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Mineral and Power Resources Class 8 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 3

Question 1.
Mention the physical properties of minerals.
Answer:
Colour, density and hardness.

Question 2.
Write any one chemical property of minerals.
Answer:
Solubility.

Question 3.
Classify the minerals on the basis of composition.
Answer:
Metallic and non-metallic.

Question 4.
Into which two types can metallic minerals be divided.
Answer:

1. Ferrous
2. Non-ferrous.

Question 5.
How are minerals extracted?
Answer:
Minerals are extracted by mining, drilling or quarrying.

Question 6.
Which continent produces more than half of the world’s tin?
Answer:
Asia.

Question 7.
Which countries are the leading producers of tin in the world?
Answer:
China, Malaysia and Indonesia.

Question 8.
Which country is the largest producer of high-grade iron-ore?
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 9.
Which countries of South America are the leading producers of copper 7
Answer:
Chile and Peru.

Question 10.
Which countries of South America are the world’s largest producers of tin?
Answer:
Brazil and Bolivia.

Question 11.
Which two areas of Australia are rich in gold deposits?
Answer:
Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie.

Question 12.
Which country is the largest producer and exporter of mica in the world?
Answer:
India.

Question 13.
In which part of India deposits of gold are found?
Answer:
Kolar in Karnataka.

Question 14.
Which minerals are obtained from quartz and bauxite?
Answer:
Mineral obtained from quartz is silicon and aluminium from bauxite.

Question 15.
Into which two categories can power resources be classified?
Answer:
Conventional and non-conventional resources.

Question 16.
Name two main conventional energy sources.
Answer:
Firewood and fossil fuels.

Question 17.
Give two examples of fossil fuels.
Answer:
Coal, petroleum.

Question 18.
How is wind energy generated?
Answer:
The high-speed winds rotate the windmill which is connected to a generator to produce electricity.

Question 19.
Name the greatest producers of nuclear power in the world.
Answer:
USA and Europe.

Question 20.
Where do geothermal plants are located in India?
Answer:

• Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh
• Puga Valley in Ladakh.

Question 21.
Which type of resources are coal and petroleum?
Answer:
Non-renewable.

Question 22.
What are minerals? How do they form?
Answer:
A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral. They are formed in different types of geological environments under varying conditions.

Question 23.
Write two characteristics of metals.
Answer:

1. Metals are hard substances that conduct heat and electricity.
2. They have a characteristic lustre or shine. For example, iron, aluminium, copper, etc.

Question 24.
Distinguish between open-cast mining and shaft mining.
Answer:
Open-cast mining – When minerals lie at shallow depths, they are taken out by removing the surface layer. This is called open-cast mining.
Shaft mining – When minerals lie at the great depth deep bores are made to extract. This is called shaft mining.

Question 25.
Certain minerals are found in igneous and metamorphic rocks. Give three such examples.
Answer:

• Iron-ore in north Sweden.
• Copper and nickel in Ontario, Canada.
• Iron, nickel, chromites and platinum in South Africa.

Question 26.
Name the minerals found in sedimentary rocks along with their location.
Answer:

• Limestone in Caucasus region of France.
• Manganese deposits of Georgia and Ukraine.
• Phosphate beds of Algeria.

Question 27.
Name the minerals found in Europe.
Answer:

• Iron ore is found in Russia, Ukraine, Sweden and France.
• Copper, lead, zinc, manganese and nickel are found in eastern Europe and European Russia.

Question 28.
Mention the three zones of North America where mineral deposits are located.
Answer:

1. The Canadian region north of the Great Lakes.
2. The Appalachian region.
3. The mountain ranges of the West.

Question 29.
Name the four countries of South America where mineral oil is found.
Answer:

1. Venezuela,
2. Argentina,
3. Chile,
4. Peru,
5. Columbia.

Question 30.
Write the minerals which have been predicted to be found in Antarctica.
Answer:

• Deposits of coal in the Trans-Antarctic Mountains.
• Iron near the Prince Charles Mountains of East Antarctica.
• Iron-ore, gold, silver and oil are also present.

Question 31.
Where is iron found in India?
Answer:
Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka.

Question 32.
In which states of India is bauxite found?
Answer:
Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

Question 33.
Write two advantages and disadvantages of petroleum.
Answer:
Advantages of petroleum –

1. It is easier to transport.
2. It is the basis of petrochemical industry.

Disadvantages of petroleum –

1. Oxygen gets depleted due to oil spillage and gas leakage.
2. Pollutants released while burning, cause acid rain.

Question 34.
Write two advantages and disadvantages of firewood.
Answer:
Advantages of firewood –

1. It is easily accessible.
2. It provides energy to a large number of people.

Disadvantages of firewood –

1. Collection of firewood is time-consuming.
2. It causes air pollution.

Question 35.
Write two merits and demerits of coal.
Answer:
Advantages of coal –

1. It is extensively available.
2. It can efficiently be converted into electricity.

Disadvantages of coal –

1. It pollutes the environment.
2. It is bulky to transport.

Question 36.
How are fossil fuels formed?
Answer:
Remains of plants and animals which are buried under the earth for millions of years get converted by the heat and pressure into the fossil fuels.

Question 37.
Write four uses of coal.
Answer:

1. It is used as a domestic fuel.
2. It is used in industries such as iron and steel industry, brick industry etc.
3. Coal is used to run steam engines.
4. It is used to generate electricity.

Question 38.
Why is coal referred to as Buried Sunshine?
Answer:
The coal was formed millions of years ago when giant ferns and swamps got buried under the layer of the earth. Therefore, coal is referred to as Buried Sunshine.

Question 39.
Name four coal producing countries of the world.
Answer:

1. China,
2. USA,
3. Germany,
4. Russia,
5. South Africa,
6. France.

Question 49.
Name the major coal-producing areas of India.
Answer:
Raniganj, Jharia, Dhanbad and Bokaro.

Question 41.
Name the products produced from crude oil.
Answer:
Diesel, petrol, kerosene, wax, plastics and lubricants.

Question 42.
Name the chief petroleum-producing countries.
Answer:
Iran, Iraq, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, USA, Russia, Venezuela and Algeria.

Question 43.
Name the leading oil producer states of India.
Answer:

• Digboi in Assam.
• Bombay High in Mumbai.
• Deltas of Krishna and Godavari rivers.

Question 44.
Where is natural gas found in India?
Answer:

• Jaisalmer
• Krishna-Godavari .delta
• Tripura
• Offshore in Mumbai.

Question 45.
Name the leading producers of hydel power in the world.
Answer:
Paraguay, Norway, Brazil and China.

Question 46.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of solar energy.
Answer:
Advantages of solar energy

1. It is inexhaustible.
2. It does not cause pollution.

Disadvantage of solar energy:
The method of extracting solar energy is costly.

Question 47.
Write one advantage and disadvantage of each tidal and nuclear energy.
Answer:
Tidal energy – Advantage – It is non-polluting and inexhaustible.
Disadvantage – It destroys wildlife habitat. It is also difficult to harness tidal energy.
Nuclear energy – Advantage- It emits large amount of energy.
Disadvantage – It generates radioactive wastes.

Question 48.
Write the uses of solar energy.
Answer:

• Solar energy is used in solar heaters, solar cookers, solar dryers.
• It is also used for community lighting and traffic signals.

Question 49.
Name the countries which are noted for their wind energy production.
Answer:
Netherlands, Germany, Denmark, UK, USA and Spain are noted for their wind energy production.

Question 50.
How is nuclear power generated?
Answer:
Nuclear power is obtained from energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of radioactive elements like uranium and thorium. These fuels undergo nuclear fission in nuclear reactors and emit power.

Question 51.
In which states of India are deposits of uranium and thorium found?
Answer:
Uranium is found in Rajasthan and Jharkhand. Thorium is found in the monazite sands of Kerala.

Question 52.
Name four hydel power stations of India.
Answer:

1. Bhakra Nangal
2. Gandhi Sagar
3. Nagarjuna Sagar
4. Damodar Valley.

Question 53.
Mention the major nuclear power stations of India.
Answer:

• Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu
• Tarapur in Maharashtra
• Rana Pratap Sagar near Kota in Rajasthan
• Narora in Uttar Pradesh
• Kaiga in Karnataka.

Question 54.
Write the uses of geothermal energy.
Answer:
Geothermal energy in the form of hot springs is used for cooking, heating and bathing.

Question 55.
Name the countries where geothermal plants are located.
Answer:

• USA has the world’s largest geothermal power plant.
• New Zealand
• Iceland
• Philippines
• Central America.

Question 56.
Locate on the outline map of the world.
(a) Mineral oils in India
(b) Coal mines in USA
(c) Coal mines in China
Answer:

Question 57.
Show the following on the outline map of the world.
(i) South Africa
(ii) China
(iii) India
(iv) USA
(v) Australia
Answer:

Question 58.
Describe the distribution of minerals in North America.
Answer:
In North America, mineral deposits are found in three zones –

1. The Canadian Shield- Iron-ore, nickel, gold, uranium and copper are found.
2. Appalachian region – Coal
3. Western Cordilleras – Copper, lead, zinc, gold and silver.

Question 59.
Africa is rich in mineral resources. Justify.
Answer:

• Africa is the world’s largest producer of diamonds, gold and platinum.
• South Africa, Zimbabwe and Zaire produce a large portion of the world’s gold.
• Copper, iron ore, chromium, uranium, cobalt and bauxite are the other minerals found in Africa.
• Oil is found in Nigeria, Libya and Angola.

Question 60.
Give a brief account of minerals found in Australia.
Answer:

• Australia is the largest producer of bauxite in the world.
• It is a leading producer of gold, diamond, iron ore, tin and nickel.
• Rich deposits of copper, lead, zinc and manganese are also found.
• Large deposits of gold are found in Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie.

Question 61.
Name two metallic and non-metallic minerals found in India. Also, mention the areas where they are found.
Answer:
Two metallic minerals of India are –

1. Copper-It is found in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
2. Manganese – It is found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Two non-metallic minerals of India are –

1. Limestone – Major limestone producing states are Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.
2. Salt – It is obtained from seas, lakes and rocks. Salt is extracted in Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Question 62.
Why is conservation of minerals necessary? Mention two ways by which minerals can be conserved.
Answer:
Conservation of minerals is important because:

1. It takes thousands of years for the formation and concentration of minerals.
2. The rate of formation of minerals is much slow in comparison to their consumption.

Two ways by which minerals can be conserved are –

1. To reduce the wastage in the process of mining.
2. Recycling of metals.

Question 63.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of hydel power.
Answer:
Advantages ;

• It does not cause environmental pollution.
• It promotes irrigation and fishing.
• It is cheap.

Disadvantages :

• It leads to the displacement of local community.
• It is expensive to set up a hydel power project.
• It affects the natural flow of the rivers. It also causes excessive sedimentation at the bottom of the reservoir.

Question 64.
Where are the reserves of natural gas found? Mention its uses. Also mention the major natural gas producing countries.
Answer:

• Natural gas is found with petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is brought to the surface.
• It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel.
• The major natural gas producing countries are Russia, Norway, UK and Netherlands.

Question 65.
How is the hydel power produced?
Answer:
Water stored in the dams is made to fall from heights. The falling water flows through pipes inside the dam over turbine blades placed at the bottom of the dam. The moving blades then turn the generator to produce electricity.

Question 66.
Why is there need for using non-conventional sources of energy?
Answer:

• The sharp increase in the consumption of fossil fuels has led to their depletion at an alarming rate.
• The toxic pollutants released from burning the fuels cause environmental pollution.
• The conventional sources are non-renewable.
• It takes millions of years for the formation of fossil fuels.

Therefore, there is need for using non-conventional sources such as solar energy, wind energy. These sources are renewable.

Question 67.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of wind energy.
Answer:
Advantages :

• It does not cause environmental pollution.
• Once the windmill is set up, the cost of production of electricity is less.
• It is safe and does not leave any waste.

Disadvantages :

• It causes noise pollution.
• Windmills are costly to set-up.
• Windmills disturb radio and TV reception.
• Windmills are harmful to birds.

Question 68.
What is biogas? How is it obtained? Write its two uses.
Answer:

• Organic wastes such as dead plant and animal material, animal dung and kitchen waste can be converted into a gaseous fuel called biogas.
• The organic waste is decomposed by bacteria in biogas digesters to emit biogas which is essentially a mixture of methane and carbon dioxide.

Uses of biogas :
(a) Biogas is used for cooking and lighting.
(b) It produces huge amount of organic manure.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following is not a correct statement?
(a) The metallic minerals contain metal in raw form.
(b) Minerals occur in different types of rocks.
(c) Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dugout, by the process known as mining.
(d) Africa is the world’s largest producer of diamonds.
Answer:
(c) Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dugout, by the process known as mining.

2. Which one of the following is not a ferrous mineral?
(a) Lead
(b) Manganese
(c) Chromites
(d) Iron ore.
Answer:
(a) Lead.

3. Tick the odd ‘miniral-use’ pair in the following.
(a) Silicon – Computer
(b) Aluminium-Steel
(c) Copper – Coins
(d) Minerals – Gems.
Answer:
(b) Aluminium-Steel.

4. Jharkhand is a major producer of many minerals but it lacks :
(a) iron ore
(b) coal
(c) mica
(d) gold
Answer:
(d) gold.

5. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(а) Coal is referred to as ‘Buried Sunshine’.
(b) Petroleum and its derivatives (or products) are called ‘Black Gold’.
(c) Minerals are a renewable resource.
(d) Firewood and fossil fuels are conventional energy resources.
Answer:
(c) Minerals are a renewable resource.

Glossary:

→ Mineral – A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral.

→ Metallic minerals – The minerals which contain metal are called metallic minerals.

→ Non-metallic minerals – The minerals which do not contain metals are called non-metallic minerals.

→ Mining- The process of taking out minerals from rocks buried under the earth’s surface is called mining.

→ Open-cast mining – When minerals are extracted by removing the surface layer is called open-cast mining.

→ Shaft-mining- It is done to extract minerals found in great depths.

→ Drilling – When deep wells are bored to take out minerals is called drilling.

→ Quarrying – Minerals that lie near the surface are dug out by the process of quarrying.

→ Rock – A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals but without definite composition of mineral’s constituent.

→ Ores – Rocks from which minerals are mined are known as ores.

→ Conventional sources – Those sources of energy which have been in common use for a long time.

→ Thermal power – Electricity generated from coal is called thermal power.

→ Hydel power-The energy generated by falling water over the turbine blades.

→ Nuclear power – The energy obtained from energy stored in the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring radioactive elements like uranium and thorium.

→ Geothermal energy- Heat energy obtained from the earth is called geothermal energy.

→ Tidal energy – Energy generated from tides is called tidal energy.

→ Biogas- Organic waste such as dead plant and animal material, animal dung and kitchen waste can be converted into gaseous fuel called biogas.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 8 History Chapter 10 Extra Questions and Answers The Changing World of Visual Arts was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/class-8-history-chapter-10-extra-questions/

The Changing World of Visual Arts Class 8 Extra Questions History Chapter 10

Question 1.
What was the population of India in 1947?
Answer:
Almost 345 million.

Question 2.
Who said, “India could not and must not become a Hindu Pakistan ?”
Answer:
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 3.
Had the franchise in U.K. or U.S.A. been granted all their citizens at the same time like India?
Answer:
No, this right had been granted in stages there.

Question 4.
Explain the term, Union List.
Answer:
A Union List with subjects such as taxes, defence and foreign affairs is the exclusive responsibility of the centre.

Question 5.
What is meant by a State List?
Answer:
A State List of subjects such as education and health which would be taken care of principally by the states.

Question 6.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Amhedkar.

Question 7.
Why was Nehru met with black flags and slogans during the election campaign in Telugu-speaking districts in 1952?
Answer:
Telugu-speakers were demanding a separate Andhra Pradesh while the government was reluctant on this issue.

Question 8.
Who was Potti Sriramulu ?
Answer:
He was the Gandhian leader who died fasting for a separate state for Telugu- speakers.

Question 9.
When has Andhra Pradesh come into existence?
Answer:
1 October 1953.

Question 10.
When was Bombay divided into Maharashtra and Gujarat?
Answer:
1 May 1960.

Question 11.
When was Punjab divided into Punjab and Haryana?
Answer:
1 November 1966.

Question 12.
When was a Planning Commission set up in India?
Answer:
In 1950.

Question 13.
What was the focus of the Second Five Year Plan?
Answer:
The plan focused strongly on the development of heavy industries such as steel, and on the building of large dams.

Question 14.
When was the Bhilai Steel Plant set up? Which country helped in setting up the Bhilai Steel Plant?
Answer:

• In 1959.
• The former Soviet Union.

Question 15.
Which international body was formed in 1945?
Answer:
The United Nations.

Question 16.
What is a Concurrent List?
Answer:
A Concurrent List, under which would come subjects such as forests and agriculture, in which the centre and the states would have joint responsibility.

Question 17.
State about the compromise in the Constituent Assembly regarding Hindi and English as an official language of India?
Answer:
A compromise was finally arrived at – while Hindi would be the “official language” of India, English would be used in the courts, the services and communications between one state and another.

Question 18.
What do you mean by the Cold War?
Answer:
The Cold War referred to the power rivalries and ideological conflicts between the U.S.A. and the U.S.S.R. during 1950s to 1980s. Both countries were creating military alliances.

Question 19.
What was the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)?
Answer:
Led by statesmen from Egypt, Yugoslavia, Indonesia, Ghana and India, NAM was the movement which urged countries not to join either of the two major alliances.

Question 20.
Who was H. J. Khandekar ? What he said about Harijan candidates to get into the prestigious Indian Administrative Service?
Answer:

• He was a member of the Constituent Assembly.
• He argued, it was the upper castes who were responsible for the Harijans “being unfit today”.

Question 21.
What role did India play during the Cold War?
Answer:

• Being a leader of NAM, India played an active role in mediating between the American and Soviet alliances.
• It tried to prevent war by taking often a humanitarian and moral stand against war.

Question 22.
When was Sinhala recognised as the sole official language of Sri Lanka (then Ceylon)? Why has a civil war raged in the country?
Answer:

• In 1956.
• A civil war raged in Sri Lanka due to the imposition of the Sinhala language on the Tamil-speaking minority.

Question 23.
Why was a States Reorganisation Commission set up? What did it recommend?
Answer:

• After the creation of Andhra Pradesh in 1 October 1953, other linguistic communities also demanded their own separate states. That was why a States Reorganisation Commission was set up.
• It submitted its report in 1956, recommending the redrawing of district and provincial boundaries to form compact provinces of Assamese, Bengali, Oriya, Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada and Telugu speakers respectively.

Question 24.
State any three problems that the newly independent Indian faced.
Answer:

1. As a result of partition, 8 million refugees had come into the country from what was now Pakistan. These people had to be found homes and jobs.
2. There was the problem of the princely states almost 500 of them, each ruled by a maharaja or a nawab. Each of whom had to be persuaded to join the new Nation.
3. The new nation had also to adopt a political system that would best serve the hope and expectations of its population.

Question 25.
Name the various divisions in which the population of India was divided in 1947.
Answer:
There were divisions between :

• high castes and low castes.
• Hindu community and other religious communities.
• the citizens spoke different languages.
• the people eating different kinds of food.
• the people having different professions.

Question 26.
Discuss the problems related to development in India at Independence?
Answer:

• At Independence, the vast majority of Indians lived in the villages. While farmers and peasants depended on the monsoon for their survival.
• In the case of non-farm sector, if the crops failed, barbers, carpenters, weave-s and other service groups would not get paid for their services either.
• Factory workers lived in crowded slams with little access to education or health care.
• There was urgent need to reduce poverty by increasing the productivity of agriculture and by promoting new jobs creating industries.

Question 27.
State the main features of the Constitution of India?
Answer:

• It adopted universal adult franchise. All Indians above the age of 21 (presently 18) would be allowed to vote in state and national elections.
• It guaranteed equality before the law to all citizens regardless of their caste or religious affiliation.
• It offered special privileges for the poorest and most disadvantaged Indians.
• The Constitution sought to balance between the powers of the central government and those of the state governments.

This was done by providing three lists of subjects :

• a Union List;
• a State List; and
• a Concurrent List.

Question 28.
What measures or privileges had our Constitution prescribed for the poorest and the most disadvantaged Indians?
Answer:

• The practice of untouchability was abolished.
• Hindu temples, previously open to only the higher castes, were thrown open to all, including the former untouchables.
• A certain percentage of seats in legislatures, as well as jobs in government, were reserved for the members of the lowest castes.
• The Adivasis or Scheduled Tribes were also granted reservations in seats and jobs.

Question 29.
On which grounds was the economic policy of India, during the early few decades criticised?
Or
Why was the focus on heavy industry and State regulation of the economy criticised?
Answer:
The critics had the following points :

• This approach had put inadequate emphasis on agriculture.
• It had neglected primary education.
• It had not taken account of the environmental implications of economic policies.

Question 30.
To what extent has India ful¬filled the ideals set out in its Constitution?
Or
Critically examine how well has the country done in more than sixty years of Independence?
Or
Examine successes and failures of India during more than sixty years of Independence?
Answer:
Successes :

• Despite many bad assumptions, India is still united. People speak different languages or practise different faiths but they have not come in the way of national unity.
• Many foreign observers had felt that India would soon come under military rule. But India is still democratic. There is free press and an independent judiciary. There have been thirteen successful general elections.

Failures :

• Even today, the untouchables or the Dalits face violence and discrimi¬nation. In many parts of rural India, they are not allowed access to water sources, temples, parks and other public places.
• Despite the secular ideals in the Constitution, there have been clashes between different religious groups in many states.
• The gap between the rich and the poor has grown over the years.
• The Constitution recognises equality before the law, but in real life, some Indians are more equal than others. Thus, India has achieved a mix response.

Question 31.
How did the partition affect life in Delhi?
Answer:

• The population of Delhi Swelled.
• The kinds of jobs people did changed.
• The culture of city become different.
• As streams of Muslims left Delhi for Pakistan. Their place was taken by equally large members of Sikh and Hindu refugee from Pakistan.
• Nearly 5,00,000 people were added to Delhi’s population, which had a little over 8,00,000 people in 1951.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. After independence, India faced a series of great challenges. One of them was the refugee problem. As a result of
partition,:- million refugees had come into the country.
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 8

2. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In independent India, unity and development had to go hand in hand.
(b) One feature of the Constitution was its adoption of universal adult franchise. All Indians above the age of 18 would be allowed to vote in elections.
(c) India choose to grant the right to vote to all its citizens regardless of gender, class or education.
(d) The Indian Constitution also guaranteed equality before the law to all its citizens.
Answer:
(b) One feature of the Constitution was its adoption of universal adult franchise. All Indians above the age of 18 would be allowed to vote in elections.

3. Who wrote the following in a letter to the Chief Ministers of states “ we have a Muslim minority who are so large in numbers that they cannot, even if they want, go anywhere else We must give them security and the rights of citizens in a democratic State.”
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru.
Answer:
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru.

4. Which statement is not correct in the following?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is called the father of the Indian Constitution.
(b) The Constitution provided three lists of subjects: a Union List; a State List and a Concurrent List.
(c) A Gandhian leader Potti Sriramulu died fasting for a separate state for Tamil Speakers.
(d) Andhra Pradesh was the first Indian state to be formed in 1953 on linguistic basis.
Answer:
(c) A Gandhian leader Potti Sriramulu died fasting for a separate state for Tamil Speakers.

5. In addition to statesmen from India, Yugoslavia and Egypt, leaders from- and also urged countries not to join either of the two major alliances.
(а) Indonesia, Ghana
(b) Sri Lanka, Pakistan
(c) Malaysia, Burma
(d) Nigeria, Kenya.
Answer:
(а) Indonesia, Ghana.

6. Who was the first Prime Minister of India?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) J.L. Nehru
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambdekar.
Answer:
(b) J.L. Nehru.

Glossary:

→ Franchise – It refers to the right to vote.

→ Linguistic – Relating to language.

→ State – Concerned with the government.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Why Do We Need a Parliament was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Why Do We Need a Parliament Class 8 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 3

(1) In a ………………………………. the people give the powers to the government to make laws.
Answer:
country

(2) In a monarchy the ………………………………. do not have to explain their actions to the people.
Answer:
kings and queens

(3) Democratic governments in our times are called ………………………………. .
Answer:
representative democracies

(4) ………………………………. means that all adults have the right to vote
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise

(5) In India before independence only a ………………………………. was allowed to vote.
Answer:
small minority.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why do we need a government? Give two ways.
Answer:
We need a government to make decisions and get the things done, e g.,

• they can build roads and schools.
• they may think of ways to increase the supply of electricity.
• it runs trains and post and telegraph services.

Chapter 3 Civics Class 8 Extra Questions Question 2.
Why is it necessary for the government to undertake various activities?
Answer:
When human beings live and work together, there needs to be some kind of organisation, so that decisions can be made. The government has to undertake various activities because it has to fulfil various needs of the people. The wants are multifarious and they have to be fulfilled. As the science and technology makes progress, the activities of the government increase.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Important Question And Answer Question 3.
Name some of the rules that apply to everyone.
Answer:
Some rules have to be made that apply to everyone. For example, there is a need to control resources and protect the territory of a country so that people can feel secure. Government does this on behalf of the people by exercising leadership, taking decisions and implementing them among all the people living in the territory.

Class 8 Civics Ch 3 Extra Questions Question 4.
Name the three different levels at which the government works.
Answer:
The government works at different levels :

1. At the local level, it means it works in the village, town and locality.
2. The state-level means that it covers the whole state like Punjab or West Bengal.
3. The national-level relates to the whole country.

Ncert Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 5.
What are the three main functions of the government?
Answer:
The three main functions of the government are :

1. The government makes laws and everyone who lives in the country has to follows these rules.
2. Just like the government makes laws, it also has the powers to see that everyone obeys the laws, to enforce its decisions.
3. If the people do not obey the laws, the court can give decisions and orders about what should be done. In the same way, if a person feels that he is being exploited then he can also go to the court.

Ncert Solutions For Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 6.
Why do you think it is important that people abide by the law? Think of an example.
Answer:
It is important that people should abide by the law so that all the work can be organised properly. There will be no confusion and everyone will remain within their rights.
e.g., It is a law that every vehicle owner should stop at the red traffic light. If people abide by this law there will be a smooth flow of traffic, with little chances of accidents and even the pedestrians can easily cross the road. If the vehicle owners do not abide by this law, there can be traffic jams and accidents.

Ch 3 Civics Class 8 Extra Questions Question 7.
How did the women’s suffrage movement start?
Answer:
During the First World War many men were away fighting and women were called upon to do the work, that was earlier done by men. Women began to organise and manage work. The people wondered at their capabilities and abilities. So women were seen as being equally capable of making decisions.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following are the different levels of Indian government?
(a) State level and national level
(b) Local level and district level
(c) Local level, state level and national level
(d) Village level and state level.
Answer:
(c) Local level, state level and national level.

2. Which one of the following refers to the government at the local level?
(a) The government in your village, town or locality
(b) The government which covers an entire state
(c) The government which covers the entire country
(d) The government which covers the entire block.
Answer:
(a) The government in your village, town or locality.

3. Who makes laws in the country?
(a) The government
(b) Advocates
(c) University
(d) Citizens.
Answer:
(a) The government.

4. Who have to follow laws of the country?
(a) The government
(b) Foreigners
(c) Everyone who lives in the country
(d) Advocates.
Answer:
(c) Everyone who lives in the country.

5. Which of the following are the powers of the government?
(a) To make decisions
(b) To enforce its decisions
(c) To collect revenue
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

6. What can the people do if they feel that a particular law is not being followed?
(a) They may approach the court
(b) They cannot do anything
(c) They can increase the amount of taxes
(d) They may approach the foreign governments.
Answer:
(c) All adults of the country are allowed to vote.

7. Which one of the following refers to Universal Adult Franchise?
(a) All women in the country are allowed to vote
(b) All handicaps of the country are allowed to vote
(c) All adults of the country are allowed to vote
(d) There is no need to vote in the country
Answer:
(c) All adults of the country are allowed to vote.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 8 History Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers How, When and Where was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/class-8-history-chapter-1-extra-questions/

How, When and Where Class 8 Extra Questions History Chapter 1

Question 1.
Who asked James Rennet to produce maps of Hindustan?
Answer:
Robert Clive.

Question 2.
Is history all about dates? Why?
Answer:
No. This is because there are many events which cannot be associated with a fixed date.

Question 3.
Name any four British governors- Generals in India.
Answer:

1. Warren Hastings
2. Lord Wellesley
3. William Bentick
4. Lord Dalhousie.

Question 4.
Who was James Mill?
Answer:
James Mill was a Scottish economist – and political philosopher.

Question 5.
Name the work of James Mill.
Answer:
He wrote-‘A History of British India’.

Question 6.
Why do we divide history into different periods.
Answer:
We divide history into different periods to capture the characteristics of a time, its central features as they appear before us.

Question 7.
What was James Mill’s view about Asian societies?
Answer:
James Mill thought Asian societies to be at a lower level of civilisation than Europe.

Question 8.
What was the view of Mill about India?
Answer:
In Mill’s view, India was not capable of progress without British help.

Question 9.
In which other way have historians divided Indian history?
Answer:
Moving away from British classification, historians have classified Indian History into ‘ancient’, ‘medieval’ and ‘modem’ India.

Question 10.
Name two important sources of writing colonial history of India.
Answer:

1. Official records of the British administration.
2. The surveys conducted by the colonial government.

Question 11.
Are official records a good source for writing colonial history? Why?
Answer:
No. This is because, most of the time, the writers of these records were biased.

Question 12.
Name two more reliable sources for writing history.
Answer:

1. Dairies of the people.
2. Accounts of pilgrims and travellers.
3. Autobiographies of important personalities.

Question 13.
When was the National Archives of India set up?
Answer:
In 1920s.

Question 14.
Who was the first Governor-General of India?
Answer:
Warren Hastings.

Question 15.
Who wrote A History of British India?
Answer:
James Mill

Question 16.
Write any two issues that modem day historians like to write.
Answer:

1. They like to write on how people earned their livelihood.
2. They like to write on what people produced and ate.

Question 17.
According to James Mill, how was the Indian society before the British rule?
Answer:
James Mill describes that there prevailed religious intolerance, caste taboos, superstitious practices in the Indian social life before the British rule.

Question 18.
What were the purposes of surveys?
Answer:
Revenue surveys were conducted by the British to know the topography, the soil quality, the flora, the fauna, the local histories, the cropping pattern and many other things. They all helped them in proper administration.

Question 19.
Can we know everything in a right way from the official records of the British administration?
Answer:
No. These records do not always help us to understand what common people in the country felt and what laid behind their actions.

Question 20.
What do the official records of the British tell us?
Answer:
The official records tell us

• What the British officials fought.
• What they were interested in.
• What they wished to preserve for posterity.

Question 21.
What is colonisation?
Answer:
When the subjugation of one country by another leads to any kind of political, economic, social and cultural change, the process is referred to as colonisation.

Question 22.
What is meant by medieval period? Why do we call modem period as ‘colonial’ period?
Answer:

• Medieval period was a term used to describe a society where the features of modern society like science, reason, liberty, equality etc. did not exist.
• Under British rule, people did not have equality, freedom or liberty. Also, it was not the period of economic growth and progress. This is why many historians refer to this period as ‘colonial’ period.

Question 23.
What is history?
Answer:

• History is not only the study of dates, kings and dynasties.
• It is about changes in the society that occur over time.
• It is about finding out how local things were in the past and how things have changed.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) During the colonial period, Britannia was the symbol of British power.
(b) Lord Irwin was the last Viceroy of India.
(c) James Mill divided Indian history into three periods-Hindu, Muslim and. British.
(d) Mill thought that all Asian societies were at a lower level of civilisation than Europe.
Answer:
(b) Lord Irwin was the last Viceroy of India.

2. Which one is not correct in the
following statements?
(a) Some historians have divided Indian history into ancient, medieval and modem periods.
(b) Many historians do refer to the modem period in India as ‘Colonial’ period.
(c) All classes and groups in India experienced the changes during the British rule in the same way.
(d) One important source of Indian history is the official records of the British administration.
Answer:
(c) All classes and groups in India experienced the changes during the British rule in the same way.

3. The National Museum and the National Archives are located in :
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) New Delhi.
Answer:
(d) New Delhi.

4. Which statement is not correct in the following?
(a) From the end of the 19th century, Census operations were held every ten years.
(b) Botanical gardens and natural history museums, established by the British, collected plant specimens and information about their use.
(c) By the early 20th century, detailed surveys were being carried Out to map the entire country.
(d) The British set up record rooms attached to all administrative institutions to preserve documents and letters.
Answer:
(c) By the early 20th century, detailed surveys were being carried Out to map the entire country.

5. Calligraphists are specialised in the art of beautiful-
(a) writing
(b) printing
(c) presentation
(d) sketching
Answer:
(a) writing

Glossary:

→ Governor-General-Administrative head of the British rule in India.

→ Chronology – Something that is arranged in an order.

→ Taboos – Something that explains‘Do Nets’.

→ Tehsildar – A local administrative officer that kept record of revenue during the British rule in India.

→ Calligraphists – Those people who specialised in the art of beautiful writing.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Conservation of Plants and Animals Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 7 was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-science/

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Conservation of Plants and Animals

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 1.
Name a sanctuary of India.
Answer:
Bharatpur bird sanctuary.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question Answer Question 2.
Name a national park of India.
Answer:
Kaziranga National Park.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Questions And Answers Question 3.
Name a wildlife sanctuary of India.
Answer:
Lockchao wildlife sanctuary.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Class 8 Question Answer Question 4.
Name a biosphere reserve of India.
Answer:
Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Class 8 Solutions Question 5.
What causes drought?
Answer:
Reduced rainfall causes drought.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Class 8 Question 6.
Name the areas meant for conservation of biodiversity
Answer:
Biosphere Reserve.

Question Answer Of Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question 7.
Name two wildlife sanctuaries of Panchmarhi biosphere reserve.
Answer:
Bori and Panchmarhi.

Chapter 7 Science Class 8 Question 8.
Give two examples each of flora and fauna.
Answer:
Examples of flora: Mango, Jamun Examples of fauna: Chinkara, cheetal.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question And Answer Question 9.
Name one endemic animal.
Answer:
Indian giant squirie1 is an endemic animal.

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Short Question Answer Question 10.
Name two endemic flora of Panchmarhi.
Answer:
Sal and wild mango are two endemic flora of Panchmarbi.

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 11.
Apart from wildlife sanctuaries, name one place where animals are protected?
Answer:
Zoo.

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Very Short Question Answer Question 12.
Name the first reserve forest of India.
Answer:
Satpura.

Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question Answers Question 13.
What is special about the forest of Satpura?
Answer:
The finest teak of India is found in this forest.

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question Answer Question 14.
Do the tribals still live in forest?
Answer:
Yes, many tribals still live in forests.

Ncert Solutions For Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question 15.
Name one animal which has become completely extinct?
Answer:
Dinosaur.

Class 8 Science Conservation Of Plants And Animals Question Answer Question 16.
Define biosphere.
Answer:
Biosphere is that part of earth in which living organisms exist or which support life.

Question 17.
What is biodiversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity is the variety of plants, animals and microorganisms generally found in an area.

Question 18.
Name two natural causes of deforestation.
Answer:
Two natural causes of deforestation are :

1. forest fire, and
2. severe drought.

Question 19.
Define endemic species.
Answer:
The species that are exclusively found in a particular area only and not naturally found anywhere else are known as endemic species.

Question 20.
What do you mean by species?
Answer:
Species is a group of populations which are capable of interbreeding with each other.

Question 21.
State some examples of fauna, endemic to Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
Bison, Indian giant squirrel and flying squirrel are some of the fauna endemic to the Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve.

Question 22.
What, does a sanctuary provide?
Answer:
It provides protection and suitable living conditions to wild animals.

Question 23.
Why are even protected forests not safe?
Answer:
Even protected forests are not safe because poachers encroach and destroy them.

Question 24.
What is a rock shelter?
Answer:
Rock shelters are the evidences of prehistoric human life in the jungles of Satpura National Park. They were meant for human living.

Question 25.
What idea do the rock shelters give?
Answer:
The rock shelters give us an idea about the life of the prehistoric/primitive humans.

Question 26.
What do you mean by the term Project Tiger?
Answer:
“Project Tiger” is the name of a project which was launched by the government of our country to .protect the tigers of the country.

Question 27.
What was the objective of Project Tiger?
Answer:
The objective of Project Tiger was to ensure the maintenance of a viable population of tigers in our country.

Question 28.
Why is Satpura Tiger Reserve a unique place?
Answer:
The Satpura Tiger Reserve is unique in the sense that a significant increase in the population of tigers has been seen here.

Question 29.
Are there different Red Data Books for plants and animals?
Answer:
Yes, there are different Red Data Books for plants, animals and other species.

Question 30.
What do you mean by reforestation?
Answer:
Reforestation means restocking of the destroyed forests by planting new trees.

Question 31.
Define endangered animals with two examples.
Answer:
Animals whose numbers are diminishing to a level that they might face extinction are known as the endangered animals. This is because survival of some animals has become difficult because of disturbances in their natural habitat.
The example of the endangered animals are: Indian elephant, Bengal tiger, Indian lion, Indian Rhino and Gharial.

Question 32.
What are the causes and consequences Of deforestation?
Answer:
Causes of deforestation :

• Forests are cleared for accommodating expanding urban areas and for meeting increasing demands.
• Forests are destroyed to clear land for crops and cattle grazing.
• Trees are cut down to be used for firewood.

Consequences of deforestation :

• Soil erosion
• Loss of biodiversity
• Floods and droughts
• Climate change due to global warming
• Disruption of water cycle

Question 33.
Explain the term Biosphere Reserve. What is its importance?
Answer:
Biosphere Reserves are the areas meant for conservation of biodiversity (plants, animals and microorganisms found in an area). Biosphere Reserves help to maintain the biodiversity and culture of that area.

Question 34.
Define the term “Wildlife Sanctuaries.” Name some threatened wild animals. How re they protected?
Answer:
Wildlife Sanctuaries are the areas where wild animals are protected and conserved. Some of the threatened wild animals like black buck, white-eyed buck, elephant, golden cat, pink-headed duck, gharial, marsh crocodile, python, rhinoceros, etc. are protected and preserved in different Wildlife Sanctuaries.

Question 35.
What are found in rock shelters of Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserves?
Answer:
There are rock paintings found in the rock shelters. Figures of animals, men shown as fighting, hunting, dancing, and
playing musical instruments are depicted in these rock paintings. Figures of man-eater tiger and a group of people are also shown in these rock paintings.

Question 36.
Define a desertification and deforestation with two consequences of each.
Answer:
Desertification: Excessive deforestation leads to removal of the top layer of the soil which exposes the lower, hard and rocky layers. This soil has less humus and is less fertile. Gradually the fertile land gets converted into deserts. It is called desertification. Agriculture, animal husbandry and groundwater pumping are all significant contributors to the process.
Consequences of desertification :

• Desertification affects the agriculture to a large extent.
• It results in decease in rainfall.
• Desertification exposes the land to floods.
• It results in decease in the level of groundwater.

Deforestation :
Clearing of forests by cutting down forest trees over a wide area is called deforestation.
Consequences of deforestation :

• Soil erosion
• Loss of biodiversity
• Floods and droughts
• Climate change due to global warming
• Disruption of water cycle.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Following irrigation system is more suitable for areas where sufficient water is not available
(a) Drip system
(b) Sprinkler system
(c) None.
Answer:
(a) Drip system.

2. An ecosystem is composed of
(a) Living component
(b) Non-living component
(c) Both.
Answer:
(c) Both.

3. In Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve Bison, Indian giant squirrels are found they are the example of
(a) endemic species
(b) endangered species
(c) extinct species
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) endemic species.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science

Here we are providing Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Manufacturing Industries was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 6

Question 1.
What are light industries?
Answer:
The industries which use light raw’ materials and produce light goods like electric fans, sewing machines, television sets etc. are known as light industries.

Question 2.
Name four important cotton textile centres of Maharashtra.
Answer:
The four important cotton textile centres of Maharashtra are the following:

1. Mumbai,
2. Sholapur,
3. Pune,
4. Wardha.

Question 3.
Name two important sugar-producing states of India?
Answer:
The two most important sugar-producing states in India are the following:

1. Uttar Pradesh,
2. Maharashtra.

Question 4.
Name two iron and steel producing plants each of Karnataka and West Bengal.
Answer:

Two iron and steel producing plants of Karanataka are-

1. Vijaya Nagar,
2. Bhadravati.

Two iron and steel producing plants of West Bengal

1. Durgapur,
2. Burnpur.

Question 5.
Name five electronic goods-producing centres of India.
Answer:
Five electronic goods-producing centres of India are the following:

1. Bangalore,
2. Mumbai,
3. Hyderabad,
4. Delhi,
5. Chennai.

Question 6.
What is the annual production of cement in the country at present?
Answer:
The annual production of cement in the country at present is 100 million tonnes.

Question 7.
How many software technological parks are there in India?
Answer:
18.

Question 8.
What is meant by DWT?
Answer:
DWT stands for deadweight tonnage. It is the unit for weighing of an empty ship.

Question 9.
How many dry docks are there in India?
Answer:
17.

Question 10.
How much crude oil is produced by India?
Answer:
India produces about 27 million tonnes of crude oil.

Question 11.
Why are the most of the Jute mills of India located at West Bengal?
Answer:
Most of the Jute mills are located at West Bengal because of the following reasons:

1. Closeness of the jute producing areas.
2. Cheap labour.
3. Banking and insurance facilities.
4. Availability of abundant water for processing of jute.
5. Inexpensive water transport.
6. Desired port facilities for export.

Question 12.
Describe the distribution of shipbuilding industry in India?
Answer:
1. Shipbuilding is a large industry requiring huge capital.
2. In India, at present there are five major shipbuilding centres.
3. These are namely

• Vishakapatnam,
• Kolkata,
• Kochi,
• Mumbai,
• Margmago.

4. All of these are in public sector.
5. The maximum size of ships that can be constructed at Kochi and Vishakhapatnam are 100000 DWT and 50000 DWT respectively.

Question 13.
How does industrial pollution degrade environment?
Answer:
In one hand industries make great contributions in the economic development of the country. On the other hand, industries also increase pollution and degrade environment.

Question 14.
Point out the burning problems of the cotton textile industry?
Answer:
The burning problems of the cotton textile industry today are the following:

• Scarcity of good quality water.
• Obsolete machinery.
• Erratic power supply.
• Low productivity of labour.
• Stiff competition with synthetic fibre industry etc.

Question 15.
In which countries are the Indian cotton textiles mainly exported?
Answer:
India mostly exports its cotton textile in the form of readymade garments. Indian cotton textile is mainly exported to the United States of America, UK, Russia, France, East European countries, Nepal, Singapore and the various African countries.

Question 16.
Why is manufacturing sector considered the backbone of development in India.
Answer:
Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development in general and economic development in particular mainly because:

• Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising agriculture, which forms the backbone of our economy, they also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
• Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country. This was the main philosophy behind public sector industries and joint sector ventures in India. It was also aimed to bring down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
• Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
• A country that transforms its raw materials into a wide variety of finished goods of higher value is prosperous. India’s prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its manufacturing industries as quickly as possible.

Question 17.
Classify Industries.
Answer:
Industries may be classified as follows: On the basis of source of raw materials used:

• Agio based: Cotton, Woollen, Jute, Silk textile, Rubber and Sugar, tea, coffee, edible oil
• Mineral-based: Iron and steel, cement, aluminium, machine tools, petrochemicals.

According to their main role:

• Basic or key industries which supply their products or raw materials to manufacture other goods e.g. iron and steel and copper smelting, aluminium smelting.
• Consumer Industries that produce goods for direct use by consumers sugar, toothpaste, paper, sewing machines, fans etc.

On the basis of capital investment:
A small scale industry is defined into reference to the maximum investment allowed on the assets of a unit. This limit has changed over a period of time. At present, the maximum investment allowed is rupees one crore. If investment is more than one crore on any industry than it is known as large scale industry.

On the basis of ownership:

• Public sector, owned and operated by government agencies-BHEL, SAIL.
• Private-sector industries owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals TISCO, Bajaj Auto Ltd., Dabur Industries.
• Joint sector industries which are jointly run by the state and individuals or a group of individuals. Oil India Ltd. (OIL) is jointly owned by public and private sector.
• Cooperative sector industries are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials, workers or both. They pool in the resources and share the profits or losses proportionately, such as sugar industry in Maharashtra, Coir industry in Kerala.

Based on the bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods:

• Heavy industries such as Iron and Steel.
• Light Industries that use light raw materials and produce light goods such as electrical industries.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Paper is manufactured from :
(a) Wood
(b) Yarn
(c) Cotton
(d) Raw-wool.
Answer:
(a) Wood

Question 2.
One of the following is not an agro-based industry:
(a) Automobile
(b) Silk
(c) Sugar
(d) Edible oil
Answer:
(a) Automobile

Question 3.
The first textile mill was established in 1854 at the following place:
(a) Kanpur
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 4.
India exports yarn to the following country:
(a) Brazil
(b) Pakistan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Japan
Answer:
(d) Japan

Question 5.
Jute mills in India are:
(a) 170
(b) 70
(c) 270
(d) 370.
Answer:
(b) 70.

Map Skills

Question 1.
Show the textile industries on the outline map of India.
Or
Locate on the outline map following industries:

• Cotton textile industries
• Jute textile industries
• Woolen textile industries
• Silk textile industries
• Synthetic textiles.

Answer:

Question 2.
Point out following industries on an outline map of India:

1. Iron and steel industries.
2. Locomotives
3. Railway coaches
4. Shipbuilding
5. Automobiles
6. Machine tools
7. Electric gadgets.

Answer:

Question 3.
On an outline map of India show the following mineral-based industries:

1. Cement
2. Fertilisers
3. Defence Equipments
4. Chemicals
5. Heavy electricals
6. Petrochemicals.

Answer:

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Food Security in India with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-social-science/

Food Security in India Class 9 Extra Questions Economics Chapter 4

Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What is food security?
Answer:
Food is as essential for living as air is for breathing. Food security means something more than getting two square meals.

Food Security In India Class 9 Extra Questions Question 2.
Why food security is necessary?
Answer:
The poorest, section of the society might be food insecure most of the times while persons above the poverty line might also be food insecure when the country faces a natural disaster like earthquake, drought, flood, tsunami, widespread failure of crops causing famine, etc.

Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 Extra Questions Answers Question 3.
How is food security affected during a calamity?
Answer:
Due to a natural calamity, total production of food grains decreases. It creates a shortage of food in the affected areas.

Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Who are food-insecure?
Answer:
Although a large section of people suffers from food and nutrition insecurity in India, the worst affected groups are landless people with little or no land depend upon, traditional artisans, providers of traditional services, petty, self-employed workers and destitute including beggars.

In the urban areas, the food-insecure families are those whose working members are generally employed in ill-paid occupations and casual labour markets.

Extra Questions For Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 Question 5.
What is Buffer stock?
Answer:
Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of India.

Food Security In India Extra Questions Question 6.
What is minimum support price?
Answer:
The FCI purchases wheat and rice. from the farmers in states where there is surplus production. The farmers are paid a pre-announced price for their crops. This price is called minimum support price.

Economics Chapter 4 Class 9 Question Answers Question 7.
Why buffer stock is created by the government?
Answer:
Buffer stock is created by the government to distribute food-grains in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price also known as issue price This also helps resolve the problems of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during the periods of calamity.

Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 8.
Give the factors responsible for rising maintenance cost of food grains.
Answer:
The rising minimum support prices have raised the maintenance cost of procuring food grains by the government. Rising transportation and storage costs of the FCI ‘ are other contributing factors in this increase.

Class 9 Economics Chapter 4 Question Answers Question 9.
Write a short note on National Food for Work Programme.
Answer:
National Food for Work Programme was launched on November 14, 2004, in 150 most backward districts of the country with the objective of intensifying the generation of supplementary wage employment and desire to do manual unskilled work. It is implemented as a 100 per cent centrally sponsored scheme and the food grains are provided to states free of cost.

The collector is the nodal officer at the district level and has the overall responsibility of planning implementation, coordination, monitoring and supervision. For 2004-05, Rs. 2020 Crore have been allocated for the programme in addition to 20 lakh tonnes of food-grains.

Food Security In India Class 9 Extra Question Answer Question 10.
Write a short note on Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY).
Answer:
AntyodayaAnna Yojana was launched in December 2000. Under the scheme, one crore of the poorest among the BPL families covered under the targeted public distribution system were identified by the respective state rural development departments through a below poverty line (BPL) survey. Twenty-five kilograms of food-grains were made available to each eligible family at a highly subsidised rate of Rs. 2 per kilogram for wheat and Rs. 3 per kilogram for rice.

This quantity has been enhanced from 25 to 50 kilograms with effect from April 2002. The scheme has been further expanded twice by additional 50 lakhs BPL families in June 2003 and in August 2004. With this increase, 2 crore families have been covered under the AAY.

Class 9 Economics Ch 4 Extra Questions Question 11.
Give any four drawbacks of public distribution system?
Answer:
The four drawbacks of PDS are as follows:

• Deaths due to hunger- Many instances of death due to hunger are prevalent despite overflowing granaries. FCI godowns are overflowing with grains with some rotting. away and some being eaten by rats.
• High carrying costs- The high level of buffer stocks are responsible for high carrying costs. The rising minimum support price has raised the maintenance cost of procuring food grains by the government.

Food Security In India Class 9 Questions And Answers Question 12.
Hunger indicates food insecurity. Explain?
Answer:
Hunger is not just an expression of poverty, it brings about poverty. The attainment of food security, therefore, involves eliminating current hunger and reducing the risks of future hunger. Hunger has chronic and seasonal dimensions. Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and/or quality. Poor people suffer from chronic hunger because of their tew income and in turn instability to buy food even for survival.

Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. This is prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in urban areas because of the casual labour e.g. there is less work for causal construction labour during the rainy season.

This type of hunger exists when a person is unable to get work for the entire year. The percentage of seasonal, as well as chronic hunger, has declined in India. Seasonal hunger has declined to 0.6 in urban areas and 2.6 in rural areas. Chronic hunger is 0.3 in urban areas and 2.7 in rural areas.

Chapter 4 Economics Class 9 Question 13.
Critically examine public distribution system.
Answer:
Supply of essential commodities to the people by the government through ration shops is called public distribution system. PDS is the most important step taken by the government of India towards ensuring food security. It is the most important instrument, of government policy over the years for stabilizing prices and making food available to consumers affordable prices.

It has been successful in avoiding widespread hunger and famine by supplying food from surplus regions of the country to the deficit ones. In addition, the prices have been under revision in favour of poor households in general. The system including the minimum support price and procurement has contributed to an increase in food-grain production and provided income security to farmers in certain regions.

In the beginning, the coverage of PDS was universal with no discrimination between the poor and non-poor. Over the years the policy has been revised to make it more efficient and targeted. In 1992Revamped Public, Distribution was started in 1700 blocks in the country. Its target was to provide the benefits of PDS to remote and backward areas. Then in June 1997, Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) was introduced to adopt the principle of targeting the poor in all areas.

For the first time, differential price polity was adopted for poor and non-poor. Further in 2000, two special schemes were launched, viz. Antyodaya Anna Yojana and Annapurna Scheme with special target groups of the poorest of the poor and indigent senior citizens. The functioning of the above schemes was linked with the existing network of the PDS.

Criticism-However; the Public Distribution System has faced severe criticism, on several grounds. Substances of hunger are prevalent despite over-flowing granaries. FCI godowns are overflowing with grains with some rafting away and some being eaten by rats. The storage of massive food stocks has been responsible for high carrying costs, in addition to wastage an,d deterioration in grain quality.

The average consumption of PDS grain at all Indian levels is only 1 kg. per person per month. This is much lower than the consumption pattern which is 3-4 kgs per month. As a result, the poor have to depend on markets rather than the ration shops for their food needs. PDS dealers are sometimes found resorting to malpractices like diverting the grains to open market to get better margin by selling poor quality grains.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 10 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Challenges to Democracy was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Challenges to Democracy Class 10 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 8

Question 1.
Define challenge.
Answer:
A challenge is not just any problem. We usually call only those difficulties a challenge which are significant and which can be overcome. A challenge is difficulty that carries within it. Once we can overcome a challenge, we can go up to a higher level than before.

Question 2.
How many type of challenges does a Democracy face?
Answer:
Generally, democracy has to face three type of challenges.

1. Fundational challenge.
2. Challenge of expansion.
3. Challenge of deepening of democracy.

Question 3.
What are the foundational challenges of democracy in the modem world?
Answer:

• Making the transition to democracy and instituting Democratic government.
• this involves bringing down the Existent Non-Democratic regime, keeping military away from controlling government and establishing a sovereign and functional state.

Question 4.
Name some countries which facing challenges of expansion.
Answer:
India, USA, Ghana, Ireland Shri Lanka etc.

Question 5.
What is political reform or Democracy reform.
Answer:
Generally, all the suggestions or proposals about overcoming various challenges to democracy are called democracy reform or political reform.

Question 6.
It is possible to keep a list of political reforms?
Answer:

1. No, we cannot have a general list of political or democracy reforms because the challenges at national and state level may be different.
2. Such a list might lose its relevance after some time.

Question 7.
How can low help in political reform?
Answer:

• Law has an important but limited role to play in political reform, carefully Devised changes in low can help to discourage wrong political practices and encourage good ones.
• But legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to democracy.

Question 8.
Who are mainly responsible for carrying out the political reforms?
Answer:
Democratic reforms are to be carried out mainly by political activists. Parties movement and political conscious citizens.

Question 9.
What should be our main concern to face challenges of Democracy?
Answer:

• Democratic reform are to be brought about principally through political practice. Therefore, the main focus of political reform should be on ways to strengthen Democratic practice.
• The most important concern should be to increase and improve the quality of political, by participation facing my ordinary citizens.

Question 10.
Which law are not very useful in politics?
Answer:

• Generally, laws that seek to ban something are not very successful in political.
• Laws that give political actor incentive to do things have more chances of working.

Question 11.
“Most of the established Democracies face the challenges of expansion”. Discuss.
Answer:

• Most of the established democracies face the challenges of expansion.
• This involves applying the basic principle of Democratic government across all the’ regions. Different social groups and various institutions.
• Ensuring greater power to local governments. Extension of federal principle to all the units of the Federation. Inclusion of women and minority groups, etc. Falls under this challenge.
• This also means that less and less decision should remain outside the arena of Democratic control. Most countries, including India and old democracies like the US, face this challenge.

Question 12.
Explain the challenge of deepening of democracy.
Answer:

The challenge of deepening of democracy is faced by every Democracy in one form or another, this involves strengthening of institutions and practices of democracy.

This should happen in such a way that people can. realize, their expectations of democracy but ordinary people have different expectations from democracy in different societies.

Therefore the challenge take different meaning and paths in different parts of the world.

In concrete terms It usually means strengthening those institutions that help People’s participation and control. This requires an attempt to bring down the control and influence of the rich and powerful people on decision making.

Question 13.
“The best laws are those which empower people to carry out Democratic reforms, explain.
Answer:
Any legal change must carefully look at what result it will on politics. Sometimes the results may be counter-productive. For example, many states have banned. People who have more than two children from contesting panchayat elections.

This has resulted in denial of Democratic opportunity to Manipur and women which was not intended.

Generally, laws that seek to ban something are not very successful in politics. Laws that give political actor incentive to do good things have more chances of working.

The best laws are those which empower people to carry out democratic reforms. The right to Information Act is good example of law that empowers the people to find out and act as watchdogs of democracy. Such a law helps to control corruption and supplements the existing laws that banned corruption. An imposed strict penalties.

Question 14.
What other qualification would you like to add to the existing definition of democracy In order to expand it.
Answer:

• The rulers elected by the people must take all the major decisions.
• Election must offer a choice and Fair Opportunity to the people to exchange the current rulers.
• This choice and opportunity should be available to all the people on an equal basis.
• The exercise of the choice must lead to government Limited by basic rules of the constitution and citizens rights.

Question 15.
What are the major challenges faced by Democracies in most countries of the world today.
Answer:

Following are the three main type of challenges faced by democracies.
1. Foundational challenges: This involves-

• Bringing down the non-Democratic regimes and keeping military away from controlling government.
• Establishing a sovereign and functional state.

2. Challenges of expansion: This involve-

• Applying the basic principle of Democratic government throughout the world.
• Ensuring greater power to local governments. Extension of federal principle and inclusion of women and minority groups.

3. Challenges of deepening democracy: This involves-

• Strengthening of the institutions and practices of democracy.
• Strengthening those institutions that help People’s participation and control.

Question 16.
Describe the role of citizens in democracy.
Answer:

• citizen play an important role in a Democracy as the exercise their rights and freedoms and get benefited from the Democratic setup of the country.
• They must be aware of their rights and duties and should be ever ready to perform their duties.
• They should be aware of the issues and problems facing the country.
• They must Cooperative in maintaining the law and law order in the country.
• People must consider others needs and interests. Also, they should be prepared to make ultimate sacrifice for the sake of Motherland.

Objective Type Question

Four choices are given to the following questions.
Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
the foundational challenge of democracy involves.
(a) Making the transition to democracy and then instituting Democratic government.
(b) Ensuring greater power to local governments.
(c) Strengthening of the institutions and practices of democracy.
(d) Both B&C.
Answer:
(b) Ensuring greater power to local governments.

Question 2.
The challenge of expansion of democracy involves.
(a) Making the transition to democracy and then instituting Democratic government.
(b) Ensuring greater power to local governments.
(c) Strengthening of the institutions and practices of democracy.
(d) Both B&C.
Answer:
(b) Ensuring greater power to local governments.

Question 3.
The challenge of deepening of democracy involved.
(a) Bringing down the existing non- Democratic governments.
(b) Inclusion of women and minority groups.
(c) Strengthening of the institutions and practices of democracy.
(d) None of this.
Answer:
(c) Strengthening of the institutions and practices of democracy.

Question 4.
Which of the following countries facing the challenge of expansion?
(a) Myanmar.
(b) Belgium.
(c) Pakistan.
(d) India.
Answer:
(d) India.

Question 5.
Which of the following countries facing the foundational challenge of democracy?
(a) India.
(b) USA.
(c) Nepal
(d) Mexico.
Answer:
(c) Nepal

Question 6.
Which of the following countries facing the challenge of deepening of democracy?
(a) Pakistan,
(b) Chile
(c) China
(d) Sri Lanka.
Answers:
(a) Pakistan.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 10 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Popular Struggles and Movements was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Popular Struggles and Movements Class 10 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 5

Question 1.
Why did the king dismiss the parliament in 2005?
Answer:

• King Gyanendra was not ready to accept democratic rule in Nepal
• He took advantage of the weakness and unpopularity of the democratically elected government.
• In February 2005, he dismissed the then Prime Minister and dissolved the popular ejected parliament.

Question 2.
What is constitutional monarchy?
Answer:
In a constitutional monarchy, the constitutions acknowledges an elected representative as the head of the state.

Question 3.
Define absolute monarchy.
Answer:
The head of the state has absolute powers under absolute monarchy.

Question 4.
Who had the real powers in Nepal after it won democracy?
Answer:
The King was the formal head of the state but the elected representatives had the real powers to take and implement various decisions.

Question 5.
Why was water supply privatised in Bolivia?
Answer:
The World Bank pressurised the government to give up its contro of water supply.

Question 6.
Give one difference be ween a political party and a pressure group.
Answer:
Pressure groups are organisations that attempt to influence government policies. But unlike political parties, pressure groups do not aim to directly control or share political power. These organisations are formed when people with common occupation, interest, aspirations or opinions come together in order to achieve a common objective.

Question 7.
State one similarity and one difference between an interest group and people’s movement.
Answer:

• Like an interest group, a movement also attempts to influence group, nee politics rather than directly take part in electoral competition.
• But unlike the interest groups, movements have a loose organisation. Their decision making is more informal and flexible. They depend much more on spontaneous mass participation than an interest group.

Question 8.
Give some examples of people’s movement.
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan, movement for right to information, anti liquor movement, women’s movement omnronmental movement etc.

Question 9.
Write the activities of NAPM.
Answer:

• National Alliance for People’s Movements (NAPM) is an organisation of organisations. Various movement groups struggling on specific issues are the members of this organisation.
• It coordinates the activities of a large number of peoples movement in our country.

Question 10.
Write a short note on ‘Kittiko- Hachchiko’ movement.
Answer:
In 1984 Karnataka government set up a company called Karnataka Pulpwood Limited. About 30,000 hectares of land was given virtually free to this company for 40 years. Much of this land was used by local farmers as grazing land for their cattle.

However the company began could be used plant eucalyptus trees in these lands, which could be used for making paper pulp. In 1987 a movement called Kittiko-Hachchiko (meaning, pluck and plant) started a non-violent protest, where people plucked the eucalyptus plants and planted saplings of trees that were useful to the people.

Question 11.
Describe different types of movement groups.
Answer:
A movement seeks to exert influence on the policies of the government. These movements can be of various types. Some movements are issue-specific movements that are concerned with only one issue. They work to achieve that single objective and have a very limited time frame. Some movements have more than one objective to deal with. They work to achieve the broader goal have a long time frame.

Example: The Nepalese movement for democracy worked for the specific objective of regaining the democracy in the country. The Narmada Bachao Andolan started with the issue of people that would be displaced with the construction of the dam on Narmada River. It took a general view as it became a wider movement and questioned all such dams and the people that would be displaced because of it.

Question 12.
Define pressure groups or interest groups.
Answer:
An interest group is a group that seeks to encourage or prevent changes in the country policies without getting elected. They either work to promote a particular policy of the government or protest against the policy of the government depending on their interests. Thus pressure groups or interest groups are those that represent the interests of a particular section of the society.

Example: There can be an interest group that promotes the interests of only the workers, employees or a particular caste group. Their main aim is the well being of their members or their particular section and not of the society in general.

Question 13.
What do you mean by Sectional interest groups?
Answer:

• Usually, interest groups seek to promote the interests of a particular section or group of society. Trade unions, business associations and professional (lawyers, doctors, teachers, etc.) bodies are some examples of this type,
• They are sectional because they represent a section of society: workers, employees, business persons, industrialists, followers of a religion, caste group, etc.
• Their principal concern is the betterment and well being of their members, not society in general “most of the movement are issue”.

Question 14.
Specific movement that seek to achieve a single objective within a limited time frame.” Explain.
Answer:
Most of the movements are issue-specific movements that seek to achieve a single objective within a limited time frame.

The Nepalese Movement for Democracy arose with the specific objective of reversing the king’s orders that led to suspension of democracy.

In India, Narmada Bachao Andolan is a good example of this kind of movement. The movement started with the specific issue of the people displaced by the creation of Sardar Sarovar dam on the Narmada river. Its objective was to stop the dam from being constructed. Gradually it became a wider movement that questioned all such big dams and the model of development that required such dams.

Movements of this kind tend to have a clear leadership and some organisation. But their active life is usually short.

Question 15.
Distinguish between sectional interest group and public interest group.
Answer:
An interest group is a group that seeks to encourage or prevent changes in the public policy without getting elected. They either work to promote a particular policy of the government or protest against the policy of the government depending on their interests. Sectional interest groups are those that represent the interests of a particular section of the society.

They aim for the betterment of their members only. A public interest group is one that represents the interest of the entire society in general. Their activities benefit all the members of the society and not just a particular section in the society.

Example: An interest group that seeks to promote the interests of only the employees or workers or a particular caste group is called a sectional interest group. Whereas, an interest group fighting against caste discrimination affects everybody who is suffering from such discrimination and is an example of a public interest group.

Question 16.
“Some movements are more general or generic movements that seek to achieve a broad goal in the very term.” Do you agree? Why?
Answer:
The single-issue movements can be contrasted with movements that are long term and involve more than one issue. The environmental movement and the women’s movement are classic examples of such movements. There is to one organisation that controls or guides such movements. Environmental movement is a label for a large number of organisations and issue-specific movements. All of these have separate organisation, independent leadership and often different views on policy-related matters.

Yet all of these share a broad objective and have a similar approach. That is why they are called a movement. Sometimes these broad movements have a loose umbrella organisation as well. For example, the National Alliance for Peoples Movements (NAPM) is an organisation of organisations. Various movement groups struggling on specific issues are constituents of this loose organisation which coordinates the activities of alarge number of peoples’ movements in our country.

Question 17.
“The relationship between political parties and pressure which coordinates the activities of a large number of country: groups can take different forms.” Elaborate.
Answer:
The relationship between political parties and pressure groups can take different forms, some direct and others very indirect:
In some instances, the pressure groups are either formed or led by the leaders of political parties or act as extended arms of political parties. For example, most trade unions and students’ organisations in India are either established by or of filiated to one or the other pressure groups are usually activists and leaders

Sometimes political parties grow out of movements’. For example, when the Assam movement led by students against the “foreigners’ came to an end, Gan Parishad. The roots of parties like the DMK and the AIADMK in Tamil Nadu can be traced to a long drawn social reform movement during the 1930 and 1940s.

In most cases the relationship between parties and interest or movement groups is not so direct. They often take positions that are opposed to each other. Yet they are in dialogue and negotiation. Movement groups have raised new issues that have been taken up by political parties. Most of the new leadership of political parties comes from interest or movement groups.

Question 18.
Describe Bolivia’s Water War.
Answer:
Bolivia is a poor country in Latin America. The World Bank pressurised the government to give up its control of municipal water supply. The government sold these rights for the city of Cochabamba to a multi-national company (MNC). The company immediately increased the price of water by four times. Many people received monthly water bill of ₹ 1000 in a country where average income is around ₹ 5000 a month. This led to a spontaneous popular protest.

In January 2000 a new alliance of labour, human rights and community leaders organised a successful four-day general strike in the city. The government agreed to negotiate and the strike was called off. Yet nothing happened. The police resorted to brutal repression when the agitation was started again in February. Another strike followed in April and the government imposed martial law. But the power of the people forced the officials of the MNC to flee the city and made the government concede to all the demands of the protesters. The contract with the MNC was cancelled and water supply was restored to the municipality at old This came to be known as Bolivia’s Water War.

Question 19.
What are public interest groups? What are their aims?
Answer:
Sometimes organisations are not about representing the interest of one section of society. They represent some common or general interest that needs to be defended. The numbers of the organisation may not benefit from the cause that the organisation represents. The Bolivian organisation FEDECOR is an example of that kind of an organisation. In the context of Nepal we noted the participation of human right organisation. These second type of groups are called promotional groups or public interest groups. They promote collective, rather than selective, good.

They aim to help groups other than their own members. For example a group fighting against bonded labour fight not for themselves but for those who are suffering under such bondage. In some instances the members of a public interest group may undertake activity that benefits them as well as others too. For example, BAMCEF (Backward and Minorities Community Employees Federation) is an organisation largely of government employees that campaigns against caste discrimination. Its principal concern is social justice and social equality for the entire society.

Question 20.
“Pressure groups and movements have deepened democracy.” Explain.
Answer:

• Pressure’ groups and movements have deepened democracy. Putting pressure on the rulers is not an unhealthy activity in a democracy as long as everyone gets this opportunity.
• Governments can often come under undue pressure from a small group of rich and powerful people.
• Public interest groups and movements perform a useful role of countering this undue influence and reminding the government of the needs and concerns of ordinary citizens.
• Even the sectional interest groups play a valuable role. Where different groups function actively, no one single group can achieve dominance ovfer society.
• If one group brings pressure on government to make policies in its favour, another will bring counter pressure not to make policies in the way the first group desires.
• The government gets to hear about what different sections of the population want This leads to a rough balance of power and accommodation of conflicting interests.

Multiple Choice Questions

Four choices are given to the following questions.
Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
When was King Birendra Killed?
(a) 2000
(b) 2001
(c) 2002
(d) 2005
Answer:
(b) 2001

Question 2.
Who became the king of Nepal after the death of King Birendra?
(a) King Deependra
(b) King Narendra
(c) King Vikram
(d) King Gyanendra
Answer:
(d) King Gyanendra

Question 3.
When did King Gyanendra dissolve the popularly elected parliament?
(a) February 2005
(b) June 2005
(c) March 2006
(d) May 2005
Answer:
(a) February 2005

Question 4.
What was the aim of the movement of April 2006 in Nepal?
(a) Restoration of Monarchy
(b) Restoration of Autocracy
(c) Restoration of Democracy
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Restoration of Democracy

Question 5.
Who led the movement of April 2006 in Nepal?
(a) Seven Party Alliance
(b) Two-Party Alliance
(c) NCP
(d) Congress
Answer:
(a) Seven Party Alliance

Question 6.
Who became the new Prime Minister of Nepal?
(a) S.p. Thapa
(b) D.B. Gurung
(c) B.N.Jha
(d) G.P. Koirala
Answer:
(d) G.P. Koirala

Question 7.
Bolivia is a country of
(а) Asia
(б) Europe
(c) Latin Amercia
(d) Affrica
Answer:
(c) Latin Amercia

Question 8.
After privatization, the price of water in Bolivia was raised by:
(a) Two times
(b) Four times
(c) Six times
(d) Ten times
Answer:
(b) Four times

Question 9.
“Kittiko-Hachchiko” movement was started in Karnataka in:
(a) 1985
(b) 1986
(c) 1987
(d) 1980
Answer:
(d) 1980

Question 10.
The protest against water privatization in Bolivia was led by:
(a) Fedecor
(b) NCP (Maoist)
(c) Congress
(d) BJP
Answer:
(a) Fedecor

Question 11.
Socialist Party came to power in Bolivia in:
(a) 2001
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2006
Answer:
(d) 2006

Question 12.
Organisations that attempt to influence government policies are called:
(a) Pressure group
(b) Political Parties
(c) Social group
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Pressure group

Question 13.
These groups who promote collective rather than selective good are called:
(a) Sectional interest group
(b) Public Interest group
(c) Pressure group
(d) Interest group
Answer:
(b) Public Interest group.

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Development was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Development Class 10 Extra Questions Economics Chapter 1

Question 1.
What do you mean by economic development?
Answer:
Economic development is meant a process whereby the real per capita income of the country increases over a long period of time along with improvement in the material welfare.

Question 2.
What do you mean by sustained development?
Answer:
Sustained development is the development which takes care of the needs of the present generation without compromising with the needs of the future generations.

Question 3.
Name the three sectors of economy?
Answer:

1. Primary sector,
2. Secondary sector,
3. Territory sector.

Question 4.
Point out the main activities that constitute the Primary sector.
Answer:
The primary sector is constituted by the following activities-

• Agriculture,
• Fishing,
• Mining,
• Hunting,
• Forestry,
• Logging etc.

Question 5.
What is meant by the Secondary sector?
Answer:
Secondary sector constitutes the sectors that are dependent on the primary goods. In other words, preparing goods from the primary goods are the secondary activities. For example, making bread from wheat is a secondary activity. The sectors engaged in these type of activities are known as the secondary sectors.

Question 6.
What is mixed economy?
Answer:
Mixed Economy is the economy that has the characteristics of both capitalist economy as well as socialistic economy.

Question 7.
What is meant by consumption?
Answer:
Taking and using the goods and services by the people is consumption.

Question 8.
What do you mean by production of services?
Answer:
The production of services refers to the activities such as transportation, medical treatment, postal services, courier telephone services, washing of clothes etc.

Question 9.
What is meant by the territary activities?
Answer:
The territary activities are the support services, these are the activities which link the producers and consumers. Banking, Insurance, retail stores, communication, teaching, all are the examples of the territary activities.

Question 10.
Which of the countries are considered as developed countries?
Answer:
Developed countries are those countries where the per capita income is high. These are the countries where people are less engaged in primary activities. U. S. A, U. K., Canada, Japan are some of the examples of this type of countries.

Question 11.
Define national income?
Answer:
National income may be defined as the total value of all the goods and services produced within a country plus the income that is coming from abroad.

Question 12.
What is per capita income?
Answer:
Per capita income is the total national income that is divided by total population.

Question 13.
Which are low-income countries?
Answer:
Countries with S 825 and less per capita income are called low-income countries.

Question 14.
What is Body Mass Index (BMI)?
Answer:
The BMI is an index which helps us calculate whether the adults are nourished or undernourished.

Question 15.
What is meant by renewable resources?
Answer:
Resources which can be renewed are called renewable resources. Groundwater is an example of renewable resource.

Question 16.
What is reserve/production ratio?
Answer:
Reserve/production ratio is one through which one is able to know the number of years that the reserves will last if production and use continue at current rates.

Question 17.
What do you mean by the term economic development
Answer:
Economic development is the system of earning and spending well in order to raise the living standards. Economic development in fact is the progress that a country makes in the field of economy. If in a particular country the people earn higher income and are able to satisfy all their needs, it is said that the country is a developed country and its economy is developed economy.

On the other hand, where people are not able to earn a higher income and are not able to get all the facilities requires for their satisfaction, then we say that such an economy is a developing economy.

Question 18.
Point out the main features of the mixed economy?
Answer:
The main features of the mixed economy are the following

• It is a combination of free-market economy and government planned economy.
• In this type of economy production activities are carried out by individuals as well as by the government.
• In this type of economy, the prices of goods and services produced by individuals are decided by market forces but the goods produced by the government are decided by the government itself.
• The involvement of the government in production level ensures the welfare of the people rather than the profit.

Question 19.
(i) Why do different persons have different notions of development? Which of the following explanations is more important and why?
(a) Because people are different.
(b) Because life situations of persons are different.

(ii) Do the following two statements mean the same? Justify your answer.
(a) People have different developmental goals.
(b) People have conflicting developmental goals.

(iii) Give some examples where factors other than income are important aspects of our lives.
(iv) Explain some of the important ideas of the above section in your own words?
Answer:
(i) Because people are different, that is why they have different notions of development. At times, they have conflicting nations of development.

(ii) The two statements are different. People have different developmental goals. Our development goals may be different than what may be the goal of my Neighbour. It is also possible that people with different goals may have conflicting developmental goals.

(iii) In addition to the factor of income, there are numerous other factors which are important in our lives. Some such examples are

• level of health care,
• level of education,

(iv) Development is what everyone seeks. It is because of the developmental goals that we are able to seek facilities and goals. Indeed, different as we are, we have different goals as well. At times, our developmental goals clash with each other.

Question 20.
(i) Give three examples where an average is used for comparing situations.
(ii) Why do you think average income is an important criterion for development? Explain.
(iii) Besides size of per capita income, what other property of income is important in comparing two Or more societies?
(iv) Suppose records shows that the average income in a country has been increasing over a period. From this, can we conclude that all sections of the economy have become better? Illustrate your answer with an example.
(v) From the text, find out the per capita income level of middle-income countries as per WDR- 2006.
(vi) Write a paragraph on your notion of what should India do, or achieve, to become a developed country.
countries.
Answer:
(i) Average is used in

• calculating the monthly income of citizens;
• in calculating the monthly expenditure of four individuals,
• in calculating the life expectancy of a fixed number of Individuals

As the average income increases, this indicates that there is a consequent development in respect of income.

The size of import and export is also an important component for comparing the two or more countries.

Not so; there may be more income obtained by the business class, and less for the salaried oiie, though the average income may increase.

Not so; there may be more income obtained by the business class, and less for the salaried one, though the average income may increase.

Students may do it with the help of the teachers.
Students may do it with the help of the teachers: Hints

• More educational facilities in the rural areas.
• More health facilities in the rural areas.

Question 21.
(i) Look at data in Table A and B. Is Punjab as ahead of Bihar in literacy rate etc. as it is in terms of per capita income?
(ii) Think of other examples where collective provision of goods and services is cheaper than individual provision.
(iii) Does availability of good health and educational facilities depend only on amount of money spent by the government on these facilities? What other factors could be relevant? ‘
(iv) In Tamil Nadu, 75% of the people living in rural areas use a ration shop, whereas in Jharkhand only 8% of rural people do so. Where would people be better off and why?

Answer:
(i) Yes, Punjab is ahead of Bihar in literacy rate (Punjab 70%, Bihar 47%) as it is in per capita income (Punjab ₹ 26000/- Bihar ₹ 5700/-)

(ii) Students may do it with the help of their teachers.

(iii) Though money can buy facilities, yet money alone is not the sole factor. The other factors which can buy goods and services may include literacy and health rates.

(iv) Ration shops do help people obtain basic necessities at reasonable rates. What needs to be done is efficient working system.

Question 22.
(a) Is crude oil essential for the development process in a country? Discuss.
(b) India does not have enough reserves to meet its present needs. It has to import crude oil. What problems do you anticipate for the country looking at the above, situation?
Answer:
(a) Crude oil helps in generating energy and in transportation. These help in the developmental process of a country.

(b) India imports crude oil and spends a lot of foreign exchange. The rise in the prices of crude oil leads to inflation.

Question 23.
Assume that there are only four families each in two countries. Study the table on the right carefully and answer the questions that follows
(a) Fill in the blanks in a way that both country X and country Y have the same average income.
(b) Now say, which country is better off and why.

Country X is better of: because there is almost an equal average income (or equitable distribution of income) of the four families. But in country Y there is a lot of difference in the income of the four families. Family D has seven times more income than the income of family A, more than 8 times of family B, and about six times more of family C.

Question 24.
Describe the different factors of production?
Answer:
The main factors of production are the different factors of production include the factors that are essential for the production of goods and services. These factors are in fact the resources that are essential in order to carry out various economic activities. In economic terms, these factors are called inputs of factors of production.

These are the factors which help in production of commodities. These are also known as resources. These factors of production or the resources are owned by the individuals, Community government or
by the combination of any two or all the three of them.

The main factors of production are as follows Land :

• It is used for getting all the natural resources. It is the land that provides us with wood, crop, cotton, tea, or other things to Promote our industries.
• Moreover, we also need land to establish industries and factories.
• Land is also required to make the the living places for workers.
• Hence it is the most important factor and resource without which we even cannot imagine about economic development.

Labour: It is also one of the most significant factors of production. Without labour the economic activities cannot take form. All physical and manual efforts of mankind which are used in production or earning money are called labour.

Capital: It is that part of wealth which has been produced by man in his past and which is being used in production nf other goods and services presently. Capital is very essential for production. because without capital one would not be able to buy land or raw material. Neither the labour would be a available without money. Hence without money, no production activity will occur.

Question 24.
Distinguish Between Developed and Developing Economies.
Answer:
manual efforts of mankind which are used in production or earning money are called labour.
Capital: It is that part of wealth which has been produced by man in his past and which is being used in production of other goods and services presently.

Capital is very essential for production because without capital one would not be able to buy land or raw material. Neither the labour would be a available without money. Hence without money no production activity will occur.

Developed	Developing Economics
1. The standard of living of the people in this type of economy is very high.	In this type of economy the standard of the people is comparatively low.
2. Per capita income in this economy is very high.	Per capita income is quite is low.
3.The countries with this type of economy is very developed in industrial sector.	Countries with this type of economy are not so developed in industrial sector.
4. In this type of economy people are engaged more and more in secondary and terriatry kind of economic activities.	Here people are dependent more and more on the primary sector.
5. The per capita income of this type of economy is $10000 or even more. (2004)	The per capita income in this type of economy is $ 825 only or even less. (2004).

Question 25.
Distinguish between Economic and Non-economic activities.
Answer:

Economic activities	Non-economic activities
1. It includes all the activities which give money in return.	In this type of activity, money is not paid.
2. Teaching in schools, selling vegetables, providing legal services are the examples of economic activities.	Painting for hobby, teaching as providing social services, watching movies are examples of non-economic activities.
3. These type of activities play a direct role in the development of a nation.	These type of activities also plays a role in the development of the nation, but indirectly.
4. Economic activities are productive type.	These activities represent consumption.
5. Economic activities are included in national income.	These are not included in national income.

Question 26.
How do you find out undernourishment among the adults?
Answer:
One way to find out if adults are undernourished is to calculate what nutrition scientists call Body Mass Index (BMI). This is easy to calculate. Take the weight of the person in kg. Then take the height in metres. Divide the weight by the square of the height.

If this figure is less than 18.5 then the person would be considered undernourished. However, if this BMI is more than 3 then a person is overweight. This criterion is not applicable to growing children. This also indicates that such a person’s economics background is not sufficient enough to obtain nourishment diet.

Objective Type Questions

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The proven reserves (bn tonnes) of crude oil of the World is ………………………. . (137.3,133.7)
Answer:
(137.3)

Question 2.
The reserve/production ratio in terms of years with regard to crude oil is in the world is ……………………… . (93.4, 43.0)
Answer:
(43)

Question 3.
India’s HDI (2004) rank in the 177 countries is ……………………… .
Answer:(126, 137)
(126)

Question 4.
Life Expectancy at birth in India (2004) is ……………………… .(64, 74)
Answer:
(64)

Question 5.
Literacy rate for 15+ years population (2004) in India is ……………………… . (48,60)
Answer:
(60).

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science

Here we are providing Class 10 History Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Novels Society and History was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-social-science/

Novels Society and History Class 10 Extra Questions History Chapter 8

Question 1.
Who forned the new readership for novels in the 18th century?
Answer:
Lower middle-class people such as shopkeepers and clerks, the traditional aristocrats formed new readership for novels.

Question 2.
Who used to collect the popular Scottish ballads?
Answer:
Walter Scott.

Question 3.
What is Dickens’ Oliver Twist about?
Answer:
Oliver Twist is about a poor orphan who lived with petty criminals.

Question 4.
Who is Hardy’s hero in his Mayor of Casterbridge?
Answer:
A grain merchant, Michael Henchard.

Question 5.
When women began writing novels, what did some people feel?
Answer:
When women began writing novels, some people felt that women would neglect their traditional role as wives and mothers.

Question 6.
Under what name Sarah Woolsey wrote?
Answer:
Susan Coolidge.

Question 7.
What type of adventurer Robinson Crusoe was?
Answer:
Robinson Crusoe was a typical adventurer; he made inferior creatures his slaves.

Question 8.
Who was the novelist who wrote Chandrakanta?
Answer:
Devaki Nandan Khatri.

Question 9.
Who wrote Durgeshnandni?
Answer:
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

Novelist	Novel
Samuel Richardson	Pamela (letters)
Henry Fielding	Tom Jones
Charles Dickens	Pickwick Papers, Hard Times Oliver Twist
Homas hardy	Mayor of Caster bridge
Emile Zola	Germinal
Jane Austen	Pride and Prejudice
Charlotte Bronte	Jane Eyre
Stevenson	Treasure Island
Rudyard Kipling	Jungle Book
Helen Jackson	Romana
Susan Coolidge	What Katydid
Daniel Defoe	Robinson Crusoe
Chandu Menon	Indulekha
Goldsmith	Vicar of Wakefield
Sriniwas Das	Pratibha Guru
Premchand	Sewdsadan.

Question 10.
Who wrote Padmarag?
Answer:
Rokeya Hossein (1880-1932).

Question 11.
Name the book Pothari Kunjambu wrote?
Answer:
Saraswativiayan.

Question 12.
Mention Bhudeb Mulchopaadhyay’s novel.
Answer:
Anguriya Binimoy: It was the first historical novel written in Bengal.

Question 13.
What is Dickens novel Hard Times about?
Answer:
Charles Dickens novel Hard Times (1854) describes Coketown, a fictitious industrial town, as a grim place full of machinery, smoking chimneys, rivers polluted purple and buildings that all looked the same. Here workers are known as ‘hands’ as if they had no identity other than as operators of machines. Dickens criticised not just the greed for profits but also the ideas that reduced human beings into simple instruments of production.

Question 14.
What is Germinal all about?
Answer:
Emile Zola’s Germinal (1995) on the life of a young miner in France explores in harsh detail the grim conditions of miners’ live. It ends on a note of despair: the strike the hero lead fails, his co-workers turn against him, and hopes are shattered.

Question 15.
How did the novels explore the world of women?
Answer:
Women got more leisure to read as well as write novels. And novels began exploring the world of women their emotions and identities, their experiences and problems. Many novels were about domestic life-a theme about which women were allowed to speak with authority. They drew upon their experience, wrote about family life and earned public recognition.

Question 16.
Give example as to how the novelists portrayed colonial people.
Answer:
In most of the novels written by the Westerners, the colonial people were seen as primitive and barbaric, less than human, and colonial rule was considered necessary to civilise them, to make them fully human. It was only later, in the twentieth century, that writers like Joseph Conrad (1857-1924) wrote novels that showed the darker side of colonial occupation.

Question 17.
“Bharatendu Harishchandra is described as the pioneer of modern Hindi literature in north India.” Substantiate.
Answer:
In north India Bharatendu Harishchandra, the pioneer of modern Hindi literature encouraged many members of his circle of poets and writers to recreate and translate novels from other languages. Many novels were actually translated and adapted from English and Bengali under his influence.

Question 18.
How did Chandu Menon portray a woman and a man in his novel, Indulekha?
Answer:
Chandu Menon portrayed Indulekha as a woman of breathtaking beauty, high intellectual abilities, artistic talent, and with an education in English and Sanskrit. Madhavan, the hero of the novel, was also presented in ideal colours.

He was a member of the newly English-educated class of Nayars from the University of Madras. He was also a ‘first-rate Sanskrit scholar’. He dressed in western clothes. But, at the same time, he kept a long tuft of hair, according to the Nayar custom.

Question 19.
How has the novel become a popular medium of entertainment among the middle class?
Answer:
As elsewhere in the world in India too, the novel became a popular medium of entertainment among the middle class. The circulation of printed books allowed people to amuse themselves in new ways. Picture books, translations from other languages popular songs sometimes composed on contemporary events, stories in newspapers and magazines-all these offered new forms of entertainment. Within this new culture of print, novels soon” became immensely popular.

Question 20.
Do you think that reading a novel was like daydreaming?
Answer:
Novels give silent reading. In general, they encouraged reading alone and in silence. Individuals sitting at home or travelling in trains enjoyed them. Even in a crowded room, the novel offered a special world of imagination into which the reader could slip, and be all alone. In this, reading a novel was like daydreaming.

Question 21.
Explain what is meant by the following types of novels:
Epistolary novel
Serialised novel
For each type, name one writer who wrote in that style.
Answer:
Epistolary novel: The epistolary novel, used the private and personal form of letters to tell its story. Samuel Richardson’s Pamela, written in the eighteenth century, told much of its story through an exchange of letters between two lovers. These letters tell the reader of the hidden conducts in the heroine’s mind.

Serialised novel: A format in which the story is published in instalments, each part in a new issue of a journal. Example: Charles Dickens’s Pickwick Papers were published in a magazine from 1836.

Question 22.
Write about two important characteristics of the early Hindi novel.
Answer:

1. Earlier, the novels from other languages were translated in Hindi.
2. Original early Hindi novels such as ‘Pariksha-Guru’ were highly moralising, so they flopped.

Question 23.
Taking note of Hardy’s novels, explain as to how did he depict the traditional rural community life and its problems.
Answer:
The nineteenth-century British novelist Thomas Hardy, for instance, wrote about traditional rural communities of England that were last vanishing This was actually a time when large farmers fenced off land, bought machines and employed labourers to produce for the market. The old rural culture with its independent farmers was dying out. We get a sense of this change in Hardy’s Mayor of Casterbridge (1886).

It is about Michael Henchard, a successful grain merchant, who becomes the mayor of the farming town of Casterbridge. He is an independent-minded man who follows his own style in conducting business. He can also be both unpredictably generous and cruel with his employees.

Consequently, he is no match for his manager and rival Donald Farfrae who runs his business on efficient managerial lines and is well regarded for he is smooth and even-tempered with everyone. Thus Hardy mourns the loss of the more personalised world that is disappearing, even as he is aware of its problems and the advantages of the new order.

Question 24.
How does Jane Austen portray the world of women and the genteel tural society in her novel?
Answer:
The novels of Jane Austen give us a glimpse of the world of women in gentel rural society in early-nineteenth-century Britain. They make us think about a society which encouraged women to look for ‘good’ marriages and find wealthy or propertied husbands.

The first sentence of Jane Austen’s Pride and Prejudice states: ‘It is a truth universally acknowledged that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife.’ This observation allows us to see the behaviour of the main characters, who are preoccupied with marriage and money, as typifying Austen’s society. But women novelists did not simply popularise the domestic role of women. In Charlotte Bronte’s Jane Eyre (1874), young Jane is shown independent and assertive.

Question 25.
Explain with example that from 1920s, there were novels depicting the lives of peasants and low caste people in Bengal.
Answer:
From the 1920s in Bengal too a new kind of novel emerged that depicted the lives of peasants and ‘low’ castes. Advaita Malia Burman’s (1914-51) Titash Ekti Nadir Naam (1956) is an epic about the Mall as, a community of fisherfolk who live off fishing in the river Tishta. The novel is about three generations of the Mallas, about their recurring tragedies and the story of Ananta, a child born of parents who were tragically separated after their wedding night.

Ananta leaves the community to get educated in the city. The novel describes the community life of the Mallas in great detail, their Holi and Kali Puja festivals, boat races, Bhatia songs, their relationships of friendship and animosity with the peasants and the oppression of the upper castes.

Question 26.
What do you known about Basheer, a novelist in Malayalam?
Answer:
Vaikkom Muhammad Basheer (1908-96), was one of the early Muslim writers to gain wide renown as a novelist in Malayalam.
Basheer had little formal education. Most of his works were based on his own rich personal experience rather than on books from the past. When he was in class five at school, Basheer left home to take part in the Salt Satyagraha.

Later he spent years wandering in different parts or India and travelling even to Arabia, working in a ship, living with Sufis and Hindu sanyasis, and training as a wrestler. Basheer’s short novels and stories were written in the ordinary language of conversation. With wonderful humour, Basheer’s novels spoke about details from the everyday life of Muslim households. He also brought into Malayalam writing themes which were considered very unusual at that time – poverty, insanity and life in prisons.

Question 27.
Do you agree that Premchand’s novels are filled with all kinds of powerful characters? Give examples.
Answer:
Premchand’s novels, for instance, are filled with all kinds of powerful characters drawn from all levels of society. In his novels, you meet aristocrats and landlords, middle-level Peasants and landless labourers, middle-class professionals and people from the margins of society.

The women characters are strong individuals especially those who come from the lower classes and are not modernised. Unlike many of his contemporaries, Premchand rejected the nostalgic obsession with ancient history. Instead, his novels look towards the future without forgetting the importance.

Drawn from various strata of society, Premchand’s characters create a community based on democratic values. The central character of his novel Rangbhoomi (The Arena), Surdas, is a visually impaired beggar from a so-called ‘untouchable’ caste. The very act of choosing such a person as the ‘hero’ of a novel is significant. Godan (The Gift of Cow), published in 1936, remains Premchand’s best-known work.

It is an epic of the Indian peasantry. The novel tells the moving story of Hori and his wife Dhania, a peasant couple. Landlords, moneylenders, priests and colonial bureaucrats all those who hold power in society form a network of oppression, rob their land and make them into landless labourers Yet Hori and Dhania retain their dignity to the end.

Objective Type Questions

1. Choose the most appropriate alternative:

Question 1.
One of the following was not written by Premchand
(a) Indulekha
(b) Godan
(c) Rangbhoomi
(d) Sewasadan
Answer:
(a) Indulekha

Question 2.
Jane Austen wrote the following:
(a) Pride and Prejudice
(b) Jane Eyre
(c) Hard Times
(d) Mayor of Casterbridge
Answer:
(a) Pride and Prejudice

Question 3.
The following is not the novel written by Charles Dickens:
(a) Hard Times
(b) Oliver Twist
(c) Great Expectations
(d) Jungle Book
Answer:
(d) Jungle Book

Question 4.
Robinson Crusoe was written by:
(a) Henry Fielding
(b) Charles Dickens
(c) Daniel Defoe
(d) Thomas Hardy
Answer:
(c) Daniel Defoe.

2. Choose true (✓) or false (✗) in the following:

Question 1.
Thomas Hardy wrote Tess
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Premchand was the author of Indulekha.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
am Tolstoy wrote War and Peace.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 4.
Charlotte He Bronte’s novel was Jane Eyre.
Answer:
(✓).

Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science