Category: CBSE Class 9

Here we are providing The Letter Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English Literature Reader, Extra Questions for Class 10 English was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-english/

The Letter Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English Literature

The Letter Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

The Letter A Question And Answers Class 10  Question 1.
Ali in the story The Letter is a lonely man. How does the writer bring out Ali’s loneliness?
Answer:
Ali lived all alone, passing his days in wait of a letter from his only child Miriam. The writer while describing Ali’s journey to the post office says he walks his lonely way, where except for the occasional bark of a dog, the distant steps of a workman going early to work or the screech of a bird disturbed before its time, the whole town was wrapped in deathly silence.

The Letter Question Answer Class 10 Question 2.
In the story The Letter what are the changes that come over Ali after the marriage of his daughter Miriam?
Answer:
Ali misses his daughter once she goes away. He realises how much he loves her. It also brings to him the realisation that the world is based on love. This makes him give up hunting. He can no longer bear to see the pain of the partridges separated from their parents who have been killed. He patiently waits for his daughter’s letter and goes to the post office daily without bothering about the cold or the heat. He bears the jests and rude remarks of the clerks at the post office.

The Letter Question Answers Class 10 Question 3.
What made Ali a good shikari?
Answer:
Ali had the hunter’s instinct in his blood and bones. A clever shikari, his skill and love for the hunt made it impossible for him to pass a day without hunting. Due to his sharp eyesight, Ali easily spotted the earth brown partridge, almost invisible to others and the cunningly hidden hare crouching in the yellow brown scrub.

Question 4.
“The post office, one of the uninteresting buildings in the world, became his place of pilgrimage.” Who is being referred to here? Why did he come to the post office? Why has the journey been described as a pilgrimage?
Answer:
Coachman Ali is being referred to here. He went daily to the post office waiting for his daughter’s letter. A pilgrimage is a journey, which is often long and difficult, to a special place for religious reasons. Ali’s visits to the post office have been described as a pilgrimage because he went to the post office daily, braving the bitter cold and the heat, with the faith that he would receive his daughter’s letter.

Question 5.
Describe the Postmaster.
Answer:
The Postmaster was a man with a face as sad and as inexpressive as a pumpkin. He did not display any signs of liveliness or excitement. He carried out his job without compassion or feeling. He did not understand Ali’s feelings till his own daughter fell sick.

Question 6.
Why did Ali not come to the post office for several days? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Ali did not come to the post office for several days probably because he was very sick. We can conclude this from the fact that before this for the past five years he had not missed coming to the post office. Moreover, when he came, it was a struggle for him to breathe and on his face were clear signs of the approaching end.

Question 7.
Who did Ali meet on his way back from the post office? What request did he make to him?
Answer:
On his way back from the post office, Ali met one of the post office clerks, a fellow called Lakshmi Das. Ali stopped him and gave him five golden guineas. He told the clerk that he was dying and that day was his very last day. But he had neither seen Miriam nor had he received any letter from her. He told the clerk to keep the money and to keep Miriam’s letter, when it came, on his grave.

Question 8.
What brought about a change in the Postmaster’s attitude?
Answer:
The Postmaster’s attitude changed when his daughter lay ill in another town, and he was anxiously waiting for news of her. This worry and anxiety about her changed the Postmaster. His father’s heart recognised Ali’s yearning for his daughter. The haughty temper of the official left him in his sorrow and anxiety and his human heart was laid bare.

Question 9.
What difference did the Postmaster notice in Ali?
Answer:
Ali was still the meek old man, bent double with age. The tears were wet on his face as they had been when the clerk left him. But his features had been hard then, and now they were softened by lines of kindliness. He lifted his eyes and in them was a light so unearthly that the Postmaster shrank back in fear and astonishment.

Question 10.
Give a short description of Ali.
Answer:
Ali was an old man, bent double with age. He was poor and wore tom clothes. He leant heavily on his stick as he walked. He had sharp eyesight and in his youth he had been a good shikari. His sharp eyes could see the hare even when the dogs failed. He lived alone in the village ever since his daughter, Miriam, had got married and gone away with her husband to Punjab.

The Letter Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Tortured by doubt and remorse, the Postmaster sits in the glow of a charcoal sigri that night, waiting for news of his daughter. As the Postmaster, write a diary entry outlining your feelings.
Answer:
20 June 20XX
Today, as I was eagerly going through the mail waiting for my daughter’s letter, my eyes fell upon the letter Coachman Ali had been waiting for. I was shocked on seeing the letter, and my heart was filled with compassion and regret. It was not long ago that Ali had come to me and humbly asked me if I had a letter from his Miriam. I can’t forget how I had reacted. I had rebuked him and told him to go away. I hadn’t seen the pain in his eyes, his tears of helplessness. I hadn’t seen the anguish of the father whose patience had been exhausted even if his faith still held. How all of us had poked fun at him! We had called him a lunatic! How insensitive we were!
My own daughter’s sickness has brought about a major change in me. As I anxiously await news of my daughter, I can understand what poor Ali must have gone through. Now I look at every envelope differently— as though it contains a warm beating heart.

Question 2.
Rebuked by the Postmaster, Ali walks away from the post office with a heavy heart. That night, he writes his diary outlining his feelings about the day’s events and his approaching end. As Ali, write the diary entry.
Answer:
19 June 20XX
It is my love for Miriam that drives me to the post office every day. I miss her and wait for any news from her. I have been waiting at the post office daily for five long years but in vain. The post office employees make fun of me. Today I was rebuked by the Postmaster, maybe they are disturbed by my presence. I will not go there again. I know that my end is near. I will give money to Lakshmi Das to lay Miriam’s letter on my grave. I am sure the letter will come.

Question 3.
Lakshmi Das, a clerk in the post office, writes a letter to his friend describing the events that take place after Ali’s death and his role in the story. Write the letter as Lakshmi Das.
Answer:
2 March, 20XX
Dear Ram Prasad
I wish to recount a strange incident that occurred today involving an old man who died three months ago.
This incident has changed my beliefs and my attitude towards life. The incident inVolves old Coachman Ali. If you remember, I told you of this man whose daughter got married and moved away to Punjab five years ago. He would come every day to the post office to wait for a letter from his daughter.

We often made fun of him. We would call out his name just to see him get up and rush to the door. Yet, he came daily, just the same, in rain and in cold. One day, about three months ago, the Postmaster rebuked him rudely. He said the letter would be delivered to him when it came. Ali left the post office with tears in his eyes. He met me and gave me five golden guineas to lay his daughter’s letter on his grave. Ali died shortly after this.
Today, a letter came from Miriam. When I went to the post office I heard the Postmaster talking to someone. He told me Ali had come to take his letter. He was staring with wide-open eyes at the doorway. Miriam’s letter was lying near the door in the evening we went and kept the letter on Ali’s grave.
Yours sincerely,
Lakshmi Das

Question 4.
A newspaper reporter hears of the Postmaster’s strange encounter with Ali. He writes a report in the newspaper about Ali’s long wait for the letter and his strange appearance at the post office the day he receives a letter from Miriam. As the newspaper reporter, write the article Love Knows
Answer:
No Boundaries.
Heading—LOVE KNOWS NO BOUNDARIES
Byline—by staff reporter
The strength of love, gives courage to face all kinds of situations. Ali’s love for Miriam is reflected in the eagerness with which he waited for her letter. He visited the post office daily, braving the weather, the ridicule of clerks and even the Postmaster’s rebuke. He waited in vain for the letter and died before it arrived. Postmaster saw Ali after his death and spoke to him. In the end, he laid the letter on Ali’s grave. This incident is an example of the power of love.

Question 5.
It is essential to respect everyone’s feelings. Bring out this message with reference to the story
Answer:
The Letter.
The message of the story is that we should always respect everyone’s feelings and take care not to hurt others. Coachman Ali’s daughter got married and left him and then he understood the meaning of love and separation. Since then, he had been regularly visiting the post office, expecting a letter from his daughter Miriam, but returning home empty handed. One day, the post master rebuked him harshly.

Soon, the post master’s daughter fell ill and he was anxious to hear from her. As he waited for his daughter’s letter, he realised his mistake and how he had hurt Ali. He realised the pain of a father waiting for his daughter’s letter. His attitude changed. He now saw the letters as the essential expressions of a human heart, not just pieces of paper. He understood the human worth of a letter.

The Letter Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Read the following passages taken from The Letter and answer the questions:

Question 1.
“Beholding the wooden arch of this building, the old man was filled with the joy that the pilgrim feels when he first sees the goal of his journey. ’’

(a) What building is being referred to here?
Answer:
The post office is being referred to here.

(b) Why is the old man called a pilgrim?
Answer:
The old man comes to the post office with feelings of faith and love.

(c) Why is the building the goal of his journey?
Answer:
The old man comes to the post office to check if there is a letter for him from his daughter Miriam.

Question 2.
“But for the faith and love that warmed him, he could not have borne the bitter cold. ”
(a) Who is the ‘he’ in this line?
Answer:
The ‘he’ mentioned in this line is Coachman Ali.

(b) Why was he at the post office in the bitter cold?
Answer:
Ali came to the post office daily to wait for a letter from his daughter Miriam, despite the bitter cold and waited there till the letters had been sorted out for delivery’.

(c) What gave Ali the strength to brave the bitter cold?
Answer:
The old man loved his daughter Miriam who had gone off to the Punjab with her husband five years ago. He had faith that she would write to him. This love and faith gave him the strength to bear the bitter winter cold.

Question 3.
“The old man got up, raised his eyes to heaven in gratitude and stepping forward put his hands to the door. ”
(a) Who is the old man?
Answer:
The old man is Coachman Ali.

(b) Why did he raise his eyes to heaven in gratitude?
Answer:
The clerk sorting out the letters had called out his name. Thinking he had got a letter from his daughter Miriam (for which he had been waiting for the past five years), he thanked god and stepped forward to receive the letter.

(c) Why had the clerk called out his name?
Answer:
Every day, regardless of the weather, Ali came and sat on a bench at the post office waiting for his daughter’s letter. The clerk called out his name in jest even though there was no letter for him for the fun of seeing him jump up and come to the door.

Question 4.
“Now he understood the meaning of love and separation. He could no longer enjoy the sportsman’s pleasure and laughter at the bewildered terror of the young partridges bereft of their parents. ”

(a) Who is he?
Answer:
He is Coachman Ali.

(b) Why had he understood the meaning of love and separation now?
Answer:
Ali’s daughter Miriam had gotten married and gone away to the Punjab with her husband and he had not heard from her for the past five years.

(c) How had he reacted to hunting partridges earlier?
Answer:
Earlier, Ali had laughed at the young partridges who had been separated from their parents.

Question 5.
“That day he could not contain his impatience. ”

(a) Who is he?
Answer:
He is Coachman Ali.

(b) Why was he impatient?
Answer:
Ali had been waiting in vain for his daughter’s letter for the past five years. He knew that he was sick and approaching his end. He was impatient to have news of his daughter before he died.

(c) How did he show his impatience?
Answer:
Ali walked up to the Postmaster and asked if he had a letter for him from Miriam rather than waiting quietly.

Question 6.
“He knew at once that this was the letter the old man had been waiting for: it must be from his daughter Miriam. ”
(a) Who is ‘he’?
Answer:
The ‘he’ mentioned here is the Postmaster.

(b) Where was the old man?
Answer:
The old man had died.

(c) Which literary device has been used in these lines?
Answer:
The literary device used here is irony. Ali had waited for five years for a letter from his daughter Miriam and now when the letter arrived, Ali was dead.

Complete the table by explaining the following phrases/sentences in your own words.

Ph rases/Sentences	Meanings
(a) Happy memories light up a life that is nearing its close	Ali was old and approaching death. At this time, recollections of happier times brought joy to his unhappy life.
(b) The sounds helped him along his lonely way	Ali was walking down a deserted street early in the morning. The familiar sounds of grinding mills, and the sweet voices of women singing at their work gave him comfort and the courage to walk on.
(c) The cold used sleep to extend its sway over all things even as a false friend lulls his chosen victim with caressing smiles	Just as a false friend uses sweet words and false smiles to reassure and lay to rest any suspicion in the heart of his intended victim, the cold weather, too, deceives its victims by . . 9 soothing them into sleep and killing them as they sleep.
(d) when the evening of his life was drawing in, he left his old ways and suddenly took a new turn	As he became older and approached the end of his life, Ali gave up his old habits and occupation (hunting animals) and changed his attitude and his lifestyle.
(e) The whole universe is built through love and the grief of separation is inescapable	The basis on which the universe revolves is love and if one loves someone, the pain of separation is unavoidable.
(f) The postmaster, a man with a face as sad and as inexpressive as a pumpkin, would be seen sitting on his chair inside	The postmaster was an unimpressive person with a sad and vacant look on his face.
(g) The haughty temper of the official had quite left him in his sorrow and anxiety, and had laid bare his human heart	The shared grief related to their respective daughters had made the postmaster give up his arrogant attitude. His sorrow and worry aroused compassion and understanding

Here we are providing A Shady Plot Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English Literature Reader, Extra Questions for Class 10 English was designed by subject expert teachers.

A Shady Plot Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English Literature

A Shady Plot Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Bring out the irony in the statement: “I didn’t specialise in ghost stories, but more or less they seemed to specialise in me.”
Answer:
The narrator did not write ghost stories out of choice. He wanted to write other genres. But it was his ghost stories that were popular and so he got into writing those. Ironically, it was the ghost, Helen, who helped him write these stories.

Question 2.
What does the narrator mean by “And I had never found it healthy to contradict Jenkins”?
Answer:
The narrator said that he had realised that when Jenkins gave him work to do, it was better to agree to what he said. He could not risk Jenkins getting angry and withdrawing the offer or not giving him any work in the future.

Question 3.
Though the narrator did not particularly like writing ghost stories, why did he do so?
Answer:
The narrator’s ghost stories were popular with the readers and Jenkins preferred him to write ghost stories. Moreover, no other magazine was ready to publish his writing. He needed this extra income from writing to pay the rent or the grocer’s bill.

Question 4.
What was the narrator’s attitude towards his writing ability? Was it justified?
Answer:
The narrator had become overconfident and cocky about his writing ability. He did not realise that the plots were being put in his mind by the ghost.

Question 5.
Briefly describe the ghost.
Answer:
The ghost was long and angular, with enormous fishy eyes behind big bone-rimmed spectacles, with her hair in a tight wad at the back of her head and a solid jaw. She wore a stiff white shirtwaist and a plaid skirt.

Question6.
Why did the ghost materialise?
Answer:
The narrator had not been able to think of a plot for his story and had been calling on heaven and earth all afternoon to help him write a story. The ghost had materialised as a result of his call for help to tell him that no help would be forthcoming as the ghosts were going on strike.

Question 7.
Why were the ghosts created by Helen in the narrator’s mind different from her? Do you think her estimation was correct?
Answer:
Helen felt that if she created ghosts like herself, the readers may not like them. She was correct because the narrator’s ghost stories are very popular.

Question 8.
What condition did she place on the narrator for providing him help?
Answer:
Helen wanted the narrator to get the fanatics using Ouija boards to stop asking questions. The ghosts have had to give up haunting almost entirely as they were really busy answering questions the Ouija board users were asking.

Question 9.
What impression do you form of Lavinia before you meet her?
Answer:
We learn that Lavinia, John’s wife likes to go shopping. She also had the tendency to take on every new fad that came along and perform it so often that people became tired of it. We further learn that she was very sensitive.

Question 10.
What was the narrator’s reaction when he was nervous or excited? When does Lavinia encounter this reaction?
Answer:
When the narrator was nervous or excited, a muscle in his face twitched pulling up one comer of his mouth into an idiotic grin. He had managed to conceal this affliction from Lavinia. But when Helen sent a message to him on all the Ouija boards, he felt his face twitch in the spasm of that idiotic grin.

Question 11.
What new fad had Lavinia adopted? What was the irony in this?
Answer:
Lavinia had picked up an Ouija board from a bumper sale as they were the latest craze. The Ouija board was her latest whim. This was ironic because the ghost had just told John to get his friends and acquaintances to stop using the Ouija board.

Question 12.
In what way did Lavinia think that the Ouija board would be helpful to John?
Answer:
Lavinia thought the Ouija board would help him write his stories. If he wanted to write a historical novel, he would not have to research old books in the public library. All he would have to do would be to get out his Ouija board and talk to Napoleon or William the Conqueror or Helen of Troy. He would have all the local colour he needed, without a speck of trouble.

Question 13.
Though at first Lavinia mentions Helen of Troy as one of the possible subjects of his novels, she quickly dismisses her. What does this show about her?
Answer:
Lavinia says the Ouija board would help John research heroes of history like Napoleon or William the Conqueror or Helen of Troy. She quickly dismisses Helen of Troy as a subject for a novel. This shows she is possessive of John and jealous if he pays attention to another woman, even if the woman is a ghost.

Question 14.
Why did Lavinia refuse to return the Ouija board?
Answer:
Lavinia said the Ouija board was bought at a bumper sale and so was non-returnable. She also said she believed in the hereafter and the messages conveyed through the board.

Question 15.
Why was the narrator late as he came home that Saturday? Why did Gladolia warn John?
Answer:
Friday had been a half day, and of course when John went to office on Saturday the work had piled up. Gladolia told him that as he was late, Lavinia was likely to be angry as she had invited people over for a party. She had called John’s office and conveyed a message for him to return early. Gladolia advised John not
to argue with his wife.

Question 16.
What party had Lavinia organised? What feelings did this evoke in John?
Answer:
Lavinia had called her friends for an Ouija board party. John was anxious and looked around with trepidation as he expected the ghost of Helen to materialise. He was worried how his wife would react.

Question 17.
Whom did John have to partner? Why?
Answer:
Lavinia told John to partner Laura Hinkle as her partner Mrs William Augustus Wainright had called up at the last moment to say that she could not possibly come. As a result Laura Hinkle had no partner.

Question 18.
Why did John wish Laura Hinkle was cheating on the Ouija board? Did his fears come out true?
Answer:
When the narrator noticed some force tugging the board about, he hoped it was Laura Hinkle. He did not want •the ghost, Helen, to send a message. His fears came true as Helen was the one who was sending the message.

Question 19.
Why does the ghost return the day after the incident of the Ouija board?
Answer:
Helen was sent by the other ghosts to find out when the narrator’s wife was going to get rid of that Ouija board.

Question 20.
What do you think would be the plot for the narrator’s next story?
Answer:
The plot of John’s next story would be about his encounter with the ghost of Helen.

A Shady Plot Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Write a brief character sketch of John Hallock.
Answer:
John Hallock was cocky and overconfident about his ability to write ghost stories and he did not believe in Helen and was sceptical about ghosts. He was creative as he was able to write stories and also protective of his wife. He was gentle and kind with Gladolia.

Question 2.
Write a brief character sketch of Lavinia Hallock.
Answer:
Lavinia Hallock was whimsical and loved novelty and thrills. She picked up fads with enthusiasm. She was also suspicious and jealous and got upset with John and Laura. Lavinia was manipulative and did not let John have his way. She was strong as a person and took the appearance of the ghost in her stride.

Question 3.
Imagine that you are Gladolia. Write a letter to your friend describing the events at the Hallock household.
Answer:
The mistress got an Ouija board and called her friends over for ^ session. The ghosts began sending messages through the Ouija board. I wanted to leave as the Ouija board contraptions and hoodoos scare me. Thankfully the mistress burnt the board and I think I will stay here for now.

Question 4.
Imagine you are one of the members of the Book Club. Write a brief account of the incident of the Ouija boards.
Answer:
I was invited to Lavinia Hallock’s place for a session with the Ouija board. The session started and the message ‘traitor’ appeared on it. I wanted to ask John Hallock the reason behind this message as I found that he behaved in a suspicious manner. I am sure there was a mystery behind this message.

Question 5.
Imagine that you are the ghost of Helen of Troy. Report to the others how you have got Lavinia Hallock to get rid of the Ouija board.
Answer:
I think that the Ouija board is a new fad, which is catching on really fast. Ghosts waste lot of time answering questions from these people. I had warned John Hallock to stop his friends and acquaintances from using the Outa board as it is an utter waste of our time. But he took part in this session with his wife. The message which appeared on the Ouija board called him a traitor. His wife was angry and I met her and she was convinced that the board should be burnt.

Question 6.
You are a regular reader of the magazine John Hallock writes for. Review his story A Shady Plot.
Answer:
The name of the story is A Shady Plot. It is about a writer of ghost stories who is helped by a ghost to write his plots. His wife gets an Ouija board and he is warned by the ghost to get rid of it. A ghost sends messages during an Ouija board session and she gets rid of the Ouija board. Among the characters, John is shown to be a man who loves his wife Lavinia and is tolerant of her foibles. Lavinia is shown to be a whimsical, jealous and suspicious person. The character of the ghost is interesting and she materialises at times. The story is an interesting read as it has humorous touches.

Question 7.
You are John Hallock. Write a diary entry after the day’s events are over and your wife has burnt the Ouija board.
Answer:
The day started badly. Lavinia slept in the guest room as she was angry and even threatened me with divorce. Next was the appearance of the ghost and she was angry too.
Gladolia warned me against using hoodoos and magic. Lavinia encountered Helen and finally decided to get rid of the Ouija board and now things are back to normal.

Question 8.
You are Lavinia Hallock. Write a diary entry on the day’s events when your friends come for the Ouija board party.
Answer:
I bought an Ouija board as it is the latest craze and my friends came over for a party. I was bothered by John and his behaviour. Lately his behaviour has been suspicious and I found him talking to himself. He has been, returning late from office. In the Ouija board session I had told him to partner Laura Hinkle and he tried to flirt with her. I think I will divorce him and then he can do what he wants.

Question 9.
What lesson does John Hancock learn from his encounter with the ghost?
Answer:
John Hancock, a reluctant writer of ghost stories, starts getting cocky about his ability to write ghost stories at will. One day, he is’visited by a ghost, who is part of a writers’ inspiration bureau, members of which inspire authors like Hancock to write. The ghost demands a favour from him. She tells the writer that they are on a strike because of constant use of ouija boards and requests the writer to stop people from using the board.

Later, Hancock’s wife brings an ouija board, and hosts an ouija board party. The writer is forced to use the board by his wife. The angry ghost then plays havoc with his married life, leading to a big dispute with his wife. Hancock realises his ideas come as inspiration from the ghosts and writes about the incident. The value that one can derive from this story is that one should not be overconfident about one’s own ability

A Shady Plot Extra Questions and Answers Reference to the Context

Read the following passages taken from A Shady Plot and answer the given questions:

Question 1.
“Hallock, ” he had said to me, “give us another on the supernatural this time. Something to give ’em the horrors; that’s what the public wants, and your ghosts are live propositions. ”

(a) Who is ‘he’?
Answer:
‘He’ is Jenkins, the editor of a magazine.

(b) What does he want Hallock to do?
Answer:
Jenkins wants Hallock to write a ghost story for the magazine.

(c) Why does he want Hallock to do it?
Answer:
Jenkins wants Hallock to write the story because his ghost stories are popular with the readers.

Question 2.
“Jenkins always seemed to have an uncanny knowledge as to when the landlord or the grocer were pestering me, and he dunned me for a ghost. ”

(a) Who is ‘he’?
Answer:
‘He’ is Jenkins, the editor of the magazine for which Hallock writes.

(b) Why is Jenkin’s knowledge uncanny?
Answer:
Jenkin always knew, as if through some mysterious powers, when the narrator needed money.

(c) Explain ‘he dunne,d me for a ghost.’
Answer:
The editor persistently asked the narrator to write a ghost story for the magazine.

Question 3.
“She was long and angular, with enormous fishy eyes behind big bone-rimmed spectacles, and her hair in a tightwad at the back of her head…”

(a) Who was she? What was her name?
Answer:
She was a ghost. When alive, her name had been Helen of Troy, New York.

(b) Why had she appeared to the narrator?
Answer:
Helen of Troy wanted the narrator to get his friends and acquaintances to stop using the Ouija board.

(c) How had she helped the narrator in the past?
Answer:
Helen of Troy had helped the narrator by putting ideas for ghost stories in his head.

Question 4.
“But my ghosts are n’t a bit like you… ”

(a) Who says this and to whom?
Answer:
John Hallock, the narrator, says this to the ghost, Helen.

(b) Why does he say this?
Answer:
The ghost claimed that she was the one who had suggested the plots of the ghost stories that the narrator wrote. A

(c) What does the listener reply?
Answer:
Helen of Troy said the readers wouldn’t believe him if the ghosts were like her.

Question 5.
“The very idea of that horrible scarecrow so much as touching me! And wouldn’t my wife be shocked! ”

(a) Who is the scarecrow?
Answer:
The scarecrow referred to here is Helen, the ghost.

(b) Why does the scarecrow touch the speaker?
Answer:
The ghost had told the narrator that she had often leant over his shoulder while he was writing to give him ideas.

(c) Why would the narrator’s wife be shocked?
Answer:
The narrator’s wife being sensitive, and scared even of a mouse, would be terrified of the ghost and become hysterical.

Question 6.
“There was a time when We had nothing much to occupy us and used to haunt a little on the side, purely for amusement, but not anymore. ”

(a) Who is the speaker?
Answer:
The speaker is Helen, the ghost.

(b) What does she not like to do anymore?
Answer:
The ghost does not wish to sit at a desk and answer questions on the Ouija board any more.

(c) Why does she not have time for any longer?
Answer:
Helen of Troy does not have time to haunt any longer.

Question 7.
“I remembered her craze for taking up new fads and a premonitory chill crept up the back of my neck. ”

(a) Who is the speaker? Who is the ‘her’?
Answer:
The narrator is the speaker. ‘Her’ is the speaker’s wife.

(b) What premonition does the speaker get?
Answer:
Hallock feels that his wife may have got an Ouija board.

(c) Why does he feel so?
Answer:
Hallock’s wife likes to follow the latest fads and Ouija boards were the latest craze.

Question 8.
“Misto Hallock, de Missus shot ’inks you are lost! She says she done ‘phone you dis mawnin ’ to be home early, but fo ’ de Lawd’s sake not to stop to largely now, but get ready fo ’ de company an come on down.

(a) Who is the speaker?
Answer:
The speaker is the narrator’s cook, Gladolia.

(b) Why had the listener’s wife tried to call him?
Answer:
The listener’s wife had called him to tell him they had guests coming over in the evening and he should be home on time.

(c) What advice does the speaker give?
Answer:
Gladolia tells him not to argue with his wife but to change his clothes and come down.

Question 9.
“Then it began to fly around so fast that I gave up any attempt to follow it. My companion was bending forward and had started to spell out loud: ‘T-r-a-i-t-o-r. ’ Traitor! Why, what does she mean?’’

(a) Who is being called a ‘traitor’?
Answer:
The narrator, John Hallock, is being called a traitor.

(b) Who is calling him a traitor?
Answer:
The ghost is calling him a traitor.

(c) Why is he being called a traitor?
Answer:
The ghost had wanted the narrator to get his friends and acquaintances to stop using the Ouija board but he was using it himself.

Question 10.
“Misto Hallock, ” came from the hall outside, “Misto Hallock, I’m gwine t ’quit. I don’t like no hoodoos. And the steps retreated. ”

(a) Who is the speaker?
Answer:
The speaker is the narrator’s cook, Gladolia.

(b) What is the speaker saying?
Answer:
Gladolia says that she is going to leave the job.

(c) What reason does the speaker give?
Answer:
Gladolia tells him that she does not wish to stay where people placed charms and curses on others.

Here we are providing Virtually True Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English Literature Reader, Extra Questions for Class 10 English was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-10-english/

Virtually True Extra Questions and Answers Class 10 English Literature

Virtually True Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Why was the narrator attracted to the newspaper headline?
Answer:
The narrator was attracted to the headline because he wanted to mow whether Sebastian Shultz mentioned in the article was the same person whom he had met earlier.

Question 2.
Why did the doctors feel that they needed a miracle?
Answer:
Sebastian had been badly injured in a motorway accident and had gone into coma. His condition was described as critical though stable. The doctors did not know how to revive him. So they felt they needed a miracle for him to become normal again.

Question 3.
Why did the narrator gasp in amazement and feel nervous and shivery?
Answer:
The narrator gasped because he could not understand how a boy he had come to know recently could be described as being in a coma by the newspapers.

Question 4.
Why does the narrator enjoy playing computer games?
Answer:
The narrator enjoyed it because the big screen with the loud volume made him feel like he was inside the game, battling it out.

Question 5.
What are psycho-drive games?
Answer:
They are games played with a virtual reality visor and glove, which have the ability to change what a person can see. They control the action in the game by their thoughts.

Question 6.
What was the Powerbase?
Answer:
It was the loft which had been converted into their computer room and housed the computer, that screen, the printer and other accessories.

Question 7.
Describe the game called Wildwest.
Answer:
It was a game that transported the player to the time of the Wild West in America when saloons existed and Sheriffs were law enforcers.

Question 8.
Why was the narrator surprised while playing the game Wildwest?
Answer:
The narrator was surprised to see another Sheriff stride in, who was about his age, but did not look like a computer image.

Question 9.
Describe the game Dragonquest.
Answer:
The game required the player to rescue a princess called Aurora from a wicked dragon and collect its treasure along the way. The princess, who had been imprisoned in a tall tower, was a young woman with long golden plaits.

Question 10.
Why was the game Jailbreak important to the narrator?
Answer:
It was important because it was a game suggested by Shultz, which the narrator had to play in the hope of . rescuing him from the trap he had got into while playing on the computer.

Question 11.
Why did the narrator feel bad on seeing the empty printer tray after playing Jailbreak?
Answer:
The narrator felt bad because there was no further message from Sebastian and the narrator felt that he had failed him.

Question 12.
How did Sebastian find his way into the helicopter?
Answer:
The force caused by the impact of the tank against the jeep threw Sebastian out of the jeep and onto the hatch of the helicopter, from where he was pulled in by the narrator.

Question 13.
What was the significance of the narrator scoring 40,000,000?
Answer:
It meant that the narrator had hit the jackpot and won the game.

Question 14.
What were the questions that troubled the narrator after he finally saved Sebastian?
Answer:
First, the narrator wondered how the computer had saved Sebastian’s memory inside it and second, how he had been led to play the weird version of the games with Sebastian.

Question 15.
Pick out the literary device in the last line of the lesson. Identify it and explain it.
Answer:
The literary device is the unusual collocation of the words ‘true-virtually’. It is an oxymoron. It expresses ‘ the fact that the experience of the narrator with the computer games was very realistic even though it was not really true.

Virtually True Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Michael writes a letter to Sebastian, expressing his happiness at his recovery and wondering at the adventures they seemed to have experienced during their journey through virtual reality.
Answer:
14 March, 20xx
Dear Sebastian,
It is great to hear about your recovery. We shared a strange experience. I could never imagine that such an adventure is possible. However, I thoroughly enjoyed the thrill of narrow escapes and the final rescue. I am still not sure how your memory got trapped in the computer. This incident is not easy for anyone to believe.
We must actually meet.
Regards
Michael

Question 2.
Sebastian writes back to Micheal, thanking him for his role in helping him escape from the weird situation he found himself in. Write the letter.
Answer:
24 March, 20xx
Dear Michael,
Thank you for your good wishes. I owe my life to you. I would have continued to stay trapped ip’the game had you not responded to my pleas. We had so many close shaves. I had given up hope of returning to the real world. It was your help that pulled me through. I still can’t believe the experiences that we had in the virtual world,

Question 3.
A reporter friend of Michael’s learns of the adventure Michael and Sebastian had in the virtual world. He decides to write an article in the newspaper under the heading Virtual World—A Reality?
Answer:
It is surprising to hear about the strange news of a boy trapped in virtual world. Here technology is shown as gaining an upper hand over humanity. Sebastian, a young boy of 14, hit his head on the laptop accidentally. His memory gets stored in the computer. The psycho-drive games played by Michael hold the key to these strange occurrences and can lead to the final escape.

Question 4.
Michael’s father learns of his son’s escapade and decides to send the games back to the shop. Write the letter giving details why you feel the games are dangerous for young children.
Answer:
I had bought these games from the stall at the Computer Fair but now I want to return the games as I think them to be unsuitable for young children. It should have an age limit specified on the labels as the kids get too involved as the virtual becomes real for them. They lose track of reality and the games are too violent and stressful as the boundaries between virtual and real are less defined and kids believe what they see.

Question 5.
Write a debate on ‘Computer games are dangerous’.
Answer:
For: They appear to be harmless fun, but actually pose a danger as they involve people in a world that is not real. Children get attracted to these violent games and forget about reality. It affects their social skills and creates behavioural problems. Newer technology makes such games unpredictable, causing unknown harm and even long term side-effects.

Against: The world has changed and the games have always been a way of developing skills. In a changing, digital world, virtual games actually prepare you for the world and help you develop complex problem solving abilities. It gives a taste of harmless adventure with no danger involved.

Question 6.
Will power and determination bring success against all odds. Comment with reference to Virtually True.
Answer:
The story Virtually True teaches us the lesson of perseverance. It shows us how will power and determination helps an individual achieve what he strives for.Sebastian Shultz, who is very fond of virtual games, meets with an accident while playing one. His head bangs against his seat and he loses consciousness but his memory gets automatically saved in the game drive. Doctors inform his father that Sebastian has gone into coma.

Michael buys Sebastian’s games from the computer fair. When Michael starts the game on his computer, Sebastian’s memory stars to work and he asks Michael to help him retrieve his memory. Michael tries to Jielp him in the games—Wild-West Guns, Dragonquest and Jailbreak but he fails. But at last, in the game Warzone he gets success, and rescues Sebastian Shultz. Thus, his perseverance helps him succeed in his endeavour.

Virtually True Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Question 1.
“The doctors were doing all they could, but in our hearts we knew we needed a miracle. ”

(a) Who said this and to whom?
Answer:
Mrs Schultz said this to the reporters at the press conference.

(b) What is the ‘miracle’ referred to in this line?
Answer:
It refers to the recovery of Mrs Schultz’s son Sebastian from coma after six weeks.

(c) What had happened to Sebastian?
Answer:
Sebastian had been badly injured in an accident and had gone into coma.

Question 2.
“Dad and I had spent the entire Saturday afternoon at the Computer Fair. ”

(a) Who does ‘I’ refer to?
Answer:
It refers to Michael.

(b) What does this line tell you about the character of the two people mentioned in this line?
Answer:
It tells us that both Michael and his father are very interested in computers.

(c) What did they buy at the fair?
Answer:
Michael and his father bought some of the latest psycho-drive games, a virtual reality visor and glove.

Question 3.
“As I burst through the swing doors of the saloon, everyone went silent and glared at me. ”

(a) Where has the narrator reached in these lines?
Answer:
The narrator has reached the Wildwest.

(b) ‘Everyone glared at me’… what does this tell us about the feelings of the people?
Answer:
This tells us that the people were unfriendly.

(c) What is the strange experience that he has here?
Answer:
The narrator is joined by a boy of his age dressed as a sheriffa, which meant that the game had two sheriffs.

Question 4.
“At the top was a picture of the second Sheriff. This time, though, he was wearing jeans and a sweatshirt. ”

(a) Who does the ‘second SherifF refer to?
Answer:
It refers to Sebastian Shultz, the boy who was supposedly in coma.

(b) Who is a sheriff?
Answer:
A sheriff was a law enforcement officer in America during the Gold Rush.

(c) Why had the picture been sent?
Answer:
The picture had been sent along with an appeal for help.

Question 5.
“My hero! ” she squealed. “Take me away from all this. ”

(a) Who is the speaker?
Answer:
The speaker is Princess Aurora from the game Dragonquest.

(b) What does ‘all this’ refer to?
Answer:
It refers to the danger Princess Aurora was facing while being imprisoned in a tower guarded by a dragon.

(c) Did he manage to take her away? Why?
Answer:
No, he got diverted into trying to rescue a boy named Sebastian who was trapped in the game.

Question 6.
“Better luck next time. Please don’t give up, Michael. Otherwise, I’ll have to stay in here forever. Try Jailbreak. I think it might just work! ”

(a) Who is the writer of this message? Who is the message for?
Answer:
The message is from Sebastian to Michael.

(b) What does Jailbreak refer to?
Answer:
Jailbreak refers to a psycho-drive computer game.

(c) Does ‘it’ work? Explain.
Answer:
No, it does not work as the helicopter refused to move and the boy Sebastian fell down onto the concrete floor below.

Question 7.
“The tall buildings were windowless and riddled with holes. ”

(a) What place is the narrator describing?
Answer:
The narrator is describing the virtual world inside the game, Warzone.

(b) What is he doing here?
Answer:
He had come to rescue a boy who was trapped inside the computer.

(c) Is he successful? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, he is successful because the boy lands into the helicopter in the nick of time, as it is taking off with the narrator sitting inside it.

Question 8.
“They ended up at the Computer Fair. And we bought them. ”

(a) Who is the speaker?
Answer:
Michael is the speaker.

(b) What is he talking about?
Answer:
He is talking about the psycho drive game CDs that had belonged to Sebastian and had ended up in the Computer Fair where he and his father had bought them.

(c) How had they landed there?
Answer:
They had been stolen from the Shultz family and sold at the fair.

Here we are providing How I Taught My Grandmother to Read Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Literature Reader, Extra Questions for Class 9 English was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-english/

How I Taught My Grandmother to Read Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Literature

How I Taught My Grandmother to Read Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Answer the following questions briefly.

How I Taught My Grandmother To Read Question And Answers Pdf Question 1.
Why did the narrator and the other people in the village wait eagerly for the bus?
Answer:
The narrator and the other people waited eagerly because it brought the papers, the weekly magazine, and post.

How I Taught My Grandmother To Read Question Answers Question 2.
How do we know that her grandparents’ village was very remote?
Answer:
The morning paper was received in the afternoon, the weekly magazine came a day late, and the transport system was not good.

How I Taught My Grandmother Question Answer Question 3.
Who speaks the line: “The happiness Kashi” (para 3). What does the line show about the lady’s
character?
Answer:
These lines are spoken by the old lady in the novel Kashi Yatre. It shows how wise, magnanimous, and compassionate the lady was. She sacrifices her deepest desire to go to Kashi for the happiness of an orphan girl. This act of hers expresses her selflessness and her humane quality which is that the highest ideal of love does not expect anything in return.

How I Taught My Grandmother To Read Questions And Answers Question 4.
Why had the grandmother not gone to school?
Answer:
The grandmother had lost her mother as a young girl and her father had married her off at a very young age. Very soon, she had children and there had been no time to go to school. Also, girls were rarely sent to school in those days.

How I Taught My Grandmother To Read Summary Questions And Answers Question 5.
Why was the grandmother so upset when her granddaughter went away to attend a wedding?
Answer:
The grandmother felt frustrated and was upset because she could not read the next episode of her favourite story that was serialized in the magazine, thus, she had to wait for her granddaughter to return and read it out.

Question Answers Of How I Taught My Grandmother To Read Question 6.
How do we know that the grandmother was determined to read?
Answer:
We know that the grandmother was determined to read as it was her who approached her granddaughter to teach her, keeping her embarrassment aside. She also set a deadline by which she would learn to read, and started the process from the very next day.

Question 7.
How did the granddaughter react to her grandmother’s request to teach her to read?
Answer:
At first, she made fun of her but seeing her grandmother’s determination to overcome all obstacles, she started teaching her in earnest.

Question 8.
What were the gifts exchanged by the granddaughter and grandmother?
Answer:
The grandmother gifted the narrator frock material while the granddaughter gifted her the novel “Kashi Yatre” which had been published in the form of a book.

Question 9.
Why did the grandmother touch the feet of her granddaughter?
Answer:
The grandmother wanted to show her respect for her granddaughter who had acted as her teacher and taught ‘ her to read and write.

Question 10.
Explain the statement “student had passed with flying colours”.
Answer:
When the grandmother read the title of the book effortlessly, it proved that she had succeeded in her quest to learn to read and write thus proving she had passed with flying colours.

How I Taught My Grandmother to Read Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
You are the grandmother from the story. Write a diary entry expressing your feelings on the day that you finally learn to read and write.
Answer:
8th January, 20xx, Wednesday
Today I am very happy as I have finally learnt to read and write. All the credit for this goes to my darling granddaughter. What a loving and thoughtful girl she is! She is only twelve but so wise! She taught me with so much love and affection that within a short time, I achieved my goal.

Today I have been able to read “Kashi Yatre” myself. I just can’t believe it. I, an old lady of 62, am finally independent! I can read whatever I wapt, and never feel embarrassed about being uneducated.

Over the last few weeks, as I practiced reading and writing under the guidance of my granddaughter, I often recalled my childhood. If only I had been able to go to school then, I would not have lost so many valuable years of reading. Even though I have been happy and busy all these years, with my marriage and children and household duties, the happiness and satisfaction that I have experienced during the last few weeks and especially today, are unmatched. Today I have received wealth that is duly invaluable—thanks to my little teacher!

Question 2.
You are a neighbour of the grandmother from the story. You have just witnessed the touching ceremony where the grandmother touched her young teacher’s feet, and have decided to write to your friend in another village, sharing what happened and how you feel about it.
Answer:
12 March 20xx
XYZ
Dear Krisna
How are you? Hope you are fine with your family. We are all fine here too.

I have written to give you a startling piece of news. Do you remember my neighbour Krishtakka? Well she has recently learnt how to read and write! it seems her granddaughter who is hardly 12 years old taught her how to read and write in these last three months. They had a very moving ceremony on Saraswati Puja during Dasara.The grandmother touched the feet of the granddaughter and gave her a gift! We were all shocked but later on we realised that it was an appropriate gesture as the girl had become her teacher and to show respect to your teacher is the right thing to do! I wish I had the same determination and the enthusiasm, she has been encouraging all of us to study as well.

According to her, it is never too late and she says, “for a good cause, if you are determined you can overcome any obstacle!” I have decided to join the classes that the grandmother and granddaughter are holding for anyone in the village who wants to study. What do you think? Do write and let me know.
Your friend always,
Janaki

Question 3.
Describe the character of the grandmother.
Answer:
The grandmother was a very cheerful woman and totally involved in bringing up her children and grandchildren. Though she had not been educated herself, she knew the value of education and made sure that all her children were well-educated. She was also very determined. She wanted to learn how to read and write. She did not feel embarrassed to approach her granddaughter and ask her to teach her.

She was very hard-working as we see that she worked very hard to learn how to read and write, often redoing her work to learn within the deadline that she had set for herself. We also see that she was not self-conscious and did not feel any embarrassment in touching her granddaughter’s feet as she had assumed the role of her teacher. She was very wise and understood the value of education thus she said, “We are well off, but what use is money when I cannot be independent.”

Question 4.
After reading the story, what do you think is the role of a teacher and what do you think is the duty of a student?
(Encourage students to think creatively and formulate their own answers.)
Answer:
In the story, we find that each person has a role and a duty to accomplish. A teacher’s goal is to educate his students and impart his knowledge whereas the duty the students hold is to acquire the skills and knowledge imparted. We learn from the story that the narrator has taken up the responsibility of teaching her grandmother. Although she finds it amusing in the beginning, she begins to see her grandmother’s determination.

Thus, her sole responsibility became imparting her knowledge of alphabets to her grandmother while showing compassion to understand her student’s problem. The duty of the student is however best described in the act the grandmother displays. She bends down to wash the feet of her granddaughter. Not only was she a humble student, she was diligent and determined.

How I Taught My Grandmother to Read Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
“Her style was easy to, read and very convincing. Her stories usually dealt with complex psychological problems in the lives of ordinary people and were always interesting. ”
(a) Whom does “her” in the above lines refers to
Answer:
Triveni, the popular writer.

(b) What does the narrator mean when she says, ‘Her style’? What is she referring to?
Answer:
The narrator is talking about the style of writing that the writer Triveni uses. Triveni wrote stories that were convincing, easy to read and talked about complex psychological problems in the lives of ordinary people.

(c) Find a word from the extract that means to make someone believe in something.
Answer:
Convincing

Question 2.
“My grandmother too never went to Kashi, and she identified herself with the novel’s protagonist. So more than anybody else she was the one most interested in knowing what happened next in the story and used to insist that I read the serial out to her. ”
(a) In what way did the grandmother relate to the central character of the story “Kashi Yatre”?
Answer:
The grandmother could relate to the central character of the story “Kashi Yatre” because they both had a – strong desire to visit Kashi.

(b) Why did the grandmother not read the serial herself?
Answer:
The grandmother could not read the serial by herself as she could not read or write; grandmother was illiterate.

(c) The leading character in a drama, film or novel is called a
Answer:
Protagonist.

Question 3.
“After hearing what happened next in Kashi Yatre, she wouldjoin her friends at the temple courtyard where we children would also gather to play hide and seek. She would discuss the latest episode with her friends. At that time, I never understood why there was so much of debate about the story. ”
(a) What is “Kashi Yatre”?
Answer:
“Kashi Yatre” is a novel written by the Kannada writer, Triveni, which appeared as a serial in the Kannada weekly, Karmaveera.

(b) Why did the women at the temple discuss the latest episode of “Kashi Yatre”?
Answer:
The women at the temple would discuss the latest episode of “Kashi Yatre” as they could relate with the protagonist of the serial.

(c) Can you give different words that have the same meaning as ‘debate’
Answer:
discussion, argument.

Question 4.
“When I came back to my village, I saw my grandmother in tears. I was surprised, for I had never seen her cry even in the most difficult situations. What had happened? I was worried. ”
(a) Where had the narrator gone?
Answer:
The narrator had gone for a wedding to the neighbouring village.

(b) Why did the granddaughter find her grandmother in tears on her return?
Answer:
The granddaughter found her grandmother in tears on her return as the grandmother had been unable to read the story “Kashi Yatre” on her own.

(c) What kinds of emotion were expressed in this extract? What is the word/phrase used to describe sadness?
Answer:
Sadness, surprise/shock, anxiety were expressed in this extract. The phrase ‘in tears’ and the word ‘cry’ describes sadness.

Question 5.
“My grandmother never went to school, so she could not read. ”
(a) How did the grandmother know the details of the story published in her favourite magazine?
Answer:
The grandmother got to know the details of the story published in the favourite magazine as her granddaughter used to read it out to her.

(b) Why had the grandmother not gone to school?
Answer:
The grandmother had not gone to school because in her times people did not think it was important to educate girls.

(c) Can you think of a Word that has the same meaning as ‘not being able to read’?
Answer:
illiterate.

Question 6.
“Awa came and sat next to me. Her affectionate hands touched my forehead. I realised she wanted to speak. ”
(a) What does the term Avva mean? What did Awa tell the narrator?
Answer:
The term Awa means mother. Awa told her about her childhood, why she never went to school and asked her to teach her how to read and write.

(b) What kind of relationship did Awa and the narrator share?
Answer:
The relationship between the narrator and her grandmother was very close, warm, and loving.”

(c) Can you explain the phrase “affectionate hands”?
Answer:
The phrase affectionate hands means that the grandmother was showing her affection and care with her hands as she gently touched her granddaughter’s head.

Question 7.
“She was a good looking lady who was usually smiling. Even today I cannot forget the worried expression on her face. ”
(a) Why was “she” upset?
Answer:
The grandmother was upset because she realised that she was helpless and dependent on others to read and write.

(b) What quality in “her” character is brought out by this episode?
Answer:
Her determination becomes evident through this episode.

(c) What does the word ‘expression’ mean in this context?
Answer:
In this context, the word expression means ‘a look on someone’s face’

Question 8.
“For a good cause if you are determined you can overcome any obstacle. ”
(a) What is the “good cause” mentioned here?
Answer:
The good cause mentioned here is learning how to read and write.

(b) What light does this remark throw on the character of the speaker?
Answer:
This remark brings out the fact that she is determined and hardworking.

(c) Can you find a word that means a ‘hindrance’ or ‘hurdle’ in the extract?
Answer:
Obstacle

Question 9.
“Then she did something unusual. She bent down and touched my feet. I was surprised and taken aback”
(a) What was unusual about the gesture?
Answer:
It was unusual that a grandmother was touching the feet of a granddaughter, as the custom is that the younger ones touch the feet of the elders as a mark of respect.

(b) Why did she behave in this manner?
Answer:
This gesture on her part was to honour and thank the person who had taught her to read and”write.

(c) What does the narrator mean when she said she was taken aback?
Answer:
When the narrator said she was taken aback, she meant that she was startled.

Question 10.
“Now I am independent. It is my duty to respect a teacher. ”
(a) Who is the speaker?
Answer:
The speaker of the extract is the grandmother.

(b) How had she become independent?
Answer:
The grandmother had become independent as she no longer had to depend on others to read or write.

(c) How did she show her respect for her teacher?
Answer:
The grandmother expressed her respect for her teacher by touching her feet.

Question 11.
“Secretly I bought Kashi Yatre which had been published as a novel by that time. ”
(a) What was Kashi Yatre?
Answer:
“Kashi Yatre” was a novel.

(b) Why had the narrator bought it “secretly”?
Answer:
The narrator bought it “secretly” as she wanted it to be a surprise.

(c) Why did she buy “Kashi Yatre” for her?
Answer:
The narrator bought “Kashi Yatre” for her grandmother as her grandmother loved the story and she wanted to give her a gift for completing her studies.

Question 12.
“It is a great tradition but today the reverse has happened. ”
(a) What does the term “great tradition” refer to?
Answer:
The “great tradition” refers to the tradition of touching the feet of elders.

(b) What does the narrator mean by “reverse”?
Answer:
In the given extract the narrator meant that the opposite had happened as the grandmother touched the feet of the granddaughter.

(c) Why had this happened?
Answer:
The “reverse” had happened as the granddaughter had taught her grandmother to read and write.

Pastoralists in the Modern World Class 9 Extra Questions History Chapter 5

Question 1.
Who were the small cottagers of England 7
Answer:
Those villagers who worked on the common land to earn their livings and lived in their cottages close to the common land about the 16th century England were called the small cottagers.

Question 2.
How was the cultivation done in the countryside open system?
Answer:
Each Villager was allotted a number of strips to cultivate in a public meeting at the beginning of the year.

Question 3.
What made the rich farmers expand their wool production?
Answer:
The rise in the prices of wool in the world market made the rich farmers expand their wool production.

Question 4.
What did the British Parliament do for legalising the enclosures?
Answer:
The British Parliament passed about 4000 acts so to legalise the enclosures.

Question 5.
In which areas did the enclosures happen in England?
Answer:
The Midlands and the counties around.

Question 6.
What hardships did the poor face with the coming of the enclosures? Mention two such hardships?
Answer:

• The poor could not collect firewood from, the forests;
• They could not graze their cattle on the common land.

Question 7.
Where is the Great Plain located in USA?
Answer:
The Great Plain is located across the River Mississippi.

Question 8.
Who, invented the first mechanical reaper and when?
Answer:
Cyrus McCormick invented the first mechanical reaper in 1831.

Question 9.
Mention the time of the black blizzard by Western Kansas.
Answer:
April 14, 1935.

Question 10.
Mention the two major commercial crops of the early 19th century India.
Answer:
Indigo and opium.

Question 11.
By which year the British government in Bengal had established a monopoly of trade in opium?
Answer:
By 1773.

Question 12.
Do you think that the history of modernization is all the history of growth and development?
Answer:
The history of modernization is not merely the history of growth and development; it is also the history of displacements and impoverishment.

Question 13.
Why were there the threatening letters around 1830 in England sent to the rich farmers using threshing machines?
Answer:
With the use of threshing machines by the rich farmers in England in course of their agricultural produce, there were threatening letters urging them to stop the use of such machines. The use of such machines deprived workmen of their livelihood. Most of these letters were signed in the name of Captain Swing. Alarmed landlords feared attacks by armed bands at night, many destroyed their own machines.

Question 14.
What was the reaction of the government in England against Swing’s threatening letters?
Answer:
Captain Swing’s threatening letters to the rich farmers using threshing machines was creating anxiety and alarm. The use of violence and fire was common in England. Either the farmers broke the machines themselves or these were broken. Government swung into action. Those suspected of rioting were rounded up, 1976 prisoners were tried, nine men were hanged, 505 transported and 644 put behind bars.

Question 15.
What makes the period after 1780s different from an earlier period in English history?
Answer:
In earlier times, rapid population growth was not often followed by period of food shortage. The food production in the past did not expand as rapidly as did the population. But in the 19th century, this did not happen in England. Grain production grew as rapidly as did population. Even though the population increased rapidly, in 1868 England was producing 80% of the food it needed. The rest was imported.

Question 16.
How and why the USA became a dust bowl in 1930s?
Answer:
The American dream of a land of plenty turned into a dust bowl in 1930s with duststorms around. In part, they came because the early 1930s were years of persistent drought. The rains failed year after year, and temperatures soared. The wind blew with ferocious speed.

But ordinary dust storms became black blizzards only because the entire landscape had been ploughed over, stripped of all grass that held it together. When wheat cultivation had expanded dramatically in the early nineteenth century, zealous farmers had recklessly uprooted all vegetation and tractors had turned the soil over, and broken the sod into dust.

Question 17.
Why were English interested in exporting opium in China?
Answer:
As England was a buyer of the Chinese tea, for tea was a popular drink. England wanted to sell some commodity to China so that tea trade could survive without paying cash. The commodity was opium. The illegal trade of opium was flourishing. By early, 1820, about 10,000 crates were being smuggled into China, 15 years later, over 3,5000 crates were being unloaded every year.

While the English cultivated a taste for Chinese tea, the Chinese became addicted to opium. People of all classes took to the drugs shopkeepers and peddlers, officials and army men, aristocrats and paupers. Lin Ze-xu, Special Commissioner at Canton in 1839, estimated that there were over 4 million opium smokers in China.

Question 18.
Why were the farmers interested to enclose the common land in 16th-17th century England?
Answer:
As the price of wool increased in the world market during the 16th-17th centuries rich farmers wanted to expand wool production to earn profits. They were eager to improve their sheep breeds and ensure good feed for them. They were keen on controlling large areas of land in compact blocks to allow improved breeding. So they began dividing and enclosing common land and building hedges,’ around their holdings to separate, their property from that of others. They drove out villagers who had small cottages on the commons, and they prevented to poor from entering the enclosed fields.

Till the middle of the eighteenth century, the enclosure movement proceeded very slowly. The early, enclosures were usually created by individual landlords. They were not supported by the state or the church. After the mid-eighteenth century, however, the enclosure movement swept through the countryside; changing the English landscape forever. Between 1750 and 1850, 6 million acres of land was enclosed. The British Parliament no longer watched this process from a distance. It passed 4,000 acts legalising these enclosures.

Question 19.
Explain as to how the story of agrarian expansion in the USA is closely related to the westward movement of the white settlers?
Answer:
The story of the agrarian expansion in the USA is closely connected with the westward movement of the white settlers. After the American War of Independence from 1775 to 1783 and the formation of the United States of America, the white, Americans began to move westward. By the time Thomas Jefferson became President of the USA in 1800, over 700,000 white settlers had moved on to the Appalachian plateau through the passes. Seen from the east coast, America seemed to be a land of promise. Its wilderness could be turned into cultivated fields.

Forest timber could be cut for export, animals hunted for skin, mountains mined for gold and minerals. But this meant that the American Indians had to be cleared from the land. In the decades after 180.0, the US government committed itself to a policy of driving the American Indians westward, first beyond the river Mississippi, and then further west. Numerous wars were waged in which Indians were massacred and many of their villages burnt. The Indians resisted, won many victories in wars, but were ultimately forced to; sign treaties, give up their land and move westward.

As the Indians retreated; the settlers poured in. They came in successive waves. They, settled on the Appalachian plateau by the first decade of the eighteenth century, and then moved into, the Mississippi valley between 1820 and 1850. They slashed and burnt forests, pulled out the stumps, cleared the land for cultivation, and built log cabins in the forest clearings. Then they cleared larger areas and erected fences around the fields. They ploughed the land and sowed corn and wheat.

Objective Type Questions

1. Choose right (✓) or false (✗) from the following:

(i) The earlier enclosures helped the growth of wheat production in England.
Answer:
(✗)

(ii) The British parliament passed the enclosure acts so to legalise the enclosures.
Answer:
(✓)

(iii) Captain Swing was a real character who favoured the use of the threshing machines in England.
Answer:
(✗)

(iv) The white settlers in the USA uprooted the native Americans.
Answer:
(✓)

(v) The opium trade brought for the English huge profits.
Answer:
(✓)

2. Fill in the blanks with words given in the brackets:

(i) The enclosure system helped the ……………………………. farmers. (poor, rich)
Answer:
rich

(ii) ……………………………. machines were responsible for creating unemployments England. (Threshing, Sowing)
Answer:
Threshing

(iii) “Wheat will win war for us”……………………………. said it. (Wilson, Washington)
Answer:
Wilson

(iv) England had opium trade with…………………………….(China, India)
Answer:
China

(v) The Indian cultivators were ……………………………. to cultivate opium. (willing, unwilling)
Answer:
Unwilling.

3. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given below:

(i) The following was the leader of the rioters of the thrashing machines:
(a) Captain Swing
(b) Major Swing
(c) Col. Swing
(d) Lt. Swing.
Answer:
(a) Captain Swing

(ii) The white Americans uprooted the following:
(a) Red Indians.
(b) White Indians
(c) Blue Indians
(d) Black Indians
Answer:
(a) Red Indians.

(iii) Great Agrarian Depression in the USA occurred in:
(a) 1920
(b) 1930
(c) 1940
(d) 1950
Answer:
(b) 1930

(iv) Opium trade helped the following:
(a) Chinese
(b) Indians
(c) English
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) English.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Population Class 9 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 6

Question 1.
Name the states with positive sex ratio.
Answer:

• Kerala,
• Pondicherry.

Question 2.
How can the population be divided?
Answer:
The population can be divided according to the categories of people of various age groups.

Question 3.
Which age group is mainly responsible for the high dependency ratio of India?
Answer:
0-14.

Question 4.
Who can be taken as a literate person?
Answer:
A person who can read and Write with certain understanding and more than seven years old is known as a literate person.

Question 5.
In which year the population policy in India has been implemented?
Answer:
In 1952.

Question 6.
What is the average per capita calory consumption is urban areas?
Answer:
2100 approximately.

Question 7.
What is the per capita calorie consumption in the rural areas?
Answer:
2400.

Question 8.
Which, part of the population suffers from anaemia? ,
Answer:
Adolescent girls.

Question 9.
What is the current birth rate of the our country?
Answer:
42.2 per thousand.

Question 10.
What is the current death rate of our country?
Answer:
87 per thousand.

Question 11.
How many million. plus cities are there in our country?
Answer:
23.

Question 12.
What was percentage of the urban population of our country in 1951?
Answer:
17.29%.

Question 13.
What was the percentage of the urban population of our country in 1991?
Answer:
25.72%.

Question 14.
Has the urban sector of our country grown uniformly?
Answer:
No.

Question 15.
Name the cities which have shown a large share of migration.
Answer:
Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata.

Question 16.
Which cities in India are known as the megacities?
Answer:
Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata.

Question 17.
What was the population of the world in 1830?
Answer:
1000 million.

Question 18.
How much part of the total geographical area of the world is shared by India?
Answer:
About 2.4%.

Question 19.
What is the share of India in total world population?
Answer:
16.7%.

Question 20.
What is the sex ratio in Uttar Pradesh?
Answer:
898.

Question 21.
What do you understand by the productive population?
Or
Differentiate between productive population and dependent population.
Or
What is understood by the dependent population?
Answer:
Productive Population: It is the part of the population engaged in productive activities. The people of this group generally fall in the age group of 15-59 years.

Dependent Population: This is the part of the population which is not engaged in productive work. In other words, this part of the population does not contribute in increasing income. Generally, this is the part of population which falls below the 15 years of age and above the 59 years. India has a high dependency ratio with regard to the age group of 0-14 years.

Question 22.
Why is India’s consumption is higher than production?
Answer:
India has a high dependency ratio. Because of this fact, a large proportion of country’s resources are diverted towards satisfying the consumption need of the dependent population.
Therefore, consumption is higher than production. This situation is adversely affecting the development of the country.

Question 23.
Why the sex ratio in India is unfavourable?
Or
Point out the main reasons responsible for unfavourable sex ratio in India.
Answer:
The sex ratio is meant by the number of females on per 1000 males. In India, except Kerala and Pondicherry, sex ratio is unfavourable, meaningless number of females in comparison to males.

The main responsible reason behind the unfavourable sex ratio are the following:

• A large portion of the Indian population provide less care to the female children as compared to male children.
• Women face greater risks to their lives especially at the time of childbirth.
• Dowry system and female infanticide take many women lives.
• Illiteracy and poverty lead them to die earlier.

Question 24.
What is meant by the child labour? Why is it banned?
Answer:
Child labour is the term which indicates the children who are below 14 years old and employed in factories or business establishments.

The article 390 (f) of the Indian constitution lays down that the State should ensure that the children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in the conditions of freedom and dignity hence the children must be protected against exploitation.

Acting on these guidelines of the Directive Principles of our Constitution, the government of India has banned child labour so that children may be protected against exploitation and moral and material abandonment.
Again the child labour has been banned to enable the children to receive proper education so that they may develop into healthy citizens of future.

Question 25.
What do you understand by the dependency ratio? Why dependency ratio in our country is much higher than the countries like Japan?
Or
Point out the reasons behind the high dependency ratio of India.
Answer:
Dependency ratio is the number of the dependent persons per hundred on working persons. The dependency ratio is calculated by dividing dependent population by the active population and multiplying it by 100.
In 1991, the dependency ratio in India was 78% which was much high as compared to the countries like Japan where it was only about 48.8%.

The Reasons Behind High Dependency Ratio of India:

• The number of the population below 14 years is quite high in India.
• The persons above 59 years old form a large part of the population of India.
• Due to lack of work opportunity, a large number of people are unemployed or underemployed. They also increase the number of dependency ratio.

Question 26.
Why rural migration could hot be controlled even after adopting modem techniques in agriculture?
Answer:
It is a fact that inspite of adopting modern agricultural techniques, rural migration could not be stopped.

The main reasons behind this fact are the following:

• Due to small land-holdings and non-availability of finance and marketing facilities, agriculture is unable to hold any charm among the rural people.
• Agriculture is unable to provide the regular good jobs to the overgrowing rural population. Hence the migration towards the cities from the rural areas cannot be stopped.

Question 27.
Why has there been such a sudden abrupt rise in population of India after 1921?
Or
Point out the responsible reasons behind the steep rise in India’s population since 1921.
Answer:
1921 A.D. is an important landmark in the population history of India. Before 1921, the population of India was almost stable. One the other hand, after the year 1921, the rise in population was constant and very high. It is the reason that the year 1921 is called as great divide between two trends of halting population and constantly increasing population.

The main responsible factors behind this situation are the following:

• Steady fall in the death rate.
• New discoveries in the field of medicine.
• Public health services have been extended to more and more people.
• After independence stress was laid on better lying conditions.
• Measures have been successfully taken to check epidemics like plague, smallpox, malaria etc.

Question 28.
What is Census?
Answer:
Census is meant by the count of population of a country. In our India, census takes place every ten years. The last census was held in 2001. The census is in fact an enquiry based on a questionnaire. In this questionnaire, the questions relate the various kinds of information about the members of the household.

These questions are not only related to age and occupations of people, but also to the type of facilities available in the households. On the basis of these studies, the government provides details about births, deaths, migration, literacy, sex ratio etc. The first census, in India, was held in 1872, the first complete census in 1887.

Question 29.
Define sex-ratio.
Answer:
Sex ratio is meant by the number of females per thousand males in the population. Sex ratio in our country has remained favourable to the males. At the beginning of the twentieth century, the sex ratio in India was 972. But is deteriorated over the decades.

During the last decade, there has been light improvement in this ratio, as it increased from 929 in 1991 to 933 in 2001. In this regard, the encouraging factor is Kerala and Pondicherry as these are the only states with sex ratio in favour of females.

Question 30.
Explain birth rate and death rate.
Answer:
Birth rate: It is the number of live births per thousand persons in a year. It is different from actual number of births during that particular year. Death rate: It is the number of deaths pert thousand persons in a year.

Question 31.
Discuss one factor that causes growth of population in India.
Answer:
there are many factors that cause over-growth of population in India:

However, among all of them illiteracy is major factor because of the following reasons :

• Because of the illiteracy, a large part of the population remain unaware of the harms of the over-population.
• Illiteracy keep the persons with lack of knowledge about the family planning measures.
• Women are not aware of their rights and health factors due to illiteracy.
• It keeps the people bound with the customs of years ago which tells them that the children are the gifts from God.
• Because as the illiterates, they give undue importance to have a male child.

This illiteracy is a big factor causing over¬population. Hence, making the people aware and literate the population can be controlled.

Question 32.
How does occupational structure reflect the levels of growth of a country?
Answer:
There are three types of occupational structure in a society:

1. Primary,
2. Secondary,
3. Tertiary.

1. The Primary Activities: These are the activities in which the natural products are produced. Or these activities are purely nature-based. Agriculture, fisheries, mining are the these kind of activities.

2. The Secondary Activities: These are the activities which are dependent on the primary activities. Cotton mills, textile industries, jute mills, are the examples of this kind of activities.

3. The Tertiary Activities: These are the occupations which are service-based. For example, the banking, the railways, the transport,-the teaching, medical, engineering etc, are the tertiary activities. As a country makes progress it moves toward the secondary and tertiary activities. The more developed economy it is, the more is engaged with the tertiary activities.

Question 33.
Explain female literacy and population growth.
Answer:
A person who can read and write with certain understanding and is more than seven years old is taken as a literate person. The present literacy level of India is 65.35%. 54% of the Indian females are literate. It means about half of the female population of our country is literate. It is a good signal for checking the overgrowth of the population.

Question 34.
Point out the reasons behind the rapid overgrowth of the population in the metropolitan cities in India:
Answer:
It is a fact that the population of India is growing very rapidly. In the same time, the population of the metropolitan cities is giving a cause for concern.

Reasons behind this overgrowth :

• Metropolitan cities of India are developing themselves as the world-class cities. Hence, they attract people from all over the country.
• These cities provide more work opportunities. Hence, the victims of unemployment come here to find work.
• Most of the Indian parts are poorly undeveloped. Hence the people come over these cities to find out more developed life opportunities.
• Many of the people migrate to these cities to lead luxurious lifestyles.
• For many people living in a metropolitan city is a symbol of high status.

All of the above factors and many more are responsible for the rapid growth of population in these cities.

Question 35.
What is meant by the birth rate and the growth rate? How would you differentiate between them?
Answer:
Birth rate is meant by the number of live bom children on per thousand persons in a given period. The Growth rate indicates the difference between the birth rate and death, rate at a given period. Growth rate also indicates the rate at which the population in a region grows at a given time.

Growth rate is algo related with the difference between the number of the ‘immigrants’ and emigrants. Though this factor is not very prominent in normal times yet is becomes very prominent due to special circumstances. For example; in 1947 and again in 1971, the growth rate in India jumped due to the refugees.

Question 36.
Give an account of the areas which are known as the sparsely populated areas in India.
Answer:
The areas with sparse populations are the following:
1. The Hilly States of the North-East India: The northeast of India is not conducted by die overgrowth of population. Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura etc. are the states with very low number of persons. The difficult climatic setup and dense forest areas make these areas remain sparsely populated areas.

2. The Himalayan Region: This region is sparsely populated because of the following facts:

• The whole of the area of this region is mountainous.
• It is’ very difficult to develop the transportation facilities over here.
• Cultivating is also equally difficult in these areas.
• These areas are also covered with thick forests.
• Rivers flowing in these areas are very swift and not suitable for navigation.

3. The Tarai Areas: These are the area lying at the foot of the Himalayas. These are sparsely populated because of the uneven land, dense forests, heavy rainfall and also lack of transport means.

4. Desert Areas: The Thar and the Rann of Kachcha are sparsely populated because of their unhealthy climatic positions.

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) before the correct sentence and (✗) before the incorrect ones.

(i) Migration means movement of people across the regions and territories.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) The average density of population is India is about 400.
Answer:
(✗)

(iii) The bulk of the peninsular blocks have moderate density of population.
Answer:
(✓)

(iv) The year 1921 is called the year of great divide.
Answer:
(✗)

(v) Madhya Pradesh has a low population density.
Answer:
(✓)

(vi) The world population at present in near about 10 billion.
Answer:
(✗)

(vii) It is projected that India will overtake China in population in 2045.
Answer:
(✗)

(viii) India’s population almost doubled between 1951-1981.
Answer:
(✓)

2. Fill in the following blanks with the most suitable words:

(i) Birth rate is different from actual number of ……………………… .
Answer:
Births

(ii) The present birth rate of our country is ……………………… .
Answer:
26%

(iii) Internal migration does not change the size of ………………………
Answer:
Population

(iv) Sex-ratio is meant by the number of females per ……………………… males.
Answer:
Thousand

(v) There are ……………………… cities in our country with a population of one million.
Answer:

3. Match the following Lists:

List I	List II
(i) Stabilization of Population	1952
(ii) National Population Policy	2045
(iii) 2100 calories	Urban areas
(iv) 2400 calories	2000
(v) Adolescents	Rural areas
(vi) Anaemia	Girls
(vii) Population Policy Implemented.	10-19 years old.

Answer:

List I	List II
(i) Stabilization of Population	2045
(ii) National Population Policy	2000
(iii) 2100 calories	Urban areas
(iv) 2400 calories	Rural areas
(v) Adolescents	10-19 years old
(vi) Anaemia	Girls
(vii) Population Policy Implemented.	1952.

4. Match the following two lists:

List I (States)	List II (% of literacy)
1. Kerala	88.49%
2. Mizoram	87.52%
3. Lakshadweep	90.92%

Answer:

List I (States)	List-II(% of literacy)
1. Kerala	90.92%
2. Mizoram	88. 52%
3. Lakshadweep	87.52%

5. Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) The following year is known as the year of the great divide:
(a) 1921
(b) 1981
(c) 1941
(d) 1951
Answer:
(a) 1921

(ii) The following state, is India, is the biggest state of India:
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Bihar.
Answer:
(b) Rajasthan

(iii) When is India likely to overtake China in population?
(a) 2025
(b) 2035
(c) 2045
(d) 2055
Answer:
(c) 2045

(iv) The following state in India, has the highest literacy rate:
(a) Bihar
(b) Rajasthan
(c) West Bengal
(d) Kerala.
Answer:
(d) Kerala.

(v) The following is not among India’s five states constituting India’s half population:
(a) Sikkim
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Maharashtra.
Answer:
(a) Sikkim.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Democracy in the Contemporary World Class 9 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 1

Question 1.
How is Allende pronounced?
Answer:
Allende is pronounced as Avendo.

Question 2.
When was Allende’s government overthrown?
Answer:
Allende’s government was overthrown on September 11, 1973.

Question 3.
When was Allende made President of Chile?
Answer:
Salvador Allende was made the President of Chile in 1970.

Question 4.
Mention the name of the political party which came to power in Chile in 1970.
Answer:
Popular Unity.

Question 5.
Who succeeded Allende in Chile in a.military coup?
Answer:
General Augusta Planchet succeeded Allende.

Question 6.
Where is Calama located?
Answer:
Calama is located about thousand miles away from the capital of Chile, Santiago.

Question 7.
How did the women of Calama demonstrate their grief?
Answer:
They remained silence, always in silence.

Question 8.
Which state in our country has a shape similar to Chile?
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 9.
Can you find, examples similar to what happened to Women of Calama from other countries?
Answer:
In Russia during the Czarist regime.

Question 10.
Can you identify who is the President of Chile now?
Answer:
Michelle Bachelet (Jan, 2006).

Question 11.
Why did newspapers in that country not write about women of Calama in those years?
Answer:
The newspapers in that country, in the those years, were under state censorship.

Question 12.
Which political party governed Poland in 1980?
Answer:
The Polish UnitedWorkers Party-a one-party monopoly of power.

Question 13.
In which factory in the city of Golansk file strike began in 1980?
Answer:
Lenin Shipward.

Question 14.
Name the person who joined the strikers in Poland in 1980.
Answer:
Lech Walesa.

Question 15.
Name any two countries where the Communist Party ruled during the Polish events in 1980.
Answer:
Bulgaria and Hungary.

Question 16.
Identify a few countries around Poland.
Answer:
Germany, Lithuania, Belarus, Slovakia, Ukraine.

Question 17.
Why did strike begin in shipyard?
Answer:
The strike began to take back a crane operator a woman worker, who faced unjust dismissal from service.

Question 18.
Why was an independent trade union so important for Poland?
Answer:
It was the first trade union formed independent of the government’s, control.

Question 19.
When did the Glorious revolution occur in England?
Answer:
The glorious revolution occurred in England ih 1688.

Question 20.
When did the 13 colonies declared independent in what is now known as the United States of America 7
Answer:
In 1776.

Question 21.
Mention the several steps taken by the AHende’s government to help the poor workers.
Answer:
The Allende’s government, in Chile, took several steps to help the poor workers.
These included

• reforms in the educational system,
• free milk for children,
• redistribution of land among the farmers.

Question 22.
Give two reasons Why AHende’s political party was popular in Chile?
Answer:
Allende’s political party, the Popular Unity was popular in Chile for reasons given below:

1. It was opposed to foreign companies exploiting natural resources (copper) against the interests of the people of Chile.
2. The rich opposed the Allende’s political party, though the workers, by and large, liked Allende’s efforts.

Question 23.
What did Pinocfiet’s regime dp after overthrowing Allende’s government in Chile in 1973?
Answer:
Pinochet’s regime, after taking over the power, began torturing people and killing those who were supporting Allende In the process, more than 2000 people were killed by the military regime. Many more were, reported ‘missing’. No one knows what had happened to them.

Question 24.
Why did Allende refer to “workers” in his speech? Why would have the rich opposed to him?
Answer:
Before Allende’s government wa$ taken over by Pinochet’s military regime, he got the opportunity to address his people, referring them as ‘workers’; The rich-opposed Allende because his policies were pro-workers and pro-poor.

Question 25.
Think why would women and children of Calama were asked to keep quiet? Why people could not react to those events?
Answer:
The women and children of Calama were asked to keep quiet because if they spoke, their children would be killed by the military. People, could not react to military’s torture because they knew that if they reacted, they would also be tortured.

Question 26.
How was Poland ruled in 1980?
Answer:
Poland, in 1980, was ruled by the Polish United Worker Party. Then there was a one-party monopoly of power in Poland. No one was permitted to oppose the official party line. The government trade unions owned all the factories. These trade unions were not independent of the ruling party.

Question 27.
Why did the strike begin in Lenin Shipyard in Gdansk?
Answer:
The workers of the Lenin Shipyard started strike in the city of Gdansk. The demand of the workers was to take back a crane operator, a woman worker, who faced an unjust dismissal from service.

Question 28.
Which other demands were put forth as the strike spread across the whole city of Gdansk?
Answer:
The Lenin Shipyard strike spread as Lech Walesa, also dismissed from the service as an electrician, joined the strike.

The demands of the workers began swelling:

• all the workers removed from the service be taken back;
• the workers sought right to have independent trade unions;
• political process be made freed;
• censorship on the press be removed.

Question 29.
Mention two provisions of the 21 point agreement made between the Polish government and the workers led by Walesa.
Answer:
The two provisions of the 21 point, agreement between the Polish government and the workers were:

1. The workers’ right to form independent trade unions was guaranteed.
2. They got the right to go on strike.

Question 30.
Why did the Polish government led by Polish United Workers Party got panicky?
Answer:
The Polish Workers United Party got panicky as the solidarity, led by Walesa had more than one crore workers as its members; the revelations that the government was corrupt and mismanaged made the latter declare the martial in the country. As thousands of the Solidarity members were put in prison, the government withdrew freedoms given of the people.

Question 31.
What led to the rise of Walesa attaining power in Poland?
Answer:
In late 1980s, Walesa was gaining popularity. He led another strike in 1988. The government had already become weak; the economy was bn its .decline; there was no hope of government’s getting support from the USSR. An agreement resulted in having free elections in the country. The solidarity won 99 seats of the Senate which had a total strength of 100. Lech Walesa became the President in October 1990.

Question 32.
What reasons would you give to say that Solidarity was popular in 1990?
Answer:
The following are the reasons to say that the Solidarity was popular in Poland in 1990:

• Solidarity was a trade union organized to protect the interests of the workers.
• It sought to gain rights in favour of the workers, i.e. the right to organise, and right to strike
• It sought to gain rights such as freedoms to talk about freely and to express protests.
• It was able to organise itself under the able leadership of men like Lech Walesa.

Question 33.
What freedoms were devised to the people in Chile and Poland when they did not have democracy?
Answer:
When Chile and Poland did not have democracy in 1970s and 1980s respectively, the people were denied numerous freedoms.

Some of these were :

• They were denied right to personal liberties;
• They were denied right to freedom of speech;
• They were not allowed to organise strikes;
• They were not allowed to register their protests freely;
• They were not permitted to express their views in the press; press was also not free.

Question 34.
Can you think of reasons why people would have liked a change in their government?
Answer:
The people would have liked to have a change in their government because they would have liked a democracy in place of non-democracy; their desire to have a change would have ushered an era of freedoms and prosperity for the people.

Question 35.
Identify some features that made Portugal under Salazar a case of non-democracy.
Answer:

• Salazar overthrew the elected, government in 1926.
• From 1926 to 1974, Salazar ruled as a dictator.
• Salazar suppressed opposition; killed their leaders;
• He organised ‘concentration camps’ where lie punished those who were involved in working-class in forests.
• He ruled through spies who were present at public place?.
• Citizens were denied freedoms; they could not discuss politics in the open.

Question 36.
What could be the impact of the presence of secret police in public place? Why is it necessary for people to discuss politics without fear?
Answer:
The presence of secret police in public places: cafes, railway stations, post offices, hospitals, universities, factories- would mean having a reign of terror. Under such system, citizens would not talk against the regime for fear of being arrested -and tortured. Politics without fear is a guarantee of democracy; with fear, that of a non-democracy.

Question 37.
Why were women given voting rights much later than men in most countries? Why did this not happen in India?
Answer:
Franchise (Voting rights) movements started in different countries at different times. These movements sought male franchise first. This is why men got voting rights earlier. In India this did not happen so because democratic and voting rights ushered for all at the same time after independence.

Question 38.
How did the French Revolution, the Glorious Revolution and the American War of independence help pave the way for democracy?
Answer:
The French revolution of 1789 did not establish a secure and stable democracy, in France. But it prepared the ground for and inspired many struggles for democracy all over Europe. The French revolution was preceded by a more limited but no less significant movement in Britain. This culminated in the ‘Glorious’ revolution of 1688. Around the same time as the French revolution, the British colonies in what is today the United States of America declared themselves independent.

Since the principle underlying the Declaration of Independence of 1776 was democratic, it was natural that they set up a democratic system in the Constitution of the United States of America. These developments decided once for all that there are no divine rights of the kings,- that men and women constitute the basis on which their rights and liberties are built, that men and women are born equal and born free.

Question 39.
How would you describe Salazar’s regim? as a dictatorship? Elections were held in Salazar’s Portugal. Why should it not be called a democracy?
Answer:
Salazar captured power in Portugal in 1926. For about a half-century, he ruled the country as a a.dictator. He was cruel to the opposition leaders, tortured them and killed them. His government started concentration camps on a barren island to punish those involved in working-class protests. The spies and informers of the secret police were present in all public- places-cafes, railway stations, post offices/ hospitals, offices, universities and factories. Being fearful of arrest, the citizen could not dare to discuss politics in the open.

After 1945, the government allowed opposition to campaign for one month before elections. This one month of free time’ was never enough to mobilise people politically for support during elections a$ no opposition was allowed after elections. The elections were held irregularly, every four or seven years. The opposition never won a single seat in these elections.

Question 40.
The late 17th century and the early 20th century saw some “democracies” in the world. Why were they not called democracies in the sense we use in the world today?
Answer:
Some countries of the world could be called ‘democracies’ by the beginning of the twentieth century. But these countries, which became democratic in the 19th century, did not allow all people to vote. Often the women did not have a right to vote. In some countries, only people owning property had the right to vote. In the United States of America, the blacks did not have a right to vote all over the country until the second half of the twentieth century. So we cannot say that these were full democracies in the sense in. which we understand it today.

Never, the beginning for democracy had begun. These countries had some of the following things common to them:

• The governments were no more dictatorial. A measure of governmental accountability was seen.
• Some kind of limited representative systems had started.
• People had started launching movements for their rights.

Question 41.
Where do you place Ghana as a democratic nation?
Answer:
The country that is today called Ghana used to be a British colony called Gold Coast. This country became independent in 1957. It was among the first counties in Africa to be liberated from colonialism. It inspired other African countries to struggle for freedom. Kwame Nkrumah, son of a goldsmith and a teacher himself was active in the independence struggle of his country. For him, like many other African nationalists, the struggle against foreign rule was linked to establishing democratic rule.

After independence, Nkrumah became the first prime minister and then the president of Ghana. He was a friend of Jawaharlal Nehru and an inspiration for democrats, in Africa. But unlike Nehru, he deviated from the path of democracy and got himself elected the president for life. Nkrumah justified his actions by arguing that “Even a system based on a democratic constitution may need backing up in the period following independence by emergency measures of a totalitarian kind”. Shortly thereafter, in 1966, he was overthrown by military, Ghana was no longer a democracy.

Question 42.
Explain with examples as to how democracy lias been adopted in the world since 1990s.
Answer:
The 1990 saw’ numerous changes in the World. The communist regime came to an end in Poland, and Hungary in eastern European countries. The USSR disintegrated as a simple country and multi-party system came to be adopted. Major changes, especially in Pakistan and Bangladesh” made a transition from army rule to democratic regime in 1990s. In Nepal, the monarch gave up many of his powers to become a constitutional monarch’ to be guided by elected leaders. These changes ‘ were not permanent and were reversed in Pakistan and Nepal. Yet the overall trend in this period is of more and more countries turning to democracy.

This phase continues till now. By 2002, about 140 countries were holding multi-party elections. This number was higher than ever before. More than 80 previously non-democratic countries have made significant advances,vtowards democracy, during this period. but even today, there are many countries where people cannot express their opinion freely. They still cannot elect their leaders. They cannot decide how they will live in the present and in the future.

Question 43.
Give a detailed account of developments that took place in Myanmar since 1990.
Answer:
Elections were held in Myanmar (earlier Burma) in 1990. The NED (National League for Democracy), led by Aung Sang Suti Kyi won with a comprehensive victory. But the military rulers of Myanmar refused to recognise the election results and put the elected pro-democracy leaders including Suu Kyi under house arrest. Political activists, accused of even the most trivial offences, have been jailed from seven to fifteen years.

Anyone caught publicly airing view’s or issuing statements critical of the regime was sentenced up to twenty years in prison. Due to the coercive policies of the military-ruled government in Myanmar, about 6 to 10 lakh people in that country, have been uprooted from their homes and have taken shelter elsewhere.

Despite the restrictions of house arrest, Suu Kyi continued to campaign for democracy. According to her, “The quest for democracy in Myanmar is the struggle of the people to live whole, meaningful lives as free and equal members of the world community. Her struggle has won international recognition; She was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize. Yet the people in Myanmar are still struggling for establishing a democratic government.

Question 44.
Are we moving towards global democracy? Give examples.
Answer:
We know that democracy has expanded. Now more arid more people in Asia and Africa are also able to take part in forming governments in their countries. But does this trend also hold true for relationships among different countries or people from different countries? Are we moving towards global democracy? A quick look at some of the major global institutions suggests that we are not.

Expansion of democracy within nations has not led to greater democracy at the international level. Consider these facts :
1. The United Nations (UN) is the largest and best-known international organisation in the world. Every one of its 192 member countries has one vote in the UN General Assembly.

But all the crucial decisions about taking action in any conflict situation are taken by the 15 member Security Council. While ten of its members are non-permanent, the real power is with five ‘permanent’ members-USA, Russia, UK, France and China. Any one of; these five can ‘veto’, that is to reject of to stall, any decision of the Security Council.

2. International Monetary Fund (IMF) is one of the biggest money lenders for any country in the World. Its 173 member states do not have equal voting power. The vote of each country is weighted by how much money it has given to IMF. Eight of the leading ‘G-8’ (Canada, Germany, Japan, Italy, UK, USA, Russia, and France) countries have a majority of votes. The World Bank has a similar .system of voting. The President of the World Bank is always a citizen of the USA, nominated by the Treasury Secretary (Finance Minister) of the US government.

3. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is the key-global institution that decides upon rules of trade among different countries. Every decision of the WTO has to be by consensus of all the countries. So it appears to be fully democratic. But most of the-decisions are taken in informal meeting which are secret and to which only some powerful countries are invited.

In fact, While nations are becoming more democratic than they were earlier/ international organisations are becoming less democratic. In this sense, the collapse of ‘ the USSR had negative effect on democracy.
Now, the USA is the only superpower in the world.

This has encouraged the USA to act unilaterally, without seeking the consent of or even consultation with other countries. This has led more and more people and countries to say that the UN should be more democratised. Only through equal participation of all the members, can the UN be a democratic organisation. In this way, the world also can be more democratic.

Objective Type Questions

1. Fill in the blanks with suitable words/names/events:

(i) The deposed leader of Chile in 1973 was …………………………………… . (Pinochet, Allende)
Answer:
Allende

(ii) Calama is a place a thousand miles away from …………………………………… . (Chicago, Santiago)
Answer:
Santiago

(iii) The name of the trade union leader in Poland in 1980s was …………………………………… .(Walesa, Luxembourg).
Answer:
Walesa

(iv) The French Revolution occurred in …………………………………… .(1776,1789).
Answer:
1789

(v) Salazar was a dictator of …………………………………… .(Myanmar, Portugal).
Answer:
Portugal

(vi) Suu Kyi got the Nobel Prize in …………………………………… . (Economics, Peace)
Answer:
Peace.

2. Choose (✓) or (✗) from the following:

(i) Russia is indulging in democracy promotion these lays.
Answer:
(✗)

(ii) Myanmar is the changed name of Burma.
Answer:
(✓)

(iii) Gold Coast is known as Namibia now.
Answer:
(✗)

(iv) Salazar was a dictator of Portugal.
Answer:
(✓)

(v) Poland had a popularly elected President in Pinochet.
Answer:
(✗)

(vi) Democracy is the best form of government.
Answer:
(✓)

3. Choose the right answer from the alternatives given below:

(i) The name of Allende political party was
(a) Solidarity
(b) Popular Unity
(c) United Workers Party
Answer:
(b) Popular Unity

(ii) Myanmar was once known as:
(a) Hong Kong
(b) Burma
(c) Laos
(d) Indonesia.
Answer:
(b) Burma

(iii) The following country changed from democracy to non-democracy:
(a) USA
(b) Chile
(c) England
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Chile

(iv) Walesa was elected leader in October 1990 of:
(a) Chile
(b) Poland
(c) Portugal
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(b) Poland

(v) WTO is a global institution associated with:
(a) Transport
(b) Trade
(c) Television
(d) Traffic
Answer:
(b) Trade

(vi) One of the following is not a member of G-8:
(a) Italy
(b) Sweden
(c) Japan
(c) Canada
Answer:
(b) Sweden.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Here we are providing A Dog Named Duke Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Literature Reader, Extra Questions for Class 9 English was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-english/

A Dog Named Duke Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Literature

A Dog Named Duke Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Why was Duke put in a kennel?
Answer:
Duke was put in a kennel because Chuck had an accident which meant he would not be returning home for a long time. Marcy also would not be home much and there would have been no one to take care of Duke.

Question 2.
Why did Chuck not show much improvement in the hospital?
Answer:
Chuck was probably not being able to come to terms with the fact that he would never regain his health but would remain a cripple all his life. This thought depressed him and slowed down his rate of recovery.

Question 3.
How did Duke behave when he saw Chuck after he came back from the hospital?
Answer:
Duke was so excited to see his master that he launched himself on his master causing him to almost fall down.

Question 4.
Did Duke’s return have any effect on Hooper?
Answer:
After the first day when Duke threw himself on him and Chuck had stood up to welcome him, Chuck did not show any more enthusiasm. He would spend his days in silence, staring at the ceiling for hours.

Question 5.
“The dog knew instantly”—What did he know? How did he behave thereafter?
Answer:
He instantly realised that his master was not well and after that he never jumped on Chuck again but stayed by his bedside around the clock, staring at him in silence.

Question 6.
“Duke finally couldn’t take it.” What does the narrator mean by this? What change did Duke bring about?
Answer:
Duke could not take the long hours of silence from Hooper and his apathy and listlessness. He started poking and nudging Chuck till at last Chuck was forced to respond.

Question 7.
“It was like lighting a fuse. Duke shimmied himself U-shaped in anticipation.” Explain.
Answer:
This line refers to the effect Chuck had on the dog when his good hand idly hooked the leash onto the dog’s collar. The dog jumped up in anticipation that his master would take him for a walk. It made the dog all excited.

Question 8.
“The pair set daily goals.” Who were the pair? What were their daily goals?
Answer:
The “pair” refers to Chuck and his dog Duke. Their goal refers to their determination to get Chuck walking and resuming his normal life. Every day they increased the distance and walked till Chuck was able to walk long distances without help from Duke.

Question 9.
What did Duke do when his master fell in his attempt to walk?
Answer:
Duke would stand very still while his master struggled to get up. It seemed as if he felt it was his job to get his master back on his feet.

Question 10.
Did Chuck give up after Duke’s death? Give reasons for your answer.
Encourage the students to think creatively and formulate their own answer.
Answer:
No, Chuck continued to walk and work as he had done with Duke by his side. He had realised the deep love, dedication, and patience that the dog had shown in getting him back on his feet and he could not let all that effort go in vain.

A Dog Named Duke Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Describe the first attempts made by Hooper to walk.
Answer:
Hooper’s good hand held onto the leash attached to the dog’s collar and he asked Marcy to help him to his feet. With Marcy supporting him by the elbow, he moved his right leg out in the front, causing the left foot to drag forward alongside the right leg. Duke felt the sudden slackness in his leash and he pulled it tight. Chuck swayed forward, broke the fall with his right leg, and then straightened.

Thrice he repeated the same before collapsing into his wheelchair, thus taking his first step since his accident. Everyday thereafter the dog and his master would set targets for the day, slightly further from the day before and not rest till the target for the day was accomplished. In this way from one step they took several steps to reach the door and finally covered the neighbourhood and beyond.

Question 2.
Write a character sketch of Chuck Hooper. What kind of a man do’you think he was?
Answer:
Before the accident Chuck appears to be a happy-go-lucky m$n who has everything going for him. He has a job, a loving wife, a comfortable home with a dog he loves, and the opportunity to play in the football team. But the accident brings out the real depth of his character. After he shakes off his initial despair and gloom, he appears to be a determined, persevering young man who is not afraid to stretch his limits. He shows tremendous courage in facing his handicap and finding a way to live life on his terms in spite of it. He also has the sensitivity to appreciate the dog’s efforts to help him. His hard working nature and independence is apparent in the way he comes back to work and is promoted due to the excellent work that he puts in.

Question 3.
Charles Hooper writes a diary entry after Duke dies, detailing the impact the dog has had on his life. Write the entry.
Answer:
12 April 20xx
Duke died today. A part of me has been buried with him. There is much that I have to thank Duke for. After my accident I saw no reason to live. I lay in my bed for months staring at the ceiling. Marcy, my wife was so upset to see me so morose and depressed. That is when she decided to bring Duke back home from the kennel where she had put him while I was in hospital. The day he returned I tried to stand up to welcome

him. With a giant leap he launched himself on me. He was so excited and happy to see me! But he was so sensitive; he immediately sensed that all was not fine with me. After that he never jumped on me but sat by my bedside quietly staring at me. For some weeks he sat patiently but one day he decided to take me outside and started prodding and nudging me till I had to give in and try to stand.

I can never forget the care and effort he put in to help me walk. I would hold on to his leash while he would walk forward holding it tight waiting for me to drag my legs till I reached him, then he would run ahead and wait for me. In this way I started walking—first a few steps then some more and finally around the neighbourhood. I owe Duke so much. It is really hard to let him go. May you rest in peace!

Question 4.
Marcy writes a letter to her mother in another city informing her about the change in Chuck’s attitude since the return of Duke, mentioning the effort Duke has been putting in goading Chuck out of the bed. Write the letter.
Answer:
15 August 20xx XYZ
Dear Mother,
I never thought there would be a day when I would be grateful to Duke! But it is true, that dog is a wonder! He has managed to get Chuck out of his bed today! I could hardly imagine this was possible.

When I returned from work I saw Chuck standing holding on to Duke’s leash. Then Duke moved ahead and waited with his leash tight while Chuck slowly shuffled his legs to move forward till he was just behind Duke and the leash was loose. Then Duke again moved forward and stood with his leash straining tight. Once again • Chuck moved forward but was so tired out by the effort that he collapsed into his wheelchair!

I am so happy, Duke is such a godsend. He is so sensitive in spite of his huge size. He understands Chuck’s needs and adjusts his movements to suit Chuck’s. He is better than any physiotherapist! He has got my Chuck once again interested in life. Now I am hopeful that Chuck will resume as normal a life as possible under the circumstances.
Your daughter,
Marcy

A Dog Named Duke Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
In 1953, Hooper was a favoured young man. A big genuine grin civilized his highly competitive nature. Standing six-foot-one, he’d played on the university football team. He was already a hard-charging zone sales manager for a chemical company. Everything was going for him.
(a) With reference to Hooper, the author says, “Everything was going for him.” What does it imply?
Answer:
The author implies that Hooper had everything that a man aspires for.

(b) What was Hooper’s occupation and what made him well suited for the job?
Answer:
Hooper was a hard-charging zone sales manager for a chemical company. He was well suited because of his pleasant personality and competitive nature.

(c) In your own words can you define what hard-charging means?
Answer:
Hard-charging means ambitious or working or performing with a lot of energy and skill

Question 2.
“Hooper was taken to the hospital with a subdural haemorrhage. ”
(a) How did Hooper get hurt?
Answer:
Hooper got hurt in a car accident.

(b) What does subdural haemorrhage mean?
Answer:
The medical term subdural haemorrhage means bleeding in the brain.

(c) For how long did Hooper have to stay in the hospital?
Answer:
Hooper stayed in the hospital for many months.

Question 3.
“But Chuck did not make much headway. ”
(a) What was wrong with Chuck?
Answer:
Chuck was paralyzed after an accident.

(b) What does “did not make much headway” mean?
Answer:
It means that Chuck did not show any signs of recovering.

(c) How did Chuck regain his enthusiasm for life?
Answer:
He regained his enthusiasm for life because of his dog, Duke

Question 4.
“Finally they decided to bring Duke home. ”
(a) Whom does “they” refer to?
Answer:
In the given extract “they” refers to Hooper and his wife.

(b) Where had Duke been?
Answer:
Duke had been put in a kennel after Hooper met with an accident.

(c) Why did they decide to bring Duke home?
Answer:
Hooper was bed ridden and needed companionship. They decided to bring Duke home as he could help Hooper get out of his listlessness.

Question 5.
Those who saw it said the dog knew instantly. He never jumped on Chuck again. From that moment, he took up a post beside his master’s bed around the clock.
(a) Why did Duke never jump on Chuck again?
Answer:
Duke realised that Chuck was not well and could not balance himself.

(b) The author says that Duke “knew his job”. What was the job?
Answer:
Duke’s job was to look after Chuck.

(c) Explain the phrase ‘around the clock’.
Answer:
The phrase around the clock means all day and all night.

Question 6.
“ Go run around the house Duke. ’ But Duke wouldn’t. He’d lie down with a reproachful eye. ”
(a) Why was Duke unhappy with Hooper?
Answer:
Duke was unhappy with Hooper as Hooper was not showing any interest in getting well.

(b) What do these lines tell us about Duke?
Answer:
These lines tell us that Duke did not wish to leave his master alone. He was determined to make his master get up.

(c) What does the phrase ‘reproachful eye’ mean?
Answer:
The phrase ‘Reproachful eye’ means that Duke was looking at Hooper disapprovingly.

Question 7.
“Duke felt the sudden slack in the leash and pulled it taut. ”
(a) Why did Duke pull his leash?
Answer:
Duke pulled the leash as he was helping Chuck to walk.

(b) What does the word “taut” mean?
Answer:
Taut means very tight.

(c) What was the result of Duke’s help?
Answer:
The result of Duke’s help was that Hooper regained his confidence and started to walk.

Question 8.
“By mid-April, neighbours saw a daily struggle in front of Marcy’s house. ”
(a) What is the “daily struggle” being referred to?
Answer:
Here the “daily struggle” refers to Hooper getting out of the house to practice his walk.

(b) Who were the ones who struggled?
Answer:
Duke and Hooper were the ones who struggled.

(c) What had happened to Hooper?
Answer:
Hooper had become paralyzed after an accident.

Question 9.
“Gordon this isn’t just a visit. Bring me up to date…”
(a) Who is Gordon?
Answer:
‘ Gordon was Hooper’s manager at work.

(b) Who is the speaker?
Answer:
The speaker of the extracted line is Hooper.

(c) What does he mean when he says “this isn’t just a visit?”
Answer:
When Hooper says “this isn’t just a visit”, he means he had come to work.

Question 10.
“Chuck hit the target and after March 1, there was no time for the physiotherapy programme… ”
(a) What target does Chuck hit?
Answer:
The target Chuck had was to work a full day.

(b) What did this prove about Chuck? What was the result of Hooper’s hitting the target?
Answer:
It proved that he was persevering, determined, and painstaking. He was appointed regional sales manager for hitting the target.

(c) What do you mean by physiotherapy?
Answer:
Physiotherapy is the treatment of injuries or disease by exercise or massage.

Question 11.
“They carried the big dog into the house.”
(a) Why did they have to carry the dog into the house?
Answer:
They had to carry the dog into the house because he had been run over by a car.

(b) Who carried the dog in?
Answer:
Marcy carried the dog inside.

(c) How does the person’s present attitude differ from earlier attitude?
Answer:
Marcy did not like the dog earlier but after everything he did for Hooper she loved him now.

Question 12.
“Marcy was not really a dog lover…It took a long time before Marcy was more than polite to the dog. ”
(a) Who was Marcy?
Answer:
Marcy was Hooper’s wife.

(b) Explain “More than polite to the dog”
Answer:
“More than polite to the dog” means Marcy finally accepted the dog in their house.

(c) Why was Marcy wary of the dog at first?
Answer:
Marcy was wary of the dog at first because it was very big and boisterous.

Forest Society and Colonialism Class 9 Extra Questions History Chapter 4

Question 1.
How much-cultivated area rose during 1880-1920?
Answer:
The cultivated area rose by 9.7 million hectares between 1880 and 1920.

Question 2.
Why was railways essential to the colonial rulers?
Answer:

• For colonial trade,
• movement of troops.

Question 3.
Which places did the Indus Valley Railway touch when introduced?
Answer:
Multan on the one hand and Sukkur on the other hand, a distance of nearly 300 miles.

Question 4.
Which places were joined together by the Northern State Railway?
Answer:
Lahore on the one hand and Multan on the other.

Question 5.
Who was Dietrich Brandis and who appointed him?
Answer:
Dietrich Brandis was a German forest expert. The British Government appointed him as Inspector General of Forests in India.

Question 6.
When was the Indian Forest Act passed?
Answer:
The Indian Forest Act was passed in 1865.

Question 7.
Which Act divided the forest into reserved, protected and village forests?
Answer:
The Act of 1878.

Question 8.
Could the villagers according to the Act of 1878, make use of the reserved forests?
Answer:
The villagers could not take anything from the reserved forests, even for their own use.

Question 9.
What is scientific forestry?
Answer:
Scientific forestry is a system of cutting trees Controlled by the forest department in which old trees are cut and new ones planted.

Question 10.
What is lading?
Answer:
Lading is local name for shifting cultivation of Southeast Asia. In Central America, it is called milpa, while in Sri Lanka, it is called Chena.

Question 11.
Why did the colonial government decide to ban shifting cultivation? Give one reason.
Answer:
It was difficult for the government to calculate, taxes on shifting cultivation.

Question 12.
Name some of the nomadic and pastoral communities of Madras Presidency.
Answer:
Korava, Karacba, and Yerukula.

Question 13.
Name the leaders of the movements of Santhal Pargana, Chhotanagpur, Andhra Pradesh who resisted the British colonialists.
Answer:

• Santhal Pargana: Siddhu & Kanu
• Chhotanagpur: Birsa Munda
• Andhra Pradesh: Alluri Sitarama Raju.

Question 14.
Who were the Kalangs?
Answer:
The Kalangs were a community- of Java (Indonesia) who were skilled forest cutters and shifting cultivators.

Question 15.
“The forest area is. fast disappearing”. Substantiate.
Answer:
The forest area indeed is fast disappearing. Between 1700 and 1995, which may be characterized as the period of industrialization, 13.-9 million sq km of forests or 9.3% of the world’s total areas had been cleared for

• industrial use,
• cultivation,
• pasture’s, and fuelwood.

Question 16.
What were the banana republics?
Answer:
The power of an American owned United Fruit Company to grow bananas on the large industrial scale, in Central America is said to be banana republics.

Question 17.
Should the land unused be improved or remain with the Aboriginals,? Give your arguments.
Answer:
The land unused remains unproductive. It may be in regions like the Central America or Australia. It is important that the land be used or improved upon so to be productive. It is the land that helps us grow crops, and take from it numerous natural resources. The land wasted is the land lost. It is important that the people make use of it, and make it productive.

Question 18.
As the oak forests were disappearing, how did England manage to have timber for its shipbuilding requirement?
Answer:
By the early nineteenth century, oak forest in England were disappearing. This created a problem of timber supply for the Royal Navy. By 1920s, search parties were sent to explore the forest resources of India. Within a decade, trees were being felled on a massive scale and vast quantities of timber were being exported from India.

Question 19.
Write a brief note on scientific forestry. ‘
Answer:
The Imperial Forest Research Institute, set up at Dehradun in 1906, taught what is called scientific forestry. In scientific forestry, natural forests which had lots of different types of trees were cut down. In their place, one type of tree was planted in straight rows.

This is called a plantation. Forest officials surveyed the forests, estimated the area under different types of trees, and made working plans for forest management. The colonial rulers planned how much of the plantation area was to be cut every year. The area cut was then to be replanted so that it was ready to be cut again in some future years.

Question 20.
What were the forest Acts and what characteristics they had?
Answer:
After the Forest Act was enacted in 1865, it was amended twice, once in 1878 and then in 1927. The 1878 Act divided forests into there categories; reserved, protected and village forests. The best forests were called ‘reserved forests’. Villagers could not fake anything from these forests. For house building or fuel, they could take the wood.

Question 21.
Give the status of the Bastar region.
Answer:
In 1947 Bastar kingdom was merged with Ranker kingdom and became Bastar district in Madhya Pradesh. In 1998 it was divided again into three districts, Ranker, Bastar and Dantewada. In 2001, these became part of Chhattisgarh. Tire 1910 rebellion first started in the Kanger forest area and soon spread to other parts of the state.

Question 22.
Mention the location of the Bastar region. ?
Answer:
Bastar is located in the southernmost part of Chhattisgarh and borders Andhra Pradesh/Orissa and Maharashtra. The central part of Bastar is on a plateau. To the north of this plateau is the Chhattisgarh plain and to its South is the Godavari plain. The river Indrawati winds across Bastar east to west.

Question 23.
What is deforestation? How has cultivation been responsible for clearing of forests.
Answer:
The disappearance of forests is deforestation. The process of deforestation has become more systematic and extensive during the colonial rule. In 1600 about one-sixth of India’s landmass was under cultivation. Now the figure has gone up to about half. As population grew, so grew the demand for food, and so began the process of cultivation.

In the colonial period, cultivation expanded rapidly. Two major reasons were: first, the British directly encouraged the production of commercial crops like jute, sugar, wheat and cotton. The demand, for these crops, increased in nineteenth century. Secondly, in early 19th century, the colonial state thought that the forests Were unproductive and that land cultivation would not only yield agricultural products/but also revenue for the state. That is why we find that between 1880 and 1920, cultivation area rose by 9.7 million hectares.

Question 24.
Why did the British make use of timber for railway in India? Explain.
Answer:
The spread of railways, ever since 1850, created a new demand. Railways were essential for colonial trade and for the movement of troops. To run locomotives, wood was needed as fuel, and to lay railway lines, sleepers were essential to hold the tracks together. From the 1860s, the railway network expanded rapidly. By 1890′, about 25,500 km of track had been laid. In 1946, the length of the tracks had increased to over 765,000 km.

As the railway tracks spread through India, a larger and larger number of trees were felled. As early as the 1,850s, in the Madras. Presidency alone, 35,000, trees were being cut annually for sleepers. The government gave out contracts to individuals to supply the required quantities. These contractors began cutting trees indiscriminately. Forests around the railway tracks fast started disappearing.

Question 25.
How did the forest laws bring days of hardships for the villagers? Explain.
Answer:
The villagers had the face the days of hardships because of the stricter forest laws. After these Acts, all their everyday practices-cutting wood for houses, grazing their cattle, collecting fruits and roots, hunting and fishing became illegal.

People were now forced to steal wood from the forests, and if they were caught, they were at the mercy of the forest guards who would take bribes from them. Women who collected fuelwood were especially worried. It was also common for police constables and forest guards to harass people for demanding free food from them.

The villagers had to abandon the shifting cultivation, for the government restricted this type of farming due to heavy losses of timber burnt during the process. It felt that land which was used for cultivation every few years could not grow trees for railways timber. When a forest was burnt, there was the added danger of the flames spreading and burning valuable timber.

Shifting cultivation also made it harder for the government to calculate taxes. Therefore, the government decided to ban shifting cultivation. As a result, many communities were forcibly displaced from their homes in the forests. Some had to change occupations, while some resisted through large and small rebellions.

Question 26.
Write short notes on the following:
(i) Dutch Scientific Forestry.
(ii) Sarnin’s challenge.
Answer:
(i) Dutch Scientific Forestry In the nineteenth century, when it became important to control territory and not just people, the Dutch enacted forest laws in Java, restricting villagers access to forests. Now wood could only be cut for specified purposes like making riverboats or constructing houses, and only from specific forests under close supervision. Villagers were punished for grazing cattle in young stands, transporting wood without a permit, or travelling on forest roads with horse carts or cattle.

(ii) Samin’s challenge-Around 1890, Surontiko, Samin of Randbulafung village, a teak forest village, began questioning state ownership of tine forest. He argued that the state had not created the wind, water, early and wood, so it could not own it. Soon a widespread movement developed. Amongst those who helped organise it were Samin’s sons-in-law. By 1907, 3,000 families were following his ideas. Some of the Saminists protested by lying down on their land when the Dutch came to survey it, while others refused to pay taxes or fines or perform labour.

Objective Type Questions

1. Select correct (✓) or wrong (✗) from the following:

Question 1.
Banana Republics belong to regions such as the Central America.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 2.
Railway tracks required, at one point of time, wooden sleepers.
Answer:
(✓)

Question 3.
Brandis was an English forest expert.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 4.
Indian Forest Service was set up in 1865.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 5.
George Yule killed 400 tigers.
Answer:
(✓)

2. Select the correct word from the four alternatives given herein:

Question 1.
Bastar is bordered by the following :
(a) Orissa
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Orissa

Question 2.
Gunda Dhur belonged to the following village:
(a) Bastar
(b) Jagdalpur
(c) Nathan
(d) Palam
Answer:
(c) Nathan

Question 3.
Java is a place in:
(a) Thailand
(b) Singapore
(c) Indonesia
(d) Myanmar.
Answer:
(c) Indonesia

Question 4.
The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up at :
(a) Hard war
(b) Dehradun
(c) Kashipur
(d) Badali
Answer:
(b) Dehradun

Question 5.
The forest act, first, was passed in :
(a)1864
(b) 1S66
(c) 1865
(d) 1867.
Answer:
(c) 1865

3. Fill in the blanks with the words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
In the Madras Presidency, as early as 1850s, about 35000 trees were cut ……………………… (annually, six-monthly)
Answer:
annually

Question 2.
Brandis was a forest expert ……………………… . (German, Brazilian)
Answer:
German

Question 3.
The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up at Dehradun in ……………………… (1905,1906)
Answer:
1906

Question 4.
George Yule was a …………………….. administrator. (German, Dutch)
Answer:
British.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

In this page, we are providing Natural Resources Class 9 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 14 pdf download. NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources with Answers will help to score more marks in your CBSE Board Exams. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-science/

Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Resources

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources with Answers Solutions

Natural Resources Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Natural Resources Class 9 Extra Questions Question 1.
What are the resources available on Earth for life to exist?
Answer:
Air, water and land are the resources available on the Earth which help life to exist.

Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions Question 2.
Name the compound of carbon responsible for the ozone hole in the atmosphere.
Answer:
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC’s) are responsible for the ozone hole in the atmosphere.

Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Extra Questions And Answers Question 3.
State the temperature range on the surface of the moon.
Answer:
The temperature ranges from -190°C to 110°C on the moon

Natural Resources Class 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
State any one difference between oxygen and ozone.
Answer:
Oxygen is a diatomic molecule with formula 02 whereas ozone is a triatomic molecule-with formula 0₃.

Extra Questions For Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources Question 5.
Name the stage in the life cycle of aquatic animals which is affected by a change in temperature.
Answer:
The stage of animals which is affected by the change in the temperature is – the eggs at the hatching stage, the larvae and the young ones of the animals.

Extra Questions Of Natural Resources Class 9 Question 6.
Along with the natural resources available on the Earth, what else is required to meet the basic requirements of all life forms on the Earth?
Answer:
Solar energy is required to meet the basic requirements of all life forms on Earth.

Natural Resources Class 9 Questions And Answers Question 7.
How is biosphere a dynamic and stable system?
Answer:
There is a constant interaction between the biotic and the abiotic components of the global ecosystem (biosphere) which makes it a stable system. The basic composition and the structure of the system do not change while carrying out the various processes. So, it is a stable system.

Natural Resources Extra Questions Question 8.
How do forests play a major role in maintaining the water cycle?
Answer:
The amount of water vapour in the atmosphere is dependent on the transpiration of water from the leaves of the plants present in a forest. Also, the storage of water in watershed is influenced by the forests. So, forests play a major role in maintaining the water cycle.

Ch 14 Science Class 9 Extra Questions Question 9.
Why is step farming done in hills?
Answer:
Step farming is done in hills to prevent soil erosion by slowing down the speed of the water running down the slopes.

Class 9 Natural Resources Extra Questions Question 10.
Why are root nodules useful for plants?
Answer:
The root nodules of leguminous plants contain nitrogen-fixing bacteria like the Rhizobium which help to increase the fertility of the soil by fixing atmospheric nitrogen.

Class 9 Science Ch 14 Extra Questions Question 11.
What are the biotic and the abiotic components of the biosphere?
Answer:

• Biotic component: comprises of living things.
• Abiotic component: comprises of non-living things like temperature, rainfall, air, water and soil.

Questions On Natural Resources Class 9 Question 12.
What percentage of oxygen and nitrogen are present in the atmosphere?
Answer:
The approximate percentage of oxygen and nitrogen in the atmosphere are:
Oxygen: 21%, Nitrogen: 78%

Extra Questions On Natural Resources Class 9 Question 13.
Give the major source of minerals in the soil.
Answer:
The minerals in the soil depend upon the rocks from which the soil is formed. So, the rocks are the major source of minerals in the soil.

Natural Resources Class 9 Important Questions With Answers Question 14.
Name the two gases given out during the burning of fossil fuels which dissolve in rain to form acid rain.
Answer:
Sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen.

Extra Questions Of Chapter Natural Resources Class 9 Question 15.
Name the group of compounds responsible for ozone layer depletion.
Answer:
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are responsible for ozone layer depletion.

Natural Resources Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 1

Question 1.
What are the sources of oxygen in the atmosphere?
Answer:
The sources of oxygen in the atmosphere are:

• Oxygen released during photosynthesis by plants
• The dissociation of oxides from their compounds
• The disintegration of ozone in presence of UV rays
• As the water in combined form

Question 2.

1. What causes winds?
2. List any two methods of preventing soil erosion.

Answer:

1. Due to the unequal heating of land and water, the land get heated up faster during the day, the air on land rises up and creates a region of low pressure. As a result, the air over the sea moves towards the region of low pressure formed on the land. This causes winds to flow.

2. (a) Overgrazing by cattle should be avoided.
(b) Large scale afforestation should be done as roots of plants prevent the soil from getting carried away.
(c) Increasing the vegetation cover on the ground reduces the impact of flowing water on soil and prevents it from getting washed away.
(d) Contour farming can be done by ploughing the land in furrows across the natural slope of the land to trap water flowing down.
(e) Step farming is practised in hilly regions which reduce the flow of water and give it more time to percolate into the soil.

Question 3.
List the importance of oxygen gas and ozone gas in the atmosphere.
Answer:
Role of Oxygen gas: It helps in the process of combustion, respiration and formation of many organic compounds.
Role of Ozone: It absorbs the harmful UV rays of the Sun which can cause skin diseases and cancer on reaching the Earth’s surface.

Question 4.
Mention one method by which living organisms influence the formation of soil.
Answer:
The living organisms like lichens and mosses are the initial colonisers of rocks which secrete certain chemical substances that dissolve the minerals of rock and cause the gradual weathering of rocks. The rocks get broken down into small, fine particles of soil. So, living organisms play an important role in the formation of soil.

Question 5.
Explain the occurrence of land breeze in coastal areas.
Answer:
During the day, in coastal regions, the air above land gets heated faster and warm air being lighter rises up thereby creating a region of low pressure. The air over the sea then moves towards the area of low pressure. The movement of air from one region to the other creates winds. At night, water cools down slower than the land, so the air above water would be warmer than the air above land. This causes air over the land to move towards the region of low pressure over water.

Question 6.
What are the two ways in which carbon dioxide is fixed in the environment?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is fixed in the atmosphere when:

1. Green plants utilise the carbon dioxide and convert it into glucose during photosynthesis.
2. Carbon dioxide dissolved in seawater in the form of carbonates gets used up by the marine animals for the formation of their shells.

Question 7.

1. Why do terrestrial forms require freshwater?
2. Give two examples where freshwater can be found in the frozen form on the Earth.

Answer:

1. The terrestrial organisms require freshwater as they face osmotic problems if kept in marine water because they have low osmotic concentration. In order to maintain the balance of the salts present in their body, freshwater organisms require a medium having less salt concentration i.e., freshwater.
2. Freshwater can be found in a frozen form at polar ice-caps and the glaciers.

Question 8.
What is the role of the atmosphere in climate control?
Answer:
The atmosphere acts as a buffer which checks excessive rise in temperature during the day and prevents excessive cooling of the Earth during the night. The atmosphere helps to keep the average temperature of the Earth steady.

Question 9.
State any two harmful effects of air pollution.
Answer:
The two harmful effects of air pollution are:

1. Respiratory problems and difficulty in breathing
2. Acid rains

Question 10.
1. Define the term ‘smog’.
2. Name any two types of disease caused by regularly breathing polluted air.
Answer:
1. Smog is a kind of air pollution, named for the mixture of smoke and fog in the air. The thick cloud of water droplets having smoke particles suspended in the atmosphere which restricts visibility is called smog.
2. Diseases caused by breathing polluted air are:
(a) Allergy
(b) Respiratory disorders
(c) Heart-related problems

Question 11.
Mention a cause and a consequence of acid rain.
Answer:
Cause of acid rain: The oxides of nitrogen and sulphur like nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide released from the burning of fossil fuels gets mixed with water vapour present in the atmosphere to form acids. These acids dissolve in the rainwater and fall as acid rain on the Earth.

A consequence of acid rain:

1. The fertility of soil gets reduced due to the acidity created in the soil by the acid rains.
2. Acid rain corrodes the historic monuments and structures made of marble, metals, painted surfaces, etc.
3. The aquatic life is also harmed due to excess amount of acids which gets dissolved in water by acid rains.

Question 12.
What is meant by biogeochemical cycle? Name the two essentials which are transferred between different components of the biosphere.
Answer:
The movement of nutrient elements through the various components of an ecosystem i.e., biotic and the abiotic components, is called a biogeochemical cycle.
The two essentials which are transferred between different components of the biosphere are: Matter and energy,

Question 13.
What is the difference between nitrification and denitrification?
Answer:
Nitrification:
The process by which ammonia or ammonium compounds is converted into nitrites by Nitrosomonas and nitrites into nitrates by the Nitrobacter is called nitrification.

Denitrification:
The process by which the nitrites or nitrates are broken down into elemental nitrogen (N₂) by Pseudomonas or Thiobacillus is called denitrification.

Question 14.
Draw a well-labelled diagram to show the carbon cycle in nature.
Answer:

Question 15.
State the role of photosynthesis and respiration in the carbon cycle.
Answer:
Photosynthesis: Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is fixed by green plants during the process of photosynthesis and converted into glucose.

Respiration: Glucose is oxidised during respiration to obtain energy. Carbon dioxide gets released during the process and is returned to the atmosphere. In this way photosynthesis and respiration help in maintaining the carbon cycle in nature.

Question 16.
Draw a neat labelled diagram to show the nitrogen cycle.

Question 17.
Name any four carbon-containing molecules which are essential for human beings.
Answer:
The carbon-containing molecules essential for human beings are:

1. Deoxyribonucleic acid-DNA
2. Proteins
3. Carbohydrates
4.  Fats

Question 18.
Draw a well-labelled diagram to show the oxygen cycle in nature.
Answer:

Question 19.
(a) Why do terrestrial forms require freshwater?
(b) Mention any two processes involved in the water cycle.
Answer:
(a) Terrestrial forms require water for carrying out the various cellular and metabolic process which occur in their body.
(b) Two processes involved in the water cycle are: Evaporation of water from water bodies and precipitation of water in the form of rain, hail or snow.

Question 20.
What is the importance of greenhouse gases present in the atmosphere?
Answer:
The greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide and methane prevent the escape of heat from the Earth. Thus, these gases play an important role of keeping the average temperature of the Earth constant.

Question 21.
What is the greenhouse effect? What will happen if the concentration of greenhouse gases increase in the air?
Answer:
The phenomenon in which the incoming sunlight is allowed to pass through the atmosphere but heat radiated back from the planet’s surface is trapped by the gases like carbon dioxide, water vapour and methane present in the atmosphere is called the greenhouse effect.

Increase in concentration of greenhouse gases would prevent the escape of heat from the Earth, increase the average temperature worldwide and result in global warming. Global warming will cause a rise in sea and odd climatic changes due to faster melting of glaciers and polar ice caps.

Natural Resources Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 2

Question 1.
1. The circulation of carbon is important in nature. Give reasons for your answer.
2. Explain any two processes involved in the cycling of nitrogen in the environment.
Answer:
1. The circulation of carbon dioxide is important in nature as it helps in maintaining the balance of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the atmosphere. Carbon dioxide is taken up by plants for photosynthesis and oxygen released during photosynthesis is utilised by the plants and animals for respiration.

Hence, it is necessary to maintain the balance of these gases. Carbon dioxide gas gets cycled between the atmosphere and the living organisms. An excess of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere causes global warming due to the greenhouse effect.

2. The two-process involved in the cycling of nitrogen in the environment are nitrogen fixation and ammonification.

(a) Nitrogen fixation in which the atmospheric nitrogen is converted into nitrites and nitrates which are water-soluble and are easily taken up the roots.

(b) Ammonification: Formation of ammonia due to the decomposition of dead organic matter is called as Ammonification.

Question 2.
State the reason for the following:
1. Excess burning of coal causes the greenhouse effect.
2. Soil is a mixture.
3. Temperature ranges from (-190°C -110°C) on the surface of the moon.
Answer:
1. Carbon dioxide gas is released during the burning of fuel like coal and petroleum. Carbon dioxide has a property due to which it allows rays of the Sun to pass through and reach the surface of the Earth but stops the long-wave infra-red radiations to pass through on being re-radiated from the surface of the Earth. Thus, carbon dioxide traps the heat rays of the Sun and causes the greenhouse effect.

2. Soil is a mixture of minerals, organic matter, gases, liquids, and the various organisms that together support life on Earth.

3. The moon does not have an atmosphere like that on the Earth which traps the heat rays of the Sun and keeps its warm. The atmosphere helps in checking rise in temperature during the day and the fall in temperature during night. So, in spite of being at the same distance from the Sun as the Earth, the temperature on moon ranges from (-190°C-110° C).

Question 3.
With the help of the diagram shows the carbon cycle in nature. What are the two ways in which carbon dioxide is fixed in the environment?
Answer:
The carbon cycle in nature can be depicted by the following diagram:

Carbon dioxide is fixed in the atmosphere by the following two ways:
1. Green plants utilise the carbon dioxide and convert it into glucose during photosynthesis.
2. Carbon dioxide dissolved in seawater in the form of carbonates gets used up by marine animals for the formation of their shells.

Question 4.
Sun as a natural factor helps in the formation of soil. Explain.
Answer:
The Sun helps in soil formation in the following ways:
Rocks expand when they get heated by the Sun during the day. During the night, the rocks cool down and contract. This results in the formation of cracks in the rocks as the rate of expansion and contraction are different. The rocks split and break into smaller pieces.

Question 5.
What is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere? Name any two compounds of oxygen found in nature. Name any three processes by which oxygen is used up in the atmosphere.
Answer:
The percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is approximately 21%.
The diatomic form oxygen (O₂) and the triatomic form ozone (O₃) are the two forms in which oxygen is found in nature.
The three processes by which oxygen is used up in the atmosphere are:

• Combustion of fossil fuels.
• Respiration by living organisms.
• Decomposition of organic matter.
• Formation of oxides during fixation and other chemical reactions.

Question 6.
How is the greenhouse effect related to global warming? Explain.
Answer:
The phenomenon in which the incoming sunlight is allowed to pass through the atmosphere but heat radiated back from the planet’s surface is trapped by the gases like carbon dioxide, water vapour and methane present in the atmosphere is called the greenhouse effect.

An increase in the percentage of greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide and methane prevents the escape of heat from the Earth. So, the greenhouse effect is responsible for the increase in average temperature worldwide and is causing global warming. Global warming leads to melting of glaciers and polar ice caps at a faster rate which causes a rise of the sea and other odd climatic changes.

Question 7.
Why is water necessary for the living organisms?
Answer:
Water is necessary for living organisms because:

• All cellular metabolic processes occur in the water medium.
• The transportation of various substances from one part of the body to another occurs in dissolved form in water.
• All the reactions taking place in the cells or in our body occur between substances which are dissolved in water.

Question 8.
How are various biological factors needed for soil formation?
Or
Which symbiotic life forms can grow on stones and help in the formation of soil? Write the model of their action for making soil from rocks.
Answer:
Lichens are the symbiotic association of algae and fungi. Lichens help in the formation of soil. The living organisms like lichens and mosses are the initial colonisers of the rocks which secrete certain chemical substances which dissolve the minerals of rock and cause the gradual weathering of rocks. The rocks get broken down into small, fine particles of soil. So, biological factors play an important role in the formation of soil.

Question 9.
What is topsoil? Mention two factors that decide which plants will thrive on that soil.
Answer:
Topsoil refers to the topmost layer of the soil which contains humus, soil particles and living organisms.
The two factors that decide which plants will thrive on that soil are:

• The humus content and the type of microbes present in the soil.
• The size and texture of soil particles along with the composition of the soil.

Question 10.
What are the causes of soil erosion?
Answer:
The causes of soil erosion are:

1. Large scale deforestation
2. Large scale overgrazing
3. Industrialisation
4. Urbanisation
5. The land left uncultivated for a long time
6. Mining and other human activities which lead to loss of topsoil

Question 11.
Rivers from land, add minerals to seawater. Discuss how.
Answer:
Yes, it is true because water has the ability to dissolve a large number of substances. When the river water flows over the rocks containing soluble minerals, some of the minerals from the rocks get dissolved in the water. These minerals are carried away by the river water into the sea. Thus, the nutrients from the land are carried away by the river into the sea.

Question12.
How can we prevent the loss of topsoil?
Answer:
The loss of the topsoil can be prevented by the following ways:

1. Overgrazing by cattle should be avoided.
2. Large scale afforestation should be done as roots of the plants prevent the soil from getting carried away.
3. Increasing the vegetation cover on the ground reduces the impact of flowing water on soil and prevents it from getting washed away.
4. Contour farming can be done by ploughing the land in furrows across the natural slope of the land to trap water flowing down.
5. Step farming is practised in hilly regions which reduces the flow of water and gives it more time to percolate into the soil.

Question 13.
How is the life of organisms living in water affected when water gets polluted?
Answer:
When the water gets polluted, the life of organisms living in water gets affected in the following ways:

1. The domestic wastewater contains detergents and nutrients which increase the growth of aquatic plants, algae, etc., and reduces the amount of dissolved oxygen in the water body. This adversely affects the aquatic animals as they die due to scarcity of oxygen.
2. The fertilisers, pesticides, etc., which get washed into the water body from the agricultural fields also harm the aquatic organisms.
3. Many disease-causing organisms are also released in the domestic wastewater which acts as a source of many water-borne diseases like cholera.
4. The heated water released directly into the water bodies by some industries can cause the death of aquatic organisms which are not able to tolerate the sudden change in temperature.
5. The heavy metals dissolved in polluted water is also harmful to the living organisms.

Question 14.
During summer, if you go near the lake, you feel relief from the heat, why?
Answer:
We feel relief from the heat when we go near a lake during summer because:
1. The Sunrays heat the land near the lakes more quickly than the water of the lake. The hot air rises up to create a region of low pressure on the land. Evaporation of the water causes cooling of the air above the lake and this cool air flows from the lake towards the region of low pressure on the land. The cool air gives relief to us from the heat.

Question 15.
In the coastal area, wind current moves from the sea towards the land during the day; but during the night
Answer:
During the day, in the coastal regions, the air above the land gets heated faster and the warm air being lighter rises up thereby creating a region of low pressure. The air over the sea then moves towards the area of low pressure. The movement of air from one region to the other creates winds. At night, water cools down slower than the land, so the air above the water would be warmer than the air above land. This causes air over the land to move towards the region of low pressure over water.

Question 16.
Following are a few organisms
(a) lichen
(b) mosses
(c) mango tree
(d) cactus.
Which among the above can grow on stones; and also help in the formation of soil? Write the model of their action for making soil.
Answer:
Lichens and the mosses can grow on stones and help in the formation of soil. The chemical substances secreted by the living organisms like lichens and mosses degrade the rocks and convert them into fine particles of soil. They also cause crevices and cracks in the rocks which help in the colonisation of rocks by bigger plants. The roots of these plants widen the cracks and cause the breakdown of large rocks.

Question 17.
Soil formation is done by both abiotic and biotic factors. List the names of these factors by classifying them as abiotic and biotic?
Answer:
The abiotic factors involved in soil formation are: Sun, water, wind.
The biotic factors involved in soil formation are: lichens, mosses and trees, microorganisms, etc.

Question 18.
All the living organisms are basically made up of C, N, S, P, H and O. How do they enter the living forms? Discuss.
Answer:
Elements like C, N, S, P, H and O enter the living forms through the process of photosynthesis and on getting absorbed from soil by the plants and living organisms.

Question 19.
Why does the percentage of gases like oxygen, nitrogen and carbon dioxide remain almost the same in the atmosphere?
Answer:
The biotic and the abiotic components of the biosphere interact with each other and continuously cycle the elements like nitrogen, oxygen and carbon through their respective cycles called as biogeochemical cycles. This helps to maintain the percentage of these gases almost constant in the atmosphere.

Question 20.
Why does the moon have very cold and very hot temperature variations e.g., from -190°C to 110°C even though it is at the same distance from the Sun as the Earth is?
Answer:
The moon does not have an atmosphere due to which very cold and very hot temperature variations from -190°C to 110°C occur on its surface. The atmosphere helps in maintaining the temperature as it prevents the excessive rise in temperature during daytime and prevents excessive cooling during the night by trapping heat energy of the Sun.

Question 21.
Why do people love to fly kites near the seashore?
Answer:
The wind blows from the sea towards the land during the daytime which helps in flying the kite higher. Also, the wind coming from the sea is cooler which makes the kite flyers feel comfortable. So, people love to fly kites near the seashore.

Question 22.
Why does Mathura refinery pose problems to the Taj Mahal?
Answer:
The harmful gases like sulphur dioxide released from the Mathura oil refinery get mixed with the water vapour present in the air and form acids like sulphuric acid. This acid falls along with the rains in the form of acid rain. The acid present in the acid rain is causing the corrosion of the marble used in the Taj Mahal. The colour (yellowing of marble was caused), as well as the quality of the marble, was getting degraded due to the acid rains. Thus, Mathura refinery posed a problem to the Taj Mahal.

Question 23.
Why do lichens not occur in Delhi whereas they commonly grow in Manali or Darjeeling?
Answer:
Lichens are bio-indicators as they help in assessing the level of pollution in the environment. They are highly sensitive to the gaseous pollutants like sulphur dioxide released from the vehicles and other sources. Delhi has a large number of vehicles and the industries which emit these gases compared to Manali or Darjeeling. So, lichens are unable to grow in Delhi.

Question 24.
Why does water need conservation even though large oceans surround the landmasses?
Answer:
The freshwater resources like river, ponds, lake, etc., are not evenly distributed on the Earth. Most part of the Earth is covered by the oceans and seas which have marine water (salty water) which is not fit for human consumption. So, there is a need to conserve the freshwater resources and the water available to us.

Question 25.
There is a mass mortality of fishes in a pond. What may be the reasons?
Answer:
The mass mortality of fishes in a pond can be the result of one or more of the following factors:

1. Thermal pollution due to the heated water directly released into the water body which harms the organisms that are not able to withstand the sudden change in temperature.
2. The release of heavy metals, poisonous substances like mercury or other harmful chemicals into the waterbody.
3. Blockage of the gills of the fishes by the pollutants or the suspended particles released into the waterbody.
4. Harmful pesticides or chemicals washed into the waterbody from the agricultural fields.
5. Toxic wastes released into the water by the industries.

Question 26.
Lichens are called pioneer colonisers of bare rock. How can they help in the formation of soil?
Answer:
The chemicals released by the lichen cause the gradual weathering of the large particles of rock into smaller fine particles of soil. Thus, they help in the formation of soil.

Question 27.
“Soil is formed by water.” If you agree to this statement then give reasons.
Answer:
Yes, water helps in the formation of soil as it helps in the breakdown of large rocks into fine particles of soil by the following two ways:

1. The water enters the cracks and crevices in the rocks, gets unevenly heated by the Sun and when it expands during freezing in the winter season, the rocks break down in smaller pieces.
2. Also, the fast running water over the surface of the rocks causes weathering of rocks to form soil.

Question 28.
Fertile soil has lots of humus. Why?
Answer:
Fertile soil has a lot of hummus because

1. Soil particles are bound in the form of crumbs by the humus which helps the soil in aeration as well as hydration.
2. Humus contains many kinds of minerals dissolved in it.
3. Growth of the plants is enhanced by the various chemicals present in humus.
4. Soil becomes porous due to humus which facilitates the penetration of roots into the soil.

Question 29.
Why is step farming common in hills?
Answer:
Step farming is practised in hilly regions which reduce the flow of water or the rainwater and gives it more time to percolate into the soil.

Question 30.
Why are root nodules useful for the plants?
Answer:
The plants called legumes to harbour the nitrogen-fixing bacteria like Rhizobium in their roots in the form of root nodules. These bacteria convert the atmospheric nitrogen into nitrites or nitrates which can be assimilated by plants.

Natural Resources Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
1. Make a neat and labelled sketch of the nitrogen cycle in nature.
2. Describe in brief the role of nitrogen-fixing bacteria and lightning in fixing nitrogen.
Answer:
1. The nitrogen cycle is:

2. The atmospheric nitrogen can be fixed in the following ways:
By nitrogen-fixing bacteria: The nitrogen-fixing bacteria live either in a symbiotic association like the Rhizobium in the root nodules of the legumes or live freely like Azotobacter. The bacteria fix the atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates which are absorbed by the plants in soluble form and assimilated in their body.

By lightning: Lightning has enormous energy which breaks nitrogen molecules and enables their atoms to combine with oxygen present in the air to form nitrogen oxides. These oxides dissolve in rain, form nitrates and are carried to the Earth with the rains.

Question 2.
Explain the role of the atmosphere as a blanket. List the factors deciding the rainfall patterns.
Answer:
The atmosphere is a blanket of air around the Earth which acts as a buffer to prevent the excessive or
sudden rise of temperature during the day and also prevents excessive cooling of the Earth during the night. It slows down the escape of heat into the outer space during the night.

Thus, the atmosphere helps to keep the average temperature of the Earth fairly steady during the day and also during the whole year. The prevailing wind patterns decide the rainfall patterns. The South-West monsoon and the North-East monsoon cause rains in large parts of India.

Question 3.
1. Many municipal corporations are trying water harvesting to improve the availability of water. Give reason.
2. Rainwater sometimes contains traces of acid. Why? Explain in brief.
Answer:
1. The Municipal Corporations are trying water harvesting in order to recharge the underground water reservoirs and the underground water level. This ensures the availability of water during the scarcity of rainfall or water. Rainwater harvesting involves the collection of water from surfaces on which rain falls and stores this water for later use. Generally, the water is collected from the roofs of buildings and stored in rainwater tanks.

2. Combustion of fossil fuels releases oxides of nitrogen (NO₂) and sulphur (SO₂) which dissolve in rainwater to form their respective acids. These acids then fall along with rains and such rain is called acid rain. Due to the presence of such acids, the rainwater sometimes contains traces of acids.

Question 4.
How does the addition of undesirable substances and change in temperature affect water life?
Answer:
Addition of undesirable substances affects the water life in the following ways:

1. Addition of harmful chemicals or metals like mercury, lead, etc., cause poisoning of water bodies and harm aquatic organisms.
2. The pathogens released into the water bodies are the cause of many human diseases like cholera, typhoid, etc.
3. Aquatic organisms are harmed and even killed due to deficiency of oxygen which occurs when the addition of sewage, fertilisers and nutrients in the water body resulting in excessive growth of algae. The algae drain out the oxygen from the water body.

The change in temperature can also affect water life because:

1. The variation in temperature affects the breeding patterns of aquatic animals.
2. The hatching of the eggs is adversely affected due to the changes in the temperature of the water.

Question 5.
What are the various factors or the processes that make soil?
Answer:
Soil is formed due to various physical, chemical and biological processes which result in the breakdown of rocks into fine particles of soil over millions of years. The formation of soil occurs due to factors and processes like Sun, water, wind, living organisms and lichens.

1. Sun: Rocks expand when they get heated by the Sun during the day. During the night, the rocks cool down and contract. This result in the formation of cracks in the rocks as the rate of expansion and contraction are different. The rocks split and break into smaller pieces.

2. Water: Water acts in two ways to break the large rocks into small pieces. Water enters the cracks and crevices in the rocks, gets unevenly heated by the Sun and when it expands during freezing in the winter season, the rocks break down into smaller pieces. Also, the fast running water over the surface of the rocks causes weathering of rocks to form soil.

3. Wind: The winds carry small rocks and sand from one place to another and these strong winds rub against the large rocks to erode them.

4. Living organisms (Lichens): The chemical substances secreted by the living organisms like lichens degrade the rocks and convert them into fine particles of soil.

Question 6.
How do fossil fuels cause air pollution?
Answer:
Fossil fuels like coal and petroleum produce oxides of nitrogen and sulphur on combustion. These gases react with water vapour present in the air to form acids which fall down along with rains on the Earth. Acid rain is very harmful to the plants, animals and the microorganisms present in the soil. Also, the suspended particulate matter released on the burning of fossil fuels cause respiratory problems to human beings and reduces visibility when it forms smog.

Question 7.
What are the causes of water pollution? Discuss how you can contribute in reducing water pollution. Ans. Addition of undesirable and harmful substances in water or the removal of useful substances from water
is referred to as water pollution. It is caused due to:

1. Addition of fertilisers and pesticides washed away from the agricultural field into the nearby water bodies.
2. Disposal of domestic sewage into the waterbody like rivers.
3. The death of many aquatic organisms occurs when hot water from the industries is directly released into the water body. This also reduces the amount of dissolved oxygen in the waterbody.
4.  Washing of the clothes in the waterbody using detergents.
5. Many harmful radioactive substances released from the industries dumped into the waterbody.

Water pollution can be reduced by the following measures:

1. The sewer lines should not be directly connected to the waterbody.
2. Disposal of garbage and wastes into the waterbody should not be allowed.
3. Toxic compounds released from the industries should not be dumped in the water bodies.
4. Detergents increase the nutrient content of water which is harmful to aquatic organisms as the amount of dissolved oxygen gets reduced in water due to excessive algal growth. Therefore water containing detergents should not be allowed to run off into water bodies.
5. Trees should be planted near the banks of the river to prevent soil erosion which leads to siltation in the water bodies.

Question 8.
A motor car, with its glass totally closed, is parked directly under the Sun. The inside temperature of the car rises very high. Explain why.
Answer:
Glass has a property due to which it allows the radiations of the Sun to pass through and enter the car. Infrared radiations also enter the car along with other radiations. Glass is transparent to infrared. radiation from the Sun having smaller wavelength but opaque to longer wavelength radiations that are emitted by the interior of the car.

The infrared radiations get re-radiated by upholstery and other inner parts of the car but cannot pass out of the glass like the other radiations. So, the heat trapped inside raises the temperature inside the car.

Question 9.
Justify “Dust is a pollutant”.
Answer:
Dust can be considered as a pollutant because:

1. Suspended particles are present in the dust which can enter the respiratory systems of the organisms and can cause asthma, bronchitis, allergies or other respiratory diseases.
2. When dust falls on the leaf surface, it can cause blocking of the stomata which adversely affects the process of photosynthesis and plant growth.
3. Many heavy metals and toxic compounds are present in the dust which can harm living organisms.
4. Dust can be harmful to the eyes of the organism as irritation and reddening of eyes can be caused due to it.

Question 10.
Explain the role of the Sun in the formation of soil.
Answer:
The Sun helps in soil formation in the following ways:
Rocks expand when they get heated by the Sun during the day. During the night, the rocks cool down and contract. This result in the formation of cracks in the rocks as the rate of expansion and contraction are different. The rocks split and break into smaller pieces.

Question 11.
Carbon dioxide is necessary for plants. Why do we consider it as a pollutant?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is necessary for the plants, as it is utilised during the process of photosynthesis. It acts as a raw material for photosynthesis and helps in maintaining the temperature on the Earth. If the concentration of carbon dioxide increases in the atmosphere above a certain level, it traps more heat of the Sun because it is a greenhouse gas.

This ultimately results in an increase in the average temperature on Earth and causes global warming. Due to higher temperatures, the polar ice caps, glaciers and the snow of mountains melt faster. This can lead to floods and an increase in seawater level. So, carbon dioxide is considered a pollutant.

Natural Resources Class 9 Extra Questions HOTS

Question 1.
What is the fate of the glucose molecules formed in photosynthesis?
Answer:
The glucose molecules formed during photosynthesis are either stored in the form of starch in the green plants or get transported in the form of sucrose to the various parts of the plant. Glucose is also utilised by the plants during respiration to obtain energy.

Question 2.
What is the likely outcome if all the oxygen in the environment gets converted into ozone?
Answer:
If all the oxygen in the environment gets converted into ozone it will be harmful to the living organisms as ozone adversely affects the living organisms and would eventually kill them.

Question 3.
We are lucky that ozone is not stable near the Earth’s surface. Why?
Answer:
The ozone present in the lower atmosphere is called ‘bad ozone’ as it adversely affects the living organisms, corrodes metals, acts as a greenhouse gas and creates respiratory problems in animals. So, we are lucky that ozone is not stable near the Earth’s surface as it gets converted into oxygen or the various oxides.

Question 4.
1. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are usually found only in the root nodules of leguminous plants. Why?
2. Name a non-leguminous plant which has nitrogen-fixing bacteria in root nodules and the microbe present in it.
Answer:
1. The nitrogen-fixing bacteria are usually found only in the leguminous plants as the roots of the leguminous plants provide shelter and the specific conditions required for such bacteria. The bacteria like Rhizobium live in symbiotic association with the roots of leguminous plants.

2.  Alnus is a non-leguminous plant which has a nitrogen-fixing bacteria called Frankia in its root nodules.

Question 5.
What will be the consequences if all the decomposers are removed from the Earth?
Answer:
Decomposers play a vital role in the recycling of various nutrients. The recycling of the nutrients would be hindered in the absence of decomposers. They also help in the decomposition of dead plants, animals and organic matter. In the absence of decomposers, the Earth would get covered by the remains of such organisms and it would become difficult for the organisms to survive on Earth.

Question 6.
Excessive use of pesticides in the fields can adversely affect the fishes living in the nearby ponds. How?
Answer:

• The pesticides used in the fields can get washed into the nearby water bodies by the rains and flowing water.
• These pesticides cause a phenomenon called biological magnification which adversely affects the fishes of the pond.

Question 7.
Excess use of fertilisers in the field is not advisable to the farmers. Give reasons.
Answer:
Excess use of fertilisers increases the food production for a short term but in the long term, it is not advisable to the farmers because
1. Excess use of fertilisers increases the salinity of the soil and reduces its fertility.
2. The fertilisers can get washed away into the nearby ponds where they cause excessive growth of algae due to nutrient enrichment. This depletes the dissolved oxygen from the water body and harms the other aquatic organisms.

Question 8.
The public transport like buses and the autos have shifted to CNG instead of petrol or diesel in Delhi. Why?
Answer:
The public transport like the buses and the autos have shifted to CNG instead of petrol or diesel in Delhi because the gases released from these vehicles cause a lot of pollution and harms the environment in following ways:

• The oxides of nitrogen and sulphur released from the vehicles result in acid rains which is harmful to the living organisms.
• The harmful gases from the exhaust result in several problems like asthma, respiratory disorders, cancer, etc.

Question 9.
Discharge of sewage into the water body decreases the amount of oxygen dissolved in water. How?
Answer:
The sewage water consists of a lot of organic matter which is decomposed by the microorganisms present in the water body. The microorganisms multiply at a rapid rate and consume a lot of dissolved oxygen in order to decompose the organic matter. This reduces the amount of dissolved oxygen in the water.

Question 10.
What will be the result if all the plants get eliminated from the Earth?
Answer:
Plants perform photosynthesis and release oxygen during the process which is used by the other organisms for survival. If all the plants become extinct, eventually all the oxygen requiring living organisms including us will get eliminated from the Earth.

Natural Resources Class 9 Extra Questions Value Based (VBQs)

Question 1.
Vijay is the son of a rich businessman. He lives in a very big house. He always insists and reminds the family members to switch off lights, fans, TVs, etc., of rooms when there is no one in the room, so that use of electricity is minimum. He realises that power generation on a large scale in thermal power plants produces a lot of carbon dioxide and fly ash.
Read the given passage and answer the following questions:

1. How is carbon dioxide responsible for global warming?
2. What measures will you take to reduce levels of carbon dioxide?
3. What values are displayed by Vijay in his action and thoughts?

Answer:
1. Carbon dioxide has a property due to which it allows rays of Sun to pass through and reach the surface of the Earth but stops the rays from being re-radiated from the surface of Earth. The heat of the Sun rays gets trapped by carbon dioxide in this way and causes global warming.
2. The levels of carbon dioxide can be reduced in the atmosphere by increasing the efficiency of engines of vehicles, large scale afforestation, reducing the emission of carbon dioxide from the industries and using alternative sources of energy in place of fossil fuels.
3. The values shown by Vijay are a concern for the environment, intelligence, awareness and scientific attitude.

Question 2.
Due to the establishment of a petroleum refinery near the city, many people started suffering from respiratory problems and the marble used in their houses turned yellow. A survey carried out by Arpit and his colleagues attributed this to the gases released from the refinery. They consulted the Government agencies and suggested to shift the refinery away from the city.
Based on the above, answer the following questions:

1. What can be the reason behind the yellowing of marble?
2. What are the various harmful effects of air pollution?
3. What values are depicted by the efforts of Arpit and his colleagues?

Answer:

1. The oxides of nitrogen and sulphur released from the petroleum refinery dissolve in rainwater to form acids and fall on the Earth. When this acid rain falls on marble it causes yellowing of the marble.
2. The other harmful effects of air pollution are:
   (a) Formation of smog which harms living organisms.
   (b) Respiratory problems, bronchitis, asthma, cancer, etc.
3. The values depicted by Arpit and his colleagues are scientific aptitude, care for the environment and a responsible citizen.

Question 3.
Amrita saw that the farmers of her village use excessive fertilisers and pesticides on their crop. She searched the internet for the effect of such action on the environment. She came to know that their excessive use is harmful to the environment. She talked to the Head of the village and the farmers were motivated to use fertilisers and pesticides judiciously. They were also motivated to practice organic farming for better crop yield.
Based on the above, answer the following questions:
1. How is excessive use of fertilisers and pesticides harmful to the environment?
2. What is organic farming?
3. What values are shown by Amrita in solving the problem?
Answer:
1. The fertilisers and the pesticides get washed away into the nearby water bodies with rainwater or the flowing water.
Excess use of fertilisers causes uncontrolled growth of algae in water bodies which depletes the dissolved oxygen in the water and causes death other aquatic organisms. Excess use of pesticides causes biological magnification which leads to death of many fishes in the water bodies.
2. Organic farming is a method of crop production in which no chemical pesticides or fertilisers are used during the cultivation of crops.
3. The values shown by Amrita are curiosity, inquisitive nature, care for the environment and scientific attitude.

Question 4.
Zeenat and her sister were very happy when their father brought home a new refrigerator. She saw a sticker pasted on the refrigerator which read ‘CFC free’. She asked her father about it. Her father told her that the compounds called CFC are the cause of the ozone hole and so they are not used in the refrigerators to save our environment.
Read the above passage and answer the following:

1.  What is ozone and why is it important?
2. What are CFCs and why are they harmful?
3. What values are shown by Zeenat and her father?

Answer:

1. Ozone is a triatomic molecule of oxygen with formula 03. It traps the harmful rays of the Sun and protects the living organisms.
2. The CFCs are the carbon compounds having both fluorine and chlorine which are very stable and not degraded by any biological process. They persist in the atmosphere and degrade the ozone layer.
3. The quality shown by Zeenat is a curious nature. Her father shows the values of concern for the environment, patience and imparting right knowledge to children.

Question 5.
A farmer came for a consultation with Rajni who worked as ‘Kisan Mitra’ in the village. He told her that he was growing leguminous crop in the field, so what will by the right amount of nitrogenous fertilisers required in his field? Rajni told him that since he was growing leguminous crops in the field, he does not require adding more nitrogenous fertilisers in the field. She further suggested him to grow the leguminous crop alternately with maize or wheat.
Based on the above, answer the following questions:
1. Why did Rajni advise the farmer not to add more nitrogenous fertilisers in his field?
2. Why did she suggest him to grow leguminous crop alternately with maize or wheat?
3. What values are shown by Rajni?
Answer:
1. Rajni advised the farmer not to add more nitrogenous fertilisers as the leguminous plants which the farmer had sown in the field have root nodules which contain nitrogen-fixing bacteria. These nitrogen-fixing bacteria fix the atmospheric nitrogen and give it to the plant, so no additional nitrogen-containing fertilisers are required in the field.

2. Rajni advised the farmer to grow leguminous crop alternately with maize or wheat as the nutrients are taken up by the wheat or maize from the soil will be restored by the nitrogen-fixing bacteria present in the root nodules of the leguminous crop. In this way, the fertility of the soil will be restored and enriched again by the leguminous crop. The process is called crop rotation.

3. The values shown by Rajni are patience, knowledge, proper decision making, scientific aptitude, concern for the environment

In this page, we are providing The Fundamental Unit of Life Class 9 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 5 pdf download. NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life with Answers will help to score more marks in your CBSE Board Exams. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-science/

Class 9 Science Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers The Fundamental Unit of Life

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life with Answers Solutions

The Fundamental Unit of Life Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

The Fundamental Unit Of Life Class 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What process is involved in the movement of O₂ in and out of the cell?
Answer:
Diffusion.

Fundamental Unit Of Life Class 9 Extra Questions Question 2.
Which process is involved in the movement of water from outside into the cell?
Answer:
Osmosis.

Extra Questions For Class 9 Science Chapter 5 With Answers Question 3.
Mention the process by which CO₂ and water move in and out of the cell.
Answer:
Movement of CO₂ occurs by diffusion whereas that of water occurs by osmosis.

Class 9 Science Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
Who discovered cells in living organisms? Give an example of a unicellular organism.
Answer:
A.V. Leeuwenhoek observed the.cells in living organisms. Example of a unicellular organism is Amoeba, Paramoecium, etc.

Class 9 Fundamental Unit Of Life Extra Questions Question 5.
Give two examples of prokaryotic organisms.
Answer:
All the bacteria and cyanobacteria are prokaryotic. Example: Nostoc, Oscillatoria, etc.

Fundamental Unit Of Life Extra Questions Question 6.
Name the plastid which stores starch, oils and protein granules.
Answer:
Leucoplast

The Fundamental Unit Of Life Extra Questions Question 7.
List the constituents of plasma membrane.
Answer:
The plasma membrane is composed of lipids and proteins.

Class 9 Science Ch 5 Extra Questions Question 8.
Where do lipids and proteins constituting the cell membrane get synthesised?
Answer:
The lipids are synthesised in smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) and the proteins are synthesised in the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).

Chapter 5 Science Class 9 Extra Questions Question 9.
Name two unicellular organisms.
Answer:
Amoeba and Paramoecium are unicellular organisms.

Ch 5 Science Class 9 Extra Questions Question 10.
Name the process by which unicellular freshwater organisms and most plant cells tend to . gain water.
Answer:
Endosmosis.

The Fundamental Unit of Life Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 1

The Fundamental Unit Of Life Class 9 Extra Questions And Answers Ncert Question 1.
Why is plasma membrane called selectively permeable membrane?
Answer:
Plasma membrane is called selectively permeable because it prevents the entry of some substances and allows the entry and exit of only some substances.

Class 9 Chapter 5 Science Extra Questions Question 2.
Define osmosis.
Answer:
The spontaneous movement of water molecules from a region of its high concentration to the region of its low concentration through a selectively permeable membrane is called osmosis.

Ncert Class 9 Science Chapter 5 Extra Questions Pdf Question 3.
What is membrane biogenesis?
Answer:
Some proteins and lipids made by smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) help in building the cell membrane of the cell and this process of making of plasma membrane is known as membrane biogenesis.

Ncert Class 9 Science Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 4.
Why are mitochondria are referred to as strange organelles?
Answer:
Mitochondria are referred to as strange organelles as they have their own DNA and ribosomes so and can make some of their own proteins.

Class 9 Ch 5 Science Extra Questions Question 5.
What is the function of Golgi body?
Answer:
The functions of Golgi body are: storage, modification and packaging of products in vesicles and the formation of lysosomes.

Class 9 Science Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 6.
(i) In what form do mitochondria release energy? Write its full form.
(ii) The inner membrane of mitochondria is deeply folded. What is the advantage of these folds?
Answer:
(i) The energy is released by mitochondria in form of ATP. Full form of ATP is adenosine triphosphate.

(ii) The folds present on the inner membrane of mitochondria help to provide a large surface area for the ATP generation reactions.

Class 9 The Fundamental Unit Of Life Extra Questions Question 7.
Give three differences between plasma membrane and the cell wall.
Answer:
Plasma Membrane:

• It is the outermost covering of the cell which separates the contents of the cell from its external environment.
• It is mainly composed of lipids and proteins.
• It is living, thin and elastic.

Cell Wall:

• It is a rigid outer covering which lies outside the plasma membrane.
• It is made of cellulose which provides structural strength to plants.
• It is non-living and rigid.

Extra Questions Of Fundamental Unit Of Life Question 8.
Differentiate between nucleus and nucleoid.
Answer:
Nucleus:

• It has a well defined nuclear membrane around it.
• It has chromatin network and contains more than one chromosome.

Nucleoid:

• It lacks a nuclear membrane.
• It has a single chromosome only.

Extra Questions For Class 9 Science Chapter 5 Question 9.
Write two statements to show that lysosomes are called as suicidal bags of the cell.
Answer:
Lysosomes are called as the suicidal bags of the cell as:

1. They contain hydrolytic enzymes which can breakdown the organic material.
2. If the cell gets damaged during disturbance in cellular metabolism, the lysosomes may burst and its enzymes digest their own cell.

Question 10.
Describe the structure of mitochondria with special reference to its membrane covering.
Answer:
Mitochondrion is a double-membrane structure whose outer membrane is very porous while the inner membrane is deeply folded to form cristae. Cristae are folds which create a large surface area for ATP- generating chemical reactions.

The Fundamental Unit of Life Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 2

Question 1.
Describe an activity to demonstrate endosmosis and exosmosis. Draw a diagram also.
Answer:
Put dried raisins or apricots in plain water and leave them for some time. Then place them into a concentrated solution of sugar or salt. You will observe the following:

(a) Each of the raisins or apricots gains water and swells when placed in water.
Reason: The raisins or apricots swell up as water moves inside them from outside because the water concentration is less inside the cell as compared to the solution outside. Hence, water moves inside the cell by endosmosis.

(b) However, when placed in the concentrated solution they lose water, and consequently shrink.
Reason: The raisins or apricots shrink as water moves outside from them because the water concentration is more inside the cell as compared to the solution outside. Hence, water moves out of the cell by exosmosis.

Question 2.
Differentiate between diffusion and osmosis. Write any two examples where a living organism uses osmosis to absorb water.
Answer:
Diffusion – The movement of a substance from a region of its high concentration to the region of its low concentration is called diffusion.

Osmosis – The spontaneous movement of water molecules from a region of its high concentration to the region of its low concentration through a selectively permeable membrane is called osmosis.

Examples where a living organism uses osmosis to absorb water are:

• Roots of plants absorb water by osmosis.
• Unicellular organisms like Amoeba absorb water by osmosis.

Question 3.
Differentiate between a prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
Answer:
Prokaryotic cell:

• Organisms whose cells lack a well defined nuclear membrane.
• They lack membrane bound cell organelles.
• Size is generally small (1-10 pm).
• Have a single chromosome.

Eukaryotic cell:

• Organisms with cells having a well defined nuclear membrane.
• They have membrane bound cell organelles.
• Size is generally large (5-100 pm).
• Have more than one chromosome.

Question 4.
Which organisms are called as the (i) powerhouse of the cell (ii) suicide bags of the cell (iii) kitchen of the cell?
Answer:

• Mitochondria
• Lysosomes
• Chloroplasts

Question 5.
(a) What would happen to the life of the cell if there was no Golgi apparatus?
(b) Which cell organelle detoxifies poisons and drugs in the liver of vertebrates?
Answer:
(a) If there was no golgi apparatus, then the following processes carried out by it would get affected:

• The storage, modification and packaging of products in vesicles.
• The packaging and dispatch of the material synthesised near the ER to various targets inside and outside the cell.
• The formation of lysosomes.
• The formation of cell plate during cell division.

So, in the absence of the Golgi apparatus, most of the functions of the cell would get disrupted.

(b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum helps to detoxify poisons and drugs in the liver of vertebrates.

Question 6.
What are the functions of the Golgi apparatus?
Answer:
The Golgi apparatus is an important cell organelle as it performs several functions in the cell.

1. Its functions include the storage, modification and packaging of products in vesicles.
2. Golgi apparatus packages and dispatches the material synthesised near the ER to various targets inside and outside the cell.
3. It is also involved in the formation of lysosomes.

Question 7.
What types of enzymes are present in the lysosomes? What is their function? Which cell organelle manufactures these enzymes?
Answer:
Lysosomes are membrane-bound sacs filled with hydrolytic and digestive enzymes. They help to keep the cell clean by digesting any foreign material as well as worn-out cell organelles. Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) manufactures these enzymes.

Question 8.
What are chromoplasts and leucoplasts? Give an example of chromoplast which has green pigment.
Answer:
The coloured plastids which have pigments of different colours are called chromoplasts. The colourless plastids which help to store starch, oils or protein granules are called leucoplasts. The green coloured plastid is called chloroplast and it contains a green coloured pigment called chlorophyll.

Question 9.
Write the functions of:
(i) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(ii) Nucleus of the cell
(iii) Ribosomes present in active cells.
Answer:
The functions are:
(i) Inner membrane of mitochondria are the site for the formation of ATP.

(ii) Nucleus of the cell are the control centre of the cell as it controls all the activities of the cell, plays a central role in cellular reproduction and contains DNA which helps to transfer the genetic information from parents to their offsprings.

(iii) Ribosomes present in active cells are the sites for protein synthesis.

Question 10.
What are the different types of endoplasmic reticulum? Write the functions of each.
Answer:
There are two types of endoplasmic reticulum – Rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum. The functions of these are:

Rough endoplasmic reticulum – It looks rough as it has particles called ribosomes attached to its surface. Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis.

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum:

• It helps in the manufacture of fat molecules, or lipids, important for cell function.
• Some proteins and lipids made by SER help in building the cell membrane and this process is known as membrane biogenesis.
• Helps in detoxifying many poisons and drugs in the liver cells of the group of vertebrates.

Question 11.
Draw a neat and labelled diagram of a typical prokaryotic cell.
Answer:

Question 12.
Why do plant cells possess large sized vacuole?
Answer:
Plant cells possess large sized vacuoles as the vacuoles help to store many important substances. They contain cell sap that gives turgidity and rigidity to the plant cell.

Question 13.
Describe the structural features of cell membrane and cell wall. Why is cell membrane called selectively permeable membrane?
Answer:
Cell wall:

• It is a rigid outer covering which lies outside the plasma membrane.
• It is made of cellulose which provides structural strength to plants.
• The shrinkage or contraction of the contents of the cell away from the cell wall when a living plant cell loses water through osmosis is known as plasmolysis.

Cell membrane:

• It is the outermost covering of the cell.
• It separates the contents of the cell from its external environment.
• It is mainly composed of lipids and proteins.

The cell membrane is called selectively permeable as it permits the entry and exit of only some materials in and out of the cell. It prevents the movement of the contents of the cell out of the cell.

Question 14.
Explain in detail what do you know about the structure of the nucleus.
Answer:
The nucleus was discovered by Robert Brown in 1831. The structure and the features of nucleus are:

• It is a dark coloured, spherical or oval, dot-like structure near the centre of each cell.
• It is the control centre of the cell as it controls all the activities of the cell.
• It has a double layered covering called nuclear membrane.
• The nuclear membrane has pores which allow the transfer of materials from inside the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
• The nucleus plays a central role in cellular reproduction (process by which a single cell divides and forms two new cells).
• Nucleus along with the environment directs the chemical activities of the cell to determine the way the cell will develop and the form it will exhibit at maturity.
• Nuclear region of the cell may be poorly defined due to the absence of a nuclear membrane in some organisms like bacteria. Such an undefined nuclear region containing only nucleic acids is called a nucleoid.

Question 15.
Differentiate between rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum. How is endoplasmic reticulum important for membrane biogenesis?
Answer:
The differences between smooth endoplasmic reticulum and the rough endoplasmic reticulum are:

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER):

• SER looks smooth as it does not have ribosomal particles on the surface.
• SER helps in the manufacture of lipids and fat molecules and also in detoxifying many poisons and drugs in the liver cells of the group of vertebrates.

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER):

• RER appears rough as it has particles of ribosomes on the surface.
• Ribosomes present on RER are the sites of protein synthesis.

Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis in all active cells. Endoplasmic reticulum helps in transporting these proteins to various places. Some proteins and lipids made by SER help in building the cell membrane, this process is known as membrane biogenesis.

Question 16.
Describe the phenomenon of membrane biogenesis. Give one function of ER.
Answer:
Some proteins and lipids made by SER help in building the cell membrane and this process is known as membrane biogenesis.

ER serves as channels for the transport of materials (especially proteins) between various regions of the cytoplasm or between the cytoplasm and the nucleus. It also functions as a cytoplasmic framework providing a surface for some of the biochemical activities of the cell.

Question 17.
(i) Why are lysosomes known as ‘scavengers of the cell’?
(ii) Lysosomes are self-destructive. (True/False). Give reason.
Answer:
(i) The lysosomes are waste disposal system of the cell as they remove the debris and help to keep the cell clean by digesting any foreign material as well as worn-out cell organelles. Thus, they are known as the ‘scavengers of the cell’.

(ii) It is true that the lysosomes are self-destructive. They contain digestive enzymes. If the cell gets damaged during disturbance in cellular metabolism, the lysosomes may burst and its enzymes digest their own cell.

Question 18.
Name the organelle of the cell, which has membrane bound sac filled with powerful digestive enzymes. Write any four common functions it performs inside the cell.
Answer:
Lysosome is a membrane bound sac filled with powerful digestive enzymes.

The functions of lysosomes are:

• They are waste disposal system of the cell as they help to keep the cell clean by digesting any foreign material as well as worn-out cell organelles.
• They have digestive enzymes which are capable of breaking down all organic materials.
• If any disturbance occurs in the cellular metabolism or the cell gets damaged, the lysosomes burst open and its digestive enzymes digest all the contents of the cell. So, they are also called as the ‘suicide bags’ of the cell.
• During starvation they digest the food contents of the cell and provide energy to the cell.

Question 19.
State reasons for the following:
(i) Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell.
(ii) Plastids are able to make their own protein.
(iii) Plant cell shrinks when kept in hypertonic solution.
Answer:
(i) Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell as they are the site of storage of ATP which helps to provide energy for all the activities of the cell.

(ii) Plastids are able to make their own protein as they have their own DNA and ribosomes.

(iii) Hypertonic solution has a lower concentration of water than the cell. Due to this, the water moves out of the plant cell by exosmosis and results in shrinkage of the plant cell.

Question 20.
List the specific functions of the following:
(i) Endoplasmic reticulum
(ii) Golgi apparatus
(iii) Lysosomes
(iv) Plastids
(v) Mitochondria
(vi) Vacuoles.
Answer:
The specific functions are:
(i) Endoplasmic reticulum: Site of protein synthesis.

(ii) Golgi apparatus: Storage, modification and packaging of products in vesicles.

(iii) Lysosomes: Waste disposal system of the cell as they help to keep the cell clean by digesting any foreign material as well as worn-out cell organelles.

(iv) Plastids: Green coloured plastids are the site of photosynthesis.

(v) Mitochondria: They are called the powerhouse of the cell as they store energy required for the activities of the cell in the form of ATP.

(vi) Vacuoles: Provide turgidity and rigidity to the cell in plant cells. They also help in digestion of food and expulsion of excess water and waste from the cell in unicellular organisms like Amoeba.

Question 21.
Which types of plastids stores starch, oil and proteins?
Answer:
The leucoplasts help to store starch, oil and proteins in the amyloplasts, elaioplasts and aleuroplasts respectively.

Question 22.
How many membranes are present in mitochondria? Give the characteristic features of these membranes. What is the advantage of such features?
Answer:
Mitochondrion is a double-membrane structure whose outer membrane is very porous while the inner membrane is deeply folded to form cristae. The porous membrane helps in getting oxygen and food. Cristae present on the inner membrane are the folds which create a large surface area for ATP- generating chemical reactions.

Question 23.
Why are lysosomes known as ‘suicide-bags’ of a cell?
Answer:
Lysosomes are also known as the ‘suicide bags’ of a cell because if the cell gets damaged during disturbance in cellular metabolism, the lysosomes may burst and its enzymes digest their own cell.

Question 24.
Do you agree that “A cell is a building unit of an organism”. If yes, explain why?
Answer:
Yes, a cell is the building unit or the fundamental unit of an organism as the cells get organised to form tissues which in turn get organised into organs and further into organ system which organise to form an organism. It can be represented as:
Cell → tissue → organ → organ system organism

Question 25.
Why does the skin of your finger shrink when you wash clothes for a long time?
Answer:
The skin of our finger shrinks when we wash clothes for a long time because soap solution is a hypertonic solution i.e., very concentrated solution, so water moves out of our finger cells by the process of osmosis (called as exosmosis).

Question 26.
Why is endocytosis found in animals only?
Answer:
The plant cells have a rigid structure due to the presence of cell wall around their cell membrane whereas in the animals the cell membrane does not have a cell wall. So, endocytosis can occur only in the animal cells.

Question 27
A person takes concentrated solution of salt, after sometime, he starts vomiting. What is the phenomenon responsible for such situation? Explain.
Answer:
A concentrated solution of salt is hypertonic solution and causes dehydration. Water moves out of the cells and exosmosis in the parts of stomach and intestine make the person feel uncomfortable. Excessive dehydration results in anti-peristalsis due to which person starts vomiting.

Question 28.
Name any cell organelle which is non membranous.
Answer:
Ribosomes are non membranous organelles.

Question 29.
We eat food composed of all the nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals and water. After digestion, these are absorbed in the form of glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, glycerol, etc. What mechanisms are involved in absorption of digested food and water?
Answer:
Absorption of the nutrients takes place by diffusion and that of water occurs by the process of osmosis.

Question 30.
If you are provided with some vegetables to cook. You generally add salt into the vegetables during cooking process. After adding salt, vegetables release water. What mechanism is responsible for this?
Answer:
Adding salt into vegetables creates a hypertonic medium around them which results in exosmosis. Exosmosis causes release of water form vegetables.

Question 31.
If cells of onion peel and RBC are separately kept in hypotonic solution, what among the following will take place? Explain the reason for your answer.
(a) Both the cells will swell.
(b) RBC will burst easily while cells of onion peel will resist the bursting to some extent.
(c) a and b both are correct.
(d) RBC and onion peel cells will behave similarly.
Answer:
(b) RBC will burst easily while cells of onion peel will resist the bursting to some extent. This happens because the cells of onion peel have cell wall which prevents them from bursting. The RBC, being animal cells are devoid of cell wall and burst easily in hypotonic solution.

Question 32.
Bacteria do not have chloroplast but some bacteria are photo-autotrophic in nature and perform photosynthesis. Which part of bacterial cell performs this?
Answer:
The photo-autotrophic bacteria have small vesicles associated with plasma membrane which help in the process of photosynthesis.

Question 33.
Match the following A and B

Answer:
(a) (iv)
(b) (v)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)
(e) (ii)

Question 34.
Write the name of different plant parts in which chromoplast, chloroplast and leucoplast are present. Chromoplasts are present in the flower and fruit.
Answer:
Chloroplasts are present in the leaves of the plant. Leucoplasts are present in the root of the plant.

Question 35.
Name the organelles which show the analogy written as under
(a) Transporting channels of the cell _______
(b) Powerhouse of the cell _______
(c) Packaging and dispatching unit of the cell _______
(d) Digestive bag of the cell _______
(e) Storage sacs of the cell _______
(f) Kitchen of the cell _______
(g) Control room of the cell _______
Answer:
(a) Transporting channels of the cell _______ Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Powerhouse of the cell _______ Mitochondria
(c) Packaging and dispatching unit of the cell _______ Golgi body
(d) Digestive bag of the cell _______ Lysosome
(e) Storage sacs of the cell _______ Vacuole
(f) Kitchen of the cell _______ Chloroplast
(g) Control room of the cell _______ Nucleus

Question 36.
How is a bacterial cell different from an onion peel cell?
Answer:
Bacterial cell is a prokaryote so, they are smaller in size, their nucleus does not have a well defined nuclear membrane, possess a single chromosome and the cell is devoid of any cell organelles. Onion peel cell is an eukaryotic cell which is comparatively bigger in size, nucleus has a well defined nuclear membrane, possess more than one chromosome and have well defined cell organelles.

Question 37.
How do substances like carbon dioxide (CO₂) and water (H₂O) move in and out of the cell?
Answer:
The movement of carbon dioxide occurs by the process of diffusion in and out of the cell whereas the movement of water in and out of the cell occurs by the process of osmosis.

Question 38.
How does Amoeba obtain its food?
Answer:
Amoeba takes in food with the help of finger like extensions called pseudopodia by the process called endocytosis. Pseudopodia help to engulf the food which gets enclosed in a food vacuole. The complex particles of the food get broken down into simpler substances inside the food vacuole and diffuse into the cytoplasm of Amoeba. The undigested food particles are removed from the cell by exocytosis.

Question 39.
Name the two organelles in a plant cell that contain their own genetic material and ribosomes.
Answer:
Mitochondria and plastids (e.g. chloroplasts) contain their own genetic material and ribosomes.

Question 40.
Why are lysosomes also known as “scavengers of the cells”?
Answer:
The lysosomes are waste disposal system of the cell as they remove the debris and help to keep the cell clean by digesting any foreign material as well as worn-out cell organelles.

Question 41.
Which cell organelle controls most of the activities of the cell?
Answer:
Nucleus is the control centre of the cell and controls most of the activities of the cell.

Question 42.
Which kind of plastid is more common in
(a) roots of the plant
(b) leaves of the plant
(c) flowers and fruits
Answer:
The plastid that is more common in
(a) roots of the plant is leucoplast.
(b) leaves of the plant is chloroplast.
(c) flowers and fruits is chromoplast.

Question 43.
Why do plant cells possess large sized vacuole?
Answer:
The plant cells possess large sized vacuoles as the vacuoles help to store many important substances. They contain cell sap that gives turgidity and rigidity to the plant cell.

Question 44.
How are chromatin, chromatid and chromosomes related to each other?
Answer:
The chromatin material forms chromatids, i.e., chromatids are made up of chromatin. The chromosomes are made up of thread like structures called as chromatids.

Question 45.
What are the consequences of the following conditions?
(a) A cell containing higher water concentration than the surrounding medium
(b) A cell having low water concentration than the surrounding medium.
(c) A cell having equal water concentration to its surrounding medium.
Answer:
The consequences of the following conditions are:
(a) A cell containing higher water concentration than the surrounding medium will undergo exosmosis.

(b) A cell having low water concentration than the surrounding medium will undergo endosmosis.

(c) A cell having equal water concentration to its surrounding medium will not be affected as there won’t be any net movement of water into or outside the cell.

The Fundamental Unit of Life Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Distinguish between hypotonic solution, isotonic solution and hypertonic solution.
Answer:
The differences between the three kinds of solutions are:

Question 2.
Describe the roles played by lysosomes. Why are they termed as suicidal bags? How do they perform their function?
Answer:
Roles played by lysosomes are:
(i) They are waste disposal system of the cell as they help to keep the cell clean by digesting any foreign material as well as worn-out cell organelles.

(ii) Lysosomes have powerful digestive enzymes capable of breaking down all organic materials. Lysosomes are also known as the ‘suicide bags’ of a cell because if the cell gets damaged during disturbance in cellular metabolism, the lysosomes may burst and its enzymes digest their own cell. They perform this function as they are membrane-bound sacs filled with hydrolytic and digestive enzymes made by rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).

Question 3.
(a) Name the organelle which provides turgidity and rigidity to the plant cell. Name any two substances which are present in it.
(b) How are they useful in unicellular organisms?
Answer:
(a) The organelle which provides turgidity and rigidity to the plant cell is the large central vacuole which is filled with cell sap. The substances present in it are amino acids, sugars, various organic acids and some proteins.

(b ) They are very useful for the unicellular organisms in the form of food vacuole and contractile vacuole which perform the following functions:

Food vacuole found in Amoeba contains the food items that the Amoeba has consumed.
Contractile vacuole found in some unicellular organisms help in expelling excess water and some wastes from the cell.

Question 4.
What will happen if:
(i) Ribosomes are removed from the cell?
(ii) Golgi apparatus is removed from the cell?
(iii) Plasma membrane ruptures?
Answer:
(i) If ribosomes are removed from the cell, protein synthesis will not take place, enzymes will not be formed and ultimately death of cell will occur.

(ii) If golgi apparatus is removed from the cell, storage, modification and the packaging of substances in vesicles will not occur and lysosomes will not be formed.

(iii) Plasma membrane is a selectively permeable membrane, so in its absence, the entry and exit of the substances will not be regulated, contents of the cell will leak out and the cell will die.

Question 5.
Draw a plant cell and label the parts which
(a) determines the function and development of the cell
(b) package materials coming, from the endoplasmic reticulum
(c) provides resistance to microbes to withstand hypotonic external media without bursting
(d) is site for many biochemical reactions necessary to sustain life
(e) is a fluid contained inside the nucleus
Answer:
(a) Nucleus
(b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Cell wall
(d) Cytoplasm
(e) Nucleoplasm

Question 6.
Illustrate only a plant cell as seen under electron microscope. How is it different from an animal cell?
Answer:

Plant Cell:

• Cell wall is present.
• Plastids are present.
• A large central vacuole is present.
• Centrioles are absent.

Animal Cell:

• Cell wall is absent.
• Plastids are absent.
• Vacuoles are either absent or very small.
• Centrioles are present.

Question 7.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of an animal cell.
Answer:

Question 8.
Draw a well labelled diagram of an eukaryotic nucleus. How is it different from a nucleoid?
Answer:

It is different from a nucleoid as it is a membrane bound organelle.

Question 9.
Differentiate between rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum. How is endoplasmic reticulum important for membrane biogenesis?
Answer:
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER):

• SER looks smooth as it does not have ribosomal particles on its surface.
• SER helps in the manufacture of lipids and fat molecules and also in detoxifying many poisons and drugs in the liver cells of the group of vertebrates.

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER):

• RER appears rough as it has particles of ribosome on its surface.
• Ribosomes present on RER are the sites of protein synthesis.

Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis in all active cells. Endoplasmic reticulum helps in transporting these proteins to various places. Some proteins and lipids made by SER help in building the cell membrane, this process is known as membrane biogenesis.

Question 10.
In brief state what happens when
(a) dry apricots are left for sometime in pure water and later transferred to sugar solution?
(b) a red blood cell is kept in concentrated saline solution?
(c) the plasma-membrane of a cell breaks down?
(d) Rhoeo leaves are boiled in water first and then a drop of sugar syrup is put on it?
(e) golgi apparatus is removed from the cell?
Answer:
(a) If dry apricots are left for sometime in pure water they swell up due to endosmosis and later when they are transferred to sugar solution exosmosis occurs and they shrink.

(b) If a red blood cell is kept in concentrated saline solution it will lose water and shrink.

(c) If the plasma-membrane of a cell breaks down, the cell will die.

(d) If Rhoeo leaves are boiled in water first and then a drop of sugar syrup is put on it, no plasmolysis occurs as the cells get killed on boiling.

(e) If the golgi apparatus is removed from the cell, all sorts of vesicle formation in the cell get stopped.

Question 11.
Draw a neat diagram of plant cell and label any three parts which differentiate it from animal cell.
Answer:
The plant cells have chloroplast, large central vacuole and the cell wall which are not present in animal cells.

The Fundamental Unit of Life Class 9 Extra Questions HOTS

Question 1.
Unicellular organisms like Amoeba and Paramoecium survive as a single cell. How?
Answer:
In Amoeba and Paramoecium all the activities like digestion, absorption, assimilation, etc., which are necessary for life are carried out by a single cell. This enables them to survive even as a single cell.

Question 2.
Explain how cell walls permit the cells of fungi to withstand very dilute external media without bursting.
Answer:
The fungal cells swell up in very dilute external media as they take in water by the process of endosmosis. The plasma membrane of the cell exerts pressure on the cell wall and the cell wall also exerts an equal pressure on the membrane which helps to prevent the cell from bursting.

Question 3.
Give the roles of the following:
(i) Lipids and proteins of plasma membrane
(ii) Cellulose in the cell wall
(iii) Flexible nature of the cell membrane
(iv) Hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes
(v) Ribosomes present on the RER
Answer:
The roles are:
(i) Lipids and proteins of plasma membrane: Provide flexibility to cell membrane and make it selectively permeable in nature.

(ii) Cellulose in the cell wall: Provides structural strength to the plants and prevents bursting of the cell when the cell swells in a hypotonic solution.

(iii) Flexible nature of the cell membrane: It helps organisms like Amoeba to engulf food by endocytosis.

(iv) Hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes: Helps in the process of cell digestion and act as ‘scavengers of cell’.

(v) Ribosomes present on the RER: Are the site of protein synthesis.

Question 4.
Which cell organelle will play a major role when a cell is damaged due to disturbance in cellular metabolism? How?
Answer:
Lysosomes will play a major role when a cell is damaged due to disturbance in cellular metabolism. The lysosomes burst open and its hydrolytic digestive enzymes digest their own cell contents. Thus, lysosomes are also called as the ‘suicidal bags’.

Question 5.
What will be the effect on the cell when:
(a) The cell is placed in a medium having lower water concentration.
(b) The cell is placed in a medium having higher water concentration.
(c) The cell is placed in a medium having water concentration which is equal to that inside the cell.
Answer:
The consequences of the following conditions are:
(a) The cell having low water concentration than the surrounding medium will undergo endosmosis.
(b) The cell containing higher water concentration than the surrounding medium will undergo exosmosis.
(c) The cell having equal water concentration to its surrounding medium will not be affected as there won’t be any net movement of water into or outside the cell.

The Fundamental Unit of Life Class 9 Extra Questions Value Based (VBQs)

Question 1.
Rajni was told by his teacher that cell is the structural and fundamental unit of life. She asked her teacher to give reasons to support her statement. She felt very happy when her teacher showed her the slide of onion peel with the help of a microscope. She was able to identify the various parts of the cells visible in the slide.
(i) Why is the cell called the structural and functional unit of life?
(ii) With the help of a suitable diagram show the cells observed in onion peel and label them.
(iii) What values are shown by Rajni?
Answer:
(i) The body of all living organisms is composed of one or more cells, so cell is called the structural unit of life. Also, the various life processes like digestion, respiration, excretion, etc., are performed by the cells, so the cell is called the functional unit of life.

(ii) The cells of onion peel are shown in the diagram below.

(iii) Values shown by Rajni are curiosity, scientific temper, knowledge and sincerity towards her work.