Category: MCQ Questions

Get Chapter Wise MCQ Questions for Class 12 English with Answers of Flamingo, Vistas PDF Free Download prepared here according to the latest CBSE syllabus and NCERT curriculum https://ncert.nic.in/. Students can practice CBSE Class 12 English MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers of Flamingo, Vistas to score good marks in the examination.

Class 12 English MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers Flamingo, Vistas

Practicing these CBSE NCERT Objective MCQ Questions of Class 12 English with Answers Pdf of Flamingo, Vistas will guide students to do a quick revision for all the concepts present in each chapter and prepare for final exams.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 English with Answers Flamingo

MCQ Questions for Class 12 English with Answers Flamingo Prose

1. The Last Lesson Class 12 MCQ Questions
2. Lost Spring Class 12 MCQ Questions
3. Deep Water Class 12 MCQ Questions
4. The Rattrap Class 12 MCQ Questions
5. Indigo Class 12 MCQ Questions
6. Poets and Pancakes Class 12 MCQ Questions
7. The Interview Class 12 MCQ Questions
8. Going Places Class 12 MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 12 English with Answers Flamingo Poems

1. My Mother at Sixty-six Class 12 MCQ Questions
2. An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum Class 12 MCQ Questions
3. Keeping Quiet Class 12 MCQ Questions
4. A Thing of Beauty Class 12 MCQ Questions
5. A Roadside Stand Class 12 MCQ Questions
6. Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers Class 12 MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 12 English with Answers Vistas

1. The Third Level Class 12 MCQ Questions
2. The Tiger King Class 12 MCQ Questions
3. Journey to the End of the Earth Class 12 MCQ Questions
4. The Enemy Class 12 MCQ Questions
5. Should Wizard Hit Mommy Class 12 MCQ Questions
6. On the Face of it Class 12 MCQ Questions
7. Evans Tries an O-level Class 12 MCQ Questions
8. Memories of Childhood Class 12 MCQ Questions

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 English with Answers of Flamingo, Vistas PDF Free Download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 12 English MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 3 Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables Class 10 Maths MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Students can also refer to NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 3 Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables for better exam preparation and score more marks.

Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Graphically, the pair of equations 6x – 3y + 10 = 0
2x – y + 9 = 0
represents two lines which are
(a) Intersecting at exactly one point
(b) Intersecting at two points
(c) Coincident
(d) Parallel

Answer

Answer: (d) Parallel

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Question 2.
The pair of linear equations x + 2y + 5 = 0 and -3x – 6y + 1 = 0 has
(а) a unique solution
(b) exactly two solutions
(c) infinitely many solutions
(d) no solutions

Answer

Answer: (d) no solutions

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Question 3.
If a pair of linear equations is consistent, then
the lines will be
(a) parallel
(b) always coincident
(c) intersecting or coincident
(d) always intersecting

Answer

Answer: (c) intersecting or coincident

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Question 4.
The pair of equations y = 0 and y = -7 has
(а) one solution
(b) two solutions
(c) infinitely many solutions
(d) no solution

Answer

Answer: (d) no solution

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Question 5.
The pair of equations x = a and y = b graphically represents lines which are
(а) parallel
(b) intersecting at (b, a)
(c) coincident
(d) intersecting at (a, b)

Answer

Answer: (d) intersecting at (a, b)

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Question 6.
For what value of k, for the equations 3x – y + 8 = 0 and 6x – ky = -16 represents coincident lines?
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) –\(\frac{1}{2}\)
(c) 2
(d) -2

Answer

Answer: (c) 2

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Question 7.
If the lines given by 3x + 2ky = 2 and 2x + 5y + 1 = 0 are parallel, then the value of k is
(a) –\(\frac{5}{4}\)
(b) –\(\frac{2}{5}\)
(c) \(\frac{15}{4}\)
(d) –\(\frac{3}{2}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\frac{15}{4}\)

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Question 8.
The value of c for which the pair of equations cx – y = 2 and 6x – 2y = 3 will have infinitely many solutions is
(a) 3
(b) -3
(c) -12
(d) no value

Answer

Answer: (d) no value

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Question 9.
One equation of a pair of dependent linear equation is -5x + 7y = 2. The second equation can be
(a) 10x + 14y + 4 = 0
(b) -10x – 14y + 4 = 0
(c) -10x + 14y + 4 = 0
(d) 10x – 14y = -4

Answer

Answer: (d) 10x – 14y = -4

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Question 10.
A pair of linear equations which has a unique solution x = 2, y = -3 is
(a) x + y = -1
2x – 3y = -5
(b) 2x + 5y = -11
4x + 10y = -22
(c) 2x – y = 1
3x + 2y = 0
(d) x – 4y – 14 = 0
5x – y – 13 = 0

Answer

Answer: (d) x – 4y – 14 = 0
5x – y – 13 = 0

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Question 11.
If x = a, y = b is the solution of the equation x – y = 2 and x + y = 4, then the value of a and b are respectively
(a) 3 and 5
(b) 5 and 3
(c) 3 and 1
(d) -1 and -3

Answer

Answer: (c) 3 and 1

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Question 12.
Aruna has only Rs 1 and Rs 2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and the amount of money with her is Rs 75, then the number of Rs 1 and Rs 2 coins are respectively
(a) 35 and 15
(b) 35 and 20
(c) 15 and 35
(d) 25 and 25

Answer

Answer: (d) 25 and 25

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Question 13.
The father’s age is six times his son’s age. Four years hence, the age of the father will be four times his son’s age. The present ages of the son and the father, in years, are respectively
(a) 4 and 24
(b) 5 and 30
(c) 6 and 36
(d) 3 and 24

Answer

Answer: (c) 6 and 36

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Question 14.
If the system of equations 2x + 3y = 7
2ax + (a + 6)y = 28
has infinitely many solutions, then
(a) a = 2b
(b) b = 2a
(c) a + 2b = 0
(d) 2a + b = 0

Answer

Answer: (b) b = 2a

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Question 15.
The angles of a triangle are x, y and 40°. The difference between the two angles x and y is 30°. The values of x and y are
(a) 45°, 75°
(b) 50°, 80°
(c) 55°, 85°
(d) 55°, 95°

Answer

Answer: (c) 55°, 85°

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We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 3 Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables CBSE Class 10 Maths MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi बाल महाभारत कथा with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided बाल महाभारत कथा Class 7 Hindi MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

Students can also read NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Hindi बाल महाभारत कथा Questions and Answers at LearnInsta. Here all questions are solved with a detailed explanation, It will help to score more marks in your examinations.

बाल महाभारत कथा Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
महाभारत की रचना किसने की?

Answer

Answer: महाभारत की रचना महर्षि पराशर के कीर्तिमान पुत्र वेद व्यास ने की।

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Question 2.
पांडु की कितनी रानियाँ थीं?

Answer

Answer: पांडू की तीन रानियाँ थीं।

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Question 3.
कुंती एवं माद्री के पुत्रों के नाम लिखिए।

Answer

Answer: कुंती ने, युधिष्ठिर, भीम, व अर्जुन को जन्म दिया। नकुल व सहदेव की माँ माद्री थी।

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Question 4.
धृतराष्ट्र के कितने पुत्र थे? उनके बड़े पुत्र का नाम लिखिए।

Answer

Answer: धृतराष्ट्र के सौ पुत्र थे, जो कौरव कहलाए। उनके सबसे बड़े पुत्र का नाम दुर्योधन था।

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Question 5.
कौरवों व पांडवों को कहाँ का राज्य मिला था?

Answer

Answer: संधि के अनुसार कौरव हस्तिनापुर के राजा बने और पांडवों को इंद्रप्रस्थ (वर्तमान दिल्ली) का राज्य मिला था।

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Question 6.
पांडु के साथ उनकी कौन-सी रानी सती हुई थी?

Answer

Answer: पांडु के साथ उनकी छोटी रानी माद्री सती हुई।

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Question 7.
पांडवों के बाद राज्य का उत्तराधिकारी कौन बना?

Answer

Answer: पांडवों के बाद राज्य का उत्तराधिकारी उनका पोता परीक्षित बना।

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Question 8.
नदी के किनारे पर खडी कन्या कौन थी?

Answer

Answer: नदी के किनारे खड़ी कन्या गंगा थी।

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Question 9.
शांतनु के सामने पत्नी बनने के लिए गंगा ने क्या शर्त रखी थी?

Answer

Answer: गंगा ने पत्नी बनने के लिए राजा शांतनु से शर्त रखी थी कि मैं कुछ भी करूँ, आप मुझसे कुछ नहीं कहेंगे।

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Question 10.
अपने पुत्रों को नदी की धारा में बहाने के बाद गंगा कहाँ जाती थी?

Answer

Answer: अपने पुत्रों को नदी की धारा में बहाने के बाद गंगा हँसती-मुसकराती हुई शांतनु के महल में आ जाती थी।

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Question 11.
राजा शांतनु गंगा के द्वारा अपनी संतान को नदी के धारा में बहाते हुए देखकर भी कुछ क्यों नहीं बोल पाते थे?

Answer

Answer: राजा शांतनु गंगा को संतान को नदी की धारा में बहाते हुए देखकर भी कुछ इसलिए नहीं कह पाते थे, क्योंकि वे वचनबद्ध थे।

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Question 12.
सत्यवती को देखकर राजा शांतनु के मन में क्या इच्छा बलबती हो उठी?

Answer

Answer: सत्यवती को देखकर राजा शांतनु के मन में उसे अपनी पत्नी बनाने की इच्छा बलबती हो उठी।

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Question 13.
केवटराज ने सत्यवती के विवाह के लिए क्या शर्त लगाई ?

Answer

Answer: केवटराज ने शर्त लगाई-शांतनु की मृत्यु के बाद सत्यवती का पुत्र ही हस्तिनापुर के राज सिंहासन पर बैठेगा।

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Question 14.
केवटराज की प्रथम शर्त पर देवव्रत ने क्या उत्तर दिया।

Answer

Answer: केवटराज की प्रथम शर्त सुनकर देवव्रत ने कहा- मैं वचन देता हूँ कि मेरे पिता के बाद सत्यवती का पुत्र ही राजा बनेगा।

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Question 15.
चित्रांगद कौन था?

Answer

Answer: चित्रांगद सत्यवती का बड़ा लड़का था।

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Question 16.
चित्रांगद की मृत्यु कैसे हुई।

Answer

Answer: चित्रांगद वीर और स्वार्थी प्रकृति का व्यक्ति था। उसकी मृत्यु गंधर्वो के साथ युद्ध में हुई थी।

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Question 17.
विदुर कौन थे?

Answer

Answer: विदुर विचित्र वीर्य की रानी अंबालिका की दासी के पुत्र थे।

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Question 18.
विदुर किस स्वभाव के व्यक्ति थे?

Answer

Answer: विदुर धर्मशास्त्र एवं राजनीति के पंडित थे। इनमें इनका अथाह ज्ञान था। वे क्रोध एवं अभिमान से दूर रहते थे।

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Question 19.
विदुर का पहला नाम क्या था?

Answer

Answer: विदुर का पहला नाम धर्मदेव था।

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Question 20.
सूरसेन कौन थे?

Answer

Answer: सूरसेन यदुवंश के लोकप्रिय राजा और श्रीकृष्ण के पितामह थे।

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Question 21.
पृथा किसकी बेटी थी?

Answer

Answer: पृथा यदुवंश के प्रसिद्ध राजा सूरसेन की पुत्री थी।

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Question 22.
धर्मदेव का जन्म किसकी कोख से हुआ था?

Answer

Answer: धर्मदेव का जन्म विचित्रवीर्य की रानी अंबालिका की दासी की कोख से हुआ था।

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Question 23.
कर्ण का पालन-पोषण किसने किया था?

Answer

Answer: कर्ण का लालन-पालन अधिरथ नाम के सारथी ने किया था।

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Question 24.
धृतराष्ट्र ने विदुर को क्या बनाया?

Answer

Answer: धृतराष्ट्र ने विदुर को अपना प्रधानमंत्री बनाया।

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Question 25.
पांडु के पत्नियों का नाम बताएँ।

Answer

Answer: पांडु की दो पत्नियाँ थीं – कुंती व माद्री।

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Question 26.
दुर्योधन भीम से ईर्ष्या क्यों करता था?

Answer

Answer: दुर्योधन भीम से ईर्ष्या इसलिए करता था, क्योंकि भीम दुर्योधन से अधिक ताकतवर था।

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Question 27.
पांडव कितने भाई थे? उनके नाम बताइए।

Answer

Answer: पांडव पाँच भाई थे- युधिष्ठिर, भीम, अर्जुन, नकुल और सहदेव।

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Question 28.
धृतराष्ट्र के कितने पुत्र थे? वे क्या कहलाते थे?

Answer

Answer: धृतराष्ट्र के सौ पुत्र थे। वे कौरव कहलाते थे।

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Question 29.
कौरव-पांडव किससे अस्त्र विद्या सीखने लगे।

Answer

Answer: कौरव-पांडव कृपाचार्य से अस्त्र-विद्या सीखने लगे।

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Question 30.
भीम को मारने के लिए कौरवों ने क्या फ़ैसला किया?

Answer

Answer: भीम को मारने के लिए कौरवों ने गंगा में डूबो कर मारने का फैसला किया।

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Question 31.
भीम पर विष का क्या असर हुआ?

Answer

Answer: भीम को बेहोशी आ गई और वह गंगा के किनारे गिर पड़ा।

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Question 32.
पांडवों और कुंती की खुशी का कारण क्या था?

Answer

Answer: भीम झूमता-झामता जिंदा चला आ रहा था। अतः उसे देखकर पांडवों और कुंती को काफ़ी प्रसन्नता हुई।

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Question 33.
कंती ने अपनी चिंता किसके सामने प्रकट की?

Answer

Answer: कुंती ने अपनी चिंता विदुर के सामने प्रकट की।

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Question 34.
पांडवों ने किन-किन गुरुओं से अस्त्र-शस्त्र की शिक्षा पाई ?

Answer

Answer: पांडवों ने पहले कृपाचार्य से और बाद में द्रोणाचार्य से शिक्षा पाई थी।

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Question 35.
क्या देखकर दुर्योधन का मन ईर्ष्या-द्वेष से जलने लगा?

Answer

Answer: अर्जुन की धनुष विद्या का कमाल और चतुरता देखकर दुर्योधन का मन ईर्ष्या और द्वेष से जलने लगा।

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Question 36.
कर्ण को लाचार देखकर दुर्योधन ने उसके लिए क्या किया?

Answer

Answer: दुर्योधन ने कर्ण को अपने पितामह और धृतराष्ट्र की अनुमति से कर्ण को अंग देश का राजा बना दिया।

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Question 37.
आचार्य द्रोण कौन थे?

Answer

Answer: आचार्य द्रोण महर्षि भारद्वाज के पुत्र थे।

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Question 38.
उनकी किसके साथ गहरी मित्रता थी?

Answer

Answer: द्रुपद और द्रोण में गहरी मित्रता थी।

Question 39.
द्रोणाचार्य का किसके साथ विवाह हुआ था?

Answer

Answer: द्रोणाचार्य का विवाह कृपाचार्य की बहन के साथ हुआ था।

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Question 40.
परशुराम अपनी संपत्ति गरीब ब्राह्मणों को दान में क्यों दे रहे थे?

Answer

Answer: वन-गमन के उद्देश्य से परशुराम अपनी सारी संपत्ति गरीबों में बाँट रहे थे।

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Question 41.
शिक्षा पूरी होने पर द्रोण ने अर्जुन से गुरु-दक्षिणा में क्या माँगा?

Answer

Answer: शिक्षा पूरी होने पर द्रोण ने अर्जुन से गुरु दक्षिणा के रूप में पांचाल-राज को कैद कर लाने के लिए कहा।

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Question 42.
द्रुपद ने द्रोण के साथ कैसा व्यवहार किया?

Answer

Answer: द्रुपद ने सत्ता के मद में द्रोण का अपमान किया।

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Question 43.
द्रुपद के पुत्र व पुत्री के नाम बताएँ?

Answer

Answer: पुत्र का नाम धृष्टद्युम्न तथा पुत्री का नाम द्रौपदी था।

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Question 44.
दुर्योधन की ईर्ष्या क्यों बढ़ती जा रही थी?

Answer

Answer: भीम की शारीरिक शक्ति और अर्जुन की युद्धकला को देखकर दुर्योधन की ईर्ष्या दिन-प्रतिदिन बढ़ती जा रही थी।

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Question 45.
दुर्योधन को कुमंत्रणा कौन-कौन दे रहे थे?

Answer

Answer: पांडवों का विनाश करने के लिए मामा शकुनि तथा कर्ण दुर्योधन को कुमंत्रणा दे रहे थे।

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Question 46.
धृतराष्ट्र का स्वभाव कैसा था?

Answer

Answer: यद्यपि धृतराष्ट्र बुद्धिमान थे पर वे दृढ़ निश्चयी नहीं थे।

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Question 47.
पुरोचन पांडवों को कहाँ ले गए?

Answer

Answer: पुरोचन पांडवों को लाख से बने भवन में ले गए।

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Question 48.
वारणावत को जाते समय विदुर ने युधिष्ठिर को किस प्रकार सावधान किया?

Answer

Answer: वारणावत जाते समय विदुर ने युधिष्ठिर को दुर्योधन के षड्यंत्र तथा उससे बचने का उपाय गूढ भाषा में अवगत करवाकर सचेत कर दिया था।

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Question 49.
विदुर द्वारा भेजे गए व्यक्ति ने भवन के अंदर क्या किया?

Answer

Answer: विदुर द्वारा भेजे गए व्यक्ति ने भवन के अंदर एक सुरंग बना दी जिससे पांडव बाहर निकल सकें।

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Question 50.
पांडव एकचक्रा नगरी में किस रूप में जीवन व्यतीत कर रहे थे?

Answer

Answer: पांडव एकचक्रा नगरी में ब्राह्मणों के रूप में जीवन व्यतीत कर रहे थे।

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Question 51.
किसके स्वयंवर की तैयारियाँ होने लगी?

Answer

Answer: पांचाल नरेश की पुत्री द्रौपदी के स्वयंवर की तैयारियाँ होने लगी।

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Question 52.
पंचाल देश में पांडव किस तरह रहते थे?

Answer

Answer: पंचाल देश में पांडव ब्राह्मणों के वेश में रहते थे।

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Question 53.
पांडव कहाँ रहकर कैसे गुज़र करने लगे?

Answer

Answer: पांडव अपनी माता कुंती के साथ एक चक्रानगरी में भिक्षा माँगकर गुज़र करने लगे।

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Question 54.
कर्ण ने दुर्योधन को क्या सुझाव दिया?

Answer

Answer: कर्ण ने दुर्योधन को सुझाव दिया कि- पांडवों की शक्ति बढ़ने से पहले ही उन पर आक्रमण कर दिया जाए।

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Question 55.
भीष्म ने धृतराष्ट्र को क्या सुझाव दिया?

Answer

Answer: भीष्म ने धृतराष्ट्र को सुझाव दिया कि पांडवों के साथ संधि करके आधा राज्य उन्हें वापस दे दिया जाए।

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Question 56.
महाराज द्रुपद की शर्त किसने पूरी की?

Answer

Answer: महाराज द्रुपद की शर्त अर्जुन ने पूरी की।

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Question 57.
विदुर को पांचाल देश क्यों भेजा गया?

Answer

Answer: पांडवों को द्रौपदी और कुंती के साथ आदर सहित हस्तिनापुर लाने के लिए विदुर को भेजा गया।

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Question 58.
पांडवों की राजधानी का क्या नाम था?

Answer

Answer: पांडवों की राजधानी का नाम इंद्रप्रस्थ था।

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Question 59.
धृष्टद्युम्न ने कुम्हार की कुटिया में क्या देखा?

Answer

Answer: धृष्टद्युम्न ने कुम्हार की कुटिया में पाँचों पांडवों को तथा अग्निशिखा की भाँति एक तेजस्वी देवी अर्थात् कुंती को देखा।

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Question 60.
जरासंध कौन था?

Answer

Answer: जरासंध मगध देश का राजा था, और कंस उसका दामाद था।

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Question 61.
नियम के अनुसार, राजसूय यज्ञ कौन करने का अधिकारी होता था?

Answer

Answer: जो संपूर्ण संसार में राजाओं में पूज्य हो, वह राजा ही राजसूय यज्ञ कर सकता था।

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Question 62.
राजसूय यज्ञ करने की इच्छा से युधिष्ठिर ने किससे सलाह ली।

Answer

Answer: राजसूय करने की इच्छा से युधिष्ठिर ने श्रीकृष्ण से सलाह ली।

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Question 63.
जरासंध का वध किसने किया?

Answer

Answer: जरासंध का वध भीम ने किया।

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Question 64.
राजसूय यज्ञ में किसकी अग्रपूजा की गई?

Answer

Answer: राजसूय यज्ञ में श्रीकृष्ण की अग्रपूजा की गई।

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Question 65.
श्रीकृष्ण, अर्जुन और भीम किस रूप में जरासंध के पास पहुँचे?

Answer

Answer: वे ब्राह्मण के व्रती लोगों का वेश बनाकर जरासंध के पास पहुंचे।

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Question 66.
श्रीकृष्ण की अग्रपूजा का विरोध किसने किया?

Answer

Answer: श्रीकृष्ण की अग्रपूजा का विरोध शिशुपाल ने किया।

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Question 67.
राजसूय संपन्न होने के बाद किसे राजाधिराज की पदवी मिली।

Answer

Answer: राजसूय यज्ञ समाप्त होने के बाद युधिष्ठिर को राजाधिराज की पदवी प्राप्त हुई।

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Question 68.
युधिष्ठिर की बात पांडव भाइयों को कैसी लगी?

Answer

Answer: युधिष्ठिर की बात उसके भाइयों को औचित्यपूर्ण लगी।

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Question 69.
पांडव राजसूय कर रहे हैं? यह जानकर दुर्योधन को कैसा लगा?

Answer

Answer: पांडवों द्वारा राजसूय यज्ञ करना दुर्योधन को अच्छा नहीं लगा।

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Question 70.
शकुनि ने धृतराष्ट्र को किस चीज़ के लिए बाध्य किया?

Answer

Answer: पांडवों को चौसर खेल में बुलाने के लिए शकुनि ने धृतराष्ट्र को बाध्य किया।

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Question 71.
विदुर पांडवों के पास किस चीज़ का निमंत्रण देने गए थे?

Answer

Answer: हस्तिनापुर में चौसर के खेल में भाग लेने के लिए विदुर पांडवों के पास निमंत्रण देने गए थे।

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Question 72.
दुर्योधन ने चौसर में अपनी जगह किसे खिलाया।

Answer

Answer: दुर्योधन ने चौसर में अपनी जगह मामा शकुनि को खेलाया।

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Question 73.
राजवंशों की नीति के अनुसार खेल का नियम क्या है?

Answer

Answer: राजवंशों की नीति के अनुसार किसी खेल के लिए निमंत्रण को अस्वीकार नहीं किया जाता था।

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Question 74.
अंत में शकुनि ने युधिष्ठिर को किसे दाँव पर लगाने के लिए कहा?

Answer

Answer: अंत में शकुनि ने द्रौपदी को दाँव पर लगाने के लिए कहा।

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Question 75.
दुर्योधन ने दुःशासन को क्या आदेश दिया?

Answer

Answer: दुर्योधन ने दुःशासन से कहा यह सारथी भीम से भयभीत लगता है तुम्ही जाकर उस अभिमानी द्रौपदी को उठाकर ले आओ।

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Question 76.
धृतराष्ट्र का कौन-सा पुत्र द्रौपदी को दाँव पर लगाने की बात पर संतप्त हो उठा?

Answer

Answer: धृतराष्ट्र का छोटा पुत्र युयुत्सु संतप्त हो उठा।

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Question 77.
दुर्योधन ने विदुर को क्या आदेश दिया?

Answer

Answer: दुर्योधन ने विदुर को कहा आप तुरंत रनिवास में जाएँ और द्रौपदी को यहाँ लाएँ।

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Question 78.
धृतराष्ट्र ने पांडवों को कैसे शांत किया?

Answer

Answer: धृतराष्ट्र ने पांडवों को जुए में हारा राज्य व संपत्ति लौटाकर पांडवों को शांत किया।

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Question 79.
धृतराष्ट्र की विनती पर पांडवों ने क्या किया?

Answer

Answer: धृतराष्ट्र की विनती पर पांडव द्रौपदी तथा कुंती के साथ इंद्रप्रस्थ चले गए।

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Question 80.
दूसरी बार खेल में हारने के बाद युधिष्ठिर ने क्या किया?

Answer

Answer: दूसरी बार खेल में हारने के बाद पांडव अपनी शर्त के अनुसार वन में चले गए।

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Question 81.
जब पांडव वन की ओर जाने लगे तब धृतराष्ट्र ने विदुर को बुलाकर क्या पूछा?

Answer

Answer: धृतराष्ट्र ने विदुर से पूछा पांडु के बेटे और द्रौपदी कैसे वन की ओर जा रहे हैं।

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Question 82.
विदुर ने द्रौपदी की दशा के बारे में क्या बताया?

Answer

Answer: विदुर ने बताया कि द्रौपदी ने बालों को बिखेरकर मुँह ढक रखा है और रोती हुई जा रही है।

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Question 83.
महर्षि मैत्रेय की युधिष्ठिर से भेंट कहाँ हुई?

Answer

Answer: महर्षि मैत्रेय की युधिष्ठिर से भेंट काम्यक वन में हुई।

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Question 84.
पांडवों से मिलने श्रीकृष्ण के साथ वन में कौन-कौन आए थे?

Answer

Answer: पांडवों से मिलने श्रीकृष्ण के साथ कैकेय भोज और वृष्टि जाति के लोग, चेदिराज धृष्टकेतु आदि वन गए थे।

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Question 85.
भीम को बगीचे के बीच कौन लेटा मिला?

Answer

Answer: भीम को बगीचे के बीच एक विशालकाय बंदर रास्ता रोककर लेटा हुआ मिला।

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Question 86.
बंदर ने अपनी क्या असमर्थता जताई?

Answer

Answer: बंदर ने असमर्थता जताते हुए कहा-“मैं बूढ़ा हूँ मुश्किल से उठ-बैठ सकता हूँ।”

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Question 87.
दुर्योधन की चापलूसी कौन करते थे?

Answer

Answer: कर्ण और शकुनी दुर्योधन की चापलूसी करते थे।

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Question 88.
चौपायों की गणना का काम किसका होता था?

Answer

Answer: चौपायों की गणना का काम राजकुमारों का होता था।

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Question 89.
दुर्योधन के डेरे का स्थान पांडवों के आश्रम से कितनी दूरी पर था?

Answer

Answer: दुर्योधन के डेरे का स्थान पांडवों के आश्रम से चार कोस दूरी पर था।

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Question 90.
आश्रम के समीप जलाशय के तट पर और किसने डेरा डाल रखा था?

Answer

Answer: आश्रम के निकट जलाशय के तट पर गंधर्वराज चित्रसेन ने अपना डेरा डाल रखा था।

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Question 91.
जलाशय के समीप किस-किसमें युद्ध हुआ?

Answer

Answer: जलाशय के समीप गंधर्वराज चित्रसेन और कौरवों की सेनाओं में युद्ध हुआ। इसमें कर्ण और दुर्योधन पराजित हो गए।

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Question 92.
युधिष्ठिर ने नकुल से पेड़ पर चढ़कर क्या देखने को कहा?

Answer

Answer: नकुल ने पेड़ पर चढ़कर कोई जलाशय या नदी देखने को कहा।

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Question 93.
युधिष्ठिर ने सबसे पहले पानी लाने किसे भेजा?

Answer

Answer: युधिष्ठिर ने सबसे पहले पानी लाने के लिए नकुल को भेजा।

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Question 94.
पानी पीने के बाद चारों भाइयों के साथ क्या घटना घटी?

Answer

Answer: पानी पीने के बाद चारों भाई मूर्च्छित होकर गिए गए।

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Question 95.
युधिष्ठिर कहाँ जा पहुँचे?

Answer

Answer: युधिष्ठिर उसी विषैले सरोवर के समीप जा पहुँचे जहाँ उनके चारों भाई मृत अवस्था में पड़े थे।

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Question 96.
यक्ष की बात मानकर युधिष्ठिर ने क्या कहा?

Answer

Answer: यक्ष की बात मानकर युधिष्ठिर बोले- आप प्रश्न पूछ सकते हैं।

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Question 97.
यक्ष के प्रश्न कि मनुष्य का साथ कौन देता है? का उत्तर युधिष्ठिर ने क्या दिया?

Answer

Answer: धैर्य

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Question 98.
विदेश जाने वाले का साथी कौन होता है? का उत्तर युधिष्ठिर ने क्या दिया?

Answer

Answer: विदया।

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Question 99.
यक्ष ने युधिष्ठिर से कितने प्रश्न किए।

Answer

Answer: यक्ष ने युधिष्ठिर से पंद्रह प्रश्न किए।

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Question 100.
घास से भी छोटी वस्तु किसे बताया गया है?

Answer

Answer: चिंता को।

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Question 101.
विराट के दरबार में युधिष्ठिर को कौन-सा काम सौंपा गया था?

Answer

Answer: कंक के नाम से विराट के दरबारी बन गए और राजा के साथ चौपर खेलकर दिन बिताने लगे।

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Question 102.
भीम को क्या काम मिला?

Answer

Answer: भीम को रोसइयों का मुखिया बनाया गया। वे बल्लभ के रूप में काम करने लगे।

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Question 103.
कीचक का वध किसने किया?

Answer

Answer: कीचक का वध भीम ने किया।

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Question 104.
सुशर्मा को किस ओर आक्रमण करने की जिम्मेदारी दी गई?

Answer

Answer: सुशर्मा को मत्स्य राज्य पर दक्षिण की ओर से आक्रमण करने की जिम्मेदारी दी गई।

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Question 105.
अर्जुन ने राजकुमार का हौसला बढ़ाते हुए क्या कहा?

Answer

Answer: अर्जुन ने राजकुमार उत्तर का हिम्मत बढ़ाते हुए कहा कि राजकुमार! घबराओ नहीं। तुम सिर्फ घोड़ों की रास सँभालो।

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Question 106.
भीष्म ने दुर्योधन के समय के बारे में क्या बताया?

Answer

Answer: भीष्म ने बताया कि प्रतिज्ञा का समय कल ही पूर्ण हो चुका है।

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Question 107.
क्या बात सुनकर विराट चौंक पड़े?

Answer

Answer: जब राजा विराट को पता चला कि राजकुमार उत्तर कौरवों से लड़ने गए हैं तो वे चौंक पड़े।

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Question 108.
अर्जुन ने किन-किन महारथियों को हराया?

Answer

Answer: अर्जुन ने कर्ण, द्रोणाचार्य, अश्वत्थामा तथा दुर्योधन जैसे महारथियों को हराया।

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Question 109.
तेरहवाँ वर्ष पूरा होने पर पांडव जाकर कहाँ रहने लगे?

Answer

Answer: तेरहवाँ वर्ष पूरा होने के बाद पांडव विराट की राजधानी छोड़कर उपप्लव्य नगर में रहने लगे।

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Question 110.
सर्वप्रथम वहाँ क्या कार्य सम्पन्न हुआ।

Answer

Answer: सर्वप्रथम वहाँ अभिमन्यु के साथ उत्तरा का विवाह हुआ।

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Question 111.
श्रीकृष्ण ने संधि के लिए क्या तरीका सुझाया?

Answer

Answer: श्रीकृष्ण ने दुर्योधन के पास एक व्यक्ति को दूत बनाकर भेजने का सुझाव बताया।

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Question 112.
पितामह भीष्म ने दुर्योधन को क्या बात समझाई ?

Answer

Answer: पितामह भीष्म ने दुर्योधन को समझाया कि प्रतिज्ञा का समय कल पूरा हो चुका है। तुम्हारी गणना में कुछ भूल हुई है।

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Question 113.
श्रीकृष्ण ने हस्तिनापुर दूत भेजने का काम किसे सौंपा?

Answer

Answer: श्रीकृष्ण ने हस्तिनापुर दूत भेजने का काम द्रुपदराज को सौंपा।

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Question 114.
श्रीकृष्ण ने पहले किसे देखा?

Answer

Answer: श्रीकृष्ण ने पहले अर्जुन को देखा।

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Question 115.
उपप्लव्य में रहकर पांडवों ने कितनी सेना इकट्ठी की?

Answer

Answer: उपप्लव्य में रहकर पांडवों ने अपने मित्र शासकों को संदेश भेजकर उनकी मदद से कोई सात अक्षौहिणी सेना इकट्ठी कर ली।

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Question 116.
युधिष्ठिर की तरफ़ से कौन दूत बनकर धृतराष्ट्र की सभा में गए?

Answer

Answer: पंचाल नरेश के पुरोहित युधिष्ठिर के दूत बनकर हस्तिनापुर गए।

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Question 117.
युधिष्ठिर ने धृतराष्ट्र के पास क्या संदेश भेजा?

Answer

Answer: युधिष्ठिर ने धृतराष्ट्र के पास संदेश भेजा कि पांडव संधि के अनुसार अपना हिस्सा चाहते हैं।

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Question 118.
धृतराष्ट्र ने किसे अपना दूत बनाकर पांडवों के पास भेजा?

Answer

Answer: धृतराष्ट्र ने संजय को दूत बनाकर पांडवों के पास भेजा।

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Question 119.
श्रीकृष्ण किस उद्देश्य से हस्तिनापुर गए थे?

Answer

Answer: श्रीकृष्ण शांति वार्तालाप करने के उद्देश्य से हस्तिनापुर गए थे।

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Question 120.
दुःशासन का भवन कैसा था?

Answer

Answer: दुःशासन का भवन दुर्योधन के भवन से अधिक ऊँचा और सुंदर था।

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Question 121.
रास्ते में श्रीकृष्ण ने कहाँ रात का विश्राम किया?

Answer

Answer: रास्ते में श्रीकृष्ण ने कुशस्थल नामक स्थान पर एक रात को विश्राम किया।

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Question 122.
भीष्म के सेनापति बनने पर कर्ण ने क्या निर्णय लिया?

Answer

Answer: कर्ण ने निर्णय लिया कि भीष्म के मारे जाने के बाद वह युद्धभूमि में प्रवेश करेगा और केवल अर्जुन को ही मारेगा।

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Question 123.
कौरवों के सेनापति कौन थे?

Answer

Answer: कौरवों के सेनापति पितामह भीष्म थे।

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Question 124.
पांडव की सेना को कितने हिस्सों में बाँटा गया?

Answer

Answer: पांडवों की सेना को सात हिस्सों में बाँटा गया।

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Question 125.
कौरव सेना के पहले सेनापति कौन बने?

Answer

Answer: कौरव सेना के पहले सेनापति भीष्म पितामह बने।

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Question 126.
अर्जुन के भ्रम को दूर करने के लिए श्रीकृष्ण ने युद्ध के मैदान में क्या किया?

Answer

Answer: अर्जुन के भ्रम को दूर करने के लिए श्रीकृष्ण ने युद्ध क्षेत्र में कर्म योग का उपदेश दिया।

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Question 127.
भीष्म के नेतृत्व में कौरवों ने कितने दिनों तक युद्ध किया?

Answer

Answer: भीष्म के नेतृत्व में कौरवों ने 10 दिनों तक युद्ध किया।

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Question 128.
पांडवों ने अपनी सेना का सेनापति किसे बनाया?

Answer

Answer: पांडवों ने अपनी सेना का सेनापति कुमार धृष्टद्युम्न को बनाया।

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Question 129.
कर्ण की मृत्यु के बाद कौरवों का सेनापति किसे बनाया गया?

Answer

Answer: कर्ण की मृत्यु के बाद कौरवों ने अपना सेनापति शल्य को बनाया।

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Question 130.
महाभारत का युद्ध कितने दिनों तक चला?

Answer

Answer: महाभारत का युद्ध अठारह दिनों तक चला।

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Question 131.
पहले दिन की लड़ाई के बाद घबराहट में पांडव किसके पास गए?

Answer

Answer: पहले दिन लड़ाई के बाद पांडव घबराहट में श्रीकृष्ण के पास गए।

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Question 132.
कौरवों की सेना में सबसे आगे कौन था?

Answer

Answer: कौरवों की सेना में सबसे आगे दुःशासन था।

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Question 133.
दूसरे दिन युद्ध की व्यूह-रचना किसने की?

Answer

Answer: दूसरे दिन के युद्ध की व्यूह रचना धृष्टद्युम्न ने किया था।

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Question 134.
कौरवों के सेना में तीन वीर कौन थे जो अर्जुन की मुकाबला कर सकते थे।

Answer

Answer: भीष्म, द्रोण और कर्ण ही अर्जुन का मुकाबला कर सकते थे।

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Question 135.
पहले दिन के युद्ध का परिणाम क्या निकला?

Answer

Answer: पहले दिन के युद्ध में पांडव काफ़ी डर गए।

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Question 136.
चौथे दिन की लड़ाई में कौन मारा गया?

Answer

Answer: चौथे दिन के युद्ध में शल्य का पुत्र एवं दुर्योधन के आठ भाई मारे गए।

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Question 137.
भीम का पुत्र कौन था?

Answer

Answer: भीम का पुत्र घटोत्कच था।

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Question 138.
पाँचवें दिन के युद्ध की क्या विशेषता रही?

Answer

Answer: पाँचवें दिन के युद्ध में अर्जुन ने कौरवों के हजारों सैनिक मारे ।

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Question 139.
कुरुक्षेत्र मैदान में का आँखों देखा हाल धृतराष्ट्र को कौन सुनाता था?

Answer

Answer: कुरुक्षेत्र के युद्ध मैदान का आँखों देखा हाल धृतराष्ट्र को संजय सुनाता था।

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Question 140.
सातवें दिन के युद्ध की क्या विशेषता थी?

Answer

Answer: सातवें दिन के युद्ध की यह विशेषता थी कि वह एक स्थान पर केंद्रित न रहकर अनेक मोर्चों पर लड़ा जा रहा था।

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Question 141.
सातवें दिन के युद्ध में किसकी मृत्यु हुई?

Answer

Answer: सातवें दिन के युद्ध में कुमार शंख की मृत्यु हुई।

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Question 142.
आठवें दिन के युद्ध में भीम ने क्या किया?

Answer

Answer: आठवें दिन युद्ध में भीम ने धृतराष्ट्र के आठ बेटों को मार गिराया।

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Question 143.
आठवें दिन के युद्ध में अर्जुन का कौन-सा पुत्र मारा गया?

Answer

Answer: आठवें दिन अर्जुन का वीर पुत्र इरावान, जो नागकन्या से पैदा हुआ था, उसका वध हो गया।

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Question 144.
दसवें दिन के युद्ध में अर्जुन ने किसकी आड़ लेकर किस पर तीर बरसाए?

Answer

Answer: अर्जुन ने शिखंडी की आड़ लेकर भीष्म पितामह पर तीर बरसाए।

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Question 145.
भीष्म ने अर्जुन पर क्या चलाया?

Answer

Answer: भीष्म ने अर्जुन पर शक्ति अस्त्र चलाया।

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Question 146.
भीष्म का शरीर भूमि से क्यों नहीं लगा?

Answer

Answer: भीष्म के सारे शरीर से बाण प्रवेश किए हए थे, अतः भीष्म का शरीर बाणों पर टिककर भूमि से ऊपर ही अड़ा रहा।

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Question 147.
भीष्म ने अपना शरीर कब त्यागा?

Answer

Answer: भीष्म ने शरीर त्यागने का उचित समय सूर्य नारायण के उत्तरायण होने पर था।

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Question 148.
भीष्म के बाद किसे सेनापति बनाया गया?

Answer

Answer: भीष्म के बाद द्रोणाचार्य को सेनापति बनाया गया।

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Question 149.
दुर्योधन ने अर्जुन को युद्ध क्षेत्र से दूर ले जाने का निर्णय क्यों किया?

Answer

Answer: दुर्योधन ने अर्जुन को रण क्षेत्र से दूर ले जाने का निर्णय इसलिए किया ताकि युधिष्ठिर को बंदी बना सके।

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Question 150.
बारहवें दिन युद्ध में क्या अफवाह फैल गई?

Answer

Answer: बारहवें दिन के युद्ध में यह अफवाह फैल गई कि भगदत्त के हाथी ने भीम को मार गिराया।

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Question 151.
अर्जुन उस समय कहाँ किससे लड़ रहा था?

Answer

Answer: अर्जुन उस समय दूर जाकर संशप्तकों से लड़ रहा था।

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Question 152.
अर्जुन ने भगदत्त का क्या हाल कर दिया?

Answer

Answer: अर्जुन ने भगदत्त के नाजुक स्थानों पर बाण चला कर उन्हें बेध डाला, उसकी रेशमी पट्टी काट डाली।

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Question 153.
अर्जुन द्वारा छोड़े गए बाणों से शकुनि के कौन-कौन भाई मारे गए?

Answer

Answer: अर्जुन द्वारा छोड़े गए बाणों से शकुनि के दो भाई कृषक तथा अचक मारे गए।

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Question 154.
तेरहवें दिन किस-किस में युद्ध छिड़ गया?

Answer

Answer: तेरहवें दिन अर्जुन और सशंप्तकों के बीच भयंकर युद्ध छिड़ गया।

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Question 155.
द्रोणाचार्य ने किसकी रचना की?

Answer

Answer: द्रोणाचार्य ने कौरव-सेना से चक्रव्यूह की रचना की।

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Question 156.
अभिमन्यु किसका पुत्र था?

Answer

Answer: अभिमन्यु अर्जुन-सुभद्रा का पुत्र था।

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Question 157.
चक्रव्यूह के बारे में अभिमन्यु क्या जानता था?

Answer

Answer: अभिमन्यु चक्रव्यूह में प्रवेश करना तो जानता था, पर निकलना नहीं जानता था।

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Question 158.
भीम ने अभिमन्यु को क्या विश्वास दिलाया?

Answer

Answer: भीम ने अभिमन्यु को विश्वास दिलाया कि मैं तुम्हारे पीछे चलूँगा तथा साथ में अन्य कई योद्धा होंगे।

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Question 159.
धृष्टद्युम्न ने क्या चलाकी की?

Answer

Answer: धृष्टद्युम्न ने द्रोणाचार्य पर आक्रमण करके जयद्रथ की रक्षा के लिए जाने से रोके रखा।

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Question 160.
सात्यकि पर किसकी सुरक्षा की जिम्मेदारी थी?

Answer

Answer: सात्यकि पर युधिष्ठिर की सुरक्षा की जिम्मेदारी थी।

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Question 161.
आचार्य द्रोण का क्या संकल्प था?

Answer

Answer: उनका संकल्प था युधिष्ठिर को जिंदा पकड़ना।

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Question 162.
अर्जुन ने बाण चलाकर भूरिश्रवा की भुजा क्यों काट दी?

Answer

Answer: क्योंकि सात्यकि अचेत घायल अवस्था में ज़मीन पर गिरा पड़ा था और भूरिश्रवा उस पर वार करने के लिए उद्यत था।

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Question 163.
किस बालक के वध पर कौरवों ने विजयोत्सव मनाया था?

Answer

Answer: अभिमन्यु के वध पर कौरवों ने विजयोत्सव मनाया था।

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Question 164.
जयद्रथ का कटा सिर कहाँ जाकर गिर?

Answer

Answer: जयद्रथ का कटा सिर उसके वृद्ध पिता वृद्धक्षत्र की गोद में जाकर गिरा।

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Question 165.
द्रोण की मृत्यु के बाद कौरवों का सेनापति कौन बना?

Answer

Answer: द्रोण की मृत्यु के बाद कौरवों का सेनापति कर्ण बना।

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Question 166.
दुःशासन को किसने और कैसे मारा?

Answer

Answer: दुःशासन को भीम ने मारा। भीम ने एक ही धक्के में उसे ज़मीन पर गिरा दिया और उसका एक-एक अंग तोड़-मरोड़ डाला।

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Question 167.
भीम का डरावना रूप देखकर कौन कॉपने लगा।

Answer

Answer: भीम का डरावना रूप देखकर कर्ण का शरीर थर-थर काँपने लगा।

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Question 168.
कर्ण किस बात से घबरा गया?

Answer

Answer: जब कर्ण के रथ का बाईं ओर का पहिया धरती में धंस गया, तब कर्ण घबरा गया।

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Question 169.
महाराज शल्य की मृत्यु किसके हाथों हुई?

Answer

Answer: महाराज शल्य की मृत्यु युधिष्ठिर के हाथों हुई।

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Question 170.
शकुनि का वध किसने किया?

Answer

Answer: शकुनि का वध सहदेव ने किया।

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Question 171.
अश्वत्थामा ने घायल दुर्योधन के सामने क्या प्रतिज्ञा ली?

Answer

Answer: अश्वत्थामा ने जलाशय के पास घायल दुर्योधन के सामने प्रतिज्ञा की कि वह आज ही रात पांडवों को बरबाद करके रहेगा।

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Question 172.
अश्वत्थामा के मस्तिष्क से क्या बात नहीं निकल पा रही थी?

Answer

Answer: उसके पिता द्रोणाचार्य को मारने के लिए पांडवों ने जो कुचक्र रचा, वह अश्वत्थामा के मस्तिष्क से नहीं निकल पा रहा था।

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Question 173.
कृपाचार्य ने किस बात को अधर्म बताया?

Answer

Answer: कृपाचार्य ने सोते हुए व्यक्ति को मारने को अधर्म बताया।

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Question 174.
विलाप करती द्रौपदी ने पांडवों से क्या कहा?

Answer

Answer: शोक विह्वल द्रौपदी युधिष्ठिर के पास आकर कातर स्वर में बोली- इस पापी अश्वत्थामा का वध अवश्य किया जाए।

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Question 175.
अश्वत्थामा को किसने पराजित किया?

Answer

Answer: अश्वत्थामा को भीम ने पराजित किया।

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Question 176.
उत्तरा कौन थी? उसके पुत्र का क्या नाम था?

Answer

Answer: उत्तरा अभिमन्यु की पत्नी थी। उसके पुत्र का नाम परीक्षित था, जो पांडवों के वंश का एक मात्र चिह्न बच गया था।

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Question 177.
धृतराष्ट्र ने किसको अपने पास बुलाया?

Answer

Answer: धृतराष्ट्र ने भीम को अपने पास बुलाया।

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Question 178.
धृतराष्ट्र युधिष्ठिर से किस बात की अनुमति चाहते थे?

Answer

Answer: धृतराष्ट्र युधिष्ठिर से जंगल जाकर तपस्या करने की अनुमति चाहते थे।

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Question 179.
राज सँभालने से पूर्व युधिष्ठिर युद्धभूमि क्यों गए?

Answer

Answer: शासन सूत्र सँभालने से पहले युधिष्ठिर युद्धभूमि में शर-शय्या पर पड़े, भीष्म पितामह से आशीर्वाद लेने गए।

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Question 180.
युधिष्ठिर ने अपने भाइयों को क्या आज्ञा दे रखी थी?

Answer

Answer: युधिष्ठिर ने अपने भाइयों को आज्ञा दे रखी थी कि राजा धृतराष्ट्र को किसी तरह का कष्ट न पहुँचने पाए।

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Question 181.
धृतराष्ट्र पांडवों के साथ कैसा व्यवहार करते थे?

Answer

Answer: धृतराष्ट्र पांडवों के साथ स्नेहपूर्ण व्यवहार किया करते थे।

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Question 182.
भीम का व्यवहार धृतराष्ट्र व गांधारी के प्रति कैसा था?

Answer

Answer: भीम सेन धृतराष्ट्र और गांधारी को कभी-कभी ऐसी बातें कह देता था जिससे उनके दिल को ठेस पहुँच जाती थी।

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Question 183.
महाभारत युद्ध के बाद श्रीकृष्ण ने कितने वर्षों तक द्वारिका में शासन किया?

Answer

Answer: महाभारत की समाप्ति के बाद श्रीकृष्ण ने चालीस वर्षों तक द्वारिका में राज्य किया।

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Question 184.
बलराम को अपना शरीर क्यों त्यागना पड़ा?

Answer

Answer: अपने यदुवंश का अंत होते देखकर वे बहुत दुखी हुए, इसलिए उन्होंने वहीं समाधि पर बैठकर अपने शरीर का त्याग कर दिया।

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Question 185.
यदुवंश का पतन क्यों हुआ?

Answer

Answer: आपसी फूट के कारण यदुवंश का नाश हुआ।

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Question 186.
शिकारी ने श्रीकृष्ण को क्या समझाया?

Answer

Answer: शिकारी ने श्रीकृष्ण को दूर से एक हिरन समझा।

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Question 187.
श्रीकृष्ण कहाँ लेटे हए थे?

Answer

Answer: श्रीकृष्ण एक पेड़ के नीचे लेटे हुए थे।

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We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Hindi बाल महाभारत कथा with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 7 Hindi बाल महाभारत कथा MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Check the below NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 English An Alien Hand Chapter 8 The Bear Story with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 7 English with Answers were prepared based on the latest exam pattern. We have provided The Bear Story Class 7 English MCQs Questions with Answers to help students understand the concept very well.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 English An Alien Hand Ch apter 8 The Bear Story with Answers

Question 1.
The bear was as gentle
(a) as the breeze outside
(b) as the jungle bear
(c) as the sheep
(d) as an angel

Answer

(d) as an angel

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Question 2.
The second bear did not attack the lady as:
(a) it was night time
(b) it could not see
(c) it was afraid of the night
(d) it was afraid of the lady

Answer

(d) it was afraid of the lady

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3. The lady found the bear cub
(a) in a pitiable condition
(b) in a pool of blood
(c) extremely hungry
(d) all of a sudden

Answer

(c) extremely hungry

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Question 4.
The strong bear did not mind:
(a) slaying the dogs
(b) being teased by Lapland dogs
(c) sleeping with chains
(d) none of the above around him

Answer

(b) being teased by Lapland dogs

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Question 5.
The lady was not frightened:
(a) of the second bear
(b) but she felt angry
(c) as the bear did not belong to her
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

(b) but she felt angry

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Question 6.
The lady realized her mistake when:
(a) she came to know about the
(b) she visited her sister wild bear
(c) the cook told her the home situation
(d) both (a) and (c)

Answer

(c) the cook told her the home situation

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Question 7.
The lady visited her sister:
(a) every fourth Sunday
(b) on a holiday
(c) every Sunday
(d) in times of need

Answer

(c) every Sunday

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Question 8.
If the bear behaved himself, the lady promised him the gift of:
(a) a kitten
(b) an apple
(c) a parasol
(d) wild berries

Answer

(b) an apple

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Question 9.
The lady hit the bear so hard that
(a) the parasol broke into two
(b) she herself got injured
(c) the nose of the bear was injured
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

(a) the parasol broke into two

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Question 10.
The lady did not take her pet bear as:
(a) she was not afraid of the forest
(b) she was concerned for his safety
(c) there was a lake
(d) there was a forest

Answer

(b) she was concerned for his safety

---

Short Answers Type Questions:

Question 1.
Where did the lady live ?

Answer

The lady lived in an old manor house on the border of a big forest.

---

Question 2.
In what condition did the lady find the hear cub ?

Answer

The lady found the bear cub in a pitiable condition. It was half dead of hunger. It was very small and helpless. The lady and her cook brought him up on a bottle.

---

Question 3.
How strong did the bear become on growing up ?

Answer

The bear became so strong that he could slay a cow and carry it away between his two paws.

---

Question 4.
How did the Lapland dogs play with the bear ?

Answer

There were three Lapland dogs. They loved to play all sorts of games with the bear. They pulled his ears and his small thick tail. They teased him in every way but the bear did not seem to mind.

---

Question 5.
What does a bear eat ?

Answer

Bears are vegetarians. They love to eat fruit. However, a pet bear may survive on the simple vegetarian food offered by its master. A bear has a good appe-tite and eats a lot.

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Question 6.
Why was the bear not chained during the day ?

Answer

The bears love freedom. They become ill-tempered if they are put on chain all the time. So a pet bear is kept on chain only at night.

---

Question 7.
Why was the lady not frightened when she saw a bear chasing her in the forest ?

Answer

The lady thought that it was her pet bear. She had no idea that it was a wild bear of the forest. So instead of being frightened, she only felt angry.

---

Question 8.
How did the lady realise her mistake ?

Answer

In the evening the lady came back home. The cook told her that their bear had not moved from its place since she left him in the morning.

---

Question 9.
What did the lady do to the bear when she went to visit her sister ?

Answer

The lady visited her sister every Sunday. Before going to her she put the bear on chain. She would tap his head and promise an apple on her return if he remained good during her absence.

---

Question 10.
How was the lady’s parasol broken ?

Answer

In her anger the lady hit the bear on the nose with her parasol very hard. This broke the parasol into two.

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We are providing NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 English An Alien Hand Chapter 8 The Bear Story with Answers Pdf free download will help you. If you have any queries regarding CBSE Class 7 English The Bear Story MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you soon.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Biology Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 16 Environmental Issues. Biology MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Biology Environmental Issues MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Environmental Issues Class 12 Biology MCQs Pdf

1. The thickness of ozone is measured as
(a) parts per billion
(b) Dobson units
(c) parts per million
(d) decibel.

Answer

Answer: b

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2. Polyblend was first developed by
(a) Ramesh Chandra Dagar
(b) Ahmed Khan
(c) KhadiandVillagelndustriesCommission
(d) Indian Institute of Science.

Answer

Answer: b

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3. Good ozone is found in the
(a) stratosphere
(b) troposphere
(c) mesosphere
(d) ionosphere.

Answer

Answer: a

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4. Eutrophication causes a/an
(a) decrease in organic matter
(b) increase in inorganic nutrients
(c) decrease in dissolved oxygen
(d) increase in dissolved oxygen.

Answer

Answer: c

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5. Increase in cases of skin cancer and high mutation rate are the result of
(a) ozone depletion
(b) acid rain ,
(c) CO₂ pollution
(d) CO pollution

Answer

Answer: a

---

6. Increase in the concentration of pollutants/chemicals in higher trophic levels, is known as
(a) biodegradation
(b) eutrophication
(c) greenhouse effect
(d) biomagnification

Answer

Answer: d

---

7. Ozone hole is the largest over
(a) Africa
(b) Antarctica
(c) America
(d) Europe

Answer

Answer: b

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8. Phosphate pollution in a waterbody is brought about by
(a) phosphate rock weathering
(b) fertilizers
(c) phosphate rocks and sewage
(d) fertilizers and sewage.

Answer

Answer: d

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9. Which of the following causes biomagnifi¬cation?
(a) SO₂
(b) Mercury
(c) DDT
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: d

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10. Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles to reduce emission of harmful gases. Catalytic converters change unbumt hydrocarbons into [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) carbon dioxide and water
(b) carbon mono oxide
(c) methane
(d) carbon dioxide and methane.

Answer

Answer: a

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11. Nuisance growth of aquatic plants and bloom-forming algae in natural waters is generally due to high concentrations of [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) carbon
(b) sulphur
(c) calcium
(d) phosphorus

Answer

Answer: d

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12. Which one of the following impurities is easiest to remove from wastewater? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Bacteria
(b) Colloids
(c) Dissolved solids
(d) Suspended solids

Answer

Answer: d

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13. According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), particulates of size ______ or more in diameter are responsible for causing harm to human health.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 2.5 micrometres

---

14. The discharge of domestic sewage into a river will decrease the ______ of the waterbody.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Dissolved oxygen.

---

15. A mere ______ per cent impurities makes the domestic sewage unfit for human use.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 0.1

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16. Inflammation of cornea, called ______ is caused by UV-B radiation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Snow blindness.

---

17. ______ gas is continuously produced by the action of UV rays on molecular oxygen.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: SOzone.

---

18. ______ per cent of the forests have been lost in the tropics.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 40.

---

19. ______ cultivation in the north-eastern states of India has also contributes to deforestation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Jhum.

---

20. Faecal matter, paper fibres, bacteria and cloth fibres are the ______ material present in sewage water.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Colloidal.

---

21. Excess growth of ______ algae causes algal bloom in eutrophied waterbodies.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Planktonic.

---

22. Euro II norms stipulate that sulphur be controlled at ______ in diesel.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 350 ppm.

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23. Match the Government initiatives to reduce pollution in Column I with the year in which they into effect in Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Air  (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act	1. 1974
B. Joint Forest Management water	2. 1986
C. Water (Prevention and Control Pollution) Act	3. 1980
D. Environment (Protection) Act	4.1981

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2

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24. Match the DDT concentration in Column I with the organisms in an aquatic food chain in Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. 0.04 ppm	1. Large fish
B. 2.0 ppm	2. Zooplanktons
C. 0.5 ppm	3. Fish-eating birds
D. 25 ppm	4. Small fish

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3

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25. The Montreal Protocol is associated with the control of emission of ozone-depleting substances. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True.

---

26. Dobson units are used to measure oxygen content in waterbodies. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

27. A brief exposure to high level sound, 150 dB or more can damage the ear drum.[True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True.

---

28. There is a substantial fall in NO₂ and CO₂ levels in the air in Delhi between 1997 and 2005. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

29. CNG can be easily siphoned off compared to petrol or diesel. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

Directions (Q30 to Q32): Mark the odd one in each of the following groups.
30. Jaundice, Hepatitis B, Typhoid, Dysentery

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Hepatitis-B.

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31. Sand, Silt, Clay, Nitrate

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Nitrate.

---

32. Oxygen, Carbon monoxide, Sulphur dioxide, Nitrogen oxides.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Oxygen

---

33. What are pollutants?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Pollutants are those substances/agents which bring about undesirable changes in the properties of air, water and soil, which adversely affect the living organisms.

---

34. Name the two harmless gases released by thermal power plants/smelters.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Nitrogen and oxygen.

---

35. Name the device used to remove
(a) particulate air pollutants
(b) pollutant gases like SO₂ from the exhaust.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) Electrostatic precipitator.
(b) Scrubber.

---

36. An electrostatic precipitator in a thermal power plant is not able to generate high voltage of several thousands. Write the ecological implication because of it. [AI 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Electrostatic precipitator removes 99 per cent of the particulate matter from the exhaust from thermal plant; in its absence, the particulate matter will get into the atmosphere and cause respiratory disorders.

---

37. What is the size of the particulate matter that causes the greatest harm to human health?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 2.5 micrometres or less.

---

38. Why is the use of unleaded petrol recommended for motor vehicles equipped with catalytic convectors? [AI 2013, 2010]
Or
Why is it desirable to use unleaded petrol in vehicles fitted with catalytic converters? [AI 2012, Foreign 2010]
Or
Why should motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter use unleaded petrol? [Delhi 2011C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Otherwise lead will inactivate the catalyst.

---

39. What is the goal of auto fuel policy of the Indian government, regarding sulphur in auto fuels?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The goal is to reduce sulphur to 50 ppm in petrol and diesel and bring down the level to 35 ppm.

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40. List two advantages of the use of unleaded petrol in automobiles as fuel. [AI2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) The catalysts will not be inactivated.
(ii) There will be no lead in the exhaust from the vehicle.

---

41. Why is it necessary to remove sulphur from petroleum products?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: There will be no oxides of sulphur in the automobile exhause; oxides of sulphur in the atmosphere cause acid rains.

---

42. List two gaseous products that are produced when exhaust of an automobile passes through a catalytic converter. [Delhi 2012C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Carbon dioxide and nitrogen.

---

43. When did the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, (a) come into force and (b) when was it amended to include noise as an air pollutant?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) It came into force in the year 1981.
(b) It was amended in 1987 to include noise.

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44. What is noise?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Noise is defined as undesirable high level of sound.

---

45. What per cent of sewage water has impurities that make it unfit for human use?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 0.1 percent.

---

46. Given below are a few impurities in urban waste water. Select two colloidal impurities: ammonia, faecal matter, silt, bacteria, calcium.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Faecal matter and bacteria.

---

47. Which component in the domestic sewage is difficult to remove?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The dissolved salts like nitrates and phosphates.

---

48. How do algal blooms affect the life in water bodies? [AI 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Algal blooms reduce the dissolved oxygen content of the water and cause mortality (death) of aquatic animals like fish.
– They also secrete chemicals toxic to aquatic animals.

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49. Name the world’s most problematic aquatic , weed. What is the nature of the water body ’ in which the weeds grow abundantly?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Eichhornia crassipes (water hyacinth)
– Eutrophic water bodies.

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50. Why is Eichhomia crassipes nicknamed as ‘Terror of Bengal’? [Delhi 2012]
Or
Eichhomia crassipes is an alien hydrophyte . introduced in India. Mention the problems posed by this plant. [AI 2010C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– They grow faster than our ability to remove them and cause blocks in our waterways.
– Their abundant growth leads to an imbalance in the ecosystem dynamics of the waterbody.

---

51. Name flie pollutants, the industrial waste water contains.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The industrial waste water contains toxic substances like heavy metals and some organic compounds.

---

52. Excessive nutrients in a fresh water body cause fish mortality. Give two reasons. [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Excessive nutrients in a freshwater body stimulate the excess growth of planktonic algae, which ultimately reduce the dissolved oxygen content of the water body and cause fish mortality.
(ii) Some of these algae also secrete toxins, which lead to fish mortality.

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53. Eutrophication is the natural ageing of a lake. Mention any other feature which defines the term. [CBSE Sample Paper 2013,2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Nutrient enrichment of water.

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54. State the cause of accelerated eutrophication. [Delhi 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Effluents from industries and homes.

---

55. What is cultural/accelerated eutrophication?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Cultural/accelerated eutrophication is a phenomenon of man-induced nutrient enrichment and accelerated ageing of the water bodies.

---

56. What is the raw material for polyblend?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Plastic wastes.

---

57. The use of incinerators is crucial for the disposal of hospital waste. Justify [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Hospitals generate hazarduous wastes that contain harmful chemicals, disinfectants and pathogenic microbes; such wastes require disposal using incinerators.

---

58. Inspite of being non-polluting, why are there great apprehensions in using nuclear energy for generating electricity? [Foreign 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Because using nuclear energy has two problems.
(i) The safe disposal of nuclear wastes.
(ii) Any accidental leakage can prove to be extremely damaging to living organisms.

---

59. Write in full form, the name of the organisation that makes an assessment of die greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC).

---

60. Why is the climate change expected to increase the spread of human diseases?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It would increase the size of population of pathogens and their vectors.

---

61. What is meant by greenhouse effect?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon, in which the shortwave radiations of solar energy are absorbed and longwave radiations are reflected by the earth and is responsible for heating of earth’s surface and atmosphere.

---

62. What is global warming?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Global warming refers to the increase in the global mean temperature.

---

63. What is the expected rise in the global temperature by die year 2100?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It may rise by 1.4-5.8 °C.

---

64. Name the greenhouse gases that contribute to total global wanning. [Delhi 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide and chlonofluoro carbons.

---

65. Name the greenhouse gases contributing maximum to the greenhouse effect. [AI2014C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Carbon dioxide and methane.

---

66. Name the layer of atmosphere that is associated with ‘good ozone’.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Strastosphere.

---

67. Where is good ozone present? Why is it called so? [Delhi 2014C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– It is found in the stratosphere of the atmosphere.
– Since it acts as a shield to absorb the ultraviolet radiation from the sun, it is called good ozone.

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68 Write the unit used for measuring ozone thickness. [Delhi 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Dobson units (DU).

---

69. Mention the causes of thinning of ozone layer. [Delhi 2010C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) release Cl atoms when UV rays act on them; Cl degrades the ozone into molecular oxygen.

---

70. What is ozone shield?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The thin layer of ozone in the upper part or the stratosphere of the atmosphere that prevents entry of UV rays, is called ozone shield.

---

71. What is meant by ozone hole?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The decline in the thickness of spring time ozone layer over Antarctica, is called ozone hole.

---

72. When does the ozone hole develop over Antarctica every year?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It develops each year between late August and early October.

---

73. State the effect of UV-B on human eyes. [Foreign 2013]
Or
Mention two harmful effects ofUV-B exposure on human eyes. [AI 2012C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– High dose of UV-B causes inflammation of cornea, called snow-blindness and also cataract.
– It may permanently damage the cornea.

---

74. Mention the effect of UV rays on DNA and proteins in living organisms. [Foreign 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: UV rays are preferentially absorbed by DNA and proteins of living beings; the high energy of UV rays break the chemical bonds within these molecules and causes damage to them.

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75. How is snow-blindness caused in humans? [AI 2010]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Snow-blindness is caused by a high dose of UV-B radiation.

---

76. State the purpose of signing the Montreal Protocol. [Foreign 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The purpose is to control the emission of CFCs and other ozone-depleting substances.

---

77. Mention two problems (that degrade soil fertility) that have come in the wake of Green Revolution.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Soil erosion and desertification.
– Water logging and soil salinity.

---

78. What is meant by deforestation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Deforestation is the conversion of forested areas into non-forested ones.

---

79. How does Jhum cultivation promote desertification? [AI 2011C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: In Jhum cultivation, after cultivation, the land/area is left free for several years to allow its recovery; but with increasing demand for food, and repeated cultivation, the recovery phase is often ignored leading to deforestation.

---

80. How/Why does deforestation lead to global warming?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The plants which can hold a lot of carbon in their biomass are lost due to deforestation; the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere causes global warming.

---

We hope the given Biology MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 16 Environmental Issues will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Biology Environmental Issues MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Biology Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation. Biology MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Biology Biodiversity and Conservation MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Biodiversity and Conservation Class 12 Biology MCQs Pdf

1. log S = log C + Z log A
In the given equation of species-area relationship, the value of regression coefficient for a whole continent, would be
(a) 0.1-0.2
(b) 0.5-0.7
(c) 0.6-1.2
(d) 0.3-0.5

Answer

Answer: c

---

2. Which of the following organisation is responsible for maintaining the Red Data Book?
(a) IDRI
(b) IUCN
(c) UNESCO
(d) USDA

Answer

Answer: b

---

3. From his long term ecosystem experiments, David Tilman showed that
(a) decreased diversity contributed to higher productivity
(b) decreased diversity contributed to decreased productivity
(c) increased diversity contributed to increased productivity
(d) increased diversity contributed to decreased productivity

Answer

Answer: c

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4. Which of the following is a hot-spot of biodiversity in India?
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Indo-gangetic plain
(c) Eastern Ghats
(d) Aravalli Hills

Answer

Answer: a

---

5. Which among the following is not a method of in-situ conservation?
(a) National Park
(b) Botanical garden
(c) Wildlife sanctuary
(d) Ramsar sites

Answer

Answer: b

---

6. The World Summit on Sustainable Development (2002) was held in
(a) Brazil
(b) South Africa
(c) Sweden
(d) Argentina

Answer

Answer: b

---

7. The most important cause of extinction of animals and plants, especially in tropical rain forests is
(a) habitat loss
(b) afforestation
(c) pollution
(d) soil erosion

Answer

Answer: a

---

8. The enormous number of varieties of mango in India represents
(a) genetic diversity
(b) species diversity 1
(c) ecological diversity
(d) hybridisation programmes

Answer

Answer: a

---

9. Which one of the following is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity hot spots? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Large number of species
(b) Abundance of endemic species
(c) Large number of exotic species
(d) Destruction of habitat

Answer

Answer: d

---

10. Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Destruction of habitat
(b) Invasion by alien species
(c) Keeping animals in zoological parks
(d) Over-exploitation of natural resources

Answer

Answer: c

---

11. The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) increased number of predatory birds.
(b) over exploitation by humans.
(c) non-availability of the food.
(d) bird flu virus infection.

Answer

Answer: b

---

12. Which of the below mentioned regions exhibit less seasonal variations? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Tropics
(b) Temperates
(c) Alpines
(d) Both (a) & (b)

Answer

Answer: a

---

13. India now has _____ wildlife sanctuaries.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 448

---

14. 70 per cent of the animal species recorded are _____ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Insects.

---

15. ________ places the global species biodiversity at about 7 million.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Robert May.

---

16. The maximum diversity of amphibians in India is observed in _____ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Western Ghat.

---

17. The recent introduction of Clarias gariepinus is posing threat to our indigenous _____ in our rivers.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Catfishes.

---

18. _____ introduced into Lake Victoria caused extinction of 200 species of cichlid fishes.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Nile perch.

---

19. Thylacine from _____ and quagga from Africa are examples of recent extinctions.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Australia.

---

20. _____ popularised the term Biodiversity.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Edward Wilson.

---

21. India’s share of global biodiversity is about _____ per cent.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 8.1

---

22. _____, the last refuges of a number of threatened species of plants, are found in Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan and Jaintia Hills of Meghalaya.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Sacred groves.

---

23. Match the items in Column I with those in Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Cryopreser-vation	1. Hotspot
B. Tropical forests	2. In situ conservation
C. Endemism	3. Ex situ conservation
D. Lantana	4. Coevolution
E. Plant-pollinator mutualifls	5. Habitat loss
F. Wildlife sanctuary	6. Alien species
	7. Stellar’s Sea cow

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: A – 3, B – 5, C – 1, D – 6, E – 4, F – 2

---

24. Match the items in Column I with those in Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Narrowly utilitarian	1. Passenger pigeon
B. Broadly  utilitarian	2. Tannins, Resins of plants
C. The Earth Summit	3. Pollination of plants
D. Over- exploitation	4. Rio de Janeiro, in 1992
	5. Ethical Arguments

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1

---

25. Parthenium is an endemic species of our country. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

26. Stellar’s sea cow is an extinct animal. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True.

---

27. India is one of the mega diversity countries of the world. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True.

---

28. 20 per cent of the total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere is produced by temperate forests like Amazon forest. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True.

---

29. Endemic species are those which are distributed in almost all parts on the globe. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

Directions (Q30 to Q33): Mark the odd one in each of the following groups.
30. Parthenium, Mangifera, Lantana Eichhornia

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Mangifera.

---

31. Bali, Javan, Caspian, Dodo

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Dodo.

---

32. Seed banks, Tissue culture, Sacred groves, Cryopreservation

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Sacred groves.

---

33. Aravalli Hills, Chanda and Bastar, Khasi Hills, Zoological park

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Zoological park.

---

34. Name the type of biodiversity represented by the following:
(a) 50,000 different strains of rice in India.
(b) Estuaries and alpine meadows in India. [Delhi 2013]
Or
India has more than 50,000 strains of rice. Mention the level of biodiversity it represents. [AI2010]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) Genetic diversity.
(b) Ecological diversity.

---

35. Name the type of biodiversity represented by the following:
(a) 1000 varieties of mango in India.
(b) Variations in terms of potency and concentration of reserpine in Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different regions of Himalayas. [AI 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) Genetic diversity
(b) Genetic diversity

---

36. Write the level of biodiversity represented by a mangrove. Give another example falling in the same level. [AI 2014C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Ecological diversity.
– Coral reefs/wet lands/estuaries/alpine meadows.

---

37. Why is genetic variation important in the plant Rauwolfia?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Genetic variation in Rauwolfia is shown in terms of potency and concentration of the active chemical, reserpine produced by the plant.

---

38. Why is India said to have greater ecosystem diversity than Norway? [Delhi 2012C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: India has much of its land in the tropical latitudes and has a number of ecosystems like deserts, mangroves, rain forests, coral reefs, wetlands and estuaries; hence, it has greater ecosystem diversity whereas Norway is located in the temperate latitudes and hence, shows less diversity.

---

39. Define species diversity..

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The diversity at the species level (types and numbers), is called species diversity.

---

40. Which region in India has the maximum number of amphibian species?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Western Ghats.

---

41. Identify ‘a’ and ‘b’ in the figure given below representing proportionate number of major vertebrate taxa. [Delhi 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
‘a’ – Mammals,
‘b’ – Amphibians.

---

42. Name the unlabelled areas ‘a’ and ‘b’ of the pie chart (given) representing the global biodiversity of invertebrates showing their proportionate number of species of major taxa.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
‘a’ – Insects;
‘b’ – Molluscs.

---

43. Name the unlabelled areas ‘a’ and ‘b’ of the pie chart representing the biodiversity of plants showing their proportionate number of species of major taxa.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
‘a’ – Fungi,
‘b’ – Angiosperms.

---

44. Which region of the earth has the greatest biodiversity on earth?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Amazonian rain forest.

---

45. What is the general range of the value of slope of the line of regression for any taxa in any region?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 0.1 to 0.2.

---

46. Name one animal species that has become ‘extinct recently each in
(a) Australia and
(b) Mauritius, respectively.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) Thylacine.
(b) Dodo.

---

47. What per cent of the earth’s surface was covered by tropical rain forests at
(a) the beginning of 20th century and
(b) now, respectively?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) 14%
(b) 6%.

---

48. The Amazon rain forest is referred to as ‘the lungs of the planet’. Mention any one human activity which causes loss of biodiversity in this region. [AI 2010C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Many plants are cut and the land is cleared for cultivation of soyabean.
(ii) Conversion of forest land into grassland for raising beef cattle. (any one)

---

49. What is the main reason for the extinction of passenger pigeon?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Over exploitation by humans.

---

50. What is common about Eichhornia, Lantana and Parthenium with reference to threat to our biodiversity?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: They are exotic species, introduced into India; these alien species have caused environmental damage and posed threat to our native species.

---

51. About 200 species of Cichlid fish became extinct when a particular fish was introduced in lake Victoria of Africa. Name the invasive fish.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The Nile perch.

---

52. What is meant by threatened species?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Threatened species are those organisms facing a very high risk of extinction in the wild in the near future.

---

53. What is the total number of hot spots in the world? How many of them are there in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– There are 34 hot spots in the world.
– Three are in India.

---

54. When was Ramsar Convention developed and adopted and when did it come into force?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It was developed in 1971 and came into force from December, 1975.

---

55. What is the mission of Ramsar Convention?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The mission of Ramsar convention is the conservation and wise use of wetlands through local and national actions and international cooperation and achieve sustainable development of wetlands throughout the globe.

---

56. Name the country that has the
(a) highest number of Ramsar sites
(b) greatest area of listed wetlands in the world, as on November 2013.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) England
(b) Canada

---

57. How many national parks and wildlife sanctuaries are there in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
90 national parks and 448 wildlife sanctuaries are there in India.

---

58. Why have Western Ghats in India been declared as biological hot spots? [AI 2015C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It is because this region has a very high level of species richness and endemism.

---

59. Name any two conventional methods of ex situ conservation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Botanical gardens, wildlife safaris and zoos are the conventional ex situ strategies. (any two)

---

60. Write the importance of cryopreservation in conservation of biodiversity. [Delhi 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It is an ex situ method of biodiversity conservation in which gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile conditions for long periods.

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We hope the given Biology MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Biology Biodiversity and Conservation MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Biology Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations. Biology MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Biology Organisms and Populations MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Organisms and Populations Class 12 Biology MCQs Pdf

1. Animals from colder climates generally have shorter limbs. This is called
(a) Allen’s rule
(b) Johnson’s rule
(c) Arber’s rule
(d) Niche rule

Answer

Answer: a

---

2. Niche is defined as
(a) a component of an ecosystem
(b) an ecologically adapted zone of a species
(c) the physical position and functional role of a species within the community
(d) all plants and animals living at the bottom of a water body.

Answer

Answer: c

---

3. It natality is balanced by mortality in a population at a given time, there will be a/an
(a) decrease in the population size
(b) increase in the population size
(c) zero population growth
(d) population explosion

Answer

Answer: c

---

4. Mycorrhiza is an example of
(a) ectoparasitism
(b) mutualism
(c) endoparasitism
(d) predation

Answer

Answer: b

---

5. The interspecific interaction in which one partner is benefitted and the other is unaffected (neutral), is called
(a) amensalism
(b) mutualism
(c) competition
(d) commensalism

Answer

Answer: d

---

6. Individuals of one kind, i.e., one species occupying a particular geographic area, at a given time form a/an
(a) community
(b) biome
(c) population
(d) deme

Answer

Answer: c

---

7. The formula of exponential population growth curve, is
(a) dN/dt = rN
(b) dt/dN rN
(c) dN/rN = dt
(d) rN/dN = dt

Answer

Answer: a

---

8. Niche overlap indicates
(a) mutualism between two species
(b) active cooperation between two species
(c) sharing of one or more resources between the two species
(d) two different parasites on the same host.

Answer

Answer: c

---

9. Amensalism is an association between two species where [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) one species is harmed and other is benefitted
(b) one species is harmed and other is unaffected
(c) one species is benefitted and other is unaffected
(d) both the species are harmed.

Answer

Answer: b

---

10. A population has more young individuals compared to the older individuals. What would be the status of the population after some years? ]NCERT Exemplar]
(a) It will decline
(b) It will stabilise
(c) It will increase
(d) It will first decline and then stabilise

Answer

Answer: c

---

11. Which of the following would necessarily decrease the density of a population in a given habitat? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Natality > mortality
(b) Immigration > emigration
(c) Mortality and emigration
(d) Natality and immigration

Answer

Answer: c

---

12. What parameters are used for tiger census in our country’s national parks and sanctuaries? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Pug marks only
(b) Pug marks and faecal pellets
(c) Faecal pellets only
(d) Actual head counts

Answer

Answer: b

---

13. The organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperature, are called _______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Eury thermal

---

14. The salinity (measured in parts per thousand) in the sea is ______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 30-35

---

15. _______ is any attribute of an organism (morphological, physiological and behavioural) that enables it to live and reproduce in the given area. 24 Match the terms in Column I with their

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Adaptation

---

16. _______ refers to the number of births during a given period of time that are added to the initial density.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Natality

---

17. In a logistic growth curve, the final phase is an _______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Asymptote

---

18. _______ fish breed only once in their life time.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Pacific salmon

---

19. An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango tree, is an example of _______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Commensalism

---

20. _______ is an important process as it facilitates energy transfer through various organisms.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Predation

---

21. _______ showed that five closely related species of warblers living on the same were able to avoid competitions and co-exist.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: MacArthur

---

22. Zooplanktons enter, a state of suspended development under unfavourable conditions.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Diapause

---

23. Match the terms in Column 1 with those in Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Amensalism	1. The interspecific interaction, where both are equally benefitted.
B. Parasitism	2. The interspecific interaction, where one is benefitted and one is neutral.
C. Mutualism	3. The interspecific interaction, where one is harmed and the other is neutral.
D. Commen­salism	4. The interspecific interaction, where one is benefitted and one is harmed.
E. Competition

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2

---

24 Match the terms in Column I with their descriptions in Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Home­ostasis	1. Animal which can tolerate a wide range of temperature.
B. Confor­mers	2. The number of births in a given population at a given time.
C. Natality	3. Per capita births in a given population.
D. Eury- thermal	4. A Maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment.
	5. Animals which change their body temperature according to the ambient temperature.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: A – 4, B – 5, C – 2, D – 1

---

25. Zooplanktons enter a state of suspended development, called diapause, under unfavourable conditions. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True.

---

26. The success of mammals is due to their ability to change their body temperature according to their surroundings. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True.

---

27. Small animals like shrews and humming birds are rarely found in polar regions. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True.

---

28. Organisms living in water bodies (lake, sea, river) do not face any water related problems. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

29. dSfdt=rN is the equation describing logistic growth. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

Directions (Q30 to Q32): Mark the odd one in each of the following groups.
30. Aestivation, Migration, Hibernation, Diapause.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Migration.

---

31. Parasitism, Predation, Commensalism, Amensalism.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Amensalism.

---

32. Ticks, Lice, Copepods, Tapeworm.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Tapeworm.

---

33. Who is considered as the ‘Father of Ecology ’ in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Ramdeo Misra.

---

34. What is ecology at the organismic level?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Ecology at the organismic level is essentially physiological ecology, which tries to understand how different organisms are adapted to their environments in terms of not only survival but also reproduction.

---

35. What causes the annual variation in the intensity and duration of temperature?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Rotation of earth around the Sim.
– Tilt of the earth on its axis.

---

36. Name the two factors that cause the formation of major biomes.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Variation in the intensity and duration of temperature.
– Variation in precipitation.

---

37. What does the ecological niche of an organism represent?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Ecological niche of an organism represents the range of conditions it can tolerate, the resources it utilises and its functional role in the ecosystem.

---

38. Why are mango trees unable to grow in temperate climate? [AI 2016C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– The levels of thermal tolerance of species determine their geographical distribution, because temperature affects the physiological functions by affecting the kinetics of enzymes.
– Stenothermal organisms (like mango) can tolerate and survive only in a narrow range of temperature, say tropics.

---

39. Mention the effect of global warming on the geographical distribution of stenothermals like amphibians. [Foreign 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Stenothermal animals have tolerance to a narrow range of temperatures and hence their geographical distribution would be much affected.

---

40. Between amphibians and birds, which will be able to cope with global warming? Give reason. [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Birds will be able to cope with global warming; they are eurythermals and can tolerate a wide range of temperatures.

---

41. How do herbs and shrubs survive under the shadow of big canopied trees in forests?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The herbs and shrubs growing in the forests are adapted to photosynthesise optimally under very low light conditions.

---

42. Name a ‘photoperiod’-dependent process, one each in plants and in animals. [Foreign 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Flowering in plants.
– Timing of foraging or migration in plants.

---

43. Mention any two activities of animals which get cues from diurnal and seasonal variations in light intensity. [Delhi 2011C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Timing their foraging.
(ii) Migratory activities.
(iii) Reproduction. (any two)

---

44. Why are green algae not likely to be found in the deepest strata of the ocean? [AI 2013] [HOTS]
Or
Why are green plants not found beyond a certain depth in the ocean? [Delhi 2011] [HOTS]
Or
Why are green algae not found at lower depths of a sea? [Delhi 2011C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Green algae or plants are not found beyond a certain depth, as light (not all colour components of visible spectrum) is not available.

---

45. What is the advantage of homeostasis to organisms that exhibit it?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Homeostasis enhances the overall fitness of organisms because all biochemical reactions and physiological functions proceed with maximal efficiency.

---

46. Which feature of mammals, is the success rate of them, attributed to?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Their ability to maintain a constant body temperature irrespective of the environmental temperature.

---

47. Why have many animals not evolved thermo¬regulation? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Thermoregulation is an energy-expensive phenomenon; considering the cost and benefit, many animals have not evolved thermoregulation.

---

48. What are partial regulaters?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Partial regulaters are those species which have the ability to regulate, but only over a limited range of environmental conditions, beyond which they simply conform.

---

49. What are osmoconformers?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Osmoconformers are those organisms which regulate the osmolarity of their body fluids according to their surrounding medium.

---

50. What is migration?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Migration refers to the movement of animals from the stressful habitat to a more hospitable area and return to the original place once the stressful period is over.

---

51. Name the National Park in India where migratory birds arrive in winter from Siberia.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Keolado National Park, Bharatpur.

---

52. Mention how bears escape from stressful time in winter. [Delhi 2013C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Bears go into hibernation in winter.

---

53. How do snails escape from the stressful time in summer? [AI2013C]
Or
How do animals like fish and snails avoid summer-related unfavourable conditions? [Delhi 2010]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Snails and fish go into aestivation in summer.

---

54. When and why do animals like frog/bear hibernate?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: If the unfavourable (stressful) conditions are for a short duration and if the animals are not able to migrate, they hibernate during extreme winter to avoid the stress by escaping in time.

---

55. When and why do animals like snails go into aestivation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: When the snails are not able to migrate from the stressful conditions in the habitat, they undergo aestivation during hot summers to avoid stress by escaping in time.

---

56. Give an example of an organism that enters ‘diapause’ and why? [Delhi 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Zooplankton.
– It is to tide over the temporary unfavourable conditions in the habitat.

---

57. How do seed-bearing plants tide over dry and hot weather conditions? [AI 2013C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: In seed-bearing plants, the seeds and other vegetative reproductive structures serve to tide over the unfavourable conditions; they germinate to form new plants under favourable conditions.

---

58. Define adaptation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Adaptation is defined as any morphological, physiological or behavioural attribute of an organism that enables it to survive and reproduce in its habitat.

---

59. How do spines help the cactus plants survive in the desert?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Leaves are reduced to spines to check transpiration.
(ii) Spines keep away the browsing animals.

---

60. What is meant by Allen’s Rule?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Allen’s rule refers to the reduction of heat loss in animals by having shorter ears and limbs.

---

61. Why is population ecology considered an important area of ecology?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Population ecology is an important area of ecology, because it links ecology with population genetics and evolution; natural selection operates at the level of population.

---

62. If 8 individuals in a laboratory population of 80 fruit flies died in a week, then what would be the death rate of the population for the said period? [Delhi 2010]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The death rate of fruit flies is 8/80, i.e. 100 per thousand or 10 per cent or 0.1 per individual.

---

63. In a pond, there were 20 Hydrilla plants. Through reproduction, 10 new Hydrilla plants were added in a year. Calculate the birth rate of the population. [Delhi 2010]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The birth rate of Hydrilla is 10/20, i.e. 500 per thousand or 50 per cent or 0.5 per individual.

---

64. Define population density.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Population density refers to the total number of individuals of a species present per unit area or volume at a given time.

---

65. Provide an instance where the population size of a species can be estimated indirectly, without actually counting them or seeing them. [Delhi 2016C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Tiger census is carried out by counting the pug marks or faecal pellets.

---

66. Define natality.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Natality is defined as the number of births that are added to the initial density in a population during a given period of time.

---

67. Define mortality.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Mortality refers to the number of deaths in the population during a given period.

---

68. What does nature’s carrying capacity for a species indicate? [Foreign 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It refers to the maximum number of individuals of a population that the given environment can sustain with its resources.

---

69. Name two organisms (one plant and one animal) which breed only once in their lifetime.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Bamboo; Pacific Salmon Fish.

---

70. Why have life history variations evolved?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Life history variations have evolved in organisms to maximise their reproductive fitness or Darwinian fitness in their natural habitats.

---

71. Mention any two reasons why plants depend on other organisms for their survival, even though they make their own organic food.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Plants depend on animals (mainly insects) for pollination.
(ii) They also depend on animals for dispersal of seeds and/or fruits.
(iii) They depend on the soil microbes, which can carry out decomposition of organic matter and return the inorganic nutrients to the soil for absorption by plants. (any two)

---

72. Why are cattle and goats not browsing the Calotropis growing in the fields? [Foreign 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Calotropis plants produce highly toxic cardiac glycosides; hence, the cattle avoid browsing them.

---

73. Write one common feature among predation, parasitism and commensalism.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: In all these, the interacting species live closely together and one of the species is benefitted.

---

74. What term is given to the predators of plants.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Herbivores.

---

75. What type of interaction is shown by a sparrow eating the seeds?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Predation.

---

76. An exotic variety of prickly pear introduced into Australia turned out to be invasive. How was it brought under control? [Delhi 2013C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: By introducing a cactus-feeding moth.

---

77. Why are predators ‘prudent’ in nature? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Predators are prudent in nature because if a predator is too efficient and over-exploits its prey, then the prey might become extinct and following it, the predator will also become extinct.

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78. Why do predators avoid eating monarch butterfly? How does the butterfly develop this protective feature? [Foreign 2010]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– The monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to the predators.
– It is due to a chemical present in its body; the butterfly acquires this chemical during its caterpillar stage, by feeding on a poisonous weed.

---

79. Write what the phytophagous insects feed on. [Delhi 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Phytophagous insects feed on the sap and other parts of the plants.

---

80. Why is the problem of predation in plants more severe than that in animals? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Problem of predation is severe for plants because they cannot move away from their predators.

---

We hope the given Biology MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Biology Organisms and Populations MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Biology Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 14 Ecosystem. Biology MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Biology Ecosystem MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Ecosystem Class 12 Biology MCQs Pdf

1. Which of the following represents the sedimentary type of nutrient cycle?
(a) Nitrogen cycle
(b) Carbon cycle
(c) Phosphorus cycle.
(d) Oxygen cycle

Answer

Answer: c

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2. In a pond ecosystem, the food chain starts with
(a) Zooplanktons.
(b) Small insects
(c) Phytoplanktons
(d) Small fishes

Answer

Answer: c

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3. The last stable community in succession that is in equilibrium with the environment, is called
(a) serai community
(b) pioneer community
(c) climax community
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: c

---

4. Which of the following is a pioneer species in xerarch succession?
(a) Phytoplanktons
(b) Lichens
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Sedges

Answer

Answer: b

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5. Which of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?
(a) It begins on a bare rock.
(b) It occurs on a deforested area.
(c) It follows primary succession.
(d) It is similar to primary succession, but has a relatively fast pace.

Answer

Answer: d

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6. The sequence of communities of primary succession in water is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) phytoplankton, sedges, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, grasses and trees.
(b) phytoplankton, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, sedges, grasses and trees.
(c) free-floating hydrophytes, sedges, phytoplankton, rooted hydrophytes, grasses and trees.
(d) phytoplankton, rooted submerged hydrophytes, floating hydrophytes, reed swamp, sedges, meadow and trees.

Answer

Answer: d

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7. The reservoir for the gaseous type of biogeochemical cycle exists in [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) stratosphere
(b) atmosphere
(c) ionosphere
(d) lithosphere

Answer

Answer: b

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8. The process of mineralisation by micro organisms helps in the release of [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) inorganic nutrients from humus
(b) both organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus
(c) organic nutrients from humus
(d) inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus.

Answer

Answer: a

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9. Which of the following ecosystems is most productive in terms of net primary production? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Deserts
(b) Tropical rain forests
(c) Oceans
(d) Estuaries

Answer

Answer: b

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10. Approximately how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Less than 1%
(b) 2-10%
(c) 30%
(d) 50%

Answer

Answer: b

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11. Vertical distributioon of different species occupying different levels in an ecosystem, is called _______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Stratification.

---

12. The rate of production of biomass is termed as _______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Productivity.

---

13. The degradation of humus by some microbes to release the inorganic nutrients, is called _______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Mineralisation.

---

14. _______ of organisms is the beginning of the detritus food chain.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Death.

---

15. _______ are the saprotrophs (heterotrophs) which meet their energy requirements by degrading the detritus.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Decomposers.

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16. The amount of energy _______ at successive trophic levels.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Decreases.

---

17. The _______ is measured as biomass or number per unit area.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Standing crop.

---

18. The pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem is .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Upright.

---

19. are the pioneer species in the primary succession on a rock.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Lichens.

---

20. The technical term given to nutrient cycles is cycles.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Biogeochemical.

---

21. Match the items in Column I with those in Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Standing crop	1. The amount of mineral nutrients in the soil at a given time
B. Standing state	2. Sedementary cycle
C. Climax community	3. Herbivores and carnivores
D. Primary producers	4. In near equilibrium with the environment
E. Phosphorus cycle	5. Mass of living matter in a trophic level at a given time
F. Secondary producers	6. Phytoplanktons

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: A – 5, B – 1, C – 4, D – 6, E – 2, F – 3

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22. Match the items in Column I with those in Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Pyramid of  energy	1. Phytoplanktons
B. Pyramid of biomass	2. Mesic forest
C. Climax community	3. Upright/inverted
D. Hydrarch succession	4. Always upright
	5. Pioneer species

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1

---

23. Natural or man-made distribances during succession, can convert a particular serai stage to an earlier stage. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True.

---

24. The pioneer species always remain in equilibrium with the environment and do not change easily. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

25. The function of reservoir of any nutrient cycle is to store as much matter as possible. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

26. In a hydrarch succession, the marsh-meadow stage is preceded by the scrub stage. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

27. In an ecological pyramid, the amount of energy available at the lower trophic level is always more than that at a higher trophic level. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True.

---

Directions (Q28 and Q29): Mark the odd one in each of the following groups.
28. Phytoplanktons, Zooplanktons, Reed-swamp stage, Lichens.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Lichens.

---

29. Fragmentation, Stratification, Leaching, Catabolism.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Stratification.

---

30. What is an ecosystem?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: An ecosystem is a functional unit of nature, where biotic components (living organisms) interact among themselves and also with the abiotic environmental or physical factors.

---

31. What is meant by species composition in an ecosystem?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Species composition refers to all the plant, animal and microbial species present in a given ecosystem.

---

32. What is ‘stratification’ in an ecosystem?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: ‘Stratification’ in an ecosystem refers to the vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels.

---

33. How is ‘ stratification’ represented in a forest ecosystem? [Delhi 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: In a forest, the trees occupy the upper/ topmost vertical strata, the shrubs, the second and herbs, the bottom layers.

---

34. How is primary productivity in an ecosystem determined? [AI2012C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Primary productivity is determined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by the plants during photosynthesis.

---

35. GPP – R = NPP
What does ‘R’ represent in the given equation for productivity in an ecosystem? [Delhi 2014C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: R represents the respiratory losses.

---

36. What is net primary productivity of an ecosystem? [Foreign 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Net primary productivity of an ecosystem refers to the biomass available in the producers for consumption by heterotrophs, i.e., herbivores and decomposers.

---

37. Write the equation that helps in deriving the net primary productivity of an ecosystem. [Delhi 2013]
Or
How is the net primary productivity of an ecosystem derived? [AI 2012C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Gross primary productivity (GPP) – Respiratory loss (R) = Net primary productivity (NPP); it is the amount of energy/biomass available in the producers for consumption by herbivores.

---

38. How is net primary productivity different from gross primary productivity?[AI2012C]
Or
Write a difference between net primary productivity and gross productivity. [AI 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Net primary productivity refers to the , biomass/organic matter available at the 1 producer level to the primary consumers,
i.e. GPP – Respiratory losses.
Gross primary productivity is the rate of production of biomass/organic matter by producers during photosynthesis.

---

39. What is the approximate value of net primary productivity of the biosphere?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 170 billion tons of (dry weight) organic matter.

---

40. How much of productivity is contributed by oceans?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Oceans contribute about 55 billion tons organic matter.

---

41. Why is the assimilation of energy at the herbivore level, called secondary productivity?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Herbivores are the primary consumers; the rate of assimilation or formation of new biomass at the consumer level is secondary productivity.

---

42. All the primary productivity is not available to a herbivore. Give one reason. [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: A considerable amount of gross primary productivity is used by the plants in respiration; so not all primary productivity is available for consumers.

---

43. Name the two climatic factors that regulate decomposition.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Temperature and soil moisture are the two climatic factors that regulate decomposition.

---

44. Why is an earthworm called a detritivore? [Foreign 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Earthworms ingest and breakdown the detritus into smaller particles; hence they are called detritivores.

---

45. What is meant by PAR?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The part of the solar radiation which can be absorbed and used by the plants for photosynthesis, is called photosynthetically active radiation (PAR).

---

46. What are primary carnivores?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Primary carnivores are the secondary consumers, which depend on the herbivores (primary consumers) for their food needs.

---

47. What is a detritus food chain made up of? How do they meet their energy and nutritional requirements? [AI 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– It is made up of decomposers, i.e. some bacteria and some fungi.
– They meet their energy and nutrient requirements by degrading the dead organic matter or detritus.

---

48. Name two omnivores that occupy positions in both grazing food chain as well as detritus food chain.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Cockroaches and crows.

---

49. Write the basis on which an organism occupies a space in its community/natural surroundings. [Foreign 2010]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Their feeding relationship with other organisms.

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50. Mr Galgotia eats curd/yoghurt. In this case, which trophic level will he occupy? [CBSE Sample Paper 2010; HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: He occupies third tropic level, i.e., he is a secondary consumer.

---

51. ‘Man can be primary as well as a secondary consumer.’ Justify this statement. [Foreign 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– When man eats plant food, he is primary consumer.
– When he eats meat (animal food), he is a secondary consumer.

---

52. State what ‘standing crop’ of a trophic level represents. [AI 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Standing crop of a trophic level represents the amount of living matter (biomass) present at a trophic level at a given time.

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53. List any two ways of measuring the standing crop of a trophic level. [Foreign 2010]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Standing crop is measured as
(i) biomass, i.e. mass of living organisms in an unit area
(ii) number of organisms in an unit area.

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54. How are biomass and standing crop related to each other? [CBSE Sample Paper 2013, 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Biomass is the mass of living organisms or organic matter.
– Standing crop is measured in terms of biomass.

---

55. Why is measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight more accurate than fresh weight? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate because it avoids variations in weights due to seasonal moisture differences.

---

56. Define ecological succession.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Ecological succession is a community controlled phenomenon, in which the structure and composition of communities change in an orderly and sequential manner, leading ultimately to the establishment of a climax community.

---

57. What is a sere?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The entire sequence of communities, that successively change in a given area resulting in a climax community, is called a sere.

---

58. Define climax community.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The community established at the terminal stage of succession, is called climax community.

---

59. Mention the role of pioneer species in primary succession on rocks. [Foreign 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Lichens are the pioneer species in the succession on rocks; they secrete acids to dissolve the rock and help in weathering and soil formation and pave way to bryophytes.

---

60. In the North East region of India, during the process of jhum cultivation, forests are cleared by burning and left for regrowth after a year of cultivation. How would you explain the regrowth of forest in ecological terms? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It is secondary succession.

---

61. Differentiate between standing state and standing crop in an ecosystem. [Foreign 2010]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Differences:

Standing State	Standing Crop
– Standing state refers to the amount of nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium, etc. present in the soil of an ecosystem at a given time.	– Standing crop refers to the amount of biomass or organic matter available at a given trophic level/ecosystem at a given time.
– It is in the abiotic components.	– It is in the biotic components.

---

62. Name the two forms of reservoir of carbon, that regulate the ecosystem carbon cycle.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Dissolved carbon in oceans.
(ii) Carbon in fossil fuels.

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63. How much of carbon is
(a) fixed in the biosphere through photosynthesis annually?
(b) dissolved in the ocean?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) 4 × 10¹³ kg of carbon is fixed annually.
(b) 71% of carbon is dissolved in the ocean.

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64. Name the natural reservoir of phosphorus and the form in which it is present.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Rocks are the natural reservoir of phosphorus.
– It is present in the form of phosphates.

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65. Who put a price tag for the ecosystem services? What is its value?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Robert Constanza et al have tried to put a price tag. , – It’s estimated to be about 33 trillion US dollars.

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We hope the given Biology MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 14 Ecosystem will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Biology Ecosystem MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Biology Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications. Biology MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Biology Biotechnology and its Applications MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Biotechnology and its Applications Class 12 Biology MCQs Pdf

1. The genes crylAb and cryllAb produce toxins against _______ and _______, respectively.
(a) cotton bollworms, com borer
(b) nematode, cotton bollworm
(c) com borer, cotton bollworm
(d) com borer, nematodes

Answer

Answer: c

---

2. Which among the following is based on antigen-antibody interaction?
(a) PCR
(b) Electrophoresis
(c) ELISA
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: c

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3. Which among the following is not allowed to take place in the case of RNA interference employed in making tobacco plants resistant to the nematode, Meloidegyne incognitia?
(a) Transcription of mRNA
(b) Translation of mRNA
(c) Replication of DNA
(d) Maturation of hn RNA.

Answer

Answer: b

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4. Night blindness can be prevented by use of
(a) golden rice
(b) transgenic tomato
(c) transgenic maize
(d) Bt brinjal.

Answer

Answer: a

---

5. The T_i plasmid used for producing transgenic plants is found in
(a) Azotobacter
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Azospirillum
(d) Agrobacterium

Answer

Answer: d

---

6. a-1 antitrypsin is: [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) an antacid
(b) an enzyme
(c) used to treat arthritis
(d) used to treat emphysema.

Answer

Answer: d

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7. The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) acidic pH of stomach.
(b) high temperature.
(c) alkaline pH of gut
(d) mechanical action in the insect gut.

Answer

Answer: c

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8. In RNAi, genes are silenced using [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) ss DNA
(b) ds DNA
(c) ds RNA
(d) ss RNA

Answer

Answer: c

---

9. C-peptide of human insulin is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) a part of mature insulin molecule
(b) responsible for formation of disulphide bridges
(c) removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin
(d) responsible for its biological activity.

Answer

Answer: c

---

10. Silencing of a gene could be achieved through the use of [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) short interfering RNA (RNAi)
(b) antisense RNA
(c) by both
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: c

---

11. GM crops help to reduce the ______ losses.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Post-harvest.

---

12. The alkaline pH in the stomach of insect larvae triggers the activation of ______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Bt-toxin.

---

13. ______ is the compound obtained from transgenic animal that is used to treat emphysema.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: α-1-antitrypsin.

---

14. In RNAi, the silencing of mRNA is carried out by using ______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: ds RNA.

---

15. The Bt toxin does not kill the bacterium producing it, because it is produced in an _________ state.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Inactive.

---

16. The site of production of ADA in the body is ______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Lymphocytes.

---

17. ______ of human insulin is removed during maturation process.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: C-peptide.

---

18. Using ______ vectors, nematode-specific genes are introduced into host plants.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Agrobacterium.

---

19. The protein coded by the gene, crylAb provides resistance to ______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Com borer.

---

20. An American company obtained patent rights on ______ rice through US patent and Trademark Office.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Basmati.

---

21. Match the items in Column I with those in Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Rosie	1. Polio vaccine safety
B. T. plasmid	2. Human alpha-lactalbumin
C. RNAi	3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
D. ELISA	4. Meloidegyne incognitia
E. Transgenic mice	5. Antigen-antibody interaction

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 5, E – 1

---

22. Match the terms in Column I with those in Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Gene therapy	1. Human insulin
B. Cotton bollworm	2. Biopiracy
C. EliLilly	3. Emphysema
D. Basmati Rice	4. ADA deficiency
E. α -1 antitrypsin	5. Lepidopteran

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: A – 4, B – 5, C – 1, D – 2, E – 3

---

23. The disorder ADA deficiency can be cured by gene therapy only. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

24. Transgenic mice are used to test the safety of polio vaccine. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True.

---

25. The recombinant therapeutics induce unwanted immunological responses. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

26. Bt toxins provide resistance to all types of insect pests. [True/Faise]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

27. ELISA is based on introducing a functional gene is place by a defective gene. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False.

---

Directions (Q28 to Q30): Mark the odd one in each of the following groups.
28. PCR, Widal, rDNA technology, ELISA.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Widal.

---

29. Tetanus taxoid, a-1 antitrypsin, Hepatitis B vaccine, Humulin.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Tetanus taxoid.

---

30. Agrobacterium, RNA/, crylAc, Meloidegyne.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: crylAc

---

31. What do the letters Bt stand for, in Bt cotton plants?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Bt stand for Bacillus thuringiensis.

---

32. What are cry genes? In which organism are they present? [AI2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– The genes which code for the Bt toxin proteins, are called cry genes.
– They are present in the bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis.

---

33. Mention the source organism of the gene crylAc and its target pest. [Foreign 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Bacillus thuringiensis is the source organism.
– Cotton bollworm is its target pest.

---

34. Mention the source organism of the gene, crylAb and its target pest. [Foreign 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Bacillus thuringiensis is the source 42. organism.
– Com borer is its target pest.

---

35. List the type of cry genes that provide resistance to com plants and cotton plants, respectively, against lepidopterans. [Foreign 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– crylAb controls com borer and crylAc and cryllAb control cotton bollworm.

---

36. Why are certain cotton plants called Bt- cotton plants?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: They are the transgenic cotton plants with genes from Bacillus thuringiensis’, they are resistant to bollworms.

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37. Name the specific type of gene that is incorporated in a cotton plant to protect the plant against cotton bollworm infestation. [AI 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: crylAc and cryllAb.

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38. Bt toxins are released as inactive crystals in the bacterial body. What happens to it in the cotton bollworm body that it kills the bollworm? [AI 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– It becomes activated in the alkaline pH of the gut of the insect.
– The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells, create pores that cause swelling and lysis of the cells and eventually cause death of the insect.

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39. What is the significance of the process of RNA interference (RNAi) in eukaryotic organisms?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: RNA interference is a method of cellular defense in all eukaryotic organisms.

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40. Write the possible source of RNA interference (RNAi) gene. [Delhi 2013C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Infection by a virus having RNA genome.
(ii) Mobile genetic elements, called transposons that replicate via an RNA intermediate.

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41. How does dsRNAgain entry into eukaryotic cell to cause RNA interference? [Delhi 2011C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Infection by viruses with RNAgenome.
(ii) Transposons, the mobile genetic elements, that can replicate via an RNA intermediate.

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42. How does silencing of specific mRNA in RNA interference prevent parasitic infestation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The nematode (parasite) cannot live in the transgenic host that expresses RNA interference.

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43. State the role of transposons in silencing of mRNA in eukaryotic cells. [AI 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Transposons are the source of complementary RNA that binds to and prevents the translation of specific mRNA.

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44. How are tobacco plants benefitted when nematode-specific genes are introduced into them using certain vectors? Name the vector used.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– The tobacco plants show resistance to nematode attack; the nematode cannot survive in such plants, as they show RNA interference.
– The vector used is Agrobacterium.

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45. Mention the chemical change that proinsulin undergoes, to be able to act as mature insulin. [CBSE 2018]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– The C-peptide is removed.
– The peptides A and B are joined by disulphide bridges.

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46. State the role of C-peptide in human insulin. [AI 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The C-peptide joins the A-peptide with B-peptide in the proinsulin; it is removed during the processing of proinsulin into insulin.

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47. How are the two short polypeptide chains of insulin linked together?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
They are linked together by creating disulphide bonds.

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48. How is proinsulin different from the functional insulin in humans? [AI 2012C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Proinsulin contains an additional polypeptide chain called C-peptide.
– In the functional insulin, C-peptide is absent, as it is removed during processing.

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49. A boy has been diagnosed with ADA deficiency. Suggest any one possible treatment. [Delhi 2014 C]
Or
Suggest any two possible treatments that can be given to a patient exhibiting adenosine deaminase deficiency. [AI 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Gene therapy.
(ii) Enzyme replacement therapy.
(iii) Bone marrow transplantation.

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50. State the cause of adenosine deaminase enzyme deficiency. [AI 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It is caused due to deletion of the gene coding for the enzyme, adenosine deaminase.

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51. Why do children cured by enzyme replacement therapy of adenosine deaminase deficiency, need periodic treatment?[AI 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The lymphocytes are not immortal, but have a life span; hence with the formation of new lymphocytes, every time, the enzyme has to be injected.

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52. Mention an example of stem cell therapy.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Bone marrow transplantation.

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53. Suggest a molecular diagnostic procedure that detects HTV in a suspected AIDS patient. [Foreign 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

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54. Name any two techniques that serve the purpose of early diagnosis of some bacterial/ viral human diseases. [Foreign 2011]
Or
Name a molecular diagnostic technique to detect the presence of a pathogen in its early stage of infection. [Delhi 2010]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
(ii) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

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55. State the principle on which ELISA works.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: ELISA works on the principle of antigen- antibody interaction.

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56. What are transgenic animals? Give an example.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
– Transgenic animals are those animals which have their DNA manipulated to possess and express one/more foreign genes.
e.g. – the transgenic cow, Rosie, possesses the gene for human alpha- lactalbumin.

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57. Name the protein produced in transgenic animals that is used to treat emphysema.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: α-1-antitrypsin.

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58. What is biopiracy? [Delhi 2017, AI 2016, Delhi 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources and traditional knowledge related to bioresources for commercial benefit by certain organisations or multi-national companies without proper consent from the countries and compensatory payment to the people concerned.

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59. Name the Indian variety of rice patented by an American company.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Basmati variety.

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60. Mention two objectives of setting up GEAC by our government. [AI 2016]
Or
State the purpose for which the Indian Government has set up GEAC. [Foreign 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The objectives of setting up GEAC are:
(a) to have some ethical standards to evaluate the morality of human activities that might help or harm living organisms.
(b) to have a regulation, as genetic modifications of organisms may have unpredictable results when such organisms are introduced into the ecosystem.

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