Category: CBSE Class 12

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 4

Board	CBSE
Class	XII
Subject	Geography
Sample Paper Set	Paper 4
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Name the area which has now become the rust bowl of the U.S.A.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of ‘ports of call’ with suitable example.

Question 3.
Explain the term bilateral trade.

Question 4.
Define the term poverty.

Question 5.
Name the two broad categories of reasons responsible for migration in India.

Question 6.
Name the sea port which was developed as satellite port to relieve the pressure at the Mumbai Port.

Question 7.
State any two sources of air pollution.

Question 8.
Explain any three characteristics of extensive commercial grain cultivation in the world.

Question 9.
Mention any three characteristics of retail trading services.

Question 10.
“Slavery was a curse.” Justify the statement.

Question 11.
Explain the economic significance of river Rhine in three points.

Question 12.
Cultural activities such as pilgrimage, religious fairs, tourism cause water pollution. By which human values such activities may be minimised/controlled.

Question 13.
Describe any three characteristics of hamlet rural settlement in India.

Question 14.
Describe any five features of plantation agriculture in the world.

Question 15.
Road transport plays a vital role in the promotion of trade and tourism in the world. Support this statement with the suitable arguments

Question 16.
Name the first city of a million population in the world. Describe any two characteristics of administrative and cultural towns.

Question 17.
Define the term ‘growth of population’. Explain any four causes for the steady growth of population in India in the decades 1921-1951.

Question 18.
Explain the important factors which influenced the location of Rourkela Steel Plant.

Question 19.
“Maize is a food as well as fodder crop”. Discuss.

Question 20.
Explain the advantages of satellite communication with reference to India.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) A large country of the size of continent in term of area
(B) A mega city
(C) A major area of nomadic herding
(D) A sea port
(E) An International airport.

Question 22.
Locate and label the following five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) A state having highest gender ratio.
(ii) A leading producer state of Rice.
(iii) An oil refinery situated in Gujarat
(iv) An international airport of Assam.
(v) A software technology park situated in Jammu & Kashmir.

Answers

Answer 1.
North Aplacian (Pittsburg)

Answer 2.
These are the ports which originally developed as calling points on main sea routes where
ships used to anchor for refuelling, watering and taking food items. Aden and Singapore are good examples.

Answer 3.
Bilateral trade is done by two countries with each other and enter into agreement to trade specified commodities amongst them.

Answer 4.
Poverty is a state of deprivation. In absolute terms it reflects the inability of an individual to satisfy certain basic needs for a sustained, healthy and reasonably productive living.

Answer 5.
(i) Push factors
(ii) Pull factors

Answer 6.
Jawaharlal Nehru Port

Answer 7.
(i) Combustion of fossil fuels.
(ii) Mining and Industries.

Answer 8.
(i) It is practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid latitudes.
(ii) Wheat is the principal crop though other crops like com, barley, oats and rye are also grown.
(iii) The size of the farm is very large. Entire operations of cultivation from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised. There is low yield per acre but high yield per person.

Answer 9.
(i) This is the business activity concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
(ii) Most of the retail trading takes place in fixed establishments or stores solely devoted to selling.
(iii) Street peddling, handcarts, trucks, door-to-door, mail order, telephone, automatic vending machines and Internet are examples of non-star retail trading.

Answer 10.
(i) 15th century onwards the European colonialism began and along with trade of exotic commodities, a new form of trade emerged known as slave trade.
(ii) The Portuguese, Dutch, Spaniards and British captured African natives and forcefully transported them to the newly discovered America for their labour in plantation.
(iii) Slave trade was a lucrative business for more than two hundred years till it was abolished.

Answer 11.
(i) It flows through a rich coal field and the whole basin has become a prosperous manufacturing area.
(ii) Huge tonnage moves along the stretch south of the Ruhr.
(iii) It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and the Netherlands with the North Atlantic Sea route.

Answer 12.
(i) Eco-friendly
(ii) Awakening
(iii) Cooperation

Answer 13.
(i) These settlement are fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing common name.
(ii) These units are locally called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani etc.
(iii) This segmentation of a village is often motivated by social and ethnic factors.

Answer 14.
(i) This type of farming are large estates or plantation; large capital investment; managerial and technical support.
(ii) Single crop specialisation, cheap labour, and a good system of transportation which links the states to the factories and markets for the export of the products.
(iii) Important plantation on crops are tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil palm, sugarcane, bananas and pineapples.
(iv) Plantation agriculture as mentioned above was introduced by the Europeans in colonies situated in the tropics.
(v) Now, ownership of the majority of plantations has passed into the hands of the government.

Answer 15.
(i) Road transport is the most economical for short distances compared to railways. It also provides door-to-door service.
(ii) Road transport is most suitable for tourists and they could observe the natural sites through them easily.
(iii) The quality of the roads varies greatly between developed and developing countries as road construction and maintenance require heavy expenditure.
(iv) Roads are universal and provide long distance links. Inter-state highways are used for speedy movement.
(v) Lorries of increasing size and power to carry heavy loads are common in increasing the trade as well as tourism.

Answer 16.
(a) London
(b) (i) National capitals, which house the administrative offices of central governments—
New Delhi, Washington are called administrative towns.
(ii) Provincial towns can also have administrative functions as Victoria, Mumbai, Bangalore (Bangluru).
(c) (i) All over the world many places (towns) are known as pilgrimage, where people visit for religious and other cultural activities. Varanasi, Mecca are the best example.
(ii) Some towns are known for their cultural activities (Movies, Drama, Literature, festivals etc). Jaipur, Panaji, Miami are the main centres.

Answer 17.
(a) Growth of population is the change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points of time.
(b) (i) An overall improvement in health and sanitation, brought down the mortality rate
(ii) Better transport and communication system improved distribution system.
(iii) The crude birth rate remained high in this period leading to higher growth rate..
(iv) Life expectancy increased.

Answer 18.
(i) It was set up in 1959. The plant was located on the basis of proximity to materials to minise the cost of transporting weight-losing material.
(ii) This plant has a unique locational advantage.
(iiii) It receives coal from Jharia and Iron ore from Sundargarh and Kandujhar.
(iv) The Hirakund project supplies power for the electric furnaces.
(v) Water is being obtained from Koel and Sankh rivers.

Answer 19.
(i) Maize is a food as well as fodder crop grown under semi arid climate condition and in the
inferior soils.
(ii) This crop occupies only about 3.6% of total cropped area. Its cultivation is not concentrated in any specific region.
(iii) It is sown all over India except eastern and north-eastern regions.
(iv) The leading producers of maize are the states of Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
(v) Yield level of maize is higher than other coarse cereals. It is high in southern states and declines towards central parts.

Answer 20.
(i) Satellites are mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of other means of communication.
(ii) The use of satellite in getting a continuous and synoptic view of larger area has made If satellite communication very vital for the country due to the economic and strategic reasons.
(iii) Satellite images can be used for the weather forecast, monitoring of natural calamities surveillance of border areas.
(iv) Satellites collect data in several spectral bonds and transmit them to the ground stations for various uses.
(v) The National Remote Sensing Agency at Hyderabad provides facilities for acquisition of data and its processing. These are very useful in the management of natural resources.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 3

Board	CBSE
Class	XII
Subject	Chemistry
Sample Paper Set	Paper 3
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Chemistry is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions

• All questions are compulsory.
• Question number 1 to 5 are very short answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
• Question number 6 to 10 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
• Question number 11 to 22 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
• Question number 23 is a value based question and carry 4 marks.
• Question number 24 to 26 are long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
• Use log table, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Questions 

Question 1.
Define zeta potential.

Question 2.
Name an oxoanion having oxidation number of metal equal to its group number.

Question 3.
Draw structure of 4-methoxy, N, N-dimethyl aniline.

Question 4.
Arrange according to increasing acidic strength- phenol, 2-methyl phenol, benzoic acid.

Question 5.
Name the type of semiconductor formed when Cu₂O having metal deficiency defect.

Question 6.
[Fe(CN)₆]^4- and [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ are of different colours in dilute solutions. Why?
OR
What is the co-ordination entity formed when excess of aqueous KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate? Why is it that no precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained, when H₂S(s) is passed through this solution?

Question 7.
(a) Draw the shape of BrF^–₄.
(b) Arrange according to increasing boiling point HF, HCl, HI, HBr.

Question 8.
Define osmosis & osmotic pressure.

Question 9.
Show that in a first order reaction, time required for completion of 99.9% of reaction is 10 times of the half life (t_1/2) of the reaction.

Question 10.
Write chemical reaction to affect the following change:
(a) Benzene to m-bromophenol
(b) Benzoic acid to aniline

Question 11.
X-ray diffraction studies show that copper crystallises in fee unit cell with cell edge of 3.6 x 10^-8 cm and its density is 8.92 g/cm³. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.

Question 12.

1. What is the significance of leaching in the extraction of Al?
2. Describe a method for refining of nickel.
3. Which possesses more carbon-pig iron or cast iron?

Question 13.
Complete the following chemical equations:

1. XeF₂ + H₂O →
2. H₂O + F₂ →
3. Zn + HNO₃ (dil.) →

Question 14.

1. Find co-ordination number of metal ion in [Co(ox)₂Cl₂]⁺?
2. Which will react with ethylene diamine-ris [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] or trans [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]?
3. What is the role of co-ordination compounds in analytical chemistry. Give one example.

Question 15.
(a) Chlorobutane has higher boiling point than f-butyl chloride. Explain
(b) Arrange according to increasing SN2 reactivity

(c) Give reason, why do alcoholic KOH gives alkene on reaction with haloalkane?

Question 16.

1. Why do all digestive tablets contain salt?
2. Arrange according to increasing coagulating power-Na₃PO₄, NaCl, sugar.
3. Define electrophoresis.

Question 17.
Calculate the mass of a non volatile solute AB₂ (molar mass 60 g/mol) which should be dissolved in 5 litre of water to boil it at 108°C, if K_b for water is 0.52 K Kg mol^-1. (The solution is 80% dissociated in H₂O).
OR
Calculate the osmotic pressure in pascals exerted by a solution prepared by dissolving 1.0 g of polymer of molar mass 1,85,000 g per mole in 450 ml of water at 37°C.

Question 18.
Distinguish between the following pair with a suitable chemical test:

1. Phenol and benzyl alcohol
2. Propanmine and propanal
3. Methanol and propanal

Question 19.
Illustrate the following reaction with a suitable chemical reaction:

1. Carbylamine reaction
2. Crossaldol condensation
3. Sandmeyer reaction

Question 20.

1. Name three type of RNA.
2. Define peptide linkage.
3. Name the deficiency disease caused by vitamin ‘D’.

Question 21.
(a) If slope of this line is -1.25 × 10⁴ K, what will be value of E_a?
(b) If intercept of the line on Y-axis is 14.34 find arrhenius constant ‘A’.

Question 22.
Write monomer units with structure and name for the following polymers:
(a) PTEE
(b) Buna-N
(c) Dacron

Question 23.
In a holiday, Neelam wanted to prepare some halwa for her husband who is diabetic. She does not want to add sugar to halwa, so she wants to use aspartame as artificial sweetner. Her daughter Tanya, a student of class XII chemistry suggested not to use aspartame.

1. Why do Tanya suggested her not to use aspartame?
2. Suggest a suitable artificial sweetner for making Halwa.
3. In which type of food aspartame can be used.
4. Mention the values associated with the suggestion of Tanya.

Question 24.
(i) State the relationship amongst cell constant of a cell, resistance of the solution in the cell and conductivity of the solution. How is molar conductivity of a solution related to conductivity of its solution?
(ii) A voltaic cell is set up at 25°C with the following half cell Al/Al³⁺ (0.001 M) and Ni/Ni²⁺ (0.50M). Calculate the cell voltage

OR
(i) Calculate the potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution whose pH is 10.
(ii) State Faraday’s laws of electrolysis. How much charge in terms of Faraday, F is required for reduction of 1 mol Cr₂O^2-₇ to Cr³⁺.

Question 25.
(i) Complete the following chemical reactions:
(a) kMnO₄ \(\underrightarrow { Heat } \)
(b) Cr₂O^2-₇ + H₂S + H⁺ →
(ii) Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate from chromate ore with chemical equations involved. What is the effect of increasing pH on a solution of potassium dichromate?
OR
Explain the following:

1. Copper (I) ion is not stable in an aqueous solution.
2. Transition metals in general acts as good catalysts.
3. Lanthanoid contraction is less than actinoid contraction.
4. Melting point of Fe is more than Mn.
5. Name the lanthanoid having +4 oxidation state and which acts as oxidising agent.

Question 26.
Two moles of an organic compound ‘A’ (C₇H₆O) on treatment with a strong base gives two compound ‘B’ and ‘C’. ‘B’ on oxidation with alkaline KMnO₄ gives ‘C’. B on reaction with ‘C’ in the presence of cone. H₂SO₄ gives fruity smelling compound ‘D’. Write all the reactions and draw structures of A, B, C & D.
OR

Answers 

Answer 1.
Zeta potential: Adsorption of ions on particles of dispersed phase leads to the formation of electrical double layer. The potential difference between the fixed layer and the diffused layer of opposite charges is called zeta potential or electrokinetic potential.

Answer 2.
MnO^–₄, Cr₂O^2-₇, CrO^2-₄ (any one).

Answer 3.

Answer 4.
2-methyl phenol < phenol < benoic acid (Increasing acidic strength)

Answer 5.
p-type semiconductor

Answer 6.
Explanation according to VBT : Iron is in + 2 state and have 3d⁶ configuration in both the complexes, but [Fe(CN)₆]^4- is an inner orbital-complex so no unpaired electron is there and as a result it is colourless

On the other hand [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is an outer orbital-complex, hence there is unpaired electrons and the complex is coloured.

According to crystal field theory, CN^– is a strong field ligand but H₂O is a weak field ligand, hence t_2g e_g configuration is as follows

OR

since Cu is within the co-ordination sphere, so it will not get precipitated as CuS on passing H₂S(s).

Answer 7.

(b) HCl < HBr < HI < HF (Increasing boiling point)

Answer 8.

• Osmosis : Movement of solvent particles from low concentration solution to higher concentration solution through a semipermeable membrane is known as osmosis.
• Osmotic pressure : The pressure applied on higher concentration side of a semipermeable membrane separating solutions of different concentration, so that there is no net flow of solvent on either side of membrane is known as osmotic pressure.

Answer 9.
For a first order reaction

for 99.9% completion of a reaction, if [A]0 = 100, then
[A]_t = 100 – 99.9 = 0.1

Answer 10.
(a) Benzene to m-bromophenol

(b) Benzoic acid to aniline

Answer 11.
From question Z = 4, a = 3.6 x 10^-8 cm, d = 8.92 g/cm³, λ = ?

Answer 12.

1. Leaching with NaOH(aq) makes soluble complex Al₂O₃ and leaving behind all the impurities.
   Al₂O₃ . xH₂O + NaOH (aq) → Na [Al(OH)₄]
   [from this soluble complex on passing CO₂, Al(OH)₃ gets precipitated from which pure Al₂O₃ can be obtained]
2. Mond’s process is used for refining of nickel in this method Ni converted to volatile complex which breaks down on further heating.
   
3. Pig iron (4% C) possesses more carbon content than cast iron (3% C)

Answer 13.

1. 2XeF₂ (s) + 2H₂O(l) → 2Xe(g) + 4HF(aq) + O₂(g)
2. 2H₂O (l) + 2F₂(g) → 4HF (aq) + O₂(g)
3. Zn + HNO₃ (dil) → 4Zn(NO₃)₂ + 5H₂O + N₂O

Answer 14.

1. Co-ordination number = 6 (∵ ox(Oxilato-bidentate ligand)
2. Ethylene diamine, a bidentate ligand can react only with cis isomer, so cis is [Pt(NH₃)₂ Cl₂] is the correct answer.
3. Role of co-ordination compound in analytical chemistry
   • EDTA for estimation of hardness of water
   • DMG for analysis/confirmation of Ni²⁺ ion
   • Confirmation of chloride ion by dissolving AgCl in NH₃ solution.

Answer 15.
(a) Chlorobutane has larger surface area than compact butyl chloride and as a result, more intermolecular forces in chlorobutane and it has higher boiling point.

(c) KOH + C₂H₅OH → C₂H₂O^–K⁺ + H₂O
Ethoxide ion forms in presence of alcohol is a stronger base than OH^– (hydroxyl) ion, hence it can remove β-hydrogen and leads to the formation of alkene.

Answer 16.

1. Salt is a strong electrolyte, hence coagulate food particles easily and so helps in easy digestion.
2. Sugar < NaCl < Na₃PO₄
3. The movement of colloidal particles under an applied electric potential is called electrophoresis.

Answer 17.
From question
ΔT_b = 108° – 100° = 8°C
= 381 – 373 = 8 K
mass of solvent = 5 litre = 5000 g
K_b = 0.52 K kg mol^-1, molar mass of solute = 60 g/mol
AB₂ is 80% dissociated, so

OR
It is given that
w_B= 1 g, m_B = 1,85,000 g/mol, w_A = 450 mL
T = 37 + 273 = 310K, π = ?

Answer 18.
(a)

Reagent	Phenol	Benzyl alcohol
Neutral FeCl3	Dark grey/violet colour appears	No reaction

(b)

Reagent	Propanmine	Propanal
I2 + NaOH heat	Yellow precipitate will form	No yellow Precipitation

(c)

Reagent	Methanol	Propanal
KMnO4(alk)	HCHO + KMnO4 → CO2 + H2O + Mn2+ CO2 gas is evolved	Acid will form, evolve CO2 on adding NaHCO3

Answer 19.

1. Carbylamine reaction :
   
2. Cross aldol condensation:
   
3. Sandmeyer reaction:
   

Answer 20.

1. Three type of RNA
   • m-RNA
   • t-RNA
   • r-RNA
2. Peptide linkage :
   
   The linkage (amide linkage) present between two amino acids is known as peptide linkage in protein chemistry.
3. Deficiency disease caused by vitamin-D → Rickets and osteomalacia.

Answer 21.
(a) From Arrhenius relation


(b) Since intercept on y-axis is log A, so
log A = 14.34
A = antilog 14.34
A = 2.188 x 10¹⁴ s^-1.

Answer 22.
(a) PTEE

(b) Buna-N

(c) Dacron :

Answer 23.

1. Since aspartame is unstable at cooking temperature, so Tanya suggested her mother not to use it.
2. Sucralose or Alitame
3. Aspartame can be used for cold food items.
4. Knowledge of chemistry, concern for family.

Answer 24.
(i) Relationship between cell constant, resistance and conductivity of a cell:

(ii) Since Al³⁺/Al reduction potential has more -ve value as it will act as anode and nickel will act as cathode. The cell will be

OR
Since pH of solution is 10, so [H⁺] = 10
From Nemst equation at 298 K

(ii) Faraday’s first law : The amount of chemical reaction which occurs at any electrode during electrolysis by a current is proportional to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolytic solution or melt.
Faraday’s second law : The amount of different substances liberated by the same quantity of electricity passing through the electrolytic solution are proportional to their chemical equivalent weights.
Number of Faraday’s required for Cr₂O^2-₇ to Cr³⁺ is 6 F.

Answer 25.
(i) (a) 2KMnO₄ \(\underrightarrow { Heat } \) K₂MnO₄ + MnO₂ + O₂
(b) Cr₂O^2-₇ + 3H₂S + 8H⁺ → 2Cr³⁺ + 3S + 7H₂O
(ii) Preparation of potassium dichromate:

Effect of increasing pH :
Dichromate ion will convert to form chromate ion as follows :

OR

1. Cu⁺ in aqueous solution undergoes disproportionation, i.e.
   2Cu⁺(aq) → Cu²⁺(aq) + Cu(s)
   The E° value for this reaction is favourable (due to high hydration energy for Cu²⁺ ion)
2. Catalytic property of transition metals is due to their ability of adopting multiple oxidation state and to form complexes.
3. Shielding effect of 4f electrons is more as compared to 5f orbital electrons and hence lanthanoid contraction is less than actinoid contraction.
4. The size of iron is smaller than manganese which compensate for one less impaired electron present in iron in comparison to manganese, hence M-M bond in iron is stronger than Mn and as a result iron has higher melting point than Mn.
5. Lanthanoids with +4 oxidation state are → Ce⁴⁺, Gd⁴⁺, HO⁴⁺, Dy⁴⁺.
   These acts as oxidising agent to acquire +3 oxidation state like other elements of their group.

Answer 26.
Since compound (A) C₇H₆O gives B and C on treatment with a strong base and they combine together in the presence of cone. H₂SO₄ to give fruity smelling it means ester formation takes place and C and B are acid and alcohol. B on oxidation gives ‘C’ it means ‘B’ is alcohol and C is an acid. There is 5 unsaturation in compound A, so the compound must be benzaldehyde having no a hydrogen and gives disproportionation reaction with cone, alkali.

OR

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 3

Board	CBSE
Class	XII
Subject	Geography
Sample Paper Set	Paper 3
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Give one difference between immigration and emigration.

Question 2.
Write the meaning of sustainable human development.

Question 3.
What do you mean by quinary activities?

Question 4.
What is an outport?

Question 5.
Give one example each of religious and mining towns of India.

Question 6.
Mention the two environmental problems that emerged due to intensive irrigation in Indira Gandhi Canal command area.

Question 7.
Which seaport is known as ‘queen of Arabian Sea’?

Question 8.
“The human activities create cultural landscape”. Support the statement with any three
examples.

Question 9.
The proportion of literate population of a country is an indicator of its socio-economic development. Explain.

Question 10.
Explain any three features of clustered rural settlements of India.

Question 11.
Study the diagram given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) Identify and name the iron and steel plant shown in the above diagram. In which state is this plant located?
(ii) Which river provides water to the plant?
(iii) From where does it get iron ore? In which year did it start production?

Question 12.
Bio-energy is a potential source of energy conversion. Mention which human values are important to enhance it?

Question 13.
How did the Bhils in Petalwad block of Jhahua district revitalise large parts of common property resources throw their own efforts? Explain any three points.

Question 14.
Mention the meaning of manufacturing industry. Explain any three characteristics of modern large scale manufacturing industry in the world.

Question 15.
Name the country in which Suez Canal is located. Which are the two terminal points of this canal? Explain the economic significance of Suez canal.

Question 16.
Discuss the important features of Mixed Farming.

Question 17.
“Development means a qualitative change which is always value positive”. Justify the statement.

Question 18.
Explain the main causes of the rapid growth of population in India from 1951 to 1981.

Question 19.
“Indian farmers gamble with the monsoon”. Discuss.

Question 20.
Define the term ‘Watershed Management’. Explain any four features of watershed management progress initiated in the country.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) An area of commercial livestock rearing.
(B) A major seaport
(C) An airport
(D) A mega city
(E) A large country of the size of a continent in terms of area.

Question 22.
Locate and label the following five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) The state which is the leading producer of jute.
(ii) An oil refinery in Haryana.
(iii) A headquarter city of the North-Western Railways.
(iv) A land-locked seaport.
(v) The state with lowest level of HDI.

Answers

Answer 1.
Migrants who move into a new place are called Immigrants whereas migrants who move out of a place are called Emigrants.

Answer 2 .
To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities.
All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future.

Answer 3.
Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas.

Answer 4.
These are deep water ports built away from the actual ports; serve the parent ports by receiving those ships which are unable to approach them due to their large size.

Answer 5.
(i) Mathura
(ii) Digboi

Answer 6.
(i) Water logging
(ii) Soil salinity.

Answer 7.
Kochi Port

Answer 8.
(i) The imprint of human activities are created everywhere—health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls.
(ii) Fields, orchard and pastures in plains and rolling hills.
(iii) Ports on the coasts, oceanic routes on the oceanic surface and satellite in the space.

Answer 9.
(i) Proportion of literate population of a country in an indicator of its socio-economic development.
(ii) It reveals the standard of living, social status of females, availability of educational facilities and policies of government.
(iii) Level of economic development is both a cause and consequence of literacy.

Answer 10.
(i) It is a compact or closely built up area of houses.
(ii) In this type of village the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, bams and pastures.
(iii) Its intervening streets present some geometric shape-as rectangular, radial, liner etc

Answer 11.
(i) (a) Durgapur steelplant (b) West Bengal
(ii) Damodar valley corporation.
(iii) It gets iron ore from Noamundi. It started its production in 1962.

Answer 12.
(i) Awakening
(ii) Eco-friendly
(iii) Cooperation

Answer 13.
(i) Land Reforms — improve the agroland, pastureland etc.
(ii) Revitalise the irrigation resources.
(iii) Planted fodder grass on pastureland, adapted social fencing, no open grazing.

Answer 14.
(A) (i) Manufacturing involves a full array of production from handicrafts to moulding iron and steel and stamping out plastic toys to assembling delicate computer components or space vehicles.
(ii) The common features are the application of power, mass production of identical products and specialised labour in factor setting for the production of standardised commodities. It adds value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable product.

(B) Characteristics of modem large scale manufacturing:
(i) Specialisation of skills/methods of production.
(ii) Mechanisation.
(iii) Technological innovation.
(iv) Organisational structure and stratification.

Answer 15.
(A) Egypt
(B) Port Said in the north and Port Suez in the South.
(C) (i) It reduces direct sea route distance between Liverpool and Colombo.
(ii) The tolls are so heavy that some find it cheaper to go by the longer Cape Route whenever the consequent delay is not important.
(iii) It gives Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean.

Answer 16.
(i) This form of agriculture is found in the highly developed parts of the world-North-westem
Europe, Eastern North America, parts of Eurasia.
(ii) Mixed farms are moderate in size and usually the crops associated with it are wheat, barley, oats, rye, maize, fodder and root crops.
(iii) Fodder crops are an important component of mixed farming.
(iv) Crop rotation and inter cropping play an important role in maintaining soil fertility.
(v) Equal emphasis is laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry. Animals like cattle, sheep, pigs and poultry provide the main income along with crops.

Answer 17.
• This means that development cannot take place unless there is an increment or addition to the existing conditions.
• Development occurs when positive growth takes place. Positive growth does not always lead to development. Development occurs when there is a positive change in quality.
• The quality of life people enjoy in a country, the opportunities they have and freedoms they enjoy; are important aspects of development is not new ideas.
• According to Mahbub-ul-Haq, development enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. Choices are not fixed but keep on changing. Development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives.
• A meaningful life is not just a long one. It must be a life with some purpose. It means people must be healthy, be able to develop their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their goals.

Answer 18.
(i) The decades of 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion.
(ii) It was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the country.
(iii) The average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2 per cent.
(iv) The developmental activities were introduced through a centralised planning process and economy started showing up answering the improvement of living condition of people at large.
(v) Increased international migration contributed to the high growth rate.

Answer 19.
It is rightly said that Indian farmers gamble with monsoon. It can be proved with following:
(i) Irrigation covers only about 33% of the cultivated area in India. The crop production in rest of the cultivated land directly depends on rainfall.
(ii) Poor performance of South-west monsoon also adversely affects the supply of canal water for irrigation.
(iii) The rainfall in Rajasthan and other drought-prone areas is too meagre and highly unreliable.
(iv) Areas receiving high annual rainfall experience considerable fluctuations. It makes them vulnerable to both droughts and floods.
(v) Drought is a common phenomenon in the low rainfall areas that may experience occasional floods. Both droughts and floods continue to be twin menace in Indian agriculture.

Answer 20.
Watershed Management: It basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources.
Features of watershed management:
(i) It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods – percolation tanks, recharge wells.
(ii) It includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources—natural (like land, water, plants and animals) and human within a watershed.
(iii) It aims at bringing about balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other. .
(iv) It not only conserves the entire ecosystem of an area but also empowers the people by making them socially and economically self reliant as it has community participation as its vital component.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 2

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 2

Board	CBSE
Class	XII
Subject	Geography
Sample Paper Set	Paper 2
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Which continent has the highest growth rate of population?

Question 2.
Define sex ratio.

Question 3.
Give any two examples of tertiary activities.

Question 4.
Give the meaning of Human Settlement.

Question 5.
What are National Highways?

Question 6.
Name the headquarter of ‘South Central’ Railway zone.

Question 7.
Name any two natural sources of water pollutants.

Question 8.
Explain how technology indicates the level of cultural development of society.

Question 9.
Explain the key areas of human development.

Question 10.
Explain any three characteristics of ‘Foot Loose Industries’.

Question 11.
Mention main features of ‘Pastoral nomadism’.

Question 12.
‘Drought’ is a natural disaster. As a push factor it compels people to migrate from one area to another area in India. Which human values can minimise the impact of drought?

Question 13.
Study the map of India given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(i) Define the term ‘metropolitan city.’
(ii) Which state of India has the largest number of metropolitan cities?
(iii) Name any two northern states of India which have no metropolitan city.

Question 14.
State any three characteristics of water transport. Why is traffic faster on the Cape of Good Hope Route? Give two reasons.

Question 15.
Explain any five basis of international trade in brief.

Question 16.
Explain any five problems of rural settlements in developing countries of the world.

Question 17.
Describe the uneven distribution of mineral and energy resources of India with suitable examples.

Question 18.
When was National Water Policy undertaken? Mention its key features.

Question 19.
Explain the problems caused by urban waste disposal in India.

Question 20.
“Despite the setback caused by the partition, Indian ports continued to grow after the independence.” Support the statement with examples.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) A large country of North-America in area.
(B) An area of subsistence gathering.
(C) The terminal station of a trans-continental Railway.
(D) A major sea port.
(E) An international airport.

Question 22.
Locate and label the following live features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) The most urbanised state (2011).
(ii) A leading cotton producing state.
(iii) The software technology park located in Punjab.
(iv) The major coal field located in Chhattisgarh.
(v) The international airport located in Karnataka.

Answers

Answer 1.
Africa.

Answer 2.
The ratio between the number of women and men in the population is called the sex ratio.

Answer 3.
(i) Trade
(ii) Transport communication.

Answer 4.
Human settlement means cluster of dwellings of any type of size where human beings live.

Answer 5.
The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the central government are known as the National highways.

Answer 6.
Secunderabad.

Answer 7.
(i) Erosion
(ii) Land slides.

Answer 8.
Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws.
– Concepts of friction and heat helped us discover fire.
– Similarly, understanding of the secrets of DNA and genetics enabled us to conquer many diseases.
– We use the laws of aerodynamics to develop faster planes.

Answer 9.
(i) Access to resources
(ii) Health
(iii) Education

Answer 10.
(i) Foot loose industries relocated in a wide variety of places.
(ii) They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise.
(iii) They largely dependent on component parts which can be obtained anywhere. They produce in small quantity and employ a small labour force.

Answer 11.
(i) It is a primitive subsistence activity, in which the herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport.
(ii) They move from one place to another along with their livestock depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water.
(iii) Each nomadic community occupies a well identified territory as a matter of tradition.

Answer 12.
(i) Awakening for Rain water harvesting.
(ii) Provision for the distribution of safe drinking water facilities and fodder and water for cattle.
(iii) Cooperation in all respect.

Answer 13.
(i) Cities accommodating population size between one to five million are called metropolitan cities.
(ii) Uttar Pradesh
(iii) (a) Jammu & Kashmir (b) Himachal Pradesh

Answer 14.
(A) Characteristics of water transport:
(i) Water transportation does not require route construction.
(ii) The oceans are linked with each other and are negotiable with ships of various sizes.
(iii) It is much cheaper because the friction transportation than others. Its energy cost is lower.

(B) The traffic is faster on the Cape of Good Hope Sea route because:
(i) Limited development.
(ii) Very long sea route amongst the countries of Asia and Europe:

Answer 15.
Basis of International Trade:
(i) Difference in national resources.
(ii) Population factors—size, distribution and diversity.
(iii) Stage of economic development,
(iv) Extent of foreign investment.
(v) Transport development.

Answer 16.
Problems:
(i) Supply of water is not adequate.
(ii) Water borne disease such as cholera and jaundice tend to be a common problem.
(iii) Crop cultivation sequences in the absence of irrigation also suffer.
(iv) Absence of toilet and garbage disposal facilities cause health related problems.
(v) Difficult to provide adequate health and educational infrastructure for their large rural population.

Answer 17.
Distribution of Minerals and Energy resources:
(i) Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks.
(ii) Over 97 per cent of coal reserves occur in the Valley of Damodar, Son, Mahanadi and Godavari.
(iii) Petroleum reserves are located in the sedimentary basins of Assam, Gujarat and Mumbai High.
(iv) Most of the major mineral resources occur to the east of a line linking Mangalore and Kanpur.
(v) Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India:
(1) The North-Eastern Plateau Region.
(2) The South-Western Plateau Region.
(3) The North-Western Region.

Answer 18.
The National Water Policy was undertaken in 2002. Priorities broadly in the following order:
Drinking water, irrigation, hydro power, navigation, industrial and other uses.

Key features:
(i) Irrigation and multi-purpose projects should invariably include drinking water component wherever there is no alternative source of drinking water.
(ii) Providing drinking water to all human beings and animals should be the first priority.
(iii) Measures should be taken to limit and regulate the exploitation of groundwater.
(iv) Both surface and groundwater should be regularly monitored for quality. A phased programme should be undertaken for improving water quality.
(v) The efficiency of utilisation in all the diverse uses of water should be improved.
(vi) Awareness of water as a scarce resource should be fostered.
(vii) Conservation consciousness should be promoted through education, regulation, incentives and disincentives. (Any Four)

Answer 19.
(i) The huge turnout of ashes and debris from industries, thermal power houses and building
construction have posed problems of serious consequences.
(ii) Solid wastes cause health hazard through creation of obnoxious smell, and harbouring of flies and rodents which act as carriers of diseases like typhoid, diphtheria, diarrhoea, malaria and cholera.
(iii) Wastes cause frequent nuisances and when these are carelessly handled spread by wind and spread through rain water.
(iv) The dumping of industrial waste into rivers leads to water pollution.
(v) River pollution from city based industries and untreated sewage leads to serious health problems downstream.

Answer 20.
Development of Indian Sea Ports:
(i) Today Indian ports are handling large volumes of domestic as well as overseas trade.
(ii) Most of the ports are equipped with modem infrastructure.
(iii) Previously the development and modernisation was the responsibility of the government agencies.
(iv) Considering the increase in function and need to bring these ports at par with the international ports; private entrepreneurs have been invited for the modernisation of ports in India.
(v) The capacity of Indian ports increased from 20 million tonnes of cargo handling in 1951 to more than 586 million tonnes in 2008-09.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 2 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 2, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 3

Board	CBSE
Class	XII
Subject	English Core
Sample Paper Set	Paper 3
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Englsih Core is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions

• This paper is divided into three sections: A, B and C. All the sections are compulsory.
• Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read these instructions very carefully and follow them faithfully.
• Do not exceed the prescribed Word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A
READING (30 MARKS)

Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully. (12 Marks)

1. Suspense was over when my high school results finally came out. But I was upset. I hadn’t done as well as I had expected. My father tried to console me. “Why are you worried? You have done very well my dear.” “No, I haven’t, Baba,” I protested, controlling my tears, and wondering if I had disappointed him. “It doesn’t really matter,” he assured me. “Do you know what I got when I finished high school ?” I looked into Baba’s face and waited for the answer to his own question. ‘You know,” he told me. “I’ve never told you this. I got just a third division. But, look at me, I’ve done quite well.” Baba got a third division! I was almost in shock, but the thought of my having done a lot better than that made me realize that I had no reason to complain. I certainly felt better! “Everything is under control!” said Baba, smiling. That was his favourite phrase. Posted in Kolkata, my father was then a senior official in the Indian Railway Service, and an expert in goods traffic operations. He was soon to become a director with the Railway Board. By the time he retired in 1981, he was general manager of the Central Railways. By the time Baba passed away in November 2000, his name had found place in several hearts as well. He was open, easy to know, and full of life. We were extremely close, but I had so much more to learn about him from many things I came to know after his death.

2. In September 2000, he was in hospital for treatment of cancer and given just two months to live. When he found out, his reaction was an extremely rational one. He asked me to fetch files from his cupboard, so that he could explain the details of my mother’s pension. He also dictated his will from his hospital bed. “Everything is under control!” After Baba’s death, Satish, our old family retainer, was inconsolable. We tried to cheer him up. “Your Baba had scolded me only once in all these years!” he cried. Satish pointed to the watch on his left hand. “I had been coming late for work and everyone in the family was complaining about it,” said Satish. “Then, one day, your Baba gave me this watch and told me, ‘now that you have a watch, you can’t be late’.” That was the scolding Satish received. On the fourth day after Baba’s death, my sister and I had to perform a ceremony. Since several relatives were expected, we decided to order lunch from a caterer in our locality, reputed for his home cooked food. But, when we went to pay the owner, we got a surprise. He refused to accept any money! “When I wanted to start my catering business, it was your father who lent me money,” he told us. It seems Baba never asked for it back. Now, after four or five years, the caterer wanted to repay that debt. Of course, we made him accept the full payment for the fine food and service. ‘It was Baba’s gift and it ought to remain so,” I told him.

3. Some days later, there was yet another piece of information as we were preparing for the main ceremony. Vikram, my brother drove me to the local market. On recognizing our car, the parking assistant, in his twenties, came running towards us and asked why he had not seen its owner for long. We had to break the news to him and to our utter surprise, he started crying. We were really surprised by this reaction from a stranger – until the man told us that Baba used to pay his daughter’s school fees and buy her books. It seems, it was on my father’s advice that he’d even started sending the child to school. More than three years after Baba’s death, as we were looking into Baba’s personal things, we came across an old file with Baba’s certificates and I found among them, his high school diploma from 1937, the one he’d told me about 30 years earlier, about the third division that had made no difference in his life or career. It had made me see beyond mere marks and first classes as the main road to success. But there was one more fact. Baba had actually got a first division, a rare achievement in his day. Today, . years after his passing, when I think of Baba, I see a man who was able to sympathise with others so easily and touch their lives in such a special way. (Delhi (C) 2015)

I. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

(a) Why was the narrator in tears when her school results came out?

1. She did better than she expected.
2. She did not do as expected.
3. Her Baba had not done well.
4. Her Baba had done better than her.

(b) On knowing the result, how did the narrator’s father react?

1. He scolded her.
2. He beat her.
3. He consoled her.
4. He made fun of her.

(c) Why did the narrator say that she had nothing to complain?

1. She had done better than her father.
2. She had done as well as her father.
3. She had topped in her school.
4. She had not worked hard at all.

(d) Choose the option that is not correct.

1. Baba was a senior official in the Indian Railway Service.
2. Baba was to become a director with the Railway Board.
3. Baba was the general manager of the Central Railways.
4. Baba had got a third division in high school.

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(e) Why did the narrator’s sick father want her to fetch files from his cupboard ?
(f) Why did Baba buy Satish a watch ?
(g) Why did the caterer not want to take money from the narrator ?
(h) Why were the narrator and her brother surprised on meeting the parking assistant?
(i) Today years after his passing away what has the narrator realized about her Baba?
(j) What was the story that Baba had invented on the day the narrator’s results were published ?

III. Find words from the passage which mean the same as: (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) tension/anxiety (para 1)
(b) servant (para 2)

Question 2.
Read the following passage carefully. (10 Marks)

1. We often make all things around us the way we want them. Even during our pilgrimages we have begun to look for whatever makes our heart happy, gives comfort to our body and peace to the mind. It is as if external solutions will fulfil our needs, and we do not want to make any special efforts even in our spiritual search. Our mind is resourceful- it works to find shortcuts in simple and easy ways.

2. Even pilgrimages have been converted into tourism opportunities. Instead, we must awaken our conscience and souls and understand the truth. Let us not tamper with either our own nature or that of the Supreme.

3. All our cleverness is rendered ineffective when nature does a dance of destruction. Its fury can and will wash away all imperfections. Indian culture, based on Vedic treatises, assists in human evolution, but we are now using our entire energy in distorting these traditions according to our convenience instead of making efforts to make ourselves worthy of them.

4. The irony is that humans are not even aware of the complacent attitude they have allowed themselves to sink to. Nature is everyone’s Amma and her fierce blows will sooner or later corner us and force us to understand this truth. Earlier, pilgrimages to places of spiritual significance were rituals that were undertaken when people became free from their worldly duties. Even now some seekers take up this pious religious journey as a path to peace and knowledge. Anyone travelling with this attitude feels and travels with only a few essential items that his body can carry. Pilgrims traditionally travelled light, on foot, eating light, dried chickpeas and fruits, or whatever was available. Pilgrims of olden days did not feel the need to stay in special AC bedrooms, or travel by luxury cars or indulge themselves with delicious food and savouries.

5. Pilgrims traditionally moved ahead, creating a feeling of belonging towards all, conveying a message of brotherhood among all they came across whether in small caves, ashrams or local settlements. They received the blessings and congregations of yogis and mahatmas in return while conducting the dharma of their pilgrimage. A pilgrimage is like penance or sadhana to stay near nature and to experience a feeling of oneness with it, to keep the body healthy and fulfilled with the amount of food, while seeking freedom from attachments and yet remaining happy while staying away from relatives and associates.

6. This is how a pilgrimage should be rather than making it like a picnic by taking a large group along and living in comfort, packing in entertainment, and tampering with environment. What is worse is giving a boost to the ego of having had a special darshan. Now alms are distributed, charity done while they brag about their spiritual experiences!

7. We must embark on our spiritual journey by first understanding the grace and significance of a pilgrimage and following it up with the prescribed rules and rituals — this is what translates into the ultimate and beautiful medium of spiritual evolution. There is no justification for tampering with nature.

8. A pilgrimage is symbolic of contemplation and meditation and acceptance, and is a metaphor for the constant growth or movement and love for nature that we should hold in our hearts.

9. This is the truth! (Delhi 2015)

I. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) How can a pilgrim keep his body healthy?

1. By travelling light
2. By eating small amount of food
3. By keeping free from attachments
4. Both (i) and (ii)

(b) How do we satisfy our ego?

1. By having a special darshan
2. By distributing alms
3. By treating it like a picnic
4. Both (i) and (ii)

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(c) What change has taken place in our attitude towards pilgrimages?
(d) What happens when pilgrimages are turned into picnics?
(e) Why are we complacent in our spiritual efforts?
(f) How does nature respond when we try to be clever with it?
(g) In olden days with what attitude did people go on a pilgrimage?
(h) What message does the passage convey to the pilgrims?

III. Find words from the passage which are similar in meaning to the following. (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) made / turned (para 3)
(b) very satisfied (para 4)

Question 3.
Read the following passage carefully. (8 Marks)

More than a century ago, some countries had no police force. Local leaders devised their own methods of ensuring that their orders were carried out and fulfilled. The offender was not given a second chance to repeat his mistake for he was either killed or hunted out of the district.

In England the modern police force grew largely from an unofficial body gathered together by a London magistrate. He found that it was practically impossible to apprehend any of the criminals in his area unless he deployed some men secretly to detect and hunt the culprits.

These unofficial constables had to patrol one large district. They looked upon their position largely as an honorary one and had very little power. Worse still they were sometimes corrupt men themselves for they would conveniently look the other way round in times of trouble, like theft, hooliganism and vandalism.

Magistrate fielding enrolled a few men whom he could explicitly trust and employed them to catch the thieves and other undesirable persons. The majority of the people resented what they thought was a threat to their liberties, intrusion on their privacies and above all spying on them. They maintained that they should have every right to drink themselves to death with any form of alcohol, as so many of them did. They thought too that they should be allowed to quarrel, to fight and even kill amongst themselves. The situation was made worse by the fact that the penalties for offences were very heavy in those days and man could be hanged for the theft of some unimportant thing. Arrest by the magistrate’s men could bring disastrous results.

Contrary to general feeling, the authorities gradually admitted that these early policemen were vitally necessary, after much discussion, argument and persuasion, the government secretly agreed to re-imburse the magistrate for the men he employed. This step was not made public lest it should be thought that the government was planting spies amidst its people. Eventually the public came to look upon the police with a more friendly spirit as the benefits became more noticeable. At long last, men and women could walk along the streets by day and even by night without fear of robbery and other acts of violence. Hitherto, the people were free to do practically anything-good or bad, irrespective of the possible consequences, as the police force built up. The people gave up their freedom to commit evil deeds so that they might have a greater freedom to do good so as to enable one and all to enjoy life peacefully and harmoniously.

A. On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it, using headings and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations (wherever necessary—minimum four) and a format you consider suitable. Also supply an appropriate title to it. (5 Marks)

B. Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 Marks)

SECTION B
ADVANCE WRITING SKILLS (30 MARKS)

Question 4.
An inter class drama competition is to be held in St. Stephens School, Vishakhapatnam. As Akash, head boy of the school, draft a notice to be put up on the school notice board inviting entries in about 50 words. Provide all necessary details. (Delhi (C) 2015) (4 Marks)
OR
You are Varsha/Varun, Secretary, Inlingua Institute. The institute is going to start fresh batches in foreign languages shortly. Write a classified advertisement for a local daily announcing the courses in not more than 50 words. Give relevant details.

Question 5.
Along with air and water pollution, our cities are also under attack of noise pollution. Marriage, DJ’s during wedding receptions, loud music from neighbourhood flats, etc. are all sources of noise which is not good for the old, the ailing and students. Write a letter in 120-150 words to the editor of a local newspaper describing the problem and making a request to the concerned authorities to solve it. You are Karan/Karuna, M 114, Mall road, Delhi. (All India 2016) (6 Marks)
OR
You are Karan/Karuna, pursuing a course in tourism from YMCA, Delhi. You recently saw an advertisement offering a limited period discounted trip to Paris. Write a letter to Thomas Cook Travels enquiring about the trip and giving your requirements.

Question 6.
Brain drain is a bane for India. Write an article on it for the school magazine in 150- 200 words. You are the head boy of Salwan Public School, Delhi. (10 Marks)
OR
On Teacher’s Day your principal has asked you to deliver a speech in the morning assembly on ‘The Role of Teachers in a Society’. Write a speech in 150¬200 words. You are Navtej/Navita. (Foreign 2015)

Question 7.
You are Nitin/Navya. You have to participate in a debate for the motion, ‘Westernization has eroded Indian culture’. Write this debate in 150-200 words. (10 Marks)
OR
You are Pari/ Rakesh of Bluebells Academy, Delhi. As the reporter for your school magazine write a report on the Annual Inter School English Debate that was organized in your school recently in about 150 -200 words. Include relevant points like inauguration, venue, participants, etc.

SECTION C
TEXTBOOKS AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (40 MARKS)

Question 8.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow: (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

At back of the dim class
One unnoted, sweet and young. His eyes live in a dream,
Of squirrel’s game, in the tree room, other than this. (Foreign 2015)

(a) Why is the class dim?
(b) Why is the child called ‘sweet and young’?
(c) What does the child want to enjoy?
(d) What is the significance of the phrase ‘other than this’?

OR

And such too is the grandeur of the dooms
We have imagined for the mighty dead;
All lovely tales that we have heard or read:
An endless fountain of immortal drink,
Pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink. (Delhi (C) 2015)

(a) Name the poem.
(b) Who are the ‘mighty dead’ referred to here?
(c) What is the endless fountain of immortal drink?
(d) What does the word ‘brink’ mean?

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words each : (4 × 3 = 12 Marks)

(a) What does the line ‘Therefore are we wreathing a flowery band to bind us to earth’ suggest to you? (NCERT)
(b) What symbol from nature does the poet involve to say that there can be life under apparent stillness? (NCERT)
(c) What is the misadventure that William Douglas speaks about?
(d) Garbage to them is gold. Why does the author say so about the rag pickers? (Delhi 2008)
(e) Why is Rajkumar Shukla described as being ‘resolute’? (NCERT)
(f) What precautions and arrangements were made for the smooth conducting of the examination and providing Evans with no means of escape?

Question 10.
To be grateful is the virtue of a gentleman. How did the peddler show his gratitude to Edla? (Delhi (C) 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
“It is his Karam, his destiny that made Mukesh’s grandfather go blind.” How did Mukesh disprove this belief by choosing a new vocation and making his own destiny? (Delhi (C) 2015)

Question 11.
How did Jack end Roger Skunk story? How and why did Jo want to change it? (120-150 words) (All India 2016) (6 Marks)
OR
What change took place in Derry when he met Mr. Lamb?(120-150 words) (Delhi (C) 2015)

Question 12.
After reading the novel, The Invisible Man, what opinion do you form of Dr. Kemp? (120-150 words) (6 Marks)
OR
How do William Dane’s deceit and Sara’s desertion affect Silas? (120-150 words) (All India 2016)

Question 13.
Describe Dolly Winthrop as the most lovable character in George Eliot’s ‘Silas Mamer’. (120-150 words) (Delhi 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
Attempt a character sketch of Marvel. (120-150 words) (Delhi 2015)

ANSWERS

Answer 1.

I. (a) (ii) She did not do as expected.
(b) (iii) He consoled her.
(c) (i) She had done better than her father.
(d) (iv) Baba had got third division in high school.

II. (e) The narrator’s sick father wanted her to fetch files from the cupboards as he wanted to explain to her the details of her mother’s pension. if) Baba bought a watch for Satish so that he would never be late.
(g) The caterer did not want to take money from the narrator because he felt indebted to Baba as he had helped him financially to start his business.
(h) The narrator and her brother were surprised on meeting the parking assistant as he started crying on hearing about Baba’s demise. Actually, Baba had been helping him by paying his daughter’s school fees and buying her books.
(i) Years after passing away of Baba, the narrator realized that baba was a deeply sympathetic man and touched people’s lives in a special way.
(j) On the day the narrator’s results were published Baba had invented the story that he had got third division and yet had done so well in his career.

III. (a) suspense (b) retainer

Answer 2.

I. (a) (ii) By eating small amount of food
(b) (iv) Both (i) and (ii)

II. (c) Today we see pilgrimages as picnics.
(d) When pilgrimage is seen as a picnic, spiritual significance is not understood. Comforts, food, AC rooms and entertainment become more important than spiritual activities.
(e) We are complacent in our spiritual efforts because we are materialistic and listen to our ego.
(f) Nature responds with fury and natural disasters can wipe away humans.
(g) In olden days people went on pilgrimages with humility and grace. They understood the spiritual significance of the pilgrimage and respected nature.
(h) The passage conveys the message that pilgrimage should be done for contemplation, meditation and acceptance.

III. (a) rendered (b) complacent

Answer 3.

A. TITLE: Rise of Police Force in England
NOTES :

1. A century ago
(a) no police force
(b) local leaders devised their own methods for law and order
(c) extreme punishments
(i) death (ii) exile

2. Modern police force
(a) by effrts of fielding a magistrt
(b) deployed trustworthy men secretly to catch culprits

3. Duties of constables
(a) patrolling
(b) catch undesirable men

4. Reaction of the people
(a) resented constables as
(i) threat to their freedom
(ii) threat to their rights

5. Authorities’ decision
(a) constle role crucial
(b) secretly agreed to pay them

6. Effects of the decision
(a) ppl became friendly to police
(b) law and order became better
(c) less fear of vio
(d) led to peaceful life for citizens

B. SUMMARY

A century ago there was no police force in England. Leaders devised their own methods to curb crime. Culprits were either killed or exiled. Trustworthy men employed by a magistrate were fielded to keep vigilance on culprits. These men would patrol and nab undesirable men. People saw these constables as impinging on their rights and liberties. However the authorities upheld the practice recognizing that constables were crucial for peace. Gradually when the law and order bettered and people led safer lives, they became friendly to the police.

Key to Abbreviations
effrts : efforts
magistrt : magistrate
constle : constable
ppl : people
vio : violence

Answer 4.

Answer 5.

M 114
Mall Road
Delhi
September 5, 20××
The Editor
Times of India
New Delhi

Sub: Noise pollution caused by excessive noise.

Dear Sir

I beg to draw your kind attention to the fact that along with air and water pollution, our cities are also under attack of noise pollution. Marriage, DJ’s during wedding receptions, loud music from neighbourhood flats, etc. are all sources of noise. Nobody seems to realize that noisy activities are not only stressful but against the norms of civic behaviour.

High levels of noise may cause dull hearing and ringing in the ears. Regular high level noise exposures lead to loss of hearing and other adverse health effects.

Noise is very harmful for the old and the ailing who are in need of peace and quiet. Excessive noise also distracts the students especially during examination days. Recently I had to take my preboard class 12 examinations. I had immense problem concentrating at night because our neighbours had organized a ‘jagrata’ lasting the entire night.Every year a prohibitory order is issued for banning the use of loudspeakers at late night but the question is that who will enforce it?

I request you to ban the use of loudspeakers totally for a period of two months so that the students can prepare well for their examination. I also wish that the law is enforced strictly at all times. Lastly the people need to be sensitized to the harms of noise pollution I request you to publish this letter in your prestigious daily so that the concerned authorities will take note of the distressing rise in noise pollution.

Thank you
Yours sincerely
Karan

OR

YMCA
Rajiv Chowk
Delhi
9 th September, 20××
The Manager
Thomas and Cook
Barakhamba Road

Sub: Inquiry about a trip to Paris

Dear Sir/Madam,

We are doing a vocational course in tourism from YMCA, Delhi. We were surfing on the internet when we came across an advertisement offering a limited period offer of a trip to Paris in your website. We are a group of five and are very interested in visiting Paris because we have Christmas holidays from 25th December to 5th January. We haven’t got a lot of information about the trip and we would like to know more about it. Our queries are listed below:

What does the tour include?

What kind of accommodation will we have?

Will there be a guide on the tour?

In particular, we would like to visit the most important monuments such as the Eiffel Tower or Versailles.

We will be grateful if you send us a brochure at your earliest.

Yours faithfully
Karan

Answer 6.
According to a UN definition, the flight of talent that is required for a country’s development, to another country is called brain drain. It was with great effort and high hopes that we set up our institutes of higher education. It is unfortunate that thousands of our doctors and engineers are leaving the country every year.

We have a large pool of scientific and technical manpower that is waiting for respectable assignments. Several thousand engineering graduates are waiting for employment. Some feel that they are under-employed, so they migrate to countries wherever they find better opportunities. It is also the grievance of some of them that they do not have adequate facilities and a congenial environment for work or research in this country.

The human resources department of the government has laid stress on the evolution of suitable mechanism to bring back and woo talent from other countries. The government must think in terms of instituting a compulsory national service for a limited period of time. The basic facilities congenial for research and education should be provided in the institutions so that our technical graduates do not feel ill-at-ease in their own set-up. Let every graduate realize that he has a duty towards the country that educated him.

OR

A very good morning to the Principal, respected teachers and my dear friends.

We are here today to celebrate a most revered occasion of Teacher’s Day. It is an honorable occasion for the students of India. It is observed every year to pay respect to the teachers. So, dear friends come on and join this celebration to pay a hearty respect to our own teachers. Teachers are the backbone of our society because they contribute to building our characters, shaping our future and help us to be ideal citizens of the country. Teacher’s Day is celebrated all across the India every year on 5th of September to pay tribute to teachers. Teacher’s Day is an occasion to pay tribute and gratitude to teachers for their continuous, selfless and precious efforts in shaping the future. They enrich the quality of education system in the country and improve it. Our teachers teach us from their hearts. As students we need inspiration and motivation which we get amply from our teachers.

They prepare us to tackle life through knowledge and patience.

Dear teachers, we are and will be always grateful to you!

Thank you

Answer 7.
Indian culture, which is one of the oldest and richest cultures, is nowadays posing a serious threat as western culture is establishing its strong base in India and slowly and gradually wiping the Indian culture.

One of the esteemed members of the jury I, Navya stand before you to debate for the motion that westernization has eroded Indian culture.

Westernization has affected our traditions, customs, family and our respect and love for others. The concept of joint families is fast declining and everyone wants to remain aloof from others. Nobody now bothers about others which is totally contradictory to our Indian culture which teaches us to love and share. Westernization has given rise to single families. Marriages are fast breaking and our tolerance and patience are at an end. In today’s scenario where both husband and wife are working, there is no one at home to look after their children or to instill ‘sanskaras’ in them. In majority of case the children prefer to remain away from their parents which is very unfortunate. It is unfortunate that today’s generation has little knowledge about their culture and their roots. This is the mistake of their parents who fail to enlighten their children.

Contradictory to it, parents feel proud in giving the western sanskaras to their children. Unless adults initiate educating their children, they will remain miles away from Indian culture.

OR

Bluebells Academy Hosts Inter-School English Debate
By Rakesh

Delhi, 13th September: Bluebells Academy organized an annual interschool debate competition on 12th September, 20xx. The programme was organized in the spacious auditorium of the school. Twenty four prestigious schools of Delhi and NCR participated enthusiastically in the much awaited debate.

The programme began with the lighting of the lamp. The principal Ms Navya Doshi introduced the chief guest and the three esteemed judges. The chief guest for the programme was Mr. J.M Goel, former ambassador to Thailand. The judges were Mr. M.K. Rana, a professor of English at JNU, Ms Kajal Banneiji, renowned columnist and Ms Lalitha Lalwani, professor at Jamia Milia University.

The participants debated enthusiastically on the motion-Examinations are not a true reflection of a student’s ability’. They also interjected other speakers. The best team prize was bagged by Rajmal Pubilc School. The first two prizes were bagged by Nitin and Mohan of Rajmal Public School, while the third was secured by Suhana of SLF Public School, Noida. They received attractive prizes. The judges congratulated the winners heartily. The chief guest remarked, “It was an honour to be part of such a prestigious debate.” The programme ended with a vote of thanks proposed by-the principal.

Answer 8.

(a) ‘The class is dimly and insufficiently lit. That’s the reason that it has been referred to as ‘dim’.
(b) The child is innocent and indeed young as he belongs to an elementary class.
(c) The child wishes to enjoy watching the squirrel’s play outside. Perhaps he too wishes to be outside in a tree house.
(d) The child dreams of being outside, anywhere except in the confines of the dull and dim classroom.

OR

(a) The poem is A Thing of Beauty by John Keats
(b) The mighty dead are the ancient powerful and brave men who did noble deeds in the past. But now they are dead.
(c) The beautiful things mentioned in the poem are the endless fountain of immortal drink.
(d) The word ‘brink’ means ‘edge’ of heaven.

Answer 9.

(a) We know that this world is often not a happy planet to stay on. From birth to death, it is full of suffering and pain. These things depress our spirits. But God has provided us several things of beauty that pour love and happiness to our depressed feelings. These objects of beauty are like a ‘flowery band’ that keeps us bound to the earth.

(b) The poet does not want us to confuse stillness with total inactivity. There is life under apparent stillness. He quotes the example of the Earth which is active round the clock. Thus the poet involves the Earth as a living symbol to prove his point. When everything seems dead, the Earth proves to be alive under apparent stillness, the nature remains at work and thus keeps the Earth alive.

(c) The narrator was at the Y.M.C.A. pool. He had decided to learn to swim. Suddenly a strongly built boy of eighteen came. He teased the narrator and finally tossed him into water. Very soon he went to the bottom. He struggled to come up but couldn’t. He felt paralysed and suffocated. He was nearly drowned.

(d) For the ragpickers of Seemapuri, garbage is nothing less than gold. It is their ‘daily bread’. For the children it is wrapped in wonder. Sometimes they find a ten-rupee note or even a silver coin in a heap of garbage. For the elders it is a means of survival.

(e) Rajkumar Shukla is described as being ‘resolute’ because he was fully determined to take Gandhi to Bihar. Being an illiterate and poor share cropper from Champaran, he had come to apprise and complain to Gandhi about the injustice of the landlord system in Bihar. He met Gandhi in the Lucknow session of the Congress. He was committed to accompany Gandhi everywhere. Gandhi was very much impressed by his tenacity and fixed time for him in Calcutta. Months passed in waiting. Shukla was sitting at the haunches at the fixed place in Calcutta, till Gandhi was free. Finally both boarded a train to Patna.

(f) The prison-staff and the Governor made all precautions for the smooth conduct of the examination. A parson, Mr. McLeery was to invigilate. Stephens and Jackson were to stand outside the locked cell. Evans’s cell was thoroughly searched for two hours. The Governor himself coordinated and supervised all the activities.

Answer 10.
It is true that thankfulness is the mark of a gentleman. Miss Willmansson had been kind to the peddler all day long, as if he were a captain. For the first time he had received such compassion and trust. He would have been caught in this world’s rattrap if he had not been raised to a captain. That gave power to him to redeem himself. Miss Willmansson found a rattrap and in it lay three wrinkled ten kroner notes. In the rattrap lay a letter. It was addressed to her. She was praised for being so nice to the peddler. Miss Willmansson was full of joy. The peddler returned the stolen 30 kronors to be given to the rightful owner. She also got a rattrap as a Christmas present from him. Thus in showing his gratitude to Edla he proved how he could be as dignified as a captain.

OR

Despite long years of hard labour, Mukesh’s father couldn’t renovate his house nor was he able to send his two sons to school. Mukesh’s grandmother said that it was in his ‘karam’ or destiny to suffer in poverty. But still they couldn’t change their ‘God-given lineage’. Born in the caste of bangle-makers they learnt nothing else except making bangles. Though Mukesh belonged to a poor family of bangle-makers, he dared to challenge his fate. He was determined to be a motor mechanic. He didn’t dream of flying a machine but a car on the roads of Firozabad. It is heartening to see that at least somebody tried to break the shackles of the debilitating mentality of the older generation. With hard work and focus Mukesh could indeed be successful.

Answer 11.
In Jack’s story Roger Skunk’s mommy was very furious that the wizard had made Roger smell like roses. She went straight to the wizard. She took an umbrella and hit that wizard right over his head. Then the wizard was ready to do what she wanted. Roger Skunk did not smell of roses any more. He smelled very bad again, just like a skunk. Jo was unhappy that the hero of the story Roger Skunk was made to smell very bad again. Roger’s mommy wanted it to happen. Jo wanted that the stupid mommy should have been punished. The wizard should have taken the magic wand and hit it very hard on her head. Jo wanted her little hero to smell of roses. The conflict arose because of different perspectives of an adult and a child. While Jack felt compelled to show loyalty to his own mother, Jo felt loyalty for the baby skunk’s peer group with which she identified.

OR

Derry is withdrawn and defiant. He hates people. Acid had burnt one side of his face . This creates an inferiority complex in his mind. When he looks in the mirror and sees it, he is afraid of himself. He thinks that no one will ever kiss him. Only his mother kisses him and that too on the other side of his face. Mr Lamb is a physically challenged man. He has a tin leg. Children call him ‘Lamey Lamb’. But Mr Lamb never minds such things. He has a positive attitude towards life. Mr Lamb’s meeting with Derry brings a turning point in Derry’s life. He gives confidence to Derry. He counsels him that he can get better than rest of the people and that hatred burns one’s inside. Mr Lamb brings a change in Derry’s life. He develops confidence to face the world in a more positive way.

Answer 12.
Dr Kemp is the perfect foil for the maniacal Griffin. Kemp continues his own study in the hope of being admitted to “the Royal Fellows.” His own experiments and fascination with science enable him to listen sensibly to Griffin, but his common sense and decency prevent him from being a part of Griffin’s scheme as he is able to see the evil in them. He betrays Griffin to the police. Kemp is also a calm and practical person in the town once the final attack begins. He runs to escape Griffin, but as soon as Griffin catches him, he has the presence of mind to turn the capture around. He is also the first to realize that even though Griffin is invisible, he is injured, and, ultimately, dead Griffin hopes that Kemp would help him spread the reign of terror, but Kemp is too ethical to join him.

OR

The deceit of William Dane, his close friend leaves Silas disillusioned. On top of that Sarah’s desertion leaves him heartbroken and bitter. He shuts himself up and makes no effort to defend himself in front of Sarah. His faith in God was shaken . He took refuge in his work and devoted himself to it. When he receives the message that Sarah has broken his engagement to him, he responds with silence and resumes his work of weaving. Within a month he gets news of Sarah’s marriage to William Dane. Thus heartbroken and faithless he left for Raveloe where he remains a mystery.

Answer 13.
Dolly is the wheelwright’s wife who helps Silas with Eppie. Dolly later becomes Eppie’s godmother and mother-in-law. She is a kind, patient woman who aids Silas greatly. She first visits him in Raveloe, bringing him a plate of cakes with the initials I.H.S. on them and begging him to at least give up weaving on Sunday. When Silas starts caring for Eppie, Dolly advises him how to care for a child. Later, she becomes Eppie’s godmother and Silas’s trusted advisor in religion and life. Silas goes to seek her advice whenever he has a problem, whether it concerns Eppie’s welfare or his past. Dolly makes him see that he should trust the world. She represents Raveloe’s community spirit and has real concern for others. She is not a stereotyped character. Through her discussions with Silas, she comes across as a convincing personality, slow in thought but steady in faith.

OR

Marvel is a tramp whom Griffin frightens into aiding him. Marvel is short, fat, and a loner. Marvel is something of a stock comical character when we first meet him. He’s a poor, homeless, jobless wanderer, in other words, he’s a vagabond. He wears a shabby, old-fashioned clothes, like his “obsolete hat”, and he has buttons replaced by pieces of string to tie his coat. He is the area tramp. The narrator goes so far as to tell us that he does everything in a leisurely manner. He doesn’t seem to like work or excitement Griffin tries to use as an accomplice. Mr. Griffin perhaps also thinks that he is a little stupid and will thus not be able to resist and will not be believed even if he tries to tell anyone about his predicament. He even thinks of resigning from his job but in vain. Surprisingly he ends up owning an inn and in possession of Griffin’s money and books.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Englsih Core Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 1

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 1

Board	CBSE
Class	XII
Subject	Geography
Sample Paper Set	Paper 1
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 1 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Geography is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question numbers 1-7 are very short answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40 words.
• Question numbers 8-13 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Out of which one question is a value based question. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14-20 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150 words.
• Question numbers 21 and 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
Name any two densely populated regions of the world with more than 200 persons living on every sq km.

Question 2.
Give two reasons for unfavourable sex-ratio in the world.

Question 3.
Name two member nations of SAFTA.

Question 4.
Which is the most significant aspect of human development?

Question 5.
Enumerate the factors responsible for slower growth rate of population in India since 1981.

Question 6.
Explain one reason for Kerala’s highest value in Human Development Index.

Question 7.
Mention the two factors which have adversely influenced Bharmaur Tribal region of Himachal Pradesh.

Question 8.
“There is a direct dependence of human beings on nature for resources which sustain them.” Justify the statement by giving any three points in the light of environmental determinism.

Question 9.
Find out the reasons for the countries with low Human Development Index value. Mention three reasons.

Question 10.
Explain three problems of slums in India.

Question 11.
Study the following figure carefully and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Why do higher numbers of females migrate from rural to rural in both the diagrams?
(ii) Why is the male migration higher from rural to urban in second diagram?
(iii) Distinguish between Intra-state migration and Inter-state migration.

Question 12.
What is a metropolitan city? Give two reasons for its becoming a metropolitan.

Question 13.
By which human values can be the purity of water maintained?

Question 14.
Describe any five salient features of Dairy Farming.

Question 15.
Classify the industries on the basis of raw materials with at least one example of each. Explain in detail.

Question 16.
Explain the types of rural settlements on the basis of forms and shapes of the settlements.

Question 17.
Explain types of ports on the basis of specialised functions.

Question 18.
Why are the iron ore mines an added advantage for industrial development in India? Mention any two types of iron ore which are found in India fairly in abundance. Name the states where 95% of total reserves of iron ore is located.

Question 19.
Explain any five problems faced by Indian agriculture.

Question 20.
“Indian railways network facilitates the movement of both freight and passengers and contribute to the growth of Indian economy.” Explain the statement by citing the improvement made by Indian Railways so far.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information.
(A) A country with large area in Asia.
(B) A major area of subsistence gathering.
(C) The terminal station of a Trans-Continental Railway.
(D) A major sea port(E)An international airport.

Question 22.
Locate and label the.following five features with appropriate symbols on the given political outline map of India.
(i) The state having the highest rank in Human Development in India.
(ii) The leading producer state of groundnut.
(iii) The software technology park located in Odisha.
(iv) The major coal field located in Tamil Nadu
(v) An international airport located in Assam.

Answers

Answer 1.
(a) North Eastern part of U.S.A.
(b) North Western part of Europe.
(c) South, South-East and East Asia.

Answer 2.
(a) Female foeticide
(b) Female infanticide
(c) Domestic violence against women
(d) Lower socio-economic status of women.

Answer 3.
They are Bangladesh, Maldives, Bhutan, Nepal, India, Pakistan and Sri-Lanka.

Answer 4.
Education and Healthy life.

Answer 5.
(i) Decline in crude birth rate.
(ii) Increase in the mean age at marriage.

Answer 6.
(i) High literacy rate.

Answer 7.
(i) Harsh climate conditions.
(ii) Low-resource base.

Answer 8.
(i) Low level of technology and primitive stage of human social development.
(ii) Fear of nature’s fury and Nature worship.
(iii) Physical environment became ‘Mother Nature.’

Answer 9.
(i) Political turmoil and social instability in the form of civil war.
(ii) Hunger, starvation and famine, a high incidence of diseases.
(iii) More expenditure on defence rather than social sectors.

Answer 10.
(i) Jhuggi-Jhopari clusters and colonies of shanty structure-areas of least choice, dilapidated houses.
(ii) Overcrowded with narrow street pattern prone to serious hazards like fire.
(iii) The poverty makes slum people vulnerable to drug abuse, alcoholism, crime, vandalism, escapism, apathy and ultimately death.

Answer 11.
(i) Higher number of females migrate from rural to mral areas as they move from their parental house following their marriage.
(ii) Male migration is higher from rural to urban areas in case of inter-state migration as economic reasons like work and employment are the chief cause.
(iii) Intra-state migration: People move from one place to another within a state : e.g. Agra to Lucknow.
Intra-state migration: People move from one state to another, e.g. Lucknow to Mumbai.

Answer 12.
(i) Cities accommodating population size between one to five million are called metropolitan cities.
Reasons for becoming metropolitan city:
(i) Population growth and migration from nearby adjoining areas.
(ii) Education and employment opportunities and better medical facilities. Transport and Communication facilities also available.

Answer 13.
(i) Awakening
(ii) Cooperation
(iii) Eco-friendly

Answer 14.
(i) Dairy farming is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals.
(ii) Capital: It is highly capital-intensive. Animal sheds, storage facilities for fodder, feeding and milching machines add to the cost of dairy farming. Cattle breeding, health care and veterinary services require huge amount of capital.
(iii) Labour: It is highly labour-intensive as it involves rigorous care in feeding and milching. No off-season throughout the year. Labourers get ample employment opportunities in dairy farming.
(iv) Market: Dairy farming is mainly practiced near urban and industrial centres which provide neighbourhood market for fresh milk and other dairy products.
(v) Main Regions: The largest (a) North-Western Europe, (b) Canada and North-Eastern U.S.A. (c) South-Eastern Australia, New-Zealand.

Answer 15.
(i) Agro-based Industries e.g. food processing, sugar industry, pickle and fruit juices, beverages-tea, coffee.
(ii) Mineral-based Industries e.g. Iron and steel industries, aluminum smelting, copper smelting, jewellery industry, cement industry.
(iii) Chemical based industries e.g. Petro-chemicals, salts, sulphur, potash, synthetic fibre, plastic.
(iv) Forest-based industry e.g. Furniture, paper, rubber, industry.
(v) Animal based industry e.g. Leather, Woollen textile, ivory.

Answer 16.
(i) Linear Pattern
(ii) Rectangular Pattern
(iii) Circular pattern
(iv) Star-like pattern
(v) T-shaped,Y-shaped, Cross-shaped
(vi) Double village (explain any five)

Answer 17.
(i) Oil ports
(ii) Ports of call
(iii) Pocket station
(iv) Entrepot ports
(v) Naval ports (To be explained with example)

Answer 18.
(i) The iron-ore mines occur in close proximity to the coal field in the north-eastern plateau region of the country.
(ii) Hematite and magnetite.
(iii) Reserves of Iron ore are in Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhatisgarh, Karnataka, Goa, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Answer 19.
(i) Dependence on erratic monsoon, low productivity.
(ii) Constraints of financial resources and indebtedness.
(iii) Lack of land reforms.
(iv) Small farm size and fragmentation of land-holding.
(v) Lack of commercialization.
(vi) Disguised unemployment and vast underemployment.
(vii) Degradation of cultivable land.

Answer 20.
(i) Conversion of meter and narrow gauge into broad gauge.
(ii) Replacing steam engines by diesel and electric engines.
(iii) Increase in speed and haulage capacity. Introduction of Metro rail.
(iv) Extension of rail routes to remote and marginalized areas. Development of Konkan Railway along the western coast; an area where landslides are very common.
(v) Computerised railway reservation system.

Answer 21.

Answer 22.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 1 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Paper 1, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 1 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 1.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 1

Board	CBSE
Class	XII
Subject	Physical Education
Sample Paper Set	Paper 1
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 1 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Physical Education is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should approximately 10-20 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should approximately 30-50 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should approximately 75-100 words.

Questions.

Question 1.
Define Planning? 1

Question 2.
List down the components of Barrow General Motor Ability Test? 1

Question 3.
What do you understand by Balance Diet? 1

Question 4.
Define disability and disorder among children? 1

Question 5.
Define Posture? 1

Question 6.
What do you mean by Motor Development? 1

Question 7.
List down the physiological factors determining Physical Fitness? 1

Question 8.
Define Vital Capacity? 1

Question 9.
What do you understand by Sports Medicine? 1

Question 10.
Define Soft Tissue Injury? 1

Question 11.
List Newton’s Law of motion? 1

Question 12.
Describe the Axis and Plane used in movements? 3

Question 13.
Describe the importance of intramural in physical education? 3

Question 14.
Describe various types of biomechanical movements? 3

Question 15.
Differentiate between Micro and Macro Nutrient? 3

Question 16.
Describe the benefits of yoga for healthy life? 1

Question 17.
Explain the factors effecting motor development? 3

Question 18.
Children of a particular residential school were very indisciplined, fighting, and creating problems around, resulting in poor academic achievement. The new school principal asked the teachers to start inter-section sports program for children along with extra PE classes at weekends. After the year end, students attended for assessment test related to psychomotor skills. The analysis of report highlighted increase in academics performance and various other 1 parameters.
(i) What would those various parameters which developed among the participating students?
(ii) Which type of sports competition was organized by the school?
(iii) What psychomotor test could be planned for testing fitness of school children? 3

Question 19.
List down the test components of Rikli and Jones for elderly people? 3

Question 20.
Appraise coping strategies for stress management among athletes? 5

Question 21.
Analyze the muscles involved in Throwing a cricket ball? 5

Question 22.
Differentiate Physical and Physiological differences between male and female athletes? 5

Question 23.
Categorize various types of sports injuries and explain the preventive measures? 5

Question 24.
Explain corrective measures through physical activity and exercise for improving posture? 5

Question 25.
Draw a fixture of 13 Football teams participating in a Tournament on the basis of knock out? 5

Question 26.
Describe advantages of physical activities for children with special needs? 5

Answers.

Answer 1.
Planning is basic management function involving formulation of detailed plans to achieve optimum balance of need or demands with available resources.

Answer 2.
The Barrow Motor Ability Test consisting of three items designed to test the motor ability of high school boys.
Test 1 – Standing Jump Test – It is used as a measure of explosive leg power.
Test 2 – Zigzag Run Test – Its objective is to measure agility.
Test 3 – Medicine Ball Put Test – Its objective is to measure arm and shoulder girdle strength.

Answer 3.
A diet which consists of all the essential food constituents which are necessary for growth and maintenance of the body. Protein, carbohydrates, fat, minerals, vitamins are essential micro and macro nutrients which form part of balance diet.

Answer 4.
Disability: Any degree of physical disability, malformation or disfigurement that is caused by bodily injury, birth defect or illness. Disorder to is the disturbance which affects normal functions performed by an individual.

Answer 5.
Posture is the alignment of the body part for producing various task. Posture involves of muscles, ligaments and tendons along with joints to work together for performing any action, it also effects the functioning of the organic systems.

Answer 6.
Motor development refers to the development of a child’s bones, muscles and ability to move around and manipulate his or her environment. Motor development can be divided into two sections: gross motor development and fine motor development.

• Gross motor development involves the development of the large muscles in the child’s body. These muscles allow us to sit, stand, walk and run, among other activities.
• Fine motor development involves the small muscles of the body, especially in the hand.

Answer 7.
Physiological factors determining physical fitness are:

• Cardiovascular Endurance
• Lung Capacity
• Muscle Composition
• Muscle Fibre size
• Somatotype
• Muscular Strength
• Muscular Speed

Answer 8.
Vital Capacity (VC) is the maximum amount of air a person can expel from lungs after a maximum inhalation.

Answer 9.
A field of medicine concerned with the functioning of the human body during physical activity and with the prevention and treatment of athletic injuries.

Answer 10.
Soft tissue injuries are the most common injury to tissues that connect, support, or surround other structures and organs of the body. Soft tissue includes muscles, tendons, ligaments, fascia, nerves, fibrous tissues, fat, blood vessels, and synovial membranes.

Answer 11.
There are three Newton’s Law of motion.

1. The Law of Inertia: A body at rest tends to remain at rest. A body in motion tends to continue in motion with consistent speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an outside force.
2. The Law of Acceleration: The velocity of a body is changed only when acted upon by an additional force.
3. The Law of Counterforce: The production of any force will create another force opposite and equal to the first force.

Answer 12.
Human movements are described in three dimensions based on a series of planes and axis,

(i) A plane is the surface on which movement take place. There are three planes of motion that pass through the human body.

• The sagital plane lies vertically and divides the body into right and left parts.
• The frontal plane also lies vertically and divides the body into anterior and posterior parts.
• The transverse plane lies horizontally and divides the body into superior and inferior parts.

(ii) An axis is a straight line around which an object rotates. Movement at a joint takes place in a plane about an axis. There are three axis of rotation.

• The sagital axis passes horizontally from posterior to anterior and is formed by the intersection of the sagital and transverse planes.
• The frontal axis passes horizontally from left to right and is formed by the intersection of the frontal and transverse planes.
• The vertical axis passes vertically from inferior to superior and is formed by the intersection of the sagital and frontal planes.

Answer 13.
Intramural activities are performed within the institution, where outside students can’t participate and the main focus is on maximal participation. Following are the importance of intramurals:

• Opportunities for physical, mental, emotional and social development of students
• Inculcation of moral and ethical values through sports
• Awareness of health and wellness among children
• Source of enjoyment, fun and recreation among children.
• Opportunities for maximization of sports participation among students. Develop Leadership, group cohesion among students.

Answer 14.
There are various types of biomechanical movements:

• Flexion
• Adducation
• Extension
• Ulnar deviation
• Abduction

Extension – It is a straightening movement that increases the angle between body parts. When a joint can move forward and backward, such as the neck and trunk, extension refers to movement in the posterior direction. For example, when standing up, the knees are extended. Extension of the hip or shoulder moves the arm or leg backward. When the chin is against the chest, the head is flexed, and the trunk is flexed when a person leans forward.

Abduction – It refers to a motion that pulls a structure or part away from the midline of the body. In the case of fingers and toes, it refers to spreading the digits apart, away from the centerline of the hand or foot. Abduction of the wrist is also called radial deviation For example, raising the arms up, such as when tightrope-walking, is an example of abduction at the shoulder. When the legs are splayed at the hip, such as when doing a star jump or doing a split, the legs are abducted at the hip.

Adduction – It refers to a motion that pulls a structure or part toward the midline of the body, or towards the midline of a limb. In the case of fingers and toes, it refers to bringing the digits together, towards the centerline of the hand or foot. Adduction of the wrist is also called ulnar deviation. Dropping the arms to the sides, and bringing the knees together, are examples of adduction.

Answer 15.

Micro Nutrients	Macro Nutrients
Nutrients required in small amount	Nutrients that need in large amount
Significant for normal functioning of body	Provide the body with bulk energy (calories)
Includes: Minerals and Vitamins	Carbohydrates, fats, protein are forms of macro nutrient
Facilitates chemical reactions to occur in the body	Needed for growth and development of the body

Answer 16.
More importantly, yoga is extremely effective in:

1. Increasing Flexibility – Yoga has positions that act upon the various joints of the body including those joints that are never really on the ‘radar screen’ let alone exercised.

2. Increasing lubrication of the joints, ligaments and tendons – Yoga positions exercise the different tendons and ligaments of the body. Surprisingly it has been found that the body which may have been quite rigid starts experiencing a remarkable flexibility in even those > parts which have not been consciously work upon. Why? It is here that the remarkable research behind yoga positions proves its mettle. Seemingly unrelated “non strenuous” yoga positions act upon certain parts of the body in an interrelated manner. When done together, they work in harmony to create a situation where flexibility is attained relatively easily.

3. Massaging of ALL Organs of the Body – Yoga is perhaps the only form of activity which massages all the internal glands and organs of the body in a thorough manner, including those – such as the prostate – that hardly get externally stimulated during our entire lifetime. Yoga acts in a wholesome manner on the various body parts. This stimulation and massage of the organs in turn benefits us by keeping away disease and providing a forewarning the first possible instance of a likely onset of disease or disorder.

4. Complete Detoxification – By gently stretching muscles and joints as well as massaging the various organs, yoga ensures the optimum blood supply to various parts of the body.This helps in the flushing out of toxins from every nook and cranny as well as providing nourishment up to the last point. This leads to benefits such as delayed ageing, energy and a remarkable zest for life.

5. Excellent toning of the muscles – Muscles that have become flaccid, weak or slothy are
stimulated repeatedly to shed excess flab and flaccidity.

Answer 17.
There are many factors that effect motor development:

1. Nutrition: Nutritious food promotes good motor development. Sensory motor development is dependent upon nutrition that the child gets to a great extent. Children get stronger and development is good if they get nutritious food.
2. Immunisation: If mother and child both are immunized at a proper time it leads to good sensory motor development.
3. Environment: Encouragement, love and security help the child to take risk to explore fearlessly and to know more about environment which leads to a better sensory development.

Answer 18.
(i) Parameters developed are:

• Leadership
• Motivation
• Personality
• Posture
• Fitness

(ii) Intramural competitions
(iii) Test for School Children:

• AAPHER physical fitness test

Answer 19.
Rikli and Jones is the senior citizen test. It was developed by Rikli and Jones in 2001. This test is beneficial for various senior citizens. It helps the early identification of at-risk participants. It is significant to plan safe and effective physical exercise programmes for senior citizens because individual’s health and fitness level can be known better with the help of this test.

1. Chair Stand Test – This test measures the lower body strength, particularly legs.
2. Arm Curl Test – The arm curl test is a test for upper body strength and endurance which is required for performing household activities.
3. Chair sit and reach test: It assess the lower body flexibility, which is important for good posture.

Answer 20.
Coping refers to the thoughts and actions which we usually use to deal with a threatening situation. Lazarus and Folkman said “Coping is a process of constantly changing cognitive and behavioral efforts to manage specific external and/or internal demands or conflicts appraised as taxing or exceeding one’s resources”. These are the following types of strategies:
(i) Problem focused coping strategies – They aim at changing or eliminating the authentic source of stress by:

• analyze the stressful situation
• Seek professional help
• reframing
• slow down pace
• stay focused
•  plan properly

(ii) Emotion focused coping strategies – tried to reduce the negative emotional responses linked with stress by:

• denial of reality
• blaming
• mentally disengaging from stressful situation or people
• humorous attitude
• seek support
• be positive

Answer 21.
Throwing comprises of two phases, the preparatory phase and the throwing phase.
Most actions are rotational in the transverse plane and longitudinal axis and the two joints primarily involved are the elbow and shoulder.
The elbow is a hinge joint formed by the humerus and ulna.
The shoulder is a ball and socket joint formed between the humerus and the scapula.

Preparatory phase
Joints involved	Articulating bones	Action	Aganist Muscle
Shoulder	Humerus and scapula	Horizontal hyperextension	Posterior deltoids and latissimus dorsi
Elbow	Humerus and ulna	Extension	Ticeps brachii

 

Throwing phase
Joints involved	Articulating bones	Action
Shoulder	Humerus and scapula	Horizontal flexion	Anterior deltoids and Pectoralis major
Elbow	Humerus and ulna	Flexion	Biceps brachii

Answer 22.
The male and female athletes have various physiological differences. These differences generally result in difference in performance ouputs interms of strength, speed, endurance.

1. Cardiovascular Fitness: Athletes’ cardiovascular fitness is measured by their maximum oxygen consumption, also known as VO2 max, which measures their capacity to transport and use oxygen during exercise. This is measured by calculating the point at which an athlete’s oxygen consumption remains steady despite an increase in an exercise intensity. Elite male athletes have a higher oxygen carrying capacity than women, which allows them to reach their maximum training peak earlier. According ACSM’s Primary Care Sports Medicine reference book, this is probably due to women’s lower hemoglobin levels and men’s larger body size. Maximum oxygen consumption is directly related to body size,

2. Bones and Ligaments: Male athletes have longer and larger bones, which provide a clear mechanical advantage over female athletes. The increased articular surface and larger structure of male bones provide them with a greater leverage and a wider frame on which to support muscle. Similarly, the ligaments of female athletes are generally more lax and fragile than those of their male counterparts. This gives male athletes an advantage in sports that involve throwing, kicking and hitting, and explains the higher incidence of musculoskeletal injuries among female athletes. On the other hand, female athletes have a wider pelvis and a lower center of gravity, which provides excellent balance.

3. Strength: Male athletes have a higher ratio of muscle mass to body weight, which allows for greater speed and acceleration. This explains why female speed records in running and swimming are consistently 10 percent slower than men’s, and why, on average, they have two thirds of the strength of men. However, when you factor out the larger muscle mass in men and compare muscular strength relative to cross-section area of muscle, the strength of male and female athletes is nearly equal.

4. Endurance: Endurance is largely determined by a body’s efficiency when converting calories into energy. Female athletes are more efficient than male athletes at converting glycogen to energy. Glycogen is a secondary source of fuel you use when glucose levels drop. This is why female athletes excel in ultra-long-distance sports and rarely hit the wall during long races. It also explains why ultra-running, which includes races longer than a marathon, is one of the few sports where elite female and male athletes regularly compete together, and in which female athletes sometimes win.

Answer 23.
Classification of injury:
(i) Soft Tissue
(ii) Bone Injury
(iii) Joint Injury

(i) Soft Tissue Injury:

• Contusion: Direct impact with blunt object which causes bleeding deep with muscles due to damage in capillaries.
• Strain: Injury to musculo-tendon injury
• Sprain: Ligament injury.
• Abrasion: Loss of epidermis (Outer layer of skin) Superficial injury with loss of skin
• Incision: Cut on arteries, tendon, veins, nerves due to sharp objects
• Laceration: Irregular tear in skin, cut in epidermis and dermis with blunt edge objects

(ii) Bone Injury-Fracture:
A.Close Fracture

• Transverse Fracture
• Oblique Fracture
• Spiral Fracture
• Comminute Fracture
• Impact Fracture

B.Open Fracture

• Compound Fracture

(iii) Joint Injury: Joint injuries often occur as a result of bicycle wrecks, falling is contact sports, and car accidents. They can range from sprains to fractures and dislocations. Common joints injuries include:

• Runners knee
• Plica syndrome of the knee
• Rotator cut injury (shoulder)
• Sprained Ankle

Preventive Measures:

• Wear protective gear such as helmets, protective pads, etc.
• Warm up and cool down
• Keep in mind the rules of the game.

Answer 24.
Exercise for Posture Correction:

1. Back exercises – to put shoulder at original place, some workouts of back strengthening are required.
2. Trunk exercises – twisting of trunk often strengthens the back and abdomen.
3. Leg press, hamstring, curls and leg extensions.
4. Aerobics
5. Walking, running, jumping, etc.

Answer 25.
Total number of teams =13
Upper half = n + 1/2 = 13 + 1/2 = 7
Lower half = n – 1/2 = 13 – 1/2 = 6
Power of two’s = 24 n. of teams
= 16 -13 = 3 No. of Byes = 3
No. of Byes in Lower Half =nb + 1/2 = 3 + 1/2 = 2
No. of Byes in Upper Half = nb – 1/2 = 3 – 1/2 = 1

Answer 26.
Scientific research has demonstrated repeatedly that physical education can enhance academic performance and cognitive function. However, for children with special needs, it’s valuable for so many reasons, from providing an opportunity to build collaborative and social skills, to teaching individuals how to focus on specific goals and overcome obstacles.

When students with special needs participate in physical activity and sports, they see improvements in everything from their hand-eye coordination and flexibility, to their muscle strength, endurance, and even cardiovascular efficiency. These are all simply the natural benefits of exercise — a development of better motor skills and enhanced physical health that helps individuals to fight back against problems such as obesity, and the health complications that follow.

1. Mental Improvements in Confidence and Well-Being: Regular exposure to sports through physical education classes isn’t only good for a child’s body — it’s beneficial to their mind, too. Physical activity improves general mood and wellness in psychiatric patients suffering from anxiety and depressive disorders. What’s more, regular fitness links to improvements in self-esteem, social awareness, and self-confidence — all essential for empowering the lives of young people with special needs.

2. Reduces stress and anxiety: Providing a physical outlet may help students reduce or cope with anxiety, stress and depression — while interaction and involvement with other students will help to give children a sense of accomplishment and confidence. Their physical education teachers to involve them in environments where they can feel as though they’re successfully contributing to a group and their abilities in other areas will improve according to their positive self-image and confidence.

3. Behavioral Improvements in Attention, Relationships, and Academics: Physical education is about a lot more than simply learning how to engage in a particular sport — it teaches children a range of skills, from how to work as a team, to how to solve problems, increase attention span, and focus on task-based behavior. Eventually, those skills can transfer into other classroom settings too, so that students with special needs have a greater ability to leam and engage with their peers outside of physical education.

4. Self-Esteem: Developing a sense of self-esteem and confidence is an extremely important part of special education. These children need to be involved in environments where they feel that they are contributing successfully to a group. Their abilities in all other skill areas will improve as a result of a positive self-image and confidence.

5. Cognitive Benefits: The hands-on nature of physical education leads to cognitive improvements in children with special needs, allowing them to access skills that they couldn’t challenge within a traditional classroom setting. The structure of sport – which comes with a set of rules and organization, can be a learning tool that helps children to practice self-regulation and enhance their decision making skills. On top of that, children with special needs can leam to focus on specific goals, and work on their verbal communication by interacting with peers through sport.

6. Improves appetite

7. Improves quality of sleep
As these children often feel isolated, they

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 1 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 1, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 6 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 6.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 6

Board	CBSE
Class	XII
Subject	English Core
Sample Paper Set	Paper 6
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 6 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Englsih Core is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions

• This paper is divided into three sections: A, B and C. All the sections are compulsory.
• Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read these instructions very carefully and follow them faithfully.
• Do not exceed the prescribed Word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A
READING (30 MARKS)

Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully. (12 Marks)

1. Pollution has been defined as the addition of any substance or form of energy to the environment at a rate faster than the environment can accommodate its dispersion, breakdown, recycling or storage in some harmless form. In simpler terms, pollution means the poisoning of the environment by man.

2. Pollution has accompanied mankind ever since groups of people settled down in one place for a long time. It was not a serious problem during primitive times when there was more than ample space available for each individual or group’. As the human population boomed, pollution became a major problem and has remained as one ever since. Cities of ancient times were often unhealthy places, fouled by human wastes and debris. Such unsanitary conditions favored the outbreak of diseases that killed or maimed many people living in those times.

3. The rapid advancement of technology and industrialization today is something that man can be proud of. However, it has brought along with it many undesirable results, one of which is the pollution of our environment. Humanity today is threatened by the dangers of air, water, land and noise pollution.

4. The air that we breathe is heavily polluted with toxic gases, chemicals and dust. These consist of the discharge from industrial factories and motor vehicles. The emission of tetraethyl lead and carbon monoxide from exhaust fumes is a major cause for concern too. Outdoor burning of trash and forest fires has also contributed to air pollution. They cause the smarting of the eyes, bouts and coughing and respiratory problems. Owing to the burning of fossil fuels, the level of carbon monoxide in the air is more than desirable. Too high a level of carbon dioxide will cause the Earth’s temperature to rise. The heat will melt the polar caps, thus raising the sea level and causing massive floods around the world. The burning of fuels also produces gases which form acid rain. Acid rain has a damaging effect on water, forest and soil, and is harmful to our health.

5. Man has reached the moon and invented supersonic crafts that can travel faster than the speed of sound. However, these inventions emit pollutants which contribute to the depletion of the ozone layer. This depletion of ozone, which absorbs the harmful rays of the sun and prevents them from reaching the Earth, will have drastic effects on all living things. It will lead to a rise in the number of people suffering from skin cancer.

6. Water pollution has become widespread too. Toxic waste has found its way into our lakes, streams, rivers and oceans. This waste is released by factories and sea-going vessels. Spillage of oil by tankers and during the recent Gulf War has caused irreparable damage to marine life. Thousands of sea animals have died or were poisoned by the pollutants in their natural habitat. As such, it is dangerous for humans to consume sea food caught in polluted waters.

7. Dumping of used cars, cans, bottles, plastic items and all other kinds of waste material is an eyesore. Much of the refuse is not biodegradable and this interferes with the natural breakdown process of converting substances from a harmful form to a non harmful one. As such, it becomes a hazard to one’s health.

8. We are often faced with noises from construction sites, jet planes and traffic jam. we may be unaware of it but noise pollution has been attributed to causing a loss of hearing, mental disturbances and poor performance at work.

9. To control environmental pollution, substances which are hazardous and can destroy life must not be allowed to escape into the environment. This calls for united decision¬making among world leaders and a public awareness of the dangers of pollution.

I. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

(a) Pollution was not a serious problem in ancient times because:

1. people were unsettled.
2. lot of space was available.
3. population was less.
4. all of the above.

(b) Acid rain does not cause:

1. smarting of eyes.
2. water pollution.
3. soil pollution.
4. damage to forest.

(c) The number of people suffering from skin cancer will rise because :

1. man has invented supersonic aircrafts
2. ozone layer is depleting.
3. no efforts are being made to repair the ozone layer.
4. inventions emit pollutants that deplete the ozone layer which absorbs cancer- causing rays.

(d) If the refuse is not biodegradable it:

1. becomes an eyesore.
2. interferes with natural breakdown.
3. remains a health hazard.
4. both (ii) and (Hi).

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible.

(e) Explain how recycling can help prevent pollution.
(f) Briefly explain what you understand by the term ‘acid rain’.
(g) What are the hazards of exposure to excessive noise?
(h) How can pollution be controlled?
(i) How is marine life under threat?

III. Find words from the passage which mean the same as:

(a) Faster than the speed of sound (para 5)
(b) house or lodge (para 1)
(c) ugly, blot on the landscape (para 7)

Question 2.
Read the following passage carefully. (10 Marks)

1. One of the principal values of travelling is that, it breaks the monotony of life and work. Life, for most people, is a mad rush from one place to another, from one activity to another, trying to gather as much as possible.

2. In this process, people tend to forget, who they are and what they are. There is no time to ponder and wonder. They tend to forget the values of life. Travelling is a time when people relax, reflect and ponder. Most people, after a pleasant travel, return home with a fresh outlook, new zeal and a better determination.

3. Travelling has also a great informative value. It widens the grasp of our knowledge of geography, different cultures and people, etc. For example, when people of Assam visit South India, they learn a great deal. They come to know about the geographical features of South India, such as the existence of numerous rivers, coconut groves, backwaters, spice gardens, rubber plantations, oceans, seas, factories, cities, etc.

4. They also learn many things about the Dravidian culture which characterize the people’s style of living there. They come to know about their mode of living, social life, agriculture, worship, beliefs, art forms, etc. Such a visit is bound to enlighten the visitor and make him/her more appreciative of other cultures.

5. Travelling has a special importance to students. Many of the things they learn in textbooks can be practically understood when they visit various places. When they visit cities, such as, Kolkata, Mumbai, Delhi, etc, or the famous lakes such as Chilka Lake in Odisha, Logtak Lake in Manipur, Dal lake in Kashmir, etc., their grasp of geography is deepened. Visits to industrial centres, such as, Jamshedpur, Kharagpur, Ranchi, Bangalore, Coimbatore, or important places like Cape Comorin, Madurai, Pondicherry, Goa, Kovalam, Cochin, Bhopal, Srinagar, Chandigarh, etc. open their minds beyond their world. Therefore, travelling has a great academic and scholastic value.

6. Another significant value of travelling is that it has the potential to improve one’s health. A visit to places like Nainital, Darjeeling, Shillong, Panchmarhi, Goa, Kovalam, Ooty, etc. can have tremendous effect on our physical and mental health.

7. The beauty and cold of the hills, the charm of the valleys, the chirping of birds, the song of the rivers, the howling of animals, pleasant air, quiet places, etc., can heal many of our mental and physical problems. In the Indian context, travelling and visiting places have another important value that of understanding other’s traditions and cultures.

8. A visit to various parts of India will make us realize that India is a mosaic of cultures, races and creed and that diversity is the chief hallmark of our land. In this context, travelling can help national integration and unity to a great extent.

9. Thus, travelling has tremendous educative, informative and social value. It widens people’s mental horizon, improves health, adds thrill and relaxation to life, dispels boredom and helps promoting national integration. Therefore educational tour should become an integral part of modern education. Travelling also boosts our national economy and the development of tourism industry.

I. Answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option: (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) In the mad rush of life people forget:

1. Who they are
2. To wonder and ponder
3. Forget their values
4. All of these

(b) The example of Nainital has been given to prove that:

1. travelling can improve our mental and physical health
2. travelling is informative
3. travelling introduces us to different states
4. travelling has scholastic value

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(c) What can be learnt by visiting South India?
(d) How can travelling help students?
(e) How does the charm of the hills impact one’s health?
(f) What does the writer mean by the phrase ‘mosaic of cultures’?
(g) How can travelling promote national integration?
(h) What makes people forget the values of life?

III. Find words from the passage which are similar in meaning to the following.

(a) repetitiveness, boredom (para 1)
(b) tell, explain (para 3)

Question 3.
Read the following passage carefully. (8 Marks)

Although stupidity is commonly defined as ‘a lack of normal intelligence’, stupid behaviour is not the behaviour of a person lacking in intelligence but the behaviour of a person not using good judgement or sense. In fact, stupidity comes from the Latin word that means ‘senseless’. Therefore, stupidity can be defined as the behaviour of a person of normal intelligence who acts in a particular situation as if he or she isn’t very bright. Stupidity exists at three levels of seriousness.

First is the simple, relatively harmless level. Behaviour at this level is often amusing. It is humorous when someone places the food from a fast food restaurant on the roof of the car while unlocking the door and then drives away with the food still on the roof. We call this absent-minded. The person’s good sense or intelligence was temporarily absent. At this level, other than passing inconvenience or embarrassment, no one is injured by the stupid behaviour.

The next type—serious stupidity—is more dangerous. Practical jokes such as putting sugar in the salt shakers are at this level. The intention is humorous, but there is a chance of harm. Irresponsible advice given to others is also serious stupidity. An example is the person who plays psychiatrist on the basis of an introductory psychology course or doing a TV program on psychiatry. The intention may be to help, but if the victim really needs psychiatric help, an amateur will only worsen the situation.

Even worse is the third kind of stupidity. Kind people, who would never injure another living being, stupidly throw away a box of six-week-old kittens along a country road. Lacking the heart to kill the poor things, they sentence them to almost certain death from wild animals, infections, exposure or the wheels of a passing vehicle. Yet they are able to tell themselves that ‘they will find nice homes’ or ‘animals can get along in the wild’. Another example of this kind of stupidity is the successful local businessman who tries to have as many office affairs as he can get away with. He risks the loss  of his business and his home. He fails to see that what he is doing is wrong. This is the true moral stupidity of a person not willing to think about the results of his actions or take responsibility for them. The common defence of a person guilty of stupidity is—‘But I didn’t think ’ This, however, is not a proper excuse, especially when serious or harmful stupidity is involved. (All India (C) 2015)

A. On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it, using headings and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations (wherever necessary—minimum four) and a format you consider suitable. Also supply an appropriate title to it. (5 Marks)
B. Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 Marks)

SECTION B
ADVANCE WRITING SKILLS (30 MARKS)

Question 4.
Your club is going to organize an interclass singing competition. Write a notice in about 50 words inviting names of the students who want to participate in it. Give all necessary details. You are Navtej/ Navita, secretary, Music Club, Akash Public School, Agra. (All India 2015) (4 Marks)
OR
You have cleared your class 12 CBSE Examination and so want to sell off the reading material you have with you. Write an advertisement to be placed in the ‘For Sale’ columns of a local daily giving all necessary details of the material you have in not more than 50 words. You are Mohan/Mohini, Contact No. 9811111111.

Question 5.
You are Mohit/ Malini living at C-10, Ghaziabad. You recently came across beggars both adults and little children begging at red lights. Write a letter to the Editor of Times of India expressing your views about it. (120-150 words) (6 Marks)
OR
You are the Principal, Akash Public School, Ajmer. Yesterday you received a letter of enquiry from Mr. P.L. Sharma resident of 12, Abu Bakr Road, Dubai who wants his daughter, Navita, at present studying in class VIII, Indian School next year, in class IX. He wants to know all about your school. Write a letter in 120-150 words to Mr. Sharma. (120-150 words) (Foreign 2015)

Question 6.
You are Karun/ Karuna. Write a speech in 150-200 words on ‘The Importance of Sports’ to be delivered in the school assembly. (10 Marks)
OR
Outside the school gate there are a few food carts. They don’t observe strict hygienic standards. You have observed that so many of your school students go to them immediately after the school is over. This can create health problems. As Principal write a speech in 150-200 words on ‘Healthy Food’, to be delivered in the morning assembly. (Delhi (C) 2015)

Question 7.
Within a few months you will be joining college. How do you look at college life? Is it freedom from strict discipline imposed on you by the school? A carefree life with no worries of completing assigned homework? Or, is it the beginning of responsible preparation for brilliant career? Write an article in 150-200 words on what you think of college life? You are Navtej/Navita. (Foreign 2015) (10 Marks)
OR
You are Navtej/ Navita of Akash Public School, Agra. Recently your school had an Inter House English Debate. Write a report on it in 150-200 words for a local newspaper.

SECTION C
TEXTBOOKS AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (40 MARKS)

Question 8.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow: (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

and (All India 2015)
looked out at Young
Trees sprinting, the merry children spilling
out of their homes, but after the airport’s
security check, standing a few yards
away, I looked again at her, wan, pale
as a late winter’s moon and felt that old familiar ache

(a) How can the trees sprint?
(b) Why did the poet look at her mother again?
(c) What did she observe?
(d) Identify the figure of speech used in these lines. ‘

OR
On their slag heap, these children
Wear skins peeped through by bones and spectacles of steel
With mended glass, like bottle bits on stones.

(a) Who are these children?
(b) What is their slag heap?
(c) Why are their bones peeping through their skins?
(d) What does ‘with mended glass’ mean?

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words each: (3 × 4 = 12 Marks)

(a) What did garbage mean to the adults of Seemapuri and to their children? (All India 2015)
(b) How did Rajkumar Shukla establish that he was resolute? (All India 2015)
(c) Why did Sophie like her brother Geoff more than any other person? From her perspective what did he symbolize?
(d) Bama’s experience is that of a victim of the caste system. What kind of discrimination does Zitkala-Sa’s experience depict? What are their responses to their respective situations? (NCERT)
(e) What is it that draws Derry towards Mr. Lamb? (NCERT)
(f) What or whom is aunt Jennifer terrified with in the third stanza? {NCERT1}

Question 10.
Education is the most effective tool in erasing discrimination and inequality. Discuss with reference to the chapter ‘Memories of Childhood’. (120-150 words) (6 Marks)
OR
Even today so many among us believe in superstitions. An astrologer predicted about ‘the tiger king’ that he would be killed by a tiger. He killed one hundred tigers yet was himself killed by a tiger. How did the superstitious belief prevail? (All India 2015)

Question 11.
Everybody during the last lesson is filled with regret .Comment. (The Last Lesson) (120-150 words) (All India 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
Sophie lives in a world of impossible dreams. Comment.

Question 12.
How does William Dane betray Silas Mamer? (120-150 words) (6 Marks)
OR
Describe the burglary at Mr. Bunting’s house. (120-150 words)

Question 13.
Evil can give rise to only evil. Describe the character of Dunstan Cass in the light of this remark. (120-150 words) (6 Marks)
OR
Write a short note on Mr. and Mrs. Hall. (120-150 words)

ANSWERS

Answer 1.

I(a) (iv) all of these
(b) (i) smarting of eyes
(c) (iv) inventions emit pollutants that deplete the ozone layer which absorbs cancer- causing rays
(d) (iv) both (ii) and (iii)

II. (e) In recycling, we get natural products back from used material by treating it. For example, when we recycle old newspaper, we treat the used material so that it can be used again. This prevents the used products from polluting the environment.

(f) The burning of fuels also produces gases which form acid rain. Acid rain has a damaging effect on water, forest and soil, and is harmful to our health.

(g) Noise pollution has been found to cause loss-of hearing, mental disturbances and poor performance at work.

(h) To control environmental pollution, substances which are hazardous and can destroy life must not be allowed to escape into the environment. This calls for united decision-making among world leaders and a public awareness of the dangers of pollution.

(i) Toxic waste has found its way into our lakes, streams, rivers and oceans. This waste is released by factories and sea-going vessels. Spillage of oil by tankers and during the recent Gulf War has caused irreparable damage to marine life.

III. (a) Supersonic (b) Accommodate (c) Eyesore

Answer 2.

I. (a) (iv) All of these
(b) (i) travelling can improve our mental and physical health

II. (c) We can learn about the features of south India, such as the existence of numerous rivers, coconut groves, backwaters, spice gardens, rubber plantations, oceans, seas, factories, cities, etc.

(d) Travelling has a special importance to students. Many of the things they learn in textbooks can be practically understood when they visit various places.

(e) The beauty and cold of the hills, the charm of the valleys, the chirping of birds, the song of the rivers, the howling of animals, pleasant air, quiet places, etc., can heal many of our mental and physical problems.

(f) The phrase ‘mosaic of cultures’ means assortment of diverse cultures. He wishes to point out how travelling exposes one to a mixture of diverse cultures.

(g) By travelling the traveler gets exposure to diverse lands and cultures which are all beautifully united under one nation.

(h) Today people lead a hectic life in pursuit of getting as much as possible. They have no time to ponder and wonder and thus tend to forget the values of life.

III. (a) monotony (b) enlighten

Answer 3.

A. TITLE : Stupidity

NOTES :

(a) What is stupidity?

1. comes from the latin word = senseless
2. lack of normal int’ce
3. not using commn judgement

(b) STU-three types
1. first type

1. harmless
2. caused due to absentmindedness
3. Causes inconv, embarsmnt

2. second type:
(i) may be called serious stu
(ii) occurs due to

(a) practical but harmful jokes
(b) harmful advice

3. 3rd type- moral stu
(i) occurs due to

(a) unwillingness to think about result of one’s actions
(b) unwillingness to hold oneself responsible

Key to Abbreviations
int’ce : intelligence
commn : common
stu : stupidity
inconv : inconvenience
embarsmnt : embarrassment

B. SUMMARY

Stupidity comes from the Latin word meaning ‘senseless’. It means lack of common sense and not using good judgement. There are three types of stupidity. The first type is essentially harmless and is caused due to absent-mindedness. It may cause embarrassment and inconvenience. The second type results from giving harmful advice or making practical and harmful jokes. Moral stupidity results from unwillingness to hold oneself responsible for one’s actions or to think about the consequences of one’s actions.

Answer 4.

Answer 5.

C-10, Ghaziabad
8th September, 20××
The Editor
The Times of India
Delhi

Sub: Problem of Begging in India Sir,

I would like to request you to kindly give a little space to my letter in your esteemed newspaper.

The problem of beggars in India is a matter of great shame and concern. Both adults and children are seen at the bus-stop, at red lights, near temples, at market, etc. A beggar is a stigma. He is a burden on society. Begging neither involves physical labour nor mental exertion. Some beggars earn more than most of the low paid persons. They get used to a life of leisure.

Some people deceive others pretending to be handicapped and beg in the name of God. God-fearing and charitable people give them alms. They pose to be deaf and dumb in order to arouse the sentiments of the passerby and evoke their sympathy. They do not spare even foreign tourists and these foreigners get a bad image about our country due to these beggars. They even push their little children into this menace.

It is a sin against humanity to patronize beggars. With our help we are spoiling a person and are creating a problem for the society by adding to the number of beggars. The authorities should put a ban on begging so that the pursuers and perpetrators of begging should be dealt with an iron hand.

Yours faithfully
Mohit

OR

Akash Public School,
Ajmer
6th September, 20××
P.L Sharma
Abu Bakr Road,
Dubai

Sub: Facilities offered by Akash Public School, Ajmer

Sir

I am delighted to receive your letter of enquiry about the various facilities offered by our school and am happy to give you an overview of our school.

Akash Public School offers excellent educational facilities which are continually being extended and developed. A successful programme of building development has occurred at the school over recent years.

The Sports Centre has a magnificent 25 meter indoor heated swimming pool. The centre also includes squash courts, weight-training room, large sports hall, complete with 7.5m high climbing wall, and a smaller multi-purpose gymnasium.

The Music Department includes a recital room, keyboard room and several practice rooms. The Science Centre opened recently provides some of the best facilities for teaching science of any school in Ajmer.

The building has a floor dedicated to each of the Biology, Chemistry and Physics departments and includes four spacious laboratories.

We follow the CBSE Curriculum. Cultural activities are given equal time in the curriculum. I sincerely hope that this overview of our school will persuade you to admit your daughter in our progressive school.

Regards
Madan Sood
Principal

Answer 6.
Good morning, respected Principal, teachers and students! I, Karuna, am here to deliver a speech on the importance of sports and games in one’s life. Games and sports are an integral part of a student’s life. A student should study hard to be successful in competitive examinations. But, he should also play games and sports to enjoy the health and vigour of life.

Along with bookish learning, a student should spend his time on games and sports. There are many people who give importance only to bookish knowledge. Indeed, there is often no provision for games at all. There are many benefits of games and sports in education. Outdoor games such as football, cricket, badminton, tennis, etc. gradually build our personality. It is completely optional for the students to participate in games and sports and as a matter-of-fact very few take part in school or college games. The training for different branches of games and sports should be given in a scientific way under a good coach, according to the ability and interest of the student.

Inclusion of games in the curriculum of studies is, therefore, very important in modern times. Remember, ‘All work and no play makes Jack a dull boy’. ‘

Thank you

OR

Good morning, respected Principal, teachers and students! Today I am going to speak on ‘Hygiene’ as a way of life. It is a habit that needs to be focused on and inculcated in children at an early age. And it need not be restricted to our bodies alone; it needs to be maintained through our diet and surroundings as well. Let’s see how we can go about this.

Do not eat food from roadside stalls. Such roadside food stalls are the main causes of stomach disorders and water-borne diseases. There is no surety of the quality of the materials that they use.Your favourite samosas can give you a terrible stomach ache! A proverb says that health is wealth. It is truly said that of all things in the world, health is the most valuable that one can possess. Money is no doubt a pleasant thing. However, it can give no pleasure to a man of ruined health. As body and mind are closely connected, the mind cannot be sound and cheerful without sound health. Wholesome food gives good health. Vegetables and many other things that we generally take are nutritious food. A mixed diet is the best food for us. Stale and rotten food is dangerous for health. I hope you will adopt healthy eating habits for your good health.

Thank you

Answer 7.

College Life
By Navtej

Many young adults seem to believe that college life is filled with parties and typically a laid-back lifestyle. They imagine a lifestyle with no other worries besides occasional tasks. It is often said that college is the greatest time of one’s life; many high school students believe this and look forward to it. Some enjoy the idea of being able to come to class late, leave when they want, and pretty much have say-so of their own lives now that their parents are out of the picture. The majority of freshmen enter college picturing it an easy and fun-filled ride.

College is a very important part of your life because it is going to prepare you mentally and physically for your future. Higher studies equip you with knowledge, skills that give you the required leverage for a fulfilling career. It is the time for greater exposure to a variety of people, and different ideas. It is truly the time for building one’s personality, understanding oneself, exercising independence and realizing one’s potential.

No doubt college life is exciting but it also comes with its share of responsibilities.

OR

Akash Public Scool Hosts English Debate
By Navita

Agra, 8th September: An Inter house English Debate competition for the juniors (standard IX and X) was held on 7th September, 20xx. The format of the debate was a bit different as the day witnessed the prelims wherein Narmada and Cauvery had to debate on the topic, ‘Does the Present Education System Provide Holistic Education?’ Whereas the other two houses Ganga and Godavari exhibited their debating skills on the topic, ‘RTE: A Boon for the Underprivileged’.

The competition was judged by Mrs. Prabhjot and Mrs. Shanti Sateesh and moderated by Monisha C S and Deeksha Arora. It was very evident that the teams were well prepared and they used various skills like overstatement, definition, irony, etc. to convince the audience. The participants, armed with statistics and data made their arguments more emphatic with their facial expressions, body movement and gestures. All the four teams exhibited great oratorical skills but finally the two teams that were declared winners were Ganga and Narmada. Mrs. Prabhjot said, “The standard of the debate was awesome.” The final will be held shortly and it is expected to be laced with more nail biting moments and an intense face off.

Answer 8.

(a) Trees appear to be sprinting because of the relative motion of the moving car in which the poet is seated.
(b) The poet looked at her mother again because she was leaving and wanted to see her pale and weak face lest this should be the last time.
(c) She observed how wan and pale her mother had become.
(d) The figure of speech is simile. The pale and dull visage of the mother has been compared to the late winter moon.

OR

(a) The children belong to the slums in which the elementary school is situated.
(b) Their frail, undernourished bodies are like garbage heaps or slag.
(c) The children are so weak and thin that it appears as if their bones are visible through their skins.
(d) This refers to the broken and mended lenses of the spectacles they are wearing.

Answer 9.

(a) Garbage was a means of survival to the adult ragpickers of Seemapuri. Their daily bread depended on it. While for the children it was like gold, since they sometimes found money in it. So they were motivated to scrounge in the garbage heaps.

(b) Rajkumar Shukla is being described as being ‘resolute’ because he was fully determined to take Gandhi to Bihar. Being an illiterate and poor share-cropper from Champaran, he had come to apprise and complain to Gandhi about the injustice of the landlord system in Bihar. He met Gandhi in the Lucknow session of the Congress. He was too committed to accompany Gandhi everywhere. Gandhi was very much impressed by his tenacity and fixed time for Calcutta. Months passed in waiting. Shukla was sitting at the haunches at the fixed place in Calcutta, till Gandhi was free. Finally both boarded a’ train to Patna.

(c) Geoff spoke little. Words had to be prized out of him like stones out of the ground. Sophie was jealous of his silence. She knew when he was not speaking, he was away somewhere. He was out in the world in those places she had never been. She wanted to share her brother’s affections. He was more tolerant of her wild stories than her father. He did not believe her but wasn’t harsh to her.

(d) In spite of Zitkala-Sa’s hard struggle for not letting her hair be shingled, her long hair is forcefully removed. In ‘The Cutting of My Long Hair’ She describes how she suffered extreme indignities. She tried to maintain her identity and her distinct culture of native America. The British colonizers wanted to stamp their own ways on her personality. This is an example of racial discrimination. Bama a dalit, on the other hand suffered due to caste system prevalent in India. Both fight discrimination through education and spreading awareness about it through their writings.

(e) Mr Lamb is a physically challenged man. He has got a tin leg. The real one got blown off, years back. Children tease him calling him “Lamey – Lamb”. But Mr Lamb never minds such things. He has a positive attitude towards life. He likes to talk and have company. He is open and never shuts himself in.

Mr Lamb’s meeting with Derry brings a turning point in Derry’s life. He gives confidence to Derry. He persuades him that he can get better than rest of the people. He should stop hating people. Hatred burns oneself away inside. Derry should take life as it is. This leaves a deep impression on Derry.

(f) Aunt Jennifer’s terrified hands are referred to in the third stanza. The old unhappy memories are still fresh in her mind. During her married life, she had passed through difficult times. These ordeals have crushed and suppressed her. Aunt Jennifer is still ringed with those ordeals that dominated her life.

Answer 10.

Education brings and prosperity, honour, equality and dignity. Bama was inspired by her elder brother’s words on education. She studied hard and stood first in the class. Then many friends came to her on their own accord. Education is the only tool to end discrimination as it subscribes to the principles of merit and sincerity. It can rise above the considerations of caste, race, creed, religion and gender which have been plaguing our world since time immemorial. Thus it is secular and progressive and open for all. Both Bama and Zitkala-Sa took recourse to education as an antidote to the discrimination and humiliation that they experienced in their lives. They grew up to be noted writers spreading awareness against discrimination through their writing.

OR

Superstition is blind belief. It is irrational yet it exists in the human mind in varying degrees. It hampers the progress of society and compels people to commit foolish and dangerous actions. In the story ‘The Tiger King1 the astrologer predicted that the tiger king would be killed by the hundredth tiger.

So the Maharaja began his campaign of tiger-hunting with rare single-mindedness. Within a span of ten years he killed 70 tigers. It was his master strategy to marry a girl of a state which had a large tiger population. So he was able to kill 99 tigers in all.

The tiger king could pay any price to maintain his kingdom. He had to give a bribe worth three lakh rupees to a high ranking British official to retain his kingdom. He could be hot-headed and doubled the tax on the people. It is ironical that the King met his death by a tiger, albeit a wooden one. At last, the hundredth tiger took revenge upon him and the superstition prevailed.

Answer 11.
Two French speaking districts of Alsace and Lorraine came under German occupation. German language was imposed on the people of Alsace. M. Hamel, a school teacher, broke this shocking news to his students. He declared that a new teacher would replace him to teach German. The news aroused regret and patriotic feelings in students as well as the villagers. The villagers were filled with regret that when they had all the time in the world they procrastinated learning their language under many pretexts. Now they had lost that opportunity to learn their own language. So the village elders came to the school to listen to the last lesson in French. The small children were extraordinarily n attentive to their learning that day. Franz regretted not valuing M. Hamel’s teaching. Hamel described French the most beautiful language in the world. Everyone listened to him with rapt attention and respect.

OR

Sophie is a school going girl. She lives in a dream world which has distant relation with the harsh realities of life. She dreams of big and beautiful things beyond her reach or her means. She thinks of having a boutique. Then she entertains the idea of being an actress and a fashion designer too. Here she is poles apart from her classmate and friend i Jansie. Jansie is realistic and practical. Sophie’s romantic and dreamy disposition leads her to hero-worship. The hero of her dreams is the young Irish wonder-footballer Danny Casey. She has developed a romantic fascination for him. Even Geoff cautions her that Casey is a celebrity. She sits for hours imagining Danny Casey coming to her. She knows that he will never come. She becomes sad but helpless. She lives with all her dreams and disappointments. They are not real. They are all the creations of her mind.

Answer 12.
In Lantern Yard, Silas had a close friend named William Dane. One day the elder deacon fell ill and had to be tended day and night by members of the congregation, as he was a childless widower. During Silas’ watch, a bag of money disappeared from a drawer by the deacon’s bed. Silas’ knife was found in the drawer, but Silas swore that he was innocent 1 and asked that his room be searched. The empty bag is found there by William Dane. William had deliberately placed Silas’s knife in the drawer when he stole the money. Silas remembers that he had last used the knife to cut a strap for William. Thus Silas is framed by William for stealing the money. In order to find out the truth, the church members resorted to prayer and drawing of lots, and found Silas guilty. A month later William Dane married Silas’ fiancee.

OR

The burglary occurs in the house of Mr. Bunting in the small hours of the morning. Mrs. Bunting, the vicar’s wife, wakes up at the sound of bare feet walking through her house. She .wakes her husband and the two watch and listen as a candle is lit and papers are rustled in the study. When they hear the telltale clink of money, Rev. Bunting rushes into the study with a raised poker, but the room appears to be empty. Their money disappears and at one point they hear a sneeze in the hallway but are unable to locate or see the intruder. The Buntings are astonished that there.is so much movement yet there is no sign of the agent of these amazing happenings. They have no explanation for what they witness in their house.

Answer 13.
It is true that one who does evil will be surely visited by evil. The example of Dunstan Cass in the novel Silas Mamer amply proves this.

Dunstan Cass is a reckless, manipulative man who will do anything or say anything to get what he wants. Godfrey’s younger brother, Dunsey, as he is usually called, is cruel, lazy, and unscrupulous, and he loves gambling and drinking. He is attracted to greed and wealth, and has no conscience whatsoever. He blackmails Godfrey with the secret of Godfrey’s marriage to Molly who is a drunkard and steals poor Silas Marner’s money. In most part of his life, Dunstan gets away with being very nasty to almost everyone never having to face the consequences. However, this luck is quickly reversed when he dies by falling into a stone pit shortly after stealing Silas’ money. It is true that one reaps what one sows.

OR

Mr. Hall and Mrs. Hall are two interesting minor characters in the novel The Invisible Man. They have married recently. Of the two Mrs. Hall is the bolder and more enterprising. She runs the Coach and Horses Inn. Her business skills are on full display when Griffin comes to the inn. She offers him every possible service. She is talkative and appreciates getting a customer in the freezing cold of February. Mr. Hall on the other hand runs a cart. He is much dominated over by Mrs. Hall. He is slow and dense that why is not much trusted by his wife. However he gets the better of her once, when he points out that she had given lodgings to the queer stranger without ascertaining his identity. Mrs. Hall has a show down with the stranger over nonpayment of bills, following which the stranger is compelled to reveal his identity. Her tough stand in this regard brings out her business minded and shrewd nature, once more.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Englsih Core Paper 6 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 6, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 6.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 6

Board	CBSE
Class	XII
Subject	Biology
Sample Paper Set	Paper 6
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 6 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Biology is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. There are total 26 questions and five sections in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A contains question number 1 to 5, Very Short Answer Type Questions of one mark each.
3. Section B contains question number 6 to 10, Short Answer Type Questions of two marks each.
4. Section C contains question number 11 to 22, Short Answer Type Questions of three marks each.
5. Section D contains question number 23, Value Based Question of four mark.
6. Section E contains question number 24 to 26, Long Answer Type Questions of five marks each.
7. There is no overall choice in the question paper, however, an internal choice is provided in one question of two marks, one question of three marks and all three questions of five marks. An examiner is to attempt any one of the question out of the two given in the question paper with the same question number.
8. No. of printed pages are three.

SECTION-A

Question 1.
What is coleorhiza?

Question 2.
What is the advantage of use of biotechnology in molecular biology over traditional pathological tests?

Question 3.
What are cleistogamous flowers?

Question 4.
How is Agrobacterium tumefaciens considered useful?

Question 5.
Which attribute of human population do the following figures represent?

SECTION-B

Question 6.
What are the basic steps involved in genetically modifying an organism?

Question 7.
Explain the four types of barriers of Innate immunity.

Question 8.
What do you mean by inbreeding depression? How this problem should be solved during animal breeding?

OR

Write with examples, how use of microbes helps us to make different types of cheese with specific texture & flavors?

Question 9.
S strain → Inject into mice→ ……
….. → Inject into mice → Mice live
Complete the diagram above. What was this experiment about and who performed it?

Question 10.
What may be the reasons for low productivity of ocean?

SECTION-C

Question 11.
Discuss the barrier methods for contraception.

Question 12.
An individual has genotype with an extra chromosome 21.
(a) What is this disorder called?
(b) What will be the physical appearance?

Question 13.
Discuss the role of microbes in sewage treatment

Question 14.
What is DNA finger printing? On what principle does it work? Mention its two applications.

OR

Explain Miller’s experiment to prove the ‘theory of chemical origin of life’ as proposed by Oparin and Haldane.

Question 15.
Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis with a diagram.

Question 16.
What are the advantages of GM plants?

Question 17.
What do you understand by the term bio-pesticide? Name and explain the mode of action of a popular bio-pesticide

Question 18.
Represent schematically the life cycle of malarial parasite.

Question 19.
Compare and contrast: isogamy and anisogamy. With examples.

Question 20.
Answer the following:  
(a) Expand IUT.
(b) In which part of the female reproductive system the 8-celled embryo will be transferred during test tube baby programme.

Question 21.
Halpoid content of human DNA is 3.3 x 10⁹ bp and the distance between 2 consecutive bp is 0.34x 10^-9. What is the length of the DNA molecule?

Question 22.
Explain convergent evolution with examples.

SECTION-D

Question 23.
Rakhi and her parents were watching a TV serial in the evening. During a commercial break, an advertisement flashed on the screen which was promoting use of sanitary napkins. Rakhi was still watching the TV. The parents got embarrassed and changed the channel. Rakhi objected to her parent’s behaviour and explained the need for these advertisements.
(a) What values did the parents show?
(b) Briefly describe the phases of a menstrual cycle.

SECTION-E

Question 24.
Plant breeding programmes are carried out in a systematic way worldwide. Explain the five main steps in breeding a new genetic variety.

OR

Why are CO₂, CH₄, N₂Oetc known as greenhouse gases?
Why is CNG better than Diesel?

Question 25.
What are chromosomal disorders?

OR

(a) Explain primary productivity and the factors that influence it. 5
(b) Describe how oxygen and chemical composition of detritus control decomposition.

Question 26.
Draw schematically a single polynucleotide strand (with at least three nucleotides). Provide labels and directions.

OR

What are the post pollination events? Explain it.

Answers

SECTION-A

Answer 1.
In embryos of monocots the root cap and radicle are enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath called coleorhiza.

Answer 2.
Biotechnological methods make early diagnosis possible to detect a disease and start treatment at an early stage rather conventional methods of diagnosis where it is not possible.

Answer 3.
Self pollinating flowers in which stamens and pistil are in close proximity.

Answer 4.
Agrobacterium tumefaciens help a tumor causing gene in the bacteria to be substituted with a gene of interest and its introduction into plants.

Answer 5.
The figures represent the age pyramids of human population as Expanding Stable and Declining

SECTION-B

Answer 6.
Three basic steps involved in genetically modifying an organism are:

1. Identification of DNA with desirable genes.
2. Introduction of the identified DNA into the host.
3. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.

Answer 7.
Innate immunity consists of four types of barriers. These are:

1. Physical barriers: Skin on our body is the main barrier which prevents entry of the micro­organisms.
2. Physiological barriers: Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes-all prevent microbial growth.
3. Cellular barriers: Certain types of leukocytes (WBC) of our body like polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) and monocyte can phagocytose and destroy microbes.
4. Cytokine barriers: Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called interferons which protect non-infected cells from further viral infection.

Answer 8.
Continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding, usually reduces fertility and even productivity. This is called inbreeding depression. This problem can be solved by selecting animals of the breeding population to be mated with unrelated superior animals of the same breed which usually helps restore fertility and yield.

OR

The specificity of texture, flavour and taste in different variety of cheese comes from microbes used. For example,

1. The large holes in ‘Swiss Cheese’ are due to production of a large amount of CO, by Propionibacterium sharmanii.
2. The ‘Roquefort cheese’ are ripended by growing a specific fungi on them, which gives them a particular flavor

Answer 9.
S strain → Inject into mice → Mice die
R strain → Inject into mice →Mice live

Answer 10.
Low productivity of ocean is due to:

1. Lack of light.
2. High salinity.
3. High pressure and
4. Waves and tides

Answer 11.
Various barrier methods available for both males and females are:

(1) Condoms: Barriers made of thin rubber/latex sheath that are used to cover the penis in the male or vagina and cervix in the female, just before coitus so that the ejaculated semen would not enter into the female reproductive tract.

(2) Diaphragms, Cervical Caps and Vaults: Barriers made of rubber that are inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus. They prevent conception by blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix. They are reusable. Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are usually used along with these barriers to increase their contraceptive efficiency.

(3) Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs): These devices are inserted by doctor or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina. These are presently available as the non-medicated IUDs (g., Lippes loop), copper releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375) and the hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert, LNG-20). IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms. The hormone releasing IUDs, in addition, make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms.

Answer 12.
An individual has genotype with an extra chromosome 21.
(a) The disorder is called Down’s syndrome or trisomy of 21.
(b) The affected individual is short statured with small round head, furrowed tongue and partially open mouth. Palm is broad with characteristic palm crease. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.

Answer 13.
Heterotrophic microbes naturally present in the sewage plays a major role in the treatment of sewage which is carried out in two stages:

Primary Treatment: This initially involves removal of floating debris by sequential filtration followed by grit (soil and small pebbles) removal by sedimentation. All solids that settle down form the primary sludge, and the supernatant forms the effluent. The effluent from the primary settling tank is taken for secondary treatment.

Secondary Treatment or Biological Treatment: The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks where it is constantly agitated mechanically and air is pumped into it. This allows vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into floes. The significantly reduced BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) of the effluent is then passed into a setting tank where the bacterial ‘floes’ are allowed to form activiated sludge. A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration tank to serve as the inoculum. The remaining major part of the sludge is pumped into anaerobic sludge digesters, where, other kinds of bacteria digest the bacteria and the fungi in the sludge. During this digestion, bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. These gases form biogas and can be used as source of energy as it is inflammable.

Answer 14.
DNA finger printing is a genetic molecular method that identifies and evaluates an individual from another individual on the basis of unique patterns (polymorphisms) in their DNA. DNA finger printing works on a principle of repetitive DNA sequences that gives a unique identity to an individual. These repetitive DNA are separated from bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during density gradient centrifugation and categories, into micro-satellites, mini-satellites. These sequence normally do not code for any proteins, but they form a large portion of human genome. These sequence show high degree of polymorphism and form the basis of DNA finger printing. Its two applications are:

1. As an identification tool in forensics.
2. Paternity testing, in case of disputes.

OR

Oparin and Haldane proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules (e.g. RNA, protein, etc.) and that formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution, i.e. formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constitutents. The conditions on earth were—high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH₄, NH_r Miller created similar conditions in a laboratory scale. He created electric discharge in a closed flask containing CH₄, H₂, NH₃ and water vapour at 8000° C. He observed formation of amino acids. In similar experiments others observed, formation of sugars, nitrogen bases, pigment and fats. Analysis of meteorite content also revealed similar compounds indicating that similar processes are occurring else where in space.

Answer 15.

Answer 16.
Genetically Modified crops/plants have the following advantages:

1. Crops are more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat).
2. Have reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops).
3. Helpful in reduction of post harvest losses.
4. Plants have increased efficiency of mineral usage to prevent early exhaustion of fertility of soil.
5. Crops yield enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g., Vitamin ‘A’ enriched rice.
6. Tailor-made plants have created alternative resources for industries, in the form of starches, fuels and pharmaceuticals.

Answer 17.
Bio-pesticides are derived from natural materials such as animals, plants, bacteria and certain minerals. This microbial bio-control agents that is used to control butterfly caterpillars is the bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis (often written as Bt). These are mixed with water and sprayed onto vulnerable plants such as brasssicas and fruit trees, where these are eaten by the insect larvae. In the gut of the larvae, the toxin is released and the larvae get killed. The bacterial disease will kill the caterpillars, but leave other insects unharmed.method of controlling pests relies on natural predation rather than introduced chemicals. An example of B. thuringiensis toxin genes has also been introduced with the help of genetic engineering into plants which offers resistance to insect pests. Bt-cotton is one such example

Answer 18.

Answer 19.

Isogamy	Anisogamy
1. fusing gametes do not differ morphologically.	1. Fusing gametes differ in size or motility.
2. Male & female gamete cannot be categories.	2. Male gamete is called antherozoid or sperm and female gamete is called egg or ovum.
3. Take place in unicellular organisms, e.g., Alga	3. Take place in some fungi and higher vertebrates, i.e., human beings.

Answer 20.
(a) IUT stands for Intra Uterine transfer. The 8-celled embryo developed by In-vitro fertilization or ICSI is transferred in this technique.
(b) The 8-celled embryo is transferred to the uterus.

Answer 21.
Haploid content is 3.3 x 10⁹
Therefore, diploid content is 6.6 x 10⁹ Distance between bp is 0.34 x 10^-9
Therefore length is diploid content x distance between bp = 6.6 x 10⁹ x 0.34 x 10 ⁹ = 2.24 m

Answer 22.
Convergent evolution occurs when more than one adaptive radiation appear to have occurred in an isolated geographical area of different habitats. The analogous organs have almost similar appearance and perform the same function but develop in different groups and are totally different in their basic structure and development origin. For example, Darwins’ Finches and Australian Marsupials where each marsupial differ from each other.

SECTION-D

Answer 23.
(a) The parents were traditional but understood the need for such advertisements. They showed maturity and openness later.
(b)

1. Menstrual phase
2. Proliferative phase
3. Ovulatory phase
4. Secretory phase.

Phases of Menstrual Cycle
Phases	Days	Events
Menstrual phase	1st-5th	Menstruation begins when the endometrium breaks down. The cells of endometrium, secretions, blood and the unfertilised ovum constitute the mentmal flow. Progesterone production is reduced.
Proliferative phase	6th-13th	Endometrium rebuilds, FSEI creation and estrogen’s secretion increase.
Ovulatory phase	14th	Both LH and FSH attain a peak level. Concentration of estrogen in the blood is also high and reaches its peak. Ovulation occurs.
Secretory phase	15th-28th	Corpus luteum secretes progesterone. Endometrium thickens and uterine glands become secretory.

Answer 24.
The main steps in breeding a new genetic variety of a crop are as follows:

(1) Collection of Variability: The entire collection of plants/seeds having all the diverse alleles for all genes including all the different wild varieties, species and relative of the cultivated species in a given crop called as germplasm collection, is collected.

(2) Evaluation and Selection of Parents: The germplasm is evaluated so as to identity plants with desirable combination of characters. The selected plants are multiplied and used in the process of hybridization.

(3) Cross Hybridization among the Selected Parents: The desired characters are combined from two different plants (parents), to produce hybrids that genetically combine the desired characters in one plant. This is a very time-consuming and tedious process since the pollen grains from the desirable plant chosen as male parent have to be collected and placed on the stigma of the flowers selected as female parent. Usually only one in few hundred to a thousand crosses shows the desirable combination, for example high protein quality of one parent may need to be combined with disease resistance from another parent.

(4) Selection and Testing of Superior Recombinants: Progency plants that are superior to both of the parents are selected. The selection process is crucial to the success of breeding objective and requires careful scientific evaluation of the progency.

(5) Testing, Release and Commercialization of new Cultivars: The newly selected lines are evaluated for their yield and other agronomic traits of quality, disease resistance etc. The material is then evaluated in comparison to the best available local crop cultivar usually by a check or reference cultivar.

Answer 25.

Chromosomal Disorders	Causes	Affects
1. Down’s Syndrome	By the presence of an additional copy of chromosome number 21, Trisomy.	Individual is short statured with small round head, furrowed tongue and partially open mouth. Palm is broad with palm crease. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
2. Klinefelter’s Syndrome	By the presence of an additional copy of X chromosome resulting into Karyotpye of 47, XXY.	Masculine and feminine development and sterilisation.
3. Turner’s Syndrome	Due to the absence of one of the X chromosome 45 with X20.	Such females are sterile as ovaries are rudimentary and lack other secondary sexual characters.

OR 

(a) Primary productivity is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area
over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. It is expressed in terms of weight (g ²) or energy
(kcal nr²). It is also expressed in terms of g ² yr¹ or (kcal nr²) yr¹ to compare the productivity of different ecosystems.

It is divided into gross primary productivity (GPP), net primary productivity (NPP) and secondary productivity.

Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter ditfing photosynthesis.

Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers), i.e., NPP = GPP – R.

Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of-formation of new organic matter by consumers.

The factors on which primary productivity depends are: (z) Plant species inhabiting a particular area, (ii) On a variety of environmental factors such as availability of nutrients. (iii) Photosynthetic capacity of plants.

(b) Decomposition is an oxygen-requiring process. The rate of decomposition is controlled by both chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors. In a particular climatic condition, decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin, and quicker, if detritus is rich in nitrogen and water-soluble substances like sugars. Temperature and soil moisture are the most important climatic factors that regulate decomposition through their effects on the activities of soil microbes. Warm and moist environment favour decomposition whereas low temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition resulting in build up of organic matter.

Answer 26.

The post pollination events are:
1. The pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a pollen tube through one of the germ pores.
2. The contents of the pollen grain move into the pollen tube. Pollen tube grows through the tissues of the stigma and style and reaches the ovary.
3. The generative cell divides and forms the two male gametes during the growth of pollen tube in the stigma.
4. Pollen tube, after reaching the ovary, enters the ovule through the micropyle and then enters one of the synergids through the filiform apparatus.
All these events are together referred to as pollen-pistil interaction also.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4

Board	CBSE
Class	XII
Subject	Chemistry
Sample Paper Set	Paper 4
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Chemistry is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions

• All questions are compulsory.
• Question number 1 to 5 are very short answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
• Question number 6 to 10 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
• Question number 11 to 22 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
• Question number 23 is a value based question and carry 4 marks.
• Question number 24 to 26 are long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
• Use log table, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Questions 

Question 1.
Name the compound which shows frenkel as well as schottky defect.

Question 2.
Arrange the following according to increasing boiling point: 2-Bromobutane, 2-Bromo-2- methyl propane, 1-Bromopropane and 1-Bromobutane.

Question 3.
A gas is passed through suspension of AgCl in water leads to dissolution of AgCl. Name the gas.

Question 4.
What causes Brownian movement?

Question 5.
Write structure of toluidine.

Question 6.
Give the magnetic behaviour of the following complexes
(a) [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(b) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-

Question 7.
Write the chemical reaction for the following preparations:
(a) Sodium chromate from chromite ore
(b) Potassium permangnate from potassium mangnate
OR
Complete the following chemical equations:

1. MnO^–₄ (aq) + S₂O^2-₃ →
2. Cr₂O^2-₇ + I^– \(\underrightarrow { { H }^{ + } } \)

Question 8.
Write the mechanism of the following reaction:
CH₂ = CH₂ \(\underrightarrow { { dil.H }_{ 2 }{ SO }_{ 4 } } \) CH₃CH₂OH

Question 9.
From the given cells:
Ni-Cd cell, Mercury cell, Fuel cell and Dry cell. Answer the following:

1. Which can be used in transistor?
2. Which can be used to produce energy most efficiently?
3. Which cell has longer life?
4. Which cell is used in quartz watches?

Question 10.
Distiniguish between order and molecularity of a chemical reaction.

Question 11.
The rate constant for a first order reaction becomes eight times when the temperature is increased from 360 K to 400 K. Calculate the activation energy for the reaction.

Question 12.
Complete the following reactions:

Question 13.
An element crystallises in f.c.c. lattice with cell edge of 250 pm. Calculate the density of 300 g of this element that contains 2 x 10²⁴ atoms.

Question 14.
Explain the following terms:

1. Electrophoresis
2. Dialysis
3. Tyndall effect

Question 15.
Give reasons for:

1. Cd²⁺ salts are white in colour.
2. Out of Mn³⁺ and Cr³⁺, Mn³⁺ is a stronger oxidising agent.
3. Actinoids are known as rare earth elements.

Question 16.
Carry out the following conversions:
(a) Benzene to m-nitro acetophenone
(b) Benzaldehyde to benzophenone
(c) Propanone to propene

Question 17.

1. Why is froth floatation process selected for the concentration of sulphide ores?
2. What is the role of NaCN in froth floatation process?
3. Discuss the role of SiO₂ in extraction of Cu from copper matte?

Question 18.
Write the Nemst equation and calculate the emf of the following cell at 298 K.
Sn/Sn²⁺ (0.050 M) || H+(0.020 M) | H₂(s) (1 bar) | Pt(s)

Question 19.

1. Name the water soluble component of starch.
2. Define peptide linkage
3. Name an amine hormone

Question 20.

1. How is double salt different from co-ordination compounds?
2. What are primary and secondary valencies according to Werner’s theory?
3. Write the IUPAC name for ionisation isomer of [Co(CH₃NH₂)₂(NH₃)₃Br] SO₄.

Question 21.
Give the structure of A, B and C in the following reactions:

Question 22.
(a) Write the monomer of
(i) Glyptal
(ii) Neoprene
(b) Arrange the following according to increasing intermolecular forces: Elastomers, fibres, thermoplastics.

Question 23.
Shilpa, a domestic helper of Mrs. Reeta, had a wound on her leg but she was negligent for the same. Reeta applied dettol on her wound and asked her to go to the doctor if it does not get cured. Answer the following questions:

1. What type of substance can be used for external injuries (like cuts, currents etc.)?
2. Name the components of dettol.
3. Name two more substance used for the same purpose.
4. What are values displayed by Mrs. Reeta?

Question 24.
(a) Why is there a larger difference in the boiling points of butanal and butan-l-ol?
(b) Distinguish between
(i) Ethanal and propanal
(ii) methanamine and N-methylmethanamine
(c) Arrange according to the increasing order of their acidic strength:
C₆H₅COOH, FCH₂COOH, NO₂CH₂COOH
(d) Carboxylic acid does not give nucleophilic addition reaction like carbonyl compounds. Explain.

OR
An organic compound having molecular formula (C₉H₁₀O) forms 2, 4-DNP derivative, reduces tollen’s reagent and undergoes cannizaro reaction. On vigrous oxidation it gives 1, 2, 4 benzene tricarboxylic acid. Identify the compound and write all reactions involved in this process.

Question 25.
(a) When 1.92 g of sulphur was dissolved in 100 grams of CS₂, the freezing point will be lowered by 0.383 K. Calculate the formula of S_x associated in CS₂.
(K_f for CS₂ = 3.83 K kg mol^-1, Atomic mass of S = 32 g mol^-1)
(b) Define Van’t Hoff factor. What is its value for dimerisation of ethanoic acid in benzene?

OR
The vapour pressures of pure liquids ‘A’ and ‘B’ are 450 and 700 mm. Hg at 350 K respectively. Find out the composition of the liquid mixture if total vapour pressure is 600 mm Hg. Also find the composition of the vapours of these liquids in vapour phase.

Question 26.
(a) Account for the following:
(i) H₃PO₃ is a diprotic acid
(ii) Decomposition of O₃ molecule is a spontaneous process
(iii) Noble gases have low boiling point.
(b) Draw the structure of
(a) XeF₄
(b) PCl^–₄
OR

1. Why are halogens coloured?
2. What inspired M. Bartlett for carrying out reactions with xenon?
3. Arrange the following in the order of property indicated against each set:
   1. HF, HCl, HBr, HI (Increasing B. Pt)
   2. H₃PO₂, H₃PO₄, H₃PO₃ (Increasing acidic nature)
   3. NH₃, PH₃, AsH₃ (Increasing Bond angle)

Answers

Answer 1.
AgBr.

Answer 2.
1-Bromopropane < 2-Bromo-2-methyl propane < 2-Bromopropane < 1-Bromobutane

Answer 3.

Answer 4.
Unbalanced bombardment of particles of dispersion medium with particles of dispersed phase causes Brownian movement.

Answer 5.

Answer 6.

Answer 7.

OR

1. MnO^–₄ + S₂O^2-₃ → MnO₂ + SO^2-₄ + 2OH^–
2. Cr₂O^2-₇ + I^– \(\underrightarrow { { H }^{ + } } \) Cr³⁺ + I₂ + H₂O

Answer 8.
H₂SO₄ + H₂O → H₃O⁺ + HSO^–₄
Protonation of ethene

Addition of water

Answer 9.

1. Dry cell
2. Fuel cell
3. Ni-Cd cell
4. Mercury cell

Answer 10.

Order	Molecularity
(i) It is the sum of powers of all the reactants present in the rate law equation.	(i) It is the sum of powers of all the reactants present in the law of mass action equation.
(ii) It is based on experiment.	(ii) It is based on balanced chemical reaction.
(iii) It can be zero, fraction, positive and a negative integer	(iii) It cannot be zero or fraction, only positive integral value is possible.
(iv) Applicable for all types of reactions.	(iv) Applicable only for elementary reactions.

Answer 11.
If rate constant at 360 K is K, then at 400 K it will be 8K.
From Arrhenius equation

Answer 12.

Answer 13.
From question:
Z = 4
a = 250 pm = 250 × 10^-10 cm
mass of sample = 300 g
Number of particles in sample = 2 × 10²⁴ atoms
Since d = \(\frac { Zm }{ { a }^{ 3 }n } \)
where m = mass of sample, n = no. of particles in the sample

d = 38.4 g/cm³

Answer 14.

1. Electrophoresis : The movement of colloidal particles towards oppositely charged electrode in an electric field is called electrophoresis.
2. Dialysis : It is the process of eliminating dissolved substances from a colloidal solution by means of diffusion through a suitable membrane.
3. Tyndall effect : When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution placed in dark, the path of light becomes visible on viewing from right angle to the direction of passage of light. It is due to scattering of light by particles of dispersion phase and this effect is known as Tyndall effect.

Answer 15.

1. Cd²⁺ ion posses 4d¹⁰ electronic configuration it means there is no unpaired electron and due to this Cd²⁺ salts are white in colour.
2. Mn²⁺ has 3d⁵, half filled stable electronic configuration. As a result Mn³⁺ acts as a stronger oxidising agent than Cr³⁺ which has half filled f configuration which makes Cr³⁺ more stable and it does not act as an oxidising agent.
3. Other than first five elements belonging to actinoide series all are prepared in laboratory by nuclear transmutation, so they are known as rare earth elements.

Answer 16.

Answer 17.

1. Sulphide ores are preferentially wetted by oil and easily come out as froth, so froth floatation process is used for such ores.
2. NaCN prevents the formation of undesirable froth, hence it acts as a depressent during froth floatation process.
   For example, during the concentration of PbS, ZnS is prevented to come as the froth by NaCN by making a complex.
   NaCN + ZnS → Na₂[ZnCN)₄] + Na₂S
3. SiO₂ combines with FeO present in copper matte to form the slag.
   FeO + SiO₂ → FeSiO₃

Answer 18.
For the given cell
Reaction at anode: Sn → Sn²⁺ + 2e^–
Reaction at cathode: 2H⁺ + 2e^– → H₂(g)
Net reaction: Sn(s) + 2H⁺(aq) → Sn²⁺(aq) + H₂(g)

Answer 19.

1. Amylase is the water soluble part of starch. (It is a straight chain polymer of a-glucose attached with a-glycosidic linkage)
2. The amino acids are linked with one another through
   
   linkage (amide linkage) which is known as peptide linkage in protein chemistry.
3. Thyroxine

Answer 20.

1. Double salts as well as co-ordination compounds are formed by the combination of two or more stable compounds in stoichiometric ratio. But double salt get dissociated into constituent simple ions completely when dissolved in water. On the other hand complex ions present in co-ordination compounds do not get dissociated into constituent ions. Examples- double salt- Mohr salt, Potash atom
   Complexes – [Fe(CN)₆]⁴ and K₂[PtCl₆]
2. Ionisable valencies are normally known as primary valency. On the other hand non ionisable valencies are known as secondary valencies.
3. Ionisation isomer of given complex is [Co(CH₃NH₂) (NH₃)₃Br] SO₄
   IUPAC Name : Triammine dimethanminebromocobalt (III) sulphate

Answer 21.

Answer 22.
(a) (i) Glyptal

(ii) Neoprene

(b) Elastomers < Thermoplastics < fibres

Answer 23.

1. Antiseptics
2. Chloroxylenol, pine oil, isopropanol, castor oil, soap and water.
3. Iodoform, Tincture of iodine (2-3% I₂ solution in ethanol-water mixture), soframycine, furacine etc. (any two)
4. Concern for others, knowledge of chemistry, helping and advising nature, equality for all etc.

Answer 24.
(a) There is intermolecular hydrogen bonding in butan-1-ol which is a stronger attracting force than simple dipole-dipole interatomic interactions of butanal. Hence boiling point of butanol is much higher.
(b) (i)

Reagent	Ethanal	Propanal
NaOH + I2 heat	Yellow ppt. of CHI3 will form	No such precipitation

(ii)

Reagent	Methanamine	N-methylmethanamine
CHCl3 + KOH Heat	Foul smelling substance will form	No such smell

(c) C₆H₅COOH < NO₂CH₂COOH < FCH₂COOH (acidic strength)
(d) In carboxylic acids there is no carbonyl group like aldehydes and ketones, carboxylic group is altogether a different group due to the following resonance structures.

OR
Since compound (C₄H₁₀O)gives 2, 4-DNP derivative and reduces tollen’s reagent, it means it is an aldehyde. On vigrous oxidation it gives 1, 2, 4 benzene tricarboxylic acid, it means other than CHO group there will be two alkyl (methyl) groups on 2 and 4 position w.r.t. CHO on benzene ring. So, the given compound is:

Answer 25.
(a) mass of solute (w_B) = 1.92 g, mass of solvent (w_A) = 100 g
∆T_f = 0.383 K
K_f = 3.83 K Kg mol^-1 for CS₂
To find the formula of S
So the formula of sulphur will be S_x.

(b) Van’t Hoff factor: It is represented by i and it is to account for the extent of dissociation or association of a solute in a solution. This factor i is defined as

For ethanoic acid in benzene:
i = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

OR
From question
P_A° = 450 mm Hg,
P_B° = 700 mm Hg
P_Total = 600 mm Hg
It is to be found that x_A = ?, x_B = ?
If mol fraction in vapour phase is y_A and y_B respectively, they also need to be found,
From Raoult’s law

Answer 26.
(a) (i) H₃PO₃ posses 2 OH^– groups, so it is diprotic

(iii) Among noble gas molecules, there is weak intermolecular van der waals forces only.

OR

1. Halogens absorb light in visible region, hence they are coloured.
2. On the basis of his experiment of O₂ and PtF₆ in which O₂ form 0²⁺ ions in which ionisation energy of O₂ equal to 1175 kJ/mol, hence same reaction may be possible with xenon having ionisation energy 1170 kJ. This thought inspired N. Bartlett to carry out experiments between Xe and PtF₆ to form Xe[PtF₆].
   Xe + PtF₆ → Xe [PtF₆]
3. 1. HCl < HBr < HI < HF
   2. H₃PO₄ < H₃PO₃ < H₃PO₂
   3. ASH₃ < PH₃ < NH₃

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 5 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 5.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Core Paper 5

Board	CBSE
Class	XII
Subject	English Core
Sample Paper Set	Paper 5
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 5 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Englsih Core is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3
hours Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions

• This paper is divided into three sections: A, B and C. All the sections are compulsory.
• Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.Read these instructions very carefully and follow them faithfully.
• Do not exceed the prescribed Word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A
READING (30 MARKS)

Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully. (12 Marks)

1. For four days, I walked through the narrow lanes of the old city, enjoying the romance of being in a city where history still lives — in its cobblestone streets and in its people riding asses, carrying vine leaves and palm as they once did during the time of Christ.

2. This is Jerusalem, home to the sacred sites of Christianity, Islam and Judaism. This is the place that houses the church of the Holy Sepulchre, the place where Jesus was finally laid to rest. This is also the site of Christ’s crucifixion, burial and resurrection.

3. Built by the Roman Emperor Constantine at the site of an earlier temple to Aphrodite, it is the most venerated Christian shrine in the world. And justifiably so. Here, within the church, are the last five stations of the cross, the 10th station where Jesus was stripped of his clothes, the 11th where he was nailed to the cross, the 12th where he died on the cross, the 13th where the body was removed from the cross, and the 14th, his tomb.

4. For all this weighty tradition, the approach and entrance to the church is nondescript. You have to ask for directions. Even to the devout Christian pilgrims walking along the Via Dolorosa — the Way of Sorrows — first nine stations look clueless. Then a courtyard appears, hemmed in by other buildings and a doorway to one side. This leads to a vast area of huge stone architecture.

5. Immediately inside the entrance is your first stop. It’s the stone of anointing: this is the place, according to Greek tradition, where Christ was removed from the cross. The Roman Catholics, however, believe it to be the spot where Jesus’ body was prepared for burial by Joseph.

6. What happened next? Jesus was buried. He was taken to a place outside the city of Jerusalem where other graves existed and there, he was buried in a cave. However, all that is long gone, destroyed by continued attacks and rebuilding; what remains is the massive — and impressive — Rotunda (a round building with a dome) that Emperor Constantine built. Under this, and right in the centre of the Rotunda, is the structure that contains the Holy Sepulchre.

7. “HQW do you know that this is Jesus’ tomb ?” I asked one of the pilgrims standing next to me. He was clueless, more interested, like the rest of them, in the novelty of it all and in photographing it, than in its history or tradition.

8. At the start of the first century, the place was a disused quarry outside the city walls. According to the gospels, Jesus’ crucifixion occurred ‘at a place outside the city walls with graves nearby ’. Archaeologists have discovered tombs from that era, so the site is compatible with the biblical period.

9. The structure at the site is a marble tomb built over the original burial chamber. It has two rooms, and you enter four at a time into the first of these, the Chapel of the Angel. Here the angel is supposed to have sat on a stone to recount Christ’s resurrection. A low door made of white marble, partly worn away by pilgrims’ hands, leads to a smaller chamber inside. This is the ‘room of the tomb’, the place where Jesus was buried.

10. We entered in a single file. On my right was a large marble slab that covered the original rock bench on which the body of Jesus was laid. A woman knelt and prayed. Her eyes were wet with tears. She pressed her face against the slab to hide them, but it only made it worse. (Delhi, All India, Foreign 2015)

I. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option. (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

(a) How does Jerusalem still retain the charm of the ancient era?

1. There are narrow lanes.
2. Roads are paved with cobblestones.
3. People can be seen riding asses.
4. All of the above.

(b) Holy Sepulchre is sacred to:

1. Christianity.
2. Islam.
3. Judaism.
4. Both (i) and (iii).

(c) Why does one have to constantly ask for directions to the church?

1. Its lanes are narrow.
2. Entrance to the church is nondescript.
3. People are not tourist-friendly.
4. Everyone is lost in enjoying the romance of the place.

(d) Where was Jesus buried? ‘

1. In a cave
2. At a place outside the city
3. In the Holy Sepulchre
4. Both (i) and (ii)

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 6 = 6 Marks)

(e) What is the Greek belief about the ‘stone of anointing’?
(f) Why did Emperor Constantine build the Rotunda?
(g) What is the general attitude of the pilgrims?
(h) How is the site compatible with the biblical period?
(i) Why did the pilgrims enter the ‘room of the tomb’ in a single file?
(j) Why did ‘a woman’ try to hide her tears?

III. Find words from the passage which mean the same as: (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(а) A large grave (para 3)
(b) Having no interesting features/dull (para 4)

Question 2.
Read the following passage carefully. (10 Marks)

1. Dussehra and Diwali leave us in a mess-physically speaking. After all the lavish indulgences, our body literally sends signals that it is time we slowed down. And there is a way out—remove the toxins.

2. Most people believe that going on a detox trip is like suffering a crash diet and a method to lose weight, which is wrong notion. Nutrition head of Gold’s Gym, Ashwini Sukumar explains that detoxification has its roots in traditional Chinese medicines that has also been used in ancient India, Asia and Egypt. It is the body’s natural, ongoing process if neutralizing or eliminating toxins from the body. “A detox diet post Diwali blast is for those who want to bring their bodies back to its original condition following festival fun. You may decide to use a detox plan as a regular thing when you begin to feel the benefits and can use the principles again, depending on the extent of detox you are looking to achieve,” she explains.

3. She also explains that it is necessary and important to go on a detox diet after binging on your favourite food. “Many chemicals we ingest daily, through food, water and air, are deposited as fat cells in our bodies. A diet that lacks certain nutrients may also impair our natural ability to detoxify chemicals, which further leads to their build-up in the body. So, it is necessary to go on a detox diet to cleanse all that.” states Ashwini. The benefits include improved digestion, and increased concentration and clarity.

4. Many people also go on such diets to lose weight, is it a good thing? We ask. “If you fast for several days, you will shed weight, no question. But typically, most of the weight loss is water loss and some of it may be muscle tissue. Fasting or detoxing for longer periods can also slow down your metabolism, making it harder to keep the weight off or lose weight later.

5. While, director of Wellness Chi-health, Sheela Krishnaswamy says, “Modern medicine has no scientific belief in detox diets because the liver, kidneys, colon and skin remove waste products from our body on a daily basis, irrespective of what we may eat. But alternate therapists endorse detox diets very strongly, especially after a season of dietary excesses.”

6. She also points out that working on such diets is a new concept. “Earlier women used to prepare sweets and snacks at home. They always knew what ingredients they would use and the preparation would also involve tedious work. Even if they binge, the physical ‘ work that was involved during the preparation of these festivals would help them to cut down on the fat. But now everything is available on the shelf and of late, people prefer buying sweets at stores, where the calorie content is high,” she states.

7. So what does a typical detox process entail? “Cut back on sugary stuff. Have lot of vegetables, fruit juices, coconut water and exercise if you have gained weight. But, remember to detox only for a day or two. “Don’t go on a continuous crash, it will harm your body,” she warns.

I. Answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option: (1 × 2 = 2 Marks)

(a) Detoxing should be done for :

1. weight loss
2. religious reasons around festivals
3. eliminating toxins
4. bringing the body back to its original condition

(b) The writer gives the example of the practice of making sweets at home to prove :

1. homemade sweets are better than the ones available in the market.
2. women loved to make them at home.
3. the tedious and physical work required to make them balanced the calorie intake.
4. that detox is much needed in today’s sedentary lifestyle.

II. Answer the following questions as briefly as possible. (1 × 5 = 5 Marks)

(c) What is the wrong notion harboured by most people about detox diets?
(d) Is it a good to go on an extended diet to lose weight? Why?
(e) Why is it necessary to go on a detox diet?
(f) What comprises the detox process ?
(g) Why does modern science not believe in detox diet?

III. Find words from the passage which are similar in meaning to the following. (1 × 3 = 3 Marks)

(a) intake (para 3)
(b) slow or dull (para 6)
(c) weaken (para 3)

Question 3.
Read the following passage carefully. (8 Marks)

Stress is arguably the greatest killer in the world today. Stress per se does not kill but it leads to several other medical conditions that are killers such as diabetes, hypertension, heart problems, and ulcers. It is important to understand that stress does not occur overnight. It builds up over a period of time. Second, stress knows no gender bias. It affects both men and women. Third, stress has begun to strike early. Youngsters and school students  also fall prey early and this affects them for a very long time. Fourth, stress also has no industry bias. Lastly, stress has begem to take its toll even in areas like sports earlier considered stress busters.

Stress is a mental condition, not one of the body. From a behavioural disease in the past, it has now become pathological since it causes stress changes in the normal physiology of the body. Regardless of how stress is viewed in other systems of medicine, acupuncture tends to classify stress in three ways. First are what can be called over-anticipators— perfectionists and workaholics. These are inveterate chasers of work and when they do not hdve anything to do, they start worrying. The second category is hyperactive people, either children or adults. The third can be called the “doubting Thomases”. They are among the high-risk category of the stress-prone people.

All systems of medicine say the thinking, memory and ‘mind’ are seated in the brain. But in acupuncture, the mind is situated in the Heart Meridian. The heart houses the mind. So anything concerned with behavioural problems, that too in a stressed stage, will see the Heart Meridian being hyperactive, which naturally leads to a stressed state in the brain. For, such people, either adults or children, the Heart Meridian is stimulated for 15 days (30 minutes a day). After a gap of two to eight days, the procedure has to be repeated. After about 90 days, the patient generally becomes normal. Over-anticipators remain mentally active during nights leading to insomnia. Stimulation of their Pericardium Meridian along their Heart Meridian eases their mind and they get a good night’s sleep after 60 sittings. Sometimes over anxiety leads to nightmares and dreams. Disturbance in the Liver Meridian may cause this. This problem is also solved by a 60-day session.

Acupuncture says that when the Gall Bladder Meridian is not working properly, the person will become indecisive. The more they are indecisive, the more confused they become and they go into a state of unidentified stress. For such patients, the Gall Bladder Meridian will be stimulated for 15 days and after a gap of 2-8 days, the procedure will be repeated. A total of 60 days treatment will be required.

Most medical systems work at how to “manage” stress. Consequently it is kept at minimal levels without it being eliminated. However, in Acupuncture, because of superior etiology, causes for the conditions are known. Thus, for these vulnerable groups, Acupuncture is a pure definitive and time bound system.

A. On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it, using headings and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations (wherever necessary—minimum four) and a format you consider suitable. Also supply an appropriate title to it. (5 Marks)

B. Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words. (3 Marks)

SECTION B
ADVANCE WRITING SKILLS (30 MARKS)

Question 4.
Very soon your school is going to be the center for CBSE examinations. You have seen that during lunch break students of junior classes keep going around the examination halls and make all kinds of noises. You are Navtej/Navita, Head Boy / Head Girl, Akash Public School, Ajmer. Write a notice in 50 words warning such students not to go near the examination rooms. (Foreign 2014) (4 Marks)
OR
Fireworks and crackers are known to create pollution during festivals. As an environmentalist design a poster in about 50 words to create awareness of their ill effects. (All India (C) 2015)

Question 5.
You are Arun/Arti, Raja Road, Kanpur. You had placed an order with Ram Book Depot, 4 Mall Road, Delhi for the supply of two books. You wanted to give them as a gift to a friend of yours. On receiving them you were disappointed to find that the books were damaged. Write a complaint letter in 120-150 words to the manager, about your problem. (All India (C) 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
You are Sudhir/ Sita. The Head Boy/Head Girl of ABC Public School, Jayanagar, Bangalore. An excursion has been planned from your school to Mysore. Write a letter to the Secretary, Ace Youth Hostel, Mysore requesting him to provide accommodation for 15 girls and 20 boys for three days. (120-150 words) (Delhi 2014)

Question 6.
Students can contribute significantly to socially useful productive activities like tree plantation, cleanliness, adult literacy, etc. Write an article in 150- 200 words on ‘Students and Social Service’ to be published in the local magazine. You are Jagriti/Jagan. (Delhi 2014) (10 Marks)
OR
You are Jagriti/Jagan, a student of Arunodaya Academy. Your first term examinations are approaching. Write a speech to be delivered in the school assembly on tips for success in examinations.

Question 7.
The social service league of your school celebrated Diwali in a novel way by collecting money and discarded clothes and distributing them along with sweets and crackers to the children at a local orphanage. Write a report in about 150¬200 words for your school magazine as Praneet / Preeti, Secretary of your club. (10 Marks)
OR
You are Winnie/William. The Book Fair which lasted for a month in your city was the topic of all book lovers. Write a report on it for a local daily in about 150-200 words.

SECTION C
TEXTBOOKS AND EXTENDED READING TEXT (40 MARKS)

Question 8.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow : (1 × 4 = 4 Marks)

Spite of despondence, of the inhuman dearth (All India (C) 2015)
Of noble natures, of the gloomy days,
Of all the unhealthy and o’er-darkened ways
Made for our searching: yes, in spite of all,
Some shape of beauty moves away the pall
From our dark spirits.

(a) Name the poem.
(b) Give one cause of human suffering.
(c) What moves the pall away from our lives?
(d) What does the word ‘gloomy’ mean?

OR

and felt that
old
familiar ache, my childhood’s fear,
but all I said was, see you soon,
Amma,
all I did was smile and smile and
smile.

(a) Name the poem.
(b) What was the poet’s childhood fear?
(c) What does her smile signify?
(d) What does the word ‘ache’ mean?

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words each: (4 × 3 = 12 Marks)

(a) At the dining table why did Zitkala- Sa begin to cry when others started eating? (All India 2016)
(b) What will happen when aunt Jennifer is dead? (Foreign 2015)
(c) What does the poem ‘Keeping Quiet’ teach us? (All India (C) 2015)
(d) What was the bulletin board news that caused a change in the school (The Last Lesson)? (All India (C) 2015)
(e) Why did the servants leave Dr. Sadao’s household?
(f) What explanation did ‘McLeery’ give for carrying the rubber tube in Evans’ cell?

Question 10.
Giving bribe is an evil practice. How did the tiger king bribe the British officer to save his kingdom? How do you view this act of his? (120-150 words) (Delhi, Foreign 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
How did Dr. Sadao help the POW to escape? What humanitarian values do you find in his act? (Delhi, Foreign 2015)

Question 11.
Describe the difficulties the bangle makers of Firozabad have to face in their lives? (120-150 words) (Delhi 2015) (6 Marks)
OR
The order from Berlin aroused a particular zeal in the school. Comment. (Foreign 2015)

Question 12.
As a scientist, how is Kemp different from Griffin? (120-150 words) (Foreign 2015) (6 marks)
OR
Bring out the character of Priscilla in the novel, Silas Marner. (120-150 words)

Question 13.
What disadvantages did Griffin face due to invisibility? (120-150 words) (6 Marks)
OR
In what way did Godfrey change in the novel, Silas Marner? (120-150 words)

ANSWERS

Answer 1.

I. (a) (iv) All of the above
(b) (i) Christianity
(c) (ii) Entrance to the church is nondescript
(d) (iv) Both (i) and (ii)

II. (e) According to the Greek belief, the stone of anointing is the place where Christ was removed from the cross.
(f) The graves were destroyed by continued attacks and rebuilding. So, Emperor Constantine converted the cave, where Jesus was buried, into the Rotunda to save , the Holy Sepulchre.
(g) The general pilgrims are more interested in the novelty of Jesus’ tomb and in photographing it. They have no interest in its history or tradition.
(h) As per the gospel, Jesus’ crucifixion took place at place outside the city walls. There were graves nearby. In the beginning of the first century, this place was a disused quarry outside the city walls. The archaeologists have discovered tombs from that era.
(i) The ‘room of tomb’ was a smaller chamber inside the Rotunda. It has a low door made of white marble. It is the place where Jesus was buried.
(j) Jesus sacrificed his life to make this world a happy place to live in. The woman did not want to show that she was sad and miserable.

III. (a) Tomb (b) Nondescript

Answer 2.

I. (a) (iii) eliminating toxins
(b) (iv) that detox is much needed in today’s sedentary lifestyle.

II. (c) The wrong notion harboured by most people about detox diets is that a detox trip is like suffering a crash diet and a method to lose weight.
(d) Most weight that is shed during the extended diet period is that due to water.
(e) It is good to go on a detox diet as the benefits include improved digestion, and increased concentration and clarity.
(f) The detoxing process involves cutting back on sugary stuff, having a lot of vegetables, fruit juices, coconut water and exercising.
(g) Modern science has no belief in detox diets because it believes that the liver, kidneys, colon and skin remove waste products from our body on a daily basis, irrespective of what we eat.

III. (a) ingest (b) tedious (c) Impair

Answer 3.
A TITLE: Acupuncture: A Sure Shot Panacea for Stress

NOTES:

1. stress—alarming facts :

(a) greatest killer
(b) cause of dibts., ulcer
(c) striking youngsters too
(d) does not occur overnight

2. Acupuncture:
(a) an antidote to stress
(b) superior etiology, causes of stress known
(c) reliable, time bound system
(d) classifies humans into three groups:

1. over-anticipators, perfectionists
2. hyperactive people
3. doubting Thomases

3. How acupuncture works for perfectionists:

(a) heart meridian stimltd for 15 days
(b) procedr reptd after 8 days
(c) cures in 90 days

4. For over-anticipators:

(a) Pericardium meridian hrt meridian stmltd
(b) nightmares and dreams cured by stmltn of liver meridian

5. Cure for doubt and confusion:

(a) gall bladder stmltd
(b) cure in 60 days

Key to Abbreviations
hrt : heart
Dibts : diabetes
Stmltd : stimulated
stmltn : stimulant
Procedr : procedure
Reptd : repeated

B. SUMMARY

Stress builds up gradually and is the cause of hypertension and diabetes. Today it is striking even the young. Acupuncture helps cure stress in a reliable and time bound way. It classifies humans into perfectionists, hypertensive and doubters. To cure perfectionists their heart meridian is stimulated. For over-anticipators the pericardium and heart meridian are stimulated and cure is possible in ninety days. Liver meridian is stimulated to cure nightmares and dreams. To cure confusion, and doubt the gall bladder is stimulated for sixty days.

Answer 4.

Answer 5.

A-4, Raja Road
Kanpur
8th September, 20××

Sub: Receipt of damaged books

Dear Sir,

I regret very much to inform you that the books sent by you in execution of my order dated 27 August, (‘River of Smoke’ by Amitav Ghosh) is in a damaged condition and (Word Power by Norman Lewis ) is wanting in 8 pages (pp. 113-120). These are therefore, returned to you in a registered cover.

May I request you to replace them at your convenience and to enclose in your order the cost of the postage stamps I had to buy in sending them back?

Soliciting early compliance.

Yours sincerely
Arun

OR

ABC Public School
Jayanagar, Bangalore
15th September, 20××
The Secretary
Ace Youth Hostel
Mysore

Sub : Accommodation required Dear Sir

Our school has planned an excursion to Mysore in the coming autumn break from 7- 10 October. We are a group of 15 girls and twenty boys. We need separate accommodation for boys and girls on a twin- sharing basis. You are requested to book clean, comfortable rooms with all facilities as per our requirement. Kindly ensure that the rooms are on the same floor, adjacent to each other and have a balcony.

You are requested to intimate the charges and confirm the booking by 20th September. Thank you

Yours sincerely
Sudhir
Head Boy

Answer 6.

Students and Social Service
By Jagan

Students are not separate from society. They are also social beings like other classes of people. So it should not be assumed that students should just study, play and appear for examinations. In India where the poor and underprivileged are so many, social service has a great importance and a very large scope too. They can help the nation in multiple ways. They can work for the removal of illiteracy. Cleanliness is a big challenge in our nation. Students can teach the masses about healthcare and sanitation. They can even look into the sanitation of their own area. They can take active part in the national scheme of afforestation. Students should keep in mind one thing—Charity begins at home. It is a student’s first and foremost duty to serve his parents, brothers and sisters, his kith and kin. Then serve the masses. By doing social service students can give back to society what they have received from it. Social service also elevates one spiritually.

Thank you.

OR

Good morning, respected Principal, teachers and my dear friends! Today, I am going to give some tips for success in examinations. If you’re one of the those people who get stressed out when it comes to taking exams then I have a few tips for you that will help you to succeed well in the upcoming first term examinations. Firstly, look after your health. It’s stressful to cram so much information into your brain and also try to get on with the rest of your life. You’ll end up burning the candle at both ends, so to speak, and this can seriously damage your health. Looking after your health means that you should be getting adequate rest. Eat and drink sensibly and in moderation, exercise your body and spend quality time on yourself. I suggest that you set yourself a program and stick to it as much as possible. Studying for 20 minutes at a time and then a 10 minute break is ideal for optimum learning. If you find your mind begins to wander then it’s time for a rest. Do one thing at a time. Plan beforehand which subject you’re going to study and don’t waver. If you get interrupted, put it to one side until you’re ready to deal with it. I am sure with these tips you will pass the exams with flying colours.

Thank you.

Answer 7.

Diwali Celebrations at Sanmati Bal Niketan
By Praneet

10th October, Delhi,

In the month of October, ‘Diwali Fest’ was organized under the Social Service Club of ABC Public School. The students were asked to donate clothes, sweets crackers and money for the inmates of Sanmati Bal Niketan. The collection carried on for a whole week from October 3 to October 9. The funds and goods collected from this activity were donated to the orphanage. 30 students of the social service club visited the orphanage on October 10 , with the goods. They were welcomed by the students of the orphanage.

They presented a short cultural programme for the visitors. Then they interacted with our students on a variety of issues. They happily ate the sweets that the club members had taken with them.

A 12 year old orphan, Jeetu said, “We need a water purifier as the water here is quite dirty.” The visit brought big smiles on the faces of the underprivileged children. It also sensitized our club members to the problems of the less privileged.

OR

Visit to a Book Fair
By Winnie

Delhi, 2nd February, 20xx: Delhi Book Fair at Pragati Maidan was inaugurated by the Prime Minister on 1st February, 20xx. The book fair lasted for a month. There were a lot of beautifully decorated bookstalls. All book stalls were full of various kinds of books. Thousands of book-lovers were looking for their favorite books. Some popular writers like Arundhati Roy, were present at some book stalls and their fans surrounded them. Some of the book-lovers were taking autographs from their favorite writers. Free buses made it easy for the visitors to reach the stalls of their choice.

This year books on tourism were in great demand. Besides, novels, science fictions, travelogues and children’s books were in great demand too. Attractive discounts delighted the book lovers.

There was a food corner in the fair. The tired visitors easily got relief by taking food and spending some time there.

A visitor remarked “I am a regular visitor but this time the arrangements are really good”. The overall arrangement of the book fair was very enjoyable. It proved to be enriching for all book lovers.

Answer 8.

(a) The poem is ‘A thing of Beauty’.
(b) One cause of human suffering is lack of noble natures.
(c) A thing of beauty lifts the pall from our lives.
(d) ‘Gloomy’ means dark, depressing and dull.

OR

(a) The poem is ‘My mother at Sixty-Six’.
(b) The poet’s childhood fear was separation from the mother.
(c) Her smile signifies how she hides her pain and fear from the mother hoping to convey to her that all is well.
(d) The word ‘ache’ means a dull pain, pang.

Answer 9.

(a) Zitkala-sa, the narrator felt quite uncomfortable in the dining room. A small bell was tapped by the white woman. She pulled her chair out and sat on it. She was the only one seated there as she could not remember the instructions. A second bell was sounded. All were seated. A ‘paleface woman’ watched her disapprovingly. Then everyone started eating. All these activities confused her. She felt quite uncomfortable and uneasy as she was not used to such mannerisms.

(b) Even after aunt Jennifer’s death she will not get freed from the mental shackles imposed on her by marriage. In contrast the tigers in the panel will go on jumping proud and unafraid as before.

(c) The poem Keeping Quiet teaches human beings to stop all worldly activities for a while and spend few moments in quiet introspection. It will help us to understand ourselves. We are in troubles because we always remain in hurry and rush. We should withdraw ourselves from all undesirable actions and remain quiet. It will bring all together and a feeling of understanding will develop.

(d) The bulletin board displayed a German order that from the next day the citizens of Alsace shall not be permitted to speak French. German would become the official language as Alsace had been conquered by the Germans. So the teaching of French had been discontinued.

(e) All the servants including the gardener didn’t like Sadao’s efforts to save an American. America was at war with Japan. Tom was their enemy. The two servants were frightened at what their master had told them. They thought that their master should not heal the wound of that white man. The white man must die. If their master healed what the gun and the sea did, they would take revenge on them. Yumi refused to wash a white man. They feared that they may be arrested for conniving with Dr. Sadao to save a traitor.

(f) When the wily McLeery, who had come to the prison to invigilate the examination, was asked to explain the rubber tube that he carried, he explained that since he suffered from haemorrhoids he needed the tube to sit on and thus relieve the discomfort.

Answer 10.
Bribery is indeed a social evil which degrades society. At one time the tiger king was in danger of losing his throne. A high ranking British officer visited Pratibandapuram. He was very fond of hunting tigers and being photographed with them. He was refused permission to hunt tigers in Pratibandapuram as the king needed them to disprove the prophecy. Since he had prevented such a high ranking officer from fulfilling his desire, the Maharaja stood in danger of losing his kingdom itself. The Maharaja had to please the high ranking British officer. Samples of expensive diamond rings of different designs were brought from a famous jeweler in Calcutta. The Maharaja sent all the 50 rings to the British officer’s good lady. The lady accepted the whole lot. The Maharaja lost three lakh rupees but managed to retain his kingdom. This act was evil as well as foolish on the part of the king. Had he been less superstitious he would never have seen this day.

OR

Dr. Sadao had given a new lease of life to the American prisoner of war. He didn’t want to throw him into the jaws of death again. He asked the young soldier to take his private boat at night. He should row in the cover of darkness to a little deserted island nearby. The young American could live there until he saw a Korean fishing boat pass by. Food, bottled water and two quilts were put inside the boat. If the food ran out, he could signal two flashes.

He was not to signal in darkness because he could be seen. The young American came down into the darkness of the garden and escaped. Sadao was a doctor. And for a doctor saving a dying man is the foremost priority. Despite his dislike of American people and ways he rose above all narrow prejudices and responded to the call of his duty and above all, humanity. Besides, he was very pragmatic and intelligent.

Answer 11.
Firozabad is famous for its bangles. Every other family in the town is engaged in this profession. Bangle-making is not confined to adults only. Over 20,000 children join their parents in this job. They work illegally in the glass furnaces with high temperatures. They are exposed to all health-hazards. These factories are in stinking lanes choked with garbage. They work in dingy rooms with no windows and outlets for fresh air. Their eyes are more adjusted to the dark than to the light outside. That is why many of them end up losing their eyesight before they become adults.

The bangle-workers have fallen in a web of poverty. They can’t organise themselves into a cooperative. They have fallen into a vicious circle of ‘sahukars’, middlemen and the police. It seems the bangle-workers of Firozabad are condemned to poverty and perpetual exploitation.

OR

A shocking order had come from Berlin. Two French speaking districts of Alsace and Lorraine were under German occupation. German language was imposed on the people of Alsace. It hurt the pride of the people. M. Hamel, a school teacher, declared that it was his last lesson in French. He would leave the place for good. A new master would replace him to teach German. The news aroused patriotic feelings in students as well as the villagers. The village elders came to the school to listen to the last lesson in French. He called French the most beautiful, clearest and the most logical language. He expressed his dismay that the people of Alsace were quite indifferent to the learning of French. He called upon them to guard it among themselves and never forget it. Everyone listened to him with rapt attention and respect.

Answer 12.
Both Griffin and Dr. Kemp were scientists who had attended the same institution, however they differ in their temperaments, attitudes towards scientific research, life, and humanity. While for Dr. Kemp scientific research is about contributing towards the welfare of all humanity, for Griffin it is however a means of self-aggrandizement and showing to others who is in control of the world! For Griffin, invisibility is a way of taking revenge on a world that did not recognize his brilliance. This obsession with power invests his character with a violent streak which keeps appearing throughout the novel. For example his hitting the landlord in chapter 24, and his setting fire to his lodgings at Oxford street. Griffin has no scruples about robbing his own father when he runs out of money to fund his research without any remorse for his father who commits suicide. While Kemp is the voice of conscience and ethics, Griffin symbolizes-ambition devoid of ethics.

OR

Priscilla, Nancy’s sister, is likeable for her good sense and strong character. She seems happily resigned to a life of caring for their father, and encourages Nancy’s marriage and happiness. Nancy wishes that Priscilla’s clothes and her own always match because they are sisters, and Priscilla unselfishly has them in the colors that will favor Nancy, rather than herself. Priscilla is rather plain and frumpy. She is “Square-shouldered, clumsy, high featured”. She is loyal and loving to her family. Priscilla is “good-natured self forgetful” and has a lot of common sense. She is a cheerful person. Priscilla is a spinster and therefore decides to take over her father’s farm. She loves farming. This also implies that she is bored of normal life. She buries herself in farming because she has no children.

Answer 13.
Once he became invisible, Griffin realized that it had serious drawbacks that he had never forseen. He found that it was hard for him even to walk, for he could not see his legs. Even though people could not see him, dogs were attracted to him. They would bark at him. He could not walk in crowds, for he would be felt. He often got hurt unknowingly by people. It was really hard for him in every season other than summer. In rain and snow, there would be an outline of him and it was very difficult to remain naked in cold weather. Ironically, if he wore clothes, he became visible and if he didn’t, he ran the risk of dying due to the chill of England.

OR

Godfrey is weak-willed and usually unable to think of much beyond his immediate material comfort. As a young man he married an opium addict, Molly Farren, with whom he had a daughter. This secret marriage and Godfrey’s handling of it demonstrate the mixture of guilt and moral cowardice that keep him paralyzed. Godfrey consented to the marriage largely out of guilt and keeps the marriage. Godfrey is generally passive and selfish. Godfrey is subject to constant blackmail from Dunsey, who knows of Godfrey’s secret marriage, and Godfrey is finally freed of his malicious brother simply by an accident. He is delivered from Molly when she freezes to death while on her way to Raveloe to expose their marriage to Godfrey’s family. Godfrey’s eventual confession to Nancy that Eppie is his daughter, is motivated simply by his fright after the discovery of Dunsey’s remains. By the time Godfrey changes and is finally ready to take responsibility for Eppie, she has already accepted Silas as her father.

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