Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Laws

Online Education for Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Laws

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Online Education for Understanding Laws Class 8 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 4

(1) The key elements of the democratic government are ………………………. , ………………………… .
Answer:
Liberty, Equality

(2) ………………………. was the language that white people spoke.
Answer:
Afrikaans

(3) ………………………. fought apartheid in S. Africa.
Answer:
African National Congress

(4) Zulu was the language spoken by the ………………………. in South Africa.
Answer:
Blacks

(5) In India the government is elected for ………………………. years.
Answer:
five.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Laws

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Name the races of people in S. Africa. Why did they come here?
Answer:
South Africa is a country that has people of several races. There are black people who belong to South Africa, whites who came there to settle and Indians who came as labourers and traders.

Understanding Laws Class 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
What were Apartheid laws?
Answer:
The word ‘apartheid’ means separation on the basis of race. South African people were divided into whites, blacks, Indians and coloured races. According to the law, these races were not allowed to mingle with each other, to live near each other or even to use common facilities.

Ncert Solutions For Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 3.
Write the name of one black township,
Answer:
One black township was south-western township or SOWETO.

Class 8 Civics Ch 4 Extra Questions Question 4.
Why was Hector Ndlovu shot by police? When did the incident take place?
Answer:
Hector Ndlovu was shot by the police because he and his classmates had joined the protest against learning the Afrikans language in school. This was the language that the white people spoke. The incident took place on 30th April 1978.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Laws

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 5.
Who fought against the apartheid laws? What was the result of this struggle?
Answer:
The African National Congress, a group of people who – led the struggle against apartheid. The most well-known leader of the African National Congress was Nelson Mandela, who fought the apartheid laws for several years. South Africa became a democratic country in 1994, in which people of all races were considered equal.

Ncert Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 6.
What is meant by consensus?
Answer:
Everyone has the same view regarding an issue.

Chapter 4 Civics Class 8 Extra Questions Question 7.
Write about the conflict between the states of Karnataka and Tamilnadu over the issue of R. Cauvery?
Answer:
The rivers can become a source of conflict between states. A river may have its origin in one place and after flowing through many states that finally end its journey in the sea or ocean. The sharing of river water between different places that the river goes through is becoming an issue. There is a dispute between Karnataka and Tamilnadu over the sharing of the Cauvery water. The water stored in Krishnasagar dam in Karnataka is used for irrigation in several districts and for meeting the needs of various cities.

The water stored in Mettur dam of Tamilnadu is used for crops grown in the delta region of that state. A conflict arises because dams are on the same river. The downstream dam in Tamilnadu can only be filled up with water when it is released from the upstream one located in Karnataka. So both the states cannot get as much water as they need for people in their states. This leads to conflict. The central government has to see that, fair distribution is worked out.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Laws

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following refers to apartheid laws?
(a) The laws which brings separation in the country on the basis of race
(b) The laws which brings separation in the country on the basis of castes
(c) The laws related to marriage
(d) The laws related to property disputes.
Answer:
(a) The laws which brings separation in the country on the basis of race.

2. In which races were the African people divided?
(a) The black and the Indians
(b) The black and the coloured
(c) The white, the black, the Indians and the coloured
(d) The red and the black.
Answer:
(c) The white, the black, the Indians and the coloured.

3. The African National Congress is a group of people who led the struggle against:
(a) Muslim community
(b) the black
(c) the Indians
(d) apartheid.
Answer:
(d) apartheid.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Laws

4. Who is Nelson Mandela?
(а) The leader of the African National Congress
(b) A religious scholar
(c) A famous poet
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(а) The leader of the African National Congress.

5. When did South Africa become a democratic country?
(a) In 1984
(b) In 1994
(c) In 1999
(d) In 2005.
Answer:
(b) In 1994.

6. For how many years is the government elected in India?
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 10 years
Answer:
(a) 5 years.

7. Which of the following are the ways in which people express their views and make governments understand what actions they should take?
(а) Thomas
(b) Strikes
(c) Signature campaigns
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Laws

8. How do members of the minority community, Dalits, Adivasis, women and others participate in the government?
(a) By educating themselves
(b) By making themselves rich
(c) Organising themselves into social movements
(d) By making prayers to the government
Answer:
(c) Organising themselves into social movements.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

Online Education for NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

Online Education for Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Notes Social Science Geography Chapter 6

Manufacturing

Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more valuable products is called manufacturing. Paper is manufactured from wood, sugar from sugarcane, iron and steel from iron ore and aluminum from bauxite. Some types of clothes are manufactured from yarn which is an industrial product. https://ncertmcq.com/class-10-social-science-notes/

People employed in the secondary activities manufacture and process the primary materials into finished goods. This sector includes workers employed in steel factories, cars, breweries, textile industries, bakeries etc.

The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries. The manufacturing sector is the backbone of country’s development because:

  • Manufacturing industries modernise agriculture and reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income since it provides jobs in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
  • Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from India. This became the underlying philosophy of public sector industries and joint sector ventures in India. It also helps in reducing the regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and backward areas.
  • Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce and helps bring in foreign exchange.
  • Manufacturing products from raw materials brings prosperity to a country. India’s prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying its manufacturing industries quickly.

NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

Frequently Asked:
Agriculture and industry move hand in hand and are inclusive of each other. Agro-industries in India raise the productivity of agriculture. Agro-Industries depend upon agriculture for raw materials and also sell their finished products such as irrigation pumps, fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, plastic and PVC pipes, machines and tools, etc. to the farmers.

The development and competitiveness of the manufacturing industry has helped agriculturists in increasing their production, also making the production processes very efficient.

Our industry needs to be more efficient and competitive apart from being self sufficient. To compete with international markets, goods manufactured by our industries must be of equal standards to those produced in international markets.

Contribution Of Industry To National Economy

In the recent past, the manufacturing factor has stagnated at 17 percent of GDP – out of a total of 27 per cent for the industry which includes 10 percent for mining, quarrying, electricity and gas.

In some East Asian economies, this figure is 25-35 percent. Growth rate in manufacturing over the Last decade has been around 7 percent per annum as opposed to the desired growth rate for the next decade is 12 percent.

Since 2003, the manufacturing sector has been growing at the rate of 9-10 percent per annum. With appropriate policy interventions by the government and renewed efforts by the industry to improve productivity, economists predict that manufacturing can achieve this growth by next decade.

Important:
The National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (NMCC) has been set up to improve the productivity of the manufacturing sector.

Industrial Location

Industrial locations are complex in nature and influenced by the availability of raw material labour, capital, power and market. etc. Alt factors are hardly found at every Location. Manufacturing activity is generally located cit places where all the factors of industrial location are either available or can be arranged at lower cost. Urbanisation foLLows industrial activity. Industries are located either close to or in cities.

Industrialization and urbanisation go hand in hand. Cities provide markets and services such as banking, insurance, transport, Labour, consultants and financial advice, etc. to the industry.

NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Notes Example 1.
Name any three physical factors for the location of the industry.
Answer:
Raw Material, power and proximity to the markets

Frequently Asked:

  • Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centers known as agglomeration economies. This is how a large industrial agglomeration takes place.
  • Before Independence, most manufacturing units were located in Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, etc. for their closeness to the sea. There emerged certain pockets of industrially developed urban centres surrounded by a huge agricultural rural hinterland.
  • The key to the decision of the factory location is the least cost. Government policies and specialized labour also influence the location of industry.

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Notes Pdf Download Classification Of Industries

Industries may be classified as follows:
1. On the basis of source of raw materials used:

  • Agro Based Industries: Cotton, woolen, jute, silk textile, rubber and sugar, tea, coffee, edible oil.
  • Mineral Based Industries: Iron and steel, cement, aluminum, machine tools, petrochemicals.

2. On the basis of their main role:

  • Basic or Key Industries: Supply their products or raw materials to manufacture other goods e.g. Iron and Steel and copper smelting, aluminum smelting.
  • Consumer Industries: Produce goods for direct use by consumers – sugar, toothpaste, paper, sewing machines, fans etc.

3. On the basis of capital investment:

  • Small Scale Industry: Maximum investment allowed on the assets of a small scaLe industry unit is 1 crore. This limit keeps changing over a period of time.
  • Medium Scale Industry: When the overall investment is more than Rs. 5 crores, and also less than Rs. 10 crores.
  • Large Scale Industry: When the overall investment is more than Rs. 10 crores.

4. On the basis of ownership:

  • Public Sector: Owned and operated by government agencies – BHEL, SAIL, etc.
  • Private Sector: Owned and operated by an individual or a group -TISCO, Bajaj Auto Ltd., Dabur Industries.
  • Joint Sector: These industries are jointly run by the state and individuals or a group of individuals. Oil India Ltd. (OIL) is jointly owned by the public and private sector.
  • Cooperative Sector: Owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials, workers or both. The pool in the resources and share the profits or Losses proportionately. For example, sugar industry in Maharashtra, coir industry in Kerala.

5. Based on the bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods:

  • Heavy Industries: Heavy raw materials used are Iron and Steel.
  • Light Industries: Light raw materials and produce light goods such as electrical industries.

NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Example 2.
Classify the following into two groups on the basis of bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods.
(i) Oil
(ii) Knitting needles
(iii) Brassware
(iv) Fuse wires
(v) Watches
(vi) Sewing Machines
(vii) Shipbuilding
(viii) Electric Bulbs
(ix) Paintbrushes
(x) Automobiles
Answer:

  1. Light Industries: Knitting needles, fuse wire, watches, electric bulbs, paintbrushes.
  2. Heavy Industries: Oil, brassware, sewing. machine, shipbuilding, automobiles.

Agro-Based Industries
Cotton, jute, silk, woolen textiles, sugar and edible oil, etc. industries are based on agricultural raw materials.

Textile Industry:
The textile industry occupies a unique position in the Indian economy. It contributes significantly to industrial production (14 percent), employment generation (about 35% people are employed- second largest employer after agriculture) and foreign exchange earnings (about 24.6 percent). It contributes 4 per cent towards GDP.

Frequently Asked:
The textile industry is the only industry in the country that is self-reliant and complete in the value chain. The process is a complete chain from raw material to the highest value-added products.

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Pdf Notes Example 3.
Why is it important for us to keep the mill sector looming lower than the power loom and handloom.
Answer:
It is important to keep the mill/sector loomage lower than power Loom and handloom because:

  • Many artisans and weavers work independently along with their families on handloom and powerlooms. This supports their families.
  • This is the only source of income for many poor families. If mill production was increased, the sales of these artisans and weavers will be affected.
  • Increase in miLl production will lead largely to rural unemployment and decline in standard of living.

NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Notes Pdf Cotton Textiles:

  1. In ancient India, cotton textiles were produced with hand spinning and handloom weaving techniques.
    Power-Looms came into use after the 18th century.
  2. Competition with the mill-made cloth from England led to destruction of native industries.
    Spinning is still centralised in Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu but weaving is highly decentralised to help incorporate traditional skills and designs of weaving in cotton, silk, zari, embroidery, etc.
  3. India has world class production in spinning, but weaving supplies low quality of faoric. Indian weavers do not use much of the high quality yarn produced in the country.
  4. Weaving is done by handloom, power loom and in mills.
  5. Handspun khadi provides employment to weavers in their homes as a cottage industry.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Pdf Important:
The first successful textile mill was established in Mumbai in 1854.

When the two world wars were fought in Europe, India was a British colony. There was a demand for cloth in UX. hence, they gave a boost to the development of the cotton textile industry.

British introduced cotton textile industries in India for their selfish purposes in the 19th century. By 2011, 1946 cotton and human-made fibre textile mills have been established in the country.

80 per cent of the mills have been established in the private sector and the remaining 20% in public and cooperative sectors. There are several thousand small factories with four to ten looms.

Earlier, the cotton textile industry was concentrated in the cotton-growing belt of Maharashtra and Gujarat. The factors that contributed towards their localisation are availability of raw cotton, market, transport including accessible port facilities, labour, moist climate, etc. This industry provides employment to farmers, cotton boll pLuckers and workers engaged in ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing, designing, packaging, tailoring and sewing. The industry supports industries like chemicals and dyes, mill stores, packaging materials and engineering works and creates great demands.

It is important for our country to keep the mill sector loomage lower than power loom and handLoom.

Class 10 Manufacturing Industries Notes Frequently Asked:

  • India exports yarn to Japan, the U.S.A., the UX, Russia, France, East European countries, Nepal, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and African countries are other importers.
  • India has the second largest installed capacity of spindles in the world, with 43.13 million spindles (2011-12) after China. The spinning sector has received attention since the 1980s.
  • Indian produce accounts for one fourth of the total world trade of cotton yarn. We only contribute 4% in the world trade of textiles. Our spinning mills are competitive at the global level and capable of using all the fibres we produce.
  • Weaving, knitting and processing units cannot use much of the high quality yarn produced in the country. Most production is in fragmented small units, which cater to the local market.
  • This is a drawback for the industry. Consequently, many of our spinners export cotton yarn while apparel/garment manufacturers have to import fabric.

Notes Of Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Challenges: Major challenges are:

  • Despite an increase in the production of good quality long-staple cotton (356 lakh bales of 170 kgs annually 2011-12), the need of importing materials is felt frequently.
  • The power supply is erratic.
  • Machinery needs to be upgraded in the weaving and processing sectors.
  • Low output of Labour.
  • Stiff competition with the synthetic fiber industry.

NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

Geography Class 10 Chapter 6 Notes Jute Textiles:
India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods. It is the second-largest exporter of jute goods after Bangladesh. By 2010-11, there were 80 jute mills in India. The majority mills are located in West Bengal.

Important:

  • The first jute milt was set up near Kolkata in 1859 at Rishra.
  • After partition of 1947, three-fourth of the jute producing area went to Bangladesh (erstwhile East Pakistan) while Jute mills remained in India.

The following factors responsible for their location in the Hugli basin are:

  • The proximity of the jute-producing areas.
  • Inexpensive water transport.
  • Good network of railways, roadways and waterways to facilitate movement of raw material to the mills.
  • Abundant water for processing raw jute, cheap labour from West Bengal and adjoining states of Bihar, Orissa and Uttar Pradesh.

Class 10 Geography Manufacturing Industries Notes Frequently Asked:
Kolkata as a large urban centre provides banking, insurance and port facilities for export of jute goods.
The Jute industry supported 3.7 lakh workers and 40 lakhs small and marginal farmers engaged in cultivation ofjute in 2010-11.

Challenges: Challenges faced by the industry include:

  • Stiff competition from various synthetic substitutes and competitors Like Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt, and Thailand.
  • Internal demand has increased owing to the government policy of mandatory use of jute packaging.
  • Products need to be diversified to stimulate demand.

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Cbse Notes Pdf Important:
In 2005, the National Jute Policy was formulated to increase productivity, improve quality, ensure good prices to the jute farmers and enhance the yield per hectare.

U.S.A., Canada, Russia, Saudi Arabia, U.K. and Australia are the main markets ofJute. Jute is an eco-friendly package material and is proposed to replace plastic as a measure to save the environment.

NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Pdf Download Sugar Industry:
India is the second Largest sugar producer in the world. It however occupies the first place in the production of gur and khandsari. Raw material of the sugar industry is bulky and in haulage, its sucrose content reduces. In 2010-11, over 662 sugar mills were spread in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh.

Important:

  • 60% of the sugar mills are found in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
  • Sugar industry is seasonal in nature and hence ideally suited to the cooperative sector.

Frequently Asked:

  • There is a recent tendency for sugar mills to shift and concentrate in the southern and western states of India, especially in Maharashtra.
  • This is because the cane produced here has a higher sucrose content.
  • The cooler climate also ensures a longer crushing season.
  • Another plus point is that cooperatives are more successful in these states.

Challenges: Major challenges are:

  • Seasonal nature of the industry.
  • Old and inefficient methods of production.
  • Transport delay in reaching cane to factories.
  • The need to maximise the use of bagasse.

Notes Of Geography Class 10 Chapter 6 Mineral Based Industries:
Industries that use minerals and metals as raw materials are called mineral-based industries.

Iron and Steel Industry:
The Iron and Steel industry is the basic industry since all the other industries – heavy, medium and light, depend on it for their machinery. Steel is needed to manufacture a variety of engineering goods, construction material, defence, medical, telephonic, scientific equipment and a variety of consumer goods.

NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

Notes Of Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Pdf Frequently Asked:
The production and consumption of steel is often regarded as the index of a country’s development. Iron and steel is a heavy industry because all the raw materials, as well as finished goods, are heavy and bulky entailing heavy transportation costs.

Iron ore, coking coal and limestone are required in the ratio of approximately 4:2:1. Some quantity of manganese is also required to harden the steel.

Finished products need an efficient transport network for their distribution to the markets and consumers. Most of the public sector undertakings market their steel through Steel Authority of India Ltd. (SAIL).

Chapter 6 Geography Class 10 Notes Example 4.
Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector plants?
(a) HAIL
(b) SAIL
(c) TATA Steel
(d) MNCC
Answer:
(b) SAIL

Frequently Asked:

  • In 2010-11, India ranked 4th among the world crude steel producers. It is the largest producer of sponge iron.
  • In 2010-11, per capita consumption of steel in the country was only around 49 kg per annum against the world average of 182 kg.

Class 10 Chapter 6 Geography Notes Important:

  • Mini steel plants are smaller, have electric furnaces, use steel scrap and sponge iron. They have re-rollers that use steel ingots as well. They produce mild and alloy steel of various specifications.
  • An integrated steel plant is large, handles everything in one complex – from putting together raw material to steel making, rolling and shaping.
  • In the 1950s, China and India produced almost the same quantity of steel. Today, China is the world’s largest producer and consumer of steel. In 2004, India was the largest exporter of steel accounting for 2.25 per cent of the global steel trade.
  • Chottanagpur plateau region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries.

This region possesses special advantages for quick development of this industry.

  1. Low cost of iron ore
  2. High grade raw materials in proximity
  3. Cheap labour
  4. Vast growth potential in the home market

Challenges: India is not able to perform to its full potential in the production of Iron and Steel because:

  1. High costs and limited availability of coking coal
  2. Lower productivity of labour
  3. Irregular supply of energy
  4. Poor infrastructure.

India imports good quality steel from other countries. The overall production of steel is sufficient to meet our domestic demand. Liberalization and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) has boosted the industry through the efforts of private entrepreneurs. More allocation of resources for research and development is required to produce steel more competitively.

NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

Geography Chapter 6 Class 10 Notes Example 5.
Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computers, etc.
(a) Steel
(b) Electronics
(c) Aluminium
(d) Information Technology
Answer;
(a) Steel

Aluminum Smelting:
Aluminum smelting is the second most important metallurgical industry in India. The metal aluminum is light, resistant to corrosion, a good conductor of heat, malleable and becomes strong when it is mixed like an alloy with other metals. Aluminum is useful to manufacture aircraft, utensils and wires.

Important:

  • Aluminum has gained popularity as a substitute of steel, copper, zinc and lead in a number of industries.
  • Aluminum smelting plants in the country are located in Odisha, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. India has produced over 15.29 lakh million tonnes of aluminum in 2008-2009.
  • Bauxite used as a raw material in the smelters is a very bulky, dark reddish coloured rock. Regular supply of electricity and fixed and reliable source of raw material at minimum cost are the two prime factors for location of the industry.

Example 6.
Which one of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Jute
(d) Steel
Answer:
(a) Aluminium

Chemical Industries:
The chemical industry is growing and diversifying quickly in India. It contributes approximately 3 per cent of the GDP. Indian chemical industry is the third-largest in Asia and the twelfth largest in the world in terms of size. It comprises both large and small scale manufacturing units.

Rapid growth has been recorded in both inorganic and organic sectors. Inorganic chemicals include sulphuric acid (used to manufacture fertilisers, synthetic fibres, plastics, adhesives, paints, dyes stuffs), nitric acid, alkalies, soda ash (used to make glass, soaps and detergents, paper) and caustic soda. They are found widely spread over in the world.

Organic chemicals include petrochemicals for manufacture of synthetic fibers, synthetic rubber, plastics, dye-stuffs, drugs and pharmaceuticals.

Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries or petrochemical plants.

Frequently Asked:
The chemical industry is its own largest consumer.
Basic chemicals undergo processing and produce chemicals used for industrial application, agriculture or directly for consumer markets.

NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

Fertiliser Industry:
The fertiliser industry is centered around the production of nitrogenous fertilizers (mainly urea), phosphatic fertilisers and ammonium phosphate (DAP) and complex fertilisers which have a combination of nitrogen (N), phosphate (P), and potash (K). Potash is entirely imported as the country does not have any reserves of commercially usable potash or potassium compounds in any form.

India is the third-largest producer of nitrogenous fertilisers. There are 57 fertiliser units which manufacture nitrogenous and complex nitrogenous fertilisers, 29 of which manufacture urea and 9 for producing ammonium sulphate as a byproduct. 68 small units produce single superphosphate.

Important:

  • There are 10 public sector undertakings and one in cooperative sector at Hazira in Gujarat under the Fertiliser Corporation of India.
  • The industry has expanded to other parts of the country post Green Revolution.
  • Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Kerala contribute towards half the fertiliser production. Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Rajasthan, Bihar, Maharashtra, Assam, West Bengal, Goa, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka contribute the other half

Cement Industry:
Cement is useful in activities like building houses, factories, bridges, roads, airports, dams and other commercial establishments. Raw materials like limestone, silica, alumina and gypsum are required by this industry. Coal and electric power are needed apart from rail transportation.

Important:

  • The industry has strategically located plants in Gujarat with suitable access to the market in the Gulf countries.
  • The first cement plant was set up in Chennai in 1904.
  • The cement industry expanded after Independence. Decontrol of price and distribution since 1989 coupled with other policy reforms led the cement industry to make rapid strides in capacity, process, technology and production. There are 128 large plants and 332 mini cement plants in the country. India produces a variety of cement.

East Asia, Middle East, Africa and South Asia have welcomed the new improved quality of cement apart from a large demand within the country. This industry is doing well in terms of production as well as export. Efforts to boost domestic demand and supply in order to sustain this industry are being pondered upon.

Example 7.
Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Sugar
(d) Jute
Answer:
(b) Cement

Automobile Industry:
Automobiles like trucks, buses, cars, motor cycles, scooters, three-wheelers and multi-utility vehicles are manufactured in India at various centres. After the liberalisation, advancement in form of contemporary models stimulated the demand for vehicles in the market, which in turn led to growth of the industry including passenger cars, two and three wheelers.

Automobile industry has grown exponentially in the last 15 years. Foreign Direct Investment brought in new technology and aligned the industry with global developments. The industry is located around Delhi, Gurgaon, Mumbai, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow, Indore, Hyderabad, Jamshedpur and Bengaluru.

Information Technology and Electronics Industry:
This industry covers transistor sets to television, telephones, cellular telecom, pagers, telephone exchange, radars, computers and many other equipment required by the telecommunication industry. Bangalore has emerged as the electronic capital of India. Other important centres are Mumbai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow and Coimbatore.

By 2010-11, the Software Technology Parks of India have come up across 46 locations at different centres of India. The industry is majorly concentrated in Bangalore, Noida, Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad and Pune. One of the most positive points about this industry is its employment generation. 30 per cent of the people employed in this sector are women. The growing Business Processes Outsourcing (BPO) sector has brought a lot of foreign exchange reserves in the past couple years.

NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

Important:
The continuing growth in the hardware and software sector is the key to the success of the IT industry in India.

Industrial Pollution and Environmental Degradation

Industries might be positive for India’s economic growth and development, but they are detrimental for the environment. They increase the pollution of land, water, air, noise. One cannot overlook the degradation industries have caused to the environment. The polluting industries also include thermal power plants.

Frequently Asked:
Industries are responsible for four types of pollution:

  1. Air
  2. Water
  3. Land
  4. Noise

Air Pollution:

  • The presence of a high proportion of undesirable gases like sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide causes air pollution.
  • Airborne particulate materials include solid and liquid particles like dust, spray mists and smoke.
  • Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants, and burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories that ignore pollution norms.
  • Toxic gas leaks have severe long-term effects. Air pollution adversely affects human health, animals, plants, buildings and the atmosphere as well.

Water Pollution:

  • Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and the effluents discharged into rivers.
  • Paper, pulp, chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum refineries, tanneries and electroplating industries that let out into water bodies dyes, detergents, acids, salts and heavy metals like lead and mercury pesticides, fertilisers, synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics and rubber, etc.
  • Fly ash, phospho-gypsum and iron and steel slags are the major solid wastes in India.

Thermal Pollution:

  • Thermal pollution of water is when the hot water from factories and thermal plants is drained into rivers and ponds before cooling.
  • Wastes from nuclear power plants, nuclear and weapon production facilities cause cancers, birth defects and miscarriages.
  • Soil and water pollution are caused by the same effluents.
  • Dumping of wastes specially glass, harmful chemicals, industrial effluents, packaging, salts and garbage renders the soil useless.
  • Rain water percolates to the soil carrying the pollutants to the ground and the groundwater also gets contaminated.

Noise pollution:

  • Noise pollution causes irritation and anger, hearing impairment, increased heart rate and blood pressure along with other physiological effects.
  • Unwanted sound is an irritant and a source of stress.
  • Industrial and construction activities, machinery, factory equipment, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills cause noise.

Control of Environmental Degradation

Every Litre of wastewater discharged by our industry pollutes eight times the quantity of fresh water.
To reduce industrial water pollution, the following steps can be taken:

  • minimizing the use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages.
  • harvesting rainwater to meet water requirements.
  • treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds.

Industrial effluents can be treated in three phases:

  • Primary treatment by mechanical means- this involves screening, grinding, flocculation and sedimentation,
  • Secondary treatment by biological process.
  • Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical processes.
  • This involves recycling of wastewater.

NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

Example 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Overdrawing of groundwater reserves by industry where there is a threat to groundwater resources also needs to be regulated Legally. Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smokestacks to factories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial separators. Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories. Machinery and equipment can be used and generators should be fitted with silencers. Almost all machinery can be redesigned to increase energy efficiency and reduce noise. Noise absorbing material may be used apart from personal use of earplugs and earphones. The challenge of sustainable development requires the integration of economic development with environmental concerns.
(A) Which of the following types of pollution is caused by generators?
(a) Water pollution
(b) Air Pollution
(c) Noise Pollution
(d) Land Pollution
Answer:
(c) Noise Pollution

(B) Which of the following devices can be used in a way to reduce smoke?
(a) Silencers
(b) Rainwater Harvesting
(c) Smoke Stacks
(d) Earplugs and Earphones
Answer:
(c) Smoke Stacks
Explanation: Smokestacks can be used in a way to reduce smoke.

(C) Define sustainable development.
Answer:
Sustainable development can be defined as an approach to the economic development of a country without compromising the quality of the environment for future generations.

(D) Assertion (A): Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories.
Reason (R): Oil and Gas are sources of clean energy. Burning these do not emit smoke.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Important:

  • NTPC is a major power-providing corporation in India. It has ISO certification for EMS (Environment Management System) 14001.
  • The NTPC works for preserving the natural environment and resources like water, oil and gas and fuels in places where it is setting up power plants.

This has been possible through:

  • Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment.
  • Maximum ash utilisation: This can help in less waste generation.
  • Provision of green belts: This nurtures ecological balance and addresses the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation.
  • Reduction of environmental pollution: Ash pond management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management helps reduce pollution and environmental degradation.
  • Ecological monitoring: This reviews and online database management for all its power stations.

Following are the steps for conserving the environment:

  1. Overdrawing of groundwater reserves by industry should be regulated.
  2. Smoke stacks should be fit in the factories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial separators to reduce particulate matter in the air.
  3. Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of conventional forms of energy in factories.
  4. Machinery, equipment and generators should be fitted with silencers.
  5. Machinery should be redesigned to increase energy efficiency and reduce noise.
  6. In addition to using earplugs, noise-absorbing materials can be built-in constructing infrastructure.
    The challenge of sustainable development requires the integration of economic development with environmental concerns.

→ Agglomeration: The act of amassing/assembling various parts.

→ Coir: Coarse fiber from the outer husk of coconut.

→ Haulage: Commercial transport of goods.

→ Khandsari: A term in hindi for cooked sugar.

→ Pig iron: Crude iron obtained by smelting iron ore in a blast furnace.

→ Cryolite: A mineral consisting of a fluoride of sodium and aluminum.

→ NTPC: Major power providing corporation of India.

NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Notes Manufacturing Industries

→ Green Revolution: A movement with great increase in production of food grains due to the introduction of high-yielding varieties, began in the mid 20th century.

→ Quarry: Deep pits from which stone or other materials are extracted.

→ 1854: First Textile Mill was established in Mumbai. 1859: First Jute Mill was established at Rishra.

→ 1904: Cement Plant was established in Chennai.

→ 2004: India became the largest producer of Crude steel. 2005: National Jute policy was implemented.

Class 10 Social Science Notes

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

Online Education for Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

Here we are providing Online Education for Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6 was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-science/

Online Education for Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Physical and Chemical Changes

Physical And Chemical Changes Class 7 Worksheet With Answers Question 1.
Why is cutting of paper a physical change?
Answer:
Because properties of paper do not change on cutting.

Physical And Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions With Answers Question 2.
A piece of chalk becomes powdery on pressing. Which type of change is it?
Answer:
Physical.

Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 3.
What is freezing mixture?
Answer:
A mixture of ice and common salt.

Class 7 Physical And Chemical Changes Extra Questions Question 4.
What happens when water is heated?
Answer:
It gets converted into vapours.

Chapter 6 Science Class 7 Extra Questions Question 5.
What are physical properties?
Answer:
Properties such as shape, size, colour and state of a substance are called its physical properties.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

Class 7 Science Ch 6 Extra Questions Question 6.
In which type of change, no new substance is formed?
Answer:
Physical change.

Physical And Chemical Changes Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 7.
Write equation for burning of magnesium ribbon.
Answer:
Magnesium (Mg) + Oxygen (O2) → Magnesium Oxide (MgO)

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 8.
Which type of change is explosion of a firework?
Answer:
Chemical change.

Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Extra Questions And Answers Question 9.
What happens if a cut apple is kept open for a while?
Answer:
The open surface acquires a brown colour.

Questions On Physical And Chemical Changes Class 7 Question 10.
Write the necessary conditions for rusting.
Answer:
Presence of water vapour and air.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

Ncert Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 11.
Is melting of ice a chemical change? Give reason.
Answer:
No. When ice melts into water, no new substance is formed. Only the physical form of ice is changed. So, it is not a chemical change.

Physical And Chemical Changes Extra Questions Question 12.
What happens when a hack-saw blade is heated?
Answer:
When a hack-saw blade is heated, it becomes red in colour. It starts emitting light.

Physical And Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions Question 13.
What happens when magnesium oxide is dissolved in water? Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer:
On dissolving magnesium oxide in water, magnesium hydroxide is produced.
This chemical change can be written in the form of the following equation :
Magnesium oxide (MgO) + Water (H2O) → Magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)].

Extra Questions Of Physical And Chemical Changes Class 7 Question 14.
Write two importances of chemical changes.
Answer:

  1. Extraction of all metals requires chemical changes.
  2. Useful new materials, such as plastics and detergents, are produced by chemical reactions.

Class 7 Chapter 6 Science Extra Questions Question 15.
Why is it advised not to play with fireworks?
Answer:
Explosion of a firework is a chemical change. Such an explosion produces heat, light, sound and harmful gases that pollute the atmosphere. That is why it is advised not to play with fireworks.

Chemical Substances And Processes Class 7 Extra Questions Question 16.
What is stainless steel?
Answer:
Stainless steel is an alloy of iron which does not rust, hence the name stainless steel. It is made by mixing iron with carbon and metals like chromium, nickel and manganese.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

Extra Questions On Physical And Chemical Changes Class 7 Question 17.
What happens when iron nail is dipped into copper sulphate solution?
Answer:
The blue colour solution of copper sulphate changes into a green coloured solution. The change of colour of the solution front blue to green is due to the formation of iron\ sulphate, a new substance. The brown substance \deposit on the iron nail is copper, another new substance. We can write the reaction as :
Copper Sulphate solution (blue) + Iron → Jkon Sulphate solution (green) + Copper (brown deposit).

Class 7 Science Physical And Chemical Changes Extra Questions Question 18.
What happens when carbon dioxide is passed through lime water? Give chemical equation.
Answer:
When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, calcium carbonate is formed, which makes lime water milky. The turning of lime water milky is a standard test of presence of carbon dioxide.
Carbon dioxide (CO2) + Lime water [Ca(OH)2] → Calcium Carbonate (CaCO3 + Water (H2O).

Science Class 7 Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 19.
What does ozone do for us?
Answer:
It protects us from the harmful ultraviolet radiations which come from the sun. Ozone absorbs this radiation and breaks down to oxygen. If ultraviolet radiations were not absorbed by ozone, they would reach the earth’s surface and cause harm to us and other life forms. Ozone acts as a natural shield against these radiations.

Class 7th Science Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 20.
Why has a fraction of ships iron to be replaced every year?
Answer:
Ships are made of iron and a part of them remains underwater. On the part above water also, water drops keep clinging to the ship’s outer surface. Moreover, the water of the sea contains many salts. The saltwater makes the process of rust formation faster. Therefore, ships suffer a lot of damage from rusting in spite of being painted. So much so, that a fraction of ship’s iron has to be replaced every year.

Question 21.
What happens when baking soda is added to vinegar and the resulting gas is passed through lime water?
Answer:
On adding baking soda to vinegar, a hissing sound is heard and bubbles are seen coming out. When this gas is passed through lime water, it turns milky.
The change in the test tube is as follows :
Vinegar (Acetic acid) + Baking soda (Sodium hydrogen carbonate) → Carbon dioxide + other substances

The reaction between carbon dioxide and lime water is as follows :
Carbon dioxide (CO2) + Lime water [Ca(OH)2] → Calcium Carbonate (CaCO3) + Water (H2O)
When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, calcium carbonate is formed, which makes lime water milky. The turning of lime water milky is a standard test of carbon dioxide.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

Question 22.
Make a list of ten changes you have noticed around you.
Answer:

  • lighting of bulb
  • moving of fan
  • sound produced by radio
  • changing of day and night
  • changing of the shape of the moon
  • changing of size of the puppy
  • blooming of flowers
  • melting of ice
  • vaporisation of water
  • lightning.

Question 23.
When a candle burns, both physical and chemical changes take place. Identify these changes. Give another example of a familiar process in which both the chemical and physical changes take place.
Answer:
Physical changes: The wax of the candle first melts, then vaporises and burns.
Melting of wax is a physical change since molten wax can be solidified back to the wax and there is no new substance formed.

Chemical changes: When wax vapours burn, smoke and carbon dioxide are formed which are new substances. So, it is a chemical change.

Example: Lightning torch bulb using dry cell is another example where both physical and chemical changes take place.

The lighting of the bulb is physical change since no new substance is formed there. The current from the dry cell is obtained by the chemical substances inside it. Here, the chemicals in the cell react with each other and produce light substances and hence the cell ultimately becomes useless. So, it is a chemical change.

Question 24.
How would you show that setting of curd is a chemical change?
Answer:
When soipe sour substance is added to milk or kept overnight, it turns into curd. The curd in no way can be converted into milk. Curd is a different substance than milk. So, formation of curd is a chemical change.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

Question 25.
Explain why burning of wood and cutting it into small pieces are considered as two different types of changes.
Answer:
Burning of wood produces ash and smoke. Hence the properties of wood are changed and new substances are formed. So, it is a chemical change.

When a log of wood is cut into small pieces, no new substance is formed there. Each small piece bears the properties of wood. So, it is a physical change.

Question 26.
Describe how crystals of copper sulphate are prepared.
Answer:
A cupful of water is taken in a beaker and a few drops of dilute sulphuric acid are added into it. The water is heated. When it starts boiling copper sulphate powder is added slowly while stirring continuously. Copper sulphate powder is added continuously till no more powder can be dissolved. The solution is filtered and allowed to cool down. Crystals of copper sulphate slowly form at the bottom of the beaker.

Question 27.
Describe how crystals of copper sulphate are prepared.
Answer:
A cupful of water is taken in a beaker and a few drops of dilute sulphuric acid are added into it. The water is heated. When it starts boiling copper sulphate powder is added slowly while stirring continuously. Copper sulphate powder is added continuously till no more powder can be dissolved. The solution is filtered and allowed to cóol down. Crystals of copper sulphate slowly form at the bottom of the beaker.
Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6 1

Question 28.
Explain how painting1of an iron gate prevents it from rusting
Answer:
For rusting, iron must be In contact with both air and moisture. When iron gate is painted, the layer of paint cuts the contact between air, moisture and iron. Thus, it prevents rusting.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

Question 29.
Explain why rusting of iron objects is faster in coastal areas than in deserts.
Answer:
In coastal areas, there is more moisture in air due to the presence of sea. But in deserts, there is a scarcity of water and hence air is almost dry there. Both air and moisture are necessary conditions for rusting. So, rusting is faster in coastal areas than in deserts.

Question 30.
Describe two changes that are harmful. Explain why you consider them harmful? How can you prevent them?
Answer:
(i) Rusting: If a piece of iron is left in open for some time, it acquires a film of brownish substance. This substance is called rust and the process is called rusting.
Rusting is harmful because it destroys the iron objects. Iron is the most widely used metal and so rusting is such a serious problem. Prevention of rusting: Rusting can be prevented by preventing iron particles from coming in contact with oxygen, or water, or both.

  • One simple way is to apply a coat of paint or grease. In fact, these coats should be applied regularly to prevent rusting.
  • Another way is galvanisation, i.e., to deposit a layer of a metal like chromium or zinc on. iron.

(ii) Spoilage of food: Food items when kept carelessly, get spoiled. This is a chemical change and obviously harmful for us. Food is spoiled by microorganisms.

Prevention of food spoilage: Microorganisms do not survive at high or low temperatures. So, food items stored in refrigerator do not spoil. Also we should keep them covered so that microorganisms do not get any chance to enter and spoil them.

Question 31.
Prepare crystals of alum.
Answer:
A cupful of water is taken in a beaker and a few drops of dilute sulphuric acid are added into it. The water is heated. When it starts boiling alum powder is added slowly while stirring continuously. Alum powder is added continuously till no more powder can be dissolved. The solution is filtered and allowed to cool down. Crystals of alum slowly form at the bottom of the beaker.
Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6 2

Question 32.
Collect information about the types of fuels used for cooking in your area. Discuss with your teachers /parents? others which fuels are less polluting and why?
Answer:
The different fuels used for cooking are wood, charcoal, cow-dung cak&, kerosene, biogas, LPG, etc.
Among all these, biogas and LPG are least polluting. Both of these burn completely and do not give smoke. Also, they do not leave any residue (ash, unburnt part, etc.) after burning. So, these fuels are less polluting.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

Experiment:

Aim: To make crystals of copper sulphate from its powder.
Requirements: Beaker, burner, tripod stand, wire gauge, spoon, copper sulphate powder, water, filter paper, funnel, stand.

Procedure :

  • The beaker is half-filled with water.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6 3

  • It is placed over the burner with the help of tripod stand and wire gauge.
  • The burner is lighted.
  • When the water starts boiling, copper sulphate powder is added into it and stirred.
  • Powder is added continuously till no more powder dissolve further.
  • The solution is filtered.
  • The filtrate is kept undisturbed and allowed to cool down.

Observation: Crystals of copper sulphate get deposited at the bottom of the beaker.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. When you cut a piece of paper into four square pieces, which of the following happens?
(i) There is a change in property of paper.
(ii) The paper can’t be got back by any method.
(iii) Change in physical properties takes place like shape and size.
(iv) None of the above.
Answer:
(iii) Change in physical properties takes place like shape and size.

2. When the paper is cut in pieces, what can be the changes?
(i) changes in shape and size
(ii) changes in state
(iii) changes in colour
(iv) changes in position
Answer:
(i) changes in shape and size.

3. The chalk can again be reversed from the chalk dust. Which type of change is this?
(i) Chemical change
(ii) Physical change
(iii) Both physical and chemical change
(iv) None of these.
Answer:
(iii) Both physical and chemical change.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

4. On placing a mixture of ice and water in a freezer, water becomes solid ice once again. This type of change is called a :
(i) physical change
(ii) chemical change
(iii) periodic change
(iv) none of these.
Answer:
(i) physical change.

5. Hold an inverted pan by its handle over the steam at some distance from the boiling water. Observe the inner surface of the pan. What will you find?
(i) Entrapped steam.
(ii) Condensed water droplets at the surface.
(iii) Water vapours stuck to surface.
(iv) None of these.
Answer:
(ii) Condensed water droplets at the surface.

6. Steam get converted back to water by the process of :
(i) evaporation
(ii) condensation
(iii) sublimation
(iv) vaporisation.
Answer:
(ii) condensation.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

7. When the tip of the hack-saw blade is kept on the flame, what changes occur?
(i) Change in shape
(ii) Change in state
(iii) Change in colour
(iv) Chemical change
Answer:
(iii) Change in colour.

8. When it (hack-saw blade) is cooled, what happens?
(i) It gets back to its original colour.
(ii) Its colour faints a bit.
(iii) It becomes extra dark in colour.
(iv) It becomes colourless.
Answer:
(i) It gets back to its original colour.

9. A physical change is generally :
(i) irreversible
(ii) reversible
(iii) change in composition of the object
(iv) none of these.
Answer:
(ii) reversible.

10. When magnesium is burnt in air with a brilliant white light, it forms :
(i) magnesium carbonate
(ii) magnesium hydroxide
(iii) magnesium oxide
(iv) magnesium cyanide.
Answer:
(iii) magnesium oxide.

11. When magnesium oxide is mixed with small quantity of water, it forms magnesium hydroxide, which is a/an :
(i) acid
(ii) base
(iii) salt
(iv) none of these.
Answer:
(ii) base.

12. Magnesium hydroxide, formed by dissolving magnesium oxide in water turns :
(i) red litmus blue
(ii) blue litmus red
(iii) red litmus green
(iv) no change.
Answer:
(i) red litmus blue.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

13. Formula of magnesium oxide is :
(i) MgO2
(ii) MgO
(iii) MnO
(iv)MnO2.
Answer:
(ii) MgO.

14. Formulh of magnesium hydroxide is
(i) Mg(OH)2
(ii) MgOH
(iii) Mn(OH)2
(iv) MnOH.
Answer:
(i) Mg(OH)2.

15. The colour of copper sulphate solution is :
(i) blue
(ii) green
(iii) grey
(iv) brown.
Answer:
(i) blue.

16. The colour of iron sulphate solution is :
(i) blue
(ii) green
(iii) black
(iv) brown.
Answer:
(ii) green.

17. A few drops of dilute sulphuric acid are added into a solution of copper sulphate and a blade is put into it. The brown deposit on the shaving blade is :
(i) deposit of iron
(ii) deposit of iron rust
(iii) deposit of sulphur
(iv) deposit of copper.
Answer:
(iv) deposit of copper.

18. The change in the colour of copper sulphate solution, when blade is left in it for some time, is due to :
(i) reaction of copper sulphate with iron (blade)
(ii) reaction of sulphuric acid with iron (blade)
(iii) reaction of copper sulphate with sulphuric acid
(iv) none of these.
Answer:
(i) reaction of copper sulphate with iron (blade).

19. The end products of the reaction of copper sulphate solution and iron is/are :
(i) iron sulphate solution
(ii) copper
(iii) both iron sulphate solution and copper
(iv) copper and sulphuric acid.
Answer:
(iii) both iron sulphate solution and copper.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

20. When a pinch of baking soda is added to a teaspoonful of vinegar, you would hear a hissing sound and see bubbles of a gas coming out. What reaction took place?
(i) Acetic acid + Sodium carbonate → Carbon dioxide + Other substances.
(ii) Acetic acid + Sodium hydrogen carbonate → Carbon dioxide + Other substances.
(iii) Acetic acid + Sodium hydrogen carbonate → Oxygen + other substances.
(iv) Acetic acid + Sodium carbonate → Oxygen + Other substances.
Answer:
(ii) Acetic acid + Sodium hydrogen carbonate → Carbon dioxide + Other substances.

21. On passing the gas evolved in the above-mentioned experiment through a solution of lime water, it turns milky. It is due to the formation of :
(i) calcium carbonate
(ii) calcium bicarbonate
(iii) calcium oxide
(iv) calcium hydroxide.
Answer:
(i) calcium carbonate.

22. Galvanisation is process of coating iron with for preventing rusting.
(i) paint
(ii) nickel
(iii) zinc
(iv) cadmium
Answer:
(iii) zinc.

Keywords:

→ Chemical change: The change in which substance(s) undergoes a change in their chemical properties or composition or both is called chemical change. Here, a new substance is formed.

→ Chemical reaction: It is a process, which changes the chemical properties or composition or both of substances.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 6

→ Crystallisation: The process of making large crystals of pure substances from their solution is known as crystallisation.

→ Galvanisation: The process of depositing a layer of zinc on iron is called galvanisation.

→ Physical change: A change in which a substance undergoes a change in its physical properties is called a physical change. This change may be reversible. Here, no new substance is formed.

→ Rusting: The process of corrosion of iron is known as rusting.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science

Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Marginalisation

Online Education for Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Marginalisation

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Marginalisation Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Online Education for Understanding Marginalisation Class 8 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 7

Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
How is a city different from the village?
Answer:
A city is much bigger than a village and more spread opt? It has crowded markets, many cars and buses, water and electrical facilities, traffic control and hospitals. The village may or may not have some of these facilities. In the milage, we can see bullock carts, agricultural fields and grazing areas for the animals.

Understanding Marginalisation Class 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
What is the difference between a Municipal Corporation and a Municipal Council?
Answer:
The Municipal Corporations work in big cities and Municipal Councils work in small towns.

Understanding Marginalisation Class 8 Extra Questions Question 3.
How are the members of the Municipal Corporation elected?
Answer:
The members of the Municipal Corporation are elected by the people. The city is divided into different wards and ward councillors get elected by the people.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Marginalisation

Class 8 Civics Ch 7 Extra Questions Question 4.
Who implements the decisions of the Municipal Corporation?
Answer:
The Municipal Commissioner and the administrative staff implement these issues. The Commissioner and the administrative staff are..appointed by the state government. He is always a civil servant and is appointed by the state government.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 5.
Why did the Municipal Corporation suggest to sort the garbage?
Answer:
When the people sort out their garbage, it helps the Municipal Corporation to keep the streets clean.

Understanding Marginalisation Extra Questions Question 6.
What is a tax?
Answer:
A tax is a sum of money that people pay to the government for the services the government provides.

Understanding Marginalisation Class 8 Questions And Answers Question 7.
What is a property tax?
Answer:
People who own homes pay property tax. The larger the house the more the taxes.

Ncert Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 8.
Explain the term ‘privatisation’.
Answer:
This means that the work that was earlier being done by government workers is now being done by a private company.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Marginalisation

Ncert Solutions For Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
Why have the Municipalities hired private contractors to collect and process garbage?
Answer:
The contract workers are paid less and their job is temporary.

Chapter 7 Civics Class 8 Extra Questions Question 10.
Why is the collection of garbage a dangerous job?
Answer:
Collection of garbage is a dangerous job because the contract workers do not have any access to safety measures and are not taken care of if they are injured while working.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The Municipal Corporation belongs to :
(a) a small city
(b) a big city
(c) a small village
(d) a big village
Answer:
(b) a big city.

2. Which one of the following refers to the Municipal’ Council?
(а) An organisation in a small town that takes care of street lights, garbage collection, water supply, etc.
(b) An organisation in a big city that takes care of street lights, water supply, etc.
(c) An advisory committee to the District Magistrate
(d) An administrative body at the village level.
Answer:
(а) An organisation in a small town that takes care of street lights, garbage collection, water supply, etc.

3. Who decide on issues in Municipal Corporation?
(а) The Councillors Committees
(b) The Councillors
(c) The member of the Gram Sabha
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

Class 8 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Understanding Marginalisation

4. Who implements the decisions in the Municipal Corporation?
(a) The Commissioner
(b) The administrative staff
(c) Members of the Panchayat Samiti
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

5. Who are the appointed staff in the Municipal Corporation?
(a) The Councillors
(b) The Commissioner
(c) The administrative staff
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

6. Which one of the following refers to a tax?
(a) A sum of money that people pay to the government as donation
(b) A sum of money that people pay to the government for the services provided by the government
(c) A sum of money that people have to give as dowry
(d) Government’s monetary assistance to the farmers
Answer:
(b) A sum of money that people pay to the government for the services provided by the government.

7. Which of the following departments is under the Municipal Corporation?
(a) The Water Department
(b) The Sanitation Department
(c) A department to look after gardens
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

8. Which one of the following refers to subcontracting?
(а) The work done by government workers
(b) The work that was earlier being done by government workers is now being done by a private company
(c) The work done by very big contractors’
(d) The work done by small contractors
Answer:
(b) The work that was earlier being done by government workers is now being done by a private company.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

Online Education for Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-social-science/

Online Education for Drainage Class 9 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 3

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Where term the Brahmaputra originates?
Answer:
From Tibet.

Drainage Class 9 Extra Questions Question 2.
In which direction does the Brahmaputra flow?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra flows in eastward direction parallel to the Himalayas.

Extra Questions For Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Drainage Question 3.
Whaf does the Brahmaputra do in Namcha Barwa ?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra reaching Namcha Barwa takes a U-tum and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 4.
What is a river basin?
Answer:
A river basin is meant by the area which is drained by a single river system. This a also known as drainage basin.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

Extra Questions For Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Question 5.
Name two saltwater lakes on the eastern coast of India.
Answer:

  1. The Chilka – in Orissa.
  2. The Pulicat – in Tamil Nadu.

Drainage Extra Questions Question 6.
In which states does the Brahmaputra flow in India?
Answer:

  • Arunachal Pradesh,
  • Assam.

Class 9 Drainage Extra Questions Question 7.
By which name Brahmaputra is known in Tibet?
Answer:
Tsangpo.

Ncert Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 8.
Name the city located on the water divide between the Indus and Ganga.
Answer:
Ambatal.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Short Questions And Answers Question 9.
By which name the mainstream of Ganga is known in Bangladesh?
Answer:
Padma.

Class 9 Geo Ch 3 Extra Questions Question 10.
When is the Ganga known as Tainuna?
Answer:
In Bangladesh where the Brahmaputra joins the Ganga, it is known as Jamuna.

Drainage System Class 11 Extra Questions Question 11.
Where does the Jhelum fall into the Indus?
Answer:
A little over Mithankot.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

Extra Questions Of Drainage Class 9 Question 12.
What is meant by the dendritic pattern of streams?
Answer:
The dendritic pattern of streams indicates the streams resembling like the branches of a tree.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Questions And Answers Question 13.
What is meant by the trellis?
Answer:
Trellis indicates the situation where the tributaries join the mainstream at the right angles.

Class 9 Geography Ch 3 Extra Questions Question 14.
What is meant by a braided stream?
Answer:
The braided stream is channel of a stream that has large island within it.

Geography Class 9 Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 15.
What is meant by island drainage?
Answer:
Island drainage refers to die rivers not reaching a ocean. Instead, they fall into a sea or lake within the land.

Class 9 Chapter 3 Geography Extra Questions Question 16.
From which glacier does the Yamuna originate?
Answer:
Yamunotri.

Geography Chapter 3 Class 9 Questions And Answers Question 17.
Name the largest peninsular river of India.
Answer:
Godavari.

Chapter 3 Geography Class 9 Extra Questions Question 18.
Name the tributaries of die river Krishana.
Answer:

  • The Tungabhadra,
  • The Koyna,
  • The Ghatprabha,
  • The Musi,
  • The Bhima.

Ch 3 Drainage Extra Questions And Answers Question 19.
Name the states which fall, into the drainage basin of the Narmada
Answer:

  • Maharashtra,
  • Karnataka,
  • Andhra Pradesh.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

Geography Chapter 3 Class 9 Extra Questions Question 20.
Which river originates from the Brahmagir range of the Western Ghats?
Answer:
The Kaveri.

Question 21.
Why are the peninsular rivers seasonal?
Answer:
They are seasonal because their flow depends on die rainfall.
Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage 1
Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage 2
Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage 3

Question 22.
Point out the prominent features of the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.
Answer:

  • It is the largest delta of die world.
  • It is one of the most fertile areas of the world.
  • It is a triangular-shaped area.
  • It is a well-watered area.
  • The lower part of this delta is marshy.
  • Mangroves are found only in this place of the whole India.

Question 23.
How Would you differentiate between a glacier and a river?
Answer:

The Glacier The River
1. Glaciers are in the solid form. 1. Rivers are in liquid form.
2. Glaciers look like a mountain of ice. 2. Rivers may be seen flowing.
3. Glaciers move very slowly. 3. Rivers move with a greater speed.
4. The movement of a glacier is not discernible. 4. The movement of a river is easily discernible.

Question 24.
How the lakes are formed?
Answer:

  • Lakes are formed in the mountainous area when the glaciers block the valleys and large amount of water is collected in that place.
  • The violent movements of the earth, like the earthquakes, also create lakes when the depressions formed on the crust of the earth are filled with rainwater.
  • Human beings also form lakes, for various purposes.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

Question 25.
What is meant by the Indus water treaty?
Answer:
Indus water treaty is a treaty between India and Pakistan. This treaty is about the- sharing of the waters of the Indus system. According to this treaty, India can use only 20% of the total of the water carried by the Indus river system.

Question 26.
Name the states through whicn the river Mahanadi flows.
Answer:
The river Mahanadi flows through three states of India:

  1. It originates in Chattisgarh
  2. If falls in the Bay of, Bengal in Orissa.
  3. Hence it flows through Chattisgarh and Orissa Only.

Question 27.
Why are the rivers considered the lifelines of human civilisation?
Answer:
Rivers are undoubtedly the lifelines of the human civilisation. All the early: civilisations whether in India, Mesopotamia, Egypt or in China, flourished in the river valleys. The Harappan culture of India flourished in the Indus valley. The Egyptian civilization flourished in the Nile valley and the Mesopotamian in the valleys of the Tigris and Euphrates.

It is a well-known fact that the rivers provide us water Without water, one can not imagine life. Hence it is a very natural tendency to stay and live by the sides of the river and their nearby areas. So that water heed for drinking and cultivation etc could be fulfilled easily.

Question 28.
What do you mean by the drainage?
Answer:
Drainage is an outcome of the evolutionary process of the broad relief features of the country. It is meant by the river system of an area.

Question 29.
Answer the following questions:
(i) Three major rivers Originating beyond the Himalayas.
(ii) The source area of these rivers.
(iii) Point out the feature formed by these rivers.
Answer:
(i) Three major rivers originating beyond tire Himalayas are:

  • The Indus,
  • The Satluj,
  • The Brahmputra.

(ii) The source of the above rivers is Mansarovar near the Kailash.
(iii) Gorges, Canyons, U-shaped valleys.

Question 30.
Write a few lines on the Ganga.
Answer:
The Ganga river originates from the Gangotri glacier in the Himalayas. After crossing through India and Bangladesh, it falls in the Bay of Bengal. It is of nearly 2500 km. length. The main tribu taries of Ganga are the Yamuna, Gomut, Ghagra, gandak and Kosi. The southern tributaries of the Ganga are Son. Chambel, Betwa and Kosi.

Question 31.
Which are the important peninsular rivers of India?
Or
Give a brief account of the different peninsular rivers of India.
Answer:
The Narmada: If rises from Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh. It flows west-southward in a trough for a distance about 1300 km. The Narmada gorge in the marble rocks of Madhya Pradesh is very famous for its beauty.

The Tapi: It rises from the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. It flows in a trough parallel to the Narmada. However, it is smaller in size than that of the Narmada: The Godavari: It is also known as the Dakshin Ganga and Vridha Ganga.

It is the largest among the peninsular rivers of India. It rises in Nashik district of Maharashtra. Its length is about 15000 km. It drains into the Bay of Bengal.

The Mahanadi: It rises ill Chattisgarh and flows through Orissa and reaches the Bay of Bengal.

The Krishna: It rises from the spring near Mahabaleshwar. If flows-for nearly about 1400 km. Its drainage basin is shared by Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

The Kaveri: It rises in the Brahmagir ranges of the Western Ghats. If flows over 800 km. Near the Kaveripatnam, it reaches the Bay of Bengal.

Question 32.
What is the reason of the water pollution? How the pollution level can be reduced?
Or
Suggest some measures to reduce the pollution of water.
Answer:
Water pollution indicates that the water is not pure and safe for the health. Today, many factors are causing the water pollution; It is very dangerous for health as well as for tire environment. The large number of the dead fishes found in Yamuna at Agra proved it.

Factories, especially the chemical industries, paper mills, sugar mills, tanneries etc are causing the water to be polluted. The disposal of sewage of urban areas into the rivers also lead to this pollution. As for example, the Najafgarh Nala in Delhi may be taken.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

Question 33.
What is meant by a lake? Introduce some of the important lakes of India.
Or
How are the lakes useful for us?
Or
Point out the importance of lakes.
Answer:
A large low lying depression in the earth filled with water is called a lake. A lake may be natural or artificial that is, human-made Lakes may be in the hill areas as well as in the plain.

Importance of the Lakes

  • Lakes help us in drainage.
  • These are the beauties attracting the tourists.
  • These are important for nature and protecting the natural beauty.
  • Lakes are also important for the economy of a country.
  • They are used for boating and fishing.
  • They provide the opportunities for recreation.

Reduction in water (low due to ever-increasing abstraction of water for irrigation from the river Ganga through canals.

Question 34.
Point out the achievements of the Ganga Action Plan.
Answer:

  • Mainly 260 schemes have been launched in the Ganga Action Plan.
  • Nearly 45 of them have been completed with positive results.
  • Trees have been planted in badly, eroded portions to check the dams repuned in the upper reaches of the river.
  • The interception and diversion of several major drains carrying savage and the industrial wastes to the river Ganga have been completed in several cities like Varanasi Kanpur and Patna.
  • It has reduced the pollution level substantially.
  • Turtles and the Gangetic dolphins which had been disappeared for several years reappeared in Varanasi and the other places.,
  • All of the above points indicate the recovery of the health of the Ganga.

Hence though the Ganga Action Plan has miles to go it have no doubt achieved several landmark achievements.

Question 35.
Give an account of the drainage of the surface water of India.
Answer:

  • Two-third of the total surface water of India drains into the Bay of Bengal.
  • About 20% of the surface water drains into the Arabian Sea.
  • A little less than 10% drain to form part of the inland drainage of Rajasthan desert and Aksai Chain.
  • Nearly 1% drains to the Andaman Sea through the tributaries of the Irrawaddy in Myanmar.

Question 36.
Write a detailed note on the Indus River System.
Answer:
The river Indus rises in Tibet, near Lake Mansarovar. Flowing west, it enters India in the Ladakh district of Jammu and Kashmir through a picturesque gorge. Several tributaries, the Zaskar, the Shyok and the Huzana, join it in this region. It flows through Baltistan and Gilgit and emerges from the mountains at Attack.

The famous five rivers of Punjab-the Satluj; the Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab and the Jhelum-enter.the Indus is a little above Mithankol in Pakistan. Beyond this, the Indus flows southwards eventually reaching the Arabian Sea, east of Karachi. The total length of the river is about 2900Jem, ranking it amongst the longest rivers of the world. A little over a third of the Indus basin is located in India in the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and the Punjab and the rest is in Pakistan.

Question 37.
What do you know about the Brahmaputra rivers System?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra rises in Tibet east of Mansarovar lake very close to the sources of the Indus and the Satluj. In Tibet, it is called the Tscmgpo. It is slightly longer than the Indus, and most of its course lies outside India. It flows eastwards parallel to the Himalayas to its south.

On reaching the mountain peak the Namcha Barwa (7757 m), it takes a ‘U’ turn and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a gorge. Here it is called the Dihang and it is joined by the Dibang, the Lohit the Kenula and many other tributaries to form the Brahmaputra in Assam.

In Tibet the river carries a smaller volume of water and less silt as if is a comparatively dry area. In India, it passes through a region, which receives a huge amount of rainfall. As a result, the river carries a large volume of water and considerable amount of silt. The Brahmaputra has a braided channel in its entire length in Assam, with many riverine islands.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) before the correct sentences and (✗) before the incorrect sentences.

(i) Of the 260 schemes of the Ganga Action plan, 45 have been completed with positive result
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) The Kaveri raises from Amarkantak,
Answer:
(✗)

(iii) India has comparatively a few natural lakes.
Answer:
(✓)

(iv) Over two-thirds of the surface water of India drains into the Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
(✓)

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

(v) Aksai Chin is in Uttaranchal.
Answer:
(✗)

(vi) The Krishana is famous as the Vridha Ganga.
Answer:
(✗)

(vii) The Chilka lake is a large lagoon.
Answer:
(✓)

(viii) The rising pollution of Ganga became a cause of concern during 1970 and 1980s.
Answer:
(✓).

2. Fill in the blanks with suitable words.

(i) The Mahanadi rises from ………………… .
Answer:
Chattisgarh

(ii) The Krisha flows for about ……………….. Km.
Answer:
1400

(iii) Where the sweet water mixes with the saltwater of ocean is known as ………………… .
Answer:
estuaries

(iv) The ………………… basin is shared by Kerala, Karnataka and Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Kaveri,

(v) Aksai chin is in ………………… .
Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir.

3. Match the following two lists.

List I List II
(i) Bhima Farakka
(ii) Godavari Krishna,
(iii) Rajasthan Nashik
(iv) Kaveri 800 Km.
(v) Loktak Inland drainage
(vi) Ganga Manipur.

Answer:

List I List II
(i) Bhima Krishna
(ii) Godavari Nashik
(iii) Rajasthan Inland drainage
(iv) Kaveri 800 Km.
(v) Loktak Manipur
(vi) Ganga Farakka.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

4. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) The river Indus rise from the following:
(a) Mansarovar
(b) Gangotri
(c) Nasik
(d) Mahabaleswar.
Answer:
(a) Mansarovar

(ii) The Ganga is also known as:
(a) Krishana
(b) Bhagirathi
(c) Narmada
(d) Kaveri.
Answer:
(b) Bhagirathi

(iii) The following is a peninsular rivers
(a) The Ganga
(b) The Tapi
(c) The Indus
(d) TheBrahmpaputra
Answer:
(b) The Tapi

(iv) The following is the largest peninsular river:
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Krishna
(c) Godawari
(d) Narmada.
Answer:
(c) Godawari

(v) The following is the range from where the river Tapi rises:
(a) Satpura
(b) Aravalli
(c) Vindhya
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Satpura.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Heat Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 4

Heat Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 4

Here we are providing Online Education for Heat Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 4 was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-science/

Online Education for Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Extra Questions and Answers Heat

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Heat Extra Questions Question 1.
What is a clinical thermometer?
Answer:
The thermometer that is used to measure human body temperature is called a clinical thermometer.

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 2.
How is degree Celsius denoted?
Answer:
°C.

Heat Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 3.
What is the range of a clinical thermometer?
Answer:
35°C to 42°C.

Heat Chapter Class 7 Pdf Questions And Answers Question 4.
What is the normal temperature of human body?
Answer:
The normal temperature of human body is 37°C.

Heat Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 4

Class 7 Heat Extra Questions Question 5.
Which gets hotter soon, land or water?
Answer:
Land.

Heat And Temperature Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 6.
Why is range of a clinical thermometer is chosen to be 35°C to 42°C?
Answer:
The clinical thermometer is designed to measure the temperature of human body only. The temperature of human body normally does not go below 35°C or above 42 GC. That is why the clinical thermometer has the range 35°C to 42°C.

Heat Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 7.
What caution do you suggest regarding a clinical thermometer?
Answer:
A clinical thermometer should not be used for measuring the temperature of any object other than the human body. Also, avoid keeping the thermometer in the sun or near a flame. It may break.

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Extra Questions And Answers Question 8.
Why should you wear white clothes in summer and black clothes in winter?
Answer:
Dark surfaces absorb more heat and, therefore, we feel comfortable with dark-coloured clothes in the winter. Light coloured clothes reflect most of the heat that falls on them and, therefore, we feel more comfortable wearing them in the summer.

Heat Extra Questions Class 7 Question 9.
Describe the construction of a clinical thermometer.
Answer:
A clinical thermometer consists of a long, narrow, uniform glass tube. It has a bulb at one end. This bulb contains mercury. Outside the bulb, a small shining thread of mercury can be seen. There is also a Celsius scale on the thermometer.

Ncert Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Extra Questions Question 10.
How do land and sea breezes blow?
Answer:
During the day, the land gets heated faster than the water. The air over the land becomes hotter and rises up. The cooler air from the sea rushes in towards the land to take its place. The air forms the sea breeze. The warm air from the land moves towards the sea to complete the cycle.

At night it is exactly the reverse. The water cools down more slowly than the land. So, the cool air from the land moves towards the sea. This forms the land breeze.

Heat Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 4

Heat Chapter Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 11.
Show the formation of land and sea breezes with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
Heat Chapter Class 7 Questions And Answers

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Extra Question Answer Question 12.
Boojho says, “My left hand tells me that the water in mug C is hot and the right-hand tells mc that the same water is cold. What should I conclude ?“
Answer:
Both conclusions are true relative to each hand. But a single conclusion cannot be drawn from the given information. This is all due to relative temperature.

Class 7 Science Ch 4 Extra Questions Question 13.
Boojho got a naughty idea. He wanted to measure the temperature of hot milk using a clinical thermometer. Paheli stopped him from doing so. Why?
Answer:
The clinical thermometer is designed to measure the human body temperature which ranges from 35CC to 42°C. Hot milk has a temperature range of 80°C to 100°C, which is quite high. This may break the thermometer because of abrupt mercury rise.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Heat Extra Questions Question 14.
Boojho wonders why the level of mercury should change at all when the bulb of the thermometer is brought in contact with another object?
Answer:
The temperature of other objects may not be the same as that of the bulb of the thermometer. When bulb is brought in contact with that object, the temperature of the bulls changes. So the level of mercury also changes.

Questions On Heat For Class 7 Question 15.
Can you lift a hot pan by holding it from the handle without getting hurt?
Answer:
Yes. If the handle is insulated with the help of a cloth or insulated material like plastic or wood, the pan can be lifted without getting hurt.

Class 7 Science Heat Extra Questions Question 16.
Do these activities suggest to you the reason why it more comfortable to wear white or light-coloured clothes in the summer and dark-coloured clothes in the winter?
Answer:
Dark surfaces absorb more heat and, therefore, we feel comfortable with dark coloured clothes in the winter. Light coloured clothes reflect most of the heat that falls on them and, therefore, we feel more comfortable wearing them in the summer.

Question 17.
Suppose you are given the choice in winter of using one thick blanket or two thin blankets joined together. What would
you choose and why?
Answer:
I would choose two thin bi anklets joined together. This is because there would be a layer of air in between the blankets. The trapped air, which is a bad conductor of heat, keeps it warmer.

Heat Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 4

Question 18.
State similarities and differences between the laboratory thermometer and the clinical thermometer.
Answer:
Similarities:
(i) Both use mercury
(ii) Both measure temperature.
Differences :
(i) The temperature on laboratory thermometer falls by itself, but it does not happen in clinical thermometer.
(ii) The range of laboratory thermometers is much higher than clinical thermometers.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Two large mugs are taken. These are labelled as A and B. Some hot water is put in mug A while some cold water is put in mug B. A boy dips his left hand in mug A and right hand in mug B. Now he interchanges i.e. he dips his right hand in mug A and left hand in mug B. Then :
(i) the water in the mug A will be felt hotter than before.
(ii) the water in the mug A will be felt colder than before.
(iii) the water in the mug B will be felt hotter than before.
(iv) in both the cases the temperature of water in mug ’A will be felt the same.
Answer:
(i) the water in the mug A will be felt hotter than before.

2. In the above experiment, the boy felt the water hot when he dips his hand in mug A. It is because :
(i) the temperature of the water was less than the temperature of his body.
(ii) the temperature of the water was more than the temperature of his body.
(iii) the temperature of the water was less than the temperature of the surroundings.
(iv) the temperature of the water was equal to the temperature of the surroundings.
Answer:
(ii) the temperature of the water was more than the temperature of his body.

3. Before using the thermometer, it is ensured that the level of mercury is below :
(i) 33°C
(ii) 34°C
(iii) 35°C
(iv) 36°C.
Answer:
(iii) 35°C.

Heat Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 4

4. The normal temperature of human body is :
(i) 35°C
(ii) 37°C
(iii) 36°C
(iv)38°C.
Answer:
(ii) 37°C.

5. To measure the temperature of his body, a boy performed the following steps :
(A) Washed the thermometer.
(B) Checked out whether the mercury level was below 35°C.
(C) Hold it firmly and gave few jerks so that the level of mercury fall down below 35°C.
(D) Placed the bulb of the thermometer below the tongue for five minutes.
(E) Took out the thermometer, and checked out the body temperature.
Answer:
(D) Placed the bulb of the thermometer below the tongue for five minutes.

Which of the above-mentioned step is wrong?
(i) A
(ii) B
(iii) C
(iv) D
Answer:
(iv) D.

6. The temperature of human body does not go above:
(i) 40°C
(ii) 38°C
(iii) 42°C
(iv) 44°C.
Answer:
(iii) 42°C.

7. The temperature range of a typical clinical thermometer is usually between :
(i) 32°C to 35°C
(ii) 34°C to 38°C
(iii) 35°C to 40°C
(iv) 35°C to 42°C.
Answer:
(iv) 35°C to 42°C.

Heat Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 4

8. The range of a laboratory thermometer is generally in between :
(i) – 20°C to 120°C
(ii) – 20°C to 110°C
(iii) – 10°C to 120°C
(iv) – 10°C to 110°C
Answer:
(iv) – 10°C to 110°C.

Q. 9. Which of the following pictures best describes the method of measuring temperature of water with a laboratory thermometer?
Answer:
Heat Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 4 2

10. What is the use of kink in a thermometer?
(i) It helps in measuring the temperature.
(ii) It prevents mercury level from falling on its own.
(iii) It stores mercury.
(iv)it controls the temperature.
Answer:
(ii) It prevents mercury level from falling on its own.

12. In solid, generally heat is transferred by the process of :
(i) conduction
(ii) convection
(iii) radiation
(iv) transmission.
Answer:
(i) conduction.

13. An iron rod is taken. Four pieces of wax say A, B, C and D are fixed on the rod from one end – all at equal distance to
one another. The rod is clamped to a stand. Now the other end of the rod is heated. Which piece of wax will fall first?
Heat Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 4 3
(i) A
(ii) B
(iii) C
(iv) D.
Answer:
(iv) D.

14. Which of the following substances is a conductor of heat?
(i) Plastic
(ii) Aluminium
(iii) Wood
(iv) Plywood.
Answer:
(ii) Aluminium.

15. Which of the following substances is an insulator of heat?
(i) Iron
(ii) Copper
(iii) Rubber
(iv) Bronze.
Answer:
(iii) Rubber.

Heat Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 4

16. Heat travels of:
(i) conduction
(ii) convection
(iii) radiation
(iv) insulation.
Answer:
(ii) convection.

17. When the air gets heated by convection :
(i) it rises upwards.
(ii) it moves sideways.
(iii) it rises upwards as well as mdves sideways.
(iv) it goes downwards.
Answer:
(i) it rises upwards.

18. In coastal area, land breeze blows during
(i) day
(ii) night
(iii) afternoon
(iv) both day and night .
Answer:
(ii) night.

19. Heat reaches to the earth from the sun by the process of :
(i) conduction
(ii) convection
(iii) radiation
(iv) insulation.
Answer:
(iii) radiation.

20. Which of the following surfaces is a good absorber of heat?
(i) Black
(ii) White
(iii) Shiny
(iv) Bright
Answer:
(i) Black.

21. Which of the following statements is true?
(i) All hot bodies radiate heat.
(ii) All hot bodies do not radiate heat.
(iii) Some hot bodies radiate heat while others do not.
(iv) Only black bodies radiate heat.
Answer:
(i) All hot bodies radiate heat.

Keywords:

→ Celsius scale: The temperature scale which defines the temperature of boiling water is 100 degrees and that of freezing water as 0 (zero) degrees.

→ Conduction: The process by which heat is transferred from the hotter end to the colder end of an object is known as conduction.

→ Conductor: The materials with allow neat to pass through them easily is called conductor of heat.

→ Convection: The process of transfer of he’ the molecules of a fluid from hot rear. to, cok vision called convection.

→ Insulators: A poor conductor is known as insulator.

→ Land breeze: The air from the land that moves towards the sea is called the land breeze,

→ Radiation: The process by which heat is transferred from one place to another without any medium is called radiation.

→ Sea breeze: The air that comes from the sea is called the sea breeze.

→ Temperature: A measure of the hotness of an object is its temperature.

→ Thermometer: The device by which temperature is measured is called thermometer.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science

Class 6 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Rural Administration

Online Education for Class 6 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Rural Administration

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 6 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Rural Administration was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-6-social-science/

Online Education for Rural Administration Class 6 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 6

I. Answer the following questions in about 30 words each. Each questions earliest works:

Rural Administration Class 6 Extra Questions Question 1.
How is a city different from the village?
Answer:
A city is much bigger than a village and more spread opt? It has crowded markets, many cars and buses, water and electrical facilities, traffic control and hospitals. The village may or may not have some of these facilities. In the milage, we can see bullock carts, agricultural fields and grazing areas for the animals.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
What is the difference between a Municipal Corporation and a Municipal Council?
Answer:
The Municipal Corporations work in big cities and Municipal Councils work in small towns.

Rural Administration Class 6 Worksheet With Answers Question 3.
How are the members of the Municipal Corporation elected?
Answer:
The members of the Municipal Corporation are elected by the people. The city is divided into different wards and ward councillors get elected by the people.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Key Rural Administration

Rural Administration Class 6 Questions Answers Question 4.
Who implements the decisions of the Municipal Corporation?
Answer:
The Municipal Commissioner and the administrative staff implement these issues. The Commissioner and the administrative staff are..appointed by the state government. He is always a civil servant and is appointed by the state government.

Rural Administration Class 6 Question 5.
Why did the Municipal Corporation suggest to sort the garbage?
Answer:
When the people sort out their garbage, it helps the Municipal Corporation to keep the streets clean.

Rural Administration Extra Questions Question 6.
What is a tax?
Answer:
A tax is a sum of money that people pay to the government for the services the government provides.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 7.
What is a property tax?
Answer:
People who own homes pay property tax. The larger the house the more the taxes.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Key Rural Administration

Rural Administration Class 6 Extra Questions Answers Question 8.
Explain the term ‘privatisation’.
Answer:
This means that the work that was earlier being done by government workers is now being done by a private company.

Class 6 Rural Administration Extra Questions Question 9.
Why have the Municipalities hired private contractors to collect and process garbage?
Answer:
The contract workers are paid less and their job is temporary.

Class 6 Civics Ch 6 Extra Questions Question 10.
Why is the collection of garbage a dangerous job?
Answer:
Collection of garbage is a dangerous job because the contract workers do not have any access to safety measures and are not taken care of if they are injured while working.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Key Rural Administration

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The Municipal Corporation belongs to :
(a) a small city
(b) a big city
(c) a small village
(d) a big village.
Answer:
(b) a big city

2. Which one of the following refers to the Municipal’ Council?
(а) An organisation in a small town that takes care of street lights, garbage collection, water supply, etc.
(b) An organisation in a big city that takes care of street lights, water supply, etc.
(c) An advisory committee to the District Magistrate
(d) An administrative body at the village level.
Answer:
(b) An organisation in a big city that takes care of street lights, water supply, etc.

3. Who decide on issues in Municipal Corporation?
(а) The Councillors Committees
(b) The Councillors
(c) The member of the Gram Sabha
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) The member of the Gram Sabha.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Key Rural Administration

4. Who implements the decisions in the Municipal Corporation?
(a) The Commissioner
(b) The administrative staff
(c) Members of the Panchayat Samiti
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(a) The Commissioner

5. Who are the appointed staff in the Municipal Corporation?
(a) The Councillors
(b) The Commissioner
(c) The administrative staff
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c).

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers How the State Government Works

Online Education for Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers How the State Government Works

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers How the State Government Works Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Online Education for How the State Government Works Class 7 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 3

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What do you mean by MLA?
Answer:
The members of legislative assembly is called MLA.

Chapter 3 Civics Class 7 Extra Questions Question 2.
Who becomes the Chief Minister of a State?
Answer:
The leader of the majority party becomes the Chief Minister of a State.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 3.
What is ORS packet?
Answer:
The ORS packet contains life-saving materials which can prepare oral rehydration solution’.

Ncert Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 4.
What does the word ‘government’ refer to?
Answer:
The word ‘government’ refers to the government departments and the various ministers who head them.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers How the State Government Works

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 MCQ Question 5.
What is a Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
A Legislative Assembly is a place where all the MLAs, whether from the ruling party or from the opposition meet to discuss issues/problems of urgent needs, a bill introduced for making law, etc.

Class 7 Civics Ch 3 Extra Questions Question 6.
What is legislature and what does it do?
Answer:

  • All the MLAs in the legislative assembly together constitute the legislature.
  • They take part in debate, approve the policy and programmes of the government and supervise the actions taken of the government outside the assembly.

MCQ Questions For Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Question 7.
Write about the democratic process adopted for the formation of Government in a State.
Answer:

  • It is the democracy through which the people of 18 years and above elect their representatives as the members of legislative assembly (MLAs).
  • The MLAs of the majority party elect their leader who is appointed the Chief Minister of the State by the governor.
  • The Chief Minister selects some MLAs to head different departments/ministries and they are appointed as ministers by the Governor of the State. Thus, a Government is formed in a State by democratic process.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers How the State Government Works

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the levels of the Government?
(a) Local Government
(b) State Government
(c) International Government.
(d) National Government.
Answer:
(c) International Government.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers

2. The members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) are elected by;
(a) the people
(b) the landlords
(c) the businessmen
(d) the leaders.
Answer:
(a) the people.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Civics Chapter 3

3. How many states of India has a Legislative Assembly?
(a) Twelve
(b) Two
(c) All the states
(d) Five.
Answer:
(c) All the states.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers How the State Government Works

Ncert Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 MCQ

4. Which one of the following is called the ruling party?
(a) The political party that has majority
(b) The opposition party
(c) The party of elected members
(d) Party of various MLAs.
Answer:
(a) The political party that has majority.

Civics Class 7 Chapter 3 Extra Questions

5. Who elect the Chief Minister?
(a) People of a state
(b) Students
(c) MLAs of the ruling party
(d) MLAs of opposition.
Answer:
(c) MLAs of the ruling party.

Ch 3 Civics Class 7 Extra Questions

6. Which one of the following appoints the Chief Minister?
(a) The President
(b) The Governor
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Ministers.
Answer:
(b) The Governor.

Civics Chapter 3 Class 7 Extra Questions

7. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the responsibilities of MLAs and the Chief Minister?
(a) They run government of several states.
(b) They run various government departments of the state.
(c) They discuss on several issues.
(d) They take decisions.
Answer:
(a) They run government of several states.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers How the State Government Works

Class 7 Political Science Chapter 3 Extra Questions

8. Which one of the following term is used for all the MLAs who gather together in the Legislative Assembly?
(a) The Chief Minister
(b) The Legislature
(c) The Executive
(d) Government.
Answer:
(b) The Legislature.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 Civics Chapter 3 Extra Questions

9. The act of making laws on certain issues is done in the;
(a) Parliament
(b) Prime Minister’s office
(c) Legislative Assembly
(d) Chief Minister’s office.
Answer:
(c) Legislative Assembly.

State Government Class 7 Questions And Answers

10. Laws for the entire country are made in the;
(a) Parliament
(b) Legislative Assembly
(c) Prime Minister’s office
(d) Chief Minister’s office
Answer:
(a) Parliament.

Important Terms:

Constituency: A particular area from which all the voters living there choose their representatives. This could be, for example, a panchayat ward or an area that chooses an MLA.

Majority: This is a situation when more than half the number in a group supports a decision or an idea. This is also called a simple majority.

Opposition: This refers to elected representatives who are not members of the ruling party and who play the role of questioning government decisions and actions as well as raise new issues for consideration in the Assembly.

Press Conference: A gathering of journalists from the media who are invited to hear about and ask questions on a particular issue and are then expected to report on this to the larger public.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Judiciary

Online Education for Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Judiciary

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Judiciary was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Online Education for Judiciary Class 8 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 5

(1) All the villagers, who are above 18 years of age and who has the right to vote are members of the ………………………… .
Answer:
Gram Sabha

(2) The work of the ………………………… has to be approved by the ………………………… .
Answer:
Gram Panchayat, Gram Sabha

(3) The work of the ………………………… is to record the decisions of the Gram Sabha.
Answer:
Secretary

(4) The ………………………… gives more information on the schemes, asked by the Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Block Development Officer

(5) The ………………………… is the first tier of the democratic government.
Answer:
Panchayat Raj System.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Judiciary

Judiciary Class 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What is the term of the Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
The Gram Panchayat is elected for five years.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
How is the secretary appointed? What are its functions?
Answer:
The secretary of the Gram Panchayat is also the secretary of the Gram Sabha. He is not an elected person but is appointed by the government. The secretary is responsible for calling the meetings of the Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat and keep a record of the proceedings.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 Judiciary Extra Questions Question 3.
What are check dams?
Answer:
A dam is a barrier built across a watercourse to hold back and raise the level of water. A check dam is constructed to collect rainwater. They can be also built on small rivers.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 Short Questions And Answers Question 4.
Who has to approve the work of the Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
The work of the Gram Panchayat has to be approved by the Gram Sabha.

Class 8 Civics Ch 5 Extra Questions Question 5.
Why are committees formed in the Gram Sabha of some states?
Answer:
In some states Gram Sabha form committees like the construction and development committees. These committees include some members from the Gram Sabha and some members from the Gram Panchayat who work together to carry out specific tasks.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Judiciary

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following refers to Sarpanch?
(a) The elected representative of the Zila Parishad
(b) The elected representative of the Gram Sabha and the Panchayat President
(c) The elected representative of the Legislative Assembly
(d) The elected representative of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
(b) The elected representative of the Gram Sabha and the Panchayat President.

2. Who is a Ward Member or Panch?
(a) Elected representative of the Ward
(b) A member appointed by the headman
(c) Elected member of the Zila Parishad
(d) Elected member of the State Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
(a) Elected representative of the Ward.

3. Who are the members of the Gram Panchayat?
(a) The Ward Panchs
(b) The Sarpanch
(c) All educated people of the village
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Judiciary

4. Which one of the following refers to Panchayati Raj System?
(a) A process through which people participate in their own first tier of democratic government
(b) The system in which a king is at village level
(c) The system in which a king is at block level
(d) A process through which only educated people participate in the government.
Answer:
(a) A process through which people participate in their own first tier of democratic government.

5. Which of the following are the functions of the Zila Parishad?
(a) To make development plan
(b) To regulate the money distribution among all the Gram Panchayats
(c) To make laws for the state
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

6. Which one of the following refers to the BPL?
(а) People who can meet their basic needs
(b) People who can not meet their basic needs
(c) People who can buy a car
(d) People who have pucca buildings.
Answer:
(b) People who can not meet their basic needs.

7. The poverty line is fixed by the.
(a) Headman
(b) Sarpanch
(c) Government
(d) Members of the Gram Sabha
Answer:
(c) Government.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife

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Online Education for India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife Class 6 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 8

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why does India have a wide range of natural vegetation?
Answer:
India has a wide range of natural vegetation because of varied climatic conditions.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 2.
What is.’ Van Mahotsav?
Answer:
It is a programme to involve more people to plant new trees and keep our earth green.

India Climate Vegetation And Wildlife Class 6 Extra Questions Question 3.
Why does agriculture fail in India?
Answer:
Agriculture in India is dependent on the monsoons; If monsoons are .weak or, fail to occur, then agriculture also fails.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife

India Climate Vegetation And Wildlife Extra Questions Question 4.
How do the southwest winds bring rainfall?
Answer:
The southwest monsoon season is marked by the onset and advance of the monsoon. The winds blow from the Indian Ocean towards the land. They carry moisture with them. When these winds strike the high mountain barriers of the north, rainfall occurs.

India Climate Vegetation And Wildlife Class 6 Worksheet Question 5.
In which parts of India are thorny bushes found and how do they survive in dry areas?
Answer:
This type of vegetation is found in the dry regions of the country. They have leaves in the form of spines to reduce loss of water. Cactus, Khair, Babool, Xeekar are found in the states of Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Gujarat and eastern slopes of Western Ghats.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Worksheet Question 6.
Name some wildlife sanctuaries of India.
Answer:
Some wildlife sanctuaries of India are :

  • Dachigam
  • Sariska
  • Ranthambhor
  • Bandipur
  • Mudumalai
  • Guindy
  • Manas
  • Kaziranga.

Ncert Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 7.
Why are forests necessary?
Answer:
Forests are very useful for us. They are necessary because :

  • Plants give oxygen and absorb carbon dioxide and thus purify the environment.
  • The roots of the plants bind the soil, which helps in controlling soil erosion.
  • Forests are the natural habitat of the wildlife.
  • We get forest products like timber, fuel, wood, fodder, medicinal plants and herbs, lac, honey, gum, etc.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following seasons lasts from June to September?
(a) Cold weather season
(b) Season of retreating monsoon
(c) South-west monsoon season
(d) Hot weather season.
Answer:
(c) South-west monsoon season.

2. Hot and dry wind that blows during the hot weather ‘ season is called :
(a) Khamsin
(b) Loo
(c) Mistral
(d) Brick fielder.
Answer:
(b) Loo

3. Which one of the following states receives rainfall from the retreating monsoons?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu.

4. Which one of the following statements is true about the climate?
(a) It is the average weather condition which has been measured over many years
(b) It refers to the day etc. day changes in the atmosphere
(c) ‘It changes several times in a day
(d) It can be cloudy, sunny, calm, etc.
Answer:
(a) It is the average weather condition which has been measured over many years.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife

5. Which type of climate does India experience?
(a ) Tropical
(b) Temperate
(c) Sub-poiar
(d) Monsoon
Answer:
(d) Monsoon.

6. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the factors affecting the climate of a place?
(a) Location
(b) Vegetation cover
(c) Distance from the sea
(d) Altitude.
Answer:
(b) Vegetation cover.

7. Which one of the following places receives the world’s highest rainfall?
(a) Goa
(b) Kanniyakumari
(c) Mawsynram
(d) Cherrapunji
Answer:
(c) Mawsynram.

8. Which one of the following statements is false about the natural vegetation?
(a) If grows on its own without any interference of human beings
(b) Only shrubs are included in natural vegetation
(c) Grasses, shrubs, trees, etc. are natural vegetation
(d) It can grow anywhere in the World.
Answer:
(b) Only shrubs are included in natural vegetation.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife

9. The Tropical Rain forests occur in the areas of:
(a) Heavy rainfall
(b) Scanty rainfall
(c) Snowfall
(d) Medium rainfall.
Answer:
(a) Heavy rainfall

10. Which one of the following forests appear green all the year-round?
(a) Tropical deciduous
(b) Tropical rainforest
(c) Thorny bushes
(d) Mangrove forests.
Answer:
(b) Tropical rainforest

11. Which one of the following statements is false about the Tropical Deciduous forests?
(a) They shed their leaves at a particular time of the year
(b) Sal, teak, peepal, neem etc. are the main trees of these forests
(c) They are found in Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, etc.
(d) Ebony and rosewood trees are found in these forests.
Answer:
(d) Ebony and rosewood trees are found in these forests.

12. Which one of the following is an example of thorny bushes?
(a) Cactus
(b) Mahogany
(c) Ebony
(d) Neem
Answer:
(a) Cactus.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife

13. In which one of the following forests the coniferous trees are found?
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Tropical forests
(c) Mountain vegetation
(d) Tidal forests.
Answer:
(c) Mountain vegetation.

14. Which one of the following is the main tree of the mangrove forests?
(a) Cbir
(b) Fine
(c) Deodar
(d) Sundari.
Answer:
(d) Sundari.

15. Which one of the following is the national animal of India?
(a) Tiger
(b) Camel
(c) Peacock
(d) Pigeon
Answer:
(a) Tiger

16. Which one of the following is known as the home of Asiatic lion?
(a) Sunderbans
(b) Gir forest (Gujarat)
(c) Sitniipa
(d) Kaziranga (Assam)
Answer:
(b) Gir forest (Gujarat).

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife

17. One-horned rhinoceros are found in :
(a) Karnataka
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Forests of Assam
(d) Rann of Kuchchh
Answer:
(c) Forests of Assam

18. The Rann of Kuchchh is famous for :
(a) Asiatic lion
(b) Tiger
(c) Camel
(d) Wild ass
Answer:
(d) Wild ass

19. Which one of the following is the national bird of India?
(a) Pigeon
(b) Crow
(c) Peacock
(d) Bulbul
Answer:
(c) Peacock

20. Why are the several species of wildlife in India declining rapidly?
(a) Due to cutting of forests and hunting
(b) Due to increasing carbon dioxide
(c) Due to extreme hotness
(d) Due to soil erosion.
Answer:
(a) Due to cutting of forests and hunting

21. Which one .qf the following projects has been started by the government to protect wildlife?
(a) Save water project
(b) Project Tiger and Project Elephant
(c) Grow more trees
(d) Save wildlife and natural vegetation
Answer:
(b) Project Tiger and Project Elephant.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife

Important Definitions/Words:

→ Weather: It is the condition of atmosphere at a particular time.

→ Climate: It is the average weather over a period of time.

→ Monsoon: It refers to the seasonal reversal in the wind direction through the year.

→ Loo: They are strong, hot and dry winds blowing during day over northern and north-western India. They may continue even up to midnight.

→ Natural Vegetation: The plant community which has been left undisturbed over a long period of time. They grow on their own without interference and help from human beings. The plants adjust to climatic and soil conditions.

→ Deforestation: Reckless cutting of trees leaves the forest floor bare. It is called deforestation.

→ Extinct: Any species of plants or animals not been sighted during last 6-10 decades are called extinct species, eg. Dinosaurs are extinct species of animals.

→ Endangered: The plant and animal species which are in the danger of getting extinct are called endangered species, eg. Indian bustard of Rajasthan is an endangered species.

→ National Parks: A reserved area for preserving its natural vegetation, wildlife and natural environment. There are at present 86 national parks, eg. Jim Corbett, Kaziranga.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife

→ Sanctuaries: They are reserved areas where animals and birds are protected. Hunting and killing of wildlife is strictly prohibited here, eg. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary.

→ Biosphere Reserves: They are multi-purpose protected areas, where every plant and animal species is protected in its natural habitat! Research on ecological conservation and other aspects of environmental preservation is also, carried out here, e.g. Nilgiri, at the tri-junction of Karnataka, Tamilnadu and Kerala, Nokrek in Meghalaya.

→ Project Tiger: To protect the endangered species of tiger.

→ Migratory birds: Some birds migrate to our country in the winter season every year. They arrive in December and stay till March, eg. Pelican, Siberian crane.

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Human Resource

Online Education for Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Human Resource

Online Education for Human Resource Class 8 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 6

Question 1.
When did the Ministry of Human Resource Development establish? What was its aim?
Answer:
The Ministry of Human Resource Development was established in 1985. Its main aim was to improve people’s skills.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the pattern of population distribution?
Answer:
The w.ay in which people are spread across the earth surface is known as the pattern of population distribution.

Question 3.
Which are the most crowded areas of the world?
Answer:

  • South and South-East Asia,
  • Europe,
  • North-Eastern North America.

Question 4.
Which regions of the world are sparsely populated?
Ans.
High latitude areas, tropical deserts, high mountains and equatorial forests are sparsely populated

Question 5.
What is average density of population in India?
Answer:
324 persons per square km.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Human Resource

Question 6.
What is population density?
Answer:
Population density is the number of people living in a unit area of the earth’s surface.

Question 7.
Name two regions of the world which attracted people due to the presence of minerals.
Answer:

  1. Diamond mines of South Africa.
  2. Oil in Middle East.

Question 8.
Why do people prefer to live on plains?
Answer:
People prefer to live on plains because these are suitable for farming, manufacturing and tertiary activities.

Question 9.
What do you understand by population change?
Answer:
The population change refers to the change in the number of people during a specific time.

Question 10.
Distinguish between birth rate and death rate.
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of live births per 1000 people while death rate is the number of deaths per 1000 people.

Question 11.
What is migration?
Answer:
Migration is the movement of people in and out of an area.

Question 12.
What is natural growth rate?
Answer:
The difference between the birth rate and the death rate of a country is called the natural growth rate.

Question 13.
Distinguish between emigrants and immigrants.
Answer:
Emigrants are people who leave a country, immigrants are those who arrive in a country.

Question 14.
Which are the two groups of dependents in a population?
Answer:

  1. Young dependents (aged below 15 years)
  2. Elderly dependents (aged over 65 years).

Question 15.
Which type of population pyramid do the countries like Japan have?
Answer:
In the countries like Japan, low birth rates make the pyramid narrows at the base. Decreased death rates allow the numbers of people to reach in the old age.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Human Resource

Question 16.
Sixty per cent of the world’s population stay in just 10 countries. Name any eight of them.
Answer:

  1. China,
  2. India,
  3. USA,
  4. Indonesia,
  5. Brazil,
  6. Pakistan,
  7. Bangladesh,
  8. Russia,
  9. Nigeria,
  10. Japan.

Question 17.
What is the average density of population of the world? Which part of the world have the highest density of
population?
Answer:
The average density of population of the world is 45 persons per square km. South-Central Asia has the highest density of
population.

Question 18.
In the early 1970s, the world | population was 3 billion. In 1999, the population doubled to 6 billion. What were the factors responsible for this growth?
Answer:
Factors responsible for this population growth were –

  • Better food supplies
  • Better medicines and
  • Reduced Death Rate
  • Number of births medical facilities remained fairly high.

Question 19.
Does emigration and immigration affect the population size of a country? Give example in support of your answer.
Answer:
Emigration and immigration do affect the population size of a country. For example, the population of United States of America and Australia increased due to immigration while Sudan has experienced a loss in population numbers due to emigration.

Question 20.
Are population composition and economic development related to each other? Give an example in support of your 4 answers.
Answer:
Population composition hardly affects economic development. For example, Bangladesh and Japan both are densely populated but Japan is far more economically developed than Bangladesh.

Question 21.
Which aspects of population do the. composition of population help us to know?
Answer:
We learn various aspects of population through population composition:

  • Number of males and females.
  • To which age group they belong.
  • Education level.
  • Composition of occupation;
  • Income level.
  • Health conditions.

Question 22.
Which type of population pyramid does India have?
Answer:
The population pyramid of India is broad in the younger age groups because more infants survive to adulthood. Such populations contain a relatively large number of young people which means a strong and expanding labour force.

Question 23.
What is Population Composition? How does it help us?
Answer:
Population composition refers to the structure of the population. It helps us to know the variation in age, sex, literacy level, health condition, occupation and income level of a population.

Question 24.
What are the factors influencing change in population?
Answer:

  • Birth rate-The number of live births per 1000 people.
  • Death rate-The number of death per 1000 people.
  • Migration-It is the movement of people in and out of an area.

Question 25.
How do topography and climate affect distribution of population?
Answer:
Topography – People prefer to live on plains rather than mountains and plateaus because plains are suitable for farming, manufacturing, transportation, etc. The Hwang Ho plains are densely populated while mountains like Andes, Alps, Himalayas are sparsely populated. Climate – Regions of very hot and very cold climates like Sahara desert, Antarctica are sparsely populated.

Question 26.
Explain how social, cultural and economic factors affect the distribution of population?
Answer:
Social factors- Areas of better housing, education and health facilities are more densely populated, e.g., Pune, Bangalore, Chandigarh.

Cultural factors – Places of religious or cultural significance attract people. For example, Varanasi, Jerusalem and Vatican City.

Economic factors – Industrial areas provide employment opportunities, thus., attract large number of people. For example, Osaka, Mumbai, etc.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Human Resource

Question 27.
Until the 1800s, the world’s population grew steadily but slowly. Give reasons.
Answer:

  • Large number of babies were born, but they died early too.
  • Lack of proper health facilities.
  • Sufficient food was not available to masses.
  • Farmers were not able to produce enough to meet the food requirements of all the people.

Question 28.
What is the general trend of international and internal (within a nation) migration?
Answer:

  • The general trend of international migration is from less developed nations to the more developed nations in search of better employment opportunities.
  • Within a nation, people move from the rural to urban areas in search of employment, education and health facilities.

Question 29.
How does the population pyramid of a country in which both birth and death rates are high look? What do you conclude from such pyramid?
Answer:
The population pyramid of a country in which both birth and death rates are high is broad at the base and rapidly narrows towards the top. This is because, although many children are born, a large percentage of them die in their infancy, relatively few become adults and there are very few old people.

Question 30.
What are the factors affecting the distribution of population?
Answer:

  1. Soil-Fertile soil provides suitable land for agriculture like – Ganga and Brahmaputra plain.
  2. Water-People prefer to live in the areas where sufficient amount of freshwater is easily available.
  3. Topography-People always prefer to live on plains rather than mountains and plateaus.
  4. Climate-People usually avoid extreme climates that are very hot and very cold.
  5. Social, Cultural and Economic factors.

Question 31.
What are the three causes of growing population of India? Give two suggestions to control population growth.
Answer:
The three causes of growing population of India are :

  1. Better food supplies
  2. Decreasing Death Rate
  3. Better healthcare services and to control population growth, Government should implement a strict law and policy. Family Planning plan should be promoted.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) People are a nation’s greatest resource.
(b) Many more people live south of the Equator than north of the Equator.
(c) Ten countries which account for about 60% of the world’s population have over 100 million people each.
(d) South-Central Asia has the highest density of population in the world.
Answer:
(b) Many more people live south of the Equator than north of the Equator.

2. Which of the following areas are densely populated because of the fertile soils?
(a) The Gangetic plains in India
(b) The Nile Valley in Egypt
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b).

3. Tick the odd one in the following.
(a) Migrations
(b) Birthrate
(c) Death rate
(d) Natural growth rate.
Answer:
(a) Migrations.

4. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Rates of population growth vary across the world.
(b) Kenya has high population growth rate.
(c) People vary greatly in their age, sex, literacy level, etc.
(d) Emigrants are people who arrive in a country.
Answer:
(d) Emigrants are people who arrive in a country.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Human Resource

5. Tick the wrong statement in the following.
(a) The population pyramid is also called an age-sex pyramid.
(b) The population pyramid also tells us how many dependents there are in a country.
(c) The size of the top of a population pyramid shows the numbers of children.
(d) In countries like Japan, low birth rates make the pyramid narrow at the base.
Answer:
(c) The size of the top of a population pyramid shows the numbers of children.

6. In 1999, the world population reached:
(a) 1 billion
(b) 3 billion
(c) 6 billion
(d) 10 billion
Answer:
(c) 6 billion.

Glossary:

→ Pattern of population distribution – The way in which people are spread across the earth surface is called the pattern of population distribution.

→ Population density-Population density is the number of people living in a unit area of the earth’s surface.

→ Birth rate – The number of live births per 1,000 people.

→ Death rate – The number of deaths per 1,000 people.

→ Migration – It is the movement of people in and out of an area.

→ Natural growth rate – The difference between the birth rate and the death rate of a country is called the natural growth rate.

→ Life expectancy – It is the number of years that an average person can expect to live.

→ Immigration – When a person enters a new country.

→ Emigration – When a person leaves a country.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science