MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Chemical Reactions and Equations Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Science Chemistry Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

Chemistry Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQs On Chemical Reactions and Equations

Chemical Reaction And Equation Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following is not a physical change?
(a) Boiling of water to give water vapour.
(b) Melting of ice to give water.
(c) Dissolution of salt in water.
(d) Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG).
Answer:
(d) Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG).

Explanation: Since the combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) produces new substances, a lot of heat is produced along with carbon dioxide and water vapour. It is also irreversible in nature. So it is a chemical change.

However, boiling of water to give water vapour, melting of ice to give water and dissolution of salt in water are physical changes, as here no new substance is formed, only the physical state of the substance changes.

A physical change does not produce a new substance although the initial and final substances appear different and it is reversible.

During a chemical change, the chemical composition of the substance changes and new substances with new properties are formed. Energy is either released or absorbed during a chemical change and it is irreversible.

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Chemical Reactions And Equations Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following is (are) an endothermic process(es)?
(I) Dilution of sulphuric acid
(II) Sublimation of dry ice
(III) Condensation of water vapours
(IV) Evaporation of water
(a) (I) and (III)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Class 10 Science Chapter 1 MCQ Question 3.
Strong heating of ferrous sulphate leads to the formation of a brown solid and two gases. This reaction can be categorised as:
(a) displacement and redox.
(b) decomposition and redox.
(c) displacement and endothermic.
(d) decomposition and exothermic.
Answer:
(b) decomposition and redox reaction.

Explanation: When FeSO4 is heated strong, it decomposes to form a brown solid ferric oxide, sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide.
Class 10 Chemical Reactions And Equations MCQ
In this reaction, FeSO4 decomposes and forms new products so it is a decomposition reaction. Here FeSO4 is oxidised to Fe2O3 by loss of electrons. So this part of the reaction is oxidation reaction FeSO4 is also reduced to SO2 and SO3 by a gain of electrons.

Hence, the Heating of FeSO4 is both decomposition and Redox reaction.

Related Theory:
A reaction is called redox when both oxidation and reduction are taking place simultaneously.
The oxidation process involves:

  1. Gain of oxygen
  2. Loss of hydrogen
  3. Loss of electrons

Reduction process involves:

  1. Loss of oxygen,
  2. Gain of hydrogen
  3. Gain of electrons

The substance which loses electrons i.e. gets oxidised, acts as a reducing agent and the substance which gains electrons, i.e. it gets reduced and acts as an oxidising agent.

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Class 10 Chemical Reactions And Equations MCQ Question 4.
Which among the following is (are) double displacement reaction(s)?
(I) Pb + CuCl2 → PbCl2 + Cu
(II) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl
(III) C + O2 → CO2
(IV) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) Only (II)
(c) (I) and (II)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) only (II)
Explanation: A double displacement reaction involves the displacement of two ions of two different compounds that results in the formation of new compounds. Here, only in reaction (II), ions of both reactants are exchanged and two entirely different compounds are formed. For example.
Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4(s) (White ppt) + 2NaCl(aq)

In a double displacement reaction, exchange of ions takes place i.e., SO42- exchange place with Cl ion. It is also called a precipitation reaction as BaSO4 is precipitated as insoluble salt in the solution.

Ch 1 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of reaction involved?
(I) Displacement reaction
(II) Precipitation reaction
(III) Combination reaction
(IV) Double displacement reaction
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (IV)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Class 10 Chemistry Chapter 1 MCQ Question 6.
When copper turnings are added to silver nitrate solution, a blue coloured solution is formed after some time. It is because copper:
(I) Displaces silver from the solution
(II) forms a blue coloured complex with AgNO3
(III) Is oxidized to Cu2+
(IV) ls reduced to Cu2+
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I) and (III)
Explanation: Copper is placed above silver in electrochemical series and thus reaction occurs
Cu + 2Ag+ → Cu2+ + 2Ag

Chemical Reaction And Equation MCQ Question 7.
One of the following does not happen during a chemical reaction. This is:
(a) Breaking of old bonds and formation of new bonds
(b) Formation of new substances with entirely different properties
(c) Atoms of one element change into those of another element to form new products
(d) A rearrangement of atoms takes place to form new products
Answer:
(c) atoms of one element change into those of another element to form new products. Explanation: It is not atoms but the bonds between these atoms break and form during chemical reactions. Atoms of elements can rearrange but cannot change into other elements.

Chemical Reactions And Equations MCQ Question 8.
You are given the solution of lead nitrate. In order to obtain a yellow precipitate, you should mix with it a solution of:
(a) potassium chloride
(b) potassium nitride
(c) potassium sulphide
(d) potassium iodide
Answer:
(d) potassium iodide

You are given the solution of lead nitrate. In order to obtain a yellow precipitate, you should mix with it a solution of:

Explanation: Potassium iodide on reacting with lead nitrate gives yellow precipitate of Lead iodide.
2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → Pbl2 + 2KNO3

MCQ On Chemical Reactions And Equations Question 9.
In which of the following chemical equations do the abbreviations represent the correct states of the reactants and products involved at reaction temperature?
(a) 2H2(l) + O2(l) → 2H2O(g)
(b) 2H2(g) + O2(l) → 2H2O(g)
(c) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l)
(d) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)
Answer:

Chapter 1 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to granulated zinc taken in a test tube. The following observations are recorded. Point out the correct observation:
(a) The surface of metal becomes shiny.
(b) The reaction mixture turns milky.
(c) Odour of a pungent-smelling gas is recorded.
(d) A colourless and odourless gas is evolved. [Diksha]
Answer:
(d) A colourless and odourless gas is evolved. Explanation: The chemical reaction between dilute hydrochloric acid and granulated zinc is represented as follows:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
The product, zinc chloride, does not turn the reaction milky. Hydrogen gas evolved is colourless and odourless and released by the formation of bubbles. Hence, option (d) is correct.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

MCQ Of Chemical Reaction And Equation Question 11.
On heating, a blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate in a boiling tube, a black substance X, oxygen gas and a brown gas Y was formed. Select the option which identifies the products correctly:
MCQ Of Chemical Reaction And Equation
Class 10 Science Ch 1 MCQ
Answer:
(c) X is Copper Oxide and Y is Nitrogen Dioxide Explanation: When blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate is heated, it decomposes to form black coloured substance which is copper oxide, oxygen gas and brown gas nitrogen dioxide.

The chemical equation for the reaction taking place is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 4

Class 10 Science Ch 1 MCQ Question 12.
In the equation:
Cu + XHNO3 → CU(NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O
The values of x and y are:
(a) 3 and 5
(b) 8 and 6
(c) 4 and 2
(c) 7 and 1
Answer:
(c) Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O
Explanation: In order to find the values of x and y, we need to balance the chemical equation by equating the number of atoms of each element on both sides in the given equation.
Cu + XHNO3 → CU(NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O
MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chemistry Chapter 1
Equating the number of H atoms on both sides as per the law of conservation of mass, x = 4.
Putting this value in either the no. of atoms of N or O,
x = y + 2 means y = x – 2 = 4 – 2 = 2.
Therefore, x = 4 & y = 2 is the correct answer

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MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Question 13.
In which of the following chemical equations, the abbreviations represent the correct states of the reactants and products involved at reaction temperature?
(a) AlCl3(aq) + 3NH4OH(aq) → Al(OH)3(s) + 3NH4Cl(aq)
(b) AlCl3(aq) + 3NH4OH(l) → Al(OH)3(aq) + 3NH4Cl(s)
(c) AlCl3(aq) + 3NH4OH(aq) → Al(OH)3(s) + 3NH4Cl(aq)
(d) AlCl3(aq) + 3NH4OH(aq) → Al(OH)3(aq) + 3NH4Cl(s)
Answer:
(a) AlCl3(aq) + 3NH4OH(aq) → Al(OH)3(s) + 3NH4CL(aq)

Explanation: When ammonium hydroxide solution is added to aluminium chloride solution, a white precipitate of aluminium hydroxide is formed alongwith ammonium chloride solution.

Chemical Equations And Reactions Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
The reaction 2HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O is an example of:
(I) displacement reaction.
(II) double displacement reaction.
(III) neutralisation reaction.
(IV) combination reaction.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:

Chemical Equation And Reaction Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Consider the following chemical equation:
X(aq) + sodium chloride(aq) → Y(white ppt) + Sodium nitrate(aq)
Chemical Equation And Reaction Class 10 MCQ

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 1

For the following questions, two statements are given: one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 16.
Assertion (A): Following is a balanced chemical equation for the action of steam on iron:
4Fe + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4 + 4H2
Reason (R): The law of conservation of mass holds good for a chemical equation.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Iron (Fe) metal does not react with cold or hot water but it reacts with steam to form a metal oxide and hydrogen.

The law of conservation of mass holds good for a chemical reaction. The statement is true but it does not explain the equation given in the Assertion.

Question 17.
Assertion (A): Magnesium ribbon burns with a dazzling white flame.
Reason (R): Magnesium ribbon undergoes physical change on burning and melts.
Answer:

Question 18.
Assertion (A): While equalizing the number of atoms to balance a chemical equation, we alter the formula of the compounds or elements involved in the reaction.
Reason (R): Chemical equation is balanced by making the number of atoms of each element equal on both sides of the arrow.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Explanation: A chemical equation is balanced by making the number of atoms of each element equal on both sides of the arrow without altering the formula of the compounds or elements involved in the reaction. It is balanced by putting coefficients in front of the compounds or elements.

Question 19.
Assertion (A): The reaction of calcium oxide with water to produce slaked lime releasing a large amount of heat is a combination reaction.
Reason (R): Double displacement reactions are the reactions in which there is an exchange of ions between the reactants.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The reaction of calcium oxide with water to produce sLaked lime releasing a large amount of heat is a combination reaction as the two reactants combine to form a single product.

Whereas, in a double displacement reaction, there will be two reactants and two products which are formed by the exchange of ions between the reactants.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 20.
Assertion (A): The decomposition reaction of silver chloride into silver and chlorine is an exothermic process.
Reason (R): Reactions in which energy is absorbed are known as endothermic reactions.
Answer:

Question 21.
Assertion (A): Zinc and lead displace copper from their compounds.
Reason (R): Zinc and lead are more reactive than copper.
Answer:

Competency-Based Questions (CBQs)

Question 1.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 7
During a chemical reaction atoms of one element do not change into those of another element. Nor do atoms disappear from the mixture or appear from elsewhere. Actually, chemical reactions involve the breaking and making of bonds between atoms to produce new substances.

To demonstrate a reaction, 2 g of silver chloride is taken in a china dish and placed in sunlight.
(A) What will you observe after some time?
(B) What is this reaction known as?
(C) Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(D) Give reasons for the observations.
Answer:

Question 2.
Whitewash is a very low-cost type of paint made from slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) and chalk (whiting). Chalk is calcium carbonate. Slaked lime turns into chalk by reacting with carbon dioxide in the air over several days. This causes crystallization, which binds and strengthens the coating. Various other additives can be used.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 8
Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide, accompanied by liberation of heat. This process is called slaking of lime. Calcium hydroxide dissolves in water to form a solution called lime water. Which among the following is (are) true about slaking of lime and the solution formed?
(I) It is an endothermic reaction.
(II) It is an exothermic reaction.
(III) The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven.
(IV) The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) (II) and (III)

Explanation: Slaking of lime is an exothermic reaction because a large amount of heat is produced during the reaction. The heat can be felt by touching the beaker from the outside. The resulting compound Ca(OH)2, which is also called slaked lime, turns red litmus solution to blue and hence, proves it to be a basic solution. Thus, the pH of this solution will be more than seven.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 9

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 3.
Shalini was quite interested in observing the changes that take place during chemical reactions but was always afraid of entering the chemistry lab. When she spoke to her chemistry teacher regarding this, the teacher suggested that she should perform a simple experiment under her guidance to overcome her fear and at the same time she could observe the changes that take place during a chemical reaction.

She took about 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals in a dry boiling tube and heated it over the
flame of a burner. She noticed change of colour of the ferrous sulphate crystals and could also smell the characteristic odour of burning sulphur.
(A) What change in colour did Shalini observe?
Answer:
Shalini observed that the green colour of ferrous sulphate crystals changed to white as it loses water when heated.
FeSO4.7H2O → FeSO4 + 7H2O

(B) Why did Shalini get the characteristic odour of burning sulphur?
Answer:

(C) What type of reaction takes place when ferrous sulphate is heated?
Answer:
The type of reaction taking place is the thermal decomposition reaction. The chemical equation for the reaction taking place is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 10

(D) Give another example of such type of reactions.
Answer:

Question 4.
The production of hydrogen from water via electrolysis is a clean process, resulting in only oxygen being produced as a by-product. If the electricity required to split the water into hydrogen and oxygen is supplied via a renewable energy source then the process is environmentally benign.The water electrolysis hydrogen (oxygen) plant is equipment that electrolyzes water to produce hydrogen and oxygen by using lye as an electrolyte.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 11
Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogenand oxygen gases liberated during the electrolysis of water is:
(a) 1:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 1:2
Answer:
(b) 2:1

Explanation: The balanced chemical equation for the electrolysis of water is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 12
The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases Liberated during electrolysis of water is 2:1 by volume.

In a decomposition reaction, a compound is broken down into its simpler forms. During electrolysis, water is broken down into oxygen gas and hydrogen gas due to the passage of electric current through it.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 5.
Redox reactions are an important class of reactions. The oxidation and reduction reactions always occur simultaneously, such class of chemical reactions is named as the redox reaction or Oxidation-Reduction reaction.

The substance getting reduced in a chemical reaction is known as the oxidizing agent, while a substance that is getting oxidized is known as the reducing agent. The activity in which copper powder is taken in a china dish and heated helps in understanding redox reactions.
(A) What happens when copper powder is heated in a china dish? Explain your observation.
Answer:
When copper powder is heated in a china dish, the surface of copper powder is coated with black copper oxide as oxidation of copper takes place by addition of oxygen to copper.
2Cu + O2 → 2CuO

(B) What will you observe if hydrogen gas is passed over the heated material obtained in (A) above?
Answer:
When hydrogen gas is passed over heated material CuO, the black coating on the surface turns brown as the reverse reaction takes place and copper is formed.
CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O

(C) Identify the substance oxidized and substance reduced in the reaction at (B) above.
Answer:

(D) Identify the correct statement:
In the reaction between lead sulphide and hydrogen peroxide shown by the equation below,
PbS + 2H2O2 → PbSO4 + 4H2O,
(a) Lead sulphide Is reduced and Hydrogen peroxide is oxidized.
(b) Lead sulphide is oxidized and Hydrogen peroxide is reduced.
(c) Lead sulphate is oxidized and water is reduced.
(d) Lead sulphate is reduced and water is oxidized.
Answer:

Question 6.
Rancidification is the process of complete or incomplete oxidation or hydrolysis of fats and oils when exposed to air, light, or moisture or by bacterial action, resulting in unpleasant taste and odor. Specifically, it is the hydrolysis or autoxidation of fats into short-chain aldehydes and ketones, which are objectionable in taste and odor. When these processes occur in food, undesirable odors and flavors can result.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 13
Which of the following gases can be used for the storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long time?
(a) Carbon dioxide or oxygen
(b) Nitrogen or oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide or helium
(d) Helium or nitrogen
Answer:
(d) Helium or nitrogen

Which of the following gases can be used for the storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long time?

Explanation: Inert gases like helium or nitrogen both can be used for the storage of fresh sample of oil for a Long time, as they do not react with most elements, including oxygen. Thus these gases create an inert environment for the oil and prevent its reaction (oxidation) with any element in the environment. Hence, stopping it from becoming rancid.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 7.
A student takes two test tubes. In the first test tube, he takes lead nitrate solution and in the second he takes a few zinc granules. He adds potassium iodide solution to lead nitrate solution in the first test tube. He adds dilute sulphuric acid in the second test tube containing zinc granules.
(A) What is observed in the first test tube on adding potassium iodide solution?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 14
Answer:
(c) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: When potassium iodide solution is added to lead nitrate solution in a test tube, a yellow precipitate of Lead iodide is formed. The equation of the reaction taking place is:

Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq)

(B) Select the correct observations:
When dilute sulphuric acid is added to a few zinc granules in the second test tube,
(I) Bubbles of hydrogen gas can be seen around the zinc granules.
(II) Bubbles of carbon dioxide can be seen around zinc granules.
(III) The flask becomes hot
(IV) Colour of solution changes to blue,
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: When diluting sulphuric acid is added to zinc granules in a conical flask, the equation of the reaction taking place is:
Zn(s) + H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq)+ H2(g)

(C) Select the incorrect statement(s):
(I) Both the reactions are accompanied by a change in colour.
(II) A precipitate is formed in the first test tube only.
(III) Gas is evolved in the second test tube only.
(IV) Both the reactions are examples of double displacement reactions.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
Answer:

(D) Suppose we add dil hydrochloric acid in place of sulphuric acid in the second test tube. Select the correct observation:
(a) Chlorine gas will be evolved.
(b) The test tube will become cold as heat is absorbed during this reaction.
(c) Hydrogen gas will be evolved.
(d) A precipitate of zinc chloride will be formed
Answer:

(E) The type of reaction taking place when water is added slowly to a small amount of calcium oxide in a beaker is:
(I) Combination Reaction
(II) Displacement reaction
(III) Exothermic reaction
(IV) Endothermic reaction
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 8.
You must have seen that your mother stores fried food items such as boondi raita, chips, mixture, banana chips and other such items properly. This is because their smell and taste change due to the oxidation of fried food items and food becomes unfit for human consumption.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 15
Why are anti-oxidants added to fat and oil-containing food items?
Answer:
Anti-oxidants are added to fat and oil-containing food items to prevent their oxidation which is known as rancidity which makes food smell bad and changes its taste.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 9.
Chemical reaction, a process in which one or more substances, the reactants, are converted to one or more different substances, the products. Substances are either chemical elements or compounds. A chemical reaction rearranges the constituent atoms of the reactants to create different substances as products.

Chemical reactions must be distinguished from physical changes. Physical changes include changes of state, such as ice melting to water and water evaporating to vapour. If a physical change occurs, the physical properties of a substance will change, but its chemical identity will remain the same. However, if water, as ice, liquid, or vapour, encounters sodium metal (Na), the atoms will be redistributed to give the new substances molecular hydrogen (H2) and sodium hydroxide (NaOH). By this, we know that a chemical change or reaction has occurred.
(A) Which of the following are physical changes?
(I) Melting of wax
(II) Burning of wax
(III) Rusting of iron
(IV) Evaporation of water
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Melting of wax and evaporation of water are physical change as they undergo only change in their physical states without any change in their chemical composition. Whereas, burning of wax is a chemical change as carbon dioxide and water are formed when wax is burned. Rusting of iron is also a chemical change as iron undergoes oxidation in the presence of moisture to form rust or iron oxide.

(B) A chemical reaction does not involve:
(a) Formation of new substances having entirely different properties than that of the reactants
(b) Breaking of old chemical bonds and formation of new chemical bonds
(c) Rearrangement of the atoms of reactants to form new products
(d) Changing of the atoms of one element into those of another element to form new products
Answer:

(C) Quick lime is used in whitewashing because
(a) It is cheap
(b) It forms limestone with water which has a nice color.
(c) It forms slaked lime with water which reacts with atmospheric carbon dioxide to form limestone.
(d) It is easy to use
Answer:

(D) Which of the following are endothermic processes?
(I) Burning of natural gas
(II) Dilution of an acid
(III) Evaporation of water
(IV) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (IV) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(E) The following reaction is used for the preparation of oxygen gas in the laboratory
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 16
Which of the following statement about the reaction is correct?
(a) It is a displacement reaction and endothermic in nature.
(b) it is a decomposition reaction and exothermic in nature.
(c) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic in nature.
(d) It is a photochemical decomposition reaction and exothermic in nature.
Answer:
((c) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic in nature.

Explanation: It is a decomposition reaction as a single reactant splits up into two products, namely, KCl and O2, by absorbing energy in the form of heat.

It is an endothermic reaction as heat is absorbed in this reaction.

Question 10.
Many materials over time can be prone to corrosion and wear Iron is one such metal. Having a protective later and proper preparation can certainly help materials last longer and have other properties integrated into it.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 17
A substance X used for coating iron articles is added to a blue solution of a reddish-brown metal Y. the colour of the solution gets discharged. Identify X and Y and also the type of reaction.
Answer:
We are given that the metal Y is reddish brown in colour. This metal is copper and the blue solution of Y is copper sulphate. Also, zinc is used in protecting iron articles and this process is called galvanisation. As Zinc is more reactive than copper it displaces copper from its salt solution, copper sulphate.
Zn + CUSO4 → ZnSCO4 + Cu
So, X is zinc, while Y is copper.

Question 11.
Double displacement reactions may be defined as the chemical reactions in which one component each of both the reacting molecules is exchanged to form the products. During this reaction, the cations and anions of two different compounds switch places, forming two entirely different compounds.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 18
Double displacement reactions generally take place in aqueous solutions in which the ions precipitate and there is an exchange of ions.

Double displacement reactions can be further classified as neutralization and precipitation reactions.
(A) What is the precipitate formed on mixing the solution of barium chloride and sodium sulphate?
(a) Barium sulphate
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Barium sulphite
(d) Sodium sulphite
Answer:
(a) Barium Sulphate

Explanation: When a solution of barium chloride is mixed with a solution of sodium sulphate, a precipitate of barium sulphate is formed along with sodium chloride.
BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + NaCl(aq)

(B) When Potassium iodide solution is added to lead(II) nitrate solution,
(I) lead (II) iodide precipitates out of the solution as a yellow solid
(II) Potassium nitrate precipitates out of the solution as a yellow solid
(III) Potassium displaces lead from lead nitrate solution.
(IV) Exchange of lead and potassium ions takes place
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(C) Identify the precipitate obtained by the reaction between lead nitrate and sodium sulphate.
(a) PbS
(b) Pb(SO4)2
(c) PbSO4
(d) NaNO2
Answer:
(c) PbSO4
Explanation: Lead nitrate reacts with sodium sulphate solution to form a precipitate of lead sulphate and sodium nitrate.
Pb(NO3)2(aq)+ Na2SO4(aq) → PbSO4(s) + 2NaNO3(aq)

This is a double displacement reaction as the exchange of lead and sodium ions is taking place.

(D) Which one of the following is true about a double displacement reaction?
(I) Electrolysis of water is an example of this reaction.
(II) Two compounds exchange ions to form new compounds.
(III) Only a single product is formed.
(IV) Reaction between magnesium oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid is an example for this reaction.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(E) Identify the incorrect statement regarding double displacement reactions:
(a) All double displacement reactions are precipitation reactions.
(b) All neutralization reactions between acids and bases are double displacement reactions
(c) The reaction between vinegar and baking soda is an example of a double displacement reaction.
(d) Reaction between silver nitrate solution and sodium chloride solution is an example of a double displacement reaction.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 12.
Thermite is a pyrotechnic composition of metal powder fuel and metal oxide. When ignited by heat, thermite undergoes an exothermic oxidation-reduction reaction. Most varieties are not explosive but can create brief bursts of high temperature in a small area. Its form of action is similar to that of other fuel-oxidizer mixtures, such as black powder. Thermites have diverse compositions. Fuels include aluminium, magnesium, titanium, zinc, silicon, and boron. Aluminium is common because of its high boiling point. Oxidizers include boron(III) oxide, silicon(IV) oxide, chromium(III) oxide, manganese(IV) oxide, iron(III) oxide, iron(II, III) oxide, copper(II) oxide, and lead(ll,IV) oxide.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 19

In this reaction mention the substance getting oxidized and the substance getting reduced.
Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe
Answer:
Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen while packing them as nitrogen is an inert gas and prevents fried food materials from getting rancid.

Question 13.
A synthesis or combination reaction is a reaction in which simple compounds combine to make a more complex one. The opposite of a combination reaction is a decomposition reaction in which a single substance splits into two or more substances. We also have a single displacement reaction (in which a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its compound) and a double displacement reaction (in which the exchange of ions takes place between two compounds). Having a thorough understanding of the types of reactions will be useful for predicting the products of an unknown reaction.
(A) A student performed several experiments and then noted down his observations in a tabular form as given below:

S.No. Observation Conclusion Regarding the type of Reaction Taking Place
(I) When copper powder is heated in a china dish, the surface of the copper powder turns black Combination Reaction
(II) Hydrogen gas is . evolved when Iron reacts with dil. HCl. Decomposition Reaction
(III) A black precipitate is formed along with sulphuric acid solution when hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through copper sulphate solution Double Displacement Reaction
(IV) When electricity is passed through molten aluminium chloride aluminium metal is formed along with a gas. Displacement Reaction

Select the option that correctly describes the conclusions made by the student regarding type of reaction taking place:
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation : When barium chloride solution is added to copper sulphate soLution, a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed alongwith copper chloride solution.

This is an example of precipitation reaction as a precipitate of barium sulphate is formed. It is also a double displacement reaction as the Ba2+ and Cu2+ ions form new compounds by exchanging their ions. The equation of the reaction talcing place is:
BaCl2(aq) + CuSO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + CuCl2(aq)

(B) When a metal X, which is used for coating iron articles, is added to a blue solution of a reddish brown metal Y, the color of the solution gets discharged.
Select the option which correctly identifies the metals X and Y and the type of reaction taking place.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers 20
Answer:

(C) The type of reaction taking place when barium chloride solution is added to copper sulphate solution is:
(I) Combination reaction
(II) Displacement reaction
(III) Double Displacement reaction
(IV) Precipitation reaction
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Identify the incorrect statement:
(a) Burning of natural gas is a decomposition reaction.
(b) Burning of hydrogen gas in air is a combination reaction
(c) Reaction between most metals and dilute hydrochloric acid is a displacement reaction.
(d) Reaction between an acid and a base is an example of double displacement reaction.
Answer:

(E) Which of the following statement(s) are correct?
(I) The precipitation reactions produce insoluble salts.
(II) Neutralization reactions are single displacement reactions.
(III) Decomposition reactions can be carried out only in presence of heat or light.
(IV) Displacement reactions are opposite of combination reactions.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Only (I)

Explanation: Precipitation reactions are the reactions in which an insoluble substance or precipitate is formed. Neutralization reactions are the reactions between an acid and a base and are double displacement reactions. Decomposition reactions require energy in the form of heat, light or electricity. Decomposition reactions are the opposite of combination reactions.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What happens when sodium sulphate solution is added to barium chloride solution?
Answer:
When sodium sulphate solution is added to barium chloride solution, a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.
The equation of the reaction taking place is:
Na2SO4((aq) + BaCl2(aq) →BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 2.
An aqueous solution of metal nitrate P reacts with sodium bromide solution to form yellow ppt of compound Q which is used in photography. Q on exposure to sunlight undergoes decomposition reaction to form metal present in P along with reddish-brown gas. Identify P & Q.
Answer:
As the compound Q is formed by the reaction between P (metal nitrate solution) and sodium bromide solution, Q is silver bromide which is used in photography.

Further, Q undergoes decomposition in the presence of sunlight to form silver and bromine gas. As silver is formed above, the metal nitrate is silver nitrate.

P – silver nitrate (AgNO3)
Q – silver bromide (AgBr).

Question 3.
What can be seen when a strip of copper metal is placed in a solution of silver nitrate?
Answer:
When a strip of copper metals is placed in a solution of silver nitrate, copper displaces silver from silver nitrate solution as copper is a more reactive metal than silver. Copper nitrate is formed with a shiny greyish-white deposit of silver on the copper strip.
2AgNO3 + Cu → Cu(NCO3)2 + 2Ag

Question 4.
Name and state the law which is kept in mind when we balance chemical equations.
Answer:
The law which is kept in mind when we balance chemical equations is the law of conservation of mass which states that “Matter can neither be created nor be destroyed”. It means that the total mass of atoms of reactants = the total mass of atoms of products, as atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 5.
Hydrogen being a highly inflammable gas and oxygen being a supporter of combustion, yet water, a compound made up of hydrogen and oxygen is used to extinguish fire. Why?
Answer:
The compound made up of hydrogen and oxygen is water (H20) which has properties that are different from properties of H2 and O2 as it is formed by the chemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen gases. While hydrogen and oxygen are gases at room temperature, water is a liquid at room temperature.

Question 6.
If copper metal is heated over a flame, it develops a coating. What is the colour and composition of the coating?
Answer:

Question 7.
Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the following reaction: carbon monoxide reacts with hydrogen gas at 340 atm to form methyl alcohol.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations with Answers

Question 8.
Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction between sodium chloride and silver nitrate indicating the physical state of the reactants and the products.
Answer:
When silver nitrate solution is added to sodium chloride solution, a white precipitate of silver chloride is formed along with sodium nitrate solution.
AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)

Question 9.
Complete and balance the following:
Fe2O3 + Al →
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Chemistry MCQ:

Life Processes Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 6 MCQs On Life Processes

Life Processes Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events in the mouth cavity wilL be affected?
(a) Proteins breaking down into amino acids
(b) Starch breaking down into sugars
(c) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
(d) Absorption of vitamins
Answer:
(b) Starch breaking down into sugars

Explanation: The process of digestion begins in the mouth. The mouth contains a digestive enzyme, salivary amylase. This enzyme breaks the starch molecules in the food, into maltose. The absence of amylase in the saliva thus affects the breakdown of starch into simpler sugar molecules.

Class 10 Life Processes MCQ Question 2.
In the excretory system of human beings, some substances in the initial filtrate such as glucose, amino acids, salts and water are selectively reabsorbed in:
(a) Urethra
(b) Nephron
(c) Ureter
(d) Urinary bladder
Answer:
(b) Nephron.

Explanation: A nephron is a filtering unit present in kidney. It has different parts like Bowman’s capsule, glomerulus and tubuLar region (Renal tubule). Glucose, amino acids and salts are selectively reabsorbed in tubular region.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Life Processes MCQ Class 10 Question 3.
Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from the liver?
(a) Stomach
(b) Small intestine
(c) Large intestine
(d) Oesophagus
Answer:
(b) Small intestine

Explanation: Bile is secreted by the liver and is stored in the gall bladder from where it enters the small intestine via a common duct.

Related Theory
It performs two functions:

  1. makes the food alkaline.
  2. breaks the fats present in food into small globules by the process of emulsification.

MCQ On Life Processes Class 10 Question 4.
Pseudopodia are:
(a) small hair-like structures present on unicellular organisms.
(b) false feet developed in some unicellular organisms.
(c) long, tube-like structures coming out of the mouth.
(d) suckers which are attached to the walls of the intestines.
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 6 MCQ Question 5.
A few drops of iodine solution were added to rice water. The solution turned blue-black in colour. This indicates that the rice water contains:
(a) Complex proteins
(b) Simple proteins
(c) Fats
(d) Starch
Answer:
(d) Starch

Explanation: Iodine solution is often used for testing the presence of starch in the food particles. When iodine is added to starch, it turns blue-black. Rice water contains starch, hence when iodine solution is added to rice water it turns blue-black.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

MCQ Of Life Processes Class 10 Question 6.
which one of the following statements is correct about the human circulatory system?
(a) Blood transports only oxygen and not carbon dioxide.
(b) Human heart has five chambers.
(c) Valves ensure that the blood does not flow backwards.
(d) Both oxygen-rich and oxygen-deficient blood gets mixed in the heart.
Answer:

Class 10 Life Process MCQ Question 7.
Anaerobic process:
(a) takes place in yeast during fermentation.
(b) takes place in the presence of oxygen.
(c) produces only energy in the muscles of human beings.
(d) produces ethanol, oxygen and energy.
Answer:
(a) takes place in yeast during fermentation.

Explanation: (a) Anaerobic respiration (in absence of oxygen) in yeast is known as fermentation as ethanol (alcohol) carbon dioxide and 2 ATP molecules of energy is produced from glucose.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 1
carbon dioxide + 2 ATP molecules of energy
(b) Aerobic respiration takes place in presence of oxygen and anaerobic in absence of oxygen.
(c) In muscles of human beings: Lack of oxygen or absence of oxygen results into the formation of lactic acid and very less amount of energy.
(d) Ethanol and carbon dioxide are produced. Energy is neither produced nor released.

MCQ Life Processes Class 10 Question 8.
When air is blown from mouth into a test tube containing Lime water, the lime water turns milky due to the presence of
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Water vapour
Answer:

Ch 6 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
Most of the digestion and absorption of the food takes place in the:
(a) small intestine
(b) liver
(c) stomach
(d) large intestine
Answer:
(a) small intestine.

Explanation: Small intestine receives juices from liver, pancreas and walls of small intestine. Bite juice from liver emulsifies the fats and makes the medium alkaline. Pancreas and small intestine juices contain amylase, lipase and tryspin.

The function of these enzymes ore:
Class 10 Science Ch 6 MCQ

Class 10 Science Ch 6 MCQ Question 10.
Which of the foL[owing statement (s) is (are) true about respiration?
(I) During inhalation ribs move inward and the diaphragm is raised.
(II) In the alveoli, the exchange of gases takes place i.e. oxygen from alveolar air diffuses into bLood and carbon dioxide from the blood into the alveolar air.
(III) Haemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen.
(IV)Atveoti increases surface area for the exchange of gases.
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Life Processes Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 11.
Which is the correct sequence of air passage during inhalation?
(a) Nostrils → Larynx → Pharynx → Trachea → Lungs
(b) Nasal passage → Trachea → Pharynx → Larynx → Alveoli
(c) Larynx → Nostrils → Pharynx → Lungs
(d) Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Alveoli
Answer:
(d) Nostrils → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Alveoli

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Life Process Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
During respiration, the exchange of gases take place in:
(a) Trachea and Larynx
(b) Alveoli of lungs
(c) Alveoli and throat
(d) Throat and larynx
Answer:

MCQs Of Life Processes Class 10 Question 13.
Single circulation, i.e., blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of passage through the body, is exhibited by:
(a) Labeo, Chameleon, Salamander
(b) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas
(c) Hyla, Rana, Draco
(d) whale, dolphin, turtle
Answer:
(b) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas

Explanation: Fishes have two-chambered heart and exhibit single circulation, while three-chambered heart of amphibians and reptiles and four-chambered heart of birds and mammals exhibit double circulation.

MCQs On Life Processes Class 10 Question 14.
In which of the following vertebrate group/ groups, does heart not pump oxygenated blood to different parts of the body?
(a) Pisces and amphibians
(b) Amphibians and reptiles
(c) Amphibians only
(d) Pisces only
Answer:
(d) Pisces only

Explanation: Fishes have only two-chambered heart and the blood is pumped to the gills, is oxygenated there, and passes directly to the rest of the body. Thus, blood goes only once through the heart in the fish during one cycle of passage through the body. Fishes take in water through their mouths and force it past the gills where the dissolved oxygen is taken up by blood.

Class 10 Science Life Process MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following statements about the autotrophs is incorrect:
(a) They synthesize carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll
(b) They store carbohydrates in the form of starch
(c) They convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight
(d) They constitute the first trophic level in food chains
Answer:
(c) They convert carbon dioxide and water into carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight Explanation: Autotrophs obtain the required carbon and energy requirements from carbon dioxide and Sunlight. They combine carbon dioxide and water to form carbohydrates.

Question 16.
Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from:
(a) Water
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Glucose
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 17.
The blood leaving the tissues becomes richer in:
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Water
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(a) Carbon dioxide

Explanation: The blood leaving the tissues becomes richer in carbon dioxide. When the oxygenated blood passes through the capillaries of the tissue, it gives oxygen to the body cells and takes carbon dioxide, produced during cellular respiration. Thus, it becomes richer in carbon dioxide.

Question 18.
The xylem in plants are responsible for:
(a) Transport of water
(b) Transport of food
(c) Transport of amino acids
(d) Transport of oxygen
Answer:
(a) Transport of water
Explanation: Xylem tissues include tracheids, vessels, fibres and parenchyma and serve in the ascent of sap/water and minerals.

Related Theory
Phloem tissues comprised of four elements: sieve, companion cell, phloem fibres and phloem parenchyma. They serve in the translocation of organic nutrients.

Question 19.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Organisms grow with time.
(b) Organisms must repair and maintain their structure.
(c) Movement of molecules does not take place among cells.
(d) Energy is essential for life processes.
Answer:

Question 20.
The internal (cellular) energy reserve in autotrophs is:
(a) Glycogen
(b) Protein
(c) Starch
(d) Fatty acid
Answer:
(c) Starch

Explanation: The food prepared in the plant (autotrophs) by the process of photosynthesis is glucose that gets stored in various plant parts in the form of starch.

The internal (cellular) energy reserve in autotrophs is:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 21.
Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis.
(a) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
(b) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
(c) Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
(d) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
Answer:

Question 22.
Choose the forms in which most plants absorb nitrogen:
(I) Proteins
(II) Nitrates and Nitrites
(III) Urea
(IV) Atmospheric nitrogen
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 23.
The doctor measured Ravi’s blood pressure and said it is normal now. The range of Ravi’s blood pressure (systolic/diastolic) is likely to be:
(a) \(\frac{120}{80}\) mm of Hg
(b) \(\frac{160}{80}\) mm of Hg
(c) \(\frac{120}{60}\) mm of Hg
(d) \(\frac{180}{80}\) mm of Hg
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{120}{80}\) mm of Hg

Explanation: Blood pressure is denoted by two values: one value is above and the other value
is below. The value that is above is the systolic pressure and the one that is below is the diastolic pressure. A normal individual should maintain a systolic/diastolic pressure of \(\frac{120}{80}\) mm of Hg.

Related Theory
Blood pressure is the force applied by the blood against the walls of the arteries. The blood pressure is of two types – systolic and diastolic. The blood pressure of a normal individual is 120/80 mm ofHg. If a person has less blood pressure than normal, he/ she is said to have low blood pressure.

If a person has more blood pressure than normal, he/ she is said to have high blood pressure.

Question 24.
If the structure marked X in the diagram given below is blocked, then which of the processes will not occur?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 3
(a) Transpiration and respiration
(b) Transpiration, photosynthesis and respiration
(c) Respiration, transpiration and transportation
(d) Respiration and photosynthesis [Diksha]
Answer:
(b) Transpiration, photosynthesis and respiration Explanation: Here, the structure marked as X is stomata.
Stomata are responsible for gaseous exchange in the plant. If they are blocked, the gaseous exchange will not take place.

Hence, the two important processes of the plant: photosynthesis and respiration do not take place. Stomata are also responsible for removing extra water present in the plants.

Hence, if blocked, the process of transpiration will also be affected.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 25.
Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect about transport in plants:
(I) The transport in the xylem is achieved by utilizing energy.
(II) Transpiration helps in the absorption of water and minerals from the roots to the leaves.
(III) The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis occurs in the phloem.
(IV) Besides water, the xylem also transports amino acids and other substances.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Transport of water and minerals in xylem takes place by the process of osmosis due to difference in ionic concentration in the soil and inside the root. Transpiration pull helps in the absorption of water to the taller parts of a plant during the daytime when the stomata are open. The phloem transports the soluble products of photosynthesis, amino acids and some other substances.

Question 26.
Which of the following statements are incorrect about aerobic respiration?
(I) The first step is the breakdown of glucose into pyruvate.
(II) Glucose is a six-carbon molecule and pyruvate is a three-carbon molecule.
(III) The breakdown of glucose take place in the mitochondria.
(IV) The breakdown of pyruvate using oxygen takes place in the cytoplasm.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 27.
A student noted the differences between blood and lymph in the following table. Select the row containing correct information:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 4
Answer:
(d) Blood: It flows through blood capillaries: Lymph: It flows through arteries

Explanation: Lymph drains into Lymph capillaries from the intercellular spaces which join to form large lymph vessels that finally open into larger veins.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 28.
Select the incorrect statement from the statements given below.
Waste products in plants:
(a) Are stored in the Golgi apparatus.
(b) Are stored in leaves that fall off.
(c) Are stored as resins and gums, especially in old xylem.
(d) Are excreted into the soil around them.
Answer:
(a) Are stored in the Golgi apparatus.

Question 29.
Which of the following part of the human excretory system is under nervous control?
(a) Ureters
(b) Urethra
(c) Urinary bladder
(d) Collecting duct
Answer:
(c) Urinary bladder

Explanation: The urinary bladder is a muscular structure that stores the urine until we get the urge to urinate. It is under nervous control.

Question 30.
In humans, the oxygen-rich blood from the lungs comes to the:
(a) Left atrium.
(b) Right atrium
(c) Left ventricle
(d) Right ventricle
Answer:

Question 31.
Select the incorrect statement:
(a) The arteries have thick, elastic walls
(b) The veins have thin walls
(c) Veins have valves to ensure that blood flows in one direction only.
(d) Arteries have valves to ensure that blood flows in one direction only.
Answer:
(d) Arteries have valves to ensure that blood flows in one direction only.

Explanation: Arteries do not have any valves as they carry blood away from the heart. They have thick and elastic walls as they bLood is under high pressure. Veins have valves to ensure that the blood flows in one direction only.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 6

For the following questions two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Transpiration cools leaf surface.
Reason (R): Transpiration helps in translocation of sugar in plants. [Diksha]
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: Transpiration is the process by which plants lose extra water off their surface with the help of the stomata of the Leaves. The plants usually lose water during very hot season. As a result, the temperature of the plant decreases and it cools down. However, transpiration does not help in translocation of food in the plants. Therefore, the assertion is true but the reason accompanied is false.

Related Theory
Transpiration is an important plant process. The three important tasks that are accomplished due to transpiration are:

  1. Decrease in temperature of the plant: When the plants lose water, the temperature of the plant’s decreases and therefore, the plants cool down.
  2. Transpirational pull: When plants lose water, an empty space is created in the plants. As a result, the minerals and water from the root are pulled up. This process is called transpirational pull.
  3. Plant turgidity: Transpiration helps plants in maintaining the turgidity of the plants.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): The leaves which are partly green and partly white are called variegated leaves.
Reason (R): The green part of such a leaf contains chlorophyll but the writing part does not contain chlorophyll.

Question 34.
Assertion (A): Human beings have a complex respiratory system.
Reason (R): Human skin is impermeable to gases.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but the R is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. Explanation: Human skin is impermeable to gas to minimise the loss of water from the skin.

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Autotrophs can produce food on its own.
Reason (R): Green plants can absorb the energy of sunlight that falls on the leaves.
Answer:
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: All the green plants are called autotrophs. This is due to the fact that the green plants make their own food from very simple substances like carbon dioxide and water that is present in the surroundings.

The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves and convert it to into food energy.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 36.
Assertion (A): Hydrochloric acid secreted in the stomach makes an acidic medium for the action of the enzyme pepsin.
Reason (R): Bile juice from liver will make the medium alkaline in the small intestine for the panereatic juices to act.
Answer:

Question 37.
Assertion (A): The opening and closing of the pore is a function of the guard cells.
Reason (R): Stomatal pores are the site for an exchange of gases by diffusion.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but the R is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Related Theory:
Tiny pores present on the surface of leaves of plants are called stomata. Each stomatal pore is surrounded by a pair of guard cells.

When water flows into the guard cells, they swell, become curved and cause the pore to open. Similarly when the guard cells lose water, they shrink and the stomatal pore closes.

Question 38.
Assertion (A): Respiration is an exothermic reaction.
Reason (R): Respiration is processes in which glucose combines with oxygen and decompose to carbon dioxide and water this reaction also release some energy.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 39.
Assertion (A): The inner lining of the small intestine does not have numerous finger-like projections called villi.
Reason (R): The villi increase the surface area for absorption.
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true.

Explanation: The inner lining of the small intestine have numerous finger-like projections called villi and these villi increase the surface area for absorption. Thus A is false, but R is true.

Question 40.
Assertion (A): Oxygenated blood flows in the pulmonary artery.
Reason (R): Arteries have a narrow lumen.
Answer:

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Glucose is absorbed in the small intestine and reabsorbed by the kidney tubules.
Reason (R): Maximum absorption of glucose takes place in the large intestine.
Answer:
(c) A is true, but R is false.

Explanation: Glucose is absorbed in the small intestine and reabsorbed by the kidney tubules and its maximum absorption takes place in the small intestine. Thus A is true, but R is false

(Competency-Based Questions)

Question 1.
Gargi loved eating sugar candies. So, whenever she went to local melas or school trips, she would have only sugar candies.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 5
Which is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract?
(a) Pepsin
(b) Cellulase
(c) Amylase
(d) Trypsin
Answer:
(c) Amylase

Explanation: Food digestion process begins in the mouth. Mouth contains salivary gLands that secrete saliva. Saliva contains an important enzyme known as salivary amylase that breaks down starch into simple sugars. Pepsin is a protein-digesting enzyme. Stomach contains gastric glands that secrete mucus, hydrochloric acid and pepsin.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 2.
Raima joined aerobics classes in her neighbourhood along with her friend. On the very first day, her instructor told them to always do these exercises in a well-ventilated room. She later found out the reason why her instructor had said so
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 6

Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
(a) It takes place In presence oxygen It takes place in of absence of oxygen
(b) end products are carbon dioxide and water and energy End products are carbon dioxide, energy
(c) Large amount of energy is released Less amount of energy is released
(d) It takes Place in muscles cells It takes place in Mitochondria yeast and human

Question 3.
Why do we need carbohydrates in our diet? Carbohydrates are our body’s main source of energy. They help fuel the brain, kidneys, heart muscles, and central nervous system. For instance, fibre is a carbohydrate that aids in digestion, helps one feel full, and keeps blood cholesterol levels in check. Some of the food items rich in carbohydrates are Breads, grains, and pasta, Nuts and Legumes, Starchy Vegetables, Milk and yogurts, Fruits and Snack Foods.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 7
What happens during digestion of carbohydrates?
(a) Specific hormones break down carbohydrates into simple sugar such as glucose.
(b) Specific enzymes break down carbohydrates into fatty acids and glycerol.
(c) Specific enzymes break down carbohydrates into simple sugar such as glucose.
(d) Specific hormones break down carbohydrates into fatty acids and glycerol.
Answer:
(c) Specific enzymes breakdown carbohydrates into simple sugar such as glucose. Explanation: The digestion of food is the break down of complex food substances by the enzymes secreted by various parts of the digestive system. Hormones are secreted by the endocrine glands and act on specific targets.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 4.
Table A (Blood glucose chart)
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 8
Table B (Blood Report of Patient X and Y)
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 9
(A) Refer to Table B showing the blood report of the levels of glucose of patients X and Y. Infer the disease which can be diagnosed from the given data.
Answer:
Diabetes

(B) Identify the hormone whose level in the blood is responsible for the above disease.
Answer:

(C) Which one of the following diets would you recommended to the affected patient?
(a) High sugar and low fat diet.
(b) Low sugar and high protein diet.
(c) High Fat and low fiber diet.
(d) Low sugar and high fiber diet.
Answer:
(d) low sugar high fibre diet

(D) Refer to Table A and suggest the value of the mean blood glucose level beyond which doctor’s advice is necessary:
(a) 180 mg/dL
(b) 115 mg/dL
(c) 50 mg/dL
(d) 80 mg/dL
Answer:
180 mg/dL

Question 5.
Kidneys are vital organs for survival. In case of kidney failure an artificial kidney can be used. An artificial kidney is a device to remove nitrogenous waste products from the blood through dialysis.
(A) What are the functions of kidneys?
Answer:
The functions of kidneys are:
(1) To remove nitrogenous waste from the blood.
(2) To maintain salt and water balance in the body.

(B) Name the filtration units present in kidneys.
Answer:
The filtration units present in the kidneys are nephrons.

(C) What is the excretory product removed by kidneys from blood?
Answer:

(D) Name two substances which are selectively reabsorbed from nephric filtrate into the blood.
Answer:
Two substances which are selectively reabsorbed from nephric filtrate into the blood are glucose, amino acids, salts and a major amount of water. (Any two)

Related Theory:
Bowman’s capsules of nephrons acts as ultra filters. Blood flows inside the glomerular capillaries under pressure and water with dissolved molecules from blood plasma diffuses out into Bowman’s capsule. The fluid collected in the Bowman’s capsule as a result of ultrafiltration is called nephric filtrate.

Question 6.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 10
Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs comes to the thin-walled upper chamber of the heart on the left, the left atrium. The left atrium relaxes when it is collecting this blood. It then contracts, while the next chamber, the left ventricle, expands, so that the blood is transferred to it. When the muscular left ventricle contracts in its turn, the blood is pumped out to the body. De-oxygenated blood comes from the body to the upper chamber on the right, the right atrium, as it expands. As the right atrium contracts, the corresponding lower chamber, the right ventricle, dilates. This transfers blood to the right ventricle, which in turn pumps it to the lungs for oxygenation.

Since ventricles have to pump blood into various organs, they have thicker muscular walls than the atria do. Valves ensure that blood does not flow backwards when the atria or ventricles contract.
(A) Name the organs of the circulatory system in human.
Answer:
The various organs of the circulatory system in humans are: heart, arteries, veins and capillaries.

(B) Name the red pigment which carries oxygen in the blood.
Answer:
The red pigment which carries oxygen in the blood is Haemoglobin.

(C) How many chambers are there in the heart of an amphibian?
Answer:

(D) Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?
Answer:
It is necessary to separate the oxygenated blood from mixing with deoxygenated blood as mammals and birds have high energy needs because they constantly require energy to maintain their body temperature.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 7.
The haemoglobin level is expressed as the amount of haemoglobin in grams (g) per deciliter (di) of whole blood, a deciliter being 100 milliliters. The normal ranges for hemoglobin depend on the age and, beginning in adolescence, the gender of the person. The normal ranges are:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 11
Based on the above table answer the following questions
(A) What does o Low haemoglobin Level mean?
Answer:
A low haemoglobin level is rererred to as anemia or low red blood count.

Explanation: A lower than normal number of red blood ceLls is referred to as anaemia and hemoglobin evets reflect this number.

(B) How is oxygen transported in human beings?
Answer:
Transport of oxygen: Hoemoglobin present in the red blood corpuscles takes up the oxygen from the oir in the lungs. It carries the oxygen to tissues which are deficient in oxygen before releasing it.

(C) Respiratory pigment in human body is
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Water
(c) Blood
(d) Haemoglobin
Answer:
(d) Haemoglobin

Explanation: Respiratory pigment in human body is haemoglobin.

(D) Which of the following is an important component of haemoglobin?
(a) Iron
(b) Sodium
(c) Calcium
(d) Magnesium
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 8.
Two students performed the following activities to understand the conditions necessary for photosynthesis.
The first student took a potted plant with variegated leaves – for example, money plant or crotons. He first kept the plant in a dark room for three days and then kept it in sunlight for about six hours. He plucked a leaf from the plant and marked the green areas in it and traced them on a sheet of paper. He then dipped the leaf in boiling water for a few minutes. After this, he immersed it in a beaker containing alcohol and carefully placed the above beaker in a water-bath and heated till the alcohol began to boil.

He dipped the leaf in a dilute solution of iodine for a few minutes, then took out the leaf and rinsed off the iodine solution. He based his conclusions by observing the colour of the leaf and comparing this with the tracing of the leaf done in the beginning.

The second student took two healthy potted plants which were nearly the same size and kept them in a dark room for three days. He then placed each plant on separate glass plates. He placed a watch-glass containing potassium hydroxide by the side of one of the plants and covered both plants with separate bell-jars as shown in Fig. below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 12
He used vaseline to seal the bottom of the jars to the glass plates so that the set-up is air¬tight and kept the plants in sunlight for about two hours. He then plucked a leaf from each plant and checked for the presence of starch as in the first activity.

(A) The first student noted down the following changes in colour of leaf and colour of alcohol solution after dipping
the Ipaf in boiling alcohol. Select the correct observation:

Colour of Leaf Colour of Alcohol Solution
(a) Leaf becomes colourless No change in colour
(b) No change in colour No change in colour
(c) Leaf becomes colourless Alcohol solution turns green
(d) No change in colour Alcohol solution turns green

Answer:
(c) Colour of leaf: Leaf becomes colourless; Colour of alcohol solution: Alcohol solution turns green Explanation: The green leaf becomes colourless because on immersing green leaf in alcohol, chlorophyll responsible for its green colour gets dissolved in alcohol. The colour of the alcohol solution therefore turns green.

(B) The second student placed a watch glass containing potassium hydroxide in one bell jar as:
(a) Potassium hydroxide absorbs carbon dioxide gas present in the bell jar.
(b) Potassium hydroxide absorbs moisture present in the bell jar.
(c) Potassium hydroxide absorbs oxygen gas present in the hell jar.
(d) Potassium hydroxide reacts with carbon dioxide gas to form a compound.
Answer:
(a) Potassium hydroxide absorbs carbon dioxide gas present in the bell jar. Explanation: As the student wants to show that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis, he sealed both the bell jars with vaseline and placed potassium hydroxide in one bell jar as potassium hydroxide absorbs carbon dioxide gas present in the bell jar. The plant in this bell jar will not be able to perform photosynthesis as carbon dioxide has been removed from the bell jar.

(C) Given below are four statements regarding the conclusions of the activities performed by the two students:
(I) The first student concluded that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis.
(II) The first student concluded that chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.
(III) The second student concluded that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis.
(IV) The second student that water is essential for photosynthesis.
Select the correct statement(s):
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Select the incorrect statement:
When the decolorized leaf is dipped in iodine solution by the first student, he observes that:
(a) There are two color regions in the leaf which are reddish brown and blue-black.
(b) The earlier green parts of the leaf turned blue black
(c) The earlier yellow turned reddish brown.
(d) The entire leaf turned blue-black.
Answer:

(E) Select the correct statement:
(a) The two leaves from the bell jars in the activity performed by the second student showed the presence of different amount of starch
(b) The second student used tape to seal the bottom of the jars to the glass plates.
(c) Both the students first dipped the leaves in boiling alcohol to kill a leaf and stop chemical reactions occurring in it.
(d) Plants are kept in the dark for three days to remove all the chlorophyll from the leaves.
Answer:
(a) The two leaves from the bell jars in the activity performed by the second student showed the presence of different amount of starch

Explanation: In the first set up availability of C02 will be less for making starch by the plant leaves, as potassium hydroxide (KOH) absorbs the CO2. In second plant setup, the leaves will have more amount of starch. So. the amount of starch wilt be different in the two leaves.

Question 9.
In the first activity, a student Rudra took some freshly prepared lime water in two test tubes marked A and & He blew air through the lime water in test tube A. He then used a syringe or pichkari and passed air through the fresh lime water in test tube B.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 13
In the second activity, another student Siya took some fruit juice or sugar solution and took this mixture in a test tube fitted with a one-holed cork and fitted the cork with ci bent glass rube. She dipped the free end of the glass tube into a test tube containing freshly prepared time water.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 14
(A) Ridra recorded his observations below.
Select the correct observation.

Test Tube A Test Tube B
(a) No change observed Lime water turned milky immediately
(b) Lime water turned milky immediately No change observed
(c) Lime water turned milky immediately Lime water turned milky after a Long time
(d) Lime water turned milky after a Long time Lime water turned milky immediately

Answer:
(c) Test Tube A: Lime water turned milky immediately; Test Tube B: Lime water turned milky after a long time

Explanation: Lime water turns milky when carbon dioxide gas is passed through it as a white precipitate of calcium carbonate is formed when lime water (calcium hydroxide) reacts with carbon dioxide gas. Lime water turns milky in test tube A as the exhaled air is rich in carbon dioxide. Whereas, lime water takes a lot of time to turn milky in test tube B as the amount of carbon dioxide present in atmesphereic air is very less as compared to exhaled air and hence carbon dioxide is produced after a long time.

(B) Select the incorrect observation from the statements given below:
(I) The amount of carbon dioxide in atmospheric oir and exhaled air are equal
(II) Exhaled air contains more carbon dioxide as compared to atmospheric air.
(III) Atmospheric air contains more carbon dioxide as compared to exhaled air.
(IV)Lime water turned milky immediately in both the test tubes A and B.
(a) Both (I) and (IV)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I), (II) and (III)
(d) Both (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The amount of carbon dioxide is more in exhaled air and very less in the atmosphere. The lime water turns milky immediately in test tube A as the exhaled air contains large amount of carbon dioxide gas whereas it takes lot of time to turn milky in test tube B as fermentation by yeast is a very slow process.

(C) In the second activity, Siya observed that:
(a) Lime water in the test tube turned milky after some time
(b) Lime water in the test tube turned milky immediately
(c) No change observed in the coLour of Lime water
(d) Lime water in the test tube turned blue black
Answer:
(a) Lime water in the test tube turned milky after some time

Explanation: The lime water becomes milky after some time as carbon dioxide is produced as a result of fermentation of sugar on mixing yeast. The other product formed is alcohol.

(D) Setect the correct statement:
It can be concluded that:
(a) Carbon dioxide is produced as a result of digestion of food in the first activity.
(b) Carbon dioxide is produced as a result of aerobic respiration in the first activity.
(c) Oxygen is produced as a result of aerobic respiration in the first activity.
(d) Lactic acid is produced as a resuLt of anaerobic respiration in the second activity.
Answer:

(E) The products of fermentation in yeast are:
(a) Carbon dioxide and energy
(b) Lactic acid and energy
(c) Ethanol, carbon dioxide and energy
(d) Water, carbon dioxide and energy
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 10.
The unfolding COVID-19 pandemic has led to a global crisis which threatens to become a health, economic and humanitarian disaster. COVID-19 or COronaVIrus Disease 2019 is the term used by the WHO to refer to disease caused by this virus. The virus was also called 2019-nCoV (or 2019 novel CoronaVirus) prior to being official named by the WHO. COVID-19 is predominantly a respiratory disease, with severity ranging from mild to fatal, and transmission mostly from the spread of respiratory droplets. SARS-CoV-2 is transmitted person-to-person, predominantly by respiratory droplet spread and contact, similar to the MERS and SARS corona viruses.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 15
(A) Select the incorrect statement about the COVID-19 disease:
(a) COVID-19 disease is caused by a virus.
(b) It is a respiratory disease
(c) It is transmitted mostly by respiratory droplets.
(d) It can be cured by taking antibiotics.
Answer:

(B) From the statements given below, identify the incorrect cause of the disease:

Respiratory Disease Cause
(a) Tuberculosis Infection of trachea
(b) Emphysema Reduction of gas exchange area of the lungs
(c) Asthma constriction of the bronchi and bronchioles
(d) Pneumoria An infection of the alveoli

Answer:
(a) Respiratory Disease: Tuberculosis;
Cause: Infection of trachea.

Explanation: Tuberculosis is a potentially serious infectious bacterial disease that mainly affects the lungs.The bacteria that cause TB are spread when an infected person coughs or sneezes.

(C) In the respiratory system, an extensive network of blood vessels is present in:
(a) Bronchioles
(b) Alveoli
(c) Trachea
(d) Pharynx
Answer:
(b) Alveoli

Explanation: Within the lungs, the
passage divides into smaller and smaller tubes which finally terminate in balloon-like structures which are called alveoli. The alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take place. The walls of the alveoli contain an extensive network of blood-vessels.

(D) Given below are four statements about respiration. Identify the correct statement (s).
(I) During inhalation, the chest cavity becomes larger.
(II) Exchange of gases takes place in the bronchioles.
(III) Alveoli increase surface area for exchange of gases.
(IV) Haemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen.
(a) Both I and II
(b) Both II and III
(c) Both I and ill
(d) Both II and IV
Answer:
(c) Both I and III

Explanation: During inhalation of air, our chest cavity or thoracic cavity expands. The exchange of gases takes place in the alveoli, which are balloon like structures in our lungs. These have very thin walls which are richly supplied with blood capillaries. Haemoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen and isc arried by blood for oxygen and oxygen is carried by the blood to different parts as oxy haemoglobin, whereas carbon dioxide is transported in dissolved form.

(E) Which one of the following statements is false about the trachea?
(a) It has rings of cartilage
(b) it is covered by epiglottis
(c) It splits into the right and left lungs
(d) It is also called windpipe.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 11.
COVID-19 is a respiratory disease, one that especially reaches into your respiratory tract, which includes your lungs. Now, think of your respiratory tract as an upside-down tree. The trunk is your trachea, or windpipe. It splits into smaller and smaller branches in your lungs. At the end of each branch are tiny air sacs called alveoli. The new coronavirus travels down your airways. The lining can become irritated and inflamed. In some cases, the infection can reach all the way down into your alveoli.
(A) What is the function of alveoli?
(a) This is where SARS-CoV-2, the virus that causesCOVID-19 finally affects.
(b) This is where plasma, proteins and blood cells escapes inthe tissues
(c) This is where oxygen goes into your blood and carbon dioxide comesout.
(d) Alveoli carries fat and drains excessive fluid back into the blood.
Answer:
(c) This is where oxygen goes into your blood and carbon dioxide comes out.

Explanation: Alveoli act as the passage gateway for the exchange of the gases between the surroundings and the body.

(B) Your blood oxygen level indicates how much oxygen your red blood cells are carrying. High blood oxygenation plays an essential role in ensuring that your muscles, brain and other organs receive the energy they need to function properly. That’s why it is so important to measure your current level and determine whether it is within an acceptable range.
Why is it important to measure your current oxygen level?
(a) To know how much blood is flowing
(b) To know how much oxygen is flowing in the blood.
(c) To know how your brain is working
(d) To know the heart rate
Answer:

(C) The lungs are the organ most commonly affected by COVID-19. If large parts of the lungs are affected, people struggle to absorb enough oxygen and are admitted to hospital. Another severe effect is acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) – also known as “wet lung”. This sees severe inflammation spread quickly throughout the lungs. People who develop this may need mechanical ventilation in an intensive care unit, sometimes for a prolonged period. COVID-19 has a further, unusual effect on the body. Compared to other respiratory viruses, it causes marked clotting in the small blood vessels of the lungs and other organs.
How are the lungs affected by COVID-19?
(A) Blood clotting
(B) Lack of oxygen
(C) Severe inflammation
Now choose the correct option.
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) None of these
(d) A, B and C or either of these
Answer:

(D) Haemoglobin is an iron containing respiratory pigment that carries oxygen through red blood cells. Presence of Haemoglobin gives metallic taste to the blood. Haemoglobin is an intracellular protein which acts as a primary vehicle for transporting 97% of oxygen in the blood.
Which is not true about Haemoglobin?
(a) It is a respiratory pigment.
(b) It has a high affinity for oxygen and carbon dioxide.
(c) it is present in RBCs.
(d) Its deficiency causes anaemia.
Answer:
(b) It has a high affinity for oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Explanation: Haemoglobin has high affinity for carbon dioxide since it forms the coordinate complex between the Fe and C leading to resist the ability of the oxygen to carry the oxygen leading to various respiratory disorders.

(E) In the given picture, “A” represents
(a) Rings of cartilage which ensures that the air passage does not collapse while going into the lungs.
(b) Diaphragm which contracts and flattens upon inhalation.
(c) Alveoli where the exchange of gases can take place.
(d) Fine hairs for air filtration.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 16
Answer:
(a) Rings of cartilage which ensures that the air passage does not collapse while going into the lungs.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 12.
Multicellular organisms with small surface area to volume ratios need transport systems. Water and mineral salts are transported through a plant in xylem vessels. Transpiration is the process of water movement through a plant and its evaporation from aerial parts, such as leaves, stems and flowers. Water is necessary for plants but only a small amount of water taken up by the roots is used for growth and metabolism.
The pattern of water uptake and loss by sunflower plant during 24 h is shown in the graph below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 17
The movement of sucrose and other substances like amino acids around a plant is called translocation. Translocation of organic solutes such as sucrose occurs through living phloem sieve tubes. Both xylem vessels and phloem sieve tubes show unique structural features which are adaptations to their roles in transport.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 18
(A) Root pressure is maximum when
(a) Transpiration is very high and absorption is very low
(b) Transpiration is very low and absorption is very high
(c) Both transpiration and absorption are very high
(d) Both the absorption and transpiration are very low
Answer:
(b) Transpiration is very low and absorption is very high

Explanation: At night, when there is no sunlight, transpiration is very low but the absorption of substances by roots is high.

(B) Select the row containing incorrect information:

Cell Vascular Tissue
(a) Vessels Xylem
(b) Sieve tube Xylem
(c) Tracheids Xylem
(d) Companion cell Phloem

Answer:
(b) Cell: Sieve tube: Vascular Tissue: Xylem.

Explanation: Xylem is the conducting tissue for water and minerals and consists of vessels, tracheids and xylem parenchyma. Phloem on the other hand transports the dissolved products of photosynthesis and consists of sieve tubes, phloem parenchyma and companion cells.

(C) Given below are some statements about transport in plants:
(I) Xylem transports water, amino acids and other substances in plants.
(II) Phloem transports soluble products of photosynthesis in plants.
(III) Transpiration helps in absorption of water.
(IV) Material like sucrose is transferred into phloem tissue using energy from ATP
Select the correct statement (s):
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: Xylem transports water and minerals from the soil to different parts of the plant in upward direction.
PhLoem transports the soluble products of photosynthesis from the leaves to different parts of the plant by using energy from ATP. It also transports amino acids and other substances in plants. Transpiration is the loss of water by the aerial parts of the plant during day time which helps in creating a transpiration pull due to which water moves upward in xylem.

(D) The major driving force in the movement of water from ground to the root during day is:
(a) Osmosis
(b) Imbibition
(c) Transpiration pull
(d) Plasmolysis
Answer:

(E) Water will be absorbed by the root hairs when the external medium is
(a) Isotonic
(b) Hypertonic
(c) Hypotonic
(d) Viscous
Answer:

Question 13.
The food material taken in during the process of nutrition is used in cells to provide energy for various life processes. Diverse organisms do this in different ways – some use oxygen to break-down glucose completely: some use other pathways that do not involve oxygen.
(A) Name the two ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various organisms.
(a) Aerobic respiration and Anaerobic respiration
(b) Respiration and breathing
(c) Fermentation and breathing
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration

Explanation: The two ways through which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various organisms is through the aerobic and anaerobic respiration. Aerobic respiration occurs during the presence of air., whereas the anaerobic respiration occurs in the absence of air.

(B) The characteristic processes observed in anaerobic respiration are
(I) Presence of oxygen
(II) Release of carbon dioxide
(III) Release of energy
(IV) Release of lactic acid
(a) A and B only
(b) A,B,C only
(c) B, C, D only
(d) D only
Answer:

(C) Fatigue in muscles occurs due to
(a) Aerobic respiration
(b) Anaerobic respiration
(c) Anaerobic fermentation
(d) Breathing
Answer:
(b) Anaerobic respiration

Explanation: In the anaerobic respiration the release of the carborl dioxide takes along with the release of the energy and lactic acid thus fatigue in the muscles occur due to this phenomenon.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 20

(D) Break-down of pyruvate using oxygen takes place in the
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Chloroplast
(d) Golgi apparatus
Answer:

(E) In humans, however, we respire anaerobically when the heart and lungs cannot work fast enough to provide enough oxygen around the body to break down the glucose. This causes formation of:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 19
(a) Ethanol
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Lactic acid
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Lactic acid

Explanation: Lactic acid is formed when we respire anaerobically when the heart and lungs cannot work fast enough to provide enough oxygen around the body to break down the glucose.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 14.
Diabetes meilitus, usually caiLed diabetes, is a disease in which your body does not make enough insulin or cannot use normal amounts of insulin properly.

The kidneys play an important role in regulating *glucose homeostasis through utilization of glucose, gluconeogenesis, and glucose reabsorption. Glucose is freely filtered by the glomerulus. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) represents the flow of plasma from the glomerulus into Bowman’s space over a specified period and is the chief measure of kidney function. Under normal conditions, ~ 180 g of glucose are filtered by the kidney each day. More than 99% of this glucose is reabsorbed by the proximal tubule, with < 0.5 g/day excreted in the urine of healthy adults. When the filtered glucose load exceeds the tubular maximum glucose reabsorptive capacity, excess glucose is excreted in the urine.

The physiological relationship between plasma glucose concentration and renal glucose flux (ie, filtration, reabsorption, and excretion) is shown below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 21
(A) The incorrect conclusion from the graph showing amount of glucose filtered by the kidneys is:
(a) The amount of glucose filtered by the kidneys increases in a linear manner with increasing plasma glucose concentration
(b) Under normal conditions in healthy individuals, nearly all filtered glucose is reabsorbed in the renal tubules
(c) The renal glucose reabsorption increases linearly with increasing plasma glucose concentration.
(d) There is a distinct deviation (the “splay”) from this linear relationship as the renal capacity to reabsorb glucose nears saturation.
Answer:
(c) The renal glucose reabsorption increases linearly with increasing plasma glucose concentration.

Explanation: The renal glucose reabsorption increases linearly until a certain concentration of plasma glucose is present. After the saturation limit of glucose is reached, it does not change.

(B) The excretory system of human beings include
(a) A kidney, a ureter, a urinary bladder and a urethra
(b) A pair of kidneys, a ureter, a pair of urinary bladders, and a urethra
(c) A pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a urinary bladder and a urethra
(d) A pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a pair of urinary bladders and a urethra
Answer:

(C) Which of the following statements) is correct about excretion in human beings?
(I) Kidneys are the primary excretory organs.
(II) Nitrogenous waste such as urea or uric acid are removed from blood in the kidneys.
(III) The basic filtration unit in the kidneys is a cluster of very thin- walled blood Capillaries.
(IV) Urine is stored in the urethra until the urge of passing it out.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) and (III)

Explanation: The only incorrect statement is that urine is stored in the urethra, as urine is actually stored in the urinary bladder, which is a muscular organ and under our nervous control.

(D) The correct function of parts labelled ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the figure below is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 22

Part ‘A’ Part ‘B’
(a) Filtration of blood Reabsorption of glucose, salts and amino acids
(b) Reabsorption of glucose, salts and amino acids Filtration of blood
(c) Reabsorption of hormones from blood Filtration of blood
(d) Collection of urine Reabsorption of glucose,salts and amino acids

Answer:
(a) part ‘A’ : Filtration of blood; part ‘B’ : Reabsorbtion of glucose, Salts and amino acids

Explanation: Part labelled A is the Bowman’s capsule which is a cup-like sac at the beginning of the tubular component of a nephron in the mammalian kidney. Fluids from blood in the glomerulus are collected in the Bowman’s capsule and further processed along the nephron to form urine.

Part labelled B is the tubular part of the nephron where some substances in the initial filtrate, such as glucose, amino acids, salts and a major amount of water, are selectively re-absorbed as the urine along the tube.

(E) The part labelled ‘A’ in the figure above is:
(a) Glomerulus
(b) Bowman’s Capsule
(c) Proximal tubule
(d) Distant convoluted tubule
Answer:

Question 15.
Blood being a fluid connective tissue. Blood consists of fluid medium called plasma in which the cells are suspended. Plasma transports food, carbon dioxide and nitrogenous wastes in dissolved form. Oxygen is carried by the red blood corpuscles. Many other substances like salts are also transported by the blood. l/l/e thus need a pumping organ to push blood around the body, a network of tubes to reach all the tissues and a system in place to ensure that this network can be repaired if damaged. The force that blood exerts against the wall of a vessel is called blood pressure. This pressure is much greater in arteries than in veins. The pressure of blood inside the artery during ventricular systole (contraction) is called systolic pressure and pressure in artery during ventricular diastole (relaxation) is called diastolic pressure. The normal systolic pressure is about 120 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure is 80 mm of Hg.
(A) Blood consists of a fluid medium called as:
(a) Plasma
(b) Red blood corpuscles
(c) White blood corpuscles
(d) Lymph
Answer:
(a) Plasma

Explanation: Blood consists of the 90% water in the form of the ions and the dissolved state known as plasma.

(B) Oxygen is transported in the body by combining with:
(a) Haemoglobin and iron only
(b) Haemoglobin only
(c) Plasma, Haemoglobin and iron
(d) None of these
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 23
Answer:

(C) The oxygenated blood is sent to different body parts by:
(a) Arteries
(b) Veins
(c) Heart
(d) Circulatory system
Answer:
(a) Arteries

The oxygenated blood is sent to different body parts by:

Explanation: Arteries carry the oxygenated blood that is the pure blood to the different parts of the body whereas the deoxygenated blood is carried by the veins from the different body parts back to the heart.

(D) In fish and men the pumping organ to push blood are
(a) 2 and 3 chambered respectively
(b) 2 and 4 chambered respectively
(c) 4 and 2 chambered respectively
(d) 2 and 2 chambered each
Answer:
(b) 2 and 4 chambered respectively

Explanation: In fish and men the pumping organ to push blood is 2 and 4 chambered respectively in human’s two auricles and two ventricles are there for the separation of the oxygenated and the deoxygenated blood.

(E) The force that blood exerts against the wall of a vessel is
(a) More in arteries and less in vein
(b) More in veins and less in arteries.
(c) More in blood capillaries
(d) More in heart
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 24
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 16.
The digestion in stomach is taken care of by the gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach. These release hydrochloric acid, a protein digesting enzyme called pepsin, and mucus. The hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium which facilitates the action of the enzyme pepsin. The mucus protects the inner lining of the stomach from the action of the acid under normal conditions. From the stomach, the food now enters the small intestine. The food coming from the stomach is acidic and has to be made alkaline for the pancreatic enzymes to act Bile juice from the liver accomplishes this in addition to acting on fats.
(A) In which medium Pepsin and trypsin are active:
(a) basic and acidic medium
(b) acidic and basic medium
(c) neutral medium
(d) sometimes acidic sometimes basic medium
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 25
Answer:
(b) acidic and basic medium

Explanation: Pepsin works in the acidic medium and trypsin works in the basic medium to digest the proteins in stomach and in the intestine respectively.

(B) Enzyme pepsin helps in the digestion of:
(a) starch in mouth
(b) protein in stomach
(c) fat in stomach
(d) protein in pancreas
Answer:
(b) protein in stomach

Explanation: Enzyme pepsin helps in the digestion of proteins in the stomach.

(C) The inner lining of the stomach is protected by
(a) enzyme pepsin
(b) mucus
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Muscle
Answer:

(D) Which statement is a valid conclusion based on the information in the graph –
(a) The maximum rate of human digestion occurs at about 45°C.
(b) The maximum rate of human respiration occurs at about 57°C.
(c) Temperature can influence the action of an enzyme.
(d) Growth can be controlled by enzyme
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers 26
Answer:

(E) Small Intestine receives the secretions from for complete digestion.
(a) Mouth and Stomach
(b) Stomach and liver
(c) Liver and Pancreas
(d) All the above
Answer:
(C) Liver and Pancreas

Explanation: Small Intestine receives the secretions from the liver and pancreas for complete digestion.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name an enzyme present in pancreaticjuice.
Answer:
Lipase, Trypsin

Question 2.
If human urine is allowed to stand for sometime, it smells of ammonia, why?
Answer:
Urea present in urine gets decomposed into ammonia by the action of bacteria. So it smells strongly of ammonia.

Related Theory
The purpose of making urine is to filter out waste products from the blood. Nitrogenous waste such as urea or uric acid are removed from blood in the kidneys.

Question 3.
Define parasitic nutrition. Name an organism having parasitic mode of nutrition.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers

Question 4.
On what factors does the direction of diffusion of carbon dioxide and oxygen depend in plants?
Answer:
The direction of diffusion of carbon dioxide and oxygen in plants depends on the environmental conditions and the requirements of the plant. Carbon dioxide elimination is the major exchange activity at night, whereas oxygen release is the main activity at day time.

Question 5.
What is the role of rings of cartilage present in the throat?
Answer:
The rings of cartilage present ;n the throat ensure that the air passage does not collapse.

Question 6.
What is the role of blood plasma?
Answer:

Question 7.
Why do fishes die when taken out of water?
Answer:
Fishes respire with the help of gills. Gills are richly supplied with blood capillaries and can readily absorb oxygen dissolved in water. Since fishes cannot absorb gaseous oxygen, they die soon after they are taken out of water.

Question 8.
What will happen to a plant if its xyiem is removed?
Answer:
If the xyiem of a plant is removed, the upward movement of water and minerals will stop leading to wilting of leaves and ultimately the death of the plant as xyiem is a water¬conducting tissue in plants. It transports water and minerals from the roots to the different parts of the plant.

Question 9.
The pancreas of a person suddenly stopped functioning. How will digestion be affected in such a person?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Science Physics Chapter 13 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 10 Chapter 13 MCQs On Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Magnetic Effect Of Electric Current Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
If the key in the arrangement as shown below is taken out (the circuit is made open) and magnetic field lines are drawn over the horizontal plane ABCD, the lines are:
Magnetic Effect Of Electric Current Class 10 MCQ
(a) Concentric circles
(b) Elliptical in shape
(c) Straight lines parallel to each other
(d) Concentric circles near the point O but of elliptical shapes as we go away from it
Answer:
(c) Straight lines parallel to each other

Explanation: If the circuit connection breaks by taking the key out, then no current will flow through the wire and no magnetic field will exist due to the conductor.

Therefore, at the point O, there will be only Earth’s magnetic field and they are straight lines parallel to each other.

Magnetic Effect Of Electric Current MCQ Question 2.
A current-carrying conductor is held in exactly vertical direction. In order to produce a clockwise magnetic field around the conductor, the current should passed in the conductor:
(a) from top towards bottom
(b) from left towards right
(c) from bottom towards top
(d) from right towards left
Answer:

Class 10 Magnetic Effect Of Electric Current MCQ Question 3.
A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the plane of paper carries a current when the key is on. The current as seen from points A and B (in the plane of paper and on the axis of the coil) is anticlockwise and clockwise respectively. The magnetic field lines point from B to A. The N-pole of the resultant magnet is on the face close to:
Class 10 Science Chapter 13 MCQ
(a) A
(b) B
(c) A if the current is small and B if the current is large
(d) B if the current is small and A if the current is large
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

MCQ On Magnetic Effect Of Electric Current Question 4.
A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper pointing from left to right as shown in the figure. In the field, an electron and a proton move as shown. The electron and the proton experience:
MCQ On Magnetic Effect Of Electric Current
(a) forces both pointing into the plane of paper
(b) forces both pointing out of the plane of paper
(c) forces pointing into the plane of paper and out of the plane of paper, respectively
(d) forces pointing opposite and along the direction of the uniform magnetic field respectively
Answer:
(a) forces both pointing into the plane of paper

Explanation: Apply Fleming’s left hand rule and considering that the flow of current in the direction of the movement of proton and in the direction opposite to the flow of electrons. So, the current due to both electron and proton will be in the same direction because of which, the forces acting on both will be in the same direction. By Fleming’s Left hand rule, the direction of force is pointing into the plane of paper.

Magnetic Effects Of Electric Current Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
For a current in a long straight solenoid N and S-poles are created at the two ends. Among the following statements, the incorrect statement is:
(a) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines, which indicates that the magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid
(b) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be used to magnetize a piece of magnetic material Like soft iron, when placed inside the coil
(c) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with the solenoid is different from the pattern of the magnetic field around a bar magnet
(d) The N and S-poles exchange position when the direction of current through the solenoid is reversed.
Answer:

Magnetic Effects Of Electric Current MCQ Question 6.
An electron moves with a speed v along positive direction of the x-axis. If a magnetic field B acts along the positive y-direction, then the force on the electron will act along:
(a) x-axis
(b) y-axis
(c) -ve z-direction
(d) +ve z-direction [Diksha]
Answer:
(c) -ve z-direction

An electron moves with a speed v along positive direction of the x-axis. If a magnetic field B acts along the positive y-direction, then the force on the electron will act along:

Explanation: As electron is moving in positive x-direction, then, according to Maxwell’s right-hand thumb rule, the current is moving in negative x-direction and the magnetic field acts on positive y-direction.

Thus, the thumb will be in negative z-direction, which is the direction of force.

MCQ Of Magnetic Effect Of Electric Current Question 7.
Which of the following is not attracted by a magnet:
(a) Steel
(b) Cobalt
(c) Brass
(d) Nickel
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Ch 13 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 8.
The magnetic field lines:
(a) intersect at right angles to one another
(b) interest at an angle 45° to each another
(c) do not cross one another
(d) cross at an angle of 60° to one another
Answer:
(c) do not cross one another

Explanation: The magnetic field lines do not cross one another because the resultant force at any point on the north pole can only be in one direction. This is impossible if the Lines intersect

Related Theory
If two magnetic field lines are found to cross each their, it means that at the point of intersection, the compass needle would point towards two directions. which is not possible.

Magnetism Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current is
(a) uneven
(b) zero
(c) same at aLL points
(d) different at aU Points
Answer:
(c) same at all points

Explanation: The magnetic field lines inside a long straight solenoid carrying current is in the form of parallel straight tines which indicates that the magnetic field is some at oIL points inside the solenoid.

MCQs On Magnetic Effects Of Electric Current Class 10 Question 10.
To convert an AC generator into DC generator:
(a) Split ring type commutator must be used
(b) SLIp rings and brushes must be used
(c) A stronger magnetic fieLd has to be used
(d) A rectangular wire Loop has to be used
Answer:

Magnetic Effect Of Electric Current MCQs Question 11.
The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short-circuiting or overloading is:
(a) Earthing
(b) Use of fuse
(c) Use of stabiLizers
(d) Use of electric meter
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Class 10 Science Ch 13 MCQ Question 12.
Which of the given statements are incorrect regarding magnetic field Unes?
(I) The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction In which the south pole of a magnetic compass needle points.
(II) Magnetic field Lines are closed curves.
(III) If magnetic field Lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero-field strength.
(IV)Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the north pole of a magnetic compass needle points. If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent uniform field strength.

MCQ Questions On Magnetic Effects Of Electric Current Question 13.
The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid connected to a galvanometer. The magnet was held stationary for a few seconds with the north pole in the middle of the solenoid and then withdrawn rapidly.
Select the correct observations:
(I) The maximum deflection of the galvanometer will be observed when the magnet was moving out of the solenoid.
(II) The maximum deflection of the galvanometer will be observed when the magnet was moving slowly into of the solenoid.
(III) The minimum deflection of the galvanometer will be observed when the magnet was at rest inside the solenoid.
(IV) The minimum deflection of the galvanometer will be observed when the magnet was moving towards the solenoid.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: The maximum deflection of the galvanometer will be observed when the magnet was moving out of the solenoid as maximum current is induced in the coil due to the relative motion between the solenoid coil and the magnet. Whereas, the minimum deflection of the galvanometer will be observed when the magnet was at rest inside the solenoid as no current is induced in the coil.

MCQs On Magnetic Effect Of Electric Current Question 14.
A student places some iron fillings around a magnet. The iron fillings arrange themselves as shown in image below.
Magnetic Effect Of Current Class 10 MCQ
Four points labelled A, B, C and D have been marked in the figure.
Select the correct statement regarding the strength of magnetic field at these points:
(I) The magnetic field will be strongest at A.
(II) The magnetic field will be strongest at B.
(III) The magnetic field will be weakest at C.
(IV)The magnetic field will be weakest at D.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

MCQ Of Magnetic Effect Of Electric Current Class 10 Question 15.
The figure below shows an electric generator.
MCQ Of Magnetic Effect Of Electric Current Class 10
The coil ABCD is rotated and the direction of induced current is noted initially and when coil completes half cycle of the rotation.
Select the row containing correct direction of induced current in the coil ABCD.
Magnetic Effect Of Current MCQ
MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 13
Answer:
(a) Initially when coil ABCD is rotated ABCD; when coil complete is half cycle of rotation DCBA

Explanation: Length AB of the coil ABCD is moving upwards and the magnetic field acts from left to right. Hence, according to Fleming’s right-hand rule, the direction of induced current will be from A to B. And the direction of induced current in the length CD will be from C to D. The direction of current in the coil is ABCD. After half a rotation, length AB starts moving down whereas length CD starts moving upward. The direction of the induced current in the coil gets reversed as DCBA.

Question 16.
Study the graphs (A) and (B) shown below and select the row containing incorrect information from the table.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 8
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 9
Answer:

Question 17.
The magnetic field lines inside a current-carrying solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines which indicate that:
(a) The magnetic field is zero inside the solenoid.
(b) The field is uniform inside the solenoid.
(d) The field is non-uniform inside the solenoid.
(d) The field is very strong inside the solenoid.
Answer:
(b) The field is uniform inside the solenoid.

Explanation: The magnetic field lines inside a current-carrying solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines which indicate that the field is uniform inside the solenoid.

Question 18.
A current-carrying conductor is held in the vertical direction. In order to produce a clockwise magnetic field around the conductor, the current should be passed in the conductor:
(a) From top to bottom
(b) From left to right
(c) From bottom to top
(d) From right to left
Answer:
(a) From top to bottom

Explanation: By applying right-hand thumb rule, we note that in order to produce a clockwise magnetic field around the conductor, the current should be passed from top to bottom in the conductor as shown:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 10

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Question 19.
An induced emf is produced when a magnet is moved into a coil. The magnitude of induced emf does not depend on:
(a) The number of turns of the coil
(b) The speed with which the magnet is moved
(c) The strength of the magnet
(d) The resistivity of the wire of the coil
Answer:

Question 20.
Imagine that a negative charge is moving towards a person. The direction of magnetic field lines will be in:
(a) Clockwise direction
(b) Anticlockwise direction
(c) Vertically upward direction
(d) Vertically downward direction
Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 13

For the following questions, two statements are given one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct Answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c), and (d) as given below.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is flase, but R is true.

Question 21.
Assertion (A): The energy of charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field does not change.
Reason (R): Work done by magnetic field on the charge is zero.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 22.
Assertion (A): The compass placed near the current-carrying wire remains stationary.
Reason (R): The current flowing through a wire gives rise to a magnetic field.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: The compass when placed near the current-carrying wire gets deflected because the current flowing through the wire gives rise to a magnetic field.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Question 23.
Assertion (A): The direction of force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field gets reversed on reversing the direction of current flowing through the conductor.
Reason (R): Magnitude of force is highest when direction of current is parallel to direction of magnetic field.

Question 24.
Assertion (A): Current can be induced in a coil by changing the magnetic field around it.
Reason (R): A galvanometer connected to a coil can deflect either to the left or right of the zero marks.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion. Explanation: Voltage and hence current is induced in a coil due to a changing magnetic field and this process is known as electromagnetic induction.

A galvanometer is a device that detects the presence of current by deflecting the needle to one side of the zero mark, but this does not explain the current induced in the coil.

Competency-Based Questions (CBQs)

Question 1.
The space surrounding a magnet in which magnetic force is exerted, is called a magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field lines at a place can be determined by using a compass needle. A compass needle placed near a magnet gets deflected due to the magnetic force exerted by the magnet.

The north end of the needle of the compass indicates the direction of magnetic field at the point where it is placed. When the magnet shown in the diagram below is moving towards the coil, the galvanometer gives a reading to the right.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 11
(A) What is the name of the effect being produced by the moving magnet?
(B) State what happens to the needle shown on the galvanometer when the magnet is moving away from the coil.
(C) If the magnet is moved towards the coil at a great speed, state two changes that you would notice in the galvanometer.
(D) List three sources of magnetic fields.
Answer:

Question 2.
Happy’s friend once got a bicycle fitted with a dynamo to school. Happy was quite thrilled to see a cycle fitted with a dynamo and decided to find out more about this. A bottle dynamo or sidewall dynamo is a small electrical generator for bicycles employed to power a bicycle’s lights. When the bicycle is in motion and the dynamo roller is engaged, electricity is generated as the tire spins the roller.Two other dynamo systems used on bicycles are hub dynamos and bottom bracket dynamos.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 12
Fleming’s Right-hand rule gives:
(a) magnitude of the induced current.
(b) magnitude of the magnetic field
(c) direction of the induced current
(d) both, direction and magnitude of the induced current
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Question 3.
Vaibhav performed an activity to observe an important breakthrough made by the English Physicist faraday. He took a coil of wire AB having a large number of turns and connected the ends of the coil to a galvanometer. He observed a momentary deflection in the needle of the galvanometer, say to the right, when the North pole of a strong magnet was moved towards the end B of the coil.
(A) Name the phenomenon discovered by Faraday.
Answer:
The phenomenon was Electromagnetic induction.

(B) Why does Vaibhav observe momentary deflection in the galvanometer?
Answer:
This is due to induced current in the coil as a result of changing magnetic field associated with the coil.

(C) What happens to the deflection in the galvanometer when the motion of the magnet stops?
Answer:

(D) What will be observed when the north pole of the magnet is withdrawn away from the coil?
Answer:
We observe that the galvanometer is deflected toward the left, showing that the current is now set up in the direction opposite to the first

Question 4.
Transmission lines are sets of wires that carry electric power from generating plants to the substations that deliver power to customers. At a generating plant, electric power is “stepped up” to several thousand volts by a transformer and delivered to the transmission line. When Kumar visited his grandmother’s home, he was quite surprised to see the transmission lines going right above their colony!
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 13
A constant current flows in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper from east to west as shown in the figure. The direction of a magnetic field at a point will be north to south:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 14
(a) directly above the wire
(b) directly below the wire
(c) at a point located in the plane of the paper on the north side of the wire
(d) at a point located in the plane of the paper on the south side of the wire
Answer:
(b) directly below the wire

Explanation: If we observe the direction of the magnetic field by applying the right hand thumb rule, then we will find that the directior of the magnetic field is from north to south below the wire

Question 5.
Fix a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using some adhesive material. Place a bar magnet in the centre of it. Sprinkle some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet as shown in figure below. Now tap the board gently.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 15
In the next activity, take a small compass and a bar magnet. Place the magnet on a sheet of white paper fixed on a drawing board, using some adhesive material. Mark the boundary of the magnet. Place the compass near the north pole of the magnet. Mark the position of two ends of the needle. Now move the needle to a new position such that its south pole occupies the position previously occupied by its north pole. In this way, proceed step by step till you reach the south pole of the magnet as shown in Fig. below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 16
Join the points marked on the paper by a smooth curve. Repeat the above procedure and draw as many lines as you can. Observe the deflection in the compass needle as you move it along a field line.
(A) Select the correct observations and conclusions when cardboard is gently tapped in the first activity:
(I) The iron filings arrange themselves in a pattern.
(II) The magnet experiences a force as the iron atoms exert its influence on it.
(III) The force experienced by the magnet makes iron filings to arrange in a pattern.
(IV) The region surrounding a magnet, in which the force of the magnet can be detected, is said to have a magnetic field.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (III) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)

(B) The lines along which the iron filings align themselves represent:
(a) Magnetic field lines.
(b) Electric field lines
(c) Magnetic potential
(d) Electric potential
Answer:
(a) Magnetic field lines

Explanation: The magnetic field lines are the imaginary lines drawn around a magnet that represent the m etic field around a magnet.

(C) Select the row containing the correct observation when a small compass is placed near the bar magnet in the second activity:

North Pole of Compass Needle South Pole of Compass Needle
(a) It points towards the North pole of the magnet  It points towards the South pole of the magnet
(b) It points towards the North pole of the magnet  It points away from the North pole of the magnet
(c) It points away from the South pole of the magnet  It points away from the North pole of the magnet
(d) It points away from the North pole of the magnet  It points towards the North pole of the magnet

Answer:
(d) North Pole of compass needle: It points away from the North Pole of the magnet: South Pole Compass needle: it Points towards the North Pole of the Magnet.

Explanation: The small compass is actuaLly a magnetic compass needle. Its North pole points away from the North pole of the bar magnet and its South pole points towards the North pole of the bar magnet as like poles repel each other and unlike poles attract each other.

(D) When the compass needle is moved along a field line, the deflection in the compass:
(a) First increases and then decreases.
(b) Increases as the needle is moved towards the poles.
(c) Decreases as the needle is moved towards the poles.
(d) Remains constant
(E) Given below are four figures showing the direction of magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. Select the option showing the correct direction:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 17
Answer:

Question 6.
Vikram had gone to his cousin’s apartments to celebrate holi. While climbing the stairs he observed that all the electric meters and main switches were installed on one side of the stair case. On each meter box, apart from other information, the following was also written: kWh meter, 220VAC.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 18
How many times does AC used in India change direction in one second?
Answer:
The frequency of alternating current in India is 50 Hertz. This means that the AC changes current every 1/100 second.

Question 7.
Kritika once observed a caling bell on the wall just outside the principal’s room. Although she knew its purpose, she wanted to know the construction and working of an electric calling bell, which is a mechanical or electronic bell that functions by means of an electromagnet.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 19
(a) Will decrease
(b) Will increase
(c) Will become zero
(d) Will remain the same
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Question 8.
Take a coil of wire AB having a large number of turns. Connect the ends of the coil to a galvanometer as shown in Fig. (a) below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 20
(a)
Take a strong bar magnet and move its north pole towards the end B of the coil. Observe the deflection in the galvanometer towards right. Now withdraw the north pole of the magnet away from the coil. Next, place the magnet stationary at a point near to the coil, keeping its north pole towards the end B of the coil. First move the coil towards the north pole of the magnet and then away from the magnet. Observe the deflection of the galvanometer in both cases.

Next, take two different coils of copper wire having large number of turns (say 50 and 100 turns respectively). Insert them over a non-conducting cylindrical roll, as shown in Fig. below. Connect the coil-1, having larger number of turns, in series with a battery and a plug key. Also connect the other coil-2 with a galvanometer as shown in fig. (b) below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 21
Plug in the key. Observe the deflection in galvanometer. Next, disconnect coil-1 from the battery. Note your observations.
(A) Select the correct observations when a strong bar magnet is taken and its north pole is moved near the coil in the first activity:
(I) There is a momentary deflection in the needle of the galvanometer, say to the right, when the north pole of a strong bar magnet is moved towards the end B of the coil.
(II) Momentary deflection in the galvanometer needle indicates the presence of a force in the coil AB.
(III) The deflection in the galvanometer increases the moment the motion of the magnet stops.
(IV) When the north pole of the magnet is withdrawn away from the coil, the galvanometer is deflected toward the left.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Momentary deflection in the galvanometer needle indicates the presence of a current in the coil AB. The deflection in the galvanometer becomes zero the moment the motionof the magnet stops as no current is induced in the coil now.

(B) Refer to fig. (a) above. Place the magnet stationary at a point near to the coil, keeping its north pole towards the end
B of the coil.
Select the row containing incorrect observation:

Movement of coil Deflection of the galvanometer needle
(a) Coil is moved towards the North pole of the magnet  Towards right
(b) Coil is moved away the North pole of the magnet  Towards left
(c) Both coil and magnet are stationary  Momentary deflection
(d) Both coil and magnet are stationary  No deflection

Answer:
(c) Movement of coil: Both coil and magnet are stationary; Deflection of galvanometer needle: Momentary deflection

Explanation: When the coil is moved towards the north pole of the galvanometer, the galvanometer needle deflects towards right and when the coil is moved away from the north pole of the magnet, the galvanometer needle deflects in the opposite direction towards right. This is because the induced current is now set up in the direction opposite to the first.

However, when both the coil and magnet are stationary, there is no induced current in the coil and hence no deflection in the needle of the galvanometer.

(C) In the first activity, what would be observed if the south pole of the magnet was moved away from the end B of the
coil?
(a) Deflection in same direction as when north pole was moved towards end B of the coil, i.e., towards right.
(b) Deflection in opposite direction as when north pole was moved towards end B of the coil, i.e., towards left.
(c) First deflection towards right and then towards left.
(d) No deflection in galvanometer needle.
Answer:
(a) Deflection in same direction as when north pole was moved towards end B of the coil, i.e., towards right.

Explanation: When the south pole of magnet is moved away from the end B of the coil, the current will be induced in the coil in the same direction as north pole moving towards the end B of the magnet. Therefore, deflection of galvanometer needle will be in the same direction which is towards right.

(D) Select the incorrect observation when the key is plugged “in” in the second activity:
(a) The needle of the galvanometer instantly jumps to one side and quickly returns to zero, indicating a momentary current in coil-2.
(b) When the battery is disconnected from the coil, there is a momentary deflection of the galvanometer needle in opposite side.
(c) The needle of the galvanometer jumps to one side till the key is plugged “in” indicating that current is induced in coil-2.
(d) As soon as the current in coil-1 reaches either a steady value or zero, the galvanometer in coil-2 shows no deflection.
Answer:

(E) Cause of induced current in coil 2 in fig (b) is:
(a) Change in magnetic field lines associated with the secondary coil.
(b) Change in magnetic field lines associated with the primary coil.
(c) Change in magnetic force associated with the secondary coil.
(d) Change in magnetic force associated with the primary coil.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Question 9.
Paras was keenly observing the electrician connecting the new electric cooler at their home. He observed that apart from the two wires, there was a third wire which he connected at the plug, which was a three pin plug. He came to know the third wire is the earth wire.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 22
The earth wire is used as a safety measure to:
(a) Prevent overloading
(b) Prevent shortcircuiting
(c) Prevent electric shock
(d) Voltage fluctuations
Answer:

Question 10.
When the mason working at Smriti’s house, turned on his tile cutter connected to the switchboard of the living room, there was a fire in the plug. Immediately, her father switched off the electric mains supply and the fire was prevented from spreading further.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 23
State the possible reason for such a situation leading to an electric fire.
Answer:
One possible reason for this kind of electric fire is that the power rating of the tile cutter was higher than the current carrying limit of the electric circuit to which it was connected. This led to the damaging of the insulation of the connecting wires and hence short circuiting took place.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Question 11.
Valves are mechanical devices designed to control the flow of liquid and gases. Many valves are manually operated. Electrically operated valves are known as solenoid valves. A solenoid valve consists of two basic units: an assembly of the solenoid (the electromagnet) and plunger (the core), and a valve containing an opening (orifice) in which a disc or plug is positioned to control the flow of fluid. The valve is opened or closed by the movement of the magnetic plunger. When the coil is energized, the plunger is drawn into the solenoid (electromagnet) and flow through the orifice is allowed. The valve returns automatically to its original position when current ceases due to the pressure of spring and flow through the orifice is restricted.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 24
(A) Which of the following statements is correct regarding solenoid valve?
(a) Solenoid valves are mechanically operated valves.
(b) A solenoid valve is opened or closed by the movement of the magnetic plunger.
(c) Flow through the orifice is allowed when no current flows through the solenoid coil.
(d) Flow through the orifice is restricted when current flows through the solenoid coil.
Answer:

(B) Select the incorrect statements regarding the magnetic field in a current carrying solenoid as shown above:
(I) The pattern of the magnetic field lines around a current-carrying sole¬noid is similar to the magnetic field around a bar magnet.
(II) One end of the solenoid behaves as a positive charge and the other end behaves as a negative charge.
(III) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of curved lines.
(IV) The magnetic field is uniform inside the solenoid.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: One end of the solenoid be-haves as a magnetic north pole and the other end behaves as a magnetic south pole. The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines.

(C) The figure below shows the lengthwise section of a current carrying solenoid, where indicates that current is entering into the page and indicates that current is emerging out of the page:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 25
The table below gives the identification of the ends A and B of the solenoid as North or South pole and the justification for the answer. Select the row containing the correct identification of the ends A and B and the correct justification:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 26
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 27
Answer:
(d) End A of Solenoid: South Pole; End B of Solenoid: North Pole; Justification: By Right hand thumb rule, magnetic field is from B to A.

Explanation: The direction of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor is found by using Right Hand Thumb rule, which states that “Imagine that you are holding a current-carrying straight Conductor in your right hand such that the thumb points towards the direction of cur-rent. Then your fingers will wrap around the conductor in the direction of the field lines of the magnetic field”.

We find that the direction of magnetic field is from B to A and as we know that mag-netic field lines originate from North pole and terminate at south pole, we can say that B is North pole and A is South pole.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 28
Explanation: The magnetic field of a sole-noid increases when we insert an iron core because iron is a ferromagnetic material and ferromagnetic materials help in in-creasing the magnetic property.

(D) Where should a magnetic compass be placed in solenoid to get maximum de-flection in the magnetic compass?
(a) Inside the coil
(b) Near the North Pole
(b) Near the South Pole
(d) In the middle, just above the coil
(E) The magnetic field strength of a sole¬noid can be increased by inserting which of the following materials as the core?
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Iron
(d) Aluminium
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Question 12.
When Joy went to his friend’s place to complete the group task, he saw that several appliances were connected to the same electric supply point. He asked his friend to remove some of the appliances immediately.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 29
What is the danger if too many appliances are connected to the same electric socket?
Answer:
If too many appliances are connected to the same socket, it may lead to overloading due to which the live and neutral wires may come in contact and cause electric fires.

Question 13.
In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, the electron moves in a circular orbit around the proton. The electron passes by a particular point on the loop in a certain time, so we can calculate a current I = Q/t.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 30
through a circular wire. 1/Ve know that a current carrying conductor has a magnetic field associated with it. It is therefore reasonable to conclude that the hydrogen atom produces a magnetic field and interacts with other magnetic fields.

The figure shows the variation of the magnetic field along the axis of a circular loop with distance from the centre.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 31
(A) Select the correct statements regarding magnetic field produced in a hydrogen atom:
(I) Magnetic field is due to the electrostatic force of attraction between its electron and proton.
(li) Magnetic field is produced in a hydrogen atom as it has no neutron in its nucleus.
(lii) Current is produced in a Hydrogen atom as the electron orbits around the proton.
(IV) Magnetic field is produced in hydrogen atom as this is similar to current flowing through a circular
wire.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)

(B) Observe the graph between magnetic field along the axis of a circular loop with distance from the centre and select the correct option:
(a) The value of B increases exponentially with distance from the centre on either side of the loop.
(b) The value of B increases linearly with distance from the centre on either side of the loop.
(c) The value of B is minimum at the centre and it increases as we go away from the centre on either side of the loop.
(d) The value of B is maximum at the centre and it decreases as we go away from the centre on either side of the loop.
Answer:
(d) The value ofB is maximum at the centre and it decreases as we go away from the centre on either side of the Loop.

Explanation: As observed from the graph, the magnetic field along the axis of the circular Loop is maximum at z = 0 cm, which is the centre of the circular loop and decreases as we move away from the centre along the axis.

(C) Select the incorrect statement:
The magnetic field produced by a circular coil of n turns carrying current is:
(a) Inversely proportional to the radius of the circular loop.
(b) Directly proportional to the radius of the circular loop.
(c) Directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil.
(d) Directly proportional to the current in the coil.
Answer:
(a) Inside the loop: Downward; Outside the loop: Upward; Rule Applied: Right Hand Thumb Rule

Explanation: Applying Right hand thumb rule, we find that the direction of magnetic field inside the loop is in downward direction and in upward direction outside the loop.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 34

(D) Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the table. Let the current pass through the loop clockwise. Apply the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the magnetic field inside and outside the loop.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 32

(E) The diagram showing the correct direction of the magnetic field lines at point P and Q in the current carrying circular loop is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 33
Answer:

Question 14.
Meters, such as those in analog fuel gauges on a car, are common application of magnetic torque on a current-carrying loop. Figure below shows that a meter is very similar in construction to a motor. The torque is proportional to current I. A linear spring exerts a counter-torque that balances the current-produced torque. This makes the needle deflection proportional to I. If an exact proportionality cannot be achieved, the gauge reading can be calibrated.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 35
The graph below gives the variation of force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field and the magnitude of current.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 36
(A) The graph above shows that the force experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is:
(a) uniform.
(b) Increases linearly with current.
(c) Decreases linearly with current
(d) Reverses on reversing direction of current.
Answer:
(b) Increases Linearly with current.

The graph above shows that the force experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is:

Explanation: We observe that the graph between force and current is a straight Line which shows that the force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field increases linearly with the magnitude of current.

(B) The direction of force experienced by the current carrying loop in the above meter is given by:
(a) Right hand thumb rule
(b) Fleming’s Right hand rule
(c) Faraday’s law
(d) Fleming’s left hand rule
Answer:

(C) The magnitude of the force is the highest when the angle between the direction of current and the direction of magnetic field is:
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Answer:

(D) The relation between direction of current and the direction of force acting on a current carrying conductor when it is ptaced in a magnetic fieLd is:
(a) They are perpendicular to each other
(b) They are parallel to each other
(c) They are opposite to each other
(d) Cannot be predicted
Answer:
(a) They are perpendicular to each other

Explanation: The direction of force acting on a current carrying conductor, direction of current in the conductor and direction of magnetic field are mutually perpendicular to each other.

(E) Crosses x represent a uniform magnetic field directed into the paper. A conductor XY placed in the field carries current in Y to X direction.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 39
The direction of the force experienced by the conductor, direction of force if the direction of field and direction of current both are reversed and name of the rule applied are given below.
Select the row containing the correct directions of force and ruLe appLied.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 37
Answer:
(c) direction of force experienced by conductor : Downward, Downward; Rule Applied: fleming’s left hand rule.

Explanation: Applying Fleming’s left hand rule, we find that force acts in downward direction. When the direction of both current and magnetic field are reversed, direction of force will still be in downward direction.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Question 15.
DC Motor is a motor which converts DC power into rotary movement and so is the name Direct Current (DC) Motor. It works on the principle of energy conversion i.e. Electrical energy to Mechanical energy. Application of Voltage produces Torque which results in Motion. Internal view of this type of Motor is shown in the Fig. below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 38
It consists of four main components. They are: Stator, Rotor, Winding and Commutator
Stator: The outside part of a motor is called as Stator. It is composed of two or more permanent magnet pole pieces.
Rotor: The inner part of the motor which rotates is called as rotor. It is composed of armature winding which is connected to the external circuit through commutator. Similar to stator, rotor is also made up of ferromagnetic materials.
Winding: Winding consists of series or parallel connection of coils made of copper. Commutator: A commutator acts as a switch that reverses the direction of current between the rotor and external circuit.
(A) Select the incorrect statements regarding the components of a DC motor:
(I) Stator is the outside part of the motor and is composed of two or more permanent magnet pole pieces.
(II) Rotor is the outer part of the motor which rotates and is composed of armature winding.
(III) Winding consists of only parallel connection of coils made of copper.
(IV) Commutator acts as a switch that reverses the direction of current between the rotor and external circuit.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) Refer to the figure (b) above and select the row containing the correct directions of the force acting on arms PQ and RS :

Direction of Force acting on:
PQ RS
(a) Upwards  Downwards
(b) Upwards  Upwards
(c) Downwards  Downwards
(d) Downwards  Upwards

Answer:

(C) Which of the following rule is used to determine the direction of rotation of D.C motor?
(a) Faraday’s left hand rule
(b) Lenz’s Law
(c) Fleming’s Right-hand Rule
(d) Fleming’s Left-hand Rule
Answer:

(D) The role of commutator in DC motors is to:
(a) Reverse the direction of current after every half rotation of the coil.
(b) Reverse the direction of current one complete rotation of the coil.
(c) Maintain the same direction of current after one complete rotation of the coil.
(d) To reverse the direction of magnetic field after every half rotation of the coil.
Answer:

(E) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding commercial motors?
The commercial motors use:
(a) An electromagnet in place of a permanent magnet.
(b) A permanent magnet in place of an electromagnet.
(c) Large number of turns of the conducting wire in the current carrying coil.
(d) A soft iron core on which the coil is wound.
Answer:
(E) (b) A permanent magnet in place of an electromagnet.
Explanation: The commercial motors use an electromagnet in place of permanent magnet. Moreover, the soft iron core, on which the coil is wound, plus the coils, is called an armature. This enhances the power of the motor.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Question 16.
Generators are useful appliances that supply electrical power during a power outage and prevent discontinuity of daily activities or disruption of business operations. Generators have been a must-have item for vigilant business owners and homeowners for decades. And they’ve only grown more popular in recent years, thanks in part to their wide range of functions. Generators are synonymous with disaster preparedness and emergency use is one of their most common jobs. Generators’ usefulness during a natural disaster such as a hurricane or flood that knocks out power for days on end ranges from convenient to downright life-saving.

There are two main types of backup generators: AC (alternating current) and DC (direct current). AC and DC generators both use electromagnetic induction to generate electricity. However, the process they use is different. An AC generator creates an alternating current that periodically reverses direction. But in a DC generator, a direct current flows in one direction.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 40
(A) The rule to determine the direction of induced current in a coil is:
(a) Coulomb’s law
(b) Right hand rule
(c) Fleming’s left hand rule
(d) Fleming’s right hand rule
Answer:

(B) The following table shows the directions of motion of conductor, magnetic field and current in the Fleming’s right hand rule. Select the row containing the correct combination:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 41
Answer:
(a) Thumb: Motion of conductor; Forefinger: Magnetic field; Middle or Central Finger: Inducent Current

Explanation: Fleming’s right hand rule states that if you stretch the thumb,forefinger and middle finger of the right handmutually perpendicular to each other such thatthe forefinger gives the direction of magneticfield and the thumb points in the direction of themotion of a conductor then, the middle fingerwill give the direction of the induced current.

(C) Select the incorrect statements regarding electric generator:
(I) In an electric generator, electrostatic energy is used to rotate a conductor in a magnetic field to produce electricity.
(II) Electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
(III) Current is induced in a coil when a coil is rotated in an electric field.
(IV) Large current is induced if there are larger numbers of turns in the coil.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) The essential difference between an AC generator and a DC generator is that
(a) AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC generator has permanent magnet.
(b) DC generator will generate a higher voltage.
(c) AC generator will generate a higher voltage,
(d) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.
Answer:
(d) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.

Explanation: To get a direct current a split¬ring type commutator must be used. With this arrangement,one brush is at all times in contact with the arm moving up in the field,while the other is in contact with the arm moving down.Thus a unidirectional current is produced and the generatoris called a DC generator. Whereas, in AC generator, two rings are present.

(E) The meaning of the statement “Frequency of AC in India is 50 Hz” is:
(a) The AC changes direction after every 50 s
(b) The AC changes direction after every 100 s
(c) The AC changes direction after every 1/100 s
(d) The AC changes direction after every 1/50 s
Answer:
(c) The AC changes direction after every 1/100 s.

Explanation: Frequency is the number of complete oscillations in one second. Frequency of 50 Hz means that there are 50 complete oscillations in 1 second. As AC changes direction twice in one oscillation, it changes direction after every 1/100 s.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define the term induced electric current.
Answer:
Induced electric current: It is the current which is created due to the relative motion of coil or magnet. The induced current is found to be the highest when the direction of motion of the coil is at right angles to the magnetic field.

Related Theory
Oersted’s experiments showed that a current produces a magnetic field. Faraday discovered that a moving magnet can be used to generate electric currents.
Induced current is not like the one due to an electric cell.
In an electric cell, the chemical energy is converted into electric energy.
The phenomenon of generation of an electric current in a circuit from magnetic effects is called electro-magnetic induction.

Question 2.
The change in magnetic field lines in a coil is the cause of induced electric current in it. Name the underlying phenomenon.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Question 3.
What is the function of a galvanometer in a circuit?
Answer:
Galvanometer is an electromechanical instrument used to detect or indicate the presence of current by deflection in a circuit.
It consists of a pointer which can move along a scale with zero marked at its centre and is attached to a moving coil.

Related Theory
Depending on the direction of induced current given by Flemings, Right Fiand rule, the pointer of galvanometer can deflect to the right or left of the zero mark of the scale.

If no current is induced, the pointer remains at the centre of the scale, which reads 0.

Question 4.
Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet?
Answer:
The needle of a compass is a small magnet. When a compass needle is brought near a bar magnet, its magnetic field lines interact with that of the bar magnet and therefore the compass needle gets deflected.

Question 5.
A straight wire carrying electric current is moving out of a plane of paper and is perpendicular to it. What is the direction of the magnetic field?
Answer:

Question 6.
What happens when an iron core is inserted into a current carrying solenoid?
Answer:
When an iron core is inserted into a current carrying solenoid, strength of the magnetic field produced inside the solenoid increases and it forms an electromagnet.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Question 7.
Under what condition does a current carrying conductor kept in a magnetic field experience maximum force?
Answer:

Question 8.
What is indicated by crowding of magnetic field lines in a given region?
Answer:
The crowding of magnetic field lines in a given region indicates that the magnetic field is stronger in that region.

Question 9.
Why is current induced in the secondary coil when current is changed in the primary coil?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Physics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Acids, Bases and Salts Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Class 10 Science Chemistry Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

Chemistry Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQs On Acids, Bases and Salts

Acid Bases And Salts Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
What happens when the solution of an acid is mixed with the solution of a base in a test tube?
(I) The temperature of the solution increases
(II) The temperature of the solution decreases
(III) The temperature of the solution remains the same
(IV) Salt formation takes place
(a) Only (I)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I) and (IV)

Explanation: When an acid reacts with a base, a neutral salt is formed by the neutralisation process. As the neutralisation process is an exothermic reaction, the temperature of the solution increases.
Acid + Base → Salt + Water

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Acids Bases And Salts Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
If 10 mL of H2SO4 is mixed with 10 mL of Mg(OH)2 of the same concentration, the resultant solution will give the following colour with a universal indicator:
(a) Red
(b) Yellow
(c) Green
(d) Blue
Answer:
(c) Green.
Explanation: If 10 mL of H2SO4 is mixed with 10 mL of Mg(OH)2 of the same concentration, the resultant solution be MgS04 which is a neutral salt and universal indicator will give the green colour in this solution:
Class 10 Chapter 2 Science MCQ

Related Theory:
When an acid reacts with a base it forms salt and water. As a result, acidic properties disappear The process is called neutralisation. For a neutral solution. pH is 7. The solution having pH 7 wilL turn green in colour in universal indicator.
Acid Base And Salt MCQ Class 10

This online pH calculator is designed to determine the pH of an aqueous solution of a given chemical compound.

Class 10 Science Chapter 2 MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following saLts does not contain water of crystatUsatlon?
(a) Blue vitriol
(b) Baking soda
(c) Washing soda
(d) Gypsum
Answer:

Acid Base And Salts Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
A visually challenged student has to perform a lab test to detect the presence of acid in a given solution. The acid-base indicator preferred by him will be:
(a) Blue litmus
(b) Clove oil
(c) Red cabbage extract
(d) Hibiscus extract
Answer:
(b) Clove oil

A visually challenged student has to perform a lab test to detect the presence of acid in a given solution. The acid-base indicator preferred by him will be:

Explanation: Clove oil is an olfactory indicator. These are the substances that give one type of odour in an acidic medium so a visually challenged student prefers to use clove oil as an acid-base indicator.

As in basic solutions, the smell of clove oil disappears while the smell is retained when mixed with an acid, on the other hand, blue litmus, red cabbage extract and hibiscus extract wouLd not be used as acid-base indicators because in these indicators there will be a change in the colour.

Class 10 Acids Bases And Salts MCQ Question 5.
Baking soda is a mixture of:
(a) Sodium carbonate and acetic acid
(b) Sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
(c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
(d) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and acetic acid
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

MCQ Of Acid Base And Salts Class 10 Question 6.
Which of the following gives the correct increasing order of acid strength?
(a) Water < acetic acid < hydrochloric acid
(b) Water < hydrochloric acid < acetic acid
(c) Acetic acid < water < hydrochloric acid
(d) Hydrochloric acid < water < acetic acid
Answer:

Ch 2 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
What is observed when we pour a drop of acetic acid first on red and then on blue litmus papers?
(a) Red litmus paper becomes colourless and blue litmus paper remains blue.
(b) Red litmus paper turns blue and blue litmus paper remains blue.
(c) Red litmus paper remains red and blue litmus paper turns red.
(d) Red litmus paper turns blue and blue litmus paper turns red.
Answer:

Class 10 Science Ch 2 MCQ Question 8.
Sodium hydrogen carbonate when added to acetic acid evolves a gas. Which of the following statements are true about the gas evolved?
(I) It turns lime water milky.
(II) It extinguishes a burning splinter.
(III) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide.
(IV) It has a pungent odour.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I), (II) and (III)
(c) (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) (I), (II) and (III)

Explanation: Reaction of sodium hydrogen carbonate with acetic acid forms sodium acetate and water with carbon dioxide (CO2) gas.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 3
CO2 does not have a pungent smell but it shows all the other three properties:

  1. turns lime water milky,
  2. is a non-supporter of combustion and
  3. absorbed by strong alkalis such as NaOH.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chemistry Chapter 2 Question 9.
Common salt besides being used in the kitchen can also be used as the raw material for making:
(I) Washing soda
(II) Bleaching powder
(III) Baking soda
(IV)Slaked Urne
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I), (II) and (IV)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Acids Bases And Salts MCQ Question 10.
To protect against tooth decay we are advised to brush our teeth regularly. The nature of the toothpaste commonly used is:
(a) Acidic
(b) Neutral
(c) Basic
(d) Corrosive
Answer:
(c) Basic

Explanation: The toothpaste commonly used is alkaline or basic in nature as they contain mild bases such as sodium fluoride or sodium bicarbonate in their composition.

The base reacts with the acid formed during bacterial action in the mouth and neutralises its bad effects. Thus, preventing tooth decay. So, they can neutralize the effect of extra acids being formed in the mouth cavity which are mainly responsible for tooth decay.

Related Theory
When we eat sweet things, the pH of our mouth falls below 5.5 (moderately acidic) as the oral bacteria release acid while acting on sugars present in our food. The acidic conditions are capable of corroding the enamel which is made up of calcium phosphate. This causes the tooth to decay.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Question 11.
Match the chemical substances given in Column I with their appropriate application given in Column II:

Column I Column II
(A) Bleaching Powder (1) Preparation of glass
(B) Baking Soda (2) Production of H2 and Cl2
(C) Washing Soda (3) Decolourisation
(D) Sodium Chloride (4) Antacid

Answer:
MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 2

Chapter 2 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
Which of the following phenomena occur, when a small amount of acid is added to water?
(I) Ionisation
(II) Neutralisation
(III) Dilution
(IV)Salt formation
(a) (I) and (II)
(c) (II) and (III)
(b) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Class 10 Chemistry Chapter 2 MCQ Question 10.
To protect against tooth decay we are advised to brush our teeth regularly. The nature of the toothpaste commonly used is:
(a) Acidic
(b) Neutral
(c) Basic
(d) Corrosive
Answer:
(c) Basic

Explanation: The toothpaste commonly used is alkaline or basic in nature as they contain

Class 10 Acid Base And Salt MCQ Question 13.
A sample of soil is mixed with water and allowed to settle. The clear supernatant solution turns the pH paper yellowish-orange. Which of the following would change the colour of this pH paper to greenish-blue:
(a) Lemon juice
(b) Vinegar
(c) Common salt
(d) An antacid
Answer:
(d) An antacid

Explanation: pH paper gives greenish-blue colour in a weak alkaline medium so antacid [Mg(OH)2] which is an alkaline compound will show greenish-blue color on pH paper.

Related Theory
Lemon fruit contains citric acid, vinegar has acetic acid and common salt is the neutral salt the clear super natant solution turns the pH paper yellowish-orange means the given sample of soil is acidic so it can be neutralised by base/alkaline solution.

MCQ On Acids Bases And Salts Class 10 Question 14.
Which of the following is not a mineral acid?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Sulphuric acid
(d) Nitric acid
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Class 10 Chapter 2 Science MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following is/are true when HCl(g) is passed through water?
(I) It does not ionise in the solution as it is a covalent compound.
(II) It ionises in the solution.
(III) It gives both hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in the solution.
(IV) It forms hydronium ion in the solution due to the combination of hydrogen ion with water molecule.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (III)
(c) (II) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) (II) and (IV)

Explanation: HCl, is a polar covalent compound, easily ionises in water to form hydronium (H3O+) and chloride ions (Cl). HCl (a strong acid) ionises completely in water to produce H+ and Cl ions. H+ ion combines with water molecules to produce hydronium ions.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 5

Question 16.
Which among the following is not a base?
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) NH4OH
(d) C2H5OH
Answer:
(d) C2HsOH
Explanation: C2H5OH is not a base. C2H5OH is an organic compound with -OH functional group that is known as alcohol. It cannot give OH ions in its solution. It cannot dissociate ions in a solution. Thus, it cannot be a basic compound.

Question 17.
Identify the correct representation of reaction occurring during the chloralkali process.
(a) 2NaCl(l) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(l) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
(b) 2NaCl(l) + 2H2O(aq) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(aq)
(c) 2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(aq) + H2(aq)
(d) 2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
Answer:

Question 18.
Which of the following statements is true for acids?
(a) Bitter and change red litmus to blue.
(b) Sour and change red litmus to blue.
(c) Sour and change blue litmus to red.
(d) Bitter and change blue litmus to red.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 19.
Zinc granules on treating with an acid X, form zinc sulphate (ZnSO4) salt along with the evolution of a gas Y, which burns with a pop sound when brought near to a burning candle. Identify acid X and gas evolved Y.
(a) X-sulphuric acid and Y-oxygen gas
(b) X-hydrochloric acid and Y-oxygen gas
(c) X-sulphuric acid and Y-hydrogen gas
(d) X-hydrochloric acid and Y-hydrogen gas [Diksha]
Answer:
(c) X-sulphuric acid and Y-hydrogen gas

Explanation: When an acid reacts with a metal, hydrogen gas is liberated. In the given reaction, when dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules, hydrogen gas is liberated and zinc sulphate solution is formed:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 6
The presence of hydrogen gas is tested by bringing a lighted candle near it. When a lighted candle is brought near the test tube containing hydrogen gas, it burns with a ‘pop’ sound making a little explosion.

Hence, acid X is sulphuric acid and gas Y is hydrogen gas.

Question 20.
Which of the following solutions in water does not conduct electricity?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Glucose
(d) Sulphuric acid [Diksha]
Answer:
(c) Glucose

Explanation: The aqueous solution of an acid conducts electricity because of the presence of charged particles called ‘ions’ in it. When hydrochloric acid (HCl) is dissolved in water, its aqueous solution contains hydrogen ions (H+) and chloride ions (Cl). These ions carry electric currents. So, due to the presence of H+ and Cl ions, a solution of hydrochloric acid conducts electricity.

On the other hand, the hydrogen-containing compound such as glucose is not categorized as acid because it does not produce hydrogen ions or some other ions when dissolved in water and hence does not conduct electricity. Therefore, the answer is glucose.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 21.
Which of the following will turn phenolphthalein pink?
(a) NaOH(aq)
(b) HCl(aq)
(c) CH3COOH(aq)
(d) H2O
Answer:

Question 22.
Which one of the following is not a use of washing soda:
(a) Sodium carbonate (washing soda) is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
(b) It is used in the manufacture of sodium compounds such as borax.
(c) Sodium carbonate can be used as a clean¬ing agent for domestic purposes.
(d) It is used for disinfecting water.
Answer:
(d) It is used for disinfecting water.

Explanation: The compound that is used for disinfecting water is bleaching powder. How¬ever, washing soda is used for removing the permanent hardness of water.

Question 23.
The approximate pH values of four salts is given below. Select the row(s) containing the correct information.

Name of Salt PH
(I) Potassium Sulphate 10
(II) Ammonium nitrate 5
(III) Sodium acetate 3
(IV) Sodium hydrogen carbonate 8

(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 24.
Zinc granules on treating with a substance X, form a salt sodium zincate along with the evolution of a gas Y which burns with a pop sound when brought near a burning candle. Identify the substance X and gas evolved Y.

X Y
(a) Acetic acid Hydrogen
(b) Sodium hydroxide Hydrogen
(c) Sodium hydroxide Oxygen
(d) Zinc hydroxide Hydrogen

Answer:
(b) X is Sodium hydroxide and Y is hydrogen.

Explanation: When zinc granules react with sodium hydroxide, salt sodium zincate is formed along with hydrogen gas, which burns with a pop sound.

The equation of the reaction taking place is:
2NaOH(aq) + Zn(s) → Na2ZnO2(aq) + H2(g)

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 25.
Which of the following salts belong to the same family of salts?
(I) sodium chloride and sodium acetate
(II) calcium sulphate, magnesium sulphate
(III) sodium carbonate and sodium hydrogen -carbonate
(IV) sodium chloride and magnesium sulphate
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 26.
A student noted his observations regarding the acidic or basic nature of salts as below:
(I) Sodium chloride is a neutral salt
(II) Ammonium chloride is a basic salt
(III) Sodium carbonate is a neutral salt
(IV) Copper sulphate is an acidic salt Select the incorrect observations:
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: The salts of strong acids and strong bases give neutral solutions. Therefore, sodium chloride is a neutral salt as it is obtained from sodium hydroxide (a strong base) and hydrochloric acid (a strong acid).

The salts of strong acids and weak bases give acidic solutions. Therefore, ammonium chloride and copper sulphate are acidic salts as ammonium chloride is obtained from ammonium hydroxide (a weak base) and hydrochloric acid (a strong acid), and copper sulphate is obtained from copper hydroxide (a weak base) and sulphuric acid (a strong acid).

The salts of weak acids and strong bases give basic solutions. Therefore, sodium carbonate is a basic salt as it is obtained from carbonic acid (a weak acid) and sodium hydroxide(a strong base).

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 2

For the following questions, two statements are given – one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 27.
Assertion,(A): HCl gas does not change the colour of dry blue litmus paper.
Reason (R): Acids always produce hydrogen ions.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: HCl gas does not change the colour of dry litmus paper but changes colour of moist litmus paper as acids produce hydrogen ions only in solution.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 28.
Assertion (A): Generally, the colour of indicators changes in a particular pH range.
Reason (R): Indicators are weak acids or weak base and exhibit different colours in molecular form and ionic form.
Answer:
(a) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: Since indicators are weak acids or weak bases, their percentage of existence in molecular state and in ionized state depends on the strength of acidic/basic/neutral solution to which they are added. Hence their colours change at a particular pH range.

Question 29.
Assertion (A): Zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide solution and hydrogen gas is evolved.
Reason (R): All metals react with bases to evolve hydrogen gas.

Question 30.
Assertion (A): While diluting an acid, water is slowly added to acid with constant stirring.
Reason (R): The process of dissolving an acid in water is a highly exothermic reaction.

Question 31.
Assertion (A): Metal oxides are acidic in nature.
Reason (R): Calcium hydroxide reacts with carbon dioxide to form a salt and water.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation: The reaction of calcium hydroxide with carbon dioxide to form a salt and water is similar to the reaction between an acid and a base. Therefore, non-metal oxides are acidic in nature.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 32.
Assertion (A): When copper sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube, they turn white.
Reason (R): Water of crystallization is the number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Copper sulphate crystals that seem to be dry contain water of crystallisation. When we heat the crystals, this water is removed and the salt turns white.
CUSO4.5H2O → CuSO4 + 5H2O

Question 33.
Assertion (A): When copper oxide is added to dilute hydrochloric acid, the colour of the solution becomes blue-green.
Reason (R): Copper (II) chloride is formed.
Answer:
(a) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: When copper oxide is added to dilute hydrochloric acid, the colour of the solution becomes blue-green due to the formation of Copper (II) chloride, which is blue-green in colour.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
A chemistry student pLaced a strip of blue litmus paper and a strip of red litmus paper in a glass dish. Then she added a drop of dilute sulphuric acid to each strip of litmus paper. She observed that the blue litmus paper turned red, but the red litmus paper did not change color. Next, she placed a drop of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) on other strips of blue and red litmus paper. This time, the red litmus paper turned blue, but the blue litmus paper did not change. Finally, she put a drop of distilled water on strips of blue and red litmus paper. Neither strip changed color. She repeated the tests several times with the same results. The student concluded that acids turn blue litmus paper red; bases, such as sodium hydroxide, turn red litmus paper blue. As water did not affect either red or blue litmus paper, she reasoned that water was not an acid or a base, but a neutral substance.

Keeping these results in mind, the student poured a little sodium hydroxide into a beaker containing red and blue litmus paper. Then she added hydrochloric acid (HCl) drop by drop until the solution became neutral. She determined that a new, neutral substance had formed in the beaker. The substance was table salt, or sodium chloride (NaCl), which is one of many salts formed from an acid and a base.
(A) If a drop of an unknown substance turns blue litmus paper red, but does not change red litmus paper, what will be the substance – an acid or a base?
Answer:

(B) When strips of blue and red litmus paper are put in a beaker filled with a clear solution, neither litmus paper changes colour. What can you say about the solution?
Answer:
The solution must be neutral.

(C) Based on the results of this experiment, when would salt be formed?
Answer:

(D) What happens when nitric acid is added to egg shell?
Answer:
Calcium carbonate is main component of egg shell so when we add nitric acid to egg shell, it reacts with calcium carbonate to form soluble calcium nitrate and water with brisk effervescence of carbon dioxide gas.
CaCO3(s) + 2HNO3(aq) → Ca(NO3)2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O

Question 2.
When we smile, our teeth become visible. So, we should ensure that we have a beautiful set of teeth as it makes our smile even more beautiful! Tooth enamel is the thin outer covering of the tooth. This tough shell is the hardest tissue in the human body. Enamel covers the crown which is the part of the tooth that’s visible outside of the gums.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 7
Calcium phosphate is present in tooth enamel. Its nature is:
(a) Basic
(b) Acidic
(c) Neutral
(d) Amphoteric
Answer:
(a) Basic

Explanation: Calcium phosphate Ca3(PO4)2 is a basic salt, as it is formed by the combination of a weak acid (phosphoric acid) and a slightly stronger base (calcium hydroxide).
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 8

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 3.
Patrick read about an industrial process for the electrolysis of sodium chloride solutions.
It is the technology used to produce chlorine and sodium hydroxide which are commodity chemicals required by industry. 35 million tons of chlorine were prepared by this process in 1987. Industrial-scale production began in 1892. Usually, the process is conducted on a brine (an aqueous solution of NaCl), in which case NaOH, hydrogen, and chlorine are formed. When using calcium chloride or potassium chloride, the products contain calcium or potassium instead of sodium. Related processes are known that use molten NaCl to give chlorine and sodium metal or condensed hydrogen chloride to give hydrogen and chlorine.
(A) Name the process referred to in the above passage.
Answer:
The process referred to in the passage is chlor-alkali process because of the products formed – chlor for chlorine and alkali for sodium hydroxide.

(B) Where are the products of the above process produced?
Answer:

(C) Write the chemical equation for the reaction taking place in the process.
Answer:
The chemical equation for the reaction taking place is:
2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)

(D) How is bleaching powder prepared from one of the products formed in this industrial process?
Answer:

Question 4.
Neetu’s friend suffered a fracture in her foot while riding her bicycle. She had to be admitted to the nursing home and the doctor plastered her foot.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 9
The chemical formula for Plaster of Paris is:
(a) CaSO4.2H2O
(b) CaSO4.H2O
(c) CaSO4.\(\frac{1}{2}\)H2O
(d) 2CaSO4.H2O
Answer:
(c) CaSO4. \(\frac{1}{2}\) H2O

Explanation: Chemical name of Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate. It is written in this form because two formula units of CaSO4 share one molecule of water.

Related Theory
When gypsum is heated at 373K, it loses water molecules.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 10
It is a white powder used by doctors for supporting fractured bones. It is also used for making toys, materials for decoration and for making surfaces smooth.

Question 5.
Sabina studied in history about Mahatma Gandhi’s Dandi March and came to know that sodium chloride was an important symbol in our struggle for freedom. She started exploring from the internet as she was anxious to know what all we can do with this salt other than using it as a table salt to make food tasty. Table salt is also used to preserve food, facilitates transport of nutrients and oxygen and is used as raw material to form various salts.

Based on the understanding of the given passage and the related studied concepts, answer the following questions:
(A) Name two salts of daily use for which common salt (sodium chloride) is the raw material.
(B) Draw a diagram of chloralkali process and write its equation.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 6.
While performing experiments in chemistry lab, one should always wear a laboratory coat and be very careful while performing experiments. Some students have the bad habit of creating nuisance for other students which distracts the students and may cause serious accidents such as spilling of acid or can cause burn injuries.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 11
If a few drops of concentrated acid accidentally spills over the hand of a student, what should be done?
(a) Wash the hand with a saline solution
(b) Wash the hand immediately with plenty of water and apply a paste of sodium hydrogen carbonate
(c) After washing with plenty of water, apply a solution of sodium hydroxide on the hand
(d) Neutralise the acid with a strong alkali
Answer:
(b) Wash the hand immediately with plenty of water and apply a paste of sodium hydrogen carbonate

Explanation: In such an accident, washing the hands with water will dilute the acid and wash it out. Any remaining acid will be neutralized with sodium hydrogen carbonate (baking soda) as it is a base. This will minimize the effect of damage caused by acid to the skin.

Remember, too strong a base (like NaOH) can be corrosive.

Question 7.
Take about 2 mL of dilute NaOH solution in a test tube and a small amount of copper oxide in a beaker. Add two drops of phenolphthalein solution in the test tube. Add dilute HCl solution in both the test tube and the beaker drop by drop while stirring. Now add a few drops of NaOH to the mixture in the test tube.
(A) When two drops of phenolphthalein solution are added to the test tube,
(a) The solution turns pink in colour
(b) The solution turns colourless
(c) The solution turns red
(d) The solution turns yellow
Answer:
(a) The solution turns pink in colour

Explanation: Phenolphthalein is a colourless reagent which is used as an indicator as it changes the colour to pink in a basic solution. As dilute NaOH is a basic solution, its colour changes to pink on adding a few drops of phenolphthalein solution.

(B) @Four students recorded their observations on adding dilute HCL to the beaker containing copper oxide. Select the correct observation:

Student Observation-I Observation-II
(a) Solution becomes colourless Copper oxide dissolves
(b) Solution becomes blue-green in colour Copper oxide dissolves
(c) Solution becomes blue green in colour Copper oxide is formed as a precipitate
(d) Solution becomes colourless Copper chloride solution is colourless

Answer:

(C) Select the correct observation(s):
When dilute HCl solution is added to the test tube drop by drop (after adding two drops of phenolphthalein solution) and then a few drops of NaOH solution are added to this mixture:
(I) The solution turns coLourless on adding dilute HCl
(II) The solution turns pink on adding dilute HCl
(III) The solution turns colourless again on adding NaOH to the mixture.
(IV) The solution turns pink again on adding NaOH to the mixture
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Identify the option that correctly describes the products formed in the test tube and beaker on adding dilute HCl:

Test Tube Beaker
(a) Sodium chloride + hydrogen Copper chloride + hydrogen
(b) Sodium chloride + water Copper chloride + hydrogen
(C) Sodium chloride + hydrogen Copper chloride + water
(d) Sodium chloride + water Copper chloride + water

Answer:
(d) Test Tube: Sodium chloride + water; Beaker: Copper chloride + water

Explanation: The products formed in the test is sodium chloride and water and that in beaker is copper chloride and water.

When sodium hydroxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, it forms sodium chloride and water:
When copper oxide reacts with HCl, it forms copper chloride and water:
CuO(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CuCl2(aq) + H2O(l)

(E) Select the incorrect statement(s):
(I) Reaction of sodium hydroxide with dilute hydrochloric acid is a displacement reaction.
(II) Reaction of copper oxide with dilute hydrochloric acid is a double displacement reaction.
(III) Reaction of sodium hydroxide with dilute hydrochloric acid is a neutralization reaction.
(IV) Reaction of copper oxide with dilute hydrochloric acid is a neutralization reaction.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
Answer:
(a) Only (I)

Explanation: Reaction of sodium hydroxide with dilute hydrochloric acid is a neutralization reaction which is also a double displacement reaction as products are formed by the exchange of ions between the reactants.

Similarly, the reaction of copper oxide with dilute hydrochloric acid is also a neutralization reaction which is also a double displacement reaction.

Whereas in a displacement reaction, a more reactive substance displaces a less reactive substance from its compound as in the reaction between a metal such as zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 8.
Sumit along with his friend went to a nearby shopping mall. They were standing under a tree when an ant stung his friend on his hands due to which his friend’s hand was painting a lot.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 12
Name the acid along with its chemical formula present in ant sting.
Answer:
The acid present in ant sting is methanoic acid (formic acid). The chemical formula is HCOOH. Explanation: When an ant stings, it leaves formic acid (Methanoic acid) which causes pain and irritation. To get relief from the sting, mild base like baking soda can be applied on the stung.

Question 9.
Take about 1g solid NaCl in a clean and dry test tube and set up the apparatus as shown in Figure.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 13
Add some concentrated sulphuric acid to the test tube.
(A) The gas produced in the test tube is:
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Hydrogen chloride
(c) Hydrogen sulphide
(d) Sulphur dioxide
Answer:
(b) Hydrogen chioride
Explanation: When concentrated sulphuric acid is added to sodium chloride, the following reaction takes place:

2NaCl+ H2SO4→ Na2SO4 + 2HCl

(B) A student tested the gas coming out of the delivery tube first with dry blue litmus paper and then with wet litmus paper and noted down the following observations. Select the correct observation:

Dry Blue Litmus Paper Wet Blue Litmus Paper
(a) No change Turns red
(b) Turns red No change
(c) Turns red Turns red
(d) No change No change

Answer:

(C) If climate is humid, the gas evolved is passed through a guard tube containing:
(a) Calcium hydroxide
(b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Calcium sulphate
(d) Calcium chloride
Answer:
(d) Calcium chloride

Explanation: During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas, the gas is usually passed through the guard tube containing calcium chloride during humid climate, as calcium chloride is a good drying agent and absorbs moisture from the gas.

(D) Select the incorrect statement(s):
(I) Hydrogen ions in HCl are produced even in absence of water.
(II) Hydrogen ions can exist alone.
(III) Hydrogen ions exist after combining with water molecules.
(IV) Hydrogen ions in HCl are produced only in presence of water
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (II)
Explanation: The separation of H+ ions from HCl molecules cannot occur in the absence of water.
HCl +H2O → H3O+ + Cl
Hydrogen ions cannot exist alone, but they exist after combining with water molecules. Thus hydrogen ions must always be shown as H+(aq) or hydronium ion (H30+).
H+ + H2O → H3O+

(E) Hydrogen ions must always be shown as H+(aq) or hydronium ion (H30+) as:
(a) Hydrogen ions combine with water to form hydronium ions
(b) Hydrogen gas dissociates into ions.
(c) All acids dissociate into hydrogen ions in presence of a base.
(d) Hydrogen ions separate from acids on passing electricity.
Answer:

Question 10.
Acids and bases represent two important classes of chemical compounds. In every day life, acids and bases play a role in everything from the digestion of the foods you eat to the function of the medicine you take and even the cleaning products you use. Without acids and bases, many of the products in your home today would not have much use. Acids and bases are also important in atmospheric, geological, and physiological processes because they have unique chemical properties. Acids and bases have unique chemical properties because of the atomic composition of these compounds and how these compounds interact with other atoms and molecules.
The pH of some common substances is shown below:
(A) The nature of calcium phosphate present in tooth enamel is:
(a) Basic
(b) Amphoteric
(c) Acidic
(d) Neutral
Answer:

(B) What is the pH value of saliva after meal?
(a) between 0 and 4
(b) between 4 and 5
(c) between 5 and 6
(d) between 6 and 7
Answer:
(c) between 5 and 6

What is the pH value of saliva after meal?

Explanation: The pH of saliva after meals is around 5.8 due to the increased activity of bacteria on the food that we eat.

(C) Given below are four statements. Select the incorrect statement(s):
(I) Pain and irritation during indigestion is due to the excess acid produced by the stomach.
(II) People use antacids to get rid of this pain which are bases.
(III) Milk of magnesia is an antacid as it is a mild acid.
(IV) Antacids neutralize the excess acid produced in the stomach.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Only (III)

Explanation: Antacids are bases which help in getting rid of the pain and irritation during indigestion by neutralizing the excess acid produced in the stomach. Milk of magnesia or magnesium hydroxide is a mild base that is used as an antacid.

(D) The pH level of the human body is:
(a) Less than 7, acidic
(b) Equal to 7, Neutral
(c) More than 7, basic
(d) None of the above
Answer:

(E) A student tabulated the naturally occurring acidic substances and the acid contained in them.

Natural Source Acid found
(I) Vinegar Methanoic acid
(II) Nettle sting Acetic acid
(III) Tomato Oxalic acid
(IV) Orange Citric acid

Select the option containing the correct acid found in them:
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (III) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
Answer:
(b) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: Vinegar contains acetic acid, whereas nettle sting contains methanoic acid.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 11.
If you think the best way to put out a fire is by dousing it with water, you’d be surprised to know you’re wrong. As it turns out, not all fires are created equal, and there is more than one way to extinguish them safely. There are situations where you should not use water to deal with a fire at all. For example, an electrical fire.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 14
Name the chemicals used in acid fire extinguishers and the gas that evolved from it when it is used?
Answer:
The chemicals used in soda acid fire extinguishers are sodium hydrogen carbonate and sulphuric acid.
The gas evolved when the two reactants react is carbon dioxide which is used for extinguishing electrical fires.
The reaction taking place between the two chemicals is
2NaHCO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2CO2 + 2H2O

Question 12.
The reaction between MnO2 with HCl is depicted in the following diagram. It was observed that a gas with bleaching abilities was released.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 15
(A) The chemical reaction between MnO2 and HCl is an example of:
(a) displacement reaction
(b) combination reaction
(c) redox reaction
(d) decomposition reaction.
Answer:
(c) redox reaction

Explanation: When MnO2 reacts with HCl, the following reaction takes place in which chlorine gas is also evolved, which has bleaching properties.
MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O

In this reaction, Hydrochloric acid is oxidized to chlorine and Manganese dioxide is reduced to manganese dichloride. As both oxidation and reduction are taking place in this reaction, it is a redox reaction.

(B) Chlorine gas reacts with ……………… to form bleaching powder.
(a) dry Ca(OH)2
(b) dil. solution of Ca(OH)2
(c) cone, solution of Ca(OH)2
(d) dry CaO
Answer:
(a) dry Ca(OH)2
Explanation: Bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)2],
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O

(C) Identify the correct statement from the following:
(a) MnO2 is getting reduced whereas HCl is getting oxidized
(b) MnO2 is getting oxidized whereas HCl is getting reduced.
(c) MnO2 and HCl both are getting reduced.
(d) MnO2 and HCl both are getting oxidized.
Answer:
(a) Mn02 is getting reduced whereas HCl is getting oxidized.
Explanation: In the reaction between
MnO2 and HCl, MnO2 is getting reduced to manganese dichloride as it is losing oxygen atoms. Whereas, HCl is getting oxidized to chlorine by the removal of oxygen.

Related Theory
Oxidation is the addition of oxygen to a substance or the removal of hydrogen from a substance.
Reduction is the addition of hydrogen to a substance or removal of oxygen from a substance.
The oxidising agent is the substance that provides oxygen for oxidation or which removes hydrogen.
Reducing agent is the substance which provides hydrogen for reduction or which removes oxygen.

(D) In the above-discussed reaction, what is the nature of MnO2?
(a) Acidic oxide
(b) Basic oxide
(c) Neutral oxide
(d) Amphoteric oxide
Answer:
(b) Basic oxide
Explanation: As MnO2 reacts with HCl to form salt, water and chlorine gas, it is a basic oxide since it reacts with an acid. Moreover, oxides of metals are basic in nature whereas oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature.

(E) What will happen if we take dry HCl gas instead of aqueous solution of HCl?
(a) Reaction will occur faster.
(b) Reaction will not occur.
(c) Reaction rate will be slow
(d) Reaction rate will remain the same.
Answer:
(b) Reaction wiil not occur

Explanation: A substance shows its acidic properties only in presence of water as it is able to dissociate into H+ ions, which is responsible for its acidic properties.

So, if we use dry HCl, then no reaction will take place as HCl will not be able to dissociate into ion$ as shown by the following reaction:
HCl + H2O H3O+ + Cl

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 13.
Frothing in Yamuna:
The primary reason behind the formation of the toxic foam is high phosphate content in the wastewater because of detergents used in dyeing industries, dhobi ghats and households. Yamuna’s pollution level is so bad that parts of it have been labelled ‘dead’ as there is no oxygen in it for aquatic life to survive.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 16
(A) Predict the pH value of the water of river Yamuna if the reason for froth is high content of detergents dissolved in it.
(a) 10-11
(b) 5-7
(c) 2-5
(d) 7
Answer:
(a) 10-11

Explanation: Detergents are basic in nature having pH value of 10-11. As the froth has a high content of detergents dissolved in it, the pH value of water of river Yamuna will be 10 -11.

(B) Which of the following statements is correct for the water with detergents dissolved in it?
(a) low concentration of hydroxide ion (OH)and high concentration of hydronium ion (H3O+)
(b) high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH) and low concentration of hydronium ion (H3O+)
(c) high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH) as well as hydronium ion (H3O+)
(d) equal concentration of both hydroxide ion (OH) and hydronium ion (H3O+).
Answer:
(b) high concentration of hydroxide ion (OH) and low concentration of hydronium ion (H3O+)

Explanation: As detergents are basic in nature, the concentration of hydroxide ions will be high and the concentration of hydronium ions will be less.

Related Theory
When bases are dissolved in water, they dissociate into hydroxide ions.
For example, NaOH(aq) → Na+(aq) + CH(aq)
KOH(aq) → K+(aq) + OH(aq)

(C) The table provides the pH value of four solutions P, Q, R and S

Solution PH Value
P 2
Q 9
R 5
S 11

Which of the following correctly represents the solutions in increasing order of their hydronium ion concentration?
(a) P > Q > R> S
(b) P > S > Q > R
(c) S < Q < R< P
(d) S < P < Q < R
Answer:
(c) S < Q < R. < P

Explanation: The pH of a substance is related to the concentration of hydrogen or hydronium ions. An acid has a high concentration of hydronium ions and a low pH value whereas a base has a high pH value and a low concentration of hydronium ions.

So, we can say, lower the pH value, the more is the concentration of hydronium ions. Therefore, the hydronium ion concentration is least in S, followed by Q, R and then P which has the maximum concentration of hydronium ions.

(D) High content of phosphate ion in river Yamuna may lead to:
(a) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and increased growth of algae
(b) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and no effect of the growth of algae
(c) increased level of dissolved oxygen and increased growth of algae
(d) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and decreased growth of algae
Answer:
(a) decreased level of dissolved oxygen and increased growth of algae

Explanation: When the amount of phosphate ions in water increases, it leads to decreased level of dissolved oxygen which is harmful for the aquatic organisms. This leads to an increased growth of algae due to presence of nutrients.

Related Theory
Eutrophication is the process in which a water body becomes overly enriched with nutrients, leading to plentiful growth of simple plant life. The excessive growth (or bloom) of algae and plankton in a water body are indicators of this process.

(E) If a sample of water containing detergents is provided to you, which of the following methods will you adopt to neutralize it?
(a) Treating the water with baking soda
(b) Treating the water with vinegar
(c) Treating the water with caustic soda
(d) Treating the water with washing soda
Answer:
(b) Treating the water with vinegar

Explanation: As detergents are basic in nature, an acid will neutralize it. Out of the substances mentioned, only vinegar is acidic, as it is 5 – 8% solution of ethanoic acid in water.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What types of ions are formed: (a) when an acid is dissolved in water (b) when a base is dissolved in water?
Answer:

Question 2.
‘A’ is a soluble acidic oxide and ‘B’ is a soluble base. Compared to pH of pure water, what will be the pH of (a) solution of A (b) solution of B?
Answer:
pH of pure water is 7. As A is a soluble acid, its pH will be less than that of pure water whereas pH of B will be more than that of pure water as it is a soluble base.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 3.
When electricity is passed through a common salt solution, sodium hydroxide is produced along with the liberation of two gases “X” and “Y”. “X” burns with a pop sound whereas “Y” is used for disinfecting drinking water. Identify X and Y.
Answer:
The reaction is chlor-alkali process. As X burns with a pop sound, X is hydrogen gas. Y is chlorine gas which is used for disinfecting drinking water.

Question 4.
Which bases are called alkalis? Give one example of alkali.
Answer:
The bases that are soluble in water are called alkalies. One example of an alkali is sodium hydroxide, NaOH.

Question 5.
Name the acid and base that have com stituted the salt ammonium nitrate
Answer:

Question 6.
Oxides of metals are basic while those of non-metals are acidle, Explain.
Answer:
Oxides of metals are basic as they react with acids to produce salt and water.
CuO + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2O
Oxides of non-metals are acidic as they react with bases to produce salt and water.
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O

Question 7.
Write a balanced chemical eauatin for the renction between sodium carbonals and hydrochloric acid indicating the physical state of reactions and the products.
Answer:
The balanced equation for the reaction between sodium carbonate and hydrochloric acid is given below:
Na2CO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → 2NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

Question 8.
Give reasons for the following:
(A) Only one half of water molecule is shown in the formula of Plaster of Paris.
(B) Sodium hydrogen carbonates is used as an antacid.
(C) On strong heating, blue coloured copper sulphate crystals turn white.
Answer:

Question 9.
A student prepared solutions of (I) an acid and (II) a base in two separate beakers. She forgot to label the solutions and litmus paper is not available in the laboratory. Since, both the solutions are colourless, how will she distinguish between the two?
Answer:
In the absence of litmus, other natural or synthetic substances can be used to test acid and bases. Such substances are called indicators. Indicators such as methyl orange and phenolphthalein can be used to test the nature of a solution.

These indicators show change in their colour in acidic, neutral and basic solutions. We can also use natural indicators such as turmeric and grape juice. A few indicators with characteristic colour change are shown below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 17

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 10.
Fill in the missing data in the given table.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 18
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 19
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers 20
1. Acid: HCl
NH4OH + HCl → NH4Cl + H2O

2. Formula: CuSO4 and base: Cu(OH)2
H2SO4 + Cu(OH)2 → CuSO4 + 2H2O

3. Acid: HCl
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O

4. Base: Mg(OH)2
Mg(OH)2 + 2HNO3 → Mg(NO3)2 + 2H2O

5. Base: KOH and Acid: H2SO4
2KOH + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2H2O

6. Acid: HNO3
Ca(OH)2 + 2HNO3 → Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O

Question 11.
How is washing soda prepared from sodium carbonate? Give its chemical equation. State the type of this salt. Name the type of hardness of water that can be removed by it?
Answer:

Question 12.
(A) You are given two solutions A and B and their pH is 6 and 8 respectively. Answer the following:
(i) Which of the two solutions have more hydrogen ion concentration?
(ii) Which is acidic and which is basic?
Answer:
pH of solution A = 6 pH of solution B = 8
(i) Solution A will have a higher hydrogen ion concentration. Explanation: We know that the pH of any solution is inversely proportional to the hydrogen ion concentration. This means that the solution that has lower pH number will have the higher hydrogen ion concentration.

(ii) Also solution A is acidic and solution B is basic because H+ ion concentration is higher in acidic solution.

(B) What is dilution?
Answer:
Mixing an acid or base with water results in decrease in concentration of ions (H3O+/ OH) per unit volume. Such process is called dilution and the acid or base is said to be dituted. The process of dissolving an acid or a base in water is a highly exothermic reaction.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 13.
Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is added to test tube B. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
Answer:

Question 14.
Crystals of a substance changes their color on heating in a closed vessel but regained it after sometime, when they were allowed to cool down.
(A) Name one such substance.
Answer:
One such substance whose crystals changes its colour from blue to white on heating in a closed vessel for some time is hydrated copper sulphate, CuSO4.5H2O.

(B) Explaain the phenomenon involved.
Answer:
Hydrated salts contain molecules of water known as water of crystallization. When such crystals are heated in a closed container, they lose their water of crystallization and hence change of colour is observed.

Related Theory:
When a salt which has lost its water of crystallization due to heating is left to cool down, it absorbs moisture from air and regains its water of crystallisation and thus, also its color.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts with Answers

Question 15.
The pH of the mouth of a person is lower than 5.5. What changes will occur in EMB his mouth? How these changes can be controlled? Write any two measures.
Answer:
When the pH of the mouth of a person is lower than 5.5, the acid produced by the action of bacteria on sugar and food particles in mouth corrodes even the tooth enamel which is made up of calcium phosphate. This leads to dental caries and tooth decay.

These changes can be controlled by the following measures:

  1. By using tooth pastes, which are generally basic in nature, as they can neutralize the excess acid produced in the mouth and hence help in preventing tooth decay.
  2. By regular brushing of teeth twice a day and especially after eating sweets and chocolates.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Chemistry MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Metals and Non-metals Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Class 10 Science Chemistry Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers

Chemistry Class 10 Chapter 3 MCQs On Metals and Non-metals

Metals And Non Metals Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following properties is generally not shown by metals?
(a) Electrical conduction
(b) Sonorous in nature
(c) Dullness
(d) Ductility
Answer:
(c) Dullness

Explanation: Metals generally do not show dullness. Metals such as gold and silver are usuaLly shiny rather than dull.

Related Theory:
Conduction: Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity as they have free electrons. Silver and copper are the best conductors of heat, whereas lead and mercury are poor conductors of heat. Sonorous: Metals that produces a sound on striking a hard surface.

Metallic lustre: Metal, in its pure state, has a shining surface. This property is known as metallic lustre. Ductility: The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wires. Cold is the most ductile metal.

Metal And Non Metals Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
The solution of one of the following compounds will not conduct electricity. This compound is:
(a) NaCl
(b) CCl4
(c) MgCl2
(d) CaCl2
Answer:

Metals And Nonmetals Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Which one of the following metals does not react with cold as well as hot water?
(a) Na
(b) Ca
(c) Mg
(d) Fe
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Class 10 Metals And Non Metals MCQ Question 4.
An aluminium strip is kept immersed in freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution taken in a test tube, the change observed is that:
(a) Green solution slowly turns colourless
(b) Lower end of test tube becomes slightly warm
(c) A colourless gas with the smell of burning sulphur is observed
(d) Light green solution changes to blue
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 3 MCQ Question 5.
Which of the following oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on the prolonged reaction of iron with steam?
(a) FeO
(b) Fe2O3
(c) Fe3O4
(d) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4
Answer:
(c) Fe3O4

Metals And Non Metals MCQ Question 6.
What happens when calcium is treated with water?
(I) It does not react with water.
(II) It reacts violently with water.
(III) It reacts Less violently with water.
(IV) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium.
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (II)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (III) and (IV)

Explanation: When calcium is treated with water, it reacts vigorously with water and to produce a cloudy white precipitate of calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas is released as bubbles.
Metals And Non Metals MCQ Class 10

‘Related Theory
Sometimes hydrogen bubbles get stuck to the surface of calcium metaL making it tight arid thus calcium starts floating. Reaction of calcium with water is exothermic but the heat produced in this reaction is not sufficient so that hydrogen can catch

Ch 3 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
Which of the foLLowing are not ionic compounds?
(I) KCl
(II) HCl
(III) CCl4
(IV) NaCl
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (III)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Class 10 Science Ch 3 MCQ Question 8.
Generally, non-metals are not Lustrous. Which of the following non-metals is lustrous?
(a) Sulphur
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Iodine
Answer:
(d) Iodine

Explanation: Iodine is a non-metal with a lustrous appearance and exists in solid state.

Related Theory
Graphite is another non-metaL that is shiny and Lustrous.

MCQ On Metals And Non Metals Class 10 Question 9.
2 mt each of conc. HCL, HNO3, and a mixture of conc. HCL and conc. HNO3 in the ratio of 3:1 were taken in test tubes labelled as A, B and C. A small piece of metal was put in each test tube. No change occurred in test tubes A and B but the metaL got dissolved in test tube C. The metal could be:
(a) Al
(b) Au
(c) Cu
(d) Pt

Metal And Non Metals MCQ Class 10 Question 10.
An element A is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot be kept ¡n open air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the following:
(a) Mg
(b) Na
(c) P
(d) Co
Answer:
(b) Na

Explanation: Na (sodium) possesses all the above properties. It is too soft and can be cut with a knife. It is also very reactive and reacts with oxygen or moisture present in air and produces sodium hydroxide, which is a highly exothermic reaction producing a lot of heat. It also reacts with water and burns due to the vigorous formation of hydrogen gas. That is why sodium is stored in kerosene oil to prevent any reaction.

MCQ On Metals And Non Metals Question 11.
Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?
(a) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame.
(b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(c) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(d) It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evoLves hydrogen gas.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Metal And Non Metal Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are X – 2, 8; Y – 2, 8, 7 and Z – 2, 8, 2. Which of the following ¡s correct?
(a) X is a metal
(b) Y is a metaL
(c) Z ¡s a non-metal
(d) Y is a non-metaL and Z is a metaL

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Question 13.
In the given reaction,
Al2O3 + NaOH → X + H2O.
What is element X?
(a) NaAlO2
(b) Na3Al
(c) Na2O3
(d) NaAl2O3 [Diksha]

MCQ Of Metal And Nonmetal Class 10 Question 14.
Sandhya took three beakers A, B and C containing zinc sulphate, silver sulphate and iron(ll) sulphate solutions respectively. Copper pieces were added to each beaker. The solution will appear blue in the case of:
(a) Beaker A
(b) Beaker B
(c) Beaker C
(d) Beakers B and C [Diksha]
Answer:
(b) Beaker B

Explanation: The solution will appear blue in Beaker B. Let us see how.

When pieces of copper metal are kept immersed in silver sulphate solution for some time, the solution gradually becomes blue and a shiny greyish-white deposit of silver metal is formed on the copper strip.

In this reaction, copper metal is displacing silver from silver sulphate solution, forming copper sulphate and silver metal. The solution becomes blue due to the formation of copper sulphate. The reason behind this displacement reaction is that copper is more reactive than silver.
Chapter 3 Science Class 10 MCQ
On the other hand, copper metal is less reactive than iron and zinc and hence cannot displace them from their respective salt solutions.

Chapter 3 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Arrange the following metal in the decreasing chemical activity series.
(I) Potassium
(II) Magnesium
(III) Gold
(IV) Iron
Correct options are:
(a) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
(b) (I), (III), (IV) and (II)
(c) (I), (II), (IV) and (III)
(d) (I), (IV), (II) and (III)

Question 16.
Which metal can be displaced by copper from Its salt solution?
(I) Silver
(II) Magnesium
(III) iron
(IV) Iron
Correct options are:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (II) and (III)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I) and (IV)

Silver and mercury are less reactive than copper and as copper will displace those metals from its salt solution which are less reactive than it, the correct option is (d).

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 17.
Metals are refined by using different methods. Which of the following metals are refined by electrolytic refining?
(I) Au
(II) Cu
(III) Na
(IV) K
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (IV) and (III)
(c) (II) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) (I) and (II)

Explanation: Gold (Ag) and copper (Cu) obtained after extraction are in impure form. So, metals Au (gold) and Cu (copper) are refined by electrolytic refining. Other than gold and copper, electrolytic refining is used for metals such as Zn and Ag. Sodium (Na) and potassium (K) are extracted by electrolytic reduction. Metals obtained after electrolytic reduction are in pure form.

Related Theory
Alkali metals are very reactive, so they cannot be refined with the help of the electrolytic refining process.

Question 18.
Galvanisation is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating it with a thin layer of:
(a) Gallium
(b) Aluminium
(c) Zinc
(d) Silver
Answer:
(c) Zinc

Explanation: Zinc (Zn) metal is used to protect iron surfaces from rusting.

Related Theory
Galvanization is basically coating iron or steel with a layer of zinc to prevent it from rusting. Water pipes are also galvanized to prevent corrosion.

Question 19.
Stainless steel is a very useful material in our life, in stainless steel, iron is mixed with:
(a) Mi and Cr
(b) Cu and Cr
(c) Mi and Cu
(d) Cu and Au
Answer:
(a) Ni and Cr

Explanation: Stainless steel is an alloy of iron (74%), nickel (8%) and chromium (18%).

Related Theory
‘Alloying elements enhance the structure and properties such as durability, strength and toughness of the metal. It makes them corrosion-resistant.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 20.
If copper is kept in the open air, it slowly loses its shining brown surface and gains a green coating. It is due to the formation of:
(a) CuSO4
(b) CuCO3
(c) CU(NO3)2
(d) CuO
Answer:

Question 21.
Which of the following metals are obtained by electrolysis of their chlorides in a molten state?
(I) Na
(II) Ca
(III) Fe
(IV) Cu
(a) (I)and(IV)
(b) (III) and (IV)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (I) and (II)
Answer:

Question 22.
An electrolytic cell consists of:
(I) Positively charged cathode
(II) Negatively charged anode
(III) Positively charged anode
(IV) Negatively charged cathode
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (III) and (IV)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) (III) and (IV)

Explanation: There is a positively charged anode and a negatively charged cathode in an electrolytic cell. Positively charged ions (cations) are deposited at the negatively charged cathode. Negatively charged ions (anions) are deposited at the positively charged anode.

Question 23.
During electrolytic refining of zinc, it gets:
(a) Deposited on the cathode
(b) Deposited on the anode
(c) Deposited on the cathode as well as anode
(d) Remains in the solution
Answer:

Question 24.
Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a metal or non-metal. Which among the following alloys contains non-metal as one of its constituents?
(a) Brass
(b) Bronze
(c) Amalgam
(d) Steel
Answer:
(d) Steel

Explanation: SteeL contains non-metal as one of its constituents. Steel is an alloy made by combining iron and other elements, mainly carbon. Carbon gives strength to iron. It is used to make buildings, ships, automobiles, machines, and appliances.

Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a metal or non-metal. Which among the following alloys contains non-metal as one of its constituents?

Related Theory

  • Brass – Copper and zinc
  • Bronze – Copper and tin
  • Amalgam – Mercury with other metal
  • Steel – Iron with carbon

Question 25.
Which among the following alloys contains mercury as one of its constituents?
(a) Stainless steel
(b) Alnico
(c) Solder
(d) Zinc amalgam
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 26.
Which one of the following figures correctly describes the process of electrolytic refining?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 3
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 4

Explanation: In the electrolytic refining process, impure metal forms the anode, which is the positive electrode, whereas pure metal forms the cathode which is the negative electrode.

Figure (c) shows the process of electrolytic refining of copper metal. Copper from impure anode dissolves into the solution. Copper ions (Cu2+) from the solution are deposited on the cathode and impurities settle down below the anode as anode mud.

Question 27.
Select the incorrect statements):
(I) Solder is an alloy of lead and copper
(II) Solder is an alloy of lead and tin
(III) Melting point of solder is low
(IV) Melting point of solder is high
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 28.
All ionic compounds:
(a) Have high melting point but the low boiling point
(b) Are generally soluble in kerosene
(c) Are generally brittle
(d) Conduct electricity in solid-state
Answer:

Question 29.
The cations and anions present in aluminium oxide are:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 5
Answer:
(b) Cation: Al37; Anion: O2-

Explanation: Aluminium oxide or Al2O3 is formed by the transfer of electrons from aluminium atoms to oxygen atoms.

Aluminium (Atomic number = 13) has 3 valence electrons whereas oxygen (atomic number = 8) has 2 valence electrons.

So, each aluminium atom donates its 3 valence electrons to the oxygen atoms and forms cations [Al3+], whereas each oxygen atom gains two electrons and forms anions [O2-].
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 6

Question 30.
The metals which have very low melting points are:
(a) Gallium and caesium
(b) Gallium and sodium
(c) Caesium and potassium
(d) Sodium and potassium

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 3

For the following questions, two statements are given – one labelled Assertion (A) and other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 31.
Assertion (A): Alkali metals like sodium and potassium can be cut with a knife.
Reason (R): They have high densities.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: Alkali metals like sodium and potassium are so soft that they can be cut with a knife as they have low densities.

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Magnesium is less reactive than sodium.
Reason (R): Sodium reacts more vigorously with oxygen than magnesium.
Answer:

Question 33.
Assertion (A): In the following reaction between calcium and water, calcium starts floating.
Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2
Reason (R): Calcium hydroxide is lighter than water.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: In the reaction between calcium and water, calcium starts floating because the bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium metal.

Question 34.
Assertion (A): Hydrogen gas is evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid.
Reason (R): Nitric acid is a strong oxidizing agent.
Answer:

Question 35.
Assertion (A): The compound MgCl2 will not conduct electricity in a solid-state.
Reason (R): Movement of ions in ionic compounds is not possible in solid-state.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are. true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation; The compound MgCl2 is an ionic compound as it is formed by the transfer of electrons between magnesium and chlorine. It will not conduct electricity in solid-state as the movement of ions in ionic compounds is not possible in a solid-state.

Question 36.
Assertion (A): The metals and alloys are good conductors of electricity.
Reason (R): Bronze Is an alloy of copper and tin and it is not a good conductor of electricity.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Explanation: All the metals and alloys are not always good conductors of electricity like bronze is not a good conductor of electricity, its constituents are copper and tin. Copper is a good conductor whereas tin is not a good conductor of electricity. Alloy nichrome is a good conductor of electricity.

Related Theory

  • Metals are good conductors of electricity because they.
  • have a large number of free electrons.
  • Possess small resistivity in the range of 10-8 W m to 10-6 W m. Whereas alloys have more resistivity.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
The exact date that humans first began to mine gold is unknown, but some of the oldest known gold artefacts were found in the Varna Necropolis in Bulgaria. The graves of the necropolis were built between 4700 and 4200 BC, indicating that gold mining could be at least 7000 gears old. In the area of the Kolar Gold Fields in Bangarpet Taluk, Kolar District of Karnataka state, India, gold was first mined prior to the 2nd and 3rd century AD by digging small pits. (Golden objects found in Harappa and Mohenjo-daro have been traced to Kolar through the analysis of impurities — the impurities include 11% silver concentration, found only in KGF ore.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 7
In nature, aluminium is found in a combined state whereas silver/gold is found in Freestate. Give reason.
Answer:
Silver and gold are least reactive metals and are often found in their native or free state. Aluminium is a very reactive metal and is never found in free state, but in combined state.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 2.
Dhanteras, also known as Dhanatrayodashi, is the first day that marks the festival of Diwali in India. Dhanteras is the worship of lord Dhanvantari. Fundus considers this an extremely auspicious day for making new purchases, especially of gold or silver articles and new utensils. It is believed that new “Dhan” (wealth} or some item made of precious metal is a sign of good. luck. In modern times, Dhanteras has come to be known as the most: auspicious occasion for buying gold, silver, and other metals, especially kitchenware. Palak, along with her mother, purchased some kitchenware articles made of stainless steel on this occasion.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 8
How does alloying of iron change its properties?
Answer:
Pure iron is very soft arid stretches easily when hot but if iron ismixed with a small amount of carbon (about 0.05 %), it becomes hardand strong. When iron is mixed with nickel and chromium, we getstainless steel, which is hard and does not rust. Thus, if iron is mixedwith some other substance, its properties change.

Question 3.
Have you ever imagined what would happen if all the electrical wires used in our homes, offices and other places were without any covering? Well, people handling them would die of electrical chock and there would be short-circuiting leading to electrical fires all around us!
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 9
Electrical wires have a coating of an insulating material. The material, generally used is:
(a) Sulphur
(b) Graphite
(c) PVC
(d) All can be used
Answer:
(c) PVC

Explanation: An insulating substance is required to coat the electrical wire such as PVC, PVC is a polymer and a bad conductor of electricity, it is the most common insulating material used to insulate electrical conductors from electric charge, thus preventing direct human contact with electricity.

Graphite is a good conductor of electricity. Hence, it cannot be used as insulating material. Sulphur, although a bad conductor of electricity, is brittle in nature. So, it cannot be used as an insulating material.

Question 4.
Analyse the following reactivity series given below and answer the questions that follow:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 10
(A) Which of the two metals is more reactive: copper or silver?
Answer:

(B) What will happen if a strip of zinc is immersed in o solution of copper sulphate?
Answer:
When a strip of zinc metal is put in copper sulphate solution, then the blue colour of copper sulphate solution fades gradually and red-brown coating of copper is deposited on zinc strip.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 11
This is an example of displacement reaction.

Explanation: Zinc is more reactive than copper so it will displace copper from its salt solution so displacement reaction takes place.

(C) If copper is kept open in air, it slowly Loses its shining brown surface and gains a green coating. It is due to the formation
(a) Acidic CuSO4
(b) Basic CuCO3
(c) Acidic Cu(NO3)2
(d) Basic CuO
Answer:

(D) Which one of the following four metals would be displaced from the soLution of its softs by other three metals?
(a) Mg
(b) Ag
(c) Zn
(d) Cu
Answer:
(b) Ag

Explanation: Least reactive metal can be displaced from its solution by other three metals. Silver is least reactive out of the given four metals.

Related Theory
Basic copper carbonate is an undesired layer formed on the surface of the copper and the process is known as corrosion.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 5.
Aqua regia is a yellow-orange (sometimes red) fuming liquid, so named by alchemists because it can dissolve the noble metals gold and platinum, though not all metals.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 12

The composition of aqua-regia is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 13
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 14
Explanation: Aqua-regia is a mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concen¬trated nitric acid in the ratio of 3:1. Aqua-regia, being a strong acid, dissolves gold.

Question 6.
Atoms that gain electrons and therefore have a net negative charge are known as anions. Conversely, atoms that lose electrons and therefore have a net positive charge are called cations. Cations tend to be metals, while anions tend to be non-metals. Ions may also be single atoms or multiple, complex groups of atoms. When we talk about ions, it’s true that opposites attract.

The opposite negative and positive charges of the ions hold together in ionic bonds, forming ionic compounds, which are just what they sound like: compounds made of ions. The loss or gain from one atom matches the loss or gain of the other, so one atom essentially ‘donates’ an electron to the other atom it pairs up with. Two positive or two negative ions will not join together because they have the same charge. But one positive and one negative will happily join together to make an ionic compound.
(A) Explain the formation of MgO. (Atomic No. of O = 8, Mg = 12).
Answer:
Electronic configuration of Mg: 2, 8, 2 and that of O: 2, 6.
Magnesium atom loses its two valence electrons to form Mg2+ ion and oxygen atom gains two electrons to form O2 ion thereby achieving their nearest inert gas configuration.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 15

(B) Will the aqueous solution of MgO conduct electricity? If yes, give reasons for your answer?
Answer:

(C) Name a solvent in which ionic compounds are soluble and a solvent in which they are insoluble.
Answer:
Ionic compounds are soluble in water and insoluble in kerosene.

(D) Why do ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 7.
When Rohan was suffering from fever, the doctor had asked his parents to check his temperature every 2 hours and also to keep a record. He was a thermometer that has a certain metal in a liquid state inside it
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 16
Generally, metals are soLid in nature. Which one of the following metals is found in Liquid state at room temperature?
(a) Na
(b) Fe
(c) Cr
(d) Hg
Answer:
(d) Hg

Explanation: At room temperature, mercury (Hg) is the only metal found in a liquid state.

Related Theory
All other metals are solid at room temperature. Hg also has the lowest melting point.

Question 8.
Collect the samples of the following metals aluminium, copper, iron, lead, magnesium, zinc and sodium. Hold each of the samples above with a pair of tongs and try burning over a flame. It would be better if students wear eye protection and perform this activity with assistance from the teacher. Repeat with the other metal samples.
(A) Select the incorrect statements).
(I) All metals burn easily.
(II) Not all metals burn easily.
(III) Magnesium burns easily.
(IV) Copper and aluminium take time to burn.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) The student performing this activity noted the following observations on the colour of flame observed when the metal is burnt.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 17
Select the correct observation.
Answer:
(d) Metal: Magnesium; Colour of Flame: White

Explanation: The colour of flame observed when the given metals are heated is given below:
Aluminium: Silvery white
Copper: Blue
Sodium: Yellow
Magnesium: White

(C) The correct arrangement of metaLs Al, Mg, Na and Zn in the decreasing order of their reactivity towards oxygen ¡s:
(a) Na > Al > Mg > Zn
(b) Na > Mg > Al> Zn
(c) Na > Al > Zn > Mg
(d) Mg > Na > Al > Zn
Answer:
(b) Na > Mg > Al > Zn

Explanation: Almost all metals combine with oxygen to form metal oxide. However, the reactivities of different metals towards oxygen are different. The most reactive of the given metals is Na followed by Mg, Al and Zn.

(D) Which of the following metal oxides are soluble in water?
(I) CuO
(II) Na20
(III) FeO
(IV) K20
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (II) and (IV)

Explanation: Most metal oxides are
insoluble in water but some of these dissolve in water to form alkalis. Sodium oxide and potassium oxide dissolve in water to produce alkalis as follows:
Na2O(s) + H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq)
K2O(s) + H2O(l) → 2KOH(aq)

(E) Metals such as sodium and potassium are kept immersed in:
(a) Kerosene oil
(b) Water
(c) Carbon disulphide
(d) Alcohol
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 9.
Pritha’s mother had lots of silver jewellery which she had kept in a jewellery box. One day, when she took them out to show them to her friends, she was surprised to see that most of them had a black coating over them.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 18
Silver articles become black on prolonged exposure to air. This is due to the formation of:
(a) Ag3N
(b) Ag3O
(c) Ag2S
(d) Ag3S and Ag3N
Answer:
(c) Ag2S

Explanation: Silver metal reacts with atmos¬pheric sulphur compounds like H2S gas and forms a black coating of Ag2S over the surface. This reaction is as below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 19

Question 10.
Take samples of sodium chloride, potassium iodide, barium chloride or any other salt from the science laboratory. Take a small amount of a sample on a metal spatula and heat directly on the flame as shown in fig. Also try to dissolve the samples in water, petrol and kerosene.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 20
Heating a sail sample on a spatula

Make a circuit as shown in Fig. and insert the electrodes into a solution of one salt.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 21
(A) The physical state and properties of the salt samples used in the activity is:
(I) All are crystalline solids
(II) All are brittle
(III) Not all are hard
(IV) Not all are brittle
Which of the statements above is correct?
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (II)

Explanation: All the salts are ionic compounds and are crystalline solids and hard due to the strong force of attraction between the positive arid negative ions. They are also brittle.

(B) Select the correct, observation when the salt sample is taken on a metal spatula and heated directly on the flame:
(a) The salts melt immediately
(b) The salts give out characteristics flame upon heating
(c) The salts do not melt easily
(d) The salts undergo sublimation
Answer:
(c) The salts do not melt easily

Explanation: The given salts are ionic compounds that have very high melting and boiling points as a large amount of energy is required to break the strong inter-ionic attraction.

(C) The solution of which of the following compounds will not conduct electricity?
(a) CCl4
(b) NaCl
(c) CaCl2
(d) KBr
Answer:

(D) A student noted the following observations with four compounds A, B, C and D.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 22
Which of the compounds A, B, C and D are ionic compounds?
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) C and D
(d) A and D
Answer:

(E) Select the correct statement regarding the electrical conductivity of ionic compounds:
(a) The salt samples in the activity conduct electricity in their solid-state.
(b) The salt samples in the activity conduct electricity in a solution of water.
(c) The salt samples do not conduct electricity in a molten state.
(d) The salt samples do not conduct electricity in solution or in molten state.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 11.
Displacement reactions are very important reactions of chemistry. They have many applications in various fields some of which are listed below:
(1) It is used in thermite welding.
(2) It is used in making alloy steel.
(3) It is used in the extraction of various metals.
(4) It is used in treating acid indigestion.
A thermite reaction is a single displacement reaction between iron oxide and aluminium which is also a highly exothermic reaction. The extreme heat released from this reaction is sufficient to melt the iron product.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 23
(A) The correct chemical equation describing the thermite process is:
(a) Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) + Heat → 2Fe(s) + Al2O3(l)
(b) Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(S) → 2Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) + Heat
(c) 3FeO(s) + 2Al(S) + Heat → 3Fe(l) + Al2O3(s)
(d) 3FeO(s) + 2Ai(s) → 3Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) + Heat
Answer:
(b) Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) → 2Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) + Heat

Explanation: Thermite reaction is the reaction between iron (III) oxide or Fe2O3 and aluminium. It is a highly exothermic process (shown by “+ Heat” in the product side) and iron is produced in the molten state. It is used to join is used tojoin railway tracks or cracked machine parts.

(B) What happens when zinc metal is added to G test tube containing Al2(SO4)3 solution?
(a) Zinc displaces aluminium from its salt solution
(b) No reaction takes place
(c) The solution becomes blue in colour
(d) The solution becomes colourless and aluminium metal is deposited.
Answer:
(b) No reaction takes place

Explanation: No reaction takes place as zinc is less reactive than aluminium and cannot displace aluminium from its salt solution, namely, Al2(SO4)3 solution.

(C) A student made the following observations after studying the following displacement reactions between a metal and a salt solution of a different metal:
(i) Mg + ZnSO4 → MgSO4 + Zn
(ii) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
(iii) Co + MgSO4 → CaSO4 + Mg
Selsect the incorrect observation(s):
(i) Calcium will displace copper from copper sulphate solution.
(II) Magnesium will be displaced by both calcium and zinc
(II) The least reactive metal out of Mg, Ca, Cu and Zn are Zinc.
(IV) The most reactive metal out of Mg, Ca, Cu and Zn is calcium.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) An activity was performed by a student to find the reactivity of four metals- A, B, C and D by taking salt solutions of four metals in four test tubes numbered 1 to 4 and adding the samples of each metal one by one to each of the test tubes.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 24
The observations recorded by the student are as given below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 25
The correct arrangement of the given metals A, B, C and D in decreasing order of their reactivities is:
(a) C < B < A < D
(b) B < C < A < D
(c) C < B < D < A
(d)D < A < B < C
Answer:

(E) A student performed an experiment to study the displacement reaction of metals. He took two test tubes X and Y containing copper sulphate and silver nitrate solutions respectively.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 26
He dipped a strip of zinc in test tube X and copper strip in test tube Y and recorded his observations as shown below. Select the correct observation:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 27
Answer:
(d) Test Tube X: Reaction takes place; Test Tube Y: Reaction takes place.

Explanation: Zinc is more reactive than copper and will displace copper from copper (II) sulphate solution in test tube X.
Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
Also, copper is more reactive than silver and will displace silver from silver nitrate solution in test tube Y.
Cu + 2AgNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag

Question 12.
A fusible metal alloy is used to create a permanent bond between metal workpieces. The alloy is melted in order to adhere to and connect the pieces after cooling, which requires that the alloy have a lower melting point than the pieces being joined. The alloy should also be resistant to oxidative and corrosive effects that would degrade the joint over time.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 28
Name an alloy that is used for welding electrical wires together and also give its composition.
Answer:
Solder is an alloy that is used for welding electrical wires together. It is an alloy of lead and tin (Pb and Sn) and has a low melting point.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 13.
Sam went to the grocery store with his mother one day.
He observed that pickles, curds and other sour things are always stored in glass or plastic containers and never in any container made of a metal or alloy. He later found out that this is related to the chemical properties of metals as metals react with acids.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 29
(A) Metals react with dilute acids to give:
(a) Salt and water
(b) Salt and hydrogen gas
(c) Salt and carbon dioxide gas
(d) Salt, water and carbon dioxide gas
Answer:
(b) Salt and hydrogen gas

Explanation: Most metals react with dilute acid to give the metal salt and hydrogen gas. Example:
Zn(s) + H2SO4 (aq) → ZnSO4(aq)) + H2(g)

Metals react with dilute acids to give:

(B) Which of the following metal will react with dilute hydrochloric acid?
(I) Cu
(II) Zn
(III) Al
(IV) Ag
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
Answer:

(C) Which of the following oxides will not react with dilute sulphuric acid?
(a) CO2
(b) CuO
(c) MgO
(d) Na2O
Answer:

(D) Some students reacted an insoluble metal oxide with a dilute acid to form a soluble salt with a characteristic blue colour.
The insoluble metal oxide and the soluble salt could be:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 30
Answer:

(E) The correct arrangement of metals Mg, Zn, Fe and Al in decreasing order of their reactivity with dilute acids is:
(a) Al > Mg > Zn > Fe
(b) Al > Mg > Fe > Zn
(c) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe
(d) Mg > Al > Fe > Zn
Answer:
(c) Mg > Al > Zn > Fe

Explanation: Out of the metals Mg, Zn, Fe and Al, Mg will react most vigorously with dilute acid, followed by Al, Zn and Fe.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 14.
While walking along the roadside with his grandfather, Aman observed that many iron pipes had developed cracks on their surfaces.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 31
(A) Metals react with dilute acids to give:
(a) Salt and water
(b) Salt and hydrogen gas
(c) SaLt ared carbon dioxide gas
(d) Salt, water and carbon dioxide gas
Answer:
(b) Salt and hydrogen gas
Explanation: Most metals react with dilute acid to give the metal salt and hydrogen gas.
Example:
Zn(s) + H2SO4 (aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)

(B) Which of the following metal will react with dilute hydrochloric acid?
(I)Cu
(II)Zn
(III)AL
(IV)Ag
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (il) and (III)
Answer:

(C) Which of the following oxides will not react with dilute sulphuric acid?
(a)CO2
(b)CuO
(c) MgO
(d) Na2O

(D) Some students reacted an insoluble metal oxide with a dilute acid to form a soluble salt with a characteristic blue colour.
The insoluble metal oxide and the soluble salt couLd be:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 32

(E) The correct arrangement of metals Mg, Zn, Fe and AL in decreasing order of their reactivity with diLute acids is:
(a) Al > Mg > Zn> Fe
(b) Al > Mg> Fe > Zn
(c) Mg > Al> Zn > Fe
(d) Mg > Al > Fe > Zn
Answer:
(c)Mg > Al > Zn > Fe
Explanation: Out of the metals Mg, Zn, Fe and Al, Mg will react most vigorously with dilute acid, folLowed by At. Zn and Fe.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 15.
While walking along the roadside with his grandfather, Aman observed that many iron pipes had developed cracks on their surfaces.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 33
Being inquisitive in nature and atso having Learned about the phenomenon of corrosion, Aman searched the internet for more information about corrosion and its prevention and found out that the most important factor in atmospheric corrosion, overriding pollution or lack of it, is moisture, either in the form of rain, dew, condensation, or high relative humidity (RH). In the absence of moisture, most contaminants would have little or no corrosive effect.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 34
(A) Identify the correct statement:
(a) Rusting of iron is caused only by water.
(b) Rusting of iron is caused only by air,
(c) Rusting of iron is caused only by impurities.
(d) Rusting of iron is caused by both air and water.
Answer:

(B) Two students noted down the following observations after studying the graph showing the effect of reLative humidity on the rate of corrosion in iron
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 35
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers 36
Select the correct option.
(C) Chemically rust is:
(a) Hydrated Iron (II) oxide
(b) Hydrated Iron (III) oxide
(c) Iron (III) sulphate
(d) Iron (III) oxide
Answer:
(c) Student A: Rate of corrosion is high for neiative humidity between 50% – 60%; Student B: Rate of corrosion… >60%.

Explanation: From the graph, we observe that the rate of corrosion depends upon the relative humidity and it increases with increase in the relative humidity.

Rate of corrosion is minimal for relative humidity < 40 %, is low for relative humidity between 40 % to 50 %. is high for relative humidity between 50% – 60 % and is extreme for relative humidity > 60 %.

(D) Which of the following statement is /are incorrect about corrosion?
(I) The black coating on silver articles is due to formation of basic silver oxide when silver reacts with oxygen present in air.
(II) The green coating on copper articles is due to formation of copper carbonate.
(III) The brown flaky substance formed on iron articles is due to the formation of rust.
(IV) The black coating on silver articles is due to formation of silver sulphide when silver reacts with hydrogen sulphide present in air.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Only (I)

(E) 0 Rusting of iron can be prevented by :
(a) Galvanisation only
(b) Alloying only
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
A metal combines with a non-metal to form a compound Y. Will it dissolve in an organic solvent or not?
Answer:
Metals combine with non-metals to form ionic compounds by transfer of electrons. Ionic compounds do not dissolve in organic solvents but are soluble in water.

Question 2.
An element E combines with 02 to form an oxide E20, which is a good conductor of electricity. Write the formula of the compound formed when it combines with chlorine?
Answer:

Question 3.
Why do ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state?
Answer:
ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state because the ions move freely in molten state since the electrostatic force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is overcome due to heat.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals with Answers

Question 4.
Why should the metal sulphides and carbonates be converted to metal oxides in the process of extraction of metal from them?
Answer:
Usually, metal sulphides and carbonates are converted to metal oxides in the process of extraction of metal. This is because extraction of a metal from its oxide is easier as compared to its extraction from its sulphides and carbonates. Metal oxides can easily reduce to metal with the help of a common reducing agent like coke.

Question 5.
From amongst the metal, sodium, calcium, aluminium, copper and magnesium, name the metal:
(A) Which reacts with water only on boiling.
(B) Another one which does not. react even with steam.
Answer:
(A) The metal which reacts with water only on boiling is magnesium as it does not react with cold water.
(B) The metal which does not react even with steam is copper.

Question 6.
An element ‘A’ form two oxides AO and AO2. The oxide AO is neutral whereas the oxide AO2 is acidic in nature. Would you call element ‘A’ a metal or a non-metal?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Chemistry MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Periodic Classification of Elements Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Class 10 Science Chemistry Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

Chemistry Class 10 Chapter 5 MCQs On Periodic Classification of Elements

Periodic Classification Of Elements Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following statements) about the modern periodic table are incorrect?
(I) The elements in the modern periodic table are arranged on the basis of their decreasing atomic numbers.
(II) The elements in the modern periodic table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic masses.
(III) Isotopes are placed in adjoining group(s) in the periodic table.
(IV) The elements in the modern periodic table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic number.
(a) Only (I)
(b) (I), (II), and (III)
(c) (I), (II), and (IV)
(d) Only (IV)
Answer:
(b) (I), (II), and (III)

Explanation: The modern periodic table is a tabular arrangement of elements in increasing order of their atomic number, which is why isotopes are placed at the same position. Hence, only (III) is correct.

Periodic Table Class 10 Icse MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following statements about the modern periodic table is correct?
(a) It has 18 horizontal rows known as periods.
(b) It has 7 vertical columns rows known as periods.
(c) It has 18 vertical columns known as groups.
(d) It has 7 horizontal rows known as groups.
Answer:

MCQ On Periodic Classification Of Elements Question 3.
An element X is forming the acidic oxide. Its most probable position in the modern periodic table is:
(a) Group 1 and Period 3
(b) Group 16 and Period 3
(c) Group 17 and Period 3
(d) Group 2 and Period 3
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Class 10 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Question 4.
Which of the given elements A, B, C, D and E with atomic numbers 2, 3, 7,10 and 30 respectively belong to the same period?
(a) A, B, C
(b) B, C, D
(c) A, D, E
(d) B, D, E
Answer:

MCQ On Periodic Classification Of Elements Class 10 Pdf With Answers Question 5.
On the basis of the electronic configuration of x|, the group number and period of the element ‘X is:
(a) Group 15 period 2
(b) Group 13 period 2
(c) Group 9 period 5
(d) Group 13 period 5
Answer:
(b) Group 13 period 2

Explanation: From X95, we can have the information as:
X — element
5 — Atomic number
9 — Mass number
The electronic configuration of X is 2, 3.

Group number is found out on the basis of valance electrons. Valence electrons are 3 so group number is 10 + 3 = 13.

The period can be found out by knowing the number of shells. Since the number of shells is 2 so it belongs to period 2.

Valence Electron Calculator – This free calculator provides you with free information about Valence Electron.

Periodic Classification Of Elements MCQ Question 6.
The elements A, B, C, D and E have atomic number 9, 11, 17, 12 and 13 respectively.
Which pair of elements belongs to the same group?
(a) A and B
(b) B and D
(c) A and C
(d) D and E
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

MCQ Of Periodic Classification Of Elements Question 7.
An element ‘X‘ with atomic number 11 forms a compound with element ‘V with atomic number 8. The formula of the compound formed is:
(a) XY
(b) X2Y
(c) XY2
(d) X2Y3
Answer:
(b) X2Y
Periodic Table MCQ Class 10
Element X can lose one electron and has a configuration like that of Neon.
X → X+ + e
Element Y can gain two electrons to acquire noble gas configuration like that of Neon:
Y + 2e → Y2
Or we can write
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 2

Periodic Table MCQ Questions And Answers Question 8.
The positions of four elements A, B, C, and D in the modern periodic table are shown below.
Periodic Table MCQ Questions And Answers
Which element is most likely to form an acidic oxide?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer:

Chapter 5 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
In Mendeleev’s periodic table, gaps were left for the elements to be discovered later. Which of the following element found a place in the periodic table later?
(a) Germanium
(b) Chlorine
(c) Oxygen
(d) Silicon
Answer:

Class 10 Science Ch 5 MCQ Question 10.
Elements P, Q, R, and S have atomic numbers 11,15,17 and 18 respectively. Which of them are reactive non-metals?
(a) P and Q
(b) P and R
(c) Q and R
(d) R and S
Answer:
(c) Q and R

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Chapter 5 Class 10 Science MCQ Question 11.
An element which is an essential constituent of all organic compounds belongs to:
(a) Group 1
(b) Group 14
(c) Group 15
(d) Group 16
Answer:

MCQs Of Periodic Classification Of Elements Question 12.
According to Mendeleev’s periodic law, the elements were arranged in the periodic table in the order of:
(a) Increasing atomic number
(b) Decreasing atomic number
(c) Increasing atomic masses
(d) Decreasing atomic masses
Answer:
(c) Increasing atomic masses

According to Mendeleev’s periodic law, the elements were arranged in the periodic table in the order of:

Explanation: Mendeleev’s periodic law is an arrangement of elements in increasing order of their atomic masses as Mendeleev’s periodic law states that, the physical and chemical properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic masses.

Class 10 Chapter 5 Science MCQ Question 13.
Which of the following is the outermost shell for elements of period 2?
(a) K shell
(b) L shell
(c) M shell
(d) N shell
Answer:

MCQ Periodic Classification Of Elements Question 14.
Which of the following gives the correct increasing order of the atomic radii of O, F, and N?
(a) O, F, N
(b) N, F, O
(c) O, N, F
(d) F, O, N
Answer:

Periodic Table Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Arrange the following elements in the order of their decreasing metallic character Na, Si, Cl, Mg, Al:
(a) Cl > Si > Al > Mg > Na
(b) Na > Mg > Al > Si > Cl
(c) Na > Al > Mg > Cl > Si
(d) Al > Na > Si > Ca > Mg
Answer:

Question 16.
Which among the following elements has the largest atomic radii?
(a) Na
(b) Mg
(c) K
(d) Ca
Answer:
(c) K

Explanation: Na and Mg belong to the same period, whereas Na and K are in the same group. In a group from top to bottom, the atomic radius increases, whereas it decreases in a period from left to right. Hence, the order would be K > Na > Mg and K > Ca > Mg.

Related Theory:
Atomic radius represents the distance from the nucleus to the outer shell of an element.
The trend of the atomic radius in the periodic table:

  1. decreases going from left to right of a period
  2. increases going down a group.

Question 17.
The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are:
X : 2 Y: 2, 8, 7 Z : 2, 8, 2
Which of the following is correct regarding these elements?
(a) X is a metal
(b) Y is a metal
(c) Z is a non-metal
(d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal
Answer:
(d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal.

Explanation: Element Y has 1 less electron to complete its octet which is a property of non-metals. On the other hand, element Z has 2 extra electrons to become stable which is a property of metals..

Question 18.
Which of the following elements would lose an electron easily?
(a) Mg
(b) Na
(c) K
(d) Ca
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 19.
Which of the following elements does not lose an electron easily?
(a) Na
(b) F
(c) Mg
(d) Al
Answer:
(b) F

Explanation: Flourine has 7 electrons in the outermost orbit. Its atom size is the smallest too. Since it is the most electronegative element, it does not lose an electron easily. Sodium has one valence electron, magnesium has 2 valence electrons, and aluminium has 3 valence electrons. All these metals lose electrons easily.

Related Theory
Metals can easily lose electrons and exhibit electropositive nature, whereas non-metals have a tendency to accept electrons and exhibit electronegative nature. Na, Al, and Mg are metals, whereas F is non-metal.

Question 20.
What type of oxide would Eka-aluminium form?
(a) EO3
(b) E3O2
(c) E2O3
(d) EO
Answer:

Question 21.
The element with atomic number 14 is hard and forms acidic oxide and a covalent halide. To which of the following categories does the element belong?
(a) Metal
(b) Metalloid
(c) Non-metal
(d) Left-hand side element
Answer:
(b) Metalloid

Explanation: Atomic number 14 (electronic configuration of 2,8,4) is for silicon element, which is a metalloid and exhibits properties of both metal and non-metal. It has 4 electrons in its valence shell, so it tends to form covalent acidic oxide.

Question 22.
Which one of the following depicts the correct representation of atomic radius (r) of an atom?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 4
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) (II) and (III)

Explanation: The distance between the center of the nucleus and the outermost shell is known as atomic radius.

Question 23.
Which one of the following does not increase while moving down the group of the periodic table?
(a) Atomic radius
(b) Metallic character
(c) Valence
(d) Number of shells in an element
Answer:

Question 24.
On moving from left to right in a period in the periodic table, the size of the atom:
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change appreciably
(d) first decreases and then increases
Answer:
(b) decreases

Explanation: As we move from left to right in the period of periodic table, the number of shell remains same but atomic number increases. So, the increase in nuclear charge which tends to pull electrons closer to the nuclers and reduces the size of the atoms.

Related Theory
The size of atom of an inert gas is bigger than that of the preceding halogen atom. The greater size of the inert gas atom in a period is due to the structural stability of its outermost shell consisting of an octet of electrons.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 25.
Which of the following set of elements is written in order of their increasing metallic character?
(a) Be, Mg, Ca
(b) Na, Li, K
(c) Mg, Al, Si
(d) C, O, N
Answer:
(a) Be, Mg, Ca.

Explanation: As we move down in a group, the metallic nature of elements increases. Be, Mg, and Ca are present in the same group (group 2 of the modern periodic table). Thus, Ca has the highest metallic character.

Question 26.
An element X makes an oxide with the formula X2O3. This element will be in the same group as:
(a) Na
(b) Mg
(c) Al
(d) Cl [Diksha]
Answer:
(c) Al

Explanation: The answer is Al (aluminium). The element Al is in group II! of Mendeleev’s periodic table, in which the general formula of the oxides of elements is X2O3.

Question 27.
The two pairs of elements placed by Newlands in one slot are:
(a) Co, Ni and Ce, La
(b) Be, Mg and Co, Ni
(c) F, Cl, and Ce, La
(d) Zn, Sr, and Be, Mg
Answer:

Question 28.
The order of metallic character of some elements is: N < P < As < Sb < Bi. Identify the most electronegative among these elements,
(a) N
(b) P
(c) Sb
(d) Bi
Answer:
(a) N

Explanation: The less metallic an element, the more electro-negative it will be. Since electronegativity is the ability of an atom to gain electrons, whereas metallic character is related to the ability of atoms to lose electrons. As N is the least metallic of the given elements, it will be the most electronegative.

Question 29.
Four elements P, Q, R and S have number of valence electrons 2,3,5 and 7 respectively. A student noted down the Group number in Modern Periodic Table and their valency as:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 5
Select the row containing the correct group number and valency.
Answer:

Question 30.
Consider the elements Li, Be, B, C, N, O and F.
(I) The most electropositive element is F.
(II) The most electronegative element is F.
(III) The only metalloid is B.
(IV) The smallest atomic size is Li.
Read the statements given above and select the incorrect statements:
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Let us arrange the given elements according to their atomic number:
Li < Be < B < C < N < 0 < F.

All the above elements have two occupied shells and are therefore placed in the second group of the periodic table.

The most electropositive element is Li and the most electronegative element is F. This is because the tendency to lose electrons decreases as we go from left to right along a period. Also, as we go from left to right along a period, the atomic radius and hence the atomic size decreases because of the increase in effective nuclear charge experienced by the valence electrons. The only metalloid is B.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 31.
Out of the elements F, Cl, Br and I, which is the most electronegative element?
(a) F
(b) Cl
(c) Br
(d) I
Answer:
(a) F

Explanation: The electronegativity decreases as we move down a group because the ability to gain electrons decreases down a group. This is because of the decrease in the effective nuclear charge experienced by the valence electrons since a new shell is added in each group.

Since F, Cl, Br and I have 2, 3, 4 and 5 shells respectively, F is the most electronegative of these elements.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 5

For the following questions, two statements are given-one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Potassium has a bigger atomic radius than lithium.
Reason (R): Atomic radius decreases along a period.
Answer:

Question 33.
Assertion (A): Chemical properties of the elements belonging to the same group are the same.
Reason (R): Elements belonging to the same group possess the same number of valence electrons.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of A.

Question 34.
Assertion (A): Nitrogen is a non-metal.
Reason (R): Nitrogen has 5 valence electrons.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation: Non-metals are the elements that form negative ions by gaining electrons.

Electronic configuration of N = 2 5
k = 2
L = 5
It needs 3 electrons to complete its octet and achieve the same configuration as that of the inert gas neon.
N + 3e→ N3-

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Newland’s law of Octaves worked well with lighter elements only.
Reason (R): Newland assumed that only 56 elements existed in nature.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 36.
Assertion (A): A correct position could not be assigned to hydrogen in Mendeleev’s periodic table.
Reason (R): Mendeleev Periodic Law states that ‘the properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic numbers.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false

Explanation: A correct position could not be assigned to hydrogen in the periodic table. The electronic configuration of hydrogen resembles that of alkali metals. Like alkali metals, hydrogen combines with halogens, oxygen and sulfur to form compounds having similar formulae.

On the other hand, just like halogens, hydrogen also exists as diatomic molecules and it combines with metals and non-metals to form covalent compounds.

Moreover, Mendeleev’s Periodic Law states that ‘the properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic masses’.

Question 37.
Assertion (A): The elements Sodium (Na), Magnesium (Mg), Aluminium (Al) belong to the same group in Modern Periodic Table.
Reason (R): Atoms of different elements with the same number of occupied shells are placed in the same period.
Answer:

Question 38.
Assertion (A): Calcium (Atomic No. 20) is more metallic than Potassium (Atomic No. 19).
Reason (R): The tendency to lose electrons decreases as we move from left to right in a period.
Answer:
(c) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Explanation: Potassium (Atomic No. 19) is more metallic than Calcium (Atomic No. 20) as the tendency to lose electrons decreases as we move from left to right in a period.

The electronic configuration of Potassium is 2, 8, 8, 1 and that of Calcium is 2, 8, 8, 2. Therefore, the effective nuclear charge acting on the valence electrons of Calcium will be more than that of Potassium.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Sulphur is a multivalent non-metal, abundant, tasteless and and odorless. In its native form sulphur is a yellow crystalline solid. In nature it occurs as the pure element or as sulphide and sulphate minerals.Sulphur dioxide or sulphur dioxide is the chemical compound with the
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 6
formula SO2. It is a toxic gas responsible for the smell of burnt matches. It is released naturally by volcanic activity and is produced as a by product of copper extraction and the burning of fossil fuels contaminated with sulphur compounds.
Identify the group and period of the Modern Periodic Table to which Sulphur belongs. Write any two properties exhibited by sulphur.
Answer:
The atomic number of sulphur is 16. It’s electronic configuration is (2, 8, 6). It belongs to group 16 and period 3 of the Modern Periodic Table.

Two properties exhibited by sulphur are allotropy and catenation.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 2.
Around the year 1800, only 30 elements were known. Dobereiner in 1817 and Newlands in 1866 tried to arrange the then known elements and framed laws which were rejected by the scientists. Even after the rejection of the proposed laws, many scientists continued to search for a pattern that correlated the properties of elements with their atomic masses.

The main credit for classifying elements goes to Mendeleev for his most important contribution to the early development of a Periodic table of elements wherein he arranged the elements on the basis of their fundamental property, the atomic mass and also on the similarity of chemical properties. The formulae of their hydrides and oxides were treated as basic criteria for the classification of the elements. However, Mendeleev’s classification also had some limitations as it could not assign the position to isotopes. He also left some gaps in the periodic table.
(A) State Mendeleev’s Periodic Law.
Answer:
Mendeleev’s Periodic Law: It states that the properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic masses.

Related Theory
Mendeleev concluded that when elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic masses, similar properties of element repented after a definite gap of atomic masses. This repetition of similar properties after a definite gap of atomic masses is also called periodicity in properties.

(B) Why did Mendeleev leave some gaps in the Periodic table?
Answer:

(C) If the letter ‘R‘ was used to represent any of the elements in the group, then the hydride and oxide of carbon would respectively be represented as:
(a) RH4, RO
(b) RH4, RO2
(c) RH2, RO2
(d) RH2, RO
Answer:

(D) Isotopes are:
(a) Atoms of an element with similar chemical properties but different atomic masses.
(b) Atoms of different elements with similar chemical properties but different atomic masses.
(c) Atoms of an element with different chemical properties but same atomic masses.
(d) Atoms of different elements with different chemical properties but same atomic masses.
Answer:
(a) Atoms of an element with similar chemical properties but different atomic masses.

Explanation: Isotopes are the atoms of some element which have same atomic number but different mass number. They have same atomic number, same number of protons, same number of electrons and, same number of valence electrons. Valence electrons are responsible for the chemical properties of an element. Since isotopes of an element have same number of valence electrons. So they will have similar chemical properties.

Related Theory
Isotopes of chlorine are Cl-35 and Cl-37:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 7
Hence, isotopes of chlorine Cl-35 and Cl-37 will have similar chemical properties.

Question 3.
Recently, two persons died in a major ammonia gas leakage at the Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) unit at Prayagraj. The experts point out that ammonia is stored for industrial use in liquid form under high pressure or in gaseous form at low temperature, as was the case in the IFFCO unit where the accident took place. Ammonia is critical in the manufacturing of fertilizers, and is one of the largest-volume synthetic chemicals produced in the world.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 8
What type of bond is present ammonia molecule? Wilt a solution of ammonia be a good conductor or poor conductor of electricity?
Answer:
Ammonia molecule NH3 is formed by the sharing of electrons between nitrogen and hydrogen atoms as shown below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 9
As electron pairs are shared between the three hydrogen atoms and the nitrogen atom, a solution of ammonia in water will be a poor conductor of electricity as there are no charged particles present in an ammonia molecule.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 4.
The following table shows a part of the periodic table in which the elements are arranged according to their atomic numbers. (The letters given here are not the chemical symbols of the elements):
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 10
(A) Which element has a bigger atom, a or f?
Answer:
a (size decreases from left to right in a period).

(B) Which element has a higher valency, k or o?
Answer:

(C) Which element is more metallic, i or k?
Answer:
i (metallic character decreases from left to right in a period).

Explanation:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 11
it has to lose only one electron to acquire metallic character whereas k has to lose 3 electrons which requires a lot of energy as compared to element so element i is more metallic.

(D) Select a letter which represents a non-metal of valency 2.
Answer:

Question 5.
When Sam was walking along the street, he saw several beautiful and colourful signages. In the signage industry, neon signs are electric signs lighted by long luminous gas-discharge tubes that contain rarefied neon or other gases. They are the most common use for neon lighting, which was first demonstrated in a modern form in December 1910 by Georges Claude at the Paris Motor Show.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 12
Where would you locate the element with electronic configuration 2, 8 in the modern periodic table?
(a) Group 8
(b) Group 2
(c) Group 18
(d) Group 10
Answer:
(c) Group 18
Explanation: The element with electronic configuration 2, 8 has an octet configuration, so it must be an inert gas, i.e., neon, which is placed in group 18.

Related Theory
Group 18 in the modern periodic table has noble gases (inert gases). Helium (He), neon (Ne), argon (Ar), krypton (Kr), xenon (Xe) and radon (Rn) are present in group 18. The members of the group have eight electrons in their outermost orbit (except helium which has two electrons). Thus, they have a stable electronic configuration. These gases are chemically un-reactive, i.e., they don’t react with other elements to form compounds.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 6.
Atoms of eight elements A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H have the same number of electron shells but different number of electrons in their outermost shells. It was found that elements A and G combine to form an ionic compound. This ionic compound is added in a small amount to almost all vegetables and dishes during cooking. Oxides of elements A and B are basic in nature while those of elements E and F are acidic. The oxide of element D is, however, almost neutral.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(A) To which group or period of the periodic table do these elements belong?
Answer:

(B) What would be the nature of compound formed by a combination of elements B and F?
Answer:
The compound between B and F will be ionic in nature.

(C) Which two of these elements could definitely be metals and which would be non metals?
Answer:

(D) Which one of the eight elements is most likely to be found in gaseous state at room temperature?
Answer:
Element H will be found in gaseous state at room temperature as it is the 8th element of the group so it would have 8 electrons in its outermost shell which is the electronic configuration of a nobel gas.

Related Theory:
Sodium chloride is used in almost all vegetables and dishes during cooking. It means A is sodium and G is chlorine.
Metals are one present on the left hand side of modern periodic table and non-metals on the right hand side. As we know oxides of metals are basic in nature and oxides of non-metals form acidic oxide. The elements given one.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 13

Question 7.
Analyse the following table given below and answer the questions that follow:
Given alongside is a part of the periodic table. As we move vertically downward from Li to Fr:

Li Be
Na
K
Rb
Cs
Fr Ra

(A) Which among the following has larger size of atoms?
(a) Li
(b) Na
(c) Cs
(d) Fr
Answer:
(d) Fr

Explanation: Fr has greater atomic size as the atomic size increases gradually from lithium to francium.

(B) Which one of the following does not increase while moving down in group of the periodic table?
(a) Atomic radius
(b) Metallic character
(c) Valence
(d) Number of shells in an element
Answer:

(C) Name two properties of elements whose magnitude change while going from top to bottom in a group of the periodic table. In what manner do they change?
Answer:

(D) Rewrite the following statement after correction, if necessary:
“Groups have elements with consecutive atomic numbers”
Answer:
Periods have elements with consecutive atomic numbers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 8.
In addition to its applications in electronic devices, germanium is used as a component of alloys and in phosphors for fluorescent lamps. Because germanium is transparent to infrared radiation, it is employed in equipment used for detecting and measuring such radiation, such as windows and lenses. Silicon is used in building and construction, able to bond materials such as concrete, glass, granite, steel and plastics, enabling them to work better and last longer. Solar cells made out of silicon currently provide a combination of high effciency, low cost, and long lifetime.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 14
Three elements B, Si and Ge are:
(a) Metals
(b) Non-metals
(c) Metalloids
(d) Metal, non-metal and metalloid respectively
Answer:
(c) Metalloids

Explanation: The elements boron (B), silicon (Si) and germanium (Ge) exhibit intermediate properties of metals and non-metals, therefore, they are called as metalloids. These elements are placed in between metals and non-metals diagonally as a zigzag line to separate them.

Related Theory
A few other elements are arsenic (As), antimony (Sb), tellurium (Te), polonium (Po) and astatine (At).

Question 9.
Analyse the following table given below and answer the questions that follow:
The atomic radii of the element of the second period are given below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 15
(A) Arrange these elements in decreasing order of their atomic radii.
Answer:
Elements in decreasing order of their atomic radii
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 16

(B) Why does atomic radius decreases as we move from left to right in a period?
Answer:

(C) Which is not true about the noble gases?
(a) They are non-metallic in nature
(b) They exist in atomic form
(c) They are radioactive in nature
(d) Xenon is the most reactive among these
Answer:
(c) They are radioactive in nature.
Explanation: Noble gases are inert and are not radioactive in nature.

Related Theory
Noble gases cannot lose or gain or shore electrons as their outermost shell is complete.
He has 2 electrons in its K shell, which is completely filled as K shell can accommodate maximum of 2 electrons whereas Ne has 8 electrons in its L shell and its octet is complete so they exist in atomic form.

(D) Which of the following is the outermost shell for elements of period 2?
(a) K shell
(b) L shell
(c) M shell
(d) N shell
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 10.
A student tried to assign a correct position to hydrogen in Mendeleev’s Periodic Table by looking at its resemblance to alkali metals and the halogen family.
Another student wondered where she would place the isotopes of chlorine, Cl-35 and Cl-37 as they were atoms of the same element.

(A) No fixed position could be given to hydrogen in the Mendeleev’s Periodic Table as:
(I) Electronic configuration of hydrogen resembles that of alkali metals.
(II) Hydrogen combines with metals and non-metals to form ionic compounds.
(III) Hydrogen exists as diatomic molecules just like alkali metals.
(IV) Hydrogen combines with halogens, oxygen and sulphur to form compounds having similar formulae as alkali metals.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: As Mendeleev’s periodic table was based on atomic mass, no fixed position could be assigned to hydrogen. However, it has one valence electron just like alkali metals Li, Na, K etc. Moreover, hydrogen combines with haLogens, oxygen and sulphur just like alkali metals do. However, hydrogen combines with metals and non-metals to form covalent bonds by sharing of electrons and exists as diatomic molecules like halogens.

(B) The formula of hydrides of elements belonging to a Group of Mendeelev’s Periodic Table is RH2. The Group Number to which the element belongs is:
(a) Group IV
(b) Group V
(c) Group VI
(d) Group VII

(C) The formula of oxides and hydrides of elements belonging to different Groups of the Mendeleev’s Periodic Table is given below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 17
The letter ‘R’ is used to represent any of the elements in the group.
Select the row containing incorrect information.
Answer:
(a) Croup No.: 1, Formula of oxides; RO, Formula of Hydrides; RH Explanation: The formula of hydrides and oxides of elements belonging to group I of Mendeleev’s table is R2O and RH respectively. For example, formula of oxide and hydride of element Li will be Li2O and LiH respectively.

(D) Select the correct statement regarding position of isotopes in Mendeleev’s Periodic Table:
(a) Mendeleev left some gaps in his periodic table for the isotopes.
(b) Isotopes were discovered after Mendeleev had proposed his periodic classification of elements.
(c) Mendeleev placed both the isotopes of chlorine (Cl-35 and Cl-37) under the same slot as they had same chemical properties.
(d) Mendeleev placed both the isotopes of chlorine (Cl-35 and Cl-37) in different slots as they had different masses.

(E) Mendeleev left some gaps in his Periodic Table as he predicted the existence of some elements that had not been discovered at that time. Which of the following elements discovered later, have properties similar to Eka-boron?
(a) Gallium
(b) Germanium
(c) Caesium
(d) Scandium
Answer:

Question 11.
We all have heard about the damage being done to the Taj Mahal and our environment due to high levels of oxides of certain elements in the atmosphere. Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction that begins when these oxides are released into the air. These substances can rise very high into the atmosphere, where they mix and react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form more acidic pollutants, known as acid rain.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 18
Which of the following elements will form an acidic oxide?
(a) An element with atomic number 7
(b) An element with atomic number 3
(c) An element with atomic number 12
(d) An element with atomic number 19
Answer:
(a) An element with atomic number 7

Explanation: Non-metals form acidic oxides. The element with atomic number 7 is a non-metal (nitrogen). Rest three elements with atomic numbers, 3 (Li), 12 (Mg) andl9 (K) are metals and hence, form basic oxides.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 12.
Atomic radii of the elements of the second period are given below:
Period II elements: B Be O N Li C
Atomic radius (pm): 88 111 66 74 152 77
Atomic radii of first group elements are given below and arrange them in an increasing order.
Group 1 Elements 6: Na Li Rb Cs K
Atomic Radius (pm): 186 152 244 262 231
(A) Select the incorrect statements:
(I) The atomic radius decreases in moving from left to right along a period.
(II) The atomic radius increases in moving from left to right along a period
(III) As we move from left to right along a period, there is an increase in nuclear charge which tends to pull the electrons closer to the nucleus.
(IV) As we move from left to right along a period, there is a decrease in nuclear charge which tends to pull the electrons away from the nucleus.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (II) and (IV)

Explanation: As we move from left to right along a period we see that the atomic radius decreases. This is due to an increase in nuclear charge which tends to pull the electrons closer to the nucleus and reduces the size of the atom.

(B) Two students recorded their observations on variation of atomic radii of first group elements as given below:

First Student

Second Student

(a) Li has the smallest atomic radii Na has the smallest atomic radii
(b) Atomic radius of Rb > Cs Atomic radius of Cs > Rb
(c) Cs has the biggest atomic radius Li has the smallest atomic radius
(d) Atomic radius of K > Na The atomic radius of Na > K

Select the row containing the correct observation by both students.
Answer:
(c) First student: Cs has the biggest atomic radius, Second student: Li has the smallest atomic radius.

Explanation: The atomic radius and hence the atomic size increases as we move down a group. This is because a new shell is added as we move down the group. This increases the distance between the nucleus and the valence shell.

As Cs lies at the bottom of group 1, and Li lies at the top, Cs has the biggest atomic radius among Group 1 elements.

(C) The atomic size of Na is greater than Li because:
(a) Na has three shells, whereas Li has two shells in its atom
(b) The atomic number of Na is greater than Li
(c) As we go down a group, distance between outermost electrons and nucleus decreases.
(d) The mass of Na atom is greater than Li atom
Answer:

(D) The graph of variation of atomic radius with atomic number for alkali metals and halogens is shown below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 19
Select the correct observation:
(a) Na has a bigger atomic radius than Li due to decrease in nuclear charge
(b) F has a smaller atomic radius than Li due to increase in nuclear charge
(c) Na and Cl belong to the third period of Modern Periodic Table and have identical electronic configuration.
(d) Elements of Group 17 have the biggest atomic size in their respective periods.
Answer:
(b) F has a smaller atomic radius than Li due to increase in nuclear charge

Explanation: Both F and Li lie in the second period as they have two occupied shells. However, as the effective nuclear charge is more in the case of F as compared to Li, F has a smaller atomic radius than Li.

The atomic radius decreases in moving from left to right along a period and it increases in going from top to bottom along a group.

(E) The correct increasing order of the atomic radii of the elements Mg, Si and Cl is:
(a) Mg > Si > Cl
(b) Si < Cl < Mg
(c) Cl < Si < Mg
(d) Cl < Mg < Si
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 13.
Chemists have always looked for ways of arranging the elements to reflect the similarities between their properties. The earliest attempt to classify the elements was in 1789, when Antoine Lavoisier grouped the elements based on their properties into gases, non-metals, metals and earths. Several other attempts were made to group elements together over the coming decades. In 1829, Johann Dobereiner recognised triads of elements with chemically similar properties, such as lithium, sodium and potassium, and showed that the properties of the middle element could be predicted from the properties of the other two. It was not until a more accurate list of the atomic mass of the elements became available at a conference in Karlsruhe, Germany in 1860 that real progress was made towards the discovery of the modern periodic table.
(A) Which of the following elements form Dobereiner’s triads?
(a) Li, Na, K
(b) Ca, Sr, Ba
(c) F, Cl, Br
(d) Cl, Br, I
Answer:

(B) Given below are four statements on Dobereiner’s triads:
(I) One triad identified by Dobereiner was (Ca, Na, Ba)
(II) The triads identified by Dobereiner had three elements each.
(III) The atomic mass of the middle element was roughly equal to the atomic masses of the other two elements.
(IV) Dobereiner could identify only three triads from the elements known at that time.
Identify the incorrect statements.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: Dobereiner’s triods consisted of three elements having simiLar properties. He coutd identifij onLy three triads out of the elements discovered at that time. They were (Li, Na, K), (Ca. Sr. Ba) and (Cl, Br, I). The atomic mass of the middle element was roughly equal to the average of the atomic masses of the other two elements.

(C) A & B are two elements having similar properties which obey the law of octaves. How many elements are there in between A and B?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8

(D) Which of the following is not a limitation of Newland’s law of octaves:
(a) The elements fluorine, chlorine and bromine are placed in the same column (musical note).
(b) Newlands’ Law of Octaves worked well with lighter elements only.
(c) Newlands assumed that only 56 elements existed in nature and no more elements would be discovered in the future.
(d) In order to fit elements into his Table, Newlands adjusted cobalt and nickel in the same slot.
Answer:
(a) The elements fluorine, chlorine and bromine are placed in the same column (musical note).

Explanation: The elements fluorine, chlorine and bromine are placed in the some column (musicol note) as they have similar properties and are known as halogens. Even in the modern periodic table, they are placed in the same group, group 17.

(E)Given below are few observations on properties of eLements.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 20
Select the option containing the correct observation.
Answer:
(d) Observation: Properties of Li and Na were found to be similar, Doberimer’s Triods: Yes, NewLands’ Law Yes.

Explanation: Both Be and Mg were placed under the same note in Newland’s law, but were not part of Döbereiner’s triads. Dobereiners Triads

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 14.
Valency of an element is the combining capacity of an atom of the element. The volency of an element is related to how many electrons are in the outer shell. The chemical formula for a substance shows how many atoms of each element are present in a molecule, or the proportion of atoms of each element. The formula can be worked out using the volency.

The molecular formula of a compound can be predicted knowing the valency of the constituting atoms. Knowledge of valency is useful in calculating equivalent weight of elements, writing down chemical equations and in checking the structures of molecules. Some elements show variable valency and the valency determines the properties of elements. The table below gives atomic number of five elements written as P, Q, R, S and T, which are not their real chemical symbols.

Element Atomic Number
P 4
Q 9
R 14
S 18
T 20

(A) The valency and group number in Modern Periodic Table of four elements are given below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 21
Select the option containing the correct valency and group number.
Answer:

(B) The electronic configuration of the element T is:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 22
(C) The valency of elements:
(a) Decreases as we go down a group
(b) Remons same in a group
(c) Increases as we go down a group
(d) First increases and then decreases as we go down a group
Answer:
(b) Remains same in a group

The valency of elements:

Explanation: The valency of elements is equal to the number of valence electrons in case of metals and (8 – valence electrons) for non-metals. Moreover, all elements belonging to the same group have same outer shell electronic configuration. Therefore, valency of elements remains same in a group.

(D) As per the table given above, the element(s) which wilL form only covaLent bonds ¡s:
(I) P
(II) R
(III) S
(IV) Q
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
Answer:

(E) Select the incorrect statement:
(a) Valency of elements of second period is 2.
(b) Valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the outermost shell of its atom.
(c) Valency of metals is equal to the number of valence electrons.
(d) Valency of elements of Group 18 of Modern Periodic Table is 0.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 15.
The elements can be classified as metals, nonmetals, or metalloids. In the Modern Periodic Table, a zig-zag line separates metals from non-metals.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 23
The metals are to the Left of the line (except for hydrogen, which is a nonmetaL), the nonmetals are to the right of the Line, and the elements immediately adjacent to the line are the metalioids.
Ionization energy is the minimum amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron of an isolated neutral gaseous atom or molecule. It is expressed as
X(g) + energy → X+(g) + e

where X is any atom or molecule, X+ is the ion with one electron removed, and e- is the removed electron.
Since the metals are further to the left on the periodic table, they have low ionization energies.
(A) Which of the following elements is not a metalloid?
(a) Si
(b) Ge
(c) As
(d) Ar
Answer:
(d)Ar

Explanation: The metalloids are B, Si. Ge, As, Te and Po. Ar (Argon) is a noble gas having atomic number 18.

(B) An element A (atomic number 17) reacts with an element B (atomic number 14) to form a tetravalent halide.
Select the option which gives the correct nature of elements A and B:

Element A Element B
(a) Metal Non-metal
(b) Non-metal Non-metal
(c) Non-metal Metalloid
(d) Metalloid Metalloid

Answer:

(C) Four statements are given below.
(I) The metalloids are placed in Groups 13 – 16 in the Modern Periodic Table
(II) Boron is the only metalloid in group 13 of the Modern Periodic Table.
(III) Group 14 of the Modern Periodic Table contains only metalloids.
(IV) Group 17 of the Modern Periodic Table contains both metalloids and non-metals
Select the correct statement(s):
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Variation of the ionization energy of elements with atomic number upto atomic number 20 is given below:
From the graph we can conclude that the tendency to lose electrons:
(a) Increases as we go down the group
(b) Decreases as we go down the group
(c) Remains constant in a group
(d) No definite conclusion can be made
Answer:

(E) The metalloid which is the second most abundant element on earth’s crust after oxygen and is widely used in electronics is:
(a) B (b) Ge
(c) Si (d) As
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State the common characteristic of the following elements: Boron, Silicon, Germanium and Arsenic
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 2.
State the Periodic Law on which the Modern Periodic Table is based.
Answer:
Periodic Law on which the Modern Periodic Table is based is termed as Modern Periodic Law. According to Modern Periodic Law – The properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers.

Related Theory
Modern Periodic Table or Long form of Periodic table was prepared by Henry Moseley and is based on electronic configuration of elements. The elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic numbers. Modern Periodic Table consists of 18 vertical columns called 7 horizontal rows called periods.

Question 3.
How many metals are present in second period of periodic table?
Answer:

Question 4.
The atomic radii of three elements A, B and C of a periodic table are 186 pm, 104 pm and 143 pm respectively. Giving a reason, arrange these elements in the increasing order of atomic numbers in the period.
Answer:
Since atomic size decreases along a period and the atomic number increases. So, the element with smaller radii, has the highest atomic number.

Hence, B has the highest atomic number followed by C and A i.e. A < C < B

Explanation: The atomic size is the distance between the centre of the nucleus and the outermost shell of an isolated atom. The atomic radius is measured in picometre, (1 pm = 10-12 m).

The atomic radius decreases in moving from left to right along a period. This is due to:
As the atomic number increases, the nuclear charge increases. Increase in nuclear charge tends to pull the electrons closer to the nucleur and reduce the size of the atom.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 5.
Consider the following :
20Ca, 8O,16S, 4Be
Which of the above elements would you expect to. be in group 2 of the Modern Periodic table?
Answer:
Consider the electronic configuration of elements:
Ca: 2, 8, 8, 2 O: 2, 6 S: 2, 8, 6 Be: 2, 2
As Ca and Be all have the same number of valence electrons (2), they belong to group 2 of the Modern Periodic Table.

Question 6.
Define electropositivity.
Answer:
Electropositivity is the ability metals to lose electron to form positive ions.
Explanation: Metals have 1, 2, 3 valence electrons and have a strong tendency to lose these to form positive ions, so metal are called electropositive elements.
For example:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers 24
as we move down in a group in the periodic table, atomic size increases. As a result, force of attraction between the nucleus and valence electrons decreases.

Question 7.
Write two reasons responsible for the late discovery of noble gases
Answer:
The two reasons for the late discovery of noble gases are:

  1. Their low concentration in the atmosphere.
  2. Their chemical inertness or very less reactivity.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements with Answers

Question 8.
What were the criteria used by Mendeleev in creating has periodic table
Answer:
The criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his periodic table were the relationship between the atomic masses of the elements and their physical and chemical properties and formulae of the hydrides and oxides formed by an element.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Chemistry MCQ:

Our Environment Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 15 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 15 MCQs On Our Environment

Our Environment Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at the fourth trophic level is 5 kJ, what will be the energy available at the producer level?
Grass Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
(a) 5 kJ
(b) 50 kJ
(c) 500 kJ
(d) 5000 kJ
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 15 MCQ Question 2.
The Foodweb is constituted by:
(a) relationship between the organisms and the environment
(b) relationship between plants and animals
(c) various interlinked food chains in an ecosystem
(d) relationship between animals and the environment
Answer:

Our Environment Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the next is in the form of:
(a) heat energy
(b) light energy
(c) chemical energy
(d) mechanical energy
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Our Environment MCQ Class 10 Question 4.
Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
(a) Ozone is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen.
(b) Ozone shields the surface of the Earth from ultraviolet radiations.
(c) Ozone is deadly poisonous
(d) Ozone gets decomposed by UV radiations
Answer:

Ch 15 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
Organisms of a higher trophic level which feed on several types of organisms belonging to a lower trophic level constitute the:
(a) food web
(b) ecological pyramid
(c) ecosystem
(d) food chain
Answer:
(a) food web

Explanation: Organisms of a higher trophic level feeding on several types of organisms belonging to a lower trophic level constitute the food web.

MCQ On Our Environment Class 10 Question 6.
Expand the abbreviation GAP:
(a) Governmental Agency for Pollution Control
(b) Gross Assimilation by Photosynthesis
(c) Ganga Action Plan
(d) Governmental Agency for Animal Protection
Answer:
(c) Ganga Action Plan

Explanation: GAP, 1985 came in existence to check water pollution in river Ganga.

Class 10 Our Environment MCQ Question 7.
Which of the following are biodegradable substances?
(a) Glass bottle, Grass
(b) Jutebag, polythene bag
(c) Cotton cloth, vegetable peels
(d) DDT, Pen refill
Answer:

MCQ Of Our Environment Class 10 Question 8.
Which of the statement is incorrect?
(a) Producers form the first prophic level.
(b) Produces trap solor energy and transform it into chemical energy in food.
(c) All plants are producers.
(d) Nutrients and energy enter the living world through producers.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Class 10 Science Ch 15 MCQ Question 9.
Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?
(a) Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels
(b) Deficient food supply
(c) Polluted air
(d) Water
Answer:

Chapter 15 Class 10 Science MCQ Question 10.
In the given figure, the various trophic levels are shown in a pyramid. At which trophic level is maximum energy available?
Chapter 15 Class 10 Science MCQ
(a) T4
(b) T2
(c) Ti
(d) T3
Answer:

Chapter 15 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
Disposable plastic plates should not be used because:
(a) they are made of materials with light weight
(b) they are made of toxic materials
(c) they are made of biodegradable materials
(d) they are made of non-biodegradable materials
Answer:

Environment Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
Which one of the following stakeholders of forests causes the maximum damage to forest?
(a) People who live in or around the forest
(b) The forest department of the government
(c) The wildlife and native enthusiasts
(d) The industrialists
Answer:
(d) The industralists

Class 10 Chapter 15 MCQ Science Question 13.
Food web is constituted by:
(a) Relationship between the biotic and abiotic components of ecosystem.
(b) Relationship between abiotic compo-nents and recycling of nutrients.
(c) Relationship between biotic compo-nents and biogeochemical cycles.
(d) Various interlinked food chains in an ecosystem.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Class 10 Science Chapter 15 MCQ Online Test Question 14.
Consider a terrestrial food chain: Grass Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle
The energy transfer in the above food chain will be from:
(I) Producer to decomposer
(II) Producer to primary consumer
(III) Primary consumer to secondary consumer
(IV) Tertiary consumer to Secondary consumer
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Of Chapter 15 Science Class 10 Question 15.
Which of the statements regarding food chain are correct?
(I) All food chains are of equal length and complexity.
(II) Food chains generally consist of only three or four steps.
(III) The greatest number of organisms in a food chain is of the producers.
(IV) Relationships between organisms can be shown only by straight lines.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 16.
Ozone-depleting substances are chiefly utilized in
(I) chimneys
(II) cooling and refrigeration applications and in the manufacturer of foam products
(III) all of the human activities
(IV) burning fossil fuels
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 17.
Consider the chemical reactions taking place at upper atmosphere:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 2
Select the row containing the correct naming of A, B and C.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 3
Answer:
(a) A: Molecular oxygen; B: Ultraviolet radiations; C: Ozone molecule

Explanation: Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of Ultraviolet radiation acting on oxygen (02) molecule. The higher energy UV radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (O2) into free oxygen (O) atoms and these atoms then combine with the molecular oxygen to form ozone as shown below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 4

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 18.
The food habits of the organisms at the second and fourth trophic levels of a typical terrestrial are given in the table below.
Select the row containing the correct food habits:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 5
Answer:

Question 19.
The protocol agreed upon in 1987 organized by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is related to:
(a) Food security
(b) Ozone layer depletion
(c) Global warming
(d) Sustainable deveLopment
Answer:
(b) Ozone Layer depletion

The protocol agreed upon in 1987 organized by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is related to:

Explanation: In 1987. the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC production at 1986 Levels in order to stop the depletion of ozone layer.

Question 20.
The formation of ozone in the stratosphere is powered by:
(a) UltravioLet radiation
(b) Infrared radiations
(c) Atmospheric oxygen
(d) CFC
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 21.
Which organism shown in the food chain above wouLd Contain the greatest concentration of chemical pollutants?
Phytoplankton → Krill → Small fish → Tuna → Shark
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) KriLl
(c) Tuna
(d) Shark

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 15

For the following questions, two statements are given one labeled Assertion (A) and the other Labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given beLow:
(a) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct Explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 22.
Assertion (A): Green plants of the ecosystem are the transducers.
Reason (R): Producers trap the radiant
energy of the sun and change it into chemical energy.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of assertion. Explanation: Green plants can make their own food. Hence, they are called producers. Since they capture the heat of the Sun to prepare their food, they are also called transducers. The plants prepare their food by trapping the energy of the Sun. They convert this light energy to chemical energy to form ATP molecules.

Question 23.
Assertion (A): Food chains generally consist of only three to four steps.
Reason (R): Autotrophs capture solar energy and convert it into chemical energy.
Answer:

Question 24.
Assertion (A): The maximum concentration of chemicals and pesticides occurs at the first trophic leveL
Reason (R): The chemicals and pesticides are not biodegradable.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 25.
Assertion (A): Ozone shields the surface of the earth from ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
Reason (R): Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV radiations acting on oxygen molecules.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of assertion. Explanation: Ozone is formed when the high-energy UV radiations act on oxygen molecules (O2) and split it into free oxygen atoms (O) which combine with the molecular oxygen to form ozone (O3). Ozone thus shields the earth’s surface from the harmful effects of UV radiation.

Question 26.
Assertion (A): Improvements in our lifestyle have resulted in lesser amounts of waste material generation.
Reason (R): Changes in packaging have resulted in much of the waste generated being non-biodegradable.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false, but R is true.

Explanation: Improvements in our lifestyle have resulted in greater amounts of waste material generation due to changes in attitude and more and more things we use becoming disposable, which are also non-biodegradable.

Question 27.
Assertion (A): Frogs mostly occupy the second trophic level in food chains.
Reason: Frogs mostly feed on insects that depend on plants.
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true.

Explanation: Frogs mostly occupy the third trophic level in the food chain since they feed on insects which depend on plants and plants are the primary producers thus they occupy the first trophic level in the food chain. Thus A is false, but R is true.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 28.
Assertion(A): In the food chain third trophic level is occupied by Carnivores.
Reason(R): Some of the carnivores are secondary consumers.
Answer:

Question 29.
Assertion (A): Each step of the level of the food chain forms a trophic level.
Reason (R): The organisms occupying the first trophic levels are called autotrophs.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 30.
Assertion (A): Each step or level of the food chain forms a trophic leveL
Reason (R): The various components of the ecosystem are interdependent.
Answer:

Question 31.
Assertion (A): Polythene bags are non-biodegradable substances.
Reason (B): These bags cannot be broken down by microorganisms to simpler substances.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 32.
Assertion (A): The food chains generally consist of only three or four steps.
Reason (B): Our food grains such as wheat and rice, vegetables and fruits and even meat contain varying amounts of pesticides.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Explanation: The food chains generally consist of only three or four steps because after that the energy added to the biomass of each level is reduced and at the fourth trophic level it will be least. Thus Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion

Question 33.
Assertion (A): The amount of ozone in the atmosphere began to increase sharply in the 1980c.
Reason (R): The United Nations environment program (UNEP) succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC production in 1987.
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true.

Explanation: The amount of ozone in the atmosphere began to decrease sharply in the 1980s because of the United Nations environment program (UNEP) succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC production in 1987. Thus A is false, but R is true.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
India today is facing the problem of overuse of resources, contamination of water and soil and lack of methods of processing the waste. The time has come for the world to say goodbye to “single-use plastics.” Steps must be undertaken to develop environment-friendly substitutes, effective plastic waste collection and methods of its disposal.

Indore treated 15 lakh metric tonnes of waste in just 3 years, through biomining and bioremediation techniques. Bioremediation involves introducing microbes into a landfill to naturally ‘break’ it down and biomining involves using trommel machines to sift through the waste to separate the ‘soil’ and the waste component.

The city managed to chip away 15 lakh metric tonnes of waste at a cost of around? 10 crore. A similar experiment was successfully carried out in Ahmedabad also.
(A) State two methods of effective plastic waste collection in your school.
Answer:

(B) Name any two uses of “single-use plastic” in daily Life.
Answer:
Uses of “Single-use plastic” in daily life.

  1. In medical field: Plastic syringes, plastic gloves are made of single-use plastic and are used so that infection can be controlled.
  2. Single-use plastic is also used in food industry for packing, straws, wrappers, spoons etc.
  3. In emergency/ disaster situations where food and water has to be transported. Plastic will be light in weight and this packaging will be helpful to transport.

(C) If we discontinue the use of plastic, how can an environment-friendly substitute be provided?
Answer:

(D) Do you think microbes will work similarly in landfill sites as they work in the laboratory? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, the microbes will not work similarly in landfill sites as they work in laboratory. Microbes need suitable conditions like temperature, moisture etc. and nutrients to grow. In laboratory we provide this atmosphere artificially to microbes for their growth but landfill sites do not have suitable atmosphere to grow.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 2.
Prerna visited a farm along with her family. Her younger brother was interested in knowing what kind of food is eaten by animals such as cows, buffaloes and deers. She told her brother that all these animals are herbivores as these eat only grass and plants.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 6
How much of the net primary productivity of a terrestrial ecosystem is eaten and digested by herbivores?
(a) 100%
(b) 10%
(c) 1%
(d) 0.1%
Answer:
(b) 10%

Explanation: 10% of the net primary productivity of terrestrial ecosystem is eaten and digested by herbivores. According to 10% law, only 10% of the energy entering a particular trophic level of organisms is available for transfer to the next higher trophic level.

Question 3.
Human body is made up of five important components, of which water is the main component. Food, as well as potable water, are essential for every human being. The food is obtained from plants through agriculture. Pesticides are being used extensively for a high yield in the fields.

These pesticides are absorbed by the plants from the soil along with water and minerals and from the water bodies these pesticides are taken up by the aquatic animals and plants. As these chemicals are not biodegradable, they get accumulated progressively at each trophic level.

The maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in our bodies and greatly affects the health of our mind and body.
(A) Why is the maximum concentration of pesticides found in human beings?
Answer:
As human beings occupy the top level in any food chain, the maximum concentration of these chemicals get accumulated in our bodies due to biological magnification.

Explanation: Pesticides are being used extensively for a high yield in the fields. These pesticides mix up with soil and water. From soil and water, these pesticides are absorbed by the plants along with water and minerals. When herbivores eat this plant food, these chemicals pesticides go into their bodies through the food chain. When the next trophic level, carnivores eat herbivores, these pesticides get transferred to their bodies. As these chemicals are not biodegradable, they get accumulated progressively at each trophic level.

(B) Give on method which could be applied to reduce our intake of pesticides through food to some extent.
Answer:

  • We can reduce our intake of pesticides through food to some extent:
  • Wash fruits and vegetables before eating. Buy organic and locally grown fruits and vegetables.
  • Use non-toxic methods for controlling insects in the kitchen garden. (Anyone).

(C) Various steps in a food chain represent:
(a) Food web
(b) Trophic level
(c) Ecosystem
(d) Biomagnification
Answer:

(D) With regard to various food chains operating in an ecosystem, man is a:
(a) Consumer
(b) Producer
(c) Producer and consumer
(d) Producer and decomposer
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 4.
Driving the Swach Bharat Abhiyaan forward, several NCOs are working towards the instaLLation of Blue and Green Dustbins for Municipal Corporations and schools in New Delhi. They are also carrying out a drive to educate children about the segregation of two different kinds of waste. The green is meant for wet waste and the blue one is for dry waste. This way they are separating biodegradable waste from non-biodegradable, thus providing various recycling and composting benefits and keeping the neighborhood clean and healthy.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 7
In the following groups of materials, which group(s) contain(s) only non-biodegradable items?
(I) Wood, paper, leather
(II) Polythene, detergent, PVC
(III) Plastic, detergent, grass
(IV) Plastic, Bakelite, DDT
(a) (I)
(b) (II)
(c) (I) and (II)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 5.
Series of organisms taking part at various biotic levels form a food chain. Each step or level of the food chain forms a trophic level. The autotrophs or the producers are at the first trophic level. They fix up the solar energy and make it available for heterotrophs or the consumers.
The herbivores or the primary consumers come at the second, small carnivores or the secondary consumers at the third and larger carnivores or the tertiary consumers form the fourth trophic level.
The interactions among various components of the environment involve flow of energy from one component of the system to another.
(A) What are trophic levels?
Answer:
Decomposers are microorganisms which breakdown complex organic substances into simple inorganic substances and help in recycling of nutrients. They feed on the dead and decaying bodies of plants and animals. They return the nutrients back to the soil and thus help in making this ecosystem stable e.g. fungi, bacteria.

(B) Give an example of a food chain.
Answer:

(C) What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem?
Answer:

(D) Explain why the number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited?
Answer:
Only 10% of the energy gets transferred from one trophic level to the next. So after 3 or 4 trophic levels, the energy available for passing on is too less to support another trophic level. Very little usable energy remains after 4 trophic levels. Hence the number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 6.
Nitya observed her grandmother making compost which she used to give to her plants. Composting is the natural process of recycling organic matter, such as leaves and food scraps, into a valuable fertilizer that can enrich soil and plants. Anything that grows decomposes eventually; composting simply speeds up the process by providing an ideal environment for bacteria, fungi, and other decomposing organisms (such as worms, sowbugs, and nematodes) to do their work. The resulting decomposed matter, which often ends up looking like fertile garden soil, is called compost. Fondly referred to by farmers as “black gold,” compost is rich in nutrients and can be used for gardening, horticulture, and agriculture.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 8
The decomposers in an ecosystem:
(a) convert inorganic material to simpler forms
(b) convert organic material to inorganic forms
(c) convert inorganic material to organic compounds
(d) do not breakdown organic compounds
Answer:
(b) convert organic material to inorganic forms Explanation: The microorganisms, comprising bacteria and fungi, break down the dead remains and waste products of organisms. These microorganisms are the decomposers as they break down complex organic substances into simple inorganic substances that go into the soil and are once more used up by the plants.

Question 7.
You might have seen an aquarium, in the first activity, let us try to design an aquarium. What are the things that we need to keep in mind when we create an aquarium? The fish would need a free space for swimming (it could be a large jar), water, oxygen and food. We can provide oxygen through an oxygen pump (aerator) and fish food which is available in the market. If we add a few aquatic plants and animals it can become a self sustaining system.
In the second activity, while creating an aquarium did you take care not to put an aquatic animal which would eat others? Write the aquatic organisms in order of who eats whom and form a chain of at least three steps. A → B → C
(A) Identify the human-made ecosystems from the following:
(I) Ponds
(II) Crop fields
(III) Aquarium
(IV) Lakes
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (II) and (III)

Explanation: Ponds and lakes are natural ecosystems, although there are some artificial or human made Lakes too. Aquariums and crop fields are human made ecosystems as these have been made by humans.

(B) The biotic and abiotic components in an aquarium are listed in the table below. Select the row containing the correct answer:

Biotic Components

Abiotic Components

(a) Aquatic plants and animals, water  Glass tank, aerator
(b) Glass tank, aquatic plants and animals  Water, aerator
(c) Aquatic plants and animals  Glass tank, water, aerator
(d) Glass tank, water, aerator  Aquatic plants and animals

(a) Ponds are natural ecosystems whereas aquariums are artificial ecosystems.
(b) There are less fishes in an aquarium as compared to a pond or lake
(c) The size of fishes is small in an aquarium as compared to a pond or lake
(d) Decomposers are absent in an aquarium whereas they are present in ponds or lakes.
Answer:

(D) What would have happened if we had put predator fishes in the aquarium?
(a) They would eat all the smaller fishes thereby generating lot of waste.
(b) They would eat away all the food available in the aquarium.
(c) They would compete with smaller fish for food and nutrition.
(d) They would not pose any problem in the aquarium.
Answer:

(E) Consider the following aquatic food chain consisting of three steps:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 9
Identify the organisms at A, B and C:
(a) A: Zooplankton; B: Phytoplankton; C: Large fish
(b) A: Phytoplankton; B: Zooplankton; C: Small fish
(c) A: Zooplankton; B: Phytoplankton; C: Small fish
(d) A: Phytoplankton; B: Zooplankton; C: Large fish
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 8.
Ritu went to the shopping mall to buy some gifts for her parents on their wedding anniversary. She was pleasantly surprised to see that all shop owners were giving the items purchased in beautiful and coloured paper bags instead of plastic bags.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 10
Why is it better to use paper bags than plastic bags?
Answer:
Paper is a biodegradable material, as it is obtained from wood whereas plastic is a non- biodegradable material. Therefore, paper is environment friendly whereas plastic causes environmental pollution.

Question 9.
In the first activity, find out what happens to the waste generated at home. Find out how the local body (panchayat, municipal corporation, resident welfare association) deals with the waste. Are there mechanisms in place to treat the biodegradable and nonbiodegradable wastes separately?
Calculate how much waste is generated at home in a day. How much of this waste is biodegradable? Suggest ways of dealing with this waste.
Next, find out how the sewage in your locality is treated. Are there mechanisms in place to ensure that local water bodies are not polluted by untreated sewage. Find out how the local industries in your locality treat their wastes.
(A) In the following groups of waste generated at home, which group contains only biodegradable items?
(a) Glass bottles, news paper, used tea leaves
(b) Polythene, detergent, Plastic packets
(c) Vegetable peels, paper, flowers
(d) Plastic packets, PVC, Glass bottles
Answer:
(c) Vegetable peels, paper, flowers

Explanation: Biodegradable substances are those substances which are easily degraded by natural processes by the action of microorganisms. All materials of plant and animal origin are biodegradable whereas man made substances such as plastic, detergents, PVC, glass, etc are non- biodegradable.

(B) Based on the study of how most local municipal authorities deal with the wastes generated at home, following statements are written. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) The waste generated at home are differentiated into biodegradable and non-biodegradable materials.
(b) All types of wastes are placed in a single bin.
(c) Most of the “dry-waste” is processed at waste-to-energy plants.
(d) Most of the “wet-waste” is sent for composting
Answer:

(C) Which of the following is not the correct practice of dealing with biodegradable wastes?
(a) Composting
(b) Anaerobic digestion of waste
(c) Landfills
(d) Burning
Answer:

(D) Select the correct statements regarding treatment of sewage in any locality:
(I) Sewage is treated at sewage treatment plants.
(II) Sewage treatment is the process of removing contaminants from industrial wastewater only.
(III) Physical, chemical, and biological processes are used to remove contaminants and produce treated wastewater.
(IV) Sewage is treatment is the process of removing contaminants from domestic and municipal wastewater.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:

(E) The best practice followed by local industries in treating their wastes is:
(a) Source reduction and reuse
(b) Incineration
(c) Dumping solid wastes in open drain
(d) Dumping chemical wastes directly into water bodies
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 10.
Vijay’s science teacher was once sharing experiences about his village life. He explained how as a child, he would often hear the sound of frogs during nights and especially during the rainy days. But the situation has changed now with lesser population of frogs even in villages.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 11
The number of malaria patients in a village increased tremendously when large number of frogs were exported from the village? What could be its cause?.
Answer:

Question 11.
The sun is the ultimate source of light and heat for planet Earth and sets in motion very large and complex systems that develop and sustain life. One such land-based ecosystem is the forest, supporting a biodiverse set of plants, which in turn provide food for other living things. Several distinct types of woodland habitats exist on Earth, such as conifer, deciduous and mixed. A study of the deciduous forest shows how a food chain functions within an ecosystem that experiences distinct seasonal changes.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 12
(A) In an ecosystem, the main source of energy is
(a) heat released during transpiration
(b) solar energy
(c) heat released during respiration
(d) water
Answer:
(b) Solar energy

Explanation: Sun is the main source of energy for an ecosystem since green plants or producers are able to synthesize food only with the help of solar energy .

(B) Refer to the figure of food chain given above, identify A, B, C and D and select the correct combination of plots provided in the table below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 13
Answer:
(d) A: Producer; B: Primary Consumer; C: Secondary Consumer; D: Tertiary Consumer

Explanation: In all food chains, the green plants are the producers as they synthesize food by utilizing solar energy. The small insects marked !B’ or herbivores are the primary consumers as they feed on plants. Small animals marked ‘C’ are secondary consumers as they feed on small insects and similarly larger carnivores are tertiary consumers and marked ‘D‘ and ‘E’.

(C) Which of the following are functional components of an ecosystem?
(I) Decomposers
(II) Solar energy
(III) Energy flow
(IV)Air
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (III) and (IV)
(C) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) The correct identification of P and Q from the figure of food chain given is:
(a) P: Decomposers, Q: Nutrients
(b) P: Decomposers, Q: SoiL
(c) P: Producers, Q: Nutrients
(d) P Tertiary Consumers, Q: SoiL
Answer:

(E) The effect of completely removing ‘P’ from the food chain would be:
(a) Energy flow would be blocked
(b) Movement of minerals back to soil will be blocked
(c) Rate of decomposition would increase
(d) No carbon dioxide will be available for herbivores for respiration
Answer:
(b) Movement of minerals back to soil will be blocked

The effect of completely removing ‘P’ from the food chain would be:

Explanation: The organisms marked ‘P’ are the decomposers which help in cleansing our environment by feeding on dead and decaying organisms. They help in movement of minerals or nutrients back to the soil for the producers.

Question 12.
Sanket and his friends went to a nearby orchard to see how different fruits are cultivated. However, they observed that pesticides were being sprayed on the fruits without adhering to any guidelines.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 14
How can excessive use of pesticides to protect the crops from diseases cause long-term damage to mankind?
Answer:
Pesticides are non-biodegradabLe chemicals which enter our food chain through the fruits we eat or are absorbed by the aquatic plants and animals. These concentration of these chemicals increases progressively at each trophic level and maximum concentration is found in human beings. This is known as biological magnification.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 13.
Ozone (O3) is a gas which is present naturally within Earth’s atmosphere and is formed of three oxygen atoms. In the figure we see a standard profile of ozone gas concentration through the Earth’s atmosphere, extending from ground level up to 40 kilometres in altitude. Ozone plays a different role in atmospheric chemistry at different heights in the Earth’s atmosphere. We can differentiate this profile into two key zones:

Tropospheric ozone is that which is present in the lower atmosphere. Throughout most of the troposphere, ozone concentrations are relatively low (as shown in the diagram). Ground-level ozone can have negative impacts on human health and is therefore commonly referred to as ‘bad’ ozone.

Stratospheric ozone is that which is present in the upper atmosphere. As shown in the diagram, concentrations of ozone are higher in the stratosphere than in the troposphere.

The stratosphere includes the zone termed the ‘ozone layer’. In the ozone layer, it is often referred to as ‘good’ ozone since it plays a crucial role in absorbing potentially dangerous ultraviolet (UV-B) radiation from the sun.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 15
(A) Study the above graph and select the row containing the correct information:

Good Ozone Bad Ozone
Ionosphere  Mesosphere
Stratosphere  Ionosphere
Stratosphere  Troposphere
Mesosphere  Troposphere

Answer:
(c) Good ozone: Stratosphere; Bad ozone: Troposphere

(B) Ozone at higher atmosphere is a product of:
(a) Ultraviolet radiation acting on free oxygen.
(b) Infrared radiation acting on oxygen molecule.
(c) Infrared radiation acting on free oxygen.
(d) Ultraviolet radiation acting on oxygen molecule.
Answer:

(C) Select the incorrect statements regarding ozone gas:
(I) It is present only in troposphere.
(II) It is present in very small quantities in stratosphere.
(III) It can be beneficial or harmful, depending upon its location and concentration.
(IV) It shields the surface of the earth from ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (111)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (II)

Explanation: Ozone is present in very low concentration in the lower atmosphere or troposphere, it is present in higher concentrations in the upper atmosphere or stratosphere. It is quite harmful when present in the lower atmosphere as it causes several diseases in humans. It is beneficial when present in upper atmosphere as it shields the surface of the earth from the harmful ultraviolet radiations of the sun.

(D) Which of the following products contain ozone-depleting substances?
(a) Motorbike, car with AC, Pesticides, Fire extinguisher
(b) Car with AC, refrigerator, fire extinguisher, aerosol sprays
(c) Motorbike, aerosol sprays, Pesticides, Fire extinguisher
(d) Heater, car with AC, Pesticides, Fire extinguisher
Answer:

(E) Which of the following is not the consequence of ozone layer depletion?
(a) Increased ultraviolet rays
(b) Malignant melanoma-Another form of skin cancer
(c) Cataracts and other eye damage
(d) Tides
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 14.
Monty was travelling to Delhi by road from Chandigarh. He observed a huge mountain like structure on GT Karnal road upon entering Delhi. He came to know that it was actually a landfill site and that Delhi has three landfill sites, viz. at Okhla, Bhalswa and Ghazipur. One can find waste burning at any give time in these landfills. They have also run out of space nearly a decade ago. Although the permissible limit for a garbage dumping is set to 20 meters, these sites have turned into huge mountains well beyond the permissible limit.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 16
Suggest two measures to manage the garbage we produce.
Answer:
Two measures to manage the garbage we produce are listed below:
(1) Segregate the wastes and try to reuse as many items as possible.
(2) Put wet and dry wastes in separate garbage bins so that they can be easily recycled.

Question 15.
Toxic substances move up the food chain and become more concentrated at each level. These substances are often pollutants from industries or pesticides from farming. Consider any small fish that eats plankton that has been tainted with mercury. Hundreds of small fish might then contain just few parts of the mercury, not enough to cause major harm. A bird then might eat hundreds of the small fish. so that now instead of 200 ppm ¡n a single fish, that bird has much higher Levels of mercury. The toxin amplifies as it moves up the food chain. The amount of mercury is measured in ppm, which means parts per million.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 17
(A) The phenomenon when concentrations of a harmful substance increases in organisms at higher trophic LeveLs in a food chain or food web is:
(a) Artificial eutrofication
(b) Biological accumulation
(c) Biological magnification
(d) Biological pollution
Answer:

(B) The table below gives the organism in a food web containing the Lowest and highest concentration of harmful chemical pollutants.
Select the row containing the correct answer.

Lowest Concentration

Highest Concentration

(a) Primary consumers  Secondary consumers
(b) Tertiary consumers  Producers
(c) Producers consumers  Secondary
(d) Producers consumers  Tertiary

Answer:
(d) Lowest Concentration: Producers Highest Concentration: Tertiary consumers

Explanation: The concentration of harmful chemical pollutants such as DDT and other pesticides increases progressively at each trophic level Therefore, tertiary consumers which occupy the highest trophic level will have the highest concentration and producers which occupy the Lowest trophic level will have the lowest concentration of harmful chemical pollutants.

(C) Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(I) Non-biodegradable wastes are biological in origin.
(II) Biodegradable wastes are degraded by microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi.
(III) Biodegradabte wastes enter the food chain and get biologically magnified.
(IV)Non-biodegradable wastes are absorbed by plants from the soil.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: The biodegradable wastes are biological in origin whereas non-biodegradable wastes are plastic, metals etc. The non-biodegradable wastes enter the food chain and get biologically magnified as we higher up the food chain.

(D) It was observed that at places where DDT was used to control mosquitoes and other pests, the eggs of eagles would become fragiLe and break and the eagle almost became extinct. After DDT was banned by Lawmakers, eagle population has recovered.
The possible reason for this is:
(a) DDT is non-biodegradable and hence found in Largest concentration in tertiary consumers.
(b) DDT is non-biodegradable and found in Largest concentration in producers.
(c) Largest concentration of DDT is found in secondary consumers on which eagle feeds.
(d) DDT is a strong chemical which makes the eggs fragile.
Answer:

(E) Biological magnification is a result of
(a) climate change
(b) food shortages
(c) pollution
(d) extinction
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 16.
The chemical energy of food is the main source of energy required by all living organisms. This energy is transmitted to different trophic levels along the food chain. The energy flow in the ecosystem is one of the major factors that support the survival of such a great number of organisms. For almost all organisms on earth, the primary source of energy is solar energy.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 18
(A) The flow of energy in an ecosystem is:
(a) Omnidirectional
(b) Unidirectional
(c) Bidirectional
(d) May be unidirectional or bidirectional
Answer:

(B) Non-biodegradable wastes enter the food chain through:
(I) Soil
(II) Water
(III) Air
(IV) Decomposers
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (II)

Explanation: The non-biodegradable pesticides are either washed down into the soil or into the water bodies. From the soil, these are absorbed by the plants along with water and minerals, and from the water bodies these are taken up by aquatic plants and animals and hence enter the food chain.

(C) What happens to the solar energy incident on the autotrophs in a terrestrial ecosystem?
(a) It is completely captured and converted into food energy by the autotrophs.
(b) A part of it is reverted to the solar input
(c) A part of it is captured and passes to the herbivores.
(d) It moves progressively through the various trophic levels in both directions.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 19
Answer:

(D) In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic level is 8 kJ.
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
Select the row containing the correct values of the energy available at the producer level and secondary consumer level?

Energy Available Producer Level Energy Available at Secondary Consumer Level
(a) 800kJ  8kJ
(b) 800kJ  80kJ
(c) 8000kJ  72kJ
(d) 8000kJ  80kJ

Answer:

(E) If only 10% of the energy from one trophic level passes up to the next level, what happens to the 90% energy that is not passed on?
(a) It is lost as heat to the environment
(b) It is used in digestion of food and in doing work.
(c) It is used for growth and reproduction.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) Energy Available at Producer Level: 8000 Id; Energy Available at secondary consumer level: 80 kJ

Explanation: According to 10 percent law, 90% of the energy captured from the previous trophic level is lost to the environment and only 10 percent is made available to the next trophic level.
in this food chain, at the 4th trophic level, 8 kJ energy is available to the snake. Therefore, we can calculate backwards to find energy available at the third, second and first trophic levels.

  • Energy available to Snake (Tertiary consumer) = 8 kJ = 10% of 80 kJ
  • Energy available to Frog (Secondary consumer) = 80 kJ = 10% of 800 kJ
  • Energy available to Grasshopper (Primary consumer) = 800 kJ = 10% of 8000 kJ.
  • The energy available to Grass (Producer) = 8000 kJ

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
List two main components of an ecosystem.
Answer:
Two main components of an ecosystem are

  1. Biotic component
  2. Abiotic component

Question 2.
What is meant by ‘biological magnification’?
Answer:
Biological magnification is the process by which the harmful and toxic substances enter the food chain and get concentrated in the body of living organisms at each successive level in food chain.

Question 3.
Name any two man-made ecosystems.
Answer:
Examples of man-made ecosystems are aquarium, crop-fields, zoo, botanical garden, Greenhouse

Related Theory
An ecosystem is a self-sustained unit that comprises of all the interacting living things together with their non-living environment Manmade or artificial ecosystems that are carefully maintained in controlled environment.

Biodiversity in the man-made ecosystem will be very low as compared to natural ecosystem.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 4.
Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes be discarded in two different dustbins?
Answer:

Question 5.
What is meant by tropic level in a food chain? Construct a terrestrial food chain with four trophic levels. The energy flow in a food chain is always unidirectional. Why?
Answer:
Trophic level = Each step or level of the food chain forms a trophic level.

  1. The ultimate source of energy used by living organisms is the sun.
  2. Only 1% of solar radiations are captured by green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem and converted into food energy by photosynthesis. This energy is stored as chemical energy of food.
  3. When green plants (producers) are eaten by primary consumers (Herbivores) a lot of heat is lost as heat to the environment and other activities. Only 10% of the food eaten is turned into its new body and is available for the next level of consumers (Primary carnivores).
  4. Only 10% amount of organic matter reaches the next level of consumers (secondary carnivores).
  5. Since, amount of available energy goes on decreasing at each trophic level, food chains usually consist of only 3 to 4 trophic levels. For example, grass receives 6000 J of energy from the sun. It will pass 10% of energy as per 10% law to grasshopper i.e. 600 J and so on.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers 20

Question 6.
What will be the amount of energy available to the organisms of the 2nd trophic level of a food chain, if the energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 joules?
Answer:

Question 7.
Why do producers always occupy the first trophic level on every food chain?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers

Question 8.
Give 2 examples of each:
(A) Organisms occupying the first trophic level
Answer:
Organisms occupying the first trophic level: trees, shrubs, grass.

Related Theory
Green plants make their own food by the process of photosynthesse. The food or energy is transferred from one organism to the other through food chain. So the srarting point of a food chain in produces i.e., plant occupy the first prophic level.

(B) Abiotic factors of an ecosystem
Answer:
Abiotic factors of an ecosystem: soil, water, Light.

Related Theory
All the ecolytems are made of the main components biotic and abiotic components. The biotic component (living organisms) interact continuously with abiotic component (non-living component).

Question 9.
What are the advantages of doth bags over plastic bags during shopping?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Biology MCQ:

Control and Coordination Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 7 MCQs On Control and Coordination

Control And Coordination Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The electrical impulse travels in a neuron from:
(a) Dendrite Axon → Axonal end → Cell body
(b) Cell body → Dendrite → Axon → Axonal end
(c) Dendrite → Cell body → Axon → Axonal end
(d) Axonal end → Axon → Cell body Dendrite
Answer:
(c) Dendrite → Cell body → Axon → Axonal end

Explanation: The electrical impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body, and then along the axon to its axonal end. At the end of the axon, the electrical impulse sets off the release of some chemicals. These chemicals cross the gap, or synapse, and start a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of the next neuron.

Control And Coordination MCQ Question 2.
In a synapse, a chemical signal is transmitted from:
(a) The dendritic end of one neuron to the axonal end of another neuron.
(b) Axon to cell body of the same neuron.
(c) Cell body to the axonal end of the same neuron.
(d) The axonal end of one neuron to the dendritic end of another neuron.
Answer:
(d) The axonal end of one neuron to the dendritic end of another neuron.

Explanation: The chemical signal is transmitted from axonal end of one neuron to the dendritic end of another nueron. This microscopic gap is called synapse.

MCQ On Control And Coordination Question 3.
In a neuron, the conversion of electrical signal to a chemical signal occurs at/in:
(a) Cell body
(b) Axonal end
(c) Dendritic end
(d) Axon
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Class 10 Science Chapter 7 MCQ Question 4.
Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc?
(a) Receptors Muscles → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Spinal cord
(b) Receptors → Motor neuron → Spinal cord Sensory neuron → Muscle
(c) Receptors → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Muscle
(d) Receptors → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Muscle
Answer:
(d) Receptors → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Muscle

Explanation: A stimulus received by the receptors present on skin, is transmitted to the sensory neuron, which carries it to the central nervous system (the spinal cord and brain).

A motor neuron carries the message from the central nervous system to the effector which could be a muscle, a gland or both.

Related Theory
Nerve based pathway performed by an impulse from the receptor of stimulus to the effector organ is called the reflex arc. A reflex action is a nerve mediated automatic and spontaneous response to a certain stimulus without sonsulting the wilt of the individual coughing, sneezing, etc.

MCQ Of Control And Coordination Question 5.
Which of the following statements are true?
(I) Sudden action in response to something in the environment is called a reflex action.
(II) Sensory neurons carry signals from the spinal cord to muscles.
(III) Motor neurons carry signals from receptors to the spinal cord.
(IV) The path through which signals are transmitted from a receptor to muscle or a gland is called reflex arc.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (I) and (IV)
(d) (I) (II) and (III)
Answer:
(c) (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Reflex action is a sudden action in response to some stimuli in the environment. Reflex arc is the path through which signals are transmitted from a receptor to a muscle or a gland.

Class 10 Control And Coordination MCQ Question 6.
Which of the following statements are true about the brain?
(I) The main thinking part of bi in is the hindbrain.
(II) Centres of hearing, smell, memory, sight, etc. are located in the fore-brain.
(III) Involuntary actions like salivation, vomiting and blood pressure are controlled by the medulla in the hind brain.
(IV) Cerebellum does not control posture and balance of the body.
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) (II) and (III)
(c) (II) and (III)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Control And Coordination MCQ With Answers Pdf Question 7.
The spinal cord originates from:
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Medulla
(c) Pons
(d) Cerebellum
Answer:

MCQ Of Control And Coordination Class 10 Question 8.
The movement of shoot towards light is:
(a) Geotropism
(b) Hydrotropism
(c) Chemotropism
(d) Phototropism

Control And Coordination Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
The main function of abscisic acid in plants is to:
(a) Increase the length of cells
(b) Promote cell division
(c) Inhibit growth
(d) Promote growth of stem
Answer:
(c) Inhibit growth

Explanation: Abscisic acid (ABA) is one example of a hormone which inhibits growth. Its effects include wilting of leaves.

Related Theory
Auxin is synthesized at the shoot tip, helps the cells to grow longer. When light is coming from one side of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot. This concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light.

Gibberellin helps in the growth of the stem.

Cytokinin promotes cell division, and it is natural then that they are present in greater concentration in areas of rapid cell division, as in fruits and seeds.

Abscisic acid inhibits growth. Its effects include wilting of leaves. It is also responsible for falling of senescent leaves.

Class 10 Chapter 7 Science MCQ Question 10.
Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which hormone?
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Auxin
(d) Insulin
Answer:
(b) Thyroxin

Explanation: Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make the thyroxin hormone. Thyroxin regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body so as to provide the best balance for growth. Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin. In case iodine is deficient in our diet, there is a possibility that we might suffer from goitre. One of the symptoms in this disease is a swollen neck.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Question 11.
Choose the incorrect statement about insulin:
(a) It is produced from pancreas.
(b) It regulates growth and development of the body.
(c) It regulates blood sugar levels.
(d) Insufficient secretion of insulin will cause diabetes.
Answer:

Control And Coordination Class 10 MCQs Question 12.
Select the mismatched pair:
(a) Adrenaline – Pituitary gland
(b) Testosterone – Testes
(c) Oestrogen – Ovary
(d) Thyroxin – Thyroid gland
Answer:
(a) Adrenaline – Pituitary gland

Explanation: Adrenaline is secreted by the adrenal gland, whereas growth hormone is secreted by the pituitary gland.

Control And Coordination MCQ With Answers Question 13.
The growth of tendril in pea plants is due to:
(a) The effect of light.
(b) The effect of gravity.
(c) Rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are away from the support.
(d) Rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells in contact with the support.
Answer:

Control And Coordination MCQ Class 10 Question 14.
The growth of pollen tubes towards ovules is due to:
(a) Hydrotropism
(b) Chemotropism
(c) Geotropism
(d) Phototropism
Answer:

MCQs On Control And Coordination Question 15.
The movement of sunflower in accordance with the path of the sun is due to:
(a) Phototropism
(b) Geotropism
(c) Chemotropism
(d) Hydrotropism
Answer:

Question 16.
Involuntary actions in the body are controlled by:
(a) Medulla in the forebrain
(b) Medulla in the midbrain
(c) Medulla in the hindbrain
(d) Medulla in the spinal cord
Answer:
(c) Medulla in the hindbrain

Explanation: Medulla is a part of the hindbrain and controls involuntary action.

Question 17.
Which of the following is not an involuntary action?
(a) Vomiting
(b) Salivation
(c) Heartbeat
(d) Chewing
Answer:
(d) Chewing

Explanation: The actions that are not under our direct control are known as involuntary actions. Vomiting, salivation and heartbeat are examples of involuntary action. These involuntary actions are controlled by the medulla in the hindbrain.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 18.
A doctor advised a person to take an injection of insulin because:
(a) His blood pressure was low.
(b) His heart was beating slowly.
(c) He was suffering from goitre.
(d) His sugar level in blood was high.
Answer:
(d) His sugar level in blood was high.

Explanation: A person taking injections of insulin is suffering from diabetes. Insulin is a hormone which is produced by the pancreas. It helps in regulating blood sugar levels. If not secreted in proper amounts, the sugar level in the blood rises, causing many harmful effects.

Question 19.
The hormone which increases fertility in males is called:
(a) Oestrogen
(b) Testosterone
(c) Insulin
(d) Growth hormone
Answer:
(b) Testosterone

The hormone which increases fertility in males is called:

Explanation: Testosterone is the male sex hormone necessary for sperm production. In addition to regulating the formation of sperms, testosterone brings changes in appearance seen in boys, at the time of puberty.

Question 20.
Which of the following endocrine glands is unpaired?
(a) Adrenal
(b) Testes
(c) Pituitary
(d) Ovary
Answer:

Question 21.
The junction between two neurons is called:
(a) Cell junction
(b) Neuromuscular junction
(c) Neural joint
(d) Synapse
Answer:
(d) Synapse

Related Theory

  • Synapse is the junction between two neurons.
  • Cell junction is junction between neighboring cells.
  • Neuromuscular junction allows delivery of impulses from neurons to other cells, like muscles cells/gland.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 22.
In humans, life processes are controlled and regulated by:
(a) Reproductive and endocrine systems.
(b) Respiratory and nervous systems.
(c) Endocrine and digestive systems.
(d) Nervous and endocrine systems.
Answer:

Question 23.
Select the row containing incorrect information:

Endocrine Gland The function of hormone secreted
(a) Thyroid Regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism
(b) Pituitary Regulates growth and development of the body
(c) Pancreas Increasing blood sugar levels
(d) Adrenal Increasing heart rate

Answer:
(c) Endocrine Gland: Pancreas; Function of hormone – Increasing blood sugar levels

Question 24.
Look at the figure below and identify the structure labelled incorrectly:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 1
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 2
Answer:
(d) D-Dendrite

Explanation: Part labelled D is capillary and not dendrite, as dendrites receive nerve impulses.

Question 25.
Given below are four statements regarding endocrine glands and hoimones. Select the correct statements:
(I) Hormones are secreted by the endocrine glands.
(II) Some endocrine glands secrete hormones in response to other hormones.
(III) Hormones are required in large quantities.
(IV) Many hormones are controlled by some form of a feedback mechanism.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) (I), (II), and (III)
(d) (I), (II), and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), and (IV)

Explanation: Hormones are very potent substances, which means that very small amounts of a hormone may have profound effects on metabolic processes. Some endocrine glands secrete hormones in response to other hormones. The hormones that cause the secretion of other hormones are called tropic hormones. A hormone from gland A causes gland B to secrete its hormone. Many hormones are controlled by some form of a negative feedback mechanism, in this type of system, a gland is sensitive to the concentration of a substance that it regulates. A negative feedback system causes a reversal of increases and decreases in body conditions in order to maintain a state of stability.

Question 26.
Given below are four statements regarding the movement in plants.
Select the incorrect statements.
(I) Movement in plants happens at a point as the point of touch.
(II) The plants use electrical-chemical means to convey information from cell to cell.
(III) There are specialised tissues in plants for the conduction of information.
(IV) Plant cells change shape by changing the amount of water in them
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 27.
The junction between two nerves is known as:
(a) Synapse
(b) Axon
(c) Dendrite
(d) Capillary
Answer:
(a) Synapse

Explanation: The junction between two neurons is known as synapse. It is the site of transmission of nerve impulses between two nerve cells (neurons) or between a neuron and a gland or muscle cell (effector). A synaptic connection between a neuron and a muscle cell is called a neuromuscular junction.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 28.
The plant hormone that promotes dormancy m seeds and buds is:
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Abscisic acid
Answer:
(d) Abscisic acid

Explanation: Abscisic acid is one example of a hormone which inhibits growth. Its effects include wilting of leaves and promoting dormancy in seeds and buds.

Question 29.
The secretion of which hormone leads to physical changes in the body when you are 10-12 years of age?
(a) Oestrogen from testes and testosterone from ovary.
(b) Oestrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland.
(c) Testosterone from testes and Oestrogen from ovary.
(d) Testosterone from thyroid gland and Oestrogen from pituitary gland.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 7

For the following questions, two statements are given: one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R) Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 30.
Assertion (A): A growing plant appears to bend towards the direction of light.
Reason (R): The plant hormone auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).

Question 31.
Assertion (A): Plants convey the acquired information from cell to cell.
Reason (R): Plants have specialized tissues for the conduction of information.
Select the correct answer to the above question from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 32.
Assertion (A): In animals, the brain is the main controlling center for responding to changes in their environment.
Reason (R): The thinking process of the brain is not fast enough in animals.
Answer: (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation: Reflex arcs have evolved in animals as the thinking process of the brain is not fast enough. Reflex action is any spontaneous, involuntary, and automatic response to a stimulus due to a change in our environment. For e.g. when a person touches a hot plate a sudden action leading to the withdrawal of hand occurs in a certain manner, this path of manner determines the reflex arc.

Reflex arcs have evolved in animals in order to take sudden and involuntary actions which are required in certain circumstances where emergency response is required to save the body from situations that may lead to danger.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
The thyroid gland is a bibbed structure situated in our neck region. It secretes a hormone called thyroxine. Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make thyroxine. Thyroxine regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body. It promotes the growth of body tissues also. When there ¡s an excess of thyroxine ¡n the body, a person suffers from hyperthyroidism and if this gland Is underactive it results in hypothyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is diagnosed by blood tests that measure the levels of thyroxine and Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH). Hypothyroidism ¡s caused due to the deficiency of iodine in our diet resulting in a disease called goitre. Iodised salt can be included in our diet ro control it.
(A) Where is the thyroid gland situated in our body?
Answer:

(B) State the function of thyroxine in human body.
Answer:
Thyroxine hormone is secreted by thyroid glands. Thyroxine plays vital roles in: increasing the basal metabolic rate regulating long bone growth. Increasing body’s seasitivity to hormone adrenaline, digestive function.

(C) What is hyperthyroidism?
Answer:
Hyperthyroidism occurs when the thyroid gland produces excessive amount of hormone thyroxine

Related Theory
Hyperthyroidism means the thyroid gland is overactive and Overactive thyroid can sized up metabolism nervousness, anxiety, loss of mood swings etc.

(D) How can we control hypothyroidism?
Answer:
We can control hypothyroidism by including iodised salt in our diet. Deficiency of iodine in our diet reduces the levels of ISH and a disease called goitre

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 2.
While watching the TV show Master Chef Australia, Rima observed that the contestants were blindfolded and then asked to identify cubes of different fruits or food items by smelling and then by tasting them.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 3
Which of the following statements is correct about receptors?
(a) Gustatory receptors detect taste while olfactory receptors detect smell.
(b) Both gustatory and olfactory receptors detect smell.
(c) Auditory receptors detect smell and olfactory receptors detect taste.
(d) Olfactory receptors detect taste and gustatory receptors detect smell.
Answer:

Question 3.
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) stimulates thyroid gland to produce thyroxine. Study the table given below.
Table: TSH Levels During Pregnancy
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 4
It is important to monitor TSH levels during pregnancy. High TSH levels and hypothyroidism can especially affect chances of miscarriage. Therefore, proper medication in consultation with a doctor is required to regulate/control the proper functioning of the thyroid gland.
(A) Give the full form of TSH.
Answer:
Full form of TSH: Thyroid Stimulating Hormone.

(B) State the main function of TSH.
Answer:
Thyroid stimulating hormone is produced by pituitary gland. Its main function is to regulate the production of hormones by the thyroid gland.)

Related Theory
A TSH test is a blood test that measures TSH i.e. how much of this hormone is present in blood. Thyroid gland is the largest gland endocrine gland, which is H-shaped present in the neck region. Thyroxine produced by thyroid gland regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.

(C) Why do TSH levels in pregnant women need to be monitored?
Answer:

(D) A pregnant woman has TSH level of 8.95 mU/L. What care is needed for her?
Answer:
A pregnant woman has TSH levels 8.95 m U/L which is very high in any of the three trimesters. A care is needed for her on regular basis to reduce the levels of TSH.

A regular test of TSH levels every 6-8 weeks should be done.
Proper medication in consultation with a doctor is required to regulate/control the proper functioning of the thyroid gland

Question 4.
Veer accidentally touched a thorn but quickly withdrew his hand. He later realized that he did this without even thinking about it! So, his reflexes were quite quick.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 5
Reflex action is controlled by:
(a) Brain
(b) Spinal cord
(c) Peripheral Nervous System
(d) Autonomic Nervous System
Answer:
(b) Spinal cord

Explanation: Reflex action is an involuntary and nearly instantaneous movement in response to a stimulus. A reflex action involves a very simple nervous pathway called a reflex arc. A reflex arc starts off with receptors being excited on sensing a stimulus. They then send signals along a sensory neuron to the spinal cord, where the signals are passed on to a motor neuron. Invertebrates, most sensory neurons do not pass directly into the brain, but synapse in the spinal cord. The spinal cord acts as the main centre for reflex actions. The spinal cord acts as a link between spinal nerves and the brain.

Question 5.
When Sanket went to a nearby farm with his friend, he found lots of mature fruits and Leaves lying on the ground. He tried to find out the reason behind this.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 6

The substance that triggers the fall of mature leaves and fruits from plants is:
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellins
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(c) Abscisic acid

Explanation: Abscisic acid is one example of a hormone which inhibits growth. Its effects include wilting of leaves and fall of mature leaves and fruits from plants.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 6.
Study are table in which the levels of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) in men are given and answer the questions that follow on the basis of understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied concepts.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 7
men are at greater risk for developing abnormal TSH levels during instruction, white giving birth and after going through menopause. Found 5% of women in the United States have some kind of thyroid problem compared to 3% of men. Despite claims that high TSH increases risk for heart disease, a 2013 study found no link between high. TSH heart diseases. But a 2017 study showed that older women are specially at risk for developing thyroid cancer if they have high TSH calls along with thyroid nodules.
(A) A 35-year-old woman has TSH level 6.03 mll/L. What change should she bring in her diet to control this level?
Answer:
The normal range of TSH level falls between 0.4 -4.0 m U/L. A 35 year old woman has TSH level 6.03 m U/L. 21 means she has higher level of TSH. Chance are that she may have an underactive thyroid. She should follow iodine rich diet.

Explanation: The deficiency of iodine in the diet of a person produces less thyroxine hormone. When a person will start taking iodine rich diet lies iodised salt, the thyroid gland will work actively to produce more thyroxine hormone.

(B) When do women face a greater risk of abnormal TSH level?
Answer:
Women face a greater risk of abnormal TSH level during menstruation, while giving birth and after going through menopause.

(C) State the consequence of low TSH level.
Answer:
The consequences of low TSH level:
(1) Body metabolism slows down
(2) Weight gain
(3) Forgetfulness
(4) Lack of concentration
(5) Faligne
(6) Depression etc. (Any two)

(D) Name the mineral that is responsible for synthesis of hormone secreted by thyroid gland.
Answer:

Question 7.
Pranay’s father was suffering from diabetes since a long time. Apart from several dietary restrictions, he was given injections of insulin regularly.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 8
Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin?
Answer:
Patients of diabetes have insufficient levels of insulin produced by pancreas and are therefore treated by giving injections of insulin. Insulin is a hormone which is produced by the pancreas and helps in regulating blood sugar levels. If it is not secreted in proper amounts, the sugar level in the blood rises causing many harmful effects.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 8.
A student was interested in knowing about various endocrine glands in human body, the hormones secreted by them and their functions. The figure below shows the endrocine glands in human males and females.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 9
(A) The table below gives the names of some endocrine glands and their functions. Identify the row containing incorrect information:

Name of Endocrine Gland Function
(a) Thyroid Regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the body
(b) Pituitary Regulates growth and development of the body
(c) Pancreas Regulates levels of uric acid in blood
(d) Testis Changes associated with puberty in males

Answer:
(c) Name of Endocrine Gland : Pancreas;
Function : Regulates levels of uric acid in blood.

Explanation: Insulin is a hormone which is produced by the pancreas and helps in regulating blood sugar levels.

(B) The endocrine gland known as the master gland in human beings is:
(a) Pituitary gland
(b) Hypothalamus gland
(c) Pineal gland
(d) Thymus glands
Answer:

(C) Identify which of the following state¬ments about thyroid gland is incorrect?
(I) Thyroid gland requires iodine to synthesize thyroxin.
(II) Deficiency of iodine in our diet may cause dwarfism.
(III) Thyroxin regulates protein, carbohydrates and fat metabolism in the body.
(IV) Iron is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Name the gland which secretes the growth hormone:
(a) Thyroid
(b) Pituitary gland
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Adrenal
Answer:
(b) Pituitary gland

Explanation: Growth hormone is one of the hormones secreted by the pituitary and it regulates growth and development of the body. If there is a deficiency of this hormone in childhood, it leads to dwarfism.

(E) The dramatic changes in body features associated with puberty are mainly be¬cause of the secretions of:
(a) Oestrogen from testes and testos¬terone from ovary
(b) Oestrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland
(c) Testosterone from testes and oes¬trogen from ovary
(d) Testosterone from thyroid gland and ostrogen from pituitary gland
Answer:
(c) Testosterone from testes and ostrogen from ovary

Question 9.
Akriti’s grandfather complained of giddiness since past several days. Her father took her to the physician who checked his blood pressure and immediately prescribed medicines for hypertension.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 10
Which part of the brain is responsible for involuntary actions?
Answer:
The involuntary actions such as blood pressure, vomiting and salivation are controlled by the medulla in the hind-brain.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 10.
The neurons are cells with some special abilities. These cells get excited, because of the membranes that are in a polarised state. Each neuron has a charged cellular membrane, which means there is a voltage difference between the inside and the outside membrane.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 11
Membrane potential is the difference in the total charge between the inside of the cell and the outside of the cell. Action potential is a short-term change in the electrical potential that travels across the neuron cell.

A nerve impulse is generated when the stimulus is strong. This stimulus triggers the electrical and chemical changes in the neuron. When a nerve impulse is generated, there is a change in the permeability of the cell membrane. The sodium ions flow inside and potassium ions flow outside, causing a reversal of charges. The cell is now depolarised. This depolarization results in an action potential which causes the nerve impulse to move along the length of the axon. This depolarization of the membrane occurs along the nerve. A series of reactions occur where the potassium ions flow back into the cell and sodium ions move out of the cell. This whole process again results in the cell getting polarised, with the charges being restored.

When the nerve impulse reaches the end of the axon, there are some chemicals released from the neurotransmitters. They diffuse across the synaptic gap, which is the small space present between the axon and the receptors. Nerve impulses can be transmitted either by the electrical synapse or the chemical synapse.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 12
(A) From the statements given below regarding polarization and depolarization of neurons, select the row containing the correct information.

Polarization of Neuron Depolarization of Neuron
(a) The sodium ions flow into the cell and potassium ions move out of the cell. The sodium ions flow inside and potassium ions flow out-side
(b) The potassium ions flow into the cell and sodium ions move out of the cell. The sodium ions flow inside and potassium ions flow out-side
(c) The potassium ions flow into the cell and sodium ions move out of the cell. The potassium ions flow inside and sodium ions flow out-side
(d) The potassium ions flow into the cell and sodium ions move out of the cell. The potassium ions flow inside and sodium ions flow out-side

Answer:
(b) Polarization of Neuron: The potassium ions flow into the cell and sodium ions move out of the ceil.
Depolarization of Neuron: The potassium ions flow inside and sodium ions flow outside.

Explanation: When a nerve impulse is generated, there is a change in the permeability of the cell membrane. The cell gets depolarized when the sodium ions flow inside and potassium ions flow outside, causing a reversal of charges. The cell gets polarized when the potassium ion’s flow back into the cell and sodium ions move out of the cell.

(B) Four statements are given below. Select the incorrect statements.
(I) Nerve impulse is generated by the stimulus when a neuron is depolarized.
(II) Nerve impulse is generated by the stimulus when a neuron is polarized.
(III) The polarization of neuron results in an action potential.
(IV) The action potential causes the nerve impulse to move along the axon.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
Answer:
(c) Both (II) and (III)

(C) The part of a neuron which receives information from other neurons is/are :
(a) Cell body
(b) Axon
(c) Dendrites
(d) Myelin sheath
Answer:

(D) The part of the neuron through which the impulse travels is:
(a) Axon
(b) Soma
(c) Dendrites
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(a) Axon

Explanation: Axon is a singLe prominent extension that emerges from the cell body and is responsible for conducting outgoing impulses away from the cell and towards other cells.

(E) Control and coordination in animals is provided by:
(a) Nervous tissues only
(b) Muscular tissues only
(c) Receptors
(d) Both nervous and muscular tissues
Answer:

Question 11.
Sujay was watching a program when he found that several people of a particular region had swollen neck. He tried to gather more information regarding the probable cause of this disease.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 13
Identify the disease they were suffering from and a possible cause.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 12.
Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive neurologic disorder that causes the brain to shrink (atrophy) and brain cells to die. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia – a continuous decline in thinking, behavioral and social skills that affects a person’s ability to function independently. The early signs of the disease include forgetting recent events or conversations. As the disease progresses, a person with Alzheimer’s disease will develop severe memory impairment and lose the ability to carry out everyday tasks. Common symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease include memory loss, language problems, and impulsive or unpredictable behavior. This happens because of a loss of connection between the nerve cells, or neurons, in the brain which means that information cannot pass easily between different areas of the brain or between the brain and the muscles or organs.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 14
(A) Select the incorrect statement:
(a) Alzheimer’s is a type of dementia that causes memory loss.
(b) It occurs only in elderly people.
(c) The early signs of the disease include forgetting recent events or conversations.
(d) As the disease progresses, a person develops severe memory impairment and loses the ability to carry out everyday tasks.
Answer:
(b) It occurs only in elderly people.

Explanation: Alzheimer’s disease can affect people of any age group and does not occur only in the elderly.

(B) In Alzheimer’s disease there is a loss of connection between the nerve cells, or neurons, in the brain because of which:
(I) Information cannot pass easily be-tween different areas of the brain.
(II) Information cannot pass easily be-tween the brain and the muscles or organs.
(III) Information cannot be acquired by the dendrite.
(IV) Gustatory and olfactory receptors stop working.
Select the correct statements:
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (II)

Explanation: In Alzheimer’s disease there is a loss of connection between the nerve cells, or neurons, in the brain because of which Information cannot pass easily between different areas of the brain and between the brain and the muscles or organs.

(C) Given below are some parts of the brain and their functions.
Select the row containing the correct information:

Part of Human Brain Function
(a) Hindbrain The sensation of feeling full during eating a meal
(b) Cerebrum Controls involuntary actions such as salivation and vomitting
(c) Medulla Controls intelligence and memory
(d) Cerebellum Precision of voluntary actions

Answer:
(d) Part of Human Brain: Cerebellum: Function: Precision of voluntary actions. Explanation: Sensation of feeling full during eating a meal is due to forebrain. Cerebrum controls intelligence and memory whereas the medulla controls involuntary actions such as salivation and vomiting.

(D) The part of human brain that is responsible for maintaining the posture and balance of the body is:
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Medulla
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Pons
Answer:

(E) The main thinking part of the human brain is:
(a) Fore brain
(b) Mid brain
(c) Hind brain
(d) Cerebellum
Answer:

Question 13.
Motor neuron disease (MND) is the name for a group of diseases that affects particular nerves known as motor nerves, or motor neurons. In MND, those neurons generate and die and slowly the muscles become weaker. This eventually leads to paralysis. It is also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis or ALS. MND is a progressive disease that usually starts slowly and gets worse over time. Symptoms sometimes starting on one side of the body and then spreading. Usually, the first things people notice are:
(1) weakness in the hands and grip
(2) slurred speech
(3) weakness in the legs, and a tendency to trip
(4) weakness of the shoulder, making lifting diffcult
(5) cramps and muscles twitching
The graph below shows the age wise incidence of MND per 1 lakh of population for men and women.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 15
This information, acquired at the end of the dendritic tip of a nerve cell, sets off a chemi¬cal reaction that creates an electrical impulse. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body, and then along the axon to its end. At the end of the axon, the electrical impulse sets off the release of some chemicals. These chemicals cross the gap, or synapse, and start a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of the next neuron. This is a general scheme of how nervous impulses travel in the body. A similar synapse finally allows delivery of such impulses from neurons to other cells, such as muscles cells or glands.
(A) Based on the passage above, select the correct statements regarding Motor Neuron Diseases (MND):
(I) MND incidence is higher in men than women.
(II) MND affect sensory neurons.
(III) MND is a progressive disease that usually starts slowly and gets worse over time.
(IV) MND may eventually lead to paral¬ysis as muscles become weaker.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: Motor Neuron Diseases (MND) affects motor neurons and not sensory neurons.

(B) Select the row containing the incorrect information:

Type or Part of Neuron Function
(a) Dendrites These carry signals in the form of electrical impulses away from the cell body
(b) Sensory Neuron These are found in receptors such as the eyes, ears, tongue and skin, and carry nerve im¬pulses to the spinal cord and brain.
(c) Motor neuron These are found in the central nervous system (CNS) and control muscle movements.
(d) Relay neuron Relay neurons are found in the brain and spinal cord and allow sensory and motor neurons to communicate.

Answer:
(a) Type or Part of Neuron: Dendrites: function: These are found in receptors such as the eyes, ears, tangue and skin and cavry nerve in pulses to the spinal cord and brain.

Explanation: The dendrites receive signals from other neurons or from sensory receptor ceLls. The dendrites are typically connected to the cell body, which is often referred to as the ‘control centre’ of the neuron, as it contains the nucleus. The axon is a long slender fibre that carries nerve impulses, in the form of an electrical signal known as action potential, away from the cell body towards the axon terminals, where the neuron ends. Most axons are surrounded by a myelin sheath (except for relay neurons) which insulates the axon so that the electrical impulses travel faster along the axon.

(C) The motor neurons:
(a) Are found in receptors
(b) Are found in the brain and spinal cord
(c) Are found in the Central nervous system
(d) Carry impulses to the spinal cord and brain
Answer:

(D) In the diagram above, the parts marked A and B are:
(a) Sensory neuron and motor neuron respectively
(b) Sensory neuron and relay neuron respectively
(c) Motor neuron and relay neuron respectively
(d) Motor neuron and sensory neuron respectively
Answer:

(E) In the diagram above, the motor neuron is labelled as:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer:
(c) C

Explanation: The motor neuron carries response from the spinal cord to the effector organs.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 14.
The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is one of two components that make up the nervous system of bilateral animals, with the other part being the central nervous system (CNS). The PNS consists of the nerves and ganglia outside the brain and spinal cord. The main function of the PNS is to connect the CNS to the limbs and organs, essentially serving as a relay between the brain and spinal cord and the rest of the body.

In its simplest form, a reflex is viewed as a function of an idealized mechanism called the reflex arc. The primary components of the reflex arc are the sensory-nerve cells (or receptors) that receive stimulation, in turn connecting to other nerve cells that activate muscle cells (or effectors), which perform the reflex action.

A reflex arc is a neural pathway that controls a reflex. In vertebrates, most sensory neurons do not pass directly into the brain, but synapse in the spinal cord. This allows for faster reflex actions to occur by activating spinal motor neurons without the delay of routing signals through the brain. The brain will receive the sensory input while the reflex is being carried out and the analysis of the signal takes place after the reflex action.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 16
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 17
(A) Afferent neurons carry nerve impulses from
(a) CNS to muscles
(b) CNS to receptors
(c) receptors to CNS
(d) effector organs to CNS
Answer:
(c) receptors to CNS

Explanation: The afferent neurons carry nerve impulses from the receptors to the central nervous system, whereas the efferent neurons carry impulses from the CNS to the effector organs.

(B) A neuron that carries information from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system is
(a) afferent neuron
(b) efferent neuron
(c) both
(d) none
Answer:

(C) Which of these illustrate a reflex arc?
(a) Brain → Spinal cord → Muscles
(b) Muscles → Receptor → Brain
(c) Muscles → Spinal cord → Brain
(d) Receptor → Spinal cord → Muscles
Answer:
(d) Receptor → Spinal cord → Muscles

Which of these illustrate a reflex arc?

Explanation: Reflex arc does not involve the brain. Infact it has evolved in higher animals as the thinking process of brain is not fast enough.

(D) Given below are the parts of the nervous system and their functions. Iden¬tify the row containing incorrect information:

Part Function
Peripheral Nervous System Consists of sensory organs
Central Nervous System To organize and analyze information received
Afferent Neurons Carry signals to the brain and spinal cord
Efferent Neurons Carry neural impulses away from the central nervous system and toward muscles

Answer:

(E) Select the correct statements:
(I) The PNS facilitates communication between the CNS and other parts of the body.
(II) The PNS consists of cranial nerves and spinal nerves
(III) The cranial nerves arise from the spinal cord.
(IV) The CNS carries signals to the brain and spinal cord.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The communication between the central nervous system and the other parts of the body is facilitated by the peripheral nervous system consisting of cranial nerves arising from the brain and spinal nerves arising from the spinal cord.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 15.
Plant hormones are among the most important biochemicals affecting plant growth and yield production under different conditions, including stress. Plant hormones include auxin, abscisic acid, ethylene, gibberellins, cytokinins, salicylic acid, strigolactones, brassinosteroids, and nitrous (nitric) oxide. Plant functioning under stress is affected by plant hormones, which can help the plant to tolerate the environmental stresses. Tropism is the type of plant movement, that is achieved by growth and responsible to directional light The movement is due to the action of auxin inside the plant part. Normally, phototropism, geotropism, hydrotropism and thigmotropism can be identified.
Within the above tropisms, the response of shoot tips are quite different from that of root tips. The basic difference is in the concentration they secreted. The level of auxin secreted from shoot tips is always on the ascending arm of the graph of response. But for the root tips, on the descending arm. Then, their responses become the opposite. The following graph shows the fact.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 18
Auxin Concentration (Parts Per Milion)
Nb Logarithmic Scale For Auxin Concentration

(A) Observe the graph above and select the correct statements.
(I) Lower concentration of auxins decrease the growth of roots.
(II) Shoot growth requires greater concentrations of auxins as compared to the growth of roots.
(III) The application of very high concentration of auxin inhibits the growth of shoots directly.
(IV) The response of roots to auxin can thus be represented by an optimum curve with the peak at very low concentration.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Explanation: Lower concentrations of auxins increases the growth of roots.

(B) The table below lists few plant hormones and their functions. However, one row contains incorrect information. Select the row containing incorrect information.

Name of the plant hormone Function
(a) Auxin Promotes cell elongation
(b) Gibberellin Promotes seed germination and stem growth
(c) Cytokinin Inhibits cell division
(d) Abscisic acid Maintains seed dormancy

Answer:
(c) Name of plant hormone: Cytokinin: Function: Inhibits cell division

Explanation: Cytokinin is a plant hormone that promotes cell division, and they are present in greater concentration in areas of rapid cell division, such as in fruits and seeds.

(C) Plant roots exhibit:
(a) Positive geotropism
(b) Negative geotropism
(c) Positive chemotropism
(d) Negative hydrotropism
Answer:

(D) Which of the following plant hormone is responsible for seed germination?
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Ethylene
(d) Abscisic acid
Answer:

(E) The hormone that is a growth inhibitor is:
(a) Auxin
(b) Abscisic acid
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(b) Abscisic acid

Explanation: Abscisic acid is one example of a hormone that inhibits growth. Its effects include wilting of leaves.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which one appears more accurate and why?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 19
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers 20
Answer:
(A) is more appropriate as shoots are negatively geotropic and roots are positively geotropic. Hence, shoots grow upwards and roots grow downwards.

Related Theory
The roots of a plant always grow downwards while the shoots usually grow upwards and away from the earth. This upward and downward growth in response to the gravity pull is known as geotropism.

Question 2.
Name the two components of central nervous systems in humans.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 3.
How is the spinal cord protected in the human body?
Answer:
Spinal cord is enclosed in a bony cage called the vertebral column.

Question 4.
A potted plant is made to lie horizontally on the ground. Which part of the plant will show (a) positive geotropism?
Answer:

Question 5.
Name any two types of tropism.
Answer:
Phototropism and geotropism.

Question 6.
Name the hormone that helps in regulating level of sugar is our blood. Name the gland that is secreted.
Answer:
Insulin helps in regulating blood sugar level. This hormone is secreted by the pancreas gland.

Question 7.
Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes its growth. Where it is synthesized?
Answer:

Question 8.
Mention the function of adrenaline hormone.
Answer:
The function of adrenaline hormone is to regulate blood pressure, heartbeat breathing rate, carbohydrate metabolism and mineral balance in the body.

Question 9.
State the function of:
(A) gustatory receptors, and
(B) olfactory receptors
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination with Answers

Question 10.
Mention the part of the body where gustatory and olfactory receptors are located.
Answer:
Gustatory receptors are located in Cerebrum of fore-brain. Olfactory receptors are located in the Olfactory lobe of fore-brain.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Science Physics Chapter 10 MCQ With Answers

Physics Class 10 Chapter 10 MCQs On Light Reflection and Refraction

Light Reflection And Refraction Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and emerge out of box through the holes C and D respectively, as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?
Light Class 10 MCQ
(a) A rectangular glass slab
(b) A convex lens
(c) A concave less
(d) A prism
Answer:

Light Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of the holes on the other face of the box as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?
Light MCQ Class 10
(a) Concave lens
(b) Rectangular, glass slab
(c) Prism
(d) Convex lens
Answer:
(d) Convex lens

Explanation: In the given diagram, parallel rays converge at a point and emerge from face B. So, there will be a convex lens inside the box.
Class 10 Light MCQ

Class 10 Light MCQ Question 3.
When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged image is formed behind the mirror. This image is:
(a) real
(b) inverted
(c) virtual and inverted
(d) virtual and erect
Answer:

MCQ Of Light Class 10 Question 4.
A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using:
(a) a concave mirror
(b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror
(d) both concave as well as plane mirror
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Class 10 Light Reflection And Refraction MCQ Question 5.
Your school laboratory has one large window. To find the focal length of a concave mirror using one of the walls as screen, the experiment may be performed:
(a) on the same wall as the window.
(b) on the wall adjacent to the window.
(c) on the wall opposite to the window.
(d) only on the table as per laboratory arrangement.
Answer:
(d) only on the table as per laboratory arrangement.

Class 10 Science Chapter 10 MCQ Question 6.
The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass slab is traced by four students shown as A, B, C and D in the figure. Which one of them is correct?
Class 10 Science Chapter 10 MCQ
Answer:

MCQ On Light Class 10 Question 7.
In order to determine the focal length of a concave mirror by obtaining the Image of a distant object on screen, the position of the screen should be:
(a) parallel to the pLane of concave mirror
(b) perpendicular to the plane of concave mirror
(c) IncLined at an angle 600 to the plane of mirror
(d) in any direction with respect to the plane of concave mirror [Dikshaj
Answer:
(a) parallel to the plane of concave mirror

Explanation: AD the refLected light rays converge and pass through the focus (F) of a concave mirror. Since the focus of a concave mirror is in front of the mirror, the screen has to be placed parallel in front of the mirror.

Light Reflection And Refraction MCQ Question 8.
A student carries out the experiment of tracing the path of a ray of Light through a rectangular glass slab for two different values of angLe of incidence ∠i = 300 and ∠i = 45° In the two coses the student is likely to observe the set of vaLues of angle of refraction and angLe of emergence as
(a) ∠r =30, ∠e = 20° and ∠r = 45’, ∠e = 28°
(b) ∠r =30°. ∠e = 30° and ∠r=45°, ∠e= 450
(c) ∠r =200, ∠e = 30° and ∠r = 28°, ∠e=45°
(d) ∠r =20°, ∠e = 20° and ∠r = 28°, ∠e = 28°
Answer:
(c) ∠r=20° ∠e=30° and ∠r= 28 ∠e=45°

Related Theory:
The angle of refraction must be less than the angle of incidence. White angle of emergence is equal to angle of incidence.
for ∠i = 300. ∠r = 20° and ∠e = 30
for ∠i = 450e ∠r = 28° and ∠e = 45°

Reflection Of Light Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
If you focus a distant object of the shape using a concave mirror, the Image obtained must be of the shape
Reflection Of Light Class 10 MCQ
Answer:

Light Chapter Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
In which of the following diagrams has the protractor (D) been correctly placed to measure the angle of incidence and the angle of emergence?
Light Chapter Class 10 MCQ
a) I, III
(b) I, IV
(c) II, III
(d) II, IV
Answer:
(a) I, III

Explanation: The angle of incidence is the angle between the incident ray and the normal at the point of incidence. The angle of emergence is the angLe between the emergent ray and the normal at the point of emergence.

Moreover, the protractor should always be placed in such a way that its base is always along the normal of the incident ray or the emergent ray.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Ch 10 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
An optical device has been given to a student and he determines its focal Length by focusing the image of the sun on a screen placed 24 cm from the device on the same side as the sun. Select the correct statement about the device.
(a) Convex mirror of Focal Length 12 cm
(b) Convex Lens of focal Length 24 cm
(c) Concave mirror of focal length 24 cm
(d) Convex tens of Focal Length 12 cm
Answer:

MCQ Of Light Reflection And Refraction Class 10 Question 12.
A student is performing the experiment of determining the Focal Length of a given concave mirror by focussing a distant tree on a screen. Which one of the following kinds of images he is likely to obtain on the screen?
MCQ Of Light Reflection And Refraction Class 10
(a) (I)
(c) (III)
(b) (II)
(d) (IV)
Answer:
Light Chapter MCQ Class 10

Explanation: A concave mirror forms a real and inverted image of a distant object, such as tree, at its focus.

Class 10 Science Ch 10 MCQ Question 13.
A student has focussed on the screen a distant building using a convex lens. If he has selected a blue coloured building as object, select from the following options the one which gives the correct characteristics of the image formed on the screen.
(a) Virtual, erect, diminished and green shade
(b) Real, inverted, diminished and in violet shade
(c) Real, inverted, diminished and in blue shade
(d) Virtual, inverted, diminished and in blue shade
Answer:
(c) Real, inverted, diminished and in blue shade

Explanation: As the student has focussed a distant blue coloured building on the screen using a convex lens, a real inverted and diminished image is formed at the principal focus of the convex lens.

As object is quite far, a diminished image will be formed at the principal focus.

The colour of image will be same as colour of the object because no change in colour takes place during refraction.

MCQ Questions On Light Class 10 Question 14.
Study the following four experimental setups by four students A, B, C and D showing the incident ray to trace the path of a ray of light through a glass slab. Which of these will get the best result?
MCQ Questions On Light Class 10
(a) (I)
(b) (II)
(c) (III)
(d) (IV)
Answer:

Light And Reflection Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
The focal length of the concave mirror in the following experimental set-up is:
Reflection And Refraction Class 10 MCQ
Answer:
(d) 6.6 cm

Explanation: The least count of optical bench \(\frac{1}{5}\)cm = 0.2 cm
Position of the concave mirror = 12.8 cm
Position of the screen = 6.2 cm
Focal length of the concave mirror = distance of the screen from the pole of the concave mirror = 12.8 – 6.2 cm = 6.6 cm

Light Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 16.
Three students A, B and C focussed a distant building on a screen with the help of a concave mirror. To determine focal length of the concave mirror they measured the distances as given below:
Student A: From mirror to the screen
Student B: From building to the screen
Student C: From building to the mirror
Who measured the focal length correctly:
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) A and B
(d) B and C
Answer:
(a) Only A

Explanation: A concave mirror forms a distinct image of a distant object at its focus. As student ‘A’ measures the distance between mirror to the screen to find the focal length, he measured the focal length correctly.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Question 17.
A student has traced the path of a ray of light through a glass slab as follows. If you are asked to label 1, 2, 3 and 4, the correct sequencing of labelling Zi, Ze, Zr and lateral displacement respectively is
Light Reflection And Refraction Class 10 MCQ With Answers
(a) 2,1, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2
Answer:
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4

Related Theory
Angle of emergence (e): The angle of the light coming out of a medium.
Lateral displacement: The perpendicular distance between the incident ray and the emergent ray.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Light Reflection And Refraction Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 18.
A student determines the focal length of a device X by focusing the image of a distant object on a screen placed 20 cm from the device on the same side as the object.
The device X is
(a) Concave lens of focal length 10 cm
(b) Convex lens of focal length 20 cm
(c) Concave mirror of focal length 10 cm
(d) Concave mirror of focal length 20 cm
Answer:

Chapter 10 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 19.
A student obtained a sharp image of a candle flame placed at the distant end of the laboratory table on a screen using a concave mirror to determine its focal length. The teacher suggested him to focus a distant building about 1 km far from the laboratory, for getting more correct value of the focal length. In order to focus the distant building on the same screen the student should slightly move the:
(a) mirror away from the screen
(b) screen away from the mirror
(c) screen towards the mirror
(d) screen towards the building
Answer:
(c) screen towards the mirror

Question 20.
A student obtains a sharp image of the distant window (W) of the school laboratory on the screen (S) using the given concave mirror (M) to determine its focal length. Which of the following distances should he measure to get the focal length of the mirror?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 12
(a) MW
(b) MS
(c) SW
(d) MW – MS
Answer:

Question 21.
The image formed by a plane mirror is:
(a) virtual, behind the mirror and enlarged
(b) virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object
(c) real, at the surface of the mirror and enlarged
(d) real, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object
Answer:
(b) Virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object

Question 22.
When object moves closer to convex lens, the image formed will be
(a) away from the lens on the other side of lens.
(b) towards the lens.
(c) away from the lens on the same side of an object.
(d) first towards and then away from the lens.
Answer:

Question 23.
Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a concave mirror as shown in figure?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 13
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 14
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 14

Explanation: Ray of light parallel to the principal axis towards the mirror after reflection from the mirror will pass through the focus.

Question 24.
The refractive index of four substances P, Q, R and S are 1.50, 1.36, 1.77 and 1.31 respectively. The speed of light is the maximum in the substance:
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 25.
Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a lens?
(a) Water
(b) Glass
(c) Plastic
(d) Clay
Answer:
(d) Clay

Explanation: Clay is opaque and does not let light to pass through it.

Question 26.
A small bulb is placed at the focal point of a converging lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens produces:
(a) a convergent beam of light
(b) a divergent beam of light
(c) a parallel beam of light
(d) a patch of coloured light
Answer:
(c) A parallel beam of light

Explanation: When an object is placed at the focus of a convex lens, the convex lens convert the diverging rays of light coming from the object into a parallel beam of light rays which form an image at infinity.

A small bulb is placed at the focal point of a converging lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens produces:

Question 27.
In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles, the bulb is placed:
(a) between the pole and the focus of the reflector
(b) very near to the focus of the reflector
(c) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector
(d) at the centre of curvature of the reflector
Answer:

Question 28.
You are given water, mustard oil, glycerine and kerosene. In which of these media, a ray of light incident obliquely at some angle would bend the most? (Refractive index of water = 1.33, Mustard oil = 1.46, Glycerine = 1.473, Kerosene = 1.44)
(a) Kerosene
(b) Water
(c) Mustard oil
(d) Glycerine
Answer:
(d) Glycerine

Explanation: Out of the given four materials, the refractive index of glycerine is highest. So, greatest deviation of incident light ray is observed in case of glycerine.

Related Theory
A substance having higher refractive index is optically denser than another substance having lower refractive index. We can conclude, the higher the refractive index of a substance, more it will change the direction of a beam of light passing through it.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 29.
A student obtained a sharp inverted image of a distant tree on the screen placed behind a convex lens. He then removed the screen and tried to look through the lens in the direction of the object. He would now observe:
(a) a blurred image on the wall of the laboratory
(b) an erect image of the tree on the lens
(c) no image as the screen has been removed
(d) an inverted image of the tree at the focus of the lens
Answer:

Question 30.
Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles:
(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front of it.
Answer:
(a) is less than one

Explanation: Convex mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles. It forms virtual, erect and diminished images of the objects.

As magnification is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object, hence, magnification produced by a rearview

Question 31.
You are provided four convex lenses of focal length 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm and 40 cm. Which out of the four lenses will converge light the most and the least?
Select the row containing the correct answer and reason:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 15
Answer:

Question 32.
A student-focussed the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He noted down the position of the candle screen and the lens as under
Position of candle = 26.0 cm
Position of convex lens = 50.0 cm
Position of the screen = 90.0 cm
Students noted down the values of object distance (u), image distance (v) and also calculated the focal length (f) of the convex lens used.

Select the row containing the correct values as per the sign convention:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 16

Question 33.
Select the correct statements from the statements given below regarding refraction of light when light is incident from a medium A having refractive index 1.85 on a glass slab having refractive index 1.50.
(I) Light will bend towards the normal in the glass slab.
(II) Emergent ray will be parallel to the refracted ray.
(III) Speed of light will be more in glass slab as compared to medium A.
(IV) Angle of refraction will be more than angle of incidence.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: As light is incident from the medium A having higher refractive index than glass, speed of light will be less in medium A as compared to glass. When light traveLs from a denser to a rarer medium, it bends away from the normal. Therefore, angle of refraction will be greater than the angle of incidence.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 17

Question 34.
Four statements are written below which are the general rules for drawing ray diagrams in case of lenses. Select the incorrect statements:
(I) A ray of light from the object, parallel to the principal axis, after refraction from a concave lens, passes through the principal focus on the other side of the lens.
(II) A ray of light appearing to meet at the principal focus of a convex lens, after refraction, will emerge parallel to the principal axis.
(III) A ray of light passing through a principal focus, after refraction from a convex lens, will emerge parallel to the principal axis.
(IV) A ray of light passing through the optical centre of a lens will emerge without any deviation.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 35.
Given below are statements regarding sign conventions for reflection by spherical mirrors. Select the correct statements.
(I) All distances parallel to the principal axis are measured from the pole of the mirror.
(II) All the distances measured to the left of the origin (along – x-axis) are taken as positive while those measured to the right of the origin (along + x-axis) are taken as negative.
(III) Distances measured perpendicular to and above the principal axis (along + y-axis) are taken as positive.
(IV) Distances measured perpendicular to and above the principal axis (along +y-axis) are taken as negative.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 36.
Refractive indices of turpentine oil, sapphire, water and crown glass are 1.47, 1.77, 1.33 and 1.52 respectively. In which of these media will a ray of light incident obliquely at the same angle from air would bend the least?
(a) Turpentine oil
(b) Sapphire
(c) Water
(d) Crown glass
Answer:
(c) Water

Explanation: The speed of light in a medium is inversely proportional to the refractive index of the medium. And the amount of bending is also inversely proportional to the refractive index of the medium. As the refractive index of water is the least out of the given media, it is optically rarer as compared to the other media. So, light will bend the least in water.

Question 37.
Kaashvi performed an activity using a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. She placed the object 30 cm in front of the mirror. Where is the image likely to be formed?
(a) At 10 cm behind the mirror
(b) At 10 cm in front of the mirror
(c) At 60 cm in front of the mirror
(d) At 60 cm behind the mirror
Answer:

Question 38.
The angle between the incident and reflected rays is 90° as shown below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 18
If the plane mirror is rotated by 10° about O in the anti-clockwise direction, then the angle between the incident and reflected rays will be:
(a) 55°
(b) 90°
(c) 100°
(d) 110°
Answer;

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 39.
Two lenses, a convex lens of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens of focal length 25 cm, are held close to each other. The focal length of the combination of the lenses is:
(a) + 45 cm
(b) – 5 cm
(c) – 45 cm
(d) + 100 cm
Answer:
(d) + 100 cm

Explanation: The power of combination of two lenses is P = P1 + P2, where P1 is the power of the convex lens of focal length 20 cm and P2 is power of the concave lens of focal length 25 cm.

As Power (in Dioptre) = P = \(\frac{1}{f(\text { inm })}\)
Therefore, \(\frac{1}{f_{1}}+\frac{1}{f_{2}}=+\frac{100}{20}-\frac{100}{25}\) = +1
Thus, focal length of combination = +100 cm

Question 40.
Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles:
(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front of it.
Answer:
(a) is Less than one

Explanation: Convex mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles. It forms virtual, erect and diminished images of the objects.

As magnification is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object, hence, magnification produced by a rear view mirror, fitted in vehicles is less than one.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 10

For the following questions, two statements are given one labelled Assertion (A) and the Other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answers to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 41.
Assertion (A): A convex mirror is used as a rearview/driver’s mirror.
Reasoning (R): Convex mirrors have a wider field of view as they are curved outwards. They also give an erect, although diminished image. [Diksha]
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of the assertion. Explanation: Since the image formed is highly diminished in convex mirror, we can see the full image of far away objects, which is otherwise not possible in concave and plane mirrors.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 42.
Assertion (A): The word AMBULANCE on the hospital vans is written in the form of its mirror image as AMBULANCE in inverted form.
Reason (R): The image formed in a plane mirror is same size of the object.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of the assertion.

Explanation: The word AMBULANCE is written backwards (inverted) as when it is seen through a mirror in the vehicles ahead the drivers see it as AMBULANCE without inversion and give way to it on priority.

Question 43.
Assertion (A): Light travels faster in glass than in air.
Reason (R): Glass is denser than air.
Answer:

Question 44.
Assertion (A): A convex lens has a real focus.
Reason (R): All light rays pass through the focus of a convex lens after refraction.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: A convex lens has a real focus as all the light rays parallel to the principal axis actuaLly pass through the focus of the convex lens after refraction. However, rays which are not parallel to the principal axis do not pass through the focus of the convex lens.

Question 45.
Assertion (A): A ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror is reflected back along the same path.
Reason (R): The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence lie on the same plane.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of the assertion. Explanation: A ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror is reflected back along the same path because the rays are incident normally on the mirror. Therefore, angle of incidence = 0° and so, angle of reflection is also 0°. The law of reflection, namely, angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection is being followed here.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 46.
Assertion (A): The power of a concave lens is negative.
Reason (R): A concave lens has a virtual focus.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Sushma went with her mother to purchase some gold jewelry for her sister’s marriage. The salesman asked them to check the hallmark and gold purity to ascertain the genuineness of the gold article. As the hallmark was too small to be seen by the naked eye, the salesman gave them a magnifying glass to see the hallmark.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 19
Which type of lens is used as a magnifying glass and why?
Answer:
A convex lens is used as a magnifying glass as it forms an enlarged or magnified image of an object when it is held close to the object to be seen.

Question 2.
Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image-distance (v) with object-distance (u) in case of a convex lens and answer the questions that follow without doing any calculations:

S.NO Object-Distance u (cm) Image-Distance v (cm)
1. -60 – +12
2. -30 – +15
3. -20 – +20
4. -15 – +30
5. -12 – +60
6. -9 – +90

(A) What is the focal length of the convex lens? State reason for your answer.
Answer:
From S.No. 3, we can say that the radius of curvature of the lens is 20 cm because when an object is placed at the centre of the curvature of a convex lens its image is formed on the other side of the lens at the same distance from the lens. And, we also know that focal length is half of the radius of curvature. Thus, focal length of the lens is + 10 cm.

(B) For what object-distance (u) is the corresponding image-distance (v) not correct? How did you arrive at this conclusion?
Answer:
S.No. 6 is not correct as for this observation the object distance is between focus and pole, and for such cases the image formed is always virtual but in this case, a real image is forming as the image distance is positive.

(C) A concave mirror gives real, inverted and same size image if the object is placed
(a) At focus
(b) At infinity
(c) At C i.e. centre of curvature
(d) Beyond centre of curvature
Answer:
(c) At C i.e. centre of curvature

(D) Focal length of plane mirror is:
(a) At infinity
(b) Zero
(c) Negative
(d) None of these
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 3.
While sipping some Lemonade with a straw, Ronit observed that the straw Looked bent when seen from the side. He could guess that it was due to the bending of Light or refraction.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 20
The figure shows a ray of Light as it travels from medium A to medium B. The refractive index of the medium B relative to medium A is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 21
(a) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(b) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{2}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Explanation: Here, angle of incidence, i = 60° Angle of refraction, r = 45°
The refraction index of the medium B relative to medium A,
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 22

Question 4.
Analyze the following table showing refractive indices of four media A, B, C and D and answer the questions that follow:
The refractive indices of four media A, B, C and D are given in the following table:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 23
(A) If light, travels from one medium to another in which case the change in speed will be minimum.
Answer:
Minimum change is seen as light moves between 1.50 and 1.52, i.e. B and C.

(B) If Light, travels from one medium to another, in which case the change in speed will be maximum.
Answer:
Maximum change when light moves between 1.33 and 2.40, i.e. A and D.

(C) A Light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in the figure. The refractive index of medium B relative to A will be:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 24
(a) Greater than unity
(b) Less than unity
(c) Equal to unity
(d) Zero
Answer:
(a) Greater than unity

Explanation: Since light rays in medium B goes towards normal. So it has greater refractive index and lesser velocity, of light with respect to medium A. So refractive index of medium B with respect to medium A is greater than unity.

(D) The laws of reflection hold good for
(a) plane mirror only
(b) concave mirror only
(c) convex mirror only
(d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 5.
Parag along with his friends were experimenting with a concave mirror. They tried to focus the sun’s rays at a piece of paper and observed that the paper started to burn after some time.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 25
Rays from the sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should an object be placed so that the size of its image is equal to the size of the object?
(a) 15 cm in front of the mirror.
(b) 30 cm in front of the mirror.
(c) Between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the mirror.
(d) More than 30 cm in front of the mirror.
Answer:
(b) 30 cm in front of the mirror.

Explanation: The sun is at an infinite distance from the surface of the Earth. Now, light rays from the sun rays i.e., from infinity, are parallel to the principal axis. After reflection from the concave mirror, the light rays will converge at focus. It is given that the sun rays converge at 15 cm.

So, the focal length of the mirror, f = 15 cm. We know that in case of a concave mirror, the same size, real and inverted image is formed when object is placed at 2F or the centre of curvature.
Hence, in this case, object must be place at 2F i.e., 2 x 15 = 30 cm.

Question 6.
First, hold a convex lens in your hand and direct it towards the Sun. Focus the light from the Sun on a sheet of paper. Obtain a sharp bright image of the Sun. Hold the paper and the lens in the same position for a while. Keep observing the paper. While performing this activity, do not look at the Sun directly or through a lens or otherwise you may damage your eyes if you do so.
Next, take a convex lens. Find its approximate focal length in a way described in Activity above. Draw five parallel straight lines, using chalk, on a long Table such that the distance between the successive lines is equal to the focal length of the lens. Place the lens on a lens stand. Place it on the central line such that the optical centre of the lens lies just over the line. Place a burning candle, far beyond 2F1 – to the left. Obtain a clear sharp image on a screen on the opposite side of the lens. Repeat this Activity by placing object just behind 2F1, between F1 and 2F1, F1 at 1, between F1 and O. Note down and tabulate your observations.
(A) Following observations were recorded by the student after performing the first activity:
(I) A large and bright image of the sun is obtained on a paper when light from sun is focused.
(II) A sharp and bright image of the sun is obtained on a paper when light from sun is focused.
(III) The paper begins to burn immediately when both the paper and lens are held in the same position.
(IV) The paper begins to burn after some time when both the paper and lens are held in the same position.
Select the incorrect observations:
(a) Both (II) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: Convex lens is a converging lens. So, it converges the light rays from the sun and a sharp bright image of the sun is obtained on a paper as sun is very very far from us. When the lens and paper are held in the same position for some time, it is observed that the paper begins to burn after some time as all the sun’s rays converge at the bright spot, which is the focus of the lens, causing the paper to burn.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 27

(B) Two students performed the second activity for which as per directions mentioned above.
They drew five lines and marked the line numbers from 1 to 5 above the lines.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 26
The teacher asked the students to keep a record of the lines marked. The students tabulated the record as given below:

First Student Second Student
(a) Line numbers 1 and 2 are 2F1 and F1 respectively  Line number 1 and 5 are F1 and 2F1 respectively
(b) Line numbers 4 and 5 are F2 and 2F2 respectively  Line number 2 and 4 are and F2 respectively
(c) The central line (line number 3) contains the focus of the lens  The central line (line number 3) contains the optical center
(d)Distance between two successive lines is equal to twice the focal length of the lens  Distance between two successive lines is equal to the focal length of the lens

Select the row containing the correct information by both the students.
Answer:
(b) First student: Line numbers 4 and 5 are F2 and 2F2 respectively; Second student: Line number 2 and 4 are F1 and F2 respectively

Explanation: The lens has been placed on the central line which contains the optical centre of the lens. Lines 1 and 2 are 2F1 and F1 respectively and lines 4 and 5 are F2 and 2F2 respectively. Moreover, the distance between successive lines is equal to the focal length of the lens, which is OF1.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 28

(C) Select the incorrect statement. In the first activity:
(a) A real image of the sun is obtained on the paper
(b) A virtual image of the sun is obtained on the paper.
(c) The convex lens converges the sun’s rays at the bright spot.
(d) The approximate focal length of the convex lens is the distance between the lens and the paper.
Answer:
(b) A virtual image of the sun is obtained on the paper.

Explanation: Convex lens is a converging lens and converges the parallel rays of light coming from the sun at the bright spot formed on the paper. The image formed is therefore real. Further, the distance between the lens and the paper gives the approximate value of the focal length of the lens.

(D) The image of a burning candle placed beyond 2F1 to the left is:
(a) Real, inverted, diminished and formed on a screen placed at the opposite side of the lens.
(b) Real, inverted and enlarged and formed on the same side as the candle.
(c) Virtual, erect, diminished and formed on the same side as the candle.
(d) Real, inverted, enlarged and formed on a screen placed at the opposite side of the lens.
Answer:

(E) As the candle is brought closer to the focus F-L from the left:
(a) Image becomes smaller in size
(b) Image size first becomes smaller and then enlarges
(c) Image size first becomes larger and then diminishes.
(d) Image becomes Larger in size.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 7.
When Aiysha visited her ENT specialist to consult the doctor as she had some problem in her ear, she saw a circular mirror worn by the doctor around the forehead. She wanted to know the purpose served by the mirror. So, she came home and tried to find out the type of mirror and its applications.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 29
Write two different uses of concave mirrors.
Answer:
Uses of concave mirrors:
(1) It is used in torches, headlights of vehicles and search-lights to get powerful parallel beams of light.
(2) It is used as a shaving mirror to see a larger image of the face when held close to the face.
(3) It is used by dentists and ENT specialists to see larger images of teeth and inner parts of ear and throat.
(4) Large concave mirrors or parabolic mirrors are used in solar furnaces to concentrate sunlight.

Question 8.
There are numerous uses of concave mirrors in daily life. It is used in the aircraft landing to guide the airplane, it is used as a torch to reflect the light rays, it is used during shaving to get an erect and enlarged image of the face, etc.
A student had a concave mirror with him and wanted to know its focal length. So, he performed an activity to find out the focal length of the concave mirror.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 30
(A) The radius of curvature of the concave mirror used by the student in the above activity is:
(a) 60 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 10 cm
Answer:
(a) 60 cm

Explanation: The focal length of the mirror is the distance between the pole of the mirror and the screen where the clear image of the distant object is formed. As the mirror stand is at 10 cm and screen is at 40 cm, therefore, focal length = 40-10 = 30 cm, as the image of a distant object is formed by a concave mirror at its focus. Radius of curvature = 2f = 60 cm.

(B) Select the correct observation :
(I) Image of the distant tree is formed by the concave mirror at its focus.
(II) Image of the distant tree is formed by the concave mirror at its centre of curvature.
(III) Image is virtual and laterally inverted
(IV) Image is real and inverted
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: A concave mirror forms a real and inverted image of a distant object at its focus as shown in the figure above. Image is real as the rays of light intersect at the focus after reflection from the concave mirror.

(C) It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of radius of curvature 40 cm. Two students gave their ideas in a tabular form as given below:

First Student Second Student
(a) Range of object distance should be from 0 cm to less than 20 cm  Range of object distance should be from 0 cm to less than 40 cm
(b) Image can be obtained at a screen placed at the position of formation of image  Image cannot be obtained on a screen placed at the position of formation of image
(c) Image will be larger than the object  Image will be of same size as the object
(d) Image will be formed behind the mirror.  Image will be formed behind the mirror.

The row containing the correct information by both the students is:
Answer:

(D) In the situation mentioned in question (C) above, if the object is kept at 40 cm, the position and nature of image formed will be:
(a) Real, inverted and enlarged image will be formed 40 cm in front of the mirror.
(b) Real and inverted image will be formed 40 cm in front of the mirror of same size as object.
(c) Virtual, erect and enlarged image will be formed 40 cm behind the mirror.
(d) Virtual and erect image will be formed 40 cm behind the mirror of same size as object.
Answer:

(E) The magnification produced by a concave mirror when object is placed between Pole and Focus is:
(a) m = +1 (b) m = -1
(c) m > +1 (d) m > -1
Answer:
(c) m > + 1

Explanation: The magnification produced by a mirror is the ratio of height of image to the height of object. As the image formed by a concave mirror when object is placed between pole and focus is virtual, erect and magnified, m > + 1.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 9.
While brushing her teeth one morning, Reema noticed that while she was holding the tooth brush in her left hand, it was just the opposite in her image formed by the plane mirror. She was amused but knew why it was so!
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 31
What is the name of the phenomenon in which the right side of an object appears to be the left side of the image in a plane mirror?
Answer:
Lateral inversion is the phenomenon in which the right side of an object appears to be the left side in its image in a plane mirror.

Question 10.
One of the most common uses for the convex mirror is the passenger-side mirror on your car. Convex mirrors are also often found in the hallway of various buildings including hospitals, hotels, schools, stores and apartment buildings.
Usually, these mirrors are mounted to a wall or ceiling at points where hallways cross each other or make a sharp turn. This eliminates blind spots and provides people with a good overview of their surroundings. The convex mirror is also used to provide safety for motorists on roads, driveways and in alleys where there is a lack of visibility.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 32
A convex mirror is also a simple way of improving the safety in your warehouse or production environment. In a work environment or warehouse, convex mirrors can be placed at crossings or blind spots to enable workers to see approaching forklifts, other vehicles or approaching colleagues. This provides your employees with the necessary overview of their work environment and therefore increases the safety in your workplace.

Another use of the convex mirror in this work environment is during the production process, such as on the conveyor belt to view your product from different angles. This can increase the quality of your products by becoming aware of any faults in the production and increase the efficiency of the production process by eliminating the necessity to check your products by picking them up from the conveyor belt.
(A) Select the characteristics of convex mirror due to which it is used as rear view mirrors.
(I) Convex mirror always forms a virtual and erect image
(II) Convex mirrors may form real or virtual image depending upon the position of object
(III) Convex mirrors provide a wider field of view as they are curved outwards.
(IV) Images formed by convex mirrors are usually larger than the object.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: Convex mirrors are used as rearview mirrors in cars because they always form virtual and erect image and provide a wider field of view as they are curved outwards.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 33

(B) As the object is moved away from the focus of the convex mirror:
(a) size of image does not change
(b) size of image increase
(c) size of image decreases
(d) cannot be ascertained as size of image depends upon the focal length of the convex mirror.
Answer:

(C) The magnification produced by a convex mirror is always:
(a) Equal to +1
(b) Equal to -1
(c) Greater than +1
(d) Smaller than +1
Answer:

(D) The image formed by a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm is a quarter of the object. The object distance and image distance, along with the sign convention, are tabulated below. Select the row containing the correct values of object and image distance:

Object Distance (u) Image Distance (v)
(a) – 90 cm  + 22.5 cm
(b) – 22.5 cm  + 90 cm
(c) – 90 cm  – 22.5 cm
(d) – 90 cm  + 90 cm

Answer:
(a) Object Distance : -90 cm ; Image Distance: +22.5cm

Explanation: it is given that focal Length, f = + 30 cm and size of image = VA times size of object.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 34

(E) Consider an object 7.0 cm in length which is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. The size and position of image formed is:
(a) size of image = -3 cm, position of image = + \(\frac{60}{7}\) cm
(b) size of image = +3 cm, position of image = + \(\frac{60}{7}\) cm
(c) size of image = +3 cm, position of image = + \(\frac{7}{60}\) cm
(d) size of image = -3 cm, position of image = + \(\frac{7}{60}\) cm
Answer:
(b) size of image = + 3 cm, position of image = + \(\frac{60}{7}\) cm

Explanation: Here, height of object = h1 = 7 cm; u = – 20 cm, f= + 30/2cm = + 15cm.
Applying the mirror formula, we get.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 35

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 11.
When we look down into a pool of water from above, the pool looks less deep than it really is. Similarly, an object kept at the bottom of a pond or pool of water appears to be raised.

This great blue heron finally catches a meal after seeking the waters. To be a successful hunter, the heron must use the refraction principle to determine where the fish are located before making a strike. The heron can accurately determine where to strike by recognizing that the fish are located at a spot that is different from what its eyes tell it.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 36
(A) The apparent depth of the fish in water
(a) Less than the actuaL depth because Light travels from a rarer medium to denser medium.
(b) Less than the actuaL depth because Light travels from a denser medium to rarer medium.
(c) More than the actual. depth because of total internat reflection of Light.
(d) More than the actual depth because Light travels from a denser medium to rarer medium.
Answer:
(b) Less than the actual depth because light travels from a denser medium to rarer medium.

Explanation: As light travels from a denser medium (water) to a rarer medium (air), the light rays undergo refraction and bend away from the normal. To an observer, the position of fish in water appears to be raised as shown in the figure above. Therefore, the apparent depth of the fish in water is less than the actual depth due to refraction of light.

(B) A student was thinking what would happen if the medium is changed from water (refractive index of water = 1.33) to a new medium A having refractive index 1.5. He listed all possibilities in a tabular form.

Select the row containing the correct observation and reason.

Observation Reason
(a) Speed of light will be more in the new medium  A Speed of light in a medium is directly proportional to the refractive index of the medium.
(b) Light rays will bend more in water as compared to  A Bending of light is more in a rarer medium as compared to a denser medium
(c) Apparent depth of fish will be more in water as compared to medium  A Light rays will bend when coming from medium A.
(d) Apparent depth of fish will be less in water as compared to medium  Light rays will bend less when coming from medium A.

Answer:
(c) Observation – Apparent depth of fish will be more in water as compared to medium A;
Reason: Light rays will bend when coming from medium A.

Explanation: When the fish is kept in medium A, light rays will bend more as compared to water because of which fish will appear to be raised more in A as compared to water.

(C) Select the incorrect statement from the statements below regarding refractive index of a medium:
(a) The refractive index can be (inked to the relative speed of propagation of
tight in different media.
(b) Light propagates with different speeds in different media.
(c) Refractive index of air is approximately equal to 1 as speed of tight is fastest In vacuum.
(d) The refractive index of glass is less than that of water as speed of tight in glass is 2 × 108 m/s and in water is 2.25 × 108 m/s.
Answer:

(D) Which of the following are not examples of the phenomena of refraction of light?
(I) Spectacles worn by people to correct their defect of vision
(II) Formation of rainbow
(III) Solar furnaces
(IV) SatelLite dishes
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: Solar furnaces and satellite dishes use parabolic or concave mirrors and make use of the phenomenon of reflection of light, whereas spectacles worn by people having defective vision and formation of rainbow are based on the phenomenon of refraction of light.

(E) A ray of light continues moving along the same path while passing through air- water interface. The angle of refraction for the ray is:
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) Greater than 90°
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 12.
Sumati wanted to see the stars of the night sky. She knows that she needs a telescope to see those distant stars. She finds out that the telescopes, which are made of lenses, are called refracting telescopes and the ones which are made of mirrors are called reflecting telescopes.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 37
So, she decided to make a refracting telescope. She bought two lenses, L1 and L2 out of which L1 was bigger and L2 was smaller. The larger lens gathers and bends the light, while the smaller lens magnifies the image. Big, thick lenses are more powerful. So to see far away, she needed a big powerful lens. Unfortunately, she realized that a big lens is very heavy.

Heavy lenses are hard to make and difficult to hold in the right place. Also since the light is passing through the lens, the surface of the lens has to be extremely smooth. Any flaws in the lens will change the image. It would be like looking through a dirty window.
(A) Based on the diagram shown, what kind of lenses would Sumati need to make the telescope?
(a) Concave lenses
(b) Convex lenses
(c) Bifocal lenses
(d) Flat lenses
Answer:
(a) Concave lenses

(B) If the powers of the lenses L1 and L2 are in the ratio of 4 : 1, what would be the ratio of the focal length of L1 and L2?
(a) 4 :1
(b) 1: 4
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:1
Answer:

(C) What is the formula for magnification obtained with a lens?
(a) Ratio of height of image to height of object
(b) Double the focal length
(c) Inverse of the radius of curvature
(d) Inverse of the object distance
Answer:

(D) Sumati did some preliminary experiment with the lenses and found out that the magnification of the eyepiece (L2) is 3. If in her experiment with L2 she found an image at 24 cm from the lens, at what distance did she put the object?
(a) 72 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 6 cm
Answer:
(c) 8 cm

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 38

Sumati did some preliminary experiment

(E) Sumati bought not-so-thick lenses for the telescope and polished them. What advantages, if any, would she have with her choice of lenses?
(a) She will not have any advantage as even thicker lenses would give clearer images.
(b) Thicker lenses would have made the telescope easier to handle.
(c) Not-so-thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and also allow considerable amount of light to pass through them.
(d) Not-so-thick lenses will give her more magnification.
Answer:
(c) Not-so-thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and they will also allow considerable amount of light to pass through them.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which type of mirror should a student use if he wants to project the image of a candle flame on the walls of the school laboratory?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 2.
If a magnification of -1 is to be obtained using a concave mirror of focal length 6 cm, then what should be the position of the object?
Answer:
Magnification of -1 means that the image is real and size of image is equal to the size of the object. This is possible when the object is placed at C of a concave mirror. Therefore, position of object = C = 2f = 12 cm in front of the concave mirror.

Question 3.
A man stands 10 m away in front of a large plane mirror. How far must he walk before he is 5 m away from his image?
Answer:
As the distance between the man and the mirror is 10 m, the distance between man and his image is 10 + 10 or 20 m, as image distance and object distance are equal. Distance between the man and his image is 5 m when the man is 2.5 m away from the mirror. Therefore, the man has to walk 10 m- 2.5m = 7.5 m towards the mirror.

Question 4.
Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 32 cm.
Answer:

Question 5.
Observe the given figure. What is the angle of reflection?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 39
Answer:
The angle of reflection is the angle between the normal and the reflected ray.
Therefore: 900 70° = 200

Question 6.
An object O is placed in front of a plane mirror as shown beLow.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 40
At which point is the image of the object ‘O’ formed?
Answer:
At point R, the image of object ‘O’ is formed.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 41

Question 7.
Define power of a lens.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 8.
Both a spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have a focal length of (-) 15 cm. What type of mirror and lens are these?
Answer:
Both are concave
Alternative answer that should be given credit: Plano-concave lens

Explanation: Focal length of a concave mirror is the distnace of principal focus F of the mirror from the pole P of the mirror. In concave lens – Focal length is the distnace of principal focus of the lens from the optical centre C. All the distances parallel to the principal axis of the spherical mirror, are measured from the pole of the mirror and in lens this distance is measured from the optical centre of the lens.

In mirror or lens the distances measured in a direction opposite to the direction of incident light are taken as negative.

Concave mirror:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 42
Concave lens:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 43

Question 9.
The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be real, inverted and larger than the object. Where is the object placed?
Answer:
Between the principal focus and the centre of curvature.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 44
Explanation: In figure, object AB is placed between F and C of a concave mirror MN in a direction perpendicular to the principal axis of the mirror. A ray of the light starting from A falls on the mirror along AD parallel to the principal axis. On reflection at D, it passes through F. Another ray of light starting A and falling on the mirror along AE passes through centre of curveture C. On reflection at E, it retraces its path. The two reflected rays, DFA’ and EAC. meet at A’. Draw A’B’ perpendicular to the principal axis of the mirror. Therefore A’B1 is the image of mirror which is formed beyond C and is real, inverted and larger in size than the object.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Question 10.
Name the part of a lens through which a ray of light passes without suffering any deviation.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Physics MCQ:

How do Organisms Reproduce? Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 8 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 8 MCQs On How do Organisms Reproduce?

How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fertilisation is the process of:
(a) transfer of male gamete to female gamete.
(b) fusion of nuclei of male and female gamete.
(c) adhesion of male and female reproductive organs.
(d) the formation of gametes by a reproductive organ.
Answer:
(b) Fusion of nuclei of male and female gamete.

Explanation: Fertilization is the fusion of nucleus of male and female garnets to form a single cell called as zygote. Fertilization occurs in sexually reproducing organisms.

Related Theory:
During sexual mode of reproduction germ cells (gametes) of two individuals need to fuse together. It can happen by either of the following:

External release of germ cells from body of an individual as seen in angiospermic plants, frog, fish etc. This is known as external fertilization.

Internal transfer of germ cells by physical contact between male and female organisms as in mammals. This is called internal fertilization.

Reproduction Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Characters that are transmitted from parents to offsprings during reproduction show:
(a) OnLy similarities with parents
(b) Only variations with parents
(c) Both similarities and variations with parents
(d) Neither similarities nor variations
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

How Do Organisms Reproduce MCQ Question 3.
Choose the correct statement(s) on budding in yeast from the following:
(I) A parent cell divides into two or more daughter ceLLs and here the parent identity is Lost.
(II) In this the elongated nucleus divides to form two or more daughter nucLei.
(III)A bud arises from a particular region on a parent body.
(IV)After detaching from the parent body the bud grows into a new independent individual.
(a) (I) only
(b) (III) only
(c) (II) and (III) only
(d) (III) and (IV) only
Answer:
(d) (III) and (IV) only

Explanation: Yeast reproduces asexually by the process of budding in which a bud arises from a particular region on a parent body. And after detaching from the parent body the bud grows into a new independent individual.
Statements I and II are for binary and multiple fission respectively.

Class 10 Science Chapter 8 MCQ Question 4.
The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species remains constant due to:
(a) Doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation
(b) Halving of chromosomes during gamete formation
(c) Doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation
(d) Halving of chromosomes after gamete formation
Answer:

Class 10 How Do Organisms Reproduce MCQ Question 5.
In the following figure, different stages of binary fission in amoeba are depicted, which are not in the proper sequence
Answer:
Class 10 How Do Organisms Reproduce MCQ
The correct sequence is
(a) (II), (III), (IV), (I) (b) (I), (II), (IV), (III)
(c) (III), (IV), (II), (I) (d) (I), (III), (IV), (II)
[CBSE 2017]
Ans. (a) (II), (III), (IV), (I)
Explanation: The correct sequence of the different stages of binary fission in amoeba is:
(II) Parent amoeba cell.
(III) Duplication of the genetic material and elongation of the nucleus.
(IV) Nuclear division and constriction in cytoplasm
(I) Formation of two daughter amoeba cells.

MCQ Of How Do Organisms Reproduce Question 6.
In Rhizopus, tubular thread-like structures bearing sporangia at their tips are called:
(a) Filaments
(b) Hyphae
(c) Rhizoids
(d) Roots
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 7.
Select the correct statements for the process of budding in yeast:
(I) A bud arises from a particular region on a parent body.
(II) A parent cell divides into two daughter cells, here the parent identity is lost.
(III) Before detaching from the parent body a bud may form another bud.
(IV) A bud when detaches from the parent body grows into a new individual.
(a) (I), (II) and (III)
(b) (II), (III) and (IV)
(c) (III), (IV) and (I)
(d) (IV), (I) and (II)
Answer:

Reproduction MCQs Class 10 Question 8.
Slides of binary fission in Amoeba and budding in yeast were given for observation to a group of students. Some of the observations reported by the group are given below:
(I) Cytokinesis was observed in the yeast cell.
(II) A chain of buds were observed in Amoeba.
(III) Single cell of Amoeba and single cell of yeast were undergoing binary fission and budding respectively.
(IV) Elongated nucleus was dividing to form two daughter nuclei in Amoeba.
The correctly reported observations are:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) (III) and (IV)

MCQ On Reproduction In Organisms Pdf Class 10 Question 9.
Which of the following statements are true for flowers?
(I) Flowers are always bisexual
(II) They are the sexual reproductive organs
(III) They are produced in all groups of plants
(IV) After fertilization they give rise to fruits
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (II) and (IV) i.e. they are the sexual reproductive organs and after fertilization they give rise to fruits

Explanation: Flowers are the sexually reproductive organs of a plant and a fertilized flower give rise to fruit.

Class 10 Reproduction MCQ Question 10.
During adolescence, several changes occur in the human body. Mark one change from the following associated with sexual maturation in boys:
(a) loss of milk teeth
(b) increase in height
(c) cracking of voice
(d) weight gain
Answer:

MCQ Reproduction Class 10 Question 11.
Which among the following statements are true for sexual reproduction in flowering plants?
(I) It requires two types of gametes.
(II) Fertilisation is a compulsory event.
(III) It always results in the formation of zygote.
(IV) Offsprings formed are clones.
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) (I), (II) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:

MCQ On How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Question 12.
Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in:
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Ribosome
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Genes
Answer:
(d) Genes

Explanation: Genes are the unit of heredity DNA that determine genetic characters in an organism.

Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

MCQ On How Do Organisms Reproduce Question 13.
Semen which contains millions of sperms also contains secretions of seminal vesicle and prostrate gland (accessory glands). It makes the tranport of sperms easier and provide nutrition to sperms.
Correct sequence of organs in the male reproductive system for transport of sperms is:
(a) Testis → vas deferens → urethra
(b) Testis → ureter → urethra
(c) Testis → urethra → ureter
(d) Testis → vas deferens → ureter
Answer:
(a) Testis → vas deferens → urethra

Explanation: Testis produces sperms or germ cells. The sperms formed are delivered through the vas deferens which unites with a tube coming from the urinary bladder. The urethra thus forms a common passage for both the sperms and urine.

How Do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 14.
Reproduction is essential for living organisms to order to:
(a) Keep the individual organism alive
(b) Fulfill their energy requirements
(c) Maintain growth
(d) Continue the species generation after generation
Answer:

Ch 8 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Which one of the following permanently marks the end of menstrual cycle in females?
(a) Menarche
(b) Menopause
(c) Ovulation
(d) Pregnacy
Answer:

Question 16.
Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?
(a) Syphillis
(b) Hepatitis
(c) HIV-AIDS
(d) Gonorrhoea
Answer:
(b) Hepatitis

Explanation: Hepatitis is not a sexually transmitted disease. It is a water-borne viral disease.

Question 17.
The sketch of a dicotyledonous seed is shown below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 2
The correct labelling for parts A, B, C and D iri proper sequence is
(a) radicle, plumule, cotyledon, seed coat.
(b) radicle, plumule, seed coat, cotyledon.
(c) plumule, radicle, cotyledon, seed coat.
(d) plumule, radicle, seed coat, cotyledon
Answer:

Question 18.
Which of the following is not the part of female reproductive system?
(a) ovary
(b) fallopian tube
(c) uterus
(d) vas deferens
Answer:
(d) vas deferens
Explanation: Vas deferens is part of male reproductive system.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 19.
Select the statements that are incorrect about reproduction in human beings.
(I) When a girl is born, the ovaries already contain thousands of mature eggs.
(II) One egg is produced every month by one of the ovaries.
(III) The egg is carried from the ovary to the womb through oviduct.
(IV) The two oviducts unite into an elastic bag-like structure known as the cervix.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 20.
Study the diagram given below of male reproductive organ and select the row containing incorrect information.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 3

Name of Part Function
(a) P is Vas deferens Transport sperms
(b) Q is Seminal vesicle Provide fluid medium to sperms
(c) R is ureter Passage for sperms
(d) S is Testis Formation of sperms

Answer:

Question 21.
Study the figure below and identify the row containing incorrect information.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 4

Part Name Function
(a) A is Cotyledon It is the future plant
(b) B is Plumule It is the future shoot
(c) C is Seed coat It is the outer covering of the ovule
(d) D is Radicle It is the future root

Answer:
(a) Part Name: A is cotyledon; Function: It is the future plant

Explanation: A is cotyledon and is the food store of the future plant.

Question 22.
Study the figure showing parts of a flower and identify the correct statements.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 5
(I) Part labeled 1 is the pollen grain and contains the male germ cell.
(II) Part labelled 3 is the stigma on which the pollen grains land.
(III) The male germ cell travels through the pollen tube (part labelled 3) after fertilization.
(IV) Part labelled 4 is the ovary which contains the female germ cells.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (I) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 23.
Identify the incorrect statement from among the following statements for unisexual flowers.
(a) They always possess stamen and pistil
(b) They possess either stamen or pistil
(c) They show cross pollination
(d) Unisexualflowers posessing only stamens cannot produce fruits
Answer:
(a) They always possess stamen and pistil

Explanation: Unisexual flowers contain either stamens or carpels. Bisexual flowers contain both male and female reproductive organs stamen and carpel.

Question 24.
The part where fertilization occurs in human females is:
(a) cervix
(b) vagina
(c) uterus
(d) oviduct

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 25.
The table below lists the organs/parts of human reproductive system and their functions. Identify the row containing incorrect information.

Part/ Organ of Reproductive system Function
(a) Prostate gland and seminal vesicles Production of fluid to provide a medium for sperms.
(b) Testis Secretes the hormone that regulates formation of sperms.
(c) Uterus Provides nutrition from mother’s blood to embryo.
(d) Fallopian tube Carries egg from ovaries to the womb

Answer:
(c) Part/Organ of Reproductive system: Uterus; Function: Provides nutrition from mother’s blood to embryo.

Explanation: The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta which is a disc embedded in the uterine wall and contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 8

For the following questions two statements are given-one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 26.
Assertion (A): Variation is useful for the survival of species over time.
Reason (R): Populations of organisms fill well-defined places in the ecosystem, using their ability to reproduce.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Explanation: Although populations of organisms fill well-defined pLaces in the ecosystem, using their ability to reproduce, the consistency of DNA copying during reproduction. Reproduction is important for the maintenance of body design features. Reproduction is linked to the stability of populations of species.

However, variation is useful for the survival of species over time as niches can change drastically but only those organisms will be able to survive which have some variations in them.

Question 27.
Assertion (A): All multi-cellular organisms can divide cell by cell.
Reason (R): Many multi-cellular organisms are not simply a random collection of cells.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation: All multi-cellular organisms cannot simply multiply cell by cell as they are not just a random collection of cells. Specialized cells are organized as tissues and tissues are organized into organs, which occupy definite positions in the body. Multi-cellular organisms, therefore, need to use more complex ways of reproduction.

Question 28.
Assertion (A): Vegetative propagation makes possible propagation of plants that have lost the capacity to produce seeds.
Reason (R): New plants are developed from seeds in vegetative propagation.
Answer:

Question 29.
Assertion (A): Pollen grains are produced by all flowers.
Reason (R): Stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower and produces pollen grains.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation: All flowers do not produce pollen grains as flowers may be unisexual when it contains either stamens or pistil or bisexual when it contains both stamens and pistil. Stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower and produces pollen grains that are yellowish in colour.

Question 30.
Assertion (A): Testes in human males are located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum.
Reason (R): Testes secrete the male sex hormone testosterone.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)

Explanation: The testes in human males are located outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotum as sperm formation requires a lower temperature than the normal body temperature. Testes secrete the male sex hormone testosterone which regulates the formation of sperms and brings about changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 31.
Assertion (A): The human embryo gets implanted in the fallopian tube.
Reason (R): Embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of special tissue called the Placenta.
Answer:

Question 32.
Assertion (A): A basic event in reproduction is the creation of a DNA copy.
Reason (R): The DNA in the cell nucleus is the information source for making proteins.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Rahul left a slice of bread in his tiffin box by mistake. As his schools had closed for Diwali vacations, he forgot to take the tiffb ox out. When he opened his tiffin box after about 6 to 7 days, he observed black growth on the bread slice and also that the slice smelt very bad.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 6
Identify the organism, the thread like structures seen on the bread and the mode of reproduction of the organism.
Answer:
The organism seen on the bread is Rhizopus and the thread like structures are the hyphae of the bread mould. The mode of reproduction in Rhizopus is by spore formation.

Question 2.
The reproductive parts of angiosperms are located in the flower. The different parts of a flower are sepals, petals, stamens and carpels. Stamens and carpels are the reproductive parts of a flower which contain the germ-cells.
The flower may be unisexual (papaya, watermelon) when it contains either stamens or carpels or bisexual (Hibiscus, mustard) when it contains both stamens and carpels. Stamen is the male reproductive part and it produces pollen grains that are yellowish in colour.

Carpet is present in the centre of a flower and is the female reproductive part.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 7
(A) Where are the plant’s sex organs located?
Answer:
Plant’s sex organs are located in the flower.

(B) What is the function of a flower?
Answer:
The function of a flower is to produce male and female gametes and to ensure that fertilisation will takes place to make new seeds for the reproduction of plant.

(C) Where is the male and female gametes formed in flowering plants?
Answer:

(D) What changes take place in the flower after fertilisation which lead to the formation of seeds and fruit?
Answer:
The fertilised egg divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule which develops a tough coat around it and is gradually converted into a seed. The ovary of the flower develops and becomes a fruit with seeds inside it.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 3.
Asexual reproduction in starfish takes place by fission or through autotomy of arms. In fission, the central disc breaks into two pieces and each portion then regenerates the missing parts. In autotomy, an arm is shed with part of the central disc attached, which continues to live independently as a “comet”, eventually growing a new set of arms. Although almost all sea stars can regenerate their limbs, only a select few sea star species are able to reproduce in these ways.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 8
Offspring formed by asexual method of reproduction have greater similarity among themselves because:
(I) Asexual reproduction involves only one parent
(II) Asexual reproduction does not involve gametes
(III) Asexual reproduction occurs before sexual reproduction
(IV) Asexual reproduction occurs after sexual reproduction
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)
(c) (II) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 4.
The growing size of the human population is a cause of concern for all people. The rate of birth and death in a given population will determine its size. Reproduction is the process by which organisms increase their population.

The process of sexual maturation for reproduction is gradual and takes place while general body growth is still going on. Some degree of sexual maturation does not necessarily mean that the mind or body is ready for sexual acts or for having and bringing up children.

Various contraceptive devices are being used by human beings to control the size of population.
(A) List two common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls.
Answer:
Common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls: Hair growth in armpits and the genital area between the thighs, which also becomes dark in colour.
Thinner hair appear on legs and arms as well as on the face.
Pimples begin to develop as skin becomes oily.
Become conscious and aware of their own bodies and those of others in new ways.

Related Theory
Prenatal sex determination is misused by people who do not want a particular child. Pre-conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PC PNDT) Act, 1994 is an act of the Parliament of India enacted to stop female foeticides and arrest the declining sex ratio in India.

(B) What is the result of reckless female foeticide?
Answer:

(C) Which contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body?
Answer:
The contraceptive method is chemical method (Taking Pills orally) changes the hormonal balance of the body.
Explanation: By taking oral pills, the hormonal balance of the body changes and eggs are not released and fertilization does not occur. Since they cause change in hormonal balance can cause side effects like nausea, headache, weight gain, mood changes etc.

Related Theory
The population size is actually population density, the number of individuals per unit area. The size of human population is a cause for concern for many people because increase in population size makes is harder to improve everybody’s standard of living.

(D) Write two factors that determine the size of a population.
Answer:

Question 5.
Bees are one of the most important animals which help in the pollination process. Bees hit plants because they give them an essential source called nectar. There are many flowering plants which are fertilized by insects like bees, and without them, many of our plant population of the planet would decline as there would be no pollination, so it’s clearly known the relevance of these pollinators.Bees transport seeds from one flower to another, pollinating these plants so that it can develop and provide food. The pollen grains travel through the pollen tube to the ovary.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 9
The length of pollen tube depends on the distance between:
(a) Pollen grain and upper surface of stigma
(b) Pollen grain on upper surface of stigma and ovule
(c) Pollen grain in anther and upper surface of stigma
(d) Upper surface of stigma and lower part of style
Answer:
(b) Pollen grain on upper surface of stigma and ovule

Explanation: After the pollen lands on a suitable stigma, it has to reach the female germ-cells which are in the ovary. For this, a tube grows out of the pollen grain and travels through the style to reach the ovary.

Hence, length of the pollen tube depends on the distance between the pollen grain on the upper surface of stigma and ovule.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 6.
Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act, 1994 is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to stop female foeticides and arrest the declining sex ratio in India. The act banned prenatal sex determination. This process began in the early 1990 when ultrasound techniques gained widespread use in India. There was a tendency for families to continuously produce children until a male child was bom. Social discrimination against women and a preference for sons have promoted female foeticide in various forms skewing the sex ratio of the country towards men.
(A) Why is child sex-ratio declining at an alarming rate in India?
Answer:
The child-sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate because of preference in Indian societies for a male child and reckless female foeticides.

(B) How can unwanted pregnancies be terminated?
Answer:
Unwanted pregnancies can be terminated by surgery.

(C) What is contraception?
Answer:

(D) Write names of any two contraceptive methods.
Answer:

Question 7.
When Sunidhi’s niece was born, she observed that something resembling a cord was tied near the baby’s naval. Her uncle explained to her that it was the umbilical cord, which is a tube that connects the baby to her mother during pregnancy.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 10
Which one of the following best describes the function of the umbilical cord?
(a) feeds the embryo with digested substances
(b) conveys nutrients and wastes to and from the embryo respectively
(c) removes waste matter from the embryo to the mother’s blood
(d) supplies oxygenated blood from the mother to the embryo
Answer:
(b) conveys nutrients and wastes to and from the embryo, respectively.
Explanation: The exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste products between the embryo and the mother’s body takes place through the umbilical cord.

Related Theory
Umbilical cord is connected to a special tissue called placenta which is a disc like structure embedded in the uterine wall.
It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue and blood spaces are present on mother’s side, which surround the villi.
Villi provide large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo.

Question 8.
(A) Observe the above graph and select the correct statements.
(I) The mean fitness of asexual progeny is adapted optimally for a particularly narrow niche.
(II) The mean fitness of sexual progeny is adapted optimally for a particularly narrow niche.
(III) Asexual progeny may survive when niche changes.
(IV) Sexual progeny have a higher chance of survival when niche changes.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: The mean fitness of an asexual clone of organisms is adapted optimally for a particularly narrow niche. They are perfect in the current environment, but, once the condition changes, the entire population may suddenly become extinct. Sexual reproduction can produce a wider range of sub-optimally adapted types. Some may not be able to survive under the current environment (an example is the genetic diseases in humans). However, an ecological disaster that eliminates the asexual progeny will not have as severe an impact on the sexual progeny, because of the diversity of genotypes.

(B) Reason, why paramecium decides for sexual reproduction, is:
(a) It can produce more number of progenies.
(b) Progenies can be considered to be clones of their parents
(c) It leads to genetic variations
(d) Asexual reproduction is unreliable.
Answer:
(c) It leads to genetic variations

Explanation: The reason why the paramecia decide to sexual reproduction is that they need to create “genetic variations” to increase their chance of survival under a harsh condition. In order to do so, two paramecia of compatible mating types exchange parts of their genetic materials and rearrange their DNA to create genetic variations. As a result, the offsprings of sexual reproduction have different genetic DNA sequences compared to their parents. On the other hand, the daughter cells generated from binary fission have identical genome like their parent cell. We call them “clones”.

(C) Select the row containing incorrect information.

Asexual Reproduction Sexual Reproduction
(a) Only one parent is involved Involves two parents
(b) No production and hence no fusion of gametes Involves production of gametes and their fusion
(c) Requires meiotic division followed by mitotic division Requires only mitotic division.
(d) Low genetic variability High genetic variability

Answer:
(c) Asexual Reproduction: Requires Meiotic division followed by Mitotic division; Sexual Reproduction: Requires only Nitotic division.

Explanation: Asexual Reproduction requires only mitotic cell division as no gametes are produced. Sexual reproduction requires meiotic division followed by mitotic division as first gametes are formed and then their fusion takes place.

(D) Which of the following organisms divide by binary fission?
(a) Amoeba and Plasmodium
(b) Paramecium and Plasmodium
(c) Paramecium and Amoeba
(d) Plasmodium and Leishmania
Answer:

(E) Four statements are given below on sexual reproduction. Identify the incorrect statement:
(a) Each new variation is made in a DNA copy that already has variations accumulated from previous generations.
(b) Two different individuals in a population would have quite different patterns of accumulated variations.
(c) Combining variations from two or more individuals would create new combinations of variants.
(d) Each new generation will end up having twice the amount of DNA that the previous generation had.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 9.
Puberty is the time when boys and girls move through a series of significant, natural and healthy changes. These physical, psychological and emotional changes signal that they are moving from childhood to adolescence. Puberty starts when changes in their brain cause sex hormones to start being released in girls’ ovaries and boys’ testes. This usually happens around 10-11 years for girls and around 11-13 years for boys. But it’s normal for the start of puberty to range from 8-13 years in girls and 9-14 years in boys.
The graph below shows the average height of girls and boys up to the age of 18 years.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 11
(A) Select the correct observations:
(I) During 8-12 gears, girls experience a sudden growth.
(II) During 12-16 gears, bogs experience sudden grown
(III) Bogs are alwags taller than girls of their age.
(IV) Growth in both bogs and girls stops after 16 gears.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (II)

Explanation: We note that during 8-12 years, girls experience a sudden growth and have more height as compared to boys. This is because puberty occurs earlier in girls (10-12 years), so they grow rapidly during this phase.
During 12-16 years, boys experience sudden grown and their height becomes the same as girls. This is because puberty occurs later in boys (12-13 years) and they grow rapidly during puberty.

(B) The table below lists some changes observed in girls and bogs during pubertg. Select the row containing incorrect observation.

Changes in Girls Changes in Bogs
(a) Height increases verg quickly and earlier than in bogs Height increases very quickly and Later than girls
(b) Voice pitch becomes higher Voice pitch becomes Lower
(c) Shoulders become broad Hips become broad
(d) Menstruation starts Nocturnal emissions occur

Answer:
(c) changes in Girls: Shoulders become broad;
Changes in Boys: Hips become broad

Explanation: Changes are seen in both boys and girls during puberty due to the secretion of testosterone hormone in boys and oestrogen in girls. The hips become broad in girls, whereas shoulders become broad in boys.

(C) The most rapid growth in girls takes place during:
(a) 0 – 4 gears
(b) 4 – 8 gears
(c) 8-12 gears
(d) 12 – 16 gears
Answer:
(a) 0 – 4 years

Explanation: The most rapid growth in girls takes place in 0-4 years as after that the rate of growth slows down. It again becomes fast from 8-12 years, when girls attain puberty.

(D) Significant spurt in height of bogs is seen during:
(a) 4 – 6 gears
(b) 6 – 8 gears
(c) 8-12 gears
(d) 12 – 16 gears
Answer:

(E) The slowest growth in height of girls is seen during:
(a) 0 – 4 gears
(b) 12 – 16 gears
(c) 8-12 gears
(d) 4 – 8 gears
Answer:

Question 10.
Family planning is about deciding how many children you choose to have and when you want to have them (timing of pregnancies and birth spacing). Spacing births allows the mother to recover physically and emotionally before she gets pregnant again, and faces the demands of pregnancy, birth and breast feeding. STIs including HIV/AIDS can also be prevented with correct and consistent use of condoms. Younger women (adolescents) can delay pregnancy until their bodies are mature and they are ready in terms of their life course. Older women (over 35) can prevent unwanted pregnancies that are often risky for their health and can lead to complications for both mothers and infants.
India’s 2011 census revealed a growing imbalance between the numbers of girls and boys aged 0-6 years, which may be due to increased prenatal sex determination with subsequent selective abortion of female fetuses. The sex ratio from the years 1961 to 2011 shows a very disturbing trend.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 12
Distribution of the total population living in states with varying child sex ratios (girls per 1000 boys at ages 0-6 years), 1991, 2001, and 2011 is shown below.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 13
Mean national values for each of the censuses are shown. The vertical grey bar represents a natural sex ratio at birth of 950 – 975 girls per 1000 boys, where the distribution of child sex ratios at ages 0 – 6 years would be centred in the hypothetical absence of selective abortion of girls and equal girl and boy child mortality rates.
(A) Observe the graphs above and select the correct statements.
(I) The sex ratio from 1961 to 1981 was almost equal to the natural sex ratio at birth shown by vertical grey bar.
(II) Sex ratio in 2001 was less than the sex ratio in 2011.
(III) Sex ratio in 1991 was greater than the sex ratio in 2011.
(IV) The number of girls per 1000 boys of population has increased from 1991 to 2001.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) The main reason for the sex ratio as seen in the graph above is:
(a) Male foeticide
(b) Child labour
(c) Female Foeticide
(d) Child trafFcking
Answer:
(c) Female Foeticide

Explanation: Female foeticide is the illegal sex- selective abortion of female foetuses due to which child sex ratio is declining at an alarming rate.

(C) Which of the following are surgical methods for avoiding pregnancies?
(a) Oral pills
(b) Copper-T
(c) Blocking fallopian tube in females
(d) Blocking urethra in males.
Answer:

(D) The use of which contraceptive methods can prevent sexually transmitted diseases ?
(a) Condoms
(b) Oral pills
(c) Copper-T
(d) Surgical methods
Answer:
(a) Condoms

The use of which contraceptive methods can prevent sexually transmitted diseases ?

Explanation: As condoms are the only contraceptives that create a mechanical barrier between the partners sex organs during sexual intercourse, they can prevent sexually transmitted disesases.

(E) A list of few sexually transmitted diseases are given below along with their cause. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Sexually Transmitted Disease Name Cause
(a) Syphilis Bacteria
(b) Gonorrhea Bacteria
(c) AIDS Virus
(d) Warts Bacteria

Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 11.
Fluman reproduction is a form of sexual reproduction resulting in human fertilization. It typically involves sexual intercourse between a man and a woman. During sexual intercourse, the interaction between the male and female reproductive systems results in fertilization of the woman’s ovum by the man’s sperm. Offspring are produced by the fusion of gametes (sex cells) from each parent. Hence, the newly formed individual will be different from parents, both genetically and physically.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 14
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 16
(A) Study the graphs above showing the levels of ovarian hormones and pituitary hormones in human females and select the correct statements.
(I) The level of oestrogen hormone increases in the first 12 days of the menstrual cycle.
(II) The level of LH secreted by the pituitary gland reaches a peak when ovulation takes place.
(III) The level of progesterone hormone decreases when ovulation takes place.
(IV) The level of FSH secreted by the pituitary gland is minimum when ovulation takes place.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (I) and (II)
Explanation: The level of progesterone
hormone increases when ovulation takes place. The level of FSH secreted by the pituitary gland is maximum when ovulation takes place.

(B) The table below gives the differences between menopause and menarche.
Select the row containing incorrect information.

Menopause Menorche
(a) It is the end of menstruation in human females It is the start of menstruation in humon females
(b) It occurs at around 45-50 years of age It occurs at around 11-16 years of age
(c) It marks the end of reproductive phase of a female It marks the beginning of the reproductive phase of a female
(d) There is an elevated level of oestrogen. There is a decline in the Level of oestrogen

Answer:
(d) Menopause : There is an elevated level of oestrogen; Menarche: There is a decline in the level of Oestrogen.
Explanation: During menopause, there is a decline in the level of oestrogen hormone as it indicates the end of reproductive phase of a women. Whereas, during menarche, which marks the beginning of the reproductive phase of women, there is an elevated level of oestrogen hormone

(C) Refer to the diagram of female reproductive system of humans given below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 16
The correct labelling of parts A, B, C and D is:
(a) A: Oviduct, B: Ovary, C Uterus, D: Cervix
(b) A: Oviduct, B: Fallopian Tube, C: Ovary, D: Uterus
(c) A: Fallopian Tube, B: Uterus, C: Ovary, D: Cervix
(d) A: Oviduct, B: Ovary, C: Cervix, D: Uterus
Answer:
(a) A: Oviduct, B: Ovary, C: Uterus, D: Cervix

(D) The part of female reproductive system through which the uterus opens into the vagina is:
(a) Clitoris
(b) Cervix
(c) Scrotum
(d) Abdomen
Answer:

(E) The onset of reproductive age in human females is known as:
(a) Menstruation
(b) Menopause
(c) Menarche
(d) Ovulation
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 12.
Asexual reproduction is a type of reproduction that does not involve the fusion of gametes or change in the number of chromosomes. The offspring that arise by asexual reproduction from either unicellular or multicellular organisms inherit the full set of genes of their single parent. Asexual reproduction is the primary form of reproduction for single-celled organisms such as archaea and bacteria. Many eukaryotic organisms including plants, animals, and fungi can also reproduce asexually. In vertebrates, the most common form of asexual reproduction is parthenogenesis, which is typically used as an alternative to sexual reproduction in times when reproductive opportunities are limited.
(A) Which of the following observations are incorrect?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 17
(I) The population of yeast grows slowly in the first 6 hours.
(II) The growth rate of yeast is fastest from t = 6 hours to t = 9 hours.
(III) The growth rate increases further from t = 9 hours to t = 12 hours.
(IV) The growth rate increases linearly from t = 2 hours to t = 12 hours.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) Both (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The growth rate decreases and levels off from t = 9 hours to t = 12 hours. The growth rate increases linearly from t = 2 hours to t = 12 hours.

(B) Select the row containing incorrect information:

Name of Organism Method of reproduction
Plasmodium Fission
spirogyra Regeneration
Rhizopus Spore formation
Bryophyllum Vegetative propagation

Answer:

(C) The graph b.elow gives the observations of growth of bread mould (or mold) under different conditions:
A: Bread slices kept at normal room temperature
B: Bread slices kept in refrigerator C: Bread slices kept in freezer.
Select the incorrect statement after observing the graph.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 18
(a) Mould growth is fastest and covers 80% of the slice in 10 dags when kept at room temperature.
(b) Mould growth is slowest and covers 25% of the slice in 10 dags when kept at room temperature.
(c) Mould growth is slowest and covers 12% of the slice in 7 dags when kept in refrigerator.
(d) No mould growth observed for 10 dags when bread slice kept in freezer.
Answer:
(b) Mould growth is slowest and covers 25% of the slice in 10 days when kept at room temperature.

Explanation: Mould growth is the fastest at room temperature and covers about 80% of the slice in 10 days when kept at room temperature.

(D) The structures labelled A and B are:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers 19
(a) A is hyphae and B is Spores
(b) A is root and B is Sporangium
(c) A is hgphae and B is Sporangium
(d) A is root and B is Spores
Answer:

(E) Select the correct statements for the process of budding in geast:
(I) A small bud arises as an outgrowth of the parent bodg.
(II) The parent cell divides into two daughter cells and hence the parental identitg is lost.
(III) The nucleus divides bg meiosis, one daughter nucleus passes into the bud and the other remains in the parent cell.
(IV) The bud either separates off from the parent cell or new bud appears before its separation from the parent cell resulting in the formation of branched or unbranched chain of buds.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where is the zygote located in the flower after fertilisation?
Answer:
Zygote is Located inside the ovule which is present in the ovary.

Related Theory
After the pollen lands on a suitable stigma, it has to reach the female germ cells which are in the ovary. For this, a tube grows out of the pollen grain and travels through the style to reach the ovary. After fertilisation, the zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed. The ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit.

Question 2.
Give an example each of unisexual and bisexual flowers.
Answer:
An example of unisexual flower is papaya, water melon (write any one) and of bisexual flower is hibiscus, mustard (write any one).

Related Theory
Unisexual flowers contain either stamens or carpels. w Bisexual flowers contain both stamens and carpels. w Majority of the flowers are bisexual.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 3.
Name the organs producing sperms and ova respectively in humans.
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favourable conditions. Is this method sexual or asexual?
Answer:
The method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favourable conditions is Fragmentation. This is an asexual mode of reproduction.

Question 5.
Name one organism which reproduces by:
(A) multiple fission
(B) binary fission
Answer:

Question 6.
Name the part of Bryophyllum where the buds are produced for vegetative propagation.
Answer:

Question 7.
What is meant by the term regeneration?
Answer:
Regeneration: The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration. The simple animals like Hydra and Planaria shows regeneration, i.e. if Hydra or Planaria somehow get cut into a number of pieces, then each body part can grow into a new complete organism.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce? with Answers

Question 8.
How is reproduction in leishmania different from that in plasmodium, even though both are unicellular?
Answer:
Leishmania undergoes binary fission, whereas plasmodium reproduces through multiple fission.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Biology MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Management of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Science Biology Chapter 16 MCQ With Answers

Biology Class 10 Chapter 16 MCQs On Management of Natural Resources

Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following is responsible for the ……………… water?
(a) Loss of vegetation cover
(b) Diversion for high water demanding crops
(c) Pollution from urban wastes
(d) Afforestation
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 16 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following are water-intensive crops?
(a) Wheat and rice
(b) Wheat and sugarcane
(c) Sugarcane and rice
(d) Wheat and gram
Answer:
(c) Sugarcane and rice.

Related Theory:
The construction of large dams leads to some problems.
People close to the source grow water-intensive crops like sugarcane and rice whereas people farther downstream do not get sufficient water to grow these crops. This causes social problems resulting due to unequal distribution of water. Other problems related to the construction of dams are economic and environmental problems.

Class 10 Science Chapter 16 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Consider the following criticisms that are generally addressed when a new project is launched:
(I) Displacement of peasants and local tribals without compensation.
(II) Swallowing up large amount of public money without any benefits.
(Ill) Deforestation and loss of biodiversity. The criticisms about large dams in particular are:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:

Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
The Reni village of Garhwal is famous for:
(a) Monoculturesofpine,teakand eucalyptus.
(b) Chipko Movement.
(c) Extensive biodiversity.
(d) Participation of local people inefficient management of forests.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Sustainable Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
Which one of the following stakeholders of forests causes the maximum damage to forest?
(a) People who live in or around the forest
(b) The forest department of the government
(c) The wildlife and native enthusiasts
(d) The industrialists
Answer:
(d) The Industrialist

Ch 16 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 6.
Several factories were pouring their wastes in rivers A and B. Water samples were collected from these two rivers. It was observed that sample collected from river A was acidic while that of river B was basic. The factories located near A and B are:
(a) Soaps and detergents factories near A and alcohol distillery near B.
(b) Soaps and detergents factories near B and alcohol distillery near A.
(c) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near A and soaps and detergents factories near B.
(d) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near B and soaps and detergents factories near A.
Answer:

Chapter 16 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
A diagram of traditional water harvesting system is given below:
The statement which defines the system and its parts is:
Chapter 16 Science Class 10 MCQ
(a) This is an ideal setting of the Khadin system and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area and C = Shallow dug well:
(b) This is an ideal setting of the Shallow dug well system and A = Catchment area; B = Saline area and C = Khadin.
(c) This is an ideal setting of Catchment area and A = Khadin, B = Saline area, and C = Shallow dug well.
(d) This is showing the Saline area and A = Catchment area; B = Khadin and C = Shallow dug well.
Answer:
(a) This is an ideal setting of the Khadin system and:
A = catchment area
B = Saline area
C = Shallow dug well

Explanation: Khadin is a traditional rainwater haversting system in Rajasthan. The main feature of Khadin system of rainwater harvesting is a very long earthen embankment called ‘bund’ built across the lower edge of the sloping farmland. The rainwater from catchment area flows down the slopes and stopped by the bund to form a reservoir the excess water flows through pathwalls (made for this purpose) and filLs the shallow well dug behind the bund. This area is subsequently used for growing crops.

Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Questions And Answers Question 8.
The major ill effect of monoculture practice in forests is on the:
(a) biodiversity which faces large destruction
(b) local people whose basic needs can no longer be met from such forests
(c) industries
(d) forest department
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Sustainable Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
Which of the following are not responsible for failure to sustain water availability underground:
(I) Afforestation
(II) Loss of vegetation cover
(III) Diversion for high water demanding crops
(IV) Pollution from industrial effluents and urban wastes.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Question 10.
Which among the following factors help in confirming the contamination of river water?
(I) Measurement of pH of river water
(II) Existence of diverse life forms in river water
(III) Presence of chlorine in river water
(IV) Presence of coliform bacteria in river water
Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) (I) and (III)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (IV)
(d) (II) and (IV)

Management Of Natural Resources MCQ Question 11.
Choose the correct statements among the following that are a consequence of raising the height of dams
(I) Deforestation and the loss of biological diversity.
(II) Displacement of large number of peasantsand tribals without adequate compensation or rehabilitation
(III) Loss of valuable agricultural land.
(IV) Generation of permanent employment for local people
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (III)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

MCQ On Management Of Natural Resources Class 10 Question 12.
Which of these practices can be adopted to save the environment?
(a) Refuse the use of single-use plastic bags
(b) Reduce the use of paper bags
(c) Recycle single-use bags
(d) Reuse waste food
Answer:
(a) Refuse the use of single-use plastic bags Explanation: The 5R’s to save the environment are: Refuse, Reduce, Reuse, repurpose and Recycle. The best way to save the environment is by refusing to use products that may harm the environment.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Management Of Natural Resources Question 13.
How does switching off unnecessary electrical appliances help the environment?
(a) It generates electricity when switched off
(b) It reduces wastage of energy
(c) It recycles the amount of energy used
(d) It increases the efficiency of the electrical appliances
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

MCQ On Management Of Natural Resources Question 14.
Which of these is an example of sustainable development in order to conserve natural resources for the future generation?
(a) Cleaning water resources
(b) Finding additional fuel reserves
(c) Clearing forests to set up new industries
(d) Planning for safe disposal of wastes after mining
Answer:

Class 10 Management Of Natural Resources MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following industries would be identified as a stakeholder involved in a forest?
(a) That manufacture ceramic products using clay
(b) That make papers using wood products
(c) That make clothes using synthetic materials
(d) That manufacture device that generate electricity using solar energy
Answer:

Class 10 Science Ch 16 MCQ Question 16.
Which of the following practices will help to conserve the forest?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Banning deforestation
(c) Increased use of firewood by local people
(d) Increased use of timber by industries
Answer:

MCQ On Sustainable Management Of Natural Resources Question 17.
Which of these explains the use of dams?
(a) To replenish underground water resources
(b) To produce steady supply of water in hilly regions
(c) To provide irrigation and generate electricity
(d) To provide water for conservation of biological diversity
Answer:

Natural Resources MCQ Class 10 Question 18.
Which of the following steps should be adopted in order to save the environment?
(a) Replace coal to firewood for cooking food
(b) Replace petroleum to coal in vehicles for transportation
(c) Replace thermal power with solar power to generate electricity
(d) Replace the use of coal to petroleum for melting metals in a furnace
Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 16

For the following questions, two statements are given – one labeled Assertion (A) and other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

MCQ Questions On Sustainable Management Of Natural Resources Question 19.
Assertion (A): Sustainable development implies a change in all aspects of life.
Reason (R): Economic development is linked to environmental conservation.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Find out about the international norms to regulate the emission of carbon dioxide. Have a discussion in class about how we can contribute towards meeting those norms.
There are a number of organisations that seek to spread awareness about our environment and promote activities and attitudes that lead to the conservation of our environment and natural resources. Find out about the organizations) active in your neighbourhood/ village/town/city.
(A) Which of the following greenhouses gas is present in very large quantities?
(a) Ozone
(b) Methane
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Propane
Answer:

(B) Select the incorrect statement from the statements given below:
(a) Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.
(b) Life on earth is possible due to presence of greenhouse gases.
(c) Greenhouse effect is a natural process that maintains earth’s temperature.
(d) More is the emission of greenhouse gases, more is the temperature of the earth’s atmosphere.
Answer:
(a) Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.

Select the incorrect statement from the statements given below:

Explanation: The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the Earth’s surface. When the Sun’s energy reaches the Earth’s atmosphere, some of it is reflected back to space and the rest is absorbed and re-radiated by greenhouse gases. Greenhouse gases include water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, ozone and some artificial chemicals such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) The absorbed energy warms the atmosphere and the surface of the Earth. This process maintains the Earth’s temperature at around 33 degrees Celsius warmer than it would otherwise be, allowing life on Earth to exist.

The problem we now face is that human activities – particularly burning fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas), agriculture and land clearing – are increasing the concentrations of greenhouse gases. This is the enhanced greenhouse effect, which is contributing to warming of the Earth.

(C) Which of the following are the causes of increased emission of carbon dioxide in India?
(I) Burning of coal for power generation
(II) Increased vegetation cover during monsoon.
(III) Burning of agricultural wastes
(IV) Burning of fossil fuels for transportation
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) Which one of the following cannot be a goal or an international norm to regulate the emission of carbon dioxide:
(a) To limit and reduce greenhouse gases (GHG) emissions in accordance with agreed individual targets.
(b) To monitor actual emission of greenhouse gases.
(c) To invest in technological development in the developing countries.
(d) To assist countries in adapting to the adverse effects of climate change.
Answer:
(c) To invest in technological development in the developing countries.

Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty which extends the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensus that (part one) global warming is occurring and (part two) that human-made CO2 emissions are driving it. Although it has scope of assisting countries in adapting to the adverse effects of climate change, it does not have scope for investing in technological development in the developing countries.

(E) One of the ways individuals can contribute towards conservation of environment and natural resources is:
(a) Recycling, reusing, and composting
(b) Making better transport choices
(c) Reducing your electricity usage
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation: Individuals can contribute towards conservation of the environment and natural resources by reusing, recycling of waste materials, composting of organic wastes, making better transport choices and using public transport as much as possible and reducing electricity usage.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 2.
Make a list of forest produce that you use. What do you think a person living near a forest would use? What do you think a person living in a forest would use? Discuss with your classmates how these needs differ or do not differ and the reasons for the same. Find out about any two forest produce that are the basis for an industry. Discuss whether this industry is sustainable in the long run. Or do we need to control our consumption of these products?
(A) Which of the following are not products derived directly or indirectly from forest produce used by most urban people?
(a) Paper
(b) Natural gas
(c) Timber
(d) Dyes
Answer:
(b) Natural gas
Explanation: Forests give us a lot of useful products such as paper, timber, dyes, medicines, fruits, spices, dyes and oils.

Natural gas on the other hand is a fossil fuel formed from the plants, animals, and microorganisms that lived millions of years ago.

(B) The table below lists the various stakeholders in forests. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Stakeholders Justification
(a) People who live in or around forests  Dependent on forest produce for various aspects of their life
(b) Forest Department of the Government  Owns land and controls the resources from forest
(c) Industrialists  Dependent on forests In any one area as they use various forest produce
(d) wild life and nature enthusiasts forests.  Want to conserve nature in its pristine form

Answer:

(C) Which of the following forest produce are used by the persons Living in a forest?
(I) Firewood and small. timber
(II) Bamboo
(III) Various agricuLtural. Implements made of Iron and steel.
(IV) Fruits, nuts and medicines
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (IV)
(c) (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) For which of the following needs are people Living near forests dependent on forests?
(a) Fodder fruit and agricultural implements
(b) Fuel, fodder and monoculture
(c) Fuel, fodder and cuLtivation
(d) Minerals, fodder and fuel
Answer:

(E) We should conserve forests because:
(a) Forest provide us with oxygen and they cause rainfall.
(b) Forest prevents soil erosion.
(c) Various forest products are used as raw materials in industries.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above
Explanation: Conservation of forests is the need of the jour as forests provide us with oxygen, they prevent soil erosion, various industries are dependent upon forests for their raw materials and medicines.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 3.
Usually we put recycling on top of everything, but today on the 5 R process, it comes in last. Five actions should respectively be taken if possible before recycling any products. These R’s include: refuse, reduce, reuse, repurpose and finally, recycle. This is an important methodology for businesses to follow to ensure they can reduce waste and boost their recycling efforts. This ultimately lessens the amount of waste that will end up in landfill and will optimise your recycling programs.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 2
(A) The main items that can be recycled are:
(I) Lead-Acid Batteries
(II) Plastic (PET) bottles
(III) Egg cartons
(IV) Steel cans
Select the correct options from below:
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (1), (U) and (III)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)

Explanation: Among the items that can be recycled are lead acid batteries, plastic bottles, steel and aluminium cans, glass bottles, paper, cardboard boxes. Among the items that cannot be recycled are egg cartons, plastic shopping bags, drinking cups, plastic utensils and broken or sharp glass.

(B) The table below gives the meaning of the terms Reuse, reduce and reuse.
Select the row containing the correct meaning of the three terms

Refuse Reduce Reuse
(a) Use less of something Use something over and over again Make something into something new
(b) Make something into something new Use less of something Use something over and over again
(c) Say no to things that can harm environment Use less of something Use something over and over again.
(d) Say no to things that can harm environment Use something over and over again. Use less of something

Answer:

(C) How can organic waste be appropriately managed?
(a) Composting
(b) Recycling
(c) Burning
(d) Melting
Answer:

(D) Look at the figure below and suggest which out of the five ‘R’s is represented below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 3
(a) Reuse, as plastic bottle is being used again.
(b) Repurpose, as the plastic bottle is being used for a different purpose.
(c) Reduce, as less of the thing is being used.
(d) Recycle, as plastic bottle is being recycled.
Answer:

(E) The doorstep delivery of milk in glass bottles is an example of:
(a) Reduce
(b) Reuse
(c) Repurpose
(d) Recycle
Answer:
(b) Reuse

Explanation: Reuse is the action or practice of using an item by taking, but not reprocessing, previously used items and it helps save time, money, energy and resources. In the doorstep delivery of milk in glass bottles, the delivery person gives a bottle containing fresh milk and the empty bottle is returned to him the next day. In this way, the glass bottles are reused.

Question 4.
Fossil fuels Like coal, oil, and natural gas present environmental problems starting with their extraction and going all the wag through to their use. They are all different in their properties and uses, but they have some similarities.We use fossil fuels for most of our energy needs today. Coal, natural gas, and oil accounted for 87 percent of global primary energy consumption. Burning coal for electricity is in decline, while the use of natural gas, solar and wind power are on the rise.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 4
Complete combustion of coal and petroleum:
(I) increases air pollution
(II) increases effciency of machines.
(III) reduces global warming.
(IV) produce poisonous gases.
The correct option is:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (IV)
(c) (II) and (III)
(d) (III) and (IV)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 5.
Half of Delhi’s school-going population (some 2.2 million children) suffers from some or the other form of irreversible lung damage from poor air quality in the city. Research is now showing that pollution can weaken a child’s immune system and increase the risk of cancer, epilepsy, diabetes and even adult- onset diseases like multiple sclerosis. In adults, poor air quality causes one’s lung capacity to decrease, more headaches, sore throats, coughs, fatigue, even lung cancer.

In 2017, air pollution was the fifth-highest mortality risk factor globally – linked to 4.9 million deaths and 147 million years of healthy life otherwise lost. Reducing global air pollution to levels recommended by the WHO would increase life expectancy worldwide as much as eradicating breast and lung cancer would, according to a Quartz report from earlier this year. Going by National Health Profile of India 2015 report, there were 3.5 million reported cases of acute respiratory infection nationwide last year – a 1,40,000 increase on the previous year, and a 30 percent increase since 2010. The pie chart below shows the average levels of fine particulate matter having diameter less than 2.5 micrometers (PM2.5) in Delhi in the month of Nov 2020.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 5
(A) According to the pie chart shown, the major contributors responsible for more than 80% of PM2.5 in air are:
(a) Road dust, Construction and demolition, hotels and restaurants, Industrial point sources
(b) Road dust, domestic sources, Diesel gensets, Industrial point sources
(c) Road dust, vehicles, Construction and demolition and Industrial point sources
(d) Road dust, vehicles, domestic sources and Industrial point sources
Answer:

(B) The major air pollutants are:
(I) Nitrogen dioxide
(II) Sulphur
(III) Particulate matter
(IV) Ozone
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (III)
Answer:
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: The major air pollutants are: Ozone (O3), Nitrogen dioxide, Carbon Monoxide (CO), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) and Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5)

(C) Which of the following element is not present in coal and petroleum:
(a) Silicon
(b) Carbon
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Sulphur
Answer:
(a) Silicon

Explanation: Coal and petroleum have been formed from biomass and contain carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and sulphur.

(D) The number of years our known petroleum and coal reserves will last as per the present estimates is given in the table below.
Select the row containing the correct values:

Number of years our known petroleum reserves will last Number of years our known coal reserves will last
(a) 100  300
(b) 40  200
(c) 400  300
(d) 200  40

Answer:
(b) Number of years our known petroleum reserve will last: 40; Number of years our known coal reserves will last: 200.

Explanation: As per the present estimates, the number of years our known petroleum and coaL reserves will Last are 40 years and 200 years respectively. This estimate is based on the present rate of usage of these fuels.

(E) Select the incorrect option:
The main reason for using coal and petroleum judiciously is:
(a) These lead to global warming
(b) These pollute our environment
(c) These are not limited
(d) These are not inexhaustible
Answer:

Question 6.
When Sukanya visited her maternal grandparents during her school vacations, she observed that both her grandparents would switch off lights and fans when not in use. They would in fact encourage them also to use natural light as much as possible.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 6
Switching off unnecessary lights and fans and repairing leaking taps correctly defines which term of 5R’s?
(a) Recycle
(b) Reuse
(c) Repurpose
(d) Reduce
Answer:
(d) Reduce

Switching off unnecessary lights and fans and repairing leaking taps correctly defines which term of 5R’s?

Explanation: We can reduce the voltage of electricity by switching off unnecessary lights and We can reduce the voltage of water by repairing the leaking taps.

  1. We can collect plastic, paper, glass and metal items and recycle these materials to make required things.
  2. Reuse means to use the same things again eq. Plastic bottles of same or pickles can be used for storing things in the kitchen.
  3. Repurpose: The object which can no more be used for the original purpose e.g. cups with broken handles can be used to grow small plants and as feeding vessels for birds.
  4. Refuse to take the things people offer you that you don’t need or are harmful to the environment, e.g., take your own cloth or jute bag for shopping and refuse to accept plastic bag.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 7.
Poachers, traffickers and highly-organised criminal gangs decimate already endangered wildlife species, reaping a deadly harvest in the pursuit of profits. To address the problem, in 1973 the United Nations General Assembly signed the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), aimed at stemming the illegal trade in wild animals and rare commodities. UN World Wildlife Day is held each year on the anniversary of the signing. The day helps raise awareness of the many challenges facing the world’s wild animals and plants and the efforts to stamp out illegal trading.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 7
(A) The main objective of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is that it:
(I) Ensures that some species entering into international trade is threatened with extinction.
(II) Promotes the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity
(III) Contributes to tangible benefits for poachers
(IV) Stops over exploitation of many endangered species
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (III) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(B) Which of the following is a step taken by the government to protect the wildlife?
(a) Various Project to protect animals in forest
(b) Proper food facilities to the animals in forest
(c) Deforestation to provide space for urbanization
(d) Control the population of animals in forest
Answer:
(a) Various Project to protect animals in forest

Explanation: The Government of India has taken various steps to conserve the wildlife. The major among them is establishing of various projects in order to protect the wildlife. Some of the projects are Project Tiger, Project Rhino, Project Great Indian Bustard and many more.

(C) Which of the following is the most important human activity Leading to the extinction of wildlife?
(a) Increased pollution of air, water and land
(b) Alteration and destruction of the natural habitats.
(c) Hunting of wild animals for valuable wildlife products
(d) Afforestation
Answer:

(D) Which of the following will not be a result of uncovering half of the forest covering of the earth?
(a) Some wildlife species will become extinct
(b) Soil erosion will increase
(c) It will lead to climatic changes
(d) Forest dwelling people will be benefited.
Answer:

(E) Which of the following is the name given to a scheme to protect and conserve bio-diversity?
(a) Biosphere
(b) Biotechnology
(c) Bio-reserve
(d) Bio-ecology
Answer:
(c) Bio-reserve

Explanation: Bio-reserve is a scheme to protect and conserve bio-diversity. The central area preserves the flora and fauna. The surrounding zone is utilized for research and experiments regarding conservation of bio-diversity.

Question 8.
The first phase of the Ganga action plan was inaugurated by late Rajiv Gandhi at Rajendra prasad ghat of Banaras. The National Protection Agency was constituted for its implementation. During the first phase of Ganga Action Plan 256 schemes of 462 crores were undertaken in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal. Special stations have been created to check the quality of water. The experts from Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited and National Environment Engineering Research Institute were appointed to check the quality of the water.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 8
The main purpose of the ‘Ganga Action Plan’ (GAP) project launched by the government in 1985 was to:
(a) Build new dams over the Ganga river
(b) Make its water pollution free
(c) Utilize the river water for irrigation purposes
(d) Promote the growth of water sports in the river
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 9.
India’s water situation is dire. There are no two ways around it. Around 2,00,000 people die every year due to inadequate access to safe water, 21 major cities will run out of groundwater by 2020, 75% of households do not have access to drinking water at home and 70% of India’s water is contaminated. Plus the problem is only going to get more severe, as the population grows, while water becomes even more scarce. It should be evident, then that India is facing a water crisis, one that whoever comes to power would be expected to help resolve.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 9
(A) The main causes of contamination of water are:
(I) Burning of fossil fuels
(II) Dissolved oxygen
(III) Untreated sewage
(IV) Agricultural runoff
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (III) and (IV)
(c) (I), (II) and (IV)
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: Canals, rivers and lakes in India often serve as dumping grounds for sewage, solid and liquid wastes. Water pollution is a major environmental issue in India. The largest source of water pollution in India is untreated sewage. Other sources is of pollution include agricultural runoff and unregulated small-scale industry. Burning of fossil fuels releases harmful gases like carbon dioxide, oxides of suLphur and nitrogen which cause acid rain and pollute the water bodies. Dissolved oxygen, when released in water, helps aquatic plants and animals for respiration. So it does not cause pollution, but the removal of dissolved oxygen causes pollution.

(B) Which of the following is not the main cause of water scarcity in India?
(a) Climate change
(b) River pollution
(c) Natural disasters
(d) Groundwater extraction and irrigation
Answer:

(C) The main purpose of water harvesting is to:
(a) Use surface water for irrigation.
(b) Recharge ground water.
(c) Collect water directly for domestic use
(d) Refill lake water and other water bodies.
Answer:

(D) The aims of Watershed management is:
(a) To increase the biomass production.
(b) To develop primary resources of land and water
(c) To produce secondary resources of plants and animals.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Explanation: Through watershed manage¬ment, one can implement plans, projects that sustain and enhance watershed functions. Watershed functions include capturing, storing and recharging groundwater, filtering out water pollutants, and secure release of rainwater to avoid floods during heavy rainfalls. Watershed management emphasises scientific soil and water conservation in order to increase the biomass production. The aim is to develop primary resources of land and water, to produce secondary resources of plants and animals for use in a manner which will not cause ecological imbalance.

(E) Some of the ancient water harvesting alongwith states where these were built are listed in the table below. Select the row containing incorrect information:

Ancient water harvesting State where built
(a) Khadins  Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bandharas  Maharashtra
(c) Bundhis  Madhya Pradesh
(d) Ahars  Bihar

Answer:
(a) Ancient water hervesting: Khadins State where buiLt: Utter Pradesh

Explanation: Water harvesting is an age-old concept in India. Khadins, tanks and nadis in Rajasthan, bandharas and tals in Maharashtra, bundhis in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, ahars and pynes in Bihar, kulhs in Himachal Pradesh, ponds in the Kandi belt of Jammu region, and eris (tanks) in Tamil Nadu, surangams in Kerala, and kattas in Karnataka are some of the ancient water harvestings, including water conveyance, structures still in use today.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 10.
Groundwater, which can be used by people, constitutes only 0.8% of total water voLume while the rest Lies in the form of oceans and snow on mountains and glaciers. A growing population combined with huge demand of water for development purposes has put excessive stress on available water resources. The uneven distribution of water resources, artificial modification of natural flow of rivers and human abuse are the main reasons for the looming water crisis in India.The situation of groundwater is critical in Delhi, Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan. These states need urgent attention from the government and the implementation of proper water management techniques to prevent severe water crises.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 10
In addition to low rainfall, what are the other reasons for non-availability of water in arid and semi-arid zones of our country?
Answer:
The reasons for the non-availability of water in arid and semi-arid zones of our country are:

  1. No proper rain water harvesting systems in these areas.
  2. Pollution of water due to mixing of industrial and domestic waste making it unfit for drinking purposes.

Question 11.
The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is located in the state of Telangana. It is India’s largest Masonry Dams built till date. It is the largest manmade lake in the world. It has 26 gates and is 1.55 km in length. It is situated on the river Krishna.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 11
Construction of a dam on a river often results in the reduction of fish catch. Why is it so?
Answer:
Fish populations are highly dependent upon the characteristics of their aquatic habitat which supports all their biological functions. The water stored by constructing dams is stagnant water whereas fishes breed in clean and running water due to which their population decreases and fish catch also reduces.

Question 12.
Sanjay visited a National park with his parents to observe wild life. As they were entered the forest area, they observed logs of teak wood being transported from the forest in big trucks by a contractor.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 12
Will the local people also behave in a similar manner? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, the local people will not behave in this manner. The reason is that the local people are dependent on the forest for their day to day sustenance since generations whereas for the contractor it is just a means of earning his livelihood. Once all the trees of a particular forest have been cut, the contractor will simply move on to a new forest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 13.
You must be aware that the Indus valley civilization had been famous for its irrigation and water harvesting techniques and thus when it comes to Rain Water Harvesting, India has its pride. But why is it that despite having such an elaborate system and knowledge, the country is facing such extreme water shortage conditions? Bavaria are unique stepwells that were once a part of the ancient networks of water storage in the cities of Rajasthan. The irtle rain that the region received would be diverted to man-made tanks through canals built on the hilly outskirts of cities.The water would then percolate into the ground. raising the water table and recharging a deep and intricate network of aquifers. To minimise water loss through evaporation, a series of layered steps were built around the reservoirs to narrow and deepen the wells.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers 13
What are the advantages of water harvesting techniques?
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting is the process of accumulating and storing rainwater for on-site use instead of allowing it to run off Rainwater provides an independent and free water supply that offers several ways the water can be used. It reduces soil erosion arid flooding, reduces demand an ground warer. makes water available for non-drinking purposes and helps in plant growth

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Make a list of few industries that are dependent on forest products.
Answer:
Forest product-dependent industries are: Timber, paper, lac and sports equipment industries.

Question 2.
Is Water conservation necessary? Give reason.
Answer:
Water conservation is necessary as availability of water on Earth is more than enough for all but due to its uneven distribution, wide seasonal fluctuations in rainfall and majority of available water being saline, conservation is highly important for future generations.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Question 3.
How is the increase in demand for energy affecting atmosphere?
Answer:
Overconsumption and increase in demand of fossil fuels releases a huge amount of polluting gases into the atmosphere, which in turn causes global warming and also produces acid rain.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

Class 10 Science Biology MCQ: