Category: CBSE Class 12

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 2 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 2.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 2

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions nos. 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 20 words
3. Questions nos. 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words
4. Questions nos. 11 to 16 are of 4 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 100 words
5. Questions nos. 17 to 21 are of 5 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 150 words
6. Questions no. 21 is map based question
7. Questions nos. 22 to 27 are of 6 marks each. The answer to these questions should not i exceed 150 words

Question 1.
What is meant by seven sisters?

Question 2.
When was Soviet System introduced?

Question 3.
Define globalisation.

Question 4.
What is foreign policy?

Question 5.
Mention the historic decision given by the court in famous Kesavananda Bharati Case.

Question 6.
Mention the major challenges faced in Europe after the Second World War.

Question 7.
Mention the features of SAFTA.

Question 8.
How many member countries have got veto power in the UN Security Council and why?

Question 9.
What do you mean by Grand Alliance?

Question 10.
Who wrote the poem on Dalit? What does the poem signify?

Question 11.
What are the various positions on the issue of regional autonomy for Kashmir? Which of these do you think are justifiable? Give reasons for your answer.

Question 12.
Trace the emergence of BJP as a significant force in post-Emergency politics.

Question 13.
How did Europe become main arena of conflict between the superpowers?

Question 14.
Describe any four consequences of the disintegration of Soviet Union.

Question 15.
Describe the hegemony of the United States of America as a structural power.

Question 16.
The emerging economies of China and India have great potential to challenge the unipolar world. Do you agree with the statement? Substantiate your arguments.

Question 17.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
During the Cold War years, India found itself on the opposite side of the divide from the US. India’s closest friendship during those years was with the Soviet Union. After the collapse of Soviet Union, India suddenly found itself friendless in an increasingly hostile international environment. However, these were also the years when India decided to liberalise its economy and integrate it with the global economy. This policy and India’s impressive economic growth rate made the country an attractive economic partner for a number of countries including the US.
(i) Name the country which was India’s closest friend during Cold War years.
(ii) What was India’s policy during post Cold War years?
(iii) What made India an attractive economic partner for the countries like the US?

Question 18.
Why is the EU considered a highly influential regional organisation in the economic, political and military fields?

Question 19.
Study the picture and answer the following questions.

(i) What is being shown by these cartoons?
(ii) What is being depicted in the first cartoon?
(iii) What is the subject matter of the second cartoon?

Question 20.
Read the passage and answer the following questions:
“Broadly, non-alignment means not tying yourself off with military blocs… It means trying to view things, as far as possible, not from the military point of view, though that has to come in sometimes, but independently, and trying to maintain friendly relations with all countries”. —Jawaharlal Nehru
(a) Why does Nehru want to keep off military blocs?
(b) Do you think that the Indo-Soviet friendship treaty violated the principle of non-alignment? Give reasons for your answer,
(c) If there were no military blocs, do you think non-alignment would have been unnecessary?

Question 21.
On a political outline-map of India, locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

(i) Name and mark any two of the Princely States.
(ii) Name and mark the original state from which the Gujarat was carved out.
(iii) Name and mark thexountry reorganised on religious grounds.
(iv) Demarcated boundary of this countries by country zones.

Question 22.
How far is it correct to say the international alliances during the Cold War Era were determined by the requirements of the superpowers and the calculations of the smaller states? Explain. (Delhi 2016)
OR
Analyse the three different views within India about the type of relationship India should have with the United States of America. (Delhi 2016)

Question 23.
How did the European countries resolve their post-Second World War problem? Briefly outline the attempts that led to the formation of the European Union. 6
OR
What are some of the commonalities and differences between Bangladesh and Pakistan in their democratic experiences?

Question 24.
Like India why could democracy not take roots in Pakistan despite the fact that both the countries share a common part?
OR
Describe briefly any four problems faced in the process of partition of India.

Question 25.
Did the prevalence of a ‘one-party dominant system’ affect adversely the democratic nature of Indian politics?
OR
What were the major differences in the approach towards development at the time of Independence? Has the debate been resolved?

Question 26.
“The conduct of foreign affairs is an outcome of a two-way interaction between domestic compulsions and prevailing international climate. Take one example from India’s external relations in the 1960s to substantiate your answer.

Question 27.
Analyse the circumstances that favoured Indira Gandhi to become Prime Minister after the death of Lai Bahadur Shastri. Mention any four achievements of Indira Gandhi that made her popular as a Prime Minister. (Delhi 2016) 6
OR
What was Mandal Commission? Did it try to solve the problems of other Backward classes? State any two arguments in support of your answer?

Answers

Answer 1.
The north-east region which consists of seven states is known as seven sisters. This has approx 4 percent of country’s population.

Answer 2.
It was introduced after Russian Revolution in 1917 based on the principles of egalitarian society and planned economy controlled by the state.

Answer 3.
Globalisation refers to integration of an economy with the other country based on interdependence.

Answer 4.
Foreign policy of a nation reflects systematic statements of national interests along with the interplay of domestic and external factors.

Answer 5.
There are some basic features of Constitution not to be amended by the Parliament at all. It led to a crisis between the government and judiciary.

Answer 6.

• Shattered many assumptions and structures on which European states maintained their relations.
• The European states confronted the ruin of economies and the destruction on which Europe had been founded.

Answer 7.
South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed by SAARC members in 2004 with the following features:

• Formation of Free Trade Zone for whole South Asia.
• To sustain mutual trade and cooperation among SAARC members.

Answer 8.
Five Permanent Member countries i.e. France, Russia, UK, the US and China got veto power because they have been emerged as industrialised developed countries to stall any decision.

Answer 9.
Grand Alliance was an electoral alliance of all the major non-communist, non-Congress and opposition parties. The SSP, PSP, Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Swatantra Party and the Bharatiya Kranti Dal came together under this umbrella.

Answer 10.
The Marathi poet Namdeo Dhasal wrote poem on Dalit during the decade of seventies which expresses the anguish that the Dalit masses continued to face even after twenty years of Independence.

Answer 11.
On the issue of regional autonomy for Kashmir, the following positions are states as:

1. Kashmiris were promised to make accession on reference of people after situation created by tribal invasion, becomes normal. But it has not been fulfilled, hence, it generated the demand for “Plebiscite”.
2. Sometimes, it was felt that special federal status guaranteed by Article 370 has been eroded practically which led the demand for restoration of autonomy or “Greater State Autonomy”.
3. It is felt that democracy, which is practised in rest of India has not been similarly institutionalised in Jammu and Kashmir.

We prefer the first position because ‘Plebiscite’ provides better opportunity to people of J & K to protect and sustain their regional autonomy in a very democratic manner.

Answer 12.
The major trends in the electoral performance of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) since 1989 can be traced as follows:

1. In the elections of 1989, the National front under V.P. Singh came to power supported by left front and BJP from outside because they wanted to keep the Congress out of power. Due to Mandal Commission Report and implementation of its recommendations forced BJP to reconsider its support and finally withdrew it. Thus, in November 1990, the rule of National Front came to an end.
2. In 1996, BJP minority government was formed for a short period. In June 1996 BJP failed to get majority support in the vote of confidence and thus collapsed.
3. From March 1998 to October 1999, BJP and others formed alliances NDA (National Democratic Alliance) under the leadership of Atal Bihari Vajpayee. The regional parties demanded more share in the government to extend their support. dv) The political competition during nineties and divided between the coalition led by BJP and coalition led by Congress.

Answer 13.

• Superpowers used their military power to bring countries into their respective alliances.
• Soviet Union used its influence in Eastern Europe so that the eastern half of Europe remained within its sphere of influence.
• In East and Southeast Asia and in West Asia, the US built an alliance called South East Asian Treaty Organisation (SEATO) and the Central Treaty Organisation (CENTO).
• The Soviet Union responded by having close relations with regional countries such as North Vietnam, North Korea and Iraq.

Answer 14.

1. The disintegration of Soviet Union meant the end of Cold War confrontations which demanded the end of armed race and restoration of possible peace.
2. This disintegration created the possibility to bring in a ‘multipolar system’ where no power could dominate.
3. The US became the sole superpower and the ‘capitalist economy’ was now dominant economic system at international level.
4. This disintegration emerged in many new countries dividing Soviet Union into 15 independent countries alongwith their own aspirations and choices.

Answer 15.
Hegemony as a structural power implies economic perspective of world economy. It can be summed up in the following ways :

1. An open world economy requires a dominant power to support its creation and existence.
2. The hegemon must possess both the ability and the desire to establish certain norms for order and must sustain global structure i.e. Bretton Woods system set up by the US after Second World War.
3. The US reflects this hegemony by providing the global public goods, those can be consumed by one person without reducing the amount of goods available for someone else.
4. A classical example of structural power of the US is the academic degree Master’s in Business Administration (MBA) to sharpen business skills in a University.

Answer 16.
The Indo-China relations experience strategically organised as rising economic powers in global politics and to play a major role in Asian economy after the end of the Cold War. It can be proved on the following grounds:

• The new economic policies of India and China have broken their economy from stagnancy.
• The creation of special economic zones led to a phenomenal rise in foreign trade.
• China has become the most important destination for foreign direct investment anywhere in the world. Hence, it has large reserves for foreign exchange to allow it to make big investment in other countries.
• At the global level also, India and China have adopted similar policies in World Trade Organisation to deepen integration with the world economy to challenge unipolar world.

Answer 17.

• Soviet Union
• India decided to liberalise its economy and integrate it with global economy.
• India’s policy of liberalisation and its impressive economic growth rate.

Answer 18.
Because :
1. Economic Influence:
(a) Three times larger share in World trade than the US.
(b) Its currency Euro can pose a threat to the dominance of US Dollar.
(c) The EU functions as an important bloc in World Trade Organisation (WTO).

2. Political Influence:
(a) Two members of the EU, Britain and France hold permanent seats in Security Council to influence UN policies.
(b) The EU also includes various non-permanent members of UNSC.
(c) The European Union plays an influential role in diplomacy and negotiations except military force i.e.
EU’s dialogue with China on Human Rights and environmental degradation is remarkable.

3. Military Influence:
(a) The EU’s combined armed forces are second largest in world.
(b) Its total military expenditure is second to the US.
(c) Its two important members—Britain and France also experience nuclear arsenals of 550 nuclear warheads.
(d) The EU is world’s second most important source of space and communication technology.

Answer 19.

1. These cartoons show Indian view on Cold War.
2. The first cartoon was drawn when the US came to a secret understanding with China keeping the USSR in dark. The cartoon also expresses changing the international political scenario as after a long time. China made overtures to the USA.
3. The second cartoon shows the American midadventure in Vietnam. It also depicts that the US President Johnson was in more trouble over Vietnam.

Answer 20.
(a) Nehru wanted to keep off military blocs to maintain friendly and peaceful relation with all nations of world as well as to maintain India’s uniqueness at international stage.
(b) No, the Indo-Soviet friendship treaty did not violate non-alignment because it was not to maintain military relations but to maintain diplomatic friendly relations.
(c) NAM emphasises on disarmament, decolonisation and terrorism except staying away from military blocs.

Answer 21.

1. • Junagarh
   • Manipur
2. Gujarat (from Bombay)
3. Pakistan
4. Bangladesh

Answer 22.
The superpowers used their military power to bring countries into their fold :
(a) Soviet Union used its influence in Eastern Europe backed by the large armies of countries of its alliance.
(b) The statement is utmost correct about the superpower as well as their alliances.
(c) On the other hand, the United States built alliance called SEATO and CENTO on the question of North Vietnam, North Korea and Iraq, Russia and China came closer.
(cl) Alliances were made for the requirement of vital national resources.
(e) Superpowers needed territories to launch their weapons and troops. In return, they helped them in many ways.
(f) Economic support was another factor.

OR

During the Cold War phase, India was on the opposite side of the divide from the US as it had close relationship with Soviet. India’s decision to pursue a policy of NAM in 1945 was not liked by the US as it sided with Pakistan.
After the collapse of Soviet Union, India decided to liberalise its economy and integrate it with global economy. Hence, the US also found India an attractive economic partner due to technological dimension, and the role of Indian-American diaspora.
India-US relationship have never looked so brighter as it today. Both the countries are coming close to each other and both began to gain by coming closer.
Within India, the debate seems to be around three possible views. .

1. India should maintain its aloofness from the USA and forms upon increasing its other comprehensive national power.
2. India should take advantage of US hegemony and national understandings to establish best possible options for itself. Opposing the US would be a futile exercise and will only hurt India in long run.
3. India should take the lead in establishing a coalition of countries from the developing world.

Answer 23.
After the end of Second World War in 1945, the European States confronted the ruin of their economies and the destruction of assumptions and structures on which Europe had been founded. European countries resolved their post-second
World War problems in the following manner :

1. Under the ‘Marshall Plan’ the USA provided financial help to revive European economy.
2. The US also created a new collective security structure under NATO.
3. Under the ‘Marshall Plan’ the organisation for European Economic Cooperation was established in 1948 to extend cooperation on trade and economic issues among the Western European States.
4. European Union was founded in 1992 for a common foreign and security policy, cooperation on justice and home affairs and creation of a single currency. It evolved from an economic union to political one over time.

The following attempts led to the formation of European Union:

• The Council of Europe was established in 1949 for political cooperation.
• The process of economic integration of European Capitalist countries led to the formation of European Economic Community in 1957.
• The above mentioned processes acquired a political dimension with the creation of European Parliament.
• The collapse of Soviet bloc put Europe on a fast track and resulted in the establishment of European Union in 1992.

OR

Bangladesh has been the part of Pakistan itself. Both of these countries bear some similarities and differences as follows:
Commonalities :

1. Both Bangladesh and Pakistan were under a military rule.
2. At both the places, the struggle for democracy took place in their own way.
3. Pakistan’s administration began under the command of General Ayub Khan and gave up due to dissatisfaction among people giving way to Yahya’s military rule and continued with the army rule though elections were held by military rulers to give a democratic shape to their own rule.
4. In the same way, Bangladesh drafted its own constitution to begin with democracy. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman formed Presidential setup by abolishing all the parties except Awami Legue. But after his assassination the new military ruler Zia-ur-Rahman formed his own party and won elections in 1979. Later on he was also assassinated and another military leader Lt. Gen. H.M. Ershad took over.

Differences :

1. In Pakistan, military, clergy and land-owning aristocrats dominated socially to overthrow elected government whereas in Bangladesh the leaders and their party members dominated for the same.
2. Pro-military groups have become more powerful due to conflict with India in Pakistan whereas in Bangladesh, pro-military groups are powerful due to friendship and encouragement of India.

Answer 24.
The following factors are responsible for Pakistan’s failure in building a stable democracy :

1. The lack of genuine international support for a democratic rule in Pakistan has encouraged to military to continue its dominance. The US and other countries have also supported military rule due to fulfilling their own interests.
2. Pakistan’s conflict with India has made paramilitary groups more powerful which have often said that political parties and democracy in Pakistan are flawed, that Pakistan’s security would be harmed by selfish minded parties and chaotic democracy, hence army stay in power is justified.
3. The social dominance of military, clergy, and owning aristocracy has led to frequent overthrow of elected governments and the establishing of military governments.
4. Global Islamic terrorism and their apprehension that Pakistan’s nuclear arsenal might
   fall into hands of these terrorist groups, the military regime in Pakistan was seen as the protector of western interests in West Asia and South Asia.

The two pro-democracy factors present in Pakistan that can pave the way for establishing a lasting democratic set up over there are:

• Pakistan bears a courageous and entirely free press.
• Pakistan enjoys strong human rights movement.

OR

The process of partition had been started in 1940 when Muslim League under the leadership of Muhammad Ali Jinnah propounded Two-Nation Theory. This process involved various problems:

1. Areas were supposed to be distributed on the basis of religions majority i.e. Muslim majority areas built Pakistani territory and rest stayed with India. It created communal riots in country.
2. No single belt of Muslim majority was the part of British India. They were concentrated in East and West. Hence, it was decided that Pakistan will comprise two territories namely East and West Pakistan separated by long expansion of India territory,
3. All Muslim majority areas did not want to be merged with Pakistan i.e. it was opposed in NWFP. But ultimately NWFP was made to merge with Pakistan.
4. Another problem belonged to minorities on both sides of border i.e. lakhs of Hindus and Muslims and Sikhs from both the sides were left with no option except to leave f their homes.

Answer 25.
No, the prevalence of one party dominance system did not affect adversely the democratic nature of Indian politics because:

1. The key role of the Congress in the freedom struggle gave it a head start over others.
2. The Congress accommodated diversified interests, religion, beliefs and aspirations to strengthen democracy.
3. Despite being taken place of free and fair elections, Congress won elections in the
   same manner again and again.
4. The Congress Party consisted of various factions inside itself, based on ideological considerations who never taught together or went out of Congress.
5. Hence, on the basis of above mentioned criterion, it can be concluded that Congress strengthened ideals of democracy and held unity and integrity of the country.

OR

At the time of Independence, development was about becoming more like the industrialised countries of the West, to be involved with the break down of traditional social structure as well as rise of capitalism and liberalism.

1. Modernisation referred to growth, material progress and scientific rationality.
2. India had two models of modern development at the time of independence into considerations to be adopted i.e. the liberal capitalist model like Europe and the US and the socialist model like the USSR.
3. A debate had been occurred regarding adoption of model of development as communists, socialists and Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru supported the socialist model to reflect a broad consensus to be developed during national movement.
4. Above mentioned intentions cleared that the government made the priority to poverty alleviation alongwith social and economic redistribution.
5. At the same time, these leaders differed and debated:
   • Industrialisation should be the preferred path or
   • Agricultural development should take place, or
   • Rural poverty should be alleviated.

Answer 26.
The statement is justified to maximum extent to be proved during ‘Sino-Indian Conflict of 1962’ to dent India’s image at home and international level. India had to approach the Americans and the British for military assistance to tide over the issues.
The Soviet Union remained neutral during the conflict:

1. All the occurrings, created a sense of national humiliation but strengthened a spirit of nationalism also on the other hand.
2. Pt. Nehru was also criticised for his naive assessment of Chinese intentions and lack of military preparedness.
3. Political mood of country began to change, when no-confidence motion against Nehru moved in and debated in the Lok Sabha.
4. ‘Sino-Indian Conflict’ splitted the Communist Party of India in 1960s split fraction formed communist party of India (CPI-M).
5. Besides, the war with China alerted Indian leadership to volatile situation in the North east region.
6. Apart from being isolated and extremely underdeveloped, this region posed the challenge of national integration in front of India.

Answer 27.
Circumstances that favoured Indira Gandhi to become Prime Minister after the death of Lai Bahadur Shastri are as follows:

1. On 10 January 1966, Shastri’s Prime Ministership came to an abrupt end when he died suddenly in Taskhent. Now, the Congress had to face the challenge of political succession.
2. The senior party leaders decided to support Indira Gandhi, but the decision was not unanimous. There was intense contest between Morarji Desai and Indira Gandhi. The contest jvas resolved through a secret ballot among the MPs of the Congress. Indira Gandhi got the support of more than two-thirds of the Congress party’s MPs.

Achievements of Indira Gandhi that made her popular as a Prime Minister are:

1. Indira Gandhi adopted her strategy boldly and diplomatically. When the Congress had lost in 1967 elections, she converted a simple power struggle into an ideological struggle.
2. Indira Gandhi did not revive old Congress Party but she re-invented the party by forming an entirely different popular party to accommodate some social groups, the poor, the women, the dalits, adivasis and the minorities. Thus, she restored the Congress system by changing the nat are of Congress system itself.
3. Indira Gandhi focussed on the growth of the public sector, imposition of ceiling on rural land holdings and urban poverty, removal of disparities in income and opportunity, and abolition of princely privileges. Her slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ and the programmes that followed it were part of her political strategy of building an Independent nationwide political support base. As a result, she won 352 seats with about 44 per cent of the popular votes on its own in the Lok Sabha elections of 1971.
4. After the 1971 Lok Sabha election, a major political and military crises broke out in East Pakistan (present Bangladesh). The 1971 elections were followed by the crisis in East Pakistan and the Indo-Pak war leading to the formation of Bangladesh.

All these events added to the popularity of Indira Gandhi. Even the opposition party leaders admired her statesmanship.

OR

The Mandal Commission under the chairmanship of Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal set up in 1978 to investigate the extent of educational and social backwardness among various sections of society and recommended way to identify these classes.
The Mandal Commission gave its recommendations in 1980:

1. The Commission advised that backward classes should be understood to mean backward castes since many castes other than the SCs were also treated as low in caste hierarchy.
2. Reservation 27% seats in educational institutions and government jobs for these groups.
3. It recommended land reforms to improve the condition of OBCs.
4. Hence, Mandal Commission made recommendations in economic and occupational structures.

The Government of India accepted recommendations in 1990:

1. 27% jobs reservation has been made in central and state government.
2. Many welfare schemes have also been launched as Swarnima National Backward Classes Finance and Development Corporation.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 6 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 6.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 6

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 6 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions :

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions nos. 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 20 words
3. Questions nos. 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words
4. Questions nos. 11 to 16 are of 4 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 100 words
5. Questions nos. 17 to 21 are of 5 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 150 words
6. Questions no. 21 is map based question
7. Questions nos. 22 to 27 are of 6 marks each. The answer to these questions should not i exceed 150 words

Question 1.
When did NATO come into existence? How many states joined it?

Question 2.
What does CIS stand for?

Question 3.
What is SLOCs?

Question 4.
What is WSF?

Question 5.
Define factions.

Question 6.
Why did India adopt planning?

Question 7.
In which context India started participating in the world affairs as an independent nation state?

Question 8.
What challenges were faced by India between 1964 to 1966 during Prime ministership of Lai Bahadur Shastri?

Question 9.
What factors led to crisis of democratic order in Indian politics?

Question 10.
What was criticism against Narmada Bachao Aandolan?

Question 11.
What was the role of Congress in the politics of Jammu and Kashmir?

Question 12.
Examine growing consensus over the crucial issues.

Question 13.
What are the objectives of military alliances? Give an example of a functioning military alliance with its specific objectives.

Question 14.
Why have issues related to global environmental protection become the priority concern of states since the 1990s?

Question 15.
Mention positive impact of globalisation.

Question 16.
Bring out two major differences between the challenge of nation building for eastern and western regions of the country at the time of Independence.

Question 17.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
The global economy relied on oil for much of the 20th century as a portable and indispensable fuel. The immense wealth associated with oil generates political struggles to control it, and the history of petroleum is also the history of war and struggle. Nowhere is this more obviously the case than in West Asia and Central Asia. West Asia, specifically the Gulf region, accounts for about 30 per cent of global oil production. But it has about 64 per cent of the planet’s known reserves, and is therefore the only region able to satisfy any substantial rise in oil demand. Saudi Arabia has a quarter of the world’s total reserves and is the single largest producer. Iraq’s known reserves are second’only to Saudi Arabia’s. And, since substantial portions of Iraqi territory are yet to be fully explored, there is a fair chance that actual reserves might be far larger. The United States, Europe, Japan, and increasingly India and China, which consume this petroleum, are located at a considerable distance from the region.
(i) Which region has much potential for oil production?
(ii) Which area is supposed to have far larger reserves than actually it has?
(iii) Why is the history of petroleum called the history of war and struggle?

Question 18.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
At the most simple level, globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity, that is, the ability of government to do what they do. All over the world, the old ‘welfare state’ is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as the maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens. However, it ‘ withdraws from many of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic and social well-being. In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities. The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decisions on their own. At the same time, globalisation does not always reduce state capacity. The primacy of the state continues to be the unchallenged basis of political community. The old jealousies and rivalries between countries have not ceased to matter in world politics. The state continues to discharge its essential functions (law and order, national security) and consciously withdraws from certain domains from which it wishes to. States continue to be important. Indeed, in some respects state capacity has received a boost as a consequence of globalisation, with enhanced technologies available at the disposal of the state to collect information about its citizens. With this information, the state is better able to rule, not less able. Thus, states become more powerful than they were earlier as an outcome of the new technology.
(i) How does globalisation effect on state capacity?
(ii) How have multinational companies effected the states?
(iii) How does the old welfare state react to globalisation?

Question 19.
Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Identify the person in the centre of the cartoon and mention the challenge surrounding him.
(ii) What does the picture actually refer?
(iii) How did India avoid all these conflicts?

Question 20.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions:
This coalition-like character of the Congress gave it an unusual strength. Firstly, a coalition accommodates all those who join it. Therefore, it has to avoid any extreme position and strike a balance on almost all issues. Compromise and inclusiveness are the hallmarks of a coalition. This strategy put the opposition in a difficulty. Anything that the opposition wanted to say, would also find a place in the programme and ideology of the Congress. Secondly, in a party that has the nature of a coalition, there is a greater tolerance of internal differences and ambitions of various groups and leaders are accommodated. The Congress did both these things during the freedom struggle and continued doing this even after Independence. That is why, even if a group was not happy with the position of the party or with its share of power, it would remain inside the party and fight the other groups rather than leaving the party and becoming an ‘opposition’.
(i) What do you mean by a faction?
(ii) How did coalition-like character affect the nature of the Congress Party?
(iii) How did the Congress avoided to increase number of‘opposition’?

Question 21.
On a political outline map of India, locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

(i) Two states where the Congress was not in power at some point during 1952-67.
(ii) Two states where the Congress remained in power through this period.

Question 22.
Suggest any six steps since 2005 to make the United Nations more relevant in the changing context.
OR
Explain the areas of operation of non-traditional notion of security.

Question 23.
Describe the security challenges faced by the newly independent countries of Asia and Africa after the Second World War
OR
Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies required by states to save Planet Earth. Substantiate the statement in the light of the ongoing negotiations between the North and South on environmental issues.

Question 24.
How did the reorganisation of states take place in India after its independence? Explain. What do you know about the Communist Party of India?

Question 25.
State the main arguments in the debate that ensued between industrialisation and agricultural development at the time of the Second Five Year Plan. 6
OR
India’s foreign policy was built around the principle’s of peace and cooperation. But India fought three wars in a space of ten years between 1962 and 1971. Would you say that this was a failure of the foreign policy? Or would you say that this was a result of international situation? Give reasons to support your answer.

Question 26.
What were the factors which led to the popularity of Indira Gandhi’s Government in the early 1970s?
OR
Discuss the effects of emergency on the following aspects of Indian polity:
(i) Effects on civil liberties for citizens.
(ii) Impact on relationship between the executive and judiciary.

Question 27.
What was Narmada Bachao Aandolan? What were its main issues? What democratic strategies did it use to put forward its demands?
OR
Regional demands from different parts of India exemplify the principle of unity with diversity. Do you agree? Give reasons.

Answers

Answer 1.
NATO came into existence in April 1949 and twelve states joined it.

Answer 2.
Commonwealth of Independent States.

Answer 3.
SLOCs stands for Sea Lanes of Communications. It is the naval power of hegemon that underwrites the law of the sea and ensures freedom of navigation in international water.

Answer 4.
WSF stands for World Social Forum, which is a global platform to bring together a wide coalition of human rights activists, environmentalists and women activists.

Answer 5.
Fraction are the groups formed inside the party i.e. coalitions made in Congress created various factions which were based on either ideological considerations or personal ambitions.

Answer 6.
Because :

• To bring a socio-economic changes.
• It was to provide a controlled and faster growth rate.
• To resolve contradictions between societies.

Answer 7.

• British government left the legacy of many international disputes.
• Priority to the poverty alleviation.
• Pressures created by the partition.

Answer 8.

• Economic crisis due to Indo-China War 1962 and Indo-Pak War 1965.
• Failed Monsoons, drought, serious food crisis presented a grave challenge.

Answer 9.

• Emergence of Indira Gandhi with a lot of popularity.
• Party competitions had been created.
• Relation between the government and judiciary had become tense.

Answer 10.
Criticism against Narmada Bachao Aandolan : 

• The obstruction of the process of development
• Denial of the access to power to many people
• Hurdle to economic development

Answer 11.
Congress dominated the politics of Jammu and Kashmir between 1953 to 1974 in the following manner:

1. National Conference remained iconic power with the active support of Congress for sometime but later merged with the Congress.
2. The Congress gained direct control over the government in state.
3. The Congress Party also made attempts to have an agreement-between Sheikh Abdullah and Government of India.
4. In 1974, Indira Gandhi signed an agreement with Sheikh Abdullah. As per this agreement, Sheikh Abdullah became the Chief Minister of State.

Answer 12.
In the midst of severe competition and conflicts, a consensus appears to have emerged among most parties consisting of following four elements:

1. Most political parties were in support of new economic policies to lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.
2. All political parties supported reservation of seats for backward classes in education and employment and even to ensure the OBCs to get adequate share of power.
3. Role of state level parties was accepted in the governance of country.
4. Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power sharing arrangements.

Hence, most of the NDA did not agree with the Hindutva ideology of BJP. Still they come together to form a government and remained in power for full term.

Answer 13.
Objectives :

• Alliance building is important component of traditional security to threats to deal between states and nations to deter or defend against military attacks.
• Alliances are formalised in written treaties and identification of who constitutes the threats.
• Alliances are formed to increase their effective power relative to another alliance.
• Alliances are based on national interests and can change when national interest change.

Example – The US backed the Islamic militants in Afghanistan against the Soviet Union in 1980s, but later attacked them when Al-Qaeda, a group of Islamic militants, led by Osama Bin Laden launched terrorist strikes against America on 11th September 2001.

Answer 14.
Issues related to global environmental protection became the priority concern of states since the 1990s because at global level, the environmental issues drew attentions of various states at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio-de-Janerio, Brazil in June 1992 through Agenda 21:

1. Rio-Summit 1992 dealt with climatic change, bio-diversity and forestry.
2. Agenda 21 combined economic growth with ecological responsibilities.
3. Kyoto Protocol set targets for greenhouse emissions. The above mentioned conferences and summits raised the environmental issues at the global level to take steps by various states to check environmental degradation in a co-operative manner.

Answer 15.

• Increase in the volume of trade in goods and services.
• It attracts private foreign capital ‘investment’.
• It creates new job opportunities.
• It raises standard of living.
• It increases production efficiency and healthy competition. ‘
• It attracts Foreign Direct Investment also.

Answer 16.
The two major differences between Eastern (Bengal) and Western (Punjab) regions can be summed up as follows:

1. These regions were the Muslim majority provinces to be joined. Hence, it was decided that new country Pakistan will comprise two territories i.e. West and East Pakistan.
2. Secondly, there was a problem of minorities on both sides of border (East and West). Lakhs of Hindus and Sikhs in areas of Pakistan and Muslims on the Indian side of Punjab and Bengal found themselves trapped with no option except to leave their homes.

Answer 17.

• West Asia especially the Gulf region enjoys much more potential for oil production.
• Iraqi territory is supposed to be fully explored.
• The global economy relied on oil for much of 20th century as a portable and indispensable fuel. The common wealth associated with oil generates political struggles to control it.

Answer 18.

1. It reduces state’s capacity and ability of government to do what they do.
2. The entry and increased role of MNCs all over the world leads to reduction in the capacity of government to take decision on their own.
3. The old welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions i.e. maintenance of law and order and security of its own citizens.

Answer 19.

1. The person is the first Prime Minister of India Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru, who faced the first and foremost challenge of integration of Princely States and formation of linguistic states.
2. The picture refers the problem of reorganisation of states on linguistic basis with the fear of disintegration in the country.
3. India identified and respected regional demands of the people and enhanced democracy by providing some autonomy to the states also.

Answer 20.

1. Factions are the groups formed inside the party based on either ideological considerations or on personal ambitions and rivalries.
2. Coalition-like character of the Congress accommodated all social diversities and maintained a balance on almost all issues. Even a proper space for the programmes and ideology of opposite parties was also given. In such a way the Congress showed greater tolerance towards internal differences.
3. Along with its coalition-like character, Congress did not let the groups to leave the party to become an opposition.

Answer 21.

1. • Jammu and Kashmir
   • Kerala
2. • Uttar Pradesh
   • Maharashtra

Answer 22.
In September 2005, the UN celebrated its 60th anniversary and leaders decided to make it more relevant in the changing context by following steps:

1. Creation of Peace Building Commission.
2. Acceptance of the responsibility of the international community in case of failures of national governments to protect their own citizens from atrocities.
3. Establishment of a Human Rights Council (Operational Since 19 June 2006).
4. Agreements to achieve the Millennium Development Goals.
5. Condemnation of terrorism in all its forms and manifestations.
6. Creation of a Democracy Fund.
7. An agreement to wind up the Trusteeship Council.

OR

Non-traditional concept of security includes human and global security covering a wide range of threats affecting human existence:

1. It does not cover only the states but also the individuals and communities also.
2. It emphasises on security on nature of threat and right approach to deal with the threat.

Its sources can be identified as follows:

1. Terrorism refers to political violence to target civilians deliberately and discriminately to use it as a weapon against national government.
2. Human Rights refer to basic conditions which an individual is supposed to enjoy as a human being as political rights, freedom of speech and expression, economic rights, social and civil rights to lead an honourable and dignified life.
3. Global poverty refers to low economic growth, low national income and low standard of living of developing or least developed countries.
4. Health epidemics is a very serious threat to country’s security because severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (ARS), HIV-AIDS, bird flue diseases spread across countries through migration, business, tourism and military operations.

Answer 23.

1. After the Second World War, there were many newly countries emerged in Asia and Africa as a result of the collapse of colonialism and the most nations faced threats not only from outside their borders but also from within.
2. For the newly independent countries external and internal threats posed serious challenges to their security.
3. Some of these states are worried about threats from separatist movement within the country.
4. Terrorism is a problem faced by maximum newly free countries from outside borders i.e. 1ST
5. Newly independent countries are highly populated and low per capita income countries so that facing the problem of global poverty.
6. Newly independent countries are also facing the problem of social injustice discrimination based on caste, creed, religion which affects the human rights.

OR

Compromise and accommodation are the two essential policies to save Planet Earth by the states but the states from North and South have different notions towards environmental issues:

1. The Northern States (Developed) are concerned with ozone depletion and global warming whereas Southern states (Developing) want to address the relationship between economic development and environmental management.
2. The developed countries of the North want to discuss the environmental issues which stand equally responsible for ecological conservation.
3. The developing countries of the south feel that much of the ecological degradation in the world is created by developed countries through their industrial projects.
4. And if developed countries cause more environmental degradation they are supposed to take more responsibility on wards.
5. The developing counties are under process of industrialization and they should be exempted from restrictions imposed on developed countries through various conventions like protocol etc.
6. The special needs of developing countries must be taken into considerations in the process of development, application and interpretation of rules of International Environmental Law.

All the above mentioned provisions were accepted in Earth Summit, 1992 while adopting common but differentiated responsibilities.

Answer 24.

1. In the initial years, it was felt that linguistic states may foster seperatism and create pressures on newly founded nation, but India considered democracy and federalism by making a favour to linguistic states only.
2. The States Reorganisation Commission was set up in 1953 by the Central Government to rearrange the boundaries of states.
3. Its main recommendations were to organise states on language basis as well as the boundaries of states could reflect the linguistic aspects also.
4. The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 which created 14 states and 6 union territories.
5. Linguistic states enhanced democratic practices.
6. Linguistic states reduced separatist attitude by accepting the regional and linguistic claims of all regions.

OR

The Communist Party of India was founded in 1920. In the early 1920s, Communist groups emerged in different parts of India taking inspiration from the Bolshevik revolution in Russia and advocating socialism as the solution to problems affecting the country. From 1935, they worked mainly from within the fold of the Indian National Congress. A parting of ways took place in December 1941, when the Communists decided to support the British in their war against Nazi Germany. At the time of Independence, other non-Congress parties like the CPI had a dedicated cadre. Soon after Independence, the Communist Party thought the transfer of power in 1947 was a not true independence and encouraged violent uprisings in Telangana, but they failed to generate popular support for their position and were crushed by the armed forces.

In 1951, the Communist Party abandoned the path of violent revolution and decided to participate in the approaching general elections. In the first general elections, CPI won 16 seats and emerged as the largest opposition party. The party’s support was more concentrated in Bihar, West bengal, Andhra Pradesh West Bengal, Bihar and Kerala, The party leaders included A.K. Gopalan, S.A. Dange, E.M.S. Namboodiripad, P.C. Joshi, Ajay Ghosh and P. Sundarraya.

Answer 25.
At the time of the Second Five Year Plan, some controversial issues rose in reference to relevancy of agriculture over industry.

• The Second Five Year Plan emphasised on industry in place of agriculture or rural India.
• J.C. Kumarappa, a Gandhian economist proposed an alternative blueprint to emphasise on rural industrialisation.
• Bharatiya Lok Dal leader, Chaudhary Charan Singh also commented that the planning leading to creation of prosperity in urban and industrial sections at the cost of rural welfare.

Others debated that without an increase in industrial sector poverty could not be alleviated:

• India planning did not have an agrarian strategy to boost the production of food grains.
• It also proposed programmes of community development and spent large sums on irrigation project and failure was not that of policy but of its non-implementation because of the politics of land owning classes.
• Besides, they also argued that even if the government had spent more money on agriculture, it would not have solved the massive problem of rural poverty.

OR

No, this was not the failure of foreign policy but this was a result of international situation:
(i) The Chinese Invasion, 1962 :

• Serious conflict arose when China annexed Tibet in 1950 and removed a historical buffer between two nation, and India did not oppose this openly.
• India grew uneasy, when China began to suppress Tibetan Culture.
• Another border dispute arose when China claimed Aksai Chin area and NEFA (much of the state in Arunachal Pradesh) within the Indian territory.
• Despite long-term correspondence and discussions, these issues have not been resolved even by top leaders of country.
• Hence, India had to indulge in the conflict.

(ii) War with Pakistan :

• A serious armed conflict between two countries began in 1965 with the initiative of Pakistan over Kashmir partition.
• In 1966, the hostilities came to an end with the UN intervention and Tashkent Agreement signed between Indian Prime Minister Lai Bahadur Shastri and Pakistan’s General Ayub Khan.
• The 1965 War added to India’s already difficult economic situation.

(iii) Bangladesh War of 1971 :

• In 1970, Pakistan faced its biggest crisis in the way for a split verdict i.e. Zulfikar Ali Bhutto’s Party emerged as winner in West Pakistan while Awami league led by Sheikh Mujibur Rehman swept through East Pakistan.
• The Bengali population of East Pakistan had voted to protest against discriminatory attitude of West Pakistan, which was not acceptable to West Pakistan rulers.
• In 1971, Pakistani army arrested Sheikh Mujib and unleashed a region of terror on Eas(t Pakistan. This started people’s struggle to liberate Bangladesh from Pakistan.
• India had to bear 80 lakh refugees who fled from East Pakistan to take shelter. Hence, India had to extend moral and material support to the freedom struggle in Bangladesh.
• A full scale war between India and Pakistan in December 1971 broke out, when Pakistan attacked on Punjab and Rajasthan to be.retaliated an attack from India.
• Within ten (Jays the Indian army surrounded Dhaka and Pakistan had to surrender with Bangladesh as a free country, India declared a unilateral ceasefire and Shimla Agreement was signed between India and Pakistan in 1972.
• Most people in India saw this moment as a glory of India and a clear sign of India’s growing military powers.

Answer 26.
Because :

1. Socialist credentials became main projects during this period.
2. Indira Gandhi campaigned to implement land reform legislations and land ceiling legislations.
3. She ended her dependence on other political parties by strengthening her party’s position and recommended the dissolution of the Lok Sabha in December’ 1970.
4. The crisis in East Pakistan and Indo-Pak war to establish Bangladesh as an independent one, also enhanced the popularity of Indira Gandhi.
5. Indira Gandhi’s government was not accepted only as a protector of the poor and underprivileged but as a strong government also.
6. Congress became popular among different social sections and restored dominance again

OR

(a) Effects on Civil Liberties for Citizens :

1. The government made large scale arrests under preventive detention.
2. Arrested political persons could not challenge arrest even under Habeas Corpus petition.
3. Despite of filing many petitions government claimed it not to be necessary to be informed on grounds to arrested persons.
4. In April 1976, finally it was proved that the government could take away citizen’s right to life and liberty by overruling of High Courts under Supreme Court and accept government’s plea.

(b) Impact on Relationship between the Executive and Judiciary :

1. The Parliament brought in many new changes in the Constitution which made an amendment declaring that elections of the Prime Minister, the President and the Vice-President could not be challenged in the court.
2. The 42nd amendment was also passed to bring a series of changes in the Constitution like duration of legislatures, elections can be postponed by one year during an emergency.

Answer 27.

1. Narmada Bachao Aandolan (NBA) linked its opposition to Sardar Sarovar Project with larger issues concerning the nature of ongoing developmental projects, efficacy of model of development that the country followed and what constituted public interest in a democracy.
2. It demanded that there should be a cost benefit analysis of the major developmental projects due to construction of dam submerged around 245 villages to require two half a lakh population to be relocated.
3. The movement demanded proper rehabilitation of all those to be affected from the construction of these projects.
4. This movement also questioned the nature of decision making process to be in forming of mega scale development projects.
5. Movement also insisted that local communities must have a say in such decision making alongwith an effective control over natural resources.
6. Hence, NBA achieved a comprehensive National Rehabilitation Policy formed by government in 2003.

Democratic strategies used by it :

• Mobilisation of support at inter-national level
• Appeals to judiciary
• Public rallies
• Forms of Satyagraha

OR

Yes, we agree with the statement because India adopted a democratic approach on these regional aspirations in place of considering them as anti-national:

1. India’s democratic politics allows people and groups to address the people on the basis of their regional identity, aspiration, and specific regional problems.
2. India’s democratic politics focus on regional issues and problems to receive adequate attention and accommodation in the policy making process, i.e. regional aspirations of Assam, Punjab and North-East, Kashmir, etc.
3. Its examples are in eighties, military erupted in Punjab, problems persisted in the North-East, students agitated in Assam and Kashmir valley was on the boil.
4. The Government of India settled down some negotiations with these regional aspirations to reduce tensions in many regions.
5. Mizoram is an example of political settlement to resolve the problem of separation effectively.
   It can be concluded that regional aspirations do not encourage separation but these respect diversity to retain unity in the nation.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 6 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 6, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 7 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 7.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 7

Time Allowed : 3 Hours

Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions 

• All questions are compulsory. There are 26 questions in all.
• This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
• Section A contains five questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains five questions of 2 marks each. Section C contains twelve questions of 3 marks each. Section D contains one value based question of 4 marks and Section E contains three questions of 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 1 question of 2 marks, 1 question of 3 marks and all the 3 questions of 5 marks weightage. You have to attempt only 1 of the choices in such questions.
• You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary :

Questions
SECTION : A

Question 1.
What is the range of frequencies used in satellite communication? What is common between these waves and light waves?

Question 2.
Define capacitor reactance. Write its S.I. units.

Question 3.
A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65. What is the nature of the lens ?

Question 4.
What is the electric flux through a cube of side 1 cm which encloses an electric dipole?

Question 5.
Graph showing the variation of current versus voltage for a material GaAs is shown in the figure, Identify the region of :

1. negative resistance
2. where Ohm’s law is obeyed.

SECTION : B

Question 6.
Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is

1. suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation
2. used to treat muscular strain
3. used as a diagnostic tool in medicine

Write in brief, how these waves can be produced.

Question 7.
Distinguish between ‘intrinsic’ and ‘extrinsic’ semiconductors.

Question 8.
Show that the radius of the orbit in hydrogen atom varies as n², where n is the principal quantum number of the atom.

Question 9.
Use the mirror equation to show that an object placed between f and 2f of a concave mirror produces a real image beyond 2 f.

OR

Find an expression for intensity of transmitted light when a Polaroid sheet is rotated between two crossed Polaroids. In which position of the Polaroid sheet will the transmitted intensity be maximum ?

Question 10.
A proton and an a-particle have the same de Broglie wavelength. Determine the ratio of
(i) their accelerating potentials
(ii) their speeds.

SECTION : C

Question 11.
State the principle of working of a galvanometer. A galvanometer of resistance G is converted into a voltmeter to measure up to V volts by connecting a resistance R₁ in series with the coil. If a resistance R₂ is connected in series with it, then it can measure up to V/2 volts. Find the resistance, in terms of R₁ and R₂, required to be connected to convert it into a voltmeter that can read up to 2 V. Also find the resistance G of the galvanometer in terms of R₁ and R₂.

Question 12.
Two capacitors of unknown capacitance C₁ and C₂ are connected first in series and then in parallel across a battery of 100 V. If the energy stored in the two combinations is 0.045 J and 0.25 J respectively, determine the value of Cj and C₂. Also calculate the charge on each capacitor in parallel combination.

Question 13.
With what considerations in view, a photo diode is fabricated ? State its working with the help of a suitable diagram. Even though the current in the forward bias is known to be more than in the reverse bias, yet the photo diode works in reverse bias. What is the reason ?

Question 14.
(a) Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and mention which important features in photoelectric effect can be explained with the help of this equation.
(b) The maximum kinetic energy of the photo electrons gets doubled when the wavelength of light incident on the surface changes from λ₁ to λ₂. Derive the expressions for the threshold wavelength X₀ and work function for the metal surface.

Question 15.
LFse Kirchhoff’s rules to obtain conditions for the balance condition in a Wheatstone bridge.

Question 16.
In the study of Geiger-Marsdan experiment on scattering of α-particles by a thin foil of gold, draw the trajectory of α-particles in the Coulomb field of target nucleus.
Explain briefly how one gets the information on the size of the nucleus from this study. From the relation R = R₀ A^1/3, where R₍₎ is constant and A is the mass number of the nucleus, show that nuclear matter density is independent of A.

OR

Distinguish between nuclear fission and fusion. Show how in both these processes energy is released. Calculate the energy release in MeV in the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction :

Question 17.
A cell of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance V is connected across a variable load resistor R. Draw the plots of the terminal voltage V versus
(i) R and
(ii) the current I. It is found that when R = 4 Ω, the current is 1A and when R is increased to 9 Ω, the current reduces to 0.5 A. Find the values of the emf E and internal resistance r.

Question 18.
An inductor L of inductance X_L is connected in series with a bulb B and an ac source. How would brightness of the bulb change when

1. number of turn in the inductor is reduced,
2.  an iron rod is inserted in the inductor and
3. a capacitor of reactance X_c = X_L is inserted in series in the circuit. Justify your answer in each case.

Question 19.
Draw a block diagram of a detector for AM signal and show, using necessary processes and the wave forms, how the original message signal is detected from the input AM wave.

Question 20.
Draw a circuit diagram of a transistor amplifier in CE configuration. Define the terms :
(i) Input resistance and
(ii) Current amplification factor.
How are these determined using typical input and output characteristics ?

Question 21.
Answer the following questions :
(a) In a double slit experiment using light of wavelength 600 nm, the angular width of the fringe formed on a distant screen is 0.1°. Find the spacing between the two slits.
(b) Light of wavelength 5000 Å propagating in air gets partly reflected from the surface of water. How will the wavelengths and frequencies of the reflected and refracted light be affected?

Question 22.
(i) A giant refracting telescope has an objective lens of focal length 15 m. If an eyepiece of focal length 1.0 cm is used. What is the angular magnification of the telescope ?
(ii) If this telescope is used to view the moon. What is the diameter of the image of the moon formed by the objective lens ? The diameter of the moon is 3.48 x 10⁸ m and the radius of lunar orbit is 3.8 x 10⁸ cm.

SECTION : D

Question 23.
A group of students while coming from the school noticed a box marked “Danger H.T. 2200 V” at a substation in the main street. They did not understand the utility of a such a high voltage, while they argued the supply was only 220 V. They asked their teacher this question the next day. The teacher thought it to be an important question and therefore, explained to the whole class. Answer the following questions :

1. What device is used to bring the high voltage down to low voltage of a.c. current and what is the principle of its working ?
2. Is it possible to use this device for bringing down the high dc voltage to the low voltage? Explain.
3. Write the values displayed by the students and the teacher. 4

SECTION : E

Question 24.
(a) An electric dipole of dipole moment P consists of point charges +q and -q separated by a distance 2a apart. Deduce the expression for the electric field E due to the dipole at a distance x from the centre of the dipole on its axial line in terms of the dipole moment P Hence show that in the limit

(b) Given the electric field in the region E = 2×1, find the net electric flux through the cube and the charge enclosed by it.

OR

(a) Explain using suitable diagrams, the difference in the behaviour of a
(i) conductor and
(ii) dielectric in the presence of external electric field. Define the terms polarization of a dielectric and write its relation with susceptibility.
(b) A thin metallic spherical shell of radius carries a charge Q on its surface. A point charge Q/2 is placed at its centre C and another charge +2Q is placed outside the shell at a distance x from the centre as shown in the figure.
Find
(i) the force on the charge at the centre of shell and at the point A,
(ii) the electric flux through the shell.

Question 25.

(a) A point object ‘O’ is kept in a medium of refractive index n₁ in front of a convex spherical surface of radius of curvature R which separate the second medium of refractive index n₂ from the first one as shown in the figure. Draw the ray diagram showing the image formation and deduce the relationship between the object distance and the image distance in terms of n₁ n₂ and R.
(b) When the image formed above acts as a virtual object for a concave spherical surface separating the medium n₂ from n₁ (n₂> n₁) draw this ray diagram and write the similar (similar to (a)) relation. Hence obtain the expression for the Lens Makers formula.

OR

(a) What is polarisation of light? Under what condition does a beam of light reflected by a transparent medium becomes plane polarised? Use the condition to establish a relation between the angle of incidence and the refractive index of the transparent medium.
(b) State the essential condition for Rayleigh scattering to occur.
(c) Compare the intensity of scattering of light of wavelength 400 nm and 600 nm in the earth’s atmosphere.

Question 26.

(a) State Ampere’s Circuital law. Use this law to obtain the expression for the magnetic field inside an air cored toroid of average radius, having V turns per unit length and carrying a steady current I.
(b) An observer to the left of a solenoid of N turns each of cross section area A observes that a steady current I in it flows in the clockwise direction. Depict the magnetic field lines due to the solenoid specifying its polarity and show that it acts as a bar magnet of magnetic momentum M = NIA.

OR

(a) Define mutual inductance and write its S.I. units.
(b) Derive an expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids of same length wound one over the other.
(c) In an experiment two coils c₁, and c₂ are placed close to each other. Find out the expression for the emf induced in the coil c₁ due to a change in the current through the coil c₂.

Answers
SECTION : A

Answer 1.
Range of frequencies used in satellite communication is

1. Uplink = 5.925 – 6.425 GHz
2. Downlink = 3.7 – 4.2 GHz
3. Both space waves and light waves are electromagnetic.

Answer 2.
Capacitor reactance is the resistance offered by a capacitor to the flow of a.c. It is given by

Where co (Angular frequency of the source) = 2nf;
f = frequency of the source

C = Capacitance of the capacitor

Answer 3.
Since μ_g lens < μ_m surroundings. It behaves like a converging lens.

Answer 4.
The electric flux through a cube of side 1 cm which encloses an electric dipole will be zero, as net charge enclosed by a cube is zero.

Answer 5.

1. DE is the region of negative resistance because the slope of curve in this part is negative.
2. BC is the region where Ohm’s law is obeyed because in this part, the current varies linearly with the voltage.
   

SECTION : B

Answer 6.

1. Microwaves are suitable for radar systems that are used in aircraft navigation. These rays are produced by special vacuum tubes, namely -klystrons, magnetrons and Gunn diodes.
2. Infrared waves are used to treat muscular strain. These rays are produced by hot bodies and molecules.
3. X-rays are used as a diagnostic tool in medicine. These rays are produced when high energy electrons are stopped suddenly on a metal of high atomic number.

Answer 7.

Answer 8.
According to the Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, the angular momentum of a revolving electron is given by

Here,
m = Mass of the electron
v = Velocity of the electron
r = Radius of the orbit
h = Planck’s constant
n = Principal quantum number
If an electron of mass m and velocity v is moving in a circular orbit of radius r, then the centripetal force required is given by

Also, if the charge on the nucleus is Ze, then the force of electrostatic attraction between the nucleus and the electron will provide the necessary centripetal force.

Answer 9.
Mirror equation is

Where u is distance of object from the mirror, v is the distance of image from the mirror and f is the focal length of the mirror.
For a concave mirror/is negative i.e.,f < 0,u < 0 For a real object (on the left of mirror)


This implies that v is negative and greater than 2f This means that the image lies beyond 2f and it is real.

Let us consider two crossed polarisers P₁ and P₂ with a polaroid sheet P₃ placed between them. Let I_Q be the intensity of polarized light after passing through the first polarizer P₁. If 0 is the angle between the axes of P₁ and P₂ then the intensity of the polarized light after passing through P₃ will be I = I₀ cos² θ.
As P₁ and P₂ are crossed, the angle between the axes of P₁ and P₂ = 90°.
∴  Angle between the axes of P₂ and P₃ = (90° – θ)

Answer 10.
(i) The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by

where, V is the accelerating potential of the particle
It is given that
λ_proton  =  λ_alpha

(ii) We can also write de Broglie wavelength as λ = h/mv  where h is Planck’s constant, m is mass of the particle and v is speed of the particle.

SECTION : C

Answer 11.
Principle :
When a current-carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a torque. From the measurement of the deflection of the coil, the strength of the current can be computed. A high resistance is connected in series with the galvanometer to convert it into voltmeter. The value of the resistance is given by

Here,
V = Potential difference across the terminals of the voltmeter
I_g  = Current through the galvanometer
G = Resistance of the galvanometer
When the resistance R₁, is connected in series with the galvanometer,
V = I (G + R₁)
When the resistance R₁ is connected in series with the galvanometer,

Let R₃ be the resistance required for conversion into voltmeter of range 2V
∴  2 V = I_g (G + R₃)
Also
V = I_g(G + R₁)

Answer 12.
When the capacitors are connected in parallel. Equivalent capacitance, C_p = C₁+ C₂ The energy stored in the combination of the capacitors,

When the capacitors are connected in parallel, the charge on each of them can be obtained as follows:
Q₁ = C₁V = 38.2 x 10^-6 x loo = 38.2 x 10^-4 C
Q₂ = C₂V= 11.8 x x 10^-6 x 100= 11.8 x x 10^-4 C

Answer 13.
A photo diode is used to observe the change in current with change in the light intensity under reverse bias condition. In fabrication of photo diode, material chosen should have band gap -1.5 eV or lower so that solar conversion efficiency is better. This is the reason to choose Si or GaAs material. Working: It is a p-n junction fabricated with a transparent window to allow light photons to fall on it. These photons generate electron hole pairs upon absorption. If the junction is reverse biased using an electrical circuit, these electron hole pair move in opposite directions so as to produce current in the circuit. This current is very small and is detected by the micro ammeter placed in the circuit.

A photo diode is preferably operated in reverse bias condition. Consider an «-type semiconductor. Its majority carrier (electron) density is much larger than the minority hole density. When illuminated with light, both types of carriers increase equally in number

That is, the fractional increase in majority carriers is much less than the fractional increase in minority carriers. Consequently, the fractional change due to the photo-effects on the minority carriers dominated reverse bias current is more easily measurable than the fractional change in the majority carrier dominated forward bias current. Hence, photo diodes are preferably used in the reverse bias condition for measuring light intensity.

Answer 14.
(a) Einstein’s photoelectric equations is given by

Where
K_max ⁼ Maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron
^vmax ⁼ Maximum velocity of the emitted photoelectron
m = Mass of the photoelectron
v = Frequency of the light radiation
Φ₀ = Work function h = Planck’s constant
If v_o is the threshold frequency, then the work function can be written as

The above equations explains the following results.

1. If v < v_o, then the maximum kinetic energy is negative, which is impossible. Hence, photoelectric emission does not take place for the incident radiation below the threshold frequency. Thus, the photoelectric emission can take place only if
   v > v_o.
2. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted photo electrons is directly proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation. This means that maximum kinetic energy of photo electron depends only on the frequency of incident light.

(b) According to the photoelectric equation,

Answer 15.
Let us consider a Wheatstone bridge arrangement as shown below :
Wheatstone bridge is a special bridge type circuit which consists of four resistances, a galvanometer and a battery. It is used to determine unknown resistance. In figure four resistance P, Q, R and S are connected in the form of four arms of a quadrilateral. Let the current given by battery in the balanced position be I. This current on reaching point A is divided into two parts I₁ and I₂. As there is no current in galvanometer in balanced state, therefore current in resistances P and Q is I₁ and in resistances R and S it is I₁.


This is condition of balanced Wheatstone bridge

Answer 16.
From this experiment, the following is observed :

1. Most of the alpha particles pass straight through the gold foil. It means that they do not suffer any collision with gold atoms.
2. About one alpha particle in every 8000 alpha particles deflects by more than 90°. As most of the alpha particles go undeflected and only a few get deflected, this shows that most of the space in an atom is empty and at the centre of the atom, there exists a nucleus. By the number of the alpha particles deflected, the information regarding size of the nucleus can be known.

If m is the average mass of a nucleon and R is the nuclear radius, then mass of nucleus = mA, where A is the mass number of the element. This shows that the nuclear density is independent of A.

OR

Nuclear fission :
Nuclear fission is a disintegration process, in which a heavier nucleus gets split up into two lighter nuclei, with the release of a large amount of energy.

Answer 17.

Answer 18.

1. When the number of turns in the inductor is reduced, its reactance X_L decreases. The current in the circuit increases and hence brightness of the bulb increases.
2. When an iron rod is inserted in the inductor, the self inductance increases. Consequently, the inductive reactance X_L = coL increases. This decreases the current in the circuit and the bulb glows dimmer.
3. With capacitor of reactance X_c = X_L, the impedance
   
   becomes minimum, the current in circuit becomes maximum. Hence the bulb glows with maximum brightness.

Answer 19.

When a message is received, it gets attenuated through the channel therefore, receiving antenna is to be followed by an amplifier and a detector. The signal frequency is usually changed to a lower frequency in an Intermediate Frequency (IF) stage. The detected signal may not be strong enough to be made use of and hence is required to be amplified. In order to obtain the original message signal m(t) of angular frequency a simple method is used which is shown in the form of a block diagram.

When the received modulated signal is passed through a rectifier, an envelope signal is produced. This envelope signal is the message signal. In order to retrieve the message, the signal is passed through an envelope detector.

Answer 20.

Answer 21.
(a) Angular width (0) of fringe in double-slit experiment is given by 0 = λ/d
Where, d = Spacing between the slits
Given, Wavelength of light, X = 600 nm
Angular width of fringe,

(b) The frequency and wavelength of reflected wave will not change. The refracted wave will have same frequency, only wavelength will change. The velocity of light in water is given by v = λf
where,
v = Velocity of light
f= Frequency of light
λ = Wavelength of light
As light ray is travelling from rarer (air) medium to denser medium, its speed will decrease. Hence, wavelength (λ) will also decrease.

Answer 22.
(i) Let
f₀ = Focal length of the objective lens = 15 m = 1500 cm
f_e = Focal length of the eye lens = 1.0 cm
Angular magnification of the giant refracting telescope is given by

(ii) Diameter of the image of the moon formed by the objective lens, d = αf_o

SECTION : D

Answer 23.

1. The device that is used to bring high voltage down to low voltage of an a.c. current is a transformer. It works on the principle of mutual induction of two windings or circuits. When current in one circuit changes, emf is induced in the neighbouring circuit.
2. The transformer cannot convert d.c. voltages because it works on the principle of mutual induction. When the current linked with the primary coil changes, the magnetic flux linked with the secondary coil also changes. This change in flux induces emf in the secondary coil. If we apply a direct current to the primary coil the current will remain constant. Thus, there is no mutual induction and hence no emf is induced.
3. The value of gaining knowledge and curiosity about learning new things is being displayed by the students. The value of providing good education and undertaking the doubts of students has been displayed by the teacher.

SECTION : E

Answer 24.
(a) Electric field at a point on the axial line

(b) Since, the electric field is parallel to the faces, parallel to xy and xz planes, the electric flux through them is zero.
Electric flux through the left face

OR

(a) (i) Conductor :
E₀ → external field
E_m → internal field created by the redistribution of electrons inside the metal.
When a conductor like a metal is subjected to external electric field, the electrons experience a force in the opposite direction collecting on the left hand side. A positive charge is therefore induced on the right hand side. This creates an opposite electric field (E_m) that balances out (E₀).

∴ The net electric field inside the conductor becomes zero.

(ii) Dielectric :
When external electric field is applied, dipoles are created (in case of non-polar dielectrics). The placement of dipoles is as shown in the given figure. An internal electric field is created which reduces the external electric field.  Polarization of dielectric (P) is defined as the dipole moment per unit volume of the polarized dielectric.

^p = X_es₀ E
X_e = susceptibility
E = Electric field

Answer 25.
(a) Let a spherical surface separate a rarer medium of refractive index n₁ from denser medium of refractive index n₂. Let C be the centre of curvature and R = MC be the radius of the surface.

Consider a point object O lying on the principal axis of the surface. Let a ray starting from O incident normally on the surface along OM and pass straight. Let another ray of light incident on NM along ON and refract along NI. From M, draw MN perpendicular to 01.

The figure shows the geometry of formation of image I of an object O and the principal axis of a spherical surface with centre of curvature C and radius of curvature R.
Let us make the following assumptions :

1. The aperture of the surface is small as compared to the other distance involved.
2. NM will be taken as nearly equal to the length of the perpendicular from the point N on the principal axis.

OR

(a) Restricting the vibrations of electric vector (light) in a single direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of light is called polarisation of light. At polarising angle refracted and reflected components of light are perpendicular to each other. In fig.

Answer 26.
(a) Amperes circuital law in electro magnetism is analogous to Gauss law in electrostatics. This law states that “The line integral of resultant magnetic field along a closed plane curve is equal to p₀ time the total current crossing the area bounded by the closed curve provided the electric field inside the loop remains constant. Thus ƒ B .dl = μ.₀I_enc, where p₀ is permeability of free space and I_enc is the net current enclosed by the loop.

A toroid is a hollow circular ring on which a large number of turns of a wire are closely wound. Consider an air-cored toroid (as shown here) with centre O.
Given,
r = Average radius of the toroid
I = Current through the solenoid .
n = Number of turns per unit length

To determine the magnetic field inside the toroid, we consider three amperian loops (loop 1, loop 2 and loop 3) as show in the figure below.

This is the expression for magnetic field inside air-cored toroid.
(b) Given that the current flows in the clockwise direction for an observer on the left side of the solenoid. This means that left face of the solenoid acts as south pole and right face acts as north pole. Inside a bar magnet the magnetic field lines are directed from south to north. Therefore, the magnetic field lines are directed from left to right in the solenoid. Magnetic moment of single current carrying loop is given by
m = IA
where
I = Current flowing through the loop;
A = Area of the loop So, Magnetic moment of the whole solenoid is given by
M = Nm = N(IA)

OR

(a) Mutual inductance is the property of two coils by the virtue of which each opposes any change in the value of current flowing through the other by developing an induced emf. The SI unit of mutual inductance is henry and its symbol is H.
(b) Consider two long solenoids S₁ and S₂ of same length / such that solenoid S₂ surrounds
solenoid S, completely.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 7 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Paper 7, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 6 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 6.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 6

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 6 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Physical Education is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should approximately 10-20 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should approximately 30-50 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should approximately 75-100 words.

Questions.

Question 1.
What do you mean by seeding? 1

Question 2.
List the macro nutritive elements. 1

Question 3.
How can yoga help in curing Asthma? 1

Question 4.
Write two benefits of Trikonasana. 1

Question 5.
Describe diabetes. 1

Question 6.
Define motor development. 1

Question 7.
In which year female athletes tried became apparent? 1

Question 8.
List the test battery item of AAHPER youth fitness test. 1

Question 9.
Define first aid. 1

Question 10.
Define personality. 1

Question 11.
Define circuit training. 3

Question 12.
Describe any one food supplement for children and its effect on the body. 1

Question 13.
Define back pain and write its causes. 3

Question 14.
Write any three advantages of physical activities for children with special need. 3

Question 15.
Describe in detail ADHD. 3

Question 16.
What are the various effects of exercise on cardiovascular system? 3

Question 17.
How structure of joint effect flexibility? 3

Question 18.
Briefly discuss the impact of environment on Athletes performance. 3

Question 19.
There was a 400m racing championship in which an athlete was running at the last place. Suddenly, the runner just ahed of her started to collapse. Instead of continuning the race and
Finishing Second last, the athlete helped the injured runner and took her to the finishing line just ahead of her. 3
(i) Why do you think the athlete helped the injured player?
(ii) What position according to you should have been awarded to the athlete?

Question 20.
Explain tournament. Mention the significance of intramural for students. 5

Question 21.
Suggest at what age children should be exposed to weight training and justify your answer. 5

Question 22.
Mention sociological aspects of women participation in sports. 5

Question 23.
Describe the procedure of the karus-weber test. 5

Question 24.
Explain the various types of fracture and their management is detail. 5

Question 25.
Participation in sports results is all-round development of personality. Justify 5

Question 26.
Explain the impact of high altitude training. 5

Answers.

Answer 1.
Teams play directly in quarter finals-based on last year’s performance.

Answer 2.
Carbohydrates-fats-proteins-water.

Answer 3.
Various yogic poses improve blood circulation, energize the nervous system and reduce stress which are highly beneficial and recommended for the asthmatic patient.

Answer 4.
Improves strength of thighs and calves, develops stretch ability of spine

Answer 5.
Increases sugar in blood or high blood glucose, related to lifestyle.

Answer 6.
Progress from gross motor skills to fine motor skills in 4 stages (infant hood, early, middle and later childhood)

Answer 7.
1952 Olympics in Helsinki

Answer 8.
pull ups for boys, sit ups, shuttle run, 50 yard dash

Answer 9.
Immediate care given to the victim of an accident, injury, sudden illness or any medical emergency

Answer 10.
Personality is the sum of characteristics (habits, traits, attitudes and ideas) of an individual which make him unique.

Answer 11.
Formal type of training, athletes go through series of exercises arranged in circuit

Answer 12.
Capsules like Supradyn, Becosules, Diataal Capsules, etc.
Advantages – additional nutrients, immunity development, improved physical fitness (amino acids taken by athletes)
Disadvantages – drug interactions, excess vitamin A can cause liver damage, decreases bone strength, headache.

Answer 13.
Pain in back due to the stretch of muscles. Related to lifestyle, causes – poor posture, incorrect lifting style, sedentary lifestyle.

Answer 14.
Better balance and motor skills, reduces stress, anxiety and depression, improved behavior and self confidence.

Answer 15.
ADHD is the Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder. In this, there is the differences in the parts of brain which controls attention and activity. Inattention, hyperactivity, impulsivity are its symptoms. The cause of ADHD are heredity and brain injury.

Answer 16.
Effects of Exercise of Cardiovascular System

• The benefits of regular exercise include more than just having a well-toned body. Besides serving as a mood intensifier, physical activity has both long term and short term effects on the cardiovascular system. Good blood circulation throughout your body may provide long standing positive effects to your health.
• Before the person starts exercising, the body go through an anticipative response. During this response the body will release adrenaline consistently before the person sweat. Increases stroke volume: Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart during each contraction. Stroke volume is measured in milliliters per beat. With the onset of exercise, the stroke volume increases anywhere from 60 to 110 milliliters depending on the intensity.
• Lowers blood pressure: A healthy heart rate of an adult at rest is about 60-80 beats per minute. With regular exercise, a lower resting heart rate can be developed. Resting heart rate decreases because the heart develops to hold more amount of blood with exercise.
• Lowers blood pressure: Blood pressure repose with two measurements. The systolic number refers to the amount of pressure that helps to drive blood throughout the system. Blood circulation or flow improves with regular exercise and lowers the blood pressure readings.
• Improves blood flow: An additional short term effect of the circulatory system during exercise is how the blood is delivered throughout the body. When a person is at rest only 15 percent of the blood flowing through the body is drifted towards the skeletal muscles.
• Fewer varicose veins: Regular exercise not only boost leg strength, but also improves vien strength. Stronger veins will lower the risk of getting varicose veins.
• Other long term effects of regular exercise Increases the number of red-blood cells and
  capillaries. Diminishes stress-related hormones from circulating in the blood. Enhances the blood vessel lining which in turn helps to lower the risk of plaque buildup that may lead to coronary disease.
• Probably the first part of your body to benefit from regular exercise is your heart. To get the blood circulated to different parts of your body requires a healthy heart that is able enough to function efficiently. Regular exercise makes your heart stronger so that it won’t have to work as hard as the heart of the one who doesn’t exercise.

Answer 17.
Body largely depends upon the structure of joints, muscles, tendons and ligaments. Flexibility is crucial for performing routine work. It can even prevent injury, especially lower back pain. When joints are flexible, body can perform movements with greater amplitude and range without external help commonly called as active flexibility. But when external help is taken by the body for performing movements, it is called as passive flexibility. Therefore if joints are flexible then easy movements structuring and muscle contractions are possible as required in sports like gymnastics, yoga, swimming and athletics.

Answer 18.
The following factors play a crucial role in improving the performance of an athlete:

1. Spectators – Audience plays a major role as their appraisals prove to be a great source of motivation for the better performance.
2. Weather – It has to be good. If it is sunny or rainy then it can prove to be a hindrance in the good performance by the athlete.
3. Facilities – Athletes should be provided with adequate facilities of refreshments, their equipments, etc.

Answer 19.
(i) He helped the fellow player out of sympathy, care and concern for the mankind. He showed humane spirit.
(ii) He should be given first position because he stepped forward for the betterment of human kind.

Answer 20.
Tournament is that series of sports in which a team finally wins and rest of the teams lose the matches. It is organized at zonal, district, state and national level. It develops sports skills, acts as a source of recreation, helps in selection of players and also develops social qualities.
Types of tournament:

• Knock-out – In this type of tournament, a team which once defeated automatically gets eliminated from the tournament.
• League or Round Robin Tournament – According to this tournament, each team play with every other team once if it is a single league tournament
• Combination – These are conducted when the matches are to be played on group basis or zonal basis.
• Consolation – One additional chance is given to the defeated teams.

Significance of intramurals:

• Significant for physical, mental, emotional and social development of students.
• Lays stress on moral and ethnic values.
• Necessary for the development of health of children.
• Calms down the fighting instinct.

Answer 21.
Weight Training is the exercise phase of the activity where weight in the form of bar-bells and dumb-bells is used to condition and alter the sizes of various segments of the body.
Myth About Weight Training

• Children should not do any sort of weight training.
• Lifting heavy weights can be stressful for young muscles.

Whereas weight training is essential for people of all ages and children are no exceptions. Children of 7-8 years may start lighter strength training activities. Strength training offers benefits to anyone who partakes.
Advantages:

• Increases muscle strength
• Increases bone density
• Improves quality of life
• Effective weight control

Answer 22.
Sociological aspects of women Participation in sports

• Safety and transportation issues – Travelling becomes difficult for women as their parents don’t easily allow whereas boys don’t have any restrictions.
• Social stigma – Gender discrimination, women are discouraged to take part in sports.
• Lack of facilities – Women have less number of opportunities for participation in sports than the men.
• Lack of role models – Hardly any women role model is there to motivate other women to play.
• Less media coverage for women sports – Less coverage of women tournament so less interest of public in their game.
• Scarcity of women coaches and administrative staff – and few women coaches.
• Cultural sensitivity – Social norms restrict exposure of female body, which occurs in their wearing of the sport attires.
• Fewer spectators – Less interested spectators as compared in the sports by men.

Answer 23.
It was introduced by Kraus and Hirschland. It consists of six tests:
(i) Test -1
Purpose – To measure the strength of the abdominal and Psoas muscles Procedure – the subject lies in supine position i.e., flat on his back and hands behind his neck, examiner holds his feet to keep him on ground and he is asked to perform one sit-up.Scoring – if he performs he passes and gets 10 marks else he fails and receives 0 marks.
(ii) Test – 2
Purpose – To measure the strength of the abdominal muscles
Procedure – The subject lies in supine position but his knees are bent and ankles remain in touch with his buttocks. The examiner holds the feet of the subject. After command the subject has to roll up to sitting position.
Scoring – If he performs one sit-up in this condition, he passes else he fails. The distance from spine to sitting position is marked from 0-10.
(iii) Test – 3
Purpose – To measure the strength of the Psoas and lower back.
Procedure – The subject is advised to lie on supine on the table and hands to be kept behind the neck. Then he is advised to lift the legs to 10 inches above the table.
Scoring – If he can raise his feet 10 inches from the ground for 10 seconds then he gets 10 marks. The scores are awarded keeping in mind the time for which the subject uplifts his legs.
(iv) Test – 4
Purpose – To measure the strength of the upper back
Procedure – The subject lies in prone position (i.e. on his stomach with a pillow under his lower abdomen and his hands behind his neck) on the table, examiner has to press the back and trunk of subject. The subject is advised to lift the legs to 10 inches above the table.
Scoring – If subject can raise his legs in such a condition for 10 seconds then he gets 10 else he is marked as per the time he maintains the desired upliftment.
(v) Test – 5
Purpose – To measure the strength of the lower back.
Procedure -The subject lies in prone position on the table, examiner has to press the legs and hips of the subject. The subject is advised to lift the upper body to 10 inches above the table.
Scoring – the subject is marked 10 if he uplifts his body in such a condition for 10 seconds else he is marked for the time he maintains the desired upliftment.
(vi) Test – 6
Purpose – To Measure The Strength Of The Back And Hamstring Procedure – It is also known as floor-touch test, measures flexibility of the trunk, subject is asked to lean down slowly to touch the floor with finger tips for 3 seconds, bouncing or jerking is not allowed, examiner holds his knees to prevent any bend.
Scoring – Full 10 marks are given for complete touch, if subject is unable to touch by two inches he is awarded 8 marks.

Answer 24.
Fractures – Fracture is broken or cracked bone caused accidently by a wrenching force.

1. Stress Fracture – They are small cracks even they are difficult to see in x-rays. They caused by the repetitive use of bone and joints.
2. Green Stick Fracture – It is generally occurs in children. The bone does not break completely.
3. Comminuted Fracture – The bone is broken into small pieces at the site of the fracture.
4. Transverse Fracture – It is caused due to breaking of bone at right angle with the axis of the bone.
5. Oblique Fracture – The bone breaks obliquely to the axis.
6. Impacted Farcture – The broken ends of the bone are jammed together by the force of the injury.
7. Open And Closed Fracture – The broken bone does not pierce the skin but internal injury to surrounding tissues may be caused.

Management of Fractures:

1. First Aid for Closed Fracture – The injured part can be immobilized with the help of splint or sling as per the site.
2. First Aid for open Fracture – In open fracture, the open wound must be covered by sterile gauze or dressing. The compression and elevation is given to control the bleeding. The splint is given to immobilize the injured part.

Answer 25.
Role of Sports in Personality Development:

1. Physical Development – Games lead to proficiency in the neuro-muscular coordination, well organized games are stimulant to physical growth. They shape the body and maintain the optimum health from childhood to adulthood and gain speed, strength, flexibility etc.
2. Mental Development – Individuals learn to make judgments, utilize reflective and creative thinking to obtain knowledge about rules and regulations through sports and it also sharpens an individual’s mind.
3. Social Development – Players belonging to different places come closer to one another, human relations are developed, social qualities like fair play sportsmanship, courtesy are developed, games are just like fields where seeds of high character are sown and a harvest of better man is reaped.
4. Emotional Development – games develop emotions like hope, jealousy, distress, anger etc. and enable the individual to have proper control over these emotions.
5. It also helps in building confidence and higher self-esteem.
6. Playing any kind of sport develops leadership qualities in an individual.

Answer 26.
Impacts of high altitude training are:

• At high altitudes the reduced air pressure, oxygen diffuses into red blood cells more slowly.
• To compensate the decreased oxygen, one of the body’s hormone erythropoietin (EPO), triggers the production of more red blood cells to aid in oxygen delivery to the muscles.
• Training at high altitudes results in the production of RBC’s.
• Then athletes head to a competition at lower elevations to take advantage of their changed physiology.
• Natural blood doping – Idea of taking advantage of the body’s physiological changes at high altitude.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 6 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 6, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 2 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 2.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 2

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Physical Education is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should approximately 10-20 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should approximately 30-50 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should approximately 75-100 words.

Questions.

Question 1.
Define Strength? 1

Question 2.
Define personality? 1

Question 3.
What do you understand by Friction in Sports? 1

Question 4.
Define Fracture? 1

Question 5.
Define Cardiac Output? 1

Question 6.
Define Yoga? 1

Question 7.
Define Good Posture? 1

Question 8.
Enlist types of disorders and disabilities among children? 1

Question 9.
Define Axis and Plain? 1

Question 10.
Indicate the formula used for ‘BYE’ in knock-out tournament? 1

Question 11.
Define Aggression? 3

Question 12.
Describe the objectives of Intramural Competition in institutions? 1

Question 13.
Describe Newton’s law of motion used in sports? 3

Question 14.
Explain micro and macro nutrients? 3

Question 15.
Elaborate reasons for mal posture? 3

Question 16.
Explain factors effecting motor development? 3

Question 17.
The school has proposed to organize sports activities for its school children. The sports committee was formed and it proposed for an inter house sports competitions. All the children of the school have been divided into various houses and designated with different colours to differentiate. 3
(i) Which type of competition is being discussed for school children?
(ii) What are the various committees required for organization of the competitions?
(iii) What are the benefits of organizing such sports competition?

Question 18.
List Different types of fractures? 3

Question 19.
Draw a fixture of 9 Football teams participating in a Tournament on the basis of knock? 3

Question 20.
Explain the role of sports in development of personality? 5

Question 21.
Explain the role of nutrition on sports performance? Describe the essential nutrients influencing sports performance? 5

Question 22.
Describe the concept of PRICE used for injury management? 5

Question 23.
Explain the effect of exercise on Cardiovascular system? 5

Question 24.
Describe Trajectory? Explain the factors affecting projectile trajectory? 5

Question 25.
Illustrate AAPHER motor fitness test? 5

Question 26.
Appraise the role of physical activity for maintaining functional fitness among elderly people? 5

Answers.

Answer 1.
Strength is the ability of the muscle to overcome resistance. It is the amount of force a muscle or muscle groups can exert. It is achieved by voluntary muscle contraction. Specified types of strength is required for different types of activity, exercise and sports.

Answer 2.
Personality is the unique and relatively stable pattern of behaviour, thoughts and feelings of an individual. It is derived from the latin word ‘persona’ meaning ‘mask’. Personality is described as sum total of all traits and distinguishing qualities of an individual.

Answer 3.
The action of one surface or object rubbing against another. It is the resistance that one surface or object encounters when moving over another.

Answer 4.
Fracture is any discontinuation in bone due to any trauma. It can be a complete or incomplete break in a bone resulting from the application of excessive force. A fracture usually results from traumatic injury to bones causing the continuity of bone tissues or bony cartilage to bedisrupted or broken.

Answer 5.
Cardiac output is the effective volume of blood expelled by either ventricle of the heart per unit of time (generally per minute); it usually refers to left ventricle output. It is equal to the stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate. Normal values are 4 to 8 liters per minute.

Answer 6.
Yoga is a science of balancing between mind, body and spirit. It is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Yuj’in spiritual terms mean the union of the individual consciousness with the universal consciousness.

Answer 7.
“Good posture is applied to right position of the body assumed while doing any action so that minimum energy is consumed in order to get maximum efficiency.

Answer 8.
Disorders:  ADHD, SPD, ODD, Down syndrome, cerebral palsy, learning disorder.
Disability:  Physical, Cognitive, Intellectual, Adaptive.

Answer 9.
An axis is a straight line around which an object rotates.
Plane is the surface on which movement takes place.

Answer 10.
Formula for giving Bye = Next power of 2 – No. of Teams

Answer 11.
Aggression is defined as any form of behaviors directed towards the goal of or injuring another living being who is motivated to avoid such treatment.

Answer 12.
Objective of Intramurals:

• Promote physical, mental, social and emotional development of students.
• Create health awareness and promote well being.
• Inculcate Values and Ethics among students.
• Provide opportunity to every student to participate in sports.
• Develop leadership qualities.
• Develop group cohesion
• Provide recreation
• Facilitate talent identification and development
• Provide opportunity to experience sports environment

Answer 13.

The Law of Inertia: A body at rest tends to remain at rest. A body in motion tends to continue in motion with consistent speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an outside force. Example is the most anything in the real world—gravity, the surface of the playing field, a defensive player, or the braking action of an athlete’s body to stop.

The Law of Acceleration: The velocity of a body is changed only when acted upon by an additional force. The produced acceleration or deceleration is proportional to and in the same direction of the force. If a baseball player hits a ball with double the force, the rate at which the ball will accelerate (speed up) will be doubled. Football players can slow down, stop, or reverse the direction of other players depending upon how much force they can generate and in which direction.

The Law of Counterforce: The production of any force will create another force opposite and equal to the first force. A swimmer propels herself through the water because the water offers enough counterforce to oppose the action of her hands pushing, allowing her to move. An athlete can jump higher off a solid surface because it opposes his body with as much force as he is able to generate, in contrast to sand or other unstable surface.

Answer 14.
Nutrients are environmental substances used for energy, growth and bodily functions by organisms. Depending as the nutrient, these substances are needed is small amounts or larges amounts. Those that are needed in large amounts are called Macronutrients.

Micronutrients: as opposed to Macronutients. (protein, carbohydrates and fat), are comprised of vitamins and minerals which are required in small quantities to ensure normal metabolism, growth and physical well-being.
Minerals can be classified as macro minerals like calcium, potassium, sodium, magnesium, phosphorous and micro mineral (like iodine, iron, chromium, etc.)
Vitamins can be soluble like Vitamin A, D, E, etc.) or water soluble (like Vitamin B complex, B2, B3 etc.)

Answer 15.
Mal-posture means faulty carriage or incorrect alignment of different parts of body in respect to each other. It occurs due to the following reasons.

• Muscular weakness
• Malnourishment
• Faulty desks and seats
• Defective eye-sight or hearing
• Improper exercises
• Typical occupations
• Too rapid growth during adolescence
• Carrying weights
• Use of improper belonging
• Poor posture of teachers
• Heredity and environments

Answer 16.
Growth of the child: As children grow and learn, their ability to perform more activities with their body and understand actions improves. This can be affected by age and size. While most motor development skills have age-specific target ranges, the skills are also influenced by children being small or tall for their age, their weight, and their mental development.

Environment: The child’s environment has a large effect on their motor skill development. The more opportunities they have to develop both gross and fine motor skills, the faster their capacity increases. For instance, if a child is encouraged to play outside on park equipment or other areas where they can climb, run, and play, their gross motor skills will develop quickly. Additionally, fine motor skills increase when children are encouraged to play with their hands, hold and touch smaller items, feed themselves, and draw or color.

Genetics: Children are affected both by the genetics of their parents and their own genetics. If there are genetic weaknesses, they may have slower motor skill development than general guidelines suggest for their age range. For instance, if a child has weak muscle tone or health issues, they will likely develop at a slower pace than other healthy children of their age.

Muscle Tone: As mentioned previously, muscle tone can affect motor skills. The stronger a child is, the more ability they may have to move and control their body. Muscles are a fundamental factor in a child having the strength to move their body and control their actions. If muscle development is weak, their motor skill development will be slower.

Gender: Gender plays an important role in how children develop. Boys often have more advanced motor skills than girls because they are typically stronger and more aggressive physically. At the same time, girls often have more advanced eye and hand coordination. They may be more able to balance fine motor skills and gross motor skills, using both large movements and more detailed actions interchangeably.

Answer 17.
(i) Intramural Competition
(ii) Committee:

• Technical Committee
• Financial Committee
• Refreshment committee
• Ceremonial Committee
• Logistics Committee
• Record and Certificate Committee
• Jury of Appeal Committee

(iii) Importance:

• Motto is towards maximum participation
• Develop Group Cohesion
• Physical, Mental, Emotional, Social Development
• Recreation
• Psychomotor development

Answer 18.
Types of Fracture:
(i) Close Fracture:

• Transverse Fracture: Broken at right angle to long axis of bone
• Oblique: Oblique direction to long axis, confined to one plane .A fracture in which the line of break runs obliquely to the axis of the bone.
• Spiral Fracture: Occur when one end of an extremity is fixed (e.g., a foot is planted on the floor) but the rest of the extremity remains in motion.
• Comminute Fracture: A fracture in which the bone has broken or fragmented into several pieces. It happens mostly due to crush.
• Impact Fracture: An impacted fracture is one whose ends are driven into each other.
• Green Sticks: fracture in a young, soft bone in which the bone bends and partially breaks

(ii) Open Fracture:

• Compound Fracture: An open fracture, also called a compound fracture, is an injury that occurs when there is a break in the skin around a broken bone. In order for an injury to be classified as a compound fracture, the outside air (and dirt and bacteria must be able to get to the fracture site without a barrier of skin or soft-tissue.

Answer 19.
Total number of teams =09
Upper half = n + 1/2 = 09+1/2 = 5
Lower half = n — 1/2 = 09-1/2 = 4
Power of two’s = 24 n. of teams
= 16-09 = 7
No.of Byes = 7
No.of Byes in Lower Half = nb+1/2 = 7+1=4
No. of Byes in Upper Half =  nb-1/2 = 7-1=3

Answer 20.
Role of sports in personality development are as following:
(i) Development of cognitive abilities: through sports participation cognitive process of athletes to perceive, evaluate and regulate their behaviour, which is appropriate in given situation improves. It benefits the following cognitive functions of processing information from received stimulus:

• Influence Intelligence
• Develops attention span
• Improves concentration

(ii) Control on arousal and emotion: sports participation helps in psycho-physiological activation helps in avoidance of negative emotions state of feeling of nervousness, apprehension associated with arousal of the body.

• Reduce anxiety
• Regulate aggression

(iii) Promote Social Cohesion: Sports participation

• Team association increases
• Task association increases

(iv) Create Leadership abilities: Sports participation helps in development of behaviour process of influencing individuals and groups towards set objectives. Athletes are able to take initiative and guide others in performing some required task in an organized form to task attainment. It help in the following:

• Develop ownership
• Creates responsibility

(v) Self-Efficacy: Sports participation develops belief in athletes to perform task successfully. Sports participation supports individual belief in his or her competencies and abilities to succeed in particular task.

Answer 21.
Role of nutrition in sports performance can be divided in three phases, Pre-competition, During Competition, Post Competition.
(i) Pre-Competition:

• Carbohydrate loading before competition helps in storing of glycogen which helps in extra energy during competitions.
• Sufficient intake of fluid before competitions help in prevention of dehydration.

(ii) During Competition:

• Small amount of carbohydrates at regular interval helps in maintain blood sugar level and reduces fatique.
• Frequent intake of fluids are beneficial to stay hydrated during high intensity level activities.

(iii) Post Competition:

• Initial intake of carbohydrate after competitions help in restoring glycogen.
• To enhance muscle recovery, protein diet after few hours of competition is helpful.
• A balanced diet containing of macro and micro nutrients post competitions helps in faster recovery and reduced chances of injury.

Essential nutrients required for performance:
Fat: it is major source of fuel, various sports require different proportion of fat to muscles, although extra fat influences performance.

Carbohydrates: it is a major fuel for muscular contraction. It helps in decrease of fatigue. Low level of carbohydrates results in formation of lactic acid leading to early fatigue. Protein: It is required for growth of tissues. Protein is used as for repair of cells and tissues leading to faster growth and development of muscles. It does have significant effect on performance.

Minerals: are essential for energy balance, deficiency decreases performance and increases chances of injury.

Vitamins: Essential for balance growth by avoiding deficiency. Vitamins protect the body from preventing external bodies to create damage and produce disease in the body.

Answer 22.
Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression and Elevation, or P.R.I.C.E., adds the concept of “protection” to the traditional R.I.C.E. protocol formula. Protecting the injured area from further damage is crucial to the healing process.
P: Protection is meant to prevent further injury. For example, an injured leg or foot may be protected by limiting or avoiding weight-bearing through the use of crutches, a cane, or hiking poles. Partially immobilizing the injured area by using a sling, splint, or brace may also be a means of protection.

R: Rest is important to allow for healing. However, many sports medicine specialists use the term “relative rest” meaning rest that allows for healing, but is not so restrictive that recovery is compromised or slowed. A person should avoid activities that stress the injured area to the point of pain or that may slow or prevent healing.

I: Ice refers to the use of cold treatments, also known as cryotherapy, to treat acute injuries.Ice is recommended with the intent to minimize and reduce swelling as well as to decrease pain. The most common and most convenient is a simple plastic bag of crushed ice placed over a paper towel on the affected area. It is important to protect the skin and limit the cold exposure to 10 to 15 minutes.
Skin sensitivity or allergy to cold exposure can occur. Skin may become mottled, red and raised where the ice contacted the skin. If this is experienced, the ice treatments should be discontinued.

C: Compression is the use of a compression wrap, such as an elastic bandage, to apply an external force to the injured tissue. This compression minimizes swelling and provides mild support.
Elastic bandage should be applied directly to the skin by starting a few inches below the injury and wrapping in a figure eight or spiraling manner to a few inches above the injured area.
A medium amount of tension should be applied to provide ample, but not too constrictive
compression. The bandage should not cause numbness, tingling, or color change of the soft ‘ tissue.
E: Elevation is recommended to help reduce the pooling of fluid in the injured extremity or joint. Controlling swelling can help decrease pain and may limit the loss of range of motion, possibly speeding up recovery time.

Answer 23.
Effect of exercise on cardiovascular system:
(i) Exercise Effect:

• Increase in stroke volume: it is the amount of blood ejected per beat from the left r ventricle. During activity SV increases 2-3 times from the resting SV.
• Increase in Heart Rate: Heart Rate is the amount of contraction of left ventricles per minute. During exercise HR increases.
• Cardiac Output: Cardiac Output is the amount of blood pumped from the heart per minute. Cardiac Output is the product of HR and S V. A resting Cardiac Output is 5L/ Min which can increase to 20 – 40 L/min after an intense exercise.
• Increase in Blood Flow: More amount of blood is required by the tissue for immediate demand. At rest, 15-20% of blood is released to skeletal muscles, whereas during intense exercise 80-85% of blood is transported to skeletal muscles.
• Increase in Blood Pressure: During exercise the systolic blood pressure increases 50¬70 mm/hg. Diastolic blood pressure remains unchanged.

(ii) Long Tem Effects:

• Increase in size of heart: Muscles of the heart increase in size. The left ventricle adapts
  to the greatest extent. This phenomenon is also called as ‘Cardiac Hypertrophy’ which is not a disease. –
• Decrease Resting Heart Rate: Regular exercise decreases the resting heart rate. Resting Heart Rate of 72beat/min can reduce to 30-40 beat/min in highly conditioned athletes.
• Increase in Resting Stroke Volume: After continuous training of several years, resting stroke volume increases to 70-0 ml/beat from 50-70 ml/beat.

Answer 24.
The parabolic path followed by a projectile is called its trajectory.
Factors:

1. Initial velocity: Initial velocity is directly related to the distance covered in flight. The speed of release depends on initial vertical velocity and initial horizontal velocity. Having higher horizontal velocity will increase the distance covered.
2. Angle of projection: An object which is projectedat different angles but the same initial velocity covers different distances. When it is released at an angle of 45o, covers maximum distance.
3. Projection height: The higher the level of release, the longer distance covered in the flight. The horizontal component will be acting on the projectile for longer duration; hence projectile will be covering a longer distance.
4. Gravity: Gravitational force is exerted by earth on all the objects. It is constant for all the objects. It decreases at the places of high altitude.
5. Spin: it is amount and direction of spin directly affects the distance covered. The spin covered low pressure on the top, the object remains in air for longer period covering longer distance. If the spin creates high pressure on the top, the object remains in air for shorter period and covers shorter distance.
6. Air Resistance: When a projectile moves through the air, it is slowed down by air resistance. It decreases the horizontal velocity of the projectile

Answer 25.
AAPHER motor fitness test was formed in 1965 in United States. It included these items:

• Pull ups (boys)
• Flexed arm stand (girls)
• sit ups 600 yard run walk
• shuttle run
• 50 yard dash etc.

1. Pull ups – to measure arm and shoulder strength
   Procedure – the bar was adjusted according to the height of the subject. The student is advised to raise his body so that the chin reaches the level of the bar. One score is awarded for each pull up. One trial is given.
2. Flexed arm stand – to measure arm and shoulder strength
   Procedure – the adjusted bar is held with hand grasp. The student lifts her body with the help of assistance of testing personnel so that has chin reaches the bar level. The clasped time is taken as score. The score is nearest second.
3. Sit ups – to measure abdominal strength and endurance
   Procedure – Student is advised to lie on floor on his/her back keeping knees bent. The angle of knees should be around 90°. Further the student is advised to put fingers interlockedand put behind the head. The student curls up and touches the elbows to knees. The score is counted as maximum number of sit ups in 60 seconds.
4. 50 yards Dash – to measure speed
   Procedure – the student is advised to run 50 yards and time is recorded nearest to 10th of a second.
5. 600 yard run walk – to measure endurance.
   Procedure – the student is advised to run or walk 600 yards and time is recorded in minutes and seconds.

Answer 26.
Regular physical activity helps elderly people to enjoy life and increases longevity along through wellbeing.

1. Immune Function: A healthy, strong body fights off infection and sickness more easily and more quickly. Rather than sapping energy reserves entirely, recovery from an illness will take less of a toll on the body if the person exercises regularly.
2. Cardio-Respiratory and Cardiovascular Function: Frequent physical activity lowers the risk of heart disease and high blood pressure. If the elderly person has hypertension, exercise will help lower their blood pressure.
3. Bone Density and Risk of Osteoporosis: Exercise protects against loss in bone mass. Better bone density will reduce the risk of osteoporosis, lower the risk of falling and prevent broken bones. Post-menopausal women can lose as much as 2 percent bone mass each year, and men also lose bone mass as they age. Research done at Tufts University shows that strength training can dramatically reduce this loss, help restore bones, and contribute to better balance and less fractures.
4. Gastrointestinal Function: Regular exercise helps boost your metabolism and promotes the efficient elimination of waste and encourages digestive health.
5. Chronic Conditions and Cancer: Physical activity lowers risk of serious conditions such as Alzheimer’s disease and dementia, diabetes, obesity, heart disease, osteoporosis and colon cancer, to name a few. It also helps in the management of high cholesterol and arthritis pain.
6. Manage Stress, Improve Mood: Regular, moderate physical activity can help manage stress and improve your mood. And, being active on a regular basis may help reduce feelings of depression. Studies also suggest that exercise can improve or maintain some aspects of cognitive function, such as your ability to shift quickly between tasks, plan an activity, and ignore irrelevant information.
7. Prevent or Delay Disease: Scientists have found that staying physically active and exercising regularly can help prevent or delay many diseases and disabilities. In some cases, exercise is an effective treatment for many chronic conditions. For example, studies show that people with arthritis, heart disease, or diabetes benefit from regular exercise. Exercise also helps people with high blood pressure, balance problems, or difficulty walking.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 5 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education . Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 5

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 5.

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 5 of Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Paper 5 is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should approximately 10-20 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 3 marks should approximately 30-50 words.
• Answers to questions carrying 5 marks should approximately 75-100 words.

Questions:

Question 1.
Define Axis and Plane? 1

Question 2.
What is Bye and Tournament? 1

Question 3.
Define anxiety and stress. 1

Question 4.
What is the meaning of correct posture. 1

Question 5.
Explain the factors affecting projectiles trajectory. 1

Question 6.
What is the aim of sports medicine? 1

Question 7.
Write any four reasons of low participation of women in sports and games. 1

Question 8.
Define Aerodynamics? 1

Question 9.
Draw a chart of motor development during childhood. 1

Question 10.
What is friction and work? 1

Question 11.
What is flexibility? 1

Question 12.
Explain corrective measures of postural deformity? 3

Question 13.
Write the precaution and remedies of these deformities. 3
 Spinal curvature   • Flat foot     • Round

Question 14.
Describe type of disabilities and Disorder among children? 3

Question 15.
Define strength. Write all its types with examples. 3

Question 16.
Define strength. Write all its types with examples. 3

Question 17.
What is food supplement? Describe the precaution for taking food supplement. 3

Question 18.
List Different types of fractures? 3

Question 19.
Rajiv was a good athlete. He use to take part in most of the running as well as throwing events. However his performance was not appropriate in throwing events. One day he went to discuss this problem to Distt. Athletic coach because he wanted to improve his performance. The coach watched his throwing technique. He told him that there are various faults but major fault was improper muscle involvement and angle of projection. He suggested him to release the throwing implement such as shot and hammer etc. at the appropriate angles and focused on specific muscles involved in throwing. In this way he helped him in enhancing his performance. Based on the above passage answer the following questions: 1+I+1=3
(i) Problems identified by coach.
(ii) What were the focus muscle of Rajiv considered by the coach regarding his technique?
(iii) Describe the values shown by the District Athletic Coach

Question 20.
• Draw a fixture of 21 teams on knock out basis. 1+1+1+2 = 5
• Draw a fixture of 6 teams on cyclic method.
• Draw a fixture of 7 teams on staircase method
• How many types of tournament are there? Name them. Write their 2 advantages and disadvantages

Question 21.
Write short note on: 5
Menarch, Menstrual Dysfunction, Menopause.
Discuss any four psychological traits of women athlete.
It shows normal pattern of ovulation that will soon be established some activities delay it like gymnastics.

Question 22.
Describe Yoga as a preventive measure for obesity? 5

Question 23.
Explain personality dimensions and types in detail. 5

Question 24.
Describe any four psychological benefits of exercise. Explain types of motivation and 5 techniques of motivation. 5

Question 25.
Explain the Harvard Step Test. 5

Question 26.
How you can manage all types of sports injuries. Write in details. 5

Answers.

Answer 1.
Plane – It is the surface on which the movement occurs or takes place.
Axis – It is the line around which the movement takes place.

Answer 2.
Bye – Bye is used in making fixtures of a tournament. The team which is placed in ‘bye’ does not play in the first round but plays with the winner of the first round. It is also called dummy team.
Tournament – It is that series of sports in which a team finally wins and rest of the teams lose the matches

Answer 3.
Anxiety – It is a psychological phenomenon in which our body’s primitive and automatic response that prepares it to fight from perceived harm or attack.
Stress – it is normally a physical response to events that make you feel threatened or upset your balance in some way.

Answer 4.
The arrangement of the body and its limbs is known as posture.
Correct posture is a position in which the skeleton is held in erect position that is mechanically most favourable for transmission of body weight.

Answer 5.
The factors affecting projectiles trajectory are:
(i) Angle of projection – when the angle of projection is 45 degrees, the maximum horizontal distance is achieved.
(ii) Initial velocity – greater the initial velocity applied, greater the distance achieved.
(iii) Gravity – it accelerates objects downwards but is unable to affect horizontal motion of projectile.
(iv) Air resistance – the speed is slowed down by air resistance.

Answer 6.
The aim of sports medicine is to provide information .and knowledge about sports injuries, their causes, prevention and their rehabilitation

Answer 7.
(i) No parental encouragement
(ii)) Less motivation and inspiration
(iii) Less availability of women coach
(iv) No independent games facilities for women

Answer 8.
Aerodynamics is the science of Study of motion of air, particularly its interaction with a solid object such as an airplane wing.

Answer 9.

Answer 10.
Friction – it is the electromagnetic attraction between charged particles in two touching surfaces.
The forces acting along the two surface in contact which opposes the motion of one body over the other is called force of friction.
Work – it is the product of displacement of the body and force which causes that displacement in the direction of the displacement.
W = F x d, SI unit of work is Joule.

Answer 11.
It is the range of motion in a joint or group of joints or ability to move joints effectively. Maximum range of movement of joints.

Answer 12.
Correct measures of postural deformity:

• Most often, people with a mild curve will only need to be observed through screening by a medical practitioner.
• Exercise for muscle strength, flexibility and movement alignment are very effective.
• If the curve grows worse, a back brace may be worn until bone growth stops. Special exercises may be included. The brace dose not limit most activities
• In extreme cases, spinal surgery is performed to correct the curvature.
  If not treated what might happen?
• Medical problems can occur later in life such as
• Physical deformity • Heart and lung disorders • Pain and arthritic symptoms
  Process of screening:
• A simple 30-second observation of the back: first standing, then bending forward
• Screeners look for an unevenness of shoulders, hips, or one side of the back
• Shirts are removed for better viewing. Boys and girls are screened separately. Girls wear a two-piece bathing suit or a halter-top and shorts.
• Screening is usually done in the privacy of the school nurse’s office yearly.
• The school does not provide treatment, but can direct those who should have further attention to appropriate medical help.

Answer 13.
Spinal Curvature – Precautions:

• We should follow the appropriate posture of sitting, standing, walking and running.
• We should not carry heavy weights.
• Balanced diet should be taken.

Remedies:

• For scoliosis, bending exercises should be performed in appropriate side.
• Don’t carry heavy weights in one hand.
• For lordosis we should perform halasana and sit-ups
• For kyphosis, we should perform dhanurasana and chakrasana etc.

Flat foot – Precautions:

• Don’t not force the babies to walk at an early stage,
• Obesity should be avoided.
• Don’t walk bare feet.
• High heeled shoes should be avoid.

Remedies:

• Do rope skipping
• Jumping on toes
• Special shoes should be worn
• Perform tadasana or walk on toes

Round shoulders – Precautions:

• Bent position should be avoided in any work.
• Don’t wear tight fitting clothes Remedies:
• Hold the horizontal bar by both hands
• Do dhanurasana and chakrasana

Answer 14.
Types of Disabilities:

• A physical disability is a limitation on a person’s physical functioning and mobility. Other
  physical include impairments which limit other facets of daily living
• Cognitive disabilities
• In order for students to be diagnosed with a cognitive disability, they must have impairments in intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior. Additionally, the symptoms must be present before a child becomes 18 years old.
• Intellectual functioning refers to a person’s ability to plan, comprehend, and reason. A child’s intellectual functioning can be assessed by an intelligence test. The most common intelligence test that you’ve probably heard of is the IQ test. Generally, a child with scores of 70-75 or lower is classified as having a cognitive disability.
• Adaptive behavior refers to an individual’s ability to apply social and practical skills in everyday life. Examples of adaptive behavior can include personal care, social problem,solving skills, dressing and eating skills, using money, and following rules.

Types of Disorders:

• Disorder is the disturbance which affects the normal functions that is performed by an individual.
• ADHD – Attention deficit hyper disorder
• ASD – Autism spectrum disorder
• SPD – Sensory processing disorder
• ODD
• Down syndrome(Syndrome)
• Cerebral palsy
• Learning disorder

Answer 15.
It is the capacity of the whole body or of any parts to exert force.
Strength, Dynamic strength – maximum strength, explosive strength, strength endurance Static strength

Answer 16.

• Increase in the size of heart
• Increase in cardiac output
• Increase in blood flow
• Quicker recovery rate
• Decrease in blood pressure
• Increase in stroke volume
• Avoid second wind
• Increase in the size of lungs and chest
• Increase in the number of WBC
• Increase in the number of RBC
• Delay in fatigue
• Fast recovery period

Answer 17.
It can add missing nutrient to a diet. It is the source of nutrients taken as a dietary top up. These are vitamins, minerals, herbs and other products.
Precautions:

• All food supplements can cause adverse effects if they are consumed in excessive amounts. So take in right amount.
• Any food supplements should be consumed under strict guidance of dietician
• If any nutrients are lacking, you must consult the doctor.
• Before taking food supplement, make sure they are pure and of good quality.
• You should have proper time-table of consuming,the supplement otherwise it could be harmful

Answer 18.
Types of Fracture:
(i) Close Fracture –

• Transverse Fracture: Broken at right angle to long axis of bone
• Oblique: Oblique direction to long axis, confined to one plane .A fracture in which the line of break runs obliquely to the axis of the bone.
• Spiral Fracture: Occur when one end of an extremity is fixed (e.g., a foot is planted on the floor) but the rest of the extremity remains in motion.
• Comminute Fracture: A fracture in which the bone has broken or fragmented into several pieces. It happens mostly due to crush.
• Impact Fracture: An impacted fracture is one whose ends are driven into each other.
• Green Sticks: fracture in a young, soft bone in which the bone bends and partially

(ii) Open Fracture:

• Compound Fracture: An open fracture, also called a compound fracture, is an injury that occurs when there is a break in the skin around a broken bone. In order for an injury to be classified as a compound fracture, the outside air (and dirt and bacteria) must be able to get to the fracture site without a barrier of skin or soft-tissue.

Answer 19.

1. Angle of projection – Improper muscle involvement
2. Preparatory Phase: Posterior deltoids and latissimus, Triceps Brachii.
   Throwing Phase: Anterior Deltoid
3. Analytical Skills and Scientific concept

Answer 20.

• Fixture of 21 teams on knock out basis:
  No. of teams = 21
  No. of byes = 32-21 = 11
  No. of teams in upper half
  (N + l)/2 = (21 + l)/2 =11
  No. of teams in lower half
  (N – l)/2 = (21 – l)/2 = 10
  No. of byes in upper half
  (NB – l)/2 = (11-1)/2 = 5
  No. of byes in lower half
  (NB + l)/2 = (11 + l)/2 = 6
  No. of matches = N-1=21-1=20
  No. of rounds = 5
  
• Draw a fixture of 6 teams on cyclic method:
  No. of teams = 6
  No. of matches = N (N – 1 )/2 = 6 (6- l)/2 = 15
  No. of rounds = N – 1 = 6-1=5
  In even number we fix (1)

  1st round	2nd R	3rd R	4th R	5th R
  6        ->     1 5       ->     2 4        -»     3	5               1 4                5 3                6	4                1 3                5 2                6	3                1 2                4 6                5	2               1 6                3 5                4

   

• Draw fixture of 7 teams on staircase method:
  No. of teams = 7
  No. of matches = N(N – l)/2 = 7(7 – l)/2 = 21
  No. of rounds = 6

  Round 1
  1-2	2 R
  1-3	2-3	3 R
  1-4	2-4	3-4	4 R
  1-5	2-5	3-5	4-5	5 R
  1-6	2-6	3-6	4-6	5-6	6 R
  1-7	2-7	3-7	4-7	5-7	6-7

   

• Four types of tournaments:
  (i) League or round robin tournament
  (ii) Knock out tournament
  (iii) Combination tournament
  (iv) Challenge tournament
  
  
• Advantages – League:
  • Equal opportunities to each team
  • Greater chances of the better team to win.
• Knock out:
  (i) Less time
  (ii) Less money
• Combination:
  • According to number of teams you can apply this method
  • If less teams, you can use league. If more teams, you can apply knock out cum league
  Challenge:
  • It is good for individual or 2 team players • One player can challenge another player
• Disadvantages – League:
  • More time consuming
  • Not economical
• Knock out:
  • Weak teams may reach the finals.
  • Chances of good teams eliminating in the first round
• Combination:
  • Before starting tournament you cannot announce which type of combination tournament you apply
• Challenge:
  • It is not used in all games
  • It is difficult to apply in all sports.

Answer 21.

• Menarch – It is the first menstrual cycle or first menstrual bleeding in female. The average age of the first cycle from 11 to 14 years.
  Menstrual dysfunction – A menstrual disorder is an irregular condition of a women’s menstrual cycle. It mostly occurs every 22 to 35 days. Its flow lasts 3 to 7 days.
• Eumenorrhea – normal bleeding menstrual function.
• Oligomenorrhea – abnormally infrequent menstrual periods. Woman goes more than 35 days without menstruating.
• A menorrhoea absentee of menstruation
• Menopause – It is the time when menstrual periods stop. It generally comes between 45 to 55 years. The main effect is that women cannot become pregnant

Four psychological traits of women athlete:

1. She uses more of emotion focussed coping strategies and balances gender role.
2. The female athlete shows a higher amount of role conflict than male.
3. Women become psychologically tough by participating in games and sports.
4. Confidence level improve by taking part in sports.

Answer 22.
Obesity is a medical condition in which excess body fat gets accumulated to the extent that it has a negative effect on the body. Through yoga it can be prevented by performing various asanas:

• Vajrasana – Soles are kept on hips and thighs on legs. Toe and knees should not touch the floor. Spine straight, eyes close. Right palm on right knee, left palm on left knee. Inhale and exhale slowly. In beginning, do it for 5 min, gradually increase till 15 min.
• Hastasansa – Standing with feets together and arms by side like mountain pose. Weight evenly. Keep the legs straight. Slowly raise arms upward, straight. Palms -straight head facing one another. Look upwards.
• Trikonasana – Stand with feet one leg length apart, knees straight. Turn right foot outside , left foot less than 45 degree to inside, both heels must be in line with the hips. Spread out arms to sides parallel to the floor keeping palm facing down, extend the trunk as far as comfortable towards the right. Drop right arm so that right hand reaches the front of the right foot. Extend left arm vertically, twist spine and trunk softly clockwise by using extended arms as lever . Turn the head at left thumb resulting in slightly intensifying the spinal twist. Held for 5-10 breaths then change side.
• Ardha Matsyendra – Kneel down with legs together. Resting on heels. Sit at the right of your feet. Lift left leg over the right and place the foot against the outside of right knee. Bring right heel close to hips, spine must remain erect. Stretch arms to sides at shoulder level, then twist them to left side. Bring right arm down to outside of left knee and hold left foot in right hand by placing left hand on floor behind. Exhaling, twist to the left s far as possible. Look over left shoulder.

Answer 23.
Dimensions of personality:

• Physical dimension – It is related to good physique and good health. It is the collection or an integrated image of various dimensions. Correct posture also improves physical personality. Those having good physical personality are liked by everyone in the society.
• Mental dimension – It is related to mind, intellectual strength and individual’s ability, if a person does not have good mental ability then he cannot contribute to the society and family. Such dimension involves good thinking, gdod reasoning and judgemental ability.
• Social dimension – A person cannot live alone. He gets from the society, good behavioural patterns, customs, traditions, manners and moral values etc. He learns team work, becomes a good follower and a good leader. It teaches person to walk on the right path of life
• Emotional dimension – If a person has proper control over various emotions such as fear, anger, ditress, happiness, sorrow, joy etc., in any situation then he can become a good citizen. Through sports one should be emotionally stable. It also helps to improve personality.

Types of personality: Four types A, B, C and D –

• Type A personality – the individuals are self-critical, very competitive, hardworking, sense of urgency, works on time, impatient very early, aggressive and work by whole heart
• Type B – individuals are not competitive in nature, easy going, do not become angry, not over achievers and over ambitious, and are quite satisfied in their lives.
• Type C – individuals have pleasing personality, never express their emotions, passive hopeless, they feel alone and deny their own needs.
• Type D – such personality individuals suffer from high degree of distress, don’t share their emotions, have a fear of rejection, they lead a poor quality of life.

Answer 24.
Psychological benefits of exercise:

• Help athletes cope with performance fear
• Help athletes mentally prepare for competition
• Help athletes return after injury
• Help athletes improve practice efficiency

Sports psychologist can help athletes overcome fears, such as, fears of failure. It also helps the athletes mentally prepare for competition and practice. It also helps to improve the quality or efficiency of their practice, its helps to enhance self-esteem and body image.
Types of motivation:

• Intrinsic motivation – It is internal motivation. It occurs when person are compelled to do something out of pleasure. It comes by oneself.
• Extrinsic motivation – It is external motivation. It occurs when external factors compel the person to do something. E.g., rewards, praise, cash prize, etc.

Techniques of motivation:

• Praise, appreciation, criticism • Role of media and positive attitude
• Records of success and achievements • Healthy sports environment
• Presence of opposite sex and motivational music

A combination of techniques can have positive effect. It is very difficult for the teacher or coach to apply technique on an individual. A good technique selection is also very important for motivation.

Answer 25.
Harvard step Fest was developed by Brouha and his associates in 1943. Purpose of this test is to measure cardiovascular fitness.
Procedure – The athlete is instructed to step up and down on the platform at a rate of 30 steps per minute for 5 minutes or until exhaustion occurs. The exhaustion is defined as when the athlete cannot maintain the stepping rate for 15 seconds and this can be administered by metronome. After the completion of stepping, the athlete is advised to step down. After this heart rate is measured between 1 to 1.5 minutes after finishing. The heart rate is the number of times the heart beats per minute. The heart rate can be measured by the method given ahead.
(i) Manual Method – the heart rate can be measured from any spot on the body at which any artery is closed to the surface so that a pulse can be felt. The most common place for measuring the heart rate is wrist and neck.
(ii) Monitor Method – a heart rate monitor or electro cardiogram can be used to measure more accurate heart rate. A heart rate monitor consists of a transmitter and receiver. The heart muscles transmit an electoral signal when they contract. The transmitter then sends an electromagnetic signal containing heart rate data to the wrist receiver which displays the heart rate.
(a) Short Form – In this, only heart rate is counted from 1-1.5 minutes after finishing.
(b) Long Form – In this, the heart rate is counted three times. Firstly from 1 to 1.5 minutes then between 2 to 2.5 minutes, and between 3 to 3.5 minutes.

Scoring:

• Fitness Index For Short Form = (100 x test duration in seconds) divided by (5.5 x pulse count between 1 and 1.5 minutes).
• Fitness Index For Long Form = (100 x test duration in seconds) divided by (2 x sum of heart beats in the recovery periods).
  Example of scoring fitness index:
  The test was conducted for an individual and following readings were recorded:-
  Total duration of stepping 300 seconds
  1-1.5 minutes = 95
  2- 2.5 minutes = 85
  3- 3.5 minutes = 75

1. Short form fitness score
   FI Score = (100×300)/(5.5×95) = 57.4
2. Long form fitness score
   FI Score = (100×300)/2(95 + 85 + 75) = 58.8
   Then by using following table the cardiovascular fitness is determined:

   Gender	Excellent	Above average	Average	Below average	Poor
   Male	Greater than 90	80-90	65-79	55-64	Less than 55
   Female	Greater than 86	76-86	61-75	50-60	Less than 50

Answer 26.
Sports injuries occur under various circumstances. The frequency and severity depends on particular game.

(i) Management of Abraision, Contusion and Laceration/Incision:
These injuries can be prevented by using protective equipment. The treatment should begin with washing the wound immediately with soap and water. A cotton gauze rinsed with antiseptic lotion can be used to remove any piece of loose debris from the wound. After drying it apply antibiotic ointment. Bandage the area if the wound is still bleeding.
(ii) Management of Strain and Sprain:
It can be prevented by warming up and conditioning. Taping, knee caps, crape bandage can be helpful in preventing strain and sprain. The injured part should be elevated in the most comfortable position. The affected part should not be disturbed. An ice pack should be applied to affect joint or muscle to minimize the swelling. The ice must be applied for 20 minutes 6-10 times in first 24 hours. Next day heat and massage is given to absorb the clot.
(iii) Management of Dislocation:

• Reduction – During this process, the doctor may try some gentle movements around the affected joint to help the bones back into position. In case of severe pain local anesthetic procedures are adopted.
• Immobilization – After getting the bones at normal position, the bones should be immobilized with a splint or sling for several weeks. The time for which splint or sling is to be used depends upon extent of damage to nerves, blood vessels and supporting tissues.
• Surgery – If reduction is not able to settle the joint then surgical technique can be used to move dislocated bones back into their correct positions. Even in case of ruptured nearby blood vessels, nerves or ligaments surgery is required.
• Rehabilitation – Rehabilitation process is started after the splint or sling is removed. For the dislocated joint the rehabilitation exercises should be designed in such a way the gradual load is given. The aim of rehabilitation is to restore normal range of motion and strength around the joint.

(iv) Management Of Fractures:

• First Aid for Closed Fracture – The injured part can be immobilized with the help of splint or sling as per the site.
• First Aid for Open Fracture – In open fracture, the open wound must be covered by sterile gauze or dressing. The compression and elevation is given to control the bleeding. The splint is given to immobilize the injured part.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 1 for Class 12 Political Science Paper 1 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 1.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 1

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 1 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions :

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions nos. 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 20 words
3. Questions nos. 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words
4. Questions nos. 11 to 16 are of 4 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 100 words
5. Questions nos. 17 to 21 are of 5 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 150 words
6. Questions no. 21 is map based question
7. Questions nos. 22 to 27 are of 6 marks each. The answer to these questions should not i exceed 150 words

Question 1.
Mention the period of First and Second World Wars.

Question 2.
Why is it said that the fall of Berlin Wall signified the end of bipolarity?

Question 3.
What is global poverty?

Question 4.
Why were the states reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 1956?

Question 5.
When and by whom was the Institutional Revolutionary Party (PRI) founded?

Question 6.
When and why did the New World Order begin?

Question 7.
Mention any two steps taken by China to improve its economy.

Question 8.
What is Indus River Water Treaty? Mention its significance also.

Question 9.
Who was J.C. Kumarappa?

Question 10.
What was Afro-Asian unity?

Question 11.
What was 9/11 event? How did the US respond to it?

Question 12.
In what ways does the present Chinese economy differ from its command economy?

Question 13.
India’s neighbours often think that the Indian government tries to dominate and interfere in the domestic affairs of the smaller
countries of the region. Is this a correct impression?

Question 14.
What was the task of the States Reorganisation Commission? What was its most salient recommendation?

Question 15.
In what sense was the Congress an ideological coalition ? Mention the various ideological currents present within the Congress.

Question 16.
What was the major thrust of the First Five Year Plan? In which ways did the Second Plan differ from the first one?

Question 17.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The Western alliance was formalised into an organisation, the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO), which came into existence in April 1949. It was an association of twelve states which declared that armed attack on any one of them would be regarded as an attack on all of them. Each of these states would be obliged to help each other. The eastern alliance known as the Warsaw Pact was led by Soviet Union, created in 1955 and its principal function was to counter NATO’s forces in Europe.
(i) What does NATO stand for?
(ii) What was NATO’s policy?
(iii) What was Warsaw Pact?
(iv) Mention the main function of Warsaw Pact.

Question 18.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions:
In eastern Europe, Czechoslovakia split peacefully into two, with the Czechs and the Slovaks forming independent countries. But the most severe conflict took place in the Balkan republics of Yugoslavia. After 1991, it broke apart with several provinces like Croatia, Slovenia and Bosnia and Herzegovina declaring independence. Ethnic Serbs opposed this, and a massacre of non-Serb Bosnians followed. The NATO intervention and the bombing of Yugoslavia followed inter- ethnic civil war.
(a) In Eastern Europe which republic split into two?
(b) Name the republic/place where severe conflict took place.
(c) Name various provinces with which Yugoslavia had been broken in 1991.
(d) Which incidents resulted into inter-ethnic civil war?

Question 19.
Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:
(i) What message does the cartoon convey?
(ii) Name the person who is making efforts to balance both the sectors.
(iii) How was both these sectors balanced?

Question 20.
Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions:
ASEAN was and still remains principally an economic association. While the ASEAN region as a whole is a much smaller economy compared to the US the EU, and Japan, its economy is growing much faster than all these. This accounts for the growth in its influence both in the region and beyond. The objectives of the ASEAN Economic Community are to create a common market and production base within ASEAN States and to aid social and economic development in the region. The Economic Community would also like to improve the existing ASEAN Dispute Settlement Mechanism to resolve economic disputes. ASEAN has focused on creating a Free Trade Area (FTA) for investment, labour, and services. The US and China have already moved fast to negotiate FT As with ASEAN.
(i) What is the objective of ASEAN Economic Community?
(ii) Why did ASEAN establish Free Trade Areas (FTAs)?
(iii) How would ASEAN Economic Community resolve economic disputes?
(iv) Which countries have already moved fast to negotiate FTAs with ASEAN and why?

Question 21.
On a political outline map of the world, locate and label the following and symbolise them as indicated:

(i) The country that Iraq invaded in Aug. 1990.
(ii) The country under the Presidentship of Saddam Hussain.
(iii) The country referred to as a hegemonic power.
(iv) The Operation Infinite Reach was launched against these countries.

Question 22.
Examine the role played by India in the implementation of UN policies and programmes.
OR
Give a comparative analysis of Indian expenditure on traditional and non-traditional security.

Question 23.
What is meant by ‘Common but differentiated responsibilities’? How could we implement the idea?
OR
Critically evaluate the impact of the changing role of state in the developing countries in the light of globalisation ?

Question 24.
Describe the relationship of India with post-Communist countries.
OR
What are the constraints on American hegemony today? Which one of these do you expect to get more important in the future ?

Question 25.
Highlight the role of Pt. Nehru in
(i) Setting the national agenda.
(ii) Afro-Asian unity
OR
What were the factors which led to the popularity of Indira Gandhi’s Government in the ’ early 1970 s ?

Question 26.
The Shah Commission was appointed in 1977 by the Janata Party Government. Why was it appointed and what were its findings?
OR
What are popular movements? Explain any three issues related to women which brought social awareness amongst them.

Question 27.
What were the main provisions of the Punjab accord? In what way can they be the basis for further tensions between the Punjab and its neighboring States?
OR
Analyse India’s changing relationship with Russia post and communist countries.

Answers

Answer 1.
First World War: 1914-1918
Second World War: 1939-1945

Answer 2.
The collapse of Berlin Wall in 1989 is considered as the end of bipolarity as it was a symbol
of Cold War. Fall of Berlin Wall was followed by those events that led to the end of the Cold War.

Answer 3.
Global poverty signifies a condition available in the states to be suffered from low incomes and less economic growth i.e. developing or underdeveloped countries.

Answer 4.
States were reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 1956 to maintain unity and integrity of the nation to avoid violence and conflicts among the people.

Answer 5.
The Institutional Revolutionary Party (PRI) was founded in 1929 by Plutareo Elias Calles
in Mexico which represented the legacy of Mexican Revolution.

Answer 6.
The New World Order began in 1991 after the collapse of Soviet Union. The world was left
only with single superpower i.e. the US and came to be known as the US hegemony to show the superiority of its military power. The US hegemony also shaped world economy and emerged in the form of military domination, economic order, political clout and cultural superiority.

Answer 7.
(i) Special Economic Zones (SEZs) were created to invite foreign investors to set up their own enterprises.
(ii) The privatisation of agriculture and industry in 1982 and 1998.

Answer 8.
India and Pakistafi signed Indus River Water Treaty by the mediation of the World Bank in 1960 over the issue of sharing of rivers of the Indus basin. This treaty has been survived despite many military conflicts between these two countries.

Answer 9.
(i) J.C. Kumarappa was originally known as J.C. Cornelius. k
(ii) He was an economist and chartered accountant.
(iii) He was the follower of Mahatma Gandhi to apply Gandhian principles of economic policies.

Answer 10.
Bandung Conference was held in 1955 in Indonesia as an Afro-Asian conference to lead an establishment of NAM. It was held to mark the engagement of India with African and Asian nations known as Afro-Asian unity.

Answer 11.
9/11 event implies a series of attacks on the US by hijackers from Arab countries on 11
September 2001. It was the most disastrous attack on the US. The hijackers attacked on i important US building such as World Trade Centre in New York, Pentagon building and Capital building of US Congress in Pennsylvania.

The US responded to it by launching ‘Operation Enduring Freedom’ to arrest all those who were suspected to be behind this attack. The US forces made arrest all over the i world without the knowledge of the government of the persons being arrested, transported and detained them in secret prisons mainly against Al-Qaeda and Taliban regime in Afghanistan.

Answer 12.
The present Chinese economy has adopted the ‘open door policy’ to generate higher productivity by investments of capital and technology. It differed from its command economy in the following manner:
(i) It broke stagnancy of command economy.
(ii) Command economy lagged behind the industrial production but Chinese economy recovered it by privatisation of agriculture and industry.
(iii) The present Chinese economy established new trading laws and created Special Economic Zones leading higher rise in foreign trade. During Command economy the international trade was minimal and per capita income was very low.

Answer 13.
No, the impression is not correct because India makes efforts to manage its neighbours beyond its size and powers which can be justified on following grounds-
(i) India often feels exploited by its neighbours.
(ii) On the other hand, India’s neighbours fear that India wants to dominate them regionally but India is centrally located who shares borders with other countries geographically, which should be accepted on mutual understanding.
(iii) India avoids political instability in its neighbouring states so that outsiders shold not take advantage of influence in the region.

Answer 14.
The States Reorganisation Commission was set up in 1953 by Central Government to look into the matter of redrawing of boundaries of state:
(i) The Commission evolved that states’ boundaries should reflect the boundaries of different languages to accommodate linguistic diversity.
(ii) The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 which resulted the creation of 14 states and 6 union territories.
(iii) Its most salient recommendation was the formation of linguistic states i.e. to reorganise states on the basis of accommodation of their languages to prepare a uniform base for the nation.

Answer 15.
The Congress Party became a social and ideological coalition for it merged different social groups along with their identity holding different beliefs:
(i) It accommodated the revolutionary, conservative, pacifist, radical, extremist and moderates and the rights and the left with all other shades of the centre.
(ii) The Congress became a platform for numerous groups, interests and even political parties to take part in the national movement.
Ideological currents present within the Congress:
(a) In pre-Independence days, many organisations and parties with their own Constitutions and organisational structures were allowed to exist within the Congress.
(b) Some of these like “Congress Socialist Party” later seperated from the Congress and became an opposition party.

Answer 16.
The First Five Year Plan was commenced in 1951 to be drafted by young economist K.N. Roy with the emphasis on poverty alleviation. Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India presented this to the Parliament of India. Its main thrusts were as follows:

• To invest in dams and irrigation to improve agricultural sector with the urgent attention.
• Huge allocations were made for large scale projects like Bhakra-Nangal dam.
• It focused on land reforms for the development in rural areas.
• It aimed to increase level of national income.

The First Five Year plan differed from the Second Five Year plan:
(a) The Second Five Year Plan stressed on heavy industrialisation.
(b) It wanted to bring quick structural transformation in all possible directions in place of slow and steady growth like First Five Year Plan.

Answer 17.

• NATO stands for North Atlantic Treaty Organisation.
• NATO was an association of twelve states which declared that armed attack on any one of them would be regarded as an attack on all of them and each of them would be obliged to help each other.
• Warsaw Pact was eastern alliance led by Soviet Union, created in 1955.
• Main function of Warsaw Pact was to counter NATO’s forces in Europe.

Answer 18.
(a) Czechoslovakia split into two with Czechs and Slovaks.
(6) Balkan republics of Yugoslavia.
(c) Croatia, Slovenia, Bosnia and Herzegovina.
(d)
(i) Ethnic Serbs opposed the breaking up of several provinces independently following a massacre of non-serb Bosnians.
(ii) NATO intervention and bombing on Yugoslavia.

Answer 19.

1. Cartoon is trying to make balance between the private and public sectors to maintain the growth of an economy adopted by India.
2. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru, the then Prime Minister of India.
3. Pt. Nehru made a*balance between both the sectors by adopting the model of mixed economy to co-exist the private and public sector.

Answer 20.

1. To create common market and production based activities within ASEAN states itself and to aid social and economic development.
2. Free Trade Areas have been established for investment, labour and services.
3. By improving the existing ASEAN Dispute Settlement Mechanism.
4. ASEAN is rapidly growing into areas of regional organisation with its Vision 2020.

Answer 21.

• Kuwait (A).
• Iraq (B).
• The USA (C).
• Afghanistan and Sudan (D) and (E).

Answer 22.

1. India believes that a strengthened and revitalised UN is desirable in the changing world.
2. India also supports an enhanced role for the UN in promoting development and cooperation among states.
3. India believes that the development should be central to the UN’s agenda as it is a vital precondition for the maintenance of international peace and security.
4. India debates more representation in Security Council may enjoy greater support in world community.
5. India has major concern about restructuring of UN Security Council.
6. India supports the role of developing countries should be represented in Security Council in decision making.

OR

India spends more on traditional security than non-traditional because

1. India has been involved in conflict with its neighbours as Pakistan in 1947-48, 1965, 1971 and 1999 and China in 1962.
2. In South Asian region, India is surrounded by nuclear armed countries. Hence, India’s decision to conduct nuclear test in 1990 was justified to safeguard national security.
3. India conducted its first nuclear detonation on 18 May 1974.

Though India has made efforts to develop its economy and an individual’s security from poverty but still it is lagging behind even now and we are supposed to make more efforts.

Answer 23.
Common but differentiated responsibilities mean that the state shall cooperate in the spirit of global partnership to conserve, protect and restore the health and integrity of the .earth’s ecosystem. As the states have common but differentiated responsibilities over various contributions of global environmental degradation. The developed countries acknowledge that the responsibility that they bear in the international pursuit of sustainable development in view of the pressures their societies place on the global environment and of the technological and financial resources they command.

We could implement the idea with the help of conventions and declarations:

1. The Rio-Summit held in June 1992 produced conventions dealing with climate change, biodiversity, forestry and recommended a list of developed practices called Agenda 21.
2. The 1992 United Nations Framework convention on climatic change (UNFCCC) also emphasised that the parties should act to protect the climate system on the basis of common but differentiated responsibilities.
3. An international agreement known as Kyoto Protocol set targets for industrialised countries to cut their greenhouse gas emissions which support for global warming.

OR

The impact of changing role of state in the developing countries in the light of globalisation can be summed up as follows:

1. Globalisation reduces the state capacity i.e. the ability of governments to do what they do.
2. Market becomes the prime concern to set down economic and social priorities.
3. Multinational companies effect on the decisions taken by government because their own interest fulfillment also depends on government policies.
4. The old welfare state is now giving way to more minimalist state to perform certain core functions as maintenance of law and order and the security.
5. State also withdraws from many of its welfare functions taken place at the level of
   economic and social well-being. .
6. To some extent developing countries have received a boost as a result of globalisation and became more strong and powerful clue to emergence of new technology.

Answer 24.
India has maintained good relations with all the post-communist countries, but the strongest relations are still those between Russia and India.

1. Indo-Russian relations are a significant aspect of India’s foreign policy. Their relations are embedded in history of trust and common interests and are matched by popular perceptions. For example, Indian heroes from Raj Kapoor to Amitabh Bachchan are household names in Russia and many post-Soviet countries.
2. Russia and India share a vision of multipolar world order i.e. co-existence of several world powers internationally, collective security, greater regionalism, democratisation with the decision-making through bodies like the UN.
3. More than 80 bilateral agreements have been experienced between India and Russia as a part of the Indo-Russia Strategic Agreement of 2001.
4. India has been benefitted from its relationship on the issues like Kashmir, energy supplies, sharing information on international terrorism, access to Central Asia and balanoing its relation with China.
5. Russia is also important for India’s nuclear energy plan and assisting India’s space industry by giving cryogenic rocket to India whenever needed.
6. Co-operation with Russia and its republics like Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan in the form of partnership and investment in oil fields has also benefitted India.
7. Russia is also “benefitted from India on ground of the second largest arms market.
   Indian military gets most of its hardware from Russia.
8. Russia and India have collaborated on various scientific projects also.

OR

“We can identify three constraints on American Power” which were actually not in operation in the years following 9/11. Hence, the US could establish its hegemony. Recently all these constraints are slowly beginning to operate in the following ways:

1. The US bears institutional architecture in the American State itself. It refers division of powers between the three branches of government where American military’s executive branch can place significant brakes upon the unrestrained and immoderate exercise.
2. The second constraint on American hegemony emerges from open nature of American society. American society and suffering from a deep skepticism towards purposes and methods of government in America despite an imposition of particular perspectives on domestic opinion in the US. This is a huge constraint on US military action overseas.
3. The third constraint on US hegemony is the possession of NATO to moderate the exercise of the US hegemony today. The US has an enormous interest in keeping the alliance of democracies to follow the market economies alive and it may be possible to its allies in NATO to moderate the exercise of the US hegemony through their own i liberal policies to fullfiel their own ends.

Answer 25.
1. Role of Pt. Nehru in setting the national agenda :
As the Prime Minister and Foreign Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru exercised profound influence in the formulation and implementation of India’s foreign policy from 1946 to 1964. The three major objectives of Nehru’s foreign policy were to preserve the . hard-earned sovereignty. Protect territorial integrity, and promote rapid economic development. Nehru wished to achieve these objectives through the strategy of non-alignment. There were, of course; Parties and groups in the country.
2. Role of Pt. Nehru in Afro-Asian unity :
Jawaharlal Nehru envisaged a crucial role for India in world affairs and in Asian _ affairs especially. His era was marked by the establishment of contacts between India and other newly independent states in Asia and Africa. Throughout the 1940s and 1950s, Nehru had been an ardent advocate of Asian unity. Under his leadership, India convened the Asian Relations Conference in march 1947, five months ahead of attaining its independence, and made earnest efforts for the early realisation of freedom of Indonesia from the Dutch colonial regime by convening an international conference in 1949 to support its freedom struggle.

OR

Because :

1. Socialist credentials became main projects during this period.
2. Indira Gandhi campaigned to implement land reform legislations and land ceiling legislations.
3. She ended her dependence on other political parties by strengthening her party’s position and recommended the dissolution of the LokSabha in December 1970.
4. The crisis in East Pakistan and Indo-Pak war to establish Bangladesh as an independent one, also enhanced the popularity of Indira Gandhi.
5. Indira Gandhi’s government was not accepted only as a protector of the poor and underprivileged but as a strong government also.
6. Congress became popular among different social sections and restored dominance again.

Answer 26.
The Shah Commission was appointed in May 1977 by Janata Party government which was headed by J.C. Shah, retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India to look into the matters of:

• Allegations of abuse of authority
• Excesses and malpractices
• Actions taken in the name of emergency proclaimed on 25 June 1975.

The Commission performed to examine various evidences to give testimonies even including Indira Gandhi to appear before Commission, but she refused to answer any questions.
Findings of Shah Commission :
(a) It found many ‘excesses’ committed during Emergency.
(b) Under preventive detention laws nearly one lakh eleven thousand people were arrested.
(c) Press censorship took place without any proper legal sanctions.
(d) Even general manager of Delhi Power Supply Corporation received verbal orders from the officers of the Lt. Governor of Delhi to cut electricity to all newspapers press at 2 a.m. on 26 June 1975.

The Government of India accepted the findings, observation and recommendations contained the two interim reports and their and final report of the Shah Commission. The reports were also tabled in the two houses of Parliament.

OR

Popular movements are the movements organised by dalits and farmers under the banner of various social organisations to voice their demands.
Issues related to women which brought social awareness among them:

1. Chipko movement spread across many parts of Uttarakhand and larger issues of ecological and economic exploitation were also raised. Government issued a ban on felling of tress in Himalayan region for fifteen years until green cover was fully restored. Active participation of women was also a very novel aspect of the movement.
2. Anti-arrack movement was the movement of rural women in Andhra Pradesh to protest against alcoholism, mafias and government. This movement focused on issues of sexual violence against women either within family or outside. Women joined the campaign against dowry and demanded personal and property laws based on gender  equality. These campaigns contributed a great deal in increasing social awareness as well as shifted from legal reforms to open social confrontations.
3. Throughout seventies and eighties, local fish workers’ organisations fought with the State governments over the issues of their livelihood. Fisheries being a State subject, the fish workers were mostly mobilised at the regional level. With the coming of policies of economic liberalisation in and around the mid eighties, these organisations were compelled to come together on a national level platform-the National Fishworkers’ Forum (NFF). Fish workers from Kerala took the main responsibility of mobilising fellow workers, including women workers of other states.

Answer 27.
Punjab Accord was an agreement signed between the then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal, the then President of Akali Dal in 1985 to be known as ‘Rajiv Gandhi Longowal Accord’ also to create normalcy in Punjab:

• Chandigarh would be transferred to Punjab.
  
  Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal, signatories of Punjab Accord of 1985
• To appoint a separate commission to resolve border dispute between Punjab and Haryana.
• To set up a tribunal to settle down the sharing of Ravi-Beas river water among Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
• To provide agreement for compensation to better treatment to those affected by militancy in Punjab.
• To withdraw the Armed Forces Special Power Act in Punjab.

But, peace could not be established easily in Punjab and resulted as follows:
(a) It led to many excesses by police and violation of human rights.
(b) It fragmented the Akali Dal.
(c) The President’s rule was imposed and normal political process was suspended.
(d) Hence, political process could not be restored in this atmosphere. Even during elections in 1992, only 24% electors turned out to vote.

Consequently above mentioned added to tension between Punjab and its neighbouring states.

OR

India should not change its foreign policy and focus more on friendship with US, but India is required to maintain healthy relations with Russia because India has experienced a long band of mutual trust, interests and popular perceptions with Russia in the following
manner:

1. Russia and India share a vision of multipolar world order i.e. co-existence of several world powers internationally, collective security, greater regionalism, democratisation with the decision-making through bodies like the UN.
2. More than 80 bilateral agreements have been experienced between India and Russia as a part of the Indo-Russia Strategic Agreement of 2001.
3. India has been benefited from its relationship on the issues like Kashmir, energy supplies, sharing information on international terrorism, access to Central Asia and balancing its relation with China.
4. Russia is also important for India’s nuclear energy plan and assisting India’s space industry by giving cryogenic rocket to India whenever needed.
5. Co-operation with Russia and its republics like Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan in the form of partnership and investment in oil fields has also benefitted India.
6. Russia is also benefitted from India on ground of the second largest arms market for Russia. Indian military gets most of its hardware from Russia.
7. Russia and India have collaborated on various scientific projects also.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 1 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 1, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 4 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 4.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 4

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 4 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Economics is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time : 3 hrs
M.M.: 80

General Instructions

• All questions in both the sections A and B are compulsory. However, there is internal choice in questions of 3,4 and 6 marks.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short answer type questions, carrying 1 mark each.
  They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short answer I type questions, carrying 3 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 60 words each.
• Question Nos. 7-9 and 19-21 are short answer II type questions, carrying 4 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 100 words each.
• Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit be adhered to as far as possible.

Section – A

Question 1.
State the economic value achieved through the spread of education in the context of production potential.

Question 2.
Why is fixed cost curve parallel to X-axis?

Question 3.
The application of fixed factor can be changed during
(a) long period
(b) short period
(c) short as well as long period
(d) None of these

Question 4.
A businessman invests his savings in a business and employs professionals to manage business. Identify implicit cost here.

Question 5.
Find out Marginal Opportunity Cost (MOC) of good X in the following schedule and also comment on the probable shape of the production possibility curve.

Question 6.
Differentiate between normal goods and inferior goods?
Or
What do you understand by the rightward shift in the demand curve? Explain it with the help of an example and diagram.

Question 7.
What do you understand by price ceiling? Write its two major implications.
Or
Explain the impact on equilibrium price and quantity when
(i) Demand is perfectly elastic and supply falls.
(ii) Supply is perfectly inelastic and demand rises.

Question 8.
A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y both priced at ₹ 8 per unit. If the consumer chooses a combination of these two goods with marginal rate of substitution equal to 8, is the consumer is equilibrium? Give reasons. Also explain, what will a rational consumer do in this situation?

Question 9.
Draw Average Revenue (AR) and Marginal Revenue (MR) curves in a single diagram of a firm which can sell more units of a good only by lowering the price of that good. Explain.

Question 10.
Is a producer in equilibrium under the following situations?
(i) When Marginal Revenue (MR) is greater than Marginal Cost (MC).
(ii) When Marginal Revenue (MR) is equal to Marginal Cost (MC).
Give reasons for your answer.

Question 11.
Explain the different conditions in which a budget line can change. Ramjas always tries to buy that basket of goods which lies on his budget line. Identify the economic value.

Question 12.
What do you understand by product differentiation? Also, explain the implications of feature product differentiation in monopolistic market.
Or
At a given price of a commodity there is ‘excess supply’. Is this the equilibrium price? If not, how will the equilibrium price be reached?

Section – B

Question 13.
What is meant by fiscal discipline?

Question 14.
Write one implication of revenue deficit of the government.

Question 15.
Which of the following systems is followed by Reserve Bank of India for issuing currency?
(a) Minimum reserve system
(b) Proportionate system
(c) Fixed fiduciary issue system
(d) Simple deposit system

Question 16.
Explain the meaning of credit money.

Question 17.
What will happen to an economy if aggregate demand falls below full employment level? Explain using a graph.
Or
Explain the role of margin requirement in correcting the problem of deflationary gap.

Question 18.
In an economy, the equilibrium level of income is ₹ 12,000 crore. The ratio of Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) and Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is 3:1. Calculate the additional investment needed to reach a new equilibrium level of income of ₹ 20,000 crore. Identify the economic value involved in increasing the investment in the economy.

Question 19.
Explain the circular flow of income in a two sector economy with the help of a diagram.

Question 20.
What is bank rate? How does it work as a method of credit control?
Or
“Introduction of money has separated the acts of sale and purchase”, Explain how?

Question 21.
Explain the importance of government budget.

Question 22.
Giving reasons, explain the treatment assigned to the following while estimating national income.
(i) Expenditure on adding a floor to building.
(ii) Payment of fees to a lawyer engaged by a firm.
(iii) Payment of interest by a government firm.
Or
Calculate National Income by
(i) Product method
(ii) Expenditure method.

Question 23.
Distinguish between inflationary gap and deflationary gap. Name two measures by which these can be corrected.

Question 24.
(i) How is fixed rate of exchange determined?
(ii) Explain the main merits of flexible exchange rate.

Answers

Answer 1.
Government’s endeavours to spread education will lead to an increase in the quality of workforce. The production potential of the country would also increase. Economic value reflected is in terms of providing better quality of workforce. Also, this is expected to shift the PPC rightwards.

Answer 2.
Fixed cost remains constant at all levels of output. So, fixed cost curve is parallel to X-axis.

Answer 3.
(a) The application of fixed factor can be changed during long period.

Answer 4.
Loss of interest on his savings is the implicit cost of businessman.

Answer 5.

Marginal Opportunity Cost \(\left( MOC \right) =\frac { Loss\quad of\quad Output\quad of\quad Y\left( \triangle Y \right) }{ Gain\quad of\quad Output\quad of\quad X\left( \triangle X \right) } \)
Since, MOC is rising, therefore Production Possibility Curve (PPC) will be concave to origin.

Answer 6.
Difference between normal goods and inferior goods are:

Or
Due to changes in factors other than the price of the commodity concerned, if more quantity at the same price is demanded, then it is termed as increase in demand and is represented by the rightward shift in the demand curve.
Increase in demand can be explained better with the below mentioned example and diagram:

As it is clear from the above schedule that at the same price of ₹ 10, demand has increased from 20 to 25 units.

In the given diagram, demand increases from OQ to OQ₁ at the same price OP.

Answer 7.
Price ceiling refers to the maximum price of a commodity that the sellers can charge from the buyers. It is generally imposed on essential commodities like foodgrains and certain medicines.

Implications
Government fixes this price lower than the equilibrium market price, so that the concerned commodity remains within the reach of poorer sections of society. Due to this, following implications of price ceiling are seen:

1. Since ceiling price is lower than the equilibrium price, there is likely to be excess demand in the market, leading to shortage of commodity.
2. To make extra normal profits, sellers generally resort to black marketing.

Or
(i) When demand is perfectly elastic and supply decreases, there will be no change in price but the equilibrium quantity will decrease. The following diagram shows that when supply decreases from SS to S₁S₁, equilibrium price remains constant at OP but equilibrium quantity decreases from OQ to OQ₁.

(ii) When supply is perfectly inelastic and demand increases, the price of the commodity will increase but the equilibrium quantity of that commodity remains constant. The following diagram shows that when demand increases from DD to D₁D₁, the equilibrium price also increases from OP to OP₁ but equilibrium quantity of that commodity remains constant at OQ.

Answer 8.
Given, P_X ₹8 P_Y ₹8 MRS_XY = 8
Consumer’s equilibrium is attained where
\({ MRS }_{ XY }=\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \Rightarrow 8>\frac { 8 }{ 8 } ;\)
∴ \({ MRS }_{ XY }>\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \), so the consumer is not in equilibrium.
Here, consumer can attain equilibrium only when MRS_XY starts falling and becomes equal to \(\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \) (on the assumption that \(\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \) is constant). This happens only when consumer starts consuming more of X in place of Y so, that he moves downward to right along the IC.
So, if \({ MRS }_{ XY }=\frac { { P }_{ X } }{ { P }_{ Y } } \), then a rational consumer would react by substituting X for Y.

Answer 9.
A firm can sell more only by lowering the price in imperfect market forms such as monopoly and monopolistic competition. In these market forms, the Average Revenue (AR) curve is downward sloping. When AR curve is falling, Marginal Revenue (MR) is less than AR. Therefore, MR curve lies below the AR curve. The slope of MR is half the slope of AR.

It can be seen from the above diagram that at the mid-point of AR curve, MR is zero and below mid-point of AR, MR becomes negative.

Answer 10.
A producer is said to be in equilibrium when he is earning maximum profits and he has no tendency to change the level of output. Producer’s equilibrium under the following situations :

1. When Marginal Revenue is Greater than Marginal Cost (MR > MC) Under this situation, the producer will not be in equilibrium because at this point, the marginal revenues from the sale of an additional unit exceeds the marginal cost incurred in producing that good.
   As a result, it will be more profitable for the producer to expand the level of output till MR becomes equal to MC and MC exceeds MR beyond the point of equality.
2. When Marginal Revenue is Equal to Marginal Cost (MR = MC) Under this situation, the producer or
   firm may or may not be in equilibrium because :
   At this point of equality of MR and MC, if MC exceeds MR beyond the point of equality, only then the producer will be in equilibrium because MR = MC is necessary but not a sufficient condition of producers’ equilibrium. The producer will be in equilibrium only when following two conditions are satisfied simultaneously i.e.,
   MR = MC and MC must cut MR from below.

Answer 11.
The budget line of a consumer can change in the conditions discussed below:
(i) When Income of the Consumer Changes Assuming price to be constant, budget line will change with a change in consumer’s income in the following ways :
(a) When Income of the Consumer Increases When income of the consumer increases, with no change in the prices of good X and good Y, then there will be a parallel rightward shift in the budget line.

With increase in consumer’s income, budget line shifts from ab to a₁b₁.
(b) When Income of the Consumer Decreases When income of the consumer decreases, with no change in the price of good X and good Y, then there will be a parallel leftward shift in the budget line.

With decrease in consumer’s income, budget line shifts from ab to a₁b₁.
(ii) When Price of Good X Changes When price of good X changes and price of good Y and income of the consumer remains unchanged, then,
(a) increase in price of good X will lead to consumer buying less units of good X. The budget line will rotate leftwards from ab to ab₁.
(b) decrease in price of good X will lead to consumer buying more units of good X. The budget line will rotate rightwards from ab to ab₂

Budget line rotates inwards when price of good X rises and rotates outwards when price of good X falls.
(iii) When Price of Good Y Changes When price of good Y changes and price of good X and income of the consumer remains unchanged, then,
(a) increase in price of good Y will lead to consumer buying less units of good Y.
The budget line will rotate leftwards from ab to a₁b.
(b) decrease in price of good Y will lead to consumer buying more units of good Y.
The budget line will rotate rightwards from ab to a₂b.

Budget line rotates inwards when price of good Y rises and rotates outwards when price of good Y falls,
(iv) When Price of Both the Goods Increases Assuming consumer’s income to be constant, when price of both the goods increase, then budget line will shift leftwards from ab to a₁b₁.

Budget line shifts leftwards with increase in the prices of both the goods.
(v) When Prices of both the Goods Decreases Assuming consumer’s income to be constant, when price of both the goods decreases, then budget line will shift rightwards from ab to a₁b₁.

Budget line shifts rightwards with decrease in the prices of both the goods.
The economic value is to consume within one’s means.

Answer 12.
Product differentiation refers to the practice of differentiating products on lines of design, colour or
packaging. In monopolistic competition, rival firms sell products which are not perfect substitutes but close substitutes of each other e.g. Pepsodent and Colgate toothpaste are close substitutes of each other due to product differentiation in their ingredients.
The implications of monopolistic competition are as follows:

1. It allows firm to have a partial control over price of their product.
2. Elasticity of demand for a product tends to be high due to presence of close substitutes.
3. Consumer’s welfare is increased due to large variety of commodity.

Or
Equilibrium price refers to the price at which market demand is equal to market supply (i.e. there is no excess demand or excess supply). So, the price with ‘excess supply’ is not the equillibrium price.
This can be illustrated with the help of the following figure :

The given figure depicts, that excess supply is equal to AB=Q₁Q₂. It implies that market supply is greater than market demand.
This puts pressure on price (OP₁) to decline. The producers reduce the quantity supplied at the lower price OP from OQ₂ to OQ. The consumers react by increasing the quantity demanded from OQ₁ (at OP₁ price) to OQ (at OP price). Equilibrium is struck at point ‘E’. Thus, OP and OQ are the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity respectively with no excess supply.

Section – B

Answer 13.
Fiscal discipline refers to a situation when fiscal deficit is within the manageable limits and it does not lead to high rate of inflation in the country.

Answer 14.
Revenue deficit indicates that government is unable to cover its day-to-day expenses which hampers the future growth.

Answer 15.
(a) Minimum reserve system is followed by Reserve Bank of India for issuing currency.

Answer 16.
Credit money refers to deposits with banks which are withdrawable through a cheque.

Answer 17.
If aggregate demand falls below full employment level, it will lead to deflationary situations in the economy.

In this figure, AD_FE = AD at full employment level
AD_IU = AD at involuntary unemployment level or below full employment level.
The point E is the equilibrium point, where AD = AS. But at the current levels, deficient demand situation (due to involuntary unemployment) of AD_IU, the Aggregate Demand is less than the actual supply in the economy. Hence, EF is the deflationary gap.
Deflationary Gap = Deficient Demand
= AD_FE – AD_IU = EF
Or
Margin requirement refers to the margin between the market value of the security provided by the borrower and the loan amount approved. When margin is lower, the borrowing capacity of the borrower is higher.

The Central Bank has the power to change this margin. When Central Bank lowers the margin, the borrowing capacity of the borrower increases. This raises consumption expenditure and Aggregate Demand (AD) also increases which helps in correcting deflationary gap.

Answer 18.
Given, \(\frac { MPC }{ MPS } =\frac { 3 }{ 1 } \)
Let MPC be 3x and MPS be 1x
Also, MPC + MPS=1
∴ 3x + 1x = 1 ⇒ 4x = 1
\(x=\frac { 1 }{ 4 } =025\)
Or MPS = x = 025
MPC = 3x = 3 x 025 = 0.75
Now, change in income (∆Y) = ₹ 8,000
\(K=\frac { 1 }{ 1-MPC } =\frac { 1 }{ 1-0.75 } =4\)
\(K=\frac { \triangle Y }{ \triangle / } \) ⇒ ∆Y = ∆/.K
8,000 = ∆/x 4 ⇒ ∆/ = ₹ 2,000
So, investment in the economy should rise by ₹ 2,000.
The economic value reflected is concern for increasing the productive capacity of the country.

Answer 19.
In a two sector economy, there are only two sectors of economic activity namely households and firms. Households supply factor services to firms and firms hire factor services from households. Households spend their entire income on consumption. Firms sell what is produced to the households.
There are two types of markets in this economy:
(i) Product Market Market for goods and services.
(ii) Factor Market Market for factors of production.

The above figure shows that

1. Total Production of Goods and Services by firms
   = Total Consumption of Goods and Services by Households
2. Factor Payments by Firms = Factor Incomes of Households
3. Consumption Expenditure of Households = Income of Firms
4. Thus, Real Flow of Production and Consumption of Firms and Households = Money Flows of Income
   and Expenditure of Firms and Households

Answer 20.
Bank rate refers to the minimum rate at which the Central Bank of a country giveS credit to the commercial banks without any collateral. Increase in the bank rate increases the rate of interest and the cost of borrowings goes up, which discourages borrowers from taking loans which reduces the ability of commercial banks to create credit. On the other hand, a decrease in the bank rate decreases the rate of interest and the cost of borrowings goes down, which encourages borrowers to demand more loans and credit is expanded.
Or
Under the Barter system of exchange, acts of sale and purchase of a good or service were to occur at the same point of time. To buy a thing, an individual must at the same time sell something needed by the other person. But with the introduction of money (as a medium of exchange), an individual can buy a good with money without selling anything at the same time. Likewise, he can sell a good for money without buying anything at the same time. Thus, with the introduction of money, acts of sale and purchase have been separated.

Answer 21.
Importance of government budget can be explained as follows:

1. It shows revenue deficit, fiscal deficit and primary deficit of the government budget which reflects the status of fiscal discipline in the country.
2. It reflects how the government is going to influence the allocation of resources in the country.
3. It points to the efforts of the government to achieve equality in the distribution of income and wealth.
4. It is used to correct the situations of inflationary/deflationary gap in the economy.

Answer 22.
Treatment assigned to the following while estimating national income are as follows:

1. Expenditure on adding a floor to building is included in national income because it is a part of investment expenditure.
2. Payment of fees to a lawyer engaged by a firm is not to be included in estimation of national income as it is treated as part of intermediate consumption.
3. Payment of interest by a government firm should be included while estimating national*income because it
   is a kind of factor payment.

Or
(i) By Product Method
Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDP_MP)
= Gross Value Added at Market Price in Primary Sector + Gross Value Added at Market Price in Secondary Sector + Gross Value Added at Market Price in Tertiary Sector
= 600 + 400 + 1,400
GDP_MP = ₹ 2,400 crore
Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNPfc) = GDP_MP + Net Factor Income from Abroad – Consumption of . Fixed Capital – Net Indirect Tax
=₹ 2,400 + 40 – 300 – 240 ⇒ ₹ 2,440 – 300 – 240
∴ NNP_FC = ₹ 1,900 crore

(ii) By Expenditure Method
Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (GDP_MP)
= Private Final Consumption Expenditure
+ Government Final Consumption Expenditure
+ Gross Domestic Capital Formation (Net Domestic Fixed Capital Formation + Consumption of Fixed Capital + Change in Stock) + Net Exports
= ₹ 1,500 + 300 + [440 + 300 + (-40)] + (-100)
= ₹ 1,800 + 700 -100 ⇒ ₹ 2,500 -100
∴ GDP_MP = ₹ 2,400 crore
Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNP_FC)
= GDP_MP – Net Indirect Tax + Net Factor Income from Abroad – Depreciation
= ₹ 2,400 – 240 + 40 – 300 ⇒ ₹ 2,440 – 540
NNP_FC = ₹ 1,900 crore

Answer 23.
Difference between inflationary gap and deflationary gap are :

Two measures by which inflationary gap can be corrected:

1. Increase in bank rate
2. Increase in repo rate

Two measures by which deflationary gap can be corrected:

1. Decrease in bank rate
2. Decrease in repo rate

Answer 24.
(i) Fixed rate of exchange is not determined by the forces of demand and supply in the market. It is fixed or declared officially by the country’s concerned authority.
Such a rate of exchange has been associated with standard system during 1880-1914. According to this system, value of every currency is determined in terms of gold.
Accordingly, the ratio between gold value of the two currencies was fixed as exchange rate between those currencies.
For example,
Value of one dollar = 20 g of gold; Value of a rupee = 5 g of gold
Then, 1 $ = \(\frac { 20 }{ 5 } \) = ₹ 4
(ii) The main merits of flexible exchange rate are as follows :

• It eliminates problems of over-valuation and under-valuation of currencies as it is self adjusting and automatically removes the diseauilibrium in the Balance of Payments (BoP).
• It enhances the movement of ca *al across different parts of the world and promotes international growth.
• It enhances the opportunity for optimum utilisation of resources and raises the level of efficiency in the economy.

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 4 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 4, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 5 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 5.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Chemistry Paper 5

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 5 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Chemistry is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 70

General Instructions

• All questions are compulsory.
• Question number 1 to 5 are very short answer questions and carry 1 mark each.
• Question number 6 to 10 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
• Question number 11 to 22 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
• Question number 23 is a value based question and carry 4 marks.
• Question number 24 to 26 are long answer questions and carry 5 marks each.
• Use log table, if necessary. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Questions

Question 1.
The limiting ionic conductivity of NH⁺₄ ion and CO^2-₃ ion is 60 S cm² mol^-1 and 80 S cm² mol^-1 respectively. Find the limiting molar conductivity of ammonium carbonate.

Question 2.
Adsorption is an exothermic process. Explain

Question 3.
Write one ion of lanthanoids which acts as an oxidising agent.

Question 4.
During the extraction of Cu from low grade copper ore, which metal may be used to reduce copper ion to give Cu?

Question 5.
Write the formula of the co-ordination compound- Diammine dimethanamine dicarbonyl platinum (IV) chloride.

Question 6.
Analysis shows that iron oxide has the formula Fe_0.93 O_1.00 What fraction of Fe exists as Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺ ions?

Question 7.
Account for the following:

1. Ferric hydroxide sol coagulates on addition of aqueous solution of K₂SO₄.
2. A delta is formed at the point where river water enters the sea.

Question 8.

1. Why do copper matte put in silica lined converter during the extraction of iron from its ore?
2. What is the role of cryolite in the metallurgy of aluminium?

OR
Write down the reactions taking place in different zones in the blast furnace during the extraction of iron.

Question 9.
Complete the following reactions:
(a) MnO^–₄ + H₂S \(\underrightarrow { { H }^{ + } } \)
(b) Cr₂O^2-₇ + NO^–₂ \(\underrightarrow { { H }^{ + } } \)

Question 10.
Discuss briefly the role of co-ordination compounds in:

1. Analytical chemistry
2. Medicinal chemistry

Question 11.
Explain the following terms:

1. Frenkel defect
2. Ferrimagnetism
3. Paramagnetism

Question 12.

1. Define reverse osomosis.
2. What happens when a peeled egg is placed in a 10% aqueous solution of NaCl?
3. Why do mechanics suggest to add coolant in car radiators instead of pure water?

Question 13.
Three electrolytic cells A, B & C containing molten NaNO₃, ZnSO₄ and AlF₃ repectively are connected in series. A steady current of 5 ampere flows through cells until 1.15 g of sodium is deposited at the cathode of the cell ‘A’. How long did the current flow? What mass of Zn & Al were deposited in the respective cells?

Question 14.
Calculate the freezing point of an aqueous solution having 10.5 g MgBr₂ (90% dissociated) in 200 g water
(Molar mass of MgBr₂ = 184 g/mol & K_f = 1.86 K Kg mol^-1).
OR
Henry’s law constant for CO₂ dissolving in water is 1.67 × 10⁸ Pa at 298 K. Calculate the quantity of CO₂ in 360 g of soda water when packed under 2.5 atm of CO₂ pressure at 298 K.

Question 15.
Account for the following:

1. Transition metals acts as good catalyst.
2. The enthalpy of atomisation is minimum for zinc in 3d series of transition metals.
3. For titanium +4 oxidation state is more stable as compared to +2 & +3 states.

Question 16.
(a) Write chemical reactions for the preparation of n-hexane from propan-1-ol.
(b) What are ambidient nucleophiles? Explain with a suitable example.
(c) p-dichlorobenzene has higher melting point as compared to its ortho & meta isomer.

Question 17.
Explain the following name reactions with suitable chemical reactions:
(a) Wurtz fitting reaction
(b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(c) Friedel craft acetylation

Question 18.

1. How do you explain the amphoteric behaviour of amino acids?
2. Which base of DNA is not present in RNA?
3. On reaction with which compound D-glucose will produce n-hexane?

Question 19.
(a) Write the monomer of a condensation homopolymer.
(b) What are monomeric units of PHBV?
(c) Name an elastomer.

Question 20.
Name the class of drugs for each of the following:

1. Biothional
2. Morphine
3. Iproniazid

Question 21.
(a) Distinguish the following pairs with suitable chemical test:
(i) Anisole and phenol
(ii) Propan-l-ol and ethanol
(b) Phenol on reaction with dilute HNO₃ yields ortho & para nitrophenol, give reason

Question 22.
Explain the following:
(a) pK_b of aniline is more than that of methylamine.
(b) Methylamine in water reacts with ferric chloride to precipitate hydrated ferric oxide.
(c) Aniline cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide reaction.

Question 23.
A businessman Mr. Ram Naresh was planing to start a copper extraction plant from copper pyrite ore. His son Raman a class XII student of science stream suggested him to start a sulphuric acid manufacturing plant side by side. Answer the following questions according to the above paragraph.

1. Write the molecular formula of copper pyrite.
2. Which gas is released during the process of extraction of Cu?
3. Why did Raman suggested for setting of sulphuric acid plant?
4. What are the values associated with Raman’s suggestion?

Question 24.
(a) Write IUPAC name of

(b) Explain the mechanism of nucleophilic addition reaction for a carbonyl compound.
(c) There are two -NH₂ groups in semicarbazide, however, only one is involved in the formation of semicarbazone. Explain.
(d) Out of phenol and carboxylic acids which is more acidic and why?
(e) Give chemical reaction for Ketal formation.
OR
Fill in the blanks:

(d) Arrange according to the increase in the given property:

1. HCOOH, CH₃COOH, C₆H₅COOH (Acidic strength)
2. Butanal, Butanone & Butan-1 ol (Boiling point)

Question 25.
(a)

1. XeO₂F₂ + H₂O →
2. NaOH + Br₂ →
3. Zn₃P₂ + H₂O →

(b) Draw shapes of XeF⁺₅ & ICl⁺₄

OR
Give reason for the following:

1. Noble gases are mostly inert.
2. Halogens are strong oxidising agents.
3. F₂ is more reactive than Cl₂.
4. Phosphorous shows greater tendency for catenation than nitrogen.
5. SeF₆ easily get hydrolysed as compared to SF₆.

Question 26.
(a) Thermal decomposition of methanoic acid is a first order reaction with a rate constant of 2.4 × 10^-1 s^-1 at a certain temperature. Calculate how long will it take for three fourth of the initial quantity of it to decompose.
(b) Write the order of reaction for the following reactions if K is given as

1. 2 × 10^-4 s^-1
2. 3.8 × 10^-2 mol dm^-3 s^-1

OR
(a) The rate constant for the first order decomposition of H₂O₂ is given by the following equation:
log K = 14.34 – 1.25 × 10⁴ K/T
Calculate E_a for this reaction and at what temperature will its half life period be 256 minutes?
(b) Mention the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

Answers 

Answer 1.

= 2 × 60 + 80 = 200 S cm² mol^-1

Answer 2.
Adsorption is a phenomenon of attracting and retaining the molecules of a substance on the surface of a liquid or solid, leading to higher concentration on the surface as compared to bulk. Such force of attraction leads to the release in energy as well as the decrease in kinetic energy of free molecules. As a result adsorption is an exothermic process.

Answer 3.
Ce⁴⁺.

Answer 4.
Iron metal in the form of iron scraps.

Answer 5.
[Pt(NH₃)₂(CH₃NH₂)(CO)₂]Cl₄.

Answer 6.
For 100 molecules of Fe_0.93 O_1.00 there will be 93 Fe atoms and 100 oxygen atoms
If Fe²⁺ ions are x then
Fe³⁺ ions = 93 – x
Total charge on x ions of Fe²⁺ and (93 – x) ions of Fe³⁺ will be equal to 200, i.e. the charge on 100 O^2- ions.
Hence 2x + 3(93 – x) = 200
x = 79, i.e. Fe²⁺ ions = 79 and Fe³⁺ ions = 93 – 79 = 14.
% of Fe²⁺ ion = \(\frac { 79 }{ 93 }\) × 100 = 85%
% of Fe³⁺ ion = \(\frac { 14 }{ 93 }\) × 100 = 15%

Answer 7.

1. Fe(OH)₃ sol possesses positive charge on the dispersed phase, which is neutralised by the SO^2-₄ ions of K₂SO₄ and as a result coagulation takes place.
2. River water is a colloidal solution of various types of soil, clay, silt which gets coagulated by the electrolytes (various salts) present in sea water. As a result, silt get deposited at the meeting point of river water and sea in the form of delta.

Answer 8.

1. Copper matte consists of Cu₂S and FeS, which on oxidation in the presence of hot air converts FeS to FeO, which combines with silica, SiO₂ to form the slag (FeSiO₃).
   2FeS + 3O₂ → 2FeO + 2SO₂ ↑
   FeO + SiO₂ → FeSiO₃
2. Role of cryolite:
   • It lowers the melting point of the mixture (Al₂O₃ + Na₃AlF₆) to about 1140 K.
   • It increases the electrical conductivity of the mixture (as compared to the less ionisable Al₂O₃).

OR
Reactions taking place at higher temperature zone (900-1500 K):

• CaCO₃ \(\underrightarrow { heat } \) CaO + CO₂
• C + CO₂ → 2CO
• FeO + CO → Fe + CO₂
• CaO + SiO₂ → CaSiO₃

Reactions taking place at lower temperature zone (500 – 800 K):

• Fe₂O₃ + CO → Fe₃O₄ + Fe₃O₄ + CO₂
• Fe₃O₄ + CO → Fe + CO₂
• Fe₂O₃ + CO → FeO + CO₂

Answer 9.

1. 2MnO^–₄ + 5H₂S + 6H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 5S + 8H₂O
2. Cr₂O^2-₇ + 3NO^–₂ + 8H⁺ → 2Cr³⁺ + 3NO^–₃ + 4H₂O

Answer 10.
In analytical chemistry co-ordination compounds play an important role in both qualitative as well as quantitative analysis:

1. Qualitative analysis : Detection of Cu²⁺ ions by addition of NH₃ to form deep blue complex.
   Quantitative analysis : EDTA is used to find the hardness of water (e.g. metal ions like Ca²⁺, Mg²⁺, Zn²⁺ Fe²⁺ etc. can be estimated).
2. Medicinal chemistry :
   • Cis platin → [Pt(NH₃)₂ Cl₂] is used for the treatment of cancer.
   • EDTA for complexing with Pb during lead poisoning.

Answer 11.

1. Frenkel defect : It occurs in ionic compounds when there is large difference in the size of cation and anion, smaller ion occupies (get displaced) the interstitial space. In this defect, density of solid and formula does not get changed.
2. Ferrimagnetism : It is observed when the magnetic moments of the domains in the substance are aligned in parallel and antiparallel direction in unequal numbers. These substances are weakly attracted towards the magnetic field.
3. Paramagnetism : Such substances are weakly attracted by a magnet and possesses unpaired electrons. This phenomena of being attracted by magnetic field due to the presence of unpaired electrons is called paramagnetism.

Answer 12.

1. Reverse osmosis : It is the movement of solvent particles from higher concentration of a solution to lower concentration of the solution through a semi-permeable membrane.
2. Peeled egg will start shrinking due to osmosis of water present in the egg that will come out through its membrane.
3. Coolant (ethylene glycol) needs to be added in car radiators to rim the vehicles at higher temperature by elevation of boiling point and in case of hill stations by depression in freezing point that prevents water from freezing

Answer 13.
From question, I = 5 amp, mass of Na = 1.15 g, t = ?
Mass of Zn and Al needs to be calculated from Faraday’s second law.

From Faraday’s first law,
m = ZIt where Z = \(\frac { M }{ nF } \) (Z = Chemical equivalence)
(m = Molar mass, n = change in No. of electrons)
so m = \(\frac { MIt }{ nF } \), 1.15 = \(\frac { 23\times 5\times t }{ 1\times 6500 } \)
t = 965 seconds = 16.08 minutes.

Answer 14.
From question:

OR

Answer 15.

1. Transition metals exhibit variable oxidation state and hence acts as good catalyst.
2. In case of zinc there is no impaired electrons in its valence shell as well as its size is large, so its enthalpy of atomisation is minimum.
3. In Ti⁴⁺, it has noble gas electronic configuration, so +2, and +3 state posses 3d² or 3d¹ configuration which is unstable and +4 oxidation state is quite stable.

Answer 16.

(b) The nucleophile having two nucleophilic centres but at time only one get attached with electrophilic centre. For example -CN can attach through ‘C’ as well as N.
(c) p-dichrobenzene has symmetrical arrangement, hence closer packing of such molecules is possible in solid state as compared to ortho and meta isomer. As a result its melting is higher.

Answer 17.

Answer 18.

1. Amino acids consists of amine group as well as carboxylic group in the same compound, as a result it will be amphoteric in nature.
   
2. Thyonine
3. HI

Answer 19.
(a) Nylon-6 is an example of condensation homopolymer, its monomer is

(b) Monomers of PHBV

(c) Buna-N or Buna-S

Answer 20.

1. Antiseptic (imparts antiseptic property in soaps)
2. Analgesic (steroid-habit forming analgesic)
3. Tranquilizer (Antidepressant drug)

Answer 21.
(a) (i)

(ii)

(b) The OH group present on benzene ring activates it for S_E (substitution, electrophilic) reaction at ortho and para positions due to the following resonance structures, as a result ortho and para substituted nitrophenol will form.

Answer 22.
(a) pK_b of aniline is more, it means it is a weaker base than methyl amine.
In case of aniline due to resonance nitrogen acquires positive charge, hence donation of electron is less likely. Secondly, phenyl group is an electron withdrawing group while methyl group is an electron donating group.

(b) In H₂O, methyl amine gives OH^– ions which reacts with FeCl₃ to give hydrated ferric oxide.

(c) There is partial double bond character in halobenzene, hence it cannot be broken down easily and that is why aromatic amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.

Answer 23.

1. CuFeS₂
2. SO₂
3. The released SO₂ during this process causes environmental pollution. It is better if it can be used in the preparation of H₂SO₄.
4. Knowledge of science, concern for environment as well as businessman’s thinking:

Answer 24.
(a) 4-Hydroxy-3-oxo cyclohex-5-ene carbaldehyde
(b) Example of a Nucleophilic addition reaction :

(c) The lone pair of electrons on NH₂ group attached to the carbonyl group is involved in resonance and hence is not available for the reaction.

(d) Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenol, reason being is resonance stabilised structure of carboxylic acids in which negative charge lies on ‘O’ atom. On the other hand, in phenol the negative charge lies on more positive carbon atom, hence contribution of such resonance structures is negligible.

(e) When ketone reacts with two moles of alcohol in the presence of HCl (g) ketal is formed.

OR

(d)

1. C₆H₅COOH < CH₃COOH < HCOOH
2. Butanone < Butanal < Butan-1-ol

Answer 25.
(a)

1. XeO₂F₂ + 2H₂O → XeO₃ + 2HF
2. NaOH + Br₂ → NaBr + NaBrO₃
3. Zn₃P₂ + 6H₂O → 3Zn(OH)₂ + 2PH₃

(b)

OR

1. Noble gases possess completely filled octet electronic configuration and have high ionisation energy, hence they are mostly inert.
2. Halogens have high electron gain enthalpy and high reduction potential, so these are strong oxidising agents.
3. Bond dissociation enthalpy for F₂ is much less than Cl₂, so F₂ is more reactive.
4. P-P single bond is more stronger than N-N single bond. There is lone pair-bond pair repulsions between two nitrogen atoms, hence there is a weaker single bond in phosphorous and much less catenation property.
5. S is sterically surrounded by 6 F atoms, hence cannot approach by lone pair of H₂O, but due to larger size of selenium, hydrolysis is possible.

Answer 26.
(a) From question K = 2.4 × 10^-1 s^-1
If [A]₀ = 1 then [A]_t =1 – 3/4 = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \)
For first order reaction

(b)

1. first order
2. Zero order

OR
(a) From Arrhenius equation

(b)

• Concentration
• Temperature
• Pressure
• Catalyst

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 1 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 1.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Paper 1

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 1 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Economics is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time : 3 hrs
M.M.: 80

General Instructions

• All questions in both the sections A and B are compulsory. However, there is internal choice in questions of 3,4 and 6 marks.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short answer type questions, carrying 1 mark each.
  They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short answer I type questions, carrying 3 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 60 words each.
• Question Nos. 7-9 and 19-21 are short answer II type questions, carrying 4 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each.
  Answers to them should not normally exceed 100 words each.
• Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit be adhered to as far as possible.

Section – A

Question 1.
If 20% increase in price of commodity causes 10% increase in quantity supplied, then elasticity of supply is
(a) elastic
(b) inelastic
(c) perfectly elastic
(d) perfectly inelastic

Question 2.
You are living in a country whose economy is underdeveloped. In this context, why there is a need of efficient utilisation of resources?

Question 3.
The Average Fixed Cost at 4 units of output is ₹ 20. Average variable cost at 5 units of output is 140. Average Cost of producing 5 units is
(a) ₹ 20
(b) ₹ 40
(c) ₹ 56
(d) ₹ 60

Question 4.
Why does variable cost curve originate from the point of origin?

Question 5.
Ice-cream is available at ₹ 10. Akansha who likes ice-cream, has already consumed 4 ice-creams. Her Marginal Utility (MU) of one rupee is 8. Should she consume more ice-cream or should she stop the consumption?

Question 6.
Explain the concept of economics as a positive science and economics as a normative science.
Or
Explain the central problem of ‘choice of technique’?

Question 7.
Show that the average fixed cost curve is a rectangular hyperbola.
Or
Why is the total revenue curve of a competitive firm a straight line passing through origin?

Question 8.
A consumer buys 300 units of good Y at ₹ 15 . The Price Elasticity of Demand for the good is 2. At what price, will he be willing to buy 450 units of good Y?

Question 9.
What factors lead to the emergence of oligopoly market?

Question 10.
From the table given below, determine the level of output at which the producer is in equilibrium. Use the Marginal Revenue (MR) and Marginal Cost (MC) approach. Give reasons for your answer.

Question 11.
Suppose, free entry and exit are allowed in a freely competitive market and there are identical firms in the market. Following are the demand and supply functions of such a market.
Market demand function (q_d) = 800 – P
The supply function of a single firm (q_s) = 10 + P for P ≥ 20
= 0 for P ≤ 20
Find out the equilibrium price, quantity and number of firms.
Or
Suppose a freely competitive market has identical firms and free entry and exit are also allowed. Market demand function and the supply function of a single firm are given below.
Market demand function (q_d) = 590 – P
Market supply function (q_s) = 8 + 5P for P ≥ 10 and = 0 for P ≤ 10
(i) What is the significance of P = 10 ?
(ii) At what price will the market be in equilibrium? State the reason.
(iii) Calculate the equilibrium quantity.
(iv) How many firms are required in the market?

Question 12.
Explain the Law of Demand with the help of diagram. State any two of its exceptions. Do you think that law of demand is effective in explaining the demand for gold in our country? Give reason in support of your answer.

Section – B

Question 13.
What is ‘statutory liquidity ratio’?

Question 14.
What is the nature of direct tax?

Question 15.
Explain briefly the meaning of time deposits.

Question 16.
Which of the following is a source of capital receipt?
(a) Foreign donations
(b) Dividends
(c) Disinvestment
(d) Indirect taxes

Question 17.
What do you understand by inflationary gap? Explain with the help of diagram.
Or
Explain the situation of deficient demand in an economy with the help of diagram.

Question 18.
In an economy, total savings are ₹2,000 crore and the ratio of Average Propensity to Save and Average Propensity to Consume is 2 : 7. Calculate the level of income in an economy.

Question 19.
From the following data, calculate net value added at factor cost.

Question 20.
Explain how do ‘open market operations’ by the Central Bank affect money creation by commercial banks.

Question 21.
Public expenditure is necessary for the development of the country. In the light of the statement, explain any two significance of public expenditure.
Or
Explain any four implications of a large fiscal deficit.

Question 22.
Explain the problem of double counting in the estimation of National Income with the help of an illustration. How can it be avoided?
Or
How will you treat the following while estimating domestic product of India?
(i) Rent received by a resident Indian from his property in Singapore.
(ii) Salaries to Indians working in Japanese Embassy in India.
(iii) Profits earned by a branch of an American Bank in India.
(iv) Salaries paid to Koreans working in Indian Embassy in Korea.

Question 23.
In an economy, aggregate demand is less than aggregate supply. Is the economy in equilibrium? If not, explain the changes that will bring the economy in equilibrium.

Question 24.
Giving reasons explain whether the given statements are true or false.
(i) Current account of balance of payments account records only export and import of goods and services.
(ii) Foreign investments are recorded in the capital account of balance of payments.
(iii) Improvement in exchange rate of the country’s currency always beneficial for Balance of Payment (BoP).
(iv) Rise in foreign exchange rate cause a rise in its supply.

Answers

Section – A

Answer 1.
(b) inelastic

Answer 2.
Developmental needs are more in a underdeveloped economy and these have to be fulfilled with the help of limited resources. Thus, there is a need of efficient and effective utilisation of resources.

Answer 3.
(c) ₹ 56
Hint: AFC at 4 units =₹ 20,
∴ TFC = 20 x 4 = ₹ 80
AVC at 5 units = ₹ 40
∴ TVC at 5 units = 40 x 5 = ₹ 200
TC at 5 units = TFC + TVC = 80 + 200 = ₹ 280
ATC = \(\frac { 280 }{ 5 } \) =₹ 56

Answer 4.
Variable cost curve originates from the point of origin because when output is zero, variable cost is also zero.

Answer 5.
A consumer attains equilibrium, when = \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ M{ U }_{ M } } ={ P }_{ X }\)
Where, MU_X = Marginal Utility of Commodity X
MU_M = Marginal Utility of Money
P_X = Price of Commodity X
Substituting the given values, we get \(\frac { M{ U }_{ X } }{ 8 } =10\) 10 implying that, in a state of equilibrium, Akansha’s MU_X must be equal to 80 utils. If having consumed 4th ice-cream, Akansha’s MU_X = 80 utils, then she must stop consuming more. However, if MU_X > 80, then she should consume more ice-creams till MU_X reduces to 80 utils and in terms of its money worth is equal to price of ice cream.

Answer 6.
Economics as a Positive Science A positive science is that science in which analysis is confined to cause and effect relationship. It simply states, ’what is’ and not ‘what ought to be1′ It does not pass any value judgement regarding what is right or wrong. Positive economics is concerned with the facts about the economy, as they exist.
e.g. positive economics deals with questions like ’what are the causes of unemployment’, ‘why prices are increasing’ and so on.

Economics as a Normative Science Economics as a normative science is concerned with ’what ought to be’. It examines real economic events from moral and ethical angles and judges whether certain economic events are desirable or not. It passes value judgement and prescribes methods to correct undesirable happenings.
e.g. normative economics deals with opinions like ‘old-age pension should be stopped’, ’MGNREGA will bring an end to unemployment’ and so on.
Or
‘Choice of technique’ is the problem of ’How to produce’?
‘How to produce’? is the problem which refers to the problem relating the choice of technique. Broadly, there are two techniques of production:

1. Labour-intensive technique and
2. capital intensive technique.

Labour-intensive technique uses more of labour than capital (machines) and is cost effective, whereas capital-intensive technique uses more of capital (machines) than labour and promotes efficiency.
So, a business firm needs to choose among these two techniques such that it obtains a cost-effective as well as efficient relationship.

Answer 7.
Average Fixed Cost (AFC) can be obtained by dividing Total Fixed Cost (TFC) by the quantity of output (Q),
i. e.

\(AFC=\frac { TFC }{ Q } \)

Since, total fixed costs remain the same as output rises, Average Fixed Cost diminishes but never becomes zero.

As output rises, the Average Fixed Cost (AFC) goes on declining. The AFC curve is, therefore a downward sloping curve. AFC curve never touches either of the axis. Thus, the AFC curve takes the shape of rectangular hyperbola which shows that the area under the curve (i.e. total fixed cost) always remains the same.
Or
A competitive firm sells its output at a uniform price. The price or Average Revenue (AR) is constant and Marginal Revenue (MR) is also constant as it is equal to AR. The Total Revenue (TR) is the sum total of MR corresponding to different levels of output.

Since MR is constant, TR increases at a constant rate. Thus, TR is an upward sloping straight line. It passes through origin because when output is zero, TR is also zero.

Answer 8.
Suppose at price X, consumer is willing to buy 450 units of goods Y
Here, E_d = 2;P = 15; P₁ = ₹ X, ∆P = ₹ (X-15)
Q = 300 units, Q₁ = 450 units .
∆Q = (450 – 300) units = 150 units
Where, E_d = Price Elasticity of Demand
P = Actual Price, P₁ = New Price
Q = Actual Quantity, Q₁ = New Quantity
∆P = Change in Price,
∆Q = Change in Quantity

The consumer will purchase 450 units of good Y at the price of ₹ 11.25 per unit.

Answer 9.
Following factors lead to the emergence of oligopoly market:

1. Government Licensing The government may grant licenses only to a few firms for the production of a commodity, e.g. coal mining rights are given to some companies only.
2. Patent Rights Some firms acquire patent rights on account of their innovative product/ technology that restrict the entry of new firms.
   e g. A computerised method of running cash management account, being patented by a company.
3. Scale of Investment Scale of investment for certain products is so high that it becomes difficult for many companies to afford it which leads to concentration of market in the hands of few companies, e.g. Software and Automobile Industries.
4. Cartels Sometimes big companies collaborate or form cartels to gain the control over market.
   e.g. OPEC set-up in 1960 by the world’s five major oil producing countries: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela.

Answer 10.
Producer’s equilibrium is that point at which a producer is getting maximum profit and he has no tendency to change his output. When Marginal Revenue (MR) is equal to Marginal Cost (MC) and marginal cost is rising beyond the point of equilibrium, at that point, the producer earns maximum profits.

Accordingly, producer’s equilibrium is struck at 5th unit of output because at output level of 2 and 5 units, both MR and MC are equal, which is equal to 5 in both the cases. But the producer is in equilibrium at 5th unit only where profit is maximum, i.e. 2. Also, beyond this level, Marginal Cost tends to rise.
Formulae Used
Total Revenue (TR) = Price (P) x Quantity (Q)
Marginal Revenue (MR) = TR_N – TR_N-1
Marginal Cost (MC) = TC_N – TC_N-1

Answer 11.
From the supply function, we have learnt that the minimum Average Cost (AC) is ₹ 20 and no firm would be ready to sell at price below minimum of AC. Hence, in the situation of free entry and exit, equilibrium price will always be equal to minimum AC. Hence, in this situation, equilibrium price will be P0 = ₹ 20 (equal to minimum AC)

At this price, market supply will be equal to market demand.
From the demand function, we can get the equilibrium quantity by substituting in the function the value of price q₀ = 800 – 20 = 780 units

At equilibrium price (P₀ = ₹ 20), each firm supplies = 10 + 20 = 30 units
Hence, equilibrium number of firms will be,\([{ N }_{ 0 }=\frac { { q }_{ 0 } }{ { q }_{ 0p } } =\frac { 780 }{ 30 } =26firm\)

Thus, given the market demand function and supply function of a firm when free entry and exit are allowed,
Equilibrium price = ? 20, Equilibrium quantity = 780 units, Total number of firms = 26
Or

1. P = 10 suggests that in the situation of free entry and exit, equilibrium price can neither be greater nor less than ₹ 10. If the market price becomes greater than ₹ 10, Excess supply emerges and price tends to fall till it becomes equal to ₹ 10. On the other hand, if market price becomes smaller than ₹ 10, excess demand emerges and price tends to rise till it reaches ? 10.
2. From the supply function, \({ q }_{ t }^{ s }\)= 0 for P < 10, we have learnt that the minimum Average Cost (AC) is ₹ 10. In the situation of free entry and exit, equilibrium price is always equal to minimum AC. Hence, in this case, market will be in equilibrium at the price of ₹ 10.
3. From the demand function, we can get the equilibrium quantity by substituting the value of price.
   q₀ = 590 – P = 590 -10 = 580 units
4. At equilibrium price (P0) = 10, each firm supplies q_0f = 8+ 5 x 10 = 58 units
   Hence, the number of firms required =\(\frac { 580 }{ 58 } =10firms\)

Answer 12.
The Law of Demand states that other things remaining constant, the quantity demanded of a commodity expands with fall in its price and contracts with a rise in its price. So, there is an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded of a commodity. This is explained with the help of an imaginary schedule and cunve which is based on that imaginary schedule.

Exceptions to the Law The law will not hold good under following circumstances:

1. Conspicuous Consumption The Law of Demand will not apply in case of costly items such as diamonds. These commodities will be demanded, even if the prices have gone very high.
2. Ignorance If the consumer is not aware of the competitive price of the commodity, he may purchase
   more of the commodity even at higher price. Such ignorance of the buyers makes the Law of Demand ineffective.

No, I don’t think that law of demand explains the demand for gold in our country. In spite of continuously rising prices, demand for gold remains constant. It is because consumers believe that prices of gold will rise further in future and because of this their demand has not fallen in the present. In this case too, law of demand have failed due to high future expectation of price by the consumer.

Section – B

Answer 13.
Fraction of total deposit that each commercial bank must keep with themselves in liquid assets (cash, gold and unencumbered securities) is referred to as statutory liquidity ratio.

Answer 14.
Direct tax is that tax whose incidence and impact falls on the same person i.e. burden of such taxes cannot be shifted to others e.g. gift tax, corporation tax, income tax, etc.

Answer 15.
Time deposits are fixed or recurring deposits which have a fixed period of maturity. The term of deposit may vary. Cheques cannot be issued against them and they are not payable on demand but these deposits yield interest for the depositor.

Answer 16.
(c) Disinvestment is a source of capital receipt.

Answer 17.
The extent to which current aggregate demand becomes higher than the aggregate demand required for full employment, is termed as inflationary gap.

In the figure given below, full employment equilibrium is struck at point E. If the level of demand increases to AD,, it is in excess of what is required to maintain full employment. This causes inflation.
Inflationary Gap = EF (The difference between AD and AD₁).

Or
The extent to which aggregate demand falls short of aggregate supply to maintain full employment equilibrium is known as deficient demand. As shown in the diagram, deficient demand occurs when Aggregate Demand (AD) is less than what is required to maintain full employment in the economy. Full employment level of demand is indicated by AD₁. If demand level happens to be AD₂ the gap between AD₁ and AD₂, equal to ab, represents deficient demand.

Answer 18.
Let Average Propensity to Save (APS) = 2x
Average Propensity to Consume (APC) = 7x
Now, APS + APC = 1
2x + 7x = 1
9x = 1
\(x=\frac { 1 }{ 9 } \)

Answer 19.
Net Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC) = Sales + Change in Stock – Purchase of Raw Materials – Consumption of Fixed Capital + Subsidies =
500 + (-20) – 250 – 40 + 30
= 530 – 310 = ₹ 220 lakhs

Answer 20.
Under open market operations, RBI purchases or sells government securities to general public for the purpose of increasing or decreasing the stock of money in an economy. The purchase or sale of securities controls the money in the hands of public as they deposit or withdraw the money from commercial banks. Thus, money creation by commercial banks get affected.

Suppose, the Central Bank purchase securities of ₹ 1,000 from a bond holder by issuing a cheque. The seller of the bond produces this cheque of ₹ 1,000 to his commercial bank, fhe commercial bank credits the account of the seller by ₹ 1,000 and the deposits of the bank goes up by ₹ 1,000, which is a liability for the bank. On the other hand, the assets of the commercial bank also goes up as the cheque in its possession is a claim on the Central Bank.

Thus, purchase of security increases the money creation of commercial banks and similarly sale of securities decreases the credit creation of commercial banks. Thus, the Central Bank controls the process of money creation by commercial banks through open market operations.

Answer 21.
The two significance of public expenditure are as follows:

1. Increases Economic Growth Public expenditure accelerates the process of economic growth. This is of unique importance particularly, in the context of developing countries like India. Public expenditure helps in establishing new industries. It ensures development of public overhead cost like the construction of roads, dams, bridges, etc.
2. Increases Economic Welfare Public expenditure increases economic welfare. This happens particularly when public expenditure is directed towards poverty eradication, as well as, health and education for the poorer sections of the society. Such expenditures reduce economic divide between ‘have’ and ‘have-nots’ and thereby promotes social welfare.

Or
Following are the implications of large fiscal deficit:

1. National Debt Fiscal deficit leads to national debt as government resorts to borrowings to combat the deficit. National debt is a burden on future generations. Therefore, future generations inherit a economy which is under high pressure of mounting borrowings.
2. Low GDP Growth In case of large fiscal deficit, a significant percentage of national income is used up to pay the’past debts and very less is spent on infrastructural expansion, therefore, GDP growth of the economy remains low.
3. Crowding-out Effect High fiscal deficit increases borrowings by the government from the money market which reduces availability of funds for private entrepreneurs. Shortage of funds leads to high rate of interest which lowers the level of investment in the economy. Thus, economy slips into state of economic slowdown. This is known as crowding-out effect.
4. Erosion of Government Credibility High fiscal deficit erodes credibility of the government in domestic as well as international market, ‘credit rating’ of the government is lowered and global investors start withdrawing their investment from domestic economy.

Answer 22.
The counting of the value of commodity more than once is called double counting. This leads to over estimation of the value of goods and services produced. Thus, the importance of avoiding double counting lies in correct estimation of the value of domestic product, e.g. a farmer produces one tonne of wheat and sells it for ₹ 400 in the market to a flour mill.

The flour mill sells it for ₹ 600 to the baker. The baker sells the bread to the shopkeeper for ₹ 800. The shopkeeper sells the entire bread to the final consumers for ₹ 900. Thus,
Value of Output = ₹ (400 + 600 + 800 + 900) = ₹ 2,700

In fact, the value of the wheat is counted four times, the value of services of the miller thrice and the value of services by the baker twice.
In other words, the value of wheat and value of services of the miller and of the baker have been counted more than once. The counting of the value of commodity more than once is called double counting. To avoid the problem of double counting, following two methods are used:

1. Final Output Method According to this method, the value of intermediate goods is not considered. Only the value of final goods and services is considered. In the above example, the value of final goods, i.e. bread is ? 900.
2. Value Added Method Another method to avoid the problem of double counting is to estimate the total value added at each stage of production. In the above example, the value added at each stage of production is ₹ (400 + 200 + 200 +100)= ₹ 900.

Or

1. It will not be included in domestic product of India as this income is earned outside the domestic (economic) territory of India.
2. It will not be a part of domestic product of India as embassy of Japan in India is not a part of domestic territory of India. Hence, this income is not earned within the domestic territory of India.
3. It will be included in domestic product of India as the branch of American bank is located within the domestic territory of India. So, it is income earned within the domestic territory of India.
4. It will be part of domestic product of India because this income is earned within the domestic territory of India. Indian Embassy in Korea is treated as located within the domestic territory of India.

Answer 23.
If Aggregate Demand (AD) is less than Aggregate Supply (AS), then economy is not in equilibrium because an economy is in equilibrium when AS = AD.
When AD < AS, flow of goods and services in the economy tends to exceed their demand. As a result, some of the goods would remain unsold.
To clear unwanted stocks, the producers would plan a cut in production. Consequently, AS would reduce to become equal to AD. This is how AS adapts itself to AD.

In the above figure, equilibrium is struck at point E
where, AD = AS. At point Ev Aggregate Supply exceeds Aggregate Demand (AS > AD).
It will cause following changes in the economy:

1. Stocks of the producers would be in excess of the desired limit.
2. Desired level of output for the subsequent year will face a cut and profits will start shrinking.
3. Levels of income and employment will tend to shrink to the point where, S = l, corresponding to point E in the diagram.
   Thus, the economy will come back to the state of equilibrium.

Answer 24.

1. False, as current account of balance of payments account also records unilateral transfers.
2. True, as all kinds of foreign investments (foreign direct investments and portfolio investments) are included in the capital account of balance of payments.
3. False, as improvement in the exchange rate of a country’s currency implies that less rupees are to be paid for a dollar than before. It points to the relative strength of the Indian rupee in the international market. However, for a developing country like India, it is not always desired. It would mean that US, now can buy less Indian goods for a dollar than before, which might cut US demand for the Indian goods i.e., it leads to fall in exports from India.
4. True, a rise in foreign exchange rate causes a rise in its supply because, there is a direct relation or positive relation between foreign exchange rate and supply of foreign exchange. As with the rise in exchange rate, foreign currency can buy more units of domestic good with the same amount, therefore it leads to increase in supply of foreign exchange.

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 5 are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science. Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 5.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Paper 5

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 5 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions :

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questions nos. 1 to 5 are of 1 mark each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 20 words
3. Questions nos. 6 to 10 are of 2 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words
4. Questions nos. 11 to 16 are of 4 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 100 words
5. Questions nos. 17 to 21 are of 5 marks each. The answer to these questions should not exceed 150 words
6. Questions no. 21 is map based question
7. Questions nos. 22 to 27 are of 6 marks each. The answer to these questions should not i exceed 150 words

Question 1.
What was first Gulf War?

Question 2.
What is the common currency of EU?

Question 3.
What does SPA stand for?

Question 4.
What was main objective of ‘Dalit Panthers’?

Question 5.
Mention three issue that dominate the politics of North-East?

Question 6.
What factors led to crisis of democratic order in Indian politics?

Question 7.
Give the significance of the following dates:
(i) 7 Feb. 1992
(ii) 1 Nov. 1993

Question 8.
Why did Nehru regard conduct of foreign relations as an essential indicator of independence? State any two reasons with examples to support your reading.

Question 9.
How can we see re-emergence of Indira Gandhi to power in 1971?

Question 10.
Describe any two outcomes of ‘Naxalite movement’.

Question 11.
Why did India oppose the international treaties on Nuclear non-proliferation?

Question 12.
Mention circumstances to be characterised for imposition of Emergency.

Question 13.
In what manner Gorbachev’s reform policy was protested? Who took the command during these events?

Question 14.
Mention three ways in which US dominance since the Cold War is different from its position as a superpower during the Cold War.

Question 15.
“Reforming the UN means restructuring of the Security Council.” Do you agree with this statement? Give arguments for or against this position.

Question 16.
What are the differences in the threats that people in the Third World face and those living in the First World face?

Question 17.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions:
The Indian government is already participating in global efforts through a number of programmes. For example, India’s National Auto-fuel Policy mandates cleaner fuels for vehicles. The Energy Conservation Act, passed in 2001, outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency. Similarly, the Electricity Act of 2003 encourages the use of renewable energy. Recent trends in importing natural gas and encouraging the adoption of clean coal technologies show that India has been making real efforts. The government is also keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel, using about 11 million hectares of land to produce biodiesel by 2011-2012. And India has one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.
(i) How India has participated in global efforts to protect environment?
(ii) What are Energy Conservation Act and Electricity Act?
(iii) Mention the efforts made by Indian government for biodiesel.

Question 18.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions:
The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into smaller principalities of different sizes. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress and took the view that the States should be free to adopt any course they liked. Sardar Patel, India’s Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister during the crucial period, immediately after Independence, played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of Princely States in bringing most of them into the Indian Union.
(i) Which government has been referred to as the interim government?
(ii) Why did the Muslim League oppose the Indian National Congress?
(iii) What makes the role of Sardar Patel a historic one? Explain.

Question 19.
Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) What does the cartoon represent?
(ii) What does the equations speak about?
(iii) “I’m always good at calculations”. What does this represent?

Question 20.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions:
Once an emergency is proclaimed, the federal distribution of powers remains practically suspended and all the powers are concentrated in the hands of the union government. Secondly, the government also gets the power to curtail or restrict all or any of the Fundamental Rights during the emergency. From the wording of the provisions of the Constitution, it is clear that an Emergency is seen as an extra-ordinary condition in which normal democratic politics cannot function. Therefore, special powers are granted to the government.
(i) When was Emergency imposed?
(ii) Who recommended Emergency to be imposed and to whom?
(iii) Mention the implications of Emergency.

Question 21.
Study the map and answer the following questions.

(i) Name any two states which were under British rule directly before partition of the country.
(ii) Name any two Princely States of India before and after the partition.
(iii) Name any one state which was basically divided because of partition.

Question 22.
Define the various treaties to control arms. 6
OR
“During the Cold War era, India and the USSR enjoyed a special relationship which made critics to say that India was part of Soviet camp”. Examine the statement.

Question 23.
What are different natures of hegemony? Explain. 6
OR
Identify the contentious issues between China and India. How could these be resolved for greater cooperation? Give your suggestions.

Question 24.
What are some of the commonalities and differences between Bangladesh and Pakistan in their democratic experiences?
OR
Why do some countries put a question mark on India’s inclusion as the permanent member in Security Council?

Question 25.
If Bharatiya Jana Sangh or the Communist Party of India had formed the government after the first election, in which respects would the policies of the government have been different? Specify three differences each for both the parties.
OR
Why is Emergency considered to be one of the most controversial episodes in Indian politics? Analyse any three reasons.

Question 26.
What is globalisation? How has technology contributed in promoting globalisation? 6
OR
Discuss the consequences of the India’s partition in 1947.

Question 27.
Write a note on tjie Socialist Party.
OR
Describe any four major developments in the Indian politics since 1989.

Answers

Answer 1.
A massive coalition force of 660,000 troops from 34 countries fought against Iraq and defeated it in what came to be known as the First Gulf War.

Answer 2.
Euro

Answer 3.
SPA stands for Seven Party Alliance to protest against monarchy in Nepal.

Answer 4.
Dalit Panthers aimed at the destroy of caste system and to build on organisation of all oppressed sections like landless poor peasants and urban industrial workers alongwith Dalits.

Answer 5.
Three issues :

• demands for autonomy,
• movements for succession,
• opposition to outsiders.

Answer 6.

• Emergence of Indira Gandhi with a lot of popularity.
• Party competitions had been created.
• Relation between the government and judiciary had become tense.

Answer 7.

• 7 Feb. 1992 – Treaty of Maastricht was signed to establish the European Union
• 1 Nov. 1993 – European Union was established.

Answer 8.

1. India decided to conduct its foreign relations with respect to sovereignty of other nations and maintain peace and security through mutual cooperation to be reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy on Article 51 of the Constitution.
2. India always advocated the policy of Non-alignment, made efforts to reduce cold war tensions and contributed human resources to UN peace keeping operations.
3. Hence, India took independent stand and got assistance from members of both the blocs.

Answer 9.
Congress (R) under Indira Gandhi had an issue, an agenda and a positive slogan which was lacked by its opponents. The ‘Grand Alliance’ had only one common programme ‘Indira Hatao’:

1. In contrast to this, Indira Gandhi put forward a positive slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’.
2. By this, she generated a support base among poor, minorities, landless labourers, dalit, women and unemployed youth.
3. Except it, she focused on the growth of public sector, imposition of ceiling on rural land holdings and urban property, removal of disparity etc.
4. Thus, the slogan of Garibi Hatao and programmes became the part of Indira Gandhi’s political strategy of building an independent nationwide political support base during the electoral contest of 1971.

Answer 10.
Because of discriminatory nature :

1. India felt that these treaties prove the monopoly of five nuclear weapon-powers only and applicable to only the non-nuclear powers.
2. India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT in 1995 and refused to sign even CTBT (Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty).

Answer 11.

• The first objective was to follow NAM, not to join either the military blocs formed by USA or Soviet Union.
• To promote rapid economic development and maintain cordial relations with other nations.
• To prefect the territorial integrity.
• To preserve sovereignty of India and also respecting others sovereignty.

Answer 12.

• Emergence of Indira Gandhi.
• Power Politics became personalised and governmental authority was converted into personalization.
• Bitter party competition.
• Tense relations between the government and judiciary.

Answer 13.

1. The East European countries which were the part of the Soviet Bloc, started to protest against their own government and Soviet control.
2. Boris Yeltsin took the command during these events as he got popular support of people in the elections and began to shake off centralised control.
3. Power began to shift from centre to the republics which declared themselves independent.
4. In December 1991, under the leadership of Boris Yeltsin Russia, Ukraine and Baltics declared themselves as sovereign states.

Answer 14.

1. During Cold War, the US found it difficult to win over the Soviet Union as hard power due to retaliating capacity of the Soviet Union and to protest world from large scale destruction. But in the areas of structural and soft power, the US dominated.
2. During Cold War years, the Soviet Union provided an alternate model of socialist economy to maximise welfare of states. Still the world economy throughout the Cold War years adapted capitalist economy under the US.
3. In the area of soft power, the US became triumphant. As the example of blue jeans shows that the US could engineer a generational gap even in Soviet Society on culture basis.

Answer 15.
Yes, we agree with the statement because Security Council plays a crucial role in functioning of the UN. In today’s scenario power equations have been changed with the disintegration of USSR and many new countries are entering into the UN:

1. The UN charter has given a privileged position to permanent members to bring stability all over the world. This position remains the same and no one is allowed to enter.
2. Except permanent members enjoy veto power to be placed in a valuable position.
3. Permanent members category is from industrialised developed country which should be balanced by enhancing representation from developing countries to become either permanent or non-permanent members. ‘
4. Hence, Security Council should reform and improve its working to make the UN more effective t.e., inclusion of member states should be judged on the basis of contribution to peace keeping initiatives.

Answer 16.
The threats are different in the Third World and First World peoples because their regions are changed, hence they face different security challenges in the following manner:

• The newly independent countries faced the military conflicts even with their neighboring states.
• These countries faced threats not only from outside their borders, mostly from neighbors, but also from within.
• Internally, new states worried about threats from separatist movements which wanted to form independent countries.
• Sometimes, the external and internal threats merged.
• For the new states, external wars with neighbors and internal wars posed a serious challenge to their security.

Answer 17.

1. It has launched a number of programmes i.e. Auto Fuel Policy, Energy Conservation Act 2001, Electricity Act 2003 to protect environment.
2. The Energy Conservation Act was passed in 2001 to outline initiatives to improve energy efficiency and Electricity Act passed in 2003 to encourage the use of renewable energy by the Indian government as a conservation programme.
3. The Indian government is keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel using about 11 million hectares of land to produce biodiesel by 2011-12.

Answer 18.

1. The Indian National Congress has been referred to as the interim government.
2. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress because it was of the view that the states should be free to adopt any course they liked.
3. Sardar Patel was India’s Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister during the crucial period immediately following independence. He negotiated with the rulers of Princely States firmly but diplomatically and brought most of them into the Indian Union.

Answer 19.

• Dual role of Pakistan’s ruler Pervez Musharraf as the President and as Army General.
• These equations speak about dominance of one the Person militarily more rather than only the President.
• It shows the nation that Musharraf wants to command the country militarily and administratively both to strengthen his power because the President’s survival is not easy without military support.

Answer 20.

1. 25 June 1975.
2. The Prime Minister Indira Gandhi recommended to impose Emergency to the President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad.
3. • The federal distribution of powers remains practically suspended.
   • All the powers are concentrated in the hands of Union government.
   • The government also gets power to restrict all or any of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.

Answer 21.

1. • Punjab
   • Sindh
2. • Hyderabad
   • Gujarat
3. Bengal

Answer 22.

1. Limited Test Ban Treaty: Banned nuclear weapon tests in the atmosphere, in outer space and under water signed by the US, UK and USSR in Moscow on 5 August 1963 came into force on 10 October, 1963.
2. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty: It allows only the nuclear weapon states to have nuclear weapons and stops others from acquiring them. A nuclear weapon state is one which had manufactured and exploded nuclear explosive device prior to 1 January, 1967. So there are five nuclear weapon states: US, USSR, Britain, France and China.
3. Strategic Arms Limitation Talks I and II (Salt I and II): The first round began in November 1969. The Soviet Union leader Leonid Brezhnev and the US President Richard Nixon signed the following in Moscow on 26 May 1972—
   • Anti Ballistic Missile System Treaty,
   • Interim Agreement on limitation of strategic offensive arms.
     It came into force on 3 October, 1972.
     The second round started in November 1972. The US President Jimmy Carter and the Soviet leader Brezhnev signed Treaty on limiting strategic offensive arms in Vienna on 18 June, 1979.
4. Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty I and II (START I and II): Treaty I signed by the USSR President Mikhail Gorbachev and the US President George Bush (Senior) on the reduction and limitation of strategic offensive arms in Moscow on 31 July 1991. Treaty II was signed for the same purpose in Moscow on 3 January, 1993 between Russian President Boris Yeltsin and the US President George Bush (Senior).

OR

During the Cold War era, India and the USSR enjoyed a special relationship which made critics to say that India was part of the Soviet camp. It was a multi-dimensional relationship:

1. Economic :
   • The Soviet Union assisted India’s public sector companies at a time when such assistance was difficult to get.
   • It gave aid and technical assistance for steel plants like Bhilai, Bokaro, Vishakhapatnam and machinery plants like Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
   • The Soviet Union accepted Indian currency for trade when India was short of foreign exchange.
2. Political :
   • The Soviet Union supported India’s positions on the Kashmir issue in the UN.
   • The Soviet Union also supported India during its major conflicts during the war with Pakistan in 1971. .
   • India too supported Soviet foreign policy in some crucial but indirect ways.
3. Military :
   • India received military hardware from Soviet Union.
   • India got technological know-how regarding maintenance of military arsenal.
   • India and Soviet Union got mutual agreements to produce military equipments.
4. Cultural :
   • Hindi films and Indian culture were popular in the Soviet Union.
   • A large number of Indian writers and artists visited the USSR.
   • Indian heroes from Raj Kapoor to Amitabh Bachchan are household names in Russia.

Answer 23.
Hegemony is an international system to dominate world by only one superpower. The natures of hegemony can be found out as follows:

1. Hegemony as Hard Power :
   • It is based on the military capability between the states.
   • The US military dominance is based on their higher expenditures on military as well as the technological know-how.
   • The US bears military dominance in both the terms i.e. absolute and relative. In absolute terms the US military capabilities can reach any point on the planet and no other power can be a match to them.
2. Hegemony as Structural Power :
   • It is based on economic factors of the world dominated by the hegemonic power.
   • Hegemony must sustain global structure to establish certain norms for order and the US has set up Bretton Woods System.
   • he US hegemony has provided the global public goods to be consumed by one person without reducing the amount available for someone else as SLOCs and the Internet, MBA degree.
3. Hegemony as Soft Power :
   • To dominate world even in reference of cultural dimensions i.e. class ascendancy in social, political and ideological spheres.
   • The US hegemony has the capacity to create ‘manufacturing consent’ by the class to be dominated by the hegemon.
   • The ‘blue jeans’ from the US is capable to engineer even a generational divide.

OR

The relations with China experience friendly gestures from India as India signed popular ‘Panchsheel’ to develop Indo-China relations in 1954 and advocated China’s membership to the United Nations. Still, after 1957, various contentious issues arose in Indo-China relations:

• In 1962, military conflict over a border dispute of MacMohan Line resulted on unwarranted claim by China which now lie in Arunachal Pradesh and Aksai Chin region of Ladakh. ,
• Differences arose from Chinese take over of Tibet in 1950 which was protested by India against China.
• After Panchsheel, attack by China on India in 1962, to occupy larger territories of India, created humiliation.
• China’s assistance to Pakistan’s nuclear programme also created differences.
• China’s military relations with Bangladesh and Myanmar were viewed as hostile to Indian interests.

All the above mentioned differences/disputes could be resolved for greater cooperation-

• Both the countries should make some more efforts to revive harmonious attitude between themselves.
• Both the countries should move hand-in-hand to fight against terrorism, nuclear race and economic disparities.
• Both the countries should develop understanding and respect.
• Hence, both of them have signed agreements on cultural exchange and cooperation in science and technology.

Answer 24.
Bangladesh has been the part of Pakistan itself. Both of these countries bear some similarities and differences as follows:
Commonalities :

1. Both Bangladesh and Pakistan were under a military rule.
2. At both the places, the struggle for democracy took place in their own way.
3. Pakistan’s administration began under the command of General Ayub Khan and gave up due to dissatisfaction among people giving way to Yahya’s military rule and continued with the army rule though elections were held by military rulers to give a democratic shape to their own rule.
4. In the same way, Bangladesh drafted its own constitution to begin with democracy. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman formed Presidential setup by abolishing all the parties except Awami Legue. But after his assassination the new military ruler Zia-ur-Rahman formed his own party and won elections in 1979. Later on he was also assassinated and another military leader Lt. Gen. H.M. Ershad took over.

Differences :

1. In Pakistan, military, clergy and land-owning aristocrats dominated socially to overthrow elected government whereas in Bangladesh the leaders and their party members dominated for the same.
2. Pro-military groups have become more powerful due to conflict with India in Pakistan whereas in Bangladesh, pro-military groups are powerful due to friendship and encouragement of India.

OR

Due to following reasons :

• Troubled relationship with Pakistan.
• India’s nuclear weapon capabilities
• If India is included, some emerging powers (Brazil, Germany, Japan, South Africa) will also be accommodated.
• France and the US advocate that Africa and South America must be represented for they do not have any representation in the present structure.

Answer 25.

1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
   The policies of Bharatiya Jana Sangh were based on the principles as follows:
   • It replaced secular concept by the ideology of one country, one culture and one nation.
   • No cultural and educational rights as this party opposed the granting of concessions to religious and cultural minorities.
   • It focused on the reunity of India and Pakistan under the concept of Akhand Bharat.
2. Communist Party of India
   Communist Party of India would have been different on the principles as follows:
   • It worked for proportional representation in the government.
   • This party followed communist ideology in various policies.
   • It emphasised on a control over electronic mass media by an autonomous body or corporation.

OR

1. There are different views about the need to declare emergency. The Indian Constitution simply described ‘internal disturbances’ as the reason for declaring Emergency. The government argued that in a democracy, the opposition parties must allow the elected ruling party to govern according to its policies. It felt that frequent recourse to agitations, protests and collective action are not good for democracy. This leads to instability and distracts the administration from its routine task of ensuring development. Some other parties like the CPI that continued to back the Congress during Emergency, also believed that these was an international conspiracy against unity of India.
2. On the other hand, the critics of the Emergency argued that ever since the freedom movement, Indian politics had a history of popular struggles. Jai Prakash Narayan and many other opposition leader felt that in a democracy people had the right to publicly protest against the government. The Gujarat and Bihar agitations peaceful. Those who were arrested were never tried for any anti-national activity. The threat was not to the unity and integrity of the country, but to the ruling party and to the Prime Minister herself. The critics say that Indira Gandhi misused the constitutional provision meant for saving the country to save her personal power.
3. The government used powers given by the constitution and suspended the democratic functioning. It said that it wanted to use the Emergency to bring law and order, restore government led by Indira Gandhi announced a twenty-point programme and declared its determination to implement this programme. In the initial months, the urban middle classes were generally happy over the fact that agitations came to an end. The poor and rural people also expected effective implementation of the welfare programmes. Thus, different sections of society had different expectations from the Emergency.
4. Critics of Emergency indicated that most of these promises by the government remained unfulfilled, that these were simply meant to divert attention from the excesses that were taking place.
   Therefore, the Emergency of 1975 brought out both the weaknesses and the strengths of India’s democracy. It brought out some ambiguities regarding the Emergency provision in the Constitution that have been rectified since. Also the Emergency made everyone aware of the value of civil liberties.

Answer 26.
Globalisation as a concept fundamentally deals with flows. These flows could be of various kinds—ideas moving from one part of the world to another, capital shunted between two or more places, commodities being traded across borders, and people moving in search of better livelihoods to different parts of the world. The crucial element is the ‘worldwide interconnectedness’ that is created and sustained as a consequence of these constant flows. While globalisation is not caused by any single factor, technology remains a critical element. There is no doubt that the invention of telephone, microchip, etc. in more recent years has revolutionised communication between different parts of the world. When printing initially came into being it laid the basis for the creation of nationalism.

The ability of ideas, capital, commodities and people to move more easily from one part of the world to another has been made possible largely by technological advances. Advancement in technology has made it possible for the people to keep themselves fully informed about all events and happenings in the world.

Events taking place in one part of the world have impact over other parts of the world due to advanced technology.

OR

Consequences of the partition of India :

1. The year 1947 was the year of one of the largest, most abrupt, unplanned and tragic transfer of population that Indian history was known. In the name of religion, people of a community killed and maimed people of the other community. Cities like Lahore, Calcutta (Kolkata) and Amritsar were titled as communal zones.
2. Muslims would avoid going into areas where mainly Hindus and Sikhs lived. Similarly, the Hindus and Sikhs stayed away from Muslim areas.
3. People went through immense sufferings because they were forced to abandon their homes and move across borders. Minorities on both sides of the border fled their homes and often secured temporary shelter in ‘refugee camps’. They often found helpless local police and administration helpless in what was till recently their own country. They travelled to the other side of the new border by all sorts of means, often by foot. Even during this journey they were often attacked, killed or raped. Thousands of women were abducted on both sides of the border. They were made to convert to the religion of the abductor and were forced into marriage. In many cases, women were killed by their own family members to preserve the ‘family honour’. Many children were separated from their parents.
4. Those who did manage to cross the border found that they had no home. For lakhs of these ‘refugees’ the country’s freedom meant life in refugee camps, for a long time.
5. While recounting the trauma of partition, they have often used the phrase that the survivors themselves used to describe partition—as a division of hearts.
6. The partition was not merely a division of properties, liabilities and assets, or a political division of the country and the administrative apparatus. The employees of the government and the railways were also divided. Partition forced about 80 lakh people to migrate across the new border. About 5 to 10 lakhs people were killed in partition-related violence. However, beyond the administrative concerns and financial strains, the partition posed another deeper issue, the leaders of the Indian national struggle did not accept the two-nation theory. And yet, partition on religious had taken place.

Answer 27.
The Socialist Party traces its roots back to the mass movement stage of the Indian National Congress in the pre-independence era. The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was established within the Congress in 1934 by a group of young leaders who wanted a more radical and egalitarian Congress. In 1948, the Congress amended its constitution to prevent its members from having a dual party membership. This forced the Socialists to form a separate Socialists leaders Party in 1948. The leaders of the Socialist Party believed in the ideology of democratic socialism which distinguished them both from the Congress as well as from the Communists. They criticised the Congress Party for favouring capitalists and landlords and for ignoring the workers and the peasants. But the Socialist party faced a dilemma when in 1955 the Congress declared its goal to be the socialist pattern of society. Thus, it became difficult for the socialists to present themselves as an effective alternative to the Congress. Some of them, led by Rammanohar Lohia, criticised the Congress Party.

The Socialist Party went through many splits and reunions leading to the formation of many socialist parties. These included the Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party, Jayaprakash Narayan, Achyut Patwardhan, Asoka Mehta, Acharya Narendra Dev, Rammanohar Lohia and S.M. Joshi were among the leaders of the socialist parties. Many parties in contemporary India, like the Samajwadi Party, the Rashtriya Janata Dal, Janata Dal (United) and the Janata Dal (Secular) trace their origins to the Socialist Party.

OR

In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts, a consensus appears to have emerged among most parties. This consensus consists of four elements :

1. Agreement on new economic policies: While many groups are opposed to the new economic policies, most political parties are in support of the new economic policies. Most parties believe that these policies would lead the country to prosperity and a status of economic power in the world.
2. Acceptance of political and social claims of the backward castes: Political parties have recognised the social and political claims of the backward castes need to be accepted. As a result, all political parties now support reservation of seats for the ‘backward classes’ in education and employment. Political parties are also willing to ensure that the OBCs get adequate share of power.
3. Acceptance of the role of state level parties in governance of the country: The distinction between state level and national level parties is fast becoming less important. State level parties are showing power at the national level and have played a central role in the country’s politics of last twenty years or so.
4. Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement: Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power sharing arrangements. Thus, most parties of the NDA did not agree with the ‘Hindutva’ ideology of the BJP. Yet, they came together to form a government and remained in power for a full term.

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