NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.2

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.2 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.2.

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 10
Subject Maths
Chapter Chapter 15
Chapter Name Probability
Exercise Ex 15.2
Number of Questions Solved 5
Category NCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.2

Question 1.
Two customers Shyam and Ekta are visiting a particular shop in the same week (Tuesday to Saturday). Each is equally likely to visit the shop on any day as on another day. What is the probability that both will visit the shop on
(i) the same day?
(ii) consecutive days?
(iii) different days?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.2 1

Question 2.
A die is numbered in such a way that its faces show the number 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 6. It is thrown two times and the total score in two throws is noted. Complete the following table which gives a few values of the total score on the two throws:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.2 2

What is the probability that the total score is at least 6?
(i) even
(ii) 6
(iii) at least 6
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.2 3

Question 3.
A bag contains 5 red balls and some blue balls. If the probability of drawing a blue ball is doubles that of a red ball, determine the number of blue balls in the bag.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.2 4

Question 4.
A box contains 12 balls out of which x are black. If one ball is drawn at random from the box, what is the probability that it will be a black ball? If 6 more black balls are put in the box, the probability of drawing a black ball is now double of what it was before. Find x.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.2 5

Question 5.
A jar contains 24 marbles, some are green and others are blue. If a marble is drawn at random from the jar, the probability that it is green is 2/3. Find the number of blue balls in the jar.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.2 6

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.2, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.2, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 6

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 6 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 6.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 6

BoardCBSE
ClassX
SubjectSocial Science
Sample Paper SetPaper 6
CategoryCBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 10 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 6 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 Social Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

  • The question paper has 27 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
  • Marks are indicated against each question.
  • Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
  • Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
  • Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
  • Question number 26 and 27 are map questions of 2 marks from History and 3 marks from Geography. After completion, attach the maps inside the answer book.

QUESTIONS

Question 1.
In which years Great Depression occurred in the world?
OR
Who improved the steam engine?
OR
Give one feature of the about the Annual London Season?

Question 2.
Who brought the first printing press to India?
OR
Who is the author of the novel ‘Pariksha Guru’?

Question 3.
What was the importance of Peter Norman in the history of Mexico Olympics of 1968 and Civil Rights Movement of USA?

Question 4.
What are tankas?

Question 5.
Give any two examples of Service Sector.

Question 6.
What are Non-renewable resources? Give example.

Question 7.
What is ‘Liberalisation’?

Question 8.
Explain the impact of Great Depression of 1929 on the Indian economy giving three any points.
OR
Explain any three problems faced by the cotton weavers in India during mid 19th century.
OR
Explain any three reasons for the expansion of Bombay’s (Mumbai’s) population in mid 18th century and later in 19th Century.

Question 9.
Explain how Martin Luther spoke in praise of print?
OR
Explain the contribution of Prem Chand in the field of novel writing.

Question 10.
‘Ethnic composition of Belgium is very complex’. Justify. Mention the innovative method adopted by Belgium to overcome these complex issues.

Question 11.
What is meant by crosscutting differences? Give one suitable example.

Question 12.
Explain the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka.

Question 13.
How do regions differ in terms of availability of resources? Give three examples from different states to show this variation.

Question 14.
What is primitive subsistence farming? State three characteristics of this type of farming.

Question 15.
How will you justify that you are an alert consumer while buying a commodity from the market. Give two examples/situations to support you.

Question 16.
Explain the structure of three-tier quasi judicial machinery was set up by the Government of India under COPRA.

Question 17.
Critically evaluate the negative impact of globalization on Indian economy with examples.

Question 18.
Why is it necessary for banks and cooperatives to increase their lending in rural areas? Explain.

Question 19.
“The Plantation workers too had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of swaraj”. Support the statement with arguments.

Question 20.
Who was Johann Gottfried? Explain how Culture played an important role in the making of nation.
OR
“In 1926 a major protest erupted in the Saigon Native Girls School”. Why?

Question 21.
The quality of democracy depends upon the degree of public participation. Suggest any four values essential for a citizen for effective participation.

Question 22.
Describe the main features of the Centre-State relations in the Federation of India.

Question 23.
Explain the formation of minerals in the igneous and metamorphic rocks with suitable examples.

Question 24.
How has NTPC achieved a distinction in preserving the natural environment and natural resources in the country?

Question 25.
How is the concept of Self Help Groups important for poor people? Give your view point.

Question 26.
Two features A and B are marked on the given political outline map of India:
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:
A. The place where ‘no-tax campaign took place
B. The place where the 1929 session of Indian National Congress took place.
OR
Locate and label on the same map given:

  1. The place where Gandhiji called off Non-Cooperation movement in 1922.
  2. place where the 1927 session of Indian National Congress took place.

Question 27.
On the given same political outline map of India locate and label /identify the following with appropriate symbols:

  1. Identify the type of soil in the shaded area.
  2. Largest producer of Sugarcane among states in India.
  3. Sardar Sarovar Dam

ANSWERS

Answer 1.
1929-30
OR
Mathew Boulton
OR
It was meant for wealthy Britishers only.

Answer 2.
Portuguese Missionaries.
OR
Srinivas Das

Answer 3.
The silver medallist, white Australian athlete, Peter Norman, wore a human rights badge on his shirt during the ceremony to show his support to the two Black Americans, who had won the gold and bronze.

Answer 4.
Tankas or tanks are the underground storage for rain water.

Answer 5.
Banking, IT.

Answer 6.
Non-renewable resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use. We have a fixed stock on earth which cannot be replenished. Example: Crude oil.

Answer 7.
Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government in the economy is what is known as liberalisation.

Answer 8.
(i) In the nineteenth century, colonial India had become an exporter of agricultural goods and importer of manufactures. The depression immediately affected Indian trade. India’s exports and imports nearly halved between 1928 and 1934.

(ii) As international prices crashed, prices in India also plunged between 1928 and 1934 Peasants and farmers suffered more than urban dwellers. Though agricultural prices fell sharply, the colonial government refused to reduce revenue demands. Peasants producing for the world market were the worst hit.

(iii) For example, jute producers of Bengal suffered as the raw jute that was processed in factories for export in the form of gunny bags crashed, as gunny exports collapsed, the price of raw jute crashed more than expected.

(iv) Across India, peasants’ indebtedness increased. They used up their savings, mortgaged lands, and sold whatever jewellery and precious metals they had to meet their expenses. In these depression years, India became an exporter of precious metals, notably gold. The famous economist John Maynard Keynes thought that Indian gold exports promoted global economic recovery.

(v) The depression proved less grim for urban India. Because of falling prices, those with fixed incomes, town-dwelling landowners who received rents and middle-class salaried employees, now found themselves better off.

OR

(i) Cotton weavers in India faced two problems at the same time: their export market collapsed and the local market shrank, being glutted with Manchester imports. Produced by machines at lower costs, the imported cotton goods were so cheap that weavers could not easily compete with them.

(ii) By the 1850s, reports from most weaving regions of India narrated stories of decline and desolation. By the 1860s, weavers faced a new problem. They could not get sufficient supply of raw cotton of good quality.

(iii) When the American Civil War broke out and cotton supplies from the US were cut off, Britain turned to India. As raw cotton exports from India increased, the price of raw cotton shot up.

(iv) Weavers in India were starved of supplies and forced to buy raw cotton at exorbitant prices. In this, situation weaving could not pay. Then, by the end of the nineteenth century, weavers and other craftspeople faced yet another problem. Factories in India began production, flooding the market with machine-made goods.

OR

(i) At first, Bombay was the major outlet for cotton textiles from Gujarat.

(ii) Later, in the nineteenth century, the city functioned as a port through which large quantities of raw materials such as cotton and opium would pass.

(iii) Gradually, it also became an important administrative centre in western India, and then, by the end of the nineteenth century, a major industrial centre.

Answer 9.
Deeply grateful to print, Luther said, ‘Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.’ (Compulsory point)

Reasons:
(i) In 1517, the religious reformer Martin Luther wrote Ninety Five Theses criticising many of the practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church. A printed copy of this was posted on a church door in Wittenberg.

(ii) It challenged the Church to debate his ideas. Luther’s writings were immediately reproduced in vast numbers and read widely.

(iii) This lead to a division within the Church and to the beginning of the Protestant Reformation. Luther’s translation of the New Testament sold 5,000 copies within a few weeks and a second edition appeared within three months.

(iv) Several scholars, in fact, think that print brought about a new intellectual atmosphere and helped spread the new ideas that led to the Reformation.

OR

(i) It was with the writing of Premchand that the Hindi novel achieved excellence. He began writing in Urdu and then shifted to Hindi, remaining an immensely influential writer in both languages. He drew on the traditional art of kissa-goi (storytelling).

(ii) Many critics think that his novel Sewasadan (The Abode of Service), published in 1916, lifted the Hindi novel from the realm of fantasy, moralising and simple entertainment to a serious reflection on the lives of ordinary people and social issues.

(iii) Sewasadan deals mainly with the poor condition of women in society. Issues like child marriage and dowry are woven into the story of the novel. It also tells us about the ways in which the Indian upper classes used whatever little opportunities they got from colonial authorities to govern themselves.

Answer 10.
The ethnic composition of this small country is very complex:

  1. Of the country’s total population, 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language. Another 40 per cent people live in the Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining one per cent of the Belgians speak German.
  2. In the capital city Brussels, 80 per cent people speak French while 20 per cent are Dutch speaking.

Innovative Method: Any one of the Accommodation Methods OR simply write Accommodation OR Community Government.

Answer 11.
(i) If social differences cross cut one another, it is difficult to pit one group of people against the other. It means that groups that share a common interest on one issue are likely to be in different sides on a different issue.

(ii) Example: Consider the cases of Northern Ireland and the Netherlands. Both are predominantly Christian but divided between Catholics and Protestants. In Northern Ireland, class and religion overlap with each other. If you are Catholic, you are also more likely to be poor, and you may have suffered a history of discrimination. In the Netherlands, class and religion tend to cut across each other. Catholics and Protestants are about equally likely to be poor or rich.

(iii) The result is that Catholics and Protestants have had conflicts in Northern Ireland, while they do not do so in the Netherlands. Overlapping social differences create possibilities of deep social divisions and tensions. Cross-cutting social differences are easier to accommodate.

Answer 12.
Composition:
(i) Sri Lanka has a diverse population. The major social groups are the Sinhala-speakers (74 per cent) and the Tamil-speakers (18 per cent). Among Tamils there are two subgroups. Tamil natives of the country are called ‘Sri Lankan Tamils’ (13 per cent).

(ii) The rest, whose forefathers came from India as plantation workers during colonial period, are called ‘Indian Tamils’. As you can see from the map, Sri Lankan Tamils are concentrated in the north and east of the country.

(iii) Most of the Sinhala-speaking people are Buddhists, while most of the Tamils are Hindus or Muslims. There are about 7 per cent Christians, who are both Tamil and Sinhala.

Answer 13.

Regions/StatesRich inPoor/Deficient in
Amnachal PradeshAbundance of water resourcesLacks infrastructural development
RajasthanWell endowed with solar and wind energyLacks water resources
Cold desert of LadakhRich cultural heritageDeficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals.

Therefore, there is a need for balanced resource at the national, state, regional and local levels.

Answer 14.
Primitive subsistence farming is practised on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks with family/community labour.

Characteristics :

  1. Farming depends upon monsoon
  2. Natural fertility of soil is used
  3. Slash and bum type of agriculture is followed by clearing a patch of land and after some time switching over to another land.

Answer 15.
It is because consumers have the right to be informed about the particulars of goods and services that they purchase. Consumers can then complain and ask for compensation or replacement if the product proves to be defective in any manner.

For example:

  1. If we buy a product and find it defective well within the expiry period, we can ask for a replacement. If the expiry period was not printed, the manufacturer would blame the shopkeeper and will not accept the responsibility. If people sell medicines that have expired severe action can be taken against them.
  2. Similarly, one can protest and complain if someone sells a good at more than the printed price on the packet. This is indicated by ‘MRP’  maximum retail price. In fact consumers can bargain with the seller to sell at less than the MRP.

Answer 16.

  1. Under COPRA, a three-tier quasijudicial machinery at the district, state and national levels was set up for redressal of consumer disputes.
  2. The district level court deals with the cases involving claims upto ₹ 20 lakhs, the state level courts between ₹ 20 lakhs and ₹ 1 crore and the national level court deals with cases involving claims exceeding ₹ 1 crore.
  3. If a case is dismissed in district level court, the consumer can also appeal in state and then in National level courts.

Thus, the Act has enabled us as consumers to have the right to represent in the consumer courts.

Answer 17.

  1. Rising competition
  2. Uncertain employment
  3. The condition of work and hardships of workers have become common to many industrial and service units in India. Even many organized sector have started to follow unorganized features.
  4. Several small scale industries have shut down due to competition which led to many workers jobless.

Answer 18.
(i) Higher cost of borrowing means a larger part of the earnings of the borrowers is used to repay the loan. Hence, borrowers have less income left for themselves. In certain cases, the high interest rate for borrowing can mean that the amount to be repaid is greater than the income of the borrower. This could lead to increasing debt and debt trap. Also, people who might wish to start an enterprise by borrowing may not do so because of the high cost of borrowing.

(ii) For these reasons, banks and cooperative societies need to lend more. This would lead to higher incomes and many people could then borrow cheaply for a variety of needs. They could grow crops, do business, set up small-scale industries etc. They could set up new industries or trade in goods. So cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s development.

Answer 19.
(i) For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed, and it meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come.

(ii) Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission, and in fact they were rarely given such permission.

(iii) When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the plantations and headed home. They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming and everyone would be given land in their own villages.

(iv) They, however, never reached their destination. Stranded on the way by a railway and steamer strike, they were caught by the police and brutally beaten up.

(v) They interpreted the term swaraj in their own ways, imagining it to be a time when all suffering and all troubles would be over. Yet, when the tribals chanted Gandhiji’s name and raised slogans demanding ‘Swatantra Bharat’, they were also emotionally relating to an all-India agitation.

(vi) When they acted in the name of Mahatma Gandhi, or linked their movement to that of the Congress, they were identifying with a movement which went beyond the limits of their immediate locality.

Answer 20.
German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder (1744-1803) claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people – das volk. He popularized true spirit of nation through folksongs, folk poetry and folk dance.

(i) Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation. Art and poetry, stories and music helped to express and shape nationalist feelings. Emotions, intuition and mystical feelings were not focused. Their effort was to shared collective heritage, a common cultural past, as the basis of a nation. They criticized the glorification of reason and science.

(ii) Examples:

  • German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder
  • Karol Kurpinski

OR
(i) In 1926 a major protest erupted in the Saigon Native Girls School. A Vietnamese girl sitting in one of the front seats was asked to move to the back of the class and allow a local French student to occupy the front bench.

(ii) She refused. The principal, also a colon (French people in the colonies), expelled her. When angry students protested, they too were expelled, leading to a further spread of open protests.

(iii) Seeing the situation getting out of control, the government forced the school to take the students back.

(iv) The principal reluctantly agreed but warned the students, ‘I will crush all Vietnamese under my feet. Ah! You wish my deportation. Know well that I will leave only after I am assured Vietnamese no longer inhabit Cochinchina.’

Answer 21.

  1. Awareness
  2. mobilization for sharing opinions
  3. feeling for nation building
  4. Work for bringing social change
  5. Honesty in all spheres
  6. Accommodation of all differences

Answer 22.
(i) For a long time, the same party ruled both at the Centre and in most of the States. In those days, the Central Government would often misuse the Constitution to dismiss the State governments that were controlled by rival parties. This undermined the spirit of federalism.

(ii) All this changed significantly after 1990. This period saw the rise of regional political parties in many States of the country. This was also the beginning of the era of Coalition Governments at the Centre.

(iii) Since no single party got a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, the major national parties had to enter into an alliance with many parties including several regional parties to form a government at the Centre.

(iv) It led to a new culture of power sharing and respect for the autonomy of State Governments.

(v) This trend was supported by a major judgment of the Supreme Court that made it difficult for the Central Government to dismiss state governments in an arbitrary manner.

Answer 23.

Igneous and metamorphic rocksSedimentary rocks
Occur in cracks, crevices, faults and jointsOccur in beds or layers
Also formed when minerals in liquid/molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface; they cool and solidify as they rise.1. Formed as a result of accumulation and concentration in horizontal strata and great heat and pressure.2.  Formed as result of evaporation in arid regions.
Tin, copper, lead and zinc1. E.g. Coal, some forms of iron ore2.  E.g. Gypsum, potash and sodium salt

Answer 24.
This has been done by NTPC through the following:

  1. Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment.
  2. Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilization.
  3. Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose vehicle for afforestation.
  4. Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management.
  5. Ecological monitoring reviews and online database management for all its power stations.

Answer 25.
(i) SHG’s are a new source of providing loans to the rural poor particularly women. It may consist of 15-20 members belonging to a neighborhood who meet and save regularly. Their savings may vary from Rs 25 to Rs 100 or more depending on the ability to save. They provide loans to its members according to necessity.

(ii) The rate of interest charged by SHG’s is lesser than that charged by money lender. The SHG helps the borrowers overcome the problem of lack of collateral.

(iii) Small loans are provided to members for instance meeting working capital needs such as buying seeds, raw materials, fertilizers or cloth.

(iv) The group decides on the loans to be granted-the purpose, amount, interests to be charged, repayment schedule etc.

(v) The reason why banks are lending to these groups even without collateral is that in any case of non-repayment of loan, the members of the group seriously follow it up. They are the building blocks of organization of the rural poor. They also discuss certain social issues such as health, nutrition and domestic violence.

Answer 26.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 6 1

Answer 27.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 6 2

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 6 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 6, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4.

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 10
Subject Maths
Chapter Chapter 7
Chapter Name Coordinate Geometry
Exercise Ex 7.4
Number of Questions Solved 8
Category NCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4

Question 1.
Determine the ratio, in which the line 2x + y – 4 = 0 divides the line segment joining the points A(2, -2) and B(3, 7).
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 1
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 2

Question 2.
Find a relation between x and y, if the points (x, y), (1, 2) and (7, 0) are collinear.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 3

Question 3.
Find the centre of a circle passing through the points (6, -6), (3, -7) and (3, 3).
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 4
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 5

Question 4.
The two opposite vertices of a square are (-1, 2) and (3, 2). Find the coordinates of the other two vertices.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 6
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 7

Question 5.
The class X students school in krishnagar have been alloted a rectangular plot of land for their gardening activity. Saplings of Gulmohar are planted on the boundary at a distance of 1 m fron eaach other. There is trianguler grassy lawn in the plot as shoen in the figure. The students are to sow seeds of flowering plants on the remaining area of the plot.
(i) Taking A as origin, find the coordinates of the vertices of the triangle.
(ii) What will be the coordinates of the vertices of ∆PQR, if C is the origin?
Also, calculate the areas of the triangles in these cases. What do you observe?
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 8
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 9
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 10

Question 6.
The vertices of a VABC are A(4, 6), B(1, 5) and C(7, 2). A line is drawn to intersect sides AB and AC at D and E respectively. such that \(\frac { AD }{ AB } =\frac { AE }{ AC } =\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \). calculate the area of the ∆ADe and compare it with the area of ∆ABC.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 11
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 12
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 13

Question 7.
Let A(4, 2), B(6,5) and C(1, 4) be the vertices of ∆ABC.
(i) The median from A meters BC at D. Find the coordinates ofthe point D.
(ii) Find the coordinates of the point P on AD, such that AP : PD = 2 : 1.
(iii) Find the coordinates of points Q and R on medians BE and CF respectively, such that BQ : QE = 2 : 1 and CR : RF = 2 : 1.
(iv) What do you observe?
[Note: The points which is common to all the three medians is called centroid and this point divides each median in the ratio 2 : 1]
(v) If A(x1, y1), B(x2, y2) and C(x3, y3) are the vertices of ∆ABC, find the coordinates of the centroid of the triangles.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 14
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 15
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 16
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 17
Question 8.
ABCD is a rectangle formed by the points A(-1, -1), B(-1, 4), C(5, 4) and D(5, -1), P, Q, R and S are the mid-points of Ab, BC, CD and DA respectively. Is the quadrilateral PQRS a square? a rectangle? or a rhombus? Justify your answer.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 18
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 19
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4 20

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.3

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.3 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.3.

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 10
Subject Maths
Chapter Chapter 7
Chapter Name Coordinate Geometry
Exercise Ex 7.3
Number of Questions Solved 5
Category NCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.3

Question 1.
Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are:
(i) (2, 3), (-1, 0), (2, -4)
(ii) (-5, -1), (3, -5), (5, 2)
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.3 1

Question 2.
In each of the following find the value of ‘k’ for which the points are collinear.
(i) (7, -2), (5, 1), (3, k)
(ii) (8, 1), (k, -4), (2, -5)
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.3 2

Question 3.
Find the area of the triangle formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of the triangle whose vertices are (0, -1), (2, 1) and (0, 3). Find the ratio of this area to the area of the given triangle.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.3 3

Question 4.
Find the area of the quadrilateral whose vertices, taken in order, are (-4, -2), (-3, -5), (3, -2) and (2, 3).
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.3 4

Question 5.
You have studied in Class IX, that a median of a triangle divides it into two triangles of equal areas. Verify this result for ∆ABC whose vertices are A (4, -6), B (3, -2) and C (5, 2).
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.3 5
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.3 6

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.3, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.3, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2.

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 10
Subject Maths
Chapter Chapter 7
Chapter Name Coordinate Geometry
Exercise Ex 7.2
Number of Questions Solved 10
Category NCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2

Question 1.
Find the coordinates of the point which divides the join of (-1, 7) and (4, -3) in the ratio 2 : 3.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 1

Question 2.
Find the coordinates of the points of trisection of the line segment joining (4, -1) and (-2, -3).
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 2

Question 3.
To conduct Sports Day activities, in your rectangular shaped school ground ABCD, lines have been drawn with chalk powder at a distance of 1 m each. 100 flower pots have been placed at a distance of 1 m from each other along AD, as shown in given
figure below. Niharika runs \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) th the distance AD on the 2nd line and posts a green flag. Preet runs \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) th distance AD on the eighth line and posts a red flag. What is the distance between both the flags? If Rashmi has to post a blue flag exactly halfway between the line segment joining the two flags, where should she post her flag?
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 3
Solution:
y-coordinate of green flag = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) x 100 m = 25 m
Coordinates of green flag are P (2, 25)
y-coordinate of red flag = \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) x 100 = 20
Coordinates of red flag are Q (8, 20)
The distance between two points is
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 4
The blue flag is in the 5th line, at a distance of 22.5 m.

Question 4.
Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points (-3, 10) and (6, -8) is divided by (-1, 6).
Solution:
Let the required ratio be k : 1
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 5
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 6

Question 5.
Find the ratio in which line segment joining A (1, -5) and B (-4, 5) is divided by the x-axis. Also, find the coordinates of the point of division.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 7

Question 6.
If (1, 2), (4, y), (x, 6) and (3, 5) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order, find x and y.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 8

Question 7.
Find the coordinates of a point A, where AB is the diameter of a circle whose centre is (2, -3) and B is (1, 4).
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 9

Question 8.
If A and B are (-2, -2) and (2, -4), respectively, find the coordinates of P such that AP = \(\frac { 3 }{ 7 }\) AB and P lies on the line segment AB.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 10

Question 9.
Find the coordinates of the points which divide the line segment joining A (-2, 2) and B (2, 8) into four equal parts.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 11

Question 10.
Find the area of a rhombus if its vertices are (3, 0), (4, 5), (-1, 4) and (-2, -1) taken in order.
[Hint: Area of a rhombus = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) (product of its diagonals)]
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.2 12

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6.

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 10
Subject Maths
Chapter Chapter 6
Chapter Name Triangles
Exercise Ex 6.6
Number of Questions Solved 10
Category NCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6

Question 1.
In the given figure, PS is the bisector of ∠QPR of ∆PQR. Prove that \(\frac { QS }{ SR } =\frac { PQ }{ PR } \)
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 1
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 2

Question 2.
In the given figure, D is a point on hypotenuse AC of ∆ABC, DM ⊥ BC and DN ⊥ AB. Prove that:
(i) DM2 = DN X MC
(ii) DN2 = DM X AN
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 3
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 4
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 5
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 6

Question 3.
In the given figure, ABc is triangle in which ∠ABC > 90° and AD ⊥ CB produced. Prove that AC2 = AB2 + BC2  + 2BC X BD
NCERT
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 8

Question 4.
In the given figure, ABC is atriangle in which ∠ABC 90° and AD ⊥ CB. Prove that AC2 = AB2 + BC2 – 2BC X BD
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 9
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 10

Question 5.
In the given figure, Ad is a median of a triangle ABC and AM ⊥ BC. Prove that
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 11
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 12
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 13
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 14

Question 6.
Prove that the sum of the squares of the diagonals of parallelogram is equal to the sum of the squares of its sides.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 15

Question 7.
In the given figure, two chords AB and CD intersect each other at the point P. Prove that:
(i) ∆APC ~∆DPB
(ii)
AP X PB = CP X DP
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 16
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 17

Question 8.
In the given figure, two chords Ab and CD of a circle intersect each other at the point P (when produced) outside the circle. Prove that:
(i) ∆PAC ~ ∆PDB
(ii)
PA X PB = PC X PD
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 18
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 19


Question 9.
In the given figure, D is a point on side BC of ∆ABC, such that \(\frac { BD }{ CD } =\frac { AB }{ A{ C }^{ \bullet } } \) Prove that AD is the bisector of ∆BAC.
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 20
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 21

Question 10.
Nazima is fly fishing in a stream. The trip of her fishing rod is 1.8m above the surface of the water and the fly at the end of the string rests on the water 3.6m away and 2.4 m from a point directly under the trip of the rod. Assuming that her string (from the trip of the rod to the fly) is that, how much string does she have out (see the figure)? If she pills in the string at the rate of 5 cm per second, what will be the  horizontal distance of the fly from her after 12 seconds?
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 22
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.6 23

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5.

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 10
Subject Maths
Chapter Chapter 6
Chapter Name Triangles
Exercise Ex 6.5
Number of Questions Solved 17
Category NCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5

Question 1.
Sides of triangles are given below. Determine which of them are right triangles. In case of a right triangle, write the length of its hypotenuse.
(i) 7 cm, 24 cm, 25 cm (ii) 3 cm, 8 cm, 6 cm
(iii) 50 cm, 80 cm, 100 cm (iv) 13 cm, 12 cm, 5 cm
Solution:
(i) 7 cm, 24 cm,-25 cm
(7)2 + (24)2 = 49 + 576 = 625 = (25)2 = 25
∴ The given sides make a right angled triangle with hypotenuse 25 cm

(ii) 3 cm, 8 cm, 6 cm

(8)2 = 64
(3)2 + (6)2 = 9 + 36 = 45
64 ≠ 45
The square of larger side is not equal to the sum of squares of other two sides.
∴ The given triangle is not a right angled.

(iii)
50 cm, 80 cm, 100 cm
(100)2= 10000
(80)2 + (50)2 = 6400 + 2500
= 8900
The square of larger side is not equal to the sum of squares of other two sides.
∴The given triangle is not a right angled.

(iv)
13 cm, 12 cm, 5 cm
(13)2 = 169
(12)2 + (5)2= 144 + 25 = 169
= (13)2 = 13
Sides make a right angled triangle with hypotenuse 13 cm.

Question 2.
PQR is a triangle right angled at P and M is a point on QR such that PM ⊥ QR. Show that PM2 = QM • MR.
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 1
Solution:
In right angled ∆QPR,
∠P = 90°, PM ⊥ QR
∴ ∆PMQ ~ ∆RMP
[If ⊥ is drawn from the vertex of right angle to the hypotenuse then triangles on both sides of perpendicular are similar to each other, and to whole triangle]

⇒ [Corresponding sides of similar
⇒ PM x MP = RM x MQ ⇒ PM2 = QM.MR

Question 3.
In the given figure, ABD is a triangle right angled at A and AC i. BD. Show that
(i) AB2 = BC.BD
(ii) AC2 = BC.DC
(iii) AD2 = BD.CD

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 2
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 3
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 4

Question 4.
ABC is an isosceles triangle right angled at C. Prove that AB2 = 2AC2.
Solution:
Given: In ∆ABC, ∠C = 90° and AC = BC
To Prove: AB2 = 2AC2
Proof: In ∆ABC,
AB2= BC2 + AC2
AB2 = AC2 + AC2 [Pythagoras theorem]
= 2AC2

Question 5.
ABC is an isosceles triangle with AC = BC. If AB2 = 2AC2 , Prove that ABC is a right triangle.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 5

Question 6.
ABC is an equilateral triangle of side la. Find each of its altitudes.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 6
Given: In ∆ABC, AB = BC = AC = 2a
We have to find length of AD
In ∆ABC,
AB = BC = AC = 2a
and AD ⊥ BC
BD = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) x 2 a = a
In right angled triangle ADB,
AD2 + BD2 = AB2
⇒ AD2 = AB2 – BD2= (2a)2 – (a)2 = 4a2– a2= 3a2
AD = √3a

Question 7.
Prove that the sum of the squares of the sides of a rhombus is equal to the sum of the squares of its diagonals.
Solution:
Given: ABCD is a rhombus. Diagonals AC and BD intersect at O.
To Prove: AB2+ BC2+ CD2+ DA2 = AC2+ BD2
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 7

Question 8.
In the given figure, O is a point in the interior of a triangle ABC, OD ⊥ BC, OE ⊥ AC and OF ⊥ AB. Show that
(i) OA2 + OB2 + OC2 – OD2 – OE2 – OF2 = AF2 + BD2 + CE2
(ii) AF2 + BD2 + CE2 = AE2 + CD2 + BF2.
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 8
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 9

Question 9.
A ladder 10 m long reaches a window 8 m above the ground. ind the distance of the foot of the ladder from base of the wall.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 10
Let AC be the ladder of length 10 m and AB = 8 m
In ∆ABC, BC2 + AB2 = AC2
⇒ BC2= AC2 – AB2= (10)2 – (8)2
BC2 = 100-64 – 36 BC = √36 = 6 m
Hence distance of foot of the ladder from base of the wall is 6 m.

Question 10.
A guy wire attached to a vertical pole of height 18 m is 24 m long and has a stake attached to the other end. How far from the base of the pole should the stake be driven so that the wire will be taut?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 11

Question 11.
An aeroplane leaves an airport and flies due north at a speed of 1000 km per hour. At the same time, another aeroplane leaves the same airport and flies due west at a speed of 1200 km per hour. How far apart will be the two planes after 1\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours?
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 12

Question 12.
Two poles of heights 6 m and 11m stand on a plane ground. If the distance between the feet of the poles is 12 m, find the distance between their tops.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 13
Length of poles is 6 m and 11m.
DE = DC – EC = 11m-6m = 5m
In ∆DAE,
AD2 = AE2 + DE2 [ ∵AE = BC]
= (12)2 + (5)2 =144 + 25 = 169
AD = √l69 = 13

Question 13.
D and E are points on the sides CA and CB respectively of a triangle ABC right angled at C. Prove that AE2 + BD2 = AB2 + DE2.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 14

Question 14.
The perpendicular from A on side BC of a ∆ABC intersects BC at D such that DB = 3CD (see the figure). Prove that 2AB2 = 2AC2 + BC2.
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 15
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 16

Question 15.
In an equilateral triangle ABC, D is a point on side BC, such that BD = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)BC. Prove that 9AD2 = 7AB2.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 17

Question 16.
In an equilateral triangle, prove that three times the square of one side is equal to four times the square of one of its altitudes.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 18

Question 17.
Tick the correct answer and justify : In ∆ABC, AB = 6√3 cm, AC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm. The angle B is:
(a) 120°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 45

Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.5 19

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.2 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.2.

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 10
Subject Maths
Chapter Chapter 6
Chapter Name Triangles
Exercise Ex 6.4
Number of Questions Solved 9
Category NCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4

Question 1.
Let ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF and their areas be, respectively, 64 cm2 and 121 cm2. If EF = 15.4 cm, find BC.
Solution:
Since, ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF
The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of the squares of the corresponding sides.
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 1

Question 2.
Diagonals of a trapezium ABCD with AB || DC intersect each other at the point O. If AB = 2 CD, find the ratio of the areas of triangles AOB and COD.
Solution:
ABCD is a trapezium with AB || DC and AB = 2 CD
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 2

Question 3.
In the given figure, ABC and DBC are two triangles on the same base BC. If AD intersects BC at O, show that
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 3
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 4
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 5

Question 4.
If the areas of two similar triangles are equal, prove that they are congruent.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 6
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 7

Question 5.
D, E and F are respectively the mid-points of sides AB, BC and CA of ∆ABC. Find the ratio of the areas of ∆DEF and ∆ABC.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 8

Question 6.
Prove that the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding medians.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 9
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 10

Question 7.
Prove that the area of an equilateral triangle described on one side of a square is equal to half the area of the equilateral triangle described on one of its diagonals.
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 11

Question 8.
ABC and BDE are two equilateral triangles such that D is the mid-point of BC. Ratio of the areas of triangles ABC and BDE is
(a) 2 :1
(b) 1:2
(c) 4 :1
(d) 1:4
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 12

Question 9.
Sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4:9. Areas of these triangles are in the ratio
(a) 2:3
(b) 4:9
(c) 81:16
(d) 16:81
Solution:
Justification: Areas of two similar triangles are in the ratio of the squares of their corresponding sides.
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 13

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4 help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles Ex 6.4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 5

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 5 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 5.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 5

BoardCBSE
ClassX
SubjectSocial Science
Sample Paper SetPaper 5
CategoryCBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 10 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 5 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 Social Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions 

  • The question paper has 27 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
  • Marks are indicated against each question.
  • Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
  • Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
  • Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
  • Question number 26 and 27 are map questions of 2 marks from History and 3 marks from Geography. After completion, attach the maps inside the answer book.

QUESTIONS

Question 1.
State what were ‘The Canal Colonies’?
OR
Who ventured to say that ‘the demand for Indian textiles could never reduce, since no other nation produced goods of the same quality’.
OR
Who developed the idea of Garden City in England?

Question 2.
Edo was the earlier name of which place?
OR
Who was the author of the novel ‘Germinal’? When was it published?

Question 3.
What is the symbol of Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)?:

Question 4.
What is sheet erosion?

Question 5.
Define-Net Attendance Ratio

Question 6.
When did UN adopt UN Guidelines for Consumer Protection?

Question 7.
How does money eliminate the need for double coincidence of wants?

Question 8.
What is meant by Bretton Woods Twins? How can G-77 be seen as a reaction to the activities of Bretton Woods Twins?
OR
What are the peculiarities of the industrial growth of India in the 19th century?
OR
Who wrote Dombey and Son? Examine any two problems faced by the travelers in London Underground Railway.

Question 9.
What led to the print revolution?
OR
‘The early novel contributed to colonialism’. How? Explain with example.

Question 10.
Explain how power is shared horizontally in a government?

Question 11.
Explain with examples how democracy can accommodate diversity.

Question 12.
When does a social difference become a social division? 3

Question 13.
What are the problems faced by farmers having their own wells and tube wells in their farms for irrigation? Also state the problem of water aggravated due to the process of urbanization.

Question 14.
What is India’s rank among the cotton producing countries? State two important conditions for the growth of cotton. Also name the two major cotton producing states in India.

Question 15.
Why primary sector is primary and also called as agriculture and related sector? Give examples.

Question 16.
What are the functions of money?

Question 17.
Why is the tertiary sector becoming so important in India?

Question 18.
‘The effect of Globalisation has not been uniform’. Do you agree? Give reasons to support your answer.

Question 19.
“From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people”. How? Give any four points to support your views?
OR
Critically assess the problems faced French in the Vietnamese education system. Examine the two opinions arose among the French in this regard.

Question 20.
His object, as he declared later, was to ‘produce a moral effect’, to create in the minds of satyagrahis a feeling of terror and awe. Who declared this? What was the incident? Explain.

Question 21.
“Communalism can take various forms in politics” Elucidate.

Question 22.
Give the minimal definition of democracy. Explain any three of its qualifications.

Question 23.
What is international trade? List the commodities that are found in the list of exports and imports of India.

Question 24.
What is air pollution? What are the causes of air pollution? Explain the effects of air pollution.

Question 25.
How the COPRA Act has enabled us as consumers to have the right to represent in the consumer courts?

Question 26.
Two features A and B are marked on the given political outline map of India:

Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in 1929.
B. The place where Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place.

OR
Locate and label on the same map given:

  1. The place where ‘no-tax campaign’ took place
  2. Nagpur-INC Session December 1920.

Question 27.
On the given political outline map of India locate and label/identify the type of soil the following with appropriate symbols:

  1. Identify the type of soil found in the shaded area.
  2. Largest producer of Jute among the Indian states.
  3. Mayurbhanj Iron Ore Mines

ANSWERS

Answer 1.
The areas irrigated by the new canals to cultivate wheat by the British Indian Government were called the ‘Canal Colonies’. These areas were settled by peasants from other parts of Punjab.
OR
In 1772, Henry Patullo, a Company official.
OR
Architect and planner Ebenezer Howard developed the principle of the Garden City.

Answer 2.
Japan
OR
Emile Zola’s Germinal (1885)

Answer 3.
Elephant.

Answer 4.
Water flows as a sheet over large area down a slope. In such cases the top soil is washed away, this is known as sheet erosion..

Answer 5.
Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school as a percentage of total number of children in the same age group.

Answer 6.
In 1985 United Nations adopted the UN Guidelines for Consumer Protection.

Answer 7.
Money acts as an intermediate in the exchange process, it is called a medium of exchange.

Answer 8.
(i) The IMF and the World Bank are referred to as the Bretton Woods institutions or sometimes the Bretton Woods twins. The post-war international economic system is also often described as the Bretton Woods system.

(ii) Most developing countries did not benefit from the fast growth the Western economies experienced in the 1950s and 1960s. Therefore they organised themselves as a group – the Group of 77 (or G-77) – to demand a new international economic order (NIEO).

(iii) By the NIEO they meant a system that would give them real control over their natural resources, more development assistance, fairer prices for raw materials, and better access for their manufactured goods in developed countries’ markets.

OR

(i) When Indian businessmen began setting up industries in the late nineteenth century, they avoided competing with Manchester goods in the Indian market.

(ii) Since yam was not an important part of British imports into India, the early cotton mills in India produced coarse cotton yam (thread) rather than fabric. When yam was imported it was only of the superior variety.

(iii) The yam produced in Indian spinning mills was used by handloom weavers in India or exported to China.

OR

(i) Charles Dickens wrote in Dombey and Son (1848) about the massive destruction in the process of construction.

(ii) Many felt that the ‘iron monsters’ added to the mess and unhealthiness of the city.

(iii) To make approximately two miles of railway, 900 houses had to be destroyed. Thus the London tube railway led to a massive displacement of the London poor, especially between the two World Wars.

Answer 9.
(i) In the hundred years between 1450 and 1550, printing presses were set up in most countries of Europe.

(ii) Printers from Germany travelled to other countries, seeking work and helping start new presses. As the number of printing presses grew, book production boomed.

(iii) The second half of the fifteenth century saw 20 million copies of printed books flooding the markets in Europe. The number went up in the sixteenth century to about 200 million copies. This shift from hand printing to mechanical printing led to the print revolution.

OR
(i) The early novel contributed to colonialism by making the readers feel they were part of a superior community of fellow colonialists.

(ii) The hero of Daniel Defoe’s Robinson Crusoe (1719) is an adventurer and slave trader. Shipwrecked on an island, Crusoe treats coloured people not as human beings equal to him, but as inferior creatures. For most writers of the time saw colonialism as natural.

(iii) Colonised people were seen as primitive and barbaric, less than human; and colonial rule was considered necessary to civilise them, to make them fully human.

Answer 10.
(i) Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. This is called horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.

(ii) Each organ checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions. Last year, we studied that in a democracy, even though ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies.

(iii) Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances.

Answer 11.
(i) Democracy is simply not the rule of the majority. In democracy the majority works with minority and the government represents the general view of citizens.

(ii) Rule by majority does not mean that it should be the rule of the majority community, race or linguistic groups.

(iii) Different persons or groups get to be a majority at some point of time in the decision making process or during elections in a democracy. Example: Sri Lanka.

Answer 12.
(i) Social division takes place when some social difference overlaps with other differences.

(ii) Situations of racial discrimination and economic inequality produce social divisions; at the same time when one kind of social difference becomes more important than the other, people start feeling that they belong to different communities.

(iii) If social differences cross cut one another, it is difficult to pit one group of people against the other. It means that groups that share a common interest on one issue are likely to be in different sides on a different issue.

(iv) Overlapping social differences create possibilities of deep social divisions and tensions. Cross-cutting social differences are easier to accommodate.

(Example: Catholics and Protestant rich and poor of Northern Ireland and Netherlands)

Answer 13.

  1. It may lead to falling ground water levels.
  2. It will adversely affect water availability and food security.
  3. Most of the urban centers have their own ground water pumping devices to meet their water needs.
  4. Fragile water resources are being over-exploited and have caused their depletion in most of these cities .

Answer 14.
India’s rank: Second

Requirements for growth:

  1. Cotton grows well in drier parts of black soil regions
  2. Needs high temperature and light rainfall or irrigation
  3. 210 frost free days and bright sunshine for its growth

Major producers: Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh Andhra Pradesh etc.

Answer 15.

  1. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector. Example: cotton.
  2. It is primary because it forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make.
  3. Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector.

Answer 16.

  1. Money acts as a medium of exchange in goods and services and in payment of debts.
  2. Money is used as a measure of value.
  3. It is a Standard of Demand Payments.
  4. It acts as store of value.

Answer 17.
(i) It provides basic services. Example: Police, banking, transport etc In a developing country the government has to take responsibility for the provision of these services.

(ii) Second, the development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services such as transport, trade, storage and the like, as we have already seen. Greater the development of the primary and secondary sectors more would be the demand for such services.

(iii) Third, as income levels rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more services like eating out, tourism, shopping, private hospitals, private schools, professional training etc. This is seen mostly in cities and towns.

(iv) Fourth, over the past decade or so, certain new services such as those based on information and communication technology have become important and essential. The production of these services has been rising rapidly.

Answer 18.
Globalisation mixed impacts:

Merits:

  1. Advantage to consumers-greater choice.
  2. Employment opportunities
  3. Local companies benefitted
  4. Indian companies have turned into MNCs
  5. Standard of living improved
  6. Quality has risen

Demerits:

  1. Rising competition
  2. Some small producers had to close the industries
  3. Uncertain employment and insecurity among workers
  4. Any other point

Answer 19.
(i) The ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution.

(ii) A new French flag, the tri-colour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard.

(iii) The Estates General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of the nation.

(iv) A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.

(v) Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.

(vi) Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.

OR

The Problems:

(i) The French were faced with yet another problem in the sphere of education: the elites in Vietnam were powerfully influenced by Chinese culture. To consolidate their power, the French had to counter this Chinese influence.

(ii) For this the French systematically dismantled the traditional educational system and established French schools for the Vietnamese. But this was not easy. Chinese, the language used by the elites so far, had to be replaced.

The Opinions:

(i) Some policymakers emphasised the need to use the French language as the medium of instruction. By learning the language, they felt, the Vietnamese would be introduced to the culture and civilisation of France. This would help create an ‘Asiatic France solidly tied to European France’. The educated people in Vietnam would respect French sentiments and ideals, see the superiority of French culture, and work for the French.

(ii) Others were opposed to French being the only medium of instruction. They suggested that Vietnamese be taught in lower classes and French in the higher classes. The few who learnt French and acquired French culture were to be rewarded with French citizenship.

Answer 20.
(i) General Reginald Dyer

(ii) Incident: The infamous Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place.

(iii) On 13 April the infamous Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place. On that day a large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwalla Bagh. Some came to protest against the government’s new repressive measures. Others had come to attend the annual Baisakhi fair. Being from outside the city, many villagers were unaware of the martial law that had been imposed. Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points, and opened fire on the crowd, killing hundreds. His object, as he declared later, was to ‘produce a moral effect’, to create in the minds of satyagrahis a feeling of terror and awe.

Answer 21.
(i) The most common expression of communalism is in everyday beliefs. These routinely involve religious prejudices, stereotypes of religious communities and belief in the superiority of one’s religion over other religions. This is so common that we often fail to notice it, even then we believe in it. .

(ii) A communal mind often leads to a quest for political dominance of one’s own religious community. For those belonging to majority community, this takes the form of majoritarian dominance. For those belonging to the minority community, it can take the form of a desire to form a separate political unit.

(iii) Political mobilisation on religious lines is another frequent form of communalism. This involves the use of sacred symbols, religious leaders, emotional appeal and plain fear in order to bring the followers of one religion together in the political arena. In electoral politics this often involves special appeal to the interests or emotions of voters of one religion in preference to others.

(iv) Sometimes communalism takes its most ugly form of communal violence, riots and massacre. India and Pakistan suffered some of the worst communal riots at the time of the Partition. The post-Independence period has also seen large-scale communal violence.

Answer 22.
Minimal Definition: Democracy is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people.

Some qualifications:

  1. The rulers elected by the people must take all the major decisions;
  2. Elections must offer a choice and fair opportunity to the people to change the current rulers;
  3. This choice and opportunity should be available to all the people on an equal basis; and
  4. The exercise of this choice must lead to a government limited by basic rules of the constitution and citizens’ rights.

Answer 23.

  1. Trade between two countries is called international trade.
  2. Commodities on export list: Agriculture and allied products, ores and minerals, gems and jewellery, petroleum products, IT services etc.
  3. Commodities on import list: Petroleum and petroleum products, pearls and precious stones, chemicals, coal, coke etc.

Answer 24.
Air pollution: Adding or mixing of harmful substances in the air is known as air pollution.

Causes:

  1. Presence of high proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide.
  2. Smoke emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants etc.

Adverse effects : affects human health-problems in breathing, cancer etc., plants-may kill vegetation, buildings-become pale e.g Taj Mahal etc.

Answer 25.
Under COPRA, three-tier quasi judicial machinery at the district, a state and national level was set up for redressal of consumer disputes. The district level court deals with the cases involving claims upto ? 20 lakhs, the state level courts between ₹ 20 lakhs and ₹ 1 crore and the national level court deals with cases involving claims exceeding ₹ 1 crore. If a case is dismissed in district level court, the consumer can also appeal in state and then in National level courts. Thus, the Act has enabled us as consumers to have the right to represent in the consumer courts.

Answer 26.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 5 1
Answer 27.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 5 2

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 5 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 5, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 4

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 4

Board CBSE
Class X
Subject Social Science
Sample Paper Set Paper 4
Category CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 10 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 Social Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

  • The question paper has 27 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
  • Marks are indicated against each question.
  • Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
  • Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
  • Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
  • Question number 26 and 27 are map questions of 2 marks from History and 3 marks from Geography. After completion, attach the maps inside the answer book.

QUESTIONS

Question 1.
In which year did the European powers meet at Berlin to partition Africa among them?
OR
Which of the following was a European managing agency?
OR
Who showed crime was more profitable for a child than labouring in small underpaid factories?

Question 2.
Who wrote ‘Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal’?
OR
Who wrote Jane Eyre?

Question 3.
How many seats are reserved for women in the Lok Sabha?

Question 4.
Name the hydraulic structure built by iltmus in delhi in the 14th century what was the purpose of this hydraulic structure?

Question 5.
What does Life expectancy at birth denote?

Question 6.
In which Sector are most of the people employed in India today?

Question 7.
Define IMR.

Question 8.
How did business classes relate to the Civil Disobedience Movement? Why were they no longer uniformly enthusiastic after the failure of Second Round Table Conference?

Question 9.
“Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the lands as well as ‘ready’ foodstuff in distant parts of the world they travelled and share common origins”. Support your answer with any three suitable examples.
OR
Explain giving four reasons why did the industrialists of Europe preferred hand labour over machines during the 19th century
OR
What do you understand from the writings of Charles Booth about the poor living condition of workers in 19th century London?

Question 10.
What led to the tension between the Dutch-speaking and the french-speaking communities of Belgium during the 1950s and 1960s?

Question 11.
What are the origins of social difference?

Question 12.
Explain three four functions of Political parties.

Question 13.
Explain the major problems caused due to indiscriminate use of resources by human beings.

Question 14.
When were the comprehensive land development programmes launched in India? Explain the provisions of this programme.

Question 15.
Study the data given below in the table and answer the questions that follow :

State Infant Mortality Rate per 1,000 live birth (2012) Literacy Rate % Net Attendance Ratio (per 100 persons) secondary stage (age 14 and IS years) 2009-10
2011
Maharashtra 25 84 64
Kerala 12 92 78
Bihar 43 64 35
  1. Which state has the highest infant mortality rate?
  2. Why has this state the highest infant mortality rate? Give two reasons.

Question 16.
Distinguish between sectors in terms of ownership. Explain with examples.

Question 17.
Suggest the ways in which MNCs control production.

Question 18.
Explain double coincidence of wants with example.

Question 19.
Who brought printing to Europe? What was ‘vellum’? ‘The production of handwritten manuscripts could not satisfy the ever-increasing demand for books’. Why?
OR
Name any two women novelists. ‘Women and world of novel’. Explain with examples.

Question 20.
Analyse the various events that led to the conclusion of Greece as an independent nation in 1832.
OR
Explain four objectives of Vietnamese students who had gone to Japan for higher education during 1907-08.

Question 21.
Any four key features of federalism.

Question 22.
What is majoritarianism? How has it increased the feelings of alienation among Sri Lankan Tamils? Explain with examples.

Question 23.
Explain how tourism plays a significant role in the growth of the economy of our country.

Question 24.
“The textile industry occupies unique position in the Indian economy.” Justify the statement giving examples.

Question 25.
Why is it that rules have been made so that the manufacturer displays this information? Explain with examples.

Question 26.
Two features A and B are marked on the given political outline map of India:
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map :
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in September 1920.
B. The place where Gandhiji started Civil Disobedience Movement.
OR
Locate and label on the same map given :

  1. The place where peasants organized a Satyagraha in 1917
  2. Nagpur-INC Session December 1920.

Question 27.
On the given same political outline map of India locate and label/identify the type of soil the following with appropriate symbols:

  1. Identify the type of soil in the shaded area of the map.
  2. The Indian state which is largest producer of bajra
  3. Ankleshwar oil fields

ANSWERS

Answer 1.
1885
OR
Andrew Yule
OR
Andrew Meams

Answer 2.
Kashibaba
OR
Charlotte Bronte

Answer 3.
No seats.

Answer 4.
Tank in Hauz Khas
Supplying water to Siri Fort Area

Answer 5.
Life Expectancy at birth denotes average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.

Answer 6.
The primary sector.

Answer 7.
Infant Mortality Rate (or IMR) indicates the number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 100 live children bom in that particular year.

Answer 8.
(i) Business classes led by prominent industrialists like Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G.D. Birla, the industrialists attacked colonial control over the Indian economy and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement when it was first launched.

(ii) They gave financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported goods. Most businessmen came to see swaraj as a time when colonial restrictions on business would no longer exist and trade and industry would flourish without constraints.

(iii) After the failure of the Round Table Conference, business groups were no longer uniformly enthusiastic. They were apprehensive of the spread of militant activities, and worried about prolonged disruption of business, as well as of the growing influence of socialism amongst the younger members of the Congress.

Answer 9.

  1. Take spaghetti and noodles. It is believed that noodles travelled west from China to become spaghetti.
  2. Perhaps Arab traders took pasta to fifth-century Sicily, now in Italy.
  3. Many of our common foods such as potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chillies, sweet potatoes, and so on were not known to our ancestors until about five centuries ago.

OR

  1. There was no shortage of labour at that period of time.
  2. Installation of machinery required large capital investment which the industrialists did not want to invest.
  3. In seasonal industries only seasonal labour was required
  4. Intricate designs and different samples required human skills only.
  5. In Victorian age – the aristocrats and other upper class people preferred articles made by hand.

OR

  1. In 1887, Charles Booth, a Liverpool shipowner, conducted the first social survey of low skilled London workers in the East End of London.
  2. He found that as many as 1 million Londoners (about one-fifth of the population of London at the time) were very poor and were expected to live only up to an average age of 29 (compared to the average life expectancy of 55 among the gentry and the middle class). These people were more than likely to die in a ‘workhouse, hospital or lunatic asylum’.
  3. London, he concluded ‘needed the rebuilding of at least 400,000 rooms to house its poorest citizens’.

Answer 10.

  1. The minority French-speaking community was relatively rich and powerful. This was resented by the Dutch-speaking community who got the benefit of economic development and education much later.
  2. This led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities during the 1950s and 1960s.
  3. The tension between the two communities was more acute in Brussels. Brussels presented a special problem: the Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but a minority in the capital.

Answer 11.

  1. The social differences are mostly based on accident of birth. Normally we don’t choose to belong to our community. We belong to it simply because we were bom into it.
  2. We all experience social differences based on accident of birth in our everyday lives. People around us are male or female, they are tall and short, have different kinds of complexions, or have different physical abilities or disabilities.
  3. But all kinds of social differences are not based on accident of birth. Some of the differences are based on our choices. For example, some people are atheists. They don’t believe in God or any religion. Some people choose to follow a religion other than the one in which they were bom.

Answer 12.

  1. Parties contest elections.
  2. Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them.
  3. Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country.
  4. Parties form and run governments.

Answer 13.
Following problems are caused:

  1. Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals.
  2. Accumulation of resources in few hands, which in turn, divided the society into two segments i.e. haves and have-nots or rich and poor.
  3. Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crises such as, global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution and land degradation.

Answer 14.
1980s and 1990s.
Programmes:

  1. Bank facilities : Under this programme many Grameen Banks and cooperative societies were established. They provided loans at lower rates to the farmers.
  2. KCC : Government provided with Kisan Credit Card to the farmers. These cards helped farmers getting financial help from the banks.
  3. PAIS : Government also provided Personal Accident Insurance Schemes for benefiting the farmers. This enabled the farmer’s family to get money due to any accident.
  4. TV/Radio programmes : Government started special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers on radio and television. These programmes enriched farmers regarding crops, bad weather and new developments in agriculture.
  5. MSP : the government announced minimum support price, remunerative and procurement prices for important crops. This step helped check the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen.

Answer 15.

  1. Bihar
  2. Bihar has a highest Infant Mortality Rate because it has no adequate provision for basic health and educational facilities.

Answer 16.
Economic activities into sectors could be on the basis of who owns assets and is responsible for the delivery of services.

In the public sector, the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services. The purpose of the public sector is not just to earn profits. Governments raise money through taxes and other ways to meet expenses on the serv ices rendered by it. (Welfare motive). E.g., Railways. In the private sector, ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hands of private individuals or companies. Railways or post office is an example of the public sector whereas companies like Tata Steel or Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) are privately owned. Activities in the private sector are guided by the motive to earn profits.

Answer 17.
(i) MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies of these countries. The

benefits to the local company of such joint production are:

  • First, MNCs can provide money for additional investments, like buying new machines for faster production.
  • Second, MNCs might bring with them the latest technology for production.

(ii) Large MNCs in developed countries place orders for production with small producers. Examples: Garments, footwear, sports items etc., where production is carried out by a large number of small producers around the world.

(iii) The products are supplied to the MNCs, which then sell these under their own brand names to the customers. These large MNCs have tremendous power to determine price, quality, delivery, and labour conditions for these distant producers.

(iv) The most common route for MNC investment is to buy up local companies and then to expand production. MNCs with huge wealth can quite easily do so.

Answer 18.
What a person desires to sell is exactly what the other wishes to buy. In a barter system where goods are directly exchanged without the use of money, double coincidence of wants is an essential feature.

Example: Take the case of a shoe manufacturer. He wants to sell shoes in the market and buy wheat. Explain the example.

Answer 19.
(i) Marco Polo
(ii) Vellum – A parchment made from the skin of animals.

  • Copying was an expensive, laborious and time-consuming business.
  • Manuscripts were fragile, awkward to handle, and could not be carried around or read easily.
  • Their circulation therefore remained limited.

OR
(i) Jane Austin, Charlotte Bronte or George Eliot

  • The most exciting element of the novel was the involvement of women. The eighteenth century saw the middle classes become more prosperous.
  • Women got more leisure to read as well as write novels. And novels began exploring the world of women – their emotions and identities, their experiences and problems.
  • Many novels were about domestic life. Examples: Jane Austen’s Pride and Prejudice
  • Charlotte Bronte’s Jane-Eyre—young Jane is shown as independent and assertive.

Answer 20.
(i) An event that mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe was the Greek war of independence. Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century. The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the Greeks which began in 1821.

(ii) Nationalists in Greece got support from other Greeks living in exile and also from many West Europeans who had sympathies for ancient Greek culture.

(iii) Poets and artists lauded Greece as the cradle of European civilisation and mobilised public opinion to support its struggle against a Muslim empire. The English poet Lord Byron organised funds and later went to fight in the war, where he died of fever in 1824.

(iv) Finally, the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation.

OR

  1. In 1907-08 some 300 Vietnamese students went to Japan to acquire modem education.
  2. For many of them the primaiy objective was to drive out the French from Vietnam, overthrow the puppet emperor and re-establish the Nguyen dynasty that had been deposed by the French.
  3. These nationalists looked for foreign arms and help. They appealed to the Japanese as fellow Asians.
  4. Japan had modernised itself and had resisted colonisation by the West. Besides, its victory over Russia in 1907 proved its military capabilities. Vietnamese students established a branch of the Restoration Society in Tokyo but after 1908, the Japanese Ministry of Interior clamped down on them. Many, including Phan Boi Chau, were deported and forced to seek exile in China and Thailand.

Answer 21.

  1. There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
  2. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
  3. The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
  4. The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government.

Answer 22.

  1. The democratically elected government adopted a series of majoritarian measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.
  2. In 1956, an Act was passed to recognize Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil.
  3. The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs.
  4. A new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism.All these government measures, coming one after the other, gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders were sensitive to their language and culture.
  5. They felt that the constitution and government policies denied them equal political rights, discriminated against them in getting jobs and other opportunities and ignored their interests.

Answer 23.

  1. Foreign exchange: 5.78 million tourists visited India in 2010- foreign tourist brought ₹ 64,889 crore of foreign exchange.
  2. Employment generation: More than 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry. This enhances the income of the people.
  3. National integration and international understanding: Tourism promotes national integration. People understand the culture and heritage of our country.
  4. Promotes local handicrafts: Tourist show keen interest in buying local made articles of handicrafts. Thus, local handicrafts manufactures get a boost and support from tourism of the country.
  5. Type of tourism: Eco tourism, adventure tourism, medical tourism etc.

Answer 24.

  1. It contributes significantly to industrial production (14%).
  2. Contributes to employment generation (35 million persons- directly- the second largest after agriculture)
  3. Source of foreign exchange earnings. (About 24.6%)
  4. It contributes 4% towards GDP.
  5. It is the only industry in the country, which is self-reliant and complete in the value chain i.e. from raw material to the highest value added products.

Answer 25.

  1. It is because consumers have the right to be informed about the particulars of goods and services that they purchase.
  2. Consumers can then complain and ask for compensation or replacement if the product proves to be defective in any manner.
  3. For example, if we buy a product and find it defective well within the expiry period, we can ask for a replacement. If the expiry period was not printed, the manufacturer would blame the shopkeeper and will not accept the responsibility.
  4. If people sell medicines that have expired, severe action can be taken against them. Similarly, one can protest and complain if someone sells a good at more than the printed price on the packet. This is indicated by ‘MRP’—maximum retail price. In fact consumers can bargain with the seller to sell at less than the MRP.
  5. In recent times, the right to information has been expanded to cover various services provided by the Government. In October 2005, the Government of India enacted a law, popularly known as RTI (Right to Information) Act, which ensures its citizens all the information about the functions of government departments.

Answer 26.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 4 1

Answer 27.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 4 2
We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 1

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 1 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 1.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 1

Board CBSE
Class X
Subject Social Science
Sample Paper Set Paper 1
Category CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 10 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 1 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 Social Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

General Instructions:   

  • The question paper has 27 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
  • Marks are indicated against each question.
  • Questions from serial number 1 to 7 are very short answer questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
  • Questions from serial number 8 to 18 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
  • Questions from serial number 19 to 25 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
  • Question number 26 and 27 are map questions of 2 marks from History and 3 marks from Geography. After completion, attach the maps inside the answer book

Question 1.
Which power dominated the nation-building process in Germany? ?
OR
Which idea, other than economic exploitation, was behind French colonisation of Vietnam?

Question 2.
State an important characteristic of the oldest Japanese book, Diamond Sutra.
OR
State the hotly debated issue around which the novel Indulekha revolved.

Question 3.
Wind energy received in abundance in western Rajasthan and Gujarat has not been so far utilised and developed to the maximum. It falls in which category of resources?

Question 4.
Write any one prudential reason for which power sharing is desirable.

Question 5.
Identify the condition when both the parties in a barter economy have to agree to sell and buy each other’s commodities? What is it called?

Question 6.
A group of companies in India wishes to import high quality ACs from South Korea but have to pay a huge import tax on them which would make the ACs very expensive leading to a decline their sale. Ascertain the role of the import tax in this situation.

Question 7.
Sania buys a packet of biscuits and finds details about ingredients used, price, batch number etc. printed on it except the expiry date. Under which right of the consumers she can claim to know this information from the manufacturer?

Question 8.
Ideas of national unity in early-nineteenth-century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism. What did it mean for the middle class in France? Explain.
OR
The French used school textbooks in Vietnam to justify colonial rule. Explain.
OR
What was the demand of Dr B.R. Ambedkar regarding the Dalits’ participation in the Civil Disobedience Movement? Why did he clash with Gandhiji in the Second Round Table Conference? How was it solved?

Question 9.
What was ‘Com Laws’? Why it was abolished? Mention its impacts on Britain.
OR
Who created the cotton mill? Discuss its effects on eighteenth century industrialization.
OR
‘Nineteenth century London was a city of clerks and shopkeepers, of small masters’. Who commented? Why?

Question 10.
Explain two reasons as to why power sharing is desirable.

Question 11.
Explain with example how social divisions affect politics.

Question 12.
Explain any four forms of Casteism in Indian Politics.

Question 13.
Explain the consequences of growing population on water resources in regions having ample water resources.

Question 14.
What is India’s rank among the world’s natural rubber producers? State the rainfall and temperature requirement of rubber. Also name the two states where rubber is mainly grown.

Question 15.
Explain the following terms:
(1) Infant Mortality Rate
(2) Net Attendance Ratio.

Question 16.
Write short note on W.T.O.

Question 17.
Explain any four problems faced by labourers in the unorganised sectors. Suggest any one
method to be adopted to protect the labourers in this sector.

Question 18.
What are demand deposits? Explain. What is the interesting facility provided by Demand
deposits? Give one example.

Question 19.
Write a short note on hand printing technology developed in Japan.
OR
Analyse the notable events that took place with the publication of Charles Dickens’s Pickwick Papers in 1836.

Question 20.
What is a Nation according to Ernst Renan? Discuss.
OR
“Nationalism in Vietnam emerged through the efforts of different sections of society to fight against the French and all they represented”. Explain how France occupied Vietnam.

Question 21.
Why is there a lack of internal democracy within the political parties in India? Explain with
examples.

Question 22.
“Different countries face different kinds of challenges.” Support the statement with suitable
examples.

Question 23.
State the length of the coastline of India. Name the first port that was build soon after the independence. Why was this port built? State two features of this port.

Question 24.
What are agglomeration economies? Explain the services/facilities offered by the agglomerationeconomies.

Question 25.
Explain any four rights of consumers that protect them from exploitation in the market place.

Question 26.
Two features A and B are marked on the given political outline map of India: 
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.
B. The place where the ‘No Tax Campaign’ was started.
OR
Locate and label on the same map given:
(1) The place where peasants organized a Satyagraha in 1917.
(2) Lahore

Question 27.
On the given same political outline map of India locate and label/identify the type of soil the following with appropriate symbols:
(1) Identity the type of soil in the shaded portion given in the map.
(2) Label and locate the largest producer of Ragi
(3) Label and locate Bhilai Steel Plant

Answers

Answer 1.
Power of the Prussian State.
OR
The idea of a civilising mission.

Answer 2.
Contained six sheets of text with woodcut illustrations
OR
The hotly debated issue was the marriage practices of upper-caste Hindus in Kerala.

Answer 3.
Potential Resources.

Answer 4.
It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Answer 5.
This is known as double coincidence of wants.

Answer 6.
The Import tax is acting as a Trade Barrier.

Answer 7.
Consumers’ right to be informed about the particulars of goods and services that they purchase

Answer 8.
1. Dr B.R. Ambedkar believed that political empowerment would resolve the problems of social disabilities of the Dalits. (Separate Electorate)
2. In 1930, Dr B.R. Ambedkar clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the Second Round Table Conference by demanding separate electorates for dalits.
3. Solved by the introduction of Poona Pact.

Answer 9.
(1) The laws allowing the government to restrict the import of com were commonly known as the ‘Com Laws’.
(2) The industrialists and urban dwellers forced the abolition of the Com Laws because they were unhappy with high food prices.
(3) After the Com Laws were scrapped, food could be imported into Britain more cheaply.
OR
(1) Richard Arkwright created the cotton mill.
(2) The Effects:

  • The costly new machines could be purchased, set up and maintained in the mill. Within the mill all the processes were brought together under one roof and management.
  • This allowed a more careful supervision over the production process, a watch over quality, and the regulation of labour, all of which had been difficult to do when production was in the countryside.

OR
(1) Historian Gareth Stedman Jones commented that ‘Nineteenth century London was a city of clerks and shopkeepers, of small masters’.
(2) Reasons:

  • The city of London was a powerful magnet for migrant populations, even though it did not have large factories.
  • Apart from the London dockyards, five major types of industries employed large numbers: clothing and footwear, wood and furniture, metals and engineering, printing and stationery, and precision products such as surgical instruments, watches, and objects of precious metal.

Answer 10.
Two different sets of reasons can be given in favour of power sharing.

  1. Firstly, power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups. Since social conflict often leads to violence and political instability, power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.
  2. Second, there in a deeper reason why power sharing is good for democracies. Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy. People have a right to be consulted on how they
    are to be governed. A legitimate government is one where citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the system.
  3. First reason is prudential and the second moral. While prudential reasons stress that power sharing will bring out better outcomes, moral reasons emphasise the very act of power sharing as valuable.

Answer 11.
(1) At first sight, it would appear that the combination of politics and social divisions is very
dangerous and explosive.
(2) Democracy involves competition among various political parties. Their competition tends to divide any society.
(3) If they start competing in terms of some existing social divisions, it can make social divisions into political divisions and lead to conflict, violence or even disintegration of a country. This has happened in many countries.
Example: Unionist and Nationalist Parties in Ireland, Yugoslavia was divided into six independent states.

Answer 12.

  1. When parties choose candidates in elections, they keep in mind the caste composition of
    the electorate and nominate candidates from different castes so as to muster necessary support to win elections.
  2. When governments are formed, political parties usually take care that representatives of different castes and tribes find a place in it.
  3. Political parties and candidates in elections make appeals to caste sentiment to muster support. Some political parties are known to favour some castes and are seen as their representatives.
  4. Universal adult franchise and the principle of one-person-one-vote compe’Ud political leaders to gear up to the task of mobilising and securing political support.

Answer 13.
(a) Many of our cities have ample water resources but are still facing water scarcity.
(b) Water scarcity may be an outcome of large and growing population and consequent greater demands for water and unequal access to it.
(c) A large population means more water not only for domestic use but also to produce more food.
(d) Hence, to facilitate higher food grain production, water resources are being over exploited to expand irrigated areas and dry season agriculture.

Answer 14.

  1. India’s rank: 4th
  2. Rainfall: More than 200 cm annually
  3. Temperature: Above 25°C.
  4. States: Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka

Answer 15.
1. Infant Mortality Rate (or IMR) indicates the number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 100 live children bom in that particular year.
2. Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school as a percentage of total number of children in the same age group.

Answer 16.
(1) World Trade Organisation (W.T.O.) is an organisation whose aim is to liberalise
international trade. Started at the initiative of the developed countries, W.T.O. establishes rules regarding international trade, and sees that these rules are obeyed. Nearly 160 countries of the world are currently members of the W.T.O. (as on June 2014).
(2) Though W.T.O. is supposed to allow free trade for all, in practice, it is seen that the developed countries have unfairly retained trade barriers. On the other hand, W.T.O. rules have forced the developing countries to remove trade barriers. An example of this is the current debate on trade in agricultural products.

Answer 17.
(1) The unorganised sector is characterised by small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government.
(2) There are rules and regulations but these are not followed.
(3) Jobs here are low-paid and often not regular. There is no provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays, leave due to sickness etc.
(4) Employment is not secure. People can be asked to leave without any reason.
(5) When there is less work, such as during some seasons, some people may be asked to leave.
(6) A lot also depends on the whims of the employer. This sector includes a large number of people who are employed on their own, doing small jobs such as selling on the street or doing repair work. Similarly, farmers work on their own and hire labourers as and when they need.
One method to be adopted to protect the labourers in this sector:

  1. Rural Areas: farmers need to be supported through adequate facility for timely delivery of seeds, agricultural inputs, credit, storage facilities and marketing outlets.
  2. In the urban areas: Small-scale industry also needs government’s support for procuring raw material and marketing of output. The casual workers in both rural and urban areas need to be protected.

Answer 18.
(1) Working people, who have extra cash, deposit it with the banks by opening a bank account in their name. Banks accept the deposits and also pay an amount as interest on the deposits. In this way people’s money is safe with the banks and it earns an amount as interest. People also have the provision to withdraw the money as and when they require. Since the deposits in the bank accounts can be withdrawn on demand, these deposits are called demand deposits.
(2) The interesting facility provided by Demand deposits is the use of cheque.

Answer 19.
(1) Buddhist missionaries from China introduced hand-printing technology into Japan around AD 768-770.
(2) The oldest Japanese book, printed in AD 868, is the Buddhist Diamond Sutra. Pictures were printed on textiles, playing cards and paper money.
(3) In medieval Japan, poets and prose writers were regularly published, and books were cheap and abundant.
OR
(1) In 1836 a notable event took place when Charles Dickens’s Pickwick Papers was serialised in a magazine.
(2) Magazines were attractive since they were illustrated and cheap.
Serialisation allowed readers to relish the suspense, discuss the characters of a novel and live for weeks with their stories – like viewers of television soaps today.

Answer 20.
(1) In his essay Renan criticises the notion suggested by others that a nation is formed by a common language, race, religion, or territory.
(2) ‘A nation is the culmination of a long past of endeavours, sacrifice and devotion’.
(3) A nation is therefore a large-scale solidarity. Its existence is a daily plebiscite.
(4) A province is its inhabitants; if anyone has the right to be consulted, it is the inhabitant.
OR
(1) The colonisation of Vietnam by the French brought the people of the country into conflict with the colonisers in all areas of life.
(2) The most visible form of French control was military and economic domination but the French also built a system that tried to reshape the culture of the Vietnamese. French troops landed in Vietnam in 1858 and by the mid-1880s they had established a firm grip over the northern region.
(3) After the Franco-Chinese war the French assumed control of Tonkin and Anaam and. in 1887, French Indo-China was formed.
In the following decades the French sought to consolidate their position, and people in Vietnam began reflecting on the nature of the loss that Vietnam was suffering.

Answer 21.
(1) All over the world there is a tendency in political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top.
(2) Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly.
(3) Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party.
(4) Party members show more personal loyalty to the leaders than to the party principles to get favour from leaders who hold absolute power.
Defection: Changing party allegiance from the party on which a person got elected (to a legislative body) to a different party.

Answer 22.
(1) Democracy faces three basic challenges during its different stages of growth, such as foundational challenge, challenge of expansion and challenge of deepening democracy. These challenges take different meanings and paths in different parts of the world.
(2) ‘Foundational Challenge’: The first stage is the transition to democracy from a non-democracy and then instituting democratic government.
Example: Nepal.
(3) Challenge of‘Expansion of Democracy’: This stage involves applying the basic principle of democratic governance across all the regions, different social groups and various institutions. Empowering various social groups, federal structures, women and minorities etc. This also means that less and less decisions should remain outside the democratic control. Most of the democracies like India and USA face this challenge.
(4) Challenge of‘Deepening of Democracy’: This involves strengthening of the institutions and practices of democracy by people’s participation and control. This should happen in such a way that people can realise their expectations of democracy. This requires an attempt to bring down the control and influence of the rich and powerful in making governmental decisions.

Answer 23.
(1) Length of coastline: 7516.6 km.
(2) First port after independence: Kandla, Gujarat
(3) Reason: To ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port, in the wake loss of Karachi port to Pakistan after the partition.
(4) Feature of Kandla sea port:

  • It is a tidal port.
  •  It provide services of export and import to the northern states across Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana etc.

Answer 24.
(1) Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres known as agglomeration economies.
(2) Services/facilities:
(a) Banking:
Numerous banks tend to emerge in and around agglomeration economies. This service facilitates the progress of manufacturing industries.

(b) Transport: Transport is essential for each and every industry. Agglomeration economies offer great source of services by road or rail connecting urban centres and market places.

(c) Labour: Labour is an essential requirement for any industry. As agglomeration economies expand, large number of skilled and unskilled labourers starts offering their services to the industry in the area.

Answer 25.
Rights of consumers:

  1. Right to information
  2. Right to seek redressal
  3. Right to choose
  4. Right to be heard
  5. Right to safety

Answer 26.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 1

Answer 27.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Paper 1.1
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