Category: CBSE Sample Papers

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into four sections – Section A, B, C and D.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section – A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section – B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 150-200 words.
• Section – C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
• Section – D: Question no, 10 is map based carrying 2 marks.
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
 Short Answer Type Questions (3 x 4  = 12)

Question 1.
“Nation-states marked a step forward in man’s progress”. Discuss. [3]

Question 2.
Explain the main features of the emperor system. [3]

Question 3.
Discuss the beginning of economic development in Australia with the establishment of European colonies. [3]
OR
Why was the history of the Australian native people left out of history books? [3]

Question 4.
Describe the economic reforms introduced under the Meijis. [3]

Section – B
   Long Answer Type Questions (6 x 3 = 18)

Question 5.
Discuss the rise of the Protestant Movement launched in Europe in the 16th – 17th century. [3]
OR
How did Renaissance Humanism impact Christianity. Discuss with emphasis on Protestant Reformation. [3]

Question 6.
Briefly discuss the debates on the ‘Industrial Revolution’. [3]

Question 7.
Discuss the different images that Europeans and native Americans had of each other and the different ways in which they saw nature. [3]
OR
What is the significance of the year 1974 in the Australian Policy? [3]

Section – C
Case Based Question (4 x 2 = 8)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: [l+l+2 = 4]
Canals were initially built to transport coal to cities. This was because the bulk and weight of coal made its transport by road much slower and more expensive than by barges on canals. The demand for coal, as industrial energy and for heating and lighting homes in cities, grew constantly. The making of the first English canal, the Worsley Canal (1761) by James Brindley (1716-72), had no other purpose than to carry coal from the coal deposits at Worsley (near Manchester) to that city; after the canal was completed the price of coal fell by half.

Canals were usually built by big landowners to increase the value of the mines, quarries or forests on their lands. The confluence of canals created marketing centres in new towns. The city of Birmingham, for example, owed its growth to its position at the heart of a canal system connecting London, the Bristol Channel, and the Mersey and Humber rivers. From 1760 to 1790, twenty-five new canal-building projects were begun. In the period known as the ‘canal-mania’, from 1788 to 1796, there were another 46 new projects and over the next 60 years more than 4,000 miles of canal were built.

The first steam locomotive, Stephenson’s Rocket, appeared in 1814. Railways emerged as a new means of transportation that was available throughout the year, both cheap and fast, to carry passengers and goods. They combined two inventions, the iron track which replaced the wooden track in the 1760s and haulage along it by steam engine. The invention of the railways took the entire process of industrialization to a second stage. In 1801, Richard Trevithick (1771-1833) had devised an engine called the ‘Puffing Devil’ that pulled trucks around the mine where he worked in Cornwall. In 1814, the railway engineer George Stephenson (1781-1848) constructed a locomotive, called ‘The Blutcher’, that could pull a weight of 30 tons up a hill at 4 mph.

The first railway line connected the cities of Stockton and Darlington in 1825, a distance of 9 miles that was completed in two hours at speeds of up to 24 kph (15 mph), and the next railway line connected Liverpool and Manchester in 1830. Within 20 years, speeds of 30 to 50 miles an hour were usual.In the 1830s, the use of canals revealed several problems. The congestion of vessels made movement slow on certain stretches of canals, and frost, flood or drought limited the time of their use.

The railways now appeared as a convenient alternative. About 6,000 miles of railway was opened in Britain between 1830 and 1850, most of it in two short bursts. During the Tittle railway mania’ of 1833-37, 1400 miles of line was built, and during the bigger ‘mania’ of 1844-47, another 9,500 miles of line was sanctioned. They used vast amounts of coal and iron, employed large numbers of workers and boosted activity in the construction and public works industries. Most of England had been connected by railway by 1850.

Question 8.1
What appeared as a convenient alternative for canals? [1]

Question 8.2
Why were the canals built in the 18th century? [1]

Question 8.3
Who made the Worsley Canal? What was its purpose? [2]

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: [1+1+2 = 4]
As per the new constitution, the first direct election since 1971 was held in December 1987. But due to the opposition parties’ failure to unite, a fellow military leader of China’s military faction, Roh Tae-Woo, was elected. However, Korea continued along the path of democracy. In 1990, long-time opposition leader Kim Young-sam compromised with Roh’s party to create a large ruling party. In December 1992, Kim, a civilian, was elected the President after decades of military rule.

With his election and the consequent dissolution of authoritarian military power, democracy made its forward march. Under the export-driven policy of the new administration, several companies grew to global prominence, which continued until the early 1990s. With governmental support, Korean conglomerates invested in capital-intensive heavy and chemical industries, as well as, electronic industries, while the government continued to focus on building industrial and social infrastructure.

Meanwhile, under increasing Neo liberalist pressure to open its market, the Kim administration joined the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) in 1996 and attempted to strengthen Korea’s international competitiveness. But amidst increasing trade deficits, poor management by financial institutions, reckless business operations by conglomerates, and more, Korea was met with a foreign currency crisis in 1997. The crisis was dealt with through emergency financial support provided by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). Simultaneous efforts were also made to improve the country’s economic constitution as the citizens actively contributed towards foreign loan repayment through the Gold Collection Movement.

In December 1997, long-time opposition party leader Kim Dae-jung was elected the president for the first time in Korea, marking a peaceful transfer of power. The second peaceful transfer of power came in 2008, when conservative Lee Myung- Bak was elected as the President, following the progressive Roh Mu-hyun administration. In 2012, conservative Park Geun-Hye was elected as the first female President. At the beginning of her presidency, she gained support due to the political legacy of her father, Park Chung-Hee. But in October 2016, as it came to light that she had let a friend secretly manage government affairs, she met with nationwide protests, leading to her impeachment and removal from office in March 2017. In May 2017, Moon Jae-In was elected the President, in a peaceful transfer of power for the third time.

Question 9.1
When was the first election held as per the new Constitution? [1]

Question 9.2
Who had created a large ruling party in Korea and when? [1]

Question 9.3
Who was elected as President in 2012? How did she gain the support at the beginning of her presidency? [2]

Section – D
Map Based Question [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 10.
On the given outline map of Australia, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol.
(I) Country named after Lord Sydney.
OR
(II) State named by a British explorer, James Cook when he reached the island of Botany Bay in 1770.
(III) On the same map of Australia, a place was established as the capital of Australia in the year 1911. It has been marked as A. Identify it and write its name.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Term 2 Set 3 for Practice

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into four sections -Section A, B, C and D.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section – A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section – B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 150-200 words.
• Section – C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
• Section – D: Question no, 10 is map based carrying 2 marks.
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
Short Answer Type Questions (3 x 4 = 12)

Question 1.
Why were Italian towns the first to experience the ideas of humanism? [3]

Question 2.
When and why did the British Parliament enact the Combination Acts? State the provisions of the Act. [3]

Question 3.
How did the invention of steam engine revolutionise the industry and transport? [3]
OR
Describe the expansion of banks in England with special reference to the Bank of England. [3]

Question 4.
What did the natives and the Europeans think of the goods they exchanged? What was the reaction of the natives? [3]

Section – B
Long Answer Type Questions (6 x 3 = 18)

Question 5.
What does the term “Renaissance” mean? Describe any five key features of Renaissance. [3]
OR
“The concept of Renaissance does not truly define the changes that made the 14th century a turning point in history”. Discuss. [3]

Question 6.
Describe the two roads to modernisation as adopted by Japan and China. [3]

Question 7.
What did the ‘frontier’ mean to the Americans? [3]
OR
Why were the history of the Australian native people left out of history books? [3]

Section – C
Case Based Question (4 x 2 = 8)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: [1+1+2 = 4]
England was fortunate in that coal and iron ore, the staple materials for mechanization, were plentifully available, as were other minerals – lead, copper and tin – that were used in industry. However, until the eighteenth century, there was a scarcity of usable iron. Iron is drawn out from ore as pure liquid metal by a process called smelting. For centuries, charcoal (from burnt timber) was used for the smelting process. This had several problems: charcoal was too fragile to transport across long distances; its impurities produced poor-quality iron; it was in short supply because forests had been destroyed for timber; and it could not generate high temperatures. The solution to this problem had been sought for years before it was solved by a family of ironmasters, the Darbys of Shropshire. In the course of half a century, three generations of this family – grandfather, father and son, all called Abraham Darby – brought about a revolution in the metallurgical industry.

It began with an invention in 1709 by the first Abraham Darby (1677 – 1717).
This was a blast furnace that would use coke, which could generate high temperatures; coke was derived from coal by removing the sulphur and impurities. This invention meant that furnaces no longer had to depend on charcoal. The melted iron that emerged from these furnaces permitted finer and larger castings than before.The process was further refined by more inventions. The second Darby (1711 – 68) developed wrought iron (which was less brittle) from pig-iron. Henry Cort (1740 – 1823) designed the puddling furnace (in which molten iron could be rid of impurities) and the rolling mill, which used steam power to roll purified iron into bars. It now became possible to produce a broader range of iron products.

The durability of iron made it a better material than wood for everyday items and for machinery. Unlike wood, which could burn or splinter, the physical and chemical properties of iron could be controlled. In the 1770s, John Wilkinson (1728 – 1808) made the first iron chairs, vats for breweries and distilleries, and iron pipes of all sizes. In 1779, the third Darby (1750 – 91) built the first iron bridge in the world, in Coalbrookdale, spanning the river Severn. Wilkinson used cast iron for the first time to make water pipes (40 miles of it for the water supply of Paris).

Question 8.1
Name the family who brought about a revolution in the metallurgical industry. [1]

Question 8.2
Who mad the first iron chair, vats for breweries and distilleries, and iron pipes of all sizes? [1]

Question 8.3
What were the staple materials for mechanization? [1]

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows: [2+1+1 = 4]
Fukuzawa Yukichi (1835 – 1901):
Born in an impoverished samurai family, he studied in Nagasaki and Osaka learning Dutch and Western sciences and, later, English. In 1860, he went as a translator for the first Japanese embassy to the USA. This provided material for a book on the West, written not in the classical but in the spoken style that became extremely popular. He established a school that is today the Keio University. He was one of the core members of the Meirokusha, a society to promote Western learning. In, The Encouragement to Learning, (Gakumon no Susume,1872 – 76) he was very critical of Japanese knowledge: All that Japan has to be proud of its scenery’. He advocated not just modern factories and institutions but the cultural essence of the West – the spirit of civilisation. With this spirit it would be possible to build a new citizen. His principle was: ‘Heaven did not create men above men, nor set men below men’.

Question 9.1
Who was Fukuzawa Yukichi? Briefly describe his early life. [2]

Question 9.2
Who did he advocate? [1]

Question 9.3
Name the school established by Fukuzawa Yukichi. [1]

Section – D
         Map Based Question (1 + 1 = 2)

Question 10.
On the given outline map of Italy, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol.
(I) The most important city and capital of Italy.
OR
(II) The city of republics.
(III) On the same map of Italy, A is marked as a city where Humanism taught. Identify it and write its name.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into four sections – Section A, B, C and D.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section – A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section – B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to this question should not exceed 150-200 words.
• Section – C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
• Section – D: Question no, 10 is map based carrying 2 marks.
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
Short Answer Type Questions (3 X 4 = 12)

Question 1.
What was the objective of the European countries to establish colonies? What was their nature of control over the colonies? [3]
Answer:
The main objective of the European countries to establish colonies was to earn profit The nature of
control was different in different colonies:
1. In South Asia, the East India Company was established to trade with India but ultimately succeeded in becoming a political power by defeating the local rulers and annexing their territories.

2. In Africa, the Europeans initially traded on the coast, but later the imperialist powers agreed to divide Africa as colonies among themselves.

3. The Europeans settled in countries like Ireland, NewZealand and Australia and South Africa and became to be known as ‘settlers’.

Question 2.
‘Britain was the first country to experience modern industrialisation’. Examine the factors responsible for it. [3]
OR
What are the relative advantages of canals and railway transportation? [3]
Answer:
Britain was the first country to experience modern industrialisation’ because:
1. Britain had accumulated large amounts of money by foreign trade. The British merchants were very rich and could invest their capital in industries. Raw materials for factories were easily available in the colonies.

2. The agricultural revolution had greatly increased the number of landless peasants in Britain and these became the workforce for the factories.

3. Britain had sufficient natural reserves of coal and iron that helped in establishing industries. They had amassed huge wealth which was necessary for the functioning of industries.

4. There were many technological inventions in Britain that accelerated the pace of industrialisation.

OR

Advantages of canal and and railway transportation was:
1. Canals helped meet and transport economically the increasing demand for coal as industrial energy for heating and lighting. The confluence of canals also created marketing centers in new towns. All the navigable sections of the river flowed into the sea. Therefore, cargo on the river was easily transported to coastal ships. However, the congestion of vehicles slowed the movement of cargo on certain stretches.

2. Railways emerged as a new means of transportation available throughout the year. It was both cheap and fast, to carry passengers and goods.

3. In the second stage, the invention of the railways took the entire process of industrialisation.

Question 3.
Why did the tribes not attempt to produce a surplus? [3]
Answer:
The tribes did not attempt extensive agriculture and since they did not produce a surplus, they did not develop kingdoms and empires as in Central and South America. There were some instances of quarrels between tribes over territory but by and large, the control over land was not an issue. They were content with the food and shelter they got from the land without feeling any need to ‘own’ it. An important feature of their tradition was that of making formal alliances and friendships and exchanging gifts. Goods were obtained not by buying them, but as gifts.

Question 4.
Discuss the political system under Tokugawa Shogun. [3]
Answer:
The main features of political system under Tokugawa were:
(i) The political system was based on a rigid social structure headed by the emperor whose role was largely symbolic. The country was in effect controlled by the Tokugawas. The Shoguns were followed by the Daimyos. These lords exercised power over 250 domains, into which the country was divided. Each Daimyo exercised autonomous control over his domain and was responsible for maintaining troops and collecting taxes.

(ii) The Shogun sought to maintain control over the Daimyos by what has been called the ‘alternate attendance system’ and ‘hostage system’. This required the families of Daimyos to remain in Edo while the Daimyo took care of his domain.

(iii) The Daimyos were followed by the warrior class the ‘Samurai’. Since most of the Tokugawa period
was peaceful, these came to be a part of ‘privileged idlers’. Then came the peasants and the last was the merchant class

Section – B
Long Answer Type Questions (6 x 3 = 18)

Question 5.
Name the Renaissance scientists who contribute to the revolution in science. [3]
OR
What do you understand by the term ‘Renaissance’? Analyse the role of the printing press in Renaissance and the rapid spread of humanist culture of Italy. [3]
Answer:
Renaissance scientists represented a new trend with a focus on questioning, observation, and experimentation.
(i) Copernicus (1473 – 1543):
Represented the turning point in European science. He was the first to put forth the theory that the earth rotates on its axis and revolves around the sun. This was a complete break from the traditional system of thought which believed that the earth was the center of the world. It was a sinful place and the heavy burden of sin made it immobile.

(ii) Galileo (1564 – 1642):
He invented the telescope and used it to observe heavenly bodies. Based on his observations he confirmed Copernicus’ theory.

(iii) Kepler (1571 – 1630):
Kepler was responsible for creating Kepler’s laws of planetary motion. Kepler popularised the theory that the earth was a part of a sun-centered system and demonstrated that the planets moved around the sun in elliptical orbits and not circles. Kepler was one of the first to incorporate the field of physics and the field of astronomy.

(iv) Isaac Newton (1642 – 1726):
He put forth the Theory of Gravitation which proved that all heavenly bodies move according to their gravitational force.

(v) Vesalius (1514 – 1564):
Based on his study of dissection of the human body, he provided a complete description of the human body. This marked the beginning of modern anatomy.

(vi) John Napier:
He originated the concept of logarithms as a mathematical device to aid in calculations.
The Renaissance scientists began learning by observation and experimentation popularly termed the scientific method. It emphasized knowledge as distinct from belief. This method is to date applied to various fields and is termed the Scientific Revolution. Increasingly nature rather than God was seen as the source of all creation. This thought was popularised by scientific societies such as Paris Academy (1670) and the Royal Society in London (1662).

OR

Renaissance means ‘rebirth’. It occurred in Italy in the 15th century. A It is a French word. It gave a new dimension to art and culture and created awareness among the people. It started from Italy.
Role of Printing Press:
(i) The invention of the printing press made books available to the people in various towns and cities.

(ii) Rome, Florence and Venice became the centers of art and learning. Many artists, scholars and writers were patronized by the rich people in the cities and towns.

(iii) A printed book promoting ideas could quickly reach hundreds of readers.
The rapid spread of humanist culture of Italy:

(iv)The main reason behind the rapid spread of humanism was the fast circulation of the printed books rapidly across the Alps.

Question 6.
Do you think that Mao Zedong and the Communist Party of China were successful in liberating China and laying the basis for its current success? [3]
Answer:
It is true that Mao Zedong and the Communist Party of China were successful in liberating China and laying basis for its current success. In 1925, after the death of Sun Yat-sen, the Guomindang was headed by Chiang-Kai-shek. Previously, the Communist Party of China was founded in 1921. He tried his best to strengthen the rule of the Guomindang. But no initiatives were taken to achieve the three revolutionary principles of Sun Yat-sen, i.e., nationalism, democracy and socialism. He also made an attempt to raise a new class of landlords. They always exploited the peasantry. Mao Zedong, a Communist leader formed the Red Army. It was formed to strengthen the Peasant Movement. He became its chairperson in 1930. He also started a guerrilla war against Chiang-Kai-shek’s army.

He defeated Chiang’s army four times. But for the fifth time, he left the idea of war and started the Long March. Mao Zedong formed a Communist front against Japan in 1935. It was his opinion that his struggle against Japan would make his mass movement more effective. He suggested that a United Front be formed in collaboration with Red Army. But Chiang completely denied his proposal and he was imprisoned by his own soldiers. The increasing power of Mao Zedong worried Chiang-Kai-shek. He was not interested in working with him.

Even then he came with Mao in the war against Japan. After the end of war, Mao put the proposal of coalition government before Chiang but he declined. Mao continued his struggle and was elected the chairman of the Chinese Government. Chiang Kai-shek was worried about increasing power of Mao Zedong. After many persuasions he became ready to stand by Mao against Japan. In 1949, Chiang fled to Formosa to seek asylum. Mao was elected the Chairman of the Chinese Government. He held his office till his death.

Question 7.
How did the Industrial Revolution in England affect India’s economy? [3]
OR
What sort of reforms through laws were made by the British government to improve the condition of workers? [3]
Answer:
Industrial Revolution in England became the main cause of poverty in India. As India was a colony of England, it hit the Indian economy adversely. Due to the Industrial Revolution in England India’s economy was affected in the following ways:
(i) The Industrial Revolution enabled England to produce more goods than needed there. Indian markets were flooded with the machine made goods from England. In this way, India became a big consumer of the English goods.

(ii) The Industrial Revolution in England threw the Indian artisans and handicrafts men out of job. As a result, small industries of India collapsed.

(iii) The British Government forced the Indian farmers to sell their raw materials at cheap rates to the British factory owners. The policy of exploiting the Indian economy for the benefit of the British capitalist was the direct consequence of the Industrial Revolution on India’s economy.

(iv) The unemployed artisans again became the farm labourers. They became a burden on the Indian agriculture. In this way, within very short-time, India became a poor country where agriculture was the only occupation of the people.

(v) Before the Industrial Revolution, India was the major producer of cotton, woollen and silken clothes. Now India suffered a severe setback in these industries. Clothes made by the British mills were cheaper than the Indian clothes.

(vi) The Indian goods could not compete with the British goods. The British Government in India
imposed heavy duties on the Indian goods and discouraged the Indian craftsmen in many ways so that they could never think of competing with the British goods.

OR

The reforms through laws made by the British government were as follows:
(i) Act of 1819:
In 1819, laws were passed. It prohibited the employment of children under the age of nine in factories. It limited the hours of work of those between the age of 9 and 16 to 12 hours a day.

(ii) Act of 1833:
Under the Act of 1833, children under the age of nine were permitted to be employed only in silk factories. This act also limited the hours of work for older children. A number of Factory Inspectors Act were also employed to ensure that the Act was enforced.

(iii) Ten Hours Bill:
In 1847, the Ten Hours Bill was passed. This bill limited the hours of work for women and children and secured a ten-hour day for male workers.

(iv) The Mines Commission of 1842:
The Mines Commission was set up in 1842. This commission revealed that working conditions in mines had become worst, because more children had been put to work in coal mines.

(v) The Mines and Collieries Act of 1842:
The Mines and Collieries Act of 1842 banned children under ten and women from working in underground mines.

(vi) Fielder’s Factory Act of 1847:
In this act, it was laid down that children under eighteen and women should not work more than ten hour a day.

Section – C
Case Based Question (4 x 2 = 8)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:  [1+1+2 = 4]
Much of the writings of the Greeks and Romans had been familiar to monks and clergymen through the ‘Middle Ages’, but they had not made these widely known. In the fourteenth century, many scholars began to read translated works of Greek writers like Plato and Aristotle. For this they were indebted not to their own scholars but to Arab translators who had carefully preserved and translated ancient manuscripts (Plato was Aflatun, and Aristotle Aristu in Arabic).

While some European scholars read Greek in Arabic translation, the Greeks translated works of Arabic and Persian scholars for further transmission to other Europeans. These were works on natural science, mathematics, astronomy, medicine and chemistry. Ptolemy’s Almagest (a work on astronomy, written in Greek before 140 CE and later translated into Arabic) carries the Arabic definite article ‘al’, which brings out the Arabic connection. Among the Muslim writers who were regarded as men of wisdom in the Italian world were Ibn Sina (‘Avicenna’ in Latin, 980 – 1037), an Arab physician and philosopher of Bukhara in Central Asia, and al-Razi (‘Rhazes’), author of a medical encyclopaedia.

Ibn Rushd (‘Averroes’ in Latin, 1126 – 98), an Arab philosopher of Spain, tried to resolve the tension between philosophical knowledge (faylasuf) and religious beliefs. His method was adopted by Christian thinkers. Humanists reached out to people in a variety of ways. Though, the curricula in universities continued to be dominated by law, medicine and theology, humanist subjects slowly began to be introduced in schools, not just in Italy but in other European countries as well.

Question 8.1
Among the Muslim writers who was regarded as the man of wisdom ? [1]
Answer:
Among the Muslim writers Ibn Sina and A1 Razi were regarded as men of wisdom.

Question 8.2
Who was the author of the medical encyclopaedia? [1]
Answer:
Ibn Sina an Arab physician and philosopher of Bukhara in Central Asia, and Al-Razi, were the authors of the medical encyclopedia.

Question 8.3
What is Ptolemy’s Almagest all about? [2]
Answer:
Ptolemy’s Almagest is a 2nd – century Greek-language mathematical and astronomical treatise on the apparent motions of the stars and planetary paths, written by Claudius Ptolemy. It is also a key source of information about ancient Greek astronomy.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:  [1+1+2 = 4]
As in the Americas, human habitation in Australia has a long history. The ‘aborigines’ (a general name given to a number of different societies) began to arrive on the continent over 40,000 years ago (possibly even earlier). They came from New Guinea, which was connected to Australia by a land-bridge. In the natives’ traditions, they did not come to Australia, but had always been there. The past centuries were called the ‘Dreamtime’ – something difficult for Europeans to understand, since the distinction between past and present is blurred. In the late eighteenth century, there were between 350 and 750 native communities in Australia each with its own language (even today 200 of these languages are spoken). There is another large group of indigenous people living in the north, called the Torres Strait Islanders.

The term ‘Aborigine’ is not used for these as they are believed to have migrated from elsewhere and belong to a different race. Together, they make up 2.4 per cent of Australia’s population in 2005. Australia is sparsely populated, and even now most of the towns are along the coast (where the British first arrived in 1770) because the central region is arid desert. The story of the interaction between the European settlers, the native peoples and the land in Australia has many points of similarity to the story of the Americas, though it began nearly 300 years later. Initial reports from Captain Cook and his crew about encounters with natives are enthusiastic about their friendliness. There was a sharp reversal of feeling on the part of the British when Cook was killed by a native – not in Australia, but in Hawaii. As often happened, a single incident of this nature was used by colonisers to justify subsequent acts of violence towards other people.

They did not foresee that in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries nearly 90 per cent of them would die by exposure to germs, by the loss of their lands and resources, and in battles against the settlers. The experiment of settling Brazil with Portuguese convicts had been abandoned when their violent behaviour provoked angry reprisals from the natives. The British had adopted the same practice in the American colonies until they became independent. Then they continued it in Australia. Most of the early settlers were convicts who had been deported from England and, when their jail term ended, were allowed to live as free people in Australia on condition that they did not return to Britain. With no recourse but to make a life for themselves in this land so different from their own, they felt no hesitation about ejecting natives from land they took over for cultivation.

Question 9.1
Who were the Aborigines? [1]
Answer:
he aborigines are Australia’s indigenous people.

Question 9.2
Who were Torres Strait Islanders? [1]
Answer:
Torres Strait Islanders were indigenous people living in the north of the Australian continent.

Question 9.3
Who were the early setters of Australia? [2]
Answer:
Most of the early settlers were convicts who had been deported from England and when their jail term ended, were allowed to live as free people in Australia on condition that they would not return to Britain.

Section – D
Map Based Question (1 + 1 = 2)

Question 10.
On the given outline map of East Asia, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol.
(I) Sun Yat-sen unanimously regarded as the founder of modern version of this country.
OR
(II) This country had been a Japanese colony since the Chinese ceded it after the 1894-95 war.
(III) On the same map of East Asia, A is a country which became a member of United Nations in the year 1956. A. Identify it and write its name.
Answer:
(I) China
(II) Taiwan
(IiI) Japan

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into four sections-Section A, B, C and D.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section – A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section – B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 150-200 words.
• Section – C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
• Section – D: Question no, 10 is map based carrying 2 marks.
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
Short Answer Type Questions (3 x 4 = 12)

Question 1.
State the features of Humanist thought. [3]
Answer:
The features of Humanist thought are:

1. The humanist thought, implied that religious teachings alone could not provide answers to a holistic life.
2. It stressed the human skills individually. The person with various skills and interests was called as Renaissance
3. These subjects were not drawn from or connected with religion.

Question 2.
Explain the meaning of Industrial Revolution. [3]
OR
How did the political stability of England contribute to the advent of the Industrial Revolution? [3]
Answer:
The transformation of industry and economy in Britain between the 1780s and 1850s is referred to as the Industrial Revolution. In order words, Industrial Revolution means the transformation of industry and economy of a country with quick succession than normal slow rate. The technological changes introduced novel ways of working and living and fundamentally transformed society. This led to increased production and efficiency, lower prices, more goods, improved wages and migration from rural areas to urban areas.

OR

England was politically more strong and stable than the other European countries since the 17th century. England, Wales and Scotland were unified under a constitutional monarchy and peace prevailed in the country. There were common laws and a common currency and a common market system that was not fragmented by local authorities. With political stability people could takes out loans which led to entrepreneurs making new machines and expanding their businesses. Political stability, thus, contributed in a major way to the advent of the Industrial Revolution.

Question 3.
What changes helped in the revival of the Italian culture after the fall of the Western Roman Empire. [3]
Answer:
Political and cultural centres in Italy were destroyed after the fall of the Western Roman Empire. There was no unified government during those times. Pope was not strong though he was sovereign in his own state. For a long time, the regions of Western Europe were shaped by feudal relations unified under the Latin Church. Changes were brought about in Eastern Europe under the Byzantine empire. Islam too was creating a common civilisation in the west. The revival of trade gave a new lease of life to the port cities of Italy which became centres of growing commerce. Here the merchants and the bankers assumed an important role instead of the clergy or the state. These changes helped in revival of the Italian culture.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Tanaka Shozo. [3]
Answer:

1. Tanaka Shozo was a self-taught son of a farmer, who rose to become a major political figure. He participated in (1841 – 1913) the popular rights movement in the 1880s, which demanded constitutional government in Japan.
2. He was elected to the Diet. He believed that people’s lives should not be sacrificed for industrial progress Solutions.
3. He, therefore, launched the first agitation against industrial pollution in 1897. The mass protest forced the government to take action. Thus, he played an important role in the movement towards environmental destruction.

Section – B
Long Answer Type Questions (6 x 3 = 18)

Question 5.
Discuss some characteristics of the natives of America. [3]
OR
When and how did things improve for the natives of the USA and Canada? Discuss. [3]
Answer:
The characteristics of the natives of America are:
(i) These people lived in bands in villages along the river valleys, ate fish and cultivated vegetables and maize. They searched for meat, chiefly of the bison that roamed the grasslands. However, they killed only as many animals as they needed for food. They practiced subsistence level agriculture and did not produce surplus.

(ii) There were some instances of quarrels between tribes over territory but by and large they were content with food and shelter they got from the land and did not feel the need to own it.

(iii) An important feature of their tradition was of making formal alliances friendships and exchange of gifts. They exchanged ‘wampum belts’ after the treaty was agreed to. They did not believe in commodifying goods but obtained them as ‘gifts’.

(iv) They spoke numerous languages but these were not written down. They believed time moved in cycles and each tribe had accounts about their origins which were passed from one generation to another by word of mouth. They could understand the climatic changes and different landscapes.

(v) They were extremely superstitious but simple people, who loved and lived close to nature. E.g., when the Europeans slaughtered hundreds of beavers for fur, the natives were not only puzzled by their greed, but feared the animals would take revenge on them for their destruction.

OR

Things began to improve for the natives of the USA and Canada from the 1920s. In 1928 a survey report by social scientist, Lewis Meriam titled, “The Problems of Indian Administration” painted a grim picture of the poor health and education facili ties for natives in reservations. Sympathy among “whites” for the natives who were denied benefits of citizenship and being discouraged from the full exercise of their cultures led to a landmark law in the USA, the Indian Re¬organisation Act of 1934. This gave the natives the hitherto denied right to buy land and take loans in reservations. Attempts by the USA and Canadian governments to end the special provisions for the natives and make them join the mainstream ended in failures.

In 1954, in the “Declaration of Indian Rights” prepared by them, the native people accepted the citizenship of the USA but on the condition that their reservation would not be taken away and their traditions would not be interfered with. In Canada, the government announced in 1969 that they would “not recognise aboriginal rights” the natives mustered support and organised opposition by holding debates and a series of demonstrations. Ultimately the government relented and by the Constitutional Act of 1982 accepted the . existing aboriginal and treaty rights of the natives. Today while the natives in both the countries are much reduced in numbers they have been able to assert their right to their own cultures and particularly in Canada to their “sacred lands” in a way their ancestors could not have done in the 1880s.

Question 6.
Describe the condition of Japan before the Meiji Restoration. [3]
Answer:
Political condition:
Japan was ruled by an emperor from Kyoto while the actual powers were in the hands of the Shoguns. From 1603 to 1867, the members of the Tokugawa family held the position of the Shogun, the country was divided into 250 domains each ruled by a daimyo. The daimyos were given a large degree of autonomy and were ordered to live in the capitals of their domains. By the mid 17th century the daimyo’s capitals became bigger.

Social condition:
Edo was the most populated city in the world by the mid-17th century. Osaka and Kyoto were the other large cities in Japan. There were about half a dozen castle-towns with population over 50,000. A person’s merit was valued more than his status. A vibrant culture grew around the towns. Habit of reading increased among the people and many writers could earn their living solely by writing.

Economic conditions:
Growth of cities led to the growth of a commercial economy. Financial and credit system came into existence. Japan was considered rich as it began to import luxury goods like silk from China and textiles from India. There was an increased use of money. There was a stock market in rice which was a sign of economic prosperity in those days.

Question 7.
Describe in detail the effects of Industrial Revolution in Britain. [3]
OR
What do you know about Luddism? Explain.[3]
Answer:
The Industrial Revolution deeply affected all aspects of public life in England. It transformed Britain an from agriculture-dominated country into an industrial country.
Following were the major effects of the Industrial Revolution:
(i) It made England one of the largest industrial nations. She established her trade relations with other countries and with increased exports her national income increased. London had acquired a global significance.

(ii) The machines invented during this period could not be installed at home so innumerable factories were set up in the country. Consequently, cottage industries almost ended.

(iii) The Industrial Revolution Contributed to the establishment of large towns such as Manchester, Lancashire, Birmingham. This pace of growth was not matched with the provision of adequate housing, sanitation or clean water for the rapidly growing urban population.

(iv) Invention of machines resulted in the sufficient production of goods. As these were cheaper, more and more people began to buy them.

(v) One of the worst effects was the elimination of the home industries. As a single machine could do the work of many people, people who rendered manual labour were left unemployed.

(vi) The Industrial Revolution forced small farmers to sell their land and work in the factories. The bigger landlords bought up small farms near their own properties and enclosed the village common lands. Thus, the number of landless labour increased.

(vii) The Industrial Revolution was a time of important changes in the way that children and women worked. The earnings of women and children were necessary to supplement men’s meagre wages. Factory managers considered child labour to be important training for future factory work.

(viii)The condition of workers was quite miserable. They became victims of restlessness, epidemics and diseases.

OR

The movement known as Luddism (1811 – 17) was led by General Ned Ludd. Luddism was not merely a backward-looking assault on the machines. Its participants demanded a minimum wage, control over the labour of women and children, work for those who had lost their jobs because of machines and the right to form trade unions so that they could legally represent their demands.

During the early years of industrialization, the working population possessed neither the vote nor legal methods to express their anger at the drastic manner in which their lives had been overturned. In August 1819 around 80,000 people had gathered peacefully at St. Peter’s Fields in Manchester to claim democratic rights of political organization, public meetings and of the freedom of the press.

The movement was brutally suppressed and it what came to be known as the Peterloo Massacre and the rights they demanded were denied by the Six Acts, passed by Parliament the same year. These extended the restrictions on political activity introduced in the two Combination Acts of 1795. But there were some gains. After Peterloo, the need to make the House of Commons more representative was recognized by liberal political groups and the Combination Acts were repealed in 1824 – 25.

Section – C
Case Based Question (4 x 2 = 8)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:  [1+1+2 = 4]
The earliest universities in Europe had been set up in Italian towns. The universities of Padua and Bologna had been centres of legal studies from the eleventh century. Commerce being the chief activity in the city, there was an increasing demand for lawyers and notaries (a combination of solicitor and record-keeper) to write and interpret rules and written agreements without which trade on a large scale was not possible. Law was therefore a popular subject of study, but there was now a shift in emphasis. It was studied in the context of earlier Roman culture. Francesco Petrarch (1304 – 78) represented this change. To Petrarch, antiquity was a distinctive civilisation which could be best understood through the actual words of the ancient Greeks and Romans. He therefore, stressed the importance of a close reading of ancient authors.

This educational programme implied that there was much to be learnt which religious teaching alone could not give. This was the culture which historians in the nineteenth century were to label ‘humanism’. By the early fifteenth century, the term ‘humanist’ was used for masters who taught grammar, rhetoric, poetry, history and moral philosophy. The Latin word humanitas, from which ‘humanities’ was derived, had been used many centuries ago by the Roman lawyer and essayist Cicero (106 – 43. BCE), a contemporary of Julius Caesar, to mean culture: These subjects-were not drawn from or connected with religion and emphasised skills developed by individuals through discussion and debate.

These revolutionary ideas attracted attention in many other universities, particularly in the newly established university in Petrarch’s own home-town of Florence. Till the end of the thirteenth century, this city had not made a mark as a centre of trade or of learning, but things changed dramatically in the fifteenth century. A city is known by its great citizens as much as by its wealth and Florence hadcome to be known because of Dante Alighieri (1265 – 1321), a layman who wrote on religious themes and Giotto (1267-1337), an artist who painted lifelike portraits, very different from the stiff figures done by earlier artists. From then it developed as the most exciting intellectual city in Italy and as a centre of artistic creativity. The term “Renaissance Man’ is often used to describe a person with many interests and skills, because many of the individuals who became well known at this time were people of many parts. They were scholar-diplomat-theologian-artist combined in one.

Question 8.1.
Who was Giotto? [1]
Answer:
Giotto (1267 – 1337), was an Italian painter who painted lifelike portraits, very different from the stiff figures done by earlier artists.

Question 8.2.
Which universities legal studies during the 11th century? [1]
Answer:
The universities of Padua and Bologna had been centres of legal studies from the plevenfh century.

Question 8.3.
Who was Petrarch? Why was he famous? [2]
Answer:
etrarch was an Italian scholar, poet and humanist. Francesco Petrarch is known as ‘Father of Humanism’. He is best known for the Lyric poetry of his Canzoniere and is considered one of the greatest love poets of world literature.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:  [1+1+2 = 4]
The Gold Rush and the Growth of Industries there was always the hope that there was gold in North America. In the 1840s, traces of gold were found in the USA, in California. This led to the “Gold Rush’, when thousands of eager Europeans hurried to America in the hope of making a quick fortune. This led to the building of railway lines across the continent, for which thousands of Chinese workers were recruited. The USA’s railway was completed by 1870, that of Canada by 1885.

“The old nations creep on at a snail’s pace’ said Andrew Carnegie, a poor immigrant from Scotland who became one of the first millionaire industrialists in the USA, ‘the Republic thunders on at the speed of an express’. One reason why the Industrial Revolution happened in England when it did was because small peasants were losing their land to big farmers and moving to jobs in factories. In North America, industries developed for very different reasons to manufacture railway equipment so that rapid transport could link distant places and to produce machinery which would make large-scale farming easier. Industrial towns grew and factories multiplied, both in the USA and Canada.

In 1860, the USA had been an undeveloped economy. In 1890, it was the leading industrial power in the world. Large-scale agriculture also expanded. Vast areas were cleared and divided up into farms. By 1890, the bison had almost been exterminated, thus, ending the life of hunting the natives had followed for centuries. In 1892, the USA’s continental expansion was complete. The area between the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans was divided up into states. There no longer remained the ‘frontier’ that had pulled European settlers west for many decades. Within a few years the USA was setting up its own colonies in Hawaii and the Philippines. It had become an imperial power.

Question 9.1.
Who was Andrew Carnegie? [1]
Answer:
Andrew Carnegie was a poor immigrant from Scotland who became one of the first millionaire industrialists in the USA.

Question 9.2.
What was the Gold Rush? [1]
Answer:
In the 1840s, traces of gold were found in the USA, in California. This led to the ‘Gold Rush’ when thousands of eager Europeans hurried to America in the hope of making a quick fortune.

Question 9.3.
In North America, industries developed for very different reasons. Why? [2]
Answer:
In North America, industries developed for very different reasons so as to manufacture railway equipment so that rapid transport could link distant places and to produce machinery which would make large-scale farming easier.

Section – D
Map Based Question (1+1=2)

Question 10.
On the given outline map of Britain, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol.
(I) A place known for iron and coal manufacturing centre. [1]
OR
(II) A place known for cotton textile manufacturing centre. [1]
(III) On the same map of United Kingdom, A is marked as a place where James Watt created the Soho. [1]
Answer:
(I) Shropshire
(II) Manchester
(III) Birmingham

 

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography Term 2 Set 5 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D & E.
• In Section A question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer Type Questions. Attempt any 3 Questions.
• In Section B question number 4 is Source Based Question.
• In Section C question number 5 &6 are Short Answer Based Questions.
• In Section D question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer Based Questions.
• In Section E question number 10 is a Map Based Question.

Section – A

             (Very Short Answer Type Questions) (2 x 3 = 6)
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of ocean currents? [2]
OR
How do the sun’s rays while passing through the atmosphere gets absorbed? [2]

Question 2.
Why are tides important? [2]

Question 3.
What is the objective of Project Elephant? [2]

Section – B
Source Based Question (1 x 3 = 3)

Question 4.
EI – Nino and the Indian Monsoon:
EI – Nino is a complex weather system that appears once every three to seven years, bringing drought, floods and other weather extremes to different parts of the world. The system involves oceanic and atmospheric phenomena with the appearance of warm currents off the coast of Peru in the Eastern Pacific and affects weather in many places including India. EI – Nino is merely an extension of the warm equatorial current which gets replaced temporarily by cold Peruvian current or Humbolt current (locate these currents in your atlas). This current increases the temperature of water on the Peruvian coast by 10°C. This results in:

1. The distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation.
2. Irregularities in the evaporation of seawater.
3. Reduction in the number of planktons which further reduces the number of fish in the sea.

The word EI – Nino means ‘Child Christ’ because this current appears around Christmas in December. December is a summer month in Peru (Southern Hemisphere). EI – Nino is used in India for forecasting long-range monsoon rainfall. In 1990-91, there was a wild EI – Nino event and the onset of southwest monsoon was delayed over most parts of the country ranging from five to twelve days.

Attempt All Questions:

(i) What are the effects of El – Nino? [1]

(ii) How is EI – Nino used in India? [1]

(iii) What does the word ‘EI – Nino’ mean? [1]

Section – C
Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 3 = 6)

Question 5.
Differentiate between convectional rain and orographic rain? [3]

Question 6.
When was the comprehensive Wildlife Act enacted and what were are its objectives? [3]
OR
What do you know about saline soils? [3]

Section – D
                Long Answer Type Questions (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 7.
Mention the causes responsible for soil erosion. [5]

Question 8.
Explain the factors that affect the insolation of the surface of the earth. [5]
OR
Draw a suitable diagram for the structure of the atmosphere and label it and describe it? [5]

Question 9.
Explain the different types of soil erosion. [5]

Section – E 
Map Based Questions (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 10.
On the outline map of India indicate and mark the following features. (Attempt any 5)
(i) A place where Arid Soil is found in North India.
(ii) Largest Mangrove forest in India.
(iii) A South Indian state where Red Soil is found.
(iv) Biosphere reserves of Nanda Devi.
(v) The district where the first biosphere in India was developed.
(vi) The state where Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is situated.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D & E.
• In Section A question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer Type Questions. Attempt any 3 Questions.
• In Section B question number 4 is Source Based Question.
• In Section C question number 5 &6 are Short Answer Based Questions.
• In Section D question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer Based Questions.
• In Section E question number 10 is a Map Based Question.

Section – A

(Very Short Answer Type Questions) (2 x 3 = 6)
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
What do you know about the oxygen cycle? [2]
OR
Mention the importance of biodiversity. [2]

Question 2.
Differentiate between precipitation and condensation. [2]

Question 3.
Differentiate between spring tides and neap tides? [2]

Section – B
Source Based Question (1 x 3 = 3)

Question 4.
Tropical Thorn Forests:
Tropical thorn forests occur in areas that receive rainfall less than 50 cm. These consist of a variety of grasses and shrubs. It includes semi-arid areas of south-west Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. In these forests, plants remain leafless for most of the year and give an expression of scrub vegetation. Important species found are babool, ber, and wild date palm, khair, neem, khejri, palas, etc. Tussocky grass grows up to a height of 2m as the undergrowth.

Attempt All Questions

(i) Where are tropical thorn forests found in India? [1]

(ii) Where do tropical thorn forests occur? [1]

(iii) Name any two trees found in the tropical thorn forest. [1]

Section – C
Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 3 = 6)

Question 5.
State the main features of montane forests? [3]

Question 6.
What are the primary forces that influence the currents? [3]
OR
How does the distance from the sea affect the temperature of an area? [3]

Section – D
Long Answer Type Questions (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 7.
‘Natural vegetation is an outcome of climate.’ Substantiate the statement by taking example of Indian vegetation. [5]

Question 8.
Discuss the processes through which the earth-atmosphere system maintains heat balance. [5]
OR
Explain the spatial variation in the rainfall throughout the country. [5]

Question 9.
What objectives have been determined for the conservation of forests according to National Forest Policy? [5]

Section – E
Map Based Questions (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 10.
On the outline map of the India indicate and mark the following features. (Attempt any 5)
(i) The sun is almost overhead all year-round at the southernmost tip of this island.
(ii) State where Manas National Park is located.
(iii) State where Simlipal National Park is located.
(iv) A state where Black Soil is found.
(v) A South Indian state where Red Soil is found.
(vi) An earthquake prone area in Northern plains.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D & E.
• In Section A question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer Type Questions. Attempt any 3 Questions.
• In Section B question number 4 is Source Based Question.
• In Section C question number 5 &6 are Short Answer Based Questions.
• In Section D question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer Based Questions.
• In Section E question number 10 is a Map Based Question.

Section – A

(Very Short Answer Type Questions) (2 x 3 = 6)
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
What is soil made up of? [2]
OR
Differentiate between gentle slope and steep slope. [2]
Answer:
Soil is made up of the following things:
(i) Clay: It is the smallest particle of broken rock in soil , less than .0002 mm in diameter, so it is fine dust. When wet, the individual particles stick together to form a solid mass. When they dry , they can bake to a hard crust. Clay holds water that does not drain away.

(ii) Silt: It is slightly larger pieces of rock than clay. It is also soft and smooth, with individual pieces close together. It too holds a lot of water, but the slightly larger particles make it a little better at draining then clay.

(iii) Sand: It is small piece of rock (2mm to ,05mm diameter) such as quartz or sandstone. Sand particles are large enough to allow water to drain easily, but they do not hold water and are easily blown around when dry.

(iv) Stones, rocks and boulders: They are larger pieces of rock which are too big to form part of the soil but are found in many gardens. Under the surface layer of soil, they can help drainage.

Commonly Made Error:
The students try to attempt the question without understanding the physical makeup of the soil:

Answering Tip:
Before attempting the question, student should be aware that the soil is made up of mainly of mineral particles, organic materials, air, water and living organisms.

Or

Gentle Slope	Steep Slope
1. Slope of 5% of the land is called gentle slope.	1. Slope of 10% of the land is called steep slope.
2. In gentle slopes the change in elevation is gradual.	2. The staseep slopes suddenly slopes up and down.
3. On gentle slopes water tends to move slowly. Soils tend to be thicker, more infiltration can occur.	3. On steep mountain sides, water tends to move downward more rapidly.

Question 2.
What cause the occurrence of tides? [2]
Answer:

1. The moon’s gravitational pull to a great extent and to a lesser extent the sun’s gravitational pull, are the major causes for the occurrence of tides.
2. Another factor is centrifugal force, which is the force that acts to counter the balance the gravity. Together, the gravitational pull and the centrifugal force are responsible for creating the two major tidal bulges on the earth.

Question 3.
Why is ozone an important constituent of atmosphere? [2]
Answer:
Ozone is an important component of the atmosphere because:

1. It absorbs the ultra-violet rays radiating from the sun.
2. It prevents them from reaching the surface of the earth.

Section – B
      Source Based Question (1 x 3 = 3)

Question 4.
Easterly Jet Stream and Tropical Cyclones:
The easterly jet stream steers the tropical depressions into India. These depressions play a significant role in the distribution of monsoon rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. The tracks of these depressions are the areas with the highest rainfall in India. The frequency at which these depressions visit India, their direction and their intensity go a long way in determining the rainfall pattern during the southwest monsoon period.

Attempt All Questions

(i) What role does easterly jet stream play in bringing rainfall? [1]
Answer:
The easterly jet stream steers the tropical depressions into India. These depressions play a significant role in the distribution of monsoon rainfall over the Indian subcontinent.

(ii) What factors determine the rainfall pattern during the southwest monsoon period in India? [1]
Answer:
The easterly jet stream steers the tropical depressions into India. The tracks of these depressions are the areas with highest rainfall in India. The frequency at j which these depressions visit India, their direction, and their intensity, all go a long, way in determining the rainfall pattern during the south – west monsoon period.

(iii) Which period is referred to as the ‘Southwest Monsoon’ period in India? [1]
Answer:
The period June to September is referred to as the ‘Southwest Monsoon’ period.

Section – C
Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 3 = 6)

Question 5.
What is the economic role of biodiversity. [3]
Answer:
1. Crop diversity: For all humans,biodiversity is an important resource in their day-to-day life. One important part of biodiversity is ‘crop diversity’,which is also called agrobiodiversity.

2. Manufacturing: Biodiversity is seen as a reservoir of resources to be drawn j upon for the manufacture of food, pharmaceutical, and cosmetic products. This concept of biological resources is responsible for the deterioration of biodiversity.

3. Economic diversity: At the same time, it is also the origin of new conflicts dealing with rules of division and appropriation of natural resources. Some of the important economic commodities that biodiversity supplies to humankind are: food crops, livestock, forestry, fish, medicinal resources, etc. Spatial distribution of insolation on the earth’s surface:

Question 6.
What do you know about the spatial distribution of insolation on the earth’s surface? [3]
OR
How many types of the front are there? Explain each of them. [3]
Answer:
1. The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 Watt/m² in the tropics to about 70 Watt/ m² in the poles.

2. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the j cloudiness is the least. The Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics.

3.  Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans. In winter the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer.

Or

There are four different types of front:
1. Stationary Front: When the front remains stationary, it is called a stationary front.

2. Cold Front: When the cold air moves towards the warm air mass, its contact zone is called the cold front.

3.  Warm Front: When the warm air mass moves towards the cold air mass, the contact zone is called the warm front.

4.  Occluded Front: It is formed when a warm air mass gets caught between two cold air masses. The warm air mass rises as the cool air masses push and meet in the middle. The temperature drops as the warm air mass is occluded, or “cut off,” from the ground and pushed upward.

Section – D
     Long Answer Type Questions (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 7.
What are the characteristics of monsoonal rainfall? [5]
Answer:
Characteristics of monsoon rainfall:
(i) Rainfall received from the southwest monsoons is seasonal, which occurs between June and September.

(ii) Monsoonal rainfall is largely governed by relief or topography. For instance, the windward side of the Western Ghats register a rainfall of over 250 cm. Again, the heavy rainfall in the north eastern states can be attributed to their hill ranges and the Eastern Himalayas.

(iii) The monsoon rainfall has a declining trend with increasing distance from the sea. Kolkata receives 119 cm during the southwest monsoon period, Patna 105 cm, Allahabad 76 cm and Delhi 56 cm.

(iv) The monsoon rains occur in wet spells of few days duration at a time. The wet spells are interspersed with rainless interval known as ‘breaks’. These breaks in rainfall are related to the cyclonic depressions mainly formed at the head of the Bay of Bengal, and their crossing into the mainland. Besides the frequency and intensity of these depressions, the passage followed by them determines the spatial distribution of rainfall.

(v) The summer rainfall comes in a heavy downpour leading to considerable run off and soil erosion. Monsoons play a pivotal role in the agrarian economy of India because over three-fourths of the total rain in the country is received during the southwest monsoon season.

(vi) Its spatial distribution is also uneven which ranges from 12 cm to more than 250 cm. The beginning of the rains sometimes is considerably delayed over the whole or a part of the country.

(vii) The rains sometimes end considerably earlier than usual, causing great damage to standing crops and making the sowing of winter crops difficult.

Question 8.
Explain the factors that control the temperature distribution of any place. [5]
OR
Explain the tropical cyclone with the help of a diagram. [5]
Answer:
The factors that control the temperature distribution of any place:
(i) The latitude:
The latitude can be explained as an angular distance of a place North or South of the earth’s
sequator or of the equator of celestial object usually expressed in degrees and minutes. The temperature of a place depends on the insolation received. The insolation varies according to the latitude hence the temperature also varies accordingly.

(ii) The altitude:
The atmosphere is indirectly heated by terrestrial radiation from below. Therefore, the places near the sea-level record higher temperature than the places situated at higher elevations. In other words, the temperature generally decreases with increasing height. The rate of decrease of temperature with height is termed as the normal lapse rate. It is 6.5°C per 1,000 m.

(iii) Distance from the sea:
Another factor that influences the temperature is the location of a place concerning to the sea. Compared to land, the sea gets heated slowly and loses heat slowly. Land heats up and cools down quickly. Therefore, the variation in temperature over the sea is less compared to land. The places situated near the sea come under the moderating influence of the sea and land breezes which moderate the temperature.

(iv) Air mass:
An air mass is a volume of air defined by its temperature and water vapour content. Air masses may cover many hundreds or thousands of square miles and adapt to the characteristics of the surface below them. Like the land and sea breezes, the passage of air masses also affects the temperature. The places, which come under the influence of warm air masses experience higher temperature and the places that come under the influence of cold air masses experience low temperature.

(v) Ocean currents:
An ocean current is a seasonal directed movement of sea water generated by forces acting upon this mean flow, such as breaking waves, wind, the Coriolis effect, temperature and salinity differences, while tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the sun and moon, the places located on the coast where the warm ocean currents flow record higher temperature than the places located on the coast where the cold currents flow.

Or

Tropical cyclones are violent storms that originate over oceans in tropical areas and move over to the coastal areas bringing about large scale destruction caused by violent winds, very heavy rainfall and storm surges. This is one of the most devastating natural calamities. They are known as Cyclones in the Indian Ocean, Hurricanes in the Atlantic, Typhoons in the Western Pacific and South China Sea, and Willy-willies in the Western Australia. Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm tropical oceans. The conditions favourable for the formation and intensification of tropical storms are:

• Large sea surface with temperature higher than 27° C.
• Presence of the Coriolis Force.
• Small variations in the vertical wind speed.
• A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation.
• Upper divergence above the sea level system.

The energy that intensifies the storm, comes from the condensation process in the towering cumulonimbus clouds, surrounding the centre of the storm. With continuous supply of moisture from the sea, the storm is further strengthened. On reaching the land the moisture supply is cut off and the storm dissipates. The place where a tropical cyclone crosses the coast is called the landfall of the cyclone. The cyclones, which cross 20°N latitude generally, recurve and they are more destructive. A mature tropical cyclone is characterized by the strong spirally circulating wind around the centre, called the eye. The diameter of the circulating system can vary between 150 and 250 km. The cyclone creates storm surges and they inundate the coastal low lands. The storm peters out on the land.

Question 9.
What are clouds? Explain the various types of clouds. [5]
Answer:
Cloud is a mass of minute water droplets or tiny crystals of ice formed by the condensation of the water vapour in free air at considerable elevations. As the clouds are formed at some height over the surface of the earth, they take various shapes.
According to their height, expanse, density and transparency or opaqueness clouds are grouped under four types:

1. Cirrus: Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes (8,000 – 12,000m). They are thin and detached clouds having a feathery appearance. They are always white in colour.

2. Cumulus: Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool. They are generally formed at a height of 4,000-7,000 m. They exist in patches and can be seen scattered here and there. They have a flat base.

3. Stratus: As their name implies, these are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky. These clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures.

4. Nimbus: Nimbus clouds are black or dark grey. They form at middle levels or very near to the surface of the Earth. These are extremely dense and opaque to the rays of the sun. Sometimes, the clouds are so low that they seem to touch the ground. Nimbus clouds are shapeless masses of thick vapours.

Section – E
Map Based Questions (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 10.
On the outline map of the world indicate and mark the following features. (Attempt any 5)

(i) The cold current that meet the warm Kuroshio current near the coast of Japan.
(ii) The surface oceanic current that forms the western boundary current of the southern Indian Ocean.
(iii) Anamalai hills, Nilgiri hills and Cardamom hills are all a part of these Ghats.
(iv) The ecological hotspot running along the entire western part of south America.
(v) The Island Group of India.
(vi) The ecological hotspot that extend from Nepal across North-east India, Bhutan to China and northern Myanmar.
Answer:

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography Term 2 Set 3 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D & E.
• In Section A question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer Type Questions. Attempt any 3 Questions.
• In Section B question number 4 is Source Based Question.
• In Section C question number 5 &6 are Short Answer Based Questions.
• In Section D question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer Based Questions.
• In Section E question number 10 is a Map Based Question.

Section – A

(Very Short Answer Type Questions) (2 x 3 = 6)
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
Explain the features of El-Nino. [2]
OR
Differentiate between forest cover and forest area. [2]

Question 2.
What determines the boundaries of different biome? [2]

Question 3.
‘Tropical regions are the diverse regions of the world.” Explain. [2]

Section – B
            Source Based Question (1 x 3 = 3)

Question 4.
Alluvial Soil:
Alluvial soils are widespread in the northern plains and the river valleys. These soils cover about 40 per cent of the total area of the country. They are depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers and streams. Through a narrow corridor in Rajasthan, they extend into the plains of Gujarat. In the Peninsular region, they are found in deltas of the east coast and the river valleys. The colour of the alluvial soils varies from light grey to ash grey. Its shades depend on the depth of the deposition, the texture of the materials, and the time taken for attaining maturity. Alluvial soils are intensively cultivated.

Attempt All Questions:
(i) Where is alluvial soil found in India? [1]

(ii) Why is alluvial soil known as depositional soil? [1]

(iii) What factors determine the colour of alluvial soil? Mention any two of them. [1]

Section – C
            Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 3 = 6)

Question 5.
Explain different types of winds. [3]

Question 6.
Name the three types of precipitation? [3]
OR
How do ocean currents affect the climate? Explain. [3]

Section – D
Long Answer Type Questions (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 7.
Explain any five factors that determine the climate of India based on location and relief. [5]

Question 8.
‘Forest and tribals are very closely related.’ Justify the statement. [5]
OR
Explain the features of the laterite soil. [5]

Question 9.
How is the economic life in India affected by the monsoon? [5]

Section – E 
Map Based Questions (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 10.
On the outline map of India indicate and mark the following features. (Attempt any 5)
(i) A place in North India where forest soil is found.
(ii) An Island group of India located in the Bay of Bengal.
(iii) This Biosphere Reserve is one of the world’s richest regions from a marine biodiversity perspective.
(iv) The location of Forest Survey of India headquarter.
(v) Largest mangrove forest in India .
(vi) Area of winter rainfall.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D &E.
• In Section A question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer Type Questions. Attempt any 3 Questions.
• In Section B question number 4 is Source Based Question.
• In Section C question number 5 & 6 are Short Answer Based Questions.
• In Section D question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer Based Questions.
• In Section E question number 10 is a Map Based Question.

Section – A

Very Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 3 = 6)
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
Discuss the reasons which impede the formation of dew or frost. [2]
OR
How does the unequal distribution of heat over the planet earth in space and time cause variations in weather and climate? [2]
Answer:
The formation of dew or frost is impeded by:

• Dry air.
• Wind mixes the air and prevents its lower portion from reaching the dew point.
• Clouds which slow down terrestrial radiation.

Or
In the areas where there is high temperature, the wind blows from low temperature areas. Therefore, wind moves upward from equatorial regions and blows towards two poles. Due to this wind, the pressure on both the poles increases. Unequal distribution of temperature is the main cause of blowing of the wind. The unequal distribution of temperature, gives rise to rainfall and cyclone. Thus, unequal distribution of heat over the earth in space and time causes variations in weather and climate.

Question 2.
What are the features of black soil? [2]
Answer:
Features of black soil:

1. The Black soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’. These soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
2. They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, this soil develops wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self ploughing’.
3. Because of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the moisture for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially, the rain fed ones, to sustain even during the dry season.

Question 3.
‘In spite of abundant rainfall, India is a water thirsty land.’ Explain. [2]
Answer:
Inspite of abundant rainfall, India is a water thirsty land because:

1. The occurrence of rainfall is restricted to a few months, i.e., June to September.
2. Even though monsoons occur, due to high temperature, there is a quick evaporation of rainwater and rapid run off.
3. Monsoons suffer from delay and long breaks.

Section – B
Source Based Question (1 x 3 = 3)

Question 4.
Water Vapour:
Water vapour is also a variable gas in the atmosphere, which decreases with altitude. In the warm and wet tropics, it may account for four per cent of the air by volume, while in the dry and cold areas of desert and polar regions, it may be less than one percent of the air. Water vapour also decreases from the equator towards the poles. It also absorbs parts of the insolation from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated heat. It thus, acts like a blanket allowing the earth neither to become too cold nor too hot. Water vapour also contributes to the stability and instability in the air.

Attempt All Questions:

(i) Why do water vapours decrease with an increase in height? [1]
Answer:
The amount of water vapours in the air tend to decrease with altitude. This is because temperatures decrease with height and the availability of a moisture source is farther away.

(ii) Why do water vapours decrease from equator to pole? [1]
Answer:
Water vapours decrease from Equator to Pole due to temperature as lower temperatures mean lower absolute humidity.

(iii) What percentage of water vapours are found in the warm and wet tropics. [1]
Answer:
The volume of water vapours is about 4% in very warm and humid tropical air.

Section – C
Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 3 = 6)

Question 5.
What are the main factors responsible for the formation of soil? [3]
Answer:
Soil is the mixture of rock debris and organic materials which develop on the earth’s surface. The major factors affecting the formation of soil are relief, parent material, climate, vegetation and other life-forms and time. Besides these, human activities also influence it to a large extent. Components of the soil are mineral particles, humus, water and air. The actual amount of each of these depends upon the type of soil.

Question 6.
How has the water been distributed on the Earth’s surface? [3]
OR
What do you know about thunderstorms? [3]
Answer:
The distribution of water on earth is quite uneven. Many locations have plenty of water while others have very limited quantities. The hydrological cycle, is the circulation of water within the earth’s hydrosphere in different forms i.e. the liquid, solid and gaseous phases. It also refers to the continuous exchange of water between the oceans, atmosphere, land surface and subsurface and the organisms.

About 71 percent of the planetary water is found in the oceans. The remaining is held as freshwater in glaciers and ice caps, groundwater sources, lakes, soil moisture, atmosphere, streams and within life. Nearly 59 per cent of the water that falls on land returns to the atmosphere through evaporation from over the oceans as well as 1 from other places. The remainder runs-off on the surface, infiltrates into the ground or a part of it becomes a glacier.

Commonly Made Error:
While discussing the distribution of water on Earth, the students fail to mention the percentage of water distributed all across.

Answering Tip:
The distribution of water on earth is quite uneven. Only 3% of water on the surface is fresh; the remaining 97% resides in the ocean.
Or

1. Thunderstorm is a violent short-lived weather disturbance which is almost always associated with lightning, thunder, dense clouds, heavy rain or hail, and strong gusty winds.
2. Thunderstorms are caused by intense convection on moist hot days.
3. Thunderstorms arise when layers of warm, moist air rise in a large, swift updraft to cooler regions of the atmosphere.
4. A thunderstorm is a well-grown cumulonimbus cloud producing thunder and lightning.

Section – D
Long Answer Type Questions (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 7.
What is soil conservation? Suggest some measures to conserve soil? [5]
Answer:
Soil conservation is a methodology to maintain soil fertility, prevent soil erosion and exhaustion, and improve the degraded condition of the soil.

Measures taken to conserve soil are:

1. The first step is to check open cultivable lands on slopes from farming.
2. Lands with a slope gradient of 15 – 25 per cent should not be used for cultivation. If at all the land is to be used for agriculture, terraces should carefully be made.
3. Over-grazing and shifting cultivation in many parts of India have affected the natural cover of land and given rise to extensive erosion. It should be regulated and controlled by educating villagers about the consequences.
4. Contour bunding, Contour terracing, regulated forestry, controlled grazing, cover cropping, mixed farming and crop rotation should be encouraged.
5. In arid and semi-arid areas, efforts should be made to protect cultivable lands from encroachment by sand dunes through developing shelter belts of trees and agro-forestry.

Question 8.
‘The planet has warmed up from the temperature records.”Explain. [5]
OR
Why does tropical cyclone originate over the seas? In which part of the tropical cyclone do torrential rains and high-velocity winds blow and why? [5]
Answer:
The planet has warmed up from the temperature records. Temperature data are available from the middle of the 19th century mostly for western Europe. The reference period for this study is 1961-90. The temperature anomalies for the earlier and later periods are estimated from the average temperature for the period 1961 – 90. The annual average near-surface air temperature of the world is approximately 14°C. Earth’s temperature has risen by 0.14° F (0.08° C) per decade since 1880, and the rate of warming over the past 40 years is more than twice that: 0.32° F (0.18° C) per decade since 1981.

The greatest warming of the 20th century was during the two periods, 1901 – 44 and 1977 – 99. Over each of these two periods, global temperatures rose by about 0.4°C. In between, there was a slight cooling, which was more marked in the Northern Flemisphere. The globally averaged annual mean temperature at the end of the 20th century was about 0.6°C above that recorded at the end of the 19th century. The seven warmest years during the 1856 – 2000 were recorded in the last decade. The year 1998 was the warmest year, probably not only for the 20th century but also for the whole millennium.

Question 9.
Discuss the factors affecting the speed and direction of the wind? [5]
Answer:
The air in motion is called wind. The wind blows from high pressure to low pressure. The wind at the surface experiences friction. In addition, rotation of the earth also affects the wind movement. The force exerted by the rotation of the earth is known as the Coriolis force. Thus, the horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of three forces – the pressure gradient force, the frictional force and the Coriolis force. In addition, the gravitational force acts downward.
(i) Pressure Gradient Force:
The differences in atmospheric pressure produces a force. The rate of change of pressure with respect to distance is the pressure gradient. The pressure gradient is strong where the isobars are close to each other and is weak where the isobars are apart.

(ii) Frictional Force:
It affects the speed of the wind. It is greatest at the surface and its influence generally extends upto an elevation of 1 – 3 km. Over the sea surface the friction is minimal.

(iii) Coriolis Force:
Due to the Earth’s rotation, winds do not cross the isobars at right angles as the pressure gradient force directs, but get deflected from their original path. This deviation is the result of the Earth’s rotation and is called the Coriolis Effect or Coriolis Force. Due to this effect, winds in the northern hemisphere get deflected to the right of their path and those in the southern hemisphere to their left, following Farrel’s Law. The Coriolis Force changes wind direction but not its speed. This deflection force does not seem to exist until the air is set in motion and increases with wind velocity, air mass and an increase in latitude.

(iv) Pressure and Wind:
The velocity and direction of the wind are the net results of the wind generating forces. The winds in the upper atmosphere, 2-3 km above the surface, are free from the frictional effect of the surface and are controlled by the pressure gradient and the Coriolis force. When isobars are straight and when there is no friction, the pressure gradient force is balanced by the Coriolis force and the resultant wind blows parallel to the isobar.

(v) Centripetal Acceleration:
Due to the inward acceleration of air towards the centre of rotation on the rotating earth, it is possible for the air to maintain a curved path (parallel to the isobars), about a local axis of hig|i or low pressure. It is known as centripetal acceleration.

Section – E
Map Based Questions (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 10.
On the outline map of India indicate and mark the following features. (Attempt any 5)
(i) Onset of monsoon in Chandigarh
(ii) Onset of monsoon in Mumbai
(iii) A place in North India where alluvial soil is found
(iv) A place where black soil is found
(v) A place where Arid Soil is found in North India
(vi) Largest mangrove forest in India
Answer:

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology Term 2 Set 5 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections of 23 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Sedion-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A
(2 Marks)

Question 1.
Answer the following questions based on the equation given below:
2H₂O → 2H⁺ + O₂ + 4e^–
(a) Where in plants does this reaction occur?
(b) What is the importance of this reaction?

Question 2.
Study the pathway given below.

(a) Which group of plants exhibits these two types of cells? What is the first product of C₄ cycle? (1)
(b) Which enzyme is there in bundle sheath cells and mesophyll cells?
OR
Six turns of Calvin cycle are required to generate one mole of glucose. Explain.

Question 3.
The figure given below shows the stages of ripening in a banana.

(a) Name the plant hormone responsible for the above changes.
(b) Mention the site of synthesis as well as function of this hormone.

Question 4.
An aquarium fish and a pigeon were fed on protein diet.

(a) Which group of plants exhibits these two types of cells? What is the first product of C₄ cycle? (1)
(b) Which enzyme is there in bundle sheath cells and mesophyll cells? (1)
OR
(a) In what different forms would they excrete their nitrogenous wastes? (1)
(b) Why do they excrete so differently? (1)

Question 5.
The pressure exerted by an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called partial pressure. It is directly proportional to its concentration in a mixture. It is expressed as pO₂, pCO₂, etc.
(a) How does it help in gaseous exchange during respiration? (1)
(b) State the pO₂ and pCO₂ in the blood after tissue respiration. (1)

Question 6.
The diagram alongside represents the simplified pathway of the circulation of blood.

(a) Name the blood vessels labelled 1 and 2. (1)
(b) State the function of blood vessels labeled 5 and 8. (1)
OR
The diagram given alongside represents the human heart in one phase of its functional activities. Study the same and answer the questions that follow:

(a) Name the phase. Which part of the heart is contracting in this phase?
(b) Label the parts A, B and C.

Section – B
(3 Marks each)

Question 7.
In a certain ‘X’ organism, a process is occurring throughout the day in which cells are participating. Water, ATP and carbon dioxide are evolved during the process and is not light-dependent process.
(a) Which process is discussed above? (1)
(b) Is this a catabolic or anabolic process? (1)
(c) Write the raw materials required for this process. (1)

Question 8.
The final product of glycolysis is pyruvic acid. Write the three metabolic fates of the pyruvic acid in anaerobic and aerobic conditions as seen in the diagram below:

The diagram below shows ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis.

(a) Label the parts 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the diagram? (2)
(b) What role is played by ATPase? (1)

Question 9.
The lymphatic system in the human body is made up of lymph, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic nodes, and lymphoid tissue. What is the functional role of the lymphatic system?

Question 10.
Unlike plant hormones, animal hormones are often produced in specialized hormone-synthesizing glands. The hormones are then secreted from the glands into the blood stream, where they are transported throughout the body.

(a) List the endocrine gland that is absent in males and the one absent in the female. (1)
(b) Which is the endocrine gland that secretes calcitonin? What role does this hormone play? (1)
(c) Why do old people have a weak immune system? (1)

Question 11.
The given diagram represents the structure of human brain. The brain is the central information processing organ of our body, and acts as the ‘command and control system’. It controls the voluntary movements; balance of the body, thermoregulation, and the brain also processes vision, hearing, speech, etc. The brain can be divided into three parts : Forebrain, Midbrain and Hindbrain.

(a) Where in the human brain is the centre for hunger located? (1)
(b) List the names of any two structures that protect the brain. (1)
(c) What does the white and grey matter in the human brain indicate? (1)

Question 12.
The figure given below shows a part of a nephron.

(a) In which region of the kidney is the above structure present? (1)
(b) What is the technical term used for the process that occurs in part 3? (1)
(c) Why is fluid X not called urine? Justify your answer. (1)

Section – C
(5 Marks)

Question 13.
The completion of prophase is marked by the following characteristic events :

Chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes. They are seen to be composed of two chromatids attached together at the centromere. Centrosome which had undergone duplication during interphase, begins to move towards opposite poles of the cell. They radiate out microtubules called asters. The two asters together with spindle fibres form mitotic apparatus. Cells at the end of prophase do not show Golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope.

(a) Which phase of mitosis is the starting point of metaphase? (1)
(b) Nuclear membrane disappears in meiosis at the end of which stage? (1)
(c) Which term is used to refer the stage between two meiotic divisions? (1)
(d) What is crossing over? At which stage of meiosis I it takes place? (2)
OR
A cell, which has 32 chromosomes, undergoes mitotic division.

(a) What will be the chromosome number (N) during metaphase? (1)
(b) What would be the DNA content (C) during anaphase? (1)
(c) Draw a labeled diagram of anaphase of mitosis. Write any two key features of this phase. (3)

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections of 23 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Sedion-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A
(2 Marks each)

Question 1.
Certain plants growing in the tropical regions suffer from photorespiratory loss.
(a) How do they overcome it? (1)
(b) Mention the anatomical adaptation? (1)

Question 2.
The diagram below shows the movement of substances into in and out of a chloroplast with labelling 1,2,3 and 4.

(a) What do labels 1 to 4 represent? (1)
(b) Name the products used to drive the dark reaction that is formed during the light reaction of photosynthesis. (1)
OR
The two parts of AT Pase enzyme are a headpiece and a stalk.

(a) State their arrangement in the thylakoid membrane. (1)
(b) Which part of the enzyme shows conformational changes? (1)

Question 3.
Many discoveries in science have been accidental. This is true for plant hormones also. Can you justify this statement by giving an example?

Question 4.
The diagram below shows a nephron of the mammalian kidney.

(a) Which among the regions (marked as 1,2,3 and 4) is the main region responsible for restoring the metabolic level of the blood plasma to its pre- renal level? (1)
(b) What is the role of Henle’s loop? (1)

Question 5.
In the human heart, blood from the lungs enter the heart through the left atrium, pumps into the left ventricle, out the aorta and through the body, and then returns into the right atrium, pumps into the right ventricle and exits to the lungs.

Name the labels marked from 1 to 5 in the below diagram and by using the labels, Explain the process of blood flow in humans in a sequential manner.

Question 6.
In a urine sample of a person, increased content of glucose and ketone bodies was found.
(a) Name the hormone and gland associated with this condition. (1)
(b) Name the condition. How can it be rectified? (1)
OR
In humans, blood calcium levels are maintained because the bones act as a calcium sink in which calcium can either be stored or procured based on the body’s needs.

(a) If a person secretes too much of parathyroid hormone (one possible factor in the bone disease osteoporosis), what happens to calcium levels in the body? (1)
(b) Mention one parathyroid disorder. (1)

Section – B
(3 Marks)

Question 7.
The diagram below explain the mitochondrial ETS.

(a) Expand and define the term ETS. (1)
(b) Identify F, Q, R, S in the diagram. (1)
(c) Why oxygen is the ultimate acceptor of electrons in ETS? (1)

Question 8.
During the process of glycolysis, glucose goes through partial oxidation for the formation of pyruvic acid (2 molecules). It is obtained from the sucrose in plants which is the resulting product of photosynthesis. Invertase converts sucrose into fructose and glucose, which enter into the glycolytic pathway. These are phosphorylated to produce glucose-6-phosphate which isomerizes to generate fructose-6-phosphate. A sequence of 10 reactions regulated by different enzymes occurs in glycolysis to yield pyruvate from glucose.

(a) State where it occurs and its end products. (1)
(b) In both aerobic and anaerobic respiration, determine the fate of these products. (2)
OR
Study the figure carefully showing major pathway of anaerobic respiration.

(a) Identify 1,2,3 and 4 in the given flow chart. (2)
(b) What is another name of Glycolysis? Where does it occur? (1)

Question 9.
Study the given diagram of synapse carefully.

(a) Identify the structure which transmits signal across a chemical synapse.
(b) State any two differences between chemical and electrical transmission.

Question 10.
Aashi was given sample of two muscles marked as 1 and 2. When she compared the muscles, she found that muscle 1 contains large amount of myoglobin and utilise large amount of stored oxygen for ATP production whereas muscle 2 contains few myoglobin, mitochondria and high sarcoplasmic reticulum.

(a) Identify the muscle 1 and 2.
(b) What is the function of myoglobin?
(c) What kind of muscle fibres form the extensor muscle on the back of human body? How do these fibres help?

Question 11.
In humans, the mechanism of breathing involves two stages i.e., Inspiration and expiration. The inspiration is an active process as it requires expenditure of energy for muscle contraction. During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscle contract simultaneously. The expiration is a passive process as it does not require the expenditure of energy. In normal breathing, there are about 12 – 16 complete respiratory cycles per minute.

(a) Mention the main parts involved in initiating a pressure gradient between the lungs and the atmosphere during normal respiration. (1)
(b) State the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal breathing. (2)

Question 12.
The diagram alongside represents the circulation of blood in human body. Answer the questions that follow:

(a) Name the blood vessels labelled A, C, F and G. (1)
(b) Name the blood vessel that supplies the walls of the heart with oxygen. (1)
(c) Mention one structural difference between blood vessels represented D and E. (1)

Section – C
(5 Marks)

Question 13.
While examining the mitotic stage in a tissue, one finds some cells with 16 chromosomes and some with 32 chromosomes.

(a) What possible reasons could you assign to this difference in chromosome number? Do you think cells with 16 chromosomes could have arisen from cells with 32 chromosomes or vice versa? (3)
(b) The following events occur during the various phases of the cell cycle. Name the phase against each of the events.
(i) Disintegration of nuclear membrane __________
(ii) Appearance of nucleolus __________
(iii) Division of centromere __________
(iv) Replication of DNA __________ (2)
OR
Shown below are four stages (A, B, C, D) (not in sequence) of a certain kind of cell division.

(a) Is the given cells undergoing mitosis or meiosis? (1)
(b) What should be the correct sequence of these four stages among themselves? (1)
(c) Name the stage that should precede the earliest of these stages. (1)
(d) Draw the stage named above inside the blank space provided. (2)