MCQ Questions for Class 6 Hindi Chapter 11 जो देखकर भी नहीं देखते with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Hindi Chapter 11 जो देखकर भी नहीं देखते with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Hindi Vasant Chapter 11 जो देखकर भी नहीं देखते with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided जो देखकर भी नहीं देखते Class 6 Hindi MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Hindi Chapter 11 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

जो देखकर भी नहीं देखते Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Jo Dekhkar Bhi Nahi Dekhte MCQ Question 1.
‘जो देखकर भी नहीं देखते’ पाठ के लेखक कौन हैं?
(a) प्रेमचंद
(b) सुंदरा स्वामी
(c) जया विवेक
(d) हेलेन केलर

Answer

Answer: (d) हेलेन केलर

जो देखकर भी नहीं देखते MCQ Class 6 Question 2.
हेलेन केलर प्रकृति की चीजों को किस प्रकार पहचानती हैं ?
(a) देखकर
(b) सूंघकर
(c) छूकर
(d) दूसरों से उसका वर्णन सुनकर

Answer

Answer: (c) छूकर

Class 6 Hindi Chapter 11 MCQ Question 3.
लेखिका को किसमें आनंद मिलता है?
(a) लोगों से बात करने में
(b) प्रकृति को निहारने में
(c) फूलों की पंखुड़ियों को छूने और उसकी घुमावदार बनावट को महसूस करने में

Answer

Answer: (c) फूलों की पंखुड़ियों को छूने और उसकी घुमावदार बनावट को महसूस करने में

MCQ Questions For Class 6 Hindi Chapter 11 Question 4.
लेखिका किसके स्वर पर मंत्रमुग्ध हो जाती है?
(a) कोयल के
(b) मैना के
(c) मोर के
(d) चिड़िया के

Answer

Answer: (d) चिड़िया के

Jo Dekh Kar Bhi Nahi Dekhte MCQ Class 6 Question 5.
इनमें किस पेड़ की छाल चिकनी होती है?
(a) चीड़
(b) भोज-पत्र
(c) पीपल
(d) बरगद

Answer

Answer: (b) भोज-पत्र

(1)

क्या यह संभव है कि भला कोई जंगल में घंटाभर घूमे और फिर भी कोई विशेष चीज़ न देखे? मुझे जिसे कुछ भी दिखाई नहीं देता-सैकड़ों रोचक चीज़ मिलती हैं, जिन्हें मैं छूकर पहचान लेती हूँ। मैं भोज-पत्र के पेड़ की चिकनी छाल और चीड़ की खुरदरी छाल को स्पर्श से पहचान लेती हूँ। वसंत के दौरान मैं टहनियों में नई कलियाँ खोजती हूँ। मुझे फूलों की पंखुड़ियों की मखमली सतह छूने और उनकी घुमावदार बनावट महसूस करने में अपार आनंद मिलता है। इस दौरान मुझे प्रकृति के जादू का कुछ अहसास होता है। कभी, जब मैं खुशनसीब होती हूँ, तो टहनी पर हाथ रखते ही किसी चिड़िया के मधुर स्वर कानों में गूंजने लगते हैं। अपनी अंगुलियों के बीच झरने के पानी को बहते हुए महसूस कर मैं आनंदित हो उठती हूँ।

Ncert Class 6 Hindi Chapter 11 MCQ Question 1.
लेखिका चीज़ों को कैसे पहचान लेती है।
(a) देखकर
(b) सुनकर
(c) छूकर
(d) सूंघकर

Answer

Answer: (c) छूकर

लेखिका चीज़ों को कैसे पहचान लेती है।

Class 6 Hindi Ch 11 MCQ Question 2.
भोज-पत्र की छाल कैसी होती है?
(a) खुरदरी
(b) सख्त
(c) टेढ़ी-मेढ़ी
(d) चिकनी

Answer

Answer: (d) चिकनी

Jo Dekhkar Bhi Nahi Dekhte Class 6 MCQ Question 3.
लेखिका किस मौसम में नई कलियाँ खोजती है?
(a) वर्षा में
(b) गरमी में
(c) वसंत में
(d) सरदी में

Answer

Answer: (c) वसंत में

(2)

कभी-कभी मेरा दिल इन सब चीज़ों को देखने के लिए मचल उठता है। अगर मुझे इन चीजों को सिर्फ छूने भर से इतनी खुशी मिलती है, तो उनकी सुंदरता देखकर तो मेरा मन मुग्ध ही हो जाएगा परंतु, जिन लोगों की आँखें हैं, सचमुच बहुत कम देखते हैं। इस दुनिया के अलग-अलग सुंदर रंग उनकी संवेदना को नहीं छूते। मनुष्य अपनी क्षमताओं की कभी कदर नहीं करता। वह हमेशा उस चीज़ की आस लगाए रहता है जो उसके पास नहीं है।

Class 6 Hindi Jo Dekhkar Bhi Nahi Dekhte MCQ Question 1.
लेखिका को किस काम में खुशी मिलती है?
(a) चीज़ों को देखकर
(b) प्राकृतिक चीज़ों को छूने में
(c) लोगों से बातें करके
(d) अन्य कार्यों में

Answer

Answer: (a) चीज़ों को देखकर

Class 6 Chapter 11 Hindi MCQ Question 2.
आँखों वाले लोग बहुत कम क्यों देखते हैं?
(a) क्योंकि वे देखकर भी नहीं देखते।
(b) उन्हें दिखाई नहीं देता।
(c) वे अपने को सर्वज्ञ समझते हैं।
(d) ये अंतर्यामी नहीं हैं।

Answer

Answer: (a) क्योंकि वे देखकर भी नहीं देखते।

Class 6 Hindi Chapter 11 Extra Questions Question 3.
विभिन्न प्राकृतिक चीज़ों को छूने से लेखिका को कैसा महसूस होता है?
(a) प्रसन्नता
(b) दुख
(c) निराशा
(d) हताशा

Answer

Answer: (a) प्रसन्नता

विभिन्न प्राकृतिक चीज़ों को छूने से लेखिका को कैसा महसूस होता है?

(3)

कभी-कभी मैं अपने मित्रों की परीक्षा लेती हूँ, यह परखने के लिए कि वह क्या देखते हैं। हाल ही में मेरी एक प्रिय मित्र जंगल की सैर करने के बाद वापस लौटीं। मैंने उनसे पूछा, “आपने क्या-क्या देखा”
“कुछ खास तो नहीं,” उनका जवाब था। मुझे बहुत अचरज नहीं हुआ क्योंकि मैं अब इस तरह के उत्तरों की आदी हो चुकी हूँ। मेरा विश्वास है कि जिन लोगों की आँखें होती हैं, वे बहुत कम देखते हैं।

Hindi Class 6 Chapter 11 MCQ Question 1.
लेखिका अपने मित्रों की परीक्षा क्यों लेती है?

Answer

Answer: लेखिका यह जानने के लिए अपने मित्रों की परीक्षा लेती है कि उसके मित्र किसी विशेष स्थान पर जाकर क्या देखते हैं ?

Ch 11 Hindi Class 6 MCQ Question 2.
मित्रों के किस जवाब में उसे क्यों आश्चर्य नहीं होता?

Answer

Answer: जब मित्रों से पूछने पर जवाब मिलता है कि उन्होंने ऐसी चीज़ नहीं देखी जो विशेष हो। लेखिका को प्रायः इसी प्रकार के उत्तर सुनने को मिलते हैं, वह ऐसे उत्तर सुनने की आदी हो चुकी है। इसलिए उसे ऐसे उत्तरों से कोई आश्चर्य नहीं होता।

Class 6th Hindi Chapter 11 MCQ Question 3.
लेखिका की सहेली कहाँ से सैर करके लौटी थी?

Answer

Answer: लेखिका की सहेली पहाड़ी क्षेत्रों से लौटी थी।

(4)

क्या संभव है कि भला कोई जंगल में घंटाभर घूमे और फिर भी कोई विशेष चीज़ न देखे? मुझे-जिसे कुछ भी दिखाई नहीं देता-सैकड़ों रोचक चीज़े मिलती हैं, जिन्हें मैं छूकर पहचान लेती हूँ। मैं भोज-पत्र के पेड़ की चिकनी छाल और चीड़ की खुरदरी छाल को स्पर्श से पहचान लेती हूँ। वसंत के दौरान मैं टहनियों में नई कलियाँ खोजती हूँ। मुझे फूलों की पंखुड़ियों की मखमली सतह छूने और उनकी घुमावदार बनावट महसूस करने में अपार आनंद मिलता है। इस दौरान मुझे प्रकृति के जादू का कुछ अहसास होता है।

Class 6 Hindi Chapter Jo Dekhkar Bhi Nahi Dekhte MCQ Question 1.
पाठ और लेखिका का नाम लिखिए।

Answer

Answer: पाठ का नाम-जो देखकर भी नहीं देखते, लेखिका-हेलेन केलर।

Jo Dekhkar Bhi Nahin Dekhte MCQ Class 6 Question 2.
लेखिका किसे स्पर्श से पहचान लेती है?

Answer

Answer: लेखिका भोजपत्र के चिकनी छाल और चीड़ की खुरदरी छाल को स्पर्श से पहचान लेती है।

Class 6 Hindi Chapter 11 MCQ Question Answer Question 3.
लेखिका को किस काम में आनंद मिलता है?

Answer

Answer: लेखिका को फूलों की पंखुड़ियों की मखमली सतह को छूने तथा उनकी घुमावदार बनावट को महसूस करने में अपार आनंद मिलता है।

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Hindi Vasant Chapter 11 जो देखकर भी नहीं देखते with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 6 Hindi जो देखकर भी नहीं देखते MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Chapter 5 चिट्ठियों की अनूठी दुनिया with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Chapter 5 चिट्ठियों की अनूठी दुनिया with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Vasant Chapter 5 चिट्ठियों की अनूठी दुनिया with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided चिट्ठियों की अनूठी दुनिया Class 8 Hindi MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-hindi-with-answers/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Hindi Chapter 5 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

Online Education for चिट्ठियों की अनूठी दुनिया Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Class 8 Hindi Chapter 5 MCQ Question 1.
इस पाठ के लेखक हैं
(a) रामदरश मिश्र
(b) अरविंद कुमार सिंह
(c) भगवती चरण वर्मा
(d) हरिशंकर परसाई

Answer

Answer: (b) अरविंद कुमार सिंह

Chitthiyon Ki Anoothi Duniya MCQ Question 2.
पत्रों ने किन-किन क्षेत्रों को प्रभावित किया है?
(a) कला के क्षेत्र को
(b) राजनीति के क्षेत्र को
(c) साहित्य के क्षेत्र को
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Class 8 Hindi Ch 5 MCQ Question 3.
संदेश पहुँचाने का काम कौन शीघ्र करने लगा?
(a) घोड़े
(b) वायुयान
(c) रेलवे और तार
(d) पत्र

Answer

Answer: (c) रेलवे और तार

चिट्ठियों की अनूठी दुनिया MCQ Question 4.
वर्तमान में चिट्ठी पत्री की क्या स्थिति है?
(a) इनकी लोकप्रियता समाप्त हो गई है
(b) इनकी लोकप्रियता में उछाल आया है
(c) इनकी लोकप्रियता बनी हुई है
(d) संचार के अन्य साधनों से अधिक है।

Answer

Answer: (c) इनकी लोकप्रियता बनी हुई है

वर्तमान में चिट्ठी पत्री की क्या स्थिति है?

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Hindi Chapter 5 Question 5.
चिट्ठी-पत्री कौन-सा समास है
(a) द्विगु समास
(b) कर्मधारय समास
(c) अव्ययीभाव समास
(d) द्वंद्व समास

Answer

Answer: (d) द्वंद्व समास

Class 8 Hindi Chapter 5 Extra Questions Question 6.
भारत वर्ष में लगभग कितनी चिट्ठियाँ डाली जाती हैं?
(a) साढ़े तीन करोड़
(b) साढ़े पाँच करोड़
(c) साढ़े चार करोड़
(d) साढ़े छह करोड़

Answer

Answer: (c) साढ़े चार करोड़

Ncert Class 8 Hindi Chapter 5 MCQ Question 7.
कन्नड़ भाषा में पत्र को क्या कहते हैं
(a) कागद
(b) उत्तरम्
(c) खत
(d) कडिद

Answer

Answer: (a) कागद

Ch 5 Hindi Class 8 MCQ Question 8.
‘विकसित’ शब्द में किस प्रत्यय का प्रयोग हुआ है
(a) वि
(b) सित
(c) इत
(d) त

Answer

Answer: (c) इत

(1)

पत्रों की दुनिया भी अजीबोगरीब है और उसकी उपयोगिता हमेशा से बनी रही है। पत्र जो काम कर सकते हैं, वह संचार का आधुनिकतम साधन नहीं कर सकता है। पत्र जैसा संतोष फ़ोन या एसएमएस का संदेश कहाँ दे सकता है। पत्र एक नया सिलसिला शुरू करते हैं और राजनीति, साहित्य तथा कला के क्षेत्रों में तमाम विवाद और नई घटनाओं की जड़ भी पत्र ही होते हैं। दुनिया का तमाम साहित्य पत्रों पर केंद्रित है और मानव सभ्यता के विकास में इन पत्रों ने अनूठी भूमिका निभाई है।

Class 8 Chapter 5 Hindi MCQ Question 1.
इस पाठ के लेखक कौन हैं?
(a) अरविंद सिंह
(b) हरिशंकर परसाई
(c) भगवतीचरण वर्मा
(d) रामदरश मिश्र।

Answer

Answer: (a) अरविंद सिंह

Hindi Class 8 Chapter 5 MCQ Question 2.
आधुनिक संचार के साधन होते हुए भी पत्रों का स्थान महत्त्वपूर्ण क्यों है?
(a) स्थायी होते हैं।
(b) गोपनीय होते हैं।
(c) ये पूरी तरह भावनात्मक होते हैं।
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Class 8 Ch 5 Hindi MCQ Question 3.
एस०एम०एस० का अर्थ क्या होता है?
(a) चिट्ठियों द्वारा भेजा गया संदेश
(b) तार द्वारा भेजा गया संदेश
(c) मोबाइल फ़ोन द्वारा भेजा गया लिखित संदेश
(d) मोबाइल फ़ोन से की गई बातचीत

Answer

Answer: (c) मोबाइल फ़ोन द्वारा भेजा गया लिखित संदेश

Class 8 Hindi Chapter 5 MCQ Questions Question 4.
पत्रों की विशेषता होती है?
(a) ये लिखित होते हैं
(b) ये पूर्ण गोपनीय होते हैं
(c) ये लिखित और गोपनीय होते हैं
(d) ये चिर स्थायी होते हैं।

Answer

Answer: (c) ये लिखित और गोपनीय होते हैं

Chapter 5 Hindi Class 8 MCQ Question 5.
पत्र किन-किन क्षेत्रों पर अपना प्रभाव डालते हैं?
(a) राजनीति क्षेत्र
(b) कला के क्षेत्र
(c) साहित्य के क्षेत्र
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) उपर्युक्त सभी

(2)

विश्व डाक संघ की ओर से 16 वर्ष से कम आयुवर्ग के बच्चों के लिए पत्र लेखन प्रतियोगिताएँ आयोजित करने का सिलसिला सन् 1972 से शुरू किया गया। यह सही है कि खास तौर पर बड़े शहरों और महानगरों में संचार साधनों के तेज़ विकास तथा अन्य कारणों से पत्रों की आवाजाही प्रभावित हुई है पर देहाती दुनिया आज भी चिट्ठियों से ही चल रही है। फैक्स, ई-मेल, टेलीफ़ोन तथा मोबाइल ने चिट्ठियों की तेज़ी को रोका है पर व्यापारिक डाक की संख्या लगातार बढ़ रही है।

Hindi Chapter 5 Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
विश्व डाक संघ की ओर से क्या व्यवस्था की गई
(a) पत्र भेजने की परंपरा
(b) पत्र लिखने की परंपरा
(c) पत्र लेखन प्रतियोगिताएँ
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (c) पत्र लेखन प्रतियोगिताएँ

Question 2.
पत्र लेखन प्रतियोगिता कब शुरू की गई?
(a) 1970 से
(b) 1972 से
(c) 1974 से
(d) 1976 से

Answer

Answer: (b) 1972 से

Question 3.
पत्रों की आवाजाही प्रभावित होने का कारण क्या है?
(a) संचार के साधनों का बढ़ जाना
(b) संचार के साधनों में कमी आना
(c) डाकियों की कमी
(d) लोगों की रुचि का कम होना

Answer

Answer: (a) संचार के साधनों का बढ़ जाना

Question 4.
ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में पत्र परस्पर जुड़े हैं क्यों?
(a) डाकियों की कमी
(b) लोगों में संचार साधनों के ज्ञान में कमी
(c) लोगों का पत्रों से लगाव का होना
(d) संचार के साधनों का विकास न होना

Answer

Answer: (d) संचार के साधनों का विकास न होना

Question 5.
चिट्ठियों की तेजी को किसने रोका है?
(a) फैक्स
(b) ई-मेल
(c) टेलीफ़ोन एवं मोबाइल
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) उपर्युक्त सभी

(3)

आज देश में ऐसे लोगों की कमी नहीं है जो अपने पुरखों की चिट्ठियों को सहेज और सँजोकर विरासत के रूप में रखे हुए हों या फिर बड़े-बड़े लेखक, पत्रकारों, उद्यमी, कवि, प्रशासक, संन्यासी या किसान, इनकी पत्र रचनाएँ अपने आप में अनुसंधान का विषय हैं। अगर आज जैसे संचार साधन होते तो पंडित नेहरू अपनी पुत्री इंदिरा गांधी को फोन करते, पर तब पिता के पत्र पुत्री के नाम नहीं लिखे जाते जो देश के करोड़ों लोगों को प्रेरणा देते हैं। पत्रों को तो आप सहेजकर रख लेते हैं पर एसएमएस संदेशों को आप जल्दी ही भूल जाते हैं। कितने संदेशों को आप सहेजकर रख सकते हैं ? तमाम महान हस्तियों की तो सबसे बड़ी यादगार या धरोहर उनके द्वारा लिखे गए पत्र ही हैं। भारत में इस श्रेणी में राष्ट्रपिता महात्मा गांधी को सबसे आगे की श्रेणी में रखा जा सकता है।

Question 1.
लोग अपने पुरखों की चिट्ठियों को किस रूप में संजोकर रखते हैं?
(a) विरासत के रूप में
(b) यादगार के रूप में
(c) दिखाने के लिए
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) विरासत के रूप में

Question 2.
पंडित नेहरू जी किसे पत्र लिखा करते थे?
(a) गांधी जी को
(b) मोती लाल नेहरू को
(c) इंदिरा जी को
(d) राजीव गांधी को

Answer

Answer: (c) इंदिरा जी को

Question 3.
अगर नेहरू जी के समय में आज जैसे संचार के साधन होते तो वे क्या करते?
(a) एस०एम०एस०
(b) फ़ोन करते
(c) पत्र लिखते
(d) ई-मेल करते

Answer

Answer: (b) फ़ोन करते

Question 4.
नेहरू जी के पत्र हमें क्या संदेश देते हैं?
(a) शिक्षा
(b) उमंग
(c) प्रेरणा
(d) राष्ट्रभक्ति

Answer

Answer: (c) प्रेरणा

Question 5.
पत्र और एस०एम०एस० में क्या अंतर है?
(a) एस०एम०एस० अधिक लंबे होते हैं
(b) पत्र के संदेशों को सँभालकर रखा जाता है
(c) एस०एम०एस० महँगे होते हैं
(d) पत्र के संदेश जल्दी मिलते हैं

Answer

Answer: (b) पत्र के संदेशों को सँभालकर रखा जाता है

(4)

पत्र व्यवहार की परंपरा भारत में बहुत पुरानी है। पर इसका असली विकास आजादी के बाद ही हुआ है। तमाम सरकारी विभागों की तुलना में सबसे ज्यादा गुडविल डाक विभाग की ही है। इसकी एक खास वजह यह भी है कि यह लोगों को जोड़ने का काम करता है। घर-घर तक इसकी पहुँच है। संचार के तमाम उन्नत साधनों के भी चिट्ठी-पत्री की हैसियत बरकरार है।

Question 1.
पत्र-व्यवहार का प्रचलन कब से हुआ?
(a) प्राचीनकाल से
(b) मध्यकाल से
(c) मुगल काल से
(d) आज़ादी के बाद से

Answer

Answer: (d) आज़ादी के बाद से

Question 2.
सरकारी विभागों में सबसे ज़्यादा मान्यता संचार साधनों के किस विभाग को है?
(a) आयकर विभाग को
(b) वित्त विभाग को
(c) डाक विभाग को
(d) संचार विभाग को

Answer

Answer: (c) डाक विभाग को

Question 3.
डाक विभाग की गुडविल क्यों है?
(a) सरकारी विभागों में पहुँच होना
(b) आम लोगों को जोड़ने का कार्य करने के कारण
(c) घर-घर तक पत्र बाँटना
(d) हर जगह इसके कार्यालय का होना

Answer

Answer: (b) आम लोगों को जोड़ने का कार्य करने के कारण

Question 4.
मनीआर्डर क्या होता है?
(a) घर का आर्डर
(b) डाक का धन प्राप्त कला
(c) डाक व्यवस्था से एक स्थान से दूसरे स्थान पर डाकिए द्वारा धन उपलब्ध कराना
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (c) डाक व्यवस्था से एक स्थान से दूसरे स्थान पर डाकिए द्वारा धन उपलब्ध कराना

मनीआर्डर क्या होता है?

Question 5.
डाकिए को किए नाम से जाना जाता है?
(a) संदेशवाहक
(b) देवदूत
(c) देवव्रत
(d) अन्य

Answer

Answer: (b) देवदूत

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

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Power Sharing Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate Option:
The Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are known as……………..
(a) Indian Tamils
(b) Muslim Tamils
(c) Sri Lankan Tamils
(d) Christian Tamils
Answer:
(c) Sri Lankan Tamils

Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Which of the following terms/phrases appropriately describes “Eelam”?
(a) A city or a town
(b) A Nation/State
(c) Bureaucracy
(d) Cricket Team

Class 10 Power Sharing MCQ Question 3.
Choose the correctly matched pair about the different forms of sharing of power from the following options:
(I) Vertical Power sharing- UK
(II) Horizontal Power sharing- India
(III) Federal Division of Power- Sri Lanka
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (III) only
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Answer:
(b) Horizontal Power sharing- India

Explanation: India follows a system where power to legislate, execute the laws and adjudicate the execution are divided among three different organs of the government- all at the same level. This is called the Horizontal division of Power.

Related Theory
Federat Division of Power is the division of power among governments at different levels. This could be seen in Belgium- where power is divided among Central and Community government at the centre. Sri Lanka does not follow this. Vertical Power sharing can be found in the US and India.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 MCQ Question 4.
With respect to the concept of power-sharing, which of the following statements is not correct about Democracy?
(a) People rule themselves through representatives and institutions of self-governance in a democracy.
(b) People are the source of all political power and this power must be shared among them.
(c) Democratic countries believe in giving respect to ethnically diverse groups and views.
(d) Democracy does not allow the citizens to participate in the political process because power is only shared among representatives.
Answer:
(d) Democracy does not allow the citizens to participate in the political process because power is only shared among representatives. Explanation: Citizens exercise their power in elections where they choose their own representatives. Thus they hold the greatest amount of power.

Power Sharing MCQ Class 10 Question 5.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
…………… elects the communist government in Belgium.
(a) People belonging to the respective language communities.
(b) All the citizens of Belgium.
(c) Belgium’s leaders
(d) Ministers of the central government of Belgium
Answer:

MCQ Of Power Sharing Class 10 Question 6.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Belgium: Dutch-speaking community, Sri Lanka-……………..
(a) Sinhalas
(b) Sri Lankan Tamils
(c) Indian Tamils
(d) Muslims
Answer:
(a) Sinhalas

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Ch 1 Civics Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
Which of the following institutions is not one of the three organs of government that share powers?
(a) Legislature
(b) Bureaucracy
(c) Executive
(d) Judiciary
Answer:
(b) Bureaucracy

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which of the following measures does not establish Sinhala supremacy in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala is the only official language.
(b) Preferential Policies for government jobs.
(c) The state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
(d) Equal political rights to Sri Lankan Tamils.
Answer:
(d) Equal political rights to Sri Lankan Tamils.

Explanation: Other measures made Tamils feel neglected and ignored in their own country.

MCQ On Power Sharing Class 10 Question 9.
Modern democracies maintain a check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.
(a) Central government, state government and local bodies.
(b) Legislature, executive and judiciary.
(c) Among different social groups.
(d) Among different pressure groups.
Answer:
(b) Legislature, executive and judiciary

Explanation: Power sharing among legis¬lature, executive and judiciary is an example of horizontal distribution of power because these organs are placed at the same level and are allotted different powers, functions and jurisdictions. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs exercise unlimited power. This results in a balance of power among various institutions.

Related Theory
India is a federal country with a three-tier system, namely: central government, state government and local bodies. The constitution originally provided for a two-tier system and the third tier was added later, which administered local bodies. These tiers enjoy seperate jurisdictions and powers.

Civics Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 10.
By 1980s which part of Sri Lanka were the political organizations demanding to create an independent Tamil Eelam?
(a) Northern parts
(b) Eastern parts
(c) Western parts
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:

Civics Chapter 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
Belgium is a small country, located in which of the following continent?
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) North America
(d) None the these
Answer:

Class 10 Civics Ch 1 MCQ Question 12.
Which one of the following is a major ethnic group of Sri Lanka?
(a) Christian and Tamil
(b) Buddhist and Hindu
(c) Sinhalia and Tamil
(d) Sinhalia and Christian
Answer:
(c) Sinhalia and Tamil

Explanation: Tamils make up 18% of the ethnicity of Sri Lanka, and the Sinhalese community makes up 74% of the population, forming the largest ethnic composition in Sri Lanka.

Civics Ch 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 13.
There are countries in which the constitution clearly lays down the powers of different levels of government. This is called:
(a) Unitary division of power
(b) Federal division of power
(c) Constitutional division of power
(d) Only (c)
Answer:

Chapter 1 Civics Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
Under which of the following is power shared in the ‘community government’ of Belgium?
(a) Different social groups
(b) Different organs of government
(c) Central and State government
(d) State government and community government.
Answer:

Power Sharing MCQ Questions Question 15.
Which one of the following statements describes a special problem that Brussels presented?
(a) The Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but minority in the capital.
(b) The French-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but minority in the capital.
(c) The Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country and in the capital as welL
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) The Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but minority in the capital

Question 16.
Power-sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups. This is an example of which reason of the power-sharing?
(a) Prudential
(b) Moral
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Prudential

Explanation: There are two set of reasons of power sharing-prudential and moral. Prudential reasons stress that power-sharing will bring out better outcomes while moral reasons emphasize the very act of power-sharing as valuable.

Question 17.
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in which of the following year?
(a) 1946
(b) 1947
(c) 1948
(d) 1949
Answer:
(c) 1948

Question 18.
Which country has successfully negotiated differences among ethnic populations?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Belgium
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(b) Belgium

Which country has successfully negotiated differences among ethnic populations?

Explanation: The Belgian Government recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement to settle these ethnic diversities.

Related Theory
Sri Lanka could not solve the problem of their ethnic variation and suffered through a Civil war. Pakistan and Bangladesh however both continue to suffer through problems due to ethnic diversity. Most minority groups are dominated and suppressed in these nations.

Question 19.
What major steps did the Belgian government take to enable everyone to live together within the same country? Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) They amended their constitution four times
(b) They amended their constitution three times
(c) They formed a communist government
(d) Only (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) They amended their constitution four times

Explanation: Between 1970 and 1993, the Belgians amended their constitution four times.

Question 20.
Which of the following was the main reason for the killing of thousands of people in Sri Lanka?
(a) Cold war between Sinhala and Tamil-speaking population
(b) Civil war between Sinhala and Tamil-speaking population
(c) Atomic war between Sinhala and Tamil-speaking population
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Civil war between Sinhala and Tamil¬speaking population

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 21.
Belgium shares its border with how many countries of Europe?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
Answer:
(b) Four

Explanation: Belgium shares its border with four countries-France, Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.

Question 22.
Which of the following government in Belgium has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues?
(a) The Communist Government
(b) The Community Government
(c) The Central Government
(d) The Provincial Government
Answer:

Question 23.
A country in which principle of majoritarianism led to civil war:
(a) Belgium
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Netherlands
(d) Germany
Answer:
(b) Sri Lanka

Explanation: To secure dominance over the government by virtue of their majority, the government passed various acts favoring Sinhala Speakers. The distrust between the two communities- Sri Lanka Tamils and Sinhala Speaking Majority community turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into Civil war. As a result thousands of people of both communities have been killed.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 24.
Identify the form of power-sharing:
(1) The power-sharing arrangement between different organs of the government at the same level
(2) It is found in India.
Answer:
Horizontal form of power-sharing

Question 25.
Identify the country:
(1) It covers less area than the state of Haryana.
(2) It shares its geographical borders with the Netherlands, France and Germany.
(3) Its population is half that of Haryana.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 26.
Identify the community:
(1) They form a majority in Belgium.
(2) They do not speak French.
(3) They are concentrated in the Flemish Region.
Answer:
The Dutch-speaking community.

Explanation: Belgium’s 59 percent population lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language.

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 27.
Belgium is a small country in Europe and share borders with France, Italy, Germany and Luxembourg.
Answer:
Belgium is a small country in Europe and share borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.

Question 28.
Of the country’s total population, 59 per cent lives in the Wallonia region and speaks Dutch language.
Answer:

Question 29.
In Srilanka, an Act was passed in 1956 to recognize Tamil as the only official language, disregarding Sinhala.
Answer:
In Srilanka. an Act was passed in 1956 to recognize Sinhala as the only official language, disregarding Tamil.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 30.
In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak Dutch while 20 percent are French-speaking.
Answer:
In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak French while 20 percent are Dutch-speaking.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 31.
The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an offcial language, or regional autonomy and ……….
Answer:
Equality of opportunity in securing education andjobs

Explanation: The Act of 1956 established Sinhala supremacy in Sri Lanka and increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils which strained the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities over time.

Question 32.
The Belgian government shifted to a federal from a…………….. form of government.
Answer:
Unitary

Explanation: Change of system from Unitary to Federal enabled Belgium to accommodate regional diversities and cultural differences. Federal set up involved providing equal opportunities of sustenance, livelihood and policymaking to both French and Dutch speaking, division of powers of central government etc

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 33.
Rural Local Government is popularly known as …………….
Answer:
Panchayats

Explanation: The lowest level of government- the local government is also called Panchayats. Federal division of power has enabled countries to divide central power into subunits.

Question 34.
Between 1970-1993, the Constitution of Belgium was amended …… times.
Answer:
Four

Question 35.
………….. is the headquarters of the European Union.
Answer:
Brussels

Explanation: Brussels, the capital city of Belgium was chosen as the headquarters for a group of European Nations called the European Union.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 36.
Match the following percentage of the population from column A with the social groups in column B:

Column A (Percentage of Population)

Column B (Social Groups)
(a) 59 Percent (i) French-speakers
(b) 74 Percent (ii) Dutch-speakers
(c) 40 Percent (iii) Tamil-speakers
(d) 18 Percent (iv) Sinhala-speakers

Answer:

Column A (Percentage of Population)

Column B (Social Groups)
(a) 59 Percent (ii) Dutch-speakers
(b) 74 Percent (iv) Sinhala-speakers
(c) 40 Percent (i) French-speakers
(d) 18 Percent (iii) Tamil-speakers

Question 37.
Match the following keywords from column A with their explanation in column B:

Column A (Keywords) Column B(Explanation)
(a) Ethnic (i) A belief that Let majority community rule a country
(b) Civil war (ii) Calculation of gains and tosses
(c) Prudential (iii) Conflict between opposing groups
(d) Majorftarian (iv) Division based on shared culture

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 1

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 38.
Assertion (A): In a democracy, people are the source of all political power
Reason (R): This is because democracy is the rule of the people, for the people, by the people.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 39.
Assertion (A): Although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of the executive or laws made by the legislatures.
Reason (R): Judges are superior and more experienced than the executive.
Answer:

Question 40.
Assertion (A): Social conflict often leads to violence and political instability.
Reason (R): It brings disharmony among the social groups and destroys the peace of the region.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Imposing the will of the majority community over others, undermines the unity of the nation.
Reason (R): It divides the majority community itself.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: This is because due to majoritarianism the minority community begins to feel like its needs are neglected. It feels isolated and tends to develop feelings of secessionism.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Study the given picture and answer the qustion that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers 1
Which of the following statements appropriately describe the picture?
(a) Concentration of power under one centre undermines the concept of democracy.
(b) Concentration of power in one hand helps to make quick decisions.
(c) Democracy can help in division of powers.
(d) Despotic rulers do not leave much scope for power sharing.
Answer:
(a) Concentration of power under one centre undermines the concept of democracy.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 2.
Read the source and answer the following question:
Power can be shared among governments at different Levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level. Such a general government for the entire country is usually called the federal government. In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union Government.
Which of the following types of division of powers best describes the power division between the higher and lower levels of government?
(a) Horizontal division
(b) Side by Side division
(c) Triangle division
(d) Vertical Division
Answer:
(d) Vertical Division

Explanation: The division of powers between the government at the central level and at the state level can be seen as a vertical division because these governments are at different levels, forming a hierarchy. Hence the name vertical arrangement.

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
One basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all political power. In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-government. In a good democratic government, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society. Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies.

In modern democracies, which of the following options is not a form of power sharing arrangements?
(a) Among different organs of government, such as the Legislature, executive and judiciary.
(b) Among governments at different levels- a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level.
(c) Among different social groups.
(d) Among different genders.
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The Leaders of the SinhaLa community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of MAJOR.ITALIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.
What do you mean by Majoritarian measures and majoritarianism? Explain with emphasis as to what happened in Sri Lanka.
Answer:
The belief that a majority community can dominate multiple minority communities only because it has more number of people and can administer a country according to its own whims and fancies, without considering or respecting the interests of the minority community is called Majoritarianism. Measures to favour the majority are called majoritarian measures.

Majoritarianism was practiced in Sri Lanka when a democractically elected government assumed power in the parliament and to please the majority, passed laws supporting Sinhala speakers neglecting the interest of Sri lankan Tamils Sinhala speakers were preferred in educational and professional institutions above Sri Lankan Tamils. This turned into civil war due to rising conflicts between the two communities.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
“In the city of Beirut there lived a man called Khalil. His parents came from different communities. His father was an Orthodox Christian and mother a Sunni Muslim. This was not so uncommon in this modern, cosmopolitan city. People from various communities that lived in Lebanon came to live in its capital, Beirut. They lived together, intermingled, yet fought a bitter civil war among themselves.
One of Khalil’s uncles was killed in that war.

At the end of this civil war, Lebanon’s leaders came together and agreed to some basic rules for power sharing among different communities. As per these rules, the country’s President must belong to the Maronite sect of Catholic Christians. The Prime Minister must be from the Sunni Muslim community. The post of Deputy Prime Minister is fixed for Orthodox Christian sect and that of the Speaker for Shi’a Muslims. Under this pact, the Christians agreed not to seek French protection and the Muslims agreed not to seek unification with the neighbouring state of Syria.

When the Christians and Muslims came to this agreement, they were nearly equal in population. Both sides have continued to respect this agreement though now the Muslims are in clear majority. Khalil does not like this system one bit. He is a popular man with political ambition. But under the present system the top position is out of his reach. He does not practise either his father’s or his mother’s religion and does not wish to be known by either. He cannot understand why Lebanon can’t be like any other ‘normal’ democracy.
(A) Why can’t Lebanon be a normal democracy?
Answer:

(B) Give a name to this arrangement in Lebanon.
(a) Democratic arrangement
(b) Unitary Arrangement
(c) Power sharing arrangement
(d) Autocratic arrangement
Answer:
(c) Power sharing arrangement

Explanation: The sharing of highest posts and powers between the two religious sects is catted power sharing arrangement. It is done to accommodate civil war Like situations.

(C) Which of the following types of ethnic diversities is found in Lebanon?
(a) Caste Divisions
(b) Religious Divisions
(c) Gender Division
(d) Regional Division
Answer:
(b) Religious Divisions

Which of the following types of ethnic diversities is found in Lebanon?

Explanation: The Orthodox Christian and Sunni Muslim are the two religious communities- ethnicaLLy diverse from one another are found in Lebanon.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided political power. For a long time it was believed that all power of a government must reside in one person or group of persons located at one place. It was felt that if the power to decide is dispersed, it would not be possible to take quick decisions and to enforce them. But these notions have changed with the emergence of democracy.

One basic principle of democracy is that people rule themselves through institutions of self¬governance. In a good democratic government, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society. Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies. Therefore, it follows that in a democracy political power should be distributed among as many citizens as possible.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which one of the following is not one of the principles of democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power.
(b) People rule themselves through institutions of self-governance
(c) Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies.
(d) State governments are not as powerful as the Central government and work under their thumb.
Answer:
(d) State governments are not as powerful as the Central government and work under their thumb.

Explanation: Democracy is a political system where the will of the people is supreme. Hence it is considered before each decision is taken.

(B) Which of the following is used as another name to the Federal government in India?
(a) The Union Government
(b) The regional government
(c) The Provincial Government
(d) Community government
Answer:

(C) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
……………….. is an institution of self-governance.
(a) Panchayat
(b) Shopping Mall
(c) Restaurant
(d) Automobile Company
Answer:
(a) Panchayat

(D) Choose the correct option from the following for this description:
When power is divided between higher and lower levels of government, we can call it:
(a) Horizontal division of power-sharing
(b) Vertical division of power-sharing
(c) Diagonal Division of Power Sharing
(d) Unitary Division of Power sharing
Answer:
(b) Vertical division of power sharing Explanation: In vertical division of power sharing, central or federal or union government is the top level government meant for the entire country, below it are the state governments meant for states in India while the municipality and panchayat are the government lower than the state governments.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an oftcial language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs. But their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. By 1980s several political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state) in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka. The distrust between the two communities turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into a CIVIL WAR. As a result thousands of people of both the communities have been killed. Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many more lost their livelihoods. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following statements is not true about the Civil War of Sri Lanka?
(a) It was fought between Sri Lankan Muslim Tamils and Buddhist Sinhalese.
(b) It ended in 2009.
(c) It caused a lot of bloodshed among the civilians and the military.
(d) Sri Lankan Tamils caused struggles because their demands of autonomous state were disapproved.
Answer:
(a) It was fought between Sri Lankan Muslim Tamils and Buddhist Sinhalese.
Explanation: It was fought between the two top most communities- Sri Lankan Tamils and Buddhist Sinhali population.

(B) Which of the following statements is/are true about the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka?
(a) Singhalese form the majority only at the capital of Sri Lanka.
(b) Sri Lankan Tamils constituted about 82% of the total population of Sri Lanka.
(c) Singhalese and Tamils equally populate Sri Lanka.
(d) Singhalese dominate Sri Lankan Tamils throughout Sri Lanka.
Answer:
(d) Singhalese dominate Sri Lankan Tamils throughout Sri Lanka.

(C) Choose the correctly matched pair.
(I) Belgium – Linguistically variant populations
(II) India – Racially variant populations
(III) Sri Lanka – Religiously variant Population
(IV) Lebanon – Linguistically variant populations
(a) (I) only
(b) (III) & (IV) only
(c) (I) & (III) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:

(D) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
They wanted a separate state for themselves in Sri Lanka.
(a) Muslims
(b) Sinhalese
(c) Sri Lankan Christians
(d) Sri Lankan Tamils
Answer:
(d) Sri Lankan Tamils
Explanation: Tamils felt that they were ignored and neglected in Sri Lanka.

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow
Two different sets of reasons can be given in favour of power-sharing. Firstly, power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups. Since social conflict often leads to violence and political instability, power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order. Imposing the will of majority community over others may look like an attractive option in the short run, but in the long run it undermines the unity of the nation. Tyranny of the majority is not just oppressive for the minority; it often brings ruin to the majority as well. There is a second, deeper reason why power sharing is good for democracies. Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy. A democratic rule involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise, and who have to live with its effects. People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which one of the following is a prudential reason for power sharing?
(a) Power sharing helps in reducing the possibility of conflict between various social groups
(b) Power sharing is the spirit of democracy.
(c) Power sharing helps to strengthen a democratic political system.
(d) Power sharing makes it easier for governments to gather support.
Answer:

(B) Which of the following cart be an example of social division ending in violence?
(a) Sri Lankan Civil War
(b) Belgian Constitutional Amendment
(c) Indian adoption of Federalism
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Sri Lankan Civil War.
Explanation: Other two were peaceful, methodical processes.

(C) In a democracy, the power is not shared with:
(a) People who live in the democracy
(b) Social Groups which are present in the democracy
(c) Leaders of the governments
(d) Neighbouring countries
Answer:
(d) Neighbouring countries
Explanation: In a sovereign country, no external country can influence it in making any decision.

(D) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Tyranny means
(a) Government by a single or multiple rulers with few powers
(b) Government by a single or multiple rulers with absolute power
(c) Government by a single ruler
(d) Government by multiple rulers
Answer:
(b) Government by a single or multiple rulers with absolute power.
Explanation: Giving absolute powers in the hands of an individual or a group can lead to tyrannical or despotic government.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How and when was Sinhala recognised as the official language of Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Sinhala was recognised as the national language of Sri Lanka in 1956 through an act.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 2.
Which factor is responsible for increasing the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils?
Answer:
Majoritarianism of the democratically elected government.

Question 3.
Which types of powers does the Community government of Belgium enjoy? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
The government enjoys powers related to matters regarding culture, education and language of the people.

Question 4.
Who formed the majority in terms of population in Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Sinhala community.

Question 5.
What is a Homogenous Society?
Answer:
It shares a common language, ethnicity and culture. For example- Japan and South Korea.

Question 6.
What does the system of checks and balances ensure in power sharing?
Answer:

Question 7.
Why is power sharing desirable? Explain one reason.
Answer:
Power sharing reduces possibilities of social conflicts and the accumulation of powers in the hands of a particular group of people.

Question 8.
How is community government elected in Belgium?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 9.
Recognize the form of power sharing which is represented by the Community Government in Belgium.
Answer:
Power sharing among different social groups like the religious and linguistic groups,

Question 10.
An independent Tamil Eelam was one of the main demands of the Tamils in Sri Lanka. What is meant by ‘Eelam’ here?
Answer:
Here ‘Eelam’ means a separate state exclusively meant for the Tamils.

Question 11.
Why is there a need to give space to diverse social groups in the administration of a democratic country? Give any one reason.
Answer:
It is necessary to give space to diverse social groups in the administration of a country to avoid majoritarianism, accumulation of power in the hands of a particular social group which would lead to social conflicts.

Question 12.
Why is power sharing good for democracies? Explain one reason.
Answer:
Power sharing is good for the democracy as it helps to reduce conflicts between the social groups. Since social conflicts often lead to violence and political instability, power sharing is a good way to ensure stability and political order.

Related Theory
Power sharing is a term used to describe a system of governance in which power is proportionately divided between different organs of government, like judiciary, legislature and executive, and between different levels of government.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Question 13.
How did the feeLing of aLienation develop among Sri Lankan Thmils?
Answer:

Question 14.
Differentiate between community government in Belgium and majoritarian government in Sri Lanka.
Answer:

Belgium

Sri Lanka
(1) They adopted a policy of power-sharing. They adopted a policy of majoritarianism.
(2) They gave equal powers to all communities whether majority or minority They gave preferences to the majority (Sinhala) group alone disregarding the minority (Tamils).
(3) Hence, peace was maintained in Belgium.  Hence, conflicts arose in the two communities of Sri Lanka,

Question 15.
Why was there an acute problem in Brussels during 1950s and 1960s between the two communities ?
Answer:
There was a problem in Brussels in the 1950s and 1960s because the Dutch speaking people constituted majority in the country but were a minority in the capital.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Chapter 16 भोर और बरखा with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Chapter 16 भोर और बरखा with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 16 भोर और बरखा with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided भोर और बरखा Class 7 Hindi MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-7-hindi-with-answers/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Chapter 16 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

भोर और बरखा Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Bhor Aur Barkha MCQ Class 7 Question 1.
‘भोर और बरखा’ कविता की रचयिता हैं?
(a) सुभद्रा कुमारी चौहान
(b) मीरा बाई
(c) महादेवी वर्मा
(d) विनीता पाण्डेय।

Answer

Answer: (b) मीरा बाई

'भोर और बरखा' कविता की रचयिता हैं?

Class 7 Hindi Chapter 16 MCQ Question 2.
इस कविता में किसको जगाने का प्रयास किया जा रहा है?
(a) ग्वाल-बाल को
(b) बालक कृष्ण को
(c) राधा को
(d) कवयित्री को।

Answer

Answer: (b) बालक कृष्ण को

भोर और बरखा MCQ Class 7 Question 3.
दही कौन बिलो रही है?
(a) राधा
(b) यशोदा
(c) गोपियाँ
(d) ग्वाल-बाल।

Answer

Answer: (c) गोपियाँ

Bhor Aur Barkha Class 7 MCQ Question 4.
कृष्ण को जगाने के लिए द्वार पर कौन खड़े हैं?
(a) सारे ग्वाल-बाल
(b) यशोदा
(c) राधा
(d) देव और दानव।

Answer

Answer: (d) देव और दानव।

MCQ Questions For Class 7 Hindi Chapter 16 Question 5.
ग्वाल-बालकों के हाथ में क्या है?
(a) मक्खन
(b) रोटी-मक्खन
(c) रोटी
(d) मिसरी।

Answer

Answer: (b) रोटी-मक्खन

Ncert Class 7 Hindi Chapter 16 MCQ Question 6.
मीरा को किसके आने की भनक मिली।
(a) ग्वाल-बालों के आने की
(b) गोपियों के आने की
(c) श्रीकृष्ण के आने की
(d) माँ यशोदा के आने की।

Answer

Answer: (c) श्रीकृष्ण के आने की

Bhor Aur Barkha Class 7 Extra Questions Question 7.
इस कविता में किस ऋतु का वर्णन है-
(a) सर्द ऋतु का
(b) ग्रीष्म ऋतु
(c) वर्षा ऋतु
(d) वसंत ऋतु।

Answer

Answer: (c) वर्षा ऋतु

Bhor Or Barkha Class 7 MCQ Question 8.
किसके आने की आहट सुनकर मीरा प्रसन्न हो गई।
(a) गोपियों की
(b) ग्वाल-बालों की
(c) श्रीकृष्ण की
(d) सखियों की।

Answer

Answer: (c) श्रीकृष्ण की

किसके आने की आहट सुनकर मीरा प्रसन्न हो गई।

(1)

जागो बंसीवारे ललना!
जागो मोरे प्यारे!
रजनी बीती, भोर भयो है, घर-घर खुले किंवारे।
गोपी दही मथत, सुनियत हैं कंगना के झनकारे॥
उठो लालजी! भोर भयो है, सुर-नर ठाढ़े द्वारे।
ग्वाल-बाल सब करत कुलाहल, जय-जय सबद उचारै ॥
माखन-रोटी हाथ मँह लीनी, गउवन के रखवारे।
मीरा के प्रभु गिरधर नागर, सरण आयाँ को तारै॥

Class 7 Hindi Ch 16 MCQ Question 1.
कौन किसे जगाने का प्रयास कर रही है?

Answer

Answer: माता यशोदा बालक कृष्ण को नींद से जगाने का प्रयास कर रही हैं।

Bhor Aur Barkha MCQ Questions Class 7 Question 2.
इन पदों में किस समय का चित्रण है?

Answer

Answer: इन पदों में भोर के समय का चित्रण है।

Class 7th Hindi Chapter 16 MCQ Question 3.
मीरा के प्रभु कौन हैं? वे क्या-क्या करते हैं?

Answer

Answer: मीरा के प्रभु श्रीकृष्ण हैं। वे शरण में आए लोगों का उद्धार करते हैं।

Class 7 Hindi Bhor Aur Barkha MCQ Question 4.
ग्वाल-बाल क्या कर रहे हैं?

Answer

Answer: ग्वाल-बाल कोलाहल कर रहे हैं और जय-जय का उद्घोष कर रहे हैं उनके हाथ में माखन-रोटी है।

Bhor Aur Barkha Extra Questions Class 7 Question 5.
श्रीकृष्ण की शरण में आने पर क्या होता है?

Answer

Answer: जो भक्त श्रीकृष्ण की शरण में आता है, श्रीकृष्ण उसका उद्धार कर देते हैं यानी बेड़ा पार कर देते हैं।

Question 6.
कुलाहल और सबद शब्दों का तत्सम रूप क्या होगा?

Answer

Answer: कुलाहल-कोलाहल, सबद-शब्द

(2)

बरसे बदरिया सावन की।
सावन की, मन-भावन की॥
सावन में उमग्यो मेरो मनवा, भनक सुनी हरि आवन की।
उमड़-घुमड़ चहुँदिस से आया, दामिन दमकै झर लावन की॥
नन्हीं-नन्हीं बूंदन मेहा बरसे, शीतल पवन सुहावन की।
मीरा के प्रभु गिरधर नागर! आनंद-मंगल गावन की।

Question 1.
इस ‘काव्यांश’ में किस ऋतु का वर्णन है ?

Answer

Answer: इस काव्यांश में वसंत ऋतु का वर्णन है।

Question 2.
किसका मन उमंग से भर गया है और क्यों?

Answer

Answer: कवयित्री मीरा का मन उमंग से भर गया क्योंकि उन्हें श्रीकृष्ण के आने की भनक हो गई।

Question 3.
पद के आधार पर प्राकृतिक वातावरण का चित्रण कीजिए।

Answer

Answer: यहाँ वर्षा ऋतु में चारों ओर बादल उमड़-घुमड़ रहे हैं, नन्ही-नन्हीं बूंदें बरस रही हैं, और बिजली चमक रही है। ठंड वायु बहने के साथ रिम-झिम बारिश हो रही है।

Question 4.
सावन मास, सुहावना क्यों बन गया?

Answer

Answer: सावन का मौसम अत्यधिक सुहावना हो गया है, क्योंकि चारों-तरफ़ आकाश में काले-काले बादल छा गए है। बिजली की चमक चारों तरफ़ फैल रही है। रिमझिम-रिमझिम बारिश हो रही है। सावन सुहावन हो गया है। मंद-मंद शीतल हवा बह रही है।

Question 5.
दामिन और उमग्यो का अर्थ लिखिए।

Answer

Answer: दामिन-बिजली, उमग्यो-उमंग से भरा हुआ।

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

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Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Human Eye And Colourful World Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
A student traces the path of a ray of light through a glass prism for different angles of incidence. He analyses each diagram and draws the following conclusion:
(I) On entering prism, the Lightray bends towards its base.
(II) light ray suffers refraction at the point of incidence and point of emergence while passing through the prism.
(III) Emergent ray bends at a certain angle to the direction of the incident ray.
(IV) White emerging from the prism, the Lightray bends towards the vertex of the prism.
Out of the above inferences, the correct ones are:
(a) (I), (II) and (III)
(b) (I), (III) and (IV)
(c) (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) (I), (II) and (III)

Related Theory:
In a prism, the ray of light from air into glass bends towards the normal. The ray of light from glass to air bends away from the normal. In both cases, when a ray of light passes through a prism, it bends towards the base of the prism.

Human Eye And Colourful World MCQ Question 2.
A clear sky appears blue, because:
(a) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere
(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than the lights of all other colours by the atmosphere
(d) lights of all other colours are scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the atmosphere
Answer:

Human Eye Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of different colours of white light in the air?
(a) Red light moves the fastest.
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light.
(c) All the colours of the white light travel at the same speed.
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of red and violet light.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Human Eye MCQ Class 10 Question 4.
In the following diagram, the correctly marked angles are:
Human Eye And Colourful World Class 10 MCQ
(a) All
(b) Only ∠i, and ∠A
(c) ∠i, ∠r and ∠A
(d) ∠i, ∠A and ∠D
Answer:

Human Eye And The Colourful World MCQ Question 5.
The bluish colour of water in the deep sea is due to:
(a) the presence of algae and other plants found in water
(b) reflection of the sky in the water
(c) scattering of light
(d) absorption of light by the sea
Answer:
(c) scattering of light

Explanation: The bluish colour of water in the deep sea is due to scattering of light. The fine particles in water scatter mainly blue light having the shortest wavelength.

Related Theory:
Water appears blue because when white light from the Sun falls on the water molecules, only blue light is reflected and scattered and reaches our eyes.
The absorption of light by a molecule depends on the wavelength and the size of the molecule. A molecule absorbs light of a wavelength either equal to or greater than the order of the size of the object.
Since red, orange and yellow have longer wavelengths, they are absorbed by the water molecules, whereas blue, having a shorter wavelength, is scattered.

Colourful World Class 10 MCQ Question 6.
During the experiment, to trace the path of ray of light through the glass prism, students reported the following observations:
(I) The ray of light from air to glass at the first refracting surface bends away from the normal after refraction.
(II) At the second refracting surface, light rays entered from air to glass.
(III) Lightray suffers two refractions on passing through a prism and in each refraction it bends towards the base of the prism.
(IV) Lightray suffers two refractions on passing through a prism. In first refraction, it bends away from the normal while in the second refraction it bends towards the normaL
The correct observation is/are:
(a) (I) and (II) only
(b) (III) only
(c) (II) and (IV) only
(d) (I) and (IV) only
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Class 10 Human Eye And The Colourful World MCQ Question 7.
In an experiment to trace the path of a ray of light through a triangular glass prism, a student would observe that the emergent ray
(a) is parallel to the incident ray.
(b) is along the same direction of incident ray.
(c) gets deviated and bends towards the thinner part of the prism.
(d) gets deviated and bends towards the thicker part (base) of the prism.
Answer:

Class 10 Science Chapter 11 MCQ Question 8.
In the following ray diagram the correctly marked angle are:
Human Eye And Colourful World MCQ
(a) ∠i, and ∠e
(b) ∠A and ∠D
(c) ∠i, ∠e and ∠D
(d) ∠r, ∠A and ∠D
Answer:
(d) ∠r, ∠A and ∠D

Human Eye And Colourful World Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
A person cannot see distinctly the objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power:
(a) + 0.5 D
(b) – 0.5 D
(c) + 0.2 D
(d) – 0.2 D
Answer:

MCQ Of Human Eye Class 10 Question 10.
A student sitting on the last bench can read the letters written on the blackboard but is not able to read the letters written in his textbook. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The near point of his eyes has receded away.
(b) The near point of his eyes has come closer to him.
(c) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him.
(d) The far point of his eyes has receded away.
Answer:
(a) The near point of his eyes has receded away.

Explanation: The student can see the object which is far from him but can’t see nearby objects. It means that the near point of his eyes has receded away. This condition is known as hypermetropia or farsightedness.

MCQ On Human Eye Class 10 Question 11.
When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the:
(a) crystalline lens
(b) the outer surface of the cornea
(c) iris
(d) pupil
Answer:
(b) the outer surface of the cornea

Explanation: Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea. It causes most of the bending of incident light rays, i.e. refraction, to make them converge which in turn causes image formation on the retina.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Ch 11 Science Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles:
(a) are relaxed and the lens becomes thinner
(b) contract and the lens becomes thicker
(c) are relaxed and the lens becomes thicker
(d) contract and the lens becomes thinner
Answer:

The Colourful World Class 10 MCQ Question 13.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly.
(b) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly.
(c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly.
(d) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly.
Answer:
(c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly.

Explanation: Myopia is also termed as short-sightedness. A person suffering from myopia can see nearby objects clearly but not the distant objects. Whereas hypermetropia is termed as long-sightedness. A person suffering from hypermetropia can see distant objects clearly but not the nearby objects.

Class 10 Science Ch 11 MCQ Question 14.
Person suffering from cataract has:
(a) elongated eyeball
(b) excessive curvature of eye lens
(c) weakened ciliary muscles
(d) opaque eye Lens
Answer:

Human Eye And The Colourful World Class 10 MCQ Question 15.
When we enter a dark room coming from outside, immediately the things inside the room do not appear clear to our eyes. This is because:
(a) pupils do not open at all in the dark.
(b) pupils take time to adjust.
(c) light travels slower in a dark room.
(d) pupils open very quickly in the dark.
Answer:

MCQ Of Colourful World Class 10 Question 16.
The phenomena of light responsible for the working of the human eye is:
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) power of accommodation
(d) persistence of vision
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

MCQs On Human Eye And Colourful World Question 17.
The sky appears dark to passengers flying at very high altitudes mainly because:
(a) Scattering of light is not enough at such heights.
(b) There is no atmosphere at great heights.
(c) The size of molecules is smaller than the wavelength of visible light.
(d) The light gets scattered towards the earth.
Answer:
(a) Scattering of light is not enough at such heights.

Explanation: At higher altitude either the atmospheric medium is very rare or there are no particles present/ no atmosphere, thus the scattering of light taking place is not enough at such heights or no scattering of sunlight takes place. Hence, the sky appears dark to the passengers flying at very high altitude.

MCQ Of Human Eye And Colourful World Question 18.
Given below are some common observations related to optics. Select the row containing incorrect observations and its reason.

Observation Reason
(a) Colour of water in deep sea Scattering of light
(b) Apparent position of stars Atmospheric refraction
(c) Fishes appear higher than their actual depth Diffraction of light
(d) Spectrum seen on soap bubbles Dispersion of light

Answer:
(c) Observation: Fishes appear higher than their actual depth, Reason: Diffraction of light

Explanation: Fishes appear higher than their actual depth due to the refraction of light as light travels from water, an optically denser medium, to air, a rarer medium. Diffraction of light refers to the phenomena of bending of light around corners.

Class 10 Physics Human Eye And The Colourful World MCQ Question 19.
The defective eye of a person has near point 0.5 m and far point 75 cm. The table below lists the type of corrective lens and its power required for reading purposes and for seeing distant objects.

Select the row containing the correct information:

For reading purpose For seeing distant objects
(a) Concave lens of  power – 0.5 D Convex lens of power + 0.75 D
(b) Convex lens of power +0.5 D A concave lens of power – 0.75 D
(c) Convex Lens of power + 0.5 D Concave Lens of power-1.33 D
(d) Convex Lens of power + 2.0 D Concave Lens of power -1.33 D

Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Human Eye And Colourful World Question 20.
A 55-year-old near-sighted person wears spectacles with a power of – 2.5 D for distance viewing. His doctor prescribes a correction of + 2.0 D in the near-vision section of his bifocals. This is measured relative to the main part of the lens.

Select the correct statements:
(I) The focal length of the distance-viewing part of the lens is – 40 cm.
(II) The focal length of the near-vision part of the lens is + 50 cm.
(III) The focal length of the distance-viewing part of the lens is + 50 cm.
(IV) The focal length of the near-vision part of the lens is – 40 cm.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

Class 10 Science Human Eye And Colourful World MCQ Question 21.
A beam of white light falling on a glass prism gets split up into seven colours marked 1 to 7 as shown in the diagram
Select the incorrect statements regarding the colours marked from 1 to 7:
(I) The colour at position marked 7 and 5 are similar to the colour of the blood and colour of gold metal respectively.
(II) The colour at position marked 1 and 3 are similar to the colour of the blood and colour of gold metal respectively.
(III) The colour at position marked 3 and 4 are similar to the colour of the sky and colour of leaves in plants respectively.
(IV) The colour at position marked 5 and 4 are similar to the colour of the sky and colour of leaves in plants respectively.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

Question 22.
The defects of vision hypermetropia and myopia can be corrected by:
(a) Concave and a plano-convex lens
(b) Concave and convex lens
(c) Convex and concave lens
(d) Plano-concave lens for both defects.
Answer:
(c) Convex and concave lens

Explanation: Hypermetropia or farsightedness can be corrected by using convex lens of appropriate power and myopia by a concave lens of appropriate power.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Question 23.
The layer of atmosphere whose temperature is less than that of the hotter layer behaves as an optically
(a) denser medium
(b) rarer medium
(c) inactive medium
(d) either denser or rarer medium
Answer:
(a) denser medium

The layer of atmosphere whose temperature is less than that of the hotter layer behaves as an optically

Explanation: The layer of atmosphere whose temperature is less than that of hotter layer is more denser as compared to the hotter layer of the atmosphere. So, when light travels from a cooler layer of atmosphere to a hotter Layer, it will bend away from the normal.

Question 24.
The sun appears white at noon as:
(a) Blue colour is scattered the most
(b) Red colour is scattered the most
(c) Light is least scattered
(d) All the colours of the white light are scattered away
Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Science Chapter 11

For the following questions, two statements are given-one tabled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R) select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below: ,
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of the (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 25.
Assertion (A): Sky appears in blue colour.
Reason (R): Blue colour in sunlight travelling through atmosphere undergoes maximum scattering.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).

Explanation: The blue colour of the sky is due to the scattering of blue colour to the maximum extent by dust particles. The blue colour appears to be coming from the sky. Blue colour has the least wavelength. Hence, the correct option is (a).

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Question 26.
Assertion (A): When white light passes through a glass prism, red colour has deviated the least.
Reason (R): Red colour has the minimum speed in the glass prism.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: When white light passes through a glass prism, red colour deviates the least because red colour has maximum speed in the prism.

Question 27.
Assertion (A): When objects are observed through hot air, they appear to be moving slightly.
Reason (R): Hotter air is optically denser and the cooler air is optically rarer.
Answer:

Question 28.
Assertion (A): A rainbow is always formed in the sky after a rain shower and in the same direction as the sun.
Reason (R): Water droplets act as tiny prisms.
Answer:
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Explanation: A rainbow is always formed in the sky in a direction opposite to that of the sun. The water droplets present in the sky act as tiny prisms, which refract and disperse sunlight, then reflect it internally and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Question 29.
Assertion (A): The sun’s disc appears to be flattened at sunrise and sunset.
Reason (R): The sun is near the horizon at sunrise and sunset and sunlight suffers atmospheric refraction.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Ankit remarked that he has seen wavering of objects when seen through a stream of hot air rising above a tandoor or a fire. He said that the air just above the fire becomes hotter than the air further higher up. He further said that this wavering can also be seen in the earth’s atmosphere as the earth’s atmosphere is not evenly distributed and several observations can be explained on the basis of this phenomenon.
(A) Name the phenomenon about which Ankit remarked.
(B) Name two observations which can be explained by the above phenomenon.
(C) What is the total time difference on duration of day on earth?
(D) Why don’t planets twinkle?
Answer:
(B) The two observations are: twinkling of stars, advance sunrise, delayed sunset and apparent position of stars. (Any two).
(D) Planets are much closer to the earth and can be considered as extended sources or a collection of several point sources. The total variation in intensity of light entering our eyes from each of these point sources average out to zero, thereby nullifying the twinkling effect.

Question 2.
Renu was returning home after purchasing some medicines for her mother. It was noon and really very hot on that particular day. She tried to look at the sun but the sun was shining so brightly that she could hardly see it directly. She somehow managed to see its reflection on a window and noticed that the colour of sun was white.
Human Eye Class 10 MCQ
At noon, the Sun appears white as:
(a) light is least scattered
(b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) blue colour is scattered the most
(d) red colour is scattered the most
Answer:
(a) light is least scattered
Explanation: At noon, the sun is directly over head and has lesser air to travel through and thus will be reduced if the distance to be traveled in air is reduced. Less scattering leads to the Sun appearing white as only a little of the blue and violet colour is scattered.
Human Eye MCQ Class 10

Question 3.
Raman is a keen observer and loved the spectacular colours in a rainbow. He also observed the same pattern when he allowed sunlight to pass through a glass prism. He guessed that it is due to the inclined refracting surfaces of a glass prism which is responsible for showing such exciting phenomenon. Whereas, no such phenomenon was observed when light passes through a glass slab.
(A) Name the phenomenon which could explain the formation of rainbow.
Answer:
The phenomenon which could explain the formation of rainbow is dispersion or splitting of light into its component colours.

(B) What is the band of colours known as?
Answer:

(C) What is the cause of formation of band of colours?
Answer:
The cause for formation of spectrum of light is that different colours of Light bend through different angles with respect to the incident ray as light passes through a prism,

(D) Why don’t we observe similar band of colours when light passes through a glass slab?
Answer:
We don’t observe splitting of white light into its component colours when light passes through a glass slab because the refracting surfaces in a glass slab are parallel to each other whereas they are inclined at an angle in a glass prism

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Question 4.
Sunny and his friends went to the terrace of their apartment building to watch the night sky. They noticed that all apartment buildings had red light installed at the terrace. Sunny had also seen red lights on top of tall towers such as the Pitampura TV tower and even on top of the GSM towers.
Human Eye And The Colourful World MCQ
The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour, These can be easily seen from a distance because among all other colours, the red light:
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(d) moves the fastest in air
Answer:
(b) is scattered the Least by smoke or fog

Explanation: Among all the colours, red is scattered the Least by smoke or fog. This is because the wavelength of red colour is the largest. Thus, it can be easily seen from a distance. Since the wavelength of red light is maximum in the spectrum, it’s penetration power in the air is maximum and so we can see red colour from farther distances, thus, danger signal uses red colour.

Question 5.
Fix a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using drawing pins. Place a glass prism on it in such a way that it rests on its triangular base. Trace the outline of the prism using a pencil. Draw a straight line PE inclined to one of the refracting surfaces, say AB, of the prism. Fix two pins, say at points P and Q, on the line PE as shown in Fig. below.

Look for the images of the pins, fixed at P and Q, through the other face AC. Fix two more pins, at points R and S, such that the pins at R. and S and the images of the pins at P and Q lie on the same straight line. Remove the pins and the glass prism. The line PE meets the boundary of the prism at point E. Similarly, join and produce the points R and S. Let these lines meet the boundary of the prism at E and F, respectively. Join E and F. Draw perpendiculars to the refracting surfaces AB and AC of the prism at points E and F, respectively. Mark the angle of incidence (i), the angle of refraction (r) and the angle of emergence (e) as shown in Fig.
Colourful World Class 10 MCQ
(A) Given below are four statements regarding incident ray, refracted ray and emergent ray in the above figure.
Select the incorrect statements:
(I) PE is the incident ray.
(II) EF is the emergent ray.
(III) EF is the refracted ray and FS is the emergent ray.
(IV)PE is the incident ray and FS is the refracted ray.
(a) Both (1) and (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) Both (II) and (IV)

Explanation: Here PE is the incident ray, EF is the refracted ray and FS is the emergent ray. PE is the incident ray as light, is incident on the prism face AB. Light undergoes refraction in the glass prism and bends away from the normal and hence EF is the refracted ray. The ray FS is the emergent ray as light emerges out of the face AC of the prism along this direction.

(B) The angles of incidence (i), refraction (r) and emergence (e) are mentioned in the table below. Select the row containing the correct marking of angles:
Class 10 Human Eye And The Colourful World MCQ
Class 10 Science Chapter 11 MCQ
Answer:

(C) The angle of deviation is the angle between:
(a) Refracted ray and incident ray
(b) Refracted ray and emergent ray
(c) Emergent ray and face AC of the prism
(d) Emergent ray and incident ray
Answer:

(D) In a glass prism, the emergent ray is not parallel to the incident ray as:
(a) The laws of refraction do not hold in the case of glass prism.
(b) The refracting surfaces are inclined at an angle.
(c) The angle of refraction in glass is greater than the angle of incidence.
(d) The angle of refraction in glass is greater than the angle of emergence.
Answer:

(E) If n is the refractive index of glass of which the prism is made, which of the following relations is correct ?
(a) n = \(\frac{\sin \angle i}{\sin \angle r}\)
(b) n = \(\frac{\sin \angle r}{\sin \angle i}\)
(c) n = \(\frac{\sin 90^{\circ}}{\sin \angle e}\)
(d) n = \(\frac{\sin \angle r}{\sin \angle e}\)
Answer:
(a) n = \(\frac{\sin \angle i}{\sin \angle r}\)

Question 6.
While walking along the beach in Mumbai, Madhuri and her friends were amazed at the beauty of the setting sun and its reflection on the sea against the backdrop of buildings. They observed that the sun appeared reddish at sunset and even at sunrise.
Human Eye And Colourful World Class 10 MCQ With Answers
Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset?
(a) Dispersion of light
(b) Scattering of light
(c) Total internal reflection of light
(d) Reflection of light from Earth
Answer:
(b) Scattering of light

Explanation: Scattering of light contributes to the reddish appearance of the Sun at sunrise or sunset. Near the horizon, most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered away by the particles. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelengths. The red light has the maximum wavelength. This gives rise to the reddish appearance of the Sun.

Related Theory
Light from the Sun, near the horizon, passes through thicker layers of air and a large distance in Earth’s atmosphere before reaching our eyes. Near the horizon, most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered awau by the particles. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelengths. The red light has the maximum wavelength. This gives rise to the reddish appearance of the Sun.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Question 7.
Place a strong source (S) of white light at the focus of a converging lens (Lj). Allow the light beam to pass through a transparent glass tank (T) containing clear water. Allow the beam of light to pass through a circular hole (c) made in a cardboard. Obtain a sharp image of the circular hole on a screen (MN) using a second converging lens (Ly), as shown in Fig. below.
Dissolve about 200 g of sodium thiosulphate (hypo) in about 2 L of clean water taken in the tank. Add about 1 to 2 mi of concentrated sulphuric acid to the water.
MCQ Of Human Eye Class 10
(A) What is the role of lenses L1 and L2 in the activity?

Role of Lens L1 Role of Lens L2
(a) Converges a beam of light placed at S  Converges a parallel beam of light
(b) Provides a parallel beam of light  Converges a parallel beam of light
(c) Provides a parallel beam of light  Provides a parallel beam of light
(d) Converges a beam of light placed at S  Provides a parallel beam of light

Answer:

(B) When about 200 g of sodium thiosulphate (hypo) is dissolved in about 2 L of clean water taken in the tank and about 1 to 2 mL of concentrated sulphuric acid is added to the water, it is observed that:
(a) A true solution is formed after 2 to 3 minutes.
(b) A suspension of sodium is formed in the tank
(c) Sulphur particles start precipitating in about 2 to 3 minutes.
(d) No change is observed.
Answer:
(c) Sulphur particles start precipitating in about 2 to 3 minutes.

Explanation: We will find fine microscopic sulphur particles precipitating in about 2 to 3 minutes due to the reaction between sulphuric acid and sodium thiosulphate.

(C) The observations regarding change in colour of light in the tank about 2 to 3 minutes after adding sulphuric acid to hypo is:
(I) Blue light can be seen from the side of the tank facing the circular hole.
(II) Blue light can be seen from the three sides of the glass tank.
(III) At first orange-red light and then red light can be seen from the side of the tank facing the circular hole.
(IV) At first orange-red light and then red light can be seen from the three sides of the glass tank.
Select the incorrect observations:
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) The observations can be explained by the phenomenon of:
(a) Scattering of light
(b) Reflection of light
(c) Refraction of light
(d) Dispersion of light
Answer:

(E) The activity above helps us in understanding:
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Formation of rainbow
(c) Advance sunrise and delayed sunset
(d) Reddish appearance of the Sun at the sunrise
Answer:
(d) Reddish appearance of the Sun at the sunrise

Explanation: This activity demonstrates the scattering of light that helps us to understand the bluish colour of the sky and the reddish appearance of the Sun at the sunrise or the sunset. Near the horizon, most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are scattered away by the particles. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelengths. This gives rise to the reddish appearance of the Sun.

Question 8.
Parth noticed that his father had two sets of spectacles. So he asked him the reason for the same. His father explained that one spectacle is for viewing distant objects while the other is for reading books. It means that his father had both the defects of vision- farsightedness as well as nearsightedness.
MCQ On Human Eye Class 10
The defect of vision in which the image of nearby objects is formed behind the retina is
(a) Near sightedness
(b) Cataract
(c) Far sightedness
(d) Presbyopia
Answer:
(c) Far sightedness

Explanation: Farsightedness or hypermetropia is the defect of vision in which the image of a nearby object is formed behind the retina due to either long focal length of the eye lens or shortening of the eye ball.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Question 9.
We’ve all seen that part in the movie where the weary desert wanderer has been walking for hours and is dying of thirst. Then he happens upon a vast body of water on the horizon. He runs towards the water, it grows closer and closer, until he springs himself into the air only to land back down in the sand and no water in sight. Well, that is due to an optical illusion called Mirage.

Mirage is an optical phenomenon which creates an illusion of the presence of water and is a result of refraction of light from a non-uniform medium. Mirage is observed mainly during sunny days when driving on a roadway. Normally, light waves from the sun travel straight through the atmosphere to your eye. But, light travels at different speeds through hot air and cold air.

Mirages happen when the ground is very hot and the air is cool and a ray of light gets refracted more and more away from the normal. At a particular angle when a ray of light exceeds critical angle, total internal reflection takes place and ray of light gets reflected in the same medium. When the reflected ray reaches our eye, it appears as coming from tree or sky and hence the inverted image of tree creates an impression from a pond of water.
Ch 11 Science Class 10 MCQ
(A) Mirage is an example of:
(a) Reflection of tight and Refraction of Light
(b) Dispersion of Light
(c) Total internat Reflection
(d) Refraction of Ught and Total internal Reflection of Light
Answer:
(d) Refraction of light and Total Internal Reflection of Light

Explanation: As the air just above the ground is hotter than the air above it, light traveling from a distant object travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium and hence bends away from the normal. So, it undergoes refraction. Since light is travelling from a denser medium to a rarer medium, at a certain angle which is greater than the critical angle, the light undergoes total internal reflection.

(B) Mirages are more common in:
(a) rainforests
(b) dry forests
(c) deserts
(d) highlands
Answer:
(c) deserts

Mirages are more common in:

Explanation: Mirages are formed on hot sunny days in deserts or road surfaces when the air just above the ground is much hotter than the air above it.

(C) Mirage is formed because:
(I) Air above the ground is very hot and air above is cooler
(II) Air above the ground is cooL and air above is warmer.
(III) Light rays from a distant object bend towards the normal when coming towards the ground.
(IV) Light rays from a distant object bend away from the normal when coming towards the ground.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(b) Both (I) and (IV)

Explanation: Mirage is formed on a hot day when the air just above the ground is hotter than the air above it. As hotter air is optically rarer than cooler air, light traveling from a distant object travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium and hence bends away from the normal. Since light is travelling from a denser medium to a rarer medium, at a certain angle which is greater than the critical angle, the light undergoes total internal reflection.

(D) Atmospheric refraction occurs because:
(a) Refractive index in medium is gradually changing
(b) Of presence of dust particles in atmosphere
(c) Large amount of moisture is present in atmosphere on a humid day
(d) Sun’s rays travel the most when sun is near the horizon
Answer:

(E) When starlight enters the earth’s atmosphere:
(a) it bends away from the normal
(b) It bends towards the normal
(c) It first bends towards the normal and then away from the normal
(d) It first bends away from the normal and then towards the normal.
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Question 10.
The rising sun looks so beautiful! On a trip to a hill station, Raj was overjoyed to see such a beautiful sight of the sun just rising above the horizon! But his father later told him that the sun had not risen yet and what he is actually seeing is due to an optical phenomenon!
The Colourful World Class 10 MCQ
Why is the sun visible to us 2 minutes before actual sunrise and 2 minutes after actual sunset?
Class 10 Science Ch 11 MCQ
Answer:
The sun is visible to us 2 minutes before actual sunrise and 2 minutes after actual sunset due to the phenomenon of atmospheric refraction. During this time when the sun is still below the horizon, the sun’s rays enter the earth’s atmosphere and undergo continuous refraction and bend towards the normal as the refractive index increases continuously as we reach the earth’s surface. So. the sun is visible to us.

Question 11.
The inner workings of the human eye are corn ple but at the same time, fascinating. Have you wondered how exactly they do work or what are the major parts of the eye involved in creating Vision? It helps us in visualizing objects and also helps us in light perception, color, and depth perception. Besides, these sense organs are pretty much similar to cameras, and they help us see objects when light coming from outside enters into them. The structures and functions of the eyes are complex. Each eye constantly adjusts the amount of light it lets in, focuses on objects near and far, and produces continuous images that are instantly transmitted to the brain.
Human Eye And The Colourful World Class 10 MCQ
(A) The image formed by eye tens ¡s:
(a) Real and erect
(b) Virtual and erect
(c) Real and inverted
(d) Virtual and inverted
Answer:
(c) Real and inverted

Explanation: The eye Lens forms an inverted and real image of the object on the retina as eye tens is a convex lens.

(B) Most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at:
(a) Outer surface of the cornea.
(b) Eye Lens
(c) Pupil
(d) Vitreous humour
Answer:
(a) Outer surface of the cornea.

Explanation: Most of the refraction for the Light rays entering the eye occurs at the Outer surface of the cornea. The crystalline Lens mereLy provides the finer adjustment of focal length required to focus objects at different distances on the retina.

(C) Select the correct statements:
(I) The change in the curvature of the eye lens can change its focal length.
(II) When the citiary muscles are relaxed, the Lens becomes thin and its focal length decreases.
(III) When the ciliary muscles contract, the Lens becomes thicker and its focal length increases.
(IV)Thin tens enables us to view distant objects clearly whereas thick lens enables us to see nearby objects clearly.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) The near point and far point of a young adult with normal vision is:
(a) Near point = 0 cm and Far point = 25cm
(b) Near point = 25 cm and far point = 50 m
(c) Near point = 0 m and far point = infinity
(d) Near point = 25 cm and far point = infinity
Answer:

(E) Select the row containing incorrect part of human eye and its function

Part of Human Eye Function
(a) Retina  Delicate membrane having Large number of Light-sensitive cells.
(b) Iris  Changes the curvature of eye Lens
(c) Cornea  A thin membrane through which Light enters the eye
(d) Pupil  An aperture that regukites and controls the amount of Light

Answer:
(b) Part of Human Eye: Iris; Function: Change the curvature of eye Lens.

Explanation: Iris is a dark muscular assembly that controls the size of the pupil. The muscle that changes the curvature of eye lens is ciliary muscles.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Question 12.
Shradhas parents took her grandfather to the eye speciaList as he was complaining of difficulty in seeing things. The doctor diagnosed it as cataract and said that it is quite common in old age.
MCQ Questions For Class 10 Science Chapter 11
What is cataract? How is it caused? How can it be corrected?
Answer:
The condition when there is partial or complete loss of vision in the eye of people at old age is known as cataract. It is caused when the crystalline lens of eye becomes milky andcloudy.

It can be corrected through a cataract surgery.

Question 13.
Piyush, who was a backbencher in class, started complaining of frequent headaches. His parents took him to the nearest clinic and the doctor referred him to the eye specialist. The eye specialist tested his vision and asked Piyush whether he was able to read whatever the teacher wrote on the blackboard clearly or not. He replied in the negative. The doctor told his parents about the defect of vision that Piyush was suffering from and advised corrective glasses.
After wearing the glasses, Piyush was now able to read the black board clearly and also got rid of his headaches.
MCQ Of Colourful World Class 10
(A) @Piyush was suffering from:
(a) Cataract
(b) Myopia
(c) Hypermetropic
(d) Presbyopia
Answer:

(B) Select the correct statements regarding the defect of vision Piyush was suffering from:
(I) A person with this defect has the far point nearer than infinity.
(II) A person with this defect has the near point greater than the least distance of distinct vision.
(III) A person suffering from this defect may see clearly upto a distance of a few metres.
(IV) A person suffering from this defect may not see clearly beyond the near point.
(a) Both (I) and (III)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Both (II) and (IV)
Answer:
(a) Both (I) and (III)

Explanation: As Piyush is suffering from myopia, a person with this defect has the far point nearer than infinity. A person suffering from this defect may see clearly upto a distance of a few metres. That is why myopia is also known as short sightedness.

(C) Which of the following is not true about the defect of vision Piyush is suffering from ?
(a) It is caused due to excessive curvature of the eye lens
(b) It may be caused due to elongation of the eyeball.
(c) The image of a distant object is formed behind the retina.
(d) It is corrected by using a concave lens of appropriate power.
Answer:

(D) The far point of a myopic person is 50 cm in front of the eyes. The nature and power of the lens required for correct the problem is:

Nature of Lens Power of Lens
(a) Concave  – 0.5 D
(b) Concave  – 2.0 D
(c) Convex  + 0.5D
(d) Convex  + 2.0D

Answer:
(b) Nature of Lens – Concave: Power of Lens – 2.0 D

Explanation: To find the focal length, we use the lens formula
\(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u} \Rightarrow \frac{1}{f}=-\frac{1}{50}\) ⇒ f = – 0.5 m
Power of the lens = \(-\frac{1}{0.5}\) = – 2.0 D
As focal length of the corrective lens is negative, the type of lens used is a concave lens.

(E) A person needs a lens of power – 4.5 D for correction of her vision. The nature of lens and its focal length is:

Nature of Lens Focal length
(a) Concave  – 45cm
(b) Convex – 45cm
(c) Convex  + 22.22 cm
(d) Concave  + 22.22 cm

Answer:
(d) Nature of Lens – Concave :Focal Length – 22.22 cm

Explanation: It is given that the power of the corrective lens = – 4.5 D. We know that
As the focal length is negative, the lens is a concave lens.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Question 14.
Pankaj noticed that while reading books or newspaper, most people keep the book neither too far nor too close to their eyes. So, he himseLf tried to find out what happens when he tried to read the book by keeping the book quite far. He immediately said that he could not read all Letters clearly. When he tried to read a book by keeping it very dose to his eyes, the letters had become blurred and his eyes started paining!
MCQ Questions On Human Eye And Colourful World
Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm?
Answer:
The normal eye has the remarkable property to see objects when placed at any distance from the eye due to the ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length which is called accommodation. However, the normal eye is not able to see clearly objects placed closer to 25 cmas the focal length of the eye lens cannot bedecreased below a certain minimum limit.

Question 15.
Everyone enjoys the spectacle of a rainbow glimmering against a dark stormy sky. How does sunlight falling on clear drops of rain get broken into the rainbow of colors we see? The same process causes white light to be broken into colors by a clear glass prism or a diamond. Sunlight, considered to be white, actually appears to be a bit yellow because of its mixture of wavelengths, but it does contain all visible wavelengths.
The sequence of colors in rainbows is the same sequence as the colors plotted versus wavelength in Figure below. What this implies is that white light is spread out according to wavelength in a rainbow.
(A) The phenomena that play a role in the formation of rainbow is:
(a) Reflection and refraction of light
(b) Refraction, absorption, dispersion and refraction of light
(c) Dispersion, refraction and reflection of light
(d) Refraction, dispersion, reflection and refraction of light
Answer:
(d) Refraction, dispersion, reflection and refraction of light

Explanation: Rainbow is produced after the rain, by refraction, dispersion, total internal reflection and again refraction process in droplets of water

(B) Select the colours in the correct ascending of wavelength:
(a) Blue, Green, Red
(b) Orange, Green, Red
(c) Blue, Yellow, Green
(d) Orange, Yellow, Green
Answer:

(C) Select the incorrect statements about rainbow:
(I) Rainbow is caused by scattering of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere.
(II) A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun.
(III) The water droplets refract and scatter the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop.
(IV) Different colours reach the observer’s eye due to the scattering of light and internal reflection.
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (II), (III) and (IV)
Answer:
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)

Explanation: A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower, it is caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere which act like small prisms. A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun. The tiny droplets of water refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract the light again when it comes out of the raindrop. Due to the dispersion of light and internal reflection, different colours reach the observer’s eye.

(D) A spectrum of light is observed when white light is directed to a prism as:
(a) The different colours in the white light bend away from the normal line at different angles on entering prism.
(b) The different colours in the white
light bend towards the normal line at different angles on entering prism.
(c) The different colours in the white light bend away from the normal at same speed to each other on entering prism.
(d) The different colours in the white light bend towards the normal at same speed to each other on entering prism.
Answer:

(E) The velocity of waves of all colours is same in:
(a) Water
(b) Oxygen
(c) Vacuum
(d) Glass
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Question 16.
Mike and his friends were enjoying a bonfire in their garden. One of his friends noticed that the air above the fire was wavering. He realized that this is because the physical conditions of air are notstationary because of which the apparent position of the object, as seen through the hotair, changes continuously. This phenomenon can also be used to explain several observations around us.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers 19
Why do stars appear higher than they actually are?
Answer:
Stars appear higher than they actually are due to the phenomenon of atmospheric refraction. When the starlight enters the earth’s atmosphere, it undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches the earth as the refractive index of the atmosphere changes continuously. The atmosphere bendsstarlight towards the normal due to which the apparent position of thestar is slightly different from its actual position.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers 20

Question 17.
In addition to being absorbed or transmitted, electromagnetic radiation can also be reflected or scattered by particles in the atmosphere. Scattering is the redirection of electromagnetic energy by suspended particles in the atmosphere. The Tyndall effect is light scattering by particles in a colloid or in a very fine suspension.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers 21
The type and amount of scattering that occurs depends on the size of the particles and the wavelength of the energy. Rayleigh scatter occurs when radiation (light) interacts with molecules and particles in the atmosphere that are smaller in diameter than the wavelength of the incoming radiation. Shorter wavelengths are more readily scattered tha longer wavelengths.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers 22
(A) Which of the following will not show Tyndall effect?
(a) Milk
(b) Sugar solution
(c) Smoke
(d) Emulsion
Answer:
(b) Sugar solution

Explanation: Tyndall effect is shown by colloids and suspensions but not shown by true solutions. As sugar solution is a true solution, it will not show Tyndall effect.

(B) Tyndall effect is due to
(a) Refraction of light
(b) Dispersion of light
(c) Absorption of light
(d) Scattering of light
Answer:
(d) Scattering of light

Explanation: Tyndall effect is due to scattering of light by particles present in the atmosphere, such as smoke, fine dust particles and gas molecules.

(C) Which of the following natural phenomena are not due to scattering of light in nature?
(I) Blue colour of sky
(II) Twinkling of stars
(III) Formation of rainbow
(IV) Colour of water in deep sea
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV)
(d) Both (III) and (IV)
Answer:

(D) The table below lists the colour of scattered light for different sizes of scattering particles.
Select the row containing the correct information:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers 23
Answer:

(E) The blue colour of the sky is because:
(a) Red colour is scattered more as compared to other colours
(b) Red colour is absorbed more as compared to other colours
(c) Blue colour is scattered more as compared to other colours
(d) Blue colour is absorbed more as compared to other colours
Answer:
(c) Blue colour is scattered more as compared to other colours

Explanation: The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have sizesmaller than the wavelength of visible light and these are more effective inscattering Light of shorter wavelengths at the blue end than light of longerwa wavelengths at the red end. Thus, when sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the fine particles in air scatter the blue colour (shorter wavelengths) more strongly than red and the sky appears blue to us as the scattered blue light entersour eyes.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What would have been the colour of sky if the earth had no atmosphere?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Question 2.
Why do stars appear higher than their actual position?
Answer:
Stars appear higher than their actual position as starlight undergoes refraction continuously on entering earth’s atmosphere and bends towards the normal.

Question 3.
On the basis of which observation did Newton conclude that sunlight is made up of seven colours?
Answer:

Question 4.
How does the refractive index of earth’s atmosphere vary with height?
Answer:

Question 5.
Why is a small amount of sodium thiosulphate added to water in tank in the activity to understand reddish appearance of sun at sunrise and sunset?
Answer:
Sodium thiosulphate is added to water in the tank for precipitating minute colloidal sulphur particles which scatter short wavelengths of Light.

Question 6.
State one effect produced by the scattering of light by the atmosphere?
Answer:
There are two effects produced due to scattering of light in the atmosphere: Tyndall effect and appearance of the blue colour of the sky.

Related Theory
When light moves from one medium to another, the light scatters in different directions due to change in the medium. This is called scattering of light. When tiny particles of dust come in front of light and leads to its scattering, this is called Tyndall effect. We can see these tiny dust particles in the scattered light.

When the light from stars enters the atmosphere, the light with smaller wavelengths gets easily scattered, while lights with longer wavelength do not scatter much and hence travels straight. This gives red colour to the sky during sunrise and sunset.

On the other hand, the shorter wavelengths scatter in the sky and give the sky its usual blue colour.

Question 7.
An astronaut in space finds sky to be dark. Explain reason for this observation. [Diksha]
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Question 8.
What is a rainbow? Draw a labelled diagram to show the formation of a rainbow.
Answer:
Rainbow: A rainbow is a natural spectrum formed in the sky after a rain shower due to the dispersion of sunlight by the tiny droplets of water present in the atmosphere. The tiny droplets of water act like small prisms which refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect the light internally and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop. Different colours reach the observer’s eyes due to the dispersion of light and internal reflection.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers 24

Question 9.
Why does the sun appear white at noon?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Chapter 10 कामचोर with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Chapter 10 कामचोर with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Vasant Chapter 10 कामचोर with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided कामचोर Class 8 Hindi MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-8-hindi-with-answers/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Hindi Chapter 10 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

कामचोर Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Kamchor Class 8 MCQ Question 1.
‘कामचोर’ कहानी के लेखक कौन हैं?
(a) कामतानाथ
(b) भगवती चरण वर्मा
(c) इस्मत चुगताई
(d) जया जादवानी

Answer

Answer: (c) इस्मत चुगताई

Class 8 Hindi Chapter 10 MCQ Question 2.
आखिर ये मोटे-मोटे किस काम के हैं? ऐसा किन्हें कहा गया है?
(a) नौकरों को
(b) पड़ोसियों को
(c) घर के बच्चों को
(d) नौकरों को

Answer

Answer: (c) घर के बच्चों को

Class 8 Hindi Ch 10 MCQ Question 3.
काम करने के लिए कौन तैयार हो गए?
(a) नौकर
(b) घर के बच्चे
(c) माता-पिता
(d) चाचा

Answer

Answer: (b) घर के बच्चे

Kaamchor Class 8 MCQ Question 4.
बच्चों को काम करवाने के लिए क्या लालच दिया गया?
(a) वेतन का
(b) नए कपड़ों का
(c) दावत में ले जाने का
(d) कहीं दूर घुमाने ले जाने का

Answer

Answer: (a) वेतन का

Class 8 Hindi Chapter 10 Extra Questions Question 5.
बच्चों ने कहाँ झाडू लगाने का फ़ैसला किया?
(a) घर में
(b) आँगन में
(c) घर के बाहर
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (b) आँगन में

MCQ Questions For Class 8 Hindi Chapter 10 Question 6.
बच्चे किससे सफ़ाई में जुड़ गए?
(a) सीकों से
(b) झाडू से
(c) पोछा से
(d) कपड़ों से

Answer

Answer: (b) झाडू से

बच्चे किससे सफ़ाई में जुड़ गए?

Ncert Class 8 Hindi Chapter 10 MCQ Question 7.
नौकरों ने प्रति बच्चों को नहलाने के लिए किस हिसाब से पैसे लिए?
(a) आठ आने
(b) चार आने
(c) बारह आने
(d) सोलह आने

Answer

Answer: (b) चार आने

Ch 10 Hindi Class 8 MCQ Question 8.
तरकारी वाली की टोकरी पर जिस समय भेड़ें टूट पड़ी थीं, उस समय वह क्या तौल रही थी?
(a) आलू-प्याज
(b) मटर की फलियाँ
(c) गोभी
(d) पालक

Answer

Answer: (b) मटर की फलियाँ

(1)

बड़ी देर के वाद-विवाद के बाद यह तय हुआ कि सचमुच नौकरों को निकाल दिया जाए। आखिर, ये मोटे-मोटे किस काम के हैं ! हिलकर पानी नहीं पीते। इन्हें अपना काम खुद करने की आदत होनी चाहिए। कामचोर कहीं के!
“तुम लोग कुछ नहीं। इतने सारे हो और सारा दिन ऊधम मचाने के सिवा कुछ नहीं करते।”
और सचमुच हमें खयाल आया कि हम आखिर काम क्यों नहीं करते? हिलकर पानी पीने में अपना क्या खर्च होता है? इसलिए हमने तुरंत हिला-हिलाकर पानी पीना शुरू किया।

Class 8 Chapter 10 Hindi MCQ Question 1.
लेखक व पाठ का नाम है-
(a) भगवान के डाकिए – रामधारी सिंह दिनकर
(b) बस की यात्रा – हरिशंकर परसाई
(c) कामचोर – इस्मत चुगताई
(d) लाख की चूड़ियाँ – कामता नाथ

Answer

Answer: (c) कामचोर – इस्मत चुगताई

Class 8 Hindi Kaamchor MCQ Question 2.
वाद-विवाद किसके बीच हो रहा था?
(a) पिता-माता के बीच
(b) पिता और बच्चों के बीच
(c) मालिक और नौकर के बीच
(d) माता और पड़ोसियों के बीच

Answer

Answer: (a) पिता-माता के बीच

Hindi Class 8 Chapter 10 MCQ Question 3.
बच्चों को क्या माना जाता था?
(a) परिश्रमी
(b) चालाक
(c) कामचोर
(d) ईमानदार

Answer

Answer: (c) कामचोर

MCQ Of Kaamchor Class 8 Question 4.
बच्चों ने क्या निर्णय लिया?
(a) खाना नहीं खाएँगे
(b) हम कोई काम नहीं करेंगे
(c) अब कुछ काम करेंगे
(d) खेलने चलेंगे 176

Answer

Answer: (c) अब कुछ काम करेंगे

कामचोर पाठ के प्रश्न उत्तर MCQ Question 5.
वाद-विवाद कौन-सा समास है?
(a) द्विगु समास
(b) वंद्व समास
(c) कर्मधारय समास
(d) अव्ययीभाव समास

Answer

Answer: (b) वंद्व समास

(2)

अब सब लोग नल पर टूट पड़े। यहाँ भी वह घमासान मची कि क्या मजाल जो एक बूंद पानी भी किसी के बर्तन में आ सके। ठूसम-ठास! किसी बालटी पर पतीला और पतीले पर लोटा और भगोने और डोंगे। पहले तो धक्के चले। फिर कुहनियाँ और उसके बाद बरतन। फौरन बड़े भाइयों, बहनों, मामुओं और दमदार मौसियों, फूफियों की कुमक भेजी गई, फौज मैदान में हथियार फेंककर पीठ दिखा गई।
इस धींगामुश्ती में कुछ बच्चे कीचड़ में लथपथ हो गए जिन्हें नहलाकर कपड़े बदलवाने के लिए नौकरों की वर्तमान संख्या काफ़ी नहीं थी। पास के बंगलों से नौकर आए और चार आना प्रति बच्चा के हिसाब से नहलवाए गए।

Question 1.
कौन नल पर टूट पड़े?
(a) माता-पिता
(b) घर के बच्चे
(c) घर के नौकर
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (b) घर के बच्चे

Question 2.
नल का पानी बरतन में क्यों नहीं जा रहा था?
(a) नल में सप्लाई पानी नहीं आने के कारण
(b) बरतन में छेद होने के कारण
(c) धक्का-मुक्की के कारण
(d) आपस में धक्का-मुक्की होने के कारण

Answer

Answer: (d) आपस में धक्का-मुक्की होने के कारण

Question 3.
बच्चों ने नल के पास किसका हथियार बनाया?
(a) डंडे का
(b) बरतन को
(c) कुहनियों को
(d) पत्थरों को

Answer

Answer: (b) बरतन को

बच्चों ने नल के पास किसका हथियार बनाया?

Question 4.
बच्चों को किस दर के हिसाब से नहलवाए गए।
(a) आठ आना प्रति बच्चा
(b) चार आना प्रति बच्चा
(c) एक रुपया प्रति बच्चा
(d) 10 पैसे प्रति बच्चा

Answer

Answer: (b) चार आना प्रति बच्चा

(3)

हज्जन माँ एक पलंग पर दुपट्टे से मुँह ढाँके सो रही थीं। उन पर से जो भेड़ें दौड़ी तो न जाने वह सपने में किन महलों की सैर कर रही थीं, दुपट्टे में उलझी हुई ‘मारो-मारो’ चीखने लगीं।
इतने में भेड़ें सूप को भूलकर तरकारीवाली की टोकरी पर टूट पड़ीं। वह दालान में बैठी मटर की फलियाँ तोल-मोल कर रसोइए को दे रही थी। वह अपनी तरकारी का बचाव करने के लिए सीना तान कर उठ गई। आपने कभी भेड़ों को मारा होगा, तो अच्छी तरह देखा होगा कि बस, ऐसा लगता है जैसे रुई के तकिए को कूट रहे हों। भेड़ को चोट ही नहीं लगती। बिलकुल यह समझकर कि आप उससे मज़ाक कर रहे हैं। वह आप ही पर चढ़ बैठेगी। ज़रा-सी देर में भेड़ों ने तरकारी छिलकों समेत अपने पेट की कड़ाही में झौंक दी।

Question 1.
हज्जन की माँ किससे मुँह ढाँके सो रही थी?
(a) चादर से
(b) दुपट्टे से
(c) साड़ी से
(d) रूमाल से

Answer

Answer: (b) दुपट्टे से

Question 2.
सूप में क्या था?
(a) रोटी
(b) तरकारी
(c) भेड़ों के लिए दाने
(d) हरे घास

Answer

Answer: (c) भेड़ों के लिए दाने

Question 3.
रसोइए को क्या तौलकर दी जा रही थी?
(a) चावल
(b) टमाटर
(c) आटा
(d) मटर की फलियाँ कामचोर

Answer

Answer: (d) मटर की फलियाँ कामचोर

Question 4.
सब्जीवाले की मटर फली कौन खा गई?
(a) भैंस
(b) भेड़
(c) बच्चे
(d) नौकर

Answer

Answer: (b) भेड़

Question 5.
‘तरकारी वाली’ शब्द में प्रत्यय है?
(a) तर
(b) आली
(c) ई
(d) वाली

Answer

Answer: (d) वाली

(4)

तय हुआ कि भैंस की अगाड़ी-पिछाड़ी बाँध दी जाए और काबू में लाकर दूध दुह लिया जाए। बस, झूले की रस्सी उतारकर भैंस के पैर बाँध दिए गए। पिछले दो पैर चाचा जी की चारपाई के पायों से बाँध, अगले दो पैरों को बाँधने की कोशिश जारी थी कि भैंस चौकन्नी को गई। छूटकर जो भागी तो पहले चाचा जी समझे कि शायद कोई सपना देख रहे हैं। फिर जब चारपाई पानी के ड्रम से टकराई और पानी छलककर गिरा तो समझे कि आँधी-तूफ़ान में फँसे हैं। साथ में भूचाल भी आया हुआ है। फिर जल्दी ही उन्हें असली बात का पता चल गया और वह पलंग की दोनों पटियाँ पकड़े, बच्चों को छोड़ देनेवालों को बुरा-भला सुनाने लगे।

Question 1.
तय क्या हुआ?
(a) भैंस का अगला-पिछला हिस्सा बाँध दिया जाए
(b) इसके बाद भैंस का दूध निकालना
(c) भैंस का बच्चा आगे रखना
(d) भैंस के आगे हरा चना डालना

Answer

Answer: (a) भैंस का अगला-पिछला हिस्सा बाँध दिया जाए

Question 2.
भैंस के पिछले दो पैर किससे बाँधे गए?
(a) चाचा जी की चारपाई के चार पायों से
(b) खूटे से
(c) झूले से
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) चाचा जी की चारपाई के चार पायों से

Question 3.
रस्सी कहाँ से लाई गई ?
(a) पड़ोसियों के यहाँ से
(b) चाचा के चारपाई से
(c) झूले से उतार कर
(d) छप्पर पर से

Answer

Answer: (c) झूले से उतार कर

Question 4.
चारपाई किससे टकराई?
(a) भैंस से
(b) पानी के ड्रम से
(c) चाचा जी के खाट से
(d) बच्चों से

Answer

Answer: (d) बच्चों से

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Hindi Vasant Chapter 10 कामचोर with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 8 Hindi कामचोर MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided Gravitation Class 9 Science MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-science-with-answers/

You can refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation to revise the concepts in the syllabus effectively and improve your chances of securing high marks in your board exams.

Gravitation Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Gravitation Class 9 MCQ Chapter 10  Question 1.
Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of the moon would
(a) have same velocities at any instant
(b) have different acceleration
(c) experience forces of same magnitude
(d) undergo a change in their inertia

Answer

Answer: (a) have same velocities at any instant

Gravitation MCQ Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 2.
The value of acceleration due to gravity
(a) is same on equator and poles
(b) is least on poles
(c) is least on equator
(d) increases from pole to equator

Answer

Answer: (c) is least on equator

Class 9 Gravitation MCQ Chapter 10  Question 3.
The gravitational force between two objects is F. If masses of both objects are halved without changing the distance between them, then the gravitational force would become
(a) F/4
(b) F/2
(c) F
(d) 2F

Answer

Answer: (a) F/4

MCQ On Gravitation Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 4.
A boy is whirling a stone tied to a string in a horizontal circular path. If the string breaks, the stone
(a) will continue to move in the circular path
(b) will move along a straight line towards the centreof the circular path
(c) will move along a straight line tangential to the circular path
(d) will move along a straight line perpendicular to the circular path away from the boy

Answer

Answer: (c) will move along a straight line tangential to the circular path

MCQ Of Gravitation Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 5.
An object is put one by one in three liquids having different densities. The object floats with \(\frac{1}{9}\), \(\frac{2}{11}\) and \(\frac{3}{7}\) parts of their volumes outside the liquid surface in liquids of densities d1, d2 and d3respectively. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) d1 > d2 > d3
(b) d1 > d2 < d3
(c) d1 < d2 > d3
(d) d1 < d2 < d3

Answer

Answer: (d) d1 < d2 < d3

Gravitation MCQ Chapter 10 Question 6.
In the relation F = GM mld2, the quantity G
(a) depends on the value ofg at the place of observation
(b) is used only when the Earth is one of the two masses
(c) is greatest at the surface of the Earth
(d) is universal constant of nature

Answer

Answer: (d) is universal constant of nature

Class 9 Science Chapter 10 MCQ Question 7.
Law of gravitation gives the gravitational force between
(a) the Earth and a point mass only
(b) the Earth and Sun only
(c) any two bodies having some mass
(d) two charged bodies only

Answer

Answer: (c) any two bodies having some mass

Law of gravitation gives the gravitational force between

MCQ Questions On Gravitation For Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 8.
The value of quantity G in the law of gravitation
(a) depends on mass of Earth only
(b) depends on radius of Earth only
(c) depends on both mass and radius of Earth
(d) is independent of mass and radius of the Earth

Answer

Answer: (d) is independent of mass and radius of the Earth

Gravitation Class 9 MCQ With Answers Chapter 10  Question 9.
Two particles are placed at some distance. If the mass of each of the two particles is doubled, keeping the distance between them unchanged, the value of gravitational force between them will be
(a) \(\frac{1}{4}\) times
(b) 4 times
(c) \(\frac{1}{2}\) times
(d) unchanged

Answer

Answer: (b) 4 times

MCQ Gravitation Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 10.
The atmosphere is held to the Earth by
(a) gravity
(b) wind
(c) clouds
(d) Earth’s magnetic field

Answer

Answer: (a) gravity

Class 9 Physics Gravitation MCQ Chapter 10 Question 11.
The force of attraction between two unit point masses separated by a unit distance is called
(a) gravitational potential
(b) acceleration due to gravity
(c) gravitational field
(d) universal gravitational constant

Answer

Answer: (d) universal gravitational constant

Gravitation Class 9 MCQ Questions And Answers Chapter 10 Question 12.
The weight of an object at the centre of the Earth of radius R is (NCERT Exemplar)
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) R times the weight at the surface of the Earth
(d) 1/R2 times the weight at surface of the Earth

Answer

Answer: (a) zero

Class 9 Science Gravitation MCQ Chapter 10 Question 13.
An object weighs 10 N in air. When immersed fully in water, it weighs only 8 N. The weight of the liquid displaced by the object will be
(a) 2 N
(b) 8 N
(c) 10 N
(d) 12 N

Answer

Answer: (a) 2 N

Class 9 Science Ch 10 MCQ Question 14.
A girl stands on a box having 60 cm length, 40 cm breadth and 20 cm width in three ways. In which of the following cases, pressure exerted by the box will be
(a) maximum when length and breadth form the base
(b) maximum when breadth and width form the base
(c) maximum when width and length form the base
(d) the same in all the above three cases

Answer

Answer: (b) maximum when breadth and width form the base

MCQs On Gravitation Class 9 Chapter 10 Question 15.
An apple falls from a tree because of gravitational attractionbetween the Earth and the apple. If F1 is the magnitude of force exerted by the Earth on the apple and F2 is the magnitude of force exerted by the apple on the Earth, then
(a) F1 is very much greater than F2
(b) F2 is very much greater than F1
(c) F1 is only a little greater than F2
(d) F1 and F1 are equal

Answer

Answer: (d) F1 and F1 are equal

Gravitation Class 9 MCQs Chapter 10 Question 16.
The acceleration due to gravity on the Earth depends upon the
(a) mass of the body
(b) mass of the Earth
(c) shape and size of the body
(d) volume of the body

Answer

Answer: (b) mass of the Earth

Question 17.
When a mango falls from a mango tree then
(a) only the Earth attracts the mango.
(b) only the mango attracts the Earth.
(c) both the mango and the Earth attract each other.
(d) both the mango and the Earth repel each other.

Answer

Answer: (c) both the mango and the Earth attract each other.

Question 18.
When a ship floats in sea water
(a) The weight of water displaced is greater than the weight of ship
(b) The weight of water displaced is less than the weight of the ship
(c) The weight of water displaced is equal to the weight of the ship
(d) It displaces no water.

Answer

Answer: (c) The weight of water displaced is equal to the weight of the ship

Question 19.
The SI unit of pressure is
(a) Nm2
(b) N/m
(c) N/m2
(d) N2/m2

Answer

Answer: (c) N/m2

Question 20.
If the gravitational attraction of the Earth suddenly disappears, which of the following statements will be true?
(a) The weight of body will become zero but the mass will remain same.
(b) The weight of a body will remain same but the mass will become zero.
(c) Both mass and weight become zero.
(d) Neither mass nor weight becomes zero.

Answer

Answer: (a) The weight of body will become zero but the mass will remain same.

If the gravitational attraction of the Earth suddenly disappears, which of the following statements will be true?

Fill in the blanks

1. Gravitational force is always ………….. in nature.

Answer

Answer: attractive

2. …………… of a body is the quantity of matter contained in it.

Answer

Answer: Mass

3. SI unit of mass is …………….

Answer

Answer: kilogram

4. Weight of an object is the force with which it is attracted towards the ………………

Answer

Answer: Earth

5. The acceleration due to gravity of moon is …………… of that of the Earth.

Answer

Answer: one sixth

6. Every fluid exerts an …………….. force on a body immersed in it. This force is called ……………

Answer

Answer: upward, buoyant

7. Density of a substance is defined as mass per unit ……………..

Answer

Answer: volume

8. The force acting on an object …………… to the surface is called thrust.

Answer

Answer: perpendicular

9. The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to that of ……………..

Answer

Answer: water

Match the following columns

Column A Column B
(a) SI unit of Weight (i) Kilogram
(b) mass (ii) F = \(\frac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}\)
(c) Weight (iii) mg
(d) Buoyant force (iv) newton
(e) Relative density (v) Ratio of density of the substance to that of water
(f) SI unit of mass (vi) Quantity of matter contained in a body
(g) Gravitational force between two bodies (expression) (vii) Force acting on body due to Earth’s attraction
(viii) Weight of an object (expression) (viii) Upward force on a body placed in a fluid
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(a) SI unit of Weight (iv) newton
(b) mass (vi) Quantity of matter contained in a body
(c) Weight (vii) Force acting on body due to Earth’s attraction
(d) Buoyant force (viii) Upward force on a body placed in a fluid
(e) Relative density (v) Ratio of density of the substance to that of water
(f) SI unit of mass (i) Kilogram
(g) Gravitational force between two bodies (expression) (ii) \(\frac{Gm_1m_2}{r^2}\)
(viii) Weight of an object (expression) (iii) mg

Complete the crossword given below

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation with Answers
Across
3. Quantity of matter contained in a body
4. The property due to which a body immersed in fluid experiences upward force.
5. Acceleration due to gravity of moon is how much time that of Earth
7. Whenever objects fall towards the Earth under gravitational force alone, we say that objects are in
8. The force with which a body is attracted towards the Earth
10. Force of gravitation due to Earth is called
11. Nature of gravitational force is always
Down
1. Force between two bodies due to their masses
2. Thrust on unit area
6. Mass per unit volume
9. SI unit of pressure

Answer

Answer:
Across:
3. Mass
4. Buoyancy
5. One sixth
7. Free fall
8. Weight
10. Gravity
11. Attractive

Down:
1. Gravitational force
2. Pressure
6. Density
9. Pascal

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Gravitation CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Sectors Of Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following statements is correct about the GDP?
(a) It shows how big the economy of a country is in terms of purchasing power.
(b) It shows the total product of a country in a given year without calculating the national income.
(c) It shows the number of people involved in production in the tertiary sector in a year.
(d) It shows the value of total goods and services produced in a country in a year.
Answer:
(d) It shows the value of total goods and services produced in a country in a year.

Related Theory
The purchasing power of a country depends upon the value of its currency and the power of its currency to buy commodities.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Which organization conducts a survey on employment and unemployment?
(a) NSSO
(b) NREGA
(c) ILO – International Labour Organisation
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer:
(a) NSSO

Explanation: The National Sample Survey Organisation takes a survey every 5 years and data is collated thereafter.

Sector Of Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Identify which of these is a natural product?
(a) Clothes
(b) A Book
(c) Jute
(d) Apple Juice

Sectors Of Indian Economy MCQ Question 4.
Which of the following examples does not fall under the unorganized sector?
(a) A shoemaker mending shoes.
(b) A daily wage laborer working to build a house.
(c) An HR employee working for a software company.
(d) A cook cooking in the house of her boss.
Answer:
(c) An HR employee working for a software company.

Class 10 Sectors Of Indian Economy MCQ Question 5.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
…………….. owns the Reliance Industries.
(a) The government
(b) A private business or a group
(c) A Bank
(d) Jointly by private companies and the govt.
Answer:
(b) A private business or a group

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 6.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
NREGA (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005) has guaranteed ……………… days of employment in a year in many districts of India.
(a) 365 days
(b) 100 days
(c) 50 days
(d) 180 days
Answer:
(b) 100 days

Sectors Of The Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
…………..is also known as Underemployment.
(a) Disguised Employment
(b) Overemployment
(c) Visible Employment
(d) Extra Employment
Answer:
(a) Disguised Employment

Explanation: Disguised employment is when people having potential to do full time employment are under utilized.

MCQ On Sectors Of Indian Economy Question 8.
Where will you find the disguised unemployment most? Select the correct option from those given below:
(a) Among agricultural workers working on self- owned small farm lands
(b) Factory workers
(c) Private company owners and employees
(d) Government officials
Answer:
(a) Among agricultural workers working on self-owned small farmlands Explanation: Almost all family works on these lands despite their size and this is why the productivity of these workers is less.

Economics Chapter 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
Choose the incorrect pair from the following:

List I List II
(a) Mailman Tertiary sector
(b) Fisherman Primary sector
(c) Carpenter Primary sector
(d) Banker Tertiary sector

Explanation: Carpenter creates furniture out of wood and hence can be classified in the secondary sector. He produces goods by exploiting a natural resource. Both mailman and banking provide services classifying them as tertiary sector employees. Fisherman exploits natural water resources- the fishes and hence are workers of the primary sector.
Answer:
(c) Carpenter – Primary Sector

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Economics Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 10.
Which is not a characteristic of an unorganized sector?
(a) Small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government
(b) Rules and regulations are not followed
(c) Jobs here are high-paid and often regular
(d) No provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays, medical leaves.
Answer:
(c) Jobs here are high-paid and often regular.

MCQ Of Sectors Of Indian Economy Question 11.
MGNREGA 2005 implements the …………… in about 625 districts of India.
(a) Right to Property
(b) Right to Education
(c) Right to Work
(d) Right to Life
Answer:

MCQ Sectors Of Indian Economy Question 12.
Which of the following profession belongs to the Tertiary Sector of the economy?
(a) Fisherman
(b) Farmer
(c) Woodcutter
(d) Teacher
Answer:
(d) Teacher

Which of the following profession belongs to the Tertiary Sector of the economy?

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Question 13.
In which sector, do workers enjoy job security?
(a) Agriculture sector
(b) Private-sector
(c) Organised sector
(d) Unorganised sector
Answer:
(c) Organised sector

Explanation: Organised Sector includes industries, shops, factories and businesses registered with the government. They follow labor laws and other rules and regulations laid down by the government. They also provide job security, health care benefits and other incentives to its employees.

Related Theory
Agricultural Sector, Unorganised sector and Private Sector are all unregistered or not backed by the government and hence offer no job security or promise of a dignified life.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Important MCQ With Answers Question 14.
Which among the following most appropriately describes underemployment?
(a) Workers are not paid as per their work
(b) Workers are working less than what they are capable of doing
(c) Workers are unskilled
(d) Workers are not willing to work
Answer:
(b) Workers are working less than what they are capable of doing

Explanation: When workers are employed in larger numbers than they’re required, their effort becomes divided. This means that here people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than their true potential, and removing some of them won’t affect production at all. This is underemployment.

Sectors Of Indian Economy MCQs Question 15.
Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) Transporting cloth to the workshops
(ii) Sale in shops and showrooms
(iii) Spinning the yarn
(iv) Weaving of the fabric
Options:
(a) (i)-(iv)-(iii)-(iv)
(b) (iii)-(iv)-(i)-(ii)
(c) (iv)-(i)-(ii)-(iii)
(d) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)

Identify the following on basis of the hints given in each question.

Question 16.
Identify the sector:
(1) Sector is categorized based on types of activities
(2) Activities that are included in this sector are undertaken by directly using natural resources.
(3) Employed the most number of people in 2000
Answer:
Primary or the Agricultural sector

Question 17.
Identify the sector:
(1) Sector is categorized based on types of activities
(2) Activities which are included in this sector are services offered to professionals
(3) No good is produced
Answer:
Tertiary or the Service Sector

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 18.
Identify the sector:
(1) Sector is categorized based on ownership of activities
(2) Private individuals and companies owns most of the assets
(3) Main driving force of this sector is profit.
Answer:

Question 19.
Read the conditions given below and identify in which sector Naresh is working?

Characteristics Facilities
Job Security No
Medical Facility No
Fixed working Hours No

Answer:
Unorganised Sector

Fill in the blanks/tables with suitable information:

Question 20.
When we produce goods by exploiting natural products, it is an activity of the ………….

Question 21.
The …………… sector has become most important in terms of share of the total production in developed countries.
Answer:
Tertiary

Explanation: In case of most developed and developing countries, production in all sectors has grown but tertiary sector has grown the most due to reasons like more development and improvement in Lifestyle. It employs a very large number of people in the world.

Question 22.
In the …………………… sector, the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services.
Answer:
Public

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 23.
………….. is an example of an unorganized sector activity.
Answer:
A daily wage labourer working under a contractor

Related Theory
An Unorganised sector is characterised by small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government. Rules and regulations are not followed in this sector. There’s absence of labour rules and job security in this sector.

Question 24.
Fill the blanks in table with correct answer:

Occupations Sectors
Tailor Tertiary
(A)-? Primary
Astronaut (B)-?

Answer:

Question 25.
Workers in the ………… sector do not produce goods.
Answer:
Tertiary

Explanation: Workers in Primary and Secondary Sector produce goods while workers in Tertiary sector provide services.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Match the following sectors in Column A with their status given in Column B:

Column A (Sectors) Column B (Status)
(a) Public sector (i) Service sector
(b) Primary sector (ii) Regular employment
(c) Tertiary sector (iii) Government owns it
(d) Organised sector (iv) Exploits natural resources

Answer:

Column A (Sectors) Column B (Status)
(a) Public sector (iii) Government owns it
(b) Primary sector (iv) Exploits natural resources
(c) Tertiary sector (i) Service sector
(d) Organised sector (ii) Regular employment

Question 27.
Match the following occupations in Column A with their sectors in Column B:

Column A (Occupations) Column B (Sectors)
(a) Bee-keeper (i) Secondary sector
(b) Priest (ii) Unorganised sector
(c) Construction worker (iii) Primary sector
(d) Basket weaver (iv) Tertiary sector

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Economics Chapter 2

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 28.
Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 29.
Assertion (A): GDP (Gross Domestic Product) shows how big the economy is.
Reason (R): GDP of a country is the value of all intermediate goods and services produced within a country during a particular year.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

Explanation: GDP is the total sum of the values of all final goods and services produced by all sectors within a country during a particular year. It indicates how developed and successful an economy is.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 30.
Assertion (A): Underemployment can also be called disguised unemployment.
Reason (R): Each person is doing some work but no-one is fully employed according to their true potential. This type of unemployment is hidden unlike the common type of unemployment where the job seeker clearly has no job.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Correct Explanation of (A).

Question 31.
Assertion (A): The data for India, for the last thirty years, shows that while goods and services produced in the tertiary sector contribute the most to GDP, the highest employment is offered by the primary sector.
Reason (R): Tertiary sector offers limited growth.
Answer:

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Government needs to pay attention to aspects of human development such as availability of safe drinking water, housing facilities for the poor, food and nutrition.
Reason (R): Private Sector cannot offer development.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Private sector is based on profit and thus cannot contribute a lot in growth of the people, only the public sector run by the government can fulfill that responsibility.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after.
Reason (R): Because the sector offers high and regular pay.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 34.
Assertion (A): There is also a need for protection and support of the workers in the unorganized sector.
Reason (R): Workers in an unorganised sector get paid really less and are heavily exploited.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The workers of the unorganized sector are often exploited and not paid a fair wage. Their earnings are Low and not regular. These jobs are not secure and have no other benefits. They also face social discrimination.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
1/1/hat it means is that there are more people in agriculture than is necessary. So, even if you move a few people out, production will not be affected. In other words, workers in the agricultural sector are underemployed.
Choose one correct statement from the following:
Underemployment occurs:
(a) when people are not willing to work.
(b) when people are working slowly.
(c) when people are working less than what they are capable of doing.
(d) when people are not paid for their jobs.
Answer:
(c) when people are working less than what they are capable of doing.

Explanation: This kind of condition occurs when people work but their efforts get divided. More than the required amount of workers are involved and hence their productivity is reduced.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 2.
Match the items in Column A to the items in Column B.
table-1
(a) (A)-(ll), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(l)
(b) (A)-(lll), (B)-(IV), (C)-(ll), (D)-(l)
(c) (A)-(lll), (B)-(l), (C)-(IV), (D)-(li)
(d) (A)-(l), (B)-(IM), (C)-(ll), (D)-(l)
Answer:

Question 3.
Study the picture given below and identify to what sector does the activity belong to:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 5
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Tertiary Sector

Explanation: A woman can be seen buying clothes from the other. A service is being provided to the customer using already manufactured goods. Such services are classified under Tertiary Sector.

Related Theory
A sector which provide services and support to Primary and Secondary Sector is called as Tertiary Sector.

Question 4.
Observe the picture given below and answer the question that follows.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 6
Which sector does the worker in given cartoon represent?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Primary

Explanation: The picture is of a farmer. This is a primary sector activity because what she does forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector.

Question 5.
Study this picture. Answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 7
Identify the sector to which the worker in the picture belongs ?
Answer:
Tertiary Sector.

Explanation: Both of these workers provide services while one is a shopkeeper other is a milk seller and sells already manufactured products. They do not produce anything on their own. and hence come under tertiary sector.

Question 6.
Analyse the table given below and answer the question that follows:
This source shows a database of Workers employed in different sectors (in millions)
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 8
Calculate, the percentage of people in organised sector.
(a) 8.4%
(b) 9.6%
(c) 7.6%
(d) 10%
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 7.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
However, you must remember that not ail of the service sector is growing equally well. Service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them. Hence, only a part of this sector is growing in importance. You shall read more about this in the next section.
(A) Which of the following sectors is developing the most?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Organised Sector
Answer:
(c) Tertiary Sector

(B) Why is the Service sector growing unequally?
(a) There are not many types of jobs in Service sector
(b) All jobs offer similar growth but people are unable to utilise it.
(c) All types of jobs are not high paying jobs
(d) Service sector is not growing at all.
Answer:
All types of jobs are not high paying jobs Explanation: Hence some jobs offer higher growth and more offers while others which are not as lucrative do not offer much growth.

(C) What other name is the Service sector also known as?
Answer:
The Tertiary Sector

(D) Assertion (A): Service sector has the largest share among all three sectors but considerable less number of employees.
Reason (R): Service sector is underdeveloped.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Kanta works in an office. She attends her office from 9.30 a.m. to 5.30 p.m. She gets her salary regularly at the end of every month. In addition to the salary, she also gets provident fund as per the rules laid down by the government. She also gets medical and other allowances. Kanta does not go to the office on Sundays. This is a paid holiday. When she joined work, she was given an appointment letter stating all the terms and conditions of work.
Kamal is Kanta’s neighbour. He is a daily wage labourer in a nearby grocery shop. He goes to the shop at 7:30 in the morning and works till 8:00 p.m. in the evening. He gets no other allowances apart from his wages. He is not paid for the days he does not work. He has therefore no leave or paid holidays.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the
most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the sector Kanta works in.
(a) Unorganised Sector
(b) Private Sector
(c) Public Sector
(d) Organised Sector
Answer:
(a) She is given Medical Leaves.

(B) Which of the following statements is true about the facilities Kanta is provided at her workplace?
(a) She is given Medical Leaves.
(b) Extra payment for less services.
(c) She can be seasonally removed from her job.
(d) She is not given any paid leaves.
Answer:

(C) Identify the sector Kamal works in:
(a) Private Sector
(b) Unorganised Sector
(c) Public Sector
(d) Organised Sector
Answer:
(b) Unorganised Sector

(D) Which of the following statements is different for Kanta and Kamal?
(a) Fixed Hours at work
(b) Physical employment and activities at work
(c) Allowances and paid leaves
(d) They are exactly the same
Answer:
(c) Allowances and paid leaves

Which of the following statements is different for Kanta and Kamal?

Explanation: Kanta receives her allowances because she works in the organised sector but Kamal does not because he works in a shop which belongs to the unorganised sector.

An online point estimate calculator will allow you to determine the best estimation value of the unknown population parameter with many estimation methods.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Where are most of the people employed? Graph 2 presents the percentage share of the three sectors in GDP. Now you can directly see the changing importance of the sectors over the forty years.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 9
A remarkable fact about India is that while there has been a change in the share of the three sectors in GDP, a similar shift has not taken place in employment. Graph 3 shows the share of employment in the three sectors in 1977-78 and 2017-18. The primary sector continues to be the largest employer even now. Why didn’t a similar shift out of primary sector happen in case of employment? It is because not enough jobs were created in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing:
(A) Which of the following sectors has the highest share in the GDP?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Tertiary Sector
(c) Secondary Sector
(d) Both Tertiary and Secondary Sectors are equal in share of the GDP.
Answer:
(b) Tertiary Sector

(B) Which of the following statements is correct about the agricultural sector?
(a) The Agricultural Sector shares the largest contribution in the GDP.
(b) The Agricultural Sector employs the largest number of people in India.
(c) The share of the agricultural sector in the GDP has been rising over years.
(d) The share of the agricultural sector in the GDP has been fixed.
Answer:
(b) The Agricultural Sector employs the largest number of people in India.

(C) What kind of workers are employed in the tertiary sector?
(a) Both Skilled and Semi-Skilled
(b) Unskilled
(c) Only skilled
(d) Only semi-skilled
Answer:
(a) Both Skilled and Semi-Skilled

Explanation: Service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. It employs highly skilled and educated workers and also a number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc.

(D) Which is the Second largest sector in terms of GDP share?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Tertiary Sector
(c) Secondary Sector
(d) Both Tertiary and Secondary Sectors are equal in share of the GDP.
Answer:
(c) Secondary Sector

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
For instance, suppose many farmers decide to grow arhar and chickpea (pulse crops). Setting up a dal mill to procure and process these and sell in the cities is one such example. Opening a cold storage could give an opportunity for farmers to store their products like potatoes and onions and sell them when the price is good. In villages near forest areas, we can start honey collection centres where farmers can come and sell wild honey. It is also possible to set up industries that process vegetables and agricultural produce like potato, sweet potato, rice, wheat, tomato, fruits, which can be sold in outside markets. This will provide employment in industries located in semi-rural areas and not necessarily in large urban centres.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the primary sector activity from the following-
(a) Setting up a Dal Mill
(b) Growing Chickpeas
(c) Setting up Honey Collection centres
(d) Opening a cold storage and letting farmers keep their products here
Answer:
(b) Growing Chickpeas

(B) Identify the secondary sector activity from the following:
(a) Selling vegetables in outside markets
(b) Setting up a Dal Mill
(c) Growing arhar and peas
(d) Transporting bottled honey to city markets
Answer:
(b) Setting up a Dal Mill

(C) Identify the tertiary sector activity from the following:
(a) Setting up a Dal Mill
(b) Growing Chickpeas
(c) Setting up Honey Collection centres
(d) Opening a cold storage and letting farmers keep their products here.
Answer:
(d) Opening a cold storage and charging farmers for storage.

(D) Which sector of activities can be most commonly found in semi-rural areas?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) All three are found
Answer:
(a) Primary

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When we produce goods by exploiting natural resources in which category of economic sectors, such activities come?
Answer:
Primary Sector

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 2.
In which sector is seasonal and disguised unemployment most prevalent in India?
Answer:
Primary Sector or the Agricultural Sector

Question 3.
Which communities generally find themselves in the unorganised sector?
Answer:
The poorest and most underprivileged communities find themselves in the unorganised sector.

Question 4.
In which sector is manufacturing included?
Answer:
Secondary Sector or the Industry Sector

Question 5.
ATM is an example of which sector?
Answer:
Tertiary Sector

Question 6.
Name the sector which continued to be the largest employer even in the year 2000.
Answer:
Agricultural or the primary sector

Question 7.
Iqbal along with five other members of his family worked as a farmer and produced 50 tons of wheat. Due to some dispute in the family, two members opted out of family business, but still remaining members of the family are able to produce 50 tons of Wheat. Can you name which kind of unemployment the members of the family were facing?
Answer:
Disguised employment.

Explanation: This is because people are employed in a work where their effort gets divided and not much productivity is achieved. They appear employed but they are not employed to their full capacity.

Question 8.
Suggest any one way to generate employment in urban areas.
Answer:
Following are the ways in which employment can be generated in urban areas:

  1. Improve local and inter-city transportation.
  2. Increase vocational education courses.

Question 9.
Which category of economic sector does the activity of changing natural products into other forms come under?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 10.
How is GDP calculated?
Answer:
GDP in India is calculated by the expenditure method. Only final goods and services are counted to get the finaL value. Therefore, GDP = Value of output – Intermediate consumption.

Question 11.
How is public sector different from the private sector?
Answer:
The public sector is owned, managed and controlled by government whereas the private sector is owned, controlled and managed by individuals or group of individuals.

Question 12.
Why is the tertiary sector becoming an important sector in India? Explain the main reason.
Answer:

Question 13.
Look at the picture given below and identify the sector to which the characters (shown) belong to.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 1
Answer:
The workers shown in the picture are associated with agricultural sector also known as Primary sector.
Explanation: Agriculture and related activities are classified under primary sector activities.

Question 14.
Suggest any one way to increase the income of the marginalised groups in India.
Answer:
Marginal farmers need to be supported through adequate facility for timely delivery of seeds, agricultural inputs, credit, storage facilities and marketing outlets.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 15.
Study the table below and answer the question that follows:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 2
identify the sector that employs largest number of workers?
Answer:
Primary Sector employs the most number of employees including both Organised and Unorganised sectors.

Question 16.
What is GDP?
Answer:
GDP is the value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year.

Question 17.
Identify what sector does these products belong to?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 3
Answer:
These products belong to Secondary Sector. Explanation: All of these products are created by processing products of the primary sector.
For example, clothes are made of cotton which is produced by cultivating its crops, food is prepared by cooking fruits and vegetables. Products which are created by processing primary sector products are classified into secondary sector.

Question 18.
Explain the main advantage of organised sector with respect to employment.
Answer:
In the organised sector, terms of employment are regular and people have assured work throughout the year.

Question 19.
Suggest any one way to create employment in semi-rural areas.
Answer:
By setting up of small and agro-based industries, employment can be created in semi-rural areas.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 20.
The table below shows the estimated number of workers in india in the organised and unorganised sectors. Read the table carefully and answer the question given below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers 4
What percentage of tertiary sector workers in india are employed in Unorganised Sector according to the table?
Answer:

Question 21.
In a city, 5000 people work in offices and factories registered with the government, 3000 own offices, clinics in market places with formal license, 7000 people work on street, construction workers and domestic help whereas 9000 people work in small workshops usually not registered with the government. On the basis of the information given above calculate the percentage of people working in the Organised sector and choose the correct option.
(a) 20%
(b) 33%
(c) 50%
(d) 66%
Answer:
(b) 33%

Explanation: Number of People working in the Organised Sector (Companies with formal license of private business with license):
5000 + 3000 = 8000
Number of People working in the Unorganised Sector (Construction Workers, employees in unregistered workshops):
9000 + 7000 = 16000
Sum = 8000 + 16000 = 24000

Percentage of Organised Workers:
= \(\frac{8000}{24000}\) × 100
= 33%

Question 22.
Give one example each of primary and tertiary economic sectors. [CBSE 2019,12]
Answer:
Activities like agriculture, mining, etc. are examples of the primary sector, whereas activities like banking, tourism, etc. are examples of tertiary sector.

Related Theory
The primary sector is the sector of an economy making direct use of‘natural resources’ or relating to primary industries, whereas the tertiary sector helps in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Question 23.
When was MG N REG A passed?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 The Story of Village Palampur with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 The Story of Village Palampur with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 The Story of Village Palampur with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have Provided The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 Economics MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-9-social-science-with-answers/

Online Education for The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

The Story Of Village Palampur MCQ Question 1.
‘Bigha’ and ‘Guintha’ are
(a) the type of village house
(b) the type of hybrid seeds
(c) the measuring units of grain
(d) the measuring units of land area in village

Answer

Answer: (d) the measuring units of land area in village

Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Finance raised to operate a business is called
(a) labour
(b) enterprise
(c) land
(d) capital

Answer

Answer: (d) capital

Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 MCQ Question 3.
Minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is
(a) ₹80
(b) ₹90
(c) ₹115
(d) ₹120

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹115

The Story Of Village Palampur Class 9 MCQ Question 4.
The Green Revolution introduced the farmers to
(a) cultivation of wheat and rice
(b) cultivation of green vegetables
(c) cultivation of sugar cane
(d) cultivation of forests

Answer

Answer: (a) cultivation of wheat and rice

Story Of Village Palampur MCQ Question 5.
The small farmers constitute about _________ per cent of total farmers in India.
(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 80

Answer

Answer: (d) 80

Economics Class 9 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 6.
The new ways of farming need
(a) less land
(b) more capital
(c) machinery
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above

The Village Of Palampur Class 9 MCQ Question 7.
The most abundant factor of production is
(a) labour
(b) land
(c) machinery
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) labour

The most abundant factor of production is

Economics Chapter 1 Class 9 MCQ Question 8.
Multiple Cropping refers to :
(a) Cultivation of wheat and rice
(b) cultivation of two crops in alternate rows
(c) cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year
(d) cultivating crops and rearing animals on the same farm

Answer

Answer: (c) cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year

Ch 1 Economics Class 9 MCQ Question 9.
Working capital stands for :
(a) Tools, machines and buildings
(b) raw materials and money in hand
(c) total share capital
(d) fixed deposits in financial institutions

Answer

Answer: (b) raw materials and money in hand

Story Of Village Palampur Class 9 MCQ Question 10.
Which one of the following is not an effect of the modern farming?
(a) Soil degradation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Decrease in groundwater
(d) Water pollution

Answer

Answer: (d) Water pollution

MCQ Questions For Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 Question 11.
How many families lives in Village Palampur?
(a) 150
(b) 250
(c) 350
(d) 450

Answer

Answer: (d) 450

Economics Ch 1 Class 9 MCQ Question 12.
Where do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for the capital in Palampur?
(a) Banks
(b) Co-operative Societies
(c) Village money lenders
(d) Friends and relatives

Answer

Answer: (c) Village money lenders

Class 9th Economics Chapter 1 MCQ Question 13.
‘Operation Flood’ is related to :
(a) control flood
(b) produce fish
(c) milk production
(d) grain production

Answer

Answer: (c) milk production

Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 MCQ Online Test Question 14.
Consumption of chemical fertilisers is highest in which state of India?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Himachal Pardesh

Answer

Answer: (a) Punjab

Village Palampur Class 9 MCQ Question 15.
Scope of farming activity is limited in Palampur due to
(a) Fixed amount of land
(b) lack of irrigation
(c) lack of labour
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Fixed amount of land

Question 16.
Who is a person who puts together land, labour and capital?
(a) Moneylender
(b) Entrepreneur
(c) Zamindar
(d) Manager

Answer

Answer: (b) Entrepreneur

Question 17.
High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds are developed in
(a) Research institutes
(b) Factories
(c) Krishak Bharati Cooperatives
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Research institutes

Question 18.
Which Kharif crop is used for cattle feed?
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Potato
(c) Jowar and bajra
(d) Wheat

Answer

Answer: (c) Jowar and bajra

Question 19.
Which of the following is a modern farming method?
(a) Multiple cropping
(b) Use of HYV seeds
(c) Use of chemical fertilisers
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)

Which of the following is a modern farming method?

Question 20.
Which area in India has a low level of irrigation?
(a) Deccan plateau
(b) Coastal regions
(c) Riverine plains
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) Deccan plateau

Question 21.
Multiple cropping means growing
(a) only two crops
(b) only three crops
(c) upto four crops
(d) more than one crop

Answer

Answer: (d) more than one crop

Question 22.
HYV seeds stands for
(a) Heavy yielding variety seeds
(b) High yielding variety seeds
(c) Half yielding variety seeds
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) High yielding variety seeds

Question 23.
The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is
(a) Rs. 50
(b) Rs. 60
(c) Rs. 70
(d) Rs. 80

Answer

Answer: (b) Rs. 60

Question 24.
Which of the following is fixed capital?
(a) Tools and machines
(b) Fertilisers and pesticides
(c) Soil
(d) Seeds

Answer

Answer: (a) Tools and machines

Question 25.
Which of the following is grown in the rainy season?
(a) Jowar and bajra
(b) Wheat
(c) Soyabean
(d) Rice

Answer

Answer: (a) Jowar and bajra

Suggested Activities

During your field visit talk to some farmers of your region. Find out:

  1. What kind of farming methods—modem or traditional or mixed—do the farmers use? Write a note.
  2. What are the sources of irrigation?
  3. How much of the cultivated land is irrigated? (very little/nearly half/majority/all)
  4. From where do farmers obtain the inputs that they require?
Answer

Answer:

  1. Most of the farmers in my region use modem farming methods. However, some are still carrying on traditional methods. These farmers are too poor to follow modem farming methods which need more cash.
  2. Wells and tubewells.
  3. Majority of the cultivated land is irrigated.
  4. Farmers obtain the required inputs from the local markets. The money that they need to buy the inputs either comes from their own savings or they take a loan from the bank.

Fill in the Blanks

Among the three factors of production, we found that labour is the most abundant factor of production. There are many people who are willing to work as farm labourers in the villages, whereas the opportunities of work are limited. They belong to either landless families or

1. ______ They are paid low wages, and lead a difficult life In contrast to labour
2. ______ is a scarce factor of production. Cultivated land area is
3. ______ Moreover, even the existing land is distributed.
4. ______ among the people engaged in farming there are a large number of small farmers who cultivate small plots of land and live in conditions not much better than the landless farm labourer. To make the maximum use of the existing land, farmers use
5. ______ and
6. ______ Both these have led to increase in production of crops. Modem farming methods require a great deal of
7. ______ Small farmers usually need to borrow money to arrange for the capital, and are put to great distress to repay the loan. Therefore, capital too is a scarce factor of production, particularly for the small farmers. Though both land and capital are scarce, there is a basic difference between the two factors of production.
8. ______ is a natural resource, whereas.
9. ______ is man-made. It is possible to increase capital, whereas land is fixed. Therefore, it is very important that we take good care of land and other natural resources used in farming.

Answer

Answer:
1. Families cultivating small plots of land
2. land
3. fixed
4. unequally
5. HYV seeds
6. chemical fertilisers
7. capital
8. Land
9. capital

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 1 The Story of Village Palampur with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding The Story of Village Palampur CBSE Class 9 Economics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Chapter 19 आश्रम का अनुमानित व्यय with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Chapter 19 आश्रम का अनुमानित व्यय with Answers

Check the below Online Education NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 19 आश्रम का अनुमानित व्यय with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided आश्रम का अनुमानित व्यय Class 7 Hindi MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-7-hindi-with-answers/

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi Chapter 19 Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

आश्रम का अनुमानित व्यय Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Class 7 Hindi Chapter 19 MCQ Question 1.
गांधी जी क्या बना रहे थे?
(a) आश्रम
(b) अहमदाबाद के आश्रम का होने वाला खर्च का ब्यौरा
(c) अंग्रेजों के विरुद्ध योजनाएँ
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी।

Answer

Answer: (b) अहमदाबाद के आश्रम का होने वाला खर्च का ब्यौरा

गांधी जी क्या बना रहे थे?

Ashram Ka Anumanit Vyay MCQ Class 7 Question 2.
कुछ समय बाद आगंतुकों की संख्या आश्रम में कितने होने वाली थी?
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 60

Answer

Answer: (c) 50

आश्रम का अनुमानित व्यय MCQ Class 7 Question 3.
सपरिवार रहने वाले अतिथि की संख्या आश्रम में कितनी होगी?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 3 से 5

Answer

Answer: (d) 3 से 5

MCQ Questions For Class 7 Hindi Chapter 19 Question 4.
आश्रम में कितनी पुस्तकें रखने की बात हो रही थी?
(a) 1000
(b) 1500
(c) 2000
(d) 3000

Answer

Answer: (d) 3000

Class 7 Hindi Ch 19 MCQ Question 5.
स्टेशन से अतिथि और सामान को लाने के लिए किस साधन का प्रयोग करने की बात हो रही थी?
(a) कार
(b) ओटो रिक्शा
(c) बैलगाड़ी
(d) रिक्शा।

Answer

Answer: (c) बैलगाड़ी

Aashram Ka Anumanit Vyay MCQ Class 7 Question 6.
आश्रम में औज़ारों की आवश्यकता क्यों महसूस हो रही थी?
(a) ताकि लोग आत्मनिर्भर बनें
(b) ताकि लोग काम करना सीखें
(c) ताकि आश्रम के छोटे-मोटे काम स्वयं करें
(d) दिए गए उपर्युक्त सभी।

Answer

Answer: (c) ताकि आश्रम के छोटे-मोटे काम स्वयं करें

Ncert Class 7 Hindi Chapter 19 MCQ Question 7.
आश्रम में हर महीने कितने अतिथियों के आने की संभावना थी?
(a) पाँच
(b) आठ
(c) दस
(d) बारह

Answer

Answer: (c) दस

Class 7th Hindi Chapter 19 MCQ Question 8.
आश्रम में कितने रसोईघर बनाने का लेखा-जोखा था?
(a) दो
(b) तीन
(c) चार
(d) पाँच।

Answer

Answer: (c) चार

(1)

हर महीने औसतन दस अतिथियों के आने की संभावना है। इनमें तीन या पाँच सपरिवार होंगे, इसलिए स्थान की व्यवस्था ऐसी होनी चाहिए कि परिवारवाले लोग अलग रह सकें और शेष एक साथ।
इसको ध्यान में रखते हुए तीन रसोईघर हों और मकान कुल पचास हज़ार वर्ग फुट क्षेत्रफल में बने तो सब लोगों के लायक जगह हो जाएगी।
इसके आलावा तीन हज़ार पुस्तकें रखने लायक पुस्तकालय और अलमारियाँ होनी चाहिए।

Class 7 Hindi Chapter 19 Extra Questions Question 1.
उपर्युक्त गद्यांश किस पाठ से लिया गया है?
(a) आश्रम के अनुशासन
(b) आश्रम के नियम
(c) आश्रम का अनुमानित व्यय
(d) आश्रम का काल्पिनक व्यय।

Answer

Answer: (d) आश्रम का काल्पिनक व्यय।

Class 7 Chapter 19 Hindi MCQ Question 2.
हर महीने कितने अतिथियों के आने की संभावना थी?
(a) पाँच
(b) आठ
(c) दस
(d) बारह।

Answer

Answer: (c) दस

Question 3.
रहने के लिए कितने प्रकार की व्यवस्था थी?
(a) एक समान
(b) दो प्रकार की
(c) तीन प्रकार की
(d) पाँच प्रकार की।

Answer

Answer: (b) दो प्रकार की

Question 4.
इस गद्यांश में गांधी जी के किस व्यक्तित्व की झलक मिलती है?
(a) बलिदान
(b) सच्चाई
(c) त्याग
(d) दूरदर्शिता।

Answer

Answer: (b) सच्चाई

Question 5.
उसको ध्यान में रखते हुए तीन रसोईघर हो। वाक्य में ‘तीन’ शब्द क्या है?
(a) क्रिया
(b) विशेषण
(c) संज्ञा
(d) क्रियाविशेषण।

Answer

Answer: (b) विशेषण

(2)

मेरे अनुमान से सब पर कुल पाँच रुपया खर्च आएगा।
रसोई के लिए आवश्यक सामान पर एक सौ पचास रुपये खर्च आएगा।
स्टेशन दूर होगा तो सामान को या मेहमानों को लाने के लिए बैलगाड़ी चाहिए।
मैं खाने का खर्च दस रुपये मासिक प्रति व्यक्ति लगाता हूँ। मैं नहीं समझता कि हम यह खर्च पहले वर्ष में निकाल सकेंगे। वर्ष में औसतन पचास लोगों का खर्च छह हज़ार रुपये आएगा।

Question 1.
‘मेरे’ का प्रयोग इनमें किसके लिए हुआ है?
(a) गांधी जी के लिए
(b) आने वाले के लिए
(c) नेहरू जी के लिए
(d) सरदार पटेल के लिए।

Answer

Answer: (a) गांधी जी के लिए

Question 2.
रसोई के लिए आवश्यक सामान पर अनुमानित खर्च आएगा।
(a) एक सौ
(b) एक सौ पचास
(c) एक सौ पच्चीस
(d) दो सौ

Answer

Answer: (b) एक सौ पचास

रसोई के लिए आवश्यक सामान पर अनुमानित खर्च आएगा।

Question 3.
गांधी जी ने खाने का खर्च मासिक प्रतिव्यक्ति लगाया थी।
(a) पाँच रुपए
(b) आठ रुपए
(c) दस रुपए
(d) बारह रुपए

Answer

Answer: (c) दस रुपए

Question 4.
बापू के अनुसार वर्ष में औसतन पचास लोगों का खर्च होगा।
(a) चार हज़ार
(b) पाँच हज़ार
(c) छह हज़ार
(d) सात हज़ार

Answer

Answer: (c) छह हज़ार

(3)

इसके आलावा तीन हजार पुस्तकें रखने लायक पुस्तकालय और अलमारियाँ होनी चाहिए।
कम-से-कम पाँच एकड़ जमीन खेती करने के लिए चाहिए, जिसमें कम-से-कम तीस लोग काम कर सकें, इतने खेती के औज़ार चाहिए। इनमें कुदालियों, फावड़ों और खुरपों की ज़रूरत होगी।

Question 1.
गांधी जी के अनुसार कितनी पुस्तकें रखनी थीं?

Answer

Answer: गांधी जी के अनुसार आश्रम में तीन हजार पुस्तकें रखनी थीं।

Question 2.
पुस्तकों के लिए किन चीज़ों की ज़रूरत थी?

Answer

Answer: (ख) पुस्तकें रखने के लिए आश्रम में अलमारियों की ज़रूरत थी।

Question 3.
खेती के लिए कितनी ज़मीन होनी चाहिए?

Answer

Answer: आश्रम में खेती के लिए कम से कम पाँच एकड़ जमीन चाहिए थी।

Question 4.
खेती करने के लिए कितने लोगों की ज़रूरत थी?

Answer

Answer: आश्रम की ज़मीन पर खेती करने के लिए कम से कम तीस लोगों की आवश्यकता थी।

Question 5.
खेती करने के लिए किन-किन औज़ारों की आवश्यकता थी?

Answer

Answer: खेती करने के लिए कुदालियों, फावड़ों और खुरपों की ज़रूरत होगी।

(4)

मुझे मालूम हुआ कि प्रमुख लोगों की इच्छा यह है कि अहमदाबाद में यह प्रयोग एक वर्ष तक किया जाए। यदि ऐसा हो तो अहमदाबाद को ऊपर बताया गया सब खर्च उठाना चाहिए। मेरी माँग तो यह भी है कि अहमदाबाद मुझे पूरी ज़मीन और मकान सभी दे दे तो बाकी खर्च मैं कहीं और से या दूसरी तरह जुटा लूँगा। अब चूँकि विचार बदल गया है, इसलिए ऐसा लगता है कि एक वर्ष का या इससे कुछ कम दिनों का खर्च अहमदाबाद को उठाना चाहिए। यदि अहमदाबाद एक वर्ष के खर्च का बोझ उठाने के लिए तैयार न हो, तो ऊपर बताए गए खाने के खर्च का इंतजाम मैं कर सकता हूँ। चूँकि मैंने खर्च का यह अनुमान जल्दी में तैयार किया है, इसलिए यह संभव है कि कुछ मदें मुझसे छूट गई हों। इसके अतिरिक्त खाने के खर्च के सिवा मुझे स्थानीय स्थितियों की जानकारी नहीं है। इसलिए मेरे अनुमान में भूल भी हो सकती है।

Question 1.
किसे क्या बात मालूम हुई ?

Answer

Answer: गांधी जी को यह बात मालूम हुई कि प्रमुख लोगों की यह इच्छा है कि अहमदाबाद में आश्रम स्थापित कर चलाने का प्रयोग एक वर्ष तक किया जाय।

Question 2.
गांधी जी की क्या माँग थी?

Answer

Answer: गांधी जी की माँग तो यह भी थी कि यदि अहमदाबाद पूरी ज़मीन और मकान आदि दे दे तो, वे बाकी खर्च कहीं और से जुटा लेंगे।

Question 3.
विचार लगने पर क्या लगता है?

Answer

Answer: विचार बदलने पर ऐसा लगता है कि वर्ष या इससे कुछ कम दिनों के खर्च अहमदाबाद को उठाना चाहिए।

Question 4.
लेखक सारे खर्चों का प्रबंध स्वयं कब कर लेगा?

Answer

Answer: लेखक सारे खर्चों का प्रबंध स्वयं तब कर लेगा जब अहमदाबाद ज़मीन और मकान दे दे।

Question 5.
प्रमुख लोगों की इच्छा है-
1. वाक्य के रेखांकित अंश में कारक के नाम बताइए।

Answer

Answer: प्रमुख लोगों की इच्छा है, वाक्य में रेखांकित अंश में कारक है- संबंध कारक

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi Vasant Chapter 19 आश्रम का अनुमानित व्यय with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 7 Hindi आश्रम का अनुमानित व्यय MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/tag/globalisation-and-the-indian-economy-class-10-mcqs-questions/

Globalisation and the Indian Economy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
Which one of the following organisations lag stress on liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment?
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) International Labour Organisation
(c) World Health Organisation
(d) World Trade Organisation
Answer:
(d) World Trade Organisation

Explanation: The World Trade Organisation was created with an aim to regulate and monitor if appropriate rules were being implemented by the countries.

Globalisation And The Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Choose the correctly matched pair:
(a) Sundaram Fasteners – Indian MNC
(b) Ranbaxy-Chinese MNC
(c) Ford Motors-British MNC
(d) Xiaomi-Korean MNC
Answer:
(a) Sundaram Fasteners-Indian MNC
Explanation: Ranbaxy-Indian MNC
Ford Motors-American MNC
Xiaomi-Chinese MNC

Globalisation Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Entry of MNCs in a domestic market may prove harmful for
(a) Large scale producers
(b) Domestic producers
(c) Native Bankers
(d) Exporters of goods
Answer:
(b) Domestic producers

Explanation: The entry of MNC into the domestic market will prove fruitful to native bankers, large scale producers as they will be involved in the manufacturing and exporters as export will improve. The domestic producers alone will be harmed as it might close down their production.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Globalisation MCQ Class 10 Question 4.
Which one of the following has been major source of foreign investment in the IT industry?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
(b) Oil India Limited
(c) Steel Authority of India Limited
(d) Business process outsourcing
Answer:
(d) Business process outsourcing

Explanation: The other choices are all manufacturing units.

Which among Mex, RCH2X, R2CHX , and R3CX is most reactive towards sn2 reaction​.

Globalisation And The Indian Economy MCQ Question 5.
Which one of the following types of countries has been more benefited from Globalisation?
(a) Rich countries
(b) Poor countries
(c) Developing countries
(d) Developed countries
Answer:
(c) Developing countries

Explanation: Employment has been generated to the youth in many developing countries, which means better quality of living.

MCQ On Globalisation Class 10 Question 6.
Which one of the following Indian industries has been hit hard by globalisation?
(a) IT
(b) Toy making
(c) Jute
(d) Cement
Answer:
(b) Toy making

MCQ Of Globalisation Class 10 Question 7.
Removing barriers on or restrictions set by the government is known as:
(a) Globalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Nationalisation
(d) Liberalisation
Answer:
(d) Liberalisation

Globalization Class 10 MCQ Question 8.
Ford Motors set up its first plant in India at
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Delhi

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Class 10 Globalisation MCQ Question 9.
…………. has helped most in the spread of production of services.
(a) Manufacturing Industry
(b) Automobile Sector
(c) Call centres
(d) IT Sector
Answer:
(d) IT Sector

Globalisation Refers To MCQ Question 10.
“MNCs keep in mind certain factors before setting up production”. What of the following statements is wrong when that assertion is concerned?
(a) MNCs keep the availability of cheap skilled and unskilled labour in mind.
(b) Proximity to markets is another important factor when MNCs are established.
(c) Presence of a large number of local competitors also changes the opinions of people while establishing an MNC.
(d) Favourable government policies are important for establishment of an MNC.
Answer:
(c) Presence of a large number of local competitors also changes the opinions of people while establishing an MNC. Explanation: MNCs are not interested in the local competitors as most of their products are for the export market.

Globalization Refers To MCQ Question 11.
…………… have led to a huge reduction in port handling costs and increased the speed with which exports can reach markets.
(a) Containers
(b) Airports
(c) Vessels with Stands
(d) Ships
Answer:
(a) Containers

Globalization MCQs Class 10 Question 12.
Cheaper imports, inadequate investment in domestic infrastructure might lead to
(a) the slowdown in the agricultural sector
(b) the slowdown in demands of domestic goods in the country
(c) the slowdown in the industrial sector
(d) slowdown in services
Answer:
(b) the slowdown in demands of domestic goods in the country

MCQ Of Globalisation And Indian Economy Question 13.
Which of the following country is NOT in the list of countries whom Ford Motors exporting its cars?
(a) South Africa
(b) Mexico
(c) Brazil
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Explanation: Ford Motors, an American company, is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world.

Related Theory
Ford Motors came to India in 1995, invested Rs.1700 crore to set up a plant near Chennai in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, manufacturer of jeeps and trucks in India.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

MCQ Globalisation Class 10 Question 14.
Which of the following company is the largest producer of edible oil in India?
(a) Parakh Foods
(b) Cargill Foods
(c) Mahindra and Mahindra
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Cargill Foods

Explanation: Cargill Foods is a very large American MNC, producing 5 million pouches of edible oil in India daily.

Related Theory
Cargill has bought over Parakh Foods which had built a large marketing network in various parts of India, also it had four oil refineries whose control has now shifted to Cargill.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following statement is NOT correct about a multinational company?
(a) It set up new factories for production.
(b) It may buy existing local companies to expand its business.
(c) It forms partnerships with local companies.
(d) It does not have new technology and large huge money with it.
Answer:
(d) It does not have new technology and huge money with it.

Globalization And The Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 16.
Which one of the following companies is NOT a multinational company?
(a) Tata Motors
(b) Reliance India Ltd.
(c) Ranbaxy
(d) Infosys
Answer:
(b) Reliance India Ltd.

Explanation: Globalisation has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as multinationals themselves. For example, Tata Motor (automobiles), Infosys (IT), Ranbaxy (medicines), Asian Paints (Paints), Sundaram Fasteners (nuts and bolts) are some Indian companies which are spreading their operations worldwide.

Question 17.
With what objective was World Trade Organisation set up?
(a) To liberalise international trade
(b) To allow free trade for all
(c) To establish rules regarding international trade
(d) All of these
Answer:

Question 18.
Which of the following statement clearly defines what an MNC is?
(a) A large company that owns or controls production in more than one nation.
(b) A large company that owns or controls raw material for production.
(c) A large company that deals in automobiles.
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) A large company that owns or controls production in more than one nation.

Question 19.
The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to:
(a) set up new factories
(b) buy existing local companies
(c) form partnerships with local companies
(d) none of these
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 20.
Which of the following attributes are NOT determined by an MNC?
(a) Price, Quality, delivery and raw material
(b) Price, labour conditions, quality, delivery
(c) Delivery and price only
(d) Raw material and transport cost
Answer:
(b) Price, labour conditions, quality, delivery

Question 21.
Large MNCs in developed countries place orders for production with small producers which include:
(a) Garments
(b) Footwear
(c) Sports
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Large MNCs in developed countries place orders for production with small producers which include:

Identify

Question 22.
Identify the following organization on basis of the hints given.
(1) It was established with the aim to liberalise international trade.
(2) 164 countries are its members.
Answer:
The World Trade Organisation

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 23.
The removal of barriers or restrictions by the government is known as globalisation.
Answer:
The removal of barriers or restrictions by the government is called liberalisation. Explanation: Liberalisation helps to remove all types of barriers to allow easy and affordable exchange of ideas, culture and even goods between countries.

Related Theory
Globalisation is the process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries by exchange of trade, ideas, culture, information and even markets.

Question 24.
International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade. [CBSE 2020,15]
Answer:
WTO is an organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade.

Explanation: World Trade Organisation (WTO) forms uniform rules and regulations to make trade simpler across the world.

Related Theory
International Monetary Fund was created to support economic stabilisation of Second World War economies. Nations were hurt and affected and hence needed funding and support to develop again.

Uniform Distribution Calculator solves two basic tasks.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 25.
………… results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.
Answer:
Foreign trade

Explanation: ForeignTrade helps manufacturers to find markets in various countries. It results in tax on imports which governments can use to increase or decrease foreign trade and to decide what kind of goods and how much of each, should come into the country.

Question 26.
………………… is the process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries.
Answer:
Globalisation

Question 27.
………. refers to some restrictions including the tax on Imports which governments can use to increase or decrease foreign trade and to decide what kind of goods and how much of each, shouLd come into the country.
Answer:
Trade barrier

Explanation: Indian government put barriers on foreign trad and foreign investment after independence to protect the producers within the country from foreign competition.

Question 28.
………… is the freedom of markets and abolition of state imposed restrictions on the movement of goods.
Answer:
Liberalisation

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 29.
……….. is an international organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade:
(a) WTO
(b) UNDP
(c) World Bank
(d) MNC
Answer:

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 30.
Match the following Indian companies from column A with the products these companies deal in from column B:

Column A (Indian Companies) Column B (Products these companies deal in)
(a) Tata Motors (i) IT
(b) Infosys (ii) Automobiles
(c) Ranbaxy (iii) Paints
(d) Asian Paints (iv) Medicines

Answer:

Column A (Indian Companies) Column B (Products these companies deal in)
(a) Tata Motors (ii) Automobiles
(b) Infosys (i) IT
(c) Ranbaxy (iv) Medicines
(d) Asian Paints (iii) Paints

Explanation: Globalisation has enabled these large Indian companies to emerge as MNCs. Another company that has become an MNC is Sundaram Fasteners which deals in nuts and bolts.

Question 31.
Match the following key terms given in column A with their meanings in column B:

Column A (Key Terms) Column B (Meanings)
(a) Globalisation (i) Investment by multinationals
(b) Liberalisation (ii) Controlling foreign trade
(c) Tax barrier (iii) Integration between economies
(d) Foreign investment (iv) Removing trade barriers

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Economics Chapter 4

In each of the following questions, a statemant of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 32.
Assertion (A): People also can play an important role in the struggle for fair globalisation.
Reason (R): Governments have done exceptionally well in implementing the rules of WTO.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Massive campaigns and representation by people’s organisations have influenced important decisions relating to trade and investments at the WTO.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 33.
Assertion (A): Not everyone has benefited from Globalisation equally.
Reason (R): People with education, skill and wealth have made the best use of the new opportunities while others have not been able to make the best use of it.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 34.
Assertion (A): Several of the top Indian companies have been able to benefit from the increased competition.
Reason (R): They have been able to get more customers using the existing technology.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Greater competition has forced the companies to invest in newer technologies and more infrastructure, along with better quality products which has helped these companies to gain a better consumer base with help from the competition.

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Foreign companies are demanding more rigidity in labour laws.
Reason (R): Flexible Labour laws give better chances for companies to profit.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Mr. Samson buys a company and then proceeds to buy new machines and furniture for the new company. He buys all his new employees clothes or new uniforms. He buys them new computers and redecorates the entire office.
Which one of the following statements is correct considering the source?
(a) Mr Samson loaned the money to this new office.
(b) Mr Samson spent money on social customs.
(c) Mr Samson invested this money because he bought the furniture, uniforms and machines.
(d) Mr Samson traded this money.
Answer:
(c) Mr Samson invested this money because he bought the furniture, uniforms and machines.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 2.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
A news magazine published for London readers is to be designed and printed in Delhi.
The text of the magazine is sent through the Internet to the Delhi office. The designers in the Delhi office get orders on how to design the magazine from the office in London using telecommunication facilities.
Which of the following phenomena helps these companies to execute these activities?
(a) Foreign Trade
(b) Domestic Trade
(c) Globalisation
(d) Investment
Answer:

Question 3.
Choose the correct statement about factors of globalisation in India:
(I) Improvement in transportation techno¬logy.
(II) Liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment.
(III) Favourable rules of World Trade Organisation towards India in comparison to developed countries.
Choose the correct options from the codes given below:
(a) Only (I) and (II)
(b) Only (I) and (III)
(c) Only (II) and (III)
(d) Only (III)
Answer:
(a) Only (I) and (II)

Explanation: WTO is supposed to allow free trade for all. However, in practice, it is seen that developed countries have retained trade barriers unfairly. On the other hand, WTO rules have forced developing countries to remove trade barriers. It is not partial in favour of India because it is an international organisation initiated by developed countries.

Question 4.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
The above evidence indicates that not everyone has benefited from gLobaiisation. People with education, skill and wealth have made the best use of the new opportunities. On the other hand, there are many people who have not shared the benefits. Since globalisation is now a reality, the question is how to make globalisation more ‘fair’? Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all, and also ensure that the benefits of globalisation are shared better.
Identify which of the following statements is not true about Globalization.
(a) Globalisation is the process of rapid integration between countries.
(b) It is movement of more and more investments and technology between countries.
(c) Globalisation is introduction of restrictions or barriers by the government.
(d) It is movement of more and more goods and services between countries.
Answer:
(c) Globalisation is introduction of restrictions or barriers by the government.

Explanation: Globalisation is the process of rapid integration or interconnection between the countries. Through Globalisation more and more goods, services, greater foreign investments, technology and movement of people are taking place between countries. Globalisation doesn’t call for restrictions or barriers. It rather brings the countries in closer contact with each other.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Ford Motors, an American company, is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world. Ford Motors came to India in 1995 and spent Bs. 1700 crore to set up a large plant near Chennai. This was done in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks. By the year 2017, Ford Motors was selling 88,000 cars in the Indian markets, while another 1,81,000 cars were exported from India to South Africa, Mexico, Brazil and the United States of America. The company wants to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
Ford Motors is a Company.
(a) Uni-national
(b) Bi-national
(c) Regional
(d) Multi-national
Answer:
(d) Multi-national

Explanation: Its production units are present in various countries and hence it is a MNC.

(B) Which of the following local companies did Ford Motors collaborate with?
(a) Hero motors
(b) Honda and Suzuki
(c) Mahindra and Mahindra
(d) Volkswagen
Answer:

(C) Which of the following benefits are availed by the local company on collaborating with Ford Motors?
(a) The demand for cars from local companies in India rises.
(b) Ford Motors supplies new technology to the local company.
(c) Ford Motors takes over the local company.
(d) Ford Motors changes the management of local companies.
Answer:
(b) Ford Motors suppiies new technology to the local companies.

(D) Which of the following statements best describe the benefit to Indian producers in this statement in simple words?
“By the year 2017, Ford Motors was selling 88,000 cars in the Indian markets, while another 1,81,000 cars were exported from india.”
(a) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has decreased.
(b) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has increased.
(c) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has remained the same.
(d) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has completely shifted.
Answer:
(b) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has increased.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Even more remarkable have been the developments in information and communication technology. In recent times, technology in the areas of telecommunications, computers, and the Internet has been changing rapidly. Telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone including mobile phones, fax) are used to contact one another around the world, to access information instantly, and to communicate from remote areas. This has been facilitated by satellite communication devices.

As you would be aware, computers have now entered almost every field of activity. You might have also ventured into the amazing world of the internet, where you can obtain and share information on almost anything you want to know. The Internet also allows us to send instant electronic mail (e-mail) and talk (voice-mail) across the world at negligible costs.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following factors have experienced a change due to the Internet?
(a) All the information in the world can be accessed at the click of a finger.
(b) One can fly from one country to another.
(c) One can establish a telephonic contact between a man in India and Alaska.
(d) One can cook by watching a show on TV.
Answer:

(B) Which of the following ways has the IT sector helped in?
(a) In production of goods
(b) In production of services
(c) In export of goods
(d) In export of services
Answer:
(b) In production of services

Explanation: Information and communication technology (or IT in short) has played a major role in spreading out production of services like Banking, teaching, hospitality across countries.

(C) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
…………………. is not a Telecommunication facility?
(a) Telegraph
(b) Mobiles
(c) Emails
(d) A cars
Answer:
(d) A Car

Explanation: It is a transportation facility.

(D) Complete the following:
Boating- Development in transportation facilities; E- Banking
(a) Development in Transport
(b) Development in Trade
(c) Development in Production
(d) Development in IT
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Having assured themselves of these conditions, MNCs set up factories and offices for production. The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment. Investment made by MNCs is called foreign investment. Any investment is made with the hope that these assets will earn profits.

At times, MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies of these countries. The benefit to the local company of such joint production is two-fold. First, MNCs can provide money for additional investments, like buying new machines for faster production. Second, MNCs might bring with them the latest technology for production.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Statements are given below. Find the correct ones which suit the statement given in the questions.
Investment means spending on:
(I) factories and industrial building
(II) machines
(III) equipments
(IV) gold ornaments for employees
(V) Uniforms
(VI) Vehicles for the company
(a) (I) & (IV)
(b) (I) & (III)
(c) (II), (III) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III), (V) & (VI)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), (III), (V) & (VI)

(B) FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) attracted by Globalisation in India comes from the:
(a) World Bank
(b) Multinational companies
(c) foreign governments
(d) Indian residents
Answer:
(b) Multinational companies

(C) How does Joint Production with Zara help a local company called Style Quotient?
(a) It brings better technology and production methods to Style Quotient.
(b) Zara gets a new manager.
(c) Style Quotient gets a better transport vehicle.
(d) Employees at Style Quotient get discounts at Zara Store.
Answer:
(a) It brings better technology and production methods to Style Quotient.

(D) Which one of the following is a major benefit (to the MNC) of joint production between a local company and a Multinational Company?
(a) MNC are able to earn more customers.
(b) MNC can control the increase in the price of a good.
(c) MNC can expand its office physically.
(d) MNC can promote the local company.
Answer:
(a) MNC are able to earn more customers

Which one of the following is a major benefit (to the MNC) of joint production between a local company and a Multinational Company?

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
35-year old Sushila has spent many years as a worker in the garment export industry of Delhi. She was employed as a ‘permanent worker’ entitled to health insurance, provident fund, overtime at a double rate, when Sushila’s factory closed in the late 1990s. After searching for a job for six months, she finally got a job 30 km away from where she lives. Even after working in this factory for Several years, she is a temporary worker and earns less than half of what she was earning earlier. Sushila leaves her house every morning, seven days a week at 7:30 a.m. and returns at 10 p.m. A day off from work means no wage. She has none of the benefits she used to get earlier. Factories closer to her home have widely fluctuating orders and therefore pay even less. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Has Globalisation been favourable to Sushila and other workers like her?
(a) Yes, there are new jobs
(b) No, there is greater unemployment because people now employ workers on a seasonal basis.
(c) There is no change in employment opportunities.
(d) Workers are not affected by Globalisation.
Answer:
(b) No, there is greater unemployment because people now employ workers on a seasonal basis.

(B) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
Globalisation so far has been more in favour of
(a) Developed countries
(b) Underdeveloped countries
(c) Poor countries
(d) It has had an equal effect.
Answer:
(a) Developed countries

Explanation: They have been able to expand their markets and their consumer bases.

(C) Which one of the following has benefited least because of globalisation in India?
(a) Industrial Sector
(b) Agriculture Sector
(c) Service Sector
(d) IT Sector
Answer:
(b) Agriculture Sector

(D) Which of the following statements are not true about Sushila’s employment terms?
(a) She gets more benefits like Medical leave due to Globalisation.
(b) She has to work longer than usual.
(c) Her wages have doubled.
(d) She had received a promotion
Answer:
(a) She gets more benefits like Medical leave due to Globalisation.
Explanation: all her existing terms have been cancelled and now she has no extra benefits.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 9.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow: [CBSE 2020,14] Source A – Production across countries
Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organised within countries. What crossed the boundaries of these countries were raw material, food stuff and finished products. Colonies such as India exported raw materials and food stuff and imported finished goods. Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. This was before large companies called multinational corporations (MNCs) emerged on the scene. Source B – Foreign trade and integration of markets

Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic
markets, i.e., markets of their own countries. Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers, import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.

Source C – Impact of globalisation in India Globalisation and greater competition among producers – both local and foreign producers – has been of advantage to consumers, particularly the well-off sections in the urban areas. There is greater choice before these consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products. As a result, these people today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was possible earlier. Source A – Production across countries
(A) How are MNCs a major force in connecting the countries of the world?
Source B – Foreign trade and integration of markets
Answer:
MNCs act as a major force in connecting various countries of the world.
They interact with Local producers in various counties across the globe to expand their production and markets which results in connection of widely dispersed locations on countries.

(B) How does foreign trade become a main channel in connecting countries?
Source C – Impact of globalisation in India
Answer:
Foreign trade helps to integrate various markets with one another through the means of domestic and international producers who sells the same product in domestic and international markets. The markets of all countries garner similar products and are integrated together.

(C) How is globalisation beneficial for consumers?
Answer:
Globalisation is beneficial for consumers in the following ways:

  1. High quality goods are available at lower prices.
  2. A wide range of choice is available for the consumers.

Question 10.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions related to them :
Source A – Globalisation and the Indian economy
An consumers in today’s world, some of us have a wide choice of goods and services before us. The latest models of digital cameras, mobile phones and televisions made by the leading manufacturers of the world are within our reach. Every season, new models of automobiles can be seen on Indian roads. Source B – Foreign trade and integration of markets
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets, i.e., markets of their own countries. Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers, the import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced. Source C – The struggle for fair globalisation In the past few years, massive campaigns and representation by people’s organisations has influenced important decisions relating to trade and investments at the World Trade Organisation. This has demonstrated that people can also play an important role in the struggle for fair globalisation.
Source A – Globalisation and the Indian economy
(A) How is the impact of globalisation visible on consumers?
Source B – Foreign trade and integration of markets
Answer:

(B) How does foreign trade integrate markets? Explain.
Source C – The struggle for fair globalisation
Answer:

(C) How do people play an important role in the struggle for fair globalisation? Explain.
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State any one example for a trade barrier?
Answer:
Taxes and Import duties

Question 2.
Why did the Indian government remove barriers to a large extent on foreign trade and foreign investment?
Answer:
They removed the trade barriers to help the native industries and boost their trade by letting the foreign competition in the country’s market.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 3.
What attracts the foreign investment?
Answer:

Question 4.
Due to which reason the latest models of different items are available within our reach?
Answer:
Foreign Trade integrates different markets and helps the countries to make products from across the world available to their citizens.

Question 5.
Why are MNC setting them Customer Care Centres in India?
Answer:
India has a lot of educated youth who can speak English well and thereby are the perfect candidates to be customer care professionals.

Question 6.
Differentiate between multinational corporations and domestic companies.
Answer:
Multinational corporations operate in two or more countries while domestic companies restrict their operations to a single country.

Related Theory:
Multinational companies move to other countries and expand their business for various reasons. They also give a tough competition to domestic companies.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 7.
What is the basic function of foreign trade?
Answer:

Question 8.
The MNC’s of a country sets up a production jointly with the local company of other country. State any one benefit of this joint production to the local company.
Answer:
Benefits of Joint Production:

  1. MNC can provide money for additional investment.
  2. MNC might bring latest technology for production, (any 1 to be mentioned)

Question 9.
Distinguish between investment and foreign investment.
Answer:
When land, assets or buildings are purchased and kept hold of, they are considered as investments, whereas when multinational corporations (MNC’s) invest money or finances in a project of another company in another country, it is considered as foreign investment.

Question 10.
Due to which reason are the latest models of different items available within our reach?
Answer:
The latest models of different items are available within our reach due to ‘globalisation.

Question 11.
Define globalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation is defined as the integration between different countries through foreign trade and foreign investments by various muLti-national corporations (MNCs).

Related Theory:
Globalisation has helped a lot in interlinking economies and markets across the world. Now, people are able to sell their produce in the foreign markets also.

Question 12.
Where do MNCs prefer to set up their offices and factories?
Answer:
MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources.

Explanation: Every MNC wants to attain maximum profit off their business. One of the easiest way to do is to reduce the cost of production by either updating the infrastructure, to include better tecnnology, or by employing cheap labour, finding cheaper sources of energy to be used.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 13.
How has globalisation enabled the national companies to emerge as Multinational Companies (MNCs)?
Answer:
Globalisation enabled the national companies to emerge as MNCs:
New opportunities have been provided to the companies/ Helped in collaboration with foreign companies/ Technological and production inputs.

Question 14.
Which is the most common route for investment by MNCs in countries around the world?
Answer:
The easiest way for MNCs is to invest around the world is to buy up local companies and then to expand production by controlling the means.

Question 15.
Define the term Liberalisation.
Answer:
Liberalisation refers to the removal or partial or complete loosening of the restrictions set by the government on foreign investment and trade. It also eases up the process of import and export.

Question 16.
Name some Indian companies which are now emerging as Multi National Corporations.
Answer:
Tata motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy, Asian paints and Sundaram fasteners are some Indian companies which are spreading their operations worldwide.

Explanation: MNCs or Multi National Corporations are companies which are based in various countries and their market and production are both expanded across various countries and continents.

Question 17.
Define the term ‘investment’.
Answer:
The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment.

Explanation: Any investment is made with the hope that these assets will earn profits.

Related Theory:
Investment made by MNCs is called foreign investment.

Question 18.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Answer:
In recent years, the central and state governments in India are taking special steps to attract foreign companies to invest in India. Companies who set up production units in the SEZs do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Question 19.
What are SEZs?
Answer:
SEZs are Special Economic Zones or Industrial Zones set up to attract foreign investment by government of India.

Related Theory:
SEZs have world class infrastructural facilities and other facilities like tax rebates, flexibility in labour laws to attract investors.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers