Category: CBSE Class 8

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 8 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Weavers, Iron Smelters and Factory Owners was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/class-8-history-chapter-7-extra-questions/

Online Education for Weavers, Iron Smelters and Factory Owners Class 8 Extra Questions History Chapter 7

Question 1.
What was the cultural mission of the British in India?
Answer:
They wanted to civilise the natives by changing their customs and values.

Question 2.
Who set up Asiatic Society of Bengal?
Or
Who started a journal called Asiatic Researchers?
Answer:

• William Jones;
• Henry Thomas Colebrooke; and
• Nathaniel Halhed.

Question 3.
When was English Education Act introduced?
Answer:
In 1835.

Question 4.
What were seen as “temples of darkness” after the English Education Act of 1835?
Answer:
Oriental institutions like the Calcutta Madrasa and Benaras Sanskrit College.

Question 5.
Where was the missionaries set up a mission?
Answer:
The missionaries set up a mission at Serampore in an area under the control of the Danish East India Company.

Question 6.
Who reported the East India Company on the progress of education in Vernacular schools in 1830s?
Answer:
William Adam, a Scottish missionary.

Question 7.
Who was William Jones?
Answer:
William Jones was a junior judge at the Supreme Court that the company had set up. In addition to being an expert in law, he was a linguist.

Question 8.
What do you mean by “Wood’s Despatch”?
Answer:
In 1854, the Court of Directors of the East India Company in London sent an educational despatch to the Governor-General in India. Since the Despatch was issued by Charles Wood, it was called Wood’s Despatch.

Question 9.
Why was the argument for practical education criticised by the Christian missionaries in India in the nineteenth century?
Answer:
The missionaries felt that education should attempt to improve the moral character of the people and morality could be improved only through Christian education.

Question 10.
Why was the East India Company opposed to missionary activities in India until 1813?
Answer:
It feared that missionary activities would provoke reaction amongst the local population and make them suspicious of British presence in India.

Question 11.
Why was the British government reluctant to directly support missionary education after 1857?
Answer:
There was a feeling that any strong attack on local customs, practices, beliefs and religious ideas might enrage native opinion.

Question 12.
What were the motives of the British in India?
Answer:

• The British wanted to control over revenues.
• They wanted territorial conquest.
• As a cultural mission, they wanted to civilise the natives.
• They wanted to change natives’ customs and values.

Question 13.
How, according to the company officials, could the British win a place in the hearts of the natives?
Answer:

• Many company officials argued that the British ought to promote Indian rather than Western Learning Institutions should be set up to encourage the study of ancient Indian texts and teach Sanskrit and Persian.
• Hindus and Muslims ought to be taught what they were already familiar with and what they valued and treasured.

Question 14.
When and why did the British set up a madrasa in Calcutta and Hindu college in Benaras?
Answer:

• A madrasa was set up in Calcutta in 1781 to promote the study of Arabia, Persian and Islamic law.
• Hindu college was established in Benaras in 1791 to encourage the study of ancient Sanskrit texts that would be useful for the administration of the country.

Question 15.
Why did many British officials begin to criticise the Orientalist vision of learning?
Answer:

• They said that knowledge of the East was full of errors and unscientific thought.
• Eastern literature was non-serious and light-hearted. So, they argued that it was wrong on the part of the British to spend so much effort in encouraging the study of Arabic and Sanskrit language and literature.

Question 16.
How, according to Macaulay, could teaching of English be a way of civilising people?
Answer:

• He felt that knowledge of English would allow Indians to read some of the finest literature the world had produced.
• It would make them aware of the developments in western science and philosophy.

Question 17.
How were children taught in pre-British times?
Answer:

• There were small institutions called pathshalas with not more than 20 students each.
• These institutions were set up by wealthy people or the local community. At times they were started by a guru (teacher).

Question 18.
How was the flexible education system in pre-British times suitable for local needs?
Answer:

• Classes were not held during harvest time when rural children often worked in the fields.
• The pathshalas started once again when the crops had been cut and stored. So even children of peasant families could study.

Question 19.
State the main features of Wood’s Despatch in 1854.
Answer:

• It emphasised the practical benefits of a system of European learning as opposed to oriental knowledge.
• It said that European learning would enable Indians to recognise the advantages that flow from the expansion of trade and commerce.
• European ways of life would change their tastes and desires and create a demand for British goods for Indians.
• European learning would improve the moral character of Indians.
• The literature of the East was not only full of grave errors, it could not instil in people a sense of duty and a commitment to work.

Question 20.
What was the impact of Wood’s Despatch on education system of India?
Answer:

• Education departments of the government were set up to extend control over all matters regarding education.
• Steps were taken to establish a system of university education.
• In 1857, in spite of Sepoys Revolt, universities were being established in Calcutta, Madras and Bombay.
• Attempts were also made to bring about changes within the system of school education.

Question 21.
State main features of school education in pre-British times.
Answer:

• There were small institutions, called pathshalas with not more than 20 students each.
• These institutions were set up by wealthy people or the local community. At that times they were started by a guru.
• The system of education were flexible. There was no fixed fee, no printed books, no separate school building, no benches or chairs or blackboards, no annual examinations and no regular timetable.
• Fee depended on the income of parents.
• Teaching was oral and guru decided what to teach.
• The guru interacted separately with groups of children with different levels of leaming.

Question 22.
Explain any five points raised by William Adam in his report about the functioning of ‘Pathshalas in India.
Answer:

• There were small institutions, called pathshalas with not more than 20 students each.
• These institutions were set up by wealthy people or the local community. At that time they were started by a guru.
• The system of education were flexible. There was no fixed fee, no printed book, no separate school building, no benches or chairs or blackboards, no annual examinations and no regular timetable.
• Fee depended on the income of parents.
• Teaching was oral and guru decided what to teach.
• The guru interacted separately with groups of children with different levels of learning.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. What is not true about William Jones? He was.
(а) a German linguist.
(b) appointed a junior judge at the Supreme Court (at Calcutta).
(c) an expert in law.
(d) known to have studied many languages.
Answer:
(а) a German linguist.

2. What is not true in the following?
(a) Orientalists – Those having scholarly knowledge of Asia’s language and culture.
(6) Munshi – One who can read, write and teach Persian.
(c) Madarsa – A Persian word for a place of learning.
(d) Vernacular – A term generally used to refer to a local language or dialect of everyday use.
Answer:
(c) Madarsa – A Persian word for a place of learning.

3. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(а) Together with other Englishmen, William Jones set up the Asiatic Society of Bengal in Calcutta.
(b) The Hindu College was set up in Calcutta in 1791 to encourage the study of ancient Sanskrit text.
(c) TB Macaulay, a critic of the Orientalists, saw India as an uncivilised country that needed to be civilised.
(d) Following Macaulay’s minute, the English Education Act of 1835 was introduced.
Answer:
(b) The Hindu College was set up in Calcutta in 1791 to encourage the study of ancient Sanskrit text.

4. Following the 1854 Wood’s Despatch, several measures excluding one in the following, were introduced by the British in India.
(a) Education departments of government were set up in different institutions.
(b) Steps were taken to establish a system of university education.
(c) In 1857, universities were set up in Calcutta, Madras and Bombay.
(d) Attempts were made to change the system of school education completely.
Answer:
(c) In 1857, universities were set up in Calcutta, Madras and Bombay.

5. What is not true about Rabindranath Tagore in the description given below?
(a) As a child, Tagore hated going to school.
(b) The school appeared like a prison, for he could never do what he felt like doing.
(c) The experience of his school days in Calcutta shaped Tagore’s ideas of education.
(d) He was highly critical of Western Civilisation and its worship of machines and technology.
Answer:
(d) He was highly critical of Western Civilisation and its worship of machines and technology.

Glossary:

→ Linguist – Someone who knows and studies several languages.

→ Madrasa – An Arabic word for a place of learning; any type of school or college.

→ Orientalist – Those with a scholarly knowledge of the language and culture of Asia.

→ Munslsi – A person who can read, write and teach Persian. A term generally used to refer to a local language or dialect as distinct from what is seen as the standard language.

→ English – The language of the imperial masters (Britishers).

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education Class 8 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Ruling the Countryside was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/class-8-history-chapter-3-extra-questions/

Online Education for Ruling the Countryside Class 8 Extra Questions History Chapter 3

Question 1.
When did the Mughal Emperor appoint the East India Company as the Diwani of Bengal?
Answer:
On 12 August 1765.

Question 2.
After the Company got the Diwani, why did artisans begin deserting villages?
Answer:
This was because they were forced to sell their goods to the Company at lower prices.

Question 3.
When was a terrible famine observed in Bengal?
Answer:
In 1770.

Question 4.
When and where was the Permanent Settlement introduced?
Answer:
Permanent Settlement was mainly introduced in the province of Bengal in 1793.

Question 5.
Who introduced Permanent Settlement?
Answer:
Charles Cornwallis.

Question 6.
Who were authorised to collect rent from the peasants under Permanent Settlement?
Answer:
Rajas and taluqdars.

Question 7.
What was the benefit of Permanent Settlement to the Company?
Answer:
It ensured a regular flow of revenue to the Company.

Question 8.
Which revenue system was introduced in the North-Western province of Bengal Presidency?
Answer:
The mahalwari settlement.

Question 9.
Who introduced mahalwari settlement?
Answer:
Holt Mackenzie.

Question 10.
In which area was the ryotwari system introduced?
Answer:
In the Southern India.

Question 11.
Who introduced the ryotwari system?
Answer:
Thomas Munro.

Question 12.
Name few crops and related areas which the British forced people to grow?
Answer:

• Jute – in Bengal
• Tea- in Assam
• Sugarcane – in the United Province
• Wheat – in Punjab
• Cotton – in Maharashtra and Punjab
• Rice – in Madras.

Question 13.
Where was the Kalamkari print created?
Answer:
Kalamkari print was produced by the weavers in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 14.
In which climate do the indigo plants grow?
Answer:
In tropical climate.

Question 15.
Which other plant was used in the place of indigo in Europe?
Answer:
Woad.

Question 16.
In which climate was woad grown?
Answer:
In temperate climate.

Question 17.
Name few areas where woad plants were grown?
Answer:
Northern Italy, Southern France and in parts of Germany and Britain.

Question 18.
Which type of dyes were made from woad plants?
Answer:
Woad plants were used to make blue and yellow dyes.

Question 19.
Why did dyers prefer indigo?
Answer:
Because indigo produced a rich blue colour, whereas the dye from woad was pale and dull.

Question 20.
Where did the French begin cultivating indigo?
Answer:
In St. Domingue in the Caribbean island.

Question 21.
Where was indigo cultivation initiated in India?
Answer:
In Bengal province.

Question 22.
What were the two main systems of indigo cultivation?
Answer:
NIJ and ryoti.

Question 23.
What was the impact of indigo cultivation on the soil?
Answer:
Indigo plants had deep roots and it exhausted the soil. After indigo harvest, the land could not be sown with rice.

Question 24.
When did indigo ryots occur in Bengal?
Answer:
In 1859.

Question 25.
Who supported indigo ryots?
Answer:
Indigo peasants, local zamindars and village headmen.

Question 26.
Why was the Indigo Commission appointed?
Answer:
The Indigo Commission was appointed to enquire into the system of indigo production.

Question 27.
What was the report of Indigo Commission?
Answer:
The Indigo Commission held the planters guilty and criticised them for the coercive methods they used with indigo cultivators.

Question 28.
After indigo revolt in Bengal, to which area was indigo cultivation shifted?
Answer:
Indigo cultivation was shifted to Bihar.

Question 29.
How Diwani of Bengal was seen by the British?
Answer:

• As Diwan, the Company became the chief financial administrator of the territory under its control.
• Now the Company had to think of administering the land and organising its revenue resources.
• It had to ensure that it could buy the products it needed and sell what it wanted.

Question 30.
Name two problems created by the Permanent Settlement.
Answer:

1. Zamindars were now not interested in the improvement of land.
2. The revenue was very high. So many zamindars were unable to pay this revenue. Thus, their zamindaris were sold off.

Question 31.
Why were the zamindars not interested in improving land?
Answer:

• They saw the possibility of earning without trouble and risk of investment.
• They were giving land on rent to tenants, so they did not need to improve it.

Question 32.
Why did Munro choose ryotwari system for South India?
Answer:

• In South India, there was no’ tradition of zamindars.
• The ryots (cultivators) tilled the land for generations. So, Munro decided have contracts directly with the ryots. Hence, the ryotwari system was introduced.

Question 33.
What were the results of the new revenue systems?
Answer:
Peasants were unable to pay revenue, ryots fled the countryside, and villages became deserted in many regions. These all was due to over-optimistic imagination of revenue collection by the officials.

Question 34.
Why did the demand of indigo increase by the end of the eighteenth century?
Answer:

• This was because by this time Britain began to industrialise.
• In Britain, cotton production expanded dramatically.
• This created an enormous new demand for cloth dyes. That was why the demand of indigo increased by the end of the eighteenth century.

Question 35.
What do you mean by NIJ system of indigo cultivation?
Answer:

• In this system, the planters produced indigo on lands that they directly controlled.
• The planters either bought the land or rented it from other zamindars and produced indigo by directly employing hired labourers.

Question 36.
Why were the planters reluctant to expand area under NIJ cultivation till the late nineteenth century?
Answer:

• The large area required for indigo cultivation was not available.
• They attempted to lease in the land near the factory. The eviction of peasants in these fields often led to conflicts.
• The time of rice cultivation matched with that of the indigo. So, labours were not available in plenty.
• Nij cultivation on large scale also required many ploughs and bullocks i.e., huge investment.

Question 37.
Comment on the reports of the Indigo Commission.
Answer:

• The Commission held the planters guilty of oppressive methods used against the cultivators.
• It declared that indigo production was not profitable for ryots.
• It asked the ryots to fulfil their existing contracts but refuse to grow indigo in future.

Question 38.
Give a brief description of the Mahalwari System.
Answer:

• The revenue of all the plots of the village was calculated and added of the mahal.
• The demand of revenue was to be reversed periodically.
• The responsibility of collecting revenue was given to the village headman.

Question 39.
Discuss the mahalwari system introduced in the North-West provinces of the Bengal.
Answer:

• In this system, village was taken as a revenue unit.
• In this system, land was inspected, fields were measured, rights and customs of different groups were noted and then revenue of all the plots of the village was calculated and added so as to estimate the revenue of the mahal.
• The demand of the revenue was to be revised periodically.
• The responsibility of collecting revenue was given to the village headmen.

Question 40.
Discuss how the British people looked indigo cultivation as an opportunity.
Answer:

• With a remarkable growth in indigo trade, commercial agents and officials of the Company began investing in indigo production.
• Many officials resigned from the Company job and looked after their indigo business. –
• Those who had no money to produce indigo could get loans from the Company and the banks.

Question 41.
Explain the reaction of the ryots during the indigo revolt of Bengal.
Answer:

• The ryots refused to pay rents to the planters.
• They attacked indigo factories armed with locally available weapons.
• They boycotted those who worked for the planters.
• The gomasthas were beaten up.
• They swore they would no longer take advances to sow indigo.
• They decided not to be bullied by the lathiyals of the planters.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) As Diwan of Bengal, the Company became the chief financial administrator of the territory under its control.
(b) Before 1865, the Company had purchased goods in India by importing gold and silver from Britain.
(c) In 1770, a terrible cholera epidemic killed ten million people in Bengal.
(d) The Permanent Settlement was introduced in 1793.
Answer:
(c) In 1770, a terrible cholera epidemic killed ten million people in Bengal.

2. What is not true about the terms of Permanent Settlëment in the following?
(a) The rajas and taluqdars were recognised as zamindars.
(b) The zamindars were asked to collect rent from the peasants.
(c) They had to pay revenue to the Company.
(d) The amount the zamindars had to pay was not fixed permanently.
Answer:
(d) The amount the zamindars had to pay was not fixed permanently.

3. The system of revenue introduced in the British territories in the south was known as
(a) Ryotwar or Ryotwari system.
(b) Permanent Settlement.
(c) Mahaiwari settlement.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Ryotwar or Ryotwari system.

4. Tick the correct pair in the following.
(a) Lord Cornwallis – Ryotwari system
(b) Thomas Munro – Permanent Settlement
(c) Mahal – village
(d) Holt Mackenzie – Mahalwari settlement.
Answer:
(d) Holt Mackenzie – Mahalwari settlement.

5. The Champaran movement started by Gandhiji was against the …………………. planters.
(a) tea
(b) indigo
(c) sugarcane
(d) coffee
Answer:
(b) indigo

Glossary:

→ Mahal – In British revenue records Mahal is a revenue estate which may be a village or a group of villages.

→ Plantation – A large farm operated by a planter employing various forms of forced labour. Plantations are associated with the production of coffee, sugarcane, tobacco, tea and cotton.

→ Slave – A person who is owned by someone else – the slave owner. A slave has no freedom and is compelled to work for the master.

→ Bigha – A unit of measurement of land. Before British rule, the size of this area varied. In Bengal, the British standardised it to about one-third of an acre.

→ Vat – A fermenting or storage vessel.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Synthetic Fibres and Plastics Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 3 Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-science/

Online Education for Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Synthetic Fibres and Plastics

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Questions Answers Question 1.
Name a synthetic fibre which is used in making cheap and durable woollen clothes.
Answer:
Acrylic.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Question 2.
Give one-word answer for the following :
Plastic which gets deformed easily on heating and can be easily bent.
Answer:
Thermoplastic.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Questions Answers Pdf Question 3.
Complete the sentence: Rayon is not a synthetic fibre because
Answer:
it is obtained from a natural source.

Class 8 Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Question 4.
When was nylon made?
Answer:
Nylon, a man-made fibre, was made in 1931.

Extra Questions For Class 8 Science With Answers Question 5.
Which one is stronger: a nylon wire or a steel wire?
Answer:
Nylon wire.

Synthetic Fibres Class 8 Question 6.
What is the disadvantage of synthetic fibre?
Answer:
The synthetic fabric melts on heating, which is a disadvantage of this fabric.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Question 7.
From which material, all synthetic fibres are prepared?
Answer:
Synthetic fibres are prepared from petrochemicals.

Cbse Class 8 Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Question 8.
What are manufactured from thermoplastics?
Answer:
Toys, combs, car grills and various types of containers are manufactured from thermoplastics.

Plastic And Environment Class 8 Question 9.
What are the characteristics of plastic due to which it is used to manufacture variety of articles?
Answer:

• They have lightweight,
• lower price,
• good strength, and
• are easy to handle.

Ncert Science Book Class 8 Extra Questions With Answers Question 10.
Why is plastic covering used in electric wires?
Answer:
It is because plastic is a poor conductor of electricity.

Learn Insta Class 8 Science Extra Questions Question 11.
Why are handles of frying pans, cookers are made of plastic material?
Answer:
It is so because plastic material is poor conductor of heat.

Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Question 12.
Why is plastic not environment friendly?
Answer:
Since plastic takes several years to decompose, it is not environment friendly.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Questions Question 13.
Explain, why the handles of cooking utensils, electric plugs, switches or plugboards are made of thermosetting plastics?
Answer:
The handles of cooking utensils, electric plugs, switches or plugboards are made of thermosetting plastics because :

• Thermosetting plastics cannot be softened by heating.
• They are poor conductors of heat and electricity.
• They resist fire and can tolerate heat.

Ncert Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Question 14.
What are the characteristic properties of synthetic fibres, due to which they are used abundantly?
Answer:
Synthetic fibres possess the following unique characteristics :

• They dry up soon,
• They are durable,
• They are less expensive,
• They are readily available, and
• They are easy to maintain.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Hots Questions Question 15.
What is melamine? What are its uses?
Answer:
Melamine is a versatile thermosetting plastic. It resists fire and can tolerate heat better than other plastics. It is used for making floor tiles, kitchenware and fabrics which resists fire.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Extra Questions Question 16.
What is the characteristic property of plastic due to which it is used to make containers to store different materials?
Answer:
Plastics do not react with water and air and, therefore, they are non-corrosive in: nature. That is why, the containers made of plastics are used for storing various kinds of materials, including many chemicals.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Extra Questions Answers Question 17.
Write a brief note on Teflon.
Answer:
Teflon is a non-stick plastic used as non-stick coating in cookwares. Because of its toughness, it is also used as tape for sealing purposes.

Ncert Science Class 8 Chapter Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Question 18.
Write a note on cross-linked plastic.
Answer:
Cross-linked plastic is that plastic in which its units possess cross-linked arrangements. The cross-linked plastics are available in all possible shapes and sizes. This is due to the fact that plastics are easily mouldable, i.e., plastic can be shaped in any form. That is why, various types of containers like water tanks, water jugs, buckets, mugs, etc. are made of it arid used in day-to-day life.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Answers Question 19.
Write a short note on the plastic in healthcare industry.
Answer:
Plastics find extensive use in the healthcare industry. Some examples of their use in healthcare are in packaging of medicines, threads used for stitching wounds, syringes, gloves, a number of medical instruments, etc.

Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Question 20.
Write any five characteristics of synthetic fibres.
Answer:
The characteristics of synthetic fibres are :

1. Synthetic fibres are cheaper than natural fibre.
2. Synthetic fibres are stronger than natural fibre.
3. Synthetic fibres are more durable than natural fibre.
4. Synthetic fabrics are dried up in less time.
5. Synthetic fibres are easy to maintain and wash.
6. Synthetic fibres are readily available and easy to maintain.

Question 21.
Write a note on rayon.
Answer:
Natural silk from silkworms was discovered in China and was kept as a closely guarded secret for a long time. Silk was a costly fabric. But, as its texture was beautiful, it fascinated everybody. So, people began to think of preparing silk artificially.

Towards the end of the nineteenth century, scientists were successful in obtaining a fibre having the properties similar to that of silk. Such a fibre was obtained by chemical treatment of wood pulp. This fibre was called rayon or artificial silk. Although rayon is obtained from a natural source, wood pulp, yet it is a man-made fibre. It is cheaper than silk but can be woven like silk fibres. It can also be dyed in a wide variety of colours.

Question 22.
What are renewable and non-renewable sources of energy? What will happen if all the non-renewable resources get exhausted?
Answer:
Renewable sources of energy :
The sources of energy, which are being produced continuously in nature and are inexhaustible, are called renewable sources of energy. These sources of energy can be used again and again, endlessly. They will never get exhausted. For example, wind, sunlight.

Non-renewable sources of energy :
The sources of energy, which have accumulated in nature over a very, very long time and cannot be quickly replaced when exhausted, are called non-renewable sources of energy, e.g., coal.
If all non-renewable sources of energy get exhausted, we will have to depend on renewable sources of energy. More and more alternative sources will have to be developed.

Question 23.
(a) You have to buy clothes to wear in summer. You will prefer to buy cotton clothes or clothes made of synthetic material. Give reason for your answer.
(b) Which material is better for making umbrellas and why?
Answer:
(a) I will prefer to buy cotton clothes over synthetic clothes. This is because cotton clothes absorb more sweat than synthetic clothes. I will comfortable and cool in cotton clothes than synthetic clothes.

(b) Synthetic cloth is better for making an umbrella because

• Synthetic fibre is more durable.
• Synthetic fibre is stronger.
• Synthetic fibre absorbs less water.
• Synthetic fibre is lightweight as compared to cotton cloth.

Question 24.
“Even though plastics are very useful, they are not environment friendly.” Justify the statement.
Answer:
Even though plastics are very useful and have vital applications in our daily life but they are not environmentally friendly because :
(а) The plastics are not bio-degradable and take several years to decompose. It causes environmental pollution.

(b) The burning process in the synthetic material is quite slow and it does not get completely burnt easily. In the process, it releases lots of poisonous fumes into the atmosphere causing air pollution.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Rayon is known as
(a) artificial silk
(b) both
(c) regenerated fiber
Answer:
(a) artificial silk.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Online Education for Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Resources Class 8 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 2

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Give the reason for uneven distribution of population in different parts of the world?
Answer:
Varied characteristics of land and climate.

Ncert Solutions For Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 2.
Mention the physical factors which determine the land use pattern.
Answer:

• Topography,
• soil,
• climate,
• minerals,
• availability of water.

Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Resources Class 8 Extra Questions Question 3.
Which are the major threats to our environment?
Answer:

• Land degradation,
• soil erosion,
• desertification.

Extra Questions For Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Question 4.
What is soil?
Answer:
The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called soil.

Geography Class 8 Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 5.
Give two reasons of water shortage or water scarcity.
Answer:

1. Variation in annual or seasonal precipitation.
2. Over-exploitation of water.
3. Contamination of water.

Ncert Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 6.
Mention two major contaminants of water bodies.
Answer:

1. Discharge of untreated or partially treated sewage.
2. Agricultural chemicals.
3. Industrial effluents.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 7.
On which two factors does the growth of vegetation depend?
Answer:

1. Temperature and
2. moisture.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Pdf Question 8.
How are the major vegetation types of the world grouped?
Answer:

• Forests,
• grasslands,
• scrubs,
• tundra.

Geography Chapter 2 Class 8 Extra Questions Question 9.
Give one main reason for the clearance of forest?
Answer:
To feed the growing population or to increase agricultural land.

Chapter 2 Geography Class 8 Extra Questions Question 10.
What is the total account of freshwater over the earth?
Answer:
1%.

Land Soil Water Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Resources Class 8 Extra Questions Question 11.
Where does the government get money for public facilities?
Answer:
The government gets money from taxes collected from people for public facilities.

Land, Soil And Water Resources Class 8 Worksheets With Answers Question 12.
Ocean water is and is not fit for human use.
Answer:
salty.

Extra Questions Of Chapter 2 Geography Class 8 Question 13.
State true or false: Water is a non-renewable natural resource.
Answer:
False.

Class 8 Chapter 2 Geography Extra Questions Question 14.
What do you understand by land use?
Answer:
Using of land for different purposes like agriculture, forestry, mining, building houses, roads and setting up of industries is commonly termed as land use.

Ch 2 Geography Class 8 Extra Questions Question 15.
Distinguish between private land and community land.
Answer:

Private land	Community land
(i) Private land is owned by individuals.	(i) Community land is owned by the community.
(ii) Private land is used to build houses, agriculture etc.	(ii) Community land is used for common uses like collection of fodder, fruits, nuts or medicinal herbs.

Question 16.
Mention the common methods used to conserve land.
Answer:

• Afforestation,
• land reclamation,
• regulated use of chemical pesticides and fertilisers,
• checks on overgrazing.

Question 17.
Mention the factors of soil formation.
Answer:

• Parent rock,
• climate,
• topography,
• organic matter,
• time.

Question 18.
Mention the factors which lead to soil degradation.
Answer:

• Deforestation,
• overgrazing,
• overuse of chemical fertilisers or pesticides,
• rain wash,
• landslides,
• floods.

Question 19.
What is terrace cultivation?
Answer:
On steep slopes, terraces are made so that flat surfaces are available to grow crops. It reduces surface run-off and soil erosion.

Question 20.
Define contour ploughing.
Answer:
Ploughing is done parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier for water to flow down the slope.

Question 21.
Which method of soil conservation is practiced in the coastal and dry regions?
Answer:
In coastal and dry regions, rows of trees are planted to check the wind movement to protect soil cover.

Question 22.
What do you understand by water cycle?
Answer:
Movement of water through the oceans, the air, the land and back again, through the process of evaporation and precipitation, is called water cycle.

Question 23.
What are the major factors leading to shortage in supply of freshwater?
Answer:

• Increasing population,
• rising demands for food and cash crops,
• increasing urbanisation,
• rising standards of living.

Question 24.
Which regions of the world face scarcity of water?
Answer:

• Africa,
• West Asia,
• South Africa,
• parts of Western USA,
• North-West Mexico,
• parts of South America,
• Australia.

Question 25.
Define biosphere and ecosystem.
Or
Write the difference between biosphere and ecosystem.
Answer:

• Biosphere – It is the narrow zone of contact between the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.
• Ecosystem – In the biosphere, living beings are interrelated and interdependent on each other for survival. This life-supporting system is called ecosystem.

Question 26.
Various species of natural vegetation and wildlife have become vulnerable or endangered and some are at the verge of extinction. Why? Give reasons.
Answer:
Deforestation, soil erosion, constructional activities, forest fires and landslides are some of the human-made and natural factors which together accelerate the process of extinction of natural vegetation and wildlife.

Question 27.
Why are animals poached?
Answer:
Animals are poached for collection and illegal trade of hides, skins, nails, teeth, horns as well as feathers.

Question 28.
What are landslides?
Answer:
Landslides are mass movement of rock, debris or earth down a slope. They include a broad range of motions whereby falling, sliding and flowing under the influence of gravity dislodges earth material.

Question 29.
Give two main reasons of forest fire.
Answer:

1. Natural fire due to lightning.
2. Fire purposely caused by local inhabitants.

Question 30.
Varied characteristics of land and climate affect the distribution of population. Explain how.
Answer:
Varied characteristics of land and climate affect the distribution of population in the following ways –

• The rugged topography, steep slopes of mountains, low-lying areas susceptible to waterlogging, desert areas, thick forested areas are sparsely populated or uninhabited.
• Fertile plains and river valleys offer suitable land for agriculture. Therefore, these are densely populated.

Question 31.
Explain how various factors affect soil formation.
Answer:

• Parent Rock – It determines colour, texture, chemical properties, mineral content and permeability of the soil.
• Relief-Altitude and slope determine the accumulation of soiL
• Climate – Temperature and rainfall influence rate of weathering and humus formation.
• Time – It determines the thickness of soil.
• Flora, Fauna and micro-organisms – These affect the rate of humus formation.

Question 32.
Describe five methods of soil conservation.
Answer:

1. Mulching- The bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic matter like straw. It helps to retain soil moisture.
2. Contour barriers – Stones, grass, soil are used to build barriers along contours. Trenches are made in front of the barriers to collect water.
3. Agroforestry- Crops are grown along with trees on the boundaries of the fields to check soil erosion.
4. Rock dam – Rocks are piled up to slow down the flow of water. This prevents gully erosion.
5. Intercropping- Different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at different times to protect the soil from rain wash.

Question 33.
Describe the distribution of water on the earth’s surface.
Answer:

• Oceans cover two-thirds of the earth’s surface.
• The freshwater accounts for only about 2.7 per cent of the total. Nearly 70 per cent of this occurs as ice sheets and glaciers in Antarctica, Greenland and mountain regions. Only one per cent of freshwater is available as groundwater, surface water in rivers and lakes and as water vapour in the atmosphere.

Question 34.
Mention the various ways of water conservation.
Answer:

• The rainwater can be collected from the rooftop with the help of pipes in tanks, sumps, ponds or lakes. It also helps in recharging of groundwater.
• The canals must be properly lined to minimise losses by water seepage.
• Sprinklers effectively irrigate the area by checking water losses through seepage and evaporation.
• In dry regions with high rates of evaporation, drip irrigation is very useful.

Question 35.
Write four advantages of rainwater harvesting.
Answer:

1. It makes ecological and financial sense not to waste pure natural resources available in large quantity on rooftops.
2. It encourages water conservation and self-dependence.
3. If water does not contain any organic material and is stored in a clean container, it remains pure for long time.
4. It prevents groundwater depletion and is a good supplement to piped water.

Question 36.
How are plants useful to us?
Or
Write the various uses of plants.
Answer:

• Plants provide us timber.
• Give shelter to animals.
• Produce oxygen we breathe.
• Protect soil which is essential for growing crops.
• Act as shelterbelts.
• Help in storage of underground water.
• Give us fruits, nuts, latex, turpentine oil, gum, medicinal plants, paper, etc.

Question 37.
Explain how animals are useful to us.
Answer:

• Animals provide us with milk, meat, hides and wool.
• Insects like bees provide us with honey, help in pollination of flowers and have an important role to play as decomposers in the ecosystem.
• The birds feed on insects and act as decomposers as well. Vulture, due to its ability to feed on dead livestock, is a scavenger and considered a vital cleanser of the environment.

Question 38.
Describe how the growth of forests depends on rainfall.
Answer:

• Huge trees and dense forests are found in the areas of heavy rainfall.
• Short stunted trees grow in the regions of moderate rainfall.
• Thorny shrubs and scrubs grow in dry areas of low rainfall.
• Tundra vegetation of cold Polar Regions comprises of mosses in lichens.

Question 39.
Write the major causes of landslides.
Answer:
Major causes of landslides are as follows –

• Topographic variables – Relief, slope.
• Geological- Lithology, fault/thrust/ lineaments.
• Morphological causes- Drainage density, dissected surface, stream action.
• Triggering factors – Rainfall, earthquake.
• Anthropogenic – Land use, excavation on slope.

Question 40.
Mention some mitigation techniques of landslides.
Answer:

• Hazard mapping, locate areas prone to landslides. Hence, such areas can be avoided for building settlements.
• Construction of retention wall to stop land from slipping.
• Increase in the vegetation cover.
• The surface drainage control works are implemented to control the movement of landslides along with rainwater and spring flows.

Question 41.
Mention the steps that can be taken to protect plants and animals.
Answer:

• National parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves are made.
• Awareness programmes like social forestry and van Mahotsav should be encouraged at the regional and community level.
• School children should be encouraged for bird watching and visiting nature camps so that they appreciate the habitat of varied species.
• Laws must be passed declaring the trade and killing of birds and animals is illegal.

Multiple Choree Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one among the following is a densely populated area?
(a) Desert areas
(b) River valleys
(c) Thick forested areas
(d) Steep slopes.
Answer:
(b) River valleys.

2. Which one of the following is not a physical factor determining the use of land?
(a) Topography
(b) Soil
(c) Climate
(d) Technology.
Answer:
(d) Technology.

3. What are the major threats to the environment?
(a) Land degradation, landslides
(b) Soil erosion, desertification
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b).

4. Tick the correct order of the constituents of soil profile (from top to bottom) in the following.
(a) Topsoil, subsoil, weathered rock, parent rock
(b) Topsoil, weathered rock, subsoil, parent rock
(c) Subsoil, topsoil, weathered rock, parent rock
(d) Topsoil, subsoil, parent rock, weathered rock.
Answer:
(a) Topsoil, subsoil, weathered rock, parent rock.

5. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(а) Mulching helps to retain soil moisture.
(b) Soil erosion and depletion are the major threats to soil as a resource.
(c) Shelterbelts are made in the mountainous areas.
(d) Plants give shelter to the animals and together they maintain the ecosystem.
Answer:
(c) Shelterbelts are made in the mountainous areas.

Glossary:

→ Land use – Using land for various purposes such as agriculture, forestry, mining, building houses, roads etc. is commonly termed as land use.

→ Common property resources- Land owned by community for common uses like collection of fodder, fruits, nuts or medicinal herbs are also called common property resources.

→ Soil – The Sublayer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called soil.

→ Weathering-The breaking up and decay of exposed rocks, by temperature changes, frost action, plants, animals and man.

→ Biosphere – The narrow zone of contact between the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.

→ Ecosystem- In the biosphere living beings are interrelated and inter¬dependent on each other for survival. This life-supporting system is known as ecosystem.

→ Wildlife – Wild animals and vegetation living in a natural, undomesticated state.

→ Landslides – The mass movement of rock, debris or earth down a slope.

→ National park – A natural area designated to protect the ecological integrity of one or more ecosystems for present and future, generations.

→ Biosphere reserves -Series of protected areas linked through a global network intended to demonstrate the relationship between conservation and development.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Laws was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Online Education for Understanding Laws Class 8 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 4

(1) The key elements of the democratic government are ………………………. , ………………………… .
Answer:
Liberty, Equality

(2) ………………………. was the language that white people spoke.
Answer:
Afrikaans

(3) ………………………. fought apartheid in S. Africa.
Answer:
African National Congress

(4) Zulu was the language spoken by the ………………………. in South Africa.
Answer:
Blacks

(5) In India the government is elected for ………………………. years.
Answer:
five.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Name the races of people in S. Africa. Why did they come here?
Answer:
South Africa is a country that has people of several races. There are black people who belong to South Africa, whites who came there to settle and Indians who came as labourers and traders.

Understanding Laws Class 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
What were Apartheid laws?
Answer:
The word ‘apartheid’ means separation on the basis of race. South African people were divided into whites, blacks, Indians and coloured races. According to the law, these races were not allowed to mingle with each other, to live near each other or even to use common facilities.

Ncert Solutions For Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 3.
Write the name of one black township,
Answer:
One black township was south-western township or SOWETO.

Class 8 Civics Ch 4 Extra Questions Question 4.
Why was Hector Ndlovu shot by police? When did the incident take place?
Answer:
Hector Ndlovu was shot by the police because he and his classmates had joined the protest against learning the Afrikans language in school. This was the language that the white people spoke. The incident took place on 30th April 1978.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 5.
Who fought against the apartheid laws? What was the result of this struggle?
Answer:
The African National Congress, a group of people who – led the struggle against apartheid. The most well-known leader of the African National Congress was Nelson Mandela, who fought the apartheid laws for several years. South Africa became a democratic country in 1994, in which people of all races were considered equal.

Ncert Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 6.
What is meant by consensus?
Answer:
Everyone has the same view regarding an issue.

Chapter 4 Civics Class 8 Extra Questions Question 7.
Write about the conflict between the states of Karnataka and Tamilnadu over the issue of R. Cauvery?
Answer:
The rivers can become a source of conflict between states. A river may have its origin in one place and after flowing through many states that finally end its journey in the sea or ocean. The sharing of river water between different places that the river goes through is becoming an issue. There is a dispute between Karnataka and Tamilnadu over the sharing of the Cauvery water. The water stored in Krishnasagar dam in Karnataka is used for irrigation in several districts and for meeting the needs of various cities.

The water stored in Mettur dam of Tamilnadu is used for crops grown in the delta region of that state. A conflict arises because dams are on the same river. The downstream dam in Tamilnadu can only be filled up with water when it is released from the upstream one located in Karnataka. So both the states cannot get as much water as they need for people in their states. This leads to conflict. The central government has to see that, fair distribution is worked out.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following refers to apartheid laws?
(a) The laws which brings separation in the country on the basis of race
(b) The laws which brings separation in the country on the basis of castes
(c) The laws related to marriage
(d) The laws related to property disputes.
Answer:
(a) The laws which brings separation in the country on the basis of race.

2. In which races were the African people divided?
(a) The black and the Indians
(b) The black and the coloured
(c) The white, the black, the Indians and the coloured
(d) The red and the black.
Answer:
(c) The white, the black, the Indians and the coloured.

3. The African National Congress is a group of people who led the struggle against:
(a) Muslim community
(b) the black
(c) the Indians
(d) apartheid.
Answer:
(d) apartheid.

4. Who is Nelson Mandela?
(а) The leader of the African National Congress
(b) A religious scholar
(c) A famous poet
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(а) The leader of the African National Congress.

5. When did South Africa become a democratic country?
(a) In 1984
(b) In 1994
(c) In 1999
(d) In 2005.
Answer:
(b) In 1994.

6. For how many years is the government elected in India?
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 10 years
Answer:
(a) 5 years.

7. Which of the following are the ways in which people express their views and make governments understand what actions they should take?
(а) Thomas
(b) Strikes
(c) Signature campaigns
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

8. How do members of the minority community, Dalits, Adivasis, women and others participate in the government?
(a) By educating themselves
(b) By making themselves rich
(c) Organising themselves into social movements
(d) By making prayers to the government
Answer:
(c) Organising themselves into social movements.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Marginalisation Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Online Education for Understanding Marginalisation Class 8 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 7

Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
How is a city different from the village?
Answer:
A city is much bigger than a village and more spread opt? It has crowded markets, many cars and buses, water and electrical facilities, traffic control and hospitals. The village may or may not have some of these facilities. In the milage, we can see bullock carts, agricultural fields and grazing areas for the animals.

Understanding Marginalisation Class 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
What is the difference between a Municipal Corporation and a Municipal Council?
Answer:
The Municipal Corporations work in big cities and Municipal Councils work in small towns.

Understanding Marginalisation Class 8 Extra Questions Question 3.
How are the members of the Municipal Corporation elected?
Answer:
The members of the Municipal Corporation are elected by the people. The city is divided into different wards and ward councillors get elected by the people.

Class 8 Civics Ch 7 Extra Questions Question 4.
Who implements the decisions of the Municipal Corporation?
Answer:
The Municipal Commissioner and the administrative staff implement these issues. The Commissioner and the administrative staff are..appointed by the state government. He is always a civil servant and is appointed by the state government.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 5.
Why did the Municipal Corporation suggest to sort the garbage?
Answer:
When the people sort out their garbage, it helps the Municipal Corporation to keep the streets clean.

Understanding Marginalisation Extra Questions Question 6.
What is a tax?
Answer:
A tax is a sum of money that people pay to the government for the services the government provides.

Understanding Marginalisation Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 7.
What is a property tax?
Answer:
People who own homes pay property tax. The larger the house the more the taxes.

Ncert Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 8.
Explain the term ‘privatisation’.
Answer:
This means that the work that was earlier being done by government workers is now being done by a private company.

Ncert Solutions For Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
Why have the Municipalities hired private contractors to collect and process garbage?
Answer:
The contract workers are paid less and their job is temporary.

Chapter 7 Civics Class 8 Extra Questions Question 10.
Why is the collection of garbage a dangerous job?
Answer:
Collection of garbage is a dangerous job because the contract workers do not have any access to safety measures and are not taken care of if they are injured while working.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The Municipal Corporation belongs to :
(a) a small city
(b) a big city
(c) a small village
(d) a big village
Answer:
(b) a big city.

2. Which one of the following refers to the Municipal’ Council?
(а) An organisation in a small town that takes care of street lights, garbage collection, water supply, etc.
(b) An organisation in a big city that takes care of street lights, water supply, etc.
(c) An advisory committee to the District Magistrate
(d) An administrative body at the village level.
Answer:
(а) An organisation in a small town that takes care of street lights, garbage collection, water supply, etc.

3. Who decide on issues in Municipal Corporation?
(а) The Councillors Committees
(b) The Councillors
(c) The member of the Gram Sabha
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

4. Who implements the decisions in the Municipal Corporation?
(a) The Commissioner
(b) The administrative staff
(c) Members of the Panchayat Samiti
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

5. Who are the appointed staff in the Municipal Corporation?
(a) The Councillors
(b) The Commissioner
(c) The administrative staff
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

6. Which one of the following refers to a tax?
(a) A sum of money that people pay to the government as donation
(b) A sum of money that people pay to the government for the services provided by the government
(c) A sum of money that people have to give as dowry
(d) Government’s monetary assistance to the farmers
Answer:
(b) A sum of money that people pay to the government for the services provided by the government.

7. Which of the following departments is under the Municipal Corporation?
(a) The Water Department
(b) The Sanitation Department
(c) A department to look after gardens
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

8. Which one of the following refers to subcontracting?
(а) The work done by government workers
(b) The work that was earlier being done by government workers is now being done by a private company
(c) The work done by very big contractors’
(d) The work done by small contractors
Answer:
(b) The work that was earlier being done by government workers is now being done by a private company.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Judiciary was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Online Education for Judiciary Class 8 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 5

(1) All the villagers, who are above 18 years of age and who has the right to vote are members of the ………………………… .
Answer:
Gram Sabha

(2) The work of the ………………………… has to be approved by the ………………………… .
Answer:
Gram Panchayat, Gram Sabha

(3) The work of the ………………………… is to record the decisions of the Gram Sabha.
Answer:
Secretary

(4) The ………………………… gives more information on the schemes, asked by the Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Block Development Officer

(5) The ………………………… is the first tier of the democratic government.
Answer:
Panchayat Raj System.

Judiciary Class 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What is the term of the Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
The Gram Panchayat is elected for five years.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
How is the secretary appointed? What are its functions?
Answer:
The secretary of the Gram Panchayat is also the secretary of the Gram Sabha. He is not an elected person but is appointed by the government. The secretary is responsible for calling the meetings of the Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat and keep a record of the proceedings.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 Judiciary Extra Questions Question 3.
What are check dams?
Answer:
A dam is a barrier built across a watercourse to hold back and raise the level of water. A check dam is constructed to collect rainwater. They can be also built on small rivers.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 Short Questions And Answers Question 4.
Who has to approve the work of the Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
The work of the Gram Panchayat has to be approved by the Gram Sabha.

Class 8 Civics Ch 5 Extra Questions Question 5.
Why are committees formed in the Gram Sabha of some states?
Answer:
In some states Gram Sabha form committees like the construction and development committees. These committees include some members from the Gram Sabha and some members from the Gram Panchayat who work together to carry out specific tasks.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following refers to Sarpanch?
(a) The elected representative of the Zila Parishad
(b) The elected representative of the Gram Sabha and the Panchayat President
(c) The elected representative of the Legislative Assembly
(d) The elected representative of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
(b) The elected representative of the Gram Sabha and the Panchayat President.

2. Who is a Ward Member or Panch?
(a) Elected representative of the Ward
(b) A member appointed by the headman
(c) Elected member of the Zila Parishad
(d) Elected member of the State Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
(a) Elected representative of the Ward.

3. Who are the members of the Gram Panchayat?
(a) The Ward Panchs
(b) The Sarpanch
(c) All educated people of the village
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

4. Which one of the following refers to Panchayati Raj System?
(a) A process through which people participate in their own first tier of democratic government
(b) The system in which a king is at village level
(c) The system in which a king is at block level
(d) A process through which only educated people participate in the government.
Answer:
(a) A process through which people participate in their own first tier of democratic government.

5. Which of the following are the functions of the Zila Parishad?
(a) To make development plan
(b) To regulate the money distribution among all the Gram Panchayats
(c) To make laws for the state
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

6. Which one of the following refers to the BPL?
(а) People who can meet their basic needs
(b) People who can not meet their basic needs
(c) People who can buy a car
(d) People who have pucca buildings.
Answer:
(b) People who can not meet their basic needs.

7. The poverty line is fixed by the.
(a) Headman
(b) Sarpanch
(c) Government
(d) Members of the Gram Sabha
Answer:
(c) Government.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Online Education for Human Resource Class 8 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 6

Question 1.
When did the Ministry of Human Resource Development establish? What was its aim?
Answer:
The Ministry of Human Resource Development was established in 1985. Its main aim was to improve people’s skills.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the pattern of population distribution?
Answer:
The w.ay in which people are spread across the earth surface is known as the pattern of population distribution.

Question 3.
Which are the most crowded areas of the world?
Answer:

• South and South-East Asia,
• Europe,
• North-Eastern North America.

Question 4.
Which regions of the world are sparsely populated?
Ans.
High latitude areas, tropical deserts, high mountains and equatorial forests are sparsely populated

Question 5.
What is average density of population in India?
Answer:
324 persons per square km.

Question 6.
What is population density?
Answer:
Population density is the number of people living in a unit area of the earth’s surface.

Question 7.
Name two regions of the world which attracted people due to the presence of minerals.
Answer:

1. Diamond mines of South Africa.
2. Oil in Middle East.

Question 8.
Why do people prefer to live on plains?
Answer:
People prefer to live on plains because these are suitable for farming, manufacturing and tertiary activities.

Question 9.
What do you understand by population change?
Answer:
The population change refers to the change in the number of people during a specific time.

Question 10.
Distinguish between birth rate and death rate.
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of live births per 1000 people while death rate is the number of deaths per 1000 people.

Question 11.
What is migration?
Answer:
Migration is the movement of people in and out of an area.

Question 12.
What is natural growth rate?
Answer:
The difference between the birth rate and the death rate of a country is called the natural growth rate.

Question 13.
Distinguish between emigrants and immigrants.
Answer:
Emigrants are people who leave a country, immigrants are those who arrive in a country.

Question 14.
Which are the two groups of dependents in a population?
Answer:

1. Young dependents (aged below 15 years)
2. Elderly dependents (aged over 65 years).

Question 15.
Which type of population pyramid do the countries like Japan have?
Answer:
In the countries like Japan, low birth rates make the pyramid narrows at the base. Decreased death rates allow the numbers of people to reach in the old age.

Question 16.
Sixty per cent of the world’s population stay in just 10 countries. Name any eight of them.
Answer:

1. China,
2. India,
3. USA,
4. Indonesia,
5. Brazil,
6. Pakistan,
7. Bangladesh,
8. Russia,
9. Nigeria,
10. Japan.

Question 17.
What is the average density of population of the world? Which part of the world have the highest density of
population?
Answer:
The average density of population of the world is 45 persons per square km. South-Central Asia has the highest density of
population.

Question 18.
In the early 1970s, the world | population was 3 billion. In 1999, the population doubled to 6 billion. What were the factors responsible for this growth?
Answer:
Factors responsible for this population growth were –

• Better food supplies
• Better medicines and
• Reduced Death Rate
• Number of births medical facilities remained fairly high.

Question 19.
Does emigration and immigration affect the population size of a country? Give example in support of your answer.
Answer:
Emigration and immigration do affect the population size of a country. For example, the population of United States of America and Australia increased due to immigration while Sudan has experienced a loss in population numbers due to emigration.

Question 20.
Are population composition and economic development related to each other? Give an example in support of your 4 answers.
Answer:
Population composition hardly affects economic development. For example, Bangladesh and Japan both are densely populated but Japan is far more economically developed than Bangladesh.

Question 21.
Which aspects of population do the. composition of population help us to know?
Answer:
We learn various aspects of population through population composition:

• Number of males and females.
• To which age group they belong.
• Education level.
• Composition of occupation;
• Income level.
• Health conditions.

Question 22.
Which type of population pyramid does India have?
Answer:
The population pyramid of India is broad in the younger age groups because more infants survive to adulthood. Such populations contain a relatively large number of young people which means a strong and expanding labour force.

Question 23.
What is Population Composition? How does it help us?
Answer:
Population composition refers to the structure of the population. It helps us to know the variation in age, sex, literacy level, health condition, occupation and income level of a population.

Question 24.
What are the factors influencing change in population?
Answer:

• Birth rate-The number of live births per 1000 people.
• Death rate-The number of death per 1000 people.
• Migration-It is the movement of people in and out of an area.

Question 25.
How do topography and climate affect distribution of population?
Answer:
Topography – People prefer to live on plains rather than mountains and plateaus because plains are suitable for farming, manufacturing, transportation, etc. The Hwang Ho plains are densely populated while mountains like Andes, Alps, Himalayas are sparsely populated. Climate – Regions of very hot and very cold climates like Sahara desert, Antarctica are sparsely populated.

Question 26.
Explain how social, cultural and economic factors affect the distribution of population?
Answer:
Social factors- Areas of better housing, education and health facilities are more densely populated, e.g., Pune, Bangalore, Chandigarh.

Cultural factors – Places of religious or cultural significance attract people. For example, Varanasi, Jerusalem and Vatican City.

Economic factors – Industrial areas provide employment opportunities, thus., attract large number of people. For example, Osaka, Mumbai, etc.

Question 27.
Until the 1800s, the world’s population grew steadily but slowly. Give reasons.
Answer:

• Large number of babies were born, but they died early too.
• Lack of proper health facilities.
• Sufficient food was not available to masses.
• Farmers were not able to produce enough to meet the food requirements of all the people.

Question 28.
What is the general trend of international and internal (within a nation) migration?
Answer:

• The general trend of international migration is from less developed nations to the more developed nations in search of better employment opportunities.
• Within a nation, people move from the rural to urban areas in search of employment, education and health facilities.

Question 29.
How does the population pyramid of a country in which both birth and death rates are high look? What do you conclude from such pyramid?
Answer:
The population pyramid of a country in which both birth and death rates are high is broad at the base and rapidly narrows towards the top. This is because, although many children are born, a large percentage of them die in their infancy, relatively few become adults and there are very few old people.

Question 30.
What are the factors affecting the distribution of population?
Answer:

1. Soil-Fertile soil provides suitable land for agriculture like – Ganga and Brahmaputra plain.
2. Water-People prefer to live in the areas where sufficient amount of freshwater is easily available.
3. Topography-People always prefer to live on plains rather than mountains and plateaus.
4. Climate-People usually avoid extreme climates that are very hot and very cold.
5. Social, Cultural and Economic factors.

Question 31.
What are the three causes of growing population of India? Give two suggestions to control population growth.
Answer:
The three causes of growing population of India are :

1. Better food supplies
2. Decreasing Death Rate
3. Better healthcare services and to control population growth, Government should implement a strict law and policy. Family Planning plan should be promoted.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) People are a nation’s greatest resource.
(b) Many more people live south of the Equator than north of the Equator.
(c) Ten countries which account for about 60% of the world’s population have over 100 million people each.
(d) South-Central Asia has the highest density of population in the world.
Answer:
(b) Many more people live south of the Equator than north of the Equator.

2. Which of the following areas are densely populated because of the fertile soils?
(a) The Gangetic plains in India
(b) The Nile Valley in Egypt
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b).

3. Tick the odd one in the following.
(a) Migrations
(b) Birthrate
(c) Death rate
(d) Natural growth rate.
Answer:
(a) Migrations.

4. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Rates of population growth vary across the world.
(b) Kenya has high population growth rate.
(c) People vary greatly in their age, sex, literacy level, etc.
(d) Emigrants are people who arrive in a country.
Answer:
(d) Emigrants are people who arrive in a country.

5. Tick the wrong statement in the following.
(a) The population pyramid is also called an age-sex pyramid.
(b) The population pyramid also tells us how many dependents there are in a country.
(c) The size of the top of a population pyramid shows the numbers of children.
(d) In countries like Japan, low birth rates make the pyramid narrow at the base.
Answer:
(c) The size of the top of a population pyramid shows the numbers of children.

6. In 1999, the world population reached:
(a) 1 billion
(b) 3 billion
(c) 6 billion
(d) 10 billion
Answer:
(c) 6 billion.

Glossary:

→ Pattern of population distribution – The way in which people are spread across the earth surface is called the pattern of population distribution.

→ Population density-Population density is the number of people living in a unit area of the earth’s surface.

→ Birth rate – The number of live births per 1,000 people.

→ Death rate – The number of deaths per 1,000 people.

→ Migration – It is the movement of people in and out of an area.

→ Natural growth rate – The difference between the birth rate and the death rate of a country is called the natural growth rate.

→ Life expectancy – It is the number of years that an average person can expect to live.

→ Immigration – When a person enters a new country.

→ Emigration – When a person leaves a country.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 8 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/class-8-history-chapter-8-extra-questions/

Online Education for Civilising the Native, Educating the Nation Class 8 Extra Questions History Chapter 8

Question 1.
Who reinterpreted verses from the Koran to argue for women’s education?
Answer:
Mumtaz Ali.

Question 2.
What is meant by the Paramhans Mandali?
Answer:
The Paramhans Mandali was founded in 1840 in Bombay. Its aim was to work for the abolition of caste.

Question 3.
When did the people from within the ‘lower’ castes begin organising movements against caste discrimination?
Answer:
Gradually, by the second half of the nineteenth century, people from within the lower castes began organising movements against caste discrimination and demanded social equality and justice.

Question 4.
What was Phule’s suggestion to abolish caste discrimination?
Answer:
Jyotirao Phule proposed that Shudras, i.e., labouring castes and Ati Shudras, i.e., untouchables should unite to challenge caste discrimination.

Question 5.
What did Periyar suggest to achieve social equality?
Answer:
He said that all religious authorities saw social divisions and inequality as God-given. So, untouchables had to free themselves from all religions in order to achieve social equality.

Question 6.
What was Periyar’s view about the codes of Manu, the Gita and the Ramayana?
Answer:
Periyar was an outspoken critic of these Hindu scriptures. He said that these texts had been used to establish the authority of Brahmans over lower castes and the domination of men over women.

Question 7.
What is meant by the loss of caste status?
Answer:
Those people who laboured to keep cities and villages clean, or worked at jobs that upper castes considered “polluting”, they were considered to have a loss of caste status.

Question 8.
What do you mean by untouchability?
Answer:
The people at the lowest level in the caste system laboured to keep cities and villages clean or worked at jobs that upper castes considered polluting. The upper castes treated these people as untouchables. They were not allowed to enter temples, draw water from the wells used by the upper castes or bathe in ponds where upper castes bathed. They were seen as inferior human beings.

Question 9.
Name any five social reformers in India.
Answer:

1. Raja Rammohun Roy (1772-1833)
2. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
3. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
4. Jyotirao Phule
5. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar).

Question 10.
Name any five women social reformers of eighteenth and nineteenth centuries in India.
Answer:

1. Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
2. Tarabai Shinde
3. Pandita Ramabai
4. Rashsundari Debi
5. Begums of Bhopal.

Question 11.
When was the law regarding widow remarriage passed? Who suggested this view initially?
Answer:

• This law was passed in 1856 that permits widow remarriage.
• The famous social reformer Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar used the ancient texts to suggest that widows could remarry. His suggestion was adopted by British officials and they made a law in this regard.

Question 12.
Why was the curriculum not the same for both boys and girls? Which school provided first the same hind of learning for the two?
Answer:

1. Initially, the people believed that the curriculum for girls should be easier than that for boys.
2. The Hindu Mahila Vidyalaya was one of the first institutions to provide girls with the kind of learning that was usual for boys at that time.

Question 13.
Name any three Muslim social reformers who emphasized on women’s education.
Answer:

1. Mumtaz Ali
2. Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
3. Begums of Bhopal.

Question 14.
When was the Child Marriage Restraint Act passed? What were its provisions?
Answer:

• The Child Marriage Restraint Act was passed in 1929.
• According to the Act, no man below the age of 18 and woman below the age of 16 could marry. Caste and Social Reform.

Question 15.
What do you mean by the Prarthna Samaj?
Answer:
The Prarthana Samaj was established in 1867 at Bombay. It followed the tradition of Bhakti that believed in spiritual equality of all castes. It tried to remove caste restrictions, abolish child marriage, encourage the education of women and end the ban on widow remarriage.

Question 16.
Name any five low-caste leaders who worked for caste discrimination and social equality.
Answer:

1. Ghasidas
2. Haridas
3. Jyotirao Phule
4. B.R. Ambedkar
5. E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar)
6. Shri Narayan Guru.

Question 17.
Who was Shri Narayan Guru ? What were his ideals?
Answer:
1. Shri Narayan Guru was a low- i- caste leader from present-day Kerala.
2.

• He proclaimed the ideals of unity of all people within one sect, i.e., a single caste and one guru.
• He, along with other low-caste leaders, tried to change those habits and practices among low castes which provoked upper castes’ contempt.

Question 18.
How did Jyotirao Phule extend his criticism of the caste system?
Answer:

• Phule extended his criticism of the caste system to argue against all forms of inequality.
• He was also worried about the pitiable condition of upper-caste women, the miseries of the labourers and the humiliation of the low castes.

Question 19.
Write a short note on Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and his experience about caste prejudice.
Answer:

• Ambedkar was born into a Mahar family. Mahar people were regarded as untouchables. The father of B.R. Ambedkar was also the leader of the Dalit movement. After finishing school, he went to the US for higher studies on a fellowship. In 1927, he started a Temple Entry Movement.
• As a child, Ambedkar experienced caste prejudice in everyday life. In school he was forced to sit outside the classroom on the ground. He was not allowed to drink water from taps that upper caste children used.

Question 20.
Who initiated the Non-Brahman Movement? ‘What was the argument of the movement?
Answer:

• In the early twentieth century, the Non-Brahman Movement started. The initiative came from those Non-Brahman castes that had acquired access to education, wealth and influence.
• They argued that Brahmans were heirs of Aryan invaders from the north who had conquered and subjugated, the original inhabitants of the region, i.e., the indigenous Dravidian races. The movement challenged Brahmanical claims to power.

Question 21.
Name the associations which came in existence as a result of the Non-Brahman Movement. What was their objective?
Answer:

1.

• Sanatan Dharma Sabhas
• Bharat Dharma Mahamandal
• Brahman Sabha in Bengal

2. The object of these associations was to uphold caste distinctions as a cornerstone of Hinduism and show how this was sanctified by scriptures.

Question 22.
What was the contribution of Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar in empowering the women in India? Write any two.
Answer:
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar supported widow remarriage, education for girls and set up schools for girls.

Question 23.
What were the conditions of women and children in Indian society around two hundred years ago?
Answer:

• There was a system of child marriage. Most children were married off at an early age. ,
• Both Hindu and Muslim men could marry more than one wife.
• Widows were praised if they chose death by burning themselves on the funeral pyre of their husbands.
• Women’s rights to property were also restricted.
• Most women had virtually no access to education. People generally believed that if a woman was educated, she would become a widow.

Question 24.
How were people divided along lines of caste?
Answer:

• They were divided into Brahmans, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas and Shudras.
• Brahmans and Kshatriyas considered themselves as upper castes.
• Traders and moneylenders were referred to as Vaishyas.
• At the lowest level, there were Shudras. Working Towards Change.

Question 25.
What factor prompted social customs and practices to change from the early nineteenth century?
Answer:

• One important reason for this change*was the development of new forms of communication.
• For the first time, books, newspapers, magazines, leaflets and pamphlets were printed.
• These were far cheaper and far more accessible than the manuscripts. So, ordinary people could read, write and express their ideas in their own languages.
• The discussions on all kinds of issues could reach out to a wider public and could become linked to movements for social change.

Question 26.
Match the following Indian reformers with their respective organisations:

(i) Raja Rammohun Roy	(a) Arya Samaj
(ii) Pandita Ramabai	(b) Temple Entry Movement
(iii) Swami Dayanand Saraswati	(c) Satnanu Movement
(iv) Dr B.R. Ambedkar	(d) Brahmo Samaj
(v) Ghasidas	(e) Widows’ home
(vi) Periyar	(f) Self Respect Movement
(vii) Haridas Thakur	(g) Matua Sect
(viii) Jyotirao Phule	(h) The Satyashodhak Samaj

Answer:
(i) (d);
(ii) (e);
(iii) (a);
(iv) (b);
(v) (c);
(vi) (f);
(vii) (g);
(viii) (h).

Question 27.
Write a note on Raja Rammohun Roy.
Or
What were the social ideas of Rammohun Roy? What strategy did he adopt to fulfil his social objectives?
Answer:
Raja Rammohun Roy (1772-1833) was a social reformer. He founded a reform association known as the Brahmo Sabha (Brahmo Samaj) in Calcutta. He was well-versed in Sanskrit, Persian and several other Indian and European languages.

Social objectives: He wanted to spread the knowledge of Western education in the country and bring about greater freedom and equality for women. He was worried particularly by the problems widows faced in their lives.
He began a campaign against the practice of Sati and in 1829, Sati was banned.

Strategy: Whenever he wished to challenge a practice that seemed harmful, he tried to find a verse or sentence in the ancient sacred texts that supported his point of view. He then suggested that the existing practice was against early tradition.

Question 28.
How did the movement in favour of widow remarriage spread to all over the country?
Answer:

• Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar used the ancient texts to suggest that widows could remarry.
• In the Telugu-speaking areas of the Madras Presidency, Veerasalingam Pantulu formed an association for widow remarriage.
• In the north, Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj and supported widow remarriage.
• Young intellectuals and reformers in Bombay began to work for the same cause, i.e., widow remarriage.

Question 29.
To what extent did the widow remarriage movement remain successful?
Answer:
This movement was successful to a limited extent.

• The number of widows who actually remarried remained low.
• Those women who married were not easily accepted in society.
• The conservative groups continued to oppose the law permitting widow remarriage.

Question 30.
What were the factors that contributed in bringing equality of castes?
Answer:

• Many reformers and reform associations held secret meetings and violated caste taboos on food and touch in order to get rid of the hold of caste prejudice in their lives.
• Christian missionaries set up schools for tribal groups and lower caste children.
• The poor began leaving their villages to look for jobs that were /opening up in the cities.
• Some low caste people went to other countries such as Mauritius, Trinidad and Indonesia for work.
  All the above factors filled up the social gap to some extent.

Question 31.
Describe the contribution of Raja Ram Mohun Roy in social reforms.
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohun Roy (1772-1833) was the founder of Brahmo Sabha (Brahmo Samaj) in Calcutta. He supported the ideas to spread the knowledge of western education in the country and bring about greater freedom and equality for women. As a result of his efforts, the practise of Sati was banned in 1829.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Tick the wrong pair in the following.
(a) Upper castes-Brahmans, Kshatriyas
(b) Vaishyas-traders, moneylenders
(c) Shudras – peasants, artisans
(d) Widows – virtuous women
Answer:
(d) Widows – virtuous women

2. Is the following description given about Raja Rammohan Roy true? If not, tick the incorrect statement.
(a) He was a great reformer who founded the Arya Samaj.
(b) He was keen to spread the knowledge of Western education in India.
(c) He was particularly moved by the problems of widows faced in their lives.
(d) He was well versed in Sanskrit, Persian and several other Indian and European languages.
Answer:
(a) He was a great reformer who founded the Arya Samaj.

3. The British officials passed a law in 1856 permitting widow remarriage. Name the famous Indian reformer at whose suggestion they adopted this measure.
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy
(b) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(d) Tarabai Shinde.
Answer:
(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.

4. Who founded a widows’ home at Poona to provide shelter to widows.
(а) Tarabai Shinde
(b) Jyotirao Phule
(c) Begum of Bhopal
(d) Pandita Ramabai.
Answer:
(d) Pandita Ramabai.

5. Which of the following statements not correct?
(a) The father of B.R. Ambedkar, the leader of Dalit movement, taught at an army school.
(b ) In 1873, Shri Narayana Guru wrote a book named ‘Gulamgiri’, meaning slavery.
(c) The movement for caste reform was continued in the 20th century by great Dalit leaders like B.R. Ambedkar and E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker.
(d ) Henry Derozio promoted radical ideas and encouraged his pupils to question all authority.

6. Who was the founder of AryaSamaj?
(a) Raja Ram Mohun Roy
(b) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(c) Swami Vivekanand
(d) Ishwar Chand Vidyasagar.
Answer:
(b) Swami Dayananda Saraswati.

Glossary:

→ Sati – This was a social custom in which widows were praised if they choose death by burning themselves on the funeral pyre of their husbands. Women who died in this manner, whether willingly or otherwise, were called Sati.

→ Untouchable- Those people who laboured to keep cities and villages dean, or worked at jobs that upper castes considered polluting, were treated as untouchables by the upper castes. They were seen as inferior human beings.

→ Conservative groups- Orthodox religious or social groups.

→ Gulamgiri- Slavery.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science