Category: CBSE Class 10

Online Education for Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Class 9 Extra Questions History Chapter 3

Question 1.
Who were ‘Nazis’?
Answer:
Persons who had no faith in democracy and socialism and believed in dictatorship. They were very brutal.

Question 2.
Who was the leader of ‘Nazis’?
Answer:
Hitler.

Question 3.
Name the party which was founded by Hitler.
Answer:
National Socialist German Worker’s Party (for short, Nazi Party).

Question 4.
When the Nazi Party was founded?
Answer:
In 1921.

Question 5.
In which year Hitler was appointed as the Chancellor of Germany?
Answer:
Hitler was appointed as the Chancellor of Germany by the President of Germany on 30 January 1933.

Question 6.
What is meant by ‘Reichstag’?
Answer:
The German Parliament was known as ‘Reichstag’.

Question 7.
In which year Hitler became the President of Germany?
Answer:
In 1934.

Question 8.
Mention the countries and places Nazi Germany occupied between 1937 and 1939.
Answer:
(i) Rhineland. (March. 1936)
(ii) Austria (March 1938)
(iii) Switzerland (September 1938)
(iv) Czechoslovakia (March, 1939)
(v) Poland (September ,1939).

Question 9.
Name the axis pówers during the World War-II.
Answer:
Germany, Italy and Japan.

Question 10.
Name the Allied Powers of the World War II.
Answer:
France, Great Britain and later joined by the USSR and the USA and other friendly nations.

Question 11.
What is genocidal war?
Answer:
The Wr Germany had waged agaInst the selected groups and the civilians of Europe.

Question 12.
Name the treaty signed after the World War-I between and victorious countries.
Answer:
The Treaty of Versailles.

Question 13.
Why is called the German Republic called as the Weimer Republic?
Answer:
A national assembly had met at a place called Weimer to establish a democratic polity. That is why it is called the Weimer Republic.

Question 14.
Who are called the November Criminals?
Answer:
The supporters of the Weimer Republic were called the November Criminals.

Question 15.
Explain the rise of Nazism in Germany.
Answer:
Germany had imperial ambitions and thus had sought to satisfy her imperial ambitions through war but she had suffered defeat. The outbreak of revolution in Germany towards the end of the First World War led to the collapse of the German monarchy.

However, even though Germany became a republic, the forces behind the monarchy – the industrialists, the big landowners and the officers of the army remained quite powerful.

The government of the German republic was not able to destroy their power. These forces began to turn to the anti-democratic forces represented by Nazism to extend their power and to check the power of the socialist movement. By 1933, Nazis became the ruler of Germany’.

Question 16.
Discuss the reasons that motivated Hitler to conquer Czechoslovakia in violation of the Munich Pact
Answer:
Germany coveted Czechoslovakia because it was very important due to her industries. The area also had strategic importance of the expansion of Germany in the east towards the Soviet Union. Sudetenland, which was, a part of Czechoslovakia, had substantial German population.

This area formed about one-fifth of the area of Czechoslovakia and had one of the largest ammunition factories in the world. As per the Munich Pact, Britain and France had agreed to Hitler’s occupation only of Sudetenland arid not the whole of Czechoslovakia.

Question 17.
Briefly describe the characteristics of the Weiner Constitution.
Answer:

• A German Republic Federation was to be established in the country which was to be called ‘Reich’.
• The Federal government would have the right to look after the safety; education, cinema, transport and some other subjects.
• The fundamental rights Were given to the citizens.
• The men and women of more than twenty years of age were granted the right of voting.
• The real power of the executive was vested in the Council of Ministers which was responsible to the Parliament.
• There were arrangements for referendum, initiative and. recall in this constitution.

Question 18.
Give an account of the genocide committed by the Nazis.
Answer:
The genocide committed by the Nazis had no parallel in the history of the world. During Hitler’s regime, the number of people killed included 6 million Jews, 200,000 Gypsies, 1 million Polish civilians, 70,000 Germans who were considered mentally and physically disabled, besides innumerable political opponents. Putting to death such a large number of people had required the mass-scale gassing of humans in various killing centres like Auschwitz.

Question 19.
Evaluate the Treaty of Versailles of 1919.
Answer:
The Treaty of Versailles also called peace treaty 1919, was signed between Germany on the one hand, and the Allied powers on the other. The peace treaty at Versailles with the Allies was a harsh and humiliating peace. Germany lost its overseas colonies, a tenth of its population, 13 per cent of its territories, 75 per net of its iron and 26 per cent of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.

The Allied Powers demilitarised Germany to weaken its power. The War Guilt Clause held Germany responsible for the war and damages the Allied countries suffered. Germany was forced to pay compensation amounting’ to £ 6 billion. The Allied armies also occupied the resource-rich Rhinelarid for much of the 1920s.

Question 20.
What was the impact of the World War I on Europe, and especially on Germany?
Answer:
The war had a devastating impact on the entire continent both psychologically and financially. From a continent of creditors, Europe turned into one of debtors. Unfortunately, the infant Weimar Republic was being made to pay for the sins of the old. empire. The republic carried the burden of war guilt and national humiliation and was financially crippled by being forced to pay compensation.

Question 21.
State the two major defects of the Weimer constitution and its effects.
Answer:
The Weimer constitution had some inherent defects, which made it unstable and vulnerable to dictatorship. One was proportional representation. This made achieving a majority by any one party a near-impossible task, leading to a rule by coalitions. Another defect was Article 48, which gave the President the powers to’ impose emergency, suspend civil rights and rule by decree.

Question 22.
How did the common people react to Nazism?
Answer:
Many common people saw Nazism through Nazi eyes and spoke their language. They had hatred for the Jews, marking their Jews neighbours as suspicious ones. But every German was not a Nazi. Many organised active resistance to Nazism. The large majority of the Germans were passive onlookers and apathetic witnesses. They were too scared to act, to differ, to protest.

Question 23.
Who was Hitler? How could he rise to power?
Answer:
Born in 1889 in Austria, Hitler, called as Fuhrer; spent his youth in poverty. When the First World War broke out, he enrolled for the army, acted as a messenger in the front, became a corporal, and earned medals for bravery. The German defeat horrified him and the Versailles Treaty made him furious, In 1919, he joined a small group called the German Workers Party.

He subsequently took over the organisation arid renamed it the National Socialist German Workers Party. This party came to be known as the Nazi Party. Hitler was a powerful speaker. His. passion and his words moved people. He promised to build a strong nation, undo the injustice of the Versailles Treaty and restore the dignity of the German people.

Hitler devised a new style of politics. He understood the significance of rituals and spectacles in mobilising people. Nazis held massive rallies and public meetings to demonstrate the support for Hitler and instil a sense of unity among the people.

The Red banners with the Swastika, the Nazi salute, and the ritualized rounds of applause after the speeches were all part of this spectacle of power. Nazi propaganda skillfully projected Hitler as a messiah, a saviour, as someone who had arrived to deliver people from their distress. It is an image that captured the imagination of a people whose sense of dignity and pride had been shattered, and who were living in a time of acute economic and political crises.

Question 24.
Describe briefly the policies and programmes of the Nazi Party.
Answer:
The programme and policies of Nazi Party was:

• To establish a vast German empire.
• To end up the harsh conditions of the Treaty of Versailles.
• To increase the economic and military power of Germany.
• To ban the coming of the foreign influence on Germany.
• To recapture the lost colonies of Germany in the first world war.
• Not to recognise jews as the citizens of Germany and to boycott them and not to give them important posts.
• To put an end to those parties which propagated against nationalism.
• To oppose communism.
• Not to set up parliamentary system of Government that was detrimental to the interest of country.

Question 25.
Give a brief account of Hitler’s foreign policy. How did he launch his offences?
Answer:
In foreign policy, Hitler did acquire a measure of success. He left the League of Nations in 1933; reoccupied the Rhineland in 1936; arid integrated Austria arid Germany in 1938 under the slogan, one people, one empire, one leader. He then went on to wrest German-speaking Sudetenland from Czechoslovakia and gobbled up the entire country.

In all of this he had the unspoken support of England, which had considered the Versailles verdict too harsh. These quick successes at home and abroad seemed to reverse the destiny of the country. Hitler chose war as the way out of approaching economic crisis. Resources were to be accumulated through expansion of territory. In September 1939, Germany invaded Poland. He started a war with France and England.

In September 1940, a Tripartite Pact was signed between Germany, Italy, and japan, strengthening Hitler’s claim to international power. Puppet regimes, supportive of Nazi Germany, were installed in a large part of Europe. By the end of 1940, Hitler was at the pinnacle of his power.

Hitler now moved to achieve his long term aim of conquering Eastern Europe. He wanted to ensure food supplies and living space for Germans. He attacked the Soviet Union in June 1941. In this historic blunder, Hitler exposed the German western front to British aerial bombing and the eastern front to the powerful Soviet armies.

Question 26.
‘With Hitler coming to the power, democracy in Germany was systematically destroyed’. Explain the statement.
Answer:
On 30 January 1933, President Hindenburg offered the chancellorship, the highest position in the cabinet of ministers, to Hitler. Having acquired power, Hitler set out to dismantle the structures of democratic rule. A mysterious fire broke out in the German Parliament building. Hitler held the communists responsible for it, repressing them severely.

On 3 March 1933, the famous Enabling Act was passed This Act established dictatorship in Germany. It gave Hitler all powers to sideline Parliament and rule by decree. All political; parties and trade unions were harmed except for the Nazi Party and its affiliates. The state established complete control over the economy, media, army and judiciary.

Apart from the already existing regular police in green uniform and the SA or. the Storm Troopers, these included the Gestapo (secret state police), the SS (the protection squads), criminal police and the Security Service (SD). It was the extra-constitutional powers of these newly organised forces that gave the Nazi state its reputation as the most dreaded criminal state.

Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the correct (✓) and the wrong (✗) from the following:

Question 1.
Germany fought the World War I as one the central powers.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
The defeated Germany signed the peace treaty at London.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
The Weimer Republic belongs to France.
Answer:
(✗).

Question 4.
Hitler was born in 1889 in Germany.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 5.
The name of the party founded by Hitler was popularly known as the Fascist Party.
Answer:
(✓).

2. Fill in the blanks from the words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
……………………………… was a nation fought as the allied power. (Britain, Germany)
Answer:
Britain

Question 2.
Adolf Hitler wrote the book, called ……………………… . (Doctrine of Fascism, Mein Kampf)
Answer:
Mein Kampf

Question 3.
The Nazi party was opposed to the ……………………… . (Jews, Aryans)
Answer:
Jews

Question 4.
Reichstag was the name of the …………….. parliament (French, German)
Answer:
German

Question 5.
The Treaty of Versailles was signed in …………………….. . (1918,1919)
Answer:
1919.

3. Select the correct answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1.
Sudetenland, a part of the following, was taken away by Germany through the Munich Pact:
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Czechoslovakia
(c) France
(d) Britain.
Answer:
(b) Czechoslovakia

Question 2.
Germany attacked the USSR in the following year:
(a) May 1941
(b) June 1941
(c) July 1941
(d) August 1941.
Answer:
(b) June, 1941

Question 3.
The USA had bombed Hiroshima and Nagasaki which are the two cities of the following:
(a) China
(b) France
(c) Japan
(d) Italy
Answer:
(c) Japan

Question 4.
Hitler was a racist and was influenced by:
(a) Darwin
(b) Marx
(c) Legal
(d) Rousseau
Answer:
(a) Darwin

Question 5.
The war criminals were tried at the following place:
(a) Berlin
(b) Bonn
(c) Nuremberg
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Nuremberg

Question 6.
Hitler became chancellor of Germany in:
(a) 1933
(b) 1934
(c) 1935
(d) 1936.
Answer:
(a) 1933

Question 7.
According to the. Nazi propaganda, one of the dangers was the German capitalism, the following was the other:
(a) Bolshevism
(b) Anarchism
(c) Liberalism
(d) None of the these
Answer:
(a) Bolshevism.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers The Age of Industrialisation Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Online Education for The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions History Chapter 5

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions Question 1.
Give two examples where modern development, as associated with progress, has created problems.
Answer:

1. Modern development, through industrialisation, has led to the destruction of the pre-industrial system. The Indian textiles industry has harmed artisans
2. Industrialisation has created pollution and damaged ecological balance. Environmental problems are around everywhere.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Notes Questions And Answers Question 2.
Who had controlled the pro-industrial system?
Answer:
Merchants used to control the pre-industrial system while the goods were produced by the peasants.

Class 10 History Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Name some of the production process of the 18th century.
Answer:
Carding, twisting, spinning and rolling.

Class 10 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 4.
Who had created the cotton mill?
Answer:
Richard Arkwright.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions Question 5.
Name the first leading sector of the first phase of industrialisation.
Answer:
Cotton was the first leading sector of the first phase of industrialisation.

Age Of Industrialisation Extra Questions Question 6.
Why was in the first phase of industrialisation technological charges were not initially acceptable to the industrialists and the merchant?
Answer:
The new technology was expensive. Hence the merchants and the industrialists were cautious about using it.

Class 10 The Age Of Industrialisation Important Question Answer Pdf Question 7.
Who had produced the steam engine and who had, and with what improved it?
Answer:
Newcomen had produced the steam engine and James Watt improved it by planting the new engine in 1781.

Extra Questions Of The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 8.
Why did the upper-class people in Victorian Britain preferred things produced by hand?
Answer:
Things produced by hand used to symbolize with the upper-class people, refinement, and clasy. Moreover, the handmade products were better finished and carefully designed and individually produced.

Extra Questions And Answer Of Age Of Industrialisation Question 9.
Why did the employment opportunities increase after 1840s?
Answer:
As the building activity intensified in the cities, roads widened, new railway stations came up employment opportunities greatly increased.

Extra Questions Of Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 10.
Explain with an example that there was a decline in textile export in India during the first half of the 19th century.
Answer:
The first half of the 19th century saw the decline of the textile export in India. In 1811-12, piece goods (textile) accounted for 33% of India’s export; by 1850-51, it was no more than 3%.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 11.
What were the two significant problems faced by the cotton weavers in India?
Answer:

1. Weavers export market had collapsed; the British government did not allow foreign sale of cotton in the country.
2. Their local market also shrank, Manchester imports were common.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 12.
Why could not weaving industries survive?
Answer:
By the end of the 19th century, there was a lot of machine-made goods available in India. This led to the destruction of the weaving, industries.

The Age Of Industrialisation Extra Questions Question 13.
From where did the workers come?
Answer:
From Ratnagiri, villages of Kanpur district: United Provinces districts, surrounding areas near Calcutta.

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Important Questions And Answers Question 14.
Why did the Indian industrialists shift from yam to cotton production in the early years of the 20th century?
Answer:
Indian export of yarn to China declined. That is why the Indian industrialists shifted to cotton production.

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 15.
How are consumers created?
Answer:
Consumers are created through numerous means. One such means is advertisements.

Question 16.
As numerous industries worked on seasonal labour, the industrialists preferred hand- labour. Explain.
Answer:
In many industries, the demand for labour was seasonal Gasworks and breweries were especially busy through the cold months. So they needed more workers to meet their peak demand. Bookbinders and printers, catering to Christmas demand, too needed extra hands before December.

At the waterfront, winter was the time that ships were repaired and spruced up. In all such industries where production fluctuated with the season industrialists usually preferred hand labour, employing workers for the season.

Question 17.
How was the lives of the workers with the abundance of labour in the market?
Answer:
The abundance of labour in the market affected the lives of workers. As news of possible jobs travelled to the countryside, hundreds tramped to the cities. The actual possibility of getting a job depended on existing networks of friendship and kin relations. If one had a relative or a friend in a factory, one were more likely to get a job quickly. But not everyone had social connections. Many jobseekers had to wait weeks, spending nights under bridges or in other shelters.

Question 18.
Why Bombay and Calcutta as new ports grew in place of Surat and Hoogly ports?
Answer:
While Sural and Hoogly decayed, Bombay and Calcutta grew. This shift from the old ports to the new ones was an indicator of the growth of colonial power. Trade through the new ports came to be controlled by European companies and was carried in European ships while many of the old trading houses collapsed, those that wanted to survive had to now operate within a network shaped by European trading companies.

Question 19.
Which European agencies controlled the large sector of the Indian industries till the World War I?
Answer:
Till the First World War, European Managing Agencies in fact controlled a large sector of Indian industries. Three of the biggest ones were Bird Heiglers & Co, Andrew Yule, and Jardine Skinner & Co. These Agencies mobilised capital, set up joint-stock companies and managed them. In most instances, Indian financiers provided the capital while the European Agencies made all investments and business decisions.

Question 20.
How do you say that despite the large-scale industries, there was the domination of the small-scale industries in India?
Answer:
While factory industries grew steadily after the war, large industries formed only a small segment of the economy. Most of them about 67 per cent in 1911 were located in Bengal and Bombay. Over the rest of the country, small-scale production continued to predominate Only a small proportion at the total industrial labour force worked in registered factories. 5 per cent in 1911 and 10 per cent in 1931. The rest worked in small workshops and household units, often located in alleys and bylanes, invisible to the passer-by.

Question 21.
Look at Figs. 3, 7 and 11 (Textbook. Page 111) then reread source B. Explain why many workers were opposed to the use of the Spinning Jenny.
Source B: A magistrate reported in 1790 about an incident when he was called in to protect a manufacturer’s property from being attacked by workers. From the depredations of a lawless Banditti of colliers and their wives, for the wives had lost their work to spinning engines they advanced at first with much insolence, avowing their intention of cutting to pieces the machine lately introduced in the woollen manufacture; which they suppose, if generally adopted, will lessen the demand for manual labour.

The women became clamorous. The men were more open to conviction and after some expostulation were induced to desist from their purpose and return peaceably home.
J.L. Hammond and B. Hammond, The Skilled Labourer 1760-1832, quoted in Maxine Berg, The Age of Manufactures.
Answer:

• With the introduction of Spinning Jenny, productivity increased, as many spindles could be yarned at a time from one wheel.
• This led to unemployment for many people. Their income also went down. So they opposed Spinning Jenny.

Question 22.
Explain how rapid was the process of industrialisation? Did industrialisation mean growth of factory industries only? Give reasons.
Answer:
The process of industrialization can be stated as follows :
First; The most dynamic industries in Britain were clearly cotton and metals. Growing at a rapid pace. Cotton was the leading sector in the first phase of industrialisation up to 1840s. After that, the iron and steel industry led the way. With the expansion of railways, in England from the 1840s and in the colonies from the 1860s, the demand for iron and steel increased rapidly. By 1973 Britain was exporting iron and steel worth about £ 77 million, double the value of its cotton expert.

Second: The new industries could not easily displace traditional industries. Even at the end of the nineteenth century, less than 20th percent of the total workforce was employed in technologically advanced industrial sectors. Textiles was a dynamic sector, but a large portion of the output was produced not within factories, but outside, within domestic units.

Third: the pace of change in the traditional industries was not set by steam-powered cotton or metal industries, but they did not remain entirely stagnant either seemingly ordinary and small innovations were the basis of growth in many non-mechanised. Sectors such as food processing building, rottery glass work tanning, furniture making and production of implements.

Fourth: technological changes curred slowly. They did my spread dramatically across the industrial landscape. New technology was expensive and merchants and industrialists wife cautious about using it. The machines often broke down and repair was costly. They were not as effective as their inventors and manufacturers claimed.

Question 23.
Substantiate that silk and cotton goods from India dominated the international market before the age of industrialisation.
Answer:
Before the age of machine industries, silk and cotton goods from India dominated the international market in textiles. Corser cotton were produced in many countries, but the liner varieties often came from India Armenian and Persian merchants took the goods from Punjab to Afghanistan, eastern Persia and Central Asia.

Bales of fine textiles were carried on came back via the northwest frontier, through mountain passes and across desires. A vibrant sea trade operated through the main pre-colonial ports. Surat on the Gujarat coast connected India to the Gulf and Red Sea Ports. Masulipatam on the Coromandel coast and Hoogly in Bengal had trade links with Southeast Asian ports.

A variety of Indian merchants and bankers were involved in this network of export trade financing production, carrying goods and supplying exporter Supply merchants linked the port towns to the inland regions. They gave advances to weavers, procured the woven cloth from weaving villages and carried the supply to the ports. At the port, the big shippers and export merchants had brokers who negotiated the price and bought goods from the supply merchants operating inland.

Question 24.
Why did the industrial groups begin worrying about imports from other countries with the development of cotton industries in England?
Answer:
As cotton industries developed in England, industrial groups began worrying about imports from other countries. They pressurised the government to impose import duties on cotton textiles so that Manchester goods, could sell in Britain without any competition from outside. At the same time, industrialists persuaded the East India Company to sell British manufactures in Indian markets is well. Exports of British cotton goods increased dramatically in the early nineteenth century.

At the end of the eighteenth century there had been virtually no import of cotton piece-get into India But by 1850 cotton piece-goods, constituted over 31 per cent of the value of non-imports and by the 1870, this figure was over 50 per cent. Cotton weavers in India thus faced we problems at the same.

Time their export market cold and the local market shank, being pulled with Manchester import Produced by machines at lower costs, the imported cotton goods were so cheap that weavers could not easily compete with them. By 1950s, reports from most weaving regions of India narrated stories on decline anil desolation.

Question 25.
Give a brief account of the role of advertisements in selling goods.
Answer:
One way in which new consumers are created is through advertisements Advertisements make products appear desirable and necessary. They try to shape the mind of people and create new needs Today we live in a world where advertisements surround us. They appear in newspapers, magazines, hoarding streel walls television screens.

But if we look back into history we find that from the very beginning of the industrial age, advertisements have played a role in expanding the markets for products, and in shaping a new consumer culture. When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they pul labels on the cloth bundles The label was needed to make the place of manufacture and the name of the company familiar to the buyer The Label was also to be a mark of quality.

Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the most appropriate Iterative:
(i) The following was the first symbol of new era of industrialisation
(a) cotton
(b) rubber
(c) iron
(d) silk
Answer:
(a) cotton

(ii) Spinning Jenny was devised by
(a) Hargreaves
(b) Watt
(c) Newcomen
(d) Boulton
Answer:
(a) Hargreaves

(iii) The first cotton mill was set up at
(a) Kanpur
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Surat
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(d) Mumbai

(iv) The first jute mill was set up in:
(a) Jallandhar
(b) Kanpur
(c) Cochin
(d) Bengal
Answer:
(d) Bengal.

2.Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word:

(i) J.N. Tata set up the iron and steel factory at
Answer:
Jamshedpur

(ii) Dwarkanath Tagore made profit from trade.
Answer:
China

(iii) ………………… was, during the industrialisation days, the workshop of the world.
Answer:
England

(iv) Jenny was devised by Hargreaves
Answer:
Spinning.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education for Madam Rides the Bus Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English First Flight, Extra Questions for Class 10 English was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-english/

Online Education for Madam Rides the Bus Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English First Flight

Madam Rides the Bus Extra Questions and Answers Very Short Answer Type

Madam Rides The Bus Extra Questions Question 1.
Who was Valli?
Answer:
Valli was an eight year old girl.

Madam Rides The Bus Extra Question Answer Question 2.
What was her full name?
Answer:
Her full name was Valliammai.

Madam Rides The Bus Extra Questions And Answers Question 3.
What was her favourite pastime?
Answer:
Her favourite pastime was to watch the happening in the street outside standing in the front doorway of her house.

Madam Rides The Bus Class 10 Extra Questions Question 4.
What did she use to watch from her door?
Answer:
She used to watch the happenings in the street outside.

Extra Questions Of Madam Rides The Bus Question 5.
Why did she spend her time all alone?
Answer:
She spent her time all alone because she had no playmates of her own age.

Madam Rides The Bus Short Questions And Answers Question 6.
What was her overwhelming desire?
Answer:
Here overwhelming desire was to ride the bus.

Madam Rides The Bus Important Questions Question 7.
Where was the bus going?
Answer:
The bus was going to the city.

Class 10 Madam Rides The Bus Extra Questions Question 8.
What did the conductor say to Valli?
Answer:
The conductor asked Valli to hurry up and come quickly.

Extra Questions From Madam Rides The Bus Question 9.
What did Valli reply to the conductor?
Answer:
Valli replied that she was the only passenger who had to go on.

Question 10.
Where was Valli going?
Answer:
Valli was going to the city.

Question 11.
Why did Valli stand up on her seat?
Answer:
She stood up on her seat because she found her view cut off by a canvas blind.

Question 12.
What did Valli see outside the window?
Answer:
She saw a canal, palm tree, grassland and mountains outside the window.

Question 13.
How was Valli feeling?
Answer:
Valli was feeling happy and enjoying her ride.

Question 14.
What did the elderly woman try to do?
Answer:
The elderly women tried to befriend Valli.

Question 15.
What did the woman ask her?
Answer:
The woman asked Valli if she was all alone.

Question 16.
Why did Valli become sad?
Answer:
Valli became sad because the cow was dead.

Question 17.
What did Valli find when she came back home?
Answer:
When Valli came back and entered her home, she found her mother awake and talking to one of her aunts.

Madam Rides the Bus Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What kind of a person was Valli?
Answer:
Valli was a curious, keen observer who had strong will power and determination. She was bold, brave and self-respective! She had immense self confidence and wanted to do everything on her own. she was innocent, highly sensitive, intelligent and was a very careful planner.

Question 2.
What was Valli’s favourite pastime?
Answer:
Valli’s favourite pastime was to stand in the front doorway of her house and watch the happenings of the street. ,

Question 3.
Why did Valli want to ride on the bus?
Answer:
Valli used to watch the bus on its hourly rounds through her street everyday. The sight of the bus filled with new passengers every time gave her unending joy. She was curious and wished to ride it once. So, she wanted to ride on the bus to enjoy it.

Question 4.
How did Valli plan for her first journey?
Answer:
Valli made careful and painstaking plans for her first journey. She saved every penny, cut down on her expenses and resisted all the temptations to save sixty paise for the fare. She gathered the information from the passengers and neighbours. She calculated the time required and chose afternoon, as her mother would take a nap during that time. All this shows that she was a meticulous planner.

Question 5.
What did Valli do after she got into the bus?
Answer:
She got into the bus and she looked at everything very thoroughly. When she looked outside she found her view cut off by the canvas blind that covered the lower part of her window. So she stood upon the seat and peered over the blind.

Question 6.
What did Valli see out of the window on her first journey?
Answer:
Valli saw the nature’s grandeur out of the bus window. She saw the. green bank of a canal with the palm trees and mountains in the background and the blue sky. On the other side, she saw a deep ditch and green fields. She saw other vehicles, a young cow running in front of the bus. She later saw it dead.

Question 7.
What did the Valli find when she entered her house after the ride from the bus?
Answer:
Valli entered her house after the ride from the bus. Her mother was awake and talking to one of her aunts. She was from the South Street and was a real chatterbox. She would never close her mouth once she started talking.

Question 8.
How did Valli arrange for her bus fare?
Answer:
Valli arranged for her bus fare meticulously. For her first journey outside the village, Valli needed sixty paise to the two way fare of the bus. She needed some knowledge and ample time. She saved the money herself, collected the information from the passengers and utilized the time of her mother’s nap for it.

Question 9.
What did Valli’s mother say about the things happening without her knowledge?
Answer:
Valli’s mother said that so many things happen amidst us and in the world outside. We cannot know everything. When we know about something we often cannot understand it completely.

Question 10.
What was Valli’s favourite pastime?
Answer:
Valli was a Tamil girl. She had no playmates. It was her favourite pastime to stand in the doorway of her house. Thus she was able to watch all that was going on there. In a way she had attained too many unusual experiences.

Question 11.
What was a source of unending joy for Valli? What was her strongest desire?
Answer:
Valli was deeply attracted towards the bus. She had the strongest desire to ride in it. It travelled between Her village and the nearest town at an interval of an hour. The sight of the bus and passengers had been the source of unending joy for her.

Question 12.
What did Valli find out about the bus journey? How did she find out these details?
Answer:
Valli used to look at the faces of the daily travellers of the bus. Very often she listened to the conversations held between her neighbours and the passengers. Sometimes she also asked questions from them.

Question 13.
What do you think Valli was planning to do?
Answer:
Valli was a clever girl. She was planning to travel in the bus. She was calculating the time needed for the trip. The trip of the town took forty five minutes. It came to her mind to take the afternoon bus of . one o’clock. She would return by two forty five.

Question 14.
Why does the conductor call Valli ‘madam’?
Answer:
The conductor was a jolly sort of fellow. He was much fond of joking. He had judged the temperament of this small child. It was only to please her, he called her Valli ‘madam’.

Question 15.
Why does Valli stand up on the seat? What does she see now?
Answer:
Valli stands up on her seat. She has a keen desire to see everything with her own eyes. So she starts to look outside. She sees that the bus is going along the bank of a canal. The road is very narrow. Beyond it were the palm trees, mountains and fields etc.

Question 16.
What does Valli tell the elderly man when he calls her a child?
Answer:
Valli was a very smart girl. She had a superiority complex in her mind. She did not want herself to be called a child. On hearing herself as a child, she answered that there was no child. She had paid thirty paise like everyone else.

Question 17.
Why didn’t Valli want to make friends with the elderly woman?
Answer:
Valli was a girl of superior nature. She greatly disliked the elderly woman for her big holes in the ears. ‘ The earrings was very ugly. She was chewing the betel-nut. Its juice could fall at any moment. She was putting irrelevant questions to Valli.

Question 18.
How did Valli save up money for her first journey? Was it easy for her?
Answer:
Valli was a very wise girl. She saved her every penny to have a ride in the bus. She resisted every temptation to buy balloons, toys, peppermints and so on. She even controlled herself to have a ride on the merry-go-round at the village fair. It was rather troublesome for her.

Question 19.
What did Valli see on her way that made her laugh?
Answer:
By chance there came a young cow right in front of the running bus. The driver slowed it down. He sounded the horn very loudly time and again. But the more he honked, the more the cow was frightened and galloped faster. This made Valli laugh.

Question 20.
Why didn’t she get off the bus at the bus station?
Answer:
When the bus terminated at the bus station, Valli did not get off. The conductor asked her to get off. She replied that she would turn back by the same bus. She even refused to see the sights and the cold drink. She was afraid to move alone.

Question 21.
Why didn’t Valli want to go to the stall and have a drink? What does this tell you about her?
Answer:
Valli did not want to go to the stall and have a drink because she was afraid. She was alone. She had money only for the ticket. This tells that Valli was a very wise girl. She could control her feelings.

Madam Rides the Bus Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
“On and on went her thoughts as she calculated and recalculated, planned and replanned”. In which manner did Valli calculate, plan and prepare herself for the ride on the bus?
Answer:
Valli had made careful, painstaking and elaborate plans for her visit to the city. She had saved every  coin she could. She overcame the temptation to buy peppermints, toys, balloons and the lijce. Finally she had saved a total of sixty paise. She suppressed her strong desire to ride on the merry-go-round at the village fair. Her next problem was how to slip out of the house without her mother’s knowledge. But she managed this without much difficulty as everyday after lunch her mother would take a nap from about , one to four or so. She would visit the city during this period.

Question 2.
‘Never mind ‘she said, “I can get on by myself.” “You do not have to help me”, said Valli to the conductor. She shows extraordinary courage in making the bus journey all alone. Taking inspiration from Valli’s character, write how ability and courage to take risk are essential to fulfill one’s dreams.
Answer:
It is absolutely true that ability and courage to take risk are essential to fulfill one’s dream. Valli was an eight year old girl. She never made a journey to outside. She even never rode a bus. Her parents did not allow her to go outside her house. But she mustered up the courage and rode on a bus to make a bus journey. She enjoyed the journey and understand the reality about the outside world. She was a young girl but she made the journey without any difficulty because she had courage to take risk.

In other words, we can say that the thing or task that seems to be very hard is actually not so tough. We can do it if we have the ability and courage to take risk. If we do not dare to take risk, we lose opportunities to get better.

Question 3.
Whenever we want to achieve something, difficulties always come in our way. What did Valli have to do to go and ride in a bus?
OR
Once we decide to achieve something, so many difficulties come in our ways with focused attention we can make that achievement. How did valli succeed in fulfilling her desire of riding a bus?
Answer:
It is true that whenever we want something, difficulties do come in our way. But one must be ambitious in life. Achieving goals require perseverance. Valli wanted to ride the bus, however, she did not have the money to do so. The challenge in front of her was to arrange for the required amount of money. Valli had carefully saved whatever stray coins came her way, resisting every temptation to buy peppermints, toys, balloons and the like. Finally she had collected thirty paise. Moreover, she watched the bus, its routine and schedule very carefully. She also listened to people’s conversation about their journey. But due to her efforts, finally she accomplished her desire.

Question 4.
Compare Valli’s journey to the city with her journey back home. Why was there a change in her mood?
OR
“Valli’s journey to the city is also her introduction into the mystery of life and death. Elaborate.
OR
Why did Valli not enjoy her bus ride back home?
Answer:
Valli’s journey to the city is also her introduction into the mystery of life and death. While on her way to the city Valli saw a cow running very fast in the middle of the road, right in front of the bus. Valli enjoyed the scene. She kept on laughing initially and her eyes were filled with tears. She saw life in the form of a small cow. This is what life gives us—happiness, enjoyment. Valli enjoyed the scene.

On her way back home she saw a dead cow lying on the road. It was hit by some speeding vehicle. She recognised it. It was the same cow that filled her life with fun and joy only a few minutes before. She was overcome with the feelings of sadness. She realised how death can change the things.

“What had been a lovable, beautiful creature just a little while ago had now suddenly lost its charm and its life and looked so horrible, so frightening.” The memory of the dead cow haunted Valli and she did not enjoy her remaining journey

Question 5.
What was Valli’s deepest desire? Find the words and phrases in the story that tell you this.
Answer:
It was the deepest desire of Valli to enjoy a bus ride. There ran a bus between her village and the nearest town. She was able to fulfil her desire. The following words and phrases tell us about this.
The fascinating things, the sight of the bus, a source of un-ending joy. A tiny wish crept into her head overwhelming desire, listening carefully discreet questions and stop the bus, etc.

Question 6.
How did Valli plan her bus ride? What did she find out about the bus and how did she save the fare?
Answer:
Valli was a Tamil girl of eight years. She had no playmates. It was her favourite pastime to stand on the front doorway of her house. She watched what was happening in the street outside. She had the keenest desire to have a bus ride. She listened to the conversation between her neighbours and people who were regular bus commuters. She even questioned them. She had got ample knowledge about the bus, bus fare and duration of time. There ran a bus between her village and the nearest town. The town was six miles from her village.

The fare was thirty paise for one way. So she had to collect sixty-paise for the both side journey. This she had heard from a well-dressed person. The trip to the town took forty five minutes. She would board at one O’clock afternoon bus and reach the town at one forty-five . She would be back by about two forty-five. She resisted all her temptations of buying balloons, toys and saved money. She collected all the stray coins that came her way. At the village fair, she avoided the swing and the merry-go-round. Thus she collected her requisite money.

Question 7.
Why does the conductor refer to Valli as ‘madam’?
Answer:
The conductor is a man of worldly wise nature. He has evaluated that the girl has innocence and ignorance in her behaviour. In order to enjoy and have fun and not to make her unhappy, he calls Valli as ‘Madam’ though she is simply a girl of eight years.

Question 8.
Find the lines in the text which tell you that Valli was enjoying her ride on the bus.
Answer:
The following lines in the text tell us that Valli was enjoying her ride on the bus.

• While the bus was moving on a narrow road along the bank of a canal, she saw distant mountains, fields, sky and so on. She went on seeing as far as her eyes could see. She uttered, “Oh, it was all so wonderful.
• The bus rolled on cutting across a bare landscape and was about to gobble up another vehicle. The bus left everything safely. Valli suddenly clapped her hands with glee.
• There came a cow, it ran faster at the horn and came right before the bus. This scene made her laugh until there were tears in her eyes. The conductor said, ‘Hey, lady, haven’t you laughed enough? Better save some for tomorrow’.
• The bus passed the shopping street. There were displays of clothes and other merchandise! Such big crowds! Struck dumb with wonder, Valli gaped at everything.

Question 9.
Why does Valli refuse to look out of the window on her way back?
Answer:
While on her way back, Valli saw a young cow lying dead by the roadside. It looked horrible and frightening. There was a fixed stare in her lifeless eyes with blood all over. Its memory haunted her very much. She lost all her enthusiasm and excitement. She no longer wanted to look out of the window.

Question 10.
What does Valli mean when she says, “I was just agreeing with what you said about things happening without our knowledge?”
Answer:
Valli entered her house after her bus journey. She found her mother conversing with one of her aunts. She overhears their discussion on the things happening in their midst as well as in the world outside. They could not know about everything. Even some of them could not be understood by them. At this juncture, Valli too opined like a wise person and told that many things were happening without their knowledge.

Question 11.
The author describes the things that Valli sees from an eight years old’s point of view. Can you find evidence from the text for this statement?
Answer:
The author has rightly described many things from an eight years old Valli’s point of view.
Some of the sentences can be mentioned as under:

• On listening to one of her friends describing the sights, Valli would shout “Proud! Proud!
• From the regular bus commuters, she would ask a few discreet questions here and there.
• And here’s my money.
• I can get on by myself. You don‘t have to help me.
• There’s nobody here who’s a child.
• Ugh! Who could be sociable with such a person.
• “No, no one will be looking for me,”she said.

Madam Rides the Bus Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow:

Question 1.
There was a girl named Valliammai who was called Valli for short. She was eight years old and very curious about things. Her favourite pastime was standing in the front doorway of her house, watching what was happening in the street outside. There were no playmates of her own age on her street, and this was about all she had to do.
But for Valli, standing at the front door was every bit as enjoyable as any of the elaborate games other children played. Watching the street gave her many new unusual experiences. (Page 117)
(i) What was the short name of the girl?
(ii) What was Valli’s favourite pastime?
(iii) Why did she spend her time all alone?
(iv) Pick out the word from the passage that means same as ‘uncommon’.
Answer:
(i) Valli was the short name of the girl.
(ii) Valli’s favourite pastime was standing in front doorway of her house.
(iii) She spent her time all alone because she had no playmates of her own age in her street.
(iv) ‘unusual’.

Question 2.
The most fascinating thing of all was the bus that travelled between her village and the nearest town. It passed through her street each hour, once going to the town and once coming back. The sight of the bus, filled each time with a new set of passengers, was a source of unending joy for Valli. Day after day she watched the bus, and gradually a tiny wish crept into her head and grew there: she wanted to ride on that bus, even if just once. This wish became stronger and stronger, until it was an overwhelming desire. Valli would stare wistfully at the people who got on or off the bus when it stopped at the street comer. Their faces would kindle in her longings, dreams, and hopes. If one of her friends happened to ride the bus and tried to describe the sights of the town to her, Valli would be too jealous to listen and would shout, in English: “Proud! Proud!”
(i) What did Valli watch daily?
(ii) What was her overwhelming desire?
(iii) Was Valli’s wish to ride the bus stronger or weaker?
(iv) Pick out the word from the passage that means same as—longingly.
Answer:
(i) Valli watched the bus that travelled between her village and the nearest town.
(ii) Valli’s overwhelming desire was to ride the bus.
(iii) Valli’s wish to ride the bus was too strong.
(iv) ‘wistfully’.

Question 3.
Over many days and months Valli listened carefully to conversations between her neighbours and people who regularly used the bus, and she also asked a few discreet questions here and there. This way she picked up various small details about the bus journey. The town was six miles from her village. The fare was thirty paise one way—“which is almost nothing at all,” “she heard one well-dressed man say, but to Valli, who scarcely saw that much money from onfc month to the next, it seemed a fortune. The trip to the town took forty-five minutes. On reaching town, if she stayed in her seat and paid another thirty paise, she could return home on the same bus. This meant that she could take the one-o’ clock afternoon bus, reach the town at one forty-five, and be back home by about two forty-five… On and on went her thoughts as she calculated and recalculated, planned and replanned.
(i) How did Valli know details about this bus journey?
(ii) What was the distance of the town from Valli’s village?
(iii) How did she pay for her journey?
(iv) Pick out the words from the passage that means same as—‘careful questions’.
Answer:
(i) Valli knew details about the bus journey from the conversations between her neighbours and commuters.
(ii) The distance of the town from Valli’s village was six miles.
(iii) She paid thirty paise for her bus journey.
(iv) ‘discreet questions’.

Question 4.
Well, one fine spring day the afternoon bus was just on the point of leaving the village and turning into the main highway when a small voice was heard shouting: “Stop the bus! Stop the bus!” And a tiny hand was raised commandingly.The bus slowed down to a crawl, and the conductor, sticking his head out the door, said “Hurry then! Tell whoever it is to come quickly.”
“It’s me,” shouted Valli. “I’m the one who has to get on.”
(i) Where was the bus going?
(ii) Who stopped the bus?
(iii) What did the conductor say to Valli?
(iv) Pick out the word from the passage that means same as “small”.
Answer:
(i) The bus was leaving the village and going to the city.
(ii) Valli stopped the bus.
(iii) The conductor asked Valli to hurry up and come quickly.
(iv) tiny.

Question 5.
It was the slack time of day, and there were only six or seven passengers on the bus. They were all looking at Valli and laughing with the conductor. Valli was overcome with shyness. Avoiding everyone’s eyes, she walked quickly to an empty seat and sat down, “May we start now, madam?” The conductor asked, smiling. Then he blew his whistle twice, and the bus moved forward with a roar. It was a new bus, its outside painted a gleaming white with some green stripes along the sides. Inside, the overhead bars shone like silver. Directly in front of Valli, above the windshield, there was a beautiful clock. The seats were soft and luxurious. (Pages 119-120)
(i) What were the six or seven passengers doing?
(ii) Why did she avoid everyone’s eyes?
(iii) How was the outside of the bus painted?
(iv) Pick out the word from the passage that means the same as—A time when there is no much work.
Answer:
(i) The six or seven passengers were looking at Valli and laughing with the conductor.
(ii) Valli avoided everyone’s eyes because she was feeling shy.
(iii) The outside of the bus was printed white with some green stripes along the sides.
(iv) ‘Slack Time’.

Question 6.
Valli devoured everything with her eyes. But when she started to look outside, she found her view cut off by a canvas blind that covered the lower part of her window. So she stood up on the seat and peered over the blind.The bus was now going along the bank of a canal. The road was very narrow. On one side there was the canal and, beyond it, palm trees, grassland, distant mountains, and the blue, blue sky. On the other side was a deep ditch and then acres and acres of green fields—green, green, green, as far as the eye could see. (Page 120)
(i) Why did Valli stand up on her seat?
(ii) Where was she going to?
(iii) How was Valli feeling?
(iv) Pick out the word from the passage that means the same as ‘looked through’.
Answer:
(i) Valli stood up on her seat because she wanted to look outside.
(ii) She was going to the city.
(iii) Valli was feeling happy and enjoying her ride.
(iv) ‘peered’.

Question 7.
Suddenly she was startled by a voice. “Listen child,” said the voice, “you shouldn’t stand like that. Sit down.”
Sitting down, she looked to see who had spoken. It was an elderly man who had honestly been concerned for her, but she was annoyed by his attention.
“There’s nobody here who’s a child,” she said haughtily. “I’ve paid my thirty paise like everyone else.” The conductor chimed in. “Oh, sir, but this is a very grown-up madam. Do you think a mere girl could pay her own fare and travel to the city all alone?” (Pages 120-121)
(i) What did somebody say to Valli?
(ii) What did the elderly man advise the child?
(iii) What did the conductor chime in about Valli?
(iv) Pick out the word from the passage that means the same as ‘proudly’.
Answer:
(i) Somebody said to Valli that she should not stand like that and asked her to sit down.
(ii) The elderly man advised the child to sit down.
(iii) The conductor chimed in about the girl calling her as a grown-up woman.
(iv) ‘haughtily.

Question 8.
An elderly woman came and sat beside her. “Are you all alone, dear?” She asked Valli as the bus started again. Valli found the woman absolutely repulsive—such big holes she had in her ear lobes, and such ugly earrings in them! And she could smell the betel nut the woman was chewing and see the betel juice that was threatening to spill over her lips at any moment. Ugh!—who could be sociable with such a person?
(i) What did the elderly woman try do?
(ii) Why did Valli find the woman repulsive?
(iii) What did the woman ask her? .
(iv) Pick out the word from the passage that means same as—‘causing dislike’.
Answer:
(i) The elderly woman tried to befriend Valli.
(ii) Valli found the woman absolutely repulsive as she had big holes in her ear lobes and ugly earrings in them. She was also chewing betel nut.
(iii) The woman asked Valli if she was all alone.
(iv) ‘repulsive’.

Question 9.
Her first journey—what careful, painstaking, elaborate plans she had to make for it! She had thriftily saved whatever stray coins came her way, resisting every temptation to buy peppermints, toys, balloons, and the like, and finally she had saved a total of sixty paise. How difficult it had been, particularly that ’ day at the village fair, but she had resolutely stifled a strong desire to ride the merry -go-round, even though she had the money.
After she had enough money saved, her next problem was how to slip out of the house without her mother’s knowledge. (Page 122)
(i) What did Valli had to do for her first journey?
(ii) What temptations did she have to resist?
(iii) What kind of desire did she have to curb at the village fare?
(iv) Pick out the word from the passage that means the same as—‘spend money carefully’.
Answer:
(i) Valli had to make careful, painstaking and elaborate plans for her first journey.
(ii) Valli had to resist the temptation to buy peppermints, toys, balloons, etc.
(iii) Valli had to curb a strong desire to ride the merry-go-round at the village fare.
(iv) ‘thriftily’.

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Federalism Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Federalism Class 10 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 2

Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 1.
Define Federalism.
Answer:
Federalism is a system of government in which the governmental power is divided into a central authority and it various constituent units.

Federalism Class 10 Extra Questions Question 2.
What do you mean by unitary system of government?
Answer:
Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government.

Extra Questions For Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Question 3.
Write the dual objectives of the federal government.
Answer:
The federal system has dual objectives:

• To safeguard and promote unity of the country and
• To accommodate the regional diversity.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
Which aspects are crucial for the institutions and practice of federalism?
Answer:

• Agreement to live together : Government at different levels should agree to some rules of power sharing
• Mutual trust: They should also trust that each would abide by its part of the agreement.

Federalism Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 5.
Define Jurisdiction.
Answer:
Jurisdiction : The area over which someone has legal authority. The area may be defined in terms of geographical boundaries or in terms of certain kinds of subjects.

Class 10 Civics Ch 2 Extra Questions Question 6.
Explain the contents of Union List.
Answer:
Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency.

Extra Questions Of Federalism Class 10 Question 7.
What are the subjects of State List?
Answer:

• State List contains subjects of state and local importance such as police, trade, commerce, agriculture irrigation etc.
• The state governments alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the state list.

Extra Question Answers Of Chapter Federalism Question 8.
Who is authorized make laws about subjects that do not fall in any of the three lists?
Answer:
According to the Indian Constitution, the Union government has the power to legislate on these ‘residuary subjects’.

Federalism Class 10 1 Mark Questions Question 9.
Whose role is important in the implementation of constitutional provisions?
Answer:

• The judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures.
• In case of any dispute about the division of powers, the High Courts and the Supreme Court make a decision.

Class 10 Federalism Extra Questions Question 10.
What was the basis of creation of new states in India?
Answer:

• In 1947, the boundaries of states of India were changed in order to create new states. This was done to ensure that people speaking same language lived in the same state.
• Same other states were created to recognize differences based on culture, ethnicity or geography.
  Example-Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand.

Ch 2 Civics Class 10 Extra Questions Question 11.
What was the main fear of some national leaders on creation of new states on linguistic basis?
Answer:
When the demand for the formation of states on the basis of language was raised, some national leaders feared that it would lead to the disintegration of the country.

Federalism Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 12.
Do you think the creation of new states on the basis of language has helped India any way?
Answer:

• The experience shows that the formation of linguistic states has actually made the country more united and stronger.
• It has also made the administration easier.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 Extra Questions In Hindi Question 13.
Explain the composition and function of Gram Sabha?
Answer:

• The Gram Panchayat works under the overall supervision of Gram Sabha.
• All the voters in the village are its members.
• It meets at least twice or thrice in a year to approve the annual budget of the Gram Panchayat and to review the performance of the Gram Panchayat.

Civics Chapter 2 Class 10 Extra Questions Question 14.
Who controls municipalities and municipal corporations?
Answer:
Both municipalities and municipal corporations are controlled by elected bodies consisting of people’s representatives.

Civics Class 10 Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 15.
What are the difficulties of the institutions of local self-government?
Answer:

• While elections are held regularly gram sabha are not held regularly.
• Most State governments have not transferred significant powers to the local governments.
• The institutions of local self-governments do not have adequate resources also.

Question 16.
What is federalism? What are its two types?
Answer:
Federalism is a system of government in which the governmental power is divided between a central authority and its various constituent units. Usually, a federation has two levels of government. One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national interest.

The other are governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day to day administering of their state. Both these levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the other.

Question 17.
How is the ‘Coming together federations formed?
Answer:
The exact balance of power between the central and the state government and within various state governments varies from one federation to another. This balance depends mainly on the historical context in which the federation was formed. There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed.

The first route involves independent states coming together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and. retaining identity they can increase their security. This type of coming together’ federations include USA, Switzerland and Australia. In this first category of federations, all the constituent stales usually have equal power and are strong vis-a-vis the federal government.

Question 18.
What do you mean by ‘holding together’ federations?
Answer:
The exact balance of power between the central and the state government and within various state governments varies from one federation to another. This balance depends mainly on the historical context in which the federation was formed. There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed.

The second route is where a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent states and the national government. India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this kind of ‘holding together’ federations. In this second category the central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the states Very often different constituent units of the federation have unequal powers. Some units are granted special powers.

Question 19.
“All states in the Indian Union do not have identical powers.” Explain.
Answer:

• Most federations that are formed by ‘holding together’ do not give equal power to its constituent units.
• Thus all states in the Indian Union do not have identical powers Some states enjoy a special status. Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution.
• Many provisions of the Indian Constitution are not applicable to this state without the permission of the state assembly.
• Indians who are not permanent residents of this state cannot buy land or house here.

Question 20.
Explain the main contributing factor towards success of federalism in India.
Answer:

• Constitutional provisions are necessary for the success of federalism but these are not sufficient.
• If the federal experiment has succeeded in India, it is not merely because of the clearly laid out constitutional provisions.
• The real success of federalism in India can be attributed to the nature of democratic politics in our country.
• This ensured that the spirit of federalism, respect for diversity and desire for living together became a shared ideal in our country.

Question 21.
What is the rational behind decentralisation of power in India?
Answer:
The federal governments have two or more tiers of governments. But a vast country like India cannot be run only through these two tiers. States in India are as large as independent countries. In terms of population, Uttar Pradesh is bigger than Russia, Maharashtra is about as big as Germany.

Many of these states are internally very diverse. There is thus a need for power-sharing within these states. Federal power-sharing in India needs another tier of government, below that of the State governments. This is the for decentralisation of power. Thus, resulted a third tier of government, called Local Government.

Question 22.
“The basic idea behind decentralisation is that there are a large number of problems which are best settled at the local level” Justify.
Answer:

• When power is taken, away from Central, and State governments and given to local government, it is called decentralisation.
• The basic idea behind decentralisation is that there are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.
• People have better knowledge of problems in their localities. They also have better ideas on where to spend money and how to manage things more efficiently.
• Besides, at the local level, it is possible for the people to directly participate in decision making. This helps to inculcate a habit of democratic participation.
• Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-government.

Question 23.
“There was very little decentralisation in effective terms before 1992.” Explain.
Answer:

• The need for decentralisation was recognised in our Constitution. Since then there have been several attempts to decentralise power to the level of villages anf towns.
• Panchayats in villages and municipalities in urban areas were set up in all the states. But these were directly under the control of State governments
• Elections to these local governments were not held regularly.
• Local governments did not have any powers or resources of their own. Thus there was very tittle decentralisation in effective terms.

Question 24.
Which problem undermined the spirit of federalism in before 1990?
Answer:

• The constitutional arrangements for sharing power work, in reality, depend to a large extent on how the ruling parties and the leader follow these arrangements,
• In India, for long time, the same party (Congress Party) ruled both at the centre and in most of the states. This meant that the state governments did not exercise their rights as autonomous federal units.
• As and when the ruling party at the state level was different, the parties that ruled at the centre tried to undermine the power of the states.

Question 26.
What steps have been taken after 1992 to decentralise power in India?
Answer:

• A major step towards dece¬ntralisation was taken in 1992. The Constitution was amended to make the third tier of democracy more powerful and effective.
• Now it is constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to the local government bodies.
• Seats are reserved in the elected bodies and the executive heads of these institutions for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Backward classes
• An independent institution called the State Election Commission has been created in each state to conduct the panchayat and municipal elections.
• The State governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies. The nature of sharing varies from state to state.

Question 27.
Describe the working of panchayat raj system in India.
Answer:
Rural local government is popularly known by the name Panchayati Raj, Each Village, or a group of villages in some states, has a Gram Panchayat. This is a council consisting of several ward members, often called Panchayat, and a President or Sarpanch. These are directly elected by all the adult people living in that ward or the village. It is the decision making body for the entire village. The panchayat works under the overall supervision of the Gram Sabha.

All the voters in the village are its members. It has to meet at least twice or thrice in a year to approve the annual budget of the gram panchayat and to review the performance of the gram panchayat. The local government structure goes right up to the district level. A few gram panchayats are grouped together to form what is usually called a panchayat Samiti or block.

The members of this representative body are elected by all the panchayat members in that area. All the panchayat in a district together constitutes the Zilla (district) Parishad. Most members of the Zilla Parishad are elected. Members of the Lok Sabha and MLA’S of that district and some other officials of other district-level bodies are also its members. Zilla Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the Zilla Parishad.

Question 28.
Analyse the benefits of decentralisation of power in India.
Answer:

• This new system of local government is the largest experiment in democracy conducted anywhere in the world
• There are now about 36 lakh elected representatives in the panchayats and municipalities etc. all over the country.
• This number is bigger than the population of many countries in the world.
• Constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in our country.
• It has also increased women’s representation and voice in our democracy
• At the same time, there are many difficulties. While elections are held regularly and enthusiastically, gram sabha are not held regularly
• Most state governments have not transferred significant powers to the local governments. Nor have they given adequate resource.

Question 29.
Explain some of the key features of federalism.
Answer:
Some of the key features of federalism are as following:

• There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
• Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
• The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government are constitutionally safeguarded.
• The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of the both the levels government.
• Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire in case disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.

Question 30.
What makes India a federal country?
Answer:

• The Constitution of India declared India as a Union of States. Although it did not use the word federation, the Indian Union is based on the principle of federalism.
• The Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union government or what we call the central government representing the union of India and die State governments.
• The Constitution clearly provided a three¬fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union government and the State governments.

Thus it contains three lists:
(a) Union List includes subjects of national importance such as the defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency. They are included in this list because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country. The Union government alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the Union List.

(b) State List contains subjects of state and local importance such as police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation. The State governments alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the State List.

(c) Concurrent list includes subjects of common interest to both the Union government as well as the State governments, such as education, forest, trade unions, marriages, adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. If their laws conflict with each other, the law made by the union government will prevail.

4. According to the Indian constitution, the Union government has the power to legislate on ‘residuary’ subjects.

Question 31.
“Federal power-sharing is more effective today than it was in the early years after the constitution came into force.” Justify.
Answer:

• Restructuring the Centre-State relations is one more way in which federalism has been strengthened in practice. The constitutional arrangements for sharing power, work in reality, depend to a large extent on how the ruling parties and leaders follow these arrangements.
• For a long time, the same party ruled both at the Centre and in most of the states. This meant that the state governments did not exercise their rights as autonomous federal units.
• As and when the ruling party at the state level was different, the parties that ruled at the centre tried to undermine the power of the states.
• In those days, the Central government would often misuse the Constitution to dismiss the state governments that were controlled by rival parties. This undermined the spirit of federalism.
• All this changed significantly after 1990. This period saw the rise of regional political parties in many states of the country. This was also the beginning of the era of coalition governments at the centre. Since no single party got a clear majority in Lok Sabha, the major national parties had to enter into an alliance with many parties including several regional parties to form a government the centre.
• This led to a new culture of power-sharing and respect for the autonomy of the state governments.

Objective Type Questions

Four alternatives have been given to the following questions.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Tamil leaders want Sri Lanka to be a:
(a) Unitary system
(b) Federal system
(c) Monarchy
(d) Autocracy
Answer:
(b) Federal system

Question 2.
A system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units- is called
(a) Federalism
(b) Unitary
(c) Monarchy
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Federalism

Question 3.
A system of government in which either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the central government is called:
(a) Federalism
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Monarchy
(d) Unitary
Answer:
(d) Unitary

Question 4.
USA is the example of
(a) Coming together federation
(b) Holding together federation
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Coming together federation

Question 5.
India is the example of:
(a) Coming together federation
(b) Holding together federation
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Holding together federation.

Question 6.
The Indian Constitution originally provided for a
(a) One-tier system of government
(b) Three-tier system of government
(c) Five-tier system of government
(d) Two-tier system of government
Answer:
(d) Two-tier system of government

Question 7.
Communication comes under:
(a) Residuary list
(b) State list
(c) Union list
(d) Concurrent list
Answer:
(c) Union list

Question 8.
Agriculture comes under.
(a) Residuary list
(b) State list
(c) Union list
(d) Concurrent list
Answer:
(b) State list

Question 9.
Education comes under
(a) Residuary list
(b) State list
(c) Union list
(d) Concurrent list
Answer:
(d) Concurrent list

Question 10.
Who has the power to legislate over residuary subjects?
(a) State
(b) Union
(c) District
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Union

Question 11.
If there is a conflict over law made by the union and state government, on the subject related to concurrent list, whose law would prevail?
(a) Union government
(b) State government
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Union government

Question 12.
All States in the Indian union do not have identical powers:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Sometimes true
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) True

Question 13.
Which state has its own constitution?
(a) Bihar
(b) West Bengal
(c) J&K
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) J&K

Question 14.
Chandigarh is a
(a) State
(b) Union Territory
(c) District
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(b) Union Territory.

Question 15.
Which is the official language of India?
(a) English
(b) Hindi
(c) Bengali
(d) Tamil
Answer:
(b) Hindi.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Here we are providing Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 7 with Answers Solutions, Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths was designed by subject expert teachers.  https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-maths/

Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths Coordinate Geometry with Answers Solutions

Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry with Solutions Answers

Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Answer the following questions in one word, one sentence or as per the exact requirement of the question.

Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Extra Questions Question 1.
What is the area of the triangle formed by the points 0 (0, 0), A (-3, 0) and B (5, 0)?
Solution:
Area of ∆OAB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) [0(0 – 1) – 3(0 – 0) + 5(0 – 0)] = 0
⇒ Given points are collinear

Coordinate Geometry Extra Questions Class 10 Question 2.
If the centroid of triangle formed by points P (a, b), Q (b, c) and R (c, a) is at the origin, what is the value of a + b + c?
Solution:

Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Extra Questions With Solutions Pdf Question 3.
AOBC is a rectangle whose three vertices are A (0, 3), 0 (0, 0) and B (5, 0). Find the length of its diagonal.
Solution:

Class 10 Coordinate Geometry Extra Questions Question 4.
Find the value of a, so that the point (3, a) lie on the line 2x – 3y = 5.
Solution:
Since (3, a) lies on the line 2x – 3y = 5
Then 2(3) – 3(a) = 5
– 3a = 5 – 6
– 3a = -1
⇒ a = \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Important Questions Question 5.
Find distance between the points (0, 5) and (-5, 0).
Solution:
Here x₁ = 0, y₁ = 5, x₂ = -5 and y₂ = 0)

Extra Questions Of Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Question 6.
Find the distance of the point (-6,8) from the origin.
Solution:
Here x₁ = -6, y₁ = 8
x₂ = 0, y₂ = 0

Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Extra Questions With Solutions Question 7.
If the distance between the points (4, k) and (1, 0) is 5, then what can be the possible values of k?
Solution:
Using distance formula

Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Extra Questions With Solutions Question 8.
If the points A (1, 2), B (0, 0) and C (a, b) are collinear, then what is the relation between a and b?
Solution:
Points A, B and C are collinear
⇒ 1(0 – b) + 0 (b – 2) + a(2 – 0) = 0
⇒ -b + 2a = 0 or 2a = b

Extra Questions On Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Question 9.
Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points (-3, 10) and (6, – 8) is divided by (-1, 6).
Solution:
In Fig. 6.6, let the point P(-1, 6) divides the line joining A(-3, 10) and B (6, -8) in the ratio k : 1

Hence, the point P divides AB in the ratio 2 : 7.

Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Extra Questions Pdf Question 10.
The coordinates of the points P and Q are respectively (4, -3) and (-1, 7). Find the abscissa of a point R on the line segment PQ such that \(\frac{P R}{P Q}\) = \(\frac{3}{5}\).
Solution:

Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 1

Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Questions With Solutions Question 1.
Write the coordinates of a point on x-axis which is equidistant from the points (-3, 4) and (2, 5).
Solution:
Let the required point be (x, 0).
Since, (x, 0) is equidistant from the points (-3, 4) and (2, 5) .

Class 10 Maths Coordinate Geometry Extra Questions Question 2.
Find the values of x for which the distance between the points P (2, -3) and Q (x, 5) is 10.
Solution:

Coordinate Geometry Questions Class 10 Question 3.
What is the distance between the points (10 cos 30°, 0) and (0, 10 cos 60°)?
Solution:

Extra Questions On Distance Formula Class 10 Question 4.
In Fig. 6.8, if A(-1, 3), B(1, -1) and C (5, 1) are the vertices of a triangle ABC, what is the length of the median through vertex A?
Solution:”

Ch 7 Maths Class 10 Extra Questions Question 5.
Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points P (3, -6) and Q (5,3) is divided by the x-axis.
Solution:
Let the required ratio be λ : 1

Given that this point lies on the x-axis

Thus, the required ratio is 2 : 1.

Class 10 Maths Ch 7 Extra Questions Question 6.
Point P (5, -3) is one of the two points of trisection of the line segment joining the points A (7, -2) and B (1, -5). State true or false and justify your answer.
Solution:
Points of trisection of line segment AB are given by

∴ Given statement is true.

Coordinate Geometry Extra Questions Question 7.
Show that ∆ABC, where A(-2, 0), B(2, 0), C(0, 2) and APQR where P(-4, 0), Q(4, 0), R(0,4) are similar triangles.
OR
Show that ∆ABC with vertices A(-2, 0), B(0, 2) and C(2, 0) is similar to ∆DEF with vertices D(-4, 0), F(4,0) and E(0, 4).
[∆PQR is replaced by ∆DEF]
Solution:

Chapter 7 Maths Class 10 Extra Questions Question 8.
Point P (0, 2) is the point of intersection of y-axis and perpendicular bisector of line segment joining the points, A (-1, 1) and B (3, 3). State true or false and justify your answer.
Solution:
The point P (0, 2) lies on y-axis

AP ≠ BP
∴ P(0, 2) does not lie on the perpendicular bisector of AB. So, given statement is false.

Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Questions Question 9.
Check whether (5, -2), (6, 4) and (7, -2) are the vertices of an isosceles triangle.
Solution:
Let A (5,-2), B (6, 4) and C (7, -2) be the vertices of a triangle

Here, AB = BC
∴ ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle.

Class 10 Coordinate Geometry Important Questions Question 10.
If (1, 2), (4, y), (x, 6) and (3,5) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order, find x and y.
Solution:
Let A(1, 2), B(4, y), C(x, 6) and D(3, 5) be the vertices of a parallelogram ABCD.
Since, the diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other.

Hence, x = 6 and y = 3.

Question 11.
Find the ratio in which y-axis divides the line segment joining the points A(5, -6) and B(-1, 4). Also, find the coordinates of the point of division.
Solution:
Let the point on y-axis be P(0, y) and AP : PB = k : 1

Question 12.
Let P and Q be the points of trisection of the line segment joining the points A(2, -2) and B(-7, 4) such that P is nearer to A. Find the coordinates of P and Q.
Solution:
∵ P divides AB in the ratio 1 : 2.

Question 13.
Find the ratio in which the point (-3, k) divides the line-segment joining the points (-5, 4) and (-2, 3). Also find the value of k.
Solution:
Let Q divide AB in the ratio of p : 1

Question 14.
The x-coordinate of a point P is twice its y-coordinate. If P is equidistant from Q(2, -5) and R(-3, 6), find the coordinates of P.
Solution:
Let the point P be (2y, y)

Hence, coordinates of point P are (16, 8).

Question 15.
If two adjacent vertices of a parallelogram are (3, 2) and (-1, 0) and the diagonals intersect at (2, -5), then find the coordinates of the other two vertices.
Solution:
Let other two coordinates are (x, y) and (x’, y’)
O is mid point of AC and BD

Hence, co-ordinates are (1, -12) and (5, -10).

Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 2

Question 1.
Determine, if the points (1, 5), (2, 3) and (-2, -11) are collinear.
Solution:
Let A (1, 5), B (2, 3) and C (-2, -11) be the given points. Then we have

Clearly, AB + BC ≠ AC
∴ A, B, C are not collinear.

Question 2.
Find the distance between the following pairs of points:
(i) (-5, 7), (-1, 3)
(ii) (a, b), (-a, -b)
Solution:
(i) Let two given points be A (-5, 7) and B (-1, 3).
Thus, we have x₁ = -5 and x₂ = -1
y₁ = 7 and y₂ = 3

(ii) Let two given points be A (a,b) and B(-a, -b)
Here, x₁ = a and x₂ = -a; y₁ = b and y₂ = -b

Question 3.
Name the type of quadrilateral formed, if any, by the following points, and give reasons for
your answer: (i) (-1, -2), (1, 0), (- 1, 2), (-3, 0) (ii) (4, 5), (7, 6), (4, 3), (1, 2)
Solution:
(i) Let A(-1, -2), B(1, 0), C(-1, 2) and D(-3, 0) be the four given points.
Then, using distance formula, we have,

Hence, four sides of quadrilateral are equal and diagonals AC and BD are also equal.
∴ Quadrilateral ABCD is a square.

(ii) Let A (4, 5), B (7, 6), C (4, 3) and D (1, 2) be the given points. Then,

∴ ABCD is a parallelogram.

Question 4.
Find the value of y for which the distance between the points P(2, -3) and Q(10, y) is 10 units.
OR
A line segment is of length 10 units. If the coordinates of its one end are (2, -3) and the abscissa of the other end is 10, find its ordinate.
Solution:
We have, PQ = 10

Squaring both sides, we have
⇒ (8)² + (y + 3)² = 100
⇒ (y + 3)² = 100 – 64
⇒ (y + 3)² = 36 or y + 3 ± 16
⇒ y + 3 = 6, y + 3 = -6 or y = 3, y = -9
Hence, values of y are – 9 and 3.

Question 5.
If Q(0, 1) is equidistant from P(5,-3) and R(x, 6) find the value of x. Also, find the distances of QR and PR.
Solution:
Since, point Q(0, 1) is equidistant from P(5, -3) and R(x, 6).
Therefore, QP = QR
Squaring both sides, we have, Qp² = QR²
⇒ (5 – 0)² + (-3 -1)² = (x – 0)² + (6 – 1)²
25 + 16 = x² + 25
x² = 16
∴ x = ±4
Thus, R is (4, 6) or (-4, 6).

Question 6.
Find the point on the x-axis which is equidistant from (2, -5) and (-2, 9).
OR
Find the coordinates of a point on the x-axis which is equidistant from the points A(2, -5) and B(-2, 9).
Solution:
Let P(x, 0) be any point on x-axis.
Now, P(x, 0) is equidistant from point A(2,-5) and B(-2, 9)
∴ AP = BP

Squaring both sides, we have
(x – 2)² + 25 = (x + 2)² + 81
⇒ x² + 4 – 4x + 25 = x² + 4 + 4x + 81
⇒ -8x = 56
∴ x = \(\frac{56}{-8}\)
∴ The point on the x-axis equidistant from given points is (-7,0).

Question 7.
Find the relation between x and y, if the points (x, y), (1, 2) and (7, 0) are collinear.
Solution:
Given points are A(x, y), B(1, 2) and C(7, 0)
These points will be collinear if the area of the triangle formed by them is zero.
Now, ar(∆ABC) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) [x₁(y₂ – y₃) + x₂(y₃ – y₁) + x₃(y₁ – y₂)]
⇒ 0 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) [x(2 – 0) + 1(0 – y) + 7(y – 2)]
⇒ 0 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (2x – y + 7y – 14)
⇒ 2x + by – 14 = 0
⇒ x + 3y = 7, which is the required relation between x and y.

Question 8.
Find a relation between x and y such that the point (x, y) is equidistant from the point (3,6) and (-3, 4).
Solution:
Let P(x, y) be equidistant from the points A(3, 6) and B(-3, 4)
i.e., PA = PB
Squaring both sides, we get
AP² = BP²
⇒ (x – 3)² + (y – 6)² = (x + 3)² + (1 – 4)²
⇒ x² – 6x + 9 + y² – 12y + 36 = x² + 6x + 9 +y² – 8y + 16
⇒ -12x – 4y + 20 = 0
⇒ 3x + y – 5 = 0, which is the required relation.

Question 9.
Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line joining of (- 1, 7) and (4, – 3) in the ratio 2 : 3.
Solution:
Let P(x, y) be the required point. Thus, we have

So, the coordinates of P are (1, 3).

Question 10.
Find the coordinates of the points of trisection of the line segment joining (4, – 1) and (-2,-3).
Solution:
Let the given points be A(4, -1) and B(-2,-3) and points of trisection be P and Q.

Lęt AP = PQ = QB = k
PB = PQ + QB = k + k = 2k
AP : PB = k : 2k = 1 : 2.
Therefore, coordinates of P are

Question 11.
Find the ratio in which the line segment joining A(1, -5) and B(-4, 5) is divided by the x-axis. Also find the coordinates of the point of division.
Solution:
Let the required ratio bek: 1. Then, the coordinates of the point of division is

Question 12.
The points A(4, -2), B(7, 2), C(0, 9) and D(-3, 5) form a parallelogram. Find the length of the altitude of the parallelogram on the base AB.
Solution:
Let, DE = h be the height of parallelogram ABCD w.r.t. base AB.

Question 13.
Find the coordinates of a point A, where AB is the diameter of a circle whose centre is (2, -3) and B is (1, 4).
Solution:
Let the coordinates of A be (x, y)
Now, C is the centre of circle therefore, the coordinates of

Hence, coordinates of A are (3, -10).

Question 14.
If A and B are (-2, -2) and (2, -4), respectively, find the coordinates of P such that AB = 5 AB and P lies on the line segment AB.
Solution:

Question 15.
Find the coordinates of the points which divide the line segment joining A (-2, 2) and B (2, 8) into four equal parts (Fig. 6.21).
Solution:
Let P, Q, R be the points that divide the line segment joining A(-2, 2) and B(2, 8) into four equal parts.

Since, Q divides the line segment AB into two equal parts, i.e., Q is the mid-point of AB.

Question 16.
Find the area of a rhombus if its vertices (3, 0), (4, 5), (- 1, 4) and (-2, – 1) are taken in order.
Solution:
Let A(3, 0), B(4, 5), C(-1, 4) and D(-2, -1) be the vertices of a rhombus.
Therefore, its diagonals

Question 17.
Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are: (-5, -1), (3, -5), (5, 2)
Solution:
Let A(x₁, y₁) = (-5, -1), B(x₂, y₂) = (3 – 5), C(x₃, y₃) = (5, 2)
∴ area of ∆ABC = \(\frac{1}{2}\) [x₁ (y₂ – y₃) + x₂(y₃ – y₁) + x₃(y₁ – y₂)]
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)(-5(-5 – 2) + 3 (2 + 1) + 5(-1 + 5)]
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)(35 + 9 + 20) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 64 = 32 sq units.

Question 18.
If the point A (0, 2) is equidistant from the points B(3, p) and C(p, 5), find p. Also find the length of AB.
Solution:
Given that A (0, 2) is equidistant from B (3, p) and C (p, 5)
∴ AB = AC
or
AB² = AC²
(3 – 0)² + (0 – 2)² = (p – 0)² + (5 – 2)²
3² + p² + 4 – 4p = p² + 9
= 4 – 4p = 0
⇒ 4p = 4
⇒ p = 1

Question 19.
If the points A (-2, 1), B (a, b) and C (4, -1) are collinear and a – b = 1, find the values of a and b.
Solution:
Since the given points are collinear, then area of ∆ABC = 0
⇒ \(\frac{3}{5}\)[x1 ( y₂ – y₃) + x₂(y₃ – y₁) + x₃(y₁ – y₂)] = 0
Given, x₁ = -2, y₁ = 1, x₂ = 0, y₂ = b, x₃ = 4, y₃ = -1
Putting the values,
\(\frac{1}{2}\)[-2(b + 1) + a(-1 – 1) + 4(1 – b)] = 0
⇒ -26 – 2 – 2a + 4- 4b = 0
⇒ 2a + 65 = 2
a + 3b = 1 ….. (i)
Given, a – b = 1 … (ii)
Subtracting (i) from (ii), we have
– 4b = 0
⇒ b = 0
Substituting the value of b in (ii), we have a = 1.

Question 20.
If the point P (k-1, 2) is equidistant from the points A (3, k) and B (k, 5), find the values of k.
Solution:
Let the given line segment be divided by point Q. Since P is equidistant from A and B,
AP = BP or Ap² = BP²
[3 – (k – 1)]² + (k – 2)² = [k – (k – 1)]² + (5 – 2)²
(3 – k + 1)² + (k – 2)² = (k – k + 1)² + (3)²
(4 – k)² + (k – 2)² = (1)² + (3)²
⇒ 16 + k² – 8k + k² + 4 – 4k = 1 + 9
⇒ 2k² – 12k + 20 = 10
⇒ k² – 6k + 10 = 5
⇒ ķ² – 6k + 5 = 0
⇒ k² – 5k – k + 5 = 0
⇒ k (k – 5) -1(k – 5) = 0
⇒ k = 1 or k = 5

Question 21.
Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points A(3, -3) and B(-2, 7) is divided by x-axis. Also find the coordinates of the point of division.
Solution:

Here, point Q is on x-axis so its ordinate is O.
Let ratio be k : 1 and coordinate of point Q be (x, 0)

We are given that A(3, -3) and B(-2, 7)

Question 22.
Find the values of k if the points Ask + 1, 2k), B(3k, 2k + 3) and C(5k – 1, 5k) are collinear.
Solution:
Points Ask + 1, 2k), B (3k, 2k + 3) and C (5k – 1, 5k) are collinear
∴ Area of ∆ABC = 0

Question 23.
If the point P(x, y) is equidistant from the points A(a + b, b – a) and B(a – b, a + b). Prove that bx = ay.
Solution:
Given, PA = PB or (PA)² = (PB)²
(a + b – x)² + (b – a – y)² = (a – b – x)² + (a + b – y)²
⇒ (a + b)² + x² – 2ax – 25x + (b – a)² + y² – 2by + 2ay
⇒ (a – b)² + x² – 2ax + 2bx + (a + b)² + y² – 2ay – 2by
⇒ 4ay = 4bx or bx = ay
Hence proved.

Question 24.
If the point C(-1, 2) divides internally the line segment joining the points A(2, 5) and B(x, y) in the ratio of 3 : 4, find the value of x² + y².
Solution:

Question 25.
In the given figure, ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle of side 3 units. Find the coordinates of the other two vertices.
Solution:

Since AB = BC = AC = 3 units
∴ Co-ordinates of B are (5, 0)
Let co-ordinates of C be (x, y)
AC² = BC²
[∵ ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle]
Using distance formula
⇒ (x – 2)² + (y – 0)² = (x – 5)² + (y – 0)²
⇒ x²+ 4 – 4x + y = x²+ 25 – 10x + y² 6x = 21
⇒ x = \(\frac{21}{6}\) = \(\frac{7}{2}\)
Again (x – 2)² + (y – 0)² = 9

Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Find the value of ‘k”, for which the points are collinear: (7, -2), (5, 1), (3, k).
Solution:
Let the given points be
A (x₁, y₁) = (7, -2), B (x₂, Y₂) = (5, 1) and C (x₃, y₃) = (3, k)
Since these points are collinear therefore area (∆ABC) = 0
⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\) [x₁(y₂ – Y₃) + x₂(y₃ – y₁) + x₃(y₁ – y₂)] = 0
⇒ x₁(y₂ – y₃) + x₂(y₃ – y₁) + x₃(y₁ – y₂) = 0
⇒ 7(1 – k) + 5(k + 2) + 3(-2 -1) = 0
⇒ 7 – 7k + 5k + 10 – 9 = 0
⇒ -2k + 8 = 0
⇒ 2k = 8
⇒ k = 4
Hence, given points are collinear for k = 4.

Question 2.
Find the area of the triangle formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of the triangle whose vertices are (0, -1), (2, 1) and (0, 3). Find the ratio of this area to the area of the given triangle.
Solution:
Let A (x₁, y₁) = (0, -1), B (x₂, y₂) = (2, 1), C (x₃, y₃) = (0, 3) be the vertices of ∆ABC.
Now, let P, Q, R be the mid-points of BC, CA and AB, respectively.
So, coordinates of P, Q, R are

Ratio of ar (∆PQR) to the ar (∆ABC) = 1 : 4.

Question 3.
Find the area of the quadrilateral whose vertices, taken in order, are (-4, -2), (-3, -5), (3, -2) and (2, 3).
Solution:

Let A(4, -2), B(-3, -5), C(3, -2) and D(2, 3) be the vertices of the quadrilateral ABCD.
Now, area of quadrilateral ABCD
= area of ∆ABC + area of ∆ADC

Question 4.
A median of a triangle divides it into two triangles of equal areas. Verify this result for ∆ABC whose vertices are A (4,-6), B (3, -2) and C (5, 2).
Solution:
Since AD is the median of ∆ABC, therefore, D is the mid-point of BC.

Hence, the median divides it into two triangles of equal areas.

Question 5.
Find the ratio in which the point P (x, 2), divides the line segment joining the points A (12, 5) and B (4, -3). Also find the value of x.
Solution:

The ratio in which p divides the line segment is \(\frac{3}{5}\), i.e., 3 : 5.

Question 6.
If A (4, 2), B (7, 6) and C (1, 4) are the vertices of a ∆ABC and AD is its median, prove that the median AD divides into two triangles of equal areas.
Solution:
Given: AD is the median on BC.
⇒ BD = DC
The coordinates of midpoint D are given by.

Hence, AD divides ∆ABC into two equal areas.

Question 7.
If the point A (2, -4) is equidistant from P (3, 8) and Q (-10, y), find the values of y. Also find distance PQ.
Solution:
Given points are A(2, 4), P(3, 8) and Q(-10, y)
According to the question,
PA = QA

Question 8.
The base BC of an equilateral triangle ABC lies on y-axis. The coordinates of point Care (0, -3). The origin is the mid-point of the base. Find the coordinates of the points A and B. Also find the coordinates of another point D such that BACD is a rhombus.
Solution:
∵ O is the mid-point of the base BC.
∴ Coordinates of point B are (0, 3). So,
BC = 6 units Let the coordinates of point A be (x, 0).
Using distance formula,

∴ Coordinates of point A = (x, 0) = (3√3, 0)
Since BACD is a rhombus.
∴ AB = AC = CD = DB
∴ Coordinates of point D = (-3√3, 0).

Question 9.
Prove that the area of a triangle with vertices (t, t-2), (t + 2, t + 2) and (t + 3, t) is independent of t.
Solution:
Area of a triangle = \(\frac{1}{2}\) [x₁(y₂ – y₃) + x₂(y₃ – y₁) + x₃(y₁ – y₂)]
Area of the triangle = \(\frac{1}{2}\)[t + 2 – t) + (t + 2) (t – t + 2) + (t + 3) (t – 2 – t – 2)]
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) [2t + 2t + 4 – 4t – 12 ]
= 4 sq. units
which is independent of t.
Hence proved.

Question 10.
The area of a triangle is 5 sq units. Two of its vertices are (2, 1) and (3, -2). If the third vertex is (\(\frac{7}{2}\), y), find the value of y.
Solution:
Given: ar(∆ABC) = 5 sq. units

Question 11.
The coordinates of the points A, B and Care (6, 3), (-3,5) and (4,-2) respectively. P(x, y) is any point in the plane. Show that \(\frac { ar(∆PBC) }{ ar(∆ABC) } \) = \(\frac{x+y-2}{7}\)
Solution:
P(x, y), B(-3, 5), C(4, -2), A(6, 3)

Question 12.
In Fig. 6.32, the vertices of ∆ABC are A(4, 6), B(1, 5) and C(7, 2). A line-segment DE is drawn to intersect the sides AB and AC at D and E respectively such that \(\frac{A D}{A B}=\frac{A E}{A C}=\frac{1}{3}\) Calculate the area of ∆ADE and compare it with area of ∆ABC.
Solution:

\

Question 13.
If a = b = 0, prove that the points (a, a²), (b, b²) (0, 0) will not be collinear.
Solution:
∵ We know that three points are collinear if area of triangle = 0
∴ Area of triangle with vertices (a, a²), (b, b²) and (0, 0)

∵ Area of ∆ ≠ 0
∴ Given points are not collinear.

Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Extra Questions HOTS

Question 1.
The line joining the points (2, 1) and (5, -8) is trisected by the points P and Q. If the point P lies on the line 2x – y + k = 0, find the value of k.
Solution:

As line segment AB is trisected by the points P and Q.
Therefore,
Case I: When AP : PB = 1 : 2.

⇒ P (3, -2)
Since the point P (3,-2) lies on the line
2x – y + k = 0 =
⇒ 2 × 3-(-2) + k = 0
⇒ k = -8

Case II: When AP : PB = 2 : 1.

Coordinates of point P are

Since the point P(4, -5) lies on the line
2x – y + k = 0
∴ 2 × 4-(-5) + k = 0
∴ k = -13

Question 2.
Prove that the diagonals of a rectangle bisect each other and are equal.
Solution:

Let OACB be a rectangle such that OA is along x-axis and OB is along y-axis. Let OA = a and OB = b.
Then, the coordinates of A and B are (a,0) and (0, b) respectively.
Since, OACB is a rectangle. Therefore,
AC = OB
⇒ AC = b
Also, OA = a
⇒ BC = a
So, the coordinates of Care (a, b).

∴ OC = AB.

Question 3.
In what ratio does the y-axis divide the line segment joining the point P (4, 5) and Q (3, -7)?
Also, find the coordinates of the point of intersection.
Solution:
Suppose y-axis divides PQ in the ratio k : 1. Then, the coordinates of the point of division are|

Question 4.
Find the centre of a circle passing through the points (6, -6), (3, -7) and (3, 3).
Solution:
Let O(x, y) be the centre of circle. Given points are A(6, -6), B(3, -7) and C(3, 3).

Question 5.
If the coordinates of the mid-points of the sides of a triangle are (1, 1), (2, – 3) and (3, 4). Find its centroid.
Solution:

Let P(1, 1), Q(2, -3), R(3, 4) be the mid-points of sides AB, BC and CA respectively, of triangle ABC. Let A(x₁, y₁), B(x₂, y₂) and C(x₃, y₃) be the vertices of triangle ABC. Then, P is the mid-point of AB.

Question 6.
Determine the ratio in which the line 2x + y – 4 = 0 divides the line segment joining the points A(2, -2) and B(3, 7).
Solution:
Let P(x₁, y₁) be common point of both lines and divide the line segment joining A(2, -2) and B(3, 7) in ratio k : 1.

Question 7.
Show that ∆ABC with vertices A (-2, 0), B (2, 0) and C (0, 2) is similar to ∆DEF with vertices
D(4, 0) E (4, 0) and F (0, 4).
Solution:
Given vertices of ∆ABC and ∆DEF are

A(-2, 0), B(2, 0), C(0, 2), D(-4, 0), E(4, 0) and F(0, 4)


Here, we see that sides of ∆DEF are twice the sides of a ∆ABC.
Hence, both triangles are similar.

Here we are providing Online Education for The Making of a Scientist Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet, Extra Questions for Class 10 English was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-english/

Online Education for The Making of a Scientist Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet

The Making of a Scientist Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

The Making Of A Scientist Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why did viceroy butterflies copy monarchs?
Answer:
Viceroy butterflies copied monarchs because monarchs do not taste good to birds. Viceroy butterflies on the other hand taste good to birds. So, the more they look similar to monarchs, the less likely they are to become a bird’s prey. Thus they protect themselves.

Making Of A Scientist Extra Questions Question 2.
Why did Richard Ebright give up tagging butterflies?
Answer:
Richard Ebright lost interest in tagging butterflies as it was tedious and there was not much feedback. He could recapture only two butterflies in all the time he did it and they were not more than seventy five miles away from where he lived.

Making Of A Scientist Class 10 Extra Questions Question 3.
What are the ingredients in the making of a scientist?
Answer:
The author gave examples from Richard Ebright’s life to show the ingredients to make a scientist. Start with a first rate mind, add curiosity, and mix in the will to win for the right reasons.

The Making Of A Scientist Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
What was the common belief about the twelve tiny gold spots on a monarch pupa? What is the actual purpose of these tiny gold spots?
Answer:
These twelve tiny gold spots were believed to be ornamental only. The actual purpose of these tiny gold spots is to produce a hormone necessary for the butterfly’s full development.

The Making Of A Scientist Extra Questions Question 5.
“But there was one thing I could do-collect things”. What collection did Ebright make? When did he start making collection?
Answer:
Ebright began collecting butterflies, rocks, fossils and coins. He began as early as when he was in kindergarten. He collected with same determination that had marked all his activities.

The Making Of Scientist Extra Questions Question 6.
What other interests besides science did Richard Ebright pursue?
Answer:
Richard Ebright was a champion debater and public speaker. He was a good canoeist and all-around outdoor person. He was also an expert photographer, particularly of natural and scientific exhibits.

Making Of Scientist Extra Questions Question 7.
How did Richard Ebright’s mother help him to become a scientist?
Answer:
Ebright’s mother was his only companion. She used to encourage the child to learn whatever he wanted to learn. She took him on trips, brought him telescopes, microscopes, cameras, mounting materials and other such equipments.

Extra Questions Of The Making Of A Scientist Question 8.
Which book did Ebright mother get for him? How did it change his life?
Answer:
Ebright’s mother got a children’s book called The Travel of Monarch X’ for him. The book invited readers to help study butterfly migrations and actively participate in tagging butterflies to help in the research being conducted by Dr Frederick A. Urquhart. Ebright then went on to raise an entire flock of butterflies in the basement of his home. In this way the book managed to keep his enthusiasm in the study of butterflies alive for several years and opened the world of science to the young collector who never lost his scientific curiosity. ,

The Making Of A Scientist Questions And Answers Question 9.
Why did Richard Ebright raise a flock of butterflies?
Answer:
At the end of the book, “The travels of Monarch X’, readers were invited to help study butterfly migrations. They were asked to tag butterflies for research by Dr Frederick A. Urquhart. The butterfly collecting season around reading lasts six weeks in late summery. If Ebright went to chase them one by one, he could not catch very many. So he decided to raise a flock of butterflies.

The Making Of A Scientist Important Questions Question 10.
Mention any two Ebright contributions to the world of science.
Answer:
Ebright made valuable contributions to the world of science. He discovered an unknown insect hormone and also determined how the cell could read the blueprint of its DNA.

Making Of Scientist Class 10 Extra Questions Question 11.
What lesson did Ebright learn when he did not win anything at the science fair?
Answer:
When Ebright did not win anything at the science fair, he learnt a lesson that he needed to do real experiments, not simply make a neat display. His entry was slides of frog tissues which he showed under a microscope.

The Making Of Scientist Class 10 Extra Questions Question 12.
What lesson does Ebright learn when he does not win anything at a science fair?
Answer:
Ebright realizes that were display of his collection does not mean science. To win at a science fair he will have to do real experiments and prove his worth.

Question 13.
What experiments and projects does he then undertake?
Answer:
He then undertakes the projects and experiments to find out what actually causes the viral disease that kills nearly all Monarch caterpillars. He then works on a project to test the theory that viceroy butterflies copy monarchs to survive.

Question 14.
What are the qualities that go into the making of a scientist?
Answer:
The author mentions three qualities that go into the making of a scientist—a first-rate mind, curiosity, and the will to win for the right reasons. Richard Ebright was a very intelligent student. He was also a champion debater, a public speaker, a good canoeist and an expert photographer. He always tried to put that extra effort in his work. He was competitive, but for the right reasons. From the very beginning, he had a driving curiosity along with a bright mind; and it was this curiosity that ultimately led him to his theory about cell life.

The Making of a Scientist Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Although Richard does not win anything at the science fair but it was a stepping stone for his success. With reference to the story ‘The Making of a Scientist’ of the above statement, give your comments whether competitions are for winning sake or to give your best at work.
Answer:
It is true, no one can deny the fact that every person wants to be a winner. Each has basic wish to reach ‘ at the top. For that many competitions are organised at various levels. But still we must accept that all cannot be winners. Participation is more important than winning. The participant should work hard to reach their level best. Failures should not make us disheartened and best way to overcome failure is to learn through our mistakes. We cannot deny that experimentation and learning are stepping stones to our success. So we should try to give our best.

Question 2.
Besides curiosity a number of other values are required to become a successful scientist. Explain with reference to the chapter, ‘The Making of a Scientist’.
Answer:
From very young age Richard Ebright was competitive and put in extra effort with curiosity for the right reason to win. But his mother was always very dedicated and made his spirits rise high. He did not lose heart even after losing when he was in seventh grade. To him people around were very encouraging.

His mother’s encouragement was really an eye-opener. She took him on trips, bought him telescopes, microscopes, cameras, mounting materials and other equipment. Thus constant support of each other opened a new world. This helps us to conclude that hard work, parental guidance and keen observation are the qualities which help one to excel.

Question 3.
Ebright’s mother played a pivotal role in enabling him to become a successful scientist. This is true for most of our lives. Our parents help us a lot in our education. Their guidance is very important in what we become in later life. Based on your reading of the story how did Ebright’s mother help him in becoming a scientist?
Answer:
Parents play a pivotal role in determining not just our behaviour but also our future in most cases. They are the ones who teach us wrong from right. For most of us, parents are our role models. Ebright’s mother supported her son in becoming a scientist. She gave him an intensive training. She took him on trips, bought him telescopes, microscopes, cameras, mounting materials and other equipments.

She used to keep her son busy. If she found him sitting idle, she would find work for him-not physical work, but learning things. His mother was very supportive. She wrote to Dr Urquhart also so that her son could be busy in research activity. She helped her son a lot. She inspired him to explore new things and instilled a sense of discovery into her child.

Question 4.
To participate in the competition is more necessary than to win a prize. Explain this statement in the light of Ebright’s participation at the country science fair.
Answer:
We know very well to win is a human nature. Everyone wants to get a winning place everywhere. Our life is full of different competitions at different levels. In these, competitions everyone of us wants to become a winner. But it is always not possible. When we enter any competition, we feel a great zeal. We try our best to get the top position there. But if we don’t get or achieve our goal, we feel disappointed.

Great thinkers have said that participation is more important than winning. The same is proved in Ebright success. Richards Ebright participated in the country science fair, but he lost. There he showed slides of frog tissues. He realised that he should have done some real experiments to be a winner. If he did not participate in that competition, the result might have been different.

Question 5.
How can one become a scientist, an economist, a historian…? Does it simply involve reading t many books on the subject? Does it involve observing, thinking and doing experiments?
Answer:
Reading books is just one aspect of learning. This is an exercise in information gathering. It is how your brain processes the information that affects the degree of learning. The first and the foremost criteria to become a genius in one’s chosen field is to have great curiosity and unending hunger to discover more, Next criteria is a sense of closely observing the things, which further helps you to correlate your findings with what you see or experience in the real world. Experiments are must to test your findings against possible variables and in real life situations. And last but not the least, it is an urge, a strong desire to work really hard on your area of interest.

Question 6.
You must have read about cells and DNA in your science books. Discuss Richard Ebright’s work in light of what you have studied. If you get an opportunity to work like Richard Ebright on projects and experiments, which field would you like to work on and why?
Answer:
Ebright’s work is directly related to Biology. Discovery of a cell’s structure has helped the scientific community ! to understand how the organisms function and grow. This has also helped other scientists to discover how disease causing organisms attack us and grow inside our; body. DNA fingerprints help police to pinpoint to the real culprit. This could not have been possible until DNA was discovered. Monarch I butterflies present an amazing example of a tiny creature migrating thousands of miles from North America to the rainforests of Amazon. Some day we can be in a position to develop as a sturdy and reliable navigation system as that of the Monarch butterflies.

Question 7.
Children everywhere wonder about the world around them. The questions they ask are the beginning of scientific inquiry. Given below are some questions that children in India have
asked professor Yash Pal and Dr Rahul Pal as reported in their book, Discovered Questions?
(i) What is DNA fingerprinting? What are its uses?
(ii) How do honeybees identify their own honeycombs?
(iii) What does rainfall in drops?
Can you answer these questions? You will find professor Yash Pal’s and Dr Rahul Pal’s answers
(as given in Discovered Questions) on Page 75.
Answer:
Classroom activities and self attempt. You may try to find answers to these questions. However Prof. Yash Pal’s answers are given below.

(i) DNA exists as strands of bases that carry genetic information specific to each living thing. The sequence of bases of DNA in each of our cells is the same, but differs from that of any differences make the DNA break at different places when certain protein called enzymes are added to it, resulting in smaller DNA fragments of different sizes. These fragments migrate at different rates in an electric field, resulting in a unique pattern: This pattern is referred to as a DNA fingerprint.

Our DNA is inherited from our parents. Some parts come from the father and some from the mother. DNA fingerprinting can help identify percentage, since a son or a daughter would always exhibit a pattern identifiable as coming from both parents. DNA fingerprinting analysis is very useful in forensic science: from a single hair or tiny spot of blood. It is possible to prove the innocence or guilt of a murder suspect.

Similarly, it is also possible to identify human remains after violent accidents have caused disfigurement. It has been suggested that in the not-so-distant future, a DNA fingerprinting profile of the individual will have to accompany applications for an ID card, a bank account and a driving license. Human right groups say this type of “genetic profiling” constitutes an invasion of privacy. As with a lot of new technology, DNA fingerprinting also has a potential for abuse.

(ii) Honeybees are very sophisticated at position, location and navigation. It is known that they use the sun as a guide. They also appear to have a good memory. They convey the information of finding of food to the hive through an amazingly clever dance language. The dance indicates the direction and distance of the food source with respect to the direction of the sun in the sky! If it is dark inside the hive and a light bulb is switched on the dance is modified to include the light bulb as a new reference direction! Since bees have pictorial memory of some sort, a direction-finding mechanism and a way of reckoning distance, they are probably better equipped for getting back home than any of us!

(iii) Rain is the result of condensation of vapour when the air is cooled below the dew point. All the vapour in a cloud cannot condense at the same time and turn into a large pool of water. Pockets of air move up independently and slowly cool till condensation begins and water droplets form. It is believed that most raindrops start out as tiny ice crystals so tiny that they float down, slowly accretion of more moisture on the way; at lower altitudes, the crystals melt into water droplets. In colder climates, the crystals reach the ground as snowflakes.

Question 8.
You also must have wondered about certain things around you. Share these questions with your class, and try and answer them.
Answer:
Classroom activities and self-attempt
Yes, I also must have wondered about certain things around me. These questions are:

• How does a fruit ripe?
• How do trees give us oxygen etc?
• How does the sky colour change as soon as the sunsets.
  (to answer these question, you may discuss with your science teacher).