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Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 6 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Ma×imum Marks: 40

सामान्य निर्देश :

• निम्नलिखित निर्देशों को बहुत सावधानी से पढ़िए और उनका पालन कीजिए:
• इस प्रश्न पत्र में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं।
• इस प्रश्न पत्र में कुल सात प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। आपको सात प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं।
• प्रश्नों में आंतरिक विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं। निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए।

कार्यालयी हिंदी और रचनात्मक लेखन [20 अंक]

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित दिए गए तीन शीर्षको में से किसी एक शीर्षक का चयन कर लगभग 200 शब्दों में एक रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए: (5 × 1 = 5)
(क) नैतिकता का पतन : मानवता का पतन
उत्तरः
नैतिकता का पतन : मानवता का पतन:
नैतिकता और मानवता का अटूट संबंध है। मानवता को बनाने के लिए जो नीतियाँ होती हैं वही नैतिकता कहलाती हैं। अतः जो कार्य मानवता के विरुद्ध होगा वह कभी भी नैतिक नहीं हो सकता। अतः नैतिकता को ही मानवता की उपज कहा जा सकता है। आज धीरे-धीरे मानवता संकुचित होती जा रही है। वर्तमान में लोग स्वार्थी होते जा रहे हैं। उनका स्वार्थ इतना अधिक बढ़ता जा रहा है कि उसे सिद्ध करने के लिए वह अपने पारिवारिक और सामाजिक संबंधों से दूर होते जा रहे हैं। फलस्वरूप वे अकेले होते जा रहे हैं। आजकल लोग अपने काम से काम रखते हैं, भावुकता के स्थान पर वे सिद्धांतवादी होते जा रहे हैं। आज ‘हम’ का स्थान ‘मैं’ ने ले लिया है।

लोगों पर यह सोच हावी होती जा रही है कि देश का चाहे कुछ हो, पर मेरा भला होना चाहिए | माता-पिता का भी आज यही एकमात्र उद्देश्य है कि उनका बच्चा धन-संपत्ति कमाकर धनवान हो जाए भले ही उसमें संस्कार नाममात्र के लिए भी न हों। शिक्षा व्यवस्था इस प्रकार की है जो बच्चे को रोजगार तो दिलाती है पर उसे चरित्रवान नहीं बनाती। वास्तव में आज चारों ओर अंधकार-सा छा गया है। आज जरूरत है इस अन्धकार से बाहर आकर प्रकाश की ओर जाने की। मानवतावादी दृष्टिकोण को अपना कर हम अपनी नैतिकता को बचा सकते हैं और एक स्वस्थ राष्ट्र का निर्माण कर सकते हैं।

(ख) बुजुर्गों की समस्या
उत्तरः
बुजुर्गों की समस्या:
भारतीय संस्कृति में बुजुर्गों को पूजनीय और सम्मानीय स्थान प्राप्त है। आज आधुनिकता की अंधी दौड़ में उनका वह स्थान उनसे दूर होता जा रहा है। आज उन्हें घर में कोई भी नहीं पूछता। आज तो स्थिति यह हो गई है कि जब तक वे पैसा कमाते हैं, तब तक तो उनकी बड़ी पूछ होती है और सेवानिवृत्ति के बाद उनसे बात तक भी नहीं की जाती। अब घर में उनका स्थान फालतू सामान के समान हो जाता है। उनके हर काम में मीनमेख निकालना, उनसे घर के फालतू काम करवाना, बस यही उनकी नियति बन जाता है। कुछ लोग तो इतने गिर जाते हैं कि बुजुर्गों को खाना खिलाना भी उन्हें भार लगने लगता है। वे उनसे आदरपूर्वक बात करना, उन्हें अपने मित्रों से मिलाना भी अपनी शान के खिलाफ समझते हैं। वे ये भूल जाते हैं कि अपनी इन्हीं संतानों का परिचय अपने मित्रों से करवाते समय इन्हीं बुजुर्गो का सीना शान से चौड़ा हो जाता था। बुजुर्ग घर के मुखिया होते हैं। वास्तव में बुजुर्ग हमारे मार्गदर्शक होते हैं क्योंकि उन्हें जीवन जीने का अनुभव हमसे अधिक होता है। वे अपने बच्चों को उंगली पकड़कर चलना सिखाते हैं और बड़े होने पर उनके पथप्रदर्शक हो जाते हैं। अतः हमें उनका मान-सम्मान करना चाहिए और उनकी सेवा करनी चाहिए।

(ग) पुस्तकें पढ़ने की आदत
उत्तरः
पुस्तकें पढ़ने की आदत ।
किसी ने सच ही कहा है कि पुस्तकें मनुष्य की सच्ची मित्र होती हैं। मित्र भले ही हमारा साथ छोड़ दे पर पुस्तकें आजीवन ही हमारा साथ निभाती हैं। पुस्तकों से प्राप्त ज्ञान मनुष्य को एक नई दिशा की ओर ले जाता है जहाँ केवल ज्ञान का प्रकाश होता है। उसका यही ज्ञान का आयाम उसके चरित्र निर्माण में सहायक होता है। सही मायने में पुस्तकें ही हमारी सच्ची पथ-प्रदर्शक होती हैं और ज्ञानवर्धन में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका का निर्वाह करती हैं। वास्तव में मानव मस्तिष्क एक सूखे कुएँ के समान होता है जिसे भरने के लिए ज्ञान की आवश्यकता होती है और यह ज्ञान पुस्तकों से प्राप्त होता है।

मनुष्य जितना पुस्तकें पढ़ता है उतनी ही उसकी ज्ञान-पिपासा बढ़ती जाती है। आजकल पढ़ने की यही प्रवृत्ति घटती जा रही है क्योंकि कम परिश्रम में ही उसे सब कुछ इन्टरनेट पर मिल जाता है। अनेक बार इन्टरनेट पर बहुत कुछ ऐसा भी सामने आ जाता है जो हमारे हित के लिए नहीं है। बच्चे इससे अधिक प्रभावित हैं और उन्हें इसके लिए प्रेरित भी हमारे द्वारा ही किया जाता है। आजकल तो विद्यालयों में भी यही कह दिया जाता है कि इन्टरनेट पर खोज लेना। आज लोग यह भूल गए हैं कि पढ़ने की आदत को अपना कर ही हम अज्ञानता के अंधकार को दूर हटाकर ज्ञान के प्रकाश की ओर बढ़ सकते हैं। अतः इन्हें अपनाकर हम अपने ज्ञान में वृद्धि कर उन्नति के मार्ग तक पहुँच सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
सार्वजानिक स्थानों पर धूम्रपान निषेध संबंधित नियमों के उल्लंघन के संबंध में पर्यावरण मंत्री को पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
किसी पर्यटन स्थल के होटल प्रबंधक को चार दिन के लिए दो वातानुकूलित कमरे अरक्षित करने का अनुरोध करते हुए पत्र लिखिए। (5)
उत्तरः
45, एकता ब्लॉक
जामनगर
जयपुर
दिनांक: 2 अगस्त 20XX
सेवा में
पर्यावरण मंत्री महोदय
पर्यावरण विभाग
जयपुर

विषय-धूम्रपान निषेध संबंधित नियमों के उल्लंघन की जानकारी देने हेतु।
महोदय
महोदय मैं शहर का एक जिम्मेदार नागरिक हूँ। इस पत्र के माध्यम से मैं आपका ध्यान धूम्रपान संबंधित नियमों की अवहेलना की ओर दिलाना चाहता हूँ। सार्वजनिक स्थानों पर धूम्रपान निषेध संबंधित नियम के लागू होने से परिस्थितियों में बदलाव तो अवश्य आया है पर पूरी तरह से इस नियम का पालन नहीं हो रहा है। अब सड़कों पर सजा के डर से लोग बीड़ी, सिगरेट पीते हुए नहीं नजर आते पर रेलवे स्टेशन, बस-स्टैंड जैसी भीड़भाड़ वाली जगहों पर लोग खुलेआम बीड़ी-सिगरेट का धुआं उड़ाते हुए नजर आते हैं। इनमें भी अधिकतर युवा ही होते हैं। उनके लिए तो ये शान दिखाने का एक जरिया बन जाता है। किसी के मना करने पर वे हाथापाई पर उतर आते हैं। पुलिस का उन्हें कोई डर नहीं है। अतः कोई उन्हें टोकता भी नहीं है।

आपसे मेरा निवेदन है कि इस समस्या को दूर करने के लिए आप इन स्थानों पर कड़ी पुलिस व्यवस्था करवाएँ जिससे इसे रोका जा सके। आशा है आप सहयोग करेंगे।
धन्यवाद।
भवदीय
काख.ग.

अथवा

45, डी ब्लॉक
जवाहर नगर,
जयपुर
दिनांक: 15 अगस्त 20XX
सेवा में
प्रबंधक महोदय
होटल वेदांता
जयपुर
विषय-दो कमरों को आरक्षित करने हेतु।
महोदय
निवेदन यह है कि पिछले वर्ष मैं आपके होटल में अपनी मीटिंग के दौरान रुका था। आपके कर्मचारियों ने बहुत अच्छी व्यवस्था करी थी। मेरे लिए वहाँ रुकना काफी अच्छा अनुभव रहा। इस वर्ष भी मीटिंग के लिए मैंने आपके होटल को ही चुना है क्योंकि आपकी सेवा और व्यवस्था ने मुझे बहुत प्रभावित किया था। अतः आप दिनांक 10 अगस्त से 13 अगस्त तक चार दिनों के लिए दो वातानुकूलित कमरों की चार दिन के लिए व्यवस्था रखें। मैं आशा करता हूँ कि पिछली बार की भांति इस बार भी आप आकर्षक छूट के साथ मेरे कमरे आरक्षित करेंगे। मैं आपका बहुत आभारी रहूँगा।
धन्यवाद।
भवदीय
क.ख.ग.

प्रश्न 3.
(क) अप्रत्याशित विषयों पर लेखन लिखते समय ध्यान देने योग्य बिंदुओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
अथवा
नाट्य रूपांतरण में आने वाली समस्याओं को लिखिए। (3)
उत्तरः
अप्रत्याशित विषयों पर लेखन करते समय निम्नलिखित तथ्यों को ध्यान में रखना चाहिए

• दिए गए विषय की लेखक को संपूर्ण जानकारी होना आवश्यक है।
• अपने मस्तिष्क में एक रूपरेखा बनाते हुए ही लेखक को अपना लेख आरम्भ करना चाहिए।
• उसके द्वारा दिए गए तथ्य विषय से उचित तालमेल रखते हों अन्यथा लेखन का कोई महत्व नहीं रह जाता।
• लेखक के विचार विषय से संबंधित और तर्कसंगत होने चाहिए।
• इस प्रकार के लेखन की शैली में ‘मैं’ का प्रयोग अवश्य करना चाहिए।
• लेखक को लेख लिखते समय अपनी विद्वता का प्रदर्शन इस प्रकार नहीं करना चाहिए कि वह विषय से हट जाए।
• उचित कथन या लोकोक्ति, मुहावरों का आवश्यकतानुसार प्रयोग किया जा सकता
• लेखन को रुचिकर बनाने के लिए विशिष्ट शब्दावली का प्रयोग किया जा सकता है।

अथवा
नाट्य रूपांतरण करते समय अनेक समस्याओं का सामना करना पड़ता है। इनमें से कुछ प्रमुख समस्याएँ निम्नलिखित हैं

• जिस समस्या का प्रमुखता से सामना करना पड़ता है, वह है कहानी के पात्रों के मनोभावों को कहानीकार द्वारा प्रस्तुत मानसिक द्वंद्व के नाटकीय रूप को प्रस्तुत करना।
• पात्रों के बंधुओं को अभिनय के अनुरूप ढालने में भी बड़ी समस्या आती है क्योंकि लिखने और प्रदर्शन करने में भी अंतर आ जाता है।
• निर्जीव वस्तुओं को नाटकीय रूप प्रदान करना नाटककार के लिए किसी बड़ी समस्या से कम नहीं होता।
• कहानी के दृश्यों के अनुसार प्रकाश और ध्वनि की व्यवस्था करना भी समस्याप्रद होता है।
• मुख्य समस्या होती है कथानक को अभिनय के अनुरूप ढालना और सभी पात्रों के लिए संवाद तैयार करना।

(ख) रेडियो नाटक की विशेषताएँ लिखिए।
अथवा
श्रव्य माध्यम की दो सीमाओं का उल्लेख कीजिए। (2)
उत्तरः
रेडियो नाटक की विशेषताएँ निम्नलिखित हैं

• रेडियो नाटक में पात्रों से संबंधित सभी जानकारियाँ संवाद के माध्यम से ही प्राप्त होती हैं।
• नाटक का संपूर्ण कथानक संवादों पर निर्भर होता है।
• कथा को श्रोताओं तक पहुँचाने के लिए ध्वनि और संवाद का विशेष योगदान होता हैं।
• रेडियो नाटक का उद्देश्य भी संवादों के माध्यम से ही स्पष्ट होता है।
• श्रोताओं को संदेश भी संवादों द्वारा ही दिया जाता है।

अथवा

श्रव्य माध्यम की दो सीमाएँ निम्नलिखित हैं

• श्रव्य माध्यम में घटना को केवल सुना जा सकता है, उसे देखना संभव नहीं है।
• श्रव्य माध्यम में वातावरण की सृष्टि पात्रों के संवादों के माध्यम से होती है। समय की सूचना व पात्रों का चरित्र-चित्रण भी संवादों के माध्यम से ही होता है।

प्रश्न 4.
(क) समाचार लेखन के छह ककारों को स्पष्ट कीजिए।
अथवा
विशेष लेखन को परिभाषित करते हुए समाचार पत्रों में विशेष लेखन की भूमिका को स्पष्ट कीजिए। (3)
उत्तरः
‘समाचार लेखन में छह ककारों का बहुत महत्वपूर्ण स्थान है। ये निम्नलिखित हैं

• कब-इसे समाचार लेखन का आधार कहा जाता है। इससे घटना के समय का बोध होता है।
• कहाँ-इसके माध्यम से घटना के घटित होने के स्थान का चित्रण किया जाता है।
• कैसे-इसमें समाचार का विश्लेषण, वितरण और व्याख्या होती है।
• क्या-इसके द्वारा समाचार की रूपरेखा तैयार की जाती है।
• क्यों-इस प्रकार के द्वारा समाचार के विवरण गात्मक, व्याख्यात्मक और विश्लेषणात्मक पहलुओं पर प्रकाश डाला जाता है।
• कौन-इसे आधार बनाकर समाचार लिखा जाता है।

अथवा

किसी सामान्य विषय से हटकर विशेष विषय पर लेख लिखना ही विशेष लेखन कहलाता है। जैसे-कृषि, व्यापार, शिक्षा, खेल, मनोरंजन आदि पर लेखन विशेष लेखन के अंतर्गत आता है। समाचार पत्र और पत्र-पत्रिकाओं में इस प्रकार के लेख लिखे जाते हैं अतः उनमें इनका विशेष योगदान होता है। समाचार पत्र में इनके लिए विशेष स्थान या बॉक्स निश्चित होता है। ये उसी के अंदर लिखे जाते हैं। इस प्रकार के लेख संबंधित विशेषज्ञों के द्वारा ही लिखे जाते हैं। इससे
समाचार पत्र को विशेष प्रशंसा मिलती है।

(ख) उल्टा पिरामिड शैली को स्पष्ट कीजिए।
अथवा
विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग का आशय स्पष्ट कीजिए। (2)
उत्तरः
उल्टा पिरामिड शैली वर्तमान में अधिक प्रचलित शैली है। इसके अंतर्गत समाचार लिखते समय सबसे पहले विषय से संबंधित महत्वपूर्ण तथ्य और जानकारियाँ दी जाती हैं और उसके पश्चात कम महत्वपूर्ण तथ्यों को देकर बात को समाप्त कर दिया जाता है। उल्टा पिरामिड शैली में समाचार लेखन के लिए निम्नलिखित प्रक्रिया का अनुसरण किया जाता है।

अथवा

विशेषीकृत रिपोर्टिंग के लिए यह अत्यावश्यक है कि लेखक संबंधित विषय की पूर्ण जानकारी रखता हो क्योंकि इस प्रकार की रिपोर्टिंग में केवल तथ्यों से काम नहीं चलता। उसके लिए गहन विश्लेषण की भी आवश्यकता होती है। इस प्रकार के लेखक का संबंधित भाषा शैली पर भी पूर्ण अधिकार होना आवश्यक है।

पाठ्यपुस्तक आरोह भाग-2 तथा अनुपूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक वितान भाग-2

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्दी दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 × 2 = 6)
(क) “धूत कही, अवधूत कहौ …….सवैये में व्यक्त तुलसीदास जी के स्वाभिमान को व्यक्त कीजिए।
उत्तरः
तुलसीदासजी स्वाभिमानी व्यक्ति थे। जाति-संप्रदाय और वर्ग-भेद से कहीं ऊपर उठे हुए वे प्रभावशाली लोगों को भी खरी-खोटी सुनाने से कभी पीछे नहीं हटते थे। उन्होंने हिन्दू धर्म के मनमाने आदेशों की न तो कभी स्वयं ही पालना की और न ही कभी किसी को पालना करने के लिए मजबूर किया। धर्म के कथित ठेकेदारों ने उन्हें धूर्त, जुलाहा आदि न जाने क्या-क्या कहकर उनका अपमान किया पर वे कभी न तो किसी के आगे झुके और न ही उन्होंने कभी किसी को अपना अनुचित लाभ उठाने दिया। वह संसार के लोगों से कहते हैं कि-मुझे चाहे जो भी कहो, मुझे कोई फर्क नहीं पड़ने वाला। मुझे दुनिया से कोई लेना-देना नहीं क्योंकि मैं तो राम का दास हूँ। मैं मस्जिद में रात बिता सकता हूँ, निश्चिन्त होकर रामकथा सुनाते थे और फक्कड़ बाबा के समान अपना जीवन बिताते थे।

(ख) कुंभकरण के द्वारा पूछे जाने पर रावण ने अपनी व्याकुलता के बारे में क्या कहा और कुंभकरण से उसे क्या सुनना पड़ा?
उत्तरः
कुंभकरण के द्वारा पूछे जाने पर रावण ने उसे अपनी व्याकुलता के बारे में विस्तारपूर्वक बताया। उसने अपने भाई को बताया कि उसने किस तरह छल से माता सीता का हरण किया। उसने बताया कि किस प्रकार हनुमान ने बड़े-बड़े महान योद्धाओं का संहार कर दिया है। अपने भाई रावण की बातें सुनकर कुंभकरण ने उससे कहा कि अरे मूर्ख! जगन-जननी को चुराकर अब तू कल्याण चाहता है। यह संभव नहीं है। उसने चिंतित हो रावण से कहा कि अब तो उसे अपने द्वारा किए गए इस कुकृत्य का दुष्परिणाम तो भुगतना ही पड़ेगा।

(ग) उदाहरण सहित स्पष्ट कीजिए कि फिराक की रुबाइयों में हिंदी का एक घरेलू रूप दिखता है।
उत्तरः
फिराक गोरखपुरी उर्दू के शायर हैं। उनकी रुबाइयों को पढ़कर लगता है कि उन्होंने हिंदी भाषा के लोक-प्रचलित रूप का स्वाभाविक प्रयोग किया है। ‘चाँद का टुकड़ा’, ‘लोका देना’ आदि घरेलू हिंदी के उदाहरण हैं। कोई भी अनपढ़ व्यक्ति इनकी रुबाइयों को सुनकर इनका पूर्ण आनंद ले सकता है। कुछ उच्चारण तो बहुत ही सुंदर हैं, जैसे-‘बालक तो हई चाँद पे ललचाया है। इस पंक्ति में ‘हई’ का उच्चारण अत्यंत ही सुंदर और स्वाभाविक है।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित चार में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 × 3 = 9)
(क) ‘पहलवान की ढोलक’ पाठ लोककलाओं के संरक्षण का संदेश देती है-कथन की पुष्टि पाठ के आधार पर कीजिए।
उत्तरः
यह पाठ लोककलाओं के संरक्षण का संदेश देता है। वास्तव में लोककलाएँ अपने बल पर नहीं जीतीं। उनके विकास के लिए समाज के सहयोग की आवश्यकता होती है। समाज के साथ-साथ सरकार के प्रयास भी इसके विकास में महत्वपूर्ण योगदान देते हैं। यदि लोक कलाओं के कलाकार पहलवान, खिलाड़ी, नर्तक, गायक आदि अपनी कला के विकास के बजाय अपनी जीविकोपार्जन के साधन जुटाने में लगे रहेंगे तो उनकी कला आगे नहीं बढ़ पाएगी। लोगों को यह कलाएं आनंद तो प्रदान करती हैं, पर वे उसका उचित मूल्य नहीं चुकाते हैं इसलिए धीरे-धीरे समय के साथ-साथ ये लुप्तप्रायः हो रही हैं। लोककलाओं को आर्थिक संरक्षण देने की आवश्यकता है जिससे वे और अधिक निखरे हुए रूप में हमारे सामने आ सकें।

(ख) क्या विभाजन से दिलों में दरार पड़ जाती है? भारत-पाकिस्तान के बीच वर्तमान संबंध कैसे हैं?
उत्तरः
बिलकुल नहीं। विभाजन तो राजनीतिज्ञों अथवा भौगोलितियों की देन है। विभाजन दो देशों, दो सरहदों के बीच होता है। लेकिन लोगों के दिलों में कभी दरार नहीं पड़ती उनकी संवेदनाएँ, भावनाएँ वही रहती हैं। वे कभी भी एक-दूसरे से जुदा नहीं होते । शारीरिक रूप से बेशक जुदा हो जाएँ लेकिन मन से कभी भी नहीं। यद्यपि विभाजन के बाद दोनों देशों के संबंधों में कई वर्षों तक तनाव का माहौल रहा है? लेकिन पिछले 5-7 वर्षों से दोनों के बीच संबंधों में भाई-चारे और आपसी लेन-देन की भावना बढ़ी है। रेल, सड़क, यातायात बहाल हुआ है। आज दोनों के बीच संबंध काफी सुधरे हैं। कला, साहित्य, विज्ञान और संस्कृति के माध्यम से दोनों देशों में सौहार्दपूर्ण माहौल बनता जा रहा है।

(ग) जाति और श्रम विभाजन में क्या बुनियादी अंतर है? ‘श्रम विभाजन और जाति प्रथा’ पाठ के आधार पर उत्तर दीजिए।
उत्तरः
लेखक जाति-प्रथा और श्रम-विभाजन को अलग-अलग मानते हैं। उनके अनुसार जाति-प्रथा में मनुष्य की क्षमता की उपेक्षा होती है। अतः इन दोनों में निम्नलिखित बुनियादी अंतर है-.

• जाति विभाजन, श्रम विभाजन का तो विभाजन करती ही है, उसके साथ-साथ ये श्रमिकों का भी विभाजन करती है।
• सभ्य समाज में तो श्रम विभाजन आवश्यक हो सकता है परंतु श्रमिक वर्ग में यह आवश्यक नहीं है।
• जाति विभाजन के श्रम विभाजन या पेशा चुनने की छूट नहीं होती जबकि श्रम विभाजन में ऐसी छूट हो सकती है।
• विपरीत परिस्थितियों में जाति-प्रथा रोजगार परिवर्तन का कोई अवसर नहीं देती जबकि श्रम विभाजन में व्यक्ति रोजगार परिवर्तित कर सकता है।
• जाति प्रथा व्यक्ति की रूचि पर आधारित नहीं होती जबकि श्रम विभाजन में ऐसा होता है।

(घ) विभाजन के अनेक स्वरूपों में बाँटी जनता को मिलाने की अनेक भूमियाँ हो सकती हैं-रक्त संबंध, विज्ञान, साहित्य व कला। इनमें से कौन सबसे ताकतवर हैं और क्यों?
उत्तरः
जनता को मिलाने की यद्यपि अनेक भूमिकाएँ हो सकती हैं लेकिन इनमें साहित्य और कला की भूमिका सबसे ज्यादा ताकतवर है क्योंकि इन दोनों क्षेत्रों से हम एक-दूसरे तक अपनी भावनाएँ अधिक आसानी से पहुँचा सकते हैं। साहित्य से एक-दूसरे की संस्कृति रहन-सहन, आचार-व्यवहार का पता चल जाता है। कला के माध्यम से हम उनके अंतर्मन में झाँक सकते हैं। भारतीय सहित्य और कला पिछले कई वर्षों से पाकिस्तान को रुचिकर लगता रहा है। यही बात पाकिस्तानी साहित्य के संदर्भ में कहीं जा सकती है।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। 3 + 2 = 5
(क) कला की दृष्टि से हड़प्पा सभ्यता समृद्ध थी’-‘अतीत में दबे पाँव’ के आधार पर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
अथवा
‘डायरी के पन्ने’ के आधार पर औरतों की शिक्षा और उनके मानवाधिकारों के बारे में ऐन के विचारों को अपने शब्दों में स्पष्ट कीजिए। (3)
उत्तरः
लेखक के अनुसार हड़प्पा सभ्यता में कला का अधिक महत्व था। वास्तुकला हो या नगर नियोजन सब तरफ उनका कला सौन्दर्य ही नज़र आता है। धातु और पत्थर की मूर्तियाँ हों या मृदंग-भांड उन पर चित्रित मनुष्य, वनस्पति और पशु-पक्षियों की मनोहर छवियाँ, सुनिर्मित मोहरें और उन पर उत्कीर्ण आकृतियाँ, खिलौने, केश-विन्यास, आभूषण और सुंदर व सुघड़ अक्षरों का लिपि रूप को देखकर निश्चित रूप से हड़प्पा सभ्यता की कला सभ्यता का भान होता है। यहाँ के लोग सुई से कशीदेकारी करते थे और दरियाँ बुनते थे। इस प्रकार यहाँ आकार भव्यता के स्थान पर कला भव्यता नज़र आती है।

अथवा

पूरे विश्व में पुरुषों का वर्चस्व रहा है। पुरुषों ने सदा ही औरतों पर अधिकार किया है। उन्होंने औरतों पर इस आधार पर शासन करना शुरू किया कि औरतें उनसे कमज़ोर हैं। पुरुष का काम कमाई करना है जबकि स्त्री का कार्य बच्चे पैदा करना और उन्हें पाल-पोसकर बड़ा करना । पुरुष औरत से शारीरिक संतुष्टि की अपेक्षा रखता है। इस शारीरिक आनंद में यदि औरत गर्भवती हो जाए तो पुरुष कहता है कि बच्चा पैदा कर लो। केवल अपने स्वार्थ के लिए पुरुषों ने औरतों पर अन्याय किया है। जो अधिकार प्रकृति ने औरत को दिया उसका अनुचित लाभ पुरुष ने उठाया है इस कारण पूरे विश्व में जनसंख्या की समस्या बढ़ी है।

(ख) एन फ्रैंक की डायरी के आधार पर नाजियों के अत्याचारों पर टिप्पणी कीजिए।
अथवा
‘यह सच है कि यहाँ किसी आँगन की टूटी-फूटी सीढ़ियाँ अब आप को कहीं नहीं ले जाती; वे आकाश की तरफ़ आधूरी रह जाती हैं, लेकिन उन अधूरे पायदानों पर खड़े होकर अनुभव किया जा सकता है। कि आप दुनिया की छत पर हैं, वहाँ से आप इतिहास को नहीं उस के पार झाँक रहे हैं।’ इस कथन के पीछे लेखक का क्या आशय है? (2)
उत्तरः
ऐन फ्रैंक एक यहूदी बालिका थी। द्धितीय विश्वयुद्ध के दौरान जर्मनी ने यहूदियों पर घोर अत्याचार किए। इस कारण उन्हें भूमिगत होकर रहना पड़ा। ऐन फ्रैंक भी उनमें से ही एक थीं। भूमिगत होने पर अपने एक-एक कष्ट और दुःख-दर्द को उन्होंने डायरी में लिखा । यह डायरी एक प्रकार से यहूदियों पर नाजियों द्वारा किये गए अत्याचारों का दस्तावेज है। यह सच्ची घटना अथवा इस कथन के पीछे लेखक का आशय यही है कि खंडहर होने के बाद भी पायदान बीते इतिहास का पूरा परिचय देते हैं। इतनी ऊची छत पर स्वयं इतिहास का अनुभव करना एक बढ़िया रोमांच है। सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता केवल इतिहास नहीं है बल्कि इतिहास के पार की वस्तु है। इतिहास के पार की वस्तु को इन अधूरे पायदानों पर खड़े होकर ही देखा जा सकता है। ये अधूरे पायदान यही दर्शाते हैं। कि विश्व की दो सबसे सभ्यताओं का इतिहास कैसा रहा।

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Standard Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each; and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION – A
(Section A has 6 Questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
(A) The picture given below is of the bird named Dodo (Mauritius) that has become extinct. Write any two names of animals that have become recently extinct.

(B) Specify the main objective of establishment of IUCN. Also mention the year in which it was established. (2)
Answer:
(A) The animals that have become recently extinct are:

• Quagga (Africa)
• Thylacine (Australia)
• Steller’s Sea Cow (Russia) (Any two)

(B) The main aim of IUCN is to maintain a
complete record of every species that ever lived and it works in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. It was established in 1948.

Related Theory
IUCN stands for International Union for Conservation of Nature. The headquarter of IUCN is in Switzerland.

Question 2.
Given below is the picture of a hummingbird, which is known for its unique wings as it can fly backwards. Why polar region is not a suitable habitat for hummingbirds?

OR
What do you mean by phytophagous insects? Give an example. (2)
Answer:
The polar region is not a suitable habitat for hummingbirds because in small animals like hummingbirds, they have a larger surface area relative to their volume, therefore, they tend to lose body heat very fast when the outside temperature is cold. This means, they have to expend much energy to generate body heat through metabolism. This is why very small animals are rarely found in polar regions.
OR
Phytophagous insects are those insects that generally feed on plant sap and other parts of green plants. They include species that attack roots, stems, Leaves, flowers, and fruits, either as larvae or as adults or in both stages.
Example: Beetles, moths, grasshoppers

Related Theory
Some insects are leaf feeders, that are either external or they may mine the tissues. “Phytophagous” is often synonymous with “herbivorous,” although the herbivores are sometimes restricted to those species feeding on herbs. Phytophagous can be grouped as monophagous (using only one plant genus or species), oligophagous (use plants within a family), polyphagous (use plants in many plant families).

Question 3.
(A) What is the importance of distillation
process performed during the production of certain alcoholic drinks?
(B) Which organism is commercially exploited for the production of single cell protein? (2)
Answer:
(A) Distillation is the process of separating alcohol from water by the process of evaporation and condensation. It is performed to increase the alcoholic content of alcoholic drinks.

Related Theory
Wine and beer are filtered, pasteurized and bottled without distillation whereas whisky, brandy and rum are produced by distillation of the fermented broth. The alcoholic content of beer is 3-6% and in wines, it is around 9-12% whereas the alcoholic content of brandy is 35-60%, whisky is 40-50% and that of rum is 40%.

(B) The organism that is commercially used for the production of single cell protein is Spirulina.

Question 4.
(A) Every year we hear several incidences of Dengue fever in our country. Name the vector of this disease.
(B) Interferons play an important role during viral infection. Write their role. (2)
Answer:
(A) The vector for Dengue fever is Aedes aegypti mosquito.

Related Theory
The causative agent of the Dengue fever is Flavivirus. The symptoms of this disease include high fever, severe headache, joint pain, nausea and vomiting.

(B) Interferons are glycoprotein released by virus-infected cells. The non-infected cells are protected from further viral infection by these interferons.

Question 5.
(A) What will happen if oxygen availability is reduced to activated sludge floes?
(B) Who is responsible for the development of technology of biogas production in India? (2)
Answer:
(A) If oxygen availability is reduced it will cause center of the floes to become anoxic (oxygen deficient) that will result in the death of bacteria and fungi and eventually it leads to the breakage of floes.

(B) The efforts made by Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) led to the development of the technology of biogas production in India.

Question 6.
(A) Name any two genetically engineered
vaccines.
(B) Which antibody is produced in response to allergy in our body?
OR
Give one similarity and one difference between morphine and heroin. (2)
Answer:
(A) Two genetically engineered vaccines are:

1. Hepatitis B vaccine
2. Herpes vaccine

(B) The antibody that is produced in response to allergy in our body is IgE.
OR
Similarity: Both morphine and heroin are extracted from the latex of plant Papaver somniferum.
Difference: Morphine is an effective sedative and painkiller while heroin acts as depressant and slows down body functions.

Related Theory
Heroin is obtained from diacetylation of Morphine.

SECTION – B
(Section B has 6 Questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 7.
(A) Why the species diversity of animals
which is around 72%, is much more than the species diversity of plants which is only 22%?
(B) Certain regions have very high levels of species richness and high degree of endemism. What is the name given to such regions? (3)
Answer:
(A) Species diversity of plants less than that of animals because of the following reasons:
(i) The animals adapt themselves to ensure their survival in changing environments. For example: Most animals possess simple or complex nervous system to control and coordinate various activities. Since insects possess repeated body segments with external cuticles and paired appendages, they have developed a potential to survive in different habitats.

(ii) Plants being immobile as compared to animals that can move around, have less adaptations as they are not exposed to different habitats.

(B) The regions having high Levels of species richness and high degree of endemism are called as biodiversity hotspots.

Related Theory
Endemism refers to species confined to that region and not found anywhere else.

Question 8.
(A) Rahul while working in a company dealing with production of proteins in bioreactors, forgot to add antibiotic to the medium in a bioreactor in which the recombinant bacterium was growing. What would happen?

(B) Why ‘plasmid’ is regarded as an important tool in genetic engineering? (3)
Answer:
(A) In a bioreactor, where recombinant bacteria are growing, the presence of antibiotics in the medium makes sure that the bacteria retain the plasmid containing the antibiotic resistant gene as well as the gene of interest Therefore, in the absence of antibiotic, the recombinant bacterium does not need to produce a gene, which can make it resistant to antibiotic because the pressure will be eliminated and thus the bacteria will not maintain the copy number of the plasmid. Hence, the plasmid will be lost and also the gene of interest which will result in reduction of the quantity of the desired product.

(B) Plasmid is used to multiply or express particular genes and act as vector to transfer piece of foreign DNA attached to them.

Related Theory
Plasmid is defined as an autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA present in some bacteria.

Question 9.
There has been an alarming situation globally about the gradually increasing average global temperatures in the recent years. If this situation continues, would you expect the distributional range of some species to be affected? If yes, how? Explain.
OR
Write any three features of animals that help them to survive in water scarce environment. (3)
Answer:
The geographical distribution of different species is largely dependent on their levels of thermal tolerance, water, light and soil In recent years the average global temperature is gradually increasing, which is a matter of great concern. If this continues, the distributional range of some species would be affected because increasing global temperature leads to excessive heat, drought, soil erosion, etc. Following points show how the plants and animals and abiotic factors are interdependent:

(i) On earth, life is not possible without water and life originated in water only. Also, the plants productivity and distribution are very much dependent on water. Plants require water and sunlight as a source of energy to prepare food through photosynthesis.

(ii) Many animals use diurnal and seasonal variations in light intensities and duration (photoperiod) as cues for timing their foraging, reproductive and migratory activities.

(iii) Water holding capacity of soils is determined by soil composition and grain size. Also, the type of vegetation which will grow in a particular type of soil depends on its pH, mineral composition and topography and indirectly it dictates the type of animals that can be supported there.
OR
Some features of animals which help them to survive in water scarce environment are:

1. No sweating/uricotelic/deposition of fat in subepidermal layer/burrowing nature/thick skin/ body covered with scales.
2. Use of metabolically produced water.
3. Mucous layer on the surface to reduce water loss by perspiration.
4. Various hormones in humans like ADH help
   reduce water loss. (Any three)

Question 10.
In order to clean rivers, Government has initiated several plans such as Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan. Which Ministry of Government had initiated these plans? What are the objectives of these plans? (3)
Answer:
The Ministry of Environment and Forests had initiated Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan.
The major objectives of these plans are:

• To clean and save major rivers (Ganga and Yamuna) of the country from pollution.
• To improve the water quality by interception, diversion and treatment of domestic sewage and present toxic and industrial chemical wastes from identified grossly polluting units entering in to the river.
• To set up a greater number of sewage treatment plants.

Related Theory
Ganga action plan came into force in 1985 whereas Yamuna action plan was launched in 1993.

Question 11.
(A) Rishabh wants to separate DNA fragments according to their size. Which technique he should use?
(B) List the two core techniques of modern biotechnology. (3)
Answer:
(A) The technique which Rishabh should use to separate DNA fragments according to their size is gel electrophoresis.

(B) Modern biotechnology consists of two core techniques, which are:
(i) Genetic engineering: It refers to the field of biotechnology that involves the use of techniques to modify the chemical nature of genetic material (DNA and RNA). This includes the introduction
of the genetic material into another organism (host), in order to change the phenotype of the host organism.

(ii) Bioprocess engineering: These methods involve maintenance of sterile environment i.e., microbial contamination-free in chemical engineering processes to enable growth of only the desired microbe/ eukaryotic cell This results in production of microbes/cells in large quantities for the manufacture of biotechnological products like antibiotics, vaccines, enzymes, etc.

Question 12.
(A) All human beings do not suffer from cancer diseases although every individual have cellular oncogenes. Give reason.
(B) How cancerous cells are different from the normal cells? (3)
Answer:
(A) Every human being has cellular oncogenes or proto-oncogenes. These code for certain
growth factors. But under certain conditions, these proto-oncogenes get activated and Lead to oncogenic transformation of cells, thus, causing cancer. This activation is brought about by carcinogens which can be physical, chemical or biological.

Related Theory
The chemical carcinogens present in tobacco smoke have been identified as a major cause of lung cancer.

(B) In normal cells of human body, the cell growth and differentiation is a highly controlled and regulated process. But in cancerous cells, there is a breakdown of these regulatory mechanisms. Normal cells also shows the property of contact inhibition because of which contact with other cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth, whereas cancerous cells have Lost this property. As a result, the cancerous cells divide continuously to give rise to masses of cells called tumour or neoplasm.

SECTION – C
(Section C has a case-based question of 5 marks.)

Question 13.
Gene manipulation is a fast-emerging science that started with development of recombinant DNA molecule. It is also known as genetic engineering. This technology which basically involves cutting and Ligating of desired DNA fragments, is based on two important discoveries in bacteria. One of them is the plasmid in bacteria and the other is restriction endonucleases. The birth of recombinant DNA technology occurred when Cohen and Boyer (1973) successfully introduced a piece of gene containing foreign DNA into plasmid ofE coli.
Based on this answer the questions that follow:

(A) (i) A five-year-old boy was found to be deficient in his immune system since birth. His family was told that this was due to an enzyme deficiency which is very important for the
immune system to function properly. Name the enzyme whose deficiency is responsible for the disease. By which technique it can be cured?
(ii) Write any two advantages of genetically modified crops.

(B) Name two more methods that are used to treat the disease of the five-year-old boy.
OR
The teacher was comparing the conventional crops with transgenic crops and presented the picture shown below which depicts the advantages of a genetically modified corn over a conventionally grown corn.
Based on this answer the questions that follow:

(A) In transgenics, which gene determines the expression of transgene in target tissue?
(B) Give one major concern regarding the production of genetically modified crops.
(C) Name any one genetically modified crop apart from corn and its genetically conferred trait.
(D) List any two advantages of producing genetically modified crops with respect to farmers. 5
Answer:
(A) (i) The enzyme whose deficiency is responsible for the disease is Adenosine deaminase. It can be cured by the technique of gene therapy.
(ii) Two advantages of genetically modified crops are:

1. GM crops are tolerant to stresses such as heat, cold, drought.
2. GM crops are pest resistant, thus reduce the use of pesticides.
   Example: Bt cotton

(B) Two methods that are used to treat adenosine deaminase deficiency besides gene therapy are:

1. Bone marrow transplantation
2. Enzyme replacement therapy

OR
(A) A reporter gene is used to determine whether the recombinant DNA has been successfully introduced into a cell or not.

Related Theory
Reporters are used as indicators to study gene expression. A transgenic organism contains a
gene introduced by one or the other technique of transfection in its genome. This introduced gene with the help of transfection is called transgene.

(B)

1. Development of resistant weeds and insects
2. Difficulty of preserving the identity of non-GM crops
3. Harm to other organisms (Any one)

Related Theory
Gene movement from crop to weed through pollen transfer has been seen for GM crops when the crop is grown near a closely related weed species. Similarly, insects developed a resistance to pesticides. Potential cross-pollination of GM seeds onto non- GM crops is also a concern to farmers
A study showed that a gene contained within Bt corn can be harmful to the larvae of a monarch butterfly.

(C)

Genetically modified crop	Genetically conferred trait
Soyabean	Herbicide tolerance
Canola	Altered fatty acid composition
Plum	Virus resistance

(D) The advantages are as follows:

1. Increased crop yields
2. Diminished use of pesticides and herbicides.
3. Increased profits earned by farmers.
   (Any two)

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 11 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 35
Roll No. ___________

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D & E
• In section A, question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer type questions. Attempt any 3 questions.
• In section B, question number 4 is Source based question.
• In section C, question number 5 & 6 are Short Answer type questions.
• In section D, question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer type questions.
• In section E, question number 10 is a Map based question.

Section – A
Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define cyberspace. (2)
Or
Write a short note each on the Danube waterway and Volga waterway.
Answer:
Cyberspace is the world of electronic computerised space. It is encompassed by the Internet such as the World Wide Web (www). In simple words, it is the electronic digital world for communicating or accessing information over computer networks without physical movement of the sender and the receiver. It is also referred to as the Internet. Cyberspace exists everywhere.
Or
The Danube Waterway It is an important inland waterway that serves Eastern Europe. The Danube river rises in the Black Forest and flows Eastwards through many countries. It is navigable up to Taurna Severin. Volga Waterway Russia has a large number of developed waterways, of which the Volga is one of the most important. It provides a navigable waterway of 11,200 km and drains into the Caspian Sea.

Question 2.
Mention about solar energy. (2)
Answer:
Sun rays which tapped in photovoltaic cells can be converted into energy, known as solar energy. The two effective processes considered to be very effective to tap solar energy are photovoltaics and solar thermal technology. Solar energy is generally used more in appliances like heaters, crop dryers, cookers, etc.

Question 3.
State any two measures which aimed at promoting sustainable development in the Indira Gandhi Canal project area. (2)
Answer:
The measures which aimed at promoting sustainable development in the Indira Gandhi Canal project area are

• The first requirement is strict implementation of water management policy. The canal project envisages protective irrigation in Stage-I and extensive irrigation of crops and pasture development in Stage-II.
• In general, the cropping pattern shall not include water intensive crops. It shall be adhered to and people shall be encouraged to grow plantation crops such as citrus fruits.

Section – B
Source Based Question

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the following questions by choosing the correct option.
Jhabua district is located in the westernmost agro-climatic zone in Madhya Pradesh. It is, in fact, one of the five most backward districts of the country. It is characterised by high concentration of tribal population (mostly Bhils). The people suffer due to poverty which has been accentuated by the high rate of resource degradation, both forest and land.

The watershed management programmes funded by both the ministries of “Rural Development” and “Agriculture”, Government of India, have been successfully implemented in Jhabua district which has gone a long way in preventing land degradation and improving soil quality. Watershed Management Programmes acknowledge the linkage between land, water and vegetation and attempts to improve livelihoods of people through natural resource management and community participation.

In the past five years, the programmes funded by the Ministry of Rural Development alone (implemented by Rajiv Gandhi Mission for Watershed Management) has treated 20 per cent of the total area under Jhabua district. The Petlawad block of Jhabua is located in the Northernmost part of the district and represents an interesting and successful case of Government-NGO partnership and community participation in managing watershed programmes.

The Bhils in Petlawad block, for example, (Sat Rundi hamlet of Karravat village) through their own efforts, have revitalised large parts of common property resources. Each household planted and maintained one tree on the common property. They also have planted fodder grass on the pasture land and adopted social-fencing of these lands for at least two years.

Even after that, they say, there would be no open grazing on these lands, but stall feeding of cattle, and they are thus confident that the pastures they have developed would sustain their cattle in future. An interesting aspect of this experience is that before the community embarked upon the process of management of the pasture, there was encroachment on this land by a villager from an adjoining village.

The villagers called the tehsildar to ascertain the rights of the common land. The ensuing conflict was tackled by the villagers by offering to make the defaulter encroaching on the CPR a member of their user group and sharing the benefits of greening the common lands/pastures.

(i) The Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh is a poor and backward region. What is the reason due to which economic condition of its people is further worsening? (1)
Answer:
The Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh is a poor and backward region where the economic condition of people is further worsening due to forest and land degradation.

(ii) Soil quality and recovery from land degradation can be achieved by which measure? (1)
Answer:
The soil quality and recovery from land degradation can be achieved by watershed management.

(iii) The Ministry of Rural Development funded the restoration of degraded land in Jhabua under which management scheme? (1)
Answer:
The Ministry of Rural Development funded the restoration of degraded land in Jhabua under Rajiv Gandhi Mission for Watershed Management Scheme.

Section – C
Short Answer Questions

Question 5.
Discuss quaternary activities and how have they replaced primary and secondary employment as basis for economic growth. (3)
Answer:
Quaternary activities involve the collection, production and dissemination of information or even the production of information. Quaternary activities centre around research, development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialised knowledge and technical skills. The quaternary sector along with the tertiary sector has replaced most of the primary and secondary employment as the basis for economic growth.

Over half of all workers, in developed economies are in the Knowledge Sector’ and there has been a very high growth in demand for and consumption of information based services from mutual fund managers to tax consultants, software developers and statisticians. Personnel working in office buildings, elementary schools and university classrooms, hospitals and doctors’ offices, theatres, accounting and brokerage firms all belong to this category of services.

Question 6.
Outline the distribution of inter-continental air routes across the world. (3)
Or
Discuss the emergence of satellite communication. Also, comment on the status of India’s satellite development.
Answer:
The distribution of inter-continental air routes

• In the Northern Hemisphere, there is a distinct East-West belt of inter-continental air routes. Dense network exists in Eastern USA, Western Europe and South-East Asia.
• USA alone accounts for 60 per cent of the airways of the world.
• New York, London, Paris, Amsterdam, Frankfurt, Rome, Moscow, Karachi, New Delhi, Mumbai, Bangkok, Singapore, Tokyo, San Francisco, Los Angeles and Chicago are the nodal points where air routes converge or radiate to all continents.
• Africa, Asiatic part of Russia and South America lack air services.
• There are limited air services between 10-35 latitudes in the Southern hemisphere due to sparser population, limited landmass and economic development.

Or
Communication through satellites emerged as a new area in communication technology since the 1970s after USA and former USSR pioneered space research. Artificial satellites, now, are successfully deployed in the earth’s orbit to connect even the remote corners of the globe with limited onsite verification. These have rendered the unit cost and time of communication invariant in terms of distance.

This means it costs the same to communicate over 500 km as it does over 5,000 km via satellite. India has also made great strides in satellite development. Aryabhatt was launched on 19 April 1979, Bhaskar-I in 1979 and Rohini in 1980. On 18 June 1981, APPLE (Arian Passenger Payload Experiment) was launched through Arian rocket. Bhaskar, Challenger and INSAT 1-B have made long distance communication, television and radio very effective.

Section – D
Long Answer Questions

Question 7.
What role does ‘outsourcing plays in quaternary activities? (5)
Or
What is meant by digital divide and how does it affect a country?
Answer:
Outsourcing is contracting out or giving work to an outside agency to improve efficiency and to reduce costs. Outsourcing plays a key role in the quatemary sector in the following ways

Business activities are outsourced which includes Information Technology (IT), human resources, customer support and call centre services and at times also manufacturing and engineering Data processing is an IT related service which can easily be carried out in Asian, East European and African countries.

In these countries IT skilled staff with good English language skills are available at lower wages than those in the developed countries. It helps reduce the overall cost of the service

Overhead costs are also much lower making it profitable to get job-work carried out overseas, whether it is in India, China or even a less populous country like Botswana in Africa.

Outsourcing generates employment and has resulted in the opening up of a large number of call centres in India, China, Eastern Europe, Israel, Philippines and Costa Rica. It has created new jobs in these countries. Outsourcing is coming to those countries where cheap and skilled workers are available. These are also out-migrating countries.

With the work available through outsourcing the migration in these countries may come down. The several key advantage are the main reason for continuing outsourcing. New trends in quinary services include Knowledge Processing Outsourcing (KPO) and ‘home shoring, the latter as an alternative to outsourcing
Or
Digital divide refers to the gap or deficit of affordable and efficient internet services, between people. This divide can be between two countries, e.g. between a developed and developing country, or between different regions within a country due to lack of access and infrastructure.

Digital divide has an impact in the following ways

Opportunities emerging from the Information and Communication Technology based development is unevenly distributed across the globe. There are wide ranging economic, political and social differences among countries. How quickly countries can provide information and communication technology access and benefits to its citizens is the deciding factor.

Developed countries in general have surged forward, the developing countries have lagged behind which has created a digital divide between the two. Within a country, low literacy and income levels, geographical inaccessibility (eg, mountainous terrain), lack of physical access to technology due to poor infrastructure, and digital illiteracy due to poor standard of education and training can contribute towards a digital divide. Digital divide can be reduced by initiating digital literacy programs by governments and NGOs for the digital illiterate group of people. A global mutual program for public access to updated information should be formed.

Question 8.
Discuss the importance of National highways and role of NHAI in India. (5)
Answer:
The main roads in India which are constructed and maintained by the Central Government are known as the National Highways. These roads are of very high importance as these connect the state capitals, major cities, important ports, railway junctions, etc. in the country. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is entrusted with the responsibility of development, maintenance and operation of National Highways.

This is also the apex body to improve the quality of the roads designated as National Highways. NHAI was operationalised in 1995 and is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Surface Transport. NHAI has taken up some major projects in the country under different phases which are

Golden Quadrilateral It comprises construction of 5,846-km long 4/6 lane, high density traffic corridor, to connect India’s four big metro cities of Delhi-MumbaiChennai-Kolkata. With the construction of Golden Quadrilateral, the time, distance and cost of movement among the mega cities of India will be considerably minimised.

North-South and East-West Corridors North-South corridor aims at connecting Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir with Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu (including Kochchi-Salem Spur) with 4,076-km long road. The East-West Corridor has been planned to connect Silchar in Assam with the port town of Porbandar in Gujarat with 3,640-km of road length.

Question 9.
Mass communications networks are essential for dissipating important information to large number of people in shortest time. Briefly discuss various forms of mass communication systems. (5)
Answer:
There are three main forms of Mass Communication

(i) Radio Radio broadcasting started in India in 1923 by the Radio Club of Bombay. Since then, it gained immense popularity and changed the socio-cultural life of people. Government brough radio under its control in 1930 under the Indian Broadcasting System. It was changed to All India Radio in 1936 and to Akashwani in 1957. All India Radio broadcasts a variety of programmes related to information, education and entertainment.

(ii) Television (TV) Television broadcasting has emerged as the most effective audio-visual medium for disseminating information and educating masses. Initially, the TV services were limited only to the National Capital where it began in 1959. After 1972, several other centres became operational. In 1976, TV was delinked from All India Radio (AIR) and got a separate identity as Doordarshan (DD). After INSAT-IA (National Television-DD1) became operational, Common National Programmes (CNP) were started for the entire network.

(iii) Satellite Communication Satellites are mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of other means of communication. Satellite images can be used for the weather forecast, monitoring of natural calamities, surveillance of border areas, etc. On the basis of configuration and purposes, satellite system in India can be grouped into two; Indian National Satellite System (INSAT) and Indian Remote Sensing Satellite System (IRS).

Section – E
Map Based Question

Question 10.
On the political map of the world, identify the following features (Attempt any 5). (1 × 5 = 5)
A. Eastern Terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway
B. A major seaport
C. A major airport is USA
D. A major seaport in Asia
E. An Inland waterway
F. An important seaport

Answer:

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Ma×imum Marks: 40

सामान्य निर्देश :

• निम्नलिखित निर्देशों को बहुत सावधानी से पढ़िए और उनका पालन कीजिए:
• इस प्रश्न पत्र में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं।
• इस प्रश्न पत्र में कुल सात प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। आपको सात प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं।
• प्रश्नों में आंतरिक विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं। निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए।

कार्यालयी हिंदी और रचनात्मक लेखन [20 अंक]

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित दिए गए तीन शीर्षको में से किसी एक शीर्षक का चयन कर लगभग 200 शब्दों में एक रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए: (5 × 1 = 5)
(क) चोरों से मुठभेड़
उत्तरः
चोरों से मुठभेड़:
मेरा एक मित्र बडा निडर और बहादुर व्यक्ति है। उसके पास बन्दूक का लाइसेन्स है। सोते समय वह अपनी बन्दूक हमेशा अपने पास रखता है। एक दिन रात के समय मैं उसके साथ उसके घर की छत पर सो रहा था। एकाएक उठते हुए शोर और चीख-पुकार सुनकर हमारी आँख खुल गई। खाट पर बैठकर हमने स्थिति को समझने का प्रयास किया। अचानक देखा कि आवाजें पड़ोस के मकान के भीतर से आ रही थीं। हमें ‘चोर-चोर’ की आवाजें सुनाई दी। साथ ही औरतों और बच्चों की चीख-पुकार और सिसकियाँ भी सुनाई दे रही थीं। हमने सोचने में समय व्यर्थ नहीं किया और बिस्तर से एकदम उठकर हाथों में लट्ठ लेकर पड़ोसियों की सहायता के लिए निकल पड़े। जब हम अपने मकान से सड़क पर आए, तो पाया कि सड़क पर कोई व्यक्ति नही था। हमें देखकर बड़ा दुःख हुआ कि अन्य सभी पड़ोसी अपनी-अपनी छतों पर खडे तमाशा देख रहे थे। वे डरे हुए और बेबस से लग रहे थे। नीचे उतरने की हिम्मत किसी में नहीं थी।

दो चोर मकान के अंदर घुसे हुए थे। उन्होंने अंदर से दरवाजा बंद कर लिया था। बाहर से जो चीख-पुकार सुनाई दे रही थी, उससे स्पष्ट था कि भीतर चोरों और मकान के लोगों, के बीच संघर्ष चल रहा है। दरवाजे को बन्द देख हम दोनों एक अन्य मकान की छत पर चढ़कर उस मकान की छत पर कूद गए और ललकारते हुए एकदम चोरों वाले कमरे में पहुंच गए। हमें आया हुआ देखकर चोरों ने भागने का प्रयास किया पर हमने जोर से लठ्ठ उनकी ओर उछाल दिया। लठ्ठ की मार से एक चोर तो वहीं बेहोश होकर गिर पड़ा और दूसरा भागने का प्रयास करने लगा पर फिर सब लोगों ने मिलकर उसे पकड़ लिया। इस समय तक कुछ लोगों ने पुलिस को खबर कर दी थी। पुलिस बल घटना स्थल पर पहुँच गया और उस चोर को पुलिस के हवाले कर दिया गया।

(ख) मैं और मेरी नानी
उत्तरः
मैं और मेरी नानी:
नानी वो शब्द है जिसे सुनने मात्र से ही हमारी आँखों में चमक आ जाती है। नानी, जिसे हर चीज का अनुभव होता है क्यूंकि वो हमारी माँ की माँ होती है। माँ सबके लिए खास होती है तो माँ की माँ यानि नानी तो सबकी प्रिय होती है। नानी का रिश्ता किसी के लिए भी जीवन में बहुत खास होता है। बचपन में हमेशा नानी के घर जाने की जिद किया करते थे। और जब छुट्टियाँ होती तो नानी के घर और उनसे मिलने का सोच कर ही बहुत खुश हो जाते। मेरी नानी मुझे उतना ही प्यार करती थीं। उनकी लिखी हुई हर चिट्ठी मेरे लिए खास होती थी और आज भी जब मैं उनकी लिखी हुई चिट्ठी का एक-एक लफ्ज पढ़ती हूँ तो लगता है कि जैसे कल की ही बात है। जब भी नानी के घर जाते मेरे लिए बहुत सारी मेरी मनपसन्द चीजें पहले से ही लाकर रखती।

जिस चीज की मुझे जरूरत होती हमेशा मुझे लेकर देतीं। सब कुछ जान लेती थीं। उनकी जितनी तारीफ करूँ उतनी कम है। जब छुट्टियाँ खत्म होने पर वापिस घर जाना हो तब आँखें नम हो जाती। हमारी प्यारी नानी अब तो इस दुनिया में नहीं हैं। लेकिन जहाँ कहीं भी है। मैं यह प्रार्थना करती हूं कि वह हमेशा खुश रहें और मैं जानती हूं कि उनका आशीर्वाद हमेशा हमारे साथ हैं और नानी को हम बहुत याद करते हैं क्योंकि इस दुनिया में बहुत कम लोग ऐसे होते हैं जो दिल के सच्चे और अच्छे होते हैं जो खुद से ज्यादा दूसरों से प्यार करते हैं और उनमें से एक थीं मेरी प्यारी नानी।

(ग) सैर के दौरान एक अप्रत्याशित घटना
उत्तरः
सैर के दौरान एक अप्रत्याशित घटना:
पिछले वर्ष अगस्त का महीना था। सुबह से ही बादल छाए हुए थे। सुंदर शीतल पवन बह रही थी। ऐसे सुहावने मौसम में मेरा सैर करने का मन हो आया। मैं अपने मित्रों के घर गया और उनसे अपना इरादा बताया । वे भी सहर्ष सैर को तैयार हो गए। हम लोगों ने वृन्दावन की सैर का निर्णय किया । वृन्दावन हमारे गाँव से लगभग आठ किलोमीटर दूर है। इस सुंदर मौसम में हम लोगों ने पैदल जाने का इरादा किया । हम लोग आपस में हँसी-मजाक करते हुए वृन्दावन की ओर चल पड़े। मार्ग के दोनों ओर हरे-भरे खेत लहरा रहे थे। किसान खेतों से खर-पतवार निकालने में व्यक्त थे। कुछ दूरी पर हमें गायों का झुण्ड घास चरते दीख पड़ा । चरवाहा पेड़ की छाया में वंशी पर मधुर धुन बजा रहा था । आसमान अभी तक बादलों से ढका हुआ था। इतनी ही देर में हवा एकदम थम गई।

वातावरण एकदम शांत हो गया। हम सभी चौंक पड़े, क्योंकि अब ऐसा लग रहा था कि भीषण वर्षा होगी। थोड़ी ही देर में पानी की बड़ी-बड़ी बूंदें गिरने लगी और देखते-ही-देखते घनघोर वर्षा होने लगी। बिजली बड़े जोर से कड़क कर समूचे आसमान का फेरा लगाकर गायब हो जाती। हम एकदम सराबोर हो गए। रास्ते में पानी बहने लगा। हमारा आगे बढ़ना अब संभव नहीं दीखता था। अब हवा भी कुछ-कुछ चलने लगी और हमें सर्दी महसूस होने लगी। पेड़ के नीचे हम रुक गए । अब पानी थमने लगा था। बादल हटने शुरू हो गए और धीरे-धीरे धूप निकलने लगी। सड़क का पानी भी बह गया। हम लोग वृन्दावन से केवल दो किलोमीटर दूर थे। वहाँ हमने केवल बांके बिहारीजी के प्रसिद्ध मंदिर में भगवान् के दर्शन किए और अपने सकुशल लौट आने के लिए उन्हें लाख-लाख धन्यवाद दिया। बाहर निकलकर हमने एक तांगा किया और घर लौट पड़े।

प्रश्न 2.
राजमार्गों पर पथकर की ऊँची दरें होने के बाद भी सड़कों का रखरखाव असंतोषजनक है। इसकी सूचना देते हुए राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग प्राधिकरण के अध्यक्ष को पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
आपके नगर में वन-महोत्सव के अवसर पर लगाए गए वृक्ष उद्यान विभाग के उपेक्षा भरे व्यवहार के कारण सूखते जा रहे हैं। उद्यान विभाग के निदेशक को पत्र लिखकर उचित कार्यवाही के लिए अनुरोध कीजिए। (5)
उत्तरः
मॉडल टॉडन
जयपुर
7 नवंबर 20XX
सेवा में
अध्यक्ष महोदय
राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग प्राधिकरण
जयपुर

विषय- पथकर की ऊँची दरें होने के बाद भी सड़कों के उचित रखरखाव न होने की सूचना देने हेतु पत्र।
महोदय,
नम्र निवेदन है कि हमारे यहाँ शहर की सड़कें तो अच्छी बनी हुई हैं पर राजमार्गों की सड़कों की स्थिति अच्छी नहीं है। दुःख की बात तो यह है कि पथकर की ऊँची दरें देने के बाद भी सड़कों की स्थिति संतोषजनक नहीं है। सड़कों पर कहीं गढ्डे हैं तो कहीं सड़क ऊँची-नीची है। कहीं पर सड़क पर पर्याप्त रोशनी नहीं है तो कहीं उचित दिशा निर्देशकों का अभाव है। इसकी वजह से सड़क पर वाहन चलाते समय दुर्घटना होने का डर रहता है। अभी परसों रात ही एक ट्रक और कार की आमने-सामने भिडंत हो गई थी जिससे कार चालक और ट्रक ड्राईवर की उसी समय दुखद मृत्यु हो गई थी। जब जनता उचित कर का भुगतान करती है तो सड़क व्यवस्था में सुधार क्यों नहीं होता । राष्ट्रीय राजमार्गों पर तो चौबीस घंटे आवाजाही रहती है। अतः वहाँ की सड़कों की स्थिति तो ज्यादा अच्छी होनी चाहिए। अतः आपसे निवेदन है कि आप इस ओर विशेष ध्यान देंगे और उचित कदम उठाएंगे।
धन्यवाद।
भवदीय
क.ख.ग.

अथवा

5 अ, मॉडल टाउन
मालवीय नगर
जयपुर
दिनांक: 5 जुलाई 20XX
सेवा में
निदेशक महोदय
उद्यान विभाग
जयपुर।
विषय-वृक्षों के सूखने की सूचना देने हेतु।
महोदय
मैं मॉडल टाउन का निवासी हूँ। यह पत्र मैं आपको विशेष उद्देश्य से लिख रहा हूँ। हमारी कॉलोनी में वन-महोत्सव के अवसर पर वन विभाग की ओर से अनेक वृक्ष लगाए गए थे। हम सब ये जानते हैं कि वृक्ष हमारे और पृथ्वी के अस्तित्व के लिए कितने आवश्यक हैं। इससे हमें शुद्ध प्राणवायु तो मिलती ही है साथ ही वातावरण भी शुद्ध हो जाता है। पर यदि इन वृक्षों की उपेक्षा होने लगे तो सारे प्रयास व्यर्थ हो जाते हैं।
जी हां, मैं यही कहना चाहता हूँ कि आपके विभाग ने उस समय तो बड़े ही उत्साह से वृक्ष लगा दिए। कुछ समय तक तो सब कुछ ठीक रहा। पेड़ों को यथासंभव खाद-पानी दिया जाता रहा। इधर कुछ दिनों से इन सब कार्यों की अनदेखी हो रही है। न तो पेड़ों को समय पर पानी ही दिया जा रहा है और न ही उनमें खाद डाली जा रही है। उचित रखरखाव के अभाव में सारे पेड़ सूख रहे हैं। यदि अब भी इस ओर कोई कदम नहीं उठाए गए तो आपके प्रयास विफल हो जाएँगे। अतः मेरा आपसे निवेदन है कि आप इस ओर ध्यान दे ।
आपकी अत्यंत कृपा होगी।
धन्यवाद।
विनीत
क.ख.ग.

प्रश्न 3.
(क) कहानी और नाटक के मध्य अंतर को स्पष्ट कीजिए।
अथवा
अप्रत्याशित लेखन में किन बातों का ध्यान रखा जाता है? (3)
उत्तरः
कहानी और नाटक दोनों ही गद्य की विधाएँ हैं पर फिर भी समानता होते हुए भी इन दोनों में कुछ अंतर हैं जो निम्नलिखित हैं-

• कहानी एक ऐसी गद्य विधा है जो जीवन के किसी अंक विशेष का मनोरंजक चित्रण करती है जबकि नाटक ऐसी गद्य विधा है जो मंच पर अभिनीत की जाती है।
• कहानी का सीधा संबंध लेखक और पाठकों से होता है जबकि नाटक का सीधा संबंध लेखक, निर्देशक, दर्शक और श्रोता से होता है।
• कहानी कही या पढ़ी जाती है जबकि नाटक मंच पर अभिनीत किया जाता है इसलिए ये दर्शनीय होता है।
• कहानी का विभाजन आरंभ, मध्य और अंत के आधार पर होता है जबकि नाटक दृश्यों में विभाजित होता है।
• कहानी में मंच सज्जा, प्रकाश आदि का कोई महत्व नहीं होता जबकि नाटक मंच पर होता है इसलिए इसके लिए मंच सज्जा, प्रकाश आदि का अत्यंत महत्व होता है।

अथवा

अप्रत्याशित लेखन ऐसा लेखन होता है जिसके लिए कुछ भी पूर्व निर्धारित नहीं किया जा सकता। अतः इस प्रकार के लेखन में निम्नलिखित बातों का ध्यान रखा जाना चाहिए

• जिस विषय पर लिखना है उस विषय का लेखक को संपूर्ण ज्ञान होना चाहिए |
• विषय पर लिखने से पहले लेखक को उसकी रूपरेखा तैयार करनी चाहिए |
• जिन तथ्यों को लेखन में शामिल किया जाना है उन तथ्यों का विषय से उचित तालमेल होना चाहिए।
• विचार परस्पर संबंधित और एक दूसरे से जुड़े हुए होने चाहिए।
• अप्रत्याशित लेखन में ‘मैं’ शैली का होना आवश्यक है।
• इस प्रकार के लेखन में लेखक को विषय से हटकर अपने ज्ञान का प्रदर्शन नहीं करना चाहिए क्योंकि ऐसा करने से लेखन उबाऊ हो जाता है।
• लेखन के अंत में विषय का पूरा सार होना चाहिए।

(ख) रेडियो नाटक की क्या विशेषताएँ होती हैं?
अथवा
नाट्य रूपांतरण की प्रमुख समस्याओं को लिखिए। (2)
उत्तरः
रेडियो नाटक वे होते हैं जो रेडियो से प्रसारित किये जाते हैं इसलिए इनमें ध्वनि का प्रभाव और संवाद का विशेष महत्व होता है। रेडियो नाटक की विशेषताएँ निम्नलिखित हैं-

• रेडियो में संवाद का महत्वपूर्ण स्थान होता है इसलिए पात्रों से संबंधित सभी जानकरियां संवादों के माध्यम से मिलती हैं।
• पात्रों की चारित्रिक विशेषताएँ भी संवादों के माध्यम से मिलती हैं।
• नाटक के कथानक को भी संवाद ही प्रस्तुत करते
• कथा को ध्वनि प्रभावों और संवादों के माध्यम से ही श्रोताओं को सुनाया जाता है।
• संवादों के माध्यम से ही श्रोताओं को संदेश दिया जाता है।

अथवा
नाट्य रूपांतरण की प्रमुख समस्याएँ निम्नलिखित हैं

• कथानक को अभिनय के अनुरूप बनाने में समस्या आती है।
• कहानी के पात्रों के मनोभावों को कहानीकार द्वारा प्रस्तुत प्रसंग के आधार पर नाटकीय प्रस्तुति में परिवर्तित करने में सबसे बड़ी समस्या आती है।
• कहानी में दिए गए सामान को नाटकीय रूप प्रदान करने में समस्या आती है।
• संगीत और प्रकाश की व्यवस्था करने में समस्या आती है।

प्रश्न 4.
(क) ‘गुमसुम होती हारमोनियम की धुन’ पर फीचर लिखिए।
अथवा
‘विलुप्त होती गौरैया’. पर फीचर लिखिए। (3)
उत्तरः
आज समय इतना बदल गया है कि हमें टेबल, हारमोनियम, ढोलक आदि की थाप अब सुनाई ही नहीं देती। एक समय वो था जब टेबल की थाप को सुनकर अनायास ही ‘वाह ताज’ और ढोलक की आवाज पर भजन संध्या और शादी ब्याह के गीत सुनाई देने लगते थे। वीणा के तार, हारमोनियम की मधुर स्वर लहरी आज कही सुनाई ही नहीं देती। लोकगीत, भजन, बॉलीवुड फिल्मों के गानों का हिस्सा होने के बाद भी आज हारमोनियम एक स्वप्न बनकर रह गया है।

पहली सवाक फिल्म में गीत का आधार हारमोनियम ही था। इस फिल्म के गाने ने अपनी ऐसी अमिट छाप छोड़ी कि और फिल्मों में भी हारमोनियम को शामिल किया जाने लगा। फिल्म पड़ोसन, अपनापन आदि इसके अन्य उदाहरण रहे हैं। एक समय वह भी आया जब ढोलक की संगति के लिए हारमोनियम जरुरी बन गया था। इस प्रकार सभी प्रकार के उत्सवों और सामाजिक-धार्मिक आयोजनों में यह एक जरुरी साज बन गया था। अनेक फिल्मों के बैकग्राउंड संगीत के लिए हारमोनियम का प्रयोग किया जाने लगा। हारमोनियम ने सिनेमा की दुनिया में अनेक फिल्मों के प्रभाव को उच्च शिखर पर पहुँचाया। अब नए नए और आधुनिक संगीत के उपकरणों की भीड़ में डूबता हुआ हारमोनियम जैसा सधा हुआ उपकरण मानों कहीं खो-सा गया है। आज जरुरत है उसे भीड़ से बाहर निकालकर उसके अस्तित्व को बचाने की।

अथवा

एक समय था जब भोर होने से पहले ही चिड़ियों के चहचहाने से ही हमारी नींद खुलती थी और सवेरा होते ही कई प्रकार की चिड़ियाँ आँगन में मधुर ध्वनि में झंकार करने लगती थीं। इनमें से ही एक प्रमुख पक्षी है छोटी सी चोंच और भूरे पंखों वाली गौरैया। आज इन्सान के सबसे अधिक करीब रहने वाली ये चिड़िया हमारे बीच से कहीं गायब हो गई है। कभी नीम के पेड़ पर फुदकते हुए, कभी दालान में बिछे हुए गेहूँ को अपने मुँह में ले जाते हुए, जमीन पर बिखरे हुए चावल के दाने को अपनी चोंच से ले जाते हुए ये चिड़िया अक्सर ही नजर आ जाती थी। कभी दीवार पर लगे हुए आइने में अपनी शक्ल पर चोंच मारती तो कभी आँगन में बिछायी हुई खाट के चारों ओर झुंड बनाकर घूमना, सब आज गायब होता जा रहा है। अज उसी गौरैया की आमद कम हो गई है। इसने मानव का हर जगह साथ निभाया है। वह जहाँ-जहाँ भी गया गौरैया उसके साथ रही पर आज विज्ञान के विकास ने पर्यावरण के सामने इतनी विषम परिस्थिति ला दी हैं जिसके दुष्प्रभाव से पशु-पक्षी के साथ-साथ मानव भी अछूता नहीं है। अधिक तापमान को यह छोटी-सी चिड़िया सहन नहीं कर पाती। आबादी के बढ़ने के कारण आज वन संपदा नष्ट हो रही है और साथ ही लुप्त हो रही है मानव की सहचरी गौरैया। यदि हम इस ओर ध्यान न देंगे तो यह भी गिद्धों के समान केवल इतिहास के पन्नों या गूगल पर ही नजर आएगी।

(ख) ‘भारत में कृषि के लिए चुनौतियाँ’ पर आलेख लिखिए।
अथवा
‘कक्षा दसवीं की परीक्षा स्थगित’ विषय का समाचार लिखिए।
उत्तरः
(ख) आज जब देश में महँगाई अपने पैर पसारे हुए है तो अधिकांश जनता भुखमरी में अपना जीवन बिता रही है। आने वाले समय में तो स्थिति और भी बदतर हो सकती है। दिनोंदिन बढ़ने वाला वैश्विक तापमान कृषि क्षमता को लगातार गिराता जा रहा है। देखा जाए तो कृषि के लिए बिजली, पानी और ऊर्जा अत्यंत ही महत्वपूर्ण हैं। तापमान वृद्धि अधिकांश जलाशयों को सुखा रही है और मानव को जल संकट की समस्या से दो चार होना पड़ रहा है। खाद्य सुरक्षा, पानी और बिजली के बीच यह समस्या जलवायु परिवर्तन के कारण हो रही है। ऐसा भी अनुमान लगाया जा रहा है कि आनेवाले समय में कृषि के लिए बिजली की खपत कहीं ज्यादा बढ़ने वाली है और इस मांग को पूरा करना तो सबसे बड़ी समस्या के रूप में हमारे सामने है। इसका जवाब खोजने के लिए हमें पानी और बिजली के उपयोग को युक्तिसंगत बनाना होगा। इसके लिए भूजल को सिंचाई के काम में लेना होगा पर वह भी तब तक टिकाऊ नहीं है जब तक कि भूजल का संरक्षण नहीं किया जाए। साथ-ही-साथ किसानों को भी बीजों की पारंपरिक परंपरा की ओर आना होगा तभी इस समस्या को दूर किया जा सकता है।

अथवा

नई दिल्ली 2 मार्च 20XX
कल रात सी.बी.एस.ई. के वरिष्ठ सचिव ने संवाददाताओं को जानकारी दी कि आगामी आदेश तक दसवीं बोर्ड की सभी विषयों की परीक्षाएँ स्थगित की जाती हैं। ऐसा करने के पीछे मुख्य कारण कोरोना वायरस है। इस बीमारी का संक्रमण आज देश के अनेक राज्यों में अपने पाँव पसार चुका है। मुख्यतः यह संक्रमण रोग है इसलिए बोर्ड ने बच्चों की सुरक्षा को मद्देनजर रखते हुए यह फैसला लिया है कि फिलहाल बोर्ड की परीक्षाएँ स्थगित कर दी जाएँ। सी.बी.एस.ई. से संबद्धित सभी विद्यालयों को इस फैसले से संबंधित नोटिस भेज दिया गया है इसलिए विद्यार्थियों को चिंता न करते हुए तनावमुक्त रहना है और इस बीमारी से बचने के उपाय अपनाने चाहिए।

पाठ्यपुस्तक आरोह भाग-2 तथा अनुपूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक वितान भाग-2 [20 अंक]

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 × 2 = 6)

(क) ‘तेरे गम का पासे-अदब हैं कुछ दुनिया का खयाल भी हैं सबसे छिपा के दर्द के मारे चुपके-चुपके रो ले हैं, उपरोक्त पंक्तियों के आधार पर स्पष्ट कीजिए कि कवि चुपचाप रोने को क्यों उचित मानता है?
उत्तरः
कवि को अपनी प्रेमिका के गम का पूरा-पूरा ख्याल है। वह अपनी प्रेमिका की भावनाओं का सम्मान करता है परन्तु उसे संसार का भी पूरा ध्यान है। वह नहीं चाहता कि उसके और उसकी प्रेमिका के प्यार को संसार की बदनामी झेलनी पड़े। यदि वह हर जगह अपनी प्रेमिका के द्वारा दिए गए दुख को सबके सामने गाते रहेंगे तो दुनिया उनके प्रेम को बदनाम करेगी। इसलिए वह अपनी इस पीड़ा को अपने हृदय में छिपा लेते हैं और चुपचाप अकेले में रो लेते हैं। आशय यह है कि प्रेमी अपने दुख कोसंसार के सामने प्रकट नहीं करते।

(ख) ‘लक्ष्मण-मूर्छा और राम का विलाप’ कविता का प्रतिपाद्य स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तरः
लक्ष्मण को मूर्छित देखकर राम भाव-विहवल हो उठते हैं। वे आम व्यक्ति की तरह विलाप करने लगते हैं। वे लक्ष्मण को अपने साथ लाने के निर्णय पर भी पछताते हैं। वे लक्ष्मण के गुणों को याद करके रोते हैं। वे कहते हैं कि पुत्र, नारी, धन, परिवार आदि तो संसार में बार-बार मिल जाते हैं, किन्तु लक्ष्मण जैसा भाई दुबारा नहीं मिल सकता। लक्ष्मण के बिना वे स्वयं को पंख कटे पक्षी के समान असहाय, मणि रहित साँप के समान, तेज रहित तथा सूंड रहित हाथी के समान असक्षम मानते हैं। वे इस चिंता में थे कि अयोध्या में सुमित्रा माँ को क्या जवाब देंगे तथा लोगों का उपहास कैसे सुनेंगे कि पत्नी के लिए भाई को खो दिया।

(ग) तुलसीदास ने अपने युग की जिस दुर्दशा का चित्रण किया है उसका वर्णन अपने शब्दों में कीजिए।
उत्तरः
तुलसीदास के युग में लोगों के पास आजीविका के साधन नहीं थे। किसान की खेती चौपट रहती थी। भिखारी को भीख नहीं मिलती थी। दान-पुण्य के कार्य भी बंद हो गए थे। व्यापारियों के व्यापार ठप्प हो गए थे। लोगों को नौकरी नहीं मिल रही थी। सब ओर बेरोजगारी फैली हुई थी। लोगों के पास पेट भरने को भोजन नहीं था । बच्चे भूखे रोते रहते थे और माँ-बाप भोजन की आस लगाए रहते थे। आजीविका के साधन न होने से लोग दुखी थे और चिंता में डूबे हुए थे। दरिद्रता रुपी रावण से सब त्रस्त थे। अपनी निर्धनता को दूर करने का उन्हें कोई उपाय नजर नहीं आ रहा था।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित चार में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए (3 × 3 = 9)
(क) डॉ. आंबेडकर ने ‘समता’ को काल्पनिक वस्तु क्यों माना है और फिर इस पर बल देने के क्या कारण होंगे?
उत्तरः
डॉ. आंबेडकर का मानना है कि हर व्यक्ति प्राकृतिक रूप से समान नहीं होता क्योंकि जन्म, सामाजिक स्तर, तथा अपने प्रयत्नों के कारण हर व्यक्ति दूसरे से भिन्न और असमान होता है। अतः मनुष्य-मनुष्य की समानता को प्राकृतिक मानना उचित नहीं है। पूर्ण समता तो एक काल्पनिक स्थिति है पर सबको जीवन में आगे बढ़ने के समान अवसर मिलने चाहिए जिससे सब समरूप हो। किसी भी प्रकार का भेदभाव मनुष्य के व्यक्तित्व विकास में बाधक होता है इसलिए समानता के अवसर समान होने चाहिए। हमारा समाज इतना विशाल और विवधता लिए हुआ है। अतः यदि व्यावहारिक तौर पर देखा जाए तो सभी व्यक्तियों को आगे बढ़ने के समान अवसर मिले तो समाज वर्गविहीन और जातिविहीन हो सकता है। इसी कर्ण ‘समता’ को काल्पनिक वस्तु मानने के कारण भी आंबेडकर ने इस पर बल दिया है।

(ख) ‘नमक’ कहानी के संदेश को स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तरः
‘नमक’ कहानी यह संदेश देती है कि मानचित्र में बनी लकीरें ज़मीन को तो बाँट सकती हैं पर लोगों के दिलों को नहीं बाँट सकती। ज़मीन का विभाजन होने पर लोगों के आने-जाने पर प्रतिबन्ध लग सकता है। सत्तालोलुप राजनेताओं और कुछ धार्मिक कट्टरपंथियों ने भले ही भारत का विभाजन कर दिया हो पर सामान्य जनता आज भी इसे अपने हृदय से अस्वीकार ही करती है। इसी कारण भारत की सिख बीबी लाहौर से नमक को सौगात के रूप में पाना चाहती हैं। पाकिस्तानी कस्टम अधिकारी द्वारा दिल्ली को और भारतीय कस्टम अधिकारी द्वारा ढाका को अपना वतन मानना इसी बात का प्रमाण है कि लोग आज भी विभाजन को दिल से स्वीकार नहीं करते।

(ग) क्यों पता नहीं लगता कि कहाँ लाहौर खत्म हुआ और कहा अमृतसर शुरू हुआ?
उत्तरः
लेखक को लाहौर खत्म होने और अमृतसर शुरू होने का पाता इसलिए नहीं लग पाया क्योंकि लाहौर और अमृतसर के लोगों के स्वभाव, व्यवहार रहन-सहन, बातचीत, संस्कार आदि में कोई भी अंतर नहीं दिख रहा था। उनका पहनावा एक जैसा था। भाषा और बोलचाल का तरीका एक जैसा था । एक जैसी थी। उन्हीं गालियों से वे एक-दूसरे का स्वागत-सत्कार और तिरस्कार कर रहे थे। जबकि दोनों अलग-अलग देशों में स्थित हैं तथापि उनके दिलों में कोई अंतर नहीं है।

(घ) आंबेडकर की दृष्टि में लोकतंत्र क्या है?
उत्तरः
आंबेडकर की दृष्टि में लोकतंत्र भाईचारे का दूसरा नाम है। यह केवल शासन की एक पद्धति नहीं है बल्कि यह सामूहिक जीवनचर्या या जीवन जीने का एक ढंग है। इस प्रकार के समाज में आम लोग सम्मिलित होकर एक दूसरे का सम्मान करते उनके प्रति मन में श्रद्धा के भाव लेकर जीते हैं। आंबेडकर उसे लोकतंत्र कहते हैं जहाँ प्रत्येक व्यक्ति में अबाध संपर्क हो। ऐसे समाज में सभी के हितों में सभी का सहयोग होना चाहिए। सबको सभी की रक्षा के लिए सचेत रहे। संबंधों में कोई बंधन, जड़ता या रूढीबद्धता न होकर गतिशीलता हो। लोग एक-दूसरे के साथ ऐसे मिलतें जैसे दूध और पानी मिल जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 + 2 = 5)
(क) मुअनजोदड़ो और हड़प्पा के बारे में लेखक क्या बताता है?
अथवा
“काश, कोई तो होता जो मेरी भावनाओं को गंभीरता से समझ पाता। अफ़सोस, ऐसा व्यक्ति मुझे अब तक नहीं मिला…।” क्या आपको लगता है कि ऐन के इस कथन में उसके डायरी लेखन का कारण छिपा है? (3)
उत्तरः
मुअनजोदड़ो और हड़प्पा प्राचीन भारत के ही नहीं, दुनिया के दो सबसे पुराने नियोजित शहर माने जाते हैं। ये सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता के परवर्ती यानी परिपक्व दौर के शहर है। खुदाई में और शहर भी मिले हैं। लेकिन मुअनजोदड़ों ताम्र काल के शहरों में सबसे बड़ा है। वह सबसे उत्कृष्ट भी है। व्यापक खुदाई यहीं पर संभव हुई। बड़ी तादाद में इमारतें, सड़कें, धातु-पत्थर की मूर्तियाँ, चाक पर बने चित्रित भांडे, मुहरें, साजोसामान और खिलौने आदि मिले। सभ्यता का अध्ययन संभव हुआ। उधर सैकड़ों मील दूर हड़प्पा के ज्यादातर साक्ष्य रेललाइन बिछने के दौरान विकास की भेंट चढ़ गए।’ मुअनजोदड़ों के बारे में धारणा है कि अपने दौर में वह घाटी की सभ्यता का केंद्र रहा होगा। यानी एक तरह की राजधानी। माना जाता है। कि यह शहर दो सौ हेक्टर क्षेत्र में फैला था। आबादी कोई पचासी हजार थी। जाहिर है, पाँच हजार साल पहले यह आज के ‘महानगर’ की परिभाषा को भी लांघता होगा।

अथवा

हमें लगता है कि अकेलापन ही ऐन फ्रैंक के डायरी लेखन का कारण बना। यद्यपि वह अपने परिवार और वॉन दंपत्ति के साथ अज्ञातवास में दो वर्षों तक रही लेकिन इस दौरान किसी ने उसकी भावनाओं को समझने का प्रयास नहीं किया। पीटर यद्यपि उससे प्यार करता है लेकिन केवल दोस्त की तरह। जबकि हर किसी की शारीरिक जरूरतें होती हैं लेकिन पीटर उसकी इस जरूरत को नहीं समझ सका। माता-पिता और बहन ने भी कभी उसकी भावनाओं को गंभीरता से नहीं समझी। शायद इसी कारण वह डायरी लिखने लगी।

(ख) खुदाई के दौरान मुअनजोदड़ों से क्या-क्या मिला?
अथवा
संवाद-योजना की दृष्टि से ऐन की डायरी सफल एवं सार्थक रही है, सिद्ध कीजिए। (2)
उत्तरः
मुअनजोदड़ो से निकली वस्तुओं की पंजीकृत संख्या पचास हजार है। अहम चीजें तो आज कराची, लाहौर, दिल्ली और लंदन में रखी हुई हैं। मुठ्ठीभर चीजें यहाँ के अजायबघर में रखी हुई हैं जिनमें गेहूँ, ताँबे और काँसे के बर्तन, मुहरें, वाद्य यंत्र, चाक पर बने बड़े-बड़े मिट्टी के मटके, चौपड़ की गोटियाँ, दीये, माप तौल के पत्थर, ताँबे का शीशा, मिट्टी की बैलगाड़ी, दो पाटों वाली चक्की, मिट्टी के कंगन, मनकों वाले पत्थर के हार प्रमुख हैं। इस प्रकार खुदाई के दौरान बहुत-सी वस्तुएँ मिलीं जिनमें कुछ तो संग्रहालयों में चली गई और बाकी बची चोरी हो गई।

अथवा

यद्यपि डायरी में संवाद-योजना नहीं होती । लेखक या लेखिका केवल आत्मपूरक शैली में घटनाओं का क्रम से वर्णन करते हैं। लेकिन ऐन की इस डायरी की संवाद-योजना अनूठी है। 19 मार्च, 1943 को लिखी चिट्टी में उसने संवाद-योजना का प्रयोग किया है। जब हिटलर घायल सैनिकों से बातचीत कर रहे थे और हालचाल जान रहे थे तब संवाद-योजना का प्रयोग किया गया। प्रस्तुत है इस संवाद-योजना का एक उदाहरण “मेरा नाम हैनरिक शापेल हैं।” “आप कहाँ जख्मी हुए थे?” “स्नालिनग्राद के पास ।’ ‘किस किस्म का घाव है यह?” “दोनों पाँव बर्फ की वजह से गल गए हैं और बाएँ बाजू में हड्डी टूट गई है। इस प्रकार इस डायरी की संक्षिप्त संवाद-योजना स्वभाविक एवं सार्थक बन पड़ी है।

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Standard Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each; and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION – A
(Section A has 6 Questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
The following picture shows the roots of leguminous plants with root nodules harbouring a beneficial bacterium – Rhizobium.
How does Rhizobium acts as a biofertilizer and whg it is categorised as a symbiotic bacterium? (2)

Answer:
Rhizobium is a symbiotic bacterium that resides in the nodules present on the roots of leguminous plants and fixes atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogenous compounds that can be utilised by plants as nutrients. Such a relationship is beneficial to both bacteria and plant and thus called as symbiotic relationship.

Question 2.
(A) Why an antibody molecule represented as H₂L₂?
(B) A person suffers from sustained high fever, weakness, constipation, headache and loss of appetite. Identify the disease from which the person is suffering and also name the diagnostic test which confirms this disease. (2)
Answer:
(A) An antibody has four peptide chains i.e., two small chains called as light (L) chains and two longer chains called as heavy (H) chains. Therefore, an antibody is represented as H₂L₂.

Related Theory
Antibodies are a class of proteins also called as immunoglobulins that are produced when an antigen attacks the body. The different types of antibodies produced in our body are IgA, IgM, IgE, IgC.

(B) The person is suffering from Typhoid. The diagnostic test that confirms typhoid is Widal test.

Question 3.
There is a growing trend of organic farming and nowadays everyone is preferring organic products over conventional ones. How organic farming is advantageous over conventional farming?
OR
Why Nucleopolyhedrovirus serve as excellent biocontrol agents? (2)
Answer:
The conventional farming involves practices that use chemical methods to kill both useful and harmful life forms indiscriminately, whereas organic farming is a holistic approach, that is based on an understanding of the webs of interaction between the myriad of organisms that constitute the field fauna and flora. Also in organic farming, the insects (pests) are not eradicated, but instead are kept at manageable levels by controlling them via natural predation rather than introducing chemicals.
OR
Nucleopolyhedrovirus are excellent for species-specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal applications. They have no negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, fish or even on non-target insects, that is one of the desirable qualities in an overall integrated pest management (IPM), when beneficial insects are being conserved or when an ecologically sensitive area is being treated.

Question 4.
(A) Reema was studying about plasmids
and came across the term ‘marker gene’. What is the importance of a marker gene?
(B) Although the retroviruses cause severe diseases, yet they are efficiently used in genetic engineering experiments. Explain briefly how? (2)
Answer:
(A) Marker gene is used to determine that the
nucleic acid sequence has been successfully inserted into an organism’s DNA or not.

Related Theory
There are two sub-types of marker genes, i.e., a selectable marker and a screenable marker.

(B) When a retrovirus enters a host cell, it produces DNA from its RNA sequence with the help of an enzyme called reverse transcriptase. In genetic engineering experiments, the disease-causing gene is removed from retroviruses, therefore they can be used as vectors to deliver recombinant DNA into animal cells.

Related Theory
Retroviruses have RNA as their genetic material. Retrovirus DNA formed by reverse transcriptase is added to host cell genome, by an enzyme integrase. The retrovirus then continues to infect host celts and add genetic material to them, thus the retroviruses are useful in biotechnology to deliver desirable genes.

Question 5.
The Monarch Butterfly is avoided by predators and thus does not get eaten up. Why?
OR
Define commensalism and give one of its examples. (2)
Answer:
The Monarch Butterfly is avoided by predators because the butterfly is highly distasteful to its predator (birds). This butterfly has a special chemical in their body which they acquires during their caterpillar stage by feeding on a poisonous weed. These chemicals have fatal effect on the predator body.

Related Theory
During the larval stage monarch butterfly obtains nutrients by consuming milkweed leaves as its food, due to which it secretes a substance called cardiac glycosides, which have fatal effect on the predator body.
OR
The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called commensalism.
Example: An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango tree. The orchid gets shelter but derives no nutrition from the mango tree, while the mango tree is neither harmed nor benefitted.

Question 6.
The human activities are largely responsible
for the accelerated rates of species extinctions and the biological wealth of our planet has been declining rapidly. Mention any two human activities responsible for it. (2)
Answer:
The human activities that has led to loss of biodiversity are:

• Destruction of habitats of animals by humans.
• Over-exploitation of natural resources and their degradation.
• Alien species invasions: Through human activities, species of animals and plants have been introduced to new habitats all over the world. When these species manage to survive, they usually thrive and exclude native species through competition or predation.
• Hunting (Any two)

SECTION – B
(Section B has 6 Questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 7.
(A) The given picture shows a typical sewage
treatment plant. How is activated sludge produced during sewage treatment?

(B) During sewage treatment, the step of secondary treatment is called as biological treatment. Why? (3)
Answer:
(A) When the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen
Demand) of sewage or waste water is reduced significantly, the effluent is then passed into a settling tank where the bacterial ‘floes’ are allowed to sediment. This sediment is known as activated sludge.

(B) The secondary treatment is also known as biological Treatment because it involves the use of microbes (living organisms) for sewage treatment.

Question 8.
Reshma was studying about restriction enzymes and came across names of several restriction enzymes such as Sail, EcoRI, Pvul, etc. Describe the basic steps involved in the nomenclature of restriction enzymes.

Answer:
The restriction enzymes are named in the following manner:

• The first letter of the name comes from the genus.
• The second two letters come from the species of the prokaryotic cell from which the enzymes were isolated.
  Example: The restriction enzyme isolated from Escherichia coli RY 13 i.e., EcoRI – letter E comes from the genus Escherichia and the second two letters co comes from the species coli.
• The letter ‘R’ is derived from the name of strain in EcoRI.
• Roman numbers following the names indicate the order in which the enzymes were isolated from that strain of bacteria.

Question 9.
A genetically modified or transgenic variety of rice was created in 1990s to improve human health. Name the variety and the reason for which it was created. Also briefly explain how it was made and by whom. (3)
Answer:
Golden rice is a genetically modified or transgenic variety of Oryza sativa (rice), that has been developed as a fortified food for areas where there is a shortage of dietary vitamin A. It contains a precursor of pro-vitamin A, known as (3-carotene, which is introduced in the rice with the help of genetic engineering. The rice grains are golden yellow in colour due to p-carotene and thus called Golden rice. It was developed at Swiss Federal Institute of Technology by Professor Ingo Potrykus and Peter Beyer.

Related Theory
Although rice plant produces beta-carotene pigment naturally in its leaves, but it is absent in the seed endosperm, as the pigment helps in photosynthesis and photosynthesis do not takes place in endosperm. Since beta-carotene is the precursor of pro-vitamin A, it is introduced in rice variety. Compared to other vitamin supplements, it is a simple and less- expensive alternative. However, it is still not available for human consumption because of significant opposition from environmental activities.

Caution
While writing about golden rice remember that naturally rice is devoid of vitamin A, it is incorporated by genetic engineering only.

Question 10.
(A) In our childhood, we have heard the story of Koel and Crow in which Koel lays her eggs in the nest of a Crow. What is this phenomenon called as? Explain briefly.

(B) Why coral reefs are specifically found in Tamil Nadu on the east coast of India? (3)
Answer:
(A) The phenomenon is called as brood parasitism. It is a type of parasitism in which one organism i.e., the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of another organism (host) so that the host incubate them. The eggs of the parasitic bird have evolved to resemble the host’s egg in size and colour, so that the host bird cannot detect and eject the foreign eggs from the nest.

Example: The cuckoo (koel) acts as the parasite and the crow is the host during the breeding season (spring to summer).

(B) Coral reefs are specifically found in Tamil Nadu on the east coast of India because of high salinity, optimal temperature and less siltation, which are essential for the corals to colonise. If siltation and fresh water inflow are high, then corals do not colonise.

Related Theory
Siltation is the water pollution caused by soil erosion or sediment spill.

Question 11.
The German naturalist and geographer Alexander von Humboldt explored the wilderness of South American jungles. Based on his observations, he plotted a graph between species richness and area and gave the following relationship as shown in the graph below.
(A) What was his observation from the studies conducted?
(B) If Z represents the slope of the line (regression coefficient), then what is the significance of the slope of regression in a species – area relationship? (3)

Showing species area relationship. Note that on log scale the realtionship becomes liner
Answer:
(A) Alexander von Humboldt observed that
within a region, species richness increased with increasing explored area, but only up to a limit.

(B) The species-area relationship is found out using the slope. Slope of regression or regression coefficient is used to measure species richness along an area. In smaller regions, an analysis of species-area relationship shows that the value of slope of regression is the same irrespective of the taxonomic assemblage or the region. Whereas when analysis is carried out in large areas the slope of regression was found to be much steeper.

Question 12.
Sunita is surprised to see that in most of the gene cloning experiments £ coli is used as the host. Give three reasons for the extensive use of E. coli.
OR
Which three critical research areas of biotechnology are there? (3)
Answer:
E. coli is used extensively as host because:

• It does not contain any elements that interfere with replication and recombination of DNA.
• It is easy to transform and grow.
• It supports replication of inserted DNA.

OR
Three critical research areas of biotechnology

1. Best catalyst in the form of improved
2. Optimal conditions through engineering for organism usually a microbe or pure a catalyst to act are created, enzyme is provided.
3. The protein/organic compound are purified by downstream processing technologies.

SECTION – C
(Section C has a case-based question of 5 marks.)

Question 13.
Risha saw the poster given below pasted on a wall near her house. As she inquired about this from her mother, she told her that one should take precautions if he/she is suffering from common cold, etc., so that it does not spread to other people.
Based on this answer the questions that follow:

(A) To which category do the above shown disease/infection belong? Write any two modes of spread of such type of infection?
(B) What do you mean by droplet infection? Give two examples of disease that spread through droplet infection.
OR
Given below is the picture showing the legs of a person suffering from an infectious disease. Answer the questions that follow:
Based on this answer the questions that follow:

(A) Name the disease from which the person is suffering as shown in the picture.
(B) Which pathogen is responsible for causing the disease shown in the given picture?
(C) What is the mode of transmission of the disease shown in the picture?
(D) List any two symptoms of the disease depicted in the picture. (5)
Answer:
(A) The above shown disease/infection belongs to the category of infectious diseases. These are those diseases that are easily transmitted from one person to another via pathogens. These diseases are very common and every person suffers from them at some point of their life.

Example: AIDS, typhoid, common cold, etc. Infectious diseases spread through the following modes:

• Through air: The disease spread through droplets released in the air during sneezing or coughing Eg., common cold, tuberculosis.
• Through water: It can spread with intake of contaminated water, E.g., Cholera, Typhoid.
• Sexual contact: Can spread through sexual contact or the exchange of body fluids. Eg., Syphilis, AIDS.
• Through vectors: The infectious agent can be carried via animals like flies and mosquitoes from sick person to a healthy person. Eg., Rabies, Malaria
  (Any two)

(B) Droplet infection: When a person sneezes or coughs, the droplets are released in the air that can spread the infection to other person. These droplets of an infected person either contain saliva, sputum or nasal discharge which may be breathed in by healthy people and cause infection in them. Airborne diseases can have a droplet mode of transmission.
Example: Common cold, Flu, Diphtheria, Plague, Rubella, Covid-19. (Any two)
OR
(A) Elephantiasis is the disease from which the person is suffering as shown in the given picture.

(B) The pathogen or causative agent responsible for Elephantiasis is Wuchereria bancrofti and Wuchereria malayi (filarial worms).

(C) The Elephantiasis or Filariasis disease is transmiteu by the vector female Culex mosquko.

(D) The symptoms of Elephantiasis/Filariasis are as follows:

• Slowly developing chronic inflammation of the organs infected by these worms which are usually lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs.
• The genital organs also get affected thus causing gross deformities.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 10 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 35
Roll No. ___________

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D & E
• In section A, question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer type questions. Attempt any 3 questions.
• In section B, question number 4 is Source based question.
• In section C, question number 5 & 6 are Short Answer type questions.
• In section D, question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer type questions.
• In section E, question number 10 is a Map based question.

Section – A
Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State about high technology industries. (2)
Or
Identify some main characteristics of high technology industries.
Answer:
High technology, or simply high-tech, is the latest generation of manufacturing activities. It is best understood as the application of intensive Research and Development (R and D) efforts leading to the manufacture of products of an advanced scientific and engineering character.
Or
Some main characteristics of high technology industries are

• Neatly spaced, low, modern, dispersed, office-plant-lab buildings rather than massive assembly structures, factories and storage areas mark the high-tech industrial landscape.
• Planned business parks for high-tech start-ups have become part of regional and local development schemes.

Question 2.
State about Cape of Good Hope Sea route. (2)
Answer:
Cape of Good Hope sea route connects the highly industrialised Western European region with West Africa, South Africa, South-East Asia and the commercial agriculture and livestock economies of Australia and New Zealand. The volume of trade and traffic between both East and West Africa is on the increase due to the development of the rich natural resources such as gold, diamond, copper, tin, groundnut oil palm, coffee and fruits.

Question 3.
State any two advantages observed in agriculture of Rajasthan after the introduction of canal irrigation. (2)
Answer:
The advantages observed in agriculture of Rajasthan after the introduction of canal irrigation are

1. Introduction of canal irrigation has brought about a perceptible transformation in the agricultural economy of the region of Rajasthan.
2. The traditional crops sown in the area, gram, bajra and jowar have been replaced by wheat, cotton, groundnut and rice.

Section – B
Source Based Question

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the following questions by choosing the correct option India, which has a predominance of rural population (approximately 69 per cent of the total population in 2011) and where villages were considered the ideal republics by Mahatma Gandhi, most of the rural areas are still poor performing primary activities.

Here most of the villages exist as appendix to the core urban centre forming its hinterland. This may give an impression that urban centres exist as undifferentiated homogeneous entities in opposition to the rural areas. On the contrary, urban centres in India are more differentiated in terms of the socio-economic, politico-cultural and other indicators of development than any other areas.

At the top, there are farm houses and high income group localities characterised by well-developed urban infrastructures, like wide roads, streetlights, water and sanitation facilities, lawns, well-developed green belt, parks, playgrounds and provisions for individual security and right to privacy. At the other extreme of it are the slums, jhuggi-jhopari clusters and colonies of shanty structures.

These are inhabited by those people who were forced to migrate from the rural areas to these urban centres in search of livelihood but could not afford proper housing due to high rent and high costs of land. They occupy environmentally incompatible and degraded areas. Slums are residential areas of the least choice, dilapidated houses, poor hygienic conditions, poor ventilation, lack of basic amenities, like drinking water, light and toilet facilities, etc.

Open defecation, unregulated drainage system and overcrowded narrow street patterns are serious health and socio environmental hazards. Moreover, most of the slum population works in low-paid, high risk-prone, unorganised sectors of the urban economy.

Consequently, they are the undernourished, prone to different types of diseases and illness. Moreover, most of the slum population works in low-paid, high risk-prone, unorganised sectors of the urban economy. Consequently they are the undernourished, prone to different types of diseases and illness.

(i) Socio-economic and politico-cultural indicators that are common in developed localities are usually found in which set up? (1)
Answer:
Socio-economic and politico-cultural indicators that are common in developed localities are usually found in urban set up.

(ii) Well-developed infrastructures, like wide roads, streetlights, water and sanitation facilities, lawns, well-developed green belt, parks, playgrounds are generally present in which places? (1)
Answer:
Well-developed infrastructures like wide roads, streetlights, water and sanitation facilities, lawn, well-developed green belt, parks, playgrounds are generally present in high income group localities and urban centres.

(iii) What are the features which characterise slum population? (1)
Answer:
The features which characterise slum population are low income, high risk and disease prone environment.

Section – C
Short Answer Questions

Question 5.
Explain the evolution of land transport in the world. Or Describe the Trans-Canadian railways. (3)
Answer:
Land transport includes the rail and road transports. It includes movement of people and cargo over short and long distances. The revolution in land transport came about only after the invention of the steam engine in the eighteenth century. Perhaps the first public railway line was opened in 1825 between Stockton and Darlington in Northern England and then onwards, railways became the most popular and fastest form of transport in the nineteenth century.

It opened up continental interiors for commercial grain farming, mining and manufacturing in USA. The invention of the internal combustion engine revolutionised road transport in terms of road quality and vehicles (motor cars and trucks) plying over them. Among the newer developments in land transportation are pipelines, ropeways and cableways. Liquids like mineral oil, water, sludge and sewers are transported by pipelines. The great freight carriers are the railways, ocean vessels, barges, boats and motor trucks and pipelines.

Or

The Trans-Canadian railways is a 7,050 km long rail-line in Canada which runs from Halifax in the east to Vancouver on the Pacific Coast passing through Montreal, Ottawa, Winnipeg and Calgary (Fig. 8.6). It was constructed in 1886, initially as part of an agreement to make British Columbia on the west coast join the Federation of States.

Later on, it gained economic significance because it connected the Quebec-Montreal Industrial Region with the wheat belt of the Prairie Region and the Coniferous Forest region in the north. Thus, each of these regions became complementary to the other. A loop line from Winnipeg to Thunder Bay (Lake Superior) connects this rail-line with one of the important waterways of the world. This line is the economic artery of Canada. Wheat and meat are the important exports on this route.

Question 6.
How is conservation of minerals an important aspect of sustainable development? (3)
Answer:
Resource conservation by limiting use and recycling/reuse is critical for ensuring availability of resources and sustainable development. Conservation of minerals is important because traditional methods of resource use result into generating enormous quantity of waste as well as create other environmental problems.

Sustainable development requires protection of resources for the future generations. The alternative energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, geothermal energy are inexhaustible resource. These should be developed to replace the exhaustible resources. In case of metallic minerals, use of scrap metals will enable recycling of metals. Use of scrap is specially significant in metals like copper, lead and zinc in which India’s reserves are meagre.

Section – D
Long Answer Questions

Question 7.
Discuss about ‘services’ as a tertiary activity. (5)
Or
State some of the commonly engaged tourist destinations with relevant examples and underlying factors for selection of these destinations.
Answer:
Services are an important tertiary activity which occur at many different levels. Some services are geared to the industry, some to people, and some to both industry and people, e.g. the transport systems. Low-order services, such as grocery shops and laundries, are more common and widespread than high-order services or more specialised ones like those of accountants, consultants and physicians.

Services are provided to individual consumers who can afford to pay for them. For example, the gardener, the launderers and the barber do primarily physical labour. Teacher, lawyers, physicians, musicians and others perform mental labour. The location of recreational and entertainment services depends on the market. Multiplexes and restaurants might find location within or near the Central Business District (CBD), whereas a golf course would choose a site where land costs are lower than in the CBD.

Personal services are made available to the people to facilitate their work in daily life. The workers migrate from rural areas in search of employment and are unskilled. They are employed in domestic services as housekeepers, cooks and gardeners. This segment of workers is generally unorganised. One such example in India is Mumbai’s dabbawala (Tiffin) service provided to about 1,75,000 customers all over the city.

Or

There are several world famous tourist destinations pre-engaged based on their location, history, scenic beauty, etc. For example, Eiffle tower and Taj Mahal, Statue of Liberty. Cities with global tourist attractions are New York, Paris, Delhi, Sydney, Barcelona, Venice etc. Tourist also visit nature reserves and conservation areas such as Jim Corbett National Park, Yellow Stone National Park, etc. Some of the key underlying factors for the selection are

→ Climate Most people from colder regions expect to have warm, sunny weather for beach holidays. Examples are the Samudra Beach, the Lighthouse Beach, the Alleppey Beach in Kerala. People taking winter holidays have specific climatic requirements such as snow cover suitable for skiing.

→ Landscape Many people like to spend their holidays in an attractive environment, which often means mountains, lakes, spectacular sea coasts and landscapes not completely altered by man.

→ History and Art The history and art of an area have potential attractiveness. People visit ancient or picturesque towns and archaeological sites, and enjoy exploring castles, palaces and churches. Examples are Ajanta and Ellora caves in Maharashtra, Taj Mahal in Uttar Pradesh, Red fort in Delhi in India.

Question 8.
Elucidate the history of air transportation in India. (5)
Answer:
Air transport in India made a beginning in 1911 when airmail operation commenced over a little distance of 10 km between Allahabad and Naini. But its real development took place in post-Independent period. The four key historical stages in initiation of air transport in India were

1. 1911 Air transport in India was launched between Allahabad and Naini.
2. 1947 Air transport was provided by four major companies namely Indian National Airways, Tata Sons Limited, Air Services of India and Deccan Airways.
3. 1951 Four more companies joined the services, Bharat Airways, Himalayan Aviation Limited, Airways India and Kalinga Airlines.
4. 1953 Air transport was nationalised and two Corporations, Air India International and Indian Airlines were formed.

Now Indian Airlines is officially known as ‘Air India’. The Airport Authority of India is responsible for providing safe, efficient air traffic and aeronautical communication services in the Indian Air Space. The authority manages 125 airports. The air transport in India is managed by Air India and many private companies such as Indigo, Go First, Vistara, etc. Air India provides International Air Services for both passengers and cargo traffic. It connects all the continents of the world through its services.

Private airway companies have also started operations to foreign countries. Pawan Hans is the helicopter service operating in hilly areas and is widely used by tourists in north-eastern sector. In addition, Pawan Hans Limited mainly provides helicopter services to petroleum sector.

Question 9.
Describe the evolution of communication networks with emphasis on personal communication. (5)
Answer:
Communication network refers to the set up or methods in which an individual or organisation pass information among themselves. Human beings have evolved different methods of communication over time. In earlier times, when there was a lack of technology, the messages were delivered by beating the drum or hollow tree trunks, giving indications through smoke or fire or with the help of fast runners.

Horses, camels, dogs, birds and other animals were also used to send messages. Initially, the means of communication were also the means of transportation. Invention of post office, telegraph, printing press, telephone, satellite, etc has made the communication much faster and easier. Development in the field of science and technology has significantly contributed in bringing about revolution in the field of communication. People use different modes of communication to convey the messages.

Among all the personal communication system, internet is the most effective and advanced one. It is widely used in urban areas. It enables the user to establish direct contact through e-mail to get access to the world of knowledge and information. It is increasingly used for e-commerce and carrying out money transactions.

The internet is like a huge central warehouse of data, with detailed information on various items. The network through internet and e-mail provides an efficient access to information at a comparatively low cost. It enables us with the basic facilities of direct communication.

Section – E
Map Based Question

Question 10.
On the political map of India, locate and label the following features (Attempt any 5). (1 × 5 = 5)
(i) Koraput bauxite mines
(ii) Kolkata on the Golden Quadrilateral
(iii) Singhbhum copper mines
(iv) Shimoga manganese mine
(v) Raniganj coal mine
(vi) Important town of North-South corridor in Tamil Nadu
Answer:

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 10 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Standard Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION – A
(Section A has 6 Questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
Certain features are required to make a stable biological, community. List any two.
OR
List any two advantages of the IUCN Red List. (2)

Question 2.
(A) Mention the role of cyanobacteria in the paddy field that is beneficiaL for the rice crop.
(B) Who worked on the chemotherapeutic effectiveness of penicillin? (2)

Question 3.
Our body has different types of barriers as a part of innate immunity that prevents the entry of foreign agents. Name the type of barrier of Innate immunity, which involves:
(A) Macrophages
(B) Hcl of stomach (2)

Question 4.
The given picture shows the surface of the cultural, medium in a fermenter, which is having white foam Like substance known as flocs. (2)

(A) What is meant by flocs?
(B) What is a fermenter or bioreactor?

Question 5.
Name the organisms shown in the given picture and what kind of relationship they share? Describe briefly.

OR
State Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principe’. (2)

Question 6.
(A) Suman was confused to observe that the fruit juices that we prepare at home are not clear whereas bottled fruit juices appear cLearer. Give reason for this.
(B) How statins help in Lowering the bLood cholesterol Level? (2)

SECTION – B
(Section B has 6 Questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 7.
List any three factors by which the health of an individual is affected. (3)

Question 8.
Represent diagrammatically the technique of recombinant DNA technology. (3)

Question 9.
The given picture shows one of the symptoms of a fungal disease that is caused by Microsporum. Name the disease and also write its mode of transmission and symptoms. (3)

Question 10.
(A) Reema was conducting an experiment using a PCR machine. By mistake, she missed the PCR denaturation step and as a result, could not achieve the goals of her experiment. Elaborate the reason.
(B) After the process of gel electrophoresis, the DNA needs to be extracted. By which process this is done?
OR
Give three points of difference between plasmid DNA and chromosomal DNA. (3)

Question 11.
In a pond there were 30 water hyacinth plants. 10 new water hyacinth plants were added in a year through the process of reproduction. Calculate the birth rate of the population and also define birth rate. (3)

Question 12.
Threatened species are the species which are vulnerable to endangerment in the near future. But these species can be saved by using different techniques to protect their gametes. Describe any three methods used for protection of gametes of threatened species. (3)

SECTION – C
(Section C has a case-based question of 5 marks.)

Question 13.
The given picture depicts the effect of an insect-resistant plant on the pests. It shows how insecticidal proteins are produced by the plants that specifically kill the insect larva and thus save the plant from infection. Based on this answer the following questions:

(A)
(i) Which organism is responsible for the production of an insect-resistant transgenic cotton by inserting a piece of DNA?
(ii) What is the trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis inside insect?
(iii) What are Cry genes? In which organism are they found?

(B) Bt tobacco was first cultured to kill which worm.
(i) Human lymphocytes
(ii) Plant cells
OR
The following picture shows a tobacco plant infected with a nematode. Answer the questions that follow: (5)

(A) Which part of tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?
(B) Which vector is popularly used to transfer nematode-specific genes into the tobacco plants?
(C) How are tobacco plants benefited when nematode-specific genes are introduced into them using certain vectors? Name the vector used.
(D) What is the role of Agrobacterium in the production of dsRNA in tobacco plant?

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Standard Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each; and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION – A
(Section A has 6 Questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
(A) During a discussion on biodiversity, the
teacher showed the following picture of Amazon rainforest and labelled it as Lungs of the Planet. Why Amazon rainforest are termed as ‘Lungs of the Planet’?

(B) Name any two biodiversity hotspots of India. (2)
Answer:
(A) Among all the rainforests found on Earth, the largest one is Amazon rainforest. In Amazon rainforest, billions of tree and plant species are present. They take in tonnes of carbon dioxide and converts it to oxygen. This rainforests contributes about 18% to 20% of the world oxygen. Thus, they are considered as the lungs of the planet.

Related Theory
Rainforests refer to those forests where there is continuous rainfalL It constitute some of the globe’s most important ecosystems and environments. The globe’s rainforests cover nearly 2% of the earth’s total surface area and host more than 50% of the world’s animals and plants.

(B) The two biodiversity hotspots of India are:

1. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
2. Indo-Burma
3. Himalaya (Any two)

Question 2.
(A) Reema was buying vegetables from the
supermarket and she noticed one of the labels as GM foods. What do you mean by GM foods?
(B) Many multinational companies use bioresources without authorization from the concerned country and its people.
What is this practice called? (2)
Answer:
(A) Genetically modified (GM) foods are defined as the foods that are derived from organisms whose genetic material (DNA) has been manipulated by incorporating a gene that will express a desirable trait.

Related Theory
The organisms in which DNA is manipulated are known as genetically modified organisms/transgenic/ genetically engineered.

(B) The practice of exploiting the bioresources by the multinational companies and organizations without authorization from the concerned country and its people is called as Biopiracy.

Question 3.
What is the role of microbes in producing the following types of cheese?
(A) Swiss cheese
(B) Roquefort cheese
OR
Why eradication of insect pests is not recommended by organic farmers? (2)
Answer:
(A) ‘Swiss cheese’: in this kind of cheese the
large holes are formed due to production of a large amount of CO₂ by a bacterium named Propionibacterium shermanii.

(B) ‘Roquefort cheese’: are ripened by growing a specific fungus known as Penicillium roqueforti on them, that gives them a particular flavour.
OR
Organic farmers believe that ‘biodiversity furthers health’. They do not recommend eradication of insect pests because in their absence the beneficial predatory and parasitic insects that depend on them as food or hosts would not be able to survive.

Related Theory
Organic farming requires the knowledge and understanding of various life forms present in the field such as predators, pests, their life cycles, patterns of feeding and the habitats that they prefer, so that they can be used in biocontrol measures. Ultimately, this will greatly reduce our dependence on toxic and harmful chemicals and pesticides.

Question 4.
The given diagram shows the release of histamine near an injury site in the body. Discuss the role of histamine in inflammatory response.

Explain the role of lymph nodes (secondary lymphoid organs) in our immune system. 2
Answer:
Histamine is released by basophils and mast cells as a part of local immune response in order to cause inflammation. Histamine is an organic nitrogenous compound. Release of histamine causes the capillaries to become more permeable to the WBCs and as a result they attack the foreign bodies in the affected areas. Therefore, histamine causes inflammation so that other chemicals are also released out and help in the repair work.
OR
Lymph nodes are small solid structures that are present at different points along the lymphatic system. The function of the lymph nodes is to trap the microorganisms or other antigens that enters the lymph and tissue fluid. As a result, the antigens that are trapped in the Lymph nodes, bring about the activation of lymphocytes present there and thus elicit the immune response.

Related Theory
Secondary lymphoid organs are the sites where interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen takes place, which then proliferate and develop to become effector cells.

Question 5.
(A) Ruminant animals like cattle harbour methanogens in their rumen (a part of their digestive tract). What is the function of these methanogens?
(B) How Lactobacillus bacteria improve the nutritional quality of curd? (2)
Answer:
(A) Methanogens (anaerobic microbes) help in the digestion of cellulose in the rumen of the cattle.

(B) Lactobacillus bacteria improve the nutritional quality of curd by increasing the amount of a nutrient, Vitamin B₁₂.

Question 6.
Tobacco smoking is very harmful for the person’s health as it leads to severe consequences like oxygen deficiency in blood. How does tobacco smoking lead to oxygen deficiency in human body? (2)
Answer:
There is an increase in the content of carbon monoxide (CO) in the blood of the person who smokes tobacco. CO has greater affinity to haemoglobin than oxygen and forms a stable bond with haemoglobin and does not allow oxygen to bind. This results in reduction of oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin. As a result, this reduces the content of haemoglobin bound oxygen and leads to oxygen deficiency in human body.

Related Theory
Due to tobacco smoking less oxygen reaches the mind, heart, muscle tissue and different organs. Therefore, lung function is reduced due to the narrowing of the lung airways and extra mucus in the lungs. Smoking also damages alveolar walls, which reduces respiratory surface (emphysema).

SECTION – B
(Section B has 6 Questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 7.
(A) The following picture shows the roots of a tobacco plant infected with nematode MeLoidogyne incognita, which decreases the yield and quality of tobacco plants. How the nematode infection in the roots of tobacco plants controlled with the process of RNA interference?

(B) A cow named “Rosie” was a transgenic cow. Why it is considered to be different from a normal cow?
OR
Enlist any three transgenic organisms and their application. 3
Answer:
(A) In the technique of RNA interference or gene silencing, nematode specific genes/ DNA is introduced in the host plant. This DNA then produces two types of RNA – sense and anti-sense RNA. As a result, these two strands of RNA, binds with each other to form a double-stranded RNA as they both are complementary to each other in sequence. Since dsRNA cannot translate, as a result, its expression is blocked and thus it leads to RNA interference. Therefore, the mRNA of nematode is silenced and the parasite cannot survive in the transgenic host.

Related Theory
The roots of tobacco plants are infected by a nematode Meloidogyne incognita.

(B) The transgenic cow “Rosie” do not produce only normal milk like other cows, but it produced human protein-enriched milk (2.4 g/L). Human alpha-lactalbumin was present in the milk and was nutritionally a more balanced product for human babies than natural cow-milk.

Related Theory
Rosie was the first transgenic cow created in 1997.

Caution
Students should remember that Rosie was the first transgenic cow, but the first transgenic animal was a mouse. Almost 95% of all transgenic animals are mice. These transgenic mice are developed for the purpose of studying human physiology and development.
OR
Following table shows the transgenic organisms and their application;

Transgenic organism	Application
Flavr Savr Tomato	This transgenic variety of tomato have increased shelf life due to delayed ripening and better nutrient quality.
Bt Cotton	The transgenic cotton plant is pest resistant, herbicide tolerant and gives high yield.
Cattles (cow, sheep, goat)	The transgenic animal produces therapeutic human proteins in their milk.

Question 8.
A hypothesis was proposed to explain the importance of biodiversity for survival of species. Who gave this hypothesis? Explain the hypothesis briefly. (3)
Answer:
Paul Ehrlich, a Stanford ecologist, gave ‘rivet popper hypothesis’ to explain the importance of biodiversity for survival of species.

• In his hypothesis, he considered the ecosystem as an airplane, in which all parts are joined together using thousands of rivets (species).
• If every passenger, travelling in it, starts popping a rivet to take home (causing a species to become extinct), it may not affect flight safety (proper functioning of the ecosystem) initially, but as more and more rivets are removed, the plane becomes dangerously weak over a period of time.
• Also, which rivet is removed may also be critical. For example, loss of rivets on the wings (key species that drive major ecosystem functions) is obviously a more serious threat to flight safety than loss of a few rivets on the seats or windows inside the plane.

Question 9.
Akshat became curious after seeing a very large vessel in a factory in which millions of microorganisms were cultured to produce a recombinant protein. The scientists told him that it was a bioreactor. Can you define bioreactor for him? Also, list the various components of a bioreactor. (3)
Answer:
To produce the cloned gene of interest on a large scale, the large volume vessels called as bioreactors, having a capacity of approximately 100-1000 liters are used, in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products, individual enzymes, etc., using microbial plant, qnimal or human cells. The various components of a bioreactor are:

• Agitator system
• Oxygen delivery system
• Foam control system
• Temperature and pH control system
• Sampling port to withdraw periodically.

Related Theory
A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for producing the desired product by providing optimum growth conditions like temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins and oxygen.

Question 10.
An instructor showed a slide to students depicting Anabaena and a picture of mycorrhiza, both of which act as biofertilisers. How do Anabaena and mycorrhiza act as biofertilisers? (3)

Answer:
Fungi form symbiotic associations with plants which are known as mycorrhiza. In such associations, the fungal symbiont absorbs phosphorus from soil and transfers it to the plant. Many members of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza.

Cyanobacteria are the autotrophic microbes that are found in aquatic and terrestrial environments. Many of them can fix atmospheric nitrogen, for example: Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria, etc., and serve as an important biofertilizer in paddy (rice) fields. Cyanobacteria also add organic matter to the soil and thereby increases its fertility.

Related Theory
Biofertilisers are organisms which enrich the nutrient quality of the soil by increasing the availability of nutrients to the crops.

Question 11.
(A) Give reasons for the following:

• Enzyme cellulose is needed to isolate genetic material from plant cells and not from animal cells.
• Exonuclease are not used for creating a recombinant DNA molecule.

(B) Who were responsible for the synthesis of first recombinant DNA molecule and in which year? (3)
Answer:
(A) (i) The plant cell wall is made up of cellulose, therefore, in order to digest cellulosic cell wall the enzyme cellulose is used, whereas the animal cells lack a cell wall and thus they do not need this enzyme.
(ii) Exonucleases are not used for creating rDNA molecule because they only remove the nucleotides from the ends of DNA molecule and not at any particular desired site/region within DNA.

(B) In 1972, Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer synthesized the first recombinant DNA molecule.

Question 12.
Classify the following diseases as infectious diseases and non-infectious disease. Also mention the basis of your classification. (3)
(a) Scurvy
(b) Cancer
(c) Syphilis
(d) AIDS
Answer:
Infectious diseases – Syphilis, AIDS
Non-lnfectious diseases – Scurvy, Cancer Basis of classification: Infectious diseases are those diseases that are easily transmitted from one person to another via pathogens. Non- infectious diseases are those which cannot be transmitted from one person to another and are not caused by pathogens. The cause of such diseases are nutritional deficiencies, malfunctioning of organs, etc.

Related Theory
Since infectious diseases are transmitted from one person to another via pathogens, such as, the cause of Syphilis is a bacterium called Treponema pallidum and AIDS spreads through Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).

Caution
In case of non-infectious diseases, pathogens are do not play any role, such as Scurvy is caused by Vitamin C deficiency and cancer is caused by Oncogenic transformation of cells due to carcinogens such as X-rays, UV rays, etc.

SECTION – C
(Section C has a case-based question of 5 marks.)

Question 13.
The given picture depicts an animal named kangaroo rat that seldom drinks water. It has a thick coat to minimise evaporation and rarely comes out of its humid and cool burrow during day time. 90% of its water requirement is met by metabolic water which is produced by respiratory breakdown of fats whereas 10% is obtained from the food. It conserves water by producing almost solid urine and faeces.
Based on this answer the following questions:

(A) Kangaroo rats live in deserts, which are very hot and dry. How does the kangaroo rat get the water it needs?

(B) Due to the adaptations shown by Kangaroo rat, it is said to be a regulator. Justify the statement by defining it.

(C) Kangaroo rat is able to perform homeostasis. How would you define homeostasis?

(D) List any two adaptations of kangaroo rat that helps it to survive in a hot and dry climate.
OR
The teacher presented the following two pictures to her students in order to make them understand about the carrying capacity of a population.
Based on this answer the following questions:

(A) Which factors are responsible for decreasing the density of a population in a given habitat?
(B) Which growth curve is followed by human population?
(C) What does niche overlap indicates?
(D) Differentiate between immigration and emigration. (5)
Answer:
(A) Kangaroo rat get the water from the seeds it eats.
Explanation: Kangaroo rats get the water they need from food. They eat mostly seeds. 90% of its water requirement is met by metabolic water which is produced by respiratory breakdown of fats whereas 10% is obtained from the food.

(B) Kangaroo rat is a regulator because it performs homeostasis with the help of thermoregulation and osmoregulation by behavioural changes and physiological adjustments.

(C) Homeostasis is the process by which the organisms try to maintain the constancy of its internal environment despite varying external environmental conditions.

(D) The kangaroo rat is adapted to desert Life. The adaptations are as follows:
(i) They can survive without drinking water, by getting moisture from their fatty seed diet.
(ii) Produce concentrated urine and do not use water for regulation of body temperature.

OR
(A) The factors that are responsible for decreasing the density of a population in a given habitat are mortality and emigration.

(B) S-shaped growth curve is followed by human population.

(C) Niche overlap indicates that there is sharing of one or more resources between the two species.
(D)

Immigration	Emigration
It can be defined as the number of individuals of the same species that have entered into the habitat from outside during the time period under consideration.	It is defined as the number of individuals of the particular population who left the habitat and moved elsewhere during the time period under consideration.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 11 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Standard Term 2 Set 11 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each; and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION – A
(Section A has 6 Questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
(A) Name the fish that help in eradication of mosquito larvae?
(B) Give a scientific term to the disease that jumps from a non-human animal to a human? Give one example. (2)

Question 2.
The given picture shows a Calotropis plant growing in a field, which is said to be not eaten or browsed by cattle and goats. Why is it so? Give reasons.

OR
Write any two adaptations of Cuscuta as a parasitic plant. (2)

Question 3.
A teacher showed the given picture to explain the difference between the action of B-cells and T-cells.
Mention the site of maturation of B-cells and T-cells. Also, give one difference between them. (2)

Question 4.
(A) Having started working in a research-based organization, Ritesh was confused between the terms genetically modified organisms and transgenic organisms. Are these two terms different or similar? Define them.
(B) There is an increase in the production of recombinant therapeutics worldwide. What is the advantage of using these recombinant therapeutics? (2)

Question 5.
Explain microbial biocontrol with an example.
OR
What do you mean by biofertilizers and why there is a pressure to shift to organic farming? (2)

Question 6.
Name the following:
(A) A species of virus used as biological control agents.
(B) Type of association that the genus Glomus exhibits with higher plants. (2)

SECTION – B
(Section B has 6 Questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 7.
(A) Reema just recovered from typhoid which is a water-borne infection. What measures should be taken to prevent such water-borne diseases?
(B) Why diseases like cholera, dysentery, typhoid, etc, are more common in overcrowded places? (3)

Question 8.
The mangroves are adapted to the conditions prevailing in Sundarbans as shown in the picture. Name and explain any three adaptations of mangroves.

OR
(A) What are tropical rainforests?
(B) In India many plant species are found in tropical forests. Name any two dominant plant species.
(C) Give reasons, why the soil of tropical deciduous forests is richer in nutrients as compared to tropical rainforests? (3)

Question 9.
(A) Earlier insulin used for the treatment of diabetes was extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs, but such insulin caused allergies in some patients. How this problem was overcome? Explain.
(B) The Ministry of Environment and Forests in India has set up an organization known as Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC). Write any two objectives of GEAC. (3)

Question 10.
(A) For a cloning vector to be successful in rDNA technology, it must have several desirable properties such as origin of replication, selectable marker, etc. If in an experiment, the chosen plasmid vector lacks a selectable marker, what would be its effect on the experiment?
(B) With the use of rDNA technology, which limitation of traditional hybridization used for plant and animal breeding has overcome? (3)

Question 11.
(A) State what happens when a foreign gene is ligated in the following sites of pBR322 plasmid?
(i) Sail
(ii) Paul
(B) Why alkaline phosphatase enzyme is used in rDNA technology to remove the phosphate group present at the 5’ end of a DNA molecule leaving a free 5’ hydroxyl group? (3)

Question 12.
Why are some molecules called bioactive molecules? Give two examples of such molecules. (3)

SECTION – C
(Section C has a case-based question of 5 marks.)

Question 13.
Helianthus paradoxus or puzzle sunflower is a threatened species of sunflower as shown in the picture below.
The Puzzle Sunflower with narrow habitat requirements, only occurring in highly saline wetlands within deserts.

These wetlands are continuously threatened by habitat degradation, groundwater withdrawal, competition from non-native species, grazing, and gas exploration.

(A) Helianthus paradoxus is a threatened species of sunflower. What do you mean by threatened species? (1)
(B) Name one endangered species of an Indian medicinal plant. (1)
(C) Define cryopreservation as a method of protection of threatened species. (1)
(D) In India, red list of plant species is prepared by Botanical Survey of India. Where is the headquarters of Botanical Survey of India located and what is its function? (2)
OR
When there is excessive exploitation of species, whether it is a plant or animal, it results in reduction of the size of its population and thus it becomes vulnerable to extinction. For example, Dodo and passenger pigeons have become extinct due to over-exploitation by humans.

The world is facing accelerated rates of species extinctions, Largely due to human interference.
(A) Name one species have become extinct due to overexploitation in Russia. (1)
(B) Which region of the globe have highest species diversity? (1)
(C) Which regions are termed as hotspots of biodiversity? (1)
(D) List any two causes of loss of biodiversity. (5)

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 9 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 35
Roll No. ___________

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D & E
• In section A, question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer type questions. Attempt any 3 questions.
• In section B, question number 4 is Source based question.
• In section C, question number 5 & 6 are Short Answer type questions.
• In section D, question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer type questions.
• In section E, question number 10 is a Map based question.

Section – A
Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe the Trans-Siberian Railways mentioning all its important routes and stations. (2)
Or
Why are sea routes considered an important type of water transport?
Answer:
The Trans-Siberian Railways is major rail route of Russia which runs from St. Petersburg in the west to Vladivostok on the Pacific Coast in the east passing through Moscow, Ufa, Novosibirsk, Irkutsk, Chita and Khabarovsk. It is the most important route in Asia and the longest (9,332 km) double-tracked and electrified TransContinental Railway in the world. It runs across the Ural Mountains Ob and Yenisei rivers Chita is an important agrocentre and Irkutsk, a fur centre. Sea routes considered an important type of water transport because

• The oceans offer a smooth highway traversable in all directions with no maintenance costs.
• Compared to land and air, ocean transport is a cheaper means of haulage (carrying of load) of bulky material over long distances from one continent to another.

Question 2.
Identify the important minerals required for the production of nuclear energy and outline their distribution in India.
Answer:
Important minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy are uranium and thorium. Uranium deposits occur in the Dharwar rocks. Geographically, uranium ores are known to occur in several locations along the Singbhum Copper belt. Thorium is mainly obtained from monazite and ilmenite in the beach sands along the coast of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
Discuss the highways of China and India.
Answer:
In China, highways criss-cross the country connecting all major cities such as Tsungtso (near Vietnam boundary), Shanghai (central China), Guangzhou (south) and Beijing (north). A new highway links Chengdu with Lhasa in Tibet. In India, there are many highways linking the major towns and cities. For example, National Highway No. 7 (NH 7), connecting Varanasi with Kanya Kumari, is the longest in the country.

Section – B
Source Based Question

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the following questions by choosing the correct options.
Oil and Gas Pipelines. Pipelines are the most convenient and efficient mode of transporting liquids and gases over long distances. Even solids can also be transported by pipelines after converting them into slurry.

Oil India Limited (OIL) under the administrative set up of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is engaged in the exploration, production and transportation of crude oil and natural gas. It was incorporated in 1959 as a company. Asia’s first cross country pipeline covering a distance of 1,157 km was constructed by OIL from Naharkatiya oilfield in Assam to Barauni refinery in Bihar. It was further extended up to Kanpur in 1966.

Another extensive network of pipelines has been constructed in the western region of India of which Ankleshwar-Koyali, Mumbai High Koyali and Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur (HVJ) are most important. Recently, a 1256 km long pipeline connecting Salaya (Gujarat) with Mathura (UP) has been constructed. It supplies crude oil from Gujarat to Punjab (Jalandhar) via Mathura. OIL is in the process of constructing of 660 km long pipeline from Numaligarh to Siliguri.

i. Oil and gas are examples of which source of energy?
Answer:
Oil and gas are examples of non-renewable and exhaustible source of energy.

ii. Asia’s first cross country pipeline constructed by OIL connects which places?
Answer:
Asia’s first cross country pipeline was constructed by OIL connects Naharkatiya oilfield in Assam to Barauni refinery in Bihar and Kanpur.

iii. Oil India Limited was listed as a company in 1959. It is under which ministry?
Answer:
Oil India Limited was listed as a company in 1959. It is under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

Section – C
Short Answer Questions

Question 5.
Explain the ways in which landscape, history, art, culture and economy contribute to
tourism of a region.
Or
Explain how services occur at different levels and how are they regulated?
Answer:
Landscape, history, art, culture and economy contribute to tourism of a region in a following ways

Landscape Many people like to spend their holidays in an attractive environment, which often means mountains, lakes, spectacular sea coasts and landscapes not completely altered by man.

History and Art The history and art of an area have potential attractiveness. People visit ancient or picturesque towns and archaeological sites, and enjoy exploring castles, palaces and churches.

Culture and Economy These attract tourists with a penchant for experiencing ethnic and local customs. Besides, if a region provides for the needs of tourists at a cheap cost, it is likely to become very popular. Home-stay has emerged as a profitable business such as heritage homes in Goa, Madikere and Coorg in Karnataka.
Or
Services occur at many different levels. Some are geared to industry, some to people, and some to both industry and people, e.g. the transport systems. Low-order services, such as grocery shops and laundries, are more common and widespread than high-order services or more specialised ones like those of accountants, consultants and physicians.

Services are provided to individual consumers who can afford to pay for them. For example, the gardener, the launderers and the barber do primarily physical labour. Teacher, lawyers, physicians, musicians and others perform mental labour. Many services have now been regulated, for example

Making and maintaining highways and bridges, maintaining fire fighting departments and supplying or supervising education and customercare are among the important services most often supervised or performed by governments or companies. . State and union legislation have established corporations to supervise and control the marketing of such services as transport, telecommunication, energy and water supply.

Question 6.
Describe the railway network of Europe.
Answer:
Europe has one of the most dense rail networks in the world. There are about 4,40,000 km of railways, most of which is double or multiple-tracked. Belgium has the highest density of 1 km of railway for every 6.5 sq kms area. The industrial regions exhibit some of the highest densities in the world. The important rail heads are London, Paris, Brussels, Milan, Berlin and Warsaw.

Passenger transport is more important than freight in many of these countries. Underground railways are important in London and Paris. Channel Tunnel, operated by Euro Tunnel Group through England, connects London with Paris. Trans-continental railway lines have now lost their importance to quicker and more flexible transport systems of airways and roadways.

Section – D
This section consists of 3 questions of Long Answer Type
Long Answer Questions

Question 7.
Highlight the importance of tourism as a service ‘tertiary’ activity. What are the factors affecting tourism?
Or
What are the quaternary and quinary sectors of an economy?
Answer:
Tourism is travel undertaken for purposes of recreation rather than business. It is highly important because

It is the world’s single largest tertiary activity in total registered jobs (250 million) and total revenue (40 per cent of the total GDP)

Many local persons, are employed to provide services like accommodation, meals, transport, entertainment and special shops serving the tourists at the tourist location.

Tourism fosters the growth of infrastructure industries, retail trading, and craft industries (souvenirs). Factors affecting tourism are

Demand Since the last century, the demand for holidays has increased rapidly. Improvements in the standard of living and increased leisure time, permit many more people to go on holidays for leisure.

Transport The opening-up of tourist areas has been aided by improvement in transport facilities. Travel is easier by car, with better road systems. More significant in recent years has been the expansion in air transport. For example, air travel allows one to travel anywhere in the world in a few hours of flying time from their homes. The advent of package holidays has reduced the costs.
Or
Quaternary Sector Quaternary sector involve the collection, production and dissemination of information or even the production of information. Quaternary activities centre around research, development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialised knowledge and technical skills.

Quaternary activities can consist of Information Technology (IT), media, Research and Development (R&D), information-based services such as information-generation and information-sharing and knowledge-based services such as consultation, education, financial planning and designing. The Quaternary Sector along with the Tertiary

Sector has replaced most of the primary and secondary employment as the basis for economic growth. Quinary Sector Quinary sector include the highest level of decision makers or policy makers. These are subtly different from the knowledge based industries that the quinary sector in general deals with. Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas; data interpretation and the use and evaluation of new technologies.

Question 8.
Discuss water pollution along with sources of pollution and its effects.
Answer:
Water pollution refers to a state where the natural taste, colour and odour of the water is contaminated.

Sources of Water Pollution

Water pollution can be caused by both natural and anthropogenic (human) sources. Natural sources include contamination from erosion, landslides, decay and decomposition of plants and animals, etc. Anthropogenic sources include contamination through industrial, agricultural and cultural activities.

Industries produce several undesirable products including industrial wastes, polluted waste water, poisonous gases, chemical residuals, numerous heavy metals, dust, smoke, etc. Major water polluting industries are leather, pulp and paper, textiles and chemicals.

Various types of chemicals used in modern agriculture such as inorganic fertilisers, pesticides and herbicides are also pollution generating components.

Cultural activities such as pilgrimage, religious fairs, tourism, etc. also cause water pollution. In India, almost all surface water sources are contaminated and unfit for human consumption.

Effects of Water Pollution

Water pollution is a source of various water-borne diseases.

Heavy metal contamination in polluted water such as mercury, arsenic and cadmium contamination can cause severe acute and chronic effects on human including Gastrointestinal and kidney dysfunction, nervous system disorders, skin lesions, and cancer, etc.

Question 9.
Rapid growing population is resulting in an equivalent increase in resource consumption and waste generation. Limited technology and infrastructure often results in accumulation of waste. In this context, discuss urban waste disposal and issues related to it.
Answer:
The processing of waste generated in urban areas is known as urban waste disposal. Human population and related consumption resources is rapidly increasing. This led to generation of large amount of waste in urban house holds and industries. Urban waste disposal is a serious problem in India. In metropolitan cities like Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru, etc., about 90 per cent of the solid waste is collected and disposed. The issues related to urban waste disposal are

The huge turnout of ashes and debris from industries, thermal power houses and building constructions or demolitions have contributed to land, air and water pollution

Solid wastes cause health hazard through creation of obnoxious smell, and harbouring of flies and rodents, which act as carriers of diseases like typhoid, diphtheria, diarrhea, malaria and cholera, etc.

Concentration of industrial units in and around urban centres gives rise to disposal of industrial wastes. The dumping of industrial waste into rivers leads to water pollution. Serious health problems downstream.

Section – E
Map Based Question

Question 10.
On the political map of the world, identify the following features (Attempt any 5). (1 × 5 = 5)
A. The Terminal Station of Trans-Continental Railway
B. A major airport
C. An international airport
D. A major seaport
E. A major seaport
F. A canal

Answer: