## Online Education for Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Rulers and Buildings

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Rulers and Buildings Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

## Online Education for Rulers and Buildings Class 7 Extra Questions History Chapter 5

Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Inscriptions on the walls of Qutb Minar are in which language?
The inscriptions on the walls of Qutb Minar are in Arabic language.

Rulers And Buildings Class 7 Extra Questions From Books Question 2.
Which temple was a miniature model of the world?
The Rajarajeshvara temple, built by the king Rajarajadeva was a miniature model of world ruled by the king and his allies.

Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 3.
How does Persian court chronicles describe Sultan?
The Persian court chronicles describe Sultan as the “Shadow of God”.

Ncert Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 4.
Who constructed hauz i-Sultani?
Delhi i-Kuhna or hauz i-Sultani was constructed by Sultan Iltutmish.

Class 7 History Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Question 5.
Which temple was repeatedly attacked by Mahmud of Ghazni?
The Somnath temple in Gujarat was repeatedly attacked by Mahmud of Ghazni.

Rulers And Buildings Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 6.
Which Mughal emperor showed his love for gardens in his autobiography?
Babur, the first Mughal emperor had shown his love for gardens in his autobiography.

Class 7 History Ch 5 Extra Questions Question 7.
In what styles were Vrindavan temples constructed?
The Vrindavan temples were constructed in the architectural styles that were very similar to the Mughal palaces in Fatehpur Sikri.

Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Pdf Question 8.
What is the most significant aspect of Humayun’s Tomb in Delhi?
The Humayun’s Tomb in Delhi has a central towering dome and a tall gateway, which was the main feature of the central Asian Tomb of Timur.

Rulers And Buildings Class 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
What symbolised the evenhanded justice in Shah Jahan’s Court?
The image ‘of legendary Greek god Orpheus playing lute symbolised the even-handed justice in Shah Jahan’s Court.

Class 7 History Chapter 5 Worksheets Question 10.
Why did Shah Jahan build Taj Mahal on the riverbank?
Shah Jahan wanted to check and control the access that nobles had to the Yamuna river. Therefore, he built Taj Mahal on the river bank.

History Chapter 5 Class 7 Extra Questions Question 11.
What is the main feature of the elephant stables of Vijayanagara?
The elephant stables of Vijayanagara were strongly influenced by the style of architecture found in the adjoining Sultanates of Bijapur and Golconda.

Chapter 5 History Class 7 Extra Questions Question 12.
What was the especiality of “Bangla Dome”?
The roof of the “Bangla dome” resembled a thatched hut.

Class 7 History Chapter 5 Short Questions And Answers Question 13.
Why was limestone cement increasingly used in building construction in this period?
Due to the following reasons limestone cement was increasingly used in the building construction in this period :

• Limestone cement was the high-quality cement which when mixed with stone chips hardened into concrete.
• This made construction of large structures easier and faster.

Extra Questions For Class 7 History Chapter 5 Question 14.
What is the significance of the inscription in the Quwwat al-Islam Mosque?

• The inscription in the Quwwat al- Islam Mosque explained that God chose Alauddin as a king because he had the qualities of Moses and Soloman, the great lawgivers of the past.
• It, further, tells that the greatest lawgiver and architect was God Himself.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 15.
Describe the Shiva temple built by the Chola King Rajendra I?

• The Shiva Temple built by the Chola King Rajendra I had statues that he seized from the rulers that he defeated.
• He installed a Sun pedestal from Chalukyas, a Ganesha statue and several statues of Durga.
• He installed a Nandi statue from the eastern Chalukyas, an image of Bhairava and Bhairavi from the Kalingas of Orissa.
• He also installed a Kali statue that he brought from the Palas of Bengal.

Ch 5 History Class 7 Extra Questions Question 16.
Describe the main features of Akbar’s architecture.
Akbar’s architecture has following features :

• Humayun’s tomb built by Akbar has a central towering dome and a tall gateway. It was inspired by the tomb of Timur, his central Asian ancestor.
• The tomb was placed in the centre of a huge formal Chahar bagh.
• It was built in the tradition known as “eight Paradises” or hasht bihisht-a central hall surrounded by eight rooms.
• The building was constructed with red sandstone, „edged with white marble.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Inscriptions on the walls of Qutb Minar are in which language?
(a) Prakrit
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Arabic
(d) English.
(c) Arabic.

2. Between eighth and eighteenth centuries, what kind of structures were made by the kings and their officers?
(a) Only private structures
(b) Only public structures
(c) Structures made by the red stone
(d) Both private and public structures.
(d) Both private and public structures.

3. Which one of the following was known as private structures?
(a) Forts
(b) Temples
(c) Tanks
(d) Caravanserais.
(a) Forts.

4. Which of the following can be included under public structures?
(a) Forts
(b) Palaces
(c) Temples
(d) Gardens
(c) Temples.

5. Which one of the following temples was a miniature model of the world?
(a) Laxmi Narayan Mandir, Delhi
(b) The Rajarajeshwara Temple, Thanjavur
(c) The Chhatarpur Mandir, Delhi
(d) Vishwanath Mandir, Kasi.
(b) The Rajarajeshwara Temple, Thanjavur.

6. How does Persian court chronicles describe Sultan?
(а) As the “Shadow of God”
(b) As the “Shadow of Citizens”
(c) As a poet
(d) As a great singer.
(а) As the “Shadow of God”.

7. Delhi-i-Kuhna or Hauz-i-Sultani was constructed by
(а) Qutbuddin Aybak
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) Sultan Iltutmish
(d) Sultan Ghiyasuddin Balban.
(c) Sultan Iltutmish.

8. What did the Pandayan king Shrimara Shrivallabha do in the early ninth century?
(a) He built a Buddha’s temple in Sri Lanka.
(b) He invaded Sri Lanka and defeated the King Sena.
(c) He attacked on Delhi.
(d) He destroyed mosques in Tamil Nadu.
(b) He invaded Sri Lanka and defeated the King Sena.

9. Which one of the following temples was repeatedly attacked by Mahmud of Ghazni?
(а) The Kamakhya Mandir, Assam
(b) The Sun Temple, Konark
(c) The Somnath Temple, Gujrat
(d) Laxmi Narayan Mandir, Delhi.
(c) The Somnath Temple, Gujrat.

10. Which of the following Mughal emperors showed his love for gardens in his autobiography?
(a) Babur
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan.
(a) Babur.

11. In what styles were Vrindavan temples constructed?
(а) Similar to Gupta architecture
(b) Similar to the Pandya palaces
(c) Similar to the Mughal palaces in Fatehpur Sikri
(d) Similar to Sher Shah Suri’s palaces in Sasaram
(b) Similar to the Pandya palaces.

Important Years Or Periods:

999: The Kandariya Mahadeva temple dedicated to Shiva was constructed by King Dhangadeva of the Chandela dynasty.

1199: Qutb Minar was constructed by Qutbuddin Aybak.

Important Terms:

→ Trabeate/Corbelled: A style of architecture in which roofs, doors and windows were made by placing a horizontal beam across two vertical columns.

→ Superstructure: The part of a building above the ground floor.

→Arcuate: A style of architecture in which the weight of the superstructure above doors and. windows was carried by arches.

→ Pishtaq: It was the tall gateway of the central towering dome in the Mughal buildings.

→ Pietra dura: Coloured, hard stones placed in depressions carved into marble or sandstone creating beautiful ornate patterns.

## CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 11 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

## CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into four sections-Section A, B, C and D.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks. Answer to this question should not exceed 150-200 words.
• Section-C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
• Section-D: Question no. 10 is map based, carrying 2 marks.
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A

Question 1.
Describe the role of Dr BR Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly of India.
Role of Dr BR Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly of India was

• He served as Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
• He plead for the abolition of untouchability and asked for equal rights. For minorities upliftment he submitted state and minorities document.
• He held the key figure due to his interventions and speeches in the assembly.

Question 2.
Critically analyse the Fifth Report which was submitted to the British Parliament in 1813.
Or
Examine the policies adopted by the British towards Paharias during 18th century.
The Fifth Report of 1813 was the fifth series of report on the administration and activities of the East India Company in India. It ran into 1002 pages of which over 800 pages were appendices that reproduced petitions of zamindars and riots, reports of collectors and districts. It contained information on Company’s misrule and maladministration.

Many British traders wanted a share in Company’s trade in India and emphasised for openness for British manufacturers in India. It opposed the monopoly enjoyed by East India Company over trade with India and China. As a result, British Parliament passed several acts to regulate Company rule in India.
Or
Following are the policies adopted by the British towards Paharias during 18th century.

• British adopted policy of extermination.
• Augustus Cleveland proposed policy of pacification with Paharia chiefs to ensure proper conduct. Paharia went into mountains and deep forests and continued their war against outsiders.
• Many Paharia chiefs who accepted allowances came to be perceived as subordinate employees or stipendiary chiefs so they lost their authority within the community. Chiefs who accepted British allowances were seen as stripendiary chiefs of colonial government.

Question 3.
‘Rumours and prophecies played a part in moving people to action.’ Explain the statement in the context of the Revolt of 1857. (3)
In the Revolt of 1857, rumours and prophecies played a major role in firing up the revolt. There was a rumour that the new cartridges were greased with the fat of cows and pigs which would pollute their castes and religion. There were rumours that British had mixed the bone dust of cows and pigs into the flour that was sold in the market.

There was fear and suspicion that the British wanted to convert Indians to Christianity.
The response to the call for action was reinforced by the prophecy that British rule would come to an end on the centenary of the Battle of Plassey, on 23rd June, 1857.

Question 4.
Why have many scholars written the months after Independence as being Gandhiji’s finest hours? Explain. (3)
The scholars described the month after Independence being Gandhiji’s ‘finest hour’ keeping the following events in consideration

(i) Gandhiji did not attended any function or hoist a flag either at the day of Independence, instead he marked a day with 24 hour fast. He kept himself isolated from the celebrations as he believed that freedom has come at an unacceptable price, country has been divided and due to communalism, two religious communities of India are seeking life of each others.

(ii) After attainment of Independence, Gandhiji kept himself away from the political work and engagements. He focussed on pacifying people, went around hospitals and refugee camps and giving consolation to distressed people.

(iii) He was serving the humanity, tried to reduce the sufferings of displaced people with hands of empathy.

Section – B

Question 5.
Describe the role of any six prominent leaders of Northern India who fought against the British in the Revolt of 1857. (6)
Role of prominent leaders in the Revolt of 1857 was

• In Kanpur, Nana Sahib, the successor of Peshwa Baji Rao II became the leader of the revolt.
• In Jhansi, Rani Lakshmi Bai assumed the leadership of the uprising.
• In Arrah in Bihar, Kunwar Singh, a local zamindar became leader under popular pressure.
• In Lucknow, Blrjis Qadr, the young son of nawab Wajid Ali Shah became the leader of the revolt against the annexation of the state.
• Gonoo, a tribal cultivator of Singhbhum in Chotanagpur, became a rebel leader of the Kol tribals of the region.
• From Barrack pore, Mangal Pandey emerged as leader by killing one of the European officers.

Question 6.
Quit India movement was genuinely a mass movement bringing into its ambit hundreds of thousands of ordinary Indians. Elucidate the statement with suitable examples. (6)
Or
‘Gandhiji had mobilised a wider discontentment against the British rule in the Salt Satyagraha/ Elucidate the statement with suitable examples.
After the failure of the Cripps Mission, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch his third major movement the ‘Quit India’ campaign which began in August 1942. The ‘Quit India Movement’ against the British rule was a Mass Movement, bringing into its ambit hundreds or thousands of ordinary Indians. For example,

(i) It especially energised the young who in very large numbers left their colleges to join the Congress leaders languishing in jails. Gandhiji was jailed at once while organising the movment, but the young activists organised strikes and acts of sabotage all over the country.

(ii) There were socialist members of the Congress such as Jaya Frakash Narayan who were active in the underground resistance. Social activists organised strikes and protests.

(iii) Independent governments were proclaimed in several districts such as Satara in the West and Medinipur in the East.

(iv) Attacks were organised on government buildings or any other visible symbol of colonial authority.

(v) Women across the country participated in the Quit India Movement. Great sense of unity and brotherhood emerged due to Quit India Movement.
Or
Gandhiji mobilised a wider discontentment against the British rule in the Salt Satyagraha in the following ways

(i) Gandhiji announced a march to break the Salt Law. Salt law gave the state a monopoly in the manufacture and sale of salt. The state monopoly on salt was deeply unpopular as in every Indian household salt was indispensable and the people were forbidden for making salt even for domestic use.

(ii) Gandhiji started Dandi March and once he reached Dandi, he broke the Salt Law. Parallel Salt Marches were organised in other parts of the country.

(iii) Peasants breached the colonial forest laws which restricted their access to forests and factory owners went on strike.

(iv) Lawyers boycotted British courts and students refused to attend educational Institutions and schools run by government.

(v) Gandhiji made a plea to the upper caste to serve untouchables. Hindus, Muslims, Parsees and Sikhs were told to unite. Thousands of volunteers joined for the cause and women participated in large number.

(vi) Dandi March brought Gandhi to world attention. The March was covered by European and American press. Salt march made British realised that they would have to devolve some powers to Indians.

Question 7.
‘Abul Fazl describes the ideal of Sulh- i -Kul (absolute peace) as the cornerstone of Akbar enlightened rule/ Support the statement with few examples. (6)
Or
‘The officer corps of the Mughals were described as bouquet of flowers held together by loyalty to the emperor/ Justify the statements with suitable arguments. (6)
Abul Fazl describe the ideal of Sulh-i-Kul as the cornerstone of Akbar enlightened rule. For example, according to this
(i) Different ethnic and religious communities had freedom of expression but on condition that they did not undermine the authority of the state or fight among themselves.

(ii) The nobility was comprised of Iranis, Turanis, Afghans, Rajputs, Deccanis, etc who were given positions and awards based on merit and services.

(iii) Akbar abolished the tax on pilgrimage /Jjizya. He gave grants to support and maintain religious buildings.

(iv) Akbar celebrated festivals like Id, Shab-i-barat and Holi.

(v) Akbar invited Jesuit mission for religious discussions.

(vi) Akbar formulated governance guidelines by using such a policy of tolerance, based on system of ethics.
Or
The Mughal nobility or officer corps was comprised of Iranis, Turanis, Afghans,Rajputs, Deccanis, etc. They were the main pillars of Mughal state. They was chosen from different groups, both religiously and ethnicity to ensure a balance of power between the various groups. They were described as guldasta or a bouquet of flowers in the official chronicles.

It signified their unity, held together by loyalty towards the Mughal emperor. All nobles were ranked or were allotted mansabs comprising of zat and sawar. The nobles were also required to perform military service for the emperor.

Akbar who designed the mansab system, also established spiritual relationships with selected band of his nobility by treating them as his disciples. For members of nobility imperial service was a way of acquiring power, wealth and highest possible reputation in Mughal court.

Section – C
Source Based Questions

Question 8.
The Flight of the Written Word
In Abu’l Fazl’s words:

The written word may embody the wisdom of bygone ages and may become a means to intellectual progress. The spoken word goes to the heart of those who are present to hear it. The written word gives wisdom to those who are near and far.

If it was: not for the written word, the spoken word would soon die, and no keepsake would be left us from those who are passed away. Superficial observers see in the letter a dark figure,but the deep sighted see in it a lamp of wisdom (chirag-i shinasai).

The written word looks black, not with standing the thousand rays within it, or it is a light with a mole on it that wards off the evil eye. A letter (khat) is the portrait of wisdom, a rough sketch from the realm of ideas, a dark light ushering in day, a black cloud pregnant with knowledge, speaking though dumb, stationary yet travelling; stretched on the sheet, and yet soaring upwards.
(i) Why were words considered as the lamp of wisdom? (1)
(ii) How has Abu’l Fazl related words with knowledge? (1)
(iii) How did Abu’l Fazl refer difference between a ‘common viewer’s observation’ and the ‘observation of a learned person? (2)
(i) Words were considered as the lamp of wisdom because according to Abu’l Fazl, the spirit for rational thinking comes from the words.

(ii) Abu’l Fazl related words with knowledge because words have the power to shape and articulate ideas which in turn helps in enhancing knowledge.

(iii) According Abu’l Fazl, learned persons can put down their ideas in distinctive forms. They observes things minutely and with vast vision and can express the same with the power of words. These traits are not present in common viewers.

Question 9.
“There cannot be any divided loyalty”
Govind Ballabh Pant argued that in order to become loyal citizens people had to stop focusing only on the community and the self.

For the success of democracy one must train himself in the art of self-discipline. In democracies one should care less for himself and more for others. There cannot be any divided loyalty. All loyalties must exclusively be centred round the State.

If in a democracy, you create rival loyalties, or you create a system in which any individual or group, instead of suppressing his extravagance, cares nought for larger or other interests, then democracy is doomed.
(i) How did GB Pant encourage citizens to make a unified nation? (1)
(ii) Why did he urge citizens for loyalty towards nation? (1)
(iii) How was loyalty considered as the base of social pyramid? (2)
(i) GB Pant encourage citizens to make a unified nation by promoting his view that one should care less for himself and more for nation to make it strong and unified.

(ii) GB Pant urge citizens for loyalty towards nation to make nation successful. According to him, individual should care less for personal gain and focus more on collective benefit and for the development of nation in all perspectives.

(iii) Loyalty was considered as the base of social pyramid in the following ways

• Loyalty is required for the success of democracy. It rival loyalties are created,then it will promote individual interests and harm interests of other people. This led to democracy becoming unsuccessful.
• Loyalty promotes people centric benefits instead of individual centric.

Section – C
Map Based Question

Question 10.
(i) On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any one of the following with appropriate symbol.
(a) The place where Gandhiji withdrew Non-Cooperation Movement (1)
Or
(b) (i) The place where Gandhiji started satyagraha for the indigo planters (1)
(ii) On the same outline map of India, a place related to the centres of the Revolt of 1857 is marked as A. Identify it and write its name on the line drawn near them, (1)

## CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

## CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The question paper has three sections as A,B and C.
• Section A has 8 questions of 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 50 words each.
• Section B has 3 questions of 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 100 words each. Answer of map question should be attempted accordingly.
• Section C has 2 question of 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 170 words each.

Section A

Question 1.
Discuss the importance of SAARC. (2)
Or
What are the significance of SAARC for India?
SAARC comprises 3% of the world’s area, 21% of the world’s population and 3.8% of the global economy.

Creating Synergies: It is the world’s most densely populated region and one of the most fertile areas. SAARC countries have common tradition, dress, food and culture and political aspects thereby synergising their actions. SAARC has initiated SAFTA to free trade zones for whole South Asia for collective economic activity.

Common Solutions: All SAARC countries have common problems and issues like poverty, illiteracy, malnutrition, natural disasters, internal conflicts, industrial and technological backwardness, low GDP and poor socio-economic condition.

These countries uplift their living standards thereby creating common areas of development and progress having common solutions.
Or
The significance of SAARC for India is discussed below

• Economic Integration India’s Look East Policy links South Asian economies with South-East Asia will bring further economic integration and prosperity to India mainly in the Service sector.
• Geostrategic Significance It can counter China through engaging Nepal, Bhutan, the Maldives and Sri Lanka in development process and economic cooperation.
• Regional Stability SAARC can help in creation of mutual trust and peace within the region.
• Global Leadership Role It offers India a platform to showcase its leadership in the region by taking up extra responsibilities.

Question 2.
Discuss the negative impact of globalisation. (2)
The negative impacts of globalisation are as follows

• Globalisation has not generated much more employment opportunities because it needs highly skilled people only.
• The foreign companies focus on their profit orientation projects only in place of social welfare.
• It has widened income disparities by making the rich richer and the poor more poorer.
• Gradually, globalisation is also a reason for depletion of flora and fauna in country.
• Even farmers are supposed to be well educated if they want to use modem methods of cultivation.

Question 3.
What were the two main consequences of Indo-Pak Conflict of 1971? (2)
The consequence of Indo-Pakistan conflict of 1971 are:

• Eastern command of Pakistan military collapsed and East Pakistan was recognised as Bangladesh.
• Over 93000 Pakistani Pakistani troops surrendered to the India forces making the largest surrender since second World War.

Question 4.
Give four reasons why globalisation is being resisted. (2)
Globalisation means the flows of ideas, capital, commodities and people across different parts of the world. It is a multidimensional concept. It has political, economic and cultural manifestations and these must be adequately distinguished.
The four reasons due to which globalisation is resisted are

• Leftist parties argue that contemporary globalisation represents a global capitalism that makes the rich richer and the poor poorer.
• Weakening of the state leads to a reduction in the capacity of the state to protect the interest of its poor.
• Rightist parties express anxiety over the political economic and cultural effects.
• The cultural globalisation would harm age old values of people while harming their traditional culture.

Question 5.
Describe briefly about Naxalite Movement. (2)
In 1967 a peasant uprising took place in the Naxalbari police station area of Darjeeling Hills district in West Bengal under the leadership of the local cadres of the Communist Party of India (Marxist). Beginning from the Naxalbari police station, the peasant movement spread to several states of India and came to be known as the Naxalite Movement.

In 1969, one branch broke off from the CPI (M) and a new party, Communist Party (Marxist-Leninist) (CPI-ML) was formed under the leadership of Charu Majumdar. It argued that democracy in India was pretence and decided to adopt a strategy of protracted guerrilla warfare in order to lead to a revolution.

Question 6.
What effect did the National Emergency have on India’s political system? (2)
Under Article 352 of Indian Constitution upon the advice by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed declared a state of emergency. Impact of National Emergency on party system in India are as follows –

(i) After the end of National Emergency, the major opposition parties started coming together on the eve of elections and formed a new party known as the Janta Party.

(ii) The people’s verdict of 1977 elections were decisively against the emergency the Congress lost elections and Janta Party came to power. During this period, the Congress(R) also underwent a major split resulting in the formation of Congress (I). Initially, it appeared that Indian political system is heading towards a ‘two party system’ as Janta Party was considered to be an alternative to the Congress.

(iii) Later there was an emergence of multi-party system or coalition government as against one party system or two-party system.

Question 7.
Describe any four consequences of Bangladesh war of 1971. (2)
The consequences of Bangladesh war of 1971 are as follow.

• India supported the demand of East Pakistan financially and militarily.
• The war of 1971 made Pakistani forces to surrender in East Pakistan.
• Bangladesh was formed as an independent country.
• Bangladesh drafted its constitution declaring faith in secularism, democracy and socialism.

Question 8.
Issues have become converging point rather than ideologies in the current era of coalition politics. Discuss? (2)
Three features of coalition government has been given in which we have to understand the not aligning and re-aligning on the basis of ideologies. These are Unstable Government The coalition government has its own interest and they fight for their own self interest.

Political Opportunism Government formed on the basis of coalition becomes selfish, as opportunist, power hungry and unscrupulous politicians focus on the self-interest only.
Lack of Polarisation The coalition governments afe formed not on the basis of polarisation of political forces, but for the sake of capturing power and vested interest.

Section B

Question 9.
How are coalition governments more democratic than one-party governments? (4)
When two or more parties join hands together to form a government is known as coalition government, e.g UP A, NDA, etc. Benefits of coalition government are as follows

Dominance of one party is minimised, this will lead to more democratic way of functioning. The government cannot just pass a bill without debate as it is happening in the current Lok Sabha.

More than one ideology come together and gives strength to democracy i.e., the government will have to listen to all other parties and try to fulfill their requirement as much as possible so that other section of society does not leave untouched.

Drawbacks of coalition government are as follows

It gives unstable government i.e., the government cannot function smoothly because it has a support of other parties due to this government cannot take bold decision for the welfare of society and nation.

It slows the process of policy-making. It means it is hard for the government to fulfill everyone wishes which result in delay in the policy making.

Question 10.
There are numerous issues between India and Pakistan. Discuss any three controversies. (4)
The three issues of conflict between India and Pakistan are discussed below
(i) There was a dispute over Kashmir immediately after the partition in 1948 between India and Pakistan. Both the governments continue to be suspicious of each other. The Indian Government has blamed the Pakistan Government for using a strategy of low key violence by helping the Kashmiri militants with arms, training, money and protection to carry out terrorist strikes against India.

(ii) India’s conflict with Pakistan is also over the strategic issues like the control of the Siachen Glacier and over acquisition of arms. The arms race between the two countries assumed a new character with both states acquiring nuclear weapons and missiles to deliver such arms against each other in the 1990s.

(iii) India and Pakistan also had problems over the sharing of river water. Until 1960, they were locked in fierce argument over the use of the rivers of the Indus Basin. Eventually, in 1960, with the help of World Bank, India and Pakistan signed the Indus Water Treaty which has survived to this day inspite of various military conflicts in which two countries have been involved. There are still some minor issues about the interpretation of Indus Water Treaty and the use of the river water.

Question 11.
In the given political outline map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B),(C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and give their correct names along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following format. (4)

 Sr. No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the State (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(i) State to which the Nizam belonged to.
(ii) State which is related to article 370 of the Indian constitution.
(iii) State where the operation blue star was launched.
(iv) State from where the J.P. Narayan demanded the dismissal of congress govt.

 Sr. Number of the information used Alphabet concerned Name of the State (i) B Hyderabad (ii) A Jammu and Kashmir (iii) D Punjab (iv) E Bihar

Section C

Question 12.
Identify four elements that contributed to the Congress Party’s dominance in India from 1947 to 1967. (6)
Or
What is meant by opposition in a democratic system? Describe activities of the opposition during the first two Parliaments of 1952 and 1957.
The Congress Party succeed in maintaining its dominance till 1967 due to the following reasons

(i) The Congress Party was supported by elites, educated business classes and middle classes people. It also got support from peasants because of its socialist nature.

(ii) It had many popular faces like Jawaharlal Nehru, C. Rajagopalachari, Vallabhbhai Patel,etc. Moreover, Jawaharlal Nehru was charismatic and a very popular leader.

(iii) Congress worked at upper level as well as at grass root level. Congress was popularised due to the participation in Civil Disobedience Movement.

(iv) During period of Nehru Ji, Congress attained mass popularity, but the powerful narrow elite of Congress continued to benefit from the low level of political consciousness of the electorate.

Or
At the time of Independence, there were many opposition parties and after independence it increased, but it gained only token representation in the Lok Sabha and also in state assemblies. Yet their presence Played a crucial role in maintaining the democratic character of the system. The four activities of the opposition during the Parliament of 1952 and 1957 are as follows

(i) These opposition parties offered sustained and principled criticism of the policies and practices of the Congress Party. This phenomena indicated the check and balance of power of the Congress.

(ii) In 1957, in Kerala, Congress was defeated by CPI and made government, but after that Congress dismissed the Kerala Government under Article 356. It was criticised by the opposition leaders and said that it was the first instance of the misuse of constitutional emergency powers.

(iii) In 1950, Bhartiya Jansangh was able to secure 3 seats and in 1957, it secured 4 seats. The party played the role of opposition and started agitation to replace English with Hindi as the official language and also advocated for the development of nuclear weapons.

(iv) The opposition parties prevented the resentment with the system from turning anti-democratic. These parties also groomed the leaders (young citizens) who wanted to shape the India as developed and powerful state.

Question 13.
Explain the factors responsible for the rise of the Chinese economy. (6)
Or
Analyse the basis of projection of China to overtake the US as the world’s largest economy by 2040.
China is the third major alternative centre of power. It is the fastest growing economy. China at one time was based on Soviet model and at that time, it broke all the links with capitalist world.

Following are the factors responsible for rise of Chinese economy Use of Soviet Model China accepted the Soviet model aind relied on its resources. China decided to substitute imports by domestic goods and create state owned heavy industries from capital produced by agriculture.

Development of Industrial Economy China used all its resources to develop an industrial economy. All citizens were provided education and health programmes.  Relationship With USA China established relation with USA in 1972.

Modernisation Modernisation in field of agriculture, industry, military, science and technology were proposed. Major Policies Announced Open Door Policy was announced by Deng Xiaoping in 1978, which aimed at generation of high productivity by investments in capital and technology from abroad.

Era of Privatisation Privatisation of agriculture in 1982 and privatisation of industry in 1998 was done. Establishment of SEZ’s Special Economic Zones were set up. State had a centralised role in setting up of China’s economy.
Or
China is viewed to dominate US by the year 2040. The basis of the projection are

(i) China is considered as the driver of East-Asian growth because of the economic integration into regions. China is considered to be very powerful and factors such as population, landmass, resources, regional location and political influence adds to its strength.

(ii) China announced ‘Open Door Policy’ in 1978 which aimed at generation of high productivity by investments in capital and technology from abroad. In economic sector, various steps were taken to encourage investment by Western entrepreneurs for modernisation of industry, science and technology, agriculture and military. In 1980, China became the member of World Bank and International Monetary Fund.

(iii) Privatisation of agriculture and industry helped in growing economy rapidly.

(iv) Foreign trade grew with the creation of SEZs and new trading laws. This resulted in high foreign exchange reserves. In this way, China became most significant for FDI. The above points show China’s ability to overtake US as world’s largest economy by 2040.

## CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 12 for Practice

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 12 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

## CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 12 for Practice

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 13 questions.
• This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
• 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
• 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
• 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
• This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Question 1.
“Induced consumption expenditure is income elastic in nature.” Defend or refute the statement with valid argument.
OR
Consumption curve always starts from a positive incept on Y-axis.” Justify the statement with valid reason. (2)

Question 2.
In an economy, the consumption function is C = 400 + 0.75Y, where C is consumption and Y is national income and investment expenditure is 2,000. What will be the equilibrium level of national income?
OR
Calculate change in final income, if Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0.8 and change in initial investment is ₹1,000 crore. (2)

Question 3.
“In the normal course of development, countries first shift their employment and output from agriculture to Industry and then to services. This is what happened in Pakistan.”

Defend or refute the statement with valid reason. (2)

Question 4.
“In Pakistan, Green revolution changed the agrarian structure dramatically.” Justify the statement. (2)

Question 5.
What is the important implication of the ‘one child norm’ in China?
OR
Analyze and compare all three economies on the basis of given information.
Select Demographic Indicators, 2017-18

 Country Estimated Population (in million) Annual Growth of Population India 1352 1.03 China 1393 0.46 Pakistan 212 2.05

Source: World Development Indicators, 2018.
www.worldbank.org (2)

Question 6.
Giving reasons, state how the following are treated in the estimation of national income:
(A) Payment of interest by banks to its depositors.
(B) Expenditure on old age pensions by government.
(C) Expenditure on engine oil by car service station. (3)
OR
Firm A spent ₹200 on non-factor inputs and produced goods worth 1900. It sold goods worth 1450 and 1350 to Firm B and consumer households respectively. Find out Gross value added by Firm A. (3)

Question 7.
Analyse the following information on the basis of ‘Place of Residence’.

Distribution of Workforce by Industry, 2017-2018

Read the following case carefully and answer questions number 8 and 9 given below:

Triple Wins for Sustainable Development Sustainable development is the synonymous in the minds of many with the colour green and for good reasons. Twenty years ago, at the First Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro, in Brazil, world leaders set out what today is conventional wisdom: SOCIAL AND ECONOMIC HUMAN PROGRESS – cannot be divorced from environmental protection unless both are advanced together, both will flounder together. Sustainable development is as much about health, education and jobs, as it is about the ecosystems. It is about ever-widening inclusion and movement away from decisions that erode democratic space and do not address social inequality, intolerance, and violence.

Sustainable Development is about changes that transform impoverished people, communities, and countries into informed, educated healthy and productive societies. It is about wealth creation that generates equality and opportunity. Sustainable Development is about consumption and production patterns that respect planetary boundaries; it is also about increasing tolerance and respect for human rights at all levels.

Building on human development legacy that oriented with Economists like Amartya Sen and MahbubUlHaq and was captured by the first Human Development Report in 1990. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has long promoted alternative approaches to measure human progress, along with the Human Development Index (HDI).

Today, we are building on this legacy by exploring how to adjust the index to reflect environmental sustainability, so that governments and citizens might better track real progress towards truly sustainable development. This must be our collective objective.

www.undp.org

Question 8.
“Sustainable development is all about ecosystem only.” Defend or refute the statement with valid argument. (3)

Question 9.
As per the above text, which must be our collective objective? (3)

Question 10.
Which of the following source of energy is extremely useful for remote areas and free from pollution? (3)

Question 11.
(A) Government incurs expenditure to popularize yoga among the masses. Analyse its impact on gross domestic product and welfare of the people.

(B) “Net factor income from abroad can never be negative.” Defend or refute the given statement with valid argument. 5

Question 12.
(A) State any two limitations of GDP as an index of economic welfare.
(B) Calculate Net Value added at Factor Cost (NVAFC) from the following data:

 Particulars Amount (in ₹ crores) Value of output 800 Intermediate Consumption 200 Indirect Taxes 30 Depreciation 20 Subsidies 50 Purchase of machinery 50

OR

(A) State any two approaches to correct the problem of double counting.
(B) Calculate Net Domestic Product at factor cost. (5)

 Particulars Amount (in ₹ crores) Intrest 700 Compensation of Employees 3,000 Net Indirect Taxes 500 Rent and Profit 700 Transfer Payments by Government 10

## CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

## CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Standard Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• There are 12 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
• This question paper has three sections: Section A, Section B and Section C.
• Section A contains three questions of two marks each, Section B contains eight questions of three marks each, Section C contains one case study-based question of five marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question of two marks and two questions of three marks. You have to attempt only one of the chokes in such questions.
• You may use log tables if necessary but use of calculator is not allowed.

SECTION – A
(Section A contains 3 questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
What is ‘greenhouse effect’? State its importance for us.
OR
Explain the dual nature of radiation. (2)
The sun’s rays warms the surface of earth. A part of the radiation which falls on the earth is reflected back into the space and only a part of it is absorbed. This trapped radiation further warms the earth. The trapping of radiation by the earth’s atmosphere is known as Greenhouse effect. Life would not have been possible without this process. Carbon dioxide is one of the gases responsible for this effect. Some other gases like methane, nitrous oxide and water vapours also contribute towards this process.
OR
(A) The phenomenon of radiation such as photoelectric effect, Compton effect, Stark effect, Raman effect etc can only be explained on the basis of particle nature of radiation.
(B) The phenomenon of radiation such as interference, diffraction, polarization, reflection, refraction etc. can be explained on the basis of wave nature of radiation. Therefore, radiation has dual character wave and particle wave.

Question 2.
Considering the V-l characteristics of a p-n diode answer the following questions.
(A) Why under reverse bias almost independent of the applied potential up to a critical voltage?

(B) Why does the reverse current show a sudden increase in the critical voltage? 2
(A) In reverse biasing, the current of order micro ampere is due to the drifting of minority charge carriers from one region to another through the junction. A small applied voltage is sufficient t o s weep t he minority charge carriers through thejunction. Therefore, reverse current is almost independent of critical voltage.

(B) At critical voltage which is also known as breakdown voltage, a large number of covalent bonds break, resulting in the increase of large number of charge carriers. Hence current increases at voltage.

Related Theory
After the cut-in voltage, the diode current increases exponentially even for a very small increase in diode bias voltage. Here, the majority charge carriers feet negligible resistance at the junction.

Question 3.
Two convex lenses of same focal length but of aperture A1 and A2 (A2 > A1), are used as the objective lenses in two astronomical telescopes having identical eyepieces. What is the ratio of their resolving power? Which telescope will you prefer and why? Give reason. (2)
Resolving power of a telescope is proportional to its aperture, and is given by a relation, Therefore, the telescope with objective of aperture A1 should be preferred for viewing as this would:
(A) give a better resolution.
(B) has a higher light gathering power of telescope.

SECTION – B
(Section B consists of 8 questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 4.
Why is the mass of a nucleus always less than the sum of masses of constituents? If the total number of protons and neutrons in a nuclear reaction is conserved, then how is the energy absorbed or evolved in reaction? (3)
When nucleons combine to form nucleus, some mass is converted into binding energy in accordance with mass-energy equivalence relation. Hence, the mass of the nucleus is less than that of nucleons. The number of protons and number of neutrons are the same before a nuclear reaction and different after a nuclear reaction. This difference is called the mass defect.. It is denoted by ΔM.
ΔM =[ Zmp+( A – Z)mn ] – M
Einstein’s mass energy relation can be express this mass difference in terms of
ΔEb = ΔMc2
This shows that if a certain number of neutrons and protons are brought together to form a nucleus of a certain charge and mass, an energy will be released in the process. That energy is termed as binding energy. If we separate a nucleus into its nucleons we would have to transfer a total energy to AEb, to the particles.

Question 5.
(A) When violet light is incident of a lens instead of red light, how does the focal length changes?
(B) Why does bluish colour predominate in a clear sky?
(C) Why does sun appear red at sunrise and sunset? (3)
(A) Refractive index of a material is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the incident light. So, the focal length will decrease with decrease in wavelength according to the Lens maker formula,
$$\frac{1}{f}$$ = (μ – 1)($$\frac{1}{R_{1}}-\frac{1}{R_{2}}$$)
Therefore, when violet light replaces the red light, then due to increase in wavelength, the focal length of the lens decreases.

(B) While light from the sun reaches the atmosphere that is comprised of the tiny particles of the atmosphere. These act as a prism and cause the different components to scatter. As blue light travels in shorter and smaller waves in comparison to the other colours of the spectrum, it is scattered the most, causing the sky to appear bluish.

(C) Sun appears red at sunrise and sunset due to the Least scattering of red light as it has the longest wavelength.

Related Theory
w Scattering of light is the phenomenon in which light is deflected from its path due to its interaction with the particles of the medium through which it passes.

Question 6.
What do you mean by Q-value of nuclear reaction?
OR
Explain the colours in thin film and state the uses of interference. (3)
Q vo[ue of reaction is calculated from Einsteins mass energy equivalence relation. E = mc2, It may be positive or negative. A nuclear reaction in which Q vaLue is positive, energy is released. Such a reaction is caL[ed exoergic. A nuclear reaction in which Q vaLue is negative, energy has to be supplied beftwe the reaction occurs. Such a reaction is called endoergic.

When white light is incident on a thin film (like oil film on the surface of water or a soap bubble) then interference takes place between the waves reflected from its two surfaces and waves refracted through it. The intensity becomes maximum and minimum as a result of interference and colours are seen. The source of light must be an extended source. The colours obtained in reflected and transmitted light are mutually complementary. The colours obtained in thin films are due to interference whereas those obtained in prims are due to dispersion.

The thin layer of oil on water and soap bubbles shows different colours due to interference of waves reflected from two surfaces of their films. Here we get two coherent beams by division of amplitude making use of partial reflection and partial refraction.

The interference effect can be used to determine the wavelength of Light precisely. It can be used to determine refractive index or thickness of transparent sheet. It is also used in holography to produce three-dimensional images.

Question 7.
(A) How does one understand the temperature dependence of resistivity of semiconductor?
(B) Calculate the resistance of the diode at (A) I = 15 mA and at (B) V = -10 V with the help of V-l characteristic of a silicon diode given below.

(A) When temperature increases, covalent bonds of neighbouring atom breaks and charge carriers become free to cause conduction, so resistivity of semiconductor decreases with the rise of temperature.

(B) (i) From the given curve, voltage,
V = 0.7 V for current
I = 15 mA for voltage
Resistance= $$\frac{V}{I}$$ = $$\frac{0.7}{15 \times 10^{-3}}$$
= 46.66 Ω

(ii) For V =-10V,
we have I = -1 μA
= -1 × 10-6A
R = $$\frac{10}{1 \times 10^{-6}}$$
= 1.0 × 107Ω

Caution
If the junction does not permit the flow of current, the diode is known to be at zero bias conditions and voltage is zero.

Question 8.
The intensity of central maxima (0) in YDSE is lo. If the distance OP equals to $$\frac{1}{3}$$ rd of fringe width, then show that the intensity at a point p would be $$\frac{I_{0}}{4}$$

Given that
OP = Yn
OP is equal to $$\frac{1}{3}$$ rd of fringe width at the pattern.
Yn = $$\frac{1}{3}\left(\frac{D \lambda}{d}\right)$$
$$\frac{d Y_{n}}{D}=\frac{\lambda}{3}$$
Phase difference,
ΔΦ = $$\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda} \times \frac{\lambda}{3}$$
= $$\frac{2 \pi}{3}$$

If the intensity at central fringe is Io, then intensity at a point P, where phase difference is ΔΦ is given by,
I = Io cos2ΔΦ
I = Io (-cos$$\frac{\pi}{3}$$)2
I = Io(-$$\frac{1}{2}$$)2
= $$\frac{\mathrm{I}_{0}}{4}$$
The intensity at point P would be $$\frac{\mathrm{I}_{0}}{4}$$ .

Question 9.
A triangular prism of refracting angle 60° is made of a transparent material of refractive
index 2√3 A ray of light is incident normally on the face KL as shown in the figure. Trace the path of the ray as it passes through the prism and calculate the angle of emergence and angle of deviation.

A convex lens of focal length 30 cm is placed coaxially in contact with a concave lens of focal length 40 cm. Determine the power of the combination. Will the system be converging or diverging in nature? (3)
From diagram it is clear that incidence angle at face KM is 60°.

sin C $$\frac{1}{\mu}$$ = $$\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$$
Hence, critical angle is also 60°.
Therefore, incident light ray will not emerge from KM face due to total internal reflection at this face. Hence, it will move along face KM Angle of emergence = 90°.
Hence angle of deviation = 30° (from fig.)
OR
focal length of convex lens,
f1 = + 30 cm
= 0.30 m
Focal length of concave lens
f2 = – 40 cm
= – 0.40 m
Equivalent focal length
$$\frac{1}{\mathrm{~F}}=\frac{1}{f_{1}}+\frac{1}{f_{2}}$$
= $$\frac{1}{30}+\frac{1}{(-40)}$$
= $$\frac{40-30}{1200}=\frac{1}{120}$$
∴ F = 120 m
= 1.2 m
∴ Power of the combination,
p =  = 0.83D
The focal length of combination = 1.2 m = 120 cm. As the focal length is positive the system will be converging in nature.

Question 10.
(A) How does one explain the emission of electrons from a photosensitive surface with the help of Einstein’s photoelectric equation?
(B) The work function of the following metals is given: Na = 2.75 eV, K = 23 eV, Mo = 4.17 eV and Ni = 5.15 eV. Which of these metals will not cause photoelectric emission for radiation of wavelength 3300 A from a laser source placed 1 m away from these metals ? What happens if the laser source is brought nearer and placed 50 cm away? (3)
(A) According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation,
hv = hv0 + Emax
Emax = hv- hv0
Emax = h(v – V0)
If v < v0 then Emax will be negative so, no emission takes place.

If v > v0 then Emax will be positive and directly proportional to □ so, emission takes place.

(B) E = $$\frac{h c}{\lambda}$$
E = $$\frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{3300 \times 10^{-10} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}$$
E = 3.76 eV

The work function of Na and K is less than the energy of incident radiation. Therefore, Na and K will cause photoelectric emission while M0 and Ni will not cause photoelectric emission. There will be no effect on photoelectric emission if the source is brought nearer.

Question 11.
(A) Using Bohr’s second postulate of quantization of orbital angular momentum show that the circumference of the electron in the nth orbital state in hydrogen atom is n times the de Broglie wavelength associated with it.

(B) The electron in hydrogen atom is initially in the third excited state. What is the maximum number of spectral lines which can be emitted when it finally moves to the ground state? 3
(A) According to Bohr’s second postulate of quantization, the electron can revolve around the nucleus only in those circular orbits in which the angular momentum of the electron is integral multiple of $$\frac{h}{2 \pi}$$ where h is Planck’s constant (= 6.62 × 10-34 Js).
So, if m is the mass of electron and v is the velocity of electron in permitted quantized orbit with radius r then
mvr = n $$\frac{h}{2 \pi}$$ ……….(i)
Where n is the principal quantum number and can take integral values like
n = 1, 2, 3,…
This is the Bohr’s quantization condition. Now, de-Broglie wavelength is given as,
λ = $$\frac{h}{m v}$$
Where λ = Wavelength of wave associated with electron
m = Mass of the electron
h = Planck’s constant
mv = $$\frac{h}{\lambda}$$
or mvr = $$\frac{h r}{\lambda}$$ ……………. (ii)
From equation (i) and (ii)
∴ $$\frac{h}{\lambda} r=\frac{2 h}{2 \pi}$$
$$\frac{r}{\lambda}=\frac{n}{2 \pi}$$
2πr = nλ
Now, circumference of the electron in the nth orbital state of Hydrogen atom with radius r is nλ.

(B) If n is quantum number of the highest energy level involved in the transitions, then the total number of possible lines emitted is
N = $$\frac{n(n-1)}{2}$$
Third excited state means fourth energy level i.e., n = 1. So, highest number is n = 4.
Thus, possible spectral lines
N = $$\frac{4(4-1)}{2}$$
= $$\frac{4 \times 3}{2}$$ = 6
The maximum possible number of spectral lines is 6.

SECTION – C
(Section C consists one case study-based question of 5 marks.)

Question 12.
Due to movement of holes and electrons along the electric field sets up current. There are few basic features of forward biasing. Within the junction diode the current is due to both types of majority charge carriers but in external circuit it is due to electrons only. The current is due to diffusion of majority charge carriers through the junction and is of the order of milliamperes. In the same way the current is set up diode is reverse biased. There are two basic features of reverse biasing. Within junction diode the current is due to both types of minority charge carriers but in external circuit it is due to electrons only. The current is due to minority charge carriers through the junction and is very small of the order of microampere.

(A) When the forward bias voltage of a diode is changed from 0.6 V to 0.7 V, the current changes from 5 mA to 15 mA. Then its forward bias resistance is:
(i) 0.01
(ii) 0.1
(iii) 10.0
(iv) 100.00

(B) In the circuit, if the forward voltage drop for the diode is 0.5 V, the current will be:
0.5 V

(i) 3.4 mA
(ii) 2 mA
(iii) 2.5 mA
(iv) 3 mA

(C) In a reverse biased diode when the applied voltage changes by 1 V, the current is found to change by 0.5 The reverse bias resistance of the diode is:
(i) 2 × 105 Ω
(ii) 2 × 106 Ω
(iii) 200 Ω
(iv) 2Ω

(D) In the given figure, which of the diodes are forward biased?

(i) 1, 2, 3
(ii) 2,4, 5
(iii) 1, 3, 4
(iv) 2, 3, 4

(E) In a diode, when there is a saturation current, the plate resistance will be:
(i) Data insufficient
(ii) Zero
(iii) Some finite quantity
(iv) Infinite quantity (5)

(A) (c) 10
Explanation: Forward biased resistance
$$\frac{\Delta V}{\Delta I}$$ = $$\frac{0.7-0.6}{(15-5) \times 10^{-3}}$$
= $$\frac{0.1}{10 \times 10^{-3}}$$ = 10Ω

Caution
The resistance in reverse bias is different from forward bias. Forward bias resistance is low whereas reverse bias resistance is high.

(B) (a) 3.4 mA
Explanation: When diode is forward biased, then there is a small voltage drop across it
i = $$\frac{V-V^{\prime}}{R}$$
Given, V = 8 volt,
V’ = 0.5 volt,
R = 2.2 kΩ
= 2.2 × 103Ω
∴ i = $$\frac{8-0.5}{2.2 \times 10^{5}}=\frac{7.5 \times 10^{-5}}{2.2}$$
= 3.4 × 10-3 A
= 3.4 mA

Related Theory
For forward bias, the voltage of an anode is greater than cathode and for reverse bias, the voltage for cathode is greater than an anode.

(C) (b) 2 x 106Ω
Explanation: Reverse resistance
= $$\frac{\Delta V}{\Delta l}$$ = $$\frac{1}{0.5 \times 10^{-6}}$$
= 2 x 106 Ω

(D) (b) 2, 4, 5
Explanation: In figure 2, 4 and 5 P-crystals are more positive as compared to N- crystals.

(E) (d) Infinite quantity
Explanation: We know that plate resistance is given by:
∴ rp = $$\frac{\Delta V}{\Delta l}$$
where ΔV is change in voltage and Δl is change in current.
Also, at saturation change in current is zero.
∴ rp = $$\frac{\Delta V}{0}$$ = ∞

Hence, plate resistance will be infinite.

## CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 10 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

## CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Standard Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• There are 12 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
• This question paper has three sections: Section A, Section B and Section C.
• Section A contains three questions of two marks each, Section B contains eight questions of three marks each, Section C contains one case study-based question of five marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question of two marks and two questions of three marks. You have to attempt only one of the chokes in such questions.
• You may use log tables if necessary but use of calculator is not allowed.

SECTION – A
(Section A contains 3 questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
Clarify the difference between Rutherford’s atomic model and Bohr’s atomic model justify your answer.
OR
What characteristic property of nuclear force explains the constancy of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) in the range of mass number ‘A’ lying 30 < A < 170? (2)

Question 2.
How is interference different from diffraction in terms of sources and intensity? (2)

Question 3.
How are solids are differed if we compare them on the basis of their values of electrical conductivity or resistivity? (2)

SECTION – B
(Section B consists of 8 questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 4.
The frequency band of a radio station is 6 MHz to 8 MHz. What is corresponding wavelength band? (3)

Question 5.
(A) de-Broglie wavelength associated with
macroscopic objects (car, cricket ball etc.) cannot be observed in daily life. Why?
(B) The wavelength of light from the spectral emission line of sodium is 590 nm. Find the kinetic energy at which the electron would have the same de Broglie wavelength. (3)
OR
(A) Name the series in hydrogen spectrum whose few lines lies in the visible region.
(B) Calculate the orbital period of the electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom. (2)

Question 6.
Explain the formation of depletion layer and potential barrier in p-n junction. (3)

Question 7.
State the difference between Interference and Diffraction. (3)

Question 8.
(A) What is refraction?
(B) An 2 cm tall object is placed on the axis of a convex lens of focal length 5 cm at a distance of 10 m from the optical center of the lens. Find the nature, position and size of the image formed. Which case of image formation by convex lenses is illustrated by this example?

Question 9.
Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and point out any two characteristic properties of photons on which this equation is based. Briefly explain the three observed features which can be explained by this equation. (3)

Question 10.
Differentiate between n-type semiconduc¬tors and p type semiconductors. (3)

Question 11.
(A) What is the use of erecting lens in a terrestrial telescope? What is its magnification?
(B) The focal length of objective and eyepiece of an astronomical telescope are 20 cm and 5 cm respectively. If the final image is formed at a distance of 30 cm from the eye piece, then find the magnifying power of telescope? (3)
OR
(A) A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65. What is the nature of the lens?
(B) A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed coaxially in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. Determine the power of the combination.

SECTION – C
(Section C consists one case study-based question of 5 marks)

Question 12.
You can see the single slit diffraction pattern easily by using just a pair of blades and one clear glass electric bulb. In order to observe the diffraction, you have to hold the blades so that the edges are parallel and hence have a narrow slit between them. By keeping the slit parallel to the filament, right in front of the eye, you will be able to see a pattern. The filament plays the role of the first slit S.

(A) A slit of width a is illuminated by white light. For red light (λ = 6500 Å). The first minima is obtained at θ = 30°. Then the value of a will be:
(i) 3250 Å
(ii) 6.5 × 10-4 mm
(iii) 1.24 microns
(iv) 2.6 × 10-4 cm

(B) A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is:
(i) 1.2 cm
(ii) 1.2 mm
(iii) 2.4 cm
(iv) 2.4 mm

(C) The width of the diffraction band varies:
(i) Inversely as the wavelength
(ii) Directly as the width of the slit
(iii) Directly as the distance between the slit and the screen
(iv) Inversely as the size of the source from which the slit is illuminated.

(D) While both light and sound show wave character, diffraction is much harder to observe in light. This is because:
(i) Wavelength of light is far smaller
(ii) Waves of light are transverse
(iii) Speed of light is far greater
(iv) Light does not require any medium

(E) In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width a, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of:
(i) sin-1 ($$\frac{1}{2}$$)
(ii) sin-1 ($$\frac{3}{4}$$)
(iii) sin-1 ($$\frac{1}{4}$$)
(iv) sin’-1 ($$\frac{2}{3}$$)

## MCQ Questions for Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 14 अहह आः च with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 14 अहह आः च with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Sanskrit with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided अहह आः च Class 6 Sanskrit MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Sanskrit Chapter 14 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

मञ्जूषायाः सहायतया गद्यांश पूरयत। (मञ्जूषा की सहायता से गद्यांश पूरा कीजिए।)
Complete the extract with help from the box.

अवकाशम्, अवकाशस्य, आनय, इव, एवम्, सेवायाम्, दास्यामि, परिश्रमी, चतुरः
अजीजः सरलः …………….. च आसीत्। सः स्वामिनः एव …………………. लीनः आसीत्। एकदा सः गृहं गंतुम् ………………. वाञ्छति। स्वामी ……………. आसीत्। सः चिंतयति-‘अजीजः ……………… न कोऽपि अन्यः कार्यकुशलः। एष …………. अपि वेतनं ग्रहीष्यति।’ ……………… चिंतयित्वा स्वामी कथयति-‘अहं तुभ्यम् अवकाशस्य वेतनस्य च सर्वं धनं ………….. । परम् एतदर्थं त्वं वस्तुद्वयम् …………………

परिश्रमी, सेवायाम्, अवकाशम्, चतुरः, इव, अवकाशस्य, एवम्, दास्यामि, आनय।

गद्यांश पठित्वा अधोदत्तान् प्रश्नान् उत्तरत। (गद्यांश पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।)

अजीजं दृष्ट्वा स्वामी चकितः भवति। स्वामी शनैः शनैः पेटिकाम् उद्घाटयति। पेटिकायां लघुपात्रद्वयम् आसीत्। प्रथमं सः एकं लघुपात्रम् उद्घाटयति। सहसा एका मधुमक्षिका निर्गच्छति। तस्य च हस्तं दशति। स्वामी उच्चै वदति-“अहह!।” द्वितीय लघुपात्रम् उद्घाटयति। एका अन्या मक्षिका निर्गच्छति। सः ललाटे दशति। पीडितः सः अत्युच्चैः चीत्करोति-“आः” इति। अजीजः सफलः आसीत्। स्वामी तस्मै अवकाशस्य वेतनस्य च पूर्णं धनं ददाति।

Question 1.
(क) अजीजं दृष्ट्वा कः चकित:? ………………….
(ख) स्वामी काम् उद्घाटयति? ………………..
(ग) लघुपात्रद्यम् कस्याम् आसीत्? ………………
(घ) पात्रात् का निर्गच्छति? …………………..

(क) स्वामी
(ख) पेटिकाम्
(ग) पेटिकायाम्
(घ) मधुमक्षिका

Question 2.
(क) अन्या मधुमक्षिका किं करोति?
(ख) तदा स्वामी किं करोति?

(क) अन्या मधुमक्षिका ललाटे दशति।
(ख) तदा स्वामी अत्युच्यैः (अति + उच्चैः) चीत्करोति।

Question 3.
(क) ‘नीचैः’ इति पदस्य विलोमं लिखत।
(ख) ‘विस्मितः’ इति पदस्य पर्यायं लिखत।

(क) उच्चैः।
(ख) चकितः।

Question 4.
यथानिर्देशं रिक्तस्थानि पूरयत। यथा
एकं लघुपात्रम्।
(i) …………. पेटिका।
(ii) …………… सेवकः

(i) एका।
(ii) एकः।

मधुमक्षिका निर्गच्छति। मधुमक्षिकाः निर्गच्छन्ति।
(i) सा दशति। ……………… …………..
(ii) सः उद्घाटयति। ……………… ……………

(i) ताः दशन्ति।
(ii) ते उद्घाटयन्ति।

Question 5.
लङ्लकारे परिवर्तयत-
(i) स्वामी चकितः भवति।
(ii) सः चकितः भवति।

(i) स्वामी चकितः अभवत्।
(ii) सः उच्चैः अवदत्।

लुट्लकारे परिवर्तयत
(i) स्वामी चीत्कारं करोति।
(ii) स: उच्चैः वदति।
(iii) सः तस्मै पूर्णं धनं ददाति।

(i) स्वामी चीत्कारं करिष्यति।
(ii) सः चकितः भविष्यति।
(iii) सः तस्मै पूर्ण धनं दास्यति।

मञ्जूषातः उचितं क्रियापदं चित्वा वाक्यपूर्तिं कुरुत- (मञ्जूषा की सहायता से उचित क्रियापद चुनकर वाक्य पूरे कीजिए)
Pick out the correct options and complete the sentences.

प्रार्थयति, परिभ्रमति, पश्यति, प्राप्नोति, प्राप्स्यति, मिलति, निर्गच्छति, पृच्छति।
एतत् श्रुत्वा अजीजः वस्तुद्वयम् आनेतुं …………….. । सः इतस्ततः ………………..। जनान् ……………….| आकाशं ……………… धरां ……………| परं सफलतां नैव ………………. । चिंतयति,
परिश्रमस्य धनं सः नैव। कुत्रचित् एका वृद्धा ………………

निर्गच्छति, परिभ्रमति, पृच्छति, पश्यति, प्रार्थयति, प्राप्नोति, प्राप्स्यति, मिलति।

यथानिर्देशम् लकारपरिवर्तन कृत्वा वाक्यानि पुनः लिखत। (निर्देशानुसार लकार बदलकर वाक्य पुनः लिखिए।)
Change tense as per directions and rewrite the sentences.

(क) अहं तुभ्यं सर्वं धनं दास्यामि। – (लट्लकारे)
(ख) सः आकाशं पश्यति। – (लङ्लकारे)
(ग) अजीज! त्वम् वस्तुद्यम् आनयति। – (लोटलकारे)
(घ) अजीजः सफलः अभवत्। – (लुटलकारे)
(ङ) अजीजः कार्यकुशलः आसीत्। – (लट्लकारे)

(क) अहं तुभ्यं सर्वं धनं ददामि।
(ख) सः आकाशं अपश्यत्।
(ग) अजीज! त्वम् वस्तुद्वयम् आनय।
(घ) अजीजः सफलः भविष्यति।
(ङ) अजीजः कार्यकुशलः अस्ति।

उचितेन विकल्पेन रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत- (उचित विकल्प द्वारा रिक्त स्थान भरिए)
Fill in the blanks with the correct option.

1. (i) सहसा एका …………….. निर्गच्छति। (वृद्धा, पेटिका, मधुमक्षिका)
(ii) अजीजः ……………. आनेतुं निर्गच्छति। (लघुपात्रम्, वस्तुद्वयम्, धनम्)
(iii) सः ताम् सर्वां ……………. श्रावयति। (कथाम्, वृद्धाम्, व्यथाम्)
(iv) कुत्रचित् एका वृद्धा …………….. (मिलति, कथयति, ददाति)
(v) स्वामी …………….. पेटिकाम् उद्घाटयति। (उच्चैः, शनैः शनैः, एकदा)

(i) मधुमक्षिका
(ii) वस्तुद्वयम्
(iii) व्यथाम्
(iv) मिलति
(v) शनैः शनैः।।

2. (i) अजीजः स्वामिनः ………….. लीनः आसीत्। (सेवा, सेवाम्, सेवायाम्)
(ii) सः चिंतयति ………. धनं सः नैव प्राप्स्यति। (परिश्रमी, परिश्रमस्य, परिश्रमः)
(iii) सहसा ……………. मधुमक्षिका निर्गच्छति। (एकः, एका, एकम्)
(iv) अजीजं …………. स्वामी चकितः भवति। (दृष्ट्वा, द्रष्टुम्, पश्यति)
(v) मधुमक्षिका ……………. दशति। (हस्तः, हस्तम्, हस्तेन)

(i) सेवायाम्
(ii) परिश्रमस्य
(iii) एका
(iv) दृष्ट्वा
(v) हस्तम्।

3. (i) अजीजः गृहं गन्तुम् अवकाशं …………….. (पृच्छति, वाञ्छति, मिलति)
(ii) सः सफलतां नैव …………….. (पश्यति, परिभ्रमति, प्राप्नोति)
(iii) प्रथमं सः एकं लघुपात्रम् ………………… (निर्गच्छति, ददाति, उद्घाटयति)
(iv) अन्या मक्षिका ललाटे ……………….. (ददाति, दशति, चीत्करोति)
(v) कुत्रचित् एका वृद्धा …………… (श्रावयति, चिन्तयति, मिलति)

(i) वाञ्छति
(ii) प्राप्नोति
(iii) उद्घाटयति
(iv) दशति
(v) मिलति।

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## MCQ Questions for Class 9 Sanskrit Chapter 8 लौहतुला with Answers

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Sanskrit Chapter 8 लौहतुला with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Sanskrit with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided लौहतुला Class 9 Sanskrit MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-sanskrit-with-answers/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Sanskrit Chapter 8 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

निम्नवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कित पदानां स्थानेषु प्रश्नवाचक पदं लिखत

Question 1.
लौहघटिता पूर्वपुरुषोपार्जिता तुलासीत्।
(क) कीदृशा
(ख) कीदृशी
(ग) कीदृशम्
(घ) का

Question 2.
सः श्रेष्ठिनो गृहे रक्षित्वा विदेशं अगच्छत्।
(क) केन
(ख) कस्य
(ग) कम्
(घ) कः

Question 3.
त्वदीया तुला मूषकैः भक्षिता।
(क) केन
(ख) कया
(ग) कैः
(घ) काभ्याम्।

Question 4.
संसारे किञ्चिदपि शाश्वतं नास्ति।
(क) किम्
(ख) कीदृशम्
(ग) कम्
(घ) कः

Question 5.
संसारे किञ्चिदपि शाश्वतं नास्ति।
(क) कुत्र
(ख) कीदृशम्
(ग) के
(घ) किम्

Question 6.
वणिक्शिशुः अभ्यागतेन सह प्रस्थितः।
(क) केन
(ख) कः
(ग) कम्
(घ) कस्य

Question 7.
तत् द्वारं बृहत् शिलया आच्छाद्य आगतः।
(क) केन
(ख) कया
(ग) कस्या
(घ) का

Question 8.
सः शिशुं गिरिगुहायां प्रक्षिप्य आगतः।
(क) कया
(ख) कस्याः
(ग) कस्याम्
(घ) काम्

Question 9.
वणिक्पुत्रः सत्वरं गृहं आगतः।
(क) कम्
(ख) किम्
(ग) कुत्र
(घ) कदा

Question 10.
मम शिशुः त्वया सह नदीं गतः।
(क) कम्
(ख) कस्या
(ग) केन
(घ) किम्

Question 11.
क्वचित् श्येनो बालं हर्तुम् समर्थोऽस्ति।
(क) को
(ख) कः
(ग) के
(घ) कान्

Question 12.
श्रेष्ठी तारस्वरेण उवाच।।
(क) की
(ख) का
(ग) कः
(घ) कीहशः

Question 13.
तौ विवदमानौ राजकुलं गतौ।
(क) कम्
(ख) को
(ग) के
(घ) कः

गद्यांशम् पठित्वा प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखत

आसीत् कस्मिंश्चिद् अधिष्ठाने जीर्णधनो नाम वणिक्पुत्रः। स च विभवक्षयात् देशान्तरं गन्तुमिच्छन् व्यचिन्तयत्
यत्र देशेऽथवा स्थाने भोगा भुक्ताः स्ववीर्यतः।
तस्मिन् विभवहीनो यो वसेत् स पुरुषाधमः॥
तस्य च गृहे लौहघटिता पूर्वपुरुषोपार्जिता तुला आसीत्। तां च कस्यचित् श्रेष्ठिनो गृहे निक्षेपभूतां कृत्वा देशान्तरं प्रस्थितः। ततः सुचिरं कालं देशान्तरं यथेच्छया भ्रान्त्वा पुनः स्वपुरम् आगत्य तं श्रेष्ठिनम् अवदत्- “भोः श्रेष्ठिन्! दीयतां मे सा निक्षेपतुला।” सोऽवदत्-“भोः! नास्ति सा, त्वदीया तुला मूषकैः भक्षिता” इति।

जीर्णधनः अवदत्-“भोः श्रेष्ठिन्! नास्ति दोषस्ते, यदि मूषकैः भक्षिता। ईदृशः एव अयं संसारः। न किञ्चिदत्र शाश्वतमस्ति। परमहं नद्यां स्नानार्थं गमिष्यामि। तत् त्वम आत्मीयं एनं शिशुं धनदेवनामानं मया सह स्नानोपकरणहस्तं प्रेषय” इति।

Question 1.
वणिक्पुत्रस्य नाम किम् आसीत्?

Question 2.
लौहघटिता तुला कीदृशी आसीत्।

Question 3.
जीर्णधनः कुत्र प्रस्थितः?

Question 4.
वाणिवपुत्रः स्वपुरमागत्य श्रेष्ठिनम् किम् अवदत्?

Answer: वणिक्पुत्रः स्वपुरमागत्य श्रेष्ठिनम् अवदत्- “भोः श्रेष्ठिन्! दीयतां मे सा निक्षेपतुला।”

Question 5.
श्रेष्ठी किम् अवदत्?

Answer: श्रेष्ठी अवदत् “भोः। नास्ति सा, त्वदीया तुला मूषकैः भक्षिता” इति।

Question 6.
अत्र “जीर्णधनः” इति कर्तृपदस्य क्रियापदं किम्?

Question 7.
अस्मिन् अनुच्छेदे ‘कालं’ इति पदस्य विशेषणपदं किम् अत्र?

Question 8.
अशाश्वतं’ इति पदस्य विपर्यय पदम् किम् अत्र?

Question 9.
अनुच्छेदे ‘अस्ति’ इति क्रियापदस्य विपर्ययपदं किम् प्रयुक्तम्?

स श्रेष्ठी स्वपुत्रम् अवदत्-“वत्स! पितृव्योऽयं तव, स्नानार्थं यास्यति, तद् अनेन साकं गच्छ” इति। अथासौ श्रेष्ठिपुत्रः धनदेवः स्नानोपकरणमादाय प्रहृष्टमनाः तेन अभ्यागतेन सह प्रस्थितः। तथानुष्ठिते स वणिक् स्नात्वा तं शिशुं गिरिगुहायां प्रक्षिप्य, तद्वारं बृहत् शिलया आच्छाद्य सत्त्वरं गृहमागतः। सः श्रेष्ठी पृष्टवान्-“भोः! अभ्यागत! कथ्यतां कुत्र मे शिशुः यः त्वया सह नदीं गतः”? इति। स अवदत्-“तव पुत्रः नदीतटात् श्येनेन हृतः” इति। श्रेष्ठी अवदत्- “मिथ्यावादिन्! किं क्वचित् श्येनो बालं हर्तुं शक्नोति? तत् समर्पय मे सुतम् अन्यथा राजकुले निवेदयिष्यामि।” इति। सोऽकथयत्-“भोः सत्यवादिन्! यथा श्येनो बालं न नयति, तथा मूषका अपि लौहघटितां तुला न भक्षयन्ति। तदर्पय मे तुलाम्, यदि दारकेण प्रयोजनम्।” इति।

Question 1.
वणिक्शिशुः कीदृशं मनः तेन सह प्रस्थितः?

Question 2.
लौहघटितातुला केन खादिता?

Question 3.
तेन सह कः प्रस्थितः?

Question 4.
वणिक्पुत्रः किम् कृत्वा गृहमागतः?

Answer: वणिक्पुत्रः स्नात्वा तं शिशुं (वणिक्शिशु) गिरिगुहायां प्रक्षिप्य, तद्द्वारं बृहत् शिलया आच्छाद्य सत्वरं गृहम् आगतः।

Question 5.
श्रेष्ठी स्वपुत्रम् किम् उवाच?

Answer: श्रेष्ठी स्वपुत्रमुवाच-“वत्स! पितृव्योऽयं तव, स्नानार्थं यास्यति, तद् गम्यताम् अनेन साकम्।

Question 6.
अत्र ‘मिथ्यावादिन्’ इति पदस्य विपर्ययपदं किम् प्रयुक्तम्?

Question 7.
‘भक्षयन्ति’ इति क्रियापदस्य कर्तृपदं किम् अस्मिन् अनुच्छेदे?

Question 8.
अत्र गद्यांशे ‘शीघ्रम्’ इति पदस्य पर्यायपदं किम् प्रयुक्तम्?

Question 9.
‘पुत्रम्’ इत्यर्थे किं पदं प्रयुक्तम् अत्र?

एवं विवदमानौ तौ द्वावपि राजकुलं गतौ। तत्र श्रेष्ठी तारस्वरेण अवदत्- “भोः! वञ्चितोऽहम्! वञ्चितोऽहम्! अब्रह्मण्यम्! अनेन चौरेण मम शिशुः अपहृतः” इति। अथ धर्माधिकारिणः तम् अवदन्-“भोः! समर्प्यतां श्रेष्ठिसुतः’। सोऽवदत्- “किं करोमि? पश्यतो मे नदीतटात् श्येनेन शिशुः अपहृतः’। इति। तच्छ्रुत्वा ते अवदन्-भोः! भवता सत्यं नाभिहितम्-किं श्येनः शिशुं हर्तुं समर्थो भवति? सोऽवदत्-भोः भोः! श्रूयतां मद्वचः
तुलां लौहसहस्रस्य यत्र खादन्ति मूषकाः।
राजन्तत्र हरेच्छ्येनो बालकं, नात्र संशयः॥
ते अपृच्छन्- “कथमेतत्”।
ततः स श्रेष्ठी सभ्यानामग्रे आदितः सर्वं वृत्तान्तं न्यवेदयत्। ततः न्यायाधिकारिणः विहस्य तौ द्वावपि सम्बोध्य तुला-शिशुप्रदानेन तोषितवन्तः।

Question 1.
राजकुलं कौ गतौ?

Question 2.
श्रेष्ठी कीदृशेन स्वरेण प्रोवाच?

Question 3.
किं कुर्वाणौ तौ द्वावपि राजकुलं गतौ?

Question 4.
श्रेष्ठी तारस्वरेण किम् उवाच?

Answer: श्रेष्ठी तारस्वरेण उवाच- “भोः! अब्रह्मण्यम्! अब्रह्मण्यम्! अनेन चौरेण मम शिशुिः अपहृतः” इति।

Question 5.
अत्र किं संशयः न अस्ति?

Answer: यत्र लौहसहस्रस्य तुलाम् मूषकाः खादन्ति तत्र श्येनः अपि बालकम् हरेत् अत्र संशयः न अस्ति।

Question 6.
सर्व’ इति पदस्य विशेष्य पदं किम् अत्र?

Question 7.
गद्यांशे अत्र “सन्तोषितौ” इति क्रियापदस्य कर्तृपदं किम्?

Question 8.
“प्रारम्भतः” इति पदस्य पर्यायपदं किम अस्मिन् अनुच्छेदे?

Question 9.
अत्र “उच्चस्वरेण” इति अर्थे किम् पदं प्रयुक्तम्?

अन्वय लेखनम्

यत्र देशेऽथवा स्थाने भोगा भुक्ताः स्ववीर्यतः।
तस्मिन् विभवहीनो यो वसेत् स पुरुषाधमः॥

अन्वय- यत्र (i) …………….. अथवा (ii) ……………. स्ववीर्यतः भोगाः (iii) ……….. (iv) ………….. यः वसेत् स पुरुषाधमः।
मञ्जूषा- विभवहीनः, स्थाने, देशे, भुक्ता

(i) देशे
(ii) स्थाने
(iii) भुक्ताः
(iv) विभवहीनः।

तुला लौहसहस्रस्य यत्र खादन्ति मूषकाः।
राजन्तत्र हरेच्छ्येनो बालकं, नात्र संशयः॥

अन्वय- राजन्! (i) ………….. लौहसहस्रस्य (ii) ……………. मूषकाः (iii) …………… तत्र (iv) ……………. बालकम् हरेत् अत्र संशयः न।
मञ्जूषा- तुलाम्, यत्र, श्येनः, खादन्ति

(i) यत्र
(ii) तुलाम्
(iii) खादन्ति
(iv) श्येनः।

निम्न श्लोकनि पठित्वा भावलेखनम्

यत्र देशेऽथवा स्थाने भोगा भुक्ताः स्ववीर्यतः
तस्मिन् विभवहीनो यो वसेत स पुरुषाधमः॥

अस्य भावोऽस्ति- यत्र देशे (i) ……………….. स्थाने (ii) …………… भोगाः भुक्ताः (iii) ……………. यः विभवहीनः (iv) …………….. सः पुरुषः अधमः।।
मञ्जूषा- वसेत्, स्ववीर्यतः, अथवा, तस्मिन्

(i) अथवा
(ii) स्ववीर्यतः
(iii) तस्मिन्
(iv) वसेत्।

तुलां लौहसहस्रस्य यत्र खादति मूषकाः।
राजन्तत्र हरेच्छ्येनो बालकं नात्र संशयः॥

अस्य भावोऽस्ति- (i) ………….. यत्र (ii) ……………. तुलां (iii) …………… खादन्ति तत्र श्येनः (iv) …………… हरेत् अत्र संशयः न।।
मञ्जूषा- बालकम्, मूषकाः, लौहसहस्रस्य, राजन्।

(i) राजन्
(ii) लौहसहस्रस्य
(iii) मूषकाः
(iv) बालकम्।

निम्नवाक्यानि घटनाक्रमानुसारं पुनर्लिखत

1. (i) भोः! नास्ति सा, त्वदीया तुला मूषकैर्भक्षिता इति।
(ii) सः एकदा विदेशं गच्छन् अचिन्तयत्।
(iii) कस्मिंश्चिद् अधिष्ठाने जीर्णधनः नामकः वाणिक्पुत्रः आसीत्।
(iv) धनिकः नृपस्य समीपं न्यायार्थम् अगच्छत्।
(v) भोः श्रेष्ठिन्! दीयतां मे सा निक्षेपतुला।
(vi) इमाम् लौहतुलां श्रेष्ठिनः गृहे निक्षिप्य गच्छामि।
(vii) कथं श्येनः पुत्रं नेतुं समर्थोऽस्ति।
(viii) अस्य पुत्रस्य अपहरणं श्येनेन कृतम्।

(i) कस्मिंश्चिद् अधिष्ठाने जीर्णधनः नामकः वाणिवपुत्रः आसीत्।
(ii) सः एकदा विदेशं गच्छन् अचिन्तयत्।
(iii) इमाम् लौहतुलां श्रेष्ठिनः गृहे निक्षिप्य गच्छामि।
(iv) भोः श्रेष्ठिन्! दीयतां मे सा निक्षेपतुला।
(v) भोः! नास्ति सा, त्वदीया तुला मूषकैर्भक्षिता इति।
(vi) कथं श्येनः पुत्रं नेतुं समर्थोऽस्ति।
(vii) धनिकः नृपस्य समीपं न्यायार्थम् अगच्छत्।
(viii) अस्य पुत्रस्य अपहरणं श्येनेन कृतम्।

2. (i) तव तुलां मूषकाः खादिताः।
(ii) न्यायाधीशस्य आज्ञया धनिकः तस्य तुलाम् अयच्छत्।
(iii) न्यायाधीशः जीर्णधनस्य वार्ता श्रुत्वा अवदत्-‘कथमेतत् भवितुं शक्नोति’?
(iv) तव पुत्रं श्येनः नीतवान्।
(v) जीर्णधनः सर्वां वार्ता कथयति।
(vi) एकदा एकः जीर्णधनः नाम वाणिवपुत्रः न्वयसत्।
(vii) सः स्वलौहतुलां धनिकस्य समीपं निक्षिप्य विदेशम् अगच्छत्।
(viii) जीर्णधनः स्नानार्थं धनिकस्य पुत्रं नीत्वा नदीम् अगच्छत्।

(i) एकदा एकः जीर्णधनः नाम वाणिवपुत्रः न्वयसत्।
(ii) सः स्वलौहतुलां धनिकस्य समीपं निक्षिप्य विदेशम् अगच्छत्।
(iii) तव तुलां मूषकाः खादिताः।
(iv) जीर्णधनः स्नानार्थं धनिकस्य पुत्रं नीत्वा नदीम् अगच्छत्।
(v) तव पुत्रं श्येनः नीतवान्।
(vi) न्यायाधीशः जीर्णधनस्य वार्तां श्रुत्वा अवदत्-‘कथमेतत् भवितुं शक्नोति’?
(vii) जीर्णधनः सर्वां वार्ता कथयति।
(viii) न्यायाधीशस्य आज्ञया धनिकः तस्य तुलाम् अयच्छत्।

‘क’ स्तम्भे लिखितानां पदानां पर्यायाः ‘ख’ स्तम्भे लिखिताः। तान् यथासमक्षं योजयत्

‘क’ स्तम्भः – “ख’ स्तम्भः
(i) अधिष्ठाने – एतादृशः
(ii) निक्षेपः – धनाभावात्
(iii) ईदृशः – देहि
(iv) विभवक्षयात् – प्रारम्भतः
(v) समर्पय – बोधयित्वा
(vi) आदितः – हसित्वा
(vii) संबोध्य – न्यासः
(viii) विहस्य – स्थाने

(i) स्थाने
(ii) न्यासः
(iii) एतादृशः
(iv) धनाभावात्
(v) देहि
(vi) प्रारम्भतः
(vii) बोधयित्वा
(viii) हसित्वा

‘क’ स्तम्भे विशेषणानि ‘ख’ स्तम्भे विशेष्याणि दत्तानि। तानि समुचित योजयत

‘क’ स्तम्भः – ‘ख’ स्तम्भः
(i) सुचिरे – तुलाम्
(ii) कस्मिंश्चित् – वृत्तान्तम्
(iii) लौहघटिताम् – पुरुषः
(iv) सर्वं – तौ
(v) अधमः – अधिष्ठाने
(vi) विवादमानौ – काले

(i) काले
(ii) अधिष्ठाने
(iii) तुलाम्
(iv) वृत्तान्तम्
(v) पुरुषः
(vi) तौ

निम्न पदानाम् दत्तेषु विपर्ययपदेषु शुद्धं विपर्ययं सह मेलनं कुरुत’

पदानि – विपर्ययाः
(i) गन्तुम् – मदीया
(ii) सत्यवादिन्! – पुरुषाधमः
(iii) अस्ति – अपर्य
(iv) गृहाण – श्रेष्ठिन्!
(v) त्वदीया – आदितः
(vi) सत्वरम् – आसीत्
(vii) दु:खितमनाः – मिथ्यावादिन्!
(viii) पुरुष श्रेष्ठः – चिरम्
(ix) अन्ततः – प्रहष्टमनाः
(x) भिक्षुक! – आगन्तुम्

(i) आगन्तुम्
(ii) मिथ्यावादिन्!
(iii) आसीत्
(iv) अपर्य
(v) मदीया
(vi) चिरम्
(vii) प्रहष्टमनाः
(viii) पुरुषाधमः
(ix) आदितः
(x) श्रेष्ठिन्!।

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Sanskrit Chapter 8 लौहतुला with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 9 Sanskrit लौहतुला MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

## NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Maths Chapter 12 Introduction to three Dimensional Geometry Ex 12.2

Access Class 11 Maths NCERT Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to three Dimensional Geometry Ex 12.2, contains solutions for all Exercise 12.2 Class 11 questions.

## NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 India-Size and Location

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 India-Size and Location.

Question 1.
Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Odisha
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Tripura
Ans. (b) Odisha.

(ii) The easternmost longitude of India is
(a) 97°25′ E
(b) 68°7′ E
(c) 77°6’E
(d) 82°32’E
Ans. (a) 97°25′ E

(iii) Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with
(a) China
(b) Bhutan
(c) Nepal
(d) Myanmar
Ans. (c) Nepal.

(iv) If you intend to visit kavarati during your summer vacations, which one of the following Union Territories of India you will be going to
(a) Puducherry
(c) Andaman and Nicobar
(d) Daman and Diu

(v) My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundary with India. Identify the country.
(a) Bhutan
(b) Tajikistan
(d) Nepal
Ans. (b) Tajikistan

Question 2.

(i) Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian Sea.
Ans. Lakshadweep islands lie in the Arabian Sea.

(ii) Name the countries which are larger than India.
Ans. Russia, Canada, U.S.A, China, Brazil, and Australia are the countries that are larger than India.

(iii) Which island group of India lies to its south-east?
Ans. Andaman and Nicobar island group lie to the south-east of India.

(iv) Which island countries are our southern neighbours?
Ans. Sri Lanka and Maldives are the two island countries that are our southern neighbours.

Question 3.
The sunrises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat in the west but the watches show the same time. How does this happen?
The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland is about 30°. Despite this fact, the east-west extent appears to be smaller than the north-south extent. From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time lag of two hours. Hence, time along the Standard Meridian of India (82°30’E) passing through Mirzapur (in Uttar Pradesh) is taken as the standard time for the whole country. The latitudinal extent influences the duration of the day and night, as one moves from south to north.

Question 4.
The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered of great significance. Why?
The location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean has helped India in establishing close contacts with West Asia, Africa, and Europe from the western coast and eastern Asia from the eastern coast.

Map Skills

Question 1.
Identify the following with the help of map reading.
(i) The Island groups of India lying in the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
(ii) The countries constituting the Indian Subcontinent.
(iii) The States through which the Tropic of Cancer passes.
(iv) The northernmost latitude in degrees.
(v) The southernmost latitude of the Indian mainland in degrees.
(vi) The eastern and the western-most longitude in degrees.
(vii) The place situated on the three seas.
(viii) The strait separating Sri Lanka from India.
(ix) The Union Territories of India.