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These Sample papers are part of CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Here we have given CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Paper 2.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Paper 2

Board	CBSE
Class	XII
Subject	History
Sample Paper Set	Paper 2
Category	CBSE Sample Papers

Students who are going to appear for CBSE Class 12 Examinations are advised to practice the CBSE sample papers given here which is designed as per the latest Syllabus and marking scheme as prescribed by the CBSE is given here. Paper 2 of Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 History is given below with free PDF download solutions.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Answer all the questions. Some questions have internal choice. Marks are indicated against each question.
(ii) Answer to question nos 1 to 3 carrying 2 marks should not exceed 30 words each.
(iii) Answer to question nos. 4 to 9 carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words. Students should attempt only 5 questions in this section.
(iv) Question 10 (for 4 marks) is a value based question and compulsory question.
(v) Answer to question nos 11 to 13 carrying 8 marks should not exceed 350 words.
(vi) Questions 14 -16 are source based questions and have no internal choice.
(vii) Question 17 is a map question includes ‘identification’ and significant’ test items.

PART-A

Answer all the questions given below:

Question 1:
Give two reasons why the sixth century BCE is often regarded as a major turning point in early Indian History?

Question 2:
Who were Alvars and Nayanars? In which languages did they sing?

Question 3:
State the significance of Gandhiji’s speech at Banaras Hindu University?

PART-B

Section-I

Answer any five of the following questions:

Question 4:
Discuss whether the Mahabharata could have been the work of single author.

Question 5:
Describe the growth of temple architectures in the ancient period.

Question 6:
Describe the position of untouchables in ancient society?

Question 7:
Explain the basic ideas of Jaina philosophy.

Question 8:
Describe the life of village artisans during the Mughal period.

Question 9:
Describe the results of India’s overseas trade under the Mughals.

Section-II

Value Based Questions

Read the following passage and answer the question that follow.
The rebel proclamations in 1857 repeatedly appealed to all sections of the population, irrespective of their caste and creed. Many of the Proclamations were issued by Muslim princes or in their names but even these took care to address the sentiments of Hindus. The rebellion was seen as a war in which both Hindus and Muslims had equally to lose or gain. The ishtahars worked back to the pre-British Hindu-Muslim part and glorified the co existence of different communities under the Mughal empire.

Question 10:
What type of values were developed in 1857 in both Muslims and Hindus?

PART-C

Answer all the questions given below:

Question 11:
Discuss the ways in which panchayats and village headman regulated rural society.
OR
Explain how the fortification and roads in the city of Vijayanagar were unique and impressive.

Question 12:
Explain the main events of the Dandi March. What is its significance in the history of the Indian national movement?
OR
What are the salient features of town planning in Calcutta during the British period?

Question 13:
How did the message about the Revolt of 1857 spread?
OR
Discuss the religious causes for the Revolt of 1857.

PART-D

Source Based Questions

Question 14:
Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follows.

The poor peasants of the vast tracts of country constituting the empire of Hindustan, many are little more than sand, or barren mountains, badly cultivated, and thinly populated. Even a considerable portion of the good land remains unfilled for want of labourers; many of whom perish in consequence of the bad treatment they experience from Governors. The poor people, when they become incapable of discharging the demands of their rapacious lords, are not only often deprived of the means of subsistence, but are also made to lose their children, who are carried away as slaves. Thus, it happens that the peasantry, driven to despair by so excessive a tyranny, abandon the country.

In this instance, Bernier was participating in contemporary debates in Europe concerning the , nature of state and society, and intended that his description of Mughal India would serve as warning to those who did not recognise the “merits” of private property.

(i) What were the problems about cultivating the land, according to Bernier?
(ii) Why did peasantry abandon the land?
(iii) Explain the reasons given by Bernier for the exploitation of the peasants.

Question 15:
Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follows.

There cannot be any divided loyalty

Govind Ballabh Pant argued that in order to become loyal citizens people had to stop focusing only on the community and the self. For the success of democracy one must train himself in the art of self-discipline. In democracies one should care less for himself and more for others. There cannot be any divided loyalty. All loyalties must exclusively be centered round the state.

If in a democracy, you create rival loyalties, or you create a system in which any individual or group, instead of suppressing his extravagance, cares naught for larger or other interests, then democracy is doomed.
(i) What do you understand by ‘Separate Electorate’?
(ii) Why was the demand for separate electorate made during the drafting of the constitution?
(iii) Why was G. B Pant against this demand? Give two reasons.

Question 16:
Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follows.

How artefacts are identified

Processing of food required grinding equipment as well as vessels for mixing, blending and cooking. These were made of stone, metal and terracotta. This is an excerpt from one of the earliest reports on excavations at Mohenjodaro, the best known Harappan site:
Saddle quem … are found in considerable numbers … and they seem to have been the only means in use for grinding cereals. As a rule, they were roughly made of hard, gritty, igneous rock or sandstone and mostly show signs of hard usage. As their bases are usually convex, they must have been set in the earth or in mud to prevent their rocking. Two main types have been found: those on which another smaller stone was pushed or rolled to and fro, and others with which a second stone was used as a pounder, eventually making a large cavity in the .nether stone. Querns of the former type were probably used solely for grain; the second type possibly only for pounding herbs and spices for making curries. In fact, stones of this latter type are dubbed ‘curry stones” by our workmen and our cook asked for the loan of one from the museum for use in the kitchen
(i) What are the two types of querns?
(ii) What materials were these querns made of? Why are they described as “curry stones”
(iii) What are two kinds of saddle?

Question 17:
(17.1). On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols:
(a) Shravasti, ancient Buddhist site
(b) Champa, an early state
(17.2). On the same outline map of India, three places related to the 14 – 18th century South India have been marked as A, B and C. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

Answers

Answer 1:
(i) Rise of states, cities, widespread use of iron and coins.
(ii) Witnessed the growth of different religions viz. Buddhism and Jainism.

Answer 2:
(i) Alvars – worshippers of Vishnu.
Nayanars – devotees of Shiva.
(ii) They sang in Tamil language.

Answer 3:
(i) Indian Nationalism was elitist in nature (factual).
(ii) His desire to make it a mass movement.

Answer 4:
The original story was composed by charioteer bard’s named as Sutras.
In the 5th BCE, Brahmans took over the story and began to commit it to writing called itihasa.

1. Between 200 BCE and 200 CE worship of Vishnu was growing in importance.
2.  Between 200 BCE and 400 CE large didactic sections were added.
3. Verses increased to 1,00,000.
4. Sage Vyasa was considered to be the original composer of Mahabharata.

Answer 5:
Temple architecture:

1. Temples built at the same pattern as that of the Sanchi Stupa.
2. Temples had square room – Garbhagriha -with single doorway, for the worshipper to enter. Tall structure called as Shikhara was built.
3.  Temple walls were decorated with beautiful sculptures. Temples had assembly halls, huge walls, gateways etc.
4. Some of these were made out of rocks as artificial caves, e.g Kailashnatha Temple.

Answer 6:
Untouchables: Brahmans considered some people as outside the system.

1.  They were those people who indulged in polluting activities such as handling corpses and dead animals. These people were called Chandalas.
2.  They lived outside the cities. They used discarded utensils.
3. They wore ornaments of iron. They could not walk about in villages and cities at night.
4.  They served as executioners. They had to sound clapper in the streets.

Answer 7:
The entire world is animated. Ahimsa or non-injury to living beings.

1.  Cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through Karma.
2. Asceticism and penance required to free oneself from the cycle of karma.
3.  Moksha can be achieved by renouncing the world and adopting monastic life.
4.  5 vows to abstain from killing, stealing and lying to observe celibacy and to abstain from possessing property.

Answer 8:
(i) Marathi documents make a mention of 32.5% of the village constituted artisans. Distinction between peasants and artisans a fluid one.
(ii) They engaged in various types of craft production especially in between different agricultural activity.
(iii) For their services they were compensated by villages in variety of ways. Cultivated waste given to them called Miras or Nathan in Maharashtra.
(iv) 18lh century zamindars of Bengal paid the artisans small daily allowance called jajmani system.

Answer 9:
This trade brought in silver bullion into Asia.

1. A large part of the bullion gravitated towards India. Commodity composition expanded.
2. Stability in the availability of metal currency silver Rupiah in India.
3. Expansion of minting of coins and circulation of money in the economy.
4.  Voyages of discovery led to expansion of Asia’s trade.

Answer 10:
Expected values:

1. Vision of unity
2.  Common Harmony
3. Coordination
4. Mutual faith
5.  Nationalism
6.  Peaceful Coexistence
7.  Desire for freedom
8.  Sacrifice for motherland in Hindu-Muslim unity

Answer 11:
Village panchayat consisted of an assembly of elders. Its decision was binding on its members.

1.  The head of the panchayat was the Mandal.
2. To prepare the village accounts with the help of the panchayat.
3.  The members of the village made contributions to a common financial pool.
4.  To administer the conduct of the members of the village.
5. Panchayat could also levy fines and even expel a person from the community.
6. Teach caste or jati in the village had its ownjati panchayat.
7.  The panchayat was also regarded as the government of appeal.
8. In cases of excessive revenue demands, the panchyat suggested compromise.

OR
Roads and fortifications-Razzaq greatly impressed by fortification-seven lines of forts encircled and agricultural hinterland, massive masonty, no mortar used.

1. Square or rectangular bastions projected outwards.
2. Second fortifications went round their inner core of the urban complex.
3. Roads wound around the valley avoiding rocky terrain.
4.  Some roads extended from temple gateways.
5. It enclosed vast agricultural fields.
6. Canals system helped to irrigate these fields.
7. Roads were extended from temple gateways and bazars.

Answer 12:
On the 12th March 1930 Gandhi began the Dandi March-followed by 78 followers. It is at a distance of 375 km on foot from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi.

1.  News of the progress of the March spread to various parts-many of the common people j oined/supported.
2.  People paid their respect by spinning Khadi.
3.  On 6th April he broke the salt law.
4.  He launched the Civil Disobedience Movement which spread to most parts of the country especially NWFP where Abdul Gaffar Khan played an active role.
5. It focused the attention on Gandhiji’s philosophy and action. It was conveyed by the European/American press.
6.  Women participated in large numbers, especially Kamala Devi. It made the British realize the depth of nationalist feelings.
7.  Their rule could not last forever. Devolving some power to Indians through the Indian Act of 1935.

OR
Planning required a layout of the entire urban space and regulation of urban land use.

1. Defence – after the Battle of Plassey in 1757 they decided to build a new fort taking village of Sutanati, Kolkata and Govindpur.
2. Vast space around the fort was left known as maidan reason-to fire in a straight line from the fort against an advancing army.
3. Later they moved out of the fort and building residences along the maidan.
4. Lord Wellesley built a massive palace, government house. He felt the need for town planning.
5. Many bazars, ghats, burial grounds were removed.
6. This work was later taken up by lottery committee. They made a new map of the city and took up activities of road building and
   cleaning Indian areas.
7. To save the area from the treatment of epidemics, bustis were demolished.
8. Frequent fires led to stricter building regulations. Finally all town planning activities were taken up by the government.

Answer 13:
(i) The Revolt of 1857 was associated not only with the people of the court but also with ordinary men and women.
(ii) Besides the ranis, rajas, nawabs and taluqdars, many common people, religious persons and self-styled prophets participated in it.
(iii) The message of rebellion was carried by ordinary men and women.
(iv) At some places, even the religious people spread the message of the Revolt of 1857. For example; in Meerut, a fakir used to ride on elephant. Many sepoys met him time and again.
(v) After the annexation of Awadh, Lucknow had many religious leaders and self-styled prophets who preached the destruction of British rule.
(vi) At many places, the local leaders played an important role. They urged the peasants, zamindars and tribals to revolt.
(vii) In Uttar Pradesh, Shahu Mai motivated and mobilised the residents of Barout Paragana.
(viii) Similarly Ganoo, a tribal who cultivated in Singhbhum in Chotanagpur, became a rebel leader of the kol tribals.
OR
(i) The Christian missionaries were assuring material benefits to Indians to convert them to Christianity. So, many people of India became antagonistic towards the British.
(ii) Lord William Bentinck, the Governor-General of India, initiated reforms in the Indian society.
(iii) He abolished customs like Sati and permitted remarriage of the Hindu widows. Many Hindus viewed these steps against the ideology of Hinduism.
(iv) The British introduced western education, western ideas and western institutions in India. They set up English medium educational institutions but many Hindus considered these steps as attempts to encourage religious conversion.
(v) Many people felt that the British were destroying their sacred ideals that they had long cherished.
(vi) Many Hindus were enraged when the Christian missionaries criticized their scriptures on religious books.
(vii) In accordance with the law passed in 1856, the Hindus could be sent across the sea to fight a war. During those days, the Hindus considered it a sin to cross the sea.
(viii) The Sepoys were were given cartridges coated with the fat of the cows and the pigs. At this the Indian soldiers lost patience and revolted against the British.

Answer 14:
(i) Most of the land was sand, barren mountain, badly cultivated & thinly populated.
considerable portion of the good land remains unfilled for want of labourers.
(ii) Incapable of discharging the demands of their rapacious lords the peasants are deprived of the means of subsistence-their land. So they abandon them.
(iii) The absence of private property in land which remained in the hands of landlords. Landlords could not pass on their land to their children. The serfs who tilled the land could not produce much.

Answer 15:
1. A separate electorate meant that in certain constituencies seats were reserved only for members of a particular community or religion.
2. The demand was made to protect the rights of the minorities. It was felt that this was possible only if the minorities were properly represented within the political system, their voices be heard and view taken into account.
3. He felt that it would permanently isolate the minorities, make them vulnerable and deprive them of any effective role within the government.

Answer 16:
(i) Two types of quems have been found-those on which another smaller stone was pushed or rolled to and fro and other with which a second stone was used as a pounder eventually making a large cavity in the nether stone.
(ii) Made of hard, gritty, igneous rock or sand stone. Because they were used to grind species for making curries.
(iii) (a) Saddle – one on which another small stone was pushed or rolled to and fro. Those saddle were used to grind cereals were caller grinding saddle.
(b) If another type of saddle a second stone was used as a pounder. These saddles were used to pound herbs and spices.

Answer 17:

We hope the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Paper 2 help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Paper 2, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology

• Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms
• Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction,in Flowering Plants
• Chapter 3 Human Reproduction
• Chapter 4 Reproductive Health
• Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation
• Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
• Chapter 7 Evolution
• Chapter 8 Human Health and Diseases
• Chapter 9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
• Chapter 10 Microbes in Human Welfare
• Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
• Chapter 12 Biotechnology and Its Applications
• Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations
• Chapter 14 Ecosystem
• Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation
• Chapter 16 Environmental Issues

 

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

These Solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy.

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES

Question 1.
How does democracy produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government ?
Answer:
Democracy produces an accountable, responsive and legitimate government in the ways as mentioned below :

(1) Accountability : In a democracy, decision-making process is based on norms and procedures. A citizen may know about the procedure process followed in the decision-making. It is known as transparency. Thus the government is accountable to the people. The government can develop mechanisms for citizens to hold the government accountable to the people. In India Right to Information is an example of this process. In non-democratic government there is no such accountability. However over all democratic governments do not have a very good record .when it comes to sharing information with citizens. But whatever be the case it can be said that the democratic governments are better than non-democratic regimes.

(2) Responsive government : Generally it is expected from a democratic government that it is attentive to the needs and demands of the people and is largely free of corruption. But in practice it is not so. Democracies often frustrate the needs of the people and often ignore the demands of a majority of its population. So it is not fully responsive. There are cases of corruption in democratic countries. At the same time, there is nothing to show that non- democratic government are less corrupt or more sensitive to the people.

(3) Legitimate government : In this respect democracy is better than other non-democratic governments. It is people’s own government. People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them. They also believe that democracy is suitable for their country.

Thus there is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world. In addition to this democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot he ignored.

Question 2.
What are the conditions under which democracies accommodate social diversities ?
Answer:
Democracies accommodate social diversities in the ways as mentioned below :

1. Democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct their competition. The Belgian leaders recognised the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities. For example, the constitution prescribes the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central government as well as Brussel’s government.
2. Differences must be respected and there should be mechanism to negotiate differences. Democracy is best suited to reduce this outcome. Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is possible only in democracies. But for this democracy must fulfill two conditions as mentioned below :
3. The majority always needs to work with the minority so that governments function to represent the general view.
4. Rule by majority should not become rule by majority community in terms of religion, or race or linguistic group. Democracy remains democracy only as long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time.

Question 3.
Give arguments to support or oppose the following assertions :
(a) Industrialised countries can afford democracy but the poor need dictatorship to become rich.
(b) Democracy can’t reduce inequality of incomes between different citizens.
(c) Government in poor countries should spend less on poverty reduction, health, education and spend more on industries and infrastructure.
(d) In democracy, all citizens have one vote, which means that there is absence of any domination and conflict.
Answer:
(a) It is not correct.

• No doubt, a lot of expenditure is incurred on elections in a democracy but regular, fair and free elections make democracy a popular form of government.
• Again to say that poor need dictatorship to become rich is not correct. For example, in African countries, where military dictatorships have been established, the poor have not become rich.
• In Pakistan and Bangladesh too, the condition of the poor is far from satisfactory.
• A poor country can be a democratic country such as India where democracy has been successful since its independence.

(b) It is correct to state that democracy cannot reduce inequality of incomes between different citizens. Democracy provides political equality e., right to vote and other rights but ultra-rich people enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. Not only this their share in the total income of the country has been increasing. On the other hand poor are becoming poorer and they find it difficult to meet their basic needs of life i.e., food, clothing and shelter etc.

Thus in actual life the democracies have not been successful in reducing economic in­equalities. For example in India, the poor constitute a large population of our voters and no party will like to lose their votes. Yet democratically elected governments do not address the question of poverty satisfactorily. The result is that in some countries the situation is very bad. For example in Bangladesh, more than half of its population lives in poverty. People in several poor countries are now dependent on the rich countries even for food supplies.

(c) I do not agree with the view that the government in poor countries should spend less on poverty reduction, health, education and spend more on industries and infrastructure. The governments should spend more on poverty reduction, health and education due to the reasons as mentioned below :

1. The poverty eradication programmes help the poor directly. For example poverty alleviation programmes such as NREGA help them directly.
2. The opening of health centers will enable the poor to get health facilities in their localities. A healthy person can earn more and thus, in turn, will improve their standard of living.
3. Education too will improve the condition of the poor. An educated person i.e., engineer, doctor, lawyer, IT professional not only can earn more but also help in improving the economy of the country.
4. On the other hand if more money is spent on industries and infrastructure, it may help the industrialists more than the poor.

(d) It is correct to say that in democracy, all citizens have one vote, which means that there is absence of any domination and conflict. In democracy under universal adult franchise all citizens have right to vote without any discrimination on account of caste, creed and religion. In elections number is important. A candidate who secures maximum votes, gets elected. Rich or poor who ever has voted for him does not matter. Thus, there is no domination of upper class voters over the lower class voters.

Question 4.
Identify the challenges to democracy in the following descriptions. Also suggest policy/institutional mechanism to deepen democracy in the given situations :
(a) Following a High Court directive a temple in Orissa that had separate entry doors for dalits and non-dalits allowed entry for all from the same door.
(b) A large number of farmers are committing suicide in different states of India.
(c) Following allegation of killing of three civilians in Gandwara in a fake encounter by Jammu and Kashmir police, an enquiry has been ordered.
Ans.
(a) Generally, we find in a democracy various social divisions based on caste which lead to tensions. The present challenge relates to social diversity. The High Court has ordered entry for all from the same door instead of having separate doors for dalits and non-dalits earlier. To deepen democracy there should be law banning discrimination on account of caste, religion or other factors.

(b) There is a challenge of poverty. A large number of farmers are committing suicide in different states of India due to the following factors :    

1. Unable to pay loan that has been taken by them due to bad harvest due to lack of rain or irrigation facilities.
2. Non-availability of government help at the time of necessity.
   In such situation, the government should set up an organisation to look after the interests of the farmers. They should be given financial help or loans at nominal rate of interest. Irrigation and other facilities should be provided to them.

(c) Dignity and freedom of the citizens has been challenged in the present case. Generally, cases of fake encounters are reported in the newspapers. In a democracy such incidents should not take place because the passion for respect and freedom are the basis of a democracy. All individuals are equal.
To avoid such fake encounters there should be transparency in the working of the government departments including police department. The culprits should be punished even if they occupy a higher post in any government department.

Question 5.
In the context of democracies, which of the following ideas is correct – democracies have successfully eliminated :
A. conflicts among people.
B. economic inequalities among people.
C. differences of opinion about how marginalised sections are to be treated
D. the idea of political inequality
Answer:
(D) the idea of political inequality.

Question 6.
In the context of assessing democracy which among the following is odd one out. Democracies need to ensure :
A. free and fair elections.
B. dignity of the individual,
C. majority rule.
D. equal treatment before law.
Answer:
(D) equal treatment before law.

Question 7.
Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy show that
A. democracy and development go together.
B. inequalities exist in democracies.
C. inequalities do not exist under dictatorship.
D. dictatorship is better than democracy.
Answer:
(B) inequalities exist in democracies.

Question 8.
Read the passage below :

Nannu is a daily wage earner. He lives in Welcome Mazdoor Colony, a slum habitation in East Delhi. He lost his ration card and applied for a duplicate one in January 2004. He made several rounds to the local Food and Civil Supplies office for the next three months. But the clerks and officials would not even look at him, leave alone do his job or bother to tell him the status of his application. Ultimately, he filed an application under the Right to Information Act asking for the daily progress made on his application, names of the officials, who were supposed to act on his application and what action would be taken against these officials for their inaction. Within a week of filing application under the Right to Information Act, he was visited by an inspector from the Food Department, who informed him that the card had been made and he could collect it from the office. When Nannu went to collect his card next day, he was given a very warm treatment by the Food and Supply Officer (FSO), who is the head of a Circle. The FSO offered him tea and requested him to withdraw his application under the Right to Information, since his work had already been done.

What does Nannu’s example show ? What impact did Nannu’s action have on officials ? Ask your parents their experiences when they approach government officials to attend to their problems.
Ans.
(a) Nannu’s example shows that ordinary people should be aware of their rights. They should exercise those rights without any fear as has been done by Nannu.

(b) Nannu’s action has a significant effect on the officials who not only made his ration card but also offered him a cup of tea at the office of the Food and Supply Officer. He was given proper respect. However, the Food and Supply Officer requested him to withdraw his application because his ration card had been prepared.

(c) Generally, the government officials do not bother about the requests of the poor and disadvantaged people. Such people as Nannu go on visiting government offices without any success. Their problems are not solved. But now with the introduction of Right to Information, things would change. There will be more efficiency and transparency in the functioning of the government departments.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 11 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into four sections-Section A, B, C and D.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks. Answer to this question should not exceed 150-200 words.
• Section-C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
• Section-D: Question no. 10 is map based, carrying 2 marks.
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
  provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe the role of Dr BR Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly of India.
Answer:
Role of Dr BR Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly of India was

• He served as Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
• He plead for the abolition of untouchability and asked for equal rights. For minorities upliftment he submitted state and minorities document.
• He held the key figure due to his interventions and speeches in the assembly.

Question 2.
Critically analyse the Fifth Report which was submitted to the British Parliament in 1813.
Or
Examine the policies adopted by the British towards Paharias during 18th century.
Answer:
The Fifth Report of 1813 was the fifth series of report on the administration and activities of the East India Company in India. It ran into 1002 pages of which over 800 pages were appendices that reproduced petitions of zamindars and riots, reports of collectors and districts. It contained information on Company’s misrule and maladministration.

Many British traders wanted a share in Company’s trade in India and emphasised for openness for British manufacturers in India. It opposed the monopoly enjoyed by East India Company over trade with India and China. As a result, British Parliament passed several acts to regulate Company rule in India.
Or
Following are the policies adopted by the British towards Paharias during 18th century.

• British adopted policy of extermination.
• Augustus Cleveland proposed policy of pacification with Paharia chiefs to ensure proper conduct. Paharia went into mountains and deep forests and continued their war against outsiders.
• Many Paharia chiefs who accepted allowances came to be perceived as subordinate employees or stipendiary chiefs so they lost their authority within the community. Chiefs who accepted British allowances were seen as stripendiary chiefs of colonial government.

Question 3.
‘Rumours and prophecies played a part in moving people to action.’ Explain the statement in the context of the Revolt of 1857. (3)
Answer:
In the Revolt of 1857, rumours and prophecies played a major role in firing up the revolt. There was a rumour that the new cartridges were greased with the fat of cows and pigs which would pollute their castes and religion. There were rumours that British had mixed the bone dust of cows and pigs into the flour that was sold in the market.

There was fear and suspicion that the British wanted to convert Indians to Christianity.
The response to the call for action was reinforced by the prophecy that British rule would come to an end on the centenary of the Battle of Plassey, on 23rd June, 1857.

Question 4.
Why have many scholars written the months after Independence as being Gandhiji’s finest hours? Explain. (3)
Answer:
The scholars described the month after Independence being Gandhiji’s ‘finest hour’ keeping the following events in consideration

(i) Gandhiji did not attended any function or hoist a flag either at the day of Independence, instead he marked a day with 24 hour fast. He kept himself isolated from the celebrations as he believed that freedom has come at an unacceptable price, country has been divided and due to communalism, two religious communities of India are seeking life of each others.

(ii) After attainment of Independence, Gandhiji kept himself away from the political work and engagements. He focussed on pacifying people, went around hospitals and refugee camps and giving consolation to distressed people.

(iii) He was serving the humanity, tried to reduce the sufferings of displaced people with hands of empathy.

Section – B
Long Answer Type Questions

Question 5.
Describe the role of any six prominent leaders of Northern India who fought against the British in the Revolt of 1857. (6)
Answer:
Role of prominent leaders in the Revolt of 1857 was

• In Kanpur, Nana Sahib, the successor of Peshwa Baji Rao II became the leader of the revolt.
• In Jhansi, Rani Lakshmi Bai assumed the leadership of the uprising.
• In Arrah in Bihar, Kunwar Singh, a local zamindar became leader under popular pressure.
• In Lucknow, Blrjis Qadr, the young son of nawab Wajid Ali Shah became the leader of the revolt against the annexation of the state.
• Gonoo, a tribal cultivator of Singhbhum in Chotanagpur, became a rebel leader of the Kol tribals of the region.
• From Barrack pore, Mangal Pandey emerged as leader by killing one of the European officers.

Question 6.
Quit India movement was genuinely a mass movement bringing into its ambit hundreds of thousands of ordinary Indians. Elucidate the statement with suitable examples. (6)
Or
‘Gandhiji had mobilised a wider discontentment against the British rule in the Salt Satyagraha/ Elucidate the statement with suitable examples.
Answer:
After the failure of the Cripps Mission, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch his third major movement the ‘Quit India’ campaign which began in August 1942. The ‘Quit India Movement’ against the British rule was a Mass Movement, bringing into its ambit hundreds or thousands of ordinary Indians. For example,

(i) It especially energised the young who in very large numbers left their colleges to join the Congress leaders languishing in jails. Gandhiji was jailed at once while organising the movment, but the young activists organised strikes and acts of sabotage all over the country.

(ii) There were socialist members of the Congress such as Jaya Frakash Narayan who were active in the underground resistance. Social activists organised strikes and protests.

(iii) Independent governments were proclaimed in several districts such as Satara in the West and Medinipur in the East.

(iv) Attacks were organised on government buildings or any other visible symbol of colonial authority.

(v) Women across the country participated in the Quit India Movement. Great sense of unity and brotherhood emerged due to Quit India Movement.
Or
Gandhiji mobilised a wider discontentment against the British rule in the Salt Satyagraha in the following ways

(i) Gandhiji announced a march to break the Salt Law. Salt law gave the state a monopoly in the manufacture and sale of salt. The state monopoly on salt was deeply unpopular as in every Indian household salt was indispensable and the people were forbidden for making salt even for domestic use.

(ii) Gandhiji started Dandi March and once he reached Dandi, he broke the Salt Law. Parallel Salt Marches were organised in other parts of the country.

(iii) Peasants breached the colonial forest laws which restricted their access to forests and factory owners went on strike.

(iv) Lawyers boycotted British courts and students refused to attend educational Institutions and schools run by government.

(v) Gandhiji made a plea to the upper caste to serve untouchables. Hindus, Muslims, Parsees and Sikhs were told to unite. Thousands of volunteers joined for the cause and women participated in large number.

(vi) Dandi March brought Gandhi to world attention. The March was covered by European and American press. Salt march made British realised that they would have to devolve some powers to Indians.

Question 7.
‘Abul Fazl describes the ideal of Sulh- i -Kul (absolute peace) as the cornerstone of Akbar enlightened rule/ Support the statement with few examples. (6)
Or
‘The officer corps of the Mughals were described as bouquet of flowers held together by loyalty to the emperor/ Justify the statements with suitable arguments. (6)
Answer:
Abul Fazl describe the ideal of Sulh-i-Kul as the cornerstone of Akbar enlightened rule. For example, according to this
(i) Different ethnic and religious communities had freedom of expression but on condition that they did not undermine the authority of the state or fight among themselves.

(ii) The nobility was comprised of Iranis, Turanis, Afghans, Rajputs, Deccanis, etc who were given positions and awards based on merit and services.

(iii) Akbar abolished the tax on pilgrimage /Jjizya. He gave grants to support and maintain religious buildings.

(iv) Akbar celebrated festivals like Id, Shab-i-barat and Holi.

(v) Akbar invited Jesuit mission for religious discussions.

(vi) Akbar formulated governance guidelines by using such a policy of tolerance, based on system of ethics.
Or
The Mughal nobility or officer corps was comprised of Iranis, Turanis, Afghans,Rajputs, Deccanis, etc. They were the main pillars of Mughal state. They was chosen from different groups, both religiously and ethnicity to ensure a balance of power between the various groups. They were described as guldasta or a bouquet of flowers in the official chronicles.

It signified their unity, held together by loyalty towards the Mughal emperor. All nobles were ranked or were allotted mansabs comprising of zat and sawar. The nobles were also required to perform military service for the emperor.

Akbar who designed the mansab system, also established spiritual relationships with selected band of his nobility by treating them as his disciples. For members of nobility imperial service was a way of acquiring power, wealth and highest possible reputation in Mughal court.

Section – C
Source Based Questions

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
The Flight of the Written Word
In Abu’l Fazl’s words:

The written word may embody the wisdom of bygone ages and may become a means to intellectual progress. The spoken word goes to the heart of those who are present to hear it. The written word gives wisdom to those who are near and far.

If it was: not for the written word, the spoken word would soon die, and no keepsake would be left us from those who are passed away. Superficial observers see in the letter a dark figure,but the deep sighted see in it a lamp of wisdom (chirag-i shinasai).

The written word looks black, not with standing the thousand rays within it, or it is a light with a mole on it that wards off the evil eye. A letter (khat) is the portrait of wisdom, a rough sketch from the realm of ideas, a dark light ushering in day, a black cloud pregnant with knowledge, speaking though dumb, stationary yet travelling; stretched on the sheet, and yet soaring upwards.
(i) Why were words considered as the lamp of wisdom? (1)
(ii) How has Abu’l Fazl related words with knowledge? (1)
(iii) How did Abu’l Fazl refer difference between a ‘common viewer’s observation’ and the ‘observation of a learned person? (2)
Answer:
(i) Words were considered as the lamp of wisdom because according to Abu’l Fazl, the spirit for rational thinking comes from the words.

(ii) Abu’l Fazl related words with knowledge because words have the power to shape and articulate ideas which in turn helps in enhancing knowledge.

(iii) According Abu’l Fazl, learned persons can put down their ideas in distinctive forms. They observes things minutely and with vast vision and can express the same with the power of words. These traits are not present in common viewers.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow.
“There cannot be any divided loyalty”
Govind Ballabh Pant argued that in order to become loyal citizens people had to stop focusing only on the community and the self.

For the success of democracy one must train himself in the art of self-discipline. In democracies one should care less for himself and more for others. There cannot be any divided loyalty. All loyalties must exclusively be centred round the State.

If in a democracy, you create rival loyalties, or you create a system in which any individual or group, instead of suppressing his extravagance, cares nought for larger or other interests, then democracy is doomed.
(i) How did GB Pant encourage citizens to make a unified nation? (1)
(ii) Why did he urge citizens for loyalty towards nation? (1)
(iii) How was loyalty considered as the base of social pyramid? (2)
Answer:
(i) GB Pant encourage citizens to make a unified nation by promoting his view that one should care less for himself and more for nation to make it strong and unified.

(ii) GB Pant urge citizens for loyalty towards nation to make nation successful. According to him, individual should care less for personal gain and focus more on collective benefit and for the development of nation in all perspectives.

(iii) Loyalty was considered as the base of social pyramid in the following ways

• Loyalty is required for the success of democracy. It rival loyalties are created,then it will promote individual interests and harm interests of other people. This led to democracy becoming unsuccessful.
• Loyalty promotes people centric benefits instead of individual centric.

Section – C
Map Based Question

Question 10.
(i) On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any one of the following with appropriate symbol.
(a) The place where Gandhiji withdrew Non-Cooperation Movement (1)
Or
(b) (i) The place where Gandhiji started satyagraha for the indigo planters (1)
(ii) On the same outline map of India, a place related to the centres of the Revolt of 1857 is marked as A. Identify it and write its name on the line drawn near them, (1)

Answer:

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The question paper has three sections as A,B and C.
• Section A has 8 questions of 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 50 words each.
• Section B has 3 questions of 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 100 words each. Answer of map question should be attempted accordingly.
• Section C has 2 question of 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 170 words each.

Section A

Question 1.
Discuss the importance of SAARC. (2)
Or
What are the significance of SAARC for India?
Answer:
SAARC comprises 3% of the world’s area, 21% of the world’s population and 3.8% of the global economy.

Creating Synergies: It is the world’s most densely populated region and one of the most fertile areas. SAARC countries have common tradition, dress, food and culture and political aspects thereby synergising their actions. SAARC has initiated SAFTA to free trade zones for whole South Asia for collective economic activity.

Common Solutions: All SAARC countries have common problems and issues like poverty, illiteracy, malnutrition, natural disasters, internal conflicts, industrial and technological backwardness, low GDP and poor socio-economic condition.

These countries uplift their living standards thereby creating common areas of development and progress having common solutions.
Or
The significance of SAARC for India is discussed below

• Economic Integration India’s Look East Policy links South Asian economies with South-East Asia will bring further economic integration and prosperity to India mainly in the Service sector.
• Geostrategic Significance It can counter China through engaging Nepal, Bhutan, the Maldives and Sri Lanka in development process and economic cooperation.
• Regional Stability SAARC can help in creation of mutual trust and peace within the region.
• Global Leadership Role It offers India a platform to showcase its leadership in the region by taking up extra responsibilities.

Question 2.
Discuss the negative impact of globalisation. (2)
Answer:
The negative impacts of globalisation are as follows

• Globalisation has not generated much more employment opportunities because it needs highly skilled people only.
• The foreign companies focus on their profit orientation projects only in place of social welfare.
• It has widened income disparities by making the rich richer and the poor more poorer.
• Gradually, globalisation is also a reason for depletion of flora and fauna in country.
• Even farmers are supposed to be well educated if they want to use modem methods of cultivation.

Question 3.
What were the two main consequences of Indo-Pak Conflict of 1971? (2)
Answer:
The consequence of Indo-Pakistan conflict of 1971 are:

• Eastern command of Pakistan military collapsed and East Pakistan was recognised as Bangladesh.
• Over 93000 Pakistani Pakistani troops surrendered to the India forces making the largest surrender since second World War.

Question 4.
Give four reasons why globalisation is being resisted. (2)
Answer:
Globalisation means the flows of ideas, capital, commodities and people across different parts of the world. It is a multidimensional concept. It has political, economic and cultural manifestations and these must be adequately distinguished.
The four reasons due to which globalisation is resisted are

• Leftist parties argue that contemporary globalisation represents a global capitalism that makes the rich richer and the poor poorer.
• Weakening of the state leads to a reduction in the capacity of the state to protect the interest of its poor.
• Rightist parties express anxiety over the political economic and cultural effects.
• The cultural globalisation would harm age old values of people while harming their traditional culture.

Question 5.
Describe briefly about Naxalite Movement. (2)
Answer:
In 1967 a peasant uprising took place in the Naxalbari police station area of Darjeeling Hills district in West Bengal under the leadership of the local cadres of the Communist Party of India (Marxist). Beginning from the Naxalbari police station, the peasant movement spread to several states of India and came to be known as the Naxalite Movement.

In 1969, one branch broke off from the CPI (M) and a new party, Communist Party (Marxist-Leninist) (CPI-ML) was formed under the leadership of Charu Majumdar. It argued that democracy in India was pretence and decided to adopt a strategy of protracted guerrilla warfare in order to lead to a revolution.

Question 6.
What effect did the National Emergency have on India’s political system? (2)
Answer:
Under Article 352 of Indian Constitution upon the advice by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed declared a state of emergency. Impact of National Emergency on party system in India are as follows –

(i) After the end of National Emergency, the major opposition parties started coming together on the eve of elections and formed a new party known as the Janta Party.

(ii) The people’s verdict of 1977 elections were decisively against the emergency the Congress lost elections and Janta Party came to power. During this period, the Congress(R) also underwent a major split resulting in the formation of Congress (I). Initially, it appeared that Indian political system is heading towards a ‘two party system’ as Janta Party was considered to be an alternative to the Congress.

(iii) Later there was an emergence of multi-party system or coalition government as against one party system or two-party system.

Question 7.
Describe any four consequences of Bangladesh war of 1971. (2)
Answer:
The consequences of Bangladesh war of 1971 are as follow.

• India supported the demand of East Pakistan financially and militarily.
• The war of 1971 made Pakistani forces to surrender in East Pakistan.
• Bangladesh was formed as an independent country.
• Bangladesh drafted its constitution declaring faith in secularism, democracy and socialism.

Question 8.
Issues have become converging point rather than ideologies in the current era of coalition politics. Discuss? (2)
Answer:
Three features of coalition government has been given in which we have to understand the not aligning and re-aligning on the basis of ideologies. These are Unstable Government The coalition government has its own interest and they fight for their own self interest.

Political Opportunism Government formed on the basis of coalition becomes selfish, as opportunist, power hungry and unscrupulous politicians focus on the self-interest only.
Lack of Polarisation The coalition governments afe formed not on the basis of polarisation of political forces, but for the sake of capturing power and vested interest.

Section B

Question 9.
How are coalition governments more democratic than one-party governments? (4)
Answer:
When two or more parties join hands together to form a government is known as coalition government, e.g UP A, NDA, etc. Benefits of coalition government are as follows

Dominance of one party is minimised, this will lead to more democratic way of functioning. The government cannot just pass a bill without debate as it is happening in the current Lok Sabha.

More than one ideology come together and gives strength to democracy i.e., the government will have to listen to all other parties and try to fulfill their requirement as much as possible so that other section of society does not leave untouched.

Drawbacks of coalition government are as follows

It gives unstable government i.e., the government cannot function smoothly because it has a support of other parties due to this government cannot take bold decision for the welfare of society and nation.

It slows the process of policy-making. It means it is hard for the government to fulfill everyone wishes which result in delay in the policy making.

Question 10.
There are numerous issues between India and Pakistan. Discuss any three controversies. (4)
Answer:
The three issues of conflict between India and Pakistan are discussed below
(i) There was a dispute over Kashmir immediately after the partition in 1948 between India and Pakistan. Both the governments continue to be suspicious of each other. The Indian Government has blamed the Pakistan Government for using a strategy of low key violence by helping the Kashmiri militants with arms, training, money and protection to carry out terrorist strikes against India.

(ii) India’s conflict with Pakistan is also over the strategic issues like the control of the Siachen Glacier and over acquisition of arms. The arms race between the two countries assumed a new character with both states acquiring nuclear weapons and missiles to deliver such arms against each other in the 1990s.

(iii) India and Pakistan also had problems over the sharing of river water. Until 1960, they were locked in fierce argument over the use of the rivers of the Indus Basin. Eventually, in 1960, with the help of World Bank, India and Pakistan signed the Indus Water Treaty which has survived to this day inspite of various military conflicts in which two countries have been involved. There are still some minor issues about the interpretation of Indus Water Treaty and the use of the river water.

Question 11.
In the given political outline map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B),(C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and give their correct names along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following format. (4)

Sr. No. of the Information Used	Alphabet Concerned	Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

(i) State to which the Nizam belonged to.
(ii) State which is related to article 370 of the Indian constitution.
(iii) State where the operation blue star was launched.
(iv) State from where the J.P. Narayan demanded the dismissal of congress govt.
Answer:

Sr. Number of the information used	Alphabet concerned	Name of the State
(i)	B	Hyderabad
(ii)	A	Jammu and Kashmir
(iii)	D	Punjab
(iv)	E	Bihar

Section C

Question 12.
Identify four elements that contributed to the Congress Party’s dominance in India from 1947 to 1967. (6)
Or
What is meant by opposition in a democratic system? Describe activities of the opposition during the first two Parliaments of 1952 and 1957.
Answer:
The Congress Party succeed in maintaining its dominance till 1967 due to the following reasons

(i) The Congress Party was supported by elites, educated business classes and middle classes people. It also got support from peasants because of its socialist nature.

(ii) It had many popular faces like Jawaharlal Nehru, C. Rajagopalachari, Vallabhbhai Patel,etc. Moreover, Jawaharlal Nehru was charismatic and a very popular leader.

(iii) Congress worked at upper level as well as at grass root level. Congress was popularised due to the participation in Civil Disobedience Movement.

(iv) During period of Nehru Ji, Congress attained mass popularity, but the powerful narrow elite of Congress continued to benefit from the low level of political consciousness of the electorate.

(v) The traditional loyalities made Congress, a one-party dominance.
Or
At the time of Independence, there were many opposition parties and after independence it increased, but it gained only token representation in the Lok Sabha and also in state assemblies. Yet their presence Played a crucial role in maintaining the democratic character of the system. The four activities of the opposition during the Parliament of 1952 and 1957 are as follows

(i) These opposition parties offered sustained and principled criticism of the policies and practices of the Congress Party. This phenomena indicated the check and balance of power of the Congress.

(ii) In 1957, in Kerala, Congress was defeated by CPI and made government, but after that Congress dismissed the Kerala Government under Article 356. It was criticised by the opposition leaders and said that it was the first instance of the misuse of constitutional emergency powers.

(iii) In 1950, Bhartiya Jansangh was able to secure 3 seats and in 1957, it secured 4 seats. The party played the role of opposition and started agitation to replace English with Hindi as the official language and also advocated for the development of nuclear weapons.

(iv) The opposition parties prevented the resentment with the system from turning anti-democratic. These parties also groomed the leaders (young citizens) who wanted to shape the India as developed and powerful state.

Question 13.
Explain the factors responsible for the rise of the Chinese economy. (6)
Or
Analyse the basis of projection of China to overtake the US as the world’s largest economy by 2040.
Answer:
China is the third major alternative centre of power. It is the fastest growing economy. China at one time was based on Soviet model and at that time, it broke all the links with capitalist world.

Following are the factors responsible for rise of Chinese economy Use of Soviet Model China accepted the Soviet model aind relied on its resources. China decided to substitute imports by domestic goods and create state owned heavy industries from capital produced by agriculture.

Development of Industrial Economy China used all its resources to develop an industrial economy. All citizens were provided education and health programmes.  Relationship With USA China established relation with USA in 1972.

Modernisation Modernisation in field of agriculture, industry, military, science and technology were proposed. Major Policies Announced Open Door Policy was announced by Deng Xiaoping in 1978, which aimed at generation of high productivity by investments in capital and technology from abroad.

Era of Privatisation Privatisation of agriculture in 1982 and privatisation of industry in 1998 was done. Establishment of SEZ’s Special Economic Zones were set up. State had a centralised role in setting up of China’s economy.
Or
China is viewed to dominate US by the year 2040. The basis of the projection are

(i) China is considered as the driver of East-Asian growth because of the economic integration into regions. China is considered to be very powerful and factors such as population, landmass, resources, regional location and political influence adds to its strength.

(ii) China announced ‘Open Door Policy’ in 1978 which aimed at generation of high productivity by investments in capital and technology from abroad. In economic sector, various steps were taken to encourage investment by Western entrepreneurs for modernisation of industry, science and technology, agriculture and military. In 1980, China became the member of World Bank and International Monetary Fund.

(iii) Privatisation of agriculture and industry helped in growing economy rapidly.

(iv) Foreign trade grew with the creation of SEZs and new trading laws. This resulted in high foreign exchange reserves. In this way, China became most significant for FDI. The above points show China’s ability to overtake US as world’s largest economy by 2040.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 10 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physics Standard Term 2 Set 10 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• There are 12 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
• This question paper has three sections: Section A, Section B and Section C.
• Section A contains three questions of two marks each, Section B contains eight questions of three marks each, Section C contains one case study-based question of five marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question of two marks and two questions of three marks. You have to attempt only one of the chokes in such questions.
• You may use log tables if necessary but use of calculator is not allowed.

SECTION – A
(Section A contains 3 questions of 2 marks each.)

Question 1.
Clarify the difference between Rutherford’s atomic model and Bohr’s atomic model justify your answer.
OR
What characteristic property of nuclear force explains the constancy of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) in the range of mass number ‘A’ lying 30 < A < 170? (2)

Question 2.
How is interference different from diffraction in terms of sources and intensity? (2)

Question 3.
How are solids are differed if we compare them on the basis of their values of electrical conductivity or resistivity? (2)

SECTION – B
(Section B consists of 8 questions of 3 marks each.)

Question 4.
The frequency band of a radio station is 6 MHz to 8 MHz. What is corresponding wavelength band? (3)

Question 5.
(A) de-Broglie wavelength associated with
macroscopic objects (car, cricket ball etc.) cannot be observed in daily life. Why?
(B) The wavelength of light from the spectral emission line of sodium is 590 nm. Find the kinetic energy at which the electron would have the same de Broglie wavelength. (3)
OR
(A) Name the series in hydrogen spectrum whose few lines lies in the visible region.
(B) Calculate the orbital period of the electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom. (2)

Question 6.
Explain the formation of depletion layer and potential barrier in p-n junction. (3)

Question 7.
State the difference between Interference and Diffraction. (3)

Question 8.
(A) What is refraction?
(B) An 2 cm tall object is placed on the axis of a convex lens of focal length 5 cm at a distance of 10 m from the optical center of the lens. Find the nature, position and size of the image formed. Which case of image formation by convex lenses is illustrated by this example?

Question 9.
Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and point out any two characteristic properties of photons on which this equation is based. Briefly explain the three observed features which can be explained by this equation. (3)

Question 10.
Differentiate between n-type semiconduc¬tors and p type semiconductors. (3)

Question 11.
(A) What is the use of erecting lens in a terrestrial telescope? What is its magnification?
(B) The focal length of objective and eyepiece of an astronomical telescope are 20 cm and 5 cm respectively. If the final image is formed at a distance of 30 cm from the eye piece, then find the magnifying power of telescope? (3)
OR
(A) A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65. What is the nature of the lens?
(B) A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed coaxially in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. Determine the power of the combination.

SECTION – C
(Section C consists one case study-based question of 5 marks)

Question 12.
You can see the single slit diffraction pattern easily by using just a pair of blades and one clear glass electric bulb. In order to observe the diffraction, you have to hold the blades so that the edges are parallel and hence have a narrow slit between them. By keeping the slit parallel to the filament, right in front of the eye, you will be able to see a pattern. The filament plays the role of the first slit S.

(A) A slit of width a is illuminated by white light. For red light (λ = 6500 Å). The first minima is obtained at θ = 30°. Then the value of a will be:
(i) 3250 Å
(ii) 6.5 × 10^-4 mm
(iii) 1.24 microns
(iv) 2.6 × 10^-4 cm

(B) A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is:
(i) 1.2 cm
(ii) 1.2 mm
(iii) 2.4 cm
(iv) 2.4 mm

(C) The width of the diffraction band varies:
(i) Inversely as the wavelength
(ii) Directly as the width of the slit
(iii) Directly as the distance between the slit and the screen
(iv) Inversely as the size of the source from which the slit is illuminated.

(D) While both light and sound show wave character, diffraction is much harder to observe in light. This is because:
(i) Wavelength of light is far smaller
(ii) Waves of light are transverse
(iii) Speed of light is far greater
(iv) Light does not require any medium

(E) In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width a, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of:
(i) sin^-1 (\(\frac{1}{2}\))
(ii) sin^-1 (\(\frac{3}{4}\))
(iii) sin^-1 (\(\frac{1}{4}\))
(iv) sin’^-1 (\(\frac{2}{3}\))