carbon atoms at the anode.

The probable mechanism for the reaction is
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 77

(b) How do alkanes udergo:
(i) substitution reactions with halogens
Answer:
Substitution reactions with Halogens. The order of reactivity of halogens is F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 78
Bromination is similar. With fluorine, the reaction is too violent to be controlled. Iodination is very slow and a reversible reaction.
It can proceed in the presence of oxidizing agents like HNO3, HIO3.
CH4 + I2 ⇌ CH3I + HI
HIO3 + 5HI → I3 + 3H2O

Halogenation of alkanes proceeds via a free-radical mechanism which consists of three steps.

  1. Chain initiation step
  2. Chain propagation step
  3. Chain termination step

1. Chain initiating step. Cl2 undergoes hemolysis in the presence of heat and light.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 79
2. Chain propagation step
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 80
3. Chain termination step
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 81

(ii) oxidation by combustion
Answer:
Oxidation of alkanes by combustion: Alkanes on heating in the presence of air or dioxygen are completely oxidized to carbon dioxide and water with the evolution of a large amounts of heat.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 82
In the presence of an insufficient amount of air or dioxygen, carbon black is formed.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 83

(iii) Isomerisation
Answer:
Isomerization reactions of alkanes, n-Alkanes on heating in the presence of anhydrous aluminum chloride and hydrogen chloride gas isomerize to branched-chain alkanes.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 84

(iv) Aromatisation.
Answer:
Aromatisation. n-Alkanes having six or more C atoms on heating to 773 K at 10-20 atmospheric pressure in. the presence of oxides of vanadium, molybdenum get dehydrogenated and cyclized. This reaction is called aromatization or reforming.
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 85
Hydrocarbons Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 86

Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry Chapter 7

Here we are providing Class 11 chemistry Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Equilibrium. Chemistry Class 11 Important Questions are the best resource for students which helps in Class 11 board exams.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Important Extra Questions Equilibrium

Equilibrium Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Write the expression for the equilibrium constant Kp for the reaction 3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) ⇌ Fe3O4 (s) + 4H2 (g)
Answer:
Kp = \(\frac{p_{\mathrm{H}_{2}}^{4}}{p_{\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}}^{4}}=\frac{p_{\mathrm{H}_{2}}}{p_{\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}}}\)

Question 2.
How are Kc and Kp related to each other in the reaction
N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g)
Answer:
Kp = Kc.

Question 3.
What is the equilibrium constant expression for the reaction
Al (s) + 3H+ (aq) ⇌ Al3+ (aq) + \(\frac{3}{2}\)H2 (g)
Answer:
Kc = [Al3+ (aq)][H2 (g)3/2/[H+ (aq)]3.

Question 4.
What happens to the equilibrium
PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) if nitrogen is added to it
(i) at constant volume
Answer:
The state of equilibrium remains unaffected.

(ii) at constant pressure?
Answer:
Dissociation increases, i.e., the equilibrium shifts forward.

Question 5.
What does the equilibrium K < I indicate? ,
Answer:
The reaction does not proceed much in the forward direction.

Question 6.
For an exothermic reaction, what happens to the equilibrium constant if the temperature is increased?
Answer:
K = K/Kb.
Kb increases much more than when the temperature is increased in an exothermic reaction. Hence K decreases.

How to find Kp from Best fit line.

Question 7.
Under what conditions, a reversible process becomes irreversible?
Answer:
If one of the products (gaseous) is allowed to escape out (i.e., in the open vessel).

Question 8.
What is the effect of increasing pressure on the equilibrium?
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g)?
Answer:
Equilibrium will shift in the forward direction forming more ammonia.

Question 9.
What is- the effect of increasing pressure on the equilibrium.
CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
Answer:
Kc = [CaO (s)][CO2 (g)J/[CaCO3 (s)]
Kc = [CO2 (g)]
Similarly, Kp = PCO2.

Question 10.
The equilibrium constant for the reaction SO3 (g) ⇌ SO2 (g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 (g) is 0.18 at 900 K. What will be the equilibrium
constant for the reaction SO2 (g) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 (g) ⇌ SO3 (g)?
Answer:
K = \(\frac{1}{0.18}\) = 5.55.

350 Degrees F to C 176.667 °C The Celsius (ºC) degree or Fahrenheit (ºF) degree […..] by Helen C.

Question 11.
For which of the following cases does the reaction go farthest to completion: K = 1, K = 1010, K = 10-10.
Answer:
The reaction having K = 1010 will go farthest to completion because the ratio (product)/(reactants) is maximum in this case.

Question 12.
Under what conditions ice water system is in equilibrium?
(a) at 273 K
(b) below 273 K
(c) above 273 K.
Answer:
(a) At 273 K.

Question 13.
The equilibrium constant for the reaction
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3-(g) is K. How is the equilibrium constant for the reaction
NH3 (g) ⇌ \(\frac{1}{2}\)N2 (g) + \(\frac{3}{2}\) H2 (g) related to K?
Answer:
If K’ is the equilibrium constant for the reaction
NH33(g) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)N2(g)+ \(\frac{3}{2}\)H2(g)
Then, K’ = \(\frac{1}{K}\).

Question 14.
Write the relation between Kc and Kp for the reaction
PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
Answer:
Δn (g) = 2 – 1 = 1
Hence Kp = Kc × (RT)Δn = K × RT.

Question 15.
The equilibrium constant of a reaction is 2 × 10-3 at 25°C and 2 × 10-2 at 50°C. Is the reaction exothermic or endothermic? ,
Answer:
It is endothermic as the equilibrium constant has increased with temperature.

Question 16.
What is the thermodynamic criterion for the state of equilibrium?
Answer:
At equilibrium, (ΔG)TP = 0.

Question 17.
Which measurable property becomes constant in water ⇌ water vapor equilibrium at constant temperature?
Answer:
Vapour pressure.

Question 18.
What happens to the dissociation of PCl5 in a closed vessel if helium gas is introduced into it at the same temperature?
Answer:
No effect.

Question 19.
What are the conditions for getting NH33 by Haber’s process?
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g); ΔH = – Q.
Answer:
High concentration of N2 and H2, low temperature, and high pressure.

Question 20.
What happens if ferric salt is added to the equilibrium of the reaction between Fe3+ and SCN̅ ions?
Answer:
The red color deepens. Equilibrium shifts in the forward direction.

Question 21.
Does the value of equilibrium constant change on adding, a catalyst?
Answer:
No.

Question 22.
Name the factors which affect the equilibrium state.
Answer:
Temperature, pressure, and concentration.

Ionic Strength Calculator … Ionic strength is used to measure the concentration of the ions in a solution.

Question 23.
What happens to the ionic product of water if some acid is added into the water?
Answer:
It remains unchanged.

Question 24.
What is the pH of 0.1 M HCl?
Answer:
pH = – log [H+] = – log 10-1 = 1.

Question 25.
Which conjugate base is stronger: CN̅ or F̅?
Answer:
CN̅ is a stronger base than F̅

Question 26.
The dimethyl ammonium ion (CH3)2 NH2+ is a weak acid. What is its conjugate base?
Answer:
(CH3)2NH.

Question 27.
Write the solubility product expression for:
Ag2CrO4 (s) ⇌ 2Ag+ (aq) + CrO42- (aq)
Answer:
Ksp = [Ag+]2[CrO42-].

Question 28.
When does salt get precipitated in solution?
Answer:
When the Ionic product of its ions exceeds its solubility product.

Question 29.
The Ksp value of salt is high. What does it indicate?
Answer:
This means that the salt is highly soluble in water.

Question 30.
Select the Lewis acid and Lewis base in
SnCl4 + 2Cl → [SnCl66]2-.
Answer:
SnCl4 is acid and Cl is a base.

Question 31.
Out of pure water and 0.1. KCl solution in which AgCl will dissolve more?
Answer:
Pure water.

Question 32.
Write the conjugate acid and conjugate base of water?
Answer:
Conjugate acid H3O+ and conjugate base OH̅.

Question 33.
Select Lewis acids and Lewis bases from the following: Cu2+, H2O, BF3, OH.
Answer:
Lewis acids: Cu2+, BF3
Lewis base: H2O, OH.

Question 34.
Give two examples of cations that can act as Lewis acids.
Answer:
Ag+, H+.

Question 35.
What is the difference between a conjugate acid and a conjugate base?
Answer:
A conjugate acid and its conjugate base differ from each other by a proton.

Question 36.
What is the active mass of water?
Answer:
55.5 mol L-1

Question 37.
Whether the pH value of an aqueous solution of sodium acetate will be 7 or greater than 7?
Answer:
It is greater than 7.

Question 38.
An old sample of an aqueous solution of CuSO4 is acidic. Why?
Answer:
On keeping CuS04 solution undergoes hydrolysis to give H2SO4 a strong acid and a weak base Cu(OH)2

Question 39.
What happens to the pH of ammonium acetate solution when a few drops of acid are added to it?
Answer:
pH will remain unchanged as ammonium acetate (CH3COONH4) solution is a buffer.

Question 40.
What happens when HCl gas is passed through NaCl solution?
Answer:
NaCl will precipitate out.

Question 41.
What is the value of H3O+ ions and OH ions in water at 298 K?
Answer:
[H3O+] = [OH̅] 1.0 × 10-7 mL-1.

Question 42.
Will the ionic products of water increase or decrease on increasing the temperature?
Answer:
It increases with the increase in temperature.

Question 43.
Give one example of
(i) acidic buffer
Answer:
Acidic buffer: CH3COOH + CH3COONa

(ii) basic buffer.
Answer:
Basic buffer: NH4OH + NH4Cl.

Question 44.
Write down the conjugate base of [Al(H2O)6]3+.
Answer:
[Al(0H)(H2O)5]2+ is the conjugate base of [Al(H2O)6]3+.

Question 45.
The Ksp of CuS, Ag2S, HgS is 10-31, 10-44, 10-54 respectively. What is the order of the solubility of these sulfides?
Answer:
CuS > Ag2S > HgS.

Question 46.
Ksp for HgSO4 is 6.4 × 10-5. What is the solubility of the salt?
Answer:
S = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{K}_{s p}}=\sqrt{6.4 \times 10^{-5}}\)= 8 × 10-3 mol L-1.

Question 47.
The solubility product (K ) of silver chloride is 1.8 × 10-10 at 298 K. What is the solubility of AgO in 0.01 M HCl in mol L-1?
Answer:
[Ag+] = \(\frac{\mathrm{K}_{s p}}{\left|\mathrm{Cl}^{-}\right|}=\frac{1.8 \times 10^{-10}}{0.01}\) = 1.8 × 10-8 mol L-1
∴ Solubility of AgCl = 1.8 × 10-8 Mol L-1.

Question 48.
How does dilution with water affect the pH of a buffer solution?
Answer:
Dilution with water of a buffer solution has no effect on the pH of a buffer solution.

Question 49.
What is the pH of our blood? Why does it not change in spite of the variety of foods and Spices we eat?
Answer:
the pH of our blood is about 7.4. It remains constant because blood is a buffer.

Question 50.
Why does boric acid act as Lewis acid?
Answer:
Boric a.cid acts as a Lewis acid by accepting electrons from hydroxyl ions.
B(OH)3 + 2HOH → B(OH)4 + H3+O.

Question 51.
When a precipitate formed when solutions of BaCl2 and Na2SO4 are mixed?
Answer:
When in the final solution after mixing, the ionic product.
[Ba2+] [SO42- ] exceeds Ksp for BaSO4.

Question 52.
What is the common ion effect?
Answer:
The suppression of the dissociation of a weak electrolyte by the addition of a strong electrolyte having a common ion.

Question 53.
Arrange them in increasing order of the extent of hydrolysis.
CCl4, MgCl2, AlCl3 PCl5, SiCl4.
Answer:
The increasing order of the extent of hydrolysis is CCl4 < MgCl2 < AlCl3 < PCl5 < SiCl4.

Question 54.
Mention two different ways of drawing the following equilibrium towards the right
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 1
[W.B. JEE 2003]
Answer:

  1. By adding more of CH3COOH or CH3CH2OH.
  2. By removing the ester or water formed.

Question 55.
Give one example of everyday life in which there is gas ⇌ solution equilibrium.
Answer:
Soda-water bottle.

Question 56.
What is the relationship between pKa and pKb values where Ka, Kb represent ionization constants of the acid and its conjugate base respectively?
Answer:
pKa + pKb = pKw =14.

Question 57.
What is the relationship between pH and pOH?
Answer:
pH + pOH= pKw = 14.

Question 58.
What is the function of adding NH4OH in group V?
Answer:
It converts any NH4HCO3 present into (NH4)2CO3.

Question 59.
What happens to the solubility of AgCl in water if NaCl solution is added to it?
Answer:
Solubility of AgCl decreases due to the common ion effect.

Question 60.
Write the expression for comparison of relative strengths of two weak acids in terms of their ionization constants.
Answer:
\(\frac{\text { Strength of acid }_{1}}{\text { Strength of acid }_{2}}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{K}_{a_{1}}}{\mathrm{~K}_{a_{2}}}}\)

Equilibrium Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Justify the statement that water behaves like acid as well as a base on the basis of the protonic concept.
Answer:
Water ionizes as H2O + H2O ⇌ H3O+ + OH
With strong acids, water behaves as a base by accepting a proton from an acid.
HCl + H2O ⇌ H3O+ (aq) + Cl (aq)
While with bases, water behaves as an acid by liberating a proton
NH3 + H2O ⇌ NH4+ (aq) + OH (aq).

Question 2.
What is pOH? What is its value for pure water at 298 K?
Answer:
pOH = – log [OH]
pH + pOH = 14 for pure water at 298 K
pH = 7
or
pOH of water at 298 = 7.

Question 3.
Calculate the pH of a buffer solution containing 0.1 moles of acetic acid and 0.15 mole of sodium acetate. The ionization constant for acetic acid is 1.75 × 10-5.
Answer:
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 2

Question 4.
An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is acidic while that of Na2SO4 is neutral. Explain.
Answer:
CuSO4 + 2H2O ⇌ Cu(OH)2 + H2SO4 (weak base strong acid)
CuS04 is the salt of weak base Cu(OH)2 and a strong acid H2SO4.
Thus the solution will have free H+ ions and will, therefore, be acidic.

Na2SO4, being the salt of a strong acid H2SO4 and a strong base.
NaOH does not undergo hydrolysis. The solution is, therefore, neutral.

Question 5.
The dissociation constants of HCN, CH3COOH, and HF are 7.2 × 10-10, 1.8 × 10-5, and 6.7 × 10-4 respectively. Arrange them in increasing order of acid strength.
Answer:
More the value of Ka, the stronger the acid
Their Ka1S are 6.7 × 10-4 > 1.8 × 10-5 > 7.2 × 10-10
∴ HCN < CH3COOH < HF.

Question 6.
The dissociation of PCl5 decreases in presence of Cl2. Why?
Answer:
For PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2.
According to Le Chatelier’s principle, an increase in the concentration of Cl2 (one of the products) at equilibrium will favor the backward reaction, and thus the dissociation of PCl5 into PCl3 and Cl2 decreases.

Question 7.
The dissociation of HI is independent of pressure while dissociation of PCl5 depends upon the pressure applied. Why?•
Answer:
For 2HI ⇌ H2 + I2
Kc = \(\frac{x^{2}}{4(1-x)^{2}}\)
where x = degree of dissociation

For PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2
K = \(\frac{x^{2}}{V(1-x)^{2}}\); V = Volume of container.

Kc for HI does not have a volume factor- and dissociation is independent of volume and hence pressure.
Kc for PCl5 has volume in the denominator and hence dissociation of PCl5 depends upon the volume and consequently pressure.

Question 8.
The reaction between ethyl acetate and water attains a state of equilibrium in an open vessel, but not the decomposition of CaCO3. Explain.
Answer:
CH2 COOC2H5 (l) + H2O (l) ⇌ CH3COOH (l) + C2H5OH (l)
Here both reactants and products are liquids and they will not escape from the vessel even if it is open. Therefore equilibrium is attained.
CaSO3 (s) ⇌ CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
Here CO2 is a gas. It will escape from the vessel if it is open and so backward reaction cannot take place. Therefore equilibrium is attained.

Question 9.
The degree of dissociation of N2O4 is α according to the reaction
N2O4 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g) at temperature T and total pressure P.
Find the expression for the equilibrium constant of this reaction.
Answer:
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 3
Total moles at eqbm. = 1 – α + 2α = 1 + α
If P is total pressure
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 4

Question 10.
Why NH4Cl is added in precipitating III group hydroxides before the addition of NH4OH?
Answer:
To prevent precipitation of IV group hydroxides (especially Mn) along with III group hydroxides. NH4Cl decreases dissociation of NH4OH and thus limited OH ions are present in solution to precipitate III group cations only
NH4OH ⇌ NH4 (aq) + OH (aq) to a small extent
NH4Cl (aq) ⇌ NH4 (aq) + Cl (aq) to a large extent
Due to common ion affect the degree of dissociation of NH4OH decreases leaving only a small no. of OH̅ ions.

Question 11.
If concentrations are expressed in moles L-1 and pressures in atmospheres. What is the ratio of Kp to Kc for the
2SO2 + O2 (g) ⇌ 2SO3 (g)
Answer:
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 5

Question 12.
The equilibrium constants for the reactions
N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NOand
2NO + O2 ⇌ 2NO2 are K1 and K2 respectively, then what would be the equilibrium constant for the reactions.
N2 + 2O2 ⇌ 2NO2?
Answer:
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 6

Question 13.
What qualitative information can be obtained from the magnitude of the equilibrium constant?
Answer:

  1. Large values of equilibrium constant (> 103) show that the forward direction is favored i.e. concentration of products is much larger than that of the reactants of equilibrium.
  2. Intermediate values of K (10-3 to 103) show that the concentrations of the reactants and products are comparable.
  3. The low value of K (< 10-3) shows that the backward reaction is favored, i.e., the concentration of reactants is much large than that of. products.

Question 14.
The following reaction has attained equilibrium
CO (g) + 2H2 (g) ⇌ CH3OH (g); ΔH° = – 92.0 kJ mol-1.
What will happen if
(i) the volume of the vessel is suddenly reduced to half?
Answer:
Kc = [CH3OH]/[CO][H2]2, Kp = PCH3OH/PCO × PH2
When the volume of the vessel is reduced to half, the concentration of each reactant or product becomes double. Thus
Qc = 2[CH3OH]/2[CO] × {2[H2]}2 = i K..
As Qc < Kp, equilibrium will shift in the forward direction.

(ii) The partial pressure of hydrogen is suddenly doubled (ii) an inert gas is added to the system.
Answer:
As volume remains constant, molar concentration will not change. Hence there is no effect on the state of equilibrium.

Question 15.
How does the degree of ionization of a weak electrolyte vary with concentration? Give exact relationship. What is this law called?
Answer:
α = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{K}_{i} / c}\) . It is called Ostwald’s dilution law.
(Ki is ionization constant and c is the molar concentration).

Question 16.
The ionization constant for formic acid and acetic acid is 17.7 × 10-5 and 1.77 × 10-5. Which acid is stronger and how many times the other if equimolar concentrations of the two are taken?
Answer:
Ka for HCOOH > Ka for CH3COOH. Hence formic acid is stronger.
Further \(\frac{\text { Strength of } \mathrm{HCOOH}}{\text { Strength of } \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COOH}}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{HCOOH}}}{\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COOH}}}}\)
= \(\sqrt{10}\) = 3.16 times.

Question 17.
Out of CH3COO̅ and OH̅ which is the stronger base and why?
Answer:
OH̅ ions can combine with H+ ions more readily than CH3COO̅ ions can do. Hence OH̅ is a stronger base.

Question 18.
What is pKw? What is it? value at 25°C?
Answer:
pKw = – log Kw = – log 10-14 = 14.

Question 19.
What are pH and pOH values of a neutral solution at a temperature at which = 10-13?
Answer:
pKw = pH + pOH, But pKw =13
Hence pH = pOH = 6.5.

Question 20.
The ionization constants of HF = 6.8 × 10-4. Calculate the ionization constant of the corresponding conjugate base.
Answer:
Kb = \(\frac{\mathrm{K}_{w}}{\mathrm{~K}_{c}}=\frac{10^{-14}}{6.8 \times 10^{-4}}\) = 1.47 × 10-11.

Question 21.
What is the difference between an ionic product a rich solubility product?
Answer:
Solubility product is the product of the molar concentrations of the ions in a saturated solution, but the ionic product is for any solution.

Question 22.
Why common salt is added to precipitate soap from the solution during its manufacture?
Answer:
Soap is the sodium salt of higher fatty acid [RCOONa].
On adding common salt, Na+ ion concentration increases.
Hence the equilibrium RCOONa (s) ⇌ RCOO̅ + Na+ shifts in the backward direction, i.e., soap precipitates out.

Question 23.
Through a solution containing Cu2+ and Ni2+, H2S gas is passed after adding dil. HCl, which will precipitate out and why?
Answer:
Cu2+ ions will precipitate out because in the acidic medium only ionic product [Cu2+][S2-] exceeds the solubility product of CuS.

Question 24.
Why in Group V of qualitative analysis sufficient NH4OH solution should be added before adding (NH4)2CO3 solution?
Answer:
This is done to convert NH4HCO3 usually present in large amounts to (NH4)2CO3.
NH4HCO3 + NH4OH → (NH4)2CO3 + H2O.

Question 25.
The pH of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction has to be maintained between 7 and 8. What indicator should be used to monitor and control the pH?
Answer:
Bromothymol blue or phenol red or cresol red.

Question 26.
The ionization constant of formic acid is 1.8 × 10-4. Around what pH will its mixture with sodium formate give buffer solution of highest capacity?
Answer:
Buffer solution of highest capacity is formed at which
pH = PKa = – l0g 1.8 × 10-4 = 3.74.

Question 27.
Why PO4 ion is not amphiprotic?
Answer:
An amphiprotic ion is one that can donate proton as well as accept a proton. PO43- ion can accept a proton(s) but cannot donate any proton. Hence, PO43- is not amphiprotic.

Question 28.
In the reaction between BF3 and C2H5OC2H5 which one of them will act as an acid. Justify your answer.
Answer:
The reaction between BF3 and C2H5OC2H5 is
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 7
As BF3 is electron-deficient and accepts a pair of electrons from C2H5OC2H5, hence BF3 is the Lewis acid.

Question 29.
Will the water be the same at 4°C and 25°C? Explain. [IIT 2003]
Answer:
No. the pH of water is not the same at 4°C and 25°C. This is because with an increase in temperature dissociation of H20 molecules increases. Hence concentration of [H+] ions will increase, i.e., pH will decrease. Thus pH of H2O at 4°C will be more than at 25°C.

Question 30.
What type of salts are Na2HPO3 and NaHS? [W.B. /EE 2003]
Answer:
Na2HPO3 is obtained by the reaction between NaOH and H3PO3 a dibasic acid.
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 8
Both displaceable hydrogens are displaced by Na. No acidic hydrogen is left. Hence Na2HPO3 is a normal salt. NaHS is obtained by the replacement of one acidic hydrogen of H2S by Na (on reaction with NaOH)’. Hence NaHS is an acidic salt.

Question 31.
Explain why the pH of 0.1 molar solution of acetic acid will be higher than that of 0.1 molar solution of HCl.
Answer:
Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte. It is not completely ionized and hence gives less H+ ion concentration. HCl is a strong acid. It is completely ionized giving more H+ ions concentration. As pH = – log [H+], the lesser the no. of H+ ions, the more the value of pH. Therefore pH of 0.1 M acetic acid is more than that of 0.1 M HCl.

Question 32.
Benzoic acid is a monobasic acid. When 1.22 of its pure sample are dissolved in water and titrated against base 50 mL of 0.2 M NaOH are used up. Calculate the molar mass of benzoic acid.
Answer:
1000 ml of 1.0 M NaOH will neutralize acid
= \(\frac{1.22}{50 \times 0.2}\) × 1000 = 122 g.

But 1000 ml of 1.0 M NaOH contains 1 mole of NaOH and will neutralize 1 mole of monobasic acid. Hence the molar mass of benzoic acid is 122 g mol-1

Question 33.
Explain why ammonium chloride is acidic in liquid ammonia solvent.
Answer:
When NH4Cl is present in liquid ammonia, the following reaction takes place:
NH4 + NH3 ⇌ NH3 + NH4
Thus NH4Cl gives protons to liquid ammonia solvent.
Hence it is acidic.

Question 34.
Arrange the following in order of their increasing basicity.
H2O, OH̅, CH3OH, CH3 O̅.
Answer:
H2O < CH3OH < OH̅ < CH3 O̅.

Question 35.
The following can act both as Bronsted acid and Bronsted base. Write the formula in each case (of the product).
(i) HCO3-
Answer:
CO32-, H2CO3

(ii) H2PO4-
Answer:
HPO4, H3PO4

(iii) NH3
Answer:
NH̅2, NH4+

(iv) HS̅.
Answer:
S2-, H2S.

Question 36.
NaCl solution is added to a saturated solution of PbCl2. What will happen to the concentration of Pb2+ ions?
Answer:
Pb2+ ion concentration will decrease to keep K constant.

Question 37.
Which is a stronger base in each of the following pairs and why?
(i) H2O, Cl
Answer:
H2O is a stronger base being the conjugate base of a weak acid H3O+. Cl ion is the conjugate base of a strong acid and so is weak.

(ii) CH3COO, OH.
Answer:
OH is the stronger base, being the conjugate base of H2O a very weak acid.

Question 38.
For an aqueous solution of NH4Cl, prove that [H3O]+ = \(\sqrt{\mathbf{K}_{h} c}\) [CBSE PMT 2004]
Answer:
For salt of a strong acid weak base
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 9

Question 39.
What are the conjugate bases of the following?
CH3OH, HN3, [Al(H2O)6]3+.
Answer:
CH3O (methoxide ion), N3 (azide ion), [Al(H2O)S(OH)]2+.

Question 40.
Write reaction for autoprotolysis of water. How is the ionic product of water-related to ionization constant of water? Derive the relationship.
Answer:
Autoprotolysis of H2O takes place as follows:
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 10

Question 41.
Glycine is an a-aminoacid that exists in the form of Zwitter ion as NH3CH2OO̅. Write the formula of its conjugate acid and conjugate base.
Answer:
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 11

Equilibrium Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Explain chemical equilibrium with th^ help of an example of formation and decomposition of hydrogen iodide.
Answer:
Consider the reaction between hydrogen and iodide at a constant temperature of 720 K in a closed vessel. The reaction involved is:
H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g)

Accordingly, the effective collision amongst the reactant molecules will result in the production of HI. Since the product molecules are not permitted to leave the vessel (i.e., the reaction is carried out in a closed vessel), they will also collide amongst themselves leading to the formation of reactant molecules. Under these conditions, the reaction takes place in both directions. Hence, it is called a reversible reaction.
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 12
Graphical representation of the change of reaction rates with time for the formation and decomposition of hydrogen iodide

Forward reaction: H2 (g) + I2 (g) → 2HI (g)
Backward reaction: 2HI (g) → H2 (g) + I2 (g)
Reversible reaction: H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2HI (g).

To begin with, with the concentration of the reactants being higher in comparison to the product molecules, the rate of the forward reaction will be high as compared to the backward reaction. As the reaction proceeds further, the molar concentration of the reactants will gradually decrease while that of the product will gradually increase.

Apparently, the rate of forwarding reaction goes on decreasing while that of the backward reaction. This state is the reversible chemical reaction is called a chemical equilibrium state.

Question 2.
Name and explain the factors which influence the equilibrium state.
Answer:
The various factors which influence the equilibrium state are:
1. Concentration: Concentration change influences the equilibrium state. If the concentration of the reactants is increased, the equilibrium will shift in such a direction in which more to the products are formed and vice-versa.
On the other hand, if the concentration of the products is increased, the equilibrium will shift in such a direction in which more of the reactants are formed.

2. Temperature: Like concentration, the temperature change also affects the equilibrium state. An increase in temperature of the system will shift the equilibrium in such a direction in which heat is absorbed (i.e. rate of endothermic reaction will increase).

On the other hand, a decrease in temperature of the system will shift the equilibrium in such a direction in which heat is evolved (i.e., rate of exothermic reaction will increase).

3. Pressure: Like concentration and temperature, the pressure also influences the equilibrium state only when the reaction proceeds with a change in volume. An increase in pressure of the system will shift the equilibrium in such a direction in which the volume of the system decreases.

On the other hand, a decrease in pressure of the system will shift the equilibrium in such a direction in which the volume of the system increases.

To explain the effect of temperature, pressure, and concentration on the equilibrium state, consider the combination of N2 and H2 to form NH3
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g); ΔH = – 93.6 kJ

The reaction is reversible, exothermic, and accompanied by a decrease in volume.
Effect of temperature: According to Le-Chatelier’s principle, an increase in temperature shifts the equilibrium in the direction in which heat is absorbed, and a decrease in temperature shifts the equilibrium in the direction in which heat is evolved. Since the formation of ammonia is accompanied by the evolution of heat, it is favored by a decrease in temperature.

Effect of pressure: According to Le-Chatelier’s principle, an increase of pressure on a system in equilibrium, favors the direction which is accompanied by a decrease in volume and vice-versa. While going from, left to right in the above reaction, there is a decrease in the number of moles or say volume, the formation of ammonia is favored by an increase in pressure.

Effect of concentration: According to Le-Chatelier’s principle, an increase of concentration of any of the substances in the system shifts the equilibrium in the direction in which the concentration of that substance is reduced. Thus, the addition of N2 or H2 favors the formation of ammonia.

Question 3.
What is salt hydrolysis? Explain hydrolysis of salts of
(i) strong acids and strong bases
(ii) strong acids and weak bases
(iii) strong bases and weak acids
(iv) strong acids and weak bases.
Answer:
Salt hydrolysis: Hydrolysis is a process in which a salt reacts with water to form acid and base.
Salt + Water ⇌ Acid + Base
B A + H2O ⇌ HA + BOH

That is the interaction of the cations of the salt with OH ions furnished by water and anions of the salt with H+ ions furnished by water to form an acidic or basic solution is called salt hydrolysis.
(i) Salts of strong acids and strong bases like NaCl, KCl, KNO3 NaNO3, Na2SO4, K2SO4 do not undergo hydrolysis because the acids an.d bases furnished by them in aqueous solutions are strong acids and strong bases which are completely dissociated.
NaCl + H2O ⇌ NaOH + HCl
NaOH (aq) ⇌ Na+ + OH
HCl (Aq) ⇌ H+ + Cl

Since [H+] = [OH] the resulting solution is neutral and its pH = 7.

(iii) Hydrolysis of salts of strong acids and weak bases:
The salts belonging to this type are NH4NO3, NH4Cl, (NH4)2SO4, CuSO4, AlCl3, Ca(NO3)2, etc.

Let us take the case of NH4NO3
NH4NO3 + H2O ⇌ NH4OH + HNO3
NH4+ + NO3 + H2O ⇌ NH4OH + HNO3
or
NH4+ + H2O ⇌ NH4OH + H+

The resulting solution after hydrolysis is basic (pH > 7). Since only the anions of the salt have taken place in the hydrolysis, it is called anionic hydrolysis.

(iv) Hydrolysis of salts of weak acids and weak bases:
The salts belonging to this type are:
CH3COONH4, (NH4)2CO3, Ca3(PO4)2 etc.

Let us take the case of hydrolysis of CH3COONH4
CH3COONH4 + H3O ⇌ CH3COOH + NH4OH
or
CH3COO̅ + NH4 + H2O ⇌ CH3COOH + NH4OH

Since both the cations and anions of the salt have participated in the hydrolysis, it is known as cationic as well as anionic hydrolysis. The nature of the solution or pH depends upon the relative strengths of the acid and base that are formed on hydrolysis.

Equilibrium Important Extra Questions Numerical Problems

Question 1.
Calculate the pH of \(\frac{N}{1000}\) sodium hydroxide solution assuming complete ionisation (Kw = 1.0 × 10-14).
Answer:
Since NaOH is completely ionized
∴ [NaOH] = [OH] = 10-3 N = 10-3 M

Now [H2O+][OH] = Kw = 10-14 [Given]
∴ [H3O+] = \(\frac{\mathrm{K}_{w}}{\left[\mathrm{OH}^{-}\right]}=\frac{10^{-14}}{10^{-3}}\) = 10-11
pH = – log [H3O+] = – log 10-11 = 11.

Question 2.
Calculate the pH of a 0.01 N solution of acetic acid. Ka for acetic acid is 1.8 × 10-5 at 25°C.
Answer:
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 13
Applying the law of chemical equilibrium
Ka = [CH3COO̅][H3O+]/[CH3COOH]
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 14

Question 3.
Calculate the pH value of a solution of 0.1 M NH3 (Kb = 1.8 × 10-5). ,
Answer:
NH3 H2O ⇌ NH4+ + OH
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 15

Question 4.
Equal volumes of solutions with pH = 4 and pH = 10 are mixed. Calculate the pH of the resulting solution?
Answer:
pH = 4
∴ [H3O+] = 10-4 M

pH = 10
∴ [H3O+] = 10-10 M
or [OH] = 10-4 M
Thus, they will exactly neutralize each other, and the pH of the resulting solution will be = 7.

Question 5.
An aqueous solution of 0.02 g of NaOH in 50 mL has been prepared. What is its pH and pOH.
Answer:
50 mL of NaOH contains 0.02 g of it
1000 mL of it contains = \(\frac{0.02}{50}\) × 1000 = 0.4 g

Strength of NaOH = 0.4 gL-1
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 16

Question 6.
A reaction mixture containing N2 at 0.50 atm, H2 at 3.0 atm and NH3 at 0.50 atm is heated to 450°C, in which direction the reaction N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) will go if Kp = 4.28 × 10-5?
Answer:
Concentration quotient Q = \(\frac{p^{2} \mathrm{NH}_{3}}{p_{\mathrm{N}_{2}} \times p_{\mathrm{H}_{2}}^{3}}=\frac{(0.50)^{2}}{0.5 \times(3.0)^{3}}\) = 0.018

Kp = 4.28 × 10-5
As Q > > Kp reaction will go in the backward direction.

Question 7.
Under what pressure must an equimolar mixture of PCl3 and Cl2 be placed at 250°C in order to obtain PCl5 at 1 atm > Kp for dissociation of PCl5 = 1.78.
Answer:
Let partial pressure of PCl3 at eqbm. = p atm
Then partial pressure of Cl2 at eqbm. = p atm
Partial pressure of PCl5 at eqbm. = 1 atm

Then for PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 17
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 18
∴ Total initial pressure of PCl3 and Cl2 = 2.33 + 2.33 = 4.66 atm.

Question 8.
At 773 K, the equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) is 6.02 × 10-2 L2 mol-2. Calculate the value of Kp at the same temperature.
Answer:
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 19

Question 9.
Kp for the reaction N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) is 49 at a certain temperature. Calculate the value of Kp at the same
temperature for the reaction NH3 ⇌ \(\frac{1}{2}\)N2 + \(\frac{3}{2}\)H2 (g)
Answer:
Given for the reaction N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g), Kp = 49
∴ for the reverse reaction 2NH3 (g) ⇌ N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 20

Question 10.
In the equilibrium CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO (s) + CO2 (g) at 1073 K, the pressure of CO2 is formed to be 2.5 × 104 Pa. What is the equilibrium constant for this reaction at 1073 K.
Answer:
With reference to the standard state pressure of 1 bar which is = 105 Pa
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 21

Question 11.
Determine the concentration of CO2 which will be in equilibrium with 2.5 × 10-2, mol L-1 of CO at 100°C for the reaction FeO (s) + CO (g) ⇌ Fe (s) + CO2 (g); Kc = 5.0.
Answer:
Kc = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{CO}_{2}\right]}{[\mathrm{CO}]}\)
i.e., 5 = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{CO}_{2}\right]}{2.5 \times 10^{-2}}\)
or
[CO2] = 5 × 2.5 × 10-2 = 12.5 × 10-2 mol L-1

Question 12.
In a reaction between hydrogen and iodine, 6.34 moles of hydrogen and 4.02 moles of iodine are found to be in equilibrium with 42.85 moles of hydrogen iodide at 350°C. Calculate the equilibrium constant.
Answer:
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 22

Question 13.
Prove that the pressure necessary to obtain 50% dissociation of PCl5 at 500 K is numerically equal to the three times the value of the equilibrium constant, Kp.
Answer:
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 23
Total no. of moles = 1.5
If P is the total required pressure, then
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 24

Question 14.
The equilibrium constant for the reaction A2 + B2 ⇌ 2AB is Kp. What will be the equilibrium constant for the reaction AB ⇌ \(\frac{1}{2}\)A2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) B22? [A, B and AB are all gases] [WB JEE 2004]
Answer:
For A2 + B2 ⇌ 2AB, eqbm. constant = Kp
For the reverse reaction 2AB ⇌ A2 + B2 eqmb. constant = \(\frac{1}{\mathbf{K}_{p}}\)

On dividing by 2, AB ⇌ \(\frac{1}{2}\)A2 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)B2
eqbm. constant = \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{K_{p}}}\)

Question 15.
The concentration of hydronium ions in a cup of black coffee is 1.3 × 10-5 M. Find the pH of the coffee. Is this coffee acidic or alkaline?
Answer:
Here, given [H3O+] = 1.3 × 10-5 M
pH = – log [H3O+] = – log (1.3 × 10-5-5)
= 5 – log 1.3 = 5 – 0.1139 = 4.8861
As pH is less than 7, the black coffee is acidic.

Question 16.
A solution is found to contain 0.63 g of nitric acid in 100 mL of the solution. What is the pH of the solution.
Answer:
HNO3 → H+ + NO3 completely
∴ [HNO3] = [H+] as nitric acid is a strong acid.
Cone, of HNO3 = 0.63 g per 100 mL

Strength L-1 = 6.3
[HNO3] = \(\frac{6.3}{63}\) = 0.1 = 10-1 M
∴ [H+] = 10-1 M
∴ pH = – log 10-1 = 1.

Question 17.
The value of Kw is 9.55 × 10-14 at a certain temperature. Calculate the pH of water at this temperature.
Answer:
Kw = 9.55 × 10-14
Now for water [H3O+] = [OH]
∴ Kw = [H3O+] × [OH] = [H3O+]2
or
[H3O+] = \(\sqrt{\mathrm{K}_{w}}=\sqrt{9.55 \times 10^{-14}}\) = 3.09 × 10-7M
pH = – log (3.09 × 10-7) = – (- 7 – log 3.09) = 7 – log 3.09 = 7 – 0.49 = 6.51

Question 18.
Calculate the mass of HCl to be dissolved per litre of the solution so that its pH = 1.301.
pH = – log [H3O+]
[H3+O] = antulog (- 1.301) = antilog 2.699
= 5.0 × 10-2 × 36.5 gL-1 = 1.825 gL-1

Question 19.
Calculate the pH of 0 001 N H2SO4 solution.
Answer:
H2SO4 is completely ionised as
H2SO4 + 2H2O ⇌ 2H3O+ + SO42- as it is, a strong acid.
[H3O+] = 2[H2SO4] as one molecule of H2SO4 gives 2 H3O+ ions

But H2SO4 is given to be 0.001 N = 0.001 × 49 g L-1 [Eq. wt of H2SO4 = 49]
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 25

Question 20.
What would be the pH of a solution obtained by mixing 100 mL of 0.1 NHCl and 9.9 mL of 1.0 N NaOH solution?
Answer:
100 mL of 0.1 N HCl = 100 × 0.1 = 10 millieq.
9.9 mL of 1 N NaOH = 9.9 × 1 = 9.9 millieq.
∴ HCl left unneutralized = 10 – 9.9 = 0.1 millieq
Volume of solution = 100 + 9.9 = 109.9 mL

Normality of resulting HCl solution
= \(\frac{0.1}{109.9}=\frac{0.1}{110}\) = 0.09 × 10-4 N

Molarity = 9.09 × 10-4 M = [H+] = [HCl]
pH = – log(9.09 × 10-4) = 3.05

Question 21.
Calculate the pH of 10-8 M HCl solution.
Answer:
From acid [H+] = 10-8 M as HCl is completely ionised
Now the concentration of [H+] = 10-7 M cannot be ignored as compared to [H+] = 10-8 M from HCl as HCl is very dilute solution.

∴ Total [H+] = 10-8 + 10-7 = 10-8(1 + 10)
= 11 × 10-8 M
pH = – log (11 × 10-8) = 8 – log 11
= 8 – 1.04 = 6.96.

Question 22.
Calculate the hydrolysis constant and degree of hydrolysis and pH of 0.10 M KCN solution at 25°C. Ka for HCN = 6.2 × 10-10.
Answer:
KCN is the salt of a weak acid HCN and strong base KOH
∴ Kh = Hydrolysis constant
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 26
The hydrolysis reaction of KCN is
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 27

Question 23.
Calculate the pH of 0.01 M solution of NH4CN. Given that the Ka for HCN = 6.2 × 10-10 and Kb for NH3 = 1.6 /10“5.
Answer:
Applying the formula
PH = 7+ [pKa – pKb] = 7 + [- log Ka + log Kb]
= 7 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)[- log (6.2 × 10-10) + log (1.6 × 10-5)]
= 7+ \(\frac{1}{2}\)[(10- 0.7924) + (5 – 0.2041)]
pH = 9,31

Question 24.
The solubility product of AgCl in water is 1.5 × 10-10. Calculate its solubility in 0.01 M NaCl solution.
Answer:
As NaCl dissociates completely
∴ [NaCl] = [Cl] = 0.01 M

If solubility of AgCl in 0.01 M is s mol L-1, then
[Ag+] = [Cl] = s mol L-1

∴ Total [Cl] = 0.01 + s ≈ 0.01 M
Ksp for AgCl = [Ag+][Cl- ] = s × 0.01 = 0.01 s

∴ 0.01 s = 1.5 × 10-10
s = 1.5 × 10-8 M.

Question 25.
Given that the solubility product of BaSO4 is 1 × 10-10. Will a precipitate form when
(i) Equal volumes of 2 × 10-3 M BaCl2 solution and 2 × 10-4 M NaSO4 solutions are mixed?
Answer:
BaCl2 ionizes completely in solution
Equilibrium Class 11 Important Extra Questions Chemistry 28
Ionic product of BaSO4 = [Ba++][SO4]
= 10-3 × 10-4 = 10-7

As Ionic product 10-7 is > Ksp 1 × 10-10
Hence a precipitate of BaSO4 will be formed.

(ii) Equal volumes of 2 × 10-8 M BaCl2 solution and × 2 × 10-3 M Na2SO4 solutions are mixed?
Answer:
Similarly [Ba++] = \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-8}}{2}\) = 10-8 M
[SO4] = \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-3}}{2}\) = 10-3

Ionic product of BaSO4 = 108 × 10 = 10-11
It is less than the solubility product Ksp × 1 × 10-10
Hence, no precipitate will be formed in this case.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules.

Question 1.
What are macromolecules? Give examples.
Solution:
Biomolecules i.e. chemical compounds found in living organisms are of two types. One, those which have molecular weights less than one thousand and are usually referred to as macromolecules or simply as biomolecules while those which are found in the acid-insoluble fraction are called macromolecules or as biomacromolecules.

The molecules in the insoluble fraction with the exception of lipids are polymeric substances. Then why do lipids, whose molecular weights do not exceed 800, come under acid-insoluble fractions i.e., macromolecular fractions?

Question 2.
Illustrate a glycosidic, peptide and a phospho-diester bond.
Solution:
(a) Glycosidic bond: It is a bond formed between two monosaccharide molecules in a polysaccharide. This bond is formed between two carbon atoms of two adjacent monosaccharides.

(b) Peptide bond: Amino acids are linked by a peptide bond which is between the carboxyl (- COOH) group of one amino acid and the amino (- NH2) group of the next amino acid which is formed by the dehydration process.

(c) Phosphodiester bond: This is the bond present between the phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar which is called an ester bond. As this ester bond is present on either side, it is called a phosphodiester bond.

Question 3.
What is meant by the tertiary structure of proteins?
Solution:
Tertiary structure of protein : When the individual peptide chains of secondary structure of protein are further extensively coiled and folded into sphere-like shapes with the hydrogen bonds between the amino and carboxyl group and various other kinds of bonds cross-linking on-chain to another they form tertiary structure. The ability of proteins to carry out specific reactions is the result of their primary, secondary and tertiary structure.
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 1

protein molecular weight calculator. Molecular mass is the most fundamental characteristics for proteins and peptides.

Question 4.
Find and write down structures of 10 interesting small molecular weight biomolecules. Find if there is any industry which manufactures the compounds by isolation. Find out who are the buyers?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 2

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 3
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 4
Fat is being manufactured by many companies in pharmaceuticals business as well as in food business. Vitamins come in many combination and are being used as supplementary medicines. Lactose is made by companies in manufacturing baby food. All of us are buyers of fat, protein and lactose.

Question 5.
Proteins have primary structures. If you are given a method to know which amino acid is at either of two termini (ends) of a protein, can you connect this information to purity or homogeneity of a protein?
Solution:
The primary structure of proteins is described as the type, number, and order of amino acids in the chain. A protein is imagined as a line whose left end represents the first and right end represents the last amino acid. But in fact, this is not so simple. Actually, the number of amino acids in between the two termini determines the purity or homogeneity of a protein.

Question 6.
Find out and make a list of proteins used as therapeutic agents. Find other applications of proteins (e.g., Cosmetics, etc.)
Solution:
Haemoglobin, Insulin, thyroxine, growth hormone, other hormones of the adenohypophysis, serum albumen, serum globulin, fibrinogen, etc. are used as the therapeutic agents. Proteins are also used for the synthesis of food supplements, film, paint, plastic, etc.

Question 7.
Explain the composition of triglyceride.
Solution:
Triglycerides are esters of three molecules of fatty acids and one molecule of glycerol.
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 5

Question 8.
Can you describe what happens when milk is converted into curd or yoghurt, from your understanding of proteins.
Solution:
Conversion of milk into curd is the digestion of milk protein casein. Semi digested milk is the curd. In the stomach, renin converts milk protein into paracasein which then reacts with Ca++ ion to form calcium paracaseinate which is called the curd or yoghurt.

Question 9.
Can you attempt building models of biomolecules using commercially available atomic models (Ball and Stick model)?
Solution:
Yes, the Three-dimensional structure of cellulose can be made using balls and sticks. Similarly, models of other bimolecular can be made
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 6

Question 10.
Attempt titrating an amino acid against a weak base and discover the number of dissociating (ionizable) functional groups in the amino acid.
Solution:
When an amino acid is titrated with weak base then its-COOH group also acts as weak acid. So it forms a salt with weak base then the pH of the resulting solution is near 7, so there is no sudden change. Number of dissociating functional groups are two, one is amino group (NH2) and another is carboxylic group ( – COOH). In the titration, amino acid acts as an indicator. Amino acids in solution acts as basic or acidic as situation demands. So these are also called amphipathic molecules.

Question 11.
Draw the structure of the amino acid, alanine.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 7

Question 12.
What are gums made of? Is fevicol different?
Solution:
Gums are categorized into secondary metabolites or biomolecules. Thousands of compounds one present in plant-fungal and microbial cells. They are derived from these things. But is different. Fevicol has not derived from paper written cells.

Question 13.
Find out a qualitative test for proteins, fats and oils, amino acid and test any fruit juice, saliva, sweat and urine for them.
Solution:
Qualitative Tests for proteins, amino acids, and fats:
Biuret Test: Biuret test for protein identifies the presence of protein by producing violet colour of solution. Biuret H2NCONHCONH2 reacts with copper ion in a basic solution and gives violet colour.
Liebermann-Burchard Test for cholesterol:
This is a mixture of acidic anhydride and sulphuric acid. This gives a green colour when mixed with cholesterol.
Grease Test for oil: Certain oils give a translucent stain on clothes. This tesi can be used to show presence of fat in vegetable oils. These tests can be performed to check presence of proteins and amino acids and fats in any of the fluid mentioned in the question.

Question 14.
Find out how much cellulose is made by all the plants in the biosphere and compare it with how much of paper is manufactured by man and hence what is the consumption of plant material by man annually. What a loss of vegetation?
Solution:
According to a 2006 report from the UN, forests store about 312 billion tons of carbon in their biomass alone. If you add to that the carbon in deadwood, litter, and forest soil, the figure increases to about 1.1 trillion tons! The UN assessment also shows that the destruction of forests adds almost 2.2 billion tons of carbon to the atmosphere each year, the equivalent of what the U.S. emits annually. Many climate experts believe that the preservation and restoration of forests offers one of the least expensive and best ways to fight against climate change.
Although it is difficult to get exact data about the quantum of cellulose produced by plants, but above information can give some idea. About 10% of cellulose is used in paper making. The percentage is less but wrong practice of cutting wood and re-plantation makes the problem complicated. Usually older trees are cut for large quantity of cellulose and re-plantation is limited to selected species of plants. Selected species disturb the biodiversity as it leads to monoculture.
Add to this the problem of effluents coming out of a paper factory and the problem further aggravates.

Question 15.
Describe the important properties of enzymes.
Solution:
Properties of enzymes

  • Enzyme catalysis hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, c-c, c-halids, or P-N bonds.
  • Enzymes catalysis removal of the group from the substrate by mechanisms other than hydrolysis of leaving double bonds.
  • Enzymes generally function in a narrow range of temperature and pH.
  • Activity declines both below and above optimum temperature and pH.
  • The higher the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate the greater is its catalytic activity.
  • The activity of an enzyme is also sensitive to the presence of specific chemicals that bind to the enzyme.
  • For eg: Inhibitors that shuts off enzyme activity and Co-factors that facilitate catalytic activity.
  • Enzymes retain their identity at the end of the reaction.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Which organic compound is commonly called animal starch?
Solution:
Glycogen

Question 2.
Name the biomolecules of life.
Solution:
Carbohydrates, Lipids, Proteins, Enzymes, and nucleic acids.

Question 3.
Name one basic amino acid.
Solution:
Lysine.

Question 4.
Name one heteropolysaccharide.
Solution:
Chitin

Question 5.
Name the biomolecules present in the acid-insoluble fraction.
Solution:
Protein, polysaccharide, nucleic acid, and lipids.

Question 6.
Name the bond formed between sugar molecules.
Solution:
Glycosidic bond.

Question 7.
Name three pyrimidines.
Solution:
Thymine, cytosine, and uracil

Question 8.
Which enzyme does catalyse covalent bonding between two molecules to form a large molecule?
Solution:
Ligases.

Question 9.
On reaction with iodine, starch turns blue-black, why?
Solution:
The appearance of blue colour with the addition of iodine is due to its reaction with amylose fraction of starch.

Question 10.
Which type of bonds are found in proteins and polysaccharides?
Solution:
Peptides bond in protein and glycosidic bonds in polysaccharides.

Question 11.
Name one neutral amino acid.
Solution:
Valine.

Question 12.
Where does histone occur?
Solution:
Chromosomes.

Question 13.
Name two different kinds of metabolism.
Solution:
Anabolism and catabolism.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Which type of bonds are found in nucleic acids?
Solution:
Phosphodiester bond.

Question 2.
What are the monosaccharides present in DNA and RNA? (Chikmagalur 2004)
Solution:
Deoxyribose in DNA and Ribose in RNA.

Question 3.
What are fatty acids? Give two examples.
Solution:
Fatty acids are compounds which have a carboxyl group attached to an R-group, which could be a methyl (CH3), or ethyl (C2H5) group or a higher number of CH2 groups e.g., Linoleic acid, Palmitic acid.

Question 4.
What are co-enzymes? Give two examples.
Solution:
Coenzymes are the non-protein organic ^compounds bound to the apoenzyme in a conjugate enzyme, their association with the apoenzyme is only transient, e.g., Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD). Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD), Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP).

Question 5.
(i) What is meant by complementary base pairing?
(ii) What is the distance between two successive bases in a strand of DNA?
(iii) How many base pairs are present in one turn of the helix of a DNA strand?
Solution:
(i) Complementary base pairing is the type of
pairing in DNA, where a purine always pairs with a pyrimidine, i.e., adenine pairs with thymine (A=T) and guanine pairs with cytosine (G=C).
(ii) 0.34 nm or 34 A is the distance between two successive bases in the strand of DNA
(iii) 10 base pairs

Question 6.
Differentiate between DNA and RNA.
Solution:
The main differences between DNA add RNA are as following
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 8
Question 7.
What la a prosthetic group? Give an example.
Solution:
The non-protein part of a conjugated protein is called a prosthetic group. For example in a nucleoprotein (nucleic acid is the prosthetic group).

Question 8.
Differentiate between essential amino acids and non-essential amino acids.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 9

Question 9.
Differentiate between Structural Proteins and Functional Proteins.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 11

Question 10.
What is activation energy?
Solution:
Activation Energy: An energy barrier is required for the reactant molecules for their activation. So this energy with enzyme-substrate reaction is called Activation energy.
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 12

The activation energy is low for reactions with catalysts [enzymes] than those with Non enzymatic reactions.

Question 11.
What are the components of enzymes?
Solution:
Enzymes are made up of protein as well as non – protein parts. The protein part is called an apoenzyme and the non-protein part is a coenzyme. These two together are called a holoenzyme.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
How many classes are enzymes divided into? Name all the classes.
Solution:
Enzymes are divided into 6 classes. Namely

  1. Oxidoreductases/dehydrogenases: Enzymes which catalyze oxidoreduction between two substrates
  2. Transferases: Enzymes catalyzing a transfer of group between a pair of substrates.
  3. Hydrolases: Enzymes catalyzing the hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, glycosidic, C-C-C-halide or P.N bonds.
  4. Lyases: Enzymes catalyze the removal of groups from – substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds.
  5. Lyases: Enzymes catalyzing the interconversion of optical geometric or positional isomers.
  6. Ligases: Enzymes catalyzing the linking together of 2 compounds.

Question 2.
Distinguish between the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of proteins.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 13

Question 3.
Explain the effect of the following factors on enzyme activity:
(i) Temperature
(ii) pH.
Solution:
Temperature: An enzyme is active within a narrow range of temperature. The temperature at which an enzyme shows its highest activity is called optimum temperature.

It generally corresponds to the body temperature of warm blood animals e.g., 37°C in human beings. Enzyme activity decreases above and below this temperature. Enzyme becomes inactive below minimum temperature and beyond maximum temperature.

Low temperature present inside cold storage prevents spoilage of food. High temperature destroys enzymes by causing their denaturation.
NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 15

The relation between temperature and enzyme controlled reaction velocity

pH – Every enzyme has an optimum pH when it is most effective.

A rise or fall in pH reduces enzyme activity by changing the degree of ionisation of its side chains. A change in pH may also reverse the reaction.

Most of the intracellular enzymes function near-neutral pH with the exception of several digestive enzymes which work either in acidic range of pH or alkaline range of pH. pH for trypsin is 8.5.

Question 4.
Discuss the B-DNA helical structure with the help of a diagram.
Solution:

  • Watson & Crick suggested the double-helical structure of DNA in 1953.
  • The backbone of the DNA molecule is made up of deoxyribonucleotide units joined by a phosphodiester bond.
  • The DNA molecule consists of two chains wrapped around each other.
  • The two helical strands are bound to each other by Hydrogen Bonds.
  • Purines bind with pyrimidines A = T, C = G
  • The pairing is specific and the two chains are complementary.
  • One strand has the orientation 5’ → 3’ and other has 3’ → 5’.
  • Both polynucleotides strands remain separated with a 20A° distance.
  • The coiling is right-handed.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules 16

Question 5.
What are different kinds of enzymes? Mention with enzyme examples.
Solution:
Enzymes with substrate bonds are broken and changed to different kinds as

  1. Oxidoreductases: eg Alcohol dehydrogenase, oxidation, Reduction occurs
  2. Transferases: transfer a particular group to another substrate, eg. transavninase
  3. Hydrolases: cleave their substrates by hydrolysis of a covalent bond e.g. Urease, amylase.
  4. Lyases: break the covalent bond eg. Deaminase
  5. Isomerase: by changing the bonds they make isomers. eg: Aldolase.
  6. Ligase: These bind two substrate molecules eg: DNA ligase, RNA ligase

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