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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 5 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 5.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 5

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 5 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions :

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions nos. 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 20 words
3. Questions nos. 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words
4. Questions nos. 11 to 16 are of 4 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 100 words
5. Questions nos. 17 to 21 are of 5 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 150 words
6. Questions no. 21 is map based question
7. Questions nos. 22 to 27 are of 6 marks each. The answer to these questions should not i exceed 150 words

Question 1.
What was first Gulf War?

Question 2.
What is the common currency of EU?

Question 3.
What does SPA stand for?

Question 4.
What was main objective of ‘Dalit Panthers’?

Question 5.
Mention three issue that dominate the politics of North-East?

Question 6.
What factors led to crisis of democratic order in Indian politics?

Question 7.
Give the significance of the following dates:
(i) 7 Feb. 1992
(ii) 1 Nov. 1993

Question 8.
Why did Nehru regard conduct of foreign relations as an essential indicator of independence? State any two reasons with examples to support your reading.

Question 9.
How can we see re-emergence of Indira Gandhi to power in 1971?

Question 10.
Describe any two outcomes of ‘Naxalite movement’.

Question 11.
Why did India oppose the international treaties on Nuclear non-proliferation?

Question 12.
Mention circumstances to be characterised for imposition of Emergency.

Question 13.
In what manner Gorbachev’s reform policy was protested? Who took the command during these events?

Question 14.
Mention three ways in which US dominance since the Cold War is different from its position as a superpower during the Cold War.

Question 15.
“Reforming the UN means restructuring of the Security Council.” Do you agree with this statement? Give arguments for or against this position.

Question 16.
What are the differences in the threats that people in the Third World face and those living in the First World face?

Question 17.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
The Indian government is already participating in global efforts through a number of programmes. For example, India’s National Auto-fuel Policy mandates cleaner fuels for vehicles. The Energy Conservation Act, passed in 2001, outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency. Similarly, the Electricity Act of 2003 encourages the use of renewable energy. Recent trends in importing natural gas and encouraging the adoption of clean coal technologies show that India has been making real efforts. The government is also keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel, using about 11 million hectares of land to produce biodiesel by 2011-2012. And India has one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.
(i) How India has participated in global efforts to protect environment?
(ii) What are Energy Conservation Act and Electricity Act?
(iii) Mention the efforts made by Indian government for biodiesel.

Question 18.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions:
The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into smaller principalities of different sizes. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress and took the view that the States should be free to adopt any course they liked. Sardar Patel, India’s Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister during the crucial period, immediately after Independence, played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of Princely States in bringing most of them into the Indian Union.
(i) Which government has been referred to as the interim government?
(ii) Why did the Muslim League oppose the Indian National Congress?
(iii) What makes the role of Sardar Patel a historic one? Explain.

Question 19.
Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) What does the cartoon represent?
(ii) What does the equations speak about?
(iii) “I’m always good at calculations”. What does this represent?

Question 20.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Once an emergency is proclaimed, the federal distribution of powers remains practically suspended and all the powers are concentrated in the hands of the union government. Secondly, the government also gets the power to curtail or restrict all or any of the Fundamental Rights during the emergency. From the wording of the provisions of the Constitution, it is clear that an Emergency is seen as an extra-ordinary condition in which normal democratic politics cannot function. Therefore, special powers are granted to the government.
(i) When was Emergency imposed?
(ii) Who recommended Emergency to be imposed and to whom?
(iii) Mention the implications of Emergency.

Question 21.
Study the map and answer the following questions.

(i) Name any two states which were under British rule directly before partition of the country.
(ii) Name any two Princely States of India before and after the partition.
(iii) Name any one state which was basically divided because of partition.

Question 22.
Define the various treaties to control arms. 6
OR
“During the Cold War era, India and the USSR enjoyed a special relationship which made critics to say that India was part of Soviet camp”. Examine the statement.

Question 23.
What are different natures of hegemony? Explain. 6
OR
Identify the contentious issues between China and India. How could these be resolved for greater cooperation? Give your suggestions.

Question 24.
What are some of the commonalities and differences between Bangladesh and Pakistan in their democratic experiences?
OR
Why do some countries put a question mark on India’s inclusion as the permanent member in Security Council?

Question 25.
If Bharatiya Jana Sangh or the Communist Party of India had formed the government after the first election, in which respects would the policies of the government have been different? Specify three differences each for both the parties.
OR
Why is Emergency considered to be one of the most controversial episodes in Indian politics? Analyse any three reasons.

Question 26.
What is globalisation? How has technology contributed in promoting globalisation? 6
OR
Discuss the consequences of the India’s partition in 1947.

Question 27.
Write a note on tjie Socialist Party.
OR
Describe any four major developments in the Indian politics since 1989.

Answers

Answer 1.
A massive coalition force of 660,000 troops from 34 countries fought against Iraq and defeated it in what came to be known as the First Gulf War.

Answer 2.
Euro

Answer 3.
SPA stands for Seven Party Alliance to protest against monarchy in Nepal.

Answer 4.
Dalit Panthers aimed at the destroy of caste system and to build on organisation of all oppressed sections like landless poor peasants and urban industrial workers alongwith Dalits.

Answer 5.
Three issues :

• demands for autonomy,
• movements for succession,
• opposition to outsiders.

Answer 6.

• Emergence of Indira Gandhi with a lot of popularity.
• Party competitions had been created.
• Relation between the government and judiciary had become tense.

Answer 7.

• 7 Feb. 1992 – Treaty of Maastricht was signed to establish the European Union
• 1 Nov. 1993 – European Union was established.

Answer 8.

1. India decided to conduct its foreign relations with respect to sovereignty of other nations and maintain peace and security through mutual cooperation to be reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy on Article 51 of the Constitution.
2. India always advocated the policy of Non-alignment, made efforts to reduce cold war tensions and contributed human resources to UN peace keeping operations.
3. Hence, India took independent stand and got assistance from members of both the blocs.

Answer 9.
Congress (R) under Indira Gandhi had an issue, an agenda and a positive slogan which was lacked by its opponents. The ‘Grand Alliance’ had only one common programme ‘Indira Hatao’:

1. In contrast to this, Indira Gandhi put forward a positive slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’.
2. By this, she generated a support base among poor, minorities, landless labourers, dalit, women and unemployed youth.
3. Except it, she focused on the growth of public sector, imposition of ceiling on rural land holdings and urban property, removal of disparity etc.
4. Thus, the slogan of Garibi Hatao and programmes became the part of Indira Gandhi’s political strategy of building an independent nationwide political support base during the electoral contest of 1971.

Answer 10.
Because of discriminatory nature :

1. India felt that these treaties prove the monopoly of five nuclear weapon-powers only and applicable to only the non-nuclear powers.
2. India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT in 1995 and refused to sign even CTBT (Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty).

Answer 11.

• The first objective was to follow NAM, not to join either the military blocs formed by USA or Soviet Union.
• To promote rapid economic development and maintain cordial relations with other nations.
• To prefect the territorial integrity.
• To preserve sovereignty of India and also respecting others sovereignty.

Answer 12.

• Emergence of Indira Gandhi.
• Power Politics became personalised and governmental authority was converted into personalization.
• Bitter party competition.
• Tense relations between the government and judiciary.

Answer 13.

1. The East European countries which were the part of the Soviet Bloc, started to protest against their own government and Soviet control.
2. Boris Yeltsin took the command during these events as he got popular support of people in the elections and began to shake off centralised control.
3. Power began to shift from centre to the republics which declared themselves independent.
4. In December 1991, under the leadership of Boris Yeltsin Russia, Ukraine and Baltics declared themselves as sovereign states.

Answer 14.

1. During Cold War, the US found it difficult to win over the Soviet Union as hard power due to retaliating capacity of the Soviet Union and to protest world from large scale destruction. But in the areas of structural and soft power, the US dominated.
2. During Cold War years, the Soviet Union provided an alternate model of socialist economy to maximise welfare of states. Still the world economy throughout the Cold War years adapted capitalist economy under the US.
3. In the area of soft power, the US became triumphant. As the example of blue jeans shows that the US could engineer a generational gap even in Soviet Society on culture basis.

Answer 15.
Yes, we agree with the statement because Security Council plays a crucial role in functioning of the UN. In today’s scenario power equations have been changed with the disintegration of USSR and many new countries are entering into the UN:

1. The UN charter has given a privileged position to permanent members to bring stability all over the world. This position remains the same and no one is allowed to enter.
2. Except permanent members enjoy veto power to be placed in a valuable position.
3. Permanent members category is from industrialised developed country which should be balanced by enhancing representation from developing countries to become either permanent or non-permanent members. ‘
4. Hence, Security Council should reform and improve its working to make the UN more effective t.e., inclusion of member states should be judged on the basis of contribution to peace keeping initiatives.

Answer 16.
The threats are different in the Third World and First World peoples because their regions are changed, hence they face different security challenges in the following manner:

• The newly independent countries faced the military conflicts even with their neighboring states.
• These countries faced threats not only from outside their borders, mostly from neighbors, but also from within.
• Internally, new states worried about threats from separatist movements which wanted to form independent countries.
• Sometimes, the external and internal threats merged.
• For the new states, external wars with neighbors and internal wars posed a serious challenge to their security.

Answer 17.

1. It has launched a number of programmes i.e. Auto Fuel Policy, Energy Conservation Act 2001, Electricity Act 2003 to protect environment.
2. The Energy Conservation Act was passed in 2001 to outline initiatives to improve energy efficiency and Electricity Act passed in 2003 to encourage the use of renewable energy by the Indian government as a conservation programme.
3. The Indian government is keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel using about 11 million hectares of land to produce biodiesel by 2011-12.

Answer 18.

1. The Indian National Congress has been referred to as the interim government.
2. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress because it was of the view that the states should be free to adopt any course they liked.
3. Sardar Patel was India’s Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister during the crucial period immediately following independence. He negotiated with the rulers of Princely States firmly but diplomatically and brought most of them into the Indian Union.

Answer 19.

• Dual role of Pakistan’s ruler Pervez Musharraf as the President and as Army General.
• These equations speak about dominance of one the Person militarily more rather than only the President.
• It shows the nation that Musharraf wants to command the country militarily and administratively both to strengthen his power because the President’s survival is not easy without military support.

Answer 20.

1. 25 June 1975.
2. The Prime Minister Indira Gandhi recommended to impose Emergency to the President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad.
3. • The federal distribution of powers remains practically suspended.
   • All the powers are concentrated in the hands of Union government.
   • The government also gets power to restrict all or any of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.

Answer 21.

1. • Punjab
   • Sindh
2. • Hyderabad
   • Gujarat
3. Bengal

Answer 22.

1. Limited Test Ban Treaty: Banned nuclear weapon tests in the atmosphere, in outer space and under water signed by the US, UK and USSR in Moscow on 5 August 1963 came into force on 10 October, 1963.
2. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty: It allows only the nuclear weapon states to have nuclear weapons and stops others from acquiring them. A nuclear weapon state is one which had manufactured and exploded nuclear explosive device prior to 1 January, 1967. So there are five nuclear weapon states: US, USSR, Britain, France and China.
3. Strategic Arms Limitation Talks I and II (Salt I and II): The first round began in November 1969. The Soviet Union leader Leonid Brezhnev and the US President Richard Nixon signed the following in Moscow on 26 May 1972—
   • Anti Ballistic Missile System Treaty,
   • Interim Agreement on limitation of strategic offensive arms.
     It came into force on 3 October, 1972.
     The second round started in November 1972. The US President Jimmy Carter and the Soviet leader Brezhnev signed Treaty on limiting strategic offensive arms in Vienna on 18 June, 1979.
4. Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty I and II (START I and II): Treaty I signed by the USSR President Mikhail Gorbachev and the US President George Bush (Senior) on the reduction and limitation of strategic offensive arms in Moscow on 31 July 1991. Treaty II was signed for the same purpose in Moscow on 3 January, 1993 between Russian President Boris Yeltsin and the US President George Bush (Senior).

OR

During the Cold War era, India and the USSR enjoyed a special relationship which made critics to say that India was part of the Soviet camp. It was a multi-dimensional relationship:

1. Economic :
   • The Soviet Union assisted India’s public sector companies at a time when such assistance was difficult to get.
   • It gave aid and technical assistance for steel plants like Bhilai, Bokaro, Vishakhapatnam and machinery plants like Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
   • The Soviet Union accepted Indian currency for trade when India was short of foreign exchange.
2. Political :
   • The Soviet Union supported India’s positions on the Kashmir issue in the UN.
   • The Soviet Union also supported India during its major conflicts during the war with Pakistan in 1971. .
   • India too supported Soviet foreign policy in some crucial but indirect ways.
3. Military :
   • India received military hardware from Soviet Union.
   • India got technological know-how regarding maintenance of military arsenal.
   • India and Soviet Union got mutual agreements to produce military equipments.
4. Cultural :
   • Hindi films and Indian culture were popular in the Soviet Union.
   • A large number of Indian writers and artists visited the USSR.
   • Indian heroes from Raj Kapoor to Amitabh Bachchan are household names in Russia.

Answer 23.
Hegemony is an international system to dominate world by only one superpower. The natures of hegemony can be found out as follows:

1. Hegemony as Hard Power :
   • It is based on the military capability between the states.
   • The US military dominance is based on their higher expenditures on military as well as the technological know-how.
   • The US bears military dominance in both the terms i.e. absolute and relative. In absolute terms the US military capabilities can reach any point on the planet and no other power can be a match to them.
2. Hegemony as Structural Power :
   • It is based on economic factors of the world dominated by the hegemonic power.
   • Hegemony must sustain global structure to establish certain norms for order and the US has set up Bretton Woods System.
   • he US hegemony has provided the global public goods to be consumed by one person without reducing the amount available for someone else as SLOCs and the Internet, MBA degree.
3. Hegemony as Soft Power :
   • To dominate world even in reference of cultural dimensions i.e. class ascendancy in social, political and ideological spheres.
   • The US hegemony has the capacity to create ‘manufacturing consent’ by the class to be dominated by the hegemon.
   • The ‘blue jeans’ from the US is capable to engineer even a generational divide.

OR

The relations with China experience friendly gestures from India as India signed popular ‘Panchsheel’ to develop Indo-China relations in 1954 and advocated China’s membership to the United Nations. Still, after 1957, various contentious issues arose in Indo-China relations:

• In 1962, military conflict over a border dispute of MacMohan Line resulted on unwarranted claim by China which now lie in Arunachal Pradesh and Aksai Chin region of Ladakh. ,
• Differences arose from Chinese take over of Tibet in 1950 which was protested by India against China.
• After Panchsheel, attack by China on India in 1962, to occupy larger territories of India, created humiliation.
• China’s assistance to Pakistan’s nuclear programme also created differences.
• China’s military relations with Bangladesh and Myanmar were viewed as hostile to Indian interests.

All the above mentioned differences/disputes could be resolved for greater cooperation-

• Both the countries should make some more efforts to revive harmonious attitude between themselves.
• Both the countries should move hand-in-hand to fight against terrorism, nuclear race and economic disparities.
• Both the countries should develop understanding and respect.
• Hence, both of them have signed agreements on cultural exchange and cooperation in science and technology.

Answer 24.
Bangladesh has been the part of Pakistan itself. Both of these countries bear some similarities and differences as follows:
Commonalities :

1. Both Bangladesh and Pakistan were under a military rule.
2. At both the places, the struggle for democracy took place in their own way.
3. Pakistan’s administration began under the command of General Ayub Khan and gave up due to dissatisfaction among people giving way to Yahya’s military rule and continued with the army rule though elections were held by military rulers to give a democratic shape to their own rule.
4. In the same way, Bangladesh drafted its own constitution to begin with democracy. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman formed Presidential setup by abolishing all the parties except Awami Legue. But after his assassination the new military ruler Zia-ur-Rahman formed his own party and won elections in 1979. Later on he was also assassinated and another military leader Lt. Gen. H.M. Ershad took over.

Differences :

1. In Pakistan, military, clergy and land-owning aristocrats dominated socially to overthrow elected government whereas in Bangladesh the leaders and their party members dominated for the same.
2. Pro-military groups have become more powerful due to conflict with India in Pakistan whereas in Bangladesh, pro-military groups are powerful due to friendship and encouragement of India.

OR

Due to following reasons :

• Troubled relationship with Pakistan.
• India’s nuclear weapon capabilities
• If India is included, some emerging powers (Brazil, Germany, Japan, South Africa) will also be accommodated.
• France and the US advocate that Africa and South America must be represented for they do not have any representation in the present structure.

Answer 25.

1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
   The policies of Bharatiya Jana Sangh were based on the principles as follows:
   • It replaced secular concept by the ideology of one country, one culture and one nation.
   • No cultural and educational rights as this party opposed the granting of concessions to religious and cultural minorities.
   • It focused on the reunity of India and Pakistan under the concept of Akhand Bharat.
2. Communist Party of India
   Communist Party of India would have been different on the principles as follows:
   • It worked for proportional representation in the government.
   • This party followed communist ideology in various policies.
   • It emphasised on a control over electronic mass media by an autonomous body or corporation.

OR

1. There are different views about the need to declare emergency. The Indian Constitution simply described ‘internal disturbances’ as the reason for declaring Emergency. The government argued that in a democracy, the opposition parties must allow the elected ruling party to govern according to its policies. It felt that frequent recourse to agitations, protests and collective action are not good for democracy. This leads to instability and distracts the administration from its routine task of ensuring development. Some other parties like the CPI that continued to back the Congress during Emergency, also believed that these was an international conspiracy against unity of India.
2. On the other hand, the critics of the Emergency argued that ever since the freedom movement, Indian politics had a history of popular struggles. Jai Prakash Narayan and many other opposition leader felt that in a democracy people had the right to publicly protest against the government. The Gujarat and Bihar agitations peaceful. Those who were arrested were never tried for any anti-national activity. The threat was not to the unity and integrity of the country, but to the ruling party and to the Prime Minister herself. The critics say that Indira Gandhi misused the constitutional provision meant for saving the country to save her personal power.
3. The government used powers given by the constitution and suspended the democratic functioning. It said that it wanted to use the Emergency to bring law and order, restore government led by Indira Gandhi announced a twenty-point programme and declared its determination to implement this programme. In the initial months, the urban middle classes were generally happy over the fact that agitations came to an end. The poor and rural people also expected effective implementation of the welfare programmes. Thus, different sections of society had different expectations from the Emergency.
4. Critics of Emergency indicated that most of these promises by the government remained unfulfilled, that these were simply meant to divert attention from the excesses that were taking place.
   Therefore, the Emergency of 1975 brought out both the weaknesses and the strengths of India’s democracy. It brought out some ambiguities regarding the Emergency provision in the Constitution that have been rectified since. Also the Emergency made everyone aware of the value of civil liberties.

Answer 26.
Globalisation as a concept fundamentally deals with flows. These flows could be of various kinds—ideas moving from one part of the world to another, capital shunted between two or more places, commodities being traded across borders, and people moving in search of better livelihoods to different parts of the world. The crucial element is the ‘worldwide interconnectedness’ that is created and sustained as a consequence of these constant flows. While globalisation is not caused by any single factor, technology remains a critical element. There is no doubt that the invention of telephone, microchip, etc. in more recent years has revolutionised communication between different parts of the world. When printing initially came into being it laid the basis for the creation of nationalism.

The ability of ideas, capital, commodities and people to move more easily from one part of the world to another has been made possible largely by technological advances. Advancement in technology has made it possible for the people to keep themselves fully informed about all events and happenings in the world.

Events taking place in one part of the world have impact over other parts of the world due to advanced technology.

OR

Consequences of the partition of India :

1. The year 1947 was the year of one of the largest, most abrupt, unplanned and tragic transfer of population that Indian history was known. In the name of religion, people of a community killed and maimed people of the other community. Cities like Lahore, Calcutta (Kolkata) and Amritsar were titled as communal zones.
2. Muslims would avoid going into areas where mainly Hindus and Sikhs lived. Similarly, the Hindus and Sikhs stayed away from Muslim areas.
3. People went through immense sufferings because they were forced to abandon their homes and move across borders. Minorities on both sides of the border fled their homes and often secured temporary shelter in ‘refugee camps’. They often found helpless local police and administration helpless in what was till recently their own country. They travelled to the other side of the new border by all sorts of means, often by foot. Even during this journey they were often attacked, killed or raped. Thousands of women were abducted on both sides of the border. They were made to convert to the religion of the abductor and were forced into marriage. In many cases, women were killed by their own family members to preserve the ‘family honour’. Many children were separated from their parents.
4. Those who did manage to cross the border found that they had no home. For lakhs of these ‘refugees’ the country’s freedom meant life in refugee camps, for a long time.
5. While recounting the trauma of partition, they have often used the phrase that the survivors themselves used to describe partition—as a division of hearts.
6. The partition was not merely a division of properties, liabilities and assets, or a political division of the country and the administrative apparatus. The employees of the government and the railways were also divided. Partition forced about 80 lakh people to migrate across the new border. About 5 to 10 lakhs people were killed in partition-related violence. However, beyond the administrative concerns and financial strains, the partition posed another deeper issue, the leaders of the Indian national struggle did not accept the two-nation theory. And yet, partition on religious had taken place.

Answer 27.
The Socialist Party traces its roots back to the mass movement stage of the Indian National Congress in the pre-independence era. The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was established within the Congress in 1934 by a group of young leaders who wanted a more radical and egalitarian Congress. In 1948, the Congress amended its constitution to prevent its members from having a dual party membership. This forced the Socialists to form a separate Socialists leaders Party in 1948. The leaders of the Socialist Party believed in the ideology of democratic socialism which distinguished them both from the Congress as well as from the Communists. They criticised the Congress Party for favouring capitalists and landlords and for ignoring the workers and the peasants. But the Socialist party faced a dilemma when in 1955 the Congress declared its goal to be the socialist pattern of society. Thus, it became difficult for the socialists to present themselves as an effective alternative to the Congress. Some of them, led by Rammanohar Lohia, criticised the Congress Party.

The Socialist Party went through many splits and reunions leading to the formation of many socialist parties. These included the Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party, Jayaprakash Narayan, Achyut Patwardhan, Asoka Mehta, Acharya Narendra Dev, Rammanohar Lohia and S.M. Joshi were among the leaders of the socialist parties. Many parties in contemporary India, like the Samajwadi Party, the Rashtriya Janata Dal, Janata Dal (United) and the Janata Dal (Secular) trace their origins to the Socialist Party.

OR

In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts, a consensus appears to have emerged among most parties. This consensus consists of four elements :

1. Agreement on new economic policies: While many groups are opposed to the new economic policies, most political parties are in support of the new economic policies. Most parties believe that these policies would lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.
2. Acceptance of political and social claims of the backward castes: Political parties have recognised the social and political claims of the backward castes need to be accepted. As a result, all political parties now support reservation of seats for the ‘backward classes’ in education and employment. Political parties are also willing to ensure that the OBCs get adequate share of power.
3. Acceptance of the role of state level parties in governance of the country: The distinction between state level and national level parties is fast becoming less important. State level parties are showing power at the national level and have played a central role in the country’s politics of last twenty years or so.
4. Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement: Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power sharing arrangements. Thus, most parties of the NDA did not agree with the ‘Hindutva’ ideology of the BJP. Yet, they came together to form a government and remained in power for a full term.

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These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Paper 7

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Biology is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. There are total 26 questions and five sections in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A contains question number 1 to 5, Very Short Answer Type Questions of one mark each.
3. Section B contains question number 6 to 10, Short Answer Type Questions of two marks each.
4. Section C contains question number 11 to 22, Short Answer Type Questions of three marks each.
5. Section D contains question number 23, Value Based Question of four mark.
6. Section E contains question number 24 to 26, Long Answer Type Questions of five marks each.
7. There is no overall choice in the question paper, however, an internal choice is provided in one question of two marks, one question of three marks and all three questions of five marks. An examiner is to attempt any one of the question out of the two given in the question paper with the same question number.
8. No. of printed pages are three.

SECTION-A

Question 1.
A human zygote has XXY sex chromosomes along with 22 pairs of autosomes. What sex will the individual be?

Question 2.
Define linkage.

Question 3.
What is Brood Parasitism?

Question 4.
Which enzyme is known as ‘molecular scissors’?

Question 5.
Expand ELISA.

 SECTION-B

Question 6.
Give an account of surgical sterilization methods in males and females.

Question 7.
What are biological response modifiers?

Question 8.
What are histones?

Question 9.
What is soluble RNA? Illustrate.

Question 10.
What are the pre-fertilisation events in plants?

SECTION-C

Question 11.
Write the importance of bagging of unisexual flowers in crop improvement programme.

Question 12.
Elaborate the asexual mode of reproduction in the following:
(a) Chalmydomonas
(b) Hydra
(c) Yeast

Question 13.
What are the symptoms of the disease which are confirmed by a Widal test?

OR

What are the complexities involved in transcription of eukaryotic DNA?

Question 14.
Describe the responsibility of GEAC, set up by the Indian Government.

Question 15.
Explain the hormonal control of spermatogenesis in humans.

Question 16.
During his studies on genes in Drosophila that were sex-linked, T.H. Morgan found population
phenotypic ratios deviated from expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. Explain the conclusion he arrived at. 3

Question 17.
A person claimed that he has seen sounds, heard colours and smelt light.
(1) What could be the possible reasons?
(2) Name two chemicals responsible for this condition.
(3) Mention any one source of these chemicals.

Question 18.
What are the requisites of a cloning vector?

Question 19.
Explain gene therapy with an example.

Question 20.
What are the factors that contribute to Population density?

Question 21.
(a) Name the technology that has helped the scientists to propagate on large scale the desired crops in short duration. List the steps carried out to propagate the crops by the said technique.
(b) How are the somatic hybrid obtained?

Question 22.
What is “The Evil Quartet?

SECTION-D

Question 23.
Hanshal purchased one high milk yielding exotic breed of cow. Within a few years he earned lot of money by selling calves by using MOET. The mother cow met with a premature death. Raman objected to Hansal earning money by this way.
(a) What values in life did Raman possess?
(b) Expand MOET.
(c) Briefly describe the process.

SECTION-E

Question 24.

The following graph shows the species-area relationship. Answer the following questions as directed: 5
(a) Name the naturalist who studied the kind of relationship shown in the graph. Write observations made by him.
(b) Write the situations as discovered by the ecologists when the value of ‘Z’ (slope of the line) lies between
1. 0.1 and 0.2
2. 0.6 and 1.2
What does ‘Z’ stand for?
(c) When would the slope of the line ‘ff become steeper?

OR

List the observations of Human Genome Project

Question 25.
Explain and illustrate the development of the embryo sac.

OR

How are infertility problems overcome?

Question 26.
Elaborate on the key abiotic elements that contribute to the variation in habitats.

OR

Explain sickle cell anemia and its inheritance as a pedigree chart.

Answers

SECTION-A

Answer 1.
The individual will be a male.

Answer 2.
When two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on the same chromosome, the proportion of
parental gene combinations is much higher than the non-parental type. This physical association of genes on a chromosome is termed as linkage.

Answer 3.
The parasitic bird lays it eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host bird incubate its eggs.
This is called Brood parasitism. The eggs of the parasitic bird have evolved to resemble the host’s egg in size and colour to reduce the chances of the host bird detecting the foreign eggs and ejecting them from the nest.

Answer 4.
Restriction enzymes.

Answer 5.
Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay.

SECTION-B

Answer 6.
Surgical Sterilization method in male is called ‘vasectomy’ where a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on the scrotum.
The surgical method followed in female is called tubectomy where a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in the abdomen or through vagina.

Answer 7.
Biological Response Modifiers (BRM) are the substances given to the cancer patients which activates the immune system for detection and destroying of tumor cell. For example, interferon. List the specific symptoms of typhoid. Name its causative agent.

Answer 8.
Specific symptoms of typhoid are:

1. Constant high fever (39° to 40° C).
2. Weakness
3. Stomach pain
4. Loss of appetite.

Its causative agent is Salmonella typhi.

OR

Histones are positively charged, basic proteins that are organised to form a unit of eight molecules called as histones octamer. The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a structure called nucleosome.

Answer 9.
Soluble RNA or tRNA is an adapter molecule that would on one hand read the code and on other hand bind to the specific amino acids thereby facilitating protein synthesis. The term was coined by Francis Crick.

Answer 10.
The two main pre-fertilisation events in plants are:
(1) Gametogenesis: Refers to the process of formation of two gametes — male and female.
These gametes can be homogametes (haloid) or heterogametes (diploid), sperm and ovum.
(2) Gamete Transfer: Male and female gametes are physically brought together to facilitate fusion.

SECTION-C

Answer 11.
Bagging is a process where the emasculated flowers are covered with a bag of butter paper to prevent contamination of stigma with unwanted pollen. When this stigma attains receptivity, mature pollen grains of the desired plants with required traits are dusted on the stigma and the flowers are rebagged to allow the fruits to develop. This ensures the pollen grains of only desired plants are used for fertilisation of the stigma to develop the desired plant variety.

Answer 12.
Chlamydomonas is an alga which reproduces by formation of zoospores which are
(a) micropscopic motile structures.

(b) Hydra reproduces by the formation of buds which bud from the parent body.

(c) In Yeast, the division is unequal and small buds are produced that remain attached initially to the parent cell which, eventually gets separated and mature into new yeast organisms.

Answer 13.
Typhoid fever is confirmed by Widal test.
Substained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite are some of the common symptoms of this disease. Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases.

OR

There are two complexities involved in transcription of eukaryotic DNA:
(a) There are at least three RNA polymerases in the nucleus (in addition to the RNA polymerase found in the organelles)

• The RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S, and 5.85), whereas the
• The RNA polymerase II transcribes precursor of mRNA, the heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA).
• RNA polymerase III is responsible for transcription of tRNA, and 5snRNA, and snRNAs
  (small nuclear RNAs)

(b) Secondly, the primary transcripts contain both the exons and the introns which are non-functional. Hence, it is subjected to a process called splicing where the introns are removed | and exons are joined in a defined order.

Answer 14.
GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee) is an Indian Government organisation. Its  responsibilities are:
(1) To examine the validity of GM (Genetic Modification of Organism) research.
(2) To inspect the safety of introducing GM for public services and for their large scale use.

Answer 15.
Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of
Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH). The increased levels of GnRH then acts at
the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of two gonadotropins – Luteinising
[ Hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH). LH acts at the Leydig cells and
stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens. Androgens, in turn, stimulate the process of spermatogenesis. FSH acts on the sertolli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors which
f help in the process of spermiogenesis.

Answer 16.
He observed that when the two genes in a dihybrid cross are located on the same chromosome the proportion of parental gene combinations in the progency was much higher than the non-parental or recombination of genes:
(1) Morgan and his group found that when genes are grouped on the same chromosome, some genes are tightly linked and show less recombination.
(2) When the genes are loosely linked, they show higher combination.

Answer 17.
(1) Hallucination.
(2) LSD, Cocaine.
(3) Erythroxylum cocal/Athropa belladona/Datura sps.

Answer 18.
Requisites of a cloning vector are:
(a) Origin of replication (ori): This is a sequence where replication of DNA starts within the host cells.

(b) Selectable Marker: These help in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permits the growth of the transformants.

(c) Cloning sites: This involves linkage of the alien DNA of the vector to a recognition sites
for the commonly used restriction enzymes.

Answer 19.
Gene therapy is a technique of genetic engineering with a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has been diagnosed in child/embryo by the insertion of a normal functional gene into the individual or embryo to take over the function of and compensate for the non-functional gene.
For example, the first clinical gene therapy was given for adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency which was caused due to the deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase. It can be cured by bone marrow transplantation or enzyme replacement therapy, in which functional ADA is given to the patient by injection.
Steps included in Gene therapy are:

1. Lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture outside the body.
2. A functional ADA cDNA (using a retroviral vector) is then introduced into these lymphocytes, which are subsequently returned to the patient.
3. Periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes into the patient.
4. The gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA introduced into cells at early embryonic stages could be a permanent cure.

Answer 20.
The density of a population in a given habitat during a given period, fluctuates due to changes in four basic processes.
(a) Natality refers to the number of births during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density.
(b) Immigration is the number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat from elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
(c) Mortality is the number of deaths in the population during a given period.
(d) Emigration is the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
Hence, Natality and Immigration contribute to an increase in population density whereas Mortality and Emigration decrease it.

Answer 21.
(a) The technology that has helped the scientists to propagate the desired crops on large scale is tissue culture or micropropagation.
The steps to propagate crops are:

1. Obtaining an explant from a plant.
2. Growing the explant in a test tube under sterile conditions.
3. A special nutrient or culture medium is provided for growth.

(b) Isolated single cells are separated from the plants. Their cell walls are digested to obtain protoplasts. Isolated protoplasts from two different plant varieties are fused to get hybrid protoplasts.

Answer 22.
Accelerated rates of species extinction are due to four main causes which is called the Evil Quartet. These are:
(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(b) Over-exploitation
(c) Alien species invasions
(d) Co-extinctions.

SECTION-D

Answer 23.
(a) Raman was bold, having love for animals. He had ethics and prudence.
(b) Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology.
(c) A cow is administered with FSH-like activity, to induce follicular maturation and super ovulation to produce 6-8 eggs in a single cycle.

1. The superovulated cow is either mated with an elite bull or artificially inseminated,
2. The fertilised eggs at 8-32 cells stages, are recovered non-surgically and transferred to surrogate mothers.
3. The genetic mother is available for another round of super ovulation.

SECTION-E

Answer 24.
(a) Alexander Von Humboldt
He observed that within a region, species richness increased in explored area but only up to a limit.
(b)

1. The slopes regression lines are similar when unaffected distribution in an area is analysed.
2. The slope of regression is steeper when we analyse the species area relationship among very large areas like entire continent. Z (slope of line) is the regression co-efficient.

(c) If species richness is more, i.e., in the range 0.62-1.2.

OR

The salient observations drawn from Human Genome Project are:

1. The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.
2. The average gene consists of 3000 bases, but sizes very greatly, with the largest known human gene being dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
3. The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000-much lower than previous estimates of 80,000 to 1,40,000 genes. Almost all (99.9 per cent) nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people.
4. The functions are unknown for over 50 per cent of the discovered genes.
5. Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for proteins.
6. Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.
7. Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA sequences that are repeated many times, sometimes hundred to thousand times. They are thought to have no direct coding functions, but they shed light on chromosome structure, dynamics and evolution.
8. Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968), and the Y has the fewest (231).
9. Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where singlebase DNA differences (SNPs-single nucleotide polymorphism, pronounced as ‘snips’) occur in humans. This information/promises to revolutionise the processes of finding chromosomal locations for disease-associated sequences and tracing human history.

Answer 25.
The nucleus of the functional megaspore divides mitotically to form two nuclei which move to the opposite poles, forming the 2-nucleate embryo sac. Two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in the formation of the 4-nucleate and later the 8-nucleate stages of the embryo sac. Nuclear divison are not followed immediately by cell wall formation. After the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are laid down leading to the organisation of the typical female gametophyte or embryo sac. Six of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and organised into cells; the remaining two nuclei, called polar nuclei are situated below the egg apparatus in the large central cell. There is a characteristic distribution of the cells within the embryo sac. Three

cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus. The egg apparatus, in turn, consists of two synergids and one egg cell. The synergids have special celluclar thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus, which play an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid. Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals. The large central cell has two polar nuclei. Thus, a typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity is 8-nucleate and 7-celled.

OR

Infertility problems are overcome by Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART). Some ART techniques are depicted below:
(a) In vitro fertilisation (IVF): This method is popularly known as test tube baby programme, where ova from the wife/donor (female) and sperms from the husband/donor (male) are collected and are induced to form zygote under simulated conditions as that in the body followed by embryo transfer (ET) in the laboratory.
The zygote or early embryo with upto 8 blastomeres is then transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT-zygote infra fallopian transfer). If the embryo is with more than 8 blastomeres, it is transferred into the uterus (IUT-intra uterine transfer) to complete its further development. This technique can also be used to assist females who cannot conceive.

(b) GIFT-Gamete Intro Fallopian Transfer: Here, ovum collected from a donor is transferred into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation.

(c) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI): An embryo in the laboratory is formed by injecting sperm directly into the ovum. The embryo so formed is later transferred by IUT. (e) Artificial Insemination (AI) Technique: In this technique, the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI-intra-uterine insemination) of the female.

Answer 26.
The important abiotic components that contribute to the variation in habitats are:
(1) Temperature: It affects the kinetics of enzymes activity and other physiological functions of the organism. The levels of thermal tolerance of different species also determine their geographical distribution to a larger extent.

(2) Water: The productivity and distribution of plants is heavily dependent on water. For aquatic organisms the quality (chemical composition, pH and salinity) of water becomes important. Some organisms are tolerant of a wide range of salinities while others are restricted to a narrow range (stenohaline). Many freshwater animals cannot live for long in sea water and vice versa because of the osmotic problems, they would face.

(3) Light: It is required for
(a) photosynthesis,
(b) flowering, and
(c) diurnal and seasonal migrations of organisms, for e.g., photopheriodism and hibernation.

(4) Soil: It is a very important ecological factor as it provides water, minerals and nutrients and support to the producers.

OR

Sickle cell anemia is an autosome linked recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents to the offspring when both the partners are carrier for the gene (or heterozygous).
The disease is controlled by a single pair of allele, HbA and HbS. Out of the three possible genotypes only homozygous individuals for HbS (HbSHbS) show the diseased phenotype. Heterozygous (HbAHbS) individuals appear apparently unaffected but they are carrier of the diseases as there is 50 per cent probability of transmission of the mutant gene to the progeny, thus exhibiting sickle-cell trait. The defect is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule. The substitution of amino acid in the globin protein results due to the single base substitution at the sixth codon of the beta globin gene from CAG to GUG. The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerisation under low oxygen tension causing the change in the shape of RBC from biconcave disc to elongated sickle like structure.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 6 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 6.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 6

Time Allowed : 3 Hours

Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions 

• All questions are compulsory. There are 26 questions in all.
• This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
• Section A contains five questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains five questions of 2 marks each. Section C contains twelve questions of 3 marks each. Section D contains one value based question of 4 marks and Section E contains three questions of 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 1 question of 2 marks, 1 question of 3 marks and all the 3 questions of 5 marks weightage. You have to attempt only 1 of the choices in such questions.
• You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary :

Questions
SECTION : A

Question 1.
What are permanent magnets? Give one example.

Question 2.
What is the geometrical shape of equipotential surface due to a single isolated charge?

Question 3.
Which of the following waves can be polarized
(i) Heat waves
(ii) Sound waves? Give reason to support your answer.

Question 4.
A capacitor has been charged by a dc source. What are the magnitude of conduction and displacement current, when it is fully charged?

Question 5.
Write the relationship between angle of incidence ‘i’, angle of prism ‘A’ and angle of minimum deviations A_m for a triangular prism.

SECTION : B

Question 6.
The given graph shows the variation of photo-electric current (I) versus applied voltage (V) for two different photosensitive materials and for two different intensities of the incident radiations. Identify the pairs of curves that correspond to different materials but same intensity of incident radiation.

Question 7.
A 10 V battery of negligible internal resistance is connected across a 200 V battery and a resistance of 38 Ω as shown in the figure. Find the value of the current in circuit.

Question 8.
The emf of a cell is always greater than its terminal voltage. Why? Give reason.

Question 9.
(a) Write the necessary conditions for the phenomenon of total internal reflection to occur.
(b) Write the relation between the refractive index and critical angle for a given pair of optical media.

Question 10.
State Lenz’s law. A metallic rod held horizontally along east-west direction, is allowed to fall under gravity. Will there be an emf induced at its ends? Justify your answer.

SECTION : C

Question 11.
A convex lens of focal length 25 cm is placed co-axially in contact with a concave lens of focal length 20 cm. Determine the power of the combination. Will the system be converging or diverging in nature?

Question 12.
An ammeter of resistance 0.80 Ω can measure current up to 1.0 A.
(i) What must be the value of shunt resistance to enable the ammeter to measure current up to 5.0 A?
(ii) What is the combined resistance of the ammeter and the shunt?

Question 13.
In the given circuit diagram a voltmeter ‘V is connected across a lamp ‘L’. How would
(i) the brightness of the lamp and
(ii) voltmeter reading ‘V’ be affected, if the value of resistance ‘R’ is decreased? Justify your answer.

Question 14.
(a) An EM wave is travelling in a medium with a velocity v = v\(\overrightarrow { i }\) . Draw a sketch showing the propagation of the EM wave, indicating the direction of the oscillating electric and magnetic fields.
(b) How are the magnitudes of the electric and magnetic fields related to velocity of the EM wave?

Question 15.
Block diagram of a receiver is shown in the figure :
(a) Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’
(b) Write their functions.

Question 16.
Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of a photo diode. Write briefly how it is used to detect the optical signals.

OR

Mention the important consideration required while fabricating a pn-j unction diode to be used as a Light Emitting Diode (LED). What should be the order of band gap of an LED if it is required to emit light in the visible range?

Question 17.
(a) Why photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave nature of light? Give reasons.
(b) Write the basic features of photon picture of electromagnetic radiation on which Einstein’s photoelectric equation is based.

Question 18.
A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volts. The charge stored in it is 360 μC. When potential across the capacitor is reduced by 120 V, the charge stored in it becomes 120 μC.
Calculate :
(i) The potential V and the unknown capacitance C.
(ii) What will be the charge stored in the capacitor, if the voltage applied had increased by 120 V?

OR

A hollow cylindrical box of length 1 m and area of cross section 25 cm is placed in a three dimensional coordinate system as shown in the figure. The electric field in the region is given by \(\overrightarrow { E }\) = 5Ox \(\overrightarrow { i }\) where E is in NC andx is in metres.

Find
(i) Net flux through the cylinder.
(ii) Charge enclosed by the cylinder.

Question 19.
(a) In a typical nuclear reaction, e.g.

although number of nucleons is conserved, yet energy is released. How? Explain.
(b) Show that nuclear density in a given nucleus is independent of mass number A.

Question 20.
Write three important factors which justify the need of modulating a message signal. Show diagrammatically how an amplitude modulated wave is obtained when a modulating signal is superimposed on a carrier wave.

Question 21.
A metallic rod of length L is rotated with a frequency v with one end hinged at the centre and the other end at the circumference of a circular metallic ring of radius r, about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring. A constant uniform magnetic field B parallel to the axis is present everywhere. Using Lorentz force, explain how emf is induced between the centre and the metallic ring and hence obtained the expression for it.

Question 22.
Output characteristics of an n-p-n transistor in CE configuration is shown in the figure.
Determine :
(i) dynamic output resistance
(ii) dc current gain and
(iii) ac current gain at an operating point V_CE = 10 V, when I_B = 30 pA.

SECTION : D

Question 23.
While travelling back to his residence in the car, Mr. Ram was caught up in a thunderstorm. He stopped driving the car and waited for thunderstorm to stop. He saw a child standing under the tree. He asked the boy not to stand under a tree in thunderstorm and to come inside the car till the thunderstorm stopped. Later he dropped the boy at his residence. The boy requested that he should meet his parents. The parents expressed their gratitude to him for his concern for safety of their child.
Answer the following questions based on the above information :

1. Why is it safer to sit inside a car during a thunderstorm?
2. Which two values are displayed by Mr. Ram in his action?
3. Which values are reflected in parents’ response to Mr. Ram?
4. Give an example of similar action on your part from everyday life.

SECTION : E

Question 24.
(a) Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation by a compound microscope. Hence obtain expression for total magnification when the image is formed at infinity.

OR

(a) State Huygens principle. Using this principle draw a diagram to show how a plane wave front incident at the interface of the two media gets refracted when it propagates from a rarer to a denser medium. Hence verify Snell’s law of refraction.
(b) When monochromatic light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, explain the following, giving reasons:
(i) Is the frequency of reflected and refracted light same as the frequency of incident light?
(ii) Does the decrease in speed imply a reduction in the energy carried by light wave?

Question 25.
(a) State the working principle of a potentiometer. With the help of the circuit diagram, explain how a potentiometer is used to compare the emfs of two primary cells.  Obtain the required expression used for comparing the emfs.
(b) Write two possible causes for one sided deflection in a potentiometer experiment.

OR

(a) State Kirchhoff’s rules for an electric network. Using Kirchhoff’s rules, obtain the balance condition in terms of the resistance of four arms of Wheatstone bridge.
(b) In the meter bridge experimental set up, shown in the figure, the null point ‘D’ is obtained at a distance of 40 cm from end A of the meter bridge wire. If a resistance of 10 Q is connected in series with R₁, null point is obtained at AD = 60 cm. Calculate the values of R₁ and R₂

Question 26.
(a) Derive the expression for the torque on a rectangular current carrying loop suspended in a uniform magnetic field.
(b) A proton and a deuteron having equal momenta enter in a region of a uniform magnetic field at right angle to the direction of the field. Depict their trajectories in the field.

OR

(a) A small compass needle of magnetic moment ‘m’ is free to tum about an axis perpendicular to the direction of uniform magnetic field ‘B’. The moment of inertia of the needle about the axis is T. The needle is slightly disturbed from its stable position and then released. Prove that it executes simple harmonic motion. Hence deduce the expression for its time period.
(b) A compass needle, free to turn in a vertical plane orients itself with its axis vertical at a certain place on the earth. Find out the values of
(i) horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field and
(ii) angle of dip at the place.

Answers
SECTION : A

Answer 1.
The magnets which have high retentivity and high coercivity are known as permanent magnets. For example : Steel.

Answer 2.
The equipotential surfaces of an isolated charge are concentric spherical shells and the distance between the shells increase with the decrease in electric field and vice-versa.

Answer 3.
Heat waves can be polarized as they are transverse waves whereas sound waves cannot be polarized as they are longitudinal waves. Transverse waves can oscillate in the direction perpendicular to the direction of its transmission but longitudinal waves oscillate only along the direction of its transmission. So, longitudinal waves cannot be polarized.

Answer 4.
Electric flux through plates of capacitor,

Here q is constant, the capacitor is fully charged.

As voltage becomes constant when capacitor is fully charged.

Answer 5.
The relation between the angle of incidence i, angle of prism A, and the angle of minimum deviation A , for a triangular prism is given by i = (A + A_m)/2

SECTION : B

Answer 6.
Curves 1 and 2 correspond to similar materials while curves 3 and 4 represent different materials, since the value of stopping potential for 1,2 and 3,4 are the same. For the given frequency of the incident radiation, the stopping potential is independent of its intensity.

So, the pairs of curves ( 1 and 3) and (2 and 4) correspond to different materials but same intensity of incident radiation.

Answer 7.

Since, the positive terminal of the batteries are connected together, so the equivalent emf of the batteries is given by
E = 200- 10= 190 V
Hence, the current in the circuit is given by
I = E/R = 190/38 = 5 A

Answer 8.
The emf of a cell is greater than its terminal voltage because there is some potential drop across the cell due to its small internal resistance.

Answer 9.
(a) Necessary conditions for total internal reflection to occur are :

1. The incident ray on the interface should travel in optically denser medium.
2. The angle of incidence should be greater than the critical angle for the given pair of optical media.

(b)

Where a and b are the rarer and denser media respectively. C is the critical angle for the given pair of optical media.

Answer 10.
Lenz’s law states that the polarity of induced emf is such that it produces a current which opposes the change in magnetic flux that produces it. Emf will be induced in the rod as there is change in magnetic flux.

When a metallic rod held horizontally along east-west direction, is allowed to fall freely under gravity i.e. fall from north to south, the magnetic flux changes and the emf is induced in it.

SECTION : C

Answer 11.
We have focal length of convex lens,
f₁  = +25 cm = +0.25 m
Focal length of the concave lens,
f₁ = -20 cm = -0.20 m
Equivalent focal length,

∴ The focal length of the combination = -1 m = -100 cm As the focal length is negative, the system will be diverging in nature.

Answer 12.
We have, resistance of ammeter, R_A = 0.80 ohm
Maximum current across ammeter, I_A = 1.0 A.
So, voltage across ammeter, V= IR = 1 x 0.80 = 0.8 V
Let the value of shunt be x.
(i) Resistance of ammeter with shunt,

(ii) Combined resistance of the ammer and the shunt,

Answer 13.

The given figure is Common Emitter (CE) configuration of an n-p-n transistor. The input circuit is forward biased and collector circuit is reverse biased. If resistance R decreases, forward biased in the input circuit will increase, thus the base current (I_B) will decrease and the emitter current (I_E) will increase. This will increase the collector current (I_c) as
(I_E) = (I_B) + (I_c).
When I_c increases which flows through the lamp, the voltage across the bulb will also increase making the lamp brighter and the voltmeter is connected in parallel with the lamp, the reading in the voltmeter will also increase.

Answer 14.
(a) Given,
Velocity, v = v \(\overrightarrow { i }\) and E is the electric field along Y-axis and B is the magnetic field along Z-axis.
The propagation of EM wave is shown below :

(b) Speed of EM wave can be given as the ratio of magnitude of electric field (E₀) to the magnitude of magnetic field (B₀)

Answer 15.
From the given block diagram of demodulator of a typical receiver, we can conclude the following things :
(a) X represents Intermediate Frequency (IF) stage while Y , represents an amplifier.
(b) At IF stage, the carrier frequency is transformed to a lower frequency then in this process, the modulated signal is detected. The function of amplifier is to amplify the detected signal which may not be strong enough to be made use of and hence is essential.

Answer 16.
A junction diode made from light sensitive semiconductor is called a photo diode.

An electrical device that is used to detect and convert light into an energy signal with the use of a photo detector is known as a photo diode. The light that falls on it controls the function of pn-junction. Suppose, the wavelength is such that the energy of a photon hcfk is enough to break a valence bond. There is an increase in number of charge carriers and hence the conductivity of the junction also increases. New hole-electron pairs are created when such light falls on the junction. If the junction is connected in a circuit, the intensity of the incident light controls the current in the circuit.

OR

1. The reverse breakdown voltage of LEDs are very low, which is around 5 V. So enough care is to be taken while fabricating a pn-junction diode such that the high reverse voltages do not occur across them.
2. There exist very small resistance to limit the current in LED. So, a resistor must be placed in series with the LED such that no damage is occurred to the LED.The semiconductor used for fabrication of visible LEDs must atleast have a band gap of 1.8 eV.

Answer 17.
(a) Wave nature of radiation cannot explain the photoelectric effect because of :

1. The immediate ejection of photo electrons.
2. The presence of threshold frequency for a metal surface.
3. The fact that kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is independent of the intensity of light and depends upon its frequency. Thus, the photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave nature of light.

(b) Photon picture of electromagnetic radiation on which Einstein’s photoelectric equation is based on particle nature of light. Its basic features are :

1. In interaction with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made up of particles called photons.
2. Each photon has energy (E = hv), momentum (p =hv /c) , and speed c, the speed of light.
3. All photons of light of a particular frequency v, or wavelength X, have the same energy
   
4. By increasing the intensity of light of given wavelength, there is only an increase in the number of photons per second crossing a given area, with each photon having the same energy. Thus, photon energy is independent of intensity’ of radiation.
5. Photons are electrically neutral and are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
6. In a photon – particle collision (such as photon-electron collision), the total energy and total momentum are conserved. However, number of photons may not be conserved.

Answer 18.
(i) Initial voltage, V₁, = V volts and charge stored, Q₁ = 360 μC
Q₁ = CV₁            ………(1)
Changed potential,
V₂ = V -120
Q₂ = 120 μC
Q₂ = CV₂       ………. (2)
By dividing (1) by (2), we get

(ii) If the voltage applied had increased by 120 V, then
V₃ =180 + 120 = 300 V
Hence, charge stored in the capacitor,
Q₃ = CV₃  = 2 x 10^-6  x300 = 600 μC

OR

(i) Given,

Answer 19.


Which shows that the density is independent of mass number A.

Answer 20.
Three important factors which justify the need of modulating a message signal :

(i) Size of antenna or aerial :
For communication within the effective length of the antennas, the transmitting frequencies should be high, so modulation is required.
(ii) Effective power which is radiated by antenna :
Since the power radiated from a linear antenna is inversely proportional to the square of the transmitting wavelength. As high powers are needed for good transmission, so higher frequency is required which can be achieved by modulation.
(iii) The interference of signals from different transmitters :
To avoid the interference of the signals there is a need of high frequency which can be achieved by the modulation.

Answer 21.
Suppose the length of the rod is greater than the radius of the circle and rod rotates anticlockwise and suppose the direction of electrons in the rod at any instant be along +y direction. Suppose the direction of the magnetic field is along +z direction.
Then, using Lorentz law, we get the following :

Thus, the direction of force on the electrons is along x-axis. So, the electrons will move towards the centre i.e., the fixed end of the rod. This movement of electrons will result in current and thus it will generate an emf in the rod between the fixed end and the point touching the ring.
Let 0 be the angle between the rod and radius of the circle at any time t.

Answer 22.
(i) Dynamic output resistance is given as :

SECTION : D

Answer 23.

1. It is safer to be inside a car during thunderstorm because the car acts like a Faraday cage.
2. Awareness and humanity
3. Gratitude and obliged
4. Once I came across to a situation where a puppy was shuck in the middle of a busy road during rain and was not able to cross due to heavy flow, so I quickly rushed and helped him.

SECTION : E

Answer 24.
(a) A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses parallel separated by some distance. The lens nearer to the object is called the objective. The lens through which the final image is viewed is called the eyepiece. Magnifying power, when final image is at infinity: The magnification produced by the compound microscope is the product of the magnifications produced by the eyepiece and objective.
M = M_e x M₀       ……… (i)

∴ Where, M_e and M₀ are the magnifying powers of the eyepiece and objective respectively.
If u₍₎ is the distance of the object from the objective and v₀ is the distance of the image from the objective, then the magnifying power of the objective is

Where, h, h’ are object and image heights ; respectively and f₀ is the focal length of the a” objective.
L is the tube length i.e., the distance between the second focal point of the objective and the first focal point of the eyepiece : When the final image is at infinity,

Magnifying power of compound microscope,

OR

(a) Huygens Principle :

• Each point on the primary wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets, transferring out disturbance in all directions in the same way as the original source of light does.
• The new position of the wavefront at any instant is the envelope of the secondary wavelets at that instant.Refraction on the basis of wave theory
• Consider any point Q on the incident wave front.
• Suppose when disturbance from point P on incident wave front reaches point P’ on the refracted wavefront, the disturbance from point Q reaches Q’ on the refracting surface XY.

Since P’A’ represents the refracted wavefront, the time taken by light to travel from a point on incident wavefront to the corresponding point on refracted wavefront should always be the same. Now, time taken by light to go from Q to Q’ will be

This is the Snell’s law for refraction of light.

(b)

1. The frequency of reflected and refracted light remains constant as the frequency of incident light only depends on the source of light.
2. Since the frequency remains same, hence there is no reduction in energy.

Answer 25.

(a) Working principle of Potentiometer :
When a constant current is passed through a wire of uniform area of cross-section, the potential drop across any portion of the wire is directly proportional to the length of that portion.

Applications of Potentiometerfor comparing emfs of two cells :
The following figure shows an application of the potentiometer to compare the emf of two cells of emf E₁ and E,. 1, 2, 3 form a two way key.
When 1 and 3 are connected, E₁ is connected to the galvanometer (G). Jockey is moved to N₁ which is at a distance l₁ from A, to find the balancing length. Applying loop rule to AN₁G31 A,

Thus, we can compare the emfs of any two sources. Generally, one of the cells is chosen as a standard cell whose emf is known to a high degree of accuracy. The emf of the other cell is then calculated from equation (3).

(b)

1. The emf of the cell connected in main circuit may not be more than the emf of the primary cells whose emfs are to be compared.
2. The positive ends of all cells are not connected to the same end of the wire.

OR

(a) Kirchhoff’s First Law – Junction Rule :
The algebraic sum of the currents meeting at a point in an electrical circuit is always zero.
Let the currents be I₁  , I_{2 ,} I₃ and I₄

Convention :
Current towards the junction – positive Current away from the junction – negative
I₃+ (- I₁) + (- I₂) +(- I₄) = 0

Kirchhoff’s Second Law – Loop Rule :
In a closed loop, the algebraic sum of the emfs is equal to the algebraic sum of the products of the resistance and current flowing through them.

For closed part BACB,
E₁ + E₂  =  I₁ R₁– I₃ R₃  + I₂ R₂
For closed part CADC,
E₂ =  I₃ R₃   + I₄ R₄   + I₅ R5

(b) Considering both the situations and writing them in the form of equations. Let R’ be the resistance per unit lenght of the potentiometer wire,

Answer 26.
(a) Consider a rectangular loop-ABCD carrying current I.

Case I :
The rectangular loop is placed such that the uniform magnetic field B is in the plane of loop. No force is exerted by the magnetic field on the arms AD and BC. Magnetic field exerts a force
∴  F₁ = IbB  = F₁
Magnetic field exerts a force F₂ on arm CD.
F₂ = IbB = F₁

Net force on the loop is zero.
The torque on the loop rotates the loop in anti-clockwise direction.

τ = BIA
If there are n such turns the torque will be nIAB
Where, b →Breadth of the rectangular coil
a → Length of the rectangular coil
A = ab → Area of the coil.

Case II :

Plane of the loop is not along the magnetic field, but makes angle with it. Angle between the field and the normal is θ. Forces on BC and DA are equal and opposite and they cancel each other as they are collinear. Force on AB is F, and force on CD is F₂.
F₁= F₂ = IbB

Where A = ab
(b) We know, Lorentz force, F = Bqv sin θ
Where θ = angle between velocity of particle and magnetic field = 90
So, Lorentz force, F = Bqv
Thus, the particles will move in circular path.

Let m_p = mass of proton, m_d = mass of deuteron, v = velocity of proton and v_d = velocity of deuteron The charge of proton and deuteron are equal.

As (1) and (2) are equal, so Thus, the trajectory of both the particles will be same.

OR

(a) The torque on the needle is τ = m x B In magnitude, τ= mB sin θ
Here τ is restoring torque and 0 is the angle between m and B.

Negative sign with mB sin θ implies that restoring torque is in opposition to deflecting torque. For small values of 0 in radians, we approximate sin θ = θ and get

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions nos. 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 20 words
3. Questions nos. 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words
4. Questions nos. 11 to 16 are of 4 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 100 words
5. Questions nos. 17 to 21 are of 5 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 150 words
6. Questions no. 21 is map based question
7. Questions nos. 22 to 27 are of 6 marks each. The answer to these questions should not i exceed 150 words

Question 1.
Mention the Second World War period and Korean War period.

Question 2.
What is a capitalist economy?

Question 3.
What is meant by hegemony?

Question 4.
Why was State Reorganisation Commission set up?

Question 5.
Why were the states reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 195 ?

Question 6.
Give the significance of the following dates.
(i) 8 Aug. 19 7
(ii) 25 March 1957.

Question 7.
Mention the features of SAFTA.

Question 8.
What are the Millennium Development Goals?

Question 9.
“India’s experiment with universal adult franchise appeared very bold and risky.” Justify the statement.

Question 10.
What are the key conflicts associated with Orissa (Odisha) reserved iron resources?

Question 11.
Highlight any two/four major objectives of the Prime Minister Nehru’s foreign policy.

Question 12.
Write a note an Arms Race and its effects.

Question 13.
What were the important land reforms started by the Government of India? Why did some of them become unpopular in India?

Question 14.
What is meant by environment? Suggest any two steps for the environmental improvement.

Question 15.
Bring out three differences each between Socialist Party and the Communist Party and between Bharatiya Jana Sangh and Swatantra Party.

Question 16.
What are the various positions on the issue of regional autonomy for Kashmir? Which of these do you think are justifiable? Give reasons for your answer.

Question 17.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
The Soviet system, however, became very bureaucratic and authoritarian, making life very difficult for its citizens. Lack of democracy and the absence of freedom of speech stifled people who often expressed their dissent in jokes and cartoons. Most of the institutions of the Soviet state needed reform the one-party system represented by the communist party of the Soviet union had tight control over all institutions and was unaccountable to the people. The party refused to recognise the urge of people in the fifteen different republics that formed the Soviet Union to manage their own affairs including their cultural affairs. Although, on paper, Russia was only one of the fifteen republics then together constituted the USSR in reality Russia dominated everything, and people from other regions felt neglected and often suppressed.
(i) What was Soviet system?
(ii) How many republics formed Soviet Union?
(iii) Which republic dominated in the USSR?
(iv) Why did people become dissatisfied with the rule of Communist Party of Soviet Union?

Question 18.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
Some people argue that it is strategically more prudent to take advantage of the opportunities that hegemony creates. For instance, raising economic growth rates requires increased trade, technology transfers and investment, which are best acquired by working with rather than against the hegemon. Thus, it is suggested that instead of engaging in activities opposed to hegemonic power, it may be advisable to extract benefits by operating within the hegemonic system. This is called the bandwagon strategy.
(i) What is prudent during a period of hegemony?
(ii) What benefits can be acquired within the hegemonic system?
(iii) What is the bandwagon strategy?

Question 19.
Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) What does the cartoon represent?
(ii) What does the term ‘Tug of war’ refer to?
(iii) Who has been shown on the branches of tree?

Question 20.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Once an emergency is proclaimed, the federal distribution of powers remains practically suspended and all the powers are concentrated in the hands of the union government. Secondly, the government also gets the power to curtail or restrict all or any of the Fundamental Rights during the emergency. From the wording of the provisions of the Constitution, it is clear that an Emergency is seen as an extra¬ordinary condition in which normal democratic politics cannot function. Therefore, special powers are granted to the government.
(i) When was Emergency imposed?
(ii) Who recommended Emergency to be imposed and to whom?
(iii) Mention the implications of Emergency.

Question 21.
Study the following map of European Union and mark the new member countries and older member countries.

(i) Given the significance of the circle of stars for Europe.
(ii) Why are there 12 stars in the circle of the European Union flag?
(ii) Name any two members of the European Union.

Question 22.
How are the external powers influencing bilateral relations in South Asia? Take any one example to illustrate your point.
OR
Critically evaluate the difficulties involved in implementing the suggested reforms to reconstruct the UN.

Question 23.
Looking at the Indian scenario, what type of security has been given priority in India, traditional or non-traditional? What examples could you cite to substantiate the arguments?
OR
What are the economic implications of globalisation? How has globalisation impacted on India with regard to this particular dimension?

Question 24.
Analyse any six consequences of the partition of India in 1947.
OR
What were the major differences in the approach towards development at the time of Independence? Has the debate been resolved?

Question 25.
Write a note on the war and peace with Pakistan.
OR
Discuss the major issue which led to the formal split of the Congress Party in 19 9.

Question 26.
“Emergency was a Blackmark in Indian History”? Comment.
OR
The Bharatiya Kisan Union is a leading organisation highlighting the plight of farmers. What were the issues addressed by it in the nineties and to what extent were they successful?

Question 27.
“The decade of 1980s witnessed tragic turn of events which complicated the problem of Punjab.” Justify the statement in the contest of Operation Blue Star.
OR
Many people think that a two-party system is required for successful democracy. Drawing from India’s experience of last twenty years, write an essay on what advantages the present party system in India has.

Answers

Answer 1.
The Second World War 1939 – 45

Answer 2.
In this economy, land and productive assets are owned and controlled by the capitalists.

Answer 3.
An international system to dominate world by only one superpower.

Answer 4.
It was set up to look into the matter to redraw the boundaries of states.

Answer 5.
States were reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 1956 to maintain unity and integrity of the nation to avoid violence and conflicts among the people.

Answer 6.

1. 8 Aug. 1967 — ASEAN was established.
2. 25 March 1957 – Six countries signed the treaties of Rome to establish the European Economic Community (EEC) and the European Atomic Energy Community (EURATOM).

Answer 7.
South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed by SAARC members in 2004 with the following features:

• Formation of Free Trade Zone for whole South Asia.
• To sustain mutual trade and cooperation among SAARC members.

Answer 8.
The Millennium Development Goals can be categorised as follows:

• Environmental Protection
• Promotion of globalisation
• Anti-terrorism initiatives
• Enhancement and protection of Human Rights.

Answer 9.
Because :

• Country’s vast size and electorates made these elections unusual.
• The year 1952, it was a big test for poor and illiterate country.
• Till then, democracy had been existed only in the prosperous countries mainly in Europe and North America where everyone was almost literate.

Answer 10.

• These iron resources lie in most underdeveloped and predominant tribal districts.
• Tribal population feared that the setting up of industries would mean displacement from their name and livelihood.
• The environmentalist feared to be polluted the environment due to mining and industrial activities.

Answer 11.

• The first objective was to follow NAM, not to join either the military blocs formed by USA or Soviet Union.
• To promote rapid economic development and maintain cordial relations with other nations.
• To prefect the territorial integrity.
• To preserve sovereignty of India and also respecting others sovereignty.

Answer 12.
As all the countries want to protect their military and economic interests to become powerful at international level, a stiff competition emerged among the nations. The powerful and weak both want to become more powerful by stocking arms including nuclear weapons. After the Second World War, it became worse as all the countries including developing nations spent a major portion of their budget on military alliances. The scientists have declared that this blind and unending arms race will harm the food, air and water and ultimately lead to devastation. Money spent on it should be used for welfare purpose.

Answer 13.
To get secure access to land for the poor section of the sociely since independence policies of land reform were implemented to benefit poor and landless poorer section of society. After that various land reforms have been done by the government. Some of them are:

• Abolition of Zamindari System
• Consolidation of small land holdings
• Putting an upper limit or ceiling on the maximum amount of land one can possess.

The main objective of the land reforms was to remove rural poverty and increase agricultural production, but it became unpopular because of the following reasons:

• Some of these land reforms could not be properly implemented because the land owners had both power and political influence.
• These land reforms were not defined into laws and remained only on papers.

Answer 14.
Environment refers to surroundings of a region which can be improved by taking following steps:

1. More focus should be on afforestation i.e. planting more trees to maintain ecological balance, prevent soil erosion and enhance water cycle also.
2. Eco-friendly industries should be set up as well as industries adherent should be disposed with scientific methods and industries should be established at far away places from populous/residential areas.

Answer 15.
(i) Differences between Socialist party and Communist party:

(ii) Defferences between Bharatiya jana Sangh and Swtatantra Party:

Answer 16.
On the issue of regional autonomy for Kashmir, the following positions are states as:

1. Kashmiris were promised to make accession on reference of people after situation created by tribal invasion, becomes normal. But it has not been fulfilled, hence, it generated the demand for “Plebiscite”.
2. Sometimes, it was felt that special federal status guaranteed by Article 370 has been eroded practically which led the demand for restoration of autonomy or “Greater State Autonomy”.
3. It is felt that democracy, which is practised in rest of India has not been similarly institutionalised in Jammu and Kashmir.

We prefer the first position because ‘Plebiscite’ provides better opportunity to people of J & K to protect and sustain their regional autonomy in a very democratic manner.

Answer 17.

1. • Soviet system was bureaucratic and authoritarian making life difficult for citizens.
   • Soviet system lacked democracy and the freedom of speech of people was also snatched away.
2. 15 Republics
3. Russia
4. • Soviet Union had tight control over all institutions.
   • Soviet Union was unaccountable to people.
   • Soviet Union Refused 15 Republics to manage their own affairs.

Answer 18.

• To take advantage of opportunities that a hegemon creates.
• Increase trade, technology transgers and investment
• To extract benefits by operating within hegemonic system in place of being engaged in the opposed activities.

Answer 19.

• Cartoon represents dominance of the Congress which is being tug by opposition parties to throw the Congress out of power.
• ‘Tug of war’ refers to pulling out the Congress by criticism and mentioning its weaknesses in an honest and justified manner.
• Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru along with his Cabinet Ministers.

Answer 20.

1. 25 June 1975.
2. The Prime Minister Indira Gandhi recommended to impose Emergency to the President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad.
3. • The federal distribution of powes emains practically suspended.
   • All the powers ae concentrated in the hands of Union government.
   • The government also gets power to restrict all of any of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.

Answer 21.

1. The circle of stars stands for harmony and solidarity between the Europeans.
2. There are 12 stars in the circle of the European Union flag because, the no. 12 is considered the symbol of unity, perfection and completeness traditionally.
3. Lithuania and Poland.

Answer 22.
The external powers influence bilateral relations in South Asia because no region exists in the vacuum. It is influenced by outside powers and events no matter how much it may try to insulate itself from non-regional powers:

1. China and the US remain key players in South Asian politics.
2. Sino-Indian relations have improved significantly in the last ten years, but China’s strategic partnership with Pakistan remains a major irritant.
3. The demands of development and globalisation have brought the two Asian giants closer and their economic ties have multiplied rapidly since 1991.
4. The Us enjoys good relations with both India and pakistan and works as a moderator in Indo-Pak relations.
5. Economic reforms and liberal economic policies in both the countries have increased the depth of American participation.
6. The large South Asian economy remains in the US and the huge size of population and markets of the region give America an added stake in the future of regional security and peace.

OR

In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution which reflected three main complaints—

• The Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
• Its decisions reflect only Western values and interests and are dominated by a few powers.
• It lacks equitable representation. In view of these growing demands for the restructuring of the UN, on 1 January, 1997, the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan initiated an inquiry into how the UN should be reformed. How for instance, should new Security Council members be chosen?

In the years since then, the following are just some of the criteria that have been proposed for new permanent and non-permanent members of the Security Council. A new member, it has been suggested, should be a major economic power, a major military power, a substantial contributor to the UN budget, etc. Clearly, each of these criteria has some validity. Governments saw advantages in some criteria and disadvantages in others depending on their interests and aspirations.

It has also been suggested that the veto power of the five permanent members should be abolished. Many perceived the veto to be in conflict with the concept of democracy. But there is also a realisation that the permanent members are unlikely to agree to such a reform.

Answer 23.
India has faced traditional (military) and non-traditional threats to its security that have emerged from within as well as outside its borders.
Its security strategy has four broad components i.e.:

1. To strengthen its military capabilities :
   • India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours as Pakistan in 1947-48, 1965, 1971 and 1999 and China in 1962.
   • In South Asian Region, India is surrounded by nuclear armed countries. Hence, India’s decision to conduct nuclear test in 1998 was justified to safeguard national security.
   • India first tested nuclear device in 1974.
2. To strengthen international norms and international institutions :
   • India’s first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru supported Asian solidarity, disarmament, decolonisation and the UN as a forum to settle down international conflict.
   • India took initiatives to bring about a universal and non-discriminatory non¬proliferation regime to enjoy some rights and obligations with respect to weapons of mass destruction.
   • It used non-alignment to help to carve out an area of peace outside the blocs.
   • India signed Kyoto Protocol in 1997 to be a part of roadmap for reducing the emissions of greenhouse gases to check global warming.
3. To meet security challenges within the country :
   • Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab, Kashmir have sought to break away from India.
   • India makes efforts to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system by providing freedom of speech and expression alongwith the right to vote.
4. To develop its economy :
   • India develops the way to lift vast mass of citizens out of poverty, misery and huge economic inequalities.
   • A democratically elected government is supposed to combine economic growth with human development without any demarcation between the rich and the poor.

OR

(A) Economic implications of globalisation

• It involves greater economic flows among various countries.
• It has enhanced trade in commodities among countries.
• The restrictions on the imports and movement of capital have also been reduced.
• This has spread internet and computer related services across national boundaries.

Impact of globalisation on India

• More new jobs have been created in the MNCs like cell phones, fast food etc.
• India is playing a crucial role among developing countries in trade and commerce by making some companies multinational themselves i.e. Tata Motors, Ranbaxy etc.
• Direct Foreign Investment have also been increased.
• It has invited inflow of private foreign capital and export-oriented activities.

Answer 24.
Consequences of the partition of India :

1. The year 1947 was the year of one of the largest, most abrupt, unplanned and tragic transfer of population that Indian history was known. In the name of religion, people of a community killed and maimed people of the other community. Cities like Lahore, Calcutta (Kolkata) and Amritsar were titled as communal zones.
2. Muslims would avoid going into areas where mainly Hindus and Sikhs lived. Similarly, the Hindus and Sikhs stayed away from Muslim areas.
3. People went through immense sufferings because they were forced to abandon their homes and move across borders. Minorities on both sides of the border fled their homes and often secured temporary shelter in ‘refugee camps’. They often found helpless local police and administration helpless in what was till recently their own country. They travelled to the other side of the new border by all sorts of means, often by foot. Even during this journey they were often attacked, killed or raped. Thousands of women were abducted on both sides of the border. They were made to convert to the religion of the abductor and were forced into marriage. In many cases, women were killed by their own family members to preserve the ‘family honour’. Many children were separated from their parents.
4. Those who did manage to cross the border found that they had no home. For lakhs of these ‘refugees’ the country’s freedom meant life in refugee camps, for a long time,
5. While recounting the trauma of partition, they have often used the phrase that the survivors themselves used to describe partition—as a division of hearts.
6. The partition was not merely a division of properties, liabilities and assets, or a political division of the country and the administrative apparatus. The employees of the government and the railways were also divided. Partition forced about 80 lakh people to migrate across the new border. About 5 to 10 lakhs people were killed in partition-related violence. However, beyond the administrative concerns and financial strains, the partition posed another deeper issue, the leaders of the Indian national struggle did not accept the two-nation theory. And yet, partition on religious had taken place.

OR

At the time of Independence, development was about becoming more like the industrialised countries of the West, to be involved with the break down of traditional social structure as well as rise of capitalism and liberalism.

1. Modernisation referred to growth, material progress and scientific rationality.
2. India had two models of modern development at the time of independence into considerations to be adopted i.e. the liberal capitalist model like Europe and the US and the socialist model like the USSR.
3. A debate had been occurred regarding adoption of model of development as communists, socialists and Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru supported the socialist model to reflect a broad consensus to be developed during national movement,
4. Above mentioned intentions cleared that the government made the priority to poverty
   alleviation alongwith social and economic redistribution.
5. At the same time, these leaders differed and debated:
   • Industrialisation should be the preferred path or
   • Agricultural development should take place, or
   • Rural poverty should be alleviated.

Answer 25.
Indo-Pak conflict started just after partition over the dispute on Kashmir. A proxy war broke, out between the Indian and Pakistani armies in Kashmir during 1947 itself. But this did not turn into a full war. Both the governments of India and Pakistan worked together to restore the women abducted during partition to their original families. A long¬term dispute about the sharing of river waters was resolved through mediation by the World Bank. The India-Pakistan Indus Waters Treaty was signed by Nehru and General Ayub Khan in 1960.„Despite all ups and downs in the Indo-Pak relations, this treaty has worked well.

In April 1965, Pakistan launched armed attacks in the Rann of Kutch area of Gujarat. This was followed by a bigger offensive in Jammu and Kashmir in August-September. Pakistan did not get support from the local people there. In order to ease the pressure on the Kashmir front, Indian Prime Minister Lai Bahadur Shastri ordered Indian troops to launch a counter-offensive on the Punjab border. In a fierce battle, the Indian army reached close to Lahore.

The hostilities came to an end with the UN intervention. Later, Shastri and Pakistan’s General Ayub Khan signed the Tashkent Agreement, brokered by the Soviet Union in January 1966.

OR

The formal split in Congress took place in 1969 on the issue of nomination of the candidate during presidential elections:

1. Despite, Indira Gandhi’s reservations, the Syndicate nominated Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy, as the official Congress candidate for ensuing Presidential elections.
2. Indira Gandhi retaliated the situation by encouraging V.V. Giri, the then Vice-President, to be nominated as an independent candidate.
3. During election, the then Congress President S. Nijalingappa issued a whip asking all Congress MPs. MLAs to vote for N. Sanjeeva Reddy.
4. On the other hand, after silently supporting V.V. Giri, the Prime Minister Indira Gandhi openly called for a conscience vote to vote the way they want’.
5. Elections went in favour of V.V. Giri due to this diplomatic effort and N. Sanjeeva Reddy was defeated.
6. The defeat of N. Sanjeeva Reddy, the formal Congress candidate, formalised the split of party into two:
   • Congress (0), i.e. organisation led by syndicate, known as Old Congress.
   • Congress (R) i.e. requisitionists led by Indira Gandhi, known as New Congress.

Answer 26.

• Emergency was declared on the ground of internal disturbances on 25 June 1975 to invoke Article 352 of the Constitution.
• The Prime Minister Indira Gandhi recommended to impose Emergency to the President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad.
• Emergency was one of the most controversial episodes which possessed different virus regarding imposition of Emergency.
• Emergency practically suspended the democratic functioning.
• ‘Shah Commission’ exposed many excesses committed during emergency.
• Emergency highlighted some hidden matters over constitutional battle between the Parliament and judiciary.
• Tensions or conflicts had been arisen between institution based democracy and popular participation of people.

OR

Bharatiya Kisan Union (BKU) is an organisation of farmers from the western UP and Haryana regions. It is one of the leading farmers’ movements to protest against the policies of process of liberalisation of Indian economy. The Meerut agitation of farmers was a great show of rural farmers and cultivators.
Issues addressed by BKU :

• Higher government floor prices for sugarcane and wheat.
• Guaranteed supply of electricity at reasonable rates.
• To wave off repayments due on loan to farmers.
• To provide government pension to farmers.
• Abolition of restrictions on the inter-state movement of farm produce.

Highlighted the plight of farmers :

• BKU conducted rallies, demonstrations, and Jail Bharo agitations.
• These protests involved thousands of farmers-sometimes over a lakh-from various villages in western UP and adjoining regions.
• BKU operated as a pressure group in politics with its strength of sheer members.

Extent of Success :

• BKU became the most successful social movements. ‘
• It sustained for a long time due to clan networks among its members.
• These networks mobilised funds, resources and activities of BKU.
• An outcome of political bargaining powers by its members.
• BKU farmers dominated regional electoral politics also.

Answer 27.
The leadership of Akali movement passed from the moderate Akalis to the extremist elements and took the form of armed insurgency. These militants made their headquarters inside the Sikh holy shrine, the Golden Temple in Amritsar, and turned it into an armed fortress. In June 1984, the Government of India carried out ‘Operation Blue Star’ code name for army action in the Golden Temple.

In this operation, the government could successful flush out the militants, but it also damaged the historic temple and deeply hurt the sentiments of the Sikhs. A large proportion of Sikhs in India and abroad saw the military operation as an attack on their faith and this gave further impetus to militant and extremist groups.

More tragic turn of events complicated the Punjab problem further. On 31 October 1984, the whole nation was in mourning when Indira Gandhi was assassinated by her bodyguards outside her residence. Both the assassins were Sikhs and wanted to take revenge for Operation Blue Star. While the entire country was shocked by this development, in Delhi
and in many parts of northern India violence broke out against the Sikh community. In this violence, hundreds of Sikhs were killed in other parts of the country. Many Sikh families lost their male members and thus suffered great emotional and heavy financial loss.

OR

In the first decade of electoral politics, India did not have a recognised opposition party. But some of vibrant and diverse opposition parties had come into being even before the first General Election of 1952 as the non-Congress parties. Hence, the roots of almost all the non-Congress parties of today can be traced to one or the other of the opposition parties of 1950s.

All these opposition parties gained only a representation, still their presence played a crucial role in maintaining democratic character of system. Hence due to following reasons two party system is required for successful democracy:

1. Within two party systems, the opposition party offers a sustained and principled criticism of policies and practices of ruling party keeping it under a strict check.
2. By keeping democratic political alternative alive, these parties prevented the resentment with the system from turning anti-democratic.

On the basis of above mentioned features it is justifiable to have a two party system which have following advantages:

1. India has arrived at more competitive politics.
2. Political parties act within the spheres of consensus.
3. New forms, vision, pathways of development have been identified.
4. Issues like poverty, displacement, minimum wages, livelihood and social security are being put on political agenda.
5. Issues of justice and democracy are being voiced by various classes, castes and regions to remind states its responsibility.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Physical Education is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should approximately 10-20 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should approximately 30-50 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should approximately 75-100 words.

Questions:

Question 1.
What do you mean by anxiety? 1

Question 2.
Define Disability and Disorder? 1

Question 3.
What do you mean by motor development? 1

Question 4.
What are postural deformities? 1

Question 5.
What do you mean by ageing? 1

Question 6.
Define energy. 1

Question 7.
Define Yoga? 1

Question 8.
Define Adduction and Abduction movement in sports? 1

Question 9.
Briefly state about menopause. 1

Question 10.
Define nutrition. 1

Question 11.
What do you understand by seeding? 1

Question 12.
Elaborate Yoga asana as a preventive measure of health? 3

Question 13.
Discuss the test items of Barrow General Motor Ability test. 3

Question 14.
Discuss any three physiological factors determining speed. 3

Question 15.
Discuss any three pitfalls of dieting. 3

Question 16.
Elaborate any three physiological benefits of exercise on children. 3

Question 17.
Sudha was a good boxer from her school days. She used to come to school from a remote village. Most of the aged persons of the village used to object her for taking part in boxing. They even said to her father not to allow her for sports but he wanted his daughter to be an international level boxer. He did not listen to them. He tried to give every facility to his daughter. Now after ten years of hard training she has been selected for world cup boxing Championship. She is sure to win laurels for her country. 3
On the basis of above passage answer the following questions:
(i) Do you agree with the views of most of the villagers? Answer in brief.
(ii) What values are shown by Sudha’s father regarding her sports participation?
(iii) What lesson do you learn from the above passage?

Question 18.
Discuss any three advantages of correct posture. 3

Question 19.
Distinguish between Intramural and Extramural programmes. 3

Question 20.
Explain the administration of AAPHER youth fitness test. 5

Question 21.
Elaborate the prevention of sports injuries. 5

Question 22.
Discuss the muscles involved in Throwing? 5

Question 23.
Define strength and discuss the methods of improving strength in detail. 5

Question 24.
Elucidate the psychological effects of regular exercise on individual. 5

Question 25.
Discuss any five effects of exercise on respiratory system. 5

Question 26.
Draw a fixture of 11 teams on knockout basis. 5

Answers.

Answer 1.
Anxiety is feeling of worry, nervousness or unease about something with an uncertain outcome.

Answer 2.
Disability is an injury that restricts the functions or movements of a person. It is a term associated with impairment causing restrictions to the functions and movement of a person.
Disorder is an illness that causes disruption to the functions of a person. It is any ailment that disturbs the health of a person.

Answer 3.
Motor development refers to the development of a child’s bone, muscles and ability to move around and manipulate his environment. Motor development means the development of movement and various motor abilities from birth till death.

Answer 4.
Postural deformities are the improper alignment of body parts. One who has postural deformities cannot perform his work efficiently. Some deformities are Kyphosis, Scoliosis, etc.

Answer 5.
Ageing is an inevitable and extremely complex, multi-factorial process. It is characterized by progressive degeneration of organ systems and tissues.

Answer 6.
Energy is the capacity to do work. However, there are various forms of energy but in the field of games and sports our main concern is about mechanical energy.

Answer 7.
Yoga is a science of balancing between mind, body and spirit. It is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Yuj’in spiritual terms mean the union of the individual consciousness with the universal consciousness.

Answer 8.
Adduction refers to a movement towards the midline or centre, it is a movement of a body part towards the median plane.
Abduction is a movement away from the midline or centre, it refers to any movement of the body part away from the median plane.

Answer 9.
Menopause is the time when a woman stops having menses. It occurs when menstruation ceases for a period of one year. Usually, it occurs in women in mid-life between 45 and 55 years of age.

Answer 10.
Menopause is the time when a woman stops having menses. It occurs when menstruation ceases for a period of one year. Usually, it occurs in women in mid-life between 45 and 55 years of age.

Answer 11.
Seeding, the players participate directly in quarter- final or semi-final. They need not to wait for longer duration.

Answer 12.
Yoga asana for prevention:
(i) Yoga as a rejuvenation activity:

• Provide Physical Relaxation
• Prevents Stress
• Facilitate emotional control

(ii) Yoga as a Supplementary activity:

• Improves muscle tone
• Facilitate Physical functioning

(iii) Yoga as a Compensatory activity:

• Prevent Muscular Disbalance
• Facilitate Rehabilitation

Answer 13.
Harold M Barrow developed a test of motor ability for college men and high school boys.

• Standing Broad Jump – to measure power, agility, speed and strength. It is done by taking a long jump with the feets together. Three trials are given. Final score is distance in inches from the best jump
• Zigzag Run – to measure agility and speed. Subject is advised to stand behind the starting line. Running is done in zigzag manner and three rounds are completed.
• Six Pound Medicine Ball Put – to measure strength of arms and shoulders including their coordination, speed and balance. Subject is advised to put the ball. Three trials are given.

Answer 14.
Factors determining speed.
(i) Mobility of the nervous system – Contraction and relaxation of muscles is controlled by nervous system. Frequency of contraction and relaxation is determined by excitability of nerve impulse.
(ii) Muscle composition – The percentage of white muscle and red muscle fibre is genetically determined and cannot be changed through training.
(iii) Explosive strength – It Depends on, muscle composition muscle size, muscle coordination and metabolic process.

Answer 15.
The Pitfalls of Dieting:
(i) Drinking Your Calories – when we try to lose weight, often the focus is on what you eat and not what you drink. Beverages can play a huge role depending on what you drink. Let’s take a standard Double coffee for example: If you get a medium double from Tim Horton, you will be consuming 210 calories each time. For coffee addicts, this can add up quick. Also consider other calorie ridden beverages such as pop, iced tea, juice, smoothies and flavoured ice drinks.

(ii) Not getting enough protein – I find this is more of an issue with my female clients, but protein is just as important as fibre for filling you up. Protein also helps you to feel more alert. Therefore, if you are eating a morning breakfast with very little protein, you may end up feeling sluggish and be more prone to snacking. You don’t need a lot of protein either: Try adding peanut butter to your toast in the morning or a few walnuts to your cereal or even a boiled egg at your snack. You’ll feel more satisfied and be able to go longer without eating.

(iii) Eating Too Few Calories –1 know it seems a tad backwards but your body has systems from fighting against starvation and some diets are so restrictive they do just that. When we under eat our body goes into ‘starvation mode’, causing our metabolism to drop and for our bodies, to hold on to more calories out of fear that food isn’t widely available. Also eating the same number of calories daily can have the same affect. That’s why it’s a good idea to have a reward meal once per week to prevent this. A reward meal should not turn into a reward week though.

Answer 16.

1. Exercise Controls Weight – Regular exercise helps in controlling weight. In fact weight gain occurs when child takes more calories than the requirement of his body. The unused or excess calories are accumulated as fats in his body. In this way, he starts gaining weight which ultimately leads him towards overweight and obesity. Nowadays a lot of children not only in India but throughout the world are getting obese which is the root cause of various physiological problems. Regular exercise helps such children in burning excess calories. The more intense the activity or exercise, the more calories they bum. Regular exercise takes the fat away and lowers the excess weight.
2. Exercise Strengthens Bones – Exercise builds strong bones. As a matter of fact, exercise increases bone density which helps in preventing osteoporosis. If regular exercise is not performed, the bones usually lose their density, becomes weak, fragile and porous.
3. Exercise Strengthens the Lungs – Exercise is beneficial for children because it enhances the lungs capacity and their efficiency in inhalation and exhalation. It increases the size of lungs. Tidal air capacity and vital air capacity are increased. Even unused alveolus becomes active. So, it can be said that lungs are strengthened and becomes capable to perform various activities for a longer duration.

Answer 17.

1. No, the villagers depict the orthodox beliefs of domesticating the women and not giving them opportunities for studying or winning name and fame for their country.
2. Sudha’s father is open minded and motivated her daughter to participate in sports. Open mindedness motivation.
3. Do fight for the right things. Work hard and believe in yourself.

Answer 18.
(i) Physical Appearance – It is a natural phenomenon that every individual wants to have a good physical appearance. It also becomes more important in the presence of opposite sex. For creating a good impression on the other people, good appearance is prerequisite.
(ii) Grace and efficiency of Movements – Physical posture plays a vital role in the field of sports and games .Sports and games involved various types of movements. Walking, running, jumping and throwing depend upon the abilities of movements .An athlete requires a variety of efficient movement’s .The apex marks can be achieved in the field of sports if movements of the sportsman are efficient and graceful.
(iii) Physical fitness – Physical fitness is essential to live a fruitful life .Physical fitness can be achieved, if you have good posture. The balance, coordination, flexibility etc. are the components of fitness

Answer 19.

Answer 20.
AAPHER Youth Fitness Test was formed in 1965 in United States. It was a test in which these items were included:

• Pull Ups For Boys – to measure arm and shoulder strength.
  Procedure – the bar adjusted according to the height of the subject is used for this test. The student is advised to raise his body so that the chin reaches the level of the bar. One score is awarded for each pull ups. One trial is given.
• Flexed Arm Stand For Girls – to measure arm and shoulder strength.
  Procedure – the adjusted bar is held with hand grasp. The student lifts her body with help of assistance of testing personnel so that her chin reaches bar level. The elapsed time is taken as score. The score is nearest second.
• Standing Long Jump – to measure power.
  Procedure – the student is advised to stand on restraining line with feet close and he/she dips at the knee and swinging arms before jumping. The student lands on both feet together. The distance from take offline to the heel is measured in inches. The best of three trials is recorded as final score.
• 50 Yard Dash – to measure speed.
  Procedure – the student is advised to run 50 yards and the time is recorded nearest to 10th of a second.
• 600 Yard Run Walk – to measure endurance.
  Procedure – the student is advised to run or walk 600 yards and the time is recorded in minutes and seconds.

Answer 21.

• Proper conditioning – It is well known fact that many injuries are caused by weak muscles which are not ready to meet the demand of your sports or games. So, getting proper muscular strength, proper conditioning of your body is essential.
  Weight training and circuit training methods are significant methods of proper conditioning. These methods of conditioning also improve the Neuro- muscular coordination which is also helpful in preventing sports injuries.
• Proper Warming – Before sports training or participation in sports competition, proper warm-up is essential. It definitely reduces the chances of getting injury because muscles remain in tone up position after getting proper warm-up.
• Nutritional Inadequacy – Balanced diet is also essential for the prevention of sports injuries because the lack of essential minerals and vitamins such as calcium, phosphorous and vitamin ‘D’ etc.
• Use of protective equipments and facilities – It is an easy and best way to prevent from sports injuries. These protective equipments protect the sportspersons from getting injured. The stress should be laid down on the quality of protective equipments.
• Unbiased officiating – If the officiating specially in team games is unbiased, the chances of getting injury will be rare. If the officials of the match are biased, there may be more chances of indiscipline among players which may further lead to injuries.

Answer 22.
Throwing comprises of two phases, the preparatory phase and the throwing phase.
Most actions are rotational in the transverse plane and longitudinal axis and the two joints primarily involved are the elbow and shoulder.
The elbow is a hinge joint formed by the humerus and ulna.
The shoulder is a ball and socket joint formed between the humerus and the scapula.

Answer 23.
Strength is the ability of the muscles to overcome resistance. It is an essential element or component of physical fitness.
Method of Improving Strength Development-Isometric, Isotonic, Isokinetic.

(i) Isometric Exercise – Theses exercises are not visible. In fact, there are no direct movements, hence they cannot be observed, in these exercises, work is performed but it is not seen directly. In these exercises, a group of muscles carry out tension against the other group of muscles. When these exercises are done, muscles do not change their length. They remain fixed or constant. Although, muscles do not remain constant or still completely. Muscles feel slight tremor if exercise is done for some time. The more we exert strength or force, the more tremors will be in the muscles. In a general term we can say that work is done during these exercises but scientifically, we cannot say that work is done. For example, if we push a concrete wall, we will be unable to move it from its place. So, we should not consider it as work. Our muscles exert force, whole pushing a wall, but we see that work is not done because work is said to be done when the point of application of a force moves. Work done = Force x distance moved in the direction of force.
When we do these exercises, expenditure of energy is a usual phenomenon. Sometimes temperature may increase while performing these exercises. When we do these exercises, expenditure of energy is a usual phenomenon. Sometimes, temperature may increase while performing these exercises. If we perform these exercises regularly, muscles will be changed in relation to size and shape. These exercises are used for the development of strength. The strength improved through isometric exercises is usually not of much value in sports. These exercises need less time and can be performed anywhere because no equipment is required to do these exercises. There are some positive points to do these exercises; hence these exercises can be used for strength development. These exercises are valuable for rehabilitation. These exercises should not be performed by children and untrained people.

(ii) Isotonic Exercise – These exercises are such in which movement can be seen directly. Work is done in these exercises. These exercises tone up the muscles. Muscles become flexible. Length of the muscles can be increased by isotonic exercises. These exercises are of much value in sports field. They are best for strength development. Calisthenics
exercises, running and jumping on the spot, weight training exercises, exercises with medicine ball are the best examples of isotonic exercises. These can be done with or without apparatus.

(iii) Iso-kinetic Exercise – These are performed on specially designed machines. These exercises were developed by Perrine in 1968. These exercises involve a specific type of muscle contraction, which is usually not applicable in sports and games. In isotonic exercises, contraction of muscle applies maximal forces only at a particular angle of ► its range of movement, whereas, in iso-kinetic exercises contraction of muscle applies maximal forces throughout the complete range of movement. According to the individual’s capacity the speed of contraction can be adjusted. The individual, who performs iso-kinetic exercises on machine, should keep in his mind that he has to apply his force throughout the range of movement. By fixing the number of repetition and by reducing or increasing the speed, the Isokinetic exercises can be used effectively for the development of strength. With the help of these exercises explosive strength and strength endurance can also be improved.

Answer 24.
Psychological effects of exercise:

• Improves mood – exercise is a great source of energy. It helps in changing mood. It
  stimulates various brain toxins which make us feel happy.
• Develops self-confidence – regular exercise increases strength which leads to better fitness
  and develops self confidence.
• Reduces depression – exercise act as antidepressant and recreational activities.
• Reduces anxiety and stress – regular exercise reduces muscle tension, frustration and
  anxiety. Exercise also reduces build up of stress hormones. .
• Increases relaxation – people who do not work out regularly often face insomnia. Meditation is also a great source of relaxation.
• Improves self-esteem – regular exercise improves body image, self-worth and self esteem.

Answer 25.
(i) Strong will – power. Regular exercises increase will- power of the individual. As pranayama, the specific exercise for lungs increases the will power of the doer.

(ii) Increase in tidal air capacity – Tidal air is the amount of air that flows in and out of the lungs in quiet respiratory movement. But tidal air capacity is the amount of air that can be breathed in and breathed out, over and above the tidal air by the deepest possible inspiration/expiration respectively. It is estimated at about 500-800 cc. after doing regular exercise, it has been noted that this tidal air capacity can be increased.

(iii) Decrease in Rate of Respiration – It is certain that when a beginner starts exercise, the rate of respiration increases. But when the same individual performs exercise daily, his rate of respiration decreases in comparison to the beginning stage at rest.

(iv) Strengthens Diaphragm and Muscles – Regular exercise strengthens the diaphragm and muscles of the chest.

(v) Avoids Second Wind – For a beginner, the stage of second wind is, indeed, a crucial stage. But for a regular exercise, it is hardly felt sometimes when experienced athlete does not feel it in his course of activity.

(vi) Unused Alveoles become active – Regular exercise activates the unused alveolus because much amount of 02 is required in vigorous and prolonged exercise of daily routine. The passive alveolus becomes active.

Answer 26.
Total number of teams =11
Upper half = n + 1/2 = 11 + 1/2 = 6
Lower half = n – 1/2 = 11 – 1/2 = 5
Power of two’s = 24 n. of teams = 16-11= 5
No. of Byes = 5
No. of Byes in Lower Half = nb + 1/2 = 5 + 1/2 = 3
No. of Byes in Upper Half = nb – 1/2 = 5 – 1/2 = 2

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 3

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Economics is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time : 3 hrs
M.M.: 80

General Instructions

• All questions in both the sections A and B are compulsory. However, there is internal choice in questions of 3,4 and 6 marks.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short answer type questions, carrying 1 mark each.
  They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short answer I type questions, carrying 3 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 60 words each.
• Question Nos. 7-9 and 19-21 are short answer II type questions, carrying 4 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 100 words each.
• Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit be adhered to as far as possible.

Section – A

Question 1.
Kamakshi’s brother Divij gave her ₹ 1,000 on the occassion of Rakshabandhan. She wants to buy a jeans which costs ₹ 900 and a pair of shoes which cost ₹ 600. However, with the . available amount, she cannot purchase both and has to choose amongst the two. Which problem is being faced by Kamakshi?

Question 2.
When there are diminishing returns to factor, total product first increases at increasing rate and then starts falling. The given statement is
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly True
(d) None of these

Question 3.
Draw fixed cost curve.

Question 4.
For a firm, Total Cost= Total Profit= ₹ 100. This is a situation of
(a) abnormal profit
(b) normal profit
(c) break-even point
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 5.
Vishnu consumes two commodities X and Y, whose prices are ₹ 16 and ₹ 24 per unit whether Vishnu is in equilibrium? If not, then tell what should he do to achieve equilibrium.
Or
Differentiate between individual demand curve and market demand curve.

Question 6.
Gulf countries have acquired more capital goods by selling oil to various countries. What would be its impact on Production Possibility Curve?

Question 7.
Explain monopoly and monopolistic competition.

Question 8.
Price of a commodity rises from ₹ 5 to ₹ 6. As a result, its demand falls from 100 units to 80 units. Find out Price Elasticity of Demand (E_d) by percentage method.
Or
If a fact is given that the slope of a straight line demand curve = \(\frac { \triangle }{ \triangle Q } \), how do you relate it to own price elasticity of demand, Also, find price elasticity of demand, if demand is perfectly elastic.

Question 9.
A firm’s fixed cost is ₹2,000. Compute Total Variable Cost (TVC), Average Variable Cost (AVC), Total Cost (TC) and Average Cost (AC) with the help of the following table.

Question 10.
Explain with the help of diagram, the effect of following changes on the demand for a commodity.
(i) A fall in the price of complementary goods
(ii) A rise in the price of substitute goods.

Question 11.
State the Law of Supply, the assumptions on which it is based and exceptions to the law of supply.

Question 12.
When both demand and supply fall simultaneously, what will be the effect on
Or
Explain the effect of decrease in supply when
(i) demand is perfectly elastic
(ii) demand is perfectly inelastic

Section – B

Question 13.
What do you mean by Escheat?

Question 14.
Interest received on loans is a capital receipt of the government. Do you agree?

Question 15.
In case of credit money
(a) Money value = Commodity value
(b) Money value > Commodity value
(c) Money value < Commodity value
(d) None of these

Question 16.
What type of losses a depositor has to bear if he withdraws his fixed deposit before the due date of maturity?

Question 17.
In an economy, investment increases by ₹ 100 crore. As a result, income increases by ₹ 250 crore. What is the value of multiplier? What does this imply?

Question 18.
Distinguish between voluntary unemployment and involuntary unemployment.
Or
Write any three points of difference between ex-ante investment and ex-post investment.

Question 19.
Find compensation of employees.

Question 20.
In a developing economy, Central Bank plays a prominent role. Comment.
Or
Briefly explain the components of money supply in India.

Question 21.
‘Mission Develop India’ is the plan of government to create basic infrastructure. It comprises of projects on irrigation, roads, housing, water supply and telecommunication connectivity. Above stated example is a government expenditure or government revenue. Elaborate it. Also, state the impact of this programme on rural growth.

Question 22.
Calculate Gross Domestic Product at Market Price ( ) by using
(i) Product Method
(ii) Income Method

Question 23.
What do you understand by Aggregate Demand (AD)? Also explain its components briefly.
Or
Given that National Income is ₹ 80 crore and Consumption Expenditure is ₹ 64 crore, find out Average Propensity to Save (APS). When income rises to ₹ 100 crore and Consumption Expenditure to 178 crore, what will be the Average Propensity to Consume (APC) and Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)?

Question 24.
How is exchange rate determined under flexible exchange rate system? Also enumerate the sources of demand and supply of foreign exchange. If demand for foreign exchange is continuously rising then which economic value stands affected?

Answers

Answer 1.
Kamakshi is facing problem of choice. This problem arises because wants are unlimited and resources are scarce and have alternative uses.

Answer 2.
(b) The given statement is false.

Answer 3.

Answer 4.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer 5.
A consumer strikes his equilibrium when, \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ X } } =\frac { M{ U }_{ Y } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \)
Now, as per the given information, \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ X } } =\frac { 6 }{ 16 } =\frac { 3 }{ 8 } \) and \(\frac { M{ U }_{ Y } }{ { P }_{ Y } } =\frac { 4 }{ 24 } =\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \)
∴ \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ X } } \neq \frac { M{ U }_{ Y } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \)
So, Vishnu is not in equilibrium
Now, \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ X } } >\frac { M{ U }_{ Y } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \left[ \because \frac { 3 }{ 8 } >\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \right] \)
Therefore, to attain equilibrium, Vishnu should start consuming more of Good X and less of Good Y so that
MU of good X declines and MU of Good Y increases till the point. Where \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ X } } =\frac { M{ U }_{ Y } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \)
Or
Difference between individual demand curve and market demand

Answer 6.
It is an example of growth of resources. Therefore, it results in rightward shift of Production Possibility Curve. It leads to higher level of output for the gulf countries.
It is depicted in the graph given below :

Answer 7.
Monopoly It refers to that form of market in which there is a single firm (or producer) producing a good/service, for which there are no close substitutes, e.g. Indian Railways, Reserve Bank of India, etc.
The main features of monopoly are stated below :

1. Single producer
2. No close substitutes
3. Barriers to entry
4. Independent price policy
5. Price discrimination is possible

Monopolistic Competition It is a market situation in which there are many sellers of a particular product but the product of each seller is differentiated from the other, e.g. soaps and toothpastes.
The main features of monopolistic competition are stated below :

1. Large number of buyers and sellers
2. Freedom of entry or exit
3. Product differentiation
4. Imperfect knowledge
5. Selling costs
6. High transportation costs

Answer 8.
Here, price and quantity for the commodity are as follows:

Given,
Initial Price (P)= ₹ 5 Change in Price(∆P) = ₹ 1(6-5)
Initial Quantity (Q) = 100 units Change in Quantity (∆Q) = 20 units (100 – 80)
We know that,
Elasticity of Demand \(\left( { E }_{ d } \right) =\left( – \right) \frac { \triangle Q }{ \triangle P } \times \frac { P }{ Q } \)
\(=\left( – \right) \frac { 21 }{ 1 } \times \frac { 5 }{ 100 } \)
∴ E_d = (-1)
Or
We know that, price elasticity of demand \(\left( { E }_{ d } \right) =-\frac { \triangle Q }{ \triangle P } \times \frac { P }{ Q } \)
It is given that, the slope of demand curve = \(\frac { \triangle P }{ \triangle Q } \)
We can write that, \({ E }_{ d }=\frac { 1 }{ Slope\quad of\quad Demand\quad Curve } \times \frac { P }{ Q } \)
Where, P = Initial Price, Q = Initial Quantity, ∆P = Change in Price ∆Q = Change in Quantity
So it follows that, price elasticity of demand is the reciprocal of the slope of the demand curve multiplied by the ratio of price to quantity.
If demand is perfectly elastic, slope of demand cunve = 0
By formula,
\({ E }_{ d }=\frac { 1 }{ Slope\quad of\quad Demand\quad Curve } \times \frac { P }{ Q } =\frac { 1 }{ 0 } \times \frac { P }{ Q } =\infty \)
∴ Price elasticity of demand is at infinity, if demand is perfectly elastic.

Answer 9.
Cost Schedule

Formulae used
TVC = ΣMC
AVC = TVC / units of output
TC = TFC + TVC
AC = TC / units of output

Answer 10.
(i) Complementary Goods It refers to those goods, which are used together for satisfaction of wants, e.g., car and petrol, pen and refill, needle and thread, tea and sugar, etc.
Effect of Fall in the Price of Complementary Goods The demand for a commodity increases with the fall in the price of complementary goods. If there is a fall in the prices of complementary goods, the demand curve shifts to the right which shows increase in demand at a given price of the commodity itself. The shifting of demand curve for a commodity to the right with fall in the price of complementary good is shown in the diagram given below :
Diagram Showing Increase in Demand for Complementary Goods

(ii) Substitute Goods These are those goods which can be substituted for each other, such as tea and coffee, ball pen and ink pen, etc.
Effect of Rise in the Price of Substitute Goods In case of such goods, increase in the price of one causes increase in the demand for the other, e.g. demand curve of tea shifts to right when price of the substitute commodity, i.e. coffee increases.
The shifting of demand curve for a commodity to the right with rise in the price of substitute good is shown in the diagram given below :

Answer 11.
Law of supply derives the relationship between price and quantity supplied. According to this law, quantity supplied of a commodity is directly related to the price of a commodity, provided all other determinants are constant. The quantity supplied increases with increase in price and vice-versa.
Assumptions of the Law of Supply
The various assumptions of the Law of Supply are given below :

1. There is no change in the price of the factors of production.
2. There is no change in the techniques of production.
3. There is no change in the goal of the firm.
4. There is no change in the price of related goods.

Exceptions to the Law of Supply
The following are the exceptions to the Law of Supply :

1. Agricultural Goods Law of Supply does not apply for agricultural goods, as their supply depends on climatic conditions and not on price.
2. Perishable Goods Perishable goods like fruits, vegetables, milk and milk products cannot be held for long. Therefore, suppliers are willing to supply these products, even when prices are less, for fear that they would become totally useless.
3. Antique Goods, Rare Articles and Paintings These goods are highly priced, but still their supply is limited, as supply here is affected by factors other than price, e.g., the supply of Hussain’s paintings cannot be increased even if buyers are willing to pay high price for it.
4. Future Expectations Regarding Prices If prices are rising, but sellers anticipate that they would rise further in future, then they would not increase their supply now.
5. Lack of Resources In underdeveloped or backward economies, supply cannot be increased due to lack of resources.
6. Labour Market In the labour market, it is observed that as the wage rate rises, the workers tend to work for less hours, so as to enjoy more leisure. This causes the supply of workers to decrease at increased wage rate.

Answer 12.
Equilibrium Price The price at which market demand equals market supply is termed as equilibrium price: When demand and supply both fall simultaneously, there are three possible conditions under this situation :
(i) No Change in Equilibrium Price If there is proportionately equal change in demand and supply, the equilibrium price will remain constant, as shown in the following figure :

(ii) Equilibrium Price can Fall If decrease in demand is greater than decrease in supply, then equilibrium price will fall, as shown in the following figure :

(iii) Equilibrium Price can Rise If decrease in demand is less than decrease in supply, then equilibrium price will increase, as shown in the following figure :

The effect of decrease in supply when
(i) Demand is Perfectly Elastic Decrease in supply of commodity does not cause any change in its price in case demand for the commodity is perfectly elastic. Only equilibrium quantity tends to change.

Demand is infinite at existing price. So, decrease in supply does not cause any change in price.
(ii) Demand is Perfectly Inelastic Decrease in supply of commodity causes rise in price and equilibrium quantity remains constant when demand for commodity is inelastic.

Demand is constant at every price. So, decrease in supply does not cause any change in price.

Section – B

Answer 13.
Escheat is the revenue which government makes out of the property that people leave without a legal heir.

Answer 14.
No, this is a revenue receipt of the government, as it neither increase liabilitie nor reduce assets.

Answer 15.
(b) Money value > Commodity value

Answer 16.
A depositor will loose interest and certain amount out of the principal money, if he withdraws his fixed . deposits before due date. It is a financial loss.

Answer 17.
Given, Increase in Investment (∆/) = ₹ 100 crore; Increase in Income (∆Y) = ₹ 250 crore
We know that, Investment Multiplier \(\left( K \right) =\frac { \triangle Y }{ \triangle l } \Rightarrow \frac { \triangle Y }{ \triangle l } =\frac { 250 }{ 100 } =2.5\)
This implies that for every unit increase in investment, income increases 2, 5 times.

Answer 18.
Difference between voluntary unemployment and involuntary unemployment are :

Or
Difference between ex-ante Investment and ex-post Investment are

Answer 19.
Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDP_FC)
NDPFC Compensation of Employees + Operating Surplus (Profit + Interest-)- Rent) + Mixed Income
∴ Compensation of Employees = NDP_FC – Operating Surplus – Mixed Income
= 4,000 – (500 + 400 + 600) – 1,500
= 4,000 – 3,000 = ₹ 1,000 crore
So, compensation of employees = ₹ 1,000 crore

Answer 20.
In a developing economy like India, the main objective of central banking is to promote economic growth.
The role of a Central Bank in a developing economy is discussed below :

1. Control and Regulation of Banking System The Central Bank is expected to perform its traditional functions of controlling and directing the banking structure of the country.
2. Promotional Functions Since the monetary and banking structure in a developing economy is backward, the Central Bank helps in the expansion and promotion of the banking structure.
3. Developmental Functions The main problem of developing economies is economic development. The Central Bank must, therefore, take all those steps which help in the advancement of economic growth.

Or
Money supply refers to the stock of money in circulation in an economy at a given point of time. Money supply includes currency in the form of paper money and coins held by individual and business firms and net demand deposits held by commercial banks.
According to M, money measure, money supply has following components:
M₁ = C + DD + OD
Here, C is the currency held by public, DD refers to demand deposit of people with commercial bank and OD includes demand deposits with RBI of other institutions and government.

Answer 21.
It is an example of government expenditure, the principle component of fiscal policy. Such expenditure of government on construction of roads, education, defence of the country are made by the government to correct the situation of excess demand or deficient demand in the economy.
When there is excess demand, government expenditure is reduced and when there is a deficient demand, government expenditure is increased.
It is a flagship programme by the government of India. This project is an investment in rural infrastructure which will unlock the growth potential of rural India.

Answer 22.
(i) By Product Method
Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDP_mp)
=Value of Output (Primary Sector +Secondary Sector + Tertiary Sector)
– Intermediate Consumption (Primary Sector + Secondary Sector + Tertiary Sector)
= (2,000 + 1,800 + 1,400) – (1,000 + 800 + 600) = 5200 – 2,400
GDP_MP = ₹ 2,800 crore

(ii) By Income Method
Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDP_FC)
= Compensation of Employees + Operating Surplus + Mixed Income
= 800 + 600 + 1,300 = ₹ 2,700 crores
GDP_MP = NDP_FC + Net Indirect Tax + Depreciation
= 2,700 + 20 + 80 = ₹ 2,800 crore

Answer 23.
Aggregate Demand (AD) refers to the sum total of expenditure that the people plan to incur on the purchase of goods and services produced in an economy (during the period of an accounting year) corresponding to their different levels of income.
Components of AD are: AD = C + I + G + (X-M)

1. Household Consumption Expenditure (C) This measures the demand for consumer goods .i.e. that expenditure which people wish to make on consumer goods corresponding to different levels of income in economy.
2. Producer Investment Expenditure (/) This measures the demand for producer goods which lead to capital formation i.e. that expenditure which people wish to make on producer goods corresponding to different levels of income in economy.
3. Government Expenditure (G) It refers to public consumption expenditure (such as purchase of foods and clothes for military personnel) and investment expenditure (such as construction of road) made by government.
4. Net Exports (X – M) Exports (X) increase aggregate demand in domestic economy, while imports (M) decrease it. Therefore, value of net exports (X – M) contributes to AD in domestic economy.

Or
Here in first condition, Y = ₹ 80 crore and C = ₹ 64crore
Hence, S = Y – C = 80 – 64 = ₹ 16crore
Now, Average Propensity to Save (APS)
\(APS=\frac { S }{ Y } =\frac { 16 }{ 80 } =0.20\)
Again, when income and consumption expenditure rise,
Y = ₹ 100 crore and C = ₹ 78 crore
So, Average Propensity to Consume (APC)
\(APS=\frac { C }{ Y } =\frac { 78 }{ 100 } =0.78\)
Here, ∆Y = 100 – 80 = ₹ 20 crore
∆C = 78 – 64 = ₹ 14 crore
So, Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)
\(MPC=\frac { \triangle C }{ \triangle Y } =\frac { 14 }{ 20 } =0.70\)
Where, ∆C = Change in Consumption, ∆Y = Change in Income
∆/ = Change in Investment, K = Multiplier
MPC = Marginal Propensity to Consume, APC = Average Propensity to Consume
APS = Average Propensity to Save

Answer 24.
Foreign exchange rate is determined by the demand and supply of foreign exchange.
The rate of foreign exchange is said to be in equilibrium, when the demand for some currency in terms of another currency equals its supply.

In the given figure, the line SS shows the supply of foreign currency which is positively related to the rate of exchange. The line DD shows the demand for foreign currency which is negatively related to the rate of exchange. The point £, at which demand is equal to supply, represents the equilibrium rate of exchange.
Sources of Demand for Foreign Exchange
Foreign exchange is demanded for the following purposes :

1. Purchase of foreign goods by domestic residents, i.e. imports.
2. Payments of international loans.
3. Gifts and grants to the rest of the world.
4. Investments in the rest of the world.
5. Tourism to abroad.

Sources of Supply of Foreign Exchange
Supply of foreign exchange depends on the following factors :

1. Purchases of domestic goods by the foreigners, i.e. exports.
2. Foreign Direct Investment as well as portfolio investment from rest of the world.
3. Speculative purchases of foreign exchange.
4. Tourism and remittances from abroad.
5. Transfer of foreign exchange by the residents of the country abroad. (IB)

If demand for foreign exchange is rising continuously then this leads to an unfavourable exchange rate. This affects the goodwill of the domestic currency in the international market.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education  Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education  Paper 3.

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of
Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Physical Education is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should approximately 10-20 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should approximately 30-50 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should approximately 75-100 words.

Questions.

Question 1.
Define yoga? 1

Question 2.
What do you mean by correct Posture? 1

Question 3.
What do you understand by Circuit Training? 1

Question 4.
Define flexibility and its type in sports? 1

Question 5.
What do you mean by Physical Activity? 1

Question 6.
What is contusion? 1

Question 7.
What do you mean by stroke volume? 1

Question 8.
Define Friction in sports? 1

Question 9.
Define Aerodynamics in sports? 1

Question 10.
Define Flexion and Extension? 1

Question 11.
What is knockout Tournament? 1

Question 12.
Describe the Disability Etiquettes required for inclusivity in physical education program? 3

Question 13.
Briefly discuss the deformities of spinal curvature? 3

Question 14.
Describe the Asanas helpful for health and wellness? 3

Question 15.
Elucidate the meaning and need of food supplements for children? 3

Question 16.
Differentiate between Disability and Disorder among children? 3

Question 17.
My uncle facing age-related health problems especially high blood sugar obesity and
hypertension etc. I consulted my physical education teacher regarding my uncle’s problems because once he had discussed this topic in my class. He told me that he will meet my uncle at home. He came and suggested my uncle to start regular exercise or walking for at least one hour. My uncle started regular walking. After few months his above mentioned problems reduced.
On basis of the above passage answer the following questions. 3
(i) What values are shown by the physical education teacher and the nephew?
(ii) What are the common age -related health problems?
(iii) Do physical activity help in maintaining functional fitness of aged population? State in brief.

Question 18.
What are the aims of sports medicine? Describe any two aims in brief. 3

Question 19.
Explain any three objectives of intramurals. 3

Question 20.
Draw fixture of 19 teams on knockout basis. 5

Question 21.
Define speed and discuss the types of speed in detail. 5

Question 22.
Mention the management of sprain in detail. 5

Question 23.
Define motivation? Elucidate any four techniques of motivation. 5

Question 24.
Enumerate any five effects of exercise on muscular system? 5

Question 25.
Discuss the muscles involved in running? 5

Question 26.
Describe the procedure for administering Rikli and Jones Sr. Citizen fitness Test. 5

Answers.

Answer 1.
Yoga is a science of balancing between mind, body and spirit. It is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Yuj’ in spiritual terms mean the union of the individual consciousness with the universal consciousness.

Answer 2.
“Correct posture is applied to right position of the body assumed while doing any action so that minimum energy is consumed in order to get maximum efficiency.

Answer 3.
Is a method of training that maximizes the volume of work done in a short period of time through the help of different training stations lined up in a planned order of workout. Circuit training is a great tool to use for people who are interested in weight loss, muscle gain and overall strength increases.

Answer 4.
Flexibility is the ability to execute movements with greater amplitude or range.
There are three types of flexibility in sports:

• Dynamic flexibility
• Static Active flexibility
• static passive flexibility

Answer 5.
Physical activity is defined as any bodily movement produced by skeletal muscles that requires energy expenditure. Level of physical activity can be between moderate to high, walking, jogging, participating in sports are examples of physical activity.

Answer 6.
Contusion – Direct impact with blunt object which causes bleeding deep with muscles due to damage in capillaries. It is in bluish color due to tom blood vessels. It is also commonly called as bruise.

Answer 7.
Stroke volume (SV) is the volume of blood pumped from the left ventricle per beat. Stroke volume is an important determinant of cardiac output, which is the product of stroke volume and heart rate. The stroke volume at rest remains up to 50-70 ml/beat in untrained individuals, 70-90 ml/beat in trained individual and 90-110 ml/beat in elite endurance athletes.

Answer 8.
The action of one surface or object rubbing against another. It is the resistance that one surface or object encounters when moving over another.

Answer 9.
Aerodynamics is the study of forces and the resulting motion of objects through the air. It is related to the flow of air around a projectile, which can influence the speed and direction of the object. Aerodynamics in sports study of how air resistance and drag affect sports objects and influence performance.

Answer 10.
Flexion refers to a movement that decreases the angle between two body parts. Flexion at the elbow is decreasing the angle between the ulna and the humerus. When the knee flexes, the ankle moves closer to the buttock, and the angle between the femur and tibia gets smaller.
Extension refers to a movement that increases the angle between two body parts. Extension at the elbow is increasing the angle between the ulna and the humerus. Extension of the knee straightens the lower limb.

Answer 11.
Knock- out Tournament – Most of the tournaments are organized on the basis of knock-out. In this type of tournament, a team which is once defeated, automatically gets eliminated from the tournament. Only the winning teams continue in the tournament. It means that second opportunity is not given to the defeated team.

Answer 12.

• Disability etiquette is a set of guidelines dealing specifically with how to approach people with disabilities. Always use person Disability in writing or addressing.
• Keep you tone low
• Communicate with them slowly and clearly.
• If necessary use communication add as communication book or communication device.
• Give them time to respond. It should be two way communication.
• Ask them before offering any help
• Never do physical or verbally bully to them or about them in your surrounding
• Never play with their equipment’s
• Make surrounding disable friendly and comfortable.
• Make rapport with them for example talk about their liking or disliking

Answer 13.
Deformity of spine is any abnormality of the formation, alignment, or shape of the vertebral column. Spine deformity can happen when unnatural curvature occurs, as in scoliosis (side-to-side curvature), lordosis or kyphosis There are three types of spinal deformities.

• Kyphosis
• Lordosis
• Scoliosis

1. Kyphosis – Kyphosis is an abnormal posterior curve, usually found in the thoracic region of the spine. As such, it is an exaggeration of the normal posterior curve (flexion).
2. Lordosis – Excessive or hyperlordosis is commonly referred to as swayback or saddle back, a term that originates from the similar condition that arises in some horses. A major factor of lordosis is anterior pelvic tilt, when the pelvis tips forward when resting on top of the femurs.
3. Scoliosis – Scoliosis is a lateral curvature or deviation (right or left) of the spine and associated with vertebral rotation. In scoliosis, the vertebral column seen from the front or back is no longer straight. It is Postural adaptation of the spine in lateral direction. A simple or single curve to the left or convexity left is commonly called a ‘c’ curve. Scoliosis curves may be found in ‘S’ shape.

Answer 14.
Asana are very effective for health and wellness

• Meditative Asana – Meditative asana posture are very effective for:
  (a) Energy balancing of the body
  (b) For performing pranayam
  (c) Remove dosha from the body
  (d) Providing concentration and attention
  Example: Padamasan, Vajrasan, Sukhasan
• Cultural Asana – are the asana posture resembling various objects and help in:
  (a) Improving flexiblility of the body
  (b) Develop muscular strength
  (c) Improves functioning of body systems
• Relaxative Asana – are the asana postures without any movement and with great stability, it helps in:
  (a) Relaxation of the body
  (b) Normalization of the respiratory and circulatory systems.

Answer 15.

• Develops immunity.
• Enhance growth and development.
• Add on to taste, which is greatly required if child lacks nutrition.
• Their excess dosage may lead to harm, esp a the fat soluble items.

Meaning and Need of Food Supplements for children.

• Meaning of food supplement. Food supplement means a nutrient that is added to your diet to nurish your body that you are not getting in your regular diet. Food supplements generally include vitamins, minerals, fiber, fatty acids or amino acids, among other substances. These supplements may be in the form of a tablet or powder which can be added to water or milk for consumption.
• Need of food supplements for children: No doubt that food supplements play a vital role is the proper growth and development of children. Though, it is not essential to consumer food supplements but it becomes necessary when there is a lack of proper nutritions diet. In fact, it can be said that food supplements are unnecessaiy if a child takes a balanced diet regularly. Moreover, there are various food supplements which have no practical effect. For example, food supplement omega-3 fatty acids has been shown to be without benefit for health by children.

Answer 16.

1. Any degree of physical disability, malformation or disfigurement that is caused by bodily injury, birth defect or illness, includes, epilepsy, a brain injury, any degree of paralysis, amputation, lack of physical coordination, blindness or visual impairment, deafness or hearing impairment, speech impairment
2. A condition of mental impairment or a developmental disability
3. A learning disability, or a dysfunction in one -or more of the processes involved in understanding or using symbols or spoken language
4. It is an impairment that may be cognitive, developmental, intellectual, mental, physical, sensory, or some combination of these. It substantially affects a person’s life activities and may be present from birth or occur during a person’s lifetime.
5. Disorder is the disturbance which affects the normal functions that is performed by an individual.
6. ADHD – Attention deficit hyper disorder
7. ASD – Autism spectrum disorder
8. SPD – Sensory processing disorder
9. ODD
10. Down syndrome(Syndrome)
11. Cerebral palsy
12. Learning disorder

Answer 17.
(i) Values:

• Importance toward exercise
• Motivation for healthy life style
• Concern for age-related issue
• Consulting an expert for professional support

(ii) Common age – related health problems

• Blood Pressure
• Obesity
• Hypertension

(iii)Physical activity is an effective medium toward health life style and wellbeing. Elderly people can benefit a lot with regular exercise and activity. Low intensity or moderate activities like walking, yoga, gardening are very effective for maintaining muscle tone, heart functioning, respiratory system and provided enough oxygen to various parts of the body for optimal physiological functioning of the body. Physical activity also help in providing social cohesion and opportunity to interact with people for social development and helps to maintain emotional health of elderly people.

Answer 18.
“Sports medicine is a branch of medical science that deals with treatment of injuries related to sports and games.
Aims and scope of sports Medicine:

• To provide the knowledge about the causes of injuries – it is well known fact that each injury has specific causes. Another aim of sports medicine is to provide the knowledge about the causes of injuries. There were no injuries or any kind of misconduct during the event may be various causes of injuries such as improper conditioning, faulty techniques, improper warming up, environment factors, improper fitness, etc.
• To provide means of treatment for sports injuries and for rehabilitation of injuries – Aim , of sports medicine is to provide means of treatment of sports injuries and for rehabilitation
  of injuries. After providing first aid to the injured sportsperson, the specialist of sports medicine must be informed of providing treatment to the injured athlete, various medical treatments such as hydrotherapy, electrotherapy, and infrared rays may be used.

Answer 19.
Objectives of Intramurals:

• To provide opportunity to every student to participate in games and sports- To provide ample opportunities to every student in games and sports is one of the major objectives of intramurals. Generally few students are able to participate in zonal level and district level games and sports .So, the mass participation of students from a school is impossible at such levels of competitions. But in intramurals each and every student can take part in games and sports.
• To develop the leadership qualities among students-Intramural activities are helpful in developing leadership qualities among the students who participate in these activities. Although all the students do not become the leaders yet intramural activities help in developing the leadership qualities among those students, who have some innate qualities of leadership.
• To develop the feeling of cooperation – It is really very difficult to get success alone in the field of sports and games. In fact, cooperation is essential to achieve an apex position in games and sports. Intramural activities help in developing the feeling of cooperation among students.

Answer 20.
Total number of teams =19
Upper half = n + 1/2 = 19+1/2 = 10
Lower half = « — 1/2 = 19-1/2 = 9
Power of two’s = 24n of teams =
32-19=13

No. of Byes =13
No. of Byes in Lower Half = nb + 1/2 13 + 1/2 = 7
No. of Byes in Upper Half = nb – 1/2 13 – 1/2  = 6

Answer 21.
Speed as the rate at which a person can propel his body or parts of his body”.
Speed is the ability to move from one place to another in the shortest possible time. It means that the velocity with which an individual can execute his movements. In other words, it means the capacity of moving a body part or the whole body with the greatest possible velocity. For example, the movement of a smasher’s arm in volleyball has the maximum speed or velocity at the time of smashing the volley ball.
Types of Speed:
Speed appears in different forms in different sports. The main forms in which speed appears are stated below:

• Reaction Ability – Reaction ability depends completely on coordinative processes. So, it is also considered a coordinative ability. Reaction ability is the ability to react effectively I and quickly to any action or signal. In games and sports signals can be of various types such as visual or tactile. In games and sports, reaction ability is not only significant to react quickly to a signal but the reaction should also be accurate according to situation. Reaction ability can be classified into simple reaction ability and complex reaction ability,
  (a) Simple Reaction Ability – It is the ability to react quickly in already determined manner to a known signal. For example, the reaction of a racer in the start of sprint races is already known to the racer.
  (b) Complex Reaction Ability – It is the ability to react quickly and accurately to undetermined or unexpected signals. These signals are unexpected for sportsperson because he does not know when and to which signal he has to react such as facing a ball in cricket by a batsman.
• Acceleration Ability – It is the ability to achieve maximum speed from a stationary position or from low speed state. Generally, sprinters achieve their maximum speed after approximately six seconds. This ability mainly depends upon explosive strength, technique and flexibility. This ability is important in all games and sports in which maximum speed f are to be achieved in quickly such as races, swimming (short distance), hockey, football and gymnastics etc.
• Movement Speed – It is the ability to do a movement in minimum time. It depends upon technique, explosive strength, flexibility and coordinative abilities. It plays a vital role in boxing, wrestling, throws, jumps, gymnastics, and turns in swimming and in sprinting starts. It can be measured by the time taken to complete the movement.
• Locomotor Ability – It is the ability to maintain maximum speed for maximum time or distance. This ability is very significant in only a few sports events such as 100m, 200m, 400m races, short sprints in track cycling, speed skating, swimming, hockey and footballetc.
• Speed Endurance – Speed endurance is the ability to perform movements with high speed under conditions of fatigue. Speed endurance is a very complicate ability which depends upon explosive strength, speed and endurance. It also depends upon technique, local muscular endurance and lactic tolerance ability.

Answer 22.
Sprain-Sprain: It is a ligament injury. It may occur due to overstretching or tearing of ligament. Generally, sprain occurs at wrist joint and ankle joint Sometimes, fracture is also possible
along with the sprain. In such injury, swelling, inflammation, severe pain and tenderness are common symptoms. There can be laxity in the ligament. All the above mentioned symptoms depend on the severity of sprain.
Prevention:

1. A thorough warm-up is necessary for preventing sprain, specially all the joints should be exercised well during warm-up.
2. Proper conditioning should be done during the preparatory phase. 3. All the sports equipments must be of good quality.
3. Playfields/Courts should be smooth and clean.
4. Good officiating is essential for preventing such injury.

Answer 23.
Motivation is the internal process that activate, guide and Maintain behaviour. It is one of the main determinant of an individual’s behavior. The term ‘motivation ‘is derived from the word ‘Motive’. Motive is a combination of thought, feeling or condition that causes one to act. Human behavior is controlled, directed and modified through certain motives. Motivation is one main psychological factor which affects the performance. It means to be inspired to do something. Technique of Motivation

• Goal Setting: It is one of the most important techniques of motivation. If you do not see a goal, you cannot achieve apex positions in your life. So, the sportspersons should be encouraged to set a few ambitious but achievable long term goals according to their capabilities and capacities the coaches or physical education teachers should not too rigid while setting a goal for a sportsperson.
• Elaborate arrangement of competitions: It plays a very significant role in motivation. Sportspersons perform better in competitions if there are elaborate arrangements of competitions.
• Presence of Opposite Sex: Opposite sex plays a vital role in motivation. This is an innate tendency of human beings. Even girls as well as boys try to be smart, active in the presence of opposite sex.
• Spectators: If there is a huge number of a spectator, it will have a positive effect on the players. But its effectiveness depends upon the experience and maturity of athletes. An inexperienced athlete is usually overpowered by fear.

Answer 24.
Muscular system:

1. Change in shape and size of muscle.
2. Formation of more capillaries
3. Muscle remains in tone position
4. Controls extra fat
5. Change in the connective tissue (becomes Powerful)
6. Efficiency in the movement of muscles.
7. Delays Fatigue.
8. Increases food storage.
9. Exercise makes figure beautiful.

Answer 25.
Muscular Analysis of Sprinting:

1. The leg action in running is one that takes place in a sagittal plane about a frontal axis and involves the hip, knee and ankle joints.
2. The bones of the hip involved are the femur and pelvic girdle which form a ball and socket joint.
3. The bones of the knee involved are the femur and tibia which form a hinge joint.
4. The bones of the ankle involved are the tibia and calcaneus which form a modified joint.

Each of these joints produces two actions, one when the leg is in contact with the ground (driving phase) and one when the leg is not in contact with the ground (recovery phase).

Answer 26.
Rikli And Jones Senior Citizens Fitness Test was developed by Dr. Roberta and Dr. Jessie Jones of Fullerton University. It includes:

• Chair Stand Test – to measure leg strength and endurance
  Procedure – the Subject is advised to sit on the chair with arms crossed around the wrists and hands are kept close to the chest. After this, the subject stands completely and then reaches again the same sitting position. This activity is repeated for 30 seconds.
• Arm Curl Test – to measure upper body strength
  Procedure – the subject sits on the chair keeping the back straight and holds weight in strong hand. The subject performs arm curls in 30seconds.
• Back Scratch Test – to measure range of motion of shoulder
  Procedure – the subject is advised to stand initially. After this, one hand is placed behind the head and other arm is bent behind the back. Test administrator helps in guiding the subject about the alignment of the fingertips. If the tip of both index finger touches, then the score is awarded zero. In case it is no, touching the gap is measured and this is awarded as negative score. While overlapping distance is given as positive score. Reading is taken twice and the best score is awarded.
• Eight Foot Up and Go Test – to measure speed, agility and balance while moving Procedure – a cone is placed 8 feet away from the chair which is placed away from wall. On the command “go” the subject starts before sitting on chair. The subject is advised to walk briskly and turn around the cone and again sits on the chair. The time is measured for this whole activity. The two trials are conducted. The best trial is counted for scoring.
• Six Minute Walk Test – to measure aerobic fitness
  Procedure – the walking course is marked in a 50 yard (45.72 meters) rectangular area dimensions 45 x 5 yards.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 3 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 3 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 3.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 3

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 3 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions nos. 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 20 words
3. Questions nos. 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words
4. Questions nos. 11 to 16 are of 4 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 100 words
5. Questions nos. 17 to 21 are of 5 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 150 words
6. Questions no. 21 is map based question
7. Questions nos. 22 to 27 are of 6 marks each. The answer to these questions should not i exceed 150 words

Question 1.
When did Socialist Revolution take place in Russia?

Question 2.
Which two languages were spoken in Bombay state before it was divided in 1960?

Question 3.
What is Development?

Question 4.
Mention the names of member states of SAARC.

Question 5.
Name the members of Security Council who have used veto power for the maximum and minimum number of times respectively.

Question 6.
Mention some points of agreement between India and Nepal.

Question 7.
Which interests were hidden behind the conflicts between Hindus and Muslims at the time of independence?

Question 8.
Who founded the Congress Party and why?

Question 9.
What is the meaning and importance of Economic Planning in Indian context?

Question 10.
In which context India started participating in the world affairs as an independent nation j state?

Question 11.
Access any four principles of India’s foreign policy.

Question 12.
What does the term ‘syndicate’ mean in the context of the Congress party of the sixties? What role did the Syndicate play in the Congress party?

Question 13.
How can we see re-emergence of Indira Gandhi to power in 1971?

Question 14.
Is terrorism a traditional or non-traditional threat to security?

Question 15.
What is meant by Global Commons? How are they exploited and polluted?

Question 16.
Mention negative impact of globalisation.

Question 17.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
Pakistan and Bangladesh have experienced both civilian and military rulers, with Bangladesh remaining democracy in the Post-Cold War period. Pakistan began the Post-Cold War period with successive democratic governments under Benazir Bhutto and Nawaz Sharif respectively. But it suffered a military coup in 1999 and has been run by a military regime since then. Till 2006 Nepal was a constitutional monarchy with the danger of the king taking over executive powers. In 2006, a successful uprising led to restoration of democracy and reduced the king to a nominal position. From the experience of Bangladesh and Nepal, we can say that democracy is becoming an accepted norm in the entire region of South Asia.
(i) How did Pakistan begin with Post-Cold War period?
(ii) Mention two reasons for the aspiration of democracy in South Asia.
(iii) Why are these findings significant?

Question 18.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Thus, with the elections of 1989, a long phase of coalition politics began in India. Since then, there have been nine governments at the Centre, all of which have either been coalition governments or minority governments supported by other parties, which did not join the government. In this new phase, any government could be formed only with the participation or support of many regional parties. This applied to the National Front in 1989, the United Front in 1996 and 1997, the NDA in 1997. BJP-led coalition in 1998, NDA in 1999 and the UPA in 2004.What is meant by coalition politics?
(ii) Name any two regional political parties which were a part of coalition government.
(iii) Write the full form of NDA.
(iv) What does a minority government mean?

Question 19.
Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) What does the cartoon comment?
(ii) What is referred under the title ‘Yesterday’?
(iii) What message does the title ‘Today’ convey?

Question 20.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
Countries have conflicts and differences with each other. That does not necessarily mean they must go to war to deal with their antagonisms. They can, instead, discuss contentious issues and find peaceful solutions; indeed, even though this is rarely noticed, most conflicts and differences are resolved without going to war. The role of an international organisation can be important in this context. An international organisation is not a super-state with authority over its members. It is created by and responds to states. It comes into being when states agree to its creation. Once created, it can help member states resolve their problems peacefully.
(i) Is this necessary to engage into wars during conflicts among countries?
(ii) Is an international organisation a super state?
(iii) What is the significance of international organisation?

Question 21.
On a political outline map of the world, locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

(i) Five permanent members of UN Security Council and symbolise them as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
(ii) Locate and label peace keeping operations.

Question 22.
“The accommodation of regional demands and the formation of linguistic states were also seen as more democratic.” Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments.
OR
Did the prevalence of a ‘one-party dominant system’ affect adversely the democratic nature of Indian politics?

Question 23.
What was the major thrust of the First Five Year Plan? In which ways did the Second Plan differ from the first one? 6
OR
What was Shock Therapy? Was this the best way to make a transition from communism to capitalism?

Question 24.
“Resistance is the only option available to overcome the hegemony.” Justify the statement by comparing it to other anti-hegemony strategies. 6
OR
What makes the European Union a highly influential regional organisation?

Question 25.
Do movements and protests in a country strengthen democracy? Justify your answer with examples. 6
OR
Describe the secessionist movement of Mizos. How as per the provisions of the Constitution, was it resolved on accommodation of diversities?

Question 26.
Many people think that a two-party system is required for successful democracy. Drawing from India’s experience of last twenty years, write an essay on what advantages the present party system in India has.

Question 27.
Analyse any six consequences of the partition of India in 1947.
OR
How can the US hegemony be checked?

Answers

Answer 1.
1917.

Answer 2.
Gujarati and Marathi.

Answer 3.
Development refers to the process of improving living standard of country/people and economic level in reference to industrialisation and modernisation to be judged by the improvements in the quality of life.

Answer 4.
India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Pakistan and Maldives.

Answer 5.
Maximum – 122 times by Russia
Minimum – 4 times by China

Answer 6.
India and Nepal enjoy the following agreements :

1. Allow their citizens to travel and work without visas and passport.
2. India is the largest aid giver to Nepal to provide financial and technical assistance in areas of trade, scientific cooperation, common natural resources and electricity generation.

Answer 7.
Hindu and Muslim communities bear some political interests at the time of independence:

1. Muslim League demanded a separate nation for Muslims to protect the interests of Muslims only.
2. There were some Hindu organisations also which made efforts to look after the interests of Hindus only to make India a ‘Hindu Nation’.

Answer 8.
Congress was founded by Dr. A.O. Hume in 1885 as a view to express the feelings of discontentment changed to a political party in the form of social and ideological coalition i by accommodating different social groups and individuals holding different beliefs and ideologies. Even in pre-independence days, many organisation and parties with their own Constitutions and organisational structures were allowed to exist within the Congress.

Answer 9.
Economic Planning in India refers to a systematic regulation of economic activities by government to reduce the wastage of time and resources:

• Economic planning helps to achieve national goals in a continuous process of development.
• It is a rational process to associate with the future needs and goals to evaluate alternate proposals also.

Answer 10.

• British government left the legacy of many international disputes.,
• Priority to the poverty alleviation.
• Pressures created by the partition.

Answer 11.
India’s foreign policy is based on principles of Panchsheel, which is derived from two words ‘Panch’ means Five and ‘Sheel’ means a ‘Code of Conduct’ for peaceful co-existence.
Principles :

• Panchsheel
• Non-alignment (NAM)
• Mutual benefits and equality
• Mutual non-aggression
• Non-intervention in each others international affairs
• To maintain international peace and understanding

Answer 12.
Syndicate was a group of powerful and influential leaders from within the Congress :

1. Syndicate was led by K. Kamaraj, former Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu and the then president of Congress party. It also includes some powerful leaders like S.K. Patil, S. Nijalingappa, N. Sanjeeva Reddy and Atulya Ghosh.
2. In the sixties, Syndicate played a decisive role by installing both Lai Bahadur Shastri and Indira Gandhi as a Prime Minister.
3. Syndicate played decisive say in Indira Gandhi’s first Council of Ministers and formation and implementation of policies.
4. After a split, two groups in Congress were created i.e. Congress (O), led by Syndicate and Congress (R), led by Indira Gandhi.
5. Congress (R) won popularity after 1971 and Syndicate lost power and prestige.

Answer 13.
Congress (R) under Indira Gandhi had an issue, an agenda and a positive slogan which was lacked by its opponents. The ‘Grand Alliance’ had only one common programme ‘Indira Hatao’

1. In contrast to this, Indira Gandhi put forward a positive slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’.
2. By this, she generated a support base among poor, minorities, landless labourers, dalit, women and unemployed youth.
3. Except it, she focused on the growth of public sector, imposition of ceiling on rural land holdings and urban property, removal of disparity etc.
4. Thus, the slogan of Garibi Hatao and programmes became the part of Indira Gandhi’s political strategy of building an independent nationwide political support base during the electoral contest of 1971.

Answer 14.
Terrorism is a non-traditional threat to wound the peace and order in the country:

• Terrorism refers to political violence to target civilians deliberately and indiscriminately.
• Civilians are usually terrorised to be it as a weapon against national government and other parties in the conflict.
• Terrorism involves hijacking planes or planting bombs in trains, cafes, markets and other crowded places.
• After a terrorist attack on World Trade Centre on 11 September 2001, the other governments and public also are paying more attention to terrorism.

Answer 15.
The areas or regions located outside the jurisdiction of any one state and region, common governance by international community are Global Commons i.e. Earth atmosphere, Antarctic Ocean floor and outer space. They are exploited and polluted due to

• Vague scientific evidences, their lack of consensus on common environmental issues.
• North-South inequalities and their exploitative activities and competition lack proper management area out space.
• Technological and Industrial development have also affected the earth’s atmosphere and ocean floor.

Answer 16.

• Globalisation has not generated much more employment opportunities because it needs highly skilled people only.
• The foreign companies focus on their profit orientation projects only in place of social welfare.
• It has widened income disparities by making the rich richer and the poor more poorer.
• Gradually, globalisation is also a reason for depletion of flora and fauna in country.
• Even farmers are supposed to be well educated if they want to use modern methods of cultivation.

Answer 17.

1. Pakistan began with Post-Cold War period with successive democratic government under Benazir Bhutto and Nawaz Sharif.
2. Ordinary citizens rich or poor or belonging to different religions or institutions view democracy more suitable and support them.
3. Because it was earlier believed that democracy could flourish and find support only in prosperous countries of the world.

Answer 18.

• Coalition politics does not have majority even to a single party but parties may enter into an alliance or get support of other parties to form government.
• NDA and United Front
• National Democratic Alliance
• Minority governments are supported by other parties which did not join the government.

Answer 19.

• Cartoon comments on the changing scenario due to globalisation.
• It refers to earlier conditions of developing countries who were starving due to less growth in their economy.
• Globalisation opened doors for new entrants from developing nations and resulted into brain drain.

Answer 20.

• No, instead countries can discuss contentious issues to find peaceful solutions.
• No, it is created by and responds to states and comes into being when study agrees to its creation.
• To help member states to resolve problems peacefully without going to war.

Answer 21.

1. • France
   • Russia
   • The UK
   • The US
   • China
2. • Cyprus 1964
   • Lebanon 1978
   • Israel 1974
   • Sudan 2005
   • East Timor 2006

Answer 22.

1. The States Reorganisation Commission was set up in 1953 by the Central Government to redraw the boundaries of the states.
2. The Commission accepted that the boundaries of the state should reflect the boundaries of different languages. On the basis of this, the States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956. This led to creation of 14 states and 6 union territories.
3. In the early phase, it was felt that linguistic states may foster separation and create pressures on newly founded nation. But India considered democracy and federalism by making a favour to linguistic states only. It was hoped that if people accept the regional and linguistic claims of all regions, the threat of division and separatism would be reduced. When linguistic states were formed, they –
   • enhanced democratic practices.
   • reduced separatist attitude by accepting the religional linguistic claims of all religions.
   • provided a uniform base to the nation and strengthened unity of nation.
   • promoted the principle of unity in diversity, a distinct feature of nation.

Therefore, the accommodation of regional demands and the formation of linguistic states were also seen as more democratic.

OR

No, the prevalence of one party dominance system did not affect adversely the democratic nature of Indian politics because:

1. The key role of the Congress in the freedom struggle gave it a head start over others.
2. The Congress accommodated diversified interests, religion, beliefs and aspirations to strengthen democracy.
3. Despite being taken place of free and fair elections, Congress won elections in the same manner again and again.
4. The Congress Party consisted of various factions inside itself, based on ideological considerations who never taught together or went out of Congress.
5. Hence, on the basis of above mentioned criterion, it can be concluded that Congress

Answer 23.
The First Five Year Plan was commenced in 1951 to be drafted by young economist K.N. Roy with the emphasis on poverty alleviation. Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India presented this to the Parliament of India. Its main thrusts were as follows:

1. To invest in dams and irrigation to improve agricultural sector with the urgent attention.
2. Huge allocations were made for large scale projects like Bhakra-Nangal dam.
3. It focused on land reforms for the development in rural areas.
4. It aimed to increase level of national income. The First Five Year plan differed from the Second Five Year plan:
   • The Second Five Year Plan stressed on heavy industrialisation.
   • It wanted to bring quick structural transformation in all possible directions in place of slow and steady growth like First Five Year Plan.

OR

Shock Therapy was a painful process of transition from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system. This transformation system was influenced by the world bank and the IMF in Russia, Central Asia and East Europe. Though it varies in intensity and speed amongst the former second world countries but its direction and features were quite siihilar.
This was not the best way to make a transition from communism to capitalism due to following drawbacks:

1. Russia, the large state controlled industrial complex lost about 90 per cent of its industries through sales to private individuals and companies.
2. It created “the largest garage sale in history” which led virtual disappearance of entire industries for the restructuring was carried out by market forces in place of government owned policies.
   Hence, industries were undervalued and sold at throwaway prices.
3. It systematically destroyed old system of social welfare.
4. The value of‘ruble’, the Russian currency, declined dramatically due to high rate of inflation and real GDP of Russia also declined between 1989 to 1999.
5. The withdrawal of government subsidies pushed large sections of society into poverty and it emerged mafia to start controlling many economic activities.
6. Privatisation led to new disparities which divided Russia between rich and poor people creating economic inequality.
7. Hence, Shock Therapy brought ruin to economies and disaster upon the people of entire region.

Answer 24.
Bandwagon Strategy :

1. The best way to resist hegemony is to work with other than against the hegemony. So, instead of engaging in activities opposed to hegemonic power, it may be to extract benefits by operating within the hegemonic system. .
2. Another strategy named ‘Hide’ implies staying away from the dominant power as far as possible. All the big powers like China, Russia, the European Union are seeking to stay below the radar but this cannot go on for a long time.
3. Some people believe that resistance to the US hegemony is the only solution but not from states who are unable to face the hegemony.
4. Therefore, challenges to the US hegemony will emerge in the economic and cultural realms and will come from a contribution of Non-Governmental organizations social movements and public opinion.
5. Resistance may be from the section of media and intellectuals, artists and writers.

OR

As a supernational organisation, the European Union bears economic, political diplomacy and military influence as a regional organisation in the following manner:

1. Economic Influence :
   • Three times larger share in world trade than the US.
   • Its currency Euro, can pose a threat to the dominance of the US dollar.
   • The EU functions as an important bloc in the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
2. Political and Diplomatic Influences :
   • The EU also includes various non-permanent members of the UNSC.
   • The European Union plays an influential role in diplomacy and negotiations except the military force i.e. the EU’s dialogue with China on human rights and environmental degradation is remarkable.
3. Military Influence :
   • The EU’s combined armed forces are second largest in the world.
   • Its total expenditure on military is second to the US.
   • The EU is world’s second most important source of space and communications technology.

Answer 25.
Yes, to some extent movements and protests in country strengthen democracy to have mixed reactions both for and against:
Arguments for :

1. Anti-arrack movement, Chipko movement, NBA etc., rectified some problems to be seen as integral part of democratic politics.
2. These movements ensured participation and representation from diverse groups to reduce possibility of deep social conflicts in democracy.
3. These movements broadened the idea of participation in Indian democracy i.e., Anti¬arrack movement and Dalit Panthers.

Arguments against :

1. Collective actions, rallies, strikes, disrupt the functioning of a democracy and create a delay in decision making.
2. Routine functioning of democracy did not have enough space for the voices of these social groups.
3. It is possible to ignore demand of these movements with the presentation to be represented by one section of society only.
4. Political parties do not seem to be taking up issues of marginal social groups.
5. The relationship between popular movements and political parties has grown weaker over the years creating a vacuum in politics.

Hence, we may conclude that movements are not only about collective assertions or rallies or protest, but they also involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problems, demand and expectations.

OR

1. After Independence, the Mizo hills was made an autonomous district within Assam.
2. Some Mizos believed that they were never a part of British India and not to belong to Indian Union.
3. The movement of seccession gained popular support after Assam government failed to respond adequately to great famine of 1959 in Mizo hills.
4. It led to formation of Mizo National Front (MNF) under leadership of Laldenga.
5. In 1966, the MNF started an armed campaign for independence.
6. The MNF fought gurilla war, got support from Pakistan government and secured shelter in then East Pakistan.
7. At the end of two decades of insurgency, Mizoram under leadership of Laldenga started negotiations with Indian government.
8. 1986, a peace agreement was signed between Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga which granted statehood to Mizoram with special powers and MNF agreed to give up seccessionist struggle.
9. Today, Mizoram is one of the most peaceful places in the region alongwith big strides in literacy and development.

Answer 26.
In the first decade of electoral politics, India did not have a recognised opposition party. But some of vibrant and diverse opposition parties had come into being even before the first General Election of 1952 as the non-Congress parties. Hence, the roots of almost all the non-Congress parties of today can be traced to one or the other of the opposition parties of 1950s.
All these opposition parties gained only a representation, still their presence played a crucial role in maintaining democratic character of system. Hence due to following reasons two party system is required for successful democracy:

1. Within two party systems, the opposition party offers a sustained and principled criticism of policies and practices of ruling party keeping it under a strict check.
2. By keeping democratic political alternative alive, these parties prevented the resentment with the system from turning anti-democratic.

On the basis of above mentioned features it is justifiable to have a two party system which have following advantages:

1. India has arrived at more competitive politics.
2. Political parties act within the spheres of consensus.
3. New forms, vision, pathways of development have been identified.
4. Issues like poverty, displacement, minimum wages, livelihood and social security are being put on political agenda.
5. Issues of justice and democracy are being voiced by various classes, castes and regions to remind states its responsibility.

Answer 27.
Consequences of the partition of India :

1. The year 1947 was the year of one of the largest, most abrupt, unplanned and tragic transfer of population that Indian history was known. In the name of religion, people of a community killed and maimed people of the other community. Cities like Lahore, Calcutta (Kolkata) and Amritsar were titled as communal zones.
2. Muslims would avoid going into areas where mainly Hindus and Sikhs lived. Similarly, the Hindus and Sikhs stayed away from Muslim areas.
3. People went through immense sufferings because they were forced to abandon their homes and move across borders. Minorities on both sides of the border fled their homes and often secured temporary shelter in ‘refugee camps’. They often found helpless local police and administration helpless in what was till recently their own country. They travelled to the other side of the new border by all sorts of means, often by foot. Even during this journey they were often attacked, killed or raped. Thousands of women were abducted on both sides of the border. They were made to convert to the religion of the abductor and were forced into marriage. In many cases, women were killed by their own family members to preserve the ‘family honour’. Many children were separated from their parents.
4. Those who did manage to cross the border found that they had no home. For lakhs of these ‘refugees’ the country’s freedom meant life in refugee camps, for a long time.
5. While recounting the trauma of partition, they have often used the phrase that the survivors themselves used to describe partition—as a division of hearts.
6. The partition was not merely a division of properties, liabilities and assets, or a political division of the country and the administrative apparatus. The employees of the government and the railways were also divided. Partition forced about 80 lakh people to migrate across the new border. About 5 to 10 lakhs people were killed in partition-related violence. However, beyond the administrative concerns and financial strains, the partition posed another deeper issue. The leaders of the Indian national struggle did not accept the two-nation theory. And yet, partition on religious had taken place.

OR

1. The US hegemony has been symbolised as the global village and other countries as its neighbours.
2. If the headman of global village becomes intolerable, neighbours do not have any choice of leaving it, but develop a resistant.
3. Though there are some rules and norms called laws of war that restrict but do not prohibit war.
4. No single power can challenge the US militarily.

Still, to overcome the US hegemony, the following strategies have been found out:

1. Bandwagon strategy emphasises not to oppose hegemonic power, instead take advantage of opportunities that hegemon creates i.e. increased trade and technology transfer and investments to extract benefits by operating within hegemonic system.
2. To hide strategy implies to stay as far removed from the dominant power as possible as China, Russia and the European Union. This strategy is applicable to small states but states may not be able to hide for substantial length of time.
3. Non-state actors as writers, artists and intellectuals have no boundaries to work with. They can reach beyond the limits of the states to mould the minds of people through their expressions.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 7 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 7

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions nos. 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 20 words
3. Questions nos. 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words
4. Questions nos. 11 to 16 are of 4 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 100 words
5. Questions nos. 17 to 21 are of 5 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 150 words
6. Questions no. 21 is map based question
7. Questions nos. 22 to 27 are of 6 marks each. The answer to these questions should not i exceed 150 words

Question 1.
“Non-alignment does not imply neutrality or equidistant.” What does this statement mean?

Question 2.
When did China get independence?

Question 3.
Who took the command over Pakistan after its first constitution was framed?

Question 4.
What was Bombay Plan?

Question 5.
What is foreign policy?

Question 6.
Mention any two advantages of having international organisation in the world?

Question 7.
What is military threat?

Question 8.
Which interests were hidden behind the conflicts between Hindus and Muslims at the time of independence?

Question 9.
“India’s experiment with universal adult franchise appeared very bold and risky.” Justify the statement.

Question 10.
What is ‘Mixed Economy’?

Question 11.
What is Amnesty International? State its main functions.

Question 12.
What is Human Rights Watch? Describe its main contribution to the field of Human Rights?

Question 13.
What was the significance of linguistic reorganisation of Indian states to the nation building?

Question 14.
Did the prevalence of a ‘one-party dominant system’ affect adversely the democratic nature of Indian politics?

Question 15.
What were the reasons which led to the mid-term elections in 1980?

Question 16.
Would you consider the anti-arrack movement as a women’s movement? Why?

Question 17.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions:
Each of these countries was required make a total shift to a capitalist economy, which meant rooting out completely any structures evolved during this period. Above all, it me^nt that private ownership was to be the dominant pattern of ownership of property. Privatization of state assets and corporate ownership patterns were to be immediately brought in. Collective farms were to be replaced by private farming and capitalism in agriculture. This transition rules out any alternate or ‘third way’.
(i) Name any two countries which were required to make a total shift.
(ii) Why were the collective farms to be replaced by private farming?
(iii) Since the third way had been ruled out, what were the only two ways controlling the economy?

Question 18.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
Pakistan and Bangladesh have experienced both civilian and military rulers, with Bangladesh remaining democracy in the Post-Cold War period. Pakistan began the Post-Cold War period with successive democratic governments under Benazir Bhutto and Nawaz Sharif respectively. But it suffered a military coup in 1999 and has been run by a military regime since then. Till 2006 Nepal was a constitutional monarchy with the danger of the king taking over executive powers. In 2006, a successful uprising led to restoration of democracy and reduced the king to a nominal position. From the experience of Bangladesh and Nepal, we can say that democracy is becoming an accepted norm in the entire region of South Asia.
(i) How did Pakistan begin with Post-Cold War period?
(ii) Mention two reasons for the aspiration of democracy in South Asia.
(iii) Why these findings are significant?

Question 19.
Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Who is addressing the people in the Cartoon?
(ii) What does the people symbolise in it?
(iii) On which plan the Cartoon is highlighting?

Question 20.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
The US and Soviet Union signed a number of other arms control treaties including the Strategic Arms Limitations Treaty II (SALT II) and the Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START). The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 was an arms control treaty in the sense that it regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons, those countries that had tested and manufactured nuclear weapons before 1967 were allowed to keep their weapons; and those that had not done so were to give up the right to acquire them. The NPT did not abolish nuclear weapons; rather, it limited the number of countries that could have them.
(i) What is arms control treaty?
(ii) Was NPT an arms control treaty? Why?
(iii) What was the intention behind regulation of NPT?

Question 21.
On an outline map of India, five states are marked as A, B, C, D and E where National Democratic alliance (NDA) came to power after the Lok Sabha elections 2004. Identify the states and write their names.

Question 22.
The 1977 elections for the first time saw the opposition coming into power at the centre. What would you consider as the reasons for this development?
OR
Do movements and protests in a country strengthen democracy? Justify your answer with examples.

Question 23.
What led to the emergence of bipolar world? What were the arenas of Cold War between the two power blocs?
OR
What set of conflicts had occurred in Soviet Republics? Explain.

Question 24.
How did the Soviet Union suddenly disintegrate? Explain any six reasons. (A.I. 2016)
OR
Explain the importance and role of concept common but differentiated pertaining to environment. (Delhi 2013)

Question 25.
Throw light on the Swatantra Party and its policies.
OR
What was the major thrust of the First Five Year Plan? In which ways did the Second Plan differ from the first one?

Question 26.
Why did India declare the policy of Non-alignment? Describe the principles and policy of Non-alignment.
OR
How do the critics view the process of globalisation?

Question 27.
How did the coalition like character of the Congress Party give it an unusual strength?
OR
Explain any two merits and two demerits each of the Green Revolution.

Answers

Answer 1.
Neutrality refers to a policy of staying out of war and not to help end a war. Non-aligned countries including India worked to prevent wars and rivalries between others.

Answer 2.
1949

Answer 3.
General Ayub Khan.

Answer 4.
Bombay Plan was drafted in 1944 in the want of states to take major initiatives in industrial and other economic investment through a joint proposal of a section of the big industrialist for setting up a Planned Economy.

Answer 5.
Foreign policy of a nation reflects systematic statements of national interests along with the interplay of domestic and external factors.

Answer 6.

• To help countries in the matters of conflicts and differences.
• To make the countries cooperate and create better living conditions for humanity.

Answer 7.
Military threat refers to military action from another country to endanger the core values of country’s sovereignty, independence, and territorial integrity. Military action often targets the men and women i.e. ordinary citizens.

Answer 8.
Hindu and Muslim communities bear some political interests at the time of independence:

• Muslim League demanded a separate nation for Muslims to protect the interests of Muslims only.
• There were some Hindu organisations also which made efforts to look after the interests of Hindus only to make India a ‘Hindu Nation’.

Answer 9.
Because :

• Country’s vast size and electorates made these elections unusual.
• The year 1952, it was a big test for poor and illiterate country.
• Till then, democracy had been existed only in the prosperous countries mainly in Europe and North America where everyone was almost literate.

Answer 10.
Mixed economy is an economy to co-exist private and public sector both:

• Both the sectors work within invisible lands of market forces and visible lands of planning set by government.
• ‘State own’ means of production to aim social welfare and ‘private own’ means of production to be regulated by states.

Answer 11.
It is an NGO that campaigns for the protection of Human Rights.
Functions :

• It prepares and publishes reports on human rights.
• It mainly focuses on the misconduct of the government authorities.
• It works for the protection of the human rights.

Answer 12.
Human Rights refer to an international NGO involved in research and advocating on human rights. It is the largest international organisation in the USA.

• It draws the global media’s attention to human rights abuses.
• It helped in building international coalitions to ban landmines.
• It made efforts to stop the use of child soldiers, and to establish the international criminal court.
• It advocates freedoms in connection with fundamental rights of human beings, such as freedom of religion and freedom of the press.
• It opposes violations of what it considers basic human rights, which include capital punishment and discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation.

Answer 13.
In the early phase, it was felt that linguistic states may foster separatism and create pressures on newly founded nation. But India considered democracy and federalism by making a favour to linguistic states:

• Linguistic states enhanced democratic practices.
• Linguistic states reduced separatist attitude by accepting the regional linguistic claims of all regions.
• Linguistic reorganisation provided a uniform base to the nation and strengthened unity of nation.
• Linguistic states promoted the principle of unity in diversity, a distinct feature of nation.

Answer 14.
No, the prevalence of one party dominance system did not affect adversely the democratic nature of Indian politics because:

• The key role of the Congress in the freedom struggle gave it a head start over others.
• The Congress accommodated diversified interests, religion, beliefs and aspirations to strengthen democracy.
• Despite being taken place of free and fair elections, Congress won elections in the same manner again and again.
• The Congress Party consisted of various factions inside itself, based on ideological considerations who never taught together or went out of Congress.
• Hence, on the basis of above mentioned criterion, it can be concluded that Congress strengthened ideals of democracy and held unity and integrity of the country.

Answer 15.

• Janata Party lacked direction, leadership and a common programme.
• Janata Party government could not bring a fundamental change in policies pursued by Congress.
• There was a split in Janata Party and the government led by Morarji Desai which lost its majority in less than 18 months.
• Ch. Charan Singh government was formed due to support of Congress party which later decided to withdraw its support resulting resignation of Charan’Singh government within four months.
• All the above mentioned reasons led mid-term elections of 1980, which defeated Janata Party and again Congress led by Indira Gandhi came back to power by winning 353 seats.

Answer 16.
Yes, we would consider the Anti-arrack movement as a part of women’s movement to provide a platform for women to discuss private issues of domestic violence:

• This movement focused on issues of sexual violence against women either within family or outside.
• Women joined the campaign against dowry and demanded personal and property laws based on gender equality.
• These campaigns contributed a great deal in increasing social awareness as well as shifted from legal reforms to open social confrontations.
• Consequently, movement demanded equal representation to women in politics during the nineties. Hence, 73rd and 74th amendments granted reservations to women in local level political offices.

Thus, it can be concluded to be a part of women’s movement.

Answer 17.

• Russia and Kazakhstan.
• Private ownership was to be the dominant factor of ownership property. Collective farms were replaced by private farming and capitalism agriculture.
• Capitalist economy and Shock Therapy.

Answer 18.

1. Pakistan began with Post-Cold War period with successive democratic government under Benazir Bhutto and Nawaz Sharif.
2. Ordinary citizens rich or poor or belonging to different religions or institutions view democracy more suitable and support them.
3. Because it was earlier believed that democracy could flourish and find support only in prosperous countries of the world.

Answer 19.

• Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru is addressing the people in the Cartoon.
• The people sitting in the Cartoon are starved people who symbolise the poverty of India.
• The Cartoon is highlighting the Third Five Year Plan. The main aim of this plan was to make balance between agriculture and industry for achieving take off position.

Answer 20.

• To regulate the acquisition or development of weapons among countries,
• Yes, because it regulated the acquisition of nuclear weapons to protect world from large seat destruction.
• It did not abolish nuclear weapons rather it limited the number of countries that could have them.

Answer 21.
A — Himachal Pradesh,
B — Arunachal Pradesh,
C — Punjab,
D — Chhattisgarh and
E — Rajasthan

Answer 22.
The 1977 elections were evolved as a shock to everyone as Congress Party was defeated for the very first time and opposition party came into power:

• The opposition adopted the slogan ‘Save democracy’ against imposition of Emergency earlier.
• The opposition campaigned non-democratic character of rule which provided various excesses.
• The opposition party highlighted the preventive detention and press censorship to favour public opinion.
• Janata Party also ensured not to divide non-Congress votes.
• Middle section of north India was moving away from Congress for whom Janata Party became a platform.
• Hence, elections of 1977 emerged many other factors instead about Emergency only.

OR

Yes, to some extent movements and protests in country strengthen democracy to have mixed reactions both for and against:
Arguments for :

1. Anti-arrack movement, Chipko movement, NBA etc., rectified some problems to be seen as integral part of democratic politics.
2. These movements ensured participation and representation from diverse groups to
   reduce possibility of deep social conflicts in democracy. ‘
3. These movements broadened the idea of participation in Indian democracy i.e., Anti¬arrack movement and Dalit Panthers.

Arguments against :

1. Collective actions, rallies, strikes, disrupt the functioning of a democracy and create a delay in decision making.
2. Routine functioning of democracy did not have enough space for the voices of these social groups.
3. It is possible to ignore demand of these movements with the presentation to be represented by one section of society only.
4. Political parties do not seem to be taking up issues of marginal social groups.
5. The relationship between popular movements and political parties has grown weaker over the years creating a vacuum in politics.

Hence, we may conclude that movements are not only about collective assertions or rallies or protest, but they also involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problems, demand and expectations.

Answer 23.
Emergence of bipolar world :

• Two superpowers expanded their own spheres of influence in different parts of the world.
• It divided the world into two alliances namely Western and Eastern alliance headed by the US and Soviet Union respectively.
• The smaller states in alliances got the promise of protection of weapons and economic aid against their local rivals, hence they remained tied to its protective superpowers to limit influence of other superpower and its allies.

Arenas of Cold War :

• Crisis and war occurred between alliance systems but did not cross certain limits.
• Many lives were lost in Korea, Vietnam and Afghanistan, but world was spared from nuclear war and global hostilities.
• The Cold War led to several shooting wars but it did not lead to another World War despite direct confrontations in Korea (1950-53), Berlin (1958-62) and the Congo (the early 1960s).

OR

1. In Russia :

• Chechnya and Dagestan had violent secessionist movements.
• Moscow’s method to deal with Chechen rebels and indiscriminate military bombings led to many human rights violation but for deter aspirations for independence.

2. In Central Asia:

• Tajikistan witnessed a civil war that went on for ten years till 2001.
• In Azerbaijan’s provinces of Nagorno-Karobakh, some local Armenians want to secede and join Armenia.
• In Georgia, the demand for independence came from two provinces resulting in a civil war.
• There are still movements against the existing regimes in Ukraine, Kyrgyzstan and Georgia. .
• Even countries and provinces are fighting over river water.

3. In Eastern Europe :

• Czechoslovakia split peacefully into two with the Czechs and Slovaks, forming independent countries.
• The severe conflict took place in the Balkan republics of Yugoslavia.
• After 1991, Yugoslavia broke apart with several provinces like Croatia, Slovania, Bosnia and Herzegovina declaring independence.
• Ethnic Serbs opposed this and a massacre of non-Serbs Bosanians followed.
• The NATO intervention and the bombing of Yugoslavia followed inter-ethnic Civil war.

Answer 24.
Inspite of all perfection, the Soviet system was full of loopholes.

1. The system was bureaucratic and over-centralised making life difficult for people.
2. It stifled the initiative of people due to lack of democracy and absence of freedom of speech and expression.
3. Nearly all the Soviet institutions needed reforms but the strict one party control by the communist party made all the institutions unaccountable to the people.
4. The Communist Party even refused to give freedom so people of 15 different republics of Soviet Union to retain and manage their own affairs including cultural affairs.
5. Though Russian Federation was only one of the 15 Soviet republics, it dominated the helm of affairs, neglecting people from other regions and making them feel oppressed.

Soviet system becatne so weak and Soviet economy stagnant due to the following reasons:

1. The Soviet economy used much of its resources in maintaining nuclear and military arsenals.
2. Soviet economy concentrated on the development of its satellite states in Eastern Europe especially in the five central Asian republics.
3. This led to a huge economic burden on people to be coped up with.
4. Ordinary citizens became more knowledgeable about the economic advancement of the West and backwardness of Soviet system.

OR

Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies to Save Planet Earth by the states but the states from North and South have different notions towards environmental issues:

1. The Northern States (Developed) are concerned with Ozone depletion and global warming whereas Southern States (Developing) want to address the relationship between economic development and environmental management.
2. The developed countries of the North want to discuss the environmental issues which stands equally responsible for ecological conservation.
3. The developing countries of the South feel that much of the ecological degradation in the world is created by developed countries through their industrial projects.
4. And if developed countries cause more environmental degradation they are supposed to take more responsibility on wards.
5. The developing countries are under process of industrialization .and they should be exempted from restrictions imposed on developed countries through various conventions like Kyoto Protocol etc.
6. The special needs of developing countries must be taken into considerations in the process of development, application and interpretation of rules of International Environmental Law.

All the above mentioned provisions were accepted in Earth Summit, 1992 while adopting common but differentiated responsibilities.

Answer 25.
The Swatantra Party was formed in August 1959 after the Nagpur resolution of the Congress which called for land ceiling, takeover of food grain trade by the state and adoption of cooperative farming. The party was led by old Congress leaders like C. Rajagopalachari, K.M. Munshi, N.G. Ranga and Minoo Masani. The party stood out from the other in terms of its position on economic issues.

The Swatantra Party wanted the government to be less and less involved in controlling the economy. It believed that prosperity could come only through individual freedom. It was critical of the development strategy of state intervention in the economy, centralised planning, nationalisation and the public sector. It instead favoured expansion of a free private sector.

The Swatantra Party was against land ceilings in agriculture, and opposed cooperative farming and state trading. It was also opposed to the progressive tax regime and demanded dismantling of the licensing regime. It was critical of the policy of non-alignment and maintaining friendly relations with the Soviet Union and advocated closer ties with the US.

The Swatantra Party gained strength in different parts of the country by way of merger with numerous regional parties and interests. It attracted the landlords and princes who wanted to protect their land and status that was being threatened by the land reforms legislation. The industrialists and business class who were against nationalisation and the licensing policies also supported the party. Its narrow social base and the lack of dedicated cadre of party members did not allow it to build a strong organisational network.

OR

The First Five Year Plan was commenced in 1951 to be drafted by young economist K.N. il Roy with the emphasis on poverty alleviation. Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India presented this to the Parliament of India. Its main thrusts were as follows:

• To invest in dams and irrigation to improve agricultural sector with the urgent j attention.
• Huge allocations were made for large scale projects like Bhakra-Nangal dam.
• It focused on land reforms for the development in rural areas.
• It aimed to increase level of national income.

The First Five Year plan differed from the Second Five Year plan:

• The Second Five Year Plan stressed on heavy industrialisation.
• It wanted to bring quick structural transformation in all possible directions in place of slow and steady growth like First live Year Plan.

Answer 26.
India decided not to align itself to any of the military alliances. It declared its foreign policy as a policy of Non-alignment.
Non-aligned Movement (NAM) was formed in 1961. The founding members were Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (India), Marshal Tito (Yugoslavia), Nasser (Egypt), Nkrumah (Ghana) and Sukarno (Indonesia).

The principles of NAM were formulated. Non-alignment does not mean that India will remain neutral and not take any position on major world problems. It simply means that India will not join any of the military alliances.

The Indian national movement was part of the worldwide struggle against colonialism and imperialism. It influenced the liberation movements of many Asian and African countries. Prior to India’s Independence, there were contacts between the nationalist leaders of India and those of other colonies, united as they were in their common struggle against colonialism and imperialism. The creation of the Indian National Army (INA) by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose during the Second World War was the clearest manifestation of the linkages established between India and overseas Indians during the freedom struggle. The foreign policy of a nation reflects the interplay of domestic and external factors. Therefore, the noble ideals that inspired India’s struggle for freedom influenced the making of its foreign policy. But India’s attainment of independence coincided with the beginning of the Cold War era.

OR

Globalisation has invited some strong criticisms also despite its positive impacts. Its critical arguments can be categorized as:

1. Economic
2. Political
3. Cultural

1. Economic :

• Reduction in subsidies on mass consumption goods to make foreign creditors powerful.
• It has grown disparity between the rich and the poor nations by making the rich more richer and the poor more poorer.
• Even states have also created the same disparities between developed and developing nations.

2. Political :

• Welfare functions of the state has been reduced.
• Sovereignty of states has been affected.
• States have become weak to take their own decisions.

3. Cultural :

• People lose their age old values and traditions.
• The world begins to look more like the dominant power over less powerful society.
• It leads to shrinking of rich cultural heritage of the entire globe.

Answer 27.

1. By the time of independence, the Congress was transferred into social coalition broadly representing India’s diversity in terms of classes and castes, religions and languages and various interests. Many of these groups merged than identify within the Congress,
2. The Congress Party became a social and ideological coalition for it merged different social groups along with their identity holding different beliefs:
3. The Congress was already a very well-organised party and by the time the other parties could even think of a strategy, the Congress had already began its campaign. In fact, many parties were formed only around independence or after that. Hence, the Congress had the first off the blocks advantage.
4. In pre-independence days, many organisations and parties with their own constitutions and organisational structures were allowed to exist within the Congress.
5. The Congress evolved as a pressure group in the beginning, but with the Civil Disobedience Movement, it launched to widened its social based and thus, it became a social coalition.
   • The party provided enough space to all sections of people like peasants and industrialists, urban dwellers and villagers, owners and workers, upper, middle and lower classes.
   • It also defined the area of leadership beyond the upper caste and upper class professionals to agriculture-based leaders with a rural orientation.
6. Congress became a platform for numerous groups, interacts and even political parties to take part in the national movement.

OR

Green Revolution was introduced in 1966 to bring about revolutionary changes in agriculture especially in foodgrains like wheat and rice to increase production through high yielding varieties of seeds, fertilisers and scientific irrigation—

1. The government offered high yielding varieties of seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and better irrigation facilities at subsidised prices to farmers.
2. The government fixed the prices also to purchase the produce of farmers at a given price.

Positive consequences or merits of the Green Revolution:

1. In many parts, the stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords produced conditions favourable for left wing organisations to organise the poor peasants.
2. Also the government offered various irrigational facilities at a subsidised prices, and high-yielding varieties of seeds.
3. It resulted in the rise the ‘Middle peasant sections’ who were farmers with medium size holdings. They benefitted from the changes and soon emerged politically influential in many parts of country.

Negative consequences or demerits of the Green Revolution:

1. This created a stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords.
2. It delivered only a moderate agricultural growth i.e. a rise in rice and wheat production by raising availability of foodgrains in country.
3. It increased polarisation between the classes and regions like Northern States i.e. Punjab, Haryana, West-UP become agriculturally rich but others remained backward.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 7 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 7

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 7 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Physical Education is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should approximately 10-20 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should approximately 30-50 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should approximately 75-100 words.

Questions.

Question 1.
What do you mean by planning in sports? 1

Question 2.
Define Food supplement. 1

Question 3.
Define Disability. 1

Question 4.
What is meant by OCD? 1

Question 5.
Define Tadasana. 1

Question 6.
Define Posture. 1

Question 7.
What do you understand by eating disorder? 1

Question 8.
How will you measure Muscular Strength? 1

Question 9.
Define Sports Medicine. 1

Question 10.
Define Strength. 1

Question 11.
What is friction? 3

Question 12.
Describe three disadvantages of League Tournament. 1

Question 13.
How will you define Food intolerance? 3

Question 14.
Explain the procedure and benefits of Bhujangasana. 3

Question 15.
My uncle, facing age-related health problems specially High Blood Sugar, Obesity and Hypertension etc. I consulted my physical education teacher regarding my uncle‘s health problem because once he had discussed this topic in class. He told me that he will meet my uncle at home. He came and suggested my uncle to start regular exercise or walking for at least one hour. My uncle started regular walking. After few months his above mentioned problems reduced. On the basis of the above passage, answer the following questions. 3
(i) Which two values are shown by the physical education teacher and the nephew?
(ii) What are the common age-related health problems?
(iii) Do physical activity help in maintaining functional fitness of aged population? State in brief.

Question 16.
Explain Harvard step test. 3

Question 17.
Explain three long term effects of exercise on circulatory system. 3

Question 18.
Write about the management of strain. 3

Question 19.
Explain the method of Speed development? 3

Question 20.
What is Bye? Draw a fixture of 21 teams on knock-out basis. 5

Question 21.
Elaborate the requirement of food intake for, during and after competition. 5

Question 22.
Explain postural deformities and their corrective measures in detail. 5

Question 23.
Explain arm curl test for upper body strength. 5

Question 24.
Explain gender differences in physical and physiological parameters. 5

Question 25.
Explain motivation and its types in details. 5

Question 26.
What is sports training? Explain the method of strength development. 5

Answers.

Answer 1.
According to Mitchell, “Planning is usually interpreted as a process to develop a strategy to achieve desired objectives, to solve problems and to facilitate action”.

Answer 2.
Food supplement is the concentrated sources of nutrients taken as dietary top-up like vitamins, minerals and herbs.

Answer 3.
Disability is an injury that restricts the functions or movements of a person.

Answer 4.
OCD is Obsessive – Compulsive Disorder. It is a common, chronic and long lasting disorder in which a person has uncontrollable, reoccurring thoughts which are characterized as obsessions.

Answer 5.
Tada = Palm tree. Tadasana is the beginning and ending asana of Surya Namaskar.

Answer 6.
The arrangement of body and its limbs is known as posture.

Answer 7.
Eating disorder is defined by abnormal eating habits that negatively affect a person’s physical or mental health.

Answer 8.
Greatest amount of force that muscles can produce in a single maximal effort.

Answer 9.
Sports medicines concerns all those medical problems that may affect athlete, professional
and amateur.

Answer 10.
Ability to exert power.

Answer 11.
Force acting along two surfaces in contact which opposes the motion of one body over the other.

Answer 12.
Disadvantages:
(i) It requires more time.
(ii) It costs more.
(iii) It requires more arrangement for sport officials and teams.
(iv) Most of the teams become psychologically down due to their defeat again and again.

Answer 13.
When individual elements of certain foods that cannot be properly processed and absorbed by our digestive system it is called as food intolerance. Its causes can be the absence of activity of breaking enzymes, diet related and due to illness. Its symptoms are nausea, stomach pain, diarrhoea, vomiting and headache.
Management of food intolerance:

• Seek expert medical help.
• There are many therapies-fructose intolerance therapy, histamine intolerance therapy, lactose intolerance therapy.

Answer 14.
Procedure – Lie down keeping the legs together, Put palms beside shoulders, head resting on the floor,Inhale, raise head up to the navel region and try to see the roof, 10 -60sec- maintain this position, inhale and exhale steadily,Return to original position slowly with deep exhalation, i 3-5 min.
Benefits – Develops flexibility of spine and leads to curing backache, Reduces stress, giving good massage to adrenal gland, Expands chest for normal breathing.

Answer 15.
(i) Care and concern
(ii) Obesity, backache, stress
(iii) Yes, yoga and regular exercise helps in keeping a person physically and mentally fit, refreshing the mind.

Answer 16.
Harvard step test was developed by Brouha and his associates in 1943. Purpose of this test is to measure cardiovascular fitness.
Equipment required:

1. Bench which is 20 inches/50.8 cm high.
2. Stopwatch
3. Metronome.

Procedure – The athlete is instructed to step up and down on the platform at a rate of 30 steps per minute for 5 minutes or until exhaustion occurs. The exhaustion is defined as when the athlete cannot maintain the stepping rate for 15 seconds and this can be administered by metronome. After the completion of stepping, the athlete is advised to step down. After this heart rate is measured between 1 to 1.5 minutes after finishing. The heart rate is the number of times the heart beats per minute.

Answer 17.
Long term effects of exercise on circulatory system:

• Stroke volume increases at rest – It is the volume of blood ejected per beat from left ventricle, it is increased to 90-110 ml/beat in elite endurance athletes via regular exercise.
• Blood flow increases – Supply of oxygen during exercise increases, so body increases its capillaries, as a result distribution of blood becomes more efficient.
• Decreases the blood pressure – Systolic and diastolic blood pressure decreases by 10 mm Hg at rest.

Answer 18.
Strain can be prevented by warming up and conditioning. Taping, knee caps, crape bandage can be helpful in preventing strain. The injured part should be elevated in the most comfortable position. The affected part should not be disturbed. An ice pack should be applied to affect joint or muscle to minimize the swelling. The ice must be applied for 20 minutes 6-10 times in first 24 hours. Next day heat and massage is given to absorb the clot

Answer 19.
Methods of speed development are:

• Acceleration runs – Adopted to develop speed, especially in attaining maximum speed from stationary position, runs are repeated again and again with sufficient intervals, sprinters usually achieve their maximum speed in 6 seconds after stationary position.
• Pace runs or races – Running the whole distance of race at a constant speed, athlete runs the race with uniform speed, in longer races such as 800m or above races he must conserve his energy by reducing his speed.
• Development of reaction time – Reaction time is the time taken to respond to a stimulus.

Answer 20.
Bye is a practice of allowing a player or team to advance to the next round without playing first round of the tournament.

Answer 21.
Food is a mixture of various substances which are essential for life whereas nutrition is a dynamic process in which body is made healthy by consumption of food. Sports nutrition is known as study and practice of nutrition and diet as it relates to sports performance. Good and adequate nutrition helps athletes to train hard, recover quickly and adapt more effectively with less risk of illness and injury. If an athlete lacks any constituents of diet it affects his or her performance. On the other hand, if he/she takes more than required calories, it shall hamper the performance and increase the body weight. Thus diet plays a crucial role in performance.

1. Fluid intake:
   • Before the competition – Drink at least 500 ml of water before 2 hours of the match.
   • During the competition – 180-240 ml of water should be consumed for matches lasting for less than an hour. For matches lasting more than one hour, consume 150-300 ml of water or carbohydrates after every 20 min.
   • After the competition – Take sodium after the competition.
2. Meal intake:
   • Before the competition – 80%-90% carbohydrates.
   • During the competition – Light food, low fat, low protein.
   • After the competition – Carbohydrate intake within 15 min to restore glycogen.

Answer 22.
In knock-knees both the knees knock or touch each other in normal standing position. The gap between ankles goes on increasing. The corrective measures for knock-knees are side steps-ups: done on weight bench and lying abduction.

Flat foot is found in newly bom babies. Children feel pain in the feet and cannot be efficient sports persons. It becomes a postural deformity if it still persists in the lateral childhood. The corrective measures for flat foot are heel stretch and using proper shoes.

Round shoulders is a postural deformity where shoulders become round and sometimes they seem to be bent forward. The corrective measures for round shoulders are standing chest stretch and supine chest stretch.

Lordosis is a deformity of increased forward curve in the lumber region. The corrective measures for Lordosis are hip flexor stretch and lower back stretch.

In bow-legs, there is a wide gap between the knees when standing with feet together. The Corrective measures for bow-legs are leg strengthening exercises and pilates (lying down on back and lifting both legs up off the ground and quickly move legs up and down).

Kyphosis is an increase of backward or posterior curve or a decrease or reversal of a forward curve. The corrective measures for Kyphosis are maintain good posture and do stretching while sitting on chair.

Answer 23.
Rikli and Jones test was developed by Dr. Roberta and Dr. Jessie Jones of Fullerton University. It is done to measure fitness level of senior citizens. It includes:

• Chair Stand Test – To measure leg strength and endurance
• Arm Curl Test – To measure upper body strength
• Chair Sit and Reach Test – To measure flexibility of lower body
• Back Scratch Test – To measure range of motion of shoulder
• Eight Foot Up and Go Test – To measure speed, agility and balance while moving
• Six Minute Walk Test – To measure aerobic fitness Arm Curl Test

Purpose – To measure upper body strength.
Equipment Required – Folding chair with straight back with arm rests, 4 lbs weight for women, 5 lbs weight for men and a stopwatch.
Procedure – The subject sits on the chair keeping the back straight and holds weight in strong hand. The subject performs arm curls in 30 seconds.
Scoring – The score is determined by counting no. of curls performed in 30 seconds.

Answer 24.
Gender differences in physical and physiological parameters-

• Body Size and Composition – At puberty, the endocrine system starts bringing changes.
  Estrogen and testosterone play an important role in both the sexes. Mainly in women estrogen plays a vital role in broadening of pelvis, breast development and enhances fat deposition. Men also produce estrogen but at lower levels than women. In men, estrogen is thought to affect sperm count. Men and women however differ in their body sizes and shapes.
• Strength – On an average, men are stronger than women because they are larger. Generally, women produce about two third the amount of total strength than men.
• Cardiovascular Functions – Heart is smaller in women; women have slightly higher heart rate. However in case of intense exercise men have better cardiac output than women.
• Respiratory Functions – Men have larger body size, women have lesser hemoglobin content. Tidal volume and ventilatory volume are smaller in women.
• Endurance – Men are found to be 10% better in endurance as compared to women.
• Bones And Ligaments – Men have longer and larger bones that facilitate better mechanical advantage over women. The ligaments of women are generally more lax and fragile than those of men.

Answer 25.
According to Goods, “Motivation is the process of arousing, sustain and regulating activity.” Types of motivation are-
Intrinsic – It is internal motivation, when people are compelled to do something out of 1 pleasure, importance or desire. It can be further classified into.

• Bodily needs – hunger, thirst, etc. can be motivational forces
• Instinctive – inborn qualities
• Social – social motives often move a person towards an aim
• Emotional – love and affection can directly affect and motivate an individual

Extrinsic – It is external motivation, when external factors compel the person to do something. Reward, punishment, praise, blame, or cash prize are examples of extrinsic motivation. It can be further classified into.

• Knowledge of the goal – learner must be acquainted well with the aim and objectives of the goal.
• Knowledge of the result – periodic evaluation is a strong motivational force.
• Rewards – effectively used in learning process, can be given in following terms:
  1. Cash prize
  2. Job promotion
  3. Social rewards
  4. Punishment is applied where reward fails to motivate
  5. Effective teaching
  6. Competition and cooperation
  7. Audio – visual aid
  8. Latest equipment and good environment

Answer 26.
Sports training is done for improving sports performance. According to David R. Lamb,”
muscular strength is best defined operationally as the greatest amount of force that muscles can produce in a single maximal effort.”
Types of strength are:

1. Dynamic/isotonic – These movements are clearly visible, used in pull-ups and pushups.
   It has 3 parts:
   • Maximum strength – ability to act against maximum resistance, used in weightlifting, shot put etc.
   • Explosive strength – ability to overcome resistance with high speed, used in sprint starts, javelin throw, and hammer throw, etc.
   • Strength endurance – ability to overcome resistance or to act against resistance under
     conditions of fatigue, used in long distance races, swimming etc. .
   • Static/isometric – Ability of muscles to act against resistance, measured by dynamometer, in weightlifting it is applied in phases.

Methods of Improving Strength:

1. Isometric exercises – Introduced by Hettinger and Muller, derived from two words iso (same) and metric (muscle strength), work is performed but it is not seen directly, muscles do not change their length, strength is improved, like pushing a wall.
2. Isotonic exercises – Introduced by De Lorme, derived from two words is (same) and tonic(muscle tone), movements can be seen directly. These exercises tone up the muscles, muscles become flexible, length of the muscle can increase, like on the spot running and jumping, weight training exercises, etc.
3. Iso-kinetic exercises – Developed by Perrine in 1968, contraction of muscle applies maximal force throughout the complete range of movement, through them explosive strength and strength endurance can also be improved.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 2 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 2.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 2

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Economics is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time : 3 hrs
M.M.: 80

General Instructions

• All questions in both the sections A and B are compulsory. However, there is internal choice in questions of 3,4 and 6 marks.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short answer type questions, carrying 1 mark each.
  They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short answer I type questions, carrying 3 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 60 words each.
• Question Nos. 7-9 and 19-21 are short answer II type questions, carrying 4 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 100 words each.
• Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit be adhered to as far as possible.

Section – A

Question 1.
State the fundamental problem of an economy that resulted in the emergence of central economic problem.

Question 2.
Average revenue of a monopolist firm is
(a) always more than the marginal revenue
(b) always less than the marginal revenue
(c) equal to marginal revenue
(d) None of these

Question 3.
Total Revenue (TR) – Total Variable Cost (TVC) is equal to
(a) gross profit
(b) net profit
(c) normal profit
(d) abnormal profit

Question 4.
How is total variable cost derived from marginal cost?

Question 5.
Suppose there are 20 consumers for a good and they have identical demand functions. d(p) = 50 – 6p for any price less than or equal to \(\frac { 20 }{ 6 } \) and d(p) = 0 at any price greater than \(\frac { 10 }{ 3 } \).
What is the market demand function?
Or
Consider the demand curve d(p)= 10 – 3p. What is the elasticity at price \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 } \) ?

Question 6.
What will be the impact on India’s PPC, if latest technology is imported from abroad?

Question 7.
Draw a diagram indicating the following situations:
(i) \(XY>\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \)
(ii) \(XY=\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \)
(iii) \(XY<\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \)
Where, XY = Marginal Rate of Substitution of Good x for Good y
P_x = Price of Good X, P_Y = Price of Good y
Which of the three indicates highest level of consumer’s satisfaction?
Or
A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y. State and explain the conditions of consumer’s equilibrium with the help of utility analysis.

Question 8.
Explain the ‘law of variable proportions’. Use schedule.

Question 9.
What do you understand by oligopoly market? Explain any three of its features.

Question 10.
Define demand. Explain the factors influencing individual household demand for a commodity in the market.

Question 11.
(i) Can Marginal Revenue (MR) be negative? Explain your answer with the help of example.
(ii) Total Revenue (TR) of a firm, dealing in a particular commodity, initially was ₹ 15,000. It reduces to ₹ 13,500. Also, AR increases from ₹150 to ₹ 270. Find the change in market demand for that commodity.
Or
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(i) When Marginal Revenue (MR) is constant and not equal to zero, then Total Revenue (TR) will also be constant.
(ii) As soon as Marginal Cost (MC) starts rising, Average Variable Cost (AVC) also starts rising.
(iii) Total Product (TP) always increases whether there is increasing returns or diminishing returns to a factor.

Question 12.
Explain profit and loss situation under perfect competition, during the short-run. Which economic value is affected if the firm is incurring abormal losses?

Section – B

Question 13.
What are the sources of borrowings for government other than the general public?

Question 14.
The currency notes do not carry as much value as denominated on it. Do you agree?

Question 15.
What do you mean by public goods?

Question 16.
The difference between narrow money and broad money is
(a) coins and currency
(b) only currency
(c) saving deposits of banks
(d) time deposits with banks

Question 17.
The saving function of an economy is S = -200 + 0.25F. The economy is in equilibrium when income is equal to ₹ 2,000. Calculate the following :
(i) Investment expenditure at equilibrium level of income
(ii) Autonomous consumption
Or
It is given that MPC is 1/3rd of MPS, while consumption at zero level of income is given as ₹ 100 crore. Derive the consumption and savings functions.

Question 18.
Inflationary gap and deflationary gap both are caused due to the displacement of aggregate demand from the full employment equilibrium level and both are harmful for a country. In spite of these similarities, there exist many differences between the two. Explain any three of those differences.

Question 19.
How will you treat the following while estimating national income of India?
(i) Dividend received by an Indian from his investment in shares of a foreign company.
(ii) Money received by a family in India from relatives working abroad.
(iii) Interest received on loans given to a friend for purchasing a car.
(iv) Dividend received by a foreigner from investment shares of an Indian company.

Question 20.
Giving a numerical example, explain the process of money creation by the commercial banks.
Or
Government of India has launched ‘Jan-Dhan Yojana’ aimed at every household to have at least one bank account due to which credit creation capacity of banks have seen expansion manifolds. Comment.

Question 21.
Explain the role of government budget in fighting inflationary and deflationary tendencies.

Question 22.
From the following information, calculate Gross National Product at Market Price (GNPMP)by
(i) Income method
(ii) Expenditure method

Or
Explain briefly the steps taken in estimating national income by the value added method. Also, explain any two precautions required to be taken in this method

Question 23.
What do you mean by Multiplier (K)? Explain the relationship between Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) and Multiplier (K).

24.
Explain the three major functions of foreign exchange market.

Answers

Section – A

Answer 1.
It is the problem of scarcity of resources in relation to human needs or desires.

Answer 2.
(a) Always more than marginal revenue

Answer 3.
(a) Gross profit

Answer 4.
Total variable cost is the sum total of marginal cost, i.e. TVC = ΣMC

Answer 5.
The above demand function indicates that in a market comprising of 20 consumers, the consumers are willing to buy only if the price is less than or equal to \(\frac { 20 }{ 6 } \) . Also, all the 20 consumers have identical demand function. Accordingly,
d_m (p) =20 x d p = 20x (50-6p)
= 1,000 – 120p for any price less than or equal to \(\frac { 20 }{ 6 } \).
If price exceeds \(\frac { 20 }{ 6 } \), then 6
d_m(p) = 0 because at this price no consumer is willing to purchase the good.
Or
Given demand curve d(p) = 10 – 3p
Where p is the price of good.
Now,
Price (p)= \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 } \)
q = 10 – 3 x \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 } \) = 10 – 5 = 5
Demand (q) = 5 unitsd(p) = 10 – 3p
Here, -3 indicates the rate at which q change in response to change in p.
∴ \(\frac { \triangle q }{ \triangle p } =-3\)
Elasticity of demand E_d = \(\left( – \right) \frac { p }{ q } \times \frac { \triangle q }{ \triangle p } =\left( – \right) \frac { \frac { 5 }{ 3 } }{ 5 } \times -3\)
\({ E }_{ d\quad }\left( – \right) \frac { 5 }{ 3 } \times \frac { 1 }{ 5 } \times -3\)
E<sub.d = 1
∴ Elasticity of demand at price \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 } \) = 1

Answer 6.
India’s PPC would shift rightwards/outwards because with other resources remaining constant, improved technology will raise the potential level of output in the economy.

PPC shift to a₁ b₁ as technology improves.

Answer 7.

Graph showing relation between MRS and \(\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \) at different points on indifference curve
The point where \({ MRS }_{ XY }=\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \) indicates the highest level of consumer’s satisfaction i.e. E is the point of maximum consumer satisfaction (or consumer equilibrium).
Or
The two conditions of consumer’s equilibrium are stated below:
(i) Ratio of Marginal Utility to Price of Two Goods are Equal to Marginal Utility of Money This condition can be expressed as \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ X } } =\frac { M{ U }_{ Y } }{ { P }_{ Y } } =M{ U }_{ M }\)
or \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ M{ U }_{ Y } } =\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \) [if MU_X = 1]
where, MU_X and MU_Y = Marginal Utilities of good X and good Y respectively
P_X and P_Y = Price of good X and good Y respectively
MU_M = Marginal utility of money
(ii) MU Falls as Consumption Increases If Marginal Utility (MU) does not fall as consumption increases, the consumer will end up buying only one good which is unrealistic and the consumer will never reach the equilibrium position.

Answer 8.
The law of variable proportions shows the impact on output when units of variable factors are increased, keeping fixed factors constant in the short-run.

The law states that if more and more units of a variable factor are employed with fixed factors, Total Physical Product (TPP) increases at an increasing rate in the beginning, then increases at a diminishing rate and finally starts falling. In other words, as units of variable factors are increased, marginal product first increases, reaches its maximum point, starts to fall, and eventually becomes negative.

Answer 9.
Oligopoly is a form of market in which there are only few big sellers of a commodity and large number of buyers.
e.g. there are only few car producers in the Indian auto market such as Toyata, Ford, GM, Audi, BMW and Volkswagen.
Oligopoly market exhibits the features given below:

1. A Few Firms A few firms, large in size dominate the market for a commodity. Each firm commands a significant share of the market which can impact market price of the product.
2. Large Number of Buyers There are large number of buyers of a commodity. The number is so large that no individual buyer can impact market price of the product.
3. Entry Barriers There are various barriers to the entry of new firms. These barriers are almost similar to
   those under monopoly. Entry of the new firm is extremely difficult, but not impossible.

Answer 10.
Demand means the quantity of a commodity that consumers wish to purchase in the market in a given period of time and at various prices.
Factors affecting individual household demand are explained below:

1. Own Price of a Commodity When the price of a commodity rises in the market, its demand contracts and with a fall in price, its demand expands.
2. Price of Related Goods Demand for a commodity is also influenced by change in price of related goods.
   These are of two types:
   • Substitute Goods These are the goods which can be substituted for each other, such as tea and coffee or ball pen and ink pen. In case of such goods, increase in the price of one, causes increase in demand for the other and decrease in the price of one, causes decrease in the demand for the other.
   • Complementary Goods These goods complete the demand for each other and are therefore, demanded together. Pen and ink, bread and butter, car and petrol, etc may be cited as examples. In case of complementary goods, a fall in the price of one, causes increase in the demand for the other and a rise in the price of one, causes decrease in the demand for the other.
3. Income of the Consumer Change in the income of the consumer also influences his demand for different goods. The demand for normal goods tends to increase with increase in income and vice-versa. On the other hand, the demand for inferior goods like coarse grain, etc. tends to decrease with increase in income and vice-versa.
4. Tastes and Preferences The demand for goods and services also depends on individual tastes and preferences. These terms are used in a broad sense. If there is a favourable change in tastes and preferences, demand increases and unfavourable change leads to decrease the demand.
5. Expectatibns If the consumer expects a significant change in the availability of the concerned
   commodity in the near future, he may decide to change his present demand for the commodity. Particularly, if the consumer fears acute shortage of the commodity in the near future, he may raise his present demand for the commodity at its existing price.

Answer 11.
(i) Yes, Marginal Revenue (MR) can be negative. It can be negative only when average revenue is decreasing or when the price is declining as under monopoly and monopolistic competition. This can be explained by the following example :
When price = ₹ 20, output = 50
Total revenue of 50 units (TR₅₀) = P x Q
= 20 x 50 = ₹ 1,000
When price fall to ₹ 19, output =51
Total revenue of 51 units (TR₅₁) = P x Q
= 19 x 51 = ₹ 969
MR₅₁ =TR₅₁ – TR₅₀
= 969 – 1,000 = ₹ (31)
i.e., Marginal Revenue (MR) is negative.
(ii) TR = ₹ 15,000, P(=AR) = ₹ 150

Change in market demand = 50 – 100 = -50 units i.e. market demand falls by 50 units

1. False. because when Marginal Revenue (MR) is constant, Total Revenue (TR) is increasing at a constant rate, only when Marginal Revenue is zero, Total Revenue is constant.
2. False, Average Variable Cost (AVC) can fall even when Marginal Cost (MC) starts rising. See Average Variable Cost (AVC) and Marginal Cost (MC) corresponding to output range (MQ) in the diagram.
3. True, because in a situation of increasing returns to a factor, Marginal Product tends to rise accordingly, Total Product (TP) should be increasing at an increasing rate. Under diminishing returns to a factor, Marginal Product (MP) tends to fall. Falling Marginal Product (MP) implies that Total Product (TP) should be increasing, though at a decreasing rate.

Answer 12.
In the short-run, equilibrium of a firm (under perfect competition) may occur when it is earning super normal profits or normal profits or is incurring super normal losses.
These conditions are discussed below :
(i) Super Normal Profit

In the given diagram, the producer is at equilibrium at point Q, where MR = MC, and MC cuts MR from below. At this point, Average Revenue (AR) exceed Average Cost (AC). So, the firm is earning abnormal profits equal to ESQT.
(ii) Super Normal Losses

In the given diagram, the firm is at equilibrium at point 0. At this point, AC exceeds AR, therefore the firm is incurring abnormal loss equal to NTQP.
(iii) Normal Profit

In the given diagram, the firm is at equilibrium at point Q. At this point AR = AC. So, this depicts the condition of normal profits.
If the firm is incurring abnormal losses then it affects the economic value of sustainability.

Section – B

Answer 13.
The government can borrow money from :
(i) The Reserve Bank of India
(ii) The rest of the world

Answer 14.
Yes, I agree. The face value of currency notes is more than its materialistic value. These notes are accepted
by people because they are backed by the government of the country.

Answer 15.
Public goods refers to the goods which cannot be provided by market mechanism due to its feature of non-rivalness and non-excludable in consumption, e.g. street light.

Answer 16.
(d) Time deposits with banks

Answer 17.
(i) At equilibrium, savings (S) are equal to planned investment (l). It is given that,
S = – 200 + Y
Equilibrium level of income is 2,000. Substituting the value of Y in the savings function, we get
S = -200 + 0.25 x 2,000
S =-200 + 500 ⇒ S =300
or l = 300 [v at equilibrium level of Income Savings (S) = Investment Expenditure (I)]
Thus, investment expenditure at equilibrium level of income is 300.
Autonomous consumption means the level of consumption expenditure when income is zero.
When Y = 0, Savings = -200
Consumption + Savings = Income Consumption + (-200) = 0
So, autonomous consumption = 200
Or
According to question, Marginal Propensity to consume (MPC) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \) Marginal Propensity of Save (MPS)
We know that,
MPC + MPS = 1
∴    \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \) MPS + MPS = 1
MPS = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \)
∴ MPS = 0.75 and
MPC = 1 – 0.75 = 0.25 Consumption function (C) = \(\overline { C } \) + bY,
where,
\(\overline { C } \) = Autonomous Consumption = ₹ 100 crore
b = MPC = 025
So, consumption function (C) = 100 + 025 Y
Saving function (S) = \(-\overline { S } \) + sY,
where,
\(-\overline { S } \) = Dissavings = Autonomous consumption = 100 and
S = Marginal Propensity to Save = 0.75
Therefore, Savings Function (S) = -100 + 0.75Y

Answer 18.
Difference between inflationary gap and deflationary gap are :

Answer 19.

1. Dividend received by an Indian from his investment in shares of a foreign company is included in National Income of India because it is a part of net factor income from abroad.
2. Money received by a family in India from relatives working abroad is not included in National Income of India because it is a kind of transfer income.
3. Interest received on loan given to a friend for purchasing a car is not included in National Income because loan is not being used for production purpose.
4. Dividend received by a foreigner from investment in shares of an Indian company is included in National
   Income of India as a negative component, because it is a part of net factor income paid to rest of the world.

Answer 20.
Money creation (or deposit creation or credit creation) by the banks is determined by

1. The amount of the initial fresh deposits and
2. Legal Reserve Ratio (LRR) i.e. the minimum ratio of deposit, legally required to be kept as cash by the banks. It is assumed that all the money that goes out of the banks, is re-deposited into the banks.

Let the LRR be 20% and there is a fresh deposit of ₹ 10,000. As required, the banks keep 20 %,i.e. ₹ 2,000 as cash. Suppose the banks lend the remaining ₹ 8,000. Those who borrow, use this money for making payments. As assumed, those who receive payments, put the money back into the banks. In this way, banks receive fresh deposits of ₹ 8,000. The banks again keep 20%, i.e. ₹ 1,600 as cash and lend ₹ 6,400, which is also 80% of the last deposits. The money again comes back to the banks leading to a fresh deposit of ₹ 6,400. The money goes on multiplying in this way and ultimately total money creation is ₹ 50,000.

Given the amount of fresh deposit and the LRR, the total money creation is
Total Money Creation = Initial Deposit x \(\frac { 1 }{ LRR } \)
Or
With the introduction of ‘Jan-Dhan Yojana’, many households have opened bank account. Due to this, primary deposits of commercial banks have increased. Banks create credit on the basis of primary deposits. Higher the primary deposits, higher is the credit creation capacity of comrftercial banks and vice-versa.

Now, with implementation of ‘Jan-Dhan Yojana’, since primary deposits have increased, reserves of bank to create credit have also swollen up. Therefore, credit creation capacity of commercial banks is increased manifolds.

Answer 21.
Government budget is of immense help in fighting the inflationary and deflationary tendencies. To curb the inflationary tendency, the government can prepare a surplus budget. A surplus budget is one in which estimated receipts exceed the estimated expenses. Such a budget reduces the money supply in the economy. With a fall in the money supply, the purchasing power of people also fall, leading to a fall in the level of aggregate demand. As aggregate demand falls, the price level or the rate of inflation also falls.

To curb the deflationary tendency, the government can prepare a deficit budget. A deficit budget is one in which estimated expenses exceed the estimated receipts. Such a budget increases the money supply in the economy. With increase in money supply, the purchasing power of people also rise, leading to an increase in the level of aggregate demand. As aggregate demand rises, the price level also rises and rate of deflation begins to fall.

Answer 22.
(i) Gross National Product at Market Price (GNPMP) by Income Method
Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDPFC ) = Compensation of Employees + Operating Surplus (Interest + Rent + Profit) + Mixed Income
= ₹ 1,500 + (400 + 400 + 1,000) + 0
= ₹ 1,500 + 1800
= ₹ 3,300 crore
GNP_MP = NDP_FC + Net indirect Tax (Indirect tax – Subsidies) + Net Factor Income from Abroad (Factor income from abroad – Factor income to abroad) + Depreciation
= ₹ 3300 + (300 – 100) + (100 -150) + 150
= ₹ 3300 + 200 + (-50) + 150 = 3,300 + 300
= ₹ 3,600 crore

(ii) Gross National Product at Market Price (GNP_MP) by Expenditure Method
Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDP_MP) = Private Final Consumption Expenditure + Government Final Consumption Expenditure + Gross Domestic Capital Formation + Net Exports
= ₹ 2,200 + 850 + (500 + 150)+ (200 – 250)
= ₹ 2200 + 850 + 650 + (-50)
= ₹ 2,200 + 850 + 600 = ₹ 3650 crore
GNP_MP = GDP_MP + Net Factor Income from Abroad
= ₹ 3650 + (100 – 150) = 3,650 – 50 = ₹ 3,600 crore
Or
Steps for measuring National Income by Value Added Method (Product method) are enumerated below :
Step I Classify All the Production Units The units are traditionally classified into primary, secondary and tertiary sectors which are further classified into sub-sectors like agriculture, manufacturing, banking, etc.
Step II Estimate NVAFC of each industrial sector by taking the following sub-steps :

1. Estimate Value of Output It can be estimated by two ways :
   • A sum of sales and net addition to stocks (If entire output is not sold within the year).
   • Quantity of output multiplied by price (If entire output is sold within the year).
2. Deduct Intermediate Consumption It should be deducted from the value of output to arrive at GVA_MO (Intermediate consumption already includes imports).
3. Deduct, Consumption of Fixed Capital It should be deducted from GVA_MP to arrive at NVA_MP.
4. Deduct Net Indirect Tax It should be deducted from NVA_MP to arrive at NVA_FC of an industrial sector.

Step III Take the sum of NVAFC of all the industrial sectors of the economy. By doing so, we will arrive at net
domestic product at factor cost.
ΣNVA_FC = NDP_FC
Step IV Add net factor income from abroad to NDP_FC to arrive at National Income.
National Income (NNP_FC) = NDP_FC + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA)
Precautions to be taken while computing National income by this method are given below :

1. Take the value of final product only i.e. intermediate goods not to be included.
2. Do not include exports, if total sales are given.

Answer 23.
Multiplier It means the ratio of change in income to change in investment.
According to Keynes, “Investment multiplier tells us that when there is an increment of aggregate investment, income will increase by an amount, which is K times the increment of investment.”
Relationship between MPC and Multiplier (K)
The value of Multiplier is determined by the value of MPC.

This shows that there is a direct relationship between multiplier (K) and Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC). As the value of MPC rises, the value of multiplier also rises and vice-versa.
e.g. if MPC = 0.75
then, \(\frac { 1 }{ 1-0.75 } =4\)
and when the value of MPC = 0.80, then K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 1-0.80 } =5\)
Thus, it is clear that the size of the Multiplier depends on the MPC. Higher the MPC, the larger the size of Multiplier and lower the MPC, the smaller is the size of Multiplier.

Answer 24.
Foreign exchange market performs the following functions :

1. Transfer Function This function implies the transfer of purchasing power in terms of foreign exchange across different countries of the world. It is performed through credit instruments like bills of foreign exhange, bank drafts and telephone transfers.
2. Credit Function This function allows the provision of credit in terms of foreign exchange for the export and import of goods and services across different countries of world. In this function, bills of exchange with maturity period of 3 months are used for international payments.
3. Hedging Function When exporters and importers enter into an agreement to sell and buy goods on
   some future date at a rate agreed upon today, it is called hedging. Through this function, exchange rate is locked for future supplies of foreign exchage which avoid losses that might occur due to. changes in exchange rate.

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