CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Students can access the Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

Online Education CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

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सामान्य निर्देश :

  • निम्नलिखित निर्देशों को बहुत सावधानी से पढ़िए और उनका पालन कीजिए:
  • इस प्रश्न पत्र में वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं।
  • इस प्रश्न पत्र में कुल सात प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। आपको सात प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने हैं।
  • प्रश्नों में आंतरिक विकल्प भी दिए गए हैं। निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए।

कार्यालयी हिंदी और रचनात्मक लेखन [20 अंक]

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित दिए गए तीन शीर्षकों में से किसी एक शीर्षक का चयन कर लगभग 200 शब्दों का एक रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए। (5 × 1 = 5)
(क) प्रातः काल योग करते लोग
(ख) दुर्घटना से देर भली
(ग) जिन्हें जल्दी थी, वे चले गए
उत्तर:
किसी एक विषय पर लगभग 150 शब्दों में रचनात्मक लेख लिखिए:

  • भूमिका – 1 अंक
  • विषयवस्तु – 3 अंक
  • भाषा – 1 अंक

(क) प्रातःकाल योग करते लोग संसार का हर व्यक्ति सदैव सुखी रहकर दीर्घजीवी बनना चाहता है। केवल पौष्टिक भोजन करके मनुष्य सुखी नहीं रह सकता। अच्छे मकान व शान शौकत से रहकर मानव सुखी नहीं रह सकता। सुखी रहने के लिए स्वस्थ शरीर की आवश्यकता होती है, क्योंकि सुख व आनन्द किसी भी बाहरी वस्तु से प्राप्त नहीं होते हैं, वे तो अपने हृदय से ही प्राप्त किए जा सकते हैं। शरीर स्वस्थ न रहने से मन अशान्त रहता है, मनुष्य का स्वभाव चिड़चिड़ा हो जाता है। सर्व-सम्पन्न रहते हुए भी अस्वस्थ शरीर से कोई भी शान्ति प्राप्त नहीं कर सकता। स्वस्थ शरीर के लिए योग अत्यावश्यक है। जिस प्रकार मशीन को चलाने के लिए कलपुर्जी की सार संभाल जरूरी होती है, उसी प्रकार शरीर को चलाने के लिए उसके अंगों का सही होना जरूरी है और ऐसा केवल योग से ही सम्भव है। योग करने का सबसे उत्तम समय है प्रातःकाल।

जब सूर्य की लालिमा से गगन रक्तिम हो रहा हो तो मनुष्य को योग करके अपने शरीर को स्फूर्तियुक्त बनाने का प्रयास करना चाहिए। प्रातःकाल योग करने से मनुष्य के सभी मानसिक क्लेशों का नाश होता है और ध्यान में परिपक्वता आती है। यह मन की चंचलता को दूर करता है और स्मरण-शक्ति में वृद्धि करता है। लम्बे समय तक युवा बने रहने के लिए योग अत्यन्त महत्वपूर्ण है। योग तन-मन को शुद्ध करता है। प्रतिदिन योग करने वाले लोग शारीरिक और मानसिक स्तर पर स्वयं को तरोजाता महसूस करता है। प्रतिदिन योग करने वाले मनुष्य के जीवन में खुशी का संचार होता है। योग उसे महान बना देता है। उसके कार्य करने, सोचने और निर्णय लेने की शैली को श्रेष्ठ बनाता है।

(ख) दुर्घटना से देर भली हर व्यक्ति अपने दैनिक जीवन में कहीं न कहीं आने जाने के लिए सड़क का उपयोग अवश्य करता है। आज के व्यस्त जीवन में सब एक दूसरे से जल्दी अपनी मंजिल पर पहुंचना चाहते हैं जिससे कि रोज बहुत सी दुर्घटनाएँ घटित होती हैं। सड़क यातायात सुरक्षा एक ऐसी विधि है जिसमें नियम बनाकर दुर्घटना को रोका जा सकता है और लोगों को चोट लगने से बचाया जा सकता है। कहा जाता है कि दुर्घटना से देर भली। लोगों के तेज रफ्तार में गाड़ी चलाने, नशे में गाड़ी चलाने की वजह से ज्यादातर दुर्घटना होती है। हर व्यक्ति को जल्दी रहती है। वे जल्दी-से-जल्दी अपने गंतव्य तक पहुंचना चाहते हैं। हर रोज बहुत सी दुर्घटना घटित होती हैं जिससे कि बहुत से लोग अपनी जान खो देते हैं। मरने वाले लोगों में ज्यादातर युवा होते हैं जिससे कि देश अपनी युवा शक्ति को खोता जा रहा है। लोगों के वाहनों को नियंत्रण में रखने में सड़क हादसों को रोकने के लिए सड़क सुरक्षा नियम बनाए गए हैं। जिंदगी एक बार ही मिलती है और यह बहुमूल्य हैं हर व्यक्ति को चाहिए कि वह खुद को भी सुरक्षित करें और दूसरों को भी सुरक्षित रखें। सड़क पर किसी एक व्यक्ति की लापरवाही के कारण दूसरा भी अपनी जिन्दगी खो बैठता है। हम सबको यातयात के नियमों का पालन करना चाहिए। दो पहिया वाहनों को चलाने वालों को हैलमेट अवश्य पहनना चाहिए। यातायात के नियम हमारी सुरक्षा के लिए बनाए गए हैं और हम सबको बोझ न समझकर बल्कि जिम्मेदारी समझना चाहिए। हर नागरिक को चाहिए कि वह अपने साथ-साथ दूसरों को भी यातायात के नियमों का पालन करना सिखाए।

स्कूलों में भी सुरक्षा के इन नियमों के विषय मे बताया जाना चाहिए और अलग अलग स्तर पर परीक्षा भी होती है। जिन्दगी एक बार ही मिलती है और यह बहुमूल्य है। हर व्यक्ति को चाहिए कि वह खुद को भी सुरक्षित करें और दूसरों भी सुरक्षित रखें। सड़क पर किसी एक व्यक्ति की लापरवाही के कारण दूसरा भी अपनी जिन्दगी खो बैठता है। हम सबको यातायात के नियमों का पालन करना चाहिए । दो पहिया वाहनों को चलाने वालों को हेल्मेट अवश्य पहनना चाहिए। यातायात के नियम हमारी सुरक्षा के लिए बनाए गए हैं और हम सबको बोझ न समझकर बल्कि जिम्मेदार समझना चाहिए। हर नागरिक को चाहिए कि वह अपने साथ-साथ दूसरों को भी यातायात के नियमों का पालन करना सिखाए। स्कूलों में भी सुरक्षा के इन नियमों के विषय में बताया जाना चाहिए और अलग- अलग स्तर पर परीक्षा भी होती है।

(ग) जिन्हें जल्दी थी, वे चले गए
रफ्ता-रफ्ता घूम रही दुनिया सारी,
आप हो कर रहे दौड़ने की तैयारी।

यातायात का न कर पालन
वो किधर भी सैर किये,

जिन्हें जाने की बहुत जल्दी थी,
वे दुनिया से चले गये।

उपर्युक्त पंक्तियों से पता चलता है कि जल्दी का काम सदैव ही सुखद परिणाम नहीं देता है। ठीक है कुछ कामों में विलम्ब होना नुकसान देय है किन्तु व्यक्ति को उतनी भी जल्दी नहीं करनी चाहिए कि न आम बचे न गुठली। यद्यपि मैं विचार करता हूँ कि वो मतवाले भी थे जिन्हें जाने की शायद जल्दी ही होगी, तभी तो अपने देश की खातिर भरी जवानी में चले गये और देश को अपना ऋणी बना गये। निश्चित ही वे सरफिरे ही थे जिन्हें देश और हमारी मिट्टी का कर्ज चुकाने की इतनी जल्दी थी कि पूरे देश और देशवासियों को अपना कर्जदार बनाकर चले गये। अनेक क्रान्तिकारी देशभक्त और वीर जवानों की जल्दी तो समझ में आती है किन्तु आज की भागदौड़ में यह कहाँ तक तर्क संगत है कि जल्दी का अर्थ गति से लगाया जाए और बिना यातायात के नियमों का पालन किये सरपट दौड़े जा रहे हैं, और केवल अपने ही नहीं बल्कि दूसरों के प्राणों को भी संकट में डाल देते हैं। शायद उन्हें यातायात नियंत्रक बत्तियाँ और वाहनों में लगे गतिसूचक दिखाई नहीं देते। भारत में सड़क दुर्घटनाओं का आँकड़ा दुनिया में सबसे ऊपर की पंक्ति में दिखाई देता है। उन्हें जल्दी ही तो है जो सबको पीछे छोड़कर खुद ही चले जाने पर अमादा होते हैं।

आँकड़ों की मानें तो अतिगति और यातायात नियमों का अतिक्रमण करने में किशोर और युवा सबसे आगे हैं। वह कौन-सी मंजिल है, जहाँ इन्हें जल्दी पहुँचना है। निर्माण की जल्दी में हो तो समझ में आता है परन्तु विध्वंस की जल्दी तो समझ से परे है। ऊपर से आग में घी डालने का काम आधुनिक तकनीक करती है जो वाहनों की गति को निरन्तर बढ़ाती ही जाती है। और सुरक्षा स्वतः ही घटती जाती है। सरकार भी इस वावत सजगता दिखाती है तो जर्माना बढ़ा देती है, हैलमेट और सीट बैल्ट का प्रयोग पर जोर दिया जाता है, बिल्कुल सही है। इससे जल्दी जाने वालों को शायद गति अवरोध हो परन्तु केवल नियमों को कठिन बनाने और जुर्माना बढ़ाने भर से तो काम नही चलेगा, इसके साथ ही सड़कों की दुर्दशा पर भी ध्यान देना होगा। देश की अधिकांश सड़कें गड्डायुक्त और टूटी-फूटी हैं। पुलों और ओवरब्रिजों की रेलिंग टूटी हुई हैं, जो दुर्घटना का बड़ा कारण बनती है। बचपन से सुनते आ रहे हैं, जल्दी का काम शैतान का है, परन्तु अब तो लगता है कि जल्दी का काम यमराज से भेंट कराता है। जिन्हें जल्दी है वे चले जाते हैं। लेकिन कहाँ चले जाते हैं? क्या उन्हें वहाँ जाना चाहिए था जहाँ वे चले जाते हैं।

आज अति आवश्यक हो गया है कि युवाओं को यातायात नियमों के विषय में अच्छी तरह से बताया जाए । बल्कि यातायात के नियमों को विद्यालयों और महाविद्यालयों के पाठयक्रम में शामिल किया जाना चाहिए। साथ ही माता-पिता और अभिभावकों को भी जागरूक होना पड़ेगा। हम सभी को नियमों का पालन करना होगा। अन्यथा जिन्हें जल्दी थी, वे चले गये और जिन्हें जल्दी होगी वे जल्दी ही चले जायेंगे।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

प्रश्न 2.
अपने क्षेत्र के मुख्य चिकित्सा अधिकारी उनके चिकित्सकों और सहायक कर्मचारियों को कोरोना माल में उनके द्वारा किये गये कार्यों की प्रशंसा और सराहना करते हुए एक पत्र लिखिए। (5 × 1 = 5)
अथवा
बस चालकों की असावधानी से हो रही दुर्घटनाओं पर चिंता व्यक्त करते हुए किसी समाचार पत्र के संपादक को पत्र लिखिए।
उत्तर:
2 में से किसी 1 विषय पर पत्र (लगभग 80-100 शब्दा-सीमा)

  • आरंभ और अंत की औपचारिकताएँ – 1 अंक
  • विषयवस्तु – 3 अंक
  • भाषा – 1 अंक

124, डी ब्लॉक,
नया नगर,
कोटा
दिनांक : 25 जनवरी, 20XX
सेवा में,
श्री मुख्य चिकित्सा अधिकारी जी,
कोटा नगर निगम,
कोटा, राजस्थान।

विषय: कोरोना महामारी के चलते अपने क्षेत्र के सरकारी चिकित्सकों व उनके सहकर्मियों की उनकी अथक सेवाओं के लिए सराहना करते हुए पत्र। महोदय जी,

इस पत्र के माध्यम से मैं आपके सरकारी चिकित्सकों और सहकर्मियों का हार्दिक धन्यवाद करना करना चाहता हूँ। चिकित्सकों और उनके सहकर्मियों ने जिस प्रकार कोरोना महामारी के समय अपने परिवार और स्वयं की परवाह छोड देश के बाकी लोगों के लिए कार्य किया है वह सचमुच सराहनीय है। इस गम्भीर महामारी के समय आपके कर्मचारियों और चिकित्सकों द्वारा दी गई सुविधा के चलते कई सारे मरीज ठीक हो रहे हैं और साथ ही कुछ क्षेत्र ऐसे हैं जहाँ इनकी सेवाओं के चलते यह बीमारी अभी तक अपने पैर नहीं पसार पाई हैं। चिकित्सकों और उनके सहकर्मियों द्वारा समाज को दिए गए योगदान को हम हमेशा याद रखेंगे।
धन्यवाद
विनीत
कख ग.

अथवा

सेवा में,
संपादक महोदय,
दैनिक भास्कर
जयपुर

विषयः बढ़ती जा रही बस दुर्घटना पर चिंता प्रकट ।
महोदय

मैं आपके समाचर पत्र के माध्यम से अपनी और हमारे समाज के लोगों के प्रति चिंता व्यक्त करने जा रहा हूं। यह विषय बेहद गंभीर है। जी, हां महोदय हर वर्ष सड़कों को कभी पानी के पाइपलाइन के लिए खोदा जाता है, तो कभी केवल लाइन के लिए। उसके बाद सड़कों को ठीक नहीं किया जाता है। ऐसे में सड़के बन वे हो जाती है। जिस कारण रुट की बसों को दिक्कत होती है और जल्दबाजी में दुर्घटना की शिकार हो जाती है। आपकी पत्रों के माध्यम से मैं सड़क मंत्री को यह याद करवाना चाहता हूं कि उन्होंने वादा किया था कि सड़क पर कोई गड्ढे नहीं होंगे। फिर गड्ढे क्यों?

जल्द से जल्द सड़क ठीक करवाने की अपील की जा रही है। आशा है कि सरकार अवश्य कार्यवाही करेंगे।

धन्यवाद।
भवदीय
प्रतिष्ठा मेहरा
स्थानीय वासी।

प्रश्न 3.
(क) कहानी की परिभाषा बताते हुए इसके तत्त्वों के नाम लिखें। अथवा नाटक में अभिनय और संवाद योजना के महत्व को रेखांकित कीजिए। (3)
(ख) रेडियो नाटक की अवधि छोटी क्यों रखी जाती है?
अथवा
कहानी में क्लाइमेक्स का क्या महत्व है। (2)
उत्तर:
(क) कहानी गद्य साहित्य की वह सबसे अधिक रोचक एवं लोकप्रिय विधा है, जो जीवन के किसी विशेष पक्ष का मार्मिक, भावनात्मक और कलात्मक वर्णन करती है। “हिन्दी गद्य की वह विधा है जिसमें लेखक किसी घटना, पात्र अथवा समस्या का क्रमबद्ध ब्यौरा देता है, जिसे पढ़कर एक समन्वित प्रभाव उत्पन्न होता है,

उसे कहानी कहते हैं”।

  • कथावस्तु
  • चरित्र-चित्रण
  • कथोपकथन
  • देशकाल
  • भाषा-शैली
  • उद्देश्य

कहानी गद्य साहित्य की वह सबसे अधिक रोचक एवं लोकप्रिय विधा है, जो जीवन के किसी विशेष पक्ष का मार्मिक, भावनात्मक और कलात्मक वर्णन करती है। “हिन्दी गद्य की वह विधा है जिसमें लेखक किसी घटना, पात्र अथवा समस्या का क्रमबद्ध ब्यौरा देता है, जिसे पढ़कर एक समन्वित प्रभाव उत्पन्न होता है,

उसे कहानी कहते हैं।

  • कथावस्तु
  • चरित्र-चित्रण
  • कथोपकथन
  • देशकाल
  • भाषा-शैली
  • उद्देश्य

अथवा

  • अभिनय किसी अभिनेता या अभिनेत्री के द्वारा किया जाने वाला वह कार्य है जिसके द्वारा वे किसी कथा को दर्शाते हैं, साधारणतया किसी पात्र के माध्यम से।
  • अभिनय का उद्देश्य होता है किसी पद या शब्द के भाव को मुख्य अर्थ तक पहुँचा देना; अर्थात् दर्शकों या सामाजिको के हृदय में भाव या अर्थ से अभिभूत करना”।
  • संवाद-नाटक में नाटकार के पास अपनी और से कहने का अवकाश नहीं रहता। वह संवादों द्वारा ही वस्तु का उद्घाटन तथा पात्रों के चरित्र का विकास करता है। अतः इसके संवाद सरल, सुबोध, स्वभाविक तथा पात्रअनुकूल होने चाहिए।

अभिनय किसी अभिनेता या अभिनेत्री के द्वारा किया जाने वाला वह कार्य है जिसके द्वारा वे किसी कथा को दर्शाते हैं, साधारणतया किसी पात्र के माध्यम से। अभिनय का उद्देश्य होता है किसी पद या शब्द के भाव को मुख्य अर्थ तक पहुँचा देना; अर्थात् दर्शकों या सामाजिको के हृदय में भाव या अर्थ से अभिभूत करना”। संवाद-नाटक में नाटककार के पास अपनी और से कहने का अवकाश नहीं रहता। वह संवादों द्वारा ही वस्तु का उद्घाटन तथा पात्रों के चरित्र का विकास करता है। अतः इसके संवाद सरल, सुबोध, स्वभाविक तथा पात्रअनुकूल होने चाहिए । श्रव्य माध्यम में मनुष्य की एकाग्रता सीमित होती

(ख) श्रव्य माध्यम में मनुष्य की एकाग्रता सीमित होती है।

सामन्यतया यह माना जाता है कि मनुष्य की एकाग्रता की अवधि 15-30 मिनट की होती है। इससे अधिक अवधि के लिए मनुष्य की एकाग्रता धीरे-धीरे क्षीण होने लगती है। सिनेमा और नाटक देखने के लिए व्यक्ति बोर होने पर भी अपनी मर्जी से वहाँ से उठ कर नहीं जाता। इसके विपरीत रेडियो नाटक सुनने से बोर होने वाले व्यक्ति का ध्यान आसानी से कहीं भी भटक सकता है इसलिए रेडियो नाटक की अवधि छोटी रखी जाती है।

अथवा

चरम उत्कर्ष या क्लाइमेक्स कहानी का अंतिम तत्त्व होता है। इसमें कहानी के उद्देश्य की अभिव्यक्ति होती है। कहानी का उद्देश्य मनोरंजन के साथ-साथ जीवन-संबंधी अनुभूतियों से मानव-मन का निकट परिचय कराना है। चरम उत्कर्ष या क्लाइमेक्स कहानी का अंतिम तत्त्व होता है। इसमें कहानी के उद्देश्य की अभिव्यक्ति होती है। कहानी का उद्देश्य मनोरंजन के साथ-साथ जीवन-संबंधी अनुभूतियों से मानव-मन का निकट परिचय कराना है।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

प्रश्न 4.
(क) समाचार लेखन की रचना प्रक्रिया को स्पष्ट कीजिए।
अथवा
फीचर कैसे लिखा जाता है। (3)
उत्तर:

  • उल्टा पिरामिड शैली
  • इंट्रो, बॉडी और समापन

समाचार लेखन की शैली उल्टा-पिरामिड शैली कहलाती है। यह शैली कहानी या कथा लेखन की शैली के ठीक विपरीत लिखी जाती है। इसमें क्लाईमेक्स सबसे अंत में आता है। उल्टा पिरामिड शैली में इंट्रो या मुखड़ा आरंभ में आता है। इस भाग में किसी भी घटना या जानकारी सबसे पहले लिखा जाता है। उसके बाद बॉडी के अंतर्गत कम महत्वपूर्ण सूचना आती है। अंत में समापन के अंतर्गत सूचना की समाप्ति होती है।

अथवा

फीचर लेखन किसी कहानी, उपन्यास की तरह ही कुछ बिंदुओं पर आधारित होता है-आंरभ, मध्य, चरम, समापन, भाषा-शैली, नेता तथा निष्कर्ष । फीचर लेखन का आरंभ किसी घटना, यात्रा आदि पर आधारित होता है। आरंभ में पाठक को कुछ ऐसी घटना का जिक्र करना चाहिए जिससे पूरा लेख पढ़ने की उत्सुकता पाठक के मन में बरकरार रहे। फीचर लेखन किसी कहानी, उपन्यास की तरह ही कुछ बिंदुओं पर आधारित होता है-आंरभ, मध्य, चरम, समापन, भाषा-शैली, नेता तथा निष्कर्ष । फीचर लेखन का आरंभ किसी घटना, यात्रा आदि पर आधारित होता है। आरंभ में पाठक को कुछ ऐसी घटना का जिक्र करना चाहिए जिससे पूरा लेख पढ़ने की उत्सुकता पाठक के मन में बरकरार रहे। समाचार और फीचर में प्रमुख अंतर प्रस्तुतीकरण की शैली और विषयवस्तु की मात्रा का होता है। जहाँ उल्टा पिरामिड शैली में लिखा गया। समाचार किसी विषय अथवा घटना को संक्षिप्त रूप में प्रस्तुत करता है, वहीं फीचर उस समाचार को विस्तार से प्रस्तुत करता है।

(ख) समाचार और फीचर में मुख्य अन्तर क्या होता
अथवा
समाचार लेखन के छ: ककार कौन-से हैं? (2)
उत्तर:
समाचार और फीचर में प्रमुख अंतर प्रस्तुतीकरण की शैली और विषयवस्तु की मात्रा का होता है। जहाँ उल्टा पिरामिड शैली में लिखा गया। समाचार किसी विषय अथवा घटना को संक्षिप्त रूप में प्रस्तुत करता है, वहीं फीचर उस समाचार को विस्तार से प्रस्तुत करता है।

अथवा

चार ककार (क्या, कब, कौन, कहाँ) सूचनात्मक व अन्तिम दो ककार (क्यों, कैसे) विवरणात्मक होते हैं।
समाचार लेखन में प्रायः छह ककार होते हैं- क्या, कब, कौन, कहाँ, क्यों और कैसे। किसी घटना या सूचना को लिखने के लिए इन ककारों को ही आधार बनाया जाता है। इंट्रो में चार ककार-क्या, कौन, कब और कहाँ का प्रयोग किया जाता है। इसके बाद समाचार की बॉडी में और समापन के पहले बाकी दो ककारों-कैसे और क्यों का जवाब दिया जाता है। इनमें से पहले दो ककार सूचनात्मक और तथ्यों पर आधारित होते हैं जबकि बाकी दो ककार विवरणात्मक, व्याख्यात्मक और विश्लेषणात्मक होते

पाठ्यपुस्तक आरोह भाग-2 तथा अनुपूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक वितान भाग-2 [20 अंक]

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित तीन प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 × 2 = 6)
(क) शमशेर की कविता ‘उषा’ गाँव के जीवन का जीवंत चित्रण है। पुष्टि कीजिए।
उत्तर:
राख से लीपा हुआ चौका बहुत काली सिल स्लेट पर या लाल खड़िया चाक मलना किसी की गौर झिलमिल देह का हिलना सूर्योदय से पहले आकाश का रंग शंख जैसा नीला था, उसके बाद आकाश राख से लीपे चौके जैसा हो गया। सुबह की नमी के कारण वह गीला प्रतीत होता है। सूर्य की प्रारंभिक किरणों से आकाश ऐसा लगा मानो काली सिल पर थोड़ा लाल केसर डालकर उसे धो दिया गया हो या फिर काली स्लेट पर लाल खड़िया मिट्टी मल दी गई हो । सूर्योदय के समय सूर्य का प्रतिबिंब ऐसा लगता है जैसे नीले स्वच्छ जल में किसी गोरी युवती का प्रतिबिंब झिलमिला रहा हो।

(ख) ‘कवितावली’ के अधार पर सिद्ध कीजिए कि तुलसीदास को अपने समय की आर्थिक-सामाजिक समस्याओं की समझ थी।
उत्तर:
‘कवितावली’ में उद्धृत छंदों के अध्ययन से पता चलता है कि तुलसीदास को अपने युग की ठ्यपुस्तक वितान भाग-2 20 अका आर्थिक विषमता की अच्छी समझ है। उन्होंने समाकलीन समाज का यथार्थपरक चित्रण किया है। वे समाज के विभिन्न वगों का वर्णन करते हैं जो कई तरह के कार्य करके अपना निर्वाह करते हैं। तुलसी दास तो यहाँ तक बताते हैं कि पेट भरने के लिए लोग गलत-सही सभी कार्य करते हैं। उनके समय में भयंकर गरीबी व बेरोजगारी थी। गरीबी के कारण लोग अपनी संतानों तक को बेच देते थे। बेरोजगारी इतनी अधिक थी कि लोगों को भीख तक नहीं मिलती थी। दरिद्रता रूपी रावण ने हर तरफ हाहाकार मचा रखा था। ‘कवितावली’ में उद्धृत छंदों के अध्ययन से पता चलता है कि तुलसीदास को अपने युग की आर्थिक विषमता की अच्छी समझ है। उन्होंने समाकलीन समाज का यथार्थपरक चित्रण किया है। वे समाज के विभिन्न वगों का वर्णन करते हैं जो कई तरह के कार्य करके अपना निर्वाह करते हैं। तुलसी दास तो यहाँ तक बताते हैं कि पेट भरने के लिए लोग गलत-सही सभी कार्य करते हैं। उनके समय में भयंकर गरीबी व बेरोजगारी थी। गरीबी के कारण लोग अपनी संतानों तक को बेच देते थे। बेरोजगारी इतनी अधिक थी कि लोगों को भीख तक नहीं मिलती थी। दरिद्रता रूपी रावण ने हर तरफ हाहाकार मचा रखा था।

(ग) फिराज की गलज में अपना परदा खोलने से क्या आशय है?
उत्तर:
परदा खोलने से आशय है-अपने बारे में बताना । यदि कोई व्यक्ति किसी दूसरे की निंदा करता है या बुराई करता है। तो वह स्वयं की बुराई कर रहा है इसीलिए शायर ने कहा कि मेरा परदा खोलने वाले अपना परदा खोल रहे हैं। परदा खोलने से आशय है-अपने बारे में बताना । यदि कोई व्यक्ति किसी दूसरे की निंदा करता है या बुराई करता है। तो वह स्वयं की बुराई कर रहा है इसीलिए शायर ने कहा कि मेरा परदा खोलने वाले अपना परदा खोल रहे हैं।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित चार प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 × 3 = 9)
(क) जाति प्रथा को श्रम विभाजन का ही एक अंग न ‘मानने के पीछे डॉ. आंबेडकर के क्या तर्क थे?
उत्तर:

  • जाति प्रथा श्रम का ही विभाजन नहीं करती बल्कि यह श्रमिक को भी बाँट देती है।
  • जाति प्रथा में श्रम का जो विभाजन किया गया है, वह व्यक्ति की रुचि को ध्यान में रखकर नहीं किया गया है।
  • जाति प्रथा में पेशे का निर्धारण एक मनुष्य को जीवनभर के लिए दे दिया जाता है।
  • जाति प्रथा श्रम का ही विभाजन नहीं करती बल्कि यह श्रमिक को भी बाँट देती है। ।
  • जाति प्रथा में श्रम का जो विभाजन किया गया है, वह व्यक्ति की रुचि को ध्यान में रखकर नहीं किया गया है।
  • जाति प्रथा में पेशे का निर्धारण एक पनुष्य को जीवनभर के लिए दे दिया जाता है।

(ख) नमक कहानी में नमक की पुड़िया इतनी महत्वपूर्ण क्यों हो गयी थी? कस्टम अधिकारी उसे लौटाते हुए भावुक क्यों हो उठा था?
उत्तर:
इस कहानी में नमक की पुड़िया के महत्त्पूर्ण बनने का यह कारण है कि भारत-पाक के बीच नमक का व्यापार गैरकानूनी था। दूसरे, यह विभाजन की यादों से जुड़ी है। कस्टम अधिकारी नमक की पुड़िया लौटाते हुए भावुक हो उठा क्योंकि हर व्यक्ति को जन्मभूमि से लगाव होता है। उस प्रेम की अनुभूति से वह भावुक हो उठा। इस कहानी में नमक की पुड़िया के महत्त्पूर्ण बनने का यह कारण है कि भारत-पाक के बीच नमक का व्यापार गैरकानूनी था। दूसरे, यह विभाजन की यादों से जुड़ी है। कस्टम अधिकारी नमक की पुड़िया लौटाते हुए भावुक हो उठा क्योंकि हर व्यक्ति को जन्मभूमि से लगाव होता है। उस प्रेम की अनुभूति से वह भावुक हो उठा।

(ग) बाबा भीमराव आंबेडकर के अनुसार उनकी कल्पना का आदर्श समाज कैसा होना चाहिए? अपने शब्दों में अभिव्यक्त करें।
उत्तर:

  • उनका यह आदर्श समाज स्वतंत्रता, समता व भ्रातृता पर आधारित होगा। बाबा भीमराव आम्बेडकर के अनुसार उनकी कल्पना के आदर्श समाज में निम्नलिखित बातें होनी चाहिए
  • उनका यह आदर्श समाज स्वतंत्रता, समता व भ्रातृता पर आधारित होगा।
  • उस समाज में गतिशीलता होनी चाहिए जिससे कोई भी वांछित परिवर्तन समाज के एक छोर से दूसरे तक संचारित हो सके।
    ऐसे समाज के बहुविधि हितों में सबका भाग होगा तथा सबको उनकी रक्षा के प्रति सजग रहना चाहिए।
  • सामाजिक जीवन में अवाध संपर्क के अनेक साधन व अवसर उपलब्ध रहने चाहिए। डॉ. आंबेडकर के विचार निश्चित रूप से क्रांतिकारी हैं, परंतु व्यवहार में यह बेहद कठिन हैं। व्यक्तिगत गुणों के कारण जो वर्ग समाज पर कब्ज़ा किए हुए हैं, वे अपने विशेषाधिकारों को आसानी से नहीं छोड़ सकते। यह समाज कुछ सीमा तक ही स्थापित हो सकता है।

(घ) ‘ढोल में जो जैसे पहलवान की जान बसी थी।’ ‘पहलवान की ढोलक’ पाठ के आधार पर तर्क सहित पंक्ति को सिद्ध कीजिए।
उत्तर:
पहलवान का सारा जीवन ही ढोल की आवाज़ से उठता-गिरता है, पहलवान की ढोलक पूरे गाँव में संजीवनी बूटी का कार्य करती है, ढोल की थाप से पहलवान की कुश्ती के दाँव-पेंच निश्चित होते थे। लुट्टन सिंह जब जवानी के जोश में आकर चाँद सिंह नामक मैंजे हुए पहलवान को ललकार बैठा तो सारा जनसमूह, राजा और पहलवानों का समूह आदि की यह धारणा थी कि यह कच्चा किशोर जिसने कुश्ती कभी सीखी नहीं है, पहले दाँव में ही ढेर हो जाएगा। हालाँकि लुट्न सिंह की नसों में बिजली और मन में जीत का जज्बा उबाल खा रहा था। उसी थाप का अनुसरण करते हुए उसने ‘शेर के बच्चे को खूब धोया, उठा-उठाकर पटका और हरा दिया। इस जीत में एकमात्र ढोल ही उसके साथ था। अतः जीतकर वह सबसे पहले ढोल के पास दौड़ा और उसे प्रणाम किया।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Hindi Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (3 + 2 = 5)
(क) एन फ्रैंक की डायरी किट्टी को सम्बोधित कर ही क्यों लिखी गई है? यह डायरी वह किसी अपने को भी सम्बोधित कर सकती थी, तर्क सहित उत्तर दीजिए।
अथवा
मोहनजोदड़ो की सभ्यता को लो-प्रोफाइल सभ्यता क्यों माना गया है? (3)
उत्तर:
अपनी डायरी में अपनी गुड़िया को वह पत्र लिखती है। गुड़िया को पत्र लिखते हुए अपरोक्ष रूप से वह खुद से ही बातें करती है। वह जानती है। कि जिन बातों को वह लिख रही है, शायद उन्हें दूसरे व्यक्ति ठीक ढंग से न समझ पायें। इसीलिए उसे अपनी गुड़िया को संबोधित करते हुए पत्र लिखना पड़ा। अपनी डायरी में अपनी गुड़िया को वह पत्र लिखती है। गुड़िया को पत्र लिखते हुए अपरोक्ष रूप से वह खुद से ही बातें करती है। वह जानती है। कि जिन बातों को वह लिख रही है, शायद उन्हें दूसरे व्यक्ति ठीक ढंग से न समझ पायें। इसीलिए उसे अपनी गुड़िया को संबोधित करते हुए पत्र लिखना पड़ा।

अथवा

लेखक ने सिंधु सभ्यता को ‘लो प्रोफाइल’ सभ्यता कहा है। संसार के अन्य स्थानों पर खुदाई करने से राजतंत्र को प्रदर्शित करने वाले महल, धर्म की ताकत दिखाने वाले पूजा स्थल, मूर्तियाँ तथा पिरामिड मिले हैं। मोहनजोदड़ो में ऐसी कोई चीज नहीं मिली है जो राजसत्ता या धर्म के प्रभाव को दर्शाती है। लेखक ने सिंधु सभ्यता को ‘लो प्रोफाइल’ सभ्यता कहा है। संसार के अन्य स्थानों पर खुदाई करने से राजतंत्र को प्रदर्शित करने वाले महल, धर्म की ताकत दिखाने वाले पूजा स्थल, मूर्तियाँ तथा पिरामिड मिले हैं। मोहनजोदड़ो में ऐसी कोई चीज नहीं मिली है जो राजसत्ता या धर्म के प्रभाव को दर्शाती है। अकेलापन ही ऐन फ्रैंक के डायरी लेखन का कारण बना। यद्यपि वह अपने परिवार और वॉन दंपत्ति के साथ अज्ञातवास में दो वर्षों तक रही लेकिन इस दौरान किसी ने उसकी भावनाओं को समझने का प्रयास नहीं किया। पीटर यद्यपि उससे प्यार करता है लेकिन केवल दोस्त की तरह। जबकि हर किसी की शारीरिक जरूरतें होती हैं लेकिन पीटर इसकी इस जरूरत को नहीं समझ सकता । माता-पिता और बहनें ने भी कभी उसकी भावनाओं को गम्भीरता से नहीं। समझती शायद इसकी कारण वह डायरी लिखने लगी।

(ख) “काश, कोई तो होता जो मेरी भावनाओं को गम्भीरता से समझ पाता। अफसोस, ऐसा व्यक्ति मुझे अब तक नहीं मिला।” एन फ्रैंक की इस पंक्ति का आशय स्पष्ट करें।
अथवा
सिंधु सभ्यता के केन्द्र में समाज था, राजा या धर्म नहीं! सिद्ध कीजिए। (2)
उत्तर:
अकेलापन ही ऐन फ्रैंक के डायरी लेखन का कारण बना। यद्यपि वह अपने परिवार और वॉन दंपत्ति के साथ अज्ञातवास में दो वर्षों तक रही लेकिन इस दौरान किसी ने उसकी भावनाओं को समझने का प्रयास नहीं किया। पीटर यद्यपि उससे प्यार करता है लेकिन केवल दोस्त की तरह। जबकि हर किसी की शारीरिक जरूरतें होती हैं लेकिन पीटर इसकी इस जरूरत को नहीं समझ सकता। माता-पिता और बहनें ने भी कभी उसकी भावनाओं को गम्भीरता से नहीं। समझती शायद इसकी कारण वह डायरी लिखने लगी।

अथवा

इस सभ्यता को लेखक ने साधन-सम्पन्न माना है। इस सभ्यता ने भव्यता को महत्व नहीं दिया है। एक कलात्मकता को महत्व देती है। हम हम कह सकते हैं कि यहाँ के लोग बोध कला में रूचि रखते हैं। यहाँ की नगर व्यवस्था, पतीर तथा धातु से बनी मूर्तियाँ, पशु-पक्षियों की आकृतियाँ, सुन्दर मुहरें, खिलौने, बालों को संवारने का कंघा, गहने इत्यादि इसके सौन्दर्य बोध का प्रमाण देते हैं। यहाँ पर आपको राजचिन्ह या धर्म से सम्बन्धित चिन्ह नहीं मिलते हैं। यदि मिलते होते तो इसकी स्थिति बिल्कुल अलग होती। यहाँ आम जनता से जुड़े चिन्ह अधिक बिखरे हुए हैं। जिनका सौन्दर्य बोध इसी कारण विद्यमान है। यह सभ्यता हर तरह से समाज पोष्ज्ञित सभ्यता को दर्शाती है। यहाँ तक ताकत के चिन्ह नहीं मिलते। यह सभ्यता आपसी समझ के कारण लम्बे समय तक चली। यह आडम्बर रहित है। इस सभ्यता को लेखक ने साधन-सम्पन्न माना है। इस सभ्यता ने भव्यता को महत्व नहीं दिया है।

एक कलात्मकता को महत्व देती है। हम हम कह सकते हैं कि यहाँ के लोग बोध कला में रूचि रखते हैं। यहाँ की नगर व्यवस्था, पतीर तथा धातु से बनी मूर्तियाँ, पशु-पक्षियों की आकृतियाँ, सुन्दर मुहरें, खिलौने, बालों को संवारने का कंघा, गहने इत्यादि इसके सौन्दर्य बोध का प्रमाण देते हैं। यहाँ पर आपको राजचिन्ह या धर्म से सम्बन्धित चिन्ह नहीं मिलते हैं। यदि मिलते होते तो इसकी स्थिति बिल्कुल अलग होती। यहाँ आम जनता से जुड़े चिन्ह अधिक बिखरे हुए हैं। जिनका सौन्दर्य बोध इसी कारण विद्यमान है। यह सभ्यता हर तरह से समाज पोष्ज्ञित सभ्यता को दर्शाती है। यहाँ तक ताकत के चिन्ह नहीं मिलते। यह सभ्यता आपसी समझ के कारण लम्बे समय तक चली । यह आडम्बर रहित है।

Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Rulers and Buildings

Online Education for Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Rulers and Buildings

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Rulers and Buildings Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Online Education for Rulers and Buildings Class 7 Extra Questions History Chapter 5

Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Inscriptions on the walls of Qutb Minar are in which language?
Answer:
The inscriptions on the walls of Qutb Minar are in Arabic language.

Rulers And Buildings Class 7 Extra Questions From Books Question 2.
Which temple was a miniature model of the world?
Answer:
The Rajarajeshvara temple, built by the king Rajarajadeva was a miniature model of world ruled by the king and his allies.

Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 3.
How does Persian court chronicles describe Sultan?
Answer:
The Persian court chronicles describe Sultan as the “Shadow of God”.

Ncert Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 4.
Who constructed hauz i-Sultani?
Answer:
Delhi i-Kuhna or hauz i-Sultani was constructed by Sultan Iltutmish.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Rulers and Buildings

Class 7 History Chapter 5 Questions And Answers Question 5.
Which temple was repeatedly attacked by Mahmud of Ghazni?
Answer:
The Somnath temple in Gujarat was repeatedly attacked by Mahmud of Ghazni.

Rulers And Buildings Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 6.
Which Mughal emperor showed his love for gardens in his autobiography?
Answer:
Babur, the first Mughal emperor had shown his love for gardens in his autobiography.

Class 7 History Ch 5 Extra Questions Question 7.
In what styles were Vrindavan temples constructed?
Answer:
The Vrindavan temples were constructed in the architectural styles that were very similar to the Mughal palaces in Fatehpur Sikri.

Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions And Answers Pdf Question 8.
What is the most significant aspect of Humayun’s Tomb in Delhi?
Answer:
The Humayun’s Tomb in Delhi has a central towering dome and a tall gateway, which was the main feature of the central Asian Tomb of Timur.

Rulers And Buildings Class 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
What symbolised the evenhanded justice in Shah Jahan’s Court?
Answer:
The image ‘of legendary Greek god Orpheus playing lute symbolised the even-handed justice in Shah Jahan’s Court.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Rulers and Buildings

Class 7 History Chapter 5 Worksheets Question 10.
Why did Shah Jahan build Taj Mahal on the riverbank?
Answer:
Shah Jahan wanted to check and control the access that nobles had to the Yamuna river. Therefore, he built Taj Mahal on the river bank.

History Chapter 5 Class 7 Extra Questions Question 11.
What is the main feature of the elephant stables of Vijayanagara?
Answer:
The elephant stables of Vijayanagara were strongly influenced by the style of architecture found in the adjoining Sultanates of Bijapur and Golconda.

Chapter 5 History Class 7 Extra Questions Question 12.
What was the especiality of “Bangla Dome”?
Answer:
The roof of the “Bangla dome” resembled a thatched hut.

Class 7 History Chapter 5 Short Questions And Answers Question 13.
Why was limestone cement increasingly used in building construction in this period?
Answer:
Due to the following reasons limestone cement was increasingly used in the building construction in this period :

  • Limestone cement was the high-quality cement which when mixed with stone chips hardened into concrete.
  • This made construction of large structures easier and faster.

Extra Questions For Class 7 History Chapter 5 Question 14.
What is the significance of the inscription in the Quwwat al-Islam Mosque?
Answer:

  • The inscription in the Quwwat al- Islam Mosque explained that God chose Alauddin as a king because he had the qualities of Moses and Soloman, the great lawgivers of the past.
  • It, further, tells that the greatest lawgiver and architect was God Himself.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 15.
Describe the Shiva temple built by the Chola King Rajendra I?
Answer:

  • The Shiva Temple built by the Chola King Rajendra I had statues that he seized from the rulers that he defeated.
  • He installed a Sun pedestal from Chalukyas, a Ganesha statue and several statues of Durga.
  • He installed a Nandi statue from the eastern Chalukyas, an image of Bhairava and Bhairavi from the Kalingas of Orissa.
  • He also installed a Kali statue that he brought from the Palas of Bengal.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Rulers and Buildings

Ch 5 History Class 7 Extra Questions Question 16.
Describe the main features of Akbar’s architecture.
Answer:
Akbar’s architecture has following features :

  • Humayun’s tomb built by Akbar has a central towering dome and a tall gateway. It was inspired by the tomb of Timur, his central Asian ancestor.
  • The tomb was placed in the centre of a huge formal Chahar bagh.
  • It was built in the tradition known as “eight Paradises” or hasht bihisht-a central hall surrounded by eight rooms.
  • The building was constructed with red sandstone, „edged with white marble.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Inscriptions on the walls of Qutb Minar are in which language?
(a) Prakrit
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Arabic
(d) English.
Answer:
(c) Arabic.

2. Between eighth and eighteenth centuries, what kind of structures were made by the kings and their officers?
(a) Only private structures
(b) Only public structures
(c) Structures made by the red stone
(d) Both private and public structures.
Answer:
(d) Both private and public structures.

3. Which one of the following was known as private structures?
(a) Forts
(b) Temples
(c) Tanks
(d) Caravanserais.
Answer:
(a) Forts.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Rulers and Buildings

4. Which of the following can be included under public structures?
(a) Forts
(b) Palaces
(c) Temples
(d) Gardens
Answer:
(c) Temples.

5. Which one of the following temples was a miniature model of the world?
(a) Laxmi Narayan Mandir, Delhi
(b) The Rajarajeshwara Temple, Thanjavur
(c) The Chhatarpur Mandir, Delhi
(d) Vishwanath Mandir, Kasi.
Answer:
(b) The Rajarajeshwara Temple, Thanjavur.

6. How does Persian court chronicles describe Sultan?
(а) As the “Shadow of God”
(b) As the “Shadow of Citizens”
(c) As a poet
(d) As a great singer.
Answer:
(а) As the “Shadow of God”.

7. Delhi-i-Kuhna or Hauz-i-Sultani was constructed by
(а) Qutbuddin Aybak
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) Sultan Iltutmish
(d) Sultan Ghiyasuddin Balban.
Answer:
(c) Sultan Iltutmish.

8. What did the Pandayan king Shrimara Shrivallabha do in the early ninth century?
(a) He built a Buddha’s temple in Sri Lanka.
(b) He invaded Sri Lanka and defeated the King Sena.
(c) He attacked on Delhi.
(d) He destroyed mosques in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(b) He invaded Sri Lanka and defeated the King Sena.

9. Which one of the following temples was repeatedly attacked by Mahmud of Ghazni?
(а) The Kamakhya Mandir, Assam
(b) The Sun Temple, Konark
(c) The Somnath Temple, Gujrat
(d) Laxmi Narayan Mandir, Delhi.
Answer:
(c) The Somnath Temple, Gujrat.

10. Which of the following Mughal emperors showed his love for gardens in his autobiography?
(a) Babur
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan.
Answer:
(a) Babur.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers Rulers and Buildings

11. In what styles were Vrindavan temples constructed?
(а) Similar to Gupta architecture
(b) Similar to the Pandya palaces
(c) Similar to the Mughal palaces in Fatehpur Sikri
(d) Similar to Sher Shah Suri’s palaces in Sasaram
Answer:
(b) Similar to the Pandya palaces.

Important Years Or Periods:

999: The Kandariya Mahadeva temple dedicated to Shiva was constructed by King Dhangadeva of the Chandela dynasty.

1199: Qutb Minar was constructed by Qutbuddin Aybak.

Important Terms:

→ Trabeate/Corbelled: A style of architecture in which roofs, doors and windows were made by placing a horizontal beam across two vertical columns.

→ Superstructure: The part of a building above the ground floor.

→Arcuate: A style of architecture in which the weight of the superstructure above doors and. windows was carried by arches.

→ Pishtaq: It was the tall gateway of the central towering dome in the Mughal buildings.

→ Pietra dura: Coloured, hard stones placed in depressions carved into marble or sandstone creating beautiful ornate patterns.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Class 6 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Urban Livelihoods

Online Education for Class 6 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Urban Livelihoods

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 6 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Urban Livelihoods was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-6-social-science/

Online Education for Urban Livelihoods Class 6 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 9

I. Fill in the blanks in the following sentences, with appropriate word/phrase.

(1) ………………. gives shave to the men. (Barber/Cobbler)
Answer:
Barbar

(2) In certain parts of the city ………………. are not allowed. (hawkers/vendors)
Answer:
hawkers

(3) ………………. sell things that are often prepared at home. (Hawkers/Vendors).
Answer:
Vendors

(4) The trend in the present day is for ………………. .(ready-made garments/getting them stitched)
Answer:
ready-made garments

(5) ………………. and ………………. are towns near Delhi. (Ludhiana/Tripura/Noida/Gurgaon)
Answer:
Noida, Gurgoan.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Key Urban Livelihoods

Urban Livelihood Class 6 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
They say that ‘city never sleeps’. Explain.
Answer:
It means that business is going, on in the city for twenty- four hours and on all the days in a week. Some part of the city is always buzzing with activity.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions Question 2.
When does the work begin in a city?
Answer:
The work begins early in the morning in a big city and continues till late in the night.

Urban Livelihood Class 6 Questions And Answers Question 3.
What does a vegetable vendor sell?
Answer:
The vegetable vendor sells vegetables like tomatoes, cucumbers, potatoes and other vegetables.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
Name different types of things sold by the vendors.
Answer:
Vendors sell things like vegetables, flowers, newspapers, etc.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 9 Question Answer Question 5.
What is a ‘rented room’?
Answer:
It is a room for which payment is made, every month. It is on hire. Many people may share a rented room.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Key Urban Livelihoods

Extra Questions Of Urban Livelihood Question 6.
What percentage of people work on the street in the city of Ahmedabad? What work do they do?
Answer:
About 12 per cent of the workers work on the street, in the city of Ahmedabad. They mainly sell things or. repair them or provide a service.

Ncert Class 6 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions Question 7.
Who are vendors?
Answer:
Vendors sell things that are often prepared at home by their families! They purchase, clean sort and make them ready to sell. e.g., those who sell food or snacks on the street prepare most of these at home.

Urban Livelihood Class 6 Extra Questions Question 8.
What is the difference between a hawker and a vendor?
Answer:
Hawker is a person who offers goods for sale in the market, e.g., newspaper hawker. Vendor is a person who sells things that are often prepared at home by their families, who purchase, clean, sort and make them ready to sell, e.g., those who sell food or snacks on the street, prepare most of them at home.

Urban Livelihoods Class 6 Extra Questions Question 9.
Name different categories of people who do work on daily wages.
Answer:
The people who work on daily wages are –

  • People in the labour chowk are daily wage earners who wait with their tools for people to come and take them to work.
  • People who work in factories and small workshops are daily wage earners. They are employed on casual basis, i.e., they are required to come when there they are needed.

Ncert Solutions For Class 6 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions Question 10.
What is a Call Centre? Write about the work done in the Call Centre. Why are they set up in India?
Answer:
A Call Centre is a centralised office that deals with problems and. questions that consumers/customers have regarding goods purchased and services like banking, ticket booking etc. It is a new form of employment in big cities. Call centres are generally set up as large rooms with workstations that include a computer, a telephone set, and supervisors stations.

India has become a major centre not only for Indian companies but also for foreign companies. Call Centres are set up in India because they can get people who can speak English and will work for lower wages.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Key Urban Livelihoods

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Why was the vegetable vendor busy in arranging vegetables in baskets at his/her stall?
(а) So that it looked beautiful
(b) So that people could see what he/she had to sell
(c) So that more and more vegetables can be put
(d) So that he/she could carry it for a long way.
Answer:
(b) So that people could see what he/she had to sell.

2. Why is it said that “city never sleeps”?
(а) Business goes on in the city at night
(b) Business in the city goes on during the day
(c) Business goes on for twenty-four hours in the city
(d) People in the city suffers from sleeplessness.
Answer:
(c) Business goes on for twenty-four hours in the city.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Key Urban Livelihoods

3. What percentage of people work on the street in the city of Ahmedabad?
(a) 6%
(b) 12%
(c) 25%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(b) 12%.

4. Which one of the following refers to “the right of people to earn their livelihood”?
(а) According to the Constitution of India, people have the freedom to expression
(b) According to the Constitution of India, people have the freedom to follow any profession and earn their living
(c) People have the right to earn high income
(d) People have the right to live.
Answer:
(b) According to the Constitution of India, people have the freedom to follow any profession and earn their living.

5. Which one of the following refers to hawking zones?
(а) The areas in the city where hawkers are not allowed to sell their wares
(b) The areas in the city where hawkers are allowed to sell then-wares
(c) The areas of heavy traffic
(d) The eneas of less traiffic.
Answer:
(b) The areas in the city where hawkers are allowed to sell then- wares.

6. Which one of the following refers to casual workers?
(а) They are required to come as and when the employer needs them
(b) Those who works in the organised sector
(c) Those who works in the coal mines
(d) Those who works in the public sector
Answer:
(а) They are required to come as and when the employer needs them.

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

Class 8 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Confronting Marginalisation

Online Education for Class 8 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Confronting Marginalisation

Here we are providing Online Education Class 8 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Confronting Marginalisation was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-social-science/

Online Education for Confronting Marginalisation Class 8 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 8

(a) Kalapattu is a village, that is close to the sea coast in …………………………… . (Tamilnadu/Kerala)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu

(b) The main crop grown in the village is the …………………………… . (wheat/paddy)
Answer:
paddy

(c) …………………………… of all rural families are agricultural labourers. (Two fifths/One third).
Answer:
Two fifths

(d) In the coastal areas there are …………………………… (paddy fields/forests/fishing villages)
Answer:
fishing villages

(e) Aruna is …………………………… and lives in the village of …………………………… . (landless worker/fisherwoman Kalpattu/Pudupet)
Answer:
fisherwoman, Pudupet.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Confronting Marginalisation

Class 8 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What kind of food is sold in the tea shops?
Answer:
The tea shops sell tiffins – such as idli, dosa and update in the morning and snacks like vada, bonda and Mysore Pak in the evening.

Confronting Marginalisation Class 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
What kind of village is Kalpattu?
Answer:
Kalpattu is a village that is close to the sea coast in Tamilnadu. The village is surrounded by low hills.

Chapter 8 Civics Class 8 Extra Questions Question 3.
What is the main work of the people in the village of Kalpattu?
Answer:
Paddy is the main crop that is grown in irrigated lands. Most of the families earn a living through agriculture.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Confronting Marginalisation

Class 8 Civics Ch 8 Extra Questions Question 4.
Name the crops, other than paddy, which are grown in the village of Kalpattu.
Answer:
The other crops grown are coconut, cotton, sugarcane, and plantain and mango, in the village of Kalpattu

Confronting Marginalisation Extra Question Answer Question 5.
Why does Thulasi find that the work is difficult now?
Answer:
Thulasi is growing older and bending for long hours, with feet in water is very painful.

Confronting Marginalisation Class 8 Extra Questions Question 6.
Who supervises the work in Ramalingam’s field?
Answer:
Krauth-amma, who is Ramalingam’s wife supervises the work in the field.

Ncert Class 8 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 7.
Why does Thulsai work for Ramalingam, even when he gives less wages?
Answer:
Thulasi works for less wages for Ramalingam because he calls her back whenever there is work. He does not go looking for cheap labour from other villages.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Confronting Marginalisation

Ncert Solutions For Class 8 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 8.
Who are agricultural labourers?
Answer:
Agricultural labourers are landless fanners, who work on the land belonging to others. Some may own small plots of land.

Confronting Marginalisation Extra Questions Question 9.
Name the group of people who provide services.
Answer:
The people who provide services are blacksmiths, nurses, teachers, washermen, weavers, barbers, cycle repair mechanics and so on. Construction workers and lorry drivers also come into this category. They are paid for the services that they provide.

Extra Questions Of Confronting Marginalisation Question 10.
How are daughters treated by Thulasi and her husband?
Answer:
Thulasi has brought up her daughters with love, care and attention. They are sent to school because she realises the importance of education. When one of the daughters fell sick she was taken to the hospital, even though they had to sell their cow to pay back the money that they had borrowed.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Why do rural poor families spend a lot of time in collecting firewood, getting water and grazing their cattle?
(a) They have interest in all these works
(b) Otherwise, they are not able to survive on the little money they earn
(c) They are bound to do these works by the district administration
(d) They earn high income from these works.
Answer:
(b) Otherwise, they are not able to survive on the little money they earn.

2. Which of the following crops are grown in the village, Kalpattu?
(a) Paddy
(b) Coconut
(c) Sugarcane
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Confronting Marginalisation

3. What are the major sources of borrowing among agricultural labourers and small farmers in rural areas?
(a) Landlords
(b) Village moneylenders
(c) Scheduled banks
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

4. Which one of the following refers to a hybrid cow?
(а) An offspring of two different breeds of the same animal
(b) An offspring of two different breeds of the different animals
(c) A cow that gives much milk
(d) A cow that gives little milk.
Answer:
(а) An offspring of two different breeds of the same animal.

5. Which one of the following is most difficult time for the fisherman in terms of livelihood?
(a) The winter season
(b) The monsoon season
(c) The spring season
(d) The summer season
Answer:
(b) The monsoon season.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17

Online Education for Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17

Here we are providing Online Education for Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17 was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-8-science/

Online Education for Class 8 Science Chapter 17 Extra Questions and Answers Stars and the Solar System

Question 1.
What is the brightest object in the night sky?
Answer:
The moon is the brightest object in the night sky.

Question 2.
Moon revolves around, which celestial body?
Answer:
The moon revolves around the Earth.

Question 3.
Which celestial bodies revolve round the Sun?
Answer:
Planets along with their satellites, comets, asteroids.

Question 4.
When did man land on the moon for the first time?
Answer:
Man landed on the moon for the first time on July 21, 1969.

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17

Question 5.
Who was the first human being to set foot on the moon?
Answer:
Neil Armstrong was the first human being to set foot on the moon.

Question 6.
Who was the second astronaut who landed on the moon after Neil Armstrong?
Answer:
Edwin Aldrin was the second astronaut who landed on the moon.

Question 7.
What is the speed of light in air?
Answer:
The speed of light in air is 3 x 105 km per second.

Question 8.
Which direction do stars move?
Answer:
Stars move from east to west.

Question 9.
Is there any change in the shape of the constellations?
Answer:
The shape of the constellations does not change.

Question 10.
What is the other name of Orion?
Answer:
The other name of the Orion is Hunter.

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17

Question 11.
What does Cassiopeia look like?
Answer:
Cassiopeia looks like a distorted letter W or M.

Question 12.
Planets shine like stars. Do planets have light of their own?
Answer:
Although the planets shine like stars, but they do not have light of their own.

Question 13.
Do all planets have satellites?
Answer:
Not all planets, but some of them have satellites.

Question 14.
Does Venus have moon?
Answer:
Venus does not have moon or satellite of its own.

Question 15.
Name the only planet in the solar system which has life on its surface.
Answer:
The Earth is the only planet in the solar system where life is known to exist.

Question 16.
What is called equatorial plane of the Earth?
Answer:
The plane of the equator is called the equatorial plane of the Earth.

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17

Question 17.
Which planet is the first outside from Earth (Orbit) in terms of distance from the Sun?
Answer:
It is Mars.

Question 18.
Compare the mass of Jupiter with that of Earth.
Answer:
Mars of Jupiter is about 318 times that of Earth.

Question 19.
Which is the largest planet of the solar system?
Answer:
The largest planet of the solar system is Jupiter.

Question 20.
Does Jupiter have rings?
Answer:
Yes, Jupiter has faint rings around it.

Question 21.
Name the outermost planets of the solar system.
Answer:
Uranus and Neptune are the outermost planets of the solar system.

Question 22.
What is the other name of shooting star?
Answer:
The other name of the shooting star is meteor.

Question 23.
Why was the village sky so different from the night sky in big cities?
Answer:
Due to bright lights, smoke and other atmospheric pollution, a clear view of night sky in the big cities is rare, whereas it is possible in the village night sky.

Question 24.
What is meant by the term celestial object? What is the brightest object in the night sky?
Answer:
The stars, the planets, the moon and many other objects in the sky are called celestial objects. The moon is the brightest object in the night sky.

Question 25.
What is the full moon day? What happens to the moon after full moon day?
Answer:
The day on which the whole disc of the moon is visible is known as the full moon day. Thereafter, every night the size, of the bright part of the moon decreases.

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17

Question 26.
What is new moon day and the crescent moon?
Answer:
On the fifteenth day after full moon day, the moon is not visible. This day is known as the new moon day.
The next day of new moon day, only a small part of the moon appears in the sky, which is called the crescent moon.

Question 27.
How many rotations are completed by the moon, when it completes one revolution?
Answer:
The moon completes one rotation on its axis as it completes one revolution around the Earth.

Question 28.
Why do stars appear to us like points, whereas Sun looks bigger?
Answer:
The stars are million times farther away than the Sun. That is why the stars appear to us like points. On the other hand, The Sun is nearer to the Earth than other stars, so the Sun looks bigger.

Question 29.
How far is the Sun from the Earth? Which is the next star nearest to the Earth?
Answer:
The Sun is nearly 150,000,000 kilometres (150 million km) away from the Earth. The next nearest star to the Earth is the Alpha Centauri.

Question 30.
What is the distance of Alpha Centauri from Earth?
Answer:
The next nearest star to the Earth after the Sun is Alpha Centauri, which is at a distance of about 40,000,000,000,000 km from the Earth.

Question 31.
Does the Pole star move? Is it a star or a planet?
Answer:
The Pole star is not a planet. It is a star. The Pole star does not appear to move like other stars as it lies close to earth’s axis of rotation.

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17

Question 32.
What is an orbit?
Answer:
A planet has a definite path in which it revolves around the Sun. This path is called an orbit.

Question 33.
What is the period of revolution? What happens if distance of a planet from the Sun increases?
Answer:
The time taken by a planet to complete one revolution is called it’s period of revolution. The period of revolution increases as the distance of the planet from the Sun increases.

Question 34.
What is the period of rotation?
Answer:
The time taken by the planet to complete one rotation is called it’s period of rotation.

Question 35.
What is meant by the term satellite? What is moon?
Answer:
A body revolving around another body is called a satellite. Generally, we use the term satellite for the bodies revolving around a planet. Moon is the natural satellite of the Earth.

Question 36.
What do you understand by natural satellite?
Answer:
Any celestial body revolving around another celestial body is called its natural satellite.

Question 37.
What do you understand by artificial satellite?
Answer:
There are many man-made satellites revolving round the Earth. These are called artificial satellites of the Earth.

Question 38.
What is unusual in the rotation of Venus?
Answer:
The rotation of Venus on its axis is somewhat unusual. It rotates from east to west while the Earth rotates from west to east.

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17

Question 39.
Why is Venus called a morning or an evening star?
Answer:
Sometimes Venus appears in the eastern sky before sunrise. Sometimes it appears in the western sky just after sunset. That is why, it is often called a morning or an evening star, although it is not a star.

Question 40.
How is Venus observed in the sky?
Answer:
Venus cannot be observed very high in the sky. It can be observed either 1-3 hours before sunrise’ or 1-3 hours after sunset.

Question 41.
Does Venus show phases like moon?
Answer:
If Venus is observed through a telescope, it shows phases just like the moon.

Question 42.
Why does the Earth appear blue-green from space?
Answer:
From space, the Earth appears blue and green due to the reflection of light from water and landmass on its surface.

Question 43.
Is axis of rotation of the Earth perpendicular to the plane of its orbit? How does the change of seasons take place?
Answer:
The axis of rotation of the Earth is not perpendicular to the plane of its orbit.
The change of seasons on the Earth is caused due to tilted axis of rotation of Earth.

Question 44.
What are equatorial and orbital planes of the Earth?
Answer:
The plane of the equator is called the equatorial plane of the Earth while the plane in which the Earth revolves round the Sun is called the orbital plane of the Earth.

Question 45.
Why is Mars called the red planet? How many natural satellites does Mars have?
Answer:
Mars appears slightly reddish and, therefore, it is also called the red planet. Mars has two small natural satellites.

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17

Question 46.
Which planets are called inner planets?
Answer:
Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars are much nearer to the Sun than the other planets. They are, therefore, called the inner or terrestrial planets.

Question 47.
(i) What is the angle (argument) between Earth’s equatorial of orbital plane?
(ii) What is the angle between earth’s axis and orbital plane?
Answer:
(i) 23.5°
(ii) 66.5°.

Question 48.
What is light year? Which is nearest star to the sun and how far away it is?
Answer:
Light year is the distance travelled by light in one year. Large distances in the space are measured in light years. The distance of the Sun from the Earth may be said to be about 8 light minutes.
The nearest star to the sun is Alpha Centauri. The distance of Alpha Centauri is about 4.3 light-years.

Question 49.
Write four uses of artificial satellites.
Answer:
Uses of artificial satellites :

  1. They help in television and radio transmission.
  2. They help in telephonic communication.
  3. They help to study and forecast the weather by sending cloud pictures to the Earth, taken from space.
  4. They help in locating mineral elements by remote sensing (collecting information from distance).
  5. They help the scientists, to explore the universe in a better way. (Any four)

Question  50.
Describe the Sun in brief.
Answer:
The Sun is the nearest star from us. It is continuously emitting huge amounts of heat and light. The Sun is the source of almost all energy on the Earth. In fact, the Sim is the main source of heat and light to all the planets that revolve around it.

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17

Question  51.
How can you differentiate between planets and stars?
Answer:
The simplest method of identifying planets from stars is that stars twinkle whereas planets do not. Also, they (planets) appear to change their positions with respect to the stars. A planet has a definite path (orbit) to revolve around the Sun. The stars do not have orbits.

Question  52.
What is meant by outer planets? Describe.
Answer:
The planets outside the orbit of Mars, namely Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are much farther from the Sun than that the inner planets. So, they are called the outer planets. The masses and sizes of the outer planets are much larger than the masses and sizes of the inner planets. They have ring system around them. The outer planets have a large number of satellites.

Question  53.
Describe :
(i) Asteroids,
(ii) Comets,
(iii) Meteors,
(iv) Meteorites and
(v) Meteor showers.
Answer:
(i) Asteroids: The large number of small objects that revolve around the Sun and occupy the large gaps between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called asteroids. These can be seen by large telescopes only.

(ii) Comets: They are also the members of our solar system. They revolve around the Sun in highly elliptical orbits. The period of their revolution around the Sun is very large.

The comet has a bright head with a long tail. The length of comet’s tail grows in size as it approaches the Sun. The tail of a comet is always directed away from the Sign. There are many comets which appear only after a definite time period. One of such comets is the Halley’s comet, which takes 76 years to reappear. It was last seen in 1986. The next time it will reappear in 2062.

(iii) Meteors: Bright streaks of light seen at night in the sky are called shooting stars or meteors. Meteors are usually small heavenly bodies which enters the Earth’s atmosphere with a very high speed, a friction is produced due to which the meteor heats up to such an extent that it burns out in a very short time. That is why the bright streak of light appears for a very short while.

(iv) Meteorites: Sometimes meteors are so large that a part of them reaches the surface of the Earth before they burn off completely. These are called meteorites. These help the scientists in investigating the nature of the material from which the solar system was formed.

(v) Meteor showers: When Earth crosses the tail of a comet, swarms of meteors are seen. These are known as meteor showers. Some meteor showers occur at regular times each year.

Question 54.
Write a brief note on the planet ‘Earth’.
Answer:
Earth is the only planet in the solar system where life is known to exist. Life exists on Earth because Earth is situated just at the right distance from the Sun. Certain environmental conditions are also responsible for the existence and continuation of life on the Earth. These include presence of water and suitable atmosphere, right temperature range, and a blanket of ozone.

From the space, the Earth appears blue-green due to the reflection of light from water and landmass on its surface. The axis of rotation of the Earth is not perpendicular to the plane of its orbit. The change in seasons on the Earth is caused, due to this tilt. The Earth has only one satellite, namely moon. The equatorial plane and orbital plane of earth are inclined to each other at an angle of 23.5°. This means that the axis of the Earth is inclined to its orbital plane at and angle of 66.5°. So, the axis of the Earth makes an angle of 23.5° with the perpendicular to the orbital plane.

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 17

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one is not a part of solar system?
(a) Moon
(b) Meteors
(c) Neptune
(d) Orion
Answer:
(d) Orion.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science

Class 7 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Markets Around Us

Online Education for Class 7 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Markets Around Us

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Markets Around Us Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Online Education for Markets Around Us Class 7 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 7

Class 7 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 1.
What do advertisements do?
Answer:
Advertisements draw our attention to products and make us interested in buying them.

Market Around Us Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
Why are the companies using advertising?
Answer:
Companies are using advertisements to build brand of their products.

Understanding Advertising Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 3.
What do you mean by branding?
Answer:
‘Branding’ means stamping a product with a particular name or sign.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Markets Around Us

Class 7 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
What is difference between loose and packed daals?
Answer:
There is a little difference between daals that are sold loose and those sold in packets.

Understanding Advertising Class 7 Extra Questions Question 5.
Why do you think the manu¬facturers of the soap and the daal gave their products specific names?
Answer:
The manufacturers of the daal and the soap gave their products specific names like “Show you child you care” and “Top Taste Daal” respectively so that they can draw our attention. These names also describe the products, daal and soap positively so that we may become convinced and interested to buy them.

Chapter 7 Civics Class 7 Extra Questions Question 6.
What role do advertisements play in our lives?
Answer:
We mostly buy branded products under the influence of advertisements. Their branded products influence the ways in which we think about ourselves, our friends and our family.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Markets Around Us

Ncert Class 7 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 7.
Why do we feel tempted to buy the branded products advertised?
Answer:

  • Often several of our cricket heroes and our favourite film stars try and sell products of different brands to us through advertisements.
  • We may feel tempted to buy these products because persons whom we consider our heroes tell us that they are worth buying.
  • In addition, advertisements often show us images of the lifestyle of rich people and seldom show us the reality of people’s lives that we see around us.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following draws our attention to various products?
(a) Movies
(b) Advertisements
(c) Serials
(d) News.
Answer:
(b) Advertisements.

2. Advertisement is all about;
(а) building brands
(b) entertainment
(c) to show the products
(d) the information of new brands.
Answer:
(а) building brands.

3. Which one of the following statements truly expresses the word “branding”?
(a) It is a name of a product.
(b) Symbols of various products.
(c) Stamping a product with a particular name or sign.
(d) Various names are used for a product.
Answer:
(c) Stamping a product with a particular name or sign.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Markets Around Us

4. Why is the branding used for products?
(a) To make them lucrative
(b) To make them useable
(c) escalate their qualities
(d) To differentiate them from other products in the market.
Answer:
(d) To differentiate them from other products in the market.

5. What is the main aim of the advertisement?
(a) To get people to buy a particular brand
(b) To make the product famous
(c) To keep it different
(d) It is a sort of entertainment.
Answer:
(a) To get people to buy a particular brand.

6. Which one of the following is very expensive?
(а) Giving news in the media
(b) Producing and showing advertisements in the media
(c) Showing movies on TV
(d) Branding a product.
Answer:
(b) Producing and showing advertisements in the media.

7. Why are the homemade products not considered as fashionable as brand products?
(а) They are not clean.
(b) They lack in taste.
(c) Lack of advertisement and branding.
(d) They are not nutritious.
Answer:
(c) Lack of advertisement and branding.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Markets Around Us

8. Which one of the following products are considered best?
(a) Packaged and branded
(b) Loose products
(c) fresh
(d) Nutritious
Answer:
(a) Packaged and branded.

Important Terms:

Product: Product refers to a thing or an article or substance or service that has been manufactured or made for sale in the market.

Consumer: Consumer refers to the person, for whom the goods or, products have been made and who pays money to buy and use them.

Brand: Brand refers to a special i4entification or a particular name given to a product made by a company. Such identification or name is established or popularised in public through the process of advertising.

To influence: To influence refers to the power to change what someone believes or does.

Lifestyle: Lifestyle is the way in which someone lives. It identifies the people’s lives by the products they use, the clothes they wear, the places they eat in, etc.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Class 8 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers When People Rebel

Online Education for Class 8 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers When People Rebel

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Online Education for When People Rebel Class 8 Extra Questions History Chapter 5

Question 1.
When was the subsidiary alliance imposed on Awadh?
Answer:
In 1801.

Question 2.
When was Awadh annexed?
Answer:
In 1856.

Question 3.
On what ground was Awadh annexed.
Answer:
It was said that the territory was misgoverned and the British rule was needed to ensure proper administration.

Question 4.
Why were the sepoys reluctant to serve overseas?
Answer:
This was because, those days many people in the country believed that if they crossed the sea, they would lose their religion and caste.

Question 5.
Why did the sepoy refused to go to Burma in 1824?
Answer:
Due to fear of losing their religion and caste by travelling through the sea route.

Class 8 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers When People Rebel

Question 6.
When was a new law passed, if required, sepoy had to serve overseas?
Answer:
In 1856.

Question 7.
What was the impact of the British land policies, on the sepoy?
Answer:
The sepoys were angry because many of them were peasants and had families in the villages.

Question 8.
When did the sepoy mutiny start?
Answer:
In May 1857.

Question 9.
From where did the sepoy mutiny begin?
Answer:
From Meerut.

Question 10.
Who was Mangal Pandey? Why is he famous?
Answer:
Mangal Pandey was a sepoy in the Company army. He rebelled against the British and was hanged.

Question 11.
Who was Nana Saheb?
Answer:
Nana Saheb was the adopted son of the late Peshwa Baji fear.

Question 12.
Who was Tantia Tope?
Answer:
He was the general of Nana Saheb.

Question 13.
Below are given the names of some rebel leaders. Name the places where they headed the rebellion. Ahmadullah Khan, Kunwar Singh, Bakht Khan.
Answer:
Ahmadullah Khan – Lucknow Kunwar Singh – Bihar Bakht Khan – Delhi.

Question 14.
When was Delhi recaptured from the rebel forces.
Answer:
In September 1857.

Class 8 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers When People Rebel

Question 15.
Which rebel leader fought a ‘guerilla war with the British?
Answer:
Tantia Tope.

Question 16.
What reward was announced for the loyal landlords?
Answer:
They were allowed to continue to enjoy traditional rights over their lands.

Question 17.
When was the power from the hands of the East India Company transferred to the British Crown?
Answer:
In 1858.

Question 18.
What was the Governor-General called from 1858?
Answer:
Viceroy.

Question 19.
What major change was observed in ruling Indian territory after the revolt of 1857?
Answer:
After the revolt of 1857, the British Government undertook direct responsibility for ruling India.

Question 20.
Why were Muslims treated as hostile after 1857?
Answer:
This was because the British believed that they were responsible for the rebellion in a big way.

Question 21.
What plan did the company make to bring an end to the Mughal dynasty?
Answer:

  • In 1849, Dalhousie announced that after the death of Bahadur Shah, the family of the king will have to leave the Red Fort.
  • In 1856, Canning decided that Bahadur Shah Zafar would be the last king. After his death none of his descendants would be recognised as king.

Question 22.
Why were the sepoys employed in the service of the Company unhappy?
Answer:

  • Most of the sepoys were farmers and land policies of the Eptish harmed them.
  • They were unhappy about their post, allowances and conditions of service.
  • Also, some of the new rules violated their religious sensibilities and beliefs.

Question 23.
What new rule was passed about the overseas service of the sepoy in 1856?
Answer:
In 1856, the Company passed a new rule that every new person who would look for employment in the Company’s army had to agree to serve overseas if required.

Class 8 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers When People Rebel

Question 24.
How did the following react during 1857? Nana Saheb, Begum Hazrat Mahal.
Answer:

  • Nana Saheb – He gathered armed forces and expelled the British garrison from Kanpur. He proclaimed himself Peshwa. He declared that he was a governor under emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar.
  • Begum Hazrat Mahal – She was the wife of the deposed Nawab Wazid Ali Shah of Lucknow. She took an active part in organising the uprising against the British.

Question 25.
On the outline map of India, locate the following places :
(a) Jhansi
(b) Meerut
Answer:
Class 8 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers When People Rebel 1

Question 26.
What reforms were made by the British in the Indian society? How did Indians see these laws?
Answer:
1.

  • Laws were passed to stop the practice of Sati and to encourage the remarriage of widows.
  • English-language education was actively promoted.
  • The Company allowed Christian missionaries to function freely in its domain and even own land and property.
  • Laws were passed for easy conversion to Christianity. Those who converted to Christianity could now inherit ancestral property.

2. Many people felt that British were destroying their religions, social customs and traditional ways of life.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The British did not recognise the adopted son of Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi as the heir to the kingdom.
(b) Nana Saheb, the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II, was denied his father’s pension.
(c) Awadh was annexed in 1856.
(d) The descendants of Bahadur Shah Zafar were recognised as kings.
Answer:
(d) The descendants of Bahadur Shah Zafar were recognised as kings.

2. A massive rebellion against the British started in May 1857. Sepoys mutinied in several places beginning from
(a) Delhi
(b) Meerut
(c) Lucknow
(d) Kanpur
Answer:
(b) Meerut.

Class 8 History Chapter 5 Extra Questions and Answers When People Rebel

3. Tick the wrong pair in the following.
(a) Mangal Pandey – Meerut
(b) Ahmadullah Shah – Faizabad
(c) Bakht Khan – Bareilly
(d) Kunwar Singh – Bihar.
Answer:
(a) Mangal Pandey – Meerut.

4. Which statement is not correct in the following?
(a) Bahadur Shah Zafar’s sons were shot dead by the British before his eyes.
(b) Ghazis were religious warriors who came together to wipe out the white people in the 1857 Revolt.
(c) Bahadur Shah Zafar died in Delhi in 1862.
(d) Begam Hazrat Mahal took an active part in organising the uprising against the British in Lucknow.
Answer:
(c) Bahadur Shah Zafar died in Delhi in 1862.

5. Which of the following towns were not the main centres of the 1857 Revolt?
(a) Meerut, Delhi
(b) Moradabad, Saharanpur
(c) Lucknow, Kanpur
(d) Jhansi, Bareilly
Answer:
(b) Moradabad, Saharanpur

6. Who was the last Mughal emperor?
(a) Akbar
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Jahangir
(d) Bahadur Shah Zafar
Answer:
(d) Bahadur Shah Zafar.

Glossary:

→ Mutiny – When soldiers as a group disobey their officers in the army.

→ Firan gis – Foreigners. The term reflects an attitude of contempt.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

Online Education for Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wild Life was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Online Education for Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 6

Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 7 Extra Questions Question 1.
What is biosphere?
Answer:
Biosphere is the narrow zone on the upper part of the lithosphere where land, air and water meet and together support the life.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
On which factor does the growth of vegetation depend?
Answer:

  • Change in height,
  • Climatic changes,
  • Slope,
  • Thickness of soil.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 3.
Write the extension of biosphere.
Answer:
Biosphere extends from less than 11 km below sea level to the tropopause, which is less than 17 km above sea level.

Extra Questions Of Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 7 Question 4.
Natural vegetation can be classified into how many categories?
Answer:

  • Forests,
  • grasslands and
  • shrubs and scrubs.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

Class 7 Geography Ch 6 Extra Questions Question 5.
Which type of climate is suitable for the growth of forests and grasslands?
Answer:

  • Forests grow in the region where temperature and rainfall are plentiful.
  • Grasslands grow in the regions of moderate rainfall.

Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 6.
Where are tropical evergreen forests found in the world?
Answer:
Tropical evergreen forests occur in the regions near the equator and close to the tropics. There regions are hot and receive heavy rainfall throughout the year.

Class 7 Chapter 6 Geography Extra Questions Question 7.
Name the trees found in tropical evergreen forests.
Answer:

  1. Rosewood,
  2. Ebony and
  3. Mahogany.

Geography Class 7 Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 8.
Where are tropical deciduous forests found in the world?
Answer:
Tropical deciduous forests are found in large parts of India, Northern Australia and in Central America.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

Extra Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Question 9.
Why do trees in monsoon forests shed their leaves?
Answer:
In monsoon forests, trees shed their leaves in the dry season to conserve water.

Chapter 6 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 10.
Name the animals found in monsoon forests.
Answer:

  • Tigers,
  • lions and
  • elephants.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Question Answer Question 11.
Which type of trees are found in temperate evergreen forests? Name some trees.
Answer:
Temperate evergreen forests consist of both hard and softwood trees like oak, pine, eucalyptus, etc.

Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 7 Questions Answers Question 12.
Where are temperate deciduous forests found in the world?
Answer:

  • Northeastern part of USA,
  • China,
  • New Zealand,
  • Chile and
  • Coastal region of Europe.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Short Questions And Answers Question 13.
Name three trees and animals found in the temperate deciduous forests.
Answer:
(i) Trees –
(a) Oak,
(b) ash and
(c) beech.

(ii) Animals –
(a) Deer,
(b) foxes and
(c) wolves.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Class 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 14.
How Mediterranean trees have adapted themselves to the dry climatic conditions?
Answer:
Mediterranean trees adapt themselves in dry summer with the help of their thick barks and wax-coated leaves which help them in transpiration.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Worksheet Question 15.
In which type of climate are Mediterranean forests found?
Answer:
Mediterranean forests are found in the regions marked with hot dry summers and rainy mild winters.

Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Extra Questions Class 7 Question 16.
Which natural vegetation has been cleared off on a large scale to cultivate fruits? Name some fruits.
Answer:
Mediterranean vegetation has been cleared off on a large scale to cultivate fruits such as oranges, figs, olives and grapes.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Extra Questions Question 17.
Write another name of coniferous forests. Where are these forests found?
Answer:
Coniferous forests are also known as Taiga. These are found in the higher latitudes (50°-70°) of northern hemisphere and at higher altitudes.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 18.
Write three features of the trees found in coniferous forests.
Answer:
They are :

  1. tall,
  2. softwood and
  3. evergreen.

Geography Chapter 6 Class 7 Extra Questions Question 19.
Name the trees and animals found in coniferous forests.
Answer:
Trees –
(i) Chir,
(ii) pine and
(iii) cedar.

Animals –
(i) Silver fox,
(ii) mink and
(iii) polar bear.

Class 7 Natural Vegetation And Wildlife Extra Questions Question 20.
In which type of region thorny bushes are found?
Answer:
Thorny bushes are found in the dry desert-like regions.

Question 21.
Why is vegetation cover scarce in the desert regions?
Answer:

  • Scanty rainfall and
  • Scorching heat.

Question 22.
Can you name some of the great deserts of the world?
Answer:

  • Atacama desert,
  • Kalahari desert,
  • Gobi desert,
  • Thar desert,
  • Great Australian desert and
  • Sahara desert.

Question 23.
Name some of the common animals of the desert which you have learnt earlier.
Answer:

  • Camel,
  • jackal and
  • fox.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

Question 24.
Where is tundra vegetation found?
Answer:
Tundra vegetation is found in the polar areas of Europe, Asia and North America.

Question 25.
Which type of vegetation is found in tundra?
Answer:

  • Mosses,
  • lichens and
  • small shrubs.

Question 26.
Name the animals found in tundra.
Answer:

  • Seal,
  • walruses,
  • musk-oxen,
  • arctic owl,
  • polar bear and
  • snow foxes.

Question 27.
Why are tropical rain forests called evergreen forests?
Answer:
The region where tropical rainforests are found, there is no particular dry season so the trees do not shed their leaves altogether. That is why they are called evergreen forests.

Question 28.
Name the trees found in tropical deciduous forests. Also, write their uses.
Answer:
The trees found in deciduous forests are:

  • Sal,
  • Teak,
  • Neem and
  • Shisham.

Uses-

  • Making furniture,
  • transport and
  • constructional materials.

Question 29.
Write the location of temperate evergreen forests. Also, name the countries where they are found.
Answer:
The temperate evergreen forests are located in the mid-latitudinal coastal region. They are found along the eastern margins of the continents, e.g., in south-east USA, south China and in south-east Brazil.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

Question 30.
Where is Mediterranean vegetation found?
Answer:

  • In the areas around the Mediterranean sea in Europe, Africa and Asia.
  • California in USA.
  • South-west Africa.
  • Southwestern South America.
  • South-west Australia.

Question 31.
Write the uses of trees found in coniferous forests.
Answer:

  • Coniferous trees are used for making pulp, which is used for manufacturing paper and newsprint.
  • Matchboxes and packing boxes are also made.

Question 32.
Distinguish between tropical and temperate grasslands.
Answer:

Tropical grasslands Temperate grasslands
(i) These grasslands grow on either side of the equator and extend till the tropics. (i) These grasslands are found in the mid- latitudinal zones and in the interior parts of the continents.
(ii) Here grasses grow very tall, about 3 to 4 metres high. (ii) The grass which grows here is short and nutritious.
(iii) Savannah grasslands of Africa and Llanos in South America are examples of such type of grasslands. (iii) Steppes in Asia and Prairies in North America are examples of such types of grasslands.
(iv) Elephants, zebras, giraffes, deer and leopards are found in these regions. (iv) Wild buffaloes, bison and antilopes are common in these regions.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the factors affecting the growth of vegetation?
(a) Temperature
(b) Moisture
(c) Slope
(d) Type of vegetation.
Answer:
(d) Type of vegetation.

2. Which one of the following is false regarding the categories of natural vegetation?
(a) Forest
(b) Plain areas
(c) Grasslands
(d) Shrubs.
Answer:
(b) Plain areas.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

3. Trees of which one of the following forests do not shed their leaves throughout the year?
(a) Temperate forests
(b) Tropical Deciduous forests
(c) Tropical Evergreen forests
(d) Thorny forests.
Answer:
(c) Tropical Evergreen forests.

4. Which one of the following trees is not found in the Tropical Evergreen forests?
(a) Teak
(b) Rosewood
(c) Mahogany
(d) Ebony
Answer:
(a) Teak.

5. In which one of the following countries are the Tropical Deciduous forests found?
(a) Norway
(b) Canada
(c) India
(d) Russia.
Answer:
(c) India.

6. Eucalyptus is a tree of;
(a) Topical Evergreen forests
(b) Temperate Deciduous forests
(c) Thorny bushes
(d) Temperate Evergreen forests.
Answer:
(d) Temperate Evergreen forests.

7. Which oile of the following statements is false about the Temperate Deciduous Forests?
(a) These are found in the north-eastern part of USA, China, Chile etc.
(b) They shed their leaves in the dry seasons.
(c) Softwood, evergreen trees are found there.
(d) Deer, foxes, wolves are the main animals of these forests.
Answer:
(c) Softwood, evergreen trees are found there.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

8. Which one of the following vegetations is found on the west and south-west margins of continents?
(a) Mediterranean forests
(b) Grasslands
(c) Tropical Deciduous forests
(d) Coniferous forests.
Answer:
(a) Mediterranean forests.

9. The Coniferous Forests are also known as;
(a) Tundra forests
(b) Monsoon forests
(c) Taiga forests
(d) Arctic forests.
Answer:
(c) Taiga forests.

10. The woods of which one of the following forests are useful for making pulp?
(a) Mediterranean forests
(b) Coniferous forests
(c) Tropical grasslands
(d) Deciduous forests.
Answer:
(b) Coniferous forests.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

11. Which one of the following statements is false about the Tropical Grasslands?
(a) These are found near the poles.
(b) These grow near the equator.
(c) Savannah of Africa is an example of Tropical Grassland.
(d) Elephant, Zebra, etc. are its main animals.
Answer:
(a) These are found near the poles.

12. Bisons are mainly found in;
(a) Tropical Grasslands
(b) Temperate Grasslands
(c) Thorny Bushes
(d) Tundra Vegetation.
Answer:
(b) Temperate Grasslands.

13. Thorny Bushes are found in which one of the following areas?
(a) Interiors of countries
(b) Coastal areas
(c) Oceanic floors
(d) Deserts.
Answer:
(d) Deserts.

14. Which one of the following is not associated with the Tundra Type of Vegetation?
(a) Polar areas of Europe
(b) Polar areas of Asia
(c) Polar areas of North America
(d) Northern part of Africa.
Answer:
(d) Northern part of Africa.

15. Arctic owl and polar bear are the main animals of;
(a) Temperate Grassland
(b) Tropical Grassland
(c) Arctic Areas
(d) Thorny Bushes
Answer:
(c) Arctic Areas.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Rural Livelihoods

Online Education for Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Rural Livelihoods

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Rural Livelihoods with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-6-social-science/

Online Education for Rural Livelihoods Class 6 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 8

I. Fill in the blanks in the following sentences with the appropriate words given in the brackets.

(a) Kalapattu is a village, that is close to the sea coast in …………………………. . (Tamilnadu/Kerala)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu,

(b) The main crop grown in the village is the …………………………. .(wheat/paddy).
Answer:
paddy

(c) ………………………….of all rural families are agricultural labourers. (Two fifths/One third)
Answer:
Two fifths

(d) In the coastal areas there are …………………………. .(paddy fields/forests/fishing villages).
Answer:
fishing villages

(e) Aruna is …………………………. and lives in the village of …………………………. . (landless worker/fisherwoman Kalpattu/Pudupet)
Answer:
fisherwoman, Pudupet.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Key Rural Livelihoods

Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 1.
What kind of food is sold in the tea shops?
Answer:
The tea shops sell tiffins – such as idli, dosa and update in the morning and snacks like vada, bonda and Mysore Pak in the evening.

Rural Livelihood Class 6 Extra Questions Question 2.
What kind of village is Kalpattu?
Answer:
Kalpattu is a village that is close to the sea coast in Tamilnadu. The village is surrounded by low hills.

Rural Livelihood Class 6 Extra Questions And Answers Question 3.
What is the main work of the people in the village of Kalpattu?
Answer:
Paddy is the main crop that is grown in irrigated lands. Most of the families earn a living through agriculture.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions And Answers Question 4.
Name the crops, other than paddy, which are grown in the village of Kalpattu.
Answer:
The other crops grown are coconut, cotton, sugarcane, and plantain and mango, in the village of Kalpattu.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Key Rural Livelihoods

Rural Livelihood Class 6 Questions Answers Question 5.
Why does Thulasi find that the work is difficult now?
Answer:
Thulasi is growing older and bending for long hours, with feet in water is very painful.

Ncert Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 6.
Who supervises the work in Ramalingam’s field?
Answer:
Krauth-amma, who is Ramalingam’s wife supervises the work in the field.

Rural Livelihoods Class 6 Extra Questions Question 7.
Why does Thulsai work for Ramalingam, even when he gives less wages?
Answer:
Thulasi works for less wages for Ramalingam because he calls her back whenever there is work. He does not go looking for cheap labour from other villages.

Rural Livelihood Extra Questions Question 8.
Who are agricultural labourers?
Answer:
Agricultural labourers are landless fanners, who work on the land belonging to others. Some may own small plots of land.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Key Rural Livelihoods

Class 6 Civics Ch 8 Extra Questions Question 9.
Name the group of people who provide services.
Answer:
The people who provide services are blacksmiths, nurses, teachers, washermen, weavers, barbers, cycle repair mechanics and so on. Construction workers and lorry drivers also come into this category. They are paid for the services that they provide.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Worksheet Question 10.
How are daughters treated by Thulasi and her husband?
Answer:
Thulasi has brought up her daughters with love, care and attention. They are sent to school because she realises the importance of education. When one of the daughters fell sick she was taken to the hospital, even though they had to sell their cow to pay back the money that they had borrowed.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Why do rural poor families spend a lot of time in collecting firewood, getting water and grazing their cattle?
(a) They have interest in all these works
(b) Otherwise, they are not able to survive on the little money they earn
(c) They are bound to do these works by the district administration
(d) They earn high income from these works.
Answer:
(b) Otherwise, they are not able to survive on the little money they earn.

2. Which of the following crops are grown in the village, Kalpattu?
(a) Paddy
(b) Coconut
(c) Sugarcane
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Key Rural Livelihoods

3. What are the major sources of borrowing among agricultural labourers and small farmers in rural areas?
(a) Landlords
(b) Village moneylenders
(c) Scheduled banks
(d) Both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b).

4. Which one of the following refers to a hybrid cow?
(а) An offspring of two different breeds of the same animal
(b) An offspring of two different breeds of the different animals
(c) A cow that gives much milk
(d) A cow that gives little milk.
Answer:
(а) An offspring of two different breeds of the same animal

5. Which one of the following is most difficult time for the fisherman in terms of livelihood?
(a) The winter season
(b) The monsoon season
(c) The spring season
(d) The summer season
Answer:
(b) The monsoon season.

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication

Online Education for Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication

Here we are providing Online Education for Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-social-science/

Online Education for Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication Class 7 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 7

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
What are settlements?
Answer:
Settlements are places where people build their homes.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 2.
Why did settlements grow near river valleys? Give two reasons.
Answer:

  1. Water was available.
  2. Land was fertile.

Human Environment Settlement Transport And Communication Extra Questions Question 3.
What are the natural conditions required for the selection of an ideal site?
Answer:

  • Favourable climate,
  • availability of water,
  • suitable land and
  • fertile soil.

Chapter 7 Geography Class 7 Extra Questions Question 4.
Do you recall the names of civilizations that grew along the banks of rivers Indus, Tigris, Nile and Hwang Ho?
Answer:

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Worksheet Question 5.
What is transhumance?
Answer:
Transhumance is a seasonal movement of people. People who rear animals move in search of new pastures according to changes in seasons.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication

Extra Questions For Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Question 6.
What are rural settlements? What are the main occupations of the rural people?
Answer:
The villages are rural settlements. Here, people are engaged in activities like agriculture, fishing, forestry, crafts work and trading, etc.

Human Environment Settlement Transport And Communication Class 7 Extra Question Question 7.
How many types of rural settlements are there?
Answer:
Compact and scattered.

Ncert Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 8.
Which type of houses are build in the regions of heavy rainfall?
Answer:
In the regions of heavy rainfall, people have slanting roofs.

Class 7 Geography Ch 7 Extra Questions Question 9.
Which type of houses are made in the places where water accumulates in the rainy season?
Answer:
Places where water accumulates in the rainy season, the houses are constructed on raised platforms or stilts.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Question Answer Question 10.
Mention the type of houses made in areas of hot climate.
Answer:
In the areas of hot climate, the houses have thick walls made up of mud and thatched roofs. Materials like stones, mud, clay, straw, etc. are used to construct houses.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication

Class 7th Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 11.
What are the main occupations of the people living in urban areas?
Answer:
In urban areas, people are engaged in manufacturing, trading and services.

Geography Class 7 Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 12.
What are temporary settlements? Who dwell in these settlements and what are their main occupations?
Answer:

  • Settlements which are occupied for a short time are called temporary settlements.
  • The people living in deep forests, hot and cold deserts, and mountains often dwell in such temporary settlements.
  • Their main occupations are hunting, gathering, shifting cultivation and transhumance.

Class 7 Chapter 7 Geography Extra Questions Question 13.
Distinguish between compact and scattered settlements.
Answer:

Compact settlement Scattered settlement
(i) A compact settlement is a closely built area of dwellings (i) In a scattered settlement dwellings are spaced over an extensive area.
(ii) This type of settlement is found in flatlands. (ii) This type of settlement is found in hilly tracts, thick forests and regions of extreme climate.

Human Settlement Class 7 Extra Questions Question 14.
Name the four major means of transport.
Answer:

  1. Roadways,
  2. Railways,
  3. Waterways and
  4. Airways.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Question 15.
Name the two types of roads.
Answer:

  1. Metalled (Pucca) road.
  2. Unmetalled (Kuchha) road.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication

Question 16.
Name one of the highest roadways in the world situated in India.
Answer:
Manali-Leh Highway in the Himalayan mountains is one of the highest roadways in the world.

Question 17.
What are subways and flyovers?
Answer:

  • Roads built underground are called subways/under-paths.
  • Flyovers are built over raised structures.

Question 18.
Which is the latest development in the roadways in India?
Answer:
The latest development in roadways in India is the construction of Express Ways. The Golden Quadrilateral connects Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata.

Question 19.
Write one advantage of railways.
Answer:
The railways carry heavy goods and people over long distances quickly and cheaply.

Question 20.
Which is the longest railways system in the world? It runs between which two stations?
Answer:
The Trans-Siberian Railway is the longest railway system connecting St. Petersburg in Western Russia to Vladivostok on the Pacific coast.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication

Question 21.
Where do the train runs at the highest height in the world?
Answer:
The train from Xining to Lhasa runs at .an altitude of 4,000 m above sea level and the highest point is at 5,072 m.

Question 22.
Which is the cheapest mode of transport to carry heavy and bulky goods over long distances?
Answer:
Waterways.

Question 23.
Name two types of waterways.
Answer:

  1. Inland waterways and
  2. sea routes.

Question 24.
Name four important inland waterways of the world.
Answer:

  1. River Rhine in Europe,
  2. Ganga- Brahmaputra river system,
  3. Great lakes in North America and
  4. River Nile in Africa.

Question 25.
Suez Canal joins which two major water bodies?
Answer:
Suez Canal joins the Mediterranean Sea with the Indian Ocean.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication

Question 26.
Name some important airports of the world.
Answer:

  • Delhi,
  • Mumbai,
  • New York,
  • London,
  • Frankfurt and
  • Cairo.

Question 27.
Name the various animals used for transport in different parts of the world.
Answer:

  • In India, donkeys, mules, bullocks and camels are used.
  • In the Andes mountains of South America, Llamas are used.
  • In Tibet, yaks are used.

Question 28.
In which continents are the following ports situated

  • Singapore,
  • Mumbai,
  • New York,
  • Lok Angeles,
  • Rio de Janeiro,
  • Durban,
  • Cape Town,
  • Sydney,
  • London,
  • Rotterdam.

Answer:
Ports Continents
Singapore, Mumbai New York, Los Angeles Rio de Janeiro Durban, Cape Town Sydney London, Rotterdam Asia North America South America Africa Australia Europe,

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication

Question 29.
Write four important features of airways.
Answer:

  • Airways is the fastest means of transport.
  • It is the most expensive due to high cost of fuel.
  • It can reach even the most remote and distant areas, especially where there are no roads and railways.
  • Helicopters are extremely useful in most inaccessible areas and in times of calamities for rescuing people and for distributing food, water, clothes and medicines.

Question 30.
What is communication?
Answer:
Communication is a process of conveying messages to others.

Question 31.
Which modes of communication are called mass media and why?
Answer:
Newspapers, radio and television are called mass media because, through these modes of communications, we can communicate with a large number of people.

Question 32.
How are satellites helpful to us?
Answer:
Satellites help in oil exploration, survey of forests, underground water, mineral wealth, weather forecast and disaster warning.

Question 33.
Write the advantages of internet.
Answer:

  • We can send electronic mails or e-mails through internet.
  • It provides us worldwide information and interaction.
  • We can reserve tickets for railways, airways, cinemas and hotels sitting at home.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which one of the following statements is define the word ‘settlement’?
(a) The cultivated land.
(b) The forested areas.
(c) Places where people build their houses.
(d) Places where people work in farms.
Answer:
(c) Places where people build their houses.

2. Which one of the following is associated with the people of temporary settlement?
(а) Shifting cultivation
(b) Intensive farming
(c) Subsistence farming
(d) Commercial farming.
Answer:
(а) Shifting cultivation.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication

3. Which one of the following types of houses is common in areas of hot climate?
(a) Home with slanting roofs.
(b) Thick mud-walled houses with thatched roofs.
(c) Houses with raised platforms.
(d) Houses constructed by stones.
Answer:
(b) Thick mud-walled houses with thatched roofs.

4. Which one of the following is used to carry people and goods?
(а) Settlement
(b) Communication network
(c) IT sectors
(d) Transport.
Answer:
(d) Transport.

5. Which one of the following is different from the other three, with reference to the means of transport?
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Horse cart
(d) Airways.
Answer:
(c) Horse cart.

6. Which on of the following is the highest roadways in the world?
(a) Manali-Leh highways
(b) Konkan roadways
(c) Sher Shah Suri Marg
(d) N.H.-7.
Answer:
(a) Manali-Leh highways.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication

7. Which one of the following is responsible for the speedy development of rail transport?
(а) Construction of railways is cheap.
(b) Low cost is required for its maintenance,
(c) Invention of steam engine and industrial development.
(d) It also covers short distances.
Answer:
(c) Invention of steam engine and industrial development.

8. Steam engines are replaced by;
(a) Diesel and electric engines
(b) Petrol engines
(c) CNG engines
(d) LPG gases.
Answer:
(a) Diesel and electric engines.

9. Which one of the following is the largest railway network of Asia?
(а) China railway network
(b) Indian railway network
(c) Western railway network
(d) Eastern railway network.
Answer:
(b) Indian railway network.

10. Which one of the following are the terminal stations connected by the Trans- Siberian railway?
(a) St. Petersburg and Vladivostok
(b) Vladivostok and Chita
(c) Chita and Moscow
(d) Moscow and Vladivostok.
Answer:
(a) St. Petersburg and Vladivostok.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication

11. Which one of the following is the inland waterway of India?
(a) The Great Lakes
(b) Nile river
(c) Amazon river
(d) Ganga-Brahmaputra Rivers.
Answer:
(d) Ganga-Brahmaputra Rivers.

12. Sea and ocean routes are connected with the;
(a) rivers
(b) seaports
(c) airports
(d) coastal areas.
Answer:
(b) seaports.

13. Which one of the following is a port of Asia continent?
(a) Singapore
(b) Adelaide
(c) Durban
(d) Capetown.
Answer:
(a) Singapore.

14. Durban and Capetown ports are situated in;
(a) India
(b) Australia
(c) Africa
(d) Europe.
Answer:
(c) Africa.

15. Which one of the following is the fastest way of transportation?
(a) Roadways
(b) Airways
(c) Waterways
(d) Railways.
Answer:
(b) Airways.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication

16. Why is the airways most expensive means of transportation?
(a) Due to speed
(b) Due to high technology
(c) Because it saves time
(d) Due to high cost of fuel.
Answer:
(d) Due to high cost of fuel.

17. Which one of the following is an important airport of Europe?
(a) Cairo
(b) London
(c) Mumbai
(d) New York.
Answer:
(b) London.

18. Which one of the following processes is used to convey messages to others?
(a) Airways
(b) Waterways
(c) Roadways
(d) Communication.
Answer:
(d) Communication.

19. Which one of the following have made the communication faster?
(a) T.V.
(b) Radio
(c) Satellites
(d) Newspapers.
Answer:
(c) Satellites.

20. T.V., radio, newspapers, etc. are collectively known as;
(a) Mass media
(b) Print media
(c) Electronic media
(d) Mode of entertainment
Answer:
(a) Mass media.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8

Online Education for Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8 with Answers Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-7-science/

Online Education for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers Winds, Storms and Cyclones

Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 1.
What is wind?
Answer:
Moving air is called wind.

Winds, Storms And Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions With Answers Question 2.
What is the direction of flow of air?
Answer:
Air moves from the region where the air pressure is high to the region where the pressure is low.

Ncert Solutions For Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 3.
Which air is lighter, hot or cool?
Answer:
Hot air is lighter.

Class 7 Science Ch 8 Extra Questions Question 4.
Which region gets maximum sunlight?
Answer:
Regions close to the equator get maximum sunlight.

Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8

Winds, Storms And Cyclones Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 5.
What does monsoon wind carry?
Answer:
Water (moisture).

Ncert Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Extra Questions Question 6.
Where do thunderstorms develop mostly?
Answer:
Thunderstorms develop in hot, humid tropical areas like India very frequently.

Winds Storms And Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions With Answers Question 7.
What do you mean by the eye of a storm?
Answer:
The centre of a cyclone is a calm area. It is called the eye of the storm.

Wind Storm And Cyclone Class 7 Extra Questions Question 8.
Which factors contribute to the development of cyclone?
Answer:
Factors like wind speed, wind direction, temperature and humidity contribute to the development of cyclones.

Class 7 Chapter 8 Science Extra Questions Question 9.
When is cyclone alert issued?
Answer:
A cyclone alert or cyclone watch is issued 48 hours in advance of any expected storm.

Chapter 8 Science Class 7 Extra Questions Question 10.
When is cyclone warning issued?
Answer:
A cyclone warning is issued 24 hours in advance.

Extra Questions On Wind Storms And Cyclones Question 11.
How are clouds helpful?
Answer:
Clouds bring rain which is vital for survival of living beings. Farmers in our country depend mainly on rain for irrigation.

Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8

Wind Storms And Cyclones Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 12.
How does the eye of a cyclone harm us?
Answer:
The low pressure in the eye lifts water surface in the centre. The rising water may be as high as 3-12 metres. It appears like a water-wall moving towards the shore. As a result, the seawater enters the low-lying coastal areas, causing severe loss of life and property. It also reduces the fertility of the soil.

Winds Storms And Cyclones Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 13.
How do high-speed winds accompanying a cyclone harm us?
Answer:
High-speed winds accompanying a cyclone can damage houses, telephones and other communication systems, trees, etc., causing tremendous loss of life and property.

Extra Questions For Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Question 14.
Explain the structure of a tornado?
Answer:
A tornado is a dark funnel-shaped cloud that reaches ground from the sky. The diameter of a tornado can be as small as a meter and as large as a kilometre, or even wider. The funnel of a tornado sucks dust, debris and everything near it at the base (due to low pressure) and throws them out near the top.

Wind Storms And Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions Question 15.
Suggest three effective safety measures for cyclone.
Answer:

  • A cyclone forecast and warning service.
  • Rapid communication of warnings to the Government agencies, the ports, fishermen, ships and to the general public.
  • Construction of cyclone shelters in the cyclone-prone areas, and administrative arrangements for moving people fast to safer places.

Question 16.
Suggest some precautions in a cyclone hit area.
Answer:

  • Do not drink water that could be contaminated. Always store drinking water for emergencies.
  • Do not touch wet switches and fallen power lines.
  • Do not go out just for the sake of fun.
  • Do not pressurise the rescue force by making undue demands.
  • Cooperate and help your neighbours and friends.

Question 17.
Describe the structure of a cyclone.
Answer:
The centre of a cyclone is a calm area. It is called the eye of the storm. A large cyclone is a violently rotating mass of air in the atmosphere, 10 to 15 km high. The diameter of the eye varies from 10 to 30 km. It is a region free of clouds and has light winds. Around this calm and clear eye, there is a cloud region of about 150 km in size. In this region, there are high-speed winds (150-250 km/h) and thick clouds with heavy rain. Away from this region the wind speed gradually decreases.

Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8

Question 18.
How does a thunderstorm become a cyclone?
Answer:
Before cloud formation, water takes up heat from the atmosphere to change into vapour. When water vapour changes back to liquid form as raindrops, this heat is released to the atmosphere. The heat released to the atmosphere warms the air around. The air tends to rise and causes a drop in pressure. More air rushes to the centre of the storm. This cycle is repeated. The chain of events ends with the formation of a very low-pressure system with very high-speed winds revolving around it. It is this weather condition that we call a cyclone.

Question 19.
Suggest precautions if storm is accompanied by lightning.
Answer:
If a storm is accompanied by lightning, we must take the following precautions :

  • We should not take shelter under an isolated tree. If in a forest, take shelter under a small tree.
  • We must not take shelter under an umbrella with a metallic end.
  • We should not sit near a window. Open garages, storage sheds, metal sheds are not safe places to take shelter.
  • A car or a bus with closed windows is a safe place to take shelter.
  • If in water, we should get out and go inside a building.
  • We should not lie on the ground.

Question 20.
Draw a diagram to show the formation of cyclone.
Answer:
Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8 1

Question 21.
Show the phenomena that lead to the formation of clouds, falling of rain and creation of storms and cyclones with the help of a chart.
Answer:
Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8 2
Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8 3

Question 22.
How will you help your neighbours in case cyclone approaches your village/town?
Answer:
I will help them in the following ways:

  • By warning everyone about the coming danger.
  • Searching for shelter.
  • Keeping storage of water and food.
  • By setting up first-aid facility.

Question 23.
What planning is required in advance to deal with the situation created by a cyclone?
Answer:

  • Setting up of a cyclone forecast and warning service.
  • Setting up of an arrangement for rapid communication of warnings to the government agencies, the ports, fishermen, ships and to the general public.
  • Construction of cyclone shelters in the cyclone-prone areas, and administrative arrangements for moving people fast to safer places.
  • Making stock of food and water.
  • Keeping first aid facility along with.

Question 24.
Inactivity 8.3, when you blow between the balloons, they moved towards each other. How could this happen?
Answer:
This could happen if the pressure of air between the balloons were somehow reduced. The pressure outside the balloons would then push them towards each other.

Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8

Multiple Choice Questions

1. When a can filled with hot water is cooled, the shape of the can gets distorted because :
(i) Some water vapour inside the can get condensed and atmospheric pressure distorts the can.
(ii) on heating the can becomes easy to be moulded and pouring water forces to distort the can.
(iii) on heating the can expands and loose intermolecular force of attraction results to distortion.
(iv) can gets distorted due to kinetic energy of water poured.
Answer:
(i) Some water vapour inside the can get condensed and atmospheric pressure distorts the can.

2. If you are in a boat, it is easier to row it if there is wind coming from behind because :
(i) the wind speed decreases boat speed.
(ii) the wind speed is added to boat speed.
(iii) it makes the boat streamlined.
(iv) none of these.
Answer:
(ii) the wind speed is added to boat speed.

3. Flags flutter when the wind blows because :
(i) of the design of the flag.
(ii) of the air pressure exerted by the wind.
(iii) of the potential energy within the flag.
(iv) none of these.
Answer:
(ii) of the air pressure exerted by the wind.

4. We fill air into the bicycle tube to keep it tight. What happens inside the tube?
(i) The air inside the tube exerts pressure on the wall of the tube.
(ii) The wall of the tube exerts pressure on the air inside.
(iii) Both exert pressure on each other.
(iv) The air within the tube does not exert any pressure.
Answer:
(iii) Both exert pressure on each other.

Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8

5. When a paper ball is placed in the mouth of a horizontally kept bottle and you are made to blow the ball why is it difficult to force the paper ball into the bottle?
(i) The air blown is reflected back from the bottom of bottle and the paper ball is made to remain at its initial point.
(ii) High-speed winds are accompanied by reduced air pressure, and the air pressuse inside the bottle is high, which pushes the ball out.
(iii) The paper ball is immovable by wind.
(iv) Paper wall is adhesive to bottle.
Answer:
(ii) High-speed winds are accompanied by reduced air pressure, and the air pressure inside the bottle is high, which pushes the ball out.

6. When two inflated balloons of equal size are hung 8-10 cm apart on a cycle spoke and you are made to blow in the space between the balloons. What happens?
(i) The balloons move away from each other.
(ii) The balloons move towards each other.
(iii) No change occurs in the position of the balloons.
(iv) Initially they move apart and then move towards each other.
Answer:
(ii) The balloons move towards each other.

7. The balloons move towards each other, when we blow between two hung balloons separated by a small distance, because :
(i) blowing resulted in increased air pressure between the balloons.
(ii) blowing resulted in reduced air pressure between the balloons.
(iii) two inflated balloons attract each other.
(iv) none of these.
Answer:
(ii) blowing resulted in reduced air pressure between the balloons.

8. When you blow over a small paper strip, which of the following happens?
(i) The strip will be lifted up.
(ii) The strip will bend down.
(iii) No movement in the strip occurs.
(iv) The strip will move to and fro horizontally.
Answer:
(i) The strip will be lifted up.

Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8

9. The paper strip rises upward because blowing over the paper :
(i) reduces the air pressure above the strip.
(ii) increases the air pressure above the strip.
(iii) reduces the air pressure below the strip.
(iv) increases the air pressure below the strip.
Answer:
(i) reduces the air pressure above the strip.

10. Which of the following is correct in context with air movement?
(i) Air moves from the region where the air pressure is high to the region where the pressure is low.
(ii) Air moves from the region when the air pressure is low to the region where the pressure is high.
(iii) Air pressure does not play any role in air movement, so the air movement can be arbitrary.
(iv) Air never moves, it is still.
Answer:
(i) Air moves from the region where the air pressure is high to the region where the pressure is low.

11. What happens to the air when it is heated?
(i) It expands, becomes light and moves downward.
(ii) It expands, becomes light and moves upward.
(iii) It expands, becomes heavy and moves downward.
(iv) It expands, becomes heavy and moves upward.
Answer:
(ii) It expands, becomes light and moves upward.

12. Let the balloon tied over neck of the boiling tube immersed in hot water be A and the balloon tied over the neck of the boiling tube immersed in cold water be B. What happens to A and B?
(i) A deflates and B inflates.
(ii) A inflates and B deflates.
(iii) Both A and B in flat.
(iv) Both A and B deflate.
Answer:
(ii) A inflates and B deflates.

Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8

13. Take two paper bags or empty paper cups of the same size. Hang the two bags in inverted position on the two ends of a wooden stick. When a candle is lighted below one of the cup, the balance is disturbed. The disturbance of the balance suggests that :
(i) warm air is lighter than the cold air.
(ii) warm air is heavier than the cold air.
(iii) the paper cup prevents itself from burning by moving up.
(iv) air expands on heating.
Answer:
(i) warm air is lighter than the cold air.

14. Why does smoke always rise up?
(i) Because it is hotter than the surrounding air and thus is heavier.
(ii) Because it is colder than the surrounding air and thus is heavier.
(iii) Because it is hotter than the surrounding air and thus is lighter.
(iv) Because it is colder than the surrounding air and thus is lighter.
Answer:
(iii) Because it is hotter than the surrounding air and thus is lighter.

Keyword:

→ Anemometer: The instrument that measures the wind speed is called an anemometer.

→ Cyclone: Sometimes there is a formation of very low-pressure system with very high-speed winds revolving around it. It is this weather condition that we call a cyclone.

→ Hurricane: Cyclone is called hurricane in American continent.

→ Lightning: The occurrence of bright flash (a natural electrical discharge) of very short duration and high voltage between a cloud and the ground or wìthin a cloud.

→ Low pressure: Reduced pressure.

Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 8

→ Monsoon winds: In summer, near the equator, the land warms up faster and most of the time the temperature of the land is higher than that of water in the oceans. The air over the land gets heated and rises. This causes the winds along with moisture to flow from the oceans towards the land. These are monsoon winds.

→ Pressure: Force on unit area.

→ Thunderstorms: The swift movement of the falling water droplets along with the rising air create lightning and sound. It is this event that we call a thunderstorm.

→ Tornado: A tornado is a dark funnel-shaped cloud that reaches from the sky to the ground.

→ Typhoon: Cyclone is called typhoon in Japan and Phillippines.

→ Wind flow pattern: The pattern of flow of wind due to uneven heating on the earth.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science