MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Chapter 15 सूरदास के पद with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Chapter 15 सूरदास के पद with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Vasant Chapter 15 सूरदास के पद with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided सूरदास के पद Class 8 Hindi MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Hindi Chapter 15 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

सूरदास के पद Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Class 8 Hindi Chapter 15 MCQ Question 1.
कृष्ण माता से क्या पूछ रहे हैं?
(a) वे कब ग्वाल बाल के साथ खेलने जाएँगे
(b) माँ उन्हें कब माखन-रोटी देगी
(c) उनकी चोटी कब बढ़ेगी।
(d) वे कब सखा के साथ खेलने जाएँगे

Answer

Answer: (c) उनकी चोटी कब बढ़ेगी।


Surdas Ke Pad Class 8 MCQ Question 2.
इस पद की रचना किसने की?
(a) सूरदास
(b) तुलसीदास
(c) कबीरदास
(d) रविदास

Answer

Answer: (c) कबीरदास


इस पद की रचना किसने की?

Sur Ke Pad Class 8 MCQ Question 3.
कृष्ण को क्या खाना अच्छा लगता है?
(a) दूध-मलाई
(b) माखन-रोटी
(c) दही-दूध
(d) कच्चा दूध

Answer

Answer: (b) माखन-रोटी


Ncert Class 8 Hindi Chapter 15 MCQ Question 4.
गोपी ने यशोदा को किसकी शिकायत की?
(a) बलराम
(b) बाल सखा
(c) कृष्ण
(d) पड़ोसी की

Answer

Answer: (c) कृष्ण


Class 8 Hindi Chapter 15 Extra Questions Question 5.
निम्नलिखित में से किसकी सहायता से कृष्ण छीके तक पहुँच सके थे?
(a) मेज
(b) कुरसी
(c) ओखल
(d) बेंच

Answer

Answer: (c) ओखल


MCQ Questions For Class 8 Hindi Chapter 15 Question 6.
कृष्ण किस समय गोपियों के घर से मक्खन चुराते थे?
(a) प्रातः
(b) दोपहर
(c) शाम
(d) रात

Answer

Answer: (b) दोपहर


Class 8 Hindi Ch 15 MCQ Question 7.
कृष्ण गोपियों के घर से कहाँ से मक्खन चुराते थे?
(a) बड़े-बड़े मटकों से
(b) छीकें की हाँडी से
(c) बंद डिब्बों में से हाँडियों से
(d) रसोई घर में रखी

Answer

Answer: (b) छीकें की हाँडी से


Surdas Ke Pad Class 8 Extra Questions Question 8.
‘नागिन सी’ में किस अलंकार का प्रयोग हुआ है?
(a) उपमा
(b) रूपक
(c) अनुप्रास
(d) यमक

Answer

Answer: (a) उपमा


'नागिन सी' में किस अलंकार का प्रयोग हुआ है?

(1)

मैया, कबहिं बढ़ेगी चोटी?
किती बार मोहिं दूध पियत भई, यह अजहूँ है छोटी।
तू जो कहति बल की बेनी ज्यौं, ह्वै है लाँबी-मोटी।
काढ़त-गुहत न्हवावत जैहै, नागिनी सी भुइँ लोटी।
काँचौ दूध पियावत पचि-पचि, देति न माखन-रोटी।
सूर चिरजीवौ दोउ भैया, हरि-हलधर की जोटी।

Ch 15 Hindi Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
कवि एवं कविता का नाम लिखिए।

Answer

Answer:
कवि का नाम-सूरदास।
कविता का नाम-सूरदास के पद।


Surdas Ke Pad MCQ Class 8 Question 2.
कृष्ण माता यशोदा से क्या पूछ रहे हैं ?

Answer

Answer: श्रीकृष्ण यशोदा से पूछते हैं कि मेरी चोटी कब बड़ी होगी। मैं काफी दिनों से दूध पी रहा हूँ, फिर वह छोटी की छोटी ही है।


Question 3.
माता यशोदा ने कृष्ण को क्या बताया था?

Answer

Answer: माँ यशोदा ने बालक कृष्ण को यह बताया था कि दूध पीने से तेरी चोटी बलराम की तरह लंबी और मोटी हो जाएगी। यह काढ़ते गूंथते समय नागिन के समान दिखाई देगी।


Question 4.
कृष्ण माँ से चोटी के बारे में क्या-क्या कहते हैं? और क्या आग्रह करना चाहते हैं ?

Answer

Answer: कृष्ण अपनी माता से उलहाना देते हुए कहते हैं कि तुम रोज मुझे दूध पिलाती रहती हो और कहती हो कि मेरी चोटी बलराम भैया की तरह बड़ी हो जाएगी लेकिन यह तो अभी छोटी ही है। तुम कहते हो कि यह लंबी और मोटी हो जाएगी और कंघी करने या गूंथने के समय ज़मीन पर नागिन को भाँति लोटेगी लेकिन यह तो बढ़ती ही नहीं। यह लंबी हो जाए इसलिए तुम रोज़-रोज़ दूध पिला देती हो लेकिन माखन रोटी खाने को नहीं देती।


Question 5.
माँ यशोदा द्वारा किसकी जोड़ी को दीर्घायु होने की कामना की गई है?

Answer

Answer: माँ यशोदा द्वारा कृष्ण-बलराम की जोड़ी को दीर्घायु होने की कामना की गई है।


(2)

तेरे लाल मेरौ माखन खायौ।
दुपहर दिवस जानि घर सूनो ढूंढि-ढंढोरी आपही आयौ।
खोलि किवारि, पैठि मंदिर मैं, दूध-दही सब सखनि खवायौ।
ऊखल चढ़ि, सीके कौ लीन्हौ, अनभावत भुइँ मैं ढरकायौ।
दिन प्रति हानि होति गोरस की, यह ढोटा कौनैं ढंग लायौ।
सूर स्याम कौं हटकि न राखै तैं ही पूत अनोखौ जायौ।

Question 1.
कौन किसके पास क्या शिकायत लेकर गई?

Answer

Answer: एक गोपी माता यशोदा के पास कृष्ण की शिकायत लेकर आई कि उनके पुत्र ने अपने सखा के साथ घर में आकर सारा दही-माखन चोरी करके खा गया।


Question 2.
कृष्ण ने एक गोपी के घर में प्रकट क्या किया?

Answer

Answer: कृष्ण एक गोपी के घर में प्रवेश कर घर की साँकल खोलकर, उखल पर चढ़कर छीके पर रखा माखन सखा के साथ मिलकर खा गया और ज़मीन पर भी कुछ बिखेर दिया।


Question 3.
गोपी किस पर क्या आरोप लगाती है?

Answer

Answer: गोपी माता यशोदा पर आरोप लगाती है कि वह अपने बेटे कृष्ण को गोरस के नुकसान को बंद करने के लिए नहीं कहती है। उसने ऐसा नटखट बालक नहीं देखा है।


Question 4.
गोपी ने यशोदा को उलाहना किस प्रकार दिया?

Answer

Answer: गोपी यशोदा को उलाहना देती है कि कृष्ण ने उसके छींके पर रखी हांडी में सारा मक्खन निकालकर स्वयं खा लिया, अपने साथियों को भी खिला दिया और कुछ ज़मीन पर भी बिखेर दिया। वह दोपहर के सुनसान वक्त आया था और मौका पाते ही किवाड़ खोलकर सारा-दूध पी गया। उसके कारण प्रतिदिन हमारे दूध दही का नुकसान हो रहा है। यह तो विचित्र बालक है।


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Vasant Chapter 15 सूरदास के पद with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 8 Hindi सूरदास के पद MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided People as Resource Class 9 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

People as Resource Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

People As Resource Class 9 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following is the most labour absorbing sectors of the Indian economy?
(a) Primary sector
(b) tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector
(d) Private sector

Answer

Answer: (a) Primary sector


Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Which of the following is included in the primary sector?
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Tourism
(c) Forestry
(d) Communication

Answer

Answer: (c) Forestry


Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following is included in the tertiary sector?
(a) Fishing
(b) Trade
(c) Mining
(d) Health

Answer

Answer: (d) Health


Economics Class 9 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 4.
Which of the following is included in the secondary sector?
(a) Poultry farming
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Transport
(d) Quarrying

Answer

Answer: (b) Manufacturing


Class 9 People As Resource MCQ Question 5.
Investment in human capital can be made through
(a) Education
(b) Training
(c) Medical care
(d) All the three

Answer

Answer: (d) All the three


Economics Chapter 2 Class 9 MCQ Question 6.
The literacy rate during 2010-11 was
(a) 64%
(b) 74%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%

Answer

Answer: (b) 74%


Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 MCQ Online Test Question 7.
Which of the following sectors faces the problem of seasonal unemployment?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Service sector
(c) Trade
(d) IT sector

Answer

Answer: (a) Agriculture


MCQ Questions For Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 Question 8.
Infant mortality rate is the death of a child under
(a) One year
(b) Three, year
(c) Two year
(d) Four year

Answer

Answer: (a) One year


Ch 2 Economics Class 9 MCQ Question 9.
The workforce population includes people from 15 years to
(a) 59 years
(b) 62 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 65 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 59 years


People As A Resource Class 9 MCQ Question 10.
Which age group of children does the Sarva Siksha Abhiyan aim to promote education?
(a) 6 to 10 years
(b) 5 to 3 years
(c) 6 to 14 years
(d) 7 to 12 years

Answer

Answer: (c) 6 to 14 years


Which age group of children does the Sarva Siksha Abhiyan aim to promote education?

Chapter 2 Economics Class 9 MCQ Question 11.
The number of females per thousand males refers to :
(a) Sex Ratio
(b) Literacy Rate
(c) Infant Mortality Rate
(d) Birth Rate

Answer

Answer: (a) Sex Ratio


Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 MCQs Question 12.
Decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) of a country signifies:
(a) Increase in life expectancy
(b) Increase in GNP
(c) Economic development of a country
(d) Increase in number of colleges in a country

Answer

Answer: (a) Increase in life expectancy


Class 9 Eco Ch 2 MCQ Question 13.
What is the life expectancy in India as per the census of 2000?
(a) 72 years
(b) 53 years
(c) 64 years
(d) 80 years

Answer

Answer: (c) 64 years


Economics Ch 2 Class 9 MCQ Question 14.
Which one of the following is considered important to create a ‘virtuous cycle’ by the parents?
(a) To sand their children to the school
(b) To provide goods food to their children
(c) To join their children in corporate schools
(d) To take care of the health and education of their children

Answer

Answer: (d) To take care of the health and education of their children


Class 9th Economics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 15.
Which one from the following is the most labour absorbing sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Fisheries
(c) Poultry farming
(d) Mining

Answer

Answer: (a) Agriculture


Question 16.
What is the aim of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan?
(a) To provide elementary education to women
(b) To provide elementary education to the rural poor
(c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years
(d) To provide elementary education to the urban poor

Answer

Answer: (c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years


Question 17.
What is the expended form of PHC
(a) Public Health Club
(b) Private Health Club
(c) Primary Health Centre
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Primary Health Centre


Question 18.
What is the sex-ratio of India According to 2001 census, :
(a) 921 females per 1000
(b) 930 females per 1000
(c) 928 females per 1000
(d) 933 females per 1000

Answer

Answer: (b) 930 females per 1000


Question 19.
If a person cannot find jobs during some months of the year, which type of employment is this called?
(a) Structural unemployment
(b) Cyclical unemployment
(c) Seasonal unemployment
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Seasonal unemployment


Question 20.
The persons who are not working by their own willing is covered under
(a) seasonal unemployment
(b) disguised unemployment
(c) educated unemployment
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) none of the above


Question 21.
Where is Seasonal unemployment found
(a) urban areas
(b) rural areas
(c) in remote areas
(d) both in rural and urban areas

Answer

Answer: (b) rural areas


Question 22.
The quality of population depends on
(a) literacy rate
(b) health
(c) skill
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above


Question 23.
Which one from the following is the primary sector activities
(i) Forestry
(ii) Poultry farming
(iii) Animal husbandry
(iv) Manufacturing
(a) (i)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) (i), (ii), (iii)


Question 24.
Infant mortality rate refers to the death of a child under the age of
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 4 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 year


Infant mortality rate refers to the death of a child under the age of

Question 25.
The scheme for the establishment of residential schools to impart education to talented children from rural areas is
(a) Kendriya Vidyalayas
(b) Navodaya Vidyalayas
(c) Sarvodaya Vidyalayas
(d) None of the aboves

Answer

Answer: (b) Navodaya Vidyalayas


Question 26.
What is India’s position in scientifically and technically manpower in the world?
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth

Answer

Answer: (c) third


Question 27.
Which one from the following is include in Secondary sector includes
(a) trade
(b) marketing
(c) manufacturing
(d) education

Answer

Answer: (c) manufacturing


Question 28.
Increase in longevity of life is an indicator of
(a) good quality of life
(b) improvement in health sector
(c) better HDI (Human Development Index)
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (a) good quality of life


Question 29.
Which of the following is a significant step towards providing basic education to the children in the age group of 6-14 years?
(a) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan
(b) Adult Education Programme
(c) Mid-day meal
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (a) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan


Question 30.
Why is literacy rate is low in the females?
(a) lack of equal education opportunities
(b) lack of transport facilities
(c) lack of infrastructure
(d) lack of income

Answer

Answer: (a) lack of equal education opportunities


Intext Activity Questions

Question 1.
Visit a village or colony near to your residential area and note down the various activities undertaken by the people of that village or colony.
If this is not possible, ask your neighbour what is their profession? In which of the three sectors will you categorise their work?
Say whether these activities are economic or non-economic activities:

  1. Vilas sells fish in the village market.
  2. Vilas cooks food for his family.
  3. Sakai works in the private firm.
  4. Sakai looks after his younger brother and sister.
Answer

Answer:

  1. Economic activity
  2. Non-economic activity
  3. Economic activity
  4. Non-economic activity

Question 2.
Visit a nearby hospital, either government or private and note down the following details.
(i) How many beds are there in the hospital you have visited?
(ii) How many doctors are there in the hospital?
(iii) How many nurses work in that hospital?
Besides, try to gather the following additional information:
(i) How many hospitals are there in your locality?
(ii) How many dispensaries are there in your locality?

Answer

Answer: Do it yourself.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding People as Resource CBSE Class 9 Economics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following has helped to earn or been a major source of foreign exchange for the IT industry?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
(b) Software Technology Parks of India
(c) Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
(d) Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)
Answer:
(d) Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)

Explanation: Business process outsourcing (BPO) is a method of subcontracting various business-related operations to third-party vendors. This delegates the roles and responsibilities and has been in huge demand. This has earned huge reserves of foreign exchange for the IT industry.

Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 2.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the National Jute Policy of 2005?
(a) Creating awareness about the use of biodegradable materials and packaging
(b) Ensuring good prices to the jute farmers
(c) Increasing the productivity of raw material
(d) Improving the quality of Jute
Answer:
(a) Creating awareness about the use of biodegradable materials and packaging Explanation: In 2005, National Jute Policy was formulated with the objective of increasing productivity, improving quality, ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing the yield per hectare.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Air pollution is caused by which of the following:
(a) Organic and inorganic industrial effluents poured into water bodies.
(b) Presence of high proportion of sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and air-borne particulate materials.
(c) Waste thrown on grounds
(d) Unwanted sound waves from industries, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills.
Answer:
(b) Presence of high proportion of sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and air-borne particulate materials.

MCQ Of Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 4.
Which of the following is a negative effect of industrialisation?
(a) Economic growth and Globalisation
(b) Pollution and Environmental degradation
(c) Foreign exchange earnings
(d) Rapid urbanisation
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

MCQ On Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 5.
What was the aim of establishing industries in Tribal and Backward areas?
(a) Developing New Cities
(b) Bringing down Regional Disparities
(c) Eradication of Unemployment and Poverty
(d) Quality Production
Answer:
(b) Bringing down Regional Disparities

Class 10 Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 6.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Export of manufactured goods expands
(a) Mass production
(b) Quality production
(c) Trade and Commerce
(d) Industry
Answer:
(c) Trade and Commerce

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQs Question 7.
The trend of growth rate in manufacturing over the last decade has been around per cent per annum.
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 7
Answer:
(d) 7

Explanation: The desired growth rate over the next decade is 12 per cent. Since 2003, manufacturing is once again growing at the rate of 9 to 10 per cent per annum.

Manufacturing Industries MCQ Class 10 Question 8.
What are basic or key industries?
(a) An industry which supplies their products as raw materials to manufacture other goods.
(b) An industry which produces goods for direct use by consumers.
(c) An industry defined with reference to the maximum investment.
(d) An industry that uses light raw materials and produces light goods.
Answer:

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
TISCO, Bajaj Auto Ltd, Dabur Industries belong to which of the following types of industries?
(a) Cooperative industry
(b) Joint sector
(c) Public sector
(d) Private sector
Answer:
(d) Private sector

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following is an important spinning centre of the country?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(a) Gujarat

Explanation: Spinning continues to be centralised in Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.

Class 10 Geography Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 11.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option with regards to India’s production of different goods.
Raw Jute- …………………..; Steel – Second Largest
(a) Least
(b) Second Largest
(c) Largest
(d) Third largest
Answer:
(c) Largest

Explanation: India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands at second place as an exporter after Bangladesh.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Question 12.
India was the largest producer of steel in the world in which of the following years?
(a) 2010
(b) 2020
(c) 2004
(d) 2016
Answer:

MCQ Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 13.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
…………….. has gained popularity as a substitute of steel, copper, zinc and lead in a number of industries.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Pyrite
(c) Bronze
(d) Iron ore
Answer:
(a) Aluminium

Explanation: Aluminium is light, resistant to corrosion, a good conductor of heat, malleable and becomes strong when it is mixed with other metals. That is why it has been considered a perfect substitute of steel, copper and lead.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 14.
Which of the following compounds are manufactured by Inorganic Chemicals?
(a) Pharmaceuticals
(b) Synthetic Rubber
(c) Dye
(d) Caustic Soda
Answer:
(d) Caustic Soda

Explanation: Inorganic chemicals comprise of sulphuric acid (used to manufacture fertilisers, synthetic fibres, plastics, adhesives, paints, dyes stuffs), nitric acid, alkalies, soda ash and caustic soda.

Manufacturing Industries MCQ Questions Question 15.
Which of the following compounds are manufactured or produced by Organic Chemicals?
(a) Cement
(b) Nitric Acid
(c) Synthetic rubber
(d) Metals
Answer:
(c) Synthetic rubber

Explanation: Organic chemicals include petrochemicals and help synthetic fibers, synthetic rubber, plastics, dye-stuffs, drugs and pharmaceuticals.

Question 16.
Which of the following compounds involved isn fertilising has to be completely imported because it is not found anywhere in India?
(a) Phosphate
(b) Ammonium sulphate
(c) Potash
(d) Nitrogenous fertilisers
Answer:

Question 17.
Which of the following cities has emerged as the electronic capital of India?
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Mumbai
(d) Gurgaon
Answer:
(b) Bengaluru

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Question 18.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Wastes from nuclear power plants, nuclear and weapon production facilities cause
(a) Cancers, birth defects and Miscarriages
(b) Weight, Height related issues
(c) Viral diseases
(d) Hair Fall and other Bacterial diseases
Answer:
(a) Cancers, birth defects and Miscarriages

Question 19.
Which gas produces air pollution?
(a) Sulphur dioxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Argon
Answer:
(a) Sulphur dioxide

Explanation: Air pollution is caused by the presence of a high proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide. Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles like dust, sprays mist and smoke.

Question 20.
Which one of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Jute
(d) Steel
Answer:
(a) Aluminium

Explanation: There are 8 aluminium smelting plants in the country located in Odisha, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

Related Theory
Nalco and Balco are famous plants located in Odisha.

Question 21.
The first cement plant was set up in Chennai in the year:
(a) 1901
(b) 1902
(c) 1903
(d) 1904
Answer:
(d) 1904

Related Theory
There are 128 large plants and 332 mini cement plants in the country.

Question 22.
Which of the following industry uses limestone as a raw material?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Sugar
(d) Jute
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Question 23.
Which one of the following industries is the second most important metallurgical industry in India?
(a) Chemical Industry
(b) Aluminium Smelting
(c) Iron and Steel Industry
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Aluminium Smelting

Explanation: Aluminium is light, resistant to corrosion, a good conductor of heat, it is malleable and is used for manufacturing aircraft, utensils, and wires.

Question 24.
Which of the following metal has gained popularity as a substitute of steel, copper, zinc and lead in a number of industries?
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) Aluminium
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Aluminium

Question 25.
Which one of the following is a private sector industry?
(a) BHEL
(b) TISCO
(c) OIL
(d) SAIL
Answer:
(b) TISCO

Which one of the following is a private-sector industry?

Explanation: Private sector industries are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals for example TISCO, Bajaj Auto Ltd., Dabur Industries, etc.

Related Theory

  • BHEL and SAIL are public sector industries, owned and operated by government agencies.
  • OIL is a joint sector industry, jointly owned by private and public sectors.

Question 26.
Which of the following industry is an example of basic industry?
(a) Copper Smelting
(b) Aluminium Smelting
(c) Iron and Steel Industry
(d) All of these
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Question 27.
Which of the following country is the largest producer of iron and steel in the world?
(a) USA
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Russia
Answer:
(c) China

Explanation: China is also the world’s largest consumer of steel.

Question 28.
Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector plants?
(a) NTPC
(b) SAIL
(c) TATA Steel
(d) MNCC
Answer:
(b) SAIL

Related Theory

  • SAIL stands for Steel Authority of India Ltd.
  • NMCC stands for National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council.
  • NTPC stands for National Thermal Power Corporation.
  • TATA Steelworks as an agency through which TISCO markets its produce.

Question 29.
Which one of the following raw materials is used to harden the steel?
(a) Limestone
(b) Manganese
(c) Coking coal
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Manganese

Question 30.
Iron and steel industry require iron ore, coking coal, and Limestone in the ratio of approximately:
(a) 4: 2:1
(b) 1: 2:4
(c) 4:1: 2
(d) 2:4:1
Answer:
(a) 4: 2:1

Related Theory
Some quantities of manganese are also required to harden the steel.

Question 31.
Tata Iron and Steel Company is an example of:
(a) Agricultural Sector
(b) Public Sector
(c) Private Sector
(d) Joint Sector
Answer:

Question 32.
Match the items of Column A with that of Column B?

Column A (Final Products) Column B (Raw Materials)
(A) Aluminium (I) Cotton
(B) Textiles (II) Limestone
(C) Yarn (III) Bauxite
(D) Cement (IV) Wool

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), D-(IV)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), D-(II)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), D-(IV)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), D-(IV)
Answer:
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), D-(II)

Identify
Identify the following on basis of the hints given.

Question 33.
Identify the following industry:
(1) It contributes approximately 3 per cent of the GDP.
(2) It is the third largest in Asia and occupies the twelfth place in the world in terms of its size.
(3) The industry is its own largest consumer.
Answer:
Chemical Industry

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Question 34.
Identify the following type of pollution:
(1) This types of pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and effluents discharged into rivers.
(2) Main pollutants are paper, pulp, chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum refineries, tanneries.
(3) Fly ash, phospho-gypsum and iron and steel slags are few major solid wastes.
Answer:

Question 35.
Identify the following type of pollution:
(1) This type of pollution results in irritation and anger.
(2) It can also cause hearing impairment, increased heart rate and blood pressure among other physiological effects.
(3) Possible pollutants are industrial and construction activities, machinery, factory equipment, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills also make a lot of noise.
Answer:
Noise Pollution

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 36.
The handspun khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a large-scale industry.
Answer:
False
The handspun khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a cottage industry.

Question 37.
BHEL, SAIL are examples of joint sector industries.
Answer:
False
BHEL, SAIL are examples of Public sector industries which are owned and operated by government agencies.

Explanation: In Joint Sector industries- both public and the private companies are joint owners of any agency. Maruti Suzuki India Ltd (Formerly known as Maruti Udyog Ltd.) is in joint sector while BHEL and SAIL are both owned by the government.

Question 38.
The first jute mill was set up near Mumbai in 1859 at Rishra
Answer:
False
The first jute mill was set up near Kolkata in 1859 at Rishra

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 39.
Lime stone, silica, alumina and gypsum are raw materials of the industry.
Answer:
Cement industry.

Question 40.
The industry is the basic industry since all the other industries, whether heavy, medium and tight, depend on it for machinery.
Answer:
Iron and steel industry.

Explanation: The iron and steel industry is known as the basic industry because all other industries are dependent on it for their machinery. All raw materials are also provided by the iron and steel industry.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Question 41.
The first successfuL textiLe mill was established in …………… in 1854. [Dikshci]
Answer:
Mumbal.

Explanation: The two worLd wars were fought in Europe. India was a British colony. There was a demand for cLoth in UK. Hence, they gave a boost to the development of the cotton textile industry and established first cotton mill in Mumbai.

Question 42.
The ………… industry is used for manufacturing aircraft, utensils and wires.
Answer:

Question 43.
Business Processes Outsourcing (BPO) is an example of the………….industry in India.
Answer:
Information technology and the Electronics industry

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 44.
Match the following industries from Column A with their locations from Column B:

Column A (Industries) Column B (Location)
(a) Textile mill (i) West Bengal (Kolkata)
(b) Jute mill (ii) Maharashtra (Mumbai)
(c) Cement industry (iii) Jharkhand (Jamshedpur)
(d) Iron and Steel (iv) Tamil Nadu (Chennai)

Answer:

Column A (Industries) Column B (Location)
(a) Textile mill (ii) Maharashtra (Mumbai)
(b) Jute mill (i) West Bengal (Kolkata)
(c) Cement industry (iv) Tamil Nadu (Chennai)
(d) Iron and Steel (iii) Jharkhand (Jamshedpur)

Question 45.
Match the folLowing Industries with their correct Locations:

Column A Column B
(a) Cotton Textile Industry (i) Bokaro
(b) Iron and Steel Plant (ii) Singrauli
(c) Software Park (iii) Surat
(d) Thermal Power Plant (iv) Noida

Answer:

Question 48.
Match the following types of industries from Column A with their examples from Column B:

Column A (Types of Industries) Column B (Examples)
(a) Cooperative sector industry (i) SAIL
(b) Public sector industry (ii) Oil India Ltd.
(c) Joint sector industry (iii) Bajaj Auto Ltd.
(d) Private sector industry (iv) Sugar mills in Maharashtra

Answer:

Column A (Types of Industries) Column B (Examples)
(a) Cooperative sector industry (iv) Sugar mills in Maharashtra
(b) Public sector industry (i) SAIL
(c) Joint sector industry (ii) Oil India Ltd.
(d) Private sector industry (iii) Bajaj Auto Ltd.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 6

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 47.
Assertion (A): Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries or petrochemical plants.
Reason (R): Organic chemicals are made of petrochemicals that cannot be transported over distances.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 48.
Assertion (A): There is a tendency for the mills to shift and concentrate in the southern and western states, especially in Maharashtra. Reason (R): Raw material is cheaper there.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Raw material or sugarcane has greater sugar content. That helps get greater results and better final products.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Question 49.
Assertion (A): Manufacturing activities also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income.
Reason (R): it replaces the secondary and tertiary sector activities.
Answer:

Question 50.
Assertion (A): Agriculture and industry are exclusive of each other.
Reason (R): They go hand in hand.
Answer:

Question 51.
Assertion (A): Internal demand for jute has been on the increase.
Reason (R): This is because of the government policy of mandatory use of plastic packaging. It replaces the secondary and tertiary sector activities.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: The rise in demand is because of the government policy of mandatory use of jute packaging.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Study the data given below and answer the question that follows:

Year Production (In million tonnes per annum)
2005  45.7
2006  49.4
2007  53.0
2008  57.8
2009  56.6
2010  68.3
2011  72.2

Through the data given above, identify which metal is being produced:
(a) Iron
(b) Aluminum
(c) Steel
(d) Bauxite
Answer:
(c) Steel

Explanation: In 2010-11 with 72.2 million tonnes of steel production, India ranked 4th among the world crude steel producers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more valuable products is called manufacturing. Do you know that paper is manufactured from wood, sugar from sugarcane, iron and steel from iron ore and aluminium from bauxite? Do you also know that some types of clothes are manufactured from yarn which itself is an industrial product? People employed in the secondary activities manufacture the primary materials into finished goods.
The workers employed in steel factories, cars, breweries, textile industries, bakeries etc. fall into this category. Some people are employed in providing services. In this chapter, we are mainly concerned with manufacturing industries which fall in the secondary sector. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Manufacturing sector is dependent upon:
(I) Primary Sector for Raw materials
(II) Tertiary Sector for Machinery
(III) Secondary Sector for Raw materials
(IV) Tertiary Sector for Banking, Transportation
(V) Quaternary Sector for Raw materials
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III)
(c) (I), (III) & (V)
(d) (I) & (IV)
Answer:

(B) Which of the following sectors do the workers employed in steel factories, cars, breweries, textile industries, bakeries belong to?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Quaternary Sector
Answer:
(b) Secondary Sector

Explanation: Workers employed in the factories, cars, breweries, textile industries, bakeries are involved in the manufacturing activities which belong to the Secondary Sector.

(C) Which of the following is not true about manufacturing industries?
(a) Manufacturing industries are very important for the economic prosperity of the country.
(b) Manufacturing industry activities fall under the tertiary sector.
(c) Manufacturing activities transform raw materials to finished goods.
(d) Manufacturing activities are the next step to agricultural activities.
Answer:
(b) Manufacturing industry activities fall under the tertiary sector.

(D) Which of the following raw material is also an industrial product?
(a) Cotton
(b) Wool
(c) Yarn
(d) Bauxite
Answer:
(c) Yarn

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Our manufactured goods must be at par in quality with those in the international market. Only then, will we be able to compete in the international market.
Over the last two decades, the share of the manufacturing sector has stagnated at 17 per cent of GDP – out of a total of 27 per cent for the industry which includes 10 per cent for mining, quarrying, electricity and gas. This is much lower in comparison to some East Asian economies, where it is 25 to 35 per cent. The trend of growth rate in manufacturing over the last decade has been around 7 per cent per annum. The desired growth rate over the next decade is 12 per cent. Since 2003, manufacturing is once again growing at the rate of 9 to 10 per cent per annum. With appropriate policy interventions by the government and renewed efforts by the industry to improve productivity, economists predict that manufacturing can achieve its target over the next decade. The National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (NMCC) has been set up with this objective. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) What is the criterion to fulfill for Indian goods to be able to compete in the international market?
(a) Indian goods should be less expensive
(b) Indian goods should be more expensive.
(c) The quality of Indian goods should be enhanced.
(d) The quality of Indian goods should be decreased.
Answer:
(c) The quality of Indian goods should be enhanced.

 What is the criterion to fulfill for Indian goods to be able to compete in the international market?

(B) What is the current share of contribution of the manufacturing sector to the Indian GDP?
(a) 17
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 27
Answer:
(a) 17

(C) How can we improve the productivity of the manufacturing sector?
(a) Reinvigorate the primary sector.
(b) Change the tertiary sector
(c) Policy interventions by the government
(d) Change the activities involved in the secondary sector
Answer:

(D) What is the difference between Indian and the East Asian economies with respect to the contribution of the Manufacturing Sector?
(a) Contribution is greater in the East Asian Economies.
(b) Contribution is lesser in the East Asian Economies.
(c) Contribution is equal in the East Asian Economies.
(d) There is no contribution in the East Asian Economies.
Answer:
(a) Contribution is greater in the East Asian Economies.
Explanation: The share of the manufacturing sector for the last two decades has stagnated at 17 per cent of GDP – out of a total of 27 per cent for the industry which includes 10 per cent for mining, quarrying, electricity and gas.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Organic chemicals include petrochemicals, which are used for manufacturing of synthetic fibers, synthetic rubber, plastics, dye¬stuffs, drugs and pharmaceuticals. Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries or petrochemical plants. The chemical industry is its own largest consumer. Basic chemicals undergo processing to further produce other chemicals that are used for industrial application, agriculture or directly for consumer markets. The fertilizer industry is centred around the production of nitrogenous fertilizers (mainly urea), phosphatic fertilizers and ammonium phosphate (DAP) and complex fertilizers which have a combination of nitrogen (N), phosphate (P), and potash (K).
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following compounds are not found in India?
(a) DAP
(b) N
(c) P
(d) K
Answer:
(d) K

(B) Which of the following industries is its own largest consumer?
(a) Fertilizer industry
(b) Chemical industry
(c) Cement Industry
(d) Automobile Industry
Answer:
(d) Chemical industry

Explanation: The chemical industry is its own largest consumer. Basic chemicals undergo processing to manufacture chemicals used for industrial application, agriculture or directly for consumer markets.

(C) Which of the following industries uses its own products as a raw material to produce products further?
(a) Fertilizer industry
(b) Iron and Steel Industry
(c) Cotton Industry
(d) Chemical Industry
Answer:
(d) Chemical Industry

(D) Why are the organic chemical plants located near oil refineries or petrochemical plants?
(a) These plants use petrochemicals which are found in specific places.
(b) These plants need specific locations to be established because they blast in the heat.
(c) These plants can only be located close to the oceans.
(d) These plants require airway transportation of the materials.
Answer:
(a) These plants use petrochemicals which are found in specific places.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
After an industrial activity starts, urbanisation follows. Sometimes, industries are located in or near the cities. Thus, industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand. Cities provide markets and also provide services such as banking, insurance, transport, labour, consultants and financial advice, etc. to the industry. Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres known as agglomeration economies. Gradually, a large industrial agglomeration takes place. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following statements supports the assertion that urbanisation and industrialisation go hand in hand?
(a) Urbanisation gives rise to new markets, industries fill these markets with products.
(b) Industrial activities retard urbanisation and in turn urbanisation retards industrialisation.
(c) Industries encourage establishment of satellite towns around the city.
(d) Urbanisation creates more industries but industries do not support urbanisation.
Answer:
(a) Urbanisation gives rise to new markets, industries fill these markets with products. Explanation: Urbanisation follows industrialisation and vice versa. Industrialisation stimulates urbanisation and with urbanisation, comes an increase in the number of industries in the area due to greater demand and improving lifestyles.

(B) What is the correct meaning of agglomeration economies?
(a) Many industries set up in rural centres.
(b) Industries are established in one area only
(c) Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres.
(d) Industries are set up in the rich part of the town.
Answer:

(C) Which of the following services are provided by cities to industries?
(I) Banking
(II) Accomodation
(ill) Lodging
(IV)Markets
(V) Labour
(VI) Raw materials
(VII) Water
(a) (I), (II) & (VI)
(b) (I) & (VII)
(c) (II), (III) & (V)
(d) (I), (II), (III), (IV) & (V)
Answer:
(d)(1), (II), (III), (IV) &(V)

(D) Find one word from the passage which means the same as the statement given below:
“Assemblage or mixture of things or objects”
(a) Economies
(b) Agglomeration
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Industrialisation
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why has the ‘National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council’ been set up?
Answer:
The NMCC was created to improve the growth rate in the manufacturing sector through policy interventions.

Question 2.
Suggest anyone measure to promote handspun/khadi in India.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Question 3.
Why is the ‘least cost’ known as a decision making factor for ideal location of an industry?
Answer:
The cost is the most important factor and has to be least to maximise profit. The place with least cost is the most decision making factor to choose an ideal location.

Question 4.
Classify industry on the basis of the bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods.
Answer:
On the basis of bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods, the industries are classified into:
(1) Heavy industries: For example, iron and steel.
(2) Light industries that use light raw materials and produce light goods: For exampLe, electrical industries.

Question 5.
What are the benefits of cities in industrialisation?
Answer:
Cities provide markets and provide services such as banking, insurance, transport, labour, consultants and financial advice etc. to the industry.

Question 6.
Name the places where most manufacturing units were located before independence.
Answer:
Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.

Question 7.
Mention where silk textile industries are located.
Answer:

Question 8.
What is the position of India in the production of gur and khandsari?
Answer:
India is the largest producer of gur and khandsari.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Question 9.
Give one example of an integrated steel plant.
Answer:
TISCO.

Question 10.
By which authority, the steel of all Public Sector Undertakings is marketed ?
Answer:
Steel Authority of India Ltd.

Question 11.
What is the main cause for rapid strides in the cement industry in the 1980-1990s ?
Answer:
Decontrol of price and distribution since 1989 used to make rapid strides in capacity, process, technology and production.

Question 12.
When was the first cement plant set up?
Answer:
1904

Question 13.
What is the precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country?
Answer:
Industrial development.

Question 14.
Give a few examples of consumer industries?
Answer:

Question 15.
Which country has the largest installed capacity of spindles in the world?
Answer:
China

Question 16.
Suggest any one way to promote the jute textile industry in India. [CBSE 2020,15]
Answer:
The jute textile industry can be improved by promoting jute packaging/jute products as environment friendly, biodegradable products and viable alternative to synthetic fibres.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Question 17.
Which industry is an example of joint sector industry?
Answer:
Oil India Limited is a joint sector industry.

Related Theory
Joint sector Industry are industries jointly owned by state and individual industrialists. They’re an example of Public-private partnership.

Question 18.
What is a basic industry?
Answer:
An industry which supply its products or raw materials to manufacture other goods is called a basic industry. Example: Iron and steel industry.

Explanation: Basic industries are also known as key industries. For example, aluminum smelting, copper smelting.

Question 19.
What is the full form of NMCC?
Answer:
National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council.

Related Theory
NMCC has been set up to increase productivity of manufacturers by incorporating appropriate policy interventions.

Question 20.
Name the only industry which is self reliant in its value chain.
Answer:
Textile industry is the only industry to be self- reliant and complete in the value chain – from raw material to the final products etc.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following statements is not true about the album cover “Dawn of the century”?
(a) The painting appeared on the cover of a music book published by E.T. Pauli in 1900.
(b) The centre of the picture represents the angel of progress, bearing the flag of the new century.
(c) She is gently perched on a wheel with wings, symbolising scientific inventions.
(d) Her flight is taking her into the future.
Answer:
(c) She is gently perched on a wheel with wings, symbolising scientific inventions.

Explanation: The wheel with wings symbolises time not scientific inventions. The painting appeared as the cover of a music book by publisher E.T. Pauli in the 1900s.

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following fictional characters was featured in the painting, Two Magicians?
(a) Popeye
(b) Romeo and Juliet
(c) Touchstone
(d) Aladdin
Answer:
(d) Aladdin

Explanation: Two Magicians, published on 26 January, 1901 appeared as a trade magazine over a hundred years ago. It featured Aladdin from the orient who built a beautiful palace with his magic lamp. The other was a modern mechanic, who with his modern tools weaves a new magic builds bridges, ships, towers and high-rise buildings. Aladdin is shown as representing the East and the past, the mechanic stands for the West and modernity.

Class 10 History Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which of the following is not a function of trade guiLds?
(a) They trained craftspeopte.
(b) They maintained control over production.
(c) They reguLated competition and prices.
(d) They produced metal goods.
Answer:
(d) They produced metaL goods.

Explanation: Trade guilds were not producers and manufacturers. They did not produce any goods, they were just professional guilds and other interest groups. They regulated competition, production and trained craftspeople.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQs Question 4.
Who was a Stapler?
(a) He spun the final clothes.
(b) He sorts wooL according to its fibre
(c) He gathers wool by pleating
(d) He dyes clothes.
Answer:

Class 10 Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Question 5.
………………. was the textiLe finishing centre.
(a) London
(b) Shanghai
(c) Delhi
(d) New York
Answer:
(a) London

The Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Question 6.
The symbol of the new era was ………..
(a) Steel
(b) Cotton
(c) Silk
(d) Iron
Answer:
(b) Cotton

Class 10 History Chapter 5 MCQ Question 7.
Invented the Steam Engine- Newcomen:
Improved upon the steam engine and patented it: ………..
(a) James Watt
(b) Richard Arkwright
(c) James Fuller
(d) James Hargreaves
Answer:
(a) James Watt

Related Theory
Richard Arkwnght created the Cotton Mill. James Hargreaves devised the spinning Jenny.

Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Question 8.
Which of the following reasons correctly describes the probLem that the American Civil War caused for Indian weavers?
(a) Indian weavers couLd not get sufficient supply of raw cotton of good quality.
(b) The Americans stopped suppLying raw cotton to India.
(c) America decreased their prices drastically and hence Indian goods were not in demand.
(d) American oversupplied raw cotton to Britain.
Answer:
(a) Indian weavers could not get sufficient supply of raw cotton of good quality. Explanation: Weavers could not get sufficient suppLy of raw cotton of good quality.

When the American Civil War broke out, cotton supplies from the US were cut off, Britain began heavily importing from India. This led to a severe rise in the price of raw cotton. Weavers were starved of supplies and had to buy raw cotton at exorbitant prices.

MCQ Of Chapter Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 9.
Which of the following was a label used by producers to advertise their products in India?
(a) Made in Delhi
(b) Made in Manchester
(c) Made in Vienna
(d) Made in London
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

MCQ On The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 10.
Choose the most appropriate option:
First Jute Mill- Bengal; First Cotton Mill-
(a) Surat
(b) Bombay
(c) Bengal
(d) Madras
Answer:
(b) Bombay

Explanation: The first cotton mill was set up in Bombay (Mumbai) in 1854. Around the same time jute mills were set in Bengal.

MCQ Of The Age Of Industrialisation Question 11.
The pattern of industrial change in India was conditioned by
(a) Colonial rule of Britain
(b) Weakness of the rulers of India
(c) Rampant Poverty in India
(d) Diverse provinces and their disjointed administrations
Answer:
(a) Colonial rule of Britain

MCQ Of History Chapter The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 12.
Richard Arkwright is associated with which of the following mills:
(a) Elgin Mill
(b) Iron and Steel Factory
(c) Jute Mill
(d) Cotton Mill
Answer:
(d) Cotton Mill

Explanation: Sir Richard Arkwright was an English inventor and a leading entrepreneur during the early Industrial Revolution.

He created the Cotton Mill which revolutionised cloth production.

Class 10 The Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Question 13.
Which of the following is not a European Managing agency?
(a) Bird Heiglers & Co.
(b) Peter Mcguire & Co.
(c) Andrew Yule
(d) Jardine Skinner & Co.
Answer:
(b) Peter Mcguire & Co.

Explanation: Peter Mcguire & Co is an American company.

The Age Of Industrialization Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
The sale of sarees was not affected by famines in India.
(a) Kanjeevaram Sarees
(b) Baluchari sarees
(c) Cotton Sarees
(d) Khadi Sarees
Answer:
(b) Baluchari Sarees

Explanation: Famines affected the demand of goods made from coarser fabrics. Fine fabrics like Baluchari silk were bought by the rich who could afford to buy it at any time of the year.

Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following reasons correctly explains the increased Indian industrial growth after the First World War?
(a) Britishers had begun opening new factories in India
(b) New technology was introduced
(c) India gained control of its mills and production houses
(d) There was a vast home market for Indian mills to supply since British economy was in ruins
Answer:
(d) There was a vast home market for Indian mills to supply since British economy was in ruins.

Explanation: British economy crumbled after the war. It could not recapture its position. In the meantime, Indian industries had started producing weLl and above for its home market. Local industrialists gradually consolidated their position.

Question 16.
When was the first weaving and spinning mill set up?
(a) 1878
(b) 1874
(c) 1873
(d) 1879
Answer:
(b) 1874

Question 17.
Which of the following countries could the term Occident refer to?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) America
(c) Iran
(d) India
Answer:
(b) America

Explanation: The term Occident refers to the countries west of Mediterranean Sea. Iran, India and Sri Lanka are all located east of Mediterranean Sea.

Question 18.
In 1911, 67 percent of Indian large industries were located in which of the following areas?
(a) Bengal and Bombay
(b) Surat and Bharuch
(c) Masulipatnam and Bengal
(d) Ahmedabad and Nagpur jute mill in Kolkata?
Answer:

Question 19.
…… was the first industrialised nation in the worLd.
(a) Britain
(b) India
(c) Finland
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) Britain

Question 20.
Who among the following set up the first jute mitt in Kotkata?
(a) J. N Tata
(b) Seth Hukumchand
(c) Dwarkanath Tagore
(d) Dinshaw Petit
Answer:
(b) Seth Hukumchand

Who among the following set up the first jute mitt in Kotkata?

Explanation: Fie was a Marwari businessman who traded with China and set up this mill in Kolkata (Calcutta) in 1917.

Question 21.
The spinning jenny was devised by
(a) TE Nicholson
(b) James Hargreaves
(c) William Bell Scott
(d) Will Thome
Answer:
(b) James Hargreaves

Explanation: Hargreaves invented the spinning jenny in 1764. This machine speeded up the spinning process and reduced labour demand.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Question 22.
Which one of the following alternatives is associated with the gomasthas?
(a) Traders
(b) Landlords
(c) Unpaid servants
(d) Paid supervisors
Answer:
(d) Paid Supervisors

Explanation: Gomasthas were paid servants employed by the British to supervise weavers, collect suppLies, and examine the quality of cloth.

Question 23.
Who among the following improved the steam engine produced by Newcomen?
(a) James Watt
(b) Matthew Boulton
(c) Henry Ford
(d) Graham Bell
Answer:

Question 24.
Which of the following groups of industries was the dynamic industries of England during its earliest phase of industrialisation?
(a) Cotton and metals
(b) Cotton and silk
(c) Silk and footwears
(d) Footwears and glass
Answer:
(a) Cotton and metals

Explanation: Cotton and metals which were developed as a result of the Industrial Revolution were the most important dynamic industries of England during its earliest phase of industrialization.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 25.
Identify the object:
(1) It was devised by James Hargreaves
(2) It reduced labour demand
(3) It speeded up the spinning process.
Answer:
The Spinning Jenny

Explanation: The Spinning Jenny worked by turning one single wheel a worker could set in motion a number of spindles and spin several threads at the same time.

Question 26.
Identify the object:
(1) They try to shape the minds of people and create new needs.
(2) Today we live in a world where they surround us.
(3) They appear in newspapers, magazines, hoardings, street walls, television screens.
Answer:
Advertisement

Explanation: Advertisements are used by the producers to promote their product, impress the customers and lure them into buying more. Advertisements make products appear desirable and necessary.

Question 27.
Identify the personality:
(1) He was generally an old and trusted worker.
(2) He got people from his village, ensured them jobs, helped them settle in the city and provided them money in times of crisis.
(3) He therefore became a person with some authority and power.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Correct and Rewrite/True-False
State whether the statements are true or false. If false, correct the statement.

Question 28.
The modern age appears as a wonderful time of spiritual progress.
Answer:
False
The modern age appears as a wonderful time of technological progress.

Explanation: The modern world is associated with rapid technological change and innovations, machines and factories, railways and steamships.

Question 29.
The pace of change in the ‘traditional’ industries was set by steam-powered cotton or metal industries in the 18th century.
Answer:
False.

The pace of change in the ‘traditional’ industries was not set by steam-powered cotton or metal industries.

Explanation: Despite these tremendous inventions, ordinary and small innovations were the basis of growth in many non- mechanised sectors such as food processing, building, pottery, glass work, tanning, furniture making, and production of implements.

Question 30.
The new industries replaced traditional industries easily in Britain.
Answer:

Question 31.
British in India began exporting opium to China and took tea from China to England.
Answer:
True

Question 32.
Technological changes did not spread dramatically across the industrial landscape.
Answer:
True

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 33.
The term orient refers to
Answer:
countries east to the Mediterranean Sea

Question 34.
Advertisements became a vehicle of the nationalist message of
Answer:
Swadeshi

Explanation: Indian manufacturers advertised the nationalist message of promoting the culture of the region. They wanted to imply that if an Indian cared for the nation, they should buy products that Indians produced.

Question 35.
In the 20th century, the coarser cloth was bought by the ………….. and its demand fluctuated violently.
Answer:
poor

Explanation: The demand of the cloth fluctuated because the poor people often did not have any money to buy these clothes regularly, especially during famines. They were finding it diffcult to even make their ends meet.

Question 36.
Machine-made goods were produced mainly for ………. in Victorian Britain.
Answer:
export to colonies

Explanation: The rich classes of Britain preferred handmade goods. To earn a stronghold over their colonies, the majority of the goods produced in Britain were exported to its colonies.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Question 37.
The first cotton mill in Bombay (Mumbai) came up in …………….
Answer:
1854

Question 38.
The port of ………………. lost its importance during Colonial rule in India.
Answer:

Question 39.
Surat on the coast connected India to the Gulf and Red Sea ports.
Answer:
Gujarat

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 History Chapter 5

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 40.
Assertion (A): When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they put labels on the cloth bundles.
Reason (R): The labels were used to make the customers feel positive and confident about buying these clothes. They were marks of quality.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: These labels were used to make the customers familiar with the name and place of production.

Question 41.
Assertion (A): With the expansion of railways, in England from the 1840s and in the colonies from the 1860s, the demand for iron and steel increased rapidly.
Reason (R): Iron and steel were used in making various parts of the trains and trams.
Answer:

Question 42.
Assertion (A): The most dynamic industries in Britain were cotton and metals.
Reason (R): There was no other material requirement at that time.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: These were the two most important industries in Britain. There were other industries like food processing, pottery, glass work, tanning, furniture making, and production of implements as well. Hence there was material requirement for other industries as well.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Question 43.
Assertion (A): The typical worker in the mid-nineteenth century was not a machine operator but the traditional craftsperson and labourer.
Reason (R): The new technology was very expensive and was accepted very slowly.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Labour was available in abundance and it was less expensive to work with traditional tools. SeasonaL employment saved a lot of money during off season. With machines, a lot of capital had to be invested.

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Wages were low in Victorian Britain.
Reason (R): Labour was in abundance.
Answer:

Question 45.
Assertion (A): The export of Indian yarn to China declined in 1906.
Reason (R): India began exporting more to Japan.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: The export declined because Japanese goods had filled the Chinese markets.

Question 48.
Assertion (A): Advertisements make products appear less desirable and unnecessary.
Reason (R): They try to shape the minds of people and create new needs.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: Advertisements help to make the products appear more desirable and necessary among the users.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the source and answer the question that follows:
In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, merchants from the towns in Europe began moving to the countryside, supplying money to peasants and artisans, persuading them to produce for an international market. With the expansion of world trade and the acquisition of colonies in different parts of the world, the demand for goods began growing. But merchants could not expand production within towns.
Why could the new merchants not set up business in the towns in Europe? Choose the most appropriate option.
(a) Rules forbade them.
(b) They were restricted by the monopoly of guilds and lack of demand of products.
(c) The powerful trade guilds and urban crafts restricted their entry and made it difficult for new merchants to start business in towns.
(d) The merchants did not want to trade with towns.
Answer:
(c) The powerful trade guilds and urban crafts restricted their entry and made it difficult for new merchants to start business in towns.

Explanation: Trade guilds did not allow the new merchants to set up their businesses in towns and cities. They had monopolised the markets of the towns.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Question 2.
Which of the following statements was true about European Managing Agencies?
(I) They established tea and coffee plantations
(II) They invested in mining, indigo and jute.
(III) They produced goods primarily for export trade and not for sale in India.
(IV) Till the First World War, European Managing Agencies controlled a large sector of Indian industries.
(a) (I), (II) & (IV) only
(b) (I) only
(c) (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

Explanation: European Managing Agencies dominated Indian production and markets for a long time. Three of them were Bird Heilgers & Co., Andrew Yule, and Jardine Skinner & Co. These agencies mobilised capital, set up joint- stock companies and managed them.

Question 3.
Which of the following causes led to the decline and collapse of the weaving industry in India?
(I) Export markets collapsed, local markets shrank in 1850s
(II) Indian products could not compete with cheap, machine-produced goods of Manchester
(III) Indian weavers did not have access to enough raw cotton supply
(IV) Factories in India began mass production of machine-goods and thus weavers lost their livelihoods
(a) (I) only
(b) (IV) only
(c) (II) & (III) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

Question 4.
Read the source and answer the question that follows:
Yet, till the First World War, industrial growth was slow. The war created a dramatically new situation. With British mills busy with war production to meet the needs of the army, Manchester imports into India declined. Suddenly, Indian mills had a vast home market to supply. As the war prolonged, Indian factories were called upon to supply war needs.
What items did Indian factories supply during the First World War?
(a) Guns and weapons
(b) Jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents, leather boots, horse and mule saddles
(c) Medicines for war patients
(d) Nuclear weapons
Answer:
(b) Jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents, leather boots, horse and mule saddles

Explanation: India was a leading textile producer during 18th and 19th centuries and hence had to fulfill textile related needs during war in Britain. Nuclear power had not been discovered by then.

Question 5.
Match the items in column A with that of Column B:

Column A

Column B

(A) Elgin Mill  (I) Madras
(B) Jute Mill  (II) Kanpur
(C) Cotton Mill  (III) Bengal
(D) Spinning and Weaving Mill  (IV) Bombay

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:
(c) (A)-(II),(B)-(III),(C)-(IV),(D)-(I)

Question 6.
Which of the following statements is true about the building industry?
(I) After the 1840s, building activity intensified in the cities.
(II) After the 1840s, building activity diminished in the cities.
(III) The number of workers employed in the transport industry doubled in the 1840s.
(IV) The number of workers employed in the transport industry halved in the 1840s.
(a) (I) & (IV) only
(b) (I) & (III) only
(c) (II) & (III) only
(d) II & IV only
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
By the turn of the nineteenth century, cotton weavers faced a new set of problems.
In 1772, Henry Patullo, a Company official, had ventured to say that the demand for Indian textiles could never reduce, since no other nation produced goods of the same quality. Yet by the beginning of the nineteenth century we see the beginning of a long decline of textile exports from India. In 1811-12 piece-goods accounted for 33 per cent of India’s exports; by 1850-51 it was no more than 3 per cent. Why did this happen? What were its implications?

As cotton industries developed in England, industrial groups began worrying about imports from other countries. They pressurised the government to impose import duties on cotton textiles so that Manchester goods could sell in Britain without facing any competition from outside.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which one of the following problems was not faced by cotton weavers in India?
(a) Their export market had collapsed due to high import duties levied by Britain.
(b) They did not have good quality cotton to produce goods due to civil war.
(c) Imported goods from Manchester were cheap.
(d) There were frequent strikes in Indian industries
Answer:

(B) Which of the following was appointed by British to supervise weavers?
(a) Jobber
(b) Gomastha
(c) Sepoys
(d) Munshis
Answer:

(C) …………….. was one of the main products exported by India to Britain among textiles.
(a) Silk
(b) Wool
(c) Khadi
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(d) Cotton

................. was one of the main products exported by India to Britain among textiles.

(D) What was the main reason behind the following incident?
In 1811-12 piece-goods accounted for 33 per cent of India’s exports; by 1850-51 it was no more than 3 per cent.
(a) There was a famine in India.
(b) To promote their products, British restricted the import of Indian goods.
(c) To export their own products, British stopped the mills from producing in India.
(d) Britain stopped using cotton textiles.
Answer:
(b) To promote their products, British restricted the import of Indian goods. Explanation: British imposed tariffs on Indian goods to promote their own goods. This made Indian goods very expensive.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the two industrialists of Bombay who built huge industrial empires during the nineteenth century.
Answer:
Dinshaw Petit, Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Question 2.
Define the term ‘Carding.
Answer:
Carding is the process in which fibres, such as cotton or wool, are prepared prior to spinning. This disentangles, cleans and intermixes fibres such as cotton or wool in order to produce a continuous web suitable for subsequent processing like spinning.

Question 3.
What is a ‘fly shuttle’?
Answer:

Question 4.
Why were the calendars used by Indian producers to popularise Indian products?
Answer:
Calendars were used by people of all classes regions and castes. They were even more popular than newspapers.

Question 5.
Name the four steps in production of yarn?
Answer:
Carding, twisting and spinning, and rolling

Question 6.
Why did silk and cotton goods from India dominate the international market in textiles?
Answer:
They were very fine in quality. Other countries produced coarser cotton.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Question 7.
When were the factories first established in Britain?
Answer:
1730s

Question 8.
Which Indian movement led to the boycott of foreign goods?
Answer:
Swadeshi movement

Question 9.
Why did the East India Company appoint ‘Gomasthas’?
Answer:
The East India Company appointed gomasthas to supervise weavers in India to establish a more direct control over the weavers, free of the existing traders and brokers in the cloth trade.

Related Theory
The Gomasthas were the paid servants who supervised the weavers, collected supplies and examined the quality of cloth.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

The Making of Global World Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Class 10 History Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
Hosay was a:
(a) Riotous Hindu festival
(b) Riotous carnival
(c) Violent blood-shedding war
(d) History and art festival
Answer:
(b) Riotous carnival

Explanation: The annual Muharram procession got transformed into a riotous carnival called

‘Hosay’ for the religious figure Imam Hussain which saw the attendance of workers of all races and religions.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Icse History Chapter 4 Question 2.
Which country had voluntarily cut off its economic relationship with the world economy in 1949?
(a) India
(b) England
(c) America
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China

Explanation: China retreated into isolation and cut off all of its economic ties with the world in terms of trade and exports.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

The Making Of Global World MCQ Question 3.
Fill in the blank by choosing the appropriate option:
Smallpox- America; Rinderpest- …………………
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Africa
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Africa

Explanation: Rinderpest was a fast-spreading cattle disease in Africa which affected the local economy largely.

The Making Of A Global World MCQ Question 4.
Why did China become an attractive destination for multinational companies?
(a) Economic policies were not established.
(b) Raw material was cheap.
(c) Labour wages were low.
(d) Land was cheap.
Answer:
(c) Labour wages were low.

Explanation: Wages of factory laborers in China are very low and hence cost of production decreased massively.

Making Of Global World MCQ Question 5.
Which of the following two continents did the silk routes connect?
(a) Asia and America
(b) Europe and America
(c) Asia and Europe
(d) Europe and Southern Africa
Answer:

The Making Of Global World Class 10 MCQ Question 6.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
……….. and Germany became new colonial powers by the 19th century.
(a) Australia
(b) Belgium
(c) France
(d) Italy
Answer:
(b) Belgium

Making Of Global World Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
Which of the following countries has an effective right of veto over key IMF and World Bank decisions?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) France
(d) India
Answer:
(a) USA

Class 10 History Chapter 4 MCQ Question 8.
Which of the following is a direct effect of the Second World War on the economy of the world?
(a) The US became the mass exporter of gold.
(b) The US emerged as the dominant economic, political and military power in the Western world.
(c) the Soviet Union collapsed.
(d) Soldiers died in larger numbers than the civilians.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

The Making Of Global World Class 10 Extra Questions MCQ Question 9.
Who amongst the following West-Indies cricketers trace their roots to indentured labour migrants from India?
(a) Vivian Richards and Gary Sobers
(b) Chris Gayle and Dwayne Bravo
(c) Ramnaresh Sarwan and Shivnarine Chanderpaul
(d) Brian Lara and Courtney Walsh
Answer:
(c) Ramnaresh Sarwan and Shivnarine Chanderpaul

Explanation: Their families migrated during the time indentured laborers and were forced to station on plantations for work to various countries of the world.

Class 10 History Making Of Global World MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following was NOT a destination of Indian indentured migrants?
(a) China
(b) Caribbean Islands
(c) Fiji
(d) Ceylon
Answer:
(a) China

Which of the following was NOT a destination of Indian indentured migrants?

Explanation: Indentured laborers were sent to Assam, the Caribbean islands of Trinidad, Guyana and Surinam, Mauritius and Fiji. Tamil workers were sent to Ceylon (present-day Sri Lanka).

The Making Of A Global World Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
In which one of the following years Great Depression occurred in the world?
(a) 1929-30
(b) 1935-36
(c) 1939-40
(d) 1941-42
Answer:
(a) 1929-30

The Making Of Global World Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers Question 12.
Which of the following technological breakthrough hastened industrialization in Europe in the 19th century?
(a) Pigeon messenger service
(b) Telegraph
(c) Slow transportation services
(d) Handmade goods
Answer:

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Making Of The Global World MCQ Question 13.
Identify the name of the institution:
(1) It is a Bretton Wood twin institution.
(2) It was created to deal with external surpluses and deficits of its member nations.
(3) Its operations began in 1947.
Answer:

The Making Of The Global World MCQ Question 14.
Identify the country:
(1) It imported opium to China.
(2) John Maynard Keynes thought that its gold exports promoted global economic recovery.
(3) It was colonized by Britain.
Answer:
India

Explanation: India was colonized by Britain for almost 2 centuries and became the major exporter of precious metals during the depression years. Indian farmers were forced to grow opium which the British traded in China.

Correct and Rewrite/True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Class 10 Making Of Global World MCQ Question 15.
As early as 3000 BCE an active coastal trade linked the Indus Valley Civilisation with the present-day East and South Asia.
Answer:
False.

As early as 3000 BCE an active coastal trade Linked the Indus Valley Civilisation with present-day West Asia.

Explanation: Indus Valley Civilisation is located in South Asia in the subcontinent of India. There was evidence of its links with West Asia and not East Asia.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

Question 16.
Foods such as potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chilies, and sweet potatoes were introduced in Europe after the discovery of routes to India.
Answer:
False.

Foods such as potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chilies, and sweet potatoes were introduced in Europe after the discovery of routes to the Americas.

Explanation: These foods were only introduced in Europe and Asia after Christopher Columbus accidentally discovered the Americas. The potato was a native food of the continent.

Question 17.
Chickenpox paved the way for the Portuguese and Spanish conquest and colonization of America.
Answer:

Question 18.
The Indentured Labour System was abolished in 1921 in India.
Answer:
True.

Explanation: India’s nationalist leaders opposed the system of indentured labour migration as abusive and cruel. Hence it was abolished in 1921.

Question 19.
In the nineteenth century, as you have seen, colonial India had become an importer of agricultural goods and exporter of manufactured goods.
Answer:

Question 20.
The Second World War was fought between the Axis powers (mainly Nazi Germany, Japan and Italy) and the Allies (Britain, France, the Soviet Union and the US).
Answer:
True

Explanation: The Second World War was fought (1940-1945) between the Axis and Allied powers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

Question 21.
The First World War saw the use of machine guns, tanks, aircraft, chemical weapons, etc. on a massive scale for the first time.
Answer:
True

Explanation: The First World War was a mechanical/industrial war because all kinds of newly invented machines were used to fight a war for the first time.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 22.
Legends spread in seventeenth-century Europe about South America’s fabled wealth. Many expeditions set off in search of
Answer:
El Dorado, the fabled city of gold.

Question 23.
………….. was carried by infected cattle imported from British Asia to feed the Italian soldiers invading Eritrea in East Africa.
Answer:
Rinderpest

Explanation: Rinderpest was a cattle plague that arrived in Africa in the late 1880s.

Question 24.
Tamil migrants went to and Malaya.
Answer:
Ceylon (Present day Sri Lanka)

Explanation: Indentured labour was sent to work overseas on different plantations, fields and farms forcefully. The main destinations of Indian indentured migrants were the Caribbean islands (mainly

Trinidad, Guyana and Surinam), Mauritius and Fiji.

Question 25.
……. was formed to demand a new international economic order (NIEO).
Answer:

Question 26.
The IMF and the World Bank commenced financial operation in
Answer:
1947

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

Question 27.
…………… were needed to link the agricultural regions to the ports.
Answer:
Railways

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 History Chapter 4

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c), or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 28.
Assertion (A): The war had led to an economic boom, that is, to a large increase in demand, production and employment.
Reason (R): More and more material was needed to fulfill the requirements of the rising population in Europe.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Economic boom happened because war needs had to be fulfilled. Soldiers required food, clothing and medical supplies.

Question 29.
Assertion (A): Nineteenth-century indenture has been described as a ‘new system of slavery’
Reason (R): New races of slaves were bought and encouraged to work far away from their homeland.
Answer:

Question 30.
Assertion (A): As the depression hit the world, India did not lose much.
Reason (R): India became an exporter of gold during the depression years.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Indian livelihoods were destroyed when it comes to the jobs of producers and farm laborers due to drastic reductions in prices of agricultural products. Salaried professionals from the city enjoyed their lives in a better position with fixed incomes.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

Question 31.
Assertion (A): Industrialists and urban dwellers forced the abolition of the Corn Laws.
Reasons (R): Post abolition of Corn Laws, food could be imported into Britain more cheaply than it could be produced within the country.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Prices of corn and other food products rose exponentially. This led to inflation and hence the government was forced to abolish corn Laws which otherwise banned import of corn and other foreign goods.

Question 32.
Assertion (A): There are large communities of people of Indian descent in Caribbean countries.
Reason (R): Most indentured workers who were taken to work on plantations there, stayed on after their contracts ended.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the source given below and answer the following question:
Food grain and raw material exports from India to Britain and the rest of the world increased.
But the value of British exports to India was much higher than the value of British imports from India. Thus Britain had a ‘trade surplus’ with India.
Which of the following is true about Britain’s trade surplus?
(I) It was used to pay Home Charges by Britain.
(II) It was used to balance its deficit with other countries.
(III) It steered the economy of the world.
(IV) It helped Britain to borrow money.
(a) (I) & (IV) only
(b) (II), (III) & (IV) only
(c) (I) & (II) only
(d) (l)f(ll), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I) & (II) only

Explanation: Britain had trade surplus with India through economic drain of Indian resources. It was used to pay Home Charges by England and balance its deficit with other countries.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
For centuries before, the Indian Ocean had known a bustling trade, with goods, people, knowledge, customs, etc. crisscrossing its waters. The Indian subcontinent was central to these flows and a crucial point in their networks.
Which of the following statements is correct about the reason goods from the Indian Subcontinent began reaching European markets?
(a) European sailors found a sea route to Asia and began travelling to and fro to boost the trade.
(b) Asian markets suffered a famine that forced its merchants to venture to Europe for trade.
(c) America had not been discovered yet and hence Europe was forced to invade Asia.
(d) Asia had no traders and Europeans took over the trade in Asia.
Answer:

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
In the late nineteenth century, Europeans were attracted to Africa due to its vast resources of land and minerals. Europeans came to Africa hoping to establish plantations and mines to produce crops and minerals for export to Europe. But there was an unexpected problem – a shortage of labour willing to work for wages.
How did the Europeans push the Africans labourers to work for wages?
(I) Peasants were displaced from land through reformed inheritance laws
(II) Only one member of a family was allowed to inherit land, as a result of which the others were pushed into the labour market
(III) Their houses were burnt.
(IV) Heavy taxes were imposed.
(a) (I) & (IV) only
(b) (I), (II) & (IV) only
(c) (I) & (II) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:
(b) (I), (II) & (IV) only
Explanation: The Africans did not have the concept of working for a wage. The Europeans found ways to make the Africans work. They restructured their laws, imposed heavy taxes which could be paid only by working for a wage on plantations and farms and confined them within a space to make them work.

Question 4.
The IMF and the World Bank shifted their attention in the late 1950s towards the developing countries. This happened mainly because:
(I) The economy of the developing nations had greater scope.
(II) Europe and Japan had rapidly rebuilt their economies and did not need the help of IMF and World Bank.
(III) The developing countries needed their help to develop.
(a) (I) & (III) only
(b) (I) only
(c) (II) & (III) only
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Answer:
(c) (II) & (III) only

Explanation: The World Bank and IMF was designed to build the industrial nations. They were not ready to cope with challenges of poverty and lack of development in developing countries. But Europe and Japan rapidly rebuilt their economies and were not dependent on these institutions. So these institutions shifted their attention to developing nations.

Question 5.
Choose the most appropriate option:
The reasons why the inflow of fine Indian cotton into Britain and other countries declined in the 19th century were:
(I) Industrialisation and expansion of cotton manufacture in Britain
(II) Imposition of tariff on cloth imported into Britain to protect local industries
(III) British manufacturers began to seek overseas markets for their cloth, Indians faced stiff competition in international markets.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III) only
(c) (I) & (II) only
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

Question 6.
Match the items in Column A with that of Column B:

Column A

Column B

(A) Ramnaresh Sarwan  (I) English Economist
(B) John Maynard Keynes  (II) Cricketer of Indo-Guyanese origin.
(C) Henry Ford  (III) Welsh-American journalist
(D) Sir Henry Morton Stanley  (IV) American Industrialist

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:
(c) (A)-(II),(B)-(I),(C)-(IV),(D)-(III)

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Economists and politicians drew two key lessons from inter-war economic experiences. First, an industrial society based on mass production cannot be sustained without mass consumption. But to ensure mass consumption, there was a need for high and stable incomes. Incomes could not be stable if employment was unstable. Thus stable incomes also required steady, full employment.

But markets alone could not guarantee full employment. Therefore governments would have to step in to minimise fluctuations of price, output and employment. Economic stability could be ensured only through the intervention of the government. The second lesson related to a country’s economic links with the outside world. The goal of full employment could only be achieved if governments had power to control flows of goods, capital and labour. Thus in brief, the main aim of the post-war international economic system was to preserve economic stability and full employment in the industrial world.
(A) Which of the following was true about the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference?
(a) It was held at Bretton Woods in Kentucky, USA.
(b) Twin Institutions were set up in this conference.
(c) The Conference was organised in 1988.
(d) Both (b) and (c) are true.
Answer:

(B) Which of the following institutions has been renamed as the World Bank?
(a) The International Monetary Fund
(b) The United Nations Organisation
(c) The World Trade Organisation
(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
Answer:
(d) TheIntemationalBankforReconstruction and Development

(C) Name one phenomena that was a result of the lessons learnt from the inter-war economic experiences.
Answer:

(D) Assertion (A): Economic stability could be ensured only through the intervention of the government.
Reason(R): Private industrialists were focused upon their own progress.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation: The private industrialists were themselves recovering after the two wars and required the permission and support from the governments to trade across the world. The governments were required to help and support the citizens.

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The IMF and the World Bank commenced financial operations in 1947. Decision-making in these institutions is controlled by the Western industrial powers. The US has an effective right of veto over key IMF and World Bank decisions. The international monetary system is the system linking national currencies and monetary systems. The Bretton Woods system was based on fixed exchange rates. In this system, national currencies, for example the Indian rupee, were pegged to the dollar at a fixed exchange rate. The dollar itself was anchored to gold at a fixed price of $35 per ounce of gold.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) The “Bretton Woods System” is associated with
(a) World economy
(b) World polity
(c) American history
(d) History of Asian development
Answer:
(a) World economy
Explanation: It was set up to finance post war reconstruction and development of bruised economies.

(B) The World Bank was also called:
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) International Treasury Bank
(c) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(d) The International council of Banking
Answer:
(c) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development.

Related Theory
The full form of IMF is the International Monetary Fund.

(C) The Group of 77 or G – 77 was:
(a) A group formed by western nations to exploit the developing nations
(b) A group formed by the developing countries to demand a new international economic order
(c) A protest against the western economic policies
(d) A reform movement for the IMF
Answer:

(D) What was the fixed rating system?
(a) A scheme for exchanging of currencies
(b) A system to understand the value of dollar
(c) A system to establish an exchange rate among various currencies in the world to ease world trade.
(d) A system to deposit money in World Bank
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
He adapted the assembly line of a Chicago slaughterhouse (in which slaughtered animals were picked apart by butchers as they came down a conveyor belt) to his new car plant in Detroit. He realised that the ‘assembly line’ method would allow a faster and cheaper way of producing vehicles. The assembly line forced workers to repeat a single task mechanically and continuously – such as fitting a particular part to the car – at a pace dictated by the conveyor belt. This was a way of increasing the output per worker by speeding up the pace of work. Standing in front of a conveyor belt no worker could afford to delay the motions, take a break, or even have a friendly word with a workmate.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the personality mentioned in the source?
(a) Henry Stanley
(b) Henry Mottle
(c) Henry Ford
(d) Henry Chremlinski
Answer:
(c) Henry Ford.

Explanation: Henry Ford was a pioneering industrialist who adapted the assembly line used in slaughterhouses to manufacturing of cars and reaped immense benefits.

(B) Which of the following turned out to be the best cost cutting decision of the personality mentioned?
(a) He doubled the daily wage to $5 in January 1914.
(b) He fired 1000 employees
(c) He fought in the Second World War
(d) He brought his main production unit to India.
Answer:

(C) The given source represents which of the following features of the US economy?
(a) Migration of Workers
(b) Mass-exports
(c) Mass imports
(d) Mass Production
Answer:

(D) The given source explains the success story of which of the following automobile giants?
(a) Ford Motors
(b) Volkswagen
(c) Tesla Motors
(d) Maruti Suzuki
Answer:
(a) Ford Motors

Explanation: Henry Ford, the famous industrialist established Ford Motors in the US in 1913-14 and adapted the assembly line method which made Ford Motors an automobile giant later.

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In the nineteenth century, as you have seen, colonial India had become an exporter of agricultural goods and importer of manufactures. The depression immediately affected Indian trade. India’s exports and imports nearly halved between 1928 and 1934. As international prices crashed, prices in India also plunged. Between 1928 and 1934, wheat prices in India fell by 50 per cent. Peasants and farmers suffered more than urban dwellers. Though agricultural prices fell sharply, the colonial government refused to reduce revenue demands. Peasants producing for the world market were the worst hit. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following features of the world economy can be inferred from the given description?
(a) Integration of global economy
(b) Disintegration of global economy
(c) World economy was progressing
(d) World economy was stable
Answer:
(a) Integration of Global Economy

Which of the following features of the world economy can be inferred from the given description?

Explanation: The world economy had started integrating by the time the depression hit and that is why, Indians felt the tremors of the depression even though it had not directly impacted the country.

(B) The Colonial India was an of machines.
(a) Producer
(b) Exporter
(c) Importer
(d) Assembler
Answer:

(C) Which of the following classes remained unaffected during the impact of the Great Depression?
(a) Backward Class
(b) Urban Salaried Class
(c) Manufacturing Class
(d) Worker Class
Answer:
(b) Urban Salaried Class

Explanation: Salaried classes working in the city had been least affected by the depression. This was because their income was not dependent on agricultural production- rather on their services to the administration. Town-dwelling landowners who received rents were also not as severely affected.

(D) Which of the following thought that Indian gold exports promoted global economic recovery?
(a) Ford
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Henry Motley
(d) John Keynes
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the two hostile groups of the First World War.
Answer:
Allied Countries and Central powers

Explanation: The First World War was fought between two power blocs. On the one side were the Allies- Britain, France and Russia (later joined by the US); and on the opposite side were the Central Powers- Germany, Austria- Hungary and Ottoman Turkey. The war began in 1914 and ended in 1918.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

Question 2.
Why did most developing countries organize themselves into the Group of 77 during the 1960s?
Answer:
The developing nations organized themselves into G-77 so as to gain real control over their natural resources, to get more development assistance and fairer prices for raw materials.

Related Theory
They also wanted a better opportunity for their manufactured goods in the markets of developing nations.

Question 3.
Why did the European powers meet in Berlin in 1885?
Answer:
Big European powers met in Berlin in 1885 to carve up territories of Africa among themselves.

Question 4.
Which country was Corn Laws associated to?
Answer:
Britain

Question 5.
Define the terms ‘indentured labourer’.
Answer:
An indentured labourer was a bonded labourer under contract who worked for an employer for a specific amount of time, to pay off his passage to his choice of residence.

Question 6.
Define the term ‘tariff’.
Answer:
Tariffs are taxes and trade barriers imposed on a country’s imports from other countries.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World with Answers

Question 7.
Define the term ‘Veto’.
Answer:

Question 8.
Give an example of long distance cultural exchange trade?
Answer:
Exchange of food like noodles and pasta across regions and continents is an example of long distance cultural exchange trade.

Question 9.
What was the name given to the original inhabitants of America?
Answer:
American Indians

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Agriculture Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Agriculture Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Muskmelon grows in ………
(a) Rabi season
(b) Kharif season
(c) Zaid season
(d) They are grown in both Zaid and Rabi seasons.
Answer:
(c) Zaid season

Explanation: Muskmelon is grown in the Zaid Season. Zaid season comes between Kharif and Rabi season.

Agriculture MCQ Class 10 Question 2.
Which of the following pulses do not help in restoring soil fertility?
(a) Moong
(b) Gram
(c) Peas
(d) Arhar
Answer:
(d) Arhar

Explanation: Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions. All leguminous crops or pulses except arhar help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. Therefore, these are mostly grown in rotation with other crops.

Class 10 Agriculture MCQ Question 3.
Coffee cultivation was first introduced in:
(a) Himalayas
(b) Aravalli Hills
(c) Garo Hills
(d) Baba Budan Hill
Answer:

MCQ Of Agriculture Class 10 Question 4.
What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds?
(a) 21%
(b) 12%
(c) 2%
(d) 40%
Answer:
(b) 12%

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

MCQ On Agriculture Class 10 Question 5.
Which one of the following is not true for pulses?
(a) Pulses are grown in both Kharif and Rabi Seasons.
(b) Pulses require intensive and excessive irrigation facilities
(c) They are grown in rotation to replenish fertility of the soil.
(d) Pulses are leguminous crops.
Answer:
(b) Pulses require intensive and excessive irrigation facilities

Explanation: Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
If rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, in which state is it a subsistence crop?
(a) Odisha
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Odisha

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 MCQ Question 7.
From which of the following countries was the Arabica variety of coffee initially brought to India?
(a) Yemen
(b) Nepal
(c) Britain
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Yemen

MCQ Agriculture Class 10 Question 8.
Which of the following is an equatorial crop but is also grown as a subtropical and tropical crop?
(a) Jute
(b) Wheat
(c) Rubber
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(c) Rubber

Class 10 Geography Agriculture MCQ Question 9.
The state of is a major producer of Jute.
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(d) West Bengal

Ch 4 Geo Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
Ragi has high nutritional value and is rich in
(a) Iron, calcium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Phosphate
(d) Vitamin C
Answer:

Class 10 Geography Agriculture MCQ Question 11.
Why is there enormous pressure on agricultural land in India? Choose the correct option:
(a) Landholding size is very small.
(b) High density of population.
(c) Small scale farmers do not have the technology to have a lot of produce.
(d) Farmers of less land holdings are not able to afford the right techniques of farming.
Answer:

MCQs On Agriculture Class 10 Question 12.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Intensive Subsistence Farming- Labour intensive and Machine based; Primitive Farming-
(a) Machine based
(b) Traditional methods based
(c) Labour intensive
(d) Modern
Answer:
(b) Traditional methods based

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

MCQs Of Agriculture Class 10 Question 13.
Which group of crops can be classified under the classification of millets?
(a) Maize and Wheat
(b) Sesamum and Groundnut
(c) Urad and Arhar
(d) Bajra and Ragi
Answer:
(d) Bajra and Ragi

Geography Class 10 Chapter 4 MCQ Question 14.
Match the items of Column A with that of Column B.

Column A (Fruits) Column B (Significant Areas of Growth)
(A) Guava (I) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Orange (II) Kerala
(C) Apple (III) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Banana (IV) Maharashtra (Nagpur)

Answer:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(d) (A) -(I), (B) – (III), (C) -(II), (D) -(I)

Class 10 Geo Ch 4 MCQ Question 15.
Which type of farming has the use of higher doses of modern inputs, e.g. high yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides?
(a) Primitive subsistence
(b) Plantation farming
(c) Small Farming or Zero Based Farming
(d) Commercial Farming
Answer:
(d) Commercial Farming

Agriculture Class 10 MCQs Question 16.
Read the table and fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Agriculture Class 10 MCQs
(a) (A) More than 500 cm, (B) Below 20 degrees
(b) (A) More than 100 cm, (B) Above 40 degrees
(c) (A) More than 200 cm, (B) Above 25 degrees
(d) (A) less than 100 cm, (B) Above 20 degrees
Answer:
(c) (A) More than 200 cm, (B) Above 25 degrees Explanation: Rubber requires a moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and a temperature above 25°C.

Rice is a kharif crop which requires high temperature, (above 25°C) and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. In areas of less rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation.

Question 17.
Which of the following is a rabi crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Gram
(c) Millets
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(b) Gram

Explanation: Rice, millets and cotton are kharif crops grown with the onset of monsoon in parts of the country and harvested in September- October.

Related Theory
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard while in between the rabi and the kharif season, a short season is known as the Zaid season. Crops grown in this short season are watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops.

Question 18.
Which of the following is an age-old economic activity in our country?
(a) Mining
(b) Agriculture
(c) Sericulture
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b)Agriculture

Which of the following is an age-old economic activity in our country?

Explanation: India is an agriculturally important country. Two-third of its population is engaged in agricultural activities.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Question 19.
Which of the following price is announced by the government in support of a crop?
(a) Minimum Subsidised Prices
(b) Maximum Support Prices
(c) Minimum Support Prices
(d) Maximum Subsidised Prices
Answer:
(c) Minimum Support Prices

Question 20.
Given below are some geographical conditions required for the growth of tea crops in India except one. Find it out:
(a) Tea is a labour intensive industry
(b) It requires warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year
(c) It grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates
(d) It is a beverage crop introduced by the British in India.
Answer:
(d) It is a beverage crop introduced by the British in India.

Explanation: Tea is plantation agriculture and was introduced by the British in India.

Related Theory
India is the leading producer as well as exporter of tea in the world. Major tea-producing states are Assam, I/Vest Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Question 21.
Which of the following is a leguminous crop?
(a) Pulses
(b) Jowar
(c) Millets
(d) Sesamum
Answer:
(a) Pulses

Explanation: India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of pulses in the world.

Related Theory
Pulses are the major source of protein in a vegetarian diet. Major pulses grown in India are tur (arhar), urad, moong, masur, peas, and gram.

Question 22.
The ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is known as ‘Milpa’ in which country?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Vietnam
(c) Brazil
(d) Mexico
Answer:

Question 23.
Barley, peas, gram, wheat, and mustard are grown in which cropping season?
(a) Kharif season
(b) Rabi season
(c) Zaid season
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Rabi season

Question 24.
Being leguminous crops, pulses help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air except:
(a) Urad
(b) Arhar
(c) Moong
(d) Masur
Answer:
(b) Arhar

Explanation: Arhar is also known as tur.

Question 25.
Which of the following right leads to the division of land among upcoming generations in India?
(a) The right to property
(b) The right of inheritance
(c) The right of successor
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) The right of inheritance

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Question 26.
Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) Sugar
(ii) Transport
(iii) Grocery Item
(iv) Sugarcane
Options:
(a) (i)—(iv)—(iii)—(ii)
(b) (iii)—(iv)—(i)—(iO
(c) (iv)—(i)—(ii)—(iii)
(d) (iii)—(iv)—00—0)

Identify the following on basis of the hints given.

Question 27.
Identify the following product:
(1) The Arabica variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in the country.
(2) Its cultivation was introduced on the Baba Budan Hills
(3) Today it is cultivated in Nilgiri in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Coffee

Question 28.
Identify the following crop:
(1) It requires a moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperature above 25°C.
(2) It is an important industrial raw material.
(3) It is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka dnd Andaman and Nicobar islands and Garo hills of Meghalaya.
Answer:

Correct & Re-write / True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 29.
The Arabica variety initially brought from Saudi Arabia is produced in the country.
Correct statement is as follows:
Answer:
The Arabica variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in the country.

Question 30.
Cotton requires high temperature, 220 frost- free days and heavy rainfall for its growth.
Correct statement is as follows:
Answer:
Cotton requires high temperature, 210 frost- free days and light rainfall for its growth.

Question 31.
The ‘right of inheritance’ leading to the division of land among successive generations has rendered land-holding size economical.
Correct statement is as follows:
Answer:
The ‘right of inheritance’ leading to the division of land among successive generations has rendered Land-holding size uneconomical

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Question 32.
Rice a rabi crop, is grown with the withdrawal of monsoon in different parts of India.
Answer:

Question 33.
Maize is a crop which is used both as food and fodder.
Answer:
True

Question 34.
India is the third-largest producer of Rice after China and Pakistan.
Answer:
False

India is the second-largest producer of Rice after China.

Related Theory
Rice is a kharif crop that requires high temperature, (above 25 degrees C) and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. It grows in plains of North and North-eastern India.

Fill in the blanks/tables with suitable information:

Question 35.
Complete the following table with correct information for A and B:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Agriculture with Answers 2
Answer:
(A) 75-100 cms
(B) 21°C to 27°C

Explanation: Sugarcane grows well in a hot and humid climate with temperature of about 21-27°C.

Brazil is the largest producer of Sugarcane in the world.

Question 36.
………….. is a ‘slash and burn’ agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family.
Answer:
Primitive Subsistence Farming

Explanation: Primitive subsistence farming is known as Jhumming in north-eastern states like Assam. Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland. Pamlou in Manipur, Dipa in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, and in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Related Theory
The slash and bum agriculture is known as ‘Milpa’ in Mexico and Central America, ‘Conuco’ in Venezuela, ‘Roca’ in Brazil, ‘Masole’ in Central Africa, ‘Ladang’ in Indonesia, ‘Ray’ in Vietnam.

Question 37.
India is the …………. producer of sugarcane in the world.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Question 38.
Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of Rice:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Agriculture with Answers 3
Answer:
(A) Kharif Cropping Season
(B) 16°C – 27°C.

Match the Columns

Question 39.
Match the following crops from column A with the states these are grown in from column B:

Column A (Crops) Column B (States)
(a) Tea (i) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Wheat (ii) Karnataka
(c) Coffee (iii) Punjab
(d) Sugarcane (iv) Assam

Answer:

Column A (Crops) Column B (States)
(a) Tea (iv) Assam
(b) Wheat (iii) Punjab
(c) Coffee (ii) Karnataka
(d) Sugarcane (i) Uttar Pradesh

Question 40.
Match the following terms from column A with their meanings from column B:

Column A (Terms) Column B (Meanings)
(a) Horticulture (i) Grown with the onset of monsoon
(b) Sericulture (ii) Grown in winter season
(c) Robi Crops (iii) Cultivation of fruits and vegetables
(d) Kharif Crops (iv) Production of silk

Answer:

Column A (Terms) Column B (Meanings)
(a) Horticulture (iii) Cultivation of fruits and vegetables
(b) Sericulture (iv) Production of silk
(c) Robi Crops (ii) Grown in winter season
(d) Kharif Crops (i) Grown with the onset of monsoon

Question 41.
Match the following crops given in Column A with the states they are found in Column B. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Column A Column B
(a) Cotton (i) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Jute (ii) Maharashtra
(c) Wheat (iii) Rajasthan
(d) Bajra (iv) West Bengal

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 4

In each of the following questions, a statement of
Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 42.
Assertion (A): The Government of India buys wheat and rice from farmers at a fair price.
Reason (R): The public sector contributes to economic development.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The government announces the minimum support price and remunerative and procurement prices for important crops to avoid the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen. It buys crops from farmers at a fairer price to boost their living.

Question 43.
Assertion (A): Indian agriculture finds itself at a crossroads.
Reason (R): Though the GDP growth rate is increasing over the years, it is not generating sufficient employment opportunities in the country
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Indian agriculture is growing but there is a deceleration in this sector. Employment opportunities are not increasing.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Stagnation in agriculture will not lead to a decline in other spheres of the economy having wider implications for society.
Reason (R): All three economic sectors are dependent on each other.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: Stagnation in agriculture will lead to a decline in other spheres of the economy having wider implications for society.

Question 45.
Assertion (A): The Government of India made concerted efforts to modernize agriculture.
Reason (R): Indian farmers are facing stagnation in production due to inferior technology.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 46.
Assertion (A): Subsidy on fertilizers is decreased leading to an increase in the cost of correct explanation of (A). production.
Reason (R): Subsidy is the discount on agricultural products.

Question 47.
Assertion (A): Under globalization, particularly after 1990, the farmers in India have been exposed to new challenges.
Reason (R): Indian products could not compete with International products due to inferior quality and expensive prices.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 48.
Assertion (A): The Bhoodan-Gramdan movement initiated by Vinoba Bhave is also known as the Bloodless Revolution.
Reason (R): Due to this revolution, drastic land reforms occurred where lands were donated to the poor landless farmers without any violence.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
In 2016 India was the second Largest producer of groundnut in the world after china. Groundnut is a kharif crop and accounts for about half of the major oilseeds produced in the country.
The second largest producer of groundnut in India is
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala
Answer:
Rajasthan

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
A few economists think that Indian farmers have a bleak future if they continue growing foodgrains on the holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises. India’s rural population is about 833 million (2011) which depends upon 250 million (approximate) hectares of agricultural land, an average of less than half a hectare per person.
Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops. This will increase incomes and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the
most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following is a high value crop?
(a) Apple
(b) Banana
(c) Jatropha
(d) Sugarcane
Answer:

(B) Which of the following is a major problem of Indian agriculture?
(a) Indian agriculture employs most people in India.
(b) Indian agriculture takes place on small farm holdings which are not lucrative.
(c) Indian agriculture is the backbone of Indian economy.
(d) Indian agriculture produces rice, pulses, wheat and sugarcane.
Answer:
(b) Indian agriculture takes place on small farm holdings which are not lucrative.

(C) How will diversification of Indian cropping pattern help?
(I) It will save the environment.
(II) It will attract investment from people.
(III) It will increase incomes.
(IV) It will replenish fertility of soil.
(V) It will supply nitrogen to the soil.
(a) (I) & (III)
(b) (IV) & (V)
(c) (II) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Explanation: Diversification might or might not help with the soil’s fertility.

(D) Which of the following led to reduction of size of holdings?
(a) Right to work
(b) Right to inheritance
(c) Right to produce
(d) Right to play
Answer:
(b) Right to inheritance
Explanation: Under right to inheritance, the farm gets divided among the next generation in even parts.

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Globalisation is not a new phenomenon. It was there at the time of colonisation. In the nineteenth century when European traders came to India, at that time too, Indian spices were exported to different countries of the world and farmers of south India were encouraged to grow these crops. Till today it is one of the important items of export from India. During the British period cotton belts of India attracted the British and ultimately cotton was exported to Britain as a raw material for their textile industries. Cotton textile industry in Manchester and Liverpool flourished due to the availability of good quality cotton from India.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Where was the Champaran movement held?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Bihar
(d) Chhattisgarh
Answer:
(c) Bihar
Explanation: Champaran Movement was held in 1917 in Bihar.

(B) Which of the following is true about Globalisation?
(a) Globalisation is a relatively new phenomenon.
(b) Globalisation has helped change the face of Indian agriculture.
(c) Indian spices were transported across the world because of Globalisation.
(d) Indian resources attracted British merchants for the barter system.
Answer:
(c) Indian spices were transported across the world because of Globalisation.

(C) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The Manchester cotton industry received their raw materials from
(a) Indonesia
(b) Switzerland
(c) India
(d) France
Answer:
(c) India

(D) Why was the Champaran movement held?
(a) Peasants were being forced to plant saffron.
(b) Farmers of that region were forced to grow indigo on their Land. They could not grow food crops for their sustenance.
(c) Farmers were forced to grow jute.
(d) Farmers were forced to grow apples.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal, coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states. Since the production is mainly for market, a well developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following types of farming can the plantation type of agriculture be classified into?
(a) Primitive Agriculture
(b) Intensive Agriculture
(c) Commercial Agriculture
(d) Slash and Burn Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Commercial Agriculture

(B) Which of the following is not a plantation crop?
(a) Silk
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Coffee
(d) Banana
Answer:
(a) Silk

Which of the following is not a plantation crop?

Explanation: Silk is not planted but reared from silkworms. This practice is called Sericulture.

(C) Which of the following statements supports the assertion, “The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry”?
(a) It uses transportation facilities.
(b) Plantations cover large tracts of land.
(c) A single crop is grown on a large area.
(d) All the production is for the market.
Answer:
(d) All the production is for the market.
Explanation: All the production is for sale and not for consumption. This shows that plantation has an interface of an industry and agriculture together.

(D) Where of the following states is coffee grown the most?
(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Goa
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(d) Karnataka

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Jowar is the third most important food crop with respect to area and production. It is a rain-fed crop mostly grown in the moist areas which hardly needs irrigation. Major Jowar producing States are Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

Bajra grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soil. Major Bajra producing States are Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Haryana. Ragi is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils. Major ragi producing states are: Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Jharkhand and Arunachal Pradesh.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following types of crops does bajra beLong to?
(a) Fibre Crop
(b) Horticulture Crops
(c) Non food Crops
(d) Food Crops
Answer:

(B) Which of the following is the rain-fed crops?
(a) Wheat
(b) Ragi
(c) Jowar
(d) Cotton
Answer:

(C) Ragi is not grown in
(a) Goa
(b) Sikkim
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Goa

(D) Which of the following soils supports the crop of bajra?
(a) Red Soil
(b) Alluvial Soil
(c) Black Soil
(d) Yellow Soil
Answer:
(c) Black Soil

Question 6.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:
Source A: Types Of Farming
This type of farming is still practiced in few pockets of India. It is practiced on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks, and family community labour. This type of farming depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown.

Source B: Commercial Farming In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states. Since the production is mainly for market, a well-developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.

Source C: Cropping Pattern In states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. These are Aus, Aman and Boro. In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there Is a short season during the summer months known as the Zaid season. Some of the crops produced during ‘zaid’are watermelon and muskmelon. Source A: Types of Farming
(A) Identify the tyoe of Farming through its description in the source.
Source B: Commercial Farming
Answer:
This type of farming is Primitive Subsistence Farming. This type of farming is only used for consumption and subsistence purposes.

(B) What do you mean by Plantation Crops? Source C: Cropping Pattern
Answer:
A plantation crop is a crop which is cultivated on large scale farms called plantations for export purposes. Plantation farming is a kind of commercial farming and is mainly done for trade. Coffee is a plantation crop.

(C) Name One Zaid Crop.
Answer:
Another example of Zaid Crop is Cucumber.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which crop is a kharif crop in north and rabi crop in south India?
Answer:
Sesamum

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Question 2.
By which name is the specialized cultivation of fruits and vegetables known?
Answer:
Horticulture Crops

Question 3.
Describe “Jhumming Cultivation” in one sentence.
Answer:
In Jhumming cultivation, agriculture is practiced on a big chunk of land which is then left alone after it loses its fertility. This replenishes its fertility on its own.

Question 4.
India is the largest producer as well as consumer of which agricultural product in the world? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Pulses

Question 5.
What soil is perfect for the growth r c cashew nuts?
Answer:
Laterite Soil

Question 6.
Which crop is the major crop of Rabi?
Answer:

Question 7.
Which factors have helped Punjab and Haryana to grow more and more rice?
Answer:
Development of Dense Canal Network and use of new fertilisers have helped Punjab and Haryana to grow more rice.

Question 8.
Wheat is grown in which crop season?
Answer:
Rabi Season

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Question 9.
Name any one kharif crop.
Answer:
Paddy

Question 10.
Define the Green Revolution.
Answer:
The Green Revolution is referred to as the process of increasing agricultural production by incorporating modern tools and techniques.

Question 11.
Define the White Revolution.
Answer:
The White Revolution is the movement which led to dairy development movement by the Government of India.

Question 12.
Name any two schemes introduced by the Government of India for the benefit of the farmers.
Answer:
Kissan Credit Card Scheme, Personal Accident Insurance Scheme.

Question 13.
Write the temperature requirement of the maize crop.
Answer:

Question 14.
Which crop is known as ‘golden fibre’?
Answer:
Jute

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Question 15.
Write the amount of annual rainfall required for the cultivation of wheat.
Answer:
50-75 cm of rainfall is the amount of rainfall required for the cultivation of wheat.

Related Theory:
Wheat is a rabi crop that requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening. It requires 50-75 cm of annual rainfall evenly- distributed evenly over the growing season.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 11 बालगोबिन भगत with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 11 बालगोबिन भगत with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 11 बालगोबिन भगत with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided बालगोबिन भगत Class 10 Hindi Kshitij MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-hindi-with-answers/

Students can also read Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 11 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

बालगोबिन भगत Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Bal Govind Bhagat MCQ Question 1.
बालगोबिन के गीतों में कैसा भाव व्यक्त होता था?
(a) प्रभु-मिलन का
(b) देशभक्ति का
(c) वियोग का
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) प्रभु-मिलन का


बालगोबिन भगत MCQ Question 2.
बालगोबिन के गीतों को सुनकर वहाँ उपस्थित सभी लोग क्या करते थे?
(a) उठकर चले जाते थे
(b) झूम उठते थे
(c) साथ में गाने लगते थे
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (b) झूम उठते थे


Balgovind Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
भगत जी की बहू उन्हें छोड़कर क्यों नहीं जाना चाहती थी?
(a) सामाजिक मर्यादा के कारण
(b) संपत्ति के लोभ में
(c) पति से प्यार होने के कारण
(d) ससुर की चिंता के कारण

Answer

Answer: (d) ससुर की चिंता के कारण


Class 10 Hindi Chapter 11 MCQ Question 4.
बालगोबिन का व्यवसाय क्या था?
(a) खेती
(b) दुकानदारी
(c) पुस्तक-विक्रेता
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) खेती


Balgobin Bhagat MCQ In Hindi Question 5.
भगत जी भजन गाते समय क्या बजाया करते थे?
(a) ढोल
(b) ढपली
(c) गिटार
(d) खंजड़ी

Answer

Answer: (d) खंजड़ी


भगत जी भजन गाते समय क्या बजाया करते थे?

Bal Govind Bhagat MCQs Question 6.
भादो की रात कैसी होती है?
(a) चाँदनी
(b) अँधेरी
(c) सुस्त
(d) उजली

Answer

Answer: (b) अँधेरी


Class 10 Hindi Bal Govind Bhagat MCQ Question 7.
भगत जी अपने बेटे का खास ख्याल रखा करते थे, क्योंकि वह
(a) चालाक था
(b) ईमानदार था
(c) प्रतिभावान था
(d) सुस्त और बोदा था

Answer

Answer: (d) सुस्त और बोदा था


Class 10 Hindi Ch 11 MCQ Question 8.
भगत जी का बेटा कैसा था?
(a) समझदार
(b) सुस्त और बोदा
(c) चालाक
(d) बुद्धिमान

Answer

Answer: (b) सुस्त और बोदा


MCQ Of Bal Govind Bhagat Question 9.
बालगोबिन किसके पद गाया करते थे?
(a) रहीम के
(b) सूरदास के
(c) कबीर के
(d) तुलसीदास के

Answer

Answer: (c) कबीर के


बालगोबिन भगत Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
भगत जी बेटे के मरने के बाद अपनी बहू की दूसरी शादी क्यों करवाना चाहते थे?
(a) उसके सुखद भविष्य के लिए
(b) छुटकारा पाने के लिए
(c) सबकी नजर में अच्छा बनने के लिए
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) उसके सुखद भविष्य के लिए


भगत जी बेटे के मरने के बाद अपनी बहू की दूसरी शादी क्यों करवाना चाहते थे?

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 11 बालगोबिन भगत with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding बालगोबिन भगत CBSE Class 10 Hindi Kshitij MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following countries tops in the index of inequality of income?
(a) Hungary
(b) Russia
(c) South Africa
(d) UK
Answer:
(c) South Africa

Outcomes Of Democracy MCQ Question 2.
To measure democracies on the basis of expected outcomes, which of the following parameters should one look for?
(I) Regular, free and fair elections.
(II) Local Self Governments.
(III) Citizens’ right to information about the government.
(IV) Citizen’s non participation in the political processes.
(V) Open public debate on major policies.
(a) (I), (II) & (IV)
(b) (I), (III) & (V)
(c) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (V)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (V)

Explanation: Citizen’s participation in the political processes is an important parameter to test successful democracies.

MCQ On Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 Question 3.
Which of the following statements do not hold true for non-democratic regimes?
(I) These regimes do not have to bother about public opinion.
(II) These regimes take a lot of time to decide.
(III) Principle of individual dignitg has legal and moral force here.
(IV) These often suppress internal social differences.
(a) (I), (II) & (IV)
(b) (I) & (IV)
(c) (I), (II) & (III)
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers Question 4.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Equal treatment of women is a necessary
ingredient of a society.
(a) Non-Democratic
(b) Monarchical
(c) Autocratic
(d) Democratic
Answer:
(d) Democratic

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

MCQ Of Outcomes Of Democracy Question 5.
Which of the following countries has half of its population living in poverty?
(a) Uzbekistan
(b) Libya
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(c) Bangladesh

Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Why is there a delay in decision-making and implementation in a democratic set up?
(a) The government is afraid of taking decisions.
(b) The government is not worried about taking decisions.
(c) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.
(d) A democratic government does not have a medium of taking decisions.
Answer:

Class 10 Outcomes Of Democracy MCQ Question 7.
Which one of the following is the most popular form of government in the contemporary world?
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Monarchy Rule
(c) Military Rule
(d) Democracy
Answer:
(d) Democracy

Outcomes Of Democracy MCQs Question 8.
Which one of the following is an example of outcomes of a democracy that produces an accountable government?
(a) Open to public debates on major policies and legislation.
(b) Open in promoting economic development.
(c) Open in reducing economic inequalities.
(d) Open to rulers elected by the people.
Answer:
(d) Open to rulers elected by the people.

Explanation: It produces an accountable government because the majority of the people approve of it.

MCQ Of Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 Question 9.
Which one of the following features is common to most of the democracies?
(a) They have a formal constitution
(b) They hold regular elections
(c) They have political parties
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

MCQ Of Chapter Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 Question 10.
In the context of assessing democracy which among the following is the odd one out. Democracies needs to ensure:
(a) Free and fair election
(b) Dignity of the individual
(c) Majority rule
(d) Equal treatment before law
Answer:
(c) Majority rule

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Outcomes Of Democracy Class 10 MCQs Question 11.
How many countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics? Choose the correct option from the following ones:
(a) Over 80 countries
(b) Over a hundred countries
(c) Over two hundred countries
(d) Only (a) is correct option
Answer:
(b) Over a hundred countries

Explanation: These countries have formal constitutions, they hold elections, they have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens and so they claim to be a democratic country.

MCQ Outcomes Of Democracy Question 12.
Most democracies have failed on which of the following issues?
(a) Corruption
(b) Removal of poverty
(c) Political equality
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Most democracies have failed on which of the following issues?

MCQs On Outcomes Of Democracy Question 13.
On which of the following pair of factors, economic development does not depend?
(a) Country’s population size and global situation.
(b) Cooperation from other countries and country’s economic priorities.
(c) Global situation and resources available in the country.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(c) Global situation and resources available in the country.

Outcomes Of Democracy MCQ Questions Question 14.
Which of the following outcome of democracy cannot be ignored?
(a) Democracy’s ability to generate its own support.
(b) Democracy often frustrates the needs of the people.
(c) Democracy often ignores the demands of a majority of its population.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) Democracy’s ability to generate its own support.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Outcomes Of Democracy MCQ Class 10 Question 15.
More than half of population of which country lives in poverty?
(a) India
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) All of these
Answer:

Question 16.
In actual life, democracies do not appear to be very successful in:
(a) Reducing economic inequalities
(b) Maintaining dignity of each individual
(c) Ensuring equality to all
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Reducing economic inequalities

Question 17.
Which of the following features is NOT associated with a democratic government?
(a) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.
(b) There is transparency in decision¬making.
(c) Decisions are taken quickly and are often forced upon people.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Decisions are taken quickly and are often forced upon people.

Explanation: Decisions are taken quickly and are often forced upon people is the feature of dictatorship while in democracy, decisions are taken slowly and it’s a time-consuming process but whatever decisions are taken, is accepted by the people.

Question 18.
Which of the following statements is against the spirit of democracy?
(a) Democracy promotes equality among citizens.
(b) It enhances the dignity of the individual.
(c) It does not allow room to correct mistakes.
(d) It provides method to resolve conflicts.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 19.
Democracies are based on:
(a) Social equality
(b) Economic equality
(c) Political equality
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Political equality

Explanation: In democracy, all individuals have equal weight in electing representatives. People have the right to form their own political party, to contest election and take part in the decision-making process.

Question 20.
Study the given picture and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy 1
Which one of the following options best signifies this cartoon?
(a) Demand for separate state from Democratic Government.
(b) Democratic Government is facing territorial issues with the bordering states.
(c) Democratic Government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation.
(d) Democratic Government accepts demands based on separate state.
Answer:
(c) Democratic Government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation.

Question 21.
Which of the following factors is often missing from a non-democratic government?
(a) Accountability
(b) Responsibility
(c) Transparency
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Explanation: Democracy has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. This is known as transparency. Democracy takes care of the needs and expectations of its people which makes it a responsible government.

In democracy, people have the right to choose their rulers and have control over them and they participate in decision-making that affects them all. This makes democracy an accountable government.

Identify

Question 22.
Identify the type of government on basis of the hints given below:
(1) Promotes equality among citizens;
(2) Enhances the dignity of the individual;
(3) Improves the quality of decision-making
Answer:
Democratic governments

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Correct and Rewrite /True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 23.
Democracies are based on social prosperity.
Answer:

Question 24.
Democratic governments have a very good record when it comes to sharing information with citizens.
Answer:
Democratic governments do not have a very good record when it comes to sharing information with citizens.

Question 25.
Dictatorships are based on political equality.
Answer:
Democracies are based on political equality.
Explanation: Democracy considers the will of the people above everything. All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives. They have right to vote or contest elections directly or indirectly through their representatives. They can participate in the decision-making process and can change the government in the next election if the government is not taking care of them. Thus, Democracies provide political equality.

Related Theory
Non-democratic governments such as monarchies, military rules, religious leaders or dictatorships do not consider the will of their people. People do not have any right to choose their representatives or change them. Nor these governments are accountable to their people.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 26.
The passion for ………………. and ………………. are the basis of democracy.
Answer:
respect, freedom

Question 27.
Democracy transforms people from the ……………….. status of a subject into that of a
Answer:
Citizen

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 28.
Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is a plus point of ……………………..
Answer:
Democratic regimes

Question 29.
Complete the following statement: Democracy remains democracy only as long as every citizen has a chance of being in ……………… at some point of time.
Answer:

Match the Columns choose the correct pairs:

Question 30.
Match the following information from column A with that given in column B:

Column A

Column B

(a) Democracy is accountable (i) Political equality in the country
(b) Democracy is responsive (ii) People’s own government
(c) Democracy is legitimate (iii) to the needs and expectations of its citizens
(d) Democracy ensures (iv) to its citizens

Answer:

Column A

Column B

(a) Democracy is accountable (iv) to its citizens
(b) Democracy is responsive (iii) to the needs and expectations of its citizens
(c) Democracy is legitimate (ii) People’s own government
(d) Democracy ensures (i) Political equality in the country

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 7

In each of following questions, a statemant of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 31.
Assertion (A): Democracy is a legitimate government.
Reason (R): Regular, free and fair elections are the spirit of democracy.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Democracies allow room to correct mistakes.
Reason (R): Democratic governments can be reelected.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Democratic governments allow room to correct mistakes that have been done in the past through reformed social and political laws.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): A democratic government will take more time to follow procedures before arriving at a decision.
Reason (R): A Democratic government is weak.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: A democratic government will take more time to follow procedures before arriving at a decision because it is based upon deliberation and negotiation and needs the consensus of the majority before taking any decision.

Question 34.
Assertion (A):A small number of ultra rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes in various countries.
Reason (R): Due to income inequalities, poor are exploited and do not receive much.
Answer:

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Democratically elected governments do not appear to be as keen to address the question of poverty as you would expect them to.
Reason (R): They believe that if the poor remain poor they will vote for them more.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Poor form a huge part of vote bank politics and hence one would expect governments to focus more on their interests and poverty eradication. This is not the case.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Study the data given below and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy 2
Which of the following countries promise the most support to Democracy?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(a) India

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
We felt that democracy was better because it: Promotes equality among citizens;
Enhances the dignity of the individual;
Improves the quality of decision making;
Provides a method to resolve conflicts; and Allows room to correct mistakes.
Are these expectations realised under democracies?

Considering the aims of a democracy and its realisation, which one of the following features is not common to democratic setups?
(a) They have a formal Constitution.
(b) They hold regular and fair, free elections.
(c) They do not have political parties.
(d) They have a universal adult franchise.
Answer:
(c) They do not have political parties.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
But once the principle is recognised, it becomes easier for women to wage a struggle against what is now unacceptable legally and morally. In a non-democratic set up, this unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the legal and moral force there. The same is true of caste inequalities. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity. There are instances still of caste-based inequalities and atrocities, but these lack the moral and legal foundations. Perhaps it is the recognition that makes ordinary citizens value their democratic rights.
(A) Which of the following features of democracy has been highlighted in the source?
(a) It cures economic inequalities.
(b) It promotes dignity of individuals by recognising the importance of vulnerable groups and ensuring equality.
(c) It cures political equality.
(d) It is legitimate.
Answer:
(b) It promotes dignity of individuals by recognising the importance of vulnerable groups and ensuring equality.

(B) Which of the following countries do not enjoy a democratic government?
(a) Bhutan
(b) Nepal
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China
Explanation: China has an authoritarian government where the president wields all the authority.

(C) Mention one way democracy avoids social conflicts.
Answer:
Democracy avoids social conflicts by accommodating social diversities.

(D) Assertion (A): Democracy establishes social equality.
Reason (R): It works for the interest of all the social groups without any prejudice or discrimination.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
If you consider all democracies and all dictatorships for the fifty years between 1950 and 2000, dictatorships have slightly higher rate of economic growth. The inability of democracy to achieve higher economic development worries us. But this alone cannot be a reason to reject democracy. As you have already studied in economics, economic development depends on several factors: country’s population size, global situation, cooperation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country, etc. However, the difference in the rates of economic development between less developed countries with dictatorships and democracies is negligible.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following factors does affect economic growth?
(I) Country’s population size
(II) Global situation
(III) Cooperation from other countries
(IV) Economic priorities adopted by the country
(a) (II) & (III) only
(b) (I) only
(c) (111) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

(B) Which of the following countries is likely to have a greater economic growth rate?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(b) China
Explanation: China is a dictatorship while the rest are democracies.

(C) How does democracy affect the economic distribution of resources in a country in reality?
(a) It equalises the distribution among classes
(b) The rich get richer.
(c) The poor get richer.
(d) The foreigners get richer.
Answer:
(c) The rich get richer.
Explanation: The rich get richer and the poor get poorer due to the unequal distribution of the resources despite the claim of democracy.

(D) Which of the following countries show a huge economic inequality?
(a) Brazil
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Denmark
Answer:
(a) Brazil

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
But once the principle is recognised, it becomes easier for women to wage a struggle against what is now unacceptable legally and morally. In a non-democratic set up, this unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the legal and moral force there. The same is true of caste inequalities. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity. There are instances still of caste-based inequalities and atrocities, but these lack the
moral and legal foundations. Perhaps it is the recognition that makes ordinary citizens value their democratic rights.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) What makes it easy to wage a struggle against a discriminating act?
(I) Legal force
(II) Recognition of a problem
(III) Moral Force
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III)
(c) (I) & (II)
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) & (III)

(B) Which of the following governments does not lack moral and legal sanctions?
(a) Monarchy
(b) Democracy
(c) Oligarchy
(d) Aristocracy
Answer:
(b) Democracy

Which of the following governments does not lack moral and legal sanctions?

(C) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the …………. castes for equal status and equal opportunity.
(a) Rich classes
(b) Middle classes
(c) Disadvantaged
(d) Aristocratic
Answer:
(c) Disadvantaged

Explanation: Democracy promotes the dignity of an individual and harmony between classes and castes.

(D) Which one of the following is not the way to resolve a conflict in a democracy?
(a) Mass participation
(b) Using laws and rules
(c) Establishing justice and peace
(d) Armed revolution
Answer:
(d) Armed revolution

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
As people get some benefits of democracy, they ask for more and want to make democracy even better.
That is why, when we ask people about the way democracy functions, they will always come up with more expectations, and many complaints. The fact that people are complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy: it shows that people have developed awareness and the ability to expect and to look critically at power holders and the high and the mighty. A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project: it transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen. Most individuals today believe that their vote makes a difference to the way the government is run and to their own self-interest.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Why do people ask for more from democracy?
(a) Because democracy is worth it.
(b) Because democracy guarantees benefits.
(c) Because democracy is better than non democratic governments.
(d) Democracy is half developed.

(B) How do people show public dissatisfaction?
(I) Throughsocial movements
(II) By staying quiet
(III) By expecting more
(a) (I) only
(b) (III) only
(c) (II) & (III)
(d) (I) & (III)

(C) …………….. transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen. Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
(a) Democracy
(b) Monarchy
(c) Oligarchy
(d) Dictatorships

(D) Why are people complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy?
(a) It shows that people have developed awareness
(b) It shows people know nothing about democracy.
(c) It shows people do not enjoy democracy.
(d) It shows people want to be part of a dictatorship.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics: they have formal constitutions, they hold elections, they have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens. While these features are common to most of them, these democracies are very different from each other in terms of their social situations, their economic achievements and their cultures. Consequently, what may be achieved or not achieved under each of these democracies will be very different.
(A) Explain the fascination for democracy amongst various countries.
Answer:
Democracies give freedom of speech, expression and religion along with promoting dignity and freedom of human beings. It provides people with a free and dignified life and reduces possibilities of social conflicts. This is why countries are fascinated with democracy.

(B) Explain democracy on the basis of expected and actual outcome.
Answer:

Question 8.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:
Source A: Accountable, responsive and legitimate government
There are some things that democracy must provide. In a democracy, we are most concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making, that affects them all.

Source B: Reduction of inequality and poverty
Perhaps more than development, it is reasonable to expect democracies to reduce economic disparities. Even when a country achieves economic growth, will wealth be distributed in such a way that all citizens of the country will have a share and lead a better life? Is economic growth in democracies accompanied by increased inequalities among the people? Or do democracies lead to a just distribution of goods and opportunities?

Source C: Dignity and freedom of the citizens In a non-democratic set up, this unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the legal and moral force there. The same is true of caste inequalities. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity. Source A: Accountable, responsive and legitimate government
(A) Define democracy in a single sentence on the basis of your reading of the given extract.
Source B: Reduction of inequality and poverty
Answer:
Democracy can be defined as a political system in which people have the right of choosing or changing their rulers who are answerable to them.

(B) What are economic disparities? Has the Indian Democracy been capable of reducing them?
Source C: Dignity and freedom of the citizens
Answer:

(C) Justify the statement with an example, “Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity.”
Answer:
It is true that democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the dis¬advantaged and discriminated castes for equal opportunity. For example, Dalits in India have been given reservations of seats in educational institutions and government jobs while 27 per cent reservation has been given to Socially and Educationally Backward Classes so that they can come up at par with the common people in the society.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 9.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow:
Democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of these tensions becoming explosive or violent. No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly Learn to respect these differences and we can also evolve mechanisms to negotiate the differences. Democracy is best suited to produce this outcome. Non-democratic regimes often turn a blind eye to or suppress internal social differences. Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes.
(A) Which is the best form of government to handle social differences?
Answer:
Democratic Governments are better suited to handle social differences than Non- democratic regimes.

(B) How does Democracy handle Social Differences?
Answer:
Democracy accepts, acknowledges social differences and gives less volatile mediums to express it without violence in the country. It develops its own method of competition.

(C) Suggest two ways to increase peace and harmony in a socially/communally divided country.
Answer:
Two ways to reduce differences and promote peace and harmony:

  1. one should try to first bring total equality among all communities or social groups. No group should be preferred for any favours.
  2. one should try to develop national unity by reminding them of shared struggles, culture and historical events.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by transparency?
Answer:
Transparency means that every citizen belonging to any democratic country has the right to information, the right to examine or investigate whether the laws, plans, action, policies or decisions taken by the government are correct or are beneficial to them or not.

Question 2.
How does democracy produce an accountable development?
Answer:
Democracy produces an accountable government by giving the citizen the right to examine the process by which decisions are made.

Question 3.
Give any one example of economic development in dictatorial regimes.
Answer:
Dictatorships have higher rates of economic growth as compared to democracies. For example, China’s growth rate is higher than most of the other democracies in the world.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 4.
If you want to extract information about the functions of any government department, which right would you exercise?
Answer:
I would exercise my Right to Information (RTI) to extract information about the functions of any government department.

Related Theory
The Right to Information (RTI) Act was passed by the Parliament of India to set out rules and procedures regarding citizens’ right to information. Under the provisions of this act, any citizen of India may request information from any public authority by filing a petition in the court.

Question 5.
Mention any two common features of democratic politics.
Answer;
Features of democratic politics are:

  1. Free and fair elections are organized.
  2. The principle of one person, one vote, one value’ is followed.
  3. Major decisions are taken by elected leaders.
  4. The rule of Law prevaiLs.

Related Theory
Democracy is a form of political system in which the government of a country is elected by the citizens through free and fair elections.

Question 6.
How is democracy based on political equality in India?
Answer:
In India, every citizen above 18 years of age has the right to vote. Every citizen has the right to contest elections irrespective of his/her caste, religion, creed, economic status, etc. if he/she is 21 years of age. Hence, democracy is based on political equality in India.

Related Theory
Democracy is a form of government which is for the people, of the people and by the people, it promotes equality and discourages all forms of discrimination- social, economical or political.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Question 7.
Which type of government develops mechanisms for citizens to hold the government accountable?
Answer:

Question 8.
What does this image show about the outcomes of democratic politics? Explain in your own words.
Answer:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy 3

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Development Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Development Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The Literacy rate of Kerala in 2011 was ……………………….
(a) 82
(b) 94
(c) 62
(d) 50
Answer:
(b) 94

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Fill in the bLank with respect to the correct criterion of comparison by choosing the most appropriate option:
Students – Height and Weight;
Countries – …………………….
(o) Number of Cities
(b) Size of the Territory
(c) Per Capita Income
(d) Population
Answer:
(c) Per Capita Income

Class 10 Development MCQ Question 3.
In which state of India is the infant mortality rate highest?
(a) Goa
(b) Bihar
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(b) Bihar

Development MCQ Class 10 Question 4.
Which one of the following actions enhances environmental degradation?
(a) Planting of trees along the roadsides.
(b) Prevention of sewage disposal into water bodies
(c) Ban on use of plastic bags.
(d) Allowing the level of exhaust fumes emitted by cars, buses, trucks, etc., to rise.
Answer:

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 MCQ Question 5.
Per capita income is:
(a) Income per State
(b) Income per Earning and Non-Earning Members of a family
(c) Income of each female in a house
(d) Income per person
Answer:
(d) Income per person

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

MCQ Of Development Class 10 Question 6.
What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of jobless youth?
(a) More employment opportunities
(b) More days of work and better wages
(c) Metal roads for transportation
(d) Establishment of a high school
Answer:
(a) More employment opportunities

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development MCQ Online Test Question 7.
Which one of the following is not a feature of an underdeveloped country?
(a) Agriculture as the major occupation
(b) High technological development
(c) Mass poverty
(d) Mass illiteracy
Answer:
(b) High technological development

Explanation: Any underdeveloped country does not have access to high technology because of its economic inadequacy.

Economics Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 8.
……………… will be the aspiration of a working woman.
(a) To have a garden
(b) To have a safe and secure work environment at the office.
(c) To have good job opportunities where her education can be made use of.
(d) To have better technologies that can make data storing easy.
Answer:
(b) To have a safe and secure work environment at the office.

MCQ On Development Class 10 Question 9.
For each of the sectors, that we come across we should focus on employment and:
(a) GDP
(b) GNP
(c) NNP
(d) NI
Answer:
(a) GDP

Explanation: The other quantities have been associated with the nation and not with individual sectors.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Economics Chapter 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following factors are important for development other than income? [Diksha]
(a) Per Capita Income
(b) Literacy
(c) Net Attendance Ratio
(d) All of the above
Answer:

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development MCQ With Answers Question 11.
Which of the following neighboring country of India has a higher HDI rank than India?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Nepal
(c) Pakistan
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sri Lanka

MCQ Development Class 10 Question 12.
Which of the following states has the highest literacy rate according to 2018 study reports?
(a) Haryana
(b) Bihar
(c) Punjab
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(d) Kerala

Get UML full form and full name in details.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 One Word Questions And Answers Question 13.
What is the full form of PDS?
(a) Public Distribution System
(b) Public Development System
(c) Public Division System
(d) Public discussion System
Answer:
(a) Public Distribution System

Explanation: Public Distribution System is a scheme run by the government to provide essential food grains like rice, wheat, pulses, oil at very affordable to the disadvantaged classes to ensure their healthy development.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Question 14.
…………. is an example of a renewable resource.
(a) Petroleum
(b) Crude oil
(c) Groundwater
(d) Coal resources
Answer:
(c) Groundwater

Explanation: Groundwater is a renewable resource and can be renewed through natural processes. Other renewable resources are Solar Energy, wind energy, etc.

Non-Renewable Resources, once exhausted can not be renewed naturally. For example, Coal, minerals, and petroleum.

Class 10 Eco Ch 1 MCQ Question 15.
Literacy rate measures the proportion of the Literate population in the Age group:
(a) Above 5 years
(b) Above 12 years
(c) Above 7 years
(d) Above 6 years
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 16.
The average income of a person is called:
(a) Total income
(b) Per capita income
(c) Gross income
(d) Per nation income
Answer:
(b) Per capita income

The average income of a person is called:

Explanation: The average income of a person in a country is known as per capita income. It is calculated by dividing the total income of the country by its total population.

Related Theory

  • The total income of a person is the sum of his income from all sources in a particular time period i.e. monthly or annually.
  • The value of the total goods and services produced within a country in a year is called the National income of a country.

Full form of DSLR is Digital Single-lens Reflex Camera.

Question 17.
UNDP can be expanded as:
(a) United Nations Development Programme
(b) United Nations Diversity Playground
(c) United Nations Democratic Programme
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) United Nations Development Programme

Explanation: United Nations Development Programme is a United Nations Agency that studies, looks after the development of member countries by holding annual discussions and programs. It releases a human development report where it measures various countries on scale of a few of its indicators.

Question 18.
Based on Per capita income, India comes in the category of:
(a) Middle-income group
(b) Low-income group
(c) High-income group
(d) Low middle-income group
Answer:

Question 19.
Which of the following statement defines Sustainable Development?
(a) Sustainable use of natural resources without considering the need of the future generation.
(b) Present generation fulfills its needs while considering the needs of the future generation as well.
(c) It means utilization of natural resources by the past, present and future generation.
(d) To meet the needs of the future generations even if the needs of the present generation go unmet.
Answer:
(A) Present generation fulfils its needs while considering the needs of the future generation as well.

Identify

Question 20.
Identify the object on the basis of the hints given:
(1) The resource is renewable.
(2) Its overuse is found in the agriculturally prosperous regions of Punjab and Western U.P.
Answer:
Groundwater
Correct and Rewrite

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 21.
Rewrite the statement after correcting the underlined phrase.
A country having a high standard of living and a better environment in terms of health and safety is known as a developing country.
Answer:
A country having a high standard of living and a better environment in terms of health and safety is known as a developed country.

Fill in the Blanks

Question 22.
USA has low reserves of oil and secures it through ………………………
Answer:
Economic power.

Question 23.
Observe the source given below and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 1
Complete the following sentence based on your observation.
The idea of …………….. can be depicted from the cartoon.

Question 24.
……………. is a new-renewable resource.
Answer:
Coal or Crude Oil

Question 25.
The present Levels of development are
Answer:
not sustainable

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 26.
The number of deaths of children less than one year of age per 1000 live births is referred as ………….
Answer:
Infant mortality rate (IMR).

Question 27.
One of the best ways to reduce over-usage of groundwater is …………
Answer:
Implementation of stringent policies to control misuse of water.

Question 28.
……………… is an example of renewable resource.
Answer:
Groundwater

Explanation: Renewable resource are replenished by nature as in the case of crops and plants. However even these resources may be overused. Groundwater is renewable but highly overused in states of Punjab, Haryana and Western UP.

Question 29.
Human Development Index (HDI) in India can be improved through ……………….
Answer:
(1) Provision of free educational facilities for children up to 16 years of age to improve literacy rate.
(2) Provision of better and more robust health care services.
(Mention any 1)

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 30.
Choose the incorrect option from Column A and Column B.

Column A (Category of person) Column B (Developmental goats/Aspirations)
(a) Landless rural Labourers (i) More days of work and better wages
(b) Prosperous farmers from Punjab (ii) Availability of other sources of irrigation
(c) Farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops (iii) Assured higher support prices for their crops
(d) A rural woman from a Land- owning family (iv) Regular job and high wages to increase her income

Answer:
(c) Farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops (iii) Assured higher support prices for their crops.

Explanation: A large amount of water is required for the cultivation of crops of the farmers, who are primarily dependent on rain. Hence, their primary need is the availability of irrigation facilities to support their crops in the absence of rain.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 31.
Match the countries given with their HDI Rank according to Human Development Report, UNDP, 2018.

Column A Column B
(a) Sri Lanka (i) 150
(b) India (ii) 149
(c) Pakistan (iii) 130
(d) Nepal (iv) 76

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Sri Lanka (iv) 76
(b) India (iii) 130
(c) Pakistan (i) 150
(d) Nepal (ii) 149

Explanation: Human Development Report published by UNDP annually compares countries based on the educational levels of the people their health status and per capita income. It calculates a cumulative score by measuring GNI. life expectancy at birth and mean years of schooling (literacy and accessibility to educational facilities). All member countries are compared and ranks are given according to their score. Higher rank means greater human development.

Question 32.
Choose the correctly matched option from the following:

Column I (Category of person) Column II (Development goat)
(a) Farmers who depend only on  rain for growing crops More days of work and better wages
(b) Landless rural Labourers Higher support prices for their crops
(c) Prosperous farmers from Punjab Regular wages
(d) An adivosi from Narmada volley To fulfill Livelihood

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Economics Chapter 1

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): Increase in population, urbanization and industrialization lead to increased use for fossil fuels.
Reason (R): Overuse of conventional energy resources has resulted in the phenomenon of greenhouse effect.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 34.
Assertion (A): Groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country.
Reason (R): About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20 years.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Development involves thinking about the ways in which we can work towards achieving goals of holistic growth.
Reason (R): Holistic growth is economic growth.
Answer:

Question 36.
Assertion (A): Kerala has a better net attendance ratio than Bihar.
Reason (R): Kerala has less female children than Bihar hence the attendance ratio is better.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Kerala has better infrastructure and educational facilities for students. This makes it easier to attend school and study.

Question 37.
Assertion (A): People not only think of better income but also have goals such as security, respect for others, equal treatment, freedom, etc. in mind.
Reason (R): Money cannot buy everything.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
The given picture shows an overuse of which of the following resources?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 2
(a) Soil
(b) Air
(c) Woman Power
(d) Groundwater
Answer:
(d) Groundwater

Question 2.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
The idea of development or progress has always been with us. We have aspirations or desires about what we would like to do and how we would like to live. Similarly, we have ideas about what a country should be like. Which of the following is the right replacement for the underlined sentence?
(a) We have community goals.
(b) We have occupational goals.
(c) We have developmental goals.
(d) We have society goals.
Answer:
(c) We have developmental goals.

Question 3.
Match the items in Column A to that of Column B and choose the right option:

Column A

Column B

(A) Girl in an urban family  (I) Regular wages and more job days
(B) A minister  (II) Equal opportunities just like her brother
(C) A laborer  (III) More profit, more projects
(D) A businessman  (IV) More votes

(a) (A)-(II),(B)-(IV),(C)-(I),(D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(III),(B)-(IV),(C)-(II),(D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III),(B)-(I),(C)-(IV),(D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(I),(B)-(III),(C)-(II),(D)-(I)
Answer:
(a) (A)-(II),(B)-(IV),(C)-(I),(D)-(III)

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 4.
Study the picture and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 3
What could be the development goal for the shown area?
Answer:

Question 5.
Study the picture given below. Ident fy an appropriate developmental goal foe the characters.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 4
Answer:
An appropriate developmental goal for the poor lady would be to have a stable job and affordable house for her small family. For the rich man, his developmental goal can be more opportunities for profit and investment from foreign countries, more luxurious Life or even a bigger car.

Question 6.
Study the table and answer the question tnat follows :
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 5
Sources: Economic Survey, 2017-18 VoL 2, Government of India; National Sample Survey Organisation (Report No. 575)
In comparison to Kerala, which state has the highest infant mortality rate ?
Answer:
Bihar
Explanation: As Bihar lacks health and proper education facilities, the mortality rate is highest there.

Question 7.
Study the table and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 6
Which State has the lowest net attendance ratio at the secondary stage?
Answer:
Bihar

Explanation: The table shows the lowest statistics for net attendance ratio in Bihar.

Related Theory
Net attendance ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school as a percentage of the total number of children in the same age group.

Question 8.
Based on the data given in the following table, calculate the average income for both countries:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 7
Which country has more equitable distribution of income?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 9.
Study the statistics in the table and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 8
Calculate the average income of the family.
Answer:
₹10,000

Explanation: Average Income of the family: 7,000 + 8,000 + 10,000 + 15,000 = 40,000
Sum of incomes = 40,000
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers 9
Answer:

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
A vessel dumped 500 tonnes of liquid toxic wastes into open-air dumps in a city and in the surrounding sea. This happened in a city called Abidjan in Ivory Coast, a country in Africa. The fumes from the highly toxic waste caused nausea, skin rashes, fainting, diarrhoea etc. After a month seven persons were dead, twenty in hospital and twenty six thousand treated for symptoms of poisoning. A multinational company dealing in petroleum and metals had contracted a local company of the Ivory Coast to dispose the toxic waste from its ship.
(A) Which of the following would be an ideal goal for natives of Abidjan?
(a) Free Healthcare, healthier environ-ment.
(b) More space
(c) More houses
(d) More factories and hence more jobs
Answer:
(a) Free Healthcare, healthier environment.

Which of the following would be an ideal goal for natives of Abidjan

(B) Which of the following would be an ideal goal for the multinational company?
(I) More money
(II) To get rid of its waste without having to pay for its disposal.
(III) More employees
(IV) More profit
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (III) only
(d) (I) (II) & (IV)
Answer:

(C) Which resource was severely affected in the given source?
Answer:
Water in the sea bodies.

(D) Assertion (A): Different people may have different and conflicting interests.
Reason (R): They belong to different continents.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Once it is realised that even though the level of income is important, yet it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other criteria. There could be a long list of such criteria but then it would not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health and education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Haryana, are among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with income as a measure of development For instance, the Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income. It would be interesting to look at certain relevant data regarding India and its neighbours from the Human Development Report 2019.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following countries has a better rank than India in Human Development Report for 2018?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal
Answer:
(b) Sri Lanka

Explanation: Sri Lanka is at rank 76 while India is at rank 130.

(B) Which of the following criteria is common in the assessment of development in the reports of the World Bank and UNDP?
(a) Educational levels
(b) Health Status
(c) Gold Reserves
(d) Per Capita Income
Answer:
(d) Per Capita Income

(C) Where is the UNDP headquartered?
(a) London
(b) New York
(c) Burns
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(b) New York

(D) Which of the Asian country is lower in HDI?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(b) Pakistan
Explanation: Pakistan is at rank 150 according to the list of 2018.

Question 12.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 metres during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the country is overusing their groundwater reserves. In another 25 years,
60 per cent of the country would be doing the same if the present way of using this resource continues. Groundwater overuse is particularly found in the agriculturally prosperous regions of Punjab and Western U.P., hard rock plateau areas of central and south India, some coastal areas and the rapidly growing urban settlements.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following resources are renewable but excessively used?
(a) Solar Energy
(b) Wind Energy
(c) Air
(d) Trees
Answer:
(d) Trees
Explanation: Trees are heavily deforested and uprooted for various industrial and construction projects.

(B) What proportion of the country is over using their groundwater reserves?
(a) One-Fourth
(b) One-Third
(c) One-Tenth
(d) One-Eighth
Answer:
(b) One-Third

(C) Which of the following options is a reason for Groundwater overuse?
(I) Usage at homes
(II) Usage at Agricultural sites
(III) Watering plants
(IV) Pollution through chemicals and solid wastes
(V) Drinking
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (IV)
(c) (III), (IV) & (V)
(d) (I), (II) & (IV)
Answer:

(D) Which of the following is a solution to prevent Groundwater overuse?
(a) Stop drinking groundwater
(b) Stop irrigating plants and crops
(c) Rainwater harvesting
(d) Use river water for domestic usage
Answer:
(c) Rainwater harvesting

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 13.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Do all of these persons have the same notion of development or progress? Most likely not. Each one of them seeks different things. They seek things that are most important for them, i.e., that which can fulfil their aspirations or desires. In fact, at times, two persons or groups of persons may seek things which are conflicting. A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother, and that he also shares in the household work. Her brother may not like this. Similarly, to get more electricity, industrialists may want more dams. But this may submerge the land and disrupt the lives of people who are displaced – such as tribals. They might resent this and may prefer small check dams or tanks to irrigate their land. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which one of the following is a developmental goal for labour unions?
(a) To get labour rules which benefit the labourers if implemented
(b) To get more buildings made
(c) To get more electricity
(d) To get more money
Answer:
(a) To get labour rules which benefit the labourers if implemented

(B) which of the following statements is correct about developmental goals?
(a) They are the same for all the citizens of a country.
(b) They are different and sometimes even contradictory for different groups and people.
(c) There are no developmental goals.
(d) These goals do not matter.
Answer:

(C) What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a native craftsman?
(a) Expansion of rural banking
(b) More days of work and better wages
(c) Metal roads for transportation
(d) More demand of local and handmade goods
Answer:
(d) More demand of local and handmade goods

(D) Which two groups have conflicting interests according to the source?
(a) The girls and the boy
(b) The tribals and the industrialists
(c) Companies fighting for one project
(d) The tribals against one another
Answer:
(b) The tribals and the industrialists

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Suggest any one way to create employment in Semi-rural areas.
Answer:
Capacity building and establishing of food processing units in Semi Rural areas can help create employment in Semi-Rural areas.

Question 2.
State any two goals of development other than Income.
Answer:
Values like Peace and Freedom; Healthy environment.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 3.
Why does Kerala have a Low Infant Mortality Rate?
Answer:
Availability of Healthcare and medical facilities helps it have a low mortality rate.

Question 4.
What is the development goal of rural people of India as per your viewpoint?
Answer:
To have access to better resources like food, transportation and communication facilities.

Question 5.
What is the advantage of knowing per capita income? Mention any one.
Answer:
Knowing per capita income for a country helps to compare and analyze wealth of different countries and measure their,. economic development. It can be used as a measure of nation’s standard of living.

Question 6.
What is the full form of HDI?
Answer:
Human Development Index.

Question 7.
According to the World Bank (2004), which country would be classified as a low income country?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 8.
If there are 4 families in a country with per capita income of 15,000 $. The income of 3 families is $10,000, $ 20,000 and $12,000. What is the income of the 4th family?
Answer:
Per Capita Income = Average Income = Sum of income of all units/Total units
= 10,000 + 20,000 + 12,000 + A/4 = 15,000
= 15,000 x 4 = 10,000+20,000+12,000 + A
= 60,000 – (10,000 + 20,000 + 12,000 + A)
A = 60,000 – 42,000
A = Rs. 18,000

Question 9.
“There is enough for everybody’s need but not for everybody’s greed.” Who said these words? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 10.
Why do some people oppose dams? Give one reason.
Answer:
Displacement of homes, destruction of natural habitat makes adivasis in India oppose the construction of dams.

Question 11.
How can development be made sustainable? Illustrate with examples from everyday life.
Answer:
Development can be made sustainable if the existing resources are used in a planned manner. Emphasis should be developing renewable sources of energy and recycling of metals.

Question 12.
Define the term ‘literacy rate’.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 13.
Defirle the term ‘Uteracy rate’.
Answer:

Question 14.
What may be one of the developmental goals of a girl who belongs to a rich urban family? [CBSE 2019,14,11]
Answer:
the developmental goals of a girl who belongs to a rich urban family may be getting the same freedom as her brother, pursue higher studies and a high standard of living.

Related Theory
A development goal is a target or an aim that a person wants to achieve by developing himself/ herself. Alt people have different development goals according to the situation they are in or the work they do.

Question 15.
How can two people have different developmental goals ? [CBSE 2018]
Answer:
Different people have different developmental goals because people come from different backgrounds and have different dreams and aspirations.

Related Theory
People set their goals according to the changing circumstances and the prevailing situation and may also change the goal with the change in situation which could be contradictory to the previous goal.

Question 16.
Define IMR.
Answer:
The number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live children born in that particular year, is called infant mortality rate or IMR.

Question 17.
What may be one of the developmental goals of b rich farmer? [CBSE 2019,15]
Answer:
The developmental goals of a rich farmer might be gaining high profits on the produce or availability of cheap labour to work in the farm.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 18.
Define the term ‘per capita income’.
Answer:
Per capita income is calculated as the average income of a citizen of a country. Per capita Income = total income of a country/total population

Question 19.
What may be a developmental goal of farmers who depend only on rain for growing crops?
Answer:
The development goal of a farmer who is only dependent on rain for growing crop, would be a good and sufficient monsoon season so that his crops get the required irrigation and he can benefit from the good produce.

Related Theory
Developmental goal is a target or an aim that a person wants to achieve by developing himself/ herself. All people have different development goals according to the situation they are in or the work they do.

Question 20.
Mention the formula to calculate the BMI (Body Mass Index).
Answer:
BMI: (BODY MASS INDEX)
Weight of person in kg and height in metres is taken. Divide the weight by the square of the height.

Question 21.
What may be a developmental goal of the urban unemployed youth? [CBSE 2019,12]
Answer:
The development goal of an urban unemployed youth would be to find a good job and earn a decent wage with that work. He/she will aspire to maintain a good standard of living.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

Question 22.
What criteria does UNDP compare to measure the human development index?
Answer:
UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income.

Related Theory
UNDP compares countries based on these aspects and prepares a Human Development Report.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Deep Water Class 12 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 3

Deep Water Class 12 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 3

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Chapter 3 Deep Water with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 English with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Deep Water Class 12 English MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Chapter 3 Deep Water with Answers

Deep Water MCQ Chapter 3 Class 12 Question 1.
At the end of the experience, Douglas felt
(a) happy
(b) released
(c) sad
(d) victorious

Answer

Answer: (b) released


Deep Water Class 12 MCQ Chapter 3 Question 2.
‘All we have to fear is fear itself. Who said these words?
(a) Douglas
(b) his instructor
(c) his father
(d) President Roosevelt

Answer

Answer: (d) President Roosevelt


MCQ Of Deep Water Chapter 3 Class 12 Question 3.
‘What do you think you can do to me’? These words were spoken by Douglas to
(a) a shark
(b) to his enemy
(c) to the boy who pushed him
(d) to terror

Answer

Answer: (d) to terror


Deep Water MCQs Chapter 3 Class 12 Question 4.
Whenever terror struck again, Douglas would start
(a) shouting
(b) laughing
(c) crying
(d) talking to terror

Answer

Answer: (d) talking to terror


Deep Water MCQ Questions Chapter 3 Class 12 Question 5.
Douglas had to repeat exhaling and inhaling exercises
(a) hundred times
(b) forty times
(c) fifty times
(d) ten times

Answer

Answer: (a) hundred times


Deep Water MCQ Class 12 Chapter 3 Question 6.
He practised in the pool
(a) ten times a week
(b) five days a week
(c) twice a week
(d) thrice a week

Answer

Answer: (b) five days a week


Class 12 Deep Water MCQ Chapter 3 Question 7.
After being haunted by fear for many years Douglas decided to learn to swim. He took the help of
(a) his mother
(b) his father
(c) a friend
(d) an instructor

Answer

Answer: (d) an instructor


The Deep Water MCQ Chapter 3 Class 12 Question 8.
When he regained consciousness, he
(a) laughed at his experience
(b) had 104° F fever
(c) shook and cried and didn’t eat anything
(d) told his mother about his misadventure

Answer

Answer: (c) shook and cried and didn’t eat anything


MCQs Of Deep Water Chapter 3 Class 12 Question 9.
Douglas went down towards the bottom
(a) only once
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) five times

Answer

Answer: (c) thrice


MCQ Deep Water Chapter 3 Class 12 Question 10.
The water in the pool had a
(a) dirty yellow tinge
(b) a blue reflection
(c) green colour
(d) no colour

Answer

Answer: (a) dirty yellow tinge


MCQ On Deep Water Chapter 3 Class 12 Question 11.
When Douglas tried to yell
(a) everyone came to his rescue
(b) no sound came out
(c) his father arrived
(d) the lifeguard dived to save him up, they hung as

Answer

Answer: (b) no sound came out


Class 12 English Deep Water MCQ Chapter 3 Question 12.
The nine feet seemed to Douglas like
(a) hundred feet
(b) ninety feet
(c) fifty feet
(d) twenty-five feet

Answer

Answer: (b) ninety feet


The nine feet seemed to Douglas like

Deep Water MCQ With Answers Chapter 3 Class 12 Question 13.
Though Douglas was frightened, he was not
(a) afraid to die
(b) going to survive
(c) out of his wits
(d) able to shout for help

Answer

Answer: (c) out of his wits


MCQ Of Deep Water Class 12 Chapter 3 Question 14.
Douglas calls him a
(a) nasty human being
(b) a brute
(c) a beautiful physical specimen
(d) a big bully

Answer

Answer: (c) a beautiful physical specimen


Question 15.
The misadventure at the Y.M.C.A pool happened when
(a) Douglas was accompanied by friends
(b) he was with his father
(c) he was alone
(d) he was with his mother

Answer

Answer: (c) he was alone


Question 16.
The incident in childhood had taken place at the beach in
(a) Florida
(b) Washington
(c) New York
(d) California

Answer

Answer: (d) California


Question 17.
The pool’s depth at the deep end was
(a) twenty feet
(b) nine feet
(c) six feet
(d) eight feet

Answer

Answer: (b) nine feet


Question 18.
His mother warned him against swimming in the Yakima River because it had
(a) strong currents
(b) it was meant only for boating
(c) many people had drowned there
(d) it had no lifeguards around

Answer

Answer: (c) many people had drowned there


Question 19.
The writer decided to learn to swim when he was about
(a) ten or eleven years old
(b) fifteen or sixteen years old
(c) twenty years old
(d) eighteen years old

Answer

Answer: (a) ten or eleven years old


Question 20.
William Douglas was a friend and adviser of
(a) President Kennedy
(b) President Cleveland
(c) President Roosevelt
(d) President Clinton

Answer

Answer: (c) President Roosevelt


Question 21.
Where was the lake Wentworth?
(a) In New Hampshire
(b) in Washington
(c) in California
(d) in Washington D.C

Answer

Answer: (a) In New Hampshire


Question 22.
How did Douglas make sure that he had conquered the old terror?
(a) By visiting California
(b) By jumping into the waters
(c) By taking a lesson from the instructor
(d) By swimming into the lake Wentworth

Answer

Answer: (d) By swimming into the lake Wentworth


Question 23.
Why was Douglas determined to get over his fear of water?
(a) because he wanted to swim in the waters of the Cascade
(b) because his friend had challenged him
(c) because he had a bet on it
(d) because he wanted to win a medal

Answer

Answer: (a) because he wanted to swim in the waters of the Cascade


Question 24.
Why did Douglas hire an instructor?
(a) To be confident in swimming
(b) To compete with others
(c) To flaunt
(d) To overcome his fear of water and learn swimming

Answer

Answer: (d) To overcome his fear of water and learn swimming


Question 25.
Why did Douglas hate to walk with bare legs?
(a) Ugly looking legs
(b) Fat legs
(c) Because of skin color
(d) Because of skinny legs

Answer

Answer: (d) Because of skinny legs


Question 26.
What was the impact of the pool incident?
(a) Developed fear
(b) Became confident
(c) Became overconfident
(d) Hydrophobia was revived

Answer

Answer: (d) Hydrophobia was revived


Question 27.
What does Douglas do to save himself in the pool?
(a) Used his mind and pushed himself up
(b) Shouted aloud
(c) Called people
(d) Shouted help help

Answer

Answer: (a) Used his mind and pushed himself up


Question 28.
How did the instructor make Douglas a good swimmer?
(a) Planning
(b) With the help of ropes
(c) By pushing him into the pool
(d) With the help of ropes and belts

Answer

Answer: (d) With the help of ropes and belts


Question 29.
How did this experience affect the author?
(a) Became fearless
(b) Confident
(c) Overconfident
(d) Became hydrophobic

Answer

Answer: (d) Became hydrophobic


Question 30.
What were the series of emotions and fears that Douglas experienced when he was thrown into the pool?
(a) Fear
(b) Confidence
(c) Overconfidence
(d) Mixed feelings of confidence and fear

Answer

Answer: (d) Mixed feelings of confidence and fear


Question 31.
What was the fear in Douglas’ mind?
(a) To be defeated
(b) To be pushed
(c) Being drowned
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (c) Being drowned


Question 32.
What does Deep Water signify?
(a) Beauty
(b) Depth of Sea
(c) Depth of ocean
(d) Fear

Answer

Answer: (d) Fear


Question 33.
What is the theme of the story Deep Water?
(a) Victory in facing the fear
(b) Being fearful
(c) To learn swimming
(d) All

Answer

Answer: (a) Victory in facing the fear


What is the theme of the story Deep Water?

Question 34.
What did William O Doughlas desire for?
(a) Visit to California
(b) To be a judge
(c) To learn swimming
(d) To be with his mother

Answer

Answer: (c) To learn swimming


Question 35.
What is haunting the author?
(a) Terrible experience in the pool
(b) Ghosts
(c) His mother’s words
(d) A push by a young boy

Answer

Answer: (a) Terrible experience in the pool


Question 36.
Where did the writer go when he was 3 or 4 years old in the story?
(a) Washington
(b) New Zealand
(c) California
(d) Canada

Answer

Answer: (c) California


Question 37.
Y.M.C.A stands for?
(a) Young Men’s Christian Authority
(b) Young Men’s Christopher Association
(c) Young Men’s Christian Army
(d) Young Men’s Christian Associa

Answer

Answer: (d) Young Men’s Christian Associa


Question 38.
What is the story Deep Water speaking about?
(a) Fear of water and the way to overcome it
(b) Fear of people
(c) Fear of dogs
(d) Fear of swimming

Answer

Answer: (a) Fear of water and the way to overcome it


Question 39.
For how many years had the author taught in high school in Yakima?
(a) 2 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 years


Question 40.
Who is the author of Deep Water?
(a) William Shakespeare
(b) William George Bernard Shaw
(c) William Wordsworth
(d) William Douglas

Answer

Answer: (d) William Douglas


Question 41.
At first, why was the writer not much frightened when he was thrown into the pool?
(a) Because he was sleeping
(b) Because he was intoxicated
(c) Because he thought that the lifeguard would come to his rescue
(d) Because of confidence

Answer

Answer: (d) Because of confidence


Question 42.
What distance Douglas covered while swimming across the lake Wentworth?
(a) 4 miles
(b) 3 miles
(c) 5 miles
(d) 2 miles

Answer

Answer: (d) 2 miles


Question 43.
What was stopping Douglas to get into the waters of Cascade?
(a) Memories of Washington
(b) Memories of California
(c) Instructions given by the instructor
(d) Memories full of terror in the pool

Answer

Answer: (d) Memories full of terror in the pool


Question 44.
“I crossed to oblivion, and the curtain of life fell”. What does oblivion mean?
(a) spavilion
(b) changing room
(c) unconsciousness
(d) death

Answer

Answer: (c) unconsciousness


Question 45.
Why did Douglas’ mother recommend that he should learn swimming at the Y. M.C.A swimming pool?
(a) Because it was local
(b) Because it was safe
(c) Because it was shallow
(d) Because it was shallow and safe

Answer

Answer: (d) Because it was shallow and safe


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Chapter 3 Deep Water with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 English Deep Water MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Motion Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to Online Education NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Motion to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Motion Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

This Displacement Calculator finds the displacement (distance traveled) by an object using its initial and final velocities as well as the time traveled.

Motion Class 9 MCQ Chapter 8 Question 1.
A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r. The displacement after half a circle would be:
(a) Zero
(b) πr
(c) 2r
(d) 2πr

Answer

Answer: (c) 2r


Motion MCQ Class 9 Chapter 8 Question 2.
A body is thrown vertically upward with velocity u, the greatest height h to which it will rise is,
(a) ulg
(b) u2l2g
(c) u2lg
(d) ul2g

Answer

Answer: (b) u2l2g


Class 9 Motion MCQ Chapter 8 Question 3.
The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is
(a) always less than 1
(b) always equal to 1
(c) always more than 1
(d) equal or less than 1

Answer

Answer: (d) equal or less than 1


This is a free online acceleration calculator. enter velocity and time value then click on calculate and the result will be instant displayed

Class 9 Science Chapter 8 MCQ Question 4.
If the displacement of an object is proportional to square of time, then the object moves with
(a) uniform velocity
(b) uniform acceleration
(c) increasing acceleration
(d) decreasing acceleration

Answer

Answer: (b) uniform acceleration


MCQ Of Motion Class 9 Chapter 8 Question 5.
From the given υ – t graph, it can be inferred that the object is
MCQ Of Motion Class 9 Chapter 8
(a) in uniform motion
(b) at rest
(c) in non-uniform motion
(d) moving with uniform acceleration

Answer

Answer: (a) in uniform motion


Physics MCQ Questions Class 9 Motion With Answers Question 6.
Suppose a boy is enjoying a ride on a merry-go-round which is moving with a constant speed of 10 ms-1 It implies that the boy is
(a) at rest
(b) moving with no acceleration
(c) in accelerated motion
(d) moving with uniform velocity

Answer

Answer: (c) in accelerated motion


MCQ On Motion Class 9 Chapter 8 Question 7.
Area under a υ -1 graph represents a physical quantity which has the unit
(а) m2
(b) m
(c) m3
(d) ms-1

Answer

Answer: (b) m


Motion MCQ Chapter 8 Question 8.
Four cars A, B, C and D are moving on a levelled road. Their distance versus time graphs are shown in the adjacent figure. Choose the correct statement.
Motion MCQ Chapter 8
(a) Car A is faster than car D.
(b) Car B is the slowest.
(c) Car D is faster than car C.
(d) Car C is the slowest.

Answer

Answer: (b) Car B is the slowest.


Class 9 Science Ch 8 MCQ Question 9.
Which of the following figures correctly represents uniform motion of a moving object?
Class 9 Science Ch 8 MCQ

Answer

Answer: (a)


Ch 8 Science Class 9 MCQ Question 10.
Slope of a velocity-time graph gives
(a) the distance
(b) the displacement
(c) the acceleration
(d) the speed

Answer

Answer: (c) the acceleration


Motion Chapter Class 9 MCQ Question 11.
In which of the following cases of motions, the distance moved and the magnitude of displacement are equal?
(a) If the car is moving on a straight road
(b) If the car is moving in Circular path
(c) The pendulum is moving to and fro
(d) The earth is revolving around the sun.

Answer

Answer: (a) If the car is moving on a straight road


Class 9 Science Motion MCQ Question 12.
A boy goes from A to B with a velocity of 20 m/min and comes back from B to A with a velocity of 30 m/min. The average velocity of the boy during the whole journey is
(a) 24 m/min
(b) 25 m/s
(c) Zero
(d) 20 m/min

Answer

Answer: (a) 24 m/min


A boy goes from A to B with a velocity of 20 m/min and comes back from B to A with a velocity of 30 m/min. The average velocity of the boy during the whole journey is

Motion Class 9 MCQ With Answers Pdf Question 13.
Velocity-time graph of an object is given below. The object has
Motion Class 9 MCQ With Answers Pdf
(a) Uniform velocity
(b) Uniform speed
(c) Uniform retardation
(d) Variable acceleration

Answer

Answer: (c) Uniform retardation


Class 9 Chapter 8 Science MCQ Question 14.
Which one of the following graphs shows the object to be stationary?
Class 9 Chapter 8 Science MCQ

Answer

Answer: (b)


Motion Class 9 MCQ With Answers Question 15.
A body is projected vertically upward from the ground. Taking vertical upward direction as positive and point of projection as origin, the sign of displacement of the body from the origin when it is at height h during upward and downward journey will be
(a) Positive, positive
(b) Positive, negative
(c) Negative, negative
(d) Negative, positive

Answer

Answer: (a) Positive, positive


Class 9 Physics Motion MCQ Question 16.
According to the given velocity-time graph, the object
Class 9 Physics Motion MCQ
(a) is moving with uniform velocity
(b) has some initial velocity
(c) is moving uniformly with some initial velocity
(d) is at rest

Answer

Answer: (b) has some initial velocity


Question 17.
The ratio of speed to the magnitude of velocity when the body is moving in one direction is
(a) Less than one
(b) Greater than one
(c) Equal to one
(d) Greater than or equal to one

Answer

Answer: (c) Equal to one


Question 18.
A car is moving along a straight road with uniform velocity. It is shown in the graph.
MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion with Answers 7

Answer

Answer: (d)


Question 19.
Which of the following situations is possible?
(a) An object can have acceleration, but constant velocity.
(b) The velocity of an object may be zero but acceleration is not zero.
(c) Distance and the magnitude of displacement are equal in circular motion.
(d) Average speed and the magnitude of average velocity are always equal in circular motion.

Answer

Answer: (b) The velocity of an object may be zero but acceleration is not zero.


Which of the following situations is possible?

Question 20.
Which of the following graphs is not possible?
MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion with Answers 8

Answer

Answer: (b)


Fill in the blanks:

1. The total path length travelled by a body in a given interval of time is called …………….

Answer

Answer: distance


2. A body moving in a straight line has a uniform motion if it travels ……………. distance in …………… intervals of time.

Answer

Answer: equal, equal


3. Velocity is defined as ……………. per unit time.

Answer

Answer: displacement


4. Speed is scalar quantity and velocity is ……………… quantity.

Answer

Answer: vector


5. If speed of a body is continuously decreasing, the body is said to ……………

Answer

Answer: retarding


6. Acceleration is vector quantity and its SI unit is ……………..

Answer

Answer: ms-2


7. A physical quantity that has magnitude as well as …………… is called vector quantity.

Answer

Answer: direction


8. The slope of velocity-time graph gives …………….. and the slope of displacement-time graph gives ……………..

Answer

Answer: acceleration, velocity


III. Match the following columns

Column I Column II
(a) Straight line parallel to time axis in velocity-time graph (i) Scalar quantity
(b) Distance (ii) Body at rest
(c) Displacement (iii) Motion of object in circular path with uniform speed
(d) Straight line parallel to time axis in position time graph (iv) Body in uniform motion
(e) Uniform circular motion (v) Rate of change of velocity with respect to time
(f) Slope of velocity-time graph gives (vi) Shortest distance between initial and final position
(g) Acceleration (vii) Acceleration
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Straight line parallel to time axis in velocity-time graph (i) Scalar quantity
(b) Distance (ii) Body at rest
(c) Displacement (iii) Motion of object in circular path with uniform speed
(d) Straight line parallel to time axis in position time graph (iv) Body in uniform motion
(e) Uniform circular motion (v) Rate of change of velocity with respect to time
(f) Slope of velocity-time graph gives (vi) Shortest distance between initial and final position
(g) Acceleration (vii) Acceleration

Complete the crossword given below:

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion with Answers 9
Across:
3. Displacement per unit time
4. Rate of change of velocity
5. A physical quantity which is described completely by its magnitude only
6. If a body travels equal distance in equal intervals of time in straight line then motion is
Down:
1. Motion of body in circular path
2. Area of speed-time graph gives
7. SI unit of distance and displacement

Answer

Answer:
Across:
3. Velocity
4. Acceleration
5. Scalar quantity
6. Uniform motion

Down:
1. Circular motion
2. Distance
7. Metre


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Motion CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.