CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Maximum Marks : 40
Time : 2 Hours

Instructions:

  • The question paper is divided into 3 sections-A, B and C
  • Section A comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in two questions.
  • Section B comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in one question.
  • Section C comprises of 4 questions. It contains one case study based question. Internal choice has been provided in one question.

Section – A [12 Marks]

Question 1.
The marginal revenue function for a commodity is given by MR = 9 + 2x – 6x2. Find the demand function.
Or
The marginal cost of producing x pairs of tennis shoes is given by MC = 50 + \(\frac{300}{x+1}\)
If the fixed cost is ₹ 2000, find the total cost function.
Answer:
We have, MR = 9 + 2x – 6x2
We know that \(\frac{dR}{dx}\) = MR
⇒ R = ∫ MR dx + k
⇒ R = ∫(9 + 2x – 6x2)dx + k
⇒ R = 9x + x2 – 2x3 + k
When, x = 0, R = 0, we get k = 0, R = 9x + x2 – 2x3

Demand function, p = \(\frac{R}{x}\)
When, x = 0, R = 0, we get k = 0
∴ R = 9x + x2 – 2x3

Demand function, p = \(\frac{R}{x}\)
∴ p = \(\frac{9 x+x^{2}-2 x^{3}}{x}\) = 9 + x – 2x2
We have, MC = 50 + \(\frac{300}{x+1}\)
∫ dC = ∫MC dx + K [∵ \(\frac{d C}{d x}\) = MC]
∫ C = ∫ (5o+ \(\frac{300}{x+1}\))dx + K
C = 50x + 300log(x + 1) + K …(i)

When x =0, C = 2000, we get K = 2000
∴ C = 50x + 300log(x + 1) + 2000 [from Eq. (i)]

Hence, total cost function is
50x + 300 log(x + 1) + 2000.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 2.
Find the present value of perpetuity of ₹ 600 at end of each quarter, if money is worth 8% compounded quarterly.
Answer:
Given, R = ₹ 600
let P be the present value of the perpetuity
Also, given rate of interest is quarterly, then
i = \(\frac{R}{4}\)% ⇒ i = \(\frac{8}{400}\)
∴ P = \(\frac{R}{i}=\frac{600}{\frac{8}{400}}=\frac{600 \times 400}{8}\) = 3000
Hence1 P is ₹ 30000.

Question 3.
What effective rate is equivalent to a nominal rate of 8% per annum compounded quarterly? [given (1.02)4 = 1.0824]
Or
Find the present value of an annuity of ₹ 1000 payable at the end of each year for 5 years, if money is worth 6% compounded annually, [given (1.06)-5 = 07473]
Answer:
We have, r = 8% = \(\frac{8}{100}\) and in = 4
∴ re = \(\left(1+\frac{r}{m}\right)^{m}\) – 1
⇒ re = \(\left(1+\frac{8}{400}\right)^{4}\) – 1
⇒ re = (1 + 0.02)4 = (1 .02)4 – 1
⇒ re = 1.0824 – 1 = 0.0824
Hence, effective rate is (0.0824 × 100)% = 8.24%
Or
Given R = ₹ 1000, i = 6% = 0.06 and n = 5
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 1
Hence, present value of ordinary annuity is ₹ 4211.67

Question 4.
A sampling distribution of the sample means X̄ is formed from a population with mean weight µ = 60 kg and standard deviation σ = 9 kg. What is the expected value and standard deviation of X̄, if sample size is 36?
Answer:
Given, mean weight of population (µ)= 60 kg
Standard deviation (σ) = 9 kg
Expected value of X̄ i.e. E(X̄) = g
∴ E(X̄) = 60 kg
SD(X̄) = \(\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}=\frac{9}{\sqrt{36}}\) [∵n = sample size = 36]
SD(X̄) = \(\frac{9}{6}\) = 1.5 kg

Question 5.
Find the trend values using 3-yearly moving average for the loans sanctioned to farmers by a particular branch of a bank in a village.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 2
Answer:
Calculation of 3-yearly moving average
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 3

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 6.
The feasible region of the LPP minimum Z = 3x + 2y
Subject to constraints are
2x + y ≥ 6, x – y ≥ 0, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 is given below:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 4
Determine the optimal solution. Justify your answer.
Answer:
We have, Minimum Z = 3x + 2y
Subject to constraints are
2x + y ≥ 6, x – y ≥ 0, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

The feasible region of the constraints is given below.

Corner point Value of Z =3x + 2y
P(2,2) 3 × 2 + 2 × 2 = 6 + 4 = 10
Q(3, 0) 3 × 3 + 2 × 0 = 9 + 0 = 9

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 5
The smallest value of Z is 9. Since, the feasible region is unbounded, we draw the graph of 3x + 2y < 9. The resulting open half plane has common point with feasible region.
∴ Z = 9 is not the minimum value of Z. Hence, the optimal solution does not exist.

Section -B [12 Marks]

Question 7.
The supply function for a commodity is given by p = x2 + 4x + 3, where x is the quantity supplied at the price p. Find the producers surplus when the price of the commodity is ₹ 48.
Answer:
The supply function is given by p = x2 + 4x+3
It is given that p0 = 48

Putting the value of p0 in p = x2 + 4x + 3
⇒ 48 = x2 + 4x0 + 3
⇒ x2 + 4x0 – 45 = 0
⇒ (x0 + 9)(x0 – 5) = 0
⇒ x0 = 5 and x0 ≠ – 9 [∵ x ≥ 5]

We know that producer surplus,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 6
Hence, produce surplus is ₹ 133.33.

Question 8.
The following table shows the quarterly sales (₹ in crore) of a real estate company. Compute the trend by quarterly moving averages.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 7
Or
Fit a straight line trend by the method of least squares and estimate the trend for the year 2023.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 8
Answer:
The trend value are given by 4-quarterly centered moving average.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 9
Here, n = 7 (odd)
So, middle year i.e 2017 takes as origin. Construct the table as under
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 10
yt = a + bx and yt = 76 + 24x

Estimated sales = yt for 2023 = 76 + 24 × 6
= ₹ 220 lakh

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 9.
A machine produces washers of thickness 0.50 mm. To determine whether the machine is in proper working order, a sample of 10 washers is chosen for which the mean thickness is 0.53 mm and the standard deviation is 0.03 mm. Test the hypothesis at 5% level of significance that the machine is working in proper order.
[given t0.025 = 2.262 at v = 9]
Answer:
It is given that,
p = Population mean = 0.50 mm
X̄ = Sample mean = 0.53 mm
n = Sample size = 10
and S = Sample standard deviation = 0.03 mm

We define null hypothesis H0 and alternative hypothesis H1, as follows
H0 : µ = 0.50 mm
µ1 : µ ≠ 0.50 mm

Thus, a two-tailed test is applied under hypothesis H0, we have
t = \(\frac{\bar{X}-\mu}{S} \sqrt{(n-1)}=\frac{0.53-0.50}{0.03}\) × 3 = 3

Since, the calculated value of f = 3 does not lie in the internal – t0.025 to t0.025 i.e. – 2.262 to 2.262 for 10 – 1 = 9 degree of freedom. So, we reject H0 at 0.05 level. Hence, we conclude that machine is not working properly.

Question 10.
A person invested ₹ 15000 in a mutual fund and the value of investment at the time of redemption was ₹ 25000. If CAGR for this investment is 8.88%, calculate the time period for which the amount was invested?
[given log(1.667) = 0.2219 and log(1.089) = 0.037]
Answer:
Given, Begining value (BV) = ₹ 15000
Ending valne (EV) = ₹ 25000
Let number of years = n and CAGR = 8.88%

We Know that
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 11
Hence, time period is 6 yr.

Section – C [16 Marks]

Question 11.
S & D chemicals produces two products, an alkaline solution and a base oil that are sold as raw material to companies manufacturing soaps and detergents. On the basis of current inventory levels and estimated demand for the coming month, S & D’s management has decided that combined production of alkaline solution and base oil must be at least 3500 gallons. S & D chemicals are also committed to supply 1250 gallons of alkaline solution to one of its major customer. The alkaline solution and base oil requires respectively 2 h and 1 h of processing time per gallon. The total processing time available for the coming month is 6000 h. The production cost is ₹ 200 per gallon for the alkaline solution and ₹ 300 per gallon for base oil.
Formulate the above as a LPP and solve it by graphical method to help S & D chemicals determine the minimum production cost.
Answer:
Let the company produces x and y gallons of
alkaline solution and base oil respectively, also let C be the production cost.
Minimum Z = 200x + 300y
Subject to constraints are
x + y ≥ 3500 ……….(i)
x ≥ 1250 …….(ii)
2x + y ≤ 6000 ………(iii)
x, y ≥ 0 …….(iv)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 12

Corner Points Value of Z = 200x + 300y
P(1250, 2250) 925000
Q(1250, 3500) 1300000
R(2500, 1000) 800000 (Minimum)

Minimum cost is ₹ 800000 when 2500 gallons of alkaline solutions and 1000 gallons of base oil are manufactured.

Question 12.
A machine costing ₹ 50000 is to be replaced at the end of 10 yr, when it will have a salvage value of ₹ 5000. In order to provide money at that time for a machine costing the same amount, a sinking fund is set up. If equal payments are placed in the fund at the end of each quarter and the fund earns 8% compounded quarterly, then what should each payment be? [given (1.02)40 = 2.208]
Answer:
We have, cost of machine = ₹ 50000
Salvage value of machine = ₹ 5000
Hence, the money required for new machine after 10 yr = ₹ (50000 – 5000) = ₹ 45000
So, we have S = ₹ 45000, i = \(\frac{8}{400}\) = 0.02 and
n = 10 × 4 = 40
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 13
Hence, ₹ 745.03 are set aside each year to purchase new machine.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Question 13.
A couple wishes to purchase a house for ₹ 1500000 with a down payment of ₹ 400000. If they can amortize the balance at an interest rate 9% per annum compounded monthly for 10 yr, find the monthly installment (EMI). Also, find the total interest paid.
[given, (1.0075) -120 = 0.4079]
Or
A ₹ 2000, 8% bond is redeemable at the end of 10 yr at ₹ 105. Find the purchase price to yield 10% effective rate, [given (1.1)-10 = 0.3855]
Answer:
We have, cost of house = ₹ 1500000
Down payment ₹ 400000
∴ Balance amount = Cost of house – Down payment
= ₹ (1500000 – 400000)
= ₹ 1100000
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 14
Hence, EMI is ₹ 13933.50.
∴ Total interest paid = n(EMI) – P
= 120 × 13933.50 – 1100000
=1672020- 1100000= 572020

Hence, total interest paid is ₹ 572020
Or
Given, face value of bond = ₹ 2000

Number of periods = 10
i = annual yield rate – 10% = \(\frac{10}{100}\) = 0.1

Redemption value C = 1.05 × 2000 = ₹ 2100
R Annual dividend = 2000 × 8%
= 2000 × \(\frac{8}{100}\) = ₹ 160

Let V be the purchase price of the bond, then
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 15
Hence, purchase price of bond is ₹ 1792

Case Based/Data Based

Question 14.
General anesthesia is used for major operations to cure the patients and conduct pain free surgeries. Propofol is a commonly used anesthetic injected for major operations such as knee replacement or open heart surgery. It also acts as a sedative and an analgesic.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 16
A patient is rushed to operation theatre for a 2-hour cardiac surgery. A person is anesthetized when its blood stream contains at least 3 mg of propofol per kg of body weight. The rate of change of propofol (x), in the body is proportional to the quantity of propofol present at that time. Based on the above information.

Answer the following questions:
(i) Show that propofol given intravenously is eliminated exponentially from the patients’ blood stream.
Answer:
Let x denotes the quantity of propofol present in body at any time t
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 17
⇒ x = e-kt+C
⇒ x = eC e-kt = Ae-kt [∵ ec = A]

Let x = x0 at t = 0
∴ x0 = Ae0
⇒ A = x0

∴ x = x0e-kt, where x0 = original quantity

(ii) What dose of propofol should be injected to induce unconsciousness in a 50 yr adult for a two hours operation? [given (2)1/5 = 1.1487 and assume half-life of propofol = 5 h]
Answer:
Now, x = x0e-kt
When x = \(\frac{x_{0}}{2}\) and t = 5, we get
\(\frac{x_{0}}{2}\) = x0e-kt
⇒ e-5k = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
⇒ ek = (2)1/5

The quantity of propofol needed in 50 yr adult after 2 h = 50 × 3 = 150 mg
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions 18
∴ Required dose is 197.93 mg

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 6 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Section A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below:

It is popularly believed that wireless technology was created in the year 1880, when Alexander Graham Bell and Charles Sumner Tainter invented the telephone. In that moment they changed the very course of human civilisation. Today you would be hard- pressed to find an adult (or even a child) who does not have access to mobile technology.

5. Wireless communication is the transfer of information or power between two or more points that are not connected by an electrical conductor. The most common wireless technologies use radio waves. With radio waves, distances can be short, such as a few metres for Bluetooth, or as far as millions of kilometres for deep-space radio communications. It encompasses various types of fixed, mobile, and portable applications, including two-way radios, cellular telephones, personal digital assistants (PDAs), and wireless networking. In fact, all our Wi-Fi devices also emit radio waves.

10. Wireless networks are gaining popularity due to their convenience. This ease of connectivity comes at a price. On-going research has identified that signals from a wireless network are potentially dangerous to humans. The constant proximity to wireless signals can cause headaches, insomnia, cardiac arrest and other health issues. Researchers have established that Wi-Fi network signals predominantly affect the lower half of the human body and can trigger liver and pancreatic cancer.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

15. In 2011, the World Health Organization’s International Agency for Research on Cancer classified wireless radiations from cell phones, baby monitors, tablets, cell towers, radar, Wi-Fi etc. as Class 2B carcinogens. This Class 2B carcinogen classification applies to appliances with an operating frequency ranging from 30 kHz to 300 GHz. This means all this while, as we were scrolling through online entertainment, we have been sitting on a ticking time bomb.

20. With the rapid growth of mobile phone devices in the market, technology has developed in such a way that it has ended up creating a horrifying situation for the human body. The normal biological systems of the human body have not developed in any way to adapt to or protect against harmful radio waves.

25. This has led to a rise in serious ailments such as diseases of brain-like cancer, brain tumours, Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease and so on. Not to forget the short-term effects like hormone disruption, loss of concentration, impairment of cognitive function, behavioral problems, attention deficit: and long-term effects like DNA damage, male infertility.

30. For children, the wireless devices have even more grave consequences because they have thinner bony skulls, more aqueous bodies/ brains, higher rate of cell turnover and, hence their neural systems are not completely developed. Beyond physical impairments, children are also vulnerable to stunted socio-emotional, cognitive and behavioral development.

35. Given the ubiquity of technology in today’s society and the importance of this issue for policy and practice, it is essential to understand the impacts of technology use on the developing brains and bodies of children in the 21st century in order to guide policy delineating safe and effective use. Parents and guardians should be discerning when it comes to guidelines and research, while governments and groups with policy influence should be cautious of prescribing policy without exploring the evidence base in a holistic and thorough manner.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

40. International exposure guidelines have been developed to provide protection against established effects from radio frequency fields by the International Commission on Non¬Ionizing Radiation Protection (ICNIRP, 1998) and the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE, 2005). It is up to national authorities to adopt these international standards to protect their citizens against adverse levels of radio wave exposure. They should restrict access to areas where exposure limits may be exceeded.

45. France has banned all wireless devices, including cell phones from all public schools starting September 2018, and California Public Health is actively educating their public regarding risk of harm from wireless radiation. Even in India, several eminent scientists have begun a crusade to caution the Government against the roll-out of 5G technology-based services in the country.

50. We can make smarter choices about the way we use technology by making changes in our everyday usage patterns. For instance, adults carrying cell phones (and other wireless devices) can either turn off the device or convert device to ‘airplane mode’ when servicing or interacting with children and pregnant mothers.

55. Precautionary measures for adults include increasing the distance, duration and frequency of wireless device use; reducing multiple device use; and reducing exposure to high wireless radiation areas. By making minor modifications to our daily routines and habits, we can try and minimize the harmful effects of wireless technology.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8)

(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the writer’s statement of wireless signals leading to cancer is true. (1)

(B) State any one trait of children that is evident from lines 30-35 that makes them vulnerable to harmful radio waves.

(C) The writer said that it is ‘hard-pressed’ to find a person without an access to the mobile technology. What does he mean by ‘hard-pressed’? (1)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

(D) Why does the writer say that new technologies have created a horrifying situation for the human body? (1)

(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 20-25.

The fast-paced development of the GDP in Turkey has made it one of the strongest countries in the world. (1)

(F) What does the use of ‘airplane mode’ suggest in the context of the writer’s precautions for harmful signals? (1)

(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 50¬58 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

Sleep disorder can be improved if we can make in our daily routine. (1)

(H) France has banned all wireless devices in public schools. How can we this help people? (1)

(I) Analyse the ways in which parents can save their children from harmful signals.
Answer:
(A) As per the passage, in 2011, the World Health Organization’s International Agency for Research on Cancer classified wireless radiations from cell phones, baby monitors, tablets, cell towers, radar, Wi-Fi, etc. as Class 2B carcinogens. This study proves the fact that the writer’s statement of wireless signals leading to cancer is true.

(B) Children have thinner bony skulls and due to this, their neural systems are not fully developed. This makes them vulnerable to harmful radio waves.

(C) The writer said that it is ‘hard-pressed’ to find a person without an access to the mobile technology. By this, he meant that it is very difficult to find such a person.

(D) The writer says so because with the advent of new technologies in the market, it has become horrible for humans to process the signals as the body is not able to adapt or protect against harmful radio waves.

(E) Rapid growth

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

(F) The writer suggests switching to ‘airplane mode’ in devices as it is a mode wherein the network gets cut off from the phone and there are no signals or radio waves around the device until the mode is removed.

(G) minor modifications

(H) By limiting the use of wireless devices at certain places, the risk of harm to people from the deadly radio waves and signals can be controlled.

It is recommended for parents to keep a check on the use of mobiles and tablets by their children. Parents should limit the timings to use such devices and try to make them avoid it as much as possible.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below:

Cricket is a passion for people around the globe. It is played everywhere from test match arenas to village greens, tropical beaches, and dusty backlots. Cricket is the world’s second most popular spectator sport after soccer.

5. The origin of cricket can be traced back to the Dark Ages. All research concedes that the game is derived from a very old, popular, and uncomplicated pastime by which one player served up an object, be it a small piece of wood or a ball, and another hit it with a suitably fashioned club. The game of cricket was first recorded in 16th-century England, and it was played in grammar schools, farming communities, and everywhere in between. But things really took off when 18th-century nobles realized it was a great sport.

10. The oldest surviving set of cricket laws dates to 1744, which was printed on a handkerchief. Naturally, it’s now in the MCC Museum at Lord’s in London. The oldest permanent fixture is the annual Eton Vs Harrow match, played since 1805. A young Lord Byron turned out for Harrow in the first match, though history doesn’t record how poetic – or “mad, bad, and dangerous” – his bowling was.

15. The first international match was held in 1877 when Australia beat England in Melbourne. The match was dubbed a ‘Test’, since the grueling nature of playing over five days was deemed the ultimate test for any side. However, it was Australia’s first win on the English soil – in 1882 at The Oval in London – that led to matches between the two nations being christened as the ‘Ashes’. Following the defeat, newspapers published an obituary mourning “the death of English cricket,” adding that “the body will be cremated and the ashes taken to Australia.”

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

20. A One Day International (ODI) is a form of limited-overs cricket, played between two teams with international status, in which each team faces a fixed number of overs, usually 50. The Cricket World Cup is played in this format The international one-day game is a late-twentieth-century development. The first ODI was played on 5 January 1971 between Australia and England at the Melbourne Cricket Ground.

25. Table 1 represents the list of Cricket world cup winning countries as well as the runners-up for every Cricket World Cup played until 2015.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the seven questions given below. (1 x 6)

(A) What does the writer mean by calling the test match as ‘grueling’? (1)

(B) What is the purpose behind keeping a track of the winning teams of Cricket World Cup? (1)

(C) With reference to the table, write one conclusion about Australia’s performance in the Cricket World Cup. (1)

(D) Identify the team that has never won a Cricket World Cup, with reference to the table. (1)

(E) The newspapers published an obituary mourning the ‘death of English Cricket’. Substantiate. (1)

(F) How can we say that cricket is one of the most beloved sports in the world, according to the passage? (1)

(G) Identify a word from lines 15-20 that indicates the process of giving a Christian name to a baby under baptism. (1)
Answer:
(A) The writer wants to justify the name of a ‘test’ match as the schedule for it is of about five days long, which is really a test for both the sides to perform for so long.

(B) It is very important to keep a track of the details of the games that are related to such a large number of spectators and have their history tracing back all the way to the 16th century.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

(C) From the table, it is evident that Australia has the most number of wins from the year 1975 to 2015.

(D) According to the table, it is only New Zealand that had been a runner up in the year 2015 but had not been the winner in any year from 1975 to 2015.

(E) In the first international test match between Australia and England, the former won on the English soil. This made Englishmen feeL like they lost their precious kingship in the Cricket and so, they mourned it.

(F) Cricket is indeed one of the most beloved sports in the world as it is the world’s second most popular spectator sport after soccer, according to the passage.

(G) Christened.

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
As a coach of the District Basketball Team, you have been invited by St. Era School to coach students for a basketball match for their upcoming tournament. Draft a formal reply in not more than 50 words accepting the invitation. (3)
Answer:

Mr. Rajan Shah thanks the Principal, staff and the students of St. Era School to invite him to be the coach for their Basketball team for their upcoming Basketball tournament. He cordially accepts the invitation and would like to inform the school that he will reach the school on 23rd August 20XX at 10.00 a.m. sharp.

Regards
Rajan Shah
District Basketball Coach

Question 4.
You have read an advertisement in the newspaper, Gwalior Times for the post of software engineer in AVD Software, Gwalior. You believe that you possess the requisite qualifications and experience and your innovative ideas will prove to be an asset to the company. Write an application in 100-120 words emphasising your strong points and your suitability for the post. Also include your bio-data. You are Dev/Devika, 1-B, Changi Street, Gwalior.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Situation Vacant
Wanted a young talented Software Engineer for AVD Software, Gwalior. The candidate must have a degree from a reputed college and minimum three years’ experience in a software company.

Contact: the HR manager, AVD Software: 9897xxxxxx
OR
You are Amit/Amita. As a Staff Reporter for Deccan Herald, write about a recent daylight robbery that took place in a house in the city, covering all the details like robbery happening in day, robbers armed with guns and bars, owners filing complaints, valuable ornaments lost, etc. in about 120-150 words.
Answer:
21-B, Changi Street
Gwalior
10th September, 20XX
The Manager
AVD Software
Gwalior

Subject: Application for the post of a Software Engineer

Respected Sir/Ma’am,

In response to your advertisement in the Gwalior Times, dated 7th September, 20XX for the post of a software engineer, I hereby offer my candidature for the same. I believe that my skills and qualifications match your requirements.

I have worked as a software engineer at Vibha Telecom for the last five years. It has been my dream to work for a magnificent company like AVD Software. My abilities are quite strong in user-interface and system coding. If given the opportunity, I am sure I will be able to prove my capabilities to you practically.

I would be glad to get this opportunity and speak more about my work in a personal interview. I am available to come to your office at your convenience. For your reference, I am enclosing my detailed bio-data along with the letter.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Sincerely,
Dev/Devi ka
Enel.: Bio-data and Work Experience Certificate

Bio-Data

Name : Dev/Devika
Father’s Name : Mr. Natwar Agarwal
Date of Birth : 2nd November 20XX
Address : 1-B, Changi Street, Gwalior
Hobbies : Reading, Music, Photography and Sports
Languages Know : Hindi, English, and Punjabi
Nationality : Indian
Educational Qualifications : Graduation in Software Engineering from IIT, Delhi Diploma in Graphic Design from Pearl Academy, Gwalior
Experience : Worked as a Manager – Technology for five years at Vibha Telecom, Gwalior
Expected Salary : Negotiable
References :

  • Mr. Bharat Bansal (HOD), Pearl Academy, Gwalior
  • Mrs. Poorvi Jain, HR, Vibha Telecom, Gwalior

OR

Daylight Robbery in the City
By Amit/Amita, Staff Reporter,
Deccan Herald

Agra, 2nd September, 20XX: The city witnessed a daylight robbery once again in the posh residential area. Agra’s Saket Colony which is housed by city’s rich businessmen is notorious for daylight house break-ins. As per the report filed by the couple of the house at the Saket Police Station, a group of five young robbers, who had covered their faces, broke in the house at 2:00 pm, thinking the inmates to be sleeping during the noon time. When their pet Labrador of the house constantly barked on seeing the robbers, there was a panic in the house.

The robbers were armed with two guns and iron bars. They took away gold jewellery worth 10 lac and three lac rupees in cash from the safe. In the attempt of catching the robbers, Bijoy Kapoor, the owner of the house, got beaten by the iron bar on the head. He had been injured badly with 8 stitches in his head. The police are on search for them everywhere and hope to catch them soon.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Caution :
While writing a newspaper report, if cues aren’t given in the question, students tend to give irrelevant details that read weird. In such questions, try to invent relevant details and keep it realistic.

Section – C
Literature (18 Marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, within 40 words each. (2 x 5)

(A) The peddler first declines the ironmaster’s invitation to his house but then accepts the same from Edla. Why? (2)
(B) “The battle of Champaran is won.” Explain Gandhiji’s exclamation regarding the text.
You may begin like:
A multitude of lawyers told Gandhiji that they were ready to……. (2)
(C) ‘Aunt Jennifer’s efforts to get rid of her fear proved to be futile’. Comment. (2)
(D) Rationalise how beautiful things help us to live a happy life. (2)
(E) What qualities of Mr Lamb attracted Derry to him? (2)
(F) Validate in your opinion, whose version of the Skunk’s story was better: Jo’s or Jack’s. (2)
Answer:
(A) First, the peddler declines the ironmaster’s invitation to his house because the former has the stolen thirty kronors with him and thinks it to be risky to accept the ironmaster’s invitation. However, when Edla invites him for the same, he accepts the invitation because Edla’s sympathy and compassion allays his fears and makes him comfortable. This makes him think that he is free to flee away from the house anytime as he may feel like.

(B) The peddLer was a poor rattrap seller. Everybody treated him badly and looked upon him as an unacceptable human being. No one has ever treated him with kindness and compassion and so, he had lost faith in humanity. But when he knocked at the crofter’s door, he was surprised to receive the warm welcome and the generous hospitability shown by the crofter to him.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

(C) Aunt Jennifer’s effort of embroidering tigers will not get her rid of the fear that she has for her husband. It will prove futile because the poet says that even after her death, the fear of her husband’s tyranny will keep on haunting Aunt Jennifer.

(D) Yes, I do sympathise with Aunt Jennifer because she is like any other submissive housewife. She has to do all the household chores without any respite. Her husband is very cruel and often tyrannises her, which makes her an oppressed person.

(E) Derry is a young boy who is filled with pessimism and has a complex personality all due to his burnt face. On the contrary, Mr. Lamb who himself has a disability of having a tin-leg, is full of motivation, confidence and love. His words of encouragement attracted Derry towards him.

(F) In my opinion, Jack’s version of Skunk’s story was better because as a mother, mommy Skunk was correct. She wanted her son not to lose his unique identity. Their bad smell saved them from predators and mommy skunk always wanted her son to be protected. Jack’s story was correct from the end of a mother.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)

(A) A thing of beauty is a joy forever. Support the statement with reference to the poem ‘A Thing of Beauty’. Write your answer in about 120-150 words. (4)

(B) The peddler was a changed man at the end of the story ‘The Rattrap’. Examine the peddler as a person in the light of this statement, in about 120-150 words. (4)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

(C) It was sheer negligence on the part of the prison staff that helped Evans to escape. Substantiate with reference to text, in about 120-150 words. (4)
Answer:
(A) The main theme or the message conveyed by the poem ’A Thing of Beauty’ is for Keats, the world of beauty is an escape from the dreary and painful life that a beautiful thing, big or small, gives a permanent joy to person. The nature has given us various rich bounties which are so beautiful to look at and feel. The poet then gives examples of the sun, moon, stars, cool water rills, sheep, daffodils and a lot more that bring instant happiness on our faces as soon as we look at them. Joy increases, with the passing time, as one realls a thing of beauty.

The world is full of grief and sorrows. But the nature has provided us so many beautiful things that give us relief from the gloom of our lives. The beauty of a thing does not get diminished with the passing time but its memories just get increased. A thing of beauty leaves a permanent imprint on our minds forever. Poetry, for Keats, exists not as an instrument of social revolt nor of philosophical doctrines, but for the expression of beauty.

(B) In the story, the peddler gets a revelation that this world is a huge ‘rattrap’ for human beings. It tempts people in the form of worldly riches, joys and materials as baits. When a person tries to get it for himself, he gets trapped into it forever. But later, when he gets easy access to steal the crofter’s thirty Kroners, he does it without giving the crofter’s trust a thought.

In this way, he himself gets attracted to the bait in the form of those thirty Kroners and then gets into the trap by finally stealing the money. He runs into the wood with the stolen money in his pocket, to get out of the place in order to avoid being caught by someone for it.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Later, when he finds that he is lost and is just spinning around the forest like a maze, he realizes that he is caught in the same rattrap that he thinks people end up in. when he loses his way in the forest, with the few kroners in his pocket.

(C) Yes, I agree that the prison staff was negligent towards Evans because when the prison authorities have taken a lot of precautions, how was it so easy for Evans to escape it? The first instance where the negligence is shown is when Officer Jackson sees Evans wearing a hat but doesn’t ask him to remove it. The hat concealed Evans’ clipped hair which he made to impersonate McLeery.

Next, the prison staff does not verify McLeery’s identity when he entered the prison. Then, the staff doesn’t recognize Evans impersonating McLeery. All this helps him to escape prison easily.

At the end, though the Governor is able to catch him red-handed at the capitaL Evans escapes once again, and this time audaciously in the prison van. Therefore, it proves that it is sheer negligence on the part of the prison staff that helps Evans to escape.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The question paper has three sections as A,B and C.
  • Section A has 8 questions of 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 50 words each.
  • Section B has 3 questions of 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 100 words each. Answer of map question should be attempted accordingly.
  • Section C has 2 question of 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 170 words each.

Section A

Question 1.
Discuss the importance of SAARC. (2)
Or
What are the significance of SAARC for India?
Answer:
SAARC comprises 3% of the world’s area, 21% of the world’s population and 3.8% of the global economy.

Creating Synergies: It is the world’s most densely populated region and one of the most fertile areas. SAARC countries have common tradition, dress, food and culture and political aspects thereby synergising their actions. SAARC has initiated SAFTA to free trade zones for whole South Asia for collective economic activity.

Common Solutions: All SAARC countries have common problems and issues like poverty, illiteracy, malnutrition, natural disasters, internal conflicts, industrial and technological backwardness, low GDP and poor socio-economic condition.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

These countries uplift their living standards thereby creating common areas of development and progress having common solutions.
Or
The significance of SAARC for India is discussed below

  • Economic Integration India’s Look East Policy links South Asian economies with South-East Asia will bring further economic integration and prosperity to India mainly in the Service sector.
  • Geostrategic Significance It can counter China through engaging Nepal, Bhutan, the Maldives and Sri Lanka in development process and economic cooperation.
  • Regional Stability SAARC can help in creation of mutual trust and peace within the region.
  • Global Leadership Role It offers India a platform to showcase its leadership in the region by taking up extra responsibilities.

Question 2.
Discuss the negative impact of globalisation. (2)
Answer:
The negative impacts of globalisation are as follows

  • Globalisation has not generated much more employment opportunities because it needs highly skilled people only.
  • The foreign companies focus on their profit orientation projects only in place of social welfare.
  • It has widened income disparities by making the rich richer and the poor more poorer.
  • Gradually, globalisation is also a reason for depletion of flora and fauna in country.
  • Even farmers are supposed to be well educated if they want to use modem methods of cultivation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Question 3.
What were the two main consequences of Indo-Pak Conflict of 1971? (2)
Answer:
The consequence of Indo-Pakistan conflict of 1971 are:

  • Eastern command of Pakistan military collapsed and East Pakistan was recognised as Bangladesh.
  • Over 93000 Pakistani Pakistani troops surrendered to the India forces making the largest surrender since second World War.

Question 4.
Give four reasons why globalisation is being resisted. (2)
Answer:
Globalisation means the flows of ideas, capital, commodities and people across different parts of the world. It is a multidimensional concept. It has political, economic and cultural manifestations and these must be adequately distinguished.
The four reasons due to which globalisation is resisted are

  • Leftist parties argue that contemporary globalisation represents a global capitalism that makes the rich richer and the poor poorer.
  • Weakening of the state leads to a reduction in the capacity of the state to protect the interest of its poor.
  • Rightist parties express anxiety over the political economic and cultural effects.
  • The cultural globalisation would harm age old values of people while harming their traditional culture.

Question 5.
Describe briefly about Naxalite Movement. (2)
Answer:
In 1967 a peasant uprising took place in the Naxalbari police station area of Darjeeling Hills district in West Bengal under the leadership of the local cadres of the Communist Party of India (Marxist). Beginning from the Naxalbari police station, the peasant movement spread to several states of India and came to be known as the Naxalite Movement.

In 1969, one branch broke off from the CPI (M) and a new party, Communist Party (Marxist-Leninist) (CPI-ML) was formed under the leadership of Charu Majumdar. It argued that democracy in India was pretence and decided to adopt a strategy of protracted guerrilla warfare in order to lead to a revolution.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Question 6.
What effect did the National Emergency have on India’s political system? (2)
Answer:
Under Article 352 of Indian Constitution upon the advice by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed declared a state of emergency. Impact of National Emergency on party system in India are as follows –

(i) After the end of National Emergency, the major opposition parties started coming together on the eve of elections and formed a new party known as the Janta Party.

(ii) The people’s verdict of 1977 elections were decisively against the emergency the Congress lost elections and Janta Party came to power. During this period, the Congress(R) also underwent a major split resulting in the formation of Congress (I). Initially, it appeared that Indian political system is heading towards a ‘two party system’ as Janta Party was considered to be an alternative to the Congress.

(iii) Later there was an emergence of multi-party system or coalition government as against one party system or two-party system.

Question 7.
Describe any four consequences of Bangladesh war of 1971. (2)
Answer:
The consequences of Bangladesh war of 1971 are as follow.

  • India supported the demand of East Pakistan financially and militarily.
  • The war of 1971 made Pakistani forces to surrender in East Pakistan.
  • Bangladesh was formed as an independent country.
  • Bangladesh drafted its constitution declaring faith in secularism, democracy and socialism.

Question 8.
Issues have become converging point rather than ideologies in the current era of coalition politics. Discuss? (2)
Answer:
Three features of coalition government has been given in which we have to understand the not aligning and re-aligning on the basis of ideologies. These are Unstable Government The coalition government has its own interest and they fight for their own self interest.

Political Opportunism Government formed on the basis of coalition becomes selfish, as opportunist, power hungry and unscrupulous politicians focus on the self-interest only.
Lack of Polarisation The coalition governments afe formed not on the basis of polarisation of political forces, but for the sake of capturing power and vested interest.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Section B

Question 9.
How are coalition governments more democratic than one-party governments? (4)
Answer:
When two or more parties join hands together to form a government is known as coalition government, e.g UP A, NDA, etc. Benefits of coalition government are as follows

Dominance of one party is minimised, this will lead to more democratic way of functioning. The government cannot just pass a bill without debate as it is happening in the current Lok Sabha.

More than one ideology come together and gives strength to democracy i.e., the government will have to listen to all other parties and try to fulfill their requirement as much as possible so that other section of society does not leave untouched.

Drawbacks of coalition government are as follows

It gives unstable government i.e., the government cannot function smoothly because it has a support of other parties due to this government cannot take bold decision for the welfare of society and nation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

It slows the process of policy-making. It means it is hard for the government to fulfill everyone wishes which result in delay in the policy making.

Question 10.
There are numerous issues between India and Pakistan. Discuss any three controversies. (4)
Answer:
The three issues of conflict between India and Pakistan are discussed below
(i) There was a dispute over Kashmir immediately after the partition in 1948 between India and Pakistan. Both the governments continue to be suspicious of each other. The Indian Government has blamed the Pakistan Government for using a strategy of low key violence by helping the Kashmiri militants with arms, training, money and protection to carry out terrorist strikes against India.

(ii) India’s conflict with Pakistan is also over the strategic issues like the control of the Siachen Glacier and over acquisition of arms. The arms race between the two countries assumed a new character with both states acquiring nuclear weapons and missiles to deliver such arms against each other in the 1990s.

(iii) India and Pakistan also had problems over the sharing of river water. Until 1960, they were locked in fierce argument over the use of the rivers of the Indus Basin. Eventually, in 1960, with the help of World Bank, India and Pakistan signed the Indus Water Treaty which has survived to this day inspite of various military conflicts in which two countries have been involved. There are still some minor issues about the interpretation of Indus Water Treaty and the use of the river water.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Question 11.
In the given political outline map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B),(C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and give their correct names along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following format. (4)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions 1

Sr. No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

(i) State to which the Nizam belonged to.
(ii) State which is related to article 370 of the Indian constitution.
(iii) State where the operation blue star was launched.
(iv) State from where the J.P. Narayan demanded the dismissal of congress govt.
Answer:

Sr. Number of the information used Alphabet concerned Name of the State
(i) B Hyderabad
(ii) A Jammu and Kashmir
(iii) D Punjab
(iv) E Bihar

Section C

Question 12.
Identify four elements that contributed to the Congress Party’s dominance in India from 1947 to 1967. (6)
Or
What is meant by opposition in a democratic system? Describe activities of the opposition during the first two Parliaments of 1952 and 1957.
Answer:
The Congress Party succeed in maintaining its dominance till 1967 due to the following reasons

(i) The Congress Party was supported by elites, educated business classes and middle classes people. It also got support from peasants because of its socialist nature.

(ii) It had many popular faces like Jawaharlal Nehru, C. Rajagopalachari, Vallabhbhai Patel,etc. Moreover, Jawaharlal Nehru was charismatic and a very popular leader.

(iii) Congress worked at upper level as well as at grass root level. Congress was popularised due to the participation in Civil Disobedience Movement.

(iv) During period of Nehru Ji, Congress attained mass popularity, but the powerful narrow elite of Congress continued to benefit from the low level of political consciousness of the electorate.

(v) The traditional loyalities made Congress, a one-party dominance.
Or
At the time of Independence, there were many opposition parties and after independence it increased, but it gained only token representation in the Lok Sabha and also in state assemblies. Yet their presence Played a crucial role in maintaining the democratic character of the system. The four activities of the opposition during the Parliament of 1952 and 1957 are as follows

(i) These opposition parties offered sustained and principled criticism of the policies and practices of the Congress Party. This phenomena indicated the check and balance of power of the Congress.

(ii) In 1957, in Kerala, Congress was defeated by CPI and made government, but after that Congress dismissed the Kerala Government under Article 356. It was criticised by the opposition leaders and said that it was the first instance of the misuse of constitutional emergency powers.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

(iii) In 1950, Bhartiya Jansangh was able to secure 3 seats and in 1957, it secured 4 seats. The party played the role of opposition and started agitation to replace English with Hindi as the official language and also advocated for the development of nuclear weapons.

(iv) The opposition parties prevented the resentment with the system from turning anti-democratic. These parties also groomed the leaders (young citizens) who wanted to shape the India as developed and powerful state.

Question 13.
Explain the factors responsible for the rise of the Chinese economy. (6)
Or
Analyse the basis of projection of China to overtake the US as the world’s largest economy by 2040.
Answer:
China is the third major alternative centre of power. It is the fastest growing economy. China at one time was based on Soviet model and at that time, it broke all the links with capitalist world.

Following are the factors responsible for rise of Chinese economy Use of Soviet Model China accepted the Soviet model aind relied on its resources. China decided to substitute imports by domestic goods and create state owned heavy industries from capital produced by agriculture.

Development of Industrial Economy China used all its resources to develop an industrial economy. All citizens were provided education and health programmes.  Relationship With USA China established relation with USA in 1972.

Modernisation Modernisation in field of agriculture, industry, military, science and technology were proposed. Major Policies Announced Open Door Policy was announced by Deng Xiaoping in 1978, which aimed at generation of high productivity by investments in capital and technology from abroad.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Era of Privatisation Privatisation of agriculture in 1982 and privatisation of industry in 1998 was done. Establishment of SEZ’s Special Economic Zones were set up. State had a centralised role in setting up of China’s economy.
Or
China is viewed to dominate US by the year 2040. The basis of the projection are

(i) China is considered as the driver of East-Asian growth because of the economic integration into regions. China is considered to be very powerful and factors such as population, landmass, resources, regional location and political influence adds to its strength.

(ii) China announced ‘Open Door Policy’ in 1978 which aimed at generation of high productivity by investments in capital and technology from abroad. In economic sector, various steps were taken to encourage investment by Western entrepreneurs for modernisation of industry, science and technology, agriculture and military. In 1980, China became the member of World Bank and International Monetary Fund.

(iii) Privatisation of agriculture and industry helped in growing economy rapidly.

(iv) Foreign trade grew with the creation of SEZs and new trading laws. This resulted in high foreign exchange reserves. In this way, China became most significant for FDI. The above points show China’s ability to overtake US as world’s largest economy by 2040.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 7 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The question paper has three sections as A,B and C.
  • Section A has 8 questions of 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 50 words each.
  • Section B has 3 questions of 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 100 words each. Answer of map question should be attempted accordingly.
  • Section C has 2 question of 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 170 words each.

Section A

Question 1.
Discuss the impact of New Economic Policy of China? (2)
Or
What were the two major policy decisions taken by the Chinese leadership in the 1970s?
Answer:
The impact of New Economic Policy of China was as follows

  • The new economic policies helped the Chinese economy to deal with stagnation.
  • Privatisation of agriculture resulted in rise of agricultural production and rural incomes which helped the rural economy growth at a faster pace.
  • The new trading laws and creating of Special Economic Zones attracted players and foreign trade.
  • China has become an important place for Foreign Direct Investment in the world. Now, China has large foreign exchange reserves which allow it to make big investments in other countries. China’s accession to the WTO in 2001 also helped its opening to the outside world. (Any two)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Or
China’s economic success has been linked to its rise as a great power. The major policy decisions new economic policies of China were.

  • China ended its political and economic isolation with the establishments of relations with the United States in 1972.
  • Four modernisations (agriculture, industry, science and technology and military) were proposed by Premier Zhou Enlai in 1973.
  • Deng Xiaoping declared the ‘Open Door Policy’ and rapid economic reforms in China. It was meant to generate higher productivity by investments of capital and technology from other countries.
  • The privatisation of agriculture in 1982 was followed by the privatisation of industry in 1998.
  • The trade barriers were eliminated only in Special Economic Zones (SEZs) where foreign investors could set up enterprises. (Any two)

Question 2.
Discuss the factors which led to unstable democracy in Pakistan? (2)
Answer:
Several factors that led to Pakistan’s failure in building a stable democracy were as follows
(i) Social dominance of military, clergy and landowning aristocracy were responsible for the frequent overthrow of elected government and establishment of military governments.

(ii) The pro-military groups became more powerful over India-Pakistan’s conflict. These groups are against the principles of political parties and democracy.

(iii) There has been a strong sense of pro-democracy sentiment in the country.

(iv) Absence of genuine international support for democratic rule has further encouraged the
dominance of military. Like for instance, USA and other Western,countries have encouraged the military’s authoritarian rule for their own reasons.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 3.
“Globalisation results in decline of state capacity”. In the light of the statement discuss the political manifestations of globalisation?
Answer:
One of the debates that has arisen as a result of current globalisation processes refers to its continued political impact. Some of the discussions related to it are given below

  • Globalisation results in decline of state capacity that is the ability of the government to perform tasks get reduced. Globalisation has impacted the way the state functions.
  • It has set international standards that have be to adhered to in order to keep up with the wave of economic growth through assistance from organisations such as the World Bank and IMF.
  • Market becomes a prime determinant to settle down social and economic priorities in place of welfare.
  • The increased role of MNC all over the tire world leads to a reduction in the capacity of government to take decision on their own.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 4.
Discuss the main causes of globalisation? (2)
Answer:
The main causes of globalisation are
(i) The increased interconnectedness has led to migration of people in search of economic opportunities. This in turn helps in the flow of investments across the world. This has initiated globalisation on a large scale.

(ii) Technology is the most important element. The invention of the telegraph, the telephone and the microchip has revolutionised communication between various global factors.

(iii) Communication has made it easier to exchange ideas, capital and commodities from one place to another. The transfer of capital and commodities is a major cause of globalisation.

Question 5.
Who led the National Coordination Committee? What were their demands? (2)
Answer:
The National Coordination Committee for Railwaymen’s Struggle, led by George Fernandes, has called for a state wide strike by all railway employees to press their demands for bonus and better working conditions.

These demands were met with opposition from the government. As a result, in May 1974, the employees of India’s largest public sector undertaking went on strike. The railway workers’ strike heightened the mood of unrest in the workplace.

It also raised concerns such as workers’ rights and whether or not employees of critical services should engage in strike action.

The strike had to be called off after twenty days without a settlement because the government refused to fulfil the striking employees’ demands, jailed several of their leaders and deployed the territorial army to safeguard railway tracks.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 6.
Despite the slogan Garibi Hatao there isn’t much progress on socio-economic condition in the country. Discuss the economic condition in India post-emergency era. (2)
Answer:
The social and economic conditions in the country didn’t improve much despite the Congress had won the elections of 1971 on the slogan of garibi hatao. The following points highlight the economic condition in India in the post-emergency Congress rule

  • The Bangladesh worsened the conditions of Indian economy. Almost eight million people crossed over the East Pakistan border in India.
  • After the Bangladesh war, US Government stopped all aid to India. Oil Prices increased manifold which caused all round increase in prices of commodities during this period.
  • Prices increased by 23% and 30% in 1973 and 1974 respectively. People had to suffer lots of hardship because of high level of inflation.
  • Industrial growth was low and unemployment was very high, particularly in the rural areas. (Any two)

Question 7.
Discuss the controversies regarding the Emergency. (2)
Answer:
The most controversial episode in Indian politics was Emergency due to the following reasons:

  • Internal disturbances as mentioned by the Constitution became the reason for declaring Emergency. Emergency was never proclaimed on this ground prior to 1975.
  • There were differing view points on the need to implement emergency.
  • By using the powers of Constitution, the government practically suspended democratic functioning.
  • Investigations by Shah Commission later found out that excesses were committed during emergency.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 8.
Describe two benefits and two drawbacks of India’s coalition government. (2)
Answer:
When two or more parties join hands together to form a government is known as coalition government, e.g. UP A, NDA, etc.

Two benefits of coalition government are as follows

  • Dominance of one party is minimised.
  • More than one ideologies come together and gives strength to democracy.

Two drawbacks of coalition government are as follows

  • It gives unstable government.
  • It slows the process of policy-making.

Section B

Question 9.
What happened in the Godhra episode? What were the consequences? (4)
Answer:
In February-March 2002 large scale violence took place against Muslims in Gujarat because at Godhra station a bogey of Sabarmati Express train was set on fire which was full of Karsevaks. They were returning from Ayodhya and suspecting the hands of Muslims in setting fire to the bogey large-scale violence against Muslims began in Gujarat from the next day.
The consequences were

  • This violence continued for almost a whole month. Nearly 1100 persons, mostly Muslims were killed.
  • The National Human Rights Commission criticised the Gujarat Government’s role in failing to control this communal violence, providing relief to the victims and prosecute the perpetrators of this violence.
  • The Election Commission of India ordered are assembly elections to be postponed.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 10.
What distinguishes India as a rising power or a new power centre? Explain. (4)
Answer:
India is considered one of the emerging superpowers of the world. The country must overcome many economic, social and political problems before it can be considered a superpower.

India has become the third largest economy in Asia to keep its high rate of growth. Some of the essential aspects based on which India can be considered as the major emerging powers are discussed below. India as an Economic Power

(i) It is the world’s fifth-largest economy by nominal GDP and the third-Iargest by purchasing power partity. In 2019, India’s ten largest trading partners were USA, China, UAE, Saudi Arabia, Hong Kong, Iraq, Singapore, Germany, South Korea and Switzerland.

(ii) The Indian IT industry is a major exporter of IT services with $180 billion in revenue and employs over four million people.

(iii) It is the world’s tenth-largest oil producer and the third-Iargest oil comsumer. The Indian automobile industry is the world’s fourth largest by production.

India as Military Power

  • Indian army is the third largest army in the world.
  • It has also the fourth-largest defence budget in the world.
  • India is also well equipped with nuclear arsenal. It has recently purchased modem weapons and arms from USA.

India as Political and Diplomatic Power

  • India shares extremely positive relations through economic and political agreements with several Western, European Asian and South-East Asian countries.
  • India has also played an important and influential role in other international organisations like East Asia Summit.
  • India could almost become sixth permanent member of UNSC but the decision was vetoed by China.
  • India is part of some very important emerging centres of power like BRICS, G20, SAARC etc.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Question 11.
In an outline Political Map of India, four states have been marked as A, B, C and D.
Answer the following questions below on the basis of the map. (4)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions 1
(i) The State to which C. Rajagopalachari, the first Indian Governor-General of India, belonged.
(ii) The State where the first non-Congress Government was formed by E.M.S.Namboodiripad.
(iii) The State to which Rafi Ahmed Kidwai, the Union Minister for Food and Agriculture (1952-54) belonged.
(iv) The State faced the most acute food crisis in 1965-67.

Sr. No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Answer:

Sr. Number of the information used Alphabet concerned Name of the State
(i) D Tamil Nadu
(ii) C Kerala
(iii) B Uttar Pradesh
(iv) A Bihar

Section C

Question 12.
“Due to India’s strategic location in the region, it is involved in the majority of conflicts. In the light of discuss the four main conflict issues between India and Pakistan. (6)
Or
What are the common problems faced by the South Asian Countries? Discuss any four.
Answer:
Conflicts and tensions in South-Asian region have not diminished in the post-Cold War era. Conflicts over internal democracy and ethnic disparities have already been mentioned. However, there are some important international conflicts.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Due to India’s strategic location in the region, it is involved in the majority of conflicts, India and Pakistan represent very crucial conflicts of an international nature which are discussed below

(i) Conflict over Kashmir is the major issue between both the countries. Pakistan government always claimed Kashmir to be its part and same goes with Indian government. Wars took place over this issue between India and Pakistan in 1947-48 and 1965 failed to settle the dispute.

The 1947-48 war led to the division of the province into Pakistan-occupied Kashmir and the Indian province of Jammu and Kashmir divided by the Line of Control (LoC). In 1971, India won decisive war against Pakistan but the Kashmir issue remained unsettled.

(ii) Both countries also have problems related to sharing of Indus River waters. With the help of World Bank in 1960, both countries negotiated over this issue. There are still some minor differences about the interpretation of the Indus Waters Treaty and the use of the river waters. The two countries are not in agreement over the demarcation line in Sir Creek in the Rann of Kutch.

(iii) Suspicious nature of both the governments led to border disruptions especially in the Kashmir region. Pakistan’s spy agency ISI (Inter-Services Intelligence) is considered to be involved in various anti-India campaigns in North-East India. Indian security agencies are blamed too with similar blames by the government of Pakistan.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

(iv) Strategic issues conflicts are also evident among these countries like the control of the Siachen Glacier and over acquisition of arms. Both countries want to acquire more nuclear weapons and missiles against each other in the 1990’s. For instance, in 1998 India conducted its nuclear explosion in Pokharan. Within few days Pakistan responded by carrying out nuclear tests in the Chagai Hills.
Or
South Asia includes countries like India, Pakistan, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Maldives and Sri
Lanka. The various natural areas such as the Himalayas, Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal, Indian Ocean are part of this region. The common problems among them are

  • Poverty All countries of South Asia suffer from large masses living in poverty. In India, nearly 38 percent of people are living in poverty.
  • Violation of human rights There exists a great threat to human rights from anti-social elements, communalist and from people with a negative attitude, thinking and approach.
  • A problem faced by democracy Several countries of South Asia aspire to be a democratic country but face a problem.
  • Women employment Women are generally seen at a lower position in most of the South Asian nations. They are restricted and are not as free as their counterparts.

Question 13.
Assess any three challenges that are congress party had to face during the period from 1954 to 1971. (6)
Or
List any four activities carried out by the opposition in the 1952 and 1957 legislatures.
Answer:
The three challenges that the Congress Party had to face during the period from 1964 to 1971 were.
(i) Political Succession: After Nehru, some outsiders had doubts that Indian democracy will not survive, meanwhile party President K Kamaraj, suggested Lai Bahadur Shastri’s name as the Prime Minister, thus he became the second Prime Minister of India.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

An abrupt end of Shastri led to challenge of political succession. This time, there was intense competition between Morarji Desai and Indira Gandhi. Finally, Indira Gandhi became the Prime Minister. She set out to gain control over the party and to demonstrate her leadership skills.

(ii) Emergence of Non-Congressism: Opposition parties realised that the division of their votes kept the Congress in power. So that they joined together to form anti-Congress fronts. This strategy was named as non-Congressism by Ram Manohar Lohia.

The result of 1967 elections jolted the Congress at both centre and state levels. Many elite leaders of Congress parties came together to form joint legislative parties (Samyukt Vidhayak Dal). In most of the states, Congress lost and coalition government was formed.

(iii) Split in the Congress: Indira Gandhi had to face internal challenge that was Syndicate, a group of influential Congress leaders who were in control of the party’s organisation. Gradually, she attempted to assert her position within the government and the party. She choose her trusted group of advisers from outside the party. Slowly and carefully she sidelined the Syndicate.

Meanwhile, President of India Dr Zakir Hussain was dead, the post of President fell vacant. Despite of Mrs Gandhi reservations, the Syndicate nominated N Sanjeeva Reddy’s name as President. But Indira Gandhi Supported VV Giri as an independent candidate.

The election ultimately, resulted in the victory of W Giri and the defeat of Sanjeeva Reddy, the official Congress candidate. The defeat of the official Congress candidate formalised the split in the party Congress (O) which was Syndicate supported party and Congress (R) which was Indira Gandhi party.
Or
At the time of Independence, there were many opposition parties and after independence it increased, but it gained only token representation in the Lok Sabha and also in State Assemblies. Yet their presence played a crucial role in maintaining the democratic character of the system. The four activities of the opposition during the Parliament of 1952 and 1957 are as follows

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

(i) These opposition parties offered sustained and principled criticism of the policies and practices of the Congress Party. This phenomenon indicated the check and balance of power of the Congress.

(ii) In 1957, in Kerala, Congress was defeated by CPI and made government, but after that Congress dismissed the Kerala Government under Article 356. It was criticised by the opposition leaders and said that it was the first instance of the misuse of constitutional emergency powers.

(iii) In 1950, Bhartiya Jansangh was able to secure 3 seats and in 1957 it secured 4 seats. The party played the role of opposition and started agitation to replace English with Hindi as the official language and also advocated for the development of nuclear weapons.

(iv) The opposition parties prevented the resentment with the system from turning anti-democratic. These parties also groomed the leaders (young citizens) who wanted to shape the India as developed and powerful state.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below:

The Future of Tourism
Deep in the heart of summer and a dystopian present, if there’s one desire that people share with each other now, it is to escape. If you are lucky enough to be able to take a vacation sometimes – and haven’t yet this year – it’s best to get to it while you still can, because tomorrow’s vacation, predictably, is going to be complicated.

5. As we head into the future, artificial intelligence will grow even better at predicting exactly what sort of holidays we’d like, based on our taste, and packaging the whole experience for us. So, expect those decisions to take far less time. Within a couple of decades, we’ll just be telling our digital assistants our travel dates and companions, letting them handle the rest. It won’t all be perfectly predictable though.

10. Climate change will mean that many summer destinations will become less idyllic, leading to tourism switching to new places. The deepening climate crisis will also lead to various regions becoming more dangerous in terms of hurricanes and tsunami risks. Heading further into the future, we are also going to see a few travel experiences disappear because of the damage we are doing to the environment. Visit coral reef and go on a safari as soon as

15. possible – if those are on your bucket list – those plants and animals might not be there for much longer. New experiences will arrive, on the other hand – giant malls in the Middle East are already providing experiences from skiing to diving indoors.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

20. Another inevitable prospect is regulation. Most major tourist hubs are already groaning under the influx of thousands of holidaymakers, so expect higher tourist taxes, or even limits on the number of tourists allowed. After all, we live in a time where even Mount Everest is overcrowded with tourists! There’s also likely to be political instability worldwide, of course, but you will have to look beyond travel. A! will keep track of that. Plane travel might not get significantly faster, but airlines will deploy lower- carbon-

25. footprint technology, airport check-ins will turn biometric to more invasive, but more efficient, they’ll claim – and luggage will get smarter and more difficult to lose despite airlines’ best efforts. You will have more stay options- post-Airbnb home-renting experiences, social travel companies and new tools for interfacing between tourists and locals.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8)
(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest the writer’s view of limiting the number of visitors to famous tourist places will occur in future. (1)
(B) State any one reason of visiting safari and coral reefs as soon as possible that is evident from lines 10-18. (1)
(C) The writer thinks that in future ‘digital assistants’ will plan our travels. Why does he think that? (1)
(D) What might be the writer’s intention behind suggesting people to take vacations as soon as they can? (1)
(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 16-24. (1)
The entrance examination of NEET is an unavoidable aspect in the journey of becoming a doctor.
(F) What does the use of the phrase ‘it is to escape’ suggest in the context of the writer’s viewpoint about the holidays? (1)
(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 15-25 to complete the following sentence appropriately. As soon as the mall announced black sale, it went of shoppers. (1)
(H) The vacation in the future will be ‘complicated’. What will complicate the vacations? (1)
(I) Analyse the writer’s motive of writing the context from the tourism point of view. (1)
Answer:
(a) In the passage, the writer says that today, even Mount Everest that is so difficult to climb or even visit, is full of tourists. This increases the possibility of limiting the number of visitors to famous tourist places in future.

(B) The reason why writer suggests visiting the safari or coral reefs is the possible future climate change that will vanish the precious flora and fauna from the world.

(C) The way the artificial intelligence is devel¬oping in the current time, the writer thinks that within a couple of decades, the digital assistant will be there to handle or travel plans.

(D) The writer, through his suggestions, wants people to become aware of the deadly environmental changes that are about to happen in the near future.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

(E) Inevitable prospect.

(F) The writer, through the given phrase, means to say that the biggest desire of people in today’s hopeless time, is to get away from their busy world and go on holidays.

(G) under the influx

(H) The dreadful climate changes and the possible environmental changes will complicate the vacations in the future.

(I) The writer wants to give an eye-opener regarding the changes in the nature that will soon occur. The writer opted for tourism point of view in order to grab the interest of the readers and make them realize the problem via it.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below:
Quitting smoking is extremely important – the, biggest reason is that smoking affects nearly every organ of your body. But now, you have an even more immediate reason to kick the habit – COVID-19. While the novel Coronavirus can infect anyone, smokers, in particular, are more prone to fall victim to it. It causes extensive damage to various vital organs and systems of the human body. However, the lungs continue

5. to remain one of the most affected organs. In smokers, the lung function is already impaired, which makes it more difficult for the body to fight off the coronaviruses. Also, as per the newspaper reports “the act of smoking involves contact of fingers and lips and sharing of smoking products, which facilitates the transmission of the virus. So, even those who smoke sparingly are at risk of contracting COVID-19:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

10. While it’s crucial that everyone is saved from contracting Covid-19 in the first place, it’s equally important that we do all we cah to keep our lungs healthy in order to avoid the worst effects of the pandemic. For smokers, quitting smoking is an important part of this effort. Once you quit smoking, your body begins to repair the damage, and over time, the risk of life-threatening health problems attacking you reduces dramatically.

15. However, for best results, this should be done in a safe and effective manner. For this, the World Health Organization (WHO) and the United States Food and Drug Administration (USFDA) have recommended using proven interventions such as Nicotine Replacement Therapy (NRT). To help smokers quit using the Nicotine Replacement Therapy, over-the-counter NRTs are easily available. And in India, Nicotex is one of the biggest brands in this category.

20. Cigarette smoking and Covid-19 may be a deadly combination. In smokers, the above- mentioned health problems, coupled with COVID-19, may result in more serious health outcomes. The lung function in smokers is already impaired, and so, as a lung infection, Covid-19 aggressively attacks their lungs, making the situation worse or even resulting in a fatality.

25. As per WHO, “compared to non-smokers, patients who are smokers tend to need more intensive care and ventilation”. Also, fatality rates due to COVID-19 are higher amongst people with chronic respiratory disease. (Source: The Economic Times)

30. A cross-sectional study was conducted to evaluate whether the rate of daily smokers in patients with COVID-19 was different to that in the French population. The participants were COVID-19-infected in- and outpatients in a large French university hospital between February 28, 2020 and March 30, 2020 for outpatients and from March 23, till April 9, 2020 for inpatients. The participants were interviewed on their smoking status, use of cigarette and nicotinic substitutes.

35. The findings of the study revealed that the inpatient group was composed of340 patients, median age 66years: 203 men (59.7%, median age 66 years) and 137 women (40.3%, median age 66 years), with a rate of daily smokers of 4.1% 095% [2.3 – 6.9] (5.4% of men and 2.2% of women). The outpatient group was composed of 139 patients, median age 44 years: 62 men (44.6%, median age 43 years, and 77 women (55.4 %, median age 44 years).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

The daily smokers’ rate was 6.1 % 095% [2.7 11.6] (5.1% of men and 6.8 % of women). In the French population, the daily smokers’ rate was – 25.4% (28.2% of men and 22.9% of women).

Table 1-Clinical Characteristics and Smoking Habits of COVID-19 Patients
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions 1
40. The rate of daily smokers was significantly lower in COVID-19 patients, as compared to that in the French general population after standardization by age and sex. The cross – sectional study in both COVID-19 out- and inpatients shows that daily smokers rate in patients with symptomatic COVID-19 is lower as compared to the general population.

On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX questions from the seven given below. (1 x 6)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

(A) What does the researcher mean by saying ‘smokers being more prone to fall victim to novel corona virus’. (1)
(B) The writer thinks that smokers should quit smoking ‘safely and effectively. Why does he think that it should be ‘safe and effective? (1)
(C) With reference to the table, write one conclusion about inpatients with high blood pressure. (1)
(D) What can be concluded by the ‘current active/occasional smoker’ with reference to the table? (1)
(E) It is easier for virus to spread amongst smokers. Substantiate. (1)
(F) Why is smoking and COVID called as ‘deadly combination’? (1)
(G) Identify a word from lines 6-12 indicating an infrequent manner. (1)
Answer:
(A) By the given statement, the researcher mean that as the most affected organ by corona virus is the lung, smokers are more prone to fall victim to it as their lung system is already affected by smoking.

(B) The writer says that smokers should quit smoking ‘safely and effectively’ because when smokers quit directly without relying on any interventions, the chances of relapsing and ill health are higher.

(C) In the table, it is clear that the number of male inpatients with high blood pressure is more than the females.

(D) The ‘current active/occasional smoker’ clearly shows a tremendous difference in the number of smokers in males and females. A very high per cent of smokers belong to males.

(E) It is easier for virus to spread amongst smokers as they share the smokes with each other and the same come in contact with their lips, making them a weak target.

(F) As both the smoking and COVID affects the same vital organ of the body that is lungs, the combination of both smoking and COVID together is called deadly as it leads to fatalities together.

(G) Sparingly.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
The Science Club of your school is organizing a NASA WORLD for the students to take a deep look at the scientific progress of humans. As the Secretary of the Club, draft an invitation to invite the famous Indian Scientist Sr. C.P. Pohai to be the Guest of Honour for the event. You are Shivam/ Shivangi Bhist. (3)
Answer:

The Principal, Staff and the Students of
St. Thomas School, Indore
invite you to the
NASA WORLD
As
The Guest of Honour
For the exclusive event on Monday, the 4th of December 20XX
At
The Thomas Hall

RSVP
Shivam/Shivangi Bhisht
Secretary, Science Club,
St. Thomas School
Ph.: 051-234xxxx

Question 4.
You are Mandana/Mandeep from 21/3, Preet Vihar, Delhi. Write an application along with a bio-data in 120-150 words in response to the following advertisement in a local daily.

Wanted an experienced Basketball coach having BPEd Degree for our school. Apply to the Principal, Holy Public School, Noida by 10th September, 20XX.

OR
You are Rajesh Jha, the Sports Captain of your school G.D. Goenka. The annual sports were conducted last month. As the annual sports reporter, write a report in 120-150 words on the conduct of the same, covering all the details like chief guests, march past, activities, award ceremony, etc.
Answer:
21/3, Preet Vihar
Delhi
8th September, 20XX
The Principal
Holy Public School
Noida

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Subject: Application for the post of basketball coach.

Sir/Ma’am,
In response to your advertisement in Deccan Herald, dated 6th September, 20XX, for the position of a Basketball coach for your school, I hereby offer my candidature for the same. I believe that my experience and background fit your requirements for the position.

I have a decade of wonderful experience as the Basketball coach for Bal Vidya Mandir, Noida. Apart from being a Basketball coach, I also run my training institute for Basketball enthusiasts. I am a Master degree in Physical Education. I can assure that I can work well with the students of your prestigious school.

You may call me for an interview on any date as per your convenience. I shall be able to join my duties at one month’s notice if appointed. As requested, I have enclosed my bio-data with this letter.

Yours sincerely.
Mandana/Mandeep
Enel.: Bio-data

Bio-Data
Father’s Name : Mr. Sanskrit Awasthi
Age : 43 years
Address : 21/3, Preet Vihar, Delhi
Habbies : PLaying, training, boxing, cricket
Languages Known : Hindi and English Indian
Educational Qualifications : Post Graduation in Physical Education(MPEd) from Ramjas College, Delhi Diploma in Basketball Training from FIT Academy, Gurgaon.
Experience : Basketball Coach in Bal Vidya Mandir, Noida for ten years
Expected Salary : 55,000 to be least
References :
(i) Mrs. Pooja Jha Singh (Director), FIT Academy, Gurgaon, 9897xxxxxx
(ii) Mr. Sneh Yadav (Senior Coach), Bal Vidya Mandir, Noida, 9234xxxxxx

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Caution :
Students give general qualifications in the letter that doesn’t match with the asked one. Do invent the qualification details so as to match it with the asked requirement in the advertisement.
OR
13th Annual Sports Day
by Rajesh Jha, Sports Captain
G.D. Goeanka organized its 13th Annual Sports Day on 15th November, 20XX in its Goenka Sports Play area. Honorable Miss Manisha Jain, the winner of Tennis Championship 202XX was invited as the Chief Guest who was warmly welcomed by the Principal and the staff members.The event started with welcoming the eminent personalities, followed by the march past organised by the senior students of the schooL It also included various jumps, races and drills.

The winners were awarded the medals by the chief guest. After the award ceremony, Miss Manisha gave a speech wherein she congratulated the winners and encouraged the students to take up sports and make it their career options for the glory of the nation. The event was a huge success where students and parents felt delighted. After the event was over, Miss Manisha was surrounded by a multitude of students who waited for long to take autographs and pictures with her.

Section – C
Literature (18 Marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, with in 40 words each. (2 x 5)
(A) How did the Champaran peasants react when they heard that a Mahatma had come to help them? (2)
(B) Crofter’s act surprised the peddler. Highlight the act of the crofter that is being talked about in the given statement with reference to the story ‘The Rattrap’.
You may begin your answer like this:
The peddler was a poor rattrap seller. Everybody treated him badly and looked upon him as….. (2)
(C) Explain the statement, ‘Therefore are we wreathing a flowery band to bind us to earth’. (2)
(D) Rationalize why Aunt Jennifer’s hands are ‘fluttering through her wool’ and she is finding the needle so hard to pull. (2)
(E) Why did Evans not take off his hat when Jackson ordered him to do so? (2)
(F) Jo wasn’t happy with Mommy Skunk hitting the wizard. Explain. (2)
Answer:
(A) When the peasants heard the news that Gandhiji had come to Champaran to help them getting justice, they got so happy and zealous to meet him. Many came on foot to meet him while many came by conveyance. The lawyers that were handling the matters of the peasants also came to brief Gandhiji regarding the agreement.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

All these characteristics were in the contrast with Aunt Jennifer’s characteristics. The poet, through the selection of tigers on the panel, might have suggested the inner suppressed desires of the aunt to be fierce and fearless like tigers. She would have wanted to roam around independently and bravely like tigers, without having to fear her husband and her responsibilities towards her home.

(B) The peddler was a poor rattrap seller. Everybody treated him badly and looked upon him as an unacceptable human being. No one has ever treated him with kindness and compassion and so, he had lost faith in humanity. But when he knocked at the crofter’s door, he was surprised to receive the warm welcome and the generous hospitability shown by the crofter to him.

(C) The given statement suggests that when we pluck fresh flowers to make a garland, it makes us come closer to nature and its beauty. The garland of flowers binds us together with the earth and its bounties.

(D) The given phrase is used by the poet in both literal and metaphorical sense. Literally, as Aunt Jennifer for has grown old and weak, she doesn’t have enough strength to pull through the needle. Metaphorically, her nervousness and fright from her household circumstances has made it difficult for her to pull throw the needle.

(E) Evans did not take off his hat when the senior prison guard, Mr Jackson ordered him to do so. This was because it was a part of Evans escape plan. He wanted to disguise himself as McLeery for which he had to fold his hair short with the help of pins. Thus, he had to hide his head inside his cap.

(F) Jo wasn’t happy with Mommy Skunk hitting the wizard. She didn’t like the fact that mommy wanted the wizard to change the smell of roses back to his original bad smell According to Jo, mommy Skunk could not be justified in her act of hitting the wizard.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)
(A) Aunt Jennifer created animals that were so different from her own character. Expound with a rationale. Write your answer in about 120-150 words. (4)
(B) Gandhiji’s was not a loyalty to abstractions; it was a loyalty to living, human beings. Examine Gandhiji in the light of this statement in about 120-150 words. (4)
(C) The story, ‘Should Wizard Hit Mommy’ bear testimony to the fact that the frustrations faced by adults and their personal experiences often intrude upon their interaction with their children. Substantiate with reference to the text in about 120-150 words. (4)
Answer:
(A) Aunt Jennifer was a very timid and a weak character. She was an oppressed domestic housewife who was so frightened of her husband. She had no courage to take a stand for herself or her own happiness. Her character was totally different from the creatures of tigers which she embroided on the panel as tigers symbolize strength, courage, bravery, chivalry and fierceness.

All these characteristics were in the contrast with Aunt Jennifer’s characteristics. The poet, through the selection of tigers on the panel, might have suggested the inner suppressed desires of the aunt to be fierce and fearless like tigers. She would have wanted to roam around independently and bravely like tigers, without having to fear her husband and her responsibilities towards her home.

(B) When the case of Champaran was won by Gandhiji and the sharecroppers, the former decided ,o prolong his stay at Champaran. The reason behind this was that Gandhiji realized that the village needed a lot of developments to be done for the sake of people living there. Gandhiji took the initiative of eradicating the cultural and social backwardness of the place. He introduced primary school to educate the poor peasants and their children.

Gandhiji appealed to teachers, and many of his disciples, including his wife and son, to volunteer for the good work. Health conditions in the area were also miserable, so Gandhiji got a doctor to volunteer his services for six months in Champaran. Thus, Gandhiji’s loyalty was not to abstractions; his politics was always intertwined with the practical day-to-day problems of the millions.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

(C) It is true that frustrations faced by adults and their personal experiences often intrude upon their interaction with their children. We can see this in the story ‘Should Wizard hit Mommy?’ that when Jo was not ready to accept Jack’s ending of the story, she started interrupting and asking questions that irritated Jack.

As a father himself, he couldn’t agree to what Jo was asking him to do with the story. Jo felt that the wizard should hit Mommy Skunk back as revenge. Bt Jack was frustrated as Mommy Skunk was a ‘mother’ and a mother could not be beaten for thinking good of her child.

Also, we noticed that Jack pondered over while telling Jo about Skunk’s bullying by his friends. He looked despaired. This shows that may be he himself faced some sort of bully in his childhood and his mother would have done the exact same thing that the Mommy Skunk did for her child. So, Jack might be recalling his own incidents while narrating the story and that is why he was getting frustrated on Jo for interrupting him continuously.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 9 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Standard Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • This question paper comprises two Parts – A and B. There are 12 questions in the question paper. Alt1 questions are compulsory.
  • Part-A is compulsory for all candidates.
  • Part-B has two options i.e., (i) Analysis of Financial Statements and (ii) Computerized Accounting. Students must attempt only one. of the given options.
  • There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

PART-A
(Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organisations, Partnership Firms and Companies)

Question 1.
Calculate the amount of subscriptions which will be treated as income for the year ended 31st March, 2021 for each of the following cases:
(i) Subscriptions collected during the year ended 31st March, 2021 amounted to ₹ 2,50,000.
(ii) Subscriptions in arrear for the year ended 31st March, 2021 amounted to ₹ 6,000.
(iii) Subscriptions in arrear for the year ended 31st March, 2020 amounted to ₹ 4,000.
(iv) Subscriptions received in advance for the year ended 31st March, 2022 amounted to ₹ 5,000. (2)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 1

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 for Practice

Question 2.
Arun, Barun and Charu are sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 :1. Barun retires and on the day of
Barun’s retirement Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 60,000. Arun and Charu decided to share future profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. Pass necessary journal entry for the treatment of goodwill. Also show workings clearly. (2)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 2
Working Notes:
(1) Calculation of Gaining Ratio:
Old Profit Sharing Ratio of Arun, Barun and Charu = 3 : 2 : 1
New Profit Sharing Ratio of Arun and Charu = 3 : 2
Gaining Ratio = New Profit Sharing Ratio – Old Profit Sharing Ratio
Arun’s Gain = \(\frac{3}{5}-\frac{3}{6}\) = \(\frac{18-15}{30}\) = \(\frac{3}{30}\)
Charu’s Gain = \(\frac{2}{5}-\frac{1}{6}\) = \(\frac{12-5}{30}\) = \(\frac{7}{30}\)
Gaining Ratio of Arun and Charu = 3 : 7

(2) Calculation of Barun’s Share of Profit:
Goodwill of Firm = ₹ 60,000
Barun’s share of Goodwill = ₹ 60,000 × \(\frac{2}{6}\) = ₹ 20,000
which will be compensated by Arun and Charu in their gaining ratio.
Arun will compensate = ₹ 20,000 × \(\frac{3}{10}\) = ₹ 6,000
Charu will compensate = ₹ 20,000 × \(\frac{7}{10}\) = ₹ 14,000

Question 3.
State the provisions of Section 48 of the Partnership Act, 1932 regarding settlement of Accounts
during the Dissolution of a Partnership Firm. (2)
Answer:
According to Section 48 of the Partnership Act, 1932:
(1) Losses including the deficiencies of Capitals are to be paid:

  • First out of profits
  • Next out of Capitals of the partners
  • Lastly if required, by the partners individually in their profit sharing ratio (as their liability is unlimited)

(2) The Assets of the firm and the amount contributed by the partners to make up the deficiency of capital shall be applied for:

  • First to pay the debts of the firm to the third parties.
  • Next, Partners Loan(Partner has advanced to the firm)
  • Partners capitals
  • The residue, if any shall be distributed among the partners in their profit sharing ratio.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 for Practice

Question 4.
Present the following information for the year ended 31st March, 2020 in the financial statements of a Not-for-Profit Organisation:

Particulars Amount (₹)
Opening balance of Match Fund 10,00,000
Sale of Match Tickets 7,50,000
Donations for Match Fund received during the year 2,48,000
Match Expenses 20,00,000

OR
Present the following information for the year ended 31st March, 2020 in the financial statements of a Not-for-Profit Organisation:

Receipts 01.04.2019 (₹) 31.03.2020 (₹)
Creditors for Stationery 8,000 6,000
Stock of Stationery 3,000 3,200

During 2019-20 payment made for Stationery was ₹ 60,000.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 3
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 4
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 5

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 for Practice

Question 5.
In a partnership firm, prince, Rani and Raja are partners hsaring profits and loses of the firm in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 1. On 1st April, 2020, Rani died.

It is provided in the partnership deedof the firm that on the death of any partner, deceased partner’s show of goodwill will be valued at half of the profits credit to his/her account during previous four completed years.

The profits or lossesof the firm of lart four years are as:
2016-17 – ₹ 3,60,000 (Profit)
2017-18 – ₹ 1,80,000 (Profit)
2018-19 – ₹ 60,000 (Loss)
2019-20 – ₹ 2,40,000 (Profit

You are required to:
(A) Determine the amount that should be credited to Rani’s Capital Account as her share of goodwill.
(B) Pass journal entry for adjustment of goodwill assuming that Prince and Raja will share future
profits and losses is the ratio of 3 : 3, when Goodwill Account is opened. (3)
Answer:
(A) Total profit of 4 years = ₹ 3,60,000 + ₹ 1,80,000 – ₹ 60,000 + ₹ 2,40,000 = ₹ 7,20,000
Rani’s Share in profit already credited to her account = ₹ 7,20,000 x \(\frac{5}{8}\)
= ₹ 2,70,000
∴ Rani’s Share of Goodwill = ₹ 2,70,000 x \(\frac{1}{2}\)
= ₹ 1,35,000
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 6

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 for Practice

Question 6.
On 1st April, 2020, Yashika Ltd. issued 500, 9% Debentures of ₹ 500 each at a discount of 4% and redeemable at a premium of 5% after three years.
Pass necessary journal entries in the books of the company for interest on debentures for the year ended 31st March, 2021 assuming that interest is payable on 30th September and 31st March and the rate of tax deducted at source is 10%. The company closes its books on 31 March every year.
OR
Saviour Limited took a loan of ₹ 45,00,000 from Punjab National Bank against the security of tangible assets. In addition to principal security, it issued 35,000 12% Debentures of ₹ 100 each as collateral security.

Pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions, if the company decided to record the issue of 12% Debentures as collateral security and show the presentation in the Balance Sheet of Saviour Limited. (3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 7
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 8
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 9
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 10

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 for Practice

Question 7.
A, B and C are partners in a partnership firm sharing profits and losses in the proportion of 1/2, 1/3, 1/6 respectively. They dissolve the partnership firm on 31st March, 2020 when the Balance Sheet of the firm stood as under:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 10 1
The Machinery was taken over by B for ₹ 45,000, A took over the Investments for ₹ 40,000 and Freehold property took over by ‘C’ at ₹ 55,000. The remaining Assets realised as follows: Sundry Debtors ₹ 56,500 and Stock ₹ 36,500.

Sundry Creditors were settled at discount of 7%. A office computer, not shown in the books of accounts realised ₹9,000. Realisation expenses amounted to ₹ 3,000.
Prepare Realisation Account and Capital Account of Partners.
OR
Anita, Babita and Geeta are partners in ‘Pleasant Limited’ sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 :1. The Balance Sheet of the firm as at 31st March, 2021 was:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 10 2
Babita retires from the partnership firm on 1st April, 2021 on the following terms:
(i) Provision for Doubtful Debts be raised by ₹ 1,000.
(ii) Stock to be reduced by 10% and Furniture by 5%.
(iii) There is an outstanding claim of damages of ₹ 1,100 and it is to be provided for.
(iv) Creditors will be written back by ₹ 6,000.
(v) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 22,000.
(vi) Babita is paid in full with the cash brought in by Anita and Geeta in such a manner that their capitals are in proportion to their profit sharing ratio and Cash in Hand in the firm remains at ₹ 10,000.
You are required to prepare Revaluation Account and Partners’ Capital Accounts at the time of Babita’s retirement. (5)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 11
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 12
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 13
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 14
Working Notes:
(1) Calculation of Profit Sharing Ratio:
Old Profit Sharing Ratio of Anita, Babita and Geeta = 3 : 2 : 1
Babita retires from the firm.
New Profit Sharing Ratio of Anita and Geeta = 3 : 1 and
Gaining Ratio of Anita and Geeta = 3 : 1

(2) Adjustment of Goodwill:
Goodwill of Firm = ₹ 22,000
Babita’s Share of Goodwill = ₹ 22,000 × \(\frac{2}{6}\) = ₹ 7,333
This share of goodwill will be compensated by Anita and Geeta in their gaining ratio, i.e., 3 : 1
Anita will compensate = ₹ 7,333 × \(\frac{3}{4}\) = ₹ 5,500
Geeta will compensate = ₹ 7,333 × \(\frac{1}{4}\) = ₹ 1,833

(3) Adjustment of Partners’ Capital after Babita’s Retirement:
Amount to be brought in by Anita and Geeta = Cash to be paid to Babita + Minimum Balance of
Cash – Existing Balance of Cash
= ₹ 48,200 + ₹ 10,000 – ₹ 18,000
= ₹ 40,200
Combined Capital of Anita and Geeta after of all adjustments = ₹ 35,800 + ₹ 28,600
= ₹ 64,400
Total Capital of the New Firm = Amount to be brought in by Anita and Geeta +
Combined Capital of Anita and Geeta
= ₹ 40,200 + ₹ 64,400
= ₹ 1,04,600

Anitas New Capital = ₹ 1,04,600 × \(\frac{3}{4}\) = ₹ 78,450
Geeta’s New Capital = ₹ 1,04,600 × \(\frac{3}{4}\) = ₹ 26,150

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 for Practice

Question 8.
Tiara Traders Limited was incorporated on 1st April, 2016 with registered office in Pune. The company’s profit grows year after year, and it begins to expand its operations throughout India. To expand their business in Madhya Pradesh, CEO of the company decided to purchase the business of Khaja Foods Limited, a well-known firm of FMCG in Madhya Pradesh.

On 1st April, 2020 Tiara Traders Limited bought the business of Khaja Foods Limited consisting Stock-in-Trade of ₹ 12,00,000, building of ₹ 20,00,000 and other sundry assets of ₹ 40,00,000 and loan of ₹ 5,00,000 and sundry creditors of ₹ 15,00,000 for a consideration of ₹ 61,44,000.

Tiara Traders Limited issued 12% Debentures of ₹ 100 each fully paid, at a discount of 4% in satisfaction of purchase consideration to Khaja Foods Limited. On 18th May, 2020, the company also issued 100, 10% Debentures of ₹ 100 each credited as fully paid-up to the underwriters towards their commission.

You are required to answer the following questions:
(A) Calculate the amount of Goodwill purchased by Tiara Traders Limited of Khaja Foods Limited.
(B) Pass journal entry for the purchase of business of Khaja Foods Limited.
(C) Calculate the number of debentures issued to Khaja Foods Limited.
(D) Pass journal entry for the allotment of debentures to Khaja Foods Limited.
(E) Pass journal entry for the allotment of debentures to the underwriters. (5)
Answer:
(A) Amount of Goodwill = Purchase Consideration – (Value of Assets – VaLue of Liabilities)
= ₹ 61,44,000 – (₹ 72,00,000 – ₹ 20,00,000)
= ₹ 9,44,000
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 15
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 16
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 17

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 for Practice

Question 9.
From the following Receipts and Payments Account of Satnam Club and the information supplied, prepare Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31st March, 2020 and calculate Capital Fund as on 31st March, 2019:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 18
Additional Information:
(i) The club has 750 members each paying an annual subscription of ₹ 1,000. Subscriptions Outstanding on 31st March, 2019 were ₹ 1,80,000.
(ii) On 31st March, 2020, Salaries Outstanding amounted to ₹ 60,000.
(iii) Salaries paid in the year ended 31st March, 2020 included ₹ 1,80,000 for the year ended 31st March, 2019.
(iv) On 1st April, 2019, the club owned Land & Building valued at ₹ 60,00,000; Furniture ? 6,00,000 and Books ₹ 6,00,000.
(v) Provide depreciation on Furniture at 10%. (5)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 19

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 for Practice

PART-B
Option-1
(Anaiysis of Financial Statements)

Question 10.
Classify the following transactions as Operating Activities for a financial company and a non- financial company:
(A) Dividend received on Shares
(B) Purchase of shares on a Stock Exchange
Answer:
(A) Dividend received on Shares – Financial Company
(B) Purchase of shares on a Stock Exchange – Financial Company

Question 11.
From the following provided from the Statement of Profit and Loss of Lotus Ltd. for the year ended 31st March, 2021 and 2022, prepare Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss:

Particulars 31stMarch, 2021 31stMarch, 2020
Revenue from Operations 28,00,000 16,00,000
Other Incomes 12,00,000 8,00,000
Other Expenses 34,00,000 22,00,000

Rate of Income Tax was 40%
OR
Prepare Common Size Income Statement from the following information provided of Gungun Limited for the year ending 31st March, 2021:

Particulars Amount
Revenue from Operations 7,50,000
Other Incomes 30,000
Purhases of Stock-in-Trade 3,75,000
Changes in Inventories of Stock-in-Trade 25,000
Other Expenses 1,05,000

(3)
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 20
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 21
OR
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 22

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 for Practice

Question 12.
Following is the Balance Sheet of Mevanca Limited as at 31st March, 2021:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 23
Notes to Accounts:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 24
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 25
Additional Information:
(i) Additional loan was taken on 1st July, 2020.
(ii) Tax of ₹ 53,000 was paid during the year.
You are required to prepare Cash Flow Statement of Mevanca Limited for the year ended 31st March, 2021.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 26
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 27

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 for Practice
Working Notes:
(1)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 28
(2) Calculation of Interest on Loan:
Interest on Loan taken on 1st July, 2020 = ₹ 20,000 × \(\frac{10}{100} \times \frac{9}{12}\) = ₹ 1,500
Interest on Loan as on 31st March, 2020 = ₹ 60,000 × \(\frac{10}{100}\) = ₹ 6,000
Total Interest Paid on Loan = ₹ 6,000 + ₹ 1,500 = ₹ 7,500

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 11 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Maximum Marks: 35
Time: 2 hours

Instructions:

  • The question paper is divided into 3 sections – A, B and C.
  • Section A, consists of 7 questions (1-7). Each question carries 2 marks.
  • Section B, consists of 3 questions (8-10). Each question carries 3 marks.
  • Section C, consists of 3 questions (11-13). Each question carries 4 marks.
  • Internal choices have been given for question numbers 7, 8 and 12.

Section – A
(Each question carries 2 Marks)

Question 1.
List some of the advantages of data structure.
Answer:
There are some advantages of data structure as follows

  • Data structures are used in almost every program or software.
  • Specific data structures are essential ingredients of many efficient algorithms and make possible the management of huge amounts of data, such as a large integrated collection of databases.
  • Some programming languages emphasize on data structures rather than algorithms as the key organizing factor in software design.

Question 2.
(i) Expand the following
(a) TELNET
(b) POP3
Answer:
(a) TELNET → Telecommunication Network
(b) POP3 → Post Office Protocol Version 3

(ii) In URL, http://www.arihant.com/index.html, which component identifies the path of a web page?
Answer:
/index.html

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Question 3.
How NOT operator is used with WHERE clause? Give an example.
Answer:
The WHERE clause is used to retrieve some given data according to the condition and NOT operator reverses the result of it.
For example,

mysql>SELECT Name, Class, Games FROM
Student_table WHERE NOT Games = ‘FootBALL’;

Question 4.
(i) What is the default value of host?
Answer:
Localhost is the default value of host.

(ii) Which operation is required when you want to create your records into a database’s table?
Answer:
Insert operation

Question 5.
Write the output for SQL queries (i) to (iv), which are based on the table CUSTOMER.
Table : CUSTOMER
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions 1
(i) SELECT COUNT(*). GENDER FROM CUSTOMER GROUP BY GENDER:
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions 2

(ii) SELECT CNAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE CNAME LIKE ‘L%’;
Answer:
No rows selected

(iii) SELECT DISTINCT AREA FROM CUSTOMER;
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions 3

(iv) SELECT CID, CNAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE SID = 103;
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions 4

Question 6.
(i) Write any two TCL commands.
Answer:
COMMIT, ROLLBACK

(ii) Write the syntax to create a database in MySQL.
Answer:
CREATE DATABASE <database_name>;

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Question 7.
Write the code using Python to create a table Product in database Inventory with following fields

Fields Datatype
PID varchar(5)
PName char(30)
Price float
Rank varchar(2)

Or
Write the code to create the connection in which database’s name is Python, name of host, user and password can taken by user. Also, print that connection.
Answer:

import mysql .connector
mycon = mysql.connector.connect (host = “localhost”, user = "system”, passwd = "hel1o”, database = “Inventory”)
cur = mycon.cursor( )
db = cur.execute(“CREATE TABLE Product(PID varchar(5) Primary key,
PName char (30),
Price float,
Rank varchar(2)))”
mycon.close( ) ,

Or

import mysql.connector
mycon = mysql.connector.connect(
host = “local host”,
user = "test”,
passwd = “testData",
database = “Python”)
print(mycon)

Section – B
(Each question carries 3 Marks)

Question 8.
Write the rules that are used while converting an infix expression to postfix using stack.
Or
Write the algorithm for push in a static stack. Also, write a function popdata() with a list of student names as parameter and display only those names that are of length more than 10.
Answer:
Read all the symbols one by one from left to right in the given Infix Expression.

  • If the reading symbol is operand, then directly print it to the result (Output).
  • If the reading symbol is left parenthesis then Push it onto the Stack.
  • If the reading symbol is right parenthesis’)’, then Pop all the contents of stack until respective left parenthesis is popped and print each popped symbol to the result.
  • If the reading symbol is operator (+,-,*,/ etc.), then Push it on to the Stack. However, first pop the operators which are already on the stack that have higher or equal precedence than current operator and print them to the result.

Or

Algorithm

If top= MAX-1
Display “Stack Overflow”
Exit
Else
Top=top+l
Stack[Top]=data
Stop

Function

def popdata(Studnames):
size=len(Studnames)-1
while size>=0:
if len(Studnames[size]>10):
print(Studnames[size])
size- =1

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Question 9.
(i) Name any two operators used in queries.
Answer:
(a) Arithmetic operators
(b) Comparison operators

(ii) What are the functions of ALTER TABLE command?
Answer:
The main functions of ALTER TABLE command are
(a) Add or drop columns.
(b) Change the column definition of a column.
(c) Add or drop constraint.
(d) Rename a column.

Question 10.
Consider the table MobileStock with following fields
M_Id, M_Name, M_Qty, M_Supplier
Write the Python code to fetch all records with fields M_Id, M_Name and M_Supplier from database Mobile.
Answer:

import mysql.connector as mydb
mycon = mydb.connect (host = “localhost”, user = “root”, passwd = “system”, database = "Mobi1e”)
cursor = mycon.cursor()
sql = “SELECT M Id, M_Name,
M_Supplier FROM MobileStock”
try:
cursor.execute(sql)
display = cursor.fetchal1()
for i in display:
print(i)
except:
mycon.rollback()
mycon.close()

Section – C
(Each question carries A Marks)

Question 11.
Consider the following tables. Write SQL commands for the statements (i) to (iv).
Table : SENDER
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions 5
Table : RECIPIENT
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions 6
(i) To display the names of all SENDERS from Mumbai.
Answer:
SELECT SenderName FROM SENDER
WHERE SenderCity = ‘Mumbai’;

(ii) To display the RecID, SenderName, Sender Address, RecName, Rec Address for 5 every RECIPIENT.
Answer:
SELECT RecID, SenderName,
SenderAddress, RecName,
RecAddress
FROM RECIPIENT, SENDER WHERE
RECIPIENT.SenderlD =
SENDER.SenderlD;

(iii) To display RECIPIENT details in ascending order of RecName.
Answer:
SELECT * FROM RECIPIENT ORDER BY RecName;

(iv) To display number of RECIPIENTS from each City. ;
Answer:
SELECT COUNT(*) AS “No. of Recipients”, RecCity FROM RECIPIENT
GROUP BY RecCity;

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Question 12.
(i) Explain two problems that can occur during transmission of data.
Or
Write down any two points of differences among LAN, MAN and WAN.
Answer:
Two problems that can occur during transmission of data are as follows
(a) Crosstalk Disturbance caused by the electric or magnetic fields of one signal in an adjacent signal.
(b) Attenuation During transmission, the signal strength is reduced, this phenomenon is called attenuation.

Or

Two major points of differences among LAN, MAN and WAN are as follows:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions 7

(ii) Define tree topology. Also, write down its two limitations.
Answer:
A tree topology is an extension and variation of bus topology. Its basic structure is like an inverted tree, where the root acts as a server.

Limitations:
(a) Long cables are required for this kind of topologies.
(b) There is the dependence on the root node.

Question 13.
Quick Learn University is setting up its academic blocks at Prayag Nagar and planning to set up a network. The university has three academic blocks and one human resource centre as shown in the diagram below:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions 8
Centre to centre distance between various blocks/centre is as follows:

Law Block to Business Block 40 m
Law Block to Technology Block 80 m
Law Block to HR Centre 105 m
Business Block to Technology Block 30 m
Business Block to HR Centre 35 m
Technology Block to HR Centre 15 m

Number of computers in each of the blocks/centre are as follows:

Law Block 15
Technology Block 40
HR Centre 115
Business Block 25

(i) Suggest the most suitable place (i.e. block/centre) to install the server of this university with a suitable reason.
Answer:
HR centre as it has maximum number of computers.

(ii) Suggest an ideal layout for connecting these block/centre for a wired connectivity.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions 9

(iii) Which device you will suggest to be placed/installed in each of these blocks/centre to efficiently connect all the computers with in these blocks/centre?
Answer:
Switch

(iv) The university is planning to connect its admission office in the closest big city, which is more than 250 km from university, which type of network out of LAN, MAN or WAN will be formed?
Answer:
WAN

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 10 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

Maximum Marks: 35
Time: 2 hours

Instructions:

  • The question paper is divided into 3 sections – A, B and C.
  • Section A, consists of 7 questions (1-7). Each question carries 2 marks.
  • Section B, consists of 3 questions (8-10). Each question carries 3 marks.
  • Section C, consists of 3 questions (11-13). Each question carries 4 marks.
  • Internal choices have been given for question numbers 7, 8 and 12.

Section – A
(Each question carries 2 Marks)

Question 1.
What is stack? Also, give some of the examples of stack.
Answer:
In computer science, a stack is an abstract data type and a linear or user-defined data structure based on the principle of Last In First Out (LIFO).

A stack is a list where insertion and deletion can take place only at one end called Top.
A stack can be implemented using array and using linked list structure, depending upon the requirement.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions 1
Some of the examples of stack in real life are

  • Stack of coins.
  • Plates placed one above another.
  • Pile of books.
  • Pile of clothes in an almirah.
  • Multiple chairs in a vertical pile.

Question 2.
(i) Expand the following
(a) URL
(b) LAN
Answer:
(a) URL → Uniform Resource Locator
(b) LAN → Local Area Network

(ii) Which network is suitable to connect computers across different cities?
Answer:
MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

Question 3.
What is the difference between HAVING clause and WHERE clause?
Answer:
Differences between HAVING clause and WHERE clause are:

WHERE clause HAVING clause
WHERE clause is used to filter the records from the table based on the specified condition. HAVING clause is used to filter record from the groups based on the specified condition.
WHERE clause implements in row operation. HAVING clause implements in column operation.
WHERE clause cannot contain aggregate function. HAVING clause can contain aggregate function.
WHERE clause can be used with SELECT, UPD ATE, DELETE statement. HAVING clause can only be used with SELECT statement.
WHERE clause is used with single row function like UPPER, LOWER etc. HAVING clause is used with multiple row function like SUM, COUNT etc.

Question 4.
What is the use of foreign key field?
Answer:
A foreign key field can be used to link two or more tables to get linked data. This field must be present in both the tables, so that the values in the foreign key field may be compared or joined to get the corresponding data from all the participating tables.

Question 5.
Write the output of the queries (i) to (iv) based on the table, BOOK given below
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions 2
(i) SELECT Bname, Publisher FROM BOOK WHERE Price < 1000;
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions 3

(ii) SELECT Publisher FROM BOOK WHERE DtofPub IS NOT NULL;
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions 4

(iii) SELECT MAX (Price) FROM BOOK;
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions 5

(iv) SELECT BookID, Bname FROM BOOK WHERE Publisher IN (“PHI”);
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions 6

Question 6.
(i) Which command is used to display the name of existing databases;
Answer:
Show database;

(ii) Given the command below
DELETE FROM Toys WHERE ToyName LIKE “S_t%”;
Which record will be deleted by the above command?
Answer:
The command has a LIKE clause with “S_t%” which means all the toy names that start with the letter ‘S’ and has 3rd letter as ‘t’ will deleted.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

Question 7.
Consider the table, PREPAID given below
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions 7
(i) Identify the degree and cardinality of the table.
(ii) Which field should be made the primary key?
Or
(i) Identify the candidate key(s) from the table PREPAID.
(ii) Which command is used to add another column ‘Amount’ into a table PREPAID?
Answer:
(i) Degree = 4
Cardinality = 4
(ii) S_No

Or

(i) S_No, C_Name
(ii) ALTER TABLE PREPAID ADD Amount Integer(5);

Section – B
(Each question carries 3 Marks)

Question 8.
A linear stack called Status contains the following information
(i) Phone number of Employee
(ii) Name of Employee
Write the following methods to perform given operations on the stack Status

  • Push_element () To Push an object containing Phone number of Employee and Name of Employee into the stack.
  • Pop_element () To Pop an object from the stack and to release the memory.

Or

Convert the expression given below from infix to postfix using stack, showing each operation.
(A+ B/(C *D)-E)
Answer:
(i) defPush_element (Status, Top) :
phone_no = int (input (“Enter phone number:”)
emp_name = input (“Enter employee name:”)
St = (phone_no, emp_name)
Status.append(St)
Top =Top + 1 return Top

(ii) def Pop_element (Status, Top):
Slen = len (Status)
if (Slen <= 0):
print (“Status is empty”)
el se:
phone_no, emp_name = Status. pop()
Top = Top – 1
print(“Phone number %s and name %s deleted” % (phone_no, emp_name))
return Top

Or

Given infix expression is (A+B/(C*D)-E)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions 8
Output ABCD*/+E-

Question 9.
(i) What is the meaning of GROUP BY clause in MySQL?
Answer:
Through GROUP BY clause, we can create groups from a column of data in a table.

(ii) Write a query to display the Sum, Average, Highest and Lowest marks of the students grouped by subject and sub-grouped by class.
Answer:

SELECT SUM (marks), AVG (marks), MAX (marks), MIN (marks)
FROM students
GROUP BY subject, class ;

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

Question 10.
Consider the table Faculty whose columns’ name are
F_ID, Fname, Lname, Hire_date, Salary, Course_name
Write the code to insert the following record into the given table.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions 9
Answer:

import mysql.connector
mycon = mysql.connector.connect (host = "localhost”, user = “root”, passwd = “system”, database = "Test”)
cursor = mycon.cursor( )
sql = “INSERT INTO Faculty (F_ID, Fname, Lname, Hire_date, Salary, Course_Name) VALUES (%s, %s, %s, %s, %s, %s)”
val = [(101, ‘Riya’, ‘Sharma’, ‘12-10-2004’, 35000, ‘Java Advance’), (102, ‘Kiyaan’, ‘Mishra’, ‘3-12-2010’, 28000, ‘Data Structure’)]
try:
cursor.executemany(sql, val)
mycon.commit( )
except:
mycon.rollback( )
mycon.close( )

Section – C
(Each question carries 4 Marks)

Question 11.
Write SQL commands with respect to the Employee table given below.
Table : Employee
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions 10
(i) Display name and department of Employees whose name begins with” S”.
Answer:
SELECT Ename, Dept FROM Employee WHERE Ename LIKE “S%”;

(ii) Display details of Employees whose designation ends with “r”.
Answer:
SELECT*FR0M Employee WHERE Desig LIKE “%r”;

(iii) Display details of Employees whose name has 1st letter “P” and 3rd letter “i”.
Answer:
SELECT * FROM Employee WHERE Ename LIKE “P_i%”.

(iv) Display name, department and salary of Employees whose department name ends with “s”.
Answer:
SELECT Ename, Dept, Salary FROM Employee WHERE Dept LIKE “%s”;

Question 12.
(i) What is the use of ethemet cable?
Or
Write the advantages and disadvantages of ethernet cable
Answer:
An ethernet cable is one of the most popular form of network cables which are used in wired networks. It is used to build LAN networks. It connects various devices available locally on LAN, such as PCs, printers, routers and switches, etc. A crossover cable is a special type of ethemet cable specially designed for connecting two computers to each other. By contrast, most ethemet cables are designed to connect one computer to a router or a switch. A single ethemet cable can extend only limited distances due to their electrical transmission characteristics.
RJ-45 is the most commonly used ethernet cable.

Or

Some advantages of ethemet cable are as follows
(a) It gives fast, secured, reliable transmission across them and external disturbances are very less.
(b) You can transfer any large data between two or more PC’s which are locally connected through ethemet.
(c) These are robust to noise, thus external disturbances are very less.

Some disadvantages of ethernet cable are as follows
(a) As the load on ethemet increases, number of collision increases, therefore efficiency decreases.
(b) It offers non-deterministic service, so it is not suitable for real-time application.
(c) Higher costs for provisioning in existing building.

(ii) What is network topology? Also, explain any two network topologies.
Answer:
The arrangement of nodes in any computer network is called as network topology.
(a) Star Topology This topology is a topology for a Local Area Network (LAN) in which all nodes are individually connected to a central connection point, like a hub or a switch. A star takes more cable than e.g. a bus, but the benefit is that if a cable fails, only one node will be brought down.

(b) Mesh Topology In this topology, there is no central connection point. Instead, each node is connected to at least one other node and usually to more than one. Each node is capable of sending messages to and receiving messages from other nodes. The nodes act as relays, passing on a message towards its final destination.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

Question 13.
Trine Tech Corporation (TTC) is a professional consultancy company. The company is planning to set up their new offices in India with its hub at Hyderabad. As a network adviser, you have to understand their requirement and suggest them the best available solutions. Their queries are mentioned as (i) to (iv) below.

Physical locations of the blocks of TTC
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions 11
Block to block distances (in m)

Block (From) Block (To) Distance
Human Resource Conference 110
Human Resource Finance 40
Conference Finance 80

Expected number of computers:

Block Computers
Human Resource 25
Finance 120
Conference 90

(i) Which will be the most appropriate block, where TTC should plan to install their server?
Answer:
TTC should install its server in finance block as it is having maximum number of computers.

(ii) Draw a block to block cable layout to connect all the buildings in the most appropriate manner for efficient communication.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions 12

(iii) Which of the following device will be suggested by you to connect each computer in each of the buildings?
(a) Switch
(b) Modem
(c) Gateway
Answer:
(a) Switch

(iv) Company is planning to connect its offices in Hyderabad which is less than 1 km. Which type of network will be formed?
Answer:
LAN

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 9 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Maximum Marks: 35
Time: 2 hours

Instructions:

  • The question paper is divided into 3 sections – A, B and C.
  • Section A, consists of 7 questions (1-7). Each question carries 2 marks.
  • Section B, consists of 3 questions (8-10). Each question carries 3 marks.
  • Section C, consists of 3 questions (11-13). Each question carries 4 marks.
  • Internal choices have been given for question numbers 7, 8 and 12.

Section – A
(Each question carries 2 Marks)

Question 1.
Write the applications of stack.
Answer:
There are some applications of stack are as follows

  • Infix to postfix conversion using stack.
  • Evaluation of postfix expression.
  • Reverse a string using stack.
  • Implement two stacks in an array.

Question 2.
(i) Expand the following
(a) PPP
(b) MAN
Answer:
(a) PPP → Point-to-Point Protocol
(b) MAN → Metropolitan Area Network

(ii) Name the device that is used to connect different types of networks. It performs the necessary translation, so that the connected networks can communicate properly.
Answer:
Router

Question 3.
Differentiate between ALTER and UPDATE commands in SQL.
Answer:
Differences between ALTER and UPDATE commands in SQL are as follows:

ALTER command UPDATE command
It belongs to DDL category. It belongs to DML category.
It changes the structure of the table. It modifies data of the table.
Columns can be added, modified, deleted etc. Data can be changed, updated with values and expressions.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Question 4.
Which data will get added in table Company by following code?

import mysql.connector
con = mysql.connector.connect (host = “localhost”,
user = “system”,
passwd = “hello”,
database = "connect”)
cur = con .cursor( )
sql = “INSERT INTO Company
(Name,Dept,Sal ary)
VALUES (%s, %s, %s)”
val = ("ABC”, “DBA”, 35000)
cur.execute(sql, val)
con.commit! )

Answer:
“ABC”, “DBA”, 35000

Question 5.
Write a output for SQL queries (i) to (iv), which are based on the table ITEMS.
Table : ITEMS
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 1
(i) SELECT MAX(Price), MIN(Price) FROM ITEMS;
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 2

(ii) SELECT Price * Qty AS AMOUNT FROM ITEMS WHERE Code=1004;
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 3

(iii) SELECT DISTINCT TCode FROM ITEMS;
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 4

(iv) SELECT IName FROM ITEMS WHERE Company LIKE “DIGIT’;
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 5

Question 6.
(i) Is it compulsory to provide values for all columns of a table while adding records?
Answer:
No, it is not compulsory to provide values for all columns of a table while adding records. We can use NULL values wherever values are missing.

(ii) Which join is a simple SQL join condition that uses equal sign as a comparison operator?
Answer:
Equi join

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Question 7.
Observe the table Product
Table: Product
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 6
(i) Identify the primary key.
(ii) Identify the degree and cardinality of the table.
Or
(i) Identify the candidate keys from the table Product.
(ii) If we have another table Item whose fields are ItemID, IName, CID, then which field will be considered as a foreign key?
Answer:
(i) CID
(ii) Degree = 5
Cardinality = 4

Or

(i) CID, CNAME
(ii) CID

Section – B
(Each question carries 3 Marks)

Question 8.
Write Push (contents) and Pop (contents) methods in Python to add numbers and remove numbers considering them to act as Push and Pop operations of stack.
Or
Change the following infix expression into postfix expression (A+(B*C)-D/E + C ^ H)
Answer:

def Push (contents):
if(len(stack) >= limit):
print(“Stack Overflow!”)
el se:
stack. append (contents)
print (“Stack after Push”,stack def PopO:
if (len (stack) <= 0 ):
print("Stack Underflow!”)
return 0
el se:
return stack.pop()

Or
Given, infix expression is
A+(B*C)-D/E + C ^ H)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 7
Output:
ABC*DE/-CH^+

Question 9.
(i) Give the command that displays the details of all the products, in table Product whose fields are PNo, PName, Qty, Date_Of_Mfg.
Answer:
SELECT * FROM Product;

(ii) In the following query, how many rows will be deleted?

DELETE Student WHERE Student_ID = 109;

(Assuming a Student table with primary key Student_ID)
Answer:

DELETE FROM Student WHERE
Student_ID = 109:

Here, the “FROM” clause is missing, so the command will produce an error.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Question 10.
Namita has to create a database named STREAM in MySQL.
She now needs to create a table named Student in the database to store the records of various students in Stream.

The table Student has the following structure:

Field Name Data Type Remarks
Scode Varchar(3) Primary Key
Name Char(20)
Age Integer
STRCDE Integer
Points Integer
Grade Char(2)

Help her to complete the task by suggesting appropriate SQL commands.
Answer:

CREATE DATABASE STREAM;
CREATE TABLE Student
(Scode Varchar(3) Primary key,
Name Char(20),
Age Integer,
STRODE Integer,
Points Integer,
Grade Char(2));

Section – C
(Each question carries 4 Marks)

Question 11.
Answer the questions (i) to (iv) on the basis of the following tables SHOPPE and ACCESSORIES.
Table : SHOPPE

Id SName Area
S001 ABC Computeronics CP
S002 All Infotech Media GKII
S003 Tech Shoppe CP
S004 Geeks Tecno Soft Nehru Place
S005 Hitech Tech Store Nehru Place

Table : ACCESSORIES
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 8
(i) To display Name and Price of all the accessories in ascending order of their Price.
Answer:
SELECT Name, Price FROM
ACCESSORIES ORDER BY Price;

(ii) To display Id and SName of all shoppe located in Nehru Place.
Answer:
SELECT Id, SName FROM SHOPPE WHERE Area = “Nehru Place”;

(iii) To display minimum and maximum Price of each name of accessories.
Answer:
SELECT MIN (Price) “Minimum Price”, MAX(Price) “Maximum Price”, Name FROM ACCESSORIES GROUP BY Name;

(iv) To display Name, Price of all accessories and their respective SName, where they are available.
Answer:
SELECT Name, Price, SName FROM ACCESSORIES A, SHOPPE S WHERE A.Id = S.Id;

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Question 12.
(i) Write any two uses of Internet.
Or
What is the use of baud rate?
Answer:
Two uses of Internet are as follows

  • Internet is used for communication and information sharing.
  • Business use the Internet to provide access to complex databases.

Or

  • Baud rate is a measure of the number of symbols (signals) transferred or line changes every second. It may represent more than one binary bit.
  • Every symbol can represent or convey one or several bits of data. For a binary signal of 20 Hz, this is equivalent to 20 baud.

(ii) A company wants to form a network on their five computers to a server within the company premises. Represent star and ring topologies diagrammatically for this network.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 9

Question 13.
Granuda consultants are setting up a secured network for their office campus at Faridabad for their day-to-day office and web based activities. They are planning to have connectivity between 3 buildings and the head office situated in Kolkata. Answer the questions (i) to (iv) after going through the building positions in the campus and other details, which are given below:

Distance between various buildings

Building RAVI to Building JAMUNA 120 m
Building RAVI to Building GANGA 50 m
Building GANGA to Building JAMUNA 65 m
Faridabad Campus to Head Office 1460 km

Number of computers

Building RAVI 25
Building JAMUNA 150
Building GANGA 51
Head Office 10

(i) Suggest the most suitable place (i.e. block) to house the server of this organisation. Also, give a reason to justify your suggested location.
Answer:
The most suitable place to house the server is JAMUNA because it has maximum number of computers.

(ii) Suggest a cable layout of connections between the building inside the campus.
Answer:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions 10

(iii) The organisation is planning to provide a high speed link with its head office situated in the Kolkata using a wired connection. Which of the following cable will be most suitable for this job?
(a) Optical fibre
(b) Co-axial cable
(c) Ethernet cable
Answer:
(a) Optical fibre

(iv) Consultancy is planning to connect its office in Faridabad which is more than 10 km from Flead Office. Which type of network will be formed?
Answer:
MAN

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 6 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The question paper has three sections as A,B and C.
  • Section A has 8 questions of 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 50 words each.
  • Section B has 3 questions of 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 100 words each. Answer of map question should be attempted accordingly.
  • Section C has 2 question of 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 170 words each.

Section A

Question 1.
What is the political and diplomatic influence of the European Union? (2)
Or
Describe briefly about economic model of India.
Answer:
The political and diplomatic influence of European Union is discussed below
1. One member of the European Union France, holds permanent seat in the United Nation Security Council with several non-permanent members.

2. The European Union is enabled to influence some United States policies such as the current US position on Iran’s Nuclear Programme.

3. Its diplomacy, economic investments and negotiations have been effective with China particularly on issues of human rights and environmental degradation.
Or
India has emerged as an important global power in the 21st Century. The world is experiencing the power and rise of India in a multidimensional way.

From the economic perspective, targeting the goal of a $5 trillion economy 2024-25, a competitive huge market, an ancient inclusive culture with 200 million people of Indian Diaspora spreading across the globe impart distinct meaning and silence to India as a new centre of power in 21st century.

The military of India is self sufficient with indigenous nuclear technology making it another nuclear power from a strategic perspective. Projects like Make in India sets another milestone in India economy. Therefore, all these changes are making India an important power in the present world.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Question 2.
State the political impact of globalisation on the world? (2)
Answer:
The political impact of globalisation on the world are as follows

  • It eroded the capacity of the state by reducing the ability of the government to do what they want.
  • The concept of welfare state has been reduced to a more minimalist state all over the world.
  • Market becomes a prime determinant to settle down social and economic priorities is place of welfare.
  • The increased role of MNC all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decision on their own.

Question 3.
How Globalisation is different from internationalism? (2)
Answer:
Globalisation is different from internationalism on the basis of the following points:

1. Internationalism believes in the integrity of community, whereas globalisation believes in one umbrella concept and sharing of ideas between other states.

2. Internationalism believes in the use of resources of all the world equally for the benefit of mankind, but globalisation emphasise on the development of resources for the welfare and support of community.

3. Internationalism also believes in the universal brotherhood and international peace, whereas globalisation believes in the concept of flow of ideas, people and commodities throughout the globe. It also encourages the richer countries to support the poorer countries’ economy.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Question 4.
Explain the term non-Congressism keeping in mind the fourth general elections in India, 1967? (2)
Answer:
Non-Congressism referred to the non – Congress parties along with their different programmes and ideologies together to form anti – Congress fronts. After the fourth general elections in 1967, opposition parties were in forefront of organising public protests and pressuring the government.

Parties opposed to the Congress realised that the division of their votes kept the Congress in power. Thus, parties that were entirely different and disparate in their programmes and ideology got together to form anti – Congress fronts in some states and entered into electoral adjustments of sharing seats in others.

They felt that the inexperience of Indira Gandhi and the internal factionalism within the Congress provided them an opportunity to topple the Congress. The socialist leader Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia gave this strategy the name of non – Congressism.

He also produced a theoretical argument in its defence : Congress rule was undemocratic and opposed to the interests of ordinary poor people, therefore, the coming together of the non – Congress parties was necessary to reclaim democracy for the people.

Question 5.
Who founded the Swatantra Party in 1959? Describe any three policies and programmes of this party? (2)
Answer:
Swatantra Party was founded by C. Rajagopalachari in 1959. Three policies and programmes of party were:

  • The Swatantra Party wanted the government to be less and less involved in controlling the economy. It believed that prosperity could come only through individual freedom.
  • It was critical of the development strategy of state intervention in the economy, centralised planning, nationalisation and the public sector. It instead favoured expansion of a free private sector.
  • The Swatantra Party was against land ceilings in agriculture and opposed cooperative farming and state trading.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Question 6.
How has the method of voting changed in India after the first two general elections and until 2004? (2)
Answer:
The following changes introduced in the voting methods in India after 1952
(i) During the first general election a box was placed in each pooling booth with the election symbol of candidates. Each voter got a blank ballot paper and had to drop into the box of the candidate they wanted to vote for. Initially about 20 lakh steel boxes were used for this purpose.

(ii) In 3rd to 13th general election, ballot paper carried the names and symbols of all the candidates and voters had put a stamp on the candidatures’s name. This technique worked for 40 years.

(iii) In the end of 1990s, the Election Commission introduced Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) and in 2004 it was used extensively all over the country.

Question 7.
“In the new era of coalition politics political parties are not aligning on the basis of ideology’. Explain. (2)
Answer:
In the new era of coalition politics political parties are not aligning on the basis of ideology. Following points explain the given statement

(i) Unstable Government: The coalition government has its own interest and they fight for their own self interest. This leads to the breakup of not only of various fronts, but of governments as well.

(ii) Political Opportunism: Government formed on the basis of coalition becomes selfish, as opportunist, power hungry and unscrupulous politicians focus on the self-interest only.

(iii) Lack of Polarisation: The coalition governments are formed not on the basis of polarisation of political forces, but for the sake of capturing power and vested interest. There have been no sincere urge even among the parties of same ideology for political polarisation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Question 8.
Why did the anti-Muslim riots take place in 2002 in Gujarat ? What were the outcomes of these riots? (2)
Answer:
In February-March 2002 large scale violence took place against Muslims in Gujarat because
(i) At Godhra station a bogey of Sabarmati Express train was set on fire which was full of Karsevaks. They were returning from Ayodhya.

(ii) Suspecting the hands of Muslims in setting fire to the bogey large-scale violence against Muslims began in Gujarat from the next day. The outcomes of these riots were

(iii) This violence continued for almost a whole month. Nearly 1100 persons, mostly Muslims were killed.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

(iv) The National Human Rights Commission criticised the Gujarat Government’s role in failing to control this communal violence, providing relief to the victims and prosecute the perpetrators of this violence.

Section B

Question 9.
Mention any four significant changes in Indo-China relations that have taken place after the Cold War? (4)
Answer:
End of the Cold War marked various changes in the relationship between India and China.
Four significant changes in Indo-China relations took place after the Cold War was.

(i) Both India and China consider themselves as rising powers in international politics. After the visit of Rajiv Gandhi in 1988, both governments tried to maintain ‘peace and silence’ on the border.

(ii) Agreements regarding cultural exchanges and cooperation were signed. Four border posts were also opened.

(iii) Trade between India and China grew at 30 percent per year since 1999.

(iv) An increase in bilateral trade from 18 billion in 2006 was seen. India and China are following the same policies in international economic institutions like the World Trade Organisation.

(v) Leaders from both countries frequently visit each other’s nation and this way they get familiar with each other. Through an increase in transportation and communication links and working on common economic interests development of sound economic relationship has been taking place.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Question 10.
When and why did a long phase of coalition politics begin in India? (4)
Answer:
The long phase of coalition politics began in India in 1989 because:
(i) No political party able to get majority despite of Congress being the largest party in Lok Sabha elections. So in 1977, the Janata party formed government with the support of many non-Congress parties.

(ii) United Front Government was formed under Prime Ministership of Chandra Shekhar, then under HD Deve Gowda and finally IK Gujral with the outside support of BJP and leftists.

(iii) In 1999 to 2004, NDA run the government under Prime Ministership of Atal Bihari Vajpayee. It was the first coalition government which completed its full term.

(iv) In 2004 to 2014, UPA run the government under Dr Manmohan Singh, it is another coalition government which run for two terms. Thus, coalition governments were not stable in earlier times, but after 1999 they emerged as stable governments.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Question 11.
In the given political outline map of South Asia, four countries have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify them on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following format. (4)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions 1

Sr. No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the Country
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

(i) An important country but it is not considered to be a part of South Asia.
(ii) The country has a successful Democratic System.
(iii) This country has had both Civilian and Military rulers.
(iv) This country had Constitutional Monarchy.
Answer:

Sr. Number of the information used Alphabet concerned Name of the Country
(i) B China
(ii) D Sri Lanka
(iii) A Nepal
(iv) C Maldives

Section C

Question 12.
Highlight the issues of cooperation as well as confrontation each between India and Bangladesh? (6)
Or
Analyse the common problems of South Asian countries.
Answer:
The issues of tension (negative aspects) between India and Bangladesh are

  • Dispute over sharing of the Ganga and Brahmaputra river waters.
  • The Indian Government is not happy with Bangladesh’s refusal to act on unlawful immigration to India.
  • Bangladesh’s support to anti-Indian Islamic fundamentalist groups.
  • Bangladesh refused to allow Indian troops to move through its territory to North-East region.
  • Bangladesh refused to export natural gas to India and allow Myanmar to do so through its territory.

The areas of cooperation (positive aspects) between both the countries are

  • From the last decade, economic relations have been strengthened.
  • India’s ‘Look East Policy’ does involve Bangladesh that links South-East Asia via Myanmar.
  • Both countries are cooperating on the grounds of disaster management and environmental issues.
  • Area of cooperation is being broadened by identifying areas of common threat and by responding sensitively to each others needs.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Or
South Asia includes countries like India, Pakistan, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Maldives and Sri
Lanka. The various natural areas such as the Himalayas, Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal, Indian Ocean are part of this region. The common problems among them are:

  • Poverty All countries of South Asia suffer from large masses living in poverty. In India, nearly 38 percent of people are living in poverty.
  • Violation of Human Rights There exists a great threat to human rights from anti-social elements, communalist and from people with a negative attitude, thinking and approach.
  • A Problem Faced by Democracy Several countries of South Asia aspire to be a democratic country but face a problem of stable democracy.
  • Women Employment Women are generally seen at a lower position in most of the South Asian nations. They are restricted and are not as free as their counterparts.

Question 13.
“Towards the end of the 1980s, five major changes took place in Indian political system.” In light of this statement, examine any three changes. (6)
Or
“Sometimes the period after 1989 is seen as a period of decline of Congress and rise of BJP. Despite severe competition and many conflicts, a broad consensus emerged on many crucial issues.” Explain.
Answer:
For major development in Indian politics towards the end of 1980s, country saw five major
development which are as follows

(i) End of Congress System mean dominance of Congress for two decades. But the most important event was the defeat of Congress party in the 1989’s elections. The party had won only 197 seats, which was very low in comparison to 1984 elections where party won 415 seats.

The Congress boosted up its performance and finally it came back to power in 1991, after Rajiv Gandhi’s assassination. But the elections of 1989 marked the end of what political scientists have called the ‘Congress system’, congress remained as major party but it lost its dominance as it enjoyed earlier in the party system.

(ii) Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi: There was a change in leadership due to assassination of Rajiv Gandhi in May 1991. He was assassinated during his election campaign in Tamil Nadu by a Sri Lankan Tamil linked to the LTTE. The elections of 1991 witnessed Congress party emerging as the single largest party. Though death of Rajiv Gandhi led to the appointment of Narsimha Rao as the Prime Minister.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

(iii) Ayodhya Issue: The Ayodhya issue was started with the demolition of Babri Masjid in December, 1992. This, incident led to violence and many questions were raised about the nature of Indian nationalism and secularism. This issue exemplified and provoked various changes in the politics of the country and guided the rise of the BJP and the politics of Hindutva.
Or
Despite of severe competition and many conflicts, a broad consensus emerged on many crucial issues. These are discussed below.

(i) First agreement was on new economic policies. Most political parties have consensus about the new economic policies despite the fact many groups opposed this. As it was believed that these policies will bring prosperity and help the country to be an economic power in the world.

(ii) Second was the acceptance of political and social claims of the backward castes. Most of the political parties accepted and supported the reservation of seats for the backward classes in education and employment. Political parties also ensure that the OBC’s get adequate share of power.

(iii) The third acceptance was the role of regional parties. The role of state level parties in governance of the country is accepted by all major parties. Regional parties are sharing power at the national level and has been playing central role in the politics of the country for twenty years.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

(iv) The fourth emphasis was on pragmatic considerations rather than the ideological. Most of the political parties’ emphasis on practical considerations rather than ideological positions. The coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power sharing arrangements. For instance, most parties of NDA didn’t agree with the Hindutva ideology of BJP but they came together to form government.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

  • The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
  • Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below.

It is now being increasingly realised that sports contribute to the physical, psychological and emotional well-being of an individual. Sports play a significant role in healthy social development and interaction. It helps people learn how to set and achieve goals through discipline and hard work. It nurtures the development of decision-making and leadership abilities, while teaching people to manage both success and failure.

5. Sports today, face the pressures of modern society and new challenges. When sports events like Olympic Games, Commonwealth Games, Asian Games or those related to cricket, football, volleyball, tennis, hockey or badminton take place, millions of spectators, viewers on television, the internet or listeners on radio become intensely engaged, even though only a select few participate. Along with emotions, a large amount of money too rides on the performance of sportspersons.

10. Perhaps that is why, in this highly competitive sports environment, we quite often hear about unethical behavior, which includes doping, abuse of food additives, physical and verbal violence, harassment, sexual abuse and trafficking of young sports persons, discrimination, exploitation, unequal opportunities, unethical sports practices, unfair means, excessive commercialisation and corruption. In this context, ethics occupy a critical place.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

15. Ethics, morals and values are used interchangeably in everyday language, though these terms are not synonymous. The concept of ethics is technically understood as a branch of philosophy that defines what is good for the individual and society and establishes the nature of obligations, or duties, that people owe themselves and one another. But without going into the complexities of this concept, it is

20. relevant to understand ethics as the practice of making principled choices between right and wrong: a code of conduct that guides human behaviour, norms or laws by which attitudes and actions are determined to be either “right or wrong”.

25. The fundamental problem of ethics is determining what constitutes proper conduct. It is important to figure out an answer because it defines how individuals, professionals in different fields, organisations, associations, federations and corporations choose to interact with one another.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below.
(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the writer’s view of unethical behavior in sports is prevalent. (1)
(B) State any one required trait of the sportsperson that is evident from lines 15-20. (1)
(C) The writer thinks that sports today face the ‘pressure of modern society. Why? (1)
(D) Why does the writer say that it is important to find an answer to a proper conduct? (1)
(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 1-5. A happy family helps to nourish the growth of a child in his young age. (1)
(F) What does the use of the phrase ‘increasingly realized’ suggest in the context of the writer’s viewpoint of sports in India? (1)
(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 5-15 to complete the following sentence appropriately. The old generation is struggling to deal with the today. Their old beliefs are not yet ready to vanish. (1)
(H) Even though only a few participate in sports, there are a large number of people engaged in the game. Why do you think so? (1)
(I) Analyse how the sports authority can control the unethical behavior of the sportspersons in the events. (1)
Answer:
(A) As stated in the passage, a big-money rides on the performances of sportsperson today and hence, it leads to the unethical behavior like doping, taking food additives, violence, etc.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

(B) The one trait that is required in a sportsperson is to be ‘ethical’.

(C) The writer thinks that sports today face the ‘pressure of modern society’ as sports events include big money deals on the performances of the players from the end of their sponsors and agencies.

(D) The writer says so because the philosophies regarding the moral conduct of people differ and so it becomes really important to find a conclusive answer as to what must be followed by people from different fields while their interactions with others.

(E) nurture the development

(F) The phrase ‘increasingly realized’ is used by the writer to express that the people of India are now excessively realizing the importance of sports in the overall development of an individual.

(G) pressure of modern society

(H) The reason why a large number of people are engaged in the game even when only few participate is that people in India are emotionally addicted to their favorite teams, games, sportspersons and events.

(I) The sports authority should strictly check the sportspersons’ belongings and keep an eye on their activities. Also, there should be a complete ban on sportspersons’ bringing their supplements. The sports authority should provide their resources to each sportsperson for safety.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 2.
Read the passage given below.
I have often thought, it would be a blessing if each human being was stricken blind and deaf for a few days at some time during his adult life. Darkness would make him more appreciative of sight, silence would teach him the joy of sound.

5. Now and then, I have tested my seeing friends to discover what they see. Recently, I asked a friend, who had just returned from a long walk in the woods, what she has observed. “Nothing in particular,” she replied. How was it possible, I asked myself, to walk for an hour through the woods and see nothing worthy of note?

10. I, who cannot see, find hundreds of things to interest me through mere touch. I feel the delicate symmetry of a leaf. I pass my hands lovingly about the smooth skin of a silver birch or the rough, shaggy bark of a pine. In spring, I touch the branches of trees hopefully in search of a bud, the first sign of awakening nature after her winter’s sleep. Occasionally, if I am fortunate and place my hand gently on a small tree, I feet the happy quiver of a bird in full song.

15. At times my heart cries out with longing to see all these things. If I can get so much pleasure from mere touch, how much more beauty must be revealed by sight I have imagined what I would like to see, if I were given the use of my eyes, say, just for a few days. I would want to see the people, whose kindness, and gentleness, and companionship has made my life worth living.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Helen Keller Timeline a

  • June 27, 1880 Helen Keller is born in Tuscumbia, Alabama. Her father’s name is Captain Arthur Henley Keller and her mother is Kate Adams Keller.
  • February 1882 After being struck by illness, Helen loses both her sight and hearing. No one is ever sure exactly what disease she had, but sane people think it was scarlet fever.
  • March 3,1887 Anne Sullivan comes to the Keller home and begins teaching Helen letters by signing into her hand (“manual sign language”).
  • April 5, 1887 Anne makes the “miracle” breakthrough, teaching Helen that everything has a name by spelling W-A-T-E-R into Helen’s hand as water flows over her palm.
  • Fill 1889 Helen goes to Perkins Institution for the Blind in Boston, her first formal education.
  • September 1900 Helen Becomes a member of the freshmen class of 1904 at Raddiffe College.
  • 1902 With the help of an editor, Helen writes The Story of My Life.
  • June 28,1904 Helen becomes the first deaf-blind individual to earn a college degree, graduating with honors from Raddiffe.
  • Spring 1909 Helen joins the Suffragist movement, demanding the right to vote for women.
  • October 1924 Helen and Anne begin their work with the American Foundation for the Blind.
  • April 1930 Helen, Anne, and Polly Thompson travel abroad for the first time, visiting Scotland, Ireland, and England for over six months. This trip is only the beginning of Helen’s travels overseas — she would eventually visit 37 countries!
  • October 1936 Anne Sullivan Macy dies.
  • January 1943 Helen visits blind, deaf, and disabled soldiers of World War II in military hospitals around the country.
  • September 1964 President Lyndon Johnson gives Helen the Presidential Medal of Freedom, the nation’s highest civilian honor.
  • June 1, 1968, Helen Keller dies in her sleep.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the seven questions given below.

(A) What does the writer mean by saying her ‘heart cries out’? (1)
(B) Why is this timeline of Helen Keller given in the passage? (1)
(C) With reference to given timeline, write one conclusion about Helen’s determination towards her studies. (1)
(D) What can be concluded about Helen’s reason for being deaf and blind with reference to the given timeline? (1)
(E) Helen was a courageous humanitarian. Substantiate. (1)
(F) What did Helen’s friend mean by saying ‘nothing in particular’? (1)
(G) Identify a word from lines 9-18 indicating a short tremble. (1)
Answer:
(A) It is evident from the passage that the writer was blind. So, she would be so despondent that her ‘heart cries out’ and she would desperately want to see things from her eyes which she could feel without them.

(B) The timeline in the passage is given for the readers to take a look at the insights of Helen Keller’s journey of life.

(C) Helen was so determined towards her studies. This can be concluded from the year 1904, June 28 in the timeline that marks the achievement of Helen for becoming the first ever deaf-blind person to earn a college degree of honors from the Radcliffe college.

(D) As stated in the timeline, Helen’s reason for turning deaf and blind was never concluded. Although some people think it to be the scarlet fever, the conformity of the same has never been established.

(E) Helen being herself deprived of sight, visited the blind, deaf and disabled soldiers of World War II in military hospitals around the country. This proves that she was a courageous humanitarian.

(F) By saying ‘nothing in particular’, Helen’s friend meant that she saw nothing to be worthy of sight. Everything that she saw was just ‘normal daily things’ of which, people are thankless.

(G) quiver

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Section – B
Writing (8 marks)

Question 3.
You are the Principal of DAV Public School. You have been invited by the newly opened bookstore to be the Chief Guest for their inaugural ceremony. Draft a formal reply stating your inability to attend it. (3)
Answer:
Mrs Poonam Sharma thanks M/S Goyal and Sons for inviting her to be the Chief Guest at the inaugural ceremony of their new bookstore. Unfortunately, she will not be able to attend the ceremony due to her prior engagements regarding the school. She wishes the store a great success.

Warm Regards
Mrs Poonam Sharma
Principal, DAV Public School

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.
(A) You are Vineeta Sharma, a resident of 12, Lodhi Road, New Delhi. You have seen an advertisement in the newspaper, ‘The Delhi Times’ for the post of Manager (Accounts) in Wipro Inc. New Delhi. Apply for the post with your complete bio-data in 120-150 words.
OR
(B) You are Malini Khanna. As a staff correspondent for Mumbai Mirror, write a report on the car accident that killed 5 people on it, travelling from Mumbai to PanveL Include details like bus collision with the car, drunk bus driver, family car, etc., along with your own ideas to write a report about the same in 120-150 words. (5)
Answer:
12, Lodhi Road
New Delhi
14th October, 20XX
The Manager
Wipro Inc.
New Delhi

Subject: Application for the post of Manager (Accounts)

Respected Sir/Ma’am,
In response to your advertisement in The Delhi Times’ dated 13th October, 20XX, I wish to be considered for the position mentioned above. I feel my qualifications and experience are good enough to enable me to discharge my duties. I herewith attach the attested copies of my certificates and my complete bio-data. If given a chance, I assure you that I shall discharge of my duties with utmost honesty.

Thanking you
Yours faithfully
Vineeta Sharma
Enel.: Bio-data

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Bio-Data

Name : Vineeta Sharma
Father’s Name : Mr Rajan Sharma
Address : 12, Lodhi Road, New Delhi
Date of Birth : 15th July, 1990
Educational Qualifications :

  • CA certified from ICAI in 20XX.
  • M Com (Accounts) in 20XX from SRCC, New Delhi
  • B. Com. (Hons.) in 20XX from SRCC, New Delhi Accounts Manager in Swastik Corporations Pvt. Ltd., New Delhi

Salary expected : 60,000 p.m. + perks
Marital Status : Unmarried
Languages Known : Hindi, English and German
References :

  • Dr. Kavita Kaushik, H.O.D. Accountancy, SRCC, New Delhi, 9897xxxxxx
  • Mr. Laxman Rajan, Manager, Swastik Corporations Pvt. Ltd., New Delhi, 9891xxxxxx

OR

5 Killed of a Family in a Road Accident
Report by Malini Khanna,
Staff Correspondent, Mumbai Mirror

Mumbai, 3rd October, 20XX: Five people, including a woman and a four-month old baby, were killed in a tragic road accident involving a family car and a bus at Panvel Road. As it was a holiday on the 2nd of October, many people in the city took advantage of it to have a family time. A family of 5 was travelling to Panvel to enjoy.

Little did they know about their ill fate ahead as on the turn of Panvel Road, a roadways bus which was in a high speed, banged into the car. The car collided head- on with the bus, killing all five of them on the spot. The injured in the bus were immediately rushed to the nearby hospital where nine succumbed to death.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

The Police have registered a case against the Roadways Bus driver as it claims the driver to be drunk while driving. The police controlled the commotion caused after the accident somehow and took the bus driver into the custody for further interrogation. Inspector Dinesh said that the other people on the bus are safe and the driver will have to suffer strict punishment for the incident.

Caution :
Students miss out on the correct format whilewriting a newspaper report Remember that the format for writing a newspaper report is different than that of the school report Stick to the prescribed format for scoring format marks.

Section – C
Literature (18 marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, with in 40 words each. (2 x 5)
(A) Why did the peddler keep to the woods after leaving the crofter’s cottage? (2)
(B) Supporting Gandhiji’s management, give examples for the chapter ‘Indigo’ to show that Gandhiji kept a long distance watch on his ashram during his long stay at Champaran.
You may begin your answer like this:
From Champaran, Gandhiji sent regular instructions to his Ashram by ……… (2)
(D) Rationalize the image that the poet used to describe the beautiful bounty of the earth in the poem ‘A Thing of Beauty’. (2)
(E) If you were to give a different ending to the story, ‘On The Face of It’ how would you end it? (2)
(F) Highlight the role of Mother skunk in the story. (2)
Answer:
(A) The peddler had stolen thirty kronors from the crofter’s cottage. So, out of the fear of being caught , he avoided taking the public highway and kept to the woods after leaving the crofter’s cottage. The forest was dark with no hint of light in it. The peddler ended up getting lost into the mazes of the dark woods.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

(B) From Champaran, Gandhiji sent regular instructions to his Ashram by mail and asked for financial accounts. He also wrote to the residents that it was time to fill in the old latrine trenches and dig new ones. These incidents show that while Gandhiji was in Champaran for so long, he still managed to keep an eye on his Ashram.

(C) In the poem ‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’, the poet has used the symbol of tigers. The tigers represents bravery, might, courage, strength, confidence and zeal. The way they roam in the forest unbothered, symbolizes the inner desire of Aunt Jennifer.

(D) In the poem, the poet says that the earth undergoes the phases of construction and destruction of life and death every year. When winter comes, the fields look barren, the trees shed leaves and no new plants grow. It appears that all is lost; the game is over for the earth. But with the onset of spring, the same earth wakes up from sleep, and looks cheerful with new plants, and flowers and fruits.

(E) I would end the story with Mr Lamb and Derry becoming good friends. Mr Lamb would have continued to influence Derry positively and put him in a position where he is able to befriend others despite his handicap.

(F) Mother Skunk didn’t support the idea of wizard changing the original smell off her Skunk to the smell of roses. She took Roger with her to the wizard to hit him on his head with her umbrella. Further, the wizard retuned Roger skunk his original smell.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)
(A) In reference with the poem ‘A Thing of Beauty’, give a description of the beautiful things that you see around you. Write your answer in about 120-150 words. (4)

(B) The crofter revealed his private earnings to a stranger. Examine the reckless reciprocation by the peddler in the light of this statement in about 120-150 words. (4)

(C) The actual pain or inconvenience caused by a physical impairment is often much less than the sense of alienation felt by the person with disabilities. Substantiate with reference to the play ‘On the Face of it’ in about 120-150 words. (4)
Answer:
(A) This world is full of beautiful and unique things that are a treat to my eyes. The changing weather, seasons, different cultures, colours in the nature, and a lot more things, bring a great amount of happiness and serenity in my life. My depressed mood instantly lightens up when I feel the cool breeze on my face while walking back from the school.

The little droplets of rain, falling on my palms, give me a feeling of liveliness. As a student, there are many things that add to my stress and worry but nature is the cure for it. In the poem, ‘A Thing of Beauty’, Keats has compared the beautiful thing to a ‘bower’. In the same way, I get relief from the scorching heat in the summer when the sky gets laid with big black clouds and trees that give cool breeze.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

(B) In the chapter, the crofter was a person who was a lonesome retired man. He craved for a company of human being. So, when the peddler, who was a complete stranger to the crofter, landed on his door, the crofter welcomed him in his house quite warmly. The crofter took good care of him, served him supper, shared his tobacco, and played a card game ‘mjolis’ with him until bedtime.

The crofter had shown a tremendous confidence in the peddler as he told the latter that he had been a crofter at the Ramjso ironworks but now retired, and that he had earned thirty kroners by selling his cow’s milk.

However, despite receiving such compassion and trust, the peddler showed a reckless behavior by stealing the thirty Kronors that the crofter had shown him. The peddler clearly strangled the crofter’s confidence in him.

(C) The play ‘On The Face Of It’ focuses our attention on the physical pain and mental anguish of the persons suffering from some physical impairment. The playwright, Susan Hill, beautifully raises up the topic of alienation felt by disabled people through her two main characters-Mr. Lamb and Derry. It is tre that the octal pain or the inconvenience caosed by a physical impairment is often much less than the sense of alienation felt by a disabled person.

In the play, Derry is a tween who has one side of his face burnt by acid. This impairment made Derry a monster in the view of people. They treated Derry as if he was an alien. This pathetic behavior of people made Derry disdained and shattered. He didn’t want to be around people de to their reactions on seeing him. Mr. Lamb on the other hand was an old man with a tin leg. The children of the area used to call him ‘Lamey-Lamb’.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

He always felt alienated as no one came to meet him or care for him. Both Derry and Mr. Lamb desired love and acceptance from the society. They would have been so motivated and positive about their lives if people around them would have been kind to them. People should always make the disabled people feel extremely loved and valued. It makes a huge difference in their life.