Category: CBSE

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 7 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 7

Board	CBSE
Class	IX
Subject	Science
Sample Paper Set	Paper 7
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 9 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 9 Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80

General Instructions

• The question paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
• All questions are compulsory. However an internal choice will be provided in two questions of 3 marks each and one question of five marks.
• All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 2 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
• Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section A are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
• Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section A are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
• Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section A are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
• Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section B are two-marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief

Questions
SECTION-A

Question 1.
Define saturated solution.

Question 2.
What is plasma membrane made up of?

Question 3.
What would happen to the cell if there is no Golgi apparatus?

Question 4.
During free fall what is the weight of the body? Give reasons for the answer.

Question 5.
The relative density of gold is 19.3. The density of water is 10³ kg/m³? What is the density of gold in S.I. unit?

Question 6.
Two block pieces of same mass and same size are dipped in water and oil. One block floats in water and the other sinks in oil. Explain why? When you mix oil and water, explain what .will be the top layer of the mixture.

Question 7.
Write the electronic configuration and valency of the following:

1. Fluorine
2. Potassium
3. Silicon

OR
You are given an element \(_{ 17 }^{ 35 }{ X }\) .

1. Find the number of protons, electrons and neutrons.
2. Valency of X.
3. Write the chemical formula of the compound formed when it combines with carbon and sodium.

Question 8.
Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature?
OR
How would you confirm that a colourless liquid given to you is pure water? Give three tests.

Question 9.
Give the function of the following: nuclear membrane, mitochondria, ribosomes.

Question 10.
Classify the following animals into their phyla giving, one reason:

1. Earthworm
2. Scorpion
3. Starfish

Question 11.
Deine by drawing the graphs to show the following:
(a) Uniform acceleration
(b) Non-uniform acceleration
(c) Uniform motion

Question 12.

1. Define atomic mass unit.
2. Distinguish between molecular mass and molar mass.
3. Deine and give one example of
   • diatomic and
   • triatomic molecule of compounds.

Question 13.

1. Explain why it is dangerous to jump out of a moving bus.
2. Explain why a sportsman gives a swing to his arm while catching a cricket ball.
3. How does a karate player break a slab of ice with a single blow.

Question 14.
A radio station is transmitting its signals at a frequency cf 400 MHz. If the velocity of radio wave is 3 × 10⁸ m/s, calculate the wavelength of radio waves.

Question 15.
Define power. Write is its S.I. unit. An electric bulb is rated 15 watts. What does it mean? What is the energy consumed in joules if it is used for 10 minutes?

Question 16.
The velocity time graph of a body is given as follows:

(i) State the kind of motion represented by OA; AB.
(ii) What is the velocity of the body after 10 s and after 40 s?
(iii) Calculate the retardation of the body.
(iv) Calculate the distance covered by the body between 10th and 30th second.

Question 17.

1. Define vaccine. Name two vaccines given to the children.
2. What is antibiotic penicillin? Give its function.

Question 18.
How can crop variety improvement methods come to the rescue of farmers facing repeated crop failures? Describe three factors for which they could do crop improvement.
Which is the most common method of obtaining improved variety of crops? Explain briefly.

Question 19.
Explain ‘potential energy’ in your own words and give an example of it. State the S.I. unit of potential energy. Write the expression for the potential energy of an object of mass ‘m’ that has been raised to a height ‘h’ from the ground.
A body of mass 20 kg is lifted up by 10 meters. Calculate its potential energy. If this body is allowed to fall freely, find its kinetic energy just before it touches the ground. (Take g= 10 m/s²)

Question 20.
(a) Distinguish between true solution, suspension and colloids in a tabular form under the following headings:
(i) Stability
(ii) Filterability
(iii) Type of mixture
(b) What is meant by concentration of a solution? How will you prepare a 10% solution of glucose in water?

Question 21.

1. State one similarity and one difference between evaporation and boiling.
2. List four factors which affect the rate of evaporation.
3. Describe an activity to show that water vapour is present in air.

SECTION-B

Question 22.
Four measuring cylinders with different least counts are shown in figures A, B, C and D. Name the most suitable cylinder for determining the volume of a cube of side 1 cm and why?

Question 23.
A teacher soaked 10 raisins in 35 mL of distilled water in a beaker labelled A and perform a similar activity and label the other beaker B. She maintained the temperature of beaker A at 20°C and B at 40°C. After an hour which one has higher percentage of water absorbed by raisins, beaker A or by those in beaker B?

Question 24.
Three students A, B and C determined the volume of a solid by immersing it in water in the overflow cans set-up as shown.

In which of these cases the result obtained will be correct/incorrect and why?

Question 25.
How does a cockroach adapt itself to wide range of habitats?

Question 26.
What are the different adulterants commonly used in foods?

Question 27.
Two bottles of equal volume are filled with glycerin and water respectively. Which of the bottle will be heavier? Give reason for your answer.

Answers
SECTION-A

Answer 1.
The solution in which no more solute can be dissolved at given temperature.

Answer 2.
Prateins and Lipids

Answer 3.
Golgi apparatus has the function of storage, modification and packaging of the products in vesicles. If there were no Golgi bodies, packaging and dispatching of materials synthesised by the cell will be stocked and it remained unclear where the proteins or synthesised materials will go.

Answer 4.
No weight, as the body is experiencing the force due to gravity.

Answer 5.
Relative density of gold = 19.3
Relative density of gold = \(\frac { Densityofgold }{ Densityofwater }\)
∴ Density of gold = Relative density of gold × Density of water
= 19.3 × 10³ kg/m³
= 19300 kg/m³

Answer 6.
The density of water is more than oil. Hence the buoyant force exerted by water on the object is more than by oil. Therefore among two identical pieces, one piece will float in water and the other sinks in oil.
Oil will float on water as its density is less than water. Therefore, oil will form the topmost layer.

Answer 7.

1. Flourine: Atomic number = 9; Electronic configuration = 2,1 and Valency = 1
2. Potassium: Atomic number = 19; Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 1 and Valency = -1
3. Silicon: Atomic number = 14; Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 4 and Valency = 4

OR

1. Protons = 17, Electrons = 17 and Neutrons = 35 – 17 = 18
2. Valency of X is 1.
3. CX₄ and NaX

Answer 8.
At 273 K or 0°C, ice will have more cooling than water because it can absorb more heat than water due to its latent heat of fusion. Water at the same temperature does not hold the latent heat of fusion, that is the hidden heat which is present in ice and thus it cannot absorb heat more than ice and will have less cooling effect.
OR

• Boiling test of water: Pure water has fixed boiling point of 100 degree Celsius. If a liquid boils at this temperature, then it is water.
• On boiling a sample of water all the water should evaporate and nothing is left behind, no salt or residue.
• pH test and freezing point: The pH of water is 7, freezing point of water is 0 degree Celsius. If a liquid freezes at 0 degrees, then it is water.

Answer 9.

• Nuclear membrane: It is a membrane made up of double layer of lipid and it is also called as the envelope that protects the nucleus in the cell.
• Mitochondria: It is called the powerhouse of the cell as it stores energy in the form of ATP. It regulates the metabolism.
• Ribosomes: It helps in making of proteins in the cell. Protein is needed for many cell functions such as repairing, damage or directing the chemical processes.

Answer 10.

1. Earthworm: Annelids, as their body is segmented.
2. Scorpion: Arthropoda, as it has joint appendages.
3. Starfish: Echinodermata, as it has calcareous skeleton and tube feet.

Answer 11.

Answer 12.

1. Atomic mass unit: A unit of mass used to express atomic and molecular weights, equal to one twelfth of the mass of an atom of carbon-12 isotope.
2. Molecular mass: Molecular mass of a compound is the mass of of its one molecule. This is measured in atomic mass unit (amu). 1 atomic mass unit is the one twelfth of the mass of an atom of C-12 isotope. When the mass of a molecule is divided by the mass of one twelfth of the mass of an atom of C-12 isotope, its relative mass is obtained.
   • Molar mass: This is also known as molecular weight. It is the mass of a substance for a given amount. The S.I. unit for the molar mass is g mol^-1. This gives the amount of the atoms/molecules/ions present in one mole of a substance.
3. • Diatomic molecule of compound: A molecule of a compund with two atoms, e.g. MgO, NaCl.
   • Triatomic molecule of compound: A molecule of a compound with three atoms, e.g. CO₂, H₂O.

Answer 13.

1. While moving in a bus our body is in the state of motion. On jumping out of a moving bus our feet touches the ground and came to rest, while the upper part of our body stays in motion and moves forward due to inertia of motion and hence we can fall in forward direction.
2. While catching a fast moving cricket ball, a fielder on the ground gradually pulls his hands backwards with the moving ball. This is done so as to increase the time during which the high velocity of the moving ball decreases to zero. Thus, the acceleration of the ball is decreased and so the impact of catching the fast moving ball is reduced.
3. A karate player applies the blow with a large velocity in a very short interval of time on the ice slab, which therefore exerts a large amount of force on it and suddenly breaks the ice slab.

Answer 14.
Frequency of the signals = 400 MHz
= 400 × 10⁶ Hz
Velocity of the waves = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Wavelength of the radio waves = ?
We know, Speed = Wavelength × Frequency

Answer 15.
Power is the rate of doing work i.e. the amount of work done per unit time.
S.I. unit: Watt
If a bulb is rated 15 watts, it means it consumes 15 joules per second.
Therefore, power = \(\frac { Energy }{ Time }\)
So, Energy = Power × Time
Therefore energy consumed by the bulb is 15 × (10 × 60) seconds
= 15 × 600
= 9000 Joules

Answer 16.
(i) OA – uniform acceleration, AB – zero acceleration/constant velocity.
(ii) 20 ms^-1 : zero/body comes to rest.

(iv) Distance between 10th and 30th second = area of figure shaded
= (30 – 10)s × 20 ms^-1
= 20 s × 20 m s
= 400 m

Answer 17.

1. Vaccine is a chemical/drug given in advance to an individual to give immunity to the body against certain diseases.
   Two vaccines given to children are:
   • BCG – for tuberculosis prevention
   • Polio drops – for polio prevention
2. Penicillin is an antibiotic that blocks the bacterial processes to build the cell wall. Due to this drug, the bacteria is unable to make a protective cell wall and dies easily. It is used to cure the diseases and infections caused by bacteria.

Answer 18.
Crop variety improvement methods came to the rescue of the farmers, facing repeated crop failures in the following ways:

1. Improved quality of crops are obtained in higher yield.
2. The cost of production is reduced & there is uniform maturity of crops which makes harvesting process easier & reduces loss during harvesting.
3. Crops with desirable agronomic characteristics are obtained having wider adability to the climatic conditions.
4. Soil fertility is maintained and there is no or minimum weeds.

Three factors for which farmers can do crop variety improvement are:

1. Develop biotic and abiotic resistance
2. Wider adaptability
3. Early and uniform maturity

Most common method is Hybridisation, which involves crossing between two varieties having genes for the desired characteristics and bringing them together into a new variety called the hybrid.

Answer 19.
‘Energy possessed by an object by virtue of its position or configuration. ’ (To be explained in candidate’s own words.)
Example: Stretched string of bow/ a stone lifted to a certain height (or any other appropriate example).
S.I. unit – Joule
Potential Energy, PE. = mgh
As the object falls, m = 20 kg g = 10 m/s² h = 10 m
∴ P.E = mgh
= 20 kg × 10 m/s² × 10 m
P.E = 2000 J
Its P. E. gets converted to K. E.
Kinetic energy just before it touches = 2000 J

Answer 20.
(a)

Property	Solution	Suspension	Colloid
Stability	Stable, i.e., particles do not settle down on keeping.	Not stable, i.e., particles settle down on keeping.	Stable, i.e., particles do not settle down on keeping.
Filterability	Passes through the filter paper-particle size is very small.	Suspended particles do not pass through the filter paper- particle size is large.	Passes through the filter paper-particle size is small.
Type of mixture	Homogeneous	Heterogeneous	Heterogeneous but appears to be homogeneous

(b) Concentration of a solution is the amount of the solute present in a given amount (mass or volume) of solution (or solvent).
Dissolve 10 g or glucose in 100 g – 10 g = 90 g of water

Answer 21.
1. Similarity: Liquid state is changed into of a substance its gaseous state.

Evaporation	Boiling
It is a surface phenomenon, i.e., water molecules at the surface gain energy to change their state.	It is a bulk phenomenon. All (bulk) the water molecules at a time gain energy to change their state.

2. Four factors:

• Surface area of the liquid exposed to the atmosphere
• Temperature of the liquid
• Humidity
• Wind velocity
• Vapour pressure of the liquid (any four)

3. When ice cold water or crushed ice is taken in a tumbler, water droplets soon appears on the outer surface of the tumbler./Anhydrous calcium chloride turns wet on keeping exposed to air. (Any one)

SECTION-B

Answer 22.
Cylinder A with the minimum least count will be used to find the volume of a cube with very small dimensions.

Answer 23.
The raisins soaked in B will have absorbed more water as the temperature of water is higher and as the osmosis process will be more in B than in A, since the temperature of water in A is less.

Answer 24.
In all the three cases the result obtained will be incorrect. This is because the water in the overflow can should be filled upto the outlet brim.

Answer 25.
Cockroach has a hard exoskeleton that serves many functions, including protection from water loss and physical injury and internally aids in muscle attachment, which results in tremendous leverage and strength. It also undergoes hibernation during unfavourable conditions.

Answer 26.
The commonly used adulterants in food are:

• Black pepper: dry seeds of papaya
• Honey: jaggery
• Red chilli powder: red brick powder
• Mustard seed: argemone seeds

Answer 27.
The bottle with glycerine would be heavier because its mass is greater than water. The density of a substance is directly proportional to the mass of the body. The density of glycerine is 1.26 g/cc and that of water is 1 g/cc.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 7 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 7

Board	CBSE
Class	IX
Subject	Social Science
Sample Paper Set	Paper 7
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme, as prescribed by the CBSE, is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

(i) The question paper has 27 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks are indicated against each question.
(iii) Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
(v) Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
(vi) Question number 26 and 27 are map questions of 2 marks from History and 3 marks from Geography. After completion, attach the maps inside the answer book.

Questions

Question 1:
In which book was the idea of one person one vote mentioned?

Question 2:
Who were Jadidists?

Question 3:
Which are the two houses of the parliament?

Question 4:
Name the island countries which are our southern neighbors.

Question 5:
Define asset of a country.

Question 6:
What are fair price shops?

Question 7:
Define poverty line.

Question 8:
How was France emerged as republic under Jacobins?

Question 9:
Write a note on Stalin’s collectivization programme.

Question 10:
What are the disadvantages of an electoral competition?

Question 11:
Why do we say that the role of Prime Minister in a coalition government has many constraints?

Question 12:
Name the fundamental rights provided by the Indian Constitution to its citizens?

Question 13:
How was the northern plains of India formed?

Question 14:
Write a note on the peninsular rivers.

Question 15:
How are disguised and seasonal unemployment different?

Question 16:
Explain the term social exclusion.

Question 17:
Mention any three factors of production.

Question 18:
What are the advantages of the Green revolution?

Question 19:
Discuss the consequences of Nazism in Germany.

Question 20:
What is shifting cultivation? Why were the European foresters unwilling to follow it?
OR
Why did the Massai community lost their land?
OR
Indian farmers were reluctant to grow opium. Explain.

Question 21:
How are democratic and non- democratic form of government different?

Question 22:
“There is need for constitution in every country”. Comment.

Question 23:
Write a note on the tropical deciduous forests.

Question 24:
Explain the occupational structure of India.

Question 25:
Write any five differences between traditional and modem farming methods.

Question 26:
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked on the outline map of world:
(a) One of the central powers of the First World War.
(b) One of the axis powers of the Second World War.

Question 27:
On the given political outline map of India. Locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols:
(a) Western most point of India.
(b) Dachigam wildlife sanctuary.
(c) Wettest place in India.

Answers

Answer 1:
Rousseau mentioned the idea of one person one vote in the book named “The social contract”.

Answer 2:
They were the Muslim reformers in the Russian empire.

Answer 3:
The houses of the parliament are the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Answer 4:
Sri Lanka and the Maldives islands are island countries and our southern neighbours.

Answer 5:
Asset of a country means the working population of a country.

Answer 6:
These are the ration shops opened by the government of India to provide food grains to the poor people at subsidized rate.

Answer 7:
It is an imaginary line based on income and consumption to know that who are poor in the society.

Answer 8:
They were the most radical groups formed in the wake of the French revolution. They were unhappy and angered by the shortage of food grains supply and high prices. As a rgsult they stormed the palace of Tuileries. They killed the king guard’s and made the king hostage for hours. This incident caused election and all the people of 21 years and above got the voting rights. Finally the new convention was formed and France was declared a republic.

Answer 9:
Stalin’s collectivization programme was a step to solve the problem of food shortage. This policy eliminated Kulaks and established state owned farms. The peasants were forced to work in the Kolkhoj. According to this programme policy of deportation and severe punishment was followed.

Answer 10:
The three demerits of the electoral competition are:

1. The different parties and candidates use dirty tricks to win the elections.
2. These political parties and leaders put allegations on each other.
3. Electoral competition causes disunity.

Answer 11:
Yes, it is true to say that the role of Prime Minister in a coalition government has many constraints.

1. The Prime Minister cannot take sole decision.
2. He has to accommodate different social groups and coalition partners in his party.
3. He has to listen the views of all the partners.

Answer 12:
The following are the various fundamental rights provided by the Indian Constitution to its citizens:

1. Right to equality
2. Right to freedom
3. Right against exploitation
4. Right to freedom of religion
5. Cultural and educational Rights
6. Right to constitutional remedies

Answer 13:
When the Indo-Australian plate collided with the Eurasian plate a large depression was formed in between. Gradually this was filled with the sediments deposited by the rivers from the north and south. This resulted in the formation of an extensive flat land called the northern plains of India.

Answer 14:
Three features of the peninsular rivers are:

1. The Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, the Kaveri, the Narmada and the Tapi are the important rivers of the peninsular plateau. These rivers originate from the peninsular India.
2. These rivers are seasonal in nature.
3. These rivers drain into the Bay of Bengal except the Narmada and the Tapi which drain into the Arabian Sea.

Answer 15:
Disguised unemployment: When more than required people are working then the extra people engaged, these are called disguised unemployed. This type of unemployment is found in the agricultural fields. They don’t have job opportunities elsewhere so they are sharing the labour effort with their family members.
Seasonal hunger: It is related to the cycles of food growing and harvesting. People face seasonal hunger in the rural areas because of seasonal nature of agricultural activities.

Answer 16:
The term social exclusion is used to describe those who are excluded from the society on the basis of caste, religion and economic backwardness. They live in the fringes. They don’t enjoy the benefits of the society’ which the upper caste people or rich people enjoy. They are not allowed to come in contact with the upper caste people.

Answer 17:
Basically there are four factors of production- land, labour, physical capital and human capital.

1. Land: It is the basic requirement for any kind of production either agricultural or industrial.
2. Labour: For production we need cheap and skilled labour. So that cost of production will be low.
3. Physical capital: It is of two types- fixed capital and working capital. Fixed capital includes tools and machines whereas working capital includes raw materials and money in hand.

Answer 18:
Green revolution benefitted the Indian agriculture in different ways:

1. Green revolution helped in modernizing agriculture.
2. It helped in bringing newer ways of production like tools and machines.
3. It helped in bringing food security in the country.

Answer 19:
The consequences of Nazism in Germany were as follows:

1. Democracy was destroyed and Germany became dictatorial state.
2. Economic recovery was given the priority with the aim at full production and full employment.
3. Germany left the League of Nations in 1933.
4. To control and order the society in their own way special surveillance and security forces were formed.
5. An exclusive racial community of pure Aryans was established because they believed in the concept of survival of the fittest.

Answer 20:
Shifting cultivation is a type of cultivation in which the farmers degrade the forest and bum it there only to clear and make a fresh patch of land to be used for cultivation. Seeds are sown with the onset of monsoon and is harvested in the month of October-November. These plots were used for cultivation for few years and then kept fallow for many years for the forest to grow.
In Europe farmers did not want to follow this type of agriculture because they felt that if they will practice this type of cultivation then the land will not be able to produce the type of timber which was needed for railways. The second reason to not practice this type of cultivation was fear of forest fire. They thought that while burning the forest, the flames may spread to other parts of the forests.

OR

The Massai community lost their land due to the following reasons:

1. Territorial possessions by the European powers was the basic reason behind losing their grazing land.
2. In 1885, Massailand was divided between British Kenya and German Tanganyika.
3. The productive grazing lands were allotted for white settlement and the Massai were forced to shift to the arid land.
4. The pasturelands were converted into the cultivated lands due to agricultural expansion.
5. Large areas of the grazing lands were declared reserved and the Massai people were not allowed to enter there for any business.

OR

Indian farmers were reluctant to grow opium due to the following reasons:

1. They had to use their best fertile land to grow opium.
2. They were using their fertile land for the crop cultivation.
3. It was difficult and time consuming to grow opium.
4. They had to pay high rent for the land.
5. The opium cultivation was not profitable for them as they were paid low for opium.

Answer 21:
Democratic and non- democratic form of government can be differentiated on the following grounds:

1. In the democratic government the elected people rule the country whereas in the non- democratic government people cannot choose their rulers.
2. In the democratic government citizens enjoy various freedoms whereas in the non- demociratic government freedom depends on the rulers.
3. In the democratic government representatives come in power after free and fair election whereas in the non-democratic government there is no such way to choose their representatives.
4. In the democratic government there is political equality whereas in the non-democratic government there is no political equality.
5. The democratic government functions according to the constitutional laws whereas the non-democratic government functions according to their will.

Answer 22:
The constitution is needed in a country due to the following reasons:

1. To build trust and coordination among the people to live with peace and harmony.
2. To specify the formation and the powers of the government.
3. To define the duties and responsibilities of different organs of the government.
4. To know the rights and duties of the people.
5. To protect the minorities and the weaker sections of the society.

Answer 23:
The following are the characteristics of the tropical deciduous forests:

1. The tropical deciduous forests are the most widespread in India.
2. They also called the monsoon forests.
3. They are found in the areas receiving rainfall between 200 cm and 70 cm.
4. Trees of the tropical deciduous forests shed their leaves in the dry summer for 6 to 8 weeks.
5. Lion, tiger, pig, deer and elephants are the common animals of these forests.

Answer 24:
The occupational structure of India:

1. It is the distribution of population according to different types of occupation.
2. The different occupations can be grouped into three different categories – primary, secondary and tertiary.
3. Primary activities includes agriculture related activities, secondary activities includes manufacturing related activities and tertiary activities includes service related activities.
4. In India 64% people are engaged in the primary, 13% in the secondary and 20% in the tertiary activities.
5. There is a shift taking place from primary to secondary and tertiary.

Answer 25:
The following are the differences between the modem farming and the traditional farming:

1. In modem farming latest tools and machines are used whereas in the traditional farming primitive tools are used for farming.
2. In modem farming HYV seeds are used whereas in traditional farming simple seeds are used.
3. In modem farming chemical fertilisers and pesticides are used whereas in traditional farming natural manures are used.
4. Modem farming gives more yield than the traditional farming.
5. The land is used more intensively in the modem farming than the traditional farming.

Answer 26:

Answer 27:

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 6 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 6.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 6

Board	CBSE
Class	IX
Subject	Social Science
Sample Paper Set	Paper 6
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme, as prescribed by the CBSE, is given here. Paper 6 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

(i) The question paper has 27 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks are indicated against each question.
(iii) Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
(v) Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
(vi) Question number 26 and 27 are map questions of 2 marks from History and 3 marks from Geography. After completion, attach the maps inside the answer book.

Questions

Question 1:
What was the reason for increasing the taxes by the French government?

Question 2:
What do you mean by the term proportional representation?

Question 3:
Define referendum.

Question 4:
Name the types of states in India during British Time.

Question 5:
Name the different factors of production.

Question 6:
What are the investments done in humans to make them a resource?

Question 7:
Define seasonal hunger.

Question 8:
What were the causes of subsistence crisis in France during the old regime?

Question 9:
Write a note on the division of workers in social groups in Russia.

Question 10:
How can democracy be criticized?

Question 11:
Give a brief description about Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 12:
How can you say that the Election Commission in India is independent and powerful?

Question 13:
Write a note on the river called Dakshin Ganga.

Question 14:
Which factors decides the climate of any place?

Question 15:
Mention any three non-farm activities in the village Palampur.

Question 16:
How are the market activities different from the non- market activities?

Question 17:
What are the causes of poverty in India.

Question 18:
Explain the dimensions of food security.

Question 19:
Discuss the steps taken against the Jews between 1933-1939.

Question 20:
What were the causes that led to the decline of forest area in the Indian sub-continent between 1880 and 1920?
OR
Write a note on the movement of pastorals in the mountains.
OR
What were the effects of open field system in England?

Question 21:
How are the political executives different from the permanent executives?

Question 22:
“International covenant has contributed to the expansion of rights”. Justify.

Question 23:
How are the Western Ghats different from the Eastern Ghats?

Question 24:
Population is a dynamic phenomenon. Justify.

Question 25:
What do you mean by the term food security? Discuss the role of green revolution in food security in India.

Question 26:
Identify these places and write their correct names on the lines marked on the outline map of France:
(a) Marseiles
(b) Bordeaux

Question 27:
On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols:
(a) Rajaji wildlife sanctuary
(b) The Chhotanagpur plateau
(c) State having lowest density of population.

Answers

Answer 1:
The French Government increased the taxes to meet the regular expenses of maintaining army, the court, the government offices and the universities.

Answer 2:
Proportional representation is an electoral system in which political groups get the number of seats in the legislature in proportion to the number of votes

Answer 3:
It is a system of direct voting in which the people are asked to accept or reject a proposal entirely.

Answer 4:
The two types of states in India before 1947 were – the princely states and the provincial.

Answer 5:
Land, labour, physical capital and human capital are together called factors of production.

Answer 6:
The two investments done in humans to make them a resource are- education and skill formation.

Answer 7:
Seasonal hunger is related to the cycles of food growing and harvesting. People face seasonal hunger in the rural areas because of seasonal nature of agricultural activities.

Answer 8:
The causes of subsistence crisis in France during old regime were:

1. There was increasing demand for the food grains due to the increase in the population.
2. The price of bread increased because the production of food grains was not increasing.
3. As the prices were rising but the wages were not.

Answer 9:
The following is the explanation of the division of workers in the social groups in Russia:

1. Some of them were closely associated with the villages while others settled in cities.
2. Metal workers in Russia were more skilled than other workers.
3. Females were also working in the factories along with the males but they were paid low.

Answer 10:
Democracy can be criticized on the following basis:

1. There is high political competition therefore there is no morality.
2. There is a situation of instability in case the leaders keep changing.
3. Decision making in democracy is a big problem as so many people have to be consulted.

Answer 11:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was bom in Bihar. He was elected as the President of the constituent assembly. He played an important role in the Champaran Satyagraha in Bihar. He was the first President of independent India.

Answer 12:
Yes, it is true to say that the Election Commission in India is independent and powerful. It is due to the following reasons:

1. The election commission can express his disapproval to the government.
2. The election commission can order for a repoll in case of unfair polling at a particular booth or the entire constituency.
3. All the government officers have to work under the control of the election commission when they are on election duty.

Answer 13:
The three characteristics of the river called Dakshin Ganga are:

1. The Godavari River is called the Dakshin Ganga, which is having the largest river basin in the peninsular.
2. The Godavari rises in the Nasik district of Maharashtra and drains into the Bay of Bengal.
3. The Puma, the Wardha, the Pranhita, the Manjara are the main tributaries of the river Godavari.

Answer 14:
There are various factors affecting the climate of any place. The most important are as follows:

1. Latitude: If a place is near to the equator then it will have high temperature and humidity. As we move towards the pole temperature decreases.
2. Relief: The high altitude areas will have cold climate and the low altitude areas will have comparatively hot climate.
3. Distance from the sea: Places located near to the sea will have the moderating influence of the sea whereas places away from the oceans will have extreme climate.

Answer 15:
The following is the explanation for the non-farm activities in the village Palampur:

1. Dairy farming: Some people in the village Palampur do dairy farming. They rear cattle and feed them on grass, jowar and bajra. They have collection cum chilling centres in the nearby cities.
2. Small-scale manufacturing: It is done with simple production methods carried out at homes with the help of family members.
3. Transport: There are different means of transport in Palampur used to ferry people.

Answer 16:
The following are the three differences between market and non-market activities:

1. Market activities includes the activities related to the production and consumption whereas the non-market activities includes non-economic activities.
2. Market activities are performed to earn some money whereas non-market activities are performed for self-consumption.
3. A doctor in a hospital is performing market activity whereas a farmer producing crops for self-consumption is a non-market activity?

Answer 17:
The causes for poverty in India are:

1. Low level of economic growth in the pre independence time.
2. High growth rate of population.
3. Unequal distribution of land and other resources among the people.

Answer 18:
The three different dimensions of poverty are:

1. Availability: It means the food grains are available in the country through production or import or the previous year stock.
2. Accessibility: It means food grains are within reach of all the people of the country.
3. Affordability: It means all the people of the country are able to afford i.e., can buy the nutritious food grains.

Answer 19:
The steps taken against the Jews between 1933-1939 were:

1. Only the Germans will be enjoying the protection of the state.
2. The Jews were not allowed to marry with the Germans.
3. Extra marital relations between the Jews and the Germans were declared crime.
4. Jews were discarded from the government services.
5. Jews were not allowed to fly flags.

Answer 20:
The different causes that led to the decline of forest area in the Indian sub-continent between 1880 and 1920 were:

1. Wood was needed for the development of railways. It was needed to run locomotives, to lay the railway lines and sleepers.
2. The demand for wood increased in England for shipbuilding as they were facing shortage of timber for the royal navy.
3. The forest areas were degraded for raising commercial crops like cotton, jute, wheat etc.
4. The British government thought that the forest areas are unproductive and should be converted into agricultural lands so that they can get surplus food grains and expected revenues also.
5. Even the Adivasi’s and the peasants were also totally dependent on the forest for their livelihood. So they also contributed in the depletion of the forest areas.

OR

There are so many pastoralists in the mountainous parts of India.
The Gujjars and Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir were the herders of sheep and goats. They moved in a group called Kafila. During the summer they move to the upper heights of the mountains and during the winter they were back to the valleys.
The Gaddi shepherds of the Himachal Pradesh moved to the low hills of the shivaliks during winter and to Lahul and Spiti in summer.
The Bhotiyas, Sherpas, Kinnauris and other pastoral communities practiced the same cyclic movement between the summer and the winter pastures.

OR

The open field system affected the women in England in various ways. Now they had to pasture their cows and graze their sheeps, collected fuelwood for fire and fruits for food and fished in the rivers and ponds. Now these peasant women were in a better position than before. With this system of open field these women were able to supplement their family income. This system was also helpful for them in their bad times when the crops failed.

Answer 21:
The political executives can be differentiated from the permanent executives on the following grounds:

1. The political executives are elected by the people of the country whereas the permanent executives are the civil servants.
2. The political executives consists of the Prime Minister and the council of ministers whereas the permanent executives incudes IAS, IFS, IPS etc.
3. The political executives are elected for a fixed tenure whereas the permanent executives are appointed for a long period.
4. The political executives are responsive whereas the permanent executives are not responsive.
5. The political executives are more powerful than the permanent executives.

Answer 22:
It is true to say that International covenant has contributed to the expansion of rights. It helped and binds its signatory countries in providing some socio-economic and cultural rights. These are:

1. Right to work which gives says that people are free to work and earn their livelihood.
2. Right to safe and healthy working conditions.
3. Right to adequate standard of living.
4. Right to social security.
5. Right to education.

Answer 23:
The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats can be differentiated on the following basis:

1. The Western Ghats are the western margins of the Deccan plateau whereas the Eastern Ghats are the eastern margins of the Deccan plateau.
2. The Western Ghats are discontinuous whereas the Eastern Ghats are irregular and dissected.
3. The Western Ghats causes orographic rainfall whereas the Eastern Ghats causes cyclonic rainfall.
4. The Western Ghats have higher elevation than the Eastern Ghats.
5. The important rivers draining the Western Ghats are the Narmada and the Tapi whereas the Eastern Ghats are drained by the major rivers like the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri.

Answer 24:
The various factors responsible for the population change are birth rate, death rate and migration.

1. Birth rate: Birth rate can be defined as the number of live births per thousand in a particular year. If the birth rate of a country is high then it will cause a high growth rate if it is assisted by the low death rate. If the birth rate is low then there will be low change in the population.
2. Death rate: Death rate can be defined as the number of deaths per thousand live birth in a particular year. If the death rate of a country is high then it will cause a low population growth rate and if it is low then the population growth will be high.
3. Migration: It is defined as the movement of people from one place to another due to the push factors like unemployment, lack of health and education etc., and the pull factors of a place like better health and educational facilities, job opportunities etc. both the factors will bring a change in the population.

Answer 25:
Food security can be defined as the availability, accessibility and the affordability of food to all people at all times. The condition of agriculture in India before independence was not good and so was the total production. So that time people were facing the problem of food insecurity. The major step taken by the government after independence to improve the condition of agriculture was the introduction of green revolution in 1960s.
With the introduction of green revolution Indian farmers started using the HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, modem tools and machines in agriculture which helped in increasing the crop production to a new heights. Then after the government of India started the buffer stock and the rationing system to provide food grains to all the people which helped in maintaining food security in India.

Answer 26:

Answer 27:

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 6 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 6, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 5 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 5.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 5

Board	CBSE
Class	IX
Subject	Social Science
Sample Paper Set	Paper 5
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 5 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

(i) The question paper has 27 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks are indicated against each question.
(iii) Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
(v) Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
(vi) Question number 26 and 27 are map questions of 2 marks from History and 3 marks from Geography. After completion, attach the maps inside the answer book.

Questions

Question 1:
Define the term old regime.

Question 2:
What is a genocidal war?

Question 3:
Write the full form of RTI.

Question 4:
How is the Suez Canal important for India?

Question 5:
What do you mean by the term yield?

Question 6:
Define market activities.

Question 7:
Write the full form of PMRY.

Question 8:
Write about the reasons for the turmoil in France.

Question 9:
Write the view points of the radicals.

Question 10:
Why is the democracy called the best form of government?

Question 11:
“There is a need for the constitution in every country”. Explain.

Question 12:
What choices are given to the voters during election?

Question 13:
Write about the bhabar belt of the northern plain.

Question 14:
Explain any three factors affecting the climate of any place.

Question 15:
How did the spread of electricity help the farmers of Palampur?

Question 16:
National Population Policy in India plays an important role. Discuss.

Question 17:
How is the poverty line in India estimated?

Question 18:
Explain the two dimensions of hunger.

Question 19:
Write a note on the foreign policy of Hitler.

Question 20:
Comment on the colonial management of forests in Bastar and in Java.
OR
Write about the movements of the pastoral nomads on the plateaus.
OR
The situation of England was critical after the end of the Napoleonic wars. Explain.

Question 21:
How is the Lok sabha different from the Rajya sabha?

Question 22:
Elaborate the statement “The scope of rights has expanded in recent times”.

Question 23:
Discuss the formation of the Himalayas.

Question 24:
Why is the population considered as a pivotal element in social studies?

Question 25:
Explain the rationing system in India.

Question 26:
Identify these places and write their correct names on the lines marked on the outline map of France:
(a) Paris
(b) Nantes

Question 27:
On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols:
(a) State having highest sex ratio in India.
(b) Coromandal coast
(c) Mahendragiri

Answers

Answer 1:
Before 1789, the term ‘old regime’ was used to describe the society and the institutions.

Answer 2:
Killing on large scale which eliminated the large section of people are termed as genocidal war.

Answer 3:
RTI stands for right to information. According to this right we can seek information from the government department related to public work.

Answer 4:
It was opened in 1869 which reduced the distance between India and Europe by 7000kms.

Answer 5:
It is the total production in a cropping season.

Answer 6:
Activities for which people get remuneration or get paid are called market activities.

Answer 7:
It stands for Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana.

Answer 8:
The reasons for the turmoil in France were:

1. There was bad harvest due to the severe winter which resulted in the rising prices of bread. The bakers and the hoarded suppliers taken the benefit of this shortage. The women had to stand in long queue for long hours. So they stormed into the shops.
2.  There was a rumour that army would be ordered to open fire upon the citizens. This caused agitation among the people and they decided to form a militia.
3. In search of the arms agitated people broke into number of government buildings and destroyed the prison of Bastille on 14th july 1789.

Answer 9:
The radicals were of the following viewpoints:

1. They wanted a government formed and chosen by the majority of the population.
2. They were in support of women suffragette movements.
3. They were not in favour of concentration of wealth in few hands.

Answer 10:
Due to the following reasons democracy is considered the best form of government:

1. In democratic form of government, the government is responsive to the needs of the people.
2. Democratic government respect peoples wishes, gives an environment to live together with peace and harmony.
3. Democratic government allows ways of correcting its mistakes.

Answer 11:
Need of the constitution can be supported by the following reasons:

1. A constitution generates a degree of trust and give space to people to live together with peace and harmony.
2. It defines and builts relationship between the different organs of the government.
3. It protects the interest of minorities in the country.

Answer 12:
Some of the choices given to the voters during elections are:

1. Voters’can chose their representatives who can make laws for them.
2. Voters can chose their representatives who can form the government and take the major decisions.
3. Voters can chose the party whose policies are strong and for the welfare of the society.

Answer 13:
(a) It is one of the four divisions of the northern plains.
(b) It is to the south of the shivaliks in a width of 8 -16 kms.
(c) Rivers deposit pebbles in this region and rivers disappear in this bhabar belt.

Answer 14:
There are various factors affecting the climate of any place. The most important are as follows:

1. Latitude: If a place is near to the equator then it will have high temperature and humidity. As we move towards the pole temperature decreases.
2. Relief: The high altitude areas will have cold climate and the low altitude areas will have comparatively hot climate.
3. Distance from the sea: Places located near to the sea will have the moderating influence of the sea whereas places away from the oceans will have extreme climate.

Answer 15:
This is true to say that the spread of electricity helped the farmers of Palampyr because then after the farmers changed the system of irrigation from Persian wheels to electric run tube wells. This change also helped in increasing their total agricultural production from 1300 to 3200 kg per hectare. Now they don’t have to be dependent on the monsoon. They can irrigate the field much faster than earlier.

Answer 16:
(a) According to NPP 2000 there is free and compulsory education for children upto the age of 14 years.
(b) It aims at bringing down the infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births.
(c) It aims to achieve universal immunization of children against all vaccine preventable diseases.

Answer 17:
It is an imaginary line to demarcate poor and rich on different basis such as income, consumption etc. In India poverty line is estimated after every five years by conducting surveys by the National Sample Survey Organization.
On the basis of calorie intake per person per day calorie intake is 2400 in the rural areas and it is 2100 in the urban areas. It is set high for the rural areas because they are more engaged in physical work.
On the basis of income poverty line is fixed ₹816 per person per month for the rural areas whereas it is bit high for the urban areas i.e., ₹1000. It is so because the prices of the essential products in the urban areas are higher.

Answer 18:
The two different dimensions of hunger are:
(a) Seasonal hunger:

• It is related to the cycles of food growing and harvesting.
• People face seasonal hunger in the rural areas because of seasonal nature of agricultural activities.

(b) Chronic hunger:

• It is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quality or quantity.
• In the urban areas it occurs because of casual labour, very low income and inability to buy food.

Answer 19:
Hitler brought a major change in the foreign policy of Germany just after coming to power. The changes are as follows:

1. In 1933, Germany moved out of the League of Nations.
2. Again in 1936 he reoccupied Rhineland.
3. In 1938, he captured Austria.
4. Gradually he captured the erst while country of Czechoslovakia.
5. He followed the policy of war and annexation to come out of the economic crisis that the country was facing.

Answer 20:
The colonial management of forests in Bastar and Java had the following similarities:
In Bastar the colonial government reserved 2/3 rd of the forests, put a ban on shifting cultivation, hunting and collection of forest produce. Almost the same forest management policy was there in Java. Here the villagers were not allowed for grazing cattle, transporting goods without the permit or travelling on forest roads.
In Bastar the villagers were not allowed to stay in the reserved forests and had to work free for the forest department and help them in cutting and transporting the trees. In Java also, the villagers had to pay rent on the land being cultivated initially. But later on some villages were exempted from paying rent if they provide free labour and helping the government in cutting and transporting timber.

OR

Pastoral nomads were the people who moved from one place to another with their livestock for their livelihood. They were not settled at one place. The features of the pastoral nomads are as follows:

1. They had to adjust with the seasonal changes. When the pasturelands get exhausted they moved to another place.
2. They moved to the coastal areas in dry season and came back to the plateau areas.
3. They had relationship with the farmers so that their herds could graze in the harvested fields.
4. They did different occupations like cultivation, trade and herding etc.

OR

It is true to say that the situation of England was critical after the end of the Napoleonic wars. It was due to the following reasons:

1. After the Napoleonic wars the soldiers were returning to their homes and wanted some alternate job to survive.
2. They were facing the problem of agricultural depression as the grains were exported from Europe resulted in the falling prices.
3. Landowners in Europe were reducing the land area under cultivation. As a result they reduced the wages and also the labourers were retrenched.
4. Due to war and downfall in agriculture there was large scale unemployment in the country.
5. In the rural areas of England riot was spread by captain swing.

Answer 21:
The following are the difference points for the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha:

1. Generally the ordinary bill needs to be passed in both the houses but if there is any difference then the final decision will be taken in a joint session. As there are more members in the Lok Sabha than the Rajya Sabha, so the views of Lok Sabha will prevail.
2. In case of money bills Lok Sabha is more powerful than that of Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha cannot reject the money related bills if the Lok Sabha has already passed it. Within 14 days Rajya Sabha has to reply on that with or without any suggestion. Even after it is in the hand of Lok Sabha to do the changes or not.
3. Lok Sabha having the power of using “no confidence” which Rajya Sabha does not have.

Answer 22:
Due to the following changes at national and international level it is true to say that the scope of rights has expanded in recent times:

1. Right to freedom of press, right to information, right to education are the rights derived from the fundamental rights.
2. The Government of India has introduced free and compulsory education to all the children up to the age of 14 years.
3. Right to property, right to vote are also enriched by the government.
4. Human rights, international movements and covenants has also contributed to the expansion of rights.
5. Some newer rights has been given to the people like- right to privacy, right to environment, right to food, water, health care and housing.

Answer 23:
Millions of years ago all the land parts of the earth were together called Pangea. The northern landmass was called Angaraland and the southern landmass was called Gondwanaland. There was a Tethys sea in between these two land parts in which the rivers from the north and the rivers from the south were depositing sediments. Later, the peninsular plateau got separated from the gondwanaland due to the convectional currents and moved towards the north. Now the Indo- Australian plate was moving towards the much bigger Eurasian plate. This collision resulted in the rise of the sediments which were deposited in the Tethys Sea. Thus this whole process resulted in the formation of the Himalayas.

Answer 24:
Yes, it is true that population is a pivotal element in social studies.

1. It is the people who make and use the resources and are themselves as a resource.
2. It is the point of reference from which all other elements are observed and derive their significance.
3. To understand and appreciate all aspects of the environment, the number, distribution, growth and qualities are very important.
4. It is the people who develop the society and the economy.
5. Human beings are the producers and the consumers of the earth’s resource. Hence, it is important to know their number, distribution and characteristics.

Answer 25:
The food security system of India is carefully designed to ensure the availability of food to all the people at all the times. The food security system is composed of the following two components:

• Buffer stock: It is the stock of food grains like rice and wheat procured by the government through the food corporation of India (FCI). The FCI purchases rice and wheat from the areas of surplus food production at a pre- announced price called minimum support price (MSP).
• Public distribution system: This is a system of distribution of food grains among the poorer sections of the society basically those who are below poverty line. This is done through the ration shops which are also called fair price shops.

Answer 26:

Answer 27:

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 5 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 5, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 6 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 6.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 6

Board	CBSE
Class	IX
Subject	Science
Sample Paper Set	Paper 6
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 9 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 6 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 9 Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80

General Instructions

• The question paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
• All questions are compulsory. However an internal choice will be provided in two questions of 3 marks each and one question of five marks.
• All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 2 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
• Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section A are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
• Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section A are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
• Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section A are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
• Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section B are two-marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief

Questions
SECTION-A

Question 1.
Convert the following into Celsius scale: 300 K and 573 K

Question 2.
An organism does not have a well defined nucleus and organelles. State its kingdom.

Question 3.
Name the compounds whose formulae are given below:

1. Ca(OH)₂
2. KMnO₄

Question 4.
Differentiate between infectious and non-infectious diseases.

Question 5.
Calculate the number of moles present in 60 gm of calcium.

Question 6.
State the law of constant proportion. Illustrate it with examples.

Question 7.
What is ultrasound? Give two uses of ultrasound.

Question 8.

1. Define atomic mass unit.
2. Write the chemical formula for potassium oxide and ammonium chloride.

Question 9.
A man is suffering from AIDS.

1. What is the cause of AIDS and give its full form.
2. Write two ways by which this disease gets transmitted.
3. State any one precaution for prevention of AIDS.

OR
Define the term “symbiosis”. Name a symbiotic life forms. Name the place where these life forms are found.

Question 10.
Distinguish between density and relative density of a substance. The relative density of silver is 10.8. If the density of water is 10³ Kg/m³ find the density of silver.

Question 11.
Differentiate between radial symmetry and bilateral symmetry. Give one example of organism having this symmetry for each.

Question 12.

1. State Archimedes principle.
2. State the laws of floatation.
3. Why is it easier to swim in sea water than in river water.

OR
State Pascal’s law for pressure. Why tip of pin is sharp but the head is broad? How camels walk easily in desert soil.

Question 13.
Explain the Rutherford’s model of atom. Write his three observations and conclusions made by alpha particle splitting experiment.

Question 14.
Calculate the atomic mass of chlorine if it exists commonly in the form of two isotope. Cl mass number 35 – 75%, Cl mass number 37 – 25%. Name two isotopes which can cure diseases.

Question 15.
What are the different means by which infectious diseases are spread?

Question 16.
(a) Explain the various factors on which the rate of evaporation depends, giving example.
(b) Explain how the high compressibility of gases is useful.

Question 17.
How can you separate the following mixture:

1. Sand + iron
2. Cream from milk
3. Salt + water
4. Ammonium chloride + NaCl
5. Copper sulphate and water
6. Rice and dal (uncooked)
7. Gases from air
8. Petrol and diesel form crude oil
9. Drugs from blood
10. Acetone from water

Question 18.
(a) What is uniform circular motion?

(b) An athlete runs on a circular track, whose radius is 50 m with a constant speed. It takes 50 seconds to reach point B from starting point A. Find
(i) the distance covered
(ii) the displacement
(iii) the speed.

Question 19.
(a) Describe on activity to obtain crystals of copper sulphate from its solution.
(b) Draw a flow chart to show the water purification system. Why is chlorination of water important?

Question 20.
What is a disease? How do you know if a person has got disease? List various causes for the disease.

Question 21.
Explain the physical, chemical and biological factors which lead to the formation of soil.
OR
Explain nitrogen-cycle in nature and define all the terms involved in it.

SECTION-B

Question 22.
Some raisins weighed 10 g before they were placed in water for four hours. The raisins were then removed, wiped and weighed again. Their weight was found to be 12.5 g. Calculate the percentage of water imbibed by them.

Question 23.
The given diagram shows the stage of mosquito,

Give the name of this stage state two significant characteristics.

Question 24.
A student studied the different parts of seed. Lable the parts of seed studied by him.

Question 25.
Why does the temperature remain unchanged until the entire solid changes into liquid even if we are heating the solid?

Question 26.
A rectangular body has dimensions x and y (l and b). If its dimensions get doubled what will happen to its volume?

Question 27.
If in the first step the mixture consisting of sand, common salt and NH₄Cl had been dissolved in water what would have been the difficulty in separation?

Answers
SECTION-A

Answer 1.
300 K = 27 degree Celsius
573 K = 300 degree Celsius

Answer 2.
Monera

Answer 3.

1. Calcium Hydroxide
2. Potassium permanganate or Potassium manganite.

Answer 4.

Infectious Diseases	Non-infectious Diseases
It can be transferred from an infected person to a healthy person.	It does not get transferred from an infected person to a healthy person.
They are caused by pathogens and normally spread by some agents like air, water and contact, e.g. Flu.	They are caused due to deficiency of minerals/vitamins or organ/tissue failure e.g. Kwashiorkor, Scurvy.

Answer 5.
Given mass, m = 60 g
Molar mass, M=40 g mol^-1
No. of moles, n= \(\frac { m }{ M } \) = \(\frac { 60 }{ 40 } \) = 1.5 mol

Answer 6.
Law of constant proportion states that ‘a chemical compound is always made up of the same elements combined together in the fixed proportion by mass’.

Water is composed of hydrogen and oxygen combined together in the ratio 1:8 by weight.
Atomic mass of hydrogen = 2, Atomic mass of oxygen = 16, when they combine,
∴ Ratio = \(\frac { 2 }{ 16 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 } \) = 1 : 8
In water (H₂O) the ratio of hydrogen to oxygen is 1 : 8 in which 1 g of hydrogen and 8 g of oxygen is needed to form the compound (H₂O).
Similarly in ammonia, the ratio of nitrogen to hydrogen is 14 : 3.

Answer 7.
Ultrasound is the name given to the sound waves that have frequencies greater than 20000 Hz.
Uses of Ultrasound:

• Checking the growth of a foetus.
• Breaking down kidney stones and stones elsewhere in the body.
• Measuring the speed of blood flow in the body. (Any two)

Answer 8.

1. The atomic mass unit is a unit used to express the atomic mass of atoms and molecular masses of compounds. One atomic mass unit is a mass unit exactly one twelfth of the mass of one atom of Carbon-12.
2. K₂O and AlCl₃

Answer 9.

1. AIDS is caused by HIV virus, its full form Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
2. It can be transmitted from an is infected person to another person by use of common syringe, through sexual contact etc.
3. Use of disposable syringes test before blood transfusion.

OR
Symbiosis is a relationship in which two organisms are associated and are mutually benefited. Lichen is an example of symbiotic life form. These life forms are found in pollution free environment, e.g. on the tree trunks, rocks, ground etc.

Answer 10.

Density	Relative Density
(i) It is defined as mass per unit volume.	(i) It is defined as the ratio of density of the substance to density of water at 4°C.
(ii) Its value is different in different systems of measurement.	(ii) Its value is the same in all systems of measurement.
(iii) Its units are g cm-3 and kg m-3.	(iii) It has no units.

Relative density of silver =10.8
Density of water = 10³ kg m^-3
∴ RD = \(\frac { Densityofsilver }{ Densityofwater } \)
Density of silver = RD × Density of water
= 10.8 × 10³ kg m^-3

Answer 11.

Radial Symmetry	Bilateral Symmerty
(i) If the body of an animal is divided into two equal parts by cutting it through any plane passing through the centre of its body, then the body of the animal is said to have radial symmetry.	(i) If the body of an animal is divided into left and right halves by only one plane, then the body of the animal is said to have bilateral symmetry.
(ii) Animals of phylum coelenterate have radially symmetrical body.	(ii) Animals of phylum helminthes and higher phyla have bilaterally symmetrical body.
E.g. Hydra, Starfish	E.g. Mammals and Birds

Answer 12.

1. Archimedes Principle: a body totally or partially immersed in a fluid is subject to an upward force equal in magnitude to the weight of fluid it displaces.
2. • A freely floating body in a fluid displaces the weight of the fluid equivalent to its own weight.
   • The centre of gravity of the freely floating body and the centre of gravity of the fluid are in the same vertical line,.
3. It is easier to swim in the sea water because it is denser than the river water and thus it can exerts more upthrust.

OR
Pascal’s law or tile principle of transmission of fluid-pressure states that “pressure exerted anywhere in a confined incompressible fluid is transmitted equally in all the directions throughout the fluid such that the pressure ratio (initial difference) remains same”.
The tip of the pin can be easily pierced into the cloth with less pressure exerted on the smaller area for larger impact.

Camel’s feet are broad and larger area of the feet reduces the force/pressure exerted by the body on the sand. But when we have to walk on the same sand, we sink because the pressure exerted by our body is not distributed, but it is directional.

Answer 13.
Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment:
Fast moving α-particles were made to fall on a thin gold foil. These particles have + 2 charge and 4 u mass, and have considerable amount of energy. When they hit the gold foil the following observations are made:

• Most of the a-particles passed straight through the foil.
• Some of the a-particles were deflected by small angles through the foil.
• One out of every 20,000 particles were rebounded.

Conclusion:

1. Most of the space inside the foil is empty.
2. Positive charge of the atom occupies very less space.
3. Mass of the atom is concentrated in the centre of the atom with all positive charge concentrated in the small volume within the atom.

Answer 14.
Average atomic mass = \(\frac { 75 }{ 100 } \) × 35 + \(\frac { 25 }{ 100 } \) × 37
=26.25 + 9.25 = 35.5 u
Cobalt-60 is used to cure cancer and Iodine-123 is used for thyroid treatment.

Answer 15.
The different means by which infectious diseases spread are:

1. Through air: They are also called airborne diseases. Air carries bacteria, virus and the diseases that can be caused are common cold, influenza, tuberculosis etc.
2. Throujfn food and water: When one eats/drink contaminated food/water, that contains bacteria, virus, worms etc, it can cause diseases like cholera typhoid, hepatitis.
3. Through contact: Many diseases spread by contact of an infected person with the healthy person. Example, fungal infections, skin diseases, etc.
4. By sexual contact: Many diseases can be transmitted through sexual contact. Example, syphilis, AIDS.
5. By body fluids: Fluids like blood, semen, mother’s milk when infected can also cause diseases. Example, AIDS.
6. Vectors: The organisms that spreads diseases by carrying pathogens from one place to another are called vectors. Example, mosquitoes are vectors that carry pathogens like protozoa.

Answer 16.
(a) The rate of evaporation depends on the following factors:

1. Surface area: If the surface area is increased the rate of evaporation also increases.
   • To dry the clothes faster we spread them to dry.
   • Tea in a saucer cools faster than in a cup.
2. Temperature: If the temperature is increased the rate of evaporation also increases. Due to increase in temperature the particles gain more kinetic energy and the phase changes from liquid to gaseous phase, e.g. water will evaporate faster in the presence of sun than in shade.
3. Humidity: It is the amount of water vapour present in air. The air can hold definite amount of water vapour, at a given temperature. If the amount of water vapour is high in the air then the rate of evaporation decreases.
   On a hot and humid day, desert coolers are not effective as the air cannot hold anymore moisture to get the cooling effect.
4. Wind speed: With increase in wind speed, the rate of evaporation increases.
   The particles of water vapour moves away with the wind, thereby decreasing the amount of water vapour in the surroundings.

(b) Gases have high compressibility. This property is used in the following situations:

1. LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) is a fuel which is made up of petroleum gas. On compressing this liquified petroleum gas, it forms liquid. Similarly CNG, i.e. compressed natural gas is used as a fuel in vehicles and at home.
2. Oxygen cylinders in the hospitals have compressed gas filled in it.

Answer 17.

1. Magnetic separation
2. Centrifugation
3. Evaporation
4. Sublimation
5. Crystallisation
6. Hand picking
7. Distillation
8. Fractional distillation
9. Chromatography
10. Distillation

Answer 18.
(a) When a body moves in a circular path with uniform speed, its motion is called uniform Circular motion.

Answer 19.
(a) Activity demonstrating preparation of crystals of copper sulphate from its solution:

• Take a clean beaker (250 mL) and put the copper sulphate solution in it.
• Heat the solution in the beaker to 60 – 70° C with continuous stirring, on a wire gauze.
• Filter the solution and collect the filtrate in a china dish.
• Place the china dish over the wire gauze placed over a tripod stand and heat it gently (do not boil).
• As the solution gets heated, stir it using a glass rod. This helps in uniform evaporation and also prevents the formation of solid crust.
• When the solution is reduced to one-half of is volume, take out a drop of the concentrated solution from one end of the glass rod and cool it by blowing air. Formation of thin crust indicates that crystallisation point is achieved.
• Turn off the burner, cover the dish with a watch glass, and keep it undisturbed. As the solution cools down, crystals will separate out. Slow cooling ensures better crystallisation.
• Decant the mother liquor and wash the crystals with a thin stream of cold water and dry the crystals by pressing them gently between the sheets of filer paper.
• Blue coloured crystals of copper sulphate (CuSO₄ . 5H₂O) are formed).

Chlorination of water helps to check the growth of disease causing microbes, e.g. bateria, protozoa, etc. and it thus helps in preventing waterborne diseases. Thus, chlorination of water is important.

Answer 20.
Disease is a condition in which an individual suffers from one or more type of illness/ is not in the state of being called as healthy.
Common methods of transmission of diseases:

The common methods of transmission of diseases are:

• By air – cough, cold, tuberculosis
• By food and water – typhoid, jaundice
• By mosquito bite – malaria
• By rabid animal – rabies
• By direct contact – skin infection, small pox, AIDS
• By indirect contact – typhoid, chicken-pox

Answer 21.
Physical factors:

• Wind: When the wind blows it erodes big rocks which rub and hit with the other rocks breaking into smaller pieces which are further carried by wind to form soil.
• Sun: The heat of sun causes expansion of the rocks due to heating during daytime and it contracts at night. This expansion and contraction causes cracks in the rocks, which breaks slowly to form soil.
• Water: When it rains the force of rain water erodes the rocks which breaks to form soil.
  At times this water enters the cracks present in the rocks and freezes when temperature falls which breaks the rocks to forms soil.

Chemical factors:

• Water: Water when reacts with carbonates and phosphates present in the rocks, it form soluble compounds which make the rock hollow from inside.
• Biological factor: Living organisms also help in the formation of soil. The lichen that grows on moist surface of rocks releases certain substances that causes the rock surface to powder down and form thin layer of soil. Other small plant like moss are able to grow on this surface now.
  The roots of big trees sometimes go into cracks in the rocks and when the tree grows bigger the crack in the rocks is forced bigger.

OR
Terms involved in nitrogen-cycle are:

1. Nitrogen fixation: Plants cannot use free nitrogen present in the air. This nitrogen molecule is converted into nitrates and nitrites which can be taken up and used to make the required molecule.
   This is called nitrogen fixation which can be done by the bacteria that live in the root nodules of leguminous plants.
2. Nitrification: By physical process, i.e. during lightning, the high temperature and pressure created in the air convert nitrogen into oxides of nitrogen which dissolves in water and came down along with rain. This is also called nitrification.
3. Ammonification: The nitrogen compounds formed are taken by plants to form proteins which are further converted into ammonia.
4. Denitrification: The nitrates and nitrites of nitrogen are acted upon by other group of microbes e.g. Pseudomonas bacteria, which convert these compounds into free nitrogen gas.

Nitrogen cycle:

1. Free nitrogen from atmosphere is converted into nitrates by bacteria or by lightning.
2. Nitrates mix with soil, is absorbed by the plants to make proteins.
3. The proteins in plants and animals are converted into amino acids and ammonia.
4. Ammonia is converted into nitrates and then these nitrates and nitrites present in soil is acted upon by other group of bacteria called denitrifying bacteria. This process is called denitrification.
5. Nitrates are converted into free nitrogen and is released back to the atmosphere.

SECTION-B

Answer 22.
Weight of raisins (x) = 10 g
Weight of swollen raisins (y) = 12.5 g
The percentage of water absorbed by the raisins = \(\frac { y-x }{ x } \) × 100
= \(\frac { 12.5 – 10 }{ 10 } \) × 100 = 25%

Answer 23.
This stage is called Tumblers.
The significant characteristics are it floats on water and takes oxygen through he tube named trumpets. This is the hibernating stage.

Answer 24.

• A – seed-coat
• B – cotyledon

Answer 25.
The temperature remains unchanged until the entire solid changes into liquid even if we are heating the solid; it is because the heat is used up by the molecules in overcoming the forces of attraction between the parcticles of the solid.

Answer 26.
Suppose the dimensions of a rectangular solid is 1 then
V = 1 × 1 × 1 × (l × b × h taken as 1)
V= 1³
If it is doubled, then V = 2³
V = 8 times
Hence volume will increase by 8 times.

Answer 27.
The mixture given for separation is sand, common salt and ammonium chloride. The later two (i.e., common salt and ammonium chloride) dissolves in water. If the mixture had been dissolved in water in the first step, then the separation of these constituents would be a difficult task.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Hindi B Paper 1 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Hindi B Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Hindi B Paper 1.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Hindi A Paper 1

Board	CBSE
Class	IX
Subject	Hindi B
Sample Paper Set	Paper 1
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 9 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme, as prescribed by the CBSE, is given here. Paper 1 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Hindi A is given below with free PDF download solutions.

समय :3 घंटे
पूर्णांक : 80

निर्देश

1. इस प्रश्न-पत्र के चार खंड हैं-क, ख, ग और घ।
2. चारों खंडों के प्रश्नों के उत्तर देना अनिवार्य है।
3. यथासंभव प्रत्येक खंड के उत्तर क्रमशः दीजिए।

खंड {क} अपठित बोध [15 अंक]

प्रश्न 1:
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर 20-30 शब्दों में लिखिए (9)

शिक्षा, शिक्षक और छात्र, तीनों का परस्पर संबंध एक-दूसरे के अस्तित्व के लिए उतना ही जरूरी है, जितना शरीर में विभिन्न अंगों का। किसी भी एक अंग में विकृति आने से संपूर्ण शैक्षणिक व्यवस्था संकटग्रस्त हो जाती है। प्राय: कई कारणों से वर्तमान शिक्षा व्यवस्था पर विद्वानों द्वारा प्रश्न उठाए जाते रहे हैं। पूर्व में भारत विद्या और शिक्षा का महत्त्वपूर्ण केंद्र था, जोकि गुरुकुल पद्धति पर आधारित था और जहाँ गुरु और शिष्य परंपरा स्वार्थ और लालच से ऊपर थी।
वर्तमान में देखें तो शिक्षा और गुरु का संबंध ग्राहक और विक्रेता की तरह बन गया है। इसका परिणाम यह हो रहा है कि शिक्षा का मौद्रीकरण होना शुरू हुआ है और अंतत: इसका दुष्परिणाम शिक्षा की गुणवत्ता के दूषित होने के रूप में दिखा है। जहाँ एक तरफ़ शैक्षणिक केंद्रों में मोल-भाव होता है और डिग्री बाँटने वाली दुकानें हर गली-मोहल्ले में खुल गई हैं, वहीं दूसरी तरफ़ परीक्षा में सफल कराने के वादों के साथ नित नए-नए कोचिंग सेंटर भी इस खेल में अपनी दुकान लगातार बढ़ा रहे हैं।
इनका परिणाम न केवल शिक्षा के स्तर को बिगाड़ने के रूप में दिख रहा है, बल्कि ये शिक्षक और छात्र के संबंधों को भी दूषित कर रहे हैं। एक शिक्षा केंद्र में पहली जरूरत शिक्षक की योग्यता होती है, जबकि वर्तमान के शिक्षा बाज़ार में यह मुद्दा भी हाशिए पर है। वैश्विक स्तर पर शिक्षा का महत्त्व प्राचीन समय से विद्यमान है। और इसके वाहक गुरु होते थे, जिनका सम्मान और आदर आमजन से लेकर राजे-महाराजे तक करते थे। ऐसा इसलिए था, क्योंकि ये शिक्षक या गुरु योग्य होते थे।

(क) शिक्षा, शिक्षक और छात्र की तुलना किससे की गई है और क्यों? (2)
(ख) “शिक्षा का मौद्रीकरण होना शुरू हुआ है”-इस पंक्ति का क्या अभिप्राय है? (2)
(ग) शिक्षा का स्तर बिगाड़ने के लिए कौन जिम्मेदार हैं? (2)
(घ) प्रस्तुत गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक बताते हुए उसकी तार्किक व्याख्या कीजिए। (2)
(ङ) ‘विकृति’ शब्द में से उपसर्ग व मूल शब्द अलग-अलग कीजिए।(1)

प्रश्न 2:
निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर 20-30 शब्दों में लिखिए (6)

(क) प्रस्तुत काव्यांश में किसकी बहादुरी का वर्णन किया गया है? उसकी किसी एक विशेषता पर प्रकाश डालिए।
(ख) राणा प्रताप के घोड़े चेतक को कोड़ा क्यों नहीं मारना पड़ता था?
(ग) निम्नलिखित शब्दों के समानार्थक शब्द लिखिए
(i) अरि , (ii) घोड़ा

खंड {ख} व्याकरण [15 अंक]

प्रश्न 3:
निम्नलिखित शब्दों का वर्ण-विच्छेद कीजिए   (2)
(i) संहार
(ii) दृग

प्रश्न 4:
(क) अनुनासिक संबंधी अशुद्धियों को दूर करके शब्दों को पुनः लिखिए (3)
(i) आंख
(ii) कांटा

(ख) निम्नलिखित शब्दों में उचित स्थान पर लगे अनुस्वार वाले शब्द छाँटिए
सयंम, मंदाकिनी, संगति, हँसना

(ग) निम्नलिखित शब्दों में उचित स्थानों पर नुक्ते का प्रयोग करके उन्हें पुनः लिखिए
(i) जालिम
(ii) फैसला

प्रश्न 5:
(क) निर्विघ्न’ शब्द में से मूल शब्द व प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग को अलग-अलग करके लिखिए।  (3)
(ख) ‘लिखाई’ शब्द में से मूल शब्द व प्रयुक्त प्रत्यय को अलग-अलग करके लिखिए।
(ग) ‘पर’ उपसर्ग का प्रयोग करके नया शब्द बनाइए।

प्रश्न 6:
(क) निम्नलिखित शब्दों की संधि कीजिए (2)
(i) निः + यात
(ii) देवी + अर्पण

(ख) निम्नलिखित शब्दों का संधि-विच्छेद कीजिए
(i) स्वागतम्
(ii) सज्जन

प्रश्न 7:
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए (3)
(क) विस्मयादिबोधक चिह्न का प्रयोग कहाँ किया जाता है?
(ख) हिंदू-मुसलमान’ में कौन-सा विराम चिह्न प्रयुक्त हुआ है?
(ग) “डॉ.’ शब्द में कौन-सा चिह्न प्रयुक्त हुआ है?

खंड {ग} पाठ्यपुस्तक व पूरक पुस्तक [25 अंक]

प्रश्न 8:
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर 20-30 शब्दों में लिखिए (5)
(क) ‘दुःख का अधिकार’ पाठ के आधार पर बताइए कि भगवाना की मृत्यु कैसे हुई? (2)
(ख) लेखक ने महादेव जी की सज्जनता व सहृदयता की तुलना किससे वे क्यों की है? ‘शुक्रतारे के समान’ पाठ के आधार पर बताइए। (2)
(ग) कीचड़ का काव्य पाठ के आधार पर स्पष्ट कीजिए कि कीचड़ जैसा रंग कैसे लोग पसंद करते हैं? (1)

प्रश्न 9:
लेखिका के तंबू पर बर्फ गिरने का वर्णन कीजिए। ‘एवरेस्टः मेरी शिखर यात्रा’ कहानी के आधार पर लगभग 100 शब्दों में उत्तर दीजिए। (5)
अथवा
“तुम कब जाओगे, अतिथि’ पाठ का सारांश 100 शब्दों में लिखिए।

प्रश्न 10:
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर 20-30 शब्दों में लिखिए (5)
(क) कवि रैदास ने स्वयं को किसका अंश माना है तथा उससे अपनी एकात्मकता किस रूप में व्यक्त की है? (2)
(ख) ‘मोती, मानुष, चून’ के संदर्भ में पानी के महत्त्व को ‘रहीम के दोहे के आधार पर बताइए। (2)
(ग) ‘नए इलाके में कविता में समय की कमी की ओर इशारा क्यों किया गया है? (1)

प्रश्न 11:
‘आदमीनामा’ कविता के आधार पर आदमी की प्रवृत्तियों का उल्लेख लगभग 100 शब्दों में कीजिए। (5)
अथवा
सुखिया के पिता किससे आहत हुए तथा उन्होंने क्या सोचा? ‘एक फूल की चाह’ कविता के आधार पर 100 शब्दों में उत्तर दीजिए।

प्रश्न 12:
महिसागर नदी के दोनों किनारों पर कैसा दृश्य था? इससे लोगों की किन भावनाओं की झलक मिलती है? ‘दीये जल उठे’ पाठ के आधार पर 150 शब्दों में उत्तर दीजिए। (5)
अथवा
पाकिस्तान में हिंदू-मुसलमानों के मध्य संबंधों में क्या अंतर था? आपके अनुसार क्या यह उचित था? ‘हामिद खाँ’ कहानी के आधार पर 150 शब्दों में उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड {घ} लेखन [25 अंक]

प्रश्न 13:
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर दिए गए संकेत बिंदुओं के आधार पर 80 से 100 शब्दों में अनुच्छेद लिखिए (5)

1. राष्ट्रीय एकता
संकेत बिंदु

•  राष्ट्रीय एकता का अर्थ
• राष्ट्रीय एकता का व्यापक महत्त्व
• राष्ट्रीय एकता की आवश्यकता

2. मेरे प्रिय कवि
संकेत बिंदु

• प्रिय कवि का व्यक्तित्व
• उनके प्रिय होने का कारण
• उनकी विशेषता

3. खेल का महत्त्व
संकेत बिंदु

• खेल संबंधी सामान्य धारणा
• जीवन में उसका महत्त्व
• व्यक्तित्व पर प्रभाव

प्रश्न 14:
अपने मित्र को लगभग 100 शब्दों में पत्र लिखिए, जिसमें उससे ‘स्वच्छ भारत अभियान से जुड़ने का आग्रह किया गया हो। (5)
अथवा
आपके एक मित्र ने एक पुस्तक मात्र 15 दिन तक पढ़ने के लिए आपसे ली थी। एक माह से अधिक समय बीत गया। बार-बार माँगने पर भी उसने पुस्तक आज तक नहीं लौटाई। नाराज़गी प्रकट करते हुए अपने मित्र को लगभग 100 शब्दों में एक पत्र लिखकर तुरंत पुस्तक लौटाने का आग्रह कीजिए।

प्रश्न 15:
दिए गए चित्र को ध्यान से देखकर 20 से 30 शब्दों में चित्र का वर्णन अपनी भाषा में प्रस्तुत कीजिए। (5)

अथवा

प्रश्न 16:
दो मित्रों के बीच अपने करियर से संबंधित होने वाले संवाद को लगभग 50 शब्दों में लिखिए।  (5)
अथवा
‘रक्तदान के विषय में दो युवाओं के मध्य होने वाले संवाद को लगभग 50 शब्दों में लिखिए।

प्रश्न 17:
किसी मोबाइल फ़ोन से संबंधित विज्ञापन 25-50 शब्दों में तैयार कीजिए।  (5)
अथवा
संगीत एवं नृत्य संस्थान की ओर से लगभग 25-50 शब्दों में विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए।

जवाब

उत्तर 1:
(क) गद्यांश में शिक्षा, शिक्षक और छात्र की तुलना शरीर के विभिन्न अंगों से की गई है। जिस प्रकार शरीर के किसी एक अंग में विकृति आ जाने से पूरे शरीर को कष्ट होता है, उसी प्रकार शिक्षा, शिक्षक और छात्र में से किसी एक में भी विकृति आ जाने से पूरी शैक्षणिक व्यवस्था ही संकट से घिर जाती है। अतः इन तीनों का परस्पर संबंध एक-दूसरे के अस्तित्व के लिए बहुत आवश्यक है।
(ख) “शिक्षा का मौद्रीकरण होना शुरू हुआ है” – इस पंक्ति का अभिप्राय यह है कि वर्तमान युग में शिक्षा को धन से तौलकर देखा जा रहा है अर्थात् शिक्षा को व्यवसाय का माध्यम बनाकर उससे केवल धनार्जन करने का प्रयास किया जा रहा है।

(ग) शिक्षा का स्तर बिगाड़ने के लिए वे लोग जिम्मेदार हैं, जो मोल-भाव करके डिग्री बाँटने वाले दुकानदार बनकर बैठे हुए हैं और परीक्षा में सफल कराने का आश्वासन देकर धन कमाने का कार्य करते हैं। उनका एकमात्र उद्देश्य केवल धन कमाना है, शिक्षा देना नहीं।

(घ) प्रस्तुत गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक ‘शिक्षा का व्यवसायीकरण’ हो सकता है, क्योंकि संपूर्ण गद्यांश में शिक्षा के व्यावसायिक होने के कारण शिक्षक – छात्र संबंध और शिक्षा पद्धति में आए परिवर्तनों पर चर्चा की गई है।

(ङ) शब्द                 उपसर्ग             मूल शब्द
विकृति                    वि                   कृति

उत्तर 2:
(क) प्रस्तुत काव्यांश में महाराणा प्रताप के घोड़े चेतक की बहादुरी का वर्णन किया गया है। उसकी विशेषता यह है कि वह हवा से भी अधिक तीव्र गति से दौड़ता है।
(ख) राणा प्रताप के घोड़े चेतक को कोड़ा इसलिए नहीं मारना पड़ता था, क्योंकि वह अपने कार्य में कुशल था अर्थात् कोड़ा मारने से पहले ही वह तीव्र गति से दौड़ने लगता था।
(ग) शब्द                                 समानार्थक शब्द
(i) अरि                     –         शत्रु, दुश्मन, बैरी, रिपु
(ii) घोड़ा                   –        अश्व, तुरंग, घोटके, रविसुत

उत्तर 3:
(i) स् + अं + ह् + आ + र् + अ
(ii) दृ + ऋ + ग् + अ

उत्तर 4:
(क) (i) आँख             (ii) काँटा.
(ख) (i) मंदाकिनी       (ii) संगति
(ग) (i) ज़ालिम           (ii) फैसला

उत्तर 5:
(क) उपसर्ग       निर्र्             मूल शब्द             विघ्न
(ख) मूल शब्द    लिख             प्रत्यय                आई।
(ग) परोपकारे

उत्तर 6:
(क) (i) निर्यात (ii) देव्यर्पण
(ख) (i) सु + आगतम् (ii) सत् + जने

उत्तर 7:
(क) दुःख, आश्चर्य, हर्ष, घृणा आदि मनोभावों को प्रकट करने के लिए विस्मयादिबोधक चिह्न का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
(ख) ‘हिंदू-मुसलमान’ में योजक चिह्न (-) का प्रयोग हुआ है। योजक चिह्न का प्रयोग समस्त पद के खंडों को जोड़ने के लिए उनके मध्य में किया जाता है; जैसे-हिंदू-मुसलमान आदि।
(ग) किसी बड़े शब्द को छोटा लिखने के लिए उसके प्रथम अक्षर को लिखकर उसके आगे (०) शून्य लगा दिया जाता है, वहाँ लाघव चिह्न होता है; जैसे- ‘डॉ.’ शब्द में लाघव चिह्न है, इसका पूर्ण रूप डॉक्टर है।

उत्तर 8:
(क) भगवाना तेईस वर्ष का जवान युवक था। वह प्रतिदिन खरबूजों की डलिया बाज़ार में पहुँचाता था। एक दिन वह प्रातःकाल खेत से पके हुए खरबूजे तलाश कर रहा था। वह बेल में लगे खरबूजे चुनने के बाद कुछ देर विश्राम करने के लिए गीली मेड़ के पास पहुँचा, तो उसका पैर एक साँप पर पड़ गया और साँप ने उसे डस लिया, जिससे उसकी मृत्यु हो गई।
(ख) लेखक ने महादेव जी की सज्जनता व सहृदयता की तुलना | बिहार और उत्तर प्रदेश के हज़ारों मील लंबे समतल मैदानों से की है, क्योंकि वहाँ न तो खुरदरी मिट्टी है और न ही कंकरी।
(ग) कलाभिज्ञ लोग अर्थात् कलाकार, चित्रकार, मूर्तिकार, छायाकार (फोटोग्राफर) आदि कीचड़ जैसा रंग पसंद करते हैं।’

उत्तर 9:
रात में लगभग साढ़े बारह बजे थे तथा लेखिका गहरी नींद में थी। अचानक लेखिका के सिर के पीछे कोई भारी व कठोर वस्तु टकराई और ज़ोर से आवाज़ हुई।

लेखिका नींद से जाग गई, उसे साँस लेने में परेशानी होने लगी। उसने देखा कि एक विशाल बर्फ का हिमखंड टूटकर उसके तंबू पर गिर गया है। वह लंबा बर्फ़ का पिंड लेखिका के कैंप के ठीक ऊपर ल्होत्से ग्लेशियर से टूटकर नीचे गिरा था। उस विशाल बर्फ पुंज ने एक्सप्रेस रेलगाड़ी की गति से आते हुए तथा भीषण गर्जना करते हुए सारे कैंप को तहस-नहस कर दिया था। लगभग प्रत्येक व्यक्ति को चोट लगी थी और लेखिका हो। बर्फ में दब ही गई थी, परंतु अच्छी बात यह थी कि किसी की मृत्यु नहीं हुई थी।

अथवा

‘तुम कब जाओगे, अतिथि’ पाठ में लेखक और उसकी पत्नी भारतीय परंपरा के अनुसार, अतिथि का बढ़-चढ़कर स्वागत-सत्कार करते हैं। उन्हें लगता है कि अतिथि सम्मान-सत्कार की स्मृतियाँ लेकर अगले दिन लौट जाएगा, लेकिन अतिथि तो जाने के लिए तैयार ही नहीं था। आज की महँगाई के समय में सीमित आय वाले लोग अधिक दिनों तक अतिथि का स्वागत-सत्कार नहीं कर सकते। लेखक ने अनेक प्रकार के उदाहरणों, कार्यों द्वारा अतिथि को चले जाने का संकेत दिया था, फिर भी अतिथि पर कोई प्रभाव नहीं पड़ा। लेखक के घर उपवास रखने की स्थिति उत्पन्न होने लगी थी। प्रेम संबंधों में मतभेद उत्पन्न होने लगे थे। अतिथि लेखक को मानव नहीं, राक्षस का प्रतिरूप दिखने लगा था। अब केवल एक ही उपाय बचा था कि लेखक भी सभ्यता का आवरण उतारकर अतिथि को सीधे जाने के लिए कह दे।।

उत्तर 10:
(क) कवि ने ईश्वर को सर्वगुण संपन्न बताते हुए स्वयं को ईश्वर का अंश माना है। ईश्वर के साथ अपनी एकात्मकता को अनेक रूपों में व्यक्त करते हुए रैदास कहते हैं कि प्रभु चंदन हैं, तो वह पानी, प्रभु बादल हैं, तो वह मोर, प्रभु दीपक हैं, तो वह । बाती, प्रभु मोती हैं, तो वह धागा, प्रभु चाँद हैं, तो वह चकोर। इस प्रकार दोनों का मिलन सोने एवं सुहागे के मिलन जैसा पवित्र एवं महत्त्वपूर्ण है। वास्तव में, दोनों में अभिन्न संबंध है।

(ख) ‘मोती’ के संदर्भ में ‘पानी’ का अर्थ है-चमक रहीम का कहना है कि चमक के बिना मोती का कोई मूल्य नहीं होता है।
‘मानुष’ के संदर्भ में ‘पानी’ का अर्थ है-आत्म-सम्मान। रहीम का कथन है कि आत्म-सम्मान के बिना मनुष्य का कोई मूल्य नहीं होता है।
‘चुन’ के संदर्भ में पानी का महत्त्व सर्वोपरि है। बिना पानी के आटे की रोटी नहीं बनाई जा सकती। इसलिए वहाँ पानी का । होना अनिवार्य है।

(ग) कविता में समय की कमी की ओर इशारा इसलिए किया गया है, क्योंकि लोगों की स्वयं में अत्यधिक व्यस्तता ने एक दूसरे के प्रति उनके भीतर की आत्मीयता को समाप्त कर दिया है।

उत्तर 11:
‘आदमीनामा’ कविता के रचयिता कवि नज़ीर अकबराबादी अपनी कविता के माध्यम से कहना चाहते हैं कि आदमी की प्रवृत्तियाँ भिन्न-भिन्न हैं। वह धन-संपदा का स्वामी बनना चाहता है। धनवान, भोगी एवं राजा बनना चाहता है। वह सद्गुरु बनकर लोगों को उपदेश देना चाहता है। वह दुनिया में अत्यधिक सम्मान प्राप्त करना चाहता है। वह करुणामय भी है तथा दूसरों की सहायता के लिए अपने प्राणों की बाज़ी भी लगा देता है।
वह दीन-दुःखियों की सहायता करना चाहता है। वह धार्मिक भी है और मानवता की सेवा करना चाहता है, लेकिन इन सबके साथ-साथ वह स्वार्थी भी होता है। वह अपने स्वार्थ के कारण दूसरों को कष्ट भी पहुँचाता है। वह चोरी भी करता है और हिंसा में भी लिप्त रहता है। अपने लाभ के लिए वह दूसरों की जान तक ले लेता है। वह दूसरों को अपमानित भी करता है। और उनसे लड़ता-झगड़ता भी है। इस प्रकार आदमी के अंदर दोनों प्रकार की विपरीत प्रवृत्तियाँ देखने को मिलती हैं।

अथवा
भक्तों के व्यवहार से आहत होकर सुखिया के पिता ने उन्हें दुष्ट कहकर संबोधित किया। सुखिया का पिता अपनी पुत्री की अंतिम इच्छानुसार देवी के मंदिर से पूजा का फूल लेने आया था। मंदिर में भक्तों द्वारा उसे पहचान लिया जाता है कि वह अछूत है। सभी ने मिलकर उसे बुरी तरह पीटा जिस पर वह कहता है कि मेरे मंदिर में प्रवेश करने से तुम्हारी देवी की । महानता कैसे कम हो गई? क्या मेरी कलुषता उनके गौरव की अपेक्षा अधिक है? दुष्ट भक्तों! तुम ऐसा तुच्छ विचार करके भी स्वयं को माँ का भक्त कहते हो। देवी माँ किसी को छूत-अछूत नहीं मानती। उनकी दृष्टि में सभी समान हैं।
अतः कहा जा सकता है कि समाज में व्याप्त सामाजिक अस्पृश्यता ने समाज में मानवीय संवेदनाओं को नष्ट कर दिया। है। इसी कुरीति के कारण पिता अपनी पुत्री सुखिया को खो बैठता है।

उत्तर 12:
महिसागर नदी के दोनों किनारों पर उत्साहपूर्ण वातावरण था। हज़ारों लोग सत्याग्रहियों के स्वागत में खड़े थे। उन लोगों के हाथों में जलते दीये जागृति के स्वतः प्रमाण थे। ऐसा लग रहा। था जैसे सभी गांधी और पटेल के नेतृत्व में देश के सपनों को पूरा करने के लिए पूर्णतः तत्पर हैं। नदी के दोनों तटों पर लोगों द्वारा लगाए जाने वाले ‘महात्मा गांधी की जय’, ‘सरदार पटेल की जय’ और ‘जवाहरलाल नेहरू की जय’ के नारे गूंज रहे थे। लोग स्वराज प्राप्ति के लिए सजग, उत्साहित और कटिबद्ध थे। महिसागर नदी के दोनों किनारों पर लगी लोगों की भारी भीड़ स्पष्ट रूप से यह दर्शा रही थी कि लोग पूर्ण समर्पण एवं निःस्वार्थ भावना से अपने देश को प्रेम करते हैं तथा उसके लिए कुछ भी करने को तैयार हैं। लोगों ने वहाँ व्याप्त अँधेरे को भेदने के लिए अपने हज़ारों हाथों में हज़ारों दीये जलाए, ताकि दोनों ओर के लोग नदी पार कर सकें।।
उन्होंने प्रत्येक कदम पर गांधीजी एवं उनके सत्याग्रही साथियों की सहायता करने का प्रयास किया। राष्ट्र एवं राष्ट्र के सेवकों के प्रति उनके निःस्वार्थ समर्पण की भावना उनकी प्रत्येक गतिविधि से झलक रही थी।

अथवा
हामिद खाँ के अनुसार, पाकिस्तान में हिंदू-मुसलमानों के मध्य अच्छे संबंध नहीं थे। वहाँ दोनों संप्रदायों के बीच धार्मिक विषमता बहुत अधिक थी। हिंदुओं द्वारा मुसलमानों को अत्याचार करने वालों की संतान समझा जाता था। पाकिस्तान में हिंदू-मुस्लिम एक-दूसरे के त्योहारों में सम्मिलित नहीं होते। वहाँ न कोई हिंदू, मुस्लिम होटल में खाना खाता है और न ही कोई मुस्लिम, हिंदू दुकान पर जाता है। इस दुनिया में उन्हें शैतानों की भाँति छुप-छुप कर चलना पड़ता था। अतः हामिद खाँ के अनुसार दोनों समुदायों में यह अंतर बहुत अधिक था। किसी भी जाति, धर्म, समुदाय या नस्ल के मनुष्यों के बीच भेदभाव करना, असमानता स्थापित करना  ईश्वरीय इच्छा के विपरीत है।
ईश्वर ने सभी मनुष्यों को एक समान बनाया है. हमने उनमें विभाजन उत्पन्न किया है। सभी मनुष्य एक ही ईश्वर की संतान हैं। अतः उनके बीच किसी भी प्रकार का भेदभाव किया जाना, किसी भी प्रकार से उचित नहीं हो सकता है।

उत्तर 13.1:
देश के नागरिकों को बिना किसी जातीय, सांप्रदायिक वनस्लीय भेदभाव के एक साथ रहना ही राष्ट्रीय एकता है। यह किसी भी राष्ट्र की एक प्रबल शक्ति होती है। यह वीरता और बलिदान संबंधी कार्यों को भी प्रेरित करती है। यह जनता में आत्मविश्वास की भावना उत्पन्न करती है, जिससे देशवासी उन्नति के पथ पर आगे बढ़ते हैं।
विश्व स्तर पर देखें, तो स्पष्ट हो जाएगा कि राष्ट्रीय एकता के बिना किसी राष्ट्र का विकास के पथ पर अग्रसर होना अत्यंत चुनौतीपूर्ण हो जाता है। राष्ट्रीय एकता में ही राष्ट्र की सारी शक्तियाँ केंद्रित होती हैं और एक शक्ति-स्रोत का जन्म होता है।
वर्तमान समय में अनेक नकारात्मक और उन्मादी सोच वाले व्यक्ति या समूह भारतवर्ष की एकता खंडित करने के लिए प्रयासरत हैं। आज आवश्यकता इस बात की है कि निजी हित और अलगाववादी तत्त्वों को पूरी दृढ़ता से नकार कर हम राष्ट्र को एकता की मज़बूती से बाँधकर रखें, क्योंकि राष्ट्रीय एकता पर ही राष्ट्र की अखंडता निर्भर करती है।

उत्तर 13.2:
मेरे प्रिय कवि हिंदी के भक्तिकालीन संत कवि कबीर हैं। कबीर का संतुलित एवं विशिष्ट व्यक्तित्व तथा उनके विचारों ने मुझे सदैव प्रभावित किया है। वे ईश्वर के सजग भक्त थे। गुरु, ज्ञान, कर्म, धर्म और अध्यात्म की उन्होंने सच्ची विवेचना की है। वे जो स्वयं करते थे, वही अपने अनुयायियों से भी अपेक्षा रखते थे। उनके व्यक्तित्व में मन, वचन और कर्म की एकता परिलक्षित होती है। कबीर के दोहे या पद स्वयं में सामाजिक परिवर्तन के सकारात्मक उद्देश्यों को समेटे हुए हैं। उन्होंने समाज में फैली कुरीतियों; जैसे-जात-पाँत, छुआछूत, ऊँच-नीच आदि पर तीक्ष्ण प्रहार किया है। कबीरदास पुस्तकीय ज्ञान को महत्त्व न देकर अनुभव आधारित ज्ञान को महत्त्व देते थे। उन्होंने सदा सत्य का साथ दिया है, इसलिए वह सभी के लिए लोकप्रिय कवि बन गए हैं। उनकी विशेषता यह है कि वे संत होकर भी क्रांतिदर्शी थे। उनकी भक्ति अंधभक्ति या पाखंडपूर्ण नहीं थी। कबीर के पदों में सामान्य बोलचाल की भाषा का प्रयोग देखने को मिलता है, जो जनमानस को सीधे इनसे जोड़ता है। वास्तव में, कबीर एक प्रकाश पुंज थे, जिन्होंने एक विशाल समाज का पथ आलोकित किया।

उत्तर 13.3:
स्वस्थ शरीर में ही स्वस्थ मस्तिष्क निवास करता है। खेल, शरीर को स्वस्थ रखने के लिए अत्यंत आवश्यक है। यद्यपि खेल के प्रति लोगों की प्राचीन धारणा यह थी कि इससे समय और धन की बर्बादी होती है, परंतु वर्तमान समय में खेल के माध्यम से सफलता के शिखर पर पहुँचने वालों ने इस मिथक को ध्वस्त कर दिया है। खेल व्यक्ति को शारीरिक और मानसिक दोनों स्तर पर स्वस्थ रखने का उत्तम साधन है, इसलिए खेल का जीवन में अत्यंत महत्त्वपूर्ण स्थान है। यही कारण है कि विद्यालयों में खेल को एक विषय के रूप में स्थान दिया गया है। खेलने वाला व्यक्ति जीवन में विभिन्न स्पर्धाओं का सामना करने में अत्यंत सक्षम होता है। वह हारकर भी जीतने का साहस रखता है, साथ ही प्रतिद्वंद्वी की सफलता की सराहना भी करता है। खेल हमारे व्यक्तित्व को निखारता है। आज यह आर्थिक, सामाजिक, स्वास्थ्य, राष्ट्रीय आदि अनेक पक्षों से संबद्ध होकर अपनी सार्थक महत्ता सिद्ध कर रहा है।

उत्तर 14:
परीक्षा भवन,
दिल्ली।
दिनांक 09 अगस्त, 20XX
प्रिय मित्र अंकिता,
आशा है कि तुम्हारी पढ़ाई ठीक प्रकार से चल रही होगी और तुम मन लगाकर परीक्षा की तैयारी में लगी होगी। तुम्हें यह जानकर खुशी होगी कि हमारे विद्यालय ने प्रधानमंत्री द्वारा चलाए गए ‘स्वच्छ भारत अभियान’ से जुड़ने का निश्चय किया है। विद्यालय के सभी छात्र-छात्राएँ अपने-अपने क्षेत्रों में स्वच्छता अभियान से जुड़ेंगे। वे प्रत्येक रविवार को विभिन्न स्थानों पर अपने अध्यापकों के मार्गदर्शन में समूह बनाकर स्वच्छता का कार्य करेंगे। मैं चाहती हूँ कि तुम भी अपने विद्यालय के सहपाठियों तथा अध्यापकों से इस संबंध में बातचीत करो और अपने अन्य मित्रों को भी इस कार्य में सहयोगी बनने के लिए प्रेरित करो। तुम जानती ही हो कि स्वच्छता के विषय में हमारा देश बहुत पीछे है, यदि हम अपने आस-पास के वातावरण को गंदगी से मुक्त रखेंगे तथा स्वच्छ बनाएँगे, तो यह बहुत महत्त्वपूर्ण कदम होगा।

मुझे पूरी आशा है कि तुम स्वच्छ भारत अभियान से जुड़कर भारत को स्वच्छ बनाने में अपना पूरा सहयोग दोगी।
अंकल-आंटी को मेरा नमस्कार कहना।
तुम्हारी अभिन्न मित्र
क. ख, ग,

अथवा

बी-ब्लॉक, उत्तम नगर,
दिल्ली।
दिनांक 09.04.20XX
प्रिय मित्र राज,
मैं यहाँ सपरिवार कुशलपूर्वक हूँ तथा कामना करता हूँ कि तुम भी सकुशल होंगे। शायद तुम्हें स्मरण होगा कि दो माह पूर्व तुमने मुझसे हिंदी की ‘गुनाहों का देवता’ नामक पुस्तक ली थी और 15 दिनों में पढ़कर लौटाने का वादा किया था, परंतु आज दो माह बाद भी, अनेक बार आग्रह करने के पश्चात् भी तुमने यह पुस्तक मुझे नहीं लौटाई है।
मित्र, इस प्रकार की बहानेबाज़ी सदैव नहीं चल सकती। अब मुझे शंका होने लगी है कि कहीं लापरवाही के कारण तुमने यह पुस्तक गुम तो नहीं कर दी है? इस प्रकार की लापरवाही व चुप्पी हमारी मित्रता में दरार का कारण भी बन सकती है। मेरा पुनः एवं अंतिम अनुरोध है कि तुम यह पुस्तक यथाशीघ्र मुझे वापस कर दो। मुझे आशा है कि तुम मुझे निराश नहीं करोगे। तुम्हारा मित्र राजन

उत्तर 15:
(i) दिए गए चित्र में एक उद्यान दिखाया गया है, जिसमें एक तालाब है और उसमें बत्तखें तैर रही हैं।
(ii) चित्र में एक महिला व दो बच्चे दिखाई दे रहे हैं।
(iii) बच्चे तालाब में कागज़ की नावे चला रहे हैं।
(iv) आकाश में बादल छाए हुए हैं और वर्षा हो रही है।
(v) वर्षा से बचने के लिए महिला छतरी लेकर खड़ी है।

अथवा

(i) प्रस्तुत चित्र में एक सपेरा, साँप का खेल दिखा रहा है।
(ii) वह बीन बजाकर साँप को नचा रहा है। उसके पास एक पोटली रखी हुई है।
(iii) जमीन पर दो साँप रेंग रहे हैं तथा एक साँप टोकरे में अपना फन उठाकर बैठा हुआ है।
(iv) पीछे की ओर कुछ झोंपड़ियाँ तथा पेड़ दिखाई दे रहे हैं।
(v) यह चित्र किसी ग्रामीण क्षेत्र का लग रहा है।

उत्तर 16:

उत्तर 17:

अथवा

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 1 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 1.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 1

Board	CBSE
Class	IX
Subject	Science
Sample Paper Set	Paper 1
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 9 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 1 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 9 Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80

General Instructions

• The question paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
• All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice will be provided in two questions of 3 marks each and one question of five marks.
• All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 2 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
• Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section A are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
• Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section A are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
• Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section A are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
• Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section B are two-marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief.

Questions
SECTION-A

Question 1.
What is the commercial unit of energy and state its equivalent value in joules.

Question 2.
Name the plastid involved in the conversion of green colour of tomato to red colour.

Question 3.
A man weighs 600 N on the surface of earth. What would be his mass and weight on the surface of moon? [ g_earth = 10 m/s² ]

Question 4.
A body is floating on the surface of a liquid. With the help of a diagram show the two forces acting on it that are responsible for its floatation. State the relationship between these two forces in this case.

Question 5.

1. Mention any two human activities which would be responsible for air pollution.
2. How is Earth’s atmosphere different from that of Venus and mars?

Question 6.
Distinguish between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixture. Classify the following mixtures as homogeneous and heterogeneous

1. Tincture of iodine
2. Smoke
3. Brass
4. Sugar solution

Question 7.
Derive graphically the equation for the position-time relation for an object travelling a distance ‘s’ in time ‘t’ under uniform acceleration.
OR
A stone dropped from a window reaches the ground in 0.5 seconds –
(i) Calculate its speed just before it hits the ground.
(ii) What is its average speed during 0.5 s?
(iii) Calculate the height of window from the ground.

Question 8.
(a) State two ways in which phloem is functionally different from xylem.
(b) Draw a neat diagram of a section of phloem and label its four parts.

Question 9.
State one difference between dugwells and tubewells. Explain any two fresh initiatives taken to increase the water available for agriculture.

Question 10.
(a) Which two factors bring about the loss of food grains during storage? Give one example for each.
(b) State any two control measures to be taken before grains are stored.
OR
Discuss with the help of suitable examples three ways in which microorganisms can enter into human body.

Question 11.

1. Write chemical formula of Aluminium Sulphate.
2. Give example each of a homodiatomic & homotetratomic molecule.

Question 12.

1. Identify two features possessed by all Chordates.
2. In which class would you place an organism which has
   
   • a scaly exoskeleton and a bony endoskeleton
   • a scaly exoskeleton and lay eggs outside water.

Question 13.
A flask contains 4.4 g of CO₂ gas. Calculate
(a) How many moles of CO₂ gas does it contain?
(b) How many molecules of CO₂ gas are present in the sample.
(c) How many atoms of oxygen are present in the given sample.
[Atomic mass of C = 12 u, O = 16 u)

Question 14.
What is an Echo? State two conditions for echo to be heard. Bats cannot see still they catch their prey. Explain.

Question 15.

1. It was diagnosed that Preeti suffers from Japanese encephalitis, which organ of Preeti’s body is effected?
2. How are antibiotics effective in the treatment of some diseases?
3. Will they help in curing Preeti’s disease? Why?

Question 16.
Define ‘Power’ of a body.
State and define the S.I. unit of Power. Two children A and B both weighing 32 kg start climbing up a rope separately and reaches the height of 8m, ‘A’: takes 15 s and ‘B’ takes 20 s to reach that level. Calculate the amount of work done by A and B. Which of the two has more power. Show by calculation, [g = 10 m/s²]

 

 

Question 17.

1. Illustrate Rutherford’s experiment to explain the model of an atom.
2. Atomic number of an element is 17. Identify the element, write its electronic configuration & mention its valency.

Question 18.
The velocity time graph of a body is given as follows:

1. State the kind of motion represented by OA; AB.
2. What is the velocity of the body after 10 s and after 40 s?
3. Calculate the retardation of the body.
4. Calculate the distance covered by the body between 10th and 30th second.

Question 19.
Apoultry farmer wants to increase his broiler production. Explain three management practices he must follow to enhance the yield.
In what way is the daily food requirement of broilers different from those of egg layers?

Question 20.
Distinguish solids, liquids and gases in a tabular form under the following characteristics:

1. Rigidity
2. Compressibility
3. Inter-particle forces of attraction
4. Inter-particle spaces
5. Kinetic energy of particles

Question 21.
(a) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the apparatus used to separate components of blue- black ink. Name the process and state the principle involved.
(b) Identify the physical and chemical changes from the following:

1. Burning of magnesium in air
2. Tarnishing of silver spoon
3. Sublimation of iodine
4. Electrolysis of water

OR
(a) Write down the chemical formulae of the following compounds:

1. Magnesium Nitride
2. Calcium Nitrate
3. Sodium Carbonate

(b) Find out the number of atoms present in:

1. PO^3-₄ ion
2. H₂SO₃ molecule

SECTION-B

Question 22.
The spring balance shown here is used to measure the mass of a given solid. Calculate the mass of the solid.

Question 23.
Waves in a slinky travelles in to and for motion as shown; calculate the velocity of the wave.


Question 24.
The diagram shows life cycle of a mosquito, the missing stages marked as (i) and (ii) are

Question 25.
Give the chemical formula of sugar and alum.

Question 26.
How will you calculate the minimum distance for an echo?

Question 27.
A measuring cylinder has 5 mark between 10 mL to 20 mL. What is its least count?

Answers
SECTION : A

Answer 1.
Kilowatt hour
1 kilowatt hour = 3.6 × 10⁶ joules

Answer 2.
Chromoplast

Answer 3.

Answer 4.

Answer 5.

1. 
   
   • Increased use of vehicles run by fossil fuels increases the gaseous air pollutants.
   • Factory outlets, low efficiency engines throw exhaust gases in the air.
2. In Earth’s atmosphere, CO₂ is 0.03% of the total of all gases and in the atmosphere of Mars and Venus it is 95 – 97% of all the gases.

Answer 6

Homogeneous Mixture	Heterogeneous Mixture
(i) Uniform composition throughout its mass.	Does not have a uniform composition throughout its mass.
(ii) No visible boundaries of separation between the constituents.	Visible boundaries of separation between the constituents.

1. Tincture of iodine – Heterogeneous
2. Smoke – Heterogeneous
3. Brass – Heterogeneous
4. Sugar solution – Heterogeneous

Answer 7.

Distance travelled by the object = Area of graph under the curve
= area of trapezium OABC
= area of rectangle OADC + area of triangle ABD

Answer 8.
(a)

1. Phloem transports food from leaves to other parts of the plant body unlike xylem, which transports water and minerals from roots to other parts of the plant.
2. Phloem unlike xylem allows movement of materials in both the directions, i.e. both towards the root and also away from the root.

(b)

Answer 9.

1. Dugwell – Water is collected from water bearing strata, manually using a bucket.
   Tubewell – Water is collected from deeper strata using a handle present on it.
2. Rain water harvesting and Watershed management are the two initiatives taken to increase the water supply for agriculture. These initiatives involve building small check dams to stop the rain water to flow away.

Answer 10.
(a)

• Biotic factors – Insects/ rodents/ fungi/ mites (any one)
• Abiotic factors – Inappropriate temperature/ Inappropriate moisture

(b) Any two of the following measures –

• strict cleaning of product before storage
• proper sundrying and then drying in shade
• Fumigation
• systematic management of warehouses

OR

• Through cuts and wounds (Tetanus)
• Through contaminated food and water (cholera)
• Through sexual contact (AIDS, Syphillis)
• Through air (TB, Pneumonia)
• Through direct skin contact (Ring worm) (any three)

Answer 11.

1. Aluminium sulphate:
   
2. Homo-diatomic molecule – O₂ /H₂/N₂
   Homo-tetratomic molecule – P₄

Answer 12.

1. Presence of notochord/ dorsal nerve chord/ paired gill pouches/ have a bilaterally symmetrical body/ are triploblastic are coelomate. (any two)
2. 
   
   • Class Pisces
   • Class Reptilia

Answer 13.

Answer 14.

1. Echo – sound heard after reflection from an obstacle. 
2. Conditions –
   
   • time interval between the original sound and reflected sound must be at least 0.1 s
   • minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of sound must be 17.2 m at 22°C. = 17 – 18 m at room temperature.
3. Bats produce ultrasonic waves. These signals are received by them after reflection from the prey and interpreted by their brain accordingly.

Answer 15.

1. Brain
2. They block the biochemical pathways. As a result of this the bacteria are unable to make cell walls and so they die.
3. No, Japanese encephalitis is a viral disease.

Answer 16.

• Power is the rate of doing work/rate of transfer of energy.
• S.I. unit of power is watt
• I watt is the power of an agent which does work at the rate of 1 joule per second/ power
  of an agent when the rate of consumption of energy is 1 joule per second.

For A:
W = mgh
= 32 kg × 10 m/s² × 8 m
W = 2560 J
Both have same mass and climb the same height.
∴ Work done by B = 2560 J
P = \(\frac { 2560J }{ 15S } \) = 170.7 W
P = \(\frac { 2560J }{ 20S } \) = 128 W
∴ A has more power

Answer 17.
1. Rutherford’s scattering experiment: He selected a sheet of very thin gold foil to be bombarded with fast moving a-particles – which were doubly positively charged ‘He’ ions.
The fast moving a-particles have a considerable amount of kinetic energy to hit the gold atoms
Observations:

• Most of the a-particles passed straight through the foil.
• One out of 20,000 particles appeared to rebound.

Inference:

• There is a positive centre inside the atom called nucleus.
• The electrons revolve around the nucleus in well defined orbits.
• The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom.

2. Atomic number is 17
Element is chlorine
Electronic configuration – 2, 8, 7; valency – 1

Answer 18.

1. OA – uniform acceleration, AB – zero acceleration/constant velocity.
2. 20 ms^-1; zero/body comes to rest.
3. Retardation = \(\frac { { (0-20)ms }^{ -1 } }{ (40-30)s } \) m s^-1 = -10 m s^-1
4. Distance between 10th and 30th second = area of shaded figure
   = (30 – 10)s × 20 m s^-1
   = 20 s × 20 m s^-1
   = 400 m

Answer 19.

1. Maintenance of temperature
2. Provision of hygienic conditions in housing and poultry feed
3. Prevention and control of diseases and pests
   The broiler’s food must be rich in protein, fat, vitamin A and vitamin K, as the food should help in good growth rate, to develop more muscles and to maintain feathering and carcass quality.

Answer 20.

Characteristics	Solid	Liquid	Gas
Rigidity	Rigid – maintains hardness and shape	Fluid – flow easily	Fluid – capable of infinite expansion
Compressibility	Almost incompressible	Relatively incompressible	Highly compressible
Inter-particle forces of attraction	Strongest (keep the particles together)	Comparatively Weaker (but keep the particles within the bulk of liquid	Extremely weak particles are free to move in all directions
Inter-particle spaces	Nearly negligible	Intermediate	Very large
Kinetic energy of particles	Very low	Low	High

Answer 21.

Process: Chromatography
Principle: The coloured component that is more soluble in water rises faster and in this way, the colours of different dyes present in blue-black ink get separated.
(b)

1. Chemical change
2. Chemical change
3. Physical change
4. Chemical change

OR
(a) The chemical formulae of the compounds are as follows:

1. Magnesium Nitride – Mg₃N₂
2. Calcium Nitride – Ca(NO₃)₂ 
3. Sodium Carbonate – Na₂CO₃

(b)

1. The number of atoms in PO^3-₄ i is 5.
2. The number of atoms in H₂SO₃ molecule is 6.

SECTION : B

Answer 22.
Initial reading of the spring balance = 10 g
Final reading of the spring balance = 122.5 g
Final reading = 122.5- 10= 112.5 g

Answer 23.
velocity = \(\frac { Distance }{ time } \) ; \(\frac { 20m }{ 10 } \) = 2 m/s

Answer 24.

• Larva
• Pupa

Answer 25.

• Sugar – Sucrose → C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ 
• Alum – K₂SO₄ . Al₂(SO₄)₃ . 24H₂O

Answer 26.
Speed of sound = \(\frac { Distance }{ Time }\)
344 m/s = \(\frac { Distance }{ 1.0s } \)
∴ Distance = 34.4 m
This is the total distance, hence half of 34.4 m = 17.2 m is the minimum distance for an echo.

Answer 27.
20mL – 10mL= 10 mL
∵ 5 × 2 = 10
∵ Each mark is of 2 mL value.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 1 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 1, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

 

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 3

Board	CBSE
Class	IX
Subject	Science
Sample Paper Set	Paper 3
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 9 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 9 Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks: 80

General Instructions

• The question paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
• All questions are compulsory. However an internal choice will be provided in two questions of 3 marks each and one question of five marks.
• All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 2 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
• Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section A are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
• Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section A are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
• Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section A are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
• Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section B are two-marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief

Questions
SECTION-A

Question 1.
What is the charge and mass of proton?

Question 2.
What is haemocoel? Which group of animals have haemocoel?

Question 3.
The number of electrons in the outermost shell of chlorine is 7. What is its valency and why?

Question 4.
How will you differentiate between a primitive organism from the advanced organisms?

Question 5.
Explain why feather falls slowly than a coin under gravity through air.

Question 6.
State one feature that is similar and one feature that is dissimilar with respect to mitochondria and plastids.

Question 7.
What is meant by the term mole? Calculate the number of moles in
(a) 3.011 × 10²³ atoms of C
(b) 32 g of oxygen gas
[N_A = 6.022 × 10²³ mol^-1, At. Mass of O = 16 u and C = 12 u]

Question 8.
State the distinguishing characteristics of the division Thallophyta.
OR
State three ways in which phloem is different from Xylem.

Question 9.
List the names of three diseases caused by virus stating their mode of communication in each mode.
OR

1. Why is making of anti-viral medicines harder than anti-bacterial medicines?
2. How can we prevent the exposure to infectious microbes?

Question 10.
Define pressure and its S.I. Unit. The dimensions of a metallic cuboid are 30 cm × 20 cm × 15 cm and its mass is 30 kg. If the acceleration due to gravity be 10 m/sec², Calculate the pressure exerted by the cuboid, when it is resting on the face having sides 20cm × 15 cm on a table.

Question 11.
State the law of conservation of momentum. Why a person is hit harder when he falls on a hard floor than when he falls on a heap of sand from the same height?
A bullet of mass 20 g is fired horizontally with a velocity 100 m/s from a pistol of mass 1.5 kg. Calculate the recoil velocity of the pistol.

Question 12.
Give an example in each case where work done by a force is:

1. Zero
2. Positive
3. Negative

Question 13.
A goldsmith measured the purity of gold by using a special measuring device. He told the customer that there was impurity present in gold ornament that he wanted to buy and it was not 22 carats but 18 carats jewellery.

1. How can we find the purity of gold?
2. What is the unit of relative density?
3. What value of goldsmith is reflected in this act?

Question 14.
Silver nitrate solution was mixed with 5 g of sodium chloride solution to verify the law of conservation of mass. 8.1 gram of silver chloride was formed and sodium nitrate formed was equal to half of the amount of silver nitrate solution used. What is the amount of AgNO₃ used and NaNO₃ formed.

Question 15.

1. Why are the roofs and walls of an auditorium hall generally covered with sound absorbent materials?
2. The sound of ringing bell inside a vacuum chamber can’t be heard. Why?

Question 16.
A silver ornament of mass ‘m’ grams is polished with gold equivalent to 1% of the mass of silver. Compute the ratio of the number of atoms of gold and silver in the ornament.

Question 17.
Explain the structure of the human ear with the help of a diagram.

Question 18.
What do you mean by work? Give an example of negative work done? What is the work done to increase the velocity of a car from 18 km/hr to 90 km/hr, if the mass of the car is 2000 kg.

Question 19.

1. State two factors on which the magnitude of buoyant force acting on a body immersed in a fluid depends.
2. Will the buoyant force exerted by a liquid increase, if its volume is increased?
3. Name some devices based on the Archimedes principle.

Question 20.
Continuous addition of fertilisers to the soil destroys its fertility. Long term fertilisers use is substituted with the various cropping pattern to maintain the fertility of the soil. Discuss few cropping patterns, their techniques and benefits.
OR

1. Define vaccine. Name two vaccines given to children.
2. What is antibiotic penicillin? Explain its functioning.

Question 21.

1. List four main processes involved in the water cycle.
2. Give a diagrammatic representation of Nitrogen cycle in nature.

SECTION-B

Question 22.
The length, breadth and height of a cuboid of mass m kg are 5 cm, 3 cm and 2 cm respectively. Calculate the surface area of the surface where the pressure on the floor will be maximum.

Question 23.
Write the difference between male and female cone of Pinus?

Question 24.
In a chemical reaction, sodium carbonate (5.3 g) reacts with and ethanoic acid (6 g) forms (8.2 g) sodium ethanoate, (2.2 g) carbon dioxide and (0.9 g) water.
Does the product formed follow the law of conservation of mass.

Question 25.
In a plant, name two features which you would examine to categorise it into a monocot or a dicot plant.

Question 26.
How does a cockroach adapt itself to a wide range of habitats?

Question 27.
What are the different adulterants commonly found in foods?

Answers
SECTION-A

Answer 1.
Proton has positive charge. Its mass is 1.675 × 10^-27 kg.

Answer 2.
Haemocoel is a pseudocoel with blood. It is found in arthropods and molluscs.

Answer 3.
Its valency is one because it can gain one electron to become stable like its nearest noble gases argon.

Answer 4.
The group of organisms which have ancient body designs and have not changed much are called “primitive” organisms. They are different from the advanced organisms as advanced organisms are group of organisms which have acquired their particular body designs recently.

Answer 5.
Air resistance depends on the surface area which is more in case of feather.

Answer 6.
Similar feature: Both have their own DNA and ribosome to synthesise their own proteins.
Dissimilar feature: Mitochondria is the site of cellular respiration and release energy, while plastids with chlorophyll are centre for photosynthesis and store energy.

Answer 7.
Mole is defined as the counting unit at atomic & molecular level and is equal to 6.022 × 10²³ atoms which is the number of atoms 12 g of ₁₂C isotope.

Answer 8.
The characteristic features of the division Thallophyta are:

• The plant body consists of individual thallus.
• The sex organs are single celled.
• After fertilisation, no embryo is formed.

OR

• Phloem allows the movement of materials in both the directions and Xylem allows the movement in only one direction(upwards).
• Phloem transports food from leaves to all parts of the plant body and Xylem transports water and minerals from roots to all the parts of the plant body.
• Phloem does not use suction pull force like xylem and it does not many dead cells as xylem has.

Answer 9.

• Jaundice – Contaminated food and water.
• Rabies – Saliva of infected animal.
• AIDS – Through sexual contact, blood transfusion, reusing the contaminated needle, from infected mother to the foetus.

OR
1. Antibiotics block the bacterial process that builds the cell wall in bacteria. As a result, the growing bacteria become unable to make cell wall and dies away easily. Viruses do not have any biochemical mechanism of their own. They enter our cells and use our machinery for their life processes. Therefore making of anti-viral medicine is difficult than anti-bacterial medicine.

2. We can prevent exposure to airborne microbes by providing living conditions that are not overcrowded. Exposure to waterborne microbes can be prevented by providing safe . drinking water. This can be done by proper scientific way of treating the water to kill any microbial contamination. Exposure to vector-borne microbes can be prevented by living in a clean environment.

Answer 10.
Pressure is defined as thrust per unit area (or force acting per unit area). Its SI unit is Pascal, (Pa)
m = 30 kg
A = 20 cm × 15 cm = 300 cm²
= 0.03 m²
g = 10 m/s²
p = \(\frac { mg }{ V }\) = \(\frac { 30\times 10 }{ 0.03 }\)
= 10⁴ Pa

Answer 11.
Law of conservation of momentum: The sum of the momenta of the two objects before collision is equal to the sun of the momenta after collision, provided there is no external unbalanced force acting on them.
When a person falls on the hard floor, he is brought to rest in a very short interval of time, so a greater force come into play.
On the other hand when he falls on a heap of sand, he is brought to rest in a longer time, so lesser force come into play/explanation in terms of momentum.

Total momentum before firing (pistol & bullet) = 0
Total momentum after firing (of pistol & bullet) is
= 0.02 kg × ( 100 m s^-1) + 1.5 kg × v ms^-1
= (2 + 1.5 v) kg ms^-1
Total momenta after firing = total momenta before firing
2 + 1.5 v = 0
1.5 v = -2
∴ v = 1.33 m/s

Answer 12.

1. work done by gravity on a rolling ball.
2. hitting a stationary ball.
3. work done by a friction of a rolling bail.

Answer 13.

1. The purity of gold can be found out by knowing the density of the gold.
2. Relative density does not have any unit.
3. Goldsmith showed the value of honesty and he is trustworthy.

Answer 14.
Let the mass of AgNO₃ used be x.
Then, mass of NaNO₃ formed will be \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\)
Mass of reactants = Mass of products
x + 5 = 8.1 + \(\frac { x }{ 2 }\)
\(\frac { x }{ 2 }\) = 3.1
x = 6.10 g
Mass of AgNO₃ Used = 6.10 g
Mass of NaNO₃ formed = \(\frac { 6.10 }{ 2 }\) = 3.05 g

Answer 15.

1. If absorbent materials are absent then there will be multiple echoes, due to which sound cannot be heard clearly.
2. Sound waves are mechanical waves and cannot travel through vaccum.

Answer 16.

Answer 17.

(a) Outer Ear: Pinna, auditory canal and tymphanic membrane.

• Pinna – It collects the sound from the surroundings.
• Auditory Canal – The sound waves collected pass through this canal.
• Tymphanic Membrane – It is a thin membrane which receives the vibrations of sound. A compression reaches the ear drum, the pressure on the outside of the membrane increases and pushes the ear drum inwards, and moves out when the rarefaction reaches the ear drum.

(b) Middle Ear: Consists of three small bones called hammer, anvil and stirrup. The vibrations are received by these three bones and the strength of vibrations is increased i.e., the sound is amplified and passed to inner ear.
(c) Inner Ear: It consist of cochlea and auditory nerve. Cochlea receives the amplified vibrations and convert them into electrical signals. These electrical signals are sent to the brain via the auditory nerve and brain interprets the signals as sound.

Answer 18.
Work is said to be done when the force applied on an object moves it in its own direction.
Example of negative work done – When a body is sliding on a surface, work done by force of friction is negative.

Answer 19.

1. Buoyant force = Weight of liquid displaced
   = (Volume of the liquid displaced) × (Density of liquid) × (Acceleration due to gravity)
   So, density of liquid and volume of the liquid displaced affects the buoyant force.
2. Buoyant force exerted by liquid does not depend upon its volume.
   So, the buoyant force will not increase on increasing the volume of the liquid.
3. Hydrometer and lactometer are based on Archimedes’ principle. Submarines are also designed according to Archimedes’ principle.

Answer 20.
Three different cropping patterns, namely mixed cropping, inter-cropping and crop-rotation are generally practised.
1. Mixed cropping allows two or more crops to be owed simultaneously on the same piece of land. Wheat and gram, wheat and mustard, groundnut and sunflower etc. are some common examples of crops grown through mixed cropping. Crops are chosen in such a way that they require different amounts of minerals.

2. Inter-cropping allows farmers to grow two or more crops simultaneously in the same field in a definite pattern. For example, cauliflower and chilli plants are grown together in alternating rows on a single field. To ensure that maximum utilisation of the nutrients applied, crops are selected in such a way that their nutrient requirements are different. Other examples of crops grown through inter-cropping include soyabean and maize, finger millet (bajra) and cow-pea (lobia) etc.

3. Crop-rotation is the practice of growing two or more varieties of crops in the same field in sequential seasons. A common example of crop-rotation is to cultivate maize followed . by soyabean. This system helps in protecting crops from pests and diseases. The crops selected, vary in nutrient requirements. This ensures complete and uniform utilisation of the nutrients applied.
OR

1. Vaccine is a chemical/drug given in advance to a body to give immunity against certain diseases.
   Two vaccines given to children are:
   • BCG – for tuberculosis prevention
   • Polio drops – for polio prevention
2. Antibiotic penicillin is a vaccine which blocks the bacterial processes that build the cell wall when the bacteria infects a living person. Due to this drug, the bacteria is unable to make a protective cell wall and it dies away easily. It is used to cure the diseases and infections caused by bacteria.

Answer 21.
1. Evaporation – Condensation – Transpiration – Precipitation
2.

SECTION-B

Answer 22.
Surface having dimensions 3 cm and 2 cm, respectively, having surface area = (3 × 2) cm² has more pressure,
∵ Pressure is inversely proportional to area. If area is less, pressure is more.

Answer 23.

• Female cones are large and woody.
• Male cones are smaller and tender.

Answer 24.
Sodium carbonate + Ethanoic acid → Sodium ethanoate + Carbon Dioxide + Water.

∵ It follows the law of conservation of mass.

Answer 25.
In any given plant to classify it as monocot or dicot, we need to see the venation in leaves, reticulated net like pattern refers to dicot plant and parallel venation refers to monocot plant.

Answer 26.
Cockraoch has a hard exoskeleton that serves many functions, including protection from water, loss and physical injury and internally required for muscle attachment, which results in tremendous leverage and strength. It also undergoes hibernation during unfavorable conditions.

Answer 27.
The commonly used adulterants in food are:

• Black pepper – dry seeds of papaya
• Honey – Jaggery
• Mustard seeds – argemone seeds
• Red chilli powder – red brick powder

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 4

Board	CBSE
Class	IX
Subject	Social Science
Sample Paper Set	Paper 4
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

(i) The question paper has 27 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks are indicated against each question.
(iii) Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
(v) Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
(vi) Question number 26 and 27 are map questions of 2 marks from History and 3 marks from Geography. After completion, attach the maps inside the answer book.

Questions

Question 1:
Write about kulaks.

Question 2:
What do you mean by Holocaust?

Question 3:
Define code of conduct.

Question 4:
Define the convergent plate boundaries.

Question 5:
What do you mean by the term multiple cropping?

Question 6:
Define Human capital formation.

Question 7:
What is Buffer stock?

Question 8:
Explain the division of the French society before the French Revolution.

Question 9:
Write about the desirables and undesirables communities by the Nazis.

Question 10:
Mention any three examples of the non-democratic countries.

Question 11:
Write a note on the basic philosophy of the Indian Constitution.

Question 12:
Write the disadvantages of an electoral competition.

Question 13:
Lakes are of great economic value. Comment.

Question 14:
Explain the weather conditions and the characteristics of the cold weather season.

Question 15:
How is modem farming different from traditional farming?

Question 16:
Write a note on the dimensions of poverty.

Question 17:
“Co-operatives play an important role in food security”. Justify.

Question 18:
What are the three dimensions of food security?

Question 19:
The radicals and the liberals found the solutions to the problem of the industrial society. Elucidate.

Question 20:
What was the view of Europeans regarding the shifting cultivation?
OR
The pastoralist had to cope up with the changes in new times. Comment.
OR
Compare and contrast the enclosure movement in England.

Question 21:
What are the powers of the President of India.

Question 22:
Why do we say that the Mandal commission was a debatable issue in India?

Question 23:
How are the tropical evergreen forest different from the tropical deciduous forest?

Question 24:
Define migration. What are its causes and effects?

Question 25:
Write a note on the food security system in India.

Question 26:
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked on the outline map of world:
(a) One of the central powers of the First World War.
(b) One of the allied powers of the Second World War.

Question 27:
On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols:
(a) The Western Ghats
(b) The largest state according to area
(c) Dachigam wildlife sanctuary

Answers

Answer 1:
Kulaks were rich peasants who were supposed to be holding stocks in the hope of higher prices.

Answer 2:
The killing operations of Nazi’s termed as Holocaust.

Answer 3:
During election time some norms and guidelines are issued which the political parties and candidates have to follow are called code of conduct.

Answer 4:
When two plates are moving towards each other and collide form convergent plate boundaries.

Answer 5:
When more than one crop is grown on a single piece of land in a year is termed as multiple cropping.

Answer 6:
When the existing human resource is further developed by adding more education and skill it is called Human capital formation.

Answer 7:
Buffer stock is the stock of food grains procured by the government through FCI to bring food security.

Answer 8:
The French society was divided into three different estates before the French Revolution as follows:

1. The first estate: It consists of the church and the clergy. They had certain privileges by birth such as exemption from paying tax.
2. The second estate: It comprised the nobles and the rich people. They also had the
   privilege of exemption from paying tax along with privilege of collection of feudal dues by the peasants.
3. The third estate: It comprised rich businessmen, merchants, court officials, peasants etc. In this state some were rich and others were poor. They were paying all the direct taxes and had no benefits.

Answer 9:
(a) The German society was divided into two groups called Desirables and Undesirables.
(b) Blond, blue-eyed and Nordic German Aryans were the desirables who wanted a society of pure and healthy Nordic Aryans.
(c) Gypsies, blacks and the Jews were the undesirables who suffered the most.

Answer 10:
The three examples of the non-democratic countries are:

1. Myanmar: The army rulers are not the people’s representatives and also the people can’t influence the government decisions.
2. Chile: Dictators like Pinochet ruled.
3. Nepal: The king ruled the country who were bom in a royal family.

Answer 11:
The basic philosophy of the Indian constitution are:

1. The preamble is the soul of the constitution which examine and evaluate any law.
2. The preamble tells us about the different sources of the constitution.
3. The preamble states that India is a sovereign, socialist, secular and democratic republic country.

Answer 12:
The three demerits of the electoral competition are:

1. The different parties and candidates use dirty tricks to win the elections.
2. These political parties and leaders put allegations on each other.
3. Electoral competition causes disunity.

Answer 13:
The lakes are having the following benefits:

1. Lakes are helpful in regulating the flow of water.
2. Some large lakes are helpful in generating hydroelectricity.
3. They help in moderating the climate of the surrounding areas.

Answer 14:
The weather conditions and the characteristics of the Cold weather season are as follows:

1. During this period there is clear sky, low humidity and temperature, and feeble arid variable winds.
2. During this period frost is common in the north and snowfall in the higher slopes of the Himalayas.
3. This period is marked with low temperature in the north whereas high to moderate temperature in the southern part of India.

Answer 15:
The following are the differences between the modem farming and the traditional farming:

1. In modem farming latest tools and machines are used whereas in the traditional farming primitive tools are used for farming.
2. In modem farming HYV seeds are used whereas in traditional farming simple seeds are used.
3. In modem farming chemical fertilisers and pesticides are used whereas in traditional farming natural manures are used.

Answer 16:
The different dimensions of poverty are as follows:

1. It means lack of food and shelter.
2. It is a situation in which parents are not able to send their children to school.
3. It is a situation when sick people are not able to get proper treatment.

Answer 17:
There are different cooperatives functioning in different parts of the country to bring food security in the country. These cooperatives sell the products to the consumers at controlled rates. Such as Mother Dairy in Delhi provides milk and vegetables to the consumers at controlled prices. Amul in Gujarat provides milk and milk products. Academy of development science in Maharashtra helps in setting up grain banks.

Answer 18:
The three different dimensions of food security are:

1. Availability: It means the food grains are available in the country through production or import or the previous year stock.
2. Accessibility: It means food grains are within reach of all the people of the country.
3. Affordability: It means all the people of the country are able to afford i.e., can buy the nutritious food grains.

Answer 19:
The radicals and the liberals found the following solutions to the problem of the industrial society:

1. They suggested to make the workforce healthy and educated.
2. They opposed the privileges enjoyed by the old aristocracy.
3. They asked the people to develop the value of individual effort, labour and enterprise.
4. They favoured the freedom of the individuals for the development of the society.
5. They said that the people should revolt to remove the existing aristocratic government.

Answer 20:
Shifting cultivation is a type of cultivation in which the farmers degrade the forest and bum it there only to clear and make a fresh patch of land to be used for cultivation. Seeds are sown with the onset of monsoon and is harvested in the month of October-November. These plots were used for cultivation for few years and then kept fallow for many years for the forest to grow.
In Europe farmers did not want to follow this type of agriculture because they felt that if they will practice this type of cultivation then the land will not be able to produce the type of timber which was needed for railways. The second reason not to practice this type of cultivation was fear of forest fire. They thought that while burning the forest, the flames may spread to other parts of the forests.

OR

The pastoralists cope with the changes in the following ways:

1. As there was no enough grazing grounds, so they decided to reduce the number of cattle they had.
2. When they were not allowed to some pasturelands they changed the direction of their movement and also started some other trade along with the pastoral activity.
3. These pastoralists demanded their right in the management of the forests and put political pressure on the government for some support and relief.
4. Some rich pastoralists left their nomadic habits. They purchased land and started a settled life.
5. Some of these pastoralists started doing agriculture and some of them became dependent on the moneylenders for their survival.

OR

Enclosure movement in England had both advantages and disadvantages.
Advantages:

1. This movement made England self-sufficient in terms of food grains. This movement helped in rising the food grain production as quickly as the population.
2. The landlords made long term investments on land and planned crop rotation to increase the fertility of the soil.
3. This allowed the landlords to expand the land under their control and produce more for the market which made the landlords rich.

Disadvantages:

1. The landlords were benefitted whereas the poor were hit hard and were left helpless and miserable as they were not allowed to collect firewood from the forest or graze their cattle on the commons. Also they were not allowed to gather fruits or hunt animals.
2. The poor were displaced from their land, deprived of their customary rights and could not find secured jobs anywhere.

Answer 21:
The President of India is the head of the state and exercises the following powers:

1. All the activities of the government takes place in his name only.
2. All the major decisions related to the policy or laws are taken in his name.
3. He appoints the Chief Justice of India, the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts in the states, the governors of the states etc.
4. All the international treaties and the agreements are signed in his name.
5. The President of India is the supreme commander of the defence forces of India.

Answer 22:
It is very true that Mandal commission was a debatable issue in India. This was due to the following reasons:

1. A number of cases were filed in the courts against this order.
2. Different sources of media raised different views and opinions.
3. It was protested and counter-protested violently.
4. As the other backward castes were given reservation in this so, people raised the issue that this will bring inequality in the society with those necessitated reservations.
5. Some were in the view that this will be an obstacle in the national development

Answer 23:
The tropical evergreen forests and the tropical deciduous forests are the two different types of vegetation found in India. The major differences between these two are as follows:

1. The tropical evergreen forests are found in the areas of heavy rainfall of more than 200 cm whereas the tropical deciduous forests are found in the areas of rainfall between 70 cm and 200 cm.
2. The trppical evergreen forests has luxuriant vegetation of all kinds in which the height of the trees are up to 60m whereas the tropical deciduous forests are the most widespread forests in India with two sub-types i.e., tropical moist forests and tropical deciduous forests.
3. In the tropical evergreen forests trees having no definite time to shed their leaves therefore they appear green all through the year whereas in the tropical deciduous forests trees shed their leaves in dry summer for about 6 to 8 weeks.
4. The tropical evergreen forests are found in the areas of Western Ghats, Assam, Tamil Nadu, Lakshadweep and Andaman and Nicobar islands whereas the tropical deciduous forests are found in the areas of Jharkhand, Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
5. The tropical evergreen forests having the important trees like ebony, mahogany, rosewood, cinchona etc, whereas the tropical deciduous forests having the important trees like teak, peepal, neem sal etc

Answer 24:
Migration can be defined as the movement of people from one place to another. Migration is controlled by number of push factors and the pull factors.

• Push factors: The different causes which pushes people to move out of a place are termed as the push factors. These are basically the disadvantages of a place or unfavourable conditions of a place such as – unemployment, illiteracy, lack of basic services like health and education etc.
• Pull factors: The different causes which pulls people to come to a particular place are termed as pull factors. These are basically the advantages of a place or the favourable conditions of a place such as – job opportunities, better health and education facilities etc.

These push factors and the pull factors lead to the following different types of migration:

1. Rural to rural migration
2. Rural to urban migration
3. Urban to urban migration
4. Urban to rural migration.

Out of these different routes of migration the most common route of migration in India is from rural to urban areas.
Migration can also be of the following two types – internal and international. Internal migration means movement of people within the country and the international migration means movement of people outside the country.
In case of internal migration the total population remain same but the change can be seen at state or local level in terms of total population, sex ratio, literacy rate, rural urban population etc.

Answer 25:
The food security system of India is carefully designed to ensure the availability of food to all the people at all the times. The food security system is composed of the following two components:

1. Buffer stock: It is the stock of food grains like rice and wheat procured by the government through the food corporation of India (FCI). The FCI purchases rice and wheat from the areas of surplus food production at a pre- announced price called minimum support price (MSP).
2. Public distribution system: This is a system of distribution of food grains among the poorer sections of the society basically those who are below poverty line. This is done through the ration shops which are also called fair price shops.

Answer 26:

Answer 27:

 

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 3

Board	CBSE
Class	IX
Subject	Social Science
Sample Paper Set	Paper 3
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme, as prescribed by the CBSE, is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

(i) The question paper has 27 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks are indicated against each question.
(iii) Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
(v) Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
(vi) Question number 26 and 27 are map questions of 2 marks from History and 3 marks from Geography. After completion, attach the maps inside the answer book.

Questions

Question 1:
What do you mean by Tithe?

Question 2:
Name the world’s biggest stock exchange.

Question 3:
What constitutes the parliament.

Question 4:
Which group of islands lie the Arabian sea?

Question 5:
Why are labourers in Palampur willing to work at lower wages?

Question 6:
What do you mean by the term disguised unemployment?

Question 7:
Name the two dimensions of food security.

Question 8:
The peasants protested against the feudal lords of France. Explain.

Question 9:
Write the basic principle of the Marxist theory.

Question 10:
Mention the three essential features of democracy.

Question 11:
Discuss any three major ideals enshrined in the preamble to the Indian constitution.

Question 12:
Explain the term Public Interest Litigation.

Question 13:
Which rivers form the largest delta in India? Mention its two important features.

Question 14:
Write the characteristics of the south-west monsoon in India.

Question 15:
How do the medium and large farmers obtain capital for farming? How is it different from the small farmers?

Question 16:
Discuss the employment scenario in the three different sectors of the Indian economy.

Question 17:
What do you mean by the term poverty line? Explain how is it estimated.

Question 18:
Discuss the role of cooperatives in food security.

Question 19:
Industrialization affected the Russian society. Explain.

Question 20:
What do you understand by the scientific forestry? What were the reforms introduced by the first inspector general of forest in India?
OR
Write a note on the pastoral nomads.
OR
The Chinese became addicted to opium. Explain.

Question 21:
What are the powers vested with the President of India?

Question 22:
Discuss any five fundamental rights given to the citizens of India.

Question 23:
Writea note on the mangrove forests in India.

Question 24:
How is the population distributed in India?

Question 25:
Write about the national food for work programme.

Question 26:
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked on the outline map of world:
(a) One of the central powers of the First World War.
(b) One of the allied powers of the Second World War.

Question 27:
On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols:
(a) State having the highest sex ratio
(b) State having the maximum density of population
(c) Least populous state in India.

Answers

Answer 1:
It was a type of tax levied by the church which comprised 1/10^th of the total agricultural produce.

Answer 2:
The Wall Street exchange is the world’s biggest stock exchange, located in USA.

Answer 3:
The President and the two houses i.e., Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha constitute the parliament.

Answer 4:
The Lakhadweep Islands lie in the Arabian sea.

Answer 5:
The labourers are willing to work at lower wages in the village Palampur due to the heavy competition for work.

Answer 6:
When more than the required people are working at a place, then the extra people are termed as disguised unemployed.

Answer 7:
The different dimensions of food security are – availability, accessibility and affordability.

Answer 8:
(a) It was the rumour in the countryside that the lords of the manor had hired hands of brigands who were on the way to destroy crops. Due to this fear peasants in many districts seized hoes and pitchforks and attacked chateaux.
(b) The peasants looted the hoarded and also burnt down the records of manorial dues.
(c) As a result of this protest many nobles fled from their homes and many of them migrated to the neighbouring countries.

Answer 9:
According to the Marxist theory the conditions of the workers cannot improve as long as the private capitalists had profit motive. To solve this problem workers had to overthrow the capitalists and rule over the private property. They wanted the property to be controlled socially.

Answer 10:
The three essential features of democracy are:

1. The people who are the elected representative can have the final decision making power.
2. Democracy is based on free and fair election where there is a fair chance of losing.
3. Each adult has been given one vote one value.

Answer 11:
The three major ideals enshrined in the preamble to the Indian constitution are:

1. Sovereign: It means that the government cannot be dictated by any external powers. It is the people of the country having the supreme power to decide the internal and the external matters.
2. Secular: It means that there is no state religion in India. All the religions are given equal status and the citizens of India are free to practice and profess any religion.
3. Democratic: It means that the people of the country will choose their representatives to form the government. And the government will function according to some basic rules for the well-being of the people.

Answer 12:
According to this PIL any citizen or group of people can approach the High Court or the Supreme Court for the protection of public interest. It is the use of legal action to advance the cause of minority or under privileged. It is one of the most effective tools for social change.

Answer 13:
The Ganga and the Brahmaputra forms the largest delta in India. The two important features of this delta are:

1. It is the largest and the fastest growing delta in the world.
2. This delta is called Sunderban delta and is named after the Sundari trees there.

Answer 14:
(a) In most part of India the monsoon rainfall is experienced between June to September.
(b) It is unevenly distributed over the country.
(c) It is pulsating in nature, sometimes it is early and sometimes its late or on time.

Answer 15:
Medium and large farmers having large tracts of land therefore they produce surplus which they sell in the market to obtain capital for farming for the next cropping season. On the other hand the small farmers having less piece of land from which they are able to produce just for their self-consumption. As they do not produce surplus so they are bound to take loan from the moneylenders at high rate of interest.

Answer 16:
The three sectors of the Indian economy are – primary sector, secondary sector and the tertiary sector. There is a wide variation in the employment generated by these sectors. Since from the beginning agriculture is the most labour absorbing sector but it shows a declining trend now. It provides employment to around 60% people of our country but many of them are disguised unemployed as they don’t have job opportunities elsewhere. Now the people are moving from primary to secondary and the tertiary sectors. Small scale manufacturing is the most labour absorbing sector in the secondary sector. In the recent years tertiary sector has become the most important sector with the introduction of new services like information technology, bio¬technology and so on.

Answer 17:
It is an imaginary line to demarcate poor and rich on different basis such as income, consumption etc. In India poverty line is estimated after every five years by conducting surveys by the national sample survey organization.
On the basis of calorie intake per person per day calorie intake is 2400 in the rural areas and it is 2100 in the urban areas. It is set high for the rural areas because they are more engaged in physical work.
On the basis of income poverty line is fixed ₹ 816 per person per month for the rural areas whereas it is bit high for the urban areas i.e., ₹ 1000. It is so because the prices of the essential products in the urban areas are higher.

Answer 18:
There are different cooperatives functioning in different parts of the country to bring food security in the country. These cooperatives sell the products to the consumers at controlled rates. Such as mother dairy in Delhi provides milk and vegetables to the consumers at controlled prices. AMUL in Gujarat provides milk and milk products. Academy of development science in Maharashtra helps in setting up grain banks.

Answer 19:
(a) Industrialization brought a massive change in the Russian society. New cities came up, new industrial regions were developed and the railways expanded.
(b) It opened job opportunities for the men, women and the children to the industries.
(c) But the working hours were long and the workers were getting very low wages.
(d) Unemployment was common when the demand was low in the market.
(e) Industrialization caused the rapid growth of the towns which led to the problems like housing and sanitation.

Answer 20:
Depleting the forest areas and in place growing one type of tree in straight rows are termed as scientific forestry.

1. The first inspector general of forest in India was Dietrich Brandis, German expert. The main reforms introduced by him to save the forests were:
2. He set up the Indian forest service (IFS) in 1864 and helped to make the Indian forest act in 1865.
3. He advocated for the scientific forestry. According to the forest act of 1878 the forest areas were categorized as – reserved, protected and village forests.
4. The forest officials surveyed and planned that every year how much of the plantation will be cut and replanted.
5. The imperial forest research institute was set up in Dehradun in 1906.

OR

Pastoral nomads were the people who moved from one place to another with their livestock for their livelihood. They were not settled at one place. The features of the pastoral nomads are as follows:

1. They had to adjust with the seasonal changes. When the pasturelands get exhausted they moved to another place.
2. They moved to the coastal areas in dry season and came back to the plateau areas.
3. They had relationship with the farmers so that their herds could graze in the harvested fields.
4. They did different occupations- like cultivation, trade and herding etc.

OR

In the early 16^th century Portuguese introduced opium in China. Opium was known for medical properties and used for making some medicines. The emperor banned the production and sale of opium because they were aware of its dangers. But in the mid of the 18^th century the British began an illegal trade of opium and were able to sell it in China with the help of the local agents. And thus making the people of China addicted to opium.

Answer 21:
The President of India is the head of the state and exercises the following powers:

1. All the activities of the government takes place in his name only.
2. All the major decisions related to the policy or laws are taken in his name.
3. He appoints the Chief Justice of India, the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts in the states, the governors of the states etc.
4. All the international treaties and the agreements are signed in his name.
5. The President if India is the Supreme Commander of the defence forces of India.

Answer 22:
The Indian constitution has guaranteed the following six fundamental rights to its citizens: right to equality, right to freedom, right against exploitation, right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights and right to constitutional remedies.

1. Right to equality: This states that there is equality before law. There will be no discrimination on the basis of caste, creed or religion. Every citizen can have the access to the public places etc.
2. Right to freedom: According to this all the citizens having the freedom of speech and expression, freedom to move freely throughout the country, freedom to practice any profession, freedom to reside anywhere in the country, freedom to form associations and freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner.
3. Right against exploitation: It bans human trafficking, child labour, bonded labour and beggar.
4. Right to freedom of religion: It says that there will be no tax for any religion, government institutions will not impart any religious instruction and there is no official religion in the country.
5. Cultural and educational rights: This states that all the people having the right to conserve their culture or language. Educational institutions run or aided by the government cannot deny anyone for taking admission on the basis of religion or language.

Answer 23:
(a) These forests are found in the coastal areas affected by tides.
(b) The roots of the trees are submerged under water.
(c) The Sundari trees are found in the Ganga Brahmaputra delta region provides durable and hard timber.
(d) It is the home of the famous royal Bengal tiger.
(e) The important trees found in these forests are palm, coconut, keora and agar.

Answer 24:
(a) The total population of India is about 1.2 billion which is unevenly distributed over the total area of 3.28 million sq. km.
(b) On the basis of the distribution of population the country can be divided into three major regions- densely populated regions, moderate and thinly populated regions.

• Densely populated regions: Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh are the densely populated states in India. The reasons for high population in these areas are- fertile and level land, good for agriculture, industries, moderate climatic conditions etc.
• Moderately populated areas: Assam and the peninsular states are moderately populated areas. It is due to the hilly and rocky terrain and moist climate.
• Thinly populated regions: States like Jammu and Kashmir, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh are thinly populated due to high relief, harsh climate and lack of economic activities.

Answer 25:
The main five characteristics of national food for work programme are:

1. It was launched on 14^th November with the aim of covering 150 most backward districts of the country.
2. Its aim is to generate supplementary wage employment to all the rural poor who are in need of work and desired to do manual labour.
3. It was a 100% centrally sponsored scheme by the central government. It also aimed at providing food security.
4. This was started to provide additional resources apart from the available resources.

Answer 26:

Answer 27:

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 2 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 2.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science Paper 2

Board	CBSE
Class	IX
Subject	Social Science
Sample Paper Set	Paper 2
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Social Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

(i) The question paper has 27 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks are indicated against each question.
(iii) Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
(v) Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
(vi) Question number 26 and 27 are map questions of 2 marks from History and 3 marks from Geography. After completion, attach the maps inside the answer book.

Questions

Question 1:
What changes took place during industrialization?

Question 2:
Who founded of the communist party of Germany?

Question 3:
Define an executive.

Question 4:
Name any two parallel ranges of the Himalayas?

Question 5:
What do you mean by the term people as resource.

Question 6:
Define poverty.

Question 7:
Name the different dimensions of hunger.

Question 8:
Explain the Incident of Bloody Sunday.

Question 9:
Comment on the economic crisis of 1923 and its effect on Germany.

Question 10:
Write about the drafting committee of the Indian constitution.

Question 11:
Is it true to say that electoral competition is helpful to the political parties and the leaders to
win the elections? Explain.

Question 12:
Is the Lok Sabha more powerful than the Rajya Sabha? Given reasons.

Question 13:
Why is the difference between the duration of day and night hardly felt at Kanyakumari but
not so in Kashmir?

Question 14:
How is bhabar different from the terai?

Question 15:
Green revolution has some demerits. Comment

Question 16:
Write a note on National Population Policy (NPP) 2000.

Question 17:
What are the three dimensions of food security?

Question 18:
Who are more prone to food insecurity?

Question 19:
The First World War had a great impact on German and the European society. Comment.

Question 20:
What were the causes of revolt of Bastar?
OR
The pastoralist had to cope up with the changes in new times. Explain.
OR
Critically analyse the mechanical harvesting machines in USA.

Question 21:
What do you mean by the term “right”? Discuss how is the right to equality exercised?

Question 22:
How can you justify that the judiciary in India is the most powerful?

Question 23:
What is an ecosystem? What measures are taken by the government of India to protect the flora and fauna?

Question 24:
“Population is a pivotal element in social studies”. Justify.

Question 25:
Comment on Sarva Siksha Abhiyan.

Question 26:
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked on the outline map of world:
(a) One of the central powers of the First World War.
(b) One of the territories under German expansion.

Question 27:
On the given political outline map of India. Locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols:
(a) The satpura range
(b) The Mahanadi river
(c) The Sariska wildlife sanctuaries

Answers

Answer 1:
The major change that took place during industrialization was that men, women and children were brought to the factories.

Answer 2:
The communist party of Germany was founded by the Spartacists.

Answer 3:
Executives are all those functionaries in the government who take day – to- day decisions but do not exercise supreme powers.

Answer 4:
There are three parallel ranges of the Himalayas- the Himadri, the Himachal and the Shivaliks.

Answer 5:
It is a way of referring country’s working population.

Answer 6:
It is a condition in which a person is not able to arrange the minimum basic needs.

Answer 7:
There are two different dimensions of hunger- seasonal hunger and chronic hunger.

Answer 8:
An industrial action by the workers took place after the dismissal of the four members of the assembly of Russian workers. In 1905, in St. Petersburg, 110,000 workers went on strike. They demanded for the reduction in the working hours to eight hours, increase in wages and improvement in the working conditions. When they reached to the winter palace under the leadership of Father Gapon, they were attacked by the police and the Cossacks in which hundreds of the workers were killed and many hundreds were wounded. And finally this incident was named as bloody Sunday, as it took place on Sunday.

Answer 9:
(a) During this time Germany was fighting wars on loans which was to be repaid in golds which depleted the gold reserves in Germany and finally in 1923 Germany refused to pay the loan in gold.
(b) This incident caused French retaliation and occupying the Ruhr, to claim coal.
(c) As a result Germany started protesting and and printed the paper currency with too much circulation, due to which the value of the mark declined and the prices of the goods started rising, causing hyperinflation.

Answer 10:
(a) It was the committee formed for the discussion to draft the constitution of India.
(b) It was headed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
(c) A comprehensive discussion took place clause by clause over three years to finalise the constitution of India.

Answer 11:
It is true to say that electoral competition is helpful to the political parties and the leaders to win the elections. It gives them incentives. It gives them chance to become popular by raising the questions which the people want to raise but if they fail in doing so then they will lose their chance of winning in the next election.

Answer 12:
(a) Generally the ordinary bill needs to be passed in both the houses but if there is any difference then the final decision will be taken in a joint session. As there are more members in the Lok Sabha than the Rajya Sabha so the views of Lok Sabha will prevail.
(b) In case of money bills Lok Sabha is more powerful than that of rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha cannot reject the money related bills if the Lok Sabha has already passed it. Within 14 days Rajya Sabha has to reply on that with or without any suggestion. Even after it is in the hand of Lok Sabha to do the changes or not.
(c) Lok Sabha having the power of using “no confidence” which Rajya Sabha does not have.

Answer 13:
Kanyakumari is the southernmost point of Indian mainland near to the equator whereas Kashmir is in the north at a difference of almost 30° from Kanyakumari. The duration of day and night varies as one moves towards north of equator. So the duration of day and night hardly felt at Kanyakumari that is of 45 min whereas the duration of day and night in Kashmir is around 5 hrs.

Answer 14:
Bhabar: It is a narrow belt of 8-16 km wide to the south of Shivaliks where rivers deposit their pebbles after descending from the mountains. The streams disappear in the bhabar belt.
Terai: Below the bhabar belt lies the Terai where the rivers re-emerge. This is the belt rich in alluvial deposits. Therefore this belt is suitable for cultivation.

Answer 15:
Green revolution introduced in India for increasing the crop production but having some negative impacts also.

1. High doses of the chemical fertilizers led to the decline in the soil fertility.
2. Chemical fertilizers and the pesticides get mixed with water and drained away polluting the other sources of water and the aquatic life too.
3. It also caused the depletion of water table as there is more use of water and is extracted with the help of tube wells.

Answer 16:
(a) According to NPP 2000 there is free and compulsory education for children upto the age of 14 years.
(b) It aims at bringing down the infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births.
(c) It aims to achieve universal immunization of children against all vaccine preventable diseases.

Answer 17:
The three different dimensions of food security are:

1. Availability: It means the food grains are available in the country through production or import or the previous year stock.
2. Accessibility: It means food grains are within reach of all the people of the country.
3. Affordability: It means all the people of the country are able to afford i.e., can buy the nutritious food grains.

Answer 18:
(a) Landless labourers, traditional artisans, petty self-employed workers, beggars etc. are the group of people more prone to food insecurity in the rural areas.
(b) Casual workers, low paid workers, seasonal workers are the group of people more prone to food insecurity in the urban areas.
(c) SCs, STs, OBCs, people living in the tribal or remote areas are also prone to food insecurity.

Answer 19:
The German and the European societies were left with the following impacts due to the First World War:

1. Europe turned to debtor from creditor. Earlier Europe was known for crediting others but due to loss in the First World War they became financially weak.
2. Men were supposed to be aggressive, strong and masculine. During this time soldiers were given much value than the civilians.
3. They started with a new idea of democracy.
4. After the defeat in the war they faced guilt, national humiliation and became financially weak.
5. Media projected the soldiers living a miserable life.

Answer 20:
Bastar is the district of the state Chhattisgarh located to the south of the state bordering Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Maharashtra. There are number of different tribal communities like Maria and Muria Gonds, Dhurwas, Bhatras, and Halbas live in Bastar. They were totally dependent on the forest for their livelihood and earnings. But during the colonial period due to the following reasons they started the revolt:

1. In 1905 the British government tried to ban the shifting cultivation, hunting, collection of forest produce by reserving 2/3 of the forests.
2. Only some villagers were allowed to stay in the forest only if they worked free for the forest department in cutting, transporting the trees and protecting the forest from the forest fires.
3. People of other villages were removed without any prior notice or compensation.
4. These tribal groups also suffered due to the increased rents and demand for free labour.
5. They also suffered due to the famines in 1899-1900 and again in 1907-1908.

OR

The pastoralists cope with the changes in the following ways:

1. As there was no enough grazing grounds, so they decided to reduce the number of cattle they had.
2. When they were not allowed to some pasturelands they changed the direction of their movement and also started some other trade along with the pastoral activity.
3. These pastoralists demanded their right in the management of the forests and put political pressure on the government for some support and relief.
4. Some rich pastoralists left their nomadic habits. They purchased land and started a settled life.
5. Some of these pastoralists started doing agriculture and some of them became dependent on the moneylenders for their survival.

OR

Mechanical harvesting machines in USA had both advantages and the disadvantages.

Advantages: 

1. The first mechanical reaper was invented by Cyrus McCormic in the year 1831 which could work equivalent to five men with cradles and 16 men with sickles.
2.  Around 500 acres of wheat could be harvested in two weeks with the help of a combined harvesters.
3. With the use of a power driven machinery, only four men could plough, seed and harvest around 2000 to 4000 acres of wheat in a season.

Disadvantages:

1. To buy these machines the poor farmers borrowed money but were unable to repay and caught in debt. This resulted in deserting their farms and looked for jobs elsewhere.
2. Due to the introduction of these mechanical harvesting machines the production increased with huge surplus which resulted in falling prices and market leading to great agrarian depression of 1930s.

Answer 21:
When the claims of persons recognized by the society and is sanctioned by the law it is termed as rights.
The following are the ways through which right to equality can be exercised:

1. By banning discrimination on the basis of caste, religion, gender etc.
2. When there is access of public places for all the people. ‘
3. By giving equality to all the citizens.
4. By giving reservation to SCs, STs, OBCs, women, handicapped etc.

Answer 22:
Judiciary in India is the most powerful due to the following reasons:

1. Judiciary in India is not under the control of the legislature or the executive. Therefore it is said that judiciary in India is independent.
2. In India, it is only the Supreme Court and the High Courts having the power to interpret the constitution of the country.
3. They have another special power that is judicial review. They can determine the validity or declare any law and action invalid.
4. The basic principles of the constitution cannot be changed by the parliament.
5. They act as a guardian of the fundamental rights of the citizens of India. Any violation of these fundamental rights can be taken to the courts.

Answer 23:
An ecosystem refers to the interdependency and interrelation of the plants, animals and the human beings with each other and with the physical environment in which they live.
The government of India has taken the following measures to protect the flora and fauna of the country:

1. Fourteen biosphere reserves have been set up.
2. Since 1992 financial and technical assistance is given to many botanical gardens.
3. Many eco development projects have been introduced such as project tiger, project rhino etc.
4. 89 national parks and 490 wildlife sanctuaries has been set up.

Answer 24:
Yes, it is true that population is a pivotal element in social studies.

1. It is the people who make and use the resources and are themselves a resource.
2. It is the point of reference from which all other elements are observed and derive their significance.
3. To understand and appreciate all aspects of the environment, the number, distribution, growth and qualities are very important.
4. It is the people who develop the society and the economy.
5. Human beings are the producers and the consumers of the earth’s resource. Hence, it is important to know their number, distribution and characteristics.

Answer 25:
The main features of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan are as follows:

1. It is to provide elementary education to all the children in the age group of 6 -14 years.
2.  Its goal is to achieve universalization of elementary education.
3. To increase the enrollment in the elementary education bridge courses and back to school camps are introduced.
4. To encourage their attendance and nutritional level, mid day meal scheme has been introduced.
5. It encourages the society and brings economic development.

Answer 26:

Answer 27:

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