CBSE Class 9 – Page 11

Why Do We Fall ill Class 9 Notes Science Chapter 13

May 9, 2023

Why Do We Fall ill Class 9 Notes

On this page, you will find why Do We Fall ill Class 9 Notes Science Chapter 13 Pdf free download. CBSE NCERT Class 9 Science Notes Chapter 13 Why Do We Fall ill will seemingly help them to revise the important concepts in less time.

CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 13 Notes Why Do We Fall ill

Why Do We Fall ill Class 9 Notes Understanding the Lesson

1. Cells are basic unit of living organisms and a lot of activities and chemical reactions are taking place in the cells, so even though they look static they are in a dynamic state as a lot of activities are continuously going inside them.

2. Growth and repair of cells is a continuous process which occurs in living organisms.

3. Activities of all the organs in our body are occurring in a coordinated and interconnected way. For example, poisonous substances would accumulate in the body if the urine is not filtered properly by the kidneys. This in turn would affect the activities of the brain and it will not be able to think properly.

4. Food and energy is needed by all the tissues of a living body in order to function properly.

5. If the functioning of cells and tissues gets adversely affected it would result in lack of proper activity of the body.

6. ‘Health’ is defined as a state of physical, emotional, mental and social well being of a person.

7. The health of an individual depends on the surroundings or the environment of an individual. The environment includes the physical environment.

8. Social environment is also an important factor for health of an individual. Even our physical environment is decided by our social environment.

9. Personal hygiene, public cleanliness, social equality, harmony and good economic conditions are necessary for individual health.

10. Disease refers to any condition that disturbs the normal functioning of the living organism. It is a condition of disturbed ease when an individual feels uncomfortable. Being disease-free is a concept which applies to individual sufferer.

11. Even a disease free person can be considered as having a poor health if the person is unfit in terms of social and mental health. So, health is a concept which applies to societies and communities.

12. The functioning or the appearance of one or more systems of the body gets adversely affected when a person is suffering from a disease. These changes result in symptoms and signs of the disease.

13. Signs and Symptoms

Symptoms are the physical disturbances that indicate that something is wrong with the functioning of the body and that there may be a disease, but they don’t indicate what the disease is. For example, headache, cough, pus in wound, etc., are symptoms of a disease.
On the basis of the symptoms, physicians look for the signs of a disease. Signs give a more definite indication of the presence of a particular disease.

14. Types of Disease – Acute disease and chronic disease

The disease which lasts for only very short periods of time is called acute disease.
For example: common cold
The disease which can last for a long time, even as much as a lifetime is called as chronic disease. They have a long-term effect on the health of a person.
For example: elephantiasis

15. Causes of disease – Immediate and contributory

Immediate causes: These are the first level causes or the primary cause of the disease.
Example: The various bacteria, virus, fungi, protozoans, etc., which cause infection in an organism.
Contributory causes: These are the second level of causes or the internal factors which result in a disease.
For example: Pollutants in the atmosphere, inadequate diet, poor health, improper nourishment, lack of public services, poor economic condition, genetic abnormalities, etc.
The immediate cause of disease can be of two types: Infectious diseases and non-infectious dis¬eases.
Infectious diseases: These diseases are caused by infectious agents. These can spread from one person to another through some medium or by direct contact.
Example: Pneumonia, common cold, tuberculosis, etc.
Non-infectious diseases: These do not spread from one person to another person in the community. They are caused due to internal factors.
Example: Cancer, high blood pressure, diabetes, etc.
Infectious agents: The organisms (unicellular or multicellular) which cause infection are called as the infective agents.
Example: virus, bacteria, worms, fungi, etc.

Examples of diseases caused by infectious agents

By viruses: Common cold, influenza, dengue fever and AIDS.
By bacteria: Typhoid, cholera, tuberculosis, anthrax, etc.
By fungi: Many common skin infections like ringworm disease.
By Protozoans: Malaria and kala-azar.
By worms: Intestinal worm infections, elephantiasis.

Antibiotic: Chemicals produced by certain microorganisms like bacteria and fungi which inhibit the growth of the other microorganisms are called as antibiotics.

Mode of action of antibiotic: Antibiotics usually block the important biochemical pathways of bacteria. Example: The antibiotic penicillin blocks the processes that help in synthesis of a cell wall in the bacteria. Due to this, the bacteria become unable to make cell walls to protect them and die easily. Human cells don’t make a cell wall, so penicillin does not affect them.

16. Antibiotics do not work against viruses:
Reason: Viruses do not use their own biochemical pathways for the synthesis of their cell wall. They have very few biochemical mechanisms. So, antibiotics do not work against viral infections.

17. Means of spread of diseases
Infectious diseases can spread from an infected person to a healthy person by various transmitting agents, so they are called as communicable diseases. These diseases can be spread through air, water, vectors and physical contact.

(i) By air: The little droplets thrown out by an infected person who sneezes or coughs can result in a new infection in a healthy person if the person breathes in the droplets released by the infected person. Example: common cold, pneumonia and tuberculosis.

(ii) By water: If the excreta from someone suffering from an infectious gut disease, such as cholera, get mixed with the drinking water used by people living nearby. The microbes will enter new hosts through the water they drink and cause disease in them.
Example: cholera.

(iii) By Sexual contact: Some diseases are transmitted by sexual contact from one partner to the other. Example: syphilis, AIDS, etc.
It is important to note that: AIDS does not spread by casual physical contacts like handshakes or hugs or sports, like wrestling. AIDS can spread in four ways, sexual contact, transfusion of AIDS infected blood, from an infected mother to her baby during pregnancy or through breast feeding.

(iv) By vectors: Many diseases are transmitted by animals from an infected person to a healthy person. These animals act as intermediaries and are called vectors. The most common example of vectors are mosquitoes. The females of many species of mosquitoes need highly nutritious food in the form of blood in order to be able to lay mature eggs.

18. Different species of microbes have evolved to affect different parts of the body. The selection is generally connected to their point of entry.

They usually go to the lungs if they enter from the air via the nose.
Example: bacteria causing tuberculosis.
They can stay in the gut lining or go to the liver if they enter through the mouth. Example: bacteria which causes typhoid remains in the gut lining whereas the viruses that cause jaundice go to the liver.

19. Other ways are:

The AIDS causing virus HIV comes into the body via the sexual organs and then spreads to lymph nodes all over the body.
Malaria-causing microbes which enter through a mosquito bite go to the liver, and then to the red blood cells.
The virus causing Japanese encephalitis or brain fever enters through a mosquito bite and goes on to infect the brain.

20. The signs and symptoms of a disease depend on the tissue or organ which the microbe targets.

If the lungs are the targets, then symptoms will be cough and breathlessness.
If the liver is the target, there will be jaundice.
If the brain is the target, it will result in headache, vomiting, fits or unconsciousness.

21. Inflammation: An active immune system recruits many cells to the affected tissue to kill off the disease- causing microbes. This recruitment process is called inflammation. Local effects such as swelling and pain, and general effects such as fever are caused as a part of this process.

In AIDS, the virus called HIV goes to the immune system and damages its function. As a result, the body can no longer fight off even the minor infections. For example, a very small cold can become pneumonia or minor gut infection can produce major diarrhoea with blood loss. Ultimately, the immune system of the person becomes very weak and these and other infections kill people suffering from HIV-AIDS.

22. Principles of Treatment
There are two ways for treatment of infectious diseases:

to reduce the effects of the disease: The main focus is to reduce the symptoms which are usually due to inflammation. For example, rest is taken to conserve energy, medicines are taken to bring down fever or to reduce pain or loose motions, etc.
to kill the cause of the disease: The main focus on this is to get rid of the disease causing microbe from the body. For example, medicines like antibiotics are taken to kill microbes.

23. Principles of Prevention
Prevention is better than cure because the methods which deal with getting rid of an infection have three limitations.

During treatment, the body functions of the person get damaged and may never recover completely.
The person suffering from a disease is likely to be dridden for some time as the treatment of a disease takes time.
The person suffering from an infectious disease can serve as the source of spread of infection to other people.

23. Ways of Prevention of disease are
(i) General ways: These focus on preventing exposure to the disease causing organisms. Public hygiene is important for the prevention of infectious diseases.
For example,

By providing living conditions that are not overcrowded, exposure to air-borne infections can be avoided.
By providing safe drinking water and treating water to kill microbes in it, the water-borne infections can be prevented.
By providing clean environment which do not allow spread of microbes/vectors, the vector-borne infections can be prevented.
For vector-borne infections, we can provide clean environments. This would not, for example, allow mosquito breeding.

(ii) Specific ways: These methods are adopted to make the immune system of the person strong by vaccination to create immunisation and taking proper and sufficient food for keeping the body healthy.

24. Vaccine: A modified suspension of disease causing microorganisms which have been weakened so that they are not able to cause disease but help to activate the immune system of the organism to produce antibodies against the disease causing organism. Edward Jenner developed the first vaccine against the smallpox disease. The process of inoculation of a vaccine in a person to develop immunity against a disease is called vaccination.

Class 9 Science Chapter 13 Notes Important Terms

Health: The state of physical, emotional, mental and social well being of an individual.

Disease: Any condition that causes disturbed ease in a person or disturbs the normal functioning of the body.

Acute disease: The disease which lasts for a short time.

Chronic disease: The disease which persists for a long time.

Infectious disease: A disease which can spread from one person to other. E.g., common cold

Non-infectious disease: A disease which cannot spread from one person to other. E.g., diabetes

Antibiotics: The chemicals secreted by some microbes like fungi and bacteria which are used to control the growth of bacteria or kill the bacteria.

Immunity: The ability of the body to fight against the disease causing organisms.

Vaccine: A biological preparation that provides immunity to a person against a disease.

Vector: The organism or the agent which helps in the transmission of a disease.

Inflammation: It is the process by which the white blood cells of our blood protect us from the infections by disease-causing organisms.

Symptom: The physical disturbances which indicate the presence of a disease.

Syndrome: Group of symptoms

AIDS: Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

HIV: Human immuno-deficiency virus

Immunisation: The process by which a person is made immune to an infectious disease . administering a vaccine.

Important Questions for Class 9 Science CBSE Chapter Wise Pdf

May 8, 2023

NCERT CBSE Important Questions for Class 9 Science: Students who are struggling to find out what are the important question asked in the annual exams? Here is the list of CBSE Important questions for class 9 science chapterwise which are prepared by subject experts as per the latest CBSE syllabus curriculum. All these questions are designed after analyzing the previous questions papers & model papers. So, make sure to include practicing these NCERT extra important science questions and attain good marks in Exams.

Class 9 Science Important Questions with Answers

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Floatation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 16

May 7, 2023

Chapter 16 Floatation Class 9 Science Important Questions with Answers PDF will help you in scoring more marks in your exams.

Floatation Class 9 Important Questions and Answers Science Chapter 16

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Based on Thrust and Pressure

Question 1.
Define ‘thrust’. (CBSE 2011, 2014, 2016)
Answer:
The total force exerted by a body perpendicular to the surface is known as thrust.

More Resources

Question 2.
What is the unit of thrust in SI ? (CBSE 2013, 2016)
Answer:
S.I. unit of thrust is newton (N).

Question 3.
Define the term ‘pressure’. (CBSE 2011, 2013, 2014, 2016)
Answer:
Pressure is defined as the force acting perpendicular on unit area of the surface.

Question 4.
Name the SI unit of pressure. (CBSE 2013, 2016)
Answer:
S.I. unit of pressure is N/m² or pascal.

Question 5.
State the relationship between thrust and pressure. (CBSE 2010, Term I, 2013, 2014)
Thrust
Answer:

Question 6.
Define 1 pascal. (CBSE 2014, 2015, 2016)
Answer:
1 pascal is defined as the pressure exerted by 1 N force acting perpendicular on the surface of 1 m² area.

Based on Buoyant Force

Question 7.
Define upthrust or buoyant force. (CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012, 2016)
Answer:
The upward force exerted by a liquid on a body which is immersed in the liquid is known as upthrust or buoyant force.

Question 8.
State the factors on which upthrust or buoyant force depends. (CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012, 2016)
Answer:

Size or volume of body immersed in a liquid,
Density of the liquid in which the body is immersed and
Acceleration due to gravity at the given place.

Question 9.
When an object is immersed in a fluid, name the two forces acting on it. (CBSE 2011, 2012, 2016)
Answer:

Weight of object in the vertically downward direction,
Upthrust or buoyant force in the vertically upward direction.

Question 10.
Name the force experienced by an object in a fluid when immersed in it. What is its direction ?
(CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Upthrust or Buoyant force. It acts on the object in upward direction.

Question 11.
Why does a block of wood held under water rise to the surface when released ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
This is because the buoyant force or upthrust acting on the wooden block due to water is greater than the weight of the block.

Question 12.
An object of weight 200 N is floating in a liquid. What is the magnitude of the buoyant force acting on it? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Magnitude of buoyant force = 200 N.

Question 13.
Explain the factors which determine whether an object floats or sinks when placed on the surface of water.
(CBSE 2011)
Answer:

Volume of the object and
density of the water.

Question 14.
Name the force acting on a body, when it is fully or partially immersed in a liquid. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Buoyant force.

Question 15.
What will be the direction of buoyant force when suppose the weight of an object is acting from north to south in the fluid ? (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
From south to north as buoyant force acts opposite to the direction of the weight of the object.

Question 16.
A body of weight 20 N floats half submerged in a liquid. What is the buoyant force on the body ?
Answer:
20 N

Based on Archimedes’ Principle

Question 17.
State Archimedes’ principle. (CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012, 2015)
Answer:
When a body is immersed partially or completely in a fluid (liquid or gas), it experiences an upthrust or buoyant force which is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body. The weight of the body decreases due to the buoyant force acting on the body, when immersed in a fluid. In other words, a body loses its weight, when immersed completely or partially in a fluid. The loss of weight of a body in a fluid is equal to the upthrust or buoyant force.
The upthrust or buoyant force = weight of fluid displaced by a body = weight of body in air – weight of body in fluid.

Question 18.
Write the relationship between buoyant force acting on an object and weight of the liquid displaced by it. (CBSE 2010, 2012)
Answer:
Buoyant force = weight of liquid displaced by the object.

Question 19.
State the physical expression relating weight of the body in the liquid, actual weight of the body in air and the weight of the liquid displaced by the body. (CBSE 2011, 2013)
Answer:
Weight of a body in a liquid = actual weight of the body – weight of the liquid displaced by the body.

Question 20.
Give any two examples where Archimedes’ principle is applied . (CBSE 2011, 2012)

List two applications of Archimedes’ principle. (CBSE 2012, 2016)
Answer:
Archimedes’ principle is applied in designing

ships and submarines and
lactometer used for testing the purity of milk.

Question 21.
State the principle on which working of hydrometer is based. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Archimedes’ principle:
A Greek scientist Archimedes conducted many experiments and concluded that when a body or an object is immersed partially or completely in a liquid or a gas (i.e., fluid), it experiences an upthrust or buoyant force. The upthrust or buoyant force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body. As a result of the buoyant force acting on an object, the weight of the object decreases, when immersed in a fluid. The finding of Archimedes is known as Archimedes’ principle.
Archimedes’ principle is used to design :

the ships and submarines
the hydrometers to find the densities of liquids
the lactometers to test the purity of milk.

Based on Density and Relative density

Question 22.
Define density. Give SI unit of density. (CBSE 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015)
Answer:
Density of an object is defined as mass per unit volume of the object. That is, density = mass/volume .
S.I. unit of density is kg/m³ (kg m^-3).

Question 23.
Define relative density of a substance. (CBSE 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015)
Answer:
It is defined as the ratio of the density of the substance to the density of water.

Question 24.
If the relative density of a substance is less than 1, will it float or sink in water ? Support your answer.
(Density of water = 1000 kg/m³). (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Floatation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 16 image - 1
As relative density of substance is less than 1, so density of substance is less than the density of water. Hence, the substance will float in water.

Question 25.
Relative density of aluminium is 2.7. Explain this statement. (Similar CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Aluminium is 2.7 times heavier than the equal volume of water.

Question 26.
The density of a solid is 7.9 g cm^-3 in air. What is the density of the solid in SI unit (kg m^-3) ?
(CBSE 2016)
Answer:
Density = 7.9 g cm^-3 = 7.9 x 1000 kg m^-3 = 7.9 x 10³ kg m^-3.

Question 27.
Relative density of gold is 19.3. The density of water is 1000 kg/m³. What is the density of gold in SI units ? (CBSE 2011, 2013, 2014, 2017)
Answer:
Density of gold = Relative density of gold x density of water = 19.3 x 1000 kg/m³ = 19300 kg/m³

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Based on thrust and pressure

Question 1.
Differentiate between thrust and pressure. State the unit in which they are measured.
Answer:
Thrust: The total force exerted by a body perpendicular to the surface is known as thrust.
Pressure: Pressure is defined as the force acting perpendicular on unit area of the surface.
S.I. unit of thrust is newton (N).
S.I. unit of pressure is N/m² or pascal.

Question 2.
The wheels of an army tank rest on a steel belt. Give reason.

Why an army tank weighing more than a thousand tonne rests upon a continuous chain. (CBSE 2012, 2015)
Answer:
Pressure exerted by army tank on the ground is given
Floatation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 16 image - 3
Since area of steel belt is more than the area of the wheels of the tank, so tank exerts less force on the ground. Hence, the ground under the tank does not sink under the weight of the tank.

Question 3.
Why are railway tracks laid on large sized concrete sleepers ? Explain. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
The weight or thrust of the train is spread over large area of sleepers. Therefore, the pressure acting on the
ground under the sleepers is reduced. This prevents the sinking of the ground under the weight of the train.

Question 4.
Why do buildings have wide foundations ?
Answer:
So that the weight of the buiding is spread over a large area and hence less pressure is exerted on the ground. Hence, the building is prevanted to sink under its weight.

Question 5.
Which will exert more pressure, 100 kg mass on 10 m³ or 50 kg mass on 4 m² ? Give reason.
(CBSE 2011, 2014, 2015)
Answer:
Floatation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 16 image - 4
Thus, P₁ > P₂.

Question 6.
Explain, why a truck or a motor bus has much wider tyres ? (CBSE 2011, 2015, 2016)
Answer:
The weight of truck or motor bus spreads over large area on the surface of road or ground and hence less pressure is exerted by truck or a motor bus on the road. Therefore, the ground under them does not sink.

Question 7.
Account for the statement : “camel walks easily on sand but it is difficult for a man to walk on sand though a camel is much heavier than a man”. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
A camel walks easily on the sandy surface than a man inspite of the fact that a camel is much heavier than a man.
This is because the area of camel’s feet is large as compared to the area of man’s feet. So the pressure exerted by camel on the sandy surface is very small as compared to the pressure exerted by man. Due to large pressure, sand under the feet of a man yields (i.e., sink) and hence he cannot walk easily on the sandy surface. On the other hand, sand under the feet of camel does not sink much due to small pressure. Hence camel can walk and run easily on the sandy surface.
Floatation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 16 image - 5

Question 8.
A Sharp knife is more effective than a blunt knife. Why ? (CBSE 2012)

Cutting and piercing tools are made sharp. Give reason. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Pressure (P = F/A) exerted by sharp knife on an object is more than the pressure exerted by a blunt knife. Therefore, sharp knife is more effective in cutting the object than a blunt knife.

Question 9.
Why does an iron nail sinks in water but a wooden cork floats on water ? (CBSE 2011, 2012, 2015, 2016)
Answer:
The weight of iron is greater than the upthrust of water on the iron nail, so iron nail sinks in water. On the other hand, the upthrust on cork is more than the weight of the cork. Hence wooden cork floats on water.

Question 10.
A balloon filled with hydrogen gas floats in air. Explain why ?
Answer:
The upthrust or buoyant force acting on hydrogen balloon is greater than the weight of the hydrogen balloon. So it floats in air.

Question 11.
An object of volume V is immersed in a liquid of density p. Calculate the magnitude of buoyant force acting on the object due to liquid.
Answer:
Magnitude of buoyant force acting on the object due to liquid = weight of liquid displaced
= mass of liquid displaced x g (∴ W = mg)
= Volume of body x density of liquid x g = Vρg
Thus, buoyant force depends upon

the volume of the immersed portion of the object and
density of the liquid.

Question 12.
An object is immersed in different liquids. Is same buoyant force acts on the object due to all liquids ?
(CBSE 2011)
Answer:
We know, buoyant force acting on an object due to a liquid is directly proportional to the density of the liquid. Since different liquids have different densities, so different buoyant forces act on the object due to different liquids. An iron sphere is suspended with an iron string.

Question 13.
The length of the string increases (i.e. string is stretched). Now the iron sphere is completely immersed in water and the increase in length of the string decreases. Explain why? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
The length of the string increases due to the weight of the suspended iron sphere. When the sphere is immersed in water, buoyant force due to water acts on the sphere in the upward direction.
Now, the net force (or weight) acting on the string = actual weight of the sphere – buoyant force acting on it.
Since the net force acting on the string decreases and hence the extension of the string also decreases.

Question 14.
Two blocks, one of iron and other of wood are immersed in water at the same depth. Will both come upward ? Why ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Wooden block will come upward. This is because upthrust of water on the wooden block is greater than its weight. In other words, density of wood is less than the density of water and density of iron is greater than the density of water.

Question 15.
Lead has greater density than iron and both are denser than water. Is the buoyant force on a lead object greater than or lesser than or equal to the buoyant force on an iron object of the same volume ? Explain your answer giving reason. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Buoyant force on an object depends upon

the volume of the object and
density of the liquid in which the object is immersed.

Since volume of both objects is same and both are immersed in water, therefore, buoyant force on lead object is equal to the buoyant force on iron object.

Question 16.
Explain, why a truck or a motor bus has much wider tyres ? (CBSE 2011, 2015, 2016)
Answer:
The weight of truck or motor bus spreads over large area on the surface of road or ground and hence less
pressure is exerted by truck or a motor bus on the road. Therefore, the ground under them does not sink.

Question 17.
A ship is loaded in sea water to maximum capacity. What will happen if this ship is moved to river water ? Why? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
When ship is moved to river water from sea water, then upthrust acting on the ship decreases because density of river water is less than the density of sea water. Hence, the net weight of the ship will be more in river water than in sea water. Hence, more portion of the ship will be inside the river water.

Question 18.
Why do we feel lighter when we swim ?

When we jump into a swimming pool, we feel lighter. Why ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
When we swim in water, two forces acts on our body. One is the gravitational force equal to our weight in the downward direction and the other is the up thrust or buoyant force in the upward direction. Hence, the net downward force or the apparent weight of our body is less than our actual weight. Therefore, we feel lighter, when we swim.

Question 19.
An egg sinks in fresh water but floats in highly salty water. Give reason. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Upthrust acting on egg in fresh water is less than the weight of egg. Therefore, it sinks in fresh water. However,
the density of salty water is much greater than the density of fresh water, so upthrust acting on egg in salty water is greater than the weight of egg. Therefore, it floats in salty water.

Question 20.
The following figure shows three identical blocks of wood floating in three different liquids A, B and C of densities d₁, d₂ and d₃ respectively. Which of these has the highest density. Give reason to justify your answer.
(CBSE 2012)
Floatation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 16 image - 6
Answer:
In case of liquid C, upthrust is maximum. Since upthrust depends on the density of liquid, therefore, density of liquid C (i.e., is the highest.

Question 21.
When an object is immersed into the fluid, two forces act on the object in the vertically opposite directions. Name them and also write the factors on which the magnitude of these forces depends on. (CBSE 2012, 2015)
Answer:

Weight of object = mg. It depends on the mass (or volume and density of object) and acceleration due to gravity.
Upthrust of fluid on the body = Vρg.
It depends on the volume (V) of immersed portion of object, density (ρ) of fluid and acceleration due to gravity.

Question 22.
The density of turpentine at 293 K is given as 870 kg m^-3 Identify and write the names of substances that sink in turpentine at the same temperature.

S.No.	Substances	Density (kg)
1	Wood	690
2	Ice	920
3	Rubber	970
4	Paraffin wax	900
5	Cork	240
6	Bone	1850

Answer:
A substance sink in a liquid, if density of substance is greater than the density of liquid. Therefore, ice, rubber, paraffin wax and bone will sink in turpentine.

Question 23.
When a metallic block is immersed below the surface of a liquid, state and define the upward force acting on it. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
It is a buoyant force. The upward force exerted by a liquid is known as buoyant force. Buoyant force = Vρg, where V on the metallic block immersed in the liquid is the volume of metallic block immersed in the liquid and ρ is the density of the liquid.

Question 24.
State the condition under which an object floats on the surface of a liquid. What is the volume of the liquid displaced by the object ? (CBSE 2014, 2015)
Answer:
An object floats on the surface of a liquid if upthrust on the body is greater than the weight of the object. Volume of the liquid displaced is equal to the volume of the body.

Question 25.
A cube of side 3 cm is immersed in water and then in saturated salt solution. In which case will it experience a greater buoyant force. If each side of the cube is reduced to 2 cm and then immersed in water, what will be the effect on the buoyant force experienced by the cube as compared to the first case for water. Give reason for each case. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Initial volume of cube, V_i = (3 cm)³= 27 cm³
Final volume of cube, V_f = (2 cm)² = 8 cm³

Buoyant force = Vρg, where p is the density of liquid. Since density of saturated salt solution is greater than the density of water, therefore, the cube will experience a greater buoyant force in saturated salt solution than in water.
Since the volume of the cube decreases, so the cube will experience a less buoyant force in water as compared to the first case.

Based on Archimedes’s Principle

Question 26.
While drawing water from a well, a bucket of water appears to be heavier as it comes out of the water.
Explain giving reasons. (CBSE 2011)

Why is a bucket of water lighter when in water than when it is taken out of water ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
When the bucket is inside water, its weight is less than its weight in air due to the upthrust of water.

Question 27.
A student took solid bodies of different shapes, sizes and materials and noted down the apparent loss in weight on partially or fully immersing the bodies in different liquids. Based on the observations, he wrote the following conclusions. Which conclusion is incorrect and why ?
(a) Upthrust depends upon the volume of the body immersed and density of liquid.
(b) Upthrust increases as body goes deeper and deeper inside the liquid.
(c) Upthrust depends upon the density of the liquid and acceleration due to gravity.
(d) Upthrust does not depend upon the shape of the vessel in which liquid is filled. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
Upthrust = Vρg, where V = volume of body immersed in liquid, ρ = density of liquid, g = acceleration due to gravity.
Therefore, conclusion (b) is incorrect as upthrust does not depend on the depth of the body inside the liquid.

Question 28.
If two equal weights of unequal volumes are balanced in air, what wil} happen when these are completely
dipped in water ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
When two weights of unequal volumes are dipped in water, buoyant force acting on the weight of larger volume is more than that on the weight of smaller volume. Hence, weight of smaller volume in water is more than the weight of larger volume. Therefore, these weights are not balanced in water.

Question 29.
An object of mass 500 gm is immersed into a measuring jar containing water. The initial level of water in the measuring jar is 50 cc. Due to the immersion of the object, the water level in the measuring jar reaches to 100 cc. Calculate the mass of the water displaced due to the immersion of the object. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Mass of water displaced = Volume of immersed portion of object x density of water
= (100 – 50) cm³ x 1 g cm^-3 = 50 g.

Based on Density and Relative density

Question 30.
If a body is compressed to half its previous volume, what will be the effect on its density and why ?
(CBSE 2014)
Answer:

If volume of body becomes half its previous volume, then its density becomes double i.e., two times its previous value.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
(a) State Pascal’s Law.
(b) Define upthrust or buoyant force. Describe an activity to show that a body loses its weight when immersed in a liquid.
Answer:
(a) Pascal’s Law
A great French physicist and mathematician, Blaise Pascal gave a law regarding the pressure exerted by a fluid enclosed in a container. According to this Taw :
“Pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted undiminished to every portion of the fluid and the walls of the containing vessel This fact is shown in figure .
Floatation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 16 image - 8
The upward force exerted by a liquid on a body which is immersed in the liquid is known as the upthrust or buoyant force.
(b) Expression for Buoyant force or upthrust
Consider a cylindrical object of height h and area of cross-section A immersed completely in a liquid of density ρ (Figure 6).
Floatation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 16 image - 9
Let h₁ be the depth of the upper face of the object from the free surface of liquid. h₂ be the depth of the lower face of the object from the free surface of the liquid.
The height of object, h = h₂ – h₁.
Volume of the object, V= Ah ,
The pressure acting on the upper face of the object, P₁ = h₁ρg.
This pressure acts vertically downward on the upper face of the object.
Therefore, force acting on the upper face of the object in vertically downward direction,
F₂ = P₂A = h₂Aρg …(1)
The pressure acting on the lower face of the object in vertically upward direction, P₂ = h₂ρg
Therefore, force acting on the lower face of the object in vertically upward direction,
Floatation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 16 image - 10
Factors on which buoyant force or upthrust depends
Buoyant force is directly proportional to

the volume (V) of the object or body immersed in liquid
the density (ρ) of the liquid in which the object or body is immersed.
the acceleration due to gravity (g) at the given place.

Buoyancy: The tendency of an object to float in a liquid or the power of liquid to make an object float in it is called buoyancy.

Question 2.
Archimedes Principle has wide application in making ships and submarines. Explain. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:

Floatation of Ships: Iron needle is solid and compact. The density of iron is greater than the density of the water. The weight of the needle is greater than the weight of water displaced by the needle. So iron needle sinks in water. On the other hand, iron ship is not solid. It is hollow and filled with air. So, the average density of the ship as a whole is less than the density of the water. Therefore, the immersed portion of the ship displaces water equal to its weight. Hence the ship floats on the surface of water.
Floatation of Submarines: Submarines are just like ships. The difference between them is that submarines are provided with ballast tank [i.e., hot air tank in the form of a balloon to make it heavier). When ballast tank is empty, submarine acts as a ship. Under this condition, the submarine displaces more weight of sea water than its own weight. Hence, it floats in the sea water.
When the submarine is to dive in water, the doors of the ballast tank are opened. The water enters into the ballast tank and increases the weight of the submarine. When the weight of the submarine becomes more than the weight of the water displaced by it ; it sinks in water.
To take the submarine again on the surface of water, the compressed air is allowed to enter the ballast tank As a result of this, the water from the ballast tank is forced out. Therefore, the ballast tank is emptied. Again the submarine behaves as a ship and begins to float on the surface of the sea water.

Hope given Previous Year Question Papers for CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 16 Floatation are helpful to complete your science homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online science tutoring for you.

Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11

May 7, 2023

Chapter 11 Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Science Important Questions with Answers PDF will help you in scoring more marks in your exams.

Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions and Answers Science Chapter 11

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Based on work done

Question 1.
Define the term ‘work done’. (CBSE 2011, 2012, 2015)
Answer:
Definition: Work is said to be done by a force on a body or an object if the force applied causes a displacement in the body or the object.

More Resources

Question 2.
How much work is done by a man who tries to push the wall of a house but fails to do so.
(Similar CBSE 2011, 2013)
Answer:
W = FS = 0 (∴ S = 0)

Question 3.
A body of mass 2 kg is moving in a circular path of radius 2m. How much work is done on the body ?
(CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Zero. This is because centripetal force acting on the body is perpendicular to the displacement of the body (W = FS cos 90° = 0).

Question 4.
What would be the amount of work done on an object by a force, if the displacement of the object is zero ?
Answer:
W = FS = 0 (∴ S = 0)

Question 5.
What is the work done by the earth in moving around the sun ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Zero.

Question 6.
When is work done by a force negative ? (CBSE 2011, 2012, 2014)
Answer:
Work done by a force is negative, when the displacement of the body is in the direction opposite to the direction of the force.

Question 7.
When is work done by a force positive ? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Work done by a force is positive, when the displacement of the body is in the direction of the force.

Question 8.
When is work done by a force zero ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Work done by a force is zero, when body is not displaced from its position by the force or when force acting on the body is perpendicular to the direction of the displacement of the body.

Question 9.
Write two conditions under which work is said to be done. (CBSE 2011, 2012)
Answer:

Force must act on the body and
the body must be displaced from its position either in the direction of applied force or in a direction opposite to the direction of the applied force.

Question 10.
What is SI unit of work ? (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
S.I. unit of work is joule (J).

Question 11.
Write the expression for a work done by a force F acting on an object at an angle θ with the displacement S of the object.
Answer:
W = FS cos θ.

Question 12.
What should be the angle between force and displacement for maximum work ? (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
W = FS cos θ. Work will be maximum if cos θ = 1 or θ = 0°.

Question 13.
Does the work done depend upon how fast an object is raised ? Explain. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Work done depends on the force applied and distance travelled by an object. It does not depend on how
fast an object is raised.

Based on energy (Kinetic energy and Potential energy)

Question 14.
Define the “energy”.
Answer:
The capacity of doing work by an object is known as the energy of the object.

Question 15.
What is SI unit of energy ?
Answer:
S.I. unit of energy is joule (J).

Question 16.
Define mechanical energy.

Name two forms of mechanical energy.
Answer:
Mechanical energy is the sum of Kinetic energy and potential energy.

Question 17.
Define Kinetic energy.
Answer:
The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion is called kinetic energy..

Question 18.
What is SI unit of kinetic energy ? Define it.
Answer:
joule (J). Kinetic energy is said to be 1 J if a body of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 1 ms^-1.

Question 19.
What type of energy is possessed by a cricket ball just before being caught by a fielder ?
Answer:
Kinetic energy.

Question 20.
What type of energy is possessed by a flowing water ?
Answer:
Kinetic energy.

Question 21.
Identify the energy possessed by a rolling stone. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Kinetic energy.

Question 22.
Identify the kind of energy possessed by a running athlete. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Kinetic energy.

Question 23.
A car and a truck are moving with the same velocity of 60 km/hr. Which one has move kinetic energy ?
(Mass of truck > mass of car). (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
K.E = 1/2 mv². Since mass of truck is greater than the mass of car and both have same velocity, therefore, K.E. of track > K.E. of car.

Question 24.
What will be the kinetic energy of a body when its mass is made four times and the velocity is doubled ?
(CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 1

Question 25.
If we lift a body of mass 7 kg vertically upwards 10 m, then calculate the force required to lift the body
(g = 10 ms^-2). (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Force = mg = 7 x 10 = 70 N.

Question 26.
Define potential energy of an object.
(CBSE Sample Paper 2010, CBSE 2011, 2012, 2014, 2016, 2017)
Answer:
The energy possessed by an object by virtue of its position or shape is known as potential energy.

Question 27.
Give an example of body having potential energy due to change of shape. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Spring of a watch or stretched bow and arrow.

Question 28.
Name the type of energy possessed by a raised hammer. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Potential energy.

Question 29.
State SI unit of potential energy. (CBSE Sample Paper 2010, CBSE 2011, 2014, 2016)
Answer:
joule (J)

Question 30.
Give an example of an object having elastic potential energy. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
A stretched spring or a compressed spring has elastic potential energy.

Question 31.
In what form, energy is stored in a wrist watch ?
Answer:
Potential energy.

Based on transformation of energy

Question 32.
A torch cell converts one form of energy into another form. Name these two forms of energy.
(CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Chemical energy is converted into electric energy.

Question 33.
A log of wood cut by a saw becomes hot. From where this heat energy comes ?
Answer:
Mechanical energy is converted into heat energy.

Question 34.
When we switch on the electric bulbs, one form of energy is converted into another form. Name these forms of energy. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Electrical energy is converted into light and heat energy.

Question 35.
When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, its velocity goes on decreasing. What happens to its potential energy as its velocity becomes zero ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Potential energy of the ball goes on increasing when its kinetic energy decreases. Potential energy becomes maximum and equal to initial kinetic energy when the velocity of the ball becomes zero (provided there is no air resistance).

Question 36.
Write the observed energy transformation that takes place at thermal power station. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Chemical energy into heat energy and then to electrical energy.

Question 37.
State the transformation of energy taking place when

Green plants prepare their food
Head of a nail is hammered hard and it becomes hot. (CBSE 2011)

Answer:

Solar energy + Green leaves —> Food (chemical energy)
Kinetic energy of hammer is convered into the heat energy (i.e. K.E. —> Heat energy)

Based on conservation of energy

Question 38.
State the law of conservation of energy. (CBSE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed but can be changed from one form into another form.

Based on power and commercial unit of energy

Question 39.
State the physical quantity which will be affected by changing the rate of doing work. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Power ( = rate of doing work).

Question 40.
Establish a relationship between SI unit and commercial unit of energy.
Or

Derive the relation between the commercial unit of energy and joules.
Answer:
SI unit of energy is joule and commençai unit of energy is kWh.

Question 41.
Name the commercial unit of electric energy.
Answer:
The commercial unit of electric energy is kilowatt hour (kWh).

Question 42.
State the relation between commercial unit of energy and joule.

How many joules make one kilowatt hour ?
Answer:
Commercial unit of energy is kWh. 1 kWh = 3.6 x 10⁶ J.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Based on work done

Question 1.
Distinguish between positive and negative work. When you lift an object, two forces act on it. Identify these forces. Which one of the two does,

positive work
negative work ? Justify your answer. (CBSE 2012)

Answer:
Work is said be positive if the body is displaced in the direction of the applied force. Work is said to be negative if the body is displaced in a direction opposite to the direction of applied force.
When we lift an object, the forces acting on the object are

force of gravity and
muscular force.

Force of gravity does negative work as force of gravity acts downwards and the object is displaced upwards. Muscular force does positive work as the object is displaced in the direction of the applied muscular force.

Question 2.
A boy throws a rubber ball vertically upwards. What kind of work is done;

by the force applied by the boy,
by the gravitational force. Support your answer with reason. (CBSE 2011, 2013)

Answer:

Work done by the force applied by the boy is positive as both the applied force and the displacement of the ball are in the same direction.
Work done by gravitational force is negative as the force and the displacement of the ball are in opposite direction.

Question 3.
A coolie holding a heavy box is waiting for someone at the bus stand for 15 minutes. How much work has been done by him ? (Similar CBSE 2011)

A person holds a suitcase for 30 minutes and gets tired. Has he done some work or not ? Justify your answer.
(CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Since coolie is applying force on the heavy box to hold it but there is no displacement of the box (i.e. S = 0), therefore, work done by him is zero (∴ W = FS cos θ = 0).

Question 4.
Work done by a coolie on the luggage on his head while carrying it on horizontal road. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
The force of gravity acting on the box acts vertically downward and the displacement is in the horizontal direction, so θ = 90°. Hence, W = FS cos θ = FS cos 90° = 0

Question 5.
In a tug of war, one team wins and the other team loses. Which team does positive work and which one does negative work ? Justify your answer. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Winning team does positive work on the rope because the force applied by the team on the rope acts in the direction of the displacement of the rope. On the other hand, losing team does negative work as the force applied by the team on the rope acts in the direction opposite to the direction of the displacement of the rope.

Based on Kinetic and potential energies

Question 6.
Establish the relationship between kinetic energy and momentum of body. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Relationship between kinetic energy and momentum of body
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 3

Question 7.
Which would have greater effect on the kinetic energy of an object-doubling the mass or doubling the velocity ? (CBSE 2011
Answer:
K.E. = 1/2 mv² . When mass is doubled, K.E. becomes 2 times its initial value. When velocity is doubled,
K.E. becomes 4 times its initial value. Thus, doubling the velocity would have greater effect on the kinetic energy than doubling the mass.

Question 8.
A bus and a car have same kinetic energy. Which of the two is moving fast ? Explain. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 4

Question 9.
Is it possible that an object is in the state of accelerated motion due to external force acting on it, but no work is being done by the force. Explain it with an example. (NCERT Question Bank, CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 5
When an object has uniform circular motion, the speed of the object remains the same i.e. v = u. Hence, work done by the force = zero.

Question 10.
The velocity of a body moving in a straight line is increased by applying a constant force F, for some distance in the direction of the motion. Prove that the increase in the kinetic energy of the body is equal to the work done by the force on the body. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Consider a body or an object of mass m moving with velocity u. Let a force F be applied on the body so that the velocity attained by the body after travelling a distance S is v (Figure 5).
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 6
Work done by the force on the body is given by
W = FS …(i)
Since velocity of the body changes so the body is accelerated. Let a be the acceleration of the body. Therefore, according to Newton’s second law of motion,
F = ma …(ii)
Using eqn. (ii) in eqn. (i), we get
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 7
Thus, work done by a force on a body is equal to the change in kinetic energy of the body This is known as work-energy theorem.

Question 11.
Two bodies of same mass start from rest and move with velocities of V and 2V respectively. Find the ratio of their kinetic energies. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 8

Question 12.
Two bodies of masses my and m2 have equal kinetic energies. What is the ratio of their linear momenta ?
(CBSE 2012)

Two balls have different masses but same kinetic energy. Which has the greater momentum ? Justify.
(CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 9
Thus, momentum of the ball of large mass is more.

Question 13.
Derive an expression for the potential energy of an object of mass m that has been raised to a height ‘h’ from the ground. (CBSE 2011, 2014, 2016)

Derive an expression for potential energy.
Answer:
The potential energy stored in an object due to its vertical position with respect to the surface of the earth is called gravitational potential energy.
Gravitational potential energy of an object at a height h above the surface of earth is equal to the work done in raising the object through a height h against the gravitational force or gravity.
Consider an object of mass m raised to a height h against gravity (Figure 7).
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 10
Minimum force required to lift the object, F = weight of body = mg
Distance travelled by the object, S = h
∴ Work done, W = F x S = mgh
This work done against force of gravity is equal to the potential energy or gravitational potential energy of the object. i. e., P.E. = mgh
Thus, gravitational potential energy of an object depends upon

the weight (mg) of the object and
the height (h) of the object from the surface of the earth.
SI Unit of potential energy is joule (J).

Question 14.
An object is dropped from a height h when is its

Potential energy maximum,
Kinetic energy maximum. (CBSE 2011)

Answer:

Potential energy of the object is maximum, when it is at heigh h.
Kinetic energy of the object is maximum, when it just touches the ground.

Based on transformation of energy

Question 15.
The head of a nail becomes warm when it is hammered into a plank of wood. Explain stating the scries of energy transformations taking place. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
The potential energy of a raised hammer is converted into the kinetic energy when hammer falls down. Then this kinetic energy of the falling hammer is converted^hto heat energy when it strikes the head of a nail. Therefore, the head of the nail becomes warm.

Question 16.
Name the devices which

convert chemical energy into electrical energy and
light energy into electrical energy.

Answer:

A thermal power plant
A photocell.

Question 17.
Name the appliances which work under the following energy transformation.

Sound energy into electrical energy.
Heat energy into mechanical energy. (CBSE 2011)

Answer:

Microphone
Heat engine.

Name the appliances which work under the following energy’ transformation :

Mechanical energy into electrical energy
electrical energy into mechanical energy.

Answer:

Electric generator
Electric motor.

Question 18.
When a body falls freely, its potential energy is converted into kinetic energy. But when the freely falling body reaches the ground, it comes to rest. What happens to the kinetic energy of the body when it stops on reaching the ground ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
When a freely falling body stops on reaching the ground, sound is heard and the ground becomes hot, where the body strikes. So kinetic energy of a freely falling body is converted into sound energy and heat energy. Based on power and commercial unit of energy

Question 19.
A boy and a girl do the same work in 5 minutes and 10 minutes respectively. Which of these two has more power and why ?
Answer:
P = W/t. As the boy takes less time to do the same work as compared to the girl, so power of the boy will be more than that of the girl.

Question 20.
Give mathematical relation between power, force and velocity. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
P = Fv.

Question 21.
Express Kilowatt in terms of joules per second. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
1 kilowatt = 1000 W
Since 1 W = 1 J s-1
∴ 1 kilowatt = 1000 J s^-1

Question 22.
Differentiate between kilowatt and kilowatt hour. (CBSE 2011, 2012, 2014)
Answer:
Kilowatt is the unit of power. 1 kilowatt = 1000 J s^-1
Kilowatt hour is the unit of electric energy. 1 kilowatt hour = 3.6 x 10⁶ J

Question 23.
In a house 3 bulbs of 25 W each are used for 5 hours a day. Calculate the units of electricity consumed in a month of 31 days. Also, find the total expenditure if 1 unit of electricity costs Rs. 2.50. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
Electric energy consumed by 3 bulbs in a day = power x time = 3x 25 x5 = 375 Wh
∴ Electricity consumed in 31 days = 375 x 31 = 11625 Wh =11.625 kWh =11.625 units
∴ Cost of electricity consumed = 11.625 x 2.50 = Rs. 29.06

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Define the term “Work”. State the factors on which work done depends. Derive an expression for the work done by a force applied on an object at an angle 9 with the horizontal direction.

Define work. State two factors on which the magnitude of work depends. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
In our daily life, the word work means any kind of mental and physical activity. For example, we say that we are doing work while

reading a book.
cooking a food.
walking on a level road with a box on our head.
pushing a wall of a house but fails to do so.

Factors on which work done depends Work done by a force depends upon :

The magnitude of the applied force. If a small force is applied on a body, less amount of work is done. On the other hand, if a large force is applied on the body, more amount of work is done on the body.
Thus, W ∝ F, where F is magnitude of applied force.
The distance travelled by the body on the application of force ( i. e., displacement S). If a body travels large distance on the application of force, large amount of work is done. If a body travels a small distance on the application of force, small amount of work is done.
Thus, W ∝ S.

Question 2.
(a) Define the term “energy”. Write the names of different forms of energy.
(b) Define kinetic energy. Derive an expression for the kinetic energy of an object of mass m moving with a velocity V. (CBSE 2011, 2017)
Answer:
(a) Definition of energy : The capacity of doing work by a body or an object is known as the energy of the body or the object.
Unit of Energy: Unit of energy is same as that of the unit of work. So, SI unit of work is joule (J). When we say that energy of a body is 1 joule, it means, this body has the capacity to do 1 joule work.
The various forms of energy are :

Mechanical Energy: The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of a body is known as mechanical energy.
Heat or Thermal Energy: The energy possessed by a body due to its temperature is known as heat or thermal energy.
Chemical Energy: The energy released in chemical reactions is known as chemical energy.
Sound Energy: The energy of a vibrating body producing sound is known as sound energy.
Electrical Energy: The energy of moving electrons in a conductor connected with a battery is known as electrical energy.
Nuclear Energy: The energy released when two nuclei of light elements combine with each other to form a heavy nucleus or when a heavy nucleus breaks into two light nuclei is known as nuclear energy.
Solar Energy: The energy radiated by the sun is known as solar energy.

(b) Definition : The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion is known as kinetic energy. In other words, we can say that anything which moves has kinetic energy.
Consider a body of mass m lying at rest on a smooth floor. Let a force F be applied on the body so that the body attains a velocity v after travelling a distance S (Figure 4).
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 11
Work done by the force on the body, W = FS …(i)
Since the velocity of the body changes from zero to v, so the body is accelerated. Let a be the acceleration of the body. Then according to Newton’s second law of motion.
F = ma
Substituting the value of F = ma in eqn.(î), we get
W = (ma)S
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 12
K.E of a body is direcdy proportional to

its mass and
square of its speed. SI unit of kinetic energy is joule (J). Kinetic energy of a body is said to be 1 joule, if a body of 1 kg mass moves with a speed of 1 ms^-2‘ Thus, 1 J = 1 kg m²s^-2.

Question 3.
Define kinetic energy of an object. Show that work done by a force on an object is equal to the change in kinetic energy of the object. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Definition : The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion is known as kinetic energy. In other words, we can say that anything which moves has kinetic energy.
Consider a body or an object of mass m moving with velocity u. Let a force F be applied on the body so that the velocity attained by the body after travelling a distance S is v (Figure 5).
Work done by the force on the body is given by
W = FS …(i)
Since velocity of the body changes so the body is accelerated. Let a be the acceleration of the body. Therefore, according to Newton’s second law of motion,
F = ma …(ii)
Using eqn. (ii) in eqn. (i), we get
Thus, work done by a force on a body is equal to the change in kinetic energy of the body This is known as work-energy theorem.

Question 4.
State the law of conservation of energy. Show that the energy of a freely falling body is conserved.
(CBSE 2011, 2012)

State and prove the law of conservation of energy for a freely falling body. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
According to this law, “energy can neither be created nor be destroyed, but can be changed from one form to another form. ”

When one form ofenergji is changed or transformed into other forms of energy, the total energy of an isolated system remains the same i. e., the total energy before transformation = the sum of the different energies transformed.
Consider a body of mass m at a height h above the ground. Suppose this position of the body is A (Figure 11).
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 13
Suppose the body at A is at rest i.e. v = 0.
At position A
Potential energy of the body, P.E. = mgh Kinetic energy of the body, K.E. = 0 Total energy (i.e., mechanical energy) of the body at A = P.E. + K.E. = mgh + 0 = mgh                                                       …(1)
Let the body falls freely under the action of gravity to position B through a height x. Now, the height of the body from the ground = (h-x)
At position B
Potential energy of the body, P.E. = mg (h – x) ….(2)
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 14
∴ Total energy (i.e., mechanical energy) of the body at B= P.E. + K.E.
= mg (h – x) + mgx = mgh – mgx + mgx = mgh      …(5)
Finally, let the body touches the ground at C, so that the distance through which it falls = h.
At position C
Potential energy of body, P.E. = mg (0) = 0
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 15
∴ Total energy (i.e., mechanical energy) of the body at C = P.E. + K.E. = 0 + mgh = mgh      …(8)
From eqns. (1), (5) and (8), it is clear that the total energy (i.e., mechanical energy) of a body at any instant during free fall of the body remains constant. Hence, the law of conservation of energy is verified.

Question 5.
Show that when a body is dropped from a certain height, the sum of its kinetic and potential energy at any instant during its fall is constant. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Consider a body of mass m at a height h above the ground. Suppose this position of the body is A (Figure 11).
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 16
Suppose the body at A is at rest i.e. v = 0.
At position A
Potential energy of the body, P.E. = mgh Kinetic energy of the body, K.E. = 0 Total energy (i.e., mechanical energy) of the body at A = P.E. + K.E. = mgh + 0 = mgh                                                       …(1)
Let the body falls freely under the action of gravity to position B through a height x. Now, the height of the body from the ground = (h-x)
At position B
Potential energy of the body, P.E. = mg (h – x) ….(2)
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 17
∴ Total energy (i.e., mechanical energy) of the body at B= P.E. + K.E.
= mg (h – x) + mgx = mgh – mgx + mgx = mgh      …(5)
Finally, let the body touches the ground at C, so that the distance through which it falls = h.
At position C
Potential energy of body, P.E. = mg (0) = 0
Work, Power and Energy Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 11 image - 18
∴ Total energy (i.e., mechanical energy) of the body at C = P.E. + K.E. = 0 + mgh = mgh      …(8)
From eqns. (1), (5) and (8), it is clear that the total energy (i.e., mechanical energy) of a body at any instant during free fall of the body remains constant. Hence, the law of conservation of energy is verified.

Hope given Previous Year Question Papers for CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Work, Power and Energy are helpful to complete your science homework.

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Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 15

May 7, 2023

Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Science Important Questions with Answers PDF will help you in scoring more marks in your exams.

Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions and Answers Science Chapter 15

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
From where do plants acquire the following nutrients— Nitrogen, Hydrogen. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen. From soil (as nitrate, ammonia, urea)
(b) Hydrogen. From water.

More Resources

Question 2:
Give technical terms for milk producing females and farm labour animals. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Milk Producing Females. Milch animals.
Farm Labour Animals. Draught animals.

Question 3.
Distinguish between a Mullet and Prawn.
(CCE 2010)
Answer:
Mullet is an edible fish while Prawn is an edible arthropod.

Question 4.
How does Catla differ from Mrigal ? (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Catla is a surface feeder that feeds on small animals. Mrigal is a bottom feeder that feeds on detritus and decaying vegetation.

Question 5.
State the reason for introducing Italian bee variety in bee farms. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Italian Bee (Apis millifera) is high honey collecting gende bee with less swarming and with ability to protect itself from enemies.

Question 6.
How does Bombay Duck differ from Common Carp ?
(CCE 2010)
Answer:
Bombay Duck is a marine fish while common carp is a fresh water fish.

Question 7.
Name one micronutrient and one macronutrient which ( plants take from soil. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Micronutrient: Iron/Zinc/Copper.
Macronutrient: Nitrogen/Phosphorus/Potassium.

Question 8.
How does Bos indicus differ from Bos bubalis ?
(CCE 2010)
Answer:
Bos indicus is cow while Bos bubalis is buffalo.

Question 9.
Name two vitamins which are added to poultry feed.
(CCE 2010)
Answer:
Vitamins A and K.

Question 10.
Why do we eat Pea and Groundnut ? (CCE 2010)
Answer:
They are rich in proteins. Groundnut is also rich in fat.

Question 11.
Name two breeds of cows selected for long lactation/ period. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Jersey, Brown Swiss.

Question 12.
State the meaning of mixed cropping ? (CCE 2010)
Answer:
It is a method of growing two or more different crops simultaneously in the same field.

Question 13.
Define hybridisation. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Hybridisation is crossing of two different varieties and breeds in order to obtain a progeny that has good traits of both of them.

Question 14.
What is vermicompost ? (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Vermicompost is a manure rich in worm castings and pulverised organic matter that is prepared by allowing earthworms, (e.g. Drawida willisi) to feed on organic remains.

Question 15.
Write four methods of weed control. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Mechanical, cultural, chemical and biological.

Question 16.
Mention any two activities for improvement of crop yield. (CCE 2010)
Answer:

Crop variety improvement,
Crop production improvement by providing optimum nutrients.

Question 17.
State one importance of photoperiod in agriculture.
(CCE 2010)
Answer:
Photoperiod or duration of sunlight determines the timing of flowering of crop plants and hence distinction of kharif and rabi crops.

Question 18.
List two desirable traits of fodder crops. (CCE 2010)
Answer:

Good height, juicy stems and profuse branching.
Good growth of foliage.

Question 19.
State one demerit of composite fish culture system.
(CCE 2010)
Answer:
Only some selected high yielding and economically important breeds are reared. Other breeds, varieties and species are being ignored so that natural biodiversity has come under threat.

Question 20.
State the two major categories of dairy animal feed in animal husbandry. (CCE 2010, 2013)
Answer:

Maintenance feed
Lactation period feed.

Question 21.
Write two examples of rabi crop. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Wheat, Gram, Mustard.

Question 22.
State the kinds of nutrients provided by vegetables and fruits. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Vitamins, minerals, roughage, small quantity of carbohydrates, proteins and oils.

Question 23.
Based on photoperiod, what type of crops are Mustard and Wheat ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Rabi crops.

Question 24.
We have no major scope for increasing the area of land under cultivation in India. Why ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
More land can be obtained only through deforestation which is already high causing large scale floods, landslides and soil erosion.

Question 25.
Distinguish between intervarietal and interspecific hybridisation of crop plants.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
Intervarietal hybridisation is development of hybrid through crossing between two varieties of the same species. Interspecific hybridisation is development of hybrid through crossing between two species.

Question 26.
Mention two climatic conditions essential for different crops for growth and completion of their life cycle.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
Temperature and photoperiod.

Question 27.
Mention any method of incorporating desirable characters into a crop variety. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Hybridisation.

Question 28.
A farmer grows gram crop between two cereal crops. Which agricultural practice is being followed here ?
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
Crop rotation.

Question 29.
Fertilizers have disturbed the ecology upto a large extent. State two alternatives that may be practised to overcome this problem. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Use of manures and biofertilizers.

Question 30.
Name a farming system with no use of chemical fertilizers.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
Organic farming.

Short Answer Questions (2 Marks)

Question 1.
List any two advantages of crop rotation. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
1. Maintenance of Soil Health. Crop rotation maintains the health of the soil by leaving roots of harvested crops at different levels and withdrawal of nutrients by plants from different layers.
2. Weed and Pest Control. Crop specific weeds, pests and pathogens decline in number because of the longer interval between two similar crops.

Question 2.
The shorter the duration of the crop, the more economical is the variety. Justify the statement. (CCE2010, 2013)
Answer:
Shorter duration crops are more economical as
(i) They require lesser inputs (irrigation, nutrients, manure, fertilizer, pesticide),
(ii) The land becomes available for growing another crop.

Question 3.
What are rabi crops ? State any two examples.
(CCE 2010)
Answer:
Rabi crops are winter season crops that grow between November and April, e.g., Wheat, Gram, Mustard.
(a) Name any one bottom feeder that can be grown in composite fish culture.
(b) What are the problems faced in such a culture.

Question 4.
How are they overcome ? (CCE 2010)
Answer:
(a) Mrigal/Common Carp.
(b) Problems,

Avoiding competition and fighting amongst different types of fish by selecting the ones which have different feeding habits and tolerance to other fish nearby,
Maintenance of water fertility or food at different levels in the same pond.

Question 5.
What is the major problem in fish farming ? How is this problem overcome ? (CCE 2010, 2013)
Answer:
The major problem in fish farming is breeding of fish which occurs naturally during monsoon of technique of induced breeding by injecting pituitary hormones (hypophysation).

Question 6.
Farmers use beekeeping as an additional income generating activity. Give two reasons. (CCE 2010)
Answer:

It requires low investment,
Beekeeping helps in cross pollination of crops as honey bees transfer pollen grains from one flower to another while collecting nectar.

Question 7.
List two characteristics each of roughage and concentrate in relation to animal feed. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Roughage:

Coarse, fibrous feed that has low nutrient content,
Roughage is mainly made of cellulose which is digested by catde and other herbivores with the help of cellulose digesting bacteria present in stomach of animals.
They down grade the quality of produce.

Concentrate:

It is nutrient rich component of animal feed,
Concentrate has little fibrous matter.

Question 8.
What are weeds ? List two disadvantages of weeds.
(CCE 2010, 2015)
Answer:
Weeds are unwanted plants which grow along with cultivated crop plants in the same field.
Disadvantages:

Weeds compete with and deprive crop plants of nutrients, water, space and light,
They often spread crop pests and diseases,
They down grade the quality of produce.

Question 9.
“Removal of weeds from cultivated fields during the early stages of growth of crops is essential for a good harvest.” Justify the statement. (CCE 2010)
Answer:

Removal of weeds during the early stages of growth of crops is essential as it will allow the crop plants to grow and spread properly obtaining all the inputs (which are robbed by the weeds if they are present)
Destruction of weeds in early stages prevent them to produce seeds and multiply.

Question 10.
List two demerits of the continuous use of fertilizers.
(CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:

Fertilizers change soil chemistry by making it either too alkaline or too acidic.
They pollute both ground and surface waters. Surface waters receive fertilizers from runoff from fields. They undergo eutrophication (excessive growth of algae and other plants) that later kills aquatic animals and make water unfit for human consumption. .

Question 11.
List any two methods adopted in farming for the health of catde. (CCE 2010)
Answer:

Vaccination against various diseases.
A clean, spacious shelter, regular grooming of animals and good nutritive food.

Question 12.
Hari Ram wanted to add fertilizers in his vegetable garden to get healthy plants while his brother wanted to do organic farming.
(a) List two important differences between manure and fertilizers,
(b) What is organic farming system ? (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a)
Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 15 image - 1
(b) Organic Fanning System. It is the practice of raising unpolluted crops through the use of manures, biofertilizers and biopesticides.

Short Answer Questions (3 Marks)

Question 1.
How is green manure prepared ? When is it added to the crop plants ? What is the advantage of this type of manure ? (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Green manure is prepared in situ by ploughing back young green crop plants into soil.
When Added. Green manure is added to the soil before seeding it for new crop.

Organic Matter. Manure provides a lot of organic matter (like humus) to the soil which increases water retention capacity in sandy soils and drainage as well as aeration in clayey soils. It also improves the physical characteristics of the soil.
Nutrients. Manure enriches the soil with nutrients.
Soil Organisms. It provides food for soil organisms like soil friendly bacteria and earthworm. Earthworm helps in making soil porous and making nutrients available to plants.
By using biological waste materials as a manure, we recycle the wastes and protect our environment from chemicals (fertilizers).
It contains substances that stimulate plant growth and seed germination.

Question 2.
List six facilities that must be provided to cattle to ensure their good health and production of clean milk.
(CCE 2010)
Answer:

It should be spacious enough to provide a proper space for each animal to stay comfortably and avoid overcrowding. A cow requires 6 square metre space while a buffalo needs little more space.
The shelter should be clean, dry, airy and well-ventilated. It should get adequate sunlight during the day.
There should be proper arrangement for the hygienic disposal of animal wastes (urine and excreta).
It should have arrangement for fresh, clean drinking water. Water should also be available for cleaning the shelter and bathing of the animals. They require regular brushing to remove dirt and loose hairs.
The shelter should protect the animals from rain, storm, heat, cold and predators. It should also safeguard animals from various diseases.
Cattle shed should be properly covered, with cemented floors having slope for quick drainage. The shed is partitioned to house different categories of cattle (calves, bull, cows are kept separately).

Question 3.
(a) List three factors on which cultivation practices and crop yield are related.
(b) Name three stages involved in farming practices.
(CCE 2010, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Factors Controlling Cultivation Practices and Crop Yield.

Climate
Soil
Genetic potentiality of crop variety.

(b) Stages Involved in Farming Practices.

Crop variety improvement,
Crop production improvement,
Crop protection management.

Question 4.
(a) Black and blue dots in the picture below are an indication of two different types of crop plants. Identify the cropping pattern in figures A and B.
Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 15 image - 2
(b) Mention any two advantages of such cropping patterns. (CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
(a) A—Mixed cropping.
B—Inter-cropping.
(b) Advantages:

Higher yield especially when a leguminous crop is sown alongwith a non-leguminous crop,
Maintenance of soil health and reduced pest infestation.

Question 5.
Broiler production is indeed a solution to increase the , production of nutritious animal protein food. Enumerate the factors that need to be considered for broiler production. (CCE 2010)
Answer:

A proper, spacious, airy, ventilated shelter/shed which is cleaned properly and regularly.
Vaccination of the young birds.
A proper quick growing breed
Vitamin (A and K) and protein rich, some fat containing feed.

Question 6.
What is composite fish culture ? State one merit and demerit of such a system. (CCE 2010, 2012)
Answer:
Composite fish culture is a practice of growing 5-6 species , in the same culture pond with different food habits so that there is no competition amongst them, e.g., Catla (surface feeder on small animals). Silver Carp (surface feeder or phytoplankton) Rohu (middle zone), Grass Carp (water weeds), Mrigal (bottom feeder on detritus) and Common Carp (bottom feeder, omnivorous).
Merit. Yield is very high.
Demerit. Reduction in biodiversity.

Question 7.
What is manure ? How is it prepared ? State its role in changing the quality of soil of a field having excess of

Sand
Clay. (CCE 2010)

Answer:
Manure: It is a partially decomposed organic matter derived from plant and animal wastes which is added to the soil to increase its fertility.
Preparation: Organic remains (e.g., crop residue, excreta of animals, litter and other organic wastes) are dumped in pit. Microbial action causes decomposition. Organic matter is changed into dark amorphous mass in 1-3 months. It is called manure.

Sandy Soil: Manure provides mineral nutrients and increases water retention capacity.
Clay Soil: Manure improves drainage and aeration.

Question 8.
A farmer cultivated soyabean in the field of Maize in well planned rows. Name the method of cultivation ?
Explain the method. What are the advantages of this agricultural practice ? (CCE 2010)
Answer:

It is taking a plant or new variety from an area where it grows naturally to a region where it does not occur before for
1. Ornamental purposes.
2. Increasing yield of food, fruit or economic product.
3. Improvement in local varieties.
4. New food or commercial product.
  Initial introduction is carried out in those areas which have similar climatic and soil conditions. Slowly its area is allowed to spread when it gets acclimitised to local conditions. Introduction is the oldest method of crop improvement.

It is picking up plants with better traits for further multiplication. Selection by human beings is also called artificial selection.
Crop improvement by developing better varieties of crop plants through hybridisation forms the backbone of modern agriculture. In order to obtain an improved variety, following steps should be taken :
1. Choice of Parents. Two older varieities of crop having different desirable characteristics, are selected. For example, if we want to obtain a variety having higher yield as well as disease resistance, we should select two existing varieties of crops, one having higher yield and the other having more resistance to diseases.
2. Cross-breeding The Two Parents. Pollen grains of plants of one variety are dusted over the stigmas of plants of the other variety and vice-versa. It produces a new variety which has good chacateristics of both the parents. The process of crossing plants of two varieties having different traits to produce a hybrid having good traits of both is called The crossing may be intervarietal (between different varieties), intergeneric (between different genera) or interspecific (between different species of the same genus). The most common type of breeding is intervarietal.

Question 9.
Artificial selection operating over long time spans can give rise to varieties strikingly different from starting generation. For example, broccoli, cabbage, cauliflower and other varieties have been obtained through artificial selection from Wild
(a) What suggestions can you give to an agriculturalist to combine fish culture in his crop field ?
(b) What is mariculture ? What can be grown by this method ?
(CCE 2010)
Answer:
(a) Quick growing edible fish (e.g., Mtigil, Lates, Mystus species) can be grown in paddy fields. Catching and marketing of fish would give an extra income to the farmer.
(b) Mariculture: Culture fisheries in sea water include fin fisheries (like mullets, pearl spots, bhetki, etc.), shell fisheries (like mussel, oysters, prawns, pearl culture) and sea weeds. Culture of marine fin fishes, shell fishes and sea weeds is called mariculture.

Question 10.
List any six factors for which variety improvement in crops is done. (CCE 2010)
Answer:

Higher yield.
Improved quality.
Biotic and abiotic resistance.
Change in maturity duration.
Desirable agronomic traits.
Wider adaptability.

Question 11.
A farmer observed Parthenium plant growing alongwith wheat crop. What is Parthenium ? What should he do to protea his crop ? Why ? (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Parthenium. (Gajar Ghas) is a serious weed of rabi crops which is also toxic to catde as well as humans.
Protection of Crop. Removal of Parthenium and burning it. Growth of Cassia near the field can prevent spreading of Parthenium.
Why ? Weeds rob the crop of its nutrients, water and other necessities. They are also toxic.

Question 12.
Explain mixed cropping method with the help of an example. Give any one advantage of using such a method.
Answer:
Mixed cropping is the technique of growing two or more different crops together in the same field, e.g., Groundnut and Sunflower, Wheat and Gram/Mustard. The component crops do not compete with each other as they have diffèrent growth patterns and root patterns which obtain their water and nutrients from different soil layers but otherwise requiring common type of fertilizers. Advantage. Mixed cropping eliminates chances of complete crop failure, reduces pest infestation, improves soil fertility and increases yield.

Question 13.
State three advantages of shorter duration of the crop from sowing to harvesting. (CCE 2010)
Answer:

Change in sowing time reduces the chances of weed, pest and pathogen infestation.
There is lesser requirement of inputs like irrigation and fertilizer.
An early harvesting time ensures proper ripening of crop, reduced moisture content of seeds/grains, proper marketing and storage while giving enough time for preparing the field for the next crop.

Question 14.
Define manure. What are its three kinds ? State two limitations of manures. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Manure: It is a partially decomposed organic matter derived from plant and animal wastes which is added to the soil to increase its fertility.
Kinds:

Compost
Vermicompost
Green Manure.

Limitations:

Bulk: Manure is quite bulky. It cannot be transported over long distances.
Storage: Manure cannot be stored beyond 1 -2 months.

Question 15.
What are weeds ? Why is removal of weeds essential ? Name any two measures of weed control.
(CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
Weeds: Weeds are unwanted plants which grow alongwith cultivated crop plants in the same field.
Why Removal: Removal of weeds during the early stages of growth of crops is essential as it will allow the crop plants to grow and spread properly obtaining all the inputs (which are robbed by the weeds if they are present)
8 under disadvantages: Measures of Weed Control. Mechanical, cultural, chemical and biological method.

Question 16.
What is meant by bee-keeping ? Name
(a) The variety commonly used for commercial honey production,
(b) The variety having high honey collection capacity. State how is pasturage related to honey production. (CCE 2010, 2013)
Answer:
Bee Keeping or Apiculture. It is rearing, care and management of honey bees for obtaining honey, wax and other substances.
(a) Variety Commonly Liked. Apis mettifera. (Italian Bee)
(b) High Honey Collection. Apis mellifem (Italian Bee)
Pasturage. It is area covered by crops and other flowering plants from where honey bee can collect honey. The quantity and quality of honey depends upon pasturage.

Question 17.
Name any three methods of irrigation and briefly describe them. (CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
1. Canal system. 2. Wells. 3. Drip and Sprinkle system.

Canal System. Canals take irrigation water from dams, barrages, lakes and rivers to agricultural lands. For irrigation, a canal divides into branch canals. Each branch canal divides into distributaries with each distributary passing into a group of fields.
Wells. They can be dug wells or tube wells. Water is
lifted from them by means of various devices. The lifted water is passed to the fields with the help of narrow channels.
Drip and Sprinkler System. Water lifted from tube well is passed to over head pipes for spraying (drip system) or sprinkler system for spraying water over the fields.

Question 18.
What is animal husbandry ? Differentiate between milch and draught animals. What do the following supply to dairy animals :

Roughage
Concentrate ?
(CCE2010, 2011, 2013)

Answer:
Animal husbandry is a branch of agriculture that deals with feeding, shelter, health, breeding and utilisation of domestic animals.
Milch animals are the ones which are raised mainly for milk as they are high milk yielders. They generally lack stamina and strength to do strenuous physical work, e.g., Sahiwal, Red Sindhi.
Draught animals are strong and sturdy animals that can undertake strenuous physical work like ploughing and transporting e.g., Halikar, Mahi.

Roughage. It supplies cellulose rich fibrous diet to the dairy animal.
Concentrate. It is nutrient rich low fibre component of catde feed.

Question 19.
Define hybridsation. List any two benefits.
(CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
Hybridisation is crossing of two different varieties and breeds in order to obtain a progeny that has good traits of both of them.
Benefits. Hybridization is a technique of crop variety improvement for

Better yield (higher yield, improved quality),
Disease resistance.

Question 20.
List any three ways by which insect pests attack the plants. (CCE 2010, 2011, 2012)
Answer:

Chewing/Cutting, e.g., locusts, hoppers, caterpillars, grubs.
Sucking plant sap, e.g., aphids, plant bugs, leaf hoppers.
Boring into stem, roots, fruits and seeds, e.g., top borer, shoot borer, pod borer, boll weevil, gràin weevil.

Question 21.
Distinguish between intercropping and mixed cropping with examples. List any two advantages of intercropping over mixed cropping. (CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
Difference:
Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 15 image - 3
Advantages of Intercropping,
(i) Non-mixing. There is no mixing of the produce of different crops.
(ii) Easier Operations. Fertilizer and pesticide application, sowing and harvesting can be undertaken separately and easily for each crop.

Question 22.
What is green manuring ? List any two green manuring crops and name two macrenutrients provided by green manure. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Green manuring is the practice of ploughing back young / green crop plants into soil for improving its fertility.
Green Manuring Crops. Guar (Cluster Bean), Sunn Hemp.
Macronutrients in Green Manure. Nitrogen, Phosphorus.

Question 23.
What is crop rotation ? Tabulate two differences between . intercropping and mixed cropping. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
(a) Crop Rotation. It is growing of different crops in a preplanned succession in the same field, e.g., Rice and Wheat ; Maize, Potato, Sugarcane and Pea.
(b)
Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 15 image - 4

Question 24.
Explain that livestock production needs to be improved. Why is there necessity of animal husbandry ?
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
With the increase in population and rise in living standards, the demand for milk, eggs, fish, meat and their preparations is growing up continuously. Therefore, there is a constant need to improve livestock production. This is achievable through scientific breeding programme, proper feeding, hygiene, regular grooming and disease control. Improvement, management, utilisation and care of animal livestock is called animal husbandry.
Necessity of Animal Husbandry. Being an important source of food products to humanity, improvement, care, management and utilisation of animal livestock or animal husbandry is necessary.

Question 25.
(a) Define macronutrients and micronutrients.
(b) Pick out two micronutrients : Zinc, Calcium, Iron, Nitrogen, Potassium.
(c) Name three processes in plants which are affected by deficiency of nutrients. (CCE2011, 2012, 2013, 2014)
Answer:
(a) Macronutrients are essential elements required for growth and reproduction of plants which are needed in larger quantities forming more than 1 mg/g of dry matter, e.g., nitrogen, potassium. Micronutrients are essential elements that are needed by plants in minute quantities forming quite less than lmg/g of dry matter.
(b) Micronutrients. Zn, Iron.
(c) Processes Affected by Deficiency,

Formation of organic molecules like chlorophyll,
Development of osmotic potential.
Functioning of enzymes. Inorganic nutrients are. therefore, required in growth, metabolism and reproduction.

Question 26.
(a) Describe any two irrigation systems adopted in India to supply water to agricultural lands.
(b) Write two advantages of building check dams.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Irrigation Systems.

Canal System. Canals take irrigation water from dams, barrages, lakes and rivers to agricultural lands. For irrigation, a canal divides into branch canals. Each branch canal divides into distributaries with each distributary passing into a group of fields.
Wells. They can be dug wells or tube wells. Water is
lifted from them by means of various devices. The lifted water is passed to the fields with the help of narrow channels.
Drip and Sprinkler System. Water lifted from tube well is passed to over head pipes for spraying (drip system) or sprinkler system for spraying water over the fields.

(b) Advantages of Building Check Dams. Check dams are small sediment storage dams built in channels to stabilise channel bed and stop the rain water from flowing away,

Check dams prevent soil erosion,
They increase ground water level.

Question 27.
Distinguish between
(a) Inland fishery and marine fishery.
(b) Culture fishery and capture fishery,
(c) Apiculture and aquaculture. – (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Inland fishery is exploitation of fish resources of inland waters (fresh and brackish waters) while marine fishery is exploitation of fish resources of sea. Inland fishery is mosdy culture fishery while marine fishery is mosdy capture fishery.
(b) Culture fishery is raising of fish in ponds, tanks, sea enclosures, etc. and exploitation of the same. Capture fishery is catching of fish from natural water without seeding them.
(c) Apiculture is rearing of honey bees for obtaining honey and wax. Aquaculture is rearing and harvesting of fish, other animals and plants in water bodies.

Question 28.
Mention the type of Honey Bee you will prefer to rear if you are running an apiary. Give any three reasons for your choice. List any two factors on which the quality of honey depends. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Like Italian Bee, Apis mellifera.
(b) Reasons:

Gentleness in nature,
Good honey collection.
Prolific queen,
Less swarming,
Ability to protect itself from enemies, e.g. Italian Honey Bee (Apis mellifera).

Pasturage having flowers with nectar and pollen,
Kind of flowers.

Question 29.
(a) What is the basis of classifying manure ?
(b) What are vernicompost and green manure ?
(c) Name the nutrients which are supplied by green manure to the soil. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Manure is classified on the basis of organic matter used and the process of its formation-farmyard manure, compost, vermicompost and green manure.
(b)

Vermicompost is a manure rich in worm castings and pulverised organic matter that is prepared by allowing earthworms, (e.g. Drawida willisi) to feed on organic remains.
Green Manure. It is manure formed in the soil by mulching of young green crop plants ploughed back into soil.

Question 30.
(a) Name the months during which khariff crop is grown
(b) List any four factors for which crop variety improvement is done. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) June to October (rainy season), e.g., Maize, Cotton, Paddy, Soyabeen.
(b)

Higher yield.
Improved quality.
Biotic and abiotic resistance.
Change in maturity duration.

Question 31.
(a) Give an example of exotic and indigenous breeds of poultry and milch catde.
(b) Name two shell fish. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Poultry. Exotic-Leghorn. Indigenous-Aseel.
Milch Cattle. Exotic—Jersey. Indigenous-Sahiwal.
(b) Shell Fish. Crustaceans (e.g., prawn, crab) and molluscs (e.g. mussels and oysters).

Question 32.
State three preventive and control measures taken for storage of agricultural produce. (CCE 2011, 2014)
Answer:
Preventive Measures.

Proper cleaning the produce before storage,
Dry the produce first in sunlight and then in shade.
Control Measures. Fumigation with methyl bromide or other fumigant.

Question 33.
(a) State three ways by which pests attack the plants.
(b) Name the chemical used to control pests,
(c) Explain why excessive use of these chemicals should be avoided.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a)

Chewing/Cutting, e.g., locusts, hoppers, caterpillars, grubs.
Sucking plant sap, e.g., aphids, plant bugs, leaf hoppers.
Boring into stem, roots, fruits and seeds, e.g., top borer, shoot borer, pod borer, boll weevil, gràin weevil.

(b) The pesticide used is malathion (cutting insects) or dimethoate (sucking insects).
(c) Excessive use of pesticides is harmful as they are toxic to humans, other animals and cause environmental pollution. They also make the crop produce toxic. Distinguish between fertilizers and manures.

Question 34.
Write any two advantages of manures and any two disadvantages of fertilizers. (CCE 2011, 2013)
Answer:
Fertilizers are chemical formulations that are added in small quantities to the soil for providing nutrients to crop plants. Manures are semidecomposed organic matter that are added in large quantity to the soil for enriching the soil with both inorganic nutrients as well as organic matter.
Advantages of Manure,

Manure increases water holding capacity of soil, even in sandy soils,
It improves soil aeration as in clay soils,
It increases activity of soil microorganisms some of which are required for solubilisation of heavy minerals.

Disadvantages of Fertilizers,

Repeated use of fertilizers tends to change pH of soil, making it acidic or alkaline.
It destroys soil structure.
It causes pollution of soil, crop plants, ground water and nearby surface waters.

Question 35.
A farmer wants to store his agriculture produce,
(a) What are the factors that he should check before storing it.
(b) What are the control measures that he should take ?
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a)

Proper cleaning of the produce,
Proper drying the produce in sun and shade,
Disinfection of gunny bags.

(b) Control Measures,

Cleaning and fumigation of godown.
Periodic check of stored grains,
Keeping temperature and humidity under check,
Spray of insecticides, fungicides or fumigation if required.

Question 36.
Broiler production is indeed a solution to increase the production of nutritious animal protein food. List six factors that need to be considered for broiler production.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
Broilers are fast growing young chicken of 6-10 weeks age which are known for the good quality and taste of their meat.
Layers are sexually mature hens which are raised for egg laying.
Broilers are given diet rich in protein, with adequate fat, vitamins A and K. They are provided with best of space, hygiene and temperature. Layers are given inferior quality feed. Light is required for good egg laying. Temperature variations may occur to some degree.
Factors,

Diet rich in protein with adequate fat.
Vitamin A and K supplement,
Maintenance of feathering and carcass quality,
Spacious hygienic rat proof shelter,
Maintenance of temperature at 34° – 38° C.
Vaccination against all important diseases.

Question 37.
(a) What are pesticides ?
(b) Why do excessive use of pesticides not advisable ?
(c) Name two preventive measures against pests.
(CCE 2011, 2012, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Pesticides. They are chemicals toxic to pests and eliminate them. Pesticides can be insecticides (against insects), fungicides (against fungi), weedicides (against weeds), rodenticides (against rats), etc.
(b) Excessive Use of Pesticides: Excessive use of pesticides is harmful as they are toxic to humans, other animals and cause environmental pollution. They also make the crop produce toxic. Distinguish between fertilizers and manures.
(c) Preventive Measures,

Summer ploughing,
Use of clean seeds.
Use of resistant varieties.

Question 38.
List six facilities that must be provided to cattle to ensure their good health and production of clean milk.
(CCE 2011, 2013)
Answer:

Grooming. Regular grooming removes dust, loose hair and external parasites.
Shelter. It should be clean, dry, well ventilated, spacious with sloping floor and protection from rain.
Separation of Sick Animals. There should be space to keep the sick animals separate from healthy ones. Provision for proper medical aid is also a must.
Clean Drinking Water,
Proper Feed.
Vaccination against different bacterial and viral diseases.

Question 39.
What are kharif and rabi crops ? Name two kharif and two rabi crops. State two ways of incorporating desired characters in crop plants. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Kharif Crops. They are summer or rainy season crops which grow between June and October, e.g., Maize, Cotton, Paddy, Onion.
Rabi Crops. They are winter or non-rainy season crops which grow between November and April, e.g., Wheat, Gram, Mustard.
Incorporation of Desired Characters. Two ways :

Hybridisation
Introduction of specific genes.

Question 40.
(a) List two characteristics each of roughage and concentrate in relation to animal feed. Give one example of each,
(b) Which method is commonly used for improving catde breeds ? (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Roughage

High fibre content rich in cellulose.
Poor content of protein, fat and other nutrients.
Example. Pounded straw, hay, silage, green and dry fodder.

Concentrate,

It is rich in nutrients — proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals.
Fibre content is low. Example. Oil cakes, grains, bran.

(b) Improvement of Cattle Breeds: Excessive use of pesticides is harmful as they are toxic to humans, other animals and cause environmental pollution. They also make the crop produce toxic. Distinguish between fertilizers and manures.

Question 41.
(a) Why are manures and fertilizers used in the fields ?
(b) A farmer irrigated his field exessively just after applying fertilizers. Explain why this is not a correct practice.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Manures and fertilizers are added to fields mainly to replenish minerals which get depleted due to withdrawal by crop plants and leaching down to lower strata of soil.

Manures add small quantity of all minerals to the soil. They improve soil hydration, soil aeration and activity of soil micro-organisms, some of which are required for solubilisation of heavy minerals.
Fertilizers are nutrient specific which contain one or more minerals in concentrated form. They meet the immediate and complete mineral requirement of high yielding varieties. However, they harm soil structure and cause pollution of crops, soil, ground water and nearby surface waters. A combination of both manure and fertilizer is highly useful.

(b) Excessive irrgation soon after application of fertilizer will be

wastage of fertilizer as the same would be either washed away or percolate down into ground without being absorbed by the crop,
It will lead to water pollution.

Question 42.
Define
(a) Cattle farming
(b) Composting
(c) Organic farming. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Cattle Farming (Cattle Husbandry). It is raising of cattle for yield of milk by females and draught labour by males.
(b) Composting. It is the process of preparing semidecomposed organic matter derived from all sources like garbage, vegetable waste, animal refuse, domestic waste, sewage sludge, eradicated weeds, etc by placing them in large pits, moistened and covered with thin layer of earth.
(c) Organic Farming. It is the practice of raising unpolluted crops by using only manures, biofertilizers and biopesticides for nutrient enrichment and control of pests and weeds.

Question 43.
Explain the meanings of desirable factors for crop improvement :
(a) Biodc and abiotic resistance
(b) Wider adaptability
(c) Desirable agronomic traits. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Biotic and Abiotic Resistance. It is resistance to living and non-living factors, which tend to decrease crop yield. Biotic Factors. Pathogens (bacterial, fungal, viral), nematodes, insects. Abiotic Factors. Flood, drought, water logging, frost, lodging.
(b) Wider Adaptability. Ability to grow and mature under different climatic, weather and soil conditions. Such plants are insensitive to variations in light duration and temperature.
(c) Desirable Agronomic Traits. They are plant traits which are most suitable to the crop, e.g., dwarfness in cereals, more pods and hence branching in pulses, more foliage branching and soft stems in fodder crops.

Question 44.
(a) What is crop rotation ? How is it different from intercropping ?
(b) What are the two main factors that decide the choice of crop to be cultivated after one harvest.
(CCE 2011, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Crop Rotation: It is growing of different crops in a preplanned succession in the same field, e.g., Rice and Wheat ; Maize, Potato, Sugarcane and Pea.
(b) Differences: In crop rotation only one crop is grown in the field at one time while in intercropping two or more crops are grown at the same time in the same field, of course, in different rows.
Availability of moisture, irrigation facility, soil fertility and season determine the crop to be sown after one harvest.

Question 45.
(a) From where do plants acquire
(i) Nitrogen
(ii) Hydrogen,
(b) Why should fertilizers be applied in proper dose and at proper time ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a)
(i) Nitrogen from nitrate/ammonia/urea of soil.
(ii) Hydrogen from water.
(b) Fertilizers are commercially produced chemical formulations that immediately provide nutrients to crop plants. They should be applied to crops only at that time when they are required. The amount should be just enough that meets the need of crop. Any excess or wrong time application will pollute the soil, crop, ground water and surface water (due to run-off).

Question 46.
(a) What are the food requirements of dairy animals ?
(b) Why do external and internal parasites living on and in the cattle can be fatal ? (CCE 2011, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Food requirement of dairy animals is of two types

Maintenance requirement for supporting metabolic activity and healthy life,
Milk producing requirement for supporting and enhancing milk production during lactation period, e.g, feed additives like minerals, vitamins, more protein and fat.

(b) External parasites live on the skin and cause diseases. Internal parasites like worms live within the body and affect stomach and intestine while flukes damage liver. If untreated, the parasites may prove fatal because skin diseases often invite attack of other pathogens, especially of contagions diseases. Similarly, internal parasites not only reduce vitality of the animal themselves but make it more prone to other diseaes that are fatal.

Question 47.
(a) Give two examples of fodder crops raised as food for livestock.
(b) State any two advantages of using manure.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Fodder Plants. Berseem, Sudan Grass, Sorghum.
(b) Uses of Manure. See under Advantages in question 36 above.

Question 48.
(a) Using the symbols given below make a diagrammatic representation of intercropping, Crop A – 0, Crop B-A.
(b) Give two examples of crops selected for intercropping. Mention two benefits that a farmer gets by following this cropping pattern.
Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 15 image - 5
Answer:
(a) Figure of intercropping –
(b) Examples. Soyabean and Maize;
Finger Millet and Cow Pea.
Benefits:

Optimum Utilisation. It helps in optimum utilization of the soil.
Reduced Pest Infestation. The chances of pest infestation are reduced because the pest of one crop rarely

Question 49.
Explain how compost is made. What makes it good manure ? What is vermicompost ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Preparation of Compost. Vegetable waste, galbage, sewage sludge, animal refuse, domestic waste, straw, eradicated weeds, etc. are dumped in large pits, moistened and covered by a thin layer of earth. Compost is ready within 3-6 months. Good Manure. Compost is a better manure as it is richer in minerals as compared to farmyard manure (1-4% instead of 0-5% N₂O,1.0% instead of 0-2% P₂O₅, 1-4% instead of 0-5% K₂O).
Vermicompost is a manure rich in worm castings and pulverised organic matter that is prepared by allowing earthworms, (e.g. Drawida willisi) to feed on organic remains.

Question 50.
(a) What are the difference between broilers and layers ?
(b) Which exotic breeds of fowl are popular in India ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a)
Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 15 image - 6
(b) Exotic Breeds Popular in India. White Leghorn, Rhode Island Red, Plymouth, Black Minorca.

Question 51.
There is a water reservoir near the village and a river flows near the village. Due to insufficient rain, farmers are worried about their crops. Suggest and explain the irrigation practice that can be adopted to supply water to entire agriculture land in the village. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Adoption of river lift system. Pumps are used to draw water from the river and pour the water either in the village reservoir or directly to the fields through narrow channels.

Question 52.
Name two exotic and two local breeds of cattle that the students have observed when they visited a livestock farm. List two desirable qualities that you would expect in the progeny when they undergo cross breeding.
(CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Exotic Breeds. Jersey, Brown Swiss. Local Breeds. Sahiwal, Red Sindhi.
Desirable Qualities in Hybrid Progeny (e.g., Karan Swiss, Frieswal).

Long lactation period with high milk yield.
Disease resistance and acdimitisation to local climate.

Question 53.
In what way is green manure different from compost ?
(CCE 2012)
Answer:

Green manure is prepared in situ while compost is prepared away from the field.
Green manure does not contain any contaminant of sewage and other ingredients of composing.
It is richer in nitrogen as green manure is generally prepared from leguminous plants.

Question 54.
Based on the kind of biological material used, what are the two kinds of manures ? How are they prepared ?
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
The two types of manures based on biological material used are (t) Green manure {it) Nongreen manure. Nongreen manure is of further two kinds, compost and verimicompost.
Green Manure. It is formed inside the soil from 6-8 week old green plants ploughed back into soil. Green manure becomes ready after 1-2 months.
Nongreen Manure. It is manure formed in pits or dumps from organic remains like farm waste, animal excreta, vegetable waste, domestic waste, sewage waste, straw, eradicated weeds, etc. Microbial action for its decomposition is called composting. Earthworms are used to hasten the process of composting when it is called vermicomposting. Manure prepared exclusively from farm refuse is called farmyard manure.

Question 55.
List two products of bee keeping and mention one use of each. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
1. Honey. It is viscous, sweet syrup used as sweetener in confectionary and other items besides helping in digestion, curing dysentery, vomiting, stomach and liver ailments.
2. Bees Wax. It is used in cosmetics, creams and ointments.

Question 56.
(a) Name two factors which bring about loss of food grains during storage. Write one example for each.
(b) List two preventive and control measures that are used before grains are stored for future use.
(CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
(a) (i) Humidity (Abiotic Factor). Higher humidity of godown or higher moisture content of stored grains causes discolouration and breaking due to growth of fungi and bacteria causing rise in temperature.
(à) Insects (Biotic Factor). They eat the grains causing their cutting, powdering and producing holes.
(b) Prevention and Control Measures.

Cleaning of produce.
Proper drying, first is sun and then in shade.
Cleaning and disinfecting the godowns and stores.
Disinfection of gunny bags and mixing dried grains with pesticides.

Question 57.
Give two examples of crops that yield source of carbohydrate, protein and fat respectively.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Carbohydrate. Rice, Wheat, Potato.
Protein. Gram, Soyabean, Pea.
Fat. Mustard, Sunflower, Groundnut (also protein).

Question 58.
Write two aims of poultry forming. Name one indigenous and one exotic breeds of hen. (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:

To increase availability of eggs and meat both of which are cheap source of animal proteins,
To increasingly convert low fibre food stuff unfit for human consumption into highly nutritions animal protein. Indigenous Breed. Aseel. Exotic Breed. Leghorn.

Question 59.
What is organic farming ? Write its four advantages. (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Organic farming is the practice of raising unpolluted crops (free from pesticides and excess salts) through use of manures, biofertilisers and biopesticides.
Advantages:

There is no pollution of the environment.
The food is free from chemicals and pesticides.
The form wastes are recycled,
It controls weeds and pests naturally through biocontrol measures.

Question 60.
Name the programme which contributed to increased food grain production in our country. What are its highlights? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Green revolution. Highlights.

Development of high yielding dwarf varieties of wheat (in Mexico) and semidwarf varieties of rice (in Philippines).
Acclimitisation of these varieties to Indian conditions.
Mutation breeding of triple dwarf Mexican wheat varieties to Indian liking
Large scale supply of seeds to farmers,
Higher inputs like fertilizers, manures and irrigation.

Question 61.
Why should we choose strains of crops with wider adaptability? (CCE 2013)
Answer:

It will help in sowing the improved variety over wider area.
Strain with wider adaptability is able to tolerate variations in soil, temperature, moisture and light conditions.
The strain is insensitive to photoperiods and thermoperiods so that it can be grown in any season.

Question 62.
“The nutritional requirements of broilers are different from those of egg layers”. Mention the three different nutrient requirements. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Broilers require

Easily digestible clean poultry feed for quick growth,
The feed should be rich in protein as well as good amount of fat.
Feed additions rich in vitamins, trace minerals and anticoccidial drug are added.

Question 63.
“Efforts are always made to improve production from agriculture and animal husbandry. Why is it necessary? (CCE 2013)
Answer:

Rise in Population. Human population is continuously rising. There is always a need to increase yield from agriculture and animal husbandry to feed the extra individuals being added to population.
Checking Malnutrition. A large section of human population is suffering from malnutrition due to deficient food. Extra food is required to check malnutrition.
Food Components. Food articles require improvement to provide all the ingredients required by humans (e.g., protein in Rice and Potato) and remove antinutritional chemicals.

Question 64.
“Cross breeding between indigenous breeds and exotic breeds of dairy animals is done on which three desired qualities of animals.” (CCE 2013, 2015)
Answer:

Higher milk yield in exotic breeds
Longer lactation period in exotic breeds.
Acdimitation to local conditions and hardiness or disease resistance in local breeds.

Question 65.
(a) Name a crop which can be grown in combination of fish culture,
(b) Mention the feeding zones of Catla, Rohu, Mrigal and Common Carp. (CCE 2013, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Paddy,
(b) Catla (surface feeder on small animals),
Rohu (middle zone),
Mrigal (bottom feeder on detritus) and
Common Carp (bottom feeder, omnivorous).

Question 66.
List any three management practices while designing a shelter for catde. (CCE 2013)
Answer:

Space. It should provide proper space to each animal and a small enclosure for sick animals.
Protection. It should protea the animals from rain, storm, heat, cold and predators.
Hygiene. There should be proper arrangement for hygienic disposal of urine and excreta like cemented floor with slope, drains and water supply.

Question 67.
“Green revolution” and “white revolution” indicate that our natural resources are getting used more intensively. What can be harmful effea of this ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Intensive use of natural resources is causing degradation of forests, soil and water.

Ground water has depleted at several places so that arid conditions are spreading due to non-availability of water for irrigation and human use.
Water bodies and soil have become polluted with chemicals.
Soil is turning water-logged, saline and infertile.
Forests have depleted. It is causing flash floods, landslides and soil erosion.

Question 68.
(a) Why is organic farming considered beneficial for crop production ?
(b) Why is it called ecofriendly process ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Organic farming is the practice of raising unpolluted crops (free from pesticides and excess salts) through use of manures, biofertilisers and biopesticides.
Advantages:

There is no pollution of the environment.
The food is free from chemicals and pesticides.
The form wastes are recycled,
It controls weeds and pests naturally through biocontrol measures.

(b) Ecofriendly Process. Organic farming does not pollute the environment and crop because it does not use chemical fertiizers and pesticides. Rather it utilises the organic remains and cleanse the environment.

Question 69.
Compare the requirements of low cost farming and high cost farming in crop production. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 15 image - 7

Question 70.
(a) How can poultry farming be integrated with crop production ?
(b) How improved poultry breeds are developed in poultry farming ?
(CCE 2013, 2015, 2016)
Answer:
(a) Farmers have sufficient time and materials to integrate agriculture with poultry (bee keeping and animal husbandry). A lot of agricultural waste can be used as poultry feed so that expenditure on poultry is reduced.
(b) Poultry breeds are improved for smaller size of parents, larger and more eggs, resistance to diseases and better conversion of low fibre organic matter. For this hybridisation is carried out between seleaed breeds and new varieties obtained, e.g., HH-260.

Question 71.
Ravi started poultry farming and brought few poultry fowls. Every year he added more and more poultry fowls. After some time, he observed that health of the birds started deteriorating and their egg production went down. Also very often the birds started suffering from diseases.
(a) Suggest three ways by which he can improve general health of birds.
(b) Suggest one measure to prevent the occurrence of infectious diseases.
(c) What values will Ravi learn if he follows your suggestions. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Proper space, nourishment and hygienic conditions for the fowls.
(b) Vaccination to immunise birds against common infections and diseases.
(c) Values,

Overcrowded areas are unhealthy.
Hygienic conditions are essential for healthy living and protection against diseases,
A well balanced proper diet is essential for good health,
A proper vaccination is essential for protection against outbreak of diseases.

Question 72.
Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides causes a threat to ecology. Explain with reason.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
Chemical insecticides and pesticides are biocides which are capable of destroying most of the organisms. They disperse in air, soil and pass into water bodies. They enter the food chains and undergo biomagnification, becoming more and more toxic with rise in trophic level. The result is that most of the biota is harmed. Humans are harmed the maximum because we use all types of foods and from all trophic levels.

Question 73.
Name three Indian varieties of Honey Bee that are used in honey produaion. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Apis cerana indica (Indian Bee). Apis dorsata (Rock Bee), Apis florae (Little Bee).

Question 74.
Kiran is a manager of a poultry farm. What steps will she take to enhance the produaion of eggs ?
(CCE 2013)
Answer:

Selection of chicken variety which yields higher quantity and good quality eggs for maximum number of days.
Hygienic condition of shelter with floor covered with dry litter, proper slope, proper illumination and temperature.
Timely vaccination of birds.
Proper low fibre feed rich in vitamins, minerals and micronutrients.
Drinking water.

Question 75.
“Green revolution of 1960s is a boon by itself.” List three steps that may be initiated to increase crop production. (CCE 2013)
Answer:

Continuous improvement of crop varieties for higher yield, better quality, biotic and abiotic resistance, desirable agronomic traits, etc.
Proper nutrients in the form of manures and fertilizers
Proper irrigation
Protection from weeds and pests.

Question 76.
Karan’s father was practising apiculture with farming . On the advice of Karan, he introduced Italian bee which yields an average of 50-200 kg of honey per year. He encouraged others to adopt the same as he believed that the pasturage there was suitable for bee keeping.

State two desirable traits of bee varieties suitable for honey production.
Give the scientific name of Italian bee commonly used for commercial honey production.
State two values shown by Karan. (CCE 2014, 2016)

Answer:

1. Gentleness in nature,
2. Good honey collection.
3. Prolific queen,
4. Less swarming,
Ability to protect itself from enemies, e.g. Italian Honey Bee (Apis mellifera).
Apis mellifera.
1. Every farmer can augment his income by adopting apiculture
2. Apiculture helps in better yield of crops pollinated by bees.

Question 77.
Explain intensive fish farming with the help of one example. Write two advantages of this practice.
(CCE 2014)
Answer:
Intensive fish farming is a pisciculture practice which uses high stocking density of fish that take up maximum amount of feed from their environment. Water is replenished at intervals to maintain oxygen level and remove wastes. An example of intensive fish farming is composite fish farming.
Composite Fish Farming: Composite fish culture is a practice of growing 5-6 species , in the same culture pond with different food habits so that there is no competition amongst them, e.g., Catla (surface feeder on small animals). Silver Carp (surface feeder or phytoplankton) Rohu (middle zone), Grass Carp (water weeds), Mrigal (bottom feeder on detritus) and Common Carp (bottom feeder, omnivorous).
Advantages:

The food available in all zones is fully utilized .
Yield is high.

Question 78.
Ravi visited his village during vacation of school. He » observed that elders of the village always talked about different cropping systems like mixed cropping, intercropping and crop rotation. But they did not know the scientific reason behind these practices. Ravi explained them the scientific reason so that they could use the practices more gainfully.
(i) What do we call the kind of farming system with minimal or no use of chemical ?
(ii) Write the basis of selection of crops for intercropping
(iii) Village elders appreciated Ravi. Give two possible reasons. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(i) Organic farming
(ii)

Different nutrient requirement
Different sowing and harvesting times e.g., Soya Bean and Maize.

(iii) Appreciation,

Villagers became aware of the utility of different cropping patterns,
They could understand how to maintain soil fertility and maximise output with minimum inputs.

Question 79.
State the difference between ‘mixed farming’ and ‘mixed cropping’ (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 15 image - 8

Question 80.
In summer vacation, the students of IX standard were given an investigating project. They were asked to visit a dairy farm and note down their observations. Vinay took information from internet and made the project. Sakshi visited a dairy, saw how and what cattle were fed with and how much milk they gave per day. She also learned about diseases they suffer from and how they are cleaned and taken care of.
(i) To increase the milk production, what kind of feed is given to cattle.
(ii) Write down two symptoms of a sick animal.
(iii) Write two values which Sakshi possesses while Vinay lacks. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(i) Feed additives like minerals, vitamins, more proteins and fats.
(ii)

The animal looks tired, inactive and tries to remain isolated,
Urine is often coloured while dung is loose or watery. .

(iii) Values,

Sakshi went in for knowing the ground reality which is a must for any investigatory project.
The difference between theoretical and practical parameters are known, (c) With her knowledge of the project Sakshi could suggest improvement in the working of the dairy and care of the animals.

Question 81.
Spraying pesticides and fungicides on stored food grains should be avoided because these chemicals may enter the food chain.
(i) What are fungicides ?
(ii) What can be alternative to fungicides.
(iii) Mention any two advantages of the alternative.
(CCE 2014)
Answer:
(i) Fungicides are chemicals capable of killing and hence curing of fungal infestation.
(ii) Alternative. Fungi flourish in humid hot conditions. It is, therefore, essential that the godown of stored grains should be kept dry, air with low humidity and moderate temperature. Certain chemicals which are harmless to human beings are also . useful, e.g., calcium chloride, thyme oil.
(iii) Advantages:

Fungal infestation is avoided
Harmful effect of fungicides is avoided

Question 82.
“Application of fertilizers increases crop productivity but it destroys the soil fertility”. State three disadvantages of using fertilizers. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Use of excess fertilisers will cause :

Mineral loading of underground water.
Excess minerals in the crop plants.
Salination of soil.
Run off from fertilizers rich soil, will cause eutrophication of water bodies.

Question 83.
Vishnu’s father had two healthy Sahiwal cows. Vishnu told that the lactation period of cows can be increased by cross breeding catde with foreign breeds and also it was possible artificially. In this way if villagers participated in cross breeding, they would have higher milk yield .

What is meant by lactation period ?
Name two exotic cattle breeds with long lactation period
What values are exhibited by Vishnu. (CCE 2014)

Answer:

Lactation Period. It is period of milk production after birth of a young one lasting generally upto next pregnancy.
Exotic Breeds with Long Lactation Period. Holstein ffiesian (365 days), Jersey (351 day).
Values
1. Social Responsibility. Vishnu undertook his social responsibility of sharing useful knowledge with his father and other villagers,
2. Artificial insemination protects the cattle from infection while making semen available in remote areas,
3. Higher and better yield will give farmers more income.

Question 84.
What is necessity of proper cleaning, sanitation and , spraying disinfectants in poultry farms ? (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Cleaning, sanitation and spraying disinfectants are meant for providing a germ free, healthy, spacious environment to the poultry birds for their proper growth, activity
and functioning. Chances of catching diseases become minimum. Healthy birds are able to convert feed better and more efficiently into body mass and egg laying.

Question 85.
Teacher mentioned about organisms which enrich the soil with nutrients. Rahila was curious to know more about them. So she searched internet and came to know about Rhizobium bacteria and cyanobacteria,

What are biofertilizers ?
Explain how any one of the organisms mentioned above enrich the soil with nutrients.
Write two values shown by Rahila. (CCE 2014)

Answer:

Biofertilizers. They are microorganisms which enhance the availability of nutrients to the crop plants, e.g., nitrogen fixing bacteria and cyanobacteria, mycorrhiza.
Rhizobium (a symbiotic bacterium in root nodules of legumes) and cyanobacteria are nitrogen fixing , microorganisms. They pick up gaseous nitrogen from their environment and convert it into ammonia and then amino acids. The fixed nitrogen later becomes available to soil partly or completely. Soil is thus enriched.
Values,
1. Use of biofertilizers will reduce the dependance on chemical fertilizers,
2. Biofertilizers are nonpollutant
3. Very little cost is involved in their use.

Question 86.
In Raghvan’s village there was a large pond. But he observed that villagers were not rearing fish in it. He gathered villagers and told them that by having selected species of fish they can get good yield of fish. His suggestion helped to eradicate malnutrition in the village.

State the basis of selecting the different species of fish in this method of fishery,
Name this method of intensive fish culture,
What values of Raghvan helped to combat malnutrition in his village ? (Write any two). (CCE 2014)

Answer:

Basis of Selection. Species which feed at different levels and do not compete with one another as they have different feeding habits.
Composite fish culture is a practice of growing 5-6 species , in the same culture pond with different food habits so that there is no competition amongst them, e.g., Catla (surface feeder on small animals). Silver Carp (surface feeder or phytoplankton) Rohu (middle zone), Grass Carp (water weeds), Mrigal (bottom feeder on detritus) and Common Carp (bottom feeder, omnivorous).
Values;
1. Raghvan helped villagers to overcome malnutrition as they could get protein rich fish diet almost free,
2. He used his knowledge to inculcate sense of cooperation amongst the villagers.

Question 87.
When the grains are harvested the disposal of agricultural byproducts which were unfit for human consumption was a problem. Trilok suggested his father that they should have a poultry farm. Farmers took a collective loan from a government bank to set up the poulty farm.

What was the advantage of suggestion to set up a poultry farm ?
Why is poultry farming done ? Give two reasons .
Write two values of Trilok due to which he was motivated to help villagers. (CCE 2014)

Answer:

Advantages of Suggestion. Utilisation of agricultural byproducts unfit for human consumption.
Obtaining, (a) Eggs (b) Meat.
Values:
1. Increasing income of the farmers
2. Utilisation of spare time of farmers,
3. Preventing rotting of form byproducts unfit for human consumption.

Question 88.
Now-a-days incorporating desirable characters in plants or animals to improve the quality has become essential. Discuss three processes by which this can be facilitated.
Answer:
A number of desirable characters must be incorporated in crop plants and animals for meeting ever increasing human requirement, e.g., higher yield, improved quality, wider adaptation, shorter maturity duration, resistance to adverse abiotic and biotic factors, etc.
This is carried out by

Hybridisation between selected varieties.
Incorporation of traits from the wild
Transfer of genes through DNA recombination technology.

Question 89.
A farmer had a plot just beside the bank of a river. Each time he planted kharif crop, the crop got damaged due to floods. He consulted the agricultural scientist who gave him a special variety of seeds and also advised him to practise fish farming,
(i) What was the speciality of seed grains ?
(ii) What name can be given to this type of fish farming ?
(iii) What is the benefit of mixing crop production with fish farming ?
(CCE 2014, 2015, 2016)
Answer:
(i) Paddy seeds
(ii) Rice-Fish culture,
(iii) It increases the income of the farmer.

Question 90.
Why is organic farming considered beneficial for crop production management ? Why is it called ecofriendly process ? (CCE 2014)
Answer:
The conventional foods are raised using chemical fertilizers and chemical pesticides. These agrochemicals pass into conventional foods in small traces. Repeated use of conventional foods increases the concentration of agrochemicals in our bodies. They become toxic. As a result a number of ailments and harms can occur to us.
On the other hand, organic foods are free from any traces ol agrochemicals as they are raised by using manures, biofertilizers and biopesticides. Being nontoxic, organic foods should be preferred over conventional foods. Agrochemicals used in raising conventional foods are highly pollutants. They pollute soil, ground water and surface waters. Eutrophication of ponds and lakes is due to them. Manure used in raising organic foods is environmentally clean method of disposing off and recycling organic wastes.

Question 91.
What are Xanthium, Parthenium and Cyperinus rotundus ? How do they harm the crop production ?
(CCE 2014)
Answer:
They are weeds or unwanted plants which grow alongwith cultivated crop plants in the same field. Harm.
Weeds are unwanted plants which grow alongwith cultivated crop plants in the same field.
Disadvantages:

Weeds compete with and deprive crop plants of nutrients, water, space and light,
They often spread crop pests and diseases,
They down grade the quality of produce.

Question 92.
State the meaning of layers. Why limestone is added in their diet ? Name the other dietary requirement of poultry birds. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Layers. They are female poultry birds which are raised for egg laying.
Limestone. It is added in the feed of layers to provide extra calcium for formation of egg shells.
Other dietary requirement of poultry birds is low fibre nutritions feed having all constituents of food, vitamins, minerals and water.

Question 93.
Define ‘rain water harvesting’ and ‘water shed management’. State one advantage of each.
(CCE 2014)
Answer:

Rain Water Harvesting: It is use of rain water to either recharge the ground water or filling ponds.
Water Shed Management: It is increasing percolation of water into ground by building small check dams in areas of run off.
Increased availability of ground water and pond water is used for providing irrigation facility in nonrainy season.

Question 94.
State the conditions essential for production of best quality of honey. Name a product other than honey which is obtained through honey bee keeping. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(i) Pasturage. Quality, taste and quantity of honey depends upon pasturage available for nectar and pollen collection,
(ii) Apiary Location. Number of beehives and distance from pasturage.
(iii) Honey Flow Period. Period when nectar is available,
(iv) Variety of Bee. It should be good collector and shows less swarming. Other Product. Bees wax. It is used in cosmetics, creams and ointments besides special candles.

Question 95.
Malti felt that women of her village need to be liberated so that they can also contribute to the society. Malti told them that they can increase the milk production of the cattle by mating them with species having long lactation period and taking care of the balanced ration of the catde.

Which method is commonly used for improving cattle breed.
One of the women asked Malti how it is possible to get their cattle mate with foreign breeds. Suggest how is it done ?
What values are inculcated by Malti in the women of the village ? (CCE 2015)

Answer:

The common method for improving cattle breed is cross breeding or hybridisation.
Artificial insemination. Semen from males of high milk yielding and long lactation period is collected and cryopreserved. It is sent throughout the country for artificial insemination of low milk yielding and short lactation period cows.
Values,
1. Self awareness
2. Co-operation
3. Mutual respect
4. Women empowerment.

Name the environmental factors related to cultivation practices and crop yield.

Question 96.
Explain how they are related to crop yield. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
Broadly there are two cultivation practices :
(i) Summer season or kharif (June to October) when water, temperature and fight are available in plenty, e.g., Paddy, Maize.
(ii) Winter season or rabi (November to April) when water availability is less, temperature is low and days are shorter, e.g., wheat, mustard. Crop yield is influenced by weather, water and soil conditions.

Weather. Excess heat, frost and cold reduce the metabolic activities and therefore, yield of the crop. However, optimum temperature and photoperiod as per season and crop help in obtaining good yield.
Water. Both excess water (water logging) and water scarcity reduce yield. Excess water or water logging reduces soil aeration and hence growth of roots. An optimum water with optimum aeration are required for good crop yield.
Soil. Most crops require loam soils. However, some plants prefer sandy loams (e.g., Groundnut). Soil salinity, soil acidity and soil alkalinity reduce crop yield.

Question 97.
The practices involved in farming like the choice of seeds for planting, nurturing the crop plants and then protection of growing and harvested crops from loss are important. These all things were known to Guddi’s father but still he was facing a loss in crops. Guddi told him about a new TV channel. ‘Kisan Channel’ by which he was able to understand his problem. A lapse at any stage can have a major effect at the crop yield,
(i) List two useful characteristics of crops for which their hybridisation is done,
(ii) “Removal of weeds from cultivated fields during early stages of crop growth is essential for a good harvest”. Justify the statement.
(iii) How Guddi’s father found the solution of his problem ?
(CCE 2015)
Answer:
(i) Benefits.

Hybridization is a technique of crop variety improvement for
Better yield (higher yield, improved quality), (it) Disease resistance.

(ii)

Removal of weeds during the early stages of growth of crops is essential as it will allow the crop plants to grow and spread properly obtaining all the inputs (which are robbed by the weeds if they are present)
Destruction of weeds in early stages prevent them to produce seeds and multiply.

(iii) Guddi’s father found that he was not eradicating the weeds from the field. They not only decreased the yield but also deteriorated the quality of produce.

Question 98.
What are the desirable agronomic characteristics for crop improvement ?
Answer:
They are different for different crops.
Cereals should be dwarf but with large ears. Dwarfness makes their stem stronger. They can withstand lodging effect of strong winds. Nutrient requirement is also less. Large ears produce more grains.
Legumes should have more pods which generally develop in relation to stem branching. Therefore, more branching and good foliage increase their productivity.
Fodder crops meant for feeding catde must have profuse branching, good foliage, juicy stems and large size.

Question 99.
What management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming ? (CCE 2015)
Answer:

Proper shelter, its hygiene, aeration and lighting.
Proper feed and feed additives.
Proper drinking water.
Health care including vaccination.

Question 100.
Write three advantages of each inter-cropping and crop rotation. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
Advantages of Crop Rotation,

Incidence of disease, pest infestation and growth of weeds is reduced.
There is lesser requirement of nitrogen fertilizers,
It improves soil fertility
There is optimum use of soil nutrients as different crops remove the same from different layers,
Yield is improved.

Question 101.
Shekhran was planning to transplant paddy. His son Raman told him that he can have fish along with paddy in the same field. He told him about the species of fish that are able to five in shallow water of paddy fields. His father, shared the information with his friend and both of them adopted this practice.
(i) Name this mode of obtaining fish,
(ii) Which method is used to get pure fish seed ?
(iii) Which values of Raman prompted his father adopt this practice ? (CCE 2015)
Answer:
(i) Mixed farming, agriculture with culture fishery.
(ii) Induced breeding through hypophysation can give pure seeds of fish.
(iii)
(a) Awareness
(b) Welfare of the family,
(c) Co-operation.

Question 102.
Differentiate between manure and fertilizers. Write any three points of difference. (CCE 2015)
Answer:

Manure	Fertilizer
Nature. Manure is semidecomposed organic matter.	Fertilizer is a chemical formulation.
Preparation. It is prepared from natural materials like plant residues and animal residues.	It is synthetic being formed from chemical salts.
Mineral Content. It contains only a small quantity of mineral salts.	Fertilizers contain pure mineral salts or their precursors.
Specificity. It is not nutrient specific.	It is nutrient specific.
Organic Matter. It adds organic matter to the soil.	There is no addition oforganic matter.
Quantity. It is required in large quantity.	It is required in small quantity.
Nutrient Availability. Nutrient availability is moderate. Nutrients are released slowly.	Fertilizer possesses readily available plant nutrients.
Transport. Manure is bulky. It is very difficult to transport it to longer distances.	It has smaller bulk. Fertilizers can, therefore, be transported easily to long distances.
Storage. Manure cannot be stored for long.	Fertilizers can be stored for long duration.
Soil. It helps in maintaining soil texture, its hydration and aeration.	It can harm soil texture and other soil characters.
Excess. Excess manure is not much harmful.	Excess fertilizer is harmful to plants. It also causes pollution.

Question 103.
India is a country with three fourth of the population engaged in agriculture. Even though financial conditions of some farmers do allow them to take higher level of farming practices and improved agriculture technology, yet they are hesitant to use HYV seeds with traits such as resistance to disease and pests, high quality that would result finally in higher yield. The Government’s ‘Kisan channel’ solved all their apprehensions,
(i) What is meant by genetically modified crop ?
(ii) What are two desired agronomic characters for fodder and cereal crops ?
(iii) In your opinion what should be done so that the modern agriculture technology is adopted by most of farmers ?
(CCE 2015)
Answer:
(i) Genetically modified crops are crop varieties in which genes of other organisms have been incorporated so as to enhance their quality, yield and resistance to various biotic and abiotic stresses,
(ii)

Fodder Crops. Tall plants, juicy stems, profuse branching and good foliage.
Cereal Crops. Dwarfness so as ro consume less nutrients and prevent lodging, longer ears.

(iii) Wider publicity of technology, its uses, facilities for purchase and subsidies.

Question 104.
Explain river lift system. Where is this system applicable ? (CCE 2015)
Answer:
It is taking up water directly from river with the help of pumps and pouring the same into irrigation channel or canal. It is used in places where ground water is insufficient and canals do not occur. In areas, where the land is at a higher level than the irrigation channels, lift system is also used.

Question 105.
Dunichand was good in studies and his parents wanted him to continue further. When he came to the village during vacation he pursuaded villagers to adopt modern methods of irrigation and genetically modified seeds. And the villagers saw tremendous increase in the yield.
(i) Why the modern methods of irrigation are better than the traditional ones ?
(ii) What is meant by genetically modified seeds ?
(iii) Why Dunichand returned to his village in holidays ? (CCE 2015)
Answer:
(i) The modern method of irrigation is drip and sprinkler system. It is more natural, saves a lot of water and prevents water logging of soil,
(ii) Genetically modified crops are crop varieties in which genes of other organisms have been incorporated so as to enhance their quality, yield and resistance to various biotic and abiotic stresses.
(iii) Returning to village during vacation is keeping one’s roots intact, meeting and sharing the experiences with the family members and friends.

Question 106.
Define organic farming. Name two cropping system where organic farming is practiced. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
Organic farming is the practice of raising unpolluted crops through the use of manures, bio-fertilizers and biopesticides instead of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. Two cropping patterns where organic farming can be practised are crop rotation and intercropping.

Question 107.
Kishore’s mother treated their cattle as their family members. She took care of proper cleaning and shelter facilities, provided balanced ration but despite this one day she observed that one of the cows stopped taking food and did not have normal posture. She was sad and felt guilty. Kishore pacified her and explained to her that it was not her fault,
(i) Mention two possible reasons of illness of cattle,
(ii) State how farm animals can be protected against diseases,
(iii) State two values in Kishore’s mother’s behaviour that should be imbibed by all. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
(i) Drinking polluted water during grazing.
Infected grass and other foliage.
(ii) Protection. Regular vaccination and grooming. Protection agianst entry of flies, ticks, mice and rats into
animal shelter.
(iii) Values,
(a) Compassion
(b) Analytical approach.

Question 108.
Mention three advantages of using manures and green manures over the use of fertilizers. (CCE 2015)
Answer:

Organic Matter. Manure provides a lot of organic matter (like humus) to the soil which increases water retention capacity in sandy soils and drainage as well as aeration in clayey soils. It also improves the physical characteristics of the soil.
Nutrients. Manure enriches the soil with nutrients.
Soil Organisms. It provides food for soil organisms like soil friendly bacteria and earthworm. Earthworm helps in making soil porous and making nutrients available to plants.
By using biological waste materials as a manure, we recycle the wastes and protect our environment from chemicals (fertilizers).
It contains substances that stimulate plant growth and seed germination.

Question 109.
List the management practices needed for good production of poultry birds. (CCE 2016)
Answer:

Shed. Poultry shed should be kept clean, dry, well ventilated, well spaced and well illuminated,. Rats and cats should not be able to enter the shed.
Protection from Pests and Diseases. All the poultry birds should be vaccinated against common diseases, Disinfectants and insecticidal solutions are sprayed at intervals to prevent infestation by pests.
Temperature, Temperature of the shed is maintained
between 34°—38°C.
Poultry Feed. It should contain all essential constituents of food including vitamins, minerals and clean water.
Variety. A high yielding quick growing variety should be maintained.

Question 110.
Afzal was taking care of his poultry farm for years now.
His son Abdul visited central Poultry Breeding farm to seek advice on certain improved breeds. When he introduced HH 260 cross breed, the egg and meat production increased,
(i) List four desirable traits for which variety improvement or cross breeding is done
(ii) Why did Abdul obtain information on improved breeds. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(i)

High er Yield
Limited cropping area.
Improved Quality
Biotic and Abiotic Resistance
Change in Maturity Duration
Desirable Agronomic Traits
Wider Adaptability.

(ii) Abdul obtained information on improved breeds for increasing yield of poultry, summer adaptation and better immunity with low maintenance.

Question 111.
(a) The desirable agronomic characteristic in cereals is dwarfness of plants. Why ?
(b) Why do farmers prefer to grow crops with shorter maturity duration ?
(c) What are macronutrients ? Name any one macronutrient required by plants that is obtained from soil.
(CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a) Dwarfhess of Cereals. It reduces lodging and requires lesser inputs.
(b) Shorter duration crops are more economical as

They require lesser inputs (irrigation, nutrients, manure, fertilizer, pesticide),
The land becomes available for growing another crop.

(c) Macronutrients are essential elements required for growth and reproduction of plants which are needed in larger quantities forming more than 1 mg/g of dry matter, e.g., nitrogen, potassium. Micronutrients are essential elements that are needed by plants in minute quantities forming quite less than lmg/g of dry matter.

Question 112.
While teaching importance of food management, teacher , told her class that due to heavy rains in 2010, tonnes of grains got damaged because sufficient precaution was not taken for storage in government ware houses. Because of this, the prices of commodities went sky high. Shekhar felt very angry with the persons responsible for food storage.
(i) Write two factors that may be responsible for losses to grains during storage,
(ii) Governments decision to let the grains rot in the ware-houses was not right. What do you think should have been done at that time to reduce loss.
(iii) List any two values in the décision making officials that are required to avoid such situations again .(CCE 2016)
Answer:
(i)
(a) Seepage of rain water
(b) Excessive humidity of air
(c) Rotting of grains and infestation by insects, worms and microorganisms.
(ii) The government should have asked the officials to prevent wetting of grains by sealing the godowns, checking use of exhausts, raising the level of gunny bags by placing wooden platforms below them.
(iii) Values:
(a) Regular inspection of the godowns
(b) Efforts to save the grains from spoilage.
(c) Consciousness of their duty.

Question 113.
Bhola and Rajni, who are studying in class IX were travelling in a train. Rajni observed a field with two crops growing simultaneously in a definite pattern. While Bhola was busy in playing with video game, Rajni noticed that rows of Bajra and Lobia were grown in alternate rows. She asked her grand father why Bajra and Lobia are grown together ?
(i) On what basis are the two crops selected in this pattern ?
(ii) How does this practice benefit the farmer ?
(iii) State any two values in Rajni’s behaviour here that differentiate her from Bhola. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
The practice of growing two crops in alternate rows is called intercropping.
(i) Basis. Different nutrient requirements, different sowring and harvesting dates.
(ii) Advantages of Intercropping.

It ensures higher productivity per unit area,
Soil erosion is checked as field is seldom left uncovered.
It saves time and labour of the farmer.
Sowing and harvesting of different crops can be undertaken separately.
Curiosity to know what is happening in our surroundings,

(iii) Utilising the spare time in nature study and enhancing knowlege.

Question 114.
Neetu was much distrurbed by reading a report that in 2010 fields of farmers in the Kathua district was hit by a swarm of crop destroying grasshoppers which damaged corn, paddy, fodder and barley crops. The agriculture department supplied pesticide spray at subsidised rate. Since she knew that excessive use of pesticide is harmful to human health and soil fertility, she decided to bring awareness about it amongst villagers,
(i) How do insect pests attack the plants ?
(ii) As chemical, pesticides can be harmful for human health, mention two biopesticides which can be used in their place
(iii) What do you learn from the above situation ? (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(i) Insects attack plants for feeding. (They can be chewing, sucking or borer).
(ii) Neem, pyrethrum.
(iii) We should resort to organic farming where pests are kept under control by their natural predators and use of biopesticides.

Question 115.
Mention two problems of culture fishing. How can they be overcome ? (CCE 2016)
Answer:
Culture fishing is raising of fish in ponds and other water bodies and exploitation of the same. The major problems of culture fishing.
Selection of fish. High yielding fish of 5-6 types which do not compete with one another have to be selected. These fish feed in different strata and on different articles. The phenomenon is called composite fish culture. Obtaining Seeds. In nature, fish breed in particular season (rainy season in inland fishery). To obtain fish seed throughout the year, suitable mates are selected,given injection of ovaprim, ovatide or nova and kept in breeding hapas. The eggs are collected, allowed to hatch, care of hatchlings, fries and fingerlings before introducing into fish ponds.

Question 116.
Ashok read a newspaper report that we in India have had the green revolution which contributed to increased food production, white revolution which led to increased availability of milk and blue revolution to increased fish yield. Yet after 69 years of independence in our country, problem of malnutrition and hunger persists. He was much agitated on reading the report.
(i) What does food security mean ?
(ii) “We should increase the food production without degrading the environment”. Give reasons to support the statement.
(iii) What can Ashok do at the individual level to combat the problem of hunger in our country ? (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(i) Food Security. It is ensuring availability of proper quantity and quality of food to every individuaal of the country. For this the government supplies cereals and pulses to poor persons at highly subsidised rate. Efforts are also afoot to provide employment to most of the people so that they can easily purchase their minimum requirements.
(ii) Nondegtadation of Environment. For increasing food output, more area is brought under agriculture by clearing forests, more canals are dug up, and more fertilizers and pesticides are used. All of these disturb the balance of nature and degrade the environment. Therefore, stress should be laid on genetic improvement of crop plants and adopting sustainable agriculture or organic forming.
(iii) Ashok should form an NGO who would see to it that all poor people get subsidised ration and minimum employment to sustain themselves.

Question 117.
Give the term used for rearing and caring of animal livestock. Explain three major aspects of this practice.
(CCE 2016)
Answer:
Animal husbandry.
Major Aspects. Shelter, vaccination and proper diet.
Good animal husbandry practices keep the animals healthy and more productive. There is higher yield of animal products— milk, eggs, meat.

Shelter: Diseases spread if the animal shelters are dingy and crowded. If they are spacious, hygienic and well lighted, the animals remain healthy.
Vaccination: Vaccination of young animals prevents the occurrence of common diseases.
Segregation of Sick Animals: When sick animals are noticed, they are immediately segregated. Cleanliness drive is undertaken and the remaining animals are given prophylactic doses of medicines to prevent the spread of disease. The livestock remains healthy and productive.
Proper Diet: A proper optimum diet with feed additives enhances growth and yield of animals.
Breeding: Breeding for more milk, longer lactation period, more egg laying, better convertibility of food and other good characteristics have allowed various branches of animal husbandry to give better yield.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
(a) What are weeds ? Give an example.
(b) Why should weeds be removed from cultivated fields ?
(c) List five preventive methods that help in weed control. (CCE 2010, 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Weeds. They are unwanted plants which grow alongwith cultivated crop plants in the same field, e.g., Phalaris, Convolvulus, Xanthium, Parthenium.
(b)

Removal of weeds during the early stages of growth of crops is essential as it will allow the crop plants to grow and spread properly obtaining all the inputs (which are robbed by the weeds if they are present)

Destruction of weeds in early stages prevent them to produce seeds and multiply.
Some weeds produce toxins.
During harvesting, weeds get mixed with crop to downgrade its quality.

(c) Preventive Methods. Proper seed bed preparation. 2. Clean cultivation. 3. Summer ploughing. 4. Timely sowing of crops. 5. Crop rotation and inter-cropping.

Question 2.
(a) A former found that Xanthium and Parthenium are also growing alongwith paddy in the field. What are such plants called ? How the presence of these crops affect the crop yield ?
(b) List any four methods for controUing and preventing the growth of such plants. (CCE 2011, 2012, 2016)
Answer:
(a) Weeds. They rob the crop of nutrients, water, space and light. Weeds also spread crop pests and pathogens. Therefore, crop yield is reduced. The quality of crop yield also becomes poor due to the presence of weed seeds.
(b) The four methods of preventing and controlling weeds are mechanical, cultural, chemical and biological

Mechanical Methods. Removal of weeds as soon as they appear in the field by hand or trowel
Cultural Methods. Summer ploughing, proper seed bed preparation, timely sowing of crop, inter-cropping and crop rotation.
Chemical Methods. Spraying weedicides like 2, 4-D, butachlor, atrazine.
Biological methods. Natural predator of weed, e.g., Mexican Beede for Parthenium.

Question 3.
(a) List the different ways in which biotic and abiotic factors affect stored food grains,
(b) What preventive and controlling measures need to be taken before and after storing the grains ? (CCE 2011, 2016)
Answer:
(a)

Degradation of quality,
Loss of weight.
Discolouration,
Poor germinability.
Infestation and contamination.

(b) Preventive Measures,

Cleaning of produce.
Proper drying, first is sun and then in shade.
Cleaning and disinfecting the godowns and stores.
Disinfection of gunny bags and mixing dried grains with pesticides.

Control Measures,

Spraying of pesticide over gunny bags,
Fumigation of godown.
Systematic management with periodic inspection.

Question 4.
(a) How is culture of Pomphret and Mackeral different from that of Cada and Rohu ?
(b) Give an example each of

Fresh water prawn
Marine water prawn. (CCE 2011)

Answer:
(a) Pomphret and Mackeral are marine fish which are reared in sea water or mariculture. Catla and Rohu are fresh water fish which are reared in inland fisheries (ponds, canals, rivers, reservoirs).
(b)

Freash Water Prawn — Macrobrachium rosenbergii
Water Prawn —Peneaus monodon.

Question 5.
(a) Define animal husbandry. List any three basic aspects covered by animal husbandry,
(b) Mention any two basic requirements of shelter facilities for animals so that their health is not affected,
(c) Give two examples of exotic breeds of cows which are selected for long lactation period. (CCE 2011, 2013),
Answer:
(a)
(i) Animal husbandry is a branch of agriculture that deals with scientific management of animal livestock.
(ii) The basic aspects of animal husbandry are rearing (feeding, shelter and breeding), health care and utilisation of animal livestock.
(b)
(i) The shelter should be clean, dry, well-ventilated, spacious with gentle slope.
(ii) It should protect the animals from rain, heat, cold.
(c) Jersey, Brown Swiss, Holstein-Friesian.

Question 6.
(a) Why is irrigation important for crops ?
(b) Describe in brief any four different kinds of irrigation systems adopted to supply water to agricultural lands. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Irrigation is the process of supplying water to crop plants as per their requirements through human efforts.
(b) Importance,
(i) Water is made available to crops throughout their development. There is no dependence on rainfall alone,
(ii) It has enabled humans to grow crops throughout the year.
Irrigation Systems:
1. Tanks. They are small reservoirs which store run-off rain.
2. Canal System. It takes water from reservoirs and rivers to agricultural fields by means of distributaries.
3. Wells. They are of two types, dug-wells and tube wells. Lifting devices are used to bring water to the surface for supply to fields.
4. Drip and Sprinkler Systems. Drip system uses overhead pipes while sprinkler system uses a rotating fountain system.

Question 7.
How are cultivation practices and crop yield related to weather ? Describe any three factors for which variety improvement is done.
Answer:
Different crops require different climatic conditions, water regimes, temperature and photoperiods for their growth, maturation and hence yield. Broadly speaking there are two seasons of crop growth, kharif and rabi. Kharif or summer season crops grow between June and October, e.g., Paddy, Maize, Groundnut. Rabi or winter season crops grow between November and April, e.g., Wheat,
Gram, Mustard.
Variety Improvement Factors:

Improved quality and higher yield,
Abiotic and biotic resistance,
Wider adaptability.

Question 8.
(a) What is lactation period. Name two breeds of cattle which are selected for long lactation period. Why are they crossed with local breeds ?
(b) What are roughages and concentrates ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Lactation Period. It is period of milk production after birth of a calf. Higher yield and longer lactation period are preferred traits of dairy animals, e.g., Brown Swiss,
Jersey. The cattle with long and high yield lactation period are exotic breeds which are not acdimitised to our climatic conditions. They are crossed with local breeds to produce hybrids having prolonged lactation, adopted to local environment and resistant to diseases, e.g. Frieswal.
(b) Roughage: It supplies cellulose rich fibrous diet to the dairy animal.
Concentrate: It is nutrient rich low fibre component of catde feed.

Question 9.
(a) A student visited a fish farm where he found Catla, Rohu, Mrigal, Common Carp and Grass Carp cultured in the same pond. Name the type of fish farming observed by the student.
(b) Mention the advantages of such farming system.
(c) What is the main problem in such fish farming ?
How do formers overcome such problem ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Composite fish forming.
(b) Advantages:

There is no competition and fighting among the fish,
Food available in all parts of the pond is properly used,
The yield is high,

Avoiding competition and fighting amongst different types of fish by selecting the ones which have different feeding habits and tolerance to other fish nearby,
Maintenance of water fertility or food at different levels in the same pond.

Question 10.
(a) How are new varieties of poultry birds with desired traits produced ?
(ib) Mention any four desirable traits for which new varieties are produced.
(c) List the management practices that are common between dairy and poultry farming.
(CCE 2011, 2012, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Varieties with requisite traits are first marked out. They are generally exotic and local or previously improved varieties. Birds of varieties having different desirable traits are crossed, self-bred and back crossed till a new variety with all desired traits is produced.
(b)

Smaller sized birds with larger sized eggs.
Ability to utilise more fibrous, cheaper diet using agricultural by products,
Tolerance to higher temperature or summer adaptation.
Develop dwarf broiler parents for commercial chick production.

(c)

Proper shelter, its hygiene, aeration and lighting.
Proper feed and feed additives.
Proper drinking water.
Health care including vaccination.

Question 11.
Explain five different factors for which varietal improvement is carried out by the farmers.
(CCE 2011, 2013, 2015)
Answer:

Higher Yield. More grains in cereals, more seeds and pods in pulses, more tubers in tuber crops, etc.
Improved Quality. More desirable characters like good baking and taste is wheat, more protein and vitamins in Rice, protein quality in pulses, more unsaturated oils in oil crops, better storage taste and flavour of fruits, etc.
Biotic and Abiotic Resistance. Resistance to pests, pathogens, flooding, drought, firost, lodging, etc.
Wider Adaptability. Development of insensitivity to photoperiods and thermoperiods.
Desirable Agronomic Traits. Dwarf food plants that consume less nutrients and are resistant to lodging. Large and profuse branching with softer stems are required for fodder plants.

Question 12.
(a) Identify and define the cropping pattern shown in the figure.
Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 15 image - 9
(b) On. what basis the selection of different crop as shown in the figure carried out.
(c) List the advantages of growing crops in this pattern. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Intercropping.
(b)

Mixed cropping	Intercropping
Seeds. Seeds of different crops are mixed before sowing.	Seeds of different crops are not mixed. They are sown separately.
Pattern. There is no pattern of sowing.	The different crops are sown in separate rows or strips.
Target. It minimises the risk of crop failure.	It increases crop productivity per unit area.
Fertilizers. Only a common type of fertilizer can be added.	Specific fertilizers can be provided to each crop.
Pesticides. Crop sepecific pesticides cannot be sprayed.	Crop specific pesticides can be sprayed without difficulty.
Harvesting. Harvesting of early maturing crop provides a lot of difficulty.	There is little difficulty in harvesting individual crops.
Produce. There is some mixing of the produce of different crops.	There is no mixing of produce of different crops.
Inputs. Lesser inputs of irrigation and nutrients are required.	Requirement of inputs is comparatively more.
Ex. Barley/wheat and gram/mustard.	Ex. Soya bean and Maize, Finger Millet and Cow Pea.

(c)

Attack by insects and fungi is minimized because different pests are associated with different crops. By varying the crops, the insects and fungi associated with a particular crop usually disappear.
Rotation of crops helps in weed control. This is because weeds are associated with specific crops. When the crop is changed, the weeds associated with the previous crop usually disappear.
Rotation of crops improves the fertility of the soil and hence brings about an increase in the production of food grains.
It saves a lot of nitrogenous fertilizer, because growing leguminous crop during the rotation fixes atmospheric nitrogen with the help of their nitrogen fixing bacteria and there is no need to add nitrogenous fertilizer to the soil.
The chemical nature of the soil is not altered as different crops require different types of fertilizers.

Question 13.
(a) What is meant by ‘sustainable agriculture’,
(b) Give an example to explain the meaning of integrated farming practice.
(c) List three major groups of activities to be followed to increase the crop yield. (CCE 2011, 2012, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Sustainable Agriculture. It is technique of farming that maximises agriculture yield without disturbing the balance of nature and degrading environment.
(b) Integrated Farming Practice. It is a combination of farming practices that includes raising of crop plants, livestock, poultry, fishery and beekeeping. The practice keeps the farmer busy throughout the year. One procedure supports the other. For example, bees help in pollination. Agriculture waste is used in poultry. Animal
excreta is source of manure and biogas. Manure enriches the crop fields.
(c) Activities for Increasing Crop Yield.

Development of high yielding varieties (HYV).
Proper crop production management with proper timely irrigation and nutrient supply while keeping the soil structure intact.
Crop protection mangement by removing weeds, keeping pests and pathogens under check.

Question 14.
(a) A farmer wants to improve the catde breed for getting higher yield and for resistance to diseases. Name the method he should adopt to get animals of desired qualities. Illustrate it for cows.
(b) Name the two types of food requirements of dairy animals.
(c) Differendate roughage and concentrate in animal food.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Cross-breeding high milk yielding long lactation period exotic breed animal (e.g., Jersey, Brown Swiss) with disease resistant local bread (e.g. Sahiwal, Red Sindhi). The hybrid (e.g. Frieswal, Karan-Swiss) has the desired traits required by the farmer.
(b) Food requirement of dairy animals is of two types

Maintenance requirement for supporting metabolic activity and healthy life,
Milk producing requirement for supporting and enhancing milk production during lactation period, e.g, feed additives like minerals, vitamins, more protein and fat.

Fibre Content. It has high fibre content and is coarse in nature.
Cellulose. Roughage is largely cellulose in nature.
Nutrients. Carbohydrate content is good. Other nutrients are poor.
Ex. Hay, pounded straw, green fodder.

Concentrate

There is less fibre content. Coarseness is also low.
Cellulose content is low.
It is rich in carbohydrate, protein, fat, mineral and vitamins.
Ex. Grains, seeds, oil cakes, bran.

Question 15.
(a) Give two types of food requirements of dairy animals.
(b) Mention two forms of animal feed.
(c) State the role of feed additives like micronutrients that are added in the food of dairy animals. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a)

Maintenance requirement for supporting metabolic activity and healthy life,
Milk producing requirement for supporting and enhancing milk production during lactation period, e.g, feed additives like minerals, vitamins, more protein and fat.

(b) Forms of Animal Feed. Two, fibre-rich nutrient poor roughage and fibre-poor, nutrient rich concentrate.
(c) Micronutrients. They are required in enhancing , metabolic activity connected with milk prodution and health of animals.

Question 16.
(a) Farmer ‘X’ planted Soya Bean + Maize + Cow Pea in the same field simultaneously in a set row pattern. Farmer ‘Y’ planted cereal crop in one season and leguminous crop is next season on the same piece of land in pre¬planned succession. Name the cropping patterns used by “X’ and ‘Y’.
(b) What are the advantages of different cropping patterns followed by the farmers ‘X’ and ‘Y’ (any four points).
(c) Differentiate between mixed cropping and mixed farming. (CCE 2011, 2013)
Answer:
Farmer’ X. Intercropping. Farmer ‘Y’ Crop rotation.
(b) Advantages of Intercropping.

It ensures higher productivity per unit area,
Soil erosion is checked as field is seldom left uncovered.
It saves time and labour of the farmer.
Sowing and harvesting of different crops can be undertaken separately.

Advantages of Crop Rotation,

Incidence of disease, pest infestation and growth of weeds is reduced.
There is lesser requirement of nitrogen fertilizers,
It improves soil fertility
There is optimum use of soil nutrients as different crops remove the same from different layers,
Yield is improved.

(c) Mixed cropping is growing of two or more crops simultaneously in the same field at the same time. Mixed farming is the practice of raising of livestock as well as growing crops together on the same farm.

Question 17.
(a) Differentiate between broilers and layers including their management. (CCE 2013)
(b) Give an example each for indigenous and exotic breeds of poultry,
(c) What management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Differences.
Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 15 image - 10
(b) Indigenous. Aseel. Exotic. Leghorn.
(c)

Proper shelter, its hygiene, aeration and lighting.
Proper feed and feed additives.
Proper drinking water.
Health care including vaccination.

Question 18.
(a) Mention any two desirable agronomic characters for crop improvement,
(b) Explain how farmers get desired characters incorporated into new varieties produced,
(c) List two conditions necessary for the new varieties to be accepted. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Agronomic Characters for Improvement.
(i) Dwarfness in food crops (e.g. cereals) so that they do ‘ not undergo lodging with wind and consume lesser nutrients,
(it) Good height, profuse branching and softer stems in fodder plants.
(b) Incorporation of Desired Characters.
(c) Acceptance of New Varieties by Farmers.
(i) Availability of good quality pure seeds that show simultaneous germination,
(ii) Wider adaptability to weather and soil conditions.

Question 19.
(a) List any two benefits of using fertilizers. What will happen when they are used continuously and excessively ?
(b) What materials are used in organic farming instead of chemical fertilizers ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Benefits of Fertilizers.

Fertilizers are nutrient specific and readily absorbed so to benefit crop immediately.
Being chemicals, they are compact, easily stored for long and transported to long distances.

(b) Materials Used in Organic Farming :

Farmyard manure,
Compost
Vermioompost.
Green manure.
Biofertilizers like nitrogen fixing bacteria, cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) and mineral solubilising bacteria.

Question 20.
(a) How are cultivation practices and crop yield related to each other ?
(b) Describe any three factors for which variety improvement is done. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Cultivation practices depend upon climate, weather and soil conditions. Plants may require long moderate or short duration of sunlight, low moderate or high temperature, good more or low rainfall, loam clayey or sandy soil. A crop plant with good genetic potentiality will yield maximum if it is provided with optimum cultivation conditions. Early or late sowing will reduce the yield. Apple cannot be grown in plains. Rabi crop cannot be grown in summer. Groundnut yield will be poor in clayey or loam soil.
(b)

Higher Yield: More grains in cereals, more seeds and pods in pulses, more tubers in tuber crops, etc.
Improved Quality: More desirable characters like good baking and taste is wheat, more protein and vitamins in Rice, protein quality in pulses, more unsaturated oils in oil crops, better storage taste and flavour of fruits, etc.
Biotic and Abiotic Resistance: Resistance to pests, pathogens, flooding, drought, firost, lodging, etc.

Question 21.
(a) Mention the different methods of growing crops to get maximum produce. Give one example of each method.
(b) List the characters which are taken into consideration while deciding the choice of crops for each method.
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Different Methods. Crop rotation, intercropping and mixed cropping.

Crop Rotation: It is growing of different crops in a pre-planned succession in the same field, e.g., Rice and wheat, Maize, Potato Sugarcane and Pea. The choice is based on different requirements, availability of irrigation, nutrients and depth of the root system.
Inter-cropping: It is growing of two or more crops simultaneously in the same field but in different row patterns. Crops are selected for intercropping on the basis of different nutrient requirement and different sowing and reaping times. eg. Soyabean.
Mixed cropping: It is the technique of growing two or more different crops together in the same field, e.g., Groundnut and Sunflower.

(b) Characters for Selection of Crops,

Timing of sowing and harvesting,
Different depths of root systems,
Types of crowns,
Requirement of water.
Requirment of nutrients,
Different types of possible pests and pathogens.

Question 22.
(a) Define animal husbandry. Mention any two aspects.
(b) Specify the. two advantages that a farmer is looking
for when he crosses a Jersey cow (exotic breed) with a Sahiwal (local breed).
(c) Explain how parasites attack cattle. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Animal husbandry is branch of agriculture which deals with feeding, shelter, health and breeding of domesticated animals. Aspects,
(i) Proper feeding
(ii) Proper shelter
(iii) Proper breeding
(iv) Proper economic utilisation
(v) Proper health care.
(b) Develop hybrid breed having high yielding long lactation period with acclimitisation to local climate and resistance to common diseases, e.g., Karan Swiss, Frieswal.
(c) Parasites: External parasites live on the skin and cause diseases. Internal parasites like worms live within the body and affect stomach and intestine while flukes damage liver. If untreated, the parasites may prove fatal because skin diseases often invite attack of other pathogens, especially of contagions diseases. Similarly, internal parasites not only reduce vitality of the animal themselves but make it more prone to other diseaes that are fatal.

Question 23.
(a) Name any fresh water resource and one brackish water resource which are important fish reservoirs. Write the names of two scientific methods to detect large schools of fish.
(b) Explain composite fish culture system with example.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a)

Fresh water ponds and estuaries
Echosounders and satellite receptors (electronic devices).

(b) Composite fish culture is a practice of growing 5-6 species , in the same culture pond with different food habits so that there is no competition amongst them, e.g., Catla (surface feeder on small animals).

Question 24.
While cross breeding Indian and foreign poultry, list any three desirable traits that can be developed in new variety. List factors due to which health of poultry fowls is affected and also mention two steps to be taken to prevent it. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Desirable Traits: Varieties with requisite traits are first marked out. They are generally exotic and local or previously improved varieties. Birds of varieties having different desirable traits are crossed, self-bred and back crossed till a new variety with all desired traits is produced.
Factors Affecting Ffealth. Poultry feed, proper rat proof shelter, hygienic conditions, maintenance of temperature, proper light for layers, proper space, prevention and control of diseases and pests.
Steps,

Quick and hygienic disposal of excreta and keeping the shelter bed dry, free from mosquitoes and pests,
Vaccination.

Question 25.
(a) Mention one indigenous and exotic breed of cow
(b) Explain the food requirements of dairy animals
(c) Write two features of healthy cattle. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Indigenous Breed Sahiwal, Red Sindhi. Exotic Breed. Holstein-Friesian, Brown Swiss.
(b) Food requirement of dairy animals is of two types

Maintenance requirement for supporting metabolic activity and healthy life,
Milk producing requirement for supporting and enhancing milk production during lactation period, e.g, feed additives like minerals, vitamins, more protein and fat.

Feeds regularly
Shows normal behaviour and posture.

Question 26.
(a) List six factors for which the variety improvement of crops is aimed at ? Explain two advantages of mixed cropping. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Factors

Higher yield.
Improved quality.
Biotic and abiotic resistance.
Change in maturity duration.
Desirable agronomic traits.
Wider adaptability.

(b) Advantages of Mixed Cropping

There is no risk of complete crop failure,
There is optimum utilisation of soil, besides improving its fertility,
Pest infestation is low.
Irrigation requirement is lower.

Question 27.
(a) Differentiate between capture fishery and culture fishery,
(b) Explain any two steps that are taken for increasing production in poultry, fisheries and bee keeping,
(c) Name any two Indian bees. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Differences.
Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 15 image - 11
(b) Steps for Increased Production

Poultry: Proper feed, vaccination, improved variety and hygienic shelter
Fisheries: Composite fish culture, proper natural feed.
Bee Keeping: Good pasturage and protection from enemies.

Question 28.
(a) Name the process used for developing improved poultry breeds. Give its one example. Write any three desirable traits for which new varieties are developed,
(b) In a pond Catlas, Rohus, Mrigals, Common Carps and Grass Carps are cultured together. What is this system of fish culture called ? Explain its advantages.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Hybridisation of local breeds with exotic breeds, e.g, HH-260. Desirable Traits in Poultry

Smaller size of birds,
Increased number and larger size of eggs.
Resistance to diseases.

(b) Composite Culture. Advantages,

The different fishes do not compete with one another,
The food available in all zones of pond is utilised,
Only natural foods are consumed,
As a number of fish are reared in the same pond, the yield is very high.

Question 29.
(a) Define composite or intensive fish culture, (b) State the advantage of this system by giving suitable examples.
(c) What is the major problem in composite fish farming ? How is this problem overcome ?
(CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Composite or Intensive Fish Culture. It is rearing of 5-6 different types of fish in the same pond. The different fish do not compete nor fight with one another as they have different feeding habits,
(b) Advantages:

Only natural food is taken by the fish,
The different fish feed at different levels, e.g., Cada (surface feeder on small animals). Silver Carp (surface feeder on phytoplankton). Rohu (middle zone), Grass Carp (feeds on water plants), Mrigal (bottom feeder on detritus) and Common Carp (bottom feeder, omnivorous). It prevents wastage of available water resources.
The yield is very high.

(c) Major Problem. The fish used in composite culture breed only during monsoon. The seed collected from the wild is mixed with that of other species. The quality is also poor. The problem has been solved by Alikuhni (1957) by developing the technique of induced breeding. By this technique fish can be bred throughout the year. Through selection and hybridisation, the quality of fish has also been improved. For induced breeding fish are given pituitary hormone injections. The process is called hypophysation.

Question 30.
Define fumigation and fumigant. Give an example of fumigant. How does fumigation differ from spraying ? Give two points. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Fumigation. It is method of releasing lethal fumes (gas or smoke) in an enclosed area so as to kill all types of pests and pathogens.
Fumigant. It is a chemical compound which in its gaseous state acts as a pesticide or disinfectant. A fumigant can be solid (e.g,, aluminium phosphide), liquid (e.g., ethylene . dichlorine-carbon tetrachloride) or gas (e.g, methyl bromide).
Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 15 image - 12

Question 31.
What are pests ? How can pests be controlled ? In what way biopesticides are better than the chemical pesticides ? (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Pests. They are organisms (insects, rodents, nematodes, mites, weeds, pathogens) which cause damage to plants (and animals) and their products.
Control of Plant Pests. Plant pests can be controlled by either using chemical pesticides or biopesticides.

Chemical Pesticides. They are chemical formulations which are toxic to pests and are used for killing them. Pesticides include insecticides (kill insects), weedicides (kill weeds), fungicides, rodenticides, nematicides, etc. Malathion, lindane and thiodon are sprayed over crops to control stem and leaf cutting insects. Sucking insects are controlled by systemic insecticides like dimethoate and metasystox. Roots are protected from pests by fumigants and insecticides like chloropyriphos.
Biopesticides. They are biological agents or their products which are used to control pests. Beetle Zygogramma feeds selectively over Parthenium. Baculoviruses parasitise insect pests. Insect pests can also be killed by natural insecticides like azadirachtin and pyrethrum.
Biopesticides Better Than Chemical Pesticides. Chemical pesticides can directly harm us as they are toxic. They are often nonbiodegradable. Chemical pesticides pass into soil, plants and water bodies harming living beings every where. Biopesticides are better as they eliminate the .pests without harming crops, soil, water bodies and * human beings.

Question 32.
(a) “Removal of weeds from the cultivated fields during the early stages of crop growth is essential for good harvest”.
(i) What are weeds ? Give one example,
(ii) List any two reasons due to which it is essential to remove them during early stage of crop growth.
(iii) Mention any two methods by which weed growth can be controlled,
(b) Apart from weeds, mention two other factors that may adversely affect crops and briefly state how these affect crop yield.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a)
(i) Weeds: They are unwanted plants which grow alongwith cultivated crop plants in the same field, e.g., Phalaris, Convolvulus, Xanthium, Parthenium.
(ii) Removal in Early Stage.

Removal of weeds during the early stages of growth of crops is essential as it will allow the crop plants to grow and spread properly obtaining all the inputs (which are robbed by the weeds if they are present)
Destruction of weeds in early stages prevent them to produce seeds and multiply.

(iii) Methods:
The four methods of preventing and controlling weeds are mechanical, cultural, chemical and biological

Mechanical Methods. Removal of weeds as soon as they appear in the field by hand or trowel
Cultural Methods. Summer ploughing, proper seed bed preparation, timely sowing of crop, inter-cropping and crop rotation.
Chemical Methods. Spraying weedicides like 2, 4-D, butachlor, atrazine.
Biological methods. Natural predator of weed, e.g., Mexican Beede for Parthenium.

(b) Other Biotic Factors,

Insect Pests. They damage and even destroy cultivated crop plants thus reducing quality and quantity of yield e.g., Gundhy Bug (Rice), Shoot Fly (Wheat), Shoot Borer (Sugarcane).
Plant Pathogens. They cause diseases. The diseases reduce the growth and productivity of crops, e.g., Wheat Rust, Blast of Rice.

Question 33.
(a) Farmer A wants to grow fodder crops while farmer B wants to grow cereals. Mention the agronomic characteristics which the two farmers would desire in their respective crops,
(b) List any four other factors for which variety improvement is done,
(c) Name and define the process of incorporating desirable characteristics into crops. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a)

Fodder Crops. Tall plants, juicy stems, profuse branching and good foliage.
Cereal Crops. Dwarfness so as ro consume less nutrients and prevent lodging, longer ears.

(b) Other Factors,

Higher yield
Improved quality
Biotic and abiotic resistance,
Short duration
Wider adaptability.

(c) Plant Breeding. Ir is the process of improving heredity of plants in relation to their economic use. Desirable characters can be incorporated into crops through

Hybridisation
Mutation breeding and
DNA recombination technology.

Question 34.
(a) Explain four different kinds of irrigation systems adopted in India to supply water for agriculture.
(b) What is rain water harvesting and water shed management ? How are they useful for enhancing availability of water for agriculture. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Irrigation Systems: Irrigation is the process of supplying water to crop plants as per their requirements through human efforts.
(b)

Rain Water Harvesting. It is use of rain water to either recharge the ground water or filling ponds.
Water Shed Management. It is increasing percolation of water into ground by building small check dams in areas of run off.
Increased availability of ground water and pond water is used for providing irrigation facility in nonrainy season.

Question 35.
How are manures different from fertilizers ? Give one example of each. What is poultry farming ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Manures and Fertilizers.

Manure	Fertilizer
Nature. Manure is semidecomposed organic matter.	Fertilizer is a chemical formulation.
Preparation. It is prepared from natural materials like plant residues and animal residues.	It is synthetic being formed from chemical salts.
Mineral Content. It contains only a small quantity of mineral salts.	Fertilizers contain pure mineral salts or their precursors.
Specificity. It is not nutrient specific.	It is nutrient specific.
Organic Matter. It adds organic matter to the soil.	There is no addition oforganic matter.
Quantity. It is required in large quantity.	It is required in small quantity.
Nutrient Availability. Nutrient availability is moderate. Nutrients are released slowly.	Fertilizer possesses readily available plant nutrients.
Transport. Manure is bulky. It is very difficult to transport it to longer distances.	It has smaller bulk. Fertilizers can, therefore, be transported easily to long distances.
Storage. Manure cannot be stored for long.	Fertilizers can be stored for long duration.
Soil. It helps in maintaining soil texture, its hydration and aeration.	It can harm soil texture and other soil characters.
Excess. Excess manure is not much harmful.	Excess fertilizer is harmful to plants. It also causes pollution.

Example for Fertilizer. Urea, NPK fertilizer.
Poultry Farming. It is rearing of chicken, ducks, turkey and geese for their meat and eggs.

Question 36.
How is variety improvement being done in animals ? What is animal husbandry ? What are its four important steps? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Variety Improvement in Animals. It is carried out through selective mating between animals of different breads like high milk yield and longer loctation period in Jersey and Brown Swiss cattle and disease resistance as well as acelimitisation to local conditions in Red Sindhi and Sahiwal cattle.
Animal Husbandly: Animal husbandry is a branch of agriculture that deals with scientific management of animal livestock.
Four Steps. Grooming, proper shelter, proper feeding and health care.

Question 37.
Define animal husbandary. Discuss feeding, breeding and controlling the diseases of cattle population in dairy farming. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Animal Husbandry: Animal husbandry is a branch of agriculture that deals with scientific management of animal livestock.
Feeding and Breeding of Catde: Cross-breeding high milk yielding long lactation period exotic breed animal (e.g., Jersey, Brown Swiss) with disease resistant local bread (e.g. Sahiwal, Red Sindhi). The hybrid (e.g. Frieswal, Karan-Swiss) has the desired traits required by the farmer.
Controlling Diseases of Cattle:

Provison of hygienic spacious shelter,
Separation of sick animals,
Prompt medical aid to sick animals,
Vaccination against all important diseases.

Question 38.
(i) State two types of food requirements of dairy animals.
(ii) List the various constituents of food of dairy animals.
(iii) Why do cattle need a balanced diet ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(i) Food requirement of dairy animals is of two types

Maintenance requirement for supporting metabolic activity and healthy life,
Milk producing requirement for supporting and enhancing milk production during lactation period, e.g, feed additives like minerals, vitamins, more protein and fat.

(ii) Roughage

Fibre Content. It has high fibre content and is coarse in nature.
Cellulose. Roughage is largely cellulose in nature.
Nutrients. Carbohydrate content is good. Other nutrients are poor.
Ex. Hay, pounded straw, green fodder.

Concentrate

There is less fibre content. Coarseness is also low.
Cellulose content is low.
It is rich in carbohydrate, protein, fat, mineral and vitamins.

Ex. Grains, seeds, oil cakes, bran.
(iii) Balanced Diet. Every component of food is required in proper quantity and proportion for healthy living of cattle, their maximum milk yield and protection from deficiency diseases.

Question 39.
(i) How many nutrients are essential for plants ?
(ii) What are macronutrients and micronutrients ?
(iii) List the nutrients supplied by air, water and soil.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
(i) 16
(ii)
(a) Macronutrients are essential elements required for growth and reproduction of plants which are needed in larger quantities forming more than 1 mg/g of dry matter, e.g., nitrogen, potassium. Micronutrients are essential elements that are needed by plants in minute quantities forming quite less than lmg/g of dry matter.
(b) Micronutrients: Zn, Iron.
(iiî)

Source

Nutrient

Type

1 Air

2. Water

3. Soil

Carbon, Oxygen

Hydrogen

(i) Nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, calcium, magnesium, sulphur

(ii) Iron, manganese, boron, zinc, copper, molybdenum, chlorine

Macronutrients

Macronutrient

Macronutrients

Micronutrients

Question 40.
(a) Mention the indications found in the grains that are stored in place of inappropriate moisture and temperature. State losses occurring due to these.
(b) State the preventive measures to be taken before the grains are stored for future use. (CCE 2013, 2014)
Answer:
(a) Moisture and temperature increase the respiration of grains, heat them up, reduce their keeping quality, invite microorganisms, fungi and insects to attack them. It causes rotting, discolouration, bad odour, damage to grains, contamination with webs, cocoons, excreta, dead remains and toxins of infesting organisms.
Loss. The infested grains lose their germination, get degraded in quality and become unfit for consumption or germination.
(b) Preventive Measure,

Drying. The grains should be properly dried and cleaned prior to storage,
Proper Godown. Godown should be cleaned, disinfected and dried before storing the grains,
Gunny Bags. The containers and the gunny bags used for storing food grains should be clean, dry and properly funigated.
Spray and fumigation of godown at intervals.

Question 41.
(a) What are milch and draught animals ? Give an example for each,
(b) Name two components of cattle feed,
(c) Name the method which is commonly used for improving cattle breed. Write name of one exotic breed which is selected. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Milch Animals. Animals where cows are high milk yielders and bullocks are poor draught animals, e.g., Sahiwal, Red Sindhi.
Draught Animals. They are animals where the males are strong and sturdy to carry out tough farming duties like ploughing, drawing water, carting, e.g., Halliker. j The females of draught animals yield less milk.
(b) Components of Cattle Feed. Two, roughage and j concentrate.
a) Roughage

High fibre content rich in cellulose.
Poor content of protein, fat and other nutrients.
Example. Pounded straw, hay, silage, green and dry fodder.

Concentrate,

It is rich in nutrients — proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals.
Fibre content is low. Example. Oil cakes, grains, bran.

(c) Improving Cattle Breed: Cross breeding indigenous breeds with exotic breeds. Foreign or exotic breeds have higher milk yield and longer lactation period as compared to indigenous breeds. Therefore, indigenous breeds should be cross¬bred with exotic breeds. The local breeds are hardy and resistant to several diseases. There are two methods of cross breeding — natural and artificial insemination. Artificial insemination is preferred as frozen semen can be transported, required in small quantity and protects the cows from contagious diseases.

Question 42.
(a) List two desirable characteristics for which crop variety improvement is done,
(b) Name the Italian bee variety commonly used for commercial honey production. List its three advantages,
(c) Name and differentiate between two -components of food required by catde. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Higher yield, improved quality, wider adaptability.
(b) Apis mellifera.

Gentle in nature
Good honey collection ability,
Less swarming.

Fibre Content. It has high fibre content and is coarse in nature.
Cellulose. Roughage is largely cellulose in nature.
Nutrients. Carbohydrate content is good. Other nutrients are poor.
Ex. Hay, pounded straw, green fodder.

Concentrate

There is less fibre content. Coarseness is also low.
Cellulose content is low.
It is rich in carbohydrate, protein, fat, mineral and vitamins.
Ex. Grains, seeds, oil cakes, bran.

Question 43.
(a) Define weed. Give two examples.
(b) Why is it essential to remove weeds from agricultural fields ?
(c) What are weedicides ? (CCE 2013, 2014)
Answer:
(a) Weeds: They are unwanted plants which grow alongwith cultivated crop plants in the same field, e.g., Phalaris, Convolvulus, Xanthium, Parthenium.
(b)

Removal of weeds during the early stages of growth of crops is essential as it will allow the crop plants to grow and spread properly obtaining all the inputs (which are robbed by the weeds if they are present)
Destruction of weeds in early stages prevent them to produce seeds and multiply.
Some weeds produce toxins.

(c) Weedicides. They are chemicals which specifically kill weeds without harming the crop plants, e.g., 2, 4-D, butachlor, atrazine, isoproturon.

Question 44.
“Biotic and abiotic factors both influence the productivity of crops in a particular geographical area”. Illustrate the statement with suitable examples. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Biotic Factors. They are living organisms that reduce crop yield. Biotic factors are pests, pathogens and weeds. Weeds: They are unwanted plants which grow alongwith cultivated crop plants in the same field, e.g., Phalaris, Convolvulus, Xanthium, Parthenium.
Pests. They are small animals which damage cultivated plants, e.g, insects like aphids, hoppers.
Pathogens. A number of fungi, bacteria and viruses attack crop plants and cause diseases, e.g., rust of wheat, blast of Rice, mosaics.
Abiotic factors are non-living components of environment that affect growth of crop plants like excess of water (water-logging), scarcity of water (drought), salinity, heat, cold or frost. Water logging reduces aeration of soil which is harmful to growth and functioning of roots. In drought, water is not available to meet the requirement of the plants for transpiration, growth and photosynthesis. Frost, cold and heat reduce or inhibit metabolic activities and are, therefore, harmful.

Question 45.
Define genetically modified crops. How are they made ? Explain the significance of genetically modified crops with suitable example. (CCE 2014, 2015)
Answer:
Genetically modified crops are varieties that have been formed by taking genes form other organisms . They are also called transgenic crops.
The desired genes are searched. They are removed from their DNA with the help of special enzymes called restriction endonucleases. The genes are either incorporated into vectors like plasmids (e.g.,Ti) of bacteria or artificial chromosomes. They can also be injected directly into nuclei of cells of crop plant. The modified cells are multiplied and then made to develop into plants through tissue culture.
Examples of genetically modified crops are vitamin A rich Golden Rice, protein rich Potato and insect resistant Bt cotton. Bt cotton is grown extensively in India as it does not require costly insecticides to protect
the crop from bollworms.

Question 46.
List major factors for which the crop variety improvement is done. Illustrate any two of them. (CCE 2014)
Answer:

Higher Yield. More grains in cereals, more seeds and pods in pulses, more tubers in tuber crops, etc.
Improved Quality. More desirable characters like good baking and taste is wheat, more protein and vitamins in Rice, protein quality in pulses, more unsaturated oils in oil crops, better storage taste and flavour of fruits, etc.
Biotic and Abiotic Resistance. Resistance to pests, pathogens, flooding, drought, firost, lodging, etc.
Wider Adaptability. Development of insensitivity to photoperiods and thermoperiods.
Desirable Agronomic Traits. Dwarf food plants that consume less nutrients and are resistant to lodging. Large and profuse branching with softer stems are required for fodder plants.

Question 47.
Describe the different types of irrigation systems adopted in India to supply water to the fields, (b) Mention the modern initiative undertaken in this respect. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a) Irrigation Systems: Irrigation is the process of supplying water to crop plants as per their requirements through human efforts.
(b)

Rain Water Harvesting. It is use of rain water to either recharge the ground water or filling ponds.
Water Shed Management. It is increasing percolation of water into ground by building small check dams in areas of run off.
Increased availability of ground water and pond water is used for providing irrigation facility in nonrainy season.

Question 48.
Write descriptive notes on
(i) Mariculture
(ii) Aquaculture
(iii) Inland fisheries. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(i) Mariculture: It is rearing and harvesting of selected fin fishes, shell fishes and sea weeds in special enclosures in sea. The important fin fishes grown in mariculture are mullets, bhetki and pearl spots. Shell fishes include mussels, oysters and pearl oysters.
(ii) Aquaculture: Growing and harvesting of various types of aquatic organisms in water bodies is called aquaculture. It includes fin fish, shell fish,other aquatic animals and plants. Water body can be fresh water, brackish and coastal waters (mariculture).
(iii) Inland Fisheries: They are fisheries found in fresh and brackish waters over land. Fresh water occurs in rivers, canals, reservoirs, lakes and ponds. Brackish water is found in estuaries, lagoons and some lakes. Inland fisheries are again of two types, capture and culture. The yield from capture fisheries is not much. Inland culture fisheries provide more than 60% of our fish yield. Composite fish culture is quite popular amongst farmers.

Question 49.
Mention the basis of crop selection in intercropping and crop rotation. Write the advantages of these two types of cropping patterns. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Inter-cropping: It is growing of two or more crops simultaneously in the same field but in different row patterns. Crops are selected for intercropping on the basis of different nutrient requirement and different sowing and reaping times. eg. Soyabean
Crop Rotation: It is growing of different crops in a pre-planned succession in the same field, e.g., Rice and wheat, Maize, Potato Sugarcane and Pea. The choice is based on different requirements, availability of irrigation, nutrients and depth of the root system.
Advantages of Intercropping:

It ensures higher productivity per unit area,
Soil erosion is checked as field is seldom left uncovered.
It saves time and labour of the farmer.
Sowing and harvesting of different crops can be undertaken separately.

Advantages of Crop Rotation:

Incidence of disease, pest infestation and growth of weeds is reduced.
There is lesser requirement of nitrogen fertilizers,
It improves soil fertility
There is optimum use of soil nutrients as different crops remove the same from different layers,
Yield is improved.

Question 50.
Define crop rotation. How is it done to increase the yield of crops? Why is it called environment friendly ?
(CCE 2014)
Answer:
Rotation of crops is a method of crop production which ensures high yield. Crop rotation is growing of different crops on the same piece of land in a preplanned succession. Crop rotation is done for one year, two year and three year cycle. Crops chosen are such that they withdraw nutrients from different layers of the soil. Crop rotation involving a leguminous crop ensures that the soil gets naturally enriched with nitrogen.
Crop rotation is useful in

Weed control,
Reduction in pest infestation,
Elimination of soil borne diseases,
Saving of nitrogen fertilizer
Improving soil structure and fertility,
Raising of 2-4 crops in a year from the same land giving higher returns to the farmer,
Yield of individual crops is also higher due to improved soil structure, soil fertility, fewer weeds, fewer insects and diseases.

One Year Rotation : Rice—Wheat, Maize—Mustard
Two Year Rotation : Maize-Potato-Sugarcane-Pea
Three Year Rotation : Rice-Wheat-Mung-Mustard-Sugarcane-Burseem
Environment Friendly. Crop rotation is ecoffiendly as it uses minimum weedicides, pesticides and very little amount of nitrogen fertilizers. It also improves soil structure.

Question 51.
Define weeds. Name two common weeds. Illustrate the different methods of controlling weeds in a crop field.
(CCE 2014)
Answer:
Weeds: They are unwanted plants which grow alongwith cultivated crop plants in the same field, e.g., Phalaris, Convolvulus, Xanthium, Parthenium.
The four methods of preventing and controlling weeds are mechanical, cultural, chemical and biological

Mechanical Methods. Removal of weeds as soon as they appear in the field by hand or trowel
Cultural Methods. Summer ploughing, proper seed bed preparation, timely sowing of crop, inter-cropping and crop rotation.
Chemical Methods. Spraying weedicides like 2, 4-D, butachlor, atrazine.
Biological methods. Natural predator of weed, e.g., Mexican Beede for Parthenium.

Question 52.
State the purpose for which cattle husbandry is done.
Name the method which is commonly used for improving cattle breeds and why ? Name one exotic and one , indigenous breed of cow with long lactation period.
(CCE 2014)
Answer:
Purpose of Cattle or Animal Husbandry:
Animal husbandry is branch of agriculture which deals with feeding, shelter, health and breeding of domesticated animals. Aspects,

Proper feeding
Proper shelter
Proper breeding
Proper economic utilisation
Proper health care.

Methods for Improving Breeds:
Variety Improvement in Animals. It is carried out through selective mating between animals of different breads like high milk yield and longer loctation period in Jersey and Brown Swiss cattle and disease resistance as well as acelimitisation to local conditions in Red Sindhi and Sahiwal cattle.
Long Lactation:

Exotic Breed. Holstein freiesian — 365 days.
Indigenous Breed. Sahiwal — 300 days.

Question 53.
In a fresh water composite fish culture, mention the basis of selection of varieties of fishes. Name any four varieties of fishes selected along with their zones. Write one advantage and one problem of composite fish culture. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Basis and Varieties: Composite fish culture is a practice of growing 5-6 species , in the same culture pond with different food habits so that there is no competition amongst them, e.g., Catla (surface feeder on small animals). Silver Carp (surface feeder or phytoplankton) Rohu (middle zone), Grass Carp (water weeds), Mrigal (bottom feeder on detritus) and Common Carp (bottom feeder, omnivorous).
Advantages:

Only natural food is taken by the fish,
The different fish feed at different levels, e.g., Cada (surface feeder on small animals). Silver Carp (surface feeder on phytoplankton). Rohu (middle zone), Grass Carp (feeds on water plants), Mrigal (bottom feeder on detritus) and Common Carp (bottom feeder, omnivorous). It prevents wastage of available water resources.
The yield is very high.

Question 54.
(a) Explain how biotic and abiotic factors influence storage of agricultural produce.
(b) Mention the preventive and control measures used before storing food grains for future use.
(CCE 2015)
Answer:
(a) Both abiotic and biotic factors damage stored grains.
Abiotic Factors

Moisture Content of Grains: Moisture content of grains is generally higher than optimum 14%. Higher moisture content of grains increases their respiration, which heats the grains and reduces their keeping quality. Microorganisms, fungi and insects attack such grains.
Dampness and Humidity of Air: Dampness of godowns and humidity of air cause growth ol moulds over and inside the grains.
Temperature: Temperature of 30°C and above is harmful to stored grains due to activity of microorganisms, insects, pests and activation of enzymes of the grains.

Biotic Factors

Rodents: Six rats consume food equivalent to an average human being. They damage 5-6 times more grains by cutting and contamination (by urine, hair and excreta).
Birds: Birds are often seen in large number around godowns. They are able to puncture bags and eat the stored grains. The birds also contaminate the stored grains with their excreta and feathers. Bird excreta often contains Salmonella, the bacterium causing food poisoning.
Insects and Worms: Insects and their larvae feed on stored grains either internally (internal feeders like Pulse Beetle, Rice Weevil, Lesser Grain Borer) or externally (external feeders, e.g., Khapra Beetle, Rust Red Flour Beetle). They damage the grains, decrease their quality and cause contamination with webs, cocoons, excreta, dead remains and toxins.
Microorganisms: Bacteria, yeasts and moulds attack stored grains and cause their rotting. Rotting brings about discolouration, loss of weight, bad odour and aflatoxin contamination of grains which also lose their ability to germinate.

(b) Preventive Measures,

Cleaning of produce.
Proper drying, first is sun and then in shade.
Cleaning and disinfecting the godowns and stores.
Disinfection of gunny bags and mixing dried grains with pesticides.

Control Measures,

Spraying of pesticide over gunny bags,
Fumigation of godown.
Systematic management with periodic inspection.

Question 55.
(a) What is meant by composite fish culture ?
(b) What is the basis of selecting the different species of fish? (CCE 2015)
Answer:
(a) Composite or Intensive Fish Culture. It is rearing of 5-6 different types of fish in the same pond. The different fish do not compete nor fight with one another as they have different feeding habits,
(b) Basis:

Only natural food is taken by the fish,
The different fish feed at different levels, e.g., Cada (surface feeder on small animals). Silver Carp (surface feeder on phytoplankton). Rohu (middle zone), Grass Carp (feeds on water plants), Mrigal (bottom feeder on detritus) and Common Carp (bottom feeder, omnivorous). It prevents wastage of available water resources.
The yield is very high.

(c) Pure Seed: The fish used in composite culture breed only during monsoon. The seed collected from the wild is mixed with that of other species. The quality is also poor. The problem has been solved by Alikuhni (1957) by developing the technique of induced breeding. By this technique fish can be bred throughout the year. Through selection and hybridisation, the quality of fish has also been improved. For induced breeding fish are given pituitary hormone injections. The process is called hypophysation.

Question 56.
(a) Differentiate between roughage and concentrate as components of animal feed,
(b) Explain briefly any three factors for which variety improvement is done in crops. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
(a) Roughage

Fibre Content. It has high fibre content and is coarse in nature.
Cellulose. Roughage is largely cellulose in nature.
Nutrients. Carbohydrate content is good. Other nutrients are poor.
Ex. Hay, pounded straw, green fodder.

Concentrate

There is less fibre content. Coarseness is also low.
Cellulose content is low.
It is rich in carbohydrate, protein, fat, mineral and vitamins.
Ex. Grains, seeds, oil cakes, bran.

(b) Factors for Variety Improvement

Higher yield.
Improved quality.
Biotic and abiotic resistance.
Change in maturity duration.
Desirable agronomic traits.
Wider adaptability.

Question 57.
Excessive use of fertilizer and chemical pesticides is harmful-Justify the statement. How can this problem be solved ? (CCE 2015)
Answer:
Excessive Use of Fertilizers:

They cause change in soil chemistry making it either too alkaline or too acidic.
They harm soil micro-organisms.
Crumb structure of soil is destroyed. It effects both hydration and aeration of soil.
They cause nutrient enrichment of lakes and other water bodies due to run olf from fields. Eutrophication, water blooms and killing of aquatic animals occur.
Fertilizers percolate alongwith the gravitational water into ground water causing salt enrichment of the ground water.
There is excessive salt load in the farm produce.

Excessive Use of Chemical Pesticides:

They are biocides and kill all types of living organisms including soil microbes.
Pesticides enter plants and their seeds, causing harm to animals and humans who feed on them.
They pollute both soil and ground water.
During run off pesticides reach the water bodies, polluting water, aquatic plants and killing many animals.
Pesticides enter food chains and cause harm to higher trophic level organisms.
They directly harm the persons engaged in spraying pesticides.
Remedy. More and more use of manure, biofertilizers and biopesticides, i.e., organic farming.

Question 58.
(a) Write two characteristics of good cattle shelter.
(b) What should be the components of balanced ration for catde ?
(c) Write two symptoms of a sick animal. ( CCE 2015)
Answer:
(a) Cattle Shelter

Space. It should provide proper space to each animal and a small enclosure for sick animals.
Protection. It should protea the animals from rain, storm, heat, cold and predators.
Hygiene. There should be proper arrangement for hygienic disposal of urine and excreta like cemented floor with slope, drains and water supply.

(b) Balanced Ration. Roughage, concentrate and feed additives (minerals, vitamins, proteins, fat. if lacking in concentrate).
(c) Symptoms of Sick Animals

Looks tired, inactive and tries to remain isolated,
Little interest in taking food.

Question 59.
(i) What do you understand by genetically modified crops ?
(ii) What are the desired agronomic characters for fodder and cereal crops ?
(iii) What are the advantages of having improved varieties by hybridisation ? (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(i) Genetically modified crops are varieties that have been formed by taking genes form other organisms . They are also called transgenic crops.
The desired genes are searched. They are removed from their DNA with the help of special enzymes called restriction endonucleases. The genes are either incorporated into vectors like plasmids (e.g.,Ti) of bacteria or artificial chromosomes. They can also be injected directly into nuclei of cells of crop plant. The modified cells are multiplied and then made to develop into plants through tissue culture.
(ii)

Fodder Crops. Tall plants, juicy stems, profuse branching and good foliage.
Cereal Crops. Dwarfness so as ro consume less nutrients and prevent lodging, longer ears.

(iii) Benefits: Hybridization is a technique of crop variety improvement for

Better yield (higher yield, improved quality),
Disease resistance.

Question 60.
Name three cropping patterns which are ecofriendly and explain them. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
Crop rotation, intercropping and mixed cropping.

Crop Rotation: It is growing of different crops in a pre-planned succession in the same field, e.g., Rice and wheat, Maize, Potato Sugarcane and Pea. The choice is based on different requirements, availability of irrigation, nutrients and depth of the root system.
Inter-cropping: It is growing of two or more crops simultaneously in the same field but in different row patterns. Crops are selected for intercropping on the basis of different nutrient requirement and different sowing and reaping times. eg. Soyabean.
Mixed cropping: It is the technique of growing two or more different crops together in the same field, e.g., Groundnut and Sunflower.

Question 61.
(a) How many plant nutrients are supplied by soil ?
How are these nutrients replenished in the soil ?
(b) What do you mean by green manure ? Which nutrients are supplied to the soil by it ? (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a) 13 out of 16 chemical elements are supplied by soil. The nutrients are replenished in the soil by addition of manure and fertilizers.
Manures and fertilizers are added to fields mainly to replenish minerals which get depleted due to withdrawal by crop plants and leaching down to lower strata of soil.

Manures add small quantity of all minerals to the soil. They improve soil hydration, soil aeration and activity of soil micro-organisms, some of which are required for solubilisation of heavy minerals.
Fertilizers are nutrient specific which contain one or more minerals in concentrated form. They meet the immediate and complete mineral requirement of high yielding varieties. However, they harm soil structure and cause pollution of crops, soil, ground water and nearby surface waters. A combination of both manure and fertilizer is highly useful.

(b) Green Manure: It is manure formed inside soil from young green crop plants ploughed hack into soil. The green manure crops are generally quick growing legume crops which are mulched by ploughing them back into field in tender stage (about 6 — 8 weeks) only, generally at the time of flowering. These crops are completely decomposed in about 1—2 months when the next crop can be sown.

Question 62.
Explain the desirable traits obtained after cross-breeding an indigenous and and exotic breed of poultry birds.
(CCE 2016)
Answer:

Breeding: The natural method involves the cross-breeding of the indigenous cows with the bulls of high ‘milk yielding foreign breeds by the mating process. This traditional method of breeding is carried out during the high fertility period (or heat) of the cow or buffalo.
Artificial Insemination (Artificial Breeding): The process of storing semen of a desired male animal and then introducing it into the genital tract of a selected female animal by the use of suitable instruments to produce a better breed of the offspring animals is called artificial insemination. (More than 6000 artificial insemination centres have been established in different parts of our country).

Question 63.
(a) Mention the type of shelters which should be provided to cattle in dairy farming
(b) Mention the preventive measures taken to control diseases of dairy animals,
(c) What are the food requirements of daily animals.
(CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a)

Space. It should provide proper space to each animal and a small enclosure for sick animals.
Protection. It should protea the animals from rain, storm, heat, cold and predators.
Hygiene. There should be proper arrangement for hygienic disposal of urine and excreta like cemented floor with slope, drains and water supply.

(b) Preventive Measures,

Vaccination,
Protection from external parasites
Protection from flies
Hygienic disposal of excreta
Regular cleaning.

Maintenance requirement for supporting metabolic activity and healthy life,
Milk producing requirement for supporting and enhancing milk production during lactation period, e.g, feed additives like minerals, vitamins, more protein and fat.

Roughage

Fibre Content. It has high fibre content and is coarse in nature.
Cellulose. Roughage is largely cellulose in nature.
Nutrients. Carbohydrate content is good. Other nutrients are poor.
Ex. Hay, pounded straw, green fodder.

Concentrate

There is less fibre content. Coarseness is also low.
Cellulose content is low.
It is rich in carbohydrate, protein, fat, mineral and vitamins.
Ex. Grains, seeds, oil cakes, bran.

Question 64.
Define hybridisation. Mention three basic types of cross¬breeding practices. Describe any one of them. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
Hybridisation: It is crossing two types of individuals having different types of superior traits in order to obtain offspring (called hybrids) having good traits of both the parents. Hybridisation is also called cross breeding. The three types of cross-breeding are intravarietal, intervarietal and interspecific. In plant breeding intervarietal hybridisation is the common method of variety improvement. It involves

Choice of Parents. Two older varieities of crop having different desirable characteristics, are selected. For example, if we want to obtain a variety having higher yield as well as disease resistance, we should select two existing varieties of crops, one having higher yield and the other having more resistance to diseases.
Cross-Breeding the Two Parents. Uncontaminated pollen grains of plants of one variety are dusted over the stigmas of the plants of other variety and vice versa. The offspring are hybrids with good characters of both the parents. However, all the desired traits rarely appear in them. Threrefore, back-crossing with one or the other parent and self fertilization are performed to bring out all the desired traits, preferably in homozygous state.

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Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14

May 7, 2023

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Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions and Answers Science Chapter 14

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Name any two factors responsible for the formation of soil.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
Abiotic (sun, water, wind) and biotic (living organisms).

More Resources

Question 2.
Write full form of CFC. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Chloro-fluoro-carbon.

Question 3.
We are lucky that ozone is not stable near to the earth’s surface. Why ? Give appropriate answer. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Ozone occurring near the surface of the earth is a strong oxidant causing corrosion of articles, hardening of rubber, respiratory distress and internal haemorrhages. Fortunately, it is not stable forming oxygen and oxides.

Question 4.
How is biosphere a dynamic and stable system ?
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
There is a regular circulation of biogeochemicals between the different components of biosphere which also receives regular supply of energy as well that is ultimately dissipated in the form of infra-red rays.

Question 5.
Name the carbon compounds responsible for causing ozone hole in the atmosphere. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

Question 6.
Name the bacteria responsible for nitrification in nature.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
Nitrosomonas (ammonia to nitrite) and Nitrobacter (oxidises nitrite to nitrate).

Question 7.
Which gas is the major component of atmosphere of Vends and Mars ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, 95-97%, of their atmosphere.

Question 8.
In which part of legumes, nitrogen fixing bacteria are present ? (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
In their root nodules.

Question 9.
What is the function of ozone which is present in the upper level of atmosphere ?
OR
State one use of ozone. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Ozone present in the upper layer of atmosphere or stratosphere filters out harmful high energy ultraviolet radiations (100-320 nm) liberating heat in the process that warms up the stratosphere.

Question 10.
Name any one method by which water helps in the formation of soil. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Passing into cracks of rock, expanding on cooling causing more cracks and widening the previous ones ultimately crushing the rock to form soil particles.

Question 11.
State the role of symbiotic bacteria in nitrogen cycle in nature. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Symbiotic bacteria live in the root nodules of legumes where they pick up molecular nitrogen from the soil air and convert the same into salts of nitrogen (e.g., ammonium) for use by the host in building amino acids and proteins.

Question 12.
Name two nitrogen compounds obtained by industrial fixation. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Ammonia, Urea.

Question 13.
Define biogeochemical cycle. Give examples also.
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
The repeated circulation of biogenetic nutrients or biogeochemicals between the abiotic and biotic components of biosphere is called biogeochemical cycle, e.g, Carbon cycle, Nitrogen cycle, Water cycle, Phosphorus cycle.

Question 14.
Name two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and nitrogen. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Proteins, nucleic acids (DNA, RNA).

Question 15.
Write two methods adopted to control pollution.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:

Use of CNG instead of gasoline (petrol, diesel) in automobiles,
Non-discharge of effluents and other pollutants into water bodies and atmosphere by the industries.

Question 16.
Name the disease that can be caused by UV radiations.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
Skin cancer, eye cataracts.

Question 17.
Name any two water pollutants. (CCE 2011)
Answer:

Industrial effluents
Untreated sewage
Fertilizers, pesticides.

Question 18.
Give two causes of soil erosion. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Deforestation, overgrazing followed by action of wind or water.

Question 19.
State one cause of depletion of ozone layer. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Presence of chlorofluorocarbons/halons/nitrogen oxides/ chlorine.

Question 20.
What is soil erosion ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Removal of unprotected top soil as through the agency of wind or water is called soil erosion.

Question 21.
Name two factors that make soil/weathering of rocks.
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Sun and water.

Question 22.
Mention causes of global warming. (CCE 2011)
Answer:

Increased concentration of green house gases (e.g, CO₂)
Deforestation.

Question 23.
What is the importance of green house gases present in the atmosphere ? (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Green house gases do not allow the infra-red rays coming out of earth to escape but to reflect the same to earth making it warm (average temperature 15°C) and suitable for living beings to live comfortably on earth.

Question 24.
Write two biotic components of biosphere ?
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Plants, animals, decomposers.

Question 25.
How is oxygen replenished in nature ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
By photosynthesis.
6CO₂ + 6H₂O ———-> C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂.

Question 26.
How is average temperature of earth made steady ?
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
Air/atmosphere/green house gases do not allow increase in day temperature and slow down escape of heat during the night.

Question 27.
List any two causes of increase in concentration of CO₂ in the atmosphere. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:

Increasing use of fossil fuels,
Reduction in vegetation cover.

Question 28.
‘Pesticides reduce soil fertility.’ Give two reasons for your answer. (CCE 2011)
Answer:

Pesticides kill soil organisms and, therefore, reduce the decomposition of organic matter so that there is lesser release of minerals from the same,
Decrease in soil organisms like earthworms decreases soil aeration.

Question 29.
What are resources available on earth for life to exist ?
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
Air, water, solar energy, minerals, soil.

Question 30.
Give the name of two air pollutants. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(i) Suspended particulate matter (SPM).
(ii) Pollutant gases like SO₂, nitrogen oxides, methane, carbon monoxide, hydrogen sulphide.

Question 31.
Why is air called breath of life ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Air is called breath of life as life cannot exist without air which not only forms a protective transparent envelope or atmosphere around the earth but also provides oxygen (for respiration) and CO₂ (for photosynthesis) with a mechanism for their renewal.

Question 32.
How is CO₂ fixed in the atmosphere ?
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
CO₂ is being withdrawn continuously from atmosphere by photosynthetic activity of autotrophs. It is returned in nearly equal amount through respiration and combustion.

Question 33.
Which part of solar radiation is absorbed by ozone layer ?
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
Very high energy ultraviolet rays (100 – 320 nm) are absorbed by ozone layer.

Question 34.
What are the constituents of soil ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Rock or soil particles (45%), organic matter (humus, 5%), air (25%), water (25%) and different types of microbes (variable).

Question 35.
What is smog ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Smog is dark brown or greyish smoky mist that is formed in cold weather due to presence of suspended particles of unburnt carbon, oxides of nitrogen or sulphur in the air. It is suffocating and harmful causing irritation to eyes, nose and lungs besides injuring several internal organs.

Question 36.
Name the group of plants which contain nitrogen fixing bacteria in their root nodules. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Legumes.

Question 37.
Name the winds which bring rain in India. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
South-west monsoon and north-east monsoon.

Question 38.
List any two factors that determine the soil type.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:

Size of soil particles
Amount of humus/air/water.

Question 39.
Why do lichens not occur in Mumbai whereas they occur in Manali and Ooty ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Lichens are very sensitive to air pollution which is quite heavy in Mumbai while air pollution is nearly absent in Manali and Ooty.

Question 40.
What are biodegradable pollutants ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Pollutants which can be broken down through the agency of micro-organisms are called biodegradable pollutants, e.g., garbage, sewage.

Question 41.
Give the major source of minerals present in the soil.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
Rocky matter.

Question 42.
Name two industrial air pollutants. (CCE 2011)
Answer:

Suspended particulate matter (SPM).
Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur.

Question 43.
How are winds formed ? (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:

Uneven heating of earth’s surface,
Differences in heating and cooling of land and water bodies.

Question 44.
Write two methods adopted to control air pollution.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:

Electronic precipitators,
Scrubbers.

Question 45.
Name any two green house gases. (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, Methane.

Question 46.
Define the term ‘global warming’ in context to increase in carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Global warming is the rise in temperature of the surface of earth and its immediate atmosphere due to increase in concentration of green house gases, especially CO₂.

Question 47.
What is ozone hole ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
It is an area of excessive thinning out of ozone in the stratosphere from where high energy UV rays freely pass over to earth, e.g., over Antarctica in spring.

Question 48.
What are CFCs ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
CFCs are chlorofluorocarbons which have been used extensively in aerosol propellents, refrigerants, formation of foams, spray agents, etc. They are strong ozone depleting substances (ODS).

Question 49.
Name the atmospheric gas that leads to global warming .
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Question 50.
Suggest a way of bringing underground water to the surface of earth. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
By means of tube wells, dug wells, hand pumps.

Question 51.
State the percentage of nitrogen gas in the atmosphere.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
78%.

Question 52.
Mention any one effect of increase in the amount of green house gases in the atmosphere. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Rise in temperature (global warming).

Question 53.
“Water is essential for life”. Justify the statement.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Water is solvent, reaction medium and transport medium of biomolecules constituting living matter.

Question 54.
The large scale deforestation should be stopped. List two reasons to justify. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Large scale deforestation should be stopped immediately as it is

Raising CO₂ concentration in the atmosphere resulting in global warming.
Causing floods and soil erosion.

Question 55.
Name the compounds responsible for hole in ozone layer of atmosphere. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Chlorofluorocarbons, halons, carbon tetrachloride, methyl bromide, methyl chloroform, nitrogen oxides, chlorine.

Question 56.
Name any two pollutants produced by burning of coal and petroleum. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Suspended particulate matter (SPM), pollutant gases (e.g., sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxides), hydrocarbons.

Question 57.
Mention two factors that influence the pattern of winds.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:

Difference in heating and cooling of land and water bodies.
Rotation of earth.
Inclination to sun.

Question 58.
List two human activities that would lead to air pollution.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:

Burning of fossil fuels.
Gaseous emissions from industries.

Question 59.
Name two free living nitrogen fixing bacteria.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Azotobacter, Beijerinkia.

Question 60.
Name the process by which carbon is incorporated into life forms like plants. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Photosynthesis.

Question 61.
Name the organism sensitive to SO₂ in air. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Lichens

Question 62.
Why do plants need nitrogen ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
For building up amino acids, proteins, nucleotides, nucleic acids, enzymes, alkaloids and some vitamins.

Question 63.
Name any two physical agents that cause weathering of rocks. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Atmospheric changes (heating-cooling, wetting-drying, frostraction),- mechanical forces (abrasion by sand, rain, hail,
rolling stones, wave action).

Question 64.
What is the conversion of ammonia to nitrates called ?
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Nitrification.

Question 65.
List two activities of man which lead to environmental pollution. (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Burning of fossil fuel
Passage of sewage or municipal water into water bodies.

Question 66.
Name two chemicals present in living organisms having carbon, hydrogen and oxygen as main constituents.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Carbohydrates, fats. They are food articles which function as storage and source of energy.

Question 67.
Frozen water between cracked rocks causes the cracks to widen. How? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Frozen water occupies more volume than liquid water. It exerts a large mechanical force on sides of rock cracks which, therefore, widen.

Question 68.
What does hydrosphere consist of ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Hydrosphere or water component of earth includes all the water present in, on and around the earth.

Question 69.
State any one difference between oxygen and ozone.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
Oxygen is diatomic (O₂) while ozone is triatomic (O₃)

Question 70.
Name two elemental forms of carbon found on the earth ?
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
Graphite, Diamond.

Question 71.
State the percentage of nitrogen gas in the atmoshpere.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
78%

Question 72.
Name the poisonous gas formed from oxygen gas in the atmosphere ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Ozone.

Question 73.
What is meant by the term biosphere ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Part of earth which supports life is called biosphere.

Question 74.
Name the factor responsible for rainfall patterns in India.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
South-west monsoon and to a smaller extent north-east monsoon.

Question 75.
Name the stages of the life cycle of aquatic animals which are affected by change in temperature. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Egg (hatching), larvae and young animals.

Question 76.
Write the name of triatomic molecule of oxygen.
(CCE 2014)
Answer:
Ozone (O₃).

Question 77.
State the temperature range on the surface of moon.
(CCE 2014)
Answer:
-190°C (dark period) to 110°C (light period).

Question 78.
Mention the direction in which air flows at night in coastal areas. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
From land to sea.

Question 79.
Alongwith the natural resources available on the earth, what else is required to meet the basic requirement of all life forms on the earth ? (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Solar energy.

Question 80.
Name the gas produced when glucose molecules breakdown using oxygen. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Carbon dioxide (CO₂).

Question 81.
Name two natural resources available on earth.
(CCE 2014)
Answer:

Renewable, exhaustible, e.g., forests,
Non-renewable exhaustible, e.g., fossil fuels.

Short Answer Questions (2 Marks)

Question 1.
Mention two ways of fixing carbon dioxide.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:

Photosynthesis, also called carbon assimilation, by autotrophic plants,
Formation of shells and components of skeleton in marine animals.

Question 2.
How temperature/sun and water help in soil formation ?
(CCE 2011, 2013)
Answer:

Temperature: Rocks expand on being heated up in the sun and contract on cooling during night. This alternate heating and cooling produces cracks that ultimately break up rocks into smaller pieces and particles.
Water: Water entering cracks causes the cracks to widen on being frozen resulting in more cracks and breaking of rocks. Water carrying suspended particles flowing over the rocks corrodes the surface of the latter removing more particles that collect to form soil.

Question 3.
Give reason for the following :
(i) We are lucky that ozone is not stable near the earth’s surface,
(ii) The combustion of fossil fuels increases the amount of suspended particles in air. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(i) Ozone occurring near the surface of the earth is a strong oxidant causing corrosion of articles, hardening of rubber, respiratory distress and internal haemorrhages. Fortunately, it is not stable forming oxygen and oxides.
(ii) Combustion of fossil fuels is never one hundred percent complete. A lot of unburnt carbon particles or hydrocarbons come out in fumes or exhausts and form suspended particles in the air.

Question 4.
(i) Why is water necessary for all living organisms ? Mention any two points in support of your answer.
(ii) Water is known as “wonder liquid”. Justify this statement by giving any two reasons.
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(i) Necessity of Water:

Component: Water is a major component (60-90%) of living matter and is a general solvent for various biochemicals which also react in the medium of water.
Transport: Water is a medium of transport in the body of living organisms.
Buffer: It also functions as a temperature buffer.

(ii) A Wonder Liquid: Water is liquid between 0° and 100°C. It forms solid ice below 0°C and vapours above 100°C. It becomes available at far off places as rain, rivers and springs. Underground water is source of fresh water at many places.

Question 5.
(i) Define the term smog,
(ii) Name two types of diseases caused by regularly breathing the polluted air.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(i) Smog is dark brown or greyish smoky mist that is formed in cold weather due to presence of suspended particles of unburnt carbon, oxides of nitrogen or sulphur in the air. It is suffocating and harmful causing irritation to eyes, nose and lungs besides injuring several internal organs.
(ii) Diseases. Pneumoconiasis, Asthma, Bronchitis, damage to liver, kidneys and cancer.

Question 6.
What is green house effect ? How is it caused ?
(CCE 2011, 2012, 2014)
Answer:
Green house effect is keeping an area warm by allowing the solar radiations to pass in but preventing long waves to escape due to presence of radiatively active gases and glass panes.
Certain gases present in the atmosphere of the earth provide a green house effect over earth, keeping it warm with an average temperature of 15°C, e.g., C02, methane, chlorofluoro-carbons, nitrous oxide.

Question 7.
Give the chemical formula of Ozone ? What is its role in atmosphere ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
O₃. Ozone is good ozone in stratosphere where it filters out very harmful ultraviolet radiations (100-320 nm) coming from sun. It is bad ozone near the surface of earth because of its highly oxidising nature.

Question 8.
(a) Why do terrestrial forms require fresh water ?
(b) Give two examples where fresh water can be found in the frozen form on earth. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) The osmotic concentration of terrestrial forms is low. They can neither store nor eliminate high amounts of dissolved salt present in sea water. Therefore, they require fresh water.
(b) Ice caps over poles, Glaciers.

Question 9.
(a) What is soil erosion ? State any one way by which it can be prevented.
(b) What is humus ? What is the role of earthworms in increasing the quantity of humus. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Soil Erosion: Removal of unprotected top soil as through the agency of wind or water is called soil erosion.
Soil erosion can be prevented by covering the soil with vegetation.
(b) Semidecayed organic matter present in the soil is called humus. Earthworms bring about fragmentation of organic remains and add humus and mineral rich worm castings in the soil.

Question 10.
What is atmospheric fixation of nitrogen ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
It is the formation of oxides of nitrogen from atmospheric dinitrogen (N2) in the presence of energy from electric storms, lightning and high energy ultraviolet rays. Nitrogen oxides dissolve in rain water as nitrous and nitric acids. They pass down to soil and water bodies forming nitrites and nitrates.

Question 11.
The heaps of solid waste are a menace. Give two reasons.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
Solid waste is discarded solid material dumped over soil, e.g., municipal waste, industrial waste, mining waste.

Municipal and industrial waste often gives a strinking bad smell.
Toxic chemicals present in the solid waste often seep into ground water making the same unfit for human consumption.
It makes the area of earth useless and infertile.

Question 12.
How is addition of undesirable substances and change in temperature affect the water life ? (CCE 2011, 2013)
Answer:

Undesirable Substances: Fertilizers, pesticides, industrial effluents, municipal waste water when passed into water bodies cause eutrophication that later on kills most of the aquatic life due to depletion of oxygen and presence of toxic chemicals.
Temperature: A change in temperature affects oxygen concentration. A high temperature reduces O₂ content which reduces the rate of decomposition of organic matter, causes asphyxiation of aquatic animals, non-hatching of eggs and killing of larvae.

Question 13.
Name two measures that can be taken to reduce water pollution. (CCE 2011)
Answer:

Treatment of municipal waste water before discharging it into water body.
Treatment of industrial effluents before passing it into municipal sewers or water body.

Question 14.
(i) What is the role of atmosphere in climate control ?
(ii) What is the percentage of nitrogen and oxygen in the air ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(i) Atmosphere helps to maintain the climate of a place (which depends upon inclination and air currents) by acting as temperature buffer, preventing rise of temperature during the day and excessive cooling during the night. For this, the atmosphere is a bad conductor of heat.
(ii) Nitrogen – 78%, Oxygen – 21%.

Question 15.
Mention any two human activities which are responsible for water pollution. (CCE 2011)
Answer:

Runoff of fertilizers and pesticides applied to crop fields.
Passage of municipal waste water and industrial effluents into water bodies.

Question 16.
Differentiate between biodegradable and non- biodegradable pollutants. (CCE 2011)

Biodegradable Pollutants	Non-biodegradable Pollutants
1. Nature. They are biological in origin which can be degraded by decomposer microo-rganisms.	1. They are non-biological in origin which cannot be degraded by micro-organisms.
2. Accumulation. They do not accumulate	2.They tend to accumulate and even show biomagnification.
Ex. Cowdung, Garbage,Sewage.	Ex. Plastic, Mercury,DDT.

Answer:
Biodegradable Pollutants Non-biodegradable

Question 17.
(a) Name the process that returns oxygen to the atmosphere.

(b) Write the condition responsible for poor visibility in cold weather. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Photosynthesis is the metabolic process that brings about carbon assimilation and releases oxygen, energy
(b) In cold weather, water vapours condense over suspended particulate matter (dust, unburnt carbon) present in the air resulting in foggy conditions and poor visibility.

Question 18.
List two measures of conserving soil fertility.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
Conservation of soil fertility is the maintenance of ability of the soil to support crops and vegetation. It is carried out by

Crop rotation
Green manuring
Regular addition of farmyard manure.

Question 19.
What causes acid rain ? Mention any damage caused by it on living organisms. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Acid rain is rainfall with a pH of less than 5. It is caused by the excess emission of SO₂ and nitrogen oxides. The gases dissolve in water forming nitric acid and sulphuric acid. Acid rain causes chlorosis, defoliation, stunting and dieback of plants. It causes skin and lung irritation. Marble structures, metallic articles, jewellary, textiles and paintings are also spoiled by acid rain.

Question 20.
Which symbiotic life forms can grow on stones and help in formation of soil ? Write the mode of their action for making soil from rocks. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Lichens are dual or composite forms which can grow on bare rocks and bring about biological weathering. The lichens secrete organic acids over the rock surface corroding the same and producing small crevices. Later on, the crevices grow into cracks producing soil.

Question 21.
Explain the role of atmosphere as a blanket. List the factors deciding the rainfall pattern. (CCE 2011)
Answer:

Atmosphere as Blanket: Atmosphere is a bad conductor of heat. It does not allow over heating during daytime or excessive cooling during night. Instead, it helps to maintain the average temperature of the earth.
Factors Deciding Rainfall Patterns :
1. Availability of water vapours,
2. Areas of low pressure or depression
3. Prevailing wind
4. Condensation of water vapours.
5. Direction of mountains.

Question 22.
How do forests play an important role in maintaining water cycle ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Forests, being large areas of vegetation, transpire a large amount of water in the vapour form. The water vapours being lighter, rise in the air, cool down and form tiny water droplets around air borne particles producing clouds. In contact with cold air, clouds produce rain. Rain falling over a forest area mosdy percolates into the soil from where the same is absorbed by the forest plants.

Question 23.
What are green houses ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Green houses are enclosures with glass panes which allow the solar radiations to pass inwards but prevent the escape of infra-red heat waves. As a result, green houses remain warm. They are useful in growing tropical plants in colder areas.

Question 24.
List any four activities you think would lead to air pollution. (CCE 2011)
Answer:

Excessive use of fossil fuels like coal and petroleum.
Deforestation,
Smoke from industries,
Smoke from automobiles,
Mining activities.

Question 25.
What is top soil ? Mention any two factors that decide which plants will thrive on that soil. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Top soil is the upper mineral and humus rich layer of soil that supports vegetation.
Factors:

Depth of top soil,
Nutrient and humus content of soil,
Soil particles,
Soil pH.

Short Answer Questions (3 Marks)

Question 1.
(a) “The flow of energy is unidirectional whereas the biogeochemical transfer is cyclic.” Explain why.
(b) Justify the statement, “The nitrogen cycle is supposed to be an ideal cycle in the biosphere.” (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Energy is regularly entering the biosphere from the sun. It is trapped by the producers from where it passes to herbivores and then to carnivores. The energy present in organic remains passes into decomposers. At every step of this transfer there is a lot of dissipation of energy which ultimately leaves the biosphere.
Biogeochemicals are components of biosphere which neither came from outside nor are lost. They are picked / up by producers, passed to consumers and returned to producers by the activity of decomposers. Therefore, flow
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 2
(b) Amount of nitrogen remains almost constant in the atmosphere as well as soil. No nitrogen is lost. It is because a part of nitrogen is being fixed regularly in the atmosphere while an equal part of nitrogen is being added to atmosphere through denitrification. Nitrogen salts are also undergoing biogeochemical cycling.

Question 2.
List any three ways to control soil pollution. (CCE 2011)
Answer:

Minimum or no use of chemical fertilizers, insecticides and pesticides.
Dumping of solid wastes only in sanitary fill.
Proper disposal of garbage in composting, biogas plants and incineration.

Question 3.
“It is necessary to conserve natural resources.” Explain.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Natural resources (e.g., air, water, soil, forests, minerals, fossil fuels) are earth resources which are being used by human beings for meeting their requirements. However, due to their indiscriminate and excessive use, there is already shortage of these resources and causing harm to our welfare. Therefore, there is an urgent requirement of their conservation by controlling their use and measures to increase their availability through

Rain water harvesting.
Afforestation and reforestation along with controlled grazing and cutting.
Restoration of soil fertility and prevention of soil erosion.
Reuse, recycling and substitution of minerals.
Judicious use of fossil fuels and finding of alternate sources of energy.

Question 4.
(a) What are different ways in which water gets polluted ?
(b) How does it affect life forms ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Water pollution is caused by passage of

Untreated or partially treated sewage.
Runoff from argicultural fields treated with fertilizers and pesticides.
Passage of untreated industrial effluents and hot water.
Oil spills.

(b) Water pollution causes :

Spread of water borne diseases (e.g., typhoid, cholera, jaundice)
Eutrophication or nutrient enrichment followed by algal blooms, death of aquatic animals and organic loading leading to foul smell and taste.
Industrial effluents having toxic chemicals causing diseases as minamata disease, itai itai disease, plumbism, methaemoglobinemia, fluorosis, black foot disease, cancer.

Question 5.
(a) How is soil formed ?
(b) What is soil erosion ?
(c) Write two steps to control soil erosion. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Soil Formation. Soil is formed by weathering (pulverisation) of rocks through physical (sun, water, air), chemical (hydration, oxidation, reduction) and biological (lichens, mosses, herbs) factors followed by humification.
(b) Soil Erosion: Removal of unprotected top soil as through the agency of wind or water is called soil erosion.
(c) Control of Soil Erosion,

Afforestation.
Wind breaks.
Step cultivation on hills.

Question 6.
(a) List the causes that affect life forms found in water bodies in various ways.
(b) Name the element present in coal other than carbon that releases harmful gases during combustion of coal.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Water pollutants like untreated sewage, industrial effluents, fertilizer and pesticide rich run off from agricultural fields. .
(b) Sulphur, producing sulphur oxides (e.g., S02) during combustion of coal.

Question 7.
(a) What are the two different states in which water is formed during the water cycle ?
(b) What is the major source of fresh water in the city/town/village where you live ?
(c) Do you know of any activity which may be polluting this water source ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Water vapours, liquid water.
(b) The major source of fresh water is ground water in my locality. It is pumped out by tube wells.
(c) It is being polluted by leaching of heavy metals e.g., Nickel from industrial effluents.

Question 8.
How is ‘soil formation different from ‘soil erosion ? Write two factors responsible for each one of them. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Soil formation (Paedogenesis) is formation of soil from rocky crust of earth while soil erosion is removal of top soil. Factors for Soil Formation: Sun (heating and cooling), water (wetting and drying, freezing, abrasion).
Factors for Soil Erosion. Absence of vegetation cover, heavy rain or strong wind.

Question 9.
(a) “An increase in temperature of water bodies would lead to water pollution”. Explain.
(b) Suggest any two methods to prevent water pollution.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Increase in Temperature: A change in temperature affects oxygen concentration. A high temperature reduces O₂ content which reduces the rate of decomposition of organic matter, causes asphyxiation of aquatic animals, non-hatching of eggs and killing of larvae.
(b) Prevention of Water Pollution:

Sewage: Only fully treated sewage water should be allowed to pass into water body.
Industrial Effluents: They should not be allowed to flow into water body without treatment.

Question 10.
(a) Ozone is poisonous and is found in the upper atmosphere of earth. Yet the world is worried about its depletion. Explain why ?
(b) Write any two methods to control ozone layer depletion.
Answer:
(a) Ozone present in the upper layer of atmosphere or stratosphere filters out harmful high energy ultraviolet radiations (100-320 nm) liberating heat in the process that warms up the stratosphere.
(b)

Replacing chlorofluorocarbons and halons with ozone friendly chemicals.
Use of jet fuel with little nitrogen.

Question 11.
(a) What are various components of soil.
(b) “Fertilizers and pesticides lead to soil pollution.” List two reasons to justify the statement. (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Soil consists of mineral matter (45%), organic matter (5%), air (25%), water (25%) and variable number of soil organism. Mineral matter consists of gravel (size 2-10 mm), sand (0.02-2.0 mm), silt (0.002-0.02 mm) and clay (below 0.002 mm) Organic matter is in semidecayed form and is called humus.
(b) Both fertilizers and pesticides cause soil pollution by

Killing or inhibiting the growth of soil micro- organisms.
Destruction of soil crumbs.
Their passage into crops and ground water causing toxic effects over humans and animals (e.g., producing methaemoglobin).

Question 12.
Name four main processes that are part of water cycle in nature. (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Vaporisation
Cloud formation
Rain
Infiltration and run-off.

Question 13.
What is smog ? List any two harmful effects of smog.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Smog is dark brown or greyish smoky mist that is formed in cold weather due to presence of suspended particles of unburnt carbon, oxides of nitrogen or sulphur in the air. It is suffocating and harmful causing irritation to eyes, nose and lungs besides injuring several internal organs.
(b) Harmful Effects,

Allergy, asthma, bronchitis and suffocaton in human beings and animals.
Silvering, glazing and necrosis in plants.

Question 14.
Explain the formation of sea breeze and land breeze in coastal areas. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Sea Breeze. It is flow of cooler breeze from sea towards the land during the day time. During day time, land gets heated faster. Air above land heats up, rises and creates an area of low pressure. Air above sea is cooler and has higher pressure. It moves towards land.
Land Breeze. During night, land cools rapidly while sea water remains warmer. Air above sea is warmer, rises and develops low pressure. Air above land is cooler and has higher pressure. It flows towards sea.

Question 15.
State any two sources of water pollution. Which type of pollution affects the breeding of aquatic animals.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Sources of Water Pollution,

Sewage
Fertilizers and pesticides
Industrial effluents.

Temperature: Increase or decrease of temperature of water body affects breeding of most aquatic animals. A high temperature reduces the amount of oxygen dissolved in water.

Question 16.
(a) How does the atmosphere act as a blanket.
(b) The moon which is about the same distance from the sun as that of earth but still there is no atmosphere on moon. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Atmosphere as Blanket: Atmosphere is a bad conductor of heat. It does not allow over heating during daytime or excessive cooling during night. Instead, it helps to maintain the average temperature of the earth.
(b) Moon Has No Atmosphere: Atmosphere is maintained by gravity and circulation of its components. Moon has only 1/6 gravity as compared to earth. It does not hold any atmosphere. There is no living organisms which can produce and utilise camponents of atmosphere.

Question 17.
Name the constituents of abiotic component of the biosphere. Explain their major role in biosphere. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Air, water and soil.

Air/Atmosphere: It functions as a blanket, source of O₂ and CO₂, medium of dispersal, formation movement and precipitation of water vapours.
Water: Water is a component of living beings (60-90%), solvent, transport medium, reaction medium for biomolecules, temperature buffer and bringing turgidity to living cells.
Soil: It provides anchorage, water and minerals to plants, a place for microorganisms to dispose off organic remains and release of minerals.

Question 18.
(a) What is soil pollution ? What factors are responsible for it ?
(b) Suggest two methods of preventing or reducing soil pollution. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Soil Pollution. It is adverse alteradon in the soil caused by removal or addition of substances which reduce its fertility and quality.
(b) Factors. Addition of raw manure, excess fertilizers, pesticides, faulty irrigation and dumping of wastes as well as industrial effluents.
(c) Control of Soil Pollution.

Minimum or no use of chemical fertilizers, insecticides and pesticides.
Dumping of solid wastes only in sanitary fill.
Proper disposal of garbage in composting, biogas plants and incineration.

Question 19.
Write one appropriate word for statements (1—3) given below and briefly explain them.

The process by which carbon is incorporated into life forms.
The process by which nitrates are converted into free nitrogen.
The cyclic flow of nutrients like nitrogen and oxygen between nonliving environment and living organisms.
(CCE 2012)

Answer:

Photosynthesis: CO₂ is taken up by plants from their environment and changed into organic form. Energy is taken from sun. Hydrogen is taken from water.
Denitrification: Some bacteria present in water-logged soils take oxygen from nitrates for their activity. This changes nitrates into gaseous nitrogen.
Biogeochemical Cycling: Biogeochemicals or nutrients are taken up by organisms for their structure and functioning. They are released later on when organic remains are decomposed. The same are picked up again by the organisms.

Question 20.
(a) Name two elemental forms in which carbon occurs.
(b) Name any two forms in which carbon is found in combined state with other elements in nature.
(c) Briefly explain how it can be said that all life forms are based on carbon containing molecules. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Elemental Forms. Diamond, Graphite.
(b) Combined State. Carbon dioxide, Carbohydrate.
(c) Life Forms. All life forms contain protoplasm, energy storing and energy liberating organic substances and enzymes for catalysing various metabolic reactions. All these are organic substances made of carbon, e.g, proteins, enzymes, carbohydrates.

Question 21.
(a) What is the role of bacteria in nitrogen cycle ?
(b) What happens to nitrate once it enters the plant ?
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Role of Bacteria,

Biological nitrogen fixation, e.g., Azotobacter, Rhizobium.
Decomposition, ammonification and nitrification, e.g., Bacillus ramosus, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter.
Denitrification, e.g., Pseudomonas.

(b) Nitrogen Assimilation. Nitrate absorbed by plants is first reduced to ammonia level. Ammonia combines with organic acids to produce amino acids from which proteins and nucleotides are formed.

Question 22.
Give reason :
(a) Presence of high levels of suspended particles in the air is harmful.
(b) A sudden change in the temperature of water body is dangerous for aquatic life.
(c) The process of nitrogen fixation does not take place in the presence of oxygen. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Some of the suspended particles present in the air enter our lungs, reach alveoli and cause pulmonary ailments like asthma, bronchitis, emphysema, lung fibrosis, pneumoconiosis.
(b) Change in temperature changes the amount of oxygen dissolved in water and disturbs the breeding of aquatic animals.
(c) The enzyme for nitrogen fixation called nitrogenase is sensitive to oxygen as it is specialized to combine hydrogen with nitrogen.

Question 23.
What makes the biosphere dynamic but stable ?
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
The composition of atmosphere, the extent of hydrosphere and lithosphere remain stable in the biosphere. It is because of regular circulation of their constituents among different components and between biotic and abiotic parts of the biosphere. The phenomenon is called biogeochemical cyclling.

Question 24.
Design an activity to show how convective currents are set up in the air and what is the nature of these currents ?
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Demonstration of Convectic Currents
Apparatus: A beaker or wide mouthed bottle, a candle, box of matches, incense stick (agarbatti).
Working: Fix a burning candle in a beaker or wide mouthed bottle. Light an incense stick. Take it first to edge of the beaker, then half way towards middle and finally above the candle flame.
Results: When kept near the edge, smoke from incense stick will move towards the flame. This will also occur when it is halfway towards the flame. However, when the incense stick is kept above the flame, the smoke will rise up. In all cases smoke flows towards the area of low air pressure.
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 3
During night, reverse flow of air occurs. Land cools down rapidly. Air over it becomes cooler. Sea water cools slowly. Air above it is hotter with lower air pressure as compared to air pressure over land. Therefore, cooler air present over land moves towards sea.
Factors Influencing Movements of Air. Depending upon the difference in energy levels and air pressure, there occurs diverse type of atmospheric phenomena like breeze, wind, storm, thunderstorm, monsoon rains, cyclones, etc. The factors controlling these phenomena are

Uneven heating of land in different parts of earth
Differences in heating and cooling of land and water.
Barrier of mountains
Rotation of earth.

Question 25.
State two consequences of global warming. (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Melting of polar ice and glaciers will raise the water level of sea submerging many low level coastal areas.
Atmosphere will shrink due to cooling caused by reduced passage of long wave radiations.
Tropics will be converted into arid areas while floods will occur in higher latitudes.

Question 26.
Explain the role of atmosphere in keeping climate control.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Atmosphere helps in maintaining the climate of an area by retaining the heat over the area as it is a temperature buffer. There is neither excessive heating during day nor excessive cooling during night. The average temperature of a place remains steady as per inclination of the area towards sun.

Question 27.
Mention the importance of soil. How is it depleted? Write two ways to replenish soil. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Soil provides anchorage, minerals and water to terrestrial plants. It is also residence of microorganisms involved in decomposition of organic remains and release of minerals.
(b) Soil Depletion. It occurs through soil erosion, water logging and salination.
(c) Replenishment of Soil. Providing a vegetation cover, correction of water logging and salination, crop rotation and contour bunding.

Question 28.
Explain the following terms :

Ammonification
Nitrification
Biosphere.
(CCE 2012)

Answer:

Ammonification: It is breakdown of proteins and deamination of amino acids to release ammonia.
Nitrification: It is oxidation of ammonia released through ammonification to form nitrites and nitrates.
Biosphere: It is living mande of earth comprising lower atmosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere where living beings are present.

Question 29.
How has industrialisation led to air pollution ? Explain in three points. (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Processing industries release a lot of air pollutants (e.g., cotton dust, iron mill dust, flour mill dust, cement industries, asbestos industry) that cause pneumoconiosis and other pulmonary problems.
Fuel. Industries consume coal and other fossil fuels which send out smoke, pulluting gases and hydrocarbons,
Chemical industries send out toxic chemicals into air that have a harmful effect on plants, animals and humans,

Question 30.
How is smog formed ? What does it indicate ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Smog is opaque fog which is formed due to noncirculation of air that results in accumulation of suspended particulate matter, pollutant gases, hydrocarbons and water vapours.
It indicates high level of pollution in the area due to industries and vehicular traffic.

Question 31.
Two similar plastic trays filled with soil and manure are taken. In tray A mustard seeds are sown and watered for 4-5 days until they germinate into seedlings and the seedlings grow into small plants. Watering of the tray A is stopped for the next 2-3 days and the small plants are allowed to grow. Trays A and B are placed over a brick in a tilted position. Now both the trays are watered with equal amount of water using a water can.
(a) Name the natural phenomenon indicated by tray B.
(b) Less of water flowing out is indicated by tray A. Give reason.
(c) Why is the top layer of soil considered the most important layer ? (CCE 2012)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 4
Answer:
(a) Run off, which is high in soil not covered by vegetation.
(b) Most of the water is absorbed by soil as the latter is porous due to presence of plants. Run off is little.
(c) Top soil is important because it contains humus, air and decomposer microorganisms. Roots of most plants are restricted to it.

Question 32.
Explain the role played by lichens, moss and trees in the soil formation. (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Soil is formed through two processes of weathering and humification.
It is pulverisation of rocks or breaking of rocks into fine particles. There are three types of weathering — physical (atmospheric changes and mechanical forces), chemical and biological. Sun, water, wind and living organisms perform them.

Sun: It causes expansion of rocks by heating. Cooling causes their contraction. Different parts of rocks expand and contract at different rates. Uneven expansion and contraction produces cracks leading to fragmentation of rocks.
Water:
1. Wetting and Drying: Certain rock components can pick up and lose moisture. They undergo swelling and contraction resulting in fragmentation of rocks.
2. Frost Action: Water seeping in cracks would swell up and exert a great pressure if it freezes due to low temperature. The rock would undergo fragmentation.
3. Abrasion: Running water carrying rock fragments would break and grind rocks occurring in the pathway. Rain and hail also cause rock breaking.
Wind: Dust and fine sand carried by wind cause abrasion of the rock surface when wind strikes the same.
Living Organisms: Lichens secrete chemicals to dissolve minerals from the rock surface. This produces crevices where dust collects. Mosses grow there. They cause deepening of crevices and development of small cracks. Roots of short lived plants widen these cracks. Roots of larger plants cause fragmentation of rocks by entering the cracks and growing in size.

Question 33.
How are clouds formed and bring us rain ? Explain briefly. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Clouds are wet air masses that float in the direction of prevailing wind. They develop when water vapours are formed in large number. There is evaporation from the surface of water bodies and wet areas due to their heating during the daytime. Plants also give out water vapours in transpiration while animals do so in exhaled air and perspiration. Air also heats up during daytime. The hot air along with water vapour rises up. At a height, air expands and becomes cool. Cooling causes the water vapours to condense. Suspended particles of dust and other materials function as nuclei around which water vapours condense. When a large wet air mass collects, cloud is formed.
Clouds move along the prevailing direction of wind. Wherever they meet cool air or high mountains, further condensation of water droplets change the same into rain.

Question 34.
How do modern farming practices bring about conversion of fertile soil to barren soil ? Explain briefly (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Clean Tilling: The exposed top soil layer gets dried and it is blown away by wind.
Fertilizers: They are chemical formulations which are added to soil in order to provide specific nutrients to crop plants.
Pesticides: They are broad spectrum formulations which are. used to kill pests and weeds. Some of these pesticides are slow to degrade. They undergo biomagnification and prove harmful to higher forms of life, e.g., chlorinated hydrocarbons.
Excessive Irrigation: Faulty irrigation causes water logging and soil salination. Both of them reduce crop yield drastically.
Therefore, indiscriminate use of fertilizers, pesticides and faulty irrigation can turn fertile crop fields into barren areas. It is important to adopt sustainable practices like organic farming and sprinkler irrigation.

Question 35.
What is soil ? How is it formed ? State the major factor that decides the structure of soil. What role does it play ?
(CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Soil: It is upper weathered and mineral containing part of earth’s crust which supports plant life and contains numerous organisms and organic remains.
Soil Formation: Soil is formed by weathering (pulverisation) of rocks through physical (sun, water, air), chemical (hydration, oxidation, reduction) and biological (lichens, mosses, herbs) factors followed by humification.
Major Factor: Average particle size determines the structure of soil, e.g., clayey, loam, sandy. Soil particles determine j mineral availability, soil hydration and soil aeration.

Question 36.
Geeta visited her relatives living in a village. She found that many villagers were suffering from water borne disease like cholera and jaundice. She also noticed that the pond in the village used as a water source did not have any aquatic plants and animals.

What could be the reason for mass illness ?
Write two reasons for the pond to have been devoid of life. (CCE 2013)

Answer:

Reason for Mass Illness. Contamination of pond water with sewage,
Reasons for Absence of Aquatic Plants and Animals,
1. Loading of water with sewage could cause increased activity of decomposers which deplete the pond of its dissolved oxygen.
2. Absence of oxygen kills all the aquatic animals and plants.

Question 37.
Rajesh lived in a village which was pollution free. He visited j an industrial city during winter and found the visibility very poor. Many children were showing signs of allergy. What could have been the reason. Suggest any two ways which could have helped to improve the situation.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
The industrial city was engulfed in smog. Smog contains components (e.g., smoke particles, S02, H2S, hydrocarbons, etc) which are injurious to human beings, causing allergy, suffocation and irritation.

Switch over from coal-fired engines to gasoline and electric engines in industries,
Tall chimneys and passing the smoke through precipitators and scrubbers,
Strict enforcement of pollution control norms over vehicles.

Question 38.
(a) Where is the ozone layer found ?
(b) What is ozone hole and how is it caused ?
(c) State its harmful effects.
(CCE 2013, 2014)
Answer:
(a) Ozone layer is ozone (O₃) rich upper part of atmosphere called stratosphere. It lies at a height of 23-25 km above equator and 11-16 km above poles.
(b) Ozone Hole. Ozone hole is area of excessive thinning of ozone in the stratosphere. It is mostly found over Antarctica and to a lesser extent over north pole during their spring times. Cause. Ozone depletion occurs due to certain chemicals called ozone depleting substances (ODS), e.g., chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, nitrogen oxides, chlorine. They react with 03 and change it to oxygen state,
(c) Harmful Effects. Thinning of ozone layer results in passing very high energy ultraviolet rays (100—320 nm) to the earth. They cause skin cancer, harm eye sight, weaken immune system, cause harmful mutations and reduce crop yield.

Question 39.
Describe the structure of a simple glass house mentioning the climatic conditions in which they are used. Name any two green house gases. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Green house is an enclosure having glass panes in the direction where solar radiations fall inside. Green houses are built in cold climates for growing tropical plants even in winters. It is because the interior of glass house remains warm because glass panes (and water vapours, CO₂ in the enclosure) allow solar radiations to enter but prevent passage of heat waves to the outside.
Green House Gases (GHGs). CO₂, methane (CH₄).

Question 40.
What are the two forms of oxygen found in the atmo¬sphere ? Write one importance of each. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Diatomic oxygen (O₂) and triatomic ozone (O₃). Importance,

Oxygen is essential for respiration and combustion,
Ozone present in stratosphere protects earth from harmful short wave ultraviolet radiations (100-320 nm).

Question 41.
Draw carbon cycle in nature. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 5

Question 42.
Your school is less than a kilometre from your house. Your neighbourhood friend who attends the same school, comes to the school by a car every day.
How do you think he can contribute towards reduction of air pollution ? Write any three suggestions. (CCE 2013)
Answer:

My friend can join a car pool for school.
He can go to school in school bus.
Since the distance is small, my friend can go to school by foot or on bicycle.

Question 43.
What are CFCs ? Why are they harmful ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
CFCs are chlorofluorocarbons that have been in use as aerosol propellents, refrigerants, shaving foams, formation of foam sheets and mattresses, spray agents, etc. They pass into stratosphere and release chlorine. Chlorine destroys ozone molecules and convert them into oxygen. As a result ozone present in stratosphere gets depleted resulting in passage of harmful UV radiations on earth.

Question 44.
List any three human activities that you think would lead to increase in carbon dioxide content of atmosphere.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:

Large scale deforestation that reduces assimilation of CO₂ in photosynthesis,
Combustion of fossil fuels in thermal plants, industries, transport etc. is throwing large amounts of CO₂ into the atmosphere.
Biomass or wood burning.

Raj at and five of his friends went for a picnic with a lot of food stuffs and game items to Gorewara lake from where the drinking water supply for the city is done. As they were playing, they saw a fish entangled in the twigs and injured itself. They helped to free it, nurtured it and put it back in water. Before leaving, they put all the left-over food in water.

Question 45.
Answer the following questions.

What would have happened had they not saved the fish ?
What do you think about their act of throwing the food into water ?
Mention one way in which you will help your city authorities to cope with such problem. (CCE 2013)

Answer:

The fish would have died. Saving and nurturing an animal is an act of love for nature.
The act of throwing the left-over food in the lake is bad as it increases the organic loading of lake and can cause its eutrophication.
To install two types of bins on the shore of the lake for placing left-overs by the visitors.

Question 46.
In coastal areas what is the direction of flow of air during the day ? Explain why ? (C. C.E. 2014)
Answer:
Sea Breeze: It is flow of cooler breeze from sea towards the land during the day time. During day time, land gets heated faster. Air above land heats up, rises and creates an area of low pressure. Air above sea is cooler and has higher pressure. It moves towards land.

Question 47.
What is the percentage of oxygen found in the atmosphere ?
Name two compounds of oxygen found in nature. Name any three processes in which oxygen is used up in atmosphere. (C.C.E. 2014)
Answer:
21% (20-94%). Diatomic O₂(oxygen) and triatomic O₃(ozone).
Uses:

Respiration in most organisms,
Combustion of fossil fuels,
Formation of oxides,
e.g., nitrogen oxides during atmospheric fixation of nitrogen,
Decomposition of organic matter.

Question 48.
State three factors influencing wind movements which re-sult in diverse atmospheric phenomena. (C.C.E. 2014)
Answer:
Winds are basically caused by heating of air in certain parts. The hot air rises upwards. This creates an area of low pressure. Cooler air from adjacent higher pressure areas passes into this area. This creates wind. The factors which control movement of winds in different directions in different parts of the earth are

Uneven heating of land in different parts of earth
Differences in heating and cooling of land and water.
Barrier of mountains
Rotation of earth.

Question 49.
Explain the biological processes in nitrogen cycle.
(C.C.E. 2014)
Answer:
Biological processes in nitrogen cycle are :

Biological Nitrogen Fixation: A number of free living and symbiotic bacteria and blue-green algae are capable of picking up of atmospheric nitrogen and converting it into ammonia that combines with organic acids to form amino acids. Rhizobium is the common symbiotic bacterium that occurs in the nodules of legume roots.
Nitrogen Assimilation: It is carried out by plants. Plants pick up nitrates or ammonium ions from their medium. Nitrate or nitrite is first changed into ammonium state. Ammonium ions combine with organic acids to form amino acids. Amino acids give rise to proteins and nucleotides. Nucleotides produce nucleic acids. Enzymes are derived from proteins.
Decomposition: Organic remains undergo decay and decomposition through the agency of decomposers. It releases carbon dioxide.
Denitrification: It is the process of reduction of nitrates into gaseous nitrogen which escape into atmosphere. Denitrification is caused by bacteria present in water logged soils, g., Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Question 50.
How is percentage of carbon dioxide maintained in the atmosphere ? Mention one human activity which adds carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. (C. C.E. 2014)
Answer:
Percentage of carbon dioxide is maintained in the atmosphere by its consumption in photosynthesis (carbon assimilation) being almost equal to its liberation in respiration and combustion.
However, with increasing use of fossil fuels, more carbon dioxide is being added to the tmosphere than its withdrawal.

Question 51.
Draw a labelled diagram of‘oxygen cycle’ occurring in nature. (C.C.E. 2014)
Answer:
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 8

Question 52.
Write the composition of soil. On what basis is the type of soil decided ? (C. C.E. 2014)
Answer:
Soil Composition: Soil consists of mineral matter (45%), organic matter (5%), air (25%), water (25%) and variable number of soil organism. Mineral matter consists of gravel (size 2-10 mm), sand (0.02-2.0 mm), silt (0.002-0.02 mm) and clay (below 0.002 mm) Organic matter is in semidecayed form and is called humus.
Type of Soil: Average particle size determines the structure j of soil, e.g., clayey, loam, sandy. Soil particles determine j mineral availability, soil hydration and soil aeration.

Question 53.
(a) What is the outermost layer of the earth called ?
(b) How is it important to life forms ?
(c) Name the factors that help in the formation of soil from rocks. (C. C.E. 2014)
Answer:
Answer:
(a) Lithosphere.
(b) Upper crust of earth forms soil which provides anchor¬age, water and minerals, to terrestrial plants. Aquatic organ¬isms also depend upon soil for supply of minerals.
(c) Soil is formed through two processes of weathering and humification.
Weathering
It is pulverisation of rocks or breaking of rocks into fine particles. There are three types of weathering — physical (atmospheric changes and mechanical forces), chemical and biological. Sun, water, wind and living organisms perform them.

Sun: It causes expansion of rocks by heating. Cooling causes their contraction. Different parts of rocks expand and contract at different rates. Uneven expansion and contraction produces cracks leading to fragmentation of rocks.
Water:
1. Wetting and Drying: Certain rock components can pick up and lose moisture. They undergo swelling and contraction resulting in fragmentation of rocks.
2. Frost Action: Water seeping in cracks would swell up and exert a great pressure if it freezes due to low temperature. The rock would undergo fragmentation.
3. Abrasion: Running water carrying rock fragments would break and grind rocks occurring in the pathway. Rain and hail also cause rock breaking.
Wind: Dust and fine sand carried by wind cause abrasion of the rock surface when wind strikes the same.
Living Organisms: Lichens secrete chemicals to dissolve minerals from the rock surface. This produces crevices where dust collects. Mosses grow there. They cause deepening of crevices and development of small cracks. Roots of short lived plants widen these cracks. Roots of larger plants cause fragmentation of rocks by entering the cracks and growing in size.

Humification
Partially decomposed organic matter or humus mixes with weathered rock particles to form soil. Humus helps in formation of soil crumbs which are essential for maintaining proper hydration and aeration of soil.

Question 54.
(a) State the reason for the following :
(t) Excess burning of coal causes green house effect,
(it) Soil is a mixture.
(iii) Temperature ranges from -190° C to 110°C on the surface of the moon. (C.C.E. 2014)
Answer:
(a) Excess burning of coal adds lot of CO₂ to the atmosphere. Carbon dioxide is a green house gas which allows the solar radiations to strike the earth’s surface but prevents the escape of long wave radiations from the earth’s atmosphere.
(b) Soil is a Mixture. Soil consists of particles (sand, silt, clay and humus) which do not get dissolved in water, neither they react with one another.
(c) Moon does not have an atmosphere. Its surface heats up to 110°C when solar radiations strike it. In the absence of solar radiations, the surface temperature of moon dips to -190°C.

Question 55.
State the different ways by which atmospheric nitrogen can be fixed into oxides of nitrogen. Explain in brief.
(C.C.E. 2014)
Answer:
Atmospheric Nitrogen Fixation: In the presence of lightning (energy and pressure), electric storm and high energy ultraviolet rays, small amounts of nitrogen and oxygen of the air react to form nitrogen oxides. The latter dissolve in rain water to form nitric and nitrous acids. They pass down to soil and water bodies forming nitrites and nitrates.

Industrial Nitrogen Fixation: Nitrogen is made to combine with hydrogen under high temperature and pressure to form ammonia. Ammonia is often changed further to urea because the latter is less toxic.
Nitrogen Assimilation: It is carried out by plants. Plants pick up nitrates or ammonium ions from their medium. Nitrate or nitrite is first changed into ammonium state. Ammonium ions combine with organic acids to form amino acids. Amino acids give rise to proteins and nucleotides. Nucleotides produce nucleic acids. Enzymes are derived from proteins.
Decomposition: Organic remains undergo decay and decomposition through the agency of decomposers. It releases carbon dioxide.
Denitrification: It is the process of reduction of nitrates into gaseous nitrogen which escape into atmosphere. Denitrification is caused by bacteria present in water logged soils, g., Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Question 56.
Describe how lichens and big trees influence the formation of soil.
Answer:
Living Organisms: Lichens secrete chemicals to dissolve minerals from the rock surface. This produces crevices where dust collects. Mosses grow there. They cause deepening of crevices and development of small cracks. Roots of short lived plants widen these cracks. Roots of larger plants cause fragmentation of rocks by entering the cracks and growing in size.

Question 57.
Mention six combined forms in which oxygen is found on the earth’s crust. (C. C.E. 2014)
Answer:
Carbonate, silicon oxides, sulphate, nitrate, phosphate, metal oxides.

Question 58.
Explain the following terms :
(i) Nitrogen Fixation
(ii) Nitrification
(iii) Denitrification. (C. C.E. 2014)
Answer:
(i) Nitrogen Fixation: It is conversion of inert gas into bio¬logically acceptable form. Nitrogen fixation is carried out abiologically in the atmosphere (through lightning, electric storms, UV radiations) and biologically by certain bacteria and cyanobacteria (= blue-green algae).
(ii) Nitrification : Conversion of ammonia to nitrites and nitrites to nitrates by bacteria.
(iii) Denitrification: Conversion of nitrates to gaseous nitrogen by bacteria.

Long Answer Questions (5 Marks)

Question 1.
(i) Make neat and labelled sketch of nitrogen cycle in nature.
(ii) Describe in brief the role of nitrogen fixing bacteria and lightning in fixing nitrogen. (CCE 2011, 2014)
Answer:
(i)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 10
(ii)
(a) Nitrogen Fixing Bacteria (Biological Nitrogen Fixation). They live both freely (e.g., Azotobacter) as well as symbionts (e.g., Rhizobium in root nodules of legumes). The bacteria pick up nitrogen gas (N₂) from soil atmosphere, reduce it to ammonia (NH₃), then forming amino acids and proteins.
(b) Lightning (Physical Nitrogen Fixation). By its energy, it helps to combine a small quantity of nitrogen with oxygen of the atmosphere forming nitrogen oxides. The latter dissolve in rain water and enter the soil producing nitrite and nitrate.

Question 2.
(i) Draw a neat labelled sketch of carbon cycle in nature.
(ii) What is green house effect ? How does CO₂ cause global warming in the atmosphere ?
(CCE 2011, 2012, 2013)
Answer:
(i)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 11
(ii) Green house effect is keeping an area warm by allowing the solar radiations to pass in but preventing long waves to escape due to presence of radiatively active gases and glass panes.
CO₂ is a green house gas. It permits the solar radiations to pass through and reach the surface of the earth. Infra-red (heat) waves emitted by the earth are, however, not allowed to pass out by CO₂. They are reflected back to earth. This causes global warming.

Question 3.
(a) Mention the two forms of oxygen found in the atmosphere,
(b) Name the form of oxygen, absorbing UV radiations.
(c) Draw flow diagram of oxygen cycle. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) O₂, O₃
(b) O₃
(c)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 12

Question 4.
Many human activities lead to increasing levels of pollution of air, water bodies and soil. “Isolating these activities to specific and limited areas would not help in reducing pollution.” Justify the statement giving at least five reasons. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
It is often suggested that all polluting units be asked to shift outside the city limits, so that there is not much effect on the residential area. This is, however, of not much help as

Burning of fossil fuels lead to acid rain which spreads over large areas killing vegetation, water bodies and causing harm to human beings and their assets.
Polluting units add green house gases into the atmosphere. They have global warming effect.
A number of air pollutants pass into stratosphere causing depletion of protective ozone layer.
Passage of sewage into water bodies makes the water unfit for consumption as it becomes a source of many water borne diseases. There is scum, foul odour and bad taste.
Dumping of industrial effluents over the soil causes many of the toxic chemicals and heavy metals to slowly percolate down and get mixed with ground water.

Question 5.
(a) Mention three processes in which oxygen is used up from the atmosphere and the only process in which it is returned to the atmosphere.
(b) Describe briefly two processes by which carbon dioxide is returned back to the atmosphere.
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a)

Consumption of Oxygen.
1. Respiration
2. Combustion
3. Atmospheric fixation of nitrogen.
Return of Oxygen. Photosynthesis,

(b) Return of CO₂.

Respiration
Combustion.

Question 6.
(a) With the help of a well sketched diagram, explain water cycle in nature.
(b) How is green house effect related to global warming ? Explain. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 13
Water evaporates from the wet surfaces and plants (transpiration). The water vapours being light rise in the air, getting cooled and condensed over dust particles forming clouds. Clouds move along air currents, , cooling further and undergoing precipitation.
(b) Green house effect is keeping an area warm by allowing the solar radiations to pass in but preventing long waves to escape due to presence of radiatively active gases and glass panes.
Green house effect is shown by a number of radiately active gases, also called green house gases (GHGs), e.g., CO₂, methane, chlorofluorocarbons, nitrous oxide. The gases allow the solar radiations to pass through and reach the surface of earth. However, heat waves (infra-red rays) coming from hot surfaces of earth are unable to pass out of the atmosphere as the higher concentration of green house gases reflect most of them back to earth. This raises the temperature of the earth. The phenomenon is called global warming.

Question 7.
(a) In coastal area, wind current moves from sea towards the land during the day but during night it moves from land to sea. Discuss the reason.
(b) How are CFCs harmful for the environment and living beings ? (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a)

During day, warmer land heats up the air above it which rises and creates an area of low pressure. Air above sea remains comparatively cool. It has a higher pressure and, therefore, cooler air moves towards the land,
During night, land becomes cooler quickly while sea water remains comparatively warmer. Low air pressure area develops over sea. Cooler air from land, will therefore, flow towards sea.

(b) CFCs passing into stratosphere split up to release active chlorine under the impact of UV radiations. Chlorine catalyses the breakdown of ozone into oxygen. Depletion of ozone will allow more UV rays to pass down to earth causing skin cancers, blindness and weakening of immune system.

Question 8.
(a) What do you understand by ozone layer depletion ?
(b) What is air pollution ? How does air pollution affect animal and plant life ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Ozone Layer Depletion: Ozone hole is formed during spring time over antarctica and to a small extent over north pole. Thinning of ozone layer or ozone hole increases the passage of harmful ultravoilet rays to earth. This has increased incidence of skin cancers, defective eye sight, reduced immunity, increased number of mutations and reduced crop yield in southern countries of southern hemisphere.
(b) Air Pollution: It is the addition of substances, gases and chemicals into the air that has the harmful effect on human beings, human assets, plants and animals. The major sources of air pollution are combustion of fossil fuels, industrial processes and agricultural burning. Air pollutants include suspended particulate matter (SPM), gases (e.g., sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, hydrogen sulphide, methane, ammonia) and vapours of unburnt hydrocarbons. They also produce two harmful environmental products of acid rain and smog.
Effect on Animal Life. Respiratory disorders, allergies, eye and throat irritation, haemorrhages, frequent diarrhoea, reduced appetite and weakening of bones.
Effect on Plant Life. Chlorosis, necrosis, water soaked areas, defoliation and die back.

Question 9.
How do clouds form in the sky ? Draw the biogeochemical cycle involved in it. What are the different states in which water is found in the water cycle ?
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Clouds are wet air masses that float in the direction of prevailing wind. They develop when water vapours are formed in large number. There is evaporation from the surface of water bodies and wet areas due to their heating during the daytime. Plants also give out water vapours in transpiration while animals do so in exhaled air and perspiration. Air also heats up during daytime. The hot air along with water vapour rises up. At a height, air expands and becomes cool. Cooling causes the water vapours to condense. Suspended particles of dust and other materials function as nuclei around which water vapours condense. When a large wet air mass collects, cloud is formed.
(b)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 14
(c) States of Water,

Gaseous state – as vapour,
Liquid state – as rain, flowing water, water bodies, underground or soil water.
Solid state – as snow in cooler areas like polar regions, mountain tops, winter in subarctic and temperate areas.

Question 10.
(a) Draw a labelled diagram to show oxygen cycle in biosphere,
(b) Name the major process through which oxygen is returned to the atmosphere
(c) Enlist the various processes by which atmospheric oxygen and oxygen dissolved in water is consumed.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 15
(b) Photosynthesis,
(c)

Respiration (consumes both atmospheric oxygen and oxygen dissolved in water),
Combustion.
Decomposition.

Question 11.
(a) Describe briefly any two processes involved in the cycling of N₂ in the environment.
(b) What is nitrogen fixation ? Why do plants need to fix nitrogen ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Processes Involved in Cycling of N₂ :

Nitrogen fixation,
Nitrogen assimilation
Decomposition
Denitrification.

(b) Nitrogen Fixation: It is conversion of inert nitrogen gas (N₂) into biologically acceptable forms like NH₃, NO₂, NO₃. Plants need nitrogen fixation because they cannot absorb and utilise nitrogen gas.

Question 12.
(a) What are biogeochemical cycles ?
(b) Why is circulation of water necessary in the environment ? Discuss any two human activities which are disturbing water cycle.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) The repeated circulation of biogeochemicals or biogenetic nutrients between abiotic and biotic components of the environment is called biogeochemical cycling, e.g., CO₂ cycle, N₂ cycle, Water cycle, O₂ cycle.
(b)

Circulation of water is necessary because land biota needs fresh water while the major reservoir of water is ocean. Land is regularly losing water through evaporation, flowing of rivers and ground water to the oceans. Therefore, land must receive fresh water regularly in the form of rain and snow.
1. Excessive withdrawal of ground water.
2. Polluting water bodies through sewage, industrial effluents, fertilizers and pesticides.

Question 13.
(a) Describe the role of photosynthesis and respiration in carbon cycle.
(b) What is meant by biogeochemical cycle ? Name two essentials which are transferred between different components of the biosphere. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) (i) Photosynthesis. It assimilates CO₂ and forms organic food like glucose and starch, proteins and fats. Organic food with its contained energy is passed from producers to herbivores and then to carnivores in the ecosystem.
(ii) Respiration. It oxidises glucose and other organic compounds-for releasing energy for body activities. CO₂ is liberated.
(b) Biogeochemical Cycle: The repeated circulation of biogeochemicals or biogenetic nutrients between abiotic and biotic components of the environment is called biogeochemical cycling, e.g., CO₂ cycle, N₂ cycle, Water cycle, O₂ cycle.
Biogeochemicals and Energy: Biogeochemicals are picked up by plants and made part of organic matter which also incorporates chemical energy during the process of photosynthesis. From plants, the biogeochemicals and energy contained in organic food pass into animals which feed on plants. Animals are eaten by other animals. The biogeochemicals and energy contained in organic matter pass into them. However, the whole of energy is not passed on the higher trophic levels. Energy is dissipated at every step of its transfer. Organic wastes and dead bodies of all organisms are acted upon by decomposers to release biogeochemicals back into abiotic environment.

Question 14.
(a) Fill in A, B, C, D and E
(b) What will happen if step A does not occur ?
(c) What is the role of nitrogen fixing bacteria in the biosphere ?
(d) Name two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and nitrogen. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a)
A – ammonification.
B – ammonia.
C – nitrites.
D – nitrates.
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 16
(b) Absence of Step A. No breakdown of proteins to release ammonia.
(c) Role of Nitrogen Fixing Bacteria. They add a lot of usable form of nitrogen in the soil which become available to plants for synthesis of organic matter.
(d) Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) and proteins.

Question 15.
(a) What do the blanks 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in the given cycle stand for ?
(b) Name two natural and one man-made process by which CO₂ returns to the atmosphere
(c) CO₂ is necessary for plants but it is also a pollutant. Justify your answer.
(CCE 2011)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 17
Answer:
(a)
1. – organic compounds (plants).
2. – Organic compounds (animals)
3. Inorganic carbonates (shells)
4. – carbonates in water.
5. – Limestone,
(b) Natural Processes of Return of CO₂.

Respiration,
Decay and decomposition. Man-made Process of Return of C02. Combustion

(c) Besides being essential for photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is a green house gas. Upto 350 ppm, it is both a good raw material as well as essential for keeping the earth warm. However, when its concentration rises (as presently it is 400 ppm), it becomes pollutant because it results in global warming. The latter is quite dangerous because it will melt polar ice, raise the water level of oceans and submerge several coastal areas and islands.

Question 16.
(a) Why step farming is common in hills ?
(b) How is acid rain causing harm to ‘Taj Mahal’
(c) Name two leguminous plants which can fix nitrogen. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Step Farming in Hills. In hills, slope is divided into a number of flat fields. The process is called terracing or step farming. It helps in slowing down the flow of water, increasing water absorption by soil and decreasing soil erosion.
(b) Acid rain contains small quantities of sulphuric acid and nitric acid. They have a corrosive action on marble
(calcium carbonate) forming calcium sulphate and calcium nitrate that peels off. Taj Mahal being made of marble with specific engravings will lose its charm due to acid rain corrosion.
(c) Gram, Pea, Groundnut.

Question 17.
(a) How does energy enter the biosphere ?
(b) In the following biogeochemical cycle, name and define the process marked as (X), (Y) and (Z).
(c) What compounds of nitrogen cause air pollution and how are they released in air ? (CCE 2011)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 18
Answer:
(a) Energy enetering the biosphere comes from sunlight. It is picked up by green plants (with the help of chlorophyll) and changed into chemical energy during photosynthesis when organic matter is built up.
6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Energy ————> C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂
(b) (X) – Nitrogen Fixation.
(Y) – Ammonification.
(Z) – Denitrification.
(c) Oxides of nitrogen cause air pollution. Most of them are released during combustion of fossil fuels.

Question 18.
(a) The circulation of carbon is important in nature. Give reasons for your answer,
(b) Explain any two processes involved in the cycling of nitrogen in the environment.
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Carbon is an essential component of all organic substances. However, its concentration in the atmosphere is very small. Therefore, circulation of carbon is important for the continuation of life on earth. Organic substances are formed from CO₂ during the process of photosynthesis. Organic matter passes from plants to animals, animals to animals and ultimately to decomposers. It is regularly consumed in respiration by all living beings which releases CO₂. CO₂ is also released during decomposition of organic matter.
(b)

Nitrogen fixation,
Nitrogen assimilation
Decomposition involving ammonification and nitrification,
Denitrification.

Question 19.
(a) Explain two major processes that maintain CO₂ percentage in the atmosphere,
(b) Draw carbon cycle.
(c) Mention two steps involved in carbon cycle.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) The two main process that maintain CO₂percentage in the atmosphere are photosynthesis (withdrawal of CO₂) and respiration (release of CO₂).
(b)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 19
(c) Steps,

Photosynthesis. It withdraws CO₂ from environment and incorporates carbon into organic food along with energy.
Passage. Organic food synthesised by plants becomes available to herbivores. From herbivores, it passes to carnivores.
Respiration. Organic food not only builds up the body of organisms but also becomes substrate for respiration wherein it releases CO₂ back into environment.
Combustion. It is burning of organic matter including fossil fuels. Combustion releases CO₂.
Decay and Decomposition. Organic remains are acted upon by decomposers. The process releases CO₂.
Long Term Withdrawal and Return. Seepage of CO₂ rich water forms carbonate rocks like limestone. Carbonate also gets incorporated inside shells and skeleton of animals.
Large scale burying of organic life inside earth produces fossil fuels. Weathering of carbonate rocks and burning of fossil fuel release locked CO₂ back to environment.

Question 20.
(a) Name any four carbon containing molecules which are essential to life forms.
(b) Mention the three processes in which oxygen is used up from the atmosphere and the only process in which it is returned to the atmosphere. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Proteins, Fats, Carbohydrates, Nucleic acids (DNA, RNA).
(b) Use Up of Oxygen. Respiration, Combustion, Atmospheric fixation of nitrogen, Return of oxygen. Photosynthesis.

Question 21.
Explain nitrogen cycle with the help of labelled diagram.
Name four processes which occur during nitrogen cycle.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 20
Nitrogen occurs as inert gas (N₂) in atmosphere (78% of total). A part of it is converted into useful compounds of nitrogen by atmospheric fixation, biological fixation and industrial fixation. The same are absorbed by plants and assimilated to form protoplasmic substances. Animals obtain the same from plants. Organic remains are acted upon by decomposers to release ammonia from which nitrite and nitrate are formed through activity of other groups of microbes. The same are picked up by plants again. A part of nitrate present in water-logged soils is changed to gaseous nitrogen by denitrifying bacteria.
Processes:

Nitrogen fixation.
Nitrogen assimilation.
Decomposition.
Denitrification.

Question 22.
(a) Name the gas which is used in the process of photosynthesis.
(b) Complete the cycle (as given in question 15) and explain. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) CO₂.
(b)
1 – organic compounds (plants).
2 – Organic compounds (animals)
3- Inorganic carbonates (shells)
4 – carbonates in water.
5 – Limestone,
CO₂ present in atmosphere is picked up by photoautotrophs in their photosynthesis.
They form organic substances. Animals obtain the same from plants. Respiration of living beings and decomposition of organic matter return CO₂ back to atmosphere. A part of carbon passes , into earth as carbonate forming limestone.
Some animals also form shells from their carbonaceous materials. Both the processes take out a part of CO₂ from the cyclic pool.

Question 23.
(a) Draw a schematic diagram of nitrogen cycle in nature.
(b) Explain how the nitrogen molecules are converted into nitrates and nitrites by

Biological process,
Physical process.
(CCE 2012, 2014)

Answer:
(a)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 21
(b)

Biological Process. N₂ is fixed biologically by some free living (e.g, Azotobacter) and symbiotic (e.g., Rhizobium) prokaryotes to produce ammonia which is immediately fixed into amino acids from which proteins, nucleotides and other compounds are formed. After death of the organism, the proteins are decomposed to release ammonia (ammonification). Ammonia is oxidised to nitrite {e.g., Nitrosococcus) and then nitrate (e.g., Nitrobacter) in the process of nitrification.
Physical Process. Ligthing, electric storm and high energy ultra-violet rays help combine small quantity of nitrogen with oxygen to form nitrogen oxides. The latter dissolve in rain water to produce nitrite and nitrate.

Question 24.
(a) Write any two uses of carbon dioxide gas.
(b) List the importance of oxygen gas and ozone gas present in the atmosphere.
(c) How atmosphere of earth differ from that of Mars and Venus ?
(d) Mention the percentage of earth covered by H₂O.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Uses of CO₂.

It is raw material for photosynthesis.
Being a major green house gas, it keeps the earth comfortably warm for living beings.

(b)

Importance of Oxygen. It is essential for respiration and combustion.
Importance of Ozone. Ozone is harmful in trophosphere where it is unstable. It is useful in stratosphere where it forms a shield to protect the earth against very harmful high energy UV radiations.

(c)

		Atmosphere over Earth	Atmosphere over Venus and Mars
1.	Nitrogen and Oxygen.	It contains nitrogen and oxygen.	The two are absent
2.	Carbon Dioxide.	Carbon dioxide content is little (0-03%).	Carbon dioxide is the major component of atmosphere forming 95-97%.
3.	Water Vapours.	The atmosphere contains water vapours which form a component of water cycle.	The atmosphere does not contain water vapours. Living beings, being absent, have no role in
4.	living Beings.	Composition of atmosphere is maintained by living beings.	determining composition of atmosphere.

(d) 75%.

Question 25.
(a) Increased loading of nutrients in the water body results in algal bloom. How is it harmful to aquatic life ?
(b) What is acid rain ? Name the two gases which causes acid rain.
(c) List any two harmful effects of air pollution.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Increased loading of nutrients in the water body results in eutrophication stimulating the growth of photoautorophic organisms, especially algae. The algae grow in such abundance as to cover the whole water surface. The phenomenon is called algal bloom. It shades the submerged plants which die. Decomposers become active but pick up most of the oxygen dissolved in water. Depletion of oxygen kills the animals, further increasing organic loading. Ultimately, anaerobic breakdown of organic matter begins which produces sulphides that form scum and sludge in the water body. Blue-green algae often invade such waters and release toxins.
(b) Acid rain is rainfall having a pH of less than 5. It is caused by dissolution of two gases, SO₂ and nitrogen oxides, in rain water.
(c) Harmful Effects of Air Pollution,

Suspended particulate matter or SPM causes asthma, bronchitis and allergic cold.
Pollutant gases cause irritation in eyes, throat and lungs, damage liver, kidneys, spleen and nervous system.
Hydrocarbons and some gases cause cancer.

Question 26.
(a) Name any four cycles in nature that form part of biogeochemical cycling.
(b) Name any four sources of fresh water.
(c) How does energy enter biosphere ?
(d) Name one natural and one man made process by which carbon dioxide returns to atmosphere.
Answer:
(a) Water cycle, nitrogen cycle, carbon cycle, oxygen cycle.
(b) Sources of Fresh Water,

GroundWater: It is brought to the surface through water pumps, dug wells, tube- wells, etc.
Water Reservoirs: They store run off and rain water.
Rain: It brings fresh water every where that can be stored.
Rivers: They develop through melting of snow and formation of springs in the catchment areas. Rivers supply fresh water all through their passage to sea.

(c) Energy enters the biosphere through trapping of solar energy by photcautotrophs during the process of photosynthesis.
(d)

Natural Process Respiration
Man-Made Process. Combustion.

Question 27.
(a) How is gaseous nitrogen fixed by the plants ?
(b) Mention one difference between nitrogen fixation and nitrification.
(c) Mention the percentage of oxygen content in the atmosphere.
(d) Name three combined forms of oxygen in which it is found. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Plants can fix gaseous nitrogen only with the help of certain bacteria and blue-green algae, e.g, Rhizobium inside root nodules of legumes.
(b) Nitrogen fixation is conversion of inert gaseous nitrogen into biologically usable salts of nitrogen (e.g., nitrite, nitrate, ammonia) by physical and biological methods. Nitrification is conversion of ammonia (released during decomposition of proteins) into nitrates with the help of certain bacteria (e.g., Nitrosococcus, Nitrobacter).
(c) 21%
(d) Carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxides.

Question 28.
(a) Explain the biological and physical methods of nitrogen fixation.
(b) (i) Complete the nitrogen cycle by labelling ‘X’ and ‘Y in the biogeochemical cycle shown.
(ii) Explain the part marked ‘X’. (CCE 2012)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 22
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen Fixation: It is conversion of inert gaseous nitrogen into usable form.

Biological Nitrogen Fixation: It is carried out by free living (e.g., Azotobacter) and symbiotic (e.g., Rhizobium) bacteria. They pick up free nitrogen gas from soil air and convert it into ammonia state. The latter is used to change organic acids into amino acids.
Physical Nitrogen Fixation: (Atmospheric Nitrogen Fixation). In the presence of lightning, electric storm and high energy UV rays, small amounts of nitrogen and oxygen combine to form nitrogen oxides. They dissolve in rain water and pass down to earth as nitrites and nitrates.

(b) Y-Ammonification.
X-Denitrification
(ii) Denitrification: Some bacteria present in water-logged soils take oxygen from nitrates for their activity. This changes nitrates into gaseous nitrogen.

Question 29.
(a) Observe the diagram. When the incense stick is kept near the edge of the mouth of beaker, in which direction will the smoke flow ? Give reason.
(b) What role does the sun play in formation of soil ?
(CCE 2012)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 23
Answer:
(a) The incense will flow towards the flame because it is creating an area of low air pressure due to hot air rising upwards.
(b) Soil is formed through two processes of weathering and humification.
Weathering
It is pulverisation of rocks or breaking of rocks into fine particles. There are three types of weathering — physical (atmospheric changes and mechanical forces), chemical and biological. Sun, water, wind and living organisms perform them.

Sun: It causes expansion of rocks by heating. Cooling causes their contraction. Different parts of rocks expand and contract at different rates. Uneven expansion and contraction produces cracks leading to fragmentation of rocks.
Water:
1. Wetting and Drying: Certain rock components can pick up and lose moisture. They undergo swelling and contraction resulting in fragmentation of rocks.
2. Frost Action: Water seeping in cracks would swell up and exert a great pressure if it freezes due to low temperature. The rock would undergo fragmentation.
3. Abrasion: Running water carrying rock fragments would break and grind rocks occurring in the pathway. Rain and hail also cause rock breaking.
Wind: Dust and fine sand carried by wind cause abrasion of the rock surface when wind strikes the same.
Living Organisms: Lichens secrete chemicals to dissolve minerals from the rock surface. This produces crevices where dust collects. Mosses grow there. They cause deepening of crevices and development of small cracks. Roots of short lived plants widen these cracks. Roots of larger plants cause fragmentation of rocks by entering the cracks and growing in size.

Question 30.
(a) Complete the given oxygen cycle.
(b) State four forms in which oxygen is found in the earth’s crust.
(c) Give an example where oxygen does not support life activities. (CCE 2012)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 24
Answer:
(a) Organic molecules, Respiration, Photosynthesis.
(b) Carbonate, sulphate, nitrate, metal and silicon oxides.
(c) Anaerobic organisms and deep water forms, e.g, Clostridium botulinum.

Question 31.
“Urbanisation and industrialisation are mainly responsible for increase in environment pollution”. Justify this statement and suggest ways and means to check it. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Urbanisation and industrialisation generate a lot of pollutants:

Sewage: A lot of sewage is generated in urban areas. It contains organic matter and several pathogens.
Industrial Effluents: They are produced by most industries like dyeing units, electroplating units, paper mills, leather processing units, sugar mills, chemical industries, etc. Like sewage , the industrial effluents are disposed off by passing into a water body.
Fossil Fuels: Homes, industries, automobiles and thermal plants are burning fossil fuels that produce SPM, pullutant gases and hydrocarbon vapours.
Processing Industries: They generate pollutant particulate matter like cotton dust, coal dust, iron dust, asbestos, etc.
Garbage and Trash: They are wastes of residential and commercial areas.

Control

Sewage Treatment: It removes most of the organic matter and kills the pathogens.
Effluent Treatment: It removes toxic chemicals.
Garbage: It can be used to produce manure or generate biogas and manure.
Trash: It is partly recycled and partly dumped in land fills.
Electrostatic Precipitators: They remove suspended particles.
CNG: Use of CNG in vehicles reduces air pollution by automobiles.

Question 32.
(a) Define air pollution. What are the visible indications of air pollution ?
(b) Define acid rain,
(c) Mention any two adverse effects of acid rain. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Air Pollution: It is addition of particulate matter, gases and vapours into the air that have an adverse effect on humans, animals, vegetation and human assets.
Visible Indications of Air Pollution,

Occurrence of suspended particulate matter (SPM).
Common occurrence of asthma, bronchitis and allergic cold in the residents,
Irritation in eyes, throat and lungs.
Occurrence of smog during winter causing suffocation and uneasiness.

(b) Acid Rain: Sources of Fresh Water,

GroundWater. It is brought to the surface through water pumps, dug wells, tube- wells, etc.
Water Reservoirs. They store run off and rain water.
Rain. It brings fresh water every where that can be stored.
Rivers. They develop through melting of snow and formation of springs in the catchment areas. Rivers supply fresh water all through their passage to sea.

Corrosion and pitting of marble and limestone structures,
Killing of vegetation and aquatic life.

Question 33.
(a) Give a schematic representation of oxygen cycle in nature,
(b) State the importance of oxygen cycle in nature.

Explain in how many ways O₂ is used up from the atmosphere and how it returns back to the atmosphere.
(CCE 2013, 2014)
Answer:
(a)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 25
(b) Importance,

It keeps the oxygen concentration of the atmosphere nearly constant,
It makes regular supply of oxygen to all organisms for respiration, human beings for combustion, microorganisms for decay and atmosphere for fixation of some nitrogen,
Oxygen is being regularly added to the atmosphere and aquatic habitats by photosynthetic activity of producers.

Question 34.
(a) In which layer of earth is water available ?
(b) Name the abiotic components of the biosphere.
(c) Name the gas which forms 95-97% of the atmosphere on Mars.
(d) At night which one is warmer, air over sea or air over land ?
( Answer:
(a) Water. It occurs in hydrosphere part of earth which extends from on, in and above earth.
(b) Abiotic Components of Biosphere. Air, water and soil.
(c) CO₂
(d) Over sea as water cools down slowly as compared to land.
(e) Coal, petroleum.

Question 35.
(a) How is soil formed ?
(b) Name the four main processes that are part of the water cycle in nature,
(c) Name two compounds formed by nitrogen and oxygen in the nitrogen cycle. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Soil is formed through two processes of weathering and humification.
Weathering
It is pulverisation of rocks or breaking of rocks into fine particles. There are three types of weathering — physical (atmospheric changes and mechanical forces), chemical and biological. Sun, water, wind and living organisms perform them.

Sun: It causes expansion of rocks by heating. Cooling causes their contraction. Different parts of rocks expand and contract at different rates. Uneven expansion and contraction produces cracks leading to fragmentation of rocks.
Water:
1. Wetting and Drying: Certain rock components can pick up and lose moisture. They undergo swelling and contraction resulting in fragmentation of rocks.
2. Frost Action: Water seeping in cracks would swell up and exert a great pressure if it freezes due to low temperature. The rock would undergo fragmentation.
3. Abrasion: Running water carrying rock fragments would break and grind rocks occurring in the pathway. Rain and hail also cause rock breaking.
Wind: Dust and fine sand carried by wind cause abrasion of the rock surface when wind strikes the same.
Living Organisms: Lichens secrete chemicals to dissolve minerals from the rock surface. This produces crevices where dust collects. Mosses grow there. They cause deepening of crevices and development of small cracks. Roots of short lived plants widen these cracks. Roots of larger plants cause fragmentation of rocks by entering the cracks and growing in size.

Vaporisation
Cloud formation
Rain
Infiltration and run-off.

Question 36.
(a) Write names of two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and nitogen.
(b) (i) Give a schematic representation of nitrogen cycle.
(ii) Name the main processes involved in it. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Nucleic acids, Proteins.
(b) (i)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 26
(ii) Main Processes: Processes Involved in Cycling of N₂ :

Nitrogen fixation,
Nitrogen assimilation
Decomposition
Denitrification.

Question 37.
(a) List any two human activities which would lead to an increase in CO₂ content of air.
(b) Draw a schematic diagram of carbon cycle in nature. (CCE 2013)
(a)

Increased combustion of fossil fuels
Deforestation,

(b)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 27

Question 38.
(a) Expand CFC.
(b) Mention one important function of ozone,
(c) What is green house effect ?
(d) Name one green house gas. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) CFC-Chlorofluorocarbon.
(b) Ozone. Filtering harmful high energy ultraviolet
radiations in the atmosphere,
(c) Green House Effect: Green house effect is keeping an area warm by allowing the solar radiations to pass in but preventing long waves to escape due to presence of radiatively active gases and glass panes.
(d) Green House Gas. Carbon dioxide.

Question 39.
(a) What is soil pollution ?
(b) What are the various factors that decide which plants will thrive on a particular kind of soil.
(c) Explain any two factors that cause soil erosion.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Soil Pollution: It is adverse alteradon in the soil caused by removal or addition of substances which reduce its fertility and quality.
(b) Soil Factors Controlling Plants Thriving Over It.
Top soil is the upper mineral and humus rich layer of soil that supports vegetation.
Factors:

Depth of top soil,
Nutrient and humus content of soil,
Soil particles,
Soil pH.

Absence of vegetation cover,
Heavy rain, fast run off or strong wind.

Question 40.
(a) What percentage of elemental oxygen is found in earth’s atmosphere and by which process oxygen is returned back to atmosphere.
(b) Represent oxygen cycle that is operating in nature diagrammatically. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a)

21%
Photosynthesis.

(b)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 28

Question 41.
What is biogeochemical cycle ? Draw flow chart of nitrogen cycle in nature. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Biogeochemical Cycle: The repeated circulation of biogeochemicals or biogenetic nutrients between abiotic and biotic components of the environment is called biogeochemical cycling, e.g., CO₂ cycle, N₂ cycle, Water cycle, O₂ cycle.
Nitrogen Cycle.
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 29

Question 42.
(a) With the help of a neat labelled, diagram, depict the cycling of carbon in nature.
(b) Mention two ways in which carbon dioxide is fixed in nature. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a)
Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 14 image - 30
(b)

Photosynthesis by photoautotrophs
Animals for building their endoskeleton and shells.

Question 43.
What is meant by air pollution ? Explain any three human activities that cause air pollution. Mention any two harmful effects of air pollution. (C. C.E. 2014)
Answer:
Definition: Air pollution is addition of particulate matter, gases and vapours into the atmosphere that have an adverse effect on humans, animals, vegetation and human assets.
List any three human activities that you think would lead to air pollution.

Burning of fossil fuels in industries, vehicles and thermal plants.
Processing industries like textiles, asbestos, flour
Stone crushing.

Harmful Effects:
Effect on Animal Life: Respiratory disorders, allergies, eye and throat irritation, haemorrhages, frequent diarrhoea, reduced appetite and weakening of bones.
Effect on Plant Life: Chlorosis, necrosis, water soaked areas, defoliation and die back.

Question 44.
(a) Why is the atmosphere essential for life ?
(b) Explain how does atmosphere act as a blanket.
(C.C.E. 2014)
Answer:
(a)

Oxygen: Atmosphere contains oxygen which is essential for combustion and respiration of most organisms.
Carbon Dioxide: Atmosphere provides carbon dioxide for photosynthesis of plants.
Protection: Atmosphere filters out lethal cosmic rays and high energy ultraviolet rays.
Temperature Buffer: Atmosphere does not allow daytime temperature to rise abnormally nor does it allow night time temperature to fall down drastically. This provides favourable temperature for the living organisms.
Other Functions: Air currents help in dispersal of spores and other dissemules. Water cycle operates through atmosphere and produces rain to replenish fresh water over land.

(b) Atmosphere or air is a bad conductor of heat. It, therefore, functions as a blanket.

It does not allow sudden increase in temperature during the daylight hours when sun shines overhead.
There is no sudden cooling during night. Atmosphere slows down the escape of heat to the outer space from the area of earth under darkness.
Atmosphere maintains the average temperature of the earth fairly steady not only during the day but throughout the year.

Hope given Previous Year Question Papers for CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources are helpful to complete your science homework.

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Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12

May 7, 2023

Chapter 12 Sound Class 9 Science Important Questions with Answers PDF will help you in scoring more marks in your exams.

Sound Class 9 Important Questions and Answers Science Chapter 12

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Based on waves and sound

Question 1.
What is sound ?
Answer:
Sound is a form of energy which produces the sensation of hearing in our ears.

More Resources

Question 2.
What does wave transfer ?
Answer:
Wave transfers energy.

Question 3.
What is a mechanical wave ?
Answer:
A waves that are characterised by the motion of particles of a medium are called mechanical waves. These waves require material medium for their propagation.

Question 4.
What is a transverse wave ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
If the particles of the medium vibrate about their mean positions at right angles to the direction of propagation of the disturbance, then the wave is called transverse wave. Light is a transverse wave.

Question 5.
Differentiate between crest and trough. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
The highest point on the elevation of the medium through which transverse wave travels is called crest.
The lowest point on the depression of the medium through which transverse wave travels is called trough.

Question 6.
What is a longitudinal wave ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
If the particles of a medium vibrate or oscillate to and fro about their mean positions along the direction of propagation of the disturbance, then the wave is called longitudinal wave. Sound wave is a longitudinal wave.

Question 7.
Name a wave which does not require a material medium for its propagation. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Electromagnetic wave.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the terms “compression” and “rarefaction” ? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
A region of high pressure of a medium when sound wave travels through it is called compression. A region of low pressure of a medium when sound wave travels through it is called rarefaction.

Question 9.
What happens to the medium through which sound travels ?
Answer:
A medium is divided into the regions of high pressure or high density and regions of low pressure or low density called compressions and rarefactions respectively.

Question 10.
Define time period. (CBSE 2011, 2013, 2017)
Answer:
Time Taken by two consecutive compressions or rarefactions to cross a fixed point is called time period.

Question 11.
State SI unit of time period.
Answer:
second(s)

Question 12.
What do you understand by the frequency of a sound wave ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
The number of compressions or rarefactions crossing a point in one second is called the frequency of a sound wave.

Question 13.
State SI unit of frequency compressions or rarefactions crossing a point, hertz (Hz).
Answer:

Question 14.
Write relation between time period (T) and frequency (v).
Answer:
Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12 image - 1

Question 15.
What do you understand by the wavelength of a sound wave ? (CBSE 2015, 2017)
Answer:
Distance between two successive compressions or successive rarefactions is called wavelength of a sound wave.

Question 16.
State SI unit of wavelength. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
metre (m).

Question 17.
State the meaning of the term “amplitude with reference to a wave. Mention its SI unit. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Maximum displacement of a particle of the medium from its mean position when wave travels through the medium. It SI unit is metre.

Question 18.
What type of wave is represented by density-distance graph ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Longitudinal wave.

Question 19.
Name the physical quantity whose unit is ‘hertz’. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Frequency.

Question 20.
What do you understand by the pitch of a sound ? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Pitch of a sound is the characteristic of sound that depends on the frequency received by a human ear.

Question 21.
Name the physical quantity which determines the pitch of a sound.
Answer:
Frequency of a sound wave.

Question 22.
Write factor on which pitch of a sound depends ? (CBSE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Pitch of a sound depends on the frequency of the wave.

Question 23.
What do you understand by the loudness of a sound ? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Amplitude of the vibrating body determines the loudness of the sound. Large is the amplitude of vibration, large is the loudness of the sound produced.

Question 24.
What do you mean by the intensity of sound ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Sound energy per unit time per unit area is known as the intensity of sound.

Question 25.
Write the S.I. unit of intensity of sound.
Answer:
Js^-1 m² or Wm^-2.

Question 26.
Out of which of the following media, the speed of sound is maximum : solid, liquid, gas.
Answer:
The speed of sound is maximum in solid medium.

Question 27.
Draw diagram to represent sound of high pitch and (b) low pitch, of the same loudness. (CBSE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12 image - 2

Question 28.
Name the physical quantity which determines the loudness of a sound.
Answer:
Amplitude of the vibrating body.

Question 29.
Define the characteristic “timbre” or “quality” of a sound. (CBSE 2012, 2015)
Answer:
Quality or timbre is a characteristic of a sound which enables us to distinguish between two sounds of some loudness and pitch.

Question 30.
Speed of sound is more on hotter day. Explain. Why ? (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Speed of sound increases with increase in temperature.

Based on Reflection of sound

Question 31.
What is an echo ? (CBSE Sample Paper 2010, 2011, 2012, 2015)
Answer:
Echo is a repetition of sound due to the reflection of original sound by a large and hard obstacle.

Question 32.
What should be the minimum distance between the source of sound and the obstacle to hear an echo ?
(CBSE 2011)
Answer:
17 metres.

Question 33.
Give one application where principle of echo is utilised. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Hearing aid.

Question 34.
Give example of multiple echoes. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:

Rolling of thunder,
Whispering galleries.

Question 35.
What do you understand by the reverberation ? (CBSE 2011, 2012, 2013)
Answer:
The penomenon of prolongation of original sound due to the multiple reflection of sound waves even after the source of sound stops producing sound is called reberberation.

Question 36.
What is reverberation time ?
Answer:
The time interval during which original sound appears to prolong.

Question 37.
What are infrasonic waves ? (CBSE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
The waves of frequency less than 20 Hz are called infrasonic waves.

Question 38.
What are ultrasonic waves ? (CBSE 2012, 2013)

What is ultrasound ? (CBSE 2012, 2015, 2017)
Answer:
The waves of frequency greater than 20,000 Hz are called ultrasonic waves or ultra sound.

Question 39.
What type of waves are produced by bats ?
Answer:
Ultrasonic waves.

Question 40.
State one important use of ultra sounds in industries.
Answer:
Ultra sounds are used to find faults and cracks in metals.

Question 41.
State two important uses of ultrasounds for medical purpose. (CBSE 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014)
Answer:

Diagnosing the diseases in human body
To analyse the development of an unborn child.

Question 42.
If 20 waves are produced per second, what is the frequency in Hertz ? {CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Frequency = 20 Hz.

Question 43.
What is echocardiography ? {CBSE 2012)
Answer:
It is the technique to construct the image of heart using ultrasonic waves.

Question 44.
Echoes can’t be heard in a small room. Explain. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
The minimum distance between source of sound and the obstacle! to hear an echo should be 17m.

Question 45.
Therefore, echoes can’t be heard in a small room.

Write the hill form of “SONAR”. (CBSE 2011, 2015)

What is the acronym of SONAR ? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
SONAR stands for Sound Navigation And Ranging.

Question 46.
What is the basic principle on which SONAR works ? (CBSE 2011, 2016)
Answer:
SONAR works on the principle of reflection of waves (i.e. echo).

Question 47.
Write one application of SONAR. (CBSE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
It is used to measure the depth of a sea.

Question 48.
What is the function of a detector in a SONAR ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
It detects the echo received to find the time taken by the wave to reach the SONAR from the bed of sea.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Based on waves and sound

Question 1.
Mention the types of mechanical waves. Identify the type which can be produced in solids, liquids and gases. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Types of mechanical waves :

Transverse wave,
Longitudinal wave

Longitudinal wave can be produced in solids, liquids and gases.

Question 2.
Describe an activity to show that sound waves need medium to travel. (CBSE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Sound Needs a Medium to Travel:
We have learnt that sound travels from one place to another place when the energy is transferred from one particle to another particle of a medium like air or gas, liquid, solid etc. It means, sound needs a material medium for its propagation. In other words, sound cannot travel through vacuum.
Demonstration to show that sound waves cannot travel through vacuum:
Put an electric bell inside a closed glass jar connected with a vacuum pump. Initially, air from the jar is not taken out. Connect the electric bell with a battery (Figure 10). It rings and the sound produced is heard by us.
Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12 image - 3
Now start evacuating the air from a glass jar using a vacuum pump, we will hear less and less sound, i.e. the loudness of the sound decreases. When there is no air in the glass jar, we do not hear sound. This activity demonstrates that sound waves require material medium (in this case air) for its propagation.

Question 3.
Sound cannot travel through vacuum. How will you demonstrate this fact ?
Answer:
Demonstration to show that sound waves cannot travel through vacuum:
Put an electric bell inside a closed glass jar connected with a vacuum pump. Initially, air from the jar is not taken out. Connect the electric bell with a battery (Figure 10). It rings and the sound produced is heard by us.
Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12 image - 4
Now start evacuating the air from a glass jar using a vacuum pump, we will hear less and less sound, i.e. the loudness of the sound decreases. When there is no air in the glass jar, we do not hear sound. This activity demonstrates that sound waves require material medium (in this case air) for its propagation.

Question 4.
Write any three differences between transverse and longitudinal waves. (CBSE 2012, 2013)
Answer:

Transverse Wave	Longitudinal Wave
1. In transverse wave propagation, the particles of the medium vibrate about their mean or equilibrium position at right angles to the direction of the propagation of the wave.	In longitudinal wave, particles of the medium vibrate about their equilibrium position along the direction of the propagation of the wave.
2. When transverse wave travels through a medium, the shape of the medium changes.	When longitudinal wave travels through a medium, medium is divided into the regions of high and low pressures.
3. Traverse wave can travel in solids and on the surface of liquids.	Longitudinal waves can travel in solids, liquids and gases.

Question 5.
Show that v = λv, where symbols have usual meanings.

Establish relationship between speed of sound, its wavelength and frequency.
(NCERT Question Bank,CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Let the time period of a vibrating body be T. It means, the vibrating body completes one oscillation in time T. One oscillation of a body is represented by a wave of wavelength λ as shown in figure 15.
Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12 image - 5

Thus, speed of wave= wavelength x frequency
Note : The speed of a mechanical wave (i.e. sound wave) is constant in a given medium. If sound of large frequency is produced by a vibrating body, then the wavelength of this sound wave will be small, so that speed = wavelength x frequency is constant
The speed of a sound wave differs only when the sound wave goes from one medium to another medium.

Question 6.
Sounds of same loudness and pitch but produced by different musical instruments like a violin and flute are distinguishable. Explain, why ? (CBSE 2012)

In an orchestra, violin and flute are played at the same time but still these are distinctly recognizable. Name the characteristic that makes it possible. (CBSE 2012)

Name the characteristic of sound that helps us to distinguish a note played on a sitar and a violin.
(CBSE 2012)
Answer:
This is due to the quality or timbre of sound waves.

Question 7.
A vibrating body produces sound. However, no sound is heard when a simple pendulum oscillates in air.
Explain the reason. (NCERT Question Bank)
Answer:
Sound is heard only if the body vibrates with a frequency more than 20 Hz and less than 20,000 Hz. The pendulum oscillates or vibrates with a frequency less than 20 Hz. Hence, no sound is heard when the pendulum vibrates or oscillates in air.

Question 8.
A boy strikes one end of a long iron pipe with a stone. Another boy who keeps his ear close to the other end of the pipe heard two sounds in a short interval of time. Explain, why? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
When a boy strikes an iron pipe, sound is produced. The sound waves travel through air and the pipe. Since speed of sound in iron is greater than the speed of sound in air, so the sound travels faster through iron pipe than air. Hence, another boy hears two sounds, one travelling through iron pipe and the other travelling through the air.

Question 9.
Sound travels faster in summer season than in winter season. Explain, why ?
Answer:
This is because, speed of sound increases with increase in temperature.

Question 10.
Why is the speed of sound greater in solids than in gases ?
Answer:
This is because particle of solids are closer than the particles of gases.

Question 11.
Draw a graph for a wave representing wave distrubance and time for a sound changing from low pitch to
high pitch, keeping amplitude of the sound same. (CBSE Sample Paper; 2011)
Answer:
Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12 image - 7

Question 12.
Waves of frequency 100 Hz are produced in a string as shown in figure. Give its :
(a) amplitude,
(b) wavelength
(c) velocity
(CBSE 2011, Similar CBSE 2014, 2015)
Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12 image - 8
Answer:
Here, v = 100 Hz
(a) Amplitude = 5 cm
(b) Wavelength = distance between two successive crests or troughs = 20 cm.
(c) Velocity, u = vλ = 100 Hz x 0.2 m = 20 m s^-1

Question 13.
State the factors on which speed of sound depends. (CBSE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Speed of sound depends on :

nature of medium and
temperature of the medium.

Speed of sound in solids is greater than in liquids and speed of sound in liquids in greater than in gases. Speed of sound increases with the increase in temperature of the medium and it decreases with the decrease in temperature of the medium.

Question 14.
The sound of an explosion on the surface of a lake is heard by a boatman 100m away and a diver 100m
below the point of explosion. Of the two presons mentioned (boatman or diver) who would hear the sound first ? And why ? {CBSE 2011, 2015)
Answer:
Since velocity of sound in water is more than the velocity of the sound in air, so the diver in the water will hear the sound of explosion earlier than the boatman.

Based on Reflection of sound

Question 15.
State two conditions for echo to be heard. (CBSE Sample Paper 2010, 2011, 2012, 2015)
Answer:
Echo can be heard if

the minimum distance between the source of sound and the obstacle is 17 m.
the obstacle is rigid and hard.

Question 16.
The reverberation time of a hall used for speeches should be very short. Explain why?
Answer:
If the reverberation time of a hall is long, then the multiple echoes will interfere with the original sound. Hence nothing will be heard distinctly. For this reason, the reverberation time of the hall should be very short.

Question 17.
Explain, how can you demonstrate the reflection of sound.
Answer:
When a sound wave travelling in a medium bounces back to the same medium after striking the second medium (which is solid), reflection of sound wave is said to take place. The reflection of sound wave is similar to the bouncing back of a rubber ball after striking a wall or the surface of a floor.
Just like light, sound is reflected by the solid and liquid surfaces. The reflection of sound obeys the laws of reflection. The laws of reflection of sound are as follows :

Incident angle = Reflected angle and
The incident direction of sound, reflected direction of sound and the normal to the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.

Question 18.
Describe multiple echoes. Write any two of their important applications. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
When a sound wave is reflected many times by an obstacle, multiple echoes are heard. Multiple echoes are heard in whispering galleries.

Question 19.
State the laws of reflection of sound. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:

Incident angle = reflected angle of sound wave
Incident direction of sound, reflected direction of sound and the normal to the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.

Question 20.
Why we cannot hear an echo in a small room ? (CBSE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
To hear an echo, the minimum distance between the source of sound and the obstacle reflecting sound
waves must be 17m. However, the size of the room (i.e. the distance between two opposite walls) is less than 17m. Hence, we cannot hear an echo in a small room.

Question 21.
Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of reverberation. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
A certain amount of reverberation improves the quality of sound of orchestral and choral music. However,
excessive reverberation makes the speech or music indistinct.

Question 22.
Draw a diagram showing laws of reflection followed by sound waves and label the following :
Incident wave, Reflected wave, Angle of incidence and Angle of reflection. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12 image - 9

Based on ultra sound, sonar and human ear

Question 23.
Explain how ultra sound is used to clean spiral tubes and electronic components ? (CBSE 2011, 2014)
Answer:
The spiral tubes are dipped in a liquid. The ultrasonic waves are passed through this liquid. These waves force the dirt or any other impurity out from the spiral tube and hence the tube is cleaned.

Question 24.
Waves of special frequencies are used for cleaning hard to reach places.
(a) Name the waves
(b) What is the frequency of these waves ?
(c) Explain how do these waves perform this work. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
(a) Ultrasonic waves
(b) Frequency of ultrasonic waves is greater than 20,000 Hz and less than or equal to 10⁷HZ.
(c) The spiral tubes are dipped in a liquid. The ultrasonic waves are passed through this liquid. These waves force the dirt or any other impurity out from the spiral tube and hence the tube is cleaned.

Question 25.
Give three medical uses of ultrasound. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:

Diagnosing diseases in human body,
To study the development of an unborn baby
In echocardiography.

Question 26.
Why do we hear sound produced by the humming bees while the sound of vibrations of pendulum is not heard ? (CBSE 2011, 2013, 2015, 2016)
Answer:
Humming bees produces waves of frequency greater than 20 Hz, which are audible to us. On the other hand, frequency of vibration of pendulum is less than 20 Hz, which is not audible to us.

Question 27.
List three points which an engineer should use while designing an auditorium. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:

Reverberation time should be small (or short).
The ceiling of the auditorium should be curved.
The ceiling of the auditorium should be made up of sound absorbing material.

Question 28.
A man fires a rifle in front of a cliff and hears the echo after 3 seconds. Calculate the distant of man from the cliff if velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Time taken by sound to travel a distance between man and cliff, t = 3/2 = 1.5 s.
∴ Distance of man from the cliff, S = vt = 340 x 1.5 = 510 m.

Question 29.
A detector installed on a ship receives an ultrasonic signal sent to underwater object after v seconds of its transmission. If the speed of sound in water is ‘v’ what is the depth of object. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Time taken by the signal to reach detector from the depth of object = t/2.
Speed of signal in water = v
∴ Depth of the object = vt/2.

Question 30.
What is ultra sound ? Explain how defects in a metal block can be detected using ultra sound.
(CBSE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
The waves of frequency range greater than 20,000 Hz and equal to 10⁷ Hz are known as ultrasound.
A beam of ultrasound is thrown on the metal block under investigation. The picture of the metal block produced by the reflected ultrasound is taken on the screen or the monitor of the computer. The position of the crack or fault in the metal block can be detected by analysing the picture.

Question 31.
How is the pressure variation in a sound wave amplified in human ear ? (CBSE 2011)

How does the ear drum of human ear vibrate ? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
The sound wave in the form of high pressure (compressions) and low pressure (rarefactions) reach the ear drum. When sound waves fall on ear drum, it begins to vibrate. The vibrations produced by the ear drum are amplifed by the three ossicles (i.e. hammer, anvil and the stirrup) in the middle of the ear.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Describe with the help of a diagram, how compressions and rarefactions are produced in air near a source of sound.
Answer:
When a body vibrates, then the particles of the medium (say air) around the vibrating body are set into vibrations. The particles of the medium which are very close to the vibrating body are pushed away from the body. These particles of the medium strike against the neighbouring particles. Hence the number of particles of the medium in the region where the displaced particles strike against the neighbouring particles is large. This region is known as compression (C).
Since pressure is directly proportional to the number of particles, so the compression is a region of high pressure or high density. When the vibrating body moves backward, a region of emptiness known as rarefaction (R) or a region of low pressure or low density is created. The displaced particles of the medium rebound into the region of low pressure or rarefaction. At the same time, compression is followed outwards.
Therefore, when a body vibrates to produce sound, compressions and rarefactions follow one another as the sound travel through the medium away from the vibrating body. Thus, propagation of sound can be visualised as the propagation of pressure variations or density variations in the medium.
Figure 9 represents the regions of compressions (or high pressures) and rarefactions (or low pressures) as the sound propagates in the medium.
Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12 image - 10

Question 2.
What is reflection of sound ? State laws of reflection of sound.
Answer:

When a sound wave travelling in a medium bounces back to the same medium after striking the second medium (which is solid), reflection of sound wave is said to take place. The reflection of sound wave is similar to the bouncing back of a rubber ball after striking a wall or the surface of a floor.
Just like light, sound is reflected by the solid and liquid surfaces. The reflection of sound obeys the laws of reflection. The laws of reflection of sound are as follows :

Incident angle = Reflected angle and
The incident direction of sound, reflected direction of sound and the normal to the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.

Question 3.
Give five practical applications of reflection of sound.
Answer:

Megaphone is a device used to address public meetings. It is a horn-shaped. When we speak through megaphone, sound waves .are reflected by the megaphone. These reflected sound waves are directed towards the people (or audience) without much spreading (Figure 20).
Hearing Aid: Hearing aid is used by a person who is hard of hearing. It is an electronic device which is designed to amplify sound for the wearer to make the speech understandable. The microphone of hearing aid converts sound into electrical signals. These signals are amplified by the amplifier and then fed to the speaker. The speaker converts electrical signal to sound and then feed it into the ear as a narrow beam of sound waves. This narrow beam of sound waves fall on the diaphragm of the ear. Hence, the diaphragm of the ear vibrates with large amplitude. Therefore, the hearing power of the person is improved.
Sound waves from the speaker are reflected by the sound board and these reflected waves are directed towards the people (or audience).
Sound boards. Sound boards are curved surfaces (concave) which are used in a big hall to direct the sound waves towards the people sitting in a hall. The speaker is (i.e. source of sound) placed at the focus of the sound board as shown in figure 21.
Stethoscope: Stethoscope is a device used by doctors to listen the sound produced by heart and lungs. The sound produced by heart beat and lungs of a patient reaches the ears of a doctor due to multiple reflection of sound (Figure 22).
Ceilings of concert halls are curved. The ceilings of concert halls and auditoriums are made curved. This is done so that the sound reaches all the parts of the hall after reflecting from the ceiling of the hall as shown in figure 23.

Moreover, these ceilings are made up of sound absorbing materials to reduce the reverberation.

Question 4.
Give five practical applications of ultrasonic waves. (CBSE 2011)

Explain the technique of ultrasonography. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
Ultrasonic waves have number of uses :

For Communication
1. Ultrasonic waves are used to establish underwater communication.
2. Ultrasonic waves are used to determine the depth of a sea. It is done with the help of a SONAR.
Industrial uses
1. Ultrasonic waves are used for cleaning the hidden parts of an instrument. The process is known as ultrasonic cleaning. The instrument or device whose hidden parts are to be cleaned is dipped in a liquid. The ultrasonic waves are passed through this liquid. These waves forces the dirt or any other impurity out from the parts of the instrument which otherwise cannot be approached directly.
2. Ultrasonic waves are used for welding plastic. Two plastic surfaces are pressed against each other. Then ultrasonic waves are allowed to fall at a point where plastic surfaces are in contact. These waves produces heat energy. This heat energy binds the two plastic surfaces together.
3. Ultrasonic waves are used to find faults and cracks in metals. Ultrasonic waves are thrown on a metal under investigation. The beam of ultrasonic waves reflected by the metal is investigated. The intensity of the ultrasonic waves reflected from the fault or a crack is different from the intensity of the waves reflected from the other part of metal. Thus, the position of the fault or a crack in the metal can be easily located. In fact, the picture of the metal produced by the reflection of ultrasonic waves is taken on the screen or the monitor. By analysing this picture, the position and size of the crack or fault in the metal is detected.
Medical uses
1. Ultrasonic waves are used for diagnosing the diseases in human body. Different parts of the body like bone, fat, muscles and liquid have different reflective properties. Ultrasonic waves are allowed to fall on the portion of the body of a patient to be diagnosed. These waves are reflected back by the different parts (like bones, tissues, liquids and muscles etc.) of that portion of the body in different manners. The varying echoes are recorded for analysing that part of the body.
  The method used for diagnosing the different part of a human body with the help of the ultrasonic waves is known as ultrasonography.
2. Ultrasonic waves are used to kill bacteria in liquids. Thus, the liquids like milk can be preserved for a longer period of time.
3. Ultrasonic waves are also used to study the development of an unborn child. Any abnormality in the growth of an unborn child can be detected by the observing the picture taken by ultrasound.
4. Echocardiography. It is medical diagnostic technique in which ultrasonic waves are used to construct the image of heart.

Question 5.
Write the full name of SONAR. How will you determine the depth of a sea using echo ranging ?
(CBSE 2011, 2012)

Explain the working of SONAR. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
SONAR stands for Sound Navigation and Ranging.
It is a device which is used in the ships to locate rocks, icebergs, submarines, old ships sank in sea etc. It is also used to measure the depth of a sea.
Principle: It is based on the principle of the reflection of sound wave (i.e. echo).
Determination of the Depth of a Sea using Sonar
A beam of ultrasonic waves from the transmitter of a SONAR fitted on the ship is sent towards the bottom of the sea (Figure 25).
Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12 image - 15
This beam is reflected back from the bottom of the sea and is received by the receiver or detector of the SONAR on the ship.
The time taken by the ultrasonic waves to go from the ship to the bottom of the sea and then back to the ship is noted. Let it be V seconds. Therefore, the time taken by the ultrasonic waves to go from the ship to the bottom of
Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12 image - 16
The method of finding the distance of object using echo is called echoranging. While, the method of finding the depth of the sea using echo is called echo-depth ranging. In this case, SONAR is called fathometer.

Question 6.
Explain by drawing a diagram, how the human ear works.

Explain how human ear works in the transmission of sound waves to the brain. (CBSE 2011, 2013)

Draw labelled diagram of auditory part of human ear and explain how the human ear works. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
The human ear is divided into three parts— the external ear, the middle ear and the inner ear (Figure 26).
Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12 image - 17
We shall discuss only the auditory aspect of the ear and not its detailed structure.
The external ear which we see is known as Pinna. This part collects the sound and sends it to the auditory canal.
The sound in the form of compressions (high pressure) and rarefaction (low pressure) reaches the ear drum or tympanum. When the compressions and rarefactions strike the ear drum, the ear drum begins to vibrate. These vibrations are transmitted across the middle ear by the three ossicles (the hammer, the anvil and the stirrup). The vibrations produced by the eardrum are amplified (i.e., their amplitude is increased) by the hammer, anvil and the stirrup.
The amplified vibrations are then transmitted to the cochlea. Cochlea is a coiled and fluid filled tube having the sense organ of hearing. The movement of the fluid in the cochlea due to the vibrations stimulates the auditory nerve. The impression (in the form of electrical signals) is carried by the auditory nerve to the brain. This impression is interpreted as sound by the brain.

Question 7.
Explain the technique of ultrasonography.
Answer:
Ultrasonics or Ultrasound
The waves of frequency greater than 20,000 Hz are known as ultrosonic waves or ultrasound. The frequency of ultrasonic wave is greater than 20,000 Hz and equal to 10⁷ Hz. These waves are not audible to a human ear but they can be heard by animals and birds.
Bats can produce ultrasonic waves by flapping their wings. They can also detect these waves. The ultrasonic waves produced by the bats after reflection from the obstacles like buildings guide them to remain away from the obstacles during their flights. Hence, they can fly during night without hitting the obstacles. Bats also catch their prey during night with the help of ultrasonic waves. The ultrasonic waves produced by a bat spread out. These waves after reflecting from a prey say an insect reach the bat. Hence, the bat can easily locate its prey (Figure 24).
Sound Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 12 image - 18
Dolphins also produce ultrasonic waves. Dolphins can also detect the ultrasonic waves. They catch their prey like a fish due to their ability to detect the ultrasonic waves reaching them after reflecting’ from a fish.

Hope given Previous Year Question Papers for CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound are helpful to complete your science homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online science tutoring for you.

Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8

May 7, 2023

Chapter 8 Motion Class 9 Science Important Questions with Answers PDF will help you in scoring more marks in your exams.

Motion Class 9 Important Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Based on Motion of an object along a straight line

Question 1.
What do you understand by the motion of an object ?
Answer:
An object is said to be in motion if its position change:, with time.

More Resources

Question 2.
What is a reference point ?
Answer:
A fixed point with respect to which the given object changes its position.

Question 3.
Is it possible that the train in which you are sitting appears to move while it is at rest ?
Answer:
Yes. The train at rest in which we are sitting appears to move when we look at another train moving parallel to the track on which our train is standing.

Question 4.
Define the term “distance”. –
Answer:
The length of actual path travelled by an object in the given time is called the distance travelled by the object.

Question 5.
Is distance a scalar or a vector quantity ?
Answer:
Distance is a scalar quantity’.

Question 6.
Define the term “displacement”.
Answer:
The shortest distance between the initial and final positions of the object in a particular direction.

Question 7.
Is displacement of an object a scalar or a vector quantity ?
Answer:
Displacement is a vector quantity.

Question 8.
Under what condition is distance and the magnitude of the displacement equal ?
(CBSE 2010, 2013, 2014, 2015)
Answer:
Distance and magnitude of the displacement are equal if an object moves along a straight line in one direction.

Question 9.
A particle is moving in a circle of diameter 5 m. What is its displacement when it completes 1 ~ revolutions ?
Answer:
After 1 revolution, particle is diametrically opposite to its initial position. Therefore, its displacement = diameter of the circle = 5 m.

Question 10.
What do you mean by uniform motion ? (CBSE 2010, 2012)
Answer:
The motion of an object is uniform motion if it travels equal distances in equal intervals of time along a straight line.

Question 11.
What is non-uniform motion ? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
The motion of an object is non-uniform if it travels unequal distances in equal intervals of time.

Question 12.
Give one example of non-uniform motion. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
A bus moving on a hilly road or on a zig-zag road.

Question 13.
What is the shape of the path of a body when it is in uniform motion ?
Answer:
Straight line.

Based on Speed and Velocity

Question 14.
Define the term “speed”.
Answer:
The distance travelled by an object per unit time is known as speed of the object.

Question 15.
State SI unit of speed.
Answer:
metre/second (ms^-1)

Question 16.
Is speed a scalar or a vector quantity ?
Answer:
Speed is a scalar quantity.

Question 17.
Define uniform speed.
Answer:
The speed of an object is said to be uniform speed if it travels equal distances in equal intervals of time.

Question 18.
Define average speed. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Average speed is the ratio of the total distance travelled by an object to the total time taken by it.

Question 19.
What does speedometer of an automobile measure ?
Answer:
Speedometer of a vehicle measures its instantaneous speed.

Question 20.
Define the term “velocity”.
Answer:
Velocity is defined as the ratio of the displacement of an object to the time taken by it.

Question 21.
What do you understand by a uniform velocity ?

When is a body said to have uniform velocity ? (CBSE 2011, 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Velocity of an object is uniform if it has equal displacements in equal intervals of time.

Question 22.
What do you understand by a non-uniform velocity ?

When is a body said to have non-uniform velocity ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Velocity of an object is non-uniform if it has unequal displacements in equal intervals of time.

Question 23.
Define average velocity.
Answer:
Average velocity is the ratio of the total displacement of an object to the total time taken by it.

Question 24.
Is velocity a scalar or a vector quantity ?
Answer:
Velocity is a vector quantity.

Question 25.
An object starts with initial velocity u and attains final velocity V. The velocity is changing at a uniform rate.
What is the formula for calculating average speed in this situation ? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 32

Question 26.
A physical quantity measured is -10 m s^-1. Is it a speed or velocity ?
Answer:
It is velocity because velocity can be positive or negative. On the other hand, speed is always positive.

Question 27.
What is the numerical ratio of average velocity to average speed of an object when it is moving along a straight path ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
In this case, both are equal, so ratio is 1.
Based on Acceleration

Question 28.
Define acceleration of a body.
Answer:
Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity per unit time.

Question 29.
State SI unit of acceleration.
Answer:

Question 30.
Is acceleration a scalar or a vector quantity ?
Answer:
It is a vector quantity.

Question 31.
Why does (second)²in the unit of acceleration ?
Answer:
change in velocity change in displacement
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 1

Question 32.
Name the physical quantity that corresponds to the rate of change of velocity.
Answer:
Acceleration.

Question 33.
What do you mean by positive acceleration ? (CBSE 2013, 2015)
Answer:
When the change in velocity of a body takes place in the direction of motion of the body, then the acceleration is positive.

Question 34.
Give one example of positive acceleration.
Answer:
The acceleration of a body is positive, when it falls from certain height.

Question 35.
What do you mean by negative acceleration ? (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
When the change in velocity of a body takes place in a direction opposite to the direction of motion of the body, then the acceleration is negative.

Question 36.
Give one example of retardation or negative acceleration. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
When the velocity of a train decreases before entering the platform.

Question 37.
When do you say that a body is in uniform acceleration ? (CBSE 2010, 2013)

Define uniform acceleration. (CBSE 2010, 2013, 2014, 2015)
Answer:
When the velocity of a body changes by an equal amount in equal intervals of time, then the body is in uniform . acceleration.

Question 38.
When do you say that a body has non-uniform acceleration ? (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
When the velocity of a body changes by unequal amount in equal intervals of time, then the body is in non¬uniform acceleration.

Question 39.
Give an example of a motion in which the acceleration is in the direction of motion.
Answer:
When a body (say a ball) falls from the roof of a house, then the acceleration of the body is in the direction of motion.

Question 40.
Give an example of a motion in which the acceleration is against the direction of motion.
Answer:
When a ball rolling over a horizontal surface slows down due to the force of friction between the ball and the horizontal surface, then acceleration is against the direction of motion.

When a body is thrown upward, then the acceleration is against the direction of motion of the body.

Question 41.
What is the acceleration of a body moving with uniform velocity in a straight line ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 2
Since velocity is uniform, so change in velocity = 0. Hence, acceleration of body = 0.
Based on distance-time and velocity-time graphs

Question 42.
Draw a distance-time graph for an object at rest.
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 3

Question 43.
What will you say about the motion of a body if its distance-time graph is a straight line having a constant angle with time axis ? (CBSE 2010)
Answer:
If distance-time graph is a straight line having a constant angle with time axis, then the distance travelled by the body increases in equal amount in equal intervals of time. It means, the motion of the body is a uniform motion.
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 4

Question 44.
If the displacement-time graph for a particle is parallel to time axis, how much is the velocity of the particle.
(CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Velocity is zero as there is no change in displacement with time.

Question 45.
What does the slope of a velocity-time graph represent ?
(CBSE 2010, Term I)
Answer:
It represents the acceleration of the body.

Question 46.
Figure shows the displacement-time graph of four children A, B, C and D. Which child has the highest velocity ? (CBSE 2010, 2012, 2013)
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 5
Answer:
Velocity = Slope of displacement – time graph.
Since slope of displacement-time graph for the child B is greater than all other children. Hence, child B has the highest velocity.

Question 47.
What can you say about the motion of a body if its velocity-time graph is a straight line parallel to time axis ?
(CBSE 2012)
Answer:
When velocity-time graph of the motion of a body is a straight line parallel to time axis, then the velocity of the body does not change with time. So the body is said to move with constant velocity.
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 6

Question 48.
Name the physical quantity measured by the area occupied below velocity-time graph for uniform motion.
(CBSE2012, 2014)
Answer:
Magnitude of displacement of the body = area under v-t graph.

Question 49.
Plot velocity-time graph of a body moving with constant or uniform velocity. (CBSE 2012, 2014)
Answer:
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 7

Question 50.
Velocity-time graph of a body is shown in figure A.
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 8
What conclusion can be drawn about the type of motion ? (CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Motion of the body is uniform motion.

Question 51.
Velocity-time graph of a body is shown in figure B.
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 9
What conclusion can be drawn about the velocity of the body from this graph ?
(CBSE Sample Paper 2010, 2011)
Answer:
Body is moving with constant velocity = 4 m s^-1.

Based on circular motion

Question 52.
Define circular motion. (CBSE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
The motion of a body moving around a fixed point in a circular path.

Question 53.
State the meaning of uniform circular motion.
(CBSE 2010, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015)
Answer:
The circular motion of a body having constant speed is called uniform circular motion.

Question 54.
Give an example of a uniform circular motion. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
A cyclist travelling with constant speed on a circular path.

Question 55.
Is uniform circular motion accelerated motion ?
(CBSE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Uniform circular motion of a body is accelerated because its direction of motion changes continuously although its speed is constant.

Question 56.
If the acceleration of the particle is constant in magnitude but not in direction, what type of path does the particle follow.
Answer:
Circular path.

Question 57.
Why is the motion of an athlete moving along the circular path an accelerated motion ?
Answer:
The direction of motion of the athlete is changing continuously, so his velocity is also changing continuously. Due to change in velocity along the circular path, his motion is accelerated motion.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Based on motion of an object along a straight line

Question 1.
Can a body exist in a state of absolute rest or of absolute motion ? Explain with example. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
A state of rest or state of motion is not absolute but it is a relative term. A body at rest in one frame of reference
may be in motion in other frame of reference. For example, a passenger sitting in a moving bus is at rest with respect to the bus or other co-passengers. However, the same passenger is in motion with respect to a person standing on a road side. Thus, rest and motion are relative terms.

Question 2.
Distinguish between distance and displacement. (CBSE 2010, 2012, 2013)
Answer:

Distance	Displacement
1. Distance is the length of the actual path travelled by an object in a given interval of time.	1. Displacement is the shortest distance between the initial and final positions of a moving object in a particular direction.
2. Distance travelled by an object depends upon the shape of the path followed by the object in going from initial position to the final position. Distance travelled by an object in a given interval of time is always positive. Distance is a scalar quantity.	2. The displacement of an object between initial and final positions of the object does not depend upon shape of the path followed by it. Displacement of an object in a given interval of time may be positive, negative or zero. Displacement is a vector quantity.

Question 3.
Mention two differences between speed and velocity. (CBSE 2013, 2015)
Answer:

Speed	Velocity
1. Distance travelled by an object per unit time is known as its speed.	The distance travelled by an object in a particular direction (i.e. displacement) per unit time is known as its velocity.
2. Average speed of a moving object cannot be zero.	Average velocity of a moving object can be zero.
3. Speed tells how fast an object moves.	Velocity tells how fast an object moves and in which direction it moves.
4. Speed is a scalar quantity.	Velocity is a vector quantity.
5. Speed of an object is always positive.	Velocity of an object can be positive or negative.

Question 4.
Give one example each to differentiate between uniform acceleration and non-uniform acceleration.
(CBSE 2010, 2012)
Answer:
Object has uniform acceleration if its velocity changes by an equal amount in equal intervals of time. For example, motion of an object falling freely from the top of a building.
On the other hand if velocity of an object changes by an unequal amount in equal intervals of time, then it has non-uniform acceleration. For example, the motion of a bus on a hilly track or on a circular track.

Question 5.
Differentiate acceleration from velocity.
Answer:

Acceleration

Velocity

1. Acceleration of an object is defined as the change in velocity of the object per unit time.

2. SI unit of a acceleration is m s^-2.

1. Velocity of an object is defined as the change in displacement of the object per unit time.

2. SI unit of velocity is m s^-1.

Based on distance-time and velocity-time graph

Question 6.
What kind of motion of a body is represented by the graphs shown in figure C ?
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 10
Answer:
(a) Body is at rest because its distance does not change with time.
(b) Body has uniform motion and then comes to rest.

Question 7.
Explain the differences between the two graphs shown in figure E.
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 11
Answer:
Graph (a) shows that body starts from rest and then accelerates uniformly.
Graph (b) shows that body starts with some initial velocity (≠0) and then accelerates uniformly

Question 8.
Four speed-time graphs are shown in figure F :
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 12
Which graph represents the following cases ?
(a) A ball thrown vertically upwards and returning to the hand of the thrower.
(b) A body decelerating to a constant speed and then accelerating.

Answer:
(a) Graph (a)
(b) Graph (d).

Question 9.
What do the graphs (I and II) shown in figure G indicate ?
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 14
Answer:
Graph I indicates that a body has certain initial speed and then its speed decreases to zero. In other words, this graph shows the retarded motion of a body.
Graph II shows that a body first retards and then accelerates.

Question 10.
A person travelling in a bus noted the timings and the corresponding distances as indicated on the km stones.
(a) Name this type of table.
(b) What conclusion do you draw from this table ?
Answer:
(a) The table gives distance-time data.

Time	Distance
8:00 am	10 km
8:15 am	20 km
8:30 am	30 km
8:45 am	40 km
9:00 am	50 km

(b) As the bus is travelling equal distances in equal intervals of time, so the motion of the bus is uniform motion.

Question 11.
The distance-time graph of trains are given in figure L.
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 15
The trains start simultaneously in the same direction.
(i) How much ahead of A is B when the motion starts ?
(ii) What is the speed of B ?
(iii) When and where will A catch B ?
(iv) What is the difference between the speeds of A and B ?
(v) Is the speed of both the trains uniform or non-uniform ? Justify your answer.
Answer:
(i)
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 16
(iii) After 2 hours, A catches B. A catches B at Q i.e. 150 km from origin O.
(iv) Speed = slope of distance – time graph. Since slope of distance – time graph for A is greater than that of B, therefore, speed of A is greater than the speed of B.
(v) Speed of both the trains is uniform.

Question 12.
In a long distance race, the athletes were expected to take four rounds of the track such that the line of finish was same as the line of start. Suppose the length of the track was 200 m.

What is the total distance to be covered by the athletes ?
What is the displacement of the athletes when they touch the finish line ?
Is the motion of athletes uniform or non-uniform ?

Answer:

Total distance to be covered in four rounds = 4 x length of track = 4 x 200 = 800 m.
Since initial and final positions of athletes are same, so displacement of athletes = 0.
Motion of athletes is non-uniform as they cover unequal distances in equal intervals of time.

Question 13.
Draw a velocity-time graph for an object in uniform motion. Show that the area under the velocity-time graph gives the displacement of the object in the given time interval.
Answer:
Velocity-time graph for an object in uniform motion is shown in figure M.
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 17

Question 14.
Which of the two bodies A and B in the following graph is moving with higher speed and why ?
(CBSE 2015)
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 18
Answer:
Speed of a body = slope of distance-time graph.
Since slope of distance-time graph for body B is greater than the slope of distance-time graph for body A. Therefore, body B is moving with higher speed than body A.

Question 15.
Which of the two bodies A and B in the following graph is moving with a greater acceleration and why ?
(CBSE 2015)
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 19
Answer:
Acceleration of a body = slope of V — t graph. Since slope of V — t graph for body B is greater than the slope of V – t graph for body A, therefore, body B is moving with a greater acceleration than the body A.

Based on equation of motion

Question 16.
State three equations of motion. Which of them describes :
(i) velocity-time relation
(ii) position-time relation ?
(CBSE 2013, 2015)
Answer:

Question 17.
Write any two equations of motion for a body having uniform acceleration.
Answer:

Based on circular motion

Question 18.
What is uniform circular motion ? How is uniform circular motion regarded as an accelerated motion ? Explain. (CBSE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
Circular motion of a body having constant speed is known as uniform circular motion.
When a body has uniform circular motion, its velocity changes due to the continuous change in the direction of its motion. Hence, the motion of the body is accelerated motion.

Question 19.
What is the difference between uniform motion in a straight line and uniform circular motion ?
(CBSE 2010, 2012, 2013)
Answer:

Uniform motion in a straight line	Uniform motion in a straight line
1. The direction of motion of an object does not change.	1. direction of motion of an object changes continuously.
2. If an object moves with constant velocity, acceleration of the object is zero.	2. uniform circular motion, object moves with constant speed but its direction of motion changes continuously. Therefore, velocity of an object having uniform circular motion changes. Hence, the motion.

Question 20.
An object is moving with uniform speed in a circle of radius r. Calculate the distance and displacement
(a) When it completes half the circle,
(b) When it completes full circle,
(c) What type of motion does the object possess ?
Answer:
(a) When object completes half the circle,
distance travelled by the object = ½ x circumference of the circle = ½ x 2πr
= πr. Displacement of the object = 2r (∴ object is just at opposite position from its original position).
(b) Distance travelled by the object = circumference of the circle = 2πr. Displacement of the object = zero (∴ object’s initial and final positions are same).
(c) Since the direction of motion of the object changes continuously in the circle, hence its velocity changes and its motion is accelerated motion.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Draw velocity-time graph for an uniformly accelerated object. Using velocity-time graph, derive v = u + at.

Derive the equation of motion V = u + at using graphical method. (CBSE 2011, 2013, 2015)
Answer:
Derivation of First Equation of Motion From Velocity-Time Graph (Equation for Velocity-time Relation)
The velocity-time graph of a uniformly accelerated motion of the body having initial velocity (u) is shown in figure .
The velocity-time graph is a straight line AB.
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 22

Question 2.
Draw velocity-time graph for an uniformly accelerated object. Using velocity-time graph, derive S = ut + ½ at² .
(CBSE 2010, 2011, 2013, 2015)

From velocity-time graph of a body, derive equation for “position-time” relation (II equation of motion) for a body. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 24

Question 3.
Draw velocity-time graph for an uniformly accelerated object. Using velocity-time graph, derive v² – u² = 2aS.
(CBSE 2010, 2011, 2013)
Answer:
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 25

Question 4.
Write the three equations for the uniformly accelerated motion. Also derive the second and third equations
by graphical method. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Derivation of First Equation of Motion From Velocity-Time Graph (Equation for Velocity-time Relation)
The velocity-time graph of a uniformly accelerated motion of the body having initial velocity (u) is shown in figure 28.
The velocity-time graph is a straight line AB.
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 26

Question 5.
An object starts a linear motion with velocity ‘u’ and with acceleration ‘a’ It acquires a velocity ‘v’ in time ‘t’.
(i) Draw its velocity-time graph
(ii) Obtain 1st equation of motion, v = u + at for velocity time relation using this graph. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
(i)
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 30
(ii)
Derivation of First Equation of Motion From Velocity-Time Graph (Equation for Velocity-time Relation)
The velocity-time graph of a uniformly accelerated motion of the body having initial velocity (u) is shown in figure 28.
The velocity-time graph is a straight line AB.
Motion Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 8 image - 31

Hope given Previous Year Question Papers for CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion are helpful to complete your science homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online science tutoring for you.

Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7

May 7, 2023

Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Science Important Questions with Answers PDF will help you in scoring more marks in your exams.

Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions and Answers Science Chapter 7

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give technical term : A flowering plant whose embryo possesses a single cotyledon. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Monocot.

More Resources

Question 2.
Name the kingdom: A unicellular eukaryotic aquatic organism. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Protista.

Question 3.
Rewrite the scientific name correctly

panthera tigris
Periplaneta Americana. (CCE 2012)

Answer:

Panthera tigris
Periplaneta americana.

Question 4.
Name the term used for

Left and right halves of the body having the same design
Animals where tissues develop from three germinal layers. (CCE 2012)

Answer:

Bilateral Symmetry
Triploblastic.

Question 5.
State the phylum to which Centipede, Scorpion and Prawn belong. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Arthropoda.

Question 6.
State the phylum to which Liverfluke and Planaria belong.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Platyhelminthes.

Question 7.
State the phylum to which Antedon (Feather Star) and Asterias (Star Fish) belong. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Echinodermata.

Question 8.
State the system in poriferans that helps in circulating water throughout the body to bring in food and oxygen.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Canal system.

Question 9.
What is the common feature between bryophytes and frogs ? (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Both are amphibians with bryophytes living in moist cool habitats and frogs living both on land and water.

Question 10.
Shyam knew the correct name of Mango but did not follow the conventions while writing it and wrote it as Mangifera Indica. Rewrite the scientific name as per conventions. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Mangifera indica.

Question 11.
Name the group of plants which produces seeds but not fruits. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Gymnosperms ( = Gymnospermae).

Question 12.
Give reason why blue green algae are classified alongwith bacteria and placed in kingdom monera. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Blue-green algae are prokaryotic like bacteria.

Question 13.
Mention the location and function of notochord.(CCE 2012)
Answer:
It lies dorsally, ventral to nerve cord, and provides attachment to muscles.

Question 14.
Write difference between bryophytes and pteridophytes. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Bryophytes are non-vascular cryptogams with dominant gametophyte while pteridophytes are vascular cryptogams with dominant sporophytic plant body.

Question 15.
Name the kingdom having organisms with holes or pores all over the body. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Animalia (phylum porifera).

Question 16.
How would you call the symbiotic relationship between fungi and certain blue-green algae ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Lichen.

Question 17.
Name an organism whose heart is two-chambered. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Fish.

Question 18.
Explain the term symbiosis. (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Symbiosis is mutually beneficial obligatory relationship between two organisms, e.g, lichen.

Question 19.
Name the phylum of animal kingdom to which parasitic worms causing diseases such as filarial worm, round worm belong. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Nemathelminthes.

Question 20.
Name one reptile with four chambered heart. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Crocodile.

Question 21.
Write the scientific name of common frog. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Rana tigrina.

Question 22.
Name animal phylum which exclusively has free living marine animals. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Echinodermata.

Question 23.
Name one mammal that lays eggs. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Echidna.

Question 24.
Write the name of phylum to which Hydra and Sea Anemone belong. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Coelenterata (Cnidaria).

Question 25.
Name the phylum to which Sycon and Euplectella belong.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Porifera.

Question 26.
Name an organism which is called saprophyte. Why is it called so ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Rhizopus. The organism is called saprophyte because it obtains nourishment from organic remains.

Question 27.
What is the habitat of poriferans ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Aquatic, sedentary, attached to solid substratum, mostly in sea but a few fresh water forms as well.

Question 28.
Which is the lowermost category in the hierarchy of classification of groups of organisms ? (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Species.

Question 29.
In the hierarchy of classification

which grouping will have smallest number of organisms with a maximum number of common characteristics and
which will have the largest number of organisms. (CCE 2011, 2012)

Answer:

Species
Kingdom.

Question 30.
Name a division of plants which can be classified as cryptogamae. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Thallophyta/Bryophyta/Pteridophyta.

Question 31.
Write one difference between echinodermata and chordata.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
In echinoderms a notochord is absent while the same is present in chordates.

Question 32.
In which Kingdom would you place an organism which is multicellular and without cell wall ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Animalia.

Question 33.
Write the name of a species belonging to coelenterata which lives in colonies. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Obelia, Coral.

Question 34.
Write the two words that constitute binomial nomenclature.(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Genus (generic name) and species (specific epithet).

Question 35.
To which group in the hierarchy of classification saprophytes belong ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Saprophytes mosdy belong to kingdom fungi.

Question 36.
Name the phylum to which turtle and king cobra belong.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Chordata ( Class Reptilia).

Question 37.
Name the phylum to which Leech and Earthworm belong.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Annelida.

Question 38.
Name the phylum to which Octopus and Unio/Pila belong.
(CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Mollusca.

Question 39.
Write one point of difference between radial and bilateral symmetry. (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
In radial symmetry body can be divided into two equal halves by any vertical plane passing through central axis while in bilateral symmetry body is divisible into two equal halves by only midsagittal plane.

Question 40.
Mention three animal phyla that possess true coelom. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata.

Question 41.
Identify the given specimen and write its characteristic features. (CCE 2012)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 1
Answer:
Moss (Funaria): It has leaf like and stem-like structures. The plant is a gametophyte bearing rhizoids and dependent sporophyte.

Question 42.
In which kingdom will you place an organism which is single-celled, eukaryotic and photosynthetic ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Protista.

Question 43.
Explain the term angiosperm. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Angiosperms are seed plants in which the seeds are produced inside fruits and the sporophylls are aggregated to form flowers.

Question 44.
Poriferans have holes or pores all over the body that lead to a system that helps in circulating water to bring in food and oxygen. Name the system. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Canal system.

Question 45.
Which division amongst plants has the simplest organisms? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Thallophyta.

Question 46.
Write two points of difference between Protozoa and Porifera. (CCE 2014)
Answer:

Protozoa are unicellular while Porifera are multicellular.
Protozoa are moslty motile. Porifera are sedentary in the mature state.

Question 47.
Where are seeds of gymnosperms formed ? (CCE 2014)
Answer:
On the megasporophylls found in female cones.

Question 48.
Why is it difficult to classify bacteria ? Give two reasons.
(CCE 2014)
Answer:

Bacteria are microscopic,
There are limited differences in structure and functions.

Question 49.
Relate the given plant with its division in the scheme of classification (CCE 2014)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 2
Answer:
Spermatophyta-Angiospermae- Dicotyledoneae.

Question 50.
Name the substance which makes the cell wall of fungi.
(CCE 2014)
Answer:
Chitin (=fungus cellulose), a complex carbohydrate.

Question 51.
What do you understand by diploblastic ? Give one example of an organism which is diploblastic. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
Diploblastic are animals having two germinal layers, ectoderm and endoderm, e.g. Sycon.

Question 52.
An amoeba and a worm are very different in their body design. State the basic difference between them.
(CCE 2015)
Answer:
Amoeba is a unicellular organism while worm is a multicellular organism.

Question 53.
Arrange the following groups from lower to higher level : Genus, Class, Division, Family, order. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
Genus – Family – Order – Class – Division.

Question 54.
Pick the odd one from the following :
(a) Amoeba, Sponge, Euglena, Frog,
(b) Snail, Slug, Squid, Snake. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
(a) Sponge
(b) Snake.

Question 55.
How many chambers do most of the reptiles have in their heart ? Name one reptile which has four chambered heart.
(CCE 2015)
Answer:
Incomplete four chambers. Complete four chambers occur in crocodile.

Question 56.
A pore bearing organism like creature ‘A’ belongs to phylum ‘B’ of kingdom animalia. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’.(CCE2016)
Answer:
A—Sponge.
B—Porifera.

Question 57.
What are lichens ? (CCE 2017)
Answer:
Licherns are dual organisms which have been formed by permanent symbiotic association between an alga and a fungus.

Question 58.
What is symbiotic relationship ? Give an example.
(CCE 2017)
Answer:
Symbiosis is mutually beneficial obligatory relationship between two organisms, e.g, lichen.

Short Answer Questions (2 marks)

Question 1.

Write one main characteristic feature that differentiates gymnosperms from angiosperms.
Give one example each of a gymnosperm and an angiosperm. (CCE 2011, 2013)

Answer:

Gymnosperms possess naked seeds while angiosperms contain seeds enclosed inside the fruit.
Example of Gymnosperm. Pinus. Example of Angiosperm. Mango.

Question 2.
(i) Identify the class of animals having the following characteristics features :
(a) Warm blooded animals that lay eggs and have four chambered heart and a covering of feathers.
(b) Cold blooded animals having scales and they breathe through lungs.
(ii) Give an example of an animal belonging to each of these classes. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(i)
(a) Aves
(b) Reptilia
(ii) Example of Aves. Pigeon. Example of Reptilia. Snake.

Question 3.
What are the four main characteristics of chordates ? (CCE 2011,2012,2013, 2014)
Answer:
Presence of

Notochord which in higher forms is transformed into cranium and vertebral column,
Dorsal Hollow Nerve Cord. In higher chordates, it is transformed into brain and spinal cord.
Pharyngeal Gill Slits. Present at some stage of life cycle,
Post-anal tail.

Question 4.
(a) Give one characteristic difference between primitive and advanced organisms.
(b) Name the phylum to which the following are included :

Spider
Cockroach
Prawn
Housefly. (CCE 2011)

Answer:
(a) Primitive organisms have simple basic body design while advanced organisms have more complex body structure with specialisations.
(b) Arthropoda.

Question 5.
What is binomial nomenclature ? Who introduced it ? (CCE 2011, 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Binomial nomenclature is a scientific system of poviding distinct and proper names to organisms where each name consists of two words, generic and specific epithet. It was introduced by Carolus Linnaeus (1751).

Question 6.
(a) What are the two adaptive features of birds ?
(b) What is the scientific name of Ostrich ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Adaptive Features of Birds,

Body covered by feathers,
Fore limbs modified into wings.

(b) Ostrich. Struthio camelus.

Question 7.
(a) List two features which differentiate chordates from non-chordates.
(b) In which phylum will you place the organisms which have

Calcareous spines on their body,
Presence of holes or pores all over the body. (CCE 2011 )

Answer:
(a) Chordate Features.

Occurrence of notochord that is transformed into cranium and vertebral column in higher chordates.
Presence of dorsal hollow nerve cord above the notochord which in higher chordates is transformed into brain and spinal cord.

(b)

Echinodermata.
Porifera.

Question 8.
How do saprophytes get their food ? Give two examples of saprophytes. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Saprophytes are organisms that feed on organic remains by the process of external digestion.
Examples. Mushroom, Rhizopus.

Question 9.
Characters of some organisms are given. Identify their group and give an example of each
(a) Single-celled, eukaryotic and photosynthetic.
(b) The body is divided into segments, may be unisexual or hermaphrodite. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Protista – diatoms.
(b) Annelida – Nereis, Pheretima.

Question 10.
(a) How many chambers do the heart of fish, amphibians and mammals have ?
(b) Name the classes of vertebrates which lay eggs with shells. (CCE (2011)
Answer:
(a)

Heart of Fish – Two chambered.
Heart of Amphibians – Three chambered.
Heart of Mammals – Four chambered.

(b) Reptilia, Aves.

Question 11.
List the major divisions in kingdom plantae. Write the characteristic features of any one of them. (CCE (2011)
Answer:
Divisions of Kingdom Plantae. Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, Spermatophyta (Gymnosperms, Angiosperms).
Characteristic Features of Bryophyta.

Absence of vascular tissues.
Simple vegetative structure.
Amphibians.
Plant body gametophyte.
Sporophyte parasitic over gametophyte.
Sex organs are multicellular and’jacketed.
An embryo stage present in the life cycle.

Question 12.
(a) Explain binomial nomenclature. What are its conventions ?
(b) Name the scientist who has given it.
(c) Write its advantage. (CCE 2011, 2012, 2016)
Answer:
(a) Binomial nomenclature is a scientific system of providing distinct and proper two word name to each and every organism.
Conventions.

It consists of two words, first generic (like noun) and second specific (species).
Generic name has first letter capital while specific word begins with small letter.
Both are derived from latin language or are latinised.
They are printed in italics or are underlined separately in hand-written form.

(b) Binomial nomenclature was given by Carolus Linnaeus (1751).
(c) Advantage:

It is universal, being the same in all languages and conntries.
It is distinct and sepcific with no two organisms having the same name.

Question 13.
Why is there a need for classification and systematic naming of living organisms ? (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Need for Classification. A good system of classification is required for

Identification of organisms.
Study of organisms of other regions.
Study of whole range of organisms, choosing one or a few from each group.
Find similarities and dissimilarities, relationships and evolutionary trends.

Need for Systematic Naming. It is scientific naming of groups and subgroups and arranging them in a hierarchy with each taxon having some characteristics of its own.
This helps in locating the position of an organism.

Question 14.
Why bryophytes are called the amphibians of the plant j kingdom? (CCE2011, 2013)
Answer:
Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom as they live in moist, damp and shady places. A layer of water is required on the soil surface for

Sexual reproduction.
Protection from transpiration and hence desiccation
Supply of water to all parts in the absence of vascular tissues.

Question15.
Some reptiles live in water and yet lay eggs with tough covering unlike the amphibians. Why ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Reptiles evolved over land where hard shelled eggs occur for protecting the embryo surrounded by extra-embryonic membranes. Some reptiles went back into aquatic habitats, However, they did not lose their hard shelled eggs which are usually laid over the banks of water bodies.

Question 16.
(a) Define cryptogams.
(b) Name the division of plant kingdom having amphibian plants. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Cryptogams. They are seedless lower plants where reproductive organs are inconspicuous requiring an external water for fertilization.
(b) Bryophyta.

Question 17.
Bats can fly. Still they are placed in mammals. Why ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Bats are

Viviparous giving birth to young ones.
They possess mammae for feeding the young ones.
The body is covered by hair.

Question 18.
How are fungi

Similar and
dissimilar to plants ? (CCE 2011)

Answer:
Similarity. Presence of cell wall. Dissimilarity. Presence of chitin in cell wall (instead of cellulose) and glycogen (instead of starch) as reserve food.

Question 19.
How do thallophytes and pteridophytes differ from each other ? Write two differences. (CCE 2011)
Answer:

Thallophytes are the simplest plants with little differentiation while pteridophytes have a well differentiated body design.
Reproductive organs are single celled with no embryo stage in thallophytes. In pteridophytes the reproductive organs are multicellular and jacketed with an embryo stage being present in the life cycle.

Question 20.
(a) What is biodiversity ? (CCE 2013)
(b) List three/four features of vertebrates.
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Biodiversity. It is the occurrence of different types of organisms and their variants adapted to different environmental conditions and formation of different types of communities.
(b) Features ofVertebrates.

Notochord replaced by cranium and vertebral column,
Dorsal nerve cord transformed into brain and spinal cord.
Presence of paired gill pouches replaced by lungs in land animals.
A chambered ventral heart is present.

Question 21.
Give reasons for each of the following :
(a) “Blue-green algae are placed in Monera and not in Plantae”.
(b) “Bryophytes and pteridophytes grow in moist and shady places.” (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Blue-green algae are prokaryotes. They are, therefore, placed in Monera. Plantae includes eukaryotes.
(b) Bryophytes and pteridophytes occur in moist and shady places as they require a film of water over the surface of soil for the liberation and passage of sperms to the archegonia.

Question 22.
(a) Write any two important features that are present in all chordates.
(b) Mention one difference between triploblastic and diploblastic animals. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Chordate Features.

Occurrence of notochord that is transformed into cranium and vertebral column in higher chordates.
Presence of dorsal hollow nerve cord above the notochord which in higher chordates is transformed into brain and spinal cord.

(b) Difference Between Triploblastic and Diploblastic Animals. Triploblastic animals have three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm), while diplablastic animals have only two germ layers (ectoderm and endoderm).

Question 23.
Write two peculiar characters of sponges. (CCE 2011)
Answer:

Occurrence of a canal system and two types of pores.
Presence of flagellated collar cells or choanocytes.

Question 24.
(a) Give one difference between lizards and snakes.
(b) Name the type of nutrition in fungi. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Lizards have limbs and fixed jaw with limited gape while snakes are limbless with movable jaws for wide gape.
(b) Fungi have heterotrophic absorptive nutrition (saprophytic, parastic).

Question 25.
How can we say that Sea Horse is a fish while Jelly Fish is not a fish but a coelenterate ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Jelly Fish (Aurelia) is a diploblastic animal with tissue level organisation, a single opening and tentacles with nematoblasts like coelenterates.
Sea Horse (Hippocampus) possesses fins and gills covered by operculum like other bony fishes.

Question 26.

Which group of plants is known as flowering plants ?
On the basis of seed, how a maize plant is different from a pea plant ? (CCE 2011)

Answer:

Angiosperms (angiospermae).
Seed of Maize has a single cotyledon (monocotyledoneae) while the seed of Pea has two cotyledons (dicotyledoneae).

Question 27.
(a) What are saprophytes ?
(b) Name the kingdom to which they belong.
(c) What is the cell wall of fungi made of ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Saprophytes. They are organisms that feed on dead or decaying organic matter by first secreting digestive enzymes and then absorbing the digested materials.
(b) Kingdom. Fungi.
(c) Cell Wall of Fungi. It is made up of aminosugar polymer called chitin or fungus cellulose.

Question 28.
(a) Identify the class of the following organism having following features,

Slimy skin and three chambered heart.
Covering of feathers and four chambered heart.

(b) List two important characteristics of phylum Nematoda.
(CCE 2011, 2013)
Answer:
(a)

Amphibian (e.g. Frog)
Bird (e.g. Pigeon).

(b) Nematoda.

Cylindrical body with bilateral symmetry
Triploblastic nature with pseudocoelom, digestive system with mouth and anus.

Question 29.
Give any two reasons why mosses are found in moist and humid places. (CCE 2011)
Answer:

Mosses are prone to get dried up because of the absence of cuticle over their surface. Water can be absorbed by the whole surface.
Sperms require a thin layer of water on the soil to reach the opened archegonia.

Question 30.
Write the names of parts A, B, C and D. (CCE 2011)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 3
Answer:
A – Mouth.
B – Pectoral fin.
C – Dorsal fin.
D – Brood pouch.

Question 31.
What are gymnosperms ? Give two characteristics. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Gymnosperms are phanerogams which possess exposed (naked) seeds and where the sporophylls are aggregated to form cones.

Sporophylls are aggregated to form separate male and female cones.
Seeds do not occur inside fruits but develop exposed over the surface of megasporophylls.

Question 32.
(a) State two characterisics of nematodes.
(b) Identify the phylum with the help of following feactures :

Spiny-skinned, radial symmetrical and have tube feet,
Triploblastic, worm-like having segmented body (CCE 2011)

Answer:
(a)

Cylindrical body with bilateral symmetry
Triploblastic nature with pseudocoelom, digestive system with mouth and anus.

(b)

Echinodermata
Annelida.

Question 33.
Who proposed the five kingdom classification ? What is the basis of this classification ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Whittaker (1969). Four criteria have been used for grouping of organisms into five kingdoms—

Procaryotic and eukaryotic nature
Unicellular and multicellular nature
Nutrition

Question 34.
Label X and Y in the given diagram. (CCE 2011)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 4
Answer:
X — Stinging cell,
Y — Foot.

Question 35.
Write the major features of fungi (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:

The body called mycelium is made of achlorophyllous threads.
Cell wall contains chitin.
Nutrition is heterotrophic and absorptive,
Reserve food is glycogen and oil.

Question 36.
Enlist four main features of organisms placed in protista.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:

Unicellular or colonial, mostly aquatic, constituting plankton.
Eukaryotic organisation with nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles.
Locomotion present in many with the help of cilia, j flagella and pseudopodia.
Both asexual and sexual reproduction present. Sexual reproduction without an embryo stage.

Question 37.
Give four main features of phylum coelenterata.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:

Diploblastic animals with tissue level organisation.
Body has a single opening for both feeding and elimination.
Tentacles with cnidoblasts or nematoblasts.
Nerve cells present but nerve plexus absent.

Question 38.
Give one example of each of
(a) Reptile which has four chambered heart
(b) Egg laying mammal
(c) Parasitic platyhelminthes
(d) Division among plants which has the simplest organisms. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Crocodile
(b) Platypus
(c) Liver-fluke
(d) Uhthrix (thallophyta-algae).

Question 39.
Identify the phylum for the following characteristics given :
(a) Organisms with jointed appendages
(b) Organisms are generally flat worms
(c) Body is segmented
(d) Skin of organisms is full of spines. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Arthropoda
(b) Platyhelminthes
(c) Annelida
(d) Echinodermata.

Question 40.
Write any two characteristics of class mammalia.Name one egg laying mammal. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:

Presence of mammary glands in females
Presence of body hair.

Egg Laying Mammal. Platypus, Echidna.

Question 41.
An animal is dorsoventrally flattened, has three embryonic germ layers and is acoelomate.
To which phylum does it belong ? What are they commonly called ? Give one example. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Phylum. Platyhelminthes. Common Name Flatworms. Example. Planaria.

Question 42.
Write the name used for the following :
(a) Plants which bear naked seeds
(b) Animals which have pseudocoelom
(c) Animals which maintain a certain body temperature over a wide range of temperature in the environment.
(CCE 2012, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Gymnosperms
(b) Pseudocoelomates-Nemathelminthes
(c) Homoiotherms or warm blooded.

Question 43.
What is parasite ? Give two examples. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Parasite is an organism which obtains its food from a living organism of another species called host. Examples. Fasciola (Liver Fluke), Ascaris (Common Roundworm).

Question 44.
(a) State the number of chambers in the heart of

Fishes
Frogs,

(b) Define

Triploblastic and
Bilateral Symmetry. (CCE 2012)

Answer:
(a)

2 chambers
3 chambers,

(b)

Triploblastic: Animals having three germinal layers—ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm, viz., platyhelminthes to chordates.
Bilateral Symmetry: It is a symmetry in which organs are paired with each one of the pair lying on right and left sides of the body, e.g., chordates, arthropods.

Question 45.

Cat, Platypus and Man are all mammals. Yet one of the most unique feature of mammals when considered helps to divide them’ into two groups. What is that feature ?
Mention two other characteristic features which are common to all the three animals. (CCE 2012)

Answer:

Vivipary: Platypus is egg laying mammal while the other two give birth to young ones,
1. Presence of hair over the body
2. Occurrence of mammary glands in females.

Question 46.
Fungi have cell wall but still they cannot be classified under kingdom plantae. Give two reasons. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Cell wall of fungi contains chitin while in plantae it has cellulose. Further, the reserve carbohydrate food is glycogen in fungi and starch in plantae. Fungi are heterotrophic while most plants are autotrophic.

Question 47.
List two reasons why whales are not grouped with fishes ?
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Whales are mammals which have

Four chambered heart, pulmonary respiration and a diaphragm while fishes have two chambered heart, gill respiration and no diaphragm.
Whales are warm blooded with mammary glands in females. Fishes are cold blooded. Mammary glands do not occur in them.

Question 48.
Jelly fish and Star Fish are not true fishes. To which group do they belong ? Give one characteristic features of each to say they belong to the respective groups. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Jelly Fish: Coelenterata—diploblastic with cnidoblasts. Star Fish. Echinodermata—Spiny skinned with tube feet.

Question 49.
Write four characters of monerans. (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Prokaryotic Nature. The genetic material is a single double stranded DNA coiled in the cytoplasm to form nucleoid. A nuclear mambrane is absent.
Cell Organelles. Membrane covered cell organelles are absent.
Flagella. If present, they are single stranded.
Cell Wall. It is made of murein or peptidoglycan.

Question 50.
Give three features of butterfly to justify its classification in phylum arthropoda. Mention one more animal of the same phylum.
Answer:

Chitinous exoskeleton,
Jointed appendages
Open circulatory System.
Other Example. Prawn.

Question 51.
Some fungal species live in permanent mutually dependent relationship with blue-green algae. Name the relationship. Mention where these forms are grown and what they are called ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Symbiosis or mutualism. The dual organisms grow on rocks and tree trunks. They are called lichens.

Question 52.
Write one point of difference between bony fish and cartilaginous fish with one example of each. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
A bony fish has a bony endoskeleton with terminal mouth ‘‘find gill slits covered by operculum, e.g., Labeo. A cartilaginous fish has cartilaginous endoskeleton with ventral mouth and uncovered gill slits, e.g., Scoliodon.

Question 53.
Classify the following fishes as cartilaginous or bony,

Sting Ray
Scoliodon (Dog Fish)
Labeo rohita (Rohu)
Caulophrynejordani (Angler Fish). (CCE2012)

Answer:

String Ray. Cartilaginous,
Scoliodon. Cartilaginous.
Labeo rohita. Bony,
Caulophryne jordani. Bony. Cell wall of fungi is made of chitin.

Question 54.

What is chemical nature of chitin ?
What is the mode of nutrition in fungi ? (CCE 2012, 2013)

Answer:

Chitin is polysaccharide made of N-acetyl glucosamine monomers,
Absorptive heterotrophic.

Question 55.
Identify the class of animals having following characteristic
(a) Warm blooded having four chambered heart and modified fore limbs for flight,
(b) Organisms having mucous glands in the skin, lack scales, respire either through gills or lungs. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Aves
(b) Amphibia.

Question 56.
Select the odd one with respect to classification. Also give reason for your choice,
(a) Mango, Gram, Rice, Apple.
(b) Prawn, Scorpion, Octopus, Butterfly. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Rice: Rice is monocot while others are dicots,
(b) Octopus: Octopus belongs to mollusca while all others are arthrophods.

Question 57.
How do amphibians respire and reproduce ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Respiration: Amphibians respire through lungs, skin and in many cases gills.
Reproduction: Sexes are separate. Fertilization is external.

Question 58.
Name the phylum to which the following belong.
(a) Silver Fish
(b) Sea Horse,
(c) Star Fish
(d) Jelly Fish. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Silver Fish. Arthropoda.
(b) Sea Horse. Chordata.
(c) Star Fish. Echinodermata.
(d) Jelly Fish. Coelenterata.

Question 59.
Name the four categories used in hierarchical classification of organism. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Kingdom, Division/Phylum, Class, Order.

Question 60.
Write three distinguishing features of phylum echinodermata. Give one example. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Features

Skin is spiny,
A water vascular system connected with tube feet is present for helping in locomotion and respiration.
Symmetry is radial in adults and bilateral in larva. Example. Asterias (Star Fish).

Question 61.
The scientific name for tiger is Pantbera tigris. What does Panthera and tigris represent in binomial nomenclature. Name the scientist who introduced this system of scientific naming of organisms. (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Panthera: Genus or generic name, tigris. Species or specific epithet,
Carolus Linnaeus.

Question 62.
Identify the group :
(a) Animals without tissues, body bearing pores.
(b) Plant body differentiated into roots, stems and leaves but do not produce seeds,
(c) Body dorsoventrally flattened without coelom,
(d) Segmented worms with the body cavity with extensive organ differentiation.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Porifera
(b) Pteridophyta
(c) Platyhelminthes
(d) Annelida.

Question 63.
State the type of body cavity found in platyhelminthes. Write whether they are parasitic or free living. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Parenchymatous body cavity is present but coelom is absent. Both free living (e.g., Planaria) and parasitic (e.g., Fasciola) forms occur in platyhelminthes.

Question 64.
Echinoderms have a system that they use for moving around. Name the system. What is their skeleton made of ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Water vascular or ambulacral system.
Calcareous plates.

Question 65.
List any two similarities and two differences between Amoeba ‘ and Paramoecium. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Similarities :

Unicellular nature
Eukaryotic nature.
Presence of contractile vacuoles.

Differences :

Amoeba possesses pseudopodia while Paramoecium has cilia.
Amoeba has a single nucleus. Paramoecium has two nuclei.

Question 66.
(a) What is scientific name of humans ?
(b) Find the odd one out of Riccia, Funaria, Fern, Marchanda. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Homo sapiens
(b) Fern: It is a pteridophyte while others are bryophytes.

Question 67.
Given below are two groups of organisms belonging to kingdom Animalia.
Write the name of phylum to which they belong.
(a) Octopus, Pita, Unio
(b) Centipede, Prawn, Scorpion.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Mollusca
(b) Arthropoda.

Question 68.
Write two differences between pteridophyte and phanerogam. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 5

Question 69.
Name the phyla to which the following animals belong :
(a) Star Fish
(b) Leech. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Star Fish-Echinodermata
(b) Leech-Annelida.

Question 70.
Identify the organisms :
(a) A unicellular organism that uses flagella for moving around
(b) An organism that uses pseudopodia for moving around. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Flagella-Euglena
(b) Pisedopodia-Amoeba.

Question 71.
We start classification of plants on the basis of differentiation of plant body,

Which division lacks a well differentiated body design ?
Where are such plants predominantly found ? (CCE 2014)

Answer:

Thallophyta – algae,
Occurrence. Aquatic (both fresh and marine).

Question 72.
Give two features of Cockroach due to which it is classified as arthropod. (CCE 2014)
Answer:

Chitinous exoskeleton,
Jointed appendages
Open circulatory System.
Other Example: Prawn.

Question 73.
Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the diagram of a part of earthworm. What function is performed by ‘X’. (CCE 2014)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 6
Answer:
X- Prostomium.
Y-Peristomium.
Function of X: Sensory.

Question 74.
After observing an Earthworm, Samir decided to place it in phylum annelida. Which two features did he observe that helped him do so ? (CCE 2014)
Answer:

Long, segmented (metameric segmentation) body
Presence of rings of microscopic unjointed setae.

Question 75.
Give one function of gills in fishes. To which phylum do the fishes belong ? (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Gills: They are sites of respiration or exchange of gases between blood and water. Phylum. Chordata.

Question 76.
Mention two features adapted by birds which help them fly. (CCE 2014)
Answer:

Fore limbs modified into wings,
Stream-lined body, pneumatic bones.

Question 77.
Name the adaptation of fish which help them in
(a) Floating in water,
(b) Breathing. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a) Floating: Presence of air sac.
(b) Breathing: Occurrence of gills.

Question 78.
Name the habitat of earthworm and how is it useful to the animal. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Earthworm lives in moist soil from which it can obtain food as decaying organic matter, keep the skin moist for respira¬tion and easily dig narrow burrows

Question 79.
(a) Why is the body of bony fishes stream-lined ?
(b) List two habitats of bony fishes. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a) Stream-Lined Body. For meeting little resistance during swimming.
(b) Habitats. Fresh and marine waters.

Question 80.
State any two specific features of earthworm. (CCE 2014)
Answer:

Segmented cylindrical body,
Occurrence of clitellum.

Question 81.
The body of an organism is stream-lined and has feathers on its body. Identify the organism and write one specific feature of it. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Bird. Presence of wings and a toothless beak.

Question 82.
Why is it difficult to classify bacteria ? Give two reasons.
(CCE 2017)
Answer:

Bacteria are microscopic,
There are limited differences in structure and functions.

Question 83.
What is binomial nomenclature ? Explain it with the help of an example. (CCE 2017)
Answer:
Binomial nomenclature is scientific system of providing distinct and proper two word name to each and every organism. For example, the scientific name of Mango is Mangifera indica where Mangifera represents the genus while indica is the specific epithet.

Short Answer Questions (3 marks)

Question 1.

Draw a neat diagram of Hydra,
Label mesogloea and gastrovascular cavity,
Name the group of animals it belongs to.
Name one species of this group that lives in colonies. (CCE 2011, 2012)

Answer:

Label the two parts.
Phylum coelenterata.
Corals.

Question 2.
Identify the plant bodies which are named as cryptogamae1. State and explain two characteristics which are exhibited by each category of these plant bodies. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Cryptogamae, the subkingdom of seedless plants, consists of three groups-thallophyta, bryophyta and pteridophyta.

Thallophyta: Simple, ill-differentiated plant body, e.g., algae like Ulothrix
1. Unicellular and nonjacketed reproductive organs
2. Embryo stage absent.
Bryophyta: Simple thallus-like or differentiated into stem and leaf-like structures, e.g., Riccia, Marchantia, Funaria (moss),
1. Simplest but amphibious land plants which are fixed by means of rhizoids.
2. Plant body is gametophyte. Sporophyte lives on it as a parasite.
Pteridophyta: Differentiated plant body consisting of true roots, stems and leaves, e.g., ferns,
1. Dominant plant body is sporophyte. Gametophyte is small but independent.
2. Vascular tissues present but seeds are absent.

Question 3.
List any three groups of plants, which are referred to as vascular plants. Out of these which group is further classified on the basis of number of cotyledons. State its two characteristics. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Vascular plants are those plants which possess vascular tissues, xylem and phloem, for conduction of water and nutrients respectively. There are three groups of vascular plants or tracheophytes-pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms.
Angiosperms or flowering plants are classified on the basis of cotyledons present in their seeds, monocotyledoneae (single cotyledon) and dicotyledoneae (two cotyledons). Characteristics

Sporophylls are organised into flowers.
Seeds develop inside fruits.

Question 4.
(a) Draw a well labelled diagram of Euglena.
(b) Name the kingdom to which it belongs. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 8
(b) Protista.

Question 5.
Pick up the odd one out and justify your choice by giving reasons :
(a) Moss, Fern, Pinus, Spirogyra.
(b) Sea Cucumber, Octopus, Feather Star, Star Fish. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Pinus: The other three belong to cryptogamae while Pinus is a member of phanerogamae.
(b) Octopus: The other three belong to echinodermata while Octopus is a member of mollusca.

Question 6.
Write any three differences between Amphibia and Mammalia. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 9

Question 7.
(a) Write down four characteristic features of the members of class Aves.
(b) To which group do the following belong :
(t) Evergreen trees that bear naked seeds.
(it) Plants which have tap root system and two cotyledons in their seeds. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Aves is a class of warm-blooded vertebrates having fore-limbs modified into wings, body covered with feathers and jaws modified into horny toothless beak.
General Characters

Birds are the flying animals, having exoskeleton of feathers. Skin is dry except for a preen gland for dressing of feathers.
Body Temperature. Birds are warm blooded
Body Divisions. Body is divided into head, neck, trunk and tail.
Fore limbs are modified intowings while hind limbs have four clawed digits which are adapted for walking, running, perching or digging.
5. Bones. They are very light because of air spaces (pneumatic bones).
Jaws are prolonged to form horny beak. Teeth are absent.
Bird’s Milk. Oesophagus is modified to store and soften the food. It is source of bird’s milk which is used for feeding the young birds.
Respiratory System. It possesses well-developed lungs which have air sacs attached to them for double respiration.

(b)

Gymnospermae.
Dicotyledoneae.

Question 8.
Identify the diagrams. Write the phylum do they belong to. Write down the characteristic features of each phylum.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Wuchereria (Filarial worm). Phylum. Nematoda (nemathelminthes).

Cylindrical body with bilateral symmetry.
Triploblastic with pseudocoelom,
With both mouth and anus, having primitive system level of organisation.

(b) Sponges. Phylum. Porifera.

Sedentary adults with hard skeleton of spicules and fibres,
Diploblasdc with cellular level of organisation,
Canal system with ostia and osculum, flagellated choanocytes,

Question 9.
Differentiate between annelida and nematoda.
Answer:
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 11

Question 10.
(a) In which two ways amphibians are different from fishes,
(b) Identify the phylum of organisms having the following characteristics :

Pore bearing animals and radial symmetry,
Body spiny with radial symmetry,

Amphibians have limbs while fishes possess fins,
Amphibians have lungs while the same are absent in fishes.

(b)

Porifera
Echinodermata.

(c) In gymnosperms fertilization occurs through siphonogamy or pollen tube. Therefore, an external source of water is not required for carrying male gametes.

Question 11.
(a) Name the phylum to which each of the following animals belongs to – Silver Fish, Star Fish, Tapeworm, Leech.
(b) List two features of vertebrates. (CCE 2011 )
Answer:
(a)

Silver Fish – Arthropoda
Star Fish – Echinodermata.
Tapeworm- Platyhelminthes.
Leech – Annelida.

(b) Features of Vertebrates.

Notochord replaced by cranium and vertebral column,
Dorsal nerve cord transformed into brain and spinal cord.
Presence of paired gill pouches replaced by lungs in land animals.
A chambered ventral heart is present.

Question 12.
How do Aves differ from Mammals ? (three points). (CCE 2011, 2012, 2013)
Answer:

Aves	Mammalia
1. Wings. Forelimbs are modified into wings.	Wings are absent except in bats.
2. Feathers and Scales. The body is covered with feathers and scales.	Feathers and scales are absent.
3. Skin Glands. Skin is dry. Only a single preen gland is present.	Skin bears a number of sweat and oil glands.
4. Mammary Glands. They are absent.	Female possesses mammary glands for feeding the young
5. Diaphragm. A diaphragm is absent.	A partition called diaphragm is present between abdomen and thorax.
6. Beak. A toothless beak is present.	Jaws do not form a beak. Teeth are present.
7. Bones. They are hollow or pneumatic.	Bones do not possess air cavities.
8. Larynx/Syrinx. Larynx is non-functional. Instead syrinx is present.	Larynx is functional. Syrinx is absent.
External air sacs do not occur over lungs.
External air sacs do not occur over lungs.	9. Air Sacs. Lungs possess external air sacs.
10. Yolk. Eggs possess a lot of yolk (macrolecithal).	Eggs have little yolk (alecithal).
11. Reproduction. Birds are oviparous.	Mammals are viviparous with the exception of a few species.

Question 13.
To which group do the following organisms belong and give one reason for each
(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Euglena
(c) Ulothrix ? (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Cyanobacteria – Monera. Prokaryotic nature.
(b) Euglena – Protista. Unicellular eukaryote.
(c) Ulothrix – Plantae. Thallophyta-Algae. Little

Question 14.
differentiated autotrophic body with unicellular, non- jacketed sex organs.

What are vertebrates ?
Name four subgroups of vertebrates. (CCE 2011, 2012)

Answer:

Vertebrates. They are chordates in which notochord has been replaced by endoskeleton of vertebral column [ and cranium while dorsal nerve cord has been transformed into brain and spinal cord.
Pisces, Amphibians, Reptiles, Aves, Mammals.

Question 15.
On the basis of the following features, identify the group and give one example of each :

Presence of notochord at some stage of life,
Unicellular microscopic and eukaryotic.
Seeds are enclosed in fruits. (CCE 2011)

Answer:

Notochord At Some Stage. Protochordata, e.g., Herdmania.
Unicellular, Microscopic, Eukaryotic. Protista, e.g., Euglena, Amoeba.
Seeds Enclosed in Fruits. Angiospermae, e.g, Mango, Tomato.

Question 16.
Write one difference for each of the following pairs

Thallophyta and Bryophyta
Nematoda and Annelida
Amphibia and Pisces.
(CCE 2011, 2012)

Answer:

Thallophyta and Bryophyta. In thallophyta the reproductive organs are unicellular, non-jacketed with no embryo stage. In bryophyta the sex organs are multicellular, jacketed with an embryo stage.
Nematoda and Annelida

Pisces	Amphibians
1. Scales. The body is covered by scales.	1. Scales are absent.
2. Mucous Glands. The skin does not possess mucous glands.	2. The skin has mucous glands that keep the skin moist and slippery.
3. Fins. Pisces possess fins for locomotion and steering	3. Fins may occur in larval stage. The adult does not possess fins. Limbs occur instead.
4. Heart. It is two chambered.	4. Heart is 3-chambered.
3. Lungs. Pisces do not have lungs.	5. Lungs are present.
Examples. Scoliodon, Labeo.	Examples. Frog, Toad.

Question 17.
(a) List any two main characteristics of chordates.
(b) In which class would you place an organism which has

Four chambered heart and lays eggs,
Skeletons made of both bones and cartilage and are cold blooded.
(CCE 2011)

Answer:
(a) Chordate Features:

Occurrence of notochord that is transformed into cranium and vertebral column in higher chordates.
Presence of dorsal hollow nerve cord above the notochord which in higher chordates is transformed into brain and spinal cord.

(b)

Aves.
Pisces.

Question 18.
Name the phylum to which this organism belongs. Write any two characteristic features of the phylum. (CCE 2011, 2012)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 13
Answer:
Mollusca (animal Octopus).

Soft bodied animals with a shell,
Unsegmented, triploblastic body with haemocoel. Both shell and haemocoel absent in Octopus.

Question 19.
Classify the following organisms based on the absence/ presence of true coelom, i.e., acoelomate, pseudocoelomate and coelomate :
(a) Scorpion
(b) Sea Anemone
(c) Ascaris
(d) Earthworm
(e) Wuchereria
(f) Nereis. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Scorpion – Coelomate (also haemocoelomate).
(b) Sea Anemone-Acoelomate.
(c) Attïzro-Pseudocoelomate.
(d) Earthworm- Coelomate.
(e) Wuchereria – Pseudocoelomate.
(f) Nereis-Coelomate.

Question20.
What is the most striking features of the following phyla :

Arthropoda
Amphibia
Porifera.
(CCE 2011, 2012)

Answer:

Arthropoda: Chidnous exoskeleton and jointed appendages.
Amphibia: Living in both water and on land with smooth skin having mucous glands and three chambered heart.
Porifera: Diploblastic, acoelomate, sedentary animals with porous body and canal system.

Question 21.
Name the largest group of animals. Write the salient features of this group. Give two examples. (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Largest Group. Arthropoda.
Salient Features

Presence of jointed appendages.
Occurrence of chitinous exoskeleton,
Presence of haemocoel and open circulatory system.
Examples. Cockroach, Housefly, Mosquito.

Question 22.
Classify the following organisms on the presence of coelom— Spongilla, Planaria, Scorpion, Birds, Ascaris, Nerreis.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Spongilla—acoelomate. Planaria-acoelomate.
Scorpion— coelomate (haemocoelomate).
Birds—coelomate. Ascaris- pseudocoelomate.
Nereis—coelomate.

Question 23.
State the appropriate term for the following :

Plants which bear seeds with two cotyledons.
Animals which do not have coelom.
Edible fungi. (CCE 2012)

Answer:

Dicots,
Acoelomate
Mushrooms.

Question 24.
State the type of cells monerans have. State their structure and the type of nutrition they have (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Monerans have prokaryotic cells.
Structure: Monerans are basically unicellular. The cells possess peptidoglycan (= murein) cell wall, no membrane bound organelles, genetic material coiled to form nucleoid without any membranous covering.
Nutrition: Varied, both autotrophic and heterotrophic.

Question 25.
Define

Lichens
Cryptogams
Phanerogams. (CCE 2012, 2013)

Answer:

Lichens: They are dual organisms which have been formed by a permanent symbiotic association between an alga and a fungus, e.g. Graphis.
Cryptogams: They are seedless lower plants where reproductive organs are inconspicuous requiring an external water for fertilization.
Phanerogams: They are seed bearing higher plants which possess conspicuous reproductive organs like cones and flowers, e.g., Pinus, Wheat.

Question 26.
List three distinguishing features between annelid animals and arthropods. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
1. Exoskeleton. Annelids do not have a chitinous exoskeleton which is present in arthropods.
2. Circulatory System. Annelids have a closed circulatory system while arthrpods have open circulatory system.
3. Appendages. Appendages are unjointed in annelids and jointed in arthropods.

Question 27.
(a) On what basis does the embryo of cryptogams differ from that of phanerogams ?
(b) Describe the feature that divides the angiosperms in two groups
(c) State the two subgroups of angiosperms. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Embryo of cryptogams is naked while that of phanerogams is covered being present inside the seed.
(b) Number of cotyledons in the seed.
(c) Dicots and monocots.

Question 28.
(a) What is the function of notochord ?
(b) List out any four features that all chordates possess.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Function of Notochord. It provides attachment to muscles. Phylogenetically it has given rise to jointed axial skeleton of cranium and vertebral column.
(b) Presence of

Notochord which in higher forms is transformed into cranium and vertebral column,
Dorsal Hollow Nerve Cord. In higher chordates, it is transformed into brain and spinal cord.
Pharyngeal Gill Slits. Present at some stage of life cycle,
Post-anal tail.

Question 29.
Draw a neat diagram of Spirogyra and label the following parts
(a) Outermost layer of cell
(b) Organelle that performs the function of photosynthesis,
(c) Jelly-like substance in the cell where all organelles are suspended.
(d) Darkly coloured and dot-like structrue generally present in the centre of the cell. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 14
(a) Cell wall (outermost layer of cell)
(b) Chloroplast (organelle that performs the function of photosyntheis)
(c) Cytoplasm (jelly-like substance in the cell).
(d) Nucleus (darkly stained dot-like structrue).

Question 30.
Give reasons for the following :
(a) Echidna and Platypus lay eggs but are considered mammals
(b) Crocodile has four chambered heart but still is a reptile.
(c) Birds have pneumatic bones. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Platypus and Echidna possess body hair and mammary glands like other mammals.
(b) Crocodiles are piokilothermic, lay cleidoic eggs, with body having cornified skin covered with scales and bony plates.
(c) Pneumatic bones are light and strong required for birds in their flight.

Question 31.
Name the phylum to which the following organisms belong :
(a) Organisms which have peculiar water driven tube feet system that they use for moving around.
(b) Organisms which have a foot that is used for moving around and have an open circulatory system.
(c) The organisms have holes or pores all over their body.
They lead to a canal system that helps in circulating water throughout the body. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Echinodermata
(b) Mollusca
(c) Porifera.

Question 32.
Identify and name the following :
(a) Organisms that use dead and decaying organic material as food.
(b) Cell walls of fungi are made of this type of sugar
(c) Kingdom to which Amoeba belongs
(d) An example of moneran
(e) An animal with a pseudocoelom.
(f) A group which has an open circulatory system.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Saprophyte, e.g., Rbizopus.
(b) N-acetyl glucosamine (forms chitin).
(c) Protista (unicellular eukaryotes)
(d) Escherichia coli, a bacterium
(e) Pseudocoelomate, e.g., Ascaris.
(f) Arthropoda.

Question 33.
Classify the following and write one characteristic of each :
(a) Lichen
(b) Sponges
(c) Flatworm. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Lichen: Dual organism made of an alga and a fungus showing mutualism,
(b) Sponges: Porifera. Having inhalent pores or ostia and an exhalent pore or osculum connected by a canal system.
(c) Flatworm: Platyhelminthes. Triploblastic, acoelomate.

Question 34.
“Tapeworm is triploblastic”, what does it mean ? How is Hydra different from Tapeworm in this aspect ? Name the phylum to which Hydra and Tapeworm belong.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Tapeworm is triploblastic because it has three germinal layers (ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm). Hydra is diploblastic as it has two germinal layers (ectoderm and endoderm). Hydra—coelenterata. Tapeworm-
Platyhelminthes.

Question 35.
(a) Write two distinct features by which vertebrates are differentiated from invertebrates
(b) What are protochordates ? Give two examples.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 15
(b) Protochordates are non-vertebrate chordates with a single layered epidermis, hollow dorsal but undifferentiated nerve cord as well as solid notochord in some stage of life cycle, e.g., Amphioxus.

Question 36.
Give other name to the category of plants that are called phanerogams. How are they further classified on the basis of their seeds ? Give example of each category. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Seed plants or spermatophyta. Two categories

Gymnosperms-naked seeds, e.g., Pinus.
Angiosperms (Flowering Plants, seeds inside fruits).

Further of two types :

Monocots—single cotyledon in seeds, e.g., Maize.
Dicots—two cotyledons in seeds, e.g., Pea.

Question 37.
Write the names of the kingdom for the following organisms
(a) Single celled, eukaryotic and photosynethetic
(b) Multicellular, eukaryotic and photosynthetic
(c) Single-celled, prokaryotic and heterotrophic. (CCE2012)
Answer:
(a) Protista
(b) Plantae
(c) Monera.

Question 38.
(a) Name the kingdom to which Protozoa belong.
(b) Write one important characteristic of that kingdom.
(c) Name the appendages present in
(z) Euglena
{it) Paramoecium. (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Protista
(b) Eukaryotic unicellular organisms.
(c) (t) Euglena-Ragellum
{iî} Paramoecium-cilia.

Question 39.
To which class do Salamander and Sparrow belong ?
Write any two differences between these classes.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Salamanader: Class Amphibia.
Sparrow: Class Aves.
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 16

Question 40.
(a) How are food and oxygen circulated in the body of organisms belonging to phylum porifera ?
(b) Why do fish have stream-lined body ?
(c) State the reason for birds having stream-lined body.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) By canal system which has many ostia or inhalent pores and one exhalent pore or ostium. Water circulates due to activity of flagellated collar cells or choanocytes.
(b) Fish have stream-lined body to meet minimum resistance while swimming in water
(c) Stream lined body provides least resistance to birds while flying.

Question 41.
Write one difference between
(a) Monera and Protista
(b) Platyhelminthes and Nematode. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Monera have prokaryotic nature while protista have eukaryotic nature.
(b) Platyhelminthes are acoelomate while nematodes are pseudocoelomate.

Question 42.
‘Snails are soft bodied shelled animal’. Identify the phylum to which they belong. Write any two distinguishing features of the phylum. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Mollusca:

Unsegmented body with open circulatory system.
A muscular foot for locomotion.

Question 43.
What are cotyledons ? Name and discuss important features of two classes of angiosperms based on number of cotyledons. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Cotyledons are seed leaves present over embryo axis below the plumule. On the basis of their number, angiosperms have been divided into two classes, monocots and dicots. Monocots. There is a single cotyledon. Monocots have parallel venation, fibrous root system and trimerous flowers.
Dicots: There are two cotyledons. Dicots have reticulate venation, tap root system and pentamerous or tetramerous flowers.

Question 44.
Write two examples of organisms belonging to.

Nematoda
Platyhelminthes
Arthropoda
(CCE 2012)

Answer:

Nematoda: Ascaris, Wuchereria.
Platyhelminthes Planaria (Dugesia), Liver Fluke (Fasciola).
Arthropoda. Prawn (Palaeomon), centipede (Scolopendra).

Question 45.
Given below is a flow chart for classification of plants, Identify ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d, ‘e’ and ‘f’ as an appropriate characteristic or plant group. (CCE 2012)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 17
Answer:
(a) Thallophyta
(b) Bryophyta
(c) Pteridophyta
(d) Spermatophyta
(e) Bear naked seeds
(f) Angisperms.

Question 46.
Write four main features of pteridophyta and give any two examples. (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Sporophyte: Dominant sporophyte differentiated into stem, leaves and roots.
Gametophyte: Small but independent.
Vascular Tissues: Present.
Seeds: Naked embryo, seeds absent.
Examples. Selaginella, Dryopteris (Fern).

Question 47.
Is the given figure of a dicot or monocot ? Differentiate between dicots and monocots on the basis of venation and number of cotyledons in the seed. (CCE2012)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 18
Answer:
Dicot

In dicots the leaves have reticulate venation. Venation is parallel in monocots.
The seeds of dicots have two cotyledons. A single cotyledon is present in the seeds of monocots.

Question 48.
Draw and label any four parts of a bony fish.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 19

Question 49.
Write one point of difference between the following :
(a) Annelids and arthropods
(b) Thallophytes and ; Pteridophytes
(c) Poriferans and coelenterates. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Annelids have unjointed appendages while arthropods possess jointed appendages.
(b) Thallophytes have simple undifferentiated and nonvascular plant body while it is differentiated and vascular in pteridophytes.
(c) Periferans have a number of inhalent pores and a single exhalent pore while coelenterates have a single opening.

Question 50.
Write one point of difference each between the j following :
(a) Amphibians and reptiles
(b) Aves and mammals
(c) Gymnosperms and angiosperms.(CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Skin is smooth, moist and non-cornified in amphibians while it is dry, scaly and cornified in reptiles.
(b) The body is covered by feathers and scales in aves. Hair occur in mammals.
(c) Gymnosperms possess naked seeds while angiosperms have seeds enclosed in fruits.

Question 51.
Write two examples of each

Egg laying mammals
Organisms with open circulatory system.
Prokaryotic organisms. (CCE 2013)

Answer:

Egg Laying Mammals. Platypus, Echidna.
Organisms with Open Circulatory System. Arthropoda, Mollusca.
Prokaryotic Organisms. Rhizobium, Escherichia.

Question 52.
State reasons for the following :
(a) Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant kingdom
(b) Gymnosperms are called so.
(c) Birds have wings and feathers. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom as they live in moist, damp and shady places. A layer of water is required on the soil surface for

Sexual reproduction.
Protection from transpiration and hence desiccation
Supply of water to all parts in the absence of vascular tissues.

(b) Gymnosperms are so called as they possess naked seeds (gymnos-naked, sperma—seed).
(c) Birds have wings for flight and feathers for insulation.

Question 53.
Write one characteristic feature of each of the following groups of organisms :

Cryptogams
Arthropods
Mammals. (CCE 2013)

Answer:

Cryptogams: Absence of seed so that embryo, if present, is always naked.
Arthropoda: Presence of jointed appendages and legs.
Mammals: Occurrence of mammary glands in females to nourish new borns.

Question 54.
“Lichens” show symbiotic life form between two organisms.

Name the two organisms showing this relationship
Write the kingdom to which each one belongs
In such relationship, organisms are parasitic or mutually benefitted from each other or mutually dependent on one another. Explain. (CCE 2013)

Answer:

Lichen: Lichen is formed by an obligate association between a fungus and an alga.
Fungus-kingdom Fungi. Blue-green alga-kingdom Monera.
Mutually dependent and mutually benefitted. In lichen, the alga manufactures food for itself as well as fungus. The fungus provides protection to alga, helps in fixation and absorption of water as well as minerals.

Question 55.
State reason for the following :
(a) Fungi are called saprophytes
(b) Platyhelminthes are called so. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Fungi are heterotrophs with absorptive type of nutrition. The free living fungi feed on organic remains. They secrete digestive enzymes into external medium. The organic matter solubilises. It is absorbed by fungi. Hence, fungi are called saprophytes (sapros-tottcn, phyton-phstx).
(b) Platyhelminthes (platy-flat, helminthes-worms) are called flat worms as they are dorsoventrally flattened.

Question 56.
Identify the organisms and write one characteristic feature of the phylum to which they belong. (CCE 2013)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 20
Answer:
A- Sycon: Porifera. Presence of many inhalent pores (ostia) and one exhalent pore (osculum).
B- Earthworm: Annelida. Body is metamerically segmented.
C- Star Fish: Echinodermata. Radial symmetry with spiny exoskeleton.

Question 57.
(a) Give scientific name of human beings.
(b) Write two characteristic features of Aves and Mammals.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Homo sapiens.
(b) Aves: Body covered with feathers, fore limbs modified into wings and jaws modified into horny toothless beak, e.g., Pigeon.
Mammalia: Hair covered body with integumentary glands, mammary glands in females, e.g., Tiger.

Question 58.
(a) Most mammals give birth to young ones. How do they nourish their young ?
(b) Name two egg laying mammals. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a) Through mammary glands by the females,
(b) Egg Laying Mammals. Platypus, Echidna.

Question 59.
Mr. Sharmas family had gone to visit a garden. Many beau¬tiful roses were there. Mr. Sharmas five year old son Himanshu wanted to pluck few roses. He was told not to do so by his elder sister Kanika who was in class IX.

Rose belongs to which division of plant kingdom?
State the number of cotyledons and type of root in rose plant.
How can you contribute in the preservation of flora and fauna around you ? (CCE 2014)

Answer:

Spermatophyta
Cotyledons. 2. Root: Tap root.
Preservation of flora and fauna,
1. By not enroaching upon their habitat.
2. By not damaging them through over exploitation or de-struction.

Question 60.
Write two examples each of the following :
(a) Animals which do not locomote.
(b) Flightless birds
(c) Molluscs without shell. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a) Sponges, corals,
(b) Emu, Ostrich, Kiwi
(c) Octopus, Banana Slug.

Question 61.
Write four conventions which are followed while writing the scientific names of organisms. Write the scientific name of tiger. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Conventions.

It consists of two words, first generic (like noun) and second specific (species).
Generic name has first letter capital while specific word begins with small letter.
Both are derived from latin language or are latinised.
They are printed in italics or are underlined separately in hand-written form.

Tiger: Panthera tigris.

Question 62.
Carolus Linnaeus gave the two kingdom classification. Later ; it was changed by Ernst Haeckel (1894) and in 1969 ; Whittaker gave the five kingdom classification. Do you think that studying about the work done by earlier scientists or j their obsolete theories is useful for students of this genera- i tion ? Give three reasons. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Science is a continuous search of truth. Search is based on the j knowledge previously gained and the appliances available, i As the appliances improve and the knowledge becomes wider and deeper, new truths become known. This changes the | previous concepts or theories.

It is always rewarding to learn about the past obsolete j theories in the light of then known knowledge. This shall prompt the students to discover loop holes in the present knowledge and theories.
As the gaps of present day knowledge become apparent, j a student will like to find yet hidden truths.
Exceptions in the theories bring about their perusral by the students – the truth of yesterday has become fiction of today and truth of today shall become fiction of tomorrow.

Question 63.
Name the phylum to which the following organisms belong :
(a) Earthworm
(b) Planaria
(c) Sycon
(d) Starfish
(e) Housefly
(f) Octopus.
Answer:
(a) Earthworm-Annelida.
(b) Planaria-Platyhelminthes
(c) Sycon-Porifera.
(d) Starfish-Echinodermata.
(e) House- fly-Arthropoda.
(f) Octopus-Mollusca.

Question 64.

Assign a group to an organism ‘X’ which has notochord in some larval forms,
What would be the place of occur- rence of‘X’.
What would be symmetry of‘X’ ? (CCE 2014)

Answer:

‘X’ — group Protochordata, subphylum Urochordata.
Sea.
Bilateral.

Question 65.
To study biodiversity, a group of students are taken to a zoo and another to a safari in the woods. Which is the better way S of learning and why ?
What more can you gain from such experiences ?
(CCE 2014)
Answer:
Safari in the woods is a better way of learning biodiversity j than a visit to Zoo.

Woods are pieces of natural biodiversity of both plants and animals. Zoo contain only captured or endangered ani¬mals fed and cared by humans.
Delicate balance of nature can be known only through a visit to the woods.

Question 66.
Learning. Nature should not be disturbed beyond its inbuilt regeneration capacity. Otherwise many organisms will become endangered and disappear for ever.
Will advanced organisms by the same as complex organisms ? If so why ? (CCE 2014, 2015)
Answer:
Yes. Advancement is based on development of specializations. Specialisation occurs where there is more elaboration and hence more complexity. However, there is likelihood of specialisation to lead to overspecialisation which becomes a hindrance to competitive nature of existence in the biosphere. Dinosaurs, giant crocodiles and mammoth have died down due to this reason. Therefore, advancement is possible only if specialisation leads to greater elaboration and efficiency.

Question 67.
Mention the problem which is associated with using local names of organisms. How was this resolved ? Name the scien-tist who had introduced the above solution.
(CCE 2015)
Answer:
Problem: All organisms do not have local names. Some or-ganisms have multiple local names while a local name is also used for two or more organisms. The problem was resolved through the development of binomial nomenclature of organisms. It was introduced by Carolus Linnaeus (1751).

Question 68.
Most mammals give birth to young ones,
(a) How do they nourish their young ones ?
(b) Name two egg laying mamamals. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
(a) Young ones are nourished inside the womb through pla-centa and by milk from mammary glands after birth.
(b) Duck-billed Platypus, Echidna.

Question 69.
Classify the following organisms on the basis of absence or presence of true coelom, i.e., coelomate, acoelomate and pseudocoelomate : Ascaris, Herdmania, Earthworm, Planaria, Fishes, Humans. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
Acoelomate. Planaria.
Pseudocoelomate. Ascaris.
Coelomate. Herdmania, Earthworm, Fishes, Humans.

Question 70.
Give three differences between monocotyledonous and di-cotyledonous plants. (CCE 2015)
Answer:

Dicotyledoneae

Monocotyledoneae

1. Cotyledons. In the seeds, the embryo bears two cotyledons.

2. Venation. The leaves show reticulate venation.

3. Vascular Bundles. Vascular bundles of the stem are open and arranged in a ring.

4. Root System. The plants have tap root system.

5. Secondary Growth. Secondary growth occurs.

6. Flowers. Flowers are pentamerous (have five of each floral part) or tetramerous.

In the seeds, the embryo bears one
cotyledon.The leaves show parallel venation.Vascular bundles of the stem are closed and scattered in the ground tissue.The plants have fibrous root system.Secondary growth does not occur.Flowers are trimerous (have three of each floral part).

Question 71.
Name three plants under the group Thallophyta. Mention three characteristics of this group. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
Spirogyra, Ulothrix, Chara, Ulva.
Characteristics :

Simple body design called thallus.
Reproductive organs are unicellular and non-jacketed.
An embryo stage is absent.

Question 72.
Give two examples of organisms belonging to the following phyla :
(a) Arthropoda
(b) Mollusca
(c) Protochordata.
(CCE 2015)
Answer:
(a) Arthropoda. Cockroach, Mosquito, Prawn.
(b) Mollusca. Pila, Pearl oyster, Octopus.
(c) Protochordata, Balanoglossus, Herdmania, Ampbioxus.

Question 73.
List any three characteristics of the phylum to which Hydra belongs. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
Hydra belongs to phylum Coelenterata (= Cnidaria).
Characteristics.

Diploblastic animals with tissue level organisation.
Body has a single opening for both feeding and elimination.
Tentacles with cnidoblasts or nematoblasts.
Nerve cells present but nerve plexus absent.

Question 74.
(a) What is the scientific name of human ?
(b) To which class of vertebrates does it belong ?
(c) Mention any two character-istics features of this group. ( CCE 2015, 2016)
Answer:
(a) Homo sapiens
(b) Mammalia
(c) Characteristics.

Seven cervical vertebrae, a diaphragm dividing trunk and hair on the skin,
Vivipary and nourishing the young one by milk from mammary galnds.

Question 75.
What is classification ? Why do we need to classify organisms ? Mention any two major characteristics used for classifying organisms. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
Classification. Classification is the arrangement of organisms into groups and sub-groups on the basis of their similarities and dissimilarities and placing them in a hierarchy that brings out their relationships.
Need for Classification:

Identification is not possible without any system of classification.
Classification helps in bringing out similarities and dissimilarities amongst organisms.
Relationships are built up with the help of classification. They indicate the evolutionary pathways.
Organisms of other localities and fossils can be studied only with the help of a system of classification.
It is not possible to study every organism. Study of one or two organisms gives sufficient idea about other members of the group.
Other branches of biology depend upon proper identification of the organism which is possible only through a system of classification.

Major Characteristics:

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic nature.
Unicellularity and multicelliuarity.
Nutrition.

Question 76.
State reason for the following :
(a) Tapeworm does not have a digestive tract,
(b) Frogs use both skin and lungs for breathing,
(c) Birds have pneumatic / hollow bones.
(CCE 2015)
Answer:
(a) Tapeworm resides in the area of digestive tract where digested food is available.
(b) Frog lives both over moist land as well as inside water. Lungs are useful over land as well as after coming to the water surface. Moist skin is useful in respiration inside water and soil.
(c) Hollow or pneumatic bones are not only stronger than the solid bones but also make the body light weight for flight.

Question 77.
How do cnidarians (coelenterata) differ from porifera ?
(CCE 2015)
Answer:

Poriferans	Coelenterates
1. Organisation. It is of cellular level.	It is of tissue level.
2. Pores. A number of inhalent pores or ostia and a single exhalent pore or osculum are present.	There is a single opening.
3. Digestion. It is intracellular.	It is both intracellular and intercellular.
4. Muscle and Nerve Cells. They are absent.	Primitive muscle and nerve cells appear for the first time in coelenterates.
5. Appendages. They are absent.	Appendages are represented by tentacles.
6. Special Cells. The special cells are choanocytes or collar cells.	Special cells are cnidoblasts.

Question 78.

Draw the relevance of scientific naming of an organism.
Who introduced this system of nomenclature ?
Rana tigrina is the scientific name of common frog.
What do these two terms imply ? (CCE 2015)

Answer:

Advantage,
1. It is universal, being the same in all languages and conntries.
2. It is distinct and sepcific with no two organisms having the same name.
Carolus Linnaeus.
In Rana tigrina, the word Rana signifies genus or ge¬neric name while tigrina is a specific epithet or species.

Question 79.
Differentiate between gymnosperms and angiosperms.
(CCE 2016)
Answer:

Gymnosperms	Angiosperms
1. Sporophylls. They are aggregated to form cones.	Sporophylls are aggregated to form flowers.
2. Seeds. The seeds are naked.	The seeds are enclosed by fruit wall.
3. Microspores and Megaspores. The micro-spores and megaspores are produced by male and female cones.	They are produced in the same or two different types of flowers.
4. Vascular Tissues. Xylem lacks vessels and phloem lacks companion cells.	Xylem contains vessels and phloem contains companion cells.
5. Ovules. The ovules are not contained in the ovary.	The ovules are enclosed in the ovary.
6. Endosperm. It is haploid.	It is triploid.

Question 80.
State three bases for classification of organisms into five king-doms. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
Four criteria have been used for grouping of organisms into five kingdoms—

Procaryotic and eukaryotic nature
Unicellular and multicellular nature
Nutrition

Question 81.
Name the scientist who proposed two kingdom classification of living organisms. Name those kingdoms. Write major drawbacks of the proposed classification. ( CCE 2016)
Answer:

Carolus Linnaeus,
Plant kingdom and Animal kingdom.

Drawbacks:

Prokaryotes. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes are placed in the same kingdom.
Fungi are included amongst plants when they are structurally different from them,
Organisms like Euglena are included in both the kingdoms,
Viruses do not belong to either of the kingdom.

Question 82.
(a) Give any two important characteristics of kingdom Fungi.
(b) What is symbiotic relationship between blue-green algae and fungi called ? ( CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a) Protochordates are non-vertebrate chordates with a single layered epidermis, hollow dorsal but undifferentiated nerve cord as well as solid notochord in some stage of life cycle, e.g., Amphioxus.
(b) Lichen.

Question 83.
Classify the following organisms into their respective kingdoms as per Whittaker’s five kingdom classification : Amoeba, Euglena, Birds, Herbs, Cats, Lactobacillus. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a) Amoeba—Protista,
(b) Euglena—Protista,
(c) Birds— Chordata (class Aves).
(d) Herbs—Plantae.
(e) Cats — Chordata (class Mammalia),
(f) Lactobacillus—Monera.

Question 84.
State the advanced features present in and seen for the first time (according to evolution) in the following groups :

Pteridophyta
Gymnosperms
Angiosperms.
(CCE 2017)

Answer:

Pteridophyta: Vascular tissues,
Gymnosperms: Seeds.
Angiosperms: Fruits.

Question 85.
Write the names of the following :

Plants which bear naked seeds
Animals which have pseudocoelom (any two)
Animals which maintain a constant body temperature. (CCE 2017)

Answer:

Gymnosperms
Nematoda, e.g., Ascaris, Wuchereria.
Homoeotherms.

Question 86.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of Paramecium and mention the group to which it belongs. (CCE 2017)
Answer:
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 21
Group Protista.

Question 87.
Write the difference between amphibians and Pisces.
(CCE 2017)
Answer:

Pisces	Amphibians
1. Scales. The body is covered by scales.	1. Scales are absent.
2. Mucous Glands. The skin does not possess mucous glands.	2. The skin has mucous glands that keep the skin moist and slippery.
3. Fins. Pisces possess fins for locomotion and steering	3. Fins may occur in larval stage. The adult does not possess fins. Limbs occur instead.
4. Heart. It is two chambered.	4. Heart is 3-chambered.
3. Lungs. Pisces do not have lungs.	5. Lungs are present.
Examples. Scoliodon, Labeo.	Examples. Frog, Toad.

Question 88.
State any three differences between cryptogamae and phanerogamae. (CCE 2017)
Answer:

Cryptogamae

Phanerogamae

1. It contains seedless plants.

2. It has both vascular and non-vascular plants.

3. An external water is required for fertilization.

It contains seed plants.

It possesses only vascular plants.

An external water is not required

Long Answer Questions (5 Marks)

Question 1.
Draw a flow chart to show different divisions of kingdom plantae and answer the following :

Which division has the simplest plants ?
To which division Pinus and Cycas belong ?
What is the other name given to flowering plants. Classify them on the basis of number of cotyledons present in the seed. (CCE 2012)

Answer:
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 22

Simplest Plants: Thallophyta (Algae).
Pinus and Cycas: Gymnospermae of spermatophyta.
Angiosperms: Two groups, dicots (with two cotyledons in seeds) and monocots (with one cotyledon in seeds).

Question 2.

What is the scientific name of human ?
To which class of vertebrates does it belong ?
Write five characteristic features of this group. Also mention the exceptions, if any. (CCE 2012)

Answer:

Homo sapiens
Class mammalia.
Characteristics of Mammalia
1. Presence of mammary glands in females.
2. Occurrence of hair over the body.
3. Cervical vertebrae are seven in number.
4. A muscular diaphragm occurs between abdomen and thorax.
5. Mammals are viviparous i.e., adult females give birth to young ones.

Exceptions:
Duck-billed Platypus and Echidna are egg laying mammals. Kangaroos and their relatives give birth to young ones in very early stage of development. They are nourished in mother’s marsupium,

Question 3.
(a) Name the group of plants which have unicellular undifferentiated body.
(b) Why are echinoderms named so ?
(c) Name plants not having well differentiated body design.
(d) Name the plants which are perennial, evergreen, woody and bear naked seeds.
Answer:
(a) Diatoms, dinoflagellates.
(b) The animals possess an exoskeleton of spines over the body.
(c) Bryophytes, thallophytes
(d) Gymnosperms.

Question 4.
(a) List two distinguishing features between poriferan and coelenterate animals.
(b) Give reason to justify the following statements

Platypus and Echidna lay eggs but are considered mammals.
Crocodiles have four chambered heart but are still reptiles.
Fore limbs of birds are modified. (CCE 2012)

Answer:
(a) Poriferans and Coelenterates

Pores: Poriferans have a canal system with a number of inhalent pores or ostia and a single exhalent pore or osculum. Coelenterates have a single opening.
Special Cells: Poriferans possess choanocytes or collar cells. Coelenterates have enidoblasts or stinging cells.

(b)

Platypus and Echidna possess body hair and mammary glands like other mammals.
Crocodiles are piokilothermic, lay cleidoic eggs, with body having cornified skin covered with scales and bony plates.
In birds the fore limbs are modified to form wings for flight.

Question 5.
(a) What is coelom ? State its significance.
(b) Pick out the organisms that have pseudocoelom from the following : Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm and Roundworm
(c) What is peculiar about the coelom of arthropods ? What is such a condition called ? Explain.
(d) To which phylum of animalia do the following belong : Octopus, Pila, Chiton and Unio. Comment on their coelom. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Coelom. It is mesoderm lined fluid-filled space that occurs between alimentary canal and body wall. Significance. Coelom suspends and gives shock proof . environment to various body organs.
(b) Pseudocoelom. Pinworm, Roundworm.
(c) Coelom of Arthropods. True coelom is reduced. Sinuses or spaces in between the organs enlarge and fuse to form blood filled cavity called haemocoel. ‘
(d) Mollusca. They posses haemocoel.

Question 6.
(a) On the basis of characteristics given below, name the phyla :

Soft bodied animal with muscular foot, mantle and calcareous shell.
Animals which have double layers of cells, single opening and tentacles.
Body simple, multicellular, vase-like with pores, opening at one end.
Largest group of animals, bilaterally symmetrical, segmented, coelomic cavity is blood filled.

(b) “Star Fish cannot be placed under the phylum of pisces.” Explain. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a)

Mollusca
Coelenterata
Porifera
Arthropoda.

(b) Star Fish is an echinoderm with spiny exoskeleton, water vascular system and tube feet. It does not have any fish-like characters (fins, gills, lateral line organs).

Question 7.
(a) Write four characteristic features of protochordates.
(b) State reasons for the following :

Tapeworms do not have digestive tract.
Frogs have both skin and lungs for breathing.
Whale is a mammal, not a fish. (CCE 2012)

Answer:
(a) Characteristic Features of Protochordates.

Single layered epidermis,
Occurrence of notochord at least in some stage.
There is a dorsal hollow nerve cord,
Gill slits are present,
A post-anal tail is found.

(b)

Tapeworm lives in that part of human intestine which contains digested absorbable food.
Frog has a smooth moist skin richly supplied with blood vessels for cutaneous respiration. Being amphibian it also possesses lungs for breathing over land.
Whale has pulmonary respiration, four-chambered heart, mammary glands and other traits of mammals. It appears fish like because it lives in water and has a body structure suitable for swimming.

Question 8.
Classify vertebrates in five classes giving two characteristics and an example for each. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
The five classes of vertebrates are pisces, amphibia, reptilia, aves and mammalia.

Pisces: Stream-lined scale covered body with 2-chambered heart, gills and fins, e.g. Labeo.
Amphibia: Smooth scale-less body surface with mucous glands, 3-chambered heart and two pairs of limbs, e.g., Frog.
Reptilia: Dry scale covered skin, incompletely four chambered heart, e.g., Wall Lizard.
Aves: Body covered with feathers, fore limbs modified into wings and jaws modified into horny toothless beak, e.g., Pigeon.
Mammalia: Hair covered body with integumentary glands, mammary glands in females, e.g., Tiger.

Question 9.
Classify kingdom Plantae into five groups giving one characteristic feature and two examples of each group.
(CCE 2012, 2015)
Answer:
Plantae is divisible into five groups of thallophyta, bryophyta, pteridophyta, gymnosperms and angiosperms.

Thallophyta: Simple undifferentiated plant body with unicellular reproductive organs lacking an embryo stage, e.g. Spirogyra, Chara.
Bryophyta: Simple, amphibious with gametophytic plant body and parasitic sporophyte, e.g., Marchantia, Moss.
Pteridophyta: Seedless, differentiated, vascular sporophytic plant body with small independent gametophyte, e.g. Lycopodium, Fern.
Gymnosperms: Vascular plants with exposed or naked seeds, e.g., Pinus, Cycas.
Angiosperms: Flowering plants with fruits enclosing seeds, e.g. Maize, Rose.

Question 10.
Cockroach, spider and prawn are placed under phylum arthropoda. State the reason for this. Write three other distinct features of this phylum. Give another example of an aquatic arthropod and terrestrial arthropod. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Cockroach, spider and prawn are included in phylum arthropoda because they are segmented triploblastic bilaterally symmetrical animals having jointed appendages.
Other features.

Chitnous exoskeleton,
Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen with head and thorax fused in some groups.
Coelom is reduced. Haemocoel with open circulatory system present.

Question 11.
Aquatic Arthropod. Cancer (Crab). Terrestrial arthropod, Silver Fish.
(a) What is the basis of major division of kingdom plantae ?
(b) What was the modification introduced by Woese in kingdom Monera ? (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Presence or absence of seeds or distinct reproductive structures dividing plantae into phanerogamae (covered embryo) and cryptogamae (naked embryo or seeds absent),
(b) Woese (1977, 1994) has divided kingdom monera and created two independent kingdom of Eubacteria and Archaea (formerly archaebacteria) on the basis of cell wall, cell membrane and RNA structure.

Question 12.
The following is a list of invertebrates. Classify them into different phyla giving one characteristic morphological feature to justify your classification : (CCE 2012)
(a) Star Fish
(b) Nereis
(c) Housefly
(d) Sycon
(e) Planaria.
Answer:
(a) Star Fish: Echinodermata. Spiny skinned with tube j feet,
(b) Nereis: Annelida. Metameric segmentation, true j coelom with closed vascular system,
(c) Housefly, Arthropoda: Chitinous exoskeleton with jointed appendages,
(d) Sycon: Porifera. Sedentary diploblastic animals with ostia, osculum and canal system,
(e) Planaria: Platyhelminthes. Triploblastic, acoelomate.

Question 13.
What are the five kingdoms of Whittaker ? Give the most important characteristic feature of each kingdom.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:

Monera: Prokaryotic organisms.
Protista: Unicellular eukaryotic organisms.
Fungi: Nonchlorophyllous, spore producing heterotrophs j with cell wall having chitin and glycogen as reserve food,
Plantae: Photosynthetic organisms having plastids and cellulose cell wall.
Animalia: Wall-less heterotrophic organisms with holozoic nutrition.

Question 14.
Name the five classes of vertebrates. Compare any two on the basis of their

Habitat
Covering of skin
Respiratory organs
Chambers of heart
Reproduction. (CCE 2012)

Answer:
Pisces, amphibia, reptilia, aves and mammalia.
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 23

Question 15.
(i) To which division of plantae do algae belong ? Write one characteristic of the division. Give two examples.
(ii) Name the group

(a) Which includes unicellular eukaryotic organisms.
(b) In which mode of nutrition is saprophytic
(c) In which seeds are not enclosed in fruit.

(iii) Write scientific names of

(a) Peacock
(b) Neem
(c) Potato.

(iv) Name the division whose members are called amphibians of plant kingdom,
(v) Write one difference between thallophytes and bryophytes with one example of each. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(i) Algae belong to division thallophyta. Thallophyta is characterised by single celled non-jacketed reproductive structures without an embryo stage, e.g., Ulothrix, Chara.
(ii)

(a) Protista
(b) Fungi
(c) Gymnosperms.

(iii)

(a) Peacock. Pavo cristatus
(b) Neem. Azadirachta indica
(c) Potato. Sotanum tuberosum

(iv) Bryophyta
(v) Reproductive organs are nonjacketed and unicellular in thallophyta (e.g., Ulothrix). They are jacketed and multi-cellular in bryophyta, e.g., Marchantia.

Question 16.
(a) Differentiate between fungi and plantae
(b) Mention the basis of classification among plants to different levels. (CCE 2012, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Differences
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 24

(b)

Presence or absence of conspicuous reproductive organs— phanerogamae and cryptogamae.
In cryptogamae, undifFerentiated plant body-thallophyta.
In cryptogamae, plant body differentiated without vascular tissues-bryophyta while with vascular tissues-pteridophyta
In phanerogamae, gymnosperms if seeds are naked and angiosperms if seeds are enclosed inside fruits.

Question 17.
(a) State two uses of classifying plants and animals into different categories,
(b) List two characteristic features of fungi. Some fungal species live in permanent mutually dependent relationship with cyanobacteria. What is this relationship called ? Where are they found ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a)

Classifying plants and animals into categories gives us an idea of whole range of diversity found in them
It help in studying inter-relationships and evolution of various groups.

(b) Characteristics of Fungi.

The body called mycelium is made of achlorophyllous threads.
Cell wall contains chitin.
Nutrition is heterotrophic and absorptive,
Reserve food is glycogen and oil.

Fungal Relationship With Some Blue-Green Algae or Cyanobacteria.
Symbiosis or mutualism. The dual organisms grow on rocks and tree trunks. They are called lichens.
Occurrence. Rocks, bark of trees, ice.

Question 18.
(a) State four characteristic features of mammals.
(b) Identify the group to which the following belong :

Plants with body differentiation into stem and leaf-like structures and hidden reproductive organs,
Plants with tap root system and two cotyledons in the seed,
Plants that do not have well differentiated body designs.
(CCE 2013)

Answer:
(a) Mammals are viviparous i.e., adult females give birth to young ones.
(b)

Bryophytes
Dicotyledons
Thallophytes.

Question 19.
(a) State two characteristic features of phylum arthropoda
(b) Identify the organisms on the basis of the following features :

Egg laying mammal
A reptile with four chambered heart
A nematode causing elephantiasis. (CCE 2013)

Answer:
(a)

Presence of jointed appendages.
Occurrence of chitinous exoskeleton,

(b)

Echidna
Crocodile
Wuchereria.

Question 20.
(a) How do poriferan animals differ from coelenterate animals ?
(b) Identify the kingdom on the basis of following features :

Multicellular eukaryotes without cell wall
Unicellular eukaryotes
Multicellular eukaryotic autotrophs. (CCE 2013)

Answer:
(a)

Poriferans	Coelenterates
1. Organisation. It is of cellular level.	It is of tissue level.
2. Pores. A number of inhalent pores or ostia and a single exhalent pore or osculum are present.	There is a single opening.
3. Digestion. It is intracellular.	It is both intracellular and intercellular.
4. Muscle and Nerve Cells. They are absent.	Primitive muscle and nerve cells appear for the first time in coelenterates.
5. Appendages. They are absent.	Appendages are represented by tentacles.
6. Special Cells. The special cells are choanocytes or collar cells.	Special cells are cnidoblasts.

(b)

Animalia
Protista
Plantae.

A person enters a museum and observes animal specimens. He looks at one marked ‘Salamander’ and calls it a lizard.

Question 21.
How will you explain to him that salamanders and lizards belong to different classes by listing out at least four features and give one example each. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Salamander belongs to amphibia and lizard to reptilia.

Amphibia	Reptilia
1. Skin. It is glandular smooth and moist.	Skin is non-glandular, dry and keratinised.
2. Scales. They are absent.	Scales are present over the body.
3. Claws. Digits do not possess claws.	Digits end in claws.
4. Heart. It is three chambered.	Heart is incompletely four chambered.
5. Fertilization. It is external.	Fertilization is internal.
6. Membranes. Extra-embryonic membranes are absent.	Extra-embryonic membranes are present.
7. Eggs. They have a soft covering.	They have a hard covering or shell.
Examples. Frog, Toad.	Examples. Lizards, Snakes, Tortoise.

Question 22.
Create a flow chart to show the classification of four eukaryotic kingdom ? (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 26

Question 23.
Give the scientific and common name of an organism that possesses the following features :
(a) Are found both on land and water,
(b) Lay eggs on land.
(c) Skeleton made of cartilage,
(d) Hair on their body.
(e) Cold blooded. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a) Amphibians. Frog – Rana tigrina
(b) Aquatic Reptiles. Crocodile – Crocodylus.
(c) Chondrichthyes – Dog Fish – Scoliodon.
(d) Mammalia. Monkey – Macaca.
(e) Poikieothermous. Garden Lizard – Calntes.

Question 24.
Identify the phylum of animalia in which the animals have
(a) Apseudocoelons
(b) A water driven tube system.
(c) Jointed legs,
(d) Pores in the body leading to a canal system,
(e) Notochord at some stage of their life.
(CCE 2014, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Nemathelminthes
(b) Echinodermata
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Porifera
(e) Chordata (Protochordata).

Question 25.
Prove that Labeo rohita is a chordate. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Labeo rohita is a chordate because it possesses all the chordate characters.
Diagnostic Characteristics:

Notochord (Gk. noton—back, chorde—cord). It is a long rod-like structure that develops between dorsal nervous system and gut. Notochord functions as a support structure that provides points for attachment to muscles. In higher chordates, notochord is transformed into cranium and vertebral column.
Dorsal Hollow Nerve Cord. It occurs above the notochord. In higher chordates it gets transformed into brain and spinal cord.
Pharyngeal Gill Slits (Gill Pouches). They are paired respiratory structures which remain functional throughout life in fishes and some amphibians. In others they occur only in embryo.
Post-anal Tail. It occurs in most chordates for balancing, protection of genital and anal regions.

Question 26.
Assign appropriate class/phylum/division to the following :
(a) Salamonder
(b) Flying lizard
(c) Ostrich
(d) Bat
(e) Herdmania
(f) Wuchereria
(g) Ulva
(h) Marchantia
(i) Marsilea
(j) Ipomoea. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a) Salamander. Chordata-Amphibia.
(b) Flying lizard. Chordata-Reptilia.
(c) Ostrich. Chordata-Aves
(d) Bat. Chordata—Mammalia,
(e) Herdmania. Chordata- Protochordata- Urochordata.
(f) Wuchereria. Nemathelm- inthes-Nematoda.
(g) Ulva. Thallop.hyta-Algae.
(h) Marchantia. Bryophyta
(i) Marsilea. Pteridophyta.
(j) Ipomoea. Spermatophyta – Angiospermae – Dicotyledoneae.

Question 27.
State one difference between each of the following :
(a) Thallophyta and Bryophyta
(b) Bryophyta and pteridophyta
(c) Pteridophyta and gymnosperms
(d) Gym¬nosperms and angiosperms
(e) Monocotyledonous and di¬cotyledonous plants. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
(a) Thallophyta and Bryophyta. In thallophyta the reproductive organs are unicellular, non-jacketed with no embryo stage. In bryophyta the sex organs are multicellular, jacketed with an embryo stage.
(b) Bryophyta and Pteridophyta. In bryophyta the plant body is non-vascular, gametophytic with parasitic sporophyte. In pteridophyta the plant body is vascular and sporophytic while gametophyte is small and independent.
(c) Pteridophyta and Gymnosperms. Pteridophyta has seedless vascular plants while gymnosperms have naked seeded vascular plants.
(d) Gymnosperms and Angiosperms: Thallophyta and Bryophyta In thallophyta the reproductive organs are unicellular, non-jacketed with no embryo stage. In bryophyta the sex organs are multicellular, jacketed with an embryo stage.
(e) Monocotyledonous and Dicotyledonous Plants. Mono- cotyledonous plants have parallel venation, fibrous roots and single cotyledon in seeds. Dicotyledonous plants have reticulate venation, tap roots and two cotyledons in seeds.

Question 28.
Explain the meaning of the terms and give an example in each of the following :
(a) Symbiotic relationship
(b) Cotyle¬dons
(c) Cryptogam
(d) Saprophytic
(e) Prokaryotic.
(CCE 2015)
Answer:
(a) Symbiotic Relationship. It is a mutually beneficial obligatory relationship between two organisms, e.g. Lichen.
(b) Cotyledons. They are seed leaves present over the embryo axis below the plumule in seeds. A single cotyledon occurs in the seeds of monocots (e.g., Maize) while two cotyledons occur in the seeds of dicots, (e.g., Pea).
(c) Cryptogam. It is a seedless plant with incospicuous reproductive organs and requiring external water for fertilization. e.g. : Ferns, Moss.
(d) Saprophytic. It is an organism that feeds on organic re-mains by the process of external diagestion, e.g., Rhizopus.
(e) Prokaryotic. It is a primitive organism that lacks membrane covered organelles and an organized nucleus, e.g., Escherichia coli.

Question 29.
Associate the following features with appropriate organisms and their kingdom (in ii and iv), division (in i) and phylum (in iii and v) :

Presence of pyrenoids.
Presence of heterocysts
Presence of genital papillae and anus
Presence of chloroplast and flagella
Presence of palp and parapodia. (CCE 2015)

Answer:

Presence of Pyrenoids. Spirogyra—Thallophyta (division).
Presence of Heterocysts. Nostoc— Monera (kingdom).
Presence of Genital Papillae and Anus. Earthworm— Annelida (phylum)
Presence of Chloroplast and Flagella. Euglena—Protista (Kingdom)
Presence of Palps and Parapodia. Nereis—Annelida (Phylum).

Question 30.
Study the figure and answer the following :
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 27
(a) Label A and B.
(b) Identify the organism and its kingdom.
(c) Name two organisms (other the one shown here) belonging to same kingdom.
Answer:
(a) A – Akinete.
B – Heterocyst.
(b) Anabaena – Monera.
(c) Nostoc, Clostridium, Escherichia.

Question 31.
Differentiate between the following :
(a) Amphibia and Mammalia
(b) Arthropoda and Echinodermata
(c) Platyhelminthes and Nematoda.
(CCE 2015)
Answer:
(a) Amphibia and Mammalia:
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 28
(b) Difference between Arthropoda and Echinodermata :

(c) Platyhelminthus and Nematoda :

Platyhelminthes

Nematheliminthes

1. Form. They are flatworms.

2. Coelom. Platyhelminthes are acoelomate.

3. Digestive Tract. It is incomplete.

4. Sexuality. Animals are hermaphrodite.

They are cylindrical in form and are called roundworms.

Nemathelminthes are pseudocoelomate.

It is complete.

Animals are unisexual.

Question 32.
(a) Identify the picture and mention the phylum and class of kingdom animalia to which it belongs. (CCE 2015)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 30
(b) Label a, b, c, d, e, and f.
Answer:
(a) Torpedo (Electric Ray),
Phylum- Chordata,
Class- Chondrichthyes.
(b) a – Spiracle,
b – Eye,
c – Pelvic fin,
d— Dorsal fin,
e—Tail,
f— Caudal fin.

Question 33.
Give a comparative account of 5 classes of phylum vertebrata based on :
(a) Organ of breathing
(b) Chambers in heart.
(CCE 2015)
Answer:

Pisces. Gills for breathing.
Chambered heart.
Amphibia. Gills, lungs and skin for breathing, 3-chambered heart.
Reptilia. Lungs for breathing, incompletely 4-chambered heart.
Aves. Lungs with air sacs for double respiration, four- chambered heart.
Mammalia. Lungs for breathing, four-chambered heart.

Question 34.
Schematically illustrate the classification of phanerogams. Give two examples of plants with vascular tissues which do not produce seeds. (CCE 2015)
Answer:
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 31
Examples of Seedless Vascular Plants. Selaginella, Fern.

Question 35.
Give a comparative account of the following :
(a) Ulothrix and Funaria
(b) Marchantia and Marsilca
(c) Fern and Pinus,
(d) Cycas and Rose,
(e) Wheat and Gram. ( CCE 2015)
Answer:
(a) Ulothrix and Funaria. Ulothrix is a filamentous green alga with simple structure of thallophytes. Funaria is a leafy moss plant with differentiated but non-vascular stmcture of bryophytes.
(b) Marchantia is a non-vascular little differentiated bryophyte while Marsilea is a vascular plant of pteridophyta which is differentiated into stem, leaves and roots.
(c) Fern is a seedless vascular plant belonging to pteridophyta while Pinus is a naked seeded vascular plant belonging to gymnosperms.
(d) Cycas is a naked seeded plant belonging to gymnosperms while Rose is covered seeded or fruit bearing plant belonging to angiosperms.
(e) Wheat is a monocot while Gram is a dicot.

Question 36.
Draw a diagram of Euglena and label the following parts : Flagellum, Photoreceptor, Eye Spot, Chloroplast, Nucleus, Contractile Vacuole. ( CCE 2016)
Answer:
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 32

Question 37.
(a) State three distinguishing features between the animals belonging to Aves group and those in the Mammalia group.
(b) List four conventions followed while writing the scientific names ofliving organisms. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a) Aves and Mammalia.

Aves	Mammalia
1. Wings. Forelimbs are modified into wings.	Wings are absent except in bats.
2. Feathers and Scales. The body is covered with feathers and scales.	Feathers and scales are absent.
3. Skin Glands. Skin is dry. Only a single preen gland is present.	Skin bears a number of sweat and oil glands.
4. Mammary Glands. They are absent.	Female possesses mammary glands for feeding the young
5. Diaphragm. A diaphragm is absent.	A partition called diaphragm is present between abdomen and thorax.
6. Beak. A toothless beak is present.	Jaws do not form a beak. Teeth are present.
7. Bones. They are hollow or pneumatic.	Bones do not possess air cavities.
8. Larynx/Syrinx. Larynx is non-functional. Instead syrinx is present.	Larynx is functional. Syrinx is absent.
External air sacs do not occur over lungs.
External air sacs do not occur over lungs.	9. Air Sacs. Lungs possess external air sacs.
10. Yolk. Eggs possess a lot of yolk (macrolecithal).	Eggs have little yolk (alecithal).
11. Reproduction. Birds are oviparous.	Mammals are viviparous with the exception of a few species.

(b) Binomial nomenclature is a scientific system of providing distinct and proper two word name to each and every organism.
Conventions:

It consists of two words, first generic (like noun) and second specific (species).
Generic name has first letter capital while specific word begins with small letter.
Both are derived from latin language or are latinised.
They are printed in italics or are underlined separately in hand-written form.

Question 38.
Identify the phylum/division

They have kidney like organs for excretion
They reproduce by spores and have specialised tissue for conduction of water and other substances,
Their body is dorsiventrally flattened.
(CCE 2016)

Answer:

Mollusca
Pteridophyta
Platyhelminthes.

Question 39.
A plant specimen was found with rhizoids instead of differentiated roots,
(a) Identify the group to which it belongs,
(b) Write any two characteristics of this group
(c) Draw the diagram of a plant belonging to this group.
(CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a) Bryophyta
(b) Aves, Reptilia
(c)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 33

Question 40.
Identify the phylum of kingdom animalia in which the animal has
(a) A pscudocoelom
(b) A water driven tube system
(c) Jointed legs
(d) Pores in the body leading to a canal system
(d) Notochord at some stages of their life. ( CCE 2017)
Answer:
(a) Pseudocoelom—Nematoda
(b) A water driven tube system—Echinodermata
(c) Jointed legs—Arthropoda
(d) Pores in the body leading to a canal system—Porifera
(e) Notochord at some stages of their life—Protochordata.

Question 41.
(a) Which division of plants is called the amphibians of plant kingdom ?
(b) What are characteristics of above division ? (any three)
(c) Give two examples of this division of plant kingdom. (CCE 2017)
Answer:
(a) Bryophyta
(b)

Very simple nonvascular amphibious land plants
Gametophytic plant body fixed by means of rhizoids
Sporophyte parasitic over the gametophyte

Question 42.
(a) What is the largest phylum of animal kingdom.
( b) You are given Leech, Nereis, Scolopendra, Prawn and Scorpion. All of them have segmented body organisation. Will you classify them in are group. ( CCE 2017)
Answer:
(a) Largest Phylum. Arthropoda.
(b) Nereis and Leech belong to annelids while the other three belong to arthropoda. Annelids have unjointed appendages. Arthropods have jointed appendages. They also possess chitinous exoskeleton and open circulatory system. Annelids do not possess chitinous exoskeleton. They have closed circulatory system.

Question 43.
Complete the flow chart using appropriate features of groups : (CCE 2017)
Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 7 image - 34
Answer:
a—Tissue level of organisation,
b—Porifera.
c—Pseudocoelom,
d—Coelenterata.
e—Platyhelminthes.
f—Mesodermal cells develop from a single cell during growth of the embryo
g—Arthropoda.
h—Notochord present,
i—Echinodermata.
j—Protochoardata.

Hope given Previous Year Question Papers for CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms are helpful to complete your science homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online science tutoring for you.

Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6

May 7, 2023

Chapter 6 Tissues Class 9 Science Important Questions with Answers PDF will help you in scoring more marks in your exams.

Tissues Class 9 Important Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Name the tissue present in soft parts of the plants like pith and cortex. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Parenchyma

More Resources

Question 2.
Where is apical meristem found ? (CCE 2010)
Answer:
At the tips of main stem, main root and their branches.

Question 3.
State one function of parenchyma. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Storage of food.

Question 4.
Which is the function of xylem ?
(CCE 2010)
Answer:
Transport of sap (water + minerals).

Question 5.
What is the function of phloem ? (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Translocation of food.

Question 6.
Identify the part marked ‘B’ in the diagram. (CCE 2013)
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 1
Answer:
Epidermal cell.

Question 7.
State the function of epidermal cells of roots. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Absorption of water and minerals from soil.

Question 8.
Name the protein present in the muscles which is respon¬sible for movement. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Myosin (moves over actin during contraction of muscle fi¬bre).

Question 9.
Name the tissue present under the skin and arranged in a pattern of layers. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Muscular tissue.

Question 10.
Which meristem is responsible for transformation of stem of a plant into trunk when it grows into a tree ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Lateral meristem.

Question 11.
Name two elements of water conducting tissue which are re-sponsible for conduction. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Tracheids and vessels, collectively called tracheary elements.

Question 12.
Name the chemical substance which gets deposited in the walls of sclerenchyma. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Lignin.

Question 13.
Identify the part marked ‘X’ in the diagram. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Lumen.

Question 14.
Write any one characteristic of meristematic tissue. (CCE2014)
Answer:
Immature, thin-walled compactly ar¬ranged cells capable of division.

Question 15.
State the role oflarge air cavities present in parenchyma of aquatic plants.
(CCE 2014)
Answer:
Storage of metabolic gases (CO₂, O₂) and providing buoyancy.

Question 16.
Name the complex permanent tissue in plants in which the materials can move in both directions. (CCE2014)
Answer:
Phloem.

Question 17.
Name the type of tissue found in respiratory tract. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Ciliated columnar epithelium.

Question 18.
State two functions ofthe adipose tissue. (CCE 2015)
Answer:

Storage of fat
Insulation
Cushions around organs
Body contours (rounding off).

Question 19.
Name the tissue which is responsible for increase in girth of stem and root. ( CCE 2015)
Answer:
Lateral meristem (vascular cambium and cork cambium).

Question 20.
Name the tissue that covers most of the organs and forms a barrier to keep different body systems separate. Write its one important function. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
Epithelium. Function. Protection by surface epithelium of skin from drying up, microbes, chemicals and injury.

Question 21.
Water hyacinth floats on water surface. Why ? (CCE 2016)
Answer:
Presence of aerenchyma and large air cavities in petioles.

Short Answer Questions (2 marks)

Question 1.
Identify the type of plant tissue given Label parts A and B. Where in the stem of a plant would you find this tissue ?
(CCE 2010, 2011, 2013)
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 3
Answer:
(a) Phloem. Outer side of vascular strand.
(b) A – Sieve tube cell.
B – Companion cell.

Question 2.
Differentiate between aerenchyma and chlorenchyma.
Answer:
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 4

Question 3.
(a) Identify the region of the stem marked A in the diagram and the type of simple permanent tissue found in this region
(b) Mention any two characteristic features of the cells found in this tissue. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
(a) A-Epidermis. The permanent tissue forming the epidermis is parenchyma.
(b) Characteristic
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 6
Features:

Cells are elongated and com-pactly arranged without any intercellular spaces.
Presence of a layer of non- cellular cuticle on the outer surface for protection and reduction of water loss.

Question 4.
List two characteristics of cork cells which help them to function as protective tissue. (CCE 2010, 2012)
Answer:

Suberin: Cork cells are impermeable to water vapours due to deposition of suberin over their cells.
Dead Cells: Cork cells are dead, filled with tannins, resins and air.

Question 5.
Why does growth of a plant occur in specific regions ? Where are the following found
(a) Intercalary meristem
(b) Lateral meristem? (CCE 2010)
Answer:
Meristem. Plants possess a special tissue or meristem for growth. It occurs at specific regions like apices, nodal areas and sides. Accordingly growth occurs only in those areas where meristematic tissue or meristem is present, viz., api¬ces, nodal regions and girth.
(a) Intercalary Meristem. It occurs above or below the nodes and the base of leaves.
{b) Lateral Meristem. It occurs on the sides, both in stem and root.

Question 6.
Name the connective tissue which helps is the repair of tissues. State where this tissue is found. Mention one more » fonction. (CCE 2010,2011,2012)
Answer:
Areolar tissue (a connective tissue).
Location: It occurs inside organs, around blood vessels, muscles and nerves, below skin (subcutaneous tissue) and joining various structures like muscles with skin.
Other Function: Filling, packing and covering organs.

Question 7.
List any four salient features of meristematic tissue.
(CCE 2010, 2011, 2012)
Answer:

Cells: Cells are small, spherical or polygonal with thin elastic wall.
Intercellular Spaces: They are absent.
Cell Contents: Nucleus is large. Cytoplasm is dense while vacuoles are absent.
Activity: The cells have high anabolic rate. They grow and divide repeatedly.

Question 8.
Which elements of xylem

Help in transport of water and minerals,
Store food and
Provide mechanical support. (CCE 2010, 2011)

Answer:

Transport: Vessels and tracheids.
Food Storage: Xylem parenchyma
Mechanical Support: Xylem fibres, tracheids and ves-sels.

Question 9.
Draw diagram of a neuron showing nucleus and cell body/dendrite, axon, nerve endings.
(CCE 2010, 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 7

Question 10.
(a) In which connective tissue, matrix contains salts of calcium and phosphorus ?
(b) Which connective tissue is present in ear ?
(c) Which connective tissue connects two bones ?
(d) Which connective tissue is found in bone marrow ?
(CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
(a) Bone
(b) Cartilage
(c) Ligament (dense, yellow fibrous connective tissue)
(d) Areolar tissue.

Question 11.
Name four types of elements of phloem.
(CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:

Sieve tube cells
Companion cells
Phloem Paren-chyma
Phloem fibres.

Question 12.
Name the tissue that smoothens bone surfaces at the joints. Describe its structure with the help of a diagram.
(CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
Cartilage. It has a covering of fibrous connective tissue called perichondrium. Blood supply is restricted to it. Internally there is a layer of cartilage forming cells or chondroblasts. Then there is a solid but flexible matrix of protein-sugar complex chondrin. Matrix contains lacunae having 1 -4 living cartilage cells called chondrocytes.
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 8

Question 13.
Name the simple permanent tissue which
(a) forms the basic packing tissue
(b) Provides flexibility in plants.
(CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
(a) Basic Packing Tissue: Parenchyma,
(b) Flexibility: Col- lenchyma.

Question 14.
In a temporary mount of leaf epidermis, we observe small pores.
(a) What are the pores present in leaf epidermis called ?
(b) How are these pores beneficial to the plant ?
(CCE 2011, 2012, 2015)
Answer:
{a) The pores found in the leaf epidermis are stomata.
{b) The epidermal pores or stomata are the sites of gaseous exchange and transpiration.

Question 15.
What are the two components of blood ? Why is blood considered a type of connective tissue ?
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Components. Plasma and blood cells.
(b)
(i) Blood is considered connective tissue as it contains cells suspended in a fluid matrix,
(ii) Further, it connects all parts of the body receiving and providing materials every where.

Question 16.
What is the chemical substance that makes the cells of sclerenchyma hard ? Mention where the tissue is likely to be present. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Lignin
(b) Around vascular bundles, hypodermis of monocot stem, bundle caps, hard covering of seeds and nuts, husk of coconut.

Question 17.
List any two differences between the structure and location of striated and unstriated muscles. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 9

Question 18.
List any two differences between striated and cardiac muscles with respect to their structure and location. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 10

Question 19.
State one function each of
(a) Areolar tissue
(b) Cuboidal epithelium. (CCE 2011, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Areolar Tissue: Binding, packing and covering of body organs besides providing materials for repair of injury.
(b) Cuboidal Epithelium: Stratified epithelium provides protection while simple one takes part in absorption, excretion, secretion and forming germinal layer.

Question 20.
(a) Mention the location of apical meristem in plants.
(b) Name the tissue responsible for movement of the body. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Tips of stems, roots and their branches
(b) Muscle tissue.

Question 21.
Write the function of bone, cartilage, ligament and tendon.
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
Bone: It forms supporting framework of body and protects vital organs like brain, heart and lungs.
Cartilage: It provides support, frictionless movement and flexibility to various body parts.
Ligament: It connects a bone to another bone and provides for movement at the joints.
Tendon: It attaches muscle to bone for movement of body parts.

Question 22.
(a) State two important functions of areolar tissue.
(b) Why are skeletal muscles known as striated muscles ?
(CCE 2011, 2013)
Answer:
(a) (i) Binding, packing and covering of body parts.
(ii) Providing materials for repair of injury.
(iii) Connecting skin with underlying muscles.
(b) Due to presence of alternate light and dark bands.

Question 23.
(a)
(i) Name the process by which meristematic tissue changes into permanent tissues.
(ii) Name the simple permanent tissue which contains chlorophyll in it.
(b) Aquatic plants float in water. Give reason for this act.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a)
(i) Differentiation.
(ii) Chlorenchyma.
(b) Aerenchyma, that stores gases, provides buoyancy to aquatic plants and help them float over water.

Question 24.
(a) In the diagram of meristematic tissue in the plant body given here, identify the type of meristematic tissue found in the regions marked ‘A’ and ‘B’ of a stem,
(b) State one function of each. (CCE2011, 2012)
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 11
Answer:
(a) A – apical meristem.
B — lateral meristem.
(b) Function:
A – increase in length (stem, root).
B – increase in girth (stem, root).

Question 25:
(a) Give the other name of dividing cells in plants.
(b) In which part of plants, apical meristem is present ? Also mention its function. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Meristematic cells (meristematic tissue).
(b) Apices or growing points of stems, roots and their branches. Apical meristem takes part in growth in length.

Question 26.
A horse and a mango tree are both complex living organisms with specialised yet different tissue systems to perform the basic life processes. Give the reasons for possessing different tissues to perform similar functions. (CCE2012)
Answer:

Support: In Mango which is fixed, the supportive tissue is dead and requires little maintenance. In horse, the supportive tissue is organised to provide mobility.
Growth: Mango has to discard older organs as it does not have an excretory system. It, therefore, continues to grow throughout life with the help of meristems. Horse has an excretory system. It does not discard old structures. Therefore, it stops growing after attaining maturity.

Question 27.
Write two basic structural differences between parenchyma and collenchyma. (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Shape: Parenchyma cells are isodiametric while collenchyma cells are elongated,
Wall: It is thin in parenchyma and unevenly thickened (generally at corners) in collenchyma.
Intercellular Spaces: They occur in parenchyma but are negligible in collenchyma.

Question 28.
(a) Voluntary muscles are also known as skeletal muscles. Justify.
(b) Give two structural characteristics of these voluntary muscles. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Voluntary muscles are also known as skeletal muscles as they are usually attached to bones and take part in their movements as per our will.
(b) Structural Characteristics.
(i) Presence of alternate dark bands,
(ii) Multinucleate nature.

Question 29.
Given is the diagram showing longitudinal section of parenchymatous tissue. Label the parts M, N, O and P in the given diagram. (CCE 2012)
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 12
Answer:
M- chloroplast.
N – nucleus.
O – cytoplasm.
P – intercellular space.

Question 30.
The epidermis in desert plants is covered by a waxy coating. Name the substance which constitutes the coating. State three advantages of this coating. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Coating or cuticle is made of cutin and wax.
Advantages:

Strength: Coating provides strength to epidermis,
Protection: It protects the living surface cells against abrasive action of wind,
Transpiration: The thick coating reduces transpiration.

Question 31.
List any two functions of epithelial tissue in human body.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(i) Protection: Being surface layer, epithelium protects the underlying structures from injury, microbes, toxins and desiccation.
(ii) Exchange: It takes part in exchange of gases in lungs (between alveoli and blood capillaries) and exchange of gases and materials in tissues (between blood capillaries and tissue fluid).

Question 32.
List four functions of blood.
Answer:

Transport: Blood transports gases, nutrients, hormones and waste materials to various parts of the body.
Heat: It distributes heat throughout the body.
Tissue Fluid: It forms tissue fluid from its plasma.
Immunocytes: Blood possesses immunocytes for fighting foreign microbes.

Question 33.
State two differences between chlorenchyma and parenchyma. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 13
Question 34.
Write two locations of
(i) Simple squamous epithelium
(ii) Cuboidal epithelium. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(i) Simple Squamous Epithelium: Alveoli, blood capillaries.
(ii) Cuboidal Epithelium: Germinal epithelium, Kidney tubules.

Question 35.
Name the tisue that makes husk of coconut. Write three characteristics of this tissue. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Sclerenchyma.
Three Characteristics:

Long narrow spindle-shaped cells,
Thick lignified wall with pits,
Dead cells with narrow lumen.

Question 36.
(a) Name the connective tissue which connects two bones.
(b) Name the connective tissue present in external ear.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Ligament,
(b) Cartilage.

Question 37.
List two points of difference between parenchyma and sclerenchyma.
Answer:
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 14

Question 38.
List two points of difference between parenchyma and collenchyma tissues. (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Parenchyma

Collenchyma

1. Shape. Cells are isodiametric.

2. Wall. Cell wall is thin.

3. Strength. Parenchyma provides turgidity to softer organs.

4. Occurrence. It forms the packing tissue of all plant organs. ‘

Cells are elongated.

Cell wall is unevenly thickened generally over the corners.

It provides both mechanical strength as well as flexibility.

It occurs hypodermally in dicot stems and leaves only.

Question 39.
Name the simple permanent tissue which
(i) Forms the basic packing tissue
(ii) Provides flexibility in plants. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(i) Parenchyma,
(ii) Collenchyma.

Question 40.
What is tissue ? Jutify that blood is a tissue. Identify the meristematic tissues which are located at
(i) Growing tip of stem of a plant
(ii) Base of leaves or internodes of twigs. (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Tissue: It is a group of cells having common origin similar or related structure and a common function.
Blood as Tissue: Blood is a complex of matrix and cells that performs the function of transport with all the contained cells derived from bone narrow.
(i) Apical meristem.
(ii) Intercalary meristem.

Question 41.
What is apical meristem ? Where is it located ? State its functions. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Apical meristem is apical tissue where cells continue to divide producing daughter cells which grow out to form different types of mature cells.
Location. It occurs at the tip of stem, root and their branches.
Functions:

It brings about growth in length,
Part of stem apical meristem is left out to produce axiallary buds and intercalary meristem.

Question 42.
(a) Identify the tissue present over eye lid.
(b) Name the tissue that carries signals from various parts of the body to brain. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Stratified squamous epithelium over outer surface (like skin) and stratified columnar epithelium in conjunctiva.
(b) Nervous tissue made up of neurons.

Question 43.
Name the tissue that
(a) Connects muscle to bone in humans
(b) Forms inner lining of alveoli
(c) Stores fat in our body
(d) Transports water and minerals in plants
(e) Present in veins of leaves. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Tendon
(b) Squamous epithelium
(c) Adipose tissue
(d) Xylem
(e) Complex tissues xylem and phloem.

Question 44.
Identify the location of the following tissues.
(a) Tendon
(b) Cuboidal epithelium
(c) Alveolar tissue
(d) Aerenchyma plant tissue. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Tendon: Between muscle and bone,
(b) Cuboidal Epithelium: Germinal epithelium, Kidney tubules.
(c) Areolar tissue: a connective tissue.
(d) Aerenchyma: Aquatic plants.

Question 45.
How does matrix of bone differ from matrix of cartilage ?
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 15

Question 46.
Name the tissue which helps in transportation of oxygen that we inhale to various parts of our body. Write the composition of this tissue. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Blood Composition: Plasma or matrix – 55%, Blood cells – 45%. Plasma has 90 – 92% water, 8 – 10% organic and inorganic substances. Blood cells are of two types, haemoglobin containing red blood corpuscles (RBCs) and colourless white blood corpuscles (WBCs). Blood platelets are cell fragments present in blood.

Question 47.
Distinguish between tendon and ligament. Write one characteristic of each. (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Tendon is an inelastic cord of dense white connective tissue between muscle and bone while ligament is an elastic cord of dense yellow connective tissue between two bone ends.
Characteristic of Tendon: It contains parallel bands of white collagen fibres with rows of flat, elongated fibroblasts in between them.
Characteristic of Ligament: It has abundant yellow elastin fibres, bundles of white collagen fibres arranged variously and scattered fibroblasts.

Question 48.
Growth in plants is restricted to certain regions. Give reason for this fact. Mention two growth regions in plants.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
In plants growth is restricted to certain regions because they are
(i) Attached, requiring supportive vertical tissue which is mostly made of dead cells,
(ii) Continued growth as older parts have to be shed or become dead since there is no regular excretory system.

Apical meristem at tips of stem, root and their branches.
Lateral meristem.

Question 49.
Name the hardest connective tissue you have studied. What is its function ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Bone: It forms supporting framework of body and protects vital organs like brain, heart and lungs.

Question 50.
What is cuboidal epithetial tissue ? What is its function ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Definition: It is an epithelial tissue which is made of compactly arranged cells which appear squarish in V.S. and polygonal in surface view.
Function: Stratified epithelium provides protection while simple one takes part in absorption, excretion, secretion and forming germinal layer.

Question 51.
Name the following tissues :
(a) Connective tissue found between skin and muscles.
(b) Tissue which connects two bones,
(e) Epithelial tissue which forms lining of kidney tubules,
(d) Tissue which is present in the veins of leaves.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Areolar tissue
(b) Ligament
(c) Cuboidal epithelium
(d) Complex vascular tissue (xylem and phloem).

Question 52.
Give one word for
(a) Group of cells of similar structure and designed to give highest efficiency of function
(b) Process of taking up a permanent shape, size and function,
(c) Animal tissue connecting muscles to bones
(d) Kidney-shaped cells enclose stomata. (CCE2013, 2014)
Answer:
(a) Simple tissue
(b) Differentiation
(c) Tendon
(d) Guard cells.

Question 53.
Mention the differnt components of blood.
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 16
Answer:
a — plasma
b—red blood corpuscles (erythrocytes)
c—white blood carpuscles (leucocytes)
d—blood platelets (thrombocytes).

Question 54.
(a) On what basis is meristematic tissue classified ?
(b) Mention two characteristics of this tissue.
(c) Which amongst the meristems is called cambium ?
(CCE 2014, 2016)
Answer:
(a) On the basis of position —apical (tip of stem, root and their branches), intercalary (above or below nodes and leaf bases) and lateral (peripheral inside stem and root.
(b) Characteristics:

Cells: Cells are small, spherical or polygonal with thin elastic wall.
Intercellular Spaces: They are absent.
Cell Contents: Nucleus is large. Cytoplasm is dense while vacuoles are absent.
Activity: The cells have high anabolic rate. They grow and divide repeatedly.

Question 55.
Which parts of our body are composed of nervous tissue ?
Name the cells that make up the nervous tissue.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Brain, spinal cord and nerves are made of nervous tissue.
(b) Neurons or nerve cells constitute the nervous tissue

Question 56.
Write the location and function of collenchyma tissue in plants. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Location: It occurs in hypodermis of herbaceous dicot stems, leaf midribs and leaf stalks.
Function: Collenchyma provides both mechanical strength and flexibility. Being living outer tissue. It may also help in photosynthesis and storage.

Question 57.
Draw diagram of phloem tissue and label on it all the three elements of phloem. (CCE 2014, 2016)
Answer:
Draw and label (except phloem fibre)
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 17

Question 58.
Name the type of tissue and its function present in the lining of kidney tubules. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Epithelial cuboidal tissue. Secretion and absorption.

Question 59.
How is stratified squamous epithelium tissue different from simple squamous tissue ? (CCE 2015, 2016)
Answer:
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 18

Question 60.
Determine the location of the following tissues :

Unstriated muscle fibres,
Cuboidal epithelium.
Adipose tissue,
Striated muscle fibres.(CCE2015)

Answer:

Unstriated Muscle Fibres: Inside visceral organs of the body like gastrointestinal tract, blood vessels, bronchi, urinary bladder, iris, etc.
Cuboidal Epithelium: Germinal layer, kidney tubules, salivary mammary and pancreatic ducts, thyroid vesicles,
Function: Gametes from germinal epithelium.
Adipose Tissue: Below skin, cushion around heart, kidneys, eye ball, in between body organs.
Striated Muscle Fibres: In limbs attached to bones, neck, face, bodywall, tongue, pharynx, diaphragm, upper part of oesophagus.

Question 61.
Give one word for the following :

Group of cells with similar structure and designed to give highest efficiency of function,
The process of taking up permanent shape, size and function,
Animal tissue connecting muscle to bones,
Kidney shaped cells that enclose stomata. (CCE 2015)

Answer:

Tissue
Differentiation
Tendon
Guard cells.

Question 62.
Name the muscular tissue which is present in the iris of the eye. What is the shape of these cells ? (CCE 2016) ;
Answer:
Smooth or unstriated muscle fibres. Spindle shaped. :

Question 63.
Write the names of connective tissues—a, b, c and d.
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 19
Answer:
a— blood,
b—areolar tissue,
c—ligament,
d-—tendon.

Question 64.
Mention the different components of blood in the following | diagram
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 20
Answer:
a— plasma,
b—erythrocytes,
c—leucocytes,
d—blood platelets.

Question 65.
Differentiate between simple tissue and complex tissues in
Answer:
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 21

Question 66.
What is the function of sieve tube cells and how are they ! designed to carry out their function ? (CCE 2016)
Answer:
Function. Translocation of food (organic nutrients).
Design. The cells are vacuolate, nonnucleate and placed end to end in the form of tube called sieve tube. The septa between the sieve tube cells are porous (called sieve plates) for rapid transport.

Question 67.
Name the tissue in animals that carries out similar function as the following tissues do in plants :
(i) Epidermis
(ii) Vascular bundles. Also write their function.
(CCE 2016)
Answer:
(i) Epidermis: Epithelium in animals. Function. Protection from drying up, microbes, chemicals and injury.
(ii) Vascular Bundles: Blood vascular system. Function, Translocation of materials from source to individual cells and passage of materials given out by cells to the place of disposal.

Short Answer Questions (3 marks)

Question 1.
In the given figure
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 22
(a) Identify the tissue,
(b) In-fer the characteristic features of these cells,
(c) Suggest any two parts of the plant where such cells are present.
(CCE 2010)
Answer:
(a) Parenchyma.
(b) Characteristics.

Thin-walled living cells.
The cells have a large central vacuole and a peripheral cytoplasm which sends strands into the central vacuole.

Cortex and pith of stem and root.
Major part ofleaves, flowers and fruits.

Question 2.
(a) Draw a labelled diagram of a neuron with three/four labellings.
(b) Identify the tissue which is made of these cells.
(c) Name one organ which is made of this tissue.
(CCE 2010, 2011, 2012, 2015)
Answer:
(a)
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 23
(b) Nervous tissue,
(c) Brain.

Question 3.
Observe the given figure
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 24
(a) Identify the tissue,
(b) Infer the charac-teristic features of these cells.
(c) Specify any two parts of the plant where such cells are present.
(CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
(a) Sclerenchyma.
(b) Features

Thick walled cells,
Empty dead cells,
No intercellular spaces.

Hypodermis of monocot stems,
Around the vascular bundles and inside the vascular tissues.

Question 4.
(a) Draw adipose connective tissue.
(b) Mention one region of the body where this tissue is present and state one function of this tissue. (CCE 2010, 2012)
Answer:
(a)
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 25
(b)

Location: Subcutaneous region of the body,
Function: Insulation.

Question 5.
Name the tissue responsible for flexibility in plants. How would you differentiate it from other permanent tissues ?
(CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
Collenchyma provides flexibility in plants.
Collenchyma differs from other permanent tissues in having irregular wall thickenings, generally at the corners.

Question 6.
(a) Draw labelled diagram of striated muscles.
(b) Mention any two characteristic features of the cells that form the above muscular tissue. (CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
(a)
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 26
(b) Features:

Presence of light and dark bands,
Several oval nuclei present peripherally.

Question 7.
What is connective tissue ? State its any two basic components. Differentiate between ligament and tendon.
(CCE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
Connective Tissue: It is a fundamental animal tissue having abundant matrix with scattered living cells that takes part in connecting, binding, packing and supporting different structures of animal body.
Basic Components
(i) Abundant matrix
(ii) Scattered living cells.
Differences between Ligament and Tendon

Tendon

Ligament

1. Nature. It is tough and inelastic.

2. White Fibres. Tendon contains parallel bundles aof white collagen fibres.

3. Yellow Fibres. Yellow elastin fibres are absent.

4. Fibroblasts. They occur in rows.

5. Function. It connects a muscle to a bone.

It is strong but elastic.

Bundles of white collagen fibres are arranged in various directions.

Yellow elastin fibres occur in good number.

Fibroblasts lie scattered.

It joins a bone with another bone.

Question 8.
(a) Identify the given figures.
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 27
(b) State in brief their structure,
(c) Describe the role performed by the two.
(CCE2010, 2011)
Answer:
(a) Tracheid, vessel.
(b) Tracheid. It is an elongated lignified dead cell with wide lumen and pointed end walls.
Vessel: It is a long multicellular tubular structure having many short lignified dead cells with wide lumen and broad rup¬tured end walls arranged in a linear sequence.
Role: Both tracheids and vessels take part in transport of sap (water and mineral salts) alongwith providing mechanical strength.

Question 9.
List any six characteristics of parenchyma tissue.
(CCE2010, 2011, 2012, 2013)
Answer:

Type: k is a living, simple permanent tissue.
Cell Walls: The cell wall is thin and unlignified.
Cell Shape: Cells are isodiamatric, oval, rounded or po-lygonal.
Intercellular Spaces: Intercellular spaces are abundant so that cells are loosely packed.
Storage: The tissue stores nutrients and water in its cells.
Modifications: The tissue gets modified to form epidermis, chlorenchyma and aerenchyma.

Question 10.
From the accompanying diagram
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 28
(a) Identify the tissue
(b) Infer the characteristic features of these cells.
(c) Specify the function of the tissue
(d) Name any part of the plant where these cells are present.
(CCE2010, 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Collenchyma
(b)

Irregular Thickening: Cells possess irregular wall thickenings, generally at the corners,
Intercellar Spaces:They are absent.
Living Simple Tissue: It is living simple tissue having large central vacuoles in its cells.

(c) Function: The tissue provides both flexibility and me-chanical strength.
(d) Location: It occurs in hypodermis of herbaceous dicot stems, leaf stalks and leaf midrib.

Question 11.
(a) Name the following structures of a neuron :

Single long part which arises from cell body
Part of neuron which bears many short branched parts.

(b) What is nerve ?
(c) Name two involuntary muscles.
(CCE2010, 2011)
Answer:
(a)

Axon
Cell body bearing dendrons and dendrites.

(b) Nerve: It is a fibrous structure formed by aggregation and linking of neurons or nerve cells that transmits electrical sig-nals between central nervous system and body tissues.
(c) Involuntary Muscles:

Smooth or unstriated muscles
Cardiac muscles.

Question 12.
How is meristematic tissue classified on the basis of its loca¬tion ? Draw a well labelled diagram to show the location of meristematic tissue in the plant body. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
On the basis of location, meristematic tissue or meristem is of three types – apical, intercalary and lateral.
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 29

Question 13.
Which permanent tissue
(a) Forms husk of coconut
(b) Stores nutrients and water in stems and roots
(c) Is irregularly thickened at the corners. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
(a) Sclerenchyma
(b) Parenchyma
(c) Collenchyma.

Question 14.
Give the location and function of the following tissues :
(a) Cartilage
(b) Areolar tissue
(c) Adipose tissue.
(CCE 2011, 2012, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Cartilage:

Location: Nose, ear, trachea, bronchi, larynx, bone ends.
Function: Providing support and elasticity to nose, ear, trachea, bronchi, larynx. Smoothening and protecting bone ends at the joints.

(b) Areolar Tissue:

Location: Subcutaneous tissue between skin and muscles, inside bone marrow, binding packing and covering tissue of various body organs including blood vessels and nerves.
Function: Binding, packing and covering of body organs, and providing materials for repair of injuries.

Location: Below skin, cushion around heart, kidneys, eye ball, in between body organs.
Function: Storage of fat, shock absorption and insulation.

Question 15.
Give one reson for the following statements :
(a) Blood is called connective tissue.
(b) Muscles are able to contract and relax to bring about movements
(c) Muscles of heart are called involuntary muscles.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Blood:

Like other connective tissues, blood consists of living cells scattered in an abundant matrix. The matrix is liquid or plasma in blood.
Blood circulates throughout the body, receiving and providing materials to all tissues and organs of the body. It thus connects all parts of the body.

(b) Muscles: Muscles possess contractile myofibrils made of protein filaments. Their contraction and relaxation produce movements.
(c) Muscles of Heart: They show rhythmic contraction and relaxation throughout life. They are not under the control of will.

Question 16.
(a) Name the connective tissue that is found between skin and muscles.
(b) Draw its diagram and label any three parts.
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Areolar tissue.
(b)
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 30

Question 17.
Show the diagrammatic representation of the location of intercalary meristem and lateral meristem in plant. Name the meristem which is responsible for increase in girth of root. (CCE 2011 )
Answer:
(a)
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 31
(b) Lateral meristem

Question 18.
Define the term tissue. Differentiate between simple and permanent tissues in plants. Name the tissue which
(a) allows aquatic plants to float
(b) provides flexibility to plants.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
Tissue: Tissue is a group of related cells that have a common origin and perform a common function.
Differences:

Simple Tissues	Complex Tissues
1. Cells: A simple tissue is formed of only one type of cells.	A complex tissue is made of more than one type of cells.
2. Activity: All the cells perform the same function.	The different cells perform different fractions of a function.
3. Types: There are three types of simple plant tissues— . parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma.	There are two types of complex plant tissues— xylem and phloem.
4. Function: They form primary structure of the plant.	They form transport system of the plant.

(a) Tissue for Floating: Aerenchyma
(b) Tissue for Flexibility: Collenchyma.

Question 19.
(a) Explain how bark/cork of a tree is formed.
(b) How does it act as protective tissue ?
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Bark is the outer dead tissue. It is mostly made of cork. It develops from outer secondary lateral meristem called phellogen or cork cambium. Cells formed on the outer side become suberised, dead and filled with tannin. They constitute cork. Cork is compact and several layers in thickness. Its outer part cracks and peels off at times.
(b) Function As Protective Tissue:

Bark is made of compact, dead, ’empty’, impermeable, tannin and resin containing cells which repel microbes and animals,
It is water proof
It is shock proof,
It provides insulation.

Question 20.
(a) Name the liquid matrix of blood,
(b) What does it contain ?
(c) List any two functions of blood.
(CCE 2011, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Plasma.
(b) It consists of water (92%), salts, proteins, nutrients (glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, vitamins), hormones and excretory products,
(c) Functions.

Transport of gases, nutrients, hormones and waste materials,
Distribution of heat.

Question 21.
Mention the type of tissue which
(a) Enables the plant to transport food materials from leaves to other parts of its body.
(b) Helps in the growth of girth of stem,
(c) Helps in the transport of water from root to other parts.
(d) Provides support to plants and also stores food.
(CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Phloem
(b) Lateral meristem (cambium)
(c) Xylem
(d) Parenchyma.

Question 22.
Draw the diagram of smooth muscle and cardiac muscle and label the parts. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Tissues Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 6 image - 32

Question 23.

What type of tissue is bone ?
What is hard matrix made of ?
Write the function of ligaments and tendon.
(CCE 2011)

Answer:

Bone is a skeletal connective tissue
Calcium and magnesium carbonate and phosphate
Ligament connects two bones while tendon connects a muscle to a bone.

Question 24.
Why is parenchyma called a permanent tissue ? Name two special types of parenchyma. Mention their specific roles in plants. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Parenchyma is called permanent tissue as its cells are mature, unable to divide and have attained a permanent shape, size and function.

Chlorenchyma. Manufacture of food
Aerenchyma. Buoyancy to aquatic plants.

Question 25.
(a) Draw diagram of a muscle. Label in it

Spindle shaped nucleus
Striation

(b) List any two characteristics of this muscle. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a)

(b) Characteristics,

Long cylindrical cells with blunt ends,
Many peripheral nuclei.

Question 26.
What is meristematic tissue ? State its different types. Show their location in a diagram of a plant body. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
Meristematic tissue is a tissue of small thin-walled immature cells that have the ability to divide and form new cells. Location wise there are three types of meristematic tissues or meristams-apical, intercalary and lateral.

Question 27.
(a) Name the fat storing tissue of our body.
(b) Describe its structure and function with the help of a diagram. (CCE 2011, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Adipose tissue.
(b) Structure. It is a connective tissue in which there are large fat storing cells or adipocytes. Matrix is jelly like. Fibres and cells of connective tissue are also present.
Function:

Storage of fat.
Adipose tissue functions as a cushion around vital organs. It acts as an insulator.

Question 28.
What are the three main functions of areolar tissue ?
(CCE 2011, 2013)
Answer:

Packing of organs
Covering of organs
Providing materials for repair of injury.

Question 29.
Make a table to show the differences between striated, unstriated and cardiac muscles on the basis of their structure and location in the body. (CCE 2011)
Answer:

Question 30.
Write one function of each of the following tissues and also name the chemicals present in them :
(a) Sclerenchyma
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Cork cells. (CCE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Sclerenchyma. Function. Providing mechanical strength. Chemical. Lignin.
(b) Collenchyma. Function. Providing strength with flexibility. Chemical. Pectocellulose.
(c) Cork Cells. Function. Protection of internal plant tissues. Chemical. Suberin (with tannin and resin).

Question 31.
Write the term for the following tissues :
(a) That joins muscle to bone
(b) Fat reservoir of our body
(c) Supporting, filling the space inside the organs and helps in repair of tissues. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Tendon
(b) Adipose tissue
(c) Areolar tissue.

Question 32.
Label the figure and give one function of each part labelled a, b and c.(CCE 2012, 2013)

Answer:
a. Apical Meristem: Growth in length.
b. Intercalary Meristem: Growth in intenodes and leaves, bending of lodged shoots.
c. Lateral Meristem: Growth in girth.

Question 33.
(a) State one point of difference between xylem and phloem,
(b) Draw a neat diagram of xylem vessel and a tracheid. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Xylem takes part in translocation of sap (water and minerals) while phloem translocates food materials in the plant.
(b) Draw a labelled diagram given in question 8 above.

Question 34.
(a) Draw a labelled diagram of a tissue that transmits stimulus in our body,
(b) How does this tissue enables animals to move rapidly in response to stimuli ?
Answer:
(a)

(b) Nervous system is specialised to receive stimulus and provide a response to the same by activating skeletal muscles to perform the quick movements.

Question 35.
(a) Uma started walking fast when she noticed that some unknown faces are following her. Name the type of tissues which facilitated the movement of her leg bones in response to the stimulus.
(b) Draw diagram of any of the above mentioned two tissues and label any two parts.
Answer:
(a) Striated muscles and tendons, ligaments.
(b)

Question 36.
State one distinguishing feature and one similarity between two types of transporting tissues in plants. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
Transporting Tissues : Xylem (transports water and minerals) and phloem (transports food or nutrients). Similarity. Both are complex tissue, each made up of four types of cells.
Dissimilarity: Conducting channels of phloem or sieve tubes are made of living cells while conducting channels of xylem or tracheids and vessels are made of dead and empty cells.

Question 37.
Identify the simple permanent tissue and mention the location :
(a) Cells have irregular wall thickenings
(b) Tissue with large air cavity
(c) Cells are long, narrow and dead.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Collenchyma: Hypodermis of herbaceous dicot stems, leaf stalks and leaf midrib.
(b) Aerenchyma: Stems, leaves and roots of aquatic plants.
(c) Sclerenchyma: Hypodermis of monocot stem, bundle caps, around and inside vascular bundles.

Question 38.
Identify the animal tissues from the given description and also mention their location in the human body. Tissue a. Cells are filled with fat globules and the tissue acts as an insulator. Tissue b. Has cylindrical branched cells and the tissue shows rhythmic contraction and relaxation throughout life. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Adipose Tissue: Below skin and around important organs.
(b) Cardiac Muscles: Wall of heart.

Question 39.
Write the location and one function of each
(a) Cuboidal epithelium
(b) Glandular epithelium
(c) Columnar epithelium. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Cuboidal Epithelium :

Location: Germinal layer, kidney tubules, salivary mammary and pancreatic ducts, thyroid vesicles,
Function: Gametes from germinal epithelium.

(b) Glandular Epithelium :

Location: Skin (sweat and oil glands), alimentary canal (digestive glands),
Function: Secretion of enzymes and excretion of wastes.

Location: Lining of stomach and intestine,
Function: Absorption in intestine.

Question 40.
Mention three characteristic features and three functions of xylem. (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
Characteristic features,

It consists of four types of elements—tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres.
Only xylem parenchyma is living. The other three are dead and lignified.
Tracheids and vessels are tracheary elements for which they have wide lumen and thin areas at places.

Functions,

Xylem conducts sap (water and mineral salts) through its tracheary elements,
It provides mechanical strength to the plant.
Xylem parenchyma stores food and helps in sideways conduction of water.

Question 41.
Show the diagrammatic representation of the location of intercalary meristem and lateral meristem in plant. Name the meristem which is responsible for

Increase in girth of root
Increase in length of roots. (CCE 2012)

Answer:

Label the two meristems.

Lateral meristem
Apical meristems.

Question 42.
Explain in brief any three roles of epidermis in plants.
(CCE 2012)
Answer:

Protection: Epidermis, being outer covering, protects the internal structures and prevents the entry of pathogens ‘ and pests.
Water Loss: Cuticular covering of epidermis reduces the rate of water loss from exposed surface.
Stomata: Stomata present in the epidermis regulate gaseous exchange and transpiration.

Question 43.
Make a labelled diagram to highlight two differences between striated and cardiac muscles. Write one function of striated muscles in our body. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a)

(b) Striated muscles being voluntary and attached to bones help in voluntary body movements including locomotion

Question 44.
Complete the following flow chart

Answer:
(a) Squamous
(b) Columnar
(c) Smooth
(d) Kidney tubules and ducts of salivary glands
(e) Attached to bones
(f) Wall of heart.

Question 45.
Name any three connective tissues. Give any one function of each. (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Areolar Tissue: Packing, binding, covering and repair.
Bone: Bony endoskeleton forms supportive framework of body.
Blood: It transports nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases and hormones from one part to another inside the body.

Question 46.
Name the type of epithelial tissue that lines

Oesophagus
Respiratory tract
Kidney tubules
Inner lining of intestine
Blood vessels
Ducts of salivary glands. (CCE 2012)

Answer:

Stratified squamous epithelium
Ciliated columnar epithelium
Cuboidal epithelium
Columnar epithelium
Squamous epithelium
Cuboidal epithelium.

Question 47.
(i) Draw a labelled diagram of longitudinal section of sclerenchyma
(ii) Name any two regions in the plant where this tissue is present. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(i)

(ii) Hypodermis of monocot stem, bundle cap of young dicot stem, around and inside vascular bundles.

Question 48.
(a) Name four different types of epithelial tissue,
(b) List two functions of epithelial tissue. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Squamous, cuboidal, columnar, glandular.
(b)

Protection: Surface epithelium present over skin and lining of mouth protects the underlying tissues from chemicals, injury and desiccation,
Secretion: Glandular epithelium produces secretions like tears, mucus, gastric, juice, intestinal juice, etc.

Question 49.
Name and differentiate the type of meristematic tissues on the basis of their function. (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Growth in length of stem and root – apical meristem.
Growth in internodes and leaves – intercalary meristem.
Growth in girth of stem and root – lateral meristem.

Question 50.
(a) Write two differences between tendon and ligament.
(b) List any two regions of the body where cartilage is present. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a)

Tendon

Ligament

1. Nature. It is tough and inelastic.

2. White Fibres. Tendon contains parallel bundles aof white collagen fibres.

3. Yellow Fibres. Yellow elastin fibres are absent.

4. Fibroblasts. They occur in rows.

5. Function. It connects a muscle to a bone.

It is strong but elastic.

Bundles of white collagen fibres are arranged in various directions.

Yellow elastin fibres occur in good number.

Fibroblasts lie scattered.

It joins a bone with another bone.

(b) Tip of nose, pinna.

Question 51.
(a) Which element of phloem comprises dead cells ?
(b) Give one function each of tracheids and vessels and xylem parenchyma,
(c) Draw a diagram of xylem
parenchyma and label nucleus. (CCE 2012)
Answer:
(a) Phloem or bast fibres,
(b)

Tracheids and vessels – transport of sap
Xylem parenchyma – lateral transport of sap.

(c)

Question 52.
Write difference amongst striated muscles, smooth muscles and cardiac muscles on the basis of their shape and number of nuclei?
Answer:

Question 53.
Name the plant tissue which is associated with the conduction of water in the plant body. Why is this tissue called complex tissue, (CCE 2012)
Answer:

Xylem.
Xylem is called complex tissue because it is made of more than one type of cells.
Components: Tracheids, vessels, xylem fibres and xylem parenchyma.

Question 54.
List three differences between striated/limb muscles and smooth/stomach muscles. (CCE 2012, 2013)
Answer:

Question 55.
(a) Why are complex tissues called so ?
(b) Write names of complex tissues.
(c) State the functions of these tissues.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Complex Tissues. They are permanent plant tissues which are made of more than one type of cells which work together to perform a particular function,
(b) There are two types of complex tissues, xylem and pholem.
Functions:

Transport of sap (water + minerals).
Translocation of food.

Question 56.
Draw a diagram of smooth muscle fibre and label any three parts. Give one function of smooth muscles.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:

Function: Sustained involuntary contraction activity as in peristalsis.

Question 57.
(a) Name the tissue which joins :
(i) Muscle to bones
(ii) Bones to bones
(b) Which of the two is
(i) More elastic
(ii) Stronger ? (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) (i) Tendon
(ii) Ligament
(b) (i) Ligament
(ii) Tendon.

Question 58.
Animal tissues are different from plant tissues. State reason.
(CCE 2013, 2014)
Answer:

Mobility: Plants are stationary. They have more of dead supportive tissues for mechanical strength. Animals are mobile. Most of their tissues are living, requiring more energy for maintenance.
Growth: Plants continue to grow throughout life while animals stop growing after becoming mature. Plants have meristematic tissue which is absent in animals.
Structural Organisation: Animals have more complex strucmral organisation due to higher level of specialisation.
Plants have simpler organisation.

Question 59.
Write one term for the following tissues
(a) that joins muscle to bone
(b) fat reservoir of our body
(c) supporting, fills the space inside the organs and helps in repair of tissues. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Tendon
(b) Adipose tissue
(c) Areolar tissue.

Question 60.
Name the tissue found in the following locations,
(a) Haversian canal
(b) Chondrocyte
(c) Eosinophils. Give one function of each of these. (CCE 2013, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Haversian Canal. Bone. Forms supporting framework of body.
(b) Chondrocyte. Cartilage. Support with flexibility (as in pinna).
(c) Eosinophils. Blood. Transport of nutrients, metabolic j wastes, gases, hormones, etc.

Question 61.
Draw a well labelled diagram of phloem tissue.
(CCE 2013)
Answer:

Question 62.
Name the following and give one characteristic of each :
(a) Living tissue that provides mechanical support in plants.
(b) Highly specialised cells for being stimulated and then transmitting the stimulus very rapidly within the body of animais,
(c) Animal tissue with elongated cells and contractile proteins responsible for movement. (CCE 2013, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Collenchyma: Irregular thickening of pectocellulose generally at the corners.
(b) Neurons: Tree-like branching, have cell body with dendrites, axon with terminal arborisations,
(c) Muscle fibre: Cylindrical multinucleate cells with light and dark bands.

Question 63.
Name the permanent tissue which
(a) Forms husk of coconut
(b) Gives flexibility to the plant,
(c) Are loosely packed cells with presence of chlorophyll. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Sclerenchyma
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Chlorenchyma.

Question 64.
(a) Name the muscle :
(i) Which is present exclusively in the heart
(ii) Which is attached to the bones and helps in voluntary movement. )
(b) Write the structural differences between them
(c) Draw their neat and labelled diagram. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a)
(i) Cardiac
(ii) Striated or skeletal
(b)

(c)

Question 65.
Identify the type of tissues in the following :
(a) Vascular bundle
(b) Inner lining of intestine
(c) Lining of kidney tubule
(d) Iris of eye
(e) Muscles of heart
(f) Bronchi of lungs. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Vascular tissues, xylem and phloem.
(b) Columnar epithelium
(c) Cuboidal epithelium
(d) Smooth muscle
(e) Cardiac muscle
(f) Smooth muscles, cartilage, ciliated columnar epithelium.

Question 66.
(a) Why do sclerenchyma cells have a narrow lumen ?
(b) Where are these tissues present and why ?
(CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a) Due to excessive thickening and lignification of wall and degeneration of protoplasmic contents.
(b) Sclerenchyma occurs as hypodermis in monocot stem, around vascular bundles, inside vascular tissues, hard covering of seeds, etc., for mechanical strength and protection.

Question 67.
(d) Mention different types of blood cells.
(b) Which substances are transported by blood.
(CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a) Blood Cells. Three types.

Biconcave enucleate coloured red blood corpuscles (erythrocytes, RBCs).
Nucleated, colourless, white blood corpuscles capable of changing shape (leucocytes, WBCs).
Nonnucleated small colourless cell fragments called blood platelets.

(b) Transport. Blood transports nutrients (e.g., glucose, amino acids, fatty acids), metabolic gases (02, C02), metabolic wastes (e.g., urea, uric acid), hormones, etc.

Question 68.
Differentiate between xylem and phloem tissues.
(CCE 2014, 2016)
Answer:

Xylem	Phloem
I. Conduction. It conducts water and minerals.	Phloem conducts organic solutes or food materials.
2. Direction. Conduction is mostly unidirectional.	Conduction can be bidirectional.
3. Channels. Conducting channels or tracheary elements are tracheids and vessels.	Conducting channels are sieve tubes.
4. Components. Xylem consists of tracheids, vessels,xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres.	Phloem consists of sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres.
5. Dead/Living Parts. Three of the four elements of xylem are dead (viz., tracheids, vessels and fibres). Only xylem parenchyma is living.	Three of the four elements are living (viz., sieve tubes,companion cells and phloem parenchyma). Only phloem/fibres are dead.
6. Mechanical Strength. In addition to conduction, xylem provides mechanical strength to the plant.	There is little mechanical function of phloem.

Question 69.
Establish the relationship between the structure, function and location in each case :
(a) Bone
(b) Areolar tissue
(c) Striated muscle. (CCE 2014, 2015)
Answer:
(a) Bone

Structure: It is hard connective tissue having a matrix of collagenous protein ossein and mineral matter, mostly of calcium and phosphorus laid down in lamellae around Haversian canals, Living osteocytes are stellate and occur in branched fluid-filled lacunae.
Function: Framework of body, movement and protection to vital organs.
Location: Inside the body as endoskeleton.

(b) Areolar Tissue: It is a simple connective tissue that possesses a jelly-like matrix, both white and yellow elastin fibres, fibroblasts, mast cells, plasma cells, macrophages and immunocytes.
Location: Inside and outside organs and tissues and as subcutaneous tissue.
Functions:

Binding: Packing and Covering. Areolar tissue functions as binding, packing and covering tissue around and inside various body organs,
Repair: Areolar tissue provides materials for repair of injuries.

Structure: Long, cylindrical cells with alternate light and dark bands and many oval peripheral nuclei,
Function: Voluntary body movements including locomotion.
Location: In limbs attached to bones, neck, face, bodywall, tongue, pharynx, diaphragm, upper part of oesophagus.

Question 70.
State the location and function of columnar epithelium. When and how is it modified ? Write the function of this modified tissue. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a) Location: Lining of stomach and intestine,
Function: Absorption in intestine.
(b) Modification
(i) Microvilli or tiny finger like projections on free surface (as in intestine) for increasing absorptive surface
(it) Cilia in respiratory tract and oviducts for producing slow pushing of materials.

Question 71.
Differentiate between different types of simple permanent tissues.
Answer:

Question 72.
Write two similarities and four differences between striated and cardiac muscles. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a) Similarities.
(i) Both are cylindrical cells with broad ends,
(ii) They contain striations or alternate light and dark bands.
(b) Differences

Question 73.
Differentiate between bone and cartilage with respect to structure, function and location. (CCE 2014)
Answer:

Question 74.
Classify permanent tissues in plants. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Permanent tissues are of two types, simple (three in number)and complex (two in number).

Question 75.
Describe the structure, function and location of nervous tissue. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Structure: Nervous tissue consists of neurons or nerve cells surrounded by special connective tissue cells. Each neuron consists of a nucleated cell body, small branched afferent dendrites and a long fibre-like efferent axon with terminal branches having knobs or boutons.
Function: Nervous tissues is specialised to pick up sensations, rapidly transmit the impulses, integrate and respond to the same.
Location: It occurs in brain, spinal cord and nerves.

Question 76.
Write six functions of the epithelial tissue.
(CCE 2015)
Answer:

Protection of underlying tissues from drying up, microbes, chemicals and injury.
Absorption in intestine.
Excretion in uriniferous tubules.
Exchange of gases in alveoli
Secretion by glandular epithelium.
Formation of gametes by germinal epithelium.

Question 77.
Explain the basic characteristics for classification of permanent tissues in plants. (CCE 2015, 2016)
Answer:
Basic characteristics for classification of permanent tissues are simple or complex nature and types of their specialisation. Simple Permanent Tissues. The tissues are made up of one type of cells. Depending upon their living or dead nature and thickening, simple permanent tissues are of 3 types :

Parenchyma: Thin walled, living.
Collenchyma: Uneven thickening of pectocellulose, living.
Sclerenchyma: Thick walled, lignified, dead.

Complex Permanent Tissues. The tissues are made up of more than one type of cells. They are of two types.

Xylem: Consists of tracheids, vessels, fibres and parenchyma,
Phloem: Consists of sieve tubes, companion cells, parenchyma and fibres.

Question 78.

What type of tissue is blood ?
What are the types of muscle fibres ?
Write the functions of ligaments and tendons. (CCE 2015)

Answer:

Connective tissue,
Unstriped (smooth), striped (striated) and cardiac,
Ligament: Connecting bone to bone and allowing movement including rotational. Tendon. Connecting muscle to bone for body movements.

Question 79.
Give one important functional difference amongst the muscle tissues and draw a labelled diagram of the muscle tissue which never shows fatigue. (CCE 2015)
Answer:

Muscle tissues are of three types – striated, smooth and cardiac.
Striated (= skeletal) muscle brings about voluntary movements of body parts, e.g., movement of arms.
Smooth (Unstriated) muscle performs involuntary movements like peristalsis for passage of food in the alimentary canal.
Cardiac muscle performs involuntary non-fatigued movement of heart in pumping blood to all body parts.

Question 80.
Complete the following flow diagram : (CCE 2015)

Answer:
a – Permanent tissue.
b – Intercalary
c – Lateral
d – Complex
e – Sderenchyma
f – Phloem.

Question 81.
(a) Name the animal tissue which is present in the larynx,
(b) Write the chemical constituents of this tissue,
(c) What function does this tissue perform ? (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a) Tissue Present in Larynx. Cartilage,
(b) Chemical Constituents. Its matrix is made of protein sugar complex called chondrin.
(c) Function. Providing both support and flexibility besides showing little wear and tear.

Question 82.
State the location and function of columnar epithelium. Where and how is it modified ? Write the function of this modified tissue. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
Location: Simple columnar epithelium occurs in the lining layer of stomach, intestine and their glands. Modified columnar epithelium called pseuddstratified epithelium occurs in the nasal and genital tracts. Stratified columnar epithelium forms covering layer of epiglottis.
Functions:

Absorption: As lining layer of intestine, columnar epithelium is specialised to absorb nutrients.
Mucus: Goblet cells, which are modfied columnar cells, produce mucus.
Glandular Epithelium: It is a component of most glandular epithelia.
Protection: Being a surface layer, it provides protection to underlying tissues.

Question 83.
(a) Name the following tissues :
(i) The tissue which gives flexibility to plants,
(ii) Tissue which gives support to the plants and also stores food.
(b) Write two structural differences between the above two tissues.
(c) In desert plants the epidermis has a thick waxy coating. Why ? (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a)
(i) Collenchyma
(ii) Parenchyma.
(b)

(c) Waxy coating or cuticle (cutin + wax) also provides strength to epidermis, protection against abrasive action of wind, attack by microbes.

Question 84.
Write one important function of
(a) Xylem
(b) Phloem
(c) Meristematic tissue. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a) Xylem: Transport of sap.
(b) Phloem: Translocation of food (organic nutrients),
(c) Meristematic Tissue: Cell division, producing cells for growth and differentiation.

Question 85.
Name the tissue associated with the following :
(a) Haversian Canal
(b) Chondrocyte
(t) Eosinophils. Give one function of each of these. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a) Haversian Canal. Bone. Endoskeleton.
(b) Chondrocyte. Cartilage. Parts of endoskeleton as ends of long bones, support for softer organs, (c) Eosinophils. Blood. Transport and immunity.

Question 86.
Answer the following :

Draw a labelled diagram of smooth muscle
Differentiate between parenchyma and collenchyma
Mention the constituents of blood.
Name the epithelial tissue which has hair like projections on the outer surface
Name the tissue that stores fat in the body. (CCE 2016)

Answer:

Constituents of Blood: Plasma and blood cells. Blood cells are of three type—RBCs, WBCs and platelets,
Ciliated: Ciliated Columnar and ciliated cuboidal.
Adipose tissue.

Question 87.
(a) Mention two functions of stomata
(b) Which tissue surrounds stomata ? (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a) Functions of Stomata:

Gaseous Exchange: Stomata are sites where exchange of gases (carbon dioxide and oxygen) occurs between the plant interior and external environment.
Transpiration: Major part of transpiration occurs through stomata. Transpiration removes excess water and keeps plant surfaces cool even in bright sun.
Regulation: They regulate both gaseous exchange and transpiration.

(b) Epidermis.

Question 88.
(a) Blood is called fluid connective tissue. State reason.
(b) Name the various components of blood.
(c) State the main function of blood. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a) Blood as Fluid Connective Tissue:

Blood is considered connective tissue as it contains cells suspended in a fluid matrix,
Further, it connects all parts of the body receiving and providing materials every where.

(b) Components of Blood: Plasma or matrix – 55%, Blood cells – 45%. Plasma has 90 – 92% water, 8 – 10% organic and inorganic substances. Blood cells are of two types, haemoglobin containing red blood corpuscles (RBCs) and colourless white blood corpuscles (WBCs). Blood platelets are cell fragments present in blood.
(c) Main Function of Blood:
Transport: Blood transports gases, nutrients, hormones and waste materials to various parts of the body.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
(a) What is ligament ? Mention its function.
(b) What is areolar tissue and where is it formed ? Give its two functions. (CCE 2010, 2012)
Answer:
(a) Ligament: It is dense, cord-like fibrous connective tissue that binds a bone with another bone. Function. Because of its elasticity, ligament allows bending and rotational movements over a joint.
(b) Areolar Tissue: It is a simple connective tissue that possesses a jelly-like matrix, both white and yellow elastin fibres, fibroblasts, mast cells, plasma cells, macrophages and immunocytes.
Location: Inside and outside organs and tissues and as subcutaneous tissue.
Functions:

Binding: Packing and Covering. Areolar tissue functions as binding, packing and covering tissue around and inside various body organs,
Repair: Areolar tissue provides materials for repair of injuries.

Question 2.
(a) What is stratified squamous epithelium. State its functions.
(b) Name the type of tissue whose cells are filled with fat globules. State its functions. (CCE 2010, 2012, 2013)
Answer:
(a) Stratified Squamous Epithelium. It is a multilayered epithelial tissue whose basal layer lying in contact with basement membrane is capable of adding new cells to the outer layers.
Functions: It provides protection to underlying tissue from abrasion, mechanical stresses and irritating chemicals.
(b) Adipose tissue.
Functions:

Storage of fat.
Formation of shock absorbing cushions around important organs.
Formation of insulation layer below the skin to protect from loss of body heat,
Providing shape to body parts.

Question 3.
(a) Name four components of phloem.
(b) What is meristematic tissue ? State its different types. Show their locations in diagram of a plant body. Give classification of meristems. (CCE 2010)
Answer:
(a)

Sieve tube cells
Companion cells
Phloem Parenchyma
Phloem fibres.

(b) On the basis of location, meristematic tissue or meristem is of three types – apical, intercalary and lateral.
Classification: Primary and secondary. Primary Meristems. Apical, intercalary Secondary Meristems. Lateral meristems (vascular cambium, cork cambium)

Question 4.
(i) Define tissue. What is utility of tissues in multicellular organisms ?
(ii) Are plants and animals made of same types of tissues ? If no, then write the points of difference. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(i) Tissue is a group of related cells that have a common origin and perform a common function.
Utility of Tissues:

Division of Labour: Tissues bring about division of labour in multicellular organisms. It increases efficiency.
Higher Organisation: Tissues become organised to form organs and organ systems.
Individual Cells: Work load of individual cells has decreased.
Higher Survival: Because of division of labour, higher efficiency and organisation, the multicellular organisms have high survival.

(ii) Tissues in Plants and Animals. Plants and animals are not made of same type of tissues.
Differences:

Plant Tissues	Animal Tissues
1. Abundance. Dead supportive tissues are more abundant as compared to living tissues.	Living tissues are more common as compared to dead tissues.
2. Maintenance Energy. They require less maintenance energy.	Animals require more maintenance energy.
3. Basic Nature. There is differentiation of meristematic and permanent tissues.	Such a differentiation is absent.
4. Meristematic Tissue. Due to its activity plants continue to grow throughout life.	It is absent. Animals do not show growth after reaching maturity. Reparative growth is, however, present.
5. Organisation. It is simple.	Organisation is complex with the development of more
6. Purpose. Tissue organisation is towards stationary habit.	specialised and localised organs and organ systems. Tissue organisation is towards high mobility.

Question 5.
(a) Analyse the reason behind the following statements :

Epidermis is thicker in desert plants though it is usually single layered
Presence of waxy layer (secreted by spidermis) on the outer surface of plants.

(b) Discuss the cell arrangement which supports the fact that epidermis is a protective tissue. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a)

Thick epidermis is a device to provide extra protection to desert plants against excessive transpiration and loss of turgidity.
Waxy coating or cuticle (cutin + wax) also provides strength to epidermis, protection against abrasive action of wind, attack by microbes.

(b) Epidermis forms a complete covering having closely packed elongated cells with no intercellular spaces.

Question 6.
Identify the following muscular tissues and draw their diagrams :
(a) This tissue is mostly attached to bones and helps in body movements.
(b) This tissue is found in the iris of eye and bronchi of lungs.
(c) This tissue contracts and relaxes rapidly and rhythmically throughout life. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a) Striated muscle.

(b) Smooth muscle.

(c) Cardiac muscle.

Question 7.
Name a connective tissue which is the hardest. What makes it so hard ? List any three important functions of this tissue. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
Bone: Bone is made hard by the deposition of carbonates and phosphates of calcium and magnesium in its matrix.

Functions,

Attachment: Connective tissue binds different structures of the body, e.g., bone with bone, muscle with bone, muscle with skin.
Packing: It forms the packing material in different organs.
Various organs of the body are covered by protective sheaths of connective tissue.
Connective tissue forms shock absorbing cushions around several organs, e.g., eye, heart, kidneys.
Skeletal connective tissue (bones, cartilages) forms supportive framework of the body.
Vascular tissue (fluid connective tissue) forms an internal transport system of the body.
A number of cells present in the connective tissue provide protection against microbes and toxins.
Storage: Fat is stored in connective tissue called adipose tissue.
Formation of Blood Cells: Red bone marrow is a connective tissue specialised to form blood cells.
Components of connective tissue are involved in repair of injuries.

Question 8.
(a) Draw a neat diagrams of transverse section of parenchyma tissue and label four parts on it.
(b) Write any two differences between parenchyma and collenchyma. (CCE 2013)
Answer:
(a)

(b)

Question 9.
The growth of plant occurs in specific regions.
(i) Name the tissue which is responsible for this growth,
(ii) State the different types of this tissue,
(iii) Write one function of each of the above mentioned tissue. (CCE 2014)

Answer:
(i) Tissue: The tissue responsible for growth in specific regions of the plant is called meristematic tissue or meristem.
(ii) Types: Depending upon the region of occurrence, meristems are of three types—apical, intercalary and lateral. Apical meristem occurs over the tips of stem, root and their branches. Intercalary meristem occurs at leaf bases and above or below stem nodes. Lateral meristem is peripheral in stem and root. It has two types, vascular cambium and cork cambium.
(iii) Function:

Apical Meristem. Growth in length of stem and root,
Intercalary Meristem. Elongation of internodes, upward bending of lodged stems.
Lateral Meristem. Growth in girth of stem and root and formation of cork or bark on their outside for protection.

Question 10.
Draw a labelled diagram of section of phloem. Name the four types of elements found in phloem. With respect to conduction, what is the main difference between xylem and phloem. (CCE 2014)
Answer:

Four Elements. Sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres.
Differences in Conduction:

Xylem	Phloem
1. Conduction. Xylem conducts sap (water + minerals)	1. It conducts organic solutes or nutrients.
2. Direction : Conduction is mostly unidirectional, upwardly from roots to stem tips and leaves.	2. Conduction is often bidirectional from leaves to roots and stem tips.

Question 11.
Based upon their location and function differentiate amongst the three types of meristematic tissues. Draw a diagram to show the location of the three tissues in a plant. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
Types: Depending upon the region of occurrence, meristems are of three types—apical, intercalary and lateral. Apical meristem occurs over the tips of stem, root and their branches. Intercalary meristem occurs at leaf bases and above or below stem nodes. Lateral meristem is peripheral in stem and root. It has two types, vascular cambium and cork cambium.
Function:

Apical Meristem. Growth in length of stem and root,
Intercalary Meristem. Elongation of internodes, upward bending of lodged stems.
Lateral Meristem. Growth in girth of stem and root and formation of cork or bark on their outside for protection.

Question 12.
Complete the following table for plants.

Answer:
A—xylem.
B—phloem.
C—vessels.
D— tracheids.
E—xylem fibres.
F—xylem parenchyma.
G—sieve tubes.
H—companion cells.
I—phloem, parenchyma.
J-phloem fibres.

Question 13.
(a) Show a diagrammatic representation of the location of lateral meristem and intercalary meristem in plant body.
(b) Name the meristem responsible for increase in girth of root or stem.
(c) Write two difference between meristematic and permanent tissues in a tabular form. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a)

(b) Lateral meristem.
(c)

Meristematic Tissue	Permanent Tissue
1. Nature. The cells are small, isodiametric and undifferentiated.	The cells are large, differentiated with different shapes.
2. Spaces. Intercellular spaces are absent.	Intercellular spaces are often present.
3. Vacuoles. They are nearly absent.	Large central vacuole occurs in living permanent cells.
4. Nucleus. It is large and prominent.	Nucleus is less conspicuous.
5. Wall. Cell wall is thin.	Cell wall is thin or thick.
6. Divisions. The cells undergo regular divisions.	The cells do not normally divide.
7. Metabolism. Rate of metabolism is high.	Metabolic rate is comparatively slower.
8. Life. The cells are living.	The cells may be living or dead.
9. Function. It takes part in growth.	It provides protection, support, conduction, photosynthesis, storage, etc.

Question 14.
(a) Draw diagram of neuron and label the following points on it

Single long part of nerve cell
Short branched parts
Nucleus
Cell body.

(b) Name two tissues whose combination enables animals to move rapidly in response to stimuli. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a)

Axon
Dendrons.

(b) Nervous and muscular.

Question 15.
(a) Explain the formation of complex permanent tissues in plants. Mention the two types of complex tissues and write their functions.
(b) How simple permanent tissues are different from complex permanent tissues ? (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a) Terrestrial plants being large and fixed not only require supportive tissues but also conducting tissues. Conducting tissues are complex. They have both supportive and conducting elements. The two types of complex plant j tissues are xylem and phloem.
Functions:
Xylem—Transport of sap (water + minerals).
Phloem —Translocation of food.
(b) Differences:

Simple Tissues	Complex Tissues
1. Cells: A simple tissue is formed of only one type of cells.	A complex tissue is made of more than one type of cells.
2. Activity: All the cells perform the same function.	The different cells perform different fractions of a function.
3. Types: There are three types of simple plant tissues— . parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma.	There are two types of complex plant tissues— xylem and phloem.
4. Function: They form primary structure of the plant.	They form transport system of the plant.

Question 16.
(a) Define epithelial tissue.
(b) Name the type of epithelial tissue found in the following j organs. Also draw the diagram of each tissue :

Skin
Inner lining of intestine
Ducts of salivary glands, (CCE 2014)

Answer:
(a) Epithelial tissue or epithelium is unilayered or multilayered animal tissue of compacdy arranged cells that overlies a basement membrane and forms a covering over external and internal surfaces of body parts.
(b)

Skin: Stratified squamous epithelium.
Inner Lining of Intestine: Simple columnar epithelium, (but no cilia)
Ducts of Salivary Glands: Stratified cuboidal epithelium.

Question 17.
(a) Draw a neat diagram of transverse section ot collenchyma tissue and label any four parts on it.
(b) Write two differences between parenchyma and collenchyma tissue. (CCE 2014)
Answer:
(a)

(b)

Question 18.
Draw a labelled diagram of unstriated muscle tissue and mention its occurrence, features and functions. (CCE 2014)
Answer:

Occurrence. Inside visceral organs of the body like gastrointestinal tract, blood vessels, bronchi, urinary bladder, iris, etc.
Features:

Spindle shaped, unbranched,
Contractile myofibrils present but do not form striations,
A single central nucleus.

Functions: They perform sustained involuntary contractions without getting fatigued.

Question 19.
Complete the following table : (CCE 2015)

Answer:
Husk of coconut : Tissue – Simple. Types of Tissue – Sclerenchyma. Cells – Dead. Main function – Mechanical strength / protection.
In leaf stalk below epidermis : Tissue – Simple. Type of Tissue – Collenchyma. Cells – Living. Main function – Mechanical strength with flexibility.

Question 20.
Name the tissue whose cells are highly specialized for being stimulated and then transmitting the stimulus from one place to another within the body. Mention three organs in our body which are composed of this tissue. What are the cells of this tissue called ? Name two tissues in animals the combination of which enables animals to move rapidly in response to stimuli. (CCE 2015)
Answer:

Tissue: Nervous tissue
Organs: Brain, Spinal cord, Nerves
Cells: Neurons
Tissues for Mobility: Skeletal tissues, Muscular tissue.

Question 21.
Analyse the significance of specialised epithelial tissue present in the following :
(a) Ciliary columnar epithelium in respiratory tract
(b) Stratified squamous epithelium in skin
(c) Cuboidal epithelium in kidney tubules
(d) Columnar epithelium in inner lining of intestine
(e) Squamous epithelium in lining of oesophagus.
(CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a) Ciliary Columnar Epithelium in Respiratory Tract. Pushing out the trapped dust particles and microbes.
(b) Stratified Squamous Epithelium in Skin. Protection from injury, abrasion, irritating chemicals and entry of germs.
(c) Cuboidal Epithelium in Kidney Tubules. Secretion and reabsorption.
(d) Columnar Epithelium in Intestine. It is specialised to absorb nutrients.
(e) Squamous Epithelium in Oesophagus. Protection against abrasion, microbes and toxins.

Question 22.
Name two simple permanent tissues which have living cells. Write two distinguishing features of each. Mention their location and functions. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
Simple Permanent Tissues with Living Cells. Parenchyma, Collenchyma.
Parenchyma
Features:

Thin-walled nearly isodiametric
Cells are loosely packed with intercellular spaces.

Location:

In all parts of the plant body (stem, root, leaves, flowers, fruits, seeds),
Mesophyll of leaves.

Functions:

Storage of food,
Providing turgidity or rigidity to soft parts by remaining turgid.
Chlorenchyma as seat of photosynthesis.
Aerenchyma having large air cavities for providing buoyancy,
Epidermis forming external covering of softer plant parts.

Collenchyma
Features: The cells possess uneven thickenings of pectocellulose.
Location: Below epidermis in herbaceous dicot stems, leaf stalks and midribs.
Functions:

It is living mechanical tissue which provides both mechanical strength and flexibility
The tissue allows growth,
It takes part in storage,
It may contain chloroplasts and take part in photosynthesis.

Question 23.
(a) Show the diagrammatic representation of location of lateral meristem and intercalary meristem in plant body
(b) Name the meristem responsible for increase in girth of < root or stem,
(c) Write two differences between meristematic and permanent tissues in a tabular form. (CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a)

(b) Lateral meristem (mainly vascular cambium).
(c)

Meristematic Tissue	Permanent Tissue
1. Nature. The cells are small, isodiametric and undifferentiated.	The cells are large, differentiated with different shapes.
2. Spaces. Intercellular spaces are absent.	Intercellular spaces are often present.
3. Vacuoles. They are nearly absent.	Large central vacuole occurs in living permanent cells.
4. Nucleus. It is large and prominent.	Nucleus is less conspicuous.
5. Wall. Cell wall is thin.	Cell wall is thin or thick.
6. Divisions. The cells undergo regular divisions.	The cells do not normally divide.
7. Metabolism. Rate of metabolism is high.	Metabolic rate is comparatively slower.
8. Life. The cells are living.	The cells may be living or dead.
9. Function. It takes part in growth.	It provides protection, support, conduction,photosynthesis, storage, etc.

Question 24.
(a) Draw a neat diagram of transverse section of collenchyma tissue and label on it any four parts,
(b) Write , any two differences between parenchyma and collenchyma.
(CCE 2016)
Answer:
(a)

(b)

Hope given Previous Year Question Papers for CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 6 Tissues are helpful to complete your science homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online science tutoring for you.

Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10

May 7, 2023

Chapter 10 Gravitation Class 9 Science Important Questions with Answers PDF will help you in scoring more marks in your exams.

Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions and Answers Science Chapter 10

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Based on gravitation and Newtons law of gravitation

Question 1.
What do you mean by gravitation ? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
The force of attraction between any two particles in the universe is called gravitation.

More Resources

Question 2.
State Universal law of gravitation.

How is the force of attraction dependent on the masses of objects and distance between them ?
(CBSE 2014)
Answer:
Each object on the universe attracts other object with a’ force known as gravitational force. The force of attraction between two objects is directly proportional to

the product of masses of the objects and
inversely proportional to the square of distance between them. That is,

Question 3.
The distance between two particles is decreased. Will the gravitational force between them increase or decrease ?
Answer:
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 2
So, gravitational force (F) increases when the distance (r) between two particles decreases. r

Question 4.
An iron ball exerts a force F on the rubber ball. How much force, the rubber ball will exert on the iron ball ?
Answer:
The rubber ball also exerts the same force F on the iron ball.

Question 5.
Define Universal gravitational constant (G).
Answer:
Universal gravitational constant is defined as the force of attraction between two objects of unit masses separated by unit distance.

Question 6.
Write down the unit of ‘G’ in S.I.
Answer:
Nm² kg^-2.

Question 7.
What is the value of ‘G’ ?
Answer:
G = 6.673 x 10^-11 N m² kg^-2.

Question 8.
The value of G = 6.673 x 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2 on the surface of the earth. What is the value of G on the surface of the moon ? (CBSE Sample Paper; CBSE 2011, 2013, 2014)
Answer:
The value of G on the surface of the moon
= value of G on the surface of the earth (i.e., 6.673 x 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2).

Question 9.
The gravitational force between two objects on the earth is 2 N. What will be the gravitational force between these two objects on the surface of the moon ?
Answer:
Same force i.e. 2 N.
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 3
(∴ F and G has the same value on the surface of earth and on the surface of moon).

Question 10.
State one phenomena related to universal law of gravitation.
Answer:
The atmosphere of earth is possible due to this law.

Question 11.
Name the force which is responsible for the revolution of planets around the sun. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
The gravitational force of attraction between the planet and the sun. This force provides the necessary centripetal force to the planet to move in a circular orbit around the sun.

Question 12.
Name the force which is responsible for the revolution of moon around the earth.
Answer:
The gravitational force between the earth and the moon provides the centripetal force to the moon to move in a circular path around the earth.

Question 13.
The earth is acted upon by the gravitational force of attraction due to the sun. Then why does the earth not fall towards the sun ?
Answer:
Gravitational force of attraction on the earth due to the sun provides the necessary centripetal force to the earth to move around the earth. Hence, earth does not fall towards the sun.

Question 14.
State two factors on which gravitational force between two objects depends.
Answer:

Mass of the objects,
distance between them.

Question 15.
The gravitational force between two objects is F. How will the force change when the distance between them is reduced to 1/4 th ?
Answer:
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 4

Question 16.
Is the force of gravity stronger on a piece of iron than on a piece of wood if both have the same mass ?
(CBSE 2015)
Answer:
No. Force of gravity on a piece of iron is equal to the force of gravity on a piece of wood because F = mg.

Question 17.
When a stone is thrown vertically upwards, its velocity is continuously dedfeased. Why ? (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
When a stone is thrown vertically upwards, a force called gravitational force pulls the stone continuously in the downward direction. Hence, velocity of the stone is decreased continuously.

Based on free fall and acceleration due to gravity

Question 18.
The factor associated with the motion of an object are : Force, velocity, acceleration and momentum. Out of these four factors which one remains constant for all bodies large or small, undergoing a free fall.
(CBSE 2013, 2015)
Answer:
Acceleration of a freely falling object remains constant as it does not depend on the mass of the object.

Question 19.
Two objects of masses and M2 are dropped in vacuum from a height above the surface of earth (Mt> M2). Which one will fall the ground first, and why ?
Answer:
Both objects will fall on the ground simultaneously as the acceleration (known as acceleration due to gravity) with which an object falls towards the earth is constant irrespective of the mass of the object.

Question 20.
When an object is dropped from a height, it accelerates when it falls down. Name the force which accelerates the object.
Answer:
Gravitational force between object and earth (i.e., gravity).

Question 21.
State the type of motion shown by a freely falling stone. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Uniformly accelerated motion.

Question 22.
Write the expression for the acceleration due to gravity. GM
Answer:
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 5

Question 23.
What is the SI unit of acceleration due to gravity (g) ?
Answer:
m s^-2.

Question 24.
What is the value of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth ?
Answer:
g = 9.8 m s^-2

Question 25.
What is the value of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon ?
Answer:
g = 1.6 m s^-2 on the surface of moon.

Question 26.
What is the direction of acceleration due to gravity ?
Answer:
Towards the centre of the earth.

Question 27.
What will be the direction of acceleration due to gravity if the body is thrown vertically upward ?
Answer:
The direction of acceleration due to gravity is always towards the centre of the earth i.e. in the downward direction.

Question 28.
Is value of ‘g’ same at all ‘places on the earth ? Give reason for your answer. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
No.
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 6
Since polar radius (distance of pole from the centre of earth) is less than the equatorial
radius, therefore, the value of ‘g is more at poles than at equator.

Question 29.
Where is the value of ‘g’ equal to zero on earth ?
Answer:
At the centre of the earth.

Question 30.
An object of mass 2 kg falls with an acceleration of 9.8 m s^-2 towards the ground. With what acceleration will an object of mass 4 kg fall ?
Answer:
9.8 m s^-2. This is because acceleration due to gravity is independent of the mass of the object.

Based on mass and weight of a body

Question 31.
Define mass of a body. (CBSE 2010, 2012)
Answer:
Mass of a body is defined as the quantity of matter contained in the body.

Question 32.
What is the SI unit of mass ? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
SI unit of mass is kilogram (kg).

Question 33.
Is mass of a body a scalar or a vector physical quantity ?
Answer:
Mass is a scalar physical quantity.

Question 34.
The mass of a body at the equator is 20 kg. What will be the mass of this body at the poles ?
Answer:
20 kg.

Question 35.
Define weight of a body. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
The force with which a body is attracted by the earth is known as the weight of the body.

Question 36.
Write a relation between the mass and weight of the body. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
W = mg

Question 37.
State the SI unit of weight. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
S.I. unit of weight is newton (N).

Question 38.
What is the weight of an object at the centre of earth ?
Answer:
Zero.

Question 39.
The weight of a body on the earth is 60 N. What is the weight of the body on the moon ? (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Weight of the body on the moon = (1/6) x 60 N=10 N.

Question 40.
Define 1 kg weight and express it in Newton.
Answer:
Force is said to be 1 kg weight if it produces acceleration equal to 9.8 m s^-2 in a body of 1 kg mass.
1 kg wt = 1 kg x 9.8 ms^-2 = 9.8 N

Question 41.
What is the mass of an object whose weight is 196 N ?
Answer:
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 7

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Based on gravitation and newtons law of gravitation

Question 1.
State Newtons law of gravitation. Write the mathematical equation for Newton’s law of gravitation.
(CBSE 2010, 2011, 2014, 2015)
Answer:
According to this law, the force of attraction between two particles or bodies is

directly proportional to the product of their masses and
inversely proportional to the square of the distance between these particles or bodies

Relation between gravitational force between two bodies and the distance between them.
Consider two bodies A and B having masses m₁ and m₂ respectively. Let the distance between these bodies be r (Figure 6).
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 8
According to the law of gravitation, the force of attraction (F) or force of gravitation between these bodies is directly proportional to (i) product of masses of bodies
i.e., F ∝ m₁m₂ …(1)
and (ii) inversely proportional to square of distance between bodies.
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 9
Eqn. (3) gives the magnitude of gravitational force between two interacting bodies of masses m₁ and m₂ separated by a distance V.

Question 2.
Why is Newton’s law of gravitation known as universal law of gravitation ? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
This is because this law is applicable to all the objects or particles in the universe.

Question 3.
Why is G called universal constant ? (CBSE 2010, 2011, 2013, 2014)
Answer:
Because the value of G = 6.673 x 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2 is same at all positions in the universe.

Question 4.
How does the gravitational force between two bodies change if the distance between them is tripled ? Explain. (CBSE 2010, 2011)
Answer:
Gravitational force between two bodies is given by
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 10
Thus, the gravitational force between the bodies becomes 1/9 th times its original value.

Question 5.
State the source of centripetal force that a planet requires to revolve around the sun. On what factors does that force depend ? Suppose this force suddenly becomes zero, then in which direction will the planet begin to move if no other celestial body affects it ?
Answer:
Gravitational force of attraction between the sun and the earth is the source of the centripetal force that a planet requires to revolve around the sun.
It depends on

the masses of the sun and the planet and
distance between the sun and the planet. If this force suddenly becomes zero, the planet begins to move in a straight line along the tangent at the point on the circular path of the planet around the sun because of inertia of motion.

Question 6.
Mention any two phenomena which will successfully be explained on the basis of Universal law of gravitation.
Answer:

Existence of earth’s atmosphere
Revolution of planets around the sun.

Question 7.
The moon is acted by the gravitational pull of earth, still it does not fall onto the earth. Explain, why ?
(CBSE 2012, 2013)
Answer:
The gravitational pull of earth on the moon provides the necessary force to the moon to move around the earth. Therefore, moon does not fall on the earth.

Question 8.
What is the cause of ocean tides ?

Name the type of force which is responsible for the formation of tides in the sea. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
The earth exerts a large gravitational pull on the moon. According to Newton’s third law of motion, moon also exerts the same large gravitational pull on the earth. This large gravitational pull or force on the earth . due to moon causes ocean tides.

Question 9.
An apple attracts the earth and the earth also attracts the apple towards its centre. Then, why only apple falls towards the earth but earth is not moved towards the apple ?
(CBSE Sample Paper; CBSE 2010, 2011)

A stone and the earth attract each other with an equal and opposite force, why then we see only the stone falling towards the earth, but not the earth rising towards the stone. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
The gravitational forces acting on both the apple and the earth (or a stone and earth) are equal in accelaration produced in the apple or stone is very large and the acceleration produced in the earth magnitude. Since, the mass of the apple or stone is very small as compared to the mass of the earth, so the
is negligible. That is why, the motion of the earth is not noticed.

Based on free fall and acceleration due to gravity

Question 10.
Two boys drop a sheet of a paper from the top of the tower. One boy dropped his sheet of paper as such
but the second boy dropped it by changing it in the form of a ball. Which sheet of paper reaches the ground first and why ? Assume that air resistance is not negligible. (CBSE 2010, 2014)
Answer:
When a body falls through air, the air resistance or force of friction due to air opposes its motion. Since the surface area of sheet of paper is more than the surface area of the paper when it is in the form of a ball. Thus, the opposition offered by air to the paper sheet is more than the opposition offered to the ball shaped sheet. Hence, the sheet changed into the ball shape reaches the ground earlier than the paper sheet.

Question 11.
Study the diagrams below.
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 11
A sheet of paper and a crumpled paper are thrown down from the same height and time is noted. Answer the following questions :
(a) Will the time taken to reach the bottom of the container be the same for the sheet of paper and crumpled paper ? Why ? Explain giving reason.
(b) What will happen in case (ii) ?
Answer:
(a) Since the area of a sheet of paper is more than the area of the paper crumpled into a small, therefore, a sheet of paper will experience a large opposing force due to air than the ball, while falling down. Hence, a sheet of paper falls slower than one that is crumpled into a ball.
(b) Both will take same time to reach the bottom as there is no air resistance.

Question 12.
Derive an expression for the acceleration due to gravity. (CBSE 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014)

How is the value of ‘g’ on the earth related to the mass of the earth and its radius. Derive the expression.
(CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Consider a body of mass m near the surface of the earth (Figure 11). The force acting on the body is the gravitational force of the earth. The magnitude of the gravitational force acting on the body due to the earth is given
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 12
where, M = mass of the earth
R = radius of the earth
[Here, height of the body from the surface of the earth is neglected as compared to the radius of the earth because R = 6400 km is very large.]

This gravitational force (F) produces acceleration equal to ‘g in the body of mass m. So according to Newton’s second law of motion, which is the expression for the acceleration due to gravity.
Eqn. (3) shows that acceleration due to gravity does not depend on the mass of the object or body. Thus, all objects hollow or solid, big or small should fall at the same rate.
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 15

Question 13.
Suppose a planet exists whose mass and radius both are half of those of earth. Calculate acceleration due to gravity on the surface of this planet. lg on the surface of the earth = 9.8 m s^-2. (CBSE 2010, 2012)
Answer:
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 16

Question 14.
What is the difference between ‘g and ‘G’ ?
Answer:

Acceleration due to gravity (g)	Universal gravitational constant (G)
1. The acceleration produced in a body falling freely under the action of gravitational pull of the earth is known as acceleration due to gravity.	The gravitational force between two bodies of unit masses separated by a unit distance is known as universal gravitational constant.
2. The value of ‘g’ is different at different points on the earth.	The value of ‘G’ is same at every point on the earth.
3. The value of ‘g’ decreases as we go higher from the surface of the earth or as we go deep into the earth.	The value of ‘G’ does not change with height and depth from the surface of the earth.
4. The value of ‘g’ at the centre of the earth is zero.	The value of ‘G’ is not zero at the centre of the earth or anywhere else.
5. The value of is different on the surfaces of different heavenly bodies like the sun, the moon, the planets.	The value of ‘G’ is same throughout the universe.
6. The value of ‘g’ on the surface of the earth is 9.8 m s^-2	The value of G = 6.673 x10^-11 Nm² kg^-2, throughout the universe.

Question 15.
Why is the value of lg variable on the surface of earth ?
Answer:

The earth is oval shaped. The distance (R) of equator of earth from the centre of earth is greater than the distance of poles from the centre of earth. Hence, value of ‘g is different at equator and poles.

Question 16.
Give reasons :

The mass is constant everywhere whereas weight keeps changing.
The value of ‘g’ keeps changing as we move away from the earth whereas value of ‘G’ remains constant all over the universe.

Answer:

Mass is a quantity of matter contained in a body and remains constant everywhere. Weight = mg. Since value of ‘g’ changes from place to place, so weight keeps on changing from one place to another place.
The value of ‘g with height is given by

where h is the height from the surface of earth. As h increases, value of ‘g’ decreases. On the other hand, G is universal constant and its value remains constant all over the universe.

Question 17.
Where is the acceleration due to gravity minimum and maximum on the surface of the earth ? (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is given by
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 19
Since equatorial radius (R_E) is greater than the polar radius (R_P) of the earth, therefore, acceleration due to gravity is minimum at the equator and maximum at the poles.

Based on Mass and weight of a body

Question 18.
State the factors on which weight of a body depends. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Since, weight, W = mg. So weight of a body depends on

mass of the body and
acceleration due to gravity (g) at the given place.

Question 19.
Why is the weight of a body less at equator than at poles ? (CBSE 2012, 2013, 2014)
Answer:
Weight, W = mg. Since the value of ‘g’ is less at equator than at poles, so weight of a body is less at equator than at poles.

Question 20.
Why is the weight of a man less on the surface of the moon than on the surface of the earth ?
Answer:
W = mg. Since value of ‘g’ on the moon is 1/6 times the value of ‘g’ on the earth. So weight of a body on moon is 1/6 times the weight of the body on earth.

Question 21.
Why is the weight of an object less on a mountain than at sea level ?
Answer:
Since value of g decreases as we go higher and higher, so weight (mg) of the object on the mountain is less than at the sea level.

Question 22.
Why is the weight of a body zero at the centre of the earth ?
Answer:
W = mg. Since g = 0 at centre of the earth.
∴ W = 0.

Question 23.
There are two kinds of balances i.e., a beam balance and a spring balance. If both the balances give the same measure of a given body on the surface of the earth, will they give the same measure on the surface of the moon ? Explain.
Answer:
Beam balance measures the mass of a body. Since mass of a body remains constant so the beam balance will give the same measures on the surface of the earth and on the surface of the moon.
On the other hand, spring balance measures the weight of a body. Weight of a body W = mg. It means, weight of a body depends upon the value of ‘g’. Since value of ‘g on the moon = 1/6 times the value of ‘g’ on the earth, so the spring balance shows 1/6 th times the weight of the body on the earth at the surface of the moon.

Question 24.
A bag of sugar weighs W at some place on the equator. Will it weigh same or more or less when taken to Antarctica ? Explain.
Answer:
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 20
Equatorial radius is more than the polar radius, so the value of ‘g’ at pole is more than the value of ‘g’ at the equator. Hence, the sugar bag will weigh more at Antarctica (or poles).

Question 25.
A body of mass 10 kg is taken to the centre of earth. What will be its mass and weight there ?
Answer:
Mass remains the same. That is, mass of body at the centre of earth = 10 kg.
Weight of body at the centre of earth, W = mg = 10 x 0 = 0 (∴ g at the centre of earth = 0).

Question 26.
Gravitational force on an imaginary planet is 6 times stronger than the gravitational force of the earth. Determine the value of acceleration due to gravity and weight of an object of mass 50 kg on that planet.
Answer:
mg_p = 6 mg_e
∴ g_p = 6 g_e = 6 x 9.8 = 58.8 ms^-2
Weight of object on planet = mg_p = 50 x 58.8 = 2940 N.

Question 27.
Find the weight of a 80 kg man on the surface of moon ? What should be his mass on the earth and on the moon ? (g_e = 9.8 m/s², g_m = 1.63 m/s²).
Answer:
Weight of man on moon = mg_m = 80 x 1.63 = 130.4 N
Mass of an object does not change, when taken to moon from earth. Therefore, mass of man on earth and moon is same i. e., 80 kg.

Question 28.
An object has mass 1 kg and weight 1.67 N on moon. Calculate its weight and mass on earth (g_e =10 m s^-2).
Answer:
Mass of object on earth = mass of object on moon = 1kg.
Weight of object on moon = (1/6) x weight of object on earth
Weight of object on earth = 6 W_m = 6 x 1.67 = 10.02 N

Question 29.
Find the weight of an object at a height 6400 km above the earth’s surface. The weight of the object at the surface of earth is 20 N and radius of earth is 6400 km.
Answer:
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 21

Question 30.
A force of 20 N acts upon a body of weight 9.8 N. What is the mass of the body and how much is its acceleration ( g = 9.8 m s^-2)?
Answer:
W = mg =9.8 N
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 22

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Question 1.
(a) State Universal law of gravitation. Write the expression for the gravitational force between the earth and an object lying on the surface of the earth.
(b) Gravitational force plays an important role in nature. Justify this statement.

State universal law of gravitation. Derive an expression for gravitational force between two bodies.
(CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Definition of universal gravitational constant (G)
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 23
If m₁ = 1 unit, m₂ = 1 unit and r = 1 unit, then G = F Thus, universal gravitational constant (G) is defined as the force of attraction between two bodies of unit masses separated by a unit distance.
Units of universal law of gravitation:
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 24
Characteristics of Gravitational force

Gravitational force between two bodies or objects does not need any contact between them. It means, gravitational force is action at a distance.
Gravitational force between two bodies varies inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. Hence, gravitational force is an inverse square force.
The gravitational forces between two bodies or objects form an action-reaction pair. If object A attracts object B with a force F₁ and the object B attracts object A with a force F₂ (Figure 7), then
Gravitational force between two small bodies is very small. On the other hand, gravitational force between two large bodies (say the sun and the earth) is large.
Gravitational force between two objects is always attractive in nature.

Question 2.
What do you understand by free fall ? Derive an expression for the acceleration due to gravity. Write the factors on which “acceleration due to gravity” depends.
Answer:
Definition of Free Fall
The falling body on which only force of gravitation of the earth acts is known as freely falling body and such fall of a body is known as free fall. A freely falling body has constant acceleration equal to acceleration due to gravity (g), irrespective of its mass.
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 25
Thus, all bodies irrespective of their masses fall down with constant acceleration.
Motion of a freely falling body is uniformly accelerated motion.
Consider a body of mass m near the surface of the earth (Figure 11). The force acting on the body is the gravitational force of the earth. The magnitude of the gravitational force acting on the body due to the earth is given
Gravitation Class 9 Important Questions Science Chapter 10 image - 26
where, M = mass of the earth
R = radius of the earth
[Here, height of the body from the surface of the earth is neglected as compared to the radius of the earth because R = 6400 km is very large.]

This gravitational force (F) produces acceleration equal to ‘g in the body of mass m. So according to Newton’s second law of motion, which is the expression for the acceleration due to gravity.
Eqn. (3) shows that acceleration due to gravity does not depend on the mass of the object or body. Thus, all objects hollow or solid, big or small should fall at the same rate.

Question 3.
Define the terms “mass” and “weight”. Write their SI units. Distinguish between mass and weight.
Answer:

Mass	Weight
The quantity of matter contained in a body is called the mass of the body.	The force with which the earth attracts a body towards its centre is called the weight of the body.
Mass of a body remains constant.	Weight of a body changes from place to place as it depends on the value ‘g’ and ‘g’ is different at different places.
Mass of a body is never zero.	Weight of a body at the centre of the earth is zero.
Mass is a scalar quantity.	Weight is a vector quantity.
Mass is measured in kg.	Weight is measured in kg wt or N.
Mass is measured by a beam balance.	Weight is measured by a weighing machine or a spring balance.

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