Raju

Here we are providing Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Globe Latitudes and Longitudes was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-6-social-science/

Globe Latitudes and Longitudes Class 6 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 2

Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What are latitudes?
Answer:
They are the lines running in east-west direction and parallel to the equator.

Globe Latitudes And Longitudes Class 6 Extra Questions Question 2.
Do all the longitudes meet at the same point?
Answer:
Yes, all the lines of longitudes meet at the North pole and the South pole.

Ncert Solutions For Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 3.
What is the Standard Meridian for India?
Answer:
Standard Meridian for India is 82\(\frac{1}{2}\). It is followed all over the country.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Name three types of globes.
Answer:
The three types of globes are

1. big globes, which are not easy to carry;
2. small pocket globes; and
3. globes like balloons which can be inflated are handy and easy to carry.

Ncert Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 5.
How can we locate a place on the globe?
Answer:
Places on the globe are located with the help of lines of latitudes and lines of longitudes. Each line is numbered in degrees.

Extra Questions For Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Question 6.
What are longitudes?
Answer:
They are the lines running in north-south direction and meet at the North-Pole and South Pole.

Chapter 2 Geography Class 6 Extra Questions Question 7.
How do we calculate the values of North pole and South pole?
Answer:
The angular distance of the North Pole and the South Pole from the equator is 90°. So, the latitude of the North Pole is QCTN and for the South Pole is 90°S.

Geography Chapter 2 Class 6 Extra Questions Question 8.
How do the lines of longitude help us to calculate time?
Answer:
The earth takes 24 hours to complete one rotation. This means, in 24 hours the earth completes 360°. This means that it takes 4 minutes to complete one degree. Accordingly, the earth is divided into 24 time zones. Places east of the Greenwich Meridian experience sunrise earlier than the places lying west of the Prime Meridian.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following is a true model of the earth?
(a) Map
(b) Grid
(c) Globe
(d) Mappa
Answer:
(c) Globe

2. Which one of the following statements is false about the globe?
(а) It is a true model of the earth
(b) It; is the flat representation of the earth surface
(c) It shows countries, continents and oceans in their correct size
(d) It can be rotated the same way as a topspin.
Answer:
(b) It is the flat representation of the earth surface.

3. Which one of the following statements truly define the equator?
(a) An imaginary line running on the globe and divides it into two equal parts.
(b) It is a needle fixed through the globe
(c) It is called the northern latitudes
(d) The northern part of the equator is termed as the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer:
(a) An imaginary line running on the globe and divides it into two equal parts.

4. The northern half of the earth is called:
(a) Southern Hemisphere
(b) North Pole
(c) South Pole
(d) Northern Hemisphere.
Answer:
(d) Northern Hemisphere.

5. Which one of the following terms is used for all parallel circles -from the equator up to the poles?
(a) Parallels of latitudes
(b) Prime Meridian
(c) Meridians of longitudes
(d) Tropic of Cancer.
Answer:
(a) Parallels of latitudes

6. Which one of the following is used to measure the latitudes?
(a) Meter
(b) Barometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) Degree.
Answer:
(d) Degree.

7. Which one of the following is represented by the zero degree?
(a) Equator
(b) Arctic circle
(c) Antarctic circle
(d) Tropic of Cancer
Answer:
(a) Equator

8. Total number of latitudes are:
(a) 360
(b) 180
(c) 90
(d) 160.
Answer:
(b) 180.

9. Which one of the following latitudes is lying to the south of the equator?
(a) 20°N
(b) 30CN
(c) 55°S
(d) 50°N.
Answer:
(c) 55°S

10. 90° north (N) and 90° south (S) latitudes are also termed as: –
(a) The Tropic of Cancer
(b) North Pole and South Pole
(c) The Tropic of Capricorn
(d) Arctic circle.
Answer:
(b) North Pole and South Pole

11. Which one of the following latitudes is situated in the Northern Hemisphere?
(a) Antarctic circle
(b) South Pole
(c) Tropic of Cancer
(d) Tropic of Capricorn
Answer:
(c) Tropic of Cancer.

Important Definitions/Words:

→ Globe: It is a three-dimensional model of the earth.

→ Geoid: It means earth like shape.

→ Axis: It is an imaginary line passing through the earth. It is inclined at an angle of 66%

→ North Pole and South Pole: The two ends of the axis are called poles. They are two fixed points on the globe.

→ Equator: It is an imaginary line running west to east and divides the earth into two equal parts called the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere.

→ Longitudes: They are lines drawn on the globe by joining North Pole and South Pole, running in north-south direction are called longitudes or meridians.

→ Latitudes: The lines drawn between the two poles, in east-west direction and parallel to the equator are called lines of latitudes. They are also called ‘parallels’ because latitudes are parallel to each other. –

→ Graticule: The network of parallel lines and lines of longitudes is called graticule. It helps in finding the location of a place.

→ Torrid zone: This region lies between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn and receives the maximum amount of heat throughout the year because the sun rays fall vertically on this region.

→ Temperate zones: They lie in both the hemispheres. In the northern hemisphere, it lies between the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic circle. In the southern hemisphere, it lies between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic circle.

→ Frigid zones: The word frigid means very cold. In the north, the Frigid zone lies between Arctic circle and the North pole. In the southern hemisphere, it lies between the Antarctic Circle and the South pole. The climate here is very cold due to the extreme slant of the sun’s rays.

→ Prime Meridian: It is the ‘0’ longitude and divides the earth into eastern and western hemispheres.

→ Rotation: The movement of the earth on its own axis from west to east is called rotation. The earth takes 24 hours to complete one rotation.

→ Local time: It is the time of a place, calculated by the position of the sun at noon at a given place.

→ Standard time: Every country fixes a central meridian, which is considered as the standard time of that country.

→ Greenwich Meridian Time: It is the meridian passing through Greenwich in London. Through an international agreement, the local time of all places is nuked to the Greenwich Meridian Time.

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Motions of the Earth was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-6-social-science/

Motions of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 3

Motions Of The Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Question 1.
Name the two movements of the earth.
Answer:
The two movements of the earth are Rotation and Revolution.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
What is the circle of illumination?
Answer:
The circle that divides the day from night is called the circle of illumination.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 3.
What is an orbital plane?
Answer:
The axis of the earth, which is an imaginary line, makes an angle of 66\(\frac{1}{2}\)° with its orbital plane.

Motion Of The Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Question 4.
How are the seasons caused?
Answer:
The revolution of the earth and the inclination of the earth’s axis in a fixed direction cause season.

Geography Chapter 3 Class 6 Test Paper Question 5.
Into how many seasons is the year divided?
Answer:
A year is usually divided into four seasons-spring, summer, autumn and winter.

Ncert Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 6.
What would happen if the earth did not rotate?
Answer:
If the earth did not rotate, the portion of the earth facing the sun would experience day always and would be hot. while the other half would remain in darkness and be freezing cold all the tone. Life would not have been possible in such extreme conditions.

Motions Of The Earth Class 6 Questions And Answers Question 7.
Why is the Australian Christmas celebrated in the summer season?
Answer:
The Christmas day is on 25 December. In December, the Tropic of Capricorn receives the direct rays of the sun and, the South Pole tilts towards it. Tims, it is summer in the Southern Hemisphere at this time. Therefore, Australia, which lies in Southern Hemisphere, has summer on the Christmas Day.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following terms is used for the movement of the earth on its axis?
(a) Revolution
(b) Orbit
(c) Rotation
(d) Movement.
Answer:
(c) Rotation

2. Which one of the following statements is truly defines the revolution of the earth?
(a) Movement of the earth on its own axis
(b) The movement of the earth around the sun in a fixed path
(c) The movement of the moon around the earth
(d) The movement of the dust particles in the atmosphere.
Answer:
(b) The movement of the earth around the sun in a fixed path

3. The earth is tilted at:
(a) an angle of 66\(\frac{1}{2}\)°
(b) an angle of 231/2°
(c) an angle of 60°
(d) an angle of 90°
Answer:
(a) an angle of 66\(/frac{1}{2}\)°

4. Which one of the following is the circle of illumination?
(a) The imaginary axis of the earth
(b) The circle that divides the day from night on the globe
(c) The Arctic Circle that demarcates the Frigid Zone in the Northern Hemisphere
(d) The Antarctic Circle that lies in the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer:
(b) The circle that divides the day from night on the globe

5. Which one of the following terms is used for the period of one rotation?
(a) Circle of illumination
(b) Orbital plane
(c) Earth day
(d) Revolution.
Answer:
(c) Earth day

6. How much time the earth takes to complete one revolution?
(a) 366 days
(b) 365% days
(c) 364 days
(d) 350 days
Answer:
(b) 365% days

7. Which one of the following terms is used for the year with 366 days?
(a) Spring year
(b) Autumn year
(c) Giant year
(d) Leap year
Answer:
(d) Leap year

8. The earth moves around the sun in which one of the following orbits?
(a) Elliptical
(b) Circular
(c) Irregular
(d) Regular
Answer:
(a) Elliptical

9. A year is usually divided into;
(a) Summer and winter seasons
(b) Rainy, hot and humid seasons
(c) Summer, winter, spring and autumn seasons
(d) Spring and autumn seasons.
Answer:
(c) Summer, winter, spring and autumn seasons

10. On which one of the following latitudes the sun’s rays fall directly on 21st June?
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Arctic Circle
(d) Antarctic Circle.
Answer:
(b) Tropic of Cancer

11. During Summer Solstice, which one of the following hemispheres experiences the summer season?
(a) Northern Hemisphere
(b) Southern Hemisphere
(c) Eastern Hemisphere
(d) Western Hemisphere
Answer:
(a) Northern Hemisphere

12. Which one of the following statements is false about the Summer Solstice?
(a) It occurs on 22nd December in the Northern Hemisphere
(b) The longest day and shortest night occur in the Northern Hemisphere on 21st June
(c) The North Pole is inclined towards the sun,
(d) The Arctic Circle experiences continuous daylight for about six months
Answer:
(a) It occurs on 22nd December in the Northern Hemisphere.

Important Definitions/Words:

→ Rotation: The movement of the earth on its own axis is called rotation. It takes 24 hours to rotate once on its own axis.

→ Revolution: The movement of the earth around the sun in a fixed path is called revolution.

→ Orbital plane I The axis of the earth, which is an imaginary line, makes an angle of 66% with its plane.

→ Circle of illumination: The circle that divides the day from night is called the circle of illumination.

→ Daily motion: The rotation of the earth is called the daily motion.

→ Leap year: It is a year when the month of February has 29 days instead of 28 days.

→ Elliptical orbit: The movement of the earth around the sun does not make a complete circle. It revolves around the sun and the path is bulging in the east and west directions.

→ Summer Solstice: It is the position of the earth when the Northern Hemisphere has the longest day and the shortest night. It occurs on 21st June. In the Southern Hemisphere, it is winter season at this time. The days are short and the nights are long.

→Winter Solstice: It is the position of the earth when Southern Hemisphere has long days and shorter nights. In the Northern Hemisphere, the days are short and the nights are long. It occurs on 22nd December.

→ Spring and Autumn Equinoxes: The Northern Hemisphere gets spring on 21st March and Autumn on 23rd September. Exactly the opposite happens in the Southern Hemisphere, where it is spring on Sept. 23rd and Autumn on March 21st. These positions are called Spring and Autumn Equinoxes respectively.

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 7 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Struggles for Equality was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Struggles for Equality Class 7 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 9

Struggle For Equality Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Who is Swapna and what does she do?
Answer:
Swapna is a small farmer in Kurnool and she grows cotton.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions Question 2.
What is putting out system?
Answer:
The arrangement between the merchant and the weavers is known as putting-out system.

Struggles For Equality Class 7 Extra Questions Question 3.
To whom does the Erode merchant supply the cotton cloth?
Answer:
The Erode merchant supplies the cotton cloth to a garment exporting factory near Delhi.

Struggles For Equality Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Write about Erode’s cloth market in brief.
Answer:
Erode is a bi-weekly cloth market in Tamil Nadu. It is one of the largest, cloth markets in the world. A large variety of clothes are sold in this market.

Class 7 Civics Ch 9 Extra Questions Question 5.
What is the role of merchants in making the clothes?
Answer:
The merchant distributes work among the weavers based on the orders he has received for cloth. For this, he buys the yarn and gives to the weavers with instructions about the kind of cloth that is to be made.

Ch 9 Civics Class 7 Extra Questions Question 6.
What is the role of market in the lives of people related to cloth?
Answer:
The market offers people, related to cloth, opportunities for work and to be able to sell things that they grow or produce. It could be the farmer selling cotton or weaver producing cloth.

Struggle For Equality Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 7.
Why have the poor people to depend on rich persons?
Answer:
The poor have people to depend on the rich and the powerful persons for loans, raw materials and marketing of their goods, and most often for employment.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 10 Extra Questions Question 8.
How do the cotton cloths reach from weavers to buyers in the USA and Europe?
Answer:

• The weavers produce cotton cloths either themselves or on order from the merchants.
• For this, the weavers get the yarn from the merchant and supply them the cloth.
• The merchant supplies the cotton cloth to garment exporting factory.
• The garment exporting factory uses the cloth to make shirts. The shirts so made are exported to the foreign buyers in the USA and Europe.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. The story of a shirt begins with;
(a) the production of cotton
(b) sale of the cotton
(c) picking cotton balls
(d) growing the cotton.
Answer:
(a) the production of cotton.

2. In which one of the following states is Kurnool situated?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Punjab.
Answer:
(c) Andhra Pradesh.

3. Which one of the following is the bi-weekly cloth market in Tamil Nadu?
(a) Kurnool market
(b) Erode’s bi-weekly market
(c) Chennai market’
(d) Kalpakkam market.
Answer:
(b) Erode’s bi-weekly market.

4. Who give the yarn to the weavers in Tamil Nadu?
(а) Big farmers
(b) They grow cotton in their fields
(c) Exporter
(d) Merchants.
Answer:
(d) Merchants.

5. The arrangement between the merchant and the weavers is an example of;
(a) barter system
(b) putting-out system
(c) putting-in system
(d) weaving system.
Answer:
(b) putting-out system.

6. What is the putting-out system?
(a) The merchant supplies the raw materials.
(b) Merchant receives the finished products.
(c) The merchant supplies the raw materials and receives the finished products.
(d) The merchant provides handlooms to the weavers.
Answer:
(c) The merchant supplies the raw materials and receives the finished products.

7. A chain of markets links the;
(a) producer of cotton to the buyer at local market.
(b) buyer at local market and supermarket.
(c) various buyers at the supermarket.
(d) producer of cotton to the buyer at super market.
Answer:
(d) producer of cotton to the buyer at supermarket.

8. Which one of the following steps is taken place at every place in the market chain?
(а) Buying and selling
(b) Import and export
(c) Production and selling
(d) Growing and production.
Answer:
(а) Buying and selling.

9. Which one of the following has made huge profits in the market?
(а) Local traders
(b) Farmers
(c) Foreign business person
(d) Exporters.
Answer:
(c) Foreign business person.

10. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to dependence of poor people on the rich?
(a) For loan
(b) For raw materials
(c) For employment
(d) For clothes.
Answer:
(d) For clothes.

Important Terms:

Ginning mill: It is a factory where seeds are removed from cotton bolls. The cotton is pressed into bales to be sent for spinning into thread.

Exporter: A person who sells goods abroad is known as exporter.

Profit: The amount that is left or gained from earnings after deducting all the costs. If the costs are more than the earnings, it would lead to a loss.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Role of the Government in Health was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Role of the Government in Health Class 7 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 2

Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What does the health mean?
Answer:
Health means an ability to remain free of illness and injuries.

Role Of Government In Health Class 7 Extra Questions Question 2.
What is public healthcare system?
Answer:
The public healthcare system (service) is a system of hospitals and health centres run by the government.

Ncert Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 3.
Who has been given the duty to safeguard the right to life of every person in our Constitution?
Answer:
The government has been given the duty in our Constitution to safeguard the right to life of every person.

Role Of The Government In Health Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 4.
What do the people expect from the government to work for their welfare?
Answer:

• The people expect from the government to work in the fields of education, health, employment, housing or the development of roads, electricity, etc.
• These are the facilities and services which are meant for the welfare of the people.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 5.
Write about some aspects of our lives which affect our health?
Answer:

• Sometimes we are dull, inactive, anxious or scared for long stretches of time.
• We also get mentally strained because of workload, family problems, etc. All these aspects of our lives affect our health.

Class 7 Civics Ch 2 Extra Questions Question 6.
What does the public healthcare system do?
Answer:

• The public healthcare system looks after the health of a large section of population. It covers both the rural areas (i.e., villages) and the towns and cities.
• It prevents the diseases from occurring by immunization programmes and giving treatments those who have already become infected.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 7.
What were the reasons which made Costa Rica one of the healthiest countries in South America?
Answer:
The following reasons have made Costa Rica one of the healthiest countries in South America:

• Many years ago Costa Rica decided not to have an army. The money so saved was expensed on health, education and other basic needs of the people.
• It compulsorily provides safe drinking water, sanitation, nutrition and housing to all its citizens.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Question 8.
What changes did the Kerala government make in the state in 1996?
Answer:
The Kerala government made the following changes in the state :

• It allocated forty per cent of the entire state budget to the Panchayats.
• It directed the Panchayats to make proper planning for water, food, women’s development and education in each village.
• Health centres were improved.
• Water supply were checked, working of schools and angan wadis was ensured.
• Specific problems of each village were taken up.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. What does the health mean?
(a) Ability to stay fit
(b) Ability to remain free of illness and injuries
(c) Ability to buy medicines
(d) Ability to take nutritious food.
Answer:
(b) Ability to remain free of illness and injuries.

2. Which one of the following countries has the largest number of medical colleges in the world?
(a) India
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bhutan.
Answer:
(a) India.

3. Which one of the following rank does India possess in terms of the production of medicines?
(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 4th
(d) 5th
Answer:
(c) 4th.

4. To treat illnesses,
(a) Doctors
(b) Nurses
(c) Health workers
(d) Farmers
Answer:
(d) Farmers.

5. Which one statements is true healthcare system?
(a) A system of hospitals run by NGOs.
(b) A system of hospitals and health centres run by the government.
(c) A system of hospitals run by private agencies.
(d) International Health Care System.
Answer:
(b) A system of hospitals and health centres run by the government.

6. At village level, the nurses and village health workers work at the
(a) city hospitals
(b) town hospitals
(c) primary health centres
(d) private clinics.
Answer:
(c) primary health centres.

7. Which one of the following is not an important action of the health care centres?
(a) To provide quality health care system
(b) To prevent the spread of diseases like T.B. etc.
(c) To provide adequate medicines
(d) To provide financial support to the patients.
Answer:
(d) To provide financial support to the patients.

8. Privately owned hospitals are also termed as;
(a) Public health centres
(b) Private hospitals
(c) International hospitals
(d) Primary health centres
Answer:
(b) Private hospitals.

9. Which one of the following statements is false about the private health centres?
(a) They are more expensive.
(b) They are running for profit.
(c) They are mainly concentrated in the cities.
(d) Doctors open the private clinics to serve the villagers.
Answer:
(d) Doctors open the private clinics to serve the villagers.

10. Which one of the following is considered as the healthier country of South America?
(a) Brazil
(b) Argentina
(c) Costa Rica
(d) Ecuador
Answer:
(c) Costa Rica.

Important Terms:

Public: An activity- or a service that is meant for all people in the country and is mainly organised by the government. This includes schools, hospitals, telephone services, etc. People can demand these services and also raise questions about their non-functioning.

Private: An activity or a service that is organised by an individual or company for their own profit.

Medical tourists: This refers to foreigners who come to this country specifically for medical treatment at hospitals that offer world-class facilities at a lower cost than what they would have to pay in their own countries.

Communicable diseases: These are diseases that are spread from one person to another in many ways such as through water, food, air, etc.

OPD: This is the short form for ‘Out-Patient Department’. This is where people are first brought in and treated in a hospital without being admitted to any special ward.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 7 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers New Kings and Kingdoms was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

New Kings and Kingdoms Class 7 Extra Questions History Chapter 2

Class 7 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Who was Kalhana?
Answer:
Kalhana was a Kashmiri historian of 12th century. He composed a long Sanskrit poem on rulers of Kashmir.

New Kings And Kingdoms Class 7 Worksheet With Answers Question 2.
Who wrote Kitab-al Hindi
Answer:
The Arabic scholar al-Biruni wrote the Kitab-al Hind. He consulted Sanskrit scholars to prepare this account.

New Kings And Kingdoms Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Who built the town of Thanjavur?
Answer:
The Chola chief Vijayalaya built the town of Thanjavur and a temple for goddess Nishumbhasudini there.

New Kings And Kingdoms Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
Which famous inscription gives details of Chola administration?
Answer:
The inscription from Uttaramerur, in Chingleput district, Tamil Nadu, gives details of Chola administration.

Class 7 History Chapter 2 Worksheet With Answers Question 5.
Give the high sounding titles of medieval rulers.
Answer:
The medieval rulers claimed the titles such as Maharaja-adhiraja (great king, overlord of kings), Tribhuvan-chakravartin (lord of the three worlds and so on).

Class 7 History Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Question 6.
Who was Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni?
Answer:
Mahmud of Ghazni was an Afghani ruler who raided the subcontinent temples, including Somnath, Gujarat, during early eleventh century.

New Kings And Kingdoms Extra Questions Question 7.
Who was Rajendra I?
Answer:
Rajendra I was a great Chola ruler, son of Rajaraja I. Rajendra I expanded Chola rule in Ganga valley, Srilanka and countries of southeast Asia.

Ncert Class 7 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 8.
From where were resources collected in medieval states of subcontinent?
Answer:
The medieval states of subcontinent collected resources from :

• the producers – peasants, cattle-keepers and artisans,
• land revenue.
• taxes from traders and merchants.

Class 7 History Ch 2 Extra Questions Question 9.
How did Kalhana write the history of rulers of Kashmir?
Answer:
Kalhana used a variety of sources, including inscriptions, documents, eyewitness accounts and earlier histories to write his account.

Extra Questions For Class 7 History Chapter 2 Question 10.
How did the Cholas rise to power?
Answer:

• Vijayalaya a Chola chief from Uraiyur captured the Kaveri delta from the Muttaraiyar (Samanta of Pallava king) in the middle of the ninth century.
• He gradually conquered neighbouring regions and thus established Chola kingdom by defeating Pallava and Pandya kings.
• The Chola kingdom was consolidated under Rajaraja I and his son Rajendra I.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Kalhana was ………………. .
(a) an Kashmiri historian of 12th century
(b) an Arab geographer of 12th century
(c) an Delhi Sultan of 11th century
(d) an French cartographer of 18th century.
Answer:
(a) an Kashmiri historian of 12th century.

2. Who wrote Kitab-al-Hind?
(a) Al-Idrisi
(b) Ghiyasuddin Balban
(c) Al-Biruni
(d) Kalhana.
Answer:
(c) Al-Biruni.

3. Who is the best known Chahamana ruler?
(a) Prithviraja-III
(b) Sultan Muhammad Ghori
(c) Harshavardhana
(d) Chandragupta-II.
Answer:
(a) Prithviraja-III.

4. Who built the town of Thanjavur?
(a) Harshavardhana
(b) Pulkeshin-II
(c) Vijayalaya
(d) Prithviraja-III.
Answer:
(c) Vijayalaya.

5. Which of the following titles did Chola kings give to rich landowners?
(a) Muvendavelan
(b) Araiyar
(c) Ulema
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

6. Which of the following famous inscriptions gives details of Chola administration?
(a) Ashoka pillar at Sarnath
(b) Ashoka pillar at Allahabad
(c) Uttaramerur in Chingleput district in Tamil Nadu
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(c) Uttaramerur in Chingleput district in Tamil Nadu.

7. What were expected by the kings from their samantas in the seventh century?
(a) Gifts
(b) Be present at their courts
(c) Military support
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

8. The kings in the eighth century shared power with their :
(a) Samanta
(b) peasants
(c) Brahmanas
(d) all of them.
Answer:
(d) all of them.

9. Who, unlike the writers of prashastis, was often critical about rulers and their policies?
(a) Banbhatta
(b) Ravi Kirti
(c) Kalhana
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(c) Kalhana.

10. Which of the following dynasties fought for control over Kanauj?
(a) Guijara-Pratihara
(b) Rashtrakuta
(c) Pala
(d) All of them.
Answer:
(d) All of them.

11. Which foreign invaders in eleventh century raided the sub-continent almost every year?
(a) Sultan Mahmud of Ghazani
(b) Sultan Muhammad Ghori
(c) Babur
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Answer:
(a) Sultan Mahmud of Ghazani,.

12. Who defeated Prithviraj-III in 1192?
(a) Sultan Mahmud
(b) Sultan Muhammad Ghori
(c) Kalhana
(d) Sultan Ghiyasuddin Balban
Answer:
(b) Sultan Muhammad Ghori.

Important Years Or Periods:

Mid-8th century: A Rashtrakuta chief,
Dantidurga overthrew his Chalukya overlord and performed a ritual called Hiranyagarbha (the golden womb).
985 AD : Rajaraja I became Chola king.
1191 AD: Prithviraja III defeated the Afghan ruler named Sultan Muhammad Ghori.
1192 AD: Sultan Muhammad Ghori defeated Prithviraja III.

Important Terms:

→ Sultan: An Arabic term meaning ruler.

→  Samanta: Big landlords or warrior chiefs who were subordinates of the king.

→  Nadu: Group of villages in the Chola kingdom was called Nadu.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 7 History Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Tracing Changes Through A Thousand Years was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Tracing Changes Through A Thousand Years Class 7 Extra Questions History Chapter 1

Class 7 History Chapter 1 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
How was paper used?
Answer:
The paper was used to write holy texts, chronicles of rulers, letters and teachings of saints, petitions and judicial records, accounts and taxes.

Class 7 History Chapter 1 Important Questions And Answers Question 2.
Which group of people became important during medieval period?
Answer:
The Rajputs became important during medieval period.

Class 7 History Chapter 1 One Word Questions And Answers Question 3.
What is meant by bhakti?
Answer:
The bhakti means-a love for a personal deity that devotees could reach without the aid of priests or elaborate rituals.

Class 7 History Chapter 1 Short Questions And Answers Question 4.
Who were Ulemas?
Answer:
In Islam, Ulemas were learned theologians and jurists. Their job was to interpret what was written in the Holy Quran.

Class 7 History Chapter 1 Questions And Answers Question 5.
What were the main features of jatis, during medieval period?
Answer:

• During medieval period, people were grouped into jatis, or sub-castes and ranked on the basis of their backgrounds and occupations.
• Ranks were not fixed permanently and varied according to the power, influence and resources controlled by members of jati.
• The status of the same jati could vary from area to area.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 History Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 6.
What were the problems of peasants during medieval period?
Answer:
During the medieval period, peasants had following problems :

• They were influenced by various forces such as – regional markets, chieftains, priests, monasteries and temples.
• They became part of large, complex societies, and were required to pay taxes and offer goods and services to local lords.
• Some peasants possessed more productive land, others also kept cattle while some of them did. artisanal work with agricultural activities during the lean season.

1. Who of the following made a larger map of the world in 1154 CE?
(а) Ghiyasuddin Balban
(b) Shihabuddin Umari
(c) Al-Idrisi
(d) Aryabhatta.
Answer:
(c) Al-Idrisi.

2. Which of the following terms were used for a ‘foreigner’ in the past?
(a) Pardesi
(b) Ajnabi
(c) Cartographer
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

3. Which one of the following groups of people became important during medieval period?
(a) Agricultural labourers
(b) The Rajputs
(c) The Brahmins
(d) The Traders.
Answer:
(b) The Rajputs.

4. Why did forest dwellers migrate during the medieval period?
(а) Extension of agriculture
(b) Increase in the number of dangerous animals
(c) Law against forest dwellers
(d) Urbanisation.
Answer:
(а) Extension of agriculture.

5. Which one of the following refers to bhakti?
(a) A love for husband or wife
(b) A love for a personal deity
(c) A love for the king
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(b) A love for a personal deity.

6. Who of the following refers to Ulemas?
(a) Learned Islamic theologians and jurists
(b) Arab geographers
(c) French cartographers
(d) Parsi religious leaders.
Answer:
(a) Learned Islamic theologians and jurists.

7. Who of the following divided Indian history in the past on the basis of religion?
(a) Arab historians
(b) French geographers
(c) British historians
(d) Gupta rulers.
Answer:
(c) British historians.

8. Minhaj-i-Siraj was a
(a) twelfth-century Arab geographer
(b) thirteenth-century chronicler
(c) eighteenth-century French cartographer
(d) eleventh-century Indian astronomer.
Answer:
(b) thirteenth-century chronicler.

9. Which one of the following reasons led to the re-emergence of regional states in the eighteenth century?
(a) Declinement of Mughal empire
(b) People struggles
(c) Efficient regional rulers
(d) Both (b) and (c).
Answer:
(a) Declinement of Mughal empire.

10. Where did Delhi Sultan Ghiyasuddin. Balban stretch in the east and west?
(a) Bihar in the east and Punjab in the west
(b) Bengal in the east and Ghazani in Afghanistan in the west
(c) Uttar Pradesh in the east and Peshawar in the west
(d) Bengal in the east and Peshawar in the west
Answer:
(b) Bengal in the east and Ghazani in Afghanistan in the west

Important Years Or Periods:

1154 CE: Arab Geographer al-Idrisi made a world map.
1720s: French cartographers made a larger world map.

Important Terms:

→ Cartographer: A person who makes maps.

→ Archive: A place where documents and manuscripts are stored. Today, all national and state governments have archives where they keep all their old official records and transcriptions.

→ Habitat: It refers to the environment of a region and the social and economic lifestyle of its residents.

→ Parton: An influential, wealthy individual who supports another person-an artist, a craftsperson, a learned man, or a noble.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Our Changing Earth was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Our Changing Earth Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 3

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What are lithospheric plates?
Answer:
The lithosphere is broken into a number of large and small, rigid and irregularly shaped plates called lithospheric plates.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 2.
Lithospheric plates move a few millimetres each year. Why?
Answer:
The lithospheric plates move because of the movement of molten magma in a circular manner inside the earth.

Our Changing Earth Class 7 Extra Questions Question 3.
Why are changes observed on the surface of the earth?
Answer:
Changes are observed on the earth’s surface due to the movement of lithospheric plates.

Our Changing Earth Class 7 Worksheet With Answers Question 4.
Name the forces which cause earth’s movements.
Answer:
Following are the two forces which cause earth’s movement-

1. Endogenic forces,
2. Exogenic forces.

Our Changing Earth Extra Questions Question 5.
Define endogenic forces.
Answer:
The forces that act below (i.e., in the interior of) the earth’s surface are called endogenic forces.

Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 6.
Define exogenic forces.
Answer:
The forces that work on the surface of the earth are called exogenic forces.

Chapter 3 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 7.
Why are earthquakes and volcanoes caused?
Answer:
Earthquakes and volcanoes are caused when endogenic forces produce sudden movements.

Geography Class 7 Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 8.
What is a volcano?
Answer:
A volcano is a vent (opening) in the earth’s crust through which molten materials erupt suddenly.

Class 7 Geography Ch 3 Extra Questions Question 9.
What are earthquakes?
Answer:
The movement of lithospheric plates causes vibrations in the earth’s surface. These vibrations can travel all round the earth and are called earthquakes.

Our Changing Earth Class 7 Worksheet With Answers Pdf Question 10.
Define the terms ‘focus’ and ‘epicentre’.
Answer:

• The place in the earth’s crust where the movement of an earthquake starts is called the focus.
• The place on the earth’s surface above the focus is called the epicentre.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Question 11.
How and in which direction do the vibrations move during an earthquake?
Answer:
During an earthquake, vibrations move as waves outwards from the epicentre.

Geography Chapter 3 Class 7 Extra Questions Question 12.
Place A is situated 20 km away from the epicentre and Replace B is at a distance of 80 km from the epicentre. Which one will receive more damage and why?
Answer:
Place A will receive more damage because greatest damage is usually closest to the epicentre and the strength of the waves decreases as they travel away from the epicentre.

Our Changing Earth Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 13.
What are the earthquake waves called?
Answer:
Seismic waves.

Our Changing Earth Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 14.
What happens when lithospheric plates move slowly?
Answer:
The slow movement of lithospheric plates causes dislocation on the earth’s crust like faulting and folding.

Class 7 Chapter 3 Geography Extra Question Answer Question 15.
Which type of force is responsible for formation of mountains?
Answer:
Endogenic force.

Question 16.
Which machine is used to measure an earthquake?
Answer:
Seismograph.

Question 17.
Name the instrument used to measure the magnitude of an earthquake?
Answer:
Richter scale.

Question 18.
Which safe spots will you suggest to stay in during an earthquake?
Answer:

• Under a kitchen counter, table or desk.
• Against an inside corner or wall.

Question 19.
Mention some animal behaviour that helps the local people to predict an earthquake.
Answer:
Animals like fish in ponds get agitated or snakes come to the surface before an earthquake reaches the earth’s surface.

Question 20.
Name any three actions of sudden endogenic force.
Answer:

1. It causes earthquakes.
2. It causes eruption of volcano.
3. It causes landslides.

Question 21.
Give three examples of works done by exogenic force.
Answer:

1. It does erosional work.
2. It is responsible for the flow of water in the rivers.
3. It causes winds and sea waves.

Question 22.
What types of wave are formed during an earthquake?
Answer:
Following three types of wave are formed during an earthquake-

1. P waves or longitudinal waves.
2. S waves or transverse waves.
3. L waves or surface waves.

Question 23.
What do you mean by ‘earthquake preparedness?
Answer:
Since it is impossible to predict the time of occurrence of an earthquake, so to minimise its effects, some measures are taken as precautionary measures, e.g., selection of a safe site, awareness among the people, etc. These measures constitute earthquake preparedness.

Question 24.
List some things or place to stay away from during an earthquake.
Answer:

• Fireplace.
• Areas around chimney.
• Buildings and electric poles.
• Windows that shelter, including mirrors and picture frame.

Question 25.
Name the process responsible for the creation of different landforms on the earth’s surface.
Answer:
Weathering and erosion.

Question 26.
Define weathering.
Answer:
The process of breaking up of the rocks on the earth’s surface is called weathering.

Question 27.
Define erosion.
Answer:
The process of wearing away of the landscape by different agents like water, wind and ice is called erosion.

Question 28.
Name any two agents responsible for transport and deposition of eroded materials.
Answer:
Water, ice and wind.

Question 29.
Name the features formed by a river.
Answer:
Following are the features formed by a river :

• Waterfall
• Meanders
• Ox-bow lakes
• Levees
• Floodplains
• Delta

Question 30.
Define the following terms :
(a) Ox-bow lake
(b) Levees
(c) Meanders
Answer:
(a) Ox-bow lake – When a river enters the plain, it forms a large bend which is cut-off from the mainstream in due course of time. The cut-off stream takes the form of a lake called ox-bow lake.

(b) Levees – During flood, a river deposits sediments along its banks. Thus the banks rise. The raised banks are called levees.

(c) Meanders – When a river enters the plain, it twists and turns forming large bends. These bends are called meanders.

Question 31.
When are the following features of river formed?
(a) Waterfall
(b) Floodplains
(c) Delta
Answer:
(a) Waterfall – When the river tumbles at a steep angle over very hard rocks or down a steep valley side, it forms a waterfall.

(b) Floodplains – When a river outflows its banks, it causes floods in the neighbouring areas. The flood water takes away fine soil and other materials and deposits them in layers along the banks. This deposition leads to the formation of a flat fertile land called floodplain.

(c) Delta – When a river reaches the sea, it breaks into many streams and also its speed slows down. These streams are called distributaries having their own mouths. The sediment from all the mouths form a delta.

Question 32.
How are coastal landforms formed?
Answer:
Coastal landforms are formed due to erosional and depositional works of the sea waves.

Question 33.
Name the features made by sea waves.
Answer:
Following are the features made by sea waves :

• Sea caves
• Sea arches
• Sea cliffs
• Stacks
• Sea beaches.

Question 34.
How are sea caves formed?
Answer:
Strong sea waves continuously strike the nearby rocks and cause them to crack. In course of time, these cracks in the rocks widen and become larger giving rise to hollow-like caves. These caves are called sea caves.

Question 35.
When are sea arches formed?
Answer:
When the hollows, i.e., sea caves become bigger and bigger, only their roof remains. These structures are called sea arches.

Question 36.
What do you mean by ‘stacks’?
Answer:
When the roof of a sea cave is eroded by continuous erosion, only walls are left. These wall-like features are called stacks.

Question 37.
Define sea cliff.
Answer:
The steep rocky coast rising almost vertically above seawater is called sea cliff.

Question 38.
When are beaches formed?
Answer:
Beaches are formed when sea waves deposit sediments along the seashores.

Question 39.
What are glaciers? How do they erode the landscape?
Answer:

• Glaciers are the rivers of ice.
• They erode the landscape by bulldozing soil and stones to expose the solid rocks below.

Question 40.
How do glaciers form mountain lakes?
Answer:
Glaciers create deep hollow in the solid rocks. When ice melts, the hollow is filled up with water giving rise to mountain lakes.

Question 41.
How are glacial moraines formed?
Answer:
The glaciers carry materials like big and small rocks, sand and silt and deposit them at a place. These deposits form glacial moraines.

Question 42.
List a few features formed by wind.
Answer:

• It forms mushroom rock.
• It forms loess.
• It forms sand dunes.

Question 43.
Where are mushroom rocks found? How are they formed?
Answer:

• The mushroom-shaped rocks called mushroom rocks are found in deserts.
• When winds erode the lower part of the rock more than the upper part, the rock looks like a mushroom with a narrower base and a wider top. This is called a mushroom rock.

Question 44.
Where do you find sand dunes? How are they formed?
Answer:

• Sand dunes are found in deserts.
• Winds lift and carry sand from one place to another in deserts. When winds stop blowing, sand falls and gets deposited in low hill-like structures called sand dunes.

Question 45.
What are loess? Where are large deposits of loess found?
Answer:

• Light and fine grains of sand can be carried by winds over longer distances. When such sand is deposited in wider areas, they are called loess.
• Large deposits of loess is found in China.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following terms is used for the plates of lithosphere?
(a) Focus
(b) Lithospheric plates
(c) Epicentre
(d) Eurasian plate
Answer:
(b) Lithospheric plates.

2. Which one of the following forces is found in the interior of the earth?
(a) Endogenic force
(b) Exogenic force
(c) Gravitational force
(d) Sudden force.
Answer:
(a) Endogenic force.

3. Which one of the following forces is active on the surface of the earth?
(a) Endogenic force
(b) Diastrophic force
(c) Sudden force
(d) Exogenic force
Answer:
(d) Exogenic force.

4. Which one of the following is a vent in the earth’s crust through which molten material erupts suddenly?
(a) Rocks
(b) Valley
(c) Volcano
(d) Oceans
Answer:
(c) Volcano.

5. Which one of the following is false about the earthquakes?
(а) The molten lava comes out through a vent.
(b) Sudden vibrations of the earth’s surface are called earthquakes.
(c) Focus is the place in the earth’s crust where the movement of earthquake waves start.
(d) Epicentre is the place on the surface above the focus.
Answer:
(а) The molten lava comes out through a vent.

6. Which one of the following places is situated above the focus of the earthquake?
(a) Vent
(b) Epicentre
(c) Crater
(d) Magma chamber
Answer:
(b) Epicentre.

7. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the types of earthquake waves?
(a) Longitudinal (P) waves
(b) Transverse (S) waves’
(c) Surface (L) waves
(d) Sea waves.
Answer:
(d) Sea waves.

8. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the sudden forces?
(a) Earthquakes
(b) Volcano
(c) Building mountains
(d) Landslides.
Answer:
(c) Building mountains.

9. Which one of the following is caused by the exogenic forces?
(a) Erosion and deposition
(b) Earthquakes
(c) Building mountains
(d) Landslides.
Answer:
(a) Erosion and deposition.

10. Which one of the following instruments is used to measure an earthquake?
(a) Barometer
(b) Seismograph
(c) Richter scale
(d) Hygrometer.
Answer:
(b) Seismograph.

11. Which one of the following scales is used to measure the magnitude of the earthquake?
(a) Metre scale
(b) Farhenheit scale
(c) Richter scale
(d) Vernier scale.
Answer:
(c) Richter scale.

12. Which one of the following statements is true about weathering?
(а) Wearing away of the landscapes by different agents.
(b) A sudden vibration in the earth’s crust.
(c) Forces that work beneath the earth surface.
(d) Breaking up of the rocks on the earth’s surface.
Answer:
(d) Breaking up of the rocks on the earth’s surface.

13. Which one of the following processes create different landforms on the earth’s surface?
(a) Volcanoes and landslides
(b) Landslides and earthquakes
(c) Earthquake and soil creeping
(d) Erosion and deposition.
Answer:
(d) Erosion and deposition.

14. Which one of the following is the highest waterfall of the world?
(a) Angel
(b) Jog
(c) Victoria
(d) Niagara.
Answer:
(a) Angel.

15. Which one of the following landscapes is formed by the erosional work of the river?
(a) Flood plains
(b) Ox-bow lake
(c) Waterfall
(d) Delta.
Answer:
(c) Waterfall.

16. Which one of the following is formed by the deposition of sediments carried by rivers?
(a) Coastal plains
(b) Flood plains
(c) Natural levees
(d) Meander.
Answer:
(b) Flood plains.

17. Which one of the following is not associated with the work of sea waves?
(a) Sea orches
(b) Stacks
(c) Seacliff
(d) Sand dunes.
Answer:
(d) Sand dunes.

18. Seacliff is found at which one of the following places?
(a) Sea coast
(b) Flood plains
(c) Deserts
(d) Glaciers
Answer:
(a) Sea coast.

19. Which one of the following is false about the glaciers?
(a) Glaciers are the river of ice.
(b) Glaciers form sea caves.
(c) Glaciers form glacial moraines.
(d) Glaciers carve out deep hollows.
Answer:
(b) Glaciers form sea caves.

20. Which one of the following features is formed due to the depositional work of glaciers?
(a) V-shaped valley
(b) George
(c) Glacial morains
(d) Stacks.
Answer:
(c) Glacial morains.

21. Which one of the following is an active agent of erosion and deposition in the desert areas?
(a) Water
(b) Glaciers
(c) Sea waves
(d) Wind.
Answer:
(d) Wind.

22. Which one of the following rocks is associated with the work of wind in the desert areas?
(a) Mushroom rocks
(b) Sedimentary rocks
(c) Igneous rocks
(d) Metamorphic rocks.
Answer:
(a) Mushroom rocks.

23. Which one of the following terms is used for the hill like structures of deserts?
(a) Loess
(b) Sand dunes
(c) Mushroom rock
(d) Arches.
Answer:
(b) Sand dunes.

24. Sand deposition in large areas of deserts is termed as :
(a) Mushroom rocks
(b) Sand dunes
(c) Loess
(d) Stack.
Answer:
(c) Loess.

25. At which one of the following places the large deposits of loess is found?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Saudi Arab
(d) Iraq
Answer:
(a) China.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Environment was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Environment Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 1

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What is environment?
Answer:
All things (place, people, nature, etc.) that surround us together constitu0te our environment.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 2.
Why is our environment changing?
Answer:
The needs of human beings are changing day by day. To cope with these needs, they bring about changes in their surroundings. These. changes lead to an overall change in the environment.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Questions And Answers Question 3.
What are the two types of environment?
Answer:
The two types of environment are –

1. Natural environment,
2. Human-made environment.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Short Questions And Answers Question 4.
What is meant by natural environment?
Answer:
All those things which are naturally existing around us are together called natural environment.

Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 5.
Which two types of conditions make our natural environment? Give examples.
Answer:
The two types of conditions that constitute our natural environment are :

1. Biotic conditions – All living (plants and animals) forms.
2. Abiotic conditions – All naturally existing non-living things, e.g., water, air soil, mineral, etc.

Chapter 1 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 6.
What do you mean by human environment?
Answer:
Human environment refers to all activities, creations and interactions among human beings.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Worksheet With Answers Question 7.
What are the components of environment?
Answer:
Following are the components of environment :

• Natural Components,
• Human-made components,
• Activities and interactions of humans beings.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Question 8.
Give examples of natural components of environment.
Answer:
Land (lithosphere), air (atmosphere), water (hydrosphere) and living things (biosphere) are examples of the natural components of environment.

Geography Class 7 Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 9.
How is environment important to us? Explain.
Answer:
It is the environment which provides us with basic life support system. It is important to us in many ways –

• It provides the water we drink.
• It provides the air we breathe.
• It provides land for making shelter.
• It provides the food we eat.

Class 7 Geography Ch 1 Extra Questions Question 10.
Give examples of man-made components of environment.
Answer:
Buildings, parks, bridges, roads, industries, monuments, etc. are examples of man-made components of environment.

Geography Chapter 1 Class 7 Extra Questions Question 11.
How are humans and their activities and interactions are the components of environment? Explain.
Answer:
As individuals, humans (as living beings) are a part of the natural components of environment. In addition to it, they interact among themselves in a number of ways. For example, they make family and community like social institutions. Also, they form educational, economic and political situations. All these things surround and affect them. So, it can be said that humans and their activities and interactions are the components of environment.

Extra Questions On Our Environment Class 7 Question 12.
What are the major domains of the environment?
Answer:
Lithosphere, hydrosphere, atmosphere and biosphere are the major domains of the environment.

Environment Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 13.
What is lithosphere?
Answer:
Lithosphere is the hard top layer of the earth.

Class 7 Chapter 1 Geography Extra Questions Question 14.
What constitutes the lithosphere?
Answer:
Minerals, rocks and a thin layer of soil together constitute the lithosphere.

Extra Questions Of Environment Class 7 Question 15.
Name a few major landforms. Where are they found?
Answer:

• Mountains, plateaus, plains, valleys, etc. are a few major landforms.
• These are found over the continents and on the ocean floors.

Question 16.
What is meant by hydrosphere?
Answer:
The various sources of water and water bodies, like rivers, ponds, lakes, seas, oceans, etc., are together referred to as hydrospheres.

Question 17.
What is atmosphere? How is it constituted?
Answer:

• The thin layer of air surrounding the earth is called atmosphere.
• It consists of a number of gases, dust particles and water vapour.

Question 18.
What holds the atmosphere around the earth?
Answer:
The gravitational force of the earth.

Question 19.
How does change in the atmosphere affect us?
Answer:
When changed, it affects us by bringing about unfavourable changes’ in the weather and climatic conditions.

Question 20.
How is atmosphere important to us?
Answer:

• It protects us from the harmful rays and extreme heat of the sun.
• It has oxygen as its constituent that the living beings breathe in.
• It has carbon dioxide which the plants make use of for preparing their food.

Question 21.
How is lithosphere important to us?
Answer:
Lithosphere is important to us in the following ways –
(i) It provides us forests and grasslands for grazing.
(ii) It provides land for agriculture and human settlement.
(iii) It is the source of minerals.
Answer:
(i) The water we use in our home and school comes from the water treatment plants which receive it from rivers for cleaning. Rivers get water from rain.

(ii) Following are the different uses of water in daily life –

• For drinking.
• For washing clothes, utensils, vehicles, etc.
• For bathing and cooking food.
• For watering garden plants and irrigating crops.

Yes. I have seen females at municipality taps collecting water. Very often they fight with each other and the water overflows from the bucket about which they are least bothered. In such cases, the people standing in queue also suffer.

Question 22.
What is biosphere? How is it made up?
Answer:

• A narrow zone on the earth where land, air and water support life by interacting with each other is called biosphere.
• It is made up of all living things, i.e., plants and animals.

Question 23.
What is an ecosystem?
Answer:
The system formed by the interaction between living organisms themselves and between living organisms and their surroundings is called an ecosystem.

Question 24.
In an ecosystem, how are the organisms themselves and their surroundings interlinked?
Answer:
They are interlinked by the transfer of energy and materials.

Question 25.
What do you mean by barter system?
Answer:

• It is a trade by exchange of goods without the use of money.
• This system was an integral part of the life of ancient day people to meet their needs.

Question 26.
Give a few examples of ecosystems.
Answer:
Following are a few examples of ecosystems:

• Rain forest ecosystem
• Grassland desert ecosystem
• Lake ecosystem
• River ecosystem
• Ocean ecosystem
• Pond ecosystem.

Question 27.
Give some ways in which human beings learnt to use and change the environment.
Answer:
Following are some ways in which humans learnt to use and change the environment:

• They learnt to grow crops and domesticate animals.
• They led a settled life.
• They invented wheel.
• They developed trade and commerce and brought about industrial revolution.
• They developed means of transport and communication.

These all could happen by making use of and bringing about changes in the environment.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following statements is true about the environment?
(a) The world of non-living elements i.e. land, etc.
(b) The world of living organìsms i.e. plants, animals, insects, etc.
(c) The place, people, things and nature that surround any living organism
(d) The world of human-made things, like buildings, parks, roads, etc.
Answer:
(c) The place, people, things and nature that surround any living organism.

2. Which one of the following is an example of the biotic resources?
(a) Land
(b) Roads
(c)Plants
(d)Railways
Answer:
(b) Roads.

3. Which one of the following is different from the other three aspects, with reference to the abiotic resources?
(a) Land
(b) Plants
(c) Animals
(d) Insects.
Answer:
(a) Land.

4. Which one of the following terms is used for the solid crust or the hard top layer of the earth?
(a) Core
(b) Mantle
(c) Atmosphere
(d) Lithosphere.
Answer:
(d) Lithosphere.

5. Lithosphere is made up of which one of the following components?
(a) Lakes and rivers
(b) Rocks and minerals
(c) Various gases
(d) Oceans and seas.
Answer:
(b) Rocks and minerals.

6. The Lithosphere is also a source of;
(a) water
(b) gases
(c) minerals
(d) underground water.
Answer:
(c) minerals.

7. Which one of the following statements truly defines the word hydrosphere?
(a) The domain of water
(b) The thin layer of air
(c) Solid crust of the earth
(d) The sphere of non-living elements.
Answer:
(a) The domain of water.

8. Which one of the following terms is used for the thin layer of air that surrounds the earth?
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Hydrosphere
(c) Atmosphere
(d) Biosphere.
Answer:
(c) Atmosphere.

9. Which one of the following holds the atmosphere around the earth?
(a) Gravitational force of the moon.
(b) Gravitational force of the earth.
(c) Gravitational force of the sun.
(d) Gravitational force of the sun, moon and earth.
Answer:
(b) Gravitational force of the earth.

10. The atmosphere of the earth protects us from………………… .
(a) evaporation and condensation
(b) sun rays
(c) precipitation and hails
(d) harmful UV rays and scorching heat.
Answer:
(d) harmful UV rays and scorching heat.

11. The world environment day is celebrated on.
(a) 5 June
(b) 5 July
(c) 5 August
(d) 5 September.
Answer:
(a) 5 June.

12. The weather and climate are changed due to which one of the following reasons?
(a) Change in lithosphere
(b) Change in hydrosphere
(c) Change in atmosphere
(d) Change in biosphere.
Answer:
(c) Change in atmosphere.

13. Which one of the following statements is true about biosphere?
(a) It consists of a number of gases, dust and water vapour.
(b) It consist’-of plant kingdom of the earth.
(c) Large domain of water.
(d) It is a narrow zone of the earth where land, water and air interact with each other.
Answer:
(d) It is a narrow zone of the earth where land, water and air interact with each other.

14. Which one of the following terms is used for the trade-in which goods are exchanged without the use of money?
(a) International trade
(b) Barter system
(c) National trade
(d) Trade of various goods.
Answer:
(b) Barter system.

15. Which one of the following system is formed by the interaction of all living organisms with each other?
(a) Ecosystem
(b) Barter system
(c) Import system
(d) Export system.
Answer:
(a) Ecosystem.

16. Which one of the following can interact with the environment and modify it according to their need?
(a) Animals
(b) Plants
(c) Human beings
(d) Oceans.
Answer:
(c) Human beings.

17. Which one of the following is a major threat to environment?
(a) Increasing animals
(b) Increasing glaciers
(c) Increasing plants
(d) Increasing population.
Answer:
(d) Increasing population.

18. Which one of the following is the human component of environment?
(a) Road
(b) Family
(c) Monuments
(d) Water.
Answer:
(b) Family.

19. Which one of the following is different from the other three with reference to its natural component?
(a) Air
(b) Religion
(c) Community
(d) Bridges.
Answer:
(a) Air.

20. Which one of the following is an example of the human ¡nade component of environment?
(a) Rocks
(b) Buildings
(c) Forests
(d) Living things.
Answer:
(b) Buildings.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Air was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Air Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 4

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What is atmosphere?
Answer:
The huge blanket of air by which our earth is surrounded is called atmosphere.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 2.
Why is atmosphere essential for human beings? Explain.
Answer:

• It provides us the air we breathe.
• It protects as from the harmful rays of the sun.
• It makes the temperature of the earth liveable.

Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 3.
Which two gases are found in the atmosphere in abundance?
Answer:

1. Nitrogen,
2. Oxygen.

Air Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Name the gases which are found in the atmosphere in lesser quantities?
Answer:

• Carbon dioxide,
• Helium,
• Ozone,
• Argon and
• Hydrogen.

Class 7 Geography Air Extra Questions Question 5.
Write the percentages of different gases found in the atmosphere.
Answer:

• Nitrogen – 71%
• Oxygen – 21%
• Carbon dioxide – 0.3%
• Argon – 0.93%
• All others – 0.04%.

Air Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 6.
Which two gases can influence the atmosphere to a large extent?
Answer:

1. Carbon dioxide,
2. Ozone.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Air Question Answer Question 7.
Why is carbon dioxide called a greenhouse gas?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide traps the heat radiated from the earth and creates a greenhouse effect. Therefore, it is called a greenhouse gas.

Class 7 Air Extra Questions Question 8.
What is global warming?
Answer:
The quantity of carbon dioxide increases due to factory smoke or car fumes, and the heat retained increases the temperature of the earth. This is called global warming.

Air Class 7 Worksheet With Answers Question 9.
How is ozone gas important to us?
Answer:
Ozone gas forms a protective layer around the earth. It absorbs the harmful ultraviolet radiations of the sun.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Question 10.
Write the effects of global warming.
Answer:

• It causes the snow in coldest parts of the world to melt.
• Sea level rises, causing submergence of coastal areas.
• Drastic changes in the climate lead to the extinction of some plants and animals in the long run.

Class 7 Geography Ch 4 Extra Questions Question 11.
What are the causes of ozone layer’s depletion? How would it affect the human beings?
Answer:

• Chemicals given out by refrigerators and air conditioners are responsible for the depletion of ozone layer.
• In the absence of ozone layer, the ultraviolet radiations of the sun will reach the earth’s surface and cause serious damage to our skin and eyes.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Questions And Answers Question 12.
Name the five layers of the atmosphere.
Answer:

1. Troposphere,
2. Stratosphere,
3. Mesosphere,
4. Thermosphere and
5. Exosphere.

Air Chapter Class 7 Extra Questions Question 13.
Ionosphere is the part of which layer?
Answer:
Ionosphere is the part of thermosphere.

Chapter 4 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 14.
Why troposphere is the most important layer of the atmosphere?
Answer:

• The air we breathe exists in the troposphere.
• Almost all the weather phenomena, like rainfall, fog and hailstorm, occur in this layer.

Class 7 Geography Chapter Air Extra Questions Question 15.
Why is stratosphere the most ideal for flying aeroplanes?
Answer:
Stratosphere is almost free from clouds and associated weather phenomenon, making conditions most ideal for flying aeroplanes.

Question 16.
Write one important feature of stratosphere and mesosphere each.
Answer:

1. Stratosphere contains a layer of ozone gas, which protects us from the harmful effect of the sun’s rays.
2. Meteorites burn, up in mesosphere on entering from the Space.

Question 17.
Write two main features of thermosphere.
Answer:

1. In thermosphere, temperature rises very rapidly with increasing height.
2. Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by thermosphere.

Question 18.
Which is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere? Name two gases found here.
Answer:
Exosphere is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere. Helium and hydrogen gases are found here.

Question 19.
What is weather?
Answer:
Hour-to-hour, day-to-day condition of the atmosphere is called weather.

Question 20.
What is climate?
Answer:
The average weather condition of a place for a longer period of time represents the climate of that place.

Question 21.
What is temperature? Also, mention its measuring unit.
Answer:
The degree of hotness and coldness of the air is known as temperature. The standard unit of measuring temperature is degrees Celsius.

Question 22.
Write the boiling and freezing points of water on Celsius scale.
Answer:
Freezing point of water on Celsius scale – 0°C
Boiling point of water on Celsius scale – 100°C.

Question 23.
Who invented the following temperature scales.
(i) Celsius,
(ii) Fahrenheit,
(iii) Kelvin,
(iv) Reaumur.
Answer:

Temperature scales	Inventor
1. Celsius	Anders Celsius
2. Fahrenheit	Daniel Gabriel Fahrenheit
3. Kelvin	Lord William Thomson Kelvin
4. Reaumur	Rene Antoine Ferchault de Reaumur

Question 24.
What is insolation?
Answer:
Insolation is the incoming solar energy intercepted by the earth.

Question 25.
Why are the poles covered with snow?
Answer:
The amount of insolation decreases from the equator towards the poles. Therefore, temperature remains low at the poles and they are covered with snow.

Question 26.
Why is the temperature in cities much higher than that of villages? Give two reasons.
Answer:

• The concrete and metals in buildings and the asphalt of roads get heated up during the day. This heat is released during the night.
• The crowded high rise buildings of the cities trap the warm air and thus raise the temperature of the cities.

Question 27.
What is air pressure?
Answer:
Air pressure is the pressure exerted by the weight of air on the earth’s surface.

Question 28.
Write the weather conditions of low pressure and high-pressure areas.
Answer:

• Low pressure is associated with cloudy skies and wet weather.
• High pressure is associated with clear and sunny skies.

Question 29.
Why do astronauts wear special protective space suits?
Answer:
Astronauts wear special protective space suits filled with air because there is no air pressure on the moon. The counter pressure exerted by the body of the astronaut would make the blood vessels burst. They would bleed to death.

Question 30.
Following instruments are used to measure which weather elements —
(i) Barometer,
(ii) Thermometer,
(iii) Wind Vane,
(iv) Rain Gauge.
Answer:
(i) Barometer is used to measure atmospheric pressure.
(ii) Thermometer is used to measure the temperature.
(iii) Wind Vane is used to know the direction of the wind.
(iv) Rain gauge is used.to measure the amount of rainfall.

Question 31.
How are temperature and pressure of an area inversely related to each other? Explain.
Answer:

• (i) The areas where temperature is high the air gets heated and rises. This creates a low-pressure area.
• (ii) The areas where temperature is low, the air is cold. It is therefore heavy. Heavy air sinks and creates a high-pressure area.

Question 32.
What is wind?
Answer:
The movement of air from high-pressure area to low-pressure area is called wind.

Question 33.
Name the three types of winds.
Answer:

1. Permanent winds,
2. Seasonal winds and
3. Local winds.

Question 34.
What are permanent winds? Give examples.
Answer:
Permanent winds blow constantly throughout the year in a particular direction, e.g., trade winds, westerlies and easterlies.

Question 35.
What are seasonal winds?
Answer:
Seasonal winds change their direction in different seasons, e.g., monsoon winds.

Question 36.
What are local winds?
Answer:
Local winds blow only during a particular period of the day or year in a small area, e.g., land and sea breeze.

Question 37.
What is humidity and humid day?
Answer:
Moisture in the air at any time is known as. humidity. When the air is full of water vapour, we call it a humid day.

Question 38.
Write four forms of precipitation.
Answer:

1. Rain,
2. Snow,
3. Sleet and
4. Hail.

Question 39.
Which place in India receives the highest amount of rainfall in the world?
Answer:
Mawsynram in Meghalaya receives the highest amount of rainfall in the world.

Question 40.
What is rain?
Answer:
Precipitation that comes down to the earth in liquid form is called rain.

Question 41.
Name the three types of rainfall.
Answer:

1. Convectional rainfall,
2. Orographic rainfall and
3. Cyclonic rainfall.

Question 42.
How does water vapour precipitate? Explain.
Answer:

• As the air gets warmer, its capacity to hold water vapour increases.
• When water vapour rises, it starts cooling. The water vapour condenses causing formation of droplets of water.
• Masses of such water droplets form clouds.
• When these droplets of water become too heavy to float in air, then they come down a precipitation.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following statements is true about the atmosphere?
(а) Huge domain of water.
(b) Solid crust of the earth.
(c) Huge blanket of air that surrounds our earth.
(d) Flora and fauna of the earth.
Answer:
(c) Huge blanket of air that surrounds our earth.

2. The atmosphere protects us from;
(а) meteors
(b) thunderstorms
(c) heavy rainfall
(d) harmful effects of the sun’s rays.
Answer:
(d) harmful effects of the sun’s rays.

3. Which one of the following gases is found in bulk in the atmosphere?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Helium
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Argon.
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen.

4. What is the percentage of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
(a) 21%
(b) 0.04%
(c) 78%
(d) 0.03%
Answer:
(d) 0.03%.

5. Which one of the following gases is required for the survival of the plants?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Argon
(d) Helium.
Answer:
(b) Nitrogen.

6. Which one of the following is known as a greenhouse gas?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Ozone.
Answer:
(c) Carbon dioxide.

7. Which one of the following statements is false about oxygen?
(a) About 21% of oxygen is present in the atmosphere.
(b) Humans and animals take oxygen from the air to breathe.
(c) Green plants produce oxygen during photosynthesis.
(d) Increasing level of oxygen in the atmosphere can cause global warming.
Answer:
(d) Increasing level of oxygen in the atmosphere can cause global warming.

8. The weather and climate of the earth get affected by;
(a) increasing volume of argon.
(b) increasing volume of Carbon dioxide.
(c) increasing volume of nitrogen.
(d) increasing volume of ozone.
Answer:
(b) increasing volume of Carbon dioxide.

9. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the layers of the atmosphere?
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Troposphere
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Exosphere
Answer:
(a) Lithosphere.

10. In which one of the following layers, almost all the weather phenomena take place?
(a) Mesosphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer:
(c) Troposphere.

11. Ozone gas is found in which one of the following layers?
(а) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Thermosphere
(d) Mesosphere.
Answer:
(b) Stratosphere.

12. Which one of the following statements is false about mesosphere?
(a) It lies above the stratosphere.
(b) It extends up to the height of 80 km.
(c) Meteorites burn up in mesosphere on entering from the space.
(d) It is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere.
Answer:
(d) It is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere.

13. Which one of the following layers is helpful in radio transmission?
(a) Exosphere
(b) Thermosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Troposphere.
Answer:
(b) Thermosphere.

14. Which is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere?
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Exosphere
(d) Troposphere.
Answer:
(c) Exosphere.

15. Which one of the following statements truly defines the word climate?
(a) The average weather condition of a place for a longer period of time.
(b) A hot and humid weather conditions of a place.
(c) It is the day to day condition of the atmosphere.
(d) It can be changed dramatically.
Answer:
(a) The average weather condition of a place for a longer period of time.

16. Which one of the following instruments is used to measure the temperature?
(a) Wind vane
(b) Rain gauge
(c) Thermometer
(d) Barometer.
Answer:
(c) Thermometer.

17. The atmospheric pressure is measured by;
(a) Rain gauge
(b) Barometer
(c) Wind vane
(d) Thermometer.
Answer:
(b) Barometer.

18. Which one of the following terms is used for the incoming solar energy intercepted by the earth?
(a) Reradiation
(b) Condensation
(c) Evaporation
(d) Insolation.
Answer:
(d) Insolation.

19. Which one of the following statements is false about the air pressure?
(a) The air pressure does not exist at every place.
(b) The pressure exerted by the weight of air on the earth’s surface.
(c) The air pressure is highest at sea level and decreases with height.
(d) Low pressure is associated with cloudy skies and wet weather.
Answer:
(a) The air pressure does not exist at every place.

20. Which one of the following terms is used for the movement of air from high-pressure area to low pressure area?
(a) Ocean current
(b) Wind
(c) Sun’s rays
(d) Water vapours.
Answer:
(b) Wind.

21. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the types of winds?
(a) Permanent wind
(b) Seasonal wind
(c) Californian current
(d) Local wind.
Answer:
(c) Californian current.

22. Which one of the following is not associated with the permanent winds?
(a) Trade wind
(b) Loo
(c) Easterlies
(d) Westerlies
Answer:
(b) Loo.

23. Which one of the following winds change their direction in different seasons?
(a) Trade winds
(b) Easterlies
(c) Westerlies
(d) Monsoon winds.
Answer:
(d) Monsoon winds.

24. Which one of the following winds is hot and dry local wind of Northern Plains of India?
(a) Khamsin
(b) Kaal Baisakhi
(c) Loo
(d) Mango shower.
Answer:
(c) Loo.

25. Moisture in the air at any time, is known as;
(a) humidity
(b) evaporation
(c) condensation
(d) radiation.
Answer:
(a) humidity.

26. Which one of the following terms is used for the precipitation comes down on the earth in the liquid form?
(a) Clouds
(b) Hail storm
(c) Sleet
(d) Rain.
Answer:
(d) Rain.

27. On the basis of mechanism, the rainfall can be divided into three types. Which one of the following is different from them?
(а) Snowfall
(b) Orographic rainfall
(c) Cyclonic rainfall
(d) Convectional rainfall
Answer:
(а) Snowfall.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Water was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Water Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 5

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What is water cycle?
Answer:
The process by which water continually changes its form and circulates between oceans, atmosphere and land is known as water cycle.

Class 7 Geography Chapter Water Extra Questions Question 2.
What is terranium?
Answer:
Terrarium is an artificial enclosure for keeping small house plants.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 3.
What is salinity? Also, mention the average salinity of oceans.
Answer:
Salinity is the amount of salt in grams present in 1000 grams of water. The average salinity of the oceans is 35 parts per thousand.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Worksheet Question 4.
Which are the major sources of freshwater?
Answer:

• Rivers,
• Ponds,
• Springs and
• Glaciers.

Class 7 Geography Ch 5 Extra Questions Question 5.
Why is the water of the oceans salty?
Answer:
The water of the oceans is salty because it contains large amounts of dissolved salts.

Class 7 Geography Water Extra Questions Question 6.
Which two main salts does the ocean water consist?
Answer:

1. Sodium chloride and
2. Common table salt, which we eat.

Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 7.
Is all the water on earth available to us?
Answer:
No, all the water on earth is not available to us. Only 2.8 per cent water is fresh, which we can utilize to fulfil our needs. Rest 97.2 per cent water is saline.

Geography Class 7 Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 8.
If there is more water than land on this earth, why do so many countries face water scarcity?
Answer:

• About 97.2 per cent water is saline.
• Only 2.8 per cent water is fresh which can be utilised by the human beings.
• Uneven distribution of water also leads to water scarcity.
• Careless use and wastage of water by human beings is another main cause of water scarcity.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Short Question Answer Question 9.
How can the movements of oceans be broadly categorised?
Answer:

• Waves,
• tides and
• currents.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Question 10.
What are waves?
Answer:
Up and down movements of water seen on the surface of an ocean are called waves.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Water Question Answer Question 11.
What is Tsunami?
Answer:
Tsunami is a Japanese word that means “Harbour Waves” as the harbours get destroyed whenever there is Tsunami.

Ch 5 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 12.
Why Tsunami is formed?
Answer:
Tsunami is formed because of the following factors –

• earthquake,
• volcanic eruption,
• underwater landslides.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Question Answer Question 13.
Which part of India got submerge after Tsunami?
Answer:
The Indira point in Andaman and Nicobar islands got submerged after the Tsunami.

Geography Chapter 5 Class 7 Extra Questions Question 14.
When did Tsunami create havoc on the Indian coast?
Answer:
Tsunami or the harbour waves struck havoc in the Indian Ocean on 26th December 2004.

Chapter 5 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 15.
Which parts of India were badly affected by Tsunami?
Answer:
The coastal areas of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Pondicherry and the Andaman and Nicobar islands were badly affected by the Tsunami.

Question 16.
Why are Tsunamis rare in the Indian Ocean as compared to the Pacific Ocean?
Answer:
Tsunamis are rare in the Indian Ocean as the seismic activity is less here as compared to the Pacific Ocean.

Question 17.
What is tide?
Answer:
The rhythmic rise and fall of the ocean water twice a day is called a tide.

Question 18.
Distinguish between high tide and low tide.
Answer:

High tide	Low tide
When water covers much of the shore by rising to its highest level, it is called high tide.	When water falls to its lowest level and recedes from the shore, it is called low tide.

Question 19.
Why tides are caused?
Answer:
The strong gravitational pull exerted by the sun and the moon on the earth’s surface causes the tides.

Question 20.
Why do high tides occur?
Answer:
The water of the earth closer to the moon gets pulled under the influence of the moon’s gravitational force and causes high tide.

Question 21.
Name two types of ocean currents.
Answer:

1. Warm current and
2. Cold current.

Question 22.
Meeting point of warm and cold current provides the best fishing grounds of the world. Name any two of them.
Answer:

• Seas around Japan and
• Eastern coast of North America.

Question 23.
Give an example of cold and warm current each.
Answer:
Cold current-Labrador ocean current Warm current-Gulf Stream ocean current.

Question 24.
What are spring tides? When do they occur?
Answer:
High magnitude tides are called spring tides. These tides occur on the full moon and new moon nights when the sun, the moon and the earth are in the same line.

Question 25.
What are neap tides? When do they occur?
Answer:
Low magnitude tides are called neap tides. These tides occur when the moon is in its first and last quarter, and the ocean water get drawn in mutually perpendicular directions by the gravitational pull of the sun and the earth resulting in low tides.

Question 26.
Where do the warm and cold ocean currents originate?
Answer:

• The warm ocean currents originate near the equator and move towards the poles.
• The cold currents originate near-polar or higher latitudes and move towards tropical or lower latitudes.

Question 27.
Write the effects of ocean currents.
Answer:

• The ocean current influences the temperature conditions of the area. Warm currents bring about warm temperatures over the land surface.
• The areas where the warm and cold currents meet provide the best fishing grounds of the world.
• The areas where warm and cold currents meet also experience foggy weather making it difficult to navigate.

Question 28.
How are tides helpful to us?
Answer:

• High tides raise the water level at the shores. This helps the ships to arrive at the harbour more easily.
• During high tide, fish come closer to the shore. Thus, it helps in fishing.
• The rise and fall of water due to tides is being used to generate electricity in some places.

Question 29.
Explain the cause of Tsunami which occurred on 26th December 2004.
Answer:

• The Tsunami occurred due to an earthquake on 26th December 2004.
• As the Indian plate went under the Burma plate, there was a sudden movement of the seafloor, causing the earthquake.
• The ocean floor was displaced and tilted in a downward direction.
• A huge mass of ocean water flowed to fill in the gap that was being created by the displacement.
• This marked the withdrawal of the water mass from the coastlines of the landmasses in the south and southeast Asia.
• After thrusting of the Indian plate below the Burma plate, the water mass rushed back towards the coastline. This Tsunami travelled at a speed of about 800 km per hour.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following terms is used for the process by which water continually changes its form and circulates between oceans, atmosphere and land?
(a) Evaporation
(b) Water cycle
(c) Condensation
(d) Precipitation.
Answer:
(b) Water cycle.

2. Which one of the following sources is different from the others with reference to the major sources of freshwater?
(a) Rivers
(b) Oceans
(c) Ponds
(d) Glaciers.
Answer:
(c) Ponds.

3. Which one of the following contains the salty water?
(a) Rivers
(b) Spring
(c) Glacier
(d) Oceans and sea.
Answer:
(d) Oceans and sea.

4. The average salinity of the oceans is;
(a) 35 parts per thousand
(b) 33 parts per thousand
(c) 31 parts per thousand
(d) 39 parts per thousand
Answer:
(a) 35 parts per thousand.

5. How much part of the earth’s surface is covered by water?
(a) One-third
(b) Three-fourth
(c) Two-third
(d) One-fifth.
Answer:
(b) Three-fourth.

6. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the movements of the ocean water?
(a) Trade wind
(b) Waves
(c) Tides
(d) Currents.
Answer:
(a) Trade wind.

7. In a wave, the ocean water;
(a) rises and falls alternatively
(b) move horizontally
(c) rapidly rise and fall
(d) stay clam.
Answer:
(a) rises and falls alternatively.

8. Which one of the following is caused due to a volcanic eruption or underwater landsliding?
(a) An earthquake
(b) A volcano
(c) Tsunami
(d) Tides
Answer:
(c) Tsunami.

9. Which one of the following part of India get submerged after the Tsunami?
(a) Port Blair
(b) Palk strait
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Indira Point.
Answer:
(d) Indira Point.

10. How many times the ocean waterfall and rise in a day during a tide?
(a) Twice
(b) Once
(c) Thrice
(d) Four.
Answer:
(a) Twice

11. Why is the tides caused?
(a) Due to gravitational pull of the earth.
(b) Due to gravitational pull exerted by the sun and moon.
(c) Due to gravitational pull of the moon.
(d) Due to continuous movement of ocean water.
Answer:
(b) Due to gravitational pull exerted by the sun and moon.

12. The highest tide is called;
(a) Neap tide
(b) Ocean current
(c) Springtide
(d) Waves.
Answer:
(c) Spring tide.

13. Which one of the following statements is false about the usefulness of tides?
(a) They create water pollution.
(b) They help in navigation.
(c) They help in fishing.
(d) They are used to generate electricity.
Answer:
(a) They create water pollution.

14. Which one of the following terms is used for the streams of water flowing constantly on the ocean floor in a definite path?
(a) Waves
(b) Tides
(c) Current
(d) Tsunami.
Answer:
(c) Current.

15. Which one of the following is a cold current?
(a) Brazilian
(b) Labrador
(c) Gulf stream
(d) Kuroshio
Answer:
(b) Labrador.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Public Facilities was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Public Facilities Class 8 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 9

(1) ……………………… gives shave to the men. (Barber/Cobbler).
Answer:
Barbar

(2) In certain parts of the city ……………………… are not allowed.(hawkers/vendors).
Answer:
hawkers

(3) ……………………… sell things that are often prepared at home. (Hawkers/Vendors)
Answer:
Vendors

(4) The trend in the present day is for ……………………… .(ready-made garments/getting them stitched)
Answer:
ready-made garments

(5) ……………………… and ……………………… are towns near Delhi. (Ludhiana/Tripura/Noida/Gurgaon).
Answer:
Noida, Gurgoan.

Public Facilities Class 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
They say that ‘city never sleeps’. Explain.
Answer:
It means that business is going, on in the city for twenty- four hours and on all the days in a week. Some part of the city is always buzzing with activity.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
When does the work begin in a city?
Answer:
The work begins early in the morning in a big city and continues till late in the night.

Public Facilities Class 8 Extra Questions Question 3.
What does a vegetable vendor sell?
Answer:
The vegetable vendor sells vegetables like tomatoes, cucumbers, potatoes and other vegetables.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions Question 4.
Name different types of things sold by the vendors.
Answer:
Vendors sell things like vegetables, flowers, newspapers, etc.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Question Answer Question 5.
What is a ‘rented room’?
Answer:
It is a room for which payment is made, every month. It is on hire. Many people may share a rented room.

Class 8 Civics Chapter Public Facilities Extra Questions Question 6.
What percentage of people work on the street in the city of Ahmedabad? What work do they do?
Answer:
About 12 per cent of the workers work on the street, in the city of Ahmedabad. They mainly sell things or. repair them or provide a service.

Chapter 9 Civics Class 8 Extra Questions Question 7.
Who are vendors?
Answer:
Vendors sell things that are often prepared at home by their families They purchase, clean sort and make them ready to sell. e.g., those who sell food or snacks on the street prepare most of these at home.

Extra Questions Of Public Facilities Class 8 Question 8.
What is the difference between a hawker and a vendor?
Answer:
Hawker is a person who offers goods for sale in the market, e.g., newspaper hawker. Vendor is a person who sells things that are often prepared at home by their families, who purchase, clean, sort and make them ready to sell, e.g., those who sell food or snacks on the street, prepare most of them at home.

Class 8 Civics Ch 9 Extra Questions Question 9.
Name different categories of people who do work on daily wages.
Answer:
The people who work on daily wages are –

• People in the labour chowk are daily wage earners who wait with their tools for people to come and take them to work.
• People who work in factories and small workshops are daily wage earners. They are employed on casual basis, i.e., they are required to come when there they are needed.

Public Facilities Extra Questions Question 10.
What is a Call Centre? Write about the work done in the Call Centre. Why are they set up in India?
Answer:
A Call Centre is a centralised office that deals with problems and. questions that consumers/customers have regarding goods purchased and services like banking, ticket booking etc. It is a new form of employment in big cities. Call centres are generally set up as large rooms with workstations that include a computer, a telephone set, and supervisors stations.

India has become a major centre not only for Indian companies but also for foreign companies. Call Centres are set up in India because they can get people who can speak English and will work for lower wages.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Why was the vegetable vendor busy in arranging vegetables in baskets at his/her stall?
(а) So that it looked beautiful
(b) So that people could see what he/she had to sell
(c) So that more and more vegetables can be put
(d) So that he/she could carry it for a long way.
Answer:
(b) So that people could see what he/she had to sell.

2. Why is it said that “city never sleeps”?
(а) Business goes on in the city at night
(b) Business in the city goes on during the day
(c) Business goes on for twenty-four hours in the city
(d) People in the city suffers from sleeplessness.
Answer:
(c) Business goes on for twenty-four hours in the city.

3. What percentage of people work on the street in the city of Ahmedabad?
(a) 6%
(b) 12%
(c) 25%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(b) 12%.

4. Which one of the following refers to “the right of people to earn their livelihood”?
(а) According to the Constitution of India, people have the freedom to expression
(b) According to the Constitution of India, people have the freedom to follow any profession and earn their living
(c) People have the right to earn high income
(d) People have the right to live.
Answer:
(b) According to the Constitution of India, people have the freedom to follow any profession and earn their living.

5. Which one of the following refers to hawking zones?
(а) The areas in the city where hawkers are not allowed to sell their wares
(b) The areas in the city where hawkers are allowed to sell then-wares
(c) The areas of heavy traffic
(d) The eneas of less traiffic.
Answer:
(b) The areas in the city where hawkers are allowed to sell then- wares.

6. Which one of the following refers to casual workers?
(а) They are required to come as and when the employer needs them
(b) Those who works in the organised sector
(c) Those who works in the coal mines
(d) Those who works in the public sector
Answer:
(а) They are required to come as and when the employer needs them

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science