Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 2021-2022 Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 & Marking Scheme PDF Download

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 2021-2022 Pdf with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 with Solutions Answers Pdf Download Term 1 & Term 2 will give students an idea about the question paper pattern, frequently asked questions, and on which topics to emphasize more in a subject. CBSE Sample Papers of Class 11th Term 1 & Term 2 will boost their confidence level, and they will feel optimistic about the board exams.

CBSE Sample Papers Class 11 2022 with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2

We hope these Solved Sample Paper of Class 11 CBSE 2021 2022 Pdf with Solutions Term 1 & Term 2 will help in self-evaluation. Stay tuned for further updates on CBSE Class 11th Sample Papers Term 1 & Term 2 for their exam preparation.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1.

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 10
Subject Maths
Chapter Chapter 15
Chapter Name Probability
Exercise Ex 15.1
Number of Questions Solved 25
Category NCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1

Question 1.
Complete the following statements:
(i) Probability of an event E + Probability of the event ‘not E’ = ………
(ii) The probability of an event that cannot happen is ……… Such an event is called ………
(iii) The probability of an event that is certain to happen is ………. Such an event is called ………
(iv) The sum of the probabilities of all the elementary events of an experiment is ………..
(v) The probability of an event is greater than or equal to …………. and less than or equal to ………..
Solution:
(i) Probability of an event E + Probability of the event ‘not E’ = 1.
(ii) The probability of an event that cannot happen is 0. Such an event is called impossible event.
(iii) The probability of an event that is certain to happen is 1. Such an event is called sure event.
(iv) The sum of the probabilities of all the elementary events of an experiment is 1.
(v) The probability of an event is greater than or equal to 0 and less than or equal to 1.

Question 2.
Which of the following experiments have equally likely outcomes? Explain.
(i) A driver attempts to start a car. The car starts or does not start.
(ii) A player attempts to shoot a basketball. She/he shoots or misses the shot.
(iii) A trial is made to answer a true-false question. The answer is right or wrong.
(iv) A baby is born. It is a boy or a girl.
Solution:
(i) The outcome is not equally likely because the car starts normally only when there is some defect, the car does not start.
(ii) The outcome is not equally likely because the outcome depends on the training of the player.
(iii) The outcome in the trial of true-false question is, either true or false. Hence, the two outcomes are equally likely.
(iv) A baby can be either a boy or a girl and both the outcomes have equally likely chances.

Question 3.
Why is tossing a coin considered to be a fair way of deciding which team should get the bail at the beginning of a football game?
Solution:
When we toss a coin, the outcomes head and tail are equally likely. So, the result of an individual coin toss is completely unpredictable.

Question 4.
Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event?
(A) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)
(B) -1.5
(C) 15%
(D) 0.7
Solution:
We know that probability of an event cannot be less than 0 and greater than 1.
Correct option is (B).

Question 5.
If P (E) = 0.05, what is the probability of ‘not E’?
Solution:
We have, P (E) + P (not E) = 1
Given: P(E) = 0.05
P (not E) = 1 – 0.05 = 0.95

Question 6.
A bag contains lemon flavoured candies only. Malini takes out one candy without looking into the bag. What is the probability that she takes out
(i) an orange flavoured candy?
(ii) a lemon flavoured candy?
Solution:
(i) A bag contains only lemon flavoured candies.
P (an orange flavoured candy) = 0
(ii) P (a lemon flavoured candy) = 1

Question 7.
It is given that in a group of 3 students, the probability of 2 students not having the same birthday is 0.992. What is the probability that the 2 students have the same birthday?
Solution:
We have, P (E) + P (not E) = 1
⇒ P (E) + 0.992 = 1
⇒ P (E) = 1 – 0.992 = 0.008

Question 8.
A bag contains 3 red balls and 5 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. What is the probability that the ball drawn is
(i) red?
(ii) not red?
Solution:
Number of red balls = 3
Number of black balls = 5
Total number of balls = 3 + 5 = 8
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1 1

Question 9.
A box contains 5 red marbles, 8 white marbles and 4 green marbles. One marble is taken out of the box at random. What is the probability that the marble taken out will be
(i) red?
(ii) white?
(iii) not green?
Solution:
Total number of marbles = 5 + 8 + 4 = 17
(i) P (red marble) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 17 }\)
(ii) P (white marble) = \(\frac { 8 }{ 17 }\)
(iii) P (not a green marble) = \(\frac { 13 }{ 17 }\)

Question 10.
A piggy bank contains hundred 50 p coins, fifty ₹ 1 coins, twenty ₹ 2 coins and ten ₹ 5 coins. If it is equally likely that one of the coins will fall out when the bank is turned upside down, what is the probability that the coin
(i) will be a 50 p coin?
(ii) will not be a ₹ 5 coin?
Solution:
Number of 50 p coins = 100
Number of ₹ 1 coins = 50
Number of ₹ 2 coins = 20
Number of ₹ 5 coins = 10
Total number of coins = 180
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1 2

Question 11.
Gopi buys a fish from a shop for his aquarium. The shopkeeper takes out one fish at random from a tank containing 5 male fish and 8 female fish (see figure). What is the probability that the fish taken out is a male fish?
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1 3
Solution:
Number of male fish = 5
Number of female fish = 8
Total number of fish = 5 + 8 = 13
P (a male fish) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 13 }\)

Question 12.
A game of chance consists of spinning an arrow which comes to rest pointing at one of the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 (see figure.), and these are equally likely outcomes. What is the probability that it will point at
(i) 8?
(ii) an odd number?
(iii) a number greater than 2?
(iv) a number less than 9?
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1 4
Solution:
(i) P (getting 8) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\)
(ii) P (an odd number) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 8 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) ( odd numbers are 1, 3, 5, 7)
(iii) P (a number greater than 2) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 8 }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\)
(iv) P (a number less than 9) = \(\frac { 8 }{ 8 }\) = 1

Question 13.
A die is thrown once. Find the probability of getting
(i) a prime number
(ii) a number lying between 2 and 6
(ill) an odd number
Solution:
(i) Prime numbers on a die = 2, 3, 5
P (a prime number) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 6 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
(ii) Number lying between 2 and 6 = 3, 4, 5
P(a number lying between 2 and 6) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 6 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
(iii) Odd numbers = 1, 3, 5
P (an odd number) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 6 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)

Question 14.
One card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting
(i) a king of red colour
(ii) a face card
(iii) a red face card
(iv) the jack of hearts
(v) a spade
(vi) the queen of diamonds
Solution:
Number of cards in a well-shuffled deck = 52.
(i) P (a king of red colour) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 52 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 26 }\)
(ii) P (a face card) = \(\frac { 12 }{ 52 }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 13 }\)
(iii) P (a red face card) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 52 }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 26 }\)
(iv) P (the jack of hearts) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 52 }\)
(v) P(a spade) = \(\frac { 13 }{ 52 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
(vi) P (the queen of diamonds) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 52 }\)

Question 15.
Five cards – the ten, jack, queen, king and ace of diamonds, are well shuffled with their face downwards. One card is then picked up at random.
(i) What is the probability that the card is the queen?
(ii) If the queen is drawn and put aside, what is the probability that the second card picked up is
(a) an ace?
(b) a queen?
Solution:
Out of 5 cards there is only one queen.
(i) P (getting queen) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) [when queen is drawn, four cards are left]
(ii) (a) P (an ace) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
(b) P (a queen) = \(\frac { 0 }{ 4 }\) = 0

Question 16.
12 defective pens are accidentally mixed with 132 good ones. It is not possible to just look at a pen and tell whether or not it is defective. One pen is taken out at random from this lot. Determine the probability that the pen taken out is a good one.
Solution:
Number of defective pens = 12
Number of good pens = 132
Total number of pens = 12 + 132 = 144
P (the pen is good one) = \(\frac { 132 }{ 144 }\) = \(\frac { 11 }{ 12 }\)

Question 17.
(i) A lot of 20 bulbs contain 4 defective ones. One bulb is drawn at random from the lot. What is the probability that this bulb is defective?
(ii) Suppose the bulb drawn in (i) is not defective and is not replaced. Now one bulb is drawn at random from the rest. What is the probability that this bulb is not defective?
Solution:
(i) Total number of bulbs = 20
Number of defective bulbs = 4
P (bulb drawn is defective) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 20 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\)
(ii) Remaining bulbs = 19
P (bulb drawn is not defective) = \(\frac { 15 }{ 19 }\)

Question 18.
A box contains 90 discs which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at random from the box, find the probability that it bears
(i) a two digit number.
(ii) a perfect square number.
(iii) a number divisible by 5.
Solution:
Total numbers of discs = 90
(i) P (a two digit number) = \(\frac { 81 }{ 90 }\) = \(\frac { 9 }{ 10 }\)
(ii) Here, perfect square numbers are 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81
P (getting a perfect square number) = \(\frac { 9 }{ 90 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 }\)
(iii) Numbers divisible by 5 are 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65, 70, 75, 80, 85, 90
P (getting a number divisible by 5) = \(\frac { 18 }{ 90 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\)

Question 19.
A child has a die whose six faces show the letters as given below:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1 5
The die is thrown once. What is the probability of getting
(i) A?
(ii) D?
Solution:
(i) P (getting A) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 6 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)
(ii) P (getting D) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\)

Question 20.
Suppose you drop a die at random on the rectangular region shown in figure. What is the probability that it will land inside the circle with diameter 1 m?
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1 6
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1 7

Question 21.
A lot consists of 144 ball pens of which 20 are defective and the others are good. Nuri will buy a pen if it is good, but will not buy if it is defective. The shopkeeper draws one pen at random and gives it to her. What is the probability that
(i) she will buy it?
(ii) she will not buy it?
Solution:
Total number of ball pens = 144
Number of defective pens = 20
Number of good pens = 144 – 20 = 124
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1 8

Question 22.
Two dice, one blue and one grey, are thrown at the same time. Now
(i) Complete the following table:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1 9

(ii) A student argues that-there are 11 possible outcomes 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12. Therefore, each of them has a probability \(\frac { 1 }{ 11 }\). Do you agree with this argument? Justify your answer.
Solution:
(i) Total number of possible outcomes = 36
(1, 2) and (2, 1) are the favourable events of getting the sum 3.
P(sum 3) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 36 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 18 }\)
(1, 3) , (2, 2) and (3, 1) are the favourable events of getting the sum 4.
P(sum 4) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 36 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 12 }\)
(1, 4) , (2, 3), (3, 2) and (4, 1) are the favourable events of getting the sum 5.
P(sum 5) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 36 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\)
(1, 5) , (2, 4), (3, 3), (4, 2) and (5, 1) are the favourable events of getting the sum 6.
P (sum 6) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 36 }\)
(1, 6) , (2, 5), (3, 4), (4, 3), (5, 2) and (6, 1) are the favourable events of getting the sum 7.
P(sum 7) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 36 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\)
(3, 6) , (4, 5), (5, 4) and (6, 3) are the favourable events of getting the sum 9.
P(sum 9) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 36 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\)
(4, 6) , (5, 5) and (6, 4) are the favourable events of getting the sum 10.
P(sum 10 = \(\frac { 3 }{ 36 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 12 }\)
(5,6) and (6,5) are the favourable events of getting the sum 11.
P(sum 11) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 36 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 18 }\)
(ii) No, because the outcomes as 11 different sum are not equally likely.

Question 23.
A game consists of tossing a one rupee coin 3 times and noting its outcome each time. Hanif wins if all the tosses give the same result, i.e. three heads or three tails, and loses otherwise. Calculate the probability that Hanif will lose the game.
Solution:
Possible outcomes are
HHH, TTT, HHT, HTH, THH, TTH, THT, HTT = 8
P (win the game) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 8 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
P (lose the game) = 1 – \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\)

Question 24.
A die is thrown twice. What is the probability that
(i) 5 will not come up either time?
(ii) 5 will come up at least once?
[Hint: Throwing a die twice and throwing two dice simultaneously are treated as the same experiment.]
Solution:
Total outcomes = 36
Number of outcomes in favour of 5 is (1, 5) (2, 5) (3, 5) (4, 5) (5, 5) (6, 5) (5, 1) (5, 2) (5, 3) (5, 4) (5, 6) = 11
(i) P (5 will not come up either time) = \(\frac { 25 }{ 36 }\)
(ii) P (5 will come up at least once) = \(\frac { 11 }{ 36 }\)

Question 25.
Which of the following arguments are correct and which are not correct? Give reasons for your answer.
(i) If two coins are tossed simultaneously there are three possible outcomes- two heads, two tails or one of each. Therefore, for each of these outcomes, the probability is \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\).
(ii) If a die is thrown, there are two possible outcomes- an odd number or an even number. Therefore, the probability of getting an odd number is \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\).
Solution:
(i) Argument is incorrect.
The possible outcomes are (HH), (HT), (TH), (TT)
P(HH) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
P(TT) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
P(HT or TH) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 4 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
(ii) Argument is correct.
Possible outcomes = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Odd numbers are = 1, 3, 5
P (an odd number) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 6 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Ex 15.1, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Education with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 40

General Instructions :

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING & GRAMMAR and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Section – A
Reading (13 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below :

We live in an age of wonders and miracles. It has been called the ‘Age of Science’, and different aspects of our life that changed in the preceding centuries have been attributed to science. This is completely true, but it is only one side of the coin. The flip side is that as we have advanced more in the field of technology, values such as empathy and concern for our fellow human beings are gradually being eroded.

Take the example of the Internet. On one hand, access to information and knowledge at the click of a button is a veritable boon to everyone (especially students) and this has made our lives much simpler. On the other hand, it has severely limited actual contact with teachers, friends and elders. Thus, the learning is incomplete because it lacks personal advice that a person gives on the basis of their knowledge and practical experiences.

Today, a small child can access and navigate the Internet with ease, but at the same time miss out on the basic human traits of friendship, relationships and family values. Owing to excessive technology, children often miss out on the most enriching childhood experiences, such as playing outdoor games with friends, which apart from being immensely enjoyable and physically exhilarating, also develop traits such as teamwork and discipline at an early age.

As friendship is gradually being limited to virtual friends, it has harsh implications on the personality development of a child because the time spent with computers or mobile phones can never substitute for the holistic benefits of outdoor play. As for me, I think this age of rapid development has created at least as many problems as it has solved, if not more.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

The reason is that the basic goal of life, which should be the pursuit of happiness has now been replaced by the pursuit of money. Money and happiness are considered analogous in our present society, but they actually are not so. In this mindless pursuit of money, nobody has time now to appreciate the beauty of life, which consists not of multi-billion dollar skyscrapers, but a simple act of kindness to someone at the time of need.

So, there is an urgent need to stop for a moment and think about where we are actually heading- is it development or is it destruction? Do we have to wait until people have grown so much apart from each other that we cannot see the suffering of our own species due to our mindless greed, or can we still mend our ways?

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8 = 8)

(i) Give one point of evidence from the text that proves that it is like one side of the coin to say that life has changed owing to science.
Answer:
Different aspects of life have changed due to science. For example, values such as empathy and concern for our fellow human beings are gradually being eroded. So, it is only one side of the coin to say that life has changed owing to science.

(ii) State any one advantage of the internet mentioned in lines 8-10 in the passage.
Answer:
The Internet has enabled access to information and knowledge very easily.

(iii) What will be the consequence of our actions if we do not change our ways?
Answer:
If we do not change our ways, human beings will not feel each other’s suffering.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

(iv) How does the internet hamper the holistic growth of a child?
Answer:
Because of excess use of technology, children miss childhood experiences like outdoor games. These activities develop traits such as teamwork and discipline at an early age. This hampers the holistic growth of the child.

(v) Rewrite the sentence replacing the underlined words with a word or phrase from lines 30 to 35 in the passage.

The relationship between a teacher and a student is similar in essence to that of a afatlter and a child.
Answer:
The relationship between a teacher and a student is analogous to that of a father and a child.

(vi) Why has the writer used the word ‘holistic’ to describe the benefits of outdoor play?
Answer:
Holistic means complete or whole. Outdoor games are enjoyable and also teach lessons in teamwork and discipline. They also provide physical exercise. As such, they are holistic.

(vii) Use a suitable phrase from lines 40-45 of the passage to complete this sentence.

The thief decided to after he listened to the sage’s advice on the fickleness of life.
Answer:
The thief decided to mend his ways after he listened to the sage’s advice on the fickleness of life.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

(viii) True happiness lies in simple acts of kindness. What acts of kindness are expected from a school-going child?
Answer:
School-going children should be caring and kind. They should avoid being rude to others and help weak students in their studies. They should help old people and little children as much as they can.

(ix) What should be the basic goal of one’s life?
Answer:
The basic goal of one’s life is the pursuit of happiness.

Question 2.
Read the following passage. (5)

(1) Humour is infectious. The sound of roaring laughter is far more contagious than any cough, sniffle, or sneeze. When laughter is shared, it binds people together and increases happiness and intimacy. Best of all, this priceless medicine is fun, free, and easy to use.

(2) The ability to laugh, play, and have fun with others not only makes life more enjoyable but also helps you to solve problems. People who incorporate humour and play into their daily lives find that it renews them and all of their relationships.

(3) Life brings challenges that can either get the best of you or become playthings for your imagination. When you “become the problem” and take yourself too seriously, it can be hard to think out of the box and find new solutions. But when you play with the problem, you can often transform it into an opportunity for creative learning.

(4) Playing with problems seems to come naturally to children. When they are confused or afraid, they convert their problems into a game, giving them a sense of control and an opportunity to experiment with new solutions. Interacting with others in playful ways helps you retain this creative ability.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

(5) As laughter, humour, and play become an integral part of your life, your creativity will flourish and new discoveries will occur to you daily. Humour takes you to a higher place where you can view the world from a more relaxed, positive, creative, joyful, and balanced perspective.

(A) On the basis of your reading the passage, make notes using recognisable abbreviations wherever necessary. Use a format you consider suitable, supply a suitable title. (3)
Answer:
(A) Laughter- A Priceless Medicine
1. Physical changes in body:
1.1. strengthens immne system
1.2. boosts energy , .
1.3. dimnshs pain
1.4. protects from stress.

2. Benefits of laughter.
2.1. makes life more enjyble
2.2. helps solve problems
2.3. connects with others

3. Laughter – An Integral Part of life
3.1. makes one creative
3.2. helps to balance prspctive
3.3. makes one more relaxed & positive

Key to Abbreviations
S.No. Abbreviation Word
1. immne immune
2. dimnshs diminishes
3. enjyble enjoyable
4. prspetive perspective
5. & and

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

(B) Make a short summary of the passage in about 50 words. (2)
Answer:
SUMMARY
Laughter is free, yet a priceless medicine. It makes the body healthy. Humour helps build better relationships. Problems are best solved by developing a child-like attitude of playing with them rather than brooding over them. Laughter should be an integral part of life to make it relaxed, positive and balanced.

Section – B
Writing and Grammar (12 Marks)

Question 3.
As President of the Residents Welfare Association of Mayur Colony, Delhi, design a poster in not more than 50 words for promoting cleanliness in the surroundings of your colony. (3)
Answer:
Commonly Made Error
Students tend to add unnecessary details to meet the word limit.

Answering Tip
Relevant details should be added. It should be such that the poster conveys the idea clearly.

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from (A) and (B) given below.
(A) You are Meena Saxena of Kanpur. You have come across an advertisement of a coaching centre that prepares students for Pre Medical tests. Write a letter to the Director of the institute asking for information that you require before you decide to join it. (5)

Sky-High Institute
Excellent Coaching Centre
25, High Street, Kanpur
Are You Aspiring To Be A Doctor?
We Are Here To Help You!
Batches Starting From February
Register Now!
Contact: Tel: 23417689

Answer:

Note: No marks are to be awarded if only the format is given. Credit should be given for the candidate’s creativity in the presentation of ideas.

Format – 01 Mark

  • Sender’s address
  • Date
  • Receiver’s address
  • Subject/heading
  • Salutations

Content – 03 Marks
Expression – 02 Marks
Letter to The Director, Sky-High Institute
– Intent of writing the letter
– Enquiry about the courses

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

7 Greater Colony,
Kanpur
21st January, 20XX
The Director
Sky-High Institute
25, High Street
Kanpur

Subject: Enquiry Regarding Coaching Classes.

Sir,
This is with reference to your advertisement in “The Daily Times’ dated 18th January, 20XX. I am a student of Class XII and am preparing for pre-medical test. I am interested in joining your esteemed institute, but before I do so, I would like to have the following information.

I would like to know the duration and the timings of the course. What is the fee structure and the mode of payment? I would also like to know the strength of each batch and the success rate of your institute. Do you offer any discount to students who have excelled in academics?

I would be grateful if you could give me a prompt response so that I can take timely decision to join your institute.

Thanking you

Yours sincerely,
Meena Saxena

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

(B) “Private cars should be banned in the congested commercial areas of the cities.” Write a debate in 120-150 words either for or against the motion. (5)
Answer:

Private Cars should be banned

Respected Judges and teachers,
Today, I stand before you to present my views for the motion on the topic, ‘Private cars should be banned in the congested commercial areas of the cities’. There is no end to the number of vehicles being driven around the city each day. Traffic jams have become a rather common problem and have only increased in the last ten years.

In my opinion, allowing private cars in congested commercial areas only adds to the problem. Long traffic jams do not only mean consumption of extra fuel but also more number of people suffering from respiratory diseases due to pollution. I strongly feel if people take public transport to work or hire a cab or car-pool and drive vehicles which run on CNG, the problem of constantly rising pollution and heavy traffic jams can be reduced drastically.

The Earth belongs to all of us and it is our duty to safeguard it and keep it clean for our future generations. Thus, first step towards protecting our environment would be to stop abusing the available amount of petroleum and avoid creating pollution.

Thank you for listening to my views patiently.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 5.
A. Complete the following sentences with an appropriate word. (1 x 4 = 4)
(i) Take as ____________ stamps as you need.
(ii) I ____________ (be) to the doctor. (Fill in the blank using the present perfect tense.)
Answer:
(i) many
Explanation: Since ‘stamps’ are countable, many will be used.

(ii) I have been to the doctor.
Explanation: In Present Perfect Tense has been have been is used. Here the subject is T. So, ‘have been1 will be used.

B. Rearrange the given words to make meaningful sentences,
(i) had/winning a medal/he/my/I told him/until/about
(ii) on/my bicycle/to/go/I used to/my school
Answer:

  • He had not known about my winning a medal until I told him.
  • I used to go to my school on my bicycle.

Section C
Literature (15 Marks)

Question 6.
Answer the following questions within 30-40 words each. (2 x 3 = 6)
(i) How can overfishing and decimation of forests prove harmful?
(ii) How does the rain justify its claim: ‘I am the Poem of Earth’?
(iii) What according to the poem, ’Childhood’, is involved in the process of growing up?
Answer:
(i) Overfishing may lead to stripping of fisheries. Then man will lose a rich source of protein. The decimation of forests will harm ecology. Moreover, several species of life that live in forest will face extinction.

(ii) The poem ‘The Voice of the Rain/describes the cycle of rain. It shows how the rain rises out of the sea and is transformed into rain drops in the heavens. Thus, it is the poem of the earth.

(iii) According to the poem, ‘Childhood’, the loss of childhood is involved in the process of growing up. This loss is compensated by some gains which come with adolescence.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 7.
Answer the following questions within 70-80 words each. (3 x 3 = 9)
(i) Who was Joe Morgan? Why had he been waiting for Dr. Andrew Manson?
OR
How did Einstein’s medical certificate prove useless?
(ii) Mothers should be respected not ignored. Examine the problem confronted by Mrs. Pearson under the light of this statement. Who helps her solve this problem and how?
(iii) Give a brief account of the author’s visit to the medical college at Darchen and the effect of the Tibetan medicines on him.
Answer:
(i) Joe Morgan was a driller in Blaenelly, a mining town. He was a big, strong and heavy middle-aged person. Joe and his wife Susan, who had been married for nearly twenty years and were expecting their first child. Joe was waiting for the doctor to help Susan in the delivery of the child.
OR
Einstein managed to get a medical certificate with the help of Yuri but before he could submit it to the head teacher, he was called by the teacher and was expelled from the school. The school authorities were of the opinion that he was turning rebellious. So the medical certificate proved useless.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

(ii) Mrs. Pearson’s problem is that she is neglected by her husband and children. She is very fond of her family. She runs after them all the time, takes their orders as if she is their servant. She stays at home every night while they go out enjoying themselves. She takes no holiday.

They have come to believe that she is there simply to look after them and wait for them. So they take, no notice of her. Her neighbour, Mrs. Fitzgerald, helps her solve this problem. She advises Mrs. Pearson to assert her rights as the mistress of the house if she wants them to treat her properly.

(iii) At first, the author was impressed neither by the building of the medical college nor the Tibetan doctor. The building looked like a monastery and the doctor himself appeared like any other Tibetan in a thick-pullover and wooly hat. He had no white coat.

The author, then, explained his sleepless symptoms and sudden aversion to lying down. The Tibetan doctor diagnosed his illness as a cold and effect of the altitude. So, he gave him a five-day course of Tibetan medicines in fifteen screws of paper.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 English Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

The medicines, which appeared to be quite ineffective, worked wonders and only after his first full day’s course, the author was able to sleep soundly at night. He woke up quite fresh the next day and recovered completely after the five-day course.

RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B

RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B

These Solutions are part of RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 7. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 7 Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B.

Other Exercises

Question 1.
Solution:
Steps of construction :
(i) Draw a line segment BC = 3.6cm
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B 1
(ii) At B, draw an arc of the radius 5cm.
(iii) At C, draw another arc of the radius 5.4cm which intersects the first arc at A
(iv) Join AB and AC
(v) With centre B and C and radius more than half of BC, draw arcs intersecting each other at L and M.
(vi) Join LM which intersects BC at Q and produce it to P.
Then PQ is perpendicular bisector of side BC.

Question 2.
Solution:
Steps of construction :
(i) Draw a line segment QR = 6cm
(ii) With centre Q and radius 4.4 cm draw an arc.
(iii) With centre R and radius 5.3 cm, draw another arc intersecting the first arc at P.
(iv) Join PQ and PR.
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B 2
(v) With centre P and a suitable radius, draw an arc meeting PR at E and PQ at F.
(vi) With centres E and F, with same radius, draw two arcs intersecting each other at G.
(vii) Join PG and produce it to meet QR at S. Then PS is the bisector of ∠P.

Question 3.
Solution:
Steps of construction :
(i) Draw a line segment BC = 6.2 cm.
(ii) With centres B and C radius 6.2 cm, draw arcs intersecting each other at A.
(iii) Join AB and AC.
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B 3
∆ABC is the required equilateral triangle.
On measuring, each angle is equal to 60°.

Question 4.
Solution:
Steps of construction :
(i) Draw a line segment BC = 5.3 cm.
(ii) With centre B and C, and radius 4.8 cm, draw arcs intersecting each other at A
(iii) Join AB and AC, Then ∆ABC is the required triangle.
(iv) Now, with centre A and a suitable radius draw an arc intersecting BC at L and M.
(v) Then with centre L and M, draw two arcs intersecting eachother at E.
(vi) Join AE intersecting BC at D. Then AD is perpendicular to BC.
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B 4
On measuring ∠B and ∠C, each is equal to 55°.

Question 5.
Solution:
Steps of construction :
(i) Draw a line segment AB = 3.8cm.
(ii) At A draw a ray AX making an angle of 60°.
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B 5
(iii) Cut off AC = 5 cm from AX
(iv) Join CB.
Then ∆ABC is the required triangle.

Question 6.
Solution:
Steps of construction :
(i) Draw a line segment BC = 4.3 cm.
(ii) At C, draw a ray CY making an angle equal to 45°.
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B 6
(iii) With centre C, and radius 6cm, draw an arc intersecting CY at A.
(iv) Join AB.
Then ∆ABC is the required triangle.

Question 7.
Solution:
(i) Draw a line segment AB = 5.2cm.
(ii) At A, draw a ray AX making an angle equal to 120°.
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B 7
(iii) From AX cut off AC = 5.2cm.
(iv) Join BC.
Then ∆ABC is the required triangle.
(v) With centre A and some suitable radius draw an arc intersecting BC at L and M.
(vi) With centres L and M, draw two arcs intersecting each other at E.
(vii) Join AE intersecting BC at D Then AD is the perpendicular to BC.

Question 8.
Solution:
Steps of construction :
(i) Draw a line segment BC = 6.2 cm.
(ii) At B draw a ray BX making an angle of 60°.
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B 8
(iii) At C draw another ray CY making an angle of 45° which intersect the ray BX at A. .
Then ∆ABC is the required triangle.

Question 9.
Solution:
Steps of construction :
(i) Draw a line segment BC = 5.8 cm.
(ii) At B draw a ray BX making an angle of 30°
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B 9
(iii) At C draw another ray CY making an angle of 30° intersecting the BX at A
Then ∆ABC is the required triangle.
On measuring AB and AC, AB = 3.5cm and AC = 3.5cm.
AB = AC
∆ABC is an isosceles triangle.

Question 10.
Solution:
Steps of construction :
In ∆ABC, ∠A = 45° and ∠C = 75°
But ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B 10
⇒ 45° + ZB + 75° = 180°
⇒ ∠B = 180° – 45° – 75°
⇒ ∠B = 180° – 120° = 60°
(i) Draw a line segment AB = 7cm.
(ii) At A, draw a ray AX making an angle of 45°.
(iii) At B, draw another ray BY making an angle of 60° which intersects AX at C
Then ∆ABC is the required triangle.

Question 11.
Solution:
Steps of construction :
(i) Draw a line segment BC = 4.8 cm
(ii) At C, draw a ray CX making an angle of 90°.
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B 11
(iii) With centre B, an radius 6.3cm draw an arc intersecting CX at A.
(iv) Join AB.
Then ∆ABC is the required triangle.

Question 12.
Solution:
Steps of construction :
(i) Draw a line segment BC = 3.5cm
(ii) At B, draw a ray BX making an angle of 90°.
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B 12
(iii) With centre C and radius 6cm draw an arc intersecting BX at A
(iv) Join AC.
Then ∆ABC is the required triangle.

Question 13.
Solution:
One acute angle = 30°, then
second acute angle will be = 90° – 30° = 60° (Sum of acute angles = 90°)
Steps of construction :
(i) Draw a line segment BC = 6cm.
(ii) At B draw a ray BX making an angle of 30°.
(iii) At C draw another ray CY making an angle of 60° which intersects BX at A
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B 13
Then ∆ABC is the required triangle.

Hope given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 7 Chapter 17 Constructions Ex 17B are helpful to complete your math homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online math tutoring for you.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below:

There is a time when everyone has to face grief. When someone dear to oneself dies, one is left in a state in which grief and shock overcome the ordinary life. One is left in a situation when one feels there is nothing one can do. Grief and mourning are always associated with death. It also happens with other kinds of losses. It could be the loss of one’s job, loss of one’s house or the loss of a close friend.

5. The best people able to cope with these are those who come from cultures that have strict, formal and intensive mourning ritual. In India, we have diverse rituals which nowadays are being discarded. But these help in surmounting the crisis. The near and dear ones come to share the grief and apply balm with their words of solace. In a modern society, one is expected to act as if nothing has happened, but research has shown that mourning is an essential part

10. of coming to terms with loss. There comes a time when one has to give up one’s grief and rejoin the main stream of life. Mourning in itself passes through these phases. Firstly, it is in the nature of shock and disbelief. A feeling of numbness overtakes. The brain is not in a position to accept. It so happens that one expects the arrival of the lost one, thinking that nothing will change and he/she will be with the lost one. In the second phase, one realises the truth that the loss has actually happened,

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

15. and it was not a dream. It is then that one feels the pain. Then one recollects the old moments and the memory of guilt creeps in. Here, the affected person displays odd behaviour and has difficulty in activities like eating and sleeping. One may remain in this stage for weeks, months and sometimes years.

In the next phase, one experiences relief from pain and negative feeling. This leads to the 20. positive side. Then one feels one must make alternative arrangements or replacements. Here, one is ready to cope with the situation. One knows one cannot recover what one has lost, but is conscious of the future, accepts the loss and is ready for the alternative.

On passing through all the stages of grief, it seems that time has passed like a river under the bridge. This shows that mourning has been successful. One cannot forget the loss but one 25. comes to terms with the reality.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8)
(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the writer’s opinion of mourning being a successful step in overcoming the loss. (1)

(B) State the way the people in modern society are expected to react to a loss that is evident from lines 7-12 and provide a reason for your choice. (1)

(C) The writer says that the best people to cope with loss are the ones who ‘come from a strict mourning culture’. Why does he think so? (1)

(D) Why does the writer say that a person who loses his loved one displays odd behaviours? (1)

(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 20 – 25.
Ram panicked when his experiment didn’t go well because he didn’t have any other set-up for the competition. (1)

(F) What does the use of the phrase ‘feeling of numbness’ suggest in the context of the writer’s viewpoint of grief? (1)

(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 15-25 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

I don’t understand why Amanda is being so reckless. She needs to have ……… that no matter how hard Ms. Casey tries not to let her in the cheerleading team again. (1)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

(H) Grief and mourning are always associated with death. What are the other kinds of losses other than the ones given in the passage? (1)

(I) Analyse the better way of coping with a loss – ignorance or acceptance. (1)
Answer:
(A) As per the passage, a research states that mourning is an essential part of coming to terms with loss. As there are many phases of grief and disbelief in the loss of a lost one, mourning helps pass the affected person through these phases by making him understand and accept the loss over time.

(B) The people in modern society are expected to react as if nothing has happened. I think the reason behind it is that people think ignorance or suppressing emotions might help them overcome the loss or their feeling of sorrow.

(C) As per the writer, the best people to cope with loss are the ones belonging to a strict mourning culture because mourning makes it easy for the brain to accept that the loss has actually happened. It helps a person to overcome his pain by reliving it through lamenting.

(D) The writer says that a person, who loses a loved one, displays odd behavior because it is a big emotional damage that he goes through. So, in that grieving phase, he loses his control over all activities like eating or sleeping, and it takes a lot of time for him to get back to his normal lifestyle.

(E) alternative arrangements

(F) The writer uses the phrase ‘feeling of numbness’ to express that when a person experiences a loss of his loved one, his body, mind and soul is not ready to accept it. His emotions get so disturbed that he doesn’t even feel alive for a period of time.

(G) come to terms with reality

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

(H) The other kinds of loses that a person may face in his life are divorces, loss of a relationship with a close one, family fued, best friend tiffs, failure in exams, poor performance in a competition, losing after several trials, etc.

(I) The better way of coping with a loss is definitely acceptance. Ignorance may work only for a few hours or days but it keeps the guilt alive always. However, once you accept the Loss, you move on forever.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below:
On August 4th, the United Nations (UN) released the secretary-general’s policy brief on the impact of COVID-19 on the world’s education system. The policy’s brief points to the fact that the closure of schools and other learning spaces have impacted 94% of the world’s student population (up to 99% in

5. low and lower-middle-income countries). It suggests that despite the delivery of lessons by radio, TV and online, and efforts of teachers and parents, many students still do not have access to education. It highlights how learners with disabilities, those from marginalised communities, displaced and refugee students,

10. and those in remote areas are at highest risk of being left behind. And it warns that the knock-on effects on child nutrition, child marriage and gender equality could be enormous.

The cumulative impact of all these on children may lead to a “generational catastrophe” that could waste human potential, undermine decades of progress, and exacerbate.

15. entrenched inequalities. This is not good news for any nation, more so for those in the low and lower-middle-income segments such as India. According to UNESCO, nearly 321 million Indian children have been at home since 2020 March-end. There is no clarity on when schools will reopen.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 1
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 2
20. In the last few decades, especially since the enactment of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, India has seen a surge in school enrolments and infrastructure development in the primary and secondary segments. But the learning outcomes have not kept pace. The pandemic has now exacerbated this existing challenge. In addition, the extended period of closure means students don’t have access to midday meals; 25. and with parental incomes under strain, there could be a spike in drop-out rates, especially among girls.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

While the focus must be now be ensuring the safety of students, teachers and staff, and putting in place protocols for school reopening, there has to be an extensive assessment of the learning loss and well-thought-out plans.

30. to bridge the learning gap, and schemes to retain students. This entails tweaking the syllabus and changing pedagogy. This forced break must also be used to align the sector to the National Education Policy (NEP), which was released last week, especially to its foundational learning goals. Last but not least, governments will have to arrange for funds.

35. required for the sector. This will be a challenge post-COVID-19, but starving the education sector of finances will be irresponsible, for it is crucial to meeting India’s development goals and creating an inclusive society.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 3
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the seven questions given below. (1 x 6)

(A) What does the researcher mean by ‘exacerbate entrenched inequalities’? (1)
(B) What grave reality does the survey on the effect of COVID on Indian school kids from school closure shows for girls? (1)
(C) With reference to fig. 1, write possible reasons about the impact on children in China due to COVID. (1)
(D) What can be concluded for the methods used by the schools for keeping up with regular studies, with reference to fig. 3?
(E) The school closures may also lead to ill child nutrition. Substantiate. (1)
(F) Why are ‘placing protocols’ recommended as a significant step on school reopening? (1)
(G) Identify a word from lines 25-35 indicating the pattern of teaching a particular academic subject. (1)
Answer:
(A) By the given phrase, the researcher means that COVID has disrupted the entire education system in the world which may worsen the already rigid inequalities that are prevalent for children, especially in low-income segment countries like India.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

(B) The survey shows that the loss in parental income under the COVID strain will lead to a big drop-out rate and the nearest target for that would be girls because parents in India would prefer their sons to daughters for continuing their studies.

(C) In fig.l, it is evident that the Chinese students are the most affected school kids. This may be due to a large number of cases of virus, high number of students’ enrolments, more schools, and a high population in the nation.

(D) Clearly in fig. 3, we can see that in spite of schools taking actions like referring their entire studies over online classes, app tutorial and webinars, nothing is proving to overcome the impact on t children as the number of students affected world wide are only rising.

(E) The school closures will surely affect the child nutrition as several of the children rely upon the ‘mid-day meal’ schemes for their daily nutrition and with the closure of schools, they will have no access to it.

(F) Placing protocols is very crucial on schools reopening because we must not forget that the presence of deadly viruses is still lingering. Crowded places like schools, including little children who aren’t able to keep their own safety properly, are at a higher risk.

(G) Pedagogy

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
You are Raj Krishna Agrawal, the Principal of St. Eve Modern School. You were invited to inaugurate the local book exhibition by the community. Draft a formal reply accepting the invitation. (3)
Answer:
Mr. Raj Krishna Agrawal thanks the community people for inviting him to inaugurate the local book exhibition in the city on Sunday, the 13th of April, 20XX, at 2.00 p.m. He accepts the invitation and is honored to be the Guest of Honour for the event. He will reach the venue at 1.50 p.m. sharp.

Regards
Mr Raj Krishna Agrawal
Principal, St. Eve Modern School

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.
(A) St. Agnes School, Ahemdabad, requires two sports coaches (one male and one female). Each should be a degree holder in physical education as well as an SAI-certified coach in athletics. You have seen their advertisement and you know that you have these qualifications. Write an application in 120- 150 words along with your resume. You are Brijnesh/Uma Patel of M-42, Saras Road, Ahemdabad.
OR
(B) Your state government has banned the use of plastic bags. Your are Sonali Singh Chadda. As a reporter of The Times of India, write a report in about 120-150 words on how the ban is being ignored and what damage the indiscriminate use of plastic bags is causing to the environment, covering all the details like people still seen with poly bags, plastic clogs drains, kill wildlife, non-biodegradable, toxic, etc.
Answer:
M-42
Saras Road
Ahmedabad
30th September, 20XX
The Principal
St. Agnes School
Ahmedabad

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Subject: Application for the post of sports coach.

Sir/Ma’am,
This is with reference to your advertisement in The Gujarat Times, dated 28th September, 20XX, for the post of a sports coach.

I wish to apply for the same. I have all the qualities that would suit the post best. I am a certified SAI Coach in Athletics and I hold a bachelor degree in Physical Education. I have served as a Sports Coach in Mitabai Public School, Anand for three years and then joined the AVA Academy of Coach, Ahmedabad, from where I got my SAI certification.

I will be highly thankful to you if you shortlist me for the personal interview. I am enclosing my resume for your perusal.

Yours faithfully,
Brijnesh/Uma Patel

Resume
Father’s Name : Mr Akhilesh Patel
Name : Uma Patel
Address : M-42, Saras Road, Ahmadabad
Date of Birth : 4th or March, 19XX
MaritaL Status : Unmarried
EducationaL Qualifications : BPEd from Asaram Institute, Anand SAI certification in athletics from AVA Academy of Coach, Ahmadabad
Job experience : Sports Coach in Mitabai Public School, Anand for three years
Expected salary : negotiable

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Caution :
Students often write irrelevant details of the candidate in the job letters. Avoid giving any confusing details of the candidate in both the body and the bio-data in the letter. Never give different details of the candidate in the body of the letter and the bio-data.

OR

Plastics Ban Ignored, threat to Environment
keeps going on
By Sonali Singh Chadda, Staff Reporter,
The Times of India

New Delhi, 12th August, 20XX: The government has banned the production and use of plastic bags in our country. But unfortunately, nobody seems to follow the rule. Not only people are seen using a huge number of poly bags daily but are also seen discarding them in the drains uncaring about the fact that they will block the flow of drain water. Polybags are a threat to our environment. They cause pollution, kill wildlife and are responsible for using up the natural resources of the earth. They are one of the main factors that litter the landscape. If burnt, they will infuse the surrounding air with toxic fumes.

The main problem of plastic bags is that they are non-biodegradable. The decomposition of plastic takes around a thousand years, so with the plastic rubbish produced each day it is likely that this problem will never be solved. While the government works out ways to lessen the impact of polybags on the environment, the citizens of the nation should too follow the ways laid.

Caution :
Students often get confused when they do not get sufficient details in the questions about any generic topic. In these questions, it is always better to write general information. Avoid giving any factual data without a backing.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Section – C
Literature (18 marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, with in 40 words each. (2 x 5)
(A) How was the crofter ‘generous with his confidences’ when he spoke to the peddler? (2)
(B) ‘Gandhi was a visionary’. Substantiate the statement in regard with the chapter ‘Indigo’.
You may begin your answer like this: Gandhi had a great quality of sightedness…
(C) Aunt Jennifer’s hands are ‘fluttering through her wool’. Expound both the literal and metaphoric meanings of the statement. (2)
(D) Validate why is grandeur associated with the ‘mighty dead’? (2)
(E) Why does Jack insist that it was the wizard that was hit and not the mother? (2)
(F) Rationalize what clues the answer sheet of Evans provided to the Governor. (2)
Answer:
(A) The crofter was generous with his confidences with the peddler. He told the peddler that he had been a crofter but now his cow supported him. He further added that the cow would give milk for the creamery every day, and that last month, he had received thirty kronors as payment from it. The crofter didn’t even think once before telling tales to the peddler.

(B) Gandhi had a great quality of sightedness and observation in him. He was definitely a visionary who saw that the peasants of Champaran need to be free from the shackles of their fear from the British and then fight for their rights. He knew that the fear in them is greater than their desire for justice.

(C) Literally, the statement means that as Aunt Jennifer has grown old and weak, she doesn’t have enough strength to pull through the needle. Metaphorically, her nervousness and fright from her household circumstances has made it difficult for her to pull throw the needle.

(D) The mighty dead rulers had sacrificed their precious lives for the sake of their nations and others. They are often associated with ‘grandeur’ because they lived a glorious and a heroic life.

(E) Jack does not want his daughter to have a negative opinion about a mother. He wants Jo to accept that a mother can never take any wrong decision for her children. Thus, from a mother’s perspective, he justifies Mommy Skunk hitting the wizard.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

(F) The answer sheet had been cleverly attached to the last page of the question paper by Evans to outwit his opponents and mislead the police. It was from his answer-sheet that the police got the clue that Evans had hit McLeery whom Evans was himself impersonating. The six figure reference was a clue to a place that landed him in the middle of Chipping Norton.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)
(A) In the poem, ‘A Thing of Beauty’, John Keats compares a beautiful thing to things like a ‘bower’ and ‘endless fountain of immortal drink’. Expound in about 120-150 words. (4)
(B) The story ‘the Rattrap’ is based on a rattrap seller who thinks the world to be nothing but a rattrap. Explain how he himself ended up being caged in the same rattrap. Examine the story in the light of this statement, in about 120-150 words. (4)
(C) The question paper and correction slip had a crucial role to play in catching Evans in the chapter ‘Evans Tries an O-level. Substantiate with reference to text, in about 120-150 words. (4)
Answer:
(A) In this poem, John Keats says that a thing of beauty provides a soothing joy to our minds and souls forever. As a man’s life is full of trials and tribulations, he faces a lot of dilemmas and gloom. The things of beauty provide a relief from those everyday dilemmas to men. The poet then compares the thing of beauty with a ‘bower’ which is a cool shady sideway near the cold crystal water streams that gives a nice soothing place to rest in scorching heats. A beautiful thing similarly soothes a man’s stressed mind.

Next, he compares a thing of beauty to ‘an endless fountain of immortal drink pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink’. He says that all these beautiful things are a gift of nature which shower endlessly and continues forever. The imprints of beautiful things are permanent on our minds. They provide an endless source of inspiration. In fact, fountain of immortal drink refers to grandeur of heroism which inspires us and gives one the courage to flight for a cause.

(B) In the story, the peddler gets a revelation that this world is a huge ‘rattrap’ for human beings. It tempts people in the form of worldly riches, joys and materials as baits. When a person tries to get it for himself, he gets trapped into it forever. But later, when he gets easy access to steal the crofter’s thirty Kroners, he does it without giving the crofter’s trust a thought.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

In this way, he himself gets attracted to the bait in the form of those thirty Kroners and then gets into the trap by finally stealing the money. He runs into the wood with the stolen money in his pocket, to get out of the place in order to avoid being caught by someone for it.

Later, when he finds that he is lost and is just spinning around the forest like a maze, he realizes that he is caught in the same rattrap that he thinks people end up in. when he loses his way in the forest, with the few kroners in his pocket.

(C) Indeed, the question paper and correction ’ slip had a crucial role to play in catching Evans. In one instance, we see that the Governor received a call from the Assistant Secretary of the Examination Board saying that there was a correction slip, which was not attached to the question paper. The Secretary requested the Governor if he could read out the correction to Evans. The correction read ‘zum goldenen Lowen’.

In reality, it was not a correction but an indication informing Evans about the location he needed to reach after his escape. Later, when the Governor learned about Evans’ escape, Rev. McLeery, who was Evans in real, showed him the question paper at the back of which, instructions were given to help Evans escape. These instructions were to misguide the prison authorities.

The paper also helped the Governor at the end. By putting together the index and centre numbers, the Governor got the hint of Evans location. With the six digit reference and the help of a survey map, the Governor got the hint that Evans had escaped to a place called Chipping Norton.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 7 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 13 questions.
  • This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
  • 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
  • 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
  • 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
  • This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 1.
Find net value added at factor cost: (₹ Lakh)
(i) Durable use producer goods with a life span of 10 gears 10
(ii) Single-use producer goods 5
(iii) Sales 20
(iv) Unsold output produced during the year 2
(v) Taxes on production 1
Answer:
NVAFC = Sales + Unsold Output – Single use
producer goods – Depreciation – Taxes on production
= 20 + 2 – 5 – (10/10) – 1
=20 + 2 – 5 – 1 – 1
= ₹15 lakhs

Question 2.
If in an economy: Change in Initial investments (Δl) = ₹700 crores Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.2 Find the values of the following:
(A) Investment Multiplier (K)
(B) Change in final income (ΔY) (2)
OR
Estimate the change in initial investment if Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is 0.10 and change in final income is ₹15,000 crores. (2)
Answer:
K = 1/M PS
K = 1/0.2 = 5
ΔY = K(Δl)
ΔY = 5 x ₹700
= ₹3.500 crores
OR
Investment Multiplier (K) = 1/MPS
K = 1/0.10 = 10
K = ΔY/Δl
10 = ₹15.000/Δl
Δl = ₹1.500
Change in initial investment
= ₹1.500 crore

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 3.
State whether the following statement is true or false:
“As per Keynesian theory in an economy, full employment can never exist.”
OR
State whether the following statement is true or false:

Aggregate demand curve including aggregate expenditure at different levels of income slopes downward from left to right. (2)
Answer:
True
Full employment can never exist as some people mΔY not be willing to work at all or not willing to work at the prevailing wage rate. It is known as voluntary unemployment. Thus, some natural rate or unemployment alwΔYs exists in the economy.
OR
False
Expenditure is positively related to income thus, aggregate demand curve including aggregate expenditure at different levels of income slopes upward from left to right.

Question 4.
Distinguish between ‘Green Revolution’ and ‘Golden Revolution. (2)
Answer:
Green Revolution refers to the large increase in production of food grain resulting from the use of high yield variety (FIYV) seeds of food crops (like wheat and rice) and supportive technology during mid 1960s to mid 70s. Whereas, Golden Revolution refers to the process where India has emerged as a leader in producing a variety of horticulture crops.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 5.
Is it necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector? Why?
OR
Since independence, the benefits of the increase in economic growth in India have trickled down to the people at the bottom of population pyramid. Defend or refute with valid reason. (2)
Answer:
Workers and enterprises in the informal sector do not get regular income; they do not have any protection or regulation from the government. Workers are dismissed without any compensation. Technology used in the informal sector enterprises is outdated; they also do not maintain any accounts. Workers of this sector live in slums and are squatters. Thus, it is necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector.
OR
The statement is refuted as there have been different factors (like massive rate of growth of population, unequal distribution of wealth, skewed benefits accruing from green revolution, etc.) due to which benefits of increase in the Gross Domestic Product have not trickled down completely to the people at the bottom of population pyramid.

Question 6.
“Some infrastructural facilities have a direct impact on production of goods and services while others give indirect support by building the social sector of the economy.” Elucidate. (3)
Answer:
Some divide infrastructure into two categories – economic and social. Infrastructure associated with energy, transportation and communication are included in the former category thus, economic infrastructure is the basic facilities which directly benefit the process of production and distribution in an economy. Those related to education, health and housing are included in the latter thus, social infrastructure gives indirect support by building the social sector of the economy.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 7.
“The Great Leap Forward intended to transform China from an agrarian economy to modern society.” Explain.
OR
Nations incorporate international membership and encompass geopolitical entities that operationally transcend a single nation-state? Explain why. (3)

Read the following case carefully and answer questions number 8 and 9 given below:

Budget 2021: Covid-19 brings back focus on Yoga, industry puts these demands Yoga has been part of Indian culture for thousands of years and is widely accepted around the world for its health and wellness creating aspects. The global coronavirus pandemic, caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 or SARS-CoV-2, has once again shifted focus towards this age-old practice. While in a pre-COVID era most people opted for yoga as a weight loss measure, the pandemic has made them aware of the importance of their wellness, health, and immunity for which practicing yoga is best. Boosting immunity is an essential requisite to fight against highly infectious coronavirus. Several studies have proved that dedicated pranayamas and systematic tailor-made asana practices could build up the immunity in the body that will help fight the viral infection.

Experts believe that the yoga industry is making the desired impact on the people of India and in turn, it seems to create a change in the development of individuals and also become a national interest. Shilpa Ambre – CFO, SARVA Yoga – told Financial Express Online that it is the right time to promote the industry by extending all the required support. Praising the Modi government for exceptionally brilliant work in spreading the importance of yoga in the past few years, Mita Vinay said that allocating some dedicated budget will help the yoga industry flourish at the right time and the right way. She also feels that loans at a low-interest rate will help yoga teachers start their own yogashala or studios. “Many talented teachers are not able to go all out spreading the positive effects of yoga because of the lack of the opportunity, I would like to see a low-interest loan provided to the yoga teachers who wish to open their yogashala or studio.”

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

https://www.financialexpress.com/budget/budget-2021-covid-19-brings-back-focus-on-yoga-industry-puts-these-demands /2156744/
Answer:
The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign initiated in 1958 aimed at industrialising the country on a massive scale. People were encouraged to set up industries in their backyards. In rural areas, communes were started. Under the Commune system, people collectively cultivated lands. In 1958, there were 26,000 communes covering almost all the farm population.
OR
Regional economic integration/groupings are one of the major tools for developing international trade activities. It focuses on the transformation of a small nationaL economy into a larger economic unit. Regional and economic groups such as SAARC, European Union, ASEAN, G-8, G-20, BRICS, etc. are formed to increase economic cooperation between neighboring nations or those with similar economic interests. The formation of grouping is considered more important in developing countries because all developing countries face competition not only from developed countries but also within themselves due to the limited economic space. In addition, co-operation with other economies in our region is also necessary, as all major economic activities in the region contribute to the overall human development of the shared environment.

Question 8.
How allocating budget to popularize yoga will impact GDP? (3)
Answer:
Government expenditure on popularizing yoga raises Gross Domestic Product because it is government’s final consumption expenditure.

It is a productive expenditure which improves the productive capacity of the economy. Yoga helps to improve the quality of the labour force by enhancing mental and physical stability of the people. This improves the production process and higher the production efficiency, higher will be the GDP growth.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 9.
Government should allocate budget to popularize yoga among the masses. Analyse its impact welfare of the people. (3)
Answer:
Expenditure on spreading the importance of Yoga will raise welfare of the people because yogic exercises improve health and thus, raises efficiency of the people. Several studies have proved that dedicated pranΔYamas and systematic tailor-made asana practices could build up the immunity in the body that will help fight the viral infection and increases efficiency.

Question 10.
Answer the following questions on the basis of the following data:
(A) Comment upon the population growth rates among the three countries.
(B) Which country has most skewed in sex ratio?

Source: World Development Indicators, 2015.
www.worldbankorg
Answer:
(A) The given data shows that the annual
growth rate of population is maximum in Pakistan standing at 2.1%, whereas; the same stands at a meager 0.5% in case of China (might be a direct result of the One-Child Policy adopted). The annual population growth rate of India is in the danger zone of more than 1% p.a. India will be overtaking China as the most populous country in the world in near future.

(B) Amongst the three countries stated above, India has most skewed data sex ratio (929 female per 1000 male). This is one of the major concerns for the demographers in India.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 11.
(A) “Domestic/household services performed by a woman may not be considered as an economic activity”. Defend or refute the given statement with valid reason.

(B) ‘Compensation to the victims of a cyclone is an example of a welfare measure taken by the government”. State with valid reason, should it be included/not included in the estimation of national income of India. (5)
Answer:
(A) The given statement is defended; as it is difficult to measure the monetary value of the services performed by a woman (homemaker). Therefore, these activities mΔY not be considered as an economic activity.

(B) Compensation given to the victims of a cyclone is an example of a social welfare measure taken by the government. However, it is not included in estimation of national income as it is a transfer pΔYment which does not lead to corresponding flow of goods and services.

Question 12.
The saving function of an economy is given as:
S = – 25 + 0.25 Y.
If the planned investment is ₹200 crores, calculate the following:
(A) Equilibrium level of income in the economy.
(B) Aggregate demand at income of ₹ 500
crores. (5)
OR
Answer the following questions based on the data given below:
(i) Planned investment = ₹100 crore
(ii) C = 50 + 0.5 Y
(A) Determine the equilibrium level of income.
(B) Calculate the saving and consumption expenditure at equilibrium level of National Income. (5)
Answer:
(A) We know that the equilibrium level of income in an economy is determined when: S = l
According to the question:
– 25 + 0.25Y = 200
0.25Y = 225
Y = ₹900 crores

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

(B) We know that in an economy: AD = C + l According to the question, AD at income of ₹900 crores will be;
AD = 25+(l – 0.25)Y + 200
AD = 25+0.75(500) + 200
AD = ₹600 crore
OR
(A) At equilibrium level of income, Y = C + 1
Y = (50 + 0.5Y) +100
Y – 0.5Y = 150
Y = 150/0.5 = ₹300 crores
Equilibrium level of income
= ₹300 crores

(B) S = – C + (1 – b) Y
= – 50 + (1 – 0.5) (300)
= ₹ 100 crores
Y = C + S
300 = C + 100
C = 300 – 100 = ₹ 200 crores

Question 13.
“It refers to facilities and systems that enable the functionality of a community. The lack of it places pressure on the existing systems in place. Overcrowded schools and healthcare facilities, overpopulation, and unemployment lead to an underperforming economy.”

Identify the type of infrastructure and its importance for an economy. (5)
Answer:
Social Infrastructure: Importance of Social Infrastructure for an Economy:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

  • It contributes to the healthy and strong growth of the new generation so that we can be more productive human resources in the future.
  • Social infrastructure contributes to the growth of society as it helps in the growth of literacy.
  • Social infrastructure facilitates skill-building, which is an important parameter in the context of economic growth.
  • It helps to improve and provide quality health care for the people.
  • Social infrastructure contributes to the building of a working economy, which goes hand in hand with a significant amount of money to create an effective system for growth and development.

RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 21 Collection and Organisation of Data Ex 21B

RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 21 Collection and Organisation of Data (Mean, Median and Mode) Ex 21B

These Solutions are part of RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 7. Here we have given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 7 Chapter 21 Collection and Organisation of Data Ex 21B.

Other Exercises

Question 1.
Solution:
(i) Arranging in ascending order.
2, 2, 3, 5, 7, 9, 9, 10, 11
Here number of terms = 9 which is odd
Median= \(\frac { n +1 }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 9 + 1 }{ 2 }\) th term
= 5th term = 7
Hence median = 7
(ii) Arranging in ascending order,
6, 8, 9, 15, 16, 18, 21, 22, 25
Here, number of terms (n) = 9 which is odd
Median= \(\frac { n +1 }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 9 + 1 }{ 2 }\) th term
= 5th term = 16
(iii) Arranging in ascending order,
6, 8, 9, 13, 15, 16, 18, 20, 21, 22, 25 Here number of terms (n) = 11 which is odd
Median= \(\frac { n +1 }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 11 + 1 }{ 2 }\) th term
= 6th term = 16

Question 2.
Solution:
(i) Arranging in ascending order,
9, 10, 17, 19, 21, 22, 32, 35
Here, number of terms = 8 which is even
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 21 Collection and Organisation of Data Ex 21B 1
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 21 Collection and Organisation of Data Ex 21B 2

Question 3.
Solution:
First 15 odd numbers are 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23, 25, 27, 29.
Here, number of terms (n) = 15 which is odd
Median = \(\frac { n + 1 }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 15 + 1 }{ 2 }\) th term
= 8th term = 15

Question 4.
Solution:
First 10 even numbers are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20
Here, number of terms = 10 which is even
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 21 Collection and Organisation of Data Ex 21B 3

Question 5.
Solution:
First 50 whole numbers
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, …, 49
Here, number of terms = 50, which is even
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 21 Collection and Organisation of Data Ex 21B 4

Question 6.
Solution:
Arranging in ascending order,
17, 17, 19, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 29, 31, 35, 40 .
Here, number of terms = 15 which is odd
Median = \(\frac { n + 1 }{ 2 }\) th term = \(\frac { 15 + 1 }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 16 }{ 2 }\) th
= 8th term = 23

Question 7.
Solution:
Arranging is ascending order,
31, 34, 36, 37, 40, 43, 46, 50, 52, 53
Here, number of terms = 10, which is even
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 21 Collection and Organisation of Data Ex 21B 5

Question 8.
Solution:
Preparing the cumulative frequency table
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 21 Collection and Organisation of Data Ex 21B 6
Here, number of terms (N) = 41, which is odd
Median = \(\frac { n + 1 }{ 2 }\) th term
= \(\frac { 41 + 1 }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 42 }{ 2 }\) th = 21 th term = 50kg (value of 20 to 28 = 50)
Hence median = 50kg

Question 9.
Solution:
Arranging in order and preparing the cumulative frequency table.
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 21 Collection and Organisation of Data Ex 21B 7
Here, number of terms (N) = 37 which is odd.
Median = \(\frac { n + 1 }{ 2 }\) th term
= \(\frac { 37 + 1 }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 38 }{ 2 }\) th term
= 19th term = 22 (Value of 18 to 21 = 22)
Hence median = 22

Question 10.
Solution:
Arranging in order and then preparing its cumulative frequency table :
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 21 Collection and Organisation of Data Ex 21B 8
Here, number of terms (N) = 50, which is even
RS Aggarwal Class 7 Solutions Chapter 21 Collection and Organisation of Data Ex 21B 9
Hence median = 154.5 cm

Hope given RS Aggarwal Solutions Class 7 Chapter 21 Collection and Organisation of Data Ex 21B are helpful to complete your math homework.

If you have any doubts, please comment below. Learn Insta try to provide online math tutoring for you.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1.

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 10
Subject Maths
Chapter Chapter 7
Chapter Name Coordinate Geometry
Exercise Ex 7.1
Number of Questions Solved 10
Category NCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1

Question 1.
Find the distance between the following pairs of points:
(i) (2, 3), (4, 1)
(ii) (-5, 7), (-1, 3)
(iii) (a, b), (-a, -b)
Solution:
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 1

Question 2.
Find the distance between the points (0, 0) and (36, 15).
Solution:
Let points be A (0, 0) and B (36, 15)
The distance between two points is
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 2

Question 3.
Determine if the points (1, 5), (2, 3) and (-2, -11) are collinear.
Solution:
Let points be A (1, 5), B (2, 3) and C (-2, -11)
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 3
AB + BC ≠ AC
Hence, the given points are not collinear.

Question 4.
Check whether (5, -2), (6, 4) and (7, -2) are the vertices of an isosceles triangle.
Solution:
Let points be A(5, -2), B (6, 4) and C (7, -2)
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 4
Here, AB = BC
ΔABC is an isosceles triangle.

Question 5.
In a classroom, 4 friends are seated at the points A, B, C and D as shown in given figure. Champa and Chameli walk into the class and after observing for a few minutes Champa asks Chameli, “Don’t you think ABCD is a square?” Chameli disagrees. Using distance formula, find which of them is correct.
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 5
Solution:
Points A (3, 4), B (6, 7), C (9, 4) and D (6, 1)
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 6
Here, AB = BC = CD = DA and AC = BD
ABCD is a square.
Hence, Champa is correct.

Question 6.
Name the type of quadrilateral formed, if any, by the following points, and give reasons for your answer.
(i) (-1, -2), (1, 0), (-1, 2), (-3, 0)
(ii) (-3, 5), (3, 1), (0, 3), (-1, -4)
(iii) (4, 5), (7, 6), (4, 3), (1, 2)
Solution:
(i) Let points be A (-1, -2), B (1, 0), C (-1, 2) and D (-3, 0)
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 7
Here, AC = BD, AB = BC = CD = AD
Hence, the quadrilateral ABCD is a square.
(ii) Let points be A (-3, 5), B (3, 1), C (0, 3) and D (-1, -4)
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 8
The given points do not form any quadrilateral.
(iii) Let points be A(4, 5), B (7, 6), C (4, 3) and D (1, 2)
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 9
Here, AB = CD, BC = AD
and AC ≠ BD
The quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram.

Question 7.
Find the point on the x-axis which is equidistant from (2, -5) and (-2, 9).
Solution:
Let points be A (2, -5) and B (-2, 9)
Let P (x, 0) be the point on x-axis.
AP = BP
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 10

Question 8.
Find the values of y for which the distance between the points P (2, -3) and Q (10, y) is 10 units.
Solution:
Points P (2, -3), Q (10, y) and PQ = 10 units
The distance between two points is
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 11

Question 9.
If Q (0, 1) is equidistant from P (5, -3), and R (x, 6), find the values of x. Also find the distances QR and PR.
Solution:
Points are P (5, -3) and R (x, 6)
Point Q (0, 1) is equidistant from points P (5, -3) and R (x, 6).
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 12

Question 10.
Find a relation between x and y such that the point (x, y) is equidistant from the points (3, 6) and (-3, 4).
Solution:
Points A(3, 6) and B(-3, 4) are equidistant from point P(x, y)
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 13
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1 14

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1, help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Ex 7.1, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions Ex 5.1

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions Ex 5.1 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions Ex 5.1.

Board CBSE
Textbook NCERT
Class Class 10
Subject Maths
Chapter Chapter 5
Chapter Name Arithmetic Progressions
Exercise Ex 5.1, Ex 5.2, Ex 5.3
Number of Questions Solved 4
Category NCERT Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions Ex 5.1

Question 1.
In which of the following situations, does the list of numbers involved make an arithmetic progression and why?
(i) The taxi fare after each km when the fare is ₹ 15 for the first km and ₹ 8 for each additional km.
(ii) The amount of air present in a cylinder when a vacuum pump removes \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) of the air remaining in the cylinder at a time.
(iii) The cost of digging a well after every metre of digging, when it costs ₹ 150 for the first metre and rises by ₹ 50 for each subsequent metre.
(iv) The amount of money in the account every year, when ₹ 10000 is deposited at compound interest at 8% per annum.
Solution:
(i) Given:
a1 = ₹ 15
a2 = ₹ 15 + ₹ 8 = ₹ 23
a3 = ₹ 23 + ₹ 8 = ₹ 31
List of fares is ₹ 15, ₹ 23, ₹ 31
and a2 – a1 = ₹ 23 – ₹ 15 = ₹ 8
a3 – a2 = ₹ 31 – ₹ 23 = ₹ 8
Here, a2 – a1 = a3 – a2
Thus, the list of fares forms an AP.
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions Ex 5.1 1

(iii) Given:
a1 = ₹ 150, a2 = ₹ 200, a3 = ₹ 250
a2 – a1 = ₹ 200 – ₹ 150 = ₹ 50
and a3 – a2 = ₹ 250 – ₹ 200 = ₹ 50
Here, a3 – a2 = a2 – a1
Thus, the list forms an AP.
(iv) Given: a1 = ₹ 10000
a2 = ₹ 10000 + ₹ 10000 x \(\frac { 8 }{ 100 }\) = ₹ 10000 + ₹ 800 = ₹ 10800
a3 = ₹ 10800 + ₹ 10800 x \(\frac { 8 }{ 100 }\) = ₹ 10800 + ₹ 864 = ₹ 11664
a2 – a1 = ₹ 10800 – ₹ 10000 = ₹ 800
a3 – a2 = ₹ 11664 – ₹ 10800 = ₹ 864
a3 – a2 ≠ a2 – a1
Thus, it is not an AP.

Question 2.
Write first four terms of the AP, when the first term a and the common difference d are given as follows:
(i) a = 10, d = 10
(n) a = -2, d = 0
(iii) a = 4, d = -3
(iv) a = -1, d = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
(v) a = -1.25, d = -0.25
Solution:
(i) Given: a = 10, d = 10
a1 = 10,
a2 = 10 + 10 = 20
a3 = 20 + 10 = 30
a4 = 30 + 10 = 40
Thus, the first four terms of the AP are 10, 20, 30, 40.

(ii) Given: a = – 2, d = 0
The first four terms of the AP are -2, -2, -2, -2.

(iii) a1 = 4, d = -3
a2 = a1 + d = 4 – 3 = 1
a3 = a2 + d = 1 – 3 = -2
a4 = a3 + d = -2 – 3 = -5
Thus, the first four terms of the AP are 4, 1, -2, -5.

(iv)
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions Ex 5.1 2

(v) a1 = -1.25, d = -0.25
a2 = a1 + d = -1.25 – 0.25 = -1.50
a3 = a2 + d = -1.50 – 0.25 = -1.75
a4 = a3 + d = -1.75 – 0.25 = -2
Thus, the first four terms of the AP are -1.25, -1.50, -1.75, -2.

Question 3.
For the following APs, write the first term and the common difference:
(i) 3, 1, -1, -3, ……
(ii) -5, -1, 3, 7, ……
(iii) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) , \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 }\) , \(\frac { 9 }{ 3 }\), \(\frac { 13 }{ 3 }\) , ……..
(iv) 0.6, 1.7, 2.8, 3.9, …….
Solution:
(i) a1 = 3, a2 = 1
d = a2 – a1 = 1 – 3 = -2
where, a1 = first term and d = common difference
a1 = 3, d = -2
(ii) a1 = -5, a2 = -1
d = a2 – a1 = -1 – (-5) = -1 + 5 = 4
So, first term a1 = -5 and common difference d = 4
(iii) a1 = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\), a2 = \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 }\)
d = \(\frac { 5 }{ 3 }\) – \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\)
So, first term a1 = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) and common difference d = \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\)
a1= 0.6, a2 = 1.7
d = a2 – a1 = 1.7 – 0.6 = 1.1
So, first term a1 = 0.6 and common difference d = 1.1

Question 4.
Which of the following are APs ? If they form an AP, find the common difference d and write three more terms.
(i) 2, 4, 8, 16, …….
(ii) 2, \(\frac { 5 }{ 2 }\) , 3, \(\frac { 7 }{ 2 }\) , …….
(iii) -1.2, -3.2, -5.2, -7.2, ……
(iv) -10, -6, -2,2, …..
(v) 3, 3 + √2, 3 + 2√2, 3 + 3√2, …..
(vi) 0.2, 0.22, 0.222, 0.2222, ……
(vii) 0, -4, -8, -12, …..
(viii) \(\frac { -1 }{ 2 }\) , \(\frac { -1 }{ 2 }\) , \(\frac { -1 }{ 2 }\) , \(\frac { -1 }{ 2 }\) , …….
(ix) 1, 3, 9, 27, …….
(x) a, 2a, 3a, 4a, …….
(xi) a, a2, a3, a4, …….
(xii) √2, √8, √18, √32, …..
(xiii) √3, √6, √9, √12, …..
(xiv) 12, 32, 52, 72, ……
(xv) 12, 52, 72, 73, ……
Solution:
(i) 2, 4, 8, 16, ……
a2 – a1 = 4 – 2 = 2
a3 – a2 = 8 – 4 = 4
a2 – a1 ≠ a3 – a2
Thus, the given sequence is not an AP.
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions Ex 5.1 3
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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This is a Subjective Question Paper containing 12 questions.
  • This paper contains 4 questions of 2 marks each, 4 questions of 3 marks each and 4 questions of 5 marks each.
  • 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
  • 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
  • 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
  • This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Question 1.
Water water everywhere and not a single drop to drink’. What does the statement indicate about one of the functions of management. (2)
Answer:
The statement indicates the staffing function of management. It aims at recruiting the right person for the right job. Staffing aims at selecting the most suitable candidates among the pool of prospective candidates.

(1) It caters to the human resource requirements of a business by determining the number and types of employees needed to perform various tasks designed in business as per their job profile.

(2) It analyses the existing number of employed personnel to verify whether they are overburdened or under-burdened with work.

(3) It compares within departments to establish excess of workforce for dismissal or deposing or transferring employees elsewhere as overstaffing is undesirable.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 2.
Name and define the process that helps in finding possible candidates for a job or a function. (2)
Answer:
Recruitment refers to the process of finding possible candidates for a job or a function. It has been defined as ‘the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in an organisation.

Question 3.
“A small enterprise cannot afford to install an expensive control system.” Why? (2)
Answer:
A small enterprise cannot afford to install an expensive control system because it is a costly affair as it involves a lot of expenditure, time and effort. It cannot justify the expenses involved. Managers must ensure that the costs of installing and operating a control system should not exceed the benefits derived from it.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 4.
Working Capital facilitates day-to-day operations of the business. Name and explain any two factors. That affect the work capital requirements. (2)
Answer:
Following are the factors affecting capital structure of a company: (Any two)

(1) Nature of Business: The basic nature of a business influences the amount of working capital required. A trading organisation usually needs a smaller amount of working capital compared to a manufacturing organisation.

(2) Scale of Operations: For organisations which operate on a higher scale of operation, the quantum of inventory and debtors required is generally high. Such organisations, therefore, require large amounts of working capital as compared to the organisations which operate on a lower scale.

(3) Business Cycle: Different phases of business cycles affect the requirement of working capital by a firm. In case of a boom, the sales as well as production are likely to be larger and, therefore, a larger amount of working capital is required.

(4) Seasonal Factors: Most businesses have some seasonality in their operations. In peak season, because of higher levels of activity, larger amounts of working capital is required.

(5) Production Cycle: Production cycle is the time span between the receipt of raw material and their conversion into finished goods.

(6) Credit Allowed: Different firms allow different credit terms to their customers. These depend upon the level of competition that a firm faces as well as the credit worthiness of their clientele.

(7) Operating Efficiency: Firms manage their operations with varied degree of efficiency.

(8) Availability of Raw material: Higher the quantity of material to be stored, higher is the amount of working capital required.

(9) Growth Prospects: If the growth potential of a concern is perceived to be higher, it will require a higher amount of working capital.

(10) Level of competition: Higher level of competitiveness may necessitate higher stocks of finished goods to meet urgent orders from customers.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 5.
Explain how supervision helps in optimal utilisation of resources (3)
Answer:
Supervision is the process of guiding the efforts of employees and other resources to accomplish the desired objectives. It means overseeing what is being done by subordinates and giving instructions to ensure optimum utilisation of resources and achievement of work targets.

Supervising is continuously required at all levels of management that involves establishing performance schedules and standards, for work to proceed in a particular manner and a consistent level of performance is maintained.

This ensures that relevant resources are allocated and utilised especially by subordinates in the lower levels who are mainly responsible for working and completing the defined tasks and activities.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 6.
Leadership is required only for less efficient subordinates”. Do you agree? Give any four reasons to support your answer.
OR
Aditi was a regional sales manger in a publication company. Aditi applied for the vacant post of marketing managers in the company as she was extremely ambitious and dedicated all her energies to obtain the post of marketing manager. However, the top management of the company decided to fill this post by selecting a person from outside. This had an adverse effect on Aditi and her performance declined. When the new marketing manager joined, one of his major problems was how to motivate and inspire Aditi to her former level of performance? Suggest any three non-financial incentives that the new marketing manager may use to motivate Aditi. (3)
Answer:
No, I do not agree with this. The reasons for my disagreement are as follows:
(1) Clear vision: Leadership sets a clear vision and communicates them effectively to all subordinates at all levels of management

(2) Effective planning: Leadership entails generating a structured plan of action every day that will effectively meet pertinent goals on a given day.

(3) Inspiration and motivation: Leadership involves demonstrating daily tasks, coaching, providing immediate feedback, recognising accomplishments, etc., that inspires and motivates subordinates/ colleagues at all levels to restore and revive commitment and enthusiasm in an organisation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

(4) Employee relations: Leadership entails an open and engaging relationship between the leader and their team members and develops a sense of ownership and a close alignment between individuals and team objectives.
OR
The non-financial incentives that the new marketing manager may use to motivate Aditi are:

(1) Career advancement opportunity:
A company must provide employees appropriate skill development programmes, and a sound promotion policy to achieve promotions.

(2) Employee recognition programme:
Recognition means acknowledgment with a show of respect and appreciation. Most people have a need for evaluation of their work and due recognition

(3) Employee empowerment:
Empowerment, means giving more autonomy and powers to subordinates in the completion of their work.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 7.
State the development functions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India. (3)
Answer:
The development Functions of Securities and Exchange Board of India are:

  • Training of intermediaries of the securities market.
  • Conducting research and publishing information useful to all market participants.
  • Undertaking measures to develop the capital markets by adapting a flexible approach.

Question 8.
“Controlling is an indispensable function of management. Without controlling the best of plans can go awry Do you agree? Explain any two reasons in support of your answer. (3)
Answer:
Yes, I agree that controlling is an indespensable function of management, importance of controlling is: (any two)

(1) Accomplishing organisational goals: The controlling function measures progress towards the organisational goals and brings to light the deviations, if any, and indicates corrective action.

(2) Judging accuracy of standards: A good control system enables management to verify whether the standards set are accurate and objective.

(3) Making efficient use of resources: By exercising control, a manager seeks to reduce wastage and spoilage of resources. Each activity is performed in accordance with predetermined standards and norms.

(4) Improving employee motivation: A good control system ensures that employees know well in advance what they are expected to do and what are the standards of performance on the basis of which they are appraised.

(5) Ensuring order and discipline: Controlling creates an atmosphere of order and discipline in the organisation.

(6) Facilitating coordination in action:
Controlling provides direction to all activities and efforts for achieving organisational goals.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 9.
Xeno Ltd. is a global information technology consulting company with 45,000 employees serving over 600 clients in 23 countries. Its Chief Executive Officer, Mr Neil Suman guided the company through two decades of diversification and growth to emerge as one of the leading Indian companies in the software industry. The company has set standards in ensuring the best training opportunities for its employees. The Project Guidance Program is a 52 day structured training program offered to all recruits of varied backgrounds to be trained on essential behavioural and technical skills that prepares them to work in live customer projects. These recruits are hired from universities and management institutes for technical, professional as well as managerial jobs. It is to help the new employees in settling down quickly into the job by becoming familiar with the people, the surroundings, the job and the business.
(A) Identify the external sources of recruitment used by the company to hire new employees.
(B) Explain the method of training used by the company to train employees selected
by the source of recruitment identified in part (A)
(C) State three ways in which the Project Guidance Program can benefit Xeno Ltd.
OR
Controlling is a systematic process involving series of steps.” Explain (5)
Answer:
(A) Campus Recruitment

(B) Induction Training: It is a type of training given to help the new employee in settling down quickly into the job by becoming familiar with the people, the surroundings, the job and the business.

(C) Ways in which Project Guidance Program can benefit Xeno Ltd.: (Any three)

  • Avoiding wastage of efforts and money as training is systematic learning, better than hit and trial methods.
  • Enhancing employee productivity both in terms of quantity and quality leading to higher profits.
  • Equipping the future manager to take over in an emergency.
  • Reducing employees’ turnover as it increases employee morale and reduces absenteeism.
  • Helping the organisation in obtaining effective response in a fast changing environment.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

OR
The steps involved in the controlling process are as following:

(1) Step 1: Setting performance standards: The first step in the controlling process is setting up performance standards. Standards serve as benchmark towards which an organisation strives to work.

(2) Step 2: Measurement of actual performance: Once performance standards are set, the next step is measurement of actual performance. Performance should be measured in an objective and reliable manner.

(3) Step 3: Comparing actual performance with standards: This step involves comparison of actual performance with the standards. Such comparison will reveal the deviation between actual and desired results.

(4) Step 4: Analysing deviations: Some deviation in performance can be expected in all activities. It is, therefore, important to determine the acceptable range of deviations.

(5) Step 5: Taking corrective action: The final step in controlling process is taking corrective action.No corrective action is required when the deviation are within acceptable limits.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 10.
“Determining the overall cost of capital and the financial risk of the enterprise depends upon various factors”. Explain any five such factors. (5)
Answer:
Overall cost of capital and the financial risk of the enterprise depends upon the following factors:

(1) Cost: The cost of all the sources of finance is different The rate of interest on Debt, fixed rate of dividend to be paid on preference share capital and the expectations of the shareholders on the equity share capital are in the form of costs.

(2) Risk: debt capital is more risky and from the point of view of risk it should not be used. .

(3) Floatation cost: From the point of view off loading cost, retained profit is the most appropriate source. Therefore, its use should be made.

(4) Cash flow position: If the cash flow position of the company is good, the payment of interest on debt and the refund of capital can be easily made. Therefore, in order to take advantage of cheap finance, Debt can be given priority.

(5) Level of fixed operating costs: In business there are two types of cost:

  • Fixed operating cost, e.g. rent of building, payment of salary, insurance premium, etc.
  • Fixed financial costs: e.g. interest on debt, etc.

If the level of fixed operating cost is in excess, it is better to keep the fixed financial cost at the minimum. Therefore, debt capital should not be used. On the contrary, if the level of fixed operating cost is low the use of debt capital is profitable.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

(6) Control Consideration: the ultimate control of the company is that of the equity shareholders, greater the number of equity shareholder, the greater will be the control in the hands of more people. This is not a good situation, therefore from this point of view the equity share capital should be avoided. (any five)

Question 11.
The Return on Investment (ROI) of a company ranges between 10-12% for the past three years. To finance its future fixed capital needs, it has the following options for borrowing debt:
Option ‘A’: Rate of interest 9%
Option ‘B’: Rate of interest 13%
Which source of debt, ‘Option A’ or ‘Option B’, is better?
Give reason in support of your answer. Also state the concept being used in taking the decision. (5)
Answer:
Option ‘A’ is better.

  • This is because in this option, Return on Investment (10-12%) is higher than the Rate of interest (9%).
  • The concept being used in taking the decision is Trading on Equity.
  • Trading on equity refers to the use of fixed cost sources of finance such as preference shares, debentures and long term loans in the capital structure so as to increase the return on equity shares.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Question 12.
Aarushi buys a packet of dry cake from a cake shop without asking for the bill The pack does not bear any information other than the name of shop. After reaching home she finds the cake to be stale.
(A) Identify the consumer right that has been violated.
(B) State any four responsibilities that a consumer must keep in mind while purchasing any good.
OR
A shopkeeper sold you some spices, claiming that those were pure. Later, a laboratory test showed that those were adulterated. What precautions you should have taken before buying the products and what remedies are available to you for the wrong act? (5)
Answer:
(A) Right to be Informed: The consumer has a right to have complete information about the product he intends to buy including its ingredients, date of manufacture, price, quantity, directions for use, etc. It is because of this reason that the legal framework in India requires the manufacturers to provide such information on the package and label of the product.

(B) The responsibilities that a consumer must keep in mind while purchasing any good are: (any four)

  • Buy only standardised goods as they provide quality assurance. Thus, look for ISI mark on electrical goods, FPO mark on food products, Hallmark on jewelry etc.
  • Learn about the risks associated with products and services, follow manufacturer’s instructions and use the products safely.
  • Read labels carefully so as to have information about prices, net weight, manufacturing and expiry dates, etc.
  • Assert yourself to ensure that you get a fair deal.
  • Be honest in your dealings. Choose only from legal goods and services and discourage unscrupulous practices like black-marketing, hoarding etc.
  • Ask for a cash memo on purchase of goods or services. This would serve as a proof of the purchase made.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

OR
While buying a product or service, a consumer should take the following precautions:
(1) Date of manufacture and date of expiry.
(2) Net weight.
(3) Standardization mark.
(4) Maximum retail price.
(5) Directions for using the product, if any Remedies:

  • To remove the defect in goods or deficiency in service.
  • To replace the defective product with a new one, free from any defect
  • To refund the price paid for the product, or the charges paid for the service.
  • To pay a reasonable amount of compensation for any loss or injury suffered by the consumer due to the negligence of the opposite party.
  • To pay punitive damages in appropriate circumstances.
Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

Here we are providing Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/class-8-history-chapter-2-extra-questions/

From Trade to Territory Class 8 Extra Questions History Chapter 2

Question 1.
Who was the last powerful Mughal ruler?
Answer:
Aurangzeb.

Question 2.
How did the Mughal empire become weak?
Answer:
After Aurangzeb’s death, many Mughal governors began establishing their own regional kingdoms. This weakened Mughal empire.

Question 3.
When and where was the East India Company established?
Answer:
The East India Company was established in 1600, in England.

Question 4.
Who gave a Charter to the Company to trade with the East?
Answer:
Queen Elizabeth I.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

Question 5.
What did the Charter mean?
Answer:
The Charter meant that no other trading group in England could compete with the East India Company.

Question 6.
Which western power came first to India?
Answer:
Portuguese.

Question 7.
Who discovered the sea route to India and when?
Answer:
Portuguese explorer Vasco da Gama discovered the sea route to India in 1498.

Question 8.
Where was the Portuguese base in India?
Answer:
In India, the Portuguese base was in Goa.

Question 9.
Through which route the British came to India?
Answer:
The British came to India through the Cape of Good Hope (South of Africa).

Question 10.
Name the two European powers other than British and Portuguese who established trade links with India.
Answer:
Dutch and French.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

Question 11.
What were the major trade items for the European powers?
Answer:
Cotton and silk textiles – pepper, cloves, cardamom, cinnamon, etc.

Question 12.
When and where was the first English factory set up?
Answer:
The first English factory was set up in 1651 on the bank of the river Hugli.

Question 13.
What were the Company’s traders known as?
Answer:
The Company’s traders were known as ‘factors’.

Question 14.
Which Mughal Emperor granted the Company the right to trade duty-free through farman?
Answer:
Aurangzeb, through his Farman, granted the right to the Company to trade duly free.

Question 15.
Name the Nawabs of Bengal who asserted their power and autonomy against the Mughals.
Answer:

  • Murshid Quli Khan
  • Alivardi Khan
  • Sirajuddaulah.

Question 16.
Who were the two sides in the Battle of Plassey?
Answer:
The two sides in the Battle of Plassey were the Nawab of Bengal and the East India Company.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

Question 17.
Which Nawab of Bengal was defeated in the Battle of Plassey?
Answer:
Sirajuddaulah.

Question 18.
Who led the Company in the Battle of Plassey?
Answer:
Robert Clive.

Question 19.
Why did the Battle of Plassey become famous?
Answer:
The Battle of Plassey became famous because it was the first major victory, the Company won in India.

Question 20.
Name the Commander who decided Siraj Abdallah in the Battle of Plassey.
Answer:
Mir Jafar.

Question 21.
Why was Mir Jafar deposed by the Company? Who was made the new Nawab?
Answer:
Mir Jafar was deposed by the Company because he was unwilling to do as per the Company’s directions. Mir Qasim was made the new Nawab.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

Question 22.
Which Nawab was defeated in the Battle of Buxar?
Answer:
Mir Qasim.

Question 23.
When was the Battle of Buxar fought?
Answer:
In 1764.

Question 24.
Who made Company the Diwan of the provinces of Bengal and when?
Answer:
The Mughal Emperor, in 1765.

Question 25.
What did Diwani to the Company mean?
Answer:
Diwani allowed the Company to use the vast revenue resources of Bengal.

Question 26.
Why was Robert Clive cross-examined by the British Parliament?
Answer:
Robert Clive was cross-examined by the British Parliament on the charges of corruption and amassing huge wealth in India during his service period.

Question 27.
What was the role of Residents appointed by the Company in the Indian states?
Answer:
Through the Residents, the Company tried to interfere in the internal affairs of Indian states.

Question 28.
Name any two Indian states which fell victim to the subsidiary alliance.
Answer:
Awadh and Hyderabad.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

Question 29.
Who was Hyder Ali?
Answer:
Hyder Ali was the ruler of the state of Mysore.

Question 30.
Which foreign power helped Tipu modernise his army?
Answer:
The French helped Tipu modernise his army.

Question 31.
How many wars were fought between the state of Mysore and the British?
Answer:
Four.

Question 32.
In which battle was Tipu Sultan killed?
Answer:
Tipu Sultan was killed in the Battle of Seringapatam.

Question 33.
In which battle the Marathas were defeated by the Company?
Answer:
The Marathas were defeated in the Third Battle of Panipat in 1761.

Question 34.
Name the Maratha dynasties.
Answer:

  • Sindhia,
  • Holkar,
  • Gaikwad,
  • Bhonsle.

Question 35.
Name two famous Maratha statesmen of the late eighteenth century.
Answer:
Mahadji Sindhia and Nana Phadnis.

Question 36.
Name the Governor-General who initiated the policy of “paramountcy”.
Answer:
Lord Hastings.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

Question 37.
What was the policy of paramountcy?
Answer:
Under this policy, Company claimed that its authority was paramount or supreme, hence its power was greater than that of Indian states.

Question 38.
Who was Chennamma?
Answer:
She was Queen of Kitoor in Karnataka.

Question 39.
Who was Rayanna?
Answer:
Rayanna was a poor chowkidar of Sangoli in Kitoor who revolted against the British.

Question 40.
When the Punjab annexed by the Company?
Answer:
In 1849.

Question 41.
Name the Governor-General who brought the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie.

Question 42.
Name any four Kingdoms annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:

  1. Satara,
  2. Sambalpur,
  3. Udaipur,
  4. Nagpur,
  5. Jhansi.

Question 43.
How many Presidencies were there in the British India? Name them.
Answer:
There were three Presidencies :

  1. Bengal,
  2. Madras,
  3. Bombay.

Question 44.
Who was the first Governor-General of India?
Answer:
Warren Hastings.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

Question 45.
Who presided over the civil and criminal courts?
Answer:
The District Collector.

Question 46.
When was the Supreme Court established?
Answer:
The Supreme Court was established in 1773 under the provisions of Regulating Act.

Question 47.
Which new technology aided the Company to become a territorial colonial power?
Answer:
New steam technology.

Question 48.
What facilities did the Company get through the Royal Charter?
Answer:
With this Charter :

  • The Company could venture across the oceans.
  • The Company could look for new lands from which it could collect revenues.
  • The Company could buy goods at cheap price and carry them back to Europe to sell at higher prices.
  • The Company had no Competitor from England.

Question 49.
Why did the European Companies conflict with each other?
Answer:

  • They were trade competitors.
  • The only way the trading Companies could flourish was by eliminating rival competitors.
  • The urge to secure markets, therefore, led to fierce battler between the trading Companies.

Question 50.
How did the Farman issued by Aurangzeb cause loss of revenue for Bengal?
Answer:

  • Aurangzeb’s Farman had granted the Company the right to trade without paying duties.
  • But the Company officials who were carrying individual trade also refused to pay duty.
    This caused enormous loss of revenue for Bengal.

Question 51.
Why did Sirajuddaulah capture Kassimbazar factory of the British?
Answer:

  • The Company was meddling in the political affairs of the province.
  • The Company was involved in fortification of its settlement.
  • The Company was not paying revenues properly.

Question 52.
What was the main reason that Sirajuddaulah lost the Battle of Plassey to the British?
Answer:

  • One of the main reasons for the defeat of the Nawab was that the forces led by Mir Zafar, one of the Sirajuddaulah’s commanders, never fought the battle.
  • Clive had managed to secure his support by promising to make him nawab after crushing Sirajuddaulah.

Question 53.
Why were the Company officials called ‘nabobs’ in Britain?
Answer:

  • The officials who managed to return with wealth led flashy lives in Britain and they flaunted their riches.
  • They were ridiculed as ‘nabobs’ the anglicised version of the Indian word nawab.

Question 54.
Why did the British want to capture Mysore?
Answer:
Following were the reasons :

  • Mysore controlled the profitable trade of the Malabar coast where the Company purchased pepper and cardamom.
  • Tipu stopped the export of sandalwood, pepper and cardamom through the ports of his kingdom.
  • He disallowed the local merchants from trading with the Company.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

Question 55.
Explain the resistance shown by the state of Kitoor against the British annexation.
Answer:

  • When the British tried to annex Kitoor, Rani Chennamma took arms and led an armed struggle against the British. But she was captured and died in prison.
  • Later a poor chowkidar Rayanna carried the resistance. He captured many British camps and destroyed them.

Question 56.
What was Doctrine of Lapse? On what pretext did the Company annex Awadh?
Answer:

  • According to this doctrine, if an Indian ruler dies without a male heir, his kingdom would ‘lapse’, i.e., his kingdom would become the part of the Company.
  • The Company annexed Awadh under the pretext that it was freeing the people from the misgovernment of the Nawab.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

Question 57.
What did the British do to secure their control over the northwest?
Answer:

  1. To secure their control over the northwest, the Company fought wars with Afghanistan.
  2. Between 1838 and 1842, the Company fought wars with Afghanistan and established its rule there indirectly.
  3. It also annexed Sindh in 1843.

Question 58.
What was the Doctrine of Lapse?
Answer:
According to this doctrine, if an Indian ruler dies without a male heir, his kingdom would ‘lapse’ i.e. his kingdom would become the part of the Company.

Question 59.
Discuss the reason that led to fierce battles between the European trading companies in India.
Answer:

  • The European Companies were interested in buying the same things.
  • The fine qualities of Indian silk and cotton had a big market in Europe. Pepper, cloves, cardamom and cinnamon too were in great demand.
  • Competition amongst the European companies increased the cost of these goods that reduced the profit margin.

The only way to retain profit was to eliminate the rivals. Thus, the urge to secure market led to fierce battles between European trading companies in India.

Question 60.
How did the East India Company benefit from the Diwani granted by the Mughal Emperor?
Answer:

  • The Diwani allowed the Company to use the vast revenue resources of Bengal.
  • The Company had no British goods to sell in India. So, it had to import gold and
    silver from Britain for purchasing Indian goods. Now, the revenue obtained through Diwani could be used to purchase goods.
  • Further, the revenue could be used to maintain Company troops and meet the cost of building the Company fort and offices at Calcutta.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

Question 61.
Discuss the Anglo-Maratha wars?
Answer:

  • The first Anglo-Maratha war ended in 1782 with the Sabai treaty without any result.
  • The second war (1803-05) resulted in the British gaining Orissa and the territories north of the Yamuna river including Agra and Delhi.
  • The third Anglo-Maratha war (1817-19) ended the Maratha might. The Peshwa was sent to Bithur with a pension.

Question 62.
Why did the British want to secure its northwest frontier? What did it do?
Answer:

  • The British had developed a fear that Russia might expand across Asia and enter India from the northwest.
  • This was because, the Company focused on northwest region and fought wars with Afghanistan, Sindh and Punjab.
  • The Company finally annexed Sindh. It established an indirect control over Afghanistan and in 1849, annexed Punjab.

Question 63.
Under the new British Administrative setup, the Office of Collector became prominent. Discuss.
Answer:

  • The Collector was the administrative head of the new administrative unit, i.e., district.
  • His main job was to collect revenue and taxes and maintain law and order.
  • In furnishing its duty, Collector took help of judges, police officers and darogas.
  • His office – the Collectorate – became the new centre of power and patronage that steadily replaced previous holders of authority.

Question 64.
Write a note on improvements made by Hastings in Indian Judiciary system.
Answer:

  • Each district had two courts – a criminal court and a civil court.
  • Maulvis and Pandits interpreted Indian laws before the European district Collectors who presided over Civil Courts. The Criminal Court was brought under the supervision of the Collector.
  • He got the Hindu and Muslim laws translated and codified.
  • A new Supreme Court was established at Calcutta under the Regulating Act.
  • The Court of Appeal – the Sadar Nizamat Adalat was also set up at Calcutta.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Tick the incorrect statement in the following.
(a) After the death of Aurangzeb, powerful regional kingdoms emerged in various parts of India.
(b) In spite of powerful regional kingdoms, Delhi continued to function as an effective centre in the 18th century.
(c) The British originally came to India as a small trading company.
(d) After Aurangzeb, there was no powerful Mughal ruler.
Answer:
(b) In spite of powerful regional kingdoms, Delhi continued to function as an effective centre in the 18th century.

2. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(а) The East India Company came into being in 1600 when Queen Victoria (the ruler of England) granted it the sole right to trade with the East.
(b) The first English factory was set up on the banks of the river Hugli in 1651.
(c) The village of Kalikata grew into the city of Calcutta or Kolkata as it is known today.
(d) Aurangzeb issued a farman to the East India Company granting it the right to trade duty free.
Answer:
(а) The East India Company came into being in 1600 when Queen Victoria (the ruler of England) granted it the sole right to trade with the East.

3. Murshid Quli Khan was the Nawab of:
(a) Carnatic
(b) Bihar
(c) Bengal
(d) Awadh
Answer:
(c) Bengal.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

4. The famous Battle of Plassey was fought between Robert Clive and Sirajuddaulah in-
(a) 1857
(b) 1764
(c) 1657
(d) 1757
Answer:
(d) 1757.

5. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The Battle of Plassey was the first major victoiy, the Company won in India.
(b) After Sirajuddaulah’s death, Mir Qasim was made the Nawab of Bengal by the Company.
(c) Tipu Sultan was died defending his capital Seringapatam in 1799.
(d) Lord Dalhousie devised a policy that came to be known as the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
(b) After Sirajuddaulah’s death, Mir Qasim was made the Nawab of Bengal by the Company.

6. When did the Battle of Buxar take place?
(a) 1761
(b) 1764
(c) 1757
(d) 1760
Answer:
(b) 1764

7. Which ruler is known as Tiger of Mysore?
(a) Tipu Sultan
(b) Haider Ali
(c) Bahadur Shah Jafar
(d) Sirajuddaula
Answer:
(a) Tipu Sultan

Glossary:

→ Mercantile – A business enterprise that makes profit primarily by excluding competition in trade, buying goods cheap and selling them at higher prices.

→ Farman-A royal edict, a royal order.

→ Puppet – Literally, a toy that you can move with strings. The term is used disapprovingly to refer to a person who is controlled by someone else.

→ Injunction – Instruction.

→ Subservience – Submissiveness.

→ Confederacy – Alliance.

→ Qazi – A Judge.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers From Trade to Territory

→ Mufti – A jurist of the Muslim community responsible for expounding the law that the qazi would administer.

→ Impeachment -A trial by the House of Lords in England for charges of misconduct brought against a person in the House of Commons.

→ Dharmashastras – Sanskrit texts prescribing social rules and codes of behaviour composed from C.500 BCE onwards.

→ Sowar – Men on horses.

→ Musket – A heavy gun used by infantry soldiers.

→ Matchlock – An early type of gun in which the powder was ignited by a match.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science