Raju

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Constitutional Design Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-social-science/

Online Education for Constitutional Design Class 9 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 3

Question 1.
Mention the number of states in the Union of India.
Answer:
Twenty eight (2006).

Question 2.
Mention the number of union territories in India.
Answer:
Seven (2006).

Question 3.
Give the dafe when the Constitution of India was Enforced.
Answer:
January 26, 1950, also called the Republic Day.

Question 4.
Who was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly ?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 5.
Name the chairman of the drafting committee who drafted the constitution.
Answer:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.

Question 6.
Name the three states which Originated in 2001..
Answer:

1. Chattisgarh,
2. Uttranchal,
3. Jharkhand.

Question 7.
What is meant by the union territory?
Answer:
Union territory is the region where the government is under the direct control of the Centre.

Question 8.
For how many days did the Constituent Assembly meet?
Answer:
114 days.

Question 9.
What time was taken in the making of the constitution?
Answer:
2 years 11 months and 18 days.

Question 10.
Why tire Constitution is called a living document?
Answer:
The Constitution is called a living document because it has the scope of continuous development according to the needs, aspirations and the expectations of the people.

Question 11.
Name the countries from where the Constitution had incorporated some of the salient features.
Answer:

• England,
• Ireland,
• France.
• U.S.A
• Australia.

Question 12.
Who set out the underlying philosophy of the Constitution?
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 13.
What is highlighted by the Preamble?
Answer:
The Preamble highlights the fundamental and noblest values and guiding principles on which the Indian Constitution is based.

Question 14.
How many items are there in the Concurrent List ?
Answer:
47.

Question 15.
How many items are there in the State List?
Answer:
66.

Question 16.
Which one of the three lists has Tnaximum of the items?
Answer:
The Union List.

Question 17.
How many subjects are there in the Union List ?
Answer:
97.

Question 18.
Which kind of citizenship has been provided in India?
Answer:
Single citizenship.

Question 19.
What are the provisions made by the, Indian Constitution to cope with a situation which is not normal?
Answer:
Emergency provisions.

Question 20.
By whom the residuary powers are enjoyed?
Answer:
By the Central Government.

Question 21.
In which of the lists the subjects like criminal and civil procedure are included?
Answer:
In the Concurrent List.

Question 22.
Name some of the subjects included in the Union List.
Answer:

• Banking,
• Telegraph,
• Defence,
• Foreign affairs,
• Atomic Energy etc.

Question 23.
Name some of the subjects included in the State List.
Answer:

• Police,
• Local government,
• Agriculture,
• Trade and commerce etc.

Question 24.
At the time of emergency which one of the governments has been more powers?
Answer:
The Central Government.

Question 25.
How were the number of seats allocated to the states?
Answer:
Each of the states was allocated the number of seats in such a manner that the ratio between the number of seats and the population remain practical.

Question 26.
What is Constitution?
Answer:
Constitution is a set of rules according to which the government of a country runs. The constitution also defines the composition and powers of the three organs of the government- the Executive, the Legislative and the Judiciary.

The constitution also explains the relations between the government are the citizens. The constitution defines the powers of the government so clearly that in order to make sure the government does not misuse its powers. The constitution protects the right of the citizens. In fact, every independent country prepares a constitution of its own as it signifies independence.

Question 27.
Explain in your own words the difference you find between the political maps of India, in 1947 and in 2002.
Answer:
The political map of India in 1947:
In 1947, when India got its freedom; it had provinces and several princely states. Many of its parts were still: under the foreign possession like Pondicherry, Yanam, Mahe, and Chandernagore were under the French rule while Goa, Daman and Diu were under the rule of Portugal, This also shows nearly 562 princely states independence. Hie political map of India in 2002: This map shows the present political condition of India. having 28 states and 7 union territories. In the present map of India, there is no foreign territory.

Question 28.
Why the Constituent Assembly is called the miniature India?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly is called the miniature India because the members of the Constituent Assembly were from all of the parts and communities of the country. In fact, the Constituent Assembly did not only have the members from different communities and regions but also had the members representing different political parties. Hence, it was a miniature India in a very true sense.

Question 29.
Give a brief description of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly had the great leaders like Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Ballabhbhai Patel, Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad, Dr.Shyama Prasad Mukerji, Sardar Baldev Singh. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

In fact, the Constituent Assembly had its members from different regions and sections of India. More than 30 members were from scheduled castes. The Anglo Indian community was being represented by Frank Anthony while H. P. Modi was representing the Parsi community.

Question 30.
Make a table of the languages which have been included in the Constitution.
Answer:
Assemse Bengali Gujarati’ Hindi Dogri Kannada Kashmiri Konkani Malayalam
Manipuri Marathi Nepali Orissa Santhali
Punjabi Sanskrit Sindhi Tamil Maithali
Telugu Urdu Bodo

Question 31.
Name the states which were carved out of in view of the popular demand much after 1956.
Answer:
In 1956 the states of India were reorganized for the first. But several states were carved out in view of the popular demands.

These states are

• Gujarat,
• Nagaland,
• Haryana,
• Mizoram,
• Himachal Pradesh,
• Manipur,
• Meghalaya,
• Arunachal Pradesh,
• Tripura,
• Goa,
• Chhattisgarh,
• Jharkhand,
• Uttaranchal.

Question 32.
How many members were there in the Indian constituent Assembly in December 1947?
Answer:
In December 1947 the Constituent Assembly of India had 299 members. 229 members among them were from the Indian states while 70 members were from the princely states.

Question 33.
Why has Hindi been adopted as the official language of the Union government?
Answer:
After the independence, the need of adopting an Indian language to replace English was felt.

The Constituent Assembly choose Hindi to replace English because of the following reasons:

• Of all the Ind.ian languages, Hindi is spoken by a large number of the people. ‘
• Hindi is understood by a large number of people.
• Even the persons whose mother tongue is not Hindi can understand Hindi.

“Because of these plus points, Hindi has been adopted as the official language of the Union government.
However, an assurance was also given that so long as it is found necessary the non- Hindi speaking states have been given the liberty to use English along with Hindi.

Question 34.
What was the need of reorganization of the states after the independence?
Answer:
Soon after the independence, most of the princely states and the states were joined together so that the unity and the integration of the country would be maintained. But after some time the need was felt to reorganise the states because of the expectations and aspirations of the people and also because of their demands.

Question 35.
Why is Preamble very important?
Answer:
The Preamble contains the ideals and basic principles of the Indian constitution. The Preamble is riot a part of the constitution. The Preamble is neither enforceable in a court of law. No one has the right to go to the court and say that the. Preamble has not been enforced by the government.

Yet the Preamble is, very important as it serves as the guiding light of the constitution. The Preamble of the Indian constitution makes it absolutely clear that the Indian constitution stands for justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.

Question 36.
What do you know about the Universal Adult Franchise? Why the constitution of India has adopted it?
Answer:
The term Universal Adult Franchise is meant by the voting right of the citizen. In India, every citizen who has completed the age of 18 years is able to participate in the election procedure.

This right has been extended to all the citizens irrespective of. their caste, creed, colour, religion, sex or status. Our Constitution has adopted this system to make India a real democracy. In a very true sense, this feature has made India the largest democracy in the world.

Question 37.
Write down the four ideals on what the Preamble of the of India emphasises. *
Answer:
The preamble of our constitution emphasises on the following four elements-

1. Justice-According to the Preamble every citizen must get justice in every sector including social, economic and political sectors.
2. Liberty-Each Indian must have the liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
3. Equality-The Preamble ensures equality of status and opportunity for all the citizens.
4. Fraternity-It assures the dignity of the individuals and the unity and integrity of the Nation.

Question 38.
Explain clearly the meaning given to secularism.
Answer:
Secularism in India acquired a meaning different from the way it is. understood in the West. It means respect for all religious beliefs and practices, regardless of who and what number follow a particular religion. It also means that individual has complete freedom of faith and worship.

Question 39.
Explain as to how the European countries and India got their democratic rights.
Answer:
In Europe, people won democratic rights through long struggles against, the privileges of aristocrats and powers of monarchs. Sometimes, these struggles were highly violent. For example, during the French Revolution, hundreds of supporters of monarchy were killed.

In India, the struggle for democracy was carried on against the British colonial rule. It retrained by and large peaceful. With the adoption of the Constitution, all basic democratic political rights along with universal adult suffrage were introduced in India at one stroke.

Question 40.
What is the basic structure of the T Constitution?
Answer:
The Constitution of India does not describe as what is the basic structure of the Constitution. But the Supreme Court has done it.

The basic structure of the constitution is as follows:
“every provision of the Constitution is essential; otherwise it would not have been put in the Constitution. This is true. But this does not place every provision of the Constitution in the same position. The true position is that every provision of the Constitution can be amended provided the basic foundation and structure of the Constitution remains the same.

The basic structure may be said to consist of the following features:

• Supremacy of the Constitution;
• Republican and Democratic form of Government;
• Secular character of the Constitution;
• Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary;
• Federal character of the Constitution.”

“The above structure is built on the basic foundation, i.e., the dignity and freedom of the individual. This is of supreme importance. This cannot, by any form of amendment, be destroyed,” The Supreme Court said this in its judgement on the Kesavananda Bharati case.

Question 41.
Explain terms such as “sovereign’, ‘democratic’, and republic.
Answer:
The Constitution proclaimed India to be a sovereign democratic republic. This three words-sovereign, democratic and republic are significant. Sovereignty means supreme power. It means the right of people to take decisions on internal matters as well as policies determining our relations with other countries. As the authority of the government rests upon the support of the people, people are sovereign. Democracy means people enjoy equal political rights.

They include right to form associations, right to criticise and oppose policies of government, right to contest elections and hold public offices. People have a right to elect a government through periodical, free and fair elections. Government is responsible to people and exercises powers only as defined in the Constitution.

No government can continue in power without the support of majority of people’s representatives in the legislature. People can change the government in elections. Republic means that the head of the State (President) is an elected person. He/ she wields power for a fixed term. India is a Union of States.

Question 42.
Compare the grant of the democratic rights as it came in the European countries and in India.
Answer:
European countries had developed industrially before they became full-fledged democracies. But in India democracy came before any such substantial industrial development. At the time of its Independence, India was predominantly an agrarian economy. Illiteracy was widespread. Poverty was rampant. This was an unusual experiment in establishing democracy in conditions of mass poverty. European countries had become strong nations by the time they became democratic.

The situation was different in. our country. The task of building the nation in real sense started after we became a democracy. In Europe and America expansion of democracy took place by limiting the powers of government. People there believed that freedom is possible if there is no unnecessary interference of government in private affairs of the individual.

So they fought for freedoms against absolutist governments. But in India, government was assigned a larger role from the beginning: We wanted the state to bring about all-around development. So the expansion of democracy in India has been bound with the expansion of government.

Thus in the history of the Western nations, expansion of democracy was associated with industrialisation, emergence of strong nations, militant struggles for voting rights and limiting the governmental powers. Those countries went through these stages one after the other, over a period of nearly 200 years. But in India democracy had to address these issues all at the same time.

The country has to industrially develop, build a nation and national government, transform social relations, and meet the basic needs of the people. The Indian state had to simultaneously pursue these, goals in a democratic framework.

Question 43.
Write a brief note on the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
The Constitution prescribed certain guidelines for governments in making policies. These are called “Directive Policies of State Policy”. Their objective is to secure a social order, which promotes the welfare of the people. For example, the State should take steps for securing an adequate means of livelihood to all citizens.

The ownership and control of the material resources of the nation are to be distributed in such a way as to secure the common good. The economic system of the county is to be operated in a maimer so as to prevent concentration of wealth.

Men and women shall receive equal pay for equal work. Free and compulsory education, shall be provided to all children. Child labour shall be eliminated. The principles of socialism and. Gandhian ideals are incorporated in these Directive Principles.

Question 44.
Who proposed the Objectives Resolution? For what did it stand?
Answer:
The Objectives Resolution was proposed by Pt Jawaharlal Nehru on 13th December 1946. It was passed on 22 January 1947. Objective Resolution was in fact a document which contained the main objectives of the framing of the new constitution for India.

The Objectives Resolution stood for the. following objectives-

• The Objectives Resolution dealt with fundamentals which were commonly held and had been accepted by the people.
• The Resolution states that it is our firm and solemn resolve to have a sovereign republic.
• It stands for a free India that can be nothing but a republic.
• It declared that the Union would be an “independent Sovereign Republic” and it would be comprised of the autonomic units of the British and the princely states with residuary powers.
• It ensures that the ideas of social, political and economic democracy would be guaranteed to all the sections of the people.
• It also ensures that an adequate safeguard would be provided for minorities and the backward communities and the areas.
• It also guaranteed that the people of India would be given the freedom of thought, vocation, association, expression, belief, faith, worship and in law and morality.

Objective Type Questions

1. Fill up the following blanks with suitable words-

(i) The Constitution of our country has taken ……………………… years ……………………… months……………………… days in its making.
Answer:
2, 11,18.

(ii) In the Constituent Assembly, the Parsi community was being represented by ……………………… .
Answer:
H. P. Modi

(iii) In the Constituent Assembly, the total number of the members from the states of the British India were ……………………… .
Answer:
296

(iv) The Objective Resolution was proposed by ……………………… .
Answer:
Pt. Jawhar Lai Nehru.

2. Put (✓) before the correct sentences and (✗) before incorrect ones.

(i) The Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by the people.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) Shyama Prasad Mukerjee was not among the leaders who guided the discussion in the constituent Assembly.
Answer:
(✗)

(iii) Constitution is a fundamental legal document.
Answer:
(✓)

(iv) British India was an independent, Sovereign and Republic.
Answer:
(✗)

(v) The underlying philosophy of the constitution was set out by Jawaharlal Nehru in his Objective Resolution.
Answer:
(✓)

(vi) Yanam was possessed by France.
Answer:
(✓)

(vii) The Drafting committee was known as the miniature of India.
Answer:
(✗)

3. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given here:

(i) The following was the President of the Constituent Assembly:
(a) Dr. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Gandhiji
(d) Nehru
Answer:
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(ii) The following was the chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee:
(a) Dr. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajdendra Prasad
(c) Gandhiji
(d) Nehru
Answer:
(a) Dr. Ambedkar.

(iii) India had enacted its Constitution on:
(a) 26th January 1930
(b) 26th November 1949
(c) 15th August 1947
(d) 26th January 1950.
Answer:
(d) 26th January 1950.

(iv) India’s Constitution is:
(a) Flexible
(b) Rigid
(c) Partly flexible, partly rigid
(d) Neither flexible nor rigid.
Answer:
(c) Partly flexible, partly rigid

(v) India’s federating units are:
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 28
Answer:
(d) 28.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers What Books and Burials Tell Us with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-6-social-science/

Online Education for What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 Extra Questions History Chapter 5

Class 6 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Name the 4 Vedas.
Answer:
The four Vedas are

1. Rigveda
2. Samaveda
3. Yajurveda
4. Atharveda.

Ncert Class 6 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 2.
Name the oldest Veda when was it composed?
Answer:
The oldest Veda is the Rigveda composed about 3500 years ago.

Class 6 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 3.
What does the Rigveda contain?
Answer:
Rigveda includes more than a thousand hymns called ‘sukta’ or well said. These hymns are in praise of various gods and goddesses.

Class 6 History Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Name the three gods mentioned in the Rigveda.
Answer:
The three gods mentioned in the Rigveda and were especially important were

1. Agni, the god of fire
2. Indra, the warrior god
3. Soma, a plant from which a special drink was prepared.

MCQ Questions For Class 6 History Chapter 5 Question 5.
Who composed and taught the hymns of the Rigveda? In what language is it written?
Answer:
The hymns were composed by the sages (rishis). Priest taught students to recite and memorise with great care. Most of the hymns were composed, taught and learnt by men. Few were composed by women. The Rigveda is in old or Vedic Sanskrit.

Chapter 5 History Class 6 Extra Questions Question 6.
Name the two types of burials. Write about them.
Answer:
The two types of burials are

1. some megaliths can be seen on the surface, they are either surrounded by circle of stones or a single big megalith.
2. the other type of burial is in the cist, which are burials underground. There were portholes to which were used as an entrance.

History Chapter 5 Class 6 Extra Questions Question 7.
Some of the hymns in the Rigveda are in the form of dialogues. Write about one such hymn.
Answer:
Some of the hymns in the Rigveda are in the form of dialogues. One such hymn is a part of the dialogue between a sage named Vishvamitra and two rulers (Beas and Sutlej) which were worshipped as goddesses. Vishwamitra praises the might flow of the rivers as they come down from the mountains and both the rivers wish to unite.

He asks the rivers to give safe passage to the travellers, who have come with their chariots and carts. The rivers reply that their paths have been chalked out by gods and they cannot be stopped. However, they promise to let the travellers pass.

Ch 5 History Class 6 Extra Questions Question 8.
(a) How can you say that the sage lived in a society where horses and cows were valued animals?
Answer:
The sage lived in a society where animals were valued because he compares the rivers with horses and cows.

(b) Do you think chariots were also important? Give reasons for your answers.
Answer:
The sage requests the rivers to give a safe passage to the singer who has come from a distance with his chariots and carts. Chariots were important means of transport.

(c) Name the other rivers which are mentioned in the Rigveda.
Answer:
The other rivers mentioned in the Rigveda are the Indus and its tributaries and the Sarasvati is also mentioned in the hymns. The Ganga and the Yamuna are named only once.

(d) List five rivers that are not mentioned in the Rigveda.
Answer:
The rivers which are not mentioned in the Rigveda are

1. Mahanadi
2. Godavari
3. Krishna
4. Kaveri and the
5. Brahmputra.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following is the oldest Veda?
(a) The Rigveda
(b) The Samaveda
(c) The Yajurveda
(d) The Atharvaveda
Answer:
(a) The Rigveda.

2. When was the Rigveda. composed?
(a) About 2,000 years ago
(b) About 2,500 years ago
(c) About 3,500 years ago
(d) About 7,000 years ago
Answer:
(c) About 3,500 years ago.

3. Which of the following Gods are mentioned in Rigveda?
(a) Agni
(b) Indra
(c) Soma
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

4. Who of the following composed the hymns of the Rigmla?:-.
(a) The kings
(b) The doctors
(c) The-sages
(d) The cooks.
Answer:
(c) The-sages

5. Which one of the following languages was used in writing the Vedas?
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Vedic Sanskrit
(d) Old-Tamil.
Answer:
(c) Vedic Sanskrit

6. Which one of the following suggests that some of the hymns in the Rigveda are in the form of dialogues?
(a) A dialogue between Vishwamitra and two rivers
(b) A dialogue between the king and a tree
(c) A dialogue between a sage and the Himalaya
(d) A dialogue between the king and the sea.
Answer:
(a) A dialogue between Vishwamitra and two rivers

7. Where and when was the manuscript of the Rigveda, on birch bark found?
(a) About 50 years ago in Gujarat
(b) About 500 years ago in Rajasthan
(c) About 150 years ago in Kashmir
(d) About 2,000 years ago in Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(c) About 150 years ago in Kashmir

8. Which of the following rivers are mentioned in the Rigveda?
(a) The Beas
(b) The Satluj
(c) The Ganga
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Growing Up as Boys and Girls was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Online Education for Growing Up as Boys and Girls Class 7 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 4

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Where are the Samoan Islands situated?
Answer:
The Samoan Islands are situated in the southern Pacific Ocean.

Chapter 3 Civics Class 7 Extra Questions Question 2.
What are the main work of the Samoan people?
Answer:
The main work of the Samoan people are fishing and planting coconuts.

Ncert Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 3.
Write a brief note on the life of Samoan children.
Answer:

• The Samoan children did not go to school.
• They learnt to take care of children and do housework.
• They learnt to undertake fishing.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 4.
What has the Government done for girls to attend school, and the women to work outside the home?
Answer:
The Government has set up ‘Anganwadi or childcare centre by passing laws to provide creche facilities.

• Creche is a day nursery for children when their parents are at work.
• Thus, the provision of creches helps women to work outside the home. It also provides opportunities to more girls to attend school.

Class 7 Civics Ch 3 Extra Questions Question 5.
What did Melani say about her experience of working in Delhi?
Answer:

• Melani said that her Memsahib always shouted to get work done.
• I started my work at 5 o’clock in the kitchen.
• I was given a cup of tea and two dry rotis and never could get third roti in the breakfast.
• I took an extra roti secretly in the evening.
• I could not wear chappals in the house. As a result, my feet would swell up in the winter.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Where is the Samoan island located?
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Atlantic Ocean
(c) Southern part of the Pacific Ocean
(d) Caribbean sea.
Answer:
(c) Southern part of the Pacific Ocean.

2. Which one of the following is an important activity of the Samoan island?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Fishing
(c) Cattle rearing
(d) Animal grazing.
Answer:
(b) Fishing.

3. What was the main activity of the children of Samoan island?
(a) They looked after their younger siblings.
(b) They went to school.
(c) They went for fishing.
(d) They worked as domestic workers.
Answer:
(a) They looked after their younger siblings.

4. Which one of the following is different from the other three with reference to the responsibilities of women?
(a) Looking after the family
(b) Only office work
(c) Cleaning home
(d) Washing clothes.
Answer:
(b) Only office work.

5. All the household tasks actually require;
(a) mental work
(b) physical work
(c) continuous work
(d) more power.
Answer:
(b) physical work.

6. Discrimination between men and women is a part of a large system of;
(a) inequality
(b) religion
(c) work experience
(d) caste.
Answer:
(a) inequality.

7. Which one of the following is an important principle of our Constitution?
(a) Religion
(b) Caste
(c) Inequality
(d) Education.
Answer:
(c) Inequality.

8. Which one of the following is set up by the government in the several villages of India?
(a) Pubic hospitals
(b) Private hospitals
(c) Gyms
(d) Anganwadis/child-care centres.
Answer:
(d) Anganwadis/child-care centres.

9. Which one of the following is mandatory for organisations?
(a) 20 woman employees to provide creche facilities
(b) 30 woman employees to provide creche facilities
(c), 40 woman employees, to provide child care
(d), 50 woman employees, to provide child care
Answer:
(b) 30 woman employees to provide creche facilities.

Important Terms:

Identity: Identity is a sense of self-awareness of who one is. Typically, a person can have several identities. For example, a person can be a girl, sister and a musician.

Double-burden: Literally means a double load. This term is commonly used to describe the women’s work situations. It has emerged from a recognition that women typically labour both inside the home (housework) and outside.

Care-giving: Caregiving refers to a range of tasks related to looking after and nurturing. Besides physical tasks, they also involve a strong emotional aspect

De-valued: When someone is not given due recognition for a task or job they have done, they can feel de-valued. For example, if a boy has put in a lot of effort into making a special birthday gift for his friend and this friend does not say anything about this, then the boy may feel de-valued.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

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Online Education for Weavers, Iron Smelters and Factory Owners Class 8 Extra Questions History Chapter 7

Question 1.
What was the cultural mission of the British in India?
Answer:
They wanted to civilise the natives by changing their customs and values.

Question 2.
Who set up Asiatic Society of Bengal?
Or
Who started a journal called Asiatic Researchers?
Answer:

• William Jones;
• Henry Thomas Colebrooke; and
• Nathaniel Halhed.

Question 3.
When was English Education Act introduced?
Answer:
In 1835.

Question 4.
What were seen as “temples of darkness” after the English Education Act of 1835?
Answer:
Oriental institutions like the Calcutta Madrasa and Benaras Sanskrit College.

Question 5.
Where was the missionaries set up a mission?
Answer:
The missionaries set up a mission at Serampore in an area under the control of the Danish East India Company.

Question 6.
Who reported the East India Company on the progress of education in Vernacular schools in 1830s?
Answer:
William Adam, a Scottish missionary.

Question 7.
Who was William Jones?
Answer:
William Jones was a junior judge at the Supreme Court that the company had set up. In addition to being an expert in law, he was a linguist.

Question 8.
What do you mean by “Wood’s Despatch”?
Answer:
In 1854, the Court of Directors of the East India Company in London sent an educational despatch to the Governor-General in India. Since the Despatch was issued by Charles Wood, it was called Wood’s Despatch.

Question 9.
Why was the argument for practical education criticised by the Christian missionaries in India in the nineteenth century?
Answer:
The missionaries felt that education should attempt to improve the moral character of the people and morality could be improved only through Christian education.

Question 10.
Why was the East India Company opposed to missionary activities in India until 1813?
Answer:
It feared that missionary activities would provoke reaction amongst the local population and make them suspicious of British presence in India.

Question 11.
Why was the British government reluctant to directly support missionary education after 1857?
Answer:
There was a feeling that any strong attack on local customs, practices, beliefs and religious ideas might enrage native opinion.

Question 12.
What were the motives of the British in India?
Answer:

• The British wanted to control over revenues.
• They wanted territorial conquest.
• As a cultural mission, they wanted to civilise the natives.
• They wanted to change natives’ customs and values.

Question 13.
How, according to the company officials, could the British win a place in the hearts of the natives?
Answer:

• Many company officials argued that the British ought to promote Indian rather than Western Learning Institutions should be set up to encourage the study of ancient Indian texts and teach Sanskrit and Persian.
• Hindus and Muslims ought to be taught what they were already familiar with and what they valued and treasured.

Question 14.
When and why did the British set up a madrasa in Calcutta and Hindu college in Benaras?
Answer:

• A madrasa was set up in Calcutta in 1781 to promote the study of Arabia, Persian and Islamic law.
• Hindu college was established in Benaras in 1791 to encourage the study of ancient Sanskrit texts that would be useful for the administration of the country.

Question 15.
Why did many British officials begin to criticise the Orientalist vision of learning?
Answer:

• They said that knowledge of the East was full of errors and unscientific thought.
• Eastern literature was non-serious and light-hearted. So, they argued that it was wrong on the part of the British to spend so much effort in encouraging the study of Arabic and Sanskrit language and literature.

Question 16.
How, according to Macaulay, could teaching of English be a way of civilising people?
Answer:

• He felt that knowledge of English would allow Indians to read some of the finest literature the world had produced.
• It would make them aware of the developments in western science and philosophy.

Question 17.
How were children taught in pre-British times?
Answer:

• There were small institutions called pathshalas with not more than 20 students each.
• These institutions were set up by wealthy people or the local community. At times they were started by a guru (teacher).

Question 18.
How was the flexible education system in pre-British times suitable for local needs?
Answer:

• Classes were not held during harvest time when rural children often worked in the fields.
• The pathshalas started once again when the crops had been cut and stored. So even children of peasant families could study.

Question 19.
State the main features of Wood’s Despatch in 1854.
Answer:

• It emphasised the practical benefits of a system of European learning as opposed to oriental knowledge.
• It said that European learning would enable Indians to recognise the advantages that flow from the expansion of trade and commerce.
• European ways of life would change their tastes and desires and create a demand for British goods for Indians.
• European learning would improve the moral character of Indians.
• The literature of the East was not only full of grave errors, it could not instil in people a sense of duty and a commitment to work.

Question 20.
What was the impact of Wood’s Despatch on education system of India?
Answer:

• Education departments of the government were set up to extend control over all matters regarding education.
• Steps were taken to establish a system of university education.
• In 1857, in spite of Sepoys Revolt, universities were being established in Calcutta, Madras and Bombay.
• Attempts were also made to bring about changes within the system of school education.

Question 21.
State main features of school education in pre-British times.
Answer:

• There were small institutions, called pathshalas with not more than 20 students each.
• These institutions were set up by wealthy people or the local community. At that times they were started by a guru.
• The system of education were flexible. There was no fixed fee, no printed books, no separate school building, no benches or chairs or blackboards, no annual examinations and no regular timetable.
• Fee depended on the income of parents.
• Teaching was oral and guru decided what to teach.
• The guru interacted separately with groups of children with different levels of leaming.

Question 22.
Explain any five points raised by William Adam in his report about the functioning of ‘Pathshalas in India.
Answer:

• There were small institutions, called pathshalas with not more than 20 students each.
• These institutions were set up by wealthy people or the local community. At that time they were started by a guru.
• The system of education were flexible. There was no fixed fee, no printed book, no separate school building, no benches or chairs or blackboards, no annual examinations and no regular timetable.
• Fee depended on the income of parents.
• Teaching was oral and guru decided what to teach.
• The guru interacted separately with groups of children with different levels of learning.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. What is not true about William Jones? He was.
(а) a German linguist.
(b) appointed a junior judge at the Supreme Court (at Calcutta).
(c) an expert in law.
(d) known to have studied many languages.
Answer:
(а) a German linguist.

2. What is not true in the following?
(a) Orientalists – Those having scholarly knowledge of Asia’s language and culture.
(6) Munshi – One who can read, write and teach Persian.
(c) Madarsa – A Persian word for a place of learning.
(d) Vernacular – A term generally used to refer to a local language or dialect of everyday use.
Answer:
(c) Madarsa – A Persian word for a place of learning.

3. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(а) Together with other Englishmen, William Jones set up the Asiatic Society of Bengal in Calcutta.
(b) The Hindu College was set up in Calcutta in 1791 to encourage the study of ancient Sanskrit text.
(c) TB Macaulay, a critic of the Orientalists, saw India as an uncivilised country that needed to be civilised.
(d) Following Macaulay’s minute, the English Education Act of 1835 was introduced.
Answer:
(b) The Hindu College was set up in Calcutta in 1791 to encourage the study of ancient Sanskrit text.

4. Following the 1854 Wood’s Despatch, several measures excluding one in the following, were introduced by the British in India.
(a) Education departments of government were set up in different institutions.
(b) Steps were taken to establish a system of university education.
(c) In 1857, universities were set up in Calcutta, Madras and Bombay.
(d) Attempts were made to change the system of school education completely.
Answer:
(c) In 1857, universities were set up in Calcutta, Madras and Bombay.

5. What is not true about Rabindranath Tagore in the description given below?
(a) As a child, Tagore hated going to school.
(b) The school appeared like a prison, for he could never do what he felt like doing.
(c) The experience of his school days in Calcutta shaped Tagore’s ideas of education.
(d) He was highly critical of Western Civilisation and its worship of machines and technology.
Answer:
(d) He was highly critical of Western Civilisation and its worship of machines and technology.

Glossary:

→ Linguist – Someone who knows and studies several languages.

→ Madrasa – An Arabic word for a place of learning; any type of school or college.

→ Orientalist – Those with a scholarly knowledge of the language and culture of Asia.

→ Munslsi – A person who can read, write and teach Persian. A term generally used to refer to a local language or dialect as distinct from what is seen as the standard language.

→ English – The language of the imperial masters (Britishers).

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education Class 8 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Ruling the Countryside was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/class-8-history-chapter-3-extra-questions/

Online Education for Ruling the Countryside Class 8 Extra Questions History Chapter 3

Question 1.
When did the Mughal Emperor appoint the East India Company as the Diwani of Bengal?
Answer:
On 12 August 1765.

Question 2.
After the Company got the Diwani, why did artisans begin deserting villages?
Answer:
This was because they were forced to sell their goods to the Company at lower prices.

Question 3.
When was a terrible famine observed in Bengal?
Answer:
In 1770.

Question 4.
When and where was the Permanent Settlement introduced?
Answer:
Permanent Settlement was mainly introduced in the province of Bengal in 1793.

Question 5.
Who introduced Permanent Settlement?
Answer:
Charles Cornwallis.

Question 6.
Who were authorised to collect rent from the peasants under Permanent Settlement?
Answer:
Rajas and taluqdars.

Question 7.
What was the benefit of Permanent Settlement to the Company?
Answer:
It ensured a regular flow of revenue to the Company.

Question 8.
Which revenue system was introduced in the North-Western province of Bengal Presidency?
Answer:
The mahalwari settlement.

Question 9.
Who introduced mahalwari settlement?
Answer:
Holt Mackenzie.

Question 10.
In which area was the ryotwari system introduced?
Answer:
In the Southern India.

Question 11.
Who introduced the ryotwari system?
Answer:
Thomas Munro.

Question 12.
Name few crops and related areas which the British forced people to grow?
Answer:

• Jute – in Bengal
• Tea- in Assam
• Sugarcane – in the United Province
• Wheat – in Punjab
• Cotton – in Maharashtra and Punjab
• Rice – in Madras.

Question 13.
Where was the Kalamkari print created?
Answer:
Kalamkari print was produced by the weavers in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 14.
In which climate do the indigo plants grow?
Answer:
In tropical climate.

Question 15.
Which other plant was used in the place of indigo in Europe?
Answer:
Woad.

Question 16.
In which climate was woad grown?
Answer:
In temperate climate.

Question 17.
Name few areas where woad plants were grown?
Answer:
Northern Italy, Southern France and in parts of Germany and Britain.

Question 18.
Which type of dyes were made from woad plants?
Answer:
Woad plants were used to make blue and yellow dyes.

Question 19.
Why did dyers prefer indigo?
Answer:
Because indigo produced a rich blue colour, whereas the dye from woad was pale and dull.

Question 20.
Where did the French begin cultivating indigo?
Answer:
In St. Domingue in the Caribbean island.

Question 21.
Where was indigo cultivation initiated in India?
Answer:
In Bengal province.

Question 22.
What were the two main systems of indigo cultivation?
Answer:
NIJ and ryoti.

Question 23.
What was the impact of indigo cultivation on the soil?
Answer:
Indigo plants had deep roots and it exhausted the soil. After indigo harvest, the land could not be sown with rice.

Question 24.
When did indigo ryots occur in Bengal?
Answer:
In 1859.

Question 25.
Who supported indigo ryots?
Answer:
Indigo peasants, local zamindars and village headmen.

Question 26.
Why was the Indigo Commission appointed?
Answer:
The Indigo Commission was appointed to enquire into the system of indigo production.

Question 27.
What was the report of Indigo Commission?
Answer:
The Indigo Commission held the planters guilty and criticised them for the coercive methods they used with indigo cultivators.

Question 28.
After indigo revolt in Bengal, to which area was indigo cultivation shifted?
Answer:
Indigo cultivation was shifted to Bihar.

Question 29.
How Diwani of Bengal was seen by the British?
Answer:

• As Diwan, the Company became the chief financial administrator of the territory under its control.
• Now the Company had to think of administering the land and organising its revenue resources.
• It had to ensure that it could buy the products it needed and sell what it wanted.

Question 30.
Name two problems created by the Permanent Settlement.
Answer:

1. Zamindars were now not interested in the improvement of land.
2. The revenue was very high. So many zamindars were unable to pay this revenue. Thus, their zamindaris were sold off.

Question 31.
Why were the zamindars not interested in improving land?
Answer:

• They saw the possibility of earning without trouble and risk of investment.
• They were giving land on rent to tenants, so they did not need to improve it.

Question 32.
Why did Munro choose ryotwari system for South India?
Answer:

• In South India, there was no’ tradition of zamindars.
• The ryots (cultivators) tilled the land for generations. So, Munro decided have contracts directly with the ryots. Hence, the ryotwari system was introduced.

Question 33.
What were the results of the new revenue systems?
Answer:
Peasants were unable to pay revenue, ryots fled the countryside, and villages became deserted in many regions. These all was due to over-optimistic imagination of revenue collection by the officials.

Question 34.
Why did the demand of indigo increase by the end of the eighteenth century?
Answer:

• This was because by this time Britain began to industrialise.
• In Britain, cotton production expanded dramatically.
• This created an enormous new demand for cloth dyes. That was why the demand of indigo increased by the end of the eighteenth century.

Question 35.
What do you mean by NIJ system of indigo cultivation?
Answer:

• In this system, the planters produced indigo on lands that they directly controlled.
• The planters either bought the land or rented it from other zamindars and produced indigo by directly employing hired labourers.

Question 36.
Why were the planters reluctant to expand area under NIJ cultivation till the late nineteenth century?
Answer:

• The large area required for indigo cultivation was not available.
• They attempted to lease in the land near the factory. The eviction of peasants in these fields often led to conflicts.
• The time of rice cultivation matched with that of the indigo. So, labours were not available in plenty.
• Nij cultivation on large scale also required many ploughs and bullocks i.e., huge investment.

Question 37.
Comment on the reports of the Indigo Commission.
Answer:

• The Commission held the planters guilty of oppressive methods used against the cultivators.
• It declared that indigo production was not profitable for ryots.
• It asked the ryots to fulfil their existing contracts but refuse to grow indigo in future.

Question 38.
Give a brief description of the Mahalwari System.
Answer:

• The revenue of all the plots of the village was calculated and added of the mahal.
• The demand of revenue was to be reversed periodically.
• The responsibility of collecting revenue was given to the village headman.

Question 39.
Discuss the mahalwari system introduced in the North-West provinces of the Bengal.
Answer:

• In this system, village was taken as a revenue unit.
• In this system, land was inspected, fields were measured, rights and customs of different groups were noted and then revenue of all the plots of the village was calculated and added so as to estimate the revenue of the mahal.
• The demand of the revenue was to be revised periodically.
• The responsibility of collecting revenue was given to the village headmen.

Question 40.
Discuss how the British people looked indigo cultivation as an opportunity.
Answer:

• With a remarkable growth in indigo trade, commercial agents and officials of the Company began investing in indigo production.
• Many officials resigned from the Company job and looked after their indigo business. –
• Those who had no money to produce indigo could get loans from the Company and the banks.

Question 41.
Explain the reaction of the ryots during the indigo revolt of Bengal.
Answer:

• The ryots refused to pay rents to the planters.
• They attacked indigo factories armed with locally available weapons.
• They boycotted those who worked for the planters.
• The gomasthas were beaten up.
• They swore they would no longer take advances to sow indigo.
• They decided not to be bullied by the lathiyals of the planters.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) As Diwan of Bengal, the Company became the chief financial administrator of the territory under its control.
(b) Before 1865, the Company had purchased goods in India by importing gold and silver from Britain.
(c) In 1770, a terrible cholera epidemic killed ten million people in Bengal.
(d) The Permanent Settlement was introduced in 1793.
Answer:
(c) In 1770, a terrible cholera epidemic killed ten million people in Bengal.

2. What is not true about the terms of Permanent Settlëment in the following?
(a) The rajas and taluqdars were recognised as zamindars.
(b) The zamindars were asked to collect rent from the peasants.
(c) They had to pay revenue to the Company.
(d) The amount the zamindars had to pay was not fixed permanently.
Answer:
(d) The amount the zamindars had to pay was not fixed permanently.

3. The system of revenue introduced in the British territories in the south was known as
(a) Ryotwar or Ryotwari system.
(b) Permanent Settlement.
(c) Mahaiwari settlement.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Ryotwar or Ryotwari system.

4. Tick the correct pair in the following.
(a) Lord Cornwallis – Ryotwari system
(b) Thomas Munro – Permanent Settlement
(c) Mahal – village
(d) Holt Mackenzie – Mahalwari settlement.
Answer:
(d) Holt Mackenzie – Mahalwari settlement.

5. The Champaran movement started by Gandhiji was against the …………………. planters.
(a) tea
(b) indigo
(c) sugarcane
(d) coffee
Answer:
(b) indigo

Glossary:

→ Mahal – In British revenue records Mahal is a revenue estate which may be a village or a group of villages.

→ Plantation – A large farm operated by a planter employing various forms of forced labour. Plantations are associated with the production of coffee, sugarcane, tobacco, tea and cotton.

→ Slave – A person who is owned by someone else – the slave owner. A slave has no freedom and is compelled to work for the master.

→ Bigha – A unit of measurement of land. Before British rule, the size of this area varied. In Bengal, the British standardised it to about one-third of an acre.

→ Vat – A fermenting or storage vessel.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Online Education for Life in the Temperate Grasslands Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 9

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Extra Questions Question 1.
On the basis of climate, the world’s grassland can be divided into which two categories?
Answer:

1. Temperate grasslands,
2. Tropical grasslands.

Life In The Temperate Grasslands Class 7 Extra Questions Question 2.
Distinguish between forest and grassland.
Answer:
Forest is a place where trees are the main type of vegetation Grassland is a region where grasses form the dominant type of plant life.

Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Extra Questions Question 3.
What are prairies?
Answer:
Prairies are the temperate grasslands of North America. It is a region of flat, gently sloping or hilly land covered chiefly by grasses.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
Which physical features bound the prairies in the east and west?
Answer:
The prairies are bound by the Rocky Mountains in the west and the Great Lakes in the east.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Question 5.
Prairies cover which parts of North America?
Answer:
Prairies cover parts of United States of America and parts of Canada.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Question Answer Question 6.
Which river drains the prairies of USA?
Answer:
River Mississippi and its tributaries.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Worksheet Question 7.
Which river drains the Canadian prairies?
Answer:
River Saskatchewan and its tributaries.

Life In The Temperate Grasslands Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 8.
Name a hot local wind which blows in Prairies.
Answer:
Chinook.

Chapter 9 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
Name the trees which grow in prairies.
Answer:
Willows, alders and poplars.

Life In Temperate Grasslands Class 7 Worksheet Question 10.
Name the major crops grown in prairies.
Answer:
Maize, potatoes, soybeans, cotton and alfa-alfa.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Question 11.
What are ranches and who look after them?
Answer:
In prairies, the large cattle farms are called ranches. These are looked after by sturdy men called cowboys.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Life In The Temperate Grassland Question Answer Question 12.
Name the animals found in prairies.
Answer:
Bison (American buffalo), rabbits, coyotes, gophers and prairie dogs.

Life In Temperate Grasslands Class 7 Extra Questions Question 13.
What is a combine?
Answer:
Combine is a machine which can automatically sow, plough and work as thresher.

Ch 9 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 14.
Why are prairies also called “granaries of the world”?
Answer:
Prairies are also called “granaries of the world” due to the huge surplus of wheat production.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Life In The Temperate Grassland Question 15.
Write the extension of dairy belt in prairies.
Answer:
Dairy belt extends from the Great Lakes to the Atlantic coast.

Question 16.
Why food processing industries have flourished in prairies?
Answer:
Food processing industries have flourished in prairies because extensive agriculture and dairy farming is practised on a large scale in this region.

Question 17.
Name some of the important cities of USA prairies.
Answer:
Chicago, Minneapolis, Indianapolis, Kansas and Denver.

Question 18.
Name some of the important cities of Canadian prairies.
Answer:
Edmonton, Saskatoon, Calgary and Winnipeg.

Question 19.
Which factors have made prairies the most industrialised region in the world?
Answer:

• Large mineral deposits (particularly goal and iron).
• Good network of roads, railways and canals.

Question 20.
Which factors have made North America a surplus food producer?
Answer:

• Scientific methods of cultivation.
• Use of tractors, harvesters and combines.

Question 21.
How is chinook beneficial for the animal herders?
Answer:
Chinook blows during winter and being a hot wind, it raises the temperature. It results in the melting of snow, making pasture land available for the grazing of animals.

Question 22.
Which regions in prairies are suitable for cattle rearing?
Answer:
Areas where rainfall is very less or unreliable, grasses are short and sparse. These areas are suitable for cattle rearing.

Question 23.
Write the climatic conditions of prairies.
Answer:

• In prairies, the climate is of continental type with extreme temperatures.
• The summers are warm with temperatures of around 20°C, while in winter temperature falls to around -20°C.
• In winters a thick blanket of snow covers this region.
• The annual rainfall is moderate and ideal for the growth of grass.

Question 24.
What are velds?
Answer:
The temperate grasslands of South Africa are called the velds. These are rolling plateaus with varying heights ranging from 600 m to 1100 m.

Question 25.
Which physical features lie to the east and west of the velds?
Answer:
Velds are bound by the Drakensburg mountains on the east and Kalahari desert on its west.

Question 26.
Name the countries that are covered by the velds.
Answer:
South Africa, parts of Botswana, Zimbabwe and Mozambique.

Question 27.
Which rivers drain the veld region?
Answer:
The tributaries of rivers Orange and Limpopo drain the veld region.

Question 28.
Why do velds receive rainfall during summers?
Answer:
The velds receive rainfall mainly during summers because of the warm ocean currents that wash the shores of the velds.

Question 29.
Which type of vegetation is found in the velds?
Answer:

• Grasses dominate the landscape.
• Red grass grows in bush velds.
• Acacia and Marcoola grows in high velds.

Question 30.
Name the animals found in the veld region.
Answer:
Lions, leopards, cheetah and Kundu.

Question 31.
Which are the two main occupations of the people in the veld region?
Answer:

1. Cattle rearing (sheep rearing, dairy farming).
2. Mining (gold and diamond mining).

Question 32.
Why are soils not very fertile in the velds?
Answer:
Soils are not very fertile in the velds because of the presence of discontinuous grasses exposing barren surfaces.

Question 33.
Which minerals are found in veld? Also, write the places where they are found.
Or
Why are gold and diamond mining the major occupations of the people of veld?
Answer:

• Johannesburg is known for being the gold capital of the world.
• Kimberley is famous for its diamond mines.

Question 34.
Name the food crops and cash crops grown in velds.
Answer:
Food crops – Maize, wheat, barley, oats, and potato.
Cash crops – Tobacco, sugarcane and cotton.

Question 35.
Write the climatic conditions of the velds.
Answer:

• The velds have a mild climate due to the influence of the Indian Ocean.
• Winters are cold and dry.
• Temperatures vary between 5°C and 10°C.
• Summers are short and warm.
• The velds receive rainfall mainly in the summer months from November to February.

Question 36.
Describe the two main occupations sheep rearing and dairy farming practised in the velds.
Answer:
Sheep rearing –

1. Sheep is bred mainly for wool.
2. It has given rise to the woollen industry in the velds.
3. Merino sheep is a popular species and their wool is very warm.

Dairy farming –

1. Cattles are reared in the warmer and wetter regions.
2. Dairy products like butter and cheese are produced for both domestic supply and also for export.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. The temperate grasslands of North America are known as;
(a) Steppes
(b) Prairies
(c) Ganga-Brahmputra plains
(d) Murray-Darling basin.
Answer:
(b) Prairies.

2. The Prairies are bounded by the;
(а) Himalayas in .north
(b) Arabian Sea in the west
(c) Rocky mountains in the west and Great lakes in the east
(d) Caribbean sea in the south.
Answer:
(c) Rocky mountains in the west and Great lakes in the east.

3. Which one of the following rivers drains the Prairies region?
(a) Mississippi-Missouri rivers
(b) Amazon river
(c) Nile river
(d) Niger river.
Answer:
(a) Mississippi-Missouri rivers.

4. Which one of the following is the local winds that blows in the Prairies?
(a) Khamsin
(b) Mistral
(c) Loo
(d) Chinook.
Answer:
(d) Chinook.

5. Which one of the following is the major crop of the Prairies?
(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Cotton
(d) Jute.
Answer:
(b) Maize.

6. Which one of the following terms is used for the large cattle farms of Prairies?
(a) Farm houses
(b) Thatched houses
(c) Ranches
(d) Farms for cattle.
Answer:
(c) Ranches.

7. It is the American buffalo of the Prairies;
(a) Bison
(b) Coyotes
(c) Gophers
(d) Prairie dog.
Answer:
(a) Bison.

8. Which one of the following countries of the world lies in the Prairies?
(a) Brazil and Venezuela
(b) Canada and USA
(c) Alaska and California
(d) Ecuador and Chile.
Answer:
(b) Canada and USA.

9. The Prairies are also known as;
(а) wheat bowl of the world
(b) rice bowl of the world
(c) sugar bowl of the world
(d) granaries of the world.
Answer:
(d) granaries of the world.

10. The temperate grassland of South Africa is;
(a) steppes
(b) prairies
(c) veld
(d) downs.
Answer:
(c) veld.

11. Why does veld experience mild climate?
(а) Due to the influence of the Indian ocean.
(b)Due to the influence of Pacific ocean
(c) Due to the influence of Atlantic ocean
(d) Due to the influence of Arctic ocean.
Answer:
(а) Due to the influence of the Indian ocean.

12. In the high veld, which one of th& following natural vegetation is found?
(а) Cotton
(b) Alfa-Alfa
(c) Soyabean
(d) Acacia and Maroola.
Answer:
(d) Acacia and Maroola.

13. Which one of the following is the main activities of Velds?
(а) Farming 1
(b) Mining
(c) Cattle rearing and mining
(d) Agricultural activities.
Answer:
(c) Cattle rearing and mining.

14. Which one of the following is the popular species of Velds?
(a) Elephant
(b) Reptiles
(c) Cattle
(d) Merino sheep.
Answer:
(d) Merino sheep.

15. Which one of the following is known as the gold capital of the world?
(a) Kimberley
(b) Johannesburg
(c) Pretoria
(d) Drakensberg.
Answer:
(b) Johannesburg.

16. Which one of the following is famous for the diamond mine?
(a) Kimberley
(b) Pretoria
(c) Johannesburg
(d) Nigeria
Answer:
(a) Kimberley.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 6 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers New Questions and Ideas was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-6-social-science/

Online Education for New Questions and Ideas Class 6 Extra Questions History Chapter 7

Class 6 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why did new religions arise about 2500 years ago?
Answer:
New religions arose about 2500 years ago because this was the time of rapid changes in the lives of the people. New cities were developing and life was changing in the villages also. Many thinkers were trying to understand these changes in the society. They also wanted to try and find out the true meaning of life.

New Questions And Ideas Class 6 Extra Questions Question 2.
Why was the stupa at Sarnath built?
Answer:
The stupa at Samath was built to mark the place where the Buddha first taught his message.

New Questions And Ideas Extra Questions Question 3.
Name the language used by Buddha in preaching his message. Why did he use this language?
Answer:
The Buddha taught in the language of the ordinary people, Prakrit, so that everybody could understand his message.

Class 6 History Ch 7 Extra Questions Question 4.
What does the word ‘Upanishad’ mean? What does it contain?
Answer:
Upanishad literally means approaching and sitting near. They were a part of the later Vedic texts. The texts contain conversations between teachers and students. Often answers were presented through simple dialogues.

Ncert Class 6 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 5.
Who were the Upanishadic thinkers and teachers?
Answer:
Most Upanishadic thinkers and teachers were men, especially brahmins and rajas. Some women thinkers like Gargi, who was famous for learning, also participated in debates held in the royal court. Poor people did not take part in the discussions. One such exception was Satyakama Jabala, the son of the slave mother Jabala.

New Questions And Ideas Class 6 Questions And Answers Question 6.
Who later developed the Upanishadic ideas?
Answer:
Upanishadic ideas were later developed by the famous thinker Shankaracharya.

Class 6 History Chapter 7 Questions And Answers Question 7.
Write in your own words the story of Kisagotami. What was Buddha trying to teach the sorrowing mother?
Answer:
Once there was a woman named Kisagotami, whose son had died. She was so sad that she roamed the streets of the city carrying the child. A kind man took her to Buddha. Buddha promised to bring back the child to life if the mother bring a handful of mustard seeds from the house of a family where nobody had died.

Kisagotami went from door to door but could not find any house where no one had died. Buddha was trying to teach the sorrowing mother that death will always come, no one can escape death.

Extra Questions For Class 6 History Chapter 7 Question 8.
Name one of the most famous Upanishads. Write the story of the wise beggar.
Answer:
One of the most famous Upanishads was Chhandogya Upanishad. It mentions the story of the wise beggar.
Shaunaka and Abhipratarin were two sages who worshipped the universal soul.

Once when they sat down to eat, a beggar came and asked for food. They refused to give the food. The beggar explained to them that by not giving him food, they were denying food to the universal god. The sages realised the truth and shared their food with him.

Class 6 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
Who was Panini? What are his contributions to Sanskrit literature?
Answer:
Panini prepared a grammar for Sanskrit. He arranged the vowels and consonants in a special order and then used them to create formulae like those found in Algebra. He used them to write down the rules of the language in short formulae (around 3000 of them).

History Chapter 7 Class 6 Extra Questions Question 10.
Write about the early life of Gautama Buddha.
Answer:
The Buddha belonged to a small gana known as die Sakya gana and was a Kshatriya. W ien he was a young man, he left the comforts of his home in search of knowledge. He wandered (or many years, holding discussions and meeting with other thinkers. He finally decided to find his own path of realisation and meditated for a long time under a Peepal tree at Bodh Gaya in Bihar, where he attained enlightenment He was now known as die Buddha or the wise one.

He went to Samath, near Varanasi, where he taught for the first time. He spent the rest of his life travelling on foot, going from place to place and teaching people, till he passed away at Kusliinagar.

Class 6 History Chapter 7 Question Answer Question 11.
What were the main teachings of Buddha?
Answer:
Buddha taught that:

• Life is full of suffering and unhappiness. This is caused because we have desires ( which often cannot be fulfilled).
• Sometimes, even if we get what we want, we are not satisfied and want even more. Buddha described these as thirst (tanha). This can be removed by following the path of moderation.
• He also taught to be kind to others and respect the lives of others, including animals.
• Our actions affect us not only in this life but also in the next life, He taught in the language of the people. He told people to be rational and think for themselves.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. When did Siddhartha become Gautam Buddha?
(a) After maha nirvana
(b) After attaining enlightenment
(c) After preachings
(d) When he became of 60 years of age.
Answer:
(b) After attaining enlightenment

2. Where did Buddha teach for the first time?
(a) Samath
(b) Gaya
(c) Kathmandu
(d) Agra
Answer:
(a) Samath

3. Which one of the following places where Buddha passed away?
(a) Samath
(b) Gaya
(c) Kusinara
(d) Kathmandu
Answer:
(c) Kusinara

4. What docs Upanishad contain?
(a) Conversations between doctors and patients
(b) Conversations between kings and citizens
(c) Conversations between teachers and students
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(c) Conversations between teachers and students

5. Who was Gargi?
(a) A queen
(b) A woman Upanishadic thinker
(c) A doctor
(d) A woman minister.
Answer:
(b) A woman Upanishadic thinker.

6. Who of the following was a famous poor Upanishadic thinker?
(a) Gautam Buddha
(b) Mahavira
(c) Satyakama Jabala
(d) Charaka
Answer:
(c) Satyakama Jabala

7. Who was Jabali?
(a) A woman Upanishadic thinker
(b) A woman minister in Magadh kingdom
(c) A slave woman and the mother of Satyakama Jabala
(d) A queen.
Answer:
(c) A slave woman and the mother of Satyakama Jabala

8. Who was the Guru of Satyakama Jabala?
(a) Gargi
(b) Gautam Buddha
(c) Jabali
(d) Shankaracharya
Answer:
(b) Gautam Buddha

9. Who developed Upanishads?
(a) Shankaracharya
(b) Gautam Buddha
(c) Gargi
(d) Satyakama Jabala
Answer:
(a) Shankaracharya.

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Major Landforms of the Earth was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-6-social-science/

Online Education for Major Landforms of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 6

Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 1.
What do you mean by internal process?
Answer:
Internal process are those processes that originate under the earth’s surface.

Major Landforms Of The Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Answers Question 2.
What are the external forces?
Answer:
External process is the continuous wearing down and rebuilding of the land surface.

Major Landforms Of The Earth Extra Questions Question 3.
What is a glacier?
Answer:
The permanently frozen river of ice is called the glacier.

Major Landforms Of The Earth Class 6 Worksheet Question 4.
Define the term erosion and deposition.
Answer:
Erosion: Transportation of eroded material by river, wind, ice etc. is called the erosion. Levels down the elevated landforms of the earth.

Deposition: The dropping of material which has been picked up and transported by wind, river or ice. It fills up of the depressions of the earth’s surface.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions And Answers Question 5.
How are the plateaus useful to Mar?
Answer:
Plateaus play a very significant role in our life. They carry a great importance for human beings. Following are the major significances of plateaus.

They are made up of very old rocks, which have many mineral deposits. Man use these minerals for their own profit. Therefore, some plateaus like African plateau, Australian plateau are the major grounds of mining.

Plateaus have fertile soils which support agriculture. For example, Deccan plateau is rich in black soil, therefore it became the major cotton-producing centre of India.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Question Answer Question 6.
Give a brief account on plateaus.
Answer:
A plateau is an elevated and flat-topped tableland which stands above the surrounding areas. A plateau have steep slopes on each sides. Their height varies from a few hundred metres to several thousand metres. Plateaus are found on each continents.

Some plateaus lies between the mountain ranges and some lies at the foot of the mountains. These plateaus are called the inter- montane and piedmont plateaus respectively. The Tibetan plateau is an example of intermontane plateau, while the Appalachian plateau is a piedmont plateau.

Importance: Plateaus are very useful to man because they are rich in mineral deposits. Therefore, many of the mining areas in the world are located in the plateau areas. Some plateaus are the home of several waterfalls. These waterfalls are widely used in the production of hydroelectricity.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following processes leads to the upliftment and sinking of the earth’s surface?
(a) External process
(b) Internal process
(c) Earthquakes
(d) Volcanoes
Answer:
(b) Internal process

2. Which one of the following is associated with the external process?
(a) Erosion
(b) Transportation of sediments
(c) Deposition
(d) Magma
Answer:
(c) Deposition

3. On the basis of elevation and slope, the landforms can be grouped as :
(a) Rivers, lakes and seas
(b) Coastal plains and valleys
(c) Mountains, plateaus and plains
(d) Plains, valleys and ridges.
Answer:
(a) Rivers, lakes and seas

4. These are the permanently frozen rivers of ice :
(a) Oceans
(b) Rivers
(c) Lakes
(d) Glaciers
Answer:
(c) Lakes

5. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the mountain ranges of Asia?
(a) Andes
(b) Ural
(c) Hindukush
(d) Pamir
Answer:
(d) Pamir

6. Which one of the following is the oldest fold mountain system of India?
(a) Maikal
(b) Aravali
(c) Satpura
(d) Shivalik
Answer:
(b) Aravali

7. Which one of the following is an example of the block mountains?
(a) Himalayas
(b) Aravali
(c) Vosges
(d) Kilimanjaro
Answer:
(a) Himalayas

8. Mt. Kilimanjaro and Fujiyama are formed due to the:
(a) Volcanic activities
(b) Earthquakes
(c) Landslides
(d) Plates movements.
Answer:
(a) Volcanic activities

9. Which one of the following is false about the usefulness of mountains?
(а) They cause air pollution
(b) They are the storehouse of water
(c) They have rich variety of flora and fauna
(d) They provide scenic beauty.
Answer:
(а) They cause air pollution

10. Which one of the following statements is truly define the word plateaus?
(a) Any natural elevation of the earth’s surface
(b) Large stretches of flat land
(c) An elevated flat-topped tableland
(d) Deep stretches of land surface.
Answer:
(c) An elevated flat-topped tableland

11. It is the oldest plateau of India :
(a) Malwa Plateau
(b) Chhotanagpur Plateau
(c) Western Plateau
(d) Deccan Plateau.
Answer:
(d) Deccan Plateau.

Important Definitions/Words:

→Internal process: The process that originates inside the earth, is called the Internal process, e.g. Valcano, Earthquake etc.

→ External process: The process which works on the earth’s surface, is called external process.

→ Mountain: A mountain is a high landmass with sharp sloping surface. It is generally higher than surrounding areas.

→ Plateau: It is an extensive and relatively flat upland. It can be 90 m to 9000 m high than the surrounding areas,

→ Plain: A flat and relatively low lying land is called the plain. Most of plains are formed by rivers and their tributaries.

→ Mount Everest, Kg (mt. Godwin Austen), Kanchenjunga and Nanga Parbat: Are the name of those mountains, whose height is more than 8000 metres.

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Synthetic Fibres and Plastics Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 3 Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-science/

Online Education for Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Synthetic Fibres and Plastics

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Questions Answers Question 1.
Name a synthetic fibre which is used in making cheap and durable woollen clothes.
Answer:
Acrylic.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Question 2.
Give one-word answer for the following :
Plastic which gets deformed easily on heating and can be easily bent.
Answer:
Thermoplastic.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Questions Answers Pdf Question 3.
Complete the sentence: Rayon is not a synthetic fibre because
Answer:
it is obtained from a natural source.

Class 8 Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Question 4.
When was nylon made?
Answer:
Nylon, a man-made fibre, was made in 1931.

Extra Questions For Class 8 Science With Answers Question 5.
Which one is stronger: a nylon wire or a steel wire?
Answer:
Nylon wire.

Synthetic Fibres Class 8 Question 6.
What is the disadvantage of synthetic fibre?
Answer:
The synthetic fabric melts on heating, which is a disadvantage of this fabric.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Question 7.
From which material, all synthetic fibres are prepared?
Answer:
Synthetic fibres are prepared from petrochemicals.

Cbse Class 8 Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Question 8.
What are manufactured from thermoplastics?
Answer:
Toys, combs, car grills and various types of containers are manufactured from thermoplastics.

Plastic And Environment Class 8 Question 9.
What are the characteristics of plastic due to which it is used to manufacture variety of articles?
Answer:

• They have lightweight,
• lower price,
• good strength, and
• are easy to handle.

Ncert Science Book Class 8 Extra Questions With Answers Question 10.
Why is plastic covering used in electric wires?
Answer:
It is because plastic is a poor conductor of electricity.

Learn Insta Class 8 Science Extra Questions Question 11.
Why are handles of frying pans, cookers are made of plastic material?
Answer:
It is so because plastic material is poor conductor of heat.

Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Question 12.
Why is plastic not environment friendly?
Answer:
Since plastic takes several years to decompose, it is not environment friendly.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Questions Question 13.
Explain, why the handles of cooking utensils, electric plugs, switches or plugboards are made of thermosetting plastics?
Answer:
The handles of cooking utensils, electric plugs, switches or plugboards are made of thermosetting plastics because :

• Thermosetting plastics cannot be softened by heating.
• They are poor conductors of heat and electricity.
• They resist fire and can tolerate heat.

Ncert Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Question 14.
What are the characteristic properties of synthetic fibres, due to which they are used abundantly?
Answer:
Synthetic fibres possess the following unique characteristics :

• They dry up soon,
• They are durable,
• They are less expensive,
• They are readily available, and
• They are easy to maintain.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Hots Questions Question 15.
What is melamine? What are its uses?
Answer:
Melamine is a versatile thermosetting plastic. It resists fire and can tolerate heat better than other plastics. It is used for making floor tiles, kitchenware and fabrics which resists fire.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Extra Questions Question 16.
What is the characteristic property of plastic due to which it is used to make containers to store different materials?
Answer:
Plastics do not react with water and air and, therefore, they are non-corrosive in: nature. That is why, the containers made of plastics are used for storing various kinds of materials, including many chemicals.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Extra Questions Answers Question 17.
Write a brief note on Teflon.
Answer:
Teflon is a non-stick plastic used as non-stick coating in cookwares. Because of its toughness, it is also used as tape for sealing purposes.

Ncert Science Class 8 Chapter Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Question 18.
Write a note on cross-linked plastic.
Answer:
Cross-linked plastic is that plastic in which its units possess cross-linked arrangements. The cross-linked plastics are available in all possible shapes and sizes. This is due to the fact that plastics are easily mouldable, i.e., plastic can be shaped in any form. That is why, various types of containers like water tanks, water jugs, buckets, mugs, etc. are made of it arid used in day-to-day life.

Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Answers Question 19.
Write a short note on the plastic in healthcare industry.
Answer:
Plastics find extensive use in the healthcare industry. Some examples of their use in healthcare are in packaging of medicines, threads used for stitching wounds, syringes, gloves, a number of medical instruments, etc.

Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres And Plastics Class 8 Question 20.
Write any five characteristics of synthetic fibres.
Answer:
The characteristics of synthetic fibres are :

1. Synthetic fibres are cheaper than natural fibre.
2. Synthetic fibres are stronger than natural fibre.
3. Synthetic fibres are more durable than natural fibre.
4. Synthetic fabrics are dried up in less time.
5. Synthetic fibres are easy to maintain and wash.
6. Synthetic fibres are readily available and easy to maintain.

Question 21.
Write a note on rayon.
Answer:
Natural silk from silkworms was discovered in China and was kept as a closely guarded secret for a long time. Silk was a costly fabric. But, as its texture was beautiful, it fascinated everybody. So, people began to think of preparing silk artificially.

Towards the end of the nineteenth century, scientists were successful in obtaining a fibre having the properties similar to that of silk. Such a fibre was obtained by chemical treatment of wood pulp. This fibre was called rayon or artificial silk. Although rayon is obtained from a natural source, wood pulp, yet it is a man-made fibre. It is cheaper than silk but can be woven like silk fibres. It can also be dyed in a wide variety of colours.

Question 22.
What are renewable and non-renewable sources of energy? What will happen if all the non-renewable resources get exhausted?
Answer:
Renewable sources of energy :
The sources of energy, which are being produced continuously in nature and are inexhaustible, are called renewable sources of energy. These sources of energy can be used again and again, endlessly. They will never get exhausted. For example, wind, sunlight.

Non-renewable sources of energy :
The sources of energy, which have accumulated in nature over a very, very long time and cannot be quickly replaced when exhausted, are called non-renewable sources of energy, e.g., coal.
If all non-renewable sources of energy get exhausted, we will have to depend on renewable sources of energy. More and more alternative sources will have to be developed.

Question 23.
(a) You have to buy clothes to wear in summer. You will prefer to buy cotton clothes or clothes made of synthetic material. Give reason for your answer.
(b) Which material is better for making umbrellas and why?
Answer:
(a) I will prefer to buy cotton clothes over synthetic clothes. This is because cotton clothes absorb more sweat than synthetic clothes. I will comfortable and cool in cotton clothes than synthetic clothes.

(b) Synthetic cloth is better for making an umbrella because

• Synthetic fibre is more durable.
• Synthetic fibre is stronger.
• Synthetic fibre absorbs less water.
• Synthetic fibre is lightweight as compared to cotton cloth.

Question 24.
“Even though plastics are very useful, they are not environment friendly.” Justify the statement.
Answer:
Even though plastics are very useful and have vital applications in our daily life but they are not environmentally friendly because :
(а) The plastics are not bio-degradable and take several years to decompose. It causes environmental pollution.

(b) The burning process in the synthetic material is quite slow and it does not get completely burnt easily. In the process, it releases lots of poisonous fumes into the atmosphere causing air pollution.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Rayon is known as
(a) artificial silk
(b) both
(c) regenerated fiber
Answer:
(a) artificial silk.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Online Education for Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Resources Class 8 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 2

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Give the reason for uneven distribution of population in different parts of the world?
Answer:
Varied characteristics of land and climate.

Ncert Solutions For Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 2.
Mention the physical factors which determine the land use pattern.
Answer:

• Topography,
• soil,
• climate,
• minerals,
• availability of water.

Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Resources Class 8 Extra Questions Question 3.
Which are the major threats to our environment?
Answer:

• Land degradation,
• soil erosion,
• desertification.

Extra Questions For Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Question 4.
What is soil?
Answer:
The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called soil.

Geography Class 8 Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 5.
Give two reasons of water shortage or water scarcity.
Answer:

1. Variation in annual or seasonal precipitation.
2. Over-exploitation of water.
3. Contamination of water.

Ncert Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 6.
Mention two major contaminants of water bodies.
Answer:

1. Discharge of untreated or partially treated sewage.
2. Agricultural chemicals.
3. Industrial effluents.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 7.
On which two factors does the growth of vegetation depend?
Answer:

1. Temperature and
2. moisture.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Pdf Question 8.
How are the major vegetation types of the world grouped?
Answer:

• Forests,
• grasslands,
• scrubs,
• tundra.

Geography Chapter 2 Class 8 Extra Questions Question 9.
Give one main reason for the clearance of forest?
Answer:
To feed the growing population or to increase agricultural land.

Chapter 2 Geography Class 8 Extra Questions Question 10.
What is the total account of freshwater over the earth?
Answer:
1%.

Land Soil Water Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Resources Class 8 Extra Questions Question 11.
Where does the government get money for public facilities?
Answer:
The government gets money from taxes collected from people for public facilities.

Land, Soil And Water Resources Class 8 Worksheets With Answers Question 12.
Ocean water is and is not fit for human use.
Answer:
salty.

Extra Questions Of Chapter 2 Geography Class 8 Question 13.
State true or false: Water is a non-renewable natural resource.
Answer:
False.

Class 8 Chapter 2 Geography Extra Questions Question 14.
What do you understand by land use?
Answer:
Using of land for different purposes like agriculture, forestry, mining, building houses, roads and setting up of industries is commonly termed as land use.

Ch 2 Geography Class 8 Extra Questions Question 15.
Distinguish between private land and community land.
Answer:

Private land	Community land
(i) Private land is owned by individuals.	(i) Community land is owned by the community.
(ii) Private land is used to build houses, agriculture etc.	(ii) Community land is used for common uses like collection of fodder, fruits, nuts or medicinal herbs.

Question 16.
Mention the common methods used to conserve land.
Answer:

• Afforestation,
• land reclamation,
• regulated use of chemical pesticides and fertilisers,
• checks on overgrazing.

Question 17.
Mention the factors of soil formation.
Answer:

• Parent rock,
• climate,
• topography,
• organic matter,
• time.

Question 18.
Mention the factors which lead to soil degradation.
Answer:

• Deforestation,
• overgrazing,
• overuse of chemical fertilisers or pesticides,
• rain wash,
• landslides,
• floods.

Question 19.
What is terrace cultivation?
Answer:
On steep slopes, terraces are made so that flat surfaces are available to grow crops. It reduces surface run-off and soil erosion.

Question 20.
Define contour ploughing.
Answer:
Ploughing is done parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier for water to flow down the slope.

Question 21.
Which method of soil conservation is practiced in the coastal and dry regions?
Answer:
In coastal and dry regions, rows of trees are planted to check the wind movement to protect soil cover.

Question 22.
What do you understand by water cycle?
Answer:
Movement of water through the oceans, the air, the land and back again, through the process of evaporation and precipitation, is called water cycle.

Question 23.
What are the major factors leading to shortage in supply of freshwater?
Answer:

• Increasing population,
• rising demands for food and cash crops,
• increasing urbanisation,
• rising standards of living.

Question 24.
Which regions of the world face scarcity of water?
Answer:

• Africa,
• West Asia,
• South Africa,
• parts of Western USA,
• North-West Mexico,
• parts of South America,
• Australia.

Question 25.
Define biosphere and ecosystem.
Or
Write the difference between biosphere and ecosystem.
Answer:

• Biosphere – It is the narrow zone of contact between the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.
• Ecosystem – In the biosphere, living beings are interrelated and interdependent on each other for survival. This life-supporting system is called ecosystem.

Question 26.
Various species of natural vegetation and wildlife have become vulnerable or endangered and some are at the verge of extinction. Why? Give reasons.
Answer:
Deforestation, soil erosion, constructional activities, forest fires and landslides are some of the human-made and natural factors which together accelerate the process of extinction of natural vegetation and wildlife.

Question 27.
Why are animals poached?
Answer:
Animals are poached for collection and illegal trade of hides, skins, nails, teeth, horns as well as feathers.

Question 28.
What are landslides?
Answer:
Landslides are mass movement of rock, debris or earth down a slope. They include a broad range of motions whereby falling, sliding and flowing under the influence of gravity dislodges earth material.

Question 29.
Give two main reasons of forest fire.
Answer:

1. Natural fire due to lightning.
2. Fire purposely caused by local inhabitants.

Question 30.
Varied characteristics of land and climate affect the distribution of population. Explain how.
Answer:
Varied characteristics of land and climate affect the distribution of population in the following ways –

• The rugged topography, steep slopes of mountains, low-lying areas susceptible to waterlogging, desert areas, thick forested areas are sparsely populated or uninhabited.
• Fertile plains and river valleys offer suitable land for agriculture. Therefore, these are densely populated.

Question 31.
Explain how various factors affect soil formation.
Answer:

• Parent Rock – It determines colour, texture, chemical properties, mineral content and permeability of the soil.
• Relief-Altitude and slope determine the accumulation of soiL
• Climate – Temperature and rainfall influence rate of weathering and humus formation.
• Time – It determines the thickness of soil.
• Flora, Fauna and micro-organisms – These affect the rate of humus formation.

Question 32.
Describe five methods of soil conservation.
Answer:

1. Mulching- The bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic matter like straw. It helps to retain soil moisture.
2. Contour barriers – Stones, grass, soil are used to build barriers along contours. Trenches are made in front of the barriers to collect water.
3. Agroforestry- Crops are grown along with trees on the boundaries of the fields to check soil erosion.
4. Rock dam – Rocks are piled up to slow down the flow of water. This prevents gully erosion.
5. Intercropping- Different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at different times to protect the soil from rain wash.

Question 33.
Describe the distribution of water on the earth’s surface.
Answer:

• Oceans cover two-thirds of the earth’s surface.
• The freshwater accounts for only about 2.7 per cent of the total. Nearly 70 per cent of this occurs as ice sheets and glaciers in Antarctica, Greenland and mountain regions. Only one per cent of freshwater is available as groundwater, surface water in rivers and lakes and as water vapour in the atmosphere.

Question 34.
Mention the various ways of water conservation.
Answer:

• The rainwater can be collected from the rooftop with the help of pipes in tanks, sumps, ponds or lakes. It also helps in recharging of groundwater.
• The canals must be properly lined to minimise losses by water seepage.
• Sprinklers effectively irrigate the area by checking water losses through seepage and evaporation.
• In dry regions with high rates of evaporation, drip irrigation is very useful.

Question 35.
Write four advantages of rainwater harvesting.
Answer:

1. It makes ecological and financial sense not to waste pure natural resources available in large quantity on rooftops.
2. It encourages water conservation and self-dependence.
3. If water does not contain any organic material and is stored in a clean container, it remains pure for long time.
4. It prevents groundwater depletion and is a good supplement to piped water.

Question 36.
How are plants useful to us?
Or
Write the various uses of plants.
Answer:

• Plants provide us timber.
• Give shelter to animals.
• Produce oxygen we breathe.
• Protect soil which is essential for growing crops.
• Act as shelterbelts.
• Help in storage of underground water.
• Give us fruits, nuts, latex, turpentine oil, gum, medicinal plants, paper, etc.

Question 37.
Explain how animals are useful to us.
Answer:

• Animals provide us with milk, meat, hides and wool.
• Insects like bees provide us with honey, help in pollination of flowers and have an important role to play as decomposers in the ecosystem.
• The birds feed on insects and act as decomposers as well. Vulture, due to its ability to feed on dead livestock, is a scavenger and considered a vital cleanser of the environment.

Question 38.
Describe how the growth of forests depends on rainfall.
Answer:

• Huge trees and dense forests are found in the areas of heavy rainfall.
• Short stunted trees grow in the regions of moderate rainfall.
• Thorny shrubs and scrubs grow in dry areas of low rainfall.
• Tundra vegetation of cold Polar Regions comprises of mosses in lichens.

Question 39.
Write the major causes of landslides.
Answer:
Major causes of landslides are as follows –

• Topographic variables – Relief, slope.
• Geological- Lithology, fault/thrust/ lineaments.
• Morphological causes- Drainage density, dissected surface, stream action.
• Triggering factors – Rainfall, earthquake.
• Anthropogenic – Land use, excavation on slope.

Question 40.
Mention some mitigation techniques of landslides.
Answer:

• Hazard mapping, locate areas prone to landslides. Hence, such areas can be avoided for building settlements.
• Construction of retention wall to stop land from slipping.
• Increase in the vegetation cover.
• The surface drainage control works are implemented to control the movement of landslides along with rainwater and spring flows.

Question 41.
Mention the steps that can be taken to protect plants and animals.
Answer:

• National parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves are made.
• Awareness programmes like social forestry and van Mahotsav should be encouraged at the regional and community level.
• School children should be encouraged for bird watching and visiting nature camps so that they appreciate the habitat of varied species.
• Laws must be passed declaring the trade and killing of birds and animals is illegal.

Multiple Choree Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one among the following is a densely populated area?
(a) Desert areas
(b) River valleys
(c) Thick forested areas
(d) Steep slopes.
Answer:
(b) River valleys.

2. Which one of the following is not a physical factor determining the use of land?
(a) Topography
(b) Soil
(c) Climate
(d) Technology.
Answer:
(d) Technology.

3. What are the major threats to the environment?
(a) Land degradation, landslides
(b) Soil erosion, desertification
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b).

4. Tick the correct order of the constituents of soil profile (from top to bottom) in the following.
(a) Topsoil, subsoil, weathered rock, parent rock
(b) Topsoil, weathered rock, subsoil, parent rock
(c) Subsoil, topsoil, weathered rock, parent rock
(d) Topsoil, subsoil, parent rock, weathered rock.
Answer:
(a) Topsoil, subsoil, weathered rock, parent rock.

5. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(а) Mulching helps to retain soil moisture.
(b) Soil erosion and depletion are the major threats to soil as a resource.
(c) Shelterbelts are made in the mountainous areas.
(d) Plants give shelter to the animals and together they maintain the ecosystem.
Answer:
(c) Shelterbelts are made in the mountainous areas.

Glossary:

→ Land use – Using land for various purposes such as agriculture, forestry, mining, building houses, roads etc. is commonly termed as land use.

→ Common property resources- Land owned by community for common uses like collection of fodder, fruits, nuts or medicinal herbs are also called common property resources.

→ Soil – The Sublayer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called soil.

→ Weathering-The breaking up and decay of exposed rocks, by temperature changes, frost action, plants, animals and man.

→ Biosphere – The narrow zone of contact between the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.

→ Ecosystem- In the biosphere living beings are interrelated and inter¬dependent on each other for survival. This life-supporting system is known as ecosystem.

→ Wildlife – Wild animals and vegetation living in a natural, undomesticated state.

→ Landslides – The mass movement of rock, debris or earth down a slope.

→ National park – A natural area designated to protect the ecological integrity of one or more ecosystems for present and future, generations.

→ Biosphere reserves -Series of protected areas linked through a global network intended to demonstrate the relationship between conservation and development.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science