Category: CBSE Class 9

Here we are providing Triangles Class 9 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 7 with Answers Solutions, Extra Questions for Class 9 Maths was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-maths/

Extra Questions for Class 9 Maths Triangles with Answers Solutions

Extra Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 7 Triangles with Solutions Answers

Triangles Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Triangles Class 9 Extra Questions Question 1.
Find the measure of each exterior angle of an equilateral triangle.
Solution:
We know that each interior angle of an equilateral triangle is 60°.
∴ Each exterior angle = 180° – 60° = 120°

Class 9 Triangles Extra Questions Question 2.
If in ∆ABC, ∠A = ∠B + ∠C, then write the shape of the given triangle.
Solution:
Here, ∠A = ∠B + ∠C
And in ∆ABC, by angle sum property, we have
∠A + ∠B + C = 180°
⇒ ∠A + ∠A = 180°
⇒ 2∠A = 180°
⇒ ∠A = 90°
Hence, the given triangle is a right triangle.

Triangles Extra Questions Class 9 Question 3.
In ∆PQR, PQ = QR and ∠R = 50°, then find the measure of ∠Q.
Solution:
Here, in ∆PQR, PQ = QR
⇒ ∠R = ∠P = 50° (given)
Now, ∠P + ∠Q  + ∠R = 180°
50° + ∠Q + 50° = 180°
⇒ ∠Q = 180° – 50° – 50°
= 80°

Class 9 Maths Chapter 7 Extra Questions With Solutions Question 4.
If ∆SKY ≅ ∆MON by SSS congruence rule, then write three equalities of corresponding angles.
Solution:
Since ∆SKY ≅ ∆MON by SSS congruence rule, then three equalities of corresponding angles
are ∠S = ∠M, ∠K = ∠O and ∠Y = ∠N.

Triangles Class 9 Extra Questions With Solutions Pdf Question 5.
Is ∆ABC possible, if AB = 6 cm, BC = 4 cm and AC = 1.5 cm ?
Solution:
Since 4 + 1.5 = 5.5 ≠ 6
Thus, triangle is not possible.

Triangle Class 9 Extra Questions Question 6.
In ∆MNO, if ∠N = 90°, then write the longest side.
Solution:
We know that, side opposite to the largest angle is longest.
∴ Longest side = MO.

Extra Questions On Triangles Class 9 Question 7.
In ∆ABC, if AB = AC and ∠B = 70°, find ∠A.
Solution:
Here, in ∆ABC AB = AC ∠C = ∠B [∠s opp. to equal sides of a ∆)
Now, ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°
⇒ ∠A + 70° + 70° = 180° [∵ ∠B = 70°]
⇒ ∠A = 180° – 70° – 70° = 40°

Class 9 Maths Triangles Extra Questions Question 8.
In ∆ABC, if AD is a median, then show that AB + AC > 2AD.
Solution:

Produce AD to E, such that AD = DE.
In ∆ADB and ∆EDC, we have
BD = CD, AD = DE and ∠1 = ∠2
∆ADB ≅ ∆EDC
AB = CE
Now, in ∆AEC, we have
AC + CE > AE
AC + AB > AD + DE
AB + AC > 2AD [∵ AD = DE]

Triangles Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 1

Extra Questions On Congruence Of Triangles Class 9 Question 1.
In the given figure, AD = BC and BD = AC, prove that ∠DAB = ∠CBA.
Solution:

In ∆DAB and ∆CBA, we have
AD = BC [given]
BD = AC [given]
AB = AB [common]
∴ ∆DAB ≅ ∆CBA [by SSS congruence axiom]
Thus, ∠DAB =∠CBA [c.p.c.t.]

Extra Questions Of Triangles Class 9 Question 2.
In the given figure, ∆ABD and ABCD are isosceles triangles on the same base BD. Prove that ∠ABC = ∠ADC.
Solution:

In ∆ABD, we have
AB = AD (given)
∠ABD = ∠ADB [angles opposite to equal sides are equal] …(i)
In ∆BCD, we have
CB = CD
⇒ ∠CBD = ∠CDB [angles opposite to equal sides are equal] … (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we have
∠ABD + ∠CBD = ∠ADB + ∠CDB
⇒ ∠ABC = ∠ADC

Extra Questions For Class 9 Maths Triangles Question 3.
In the given figure, if ∠1 = ∠2 and ∠3 = ∠4, then prove that BC = CD.
Solution:

In ∆ABC and ACDA, we have
∠1 = ∠2 (given)
AC = AC [common]
∠3 = ∠4 [given]
So, by using ASA congruence axiom
∆ABC ≅ ∆CDA
Since corresponding parts of congruent triangles are equal
∴ BC = CD

Class 9 Maths Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 4.
In the given figure, ∠B < ∠A and ∠C < ∠D. Show that AD < BC.

Solution:
Here, ∠B < ∠A
⇒ AO < BO …..(i)
and ∠C < ∠D
⇒ OD < CO …..(ii)
[∴ side opposite to greater angle is longer]
Adding (i) and (ii), we obtain
AO + OD < BO + CO
AD < BC

Triangles Class 9 Important Questions With Solutions Question 5.
In the given figure, AC > AB and D is a point on AC such that AB = AD. Show that BC > CD.
Solution:

Here, in ∆ABD, AB = AD
∠ABD = ∠ADB
[∠s opp. to equal sides of a ∆]
In ∆BAD
ext. ∠BDC = ∠BAD + ∠ABD
⇒ ∠BDC > ∠ABD ….(ii)
Also, in ∆BDC .
ext. ∠ADB > ∠CBD …(iii)
From (ii) and (iii), we have
∠BDC > CD [∵ sides opp. to greater angle is larger]

Class 9 Maths Ch 7 Extra Questions Question 6.
In a triangle ABC, D is the mid-point of side AC such that BD = \(\frac{1}{2}\) AC. Show that ∠ABC is a right angle.
Solution:

Here, in ∆ABC, D is the mid-point of AC.
⇒ AD = CD = \(\frac{1}{2}\)AC …(i)
Also, BD = \(\frac{1}{2}\)AC… (ii) [given]
From (i) and (ii), we obtain
AD = BD and CD = BD
⇒ ∠2 = ∠4 and ∠1 = ∠3 …..(iii)
In ∆ABC, we have
∠ABC + ∠ACB + ∠CAB = 180°
⇒ ∠1 + ∠2 + ∠3 + ∠4 = 180°
⇒ ∠1 + ∠2 + ∠1 + ∠2 = 180° [using (iii)]
⇒ 2(∠1 + ∠2) = 180°
⇒ ∠1 + ∠2 = 90°
Hence, ∠ABC = 90°

Triangles Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 2

Chapter 7 Maths Class 9 Extra Questions Question 1.
ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC. P and Q are points on AB and AC respectively such that AP = AQ. Prove that CP = BQ.
Solution:

In ∆ABQ and ∆ACP, we have
AB = AC (given)
∠BAQ = ∠CAP [common]
AQ = AP (given)
∴ By SAS congruence criteria, we have
∆ABQ ≅ ∆ACP
CP = BQ

Questions On Triangles For Class 9 Question 2.
In the given figure, ∆ABC and ∆DBC are two isosceles triangles on the same base BC and vertices A and D are on the same side of BC, AD is extended to intersect BC at P. Show that : (i) ∆ABD ≅ ∆ACD (ii) ∆ABP ≅ ∆ACP

Solution:
(i) In ∆ABD and ∆ACD
AB = AC [given]
BD = CD [given]
AD = AD [common)]
∴ By SSS congruence axiom, we have
∆ABD ≅ ∆ACD
(ii) In ∆ABP and ∆ACP
AB = AC [given]
∠BAP = ∠CAP [c.p.cit. as ∆ABD ≅ ∆ACD]
AP = AP [common]
∴ By SAS congruence axiom, we have
∆ABP ≅ ∆ACP

Ch 7 Maths Class 9 Extra Questions Question 3.
In the given figure, it is given that AE = AD and BD = CE. Prove that ∆AEB ≅ ∆ADC.

Solution:
We have AE = AD … (i)
and CE = BD … (ii)
On adding (i) and (ii),
we have AE + CE = AD + BD
⇒ AC = AB
Now, in ∆AEB and ∆ADC,
we have AE = AD [given]
AB = AC [proved above]
∠A = ∠A [common]
∴ By SAS congruence axiom, we have
∆AEB = ∆ADC

Triangles Class 9 Extra Questions With Solutions Question 4.
In the given figure, in ∆ABC, ∠B = 30°, ∠C = 65° and the bisector of ∠A meets BC in X. Arrange AX, BX and CX in ascending order of magnitude.

Solution:
Here, AX bisects ∠BAC.
∴ ∠BAX = ∠CAX = x (say)
Now, ∠A + ∠B + C = 180° [angle sum property of a triangle]
⇒ 2x + 30° + 65° = 180°
⇒ 2x + 95 = 180°
⇒ 2x = 180° – 95°
⇒ 2x = 85°
⇒ x = \(\frac{85^{\circ}}{2}\) = 42.59
In ∆ABX, we have x > 30°
BAX > ∠ABX
⇒ BX > AX (side opp. to larger angle is greater)
⇒ AX < BX
Also, in ∆ACX, we have 65° > x
⇒ ∠ACX > ∠CAX
⇒ AX > CX [side opp. to larger angle is greater]
⇒ CX > AX … (ii)
Hence, from (i) and (ii), we have
CX < AX < BX

Question 5.
In figure, ‘S’ is any point on the side QR of APQR. Prove that PQ + QR + RP > 2PS.

Solution:
In ∆PQS, we have
PQ + QS > PS …(i)
[∵ sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side]
In ∆PRS, we have
RP + RS > PS …(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we have
PQ + (QS + RS) + RP > 2PS
Hence, PQ + QR + RP > 2PS. [∵ QS + RS = QR]

Question 6.
If two isosceles triangles have a common base, prove that the line joining their vertices bisects them at right angles.
Solution:
Here, two triangles ABC and BDC having the common
base BC, such that AB = AC and DB = DC.
Now, in ∆ABD and ∆ACD

AB = AC [given]
BD = CD [given]
AD = AD [common]
∴ ΔABD ≅ ΔΑCD [by SSS congruence axiom]
⇒ ∠1 = ∠2 [c.p.c.t.]
Again, in ∆ABE and ∆ACE, we have
AB = AC [given]
∠1 = ∠2 [proved above]
AE = AE [common]
∆ABE = ∆ACE [by SAS congruence axiom]
BE = CE [c.p.c.t.]
and ∠3 = ∠4 [c.p.c.t.]
But ∠3 + ∠4 = 180° [a linear pair]
⇒ ∠3 = ∠4 = 90°
Hence, AD bisects BC at right angles.

Triangles Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
In the given figure, AP and DP are bisectors of two adjacent angles A and D of quadrilateral ABCD. Prove that 2 ∠APD = ∠B + 2C.

Solution:
Here, AP and DP are angle bisectors of ∠A and ∠D
∴ ∠DAP = \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠DAB and ∠ADP = \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠ADC ……(i)
In ∆APD, ∠APD + ∠DAP + ∠ADP = 180°
⇒ ∠APD + \(\frac{1}{2}\) ∠DAB + \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠ADC = 180°
⇒ ∠APD = 180° – \(\frac{1}{2}\)(∠DAB + ∠ADC)
⇒ 2∠APD = 360° – (∠DAB + ∠ADC) ……(ii)
Also, ∠A + ∠B + C + ∠D = 360°
∠B + 2C = 360° – (∠A + ∠D)
∠B + C = 360° – (∠DAB + ∠ADC) ……(iii)
From (ii) and (iii), we obtain
2∠APD = ∠B + ∠C

Question 2.
In figure, ABCD is a square and EF is parallel to diagonal BD and EM = FM. Prove that
(i) DF = BE (i) AM bisects ∠BAD.

Solution:
(i) EF || BD = ∠1 = ∠2 and ∠3 = ∠4 [corresponding ∠s]
Also, ∠2 = ∠4
⇒ ∠1 = ∠3
⇒ CE = CF (sides opp. to equals ∠s of a ∆]
∴ DF = BE [∵ BC – CE = CD – CF)

(ii) In ∆ADF and ∆ABE, we have
AD = AB [sides of a square]
DF = BE [proved above]
∠D = ∠B = 90°
⇒ ∆ADF ≅ ∆ABE [by SAS congruence axiom]
⇒ AF = AE and ∠5 = ∠6 … (i) [c.p.c.t.]
In ∆AMF and ∆AME
AF = AE [proved above]
AM = AM [common]
FM = EM (given)
∴ ∆AMF ≅ ∆AME [by SSS congruence axiom]
∴ ∠7 = ∠8 …(ii) [c.p.c.t.]
Adding (i) and (ii), we have
∠5 + ∠7 = ∠6 + ∠8
∠DAM = ∠BAM
∴ AM bisects ∠BAD.

Question 3.
In right triangle ABC, right-angled at C, M is the mid-point of hypotenuse AB. C is joined to M and produced to a point D such that DM = CM. Point D is joined to point B (see fig.). Show that : (i) ∆AMC ≅ ∆BMD (ii) ∠DBC = 90° (ii) ∆DBC ≅ ∆ACB (iv) CM = \(\frac{1}{2}\)AB

Solution:
Given : ∆ACB in which 4C = 90° and M is the mid-point of AB.
To Prove :
(i) ∆AMC ≅ ∆BMD
(ii) ∠DBC = 90°
(iii) ∆DBC ≅ ∆ACB
(iv) CM = \(\frac{1}{2}\)AB
Proof : Consider ∆AMC and ∆BMD,
we have AM = BM [given]
CM = DM [by construction]
∠AMC = ∠BMD [vertically opposite angles]
∴ ∆AMC ≅ ∆BMD [by SAS congruence axiom]
⇒ AC = DB …(i) [by c.p.c.t.]
and ∠1 = ∠2 [by c.p.c.t.]
But ∠1 and ∠2 are alternate angles.
⇒ BD || CA
Now, BD || CA and BC is transversal.
∴ ∠ACB + ∠CBD = 180°
⇒ 90° + CBD = 180°
⇒ ∠CBD = 90°
In ∆DBC and ∆ACB,
we have CB = BC [common]
DB = AC [using (i)]
∠CBD = ∠BCA
∴ ∆DBC ≅ ∆ACB
⇒ DC = AB
⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\)AB = \(\frac{1}{2}\)DC
⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\)AB = CM or CM = \(\frac{1}{2}\)AB (∵ CM = \(\frac{1}{2}\)DC)

Question 4.
In figure, ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC. D is a point in the interior of ∆ABC such that ∠BCD = ∠CBD. Prove that AD bisects ∠BAC of ∆ABC.

Solution:
In ∆BDC, we have ∠DBC = ∠DCB (given).
⇒ CD = BD (sides opp. to equal ∠s of ∆DBC)
Now, in ∆ABD and ∆ACD,
we have AB = AC [given]
BD = CD [proved above]
AD = AD [common]
∴ By using SSS congruence axiom, we obtain
∆ABD ≅ ∆ACD
⇒ ∠BAD = ∠CAD [c.p.ç.t.]
Hence, AD bisects ∠BAC of ∆ABC.

Question 5.
Prove that two triangles are congruent if any two angles and the included side of one triangle is equal to any two angles and the included side of the other triangle.
Solution:

Given : Two As ABC and DEF in which
∠B = ∠E,
∠C = ∠F and BC = EF
To Prove : ∆ABC = ∆DEF
Proof : We have three possibilities
Case I. If AB = DE,
we have AB = DE,
∠B = ∠E and BC = EF.
So, by SAS congruence axiom, we have ∆ABC ≅ ∆DEF

Case II. If AB < ED, then take a point Mon ED
such that EM = AB.
Join MF.
Now, in ∆ABC and ∆MEF,
we have
AB = ME, ∠B = ∠E and BC = EF.
So, by SAS congruence axiom,
we have ΔΑΒC ≅ ΔΜEF
⇒ ∠ACB = ∠MFE
But ∠ACB = ∠DFE
∴ ∠MFE = ∠DFE

Which is possible only when FM coincides with B FD i.e., M coincides with D.
Thus, AB = DE
∴ In ∆ABC and ∆DEF, we have
AB = DE,
∠B = ∠E and BC = EF
So, by SAS congruence axiom, we have
∆ABC ≅ ∆DEF
Case III. When AB > ED
Take a point M on ED produced
such that EM = AB.
Join MF
Proceeding as in Case II, we can prove that
∆ABC = ∆DEF
Hence, in all cases, we have
∆ABC = ∆DEF.

Question 6.
In the given figure, side QR is produced to the point S. If the bisectors of ∠PQR and ∠PRS meet at T,
prove that ∠QTR = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ∠QPR.

Solution:
Here, QT is angle bisector of ∠PQR

Triangles Class 9 Extra Questions HOTS

Question 1.
Show that the difference of any two sides of a triangle is less than the third side.
Solution:

Consider a triangle ABC
To Prove :
(i) AC – AB < BC
(ii) BC – AC < AB
(iii) BC – AB < AC
Construction : Take a point D on AC
such that AD = AB.
Join BD.
Proof : In ∆ABD, we have ∠3 > ∠1 …(i)
[∵ exterior ∠ is greater than each of interior opposite angle in a ∆]
Similarly, in ∆BCD, we have
∠2 > ∠4 …..(ii) [∵ ext. ∠ is greater then interior opp. angle in a ∆]
In ∆ABD, we have
AD = AB [by construction]
∠1 = ∠2 …(iii) [angles opp. to equal sides are equal in a triangle]
From (i), (ii) and (iii), we have
⇒ ∠3 > ∠4 =
⇒ BC > CD
⇒ CD < BC
AC – AD < BC
AC – AB < BC [∵ AD = AB]
Hence, AC – AB < BC
Similarly, we can prove
BC – AC < AB
and BC – AB < AC

Question 2.
In the figure, O is the interior point of ∆ABC. BO meets AC at D. Show that OB + OC < AB + AC.

Solution:
In ∆ABD, AB + AD > BD …(i)
∵ The sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side. Also, we have
BD = BO + OD
AB + AD > BO + OD ….(ii)
Similarly, in ∆COD, we have
OD + DC > OC … (iii)
On adding (ii) and (iii), we have
AB + AD + OD + DC > BO + OD + OC
⇒ AB + AD + DC > BO + OC
⇒ AB + AC > OB + OC
or OB + OC < AB + AC
Hence, proved.

Triangles Class 9 Extra Questions Value Based (VBQs)

Question 1.
A campaign is started by volunteers of mathematical club to boost school and its surrounding under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan. They made their own logo for this campaign. What values are acquired by mathematical club ?
If it is given that ∆ABC ≅ ∆ECD, BC = AE.
Prove that ∆ABC ≅ ∆CEA.

Solution:
Here, it is given that
∆ABC ≅ ∆ECD
AB = CE [c.p.c.t.]
BC = CD [c.p.c.t.]
AC = ED [c.p.c.t.]
Now, in ∆ABC and ∆CEA
BC = AE [given]
AB = EC [proved above]
AC = AC [common]
∴ By using SSS congruence axiom, we have
∆ABC ≅ ∆CEA
Value : Cleanliness and social concerning.

Question 2.
Rajiv, a good student and actively involved in applying knowledge A of mathematics in daily life. He asked his classmate Rahul to make triangle as shown by choosing one of the vertex as common. Rahul tried but not correctly. After sometime Rajiv hinted Rahul about congruency of triangle. Now, Rahul fixed vertex C as common vertex and locate point D, E such that AC = CD and BC = CE. Was the triangle made by Rahul is congruent ? Write the condition satisfying congruence.
What value is depicted by Rajiv’s action?

Solution:
In ∆ABC and ∆DEC, we have
AC = DC [by construction]
BC = EC [by construction]
∠ACB = ∠ECD [vert. opp. ∠s]
By using SAS congruence axiom, we have
∆ABC ≅ ∆DEC
Value : Cooperative learning, use of concept and friendly nature.

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers India-Size and Location Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided India Size and Location Class 9 Geography MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-social-science/

Online Education for India-Size and Location Class 9 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 1

Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Name the island group of India lying in the Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Geography Class 9 Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 2.
Which island group of India lies to its south-west ?
Answer:
Lakshdweep.

India Size And Location Class 9 Extra Questions Question 3.
Which canal shortened the distance between India and Europe ?
Answer:
Suez canal.

Extra Questions For Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Question 4.
Which ocean will have to be crossed by a ship going from Singapore to Mogadishu. •
Answer:
Indian ocean.

Important Questions For Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter  Question 5.
Point out the latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of India extends between 8° 4′ N and 37° 6′ latitudes touching Jammu and Kashmir in the North and Tamil Nadu in the south.

Chapter 1 Geography Class 9 Extra Questions Question 6.
Name the southernmost point of the Indian Union.
Answer:
The Indira Point.

Geography Chapter 1 Class 9 Extra Questions Question 7.
Where does the Indira point lie?
Answer:
In Andaman and Nicobar.

Class 9 Geo Ch 1 Extra Questions Question 8.
When was the Suez Canal opened?
Answer:
In 1869.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 9.
What is the importance of the Suez Canal for India?
Answer:
Suez Canal has reduced the distance between India and Europe by 7000 km.

Ncert Solutions For Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 10.
Where is Cape of Good Hope?
Answer:
In South Africa.

Class 9th Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 11.
Write the two routes by which India can reach North America, South America and Europe.
Answer:
These routes are:

1. The Cape of Good Hope
2. The Suez Canal.

Cbse Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 12.
Name the countries which are- larger than India in area.
Answer:

• Russia
• Canada
• China
• United States, of America
• Brazil
• Australia.

Class 9 Chapter 1 Geography Extra Questions Question 13.
Which tropic divides India into two arts?
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer.

Learn Insta Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Question 14.
What is the shape of the areas to the south of the Tropic of Cancer?
Answer:
Triangular.

Class 9 Geography Ch 1 Extra Questions Question 15.
What is the extension of the mainland of India?
Answer:
The mainland of India extends between 8° 4′ N and 37° 6′ N latitudes and 68° 7′ E and 97° 25’E longitude.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Short Questions And Answers Question 16.
In which hemisphere does India lie?
Answer:
In northern hemisphere.

Extra Questions Of Geography Class 9 Chapter 1 Question 17.
If the globe is divided vertically into eastern and western hemispheres, in which hemisphere will India lie?
Answer:
Eastern.

Ncert Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions Question 18.
What is the length of the Indian coastline?
Answer:
About 7500 km.

India Size And Location Class 9 Short Questions Answers Question 19.
How many Indian States are touched by the Tropic of Cancer?
Answer:
9.

India Size And Location Class 9 Important Questions Question 20.
Name the two extreme, states of India touched by the Tropic of Cancer.
Answer:

1. Gujarat,
2. Mizoram.

Question 21.
State the seven largest countries of the world. ‘
Answer:
The seven largest countries, along with their sizes, are as follows:
Russia.: 17.07 million sq km;
China: 9.59 million sq km;
Canada: 9.21 million sq km;
USA: 9.07 million sq km;
Brazil: 8.51 million sq km;
Australia: 7.68 million sq km;
India: 3.28 million sq km.
This can be explained through a graph as under.

Question 22.
Explain with examples India’s link I with other countries.
Answer:
The exchange of ideas and commodities dates back to the ancient times. India’s link with West Asia, East Asia, Central and South Asia are a noteworthy feature. While Buddhism travelled from India to – Tibet, China and as far as Japan and Korean peninsula, on the other hand, the Mongols, the Turks, the Arabs and the Iranians contributed richly to the country’s architectural heritage. The ideas of the Upanishads, the Indian numeral and the decimal systems could also diffuse to many parts of the world due to these contacts.

Question 23.
Why the sun’s rays are more direct on the Nicobar Islands than on Jammu and Kashmir?
Answer:
It is a well-known fact that the sun always shines vertically on the Equator. Because of Bus fact a place the never to the Equator, the hotter it is Nicobar Islands are nearer to the Equator as compared to Jammu and Kashmir. Hence sun’s rays are more direct on the Nicobar Islands than on Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 24.
In which parts of India would be the sun’s rays more oblique?
Answer:
The sun’s rays would be more oblique on the northern frontiers of India. This is the reason why these areas have lesser amount of heat.

Question 25.
Point out the latitudinal extends of India. What are its implications?
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of India is about 3,200 km. It is the 1/2 of the total circumference of the earth. This fact has following implications:

• The southern parts of India get more heat from the sun than the northern parts.
• The difference between the duration of the day and night is lesser in southern parts of- India in comparison with the northern parts.
• As a matter of fact, the difference between the length of the day and night in the southernmost part of India is only 45 minutes while in the northern parts this difference is about 5 hours.

Question 26.
Point out the value of the Prime Meridian of India.
Answer:
To adopt one timing for the whole country, India has accepted 82° 30′ E longitude as the Standard Meridian of India. In fact India lies to the east of the Prime Meridian between 68° 7′ to 97° 25′ East Longitude. The local time at this Meridian has been accepted as the Indian Standard Time through India. It helped in avoiding a lot of confessions which, otherwise would have been created due to the difference among local timings. In fact, it has brought harmony in timings of the whole country.

Question 27.
Point out the reason behind the two hours time difference between the two eastern and western extremities of India.
Answer:
The earth takes about 4 minutes to rotate through 1° of longitude. The sun rises earlier in the east than in the west. The longitudinal extent of India is 30 degrees. Because of these facts, the difference in time in the easternmost part and the most western part of India would be 30 × 4=120 minutes=2 hours. This is the reason that the sun rises two hours earlier in the easternmost part of India.

Question 28.
What is the importance of the partially enclosed character of the land of India?
Answer:
The partially enclosed character of the land of India has strengthened the uniqueness of the country by assimilating new cultural elements coming from outside and yet fostering unity and homogeneity in the Indian society.

Question 29.
Answer the following questions after studying the map:
(i) Any two countries located in the East of India.
(ii) Any three countries located in the North of India.
(iii) Two neighbouring countries of India in the west.
Answer:
(i) Myanmar, Thailand.
(ii) Nepal, Bhutan, China.
(iii) Pakistan and Afghanistan.

Question 30.
Answer the following questions after studying the map:
(i) The nearest southern neighbour of India.
(ii) Any three southern states of India.
(iii) Any three northern states of India.
Answer:
(i) Sri Lanka
(ii) Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu,
(iii) Jammu-Kashmir, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh.

Question 31.
Give reasons:
(i) While the sun has already risen in Arunachal Pradesh, it is still dark in Gujarat.
(ii) Ahmedabad will see the sun overhead twice in a year,
(iii) Why has Meghalaya been named as such?
(iv) India is often referred to as a subcontinent.
Answer:
(i) Sun rises in Gujarat two hours later than in Arunachal Pradesh.
(ii) The Tropic of cancer which runs almost halfway through India divides it into two separate climatic zones. The areas which are situated beyond the Tropic of Cancer or are lying to the north of the Tropic of Cancer, never have mid-day Sun overhead.

On the other hand, the places which are within the tropics or the places which are lying to the north of the Tropic of Cancer experience the mid-day sun when the sun is Overhead, at Tropic of Cancer. Ahmedabad and Kolkata both fall within the tropics hence are able to see the noon sun exactly overhead twice a year.

(iii) Because Meghalaya literally means the abode of clouds.
(iv) It is rightly referred to as a subcontinent because it is separated from the rest of the continent by natural features such as mountains and river. Furthermore, it has its own specific climatic characteristics and distinct cultural identity.

Question 32.
Why 82° 30′ E has been selected as the Standard Meridian of India?
Answer:
From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, there is a time lag of two hours. Hence along the Standard Meridian of India (82° 30′ E) passing through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh is taken as the standard time of the whole of India.

Question 33.
What is the longitudinal extent of our country? State its significance.
Or
What do you mean by the longitudinal extent of India? Point out the implications of the longitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
Longitudinal extent of our country shows the geographical conditions of our country. Our country India lies Between 68° 7′ E to 97° 25’E longitudinal extent, Hence its longitudinal extent is about 30°. The longitudinal extent of India is quite vast.

Its east-west extent is quite wider which is very much significant The importance and implications of the Longitudinal extent of India can be pointed out in the following manner:
1. Because of the vast east-west extent of India it is quite dosed to East Asian Countries on the eastern side and to the West Asian countries like Afghanistan, Iran, Iraq, and Arabian countries on the Western side. This situation presides a vast seep for trade and commerce. It also helps India in having close relations between East Asian Countries and the West Asian Countries.

2. Because of the Vast east-west longitudinal extent India is quite near to Japan, Australia and other East African countries, as well as to many of the European countries. America lies equidistant to India whether. from the eastern or western side.

Question 34.
India’s strategic location on the head of the Indian Ocean has helped her in establishing land and maritime contacts with the outside world in the ancient and medieval times. Explain.
Answer:
India’s contacts with the world, in fact, have continued through the ages. In fact, the exchange of ideas and commodities dates back to the ancient times.

This fact is supported by the following facts:
1. The ideas of Upanishads and the Ramayana as well as the stories of the Panchatantra have reached many parts of the world.

2. The Indian numerals and the decimal system could reach many parts of the world from India because of this contact.

3. The spices, muslin and other merchandise were taken from India to different countries since the ancient time.

4. India was also influenced by the other countries and cultures. For example, the influence of Greek sculpture, and the architectural styles of dome and minarets from West Asia can be seen in different parts of our country.

5. The traders from India established links with Egyp, Sudan, Somalia, Kenya and Tanzania.

6. Several Indian merchants were even able to establish new kingdoms far away from their country.

Objective Type Questions

1. Fill in the following blanks with correct words:

(i) The highest peak of India is the ……………………. .
Answer:
Kanchenjunga

(ii) The Tropic of ………………………………… divides India into two almost equal parts.
Answer:
Cancer

(iii) India belongs to the ……………………. Hemisphere.
Answer:
Eastern

(iv) India is the ……………………. largest country in the world.
Answer:
Seventh

(v) The southern tip of the Indian mainland misses the ……………………. by only a few degrees.
Answer:
Equator

(vi) The southern part of the coast is called ……………………. .
Answer:
Koromandal.

2. Match the following two lists.

(i) Ganga: The largest country of the world.
(ii) Russia: River associated with religion.
(iii) Everest: Hill station.
(iv) Shimla: River of southern peninsula.
(v) Tapi The highest peak of the world.
Answer:
(i) Ganga: The river associated with religion.
(ii) Russia: The largest country of the world.
(iii) Everest. The highest peak of the world.
(iv) Shimla : Hill station.
(v) Tapi: River of southern peninsula.

3. Put (✓) before each correct sentence:

(i) The Tropic of cancer exists in 23° 30′ N.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) The Tropic of Cancer divides the country into almost two equal parts.
Answer:
(✗)

(iii) The areas to the south of the Tropic of cancer is round in shape.
Answer:
(✗)

(iv) The southernmost point of the India is Kanyakumari.
Answer:
(✗)

(v) Lakshadweep islands are comparatively more scattered.
Answer:
(✗)

(vi) The Tropic of cancer does not pass through Chhattisgarh.
Answer:
(✗)

(vii) The Equator passes through Kerala.
Answer:
(✗)

(viii) Guwahati is thie capital of Meghalaya.
Answer:
(✗)

4. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) India lies in the following hemisphere:
(a) northern
(b) eastern
(c) southern
(d) western:
Answer:
(a) northern

(ii) The Bay of Bengal is located on the following side of India:
(a) south-west
(b) south-east
(c) north-west
(d) north-east.
Answer:
(b) south-east

(iii) The Indira point was submerged in seawater during Tsunami in the following year:
(a) 2001
(b) 2002
(c) 2003
(d) 2004
Answer:
(d) 2004

(iv) The following is, territory wise, larger country than India:
(a) France
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Brazil
(d) Germany.
Answer:
(c) Brazil

(v) The Standard Meridian of India is:
(a) 97°25 E
(b) 68°7′ E
(c) 82°30′ E
(d) 83°20′ E.
Answer:
(c) 82°30′ E

(vi) The total number of the Union Territories, in India, are:
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 7

(vii) The Meridian in India passes through:
(a) Mirzapur
(b) Kanpur
(c) Jaipur
(d) Rajpur.
Answer:
(a) Mirzapur.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions and Answers Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Pdf free download. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-social-science/

Online Education for Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 Extra Questions History Chapter 2

Socialism In Europe And The Russian Revolution Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Who was Derozio ?
Answer:
Derozio (1809-1831) was a great advocate of rationalisnt. He too was impressed by the ideas of liberty, equality and fraternity of the French revolution.

Class 9 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
Mention the two main objectives of the liberals of the 19th century.
Answer:

1. They wanted changes in the old order.
2. They adocated the ideas of religious tolerance.

Russian Revolution Class 9 Extra Questions Question 3.
What did the radicals want ?
Answer:
The radicals of the 18th-19th centuries Europe were opposed to the system of privileges and had wanted government of the common man.

Class 9 History Chapter 2 Very Short Questions And Answers Question 4.
Why were the conserve lives against the liberals and the radicals ?
Answer:
The conservatives were against the liberals and the radicals because, unlike them, they were opposed to changes in the system.

Class 9 History Chapter 2 Short Questions And Answers Question 5.
Who was Guiseppe Mazzini ?
Answer:
Guiseppe Mazzini was a great nationalist of early 19th century Italy.

Extra Questions For Class 9 History Chapter 2 Question 6.
What is the main thrust of socialism?
Answer:
Property to be collective and its benefits be shared by all equitably.

Class 9 History Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Question 7.
Who was Louis Blanc?
Answer:
Louis Blanc (1813-1882), a French who wanted that the government encouraged cooperatives. The cooperatives were to be associations of people which produced goods together and divided the profits according to the work done by them.

Socialism In Europe And The Russian Revolution Questions And Answers Question 8.
When was the Second International formed? ‘
Answer:
In 1889, the socialists formed an international socialist body, called the Second International.

Class 9 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 9.
When was the socialist revolution launched in Russia?
Answer:
In October 1917; according to the Russian calendar, in November 1917.

Class 9 History Ch 2 Extra Questions Question 10.
Who was the emperor in Russia on the eve of Revolution?
Answer:
Nicholas Ii, also known as Czar.

History Chapter 2 Class 9 Extra Questions Question 11.
What was the type of economy in Russia until 1917?
Answer:
Largely, the agricultural economy, with a low level of industrialisation.

Ncert Class 9 History Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 12.
When was the Russian Social Democratic Workers Party founded?
Answer:
The party was founded in 1898.

Russian Revolution Questions And Answers Pdf Question 13.
When was the Socialist Revolutionary Party (SRP) in Russia formed?
Answer:
The Socialist Revolutionary Party was formed in 1900.

History Class 9 Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 14.
What incident is called the Bloody Sunday?
Answer:
The incident in which about 100 workers were killed and about 300 wounded by an attack on the striking workers, on a day which was Sunday, is called the Bloody Sunday.

Russian Revolution Extra Questions Question 15.
What is Russian steam roller?
Answer:
The imperial Russian army, the largest aimed force in the world, was known as the Russian steam roller.

Socialism In Europe And The Russian Revolution Class 9 Extra Questions Question 16.
What were Lenin’s ‘April theses’?
Answer:
A group of demands such as

• war to be brought close;
• land be given to the peasants;
• banks be nationalized.

Ch 2 History Class 9 Extra Questions Question 17.
Which type of calender the Russian followed and what did it mean?
Answer:
The Russian followed the Julian calendar which was 13 days ahead of the Gregorian calendar. So the February revolution took place on March 12 and the October revolution on 7th November according to the Julian calendar. Until February, the Russians ‘ followed the Julian calendar.

Class 9th History Chapter 2 Extra Questions Question 18.
What type of state was Russia after the October revolution?
Answer:
Russia (changed to the Union of Soviet Socialist Republic USSR in December, 1922) was a one-party state after the October revolution.

Class 9 Chapter 2 History Extra Questions Question 19.
Describe briefly the demands of the liberals of the 18th-19th centuries Europe.
Answer:
The liberals of the 18th-19th centuries Europe opposed

• the uncontrolled power and absolutism of dynastic rulers;
• they wanted to safeguard the rights of individuals against government;
• they argued for a representative, elected parliamentary government, subject to laws interpreted by a well-trained judiciary that was independent of rulers and officials,
• they felt men of property mainly should have the vote. They did not want the vote for women.

Chapter 2 History Class 9 Extra Questions Question 20.
Who were the radicals and what did they want?
Answer:
The radicals were those who wanted fundamental changes in the social and political systems of the 18th-19th centuries Europe.

In contrast, the radicals wanted a nation in which government was based on the majority of a country’s population. Unlike liberals, they opposed the privileges of great landowners and wealthy factory owners. They were not against the existence of private property but disliked concentration of property in the hands of a few.

Question 21.
Describe the major adverse effects of industrialisation.
Answer:
Industrialisation brought men, women and children to factories; Work. hours were often long and wages were poor, Unemployment was common, particularly during times of low demand for industrial goods.

Question 22.
Sum up the contribution of Marx and Engels.
Answer:
Karl Marx (1818-1883) and Friederich Engels (.1820-1895) were great socialists. They had argued that industrial society was capitalist. Capitalists owned the capital invested in factories and the profit of capitalists was produced by workers. The conditions of workers could not improve as long as this profit was accumulated by private capitalists.

Workers had to overthrow capitalism and the rule of private property. Marx believed that to free themselves from capitalist exploitation, workers had to construct a radically socialist society where all property was socially controlled. This would be a communist society.

Question 23.
What was Lenin’s perception of the Russian peasants?
Answer:
Lenin felt that the peasants were not one united group. Some were poor and others rich, some worked as labourers while others were capitalists who employed workers. Given this ‘differentiation’ within them) they could not all be part of a socialist movement. So he wanted to have the peasants in the second line of defence, workers being the first line.

Question 24.
What was the impact of World War I on Russian economy?
Answer:
The war also had a severe impact on industry. Russia’s own industries were few in number and the country was cut off from other supplies of industrial goods by German control of the Baltic Sea. Industrial equipment disintegrated more rapidly in Russia than elsewhere in Europe.

By 1916, railway lines began to break down. Able-bodied men were called up to “the war. As a result, there were labour shortages and small workshops producing essentials were shut down. Large supplies of grain were sent to feed the army. For the people in the cities, bread and flour became scarce. By the winter of 1916, riots at bread shops were common.

Question 25.
Give a brief account of the socialist society as was being envisaged in Russia after tire October 1.917 revolution:
Answer:
During the civil war, the Bolsheviks kept industries and banks nationalised. They permitted peasants to cultivate the land that had been socialised, the Bolsheviks used confiscated land to demonstrate what collective works could be, A process of centralised planning was introduced.

Officials assessed how the economy could work and set targets for a five-year period. On this basis, they made the Five Year Plans. The government fixed all prices to promote industrial growth during the first two ‘Plans’.

Question 26.
What were the economic, social and political- causes of the October 1917 Revolution in Russia.
Answer:
Politically, the people of Russia resented the autocracy of Czar Nicholas II. The losses that the Russian suffered during World War I further weakened Russia’s view of Nicholas. Socially, Czarist Russia stood well behind the rest of Europe in its industry and farming, resulting in few opportunities for fair advancement on the part of peasants and industrial workers. Economically, widespread inflation in Russia contributed to the revolution.

I. Economic courses

Russia’s outdated economy and the Tsar’s failure to modernise it constituted one great cause of the Russian Revolution. Its agricultural, economy still resembled that of medieval Europe, with peasants bound to an inefficiently managed village commune, and using outdated farming methods.

Factory workers also suffered due to Russia’s young industry that sought to catch up with the rest of Europe. They had to endure terrible working conditions, including twelve to fourteen hour days and low wages.

Peasant’s conditions constituted another cause. They led a miserable life with no infrastructure supporting them. By 1917, famine threatened many of the larger cities, Nicholas’s failure to solve his country’s economic suffering and communism’s promise to do just that comprised the core of the Revolution.

II. Social Causes

The social causes of the Russian Revolution mainly came from centuries of oppression towards the lower classes by the Czarist relgime and Nicholas’s failures in World War I- While rural agrarian peasants had been emancipated from serfdom in 1861, they still resented paying redemption payments to tire state, and demanded the land they Worked.

The rapid industrialisation of Russia also resulted in urban overcrowding and poor conditions for urban industrial workers. There was also no running water, and piles of human manure were a threat to the health of the workers.

The World War I then only added to the chads. Conscription swept up the unwilling in all parts of Russia. The vast demand for factory production of war supplies and workers caused many more labour riots and strikes.

III. Political Causes

Politically, most areas of Russian society had reason to be dissatisfied with the existing autocratic system. They had no representation in government, and the Tsar remained out of touch with the people’s problems.

Dissatisfaction with Russian autocracy culminated in the Bloody Sunday massacre, in which the Russian workers saw their pleas for justice rejected as protesters were shot by the Tsar’s troops. The response to the massacre crippled the nation with strikes, and Nicholas released his October Manifesto, promising a democratic parliament (the State Duma), to appease the people.

Question 27.
Give an account of the global influence of the Russian Revolution and the USSR.
Answer:
Existing socialist parties in Europe did not wholly approve of the way the Bolsheviks took power and kept it. However, the possibility of a workers state fired peoples imagination across the world. In many countries, communist parties were formed- like the Communist Party of Great Britain.

The Bolsheviks encouraged colonial peoples to follow their experiments. Many non-Russians from outside the USSR participated in the Conference of the Peoples of the East (1920) and the Bolshevik-founded Comintern (an international union of pro-Bolshevik socialist parties). By the 1950s it was acknowledged within the country that the style of government in the USSR was hot in keeping with the ideals of the Russian Revolution.

A backward country had become a great power. Its industries and agriculture had developed and the poor were being fed. But it had denied the essential freedoms to its citizens and carried out its developmental projects through repressive policies. By the end of the twentieth century, the international reputation of the USSR as a socialist country had declined though it was recognised that socialist ideals still, enjoyed respect among its people.

Objective Type Questions

1. Select the correct word given in the bracket and fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
……………… opposed the uncontrolled powers of the dynastic rulers. (Liberals, Conservatives)
Answer:
Liberals

Question 2.
………………… . was an English manufacture who believed in cooperative community called New Harmony. (Robert Owen, Charles Fourier)
Answer:
Robert Owen

Question 3.
Louis Blanc was ……………….. socialist. (Russian, French)
Answer:
French

Question 4.
………………. ruled Russia in 1914. (Nicholas I, Nicholas II)
Answer:
Nicholas II

Question 5.
……………….. was leader of the Bolshevik Party. (Lenin, Plekhanov)
Answer:
Lenin.

2. Choose true (✓ ) and false (✗) from the following:

Question 1.
During the World War I, Great Britain, France, Turkey formed one alliance.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 2.
Russia withdrew from the World War I in 1915.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 3.
Duma in Russian is a word which means parliament.
Answer:
(✓ )

Question 4.
Lenin had his demands in his May theses.
Answer:
(✗)

Question 5.
Lenin succeeded after Stalin’s death.
Answer:
(✗)

3. Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1.
Second International was convened in:
(a) 1864
(b) 1889
(c) 1914
(d) 1921
Answer:
(b) 1889

Question 2.
Who led the government in Russia after the October 1917 Revolution?
(a) Stalin
(b) Kerensky
(c) Marx
(d) Lenin
Answer:
(d) Lenin

Question 3.
One the following is correct:
(a) The peasants were a satisfied lot in February 1916
(b) They were a contended lot in February 1917
(c) They had no complaint against the government in September 1917
(d) They wanted the land that they tilled.
Answer:
(d) They wanted the land that they tilled.

Question 4.
The February revolution in Russia is called:
(a) Nationalist revolution
(b) Capitalist revolution
(c) Socialist revolution
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Capitalist revolution

Question 5.
The following followed the collectivization programme in 1929 in Russia:
(a) Lenin
(b) Kerensky
(c) Stalin
(d) Engels
Answer:
(c) Stalin.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

In this page, we are providing Online Education for Atoms and Molecules Class 9 Extra Questions and Answers Science Chapter 3 pdf download. NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules with Answers will help to score more marks in your CBSE Board Exams. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-science/

Online Education for Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Atoms and Molecules

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules with Answers Solutions

Atoms and Molecules Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Atoms And Molecules Class 9 Extra Questions Question 1.
Define atomic mass unit.
Answer:
Atomic mass unit of an element is one twelfth (1/12th) of the mass of one atom of carbon-12.

Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Extra Questions And Answers Question 2.
Write the valency of sulphur in H₂S, SO₂ and SO₃.
Answer:
The valency of sulphur in H₂S, SO₂ and SO₃ are 2, 4, and 6 respectively.

Atoms And Molecules Extra Questions Question 3.
What is the difference between 2H and H₂?
Answer:
2H means two atoms of hydrogen, H₂ means a molecule of hydrogen which contains two atoms.

Class 9 Atoms And Molecules Extra Questions Question 4.
Where do we use the words mole and mol?
Answer:
We use the word mole to define the number of atoms, molecules, ions or particles having a mass equal to its atomic or molecular mass in grams, while as a unit, we call it mol.

Extra Questions On Atoms And Molecules Class 9 Question 5.
The valency of an element A is 4. Write the formula of its oxide.
Answer:
The formula of its oxide is A₂O₂ or AO₂.

Extra Questions Of Atoms And Molecules Class 9 Question 6.
Why are Dalton’s symbols not used in chemistry?
Answer:
Dalton was the first scientist to use the symbol for the name of the elements in a specific sense but it was difficult to memorise and in use, so Dalton’s symbols are not used in chemistry.

Class 9 Science Ch 3 Extra Questions Question 7.
Which postulate of Dalton’s Atomic theory is the basis of law of conservation of mass?
Answer:
“Atoms can neither be created nor destroyed a physical or a chemical change”.

Class 9 Chapter 3 Science Extra Questions Question 8.
Calculate the formula unit mass of CaCl₂. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Atomic mass of Ca + (2 × atomic mass of Cl)
= 40 + 2 × 35.5 = 40 + 71 = 111 u.

Ch 3 Science Class 9 Extra Questions Question 9.
What does the symbol ‘u’ represent?
Answer:
The symbol ‘u’ represents unified mass.

Class 9 Chemistry Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 10.
Avogadro’s number represents how many particles?
Answer:
Avogadro’s numbers (N₀) represents 6.022 × 10²³ particles.

Mole Concept Class 9 Extra Questions Question 11.
Formula of the carbonate of a metal M is M₂CO₃. Write the formula of its chloride.
Answer:
The valency of the metal (M) in M₂CO₃ is (1+) i.e., metal exists as M⁺ ion. Therefore, the formula of metal chloride is MCl.

Atom And Molecules Class 9 Extra Questions Question 12.
Sample A contains one gram molecule of oxygen molecules and Sample B contains one mole of oxygen molecules. What is the ratio of the number of molecules in both the samples?
Answer:
One gram molecules is the same as one gram mole of a substance. Therefore, both the samples A and B contain the same number of molecules (6.022 × 10)²³ and the ratio is 1: 1.

Class 9 Ch 3 Science Extra Questions Question 13.
Name the compound Al₂(SO₄)₃ and mention the ions present in it.
Answer:
The compound is called aluminium sulphate; cation: Al³⁺; anion: (SO₄)^2-

Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 14.
Chemical symbol of sodium is Na. What is its Latin name?
Answer:
Natrium.

Class 9 Science Atoms And Molecules Extra Questions Question 15.
Give one example of a polyatomic cation.
Answer:
NH₄⁺ (Ammonium ion).

Atoms And Molecules Class 9 Extra Numerical Questions Question 16.
MNO₃ is the formula of nitrate of metal M. Write the formula of its oxide.
Answer:
M₂O

Ncert Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 17.
A vessel contains W molecules of oxygen at a certain temperature and pressure. How many molecules of sulphur dioxide can the vessel accommodate at the same temperature and pressure?
Answer:
N molecules.

Atoms And Molecules Class 9 Extra Questions With Answers Question 18.
What do you understand by a polyatomic ion? Give two examples.
Answer:
A group of atoms carrying positive or negative charge is called a polyatomic ion, e.g., NO₃^–, SO₄^2-, NH₄⁺

Chapter 3 Science Class 9 Extra Questions Question 19.
Give two examples each of bivalent cations and bivalent anions.
Answer:
Bivalent cations = Zn²⁺, Ca²⁺. Bivalent anions = SO₄^2-, C₃^2-.

Science Class 9 Chapter 3 Extra Questions Question 20.
What is ‘molar volume’? What is its value?
Answer:
The volume occupied by one mole of a gas under standard conditions of temperature and pressure, i.e., STP conditions (0°C and 1 atmosphere i.e., pressure) is called molar volume of the gas. Its value is 22.4 L at STP.

Question 21.
What is the valency of calcium in CaCO₃?
Answer:
The valency of Ca in CaCO₃ is 2⁺ [i.e. Ca²⁺].

Question 22.
Can we regard sodium as a monoatomic element?
Answer:
No, sodium is a metal and does not exist as a single atom.

Question 23.
What happens to an element ‘A’ if its atom gains two electrons?
Answer:
It changes to a divalent anion [A^2-].

Question 24.
Do atoms in some of the elements have actually fractional mass?
Answer:
No, the atoms do not have fractional mass. Only their average comes out to be in fraction in elements which exists as isotopes.

Atoms and Molecules Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 1

Question 1.
Cinnabar (HgS) is a prominent ore of mercury. How many grams of mercury are present in 225 g of pure HgS? Molar mass of Hg and S are 200.6 g mol^-1 and 32 g mol^-1 respectively. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Molar mass of HgS = 200.6 + 32 = 232.6 g mol^-1
Mass of Hg in 232.6 g of HgS = 200.6 g
Mass of Hg in 225 g of HgS = \(\frac { 200.6 }{ 232.6 }\) × 225 = 194.05 g.

Question 2.
A gold sample contains 90% of gold and the rest copper. How many atoms of gold are present in one gram of this sample of gold? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
One gram of gold sample will contain = \(\frac { 90 }{ 100 }\) = 0.9 g of gold
Atomic mass of gold =
= \(\frac { 0.9 }{ 197 }\)
One mole of gold contains N₀ atoms = 6.022 × 10²³
0.0046 mole of gold will contain = 0.0046 × 6.022 × 10²³
= 2.77 × 10²¹

Question 3.
A sample of ethane (C₂H₆) gas has the same mass as 1.5 × 10²⁰ molecules of methane (CH₄). How many C₂H₆ molecules does the sample of the gas contain? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:

Question 4.
Write the cations and anions present (if any) in the following compounds
(a) CH₃COONa
(b) NaCl
(c) H₂
(d) NH₄NO₃
Answer:

Question 5.
How many molecules of water are present in a drop of water which has a mass of 50 mg?
Answer:
We know that:
1 mole of a compound = 6.023 × 10²³ atoms
= Gram molecular mass
Gram molecular mass of H₂O = 18 g
18 g = 6.023 × 10²³ atoms

Question 6.
Find the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom of an element X which is represented as ²⁰⁷ X₈₂.
Answer:
The element is ²⁰⁷ X₈₂.
Now, 82 = Atomic Number
207 = Mass Number.

(a) Atomic number = Number of protons
82 = Number of protons.

(b) Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons
207 = 82 + Number of neutrons
207 – 82 = Number of neutrons
125 = Number of neutrons.

Question 7.
Calculate the molar mass of Na₂SO₄ and CaCO₃.
Answer:
Molar Mass of Na₂SO₄ =
2 × Mass of sodium + 1 × Mass of sulphur + 4 × Mass of oxygen
= 2 × 23 + 1 × 32 + 4 × 16
= 46 + 32 + 64
= 142 a.m.u.

Molar Mass of CaCO₃ =
1 × Mass of calcium + 1 × Mass of carbon + 3 × Mass of oxygen
= 40 + 12 + 3 × 16
= 40 + 12 + 48
= 100 a.m.u.

Question 8.
What is wrong with the statement ‘1 mol of hydrogen’?
Answer:
The statement is not correct. We must always write whether hydrogen is in atomic form or molecular form. The correct statement is 1 mole of hydrogen atoms or one mole of hydrogen molecules.

Question 9.
(a) Calculate the relative molecular mass of water (H₂O). [NCERT Exemplar]
(b) Calculate the molecular mass of HNO₃.
Answer:
(a) Atomic mass of hydrogen = 1 u,
oxygen = 16 u
So the molecular mass of water, which contains two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen is
= 2 × 1 + 1 × 16 = 18u

(b) The molecular mass of HNO₃ = the atomic mass of H + the atomic mass of N + 3 × the atomic mass of O
= 1 + 14 + 48 = 63 u

Question 10.
Identify the cations and anions in the following compounds:
(a) CH₃COONa
(b) NH₃
(c) NH₄
(d) SrCl₂
Answer:
(a) Na⁺, C₃H₃COO^–
(b) It is a molecular compound
(c) NH₄⁺, Cl^–
(d) Sr²⁺, 2Cl^–

Question 11.
Calculate the total number of electrons present in 1.6 g of methane.
Answer:
Molecular mass of CH₄ = 12+ 1 × 4 = 16 g
16 g = 1 mole
1.6 g = 0.1 mole
1 mole of CH₄ has 6.02 × 10²³ molecules.
0.1 mole has 6.02 × 10²² molecules.
1 molecule of methane contains (6 + 1 × 4) = 10 electrons
∴ 6.02 × 10²² molecule will contain = 10 × 6.02 × 10²² = 6.02 × 10²³ electrons.

Question 12.
A 0.24 g sample of a compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain 0.096 g of boron and 0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition of the compound by weight.
Answer:
% oi any element in a compound =
% of boron = \(\frac { 0.096 }{ 0.24 }\) × 100 = 40%
% of oxygen = \(\frac { 0.144 }{ 0.24 }\) × 100 = 60%.

Question 13.
The percentage composition of sodium phosphate as determined by analysis is 42.1% sodium, 18.9% phosphorus and 39% oxygen. Find the empirical formula of the compound.(Work upto two decimal places).
(Atomic masses: Na = 23, P = 31, O = 16)
Answer:

Empirical formula = Na₃PO₄.

Question 14.
A sample of vitamin C is known to contain 2.58 × 10²⁴ oxygen atoms. How many moles of oxygen atoms are present in the sample?
Answer:
1 mole of oxygen atom = 6.023 × 10²³ atoms
Number of moles of oxygen atoms = \(\frac{2.58 \times 10^{24}}{6.022 \times 10^{23}}\) = 4.28 mol
4.28 moles of oxygen atoms.

Question 15.
The empirical formula of a compound is C₂H₄O. Its relative molecular mass is 88. Find the molecular formula.
Answer:
Let the molecular formula be (C₂H₄O)n.
Molecular mass = n × empirical formula mass 88 = n × (2 × 12 + 4 × 1 + 16)
n = \(\frac { 88 }{ 44 }\) = 2
The molecular formula is (C₂H₄O)₂ = C₄H₈O₂.

Question 16.
What is the mass in grams of one molecule of caffeine (C₈H₁₀N₄O₂)?
Answer:
1 mole of caffeine molecules = Gram molecular mass of C₈H₁₀N₄O₂
= 8 × 12 + 10 × 1 + 4 × 14 + 2 × 16g
= 96 + 10 + 56 + 32 g = 194 g
Also, 1 mole of caffeine molecules = 6.022 × 10²³ molecules
Thus, 6.022 × 1023 molecules of caffeine have mass = 194 g
1 molecule of caffeine will have mass = \(\frac{194}{6.022 \times 10^{23}}\) g = 3.22 × 10^-22

Question 17.
What is the difference between cation and anion?
Answer:
Cation:

• It is positively charged, exam: Na⁺
• It is formed from metal atoms.
• On passing electric current, it moves towards cathode.
• It is smaller in size than its parent atom.

Anion:

• It is negatively charged, example : Cl^–
• It is formed from non-metal atoms.
• On passing electric current, it moves towards anode.
• It is larger in size than its parent atom.

Question 18.
Differentiate between:
(i) Atom and molecule.
(ii) Molecular mass and formula of unit mass.
Answer:
(i) Atoms cannot exist independently but molecules can.

(ii) Molecular mass in the sum of masses of the atoms in the molecule whereas, formula unit mass is sum of atomic masses of the atoms in its empirical formula.

Atoms and Molecules Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 2

Question 1.
Calcium chloride when dissolved in water dissociates into its ions according to the following equation.
CaCl₂(aq) → Ca²⁺ (aq) + 2Cl^–(aq)
Calculate the number of ions obtained from CaCl₂ when 222 g of it is dissolved in water. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
1 mole of calcium chloride = 111 g
222 g of CaCl₂ is equivalent to 2 moles of CaCl₂ Since 1 formula unit of CaCl₂ gives 3 ions, therefore, 1 mol of CaCl₂ will give 3 moles of ions.
2 moles of CaCl₂ would give 3 × 2 = 6 moles of ions.
No. of ions = No. of moles of ions × Avogadro number
= 6 × 6.022 × 10²³
= 36.132 × 10²³
= 3.6 132 × 10²⁴ ions.

Question 2.
Give the formulae of the compounds formed from the following sets of elements. [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Calcium and fluorine
(b) Hydrogen and sulphur
(c) Nitrogen and hydrogen
(d) Carbon and chlorine
(e) Sodium and oxygen
(f) Carbon and oxygen
Answer:
(a) CaF₂
(b) H₂S
(c) NH₃
(d) CCl₄
(e) Na₂O
(f) CO, CO₂

Question 3.
A compound was found to have the following percentage composition by mass Zn = 22.65%, S = 11.15%, H = 4.88%, O = 61.32%. The relative molecular mass is 287 g/mol. Find the molecular formula of the compound, assuming that all the hydrogen in the compound is present in water of crystallisation.
Answer:
Zn : S : O : H = \(\frac { 22.65 }{ 65 }\) : \(\frac { 11.15 }{ 32 }\) : \(\frac { 61.32 }{ 16 }\) : \(\frac { 4.88 }{ 1 }\)
= 0.3485 : 0.3484 : 3.833 : 4.88
To obtained an integral ratio, we divide by smallest number
= \(\frac { 0.3485 }{ 0.3484 }\) : \(\frac { 0.3484 }{ 0.3484 }\) : \(\frac { 3.833 }{ 0.3484 }\) : \(\frac { 4.88 }{ 0.3484 }\)
= 1 : 1 : 11 : 14
∴ Empirical formula is Zn SO₁₁H₁₄.
Let molecules formula be (ZnSO₁₁H₁₄)n.
RMM for the molecules = n [65 + 32 + (11 × 16) + 14]
Formula = 287
287 n = 287
n = 1
∴ Molecular formula is ZnSO₁₁H₁₄.

Question 4.
What are the failures of Dalton Atomic theory?
Answer:
Failures of Dalton Atomic Theory are:

1. Atom is not the smallest particle as it is made up of protons, neutrons and electrons.
2. Atom’s mass can be transformed to energy (E = mc²) and hence can be created and destroyed.
3. Atoms of one element have been changed into atoms of another element through artificial transmutation of elements.
4. Atoms of same element need not resemble each other in all respects as isotopes (different forms of same element) exist.
5. Atoms of different elements need not differ in all respects as isobars (same forms of different elements) exist.

Question 5.
The following questions are about one mole of sulphuric acid [H₂SO₄]?
(a) Find the number of gram atoms of hydrogen in it.
(b) How many atoms of hydrogen does it have?
(c) How many atoms (in grams) of hydrogen are present for every gram atom of oxygen in it?
(d) Calculate the number of atoms in H₂SO₄?
1 mole of H₂SO₄ = Gram Molecular mass = 6.023 × 10²³ molecules
Answer:
(a) In H₂SO₄ → 2 gram atoms of hydrogen are present

(b) One mole of H₂SO₄ contains = 6.023 × 10²³ molecules
= 2 × 6.023 × 10²³ atoms of H + 6.023 × 10²³ atoms of S + 4 × 6.023 ×10²³ atoms of O
∴ 2H = 2 × 6.023 × 10²³
= 12.046 × 10²³

(c) In H₂SO₄;
For every 2 hydrogen there are oxygen atoms
So for 1 hydrogen = \(\frac { 4 }{ 2 }\) = oxygen are present
= 2 oxygen atoms are present o
For 1 oxygen = \(\frac { 2 }{ 4 }\) hydrogen atoms are present
= 0.5 hydrogen atoms are present.

(d) 1 mole of H₂SO₄ = 6.023 × 10²³ atoms

Question 6.
Write the formulae for the following and calculate the molecular mass for each one of them. [NCERT Exemplar]
(а) Caustic potash
(b) Baking powder
(c) Lime stone
(d) Caustic soda
(e) Ethanol
(f) Common salt.
Answer:
(a) KOH
[39 + 16 + 1] = 56 g mol^-1

(b) NaHCO₃
23 + 1 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 84 mol^-1

(c) CaCO₃
40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 100 g mol^-1

(d) NaOH
23 + 16 + 1 = 40 g mol^-1

(e) C₂H₆OH = C₂H₆O
2 × 12 + (6 × 1) + 16 = 46 g mol^-1

(f) Nacl
23 + 35.5 = 58.5 g mol^-1

Question 7.
Calculate the mass of the following: [NCERT Exemplar]
(i) 0.5 mole of N₂ gas (mass from mole of molecule)
(ii) 0.5 mole of N atoms (mass from mole of atom).
(iii) 3.011 × 10²³ number of N atoms (mass from number)
(iv) 6.022 × 10²³ number of N₂ molecules mass from number.
Answer:
(i) mass = molar mass x number of moles
⇒ m = M × n = 28 x 0.5 = 14 g

(ii) mass = molar mass x number of moles
⇒ m = Mxn = 14x 0.5 = 7 g

(iii) The number of moles, n

(iv) n = \(\frac{N}{N_{0}}\)
⇒ m = M x \(\frac{N}{N_{0}}\) = 28 x \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{2}}{6.022 \times 10^{2}}\)
= 28 x 1 = 28 g.

Question 8.
Calculate the number of particles in each of the following:
(i) 46 g of Na atoms (number from mass)
(ii) 8 g O₂ molecules (number of molecules from mass)

(iii) 0.1 mole of carbon atoms (number from given moles)
Answer:
(i) The numbers of atoms

⇒ N = \(\frac { m }{ M }\) x N₀
⇒ N = \(\frac { 46 }{ 23 }\) x 6.022 x 10²³
⇒ N = 12.044 x 10²³

(ii) The number of molecules

Atomic mass of oxygen = 16 u
molar mass of O₂ molecules
= 16 x 2 = 32 g
⇒ N = \(\frac { 8 }{ 32 }\) x 6.022 x 10²³
⇒ N = 1.5055 x 10²³
= 1.51 x 10²³

(iii) The number of particles (atom) = numbers of moles of particles x Avogadro number
N = n x N₀ = 0.1 x 6.022 x 10²³.
= 6.022 x 10²².

Question 9.
A flask contains 4.4 g of CO₂ gas. Calculate
(a) How many moles of CO₂ gas does it contain?
(b) How many molecules of CO₂ gas are present in the sample?
(c) How many atoms of oxygen are present in the given sample? (Atomic mass of C = 12 u, O = 16 u)
Answer:
(a)

(b) 1 mole of CO₂ has molecules
= 6.022 x 10²³
0. 1 mole of CO₂ has molecules
= 6.022 x 10²³ x (0.1) = 6.022 x 10²²

(c) 1 mole of CO₂ has oxygen atoms = 2 x N₀
0. 1 mole of CO₂ has oxygen atoms = 2 x N₀ x 0.1
= 2 x 6.022 x 10² x 0.1 = 1.204 x 10²⁴ atoms.

Question 10.
Calculate the number of moles for the following: [NCERT Exemplar]
(ii) 12.044 x 10²³ number of He atoms (finding mole from number of particles).
Answer:
No of moles = n
Given mass = m
Molar mass = M
Given number of particles = N
Avogadro number of particles = N₀

(i) Atomic mass of He = 4 u
Molar mass of He = 4 g
Thus, the number of moles =
= n = \(\frac { m }{ M }\) = \(\frac { 52 }{ 4 }\) = 13

(ii) We know,
1 mole = 6.022 x 10²³
The number of moles

Question 11.
Write the molecular formulae of all the compounds that can be formed by the combination of following ions:
Cu²⁺, Na⁺, Fe³⁺, Cb, SO₄^2-, PO₄^3-
Answer:
(i) CuCl₂, CuSO₄, Cu₃(PO₄)₂
(ii) NaCl, Na₂SO₄, Na₃PO₄
(iii) FeCl₃, Fe₂(SO₄)₃, FePO₄

Question 12.
Give the names of any three elements whose names have been derived from Latin. Give their Latin names and symbols.
Answer:

Question 13.
What is the simplest formula of the compound which has the following percentage composition:
Carbon 80%, Hydrogen 20%
If the molecular mass is 30, calculate its molecular formula.
Answer:
Calculation of empirical formula:

∴ Empirical formula is CH₃.
Calculation of molecular formula:
Empirical formula mass = 12 x 1 + 1 x 3 = 15

\(\frac { 30 }{ 15 }\) = 2
Molecular formula = Empirical formula x 2 = CH₃ x 2 = C₂H₆.

Question 14.
On heating, potassium chlorate decomposes to potassium chloride and oxygen. In one experiment 30.0 g of potassium chlorate generates 14.9 g of potassium chloride and 9.6 g of oxygen. What mass of potassium chlorate remains undecomposed?
Answer:
Potassium chlorate → Potassium chloride + Oxygen
Total mass of potassium chlorate before reaction = 30.0 g
After reaction, mass of potassium chloride = 14.9 g Mass of oxygen = 9.6 g
Let mass of undecomposed potassium chlorate = x g
Total mass after reaction = (x + 14.9 + 9.6) g
According to law of conservation of mass the total mass before and after the reaction remains constant.
∴ 30.0 = x + 14.9 + 9.6
x = 30 – 14.9 – 9.6 = 5.5
∴ Mass of undecomposed potassium chlorate
= 5.5 g

Question 15.
Naturally occurring Boron consists of two isotopes whose atomic mass are 10.01 and 11.01. The atomic mass of natural Boron is 10.81. Calculate the percentage of each isotope in natural Boron.
Answer:
Suppose percentage of isotope with atomic mass 10.01 = x
Then percentage of isotope with atomic mass 11.01 = 100 – x

∴ % of isotope with atomic mass 10.01 = 20%
∴ % of isotope with atomic mass 11.01 = 80%

Question 16.
Which amongst the following has more number of atoms, 11.5 g of sodium or 15 g of calcium?
How? (Given atomic mass of Na = 23, Ca = 40)
Answer:
23 g of Na = 1 mole
11.5 g of Na = 11.5/23 mole
Now, 1 mole of Na contains = 6.022 x 10²³ atoms
11.5/23 mole of Na contains = 6.022 x 10²³ x 11.5²³ mole
= 3.011 x 10²³ atoms
40 g of Ca = 1 mole
15 g of Ca = 15/40 moles
Now, 1 mole of Ca contains = 6.022 x 10²³ atoms
15/40 mole of Ca contains = 6.022 x 10²³ x 15/40 mole
= 2.258 x 10²³ atoms
Na has more number of atoms.

Question 17.
(i) Name the body which approves the nomenclature of elements and compounds.
(ii) The symbol of sodium is written as Na and not as S. Give reason.
(iii) Name one element which forms diatomic and one which forms tetraatomic molecules.
Answer:
(i) International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry.

(ii) The symbol of Na (sodium) is derived from its Latin name Natrium.

(iii) (a) Element forming diatomic molecule: H₂, O₂, N₂ (only one).
(b) Element forming tetratomic molecule: P₄.

Atoms and Molecules Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
(a) Define empirical formula and molecular formula of a compound. How are molecular formula and empirical formula related to each other?
(b) A hydrocarbon contains 10.5 g of carbon per gram of hydrogen. Calculate the empirical formula.
Answer:
(a) Empirical formula is the chemical formula which gives us the simplest whole number ratio between the atoms of various elements present in one molecule of a compound. Molecular formula gives us the actual number of atoms of various elements present in one molecule of a compound.
Molecular formula = n x Empirical formula
Where n is a simple whole number

(b) In the hydrocarbon,
1 g of hydrogen combines with 10.5 g carbon
∴ % of H in hydrocarbon = \(\frac { 1 }{ 11.5 }\) x 100 = 8.696%
% of C = 100 – 8.696 = 91.304%

Therefore, Empirical formula = CH

Question 2.
(a) What is meant by mole concept?
(b) Calculate the mass of:
(i) 10²² atoms of sulphur
(ii) 0.1 mole of carbon dioxide.
[Atomic mass S = 32, C = 12, O = 16 and Avogadro’s number = 6 x 10²³]
Answer:
(a) 1 mole of a compound has a mass equal to its relative molecular mass expressed in grams.
1 mole = 6.022 x 10²³ number
= Relative mass in grams.

(b) (i) v 6.022 x 10²³ atoms of sulphur weighs = 32 g
∴ 10²² atoms of sulphur weighs = \(\frac{32}{6.022 \times 10^{23}}\) x 10²² = 0.531 g

(ii) Gram molar mass of CO₂ = 12 + 2 x 16 = 44 g
∵ 1 mole of carbon dioxide weighs = 44 g
∴ 0.1 mole of carbon dioxide weighs = \(\frac { 44 g }{ 1 }\) x 0.1 = 4.4 g.

Question 3.
(a) The ratio of hydrogen and oxygen in water is 1: 8 by mass, find out their ratio by number of atoms, in one molecule of water. (Atomic mass: H = 1 u, O – 16 u)
(b) Write the formulae of the following compounds:
(i) Ammonium sulphate
(ii) Magnesium chloride
(Given , ammonium = NH₄²⁺ , sulphate = SO₄^2-, Magnesium = Mg²⁺, chloride = Cl^–)
Answer:
(a)

Ratio of number of atoms for water is H : O = 2 : 1

(b)
(i) Ammonium sulphate: (NH₄)₂SO₄
(ii) Magnesium chloride : MgCl₂

Question 4.
A compound of carbon and sulphur has a composition of 15.8% carbon and 84.2% sulphur.
(a) Find the empirical formula.
(b) The relative molecular mass of the compound is 76. Find the molecular formula.
Answer:
(a)

The empirical formula is CS₂.

(b) Let the molecular formula be (CS₂)_n.
Molecular mass = n x empirical formula mass
76 = n x (12 + 2 x 32)
n = \(\frac { 76 }{ 76 }\) = 1
The molecule formula is (CS₂)₁ = CS₂.

Question 5.
What do the following formulae stand for:
(a) (i) 20
(ii) O₂
(iii) O₃
(iv) H₂O

(b) Give the chemical formulae of the following compounds?
(i) Potassium carbonate
(ii) Calcium chloride

(c) Calculate the formula unit mass of Al₂(SO₄)₃.
(Given atomic mass of Al = 27u, S = 32 u, 0 = 16 u)
Answer:
(a)
(i) Two atoms of oxygen 20
(ii) Diatomic oxygen → O₂ molecule
(iii) Triatomic oxygen → O₃ molecule
(iv) Two atoms of hydrogen and 1 atom of oxygen forming one molecule of water.

(b) K₂CO₃ : Potassium carbonate
CaC₂ : Calcium chloride

(c) Al₂(SO₄)₃
Al: 27 x 2 = 54 u
S : 32 x 3 = 96 u
O : 16 x 12 = 192 u
Formula unit mass = 342 u.

Question 6.
(a) Write the chemical symbols of two elements:
(i) Which are formed from the first letter of the elements name.
(ii) Whose name has been taken from the names of the elements in Latin.

(b) Define Avogadro’s constant and molar mass. How are they related to one mole of an atom, molecule, or ion?
Answer:
(a)
(i) C, N, O, etc.
(ii) Na, Fe, K, etc.

(b) Avogadro’s constant:
6.22 x 10²³ is defined as the Avogadro’s constant. It is number of atoms in exactly 12 g of carbon-12.

Molar mass : Mass of 1 mole of substance.

Question 7.
(a) Calculate the mass of 0.5 mole of sulphuric acid. Atomic mass (H = 1 u, S = 32 u, O = 16 u).
(b) Find the number of atoms in 12 g of carbon.
(c) How many atoms are present in (i) H₂S molecule (ii) PO_3-⁴ ions.
(d) Write the names of elements present in (i) quicklime (ii) hydrogen bromide.
Answer:
(a) 1 mole of H₂SO₄ = 98
∴ 1/2 mole of H₂SO₄ = 49 g

(b) 6.023 x 10²³ atoms

(c) In H₂S molecules, number of atoms = 3
In PO_3-⁴ ion, number of atoms = 5.

(d) (i) Elements in quicklime (CaO)-calcium, oxygen.
(ii) Elements in hydrogen bromide (HBr)-hydrogen, bromine.

Question 8.
(a) Define polyatomic ions. Write an example.
(b) Calculate the formula unit mass of CaCO₃.
(Atomic mass of C = 12 u, Ca = 40 u, O = 16 u)
(c) Calculate the molecular mass of the following:
(i) HNO₃ (ii) CH₃COOH
(Atomic mass of H = 1 u, N = 14 u, O = 16 u, C = 12 u)
Answer:
(a) Cluster of atoms that acts as an ion are called polyatomic ions. example : NH₄⁺, PO_3-⁴, SO_2-⁴, etc.

(b) CaCO₃ = Mass of Ca + Mass of C + Mass of O
= 40 u + 12 u + 16 u x 3 = 100 u.

(c) (i) HNO₃ = Mass of H + Mass of N + Mass of O
= 1 u + 14 u + 16 u x 3 = 63 u

(ii) CH₃COOH = Mass of C + Mass of H + Mass of O
= 12 u x 2 + 1 u x 4 + 16 u x 2
= 24 u + 4 u + 32 u = 60 u

Atoms and Molecules Class 9 Extra Questions HOTS

Question 1.
In photosynthesis, 6 molecules of carbon dioxide combine with an equal number of water molecules through a complex series of reactions to give a molecule of glucose having a molecular formula C₆H₁₂O₆. How many grams of water would be required to produce 18 g of glucose? Compute the volume of water so consumed assuming the density of water to be 1 g cm^-3. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:

1 mole of glucose needs 6 moles of water
180 g of glucose needs (6 x 18) g of water
1 g of glucose will need \(\frac { 108 }{ 180 }\) g of water.
18 g of glucose would need \(\frac { 108 }{ 180 }\) x 18 g of water = 10.8 g
Volume of water used = \(\frac { Mass }{ Density }\) = \(\frac{10.8 \mathrm{g}}{1 \mathrm{g} \mathrm{cm}^{-3}}\) = 10.8 cm³

Question 2.
Fill in the missing data in the Table 3.2. [NCERT Exemplar]
Table 3.2

Answer:

Question 3.
Raunak took 5 moles of carbon atoms in a container and Krish also took 5 moles of sodium atoms in another container of same weight. [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Whose container is heavier?
(b) Whose container has more number of atoms?
Answer:
(a) Mass of sodium atoms carried by Krish = (5x 23) g = 115 g while mass of carbon atom carried by Raunak = (5 x 12) g = 60 g. Thus, Krish’s container is heavy.

(b) Both the bags have same number of atoms as they have same number of moles of atoms.

Question 4.
How many molecules are present in 1 ml. of water?
Answer:
Molecular mass of H₂O = 18 g
Mass of 1 mole of water = 18 g
18 g of water contain = 6.022 x 10²³ molecules
Density of water = 1 g/ml, therefore 1 ml of water weighs 1 g.
1.0 g of water contain = (6.022 x 10²³)/18 molecules
= 3.34 x 10²² molecules.

Question 5.
A flask P contains 0.5 mole of oxygen gas. Another flask Q contains 0.4 mole of ozone gas. Which of the two flasks contains greater number of oxygen atoms?
Answer:
1 molecule of oxygen (O₂) = 2 atoms of oxygen
1 molecule of ozone (O₃) = 3 atoms of oxygen
In flask P:1 mole of oxygen gas = 6.022 x 10²³ molecules
0.4 mole of oxygen gas = 6.022 x 10²³ x 0.5 molecules
= 6.022 x 10²³ x 0.5 x 2 atoms = 6.022 x 10²³ atoms
In flask Q: 1 mole of ozone gas = 6.022 x 10²³ molecules
0.4 mole of ozone gas = 6.022 x 10²³ x 0.4 molecules
= 6.022 x 10²³ x 0.4 x 3 atoms = 7.23 x 10²³ atoms
∴ Flask Q has a greater number of oxygen atoms as compared to flask P.

Question 6.
Complete the following table:

Answer:

Question 7.
What is the valency of underlined element in the following compounds?
(i) MnO₂ (ii) Ca₃N₂ (iii) ZnSO₄ (iv) CCl₄
Answer:
(i) + 4
(ii) + 2
(iii) + 2
(iv) + 4

Question 8.
A student puts his signature with graphite pencil. If the mass of carbon in the signature is 10^-12 g. Calculate the number of carbon atoms in the signature.
Answer:
Mass of carbon = 10^-12 g
No. of moles of carbon = \(\frac{10^{-12}}{12}\) moles
1 mole of C has = 6.022 x 10²³
∵ 1 mole of C has atoms = 6.022 x 10²³
∴ \(\frac{10^{-12}}{12}\) mole of C will have = \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23}}{12}\) x 10¹⁰

Question 9.
Rudra took 5 moles of carbon atoms in a container and Ayush also took 5 moles of sodium atoms in another container of some weight.
(a) Whose container is heavier?
(b) Whose container has more number of atoms?
Answer:
(a) 1 mole of C atoms = 12 g
∴ 5 moles of C atoms = 5 x 12 g = 60 g
1 mole of Na atoms = 23 g
∴ 5 moles of Na atoms = 5 x 23 = 115 g
Thus, Ayush’s container is heavier.

(b) 1 mole of C atoms = 6.022 x 10²³ atoms
1 mole of Na atoms = 6.022 x 10²³ atoms
∴ 5 moles of each will contain the same number of atoms.

Question 10.
10²² atoms of an element ‘X’ are found to have a mass of 930 mg. Calculate the molar mass of the element ‘X’.
Answer:
Molar mass of an element is the mass of Avogadro’s number of atoms.
∴6.022 x 10²³ atoms will have mass = \(\frac{0.930}{10^{22}}\) x 6.022 x 10²³ g = 56.0 g
∴Molar mass of the element = 56 g mol^-1.

Question 11.
Which will contain large number of atoms, 1 g of gold or 1 g of silver? Explain with reason. (Atomic masses of Gold = 197 u, silver = 108 u).
Answer:
No. of moles (n) in 1 g of gold = \(\frac { m }{ M }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 197 }\)
No. of moles (n) in 1 g of silver = \(\frac { m }{ M }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 108 }\)
Greater the number of moles, greater is the number of atoms present. As \(\frac { 1 }{ 197 }\) > \(\frac { 1 }{ 108 }\), silver will contain greater number of atoms.

Physical Features of India Class 9 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 2

Question 1.
What is the name of the highest range of the Himalayas?
Answer:
Himadri.

Question 2.
What is the average altitude of the Himalayas ?
Answer:
4000 metres.

Question 3.
What is the length of the Himalayas?
Answer:
Nearly 2500 km.

Question 4.
Point out the height of the highest peak of the world.
Answer:
The highest peak of the world is the Mount Everest. Its height is 8848 mts.

Question 5.
What is meant by an I-shaped valley?
Answer:
I-shaped valley is meant by the valley having vertical walls on either sides.

Question 6.
Name the state where Sahyadri is located.
Answer:
Maharashtra.

Question 7.
What do you know about Ghilka?
Answer:
Chilka is one of the freshwater lagoons of the eastern coastal plain of India.

Question 8.
By which name the Dihang is famous?
Answer:
Brahmaputra.

Question 9.
What is a bar?
Answer:
It is a deposit of sand or mud in a river channel.

Question 10.
Which hills are comprised by the Purvachal?
Answer:
The Patkai Bum, The Naga hills, The Mizo hills.

Question 11.
How the alluvial fans are formed?
Answer:
The alluvial fans are formed by the Himalayan rivers which flow down the slopes of the mountains and reach the plains.

Question 12.
What is the famous name of Tsangpo?
Answer:
Brahmaputra.

Question 13.
Point out the characteristics of I-shaped valleys.
Answer:
I-shaped valleys have steep vertical’ walls on either side of the river.

Question 14.
In how many directions the Himalayas are divided into east-west direction?
Answer:
Four.

Question 15.
What is the height of Nanda Devi?
Answer:
7817 mtrs.

Question 16.
Where is the Satpura range located?
Answer:
In

• Madhya Pradesh and in
• Gujrat.

Question 17.
Where is Sh’iwalik?
Answer:
In

• Himachal Pradesh and in
• Uttaranchal.

Question 18.
In which coast is cochin situated?
Answer:
Malabar.

Question 19.
Where is New Moor Island?
Answer:
In the Bay of Bengal.

Question 20.
To which physiographic division of India does the Aravalli belong?
Answer:
To the Mountainous Range.

Question 21.
Which two forces are responsible for shaping the present landform features of India?
Answer:
The two forces, mainly responsible for shaping the present landform features of India are the following:

1. Internal movements below the earth’s crust.
2. External forces operating on the surface of the earth.

Question 22.
What are tectonic plates?
Answer:
Tectonic plates are also known as the lithospheric plates. These are the plates which are resulted from the internal heat of the earth and the currents of the semi-molten rocks which begin to move towards the crust and tear it apart dividing into large plates.

These are the seven major tectonic plates :

1. South America.
2. North America,
3. Eurasian,
4. Antarctica,
5. Pacific,
6. Indo- Australian,
7. Africa.

Question 23.
Which continents of today were part of the Gondwanaland?
Answer:
The continents of today which were the part of Ganwanaland are the following:

• South America,
• Africa,
• Australia,
• Antarctica,
• Parts of Asia including India.

Question 24.
What is the ‘Bhabar’?
Answer:
Bhabar is one of the most important type of Indian relief. In fact, a narrow belt covered with pebbles lies along the foot of the Shiyaliks from the Indus to the Tista. These are laid down by numerous streams descending the slope of the river bed. This belt is about 80 to 16 km in width and is known as the ‘Bhabar’.

Question 25.
Why is the peninsular massif considered the oldest landmass?
Answer:
The peninsular massif is considered the oldest landmass because, it is, geologically, one of the ancient landmasses on the earth’s surface. It was once a part of the Gondwanaland till its surface and drifting, laying somewhere near the south pole along with Australia, South Africa and South America.

Question 26.
How are the Himadri Himalayas different from the Himachal Himalayas?
Answer:
The difference between the Himadri Himalayas and the Himachal Himalayas can’ be stated as under:
Himachal Himalayas

• This range of Himalayas is the middle range of the Himalayas.
• It is also known as the middle Himalayas.
• Its average altitude is between 3700 and 4500 metres.
• It contains all the important hill stations, example: Dharamsala, Dalhousie, Shimla.

Question 27.
Distinguish between Island groups of the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea.
Answer:

Island Groups of the of Bengal	Island Groups of the Arabian sea
1. The Andaman and Nicobar group of lay in the Bay of Bengal.	1. The Lakshadweep group of islands lay in the Arabian Sea.
2. This group of islands consists of as many as 200 islands spread Over an area of 350 km.	2. This group- of islands consists of small coral islands. These are 36 in number spread over to a mere 32 sq km.
3. The islands are large and numerous.	3. These islands are small and less numerous.
4. The islands form a lush green, densely forested and pictures of the archipelago.	4. The islands are characterised by a great diversity in terms of flora and fauna.

Question 28.
Give reasons:
(i) Siwaliks are prone to landslides.
(ii) Eastern coastal plains are more fertile.
Answer:
(i) As the Siwaliks are made of unconsolidated sediments, they are prone to landslides.
(ii) As the eastern coastal plains have thick- alluvial deposits in the delta tracks, they are relatively more fertile.

Question 29.
Explain the characteristic features of the Peninsular Plateau.
Answer:
The following are the characteristic features of the Peninsular plateau:

• It is a tableland composed of the old crystalline ignores and metamorphic rocks.
• It is the oldest landmass, formed due to the .breaking and drafting of the Gondwanaland.
• It represents a senile topography characterised by broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills.
• It is divided into two broad divisions, the central Highlands and the Deccan plateau.

Question 30.
How are the Arabian sea formed?
Answer:
During the formation: of the Himalayas, an extensive volcanic eruption took place in the north-western part of the plateau. This part was subsided, the Indian Ocean advanced to occupy- this depression And it resulted into the formation of the Arabian sea.

Question 31.
Write short notes on the following;
(i) The Middle Himalayas.
Answer:
The MiddleHimalaya is, also Rnwon as Himachal. It lies to the south of the Himadri, It extends over an average width of 50 km and have an altitude of 3700-4500 mtrs.

The main ranges of the MiddleHimalaya are:

• The Pir Panjal,
• The Dhaoladhar,
• The Mahabharat.

The Middle Himalaya is the part of Himalaya which contains all the important hills stations like:

• Dharmashala,
• Dalhousie,
• Shimla,
• Mussorie,
• Darjeeling etc.

Question 32.
Distinguish between
(i) A Delta and Estuary.
(ii) A Tributary and A Distributary
Answer:
(i) A Delta and Estuary:

A Delta	An Estuary
1. It is generally a triangular landform, formed by the deposition of segments at the inouth of river.	1. It is a narrow deep valley at the mouth of a river.
2. It is always formed by a river.	2. It is formed where the currents and tides are strong.
3. A-delta resembles the Greek letter Δ.	3. This is formed when the sediments are automatically removed before they are deposited. Hence the mouth of the river remains clear.

(ii) A tributary and a distributary:

A Tributary	A Distributary
1. It is a river or a stream joining a larger river.	1. It is the channel which is formed by a river at its mouth.
2. It joins the main river by adding waters from its basin.	2. It carries away a part of the water from the main river.
3. Yamuna is an example of a tributary of Ganga.	3. Ganga while entering the bay of Bengal forms’ many distributaries.
4. It is responsible for the increase in the volume of water of the main river.	4. It decreases the volume of water of the main river.

Question 33.
Describe how the Himalayas were formed.
Answer:
Formation of the Himalayas: The Indo-Australian plate which was separated from the Gondwanaland crafted slowly towards north It collided with the much larger Eurasian plate in the northern hemisphere approximately 5 crores of years ago.

The northern edge of the Indo-Australian plate was pushed beneath the Eurasian plate. Under the impact of this collision, the sedimentary rocks of the enclosed ocean were folded to form the mountain system of central Asia including the Himalayas.

Question 34.
Differentiate between the plateau and the plain.
Answer:
Plateau is a elevated land which has relatively extensive and levelled surface. A plateau is generally bound by deep slopes on one or more sides. The plateau rises abruptly. Plateau is comparatively cooller than the plains. A plateau is uneven and rocky.

Plain: It is an area which is flat and Law- lying. This area generally does not go above 300 metres from the sea level.

Question 35.
Point out some of the main features of the Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta.
Answer:

• Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta is the largest delta in the world.
• It is obviously a well-watered delta.
• It is the most fertile delta of the world.
• The lower part of this delta has become marshy owing to the free mingling of river and sea waters by the high and low tides.

Question 36.
Write down the main features, of the Ganga Basin.
Answer:

• The Ganga Basin is the largest part, of tire Great Northern Plain.
• The Ganga Basin lies to the south of the Himalayas.
• The Ganga Basin extends from Ambala to Sunder ban.
• It is nearly 1800 Km. long.
• A large number of perennial rivers flow through this plain.
• These rivers are very useful in irrigation.
• It provides a large scope for generating hydel power.

Question 37.
Do you agree that the physiographic divisions of India are complementary to each other?
Answer:
India is a vast country with lots of variety. These varieties are also seen in the physiographical divisions of India. These diversities and divisions are, however, complementary to each other.

For example, all the three major divisions:

1. The Great Mountain’ Wall of the North
2. The Northern Plains,
3. The Great Peninsular Plateau, are complementary to each other.

The Northern Mountains are the major source of water. On the other hand, the Peninsula has provided the stable block which went a long way in building the Northern plains and the Mountains. The Northern plains which provide fertile sites, get the fertility from the Himalayan rivers. The- peninsular plateau is also of equal importance. The western ghats of this part play important role in monsoon rain.

Question 38.
The Himalayas are of great importance to India, Discuss.
Answer:
The Himalayas are no doubt of great importance for India in physical as Avell as in historical aspects. Physiographical Importance: The Himalayas are the lofty and impassable natural barriers on the northern border of India.

The Himalayas act like a natural wall keeping the fertile Indo Gangetic plains Safe from the cold bleak winds from the North. The Himalayas provide us the water sources like the Ganga flowing throughout the year. The Himalayas also check the rain-bearing monsoon winds from the Indian Ocean which would otherwise blow across the north. The Himalayas cause the monsoon winds to shower on the valleys and the plains to their south. By this, the Himalayas make the Indo-Gangetic plain the most fertile and productive plain in the world.

Natural Beauty: The Himalayan peaks are snow-covered throughout the year. As such they provide attractive natural spots inviting tourists from all over the world.

Historical Importance: In the ancient times the Hitnalayas also, stood as a firm security guard providing safety to the Indian parts from the invading hoards from the North.

Question 39.
Which are the major physiographic divisions of India?
Answer:
The major physiographic; divisions of Indiaarethe following
1. The Great Himalayan Mountains: These folded mountains extend from Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh in northern India. The and these width varies from 230-400 km.

The Himalayas are further divided into three

• is the northernmost range of Himalayas. This range is also known as Great Himalaya or Inner Himalaya. The. average altitude of this range in about 6000 metres. This range contains all the prominent peaks including Mount Everest, the highest peak in the world.
• Himachal: It is the middle Himalaya extended over an average width of 50 km and have an altitude of 3700 to 4500 metres. Pir Panjal, Dholadhar, Mahabharat ranges are the parts of this group. All the important hill stations of North India like Dharmashala, Dalhousie, Shimla, Darjeeling are located on this range.
• Shivalik: This is also known as Outer Himalaya. These ranges extend over the width of 10-50 km and have an altitude between 900 and 1100 metres.

2. The Northern Plains: It is almost a level plain with little variation in relief. The river valley civilizations of the Indus and the Ganga flourished in the region as they were based on the cultivation of crops. This part of the country is almost a level plain with little variation in relief. This part of the plain area extends between the mouths of the Indus and the Ganga-Brahmaputra covering a distance of about 3200 km.

3. The Peninsular Plateau: This is the oldest part of the Country. This is a triangular region with its base towards the Northern plains, between the Delhi ridge and Kajmahal Hills. This part has a general deviation of about 600-900 metres.

This part is again sub-divided into two parts :

1. The Central Highlands
2. The Deccan Plateau.

4. The Coastal Plains: This part is divided into the eastern and the western coastal plains. The western coastal plain stretches from Gujrat to Kerala.

5. The Islands: The Indian island groups are of different origins. The island of Lakshadweep group are formed of coral deposits. The Andaman Nicobar islands are bigger in size. They are more numerous and scattered.

Question 40.
Point out the general characteristics of the great Northern Plain:
Or
Describe the main features of the Northern Plain.
Answer:

• The great Northern Plain extends from the Punjab Plain in the west to the Brahmaputra Valley in the east.
• This plain lies to the south of the Himalayas.
• This plain possesses the alluvial deposits of the Ganga, Indus and the Satluj.
• The rivers flowing in this region are perennial.
• The average of this plain is less than 300 metres above sea level.
• The largest part of this area is formed by the Ganga
• This region has rich alluvial soil and abundant Water supply. The means of livelihood are easily available here.
• The density of the population is the highest in this region.
• The other part of the great Northern plain is formed by the Punjab plain.
• The eastern part of the great northern plain.
• In the south-eastern side of the Northern plain lies the Ganga Brahmaputra Delta. It is the largest delta in the world.

Question 41.
Write a detailed note on the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau respectively. Running parallel to the western coast, the Western Ghats display great structural unity. They are continuous and can be crossed through passes only such as locations of Thai, Bhor and the Pal Ghats. These passes provide passages to the rail and the roads.

The Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Ghats. Their average elevation is 900-1600 metres as against 600 metres of the Eastern Ghats. The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahahadi Valley to the Nilgiris in the south. The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal.

The Western Ghats cause orographic rain by blocking the rain-bearing moist winds along the western; slopes of the Ghats. The Western Ghats are known by different local names. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south.

The highest peaks include the Anai Mudi (2,695 metres) and the Doda Betta peak (2,633 metres). Mahendragiri (1,500 metres) is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. Sherry Hills and the Javadi Hills are located to the southeast of the Eastern Ghats. All the rivers draining the eastern coastal plains have their sources in the Western Ghats.

Question 42.
Write a note on the Shiwaliks.
Answer:
The outermost range of the Himalayas is called the Siwaliks. They extend over a width of 10-50 Km and have an altitude varying between 900 and 1100 metres. These ranges are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the main’ Himalayan ranges located farther north.

The Siwaliks form almost a continuous chain to the south of the Himachal from Jammu and Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh. Flat-bottomed strike valleys separate large portions of Siwaliks, at places. These valleys, covered with thick gravel and alluvium, are called, ‘duns’. The Dehra Dun, Kotli and Patli Duns are some of the dims.

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) before the correct sentences and (✗) before incorrect sentences.

(i) The Peninsular block may be sub-divided into two parts.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) Next to bhabar there is bhangar.
Answer:
(✗)

(iii) The Deccan plateau is situated between the Delhi Ridge and Rajmahal Hills.
Answer:
(✗)

(iv) The Deccan plateau extends southward from the Satpura.
Answer:
(✓)

(v) The southern part the Western Ghats are relatively smaller.
Answer:
(✓)

(vi) Atolls in Malayalam refer to die ring.
Answer:
(✓)

(vii) There are about 120 islands in the Andaman group.
Answer:
(✗)

(viii) Lagoons are the saltwater lakes.
Answer:
(✓)

2. Fill up the following blanks:

(i) Atolls are …………………………. or horseshoe-shaped coral reefs.
Answer:
circular

(ii) Rivers of the western coast form …………………………. .
Answer:
estuaries

(iii) Nicobar group has …………………………. islands.
Answer:
19

(iv) The …………………………. coastal plain is comparatively much wider.
Answer:
eastern

(v) The coast of southern Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu is popularly known as …………………………. .
Answer:
Coromandal coast.

3. Match out the following two lists.

List I	List II
(i) Parashat	Mountain
(ii) Mannar	River
(iii) Vembanad	Gulf
(iv) Minicoy	Plateau
(v) Malwa	Pills
(vi) Bhima	Lake
(vii) Kardamun	Island
(viii) Khyber	Pass

Answer:

List I	List II
(i) Parashat	Hills
(ii) Mannar	Gulf
(iii) Vembanad	Lake
(iv) Minicoy	Island
(v) Malwa	Plateau
(vi) B1izna	River
(vii) Kardamun	Mountain
(viii) Khyber	Pass

4. Answer the following questions in yes or no.

(i) The Mahanadi River flows through Gujrat.
Answer:
No

(ii) The Kosi is one of the tributaries of the Ganga.
Answer:
Yes

(iii) The Tropic of |he cancer passes through the Rann of Kachina.
Answer:
Yes

(iv) 10° Channel passes through Madhya Pradesh.
Answer:
No

(v) Satpura is a famous river.
Answer:
No

(vi) The son river is touched by the Equator.
Answer:
No

(vii) Andaman sea is in the western side of India.
Answer:
No

(viii) Khasi Hills are in the eastern side of India.
Answer:
Yes.

5. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) The Gondwanaland was in the following part of our ancient supercontinent:
(a) southern
(b) eastern
(c) western
(d) northern
Answer:
(a) southern

(ii) The following sea was situated between the Angaraland and the Gondwanaland in the geological part:
(a) Arabian Sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Tethys
(d) Black Sea.
Answer:
(c) Tethys

(iii) The following is not a part of the Purvanchal:
(a) Patkai Bum
(b) Naga Hills
(c) Pir Panjal
(d) Mizo Hills.
Answer:
(c) Pir Panjal

(iv) The following is a part of the Western Ghats:
(a) Anai Rudi
(b) Shevroy
(c) Javadi
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Javadi

(iv) The following is a part of the Eastern Ghats:
(a) Javadi
(b) Anai Mudi
(c) Doda Betta
(d) None of these;
Answer:
(a) Javadi.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

Here we are providing Kathmandu Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Beehive, Extra Questions for Class 9 English was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-english/

Kathmandu Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Beehive

Kathmandu Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Kathmandu Class 9 Extra Questions Question 1.
Where did the writer stay in Kathmandu? Which two different places of worship did he visit? With whom?
Answer:
The writer, Vikram Seth, stayed in a cheap room in the centre of Kathmandu. He visited the Pushupatinath temple, sacred to the Hindus, and the Baudhnath stupa, the holy shrine of the Buddhists with his acquaintances Mr Shah’s son and nephew.

Kathmandu Extra Questions Question 2.
What is written on the signboard outside the Pashupatinath temple? What does it signify?
Answer:
Outside the Pashupatinath temple, the signboard announces: “Entrance for the Hindus only”. It signifies that the temple is rigid in the maintaining of its sanctity and holiness as a place of worship. This rule is practiced with inflexible strictness to prevent the temple from being treated like a tourist destination.

Kathmandu Class 9 Questions And Answers Question 3.
What does the author mean when he says “At Pashupatinath there is an atmosphere of febrile confusion”?
Answer:
The author makes this remark to imply there is hectic and chaotic activity around the temple. There is a huge crowd of priests, hawkers, tourists, and even animals like cows, monkeys and pigeons roaming through the grounds. Inside the temple, there are a large number of worshippers who jostle and elbow others aside to move closer to the priest. Together, they create utter confusion.

Kathmandu Chapter Class 9 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Why do devotees elbow others inside the temple?
Answer:
There is a large crowd of worshippers inside the temple, where everyone is trying to vie for the attention of the priests. As some people try to get the priest’s attention, they are elbowed aside by others pushing their way to the front.

Kathmandu Questions And Answers Question 5.
How did the arrival of the princess change the situation?
Answer:
At Pashupatinath temple, worshippers were trying to get the priest’s attention and were elbowing and jostling each other as they pushed their way to the front. The situation changed as a princess of the Nepalese royal house appeared; everyone bowed and made way for her.

Kathmandu Lesson Questions And Answers Question 6.
What did the saffron-clad Westerners want?
Answer:
The saffron-clad Westerners wanted to go inside the Pashupatinath temple. However, as entry to the temple is restricted to Hindus only, they claimed to be Hindus. But the policeman was not allowing them to enter.

Class 9 Kathmandu Question Answer Question 7.
Why did the policeman stop the Westerners wearing saffron-coloured clothes from entering the Pashupatinath temple?
Answer:
The policeman stopped the saffron-clad Westerners from entering the Pashupatinath temple as the entry of non- Hindus is banned in this temple and he didn’t believe that they were Hindus, despite their saffron clothes.

Kathmandu Question Answers Question 8.
Describe the fight that breaks out between the two monkeys around the temple of Pashupatinath?
Answer:
The author describes the fight that breaks out between two monkeys in which one chases the other. The monkey being chased jumps onto a shivalinga, then runs screaming around the temples and finally goes down to the holy river, Bagmati.

Kathmandu Class 9 Question 9.
What activities are observed by the writer on the banks of the Bagmati river?
Answer:
The writer observes some polluting activities on the banks of the river Bagmati. He notices some washerwomen washing clothes, some children taking a bath and a dead body being cremated on the banks of this sacred river. He also observes someone throwing a basketful of wilted flowers and leaves into the river.

Question 10.
Write a short note on the shrine on the stone platform on the riverbank?
Answer:
There is a small shrine on the banks of the holy Bagmati that flows below the Pashupatinath temple. Half part of this shrine protrudes from a stone platform. It is believed that when the shrine will emerge completely from the platform, the goddess in the shrine will escape and that will mark the end of the Kaliyug, or the evil period.

Question 11.
What is the belief at Pashupatinath about the end of Kaliyug?
Answer:
There is a small shrine that half protrudes from the stone platform on the river bank. People believe that when it emerges fully, the goddess inside will escape, and the evil period of the Kaliyug will end on earth.

Question 12.
The writer draws powerful sight and sound images of the activities in and around Pashupatinath temple. List the images.
Answer:
The poet draws images of mindless activity in and around Pashupatinath temple. Priests, hawkers, devotees, cows, pigeons and dogs roam here and there. Devotees elbow and jostle their way to the front as they try to catch the priest’s attention in an attempt to get preferential treatment. There is a fight between two monkeys, as one chases the other jumping on the shivlinga. A group of saffron-clad foreigners argue to be allowed entry into the temple, hawkers call out their wares. Animals also add to the noise as monkeys run around screaming, cows loo and dogs bark, a completely noisy situation.

Question 13.
How does the writer describe Baudhnath stupa?
Answer:
The author gives a brief but vivid picture of the Baudhnath stupa. He admires the serenity and calmness of this shrine. The stupa has an immense white dome with silence and stillness its distinctive features. There are no crowds even on the road surrounding the stupa. There are some shops run by the Tibetan immigrants.

Question 14.
The Baudhnath stupa ‘is a haven of quietness in the busy streets around’. Comment.
Answer:
The narrator observes a sense of stillness at the Buddhist shrine, the Baudhnath stupa. Its immense white dome is ringed by a road with small shops selling items like felt bags, Tibetan prints and silver jewellery.The quietness of the stupa stands out amidst the busy business activities that go around it. Thus, the narrator regards this place as a haven of quietness in the busy streets around.

Question 15.
How is the atmosphere at Pashupatinath temple different from that at Baudhnath Stupa?
Answer:
The atmosphere at Pashupatinath Temple is noisy and chaotic. People jostle with each other and animals mill around. Hawkers call out their wares. On the other hand, the atmosphere at Baudhnath stupa is calm and serene. There are some Tibetans shops but the huge crowds of Pashupatinath are missing there. There is calm as opposed to chaos near the Pashupatinath temple.

Question 16.
What are the author’s observations about the streets in Kathmandu?
Answer:
The author finds the streets in Kathmandu are ‘vivid, mercenary and religious’. Extremely narrow and busy, these streets have many small shrines and some images clad in flowers. There are a number of shops selling Western cosmetics, film rolls and chocolate or copper utensils and Nepalese antiques. Stray cows roam about mooing at the sound of the motorcycles. Vendors sell their wares shouting loudly and radios are played at a loud pitch. In addition, the horns of the cars and the ringing of the bicycle bells increase this din.

Question 17.
The writer says, “All this I wash down with Coca Cola”. What does‘all this’ refer to?
Answer:
‘All this’ refers to the eatables that the writer buys and eats on one of the busy streets of Kathmandu. It includes a bar of marzipan, a com-on-the-cob roasted in a charcoal brazier on the pavement (rubbed with salt, chilli powder and lemon). He finishes of his meal by drinking Coca Cola and a nauseating orange drink.

Question 18.
Which is the route from Kathmandu to Delhi that the writer had planned to take earlier? Which route does he opt for? Why?
Answer:
The writer had planned to travel from Kathmandu to Delhi by first reaching Patna by bus and train. Then he planned to sail up the Ganges past Benaras to Allahabad, then up the Yamuna, past Agra to Delhi. The shorter option taken by the author is to fly via air, straight from Kathmandu to Delhi. He changed his plans because he was tired and homesick.

Question 19.
Why does Vikram Seth decide to buy an air ticket directly for the homeward journey?
Answer:
Vikram Seth had travelled from China to Kathmandu via Tibet. It had been a long journey and he was feeling very exhausted and homesick. Though his enthusiasm for travelling tempted him to take a longer route to reach back home, his exhaustion and homesickness impelled him to buy an air-ticket directly for the homeward journey to Delhi.

Question 20.
What difference does the author note between the flute seller and the other hawkers?
Answer:
The author points out that while other hawkers loudly call their wares to attract the customers, the flute seller plays upon his flute softly and meditatively. He does not indulge in excessive display nor does he show any desperation to sell his flutes. Although the flute player does not shout, the sound of the flute is distinctly heard above the noise of the traffic and of the hawkers.

Question 21.
What does Vikram Seth compare to the quills of a porcupine?
Answer:
Vikram Seth found a flute seller in Kathmandu standing in a comer of the square near his hotel. He held a pole in his hand which had an attachment at the top around and fifty to sixty flutes were stuck into it that protruded in all directions. The author compares these protruding flutes to the sharp, stiff quills of a porcupine.

Question 22.
Name five kinds of flutes.
Answer:
As the author listens to the music of the flute being played by the flute seller, he is reminded of different kinds of flutes that he has seen and heard. He talks of the kinds of flutes like the ‘cross-flutes’, the reed neh, the recorder, the Japanese shakuhachi and the Hindustani bansuri. Other flutes are distinguished by their tonal quality like ‘the clear or breathy flutes’ of South America and the ‘high-pitched’ flutes of China.

Question 23.
What effect does the music of the flute have on Vikram Seth?
Answer:
The music of the flute has a hypnotic effect on Vikram Seth. So much so, that he finds it difficult to tear himself away from the square where this music is being playing by the flute seller. It has the power to draw him into the commonality of all mankind and he is moved by its closeness to human voice.

Question 24.
Why does the author describe the music of the flute as “the most universal and most particular of sounds”?
Answer:
The music of the flute, according to the author, is the most ‘universal’ because this musical instrument, made of hollow bamboo is found in every culture in the world. But at the same time, its sound is the most ‘particular’ because each flute, though played in almost a similar manner, produces a unique sound.

Kathmandu Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the atmosphere in and around the Baudhnath shrine with the Pashupatinath temple.
Answer:
The Pashupatinath Temple, sacred to the Hindus, and the Baudhnath shrine of the Buddhists stand in contrast with regard to their ambience. The noisy confusion of the Hindu Temple is the opposite of the peace and tranquility that reigns supreme in the Baudhnath shrine. In the Pashupatinath temple, utter chaos is created by the large crowd of rowdy worshippers who push and jostle each other to reach closer to the priest and the deity.

At Baudhnath stupa, there aren’t many people inside the structure. Confusion is also created by some Westerners who wish to enter the temple and argue with the policeman. The atmosphere at Pashupatinath Temple is made noisy by the large crowds of priests, hawkers, devotees and tourists. Animals like cows and dogs freely move around and the pigeons too contribute to the confusion. Even monkeys play about and fight in the premises of the temple.

Question 2.
How does the author describe Kathmandu’s busiest streets?
Answer:
The author presents the busiest streets of Kathmandu as ‘vivid, mercenary and religious’. The streets are full of life with large crowds, shops and hawkers calling out their wares. There is a lot of religious activity going on all the time. Besides the well-known religious shrines like the Pashupatinath temple and the Baudhnath stupa, Kathmandu also has small shrines and flower-adorned deities that line the narrow, but busy streets of Kathmandu. It is ‘mercenary’ as it is a tourist place and a lot of business flourishes in the narrow streets.

One can find fruit sellers, flute sellers, and hawkers selling postcard photographs. As in any other tourist place, there are shops selling various things like cosmetics from western countries, rolls of film, chocolates, antique items of Nepal, and copper pots and pans. There is a medley of noises created by radios playing film songs, sounds of car-horns, bells of bicycles and vendors shouting to invite the customers. There are also the cows bellowing as they hear the sounds of motorcycles. Thus, the streets of Kathmandu are full of noise and din.

Question 3.
“To hear any flute is to be drawn into the commonality of all mankind.” Why does the author say this?
Answer:
The author hears the music of a flute played by a flute seller in a square near his hotel in Kathmandu and is reminded of the various kinds of music produced by various types of flutes found in various cultures. However, the flute is universal, because almost every culture has flutes, though each has a different tone and pitch.

Different cultures have given different names to the flutes such as the shakuhachi in Japan and the bansuri in India. Flutes from different cultures have different fingering methods and ranges of sound. The Indian bansuri has a deep sound, the South American flute emits clear, breathy sound and the Chinese flute gives out loud, high-pitched melodies.

Despite the variety of flutes and the variations in their music, the author emphasises that the music of all the flutes closely resembles human voice. To produce music, every flute needs pauses and breaths in the same manner in which phrases and sentences are uttered in human voice. These pauses and breaths are generated through fingering of the holes of a flute. This characteristic feature of the flutes gives the author a feeling of being “drawn into the commonality of mankind”, which gives him a sense of universality ahd harmony.

Question 4.
What idea do you get about the author from the extract “Kathmandu ”?
Answer:
The extract “Kathmandu” taken from Vikram Seth’s travelogue, ‘From Heaven Lake’, highlights certain traits of his personality. As a traveller, Seth displays a keen sense of observation, and as a person with a fine aesthetic sense, his ability to capture the vivid details of his surroundings. Vikram Seth draws vivid pictures of the temples of Kathmandu and its narrow, crowded streets. Though he doesn’t say it directly, but his admiration of the Baudhnath Stupa with its serene stillness and his calling it a ‘haven of quietness’ shows he prefers serenity and tranquility.

He also shows his concern as an environmentalist who does not approve of the polluting activities carried on the banks of Bagmati river. Vikram Seth’s fondness for travelling is obvious by the fact that although tired, he still contemplates taking a longer route back home to Delhi. His fondness for music is brought forth when we find him totally enchanted by the music of the flute. He is so fascinated that he has to tear himself away from the square where the flute is being played by the seller.

His choice about reading reveals that when tired, he prefers to read light and popular stuff like love comics and Reader’s Digest. Like a typical traveller, he indulges himself with the eatables he finds available in the bazaar of Kathmandu. Thus, the author emerges as a man with profound fondness for travelling, love for music, keen sense of observation, reflective mind, and an ability to portray places and people realistically.

Question 5.
Where does the author find the flute seller and what are his observations about him?
Answer:
The author finds a flute seller along with many other hawkers in a comer of the square near his hotel in Kathmandu. But the flute seller’s style of selling his ware differs from that of the other vendors. He does not shout to attract the customers nor does he show any kind of desperation to sell. He carries a pole with about fifty to sixty flutes attached at the top. The flute seller, instead of hawking loudly, places the pole on the ground every now and then, selects a flute and plays upon it slowly and in a meditative manner without ever resorting to excessive display.

The sound of the flute is distinct and clear and can be heard even above the noise created by the traffic horns and the shouts of the hawkers. He does not seem to run a very brisk business and it appears as if playing flute is his chief activity and selling of flutes is incidental to it. The mesmerising music of the flute draws the author to it. He is left spell-bound by its hypnotic notations. The impact is so deep that he has to force himself to leave the square where the flute is being played. This music is etched in his memory and he carries it with him to his home in India.

Kathmandu Extra Questions and Answers Reference to Context

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow.

Question 1.
I get a cheap room in the centre of town and sleep for hours. The next morning, with Mr. Shah’s son and nephew, I visit the two temples in Kathmandu that are most sacred to Hindus and Buddhists.

(a) Who does “I” refer to in the above lines?
Answer:
I refers to the writer of the travelogue, Vikram Seth.

(b) Where is he at the time?
Answer:
He is in a cheap room in a hotel in the centre of Kathmandu at the time.

(c) With whom does the author visit the two temples?
Answer:
The author visits the two temples with Mr. Shah’s son and his nephew.

(d) Which two temples in Kathmandu does he visit? With which religions are they associated?
Answer:
He visits the two famous temples of Kathmandu – the Pashupatinath, sacred to the Hindus and the Baudhnath Stupa, sacred to the Buddhists.

Question 2.
There are so many worshippers that some people trying to get the priest’s attention are elbowed aside by others pushing their way to the front.

(a) Which place of worship is the narrator describing here?
Answer:
The narrator is describing Kathmandu’s Pashupatinath temple, which is sacred to the Hindus.

(b) How do devotees behave inside the temple?
Answer:
The devotees at the temple push and jostle with others as they try to move ahead and get the priest’s attention. In this attempt, some people are elbowed aside.

(c) Why do you think some people are pushing their way to the front?
Answer:
Some people are pushing their way to the front to get a clear view of the deity and also to make their offerings through the priest.

(d) What sort of an atmosphere is being created by the crowd in the temple?
Answer:
The crowd in the temple is indisciplined and unorganized. They are creating chaos and confusion with their unruly behaviour, which is robbing the temple of its sanctity.

Question 3.
A princess of the Nepalese royal house appears; everyone bows and makes way. By the main gate, a party of saffron-clad Westerners struggle for permission to enter.

(a) Which place is being talked about in the above extract?
Answer:
The writer is talking about the Pashupatinath Temple at Kathmandu.

(b) How had the crowd of worshippers been behaving before the princess appeared? How is their behaviour different now?
Answer:
The crowd of worshippers were trying to get the priest’s attention and were jostling with each other and were elbowing others aside to push their way to the front, but as soon as the princess appeared, the worshippers bowed and made way for her.

(c) How are the Westerners trying to convince the policeman they are Hindus? Why?
Answer:
The Westerners were dressed in saffron and were claiming to be Hindus because only Hindus can enter the Pashupatinath temple.

(d) Which river flows next to the temple?
Answer:
The river Bagmati flows next to the temple.

Question 4.
By the main gate, a party of saffron-clad Westerners struggle for permission to enter.

(a) Which place is the author talking about here?
Answer:
he author is talking of the famous Hindu shrine – the Pashupatinath Temple in Kathmandu.

(b) Who are the saffron-clad Westerners at the main gate?
Answer:
The saffron-clad Westerners at the main gate are a group of tourists.

(c) Why do they struggle for permission to enter?
Answer:
They struggle for permission to enter because the temple allows entry only to Hindus.

(d) What does this show about the cultural practices of this place?
Answer:
It shows that the authorities who look after this shrine are very rigid about maintaining the sanctity of the temple as a place of worship. They do not want it to be treated like a tourist spot.

Question 5.
A fight breaks out between two monkeys. One chases the other, who jumps onto a shivalinga, then runs screaming around the temples and down to the river, the holy Bagmati, that flows below.

(a) What are the two monkeys doing?
Answer:
The two monkeys are fighting each other and chasing each other.

(b) Where are the two monkeys?
Answer:
The two monkeys are running around the shivalingas and then down to the river.

(c) What is the atmosphere at Pashupatinath Temple?
Answer:
At Pashupatinath there is an atmosphere of ‘febrile confusion’ as crowds of worshippers and animals jostle and elbow each other.

(d) What is the belief about the shrine that half protrudes from the stone platform on the river bank?
Answer:
People believe when the shrine emerges fully, the goddess inside will escape, and the evil period of the Kaliyug will end on earth.

Question 6.
A corpse is being cremated on its banks; washerwomen are at their work and children bathe. From a balcony a basket of flowers and leaves, old offerings now wilted, is dropped into the river.

(a) Which river is referred to in this extract?
Answer:
The river Bagmati that flows through Kathmandu and on the banks of which Pashupatinath temple is situated is referred to here.

(b) What is the significance of this river?
Answer:
The river Bagmati is significant as it is considered sacred by the Hindus. They worship it like a pious deity.

(c) How is the river being polluted and by whom?
Answer:
A basket of withered away flowers, leaves and old offerings is thrown into the river from the balcony of the Pashupatinath temple. Corpse are cremated on its banks, washerwomen wash clothes in the river and children bathe in it.

(d) What light does this polluting of the river throw on the people?
Answer:
Throwing of refuse into the sacred Bagmati river, or polluting it by bathing or washing clothes reflects that these people lack concern for environment. They pollute the very river which they consider to be sacred.

Question 7.
There are no crowds: this is a haven of quietness in the busy streets around.

(a) Which place is being talked about here?
Answer:
The writer is talking about the Baudhnath stupa here.

(b) How does this contrast with the other place of worship?
Answer:
While the Baudhnath Stupa is a quiet, still place, the crowded noisy Pashupatinath temple is a place of feverish activity.

(c) Who owns the shops on the ‘busy streets around’?
Answer:
Many of the shops outside are owned by Tibetan immigrants.

(d) What did the shops sell?
Answer:
They sold felt bags, Tibetan prints, silver jewellery etc.

Question 8.
Kathmandu is vivid, mercenary, religious, with small shrines to flower-adorned deities along the narrowest and busiest streets; with fruit sellers, flute sellers, hawkers of postcards; shops selling Western cosmetics, film rolls and chocolate; or copper utensils and Nepalese antiques.

(a) Explain the meaning of the word “mercenary”.
Answer:
The word “mercenary” means interested only in the amount of money that you can be made from a situation even at the expense of ethics. This implies sales in the shops of Kathmandu are not always above board.

(b) How does the author describe the streets of Kathmandu?
Answer:
The streets of Kathmandu are the narrowest and busiest streets that he has ever seen.

(c) What are the things that the author buys?
Answer:
The author buys a bar of marzipan, a com-on-the-cob roasted in a charcoal brazier on the pavement (rubbed with salt, chilli powder and lemon), a couple of love story comics, and a Reader’s Digest.

(d) Which things are sold in the market of Kathmandu?
Answer:
Nepalese antiques, Western cosmetics and film rolls are sold there.

Question 9.
Go home, I tell myself: move directly towards home. I enter a Nepal Airlines office and buy a ticket for tomorrow’s flight.

(a) What route had the writer thought of taking?
Answer:
The writer had thought of going by bus and train to Patna, then sailing up the Ganges past Benaras to Allahabad, then up the Yamuna, past Agra to Delhi.

(b) Why did he change his plan?
Answer:
The writer was tired as he had been travelling for many days. He was also homesick and wanted to travel home straight.

(c) How did he plan to travel now?
Answer:
He planned to fly by Nepal Airlines from Kathmandu to Delhi.

(d) When is he leaving Kathmandu?
Answer:
He is leaving Kathmandu the next day.

Question 10.
In his hand is a pole with an attachment at the top from which fifty or sixty bansuris protrude in all directions, like the quills of a porcupine. They are of bamboo: there are cross-flutes and recorders. From time to time, he stands the pole on the ground, selects a flute and plays for a few minutes.

(a) What attracts the writer in the market?
Answer:
A flute seller and the music being played by him attracts the writer.

(b) How is he different from other hawkers?
Answer:
He plays on the flute to entertain people. He does not cry out to attract buyers.

(c) Why does he sometimes break off playing flute?
Answer:
The flute seller sometimes breaks off playing his flute in order to talk to the fruit seller.

(d) What does Vikram Seth compare to the quills of a porcupine?
Answer:
The flute seller’s stock of flutes protruding in all directions from an attachment on the pole was looking like the quills of a porcupine.

Question 11.
I find it difficult to tear myself away from the square.

(a) Which square does the writer refer to?
Answer:
The writer, Vikram Seth, refers to the square near his hotel in Kathmandu.

(b) What was the writer doing in the square?
Answer:
The writer was tired and homesick and was going back to his hotel after having bought his air ticket to fly back to India the next day.

(c) Why does ‘he’ find it difficult to tear himself away from the square?
Answer:
‘He’ finds it difficult to tear himself from the square because he is mesmerised by the sweet notes of the flute-music being played there by the flute seller

(d) Explain the expression ‘tear myself away’. Why does the writer use the expression?
Question
‘Tear myself away’ means to separate forcibly. Hence the expression shows the effort on the part of the narrator to pull himself away from the enthralling music of the flute.

Question 12.
It weaves its own associations. Yet to hear any flute is, it seems to me, to be drawn into the commonality of all mankind, to be moved by music closest in its phrases and sentences to the human voice. Its motive force too is living breath: it too needs to pause and breathe before it can go on.

(a) What does ‘it’ refer to?
Answer:
‘It’ refers to the sounds produced by different flutes.

(b) How does ‘it’ weave its own associations?
Answer:
The expression means that each kind of flute produces a different and a unique type of music associated with some particular place

(c) Why is its music closest to the human voice?
Answer:
The music of the flute is closest to the human voice because pauses and breaths are needed to produce musical notes of the flute in the same manner in which words, phrases and sentences are uttered in human voice.

(d) Why does it draw the author in the ‘commonality of all mankind’?
Answer:
The flute draws the author in the “commonality of all mankind” because this instrument is found in all cultures and is played in a similar manner. Hence, it seems to connect the whole mankind.

Here we are providing Lines and Angles Class 9 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 6 with Answers Solutions, Extra Questions for Class 9 Maths was designed by subject expert teachers. https://ncertmcq.com/extra-questions-for-class-9-maths/

Extra Questions for Class 9 Maths Lines and Angles with Answers Solutions

Extra Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines and Angles with Solutions Answers

Lines and Angles Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Lines And Angles Class 9 Extra Questions Question 1.
If an angle is half of its complementary angle, then find its degree measure.
Solution:
Let the required angle be x
∴ Its complement = 90° – x
Now, according to given statement, we obtain
x = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(90° – x)
⇒ 2x = 90° – x
⇒ 3x = 90°
⇒ x = 30°
Hence, the required angle is 30°.

Class 9 Lines And Angles Extra Questions Question 2.
The two complementary angles are in the ratio 1 : 5. Find the measures of the angles.
Solution:
Let the two complementary angles be x and 5x.
∴ x + 5x = 90°
⇒ 6x = 90°
⇒ x = 15°
Hence, the two complementary angles are 15° and 5 × 15° i.e., 15° and 75°.

Lines And Angles Extra Questions Question 3.
In the given figure, if PQ || RS, then find the measure of angle m.

Solution:
Here, PQ || RS, PS is a transversal.
⇒ ∠PSR = ∠SPQ = 56°
Also, ∠TRS + m + ∠TSR = 180°
14° + m + 56° = 180°
⇒ m = 180° – 14 – 56 = 110°

Extra Questions On Lines And Angles Class 9 Question 4.
If an angle is 14o more than its complement, then find its measure.
Solution:
Let the required angle be x
∴ Its complement = 90° – x
Now, according to given statement, we obtain
x = 90° – x + 14°
⇒ 2x = 104°
⇒ x = 52°
Hence, the required angle is 52o.

Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Extra Questions Question 5.
If AB || EF and EF || CD, then find the value of x.

Solution:
Since EF || CD ∴ y + 150° = 180°
⇒ y = 180° – 150° = 30°
Now, ∠BCD = ∠ABC
x + y = 70°
x + 30 = 70
⇒ x = 70° – 30° = 40°
Hence, the value of x is 40°.

Lines And Angles Class 9 Important Questions Question 6.
In the given figure, lines AB and CD intersect at O. Find the value of x.

Solution:
Here, lines AB and CD intersect at O.
∴ ∠AOD and ∠BOD forming a linear pair
⇒ ∠AOD + ∠BOD = 180°
⇒ 7x + 5x = 180°
⇒ 12x = 180°
⇒ x = 15°

Lines And Angles Extra Questions Class 9 Question 7.
In the given figure, PQ || RS and EF || QS. If ∠PQS = 60°, then find the measure of ∠RFE.

Solution:
Since PQ || RS
∴ ∠PQS + ∠QSR = 180°
⇒ 60° + ∠QSR = 180°
⇒ ∠QSR = 120°
Now, EF || QS ⇒ ∠RFE = ∠QSR [corresponding ∠s]
⇒ ∠RFE = 120°

Extra Questions Of Lines And Angles Class 9 Question 8.
In the given figure, if x°, y° and z° are exterior angles of ∆ABC, then find the value of x° + y° + z°.

Solution:
We know that, an exterior angle of a triangle is equal to sum of two opposite interior angles.
⇒ x° = ∠1 + ∠3
⇒ y° = ∠2 + ∠1
⇒ z° = ∠3 + ∠2
Adding all these, we have
x° + y° + z° = 2(∠1 + ∠2 + ∠3)
= 2 × 180°
= 360°

Lines and Angles Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 1

Class 9 Maths Lines And Angles Extra Questions Question 1.
In the given figure, AB || CD, ∠FAE = 90°, ∠AFE = 40°, find ∠ECD.

Solution:
In AFAE,
ext. ∠FEB = ∠A + F
= 90° + 40° = 130°
Since AB || CD
∴ ∠ECD = FEB = 130°
Hence, ∠ECD = 130°.

Lines And Angles Class 9 Hots Questions Question 2.
In the fig., AD and CE are the angle bisectors of ∠A and ∠C respectively. If ∠ABC = 90°, then find ∠AOC.

Solution:
∵ AD and CE are the bisector of ∠A and ∠C

In ∆AOC,
∠AOC + ∠OAC + ∠OCA = 180°
⇒ ∠AOC + 45o = 180°
⇒ ∠AOC = 180° – 45° = 135°.

Lines And Angles Class 9 Questions Question 3.
In the given figure, prove that m || n.

Solution:
In ∆BCD,
ext. ∠BDM = ∠C + ∠B
= 38° + 25° = 63°
Now, ∠LAD = ∠MDB = 63°
But, these are corresponding angles. Hence,
m || n

Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Extra Questions With Solutions Question 4.
In the given figure, two straight lines PQ and RS intersect each other at O. If ∠POT = 75°, find the values of a, b, c.

Solution:
Here, 4b + 75° + b = 180° [a straight angle]
5b = 180° – 75° = 105°
b – \(\frac{105^{\circ}}{5}\) = 21°
∴ a = 4b = 4 × 21° = 84° (vertically opp. ∠s]
Again, 2c + a = 180° [a linear pair]
⇒ 2c + 84° = 180°
⇒ 2c = 96°
⇒ c = \(\frac{96^{\circ}}{2}\) = 48°
Hence, the values of a, b and c are a = 84°, b = 21° and c = 48°.

Class 9 Maths Ch 6 Extra Questions Question 5.
In figure, if AB || CD. If ∠ABR = 45° and ∠ROD = 105°, then find ∠ODC.

Solution:

Through O, draw a line ‘l’ parallel to AB.
⇒ line I will also parallel to CD, then
∠1 = 45°[alternate int. angles]
∠1 + ∠2 + 105° = 180° [straight angle]
∠2 = 180° – 105° – 45°
⇒ ∠2 = 30°
Now, ∠ODC = ∠2 [alternate int. angles]
= ∠ODC = 30°

Question 6.
In the figure, ∠X = 72°, ∠XZY = 46°. If YO and ZO are bisectors of ∠XYZ and ∠XZY respectively of ∆XYZ, find ∠OYZ and ∠YOZ.

Solution:
In ∆XYZ, we have
∠X + XY + ∠Z = 180°
⇒ ∠Y + ∠Z = 180° – ∠X
⇒ ∠Y + ∠Z = 180° – 72°
⇒ Y + ∠Z = 108°
⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\) ∠Y + \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠Z = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 108°
∠OYZ + ∠OZY = 54°
[∵ YO and ZO are the bisector of ∠XYZ and ∠XZY]
⇒ ∠OYZ + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 46° = 54°
∠OYZ + 23° = 54°
⇒ ∠OYZ = 549 – 23° = 31°
In ∆YOZ, we have
∠YOZ = 180° – (∠OYZ + ∠OZY)
= 180° – (31° + 23°) 180° – 54° = 126°

Lines and Angles Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type 2

Question 1.
Prove that if two lines intersect each other, then the bisectors of vertically opposite angles are in the same line.

Solution:
Let AB and CD be two intersecting lines intersecting each other in O.
OP and OQ are bisectors of ∠AOD and ∠BOC.
∴ ∠1 = ∠2 and ∠3 = ∠4 …(i)
Now, ∠AOC = ∠BOD [vertically opp. ∠s] ……(ii)
⇒ ∠1 + ∠AOC + ∠3 = ∠2 + ∠BOD + ∠4 [adding (i) and (ii)]
Also, ∠1 + ∠AOC + ∠3 + ∠2 + ∠BOD + ∠4 = 360° (∵ ∠s at a point are 360°]
⇒ ∠1 + ∠AOC + ∠3 + ∠1 + ∠AOC + ∠3 = 360° [using (i), (ii)]
⇒ ∠1 + ∠AOC + ∠3 = 180°
or ∠2 + ∠BOD + ∠4 = 180°
Hence, OP and OQ are in the same line.

Question 2.
In figure, OP bisects ∠BOC and OQ bisects ∠AOC. Prove that ∠POQ = 90°

Solution:
∵ OP bisects ∠BOC
∴ ∠BOP = ∠POC = x (say)
Also, OQ bisects. ∠AOC
∠AOQ = ∠COQ = y (say) .
∵ Ray OC stands on ∠AOB
∴ ∠AOC + ∠BOC = 180° [linear pair]
⇒ ∠AOQ + ∠QOC + ∠COP + ∠POB = 180°
⇒ y + y + x + x = 180°.
⇒ 2x + 2y = 180°
⇒ x + y = 90°
Now, ∠POQ = ∠POC + ∠COQ
= x + y = 90°

Question 3.
In given figure, AB || CD and EF || DG, find ∠GDH, ∠AED and ∠DEF.

Solution:
Since AB || CD and HE is a transversal.
∴ ∠AED = ∠CDH = 40° [corresponding ∠s]
Now, ∠AED + ∠DEF + ∠FEB = 180° [a straight ∠]
40° + CDEF + 45° = 180°
∠DEF = 180° – 45 – 40 = 95°
Again, given that EF || DG and HE is a transversal. .
∴ ∠GDH = ∠DEF = 95° [corresponding ∠s]
Hence, ∠GDH = 95°, ∠AED = 40° and ∠DEF = 95°

Question 4.
In figure, DE || QR and AP and BP are bisectors of ∠EAB and ∠RBA respectively. Find ∠APB.

Solution:

Here, AP and BP are bisectors of ∠EAB and ∠RBA respectively.
⇒ ∠1 = ∠2 and ∠3 = ∠4
Since DE || QR and transversal n intersects DE and QR at A and B respectively.
⇒ ∠EAB + ∠RBA = 180°
[∵ co-interior angles are supplementary]
⇒ (∠1 + ∠2) + (∠3 + ∠4) = 180°
⇒ (∠1 + ∠1) + (∠3 + ∠3) = 180° (using (i)
⇒ 2(∠1 + ∠3) = 180°
⇒ ∠1 + ∠3 = 90°
Now, in ∆ABP, by’angle sum property, we have
∠ABP + ∠BAP + ∠APB = 180°
⇒ ∠3 + ∠1 + ∠APB = 180°
⇒ 90° + ∠APB = 180°
⇒ ∠APB = 90°

Question 5.
In the given figure, POQ is a line. Ray OR is perpendicular to line PQ. OS is another ray lying between rays OP and OR. Prove that ∠ROS = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (∠QOS – ∠POS).

Solution:
Given that OR is perpendicular to PQ
⇒ ∠POR = ∠ROQ = 90°
∴ ∠POS + ∠ROS = 90°
⇒ ∠ROS = 90° – ∠POS
Adding ∠ROS to both sides, we have
∠ROS + ∠ROS = (90° + ∠ROS) – ∠POS
⇒ 2∠ROS = ∠QOS – ∠POS
⇒ ∠ROS = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (∠QOS – ∠POS).

Question 6 .
If two parallel lines are intersected by a transversal, then prove that the bisectors of any two corresponding angles are parallel.
Solution:
Given : AB || CD and transversal PQ meet these lines at E and F respectively. EG and FH are
the bisectors of pair of corresponding angles ∠PEB and ∠EFD.
To Prove : EG || FH Proof
∵ EG and FH are bisectors of ∠PEB respectively.

∠PEG = ∠EFH
Which are corresponding angles of EG and FH
∴ EG || FH.

Question 7.
In the given figure, m and n are two plane mirrors perpendicular to each other. Show that incident rays CA is parallel to reflected ray BD.

Solution:
Let normals at A and B meet at P.
As mirrors are perpendicular to each other, therefore, BP || OA and AP || OB.
So, BP ⊥ PA i.e., ∠BPA = 90°
Therefore, ∠3 + ∠2 = 90° [angle sum property] …(i)
Also, ∠1 = ∠2 and ∠4 = ∠3 [Angle of incidence = Angle of reflection]
Therefore, ∠1 + ∠4 = 90° [from (i)) …(ii]
Adding (i) and (ii), we have
∠1 + ∠2 + ∠3 + ∠4 = 180°
i.e., ∠CAB + ∠DBA = 180°
Hence, CA || BD

Lines and Angles Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
If two parallel lines are intersected by a transversal, prove that the bisectors of two pairs of interior angles form a rectangle.
Solution:
Given : AB || CD and transversal EF cut them at P and Q respectively and the bisectors of
pair of interior angles form a quadrilateral PRQS.

To Prove : PRQS is a rectangle.
Proof : ∵ PS, QR, QS and PR are the bisectors of angles
∠BPQ, ∠CQP, ∠DQP and ∠APQ respectively.
∴∠1 =\(\frac{1}{2}\) ∠BPQ, ∠2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠CQP,
∠3 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠DQP and ∠4 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠APQ
Now, AB || CD and EF is a transversal
∴ ∠BPQ = ∠CQP
⇒ ∠1 = ∠2 (∵∠1 \(\frac{1}{2}\) ∠BPQ and ∠2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠QP)
But these are pairs of alternate interior angles of PS and QR
∴ PS || QR
Similarly, we can prove ∠3 = ∠4 = QS || PR
∴ PRQS is a parallelogram.
Further ∠1 + ∠3 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠BPQ + \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠DQP = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (∠BPQ + ∠DQP)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 180° = 90° (∵ ∠BPQ + ∠DQP = 180°)
∴ In ∆PSQ, we have ∠PSQ = 180° – (∠1 + ∠3) = 180° – 90° = 90°
Thus, PRRS is a parallelogram whose one angle ∠PSQ = 90°.
Hence, PRQS is a rectangle.

Question 2.
If in ∆ABC, the bisectors of ∠B and ∠C intersect each other at O. Prove that ∠BOC = 90° + \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠ A.

Solution:
Let ∠B = 2x and ∠C = 2y
∵OB and OC bisect ∠B and ∠C respectively.
∠OBC = \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠B = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 2x = x
and ∠OCB = \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠C = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 2y = y
Now, in ∆BOC, we have
∠BOC + ∠OBC + ∠OCB = 180°
⇒ ∠BOC + x + y = 180°
⇒ ∠BOC = 180° – (x + y)
Now, in ∆ABC, we have
∠A + 2B + C = 180°
⇒ ∠A + 2x + 2y = 180°
⇒ 2(x + y) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(180° – ∠A)
⇒ x + y = 90° – \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠A …..(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we have
∠BOC = 180° – (90° – \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠A) = 90° + \(\frac{1}{2}\) ∠A

Question 3.
In figure, if I || m and ∠1 = (2x + y)°, ∠4 = (x + 2y)° and ∠6 = (3y + 20)°. Find ∠7 and ∠8.

Solution:
Here, ∠1 and ∠4 are forming a linear pair
∠1 + ∠4 = 180°
(2x + y)° + (x + 2y)° = 180°
3(x + y)° = 180°
x + y = 60
Since I || m and n is a transversal
∠4 = ∠6
(x + 2y)° = (3y + 20)°
x – y = 20
Adding (i) and (ii), we have
2x = 80 = x = 40
From (i), we have
40 + y = 60 ⇒ y = 20
Now, ∠1 = (2 x 40 + 20)° = 100°
∠4 = (40 + 2 x 20)° = 80°
∠8 = ∠4 = 80° [corresponding ∠s]
∠1 = ∠3 = 100° [vertically opp. ∠s]
∠7 = ∠3 = 100° [corresponding ∠s]
Hence, ∠7 = 100° and ∠8 = 80°

Question 4.
In the given figure, if PQ ⊥ PS, PQ || SR, ∠SQR = 28o and ∠QRT = 65°. Find the values of x, y and z.

Solution:
Here, PQ || SR .
⇒ ∠PQR = ∠QRT
⇒ x + 28° = 65°
⇒ x = 65° – 28° = 37°
Now, in it. ∆SPQ, ∠P = 90°
∴ ∠P + x + y = 180° [angle sum property]
∴ 90° + 37° + y = 180°
⇒ y = 180° – 90° – 37° = 53°
Now, ∠SRQ + ∠QRT = 180° [linear pair]
z + 65° = 180°
z = 180° – 65° = 115°

Question 5.
In figure, AP and DP are bisectors of two adjacent angles A and D of a quadrilateral ABCD. Prove that 2∠APD = ∠B + ∠C.

Solution:
In quadrilateral ABCD, we have
∠A + ∠B.+ ∠C + ∠D = 360°

Question 6.
In figure, PS is bisector of ∠QPR ; PT ⊥ RQ and Q > R. Show that ∠TPS = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(∠Q – ∠R).

Solution:
Since PS is the bisector of ∠QPR
∴∠QPS = ∠RPS = x (say)
In ∆PRT, we have
∠PRT + ∠PTR + ∠RPT = 180°
⇒ ∠PRT + 90° + ∠RPT = 180°
⇒ ∠PRT + ∠RPS + ∠TPS = 90°
⇒ ∠PRT + x + ∠TPS = 90°
⇒ ∠PRT or ∠R = 90° – ∠TPS – x
In ΔΡQT, we have
∠PQT + ∠PTQ + ∠QPT = 180°
⇒ ∠PQT + 90° + ∠QPT = 180°
⇒ ∠PQT + ∠QPS – TPS = 90°
⇒ ∠PQT + x – ∠TPS = 90° [∵∠QPS = x]
⇒ ∠PQT or ∠Q = 90° + ∠TPS – x …(ii)
Subtracting (i) from (ii), we have
⇒ ∠Q – ∠R = (90° + ∠TPS – x) – 190° – ∠TPS – x)
⇒ ∠Q – ∠R = 90° + ∠TPS – X – 90° + ∠TPS + x
⇒ 2∠TPS = 2Q- ∠R
⇒ ∠TPS = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(Q – ∠R)

Lines and Angles Class 9 Extra Questions HOTS

Question 1.
In the given figure, p ll q, find the value of x.

Solution:

Extend line p to meet RT at S.
Such that MS || QT
Now, in ARMS, we have
∠RMS = 180° – ∠PMR (linear pair]
= 180° – 120°
= 60°
∠RMS + ∠MSR + ∠SRM = 180° [by angle sum property of a ∆]
⇒ 60° + ∠MSR + 30o = 180°
⇒ MSR = 90°
Now, PS || QT – ∠MSR = ∠RTQ
⇒ ∠RTQ = x = MSR = 90° (corresponding ∠s]

Question 2.
In a triangle, if ∠A = 2∠B = 6∠C, find the measures of ∠A, ∠B and ∠C and find the value of \(\frac{\angle A+2 \angle B}{3 \angle C}\).
Solution:
Let us consider ∠A = 2∠B = 6∠C = x
∴∠A = x
2∠B = x = ∠B = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Lines and Angles Class 9 Extra Questions Value Based (VBQs)

Question 1.
Students in a school are preparing banner for a rally to make people aware for saving electricity. What value are they exhibiting by doing so ? Parallel lines I and m are cut by transversal t, if ∠4 = ∠5 and ∠6 = ∠7, what is measure of angle 8 ?

Solution:
Here, given that ∠4 = ∠5 and ∠6 = ∠7
Now, I || m and t is a transversal
∴ ∠4 + ∠5 + ∠6 + ∠7 = 180° [∵ co-interior angles are supplementary]
∠5 + ∠5 + ∠6 + ∠6 = 180° [using (i)]
2(∠5 + ∠6) = 180°
∠5 + ∠6 = 90°
We know that, sum of all interior angles of a triangle is 180°
∴ ∠8 + ∠5 + ∠6 = 180°
⇒ ∠8 + 90° = 180° [using (ii)]
⇒ ∠8 = 180° – 90° = 90°
Save electricity, save energy.

Question 2.
To protect poor people from cold weather, Ram Lal. has given his land to make a shelter home for them. What value is being exhibited by him? In the given figure, ‘sides QP and RQ of ∆PQR are produced to point S and T respectively. If ∠PQT = 110° and ∠SPR = 135°, find ∠PRQ.

Solution:
Here,
∠SPR + ∠QPR = 180° [a linear pair]
135° + ∠QPR = 180° [∵ ∠SPR = 135°]∠
⇒ ∠QPR = 180° – 135° = 45°
In ∆PQR, by exterior angle property, we have
∠QPR + ∠PRQ = ∠PQT
45° + ∠PRQ = 110°
∠PRQ = 110° – 45° = 65°
Helpful nature, service of mankind and helping the needy people.

Question 3.
In an activity of mathematics, a teacher ask students to divide a circular sheet of radius 15 cm into 6 equal parts to write 6 values they like. What is the central angle subtended by each part ? Give the six values of your preference.
Solution:

Draw a circle of radius 15 cm and divide the circular region into six equal parts by constructing an angle of measure 60° at the centre.
Central angle subtended by each part
= \(\frac{360^{\circ}}{6}\) = 60°
The six values are : Honesty, Truth, Regularity, Tolerance, Punctuality and Sincerity.

Online Education for Democratic Rights Class 9 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 6

Question 1.
How many fundamental rights have given to the Indians by the Constitution?
Answer:
6.

Question 2.
How many rights are there in the Right to Freedom?
Answer:
6.

Question 3.
Is an Indian state allowed to discriminate against a citizen on the basis of place of birth?
Answer:
No.

Question 4.
In which form does the Indian Constitution provides for special provisions while guaranteeing the right to equality?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution provides for special provisions in the form of reserve posts while guaranteeing right to equality.

Question 5.
To whom the reserved posts have been provided?
Answer:
The reserved posts have been provided to the scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and to the backward classes.

Question 6.
Which of the fundamental rights has abolished untouchability?
Answer:
Right to equality.

Question 7.
What will be done to a person practising untouchability?
Answer:
A person practising untouchability would be punished by law.

Question 18.
What kind of titles have not been abolished by the constitution?
Answer:
The Constitution has not abolished two types of the titles

• Military titles
• Academic titles.

Question 9.
On what basis the government can restrict the fundamental rights?
Answer:
The government can restrict the fundamental rights in the interest of the independence, sovereignty and integrity of the nation.

Question 10.
Name the various kinds of the writs.
Answer:

• Habeas Corpus
• Mandamus
• Prohibition.
• Quo Warranto
• Certiorari.

Question 11.
Who can issue the writs?
Answer:
Courts.

Question 12.
During an emergency who is allowed to suspend the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:
The Central Government.

Question 13.
Under which of the Fundamental rights the titles have been abolished by the government?
Answer:
Right to Equality.

Question 14.
By whom a citizen can be denied his life and liberty?
Answer:
Bylaw.

Question 15.
With do you think that the constitutions of different countries have sections on rights?
Answer:
It is so only to emphasise that such rights are fundamental for the development of human personality.

Question 16.
Do the citizens of all the countries have rights ensured to them?
Answer:
No, really Until recently, the people of South Africa (under white minority rule) had no rights ensured, to them.

Question 17.
Do all the countries have their rights codified?
Answer:
No. the rights given to the people of United Kingdom are based on common law.

Question 18.
Suppose there are no traffic rules in our country, what would have happened?
Answer:
Either accidents or traffic jams.

Question 19.
What is meant by rights?
Answer:
Rights are reasonable claims of the individual recognised by society and sanctioned by law.

Question 20.
What type of right to earn a reasonable wage is?
Answer:
Right to work.

Question 21.
Whom are political rights available to?
Answer:
Political rights are available only to the citizens, and not to the foreigners.

Question 22.
What would happen to democracy if there are no rights?
Answer:
Democracy becomes meaningless if we do not have rights and the means to secure them.

Question 23.
When do we celebrate Human Rights Day?
Answer:
December 10, every year.

Question 24.
How are the rights in France described as?
Answer:
Rights of Man.

Question 25.
Mention anyone right as incorporated in the US Bill of Rights.
Answer:
Freedom of speech.

Question 26.
Where did the US forces put about 600,to people in 2002?
Answer:
In a prison in Guantanamo Bay.

Question 27.
When did the terrorist attack on USA?
Answer:
September 11, 2001.

Question 28.
In which country, the non-Muslims can follow their religions, but only in private.
Answer:
Saudi Arabia.

Question 29.
What did the Serbs demand of Kosovo Albanian in April 1999?
Answer:
Either the Kosovo Albanians leave the country or accept the dominance of the Serbs.

Question 30.
When was the National Human Rights Commission set up in India?
Answer:
In 1993.

Question 31.
Define rights.
Answer:
Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek to be his best self. They are claims recognised by society and protected by law.

Question 32.
Mention some qualities of rights.
Answer:
Some .qualities of rights are as follows:

• Right is claim which has to be recognised by others. My right should be respected as should be yours.
• Right is recognised by society. It is social in nature. What is against society is not.a right. What is against the interest of society is also not a right.
• Right has to be protected and Sanctioned by law.

Question 33.
Mention some types of rights with example.
Answer:
Rights are of different types. They may be classified as civil, political, economic and social and cultural rights: Right to life, to equality, to family, right to freedoms, to acquire and own property, etc. are civil rights. Right to vote, to contest elections, and to seek any political office are political rights.

Right to work, to earn a reasonable wage, and to fulfil basic needs are economic rights. Right to culture, to religion, to speak in one’s own language, to get education, and to lead a decent life are social and cultural rights. However, all these rights are interconnected. These days we call all of them together as human rights.

Question 34.
Are all types of rights available to all the people? State with examples.
Answer:
Some of the rights are available to citizens as individuals. For example, the right to life is one such a right. Some rights are available to persons as members of a community. For example, the right to culture or language. Some rights are available to all persons residing in a country, whether one is a citizen or not.

For example, European or the refugees from Bangladesh or Sri Lanka living in India have certain rights along with Indian citizens. Similarly, Indians living in the United States too have some rights like that of the American citizens. Some right are available to citizens of a specific age. For example, the right to vote or to contest in elections only when one grows up.

Question 35.
Discuss the relationship between rights and democracy.
Answer:
Rights are necessary for the development of society, individual personality and for the realisation of human potential. Democracy becomes meaningless if we do not have rights and the means to secure them. It is the availability of these rights that make any political system democratic.

Even among democracies, we can know how democratic a country is by looking at the kind of rights available to its people and to what extent they are effective. So the expansion of democracy in any country is closely linked to the expansion of citizens’ rights. Democracy and citizens’ rights are therefore mutually complementary.

Question 36.
Explain briefly the evolution of rights.
Answer:
Rights did not emerge all of a sudden. They had evolved over a long time. They are a result of struggles of people. They change with changes in society. New rights emerge as societies develop. Over the last two hundred years, most democracies have adopted basic rights as essential ingredients of their constitutions and government.

The French National Assembly recognized certain rights of the citizens. It was called the Declaration of the Rights of Man. It proclaimed that all citizens are ‘equal in the eyes of the law. All have an equal right to all public places and employment according to their capacity and talent. In the same year, a Bill of Rights was added to the Constitution of the United States, of America. It gave to American citizens rights such as freedom of speech press, religion, assembly and to petition the government.

Question 37.
Write is short note on Human Rights.
Answer:
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted by the United Nations in 1948 was an important milestone in the long struggle for rights in the world. It recognized certain rights as fundamental to human life. They are the right to life, liberty and security of person; the right to freedom of opinion and expression: the right to freedom of throughout, conscience and religion: and the right to own property.

Question 38.
Point out some aspects of the Rights to equality enjoyed by the citizens of India.
Answer:
Right to equality is one of the most important fundamental rights provided by the Constitution.

These rights have been given in the Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution.

• Article 14 establishes equality before the law, It says the state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protec¬tion of the laws within the territory of India.
• Article 15 prohibits any sort of discrimination among the citizens of the Republic on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
• Article 16 of the Constitution of India provides equal opportunities in all fields of public employment.
• Article 17 has erased the age-long slur on the face of the Indian social order. Practising of. untouchability in any form has been made an offence punishable by law.
• Article 18 puts an end to all the titles other than educational and military.
  Thus, the Indian citizens have been provided the right to equality to enjoy their lives.

Question 39.
Describe special provisions which are provided for the advancement of the backward classes.
Answer:
Special provisions are also provided for the advancement of backward classes of citizens and those of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Equality does not mean that everyone gets, the same treatment, no matter what they need. Right to equality allows special treatment in favour of persons who belong to the weaker sections. For example, government reserves some seats in public educational institutions, or provide stipends to such persons. Similarly, government reserves some posts in favour of backward classes of citizens who are not adequately represented in government services.

But for such special provisions, it would not be possible for the boys and girls of these groups to get admission in premier educational institutions or to get good jobs. These special provisions and reservations are aimed at promoting socio-economic equality. For promoting social equality, the Constitution forbids the practice of untouchability in any form. Untouchability refers hr any belief or social practice which looks down upon people on account of their birth with certain caste labels. Such practice denies them interaction with others or access to public places as equal citizens. So the Constitution made untouchability a punishable offence.

Question 40.
“The right to freedom is a cluster of six freedoms.” Explain.
Answer:
The right to freedom given by the constitution to its citizens includes six freedom rights. Hence the right to freedom is called a cluster of six freedoms.

These rights are the following;

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms.
• Freedom to form associations and unions.
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Freedom to reside and settle and
• Freedom to adopt in any profession or the right to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Every citizen has the right to all these freedoms. That means you cannot exercise your freedom in such a manner that violates others’ right to freedom. Your freedoms should not cause public nuisance or disorder. You are free to do everything which injures no one else. Freedom is the absence of interference by other’s in our affairs, so far as such affairs do not adversely affect other’s lives.

So our freedoms have some limitations. However, such restrictions have to be reasonable. They should be as per the law. Accordingly, the government imposes certain restrictions on our freedoms in the larger interests of the society.

The Constitution ensures protection of individual life and personal liberty. It says that no person can be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. That means no government or police officer can interfere with the life and liberty of a citizen unless his action is supported by some provision of law.

Question 41.
Write short notes on:
Answer:
(i) Right Against Exploitation: This is a very important fundamental right. Earlier people were made to do work free of charge for landlords or the wealthy persons. This was known as beggar or forced labour.
It was the kind of labour which was done without any wage in return. Begar is now a crime and punishable by law.

Providing this right the Constitution also forbids employing of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories arid mines. This right makes us conscious about the fact that the children are our assets. They must he allowed to get education and lead happy childhood.

In actual practice, it is very easily seen that the children are working in much less wages. This is done because the child labour is much cheap. Children in fact cannot work like an adult hence they are given low wages. This is, however, a gross violation of the spirit and provisions of the constitution. In this situation, the right against exploitation is a legal weapon to protect today’s children. This right is considered a legal weapon because if this right is violated, one can go to the court of law to get justice.

(ii) Right to Freedom of Religion: Ours is a secular country. That means the government of India would not give any undue bias or preference to any religion. Every religion is equal before the state. Citizens of India are free to practise their respective religions. This is one of the fundamental rights of the citizens given by the Constitution. Foremost objective part of this right is to sustain the principle, of secularism in the country. No state-run institutions can give religious education. However, religious communities are free to set up charitable institutions of their own.

(iii) Cultural and Educational Rights: India is a vast country with a number of religions, languages as well as cultures. Hence the Indian Constitution provides special measures to protect the rights of the minorities. Any community which has a language and script of its own has the right to conserve and develop them. No citizen can be discriminated against for, admission in state or state-aided institutions because of religion or language. All minorities, religious or linguistic, can set up their own educational institutions. Thus, they are able to preserve and develop their culture.

Question 42.
How can we secure our fundamental rights?
Answer:
One important characteristic of the rights in the Constitution is that they are enforceable. We have a right to seek the enforcement of the above-mentioned rights. This is called the Right to Constitutional Remedies. This itself is a Fundamental Right. This right makes other rights effective. It is possible that sometimes our rights may be violated by fellow’ citizens, private bodies or by the government.

When any of our right is violated we can seek remedy through courts. If it is a Fundamental Right we can directly approach the Supreme Court or the High Court of a state. That is why, Dr Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies as the heart and soul of our Constitution.

Fundamental Rights are guaranteed against the actions of the Legislatures, the Executive, and any other authorities instituted by the government. There can be no law or action that violates the Fundamental Rights. If any act of the Legislature or the Executive takes away or limits any of the Fundamental Rights it will be invalid. We can challenge such law’s of the central and state governments, the policies and actions of the government or the governmental organizations like the nationalized banks.

The Supreme Court and High Courts are empowered to declare such laws or acts as invalid. They also enforce the Fundamental Rights against private individuals and bodies. The Supreme Court and High Courts have tire power to issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. They award compensation for the violation.

Question 43.
What are the rights guaranteed to the citizens of South Africa?
Answer:
The Constitution of South Africa guarantees its citizens several kinds of new rights. Some of these are :

• Rights to privacy, so that citizens or their home cannot be searched, their phones cannot be tapped, their communication cannot be opened.
• Right to an. environment that is not harmful to their health or well being
• Rights to have access to adequate housing.
• Right to have access to health care services, sufficient food and water; no one may be refused emergency medical treatment.

Objective Type Questions

1. Put (✓) before right sentences and (✗) before wrong sentences.

(i) Begar is a crime and punishable by law.
Answer:
(✓)

(ii) The Constitution never imposes restrictions on the rights of freedom.
Answer:
(✗)

(iii) The Constitution provides special measures to protect the rights of the minorities.
Answer:
(✓)

(iv) Right to Constitutional Remedies is not as much important as it is considered.
Answer:
(✗)

(v) The court of law stands as a guard against the violation of the fundamental rights.
Answer:
(✓).

2. Complete the following sentences:

(i) Democracy is not merely a ………………………… term.
Answer:
political

(ii) Directive Principles promote an environment to make ………………………… life comfortable.
Answer:
citizens

(iii) The ………………………… provides special measures to protect the rights of the minorities.
Answer:
Constitution

(iv) To safeguard public property is a Fundamental ………………………… .
Answer:
duty

(v) We must cherish and …………………………the noble ideas of freedom struggle.
Answer:
follow.

3. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given below:

(i) The constitution of India has granted the following number of fundamental rights :
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(b) 6

(ii) Our rights are protected by the following right:
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right against exploitation
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies.

(iii) Untouchability is a crime against:
(a) Law only
(b) Constitution only
(c) Both law and constitution
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Both law and constitution

(iv) Right to equality has the following aspect:
(a) Legal
(b) Political
(c) Social
(d) All above.
Answer:
(d) All above.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science