Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Online Education for Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Online Education for Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Class 9 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 5

Question 1.
Which was the form of life which appeared on the earth?
Answer:
Plants or vegetation.

Question 2.
What is the importance of the plants – for us?
Answer:
Every form of life in the earth is dependent either directly or indirectly on the plants hence these are very significant.

Question 3.
How many flowering plants are there in India?
Answer:
About 15000.

Question 4.
What is the use of Sarpagandha?
Answer:
Sarpagahdha is used for the treatment of the blood pressure.

Question 5.
How many species of the plants have been listed as endangered in India?
Answer:
52.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 6.
Which of the international agencies has included Indian plants in the medical list?
Answer:
The World Conservation Union.

Question 7.
Name the Indian states where Tropical deciduous forests are found.
Answer:

  • The north-eastern states,
  • The foothills of the Himalayas,
  • Jharkhand,
  • West Orissa,
  • Chhattisgarh,
  • Eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.

Question 8.
Give two examples of deciduous trees.
Answer:

  1. Teak,
  2. Sal.

Question 9.
Give three examples of the trees of the tropical rains forests.
Answer:

  1. Ebony,
  2. Mahogany,
  3. Rosewood.

Question 10.
Name the place where thorny forests are found in India.
Answer:
The north-western part of the .country including the semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana.

Question 11.
In which state is the Sundarban located?
Answer:
In West Bengal.

Question 12.
Name the major vegetation region to which Acacia and Teak trees belong.
Answer:
Acacia-Thom forests.
Teak-Tropical deciduous forests.

Question 13.
In which type of vegetation region are the date-palm and the mahogani trees found?
Answer:

  • Date palm trees-Thorn forests.
  • Mahogany trees.

Question 14.
How many species of birds are there in India?
Answer:
Near about 1200.

Question 15.
In what kind of water do the Sundari trees flourish?
Answer:
Sundari trees flourish both in fresh and saltwater.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 16.
Name the Indian states where elephants are found.
Answer:

  • Assam,
  • Kerala,
  • Karnataka.

Question 17.
Name the national bird of India.
Answer:
Peacock.

Question 18.
Name the national animal of India.
Answer:
Tiger.

Question 19.
Name two migratory birds.
Answer:

  1. Siberian crane,
  2. Flamingo.

Question 20.
Name two endangered species of wildlife.
Answer:

  1. Tigers,
  2. Rhinoceros.

Question 21.
Point out some most important characteristics of the monsoon.
Answer:

  • These are found almost all over India.
  • They grow in the areas with the rainfall between 200 cm-75 cm.
  • These forests have Sal and Teak trees.
  • These trees shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks in summer.

Question 22.
Point out the importance of the biosphere reserves.
Answer:

  • The biosphere reserves are very important in preserving the endangered species of animals and plants.
  • These are the important source of transmission of the natural heritage to the future generations.
  • These inspire the people of the surrounding areas to protect tire wildlife.
  • These provide opportunities for research.
  • These are also important for promoting the tourism.

Question 23.
Name the states where the following biosphere reserves are situated.
(i) Nilgiri
(ii) Nanda Devi
(iii) Manas
(iv) Simlipal
(v) Nokrek
(vi) Sundarban
(vii) Pachmarhi
(viii) Dehang Debong
Answer:
Biosphere Reserves States
(i) Nilgiri – Tamil Nadu, Kerala Karnataka
(ii) Nanda Devi – Uttranchal
(iii) Manas – Assam
(iv) Simlipal – Orissa
(v) Nokrek – Meghalaya
(vi) Sundarban – West Bengal
(vii) Pachmarhi – Madhya Pradesh
(viii) Dehang Debong – Arunachal Pradesh.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 24.
What is the reason that the tropical deciduous forests shed their leaves during the summer?
Answer:
Tropical deciduous forests are the trees like, sal, sandal, shisham etc. All of these trees shed their leaves in summer. The main reasons behind this fact is that the leaves get dry by the . scorching heat of the summer and as a result they leave the branches automatically.

Question 25.
What are the main reasons that the evergreen forests are found in the western slopes of the Western Ghats ?
Answer:
The evergreen forests are found in the western slopes of the Western Ghats because of the following reasons :
1. The western slopes of the Western Ghats get heavy rainfall because they are on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and here the monsoon winds are very active.
2. The trees grown here do not have a distinct season of sheding leaves as the region is warm and wet throughout the year.

Question 26.
Point out the importance of the plant kingdom.
Answer:
The first form of life on the earth belongs to the plant kingdom. Plant kingdom developed the life system for the animal kingdom. Plants are the primary source which convert the sunlight into foods. The plants not only add beauty to the nature but also provide oxygen to us. Without oxygen, we can not live. Hence the plant kingdom is very important for us.

Question 27.
How the natural vegetation of Rajasthan can be conserved?
Answer:
Following steps may be taken to conserve the natural vegetation in Rajasthan:

  • Cultivated area should be increased by the irrigation facilities.
  • Indira Gandhi Nahar is fulfilling this purpose quite effectively.
  • The desert areas should be reduced by growing more and more trees and grasses so that sands do not expand more adjoining areas.

Question 28.
What is the reason that thorny type of vegetation is found in Rajasthan?
Answer:
Thorny type of vegetation which is composed of the trees like kikar, babul, khair, datepalm, scrubs and thorny bushes etc. are found mainly in Rajasthan. The main reasons behind this fact are the following:
1. Such type of vegetation is confined in areas .with less than 75 cm rainfall and Rajasthan is directly, this kind of area.

2. This type of vegetation have long roots so that they can thrive in a dry area like Rajasthan where underground water is found very deep.

Question 29.
What is meant by vegetation? How much ‘natural is the natural vegetation of India today? ’
Answer:
Vegetation is meant by the species of plants. India is very rich in vegetation. India is tenth in the world and fourth in Asia in plant diversity. There are more than 47000 plant species in India. More than 15,000 plants are flowering plants. Sarpagandha which is used to treat blood pressure is found only in India.

However, the most of the vegetal cover of India is no more natural. Natural vegetation is meant only by the plant community that has been left undisturbed over a long period. But in India except some inaccessible regions like the Himalayas and the desert, the vegetation has been destroyed or replaced or even degraded by the human occupancy. Hence, they cannot be taken as natural vegetation anymore.

Question 30.
What is a biome? State the number of biomes into which the land ecosystem is divided and also the basis for the grouping.
Answer:
Biome is meant by a very large ecosystem on land having distinct types of vegetation and animal life. Though the animals are included in the biomes mainly plant formations are used as the basis of their grouping.

The five principle biomes of the world may be listed in order of availability of soil, water and heat are:

  1. forests,
  2. savana,
  3. grassland,
  4. desert,
  5. tundra.

Within a biome, much variation may be found in the assemblage of plant and animal species.
Biomes are useful for studying the world patterns of vegetable cover.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 31.
Discuss how the relief and rainfall influence the distribution of natural vegetation in India.
Answer:
The relief and the rainfall surely influence the distribution of the natural vegetation in India. These are actually the most important factors influencing the natural vegetation of an area. The plants occur in distinct groups in areas having similar climatic conditions and rainfall though such areas may be far from each other.

Question 32.
Describe the major vegetation zones of the Himalayan region.
Answer:

  • In the foothills of the Himalayas the tropical deciduous forests are found;
  • Between the height of 1000-2000 mtrs, wet temperate type forests are found.
  • Between 1500-3000 mtrs, the evergreen broad-leave trees like oak and chestnuts are predominantly found.
  • The southern slopes of Himalayas are mostly covered by the temperate forests containing coniferous trees like pine, deodar, silver fur, spruce and cedar etc.

Question 33.
Mention the uses of forests.
Answer:
Forests are renewable resources and play a major role in enhancing the quality of environment. They modify local climate, control soil erosion, regulate stream flow, support a variety of industries, provide livelihood for many communities and offer panoramic or scenic view for. recreation. They control wind force and temperature and causes rainfall.

They provide humus to the soil and shelter to the wildlife. India’s natural vegetation has undergone many changes due to several factors such as the growing demand for cultivated land, development of industries and mining, urbanisation and over-grazing of pastures.

Question 34.
Distinguish between Moist Deciduous forests and Dry Deciduous forests.
Answer:

Moist Deciduous forests Dry Deciduous forests
1. These are the forests found in the areas with rainfall between 100-200 cm. 1. These are found in the areas with the rainfall of 70 -100 cm.
2. Teak is the most common tree of these forests. 2. These forests have given way to thorn forests.
3. These are mainly the country and especially in the north-eastern states in the foothills of Himalaya. 3. These are found in the mainly found eastern part of in Bihar, U. P., and Peninsular Plateau.

Question 35.
Distinguish between Extinct Species and Endangered Species.
Answer:

Extinct Species Endangered Species
1. These are the species of plants and animals not seen in the world anymore. These have not been sighted during the last 6-10 decades. 1. These are the species which are in the danger of getting extinct.
2. In India about 20 species of plants have become extinct. 2. In India there are about 1300 endangered species of plant.
3. These cannot be protected anymore or brought back. 3. These can be protected and can be saved from being extinct.

Question 36.
Name two plants of each type of vegetation.
Answer:

  • Tropical Rain plants: Ebony, rosewood.
  • Deciduous plants: kliair, Kusum
  • throws-scrubs: Acacias, palms
  • Temperate Plant: Pine, spruce
  • Alpine-Tundra: Junipers, pines
  • Tidal plants : Palm, agar.

Question 37.
Which steps should be taken to preserve the natural vegetation?
Answer:
To preserve the natural vegetation following steps should be taken:
1. Cutting of the trees in the forests must be stopped. The government has taken adequate steps in this direction. Forest department has been created for this purpose. Laws have been implemented to punish the persons found in felling and cutting of the trees. However, awareness among the people is more important. Without this awareness, desired results cannot be achieved.

2. The people must cooperate to check the felling of trees. They infact must take active part in this regard.
Fortunately, many persons have come forward in this direction.
Movements like (Chipko Andolan’ has been launched by the people themselves.

3. Necessary wood for industrial purposes and for other activities, must be taken through planned manner. So that both purposes- industrial growth and the environment protection- can be achieved.

4. Wherever the trees have been cut for whatever reason; new trees must be planted to maintain the ecological balance.

5. Functions like ‘Vanmahotsava’ should be celebrated everywhere, it would help in growing the awareness.

6. 33% of the total land area must be brought under forest area.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Question 38.
Give a brief account of the wildlife in India.
Answer:
The fauna in India is very rich and varied. It consists of a variety of fish, birds and animals including amphibians, reptiles, mammals, small insects and worms.

In fact there are more than 89,000 species of wildlife in India.

  • The biggest of the mammals are the elephants. Elephants are mainly found in the jungles of Assam, Kerala and Karnataka.
  • Camels are mainly found in Rajasthan.
  • Wild asses are found in the Rann of Kachchh.
  • The rhinoceroses are found in marshy and swampy lands of Assam.
  • Lions are mainly found in Gir forest of Gujarat
  • Royal tigers are found in Sundarbans.
  • Leopards of various types are found in the Himalayan region.
  • The Himalayan ranges are the home of several other species like wild sheep, mountain goats, wild goats, the shew, the tapir and the snow leopard etc.
  • Various species of the monkeys are also found in India.
  • In India buffaloes, Nilgiri Chouringha, gazel, deer etc.
  • A number of variety of birds are found in India. The chief among them are the peacocks, geese, pheasants, ducks, mynahs, pigeons, parrots, cranes, and also found hornbills and sunbirds etc.

Question 39.
Write short notes on the following:
(i) Indian flora
Answer:
Flora means the plants of a particular region or period. India has been known for its flora since ancient times. In Ayurveda at least 2000 kinds of flora has been described. There are about 15,000 flowering plants are found in India. In total, India has more than 47,000 plant species. The World Conservation Unions Red list has names of 352 medical plants found in India. The Rawvolfia which is used to treat blood pressure is found only in India. However, more than 52 species have been identified as endangered.

(ii) Tropical rain forests
Answer:
These forests are found in the k rainy parts of the Western Ghats and also in the island groups of Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar. These forests are at their best in the areas having more than 200 cm of rainfall with a short dry season. In these types of forests, trees reach great heights even up to 60 metres and more. Since the region is warm and wet throughout the year, it has luxuriant vegetation of all kinds like trees, shrubs and even creepers. These forests appear green the year.

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) before the correct sentences and (✗) before the incorrect sentences:

(i) Humans are not the part and parcel of the ecosystem.
Answer:
(✗)

(ii) Sarpagandha is used for treatment of blood sugar.
Answer:
(✗)

(iii) There are about 15,000 flowering plants in India.
Answer:
(✓)

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

(iv) All plants and animals of an area are interdependent
Answer:
(✓)

(v) Nearly 40% of the total plant species of our country have come from outside India.
Answer:
(✓)

(vi) Tropical rain forests are restricted to time heavy rainy parts of the country.
Answer:
(✓)

(vii) The thorn forests are found in Andaman.
Answer:
(✗)

(viii) India has less than 10,000 animal species.
Answer:
(✗)

2. Fill up the blanks with appropriate words:

(i) The Indian birds constitute ……………………………….. % of the world’s total number of birds.
Answer:
13

(ii) Like flora, India is also rich in its ……………………………….. .
Answer:
fauna

(iii) Leopards are members of the ……………………………….. family.
Answer:
cat

(iv) Yak is found in ……………………………….. .
Answer:
Ladakh

(v) Ranathambhor is in ……………………………….. .
Answer:
Rajasthan

Class 9 Geography Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

(vi) Flamingo is beautiful ……………………………….. .
Answer:
bird.

3. Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) The following is a tree found in tropical rain forests:
(a) mahogany
(b) shisham
(c) palms
(d) spruce.
Answer:
(a) mahogany

(ii) The following is a type of animal found in tropical rain forests:
(a) tiger
(b) elephant
(c) rabbit
(d) snow leopard
Answer:
(b) elephant

(iii) The following is the type of animal found in the Alpine and Tundra Vegetation:
(a) worms
(b) camels
(c) yaks
(d) turtles
Answer:
(c) yaks

(iv) The following type of timber is found in deciduous forests:
(a) Acacias
(b) silver fir
(c) ebony
(d) sandalwood
Answer:
(d) sandalwood

(v) There are the following number of national parkes in India:
(a) 89
(b) 90
(c) 91
(d) 92
Answer:
(a) 89.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Class 6 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Ashoka, The Emperor Who Gave Up War

Online Education for Class 6 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Ashoka, The Emperor Who Gave Up War

Here we are providing Online Education Class 6 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Ashoka, The Emperor Who Gave Up War was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-6-social-science/

Online Education for Ashoka, The Emperor Who Gave Up War Class 6 Extra Questions History Chapter 8

Class 6 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
From where have we taken the nation emblem-Jon, of our country?
Answer:
We have taken the national emblem from the Ashokan pillar at Sarnath. They are carved in stone and placed on top of a massive stone pillar at Samath.

Ashoka The Emperor Who Gave Up War Extra Questions Question 2.
What is a dynasty? Give example.
Answer:
When members of the same family become rulers one after another, the family is often called a dynasty, e.g., the Mauryas were a dynasty with three important rulers Chandragupta Maurya, his son Bindusara and his son Ashoka.

Ashoka The Emperor Who Gave Up War Class 6 Extra Questions Question 3.
Who was the founder of the Mauryan dynasty? How did he found the empire?
Answer:
The founder of the Mauryan dynasty was Chandragupta Maurya, more than 2300 years ago. He was supported by a wise man named Chanakya or Kautilya. Chanakya wrote his ideas in a book called Arthashastra.

Class 6 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Ashoka, The Emperor Who Gave Up War

Ashoka, The Emperor Who Gave Up War Class 6 Extra Questions Question 4.
Name some of the cities of the Mauryan empire. Who lived in the cities?
Answer:
There were several cities in the empire which included the capital Pataliputra, Taxila and Ujjain. Taxila was gateway to the northwest, including Central Asia. Ujjain lay on the route from north to south India. Merchants, officials and craftspersons lived in the cities.

Ncert Class 6 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 5.
Name the groups of people who lived in the villages.
Answer:
Farmers and herders lived in the villages. In some places in central India, there were forests where people gathered forest produce and hunted animals for food.

Ashoka Class 6 Extra Questions Question 6.
How are empires different from kingdoms?
Answer:

  • The empires are larger than kingdoms, so emperors need more resources and large armies to protect the empire.
  • They also need a large number of officials who collect taxes.

Class 6 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Ashoka, The Emperor Who Gave Up War

Ashoka The Emperor Who Gave Up War Questions And Answers Question 7.
What is a tribute?
Answer:
Unlike taxes, which are collected on regular basis, tribute was collected as and when it was possible from people who gave a variety of things, more or less willingly.

Class 6 History Ch 8 Extra Questions Question 8.
How was the city of Pataliputra ruled?
Answer:
The area round Pataliputra was under the direct control of the king. This meant that officials were appointed to collect taxes from farmers, – herders, craftspersons and traders, who lived in towns and villages in the area. Officials also punished those who did not obey the orders of the rulers. The officers were given salaries. Spies kept a watch on the officials. The emperor supervised all the people with the help of royal family and senior ministers.

Ashoka The Emperor Who Gave Up War Class 6 Question Answer Question 9.
How were the provinces governed during the rule of the Mauryas?
Answer:
Each province was ruled from the provincial capital such as Taxila or Ujjain. The royal princes were sent as governors, and local customs and rules were observed. There was overall control from Pataliputra.

Class 6 Ashoka The Emperor Extra Questions Question 10.
How were the far off areas governed by the Mayas?
Answer:
The far off areas were controlled by the Mauryas by controlling roads and rivers, which were important for transport. They collected taxes and tributes. Arthashastra tells us that northwest was important for blankets and south India for gold and precious stones. They were collected as tribute.

Class 6 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Ashoka, The Emperor Who Gave Up War

Ashoka, The Emperor Who Gave Up War Class 6 Question Answer Question 11.
Write about the Kalinga war as described in Ashoka’s inscription.
Answer:
Ashoka described the Kalinga war in one his inscriptions. He wrote that he conquered Kalinga eight years after he became the emperor. More than one lakh people were killed in the war and more than one and a half lakh people were captured. Such a lot of violence, bloodshed and carnage-filled him with remorse and sorrow, and he decided to give up warfare and teach Dhamma to the people.

He believed that winning people by Dhamma was better than conquering them. His main aim in writing this message was to stop his son and grandson from waging war in the future.

Extra Questions Of Ashoka The Emperor Who Gave Up War Question 12.
What was the message given by Ashoka to his people?
Answer:
In one of his inscriptions. Ashoka gave his message to the people. Hie message was :

  • Performing of rituals when they fall ill, when their children get married, when children are born or when they go on a journey, are not useful.
  • They should observe other practices like being kind to slaves and servants, respecting the elders, treating all creatures with compassion and giving gifts to brahmins.
  • A person should not criticise other religions and praise one’s own religion. All religions are praiseworthy and, therefore, should be respected. All parts of Ashoka’s message are relevant today, especially about religions. That is why India is a secular state.

Class 6 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Ashoka, The Emperor Who Gave Up War

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Where are the lions that we see on our notes and coins taken from?
(a) Oldest lion in Delhi Zoo
(b) Ashoka pillar at Samath
(c) Central Hall in the Rashtrapati Bhavan
(d) Taj Mahal in Agra
Answer:
(b) Ashoka pillar at Samath.

2. Where were Ashoka’s inscriptions carved?
(a) Pillars
(b) Rock surfaces
(c) Regional official headquarters
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

3. Which of the following were the important rulers in the Maurya dynasty?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Bindusara
(c) Ashoka
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

4. When was Maurya dynasty established?
(a) About 2,000 years ago
(b) About 2,300 years ago
(c) About 3,000 years ago
(d) Around 4,000 years ago
Answer:
(b) About 2,300 years ago

Class 6 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Ashoka, The Emperor Who Gave Up War

5. Who supported Chandragupta to establish his dynasty?
(a) Kautilya
(b) Tansen
(c) Birbal
(d) Bindusara
Answer:
(a) Kautilya

6. Which one of the following is the famous book of Chanakya?
(a) Charak Samhita
(b) Aryabhattam
(c) Arthashastra
(d) Rigveda
Answer:
(c) Arthashastra

7. Which of the following are those countries where Ashokan inscriptions have been found?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Nepal
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

8. Which Indian states were outside the Ashokan empire?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Sikkim
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Class 6 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Ashoka, The Emperor Who Gave Up War

9. What was the capital of Ashokan empire?
(a) Samath
(b) Pataliputra
(c) Taxila
(d) Ujjain
Answer:
(b) Pataliputra

10. Why was Taxila important in the Mauryan Empire?
(a) A gateway to the north-west
(b) A gateway to the south-west
(c) An important silk route
(d) An important business centre.
Answer:
(a) A gateway to the north-west

11. Why was Ujjain important in the Mauryan Empire?
(a) Capital
(b) The route from north to south India
(c) Inhabitant of merchants, officials and craftspersons
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c).

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Outcomes of Democracy

Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Outcomes of Democracy

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Outcomes of Democracy was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Online Education for Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 7

Question 1.
Why do people blame democracy?
Answer:
Sometimes we expect everything and anything from democracy. Our interest in and fascination for democracy often pushes us in taking a position that democracy can address all socio-economic and political problems. If some of our expectations are not met, we start blaming the idea of democracy. Or we start doubting if we are living in a democracy.

Question 2.
What is the most basic outcome of democracy?
Answer:

  • The most bs. ,c outcome of democracy should be that it produces a government that is accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.
  • The democracy must be responsive to the needs and wishes of the people.

Question 3.
Decision making in a democracy takes time: Why?
Answer:

  • Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiations. So, decision-making process is little delayed.
  • But the non-democratic governments do not have to think about majority decision and public opinion. So, they take little time in decision making and implementation.

Question 4.
While trying to find out its outcomes, what is expected from democracy?
Answer:
When we are trying to find out the outcomes of democracy, it is right to expect democracy to produce a government that follows procedures and is accountable to the people. We can also expect that the democratic government develops mechanisms for citizens to hold the government accountable and mechanisms for citizens to take part in decision making whenever they think fit.

Question 5.
If you wanted to measure democracies on the basis of their expected outcome, which qualifications would you look for?
Answer:
If we wanted to measure democracies on the basis of its expected outcome, we would look for the following practices and institutions:

  • Regular, free and fair elections;
  • Open public debate on major policies and legislations; and
  • Citizens right to information about the government and its functioning.

Question 6.
Economic development of a country depends on several factors. Name such a few factors:
Answer:
Economic development of a country depends on several factors:

  • Country’s population size
  • Global situation
  • Cooperation from other countries
  • Economic priorities adopted by the country.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Outcomes of Democracy

Question 7.
Is it true that democracies have not been very successful in reducing economic exploitation?
Answer:
It is a fact that democracies do not appear to have been successful in reducing economic inequalities. But it is only possible in a democracy that people can raise their voice against not only economic inequalities but also all types of inequalities. The government has to make sincere efforts to reduce and remove such inequalities.

Question 8.
The table shown below mentions the rates of economic growth for different countries between 1950-2000 Study the table carefully and draw your own conclusion.

Type of regimes and countries Growth Rate
Alt democratic regimes 3.95
All dictatorial regimes 4.42
Poor countries under dictatorship 4.34
Poor countries under democracy 4.28

Answer:

  • Between 1950-2000, on an average dictatorial regime had a slightly better record of economic growth as compared to democratic regimes.
  • But if their record is compared to poor countries only, we find negligible difference of 0.06%.

Question 9.
Do democracies lead to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens?
Answer:
It will be a fair expectation that democracy should produce a harmonious social life. Belgium has successfully negotiated among different ethnic populations. Democracies usually develops a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of these tensions becoming explosive or violent.

Question 10.
Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Explain.
Answer:

  • Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings.
  • Often conflicts arise among individuals because some feel that they are not treated with due respect.
  • The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy. Democracies throughout the world have recognised this, at least in principle. This has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies.

Question 11.
What should be the prudential thinking about the outcomes of democracy?
or
What is the first step towards thinking carefully about the outcomes of democracy?
Answer:

  • The first step towards thinking carefully about the outcomes of democracy is to recognize that democracy is just a form of government.
  • It can only create conditions for achieving some things
  • The citizens have to take advantage of those conditions and achieve those goals.
  • Moreover, democracy is just not related to many other things that we value. Democracy is not a magical remedy for all our social ailments.

Question 12.
“Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that can not be ignored.” Discuss.
Answer:

  • There is one respect in which democratic government is certainly better than its alternatives: democratic government is legitimate government
  • It may be slow, less efficient not always very responsive or clean. But a democratic government is people’s own government.
  • That is why there is a Asian overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world.
  • As the accompanying evidence from South Asia shows, the support exists in countries with democratic regimes as well as countries without democratic regimes.

Question 13.
The cost of time that democracy pays is perhaps worth it. Explain
Answer:

If we think in terms of costs and imagine a government that may take decisions very fast, we find that it may take decisions that are not accepted by the people and may therefore face problems.

In contrast, the democratic government will take more time to follow procedures before arriving at a decision.

But because it has followed procedures, its decisions may be both more acceptable to the people and more effective

So, the cost of time that democracy pays is perhaps worth it.

Question 14.
Explain the challenges faced by democracy today regarding reduction of inequality and poverty.
Answer:
Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives. Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the political arena on an equal footing, we find growing economic inequalities

A small number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and income. Not only that. Their share in the total income of the country has been increasing.

Those at the bottom of the society have very little to depend upon. Their incomes have been declining Sometimes they find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health.

In actual life, democracies do not appear to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities. The poor constitute a large proportion of our voters and no party will like to lose their votes. Yet democratically elected governments do not appear to be as keen to address the question of poverty as we would expect them to.

The situation is much worse in some other countries. In Bangladesh, more than half of its population lives in poverty.

People in several poor countries are now dependent on the rich countries even for the food supplies.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Outcomes of Democracy

Question 15.
The fact that people are complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy. Discuss.
Answer:

  • The fact that people are complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy it shows that people have developed awareness and the ability to expect and to look critically at power holders and the high and the mighty.
  • A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project: it transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen.
  • Most individuals today believe that their vote makes a difference to way the government is run and to their own self-interest.

Question 16.
How can you say that democracy has provided an opportunity for women to secure dignity?
Answer:

  • Most societies across world were historically male-dominated societies.
  • Long struggles by women have created some sensitivity today that respect to and equal treatment of women are necessary ingredients of a democratic society.
  • That does not mean that women are actually always treated with respect.
  • But once the principle is recognised, it becomes easier for women to wage a struggle against what is now unacceptable legally and morally.
  • In a non-democratic set-up, this unacceptability would not have legal basis because the principle of individual freedom and dignity would not have the the legal and moral force there.

Question 17.
What conditions are necessary in a democracy for handling social differences, divisions and conflicts?
Answer:
People should understand that democracy is not simply rule of majority. In fact, majority needs to work with minority to represent the general view of the government.

Majority rule does not mean rule by majority community in terms of race, religion or linguistic groups.

It means that different persons and groups may and can form a majority in case of election or every decision.

Democracy remains democracy only as long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time.

If someone is barred from being in majority on the basis of birth, then the democratic rules ceases to be accommodative for that person or group.

Objective Type Questions

Four choices are given to the following questions.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What was the rate of economic growth of all dictatorial regimes between 1950 – 2000?
(a) 3.95
(b) 4.42
(c) 4.34
(d) 4.28
Answer:
(b) 4.42.

Question 2.
What was the rate of economic growth of all democratic regimes between 1950-2000?
(a) 3.95
(b) 4.42
(c) 4.34
(d) 4.28
Answer:
(a) 3.95.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Outcomes of Democracy

Question 3.
What was the rate of economic growth of poor countries under democracy between 1950-2000?
(a) 3.95
(b) 2.9
(c) 4.0
(d) 4.28
Answer:
(d) 4.28.

Question 4.
In democratic countries like South Africa and Brazil, the top 20 per cent people take away more than per cent of national income.
(a) 60
(b) 30
(c) 20
(d) 49
Answer:
(a) 60

Question 5.
Democracies are based on:
(a) Economic equality
(b) Political equality
(c) Religions equality
(d) Social equality
Answer:
(b) Political equality

Question 6.
How much population of Bangladesh lives in poverty?
(a) More than 20 per cent
(b) More than 30 per cent
(c) More than 40 per cent
(d) More than 50 per cent
Answer:
(d) More than 50 per cent

Question 7.
What is the position of democracy in comparison to other forms of government?
(a) Superior
(b) Inferior
(c) Equal
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Superior.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Women Change The World

Online Education for Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Women Change The World

Online Education for Women Change The World Class 7 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 5

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Who is the first woman engine driver for Northern Railways?
Answer:
Laxmi Lakra, from a poor tribal family in Jharkhand, is the first woman engine driver for Northern Railways.

Chapter 5 Civics Class 7 Extra Questions Question 2.
What roles did women use to play in the pottery trade in the past?
Answer:
Women used to fetch the right quality mud and prepare the earthen pots in the pottery trade in the past.

Women Change The World Extra Questions Question 3.
Where did Ramabai set up her Mission?
Answer:
Ramabai set up her Mission in Khelgaon near Pune.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Women Change The World-Class

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Short Questions And Answers Question 4.
Which is the first known autobiography written by an Indian woman?
Answer:
Amar Jiban is the first known autobiography written by Rashsundari Devi, an Indian woman writer.

  • Question 5.
    What were new ideas emerged in the nineteenth century?
    Answer:
  • There were new ideas about education and learning that emerged in the nineteenth century.
  • Schools were opened here and there.
  • The people or communities who didn’t know reading and writing began sending their children to schools.

Women Change The World Class 7 Extra Questions Question 6.
What did Rashsundari Devi give the world through her writing and in what situation?
Answer:

  • Through her writing, Rashsundari Devi gave the world an opportunity to read about the lives of women she experienced in those days.
  • She wrote about her everyday life in a situation when she did not have a moment to rest, even to sit down and eat.

Ncert Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 7.
What do you mean by census?
Answer:

  • Census is a survey of counting the whole population of the country by government every ten years.
  • Through it, the important information in detail are also gathered about the people living in the country. For example, their age, sex, schooling (education), occupations, etc.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Women Change The World-Class

Class 7 Civics Ch 5 Extra Questions Question 8.
What led the government to pass a law to protect the women. When was the law passed? Write about the law.
Answer:

  • The women’s campaigns led the government to pass a new law, in 2006.
  • The law is for the protection of women against domestic violence. It gives legal protection to women who face physical and mental violence within their home.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 9.
In which sphere of life the conditions of women and girls have improved and why?
Answer:
The conditions of women and girls have improved in the following sphere of lives:

  • At present, women and girls have the right to study and freedom to go to school, which in the past they didn’t have,
  • They are legally protected by many laws made by the government like Dowry Act, Right of inheritance of parental and husband’s property,
  • They are provided protection against the domestic violence and sexual harassment at the workplace and in the educational institution, and
  • Their health conditions have also improved. These improvements could be achieved because of their individual and collective struggles over a long period of time.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Women Change The World-Class

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Rashsundari Devi was born in :
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Orissa
(c) Bihar
(d) West Bengal.
Answer:
(d) West Bengal.

2. Which one of the following is the first known autobiography written by an Indian woman?
(a) My Voice
(b) Amar Jiban
(c) My Life
(d) My Words.
Answer:
(b) Amar Jiban.

3. Who had written the remarkable story titled “Sultana’s Dream”?
(а) Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
(b) Rashsundari Devi
(c) Ramabai
(d) Laxmi Lakra.
Answer:
(а) Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain.

4. What is the percentage of literate, boys and girls as per the census of 2001?
(а) 30% boys and 20% girls
(b) 40% boys and 15% girls
(c) 70% boys and 50% girls
(d) 76% boys and 54% girls.
Answer:
(d) 76% boys and 54% girls.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Women Change The World-Class

5. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to leaving the school at early stage by the children of a few communities?
(a) Lack of regular teachers
(b) Lack of transportation facilities
(c) Unable to bear the cost of education
(d) They do not want to be educated.
Answer:
(d) They do not want to be educated.

6. By which one of the following reasons, the women’s situation has improved in almost all spheres of life?
(a) Freedom movement
(b) Women’s movement
(c) Strikes
(d) Struggle by men.
Answer:
(b) Women’s movement.

7. Which one of the following is a part of the women’s movement?
(a) Women’s organisation’s
(b) The Chief Minister
(c) MLAs
(d) Children.
Answer:
(a) Women’s organisations.

8. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to different strategies of women’s movement?
(a) Spread awareness on women’s rights
(b) Fight discrimination
(c) Against the men’s community
(d) Seek justice.
Answer:
(c) Against the men’s community.

9. Which one of the following is an important part of the women’s movement?
(a) Meetings
(b) Speech
(c) Strikes
(d) Campaigns to fight discrimination and violence.
Answer:
(d) Campaigns to fight discrimination and violence.

10. Which one of the. following laws was passed in 2006?
(а) Law against domestic violence
(b) Law for equal rights
(c) Law for equal status
(d) Law against the discrimination.
Answer:
(а) Law against domestic violence.

Important Terms:

Stereotype: When we believe that people. belonging to particular groups based on religion, wealth, language are bound to have certain fixed characteristics or can only do a certain type of work, we create a stereotype. For example, in this chapter, we can see how boys and girls are made to take certain subjects not because he or she has an aptitude for it, but because they are either boys or girls. Stereotypes prevent us from looking at people as unique individuals.

Discrimination: When we do not treat people equally or with respect, we are indulging in discrimination. It happens when people or organisations act on their prejudices. Discrimination usually takes place when we treat someone differently or make a distinction.

Violation: When someone forcefully breaks the law or a rule or openly shows disrespect, we can say that he or she has committed a violation.

Sexual harassment: This refers to physical or verbal behaviour that is of a sexual nature and against the wishes of a woman.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Class 7 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities

Online Education for Class 7 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 7 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Online Education for Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities Class 7 Extra Questions History Chapter 7

Class 7 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Name a Himalayan tribe.
Answer:
The Himalayan shepherd tribe is Gaddi.

Tribes Nomads And Settled Communities Extra Questions Question 2.
Tribes of which areas adopted Islam as their religion.
Answer:
Many tribes of Punjab, Sind and the North-West Frontier adopted Islam as their religion.

Class 7 History Ch 7 Extra Questions Question 3.
What was the name of the son of Rani Durgawati?
Answer:
The name of the son of Rani Durgawati was Bir Narain.

Tribes Nomads And Settled Communities Class 7 Extra Questions Question 4.
Which Mughal general attacked Garh Katanga?
Answer:
Asaf Khan attacked Garha Katanga.

Class 7 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities

Ncert Class 7 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 5.
Which Mughal general attacked Ahoms?
Answer:
Mir Jumla attacked Ahoms.

Extra Questions For Class 7 History Chapter 7 Question 6.
Which Gond king assumed title of Sangram Shah?
Answer:
Aman Das, the Gond raja of Garha Katanga assumed the title of Sangram Shah.

Class 7 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 7.
How was Ahom society divided?
Answer:
Ahom society was divided into clans or khels.

Class 7th History Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 8.
What was meant by the tribal societies?
Answer:
The societies which did not follow the social rules and rituals prescribed by the Brahmanas and which were not divided into numerous unequal classes were called tribal societies.

History Class 7 Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
How do we come to know about tribal societies?
Answer:

  • The tribal societies did not keep written records. But they preserved rich customs and oral traditions.
  • These were passed down to each new generation.
  • Historians used these oral traditions to know about tribal societies.

Chapter 7 History Class 7 Extra Questions Question 10.
Describe the administrative system of Gonds.
Answer:

  • The administrative system of Gonds was centralised.
  • The kingdom was divided into garhs.
  • Each Garh was controlled by a particular Gond clan.
  • This was, further, divided into units of 84 villages called chaurasia.
  • The chaurasia was subdivided into harlots which were made up of 12 villages each.

Class 7 History Tribes Nomads And Settled Communities Extra Questions Question 11.
What were the main features of tribal societies?
Answer:
The tribal societies had the following features :

  • Members of each tribe were united by kinship bonds.
  • Many tribes obtained their livelihood from agriculture. Others were hunter-gatherers or herders.
  • Most often tribesmen combined these activities to make full use of the natural, resources of the area in which they lived.
  • Some tribes were nomadic and moved from one place to another.
  • A tribal group retained land and pastures jointly and divided these amongst households according to its own rules.

Class 7 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities

History Chapter 7 Class 7 Extra Questions Question 12.
What did different tribes do?
Answer:
The different tribes used to do following activities :

  • Many pastoral tribes reared and sold animals such as cattle and horses to the prosperous people.
  • Different castes of petty pedlars also travelled from village to village.
  • They made and sold wares such as ropes, reeds, straw matting and coarse sacks.
  • Sometimes mendicants acted as wandering merchants.
  • There were castes of entertainers who performed in different towns and villages for their livelihoods.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following is a Himalayan tribe?
(a) Khokhar
(b) Gaddis
(c) Gakkhars
(d) Santa 1
Answer:
(b) Gaddis.

2. Which of the following are Rajput clans?
(a) Hunas
(b) Chandelas
(c) Chalukyas
(d) All of them.
Answer:
(d) All of them.

3. Mainly in which areas did tribes adopt Islam as their religion?
(a) Punjab
(b) Sind
(c) The North-West Frontier
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Class 7 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities

4. Who was the son of Rani Durgawati?
(a) Bir Narain
(b) Gangadhar Rao
(c) Todar Mai
(d) Sangram Shah
Answer:
(a) Bir Narain.

5. The name of Mughal general who attacked Garh Katanga was.
(a) General Dyre
(b) Asaf Khan
(c) Kamal Khan
(d) Mir Jumla
Answer:
(b) Asaf Khan.

6. Which one of the following Mughal generals attacked Ahoms?
(a) Mir Jumla
(b) Asaf Khan
(c) Raja Man Singh
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(a) Mir Jumla.

7. Which Gond king assumed title of Sangram Shah?
(a) Kamal Khan
(b) Aman Das
(c) Raja Man Singh
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(b) Aman Das.

Class 7 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities

8. How was Ahom society divided?
(a) Ahom society was divided into three subcastes.
(b) Ahom society was divided into rich and poor.
(c) It was divided into clans or khels.
(d) It was divided into whites and blacks.
Answer:
(c) It was divided into clans or khels.

9. Against whom did Rani Durgawati fight in 1565?
(a) Maratha forces
(b) Mughal forces
(c) French forces
(d) The Banjara king.
Answer:
(b) Mughal forces.

10. Who was Rani Durgawati?
(a) Rani of Jhansi
(b) Rani of Kashi
(c) Rani of Garha Katanga
(d) Rani of Kannauj
Answer:
(c) Rani of Garha Katanga.

Important Years Or Periods:

1523 Ahoms annexed the kingdom of Chhutiyas.

1565 The Mughal forces under Asaf Khan attacked Garha Katanga. Rani Durgawati opposed them.

1581 Ahoms annexed the kingdom of Koch Hajo.

1591 Raja Man Singh, Akbar’s famous general attacked and defeated the Cheers of Bihar.

1662 The Mughals under Mir Jumla attacked the Ahom kingdom of Assam.

Important Terms:

→ Clan: A clan is a group of families or households claiming descent from a common ancestor.Tribal organisation is often based on kinship or clan loyalties.

→ Nomads and itinerant groups: Nomads are wandering people. Many of them are pastoralists who roam from one pasture to another with their flocks

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Class 6 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Panchayati raj Government

Online Education for Class 6 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Panchayati raj Government

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Panchayati raj Government with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-6-social-science/

Online Education for Panchayati raj Government Class 6 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 5

I. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word, in each of the following sentences.

(1) All the villagers, who are above 18 years of age and who has the right to vote are memebrs of the ……………………….. .
Answer:
Gram Sabha

(2) The work of the …………………………. has to be approved by the …………………………. .
Answer:
(2) Gram Panchayat, Gram Sabha,

(3) The work of the is to record the decisions of the Gram Sabha …………………………. .
Answer:
Secretary

(4) The …………………………. gives more information on the schemes, asked by the Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Block Development Officer

(5) The …………………………. is the first tier of the democratic government.
Answer:
Panchayat Raj System.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Key Panchayati raj Government

Panchayati Raj Class 6 Worksheet With Answers Question 1.
What is the term of the Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
The Gram Panchayat is elected for five years.

Panchayati Raj Class 6 Extra Questions Question 2.
How is the secretary appointed? What are its functions?
Answer:
The secretary of the Gram Panchayat is also the secretary of the Gram Sabha. He is not an elected person but is appointed by the government. The secretary is responsible for calling the meetings of the Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat and keep a record of the proceedings.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 3.
What are check dams?
Answer:
A dam is a barrier built across a watercourse to hold back and raise the level of water. A check dam is constructed to collect rainwater. They can be also built on small rivers.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Key Panchayati raj Government

Extra Questions Of Panchayati Raj Class 6 Question 4.
Who has to approve the work of the Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
The work of the Gram Panchayat has to be approved by the Gram Sabha.

Class 6 Panchayati Raj Extra Questions Question 5.
Why are committees formed in the Gram Sabha of some states?
Answer:
In some states Gram Sabha form committees like the construction and development committees. These committees include some members from the Gram Sabha and some members from the Gram Panchayat who work together to carry out specific tasks.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following refers to Sarpanch?
(a) The elected representative of the Zila Parishad
(b) The elected representative of the Gram Sabha and the Panchayat President
(c) The elected representative of the Legislative Assembly
(d) The elected representative of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
(b) The elected representative of the Gram Sabha and the Panchayat President.

2. Who is a Ward Member or Panch?
(a) Elected representative of the Ward
(b) A member appointed by the headman
(c) Elected member of the Zila Parishad
(d) Elected member of the State Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
(a) Elected representative of the Ward.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Key Panchayati raj Government

3. Who are the members of the Gram Panchayat?
(a) The Ward Panchs
(b) The Sarpanch
(c) All educated people of the village
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

4. Which one of the following refers to Panchayati Raj System?
(a) A process through which people participate in their own first tier of democratic government
(b) The system in which a king is at village level
(c) The system in which a king is at block level
(d) A process through which only educated people participate in the government.
Answer:
(a) A process through which people participate in their own first tier of democratic government.

5. Which of the following are the functions of the Zila Parishad?
(a) To make development plan
(b) To regulate the money distribution among all the Gram Panchayats
(c) To make laws for the state
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

Class 6 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Key Panchayati raj Government

6. Which one of the following refers to the BPL?
(а) People who can meet their basic needs
(b) People who can not meet their basic needs
(c) People who can buy a car
(d) People who have pucca buildings.
Answer:
(b) People who can not meet their basic needs

7. The poverty line is fixed by the.
(a) Headman
(b) Sarpanch
(c) Government
(d) Members of the Gram Sabha
Answer:
(c) Government.

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

 

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Online Education for Political Parties Class 10 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 6

Question 1.
What do you understand by a political party?
Answer:
A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. They agree On the some policies and programmes for the society with a view to promote the collective good.

Question 2.
What are the three main components of a political party
Answer:
A political party has three components:

  1. The leaders
  2. The active members, and
  3. The followers.

Question 3.
“Parties play a decisive role in law-making for country. ” Discuss.
Answer:

  • Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country Formally, laws are debated and passed in legislature.
  • But since most of the members belong to a party, they go by the direction of the party leadership, irrespective of their personal opinions.

Question 4.
Explain any four functions of the political parties.
Answer:

  • Parties contest elections.
  • Parties form and run government.
  • Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country.
  • Parties shape public opinion.

Question 5.
How do parties form and run government?
Answer:

  • Different political parties take part in elections. A party winning maximum number of seals in the election is invited to form the government.
  • The big policy decision are taken by political executive that comes from political parties.
  • Parties recruit leaders, trains them and then make them ministers to run the government in the way they want.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties

Question 6.
“Parties shape public opinion. ” How?
Answer:

  • Parties shape public opinion. They and highlight issues. Parties have lakhs of members and activities spread all over the country.
  • Many of the pressure groups are the extension of political parties among different sections of society.
  • Parties sometimes also launch movements for the resolution of problems faced by people.

Question 7.
Describe the role of opposition party in a democracy?
Answer:

  • Those parties that lose in the election play the opposition to the power, by voicing different views and criticizing government for its failures or wrong policies.
  • Opposition parties also mobilize opposition to the government.

Question 8.
Define one-party system.
Answer:
In some countries, only one party is allowed to and run government. These ore called one-party systems. Ex. – China, Cuba, North Korea.

Question 9.
What is meant by two-party?
Answer:
In the two-party system there two major parties in the political sphere There parties also but they partner with the parties. To win the elections winning party has to get the maximum votes This is followed Great Britain and the USA.

Question 10.
Is one-party system good for democracy?
Answer:

  • We cannot consider one System as a good option because this is not democratic option.
  • Any democratic system must allow at least two parties compete in elections and provide a fair chance for the competing parties to come to power.

Question 11.
Explain the meaning of an alliance or a front with suitable example.
Answer:
When several parties in a multi-party system join hands for the purpose contesting elections and winning power it is called an alliance or front. For example, in India, there were three such major alliances in 2004 parliamentary elections the National Democratic Alliance, the United Progressive Alliance and the left Front.

Question 12.
Give one positive and one negative point about the multi-party system.
Answer:

  1. Negative point: The multi-party system often appears very messy and leads to political instability.
  2. Positive Point: At the same time, this system allows a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation.

Question 13.
What is meant by a National Party?
Answer:
A political party that wins at least six per cent of the votes in the Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states and win at least four seats in the Lok Sabha, is recognized as a National party.

Question 14.
What is meant by the state party?
Answer:
A political party that secures at least six per cent of votes in an election to legislative assembly of a state and wins at least two seats in recognized as state party.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties

Question 15.
What kind of political parties are found in a federal democratic system?
Answer:
Democracies that follow a federal system all over the world tend to have two kins of polt parties.

  • Parties that are present in only one of the federal units and
  • Parties that are present in several or all units of the federation.

Question 16.
Name one regional party each from the following states of India: UP, Manipur, Mizoram, Goa, Kerala and Orissa.
Answer:

  • UP- Samajwadi Party (SP)
  • Manipur- Manipur People’s (MPP)
  • Mizoram – Mizo National Front (MNF)
  • Goa – United Goans Democratic Party (UGDP)
  • Kerala – Indian Federal Democratic Party (IFDP)
  • Orissa- Biju Janta Dal (BJD).

Question 17.
What are the major challenges before the political parties?
Answer:
There are four major challenges before the political parties:

  • Lack of internal democracy
  • Dynastic succession
  • Role of money and muscle power and
  • No meaningful choice of parties among the voters.

Question 18.
Describe the efforts made by the Election Commission to bring internal democracy in political parties.
Answer:

  1. The election commission passed an order making it necessary for political to hold their organizational election and file their income tax returns
  2. The parties have starting doing so, sometimes only informality. It is not clear if this step has led to greater internal democracy in political parties.

Question 19.
What do you mean by multi-party system?
Answer:
In this system, there are three or more Parties. Every party has the capacity to win the elections and form the government. Each party competes and contests the elections. Sometimes no party gets the majority and several parties join together to form the government. This system is followed in Denmark and India.

Question 20.
Write a short note on Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP).
Answer:
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram. It seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj which includes the Dalits, Adivasis OBCs and religious minorities. It draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Pule, Periyar Ramaswami Naicker and Babasaheb Ambedkar. It stands for the cause of securing the interest and welfare of the Dalits and oppressed people.

It has been its main base in the state of Uttar Pradesh and -substantial presence in neighbouring states like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi and Punjab. It formed government in Uttar Pradesh several times by taking support of different parties at different times. In the Lok Sabha elections held in 2004, it polled about 5 per cent votes and secured 19 seats in the Lok Sabha.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties

Question 21.
Describe the policies and programmes of Communist Party of India- Marxist (CPI-M).
Answer:
Communist party of India – Marxist (CPIM) was founded in 1964. It believes in Marxism Leninism. It supports socialism Secularism and democracy and opposes imperialism and communalism. Its enjoys strong support in West Bengal, Kerala and Tripura, especially among the poor, factory workers, farmers, agricultural labourers and intelligentsia.

This party is critical of the new economic policies that allows free flow of foreign capital and goods into the country. It has been in power in West Bengal without a break for 30 years. In 2004 elections, it won about 6 percent of votes and 43 seats in the Lok Sabha. Currently, it supports the UPA government from outside, without joining the government.

Question 22.
How does dynastic succession affect party and democracy?
OR
Dynastic succession is a great challenge to political parties. Illucidate with suitable example.
Answer:

  • Since most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning, there are very few ways for ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party.
  • Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage to favour people close to them or even their family members.
  • In many parties, the top position are always controlled by members of one family.
  • This is unfair to other members of that party. This is also bad for democracy since people who do not have adequate experience or popular support come to occupy positions of power.

Question 23.
Discuss the role of money and muscle power in democracy
Answer:

  • Nowadays, the growing role of money and muscle power in political parties, especially during the election during the election has increased. It has posed a great challenge to democracy.
  • Since parties are focused only on winning election, they tend to use short- cuts to win
    elections. They tend to nominate those candidates who have or can raise lots of money. Later on such People influence the policies of the party, spread corruption and Damage the image of the party they belong to.
  • Some rich people and companies who give funds to the Parties tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the Party.
  • In some cases, parties support criminals who can win Elections. Democrats all over the world are worried about the Increasing role of rich people and big companies in democratic Because such trends prove unhealthy both for the party And democracy on the long run.

Question 24.
The quality of the democracy depends on the degree of Public Participation. Justify.
Answer:

  • Since the democracy is people’s own government so greater Public participation will strengthen democracy.
  • People’s greater participation ensures better quality Politics.
  • To choose the right kind of representatives is in the self-interest of the people. For this, they must take active part in politics.
  • The degree of public participation. It is difficult to reform Politics if ordinary citizens do not take part in it and simply criticise. lt from outside. The problems of bad policies can be solved by more and better politics.

Question 25.
Parties are necessary conditions for a democracy. Discuss.
OR
What is the necessity of a political party?
Answer:
We can understand the necessity of political party by Imaging a situation without parties.

Every candidate in the election will be independent. So no one will be able to make any promises to the people about any Major policy changes.

The government may be formed, but its utility will remain ever uncertain.

Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency for what they do in the locality. But no one will be responsible for how the country run.

We can also think about it by looking at the non – party-based elections to the panchayat in many states. Although the parties do not contest formally, it is generally noticed that the village gets split into more than one faction, each of which puts up a ‘panel’ of its candidates.

This is exactly what the party does. That is the reason we find political parties in almost all countries of the world, whether these countries are big or small, old or new, developed or developing.

Question 26.
How can you say that the future of popular participation in political parties in India is bright?
Answer:
Generally, it is said that political parties are facing a crisis because they are very unpopular and the citizens are indifferent to political parties. The available evidence, based shows that this belief is only partly true for India.

The evidence-based on a series of large sample surveys conducted over several decades show that:

  • Political parties do not enjoy much trust among the people in South Asia. The proportion of those who say their trust in political parties is ‘not much’ or ‘not at all’ is more than those have ‘some’ or ‘great 7 trust.
  • The same is true of most other democracies as well. Political parties are one of the least trusted institutions all over the world.
  • Yes the level of participation in the activities of political parties was fairly high. The proportion of those who said they were members of any political party was higher in India than many advanced countries like Canada, Japan and South Korea.
  • Over the last three decades, the proportion of those who report to be members of Political parties in India has gone up steadily.
  • The proportion of those who say they feel ‘close to a political party 7 has gone up to in India in this period. So, we certainly say that the future of popular participation in political parties in India is bright.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties

Question 27.
Describe the rise of Indian National Congress (INC) as one of the most important political party in India.
Answer:
Indian National Congress (INC) is popularly known as the Congress Party. It is one of the oldest parties the world. It was founded in 1885 and has experienced many splits. It played dominant role in Indian politics at the national and state level for several decades after India’s independence. Under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru, the party sought to build a modem secular, democratic republic in India. It was a single ruling party at the centre till 1977 and then from 1980 to 1989.

After 1989 its support declined, but it continues to be present throughout the country, cutting across social divisions. A centrist party ( neither rightist nor leftist) in its ideological orientation, the party espouses secularism and welfare for weaker sections and minorities. This party supports new economic reforms but with a human face. It emerged as the largest party with 145 members in the Lok Sabha elections held in 2004. It currently leads the ruling United Progressive Alliance coalition government at the centre.

Question 28.
Discuss the policies and programmes of Bhartiya Janta Party (BJP).
Answer:
Bhartiya Janta Party (BJP) was founded in 1980 by reviving the erstwhile Bhartiya Jana Sangh. It wants to build a strong and modem India by drawing inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values.
Cultural nationalism (or ‘Hindutva’ ) is a important element in its conception of Indian national hood and politics.

It wants full territorial and political integration of Jammu & Kashmir with India, a common civil code for all people living in the country irrespective of religion, and ban on religious conversion. Its support base increased substantially in the 1990s.

Earlier it was limited to north and west and to urban areas, the party expanded its support in the South, east the northeast and no rural areas n. It came to power in 1998, as the leader the of National Democracy Alliance including several state and regional parties. It lost election in 2004 and is the main opposition party in Lok Sabha.

Question 29.
Explain the contribution of regional parties in strengthening of federalism and democracy in our country.
Answer:
Other than six national parties, most of the major parties of India are classified as ‘Statearties’ commonly referred to as regional parties by the election commission.

Yet these parties need not be regional in their ideology or outlook. Some of these parties are all – India parties that happen to have succeeded only in some states.

Parties like the Samajwadi Party and Rashtriya Janata Dal have national-level political organizations with units in several states. Some of these parties like Biju Janata Dal, Sikkim Democratic Front and Mizo National Front are conscious about their state identify.

At the same time this has made any dissent even more difficult. MPs and MLAs have to accept whatever the party leaders decide.

The Supreme Court has passed an order to reduce the influence of money and criminals. Now, it is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an affidavit giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him.

The new system has made a lot of, information available to the public.

Objective Type Questions
Four choices are given to the following questions.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
A group of people coming together to contest elections and hold power in the government is called:
(a) Political party
(b) Social group
(c) Cult
(d) Seal.
Answer:
(a) Political party

Question 2.
One of the three components of a political party is:
(a) People
(b) Students
(c) Teachers
(d) Leaders
Answer:
(d) Leaders

Question 3.
In which country, members and supporters of a party choose candidates for contesting elections?
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) Russia
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(b) USA

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties

Question 4.
In which country, top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections?
(a) USA
(b) Pakistan
(c) Greenland
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 5.
Which institutions debates and passes laws?
(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) A and B both
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Legislature

Question 6.
Who mobilises opposition to the government?
(a) Political parties
(b) NGO
(c) Opposition parties
(d) B and C both
Answer:
(c) Opposition parties

Question 7.
How many parties are registered with Election Commission of India?
(a) More than 750
(b) more than 650
(c) more than 500
(d) more than 150
Answer:
(a) More than 750

Question 8.
China has:
(a) Two-party system
(b) multi-party system
(c) one-party system
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) one-party system

Question 9.
India has:
(a) Multi-party system
(b) One-party system
(c) Two-party system
(d) b and c both
Answer:
(a) Multi-party system

Question 10.
England has :
(a) One-party system
(b) Two-party system
(c) Multi-party system
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Two-party system.

Question 11.
Countrywide political parties known as
(a) Regional parties
(b) National parties
(c) State parties
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) National parties

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties

Question 12.
Which institution registers the party in India?
(a) UPSC
(b) Law commission
(c) Home ministry
(d) Election commission
Answer:
(d) Election commission

Question 13.
How many recognized national parties were there in 2006 in india?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 14.
INC was formed in:
(a) 1885
(b) 1895
(c) 1905
(d) 1982.
Answer:
(a) 1885.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Online Education Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Globalisation and the Indian Economy Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Online Education Globalisation and the Indian Economy Class 10 Extra Questions Economics Chapter 4

Globalisation And The Indian Economy Class 10 Extra Questions Question 1.
In which year had the Indian Government adopted the policy of liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation?
Answer:
Since 1991.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 2.
Why the private sector was subjected to many controls and regulations?
Answer:
The private sector was subjected to many controls and regulations so: that wealth could not get concentrated in a few hands.

Extra Questions For Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Question 3.
Point out the main features of economic reforms.
Answer:
The main features of economic reforms are

  • Liberalisation
  • Privatisation
  • Globalisation.

Globalisation And The Indian Economy Extra Questions Question 4.
What is meant by the term LQP and LPG in economic reforms?
Answer:
LQP: The term LQP means Licence, Quota and Permit. This was the Indian Economic pattern before 1991
LPG: It is meant by Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation. LPG replaced LQP in 1991.

Extra Questions Of Globalisation And The Indian Economy Question 5.
What is meant by Tariff?
Answer:
Tariff is meant by the tax or levy imposed on each unit of a commodity imported into the country.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Globalisation Class 10 Extra Questions Question 6.
Name a country which provides the advantage of being a cheap manufacturing location.
Answer:
China.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions And Answers Question 7.
Name two countries which are useful for their location to the markets in the USA and Europe.
Answer:
Mexico is close to the USA, and the Eastern European countries are close to Europe.

Globalisation And The Indian Economy Class 10 Extra Questions Answers Question 8.
What is meant by investment?
Answer:
The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment.

Globalisation Extra Questions Question 9.
Why is foreign investment called foreign?
Answer:
Investment made by MNCs is called foreign investment.

Globalisation Class 10 Important Questions Question 10.
What is the basic utility of foreign trade?
Answer:
Foreign trade leads to connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.

Globalization Class 10 Extra Questions Question 11.
Define the form ‘Globalisation’.
Answer:
Globalisation is the process through which rapid integration is made possible. It is interconnection between countries.

Extra Questions Of Chapter 4 Economics Class 10 Question 12.
Give an example of trade barrier.
Answer:
Tax on import is an example of trade barrier.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Globalisation Class 10 Extra Questions And Answers Question 13.
Explain the term ‘Liberalisation’.
Answer:
Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is what is known as liberalisation.

Extra Question Of Globalisation Class 10 Question 14.
What are the implications of fair globalisation?
Answer:
Fair globalisation would imply

  • opportunities for all, and
  • benefits of globalisation are shared and ensured for all equally.

Globalisation And The Indian Economy Class 10 Important Questions Question 15.
What is WTO?
Answer:
WTO stands for World Trade Organisation.

Question 16.
What is the main task of WTO
Answer:
The main task of WTO is to formulate rules and regulations with regard to trade among the different countries.

Question 17.
What is globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation means integrating our economy with the world economy. Globalisation makes us economically interdependent at the global or international level. Globalisation also facilitates those who have capital to establish enterprises produce goods for sale and export them.

Question 18.
Define liberalisation?
Answer:
The term liberalisation contains two components

  1. To allow private sector to run those activities which we restricted earlier only to public sector.
  2. Realisation of all the rules and regulations which put restrictions in the growth of the private sector.
    Thus liberalisation is the process that provides more and more facilities to the private sector so that it can make fast progress.

Question 19.
Define sustainable economic development.
Answer:
Sustainable economic development is meant by the development that takes place without damaging the environment. This kind of development does not compromise on the needs of the future generation. Sustainable economic development, in fact, is an issue that has emerged from rapid industrialisation of the world in the past century. The need for sustainable development stems from the concern for environment.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Question 20.
What is WTO and when and why was it set up?
Answer:
WTO stands for the World Trade Organisation. It was set up in 1995 by the member countries of the United Nations. The main purpose of its setting up was to promote trade among the countries.

Question 21.
Describe the main steps that have been taken for globalisation of the economy?
Answer:
Following are the steps that have mainly been taken for the globalisation of the economy

  • Devaluation of rupee.
  • Full convertibility of rupee.
  • Long-period trade policy for removal of restrictions.
  • Encouragement to open competition.
  • Modification of custom and tariff.

Question 22.
Point out the main objectives of new Economic policy.
Answer:
The main objectives of the new economic policy are the following

  • Liberalisation of economy.
  • Dispensing with too many controls.
  • Expansion of private sector.
  • Encouragement of foreign direct investment
  • Controlling fiscal deficit.

Question 23.
Point out the significant advantage of globalisation?
Answer:
The significant advantages of globalisation are the following

  • Globalisation provides scope’ to every nation to special. Specialize in the production of the commodity that it can produce most effectively.
  • Commodities produced at low cost are made available at cheap prices to producers and consumers throughout the world.
  • Due to the globalisation, consumers can get the commodities produced in any part of the World.
  • Globalisation has provided the producers the scope to sell their goods throughout the world.
  • Due to globalisation technology has spread fastly towards advancement.
  • Globalisation has given scope for formation of multi-national companies and banks.

Question 24.
Explain with example how a MNC functions in another country.
Answer:
MNCs invest to buy up local companies and in turn expands production. MNCs, with huge wealth, can do this easily. To take an example, Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC, has bought over smaller Indian companies such as Parakh Foods.

Parakh Foods had built a large marketing network in parts of India, where its brand was well-reputed. Also, Parakh Foods had four oil refineries, whose control has now shifted to Cargill. Cargill is now the largest producer of edible oil in India, with a capacity to make5 million pouches daily.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Question 25.
Why do you think the company wants to develop India as a base for manufacturing car components for its global operations? Discuss the following factors:
(a) cost of labour and other resources in India.
(b) the presence of several local manufacturers who supply auto-parts to Ford Motors
(c) closeness to a large number of buyers in India and
Answer:
India provides Ford Motors an opportunity for market in other countries.
(a) Cost of labour and other resources, in India, is relatively very low

(b) Motor raw-material industries in India is very rich industries provide Ford Motors necessary auto parts at low price.

(c) India’s geographical location is good for Ford Motors markets close to other nations in the region.

Question 26.
Nearly all major multinationals are American, Japanese or European, such as Nike, Coca-Coia, Pepsi, Honda, Nokia. Can You guess why?
Answer:
Nearly all MNCs are American, Japanese, Europeans such as Coca-Cola, Pepsi, Honda, Nokia etc. This is because these countries are technologically more advanced. They have had expertise in the field, working at home. Now with a view to capture the world market, these companies are expanding ford Motors, an American company is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 140 plants in 26 countries of the world, Ford Motors came to India.

In 1995 and spent ₹ 1700 crores to set up a large plant near Chennai. This was done in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks. By the year 2004, Ford Motors was selling 27,000 cars in the Indian markets. An additional 24,000 cars were exported from India to south Africa, Mexico and Brazil. The company wants to develop ford India as a component supplying base for its global operations.

Question 27.
Write a short essay on WTO in your own words?
Answer:
WTO stands for the World Trade Organisation. It was set p in 1995 by the member countries of the United Nations. The foundation aim of the WTO was to promote trade among the member countries.

The headquarters of WTO is located in Geneva. It has significantly influenced the liberalisation as well as globalization process in most of the developing countries. WTO aims at conducting international trade among countries of the world in an open, uniform and nondiscriminatory manner, while facilitating trade among countries, WTO expects countries to follow what it wants.

WTO deals with three issues

  1. Bilateral agreements
  2. import quotas
  3. export quotas.

All of these three issues are very significant for India as well as for all other developing countries. Bilateral agreements play crucial role in the trade relations among countries. In order to prevent competition from the producers of other countries with local manufacturers, it is common for countries to impose taxes on the imported goods.

WTO is in fact not only regulating the international trade of goods but also the services. All the members of WTO have to adopt laws and policies in order to comply with the WTO rules.

Question 28.
Point out the impact of the World Trade Organisation on the Indian Economy?
Answer:
The main impact of the World Trade Organisation on the Indian economy can be described in the following points

  • It has provided an opportunity to India for trading with other member countries.
  • India is now able to export its goods and services to other countries with less restriction from those countries.
  • Thanks to the WTO that it is expected that the technology from developed countries will be available to India at a reduced cost.
  • Since a major share of world trade is taking places among the developed countries themselves, the benefit of being a member of WTO to the developing countries, especially to India, is very limited.
  • It is feared that once India abides by the rules and regulations of WTO, the prices of many essential and life-saving drugs may go up.
  • It is alleged that WTO is being used by the developed countries to support globalisation in areas that are not directly related to trade. These rules often interfere in the management of the domestic economy of a country.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Question 29.
Point out the advantages as well as disadvantages of globalisation or to what extent globalisation is beneficial for the Indian economy? Give your own arguments.
Answer:
Globalisation means opening up the economic system for the other countries across the world. It provides opportunity for bilateral as well as free trade. It is actually integrating ones economy with the world economy. Globalisation takes place at various levels. It makes an economically interdependent world.

Argument in favour of the Globalisation

  • Globalisation is the idea that has a support base from all the leading international organisations like UN, OECD, WTO.
  • Because of the globalisation, the growth of trade between the nations increases the wealth of everyone.
  • Due to the globalisation, the world prosperity is enhanced by greater exchange between nations and this also makes possible that everyone abides by the rules.

Question 30.
To what extent WTO can be beneficial for India?
Answer:

  • WTO can be beneficial for India for the following reasons
  • If India succeeds in producing quality goods, its market will naturally expand.
  • WTO may help in rooting out the concern of labour. It will provide a high speed to the production process.
  • It will make the Indian labourers realise that they have no alternative of hard work.
  • In order to boost agricultural exports, India should make effort that the restrictions imposed on the export of agricultural products to developed countries due to domestic subsidies and barriers to trade be removed.
  • A proper check on multilateral and multinational companies should also be kept so that they might not harm fabric industry of India.

Question 31.
Explain the various liberalisation measures undertaken by the Government of India.
Answer:
The liberalisation process that has been undertaken by the Indian government since 1991 are as follows

The Indian Government has opened many industrial activities for the private sector which were reserved for the public sector earlier.

Formerly, the private sector had to request to get prior permission from the Government for manufacturing a large number of goods. At present this system was done away with and only for the manufacturing of a few things like alcohol, industrial expertise, hazardous chemicals, cigarettes, electronics, drugs and pharmaceuticals.

The number of industries reserved for public sector has been reduced from 17 to 3.

Because of the liberalisation, the private sector has been freed from many regulations like

  • permission to import raw materials
  • licensing
  • regulation on price and distribution
  • restriction on investment by large business companies.

Question 32.
Describe the changes that have occurred in India due to the adoption of the policy of liberalisation and globalisation.
Answer:
Following are the changes which have occurred in India due to the adoption of the policy of liberalisation and globalisation:

  • Communication sector has seen much progress.
  • Telephone facilities have spread to the far village areas also.
  • Colour televisions have become more cheaper.
  • Food processing companies like Coca-Cola, Pepsi etc. have entered the country and are providing cold drinks and products as well.
  • The share of our country in the world market in the field of goods and services has increased.
  • It has provided the scope to do better with better quality.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Question 33.
Explain with examples that the top Indian companies have benefitted from competition. How has globalisation created new opportunities?
Answer:
Several of the top Indian companies have been able to benefit from the increased competition. They have invested in newer technology and production methods and raised their production standards. Some have gained from successful collaborations with foreign companies. Moreover, globalization has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as multinationals themselves Tata Motors (automobiles), Infosys (l), Ranbaxy (medicines), Asian Paints (paints), Sundaram Fasteners (nuts and bolts) are some Indian companies which are spreading their operations worldwide.

Globalisation has also created new opportunities for companies providing services, particularly those involving information and communication technologies. The Indian company producing a magazine for the London based company and call centre and some examples. Besides, a host of services such as data entry, accounting, administrative tasks, engineering, etc. are now being done cheaply in countries such as India and are exported to the developed countries.

Question 34.
How can we make globalisation ‘fair?
Answer:
Since globalisation is now a reality, the question is how to make globalisation more fair’ Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all and also ensure that the benefits of globalisation are shared better.
The government can play a major role in making this possible.

Its policies must protect the interests, not only of the rich and the powerful but all the people in the country. For instance, the government can ensure that labour laws are properly implemented and the workers get their rights.

It can support small producers to improve their performance till the time they become strong enough to compete. If necessary, the government can use trade and investment barriers. It can negotiate at the WTO for “fairer rules. It can also align with other developing countries with similar interests to fight against the domination of developed countries in the WTO.

In the past few years, massive campaigns and representation by people’s organisations have influenced important decisions relating to trade and investments at the WTO. This has demonstrated that people also can play an important role in the struggle for fair globalisation.

Objective Type Questions

1. Choose true (✓) and false (✗) from the following

Question 1.
Globalisation has been an American phenomenon.
Answer:

Question 2.
Foreign investment is made by the multinational companies.
Answer:

Question 3.
WTO formulates trade rules among the nations.
Answer:

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Question 4.
India has reverted to pre-1991 policies since 2001.
Answer:

2. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Investment includes …………………………… such lands, building etc.
Answer:
assets.

Question 2.
MNCs are private companies, but …………………………… in infrastructure.
Answer:
large

Question 3.
Ford Motors is an American …………………………… .
Answer:
MNC

Question 4.
…………………………… toys are becoming popular in India.
Answer:
Chinese.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions

Online Education Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-social-science/

Online Education for Working of Institutions Class 9 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 5

Working Of Institutions Class 9 Extra Questions Question 1.
What percentage of civil posts and services under the Government of India have been reserved for the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC)?
Answer:
27% the vacancies.

Working Of Institutions Class 9 Question And Answers Question 2.
With what name was the Second Backward Classes Commission known as?
Answer:
Mandal Commission.

Class 9 Working Of Institutions Extra Questions Question 3.
Which Office Order was supposed to affect thousands of jobs every year?
Answer:
OM No. 36012/31/90-Est (SCT) dated 13.8.1990.

Working Of Institutions Class 9 Extra Question Answer Question 4.
When was the Mandal Commission constituted?
Answer:
1978.

Working Of Institutions Extra Questions Question 5.
Write the sentence each about the role played by the following people with reference to Office Memorandum No 36012/31/90.
1. Joint Secretary
2. B. P. Mandal
3. V.P. Singh
4. Indira Sawhney.
Answer:
1. Joint Secretary: The officer who signed OM No. 36012/31/90.
2. BP Mandal: The person who had headed the Second Backward Classes Commission.
3. V. P. Singh: The Prime Minister when OM 36012/31/90 was issued.
4. Indira Sawhney: One who filed a case against the Union of India in the Supreme Court relating to the Mandal Commission recommendations.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions

Working Of Institutions Class 9 Important Questions Question 6.
How does a democracy work?
Answer:
A democracy works through certain political institutions.

Extra Questions Of Working Of Institutions Class 9 Question 7.
What is the function of the Department of Personnel and Training?
Answer:
The Department of Personnel and Training decides about how and on what terms should the government employees be recruited.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 8.
What does the Cabinet do?
Answer:
The Cabinet meeting decides the major decisions about the country.

Working Of Institutions Class 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 9.
What does the Supreme Court do?
Answer:
The Supreme Court is an institution where disputes about any policy or its implementation are resolved.

Extra Questions For Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Question 10.
What is the job of the Parliament in India?
Answer:
The Parliament makes laws for the country.

Working Of Institutions Class 9 Question Answer Question 11.
Which body does the Prime Minister head?
Answer:
Prime Minister heads the Council of Ministers.

Ncert Solutions For Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 12.
What is the name of the national legislature in the USA?
Answer:
Congress: It has two houses :
the House of Representatives and the Senate.

Extra Questions On Working Of Institutions Class 9 Question 13.
With what name is the British legislature known as?
Answer:
Parliament;

  • The House of Common,
  • The House of Lords.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 14.
How many members and on what basis does the President of India nominate on tire Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The President of India nominates 12 members in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of art, sciences, literature and social service.

Extra Questions Of Chapter Working Of Institutions Class 9 Question 15.
What is tenure of the Rajya Sabha member?
Answer:
A Rajya Sabha member is elected for a period of six years, 1/3 of the total members retire every two years.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions

Question 16.
By whom is it decided whether a bill is a money bill or not?
Answer:
By the Speaker.

Question 17.
Where is the money bill sent after being passed by the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha.

Question 18.
Who presides over the joint sittings of the Parliament?
Answer:
The Speaker.

Question 19.
When does a bill become an Act of Parliament?
Answer:
On receipt of the assent of the President, the bill becomes an Act of Parliament.

Question 20.
Which kind of bill must have the consent of the President before being introduced?
Answer:
Money bill.

Question 21.
Within how many days the Rajya Sabha has to return money bill?
Answer:
14 days.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions

Question 22.
What is the maximum number of the members in the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
550 At present, the number is 543.

Question 23.
Which of the Constitutional Amendment had frozen the ‘number of representatives in the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
42nd Constitutional Amendment.

Question 24.
Up to when the freeze has been extended by the National Population Policy 2000?
Answer:
Up to 2026.

Question 25.
Which court is at the top of the judicial system in India?
Answer:
The Supreme Court.

Question 26.
What are the powers and functions of the Prime, Minister of India?
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the head of the central government. All the powers vested in the President are actually exercised by the Council of Ministers under the leadership of the Prime Minister.
As a matter of fact the most powerful office in. the central government is that of the Prime Minister.

Powers and Functions of the Prime Minister-

  • He selects the members of the Council of Ministers.
  • He allocates portfolios among the ministers.
  • He can drop any minister.
  • He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers.
  • He decides about the policies of the government.
  • He coordinates the v/ork of different ministers.
  • He is also the chairman of the planning commission.
  • The entire government is associated with the name of the Prime Minister.

Question 27.
Write a note on the Vice-President of India.
Answer:
The VicerPresident performs the duties and the. functions of a President in his absence or illness. If the President resigns or dies in office, the Vice-President officiates till a new President is elected.
The Vice-President is also the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The Vice-President in our country is elected for 5 years by an electoral college.

A candidate for the office of the Vice-President must be a citizen of India and must be of 35 years of age or above as well as he must be eligible to be a member of the Rajya Sabha.

Question 28.
Write a short note on the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The Council of Ministers in our country is headed by the Prime Minister. In the council, there are three categories of ministers:

  • The cabinet ministers,
  • The ministers of state,
  • deputy ministers. It is essential for the members of the Council of Ministers to be members of either house of The parliaments.

If a minister is not a member of the Parliament, he has to acquire its membership within six months of his appointment. The ministers are individually responsible for their ministries and departments. This responsibility is enforced through the Prime Minister. The Council of Ministers remains in power as long as it enjoys the support of the majority in the Lok Sabha.

Question 29.
How is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha elected? Mention some of his functions.
Answer:
The Speaker is elected by the members of Lok‘Sabha among themselves. The Speaker presides over the sessions and conducts its business. The Speaker may be a member of any political party. However once elected, he has to conduct, the business of the house impartially. It is the Speaker who keeps the house in order. Though he does not vote during the voting in the house, yet he can use his casting vote in case of a tie.

Question 30.
What do you know about the state legislature?
Answer:
India is a federal country. Each of its states has a legislature. Some of the state legislatures have two houses while the maximum number of the states have only one house, the lower one. The upper house in a state legislature is known as Vidhan Parishad while the lower house is known as the Vidhan Sabha. According to the provisions of our constitution, no legislative assembly is allowed to have more than 500 or less than 60 members.

The members of the Vidhan Sabha are elected by the people. A citizen of India of 25 years or more is able to be elected as its member.’ The Legislative Assembly is generally elected for 5 years. However, it may be dissolved before its term. Just like the Parliament, in a state .legislature, the lower house that is the Legislative Assembly is more powerful than the Legislative Council.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions

Question 31.
What is meant by Financial Emergency?
Answer:
Financial Emergency is a situation in which the President of India feels that the financial Stability or the credit of India is threatened. And to cope with this situation he declares financial emergency. In financial emergency, the President can reduce the salaries of all government officials including the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.

Question 32.
Write a few lines on the emergency arising out of the failure of constitutional machinery in States.
Answer:
When the President of our country is satisfied on the basis of the report of the governor of a state or even from other sources that the government in the state cannot be carried out in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. In such a situation, he can declare emergency in that state. In this situation, the President can take over the entire work of the executive and dissolve or suspend the State Assembly. The governor rules in the name of the President. The budget is passed by the Parliament.

Question 33.
How many houses does the Parliament of India has? How is the Lok Sabha constituted?
Answer:
The Parliament consists of two Houses. The first House is the Lok Sabha or the House of the People (in Hindi Lok means people and Sabha means assembly or council). The people directly elect Members of the Lok Sabha for a period of five years. We have already studied the method of election for the 543 members of Lok Sabha.

Question 34.
Give briefly the composition of the Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The second House of India’s Parliament is called the Rajya Sabha or the Council of States. The Rajya Sabha represents the states Its total strength is 250; 12 out of them are nominated by the President on the basis of art, literature, science, social service. A member of the Rajya Sabha is elected for six years, with one-third retiring every second year. If is never without numbers.

Question 35.
Can we say that the political executive is more powerful in the presidential system than in parliamentary system?
Answer:
Not really. Sometimes, strength becomes weakness. In a presidential system, two different parties can run two different centres of power. Often the president cannot get the parliament to support. her or his policies. In a parliamentary system, the same party controls political executive and the parliament. So the political executive can work without obstacles.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions

Question 36.
How’ are the ministers appointed in India?
Answer:
After the appointment of the Prime Minister, the President appoints other ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. The ministers are usually from the party or the coalition that has the majority in Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister is free to choose ministers, as long as they are members of the Parliament. Sometimes, a person who is not a Member of Parliament can also become a minister. But such a person has to get elected to one of the Houses of the Parliament within six months of appointment as minister.

Question 37.
Do you agree that the President remains a nominal executive? How is he elected?
Answer:
The President is not elected directly by the people. The Constitution has set up a very elaborate and complex system for the election of the President, The President is elected by all the elected MPs and MLAs in the country. Their votes have different values, depending on how many people they represent.

Their votes are counted through a complicated system called ‘single transferable vote system. This complicated system of election meets two aims. The President can be seen to represent the entire nation. At the same time, the President can never claim the kind of direct popular mandate that the Prime Minister can. This ensures that the president remains a nominal executive.

Question 38.
Explain the term Public Interest Litigation (PIL).
Answer:
When anyone approaches the courts in case public interest is adversely affected by the actions of the government, it is called public interest litigation. The courts intervene to prevent the misuse of government power in making decisions. They check malpractices on the part of public officials. That is the reason why of all the political institutions in the country the judiciary enjoys high confidence of the people.

Question 39.
Answer following for the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha :
Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions 1
Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions 2

Question 40.
Describe the functions of the government briefly.
Answer:
Administration involves a lot of governmental activities. For example, the government is responsible for ensuring the security of the citizens and providing facilities for education and health to all. It collects taxes and spends money thus raised on army, police and development programmes. It formulates several welfare schemes and elements, them.

Some persons have to take decisions on how to go about these activities. Some have to implement these decisions. If disputes arise on these decisions or in their implementation, there should be someone to determine what is right and what is wrong.

It is important that everyone should know who is responsible for doing what. It is also important that these activities are not influenced too much by the personal likes and dislikes of someone who happens Lobe doing that. So, to attend all these tasks several arrangements are made in aHrnbdem democracies. Such arrangements are called institutions. A democracy works throùgh political institutions. It works well when these institutions do what, people expect of them, do it efficiently and are answerable to the people.

Question 41.
Discuss some of the major functions of the Parliament in a democracy.
Answer:
Legislature existš in every democracy. It exercises political authority on behalf of the people in many ways :
(a) The parliament is the final authority for making the laws in any country. This task of lawmaking or legislation is so crucial that these assemblies are called legislatures. Parliaments all over the world can make new laws, change the existing laws, or abolish the existing laws and make new ones in their place, In most countries, the parliaments can also amend the Constitution in some situations.

(b) The parliaments all over the world can criticise and exercise some control over those who run the government. In some countries like India, this control is direct and full. Those who run the government can do so only as long as the parliament wants them to.

(c) Parliaments control public finances. In most countries, any money raised from the people can be spent only when the parliament sanctions it.

(d) The parliaments are the highest forum of discussion and debate about public issues and national policy in any country. Parliament can. seek information about any matter related to government.

(e) Parliament chooses the real chief executive called also the Prime Minister, and it can also force him to resign if he loses its confidence.
It is because of these functions and powers that the Parliament is described as supreme.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions

Question 42.
In what respects does the Lok Sabha appear more powerful than the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Our Constitution clearly gives more powers to the directly elected house, the Lok Sabha as compared to the Rajya Sabha. This is clear from the following. Any ordinary law needs to be passed by both the houses. But if there is a difference between the two Houses, the final decision is taken by a joint session in which members of both the houses meet together. Because of the larger number of members, the view of the Lok Sabha is likely to prevail in such a meeting.

(i) Lok Sabha exercises more powers in financial matters. Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other finance-related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it by 14 days or suggest changes in it. The Lok Sabha may or may not accept these changes.

(ii) Most importantly, the Lok Sabha controls the government. The government continues in power only as long as it enjoys the support of the majority of the members in the Lok Sabha. If the majority of the Lok Sabha members say they have ‘no confi¬dence’ in the Council of Ministers, all of them including the Prime Minister have to quit. This the Rajya Sabha cannot do.

Question 43.
What do you mean by ‘Political Executive”? Briefly state functions/powers.
Answer:
At different levels of any government, we find functionaries who take day-to-day decisions but do not exercise supreme power on behalf of the people. All those functionaries are collectively known as the executive. They are called executives because they are in charge of the ‘execution’ of the policies of the government. Thus, when we refer to ‘the government’ we usually mean the executive. The executive in a democratic country consists of two parts.

Those who are elected by the people for a specific period are called the political executives. These are political leaders who take the big decisions. Those who are appointed on a long-term basis are called the permanent executive or civil services. Those working in evil services are called civil servants. These are officers who work under political executives and assist them in carrying out the day-to-day administration.

In both the parliamentary and presidential systems, tire political executive does a lot more than we think it does; The role of the executive is not limited to implementing laws made by the parliament, it also includes: The political executive actively participates in lawmaking. It is the cabinet that proposes a draft legislation that is passed by the parliament as the National Commission on Backward Glasses Act 1993.

In fact, it is mandatory that all legislation; that has to do with financial; matters should be proposed by the government, The executive frames policies and rules that are as important as the law itself. Let us recall that O.M. No. 36012/30/90 was an executive order, net a law. Subsequent decisions about who could benefit from these reservations were e also made by the executive.

Question 44.
Why is the Prime Minister the most important political office in the country?
Answer:
In a parliamentary system like ours, the head of the government is different from the head of the state. Both of them are part of the executive. But the head of the government exercises most of the real powers. This position is called the Prime Minister in most countries with parliamentary system. In our country too the Prime Minister is the head to the government. That is why the Prime Minister is the most important political office in the country.

In a parliamentary system, the head of the state appoints the head of the government. In our country7 the President appoints the Prime Minister. But this is only a formal description. What it means in real life is that the President appoints leader of the majority party or the coalition of parties that command majority in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.

As the head of the government, the Prime Minister has wide-ranging powers. He chairs cabinet meetings. He coordinates the work of different departments. His decisions are final in case disagreements arise between departments; He exercises general supervision of different ministries. All ministers work under his leadership. The Prime Minister distributes and redistributes work to the ministers. Tie also has the power to dismiss ministers. When he quits, the entire ministry quits.

The extent of power that Prime Minister really wields varies a lot. It depends upon, the personality of the holder of the office, his or her authority in the ruling party and the image and following among the people. Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, exercised enormous authority because he was the supreme leader to the ruling Congress party at that time. He also had great influence on the public. But this was not true of all other Prime Ministers.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions

Objective Type Questions

(i) The proposal for a law is called a …………………. .
Answer:
Bill

(ii) On the receipt of the assent of the …………………. the bill becomes an Act of Parliament.
Answer:
President

(iii) In the Rajya Sabha, every member is elected for …………………. years.
Answer:
6

(iv) The Rajya Sabha must return the money bill with its recommendations within …………………. days.
Answer:
14

(v) The …………………. of the Assembly elect one of its members as speaker.
Answer:
Members

(vi) …………………. presides over the joint sittings of the Parliament.
Answer:
The Speaker.

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions

2. Put (✓) before correct sentences and (✗) before incorrect sentences.

(i) When Rajya Sabha does not return the money bill within 14 days it is deemed to have been passed.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) The strength of Legislative Assemblies in different states, varies.
Answer:
(✓)

(iii) If there is disagreement between the two houses on the bill the President may convene a joint sitting.
Answer:
(✓)

(iv) The questions without stars are meant for legislators.
Answer:
(✗)

(v) The answers to all the questions and the supplementary questions given by ministers make the government responsive to Parliament.
Answer:
(✓)

3. Choose the correct alternative from the following ones:

(i) Mandal Commission was constituted in:
(a) 1976
(b) 1977
(c) 1978
(d) 1979
Answer:
(c) 1978

(ii) The following appoints the Prime Minister of India :
(a) President
(b) Supreme Court of India
(c) People
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
(a) President

Class 9 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Working of Institutions

(iii) The following is called the apex court:
(a) District court
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme court
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Supreme court

(iv) Parliament, in India, consists of the following:
(a) Lok Sabha only
(b) Rajya Sabha only
(c) Both Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
(d) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
(d) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

(v) The Prime Minister heads the following :
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Vidhan Sabha.
Answer:
(b) Council of Ministers.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9

Online Education for Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9

Here we are providing Online Education Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9 was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-science/

Online Education for Class 8 Science Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Reproduction in Animals

Reproduction In Animals Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 1.
Indicate whether the following statement is true or false: A zygote is formed as a result of fertilization.
Answer:
True.

Reproduction In Animals Questions And Answers Question 2.
Indicate whether the following statement is true or false: An embryo is made of a single cell.
Answer:
False.

Ncert Science Book Class 8 Extra Questions With Answers Question 3.
Indicate whether the following statement is true or false: Fertilization is necessary even in asexual reproduction.
Answer:
False.

Extra Question Of Class 8 Science Question 4.
What is the name of reproduction in which fusion of male and female gametes takes place?
Answer:
It is called as sexual reproduction.

Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9

Reproduction In Animals Question Answers Question 5.
What does tests produce?
Answer:
The testes produce the male gametes called sperms.

Reproduction In Animals Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 6.
What name is given to the babies born through in vitro fertilisation technique?
Answer:
Test-tube baby.

Reproduction In Animals Class 8 Question 7.
Draw the figure of a sperm.
Answer:
Reproduction In Animals Class 8

Reproduction In Animals Class 8 Question Answers Question 8.
What happens when sperms come in contact with the egg?
Answer:
Fertilisation takes place.

Extra Questions For Class 8 Science With Answers Question 9.
What is the other name of a fertilised egg?
Answer:
Zygote.

Class 8 Science Extra Questions Question 10.
What is meant by in vitro fertilisation?
Answer:
It means that fertilisation is done outside the body through artificial means.

Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9

Extra Questions Class 8 Science Question 11.
What is the fertilisation called which takes place inside the female body?
Answer:
It is called internal fertilisation.

Extra Questions Of Science Class 8 Question 12.
Which organisms undergo internal fertilisation?
Answer:
Humans, cows, goats, dogs, horses, elephants, buffaloes, etc.

Extra Questions For Class 8 Science Question 13.
Where does the external fertilisation take place?
Answer:
It takes place in water.

Class 8 Science Ncert Extra Questions Question 14.
What happens after fertilisation?
Answer:
The fertilisation results in the formation of zygote, which begins to develop into an embryo.

Extra Questions Of Class 8 Science Question 15.
When does a mother give birth to young one?
Answer:
When the development of the foetus is complete, the mother gives birth to young one.

Question 16.
What name is given to animals which give birth to young ones?
Answer:
They are called viviparous animals.

Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9

Question 17.
What name is given to the animals which lay eggs?
Answer:
They are called oviparous animals.

Question 18.
Do the young ones in all animals look alike?
Answer:
No, in some animals, the young ones may look very different whereas in other animals the young ones look alike.

Question 19.
Give the different stages in frog’s life-cycle.
Answer:
It is as follows: Egg → tadpole (larva) → adult.

Question 20.
State the stages of life cycle of silkworm.
Answer:
It is as follows: Egg → larva or caterpillar → pupa (cocoon) → adult (moth).

Question 21.
What name is given to the drastic change that takes place during the development of an animal?
Answer:
Metamorphosis.

Question 22.
State the reproduction in which new individual develops from the buds in Hydra.
Answer:
Budding.

Question 23.
What is the name of the process of reproduction in Amoeba?
Answer:
Binary fission.

Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9

Question 24.
What name is given to a process in which production of an identical cell or a complete organism is done?
Answer:
Cloning.

Question 25.
Who performed the cloning process for the first time and where?
Answer:
Ian Wilmut and his colleagues at Roslin Institute in Edinburgh, Scotland.

Question 26.
What is the name of the sheep which was closed for the first time in the world?
Answer:
Dolly.

Question 27.
When was Dolly bom? When and how she died?
Answer:
It was born on 5th July 1996 and it died on 14th February 2003 due to a certain lung disease.

Question 28.
Define internal fertilization with: two examples.
Answer:
Fertilization which takes place inside the female body is called internal fertilization. Examples: Humans, cows, etc.

Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9

Question 29.
Define oviparous animals with two examples.
Answer:
The animals which lay eggs are called oviparous animals. We haye seen the eggs of the birds. These animals lay eggs and then the chicks hatch out of the eggs. The examples of oviparous are hen, peacock, crow and parrot, etc.

Question 30.
What is uterus? Is egg a single cell?
Answer:
Uterus is the part where development of the baby takes place. Yes, an egg is a single cell.

Question 31.
What happens when oviducts of women are blocked?
Answer:
In some women oviducts are blocked. These women are unable to bear babies, because’ sperm cannot reach the egg for fertilisation.

Question 32.
Are test-tube babies born in test- tubes?
Answer:
No. Only fertilisation is done in test tubes and then the zygote is placed in the mother’s uterus.

Question 33.
Define foetus.
Answer:
The stage of the embryo in which all the body parts are identifiable is called foetus.

Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9

Question 34.
How long does embryo take to develop into chick?
Answer:
The embryo takes three weeks to develop into a chick. During this period hen sits on the eggs to provide sufficient warmth.

Question 35.
Do tadpoles look different from the adult?
Answer:
Yes, tadpoles look very different from the adult frog. In a few days, the tadpoles become frogs after complete metamorphosis.

Question 36.
Do human beings also undergo metamorphosis?
Answer:
In human beings, body parts of the young ones similar to the adults are present from the time of birth. So, human beings do not undergo metamorphosis.

Question 37.
Give examples of organisms undergoing asexual reproduction. Name the type of asexual reproduction in them.
Answer:
The organisms undergoing asexual reproduction are

  • Hydra, and
  • Amoeba.

The process of reproduction in Hydra is called budding and in Amoeba is known as binary fission.

Question 38.
Write a short note on sperms.
Answer:
Sperms are the male gametes produced by testes. Millions of sperms are produced by the testes. Though the sperms are very small in size, each has a head, a middle piece and a tail. Each sperm is a single cell having all the usual cell components. The tail present in the sperm enables it to swim in the oviduct to reach the egg and perform fertilisation process.

Question 39.
Describe briefly the female reproductive organs.
Answer:
The female reproductive organs are a pair of ovaries, oviducts (fallopian tubes) and the uterus. The ovary produces female gametes called ova (eggs). The egg so produced is a single cell.

In human beings, a single matured egg is released into the oviduct by one of the ovaries every month. Uterus is the part where development of the baby takes place.

Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9

Question 40.
How does fertilisation take place and how is zygote formed? Is zygote the beginning of a new individual?
Answer:
When the sperms come in contact with the egg, one of the sperms may fuse with the egg. The fusion of the egg and the sperm is known as fertilisation, which produces zygote.

The process of fertilisation is the meeting of an egg cell from the mother and a sperm cell from the father. So, the new individual inherits some characters from the mother and some from the father and, therefore, zygote is the beginning of a new individual.

Question 41.
Describe in vitro fertilisation and production of test-tube babies.
Answer:
When some women are unable to bear babies because of blocked oviducts. In doctors collect freshly released egg and sperms and keep them together for a few hours for in vitro fertilisation (fertilisation in test-tube).
After the zygote develops for about a week, it is placed in the mother’s uterus. Complete development takes place in the uterus and the baby is born like any other baby.

Question 42.
Raju has a friend who believes that mother is responsible for the sex of a child because she gives birth to the child.
(a) How will Raju correct him using his knowledge of human chromosomes?
(b) What are the values shown by Raju?
Answer:
(a) No, Raju’s friend has wrong perception as mother is not responsible for the gender of the baby.
The sex of baby is depends upon the chromosome. In human beings, 23rd pair are sex chromosomes named X and Y. All unfertilized egg have one X chromosome. But sperms carry different chromosomes X as well as Y.
If a sperm containing X chromosome fertilizes the egg then the resulting fertilized egg contains two X chromosomes that will give birth to a baby girl whereas if a sperm containing Y chromosome fertilizes the egg then the resulting egg contains one X and one Y chromosome that gives birth to a baby boy.

(b) The value shown by Raju is ‘awareness’.

Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9

Question 43.
Describe the process of fertilisation in humans?
Answer:
In humans, the process of fertilisation is internal. For this millions of sperms from the male are transferred into the female body. The sperms swim in the oviduct with the help of their tails to reach the egg, when they come in contact with the egg, one of the sperms may fuse with the egg and fertilisation is completed. During fertilisation, the nuclei of the sperm and the egg fuse to form a single nucleus and zygote is formed. Fertilisation makes the new individual inherits some characteristics from the mother and some from the father.

Question 44.
Draw a labelled diagram of male reproductive organ of human.
Answer:
Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9 img 2

Question 45.
Draw a labelled diagram of female reproductive organ of human.
Answer:
Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9 img 3

Question 46.
Name two animals which undergo metamorphosis. Also, name the stages they pass by ? Draw a diagram of different stages of anyone animal.
Answer:
Two animals that undergo metamorphosis are :
(i) Frog.
(ii) Silkworm.
Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9 img 4
Different stages of frog’s life-cycle :
Egg→ Tadpole (larva) → Frog (adult). Different stages of silkworm’s life-cycle: Egg → Caterpillar → Cocoon (pupa) → Moth (adult).

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. External fertilization is common
(a) Terrestrial animal
(b) Aquatic animal
(c) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Aquatic animal.

Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 9

2. A tadpole develops into an adult frog by the process of
(a) Fertilization
(b) Metamorphosis
(c) Embedding
(d) Budding.
Answer:
(b) Metamorphosis.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science

Reaching the Age of Adolescence Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 10

Online Education for Reaching the Age of Adolescence Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 10

Here we are providing Online Education for Reaching the Age of Adolescence Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 10 was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-science/

Online Education for Class 8 Science Chapter 10 Extra Questions and Answers Reaching the Age of Adolescence

Reaching The Age Of Adolescence Class 8 Questions Answers Question 1.
When do human beings and many other kinds of animals become capable of reproduction?
Answer:
They become capable when they get reproductive maturity.

Reaching The Age Of Adolescence Questions And Answers Question 2.
What brings about changes that make a child grow into an adult?
Answer:
Hormones bring about these changes.

Reaching The Age Of Adolescence Question Answer Question 3.
What period covers the “teens”?
Answer:
The years 13 to 18 or 19 covers the ‘teens’.

Reaching The Age Of Adolescence Question And Answer Question 4.
What is the other name of adolescents?
Answer:
It is ‘teenagers’.

Reaching the Age of Adolescence Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 10

Reaching The Age Of Adolescence Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 5.
What is the conspicuous change during the puberty?
Answer:
The most conspicuous change during puberty is the sudden increase in height.

Reaching The Age Of Adolescence Class 8 Pdf Questions And Answers Question 6.
Up to what age girls grow in height faster than the boys?
Answer:
Girls grow in height faster than boys up to 18 years of age.

Question Answer Of Reaching The Age Of Adolescence Question 7.
Do all parts of the body grow at the same rate?
Answer:
No, all parts of the body do not grow at the same rate.

Question And Answer Of Reaching The Age Of Adolescence Question 8.
What factor does height depend on?
Answer:
Height depends upon the genes inherited from parents.

Reaching The Age Of Adolescence Class 8 Solutions Question 9.
What happens to the quality of voice on puberty?
Answer:
Girl’s voice becomes high-pitched and that of boys becomes deep or hoarse.

Reaching The Age Of Adolescence Class 8 Question 10.
Where do endocrine glands release hormones?
Answer:
Endocrine glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream.

Reaching the Age of Adolescence Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 10

Extra Questions For Class 8 Science With Answers Question 11.
Name the secretion of ovaries on reaching puberty.
Answer:
Ovaries begin to produce female hormones called estrogen.

Question Answers Of Reaching The Age Of Adolescence Question 12.
What makes ova in ovaries and sperms in testes mature?
Answer:
FSH or Follicle Stimulating Hormone makes ova mature in ovaries and sperms in testes.

Reaching The Age Of Adolescence Question Answers Question 13.
What marks the beginning of reproductive period when one becomes capable of reproduction ?.
Answer:
It is puberty.

Reaching The Age Of Adolescence Class 8 Notes Question 14.
When does menstrual cycle stop?
Answer:
At 45 to 50 years of age, the menstrual cycle stops.

Extra Questions Class 8 Science Question 15.
What do you understand by menopause?
Answer:
The stoppage of menstrual cycle is termed as menopause.

Class 8 Science Extra Questions Question 16.
How many chromosomes do all humans have?
Answer:
All humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes.

Extra Questions Of Science Class 8 Question 17.
What determines the sex of unborn baby?
Answer:
Sex chromosomes of father determine the sex of unborn baby.

Reaching the Age of Adolescence Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 10

Question 18.
What are sex chromosomes? How many are they?
Answer:
Chromosomes carrying genes for different sexual characters are termed as sex chromosomes. There are two sex chromosomes out of 23 pairs of chromosomes.

Question 19.
What is the hormone produced by pancreas? What is the disease caused due to the non-production of that hormone?
Answer:
Pancreas secretes insulin hormone. Insulin hormone regulates the levels of sugar in the blood. Its deficiency in the blood causes diabetes. In diabetic patients, it is not secreted in required amount, therefore, blood sugar level rises and causes various harmful effects.

Question 20.
How do you calculate the probable full height of a adolescent? Give the formula for this purpose and state an example.
Answer:
The formula for calculation of full height (in cm) is given as follows :
\(\frac{\text { Present height }(\text { in } \mathrm{cm})}{\text { Percentage of full height at this age }} \times 100 \)

Example: A girl is 10 years old and her height is 130 cm. At the end of the growth period, she is likely to be of what height?
Solution:
\(\frac{130 \mathrm{~cm}}{78} \times 100 \mathrm{~cm}\) ≈ 166 cm.

Reaching the Age of Adolescence Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 10

Question 21.
By seeing the data of activity 10.1, can you read the graph and say at what age girls grow in height faster than the boys?
Answer:
Initially girls grow faster than boys but by about 18 years of age, both reach their maximum height. The rate of growth in height is different in different individuals. Some grow suddenly at puberty and then slow down, while others grow gradually.

Question 22.
What is the proportion of growth of the body parts in adolescence?
Answer:
All the parts of the body do not grow at the same rate. Sometimes the arms and legs of adolescents, look oversized and out of proportion with the body. But, soon the other parts catch up and result into a proportionate body.

Question 23.
How does body get adequate nourishment for growth?
Answer:
It is very important to eat the right kind of food, especially during the growing years. This helps the bones, muscles and other parts of the body get adequate nourishment for growth.

Question 24.
What happens to the sex organs of boys and girls at puberty?
Answer:
At puberty, male sex organs like the testes and penis develop completely. The testes also begin to produce sperms. In girls, the ovaries enlarge and eggs begin to mature. Also, ovaries start releasing mature eggs.

Question 25.
What are psychological changes in adolescence?
Answer:
Adolescence is also a period of change in a person’s way of thinking.

  • Adolescents are more independent than before and are also self-conscious.
  • Intellectual development takes place and they tend to spend considerable time in thinking.
  • It is often the time in one’s life when the brain has the greatest capacity for learning.
  • Sometimes, however, an adolescent may feel insecure while trying to adjust to the changes in the body and mind.

Question 26.
Describe menstrual cycle.
Answer:
Menstrual cycle is controlled by hormones. The cycle includes the maturation of the egg, its release, thickening of uterine wall and its breakdown if fertilization does not occur. In case the egg is fertilized, it begins to divide and then gets embedded in the uterus for further development.

Reaching the Age of Adolescence Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 10

Question 27.
What do you understand by the term ‘chromosomes’? Diseuss.
Answer:
These are the thread-like structures found in the nucleus of a cell. It contains genes. All human beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes in the nuclei of their cells. Two chromosomes out of these are sex chromosomes.

Question 28.
What should one do to keep the body healthy?
Answer:
To keep the body healthy, one needs to:

  • have a balanced diet,
  • observe personal hygiene and cleanliness regularly, and
  • undertake adequate physical exercises.

During adolescence, however, these become even more essential.

Question 29.
What are the required hygienic activities for boys and girls when they become adolescents?
Answer:
Everyday bath is more necessary for teenagers because the increased activities of sweat glands sometimes make the body smelly. If cleanliness is not maintained, there are chances of catching bacterial infection. Girls should keep track of their menstrual cycle and be prepared for the onset of menstruation. Undergarments should be changed every day. Cotton undergarments should be preferred.

Question 30.
How do HIV viruses enter the human bodies?
Answer:
HIV pass on to a normal person from an infected person by :

  • sharing the syringes used for injecting drugs.
  • from the infected mother to an infant through milk.
  • through sexual contact with a person infected with HIV.

Question 31.
What are myths and taboos regarding bodily changes in case of adolescents?
Answer:
There are many myths and taboos regarding bodily changes that adolescents experience. Some of these are given below :

  • A girl becomes pregnant if she looks at boys during menstruation.
  • The mother is responsible for the sex of the child.
  • A girl should not be allowed to work in the kitchen during menstruation.

These should be discarded outrightly.

Question 32.
What are the drawbacks of early marriage and motherhood?
Answer:
The followings are the drawbacks of early marriage and motherhood :

  • Teenage girls are not prepared mentally or physically for motherhood.
  • Early marriage and motherhood cause health problems in the mother and the child.
  • It also curtails employment opportunities for a young woman and causes mental agony as she is not ready for the responsibilities of motherhood.

Reaching the Age of Adolescence Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 10

Question 33.
Describe the reproductive phase of life in females.
Answer:
Reproductive phase of life in females :

  • In females, the reproductive phase of life begins at puberty (10 to 12 years of age) and generally lasts till the age of approximately 45 to 50 years.
  • The ova begins to mature with the onset of puberty. One ovum matures and is released by the ovaries once in about 28 to 30 days.
  • During this period, the wall of the uterus becomes thick. This is a natural preparation to receive the egg in case it is fertilized and pregnancy occurs.
  • If fertilization does not occur, the released egg and the thickened lining of the uterus along with its blood vessels are shed off. This causes bleeding in women which is known as menstruation.

Menstruation occurs once in about 28 to 30 days. Initially, menstrual cycle may be irregular and takes some time to become regular. In case the egg is fertilized, it begins to divide and then gets embedded in the uterus for further development.

Question 34.
What are the changes appears in boys and girls on reaching the adolescence?
Answer:
Changes in boys :

  • Muscles of the body grow more prominently.
  • Facial hair (beard and moustache) appears.
  • Voice becomes hoarse, as voice box enlarges.
  • Under shoulder hair and pubic hair appears.

Changes in girls :

  • Region below the waist becomes wider.
  • Voice pitch increases.
  • Breast appears.
  • Menstrual cycle begins.
  • Under shoulder hair and pubic hair appears.

Question 35.
Name the various secretions (release) of endocrine glands.
Answer:
Endocrine glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream.

Endocrine glands Hormones secreted
(1) Testes Testosterone
(2) Ovary Estrogen
(3) Adrenal Adrenalin
(4) Thyroid gland Thyroxin
(5) Pituitary glands Follicle Stimulation Hormone (FSH), Growth hormone
(6) Pancreas Insulin.

Reaching the Age of Adolescence Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 10

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. What percentage of height does a boy attain at 13 years?
(a) 95%
(b) 88%
(c) 84%
(d) 91%.
Answer:
(b) 88%.

2. At what age does a girl attain 95% height?
(a) 12 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 13 years
(d) 17 years
Answer:
(c) 13 years.

3. At 13 years, a girl is 145 cm tall and a boy is 135 cm tall. Which of the following is likely to happen at 18 years?
(a) The boy will be taller than the girl.
(b) The girl will be taller than the boy.
(c) Both will attain the same height.
(d) The height will depend on the financial status.
Answer:
(a) The boy will be taller than the girl.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science