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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Federalism with Answers

Federalism Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

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Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQs On Federalism

Federalism Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
……………….. is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Unitary system
(c) Monarchy
(d) Federalism
Answer:
(d) Federalism

Class 10 Federalism MCQ Question 2.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
In a federal system, the central government…………..order the state government to do something.
(a) Can
(b) Cannot
(c) May
(d) Should
Answer:

Federalism MCQ Class 10 Question 3.
Which subject does not come under the State List in India?
(a) Police
(b) Agriculture
(c) Banking
(d) Trade
Answer:
(c) Banking

Explanation: Banking comes under the Union List.

MCQ Of Federalism Class 10 Question 4.
On which of the following subjects can both the Union as well as the State Governments make laws?
(a) Communications
(b) Defence
(c) Trade Unions
(d) Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Trade Unions

Explanation: Trade unions is a part of a concurrent list. On a concurrent list, both the state and central governments can make laws.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
Based on the table below, answer the question that follows:

Which is the second most commonly spoken language according to the table?
(a) Hindi
(b) Bodo
(c) Gujarati
(d) Bengali
Answer:
(d) Bengali

Explanation:
Hindi: 43%
Bodo: 0.12%
Gujarati: 4.58%
Bengali: 8.03%

Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 6.
States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram enjoy special powers under certain provisions of the Constitution of India (Article 371), under which context do they get these provisions?
(a) Their historical circumstances
(b) Protection of land rights of indigenous people
(c) Special provisions for agriculture
(d) Preferential employment in government services.
Answer:
(c) Special provisions for agriculture.

MCQ On Federalism Class 10 Question 7.
On which basis were states like Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand created?
(a) On the basis of history
(b) On the basis of culture and ethnicity
(c) On the basis of religion
(d) On the basis of administrative efficiency
Answer:
(b) On the basis of culture and ethnicity

Ch 2 Civics Class 10 MCQ Question 8.
There are some units of the Indian Union that enjoy very little power. These are called:
(a) Cities
(b) Towns
(c) Villages
(d) Union Territories
Answer:

Federalism Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal system?
(a) States have no financial powers.
(b) States are dependent on revenue on the central government.
(c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified in the constitution to ensure its financial autonomy.
(d) The Centre has no financial autonomy.
Answer:
(c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified in the constitution to ensure its financial autonomy.

MCQ Federalism Class 10 Question 10.
Consider the following statements regarding language policy of Indian federation:
(1) Hindi was identified as the official language.
(2) Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as scheduled languages.
(3) English can be used along with Hindi for official purposes.
Choose the combination that provides the correct statements) from the following :
(a) (1) and (3)
(b) (1) and (2)
(c) only (1)
(d) (1), (2) and (3)
Answer:
(d) (1), (2) and (3).

Civics Chapter 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
what type of distribution of powers does the Indian Constitution provide for?
(a) Single-fold
(b) Two-fold
(c) Three-fold
(d) Four-fold
Answer:

Class 10 Civics Ch 2 MCQ Question 12.
Who presides over the meetings of Municipal Corporations?
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Mayor
(c) Deputy Mayor
(d) Governor
Answer:
(b) Mayor

Explanation: The head of the municipal corporation is called mayor.

Related Theory
The Mayor is the first citizen of the city and is elected by the members of the municipal corporation for the period of 5 year.

MCQs Of Federalism Class 10 Question 13.
How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 22

Explanation: These 22 languages are calLed ‘Scheduled Languages.’

Civics Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 14.
Which of the following pair of subjects is incorrect?
(a) Police and agriculture
(b) Banking and currency
(c) Computer software and trade unions
(d) Marriage and adoption
Answer:

Civics Ch 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following group of countries are an example of coming together federation?
(a) India, USA, Belgium
(b) USA, Switzerland, Australia
(c) India, Belgium, Spain
(d) USA, Spain, Australia
Answer:
(b) USA, Switzerland, Australia

Question 16.
Study the given picture and identify which of the following options best signifies this cartoon?

(a) Sharing of responsibility between Centre and State
(b) Centre undermining the power of States
(c) States pleading from centre for more power
(d) Misuse of power by the States
Answer:

Question 17.
Which of the following pair of languages is NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Pali and Tulu
(b) Bodo and Maithili
(c) Nepali and Oriya
(d) Sindhi and Urdu
Answer:
(a) Pali and Tulu

Question 18.
Which of the following pairs of subjects are NOT associated with the union list?
(a) Education and Marriage
(b) Communications and currency
(c) Foreign Affairs and Currency
(d) Banking and Defence
Answer:
(a) Education and Marriage

Question 19.
Which of following language is spoken by the majority of our population?
(a) English
(b) Hindi
(c) Bengali
(d) Punjabi
Answer:
(b) Hindi

Explanation: No one language is the mother tongue of the majority of our population. Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 41 per cent Indians which is less than the 50 per cent of our total population.

Question 20.
How is Panchayat Samiti formed?
(a) By a few gram panchayats when are grouped together.
(b) By most members of the zila parishad
(c) By all MPs and MLAs in the block
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) By a few gram panchayats when are grouped together.

Explanation: Panchayat Samiti is also called Block or Mandal. The members of this local body are elected by all the panchayat members in that area.

Related Theory
All the Panchayat Samiti or Mandats in a district together constitute the zila Parishad. Most members of the zila parishad are elected which includes the Lok Sabha and MLAs of that district and another official of other district-level bodies. Zila parishad chairperson is the political head of the zila Parishad.

Question 21.
Which of the following is an advantage of the local government in India?
(a) It has deepened the democracy in our country
(b) It has uprooted the democracy at local level in our country
(c) It has failed in conducting the regular elections of local bodies
(d) It has given more power to the local government when compared to the centre.
Answer:
(a) It has deepened the democracy in our country

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 22.
Identify the country:
(1) The country shifted from unitary to federal form of government.
(2) The country gave regional governments constitutional powers in 1993.
(3) The country reduced the powers of the central government through an amendment.
Answer:

Question 23.
Identify the type of Government:
(1) There are two or more levels/tiers of governments.
(2) The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution.
(3) No government is subordinate to another.
Answer:
Federal Government

Explanation: Federal governments establish two or more tiers of each government and each government has its own powers and jurisdiction as given by the constitution. All levels are equal to one another.

Question 24.
Identify the institution:
(1) It resolves disputes between the states and state and centre.
(2) It interprets the constitution.
(3) It acts like an umpire and decides neutrally.
Answer:
Courts or Judiciary

Explanation: The highest court or the Supreme Court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise Of their respective powers. It has powers to interpret the constitution.

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 25.
In a federal government, different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
Answer:
True

Question 26.
The exact balance of power between the central and the state government is the same in every federation.
Answer:

Question 27.
The Constitution of India clearly provided a twofold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Governments.
Answer:
False

The Constitution clearly provided a threefold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Governments.

Explanation: It lays down subjects in form of three lists.

Question 28.
According to the constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1956.
Answer:
According to the constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1965.

Question 29.
At least two-third of all positions are reserved for women at Local level.
Answer:
At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women at local level.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 30.
A ……….. has two levels of government.
Answer:
Federation

Question 31.
Indian Union is based on the principles of
Answer:
Federalism

Question 32.
Banking is included in the……………. List.
Answer:

Question 33.
……….. makes laws on Concurrent list subjects.
Answer:
Both States and the central government

Question 34.
…………. runs the Union Territories
Answer:
Central government.

Question 35.
The subjects that do not fall in any of the three lists are called……………. subjects.
Answer:
Residuary

Explanation: Subjects Like computer software that came up after the constitution was made are called residuary subjects and the union or central government has the power to legislate on these subjects.

Question 36.
The ……………. declared India as a Union of States.
Answer:
Constitution

Explanation: Indian constitution declares India as a union of states. It is an example of holding together federation where a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent states and the national or central government. In this system, generally central government is more powerful than its constituent units.

Question 37.
In 1956, an act passed by the Government in Sri Lanka recognised the Sinhala Language as the language of the state and disregard the …………… language.
Answer:

Question 38.
India, Spain and Belgium are examples of the …………….. type of federations.
Answer:
Holding Together

Explanation: There are two types of federations:

The first type is ‘Coming Together Federation’ where states come together to form a bigger unit by pooling sovereignty and retaining identities. USA, Australia and Switzerland are the examples of coming together federations.
The second type is where a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent states and the central government. India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this kind of‘holding together’ federations.

Question 39.
Australia is an example of type of federation.
Answer:
Coming together

Explanation: When independent States come together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security, the type of federation is called Coming Together Type of federation. Another example is USA.

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 40.
Match the following subjects from column A with the lists given in column B:

Column A (Subjects)	Column B (Lists)
(a) Banking	(i) State List
(b) Police	(ii) Union List
(c) Computer software	(iii) Concurrent List
(d) Education	(iv) Residuary subject

Answer:

Column A (Subjects)	Column B (Lists)
(a) Banking	(ii) Union List
(b) Police	(i) State List
(c) Computer software	(iv) Residuary subject
(d) Education	(iii) Concurrent List

Explanation: Union List includes the subjects of national importance such as banking, defence, foreign affairs and the union government has the right to make laws on these subjects.

State list includes the subjects of state and Local importance such as police, trade, agriculture etc. and state government can make laws on these subjects.

The concurrent list includes subjects like education, forest, trade union, marriage etc. and both central and state governments can make laws on these subjects but in case if their laws conflict with each other, then the central government Law will be implemented.

On residuary subjects, central government has the power to make laws.

Related Theory
The constitution clearly provides a three-fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Governments via union list (97 subjects), state list (66 subjects), concurrent list (47 subjects) and the subjects which are not included in these lists are known as ‘residuary subjects.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 2

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Belgium shifted from a unitary to a federal form of government.
Reason (R): Federal Governments last longer.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Federal governments are more stable, more participative and can handle ethnic conflicts and divisions better than unitary governments.

Question 42.
Assertion (A): Tamil leaders want Sri Lanka to become a federal system.
Reason (R): Federal systems establish a peaceful and stable environment in the country.
Answer:

Question 43.
Assertion (A): The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government in a federal government.
Reason (R): In a Federal government, each government has its own constitutionally laid down jurisdiction.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: In a Federal government, each government has its own constitutionally laid down jurisdiction. Each government takes care of certain subjects which have been specified by the constitution. Hence all decisions have to be taken only after discussions and consensus.

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Federations that are formed by ‘holding together’ do not give equal power to its constituent units.
Reason (R): States should be treated differently to help them develop.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: In the ‘holding together’ federations, a large country divided power between its constituent units carefully to ensure peace. Hence the distribution is unequal.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
This sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution. It is not easy to make changes to this power-sharing arrangement. The Parliament cannot on its own to change this arrangement.
Any change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses of Parliament with at least a majority.
(a) Half
(b) Three-fourth
(c) Two-third
(d) One-fourth
Answer:
(c) Two-third

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40 percent of Indians. Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect other languages.
Which among the following is not a scheduled language of India?
(a) Santhali
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Angika
(d) Sindhi
Answer:

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
This sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution. It is not easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement. The Parliament cannot on its own change this arrangement. Any change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses of Parliament with at least two- thirds majority. Then it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total States. The judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures. In case of any dispute about the division of powers, the High Courts and the Supreme Court make a decision. The Union and State governments have the power to raise resources by levying taxes in order to carry on the government and the responsibilities assigned to each of them.
(A) Which of this can be considered a form of sharing of powers between the government?
(I) Division of Powers between Chief Minister and the Governor.
(II) Division of Powers between Central and State legislatures.
(III) Power sharing between Union and the States through lists of subjects.
(IV) Power division between Bureaucracy and Executive.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (II) & (IV) only
(d) (II) & (III) only
Answer:

(B) Why was the Supreme Court given the power to resolve disputes between the states?
(a) The Supreme Court is an independent body and the best neutral judge to resolve disputes since it has no relations with working of any of the two legislatures.
(b) The Supreme Court is above the legislature.
(c) The Supreme Court has more experienced people.
(d) The Supreme Court is more representative of people’s will
Answer:
(a) The Supreme Court is an independent body and the best neutral judge to resolve disputes since it has no relations with working of any of the two legislatures.

(C) What is the prerequisite to amend the power sharing arrangement in Indian Constitution?
Answer:
A special majority (2/3rd members present and voting) in both the houses of the Parliament and ratification from the states.

(D) Assertion (A): The sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution.
Reason(R): Any single government can change this arrangement.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: No single government can unilaterally change the power sharing arrangement. It needs ratification from the state governments and a special majority which is very tough to achieve.

The fact that our entire constitution is based on the Separation of Powers among the different organs of the government and administration makes it the very basic structure of the constitution.

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
This new system of local government is the largest experiment in democracy conducted anywhere in the world. There are now about 36 lakh elected representatives in the panchayats and municipalities etc., all over the country. This number is bigger than the population of many countries in the world. Constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in our country. It has also increased women’s representation and voice in our democracy. At the same time, there are many diffculties.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following is a difficulty that the local self governments face?
(a) States do not give them much power.
(b) Elections are held regularly.
(c) There is no one to contest elections.
(d) Villagers do not trust them.
Answer:
(a) States do not give them much power.
Explanation: While elections are held regularly and enthusiastically, Gram Sabhas are not held regularly. Most state governments have not transferred significant powers to the local governments. Nor have they given adequate resources. These are the basic difficulties Local self governments bodies.

(B) Which of the following has helped to deepen democracy in the country according to the source?
(a) Establishment of Local self governments.
(b) Provision of Constitutional status to Local Self-governments
(c) Establishment of Political parties
(d) Free and fair elections.
Answer:
(b) Provision of Constitutional status to Local Self governments.

Column A (Bodies)	Column B (Details about Bodies)
(A) Gram Sabha	(I) Gram Panchayats group together to form this unit.
(B) Gram Panchayat	(II) It reviews the performance of the gram panchayat.
(C) Zila Parishad	(III) decision-making body for the entire village.
(D) Mandals	(IV) mandals in a district together constitute it.

(a) (A)-(II), (B).(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:

(D) Which of the following bodies is not a local self-government body.
(a) Zila Parishad
(b) Gram Sabha
(c) State Election Commission
(d) Nagar Panchayat
Answer:
(c) State Election Commission
Explanation: It facilitates elections in Local government bodies.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Constitutional provisions are necessary for the success of federalism but these are not sufficient. If the federal experiment has succeeded in India, it is not merely because of the clearly laid out constitutional provisions.
The real success of federalism in India can be attributed to the nature of democratic politics in our country. This ensured that the spirit of federalism, respect for diversity and desire for living together became shared ideals in our country.
Let us look at some of the major ways in which this happened. The creation of linguistic States was the first and a major test for democratic politics in our country. If you look at the political map of India when it began its journey as a democracy in 1947 and that of 2019, you will be surprised by the extent of the changes. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The real success of federalism in India can be attributed to ……………………..
(a) the nature of democratic politics in our country.
(b) the rules laid down by the central government
(c) the rules laid down by state governments
(d) the execution of laws by Panchayats.
Answer:
(a) the nature of democratic politics in our country.
Explanation: Rules alone cannot help in making a country federal. Its implementation has to be checked and constantly monitored.

(B) Which of the following is not a test for democratic politics in our country?
(a) Creation of linguistic states
(b) Language policy
(c) Religion policy
(d) Policy of traffic rules and policing.
Answer:

(C) Which of the following is an objective of the federal system?
(a) To safeguard and promote unity of the country
(b) To accommodate new territories
(c) To filter people belonging to one caste or ethnic groups.
(d) To reject regional diversity
Answer:
(a) To safeguard and promote unity of the country
Explanation: A federal system has a most important objective which is to work for the unity and territorial integrity of the country and keep it safe.

(D) Complete the following sentence by choosing the most appropriate option: State government has powers of its own for which………………………
(a) It is answerable to Central Government
(b) It is not answerable to Central Government
(c) It is answerable to the people
(d) It is answerable to regional and local governments.
Answer:
(c) It is answerable to the people.
Explanation: A state government is not answerable or subordinate to any other government but the people.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
The exact balance of power between the central and the state government varies from one federation to another. This balance depends mainly on the historical context in which the federation was formed. There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed. The first route involves independent States coming together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the type of Federation as mentioned in the source.
(a) Holding Together Federation
(b) Coming Together Federation
(c) Running Together Federation
(d) Walking Together Federation
Answer:
(b) Coming together Federation

(B) Which of the following can be an example of the identified type?
(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) India
(d) Belgium
Answer:
(a) USA

(C) Which of the following is not true about this type of federation.
(a) States share equal powers
(b) States cannot go out of the federation.
(c) Centre is stronger.
(d) States do not have absolute powers.
Answer:
(c) Centre is stronger.
Explanation: Centre tends to be strong in holding together federations. Here all states and centre share equal powers.

(D) Which of the following factors does not affect the balance of powers in a federation?
(a) Its history
(b) Its culture
(c) Its neighbours
(d) Its economy
Answer:
(c) Its neighbours.
Explanation: A federation is formed and its balance of power varies due to its historical, culturaL and economical situations. Its neighbours play no role.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention two aspects of an ideal federal system?
Answer:
Two aspects are:

Mutual Trust
Agreement between states and people to live together.

Question 2.
What is the system of Panchayati Raj?
Answer:

Question 3.
Why was the States reorganization commission formed?
Answer:
It was formed in 1954 to recommend the creation of states in India on the basis of different languages.

Question 4.
Which is the highest institution of Panchayati Raj in India?
Answer:
Zila Parishad

Question 5.
What is decentralisation? Why do we need it?
Answer:
Decentralisation grants more autonomy or freedom to lower levels of government and increases participation of the people.

Question 6.
In which list does the subject of Education come?
Answer:
Concurrent list

Question 7.
State any one step taken in Belgium to rule out the problem of regional differences and cultural diversities.
Answer:
The Constitution of Belgium established equality by maintaining equal number of French and Dutch speaking people in the central government so that a single dominant community does not make majoritarian decisions.

Question 8.
Who presides over the meeting of the Municipal Corporation?
Answer:

Question 9.
Who has the special powers in administering the Union Territories of India?
Answer:
Central Government

Question 10.
What percentage of reservation is given to women in local administration in India?
Answer:
One third or 33% seats are reserved for women in local administration in India.

Question 11.
What do you mean by a Concurrent List? What subjects are included in this list?
Answer:
A concurrent list includes 66 subjects over which both the centre and the state possess equal powers. Both of them can make laws on these subjects and in case of a deadlock, the will of the centre prevails over that of the states, education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession are examples of certain subjects included in this list.

Question 12.
Which institution has been created in each state of India to conduct panchayat and municipal elections?
Answer:

Question 13.
Arrange the following institutions of power according to the size of their jurisdiction in increasing order:
(i) Panchayat Samiti or Mandal
(ii) State Government
(iii) Gram Panchayat
(iv) Zila Parishad
Answer:
(iii)-(i)-(iv)-(ii)

Explanation:

Gram Panchayat heads a village or groups of villages.
Samitis head groups of gram panchayats.
Zila Parishad heads all panchayat samitis of a district.
State governments head zila parishads.

Question 14.
Who is a mayor?
Answer:
The head of municipal corporation is called mayor.

Explanation: The Mayor is the first citizen of the city and is elected by the members of the municipal corporation for the period of 5 years.

Question 15.
Define a Coalition Government.
Answer:
A coalition government is formed when none of the contesting parties get majority seats in the elections for Lok Sabha or Legislative Assemblies. In such a case, two or more parties form a government by coming together, making an alliance and adopting a common programme. NDA led by BJP under Prime Minister Narender Modi ruling presently in India is an example of a coalition government while the Congress led UPA under Manmohan Singh had been the ruling coalition government in the country for 10 years.

Question 16.
Which government has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects in India?
Answer:
Union Government

Question 17.
Read the source given below and define what is jurisdiction?
Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own JURISDICTION in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration. The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
Answer:
Jurisdiction is the area over which someone has legal authority. Jurisdiction can be defined by a geographical area or in terms of subjects.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 10 Chapter 7 MCQs On Outcomes of Democracy

Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following countries tops in the index of inequality of income?
(a) Hungary
(b) Russia
(c) South Africa
(d) UK
Answer:
(c) South Africa

Outcomes Of Democracy MCQ Question 2.
To measure democracies on the basis of expected outcomes, which of the following parameters should one look for?
(I) Regular, free and fair elections.
(II) Local Self Governments.
(III) Citizens’ right to information about the government.
(IV) Citizen’s non participation in the political processes.
(V) Open public debate on major policies.
(a) (I), (II) & (IV)
(b) (I), (III) & (V)
(c) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (V)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (V)

Explanation: Citizen’s participation in the political processes is an important parameter to test successful democracies.

MCQ On Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 Question 3.
Which of the following statements do not hold true for non-democratic regimes?
(I) These regimes do not have to bother about public opinion.
(II) These regimes take a lot of time to decide.
(III) Principle of individual dignitg has legal and moral force here.
(IV) These often suppress internal social differences.
(a) (I), (II) & (IV)
(b) (I) & (IV)
(c) (I), (II) & (III)
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Equal treatment of women is a necessary
ingredient of a society.
(a) Non-Democratic
(b) Monarchical
(c) Autocratic
(d) Democratic
Answer:
(d) Democratic

MCQ Of Outcomes Of Democracy Question 5.
Which of the following countries has half of its population living in poverty?
(a) Uzbekistan
(b) Libya
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(c) Bangladesh

Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Why is there a delay in decision-making and implementation in a democratic set up?
(a) The government is afraid of taking decisions.
(b) The government is not worried about taking decisions.
(c) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.
(d) A democratic government does not have a medium of taking decisions.
Answer:

Class 10 Outcomes Of Democracy MCQ Question 7.
Which one of the following is the most popular form of government in the contemporary world?
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Monarchy Rule
(c) Military Rule
(d) Democracy
Answer:
(d) Democracy

Outcomes Of Democracy MCQs Question 8.
Which one of the following is an example of outcomes of a democracy that produces an accountable government?
(a) Open to public debates on major policies and legislation.
(b) Open in promoting economic development.
(c) Open in reducing economic inequalities.
(d) Open to rulers elected by the people.
Answer:
(d) Open to rulers elected by the people.

Explanation: It produces an accountable government because the majority of the people approve of it.

MCQ Of Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 Question 9.
Which one of the following features is common to most of the democracies?
(a) They have a formal constitution
(b) They hold regular elections
(c) They have political parties
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

MCQ Of Chapter Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 Question 10.
In the context of assessing democracy which among the following is the odd one out. Democracies needs to ensure:
(a) Free and fair election
(b) Dignity of the individual
(c) Majority rule
(d) Equal treatment before law
Answer:
(c) Majority rule

Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 MCQs Question 11.
How many countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics? Choose the correct option from the following ones:
(a) Over 80 countries
(b) Over a hundred countries
(c) Over two hundred countries
(d) Only (a) is correct option
Answer:
(b) Over a hundred countries

Explanation: These countries have formal constitutions, they hold elections, they have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens and so they claim to be a democratic country.

MCQ Outcomes Of Democracy Question 12.
Most democracies have failed on which of the following issues?
(a) Corruption
(b) Removal of poverty
(c) Political equality
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

MCQs On Outcomes Of Democracy Question 13.
On which of the following pair of factors, economic development does not depend?
(a) Country’s population size and global situation.
(b) Cooperation from other countries and country’s economic priorities.
(c) Global situation and resources available in the country.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(c) Global situation and resources available in the country.

Outcomes Of Democracy MCQ Questions Question 14.
Which of the following outcome of democracy cannot be ignored?
(a) Democracy’s ability to generate its own support.
(b) Democracy often frustrates the needs of the people.
(c) Democracy often ignores the demands of a majority of its population.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) Democracy’s ability to generate its own support.

Outcomes Of Democracy MCQ Class 10 Question 15.
More than half of population of which country lives in poverty?
(a) India
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) All of these
Answer:

Question 16.
In actual life, democracies do not appear to be very successful in:
(a) Reducing economic inequalities
(b) Maintaining dignity of each individual
(c) Ensuring equality to all
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Reducing economic inequalities

Question 17.
Which of the following features is NOT associated with a democratic government?
(a) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.
(b) There is transparency in decision¬making.
(c) Decisions are taken quickly and are often forced upon people.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Decisions are taken quickly and are often forced upon people.

Explanation: Decisions are taken quickly and are often forced upon people is the feature of dictatorship while in democracy, decisions are taken slowly and it’s a time-consuming process but whatever decisions are taken, is accepted by the people.

Question 18.
Which of the following statements is against the spirit of democracy?
(a) Democracy promotes equality among citizens.
(b) It enhances the dignity of the individual.
(c) It does not allow room to correct mistakes.
(d) It provides method to resolve conflicts.
Answer:

Question 19.
Democracies are based on:
(a) Social equality
(b) Economic equality
(c) Political equality
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Political equality

Explanation: In democracy, all individuals have equal weight in electing representatives. People have the right to form their own political party, to contest election and take part in the decision-making process.

Question 20.
Study the given picture and answer the question that follows:

Which one of the following options best signifies this cartoon?
(a) Demand for separate state from Democratic Government.
(b) Democratic Government is facing territorial issues with the bordering states.
(c) Democratic Government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation.
(d) Democratic Government accepts demands based on separate state.
Answer:
(c) Democratic Government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation.

Question 21.
Which of the following factors is often missing from a non-democratic government?
(a) Accountability
(b) Responsibility
(c) Transparency
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Explanation: Democracy has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. This is known as transparency. Democracy takes care of the needs and expectations of its people which makes it a responsible government.

In democracy, people have the right to choose their rulers and have control over them and they participate in decision-making that affects them all. This makes democracy an accountable government.

Identify

Question 22.
Identify the type of government on basis of the hints given below:
(1) Promotes equality among citizens;
(2) Enhances the dignity of the individual;
(3) Improves the quality of decision-making
Answer:
Democratic governments

Correct and Rewrite /True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 23.
Democracies are based on social prosperity.
Answer:

Question 24.
Democratic governments have a very good record when it comes to sharing information with citizens.
Answer:
Democratic governments do not have a very good record when it comes to sharing information with citizens.

Question 25.
Dictatorships are based on political equality.
Answer:
Democracies are based on political equality.
Explanation: Democracy considers the will of the people above everything. All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives. They have right to vote or contest elections directly or indirectly through their representatives. They can participate in the decision-making process and can change the government in the next election if the government is not taking care of them. Thus, Democracies provide political equality.

Related Theory
Non-democratic governments such as monarchies, military rules, religious leaders or dictatorships do not consider the will of their people. People do not have any right to choose their representatives or change them. Nor these governments are accountable to their people.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 26.
The passion for ………………. and ………………. are the basis of democracy.
Answer:
respect, freedom

Question 27.
Democracy transforms people from the ……………….. status of a subject into that of a
Answer:
Citizen

Question 28.
Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is a plus point of ……………………..
Answer:
Democratic regimes

Question 29.
Complete the following statement: Democracy remains democracy only as long as every citizen has a chance of being in ……………… at some point of time.
Answer:

Match the Columns choose the correct pairs:

Question 30.
Match the following information from column A with that given in column B:

Column A	Column B
(a) Democracy is accountable	(i) Political equality in the country
(b) Democracy is responsive	(ii) People’s own government
(c) Democracy is legitimate	(iii) to the needs and expectations of its citizens
(d) Democracy ensures	(iv) to its citizens

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Democracy is accountable	(iv) to its citizens
(b) Democracy is responsive	(iii) to the needs and expectations of its citizens
(c) Democracy is legitimate	(ii) People’s own government
(d) Democracy ensures	(i) Political equality in the country

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 7

In each of following questions, a statemant of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 31.
Assertion (A): Democracy is a legitimate government.
Reason (R): Regular, free and fair elections are the spirit of democracy.
Answer:

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Democracies allow room to correct mistakes.
Reason (R): Democratic governments can be reelected.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Democratic governments allow room to correct mistakes that have been done in the past through reformed social and political laws.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): A democratic government will take more time to follow procedures before arriving at a decision.
Reason (R): A Democratic government is weak.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: A democratic government will take more time to follow procedures before arriving at a decision because it is based upon deliberation and negotiation and needs the consensus of the majority before taking any decision.

Question 34.
Assertion (A):A small number of ultra rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes in various countries.
Reason (R): Due to income inequalities, poor are exploited and do not receive much.
Answer:

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Democratically elected governments do not appear to be as keen to address the question of poverty as you would expect them to.
Reason (R): They believe that if the poor remain poor they will vote for them more.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Poor form a huge part of vote bank politics and hence one would expect governments to focus more on their interests and poverty eradication. This is not the case.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Study the data given below and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following countries promise the most support to Democracy?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(a) India

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
We felt that democracy was better because it: Promotes equality among citizens;
Enhances the dignity of the individual;
Improves the quality of decision making;
Provides a method to resolve conflicts; and Allows room to correct mistakes.
Are these expectations realised under democracies?

Considering the aims of a democracy and its realisation, which one of the following features is not common to democratic setups?
(a) They have a formal Constitution.
(b) They hold regular and fair, free elections.
(c) They do not have political parties.
(d) They have a universal adult franchise.
Answer:
(c) They do not have political parties.

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
But once the principle is recognised, it becomes easier for women to wage a struggle against what is now unacceptable legally and morally. In a non-democratic set up, this unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the legal and moral force there. The same is true of caste inequalities. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity. There are instances still of caste-based inequalities and atrocities, but these lack the moral and legal foundations. Perhaps it is the recognition that makes ordinary citizens value their democratic rights.
(A) Which of the following features of democracy has been highlighted in the source?
(a) It cures economic inequalities.
(b) It promotes dignity of individuals by recognising the importance of vulnerable groups and ensuring equality.
(c) It cures political equality.
(d) It is legitimate.
Answer:
(b) It promotes dignity of individuals by recognising the importance of vulnerable groups and ensuring equality.

(B) Which of the following countries do not enjoy a democratic government?
(a) Bhutan
(b) Nepal
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China
Explanation: China has an authoritarian government where the president wields all the authority.

(C) Mention one way democracy avoids social conflicts.
Answer:
Democracy avoids social conflicts by accommodating social diversities.

(D) Assertion (A): Democracy establishes social equality.
Reason (R): It works for the interest of all the social groups without any prejudice or discrimination.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
If you consider all democracies and all dictatorships for the fifty years between 1950 and 2000, dictatorships have slightly higher rate of economic growth. The inability of democracy to achieve higher economic development worries us. But this alone cannot be a reason to reject democracy. As you have already studied in economics, economic development depends on several factors: country’s population size, global situation, cooperation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country, etc. However, the difference in the rates of economic development between less developed countries with dictatorships and democracies is negligible.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following factors does affect economic growth?
(I) Country’s population size
(II) Global situation
(III) Cooperation from other countries
(IV) Economic priorities adopted by the country
(a) (II) & (III) only
(b) (I) only
(c) (111) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

(B) Which of the following countries is likely to have a greater economic growth rate?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(b) China
Explanation: China is a dictatorship while the rest are democracies.

(C) How does democracy affect the economic distribution of resources in a country in reality?
(a) It equalises the distribution among classes
(b) The rich get richer.
(c) The poor get richer.
(d) The foreigners get richer.
Answer:
(c) The rich get richer.
Explanation: The rich get richer and the poor get poorer due to the unequal distribution of the resources despite the claim of democracy.

(D) Which of the following countries show a huge economic inequality?
(a) Brazil
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Denmark
Answer:
(a) Brazil

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
But once the principle is recognised, it becomes easier for women to wage a struggle against what is now unacceptable legally and morally. In a non-democratic set up, this unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the legal and moral force there. The same is true of caste inequalities. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity. There are instances still of caste-based inequalities and atrocities, but these lack the
moral and legal foundations. Perhaps it is the recognition that makes ordinary citizens value their democratic rights.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) What makes it easy to wage a struggle against a discriminating act?
(I) Legal force
(II) Recognition of a problem
(III) Moral Force
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III)
(c) (I) & (II)
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) & (III)

(B) Which of the following governments does not lack moral and legal sanctions?
(a) Monarchy
(b) Democracy
(c) Oligarchy
(d) Aristocracy
Answer:
(b) Democracy

(C) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the …………. castes for equal status and equal opportunity.
(a) Rich classes
(b) Middle classes
(c) Disadvantaged
(d) Aristocratic
Answer:
(c) Disadvantaged

Explanation: Democracy promotes the dignity of an individual and harmony between classes and castes.

(D) Which one of the following is not the way to resolve a conflict in a democracy?
(a) Mass participation
(b) Using laws and rules
(c) Establishing justice and peace
(d) Armed revolution
Answer:
(d) Armed revolution

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
As people get some benefits of democracy, they ask for more and want to make democracy even better.
That is why, when we ask people about the way democracy functions, they will always come up with more expectations, and many complaints. The fact that people are complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy: it shows that people have developed awareness and the ability to expect and to look critically at power holders and the high and the mighty. A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project: it transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen. Most individuals today believe that their vote makes a difference to the way the government is run and to their own self-interest.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Why do people ask for more from democracy?
(a) Because democracy is worth it.
(b) Because democracy guarantees benefits.
(c) Because democracy is better than non democratic governments.
(d) Democracy is half developed.

(B) How do people show public dissatisfaction?
(I) Throughsocial movements
(II) By staying quiet
(III) By expecting more
(a) (I) only
(b) (III) only
(c) (II) & (III)
(d) (I) & (III)

(C) …………….. transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen. Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
(a) Democracy
(b) Monarchy
(c) Oligarchy
(d) Dictatorships

(D) Why are people complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy?
(a) It shows that people have developed awareness
(b) It shows people know nothing about democracy.
(c) It shows people do not enjoy democracy.
(d) It shows people want to be part of a dictatorship.

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics: they have formal constitutions, they hold elections, they have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens. While these features are common to most of them, these democracies are very different from each other in terms of their social situations, their economic achievements and their cultures. Consequently, what may be achieved or not achieved under each of these democracies will be very different.
(A) Explain the fascination for democracy amongst various countries.
Answer:
Democracies give freedom of speech, expression and religion along with promoting dignity and freedom of human beings. It provides people with a free and dignified life and reduces possibilities of social conflicts. This is why countries are fascinated with democracy.

(B) Explain democracy on the basis of expected and actual outcome.
Answer:

Question 8.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:
Source A: Accountable, responsive and legitimate government
There are some things that democracy must provide. In a democracy, we are most concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making, that affects them all.

Source B: Reduction of inequality and poverty
Perhaps more than development, it is reasonable to expect democracies to reduce economic disparities. Even when a country achieves economic growth, will wealth be distributed in such a way that all citizens of the country will have a share and lead a better life? Is economic growth in democracies accompanied by increased inequalities among the people? Or do democracies lead to a just distribution of goods and opportunities?

Source C: Dignity and freedom of the citizens In a non-democratic set up, this unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the legal and moral force there. The same is true of caste inequalities. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity. Source A: Accountable, responsive and legitimate government
(A) Define democracy in a single sentence on the basis of your reading of the given extract.
Source B: Reduction of inequality and poverty
Answer:
Democracy can be defined as a political system in which people have the right of choosing or changing their rulers who are answerable to them.

(B) What are economic disparities? Has the Indian Democracy been capable of reducing them?
Source C: Dignity and freedom of the citizens
Answer:

(C) Justify the statement with an example, “Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity.”
Answer:
It is true that democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the dis¬advantaged and discriminated castes for equal opportunity. For example, Dalits in India have been given reservations of seats in educational institutions and government jobs while 27 per cent reservation has been given to Socially and Educationally Backward Classes so that they can come up at par with the common people in the society.

Question 9.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow:
Democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of these tensions becoming explosive or violent. No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly Learn to respect these differences and we can also evolve mechanisms to negotiate the differences. Democracy is best suited to produce this outcome. Non-democratic regimes often turn a blind eye to or suppress internal social differences. Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes.
(A) Which is the best form of government to handle social differences?
Answer:
Democratic Governments are better suited to handle social differences than Non- democratic regimes.

(B) How does Democracy handle Social Differences?
Answer:
Democracy accepts, acknowledges social differences and gives less volatile mediums to express it without violence in the country. It develops its own method of competition.

(C) Suggest two ways to increase peace and harmony in a socially/communally divided country.
Answer:
Two ways to reduce differences and promote peace and harmony:

one should try to first bring total equality among all communities or social groups. No group should be preferred for any favours.
one should try to develop national unity by reminding them of shared struggles, culture and historical events.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by transparency?
Answer:
Transparency means that every citizen belonging to any democratic country has the right to information, the right to examine or investigate whether the laws, plans, action, policies or decisions taken by the government are correct or are beneficial to them or not.

Question 2.
How does democracy produce an accountable development?
Answer:
Democracy produces an accountable government by giving the citizen the right to examine the process by which decisions are made.

Question 3.
Give any one example of economic development in dictatorial regimes.
Answer:
Dictatorships have higher rates of economic growth as compared to democracies. For example, China’s growth rate is higher than most of the other democracies in the world.

Question 4.
If you want to extract information about the functions of any government department, which right would you exercise?
Answer:
I would exercise my Right to Information (RTI) to extract information about the functions of any government department.

Related Theory
The Right to Information (RTI) Act was passed by the Parliament of India to set out rules and procedures regarding citizens’ right to information. Under the provisions of this act, any citizen of India may request information from any public authority by filing a petition in the court.

Question 5.
Mention any two common features of democratic politics.
Answer;
Features of democratic politics are:

Free and fair elections are organized.
The principle of one person, one vote, one value’ is followed.
Major decisions are taken by elected leaders.
The rule of Law prevaiLs.

Related Theory
Democracy is a form of political system in which the government of a country is elected by the citizens through free and fair elections.

Question 6.
How is democracy based on political equality in India?
Answer:
In India, every citizen above 18 years of age has the right to vote. Every citizen has the right to contest elections irrespective of his/her caste, religion, creed, economic status, etc. if he/she is 21 years of age. Hence, democracy is based on political equality in India.

Related Theory
Democracy is a form of government which is for the people, of the people and by the people, it promotes equality and discourages all forms of discrimination- social, economical or political.

Question 7.
Which type of government develops mechanisms for citizens to hold the government accountable?
Answer:

Question 8.
What does this image show about the outcomes of democratic politics? Explain in your own words.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Development Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

Economics Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQs On Development

Development Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The Literacy rate of Kerala in 2011 was ……………………….
(a) 82
(b) 94
(c) 62
(d) 50
Answer:
(b) 94

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Fill in the bLank with respect to the correct criterion of comparison by choosing the most appropriate option:
Students – Height and Weight;
Countries – …………………….
(o) Number of Cities
(b) Size of the Territory
(c) Per Capita Income
(d) Population
Answer:
(c) Per Capita Income

Class 10 Development MCQ Question 3.
In which state of India is the infant mortality rate highest?
(a) Goa
(b) Bihar
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(b) Bihar

Development MCQ Class 10 Question 4.
Which one of the following actions enhances environmental degradation?
(a) Planting of trees along the roadsides.
(b) Prevention of sewage disposal into water bodies
(c) Ban on use of plastic bags.
(d) Allowing the level of exhaust fumes emitted by cars, buses, trucks, etc., to rise.
Answer:

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 MCQ Question 5.
Per capita income is:
(a) Income per State
(b) Income per Earning and Non-Earning Members of a family
(c) Income of each female in a house
(d) Income per person
Answer:
(d) Income per person

MCQ Of Development Class 10 Question 6.
What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of jobless youth?
(a) More employment opportunities
(b) More days of work and better wages
(c) Metal roads for transportation
(d) Establishment of a high school
Answer:
(a) More employment opportunities

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development MCQ Online Test Question 7.
Which one of the following is not a feature of an underdeveloped country?
(a) Agriculture as the major occupation
(b) High technological development
(c) Mass poverty
(d) Mass illiteracy
Answer:
(b) High technological development

Explanation: Any underdeveloped country does not have access to high technology because of its economic inadequacy.

Economics Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 8.
……………… will be the aspiration of a working woman.
(a) To have a garden
(b) To have a safe and secure work environment at the office.
(c) To have good job opportunities where her education can be made use of.
(d) To have better technologies that can make data storing easy.
Answer:
(b) To have a safe and secure work environment at the office.

MCQ On Development Class 10 Question 9.
For each of the sectors, that we come across we should focus on employment and:
(a) GDP
(b) GNP
(c) NNP
(d) NI
Answer:
(a) GDP

Explanation: The other quantities have been associated with the nation and not with individual sectors.

Economics Chapter 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following factors are important for development other than income? [Diksha]
(a) Per Capita Income
(b) Literacy
(c) Net Attendance Ratio
(d) All of the above
Answer:

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development MCQ With Answers Question 11.
Which of the following neighboring country of India has a higher HDI rank than India?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Nepal
(c) Pakistan
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sri Lanka

MCQ Development Class 10 Question 12.
Which of the following states has the highest literacy rate according to 2018 study reports?
(a) Haryana
(b) Bihar
(c) Punjab
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(d) Kerala

Get UML full form and full name in details.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 One Word Questions And Answers Question 13.
What is the full form of PDS?
(a) Public Distribution System
(b) Public Development System
(c) Public Division System
(d) Public discussion System
Answer:
(a) Public Distribution System

Explanation: Public Distribution System is a scheme run by the government to provide essential food grains like rice, wheat, pulses, oil at very affordable to the disadvantaged classes to ensure their healthy development.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Question 14.
…………. is an example of a renewable resource.
(a) Petroleum
(b) Crude oil
(c) Groundwater
(d) Coal resources
Answer:
(c) Groundwater

Explanation: Groundwater is a renewable resource and can be renewed through natural processes. Other renewable resources are Solar Energy, wind energy, etc.

Non-Renewable Resources, once exhausted can not be renewed naturally. For example, Coal, minerals, and petroleum.

Class 10 Eco Ch 1 MCQ Question 15.
Literacy rate measures the proportion of the Literate population in the Age group:
(a) Above 5 years
(b) Above 12 years
(c) Above 7 years
(d) Above 6 years
Answer:

Question 16.
The average income of a person is called:
(a) Total income
(b) Per capita income
(c) Gross income
(d) Per nation income
Answer:
(b) Per capita income

Explanation: The average income of a person in a country is known as per capita income. It is calculated by dividing the total income of the country by its total population.

Related Theory

The total income of a person is the sum of his income from all sources in a particular time period i.e. monthly or annually.
The value of the total goods and services produced within a country in a year is called the National income of a country.

Full form of DSLR is Digital Single-lens Reflex Camera.

Question 17.
UNDP can be expanded as:
(a) United Nations Development Programme
(b) United Nations Diversity Playground
(c) United Nations Democratic Programme
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) United Nations Development Programme

Explanation: United Nations Development Programme is a United Nations Agency that studies, looks after the development of member countries by holding annual discussions and programs. It releases a human development report where it measures various countries on scale of a few of its indicators.

Question 18.
Based on Per capita income, India comes in the category of:
(a) Middle-income group
(b) Low-income group
(c) High-income group
(d) Low middle-income group
Answer:

Question 19.
Which of the following statement defines Sustainable Development?
(a) Sustainable use of natural resources without considering the need of the future generation.
(b) Present generation fulfills its needs while considering the needs of the future generation as well.
(c) It means utilization of natural resources by the past, present and future generation.
(d) To meet the needs of the future generations even if the needs of the present generation go unmet.
Answer:
(A) Present generation fulfils its needs while considering the needs of the future generation as well.

Identify

Question 20.
Identify the object on the basis of the hints given:
(1) The resource is renewable.
(2) Its overuse is found in the agriculturally prosperous regions of Punjab and Western U.P.
Answer:
Groundwater
Correct and Rewrite

Question 21.
Rewrite the statement after correcting the underlined phrase.
A country having a high standard of living and a better environment in terms of health and safety is known as a developing country.
Answer:
A country having a high standard of living and a better environment in terms of health and safety is known as a developed country.

Fill in the Blanks

Question 22.
USA has low reserves of oil and secures it through ………………………
Answer:
Economic power.

Question 23.
Observe the source given below and answer the question that follows:

Complete the following sentence based on your observation.
The idea of …………….. can be depicted from the cartoon.

Question 24.
……………. is a new-renewable resource.
Answer:
Coal or Crude Oil

Question 25.
The present Levels of development are
Answer:
not sustainable

Question 26.
The number of deaths of children less than one year of age per 1000 live births is referred as ………….
Answer:
Infant mortality rate (IMR).

Question 27.
One of the best ways to reduce over-usage of groundwater is …………
Answer:
Implementation of stringent policies to control misuse of water.

Question 28.
……………… is an example of renewable resource.
Answer:
Groundwater

Explanation: Renewable resource are replenished by nature as in the case of crops and plants. However even these resources may be overused. Groundwater is renewable but highly overused in states of Punjab, Haryana and Western UP.

Question 29.
Human Development Index (HDI) in India can be improved through ……………….
Answer:
(1) Provision of free educational facilities for children up to 16 years of age to improve literacy rate.
(2) Provision of better and more robust health care services.
(Mention any 1)

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 30.
Choose the incorrect option from Column A and Column B.

Column A (Category of person)	Column B (Developmental goats/Aspirations)
(a) Landless rural Labourers	(i) More days of work and better wages
(b) Prosperous farmers from Punjab	(ii) Availability of other sources of irrigation
(c) Farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops	(iii) Assured higher support prices for their crops
(d) A rural woman from a Land- owning family	(iv) Regular job and high wages to increase her income

Answer:
(c) Farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops (iii) Assured higher support prices for their crops.

Explanation: A large amount of water is required for the cultivation of crops of the farmers, who are primarily dependent on rain. Hence, their primary need is the availability of irrigation facilities to support their crops in the absence of rain.

Question 31.
Match the countries given with their HDI Rank according to Human Development Report, UNDP, 2018.

Column A	Column B
(a) Sri Lanka	(i) 150
(b) India	(ii) 149
(c) Pakistan	(iii) 130
(d) Nepal	(iv) 76

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Sri Lanka	(iv) 76
(b) India	(iii) 130
(c) Pakistan	(i) 150
(d) Nepal	(ii) 149

Explanation: Human Development Report published by UNDP annually compares countries based on the educational levels of the people their health status and per capita income. It calculates a cumulative score by measuring GNI. life expectancy at birth and mean years of schooling (literacy and accessibility to educational facilities). All member countries are compared and ranks are given according to their score. Higher rank means greater human development.

Question 32.
Choose the correctly matched option from the following:

Column I (Category of person)	Column II (Development goat)
(a) Farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops	More days of work and better wages
(b) Landless rural Labourers	Higher support prices for their crops
(c) Prosperous farmers from Punjab	Regular wages
(d) An adivosi from Narmada volley	To fulfill Livelihood

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Economics Chapter 1

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): Increase in population, urbanization and industrialization lead to increased use for fossil fuels.
Reason (R): Overuse of conventional energy resources has resulted in the phenomenon of greenhouse effect.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 34.
Assertion (A): Groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country.
Reason (R): About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20 years.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Development involves thinking about the ways in which we can work towards achieving goals of holistic growth.
Reason (R): Holistic growth is economic growth.
Answer:

Question 36.
Assertion (A): Kerala has a better net attendance ratio than Bihar.
Reason (R): Kerala has less female children than Bihar hence the attendance ratio is better.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Kerala has better infrastructure and educational facilities for students. This makes it easier to attend school and study.

Question 37.
Assertion (A): People not only think of better income but also have goals such as security, respect for others, equal treatment, freedom, etc. in mind.
Reason (R): Money cannot buy everything.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
The given picture shows an overuse of which of the following resources?

(a) Soil
(b) Air
(c) Woman Power
(d) Groundwater
Answer:
(d) Groundwater

Question 2.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
The idea of development or progress has always been with us. We have aspirations or desires about what we would like to do and how we would like to live. Similarly, we have ideas about what a country should be like. Which of the following is the right replacement for the underlined sentence?
(a) We have community goals.
(b) We have occupational goals.
(c) We have developmental goals.
(d) We have society goals.
Answer:
(c) We have developmental goals.

Question 3.
Match the items in Column A to that of Column B and choose the right option:

Column A	Column B
(A) Girl in an urban family	(I) Regular wages and more job days
(B) A minister	(II) Equal opportunities just like her brother
(C) A laborer	(III) More profit, more projects
(D) A businessman	(IV) More votes

(a) (A)-(II),(B)-(IV),(C)-(I),(D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(III),(B)-(IV),(C)-(II),(D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III),(B)-(I),(C)-(IV),(D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(I),(B)-(III),(C)-(II),(D)-(I)
Answer:
(a) (A)-(II),(B)-(IV),(C)-(I),(D)-(III)

Question 4.
Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

What could be the development goal for the shown area?
Answer:

Question 5.
Study the picture given below. Ident fy an appropriate developmental goal foe the characters.

Answer:
An appropriate developmental goal for the poor lady would be to have a stable job and affordable house for her small family. For the rich man, his developmental goal can be more opportunities for profit and investment from foreign countries, more luxurious Life or even a bigger car.

Question 6.
Study the table and answer the question tnat follows :

Sources: Economic Survey, 2017-18 VoL 2, Government of India; National Sample Survey Organisation (Report No. 575)
In comparison to Kerala, which state has the highest infant mortality rate ?
Answer:
Bihar
Explanation: As Bihar lacks health and proper education facilities, the mortality rate is highest there.

Question 7.
Study the table and answer the question that follows:

Which State has the lowest net attendance ratio at the secondary stage?
Answer:
Bihar

Explanation: The table shows the lowest statistics for net attendance ratio in Bihar.

Related Theory
Net attendance ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school as a percentage of the total number of children in the same age group.

Question 8.
Based on the data given in the following table, calculate the average income for both countries:

Which country has more equitable distribution of income?
Answer:

Question 9.
Study the statistics in the table and answer the question that follows:

Calculate the average income of the family.
Answer:
₹10,000

Explanation: Average Income of the family: 7,000 + 8,000 + 10,000 + 15,000 = 40,000
Sum of incomes = 40,000

Answer:

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
A vessel dumped 500 tonnes of liquid toxic wastes into open-air dumps in a city and in the surrounding sea. This happened in a city called Abidjan in Ivory Coast, a country in Africa. The fumes from the highly toxic waste caused nausea, skin rashes, fainting, diarrhoea etc. After a month seven persons were dead, twenty in hospital and twenty six thousand treated for symptoms of poisoning. A multinational company dealing in petroleum and metals had contracted a local company of the Ivory Coast to dispose the toxic waste from its ship.
(A) Which of the following would be an ideal goal for natives of Abidjan?
(a) Free Healthcare, healthier environ-ment.
(b) More space
(c) More houses
(d) More factories and hence more jobs
Answer:
(a) Free Healthcare, healthier environment.

(B) Which of the following would be an ideal goal for the multinational company?
(I) More money
(II) To get rid of its waste without having to pay for its disposal.
(III) More employees
(IV) More profit
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (III) only
(d) (I) (II) & (IV)
Answer:

(D) Assertion (A): Different people may have different and conflicting interests.
Reason (R): They belong to different continents.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Once it is realised that even though the level of income is important, yet it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other criteria. There could be a long list of such criteria but then it would not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health and education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Haryana, are among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development For instance, the Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income. It would be interesting to look at certain relevant data regarding India and its neighbours from the Human Development Report 2019.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following countries has a better rank than India in Human Development Report for 2018?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(b) Sri Lanka

Explanation: Sri Lanka is at rank 76 while India is at rank 130.

(B) Which of the following criteria is common in the assessment of development in the reports of the World Bank and UNDP?
(a) Educational levels
(b) Health Status
(c) Gold Reserves
(d) Per Capita Income
Answer:
(d) Per Capita Income

(D) Which of the Asian country is lower in HDI?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(b) Pakistan
Explanation: Pakistan is at rank 150 according to the list of 2018.

Question 12.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 metres during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the country is overusing their groundwater reserves. In another 25 years,
60 per cent of the country would be doing the same if the present way of using this resource continues. Groundwater overuse is particularly found in the agriculturally prosperous regions of Punjab and Western U.P., hard rock plateau areas of central and south India, some coastal areas and the rapidly growing urban settlements.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following resources are renewable but excessively used?
(a) Solar Energy
(b) Wind Energy
(c) Air
(d) Trees
Answer:
(d) Trees
Explanation: Trees are heavily deforested and uprooted for various industrial and construction projects.

(B) What proportion of the country is over using their groundwater reserves?
(a) One-Fourth
(b) One-Third
(c) One-Tenth
(d) One-Eighth
Answer:
(b) One-Third

(C) Which of the following options is a reason for Groundwater overuse?
(I) Usage at homes
(II) Usage at Agricultural sites
(III) Watering plants
(IV) Pollution through chemicals and solid wastes
(V) Drinking
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (IV)
(c) (III), (IV) & (V)
(d) (I), (II) & (IV)
Answer:

(D) Which of the following is a solution to prevent Groundwater overuse?
(a) Stop drinking groundwater
(b) Stop irrigating plants and crops
(c) Rainwater harvesting
(d) Use river water for domestic usage
Answer:
(c) Rainwater harvesting

Question 13.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Do all of these persons have the same notion of development or progress? Most likely not. Each one of them seeks different things. They seek things that are most important for them, i.e., that which can fulfil their aspirations or desires. In fact, at times, two persons or groups of persons may seek things which are conflicting. A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother, and that he also shares in the household work. Her brother may not like this. Similarly, to get more electricity, industrialists may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people who are displaced – such as tribals. They might resent this and may prefer small check dams or tanks to irrigate their land. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which one of the following is a developmental goal for labour unions?
(a) To get labour rules which benefit the labourers if implemented
(b) To get more buildings made
(c) To get more electricity
(d) To get more money
Answer:
(a) To get labour rules which benefit the labourers if implemented

(B) which of the following statements is correct about developmental goals?
(a) They are the same for all the citizens of a country.
(b) They are different and sometimes even contradictory for different groups and people.
(c) There are no developmental goals.
(d) These goals do not matter.
Answer:

(C) What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a native craftsman?
(a) Expansion of rural banking
(b) More days of work and better wages
(c) Metal roads for transportation
(d) More demand of local and handmade goods
Answer:
(d) More demand of local and handmade goods

(D) Which two groups have conflicting interests according to the source?
(a) The girls and the boy
(b) The tribals and the industrialists
(c) Companies fighting for one project
(d) The tribals against one another
Answer:
(b) The tribals and the industrialists

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Suggest any one way to create employment in Semi-rural areas.
Answer:
Capacity building and establishing of food processing units in Semi Rural areas can help create employment in Semi-Rural areas.

Question 2.
State any two goals of development other than Income.
Answer:
Values like Peace and Freedom; Healthy environment.

Question 3.
Why does Kerala have a Low Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
Availability of Healthcare and medical facilities helps it have a low mortality rate.

Question 4.
What is the development goal of rural people of India as per your viewpoint?
Answer:
To have access to better resources like food, transportation and communication facilities.

Question 5.
What is the advantage of knowing per capita income? Mention any one.
Answer:
Knowing per capita income for a country helps to compare and analyze wealth of different countries and measure their,. economic development. It can be used as a measure of nation’s standard of living.

Question 6.
What is the full form of HDI?
Answer:
Human Development Index.

Question 7.
According to the World Bank (2004), which country would be classified as a low income country?
Answer:

Question 8.
If there are 4 families in a country with per capita income of 15,000 $. The income of 3 families is $10,000, $ 20,000 and $12,000. What is the income of the 4th family?
Answer:
Per Capita Income = Average Income = Sum of income of all units/Total units
= 10,000 + 20,000 + 12,000 + A/4 = 15,000
= 15,000 x 4 = 10,000+20,000+12,000 + A
= 60,000 – (10,000 + 20,000 + 12,000 + A)
A = 60,000 – 42,000
A = Rs. 18,000

Question 9.
“There is enough for everybody’s need but not for everybody’s greed.” Who said these words? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 10.
Why do some people oppose dams? Give one reason.
Answer:
Displacement of homes, destruction of natural habitat makes adivasis in India oppose the construction of dams.

Question 11.
How can development be made sustainable? Illustrate with examples from everyday life.
Answer:
Development can be made sustainable if the existing resources are used in a planned manner. Emphasis should be developing renewable sources of energy and recycling of metals.

Question 12.
Define the term ‘literacy rate’.
Answer:

Question 13.
Defirle the term ‘Uteracy rate’.
Answer:

Question 14.
What may be one of the developmental goals of a girl who belongs to a rich urban family? [CBSE 2019,14,11]
Answer:
the developmental goals of a girl who belongs to a rich urban family may be getting the same freedom as her brother, pursue higher studies and a high standard of living.

Related Theory
A development goal is a target or an aim that a person wants to achieve by developing himself/ herself. Alt people have different development goals according to the situation they are in or the work they do.

Question 15.
How can two people have different developmental goals ? [CBSE 2018]
Answer:
Different people have different developmental goals because people come from different backgrounds and have different dreams and aspirations.

Related Theory
People set their goals according to the changing circumstances and the prevailing situation and may also change the goal with the change in situation which could be contradictory to the previous goal.

Question 16.
Define IMR.
Answer:
The number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that particular year, is called infant mortality rate or IMR.

Question 17.
What may be one of the developmental goals of b rich farmer? [CBSE 2019,15]
Answer:
The developmental goals of a rich farmer might be gaining high profits on the produce or availability of cheap labour to work in the farm.

Question 18.
Define the term ‘per capita income’.
Answer:
Per capita income is calculated as the average income of a citizen of a country. Per capita Income = total income of a country/total population

Question 19.
What may be a developmental goal of farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops?
Answer:
The development goal of a farmer who is only dependent on rain for growing crop, would be a good and sufficient monsoon season so that his crops get the required irrigation and he can benefit from the good produce.

Related Theory
Developmental goal is a target or an aim that a person wants to achieve by developing himself/ herself. All people have different development goals according to the situation they are in or the work they do.

Question 20.
Mention the formula to calculate the BMI (Body Mass Index).
Answer:
BMI: (BODY MASS INDEX)
Weight of person in kg and height in metres is taken. Divide the weight by the square of the height.

Question 21.
What may be a developmental goal of the urban unemployed youth? [CBSE 2019,12]
Answer:
The development goal of an urban unemployed youth would be to find a good job and earn a decent wage with that work. He/she will aspire to maintain a good standard of living.

Question 22.
What criteria does UNDP compare to measure the human development index?
Answer:
UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income.

Related Theory
UNDP compares countries based on these aspects and prepares a Human Development Report.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Economics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 21, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

History Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQs On The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following countries was not a united nation-state when Frederic Sorrieu painted “Democratic and Social Republics”?
(a) Switzerland
(b) Sicily
(c) Ireland
(d) Germany
Answer:
(d) Germany

Explanation: In Sorrieu’s painting, nations were represented through a group of citizens bearing their respective nation’s symbols. Germany was shown reaching towards the Statue of Liberty as a nation but the country was comprised of a group of divided German¬speaking principalities in 1848.

She attained the status of a united nation¬state in 1871.

Related Theory
Switzerland was already a liberal nation-state and led the procession of states along with the USA. Ireland and Sicily were behind Germany in the procession. They were united as a nation but had not attained liberty by 1848.

Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following statements is true about nation-states?
(a) Citizens share a common sense of shared identity or history.
(b) Nation-state is a state ruled by one absolute ruler.
(c) Commonness is forged through linguistic factors only.
(d) Nation-States are directly ruled by people and based on the heterogenization of society.
Answer:

Class 10 History Chapter 1 MCQ Question 3.
Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi – Britain
(b) Otto Von Bismarck – Italy
(c) Friedrich Wilhelm IV – Germany
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini – Italy
Answer:
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini – Italy

Explanation: Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary who struggled to unify Italy and set up secret societies in order to achieve that His efforts were however in vain.

Related Theory
Correctly matched pairs: Giuseppe Garibaldi was one of the most celebrated of Italian freedom fighters. He led his volunteers to win several wars in order to unify Italy.

Otto Von Bismarck was the Prussian chief minister who took up the task of unifying Italy along with his bureaucracy and army.

Friedrich Wilhelm IV was the King of Prussia who opposed the elected assembly after Frankfurt Parliament.

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe MCQ Question 4.
Fill in the blank by choosing the right answer from the options given below:
Bohemia: German, Galicia:
(a) Magyar
(b) French
(c) Polish
(d) Russian
Answer:
(c) Polish

Explanation: Eastern and Central Europe was divided into multipLe autocratic monarchies where ethnically and culturally diverse people resided. They spoke different languages and did not share a sense of collective identity.

The aristocratic class of Bohemia spoke German predominantly. The aristocratic class of Galicia was majorly Polish-speaking.

Related Theory
Magyar was spoken in Hungary.

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of nationalism?
(a) French Revolution
(b) Russian Revolution
(c) Glorious Revolution
(d) The Revolution of Liberals
Answer:

Class 10 History Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
A custom union that was formed in 1834 at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the German states was called:
(a) Zollverein
(b) Plebiscite
(c) Utopian
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Zollverein

Related Theory
Plebiscite means a direct vote which gives power to the people of a region to accept or reject a proposal. Utopian means an imaginary ideal society that principally does not exist.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 History Chapter 1 Question 7.
Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
(a) Otto Von Bismarck – Germany
(b) Napoleon – Spain
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi – France
(d) Bourbon Kings – Italy
Answer:
(a) Otto Von Bismarck – Germany

Explanation: Otto Von Bismarck, was the Chief Minister of Prussia Germany. He was the architect of the process of unification of Germany, which was carried out with the help of the Prussian army and bureaucracy.

Related Theory

Corrected pairs:
Napoleon – France
Guissepe Garibaldi – Italy
Bourbon Kings – Spain

History Chapter 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 8.
Which one of the following claimed that true German culture was discovered among the common people-das volk?
(a) Karol Karpinski
(b) Louis Philippe
(c) CarlWelcker
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder
Answer:
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder

Explanation: Johann Gottfried Herder was a German Philosopher.

Related Theory
Louis Philippe was the constitutional monarch of France and his reign was known as July monarchy as he came in power after the July Revolution of 1830. Karol Karpinski was a polish music composer.

Carl Welcker was a liberal politician and an elected member of the Frankfurt Parliament which convened in the Church of St. Paul on 18 May 1848.

Ch 1 History Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
Which among the following best signifies the idea of liberal nationalism of nineteenth-century Europe?
(a) Emphasis on social justice
(b) State planned socio-economic system
(c) Freedom for individual and equality before law
(d) Supremacy of state oriented nationalism.
Answer:

History Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 10.
In 1789, France was a full-fledged territorial state under the rule of which of the following:
(a) A Federal Republic
(b) An Absolute Monarch
(c) A Democratic Ruler
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) An Absolute Monarch

Explanation: Louis XVI, a Bourbon King was an absolute monarch in France in 1789.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Chapter 1 Question 11.
“When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”. Who among the following said this popular line ?
(a) Giseppe Mazzini
(b) Metternich
(c) Otto Von Bismarck
(d) Guiseppe Garibaldi
Answer:

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ With Answers Pdf Question 12.
Who among the following was proclaimed as the first German Emperor in 1871?
(a) William I
(b) William II
(c) Friendrich William I
(d) Friedrich William II
Answer:
(a) William I

Explanation: In January 1871, the Prussian king, William I, was proclaimed the first German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.

MCQ For Class 10 History Chapter 1 With Answers Question 13.
Study the picture and answer the question that follows:
Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of Germania?
(a) Heroism and Justice
(b) Folk and Cultural Tradition
(c) Austerity and Asceticism
(d) Revenge and Vengeance

Answer:
(a) Heroism and Justice

MCQ Of Chapter 1 History Class 10 With Answers Question 14.
Which of the following reform/s was/were introduced by Napoleon?
(a) Standardized system of weights and measures
(b) A common national currency
(c) Abolition of the feudal system
(d) All of the above
Answer:

The Rise Of Nationalism In Europe Class 10 MCQ With Answers Pdf Download Question 15.
Which one of the following attributes stands for ‘Willingness to make peace’?
(a) Breastplate with eagle
(b) Olive branch around the sword
(c) Broken chain
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Olive branch around the sword

Explanation: An olive branch symbolises peace and the sword symbolises readiness to light but together an olive branch around the sword symbolises willingness to make peace.

Related Theory
Breastplate with eagle stands for ‘symbol of German empire-strength’ while broken chain refers to ‘Being freed’

Question 16.
which of the following was NOT visualized by Frederic Sorrieu in his first print of series of four prints made up of ‘Democratic and the Social Republic’?
(a) The people of America and Europe-men and women of all ages
(b) Social classes marching in a long train
(c) Offering homage to the Statue of Unity
(d) All of these
Answer:

Question 17.
He was described as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’ by Metternich. Who was he?
(a) Lord Byron
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Garibaldi
(d) Napoleon
Answer:
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini

Explanation: Mozzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened the conservatives in Europe and so was described as the ‘most dangerous enemy of our social order’ by Metternich-chancellor of Austria who himself was a conservative.

Question 18.
Which one of the following was NOT among the symbols of the new Britain when a new ‘British nation’ was forged through the propagation of a dominant English culture?
(a) Union Jack
(b) God Save Our Noble King
(c) English Language
(d) Irish Language
Answer:
(d) Irish Language

Explanation: Union Jack-the British flag. God Save Our Noble King-the national anthem and the English language were actively promoted after the United Kingdom was formed. Whereas scotland and Ireland became subordinate partners of the united kingdom.

Question 19.
The French Revolution artists used the female allegory to portray which of the following ideas?
(a) Liberty
(b) Justice
(c) Republic
(d) ALL of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 20.
In visual representations, who wears a crown of oak Leaves?
(a) Marianne
(b) Germania
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Germania

Explanation: Germania wearing a crown of oak [earns symbolizing heroism became the allegory of the German nation white Marianne was of France.

Question 21.
A government or system of rute that has no restraints on the powers exercised is called:
(a) Absolutist
(b) Utopian
(c) Democratic
(d) Conservatist
Answer:

Question 22.
Sorrieus vision of society which is so idealistic that it is unLikeLy to exist is called
(a) Utopian
(b) Democratic
(c) AbsoLutist
(d) Conservatist
Answer:
(a) Utopian

Explanation: Utopian Vision of French Artists was so ¡deal- so perfect and unadulterated that it was impossible to find such a vision to materialise in reality.

Related Theory
Absolutism is a type of governance or system of rute that has no restraints on the power exercised.
Democracy is the supremacy of will of common people, government ¡s run by representatives chosen by common people.

Conservatism is a patitical philosophy that stressed the importance of tradition, established institutions and customs and preferred gradual development to quick change.

Question 23.
Arrange the following events of world history in increasing order of their date of occurrence
(i) Unification of Italy
(ii) Vienna Peace Settlement
(iii) Napoleonic wars begin
(iv) Unification of Germany
Options:
(a) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
(b) (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i)
(c) (ii)-(i)-(iii)-(iv)
(d) (iii)-(ii)-(i)-(iv)
Answer:

Question 24.
Choose the INCORRECT option from column A and column B.

Column A	Column B
(a) Frederic Sorrieu	(i) A British Artist
(b) Bismarck	(ii) Unification of Germany
(c) Lord Byron	(iii) An English poet
(d) Karol Karpinski	(iv) A Polish music composer

Answer:
(a) Frederic Sorrieu-(i) A British Artist

Explanation: Frederic Sorrieu was a French Artist.

Related Theory:
In 1848, Frederic Sameu prepared a series of four prints visualizing his dream of a world made up of Democratic and Social Republics

Question 25.
Choose the CORRECT option from column A and column B.

Column A	Column B
(a) Absolutist	(i) A vision of society
(b) Utopian	(ii) A form of government
(c) Plebiscite	(iii) A system of direct vote
(d) Suffrage	(iv) A system of holding election

Answer:
(c) Plebiscite – (iii) A system of direct vote

Explanation: (a, b, and d are incorrect)
A plebiscite is a system of direct voting by which all the people of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal.

Related Theory
Absolutist refers to a form of monarchial government or system of rule that has no restraints on the power exercised
Utopian means a vision of society that is so ideal that it is unlikely to actually exist.
Suffrage refers to the right to vote.

Question 26.
Which one of the following statements if asle regarding the Act of Union 1707 ?
(a) It was an agreement between England and Scotland.
(b) It was an agreement between England and Ireland.
(c) It resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Gret Britain’.
(d) It gave England control over Scotland.
Answer:
(b) It was an agreement between England and Ireland.

Explanation: England was unified through an Act called the Act of Union 1707 passed by the English Parliament. This Act forged a union between England and Scotland. England gained supremacy and suppressed Scottish identity through its political, economic and diplomatic power. Ireland was joined later in 1801, after revolts from Irish Catholics.

Question 27.
Which among the following was the main reason for the weavers to revolt against contractors in Silesia, in 1845 ?
(a) Contractors reduced their payments drastically.
(b) They stopped the supply of raw materials to them.
(c) They refused to place orders for finished textiles.
(d) Condition of weavers was very pitiable.
Answer:

Question 28.
Which one of the following states was ruled by an Italian princely house before unification of Italy ?
(a) Kingdom of Two Sicilies
(b) Lombardy
(c) Venetia
(d) Sardinia-Piedmont
Answer:
(d) Sardinia-Piedmont

Explanation: Italy was divided into seven states/principalities. Sardinia-Piedmont was the only one ruled by an Italian princely house.

Related Theory
Venetia and Lombardy located in the north were under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by the Pope and the southern regions (the two kingdoms of Sicily were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain.

Question 29.
Which one of the following is not true about the female allegory of France ?
(a) She was named Marianne.
(b) She took part in the French Revolution.
(c) She was a symbol of national unity.
(d) Her characteristic were drawn from those of Liberty and the Republic.
Answer:
(b) She took part in the French Revolution.

Explanation: French Allegory Marianne was a symbolical figure which represented the country of France. She was not a human but a symbol and hence she did not take part in the French Revolution.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given in each question.

Question 30.
Identify the personalities:
(1) They were two brothers who studied law, they soon developed an interest in collecting old folktales.
(2) They spent six years traveling from village to village, talking to people and writing down fairy tales.
(3) They also published a 33-volume dictionary of the German language.
Answer:
Jacob and Wilhelm Grimm

Explanation: They were born in Germany and published Grimm’s Fairy Tales for Children.

Question 31.
Identify the personality :
(1) He was an Austrian Chancellor.
(2) He hosted the Congress of Vienna.
(3) He said “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”.
Answer:
Duke Metternich

Explanation: He was the Austrian Chancellor and believed that conservative order was the best type of government to rule and unify the state.

Question 32.
Identify the class:
(1) They owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses.
(2) They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society.
(3) Their families were often connected by ties of marriage.
Answer:

Correct and Rewrite/True-False
State whether the statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement:

Question 33.
Germania wears red cap, the tricolour, the cockade.
Answer:
False

Germania became the allegory of the German nation and wears a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.

Explanation: Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries personified nations and basic values of liberty, truth, justice through female figures. These were called female allegories. Germania was the allegory of Germany. She wears crown of German Oak leaves which stands for Heroism.

Question 34.
Napoleon abolished the feudal system in various parts of Europe.
Answer:

Question 35.
Louise Otto-Peters was a political activist who founded a women’s journal and subsequently a feminist social union.
Answer:
Louise Otto-Peters was a political activist who founded a woman’s journal and subsequently a feminist political association.

Question 36.
The Bourbon kings who had been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815 were now overthrown by radical conservatives.
Answer:
The Bourbon kings who had been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815 were now overthrown by liberal revolutionaries.

Question 37.
The 1830s were years of great political uprising in Europe.
Answer:
The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 38.
The most serious source of nationalist tension in South-eastern Europe after 1871 was in the area called…………………
Answer:

Question 39.
The German philosopher ……….. claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people-das volk.
Answer:
Johann Gottfried Herder

Question 40.
Name the term used for the countries to the east of the Mediterranean, usually referring to Asia.
Answer:
Orient

Explanation: Western countries see this region as pre-modern, traditional and mysterious. The name Orient also means the same.

Question 41.
Giuseppe Mazzini was a revolutionary from
Answer:
Italy

Question 42.
……………….. mobilized nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe.
Answer:

Question 43.
Read the source given:
The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.

Answer the question.
Vienna Peace Settlement was signed in ……………………

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 44.
Match the following symbols from column A with their meanings from column B.

Column A (Symbols)	Column B (Meanings)
(a) Broken chains	(i) Heroism
(b) Sword	(ii) Being freed
(c) Crown of oak leaves	(iii) Symbol of the German empire strength
(d) Breastplate with eagle	(iv) Readiness to fight

Answer:

Column A (Symbols)	Column B (Meanings)
(a) Broken chains	(ii) Being freed
(b) Sword	(iv) Readiness to fight
(c) Crown of oak leaves	(i) Heroism
(d) Breastplate with eagle	(iii) Symbol of the German empire strength

Question 45.
Match the following famous personalities from column A with their actions from column B.

Column A (Personalities)	Column B (Their Actions)
(a) Friedrich Wilhelm IV	(i) Organised funds and went to fight in the war
(b) Louise Otto-Peters	(ii) Proclaimed man-the stronger and woman-the weaker
(c) Carl Weicker	(iii) Founded a women’s journal
(d) Lord Byron	(iv) Joined other monarchs to oppose the elected assembly

Answer:

Question 46.
Match the following years from column A with important events from column B.

Column A (Years)	Column B (important Events)
(a) 1707	(i) Ireland was incorporated into the UK
(b) 1801	(ii) The Act of Union
(c) 1821	(iii) William-I The Prussian King
(d) 1871	(iv) Greek struggle for independence begins

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 History Chapter 1

In each of the following questions, a statemant of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 47.
Assertion (A): Serfdom and bonded Labour were aboLished in Habsburg dominion and Russia.
Reason (R): Monarchs had realised that revolution could be resisted only by granting concessions to liberal- nationalist rebels.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: To curb repression and threats of revolution, autocratic monarchies of Europe (central and eastern) began to introduce changes and concessions to lure the rebels. Thus, both serfdom and bonded labour were abolished and they were treated better.

Question 48.
Assertion (A): The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial one within the Liberal movement.
Reason (R): Women were considered inferior and dependent upon men by the society, despite their enthusiastic performance in Liberal Movement.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 49.
Assertion (A): In the years after 1848, the autocratic monarchies of Central and Eastern Europe began to introduce the changes that had already taken place in Western Europe before 1815.
Reason(R): Napoleon won over Europe once again.
Answer:

Question 50.
Assertion (A): Nationalism, aligned with imperialism, led Europe to disaster in 1914.
Reason(R): Many countries in the world which had been colonized by the European powers in the nineteenth century began to oppose imperial domination.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The aspirations of Russia, Germany, England, Austro-Hungary about extending their own control over more area led to the first World War in 1914 which was the disaster being mentioned in the assertion. Though the imperial domination of Britain was opposed, it gained momentum after the First World War ended.

Question 51.
Assertion (A): The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the Greeks which began in 1831.
Reason(R): Greece was suffering under subjugation of the Ottoman Empire.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Which of the following statements stands true about the Statue of Liberty?
(I) The Statue of Liberty holds the torch of Enlightenment and bears the Charter of Rights of Man in her hand.
(II) Frederic Sorrieu painted the statue of Liberty and Statue of Republic in his “Democratic and Social Republics.”
(III) The Statue of Liberty is situated in France.
(IV) The Statue of Liberty is allegorical representation of value of Liberty.
(a) (I) & (III) only
(b) (I) & (IV) only
(c) (II), (III) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(b) (I) & (IV) only

Explanation: Statue of Liberty is situated in Liberty Island, USA and was painted in Sorrieu’s painting titled “Democratic and Social Republics” of 1848 as an allegorical representation of Liberty. She holds the torch of Enlightenment and the Charter of the Rights of Man in her hands.

Nations were shown marching towards it with aspirations of attaining liberty and a status of nation-state.

Question 2.
Read the source and answer the question that follows:
The members of this class were united by a common way of life that cut across regional divisions. They owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses. They spoke French for purposes of diplomacy and in high society. Their families were often connected by ties of marriage.
Identify the class mentioned in the source given above:
(a) Aristocratic Class
(b) Peasant Class
(c) Nobility
(d) Capitalist class
Answer:
(a) Aristocratic Class
Explanation: Landed aristocracy was a dominant class in Europe and were rich since they owned their fields and others cultivated these fields for them. They were numerically small.

Related Theory:
Nobility or the ruler class did not own farmlands and the peasant class cultivated the fields of aristocrats. They were tenants and did not own the lands upon which they worked hard.

Question 3.
Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Column A	Column B
(A) Tready of Constantinople	(I) 1815
(B) Vienna Peace Settlement	(II) 1832
(C) Ceremony at Versailles	(III) 1707
(D) Act of Union	(IV) 1871

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D) -(III)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:

Question 4.
Study the picture and answer the question that follows.

Explain as to what does this image of‘The courier of Rhineland’ say about Napoleon?
Answer:
This picture shows the loss of territories under Napoleon after his defeat at Battle of Leipzig in 1813.

Explanation: Napoleon in this picture is shown as a postman on his way back to France after he lost the battle of Leipzig in 1813. Each letter dropping out of his bag shows the names of the territories he lost after this battle.

Question 5.
Which of the following statements stand true for the nation of Poland?
(I) Poland was partitioned in eighteenth century.
(II) With the end of Poland, the sentiments of nationalism among the Polish people ended as well.
(III) Karl Kurpinski was a polish artist.
(IV) Poland was ruled over by Russia and Polish language was used as a weapon of struggle against Russian Dominance.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (IV) only
(c) (I), (III) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I), (III) & (IV) only

Explanation: Polish nationalism was preserved and continuously promoted through music and language by its artists and revolutionaries. Poland was given to Russia after Vienna Peace Settlement.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Other Romantics such as the German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder (1744¬1803) claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people – das volt It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation (volksgeist) was popularised. So collecting and recording these forms of folk culture was essential to the project of nation¬building. The emphasis on vernacular language and the collection of local folklore was not just to recover an ancient national spirit, but also to carry the modern nationalist message to large audiences who were mostly illiterate.
(A) Which of the following statement best describes the Romantic Movement?
(a) It was about the emotions of patriotism towards one’s state.
(b) It was a cultural movement which sought to develop nationalist sentiments.
(c) It was a literary movement to focus on vernacular languages.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:

(B) Who among the following celebrated nationalism through opera music?
(a) Garibaldi
(b) Grimm Brothers
(c) Karol Kurpinski
(d) Mazzini
Answer:
(c) Karol Kurpinski

(C) Define Volksgeist.
Answer:
Volksgeist is the spirit of nation a set of intellectual, moral and cultural traits that define nations.

(D) Assertion (A): It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation was popularised.
Reason(R): Recording these forms of foIk culture was essential to the project of nation-building.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The first half of the nineteenth century saw an enormous increase in population all over Europe. In most countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment. Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums. Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England, where industrialisation was more advanced than on the continent.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following revolutions were caused due to economic reasons?
(a) The Liberal Revolution
(b) Revolution of Silesian weavers
(c) Greek War of Independence
(d) Germany’s war with Austria
Answer:
(b) Revolution of Silesian weavers

Explanation: Silesian weavers in 1845, revolted against their contractors because despite ordering them and supplying them with raw materials, they had reduced their payments drastically.

(B) Who ruled France in 1830s and was forced to flee after unemployment caused workers to revolt on roads?
(a) King Emmanuel II
(b) King William I
(c) King Louis Philippe
(d) King Wilhelm (2)
Answer:
(c) King Louis Philippe

Explanation: King Louis Philippe had to flee when the revolutions started getting more frequent and violent. He ruled France up till 1848.

(C) Which right was guaranteed after the people came out on roads to revolt in France in 1830s?
(a) Right to work and vote
(b) Right to strike
(c) Right to elect their king
(d) Right to choose their profession
Answer:

(D) Why were the 1830s years of great economic hardship in Europe?
(a) Industrial Revolution had created less economic opportunities than expected.
(b) Workers were on a strike hence industries were closed.
(c) Population had risen exponentially and job opportunities were less.
(d) Aristocratic class had snatched the jobs of worker class.
Answer:

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The model of the nation or the nation-state, some scholars have argued, is Great Britain. In Britain the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or revolution. It was the result of a long-drawn- out process. There was no British nation prior to the eighteenth century. The primary identities of the people who inhabited the British Isles were ethnic ones – such as English, Welsh, Scot or Irish. All of these ethnic groups had their own cultural and political traditions. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following statements stands true about the process of unification of Britain:
(a) The process was a result of thirty year long war between people of different ethnicities in which only the English remained unscathed.
(b) The process was a political struggle.
(c) The unification was achieved through political and social subjugation of various ethnicities by the English.
(d) The unification was based on attack and conquer plan by the king of England.
Answer:
(c) The unification was achieved through political and social subjugation of various ethnicities by the English.

Explanation: English suppressed the Irish and Scottish ethnic identities through its political, social and territorial supremacy and forced them in a union.

(B) which of the following statements stands true for England?
(I) England was a powerful nation and its world domination was on the basis of the nation’s pride.
(II) England was economically very strong and brought Scotland under its debt.
(III) The United Kingdom of Great Britain was forged through an act in 1807 and it joined England and Scotland.
(IV) England and Scotland together suppressed Ireland to bring it under their union.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III) only
(c) 0) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:

(C) England was a kingdom before the English Parliament snatched powers in 1688. Fill in the blank choosing the most appropriate answer:
(a) Republican
(b) Monarchical
(c) Democratic
(d) Directly ruled
Answer:

(D) Who was the allegory of Britain?
(a) Britannica
(b) Alexandria
(c) Britannia
(d) Melania
Answer:
(c) Britannia

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
In 1867, Garibaldi led an army of volunteers to Rome to fight the last obstacle to the unification of Italy, the Papal States where a French garrison was stationed. The Red Shirts proved to be no match for the combined French and Papal troops. It was only in 1870 when, during the war with Prussia, France withdrew its troops from Rome that the Papal States were finally joined to Italy.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Who was Garibaldi?
(a) Chief Minister of Italy
(b) King of Sardinia-Piedmont
(c) A Revolutionary who established Young Italy and Young Europe secret Societies.
(d) A freedom fighter who helped Cavour to unify Italy.
Answer:

(B) What was the Young Italy Movement related to?
(a) Freedom of Italy from the subjugating rule of the Ottoman rulers.
(b) A mission to educated the Youth of Italy.
(c) A mission to hold elections in Italy for the first time
(d) Unification of Italy since it was divided into various states.
Answer:
(d) Unification of Italy since it was divided into various states.

Explanation: Italy was divided into various principalities and each was ruled by a different ruler. To unify it. the Young Italy Movement was instituted by Giuseppe Mazzini and joined by Garibaldi.

Column A	Column B
(A) Sardinia Piedmont	(I) Pope
(B) North Italy	(II) Spanish Rulers
(C) South Italy	(III) Italian Rulers
(D) Central Italy	(IV) Austrian Rulers

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D) -(III)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:

(D) Who was proclaimed the ruler of united Italy?
(a) Cavour
(b) Kaiser William I
(c) Victor Emmanuel II
(d) King Wilhelm IV
Answer:
(c) Victor Emmanuel II

Related Theory
Camillo de Cavour was the chief minister of Sardinia- Piedmont.
Kaiser William I was proclaimed the king of united Germany in 1871.
King Frederich Wilhelm IV was the ruler of Prussia.

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The Bourbon kings who had been restored to power during the conservative reaction after 1815 were now overthrown by liberal revolutionaries who installed a constitutional monarchy with Louis Philippe at its head.
‘When France sneezes,’ Metternich once remarked, ‘the rest of Europe catches cold.’ The July Revolution sparked an uprising in Brussels which led to Belgium breaking away from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Why did Duke Metternich say “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”?
(a) France was situated in a colder weather zone than the rest of Europe.
(b) French flu was highly contagious.
(c) France was the forbearer of any revolution or movement that took place in Europe.
(d) France was situated on the gateway of Europe.
Answer:

(B) Where did the Bourbon Kings belong to?
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Spain
(d) Austria
Answer:
(c) Spain

(D) which of the following stands true about the conservative order?
(a) Conservatives did not accept the changed brought by Napoleon.
(b) Conservatives believed in dissent and conversation.
(c) Conservatives abolished serfdom to rule in peace.
(d) Conservatives wanted to abolish the bureaucracy.
Answer:

Question 11.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow:
The ideas of national unity in early-nineteenth- century. Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism. In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital. During the nineteenth century this was a strong demand of the emerging middle classes. Napoleon had created a confederation of 39 states. Each of them had their own currency, weights and measures. A customer travelling from Hamburg to Nuremberg in 1833 to sell his goods had to pass through 11 customs barrier and pay a customs duty of about 5 percent at each one of them. Duties were often levied according to the weight or measurement of the goods. The measure of cloth, was the elle which in each region stood for a different length. An elle of textile in Frankfurt got a person 54.7 cm of cloth, in Mainz 55.1 cm, in Nuremberg 65.6 cm, in Freiburg 53.5 cm.
(A) Who was Napoleon?
Answer:
Napoleon Bonaparte was a famous French statesman and military leader who led several successful campaigns during the French Revolutionary Wars and conquered various countries in Europe. Fie incorporated Napoleonic Code establishing equality before Law.

(B) Explain what do you mean by Liberalism in your own words.
Answer:
According to me, Liberalism stands for easing of implied restrictions. The restrictions might be political, social or even economical. To be liberal means to be more accommodative of new emerging practices. In economic sphere, it stood for freedom of markets and the abolition of state imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Examine the significance of the Statue of Liberty in Frederic Sorrieu’s paintings, ‘The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republics’.
Answer:
The Statue of Liberty has been used as an allegory to signify liberty.

The painting shows independent nations marching towards the Statue of Liberty, therefore symbolising fraternity among the nations of the world.

Question 2.
Why was Otto Von Bismarck considered as the architect of the unified Germany ?
Answer:
Otto Von Bismark as the architect of the unified Germany:
He carried out unification with the help of Prussian army and bureaucracy.

Question 3.
What major issues were taken up by liberal nationalists?
Answer:
The freedom for the individual and equality of all before the Law were some of the issues taken by the liberal nationalists.

Question 4.
Name the Act which resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain.
Answer:
The Act Of Union 1707 resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain. Explanation: The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain. England imposed its rule on Scotland.

Question 5.
Explain the aim to form Zollverein, a customs union, in 1834 in Germany.
Answer:

Question 6.
Who became the allegory of the German nation?
Answer:
Germania became the allegory of the German nation.

Related Theory
In visual representations, Germania wears a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.

Question 7.
when did Napoleon invade Italy?
Answer:

Question 8.
Why did most ‘conservative regimes’ impose censorship laws to control printed material associated with the French Revolution in 1815?
Answer:

Question 9.
Which country did the artist Frederic Sorrieu belong?
Answer:
Frederic Sorrieu belonged to France.

Question 10.
Which nation was identifiable in the revolutionary tricolour in Sorrieu’s utopian vision?
Answer:
The French nation was identifiable in the revolutionary tricolour in Sorrieu’s utopian vision.

Related Theory
In 1848, Frederic Sorrieu, a French artist, prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a world made up of ‘democratic and social republics’. In Sorrieu’s utopian vision, the people of the world are grouped as distinct nations, identified through their flags and national costume, marchling towards the statue of Liberty.

Question 11.
What were the effects of revolutionary upheaval in France in 1830?
Answer:
The Bourbon dynasty that had been ruling the region was deposed.

Related Theory
In its place, constitutional monarchy was set up with Louis Philippe at its head. Belgium was freed of United Kingdom of Netherlands through an uprising.

Question 12.
Who was called as the architect of Germany’s unification?
Answer:
Otto Von Bismarck.

Question 13.
Why big European powers met in Berlin in 1885?
Answer:
European powers met in Berlin in 1885 to complete the carving up of Africa among them.

Related Theory
It was incepted with the aim of abolishing tariff and trade barriers among the German states. It helped in strengthening the nationalistic sentiments among the citizens who were already boiling with vigour and patriotism during those times.

Question 14.
Who implemented the Civil Code of 1804 in France?
Answer:
Napoleon Bonaparte implemented the Civil Code of 1804 in France.

Related Theory
The Civil Code of 1804 was also known as the ‘Napoleonic Code’. It was passed by Napoleon Bonaparte in 1804 in many parts of Europe which he had conquered after rising to power in France. It was passed by him to maintain control in his territory.

Question 15.
Name the Treaty of 1832 that recognised Greece as an independent nation.
Answer:
The Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation.

Question 16.
What was the meaning of liberalism in the early nineteenth century in Europe?
OR
Explain the meaning of ‘liberalism’.
Answer:
In the early nineteenth century in Europe, liberalism stood for freedom of the individual and equality of all before the law.

Related Theory
The term ‘liberalism’ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning free. Politically, it emphasised the concept of government by consent Nineteenth-century liberals also stressed the inviolability of private property.

Question 17.
Why did Slavic nationalist struggle in the 19th century? Give one reason.
Answer:

Question 18.
What was the main aim of the French revolutionaries?
Answer:
The main aim of French revolutionaries was:
To create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.

Question 19.
What is the meaning of concentration camps?
Answer:
A prison where people are detained without due process of law.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science History MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

Nationalism in India Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 21, 2024

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Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers

History Class 10 Chapter 3 MCQs On Nationalism in India

Nationalism In India Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The growth of modern nationalism in India is intimately connected to which of the following events:
(a) Anti-Racial Movement
(b) Religious Reform Movements
(c) Anti-Imperial Movement
(d) Secessionist movements of Sikhs
Answer:
(c) Anti-Imperial Movement

Explanation: India was facing the despotic rule of Britain and its repercussions on its economy, society and polity. Its people were struggling for independence. They were mistreated and repressed in their own country. This led to the birth of Anti-Imperial sentiments and gave birth to modern nationalism in the country.

Nationalism In India MCQ Question 2.
What was the Inland Emigration Act of 1859 related to?
(a) Peasants and agricultural workers
(b) Workers of Tea Plantation
(c) Cotton Mill Workers
(d) Civil Services Officers
Answer:
(b) Workers of Tea Plantation

Explanation: Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers working on tea plantations in Assam were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission which was not given readily when asked.

MCQ On Nationalism In India Class 10 Question 3.
Martial law was imposed after the Rowlatt Act Hartal and took command.
(a) General Dyer
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) John Simon
(d) Lord Curzon
Answer:

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Chapter 3 Question 4.
Which of the following leaders were two radical leaders and members of Congress?
(a) Bhagat Singh and Battukeshwar Dutta
(b) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G. D. Birla
Answer:
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose

Explanation: Congress was divided among the two factions- moderates and radicals. Moderates Like C.R Das supported the reformation of British institutions through constitutional ways, they believed British were good for India’s progress. While Radicals like Nehru and Bose were of the opinion that only peaceful mass agitation and movements could drive British out of India.

Related Theory
Bhagat Singh and Battukeshwar Dutta were hardcore revolutionaries. They tried to kill British Lords and used violent methods to protest.

Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G. D. Birla were industrialists and supported the Civil Disobedience movement.

Caution
Jawaharlal Nehru was a radical leader while his father Motilal Nehru was a moderate leader. Both were members of the Indian National Congress.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Question 5.
Fill in the blank by choosing the correct answer from the options given below:
Hind Swaraj: Gandhiji, Anand Math:
(a) Abanindranath Tagore
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(d) Raja Ravi Varma
Answer:

Class 10 History Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Identify the appropriate reason from the following options, for the non¬participation of industrial workers in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
(a) Industrialists were close to the Congress
(b) British offered them good salaries
(c) They were reluctant to boycott foreign goods
(d) Growth of socialism.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Pdf Question 7.
Which of the following organisation/s was/ were formed by industrialists in colonial India? [Diksha]
(a) Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920
(b) Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Explanations: Indian merchants and industrialists like Purshotamdas Thakurdas and G.D. Birla formed the FICCI in 1927 and IICC in 1920 to organise their business interests.

Related Theory
These industrialists like Purshotamdas Thakurdas and G.D. Birla attacked colonial rule over the Indian economy and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement when it was first launched by giving financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported goods.

Class 10 Nationalism In India MCQ Question 8.
which of the following session of Congress, the non-cooperation programmed was adopted?
(a) Calcutta Session
(b) Nagpur Session
(c) Madras Session
(d) None of the above
Answer:

MCQ Of Nationalism In India Class 10 Question 9.
Why did the Simon Commission come to India? Identify the correct reason from the following options:
(a) To control the campaign against the British in cities
(b) To look into the functioning of the British
(c) To initiate salt law in India
(d) To suggest changes in the functioning of the constitutional system in India.
Answer:
(d) To suggest changes in the functioning of the constitutional system in India.

Related Theory
However, not a single Indian was consulted to make changes in the constitutional system of India. Both the Congress and the Muslim League demonstrated against the commission.

Nationalism In India Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 10.
Which of the following event happened on 31 January, 1930?
(a) Gandhi ji wrote a letter to Lord Irwin.
(b) Lahore Session of Congress was concluded.
(c) The Salt March was launched by Gandhi
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) Gandhi ji wrote a letter to Lord Irwin

Explanation: In his letter to Lord Irwin, Gandhi ji included 11 demands and one of them was to abolish the salt tax.

Related Theory
Lord Irwin did not negotiate with Gandhi ji and so Gandhi ji launched the Salt March on 11 March, 1930 along with his 78 volunteers from Sabarmati Ashram, covering 240 miles in 24 days Gandhi ji reached Dandi on 6 April, 1930 where he violated the salt law, manufacturing salt by boiling seawater. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

MCQ Of Nationalism In India Question 11.
Who among the following wrote ‘Vande Mata rami
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(c) Abanindranath Tagore
(d) Dwarkanath Tagore
Answer:
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Explanation: In the 1870s, he wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland. Later it was included in his novel ‘Anandamath’ and widely sung during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal.

Related Theory
Abanindranath Tagore painted a portrait of Bharat Mata, while Rabindranath Tagore was a great Bengali poet who wrote ‘Geetanjali.’ Dwarkanath Tagore was an industrialist.

Nationalism In India Class 10 MCQs Question 12.
Who of the following leaders headed the Oudh Khan Sabha?
(a) Gandhi ji and Baba Ramchandra
(b) Gandhi ji and Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Baba Ramchandra
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra and a few others.
Answer:
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra and a few others.

Explanation: In October 1920 during the peasant movement in Oudh (now known as Awadh) Kisan Sabha was set up and within a month, it had over 300 branches in the villages around the region.

Related Theory
Baba Ramachandra had began a movement against landlords who demanded high rents from peasants in Oudh. The peasants had to work without payment or even permanent employment. Jawaharlal Nehru and a few others joined this movement in 1920.

Nationalism In India MCQ Class 10 Question 13.
In which congress session the demand of ‘Purna Swaraj’ was formalized in 1929?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Bombay
(c) Lahore
(d) Nagpur
Answer:

Nationalism In India MCQs Question 14.
What were the main demands of the peasant movement led by Baba Ramchandra in Awadh?
(a) Reduction of revenue
(b) Abolition of begar
(c) Social boycott of oppressive landlords
(d) AU of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation: The peasants in Awadh were Landless laborers working in farms of rich Landlords. Most of the time, the Landlords would not pay the peasants demanding high rent and cess. Sometimes, the peasants were evicted without warning. The peasant movement started by Baba Ramachandra decided to resolve these problems for the peasants.

Nationalism In India Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 15.
Read the given source and answer the following:
The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax. Salt was something consumed by the rich and the poor alike, and it was one of the most essential items of food. The tax on salt and the government monopoly over its production, Mahatma Gandhi declared, revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.

To protest against the salt tax, Gandhiji undertook:
(a) Non-cooperation Movement
(b) Civil disobedience
(c) Dandi March
(d) Protests against Simon Commission
Answer:
(c) Dandi March

Explanation: To express his displeasure against the salt tax, Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi. On 6 April he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling seawater. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Related Theory
Civil Disobedience Movement followed Dandi March. It openly encouraged people to break colonial laws. Thousands in different parts of the country broke the salt law, manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of government salt factories. As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted, and liquor shops were picketed.

Question 16.
Which of the following incident happened on 6 January 1921?
(a) Gandhiji wrote a letter to Lord Irwin.
(b) Lahore Session of Congress was concluded.
(c) The Salt March was launched by Gandhi
(d) The police fired at peasants
Answer:

Question 17.
Which one of the following statements is not related to Gandilrwin Pact?
(a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass agitation against the British
(b) Gandhiji agreed to participate in a Round table conference
(c) Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience movement
(d) The British agreed to release the political prisoners
Answer:
(a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass agitation against the British.

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi called off the Civil disobedience movement and entered into a pact with Lord Irwin on 5 March 1931. Under the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Gandhiji consented to participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London and the government agreed to release the political prisoners. Gandhiji returned from the conference disappointed and re¬launched the movement but in its second phase, it lost its momentum and came to end by 1934.

Question 18.
Which of the following community chanted Gandhiji’s name and raised slogan demanding ‘Swatantra Bharat’ during the Non-Cooperation Movement?
(a) The tribals
(b) The Dalits
(c) The women
(d) Plantation workers
Answer:

Question 19.
Which of the following options is incorrect related to Dandi March organized by Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi started the Dandi March from Sabarmati Ashram
(b) Dandi March is also known as salt march
(c) Dandi March was started on 11 March 1930
(d) Mahatma Gandhi accompanied 72 of his trusted members.
Answer:
(d) Mahatma Gandhi accompanied 72 of his trusted members.

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi demanded the abolition of the salt tax and served an ultimatum. When there was no reply from the British Government, on 11th March, Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi.

Question 20.
Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj party from the options given below:
(a) Wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics
(b) Wanted members of Congress to ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians
(c) Wanted members of Congress to ask Dominion State for India
(d) Wanted members of Congress to oppose Simon Commission
Answer:
(a) Wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics.

Question 21.
In which of the following places did Mahatma Gandhi organize Satyagraha for the first time in India? [CBSE 2014]
(a) Dandi
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Kheda
(d) Champaran
Answer:
(d) Champaran

Explanation: He travelled to Champaran in 1916 to organise a satyagraha there with the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.

Question 22.
Who among the following was associated with the formation of ‘Swaraj Party’ within the Congress? [CBSE 2014]
(a) Subhas Chandra Bose
(b) Motilal Nehru
(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer:
(b) Motilal Nehru

Explanation: Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das organized Swaraj Party within Congress to contest council elections which had been boycotted by the Indian National Congress due to the ongoing National Movement.

Question 23.
Which one of the following agreements gave reserved seats to the ‘Depressed Classes’ in Provincial and Central legislative Councils?
(a) Lucknow Pact
(b) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(c) Poona Pact
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Poona Pact

Explanation: It gave the Depressed Classes (or Scheduled Castes) reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils in return of being voted in by the general electorate.

Question 24.
Which one of the following statements is not related to the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
(a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mas agitations against the British.
(b) Gandhiji agreed to participate in the Round Table Conference.
(c) Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement.
(d) The British agreed to release the political prisoners.
Answer:
(a) Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass agitations against the British. Explanation: Gandhiji did not promise anything related to future national movements. He only wanted British to give more independence and remove repressive colonial laws.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 25.
Identify the movement:
(1) The movement was truly a mass movement which brought into its ambit thousands of ordinary people, namely students, workers and peasants. It also saw the active participation of leaders, namely,
(2) Jayprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali and Ram Manohar Lohia and many women such as Matangini Hazra in Bengal, Kanaklata Barua in Assam and Rama Devi in Odisha.
(3) The British responded with much force, yet it took more than a year to suppress the movement.
Answer:
Quit India Movement

Explanation: In Wardha on 14 July, 1942, the Congress Working Committee passed the historic ‘Quit India’ resolution demanding the immediate transfer of power to Indians and quit India. On 8 August, 1942 in Bo?v’uay, the

All India Congress Committee called for a non-violent mass struggle on the widest possible scale throughout the country.

Question 26.
Identify the leader:
(1) He served as the president of the Indian National Congress
(2) He set up the Oudh Kisan Sabha
(3) He was a radical leader.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru played a momentous role in the Indian Independence movement and supported the cause of non-violence agitations of mass wholeheartedly. He set up the Oudh Kisan Sabha in 1920 with Baba Ramchandra’s help.

Question 27.
Identify the incident:
(1) This march was a part of Civil Disobedience Movement
(2) March was accompanied by 78 of Gandhiji’s trusted volunteers.
(3) It began at his ashram in Sabarmati.
Answer:
Salt March or Dandi March

Explanation: Gandhiji began the Civil Disobedience Movement beginning with the Dandi March which was a 240 mile march from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, a coastal town in Gujarat, to ceremonially break the Salt Law by producing some of his own. He was accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. He reached Dandi on 6th April, 1930.

Correct and Rewrite/True-False

Question 28.
Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das had formed the Swaraj Party. State whether the statement is True or False. If False, correct the Statement.
Answer:
True

Explanation: After the withdrawal of Non-Cooperation movement, some Congress Leaders felt it was important to oppose British policies within the councils, argue for reform and also to demonstrate that these councils were not truly democratic. Swaraj Party was formed for this purpose in 1923.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 29.
After the ………….. incident, Gandhiji was forced to halt the Non-Cooperation movement.
Answer:
Chauri Chaura

Explanation: At Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur, a peaceful demonstration in a bazaar turned into a violent clash with the police. With this, the Non-Cooperation movement became violent and a police station was set on fire by the protesters and Gandhiji realized that India was not ready for a pan-India movement. Hence he called off the movement.

Question 30.
………… meant labour in return of no compensation.
Answer:
Begar

Explanation: Begar was a system which forced the labourers to contribute or to work at the farms of their landlords without any payments. Baba Ramchandra led the peasants in a protest against this system of begar and demanded social boycott of oppressive landlords.

Question 31.
During the ‘Swadeshi Movement’ in Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow) was designed. It had eight lotuses, representing the eight provinces of British India. It also had a crescent moon,……………
Answer:

Question 32.
Oudh Kisan Sabha was setup and headed by…………… and
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru and Baba Ramchandra

Explanation: The movement in Awadh was against talukdars and landlords who demanded from peasants exorbitantly high rents and a variety of other cesses. Peasants had to do begar and work at landlords’ farms without any paymentln June 1920, Jawaharlal Nehru began going around the villages in Awadh, talking to the villagers, and trying to understand their grievances. By October, the Oudh Kisan Sabha was set up headed by Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ramchandra and a few others.

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 33.
Match the important years from Column A with related events given in column B:

Column A (Important Years)	Column B (Related Events)
(a) 1918	(i) Simon Commission arrived in India
(b) 1922	(ii) First Independence Day
(c) 1928	(iii) Satyagrqha for cotton mill workers
(d) 1930	(iv) NCM was called off

Answer:

Question 34.
Match the keywords from Column A with (heir meanings given in Column B:

Column A (Keywords)	Column B (Meanings)
(a) Forced recruitment	(i) Labour without any payment
(b) Boycott	(ii) A form of demonstration
(c) Picket	(iii) A form of protest
(d) Begar	(iv) A process of making people to join the army

Answer:

Column A (Keywords)	Column B (Meanings)
(a) Forced recruitment	(iv) A process of making people join the army
(b) Boycott	(iii) A form of protest
(c) Picket	(ii) A form of demonstration
(d) Begar	(i) Labour without any payment

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 History Chapter 3

Question 35.
Assertion (A): The non-cooperation movement was adopted in the Madras Congress session in 1919.
Reason (R): Chauri Chaura was the place where the non-cooperation movement was called off.
Answer:

Question 36.
Assertion (A): A growing anger against the colonial government was thus bringing together various groups and classes of Indians into a common struggle for freedom in the first half of the twentieth century.
Reason(R): Diverse groups were all tortured by British in one way or the other.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Industrialists, workers, farmers, cultivators, etc were all tortured due to their race and called barbaric and corrupt to justify the despotic rule over them, even though with different intensities.

Question 37.
Assertion (A): The British saw Indians as backward and primitive, incapable of governing themselves.
Reason(R): Indians were inefficient workers.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: British believed Indians were backward and portrayed the same to justify their ill-behavior with Indians. They also beLieved this because Indian history was heavily misinterpreted by them. Indians were hard workers even in the toughest situations.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Arrange the following events in the correct chronoLogicaL order by choosing the correct options:
(I) Satyagraha at Kheda
(II) Hartal due to Rowtatt Act
(III) Mahatma Gandhi comes back to Indio
(IV) Congress adopts Non-Cooperation Movement
(a) (IV)-(I)-(III)-(II)
(b) (IV)-(I)-(II)-(III)
(c) (III)-(I)-(IV)-(II)
(d) (III)-(I)-(II)-(IV)
Answer:

Question 2.
Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Column A	Column B
(A) 1930	(I) Abanindranath Tagore painted Bharat Mata
(B) 1919	(II) All Parties Conference
(C) 1928	(III) Rowlatt Act
(D) 1905	(IV) Depressed Class Association was formed

(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
(b) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
Answer:
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

Explanation: Depressed Class Association was formed by Ambedkar in 1930.
Rowlatt Act was passed by Imperial Legislative Council in 1919.
All Parties Conference took place in 1928 where M.R. Jayakar of Hindu Mahasabha clashed with Jinnah on the questions of reservation of seats of Muslims.
Image of Bharat Mata- Allegory of India was painted by Tagore in 1905.

Question 3.
Read the source and answer the question that follows:
The Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in January 1921. Various social groups participated in this movement, each with its own specific aspiration. All of them responded to the call of Swaraj, but the term meant different things to different people.
Which of the following statements stand true for the Non-cooperation Movement?
(I) Boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools, and foreign goods was a program.
(II) It showcased Hindu-Muslim Movement.
(III) It was adopted in one of the sessions of All India Conference of Parties
(IV) lt was suggested by Gandhiji.
(a) (I) & (III) only
(b) (I) & (IV) only
(c) (I), (II) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I), (II) & (IV) only
Explanation: It was adopted at the Congress session at Nagpur in December 1920.

Question 4.
Certain events are given below. Choose the appropriate chronological order:
(1) Coming of Simon Commission to India
(2) Demand of Purna Swaraj in Lahore Sesson of INC
(3) Government of India Act, 1919
(4) Champaran Satyagraha Choose the correct sequence:
(a) (3)-(2)-(4)-(1)
(b) (1)-(2)-(4)-(3)
(c) (2)-(3)-(1)-(4)
(d) (4)-(3)-(1)-(2)
Answer:

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Source: The Movement in the Towns
The movement started with the participation of the middleclass participation in the cities. Thousands of students left government- controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt that entering the council was one way of gaining some power something that usually only Brahmas had access to.

The effects of Non-cooperation movement on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from Rs. 102 crore to Rs. 57 crore. In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.
(A) Explain the role of the Justice Party in boycotting council elections.
Answer:
The Justice Party in Madras (Chennai) wanted to contest the council elections to gain power which was only available to Brahmans till then.

(B) How were the effects of ‘Non-coope-ration movement on the economic front’ dramatic?
Answer:
Merchants burnt foreign clothes in huge bonfires, refusing to buy foreign goods
completely and even picketed liquor shops. Import of foreign goods reduced to half due to their dramatic reaction.

(C) Explain the effect of the ‘boycott’ move-ment on ‘foreign textile trade’.
Answer:
The boycott movement affected foreign trade negatively. Imports of clothes were reduced to half in initial value. Businessmen refused to finance foreign trade or wear foreign goods. People began discarding imported clothes and started wearing only Indian made fabrics, from mills and handlooms.

Question 6.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow.
Source A: The Rowlatt Act Emboldened with this success, Gandhiji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act (1919). This Act had been hurriedly passed through the Imperial Legislative Council despite the united opposition of the Indian members. Mahatma Gandhi wanted non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws, which would start with a hartal on 6 April.

Rallies were organised in various cities, workers went on strike in railway workshops, and shops closed down. Alarmed by the popular upsurge, and scared that lines of communication such as the railway and telegraph would be disrupted, the British administration decided to clamp down on nationalists.
Source B: Why Non-cooperation?
In Hind Swaraj, Mahatama Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India with the cooperation of Indians, and had survived only because of this cooperation. If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule in India would collapse within a year, and swaraj would come. How could non-cooperation become a movement? Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages.
Source C: The Salt March and The Civil Disobedience Movement On 31 January 1930, Gandhiji sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands. Some of these were of general interest; others were specific demands of different classes, from industrialists to peasants. The idea was to make the demarjds wide-ranging, so that all classes within Indian society could identify with them and everyone could be brought together in a united campaign. The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax.
Source A: The Rowlatt Act
(A) Which famous incident followed protests after the hartal on April 6th?
Source B: Why Non-cooperation?
Answer:
After the hartal against Rowlatt Act on 6th April, the infamous Jallianwala Bagh tragedy took place on 13th April where General Dyer open fired on a large crowd assembled for annual Baisakhi fair to spread terror among Satyagrahis. Hundreds of people died in this incident.

(B) List two methods that Gandhiji proposed to adopt to launch the non-cooperation movement
Source C: The Salt March and The Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer:
Gandhiji proposed that to convert non-cooperation into a movement, people should first surrender the titles, awards, rewards or any favours awarded to them by the government and boycott all services under government control such as educational, legal, political, military etc. This meant leaving schools, courts, colleges and offices.

(C) Why was Salt chosen as a symbol of national unity?
Answer:
Gandhiji chose salt to represent national unity because it was the only item used by all-rich or poor, Hindus or Muslims etc. and could be used successfully to unite them against their common enemy-the British.

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow;
It was again a tricolour (red, green and white) and had a spinning wheel in the centre, representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help. Carrying the flag, holding it aloft, during marches became a symbol of defiance. Another means of creating a feeling of nationalism was through reinterpretation of history. By the end of the nineteenth century many Indians began feeling that to instill a sense of pride in the nation, Indian history had to be thought about differently. The British saw Indians as backward and primitive, incapable of governing themselves. In response, Indians began looking into the past to discover India’s great achievements.
(A) Why was the flag mentioned in the source?
(a) The flag represented Britain as a nation.
(b) The flag wanted to spread the idea of self-help among people.
(c) The flag represented the idea and spirit of India as a nation.
(d) The flag was created to decorate the image of Bharat Mata.
Answer:
(c) The flag represented the idea and spirit of India as a nation.

Explanation: The flag represented Gandhian idea of self help and was also a symbol of independence a self-rule. ^ Hence it represented Indian aspirations of nationhood, independence and self-rule. It was a manifestation of the dreams of millions of Indians.

(B) Which of the following symbols were not used to unify people?
(a) Literature
(b) Rivers and Mountains
(c) History of India
(d) FolkSongs
Answer:
(b) Rivers and Mountains

(D) Assertion (A): Indian history had to be thought about differently.
Reason(R): Facts were written wrong.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the N questions that follow:
If the demands were not fulfilled by 11 March, the letter stated, the Congress would launch a civil disobedience campaign. Irwin was unwilling to negotiate. So Mahatma Gandhi started his famous salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi. The volunteers walked for 24 days, about 10 miles a day. Thousands came to hear Mahatma Gandhi wherever he stopped, and he told them what he meant by swaraj and urged them to peacefully defy the British. On 6 April he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the . most appropriate option.
(A) Which movement was Kickstarted by Dandi March?
(a) Non-Cooperation Movement
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Protest against Simon Commission
Answer:
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement

(B) Which of the following statements are true with respect to the demands as mentioned in the source?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi wrote a letter to Lord Curzon.
(b) Mahatma Gandhi stated 11 important demands for the welfare of Indians.
(c) Mahatma Gandhi was frustrated by the failure of Gandhi-lrwin Pact and hence he sent the demands.
(d) Irwin fulfilled all of those demands afterwards.
Answer:
(b) Mahatma Gandhi stated 11 important demands for the welfare of Indians. Explanation: Gandhi was frustrated by the failure of Second round table conference and hence gave an ultimatum to Lord Irwin to accept his demands regarding the welfare of Indians else a full blown Civil disobedience Movement.

(C) Where did Mahatma Gandhi go to attend a Round Table Conference before sending his 11 demands?
(a) New York
(b) Delhi
(c) London
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) London

(D) The demands that Mahatma Gandhi sent were about ….
(a) Wide ranging demands of the general public of Indian for their welfare.
(b) Specific demands from the Non Residential Indians
(c) Demands about independence of the country
(d) Demands about abolishing custom duties.
Answer:
(a) Wide ranging demands of the general public of Indian for their welfare.

Explanation: Gandhi presented Irwin with his wide ranging demands, general to all the communities and specific demands of social groups to promote equality and welfare of all.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
They wanted protection against imports of foreign goods, and a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports. To organise business interests, they formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927. Led by prominent industrialists like Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G. D. Birla, the industrialists attacked colonial control over the Indian economy, and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement when it was first launched. They gave financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported goods.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following class/social group is mentioned in the given source?
(a) Industrial workers
(b) Farmers and rich landlords
(c) Industrialists
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:

(B) What was the reaction of the given class when this movement was called off?
(a) They encouraged re-launching of this movement.
(b) They were happy because they could no longer financially support the movement.
(c) They were content because they could not disrupt their business for so long.
(d) They were sad because their interests had not been achieved.
Answer:
(c) They were content because they could not disrupt their business for so long.

Explanation: Supporting the movement meant the business was stalled for days and Industrialists were worried about their profit. Hence when the movement could not achieve realisation of their interest, they were at least content that it would not disrupt business anymore.

(C) Why was the given class interested in supporting the Civil Disobedience Movement?
(a) They wanted their business to flourish which could only happen if British industries were closed
(b) They wanted to open more industries in India.
(c) They wanted to stop exporting Indian materials
(d) They wanted their business to flourish which could only happen if Indian exports were encouraged.
Answer:

(D) When was this movement adopted?
(a) 1920
(b) 1921
(c) 1930
(d) 1931
Answer:
(c) 1930
Explanation: The Civil Disobedience movement began in 1930 with the Dandi March.

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
During his trial, Bhagat Singh stated that he did not wish to glorify ‘the cult of the bomb and pistol’ but wanted a revolution in society: ‘Revolution is the inalienable right of mankind. Freedom is the imprescriptible birth right of all. The labourer is the real sustainer of society… To the altar of this revolution we have brought our youth as incense, for no sacrifice is too great for so magnificent a cause. We are content. We await the advent of revolution.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following leaders supported Bhagat Singh in organising this revolution?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) C.R. Das
(d) Ajay Ghosh
Answer:

(B) Which organisation did Bhagat Singh organised to support the cause of his revolution?
(a) FICCI
(b) INA
(c) HSRA
(d) INC
Answer:
(c) HSRA

Explanation: In 1928, the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA) was founded at a meeting in Feroze Shah Kotla ground in Delhi by Bhagat Singh, Jatin Das and Ajoy Ghosh.

(C) Which of the following statements was said by Bhagat Singh?
(a) Jai Jawan, Jai Kisaan
(b) Inquilab Zindabad
(c) Simon Go Back
(d) Do or Die
Answer:
(b) Inquitab Zindabad

Explanation: This translates to “Long live the revolution”. This slogan was coined by the Urdu poet, Indian freedom fighter and socialist Maulana Hasrat Mohani in 1921 and used heavily by Bhagat Singh.

Related Theory
Lai Bahadur Shastri, India’s second Prime Minister used “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan”

(D) Which of the following term clearly described the tendencies of Bhagat Singh?
(a) Moderate nationalist
(b) Radical Nationalist
(c) Internationalist
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
When the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the slogan ‘Go back Simon’. All parties, including the Congress and the Muslim League, participated in the demonstrations. In an effort to win them over, the viceroy, Lord Irwin, announced in October 1929, a vague offer of ‘dominion status’ for India in an unspecified future, and a Round Table Conference to discuss a future constitution. This did not satisfy the Congress leaders. The radicals within the Congress, led by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose, became more assertive.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Why did the Simon Commission arrive in India?
(a) They were to analyse the working of Indian Constitution and suggest reforms.
(b) He was elected as the viceroy and came to take charge.
(c) He wanted to change the name of Hindustan to British India.
(d) He came to arrest Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:

(B) Which of the following leaders rejected the invitation to First Round Table Conference?
(a) Jinnah
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) J. Nehru
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer:
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: First Round Table Conference was rejected by Congress.

(C) What was the offer of Dominion Status for India?
(a) India was to be an independent country.
(b) India was to change its status from a colonised country to a dominated country.
(c) India was to continue to be colonised country but with more participation of Indians in the administration.
(d) India was to become part of another country called Scotland.
Answer:

(D) Who was Lord Irwin?
(a) He was the viceroy of India during 1930s.
(b) He was the Secretary of state for India.
(c) He was the King of Britain.
(d) He was the Prime Minister of Britain.
Answer:
(a) He was the viceroy of India during 1930s.

Question 12.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow:
This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement. How was this movement different from the Non-Cooperation Movement? People were now asked not only to refuse cooperation as they had done in 1921-22, but also to break colonial laws. Thousands in different parts of country broke salt law, manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of government salt factories.
As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted and liquor shops were picketed. Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes, village officials resigned, and in many places forest people violated forest laws, going to collect wood and graze cattle.
(A) When did the Civil Disobedience Movement start?
Answer:
Civil disobedience movement was launched in April 1930.

(B) Who launched Civil Disobedience Movement and how?
Answer:
Civil disobedience movement was launched by Gandhiji by breaking Salt law after he carried out Dandi March in March with 78 of his followers. He drove the point of breaking laws in this movement home by breaking the salt law.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the reason for calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Answer:
The Chauri Chaura incident happened where general public violently clashed with the police in Gorakhpur, United Provinces in 1922. This made Gandhiji realise that Indians were not yet ready for a peaceful agitation and hence he called the movement off.

Question 2.
The Resolution of Poorna Swaraj was adopted at which Congress session?
Answer:
Lahore Session, 1929

Question 3.
Who announced a vague offer of Dominion Status for India in 1929?
Answer:
Lord Irwin, the then viceroy of India.

Question 4.
Why did Mahatma Gandhi organise, Satyagraha in the Kheda district of Gujarat in 1917? Give the main reason.
Answer:
Peasants affected from crop failure and plague epidemic wanted relaxation in revenue collection. Mahatma Gandhi organised a Satyagraha with these peasants against revenue collectors for the same in 1917.

Question 5.
What happened to the workers in plantations of Assam?
Answer:

Question 6.
Who wrote the song ‘Vande Matram’?
Answer:
‘Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay’ wrote the song Vande Matram’.

Related Theory
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote ‘Vande Matram’ as a hymn to the motherland in, 1870s. Later it was included in his novel ‘Anandamath’ and widely sung during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal

Question 7.
Name the author of the novel ‘Anandmath’.
Answer:
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay is the author of ‘Anandmath’.

Related Theory
The image of Bharat Mata was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. In the 1870s he wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland which was later included in his novel ‘Anandamath’.

Question 8.
State the slogan with which Simon Commission was greeted in 1928 in India.
Answer:
Simon Commission was greeted with the slogan ‘Simon Go back’ in 1928 in India.
Related Theory
Simon Commission was constituted by the Tory government in Britain as a response to the nationalist movement. It had no Indian member and when it arrived in India, all parties like the Congress and Muslim League opposed it.

Question 9.
Why did Indians oppose the ‘Simon Commission’?
Answer:

Question 10.
Read the source given below and name the pact of compromise signed later between Gandhiji and Dr B.R Amdbedkar on the position of Dalits in India in future.
Dr B.R. Ambedkar, who organised the dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930, clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the second Round Table Conference by demanding separate electorates for dalits. When the British government conceded Ambedkar’s demand, Gandhiji began a fast unto death. He believed that separate electorates for dalits would slow down the process of their integration into society.
Answer:
Poona Pact

Explanation: The Poona Pact signed in September 1932 between Mahatma Gandhi and B. R. Ambedkar. This pact gave the Depressed Classes (later to be known as the Schedule Castes) reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils, but they were to be voted in by the general electorate.

Question 11.
Who was the author of ‘Hind Swaraf ?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi was the author of ‘Hind Sawaraj.

Question 12.
When did Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occur?
Answer:
The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred on 13th April, 1919.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science History MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

History Class 10 Chapter 5 MCQs On The Age of Industrialisation

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following statements is not true about the album cover “Dawn of the century”?
(a) The painting appeared on the cover of a music book published by E.T. Pauli in 1900.
(b) The centre of the picture represents the angel of progress, bearing the flag of the new century.
(c) She is gently perched on a wheel with wings, symbolising scientific inventions.
(d) Her flight is taking her into the future.
Answer:
(c) She is gently perched on a wheel with wings, symbolising scientific inventions.

Explanation: The wheel with wings symbolises time not scientific inventions. The painting appeared as the cover of a music book by publisher E.T. Pauli in the 1900s.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following fictional characters was featured in the painting, Two Magicians?
(a) Popeye
(b) Romeo and Juliet
(c) Touchstone
(d) Aladdin
Answer:
(d) Aladdin

Explanation: Two Magicians, published on 26 January, 1901 appeared as a trade magazine over a hundred years ago. It featured Aladdin from the orient who built a beautiful palace with his magic lamp. The other was a modern mechanic, who with his modern tools weaves a new magic builds bridges, ships, towers and high-rise buildings. Aladdin is shown as representing the East and the past, the mechanic stands for the West and modernity.

Class 10 History Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which of the following is not a function of trade guiLds?
(a) They trained craftspeopte.
(b) They maintained control over production.
(c) They reguLated competition and prices.
(d) They produced metal goods.
Answer:
(d) They produced metaL goods.

Explanation: Trade guilds were not producers and manufacturers. They did not produce any goods, they were just professional guilds and other interest groups. They regulated competition, production and trained craftspeople.

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQs Question 4.
Who was a Stapler?
(a) He spun the final clothes.
(b) He sorts wooL according to its fibre
(c) He gathers wool by pleating
(d) He dyes clothes.
Answer:

Class 10 Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Question 5.
………………. was the textiLe finishing centre.
(a) London
(b) Shanghai
(c) Delhi
(d) New York
Answer:
(a) London

The Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Question 6.
The symbol of the new era was ………..
(a) Steel
(b) Cotton
(c) Silk
(d) Iron
Answer:
(b) Cotton

Class 10 History Chapter 5 MCQ Question 7.
Invented the Steam Engine- Newcomen:
Improved upon the steam engine and patented it: ………..
(a) James Watt
(b) Richard Arkwright
(c) James Fuller
(d) James Hargreaves
Answer:
(a) James Watt

Related Theory
Richard Arkwnght created the Cotton Mill. James Hargreaves devised the spinning Jenny.

Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Question 8.
Which of the following reasons correctly describes the probLem that the American Civil War caused for Indian weavers?
(a) Indian weavers couLd not get sufficient supply of raw cotton of good quality.
(b) The Americans stopped suppLying raw cotton to India.
(c) America decreased their prices drastically and hence Indian goods were not in demand.
(d) American oversupplied raw cotton to Britain.
Answer:
(a) Indian weavers could not get sufficient supply of raw cotton of good quality. Explanation: Weavers could not get sufficient suppLy of raw cotton of good quality.

When the American Civil War broke out, cotton supplies from the US were cut off, Britain began heavily importing from India. This led to a severe rise in the price of raw cotton. Weavers were starved of supplies and had to buy raw cotton at exorbitant prices.

MCQ Of Chapter Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 9.
Which of the following was a label used by producers to advertise their products in India?
(a) Made in Delhi
(b) Made in Manchester
(c) Made in Vienna
(d) Made in London
Answer:

MCQ On The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 10.
Choose the most appropriate option:
First Jute Mill- Bengal; First Cotton Mill-
(a) Surat
(b) Bombay
(c) Bengal
(d) Madras
Answer:
(b) Bombay

Explanation: The first cotton mill was set up in Bombay (Mumbai) in 1854. Around the same time jute mills were set in Bengal.

MCQ Of The Age Of Industrialisation Question 11.
The pattern of industrial change in India was conditioned by
(a) Colonial rule of Britain
(b) Weakness of the rulers of India
(c) Rampant Poverty in India
(d) Diverse provinces and their disjointed administrations
Answer:
(a) Colonial rule of Britain

MCQ Of History Chapter The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 12.
Richard Arkwright is associated with which of the following mills:
(a) Elgin Mill
(b) Iron and Steel Factory
(c) Jute Mill
(d) Cotton Mill
Answer:
(d) Cotton Mill

Explanation: Sir Richard Arkwright was an English inventor and a leading entrepreneur during the early Industrial Revolution.

He created the Cotton Mill which revolutionised cloth production.

Class 10 The Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Question 13.
Which of the following is not a European Managing agency?
(a) Bird Heiglers & Co.
(b) Peter Mcguire & Co.
(c) Andrew Yule
(d) Jardine Skinner & Co.
Answer:
(b) Peter Mcguire & Co.

Explanation: Peter Mcguire & Co is an American company.

The Age Of Industrialization Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
The sale of sarees was not affected by famines in India.
(a) Kanjeevaram Sarees
(b) Baluchari sarees
(c) Cotton Sarees
(d) Khadi Sarees
Answer:
(b) Baluchari Sarees

Explanation: Famines affected the demand of goods made from coarser fabrics. Fine fabrics like Baluchari silk were bought by the rich who could afford to buy it at any time of the year.

Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following reasons correctly explains the increased Indian industrial growth after the First World War?
(a) Britishers had begun opening new factories in India
(b) New technology was introduced
(c) India gained control of its mills and production houses
(d) There was a vast home market for Indian mills to supply since British economy was in ruins
Answer:
(d) There was a vast home market for Indian mills to supply since British economy was in ruins.

Explanation: British economy crumbled after the war. It could not recapture its position. In the meantime, Indian industries had started producing weLl and above for its home market. Local industrialists gradually consolidated their position.

Question 16.
When was the first weaving and spinning mill set up?
(a) 1878
(b) 1874
(c) 1873
(d) 1879
Answer:
(b) 1874

Question 17.
Which of the following countries could the term Occident refer to?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) America
(c) Iran
(d) India
Answer:
(b) America

Explanation: The term Occident refers to the countries west of Mediterranean Sea. Iran, India and Sri Lanka are all located east of Mediterranean Sea.

Question 18.
In 1911, 67 percent of Indian large industries were located in which of the following areas?
(a) Bengal and Bombay
(b) Surat and Bharuch
(c) Masulipatnam and Bengal
(d) Ahmedabad and Nagpur jute mill in Kolkata?
Answer:

Question 19.
…… was the first industrialised nation in the worLd.
(a) Britain
(b) India
(c) Finland
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) Britain

Question 20.
Who among the following set up the first jute mitt in Kotkata?
(a) J. N Tata
(b) Seth Hukumchand
(c) Dwarkanath Tagore
(d) Dinshaw Petit
Answer:
(b) Seth Hukumchand

Explanation: Fie was a Marwari businessman who traded with China and set up this mill in Kolkata (Calcutta) in 1917.

Question 21.
The spinning jenny was devised by
(a) TE Nicholson
(b) James Hargreaves
(c) William Bell Scott
(d) Will Thome
Answer:
(b) James Hargreaves

Explanation: Hargreaves invented the spinning jenny in 1764. This machine speeded up the spinning process and reduced labour demand.

Question 22.
Which one of the following alternatives is associated with the gomasthas?
(a) Traders
(b) Landlords
(c) Unpaid servants
(d) Paid supervisors
Answer:
(d) Paid Supervisors

Explanation: Gomasthas were paid servants employed by the British to supervise weavers, collect suppLies, and examine the quality of cloth.

Question 23.
Who among the following improved the steam engine produced by Newcomen?
(a) James Watt
(b) Matthew Boulton
(c) Henry Ford
(d) Graham Bell
Answer:

Question 24.
Which of the following groups of industries was the dynamic industries of England during its earliest phase of industrialisation?
(a) Cotton and metals
(b) Cotton and silk
(c) Silk and footwears
(d) Footwears and glass
Answer:
(a) Cotton and metals

Explanation: Cotton and metals which were developed as a result of the Industrial Revolution were the most important dynamic industries of England during its earliest phase of industrialization.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 25.
Identify the object:
(1) It was devised by James Hargreaves
(2) It reduced labour demand
(3) It speeded up the spinning process.
Answer:
The Spinning Jenny

Explanation: The Spinning Jenny worked by turning one single wheel a worker could set in motion a number of spindles and spin several threads at the same time.

Question 26.
Identify the object:
(1) They try to shape the minds of people and create new needs.
(2) Today we live in a world where they surround us.
(3) They appear in newspapers, magazines, hoardings, street walls, television screens.
Answer:
Advertisement

Explanation: Advertisements are used by the producers to promote their product, impress the customers and lure them into buying more. Advertisements make products appear desirable and necessary.

Question 27.
Identify the personality:
(1) He was generally an old and trusted worker.
(2) He got people from his village, ensured them jobs, helped them settle in the city and provided them money in times of crisis.
(3) He therefore became a person with some authority and power.
Answer:

Correct and Rewrite/True-False
State whether the statements are true or false. If false, correct the statement.

Question 28.
The modern age appears as a wonderful time of spiritual progress.
Answer:
False
The modern age appears as a wonderful time of technological progress.

Explanation: The modern world is associated with rapid technological change and innovations, machines and factories, railways and steamships.

Question 29.
The pace of change in the ‘traditional’ industries was set by steam-powered cotton or metal industries in the 18th century.
Answer:
False.

The pace of change in the ‘traditional’ industries was not set by steam-powered cotton or metal industries.

Explanation: Despite these tremendous inventions, ordinary and small innovations were the basis of growth in many non- mechanised sectors such as food processing, building, pottery, glass work, tanning, furniture making, and production of implements.

Question 30.
The new industries replaced traditional industries easily in Britain.
Answer:

Question 31.
British in India began exporting opium to China and took tea from China to England.
Answer:
True

Question 32.
Technological changes did not spread dramatically across the industrial landscape.
Answer:
True

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 33.
The term orient refers to
Answer:
countries east to the Mediterranean Sea

Question 34.
Advertisements became a vehicle of the nationalist message of
Answer:
Swadeshi

Explanation: Indian manufacturers advertised the nationalist message of promoting the culture of the region. They wanted to imply that if an Indian cared for the nation, they should buy products that Indians produced.

Question 35.
In the 20th century, the coarser cloth was bought by the ………….. and its demand fluctuated violently.
Answer:
poor

Explanation: The demand of the cloth fluctuated because the poor people often did not have any money to buy these clothes regularly, especially during famines. They were finding it diffcult to even make their ends meet.

Question 36.
Machine-made goods were produced mainly for ………. in Victorian Britain.
Answer:
export to colonies

Explanation: The rich classes of Britain preferred handmade goods. To earn a stronghold over their colonies, the majority of the goods produced in Britain were exported to its colonies.

Question 37.
The first cotton mill in Bombay (Mumbai) came up in …………….
Answer:
1854

Question 38.
The port of ………………. lost its importance during Colonial rule in India.
Answer:

Question 39.
Surat on the coast connected India to the Gulf and Red Sea ports.
Answer:
Gujarat

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 History Chapter 5

Question 40.
Assertion (A): When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they put labels on the cloth bundles.
Reason (R): The labels were used to make the customers feel positive and confident about buying these clothes. They were marks of quality.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: These labels were used to make the customers familiar with the name and place of production.

Question 41.
Assertion (A): With the expansion of railways, in England from the 1840s and in the colonies from the 1860s, the demand for iron and steel increased rapidly.
Reason (R): Iron and steel were used in making various parts of the trains and trams.
Answer:

Question 42.
Assertion (A): The most dynamic industries in Britain were cotton and metals.
Reason (R): There was no other material requirement at that time.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: These were the two most important industries in Britain. There were other industries like food processing, pottery, glass work, tanning, furniture making, and production of implements as well. Hence there was material requirement for other industries as well.

Question 43.
Assertion (A): The typical worker in the mid-nineteenth century was not a machine operator but the traditional craftsperson and labourer.
Reason (R): The new technology was very expensive and was accepted very slowly.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Labour was available in abundance and it was less expensive to work with traditional tools. SeasonaL employment saved a lot of money during off season. With machines, a lot of capital had to be invested.

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Wages were low in Victorian Britain.
Reason (R): Labour was in abundance.
Answer:

Question 45.
Assertion (A): The export of Indian yarn to China declined in 1906.
Reason (R): India began exporting more to Japan.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: The export declined because Japanese goods had filled the Chinese markets.

Question 48.
Assertion (A): Advertisements make products appear less desirable and unnecessary.
Reason (R): They try to shape the minds of people and create new needs.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: Advertisements help to make the products appear more desirable and necessary among the users.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the source and answer the question that follows:
In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, merchants from the towns in Europe began moving to the countryside, supplying money to peasants and artisans, persuading them to produce for an international market. With the expansion of world trade and the acquisition of colonies in different parts of the world, the demand for goods began growing. But merchants could not expand production within towns.
Why could the new merchants not set up business in the towns in Europe? Choose the most appropriate option.
(a) Rules forbade them.
(b) They were restricted by the monopoly of guilds and lack of demand of products.
(c) The powerful trade guilds and urban crafts restricted their entry and made it difficult for new merchants to start business in towns.
(d) The merchants did not want to trade with towns.
Answer:
(c) The powerful trade guilds and urban crafts restricted their entry and made it difficult for new merchants to start business in towns.

Explanation: Trade guilds did not allow the new merchants to set up their businesses in towns and cities. They had monopolised the markets of the towns.

Question 2.
Which of the following statements was true about European Managing Agencies?
(I) They established tea and coffee plantations
(II) They invested in mining, indigo and jute.
(III) They produced goods primarily for export trade and not for sale in India.
(IV) Till the First World War, European Managing Agencies controlled a large sector of Indian industries.
(a) (I), (II) & (IV) only
(b) (I) only
(c) (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

Explanation: European Managing Agencies dominated Indian production and markets for a long time. Three of them were Bird Heilgers & Co., Andrew Yule, and Jardine Skinner & Co. These agencies mobilised capital, set up joint- stock companies and managed them.

Question 3.
Which of the following causes led to the decline and collapse of the weaving industry in India?
(I) Export markets collapsed, local markets shrank in 1850s
(II) Indian products could not compete with cheap, machine-produced goods of Manchester
(III) Indian weavers did not have access to enough raw cotton supply
(IV) Factories in India began mass production of machine-goods and thus weavers lost their livelihoods
(a) (I) only
(b) (IV) only
(c) (II) & (III) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

Question 4.
Read the source and answer the question that follows:
Yet, till the First World War, industrial growth was slow. The war created a dramatically new situation. With British mills busy with war production to meet the needs of the army, Manchester imports into India declined. Suddenly, Indian mills had a vast home market to supply. As the war prolonged, Indian factories were called upon to supply war needs.
What items did Indian factories supply during the First World War?
(a) Guns and weapons
(b) Jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents, leather boots, horse and mule saddles
(c) Medicines for war patients
(d) Nuclear weapons
Answer:
(b) Jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents, leather boots, horse and mule saddles

Explanation: India was a leading textile producer during 18th and 19th centuries and hence had to fulfill textile related needs during war in Britain. Nuclear power had not been discovered by then.

Question 5.
Match the items in column A with that of Column B:

Column A	Column B
(A) Elgin Mill	(I) Madras
(B) Jute Mill	(II) Kanpur
(C) Cotton Mill	(III) Bengal
(D) Spinning and Weaving Mill	(IV) Bombay

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:
(c) (A)-(II),(B)-(III),(C)-(IV),(D)-(I)

Question 6.
Which of the following statements is true about the building industry?
(I) After the 1840s, building activity intensified in the cities.
(II) After the 1840s, building activity diminished in the cities.
(III) The number of workers employed in the transport industry doubled in the 1840s.
(IV) The number of workers employed in the transport industry halved in the 1840s.
(a) (I) & (IV) only
(b) (I) & (III) only
(c) (II) & (III) only
(d) II & IV only
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
By the turn of the nineteenth century, cotton weavers faced a new set of problems.
In 1772, Henry Patullo, a Company official, had ventured to say that the demand for Indian textiles could never reduce, since no other nation produced goods of the same quality. Yet by the beginning of the nineteenth century we see the beginning of a long decline of textile exports from India. In 1811-12 piece-goods accounted for 33 per cent of India’s exports; by 1850-51 it was no more than 3 per cent. Why did this happen? What were its implications?

As cotton industries developed in England, industrial groups began worrying about imports from other countries. They pressurised the government to impose import duties on cotton textiles so that Manchester goods could sell in Britain without facing any competition from outside.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which one of the following problems was not faced by cotton weavers in India?
(a) Their export market had collapsed due to high import duties levied by Britain.
(b) They did not have good quality cotton to produce goods due to civil war.
(c) Imported goods from Manchester were cheap.
(d) There were frequent strikes in Indian industries
Answer:

(B) Which of the following was appointed by British to supervise weavers?
(a) Jobber
(b) Gomastha
(c) Sepoys
(d) Munshis
Answer:

(C) …………….. was one of the main products exported by India to Britain among textiles.
(a) Silk
(b) Wool
(c) Khadi
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(d) Cotton

(D) What was the main reason behind the following incident?
In 1811-12 piece-goods accounted for 33 per cent of India’s exports; by 1850-51 it was no more than 3 per cent.
(a) There was a famine in India.
(b) To promote their products, British restricted the import of Indian goods.
(c) To export their own products, British stopped the mills from producing in India.
(d) Britain stopped using cotton textiles.
Answer:
(b) To promote their products, British restricted the import of Indian goods. Explanation: British imposed tariffs on Indian goods to promote their own goods. This made Indian goods very expensive.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the two industrialists of Bombay who built huge industrial empires during the nineteenth century.
Answer:
Dinshaw Petit, Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata

Question 2.
Define the term ‘Carding.
Answer:
Carding is the process in which fibres, such as cotton or wool, are prepared prior to spinning. This disentangles, cleans and intermixes fibres such as cotton or wool in order to produce a continuous web suitable for subsequent processing like spinning.

Question 3.
What is a ‘fly shuttle’?
Answer:

Question 4.
Why were the calendars used by Indian producers to popularise Indian products?
Answer:
Calendars were used by people of all classes regions and castes. They were even more popular than newspapers.

Question 5.
Name the four steps in production of yarn?
Answer:
Carding, twisting and spinning, and rolling

Question 6.
Why did silk and cotton goods from India dominate the international market in textiles?
Answer:
They were very fine in quality. Other countries produced coarser cotton.

Question 7.
When were the factories first established in Britain?
Answer:
1730s

Question 8.
Which Indian movement led to the boycott of foreign goods?
Answer:
Swadeshi movement

Question 9.
Why did the East India Company appoint ‘Gomasthas’?
Answer:
The East India Company appointed gomasthas to supervise weavers in India to establish a more direct control over the weavers, free of the existing traders and brokers in the cloth trade.

Related Theory
The Gomasthas were the paid servants who supervised the weavers, collected supplies and examined the quality of cloth.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science History MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

The Making of Global World Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 21, 2024

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers

History Class 10 Chapter 4 MCQs On The Making of Global World

Class 10 History Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
Hosay was a:
(a) Riotous Hindu festival
(b) Riotous carnival
(c) Violent blood-shedding war
(d) History and art festival
Answer:
(b) Riotous carnival

Explanation: The annual Muharram procession got transformed into a riotous carnival called

‘Hosay’ for the religious figure Imam Hussain which saw the attendance of workers of all races and religions.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Chapter 4 Question 2.
Which country had voluntarily cut off its economic relationship with the world economy in 1949?
(a) India
(b) England
(c) America
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China

Explanation: China retreated into isolation and cut off all of its economic ties with the world in terms of trade and exports.

The Making Of Global World MCQ Question 3.
Fill in the blank by choosing the appropriate option:
Smallpox- America; Rinderpest- …………………
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Africa
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Africa

Explanation: Rinderpest was a fast-spreading cattle disease in Africa which affected the local economy largely.

The Making Of A Global World MCQ Question 4.
Why did China become an attractive destination for multinational companies?
(a) Economic policies were not established.
(b) Raw material was cheap.
(c) Labour wages were low.
(d) Land was cheap.
Answer:
(c) Labour wages were low.

Explanation: Wages of factory laborers in China are very low and hence cost of production decreased massively.

Making Of Global World MCQ Question 5.
Which of the following two continents did the silk routes connect?
(a) Asia and America
(b) Europe and America
(c) Asia and Europe
(d) Europe and Southern Africa
Answer:

The Making Of Global World Class 10 MCQ Question 6.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
……….. and Germany became new colonial powers by the 19th century.
(a) Australia
(b) Belgium
(c) France
(d) Italy
Answer:
(b) Belgium

Making Of Global World Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
Which of the following countries has an effective right of veto over key IMF and World Bank decisions?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) France
(d) India
Answer:
(a) USA

Class 10 History Chapter 4 MCQ Question 8.
Which of the following is a direct effect of the Second World War on the economy of the world?
(a) The US became the mass exporter of gold.
(b) The US emerged as the dominant economic, political and military power in the Western world.
(c) the Soviet Union collapsed.
(d) Soldiers died in larger numbers than the civilians.
Answer:

The Making Of Global World Class 10 Extra Questions MCQ Question 9.
Who amongst the following West-Indies cricketers trace their roots to indentured labour migrants from India?
(a) Vivian Richards and Gary Sobers
(b) Chris Gayle and Dwayne Bravo
(c) Ramnaresh Sarwan and Shivnarine Chanderpaul
(d) Brian Lara and Courtney Walsh
Answer:
(c) Ramnaresh Sarwan and Shivnarine Chanderpaul

Explanation: Their families migrated during the time indentured laborers and were forced to station on plantations for work to various countries of the world.

Class 10 History Making Of Global World MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following was NOT a destination of Indian indentured migrants?
(a) China
(b) Caribbean Islands
(c) Fiji
(d) Ceylon
Answer:
(a) China

Explanation: Indentured laborers were sent to Assam, the Caribbean islands of Trinidad, Guyana and Surinam, Mauritius and Fiji. Tamil workers were sent to Ceylon (present-day Sri Lanka).

The Making Of A Global World Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
In which one of the following years Great Depression occurred in the world?
(a) 1929-30
(b) 1935-36
(c) 1939-40
(d) 1941-42
Answer:
(a) 1929-30

The Making Of Global World Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers Question 12.
Which of the following technological breakthrough hastened industrialization in Europe in the 19th century?
(a) Pigeon messenger service
(b) Telegraph
(c) Slow transportation services
(d) Handmade goods
Answer:

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Making Of The Global World MCQ Question 13.
Identify the name of the institution:
(1) It is a Bretton Wood twin institution.
(2) It was created to deal with external surpluses and deficits of its member nations.
(3) Its operations began in 1947.
Answer:

The Making Of The Global World MCQ Question 14.
Identify the country:
(1) It imported opium to China.
(2) John Maynard Keynes thought that its gold exports promoted global economic recovery.
(3) It was colonized by Britain.
Answer:
India

Explanation: India was colonized by Britain for almost 2 centuries and became the major exporter of precious metals during the depression years. Indian farmers were forced to grow opium which the British traded in China.

Correct and Rewrite/True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Class 10 Making Of Global World MCQ Question 15.
As early as 3000 BCE an active coastal trade linked the Indus Valley Civilisation with the present-day East and South Asia.
Answer:
False.

As early as 3000 BCE an active coastal trade Linked the Indus Valley Civilisation with present-day West Asia.

Explanation: Indus Valley Civilisation is located in South Asia in the subcontinent of India. There was evidence of its links with West Asia and not East Asia.

Question 16.
Foods such as potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chilies, and sweet potatoes were introduced in Europe after the discovery of routes to India.
Answer:
False.

Foods such as potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chilies, and sweet potatoes were introduced in Europe after the discovery of routes to the Americas.

Explanation: These foods were only introduced in Europe and Asia after Christopher Columbus accidentally discovered the Americas. The potato was a native food of the continent.

Question 17.
Chickenpox paved the way for the Portuguese and Spanish conquest and colonization of America.
Answer:

Question 18.
The Indentured Labour System was abolished in 1921 in India.
Answer:
True.

Explanation: India’s nationalist leaders opposed the system of indentured labour migration as abusive and cruel. Hence it was abolished in 1921.

Question 19.
In the nineteenth century, as you have seen, colonial India had become an importer of agricultural goods and exporter of manufactured goods.
Answer:

Question 20.
The Second World War was fought between the Axis powers (mainly Nazi Germany, Japan and Italy) and the Allies (Britain, France, the Soviet Union and the US).
Answer:
True

Explanation: The Second World War was fought (1940-1945) between the Axis and Allied powers.

Question 21.
The First World War saw the use of machine guns, tanks, aircraft, chemical weapons, etc. on a massive scale for the first time.
Answer:
True

Explanation: The First World War was a mechanical/industrial war because all kinds of newly invented machines were used to fight a war for the first time.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 22.
Legends spread in seventeenth-century Europe about South America’s fabled wealth. Many expeditions set off in search of
Answer:
El Dorado, the fabled city of gold.

Question 23.
………….. was carried by infected cattle imported from British Asia to feed the Italian soldiers invading Eritrea in East Africa.
Answer:
Rinderpest

Explanation: Rinderpest was a cattle plague that arrived in Africa in the late 1880s.

Question 24.
Tamil migrants went to and Malaya.
Answer:
Ceylon (Present day Sri Lanka)

Explanation: Indentured labour was sent to work overseas on different plantations, fields and farms forcefully. The main destinations of Indian indentured migrants were the Caribbean islands (mainly

Trinidad, Guyana and Surinam), Mauritius and Fiji.

Question 25.
……. was formed to demand a new international economic order (NIEO).
Answer:

Question 26.
The IMF and the World Bank commenced financial operation in
Answer:
1947

Question 27.
…………… were needed to link the agricultural regions to the ports.
Answer:
Railways

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 History Chapter 4

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c), or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 28.
Assertion (A): The war had led to an economic boom, that is, to a large increase in demand, production and employment.
Reason (R): More and more material was needed to fulfill the requirements of the rising population in Europe.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Economic boom happened because war needs had to be fulfilled. Soldiers required food, clothing and medical supplies.

Question 29.
Assertion (A): Nineteenth-century indenture has been described as a ‘new system of slavery’
Reason (R): New races of slaves were bought and encouraged to work far away from their homeland.
Answer:

Question 30.
Assertion (A): As the depression hit the world, India did not lose much.
Reason (R): India became an exporter of gold during the depression years.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Indian livelihoods were destroyed when it comes to the jobs of producers and farm laborers due to drastic reductions in prices of agricultural products. Salaried professionals from the city enjoyed their lives in a better position with fixed incomes.

Question 31.
Assertion (A): Industrialists and urban dwellers forced the abolition of the Corn Laws.
Reasons (R): Post abolition of Corn Laws, food could be imported into Britain more cheaply than it could be produced within the country.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Prices of corn and other food products rose exponentially. This led to inflation and hence the government was forced to abolish corn Laws which otherwise banned import of corn and other foreign goods.

Question 32.
Assertion (A): There are large communities of people of Indian descent in Caribbean countries.
Reason (R): Most indentured workers who were taken to work on plantations there, stayed on after their contracts ended.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the source given below and answer the following question:
Food grain and raw material exports from India to Britain and the rest of the world increased.
But the value of British exports to India was much higher than the value of British imports from India. Thus Britain had a ‘trade surplus’ with India.
Which of the following is true about Britain’s trade surplus?
(I) It was used to pay Home Charges by Britain.
(II) It was used to balance its deficit with other countries.
(III) It steered the economy of the world.
(IV) It helped Britain to borrow money.
(a) (I) & (IV) only
(b) (II), (III) & (IV) only
(c) (I) & (II) only
(d) (l)f(ll), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I) & (II) only

Explanation: Britain had trade surplus with India through economic drain of Indian resources. It was used to pay Home Charges by England and balance its deficit with other countries.

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
For centuries before, the Indian Ocean had known a bustling trade, with goods, people, knowledge, customs, etc. crisscrossing its waters. The Indian subcontinent was central to these flows and a crucial point in their networks.
Which of the following statements is correct about the reason goods from the Indian Subcontinent began reaching European markets?
(a) European sailors found a sea route to Asia and began travelling to and fro to boost the trade.
(b) Asian markets suffered a famine that forced its merchants to venture to Europe for trade.
(c) America had not been discovered yet and hence Europe was forced to invade Asia.
(d) Asia had no traders and Europeans took over the trade in Asia.
Answer:

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
In the late nineteenth century, Europeans were attracted to Africa due to its vast resources of land and minerals. Europeans came to Africa hoping to establish plantations and mines to produce crops and minerals for export to Europe. But there was an unexpected problem – a shortage of labour willing to work for wages.
How did the Europeans push the Africans labourers to work for wages?
(I) Peasants were displaced from land through reformed inheritance laws
(II) Only one member of a family was allowed to inherit land, as a result of which the others were pushed into the labour market
(III) Their houses were burnt.
(IV) Heavy taxes were imposed.
(a) (I) & (IV) only
(b) (I), (II) & (IV) only
(c) (I) & (II) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(b) (I), (II) & (IV) only
Explanation: The Africans did not have the concept of working for a wage. The Europeans found ways to make the Africans work. They restructured their laws, imposed heavy taxes which could be paid only by working for a wage on plantations and farms and confined them within a space to make them work.

Question 4.
The IMF and the World Bank shifted their attention in the late 1950s towards the developing countries. This happened mainly because:
(I) The economy of the developing nations had greater scope.
(II) Europe and Japan had rapidly rebuilt their economies and did not need the help of IMF and World Bank.
(III) The developing countries needed their help to develop.
(a) (I) & (III) only
(b) (I) only
(c) (II) & (III) only
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Answer:
(c) (II) & (III) only

Explanation: The World Bank and IMF was designed to build the industrial nations. They were not ready to cope with challenges of poverty and lack of development in developing countries. But Europe and Japan rapidly rebuilt their economies and were not dependent on these institutions. So these institutions shifted their attention to developing nations.

Question 5.
Choose the most appropriate option:
The reasons why the inflow of fine Indian cotton into Britain and other countries declined in the 19th century were:
(I) Industrialisation and expansion of cotton manufacture in Britain
(II) Imposition of tariff on cloth imported into Britain to protect local industries
(III) British manufacturers began to seek overseas markets for their cloth, Indians faced stiff competition in international markets.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III) only
(c) (I) & (II) only
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Answer:

Question 6.
Match the items in Column A with that of Column B:

Column A	Column B
(A) Ramnaresh Sarwan	(I) English Economist
(B) John Maynard Keynes	(II) Cricketer of Indo-Guyanese origin.
(C) Henry Ford	(III) Welsh-American journalist
(D) Sir Henry Morton Stanley	(IV) American Industrialist

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:
(c) (A)-(II),(B)-(I),(C)-(IV),(D)-(III)

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Economists and politicians drew two key lessons from inter-war economic experiences. First, an industrial society based on mass production cannot be sustained without mass consumption. But to ensure mass consumption, there was a need for high and stable incomes. Incomes could not be stable if employment was unstable. Thus stable incomes also required steady, full employment.

But markets alone could not guarantee full employment. Therefore governments would have to step in to minimise fluctuations of price, output and employment. Economic stability could be ensured only through the intervention of the government. The second lesson related to a country’s economic links with the outside world. The goal of full employment could only be achieved if governments had power to control flows of goods, capital and labour. Thus in brief, the main aim of the post-war international economic system was to preserve economic stability and full employment in the industrial world.
(A) Which of the following was true about the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference?
(a) It was held at Bretton Woods in Kentucky, USA.
(b) Twin Institutions were set up in this conference.
(c) The Conference was organised in 1988.
(d) Both (b) and (c) are true.
Answer:

(B) Which of the following institutions has been renamed as the World Bank?
(a) The International Monetary Fund
(b) The United Nations Organisation
(c) The World Trade Organisation
(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
Answer:
(d) TheIntemationalBankforReconstruction and Development

(D) Assertion (A): Economic stability could be ensured only through the intervention of the government.
Reason(R): Private industrialists were focused upon their own progress.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation: The private industrialists were themselves recovering after the two wars and required the permission and support from the governments to trade across the world. The governments were required to help and support the citizens.

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The IMF and the World Bank commenced financial operations in 1947. Decision-making in these institutions is controlled by the Western industrial powers. The US has an effective right of veto over key IMF and World Bank decisions. The international monetary system is the system linking national currencies and monetary systems. The Bretton Woods system was based on fixed exchange rates. In this system, national currencies, for example the Indian rupee, were pegged to the dollar at a fixed exchange rate. The dollar itself was anchored to gold at a fixed price of $35 per ounce of gold.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) The “Bretton Woods System” is associated with
(a) World economy
(b) World polity
(c) American history
(d) History of Asian development
Answer:
(a) World economy
Explanation: It was set up to finance post war reconstruction and development of bruised economies.

(B) The World Bank was also called:
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) International Treasury Bank
(c) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(d) The International council of Banking
Answer:
(c) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development.

Related Theory
The full form of IMF is the International Monetary Fund.

(C) The Group of 77 or G – 77 was:
(a) A group formed by western nations to exploit the developing nations
(b) A group formed by the developing countries to demand a new international economic order
(c) A protest against the western economic policies
(d) A reform movement for the IMF
Answer:

(D) What was the fixed rating system?
(a) A scheme for exchanging of currencies
(b) A system to understand the value of dollar
(c) A system to establish an exchange rate among various currencies in the world to ease world trade.
(d) A system to deposit money in World Bank
Answer:

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
He adapted the assembly line of a Chicago slaughterhouse (in which slaughtered animals were picked apart by butchers as they came down a conveyor belt) to his new car plant in Detroit. He realised that the ‘assembly line’ method would allow a faster and cheaper way of producing vehicles. The assembly line forced workers to repeat a single task mechanically and continuously – such as fitting a particular part to the car – at a pace dictated by the conveyor belt. This was a way of increasing the output per worker by speeding up the pace of work. Standing in front of a conveyor belt no worker could afford to delay the motions, take a break, or even have a friendly word with a workmate.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the personality mentioned in the source?
(a) Henry Stanley
(b) Henry Mottle
(c) Henry Ford
(d) Henry Chremlinski
Answer:
(c) Henry Ford.

Explanation: Henry Ford was a pioneering industrialist who adapted the assembly line used in slaughterhouses to manufacturing of cars and reaped immense benefits.

(B) Which of the following turned out to be the best cost cutting decision of the personality mentioned?
(a) He doubled the daily wage to $5 in January 1914.
(b) He fired 1000 employees
(c) He fought in the Second World War
(d) He brought his main production unit to India.
Answer:

(C) The given source represents which of the following features of the US economy?
(a) Migration of Workers
(b) Mass-exports
(c) Mass imports
(d) Mass Production
Answer:

(D) The given source explains the success story of which of the following automobile giants?
(a) Ford Motors
(b) Volkswagen
(c) Tesla Motors
(d) Maruti Suzuki
Answer:
(a) Ford Motors

Explanation: Henry Ford, the famous industrialist established Ford Motors in the US in 1913-14 and adapted the assembly line method which made Ford Motors an automobile giant later.

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In the nineteenth century, as you have seen, colonial India had become an exporter of agricultural goods and importer of manufactures. The depression immediately affected Indian trade. India’s exports and imports nearly halved between 1928 and 1934. As international prices crashed, prices in India also plunged. Between 1928 and 1934, wheat prices in India fell by 50 per cent. Peasants and farmers suffered more than urban dwellers. Though agricultural prices fell sharply, the colonial government refused to reduce revenue demands. Peasants producing for the world market were the worst hit. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following features of the world economy can be inferred from the given description?
(a) Integration of global economy
(b) Disintegration of global economy
(c) World economy was progressing
(d) World economy was stable
Answer:
(a) Integration of Global Economy

Explanation: The world economy had started integrating by the time the depression hit and that is why, Indians felt the tremors of the depression even though it had not directly impacted the country.

(B) The Colonial India was an of machines.
(a) Producer
(b) Exporter
(c) Importer
(d) Assembler
Answer:

(C) Which of the following classes remained unaffected during the impact of the Great Depression?
(a) Backward Class
(b) Urban Salaried Class
(c) Manufacturing Class
(d) Worker Class
Answer:
(b) Urban Salaried Class

Explanation: Salaried classes working in the city had been least affected by the depression. This was because their income was not dependent on agricultural production- rather on their services to the administration. Town-dwelling landowners who received rents were also not as severely affected.

(D) Which of the following thought that Indian gold exports promoted global economic recovery?
(a) Ford
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Henry Motley
(d) John Keynes
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the two hostile groups of the First World War.
Answer:
Allied Countries and Central powers

Explanation: The First World War was fought between two power blocs. On the one side were the Allies- Britain, France and Russia (later joined by the US); and on the opposite side were the Central Powers- Germany, Austria- Hungary and Ottoman Turkey. The war began in 1914 and ended in 1918.

Question 2.
Why did most developing countries organize themselves into the Group of 77 during the 1960s?
Answer:
The developing nations organized themselves into G-77 so as to gain real control over their natural resources, to get more development assistance and fairer prices for raw materials.

Related Theory
They also wanted a better opportunity for their manufactured goods in the markets of developing nations.

Question 3.
Why did the European powers meet in Berlin in 1885?
Answer:
Big European powers met in Berlin in 1885 to carve up territories of Africa among themselves.

Question 4.
Which country was Corn Laws associated to?
Answer:
Britain

Question 5.
Define the terms ‘indentured labourer’.
Answer:
An indentured labourer was a bonded labourer under contract who worked for an employer for a specific amount of time, to pay off his passage to his choice of residence.

Question 6.
Define the term ‘tariff’.
Answer:
Tariffs are taxes and trade barriers imposed on a country’s imports from other countries.

Question 7.
Define the term ‘Veto’.
Answer:

Question 8.
Give an example of long distance cultural exchange trade?
Answer:
Exchange of food like noodles and pasta across regions and continents is an example of long distance cultural exchange trade.

Question 9.
What was the name given to the original inhabitants of America?
Answer:
American Indians

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science History MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 7 Print Culture and the Modern World with Answers

Print Culture and the Modern World Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 21, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 7 Print Culture and the Modern World with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

History Class 10 Chapter 7 MCQs On Print Culture and the Modern World

Class 10 History Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
Who brought hand printing technology to Japan?
(a) The Arab travelers in the 8th century
(b) Chinese silk merchants in the 6th century
(c) The Egyptians in the AD 800
(d) Buddhist missionaries in AD 768-770
Answer:
(d) Buddhist missionaries in AD 768-770

Explanation: They brought hand printing technology to Japan from China.

Print Culture And The Modern World MCQ Question 2.
The book, “Istri Dharam Vichar”’ talked about
(a) the link between caste and class exploitation
(b) instructions on how to act as ideal women and homemakers
(c) restrictions on the vernacular press
(d) ill-treatment of widows
Answer:
(b) instructions on how to act as ideal women and homemakers

Explanation: The book was written by Ram Chaddha.

Print Culture And The Modern World Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
The term ‘calligraphy means :
(a) The art of narrating a folk tale
(b) The art of beautiful, stylized writing
(c) The art of painting
(d) The art of drawing and sketching
Answer:
(b) The art of beautiful, stylized writing

Print Culture And The Modern World MCQ With Answers Question 4.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Kitagawa Utamaro was a …….. and he was famous for
(a) famous Chinese painter; paintings of the sky
(b) well-known Japanese artist; his art form ‘Ukiyoe
(c) well known Indian sitar player; his musical notes
(d) famous sportsperson; for playing chess
Answer:
(b) well-known Japanese artist; his art form ‘Ukiyoe

Explanation: Kitagawa Utamaro, born in Edo in 1753, was widely known for his contributions to an art form called Ukiyo which basically focused on depiction of ordinary human experiences, especially urban ones.

Print Culture And Modern World MCQ Question 5.
Choose the correctly matched pair:
(a) Diamond Sutra-Chinese book pn Jainism
(b) The Bible-lndian book on religion
(c) Tripitaka Koreana-collection of Korean Buddhist scriptures
(d) Jikji-Japanese book on the art of living
Answer:

MCQ On Print Culture And The Modern World Question 6.
Which of the following nationalists were the first to use wood-block printing in Europe?
(a) French
(b) Italians
(c) Portuguese
(d) Spaniards
Answer:
(b) Italians

Explanation: Marco Polo, the explorer, brought back to Europe from China the art of using wood block printing. Italians began using this technology and soon it spread around Europe.

Print Culture And The Modern World Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 7.
The main function of a compositor is to:
(a) compose poems
(b) compose the text for printing
(c) compose music
(d) compose lyrics and songs for a play
Answer:
(b) compose the text for printing

Class 10 History Chapter 7 Questions And Answers Question 8.
Which of the following statements implies that print culture was not the only basis for the French Revolution?
(a) Print culture encouraged questioning, critical reasoning and rule of reason rather than tradition through the ideas that it helped spread easily.
(b) It led to the birth of a new public culture of new ideas of social revolution.
(c) It aroused hostility against monarchy and caused reformation.
(d) Print opened up the possibility of thinking differently, but it did not shape their mentalities directly. It only helped in making them consider other opinions.
Answer:
(d) Print opened up the possibility of thinking differently, but it did not shape their mentalities directly. It only helped in making them consider other opinions.

Printer Option Is Available In MCQ Question 9.
Which of the following was not an effect of the blooming of urban culture in China in 17th century:
(a) New readership was born. This included children and women.
(b) Readership grew and reached the lowest classes of the country.
(c) Reading became a leisure activity.
(d) Merchants used print in their everyday life.
Answer:

Class 7 History Chapter 10 MCQ Questions Question 10.
Who among the following invented the first printing press in Europe in the 1430s?
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Kitagawa Utamaro
(c) Johann Gutenberg
(d) Marco Polo
Answer:
(c) Johann Gutenberg

Question 11.
Which of the following statements is not true about the printed copies by Gutenberg’s printing press?
(a) The printed books resembled the written manuscripts in appearance and layout.
(b) Borders were illuminated by hand with foliage and other patterns, and illustrations were painted
(c) There was no space for decoration on the printed page.
(d) The metal letters imitated the ornamental handwritten styles.
Answer:
(c) There was no space for decoration on the printed page.

Explanation: The books that were printed for the rich had a lot of space Left blank for further customised decoration.

Question 12.
The printing in Hindi began in which year? What kind of printed material was published?
(a) Hindi printing began from the 1870s, a large segment was devoted to women’s education, widow remarriage and the national movement.
(b) Hindi printing began from the 1870s and their main concern was women-related issues.
(c) Hindi printing began from 1900 and was devoted to education of women.
(d) Printing in Hindi began in the early 20th century and its main concern was religious reform.
Answer:
(a) Hindi printing began from the 1870s, a large segment was devoted to women’s education, widow remarriage and the national movement

Question 13.
…………….. wrote about the injustices of the caste system in ‘Gulamgiri’?
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Jyotiba Phule
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Bankim Chandra
Answer:

Question 14.
Which of the following is an enlightened thinker whose writings are said to have created conducive conditions for a revolution in France?
(a) Einstein
(b) Rousseau
(c) Menocchio
(d) Shakespeare
Answer:

Question 15.
………….. were low priced small books printed on poor quality paper and bound in cheap blue covers called in France.
(a) Almanacs
(b) Pennybooks
(c) Bibliotheque Bleue
(d) Epics
Answer:
(c) Bibliotheque Bleue

Question 16.
The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was modelled on
(a) American Press Laws
(b) Indian Press Laws
(c) British Press Laws
(d) Irish Press Laws
Answer:
(d) Irish Press Laws

Question 17.
In which among the following countries was the earliest kind of print technology developed?
(a) India
(b) England
(c) France
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China

Question 18.
Printing in which of the following languages had not begun until the 1870s?
(a) Urdu
(b) Hindi
(c) Bengali
(d) Maratha
Answer:
(b) Hindi

Explanation: Printing in other languages had begun much earlier.

Question 19.
Who wrote Ninety Five theses?
(a) Martin Luther
(b) Johann Gutenberg
(c) Charles Dickens
(d) L. Mercier
Answer:
(a) Martin Luther

Explanation: In 1517, the religious reformer Martin Luther wrote Ninety Five Theses criticising many of the practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church.

Question 20.
Who were called Chapmen?
(a) Book Seller
(b) Paper Seller
(c) Workers of Printing Press
(d) Seller of Penny Chapbooks

Question 21.
Why was reading of manuscripts not easy in India? Choose the appropriate reason from the following options.
(a) Manuscripts were highly cheap
(b) Manuscripts were widely spread out.
(c) Manuscripts were written in English and Hindi.
(d) Manuscripts were fragile.
Answer:
(d) Manuscripts were fragile.

Explanation: Manuscripts were made from palm- leaves or were handmade paper, which was very fragile.

Question 22.
Which of the following newspapers was started by Bal Gangadhar Tilak?
(a) Kesari
(b) Jansatta
(c) Statesman
(d) Amrita Bazar Patrika
Answer:
(a) Kesari

Question 23.
Who brought in the first printing press to India?
(a) Portuguese Missionaries
(b) Catholic Priests
(c) Dutch Protestants
(d) East India Company
Answer:
(a) Portuguese Missionaries

Explanation: It came to Goa with Portuguese missionaries in the mid-sixteenth century. Jesuit priests learnt Konkani and printed several tracts. By 1674, about 50 books had been printed in the Konkani and in Kanara languages.

Question 24.
Which one of the following was NOT the reason for the popularity of scientific ideas among the common people in eighteenth-century Europe?
(a) Printing ideas of Isaac Newton
(b) Development of printing press
(c) Interest of people in Science and reason
(d) Traditional aristocratic groups supported it
Answer:

Question 25.
In early nineteenth-century ‘Shamsul Akhbar’ as written in which one of the following languages ?
(a) Urdu
(b) Persian
(c) Arabic
(d) Swahili
Answer:
(b) Persian

Explanation: Two Persian newspapers- Jam- i-Jahan Nama and Shamsul Akhbar were published in 1822.

Question 26.
Which one of the following was published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy?
(a) Sambad Kaumudi
(b) Shamsul Akhbar
(c) Punjab Kesari
(d) Chandrika
Answer:
(a) Sambad Kaumudi

Explanation: Sambad Kaumudi got published in 1819 and was owned by Raja Ram Mohan Roy. It was a Bengali weekly newspaper and was noted as a pro-reformist publication which raised voice for the abolition of Sati Pratha.

Question 27.
Which one of the following was the oldest Japanese book printed in 868 AD?
(a) Bible
(b) Diamond Sutra
(c) Kokoro
(d) Kojiki
Answer:
(b) Diamond Sutra

Explanation: The oldest Japanese book, printed in AD 868, the Buddhist Diamond Sutra, contains six sheets of text and woodcut illustrations.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 23.
Identify the personality:
(1) He grew up on a large agricultural estate and had been surrounded by wine and olive presses.
(2) He was a master goldsmith.
(3) He revolutionized the printing industry.
(4) He printed 180 copies of the Bible.
Answer:
Johannes Gutenberg

Explanation: He invented the printing press that completely shook the entire printing industry.

Question 29.
Identify the organization:
(1) It was founded in 1867,
(2) It published thousands of fatwas instructing the way of life to Muslims
(3) It also translated and explained the meaning of some Islamic doctrine.
Answer:
The Deoband Seminary

Explanation: The seminary was founded by Muhammad Qasim Nanautavi, Rashid Ahmad Gangohi etc., in 1866.

Question 32.
The Sedition Committee Report under Rowlatt in 1919 reduced the controls that led to imposition of penalties on various newspapers.
Answer:

Question 33.
When Punjab revolutionaries were deported in 1907, Balgangadhar Tilak wrote with great sympathy about them in his Kesari.
Answer:
True

Question 34.
After the revolt of 1857, enraged Englishmen demanded a clamp down on the British press.
Answer:
False

After the revolt of 1857, enraged Englishmen demanded a clamp down on the ‘native’ press. Explanation: They considered that the revolt of 1857 was caused due to the nationalist ideas spread through native newspapers and pamphlets.

Question 35.
E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker was known as Periyar in Madras.
Answer:
True

Question 36.
Lakshminath Bezbaruah penned the popular song of Assam, ‘O Mor Apunar Desh’ (O’ my beloved land).
Answer:
True

Question 37.
Kashibaba, a Kanpur millworker, wrote and published Sachchi Kavitaayein in 1938 to show the links between caste and class exploitation.
Answer:

Question 38.
Gutenberg developed metal types for each of the 26 characters of the Italian alphabet.
Answer:
False

Gutenberg developed metal types for each of the 26 characters of the Roman alphabet.

Question 39.
Newspapers conveyed news from one place to another, creating pan-Indian identities.
Answer:
True

Explanation: Print connected communities and people in different parts of India. It became easy for people to connect to other Indians in extreme north/south or East/west. They started recognising one another.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 40.
This shift from hand printing to ………….. led to the print revolution.
Answer:
mechanical printing

Explanation: Mechanical Printing made printing easier, less expensive and more accessible. The books were made available more easily to all classes and sections of the society.

Question 41.
Aristocratic circles of Europe liked their manuscripts to be printed on …………….
Answer:

Question 42.
In 19th century China, the city of…………….became the hub of the new print culture, catering to the Western-style schools.
Answer:
Shanghai

Question 43.
……………… gave British government extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press.
Answer:
The Vernacular Press Act

Question 44.
The first printed edition of Ramcharitmanans came out in ………………..
Answer:
In 1810 in Calcutta

Question 45.
The first Malayalam book was printed by Catholic priests in
Answer:
1713

Question 46.
In Central Calcutta, at cheap editions of religious tracts and scriptures, as well as literature that was considered obscene and scandalous could be purchased.
Answer:

Question 47.
By 1448, Gutenberg perfected the system of printing. The first book he printed was the [CBSE 2020,17]
Answer:
Bible

Explanation: Gutenberg was a son of a merchant and he mastered printing techniques by 1448. The first book that he printed was the Bible.

Related Theory
Gutenberg developed metal types for each 26 characters of the Roman alphabet and this came to be known as movable type printing machine and it remained as the basic printing technology for the next 300 years. The Gutenberg press could print 250 sheets on one side per hour.

Question 48.
Buddhist missionaries from China introduced hand-printing technology into …………… around A.D. 768-770.
Answer:
Japan

Explanation: The earliest kind of print technology was developed in China, Japan and Korea, out of which hand printing technology was introduced into Japan by Buddhist missionaries from China. The oldest Japanese book was printed in A.D. 868 named as the Buddhist Diamond Sutra which had six sheets of text and wood-cut illustrations.

Related Theory
About 180 copies of the Bible were printed and it took him years to produce them. By the standards of the time this was fast production.

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 49.
Match the following items given in column A with those in column B.

Column A (Authors)	Column B (Books)
(A) Rashsundari Debi	(I) Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal
(B) Sudarshan Chakr	(II) Kesari
(C) Kashibaba	(III) Amar Jiban
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak	(IV) Sacchi Kavitayen

Answer:

Column A (Authors)	Column B (Books)
(A) Rashsundari Debi	(III) Amar Jiban
(B) Sudarshan Chakr	(IV) Sacchi Kavitayen
(C) Kashibaba	(I) Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak	(II) Kesari

Question 50.
Match the following items given in column A with those in column B

Column A (Pamphlets)	Column B (Year of Publication)
(A) Bengal Gazette	(I) 1822
(B) Statesman	(II) 1780
(C) Sambad Kaumudi	(III) 1877
(D) Jan-i-Jahan Nama	(IV) 1821

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 History Chapter 7

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:,
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 51.
Assertion (A): Every page of each copy printed by Gutenberg’s press was different.
Reason (R): In each copy, the borders were carefully designed, painted, and illuminated by hand by artists.
Answer:

Question 52.
Assertion (A): With the printing press, a new reading public emerged.
Reason (R): Printing reduced the cost of books and they became easily available.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 53.
Assertion (A): The line that separated the oral and reading cultures became blurred, the hearing public and reading public became intermingled.
Reason (R): People became literate.

Question 54.
Assertion (A): Many were apprehensive of the effects that the easier access to the printed word and the wider circulation of books, could have on people’s minds.
Reason (R): New ideas were completely disastrous and blasphemous.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: New ideas were more rational and scientific and they strongly contrasted with the orthodox and conservative approach of the medieval ages. Hence the people were worried that these thoughts would pollute the minds and hearts of people.

Question 55.
Assertion (A): When scientists like Isaac Newton began to publish their discoveries, they could influence a much wider circle of scientifically-minded readers.
Reason (R): More people could read and form opinions on his theories, this helped the scientific temper grow.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
As the demand for books increased, booksellers all over Europe began exporting books to many different countries. Book fairs were held at different places. Production of handwritten manuscripts was also organised in new ways to meet the expanded demand. Scribes or skilled hand writers were no longer solely employed by wealthy or influential patrons but increasingly by booksellers as well. Manuscripts could be produced in Europe because:
(a) The Italians discovered paper and art of printing from where it spread to the rest of Europe.
(b) Paper reached Europe via the Arab world
(c) Paper after being discovered in China reached Europe in the 11th century via the silk route, like silk and spices
(d) Indian discovered paper and the explorers took it back with them.
Answer:
(c) Paper after being discovered in China reached Europe in the 11th century via the silk route, like silk and spices

Question 2.
What was the role of the lending libraries in England in the 19th century?
(I) They promoted the reading among the working-class people
(II) They educated the white collar workers, artisans and lower middle-class people
(III) They encouraged self-improvement, self-expression and encouraged the working class to write autobiographies.
(IV) They helped the people understand society.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III) only
(c) (I), (III) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(b) (II) & (III) only

Question 3.
Match the items in Column A to items in Column B:

Column A (Books)	Column B (Theme)
(A) Ninety Five Theses	(I) Against Idolatry and Brahmanical priesthood
(B) Chote aur Bade ka Sawal	(II) About women and their daily lives
(C) Amar Jiban	(III) About Caste exploitation
(D) Sambad Kaumudi	(IV) About the religion of Christianity

(a) (A)-(I),(B)-(III),(C)-(IV),(D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III),(B)-(IV),(C)-(II),(D)-(I)
(c) (A) – (II),(B) – (III),(C)- (IV),(D)- (I)
(d) (A)-(IV),(B)-(III),(C)-(II),(D)-(I)
Answer:
(d) (A)-(IV),(B)-(III),(C)-(II),(D)-(I)

Question 4.
Which of the following books reflects the plight of the Tower castes’ and poor in India?
(I) Sambad Kaumudi
(II) Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal
(III) Sachchi Kavitayen
(IV) Amar Jiban
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III) only
(c) (I), (III) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press. During the First World War, under the Defence of India Rules, 22 newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to imposition of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the Second World War, the Defence of India Act was passed, allowing
censoring of reports of war-related topics. All reports about the Quit India movement came under its purview. In August 1942, about 90 newspapers were suppressed.
(A) Which of the following acts was related to suppression of the Press?
(I) Rowlatt Act
(II) Vernacular Press Act
(III) GOI act, 1935
(IV) Defence of India Act
(a) (I) only
(b) (II), (III) & (IV) only
(c) (II) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(c) (II) & (IV) only

Explanation: Both the acts were closely related to the subject of freedom of the press. They established complete government control over the press and employed very stringent measures to control the publication of nationalist views and articles.

(B) What is sedition?
Answer:
Sedition is the practice of inciting resistance to or insurrection against lawful authority by using word or action.

(C) Which of the following Nationalist was imprisoned for writing an article about deportation of Punjab revolutionaries?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Kashibaba
Answer:

(D) Assertion (A): The colonial government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press.
Reason(R): They were worried that this might affect their trade monopoly.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Printing created an appetite for new kinds of writing. As more and more people could now read, they wanted to see their own lives, experiences, emotions and relationships reflected in what they read. The novel, a literary firm which had developed in Europe, ideally catered to this need. It soon acquired distinctively Indian forms and styles. For readers, it opened up new worlds of experience, and gave a vivid sense of the diversity of human lives. Other new literary forms also entered the world of reading.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) What need did the novel firm in England catered to?
(a) They produced novels based on Indian trade and history
(b) They produced novels and literature dealing with emotions and real life experiences of Indians
(c) They produced literature which presented European lives to Indians
(d) They produced literature which inter-continental culture and practices.
Answer:

(B) Which of the following literary forms were introduced as mentioned in the source?
(a) Lyrical poems
(b) Essays about women
(c) Religious epics
(d) Short stories, essays about social and political matters.
Answer:

(C) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option-
Amar Jiban: Rashsundari Debi : Ram Chaddha
(a) Sacchi Kabitaayein
(b) Kesari
(c) Istri Dharm Vichar
(d) Stri Purush Tulna
Answer:
(c) Istri Dharm Vichar

(D) What was indicated regarding the print culture by the creative new appetite of writing and reading?
(a) Print culture made people see themselves in a new light.
(b) Print culture made people aware of their own locality.
(c) Print culture gave birth to new ideas, brought people closer and made them more confident about their identity and existence..
(d) It made them wonder about how other people lived.
Answer:
(c) Print culture gave birth to new ideas, brought people closer and made them more confident about their identity and existence.

Explanation: Print culture helped people learn new ideas, concepts and emotions. It brought them closer through constant flow of information.

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Textbooks for this examination were printed in vast numbers under the sponsorship of the imperial state. From the sixteenth century, the number of examination candidates went up and that increased the volume of print. By the seventeenth century, as urban culture bloomed in China, the uses of print diversified. Print was no longer used just by scholar officials. Merchants used print in their everyday life, as they collected trade information. Reading increasingly became a leisure activity.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Where was this examination mentioned in the source held?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Korea
(d) Japan
Answer:
(b) China
Explanation: The Civil Services examination was held in China. The bureaucracy and personnel were recruited through these examinations.

(B) Which of the following was one of the groups that began reading for leisure?
(a) Children
(b) Businessmen
(c) Labourer men
(d) Rich Women and scholar wives
Answer:

(C) How did China manage to print such a large amount of books to feed the new readership?
(a) China developed a new technology of metal printing.
(b) China employed more printers.
(c) China imported western printing techniques.
(d) China used its colonies to print a lot of material.
Answer:

(D) Where was paper invented?
(a) Korea
(b) Japan
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
There was a virtual reading mania. People wanted books to read and printers produced books in ever-increasing numbers. New forms of popular literature appeared in print, targeting new audiences. Booksellers employed pedlars who roamed around villages, carrying little books for sale. There were almanacs or ritual calendars, along with ballads and folktales. But other forms of reading matter, largely for entertainment, began to reach ordinary readers as well. In England, penny chapbooks were carried by petty pedlars known as chapmen, and sold for a penny, so that even the poor could buy them.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following reasons appropriately describes why there was a virtual reading mania in European countries at the end of the 18th century?
(a) Printers were able to print them quicker than before.
(b) Churches set up schools in villages carrying literacy to peasants and artisans
(c) Computers had arrived and the internet began and fueled this mania.
(d) Readers got to read more material than before.
Answer:

(B) Which of the following was not a reading material meant for entertainment?
(a) Almanac
(b) Ballads
(c) Folktales
(d) Romances
Answer:
(a) Almanac

Explanation: They were ritual calendars not made for entertainment but for information.

(C) Which of the following genres of books was sold along with romances during the 18th century?
(a) Geography related books
(b) Drama
(c) Scientific fiction
(d) Histories
Answer:

(D) How were the new audiences lured by producers?
(a) Books were sold in high prices
(b) Peddlers were made to take books to different localities and sell door to door.
(c) New genres like horror was introduced
(d) New printing technique was used
Answer:
(d) Histories

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of the term “calligraphy”?
Answer:
Calligraphy is a visual art related to writing. It is the design and execution of lettering with a broad tip instrument, brush, or other writing instruments.

Related Theory
This word has its roots in Greek language ‘kalli’ means beautiful and ‘graphia’ is the Greek word for writing.

Question 2.
Why was ‘Gulamgiri’ book written by Jyotiba Phule in 1871?
Answer:

Question 3.
Name the first book printed by the Gutenberg Press.
Answer:
The Bible

Question 4.
Name the oldest Japanese book.
Answer:
Diamond Sutra printed in 868 AD.

Question 5.
Who introduced hand-printing technology in Japan?
Answer:
Buddhist missionaries.

Question 6.
Who invented the printing press?
Answer;
Johann Gutenberg

Explanation: Johann Gutenberg developed the first-known printing press in the 1430s in Germany.

Question 7.
Who brought the knowledge of woodblock printing technique to Italy during the 13th century?
Answer:
Marco Polo

Question 8.
Wooden or metal frames in which types are laid and the text composed for printing was known as?
Answer:
Galley

Question 9.
Why was the Vernacular Press Act passed in 1878?
Answer:
The Vernacular Act was passed to prevent criticism of British government by the vernacular language newspapers.

Question 10.
Who were the Ulamas?
Answer:
They were the legal scholars of Islam and law of Sharia.

Question 11.
Name the book published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy?
Answer:
Sambad Kaumudi

Related Theory
Sambad Kaumudi was published in 1821, to express and convey Rammohan Roy’s ideas against Hindu orthodoxy, Brahminicat priesthood, idolatry. As a reaction, Hindu orthodoxy published Samachar Chandrika.

Question 12.
Name the author of Amar Jiban?
Answer:
Rashsundari Debi

Related Theory
Published in 1876, Amar Jiban was the first full- length autobiography published in the Bengali language.

Question 13.
Who wrote Chhote aur Bade ka Sawal? When was it published?
Answer:
Kashibaba, a mill worker from Kanpur

Question 14.
Why did the Roman Catholic Church impose control over publishers and booksellers?
Answer:
It imposed control over books to check the spread of different interpretations of religious texts and books which posed a threat to its position.

Question 15.
How did governor general William Bentinck react to the petition filed by editors of English and Vernacular newspapers?
Answer:
Governor-General Bentinck agreed to revise press laws after 1835.

Question 16.
Why did Martin Luther say that ‘Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one’?
Answer:

Question 17.
Why could not manuscripts satisfy the increasing demand of books in Europe during the fourteenth century?
Answer:
Manuscripts could not satisfy the increasing demand for books in Europe during the fourteenth century because they were fragile, difficult to handle and could not be carried around or read easily.

Question 18.
Who was Menocchio?
Answer:
He was a miller of the 16th century of Italy who was executed for spreading self interpreted heretical ideas about the God and the Church.

Question 19.
Who formulated the new press laws for India after Bentinck agreed to revise press laws?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science History MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Science Physics Chapter 11 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 10 Chapter 11 MCQs On Human Eye and Colourful World

Human Eye And Colourful World Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
A student traces the path of a ray of light through a glass prism for different angles of incidence. He analyses each diagram and draws the following conclusion:
(I) On entering prism, the Lightray bends towards its base.
(II) light ray suffers refraction at the point of incidence and point of emergence while passing through the prism.
(III) Emergent ray bends at a certain angle to the direction of the incident ray.
(IV) White emerging from the prism, the Lightray bends towards the vertex of the prism.
Out of the above inferences, the correct ones are:
(a) (I), (II) and (III)
(b) (I), (III) and (IV)
(c) (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) (I), (II) and (III)

Related Theory:
In a prism, the ray of light from air into glass bends towards the normal. The ray of light from glass to air bends away from the normal. In both cases, when a ray of light passes through a prism, it bends towards the base of the prism.

Human Eye And Colourful World MCQ Question 2.
A clear sky appears blue, because:
(a) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere
(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than the lights of all other colours by the atmosphere
(d) lights of all other colours are scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the atmosphere
Answer:

Human Eye Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of different colours of white light in the air?
(a) Red light moves the fastest.
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light.
(c) All the colours of the white light travel at the same speed.
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of red and violet light.
Answer:

Human Eye MCQ Class 10 Question 4.
In the following diagram, the correctly marked angles are:

(a) All
(b) Only ∠i, and ∠A
(c) ∠i, ∠r and ∠A
(d) ∠i, ∠A and ∠D
Answer:

Human Eye And The Colourful World MCQ Question 5.
The bluish colour of water in the deep sea is due to:
(a) the presence of algae and other plants found in water
(b) reflection of the sky in the water
(c) scattering of light
(d) absorption of light by the sea
Answer:
(c) scattering of light

Explanation: The bluish colour of water in the deep sea is due to scattering of light. The fine particles in water scatter mainly blue light having the shortest wavelength.

Related Theory:
Water appears blue because when white light from the Sun falls on the water molecules, only blue light is reflected and scattered and reaches our eyes.
The absorption of light by a molecule depends on the wavelength and the size of the molecule. A molecule absorbs light of a wavelength either equal to or greater than the order of the size of the object.
Since red, orange and yellow have longer wavelengths, they are absorbed by the water molecules, whereas blue, having a shorter wavelength, is scattered.

Colourful World Class 10 MCQ Question 6.
During the experiment, to trace the path of ray of light through the glass prism, students reported the following observations:
(I) The ray of light from air to glass at the first refracting surface bends away from the normal after refraction.
(II) At the second refracting surface, light rays entered from air to glass.
(III) Lightray suffers two refractions on passing through a prism and in each refraction it bends towards the base of the prism.
(IV) Lightray suffers two refractions on passing through a prism. In first refraction, it bends away from the normal while in the second refraction it bends towards the normaL
The correct observation is/are:
(a) (I) and (II) only
(b) (III) only
(c) (II) and (IV) only
(d) (I) and (IV) only
Answer:

Class 10 Human Eye And The Colourful World MCQ Question 7.
In an experiment to trace the path of a ray of light through a triangular glass prism, a student would observe that the emergent ray
(a) is parallel to the incident ray.
(b) is along the same direction of incident ray.
(c) gets deviated and bends towards the thinner part of the prism.
(d) gets deviated and bends towards the thicker part (base) of the prism.
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 11 MCQ Question 8.
In the following ray diagram the correctly marked angle are:

(a) ∠i, and ∠e
(b) ∠A and ∠D
(c) ∠i, ∠e and ∠D
(d) ∠r, ∠A and ∠D
Answer:
(d) ∠r, ∠A and ∠D

Human Eye And Colourful World Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
A person cannot see distinctly the objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power:
(a) + 0.5 D
(b) – 0.5 D
(c) + 0.2 D
(d) – 0.2 D
Answer:

MCQ Of Human Eye Class 10 Question 10.
A student sitting on the last bench can read the letters written on the blackboard but is not able to read the letters written in his textbook. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The near point of his eyes has receded away.
(b) The near point of his eyes has come closer to him.
(c) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him.
(d) The far point of his eyes has receded away.
Answer:
(a) The near point of his eyes has receded away.

Explanation: The student can see the object which is far from him but can’t see nearby objects. It means that the near point of his eyes has receded away. This condition is known as hypermetropia or farsightedness.

MCQ On Human Eye Class 10 Question 11.
When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the:
(a) crystalline lens
(b) the outer surface of the cornea
(c) iris
(d) pupil
Answer:
(b) the outer surface of the cornea

Explanation: Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea. It causes most of the bending of incident light rays, i.e. refraction, to make them converge which in turn causes image formation on the retina.

Ch 11 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles:
(a) are relaxed and the lens becomes thinner
(b) contract and the lens becomes thicker
(c) are relaxed and the lens becomes thicker
(d) contract and the lens becomes thinner
Answer:

The Colourful World Class 10 MCQ Question 13.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly.
(b) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly.
(c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly.
(d) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly.
Answer:
(c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly.

Explanation: Myopia is also termed as short-sightedness. A person suffering from myopia can see nearby objects clearly but not the distant objects. Whereas hypermetropia is termed as long-sightedness. A person suffering from hypermetropia can see distant objects clearly but not the nearby objects.

Class 10 Science Ch 11 MCQ Question 14.
Person suffering from cataract has:
(a) elongated eyeball
(b) excessive curvature of eye lens
(c) weakened ciliary muscles
(d) opaque eye Lens
Answer:

Human Eye And The Colourful World Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
When we enter a dark room coming from outside, immediately the things inside the room do not appear clear to our eyes. This is because:
(a) pupils do not open at all in the dark.
(b) pupils take time to adjust.
(c) light travels slower in a dark room.
(d) pupils open very quickly in the dark.
Answer:

MCQ Of Colourful World Class 10 Question 16.
The phenomena of light responsible for the working of the human eye is:
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) power of accommodation
(d) persistence of vision
Answer:

MCQs On Human Eye And Colourful World Question 17.
The sky appears dark to passengers flying at very high altitudes mainly because:
(a) Scattering of light is not enough at such heights.
(b) There is no atmosphere at great heights.
(c) The size of molecules is smaller than the wavelength of visible light.
(d) The light gets scattered towards the earth.
Answer:
(a) Scattering of light is not enough at such heights.

Explanation: At higher altitude either the atmospheric medium is very rare or there are no particles present/ no atmosphere, thus the scattering of light taking place is not enough at such heights or no scattering of sunlight takes place. Hence, the sky appears dark to the passengers flying at very high altitude.

MCQ Of Human Eye And Colourful World Question 18.
Given below are some common observations related to optics. Select the row containing incorrect observations and its reason.

Observation	Reason
(a) Colour of water in deep sea	Scattering of light
(b) Apparent position of stars	Atmospheric refraction
(c) Fishes appear higher than their actual depth	Diffraction of light
(d) Spectrum seen on soap bubbles	Dispersion of light

Answer:
(c) Observation: Fishes appear higher than their actual depth, Reason: Diffraction of light

Explanation: Fishes appear higher than their actual depth due to the refraction of light as light travels from water, an optically denser medium, to air, a rarer medium. Diffraction of light refers to the phenomena of bending of light around corners.

Class 10 Physics Human Eye And The Colourful World MCQ Question 19.
The defective eye of a person has near point 0.5 m and far point 75 cm. The table below lists the type of corrective lens and its power required for reading purposes and for seeing distant objects.

Select the row containing the correct information:

For reading purpose	For seeing distant objects
(a) Concave lens of power – 0.5 D	Convex lens of power + 0.75 D
(b) Convex lens of power +0.5 D	A concave lens of power – 0.75 D
(c) Convex Lens of power + 0.5 D	Concave Lens of power-1.33 D
(d) Convex Lens of power + 2.0 D	Concave Lens of power -1.33 D

Answer:

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Human Eye And Colourful World Question 20.
A 55-year-old near-sighted person wears spectacles with a power of – 2.5 D for distance viewing. His doctor prescribes a correction of + 2.0 D in the near-vision section of his bifocals. This is measured relative to the main part of the lens.

Select the correct statements:
(I) The focal length of the distance-viewing part of the lens is – 40 cm.
(II) The focal length of the near-vision part of the lens is + 50 cm.
(III) The focal length of the distance-viewing part of the lens is + 50 cm.
(IV) The focal length of the near-vision part of the lens is – 40 cm.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Class 10 Science Human Eye And Colourful World MCQ Question 21.
A beam of white light falling on a glass prism gets split up into seven colours marked 1 to 7 as shown in the diagram
Select the incorrect statements regarding the colours marked from 1 to 7:
(I) The colour at position marked 7 and 5 are similar to the colour of the blood and colour of gold metal respectively.
(II) The colour at position marked 1 and 3 are similar to the colour of the blood and colour of gold metal respectively.
(III) The colour at position marked 3 and 4 are similar to the colour of the sky and colour of leaves in plants respectively.
(IV) The colour at position marked 5 and 4 are similar to the colour of the sky and colour of leaves in plants respectively.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 22.
The defects of vision hypermetropia and myopia can be corrected by:
(a) Concave and a plano-convex lens
(b) Concave and convex lens
(c) Convex and concave lens
(d) Plano-concave lens for both defects.
Answer:
(c) Convex and concave lens

Explanation: Hypermetropia or farsightedness can be corrected by using convex lens of appropriate power and myopia by a concave lens of appropriate power.

Question 23.
The layer of atmosphere whose temperature is less than that of the hotter layer behaves as an optically
(a) denser medium
(b) rarer medium
(c) inactive medium
(d) either denser or rarer medium
Answer:
(a) denser medium

Explanation: The layer of atmosphere whose temperature is less than that of hotter layer is more denser as compared to the hotter layer of the atmosphere. So, when light travels from a cooler layer of atmosphere to a hotter Layer, it will bend away from the normal.

Question 24.
The sun appears white at noon as:
(a) Blue colour is scattered the most
(b) Red colour is scattered the most
(c) Light is least scattered
(d) All the colours of the white light are scattered away
Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 11

For the following questions, two statements are given-one tabled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R) select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below: ,
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of the (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 25.
Assertion (A): Sky appears in blue colour.
Reason (R): Blue colour in sunlight travelling through atmosphere undergoes maximum scattering.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: The blue colour of the sky is due to the scattering of blue colour to the maximum extent by dust particles. The blue colour appears to be coming from the sky. Blue colour has the least wavelength. Hence, the correct option is (a).

Question 26.
Assertion (A): When white light passes through a glass prism, red colour has deviated the least.
Reason (R): Red colour has the minimum speed in the glass prism.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: When white light passes through a glass prism, red colour deviates the least because red colour has maximum speed in the prism.

Question 27.
Assertion (A): When objects are observed through hot air, they appear to be moving slightly.
Reason (R): Hotter air is optically denser and the cooler air is optically rarer.
Answer:

Question 28.
Assertion (A): A rainbow is always formed in the sky after a rain shower and in the same direction as the sun.
Reason (R): Water droplets act as tiny prisms.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Explanation: A rainbow is always formed in the sky in a direction opposite to that of the sun. The water droplets present in the sky act as tiny prisms, which refract and disperse sunlight, then reflect it internally and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop.

Question 29.
Assertion (A): The sun’s disc appears to be flattened at sunrise and sunset.
Reason (R): The sun is near the horizon at sunrise and sunset and sunlight suffers atmospheric refraction.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Ankit remarked that he has seen wavering of objects when seen through a stream of hot air rising above a tandoor or a fire. He said that the air just above the fire becomes hotter than the air further higher up. He further said that this wavering can also be seen in the earth’s atmosphere as the earth’s atmosphere is not evenly distributed and several observations can be explained on the basis of this phenomenon.
(A) Name the phenomenon about which Ankit remarked.
(B) Name two observations which can be explained by the above phenomenon.
(C) What is the total time difference on duration of day on earth?
(D) Why don’t planets twinkle?
Answer:
(B) The two observations are: twinkling of stars, advance sunrise, delayed sunset and apparent position of stars. (Any two).
(D) Planets are much closer to the earth and can be considered as extended sources or a collection of several point sources. The total variation in intensity of light entering our eyes from each of these point sources average out to zero, thereby nullifying the twinkling effect.

Question 2.
Renu was returning home after purchasing some medicines for her mother. It was noon and really very hot on that particular day. She tried to look at the sun but the sun was shining so brightly that she could hardly see it directly. She somehow managed to see its reflection on a window and noticed that the colour of sun was white.

At noon, the Sun appears white as:
(a) light is least scattered
(b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) blue colour is scattered the most
(d) red colour is scattered the most
Answer:
(a) light is least scattered
Explanation: At noon, the sun is directly over head and has lesser air to travel through and thus will be reduced if the distance to be traveled in air is reduced. Less scattering leads to the Sun appearing white as only a little of the blue and violet colour is scattered.

Question 3.
Raman is a keen observer and loved the spectacular colours in a rainbow. He also observed the same pattern when he allowed sunlight to pass through a glass prism. He guessed that it is due to the inclined refracting surfaces of a glass prism which is responsible for showing such exciting phenomenon. Whereas, no such phenomenon was observed when light passes through a glass slab.
(A) Name the phenomenon which could explain the formation of rainbow.
Answer:
The phenomenon which could explain the formation of rainbow is dispersion or splitting of light into its component colours.

(B) What is the band of colours known as?
Answer:

(C) What is the cause of formation of band of colours?
Answer:
The cause for formation of spectrum of light is that different colours of Light bend through different angles with respect to the incident ray as light passes through a prism,

(D) Why don’t we observe similar band of colours when light passes through a glass slab?
Answer:
We don’t observe splitting of white light into its component colours when light passes through a glass slab because the refracting surfaces in a glass slab are parallel to each other whereas they are inclined at an angle in a glass prism

Question 4.
Sunny and his friends went to the terrace of their apartment building to watch the night sky. They noticed that all apartment buildings had red light installed at the terrace. Sunny had also seen red lights on top of tall towers such as the Pitampura TV tower and even on top of the GSM towers.

The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour, These can be easily seen from a distance because among all other colours, the red light:
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(d) moves the fastest in air
Answer:
(b) is scattered the Least by smoke or fog

Explanation: Among all the colours, red is scattered the Least by smoke or fog. This is because the wavelength of red colour is the largest. Thus, it can be easily seen from a distance. Since the wavelength of red light is maximum in the spectrum, it’s penetration power in the air is maximum and so we can see red colour from farther distances, thus, danger signal uses red colour.

Question 5.
Fix a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using drawing pins. Place a glass prism on it in such a way that it rests on its triangular base. Trace the outline of the prism using a pencil. Draw a straight line PE inclined to one of the refracting surfaces, say AB, of the prism. Fix two pins, say at points P and Q, on the line PE as shown in Fig. below.

Look for the images of the pins, fixed at P and Q, through the other face AC. Fix two more pins, at points R and S, such that the pins at R. and S and the images of the pins at P and Q lie on the same straight line. Remove the pins and the glass prism. The line PE meets the boundary of the prism at point E. Similarly, join and produce the points R and S. Let these lines meet the boundary of the prism at E and F, respectively. Join E and F. Draw perpendiculars to the refracting surfaces AB and AC of the prism at points E and F, respectively. Mark the angle of incidence (i), the angle of refraction (r) and the angle of emergence (e) as shown in Fig.

(A) Given below are four statements regarding incident ray, refracted ray and emergent ray in the above figure.
Select the incorrect statements:
(I) PE is the incident ray.
(II) EF is the emergent ray.
(III) EF is the refracted ray and FS is the emergent ray.
(IV)PE is the incident ray and FS is the refracted ray.
(a) Both (1) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (II) and (IV)

Explanation: Here PE is the incident ray, EF is the refracted ray and FS is the emergent ray. PE is the incident ray as light, is incident on the prism face AB. Light undergoes refraction in the glass prism and bends away from the normal and hence EF is the refracted ray. The ray FS is the emergent ray as light emerges out of the face AC of the prism along this direction.

(B) The angles of incidence (i), refraction (r) and emergence (e) are mentioned in the table below. Select the row containing the correct marking of angles:

Answer:

(C) The angle of deviation is the angle between:
(a) Refracted ray and incident ray
(b) Refracted ray and emergent ray
(c) Emergent ray and face AC of the prism
(d) Emergent ray and incident ray
Answer:

(D) In a glass prism, the emergent ray is not parallel to the incident ray as:
(a) The laws of refraction do not hold in the case of glass prism.
(b) The refracting surfaces are inclined at an angle.
(c) The angle of refraction in glass is greater than the angle of incidence.
(d) The angle of refraction in glass is greater than the angle of emergence.
Answer:

(E) If n is the refractive index of glass of which the prism is made, which of the following relations is correct ?
(a) n = $\frac{\sin \angle i}{\sin \angle r}$
(b) n = $\frac{\sin \angle r}{\sin \angle i}$
(c) n = $\frac{\sin 90^{\circ}}{\sin \angle e}$
(d) n = $\frac{\sin \angle r}{\sin \angle e}$
Answer:
(a) n = $\frac{\sin \angle i}{\sin \angle r}$

Question 6.
While walking along the beach in Mumbai, Madhuri and her friends were amazed at the beauty of the setting sun and its reflection on the sea against the backdrop of buildings. They observed that the sun appeared reddish at sunset and even at sunrise.

Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset?
(a) Dispersion of light
(b) Scattering of light
(c) Total internal reflection of light
(d) Reflection of light from Earth
Answer:
(b) Scattering of light

Explanation: Scattering of light contributes to the reddish appearance of the Sun at sunrise or sunset. Near the horizon, most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered away by the particles. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelengths. The red light has the maximum wavelength. This gives rise to the reddish appearance of the Sun.

Related Theory
Light from the Sun, near the horizon, passes through thicker layers of air and a large distance in Earth’s atmosphere before reaching our eyes. Near the horizon, most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered awau by the particles. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelengths. The red light has the maximum wavelength. This gives rise to the reddish appearance of the Sun.

Question 7.
Place a strong source (S) of white light at the focus of a converging lens (Lj). Allow the light beam to pass through a transparent glass tank (T) containing clear water. Allow the beam of light to pass through a circular hole (c) made in a cardboard. Obtain a sharp image of the circular hole on a screen (MN) using a second converging lens (Ly), as shown in Fig. below.
Dissolve about 200 g of sodium thiosulphate (hypo) in about 2 L of clean water taken in the tank. Add about 1 to 2 mi of concentrated sulphuric acid to the water.

(A) What is the role of lenses L₁ and L₂ in the activity?

Role of Lens L₁	Role of Lens L₂
(a) Converges a beam of light placed at S	Converges a parallel beam of light
(b) Provides a parallel beam of light	Converges a parallel beam of light
(c) Provides a parallel beam of light	Provides a parallel beam of light
(d) Converges a beam of light placed at S	Provides a parallel beam of light

Answer:

(B) When about 200 g of sodium thiosulphate (hypo) is dissolved in about 2 L of clean water taken in the tank and about 1 to 2 mL of concentrated sulphuric acid is added to the water, it is observed that:
(a) A true solution is formed after 2 to 3 minutes.
(b) A suspension of sodium is formed in the tank
(c) Sulphur particles start precipitating in about 2 to 3 minutes.
(d) No change is observed.
Answer:
(c) Sulphur particles start precipitating in about 2 to 3 minutes.

Explanation: We will find fine microscopic sulphur particles precipitating in about 2 to 3 minutes due to the reaction between sulphuric acid and sodium thiosulphate.

(C) The observations regarding change in colour of light in the tank about 2 to 3 minutes after adding sulphuric acid to hypo is:
(I) Blue light can be seen from the side of the tank facing the circular hole.
(II) Blue light can be seen from the three sides of the glass tank.
(III) At first orange-red light and then red light can be seen from the side of the tank facing the circular hole.
(IV) At first orange-red light and then red light can be seen from the three sides of the glass tank.
Select the incorrect observations:
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) The observations can be explained by the phenomenon of:
(a) Scattering of light
(b) Reflection of light
(c) Refraction of light
(d) Dispersion of light
Answer:

(E) The activity above helps us in understanding:
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Formation of rainbow
(c) Advance sunrise and delayed sunset
(d) Reddish appearance of the Sun at the sunrise
Answer:
(d) Reddish appearance of the Sun at the sunrise

Explanation: This activity demonstrates the scattering of light that helps us to understand the bluish colour of the sky and the reddish appearance of the Sun at the sunrise or the sunset. Near the horizon, most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered away by the particles. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelengths. This gives rise to the reddish appearance of the Sun.

Question 8.
Parth noticed that his father had two sets of spectacles. So he asked him the reason for the same. His father explained that one spectacle is for viewing distant objects while the other is for reading books. It means that his father had both the defects of vision- farsightedness as well as nearsightedness.

The defect of vision in which the image of nearby objects is formed behind the retina is
(a) Near sightedness
(b) Cataract
(c) Far sightedness
(d) Presbyopia
Answer:
(c) Far sightedness

Explanation: Farsightedness or hypermetropia is the defect of vision in which the image of a nearby object is formed behind the retina due to either long focal length of the eye lens or shortening of the eye ball.

Question 9.
We’ve all seen that part in the movie where the weary desert wanderer has been walking for hours and is dying of thirst. Then he happens upon a vast body of water on the horizon. He runs towards the water, it grows closer and closer, until he springs himself into the air only to land back down in the sand and no water in sight. Well, that is due to an optical illusion called Mirage.

Mirage is an optical phenomenon which creates an illusion of the presence of water and is a result of refraction of light from a non-uniform medium. Mirage is observed mainly during sunny days when driving on a roadway. Normally, light waves from the sun travel straight through the atmosphere to your eye. But, light travels at different speeds through hot air and cold air.

Mirages happen when the ground is very hot and the air is cool and a ray of light gets refracted more and more away from the normal. At a particular angle when a ray of light exceeds critical angle, total internal reflection takes place and ray of light gets reflected in the same medium. When the reflected ray reaches our eye, it appears as coming from tree or sky and hence the inverted image of tree creates an impression from a pond of water.

(A) Mirage is an example of:
(a) Reflection of tight and Refraction of Light
(b) Dispersion of Light
(c) Total internat Reflection
(d) Refraction of Ught and Total internal Reflection of Light
Answer:
(d) Refraction of light and Total Internal Reflection of Light

Explanation: As the air just above the ground is hotter than the air above it, light traveling from a distant object travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium and hence bends away from the normal. So, it undergoes refraction. Since light is travelling from a denser medium to a rarer medium, at a certain angle which is greater than the critical angle, the light undergoes total internal reflection.

(B) Mirages are more common in:
(a) rainforests
(b) dry forests
(c) deserts
(d) highlands
Answer:
(c) deserts

Explanation: Mirages are formed on hot sunny days in deserts or road surfaces when the air just above the ground is much hotter than the air above it.

(C) Mirage is formed because:
(I) Air above the ground is very hot and air above is cooler
(II) Air above the ground is cooL and air above is warmer.
(III) Light rays from a distant object bend towards the normal when coming towards the ground.
(IV) Light rays from a distant object bend away from the normal when coming towards the ground.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Mirage is formed on a hot day when the air just above the ground is hotter than the air above it. As hotter air is optically rarer than cooler air, light traveling from a distant object travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium and hence bends away from the normal. Since light is travelling from a denser medium to a rarer medium, at a certain angle which is greater than the critical angle, the light undergoes total internal reflection.

(D) Atmospheric refraction occurs because:
(a) Refractive index in medium is gradually changing
(b) Of presence of dust particles in atmosphere
(c) Large amount of moisture is present in atmosphere on a humid day
(d) Sun’s rays travel the most when sun is near the horizon
Answer:

(E) When starlight enters the earth’s atmosphere:
(a) it bends away from the normal
(b) It bends towards the normal
(c) It first bends towards the normal and then away from the normal
(d) It first bends away from the normal and then towards the normal.
Answer:

Question 10.
The rising sun looks so beautiful! On a trip to a hill station, Raj was overjoyed to see such a beautiful sight of the sun just rising above the horizon! But his father later told him that the sun had not risen yet and what he is actually seeing is due to an optical phenomenon!

Why is the sun visible to us 2 minutes before actual sunrise and 2 minutes after actual sunset?

Answer:
The sun is visible to us 2 minutes before actual sunrise and 2 minutes after actual sunset due to the phenomenon of atmospheric refraction. During this time when the sun is still below the horizon, the sun’s rays enter the earth’s atmosphere and undergo continuous refraction and bend towards the normal as the refractive index increases continuously as we reach the earth’s surface. So. the sun is visible to us.

Question 11.
The inner workings of the human eye are corn ple but at the same time, fascinating. Have you wondered how exactly they do work or what are the major parts of the eye involved in creating Vision? It helps us in visualizing objects and also helps us in light perception, color, and depth perception. Besides, these sense organs are pretty much similar to cameras, and they help us see objects when light coming from outside enters into them. The structures and functions of the eyes are complex. Each eye constantly adjusts the amount of light it lets in, focuses on objects near and far, and produces continuous images that are instantly transmitted to the brain.

(A) The image formed by eye tens ¡s:
(a) Real and erect
(b) Virtual and erect
(c) Real and inverted
(d) Virtual and inverted
Answer:
(c) Real and inverted

Explanation: The eye Lens forms an inverted and real image of the object on the retina as eye tens is a convex lens.

(B) Most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at:
(a) Outer surface of the cornea.
(b) Eye Lens
(c) Pupil
(d) Vitreous humour
Answer:
(a) Outer surface of the cornea.

Explanation: Most of the refraction for the Light rays entering the eye occurs at the Outer surface of the cornea. The crystalline Lens mereLy provides the finer adjustment of focal length required to focus objects at different distances on the retina.

(C) Select the correct statements:
(I) The change in the curvature of the eye lens can change its focal length.
(II) When the citiary muscles are relaxed, the Lens becomes thin and its focal length decreases.
(III) When the ciliary muscles contract, the Lens becomes thicker and its focal length increases.
(IV)Thin tens enables us to view distant objects clearly whereas thick lens enables us to see nearby objects clearly.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) The near point and far point of a young adult with normal vision is:
(a) Near point = 0 cm and Far point = 25cm
(b) Near point = 25 cm and far point = 50 m
(c) Near point = 0 m and far point = infinity
(d) Near point = 25 cm and far point = infinity
Answer:

(E) Select the row containing incorrect part of human eye and its function

Part of Human Eye	Function
(a) Retina	Delicate membrane having Large number of Light-sensitive cells.
(b) Iris	Changes the curvature of eye Lens
(c) Cornea	A thin membrane through which Light enters the eye
(d) Pupil	An aperture that regukites and controls the amount of Light

Answer:
(b) Part of Human Eye: Iris; Function: Change the curvature of eye Lens.

Explanation: Iris is a dark muscular assembly that controls the size of the pupil. The muscle that changes the curvature of eye lens is ciliary muscles.

Question 12.
Shradhas parents took her grandfather to the eye speciaList as he was complaining of difficulty in seeing things. The doctor diagnosed it as cataract and said that it is quite common in old age.

What is cataract? How is it caused? How can it be corrected?
Answer:
The condition when there is partial or complete loss of vision in the eye of people at old age is known as cataract. It is caused when the crystalline lens of eye becomes milky andcloudy.

It can be corrected through a cataract surgery.

Question 13.
Piyush, who was a backbencher in class, started complaining of frequent headaches. His parents took him to the nearest clinic and the doctor referred him to the eye specialist. The eye specialist tested his vision and asked Piyush whether he was able to read whatever the teacher wrote on the blackboard clearly or not. He replied in the negative. The doctor told his parents about the defect of vision that Piyush was suffering from and advised corrective glasses.
After wearing the glasses, Piyush was now able to read the black board clearly and also got rid of his headaches.

(A) @Piyush was suffering from:
(a) Cataract
(b) Myopia
(c) Hypermetropic
(d) Presbyopia
Answer:

(B) Select the correct statements regarding the defect of vision Piyush was suffering from:
(I) A person with this defect has the far point nearer than infinity.
(II) A person with this defect has the near point greater than the least distance of distinct vision.
(III) A person suffering from this defect may see clearly upto a distance of a few metres.
(IV) A person suffering from this defect may not see clearly beyond the near point.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: As Piyush is suffering from myopia, a person with this defect has the far point nearer than infinity. A person suffering from this defect may see clearly upto a distance of a few metres. That is why myopia is also known as short sightedness.

(C) Which of the following is not true about the defect of vision Piyush is suffering from ?
(a) It is caused due to excessive curvature of the eye lens
(b) It may be caused due to elongation of the eyeball.
(c) The image of a distant object is formed behind the retina.
(d) It is corrected by using a concave lens of appropriate power.
Answer:

(D) The far point of a myopic person is 50 cm in front of the eyes. The nature and power of the lens required for correct the problem is:

Nature of Lens	Power of Lens
(a) Concave	– 0.5 D
(b) Concave	– 2.0 D
(c) Convex	+ 0.5D
(d) Convex	+ 2.0D

Answer:
(b) Nature of Lens – Concave: Power of Lens – 2.0 D

Explanation: To find the focal length, we use the lens formula
$\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u} \Rightarrow \frac{1}{f}=-\frac{1}{50}$ ⇒ f = – 0.5 m
Power of the lens = $-\frac{1}{0.5}$ = – 2.0 D
As focal length of the corrective lens is negative, the type of lens used is a concave lens.

(E) A person needs a lens of power – 4.5 D for correction of her vision. The nature of lens and its focal length is:

Nature of Lens	Focal length
(a) Concave	– 45cm
(b) Convex	– 45cm
(c) Convex	+ 22.22 cm
(d) Concave	+ 22.22 cm

Answer:
(d) Nature of Lens – Concave :Focal Length – 22.22 cm

Explanation: It is given that the power of the corrective lens = – 4.5 D. We know that
As the focal length is negative, the lens is a concave lens.

Question 14.
Pankaj noticed that while reading books or newspaper, most people keep the book neither too far nor too close to their eyes. So, he himseLf tried to find out what happens when he tried to read the book by keeping the book quite far. He immediately said that he could not read all Letters clearly. When he tried to read a book by keeping it very dose to his eyes, the letters had become blurred and his eyes started paining!

Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm?
Answer:
The normal eye has the remarkable property to see objects when placed at any distance from the eye due to the ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length which is called accommodation. However, the normal eye is not able to see clearly objects placed closer to 25 cmas the focal length of the eye lens cannot bedecreased below a certain minimum limit.

Question 15.
Everyone enjoys the spectacle of a rainbow glimmering against a dark stormy sky. How does sunlight falling on clear drops of rain get broken into the rainbow of colors we see? The same process causes white light to be broken into colors by a clear glass prism or a diamond. Sunlight, considered to be white, actually appears to be a bit yellow because of its mixture of wavelengths, but it does contain all visible wavelengths.
The sequence of colors in rainbows is the same sequence as the colors plotted versus wavelength in Figure below. What this implies is that white light is spread out according to wavelength in a rainbow.
(A) The phenomena that play a role in the formation of rainbow is:
(a) Reflection and refraction of light
(b) Refraction, absorption, dispersion and refraction of light
(c) Dispersion, refraction and reflection of light
(d) Refraction, dispersion, reflection and refraction of light
Answer:
(d) Refraction, dispersion, reflection and refraction of light

Explanation: Rainbow is produced after the rain, by refraction, dispersion, total internal reflection and again refraction process in droplets of water

(B) Select the colours in the correct ascending of wavelength:
(a) Blue, Green, Red
(b) Orange, Green, Red
(c) Blue, Yellow, Green
(d) Orange, Yellow, Green
Answer:

(C) Select the incorrect statements about rainbow:
(I) Rainbow is caused by scattering of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere.
(II) A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun.
(III) The water droplets refract and scatter the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop.
(IV) Different colours reach the observer’s eye due to the scattering of light and internal reflection.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower, it is caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere which act like small prisms. A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun. The tiny droplets of water refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract the light again when it comes out of the raindrop. Due to the dispersion of light and internal reflection, different colours reach the observer’s eye.

(D) A spectrum of light is observed when white light is directed to a prism as:
(a) The different colours in the white light bend away from the normal line at different angles on entering prism.
(b) The different colours in the white
light bend towards the normal line at different angles on entering prism.
(c) The different colours in the white light bend away from the normal at same speed to each other on entering prism.
(d) The different colours in the white light bend towards the normal at same speed to each other on entering prism.
Answer:

(E) The velocity of waves of all colours is same in:
(a) Water
(b) Oxygen
(c) Vacuum
(d) Glass
Answer:

Question 16.
Mike and his friends were enjoying a bonfire in their garden. One of his friends noticed that the air above the fire was wavering. He realized that this is because the physical conditions of air are notstationary because of which the apparent position of the object, as seen through the hotair, changes continuously. This phenomenon can also be used to explain several observations around us.

Why do stars appear higher than they actually are?
Answer:
Stars appear higher than they actually are due to the phenomenon of atmospheric refraction. When the starlight enters the earth’s atmosphere, it undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches the earth as the refractive index of the atmosphere changes continuously. The atmosphere bendsstarlight towards the normal due to which the apparent position of thestar is slightly different from its actual position.

Question 17.
In addition to being absorbed or transmitted, electromagnetic radiation can also be reflected or scattered by particles in the atmosphere. Scattering is the redirection of electromagnetic energy by suspended particles in the atmosphere. The Tyndall effect is light scattering by particles in a colloid or in a very fine suspension.

The type and amount of scattering that occurs depends on the size of the particles and the wavelength of the energy. Rayleigh scatter occurs when radiation (light) interacts with molecules and particles in the atmosphere that are smaller in diameter than the wavelength of the incoming radiation. Shorter wavelengths are more readily scattered tha longer wavelengths.

(A) Which of the following will not show Tyndall effect?
(a) Milk
(b) Sugar solution
(c) Smoke
(d) Emulsion
Answer:
(b) Sugar solution

Explanation: Tyndall effect is shown by colloids and suspensions but not shown by true solutions. As sugar solution is a true solution, it will not show Tyndall effect.

(B) Tyndall effect is due to
(a) Refraction of light
(b) Dispersion of light
(c) Absorption of light
(d) Scattering of light
Answer:
(d) Scattering of light

Explanation: Tyndall effect is due to scattering of light by particles present in the atmosphere, such as smoke, fine dust particles and gas molecules.

(C) Which of the following natural phenomena are not due to scattering of light in nature?
(I) Blue colour of sky
(II) Twinkling of stars
(III) Formation of rainbow
(IV) Colour of water in deep sea
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) The table below lists the colour of scattered light for different sizes of scattering particles.
Select the row containing the correct information:

Answer:

(E) The blue colour of the sky is because:
(a) Red colour is scattered more as compared to other colours
(b) Red colour is absorbed more as compared to other colours
(c) Blue colour is scattered more as compared to other colours
(d) Blue colour is absorbed more as compared to other colours
Answer:
(c) Blue colour is scattered more as compared to other colours

Explanation: The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have sizesmaller than the wavelength of visible light and these are more effective inscattering Light of shorter wavelengths at the blue end than light of longerwa wavelengths at the red end. Thus, when sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the fine particles in air scatter the blue colour (shorter wavelengths) more strongly than red and the sky appears blue to us as the scattered blue light entersour eyes.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What would have been the colour of sky if the earth had no atmosphere?
Answer:

Question 2.
Why do stars appear higher than their actual position?
Answer:
Stars appear higher than their actual position as starlight undergoes refraction continuously on entering earth’s atmosphere and bends towards the normal.

Question 3.
On the basis of which observation did Newton conclude that sunlight is made up of seven colours?
Answer:

Question 4.
How does the refractive index of earth’s atmosphere vary with height?
Answer:

Question 5.
Why is a small amount of sodium thiosulphate added to water in tank in the activity to understand reddish appearance of sun at sunrise and sunset?
Answer:
Sodium thiosulphate is added to water in the tank for precipitating minute colloidal sulphur particles which scatter short wavelengths of Light.

Question 6.
State one effect produced by the scattering of light by the atmosphere?
Answer:
There are two effects produced due to scattering of light in the atmosphere: Tyndall effect and appearance of the blue colour of the sky.

Related Theory
When light moves from one medium to another, the light scatters in different directions due to change in the medium. This is called scattering of light. When tiny particles of dust come in front of light and leads to its scattering, this is called Tyndall effect. We can see these tiny dust particles in the scattered light.

When the light from stars enters the atmosphere, the light with smaller wavelengths gets easily scattered, while lights with longer wavelength do not scatter much and hence travels straight. This gives red colour to the sky during sunrise and sunset.

On the other hand, the shorter wavelengths scatter in the sky and give the sky its usual blue colour.

Question 7.
An astronaut in space finds sky to be dark. Explain reason for this observation. [Diksha]
Answer:

Question 8.
What is a rainbow? Draw a labelled diagram to show the formation of a rainbow.
Answer:
Rainbow: A rainbow is a natural spectrum formed in the sky after a rain shower due to the dispersion of sunlight by the tiny droplets of water present in the atmosphere. The tiny droplets of water act like small prisms which refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect the light internally and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop. Different colours reach the observer’s eyes due to the dispersion of light and internal reflection.

Question 9.
Why does the sun appear white at noon?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity with Answers

Electricity Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

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Class 10 Science Physics Chapter 12 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 10 Chapter 12 MCQs On Electricity

Electricity Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The values of mA and µA are:
(a) 10^-6 and 10^-9 A respectively
(b) 10^-3 and 10^-6 A respectively
(c) 10^-3 and 10^-9 A respectively
(d) 10^-6 and 10^-3 A respectively
Answer:
(b) 10^-3 A and 10^-6 A.

Explanation: An ampere is the SI unit of electric current
1A = 1000mA Or 1mA = $\frac{1 \mathrm{~A}}{1000}$ = 10³A

∴ 1 µA = 10^-3 × 10^-3 A = 10^-6A

Electricity MCQ Class 10 Question 2.
A cylindrical conductor of Length ‘l’ and uniform area of cross-section ‘A’ has resistance ‘R’. Another conductor of Length 2.5 1 and resistance 0.5 R of the same material has area of cross-section.
(a) 5A
(b) 2.5A
(c) 0.5A
(d) $\frac{1}{5}$ A

Class 10 Electricity MCQ Question 3.
Identify the circuit in which the electrical components have been properly connected.

(a) (I)
(b) (II)
(c) (III)
(d) (IV)
Answer:
(b) (II)

Explanation: In figure (I), the voltmeter is connected in series (not parallel). Similarly, in figure (III). the ammeter ¡s in parallel which should be in series. In figure (IV), the negative terminal of battery has been connected to the positive terminal of the ammeter, whereas it should be connected to the negative terminal

Related Theory:
Essential conditions when components connected:

The voltmeter should be connected in parallel
The ammeter should be connected in series.
Positive terminals of the voltmeter arid ammeter should be connected to the positive terminal of the cell and their negative removals should be joined to the negative terminal of the cell

Electricity Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
If a person has five resistors each of value Ω, then the maximum resistance he can obtain by connecting them ¡s:
(a)1 Ω
(b)5 Ω
(c) 10 Ω
(d) 25 Ω
Answer:

MCQ On Electricity Class 10 Question 5.
What is the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors, each of $\frac{1}{5}$ Ω?
(a) $\frac{1}{5}$ Ω
(b) $\frac{1}{25}$ Ω
(c) $\frac{1}{10}$ Ω
(d) 25 Ω
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 12 MCQ Question 6.
The resistance of a resistor is reduced to half of its initial value. In doing so, if other parameters of the circuit remain unchanged, the heating effects in the resistor will become:
(a) two times
(b) half
(c) one-fourth
(d) four times
Answer:
(a) two times

Explanation: Resistance of a resistor R Q New resistance of a resistor Q

All other parameters of the circuit remain unchanged

By applying Joule’s law of heating H = I²Rt

As per Ohms Law V = IR Or I = $\frac{V}{R}$

Hence, the heating effect in the resistor will become two times if all other parameter of the circuit remain same.

Class 10 Science Chapter 12 MCQ With Answers Question 7.
At the time of short circuit, the electric current in the circuit:
(a) vary continuously
(b) does not change
(c) reduces substantially
(d) increases heavily
Answer:

MCQ Electricity Class 10 Question 8.
Two bulbs of 100 Ω and 40 Ω are connected in series. The current through the 100 Ω bulb is 1 A. The current through the 40 Ω bulb will be:
(a) 0.4 A
(b) 0.6 A
(c) 0.8 A
(d) 1A
Answer:
(d) 1 A

Explanation:

In a series combination of resistors (bulbs) the current is the same in every part of the circuit as current does not change in series combination so both the bulbs get equal amount of current Hence the current through the 40 Ωbulb will be 1A.

Ch 12 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
When a 4 V battery is connected across an unknown resistor there is a current of 100 mA in the circuit. The value of the resistance of the resistor is:
(a) 4 Ω
(b) 40 Ω
(c) 400 Ω
(d) 0.4 Ω
Answer:
(b) 40 Ω
V = IR, V = 4 V,
I = 100 mA = 0.1 A
Hence R = $\frac{V}{1}=\frac{4}{0.1}$ Ω = 40 Ω.

Class 10 Science Ch 12 MCQ Question 10.
The equivalent resistance of a series combination of two resistances is X Ohm. If the resistance are of 10 Ohm and 40 Ohm respectively, the value of X will be:
(a) 10 Ohm
(b) 20 Ohm
(c) 50 Ohm
(d) 40 Ohm [Diksha]
Answer:

Class 10 Physics Electricity MCQ Question 11.
Unit of electric power may also be expressed as:
(a) volt-ampere
(b) kilowatt-hour
(c) watt-second
(d) joule-second
Answer:

Class 10 Electricity MCQ Questions Question 12.
if the resistance of a certain copper wire is 1 Ω, then the resistance of a similar nichrome wire will be about:
(a) 25 Ω
(b) 30 Ω
(c) 60 Ω
(d) 45 Ω
Answer:
(c) 60 Ω

Explanation: if the resistance of a certain copper wire is 1 Ω, the resistance of a similar nichrome wire will be about 60 Ω because the resistivity of nichrome is 60 times the resistivity of copper.

Electricity Class 10 MCQ Learn Cbse Question 13.
The resistivity of a certain material is 0.6 Ω m, The material is most likely to be:
(a) an insulator
(b) a superconductor
(c) a conductor
(d) a semiconductor
Answer:

MCQs On Electricity Class 10 Question 14.
A cell, a resistor, a key, and an ammeter are arranged as shown in the circuit diagrams of the figure. The current recorded in the ammeter will be:

(a) Maximum in (I)
(b) Maximum in (II)
(c) Maximum in (III)
(d) The same in all the cases
Answer:
(d) The same in all the cases

Explanation: In series connections, the order of elements in the circuit will not affect the amount of current flowing in the circuit.

Class 10 Science Electricity MCQ Question 15.
The instrument used for measuring electric current is:
(a) galvanometer
(b) ammeter
(c) voltmeter
(d) potentiometer
Answer:

MCQs Of Electricity Class 10 Question 16.
A student plots V-l graphs for three samples of nichrome wire with resistances R₁, R₂ and R₃. Choose from the following the statement that holds true for this graph.

(a) R₁ = R₂ = R₃
(b) R₁ > R₂ > R₃
(c) R₃ > R₂ > R₁
(d) R₂ > R₁ > R₃
Answer:
(d) R₂ > R₁ > R₃

Explanation: As is clear from the graph, the current for A₂ conductor is less than A₁ and A₁ is Less than A₃. We can say IA₂ < IA₁ < IA₃
R₂ > R₁ > R₃ (AS, R = V)

Chapter 12 Class 10 Science MCQ Question 17.
The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance $\frac{1}{2}$ Ω is:
(a) 2 Ω
(b) 1 Ω
(c) 2.5 Ω
(d) 8 Ω
Answer:
(a) 2 Ω

$The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance $\frac{1}{2}$ Ω is:$

Explanation: When a number of resistances are connected in series the resultant resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances and is greater than any individual resistance. Four resistors are given:

Hence, the maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance $\frac{1}{2}$ Ω is 2 Ω.

Electricity Class 10 MCQs Question 18.
A current of 2 A is drawn by a conductor on applying a potential difference of 6 V across its ends. The number of electrons passing through a cross-section of the conductor and the heat generated in the conductor in 8 seconds is:

Number of Electrons Passing in 8 s	Heat Generated in 8 s
(a) 1.6 × 10^-20	24J
(b) 10²⁰	96J
(c) 1.28 × 10^-18	3.6 × 10⁶J
(d) 10³⁰	96J

Answer:

Class 10th Science Chapter 12 MCQ Question 19.
The resistivity of four wires A, B, C, and D are of the order of 10¹², 10^-6, 10^-8, and 10¹⁴ respectively. !f the wires are of equal lengths and equal areas of cross-section, then select the row containing the correct information:

Resistance	Nature
(a) Resistance of C will be the least	C is the conductor best of electricity
(b) Resistance of A will be the largest	A is a good conductor of electricity
(c) Resistance of B will be the largest	B is a poor conductor of electricity
(d) Resistance of D will be the least	D is the conductor best of electricity

Answer:

Question 20.
Given below are four statements on resistance of a conductor. Select the incorrect statements:
(I) If in an electric circuit, the resistance is doubled the voltage also gets doubled.
(II) If in an electric circuit, the resistance is halved the current gets doubled.
(III) Variable resistance is a component used to regulate voltage without changing the current.
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: According to Ohm’s law, V = IR.
Therefore, l = $\frac{V}{R}$.

It means that if resistance R is doubled, the current gets halved, but the voltage remains the same. Similarly, if resistance is halved, currently gets doubled.

Question 21.
Given below are four statements about resistivity. Select the incorrect statements:
(I) Resistivity is a characteristic property of the material and varies with temperature.
(II) Resistivity depends on the length and area of the cross-section of the conductor.
(III) Metals and alloys have very low resistivity and are good conductors of electricity.
(IV) Insulators have low resistivity of the order of 10¹² to 10¹⁷ Ohm.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (iV)
Answer:

Question 22.
Select the correct statements from the statements given below:
(I) In a parallel circuit the current is constant throughout the electric circuit.
(II) In a parallel circuit the other components keep working even if one component fails.
(III) In a series circuit when one component fails, the circuit is broken and the other components stop working.
(IV) in a series circuit, the current is divided among the electrical gadgets depending upon their resistance.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III), and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: In a series circuit, the current is constant through the electric circuit and if one component fails, the other components also stop working. Whereas in a parallel circuit, the current is divided among the different components depending upon their resistance, and if one component fails, the other components keep working.

Question 23.
The unit of potential difference is:
(a) JC
(b) J/C
(c) J
(d) C/J
Answer:
(b)J/C

Explanation: Potential difference between two points in an electric field of a given charge is defined as the work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another. As V = $\frac{W}{q}$ , the unit of potential difference is Joule/ Coulomb or J/C.

Question 24.
If both the length of a conductor and its radius is doubled, the ratio of new resistance and original resistance will be:
(a) 1:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 1: 2
Answer:

Question 25.
When a 2 Ω resistor is connected across the terminals of a 6 V battery, the charge (in coulombs) passing through the resistor per second is:
(a) 0.5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Explanation: The charge passing through a resistor per second is the same as the current passing through the resistor since current is defined as the rate of flow of charges. The current flowing is found by using Ohm’s law, V = IR. Therefore, I = V/R = 6/2 = 3A, which is the same as the charge passing in one second.

Question 26.
A battery of 6V is connected in series with resistors of 0.1 ohms, 0.2 ohms, 0.3 ohms, 0.4 ohms, and 2 ohms. How much current would flow through the 0.3-ohm resistor?
(a) 0.895A
(b) 1.2 A
(c) 2 A
(d) 3 A

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 12

For the following questions, two statements are given – One labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R), select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c), and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 27.
Assertion (A): At high temperatures, metal wires have a greater chance of short-circuiting.
Reason (R): Both resistance and resistivity of a material vary with temperature.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: At high temperatures, the free electrons start moving at a greater speed and more heat is evolved. The increased amount of heat melt the insulation of wires and wires have a greater chance of short-circuiting. Sometimes the short circuit may even melt the wire and it may cause fire.

Both resistance and resistivity vary with temperature. When the temperature is increased, the random motion of electrons increases. As a result the number of collisions increases between atoms and electrons.

Question 28.
Assertion (A): When two ends of a metallic wire are connected across the terminals of a cell, then some potential difference is set up between its ends. The direction of electrons are from a positive terminal to negative terminal of the cell.
Reason (R): Electrons are flowing through the conductors from its higher potential to its lower potential end. [Diksha]
Answer:

Question 29.
Assertion: A fuse wire is always connected in parallel with the mainline.
Reason: If a current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit, fuse wire melts.
Answer:

Question 30.
Assertion(A): Electric appliances with the metallic body have three pin connection, whereas an electric bulb has a two pin connection.
Reason (R): Three pin connection reduce heating of connecting wires. [Diksha]
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: The three connection of electric appliances with metallic body are live wire, neutraL wire and earth wire. The live and neutraL wire supply electric current to the appliance, whereas the earth wire, which is connected to the metal body of the electric appliance, protects us from electric shock in case we touch the metal body of appliances.

In case of an electric shock, the current passes directly to the earth through the earth wire and we do not feel the electric shock.

On the contrary, three-pin connection do not reduce heating of connecting wires.

Question 31.
Assertion (A): In a purely resistive circuit, the source energy is dissipated in the form of heat.
Reason (R): The potential difference across the ends of a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it.
Answer:

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices like electric ion and heater.
Reason (R): Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals but the alloys have low melting points then their constituents, metals.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.

Related Theory
Alloys have more resistivity than of its constituent elements because alloys have better properties than that of metals. Resistivity is the property of a material that explains how strongly the material opposes flow of electrons. Higher the resistivity, smaller will be the conductivity i.e. why alloys are used in electrical heating devices.

Metals have a higher melting point as the atoms are arranged in a regular manner and form a strong bond whereas alloys are made up of different metals. The different sizes of atoms in an alloy make their arrangement less regular than a pure metal. This makes the bonds between the atoms weaker and lowers the melting point.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
The following table given below shows the resistivity of three materials X. Y and Z Analyse the table and answer the following questions:

(A) Arrange the samples in increasing order of conductivity.
Answer:
Conductivity is inversely proportional to resistivity so Y < X < Z.

(B) Which of these is the best conductor?
Answer:
Z is the best insulator as it has the least resistivity.

(D) Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon:
(a) Its length
(b) Its thickness
(c) Its shape
(d) Nature of the material
Answer:
(d) Nature of the material

Explanation: The resistivity of a material depends on the nature and the temperature of the conductor, but not its shape and size.

Question 2.
Shivani 8 had studied in her class that an electric bulb consists of a filament made up of a metal having high melting point such as tungsten. Also, the bulbs are filled with a chemically inert gas such as nitrogen or argon to prolong the life of filament.

A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of anelectric bulb. The number of electrons passingthrough a cross-section of the filament in 16seconds would be roughly:
(a) 10²⁰
(b) 10¹⁶
(c) 10¹⁸
(d) 10²³
Answer:
(a) 10²⁰
Explanation: Electric current, 1 = 1 A Time, t = 16 seconds No. of electrons, n = ?

We know that current is the amount of electric charge passing through a given point of conductor in 1 second.

The number of eectrons flowing is 1020 electrons.

Question 3.
The following table given below shows the information about two heaters A and B. Analyse the table and answers the following questions:

(A) Which Heater has higher resistance?
(B) If 1KWh is priced at 30 paise, which heater wilt be costlier if they run for 1 hours each?

Question 4.
Prateek bought a new battery for his Laptopas the earlier battery would not stay charged for more than 5 minutes. He Learnt that a battery consisted of celLs combined together in a particular manner.

The proper representation of series combination of cells obtaining maximum potential is:

(a) (I)
(b) (II)
(c) (III)
(d) (IV)

Question 5.
Take a nichrome wire, a torch bulb, a 10 W bulb and an ammeter (0 – 5 A range), a plug key and some connecting wires. Set up the circuit by connecting four dry cells of 1.5 V each in series with the ammeter leaving a gap XV in the circuit, as shown in Fig. below.

Complete the circuit by connecting the nichrome wire in the gap XY Plug the key. Note down the ammeter reading. Take out the key from the plug. Replace the nichrome wire with the torch bulb in the circuit and find the current through it by measuring the reading of the ammeter. Now repeat the above step with the 10 Wbu(bin the gap XY

Next, complete an electric circuit consisting of a cell and ammeter, a nichrome wire of Length l [say, marked (1)] and a plug key, as shown in Fig. below.

Now, plug the key. Note the current in the ammeter. Replace the nichrome wire by another riichrome wire of same thickness but twice the length, that is 21 [marked (2) in the Fig. Note the ammeter reading. Now replace the wire by a thicker nichrome wire, of the same length l [marked (3)]. A thicker wire has a larger cross-sectional area. Again note down the current through the circuit Instead of raking a nichrome wire, connect a copper wire [marked (4) in Fig.] in the circuit Let the wire be of the same length and same area of cross-section as that of the first nichrome wire [marked (1)].
(A) The observation regarding ammeter readings on connecting the different components nichrome wire, torch bulb and a 10 w bulb in the gap XY is tabulated below.
Select the row containing the correct observation and its explanation.

Observation	Explanation
(a) Reading of ammeter will be same in all cases	Current flowing in a circuit depends only on the potential difference
(b) Reading of ammeter will be same in all cases	All the components used are good conductors of electric current.
(c) Reading of ammeter will be different for different	All components resist the flow of electric current by different amounts components
(d) Reading of ammeter will be different for different components	All components offer equal resistance to the flow of electric current.

Answer:
(c) Observation: Reading of ammeter will be different for different components: Explanation: All components resist the flow of electric current by different amounts

Explanation: The current is different for different components as certain components offer an easy path for the flow of electric current while the others resist the flow. The motion of electrons through a conductor isretarded by its resistance.

(B) Refer to the second activity and select the incorrect observations:
(I) The ammeter reading will be same in both cases when nichrome wire, marked (1), and copper wire, marked (4), both of length l and area of cross-section A are connected one by one in the circuit.
(II) The ammeter reading will be different in both cases when nichrome wire, marked (1), and copper wire, marked (4), both of same length and cross-section are connected one by one in the circuit.
(III) The current will be double when nichrome wire, marked (2), of length 21 and area of cross-section A is connected as compared to nichrome wire, marked (1) of length l and area of cross-section A.
(IV) The current will be double when nichrome wire, marked (3), of length l and area of cross-section 2A is connected as compared to nichrome wire, marked (1) of length l and area of cross-section A.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (II)

Explanation: The ammeter reading will be different in both cases when nichrome wire, marked (1), and copper wire, marked (4), both of same length and cross section are connected one by one in the circuit. This is because copper and nichrome are made up of different materials and resistance of a wire depends on the nature of the material.

The current will be double when nichrome wire, marked (3), of length l and area of cross section 2A is connected as compared to nichrome wire, marked (1) of length l and area of cross section A. This is because a thicker wire offers lesser resistance and hence current flowing will be more through a thicker wire as compared to a thinner wire. However, on increasing the length of a conductor to 21. the resistance also becomes double and therefore current decreases to half of its value.

(C) Select the incorrect statement:
(a) The flow of electrons within a conductor is restrained by the attraction of the atoms among which they move.
(b) The electrons are completely free to move within a conductor.
(c) The motion of electrons through a conductor is retarded by its resistance.
(d) A component of a given size that offers a low resistance is a good conductor.
Answer:

(D) What will be the effect on current flowing in the circuit when length is made double?
(a) Current will remain same
(b) Current will become double
(c) Current will become half
(d) Current will become four times
Answer:

(E) What will be the least count of an ammeter of range 0 – 1.5 A shown below:

(a) 0.1 A
(b) 0.2 A
(c) 0.02 A
(d) 0.05 A
Answer:

Question 6.
Wires used for electrical connections have different properties and hence different ratings. So, one must select wires of proper rating to be used for different appliances as different appliances have different requirements.

Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire-depends upon:
(a) Its Length
(b) Its thickness
(c) Its shape
(d) Nature of the material

Question 7.
Join three resistors of different values, say, 1 Ω, 2Ω and 3 Ω etc.. and a battery of 6 Vin series. Connect them with a battery, an ammeter and a plug key, as shown in Fig. below.

Plug the key. Note the ammeter reading. Change the position of ammeter to anywhere in between the resistors. Note the ammeter reading each time.

In the next activity. insert a voltmeter across the ends X and Y of the series combination of three resistors as shown in Fig. below. Plug the key in the circuit and note the voltmeter reading. It gives the potential difference across the series combination of resistors. Let it be V. Now measure the potential difference across the two terminals of the battery. Compare the two values. Take out the plug key and disconnect the voltmeter. Now insert the voltmeter across the ends X and P of the first resistor, as shown in

Plug the key and measure the potential difference across the first resistor. Let it be V1. Similarly, measure the potential difference across the other two resistors, separately. Let these values be V2 and V3, respectively.

(A) Refer to the first activity and circuit diagram at fig. 1. A student recorded his observations in a tabuLar form as shown below. SeLect the row containing correct observations/readings.

Answer:
(a) Position of Ammeter: Between battery and 1 O resistor as shown in figure; Ammeter Beading: 1A; Voltmeter Reading: 6 V.

Explanation: The value of the current in the ammeter is the same and does not depend on its position in the electric circuit.
The total resistance resistance = R1 + R2 + R3 = 6 D.
Therefore, reading of ammeter = I = V / R = 6/6 A = 1 A

(B) Select the correct concLusion based the observations recorded in activity 1 above:
(I) The resistances R1, R2 and R3 are connected in series in the activity.
(II) In a series combination of resistors the current is different in different parts of the circuit.
(III) In a series combination of resistors the current is the same through each resistor.
(IV) In a series combination of resistors the potential difference is the same across each resistor.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(C) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(C) In the second activity (refer fig. 2), the values of potential difference V, V₁, V₂ and V₃ are:
(a) V = 6 V, V₁ = 1 V, V₂ = 2 V, V₃ = 3 V
(b) V = 6 V, V₁ = 1V, V₂ = 2 V, V₃ = 3 V
(c) V = 6 V, V₁ = 1 V, V₂ = 2 V, V₃ = 3 V
(d) V = 6 V, V₁ = 1 V, V₂ = 2 V, V₃ = 3 V
Answer:
(d) V = 6 K V₁ = 1 V, V₂ = 2 K V₃ = 3 V

Explanation: The potential difference across the resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ can be calculated by applying Ohm’s law.
As current I = 1 A, V₁ = IR₁ = 1 V. Similarly, V₂ = 2 V and V₃ = 3V.
The potential difference V is equal to the sum of potential differences V1, V2, and V3.

(D) Which of the following relations for V and I is correct for a series combination of three resistors as shown above?
(a) I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃
(b) V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃
(c) $\frac{1}{V}=\frac{1}{V_{1}}+\frac{1}{V_{2}}+\frac{1}{V_{3}}$
(d) $\frac{1}{I}=\frac{1}{I_{1}}+\frac{1}{I_{2}}+\frac{1}{I_{3}}$
Answer:

(E) Suppose in the above activity, each resistance is doubled. Select the correct observation:
(a) The total current is doubled
(b) The potential difference is doubled
(c) The total current is halved
(d) The potential difference is halved.
Answer:

Question 8.
Rahman wanted to change the electric bulb in his study room as he felt that the present bulb was not bright enough for him to study properly. So, he called the electrician. The electrician came and changed the bulb by holding the illuminated bulb with a piece of cloth as the bulb was very hot.

The temperature of the filament of bulb is 2700°C when it glows. Why does it not getburnt up at such high temperature?
Answer:

Question 9.
Electric force is the force that pushes apart two like charges, or that pulls together two unlike charges. The electric potential (also called the electric field potential, potential drop, the electrostatic potential) is the amount of work energy needed to move a unit of electric charge (a Coulomb) from a reference point to the specific point in an electric field. The graph of variation of electric potential arising from a point charge Q with distance r from the charge q is shown below:

Note: Both the charges Q and q are positive charges.
(A) The conclusion that can be made from the above graph between electric potential (V) and distance (r) from the given charge is:
(I) The electric potential decreases as the point charge Q is brought near the given charge q.
(II) The electric potential of a given charge q is inversely proportional to the distance of the point charge from the given charge.
(III) Work is done on a charge to move it closer to another charge of the same sign.
(IV) Less energy is required to bring the point charge Q closer to the given charge q.
Which of the above conclusions are correct?
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)

(B) The unit of electric potential is:
(a) J/C
(b) JC
(c) J/s
(d) J/A

(C) The work done in moving a charge of 5 C across two points having a potential difference 12 V is:
(a) 2.4 J
(b) 60 J
(c) 0.42 J
(d) 120 J

(D) The instrument which is used to measure potential difference between two points and type of connection is given below. Select the row containing the correct information.

Name of instrument	Type of connection
(a) Ammeter	Series
(b) Voltmeter	Parallel
(c) Voltmeter	Parallel
(d) Voltmeter	Series

(E) When 120 J work is done to move 8 C charge from one point to another in an electric field, the potential difference developed between the two points is:
(a) 15 V
(b) 960 J
(c) 960 V
(d) 7.5 V
Answer:
(D) (c) Name of instrument: Voltmeter; Type of connection: Parallel
Explanation: The instrument used to measure the potential difference between two points is voltmeter and is always connected in parallel across thepoints between which the potential difference is to be measured.

Question 10.
Potentiometers, or spots” for short, are used for volume and tone control in electric guitars. They allow us to alter the electrical resistance in a circuit at the turn of a knob. The guitar pickups provide the voltage and current source, while the potentiometers provide the resistance. From Ohm’s Law, we can see how increasing resistance decreases the flow of current through a circuit while decreasing the resistance increases the current flow. If two circuit paths are provided from a common voltage source, more current will flow through the path of least resistance.

We can visualize the operation of a potentiometer from the drawing below.

Imagine a resistive track connected from terminal 1 to 3 of the pot. Terminal 2 is connected to a wiper that sweeps along the resistive track when the potentiometer shaft is rotated from 0° to 300°. This changes the resistance from terminals 1 to 2 and 2 to 3 simultaneously, while the resistance from terminals 1 to 3 remains the same. As the resistance from terminal 1 to 2 increases, the resistance from terminal 2 to 3 decreases, and vice-versa.

(A) When we turn the knob in the potentiometer or pots used in electric guitars, it alters the:
(a) Resistivity of the circuit
(b) Resistance in the circuit
(c) Voltage in the circuit
(d) Effective resistance of the circuit.
Answer:

(B) Four statements are given below regarding the “cold” and “hot” terminals in the diagram of potentiometer.
Select the correct statements:
(I) The “cold” terminal refers to 0° rotation of the potentiometer shaft and the “hot” terminal refers to 300° rotation of potentiometer shaft.
(II) The “cold” terminal refers to 300° rotation of the potentiometer shaft and the “hot” terminal refers to 150° rotation of potentiometer shaft.
(III) When shaft is at “cold” terminal, resistance in the circuit is maximum, whereas it is minimum when shaft is at “hot” terminal.
(IV) When shaft is at “cold” terminal, resistance in the circuit is minimum, whereas it is maximum when shaft is at “hot” terminal.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: When the potentiometer shaft is turned at 0°, it refers to the “cold” terminal and at this position the resistance is minimum. When the potentiometer shaft is turned at 300°, it refers to the “hot’’ terminal and at this position the resistance is maximum.

(C) When the shaft undergoes 50% rotation, the effective resistance between its terminals is:
(a) R
(b) R/3
(c) 2R
(d) R/2
Answer:

(D) The device that is used to change resistance in a circuit is:
(a) Rheostat
(b) Fuse
(c) Transformer
(d) Circuit breakers
Answer:
(a) Rheostat

Explanation: in many cases it may be necessary to increaseor decrease the current in an electric circuit. A component used toregulate current without changing the voltage source is called variabLeresistance. In an electric circuit, a device called rheostat is used tochange the resistance in the circuit.

(E) The table below lists the change in resistance of a wire on changing the physical parameter such as length (l) and area of cross section (A) of the wire. Select the row containing the income Answer:

Change in Parameter	Change in Value of Resistance
(a) Length is tripled	Resistance becomes three times
(b) Area is halved	Resistance becomes double
(c) Wire is pulled to double its Length	Resistance becomes double
(d) Diameter is doubted	Resistance becomes one fourth

Answer:

Question 11.
Ohm law’s application ranges from household appliances like heaters to the high tension wires and massive projects like rockets and spaceships. Ohm’s law is used to maintain the desired voltage drop across the electronic components. Ohm’s law is also used in dc ammeter and other dc shunts to divert the current. We can control the speed of the fans at our homes by moving the regulator to and fro. Here the current flowing through the fan is controlled by regulating the resistance through the regulator. A circular knob on the component can be rotated to achieve a variable resistance on the output terminals. For any specific value of the input, we can calculate the resistance, current and thus power flowing through Ohm’s Law.

(A) Refer to the figure-2 above. Select the row containing the correct information:

Answer:

(B) The current flowing through a fan is controlled by:
(a) Regulating the voltage through the regulator
(b) Regulating the speed through the regulator
(c) Regulating the resistance through the regulator
(d) Regulating the resistivity through the regulator
Answer:

(C) A resistance of 5 ohms is further drawn so that its length becomes double. Its resistance will now be:
(a) 20 ohms
(b) 10 ohms
(c) 7.5 ohms
(d) 5 ohms
Answer:

(D) For a fixed supply voltage the current flowing through a conductor will decrease when
(a) The cross-sectional area of the conductor is increased
(b) The length of the conductor is increased
(c) The length of the conductor is decreased
(d) The cross-sectional area is increased and length is decreased
Answer:

(E) Observe the V-l graph plotted below and select the incorrect observations:

(I) The graph between current (I) and potential difference (V) is a straight line not passing through the origin.
(II) With increase in potential difference, current flowing through the conductor increases.
(III) The slope of the above graph gives the resistivity of the conductor.
(IV) The resistance of the given conductor is 25 Ohm.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (111) and (IV)
Answer:

(C) (a) 20 ohms
Explanation: When a 5 ohm resistance is drawn so that its length becomes double, the area of cross section becomes half. As
R = ρ$\frac{l}{A}$ = 5 Ohm, the new resistance will be A
R’ = ρ$\frac{2l}{A/2}$ = 4 × ρ$\frac{l}{A}$ = 4 × 5 = 20 Ohm.

Question 12.
Electric heaters, toasters, geysers, iron and kettles are common appliances used throughout the world. The heaters have a metal coil that has high resistance that permits a certain amount of current to flow through them to provide the required heat as per the Joule’s law of heating. The electric kettle and irons have a lot of resistors in them. The resistors limit the amount of current to flow through them to provide the required amount of heat. The size of resistors used in them is determined by using Ohm’s Law.

(A) According to Joule’s law of heating, the heat produced in a resistor in time t is:
(I) Directly proportional to the square of current for a given resistance
(II) Inversely proportional to the potential difference across the resistance
(III) Directly proportional to resistance for a given current
(IV) Inversely proportional to the time for which the current flows through the resistor.
Select the correct statements.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
Answer:
(d) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: According to Joule’s law of heating, the heat produced in a resistor in time t is given by H = Pt = Vlt = l²Rt ⇒H ∝ l², H ∝ R, H ∝ t

(B) If the resistance of a resistor is reduced to half of its initial value, potential difference remaining unchanged, the heating effects in the resistor will become:
(a) Half
(b) One fourth
(c) Two times
(d) Four times
Answer:

(C) Another common application of Joule’s heating is the fuse used in electric circuits. Select the incorrect statement regarding fuse:
(a) It protects circuits and appliances by stopping the flow of any unduly high electric current.
(b) The fuse is placed in parallel with the device.
(c) It consists of a piece of wire made of a metal or an alloy of appropriate melting point.
(d) If a current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit, the fuse wire melts and breaks the circuit.
Answer:

(D) Consider an electric iron which consumes 1 kW electric power when operated at 220 V. The table below gives the rating of ideal fuse that should be used in this case and the heat generated in the electric iron in 30 seconds.

Ideal Rating of Fuse (A)	Heat Generated in 30 s (J)
(a) 4A	3.0 × 10⁴
(b) 10A	1.0 × 10⁴
(c) 5A	3.0 × 10⁴
(d) 5A	3.6 × 10⁶

Answer:

(E) A resistance of 30 ohm is connected to a 6 V battery. The heat energy in joules generated per minute will be:
(a) 72 J
(b) 144 J
(c) 288 J
(d) 36 J
Answer:
(A)
(E) (a)72J
Explanation: The heat generated in a resistor is given by Joule’s law of heating,
H = I²Rt.
Here, I = $\frac{V}{R}=\frac{6}{30}$ = 0.2A , R = 30 Ohm and t = 60 s.
Therefore, H = (0.2)² × 30 × 60 = 72 J

Question 13.
Electrical energy is the energy derived from electric potential energy or kinetic energy of the charged particles. In general, it is referred to as the energy that has been converted from electric potential energy. In many cases it is necessary to calculate the energy usage by an electric device or a collection of devices, such as in a home. The electrical energy (E) used can be reduced either by reducing the time of use or by reducing the power consumption of that appliance or fixture. This will not only reduce the cost, but it will also result in a reduced impact on the environment. Improvements to lighting are some of the fastest ways to reduce the electrical energy used in a home or business. About 20% of a home’s use of energy goes to lighting, while the number for commercial establishments is closer to 40%. A few common electrical appliances and their power ratings are given below:

Load Types	Power Ratings
(1) Light bulbs (incandescent)	60W, 80W, 100W
(2) Electric (steam) iron	2400W
(3) Standing fan	70W
(4) Water heater/Kettle	2000W
(5) Electric blender	350W
(6) Refrigerator	200W
(7) Microwave oven	1200W
(8) Hand dryer	1800W

(A) Which of the following can be concluded from the table shown above?
(I) The energy consumption of an electrical appliance depends on the power rating and the usage time.
(II) The larger the power rating in the electrical appliance, the lesser is the energy used every second.
(III) The Longer the usage time, the more electrical energy is consumed.
(IV) Appliances that have a heating effect usually have a high power rating and consume more electricity.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

(B) An electrical water heater/kettle which is marked 2000 W, 220 V means that:
(a) The electric kettle will consume 2000 J of electrical energy every 1 second if it is connected to a 220 V supply.
(b) The electric kettle will consume 7.2 X 10⁶ J of electrical energy every 1 second if it is connected to a 220 V supply.
(c) The electric kettle will consume 440 J of electrical energy every 1 second if it is connected to a 220 V supply.
(d) The electric kettle will consume 3.6 X 10⁶ J of electrical energy every 1 second if it is connected to a 220 V supply.

(C) Students calculated the number of electrical units consumed daily by operating a hand dryer (Power rating 1800 W) for 2 h daily on a supply of 220 V, the total electrical energy consumed in the month of June (in Joule) and the cost of electricity for the month of June if one unit costs Rs. 5.50 and assuming that no other appliance is used.
Select the row containing the correct entries.

(D) The resistance of the refrigerator (Power rating 200 W, 220 V) is:
(a) 44 kilo Ohm
(b) 44 Ohm
(c) 242 Ohm
(d) 484 Ohm

(E) If the microwave oven and the electric blender of power ratings 1200 W and 350 W respectively are both used for 5 hours daily, the electrical energy consumed in a day is:
(a) 6.0 units
(b) 7.75 units
(c) 15.5 units
(d) 232.5 units
Answer:
(E) (b) 7.75 units

Explanation: The electrical energy consumed in a day is given by E = Pt = 1200 × 5 + 350 × 5 Wh = 7750 Wh = 7.75 kWh or 7.75 units

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define resistance. Give its S.i. unit.
Answer:

Question 2.
Define the term electrical resistivity of a material.
Answer:
Electrical resistivity is defined as the electrical resistance of a conductor having cross¬sectional area 1 m2 and a length 1 m.

Related Theory

SI unit of electrical resistivity is ohm m (Wm)
It is a characteristic property of the material and varies with temperature.
Metals and alloys have very low resistivity but insulators have very high resistivity.

Question 3.
How will the heat produced in a resistor R change if its resistance is reduced to half of its initial value, other parameters of the circuit remain unchanged?
Answer:

Question 4.
The temperature of the filament of bulb is 2700°C when it glows. Why does it not get burnt up at such high temperature?
Answer:
Filament of bulb is made using strong metals having high melting points such as Tungsten which has melting point of 3380 °C, which is higher than the temperature at which it glows

Question 5.
Should the resistance of an ammeter below or high? Give reason.
Answer:

Question 6.
Two unequal resistances are connected in parallel. If you are not provided with any other parameters (eg. Numerical value of I and R). What can be said about the voltage drop across the tow resistors?
Answer:

Voltage-drop is same across both the resistors. Explanation: In parallel connection, all the elements are connected between same two points hence the voltage drop across any number of resistors or other elements
Connected in parallel is same. Thus the voltage drop across the two resistors is same

Question 7.
Some work is done to move a charge Q from infinity to a point A in space. The potential of the point? A is given as V. What is the work done to move this charge from infinity in terms of Q and V?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution with Answers

Heredity and Evolution Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 18, 2024

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Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 9 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 9 MCQs On Heredity and Evolution

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to pure short plants in F₂ generation will be:
(a) 1: 3
(b) 3:1
(c) 1:1
(d) 2:1
Answer:
(c) 1:1

Explanation: The genotype ratio of F₂ generation is: TT: Tt: tt = 1: 2: 1. Therefore, the ratio of TT and tt plants of F₂ generation will be the same.

Heredity Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Two pink-colored flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink, and 1 white flower progeny. The nature of the cross will be:
(a) Double fertilization
(b) Self-pollination
(c) Cross-fertilization
(d) No fertilization
Answer:
(c) Cross-fertilization

Explanation: The nature of the cross will be cross fertilization, which is the transfer of pollen from one plant to the stigma of flower; borne on a different plant of the same species.

Related Theory:

Self-pollination: Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower of the same plant.
Cross-pollination: Transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower.
Double fertilization: This process occurs when one male nucleus fertilizes (fuses) with the egg cell to form a zygote cell and the other male nucleus fuses (fertilizes) with two polar nuclei to cause triple fusion. These two types of fertilization take place at the same time in the ovule of the plant.

Heredity And Evolution MCQ Question 3.
In human males, all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. These unpaired chromosomes are:
(I) Large chromosome
(II) Small chromosome
(III) Y chromosome
(IV) X chromosome
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (III) and (II)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Class 10 Heredity And Evolution MCQ Question 4.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) For every hormone there is a gene.
(b) For every protein there is a gene.
(c) For production of every enzyme there is a gene.
(d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene.
Answer:
(d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene. Explanation: A section of DNA that provides information for one protein is called the gene for that protein. Hormones and enzymes are proteins, and the formation of any particular protein is controlled by a particular gene. Fat biosynthesis occurs through metabolic reaction. They are not related to genes.

MCQ On Heredity And Evolution Question 5.
Which one is a possible progeny in F2 generation of purebred tall plant with round seed and dwarf plant with wrinkled seeds?
(a) Tall plant with round seeds
(b) Tall plant with wrinkled seeds
(c) Dwarf plant with round seed
(d) All of the above

Heredity And Evolution MCQ Questions Question 6.
If a round, green-seeded pea plant (RR yy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant, (rr YY), the seeds production in the F₁ generation are:
(a) Round and yellow
(b) Round and green
(c) Wrinkled and green
(d) Wrinkled and yellow
Answer:
(a) Round and yellow

Explanation: The cross between RR yy and rr YY seeds will obtain RrYy offspring which will exhibit round and yellow phenotype, as these traits are the dominant ones.

MCQ Questions On Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 7.
A zygote which has an X chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a:
(a) Boy
(b) Girl
(c) X chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
(d) Either boy or girl
Answer:
(b) Girl

Explanation: Humans follow XX- XY mechanism of sex determination i.e., women are XX while men are XY. All children will inherit an X chromosome from their mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls. Thus, the sex of the children will be determined by what they inherit from their father. A child who inherits an X chromosome from her father will be a girl and the one who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a boy.

Heredity MCQ Class 10 Question 8.
Select the incorrect statement:
(a) The frequency of certain genes in a population change over several generations resulting in evolution.
(b) The reduction in the weight of an organism due to starvation is genetically controlled.
(c) Low weight parents can have heavy weight progeny.
(d) Traits which are not inherited over generations do not cause evolution.
Answer:

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Question 9.
Select the correct statement:
(a) The tendril of a pea plant and the phylloclade of Opuntia are homologous.
(b) The tendril of a pea plant and the phylloclade of Opuntia are analogous.
(c) The wings of birds and the limbs of lizards are analogous.
(d) The wings of bird and the wings of bats are homologous.
Answer:

MCQs On Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 10.
If the fossil of an organism is found in the deeper layers of earth, then we can predict that:
(a) The extinction of the organism occurred recently.
(b) The extinction of the organism occurred thousands of years ago.
(c) The fossil position in the layers of Earth is not related to its time of extinction.
(d) The time of extinction cannot be deter¬mined.
Answer:
(b) The extinction of the organism occurred thousands of years ago.

Explanation: If we dig into the earth and start finding fossils, the fossils we find closer to the surface are more recent than the fossils we find in deeper layers.

Related Theory
Depth of each stratum signifies the relative age of fossils present in it. The deeper the stratum, the older the rock and the fossils present in it

Class 10 Science Chapter 9 MCQ Question 11.
A trait in an organism is influenced by:
(a) Paternal DNA only
(b) Maternal DNA only
(c) Both maternal and paternal DNA
(d) Neither paternal nor maternal DNA
Answer:
(c) Both maternal and paternal DNA

Explanation: DNA is contributed to an offspring by both the parents; hence, traits are influenced by both maternal and paternal DNA. During sexual reproduction, both mother and father pass their genes to their children, thus determining their traits; or characteristic features.

MCQ Of Heredity And Evolution Question 12.
New species may be formed if:
(I) DNA undergoes significant changes in germ cells.
(II) The chromosome number changes in the gamete.
(III) There is no change in the genetic material.
(IV) Mating does not take place.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:

MCQ On Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 13.
which of the following statements is not true with respect to variation?
(a) All variations in a species have equal chances of survival.
(b) Change in genetic composition results in variation.
(c) Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis of evolutionary processes.
(d) Variation is minimum in asexual reproduction.
Answer:

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 14.
According to the evolutionary theory, for¬mation of a new species is generally due to:
(a) Sudden creation by nature.
(b) Accumulation of variations over several generations.
(c) Clones formed during asexual reproduction.
(d) Movement of individuals from one habitat to another.
Answer:

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ Learn Cbse Question 15.
The theory of the evolution of species by natural selection was given by:
(a) Mendel
(b) Darwin
(c) Morgan
(d) Lamarck
Answer:

Question 16.
Some dinosaurs had feathers although they could not fly but birds have feathers that help them to fly. In the context of evolution this means that:
(a) Reptiles have evolved from birds.
(b) There is no evolutionary connection between reptiles and birds.
(c) Feathers are homologous structures in both the organisms.
(d) Birds have evolved from reptiles.
Answer:

Question 17.
Select a set of homologous organs from the following:
(a) Wings of a bat and wings of a butterfly
(b) Wings of a pigeon and wings of a bat
(c) Wings of a butterfly and wings of a pigeon
(d) Forelimbs of a duck, forelimbs of a cow and forelimbs of a lizard
Answer:
(d) Forelimbs of a duck, forelimbs of a cow and forelimbs of a lizard

Explanation: Wings of a bat and wings of a butterfly (A), Wings of a pigeon and wings of a bat (B) and Wings of a butterfly and wings of a pigeon (C) are analogous organs as they all use wings for flying but the wings have different structures.

Bat wings consist of flaps of skin stretched between the bones of the fingers and arm, wings of pigeon consist of feathers extending all along the arm whereas butterfly wings are covered in scales.

On the other hand, Forelimbs of a duck, forelimbs of a cow and forelimbs of a lizard are homologous organs as they all have similar structures which have been modified to perform different functions.

Question 18.
Select the correct statements regarding monohybrid cross between a pure tall pea plant and pure short pea plant performed by Mendel:
(I) All plants of the F₁ generation were tall.
(II) The tall plants in the F₁ generation were exactly the same as the tall plants of the parent generation
(III) One-quarter of the F₂ progeny of the F₁ tall plants were short.
(IV) Both the tallness and shortness traits were inherited in the F₁ plants
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: When a pure tall pea plant is crossed with a pure short plant, it was observed that all plants of the F₁ generation were tall. But the tall plants in the F₁ generation were not exactly the same as the tall plants of the parent generation. The genotype of the pure tall plant is TT, whereas the genotype of the tall plant in the F₁ generation was Tt. The ratio of the tall and short plants in the F₂ generation was 3:1. As 25 % of the pea plants in the F₂ generation were tall, it means that both the shortness (t) and tallness (T) trait were inherited in the FI plants.

Question 19.
Which of the following are acquired traits?
(I) Attached or free earlobe
(II) Muscular body of a wrestler
(III) Body weight of starving animals
(IV) Brown and curly hair
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 20.
Consider the plants the pitcher plant, venus fly trap, poinsettia and cactus.
Select the row containing incorrect information regarding the leaves of these plants in terms of evolutionary relationships.

(a) Leaves of these plants are homologous organs	The leaves are structurally similar but modified to perform different functions
(b) Leaves of these plants are analogous organs	The leaves are structurally dissimilar but perform similar functions
(c) Leaves of these plants are vestigial organs	Leaves are homologous to similar leaves in other plants
(d) Leaves of these plants are neither homologous nor analogous	The leaves have no structural or functional similarity

Answer:

Question 21.
Study the organs and evolutionary relationship mentioned alongside. Select the row containing incorrect information.

Organs Relationship	Evolutionary
(a) limbs of human being and frog	Homologous organs
(b) wings of bird and bat	Analogous organs
(c) Thorns and spines in plants	Analogous organs
(d) Tendril of pea plant and grape plant	Homologous organs

Answer:
(d) Organs: Tendril of pea plant and grape plant; Evolutionary Relationship: Homologous organs

Explanation: Thorn is modification of stem and spine is modification of leaf. Tendrils in plant show similar function but they are different in origin. Pea plant has Leaf tendril whears. Grape plant has Stem tendril

Question 22.
which of the statements regarding evolution is correct?
(a) One species is always eliminated in order to give rise to a new species.
(b) The newly formed species are better than the old species.
(c) Evolution is the generation of diversity and the shaping of the diversity by environmental selection.
(d) More and more complex body designs have emerged over time as the older designs are ineffcient.
Answer:

Question 23.
which of the following cannot be an outcome of Mendel’s Experiment on crossing a tall pea plant with a short pea plant?
(a) 3 tall 1 short plant
(b) 4 tall plants and 1 medium height plant.
(c) 24 tall and 8 short plants
(d) 8 tall and 0 short plants
Answer:

Question 24.
Which of the following have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes?
(a) Only Girls
(b) Only Boys
(c) Both girls and boys
(d) It depends on many other factors
Answer:
(a) Only Girls

Explanation: Girls have a perfect paired 23rd chromosome, which is XX, whereas boys have a mismatched 23rd pair of chromosomes, which is XY.

Question 25.
Select the incorrect option.
Genetic drift is:
(a) A mechanism of evolution in which allele frequencies of a population remain constant over generations.
(b) It occurs in all populations of non-infinite size, but its effects are strongest in small populations.
(c) It may result in the loss of some alleles.
(d) It can have major effects when a population is sharply reduced in size by a natural disaster.
Answer:

Question 26.
Select the group which shares the maximum number of common characters:
(a) Two individuals of a species
(b) Two species of a genus
(c) Two genera of a family
(d) Two genera of two families
Answer:

Question 27.
Select the statements that describe the characteristics of genes:
(I) Genes are specific sequence of bases in a DNA molecule.
(II) A gene does not code for proteins.
(III) In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome.
(IV) Each chromosome has only one gene.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (I) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) (I) and (III)

Explanation: Genes are units of heredity and are responsible for inheritance. Genes control the expression of a trait or a character in an organism. Genes are located on the chromosomes, which is present inside the nucleus of the cell in the crytoplasm.

Question 28.
The number of pair(s) of sex chromosomes in the zygote of humans is:
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 9

For the following questions, two statements are given: one Labeled Assertion (A) and the other Labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 29.
Assertion (A): The wing of an insect and wing of a bird are analogous organs
Reason (R): The organs which are quite different in fundamental structure and origin but perform the same function in different species are called analogous organs
Answer:

Question 30.
Assertion (A): The sex of a child in human beings will be determined by the type of chromosome he/ she inherits from the father.
Reason (R): A child who inherits ‘X‘ chromosome from his father would be a girl (XX), while a child who inherits a ‘Y‘ chromosome from the father would be a boy (XY).
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: Human beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes. Out of which one pair is sex chromosomes and 22 pairs are autosomes. In men, sex chromosome pair is mismatched pair ‘XY‘, ‘X‘ is normal sized and Y is shorter than ‘X‘ chromosomes. Human females have ‘XX chromosomes. Males produce two types of sperms whereas females produce only one ovum having ‘X’ chromosomes. A child who inherits the ‘X’ chromosome from a father would be a girl ‘(XX)’.

While a child who inherits a Y chromosome from the father would be a boy (XY).

Question 31.
Assertion: A geneticist crossed a pea plant having violet flowers with a peaplant with white flowers, he got all violet flowers in first generation.
Reason: White colour gene is not passed on to next generation.
Answer:

Question 32.
Assertion (A): New combination of traits are observed in F₂ offspring when tall plants with round seeds are crossed with short plants with wrinkled seeds.
Reason (R): Tallness and round seed are both dominant traits.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Lokesh was very fond of dogs. So, one day his friend called him to show a white dog and a black dog which he had recently got from his friend. Lokesh was wondering as to how different dogs have different colours!

Dogs having black coat colour when crossed with dogs having same colour, produced 200 offsprings. Out of this 150 were black and 50 were white. The genotype of dogs is:
(a) BB and bb (B: Black; b: white)
(b) Bb and bb (B: Black; b: white)
(c) Bb and Bb (B: Black; b: white)
(d) BB and Bb (B: Black; b: white)
Answer:
(a) BB and bb (B: Black; b: white)

Explanation: As the ratio of black: white dogs = 150 : 50 = 3 :1, black coat colour is dominant over white. Further, both black and white dogs are homozygous (BB and bb).

Question 2.
A giant 70 million year old fossil of a fish that lived amongst dinosaurs has been discovered in Argentine Patagonia, a team of researchers said on Monday.Argentine paleontologists “found the remains of a predator fish that was more than six meters long,” the researchers said in a statement.The discovery was published in the scientific journal Alcheringa: An Australasian Journal of Palaeontology.The fish “swam in the Patagonian seas at the end of the Cretaceous Period, when the temperature there was much more temperate than now,” the statement said.

Mention any two methods of estimating life of a fossil.
Answer:
The two methods of estimating the life of a fossil are:
(1) By digging the earth and start finding fossils. The fossils found closer to the surface are more recent as compared to the fossils found in deeper layers.
(2) By detecting the ratios of different isotopes of a radioactive element in the fossil material, such as Carbon-14.

Question 3.
Inheritance from the previous generation provides both a common basic body design, and subtle changes in it, for the next generation. The original organism at the top will give rise to two individuals, similar in body design, but with subtle differences. Each of them, in turn, will give rise to two individuals in the next generation. Each of the four individuals in the bottom row will be different from each other. While some of these differences will be unique, others will be inherited from their respective parents, who were different from each other. Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis for evolutionary processes.
(A) If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing species and a trait B exists in 60% of the same population, which trait is likely to have arisen earlier?
Answer:
Trait B is likely to have arisen earlier because in asexual reproduction traits are carried from parents to offspring with least variations so since trait B has higher percentage it is likely to have arisen earlier.

(B) How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival?
Answer:
The Y chromosome in the zygote

Explanation: A child who inherits an X chromo¬some from her father will be a girl and the one who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a boy. Thus the maleness of a child is determined by the presence of the Y chromosome in the zygote inherited from the father.

(C) Give any one factor that could lead to the rise of a new species?
Answer:
The factors could lead to the rise of a new species are:
(1) Natural Selection
(2) Method of Genetic Drift
(3) Gene Variation on Mutation
(4) Geographical and environmental factors

Related Theory
Specialtion is the process by which new species form. It occurs when groups in a species become reproductively isolated and diverge.

(D) Which of the processes, sexual reproduction or asexual reproduction, brings about maximum variations in the offsprings?
Answer:

Question 4.
When Simran visited the hospital, maternity ward to see her little brother born just a day before, she was pleasantly surprised to see so many new born babies in the hospital nursery. So, she thought, how many of these are male babies and how many are female?

The genetic makeup of a male embryo is determined by
(a) The X chromosome in the zygote
(b) The Y chromosome in the zygote
(c) The cytoplasm of the germ cell which determines the sex
(d) Sex is determined by chance
Answer:
(b) The Y chromosome in the zygote
Explanation: A chiLd who inherits an X chromosome from her father wilt be a girL and the one who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a boy. Thus the maleness of a chiLd is determined by the presence of the Y chromosome in the zygote inherited from the father.

Question 5.
In the F₂ generation of a cross, progeny having different traits are produced in the ratio 3:1.
(A) State whether it is a monohybrid cross or a dihybrid cross? Give one example of such a cross.
(B) Exchange of genetic material takes place in:
(a) Vegetative reproduction
(b) Asexual reproduction
(c) Sexual reproduction
(d) Budding
Answer:
It is a monohybrid cross.

Example: when two hybrids tall Pea plants crossbreed with each other they will produce three tall plants and one dwarf planet in the F₂ generation.

(C) A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall plants because:
(a) Tallness is the dominant trait
(b) Shortness is the dominant trait
(c) Tallness is the recessive trait
(d) Height of pea plant is not governed by gene ‘T’ or ‘t’
Answer:

Question 6.
Observe the ears of all the students in the class. The lowest part of the ear, called the earlobe, is closely attached to the side of the head in some of us, and not in others. Free and attached earlobes are two variants found in human populations.

Prepare a list of students having free or attached earlobes and calculate the percentage of students having each. Find out about the earlobes of the parents of each student in the class. Correlate the earlobe type of each student with that of their parents. Based on this evidence, suggest a possible rule for the inheritance of earlobe types.
The percentage of people having free earlobes and attached earlobes is shown below:

(A) Based on the findings in the NCERT activity, it can be concluded that:
(I) The gene responsible for free earlobes in dominant.
(II) The gene responsible for free earlobe may be dominant or recessive.
(III) The gene responsible for attached earlobe may be dominant or recessive.
(IV) The gene responsible for attached earlobe is recessive.
Select the correct statements.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) The earlobes of a child whose parents have free earlobes will be:
(a) Free earlobe
(b) Attached earlobe
(c) Can be free or attached earlobe
(d) Neither free nor attached
Answer:
(B) (c) Can be free or attached earlobe

Explanation: Parents with free earlobes can have both a copy of the dominant and recessive allele and they may give birth to a baby with free or attached earlobes.

(D) Mrs. and Mr. Sharma have six children. Three of them have attached eartobes Like their father, and the other three have free earlobes like their mother.
Taking F for free earlobes and f for attached earLobes, seLect the row containing the correct genotype of parents and children from the table below:

Answer:
(b) Mrs. Sharma: Ff; Mr. Sharma: Ff; Children with free earlobes: Ff; Children with attached earlobes: ff

Explanation: All of the individuals with attached earlobes must be ff. AIL of the individuals with free earlobes can be FF or ff. In this particular case, the parent having free earlobe has children who have attached earlobes, so that parent must have an f, and is thus Ff. And all of the children have one parent with attached earlobes, so they must also all have at Least one f, and are thus Ff. So the answer is, Mr. Sharma is ff, Mrs. Sharma is Ff. The three chiLdren with attached earlobes are ff, and the three with free earlobes are Ff.

(E) A child has attached earlobes.
Select the most appropriate statement regarding the earlobe of his/her parents.
(a) Earlobes of either parent may be attached or free.
(b) Both parents have attached earlobes.
(c) One parent has attached earlobes
(d) Cannot be determined.
Answer:

Question 7.
Natural selection is the differential survival and reproduction of individuals due to differences in phenotype. It is a key mechanism of evolution, the change in the heritable traits characteristic of a population over generations.

Charles Darwin popularized the term “natural selection”, contrasting it with artificial selection, which in his view is intentional, whereas natural selection is not.

Natural selection can cause microevolution (change in allele frequencies), with fitness-increasing alleles becoming more common in the population. Fitness is a measure of reproductive success (how many offspring an organism leaves in the next generation, relative to others in the group). Natural selection can act on traits determined by alternative alleles of a single gene, or on polygenic traits (traits determined by many genes). Natural selection on traits determined by multiple genes may take the form of stabilizing selection, directional selection, or disruptive selection.
(A) Which of the following are examples of natural selection?
(I) In an ecosystem, lizards that had long legs could climb better to avoid floods and reach food.
(II) Insects become resistant to pesticides very quickly, sometime in one generation and if an insect is resistant to the chemical, most of the offspring will also be resistant.
(III) Cultivation of wild cabbage as a food plant, and generation of different vegetables from it
(IV) Dog breeding for various desired characteristics.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:

(B) Natural selection acts on an organism’s:
(a) Environment
(b) Chromosome
(c) Phenotype
(d) Genotype
Answer:

(C) Imagine a population of brown and white rabbits, whose coat color is determined by dominant brown (B) and recessive white (b) alleles of a single gene. A predator such as a hawk can see white rabbits more easily than brown rabbits against the backdrop of a grassy field.
What is likely to happen? Select the incorrect answer:
(a) Brown rabbits are more likely than white rabbits to survive hawk predation.
(b) The b alleles may disappear from the population after several generations due to selection.
(c) The next generation will probably contain a higher frequency of B alleles.
(d) The next generation will probably contain a higher frequency of b alleles.
Answer:
(d) The next generation will probably contain a higher frequency of b alleles.

Explanation: Natural selection can shift allele and phenotype frequencies to make a population better-suited to its environment. If we imagine that half of the white rabbits (but none of the brown rabbits) are eaten by hawks, then the frequency of B allele will increase.

Natural selection acts on phenotypes, not genotypes, as a hawk can tell a brown rabbit from a white rabbit, but it can’t tell an BB rabbit from a Bb rabbit.

(D) Humans have, over more than two thousand years, cultivated wild cabbage as a food plant, and generated different vegetables from it by selection.
Select the row containing incorrect information.

Desirable Characteristic	Name of Vegetable Evolved from Wild Cabbage
Short distances between leaves	Cabbage
For sterile flowers	Kale
For arrested flower development	Broccoli
For swollen parts	Kohlrabi

Answer:
(b) Desirable characteristic: For sterile flowers: Name of vegetable evolved from wild cabbage: Kale

Explanation: For sterile flowers, man of made cauliflower and for leafy vegetable, made kale.

(E) In a habitat there are red bugs and green bugs. The birds prefer the taste of the red bugs, so soon there are many green bugs and few red bugs. The green bugs reproduce and make more green bugs and eventually there are no more red bugs.
The above is an example of:
(a) Natural selection
(b) Genetic drift
(c) Geographical isolation
(d) Speciation
Answer:

Question 8.
X-linked recessive inheritance is a mode of inheritance in which a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome causes the phenotype to be always expressed in males (who are necessarily homozygous for the gene mutation because they have one X and one Y chromosome) and in females who are homozygous for the gene mutation. Females with one copy of the mutated gene are carriers. X-linked inheritance means that the gene causing the trait or the disorder is located on the X chromosome.

In humans, inheritance of X-linked recessive traits follows a unique pattern as shown below:

The first is that affected fathers cannot pass x-linked recessive traits to their sons because fathers give Y chromosomes to their sons. Second, x-iinked recessive traits are more commonly expressed in males than females.
This is due to the fact that males possess only a single X chromosome, and therefore require only one mutated X in order to be affected. The last pattern seen is that x-linked recessive traits tend to skip generations, meaning an affected grandfather will not have an affected son, but could have an affected grandson through his daughter.

(A) In the cross shown above, if the father is unaffected and mother is also unaffected, but mother is a carrier (X-linked recessive allele present), then which of the following statements are correct about their children:
(I) Both sons will be unaffected but will be carriers.
(II) One son will be unaffected and one son will be affected.
(III) Both daughters will be unaffected
(IV) One daughter will be unaffected and one daughter will be affected.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: Females have two X chromosomes while males have one X and one Y chromosome. Carrier females who have only one copy of the mutation do not usually express the phenotype. So, the son who receives the X chromosome containing the dominant allele will be unaffected whereas the son who receives X chromosome containing the recessive allele will be affected. Both daughters will be unaffected, but the daughter who receives the recessive allele from her mother will be carrier.

This means that males affected by an x-linked recessive disorder inherited the responsible X chromosome from their mothers.

Women possess two X chromosomes and thus must receive two of the mutated recessive X chromosomes (one from each parent). A popular example showing this pattern of inheritance is that of the descendants of Queen Victoria and the blood disease hemophilia.

(B) Study the cross shown above and select the row containing incorrect information:

Answer:

(C) Sex-linked genetically inherited traits:
(a) can appear in both males and females
(b) are only found in males
(c) are only found in females
(d) appear only in F₂generation
Answer:

(D) X-linked recessive traits are more commonly expressed in males than females because:
(a) Females have both X chromosomes which will be mutated at the same time
(b) Males possess a Y chromosome which can be mutated
(c) Males possess only a single X chromosome, and therefore require only one mutated X in order to be affected
(d) Chances of mutation of both X chromosomes in females is very low
Answer:

(E) Insects also follow an XY sex- determination pattern and like humans, Drosophila males have an XY chromosome pair and females are XX. Eye color in Drosophila was one of the first X-linked traits to be identified. In fruit flies, the wild-type eye color is red (XW) and is dominant to white eye color (Xw).
In a cross between a white-eyed female fruit fly and red-eyed male, what percent of the female offspring will have white eyes? (White eyes are X-linked, recessive)
(a) 100 %
(b) 50 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 0 %
Answer:
(d) 0%

Explanation: The genotype of a white-eyed female fruit fly will be XWXW and of red-eyed male will be XWY. When we cross them, the genotype of offspring will be:

XWXW (Red eyed female), X (White-eyed male), XWXW (Red-eyed female) and XWY (white-eyed male).
All of the females are thus red-eyed and heterozygous. All of the males are white-eyed and hemizygous.

Question 9.
In mice, black coat colour (B) is dominant over brown coat colour (b), and a solid pattern (S) is dominant over white spotted (s). Colour and spots are controlled by genes that assort independently. A homozygous (both alleles identical) black, spotted mouse is crossed with a homozygous brown, solid mouse.
(A) The genotypes of the parents is:
(a) Bbss and bbSS
(b) BBss and bbSs
(c) BbSs and BbSs
(d) BBss and bbSS
Answer:

(B) Select the incorrect statements regarding the F₁ progeny obtained:
(I) Phenotype of all mice of F₁ generation is brown coat with solid pattern.
(II) Phenotype of all mice of F₁ generation is black coat with solid pattern.
(III) Genotype of all mice of F₁ generation is BbSs.
(IV) Genotype of all mice of F₁ generation is BBSs.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Genotype of the homozygous black, spotted mouse is BBss and of the homozygous brown, solid mouse is bbSS.
When these are crossed, all F₁ progeny will be black coat with solid pattern (BbSs) as gametes of homozygous black, spotted mouse will be Bs and of homozygous brown, solid mouse is bS.

(C) The table below shows the phenotypic ratio of F₂ generation when mice of F₁ generation are crossed with each other.
Select the row containing correct information:

Answer:

(D) From the cross mentioned in (B) above, it can be concluded that:
(a) The phenotype of progeny is independent of inherited genes.
(b) The black/brown colour of coat and solid/spotted pattern are inherited independently.
(c) The genotype of progeny does not decide the phenotype.
(d) The phenotype and genotype of progeny are independently inherited.
Answer:
(b) The black/brown colour of coat and solid/spotted pattern are Inherited independently.

Explanation: The genes responsible for coLour (black or brown) and spotting (solid pattern or spotted) are assorted independently.

(E) Suppose a test cross is carried out by mating FI mice with brown, spotted mice. The percentage of progeny having black coat with solid pattern will be;
(a) 75 %
(b) 50 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 0 %
Answer:

Question 10.
Remember the Hindi film Ghajini where Aamir Khan had sported a new hairstyle? It became a rage and later, several boys started to experiment with their hairstyle in unique ways.

From the list given below, select the character which can be acquired but not inherited:
(a) Colour of eyes
(b) Colour of skin
(c) Size of body
(d) Nature of hair
Answer:

Question 11.
A big challenge with species conservation is trying to limit and reduce the negative genetic effects of small or isolated populations. Founder’s effect or bottleneck effect can lead to small populations which are highly susceptible to genetic drift. This means there is a serious reduction in genetic variation within the population, making that population less able to adapt to new selective pressures (“Bottleneck and founder effects”). Even if the species’ numbers were to rebound, the new generations would only carry the limited set of alleles passed down by the small population.

A population bottleneck is an event that drastically reduces the size of a population. The bottleneck may be caused by various events, such as an environmental disaster, the hunting of a species to the point of extinction, or habitat destruction that results in the deaths of organisms. The population bottleneck produces a decrease in the gene pool of the population because many alleles, or gene variants, that were present in the original population are lost. Due to the event, the remaining population has a very low level of genetic diversity, which means that the population as a whole has few genetic characteristics.

(A) Select the correct statements:
(I) A population bottleneck decreases genetic variation in a species or subspecies.
(II) Gene flow increases genetic diversity by introducing new alleles into the population.
(III) Mutation decreases genetic diversity in a population.
(IV) Species can become extinct if genetic diversity recovers after the bottleneck.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Gene pool frequencies do not change as a result of migrations in or out of a population.
(b) Gene flow occurs only as a result of migrations.
(c) Gene flow can cause new alleles to enter a population’s gene pool.
(d) Gene flow is possible only in aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:
(c) Gene flow can cause new alleles to enter a population’s gene pool.

Explanation: Since gene flow alters the recipient population’s gene pool, it causes evolution independent of any other evolutionary mechanism.

(C) Which of the following is not true of genetic drift?
(a) It can lead to alleles being fixed in a population
(b) It results from the random transmission of alleles from parents to offspring in a population
(c) It can lead to loss of alleles from a population
(d) It can increase the genetic diversity of a population
Answer:

(D) In a population where the allele frequency shifts by random chance, the mechanism of evolution at work is:
(a) mutation
(b) genetic drift
(c) natural selection
(d) migration
Answer:
(b) genetic drift

Explanation: Genetic drift occurs as a result of chance events causing changes in the allele frequency of a population. It doesn’t favor the fittest individuals, but occurs at random.

(E) Mutation may be described as:
(a) Continuous genetic variation
(b) Phenotypic change
(c) Discontinuous genetic variation
(d) Change due to hybridization
Answer:

Question 12.
When a friend showed Uma two photographs and asked her to identify the relation between the persons shown in the photograph, she immediately replied that the photographs are of identical twins as they had identical features. But to her surprise, the photograph was of a father when he was a kid and of his daughter. The similarity in their features was remarkable!

Answer:
Cellular DNA is the information source for making proteins in the cell. As genes are responsible for controlling various processes in an organism and are made up of DNA, we can say that DNA is the carrier of basic genetic information in organisms.

Question 13.
Speciation, the formation of new and distinct species in the course of evolution. Speciation involves the splitting of a single evolutionary lineage into two or more genetically independent lineages. Speciation occurs when a group within a species separates from other members of its species and develops its own unique characteristics. The demands of a different environment or the characteristics of the members of the new group will differentiate the new species from their ancestors.
There are many hypotheses about how speciation starts, and they differ mainly in the role of geographic isolation and the origin of reproductive isolation (the prevention of two populations or more from interbreeding with one another).

(A) Select the incorrect statement.
Speciation is possible in isolated populations of the parent species because:
(a) There will be an accumulation of different changes in each sub-population due to genetic drift.
(b) Natural selection may operate differently in these different geographic locations.
(c) isolated populations are no longer able to interbreed.
(d) Increased gene flow
Answer:
(d) Increased gene flow

Explanation: Speciation is possible when the parent species is subdivided into subpopulations. Each sub-population has a different gene pool and accumulation of different changes due to genetic drift. Moreover, different variations may be selected in the subpopulations by environmental factors. Eventually, the organisms belonging to the sub-populations may no longer be able to interbreed. However, if gene flow decreases, then the groups will evolve along separate paths.

(B) Two separate squirrel species inhabit the north and south rims of the canyon when Arizona’s Grand Canyon formed. This is an example of:
(a) Genetic Drift
(b) Geographical isolation
(c) Natural selection
(d) Variation
Answer:

(C) New species may be formed if
(I) DNA undergoes significant change in germ cells
(II) Chromosome number changes in the gamete
(III) There is no change in the genetic material
(IV) Mating is no longer possible
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)

Explanation: New species may be formed due to significant change in DNA such that the organisms are no longer able to inter breed. Then, a new species is said to have been formed.

(D) Wild cabbage has evolved into new varieties like cabbage, broccoli and cauliflower by
(a) genetic drift
(b) natural selection
(c) reproductive isolation
(d) artificial selection
Answer:

(E) Imagine a situation in which a population extends over a broad geographic range, and mating throughout the population is not random. Individuals in the far west would have zero chance of mating with individuals in the far eastern end of the range.

Which of the following can lead to the formation of a new species in such a situation?
Select the most appropriate answer in the given context.
(a) Geographical isolation
(b) Reduced gene flow
(c) Increased gene flow
(d) Genetic drift
Answer:

Question 14.
When Priyanka went to the market to buy some pulses, she was quite surprised when the shopkeeper mentioned the different varieties of pea. There was green and round variety as well as yellow and wrinkled and also yellow and round varieties!

Round and green seeds of pea plant were crossed with wrinkled and yellow seeds. Progeny of F₁ generation were all having round and green seeds. These F₁ progenies were used to generate F₂ progeny. Select the row containing incorrect observation or remarks:

Observation	Remarks
(a) Genotype of parents of F₁ progeny was RRyy (Round, green) and rrYY (Wrinkled, yellow)	Roundness and yellow were dominant as all F₁ progeny had round and yellow seeds
(b) Genotype of 50% F₁ progeny was RRYY and RrYy for the remaining 50% F₁ progeny.	As alt F₁ progeny had round/yellow seeds, roundness and yellow were dominant.
(c) Some F₂ progeny showed new combinations	The round seed/ wrinkled seed trait and yellow! green trait are independently inherited.
(d) Phenotype ratio of F₂ progeny was 9:3:3:1	9 (round/yellow)
	3 (round green)
	3 (wrinkled yellow)
	1 (wrinkled green)

Answer:
(b) Observation: Genotype of 50% F₁ progeny was RRYY and RrYy for the remaining 50% F₁ progeny: Remarks: As all F₁ progeny had round/yellow seeds, roundness and yellow were dominant.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mendel took tall pea plants and short pea plants and produced F₁ progeny through cross-fertilisation. What did Mendel observe in the F₁ progeny?
Answer:
When Mendel cross-fertilized tall pea plants and short pea plants, he observed that all plants in the F₁progeny were tall.

Related Theory

When these F₁ progeny are self crossed, he observed that the F₂ progeny are not all tall. The ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants comes to be approximately 3:1.
This indicates that both the tallness (T) and shortness (t) traits were inherited in the F₁ plants, but only the tallness trait was expressed.
Above experiment led Mendel to propose that two copies of factor (now called genes) controlling traits are present in sexually reproducing organisms.
Traits like T which are expressed are called dominant traits, while traits like’t’ are called recessive traits.

Question 2.
How is the normal number of chromosomes restored in the progeny of sexually reproducing organisms?
Answer:
Each cell has two copies of each chromosome, one each from the male and female parents. Each germ cell or gamete takes one chromosome from each pair and when two germ cells combine, the original number of chromosomes is restored in the progeny.

Question 3.
Do all variations in a species have equal chances of surviving in the environment in which they find themselves?
Answer:
No, all variations in a species do not have equal chances of surviving in the environment in which they find themselves. Depending upon the nature of variations, each individual would have different advantages of survival.

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