Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Important Extra Questions Chemistry Chapter 4

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Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Important Extra Questions Chemical Kinetics

Chemical Kinetics Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Define rate of a reaction. (CBSE Delhi 2010)
Answer:
The rate of a reaction is the change of concentration in any one of the reactants or products per unit time.

Question 2.
Define order of a reaction. (CBSE Delhi 2010, CBSE 2011)
Answer:
The sum of the powers of the concentration terms of the reactants in the rate law expression is called the order of that chemical reaction. For example, if rate law expression is
rate = K[A]p[B]q[C]r
Order of reaction = p + q + r

Question 3.
For a chemical reaction R → P, the variation in the concentration (R) vs. time (t) plot is given as
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 1
(i) Predict the order of the reaction.
(ii) What is the slope of the curve? (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
(i) Zero order reaction
(ii) Slope = – k

Question 4.
Define ‘activation energy’ of a reaction. (CBSE Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Activation energy is the minimum energy that the reactants must possess for the conversion into the products during their collisions.
It is equal to difference between the threshold energy needed for the reaction and the average kinetic energy of the molecules.

Question 5.
Identify the order of a reaction if the units of its rate constant are:
(i) L-1 mol s-1
(ii) L mol-1 s-1 (CBSE All India 2011)
Answer:
(i) Zero order
(ii) Second order

Question 6.
For a reaction: A + B → P, the rate law is given by, r = k [A]1/2 [B]2 .
What is the order of reaction? (CBSE All India 2013)
Answer:
Order = \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 2 = 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) or 2.5.

Question 7.
In the Arrhenius equation, what does the factor e-E0/RT correspond to?
(CBSE Sample Paper 2017-18)
Answer:
e-E0/RT corresponds to the fraction of molecules having kinetic energy greater than Ea.

Chemical Kinetics Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
For a reaction,
C2H4(g) + H2(g) → C2H6(g),
rate = 5.5 × 10-14 [C2H4].
(a) Write the unit of rate constant.
(b) Calculate its half-life (t1/2). (CBSE 2019)
Answer:
(a) Hydrogenation of ethene is an example of first order reaction so the unit of rate constant is s-1 or time-1.

(b) t1/2 = \(\frac{0.693}{k}=\frac{0.693}{5.5 \times 10^{-14}}\)
= 1.26 × 1013s
(or any other unit of time)

Question 2.
For a reaction
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 2
The proposed mechanism is as given below:
(1) H2O2 + I → H2O + IO (slow)
(2) H2O2 + IO → H2O + I + O2 (fast)
(i) Write rate law for the reaction.
(ii) Write the overall order of reaction.
(iii) Out of steps (1) and (2), which one is rate-determining step? (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
(i) Rate = k[H2O2][I]
(ii) 2
(iii) Step 1 is rate determining.

Question 3.
A reaction is of first order in reactant A and of second order in reactant B. How is the rate of this reaction affected when
(i) the concentration of B alone is increased to three times?
(ii) the concentrations of A as well as B are doubled? (CBSE Delhi 2010)
Answer:
The rate law may be expressed as:
Rate = k[A] [B]2
(i) Rate becomes nine times
(ii) Rate becomes eight times.

Question 4.
What do you understand by the rate law and rate constant of a reaction? Identify the order of reaction if the units of its rate constant are:
(i) L-1 mol s-1
(ii) L mol-1 s-1 (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Rate law is the representation of rate of reaction in terms of concentration of the reactants.
Rate constant is the rate of reaction when the concentration of reactants is unity. Order of reaction from rate constants
(i) Zero order
(ii) Second order

Question 5.
A reaction is of second order with respect to a reactant. How is the rate of reaction affected if the concentration of the reactant is reduced to half? What is the unit of rate constant for such a reaction? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
For a second order reaction,
rate = K[A]2
If the concentration of A is reduced to half, rate will become 1 /4 of the original value.
Units of k.
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 3

Question 6.
Distinguish between rate expression and rate constant of a reaction. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Rate expression is a mathematical expression which denotes the rate of a reaction in terms of molar concentration of reactants.

Rate constant is the rate of the reaction when the concentration of reactants is unity. It is proportionality constant in the rate law and is independent of initial concentrations of the reactants.

Question 7.
What do you understand by the ‘order of reaction’? Identify the reaction order from each of the following units of reaction rate constant:
(i) L-1 mol s-1
(ii) L mol-1 s-1 (CBSE Delhi 2012)
Answer:
The sum of the powers of the concentrations of reactants in the rate law expression is called order of a reaction. For example, if rate law expression for a reaction is:
rate = K[A]a[B]a[C]c
then order = a + b + c
(i) Zero order
(ii) Second order

Question 8.
(i) For a reaction A + B → P, the rate law is given by,
r = k[A]1/2 [B]2
What is the order of this reaction?
(ii) A first order reaction is found to have a rate constant k = 5.5 × 10-14 s-1. Find the half life of the reaction. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
(i) Order of reaction 1
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 2 = 2.5

(ii) t1/2 = \(\frac{0.693}{k}=\frac{0.693}{5.5 \times 10^{-14}}\)
= 1.26 × 1013s

Question 9.
Write two differences between ‘order of reaction’ and ‘molecularity of reaction. (CBSE Delhi 2014)
Answer:

Order Molecularity
1. Order is the sum of the powers of the concentration terms in the rate law expression. 1. Molecularity is the number of reacting species undergoing simultaneous collisions in the elementary or simple reaction.
2. Order of a reaction is determined experimentally and need not be a whole number, i.e. it can have fractional values also. 2. Molecularity is a theoretical concept and has whole number values only, i.e. 1, 2, 3, etc.

Question 10.
The rate constant for a reaction of zero order in A is 0.0030 mol L-1s-1. How long will it take for the initial concentration of A to fall from 0.10 M to 0.075 M? (CBSE 2010)
Answer:
For a zero order reaction,
k = 0.0030 mol L-1s-1
[A]0 = 0.10 M, [A] = 0.075M
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 4
Answer:

Question 11.
The rate of a reaction depends upon the temperature and is quantitatively expressed as k = \(A e^{-E_{a} / R T}\)
(i) If a graph Is plotted between log k and 1/T, write the expression for the slope of the reaction.
(ii) If at under different conditions, Ea1 and Ea2 are the activation energy of two reactions. If Ea1 = 40 J / mol and Ea2 = 80 J / mol which of the two has a larger value of the rate constant? (CBSE Sample Paper 2019)
Answer:
(ii) Arrhenius proposed a quantitative relationship between rate constant
and temperature as k = \(A e^{-E_{a} / R T}\) Taking logarithm,
In k = In A – \(\frac{E_{a}}{R} \times \frac{1}{T}\)
Converting to common logarithm (In X = 2.303 log X), we get
2.303 log k = 2.303 log A – \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{a}}}{\mathrm{RT}}\).
Dividing each side by 2.303, we get
log k = log A – \(\frac{E_{a}}{2.303 R T}\)
So, it is clear that increasing the temperature or decreasing the activation energy will result in an increase in the rate of reaction.

(i) Slope = – \(\frac{\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{a}}}{2.303 \mathrm{R}}\)
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 5
Plot of log k versus 1/T to calculate activation energy.

(ii) k1 > k2

Question 12.
The rate constant for a first order reaction is 60 s-1. How much time will it take to reduce the concentration of the reactant to 1/10th of its initial value?
Answer:
For a first order reaction,
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 6

Question 13.
Rate constant ‘k’ of a reaction varies with temperature ‘T’ according to the equation:
log k = log A – \(\frac{E_{a}}{2.303 R}\left(\frac{1}{T}\right)\)
where Ea is the activation energy. When a graph is plotted for log k vs. \(\frac{1}{T}\), a straight line with a slope of – 4250 K is obtained. Calculate ‘Ea’ for the reaction (R = 8.314 JK-1mol-1). (CBSE Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Slope = –\(\frac{E_{a}}{2.303 R}\) = -4250K
Ea = – 2.303 × R × Slope
= – 2.303 × 8.314 JK-1 mol-1 × (-4250 K)
= 81375.3 J mol-1 or 81.375 kJ mol-1.

Question 14.
For the reaction
C12H22O11 + H2O → C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
write:
(i) Rate of reaction expression,
(ii) Rate law equation,
(iii) Molecularity,
(iv) Order of reaction (CBSE Sample paper 2011)
Answer:
(i)
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 7
(ii) Rate law equation:
Rate = k[C12H22O11]
(iii) Molecularity = 2
(iv) Order = 1

Question 15.
Consider the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide in alkaline medium which is catalysed by iodide ions.
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 8
This reaction takes place in two steps as given below:
Step -1 H2O2 + I → H2O + IO (slow)
Step – II H2O2 + IO → H2O + I (fast)
(i) Write the rate law expression and determine the order of reaction w.r.t. H2O2.
(ii) What is the molecularity of each individual step? (C8SE Sample paper 2011)
Answer:
(i) Rate = k[H2O2] [I]
Order w.r.t. H2O2 = 1
(ii) Molecularity: Step I = 2, Step II = 2

Question 16.
For a reaction: A + B → P, the rate law is given as: Rate = k[A][B]2
(i) How is the rate of reaction affected when the concentration of B is doubled?
(ii) What is the order of reaction if A is present in large excess? (CBSE All India 2015)
Answer:
(i) Rate becomes four times
(ii) Order = 2

Question 17.
What is the effect of adding a catalyst on
(i) Activation energy (Ea) and
(ii) Gibbs free energy (∆G) of a reaction? (CBSE All India 2017)
Answer:
(i) Activation energy decreases
(ii) No effect on ∆G because Gibbs free energies of products and reactants remain the same in the presence of catalyst.

Question 18.
For a reaction:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 9
Rate = k
(i) Write the order and molecularity of this reaction.
(ii) Write the unit of k. (CBSE Sample paper 2018)
Answer:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 10
Rate = k
(i) Order of reaction: Zero order Molecularity = 2 (bi molecular)
(ii) Unit of k = mol L-1 s-1 or atm s-1

Question 19.
Explain the following terms: (CBSE 2014)
(i) Rate constant (k).
(ii) Half life period of a reaction (t1/2).
Answer:
(i) Rate constant is the rate of the reaction
when the molar concentration of each of the reactants is unity. For example, for a reaction,
A + B → AB
Rate of reaction is
Rate = k[A][B]
where k is the rate constant. When
[A] = 1 and [B] = 1
Rate of reaction = k × 1 × 1 = k
It is also catted specific reaction rate and is independent of the initial concentration of the reactants.

(ii) Half life period of a reaction is the time during which the concentration of a reactant Is reduced to half of its initial concentration. In other words, it is the time during which half of the reaction Is completed. It is denoted as t1/2.

Chemical Kinetics Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Show that time required for 99% completion is twice the time required for the completion of 90% reaction. (CBSE Delhi 2013)
Answer:
For the first order reaction,
t = \(\frac{2.303}{k} \log \frac{[\mathrm{A}]_{0}}{[\mathrm{~A}]}\)
Let initial concentration, [A0] = a
For 99% completion of reaction, [A]
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 11
For 90% completion of reaction,
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 12
Dividing equation (i) by (ii)
\(\frac{t_{(99 \%)}}{t_{(90 \%)}}\) = 2
or t(99%) = 2 × t(90%)

Question 2.
The decomposition of NH3 on platinum surface is zero order reaction. If rate constant (k) Is 4 × 10-3 M s-1, how long will it take to reduce the initial concentration of NH3 from 0.1 M to 0.064 M? (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
k = 4 × 10-3M s-1, [A]0 = 0.1 M, [A] = 0.064 M
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 13

Question 3.
The thermal decomposition of HCO2H is a first order reaction with a rate constant of 2.4 × 10-3 s-1 at a certain temperature. Calculate how long will it take for three fourth of initial quantity of HCO2H to decompose. (log 4 = 0.6021) (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
We know that
t = \(\frac{2.303}{k} \log \frac{[A]_{0}}{[A]}\)
If initial conc. of A is a, then
[A] = a – \(\frac{3}{4}\)a = \(\frac{1}{4}\)a
k = 2.4 × 10-3 s-1
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 14
= \(\frac{2.303}{2.4 \times 10^{-3}}\) × 0.6021 = 578 s

Question 4.
For the reaction:
2N0(g) + Cl2(g) → 2NOCl(g)
the following data were collected. All the measurements were taken at 263 K:

Experiment No. Intial [NO] (M) Intial [Cl2] (M) Intial rate of Cl2 (M/min)
1 0.15 0.15 0.60
2 0.15 0.30 1.20
3 0.30 0.15 2.40
4 0.25 0.25 ?

(i) Write the expression for rate law.
(ii) Calculate the value of rate constant and specify its units.
(iii) What is the initial rate of disappearance of Cl2 In exp. 4? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
(i) Rate = k[NO]2[Cl2]
(ii) According to experiment 1,
[NO] = 0.15 M; [Cl2] = 0.15 M
Rate = 0.6 M/min.
Rate = k[NO]2[Cl2]
0.6 M/min = k(0.15M)2 (0.15 M)
k = 177.8 M-2 min-1
or
= 177.8 mol-2 L2 min-1
Therefore, units of k are M-2 min-1 or mol-2 L2 min-1.

(iii) In experiment 4, [NO] = 0.25 M; [Cl2] = 0.25 M and k = 177.8 M-2 min-1
Rate = k[NO]2 [Cl2]
= 177.8 M-2 min-1 × (0.25 M)2 × 0.25 M
= 2.78 M min-1.

Question 5.
The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of
SO2Cl2 at a constant volume:
SO2Cl2(g) → SO2(g) + Cl2(g)

Experiment Time/s-1 Total Pressure/atm
1 0 0.4
1 100 0.7

Calculate the rate constant.
(Given: log 4 = 0.6021, log 2 = 0.3010) (CBSE Delhi 2014)
Answer:
SO2Cl2 → SO2 + Cl2
At t = 0 s     0.4 atm            0            0
At t = 100 s (0.4 – x) atm   x atm   x atm
Pt = 0.4 – x + x + x = 0.4 + x
0.7 = 0.4 + x      or    x = 0.3
k = \(\frac{2.303}{t}\) log \(\frac{p_{0}}{2 p_{0}-p_{t}}\)
t = 100 s
∴ k = \(\frac{2.303}{100}\) log \(\frac{0.4}{2 \times 0.4-0.7}\)
= \(\frac{2.303}{100}\) log \(\frac{0.4}{0.1}\)
∴ k = \(\frac{2.303}{100}\) × 0.6021 = 1.38 × 10-2 s-1

Question 6.
The rate constant for the first order decomposition of H2O2 is given by the following equation:
log k = 14.2 – \(\frac{1.0 \times 10^{4} \mathrm{~K}}{\mathrm{~T}}\)
Calculate Ea for this reaction and rate constant k if Its half-life period be 200 minutes. (Given: R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1) (CBSE Delhi 2016)
Answer:
According to Arrhenius equation,
log k = log A – \(\frac{E_{a}}{2.303 \mathrm{RT}}\) …….. (i)
The given equation is
log k = 14.2 – \(\frac{1.0 \times 10^{4} \mathrm{~K}}{\mathrm{~T}}\) ………. (ii)
Comparing eq. (1) and (ii)
\(\frac{E_{a}}{2.303 \mathrm{RT}}\) = 1.0 × 104
∴ Ea = 1.0 × 104 × 2.303 × 8.314
= 19.147 × 104 J mol-1
Now t1/2 = \(\frac{0.693}{k}\)
or k = \(\frac{0.693}{t_{1 / 2}}\)
= \(\frac{0.693}{200 \mathrm{~min}}\) = 3.465 × 10-3 min -1

Question 7.
The rate of a reaction increases four times when the temperature changes from 300 K to 320 K. Calculate the activation energy of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature (R = 8.3 14 JK-1 mol-1). (CBSE All India 2010)
Answer:
T1 = 300 K, T2 = 320 K, R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 15
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 16

Question 8.
Sucrose decomposes in acid solution into glucose and fructose according to the first order rate law, with t1/2 = 3.00 hours. What fraction of sample of sucrose remains after 8 hours? (CBSE Sample Paper 2011)
Answer:
k = \(\frac{0.693}{t_{1 / 2}}\) = \(\frac{0.693}{3.0}\) = 0.231 hr-1
Let initial cone, of sucrose = 1 M
Cone, after 8 hr. = (1 – x) where x is the amount of sucrose decomposed
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 17
Conc. of sucrose left after 8 hr = 1 – 0.842
= 0.158 M

Question 9.
The rate of a reaction becomes four times when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate the energy of activation (Ea) of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature.
[R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1, log 4 = 0.6021] (CBSE All India 2013)
Answer:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 18
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 19

Question 10.
The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of SO2Cl2 at constant volume.
SO2Cl2(g) → SO2(g) + Cl2(g)

Experiment Times/s Total Pressure/atm
1 0 0.5
2 100 0.6

Calculate the rate of reaction when total pressure is 0.65 atm. (CBSE Sample Paper 2011)
Answer:
For the decomposition of SO2Cl2
SO2Cl2(g) → SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
At t = 0          p0 atm              0        0
At time, t      (p0 – x) atm       x        x
pt = p0 – x + x + x = p0 + x
or x = pt – p0
Now at time t, p(SOCl2) = p0 – x
= P0 – (Pt – P0) = 2 p0 – pt
∴ k = \(\frac{2.303}{t}\) log \(\frac{p_{0}}{2 p_{0}-p_{t}}\)
when t = 100 s
k = \(\frac{2.303}{100}\) log \(\frac{0.5}{2 \times 0.5-0.6}\)
= \(\frac{2.303}{100}\) log 1.25 = 2.2316 × 10-3 s-1
When pt = 0.65 atm, i.e. p0 + p = 0.65 atm
p = 0.65 – p0 = 0.65 – 0.50 = 0.15 atm
∴ Pressure of SO2Cl2 at time t = 0.50 – 0.15
= 0.35 atm
Rate = 2.2316 ×10-3 × 0.35
= 7.8 × 10-5 atm s-1

Question 11.
A first order reaction takes 20 minutes for 25% decomposition. Calculate the time when 75% of the reaction will be completed. {CBSE All India 2017)
Answer:
For the first order reaction:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 20

Question 12.
A first order reaction takes 23.1 minutes for 50% completion. Calculate the time required for 75% completion of this reaction. (log 2 = 0.301, log3 0.4771, log4 = 0.6021) (CBSE All India 2015)
Answer:
For the first order reaction:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 21

Question 13.
The decomposition of phosphine, PH3, proceeds according to the following equation:
4PH3(g) → P4(g) + 6H2(g)
It is found that the reaction follows the following rate equation:
Rate = k[PH3].
The half-life of PH3 is 37.9 sat 120 C.
(i) How much time is required for 3/4th of PH3 to decompose?
(ii) What fraction of the original sample of PH3 remains behind after 1 minute? (C8SE All India 2010)
Answer:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 22

Question 14.
Sucrose decomposes in acid solution into glucose and fructose according to the first order rate law with t1/2 = 3 hrs. Calculate the fraction of sucrose which remains after 8 hrs. (CBSE Sample Paper 2011)
Answer:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 23

Question 15.
Starting from 10 g of a radioactive element, 0.25 g was left after 5 years. Calculate
(i) Rate constant for the decay of the radioactive element.
Answer:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 24

(ii) The amount left after one year.
Answer:
Amount left after 1 year
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 25

(iii) The time required for half of the element to decay.
Answer:
Time for decay of half of the element
t1/2 = \(\frac{0.693}{k}=\frac{0.693}{0.7379}\) = 0.9392 year

(iv) Average life of the element. (CBSE All India 2011)
Answer:
t = \(\frac{1}{k}=\frac{1}{0.7379}\) = 1.3552 year

Question 16.
In general, It is observed that the rate of a chemical reaction becomes double with every 1o°. rise in temperature. If this generalization holds for a reaction In the temperature range 298 to 308 K, what would be the value of activation energy for this reaction? (R = 8.3 14 JK-1 mol-1) (CBSE Delhi 2000)
Answer:
Arrhenius equation is:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 26

Question 17.
A first order reaction is 50% completed in 40 minutes at 300 K and in 20 minutes at 320 K. Calculate the activation energy of the reaction.
(Given: log 2 = 0.3010, log 4 = 0.6021, R = 8.3 14 Jk-1 mol-1) (CBSE All India 2018)
Answer:
Let us first calculate k1 and k1 at temperatures 300 K and 320 K. We know that
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 27
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 28

Question 18.
The rate constant of a first order reaction increases from 2 × 10-2 to 6 × 10-2 when the temperature changes from 300 K to 320 K. Calculate the energy of activation. (Given: log 2 = 0.3010, log 3 = 0.4771, log 4 = 0.6021) (CBSE 2019 C)
Answer:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 29

Question 19.
For the reaction A + B → products, the following initial rates were obtained at various given initial concentrations:

[A] mol / L [B] mol / L Intial rate M/S
1. 0.1 0.1 0.05
2. 0.2 0.1 0.10
3. 0.1 0.2 0.05

Determine the half-life period.
OR
A first order reaction is 50% complete In 50 minutes at 300 K and the same reaction is again 50% complete In 25 minutes at 350 K. Calculate activation energy of the reaction. (CBSE Sample Paper 2019)
Answer:
Rate = k [A]x [B]y
0.05 = k [0.1]x [0.1]y …… (i)
0.10 = k [0.2]x [0.1]y ……. (ii)
0.05 = k [0.1]x [0.2]y …….. (iii)
Dividing equation (ii) by (i)
\(\frac{0.10}{0.05}\) = (2)x
x = 1
Dividing equation (iii) by (i)
\(\frac{0.05}{0.05}\) = (2)y
y = 0
Rate = k [A]1 [B]0
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 30

Question 20.
For a certain chemical reaction variation in concentration [A] vs. time (s) plot as shown in given figure:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 31
(i) Predict the order of the given reaction?
(ii) What does the slope of the line and intercept indicate?
(iii) What is the unit of rate constant k? (CBSE Sample paper 2018-19)
Answer:
(i) Zero order reaction
(ii) Slope represents k; Intercept represents [R]0
(iii) mol L-1 s-1

Question 21.
The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of N2O5(g) at a constant volume:
2N2O5(g) → 2N2O4(g) + O2(g)

S.NO Time (sec.) Total pressure (atm)
1. 0 0.5
2. 100 0.512

Calculate the rate constant.
OR
Two reactions of the same order have equal pre-exponential factors but their activation energies differ by 24.9 kJ mol-1. Calculate the ratio between the rate constants of these reactions at 27°C. (Gas constant R 8.314 J K-1 mol-1) (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
2N2O5(g) → 2N2O4(g) + O2(g)
At t = 0       0.5 atm       0 atm      0 atm
At time t   0.5-2x atm   2x atm    x atm
Pt = PN2O5 + PN2O5 + PO2
= (0.5 – 2x) + 2x + x = 0.5 + x
x = pt – 0.5
PN2O5 = 0.5 – 2x
= 0.5 – 2(pt – 0.5)
= 1.5 – 2pt
At t = 100s; pt = 0.512 atm
PN2O5 = 1.5 – 2 × 0.512 = 0.47 atm
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 32
OR
The Arrhenius equation: k = Ae-Ea/RT
Taking log on both sides:
log k = log A – \(\frac{E_{a}}{2.303 R T}\)
For reaction (i) log k1 = log A – \(\frac{E_{o}(1)}{2.303 R T}\)
For reaction (ii) log k2 = logA – \(\frac{E_{o}(2)}{2.303 R T}\)
Subtracting (i) from (ii)
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 33

Question 22.
(a) Define order of reaction. How does order of a reaction differ from molecularity for a complex reaction?
Answer:
(a) Order of reaction is the sum of the power to which the concentration terms are raised in the rate law equation. Order of a reaction is applicable for the complex reaction but molecularity has no meaning for the complex reaction. 0.693

(b) A first order reaction is 50% complete in 25 minutes. Calculate the time for 80% completion of the reaction.
Answer:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 34

(a) The decomposition of a hydrocarbon has value of rate constant as 2.5 × 104 s-1 at 27 °C. At what temperature would rate constant be 7.5 × 104 s-1 if energy of activation is 19.147 × 103 J mol-1?
Answer:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 35
0.1431 T2 = T2 – 300
0.1431 T2 – T2 = 300
0.8569T2 = – 300
T2 = \(\frac{300}{0.8569}\) = 350 k

(b) Write a condition under which a bimolecular reaction is kinetically first order. Give an example of such a reaction.
(Given: log 2 = 0.3010, log 3 = 0.4771, log 5 = 0.6990) (CBSE AI 2019)
Answer:
A bimolecular reaction is kinetically of first order when one of the reactant is in excess. For example, hydrolysis of methyl acetate.
CH3COOCH3 + H2O (excess) → CH3COOH + CH3OH

Question 23.
Nitrogen pentoxide decomposes according to equation:
2N2O5 (g) →4NO2(g) + O2(g)
The first order reaction was allowed to proceed at 40° C and the data below were collected:

[N2O5] (M) Time (min)
0.400 0.00
0.289 20.0
0.209 40.0
0.151 60.0
0.109 80.0

(i) Calculate the rate constant. Include units with your answer.
Answer:
Since it is a first order reaction,
k = \(\frac{2.303}{t}\) log \(\frac{[\mathrm{A}]_{0}}{[\mathrm{~A}]}\)
k can be calculated as:
at t = 20 min
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 36
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 37
The average value of rate constant,
k = 0.01624 min-1 or = 1.624 × 10-2 min-1

(ii) What will be the concentration of N2O5 after 100 minutes?
Answer:
Concentration of [N2O5] at t = 100 min
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 38

(iii) Calculate the initial rate of reaction. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Initial rate of reaction,
rate = k[N2O5]
= 0.01624 × 0.40
= 6.496 × 10-3

Question 24.
(i) Explain the following terms:
(a) Rate of a reaction
Answer:
The rate of reaction is the change of concentration in any one of the reactants or products per unit time. For a reaction, A → B rate may be expressed as
= \(\frac{-d[A]}{d t}\) or \(\frac{d[B]}{d t}\)

(b) Activation energy of a reaction
Answer:
Activation energy is the minimum energy which the reacting molecules should acquire so that they react to give the products. It is also defined as the energy required to form the products.

(ii) The decomposition of phosphine, PH3, proceeds according to the following equation:
4PH3(g) → P4 (g) + 6H2(g)
It Is found that the reaction follows the following rate equation:
Rate = k[PH3]
The half life of PH3 is 37.9 s at 120°C.
(a) How much time is required for 3/4th of PH3 to decompose?
Answer:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 39

(b) What fraction of the original sample of PH3 remains behind after 1 minute? (CBSE 2010)
Answer:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 40

Question 25.
Explain the following terms:
(a) Order of a reaction
Answer:
The sum of the powers of the concentration of reactants in the rate law expression is called the order of the reaction.
For example, if rate law expression for a reaction is:
Rate = k[A]a[B]b[C]c
then order of reaction is
order = a + b + c

(b) Molecularity of a reaction
Answer:
Molecularity is the number of molecules taking part in a reaction. For example, for the reaction:
aA + bB → Product
Molecularity is a + b

(ii) The rate of a reaction Increases four times when the temperature changes from 300 K to 320 K. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction, assuming that it does not change with temperature (R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1). (CBSE 2010)
Answer:
T1 = 300 k, T2 = 320 k,
R = 8.314 Jk-1 mol-1
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 41

Question 26.
(i) A reaction is second order in A and first order in B.
(a) Write the differential rate equation.
(b) How is the rate affected on Increasing the concentration of A three times?
(C) How is the rate affected when the concentrations of both A and B are doubled?
Answer:
(a) Rate = k[A]2[B]
(b) 9 times
(C) 8 times

(ii) A first order reaction takes 40 minutes for 30% decomposition. Calculate t1/2 for this reaction. (Given log 1.428 = 0.1548)
Answer:
Let initial conc. = a
Conc. after 40 min
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 42

OR

(i) For a first order reaction, show that time required for 99% completion is twice the time required for the completion of 90% of reaction.
Answer:
For a first order reaction,
t = \(\frac{2.303}{k}\) log \(\frac{[\mathrm{A}]_{0}}{[\mathrm{~A}]}\)
Let intial concentration, [A]0 = a
For 99% completion of reaction,
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 43
Dividing equation (i) by (ii)
\(\frac{t_{(99 \%)}}{t_{(90 \%)}}\) = 2 or t(99%) = 2 × t(90%)

(ii) Rate constant ‘k’ of a reaction varies with temperature ‘T’ according to the equation:
log k = log A – \(\frac{E_{a}}{2.303 R}\left(\frac{1}{T}\right)\)
where Ea is the activation energy. When a graph is plotted for log k vs. \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~T}}\), a straight line with a slope
of – 4250 K is obtained. Calculate ‘Ea’ for the reaction (R = 8.3 14 JK-1 mol-1). (CBSE Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Slope = – \(\frac{E_{a}}{2.303 R}\) = – 4250 k
∴ Ea = 2.303 × 8.314 Jk-1 mol-1 × 4250 k
= 81.375 kJ mol-1

Question 27.
(i) What is rate of reaction? Write two factors that affect the rate of reaction.
Answer:
Rate of reaction is defined as the change in concentration of reactants or products per unit time. Factors that affect rate of a reaction
(a) Concentration of reactant
(b) Temperature

(ii) The rate constant of a first order reaction increases from 4 × 10-2 to 8 × 10-2 when the temperature changes from 27 °C to 37°C. Calculate the energy of activation (Ea).
(log 2 = 0.301, log 3 = 0.4771, log 4 = 0.6021)
Answer:
log \(\frac{k_{2}}{k_{1}}=\frac{E_{a}}{2.303 R}\left[\frac{T_{2}-T_{1}}{T_{1} T_{2}}\right]\)
k1 = 4 × 10-2,
k2 = 8 × 10-2,
T1 = 273 + 27 = 300 K
T2 = 273 + 37 = 310 K,
R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 44
= 53598 J mol-1
= 53.598 KJ mol-1

OR

(i) For a reaction A + B → P, the rate is given by.
Rate = k [A] [B]2
(a) How is the rate of reaction affected if the concentration of B is doubled?
(b) What is the overall order of reaction if A is present in large excess?
Answer:
Rate = K[A][B]2
(a) becomes four times
(b) Second order

(ii) A first order reaction takes 23.1 minutes for 50% completion. Calculate the time required for 75% completion of this reaction.
(log 2 = 0.301, log 3 = 0.4771, log 4 = 0.6021) (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
For a first order reaction,
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 45
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 46
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics 47

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions and marking scheme Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This paper is divided into two parts: A and B. All questions are compulsory.
2. Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read these instructions very carefully and follow them.
3. Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

Part-A
Multiple Choice Questions (40 Marks)

Reading (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below. (10 Marks)

1. Caged behind thick glass, the most famous dancer in the world can easily be missed in the National Museum, Delhi. The Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-daro is that rare artefact that even school children are familiar with. Our school textbooks also communicate the wealth of our 5000 year heritage of art. You have to be alert to her existence there, amid terracotta animals to rediscover this bronze image.

2. Most of us have seen her only in photographs or sketches, therefore, the impact of actually holding her is magnified a million times over. One discovers that the dancing girls has no feet. She is small, a little over 10 cm tall – the length of a human palm – but she surprises us with the power of great art – the ability to communicate across centuries.

3. A series of bangles – of shell or ivory or thin metal – clothe her left upper arm all the way down to her fingers. A necklace with three pendants bunched together and a few bangles above the elbow and wrist on the right hand display an almost modem art.

4. She speaks of the undaunted, ever hopeful human spirit. She reminds us that it is important to visit museums in our country to experience the impact that a work of art leaves on our senses, to find among all the riches one particular vision of beauty that speaks to us along.

On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer any ten questions from the twelve that follow. (10 × 1 = 10)

(i) Why dancing girl can easily be missed in the National Museum?
(a) There are various statues in the museum
(b) It is very small
(c) It does not impress
(d) It is placed among old sketches
Answer:
(b) It is very small

(ii) Which information is not given in the passage?
(a) The girl is caged behind glass
(b) She is a rare artefact
(c) School books communicate the wealth of our heritage
(d) She cannot be rediscovered as she’s bronze
Answer:
(d) She cannot be rediscovered as she’s bronze

(iii) ‘Great Art’ has power because:
(a) it appeals to us despite a passage of time
(b) it is small and can be understood
(c) it’s seen in pictures and sketches
(d) it’s magnified a million times
Answer:
(a) it appeals to us despite a passage of time

(iv) Why is the Dancing Girl a surprising image?
(a) She has long feet
(b) She has small hands
(c) She has no feet
(d) She is made of iron
Answer:
(c) She has no feet

(v) During the Mohenjo-daro period, women liked:
(a) dancing
(b) travelling
(c) jewellery
(d) knitting
Answer:
(c) jewellery

(vi) According to the given passage, the art ………………..
(a) leaves impression on one’s senses
(b) gives us hope
(c) does not communicate
(d) speaks about textbooks
Answer:
(a) leaves impression on one’s senses

(vii) The passage attempts to ………………… the readers.
(a) provoke
(b) evoke
(c) rebuke
(d) warm
Answer:
(b) evoke

(viii) What are the two correct meanings of the word ‘existence’ used in the passage.
1. The state of being present
2. The state of being alive
3. The way of living
4. The way of creating
5. The way of experiencing
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 3 and 5
(d) 1 and 3
Answer:
(d) 1 and 3

(ix) What does ‘the ability to communicate across centuries’ mean?
(a) The art speaks across ages.
(b) The art is timeless.
(c) The art leaves impact on senses.
(d) The art has great power.
(b) The art is timeless.

(x) Select the option that makes the correct use of “impact”, as used in the passage, to fill in the blank space.
(a) His speech made a profound …………………… on the audience.
(b) The distressed people leave ……………………
(c) ………………. of press in democracy is very important.
(d) The press functions as the custodian of ……………………..
Answer:
(a) His speech made a profound …………………… on the audience.

(xi) The passage focuses on the ………………..
(a) series of bangles
(b) communicative art
(c) modem, life
(d) National Museum
Answer:
(b) communicative art

(xii) What is the apt heading for the last paragraph of the passage?
(a) The Dancing Girl
(b) The Art is Beautiful
(c) Visit Museums
(d) Human Spirit
Answer:
(b) The Art is Beautiful

Question 2.
Read the passage given below: (10 Marks)

More than 87,000 healthcare workers have been infected with Covid-19, with just six states – Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Delhi, West Bengal and Gujarat – accounting for three-fourths (around 74%) of the case burden and over 86% of the 573 deaths due to the infection, official data showed.

Maharashtra alone, with the highest number of over 7.3 lakh confirmed Covid cases so far, accounts for around 28% of the infected healthcare workers and over 50% of the total deaths, according to the data.

While Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu had tested over one lakh healthcare workers each till August 28, Karnataka reported only 12,260 infected healthcare workers – almost half the burden in Maharashtra. Tamil Nadu reported 11,169 cases that included doctors, nurses and Asha workers. The three states together accounted for 55% of the total cases among health workers.

Risk to frontline workers can jeopardise India’s Covid fight – The three states also reported
the highest number of deaths in healthcare professionals, though with a wide gap between Maharashtra and the other two. While Maharashtra reported 292 deaths among healthcare workers, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu had 46 and 49 deaths, respectively.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 1
A large number of infections and even deaths of healthcare workers in particular states is being viewed with concern by officials and public health experts, who say risks to frontline workers can jeopardise India’s fight against the pandemic.

The issue, discussed in a review meeting headed by the cabinet secretary on Thursday, saw the Centre cautioning states about the need to protect a crucial resource. The possible factors responsible for high infections, officials said, were lax infection control in hospitals and the need for stringent containment measures in areas where health professionals reside to safeguard them. Despite the high number of cases, the government has received only 143 claims since April under the ₹ 50 lakh Covid-19 insurance scheme for healthcare workers engaged in Covid mitigation activities.

Official sources said the wide gap between the number of deaths and claims could be because all the casualties may not be eligible under the scheme. Besides, the claims are a bit slow in coming as families of the dead take time to apply and do the required paperwork.
‘Solidarity with health workers cannot be met with mere words of encouragement but by concerted efforts to strengthen the health workforce. Safety net for their families should be provided including a term insurance cover of over ₹ 2 crore, with the government as sole guarantee,’ said Giridhar Babu, epidemiologist at the Public Health Foundation of India.

‘Protecting healthcare workers is of paramount importance to make sure we have a large enough force to take care of patients who need their services.’ said Dr H Sudarshan Ballal, chairman, Manipal Hospitals, who said such workers may be at risk because of a large number of asymptomatic patients and lack of proper use of PPEs.
(Source: The Times of India/Health Ministry)

On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer any ten questions from the twelve that follow. (10 × 1 = 10)

(i) In the line “………….. risks to frontline workers”, the term ‘frontline workers’ does not refer to:
(a) healthcare workers
(b) police
(c) cleanliness workers
(d) teachers
Answer:
(d) teachers

(ii) How many health workers have been infected with COVID-19 in Maharashtra as per the graph?
(a) 11,169
(b) 12,260
(c) 8,363
(d) 24,484
Answer:
(d) 24,484

(iii) How many healthcare workers have died in Rajasthan due to COVID-19 infection?
(a) 292
(b) 21
(c) 11
(d) 17
Answer:
(c) 11

(iv) Which state of India is on the top in terms of confirmed COVID-19 cases?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Delhi
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(d) Maharashtra

(v) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the factors responsible for high infection in healthcare professionals.
1. Careless infection control in hospital
2. Due to negligency by health care professionals
3. Lack of stringest containment measure
4. Due to the lack of healthcare professionals
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 2 & 3
(c) 1 & 3
(d) 2 & 4
Answer:
(c) 1 & 3

(vi) What percentage of total healthcare workers confirmed COVID-19 cases of India does Maharashtra have healthcare workers infected with COVID-19?
(a) About 20%
(b) About 35%
(c) About 40%
(d) About 28%
Answer:
(d) About 28%

(vii) Healthcare workers’ refers to:
(a) doctors
(b) nurses
(c) Asha workers
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(viii) On how many healthcare workers COVID-19 tests have been conducted in Punjab?
(a) 1,127
(b) 994
(c) 13,141
(d) 2,029
Answer:
(c) 13,141

(ix) How many healthcare workers infected with COVID-19 are there in Karnataka till August 2020?
(a) 11,169
(b) 12,260
(c) 1,07,100
(d) 15,213
Answer:
(b) 12,260

(x) How many claims has the government received since April 2020 under the ₹ 50 lakh COVID-19 insurance scheme for healthcare workers engaged in COVID-19 alleviation activities?
(a) 49 claims
(b) 51 claims
(c) 46 claims
(d) 143 claims
Answer:
(d) 143 claims

(xi) How many healthcare workers died in Karnataka due to COVID-19 infection?
(a) 46
(b) 49
(c) 35
(d) 14
Answer:
(a) 46

(xii) Choose the option that lists statement that is NOT TRUE.
(a) Maharashtra is the worst suffer of Covid-19.
(b) Karnataka has less number of Covid-19 cases as compared to Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
(c) The deaths of healthcare workers are disregarded by officials.
(d) Most of the families of deceased healthcare workers received ? 50 lakh under Covid-19 insurance scheme.
Answer:
(c) The deaths of healthcare workers are disregarded by officials.

Literature (10 Marks)
Question 3.
Read the extracts given below and attempt any one by answering the questions that follow. (5 × 1 = 5)
A. “Now were really gong to get some water, woman.” The woman who was preparing supper, “Yes, God willing”. The older boys were working in the field, while the smaller ones were playing near the house until the woman called to them all, “Come for dinner.” It was during the meal that, just as Lencho had predicated, big drops of rain began to fall. In the North-east huge mountains of clouds could be seen approaching. The air was fresh and sweet. The man went out for no other reason than to have the pleasure of feeling the rain on his body and when he returned he exclaimed: “These aren’t raindrops falling from the sky, they are new coins. The big drops are ten cent pieces and the little ones are fives.”

(i) How did Lencho feel when he told his wife that they were going to have a rain shower?
(a) Nervous
(b) Confident
(c) Annoyed
(d) Doubtful
Answer:
(b) Confident

(ii) Choose the option that lists the set of statements that are NOT TRUE according to the given extract.
1. Lencho had unwavering faith in God.
2. He required rain water for irrigation of his field.
3. He had some other source of irrigation also.
4. His wife did not agree with his statement.
5. Rain did not fall at all.
6. He referred to drizzles as coins.
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 2, 4 and 6
(c) 3,4 and 5
(d) 4, 5 and 6
Answer:
(c) 3,4 and 5

(iii) Pick the option that correctly classifies fact/s (F) and opinion/s (O) of the students below.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 2
(a) F – 1, 2 and O- 3, 4
(b) F – 1, 3 and O – 2, 4
(c) F – 2,3andO – 1,4
(d) F – 3,4andO – 1,2
Answer:
(b) F – 1, 3 and O – 2, 4

(iv) Which word does ‘exclaimed’ NOT correspond to?
(a) Cried out
(b) Spoke with strong emotion
(c) Sudden statement
(d) Spoke calmly
Answer:
(d) Spoke calmly

(v) Lencho went out to take pleasure in:
(a) looking at beautiful scene of rainfall
(b) looking at the cloudy weather
(c) feeling droplets on his body
(d) looking at his children play
Answer:
(c) feeling droplets on his body

B. The next day Tuesday, Wanda was not in school, either. And nobody noticed her absence again. But on Wednesday, Peggie and Maddie, who sat down front with other children who got good marks and who didn’t track in a whole lot or mud, did notice that Wanda wasn’t there. Peggy was the most popular girl in school. She was pretty, she had many pretty clothes and her hair was curly. Maddie was her closest friend. The reason Peggy and Maddie noticed Wanda’s absence was because Wanda had made them late to school. They had waited and waited for Wanda, to have some fun with her, and she just hadn’t come. They often waited for Wanda Petronski – to have fun with her.

(i) Choose the answer that lists the correct option about Wanda.
1. Wanda claimed that she had more than one hundred dresses.
2. Peggy and Maddie loved Wanda very much.
3. Peggy and Maddie often teased Wanda.
4. Peggy and Maddie did not notice Wanda’s absence on Wednesday.
(a) Option (1)
(b) Option (2)
(c) Option (3)
(d) Option (4)
Answer:
(c) Option (3)

(ii) Peggie and Maddie waited for Wanda to:
(a) take some help from her
(b) appreciate Wanda’s skills in drawing
(c) ask where she was the previous day
(d) to make fun of her
Answer:
(d) to make fun of her

(iii) The statement that is NOT TRUE about Wanda is:
(a) Her name was indeed strange
(b) She was poor
(c) She indeed had one hundred dresses
(d) She used to wear a faded blue dress
Answer:
(c) She indeed had one hundred dresses

(iv) Which one of these statements is NOT TRUE about Peggy?
(a) She was a famous girl in the school
(b) She wore good and tidy clothes
(c) She sat with the weak students
(d) She was a good friend of Maddie
Answer:
(c) She sat with the weak students

(v) Which of the following expressions is incorrect with respect to the word ‘popular’?
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 3
(a) Option (1)
(b) Option (2)
(c) Option (3)
(d) Option (4)
Answer:
(d) Option (4)

Question 4.
Read the extracts given below and attempt any one by answering the questions that follow. (5 x 1 = 5)
A. The way a crow
Shook down on me
The dust of snow
From a hemlock tree
Has given my heart
A change of mood
And saved some part
Of a day I had rued.

(i) At this moment, the poet is in a:
(a) jolly mood
(b) sad mood
(c) irritated mood
(d) excited mood
Answer:
(b) sad mood

(ii) The poet is walking by a:
(a) cottage
(b) river
(c) hill
(d) tree
Answer:
(d) tree

(iii) Hemlock tree is regarded as a/an:
(a) lucky tree
(b) auspicious tree
(c) poisonous tree
(d) sweet tree
Answer:
(c) poisonous tree

(iv) What is the rhyme scheme of the given stanzas?
(a) abcb; abab
(b) abbc; acbc
(c) abab; cdcd
(d) aaab; cccd
Answer:
(c) abab; cdcd

(v) The falling of dust of snow on the poet:
(a) upset his mood
(b) lifted his mood
(c) irritated him
(d) non of these
Answer:
(b) lifted his mood

B. Some say the world will end in fire
Some say in ice
From what I’ve tasted of desire
I hold with those who favour fire.

But if it had to perish twice,
I think I know enough of hate
To say that for destruction ice
Is also great.
And would suffice.

(i) The poet expresses the profound idea that the world would end by:
(a) ice
(b) fire
(c) either ice or fire
(d) neither ice nor fire
Answer:
(c) either ice or fire

(ii) The poet stands with those who say that the world would end by:
(a) desire
(b) fire
(c) heat
(d) cold
Answer:
(b) fire

(iii) According to the poet, what would be as competent as fire in ending the world?
(a) Hatred
(b) Cold
(c) Heat
(d) Ice
Answer:
(d) Ice

(iv) The world ‘perish’ DOES NOT have a meaning similar to:
(a) die
(b) come to an end
(c) sustain
(d) vanish
Answer:
(c) sustain

(v) The word that DOES NOT cause the destruction of the world is:
(a) fire
(b) ice
(c) human desire
(d) suffice
Answer:
(d) suffice

Grammar (10 Marks)
Question 5.
Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete the note about tourism. (3 × 1=3)
Tourism of today (i) ……………. what it was fifty years back. A crucial role (ii) …………………
motivation in this process of change. In fact, motivation considerably affects its various
components. Motivations not only (iii) …………… but critically analyse the future needs of
tourism also.

(i) (a) was no longer
(b) will be longer
(c) is no longer
(d) shall be no longer
Answer:
(c) is no longer

(ii) (a) was played
(b) was played with
(c) will by played by
(d) is played by
Answer:
(d) is played by

(iii) (a) determine tourists behaviour
(b) determines tourists behaviour
(c) is determined tourists behaviour
(d) will determine tourists
Answer:
(a) determine tourists behaviour

Question 6.
Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete Riya’s narration. (3 x 1 = 3)
I saw Rohit deeply thinking in the room. When I (i) ……………………. busy at, he (ii) ………………….. he was trying some new ideas. I became hopeless and enquired how playing with toys would make him a scientist. He surprised me by saying that he (iii) …………………….. scientists now had been deep thinkers in the beginning.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 4

(i) (a) tell him what was
(b) replied him what is
(c) asked him what he was
(d) said to him about what
Answer:
(c) asked him what he was

(ii) (a) replied that
(b) obeyed that
(c) enquired that
(d) refused that
Answer:
(a) replied that

(iii) (a) knew that those who is
(b) had knew that those who were
(c) knows that those who are
(d) knew that those who are
Answer:
(d) knew that those who are

Question 7.
Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct options for any four of the six sentences given below. (4 x 1 = 4)

(i) The principal ……………… grant you concession in fee.
(a) will
(b) can
(c) could
(d) used to
Answer:
(b) can

(ii) Neither Mukesh nor his brother ……………….. the school regularly.
(a) attends
(b) attend
(c) attending
(d) have attend
Answer:
(a) attends

(iii) As I was intelligent, I had ……………… trouble.
(a) few
(b) little
(c) much
(d) less
Answer:
(d) less

(iv) At this time tomorrow we ……………… in an aeroplane.
(a) shall be flying
(b) shall fly
(c) will fly
(d) may flying
Answer:
(a) shall be flying

(v) After the release of Covid-19 vaccine, our economy ………………… get a boom.
(a) should
(b) will
(c) may
(d) shall
Answer:
(c) may

(vi) I drank …………….. milk kept in the glass and went out for play.
(a) a little
(b) the little
(c) little
(d) few
Answer:
(b) the little

Part-B – Subjective Questions (40 Marks)

Writing (10 Marks)
Question 8.
Attempt any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)
A. You are Ram Mehar of 32, Beedan Pura, Karol Bagh, Delhi. Last week, you bought a mobile phone from ‘The Mobile Junction’, 20L, Nehru Place, New Delhi. The mobile phone developed a problem within a few days of its purchase. Write a complaint letter to the dealer giving details of the nature of the problem and asking him/her to rectify the defect or replace the phone.
Answer:
32, Beedan Pura
Karol Bagh, New Delhi
26 March 20xx
The Mobile Junction
20L, Nehru Place, New Delhi
Sub: Defective Mobile Phone
Sir
I am a resident of Beedan Pura, Karol Bagh, New Delhi. I purchased a Samsung mobile phone from The Mobile Junction on 19th March, 20xx, vide cash memo No. 190319/18.1 am sorry to say that the mobile phone developed a problem within a few days of its purchase. The sound system is quite irritating and jarring. The camera doesn’t give a clear and deep impression. I feel cheated to have such a defective mobile phone after spending more than fifteen thousand rupees. It is quite unfortunate that even after sending two reminders, you have shown no urgency to rectify the defects or replace the defective mobile set at the earliest. I hope you will do the needful within a week. I am sure you will not compel me to knock the doors of the Consumer Court for the redress of the wrong.

Yours sincerely
Ram Mehar

B. You are Maya/Mohan, 48, Court Road, Saket, New Delhi. You had been to a tourist spot and were disappointed at the way the place was being maintained. Write a letter to the Minister, Department of Tourism, Delhi on how places of tourist interest should be made tourist friendly. Take ideas from the notes given below:
Notes:

  • utter neglect
  • preserve the national heritage
  • encroachment and vandalism
  • poor maintenance
  • no security and safety
  • make it tourist friendly

Answer:
48, Court Road
Saket
New Delhi
20 April 20xx
The Minister Department of Tourism
Government of Delhi
New Delhi
Sub: Poor maintenance of tourist spots Sir/Madam
I want to highlight the utter neglect and the poor maintenance of our tourist spots in Delhi. The Archaeological Department of India and the concerned authorities must take immediate steps to preserve our national heritage from degradation, encroachments and vandalism.

Last Sunday, the visit to the Tughlaqabad Fort in South Delhi disappointed me beyond words. No doubt, the exterior, the outerwalls of the fort have been given a face-lift. The situation inside speaks of utter neglect and poor maintenance. The ruins are now shelter for druggists, gamblers and all kinds of anti-social elements. There is no security and safety for a few tourists who venture to visit the place. Most parts of the fort have been encroached by the greedy property dealers and musclemen of the area. The Tughlaqabad Fort is a very important heritage site of historical value. The complex has the grave of Ghasuddin Tughlaq and many other buildings raised during the time of Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq.

This place of immense historical value and a great tourist spot, needs immediate attention and protective steps. The place must be cleared off the illegal encroachments without any further delay. Even pathways, lawns and lights need immediate attention. Security of tourists, especially of women and foreign tourists must be ensured to attract tourists in large numbers. The place must be made tourist friendly. I hope the necessary steps will be taken immediately by the concerned authorities in this regard.

Yours faithfully
Maya /Mohan

Question 9.
Attempt any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)
A. The sales of English Novels by Sagar Bookseller is represented in the bar graph given below. Study the bar graph and express your views in a paragraph of 100-120 words analysing the sales achieved during the period 2016-19.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 5
Answer:
The bar graph given above shows the sales of English novels by Sagar Bookseller during the period 2016-19. In 2016, the bookseller sold about eight thousand copies of English novels. In 2017, about 10 thousand copies of English novels were sold by the seller. So the seller sold about two thousand additional copies of the novels as compared to the previous year.

In 2018, we can see a big jump in the sales of the novels as compared to the previous year – around five thousand. The bookseller sold about 20 thousand copies of the novels in 2019.
To sum up, we can say that the number of people purchasing and reading English novel as their hobby has been increasing every year.

B. The line-graph chart given below breaks down the sales history of the famous Lifebuoy brand in soap in the first six months of the year, from January to June. Write an analytic paragraph after selecting and reporting the main features. Make comparisons where necessary.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 6
Answer:
The line-graph chart given above illustrates the sales history of one of the most popular and prestigious Lifebuoy brands of soap in the first six months of the year. The general trend that emerges out is quite simple. The first three months of winter exhibit rather a subdued sale. On the other hand, the months of summer show quite a brisk sale. The month of January is the coldest month of the year in India.

So, the number of bathers is significantly reduced. With the reduced number of bathers, the use of soap is also reduced proportionally. Hence, the sale of ‘Lifebuoy’ brand of soap is at its lowest, only 10 lac pieces in January. Things improve and the numbers show a considerable rise of 50 per cent in February.

Then again a slump is seen and the sales in March slip back to the numbers in January. The severity of winter is almost over in April. Frequent bathing leads to a dramatic rise in the sale of ‘Lifebuoy This demand goes on rising. 40 lac pieces of Lifebuoy were sold in April. The number rose steadily to 60 lac in May and the sales reached at its peak in the hottest month of the year, June.

The sales in June touched the unprecedented figure of 70 lacs. It will not be out of place to conclude that sales of soap depends up to a considerable extent on the weather. The summer months exhibit greater demand and brisker sales numbers.

Literature (30 Marks)

Question 10.
Answer any two questions in 20-30 words each, from (A) and (B) respectively. (4 x 2 = 8)
A. (any two) (2 x 2 = 4)
(i) “The sight of the food maddened him.” What does this suggest? (His First Flight)
Answer:
The seagull was quite hungry and yearned for food. When he saw a piece of fish in the beak of his mother, the sight was quite tempting for him. He was maddened at the sight of the food and suddenly dived at the fish forgetting that he didn’t know how to fly. It
compelled the young seagull to finally fly into space.

(ii) Why does the poet not offer the boy money to buy another ball?
Answer:
The poet wants the boy to understand the nature of loss. He has to understand what it means to lose something. Gain and loss are the two sides of the same coin. The boy has to learn how to move forward forgetting everything about the losses he has suffered in the past.

(iii) Describe the possible descent of the people of Coorg.
Answer:
The people of Coorg, their rituals and traditions are quite different from the Hindu mainstream. According to one story, a part of the Alexander’s army travelling the coast, settled here as their return became impractical. So, they are believed to be of Greek origin. The Coorgi dress, a long, black coat with an embroidered waist-belt resembles the Kuffia worn by the Arabs. So, some think that they are of Arabic origin.

B. (any two) (2 x 2 = 4)
(i) Do you think it a significant detail in the story that Anil is a struggling writer? Does this
explain his behaviour in any way?
Answer:
Anil doesn’t have a regular income. He is a struggling writer who writes for magazines. Anil can’t afford to pay Hari Singh regularly. But he allows Hari Singh to stay with him and promises to teach him to write complete sentences. When he receives a substantial amount of money, he gives him a fifty-rupee note and promises to pay him regularly.

(ii) Why didn’t Matilda like to visit her rich friend?
Answer:
Matilda or Mrs Loisel always dreamt of things that were beyond her means. She dreamt of a grand house, costly dishes, good dresses and jewels. She was disillusioned that she couldn’t get them. When she visited her rich friend, she really suffered because she became intensely conscious of her poverty in the presence of her fortunate and rich friend. She suffered so much when she returned to her modest and miserable surroundings.

(iii) Was Ramlal happy to send Bholi to school? If not, why did he send her there?
Answer:
No girl in the family had ever gone to school. Bholi’s mother believed if they sent their daughters to school, then no one would marry them. But an unexpected thing happened. The Tehsildar who inaugurated the first girl school in the village asked Ramlal to set an example before the villagers. He must send his daughters to school. Ramlal couldn’t afford to disobey the Tehsildar. So, Bholi was sent to school.

Question 11.
Answer any two questions in 40-50 words each, from (A) and (B) respectively. (4 x 3 = 12)
A. (any two) (2 x 3 = 6)
(i) Why did Lencho compare the rain drops with new coins? Explain briefly.
Answer:
Lencho had been impatiently waiting for the rain. The earth needed a downpour immediately. At least, a shower was necessary to save the crops. Fortunately for Lencho, in the north-east huge mountains of clouds could be seen approaching. Big drops of rain began to fall. Every drop was precious for the fields and the crops. The bigger drops were worth ten cent pieces and the little ones were fives.

(ii) Why is the poet so much impressed with animals?
Answer:
Animals possess all the noble virtues that are necessary for an ideal living. They are contented and never complain about their fate. They are independent and don’t show unnecessary respect for their ancestors or to their fellow beings. They are not selfish and don’t suffer from the mania of possessing and owning things. So, the poet is highly impressed with animals.

(iii) What did Kisa Gotami realise about the fate of mankind?
Answer:
Kisa found no house where some beloved had not died. She understood that death is common to all. So she was being selfish in her grief. She thought only of her grief. Life and death is a normal process. Death is certain. No one can escape it.

B. (any two) (2 x 3 = 6)
(i) Why does Mrs Pumphrey think the dog’s recovery is “A triumph of surgery”?
Answer:
Tricki is in a miserable condition. He has become hugely fat, loses his appetite, vomits
quite often and lays motionless panting on the carpet. Saving such a dog is nothing less than a miracle for the mistress of Tricki. Naturally, she gratefully thanks the doctor and calls his feat “A triumph of Surgery!”

(ii) How did the narrator’s boss react to his failure in tracing Oliver Lutkins?
Answer:
The narrator couldn’t trace Oliver Lutkins in New Mullion. The people in the company were upset. The case was coming up in the court. The narrator felt himself a ‘shameful, useless fool.’ He felt his promising legal career coming to an end before it had begun. The chief almost ‘murdered’ him. He hinted that he might do well at digging trenches. He was ordered back to New Mullion with a man who had worked with Oliver Lutkins.

(iii) Describe two accidents that had disfigured Bholi and made her a backward child.
Answer:
At birth, Bholi was very fair and pretty. When she was two years old, she had an attack of small pox. Her entire body was permanently disfigured with deep pock-marks. When she was just ten months old, she fell off her cot. Perhaps a part of her brain was damaged. It made her a backward child. She learnt speaking at the age of five and stammered while speaking.

Question 12.
Answer any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)
A. Do you think Valli enjoyed her first bus ride? Give examples from the lesson to support your answer.
Answer:
It was Valli’s first bus ride. Naturally, she was full of excitement and enthusiasm. She devoured everything with her eyes. She stood up on the seat to have a full view of things outside. The bus was going along the bank of a canal. Beyond it, there were palms, grasslands and distant mountains. On the other side, there was a deep ditch. And then acres upon acres of green field stretched out as far as the eye could see.

The bus went past the railway station, the bright looking shops. Suddenly, Valli clapped her hands with glee. She saw a young cow with her raised tail in the air running very fast just in the middle of the road. The driver sounded his horn loudly again and again. But the more he honked, more frightened the cow became. Faster it galloped—always right in front of the bus. This was very funny to Valli. She laughed and laughed until there were tears in her eyes.

B. What do you think about Anne’s talent for writing essays which she wrote convincingly, when punished by the teacher?
Answer:
In my opinion, Anne was very talented in writing essays. She won over her maths teacher, Mr Keesing, who was angry with her as she was very talkative. He assigned her extra homework, an essay on the topic ‘AChatterbox’. She wrote on the topic convincingly to prove the necessity of talking.

She wrote that talking is a student’s trait. She also wrote that she would try her level best to keep it under control but could not guarantee success. This made Mr Keesing laugh instead of being angry and he assigned her a second essay on ‘An Incorrigible Chatterbox’. Anne finished that essay also with a sense of humour.

Mr Keesing then assigned Anne a third essay entitled ‘Quack, Quack, Quack, said Mistress Chatterbox’. Anne convincingly wrote as a poem of a mother duck and a father swan with three baby ducklings, who were bitten to death by the father because they quacked too much. This completely convinced Mr Keesing.

Question 13.
Answer any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)
A. ‘He was the most trusting person I had ever met.’ Justify this statement of Hari Singh about his benefactor, Anil. Did he breach Anil’s trust?
Answer:
After his first introduction, Hari Singh understood Anil’s nature and his character rather well. He lied that he knew how to cook. Still, Anil allowed Hari to work for him. Even at the age of 15, Hari Singh was an experienced and successful hand. He knew all the tricks of his trade.

He made one rupee every day from buying the day’s supplies. Anil knew it but didn’t mind. Anil was really a trusting person. He had given Hari a key to the door and he could come and go as he pleased. But it was ‘so difficult to rob him’. It is easy to rob a greedy man. It was difficult to rob a careless and trusting man like Anil. Sometimes, he didn’t even notice that he had been robbed. That took all the pleasure out of Hari Singh’s work.

Anil was no fool. He knew all about the theft, when and how it was committed. Neither his lips nor eyes showed that he saw Hari placing the money back under the mattress. Trust begets trust. Ultimately, the boy-thief realised that the only person who could help him was the man whom he had robbed a few hours ago. Naturally, Anil was the most trusting man Hari Singh had ever met in his life. Anil forgot the breach of his trust but rewarded Hari by giving a fifty-rupee-note and promising to pay him regularly.

B. “Griffin was rather a lawless person.” Comment.
Answer:
Griffin was, no doubt, a brilliant scientist. He did wonderful experiments and achieved success in making the human body invisible. It was absolutely a great discovery. However, Griffin misused the discovery. He didn’t use it for the welfare of the people or humanity in general. Rather he used it for his petty benefits attained through illegal activities.

He openly challenged the established laws and tried to create chaos, confusion and lawlessness through his activities. Invisibility gave him an excuse to become lawless and an anarchist.

When his landlord wanted to eject him, he became so revengeful that he set his house on fire. He forcefully robbed a shopkeeper and ran away with all the money he found with him. He became a homeless wanderer making illegal entries in a London store and a shop in Drury Lane. He decamped with articles he needed for his use without paying for them. Griffin’s burglary at the clergyman’s house is a shameful act of lawlessness on the part of an eccentric scientist. He used his invisibility only to trouble, frighten, beat and rob innocent persons.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course A Set 3 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions and marking scheme Course A Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course A Set 3 with Solutions

निर्धारित समय : 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश:
(क) इस प्रश्न-पत्र के दो खंड हैं- ‘अ’ और ‘ब’।
(ख) खंड ‘अ’ में कुल 10 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। सभी प्रश्नों में उपप्रश्न दिए गए हैं। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
(ग) खंड ‘ब’ में कुल 7 वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। प्रश्नों में आंतरिक विकल्प दिए गए हैं। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड ‘अ’- वस्तुपरक प्रश्न ( अंक 40)

अपठित गद्यांश (अंक 5)

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 5 = 5)
लोकतंत्र के मूलभूत तत्व को समझा नहीं गया है और इसलिए लोग समझते हैं कि सब कुछ सरकार कर देगी, हमारी कोई ज़िम्मेदारी नहीं है। लोगों में अपनी पहल से ज़िम्मेदारी उठाने और निभाने का संस्कार विकसित नहीं हो पाया है। फलस्वरूप देश की विशाल मानव-शक्ति अभी खर्राटे लेती पड़ी है और देश की पूँजी उपयोगी बनाने के बदले आज बोझरूप बन बैठी है। लेकिन उसे नींद से झकझोर कर जागृत करना है। किसी भी देश को महान बनाते हैं, उसमें रहने वाले लोग।

लेकिन अभी हमारे देश के नागरिक अपनी ज़िम्मेदारी से बचते रहे हैं। चाहे सड़क पर चलने की बात हो अथवा साफ़-सफ़ाई की बातें हों, जहाँ-तहाँ हम लोगों को गंदगी फैलाते और बेतरतीब ढंग से वाहन चलाते देख सकते हैं। फिर चाहते हैं कि सब कुछ सरकार ठीक कर दे। सरकार ने बहुत सारे कार्य किए हैं, इसे अस्वीकार नहीं किया जा सकता है। वैज्ञानिक प्रयोगशालाएँ खोली हैं, विशाल बाँध बनवाए हैं, फौलाद के कारखाने खोले हैं आदि-आदि बहुत सारे काम सरकार के द्वारा हुए हैं। पर अभी करोड़ों लोगों को कार्य में प्रेरित नहीं किया जा सका है। वास्तव में होना तो यह चाहिए कि लोग अपनी सूझ-बूझ के साथ अपनी आंतरिक शक्ति के बल पर खड़े हों

और अपने पास जो कुछ साधन-सामग्री हो, उसे लेकर कुछ करना शुरू कर दें। और फिर सरकार उसमें आवश्यक मदद करे। उदाहरण के लिए, गाँव वाले बड़ी-बड़ी पंचवर्षीय योजनाएँ नहीं समझ सकेंगे, पर वे लोग यह बात ज़रूर समझ सकेंगे कि अपने गाँव में कहाँ कुआँ चाहिए, कहाँ सिंचाई की ज़रूरत है, कहाँ पुल की आवश्यकता है। बाहर के लोग इन सब बातों से अनभिज्ञ होते हैं।

(i) लोकतंत्र का मूलभूत तत्व है
(क) कर्तव्य-पालन
(ख) लोगों का राज्य
(ग) चुनाव
(घ) जनमत
उत्तर
(क) कर्तव्य-पालन

(ii) किसी देश की महानता निर्भर करती है
(क) वहाँ की सरकार पर
(ख) वहाँ के निवासियों पर
(ग) वहाँ के इतिहास पर
(घ) वहाँ की पूँजी पर
उत्तर
(ख) वहाँ के निवासियों पर

(iii) सरकार के कामों के बारे में कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है?
(क) वैज्ञानिक प्रयोगशालाएँ बनवाई हैं।
(ख) विशाल बाँध बनवाए हैं।
(ग) वाहन चालकों को सुधारा है।
(ग) फौलाद के कारखानो खोले हैं।
उत्तर
(ग) फौलाद के कारखानो खोले हैं।

(iv) सरकारी व्यवस्था में किस कमी की ओर लेखक ने संकेत किया है?
(क) गाँव से जुड़ी समस्याओं के निदान में ग्रामीणों की भूमिका को नकारना
(ख) योजनाएँ ठीक से न बनाना
(ग) आधुनिक जानकारी का अभाव
(घ) ज़मीन से जुड़ी समस्याओं की ओर ध्यान न देना
उत्तर
(क) गाँव से जुड़ी समस्याओं के निदान में ग्रामीणों की भूमिका को नकारना

(v) ‘झकझोरकर जागृत करना’ का भाव गद्यांश के अनुसार होगा
(क) नींद से जगाना
(ख) सोने न देना
(ग) ज़िम्मेदारी निभाना
(घ) ज़िम्मेदारियों के प्रति सचेत करना
उत्तर
(घ) ज़िम्मेदारियों के प्रति सचेत करना

अथवा

हरियाणा के पुरात्तव विभाग द्वारा किए गए अब तक के शोध और खुदाई के अनुसार लगभग 5500 हेक्टेयर में फैली यह राजधानी ईसा से लगभग 3300 वर्ष पूर्व मौजूद थी। इन प्रमाणों के आधार पर यह तो तय हो ही गया है कि राखीगढ़ी की स्थापना उससे भी सैकड़ों वर्ष पूर्व हो चुकी थी। अब तक यही माना जाता रहा है कि इस समय पाकिस्तान में स्थित हड़प्पा और मोहनजोदड़ो ही सिंधुकालीन सभ्यता के मुख्य नगर थे। राखीगढ़ी गाँव में खुदाई और शोध का काम रुक-रुककर चल रहा है।

हिसार का यह गाँव दिल्ली से मात्र एक सौ पचास किलोमीटर की दूरी पर है। पहली बार यहाँ 1963 में खुदाई हुई थी और तब इसे सिंधु-सरस्वती सभ्यता का सबसे बड़ा नगर माना गया। उस समय के शोधार्थियों ने सप्रमाण घोषणाएं की थीं कि यहाँ दबा नगर, कभी मोहनजोदड़ो और हड़प्पा से भी बड़ा रहा होगा। अब सभी शोध विशेषज्ञ इस बात पर सहमत हैं कि राखीगढ़ी, भारत-पाकिस्तान और अफगानिस्तान का आकार

और आबादी की दृष्टि से सबसे बड़ा शहर था। प्राप्त विवरणों के अनुसार समुचित रूप से नियोजित इस शहर की सभी सड़कें 1.92 मीटर चौड़ी थीं। यहाँ चौड़ाई कालीबंगन की सड़कों से भी ज्यादा है। एक ऐसा बर्तन भी मिला है, जो सोने और चाँदी की परतों से ढका है। इसी स्थल पर एक ‘फाउंड्री’ के भी चिह्न मिले हैं, जहाँ संभवतः सोना ढाला जाता होगा। इसके अलावा टेराकोटा से बनी असंख्य प्रतिमाएँ, ताँबे के बर्तन और कुछ प्रतिमाएँ और एक भट्ठी के अवशेष भी मिले हैं।

मई 2012 में ‘ग्लोबल हैरिटेज फंड’ ने इसे एशिया के दस ऐसे विरासत-स्थलों की सूची में शामिल किया है, जिनके नष्ट हो जाने का खतरा है। राखीगढ़ी का पुरातात्विक महत्व विशिष्ट है। इस समय यह क्षेत्र पूरे विश्व के पुरातत्व विशेषज्ञों की दिलचस्पी और जिज्ञासा का केंद्र बना हुआ है। यहाँ बहुत से काम बकाया हैं; जो अवशेष मिले हैं, उनका समुचित अध्ययन अभी शेष है। उत्खनन का काम अब भी अधूरा है।

(i) अब सिंधु-सरस्वती सभ्यता का सबसे बड़ा नगर किसे मानने की संभावनाएँ हैं?
(क) मोहनजोदड़ो
(ख) राखीगढ़ी
(ग) हड़प्पा
(घ) कालीबंगा
उत्तर
(क) मोहनजोदड़ो

(ii) चौड़ी सड़कों से स्पष्ट होता है कि
(क) यातायात के साधन थे ।
(ख) अधिक आबादी थी
(ग) शहर नियोजित था
(घ) बड़ा शहर था
उत्तर
(ग) शहर नियोजित था

(iii) इसे एशिया के ‘विरासत स्थलों’ में स्थान मिला, क्योंकि
(क) नष्ट हो जाने का खतरा है।
(ख) सबसे विकसित सभ्यता है।
(ग) इतिहास में इसका नाम सर्वोपरि है।
(घ) यहाँ विकास की तीन परतें मिली हैं।
उत्तर
(क) नष्ट हो जाने का खतरा है।

(iv) पुरातत्व विशेषज्ञ राखीगढ़ी में विशेष रुचि ले रहे हैं, क्योंकि
(क) काफी प्राचीन और बड़ी सभ्यता हो सकती है।
(ख) इसका समुचित अध्ययन शेष है।
(ग) उत्खनन का कार्य अभी अधूरा है।
(घ) इसके बारे में अभी-अभी पता लगा है।
उत्तर
(ग) उत्खनन का कार्य अभी अधूरा है।

(v) उपयुक्त शीर्षक होगा
(क) राखीगढ़ी : एक सभ्यता की संभावना
(ख) सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता
(ग) विलुप्त सरस्वती की तलाश
(घ) एक विस्तृत शहर राखीगढ़ी
उत्तर
(क) राखीगढ़ी : एक सभ्यता की संभावना

अपठित पद्यांश (अंक 5)

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के लिए सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 5 = 5)
अंधकार की गुहा सरीखी उन आँखों से डरता है मन भरा दूर तक उनमें दारुण दैन्य दुख का नीरव रोदन। वह स्वाधीन किसान रहा, अभिमान भरा आँखों में इसका छोड़ उसे मँझधार आज संसार कगार सदृश वह खिसका। लहराते वे खेत दृगों में हुआ बेदखल वह अब जिनसे हँसती थी उसके जीवन की हरियाली जिनके तृन-तृन से आँखों ही में घूमा करता वह उसकी आँखों का तारा कारकुनों की लाठी से जो गया जवानी ही में मारा। बिना दवा-दर्पन के घरनी स्वर्ग चली-आँखें आतीं भर देख-रेख के बिना दुधमुँही बिटिया दो दिन बाद गई मर।

(i) कवि का मन जिन आँखों से डरता है, वे कैसी हैं?
(क) डरावनी
(ख) अंधकार-सी काली
(ग) अंधकार की गुहा-सी
(घ) अंधकार-सी दारुण
उत्तर
(ग) अंधकार की गुहा-सी

(ii) जिन आँखों का वर्णन कवि ने किया है, वे किसकी आँखें हैं?
(क) किसान की
(ख) अंधकार की
(ग) नीरव रोदन की
(घ) स्वाधीन भारत की
उत्तर
(क) किसान की

(iii) किसान की आँखों में अब भी क्या लहराता है?
(क) दैन्य-दुख का दारुण रोदन
(ख) अपने खेत जिनसे वह बेदखल किया गया
(ग) स्वाधीनता का अभिमान
(घ) वह संसार जो कगार सदृश खिसक गया
उत्तर
(क) दैन्य-दुख का दारुण रोदन

(iv) इस पद्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शीर्षक लिखिए।
(क) किसान की पीड़ा
(ख) दारुण दुख
(ग) वे आँखें
(घ) जीवन का अंधकार
उत्तर
(क) किसान की पीड़ा

(v) किसान का बेटा कहाँ गया?
(क) तारा बन गया
(ख) देख-रेख के बिना मर गया
(ग) बिना दवा-दर्पन के स्वर्ग सिधारा
(घ) कारकुन की लाठियों से मारा गया
उत्तर
(क) तारा बन गया

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course A Set 3 with Solutions 1

(i) कवि को आगे बढ़ने की प्रेरणा मिलती है
(क) मंजिल से
(ख) मार्ग-बाधाओं से
(ग) हवाओ से
(घ) तूफ़ानों से
उत्तर
(घ) तूफ़ानों से

(ii) यदि मार्ग में बाधाएँ नहीं आतीं तो
(क) गति संभव नही होती
(ख) निर्माण संभव नहीं होता
(ग) प्रगति संभव नहीं होती
(घ) मार्ग आसान नहीं होता
उत्तर
(क) गति संभव नही होती

(iii) निर्माण की संभावना वहीं होती है जहाँ
(क) तूफ़ान न आए
(ख) अवरोध न आए
(ग) बस्ती न हो
(घ) विनाश हो
उत्तर
(घ) विनाश हो

(iv) कवि धरती पर क्या बसाना चाहता है?
(क) अपना घर
(ख) स्वर्ग
(ग) मंज़िलें
(घ) रास्ते
उत्तर
(ख) स्वर्ग

(v) कवि दुनिया से क्या प्रार्थना कर रहा है?
(क) दुनिया उसके रास्तों पर फूल बिछा दे
(ख) दुनिया उसकी बस्ती को वीरान बना दे
(ग) दुनिया उसकी राह में तूफान उठा दे ।
(घ) दुनिया उसके मार्ग को आसान न बनाए
उत्तर
(ग) दुनिया उसकी राह में तूफान उठा दे ।

व्यावहारिक व्याकरण (अंक 16)

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 4 = 4)
(i) ‘आगे बढ़िए और पुरस्कार प्राप्त कीजिए।’ किस प्रकार का वाक्य है?
(क) सरल वाक्य
(ख) संयुक्त वाक्य
(ग) मिश्र वाक्य
(घ) संकेतवाचक वाक्य
उत्तर
(ख) संयुक्त वाक्य

(ii) मिश्रित वाक्य है
(क) मैंने उससे सेने का कारण पूछा।
(ख) आज रविवार का अवकाश है।
(ग) जब पिता जी ने पैसे दिए तब हम बाज़ार गए।
(घ) मैं बाहर आया और बच्चे मिलने लगे।
उत्तर
(ग) जब पिता जी ने पैसे दिए तब हम बाज़ार गए।

(iii) जहाँ मैं रहती हूँ, वहीं मेट्रो स्टेशन है। रेखांकित उपवाक्य है
(क) संज्ञा उपवाक्य
(ख) सर्वनाम उपवाक्य
(ग) विशेषण उपवाक्य
(घ) क्रियाविशेषण उपवाक्य
उत्तर
(घ) क्रियाविशेषण उपवाक्य

(iv) ‘लाल रंग वाली शर्ट पहने उस लड़के को बुलाओ।’ इसका मिश्र वाक्य है
(क) लाल रंग वाली शर्ट को डाले उस लड़के को बुलाओ।
(ख) जिसने लाल रंग की शर्ट पहनी है, उस लड़के को बुलाओ।
(ग) उस लड़के को बुलाओ जो शर्ट पहले हुए है लाल रंग की।
(घ) कोई नही।
उत्तर
(ख) जिसने लाल रंग की शर्ट पहनी है, उस लड़के को बुलाओ।

(v) ‘जो धन मिला था, वह चोरी हो गया।’ वाक्य में प्रधान उपवाक्य है
(क) जो धन मिला था
(ख) वह चोरी हो गया।
(ग) चोरी हो गया
(घ) धन मिला था।
उत्तर
(ख) वह चोरी हो गया।

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 4 = 4)

(i) ‘कृष्ण द्वारा बंसी बजाई जा रही है।’ वाच्य है
(क) कर्तृवाच्य
(ख) कर्मवाच्य
(ग) भाववाच्य
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ख) कर्मवाच्य

(ii) भाववाच्य है
(क) माली ने फूल तोड़ा
(ख) आइए; खेला जाए।
(ग) अनुराधा के द्वारा पौधे लगाए गए।
(घ) राम ने लीची खाई।
उत्तर
(ख) आइए; खेला जाए।

(iii) कर्मवाच्य है
(क) मेरे भाई ने पतंग उड़ाई।
(ख) मेरे भाई द्वारा पतंग उड़ाई गई।
(ग) उससे सोया नहीं जाता।
(घ) मैं प्रतिदिन व्यायाम करता हूँ।
उत्तर
(ख) मेरे भाई द्वारा पतंग उड़ाई गई।

(iv) ‘मोहन से हँसा नहीं जाता।’ वाक्य है(
क) कर्तृवाक्य
(ख) भाववाक्य
(ग) दोनों
(घ) कर्मवाक्य
उत्तर
(ख) भाववाक्य

(v) ‘राधा के द्वारा गाना गाया गया।’ वाक्य है
(क) कर्तृवाक्य
(ख) भाववाक्य
(ग) कर्मवाक्य
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ग) कर्मवाक्य

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 4 = 4)
(i) दौड़कर आइए और बगीचे से कुछ फल ले जाइए। रेखांकित का पद-परिचय है
(क) पूर्वकालिक क्रिया, रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण
(ख) कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, सकर्मक किया।
(ग) अकर्मक क्रिया, रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, कर्म कारक
(घ) संयुक्त क्रिया, अकर्मक क्रिया, एकवचन
उत्तर
(क) पूर्वकालिक क्रिया, रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषण

(ii) चोर उधर भागा है। इस वाक्य में रेखांकित का पद-परिचय है
(क) रीतिवाचक क्रियाविशेषाण, भागना क्रिया का विशेषण
(ख) कालवाचक क्रियाविशेषाण, भागना क्रिया का विशेषण
(ग) परिमाणवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, भागना क्रिया का विशेषण
(घ) स्थानवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, भागना क्रिया का विशेषण
उत्तर
(घ) स्थानवाचक क्रियाविशेषण, भागना क्रिया का विशेषण

(iii) वाह! तुमने तो रंग ही जमा दिया। रेखांकित का पद-परिचय है
(क) संबंधबोधक अव्यय, हर्ष के भाव की अभिव्यक्ति
(ख) समुच्चबोधक अव्यय, हर्ष के भाव की अभिव्यक्ति
(ग) विस्मयादिबोधक अव्यय, हर्ष के भाव की अभिव्यक्ति
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(ग) विस्मयादिबोधक अव्यय, हर्ष के भाव की अभिव्यक्ति

(iv) मैं लाल रंग की कमीज पहनता हूँ। रेखांकित का पद-परिचय है
(क) उत्तम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक
(ख) निजवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, स्त्रीलिंग, कर्म कारक
(ग) निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम, बहुवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक
(घ) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(क) उत्तम पुरुषवाचक सर्वनाम, एकवचन, पुल्लिंग, कर्ता कारक

(v) छात्र पत्र लिख रहा है। रेखांकित का पद-परिचय है
(क) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक
(ख) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, कर्म कारक
(ग) सकर्मक क्रिया, व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिग
(घ) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा, बहुवचन, कर्ता कारक
उत्तर
(क) जातिवाचक संज्ञा, पुल्लिंग, एकवचन, कर्ता कारक

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों को पढ़कर किन्हीं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 4 = 4)
(i) संचारी भाव क्या है?
(क) पात्रों या वस्तुओं के कारण उत्पन्न भाव
(ख) स्थायी भाव जाग्रत करने वाला भाव
(ग) मन में निरंतर संचारित होने वाले भाव
(घ) आलंबन द्वारा जाग्रत भाव
उत्तर
(ग) मन में निरंतर संचारित होने वाले भाव

(ii) शांत रस का स्थायी भाव है
(क) रौद्र
(ख) हास
(ग) निर्वेद
(घ) जुगुप्सा
उत्तर
(ग) निर्वेद

(iii) किस रस को रस राज कहा जाता है?
(क) शांत रस
(ख) करुण रस
(ग) शृंगार रस
(घ) हास्य रस
उत्तर
(ग) शृंगार रस

(iv) संकट में वीर घबराते नहीं, आपदाएँ देख छिप जाते नहीं। लग गए जिस काम में पूरा किया, काम करके व्यर्थ पछताते नहीं। पक्तियों में निहित रस है
(क) हास्य रस
(ख) वीर रस
(ग) शृंगार रस
(घ) अद्भुत रस
उत्तर
(ख) वीर रस

(v) निम्नलिखित पंक्तियों में रस है
नाक पकौड़ा-सी लगे, रंग बिरंगे गाल।
सूरत है लंगूर-सी, बंदर जैसी चाल।
(क) हास्य रस
(ख) वीर रस
(ग) शृंगार रस
(घ) करुण रस
उत्तर
(क) हास्य रस

पाठ्यपुस्तक (अंक 14)

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 5 = 5)
उनकी चिंता हिंदी को राष्ट्रभाषा के रूप में देखने की थी। हर मंच में इसकी तकलीफ़ बयान करते, इसके लिए अकाट्य तर्क देते। बस इसी एक सवाल पर उन्हें झुंझलाते देखा है और हिंदी वालों द्वारा हिंदी की उपेक्षा पर दुख करते उन्हें पाया है। घर-परिवार के बारे में, निजी दुख तकलीफ़ के बारे में पूछना उनका स्वभाव था और बड़े से बड़े दुख में उनके मुख से सांत्वना के जादू भरे दो शब्द सुनना एक ऐसी रोशनी से भर देता था जो किसी गहरी तपस्या गार रस से जनमती है। ‘हर मौत दिखाती है जीवन को नई राह।’ मुझे अपनी पत्नी और पुत्र की मृत्यु याद आ रही है और फ़ादर के शब्दों में झरती विरल शांति भी।

(i) फ़ादर को किस भाषा से प्रेम था?
(क) हिंदी भाषा से
(ख) अपनी मातृभाषा से
(ग) अंग्रजी भाषा से
(ग) फ्रेंच भाषा से
उत्तर
(क) हिंदी भाषा से

(ii) फ़ादर की झुंझलाहट किस कारण थी?
(क) लोगों के सवालों के कारण
(ख) घर-परिवार की दुख-तकलीफ़ों के कारण
(ग) हिंदीभाषियों द्वारा खुद ही हिंदी की उपेक्षित स्थिति के कारण
(घ) हिंदी भाषा को राष्ट्रभाषा का दर्जा न दिलवा पाने के कारण
उत्तर
(ग) हिंदीभाषियों द्वारा खुद ही हिंदी की उपेक्षित स्थिति के कारण

(iii) ‘हर मौत दिखाती है जीवन को नई राह’ का आशय है
(क) मौत के बाद ही मुक्ति है ।
(ख) मौत पुनर्जन्म के लिए राह बनाती है
(ग) मौत शाश्वत है, सत्य है, अतः मौत पर दुखी न हों
(घ) (क) एवं (ख) दोनों विकल्प सही
उत्तर
(ग) मौत शाश्वत है, सत्य है, अतः मौत पर दुखी न हों

(iv) सांत्वना भरे एक शब्द सुनने वाले पर क्या प्रभाव डालते थे?
(क) जादू-सा चमत्कारी प्रभाव
(ख) आशा से भर देते थे
(ग) असीम शांति का अनुभव कराते थे
(घ) सभी विकल्प सही
उत्तर
(घ) सभी विकल्प सही

(v) उपेक्षा का विलोम है
(क) सापेक्ष
(ख) अपेक्षा
(ग) परोक्ष
(घ) प्रत्यक्ष
उत्तर
(ख) अपेक्षा

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 2 = 2)
(i) भगत जी का बेटा कैसा था?
(क) समझदार
(ख) सुस्त और बोदा
(ग) बुद्धिमान
(घ) चालाक
उत्तर
(क) समझदार

(ii) लेखक के अलावा कोच में कितने व्यक्ति थे?
(क) एक
(ख) तीन
(ग) दो
(घ) चार
उत्तर
(क) एक

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 5 = 5 )
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course A Set 3 with Solutions 2

(i) किसके साँस लेने से हर घर खुशबू से भर उठता है?
(क) शरद के
(ख) वसंत के
(ग) ग्रीष्म के
(घ) वर्षा के
उत्तर
(ख) वसंत के

(ii) वसंत आसमान में उड़ने के लिए क्या करता है?
(क) लंबी साँसें लेता है।
(ख) अपने पंख फड़फड़ाता है
(ग) आँखें झपकाता है
(घ) सभी गलत
उत्तर
(ख) अपने पंख फड़फड़ाता है

(iii) फागुन में ऐसा क्या होता है जो बाकी ऋतुओं से भिन्न होता है?
(क) पेड़ों में नए पत्ते निकलते हैं
(ख) नाना प्रकार के फूल खिलते हैं।
(ग) हवा में फूलों की मादक सुगंध भरी हुई होती है
(घ) सभी विकल्प सही
उत्तर
(घ) सभी विकल्प सही

(iv) कवि की आँख फागुन की सुंदरता से क्यों हट नहीं रही है?
(क) फागुन अच्छा लगता है
(ख) फागुन की सुंदरता गजब की है
(ग) फागुन हिंदी का माह है
(घ) सभी गलत
उत्तर
(ख) फागुन की सुंदरता गजब की है

(v) कविता के कवि हैं
(क) सूरदास
(ख) ऋतुराज
(ग) सूर्यकांत त्रिपाठी निराला ङ्के
(घ) तुलसीदास
उत्तर
(ग) सूर्यकांत त्रिपाठी निराला ङ्के

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर विकल्पों में से चुनकर लिखिए। (1 x 2 = 2)
(i) गोपियों ने योग संदेश किसके लिए उपयोगी बताया है?
(क) जिनका मन चकरी के समान है
(ख) जिनका मन शांत है
(ग) जो कृष्ण के प्रेम में डूबा है।
(घ) कोई नहीं
उत्तर
(क) जिनका मन चकरी के समान है

(ii) परशुराम पृथ्वी जीतकर किसे दान कर चुके हैं?
(क) माता-पिता को
(ख) गुरु को
(ग) राजाओं को
(घ) ब्राह्मणों को
उत्तर
(घ) ब्राह्मणों को

खंड ‘ब’- वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न (अंक 40)

पाठ्यपुस्तक एवं पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक (अंक 20)

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 x 4 = 8)

(क) बालगोबिन भगत के गीतों का खेतों में काम करते हुए और आते-जाते नर-नारियों पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता था?
(ख) ‘लखनवी अंदाज़’ रचना के नवाब साहब की सनक को आप कहाँ तक उचित ठहराते हैं? क्यों?
(ग) फादर बुल्के ने भारत में रहते हुए हिंदी के उत्थान के लिए क्या कार्य किए?
(घ) फ़ादर की उपस्थिति देवदार की छाया जैसी क्यों लगती थी?
उत्तर
(क) बालगोबिन भगत का संगीत हर आयु वर्ग के लोगों पर समान रूप से असर करता था। उनके मधुर गान को सुनकर बच्चे झूम उठते थे, मेंड़ पर खड़ी औरतों के होंठ गुनगुना उठते थे, हलवाहों के पैर ताल से उठने से लगते थे और रोपनी करने वालों की अँगुलियाँ क्रम से चलने लगती थीं।

(ख) ‘लखनवी अंदाज़’ रचना में नवाब साहब की सनक को किसी भी दृष्टिकोण से उचित नहीं ठहराया जा सकता है, क्योंकि झूठी आन-बान का बनावटी जीवन जीना उचित नहीं है। ऐसा करके बनावटी रईसी तो दिखाई जा सकती है, पर इससे कुछ हासिल होने वाला नहीं है, बल्कि इससे खुद को तकलीफ़ हो होगी।

(ग) फादर बुल्के ने 47 वर्ष भारत में रहकर निम्नलिखित कार्य किए

  • प्रयाग विश्वविद्यालय के हिंदी विभाग में रहकर 1950 ई० में शोध-प्रबंध-रामकथा : उत्पति और विकास पूर्ण किया।
  • ‘ब्लू बर्ड’ का ‘नीलपंछी’ नाम से हिंदी रूपांतर किया।
  • अंग्रेज़ी-हिंदी शब्दकोश तैयार किया।
  • बाइबिल का हिंदी में अनुवाद किया।
  • सेंट जेवियर्स कॉलेज राँची में हिंदी तथा संस्कृत विभाग के विभागाध्यक्ष रहे।

(घ) देवदार का वृक्ष आकार में लंबा-चौड़ा होता है तथा छायादार भी। फ़ादर बुल्के का व्यक्तित्व भी कुछ ऐसा ही था। जिस प्रकार देवदार का वृक्ष वृहदाकार होने के कारण लोगों को छाया देकर शीतलता प्रदान करता है, ठीक उसी प्रकार फादर बुल्के भी अपने शरण में आए लोगों को आश्रय देते थे तथा दुख के समय में सांत्वना के वचनों द्वारा उनको शीतलता प्रदान करते थे।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 x 3 = 6)
(क) ‘अट नहीं रही है’ कविता में ‘उड़ने को नभ में तुम पर-पर कर देते हो’ के आलोक में बताइए कि फागुन लोगों के मन को किस तरह प्रभावित करता है?
(ख) परशुराम के प्रति लक्ष्मण के व्यवहार पर अपने विचार लिखिए।
(ग) माँ ने बेटी को सचेत करना क्यों ज़रूरी समझा?
उत्तर
(क) फागुन में प्रकृति में हर तरफ़ हरियाली तथा फूलों का सौंदर्य दिखाई पड़ता है। इसका प्रभाव मानव मन पर पड़े बिना नहीं रहता। इस समय मनुष्य प्रसन्न रहता है तथा उसका मन आकाश में उड़ने को करता है। वह इसकी कल्पनाओं में खो जाता है। उसे ऐसा लगता है मानो वह आकाश में उड़ रहा हो।

(ख) परशुराम को ब्राह्मण जानकर लक्ष्मण ने उनके प्रति अपने व्यवहार को काफी हद तक नियंत्रित रखा। उन्होंने उनके क्रोध को शांत करने के लिए उनको वीरव्रती, धैर्यवान तथा अक्षोभा कहा। लेकिन उनके द्वारा अपनी खुद की वीरता का गुणगान करने पर उनको रणक्षेत्र में युद्ध कर अपनी योग्यता प्रदर्शित करने को भी कहा। इस प्रकार लक्ष्मण का परशुराम के प्रति व्यवहार मिला-जुला रहा।

(ग) बेटी अभी सयानी नहीं थी, उसकी उम्र भी कम थी और वह समाज में व्याप्त बुराइयों से अनजान थी। माँ यह नहीं चाहती थी कि उसके साथ जो अन्याय हुए, वे सब उसकी बेटी को भी सहने पड़ें। इसलिए माँ ने बेटी को सचेत करना ज़रूरी समझा।

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40-50 शब्दों में लिखिए।

(क) ‘बच्चे रोना-धोना, पीड़ा, आपसी झगड़े ज़्यादा देर तक अपने साथ नहीं रख सकते हैं।’ ‘माता का अँचल’ पाठ के आधार पर इस कथन को उदाहरण सहित स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(ख) जॉर्ज पंचम की लाट की टूटी नाक लगाने के क्रम में पुरातत्व विभाग की फाइलों की छानबीन की ज़रूरत क्यों आ गई?
(ग) यात्राएँ विभिन्न संस्कृतियों से परिचित होने का अच्छा माध्यम है। ‘साना-साना हाथ जोड़ि’ यात्रा वृत्तांत के आधार पर इस कथन की समीक्षा कीजिए।
उत्तर
(क) बच्चे रोना-धोना, पीड़ा, आपसी झगड़े ज़्यादा देर तक नहीं रख पाते हैं। उनके बीच इनकी अनुभूति जितनी जल्दी होती है, उतनी ही जल्दी समाप्त भी हो जाती है। इसका कारण उनके मन का सच्चा तथा भोला होना है। इसी कारण वे बड़ों से भिन्न होते हैं। इस कथन को पुष्टि के प्रमाण ‘माता का अँचल’ पाठ में अनेक जगहों पर है; जैसे- खेल के साथियों को देखकर बालक भोलानाथ का सिसकना भूलकर बाबू जी को गोद में उतर जाना तथा खेलों में लग जाना।

(ख) जॉर्ज पंचम की लाट की टूटी नाक लगाने के क्रम में एक मूर्तिकार को बुलाया गया, जिसे लाट की नाक लगाने के लिए यह जानकारी चाहिए थी कि वह लाट कब और कहाँ बनी थी तथा उसका पत्थर कहाँ से लाया गया था? इस प्रश्न का उत्तर किसी अधिकारी के पास नहीं था. इसलिए इस प्रश्न का उत्तर पता करने की जिम्मेदारी एक क्लर्क को दी गई, जिसने पुरातत्व विभाग की फाइलों की छानबीन की, मगर कुछ भी पता नहीं चला। क्योंकि फाइलें सब कुछ हजम कर गई थीं।

(ग) यात्राएँ विभिन्न संस्कृतियों से परिचित होने का अच्छा माध्यम हैं। इस बात की पुष्टि ‘साना-साना हाथ जोड़ि’ यात्रा वृत्तांत से होती है। इसमें लेखिका अपनी हिमालीय प्रदेशों की यात्रा के दौरान सिक्कम के विभिन्न दर्शनीय स्थानों पर गई हैं, जहाँ उन्हें विभिन्न संस्कृतियों, भाषा, रहन-सहन तथा अन्य चीज़ों को नज़दीक से देखने का मौका मिलता है। इनको जानने-समझने का उन्हें तभी मौका मिला जब वे यात्रा करके गईं, अन्यथा उन्हें इसका मौका नहीं मिलता। यह बात इसकी पुष्टि करता है कि संस्कृतियों को जानने में यात्राओं का बहुत बड़ा योगदान है।

लेखन (अंक 20)

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर दिए गए संकेत-बिंदुओं के आधार पर लगभग 80-100 शब्दों में अनुच्छेद लिखिए। (1 x 5 = 5)
(क) व्यायाम का महत्व
संकेत-बिंदु-

  • आवश्यकता
  • लाभ
  • चयन।

(ख) मीठी वाणी
संकेत-बिंदु-

  • मधुर वाणी : एक वरदान
  • प्रभाव और प्रयोग
  • जीवन में महत्व।

(ग) ग्लोबल वार्मिंग
संकेत-बिंदु-

  • क्या है?
  • प्रभाव
  • इससे कैसे बचें
  • निष्कर्ष।

उत्तर
(क) कहावत है कि स्वस्थ शरीर में ही स्वस्थ मन का विकास होता है। स्वस्थ मन में अच्छे विचार आते हैं। अच्छी आदतें अपनाकर हम स्वस्थ रह सकते हैं। जैसे सुबह टहलने से शरीर में चुस्ती-फुर्ती आती है। इसलिए सुबह में टहलना चाहिए तथा थोड़ा व्यायाम भी करना चाहिए। खाना खाने के बाद व्यायाम नहीं करना चाहिए। छोटे बच्चों को थोड़ा टहलना चाहिए। कबड्डी तथा इस तरह के विभिन्न खेल खेलने चाहिए।

स्वस्थ रहने के लिए नियम के अनुसार चलना चाहिए। समय पर खाना-पीना चाहिए। समय पर सभी काम करके व्यक्ति स्वस्थ रह सकता है। व्यायाम करने से धमनियाँ सही काम करती हैं और शरीर के सभी अंग ठीक रहने हैं तथा सही काम करते हैं। सुबह पार्क में टहलने से आँख की ज्योति बढ़ती है।

इस प्रकार हमें स्वस्थ और खुश रहना चाहिए। व्यायाम के अनेक प्रकार हैं। अपने शरीर की आवश्यकता के अनुसार हमें ऐसा व्यायाम चुनना चाहिए जो हमारी शारीरिक आवश्यकता पूर्ण करने के अलावा हमारी पहुँच में हो और साथ ही यदि वह हमारे लिए रुचिकर भी हो, तो सोने पे सुहागा होगा।

(ख) मनुष्य के जीवन में उसके द्वारा बोली गई वाणी ही उसे प्रिय या अप्रिय बनाती है। मधुर वाणी बोलने वाला व्यक्ति सभी को प्रिय लगता है और वहीं दूसरी तरफ किसी मनुष्य में अपार गुण होते हुए भी यदि उसकी वाणी में मधुरता नहीं है तो वह किसी को भी पसंद नहीं आता।

इसे हम कौआ और कोयल के उदाहरण द्वारा अच्छी तरह से समझ सकते हैं। क्योंकि दोनों का स्वरूप देखने में तो एक समान ही है, परंतु वाणी से दोनों के गुणों की पहचान हो जाती है। कोयल सबको प्रिय लगती है क्योंकि उसकी वाणी में मधुरता होती है और कौआ सबको अप्रिय लगता है क्योंकि उसकी वाणी में कर्कशता होती है।

कौए की कर्कश आवाज़ और कोयल की मधुर वाणी को सुनकर हम दोनों के गुण जान जाते हैं। मानव अपनी मधुर वाणी से शत्रु को भी अपना मित्र बना लेता है, मधुर वचनों को बोलने से बोलने वाले तथा सुनने वाले दोनों को ही शांति एवं आनंद की अनुभूति होती है। भाई-चारे का वातावरण बना रहता है तथा मानव समाज में प्रतिष्ठा एवं सम्मान प्राप्त कर पाता है। हमारे भारतवर्ष में विद्वानों और कवियों ने भी मधुर वचन की औषधि की संज्ञा दी है। इसलिए प्रत्येक मनुष्य को अहंकार और क्रोध का त्याग करके मीठी वाणी बोलकर सबका मन हरना चाहिए।

(ग) ग्लोबल वार्मिंग शब्द पृथ्वी के तापमान में होने वाली वृद्धि को दर्शाता है। यह एक ऐसी समस्या है, जिस पर काबू नहीं किया गया तो यह पूरी पृथ्वी को ही नष्ट कर देगी। ग्लोबल वार्मिंग पूरे विश्व में एक मुख्य वायुमंडलीय मुद्दा बन गया है। सूरज की रोशनी को लगातार ग्रहण करते हुए हमारी पृथ्वी दिनों-दिन गर्म होती जा रही है, जिससे वातावरण में कॉर्बन डाइऑक्साइड का स्तर बढ़ रहा है।

इसके लगातार बढ़ते दुष्प्रभावों से इनसानों को बड़ी समस्याएं हो रही हैं। सीएफसी-11 और सीएफसी-12 जैसी ग्रीन हाउस गैसों ने सूरज के थर्मल विकिरण को अवशोषित करके पृथ्वी के वातावरण को गर्म बना दिया। ये गैसें सूर्य की किरणों को वायुमंडल में प्रवेश तो करने देती हैं, लेकिन उससे होने वाली विकिरण को वायुमंडल से बाहर नहीं जाने देती हैं।

इसी को ग्रीनहाउस प्रभाव कहा जाता है, जो पूरे विश्व में तापमान में वृद्धि के लिए जिम्मेदार है। तापमान में वृद्धि से वर्षा-चक्र, पारिस्थितिक संतुलन, मौसम का चक्र आदि प्रभावित होते हैं। यह वनस्पति और कृषि को भी प्रभावित करता है, जिसके कारण हमें दुनिया भर में बाढ़ और सूखे जैसी परिस्थितियों का सामाना करना पड़ता है। तापमान में वृद्धि और ग्लेशियरों के पिघलने के कारण बर्फबारी जैसी घटनाओं में भी कमी आई है। तापमान में वृद्धि से आद्रता में भी वृद्धि हुई है क्योंकि तापमान में वृद्धि से वाष्पीकरण की दर में वृद्धि हुई है।

स्थानीय सरकारों को चाहिए कि वे लोगों के बीच जागरूकता पैदा करें तथा ऐसे उपकरणों और वाहनों की बिक्री को प्रोत्साहित करें जो पर्यावरण के अनुकूल हों। पेपर, प्लास्टिक और अन्य सामग्रियों की रीसाइक्लिंग को प्रोत्साहित करना चाहिए। ऐसे प्रयासों को लोगों द्वारा जमीनी स्तर पर करना अत्यंत आवश्यक है, तभी हम प्रभावी तरीके से इस भयानक समस्या का मुकाबला कर सकते हैं। इससे मुकाबला करने के हम सभी को एक साथ आगे आना चाहिए और धरती पर जीवन को बचाने के लिए इस समस्या का समाधान करना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 15.
सार्वजनिक स्थलों पर बढ़ते हुए धूम्रपान तथा उसके कारण संभावित रोगों की ओर संकेत करते हुए किसी दैनिक समाचार-पत्र के संपादक को 80-100 शब्दों में पत्र लिखिए।
(5 x 1 =5 )
अथवा
आपके छोटे भाई/बहन ने एक आवासीय विद्यालय में एक मास पूर्व ही प्रवेश लिया है। उसको मित्रों के चुनाव में सावधानी बरतने के लिए समझाते हुए एक पत्र 80-100 शब्दों में लिखिए।
उत्तर
परीक्षा भवन
च०छ०ज० शहर
दिनांक : 10 नवंबर, 20xx
संपादक महोदय
नवभारत टाइम्स
नई दिल्ली
विषय- सार्वजनिक स्थानों पर बढ़ते धूम्रपान तथा उसके कारण संभावित रोगों के संबंध में। मान्यवर मैं आपके लोकप्रिय समाचार-पत्र के माध्यम से संबंधित अधिकारियों का ध्यान सार्वजनिक स्थानों पर बढ़ते धूम्रपान की समस्या की ओर दिलाना चाहता हूँ। इन दिनों ऐसे स्थानों पर धूम्रपान न करने के कानून के बावजूद लोग बेधड़क होकर धूम्रपान करते हैं। इसका कारण कानून का कड़ाई से पालन न कराया जाना है। अगर कानून का कड़ाई से पालन कराया जाय, तो लोग डरेंगे तथा ऐसा नहीं करेंगे। साथ ही लोगों को भी खुद पर नियंत्रण करना चाहिए, क्योंकि इससे उन्हें साँस की बीमारियाँ हो सकती हैं। कृपया मेरे पत्र को अपने समाचार-पत्र में शामिल करें ताकि अधिकारीगण सचेत हो सकें तथा आम जनता भी जागरूक हो सके।
धन्यवाद।
प्रार्थी
क०ख०ग०

अथवा

परीक्षा भवन
च०छ०ज० शहर
दिनांक : 10 अप्रैल, 20xx
प्रिय मोहित
शुभ प्यार! तुम्हारा पत्र मिला। जानकार अच्छा लगा कि तुम्हें अपने आवासीय विद्यालय में कुछ खास समस्या नहीं आई तथा तुम्हारा पढ़ाई में मन लगने लगा है। मोहित तुम अभी छोटे हो तथा तुम पहली बार हमसे दूर हॉस्टल में रहकर पढ़ाई करने गए हो। इस स्थिति में तुम्हें कुछ खास बातों का ध्यान रखना चाहिए। तुम्हें नियमित कार्यों में, अपने स्वास्थ्य पर, पढ़ाई-लिखाई की नियमितता पर तथा मित्रों के चुनाव पर विशेष ध्यान देना चाहिए ताकि तुम्हारे मित्र तुम्हारे लिए मददगार साबित हो सकें, न कि मुसीबत बन जाएँ। तुम्हें समझदार, पढ़ाई-लिखाई में तेज़ तथा अच्छी आदतों वाले छात्रों को अपना मित्र बनाना चाहिए, जिससे तुम उनसे कुछ सीख सको तथा उन्हें भी तुमसे कुछ जानने-समझने का मौका मिले। शेष सब कुशल है, उम्मीद है, तुम मेरी बातों पर गौर करोगे तथा आगे अच्छा करते जाओगे। सभी तुम्हें प्यार बोल रहे हैं। पत्र का जवाब देना।
तुम्हारी बहन
क०ख०ग०

प्रश्न 16.
नगर में आयोजित होने वाली भारत की सांस्कृतिक एकता प्रदर्शनी को देखने के लिए लोगों को आमंत्रित करते हुए 25-50 शब्दों में एक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए। (5 x 1 =5)
अथवा
प्रदूषण से बचने के लिए जनहित में जारी एक विज्ञापन पर्यावरण विभाग की ओर से 25-50 शब्दों में लिखिए।
उत्तर
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course A Set 3 with Solutions 3
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course A Set 3 with Solutions 4

प्रश्न 17.
अपने प्रिय मित्रों को होली हेतु शुभकामना संदेश लिखिए।
अथवा
अपने भाई को दसवीं के परीक्षा-फल में प्रदेश में पहला स्थान मिला है, उसके लिए बधाई संदेश लिखिए।
उत्तर

संदेश

12 मार्च, 20xx
प्रिय मित्रो
होली मिलन की हार्दिक शुभकामनाएँ। रंगों के इस त्योहार में यही कामना करता हूँ कि आप सब स्वस्थ व दीर्घायु रहें। आपका परिवार सदैव खुश रहे। होली के ये रंग आपके संसार में खुशियों के रंग बिखेर दें। हमेशा मीठी रहे आप सबकी बोली, इस होली में खुशियों से भर जाए आपकी झोली।
आपका मित्र
संजीव

बधाई संदेश

15 जून, 20xx
प्रिय अनुज हरीश
दसवीं के परीक्षाफल में प्रदेश में पहला स्थान पाने की हार्दिक शुभकामनाएँ। मैं सदा ईश्वर से यही कामना करता हूँ कि तुम इसी प्रकार से परिवार का नाम रोशन करो, तरक्की करो, जीवन में आकाश की बुलंदियों को छुओ। इसी प्रकार परिश्रम करते रहना और आगे बढ़ते रहना। मेरा आशीष और दुलार सदा तुम्हारे साथ है।
तुम्हारा बड़ा भाई
रूपेश

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 5 for Practice

tudents can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic with Solutions and marking scheme Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 5 for Practice

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper contains two parts, A and B.
2. Both Part A and Part B have internal choices.

Part-A:
1. It consists of two sections, I and II.
2. Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.
3. Section II has 4 questions on case study. Each case study has 5 case-based sub-parts. An examinee is to attempt any 4 out of 5 sub-parts.

Part-B:
1. It consists of three sections III, IV and V.
2. In section III, Question Nos. 21 to 26 are Very Short Answer Type questions of 2 marks each.
3. In section IV, Question Nos. 27 to 33 are Short Answer Type questions of 3 marks each.
4. In section V, Question Nos. 34 to 36 are Long Answer Type questions of 5 marks each.
5. Internal choice is provided in 2 questions of 2 marks, 2 questions of 3 marks and 1 question of 5 marks.

Part – A
Section-I

Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.

Question 1.
Find the common solution of ax + by = c and y-axis.
Solution :
\(\left(0, \frac{c}{b}\right)\)

Question 2.
If P\(\mathrm{P}\left(\frac{a}{3}, 4\right)\) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points
Q(-6, 5) and R(-2, 3), then what is the value of a?
Solution :
a = – 2

Question 3.
In the given AP, find the missing terms:……….
OR
What will be the value of a8 – a4 for the following A.P. 9, 14 ……….  254
Solution :
18 , 8 OR 20

Question 4.
Find the value of \(\frac{\sin \theta}{\sqrt{1-\sin ^{2} \theta}}\)
Solution :
tan θ

Question 5.
Find the value of k for which the given system has unique solution. 2x + 3y – 5 = 0, kx-6y- 8 = 0
Solution :
k ≠ -4

Question 6.
If \(\sec \theta=\frac{25}{7}\) then find tan θ
OR
If \(\cos \theta=\frac{3}{5}, \text { then find } \frac{\sin \theta-\cot \theta}{2 \tan \theta}\)
Solution :
\(\frac{24}{7} \text { OR } \frac{3}{160}\)

Question 7.
In the given figure, AB is a chord of the circle and ∠ACB = 50°. If AT is the tangent to the circle at the point A, then find the value of ∠BAT.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 5 for Practice 1
To divide a line segment AB in the ratio 4 : 5, first a ray AX is drawn making ∠BAX an acute angle and then points A1 A2, A3,… at equal distances are marked on the ray AX. At what point is point B joined?
Solution :
50° OR A9

Question 8.
Write a rational number between \(\sqrt{2} \text { and } \sqrt{3}\) ?
Solution :
1.666………..

Question 9.
Find the roots of quadratic equation x2 – 7 x = 0.
Solution :
0,7

Question 10.
If one zero of the quadratic polynomial x2 – 5x – 6 is 6, then find its other zero.
Solution :
-1

Question 11.
If xi are the mid-points of the class intervals of grouped data, fi are the corresponding frequencies and \(\bar{x}\) is the mean, then find the value of \(\Sigma\left(f_{i} x_{i}-\bar{x}\right)\)
Solution :
0

Question 12.
Find the arithmetic mean of 1, 2, 3,…. n
Solution :
\(\frac{n+1}{2}\)

Question 13.
Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of obtaining a total score of 5?
OR
A die is thrown once. What is the probability of getting a number greater than 4?
Solution :
\(\frac{1}{9} \text { OR } \frac{1}{3}\)

Question 14.
Find the class mark of classes 10-25 and 35-55.
OR
Find the value of x, if the mode of the following data is 25.
15, 20, 25, 18, 14, 15, 25, 15, 18, 16, 20, 25, 20, x, 18
Solution :
17.5,45 OR 25

Question 15.
Find the value of p if the lines represented by the equations 3x – y – 5 = 0 and 6x – 2y -p = 0 are parallel.
Solution :
All real valuex of ‘p’ except ’10’

Question 16.
In ΔABC, AB = 6√3 cm, AC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm, then find ∠B
Solution :
90°

Section-II

Case Study Based-1

Case study-based questions are compulsory. Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

Question 17.
A boy goes to the market v/ith his mom. He sees a toy and wants to buy it. This toy is in the form of a cone mounted on a hemisphere of common base of radius 7 cm. The total height of the toy is 31 cm. Now answer questions (I) to (v).
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 5 for Practice 2

(i) What is the curved surface area of hemisphere?
(a) 309 cm2
(b) 308 cm2
(c) 803 cm 2
(d) 903 cm2
Solution :
(b) 308 cm2

(ii) Write the formula to find curved surface area of cone?
(a) πrl
(b) πl
(c) πr(l + r)
(d) 2πr
Solution :
(a) πrl

(iii) Slant height of a cone is ………
(a) 26 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 52 cm
(d) 62 cm
Solution :
(b) 25 cm

(iv) What is the curved surface area of cone?
(a) 505 cm2
(b) 55 cm2
(c) 550 cm2
(d) 555 cm2
Solution :
(c) 550 cm2

(v) Find the total surface area of the toy.
(a) 858 cm2
(b)885 cm2
(c) 588 cm2
(d) 855 cm2
Solution :
(a) 858 cm2

Case Study Based-2

Question 18.
To conduct sports day activities, in your rectangular shaped school ground ABCD, lines have been drawn with chalk powder at a distance of 1 m each. 100 flower pots have been placed at a distance of 1 m from each other along AD, as shown in figure given below. Niharika runs \(\frac{1}{4} \text { th }\) the distance AD on the 2nd line and posts a green flag. Preet runs \(\frac{1}{5} \mathrm{th}\) the distance.
AD on the eighth line and posts a red flag.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 5 for Practice 3
Answer questions (i) to (v)

(i) Write the coordinates of point N.
(a) (1,25)
(b) (2,25)
(c) (4, 25)
(d) (3,25)
Solution :
(b) (2,25)

(ii) Write the coordinates of point P.
(a) (2, 80)
(b) (8,2)
(c) (8,20)
(d) (2, 8)
Solution :
(c) (8,20)

(iii) What is the distance between green and red flags?
(a) \(\sqrt{63} \mathrm{~m}\)
(b) \(\sqrt{26} \mathrm{~m}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{62} \mathrm{~m}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{61} \mathrm{~m}\)
Solution :
(d) \(\sqrt{61} \mathrm{~m}\)

(iv) What is the coordinates of R?
(a) (5,22)
(b) (5,22.5)
(c) (22.5, 5)
(d) (22,5)
Solution :
(b) (5,22.5)

(v) Distance between Niharika and Rashmi is ……….
(a) 3.90 m
(b) 4.01 m
(c) 3.06 m
(d) 5.10 m
Solution :
(a) 3.90 m

Case Study Based-3

Question 19.
Some students of class-Xth get together and decide to form a design by combining different mathematical shapes. First of all they select a triangle ABC with AB = 3 cm, AC = 4 cm and ∠B AC = 90°. They draw semicircles on sides AB, AC and BC but they have some doubts which they want to clarify with you. So, answer their questions given below:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 5 for Practice 4

(i) The length of side BC is ………
(a) 5 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) 16 cm
Solution :
(a) 5 cm

(ii) Area of semicircle on side AB is ……….
(a) \(\frac{3}{2} \pi \mathrm{cm}^{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{9}{8} \pi \mathrm{cm}^{2}\)
(c) 9 π cm2
(d) 4 π cm2
Solution :
(b) \(\frac{9}{8} \pi \mathrm{cm}^{2}\)

(iii) Area of semicircle on side AC is ……..
(a) 4 π cm2
(b) 2 π cm2
(c) 9 π cm2
(d) 16 π cm2
Solution :
(b) 2 π cm2

(iv) Area of given figure is ………
(a) \(\left(\frac{9}{4} \pi+6\right) \mathrm{cm}^{2}\)
(b) \(\left(\frac{16 \pi}{9}+6\right) \mathrm{cm}^{2}\)
(c) \(\left(\frac{25 \pi}{8}+6\right) \mathrm{cm}^{2}\)
(d) \(\left(\frac{4 \pi}{25}+6\right) \mathrm{cm}^{2}\)
Solution :
(c) \(\left(\frac{25 \pi}{8}+6\right) \mathrm{cm}^{2}\)

(v) Find the area of the shaded region.
(a) 6 cm2
(b) 8 cm2
(c) 10 cm2
(d) 12 cm2
Solution :
(a) 6 cm2

Case Study Based-4

Question 20.
A human chain is to be formed in concentric form of radius 56 m and 63 m at India Gate. But the organiser has some problems, he wants you to solve his problems. Give answer to his questions by using information given in the question :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 5 for Practice 5

(i) The circumference of circular chain of radius 56 m is
(a) 352 m
(b) 176 m
(c) 704 m
(d) 88 m
Solution :
(a) 352 m

(ii) The area covered by circular chain of radius 56 m is
(a) 5544 m2
(b) 3850 m2
(c) 9856 m2
(d) 12474 m2
Solution :
(c) 9856 m2

(iii) If each person is given two metres of space to stand, find how many persons can be accomodated in the chain of radius 56 m.
(a) 126 persons
(b) 176 persons
(c) 156 persons
(d) 186 persons
Solution :
(b) 176 persons

(iv) He wants to include one more concentric circle with a radius of 63 m, the circumference of the new circle will be
(a) 156 m
(b) 396 m
(c) 176 m
(d) 288 m
Solution :
(b) 396 m

(v) How many more persons can he accomodate on the new circle:
(a) 198 persons
(b) 156 persons
(c) 176 persons
(d) 186 persons
Solution :
(a) 198 persons

Part-B
Section-III

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt anyone.

Question 21.
Find the median of the following distribution:

X 10 12 14 16 18 20
fi 3 5 6 4 4 3

If the mean of the following distribution is 54, find the value of P.

Class 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100
Frequency 7 P 10 9 13

Solution :
14.8 OR 11

Question 22.
State fundamental theorem of Arithmetic and hence find the unique factorization of 120.
Solution :
2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 5

Question 23.
In the given figure ∠M = ∠N = 46°, express x in terms of a, b and c, where a, b and c are lengths of LM, MN and NK respectively.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 5 for Practice 6
Solution :
\(x=\frac{a c}{b+c}\)

Question 24.
If \(x=\frac{2}{3}\) and x = – 3 are roots of the quadratic equation ax2 + 7x + b = O. Find the value of a and b.
Solution :
a = 3,b = -6

Question 25.
If A = 30°, verity that tan 2A \(=\frac{2 \tan A}{1-\tan ^{2} A}\)
OR
Prove that: tan2 30° + tan2 45° + tan2 60° = \(\frac{13}{3}\)

Question 26.
1000 tickets of a lottery were sold and there are 5 prizes on these tickets. If John has purchased one lottery ticket, what is the probability of winning a prize?
Solution :
\(\frac{1}{200}\)

Section – IV

Question 27.
Prove that 5 – 2/3 is irrational.

Question 28.
In the given figure, AB || DE and BD || EF. Prove that DC2 = CF x AC.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 5 for Practice 7

Question 29.
In the given figure, AP and BP are tangents to a circle with centre O, such that AP = 5 cm and ∠APB = 60°. Find the length of chord AB.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 5 for Practice 8
Solution :
5cm

Question 30.
The eighth term of an AP is half its second term and the eleventh term exceeds one-third of its fourth term by 1. Find the 15th term.                                                                      OR
The sum of three numbers of an AP is 27 and their product is 405. Find the numbers.
Solution :
3 OR 3,9,15 or 15,9,3

Question 31.
If a tower is 30 m height, casts a shadow 10√3 along on the ground. Find the angle of elevation of the Sun.
Solution :
60°

Question 32.
Check whether the pair of equations 3x +y – 2 = 0, 2x – 3y – 5 = 0 is consistent. If so, solve them graphically.
Solution :
Consistent, X= 1,y = -1

Question 33.
Draw a pair of tangents to a circle of radius 4 cm, which are inclined to each other at an angle of 60°.                              OR
Draw a line segment of length 8 cm and divide it in the ratio 2:3.
Solution :
OR 7cm

Section-V

Question 34.
A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and is surmounted by a flagstaff of height 5 m. From a point on the ground the angles of elevation of the top and bottom of the flagstaff are 60° and 30° Find the height of the tower and the distance of the point from base of the tower. [Take √3 = 1.732]
OR
A tree breaks down due to storm and the broken part bends, so that the top of the tree touches the ground making an angle of 30° with it. The distance from the foot of the tree to the point where the top touches the ground is 8 metres. Find the height of the tree before it was broken.
Solution :
2.5m, 4.33m OR 13.86

Question 35.
The roots a and P of the quadratic equation x2 – 5x + 3(k – 1) = 0 are such that a – p = 11. Find k.
Solution :
K=-7

Question 36.
In the given figure, ABC is a triangle in which AB = AC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively, such that AD = AE. Show that the points B, C, E and D are concylic.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 5 for Practice 9

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course B Set 2 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions and marking scheme Course B Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course B Set 2 with Solutions

निर्धारित समय : 3 घंटे
अधिकतम अंक : 80

सामान्य निर्देश:
(क) इस प्रश्न-पत्र के दो खंड हैं- ‘अ’ और ‘ब’।
(ख) खंड ‘अ’ में कुल 10 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। सभी प्रश्नों में उपप्रश्न दिए गए हैं। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
(ग) खंड ‘ब’ में कुल 7 वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। प्रश्नों में आंतरिक विकल्प दिए गए हैं। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड ‘अ’- वस्तुपरक प्रश्न (अंक 40)

अपठित गद्यांश (अंक 10)

प्रश्न 1.
नीचे दो गद्यांश दिए गए हैं किसी एक गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (5 x 1 = 5)
वर्तमान युग कंप्यूटर युग है। यदि भारतवर्ष पर नज़र दौड़ाकर देखें तो हम पाएँगे कि जीवन के लगभग सभी क्षेत्रों में कंप्यूटर का प्रवेश हो गया है। बैंक, रेलेव-स्टेशन, हवाई अड्डे, डाक खाने, बड़े-बड़े उद्योग-कारखाने, व्यवसाय, हिसाब-किताब, रुपये गिनने तक की मशीनें कंप्यूटरीकृत हो गई हैं। अब भी यह कंप्यूटर का प्रारंभिक प्रयोग है। आने वाला समय इसके विस्तृत फैलाव का संकेत दे रहा है। प्रश्न उठता है कि क्या कंप्यूटर आज की ज़रूरत है?

इसका उत्तर है- कंप्यूटर जीवन की मूलभूत अनिवार्य वस्तु तो नहीं है, किंतु इसके बिना आज की दुनिया अधूरी जान पड़ती है। सांसारिक गतिविधियों, परिवहन और संचार उपकरणों आदि का ऐसा विस्तार हो गया है कि उन्हें सुचारु रूप से चलाना अत्यंत कठिन होता जा रहा है। पहले मनुष्य जीवन-भर में अगर सौ लोगों के संपर्क में आता था तो आज वह दो-हज़ार लोगों के संपर्क में आता है। पहले दिन में पाँच-दस लोगों से मिलता था तो आज पचास-सौ लोगों से मिलता है। पहले वह दिन में काम करता था तो आज रातें भी व्यस्त रहती हैं। आज व्यक्ति के संपर्क बढ़ रहे हैं, व्यापार बढ़ रहे हैं, गतिविधियाँ बढ़ रही हैं, आकांक्षाएँ बढ़ रही हैं, साधन बढ़ रहे हैं। इस अनियंत्रित गति को सुव्यवस्था देने की समस्या आज की प्रमुख समस्या है। कहते हैं आवश्यकता आविष्कार की जननी है।

इस आवश्यकता ने अपने अनुसार निदान ढूँढ लिया है। कंप्यूटर एक ऐसी स्वचालित प्रणाली है जो कैसी भी, अव्यवस्था को व्यवस्था में बदल सकती है। हड़बड़ी में होने वाली मानवीय भूलों के लिए कंप्यूटर राम बाण औषधि है। क्रिकेट के मैदान में अंपायर की निर्णायक भूमिका हो या लाखों-करोड़ों की लंबी-लंबी गणनाएँ कंप्यूटर पलक झपकते ही आपकी समस्या हल कर सकता है। पहले इन कामों को करने वाले कर्मचारी हड़बड़ाकर काम करते थे, एक भूल से घबराकर और अधिक गड़बड़ी करते थे। परिणामस्वरूप काम कम, तनाव अधिक होता था। अब कंप्यूटर की सहायता से काफी सुविधा हो गई है।

(i) वर्तमान युग कंप्यूटर का युग क्यों है?
(क) कंप्यूटर के बिना जीवन की कल्पना असंभव-सी हो गई है।
(ख) कंप्यूटर ने पूरे विश्व के लोगों को जोड़ दिया है।
(ग) कंप्यूटर जीवन की अनिवार्य मूलभूत वस्तु बन गया है।
(घ) कंप्यूटर मानव सभ्यता के सभी अंगों का अभिन्न अवयव बन चुका है।
उत्तर
(क) कंप्यूटर के बिना जीवन की कल्पना असंभव-सी हो गई है।

(ii) गद्यांश के अनुसार कंप्यूटर के महत्व के विषय में कौन-सा विकल्प सही है?
(क) कंप्यूटर काम के तनाव को समाप्त करने का उपाय है।
(ख) कंप्यूटर कई मानवीय भूलों को निर्णायक रूप से सुधार देता है।
(ग) कंप्यूटर के आने से सारी हड़बड़ाहट दूर हो गई है।
(घ) मानव की सारी समस्याओं का हल कंप्यूटर से संभव है।
उत्तर
(ख) कंप्यूटर कई मानवीय भूलों को निर्णायक रूप से सुधार देता है।

(iii) गद्यांश के अनुसार किस आवश्यकता ने कंप्यूटर में अपना निदान ढूँढ लिया है?
(क) अनियंत्रित कर्मचारियों को अनुशासित करने की।
(ख) अनियंत्रित गति को सुव्यवस्था देने की।
(ग) अधिक से अधिक लोगों से जुड़ जन-जागरण लाने की
(घ) अधिक से अधिक कार्य कभी भी व कहीं भी करने की।
उत्तर
(ख) अनियंत्रित गति को सुव्यवस्था देने की।

(iv) कंप्यूटर के प्रयोग से पहले अधिक तनाव क्यों होता था?
(क) लंबी-लंबी गणनाएँ करनी पड़ती थीं।
(ख) गलतियों के डर से कर्मचारी घबराए रहते थे।
(ग) क्रिकेट मैचों में ग़लत निर्णय का ख़तरा रहता था।
(घ) मानवीय भूलों के कारण बड़ी दुर्घटनाएँ होती थीं।
उत्तर
(ख) गलतियों के डर से कर्मचारी घबराए रहते थे।

(v) कंप्यूटर के बिना आज की दुनिया अधूरी है क्योंकि
(क) सारी व्यवस्था, उपकरण और मशीनें कंप्यूटरीकृत हैं।
(ख) कंप्यूटर ही मानव एकीकरण का आधार है।
(ग) कंप्यूटर ने सारी प्रक्रियाएँ आसान बना दी हैं।
(घ) कंप्यूटर द्वारा मानव सभ्यता अधिक समर्थ हो गई है।
उत्तर
(क) सारी व्यवस्था, उपकरण और मशीनें कंप्यूटरीकृत हैं।

अथवा

पाठक आमतौर पर रूढ़िवादी होते हैं, वे सामान्यतः साहित्य में अपनी स्थापित मर्यादाओं की स्वीकृति या एक स्वप्न-जगत् में पलायन चाहते हैं। साहित्य एक झटके में उन्हें अपने आस-पास के उस जीवन के प्रति सचेत करता है, जिससे उन्होंने आँखें मूंद रखी थीं। शुतुरमुर्ग अफ्रीका के रेगिस्तानों में नहीं मिलते; वे हर जगह बहुतायत में उपलब्ध हैं।

प्रौद्योगिकी के इस दौर का नतीजा जीवन के हर गोशे में नकद फसल के लिए बढ़ता हुआ पागलपन है; और हमारे राजनीतिज्ञ, सत्ता के दलाल, व्यापारी, नौकरशाह-सभी लोगों को इस भगदड़ में नहीं पहुँचने, जैसा दूसरे करते हैं वैसा करने, चूहादौड़ में शामिल होने और कुछ-न-कुछ हांसिल कर लेने को जिए जा रहे हैं। हम थककर साँस लेना और अपने चारों ओर निहारना, हवा के पेड़ में से गुज़रते वक्त पत्तियों की मनहर लय-गतियों को और फूलों के जादुई रंगों को, फूली सरसों के चमकदार पीलेपन को, खिले मैदानों की घनी हरीतिमा को मर्मर ध्वनि के सौंदर्य, हिमाच्छादित शिखरों की भव्यता, समुद्र तट पर पछाड़ खाकर बिखरती हुई लहरों के घोष को देखना-सुनना भूल गए हैं।

कुछ लोग सोचते हैं कि पश्चिम का आधुनिकतावाद और भारत तथा अधिकांश तीसरी दुनिया के नव-औपनिवेशिक चिंतन के साथ अपनी जड़ों से अलगाव, व्यक्तिवादी अजनबियत में हमारा अनिवार्य बे-लगाम साव, अचेतन के बिंब, बौद्धिकता से विद्रोह, यह घोषणा कि ‘दिमाग अपनी रस्सी के अंतिम सिरे पर है’, यथार्थवाद का विध्वंस, काम का ऐन्द्रिक सुख मात्र रह जाना और मानवीय भावनाओं का व्यावसयीकरण तथा निम्नस्तरीयकरण इस अंधी घाटी में आ फँसने की वजह है।

लेकिन वे भूल जाते हैं कि आधुनिकीकरण इतिहास की एक सच्चाई है, कि नई समस्याओं को जन्म देने और विज्ञान को अधिक जटिल बनाने के बावजूद आधुनिकीकरण, एक तरह से मानव जाति की नियति है। मेरा सुझाव है कि विवेकहीन आधुनिकता के बावजूद आधुनिकता की दिशा में धैर्यपूर्वक सुयोजित प्रयास होने चाहिए। एक आलोचक किसी नाली में भी झाँक सकता है, पर वह नाली-निरीक्षक नहीं होता। लेखक का कार्य दुनिया को बदलना नहीं, समझना है। साहित्य क्रांति नहीं करता; वह मनुष्यों का दिमाग बदलता है और उन्हें क्रांति की आवश्यकता के प्रति जागरूक बनाता है।

(i) गद्यांश में ‘शुतुरमुर्ग’ की संज्ञा किसे दी गई है?
(क) लेखक, जो संसार को समझना चाहता है।
(ख) राजनीतिज्ञ, जो अपने स्वार्थ साधना चाहता है।
(ग) पाठक, जो सपनों की दुनिया में रहना चाहता है।
(घ) नौकरशाह, जो दूसरों जैसा बनने को होड़ में शामिल है।
उत्तर
(ग) पाठक, जो सपनों की दुनिया में रहना चाहता है।

(ii) आधुनिकता की दिशा में सुयोजित प्रयास क्यों होने चाहिए?
(क) इससे जीवन सुगम हो जाएगा तथा मानव प्रकृति का आनंद ले सकेगा।
(ख) नई समस्याओं को जन्म लेने के पहले ही रोका जा सकेगा।
(ग) आधुनिक होने की प्रक्रिया सदा से मानव सभ्यता का अंग रही है।
(घ) इससे विज्ञान सरल हो अधिक मानव कल्याणी हो सकेगा।
उत्तर
(ग) आधुनिक होने की प्रक्रिया सदा से मानव सभ्यता का अंग रही है।

(iii) ‘नक़द फ़सल के लिए बढ़ता हुआ पागलपन’ से क्या तात्पर्य है?
(क) लोग तुरंत व अधिक से अधिक लाभ कमाना चाहते हैं।
(ख) लोग प्रकृति को समय नहीं देना चाहते हैं।
(ग) लोग थके हुए हैं पर विश्राम नहीं करना चाहते हैं।
(घ) लोग भौतिकतावादी तथा अमीर लोगों की नकल करना चाहते हैं।
उत्तर
(क) लोग तुरंत व अधिक से अधिक लाभ कमाना चाहते हैं।

(iv) पाठक साहित्य से आमतौर पर क्या अपेक्षा रखते हैं?
(क) साहित्य को हमारे मन की बात कहनी चाहिए।
(ख) साहित्य को संसार को यथावत समझना चाहिए।
(ग) साहित्य तनाव कम करने वाला होना चाहिए।
(घ) साहित्य को जीवन कौशलों व मूल्यों की शिक्षा देनी चाहिए।
उत्तर
(ख) साहित्य को संसार को यथावत समझना चाहिए।

(v) लेखक के अनुसार साहित्य क्या कार्य करने के लिए प्रेरित करता है?
(क) लोगों के यथार्थ से अवगत करा बदलाव के लिए।
(ख) लोगों को जीवन की समस्याओं को भुला आगे बढ़ते जाने के लिए।
(ग) लोगों को यथार्थवाद का विध्वंस करने के लिए।
(घ) लोगों को भावनाओं व ऐन्द्रिक सुख से ऊपर उठ कार्य करने के लिए।
उत्तर
(क) लोगों के यथार्थ से अवगत करा बदलाव के लिए।

प्रश्न 2.
नीचे दो गद्यांश दिए गए हैं किसी एक गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (5 x 1 = 5)
पशु को बाँधकर रखना पड़ता है, क्योंकि वह निरंकुश है। चाहे जहाँ-तहाँ चला जाता है, इधर-उधर मुँह मार देता है। क्या मनुष्य को भी इसी प्रकार दूसरों का बंधन स्वीकार करना चाहिए? क्या इससे उसमें मनुष्यत्व रह पाएगा। पशु के गले की रस्सी को एक हाथ में पकड़ कर और दूसरे हाथ में एक लकड़ी लेकर जहाँ चाहो हाँककर ले जाओ। जिन लोगों को इसी प्रकार हाँके जाने का स्वभाव पड़ गया है, जिन्हें कोई भी जिधर चाहे ले जा सकता है, काम में लगा सकता है, उन्हें भी पशु ही कहा जाएगा।

पशु को चाहे कितना मारो, चाहे कितना उसका अपमान करो, बाद में खाने को दे दो, वह पूँछ और कान हिलाने लगेगा। ऐसे नर-पशु भी बहुत से मिलेंगे जो कुचले जाने और अपमानित होने पर भी जरा-सी वस्तु मिलने पर चट संतुष्ट और प्रसन्न हो जाते हैं। कुत्ते को कितना ही ताड़ना देने के बाद उसके सामने एक टुकड़ा डाल दो, वह झट से मार-पीट को भूल कर उसे खाने लगेगा। यदि हम भी ऐसे ही हैं तो हम कौन हैं, इसे स्पष्ट कहने की आवश्यकता नहीं।

पशुओं में भी कई पशु मार-पीट और अपमान को नहीं सकते। वे कई दिन तक निराहार रहते हैं, कई पशुओं ने तो प्राण त्याग दिए, ऐसा सुना जाता है पर इस प्रकार के पशु मनुष्य-कोटि के हैं, उनमें मनुष्यत्व का समावेश है, यदि ऐसा कहा जाए तो अत्युक्ति न होगी।

(i) कई पशुओं ने प्राण त्याग दिए। क्योंकि
(क) उन्हें विद्रोह करने की अपेक्षा प्राण त्यागना उचित लगा।
(ख) उन्हें तिरस्कृत हो जीवन जीना उचित नहीं लगा।
(ग) वह यह शिक्षा देना चाहते थे की प्यार, मार-पीट से अधिक कारगर है।
(घ) वह यह दिखाना चाहते थे कि लोगों को उनकी आवश्यकता अधिक है न कि उन्हें लोगों की।
उत्तर
(ख) उन्हें तिरस्कृत हो जीवन जीना उचित नहीं लगा।

(ii) बंधन स्वीकार करने से मनुष्य पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ेंगे?
(क) मनुष्य सामाजिक और व्यक्तिगत रूप से कम स्वतंत्र हो जाएगा।
(ख) मनुष्यत्व में व्यक्तिगत इच्छा व निर्णय का तत्व समाप्त हो जाएगा।
(ग) मनुष्य बँधे हुए पशु समान हो जाएगा।
(घ) मनुष्य की निरंकुशता में परिवर्तन हो जाएगा।
उत्तर
(ख) मनुष्यत्व में व्यक्तिगत इच्छा व निर्णय का तत्व समाप्त हो जाएगा।

(iii) मनुष्यत्व को परिभाषित करने हेतु कौन-सा मूल्य अधिक महत्वपूर्ण है?
(क) स्वतंत्रता
(ख) न्याय
(ग) शांति
(घ) प्रेम
उत्तर
(क) स्वतंत्रता

(iv) गद्यांश के अनुसार कौन-सी उद्घोषणा की जा सकती है?
(क) सभी पशुओं में मनुष्यत्व है।
(ख) सभी मनुष्यों में पशुत्व है।
(ग) मानव के लिए बंधन आवश्यक नहीं है।
(घ) मान-अपमान की भावना केवल मानव ही समझता है।
उत्तर
(ग) मानव के लिए बंधन आवश्यक नहीं है।

(v) गद्यांश में नर और पशु की तुलना किन बातों को लेकर की गई है?
(क) पिटने की क्षमता।
(ख) पूँछ-कान आदि को हिलना।
(ग) बंधन स्वीकार करना।
(घ) लकड़ी द्वारा हाँके जाना।
उत्तर
(ग) बंधन स्वीकार करना।

अथवा

व्यक्ति चित्त सब समय आदर्शों द्वारा चालित नहीं होता। जितने बड़े पैमाने पर मनुष्य की उन्नति के विधान बनाए गए, उतनी ही मात्रा में लोभ, मोह जैसे विकार भी विस्तृत होते गए, लक्ष्य की बात भूल गए, आदर्शों को मज़ाक का विषय बनाया गया और संयम को दकियानूसी मान लिया गया।

परिणाम जो होना था, वह हो रहा है। यह कुछ थोड़े-से लोगों के बढ़ते हुए लोभ का नतीजा है, परंतु इससे भारतवर्ष के पुराने आदर्श और भी अधिक स्पष्ट रूप से महान और उपयोगी दिखाई देने लगे हैं। भारतवर्ष सदा कानून को धर्म के रूप में देखता आ रहा है। आज एकाएक कानून और धर्म में अंतर कर दिया गया है।

धर्म को धोखा नहीं दिया जा सकता, कानून को दिया जा सकता है। यही कारण है कि जो धर्मभीरु हैं, वे भी त्रुटियों से लाभ उठाने में संकोच नहीं करते। इस बात के पर्याप्त प्रमाण खोज जा सकते हैं कि समाज के ऊपरी वर्ग में चाहे जो भी होता रहा हो, भीतर-बाहर भारतवर्ष अब भी यह अनुभव कर रहा है कि धर्म कानून से बड़ी चीज़ है। अब भी सेवा, ईमानदारी, सच्चाई और आध्यात्मिकता के मूल्य बने हुए हैं।

वे दब अवश्य गए हैं, लेकिन नष्ट नहीं हुए हैं। आज भी वह मनुष्य से प्रेम करता है, महिलाओं का सम्मान करता है, झूठ और चोरी को ग़लत समझता है, दूसरों को पीड़ा पहुँचाने को पाप समझता है।

(i) मनुष्य ने आदर्शों को मज़ाक का विषय किस कारण बना लिया?
(क) कानून
(ख) उन्नति
(ग) लोभ
(घ) धर्मभीरुता
उत्तर
(ग) लोभ

(ii) धर्म एवं कानून के संदर्भ में भारत के विषय में कौन-सा कथन सबसे अधिक सही है?
(क) महिलाओं का सम्मान धर्म तो है, पर कानून नहीं है।
(ख) धर्म और कानून दोनों को धोखा दिया जा सकता है।
(ग) भले लोगों के लिए कानून नहीं चाहिए और बुरे इसकी परवाह नहीं करते हैं।
(घ) भारत का निचला वर्ग कदाचित अभी भी कानून को धर्म के रूप में देखता है।
उत्तर
(ग) भले लोगों के लिए कानून नहीं चाहिए और बुरे इसकी परवाह नहीं करते हैं।

(iii) भारतवर्ष में सेवा और सच्चाई के मूल्य ……………….. रेखांकित के लिए विकल्प छाँटिए
(क) मनुष्य की समाज पर निर्भरता में कमी होने के कारण इनमें ह्रास हुआ है।
(ख) जीवन में उन्नति के बड़े पैमाने के कारण कहीं छिप-से गए हैं।
(ग) न्यायालयों में कानून की सत्याभासी धाराओं में उलझकर रहे गए हैं।
(घ) परमार्थ के लिए जीवन की बाजी लगाने वाले यह सिद्ध करते हैं कि यह व्यक्ति के मन को अभी भी नियंत्रित कर रहे हैं।
उत्तर
(ख) जीवन में उन्नति के बड़े पैमाने के कारण कहीं छिप-से गए हैं।

(iv) भारतवर्ष का बड़ा वर्ग बाहर-भीतर कदाचित क्या अनुभव कर रहा है?
(क) धर्म, कानून से बड़ी चीज़ है।
(ख) कानून, धर्म से बड़ी चीज़ है।
(ग) संयम अशक्त और अकर्मण्ण्य लोगों के लिए है।
(घ) आदर्श और उसूलों से यथार्थ जीवन असंभव है।
उत्तर
(क) धर्म, कानून से बड़ी चीज़ है।

(v) निम्नलिखित में से सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त शीर्षक का चयन कीजिए।
(क) उन्नति के संदर्भ में जीवन मूल्यों की प्रासंगिकता
(ख) मानव चित्त के आकर्षण निवारण में आदर्शों की भूमिका
(ग) समाज कल्याण हेतु धर्म और कानून का सहअस्तित्व
(घ) धार्मिक व सार्वभौमिक मूल्यों का एकीकरण
उत्तर
(क) उन्नति के संदर्भ में जीवन मूल्यों की प्रासंगिकता

व्यावहारिक व्याकरण (अंक 16)

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित पाँच भागों में से किन्हीं चार भागों के उत्तर दीजिए। (4 x 1 = 4)
(i) ‘तताँरा बहुत बलशाली भी था।’ रेखांकित में पद है
(क) संज्ञा पद
(ख) सर्वनाम पद
(ग) विशेषण पद
(घ) क्रिया पद
उत्तर
(ग) विशेषण पद

(ii) वे माँ से कहानी सुनते रहते हैं।’ वाक्य में क्रियापदबंध है
(क) वे माँ से
(ख) माँ से कहानी
(ग) सुनते रहते हैं
(घ) कहानी सुनते
उत्तर
(ग) सुनते रहते हैं

(iii) बँगले के पीछे लगा पेड़ गिर गया। वाक्य में रेखांकित पदबंध है
(क) संज्ञा पदबंध
(ख) क्रिया पदबंध
(ग) विशेषण पदबंध
(घ) क्रियाविशेषण पदबंध
उत्तर
(ग) विशेषण पदबंध

(iv) वाक्य ……………………..’ से बनता है।
(क) स्वर
(ख) व्यंजन
(ग) शब्द
(घ) पद
उत्तर
(घ) पद

(v) मैं तेज़ी से दौड़ता हुआ घर पहुँचा। रेखांकित में कौन-सा पदबंध है
(क) क्रियाविशेषण पदबंध
(ख) विशेषण पदबंध
(ग) संज्ञा पदबंध
(घ) क्रिया पदबंध
उत्तर
(क) क्रियाविशेषण पदबंध

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित पाँच भागों में से किन्हीं चार भागों के उत्तर दीजिए। (4 x 1 =4)
(i) ‘बच्चे आए हैं और खेल रहे हैं।’ वाक्य-रचना की दृष्टि से है।
(क) मिश्र वाक्य
(ख) सरल वाक्य
(ग) संयुक्त वाक्य
(घ) सामान्य वाक्य
उत्तर
(ग) संयुक्त वाक्य

(ii) “राम घर गया। उसने माँ को देखा।” का संयुक्त-वाक्य होगा
(क) राम ने घर जाकर माँ को देखा।
(ख) राम घर गया और उसने माँ को देखा।
(ग) राम घर गया अतः उसने माँ को देखा।
(घ) जब राम घर गया तब उसने माँ को देखा।
उत्तर
(ख) राम घर गया और उसने माँ को देखा।

(iii) निम्नलिखित में मिश्र-वाक्य है
(क) चोर को देखकर सिपाही उसे पकड़ने दौड़ा।
(ख) नेताजी भाषण देकर चले गए।
(ग) सेठ जानता है कि नौकर ईमानदार है।
(घ) उसने खाना खाया और सो गया।
उत्तर
(ग) सेठ जानता है कि नौकर ईमानदार है।

(iv) निम्नलिखित में संयुक्त-वाक्य है
(क) वह बाज़ार पुस्तक ख़रीदने गया।
(ख) वह बाज़ार से पुस्तक ख़रीद लाया।
(ग) जब वह बाज़ार गया तब पुस्तक ख़रीद लाया।
(घ) वह बाज़ार गया और पुस्तक ख़रीद लाया।
उत्तर
(घ) वह बाज़ार गया और पुस्तक ख़रीद लाया।

(v) मिश्र वाक्य को संयुक्त वाक्य में अथवा संयुक्त को सरल वाक्य में बदलने को कहते हैं
(क) वाक्य निर्माण
(ख) वाक्य रूपांतरण
(ग) वाक्य प्रक्रिया
(घ) वाक्य संश्लेषण
उत्तर
(क) वाक्य निर्माण

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित पाँच भागों में से किन्हीं चार भागों के उत्तर दीजिए। (4 x 1 = 4)
(i) ‘महावीर’- शब्द में कौन-सा समास है-
(क) कर्मधारय
(ख) द्विगु ।
(ग) तत्पुरुष
(घ) अव्ययीभाव
उत्तर
(क) कर्मधारय

(ii) ‘वनगमन’- समस्तपद का विग्रह होगा
(क) वन का गमन
(ख) वन से गमन
(ग) वन को गमन
(घ) वन और गमन
उत्तर
(ग) वन को गमन

(iii) ‘पीत है जो अंबर’- का समस्तपद है
(क) पितांबर
(ख) पीतम्बर
(ग) पीतांबर
(घ) पीला अंबर
उत्तर
(ग) पीतांबर

(iv) ‘गुरुदक्षिणा’ शब्द के सही समास-विग्रह का चयन कीजिए।
(क) गुरु से दक्षिणा–तत्पुरुष समास
(ख) गुरु का दक्षिणा-तत्पुरुष समास
(ग) गुरु की दक्षिणा–तत्पुरुष समास
(घ) गुरु के लिए दक्षिणा-तत्पुरुष समास
उत्तर
(घ) गुरु के लिए दक्षिणा-तत्पुरुष समास

(v) ‘दिनचर्या’ समस्तपद का विग्रह है
(क) दिन की चर्या
(ख) दिन में आराम
(ग) दिन में चलना
(घ) दिन भर खाना
उत्तर
(क) दिन की चर्या

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित चारों भागों के उत्तर दीजिए। (4 x 1 =4)
(i) पढ़ाई में मेहनत कर मैं …………. हो सकता हूँ। मुहावरे से रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए।
(क) अंधों में काना राजा
(ख) एक पंथ दो काज
(ग) अपना हाथ जगन्नाथ
(घ) पैरों पर खड़ा होना
उत्तर
(घ) पैरों पर खड़ा होना

(ii) ‘विपत्ति में उसकी अक्ल …… उपयुक्त मुहावरे से रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए।
(क) खो जाना
(ख) ठनक जाना
(ग) चकरा जाना
(घ) आगबबूला हो जाना
उत्तर
(ग) चकरा जाना

(iii) सच्चे शूरवीर देश की रक्षा में प्राणों की ……….. हैं। रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति सटीक मुहावरे से कीजिए
(क) बाजी लगा देते हैं।
(ख) जान लगा देते हैं।
(ग) ताकत लगा देते हैं।
(घ) आहुति लगा देते हैं।
उत्तर
(क) बाजी लगा देते हैं।

(iv) गरीब माँ-बाप अपना ……… कर बच्चों को पढ़ाते हैं और वे चिंता नहीं करते। रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति सटीक मुहावरे से कीजिए।
(क) गला काट
(ख) पेट काट
(ग) खून बहा
(घ) मन लगा
उत्तर
(ख) पेट काट

पाठ्यपुस्तक (अंक 14)

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर प्रश्नों के सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्पों का चयन कीजिए। (4 x 1 = 4)

कर चले हम फ़िदा जानो-तन साथियो
अब तुम्हारे हवाले वतन साथियो,
साँस थमती गई, नब्ज जमती गई
फिर भी बढ़ते कदम को न रुकने दिया
कट गए सर हमारे तो कुछ गम नहीं
सर हिमालय का हमने न झुकने दिया,
मरते-मरते रहा बाँकपन साथियो
अब तुम्हारे हवाले वतन साथियो ………. (1)

ज़िंदा रहने के मौसम बहुत हैं मगर
जान देने की रुत रोज़ आती नहीं,
हुस्न और इश्क दोनों को रुस्वा करे
वो जवानी जो खू में नहाती नहीं,
आज धरती बनी है दुलहन साथियो
अब तुम्हारे हवाले वतन साथियो……….(2)

(i) ‘सर हिमालय का हमने न झुकने दिया’- पंक्ति में ‘सर’ किसका प्रतीक है
(क) स्वाभिमान
(ख) सिर
(ग) घमंड
(घ) पराक्रम
उत्तर
(क) स्वाभिमान

(ii) पद्यांश में ‘बाँकपन’ शब्द प्रतीक है
(क) वक्रता
(ख) अद्भुत
(ग) छवि
(घ) बेमिसालपन
उत्तर
(घ) बेमिसालपन

(iii) धरती के दुलहन बनने से तात्पर्य है
(क) दुलहन की भाँति शर्मा रही है।
(ख) सैनिकों के खून से नहा गई है।
(ग) बलिदान से गौरवान्वित हुई है।
(घ) दुलहन की भाँति अपने प्रियतम की आस देख रही है।
उत्तर
(ग) बलिदान से गौरवान्वित हुई है।

(iv) सर पर कफन बाँधने का अर्थ है
(क) बलिदान के लिए तैयार होना।
(ख) मरने की कोशिश करना।
(ग) अपने लिए जान की बाजी लगाना।
(घ) लोगों को दिखाना कि हम मरने से नहीं डरते।
उत्तर
(क) बलिदान के लिए तैयार होना।

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर प्रश्नों के सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्पों का चयन कीजिए। (5 x 1 = 5)
हमारे जीवन की रफ्तार बढ़ गई है। यहाँ कोई चलता नहीं, बल्कि दौड़ता है। कोई बोलना नहीं, बकता है। हम जब अकेले पड़ते हैं, तब अपने आप से लगातार बड़बड़ाते रहते हैं। अमेरिका से हम प्रतिस्पर्धा करने लगे। एक महीने में पूरा होने वाला काम एक दिन में पूरा करने की कोशिश करने लगे। वैसे भी दिमाग की रफ्तार हमेशा तेज़ ही रहती है।

उसे ‘स्पीड’ का इंजन लगाने पर वह हज़ार गुना अधिक रफ्तार से दौड़ने लगता है। फिर एक क्षण ऐसा आता है जब दिमाग का तनाव बढ़ जाता है और पूरा इंजन टूट जाता है। यही कारण है जिससे मानसिक रोग यहाँ बढ़ गए हैं। अकसर हम या तो गुज़रे हुए दिनों की खट्टी-मीठी यादों में उलझे रहते हैं। हम या तो भूतकाल में रहते हैं या भविष्य काल में असल में दोनों ही काल मिथ्या हैं। एक चला गया है, दूसरा आया ही नहीं है।

हमारे सामने जो वर्तमान क्षण है, वही सत्य है। उसी में जीना चाहिए। चाय पीते-पीते उस दिन दिमाग से भूत और भविष्य दोनों ही काल उड़ गए थे। केवल वर्तमान क्षण सामने थे। और वह अनंतकाल जितना विस्तृत था।

(i) गद्यांश में मानसिक रोगों के बढ़ने का कारण क्या बताया गया है?
(क) अमेरिका से प्रतिस्पर्धा करना।
(ख) तेज़ रफ्तार से दौड़ते दिमाग का तनाव।
(ग) सामर्थ्य से अधिक कार्य करने का दबाव।
(घ) खट्टी-मीठी यादों में उलझे रहना।
उत्तर
(ख) तेज़ रफ्तार से दौड़ते दिमाग का तनाव।

(ii) जीवन की रफ्तार बढ़ने का अर्थ है
(क) प्रतियोगी होना।
(ख) दूसरों को हराना।
(ग) तीव्र गति से कार्य का निष्पादन करना।
(घ) जल्दी बूढ़ा होना।
उत्तर
(ग) तीव्र गति से कार्य का निष्पादन करना।

(iii) ‘दोनों ही काल मिथ्या हैं’- इसका तात्पर्य है?
(क) समय सदा सत्य नहीं रहता।
(ख) दोनों ही काल झूठे हैं।
(ग) व्यक्ति का नियंत्रण केवल वर्तमान पर रहता है।
(घ) व्यक्ति को खट्टी-मीठी यादों में नहीं रहना चाहिए।
उत्तर
(ग) व्यक्ति का नियंत्रण केवल वर्तमान पर रहता है।

(iv) दिमाग पर स्पीड का इंजन क्यों लगाया जाता है?
(क) अमेरिका से प्रतिस्पर्धा के लिए
(ख) दौड़ने की गति बढ़ाने के लिए
(ग) दिमाग की स्पीड बढ़ाने के लिए
(घ) दिमाग को तनावमुक्त रख अधिक कार्य करने के लिए।
उत्तर
(ग) दिमाग की स्पीड बढ़ाने के लिए

(v) अनंतकाल के विस्तृत होने का क्या कारण था?
(क) समय व्यतीत नहीं हो पाने के कारण
(ख) लेखक के बोर होने के कारण।
(ग) लेखक केवल वर्तमान के बारे में सोच पा रहा था।
(घ) क्योंकि आकाश का दूसरा नाम अनंत है।
उत्तर
(ग) लेखक केवल वर्तमान के बारे में सोच पा रहा था।

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर प्रश्नों के सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्पों का चयन कीजिए। (5 x 1 = 5)
वामीरो के रुदन स्वरों को सुनकर उसकी माँ वहाँ पहुँची और दोनों को देखकर आग बबूला हो उठी। सारे गाँववालों की उपस्थिति में यह दृश्य उसे अपमानजनक लगा। इस बीच गाँव के कुछ लोग भी वहाँ पहुँच गए। वामीरो की माँ क्रोध में उफ़न उठी। उसने तताँरा को तरह-तरह से अपमानित किया।

गाँव के लोग भी तताँरा के विरोध में आवाजें उठाने लगे। यह तताँरा के लिए असहनीय था। वामीरो अब भी रोए जा रही थी। तताँरा भी गुस्से से भर उठा। उसे जहाँ विवाह की निषेध परंपरा पर क्षोभ था वहीं अपनी असहायता पर खीझ। वामीरो का दुख उसे और गहरा कर रहा था।

उसे मालूम न था कि क्या कदम उठाए चाहिए? अनायास उसका हाथ तलवार की मूठ पर जा टिका। क्रोध में उसने तलवार निकाली और कुछ विचार करता रहा। क्रोध लगातार अग्नि की तरह बढ़ रहा था।

(i) गद्यांश में क्रोध और अग्नि की तुलना क्यों की गई है?
(क) क्रोध और अग्नि दोनों ही बड़े गर्म होते हैं।
(ख) क्रोध और अग्नि दोनों ही पर नियंत्रण कठिन है।
(ग) तताँरा का स्वभाव बहुत गुस्से वाला था।
(घ) वामीरो की माँ और तताँरा दोनों ही गुस्से में थे।
उत्तर
(ख) क्रोध और अग्नि दोनों ही पर नियंत्रण कठिन है।

(ii) तताँरा को गुस्सा क्यों आया?
(क) वामीरो की माँ ने तताँरा से झगड़ा किया।
(ख) उसे विवाह की निषेध परंपरा पर क्षोभ था।
(ग) वामीरो अब विवाह के लिए तैयार न थी।
(घ) वामीरो ने तताँरा की सहायता नहीं की।
उत्तर
(ख) उसे विवाह की निषेध परंपरा पर क्षोभ था।

(iii) वामीरो की माँ को दृश्य अपमानजनक क्यों लगा?
(क) माँ को गाँव के समक्ष अपमान महसूस हुआ।
(ख) माँ को वामीरो के लिए तताँरा पसंद नहीं था।
(ग) माँ गाँव की परंपरा से बँधी थी।
(घ) माँ वामीरो से बहुत प्यार करती थी।
उत्तर
(ग) माँ गाँव की परंपरा से बँधी थी।

(iv) तताँरा-वामीरो कथा समाज की किस समस्या की ओर ध्यान इंगित कराती है?
(क) जाति-प्रथा
(ख) बेमेल-विवाह
(ग) विवाह के परंपरागत नियम
(घ) बाल-विवाह
उत्तर
(ग) विवाह के परंपरागत नियम

(v) ‘आग बबूला हो उठने’ का क्या अर्थ है
(क) अत्यधिक क्रोध आना
(ख) आग की प्रचंड लपटों की तरह लहराना
(ग) बच्चों की चिंता करना
(घ) बहुत परेशान हो उठना
उत्तर
(क) अत्यधिक क्रोध आना

खंड ‘ब’- वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न (अंक 40)

पाठ्यपुस्तक एवं पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक (अंक 14)

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 x 2 = 4)
(क) एकांकी ‘कारतूस’ के अनुसार वज़ीर अली एक जाँबाज सिपाही कैसे था?
(ख) कहानी ‘बड़े भाई साहब’ के अनुसार जीवन की समझ कैसे आती है?
(ग) कबीर के अनुसार व्यक्ति अपने स्वभाव को निर्मल कैसे रख सकता है?
उत्तर
संभावित उत्तर संकेत
(क)

  • बहादुरी के किस्से प्रचलित थे।
  • अकेले कर्नल के खेमे में आ पहुँचा।
  • कर्नल से अपनी ही गिरफ्तारी के लिए कारतूस ले गया।
  • कर्नल को अपना परिचय दिया।
  • आसानी से कर्नल के खेमे से चला गया।

(ख)

  • जीवन की समझ अनुभव से आती है।
  • किताबी ज्ञान से नहीं आती।
  • अम्माँ, दादा, और हेडमास्टर की माँ के उदाहरण दिए।

(ग)

  • अपने आस-पास निंदक रखने चाहिए।
  • निंदक हमें हमारी त्रुटियाँ बताते रहते हैं।
  • निंदक वास्तव में हमारे सच्चे हितैषी होते हैं।

प्रश्न 11.
‘मनुष्यता’ कविता और ‘अब कहाँ दूसरे के दुख से दुखी होने वाले’ पाठ का केंद्रीय भाव एक ही है। लगभग 60-70 शब्दों में सिद्ध कीजिए। (1 x 4 = 4)
उत्तर
संभावित उत्तर संकेत

  • मनुष्यता कविता- मानव के त्याग, बलिदान, मानवीय एकता, सहानुभूति, सद्भाव, उदारता, करुणा आदि पर बल देती है।
  • अब कहाँ दूसरे के दुख से दुखी होने वाले पाठ का प्रतिपाद्य- मानव और प्रकृति के सामंजस्य, मानव और प्रकृति
    के अन्य जीवधारियों के मध्य सामंजस्य जिसके अंतर्गत सहानुभूति, सद्भाव, उदारता, प्रेम, त्याग और करुणा पर बल दिया गया है।
  • ऊपर दिए गए सभी गुण- मनुष्यत्व के गुण हैं।
  • उदारता, करुणा, सद्भाव, सहानुभूति गुणों पर दोनों पाठ आधारित हैं।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40-50 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 x 3 = 6)
(क) ‘सपनों के से दिन’ पाठ के लेखक और ‘टोपी शुक्ला’ नामक पात्र का बचपन एक जैसा-सा है। आपके बचपन से इनकी कथा कैसे मिलती-जुलती है?
(ख) रामदुलारी की मार से टोपी पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ा? ‘टोपी शुक्ला’ पाठ के आधार पर स्पष्ट करें।
(ग) महंत और अपने भाई हरिहर काका को एक जैसे क्यों लगने लगते हैं? ‘हरिहर काका’ कहानी के आधार पर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर
संभावित उत्तर संकेत
(क)

  • खेल-कूद में मन लगना।
  • स्कूल के मस्ती भरे दिन।
  • अध्यापकों तथा अभिभावकों का डर।
  • बचपन में मिला अपनापन और प्यार।
  • मित्रता भेद-भाव नहीं मानती है।

(ख)

  • टोपी पिटता रहा लेकिन रामदुलारी की इस बात को नहीं स्वीकारा कि वह इफ्फ़न के घर फिर कभी नहीं जाएगा।
  • टोपी बहुत उदास हो गया था।
  • उसका सारा बदन दुखता रहा था।
  • वह बस यही सोचता रहा था
  • कि काश वह एक दिन के लिए मुन्नी बाबू से बड़ा हो पाता और उसे सबक सिखा पाता।

(ग)

  • दोनों ही स्वार्थ में डूबे हुए थे।
  • दोनों में से कोई भी हरिहर काका को नहीं, उनकी जमीन-जायदाद चाहते थे।
  • उनकी जमीन हथियाने के लिए वे किसी भी हद तक गिर सकते हैं।
  • दिखावा करने के अलावा दोनों कुछ नहीं करते थे।
  • दोनों हरिहर काका की जान तक लेने को तैयार थे।

लेखन (अंक 26)

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर दिए गए संकेत-बिंदुओं के आधार पर लगभग 80-100 शब्दों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए। (1 x 6 = 6)
(क) जब हम चार रनों से पिछड़ रहे थे

संकेत-बिंदु-

  • खिलाड़ियों की मनोदशा
  • दर्शकों की मनोदशा
  • प्रयास और परिणाम ङ्के

(ख) देशा पर पड़ता विदेशी प्रभाव
संकेत-बिंदु-

  • हमारा देश और संस्कृति
  • विदेशी प्रभाव
  • परिणाम और सुझाव

(ग) मित्रता
संकेत-बिंदु-

  • आवश्यकता
  • कौन हो सकता है मित्र
  • लाभ

उत्तर
अंक योजना
(क) भूमिका – 1 अंक
(ख) विषयवस्तु – 4 अंक
(ग) भाषा – 1 अंक

प्रश्न 14.
आपसे अपने बचत खाते की चेक-बुक खो गई है। इस संबंध में बैंक प्रबंधक को उचित कार्यवाही करने के लिए पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
नगर निगम को एक पत्र लिखिए जिसमें नालियों की सफाई एवं कीटनाशक दवाओं के छिड़काव का सुझाव हो।
उत्तर
अंक योजना

  • आरंभ और अंत की औपचारिकताएँ – 1
  • अंक विषयवस्तु – 3 अंक
  • भाषा – 1 अंक

प्रश्न 15.
विद्यालय के वार्षिकोत्सव समारोह के आयोजन के लिए आपको संयोजक बनाया गया है। विद्यालय की ओर से सभी विद्यार्थियों के लिए लगभग 30-40 शब्दों में एक सूचना तैयार कीजिए।
अथवा
विद्यालय में छुट्टी के उपरांत फुटबॉल खेलना सीखने की विशेष कक्षाएँ आयोजित की जाएंगी। इच्छुक विद्यार्थियों द्वारा अपना नाम देने हेतु सूचना-पट्ट के लिए लगभग 30-40 शब्दों में एक सूचना तैयार कीजिए।
उत्तर
अंक योजना

  • विषयवस्तु – 2 अंक
  • प्रस्तुति – 3 अंक
  • भाषा – 1 अंक

प्रश्न 16.
विद्यालय के ‘अहंक समूह’ द्वारा प्रस्तुत ताजमहल नाटक के बारे में नाम, पात्र, दिन, समय टिकट आदि की सूचना देते हुए लगभग 25-50 शब्दों में एक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए।
अथवा
अपनी दुकान को किराए पर उठाने के लिए लगभग 25-50 शब्दों में एक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए।
उत्तर
अंक योजना

  • विषयवस्तु – 2
  • अंक प्रस्तुति – 2 अंक
  • भाषा – 1 अंक

प्रश्न 17.
‘यदि मैं समाचार-पत्र होता’- विषय पर लगभग 100-120 शब्दों में एक लघुकथा लिखिए।
अथवा
‘गंगा और मैं’- विषय पर लगभग 100-120 शब्दों में एक लघुकथा लिखिए।
उत्तर
अंक योजना

  • कथावस्तु – 3
  • अंक भाषा – 2 अंक

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic with Solutions and marking scheme Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper contains two parts, A and B.
2. Both Part A and Part B have internal choices.

Part-A:
1. It consists of two sections, I and II.
2. Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.
3. Section II has 4 questions on case study. Each case study has 5 case-based sub-parts. An examinee is to attempt any 4 out of 5 sub-parts.

Part-B:
1. It consists of three sections III, IV and V.
2. In section III, Question Nos. 21 to 26 are Very Short Answer Type questions of 2 marks each.
3. In section IV, Question Nos. 27 to 33 are Short Answer Type questions of 3 marks each.
4. In section V, Question Nos. 34 to 36 are Long Answer Type questions of 5 marks each.
5. Internal choice is provided in 2 questions of 2 marks, 2 questions of 3 marks and 1 question of 5 marks.

Part – A
Section-I

Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.

Question 1.
Express 156 as the product of primes.
Solution :
156 = 22 × 3 × 13

Question 2.
Write a quadratic polynomial, sum of whose zeroes is 2 and product is -8.
Solution :
Quadratic polynomial is given by x2 – (α + β)x + αβ = x2 – 2x – 8

Question 3.
Given that HCF (96, 404) is 4, find the LCM ( 96, 404).
OR
State the fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic.
Solution :
\(\mathrm{LCM}(96,404)=\frac{96 \times 404}{\mathrm{HCF}(96,404)}=\frac{96 \times 404}{4}=9696\)
OR
Every composite number can be expressed (factorized) as a product of primes, factorization is unique, apart from the order in which the factors occur.

Question 4.
On comparing the ratios of the coefficients, find out whether the pair of equations x-2y = 0 and 3x + 4y – 20 = 0 is consistent or inconsistent.
Solution :
x – 2y = 0
3x + 4y – 20 = 0
\(\frac{1}{3} \neq \frac{-2}{4}\)
As, \(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}} \neq \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\) is one condition for consistency.
Therefore, the pair of equations is consistent.

Question 5.
If a and b are co-prime numbers, then find the HCF (a, b).
Solution :
1

Question 6.
Find the area of a sector of a circle with radius 6 cm if angle of the sector is 60°. (Take π = 22/7).
OR
A horse is tied to a pole with 28 m long rope. Find the perimeter of the field where the horse can graze.
(Take π = 22/7)
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 12

Question 7.
In the given fig. DE || BC, ∠ADE = 70° and ∠BAC = 50°, then angle ∠BCA = ……..
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 1
OR
In the given figure, AD = 2 cm, BD = 3 cm, AE = 3.5 cm and AC = 7 cm. Is DE parallel to BC?
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 2
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 13
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 14

Question 8.
The cost of fencing a circular field at the rate of ₹ 24 per metre is ₹ 5280. Find the radius of the field.
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 15

Question 9.
A tree breaks due to storm and the broken part bends so that the top of the tree touches the ground where it makes an angle 30°. The distance between the foot of the tree to the point where the top touches the ground is 8 m. Find the height of the tree from where it is broken.
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 21

Question 10.
If the perimeter and the area of a circle are numerically equal, then find the radius of the circle.
Solution :
Perimeter of circle = Area of circle
⇒ 2nr = nr2
⇒ r = 2 units

Question 11.
Write the empirical relationship among mean, median and mode.
Solution :
3 median = mode + 2 mean

Question 12.
To divide a line segment BC internally in the ratio 3 : 5, we draw a ray BX such that ZCBX is an acute angle. What will be the minimum number of points to be located at equal distances, on ray BX?
Solution :
8

Question 13.
For what values of p does the pair of equations 4x + py +8 =0 and 2x +2y +2 =0 has unique solution?
OR
What type of straight lines will be represented by the system of equations 2x + 3y = 5 and 4x + 6y = 7?
Solution :
\(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}} \neq \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\)  is the condition for the given pair of equations to have a unique solution.
\(\Rightarrow \frac{4}{2} \neq \frac{p}{2}\)
⇒ P ≠ 4
Therefore, for all real values of p except 4, the given pair of equations will have a unique solution.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 52

Question 14.
A bag contains 3 red balls and 5 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. What is the probability that the ball drawn is red?
OR
A die is thrown once. What is the probability of getting a prime number?
Solution :
No. of red balls = 3, No. black balls = 5
Total number of balls = 5 + 3 = 8
Probability of red balls \(=\frac{3}{8}\)
OR
Total no. of possible outcomes = 6
There are 3 prime numbers: 2, 3, 5.
So, probability of getting a prime number \(=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 15.
A tower stands vertically on the ground. From a point on the ground, which is 15m away from the foot of the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is found to be 60°. Find the height of the tower.
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 22

Question 16.
Probability of an event E + probability of the event E (not E) is,
Solution :
1

Section-II

Case study-based questions are compulsory. Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

Case Study Based-1

Question 17.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 3
Mathematics teacher of a school took her 10th standard students to show Red fort. It was a part of their Educational trip. The teacher had interest in history as well. She narrated the facts of Red fort to students. Then the teacher said in this monument one can find combination of solid figures. There are 2 pillars which are cylindrical in shape. Also 2 domes at the comers which are hemispherical.7 smaller domes are at the centre. Flag hoisting ceremony on Independence Day takes place near these domes.

(i) How much cloth material will be required to cover 2 big domes each of radius 2.5 metres? (Take n = 22/7)
(a) 75 m²
(b) 78.57 m²
(c) 87.47 m²
(d) 25.8 m²

(ii) Write the formula to find the volume of a cylindrical pillar.
(a) nrh
(b) nr!
(c) nr(l + r)
(d) 2nr

(iii) Find the lateral surface area of two pillars if height of the pillar is 7m and radius of the base is 1.4 m. 1
(a) 112.3 cm²
(b) 123.2 m²
(c) 90 m²
(d) 345.2 cm²

(iv) How much is the volume of a hemisphere if the radius of the base is 3.5 m?
(a) 85.9 m³
(b) 80 m³
(c) 98 m³
(d) 89.83 m³

(v) What is the ratio of sum of volumes of two hemispheres of radius 1 cm each to the volume of a sphere of radius 2 cm?
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1:8
(c) 8 : 1
(d) 1 : 16
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 23
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 24

Case Study Based-2

Question 18.
Class X students of a secondary school in Krishnagar have been allotted a rectangular plot of a land for gardening activity. Saplings of Gulmohar are planted on the boundary at a distance of lm from each other. There is a triangular grassy lawn in the plot as shown in the figure. The students are to sow seeds of flowering plants on the remaining area of the plot.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 4
Considering A as origin, answer question (i) to (v).

(i) Considering A as the origin, what are the coordinates of A?
(a) (0,1)
(b) (1,0)
(c) (0,0)
(d) (-1,-1)
Solution :
(c) (0,0)

(ii) What are the coordinates of P?
(a) (4, 6)
(b) (6, 4)
(c) (6,0)
(d) (7,4)
Solution :
(a) (4, 6)

(iii) What are the coordinates of R?
(a) (6, 5)
(b) (5, 6)
(c) (0, 16)
(d) (16, 1)
Solution :
(a) (6, 5)

(iv) What are the coordinates of D?
(a) (12,2)
(b) (-12, 6)
(c) (12, 3)
(d) (6, 10)
Solution :
(a) (12,2)

(v) What are the coordinates of P if D is taken as the origin?
(a) (12,2)
(b) (-12,6)
(c) (12,3)
(d) (6, 10)
Solution :
(b) (-12,6)

Case Study Based-3

Question 19.
Rahul is studying in X Standard. He is making a kite to fly it on a Sunday. Few questions came to his mind while making the kite. Give answers to his questions by looking at the figure.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 5
(i) Rahul tied the sticks at what angles to each other?
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 60°
Solution :
(c) 90°

(ii) Which is the correct similarity criteria applicable for smaller triangles at the upper part of this kite?
(a) RHS
(b) SAS
(c)  SSA
(d) AAS
Solution :
(b) SAS

(iii) Sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4:9. Corresponding medians of these triangles are in the ratio
(a) 2:3
(b) 4:9
(c) 81:16
(d) 16:81
Solution :
(b) 4:9

(iv) In a triangle, if the square of one side is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides, then the angle opposite to the first side is a right angle. This theorem is called as,
(a) Pythagoras theorem
(b) Thales theorem
(c) Converse of Thales theorem
(d) Converse of Pythagoras theorem
Solution :
(d) Converse of Pythagoras theorem

(v) What is the area of the kite, formed by two perpendicular sticks of length 6 cm and 8 cm?
(a) 48 cm2
(b) 14 cm3
(c) 24 cm2
(d)  96 cm2
Solition :
(a) 48 cm2

Case Study Based-4

Question 20.
Due to heavy storm, an electric wire got bent as shown in the figure. It followed a mathematical shape. Answer the following questions below:
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 6

(i) Name the shape in which the wire is bent.
(a) spiral
(b) ellipse
(c) linear
(d) parabola
Solution :
(d) parabola

(ii) How many zeroes are there for the polynomial (shape of the wire).
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 0
Solution :
(a) 2

(iii) The zeroes of the polynomial are
(a) -1,5
(b) -1,3
(c) 3,5
(d) -4,2
Solution :
(b) -1,3

(iv) What will be the expression of the polynomial?
(a) x2 + 2x – 3
(b) x2 – 2x + 3
(c) x2 – 2x – 3
(d) x2 + 2x + 3
Solution :
(c) x2 – 2x – 3

(v) What is the value of the polynomial if x =-1?
(a) 6
(b) -18
(c) 18
(d) 0
Solution :
(d) 0

Part-B
Section-III

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt anyone.

Question 21.
Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points (4, -3) and (8, 5) in the ratio 3 : 1 internally.
OR
Find a relation between x andy such that the point (x, y) is equidistant from the points (7, 1) and (3, 5).
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 25
OR
Let P(x,y) be equidistant from the points A(7, 1) and B(3, 5)
Give AP = BP. So. AP² = BP²
(x—7)2+(y— 1)2= (x—3)2+(v—5)2
x2 — 14x+49+y2—2y+ I = x2—6x+9+y2— 10y+25
x – y= 2

Question 22.
In the fig. if LM || CB and LN || CD, prove that \(\frac{\mathrm{AM}}{\mathrm{MB}}=\frac{\mathrm{AN}}{\mathrm{ND}}\)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 7
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 26
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 27

Question 23.
A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle. Prove that AB + CD = AD + BC.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 8
Solution :
To prove: AB + CD = AD + BC
Proof: AS = AP (Length of tangents from an external point to a circle are equal)
BQ= BP
CQ = CR
DS = DR
AS + BQ + CQ + DS = AP + BP + CR + DR
(AS + DS) + (BQ + CQ) = (AP + BP) + (CR + DR)
AD + BC = AB + CD

Question 24.
Draw a line segment of length 7.8 cm and divide it in the ratio 5:8. Measure the two parts.
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 28

Question 25.
Given 15 cot A = 8, find sin A and sec A.
OR
Find tan P – cot R
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 9
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 29

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 30
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 31

Question 26.
How many terms of the A.P: 9, 17, 25……… must be taken to give a supi 636?
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 32
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 33

Section-IV

Question 27.
Prove that -√3 is an irrational number.
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 34
3 divides p2 ⇒ 3 divides p
3 is a factor of p
Take p = 3c
3q2 = (3c)2
3q2 = 9c2    ⇒   q2 = 3c2
3 divides g2 ⇒ 3 divides q
3 is a factor of 9
Therefore 3 is a common factor of p and q.
It is a contradiction to our assumption that \(\frac{p}{q}\) is rational.
Hence √3 is an irrational number.

Question 28.
Two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point T. Prove that ∠PTQ = 2∠OPQ.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 10
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 37

Question 29.
Meena went to a bank to withdraw ₹ 2,000. She asked the cashier to give her ₹ 50 and ₹  100 notes only. Meena got 25 notes in all. Find how many notes of ₹ 50 and ₹ 100 she received.
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 38

Question 30.
A box contains 90 discs which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at random from the box, find the probability that it bears
(i) a two-digit number
(ii) a perfect square number.
(iii) a number divisible by 5. 3
OR
One card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting (/’) A king of red colour.
(ii) A spade
(iii) The queen of diamond
Solution :
(i) 10,11,12,…, 90 are two digit numbers. Thereare81 numbers. So, probability of getting a two-digit number =
\(=\frac{81}{90}=\frac{9}{10}\)

(ii) 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81 are perfect squares. So, probability of getting a perfect square number \(=\frac{9}{90}=\frac{1}{10}\)

(iii) 5, 10, 15,…, 90 are divisible by 5. There are 18 outcomes. So, probability of getting a number divisible by 5.
\(=\frac{18}{90}=\frac{1}{5}\)

OR

(i) Probability of getting “A king of red colour.”
P (King of red colour) \(=\frac{2}{52}=\frac{1}{26}\)

(ii) Probability of getting “A spade”
P (a spade) \(=\frac{13}{52}=\frac{1}{4}\)

(iii) Probability of getting “the queen of diamond” P (the queen of diamond)
P (the queen of diamond) \(=\frac{1}{52}\)

Question 31.
Metallic spheres of radii 6cm, 8cm and 10cm respectively are melted to form a solid sphere. Find the radius of the resulting sphere.
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 39

Question 32.
\(\text { Prove that } \frac{\sin A-\cos A+1}{\sin A+\cos A-1}=\frac{1}{\sec A-\tan A}\)
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 40
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 41

Question 33.
A motor boat whose speed in still water is 18 km/h, takes 1 hour more to go 24 km upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.
OR
Find two consecutive odd positive integers, sum of whose squares is 290.
Solution :
Given: Speed of boat = 18 km/hr,
Distance = 24 km
Let x be the speed of stream.
Let t1 and t2 be the time for upstream and downstream. As we know that,
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 42
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 43
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 45
OR
Let one of the odd positive integer be x
then the other odd positive integer is x + 2
ATQ, x2 + (x+2)2 = 290
⇒  x2 + x2 + 4x + 4 = 290
⇒ 2 x 2 + 4x – 286 = 0
⇒ 2(x2 + 2x – 143) = 0
⇒ x2 + 2x – 143 = 0
⇒ x2 + 13x — 11x — 143 = 0
⇒ x(x + 13) — 11(x + 13) = 0
⇒ (x – 11)(x + 13) = 0
⇒  (x – 11)0,(x + 13) = 0
Therefore, x = 11 or  -13
According to question, x is a positive odd integer.
Hence, we take positive value of x
So, x = 11 and(x + 2)11 + 2 = 13
Therefore, the odd positive integers are 11 and 13.

Section-V

Question 34.
The angles of depression of the top and bottom of a 8m tall building from the top of a multistoried building are 30° and 45°, respectively. Find the height of the multi-storied building and the distance between the two buildings.
OR
A 1.2 m tall girl spots a balloon moving with the wind in a horizontal line at a height 88.2 m from the ground. The angle of elevation of the balloon from the eyes of the girl at any instant is 60°. After sometime, the angle of elevation reduces 30°. Find the distance travelled by the balloon during the interval.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 11
Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 53
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 46
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 47
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 49
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 48

Question 35.
The pth qth and rth terms of an A.P. are a, b and c Show that a(q – r) + b(r -p) + c(p – q) = + c(p – q) = 0                            Solution :
Let AB be the multi-storied building of height hm and CD the building at a distance xm.
Let A be the first term and D the common difference of A.P.
Tp = a = A + (p – 1)D(A – D) + pD …………(i)
Tq= b = A + (q – 1)D = (AD) + qD ……….(ii)
Tr = c = A + (r – 1)D(A – D) + rD ……………(iii)
Here we have got two unknowns A and D which are to be eliminated.
We multiply (i), (ii) and (iii) by q  – r, r  – p and p  – q respectively and add:
a(q – r) = (A – D)(q – r) + Dp(q – r)
b(r – p) (A – D)(r – p) + Dq(r – p)
c(p – q) – (A – D)(p – q) + Dr(p – q)
a(q  – r) + b(r  – p) + c(p – q)
= (A – D)[q – r + r – p + p – q] + D[p(q – r) + q(r – p) + r(p – q)]
= (A – D)(0) + D[pq — pr + qr — pq + rp  – rq)
= 0

Question 36.
A survey regarding the heights (in cm) of 51 girls of class X of a school was conducted and the following data was obtained. Find the median height and the mean using the formulae.

Height (in cm) Number of Girls
Less than 140 4
Less than 145 11
Less than 150 29
Less than 155 40
Less than 160 46
Less than 165 51

Solution :
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 50
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 2 with Solutions 51

The Solid State Class 12 Important Extra Questions Chemistry Chapter 1

Here we are providing Class 12 Chemistry Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 1 The Solid State. Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions are the best resource for students which helps in Class 12 board exams.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 Important Extra Questions The Solid State

The Solid State Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
A metal crystallises in a body centred cubic structure. If ‘a’ is the edge length of its unit cell, ‘r’ is the radius of the sphere. What is the relationship between ‘r’ and ‘a’? (CBSE Sample Paper 2017-18)
Answer:
r = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\)a

Question 2.
If the radius of the octahedral void is ‘r’ and radius of the atoms in close packing is ‘R’. What is the relation between ‘r’ and ‘R’? (CBSE Sample Paper 2017-18)
Answer:
r = 0.414 R

Question 3.
How many octahedral voids are there in 1 mole of a compound having cubic closed packed structure? (CBSE Sample Paper 2007)
Answer:
4 mole

Question 4.
Write a feature which will distinguish a metallic solid from an ionic solid.
Answer:
Metallic solids are good conductors of heat and electricity whereas ionic solids are insulators in solid state but conductors in molten state and in aqueous solution.

Question 5.
Write a distinguishing feature of metallic solids.
Answer:
Metallic solids are good conductors of heat and electricity.

Question 6.
KF has ccp structure. Calculate the radius of the unit cell if the side of the cube or edge length is 400 pm. How many F ions and octahedral voids are there in the unit cell? (CBSE Sample Paper 2011)
Answer:
For ccp lattice,
r = \(\frac{a}{2 \sqrt{2}}=\frac{400}{2 \times 1.414}\) = 141.4 pm
There are four (4) F ions and four (4) octahedral voids per unit cell.

Question 7.
Which point defect in crystals lowers the density of a crystal?
Answer:
Schottky defect

Question 8.
What type of interactions hold the molecules together in a polar molecular solid?
Answer:
Dipole-dipole forces

Question 9.
Which stoichiometric defect in crystals increases the density of a solid? (CBSE Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Interstitial defect

Question 10.
What type of semiconductor is obtained when silicon is doped with arsenic? (C.B.S.E. 2010)
Answer:
n-type semiconductor

Question 11.
Define forbidden zone of an insulator. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008)
Answer:
The large energy gap between the filled valence band and the empty conduction band in an insulator is called forbidden zone.

Question 12.
How do metallic and ionic substances differ in conducting electricity? (C.B.S.E. 2009)
Answer:
Metallic solids conduct electricity in the solid state whereas ionic substances conduct electricity in molten state or in solution, or metallic substances conduct electricity through electrons while ionic substances conduct electricity through ions.

Question 13.
What is the coordination number of each type of ions in a rock salt type crystal structure? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008)
Answer:
C.N. of Na+ = 6, C.N. of Cl = 6.

Question 14.
What is meant by ‘doping’ in a semiconductor? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2012)
Answer:
The process of introduction of small amounts of impurities in the lattice of the crystal is called doping.

Question 15.
How may the conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor be increased? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2012)
Answer:
The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor may be increased by adding an appropriate amount of suitable impurity. This process is called doping.

Question 16.
How many atoms constitute one unit cell of a face-centred cubic crystal? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Four

Question 17.
What type of magnetism is shown by a substance if magnetic moments of domains are arranged in the same direction? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Ferromagnetism

Question 18.
Out of NaCI and AgCI, which one shows Frenkel defect and why? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2019)
Answer:
AgCI shows Frenkel defect. This is because of small size of Ag+ ions; these can fit into interstitial sites of Cl ions.

Question 19.
What type of stoichiometric defect is shown by ZnS and why? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Frenkel defect. This is caused due to the large difference in size of ions.

Question 20.
Why conductivity of silicon increases on doping with phosphorus? (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
When silicon is doped with phosphorus, an extra electron is introduced after forming four covalent bonds. This extra electron gets delocalised and serves to conduct electricity. Hence, conductivity increases.

The Solid State Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Calculate the number of unit cells in 8.1 g of aluminium if it crystallises in a face-centred cubic (fcc) structure. (Atomic mass of Al = 27 g mol-1).
Answer:
Moles of aluminium = \(\frac{8.1}{27}\) mol
No. of atoms of Al in 8.1 g = \(\frac{8.1}{27}\) × 6.022 × 1023
No. of atoms in fee unit cell = 4
No. of unit cells = \(\frac{8.1}{27} \times \frac{6.022 \times 10^{23}}{4}\)
= 4.5 × 1022

Question 2.
Tungsten crystallises in body centred cubic unit cell. If edge of the unit cell is 316.5 pm, what is the radius of the tungsten atom? (CBSE Sample Paper 2017-18)
Answer:
If a is the edge length of bcc unit cell, then radius of an atom,
r = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\)a
Here, a = 316.5 pm
∴ r = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\) × 316.5 pm = 137.04 pm

Question 3.
Silver metal crystallises with a face centred cubic lattice. The length of the unit cell is found to be 4.077 × 10-8 cm. Calculate atomic radius and density of silver. (Atomic mass of Ag = 108u, NA = 6.02 × 1023). (C.B.S.E. Sample Paper 2012)
Answer:
Edge length of unit cell, a = 4.077 × 10-8 cm For fcc lattice, radius of an atom is related to edge length, a as:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 1

Question 4.
Analysis shows that FeO has a non- stoichiometric composition with molecular formula Fe0.950. Give reason.
Answer:
It shows metal deficiency defect. In FeO, some Fe2+ ions are replaced by Fe3+ ions. Three Fe2+ ions are replaced by two Fe3+ ions to maintain electrical neutrality.

Question 5.
Following is the schematic alignment of magnetic moments:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 2
Identify the type of magnetism. What happens when these substances are heated? (CBSE Sample Paper 2017-18)
Answer:
Ferrimagnetism. These substances lose ferrimagnetism on heating and become paramagnetic.

Question 6.
Identify the type of defect shown in the following figure:
What type of substances show this defect? (CBSE Sample Paper 2017-18)
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 3
Answer:
Schottky defect.
This type of defect is shown by ionic compounds in which
(i) the ions have high coordination number and
(ii) ions (cations and anions) are of almost similar sizes.

Question 7.
Classify each of the following as being either a p-type or n-type semiconductor:
(i) Ge doped with In.
(ii) Si doped with B. (CBSE Sample Paper 2011)
Answer:
(i) Ge belongs to group 14 and In belongs to group 13.
Therefore, an electron deficient hole is created and it is a p-type semiconductor.

(ii) B belongs to group 13 and Si belongs to group 14. Therefore, an electron deficient hole is created and it is a p-type semiconductor.

Question 8.
Give reason:
(a) Why is Frenkel defect found in AgCI?
(b) What is the difference between phosphorus doped and gallium doped silicon semiconductors? (CBSE Sample Paper 2011)
Answer:
(a) Due to small size of Ag+ ion, it can fit into interstitial sites.
(b) Phosphorus doped silicon is n-type semiconductor while gallium doped silicon is p-type semiconductor.

Question 9.
Why does LiCl acquire pink colour when heated in Li vapours? (CBSE Sample Paper 2011)
Answer:
On heating LiCl in Li vapours, the excess of Li atoms deposit on the surface of the crystal. The CT ions diffuse to the surface of the crystal and combine with Li atoms to form LiCl. The electrons produced by ionisation of Li atoms diffuse into the crystal and get trapped at anion vacancies called F-centres. These absorb energy from visible light and radiate pink colour.

Question 10.
Write a feature which will distinguish a metallic solid from an ionic solid. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2010, 2012)
Answer:
Metallic solids are good conductors of heat and electricity whereas ionic solids are insulators in solid state but conductors in molten state and in aqueous solution.

Question 11.
Crystalline solids are anisotropic in nature. What does this statement mean? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2011)
Answer:
This means that crystalline solids have different physical properties such as electrical resistance or refractive index in different directions. This is because of different arrangement of particles in different directions.

Question 12.
What are n-type semiconductors? (C.6.S.E. Delhi 2012)
Answer:
These are the semiconductors in which the current is carried by the electrons in the normal way. For example, germanium doped with impurity containing five valence electrons (e.g., P).

Question 13.
What is the formula of a compound in which the element Y forms hep lattice and atoms of X occupy 2/3rd of tetrahedral voids? (C.B.S.E. 2015)
Answer:
Atoms Y adopt hep arrangement and there are two tetrahedral sites per atom of Y. Since 2/3rd tetrahedral sites are occupied by atoms of X, then for each atom of Y, the number of X atoms will be = 2 × \(\frac{2}{3}=\frac{4}{3}\)
Formula of compound – X4/3Y or X4Y3

Question 14.
Define the following terms in relation to crystalline solids:
(i) Unit cell
(ii) Coordination number
Give one example in each case. (C.B.S.E. 2011)
Answer:
(i) Unit cell is the smallest portion of a crystal lattice which when repeated over and over again in different directions results in the entire lattice. For example, simple cubic unit cell.

(ii) The number of nearest neighbours in a packing is called coordination number. For example, in a body centred cubic structure, the coordination number is eight.

Question 15.
Account for the following:
(i) Schottky defects lower the density of related solids.
(ii) Conductivity of silicon increases on doping it with phosphorus. (C.B.S.E. 2013)
Answer:
(i) In Schottky defect, there are holes due to missing cations and anions. Due to the presence of holes in solid, the density decreases.

(ii) Pure silicon has a network lattice in which all the four valence electrons are bonded to four other atoms. Therefore, it is an insulator. However, when silicon is doped with phosphorus having five valence electrons, the impurity leads to excess of electrons after forming four covalent bonds like silicon. The extra electrons serve to conductivity and therefore, the conductivity of silicon doped with phosphorus increases.

Question 16.
(i) What type of non-stoichiometric point defect is responsible for the pink colour of LiCl?
Answer:
Metal excess defect due to anion vacancies filled by free electrons i.e. F-centres.

(ii) What type of stoichiometric defect is shown by NaCI?
Answer:
Schottky defect.

OR

How will you distinguish between the following pairs of terms:
(i) Tetrahedral and octahedral voids
Answer:
Tetrahedral void is surrounded by 4 constituent particles (atoms, molecules or ions). Octahedral void is surrounded by 6 constituent particles (atoms, molecules or ions).

(ii) Crystal lattice and unit cell? (C.B.S.E. 2014)
Answer:
A regular three dimensional arrangement of points in space is called crystal lattice.
The smallest repeating pattern in crystal lattice which when repeated in three dimensional space gives the entire lattice is called the unit cell.

Question 17.
The well known mineral fluorite is chemically calcium fluoride. It is known that in one unit cell of this mineral there are 4 Ca2+ ions and 8 F ions and that Ca2+ ions are arranged in a fcc lattice. The fluoride ions fill all the tetrahedral holes in the face centred cubic lattice of Ca2+ ions. The edge of the unit cell is 5.46 × 10-8 cm in length. The density of the solid is 3.18 g cm-3. Use this information to calculate Avogadro’s number. (Molar mass of CaF2 = 78.08 g mol”1) (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Density, d = \(\frac{Z \times M}{a^{3} \times N_{A}}\)
d = 3.18 g cm-3, M = 78.08 g mol-1
a = 5.46 × 10-8 cm
Since the lattice is fcc, Z = 4
Substituting the values,
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 4

Question 18.
The density of copper metal is 8.95 g cm-3. If the radius of copper atom be 127.8 pm, is the copper unit cell simple cubic, body centred cubic or face centred cubic? (C.B.S.E. 2010, C.B.S.E. Delhi 2010) ZxM
Answer:
Density, d = \(\frac{Z \times M}{a^{3} \times N_{A}}\)
Assuming fcc lattice for copper
a = 2√2 r
= 2 × 1.414 × 127.8 × 10-10 cm
∴ a3 = (2 × 1.414 × 127.8 × 10-10 cm)3
= 4.721 × 10-23 cm3
∴ d = \(\frac{4 \times 63.54}{4.721 \times 10^{-23} \times 6.02 \times 10^{23}}\)
= 8.94 g cm-3
Since the density is same as observed, the lattice is fcc lattice.

Question 19.
An element with density 10 g cm-3 forms a cubic unit cell with edge length of 3 × 10-8 cm. What is the nature of the cubic unit cell if the atomic mass of the element is 81 g mol-1? (C.B.S.E. 2015)
Answer:
Density, d = \(\frac{z \times M}{a^{3} \times N_{A}}\)
d = 10 g cm-3, M = 81 g mol-1
a3 = (3 × 10-8 cm)3
= 27 × 10-24 cm3
NA = 6.022 × 1023
Therefore, 10 = \(\frac{Z \times 81}{\left(27 \times 10^{-24}\right) \times 6.022 \times 10^{23}}\)
Z = \(\frac{10 \times 27 \times 10^{-24} \times 6.022 \times 10^{23}}{81}\)
= 2.007
Nature of cubic unit cell = bcc

Question 20.
Aluminium crystallises in a fcc structure. Atomic radius of the metal is 125 pm. What is the length of the side of unit cell of the metal? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2019C)
Answer:
For fcc,
r = \(\frac{a}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)
a = 2r × √2 = 2 × 125 pm × 1.414 = 353.5 pm

Question 21.
Answer the following:
(a) What is the formula of a compound in which element Y forms ccp lattice and atom X occupy \(\frac{1}{3}\)rd of tetrahedral voids?
(b) What type of non-stoichiometric point defect leads to colour in alkali metal halides? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2019C)
Answer:
(a) X2Y3
(b) Metal excess defect due to anionic vacancies / F-centres.

Question 22.
(a) Atoms of element B form hep lattice and those of the element A occupy \(\frac{2}{3}\)rd of octahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound formed by the elements A and B?
(b) What type of stoichiometric defect is shown by ZnS and why? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2019C)
Answer:
(a) A2B3
(b) Frenkel defect, due to small size of Zn2+ ion.

Question 23.
What happens when AgCl is doped with CdCl2? What is the name of this defect?
OR
What type of defect is shown by NaCl in
(a) stoichiometric defects, and
(b) non-stoichiometric defects? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2019C)
Answer:
When CdCl2 is added to AgCl, it introduces impurity defect. The addition of one Cd2+ ion will replace two Ag+ ions to maintain electrical neutrality. One of the position of Ag+ ions will be occupied by Cd2+ ion and other will be left as a hole. Thus, cationic vacancies are produced. This is called impurity defect.
OR
(a) In stoichiometric defects: Schottky defect.
(b) In non-stoichiometric defects: Metal excess due to anionic vacancies.

The Solid State Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Copper crystallises with face centred cubic unit cell. If the radius of copper atom is 127.8 pm, calculate the density of copper metal. (Atomic mass of Cu = 63.55 u and Avogadro’s number, NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol-1). (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
For a fcc unit cell, edge length (a) is related to radius of atom as:
r = \(\frac{a}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)
or a = 2√2.r = 2 × 1.414 × 127.8
= 361.42 pm
or = 361.42 × 10-10 cm
Since the lattice is fcc, the number of copper atoms per unit cell, Z = 4.
Density, d = \(\frac{Z \times M}{a^{3} \times N_{A}}\)
M = 63.55 u, NA = 6.02 × 1023
∴ d = \(\frac{4 \times 63.55}{\left(361.42 \times 10^{-10}\right)^{3} \times\left(6.02 \times 10^{23}\right)}\)
= 8.94 g cm-3

Question 2.
An element crystallises in a fcc lattice with cell edge of 250 pm. Calculate its density if 300 g of this element contain 2 × 1024 atoms.
Answer:
Length of edge, a = 250 pm = 250 × 10-12 m
= 250 × 10-10 cm
Volume of unit cell = (250 × 10-10 cm)3
= 15.625 × 10-24 cm3
Mass of unit cell = No. of atoms in unit cell × Mass of each atom
Since the element has fcc arrangement, the number of atoms per unit cell, Z = 4
Mass of an atom = \(\frac{300}{2 \times 10^{24}}\) g
∴ Mass of unit cell = \(\frac{300}{2 \times 10^{24}}\) x 4
= 6.0 × 10-22 g
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 5

Question 3.
An element with molar mass 27 g mol-1 forms a cubic unit cell with edge length 4.05 × 10-8 cm. If its density is 2.7 g cm-3, what is the nature of the unit cell?
Answer:
Density of unit cell, d = \(\frac{\mathrm{Z} \times \mathrm{M}}{a^{3} \times \mathrm{N}_{\mathrm{A}}}\)
d = 2.7 g cm-3, a = 4.05 × 10-8 cm,
M = 27 g mol-1, NA = 6.022 × 1023
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 6
= 4.0
Since Z = 4, the unit cell is face centred cubic (fcc) unit cell.

Question 4.
An element with density 11.2 g cm-3 forms a fee lattice with edge length of 4 × 10-8 cm. Calculate the atomic mass of the element.
Answer:
Edge length of the unit cell
a = 4 × 10-8 cm
Density = 11.2 g cm-3
No. of atoms per unit cell in fcc lattice, Z = 4
Density, d = \(\frac{z \times M}{a^{3} \times N_{A}}\)
11.2 g cm-3 = \(\frac{4 \times M}{\left(4 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{~cm}\right)^{3} \times\left(6.02 \times 10^{23} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\right)}\)
or M = \(\frac{\left(11.2 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~cm}^{-3}\right) \times\left(4 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{~cm}\right)^{3} \times\left(6.02 \times 10^{23} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\right)}{4}\)
= 107.9 g mol-1
Atomic mass of element = 107.9 u.

Question 5.
The density of lead is 11.35 g cm-3 and the metal crystallises with fcc unit cell. Estimate the radius of lead atom. (At. Mass of lead = 207 g mol-1 and NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol-1) (CBSE Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Let length of edge = a cm
Density = 11.35 g cm-3
No. of atoms per unit cell in fcc Lattice = 4
Atomic mass, M = 207 g mol-1
Density, d = \(\frac{Z \times M}{a^{3} \times N_{A}}\)
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 7
= 121.14 × 10-24 cm3
Edge length, a = (121.14)1/3 × 10-8
= 4.948 × 10-8 cm
or = 4.948 × 10-10 m
or = 494.8 × 10-12 m = 494.8 pm
Now, radius in fcc = \(\frac{a}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)
= \(\frac{494.8 \mathrm{pm}}{2 \times 1.414}\) = 174.96 pm

Question 6.
How can you determine the atomic mass of an unknown metal if you know its density and the dimension of its unit cell? Explain. (C.B.S.E. 2011)
Answer:
Consider a unit cell of edge a cm
Volume of unit cell = a3 cm3
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 8
Mass of unit cell = No. of atoms in a unit cell × Mass of each atom = Z × m …… (ii)
Mass of an atom present in a unit cell
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 9
Knowing density (d), edge length (a), number of atoms per unit cell (Z) and Avogadro’s number (6.02 × 1023), atomic mass can be calculated.

Question 7.
ZnO turns yellow on heating. Why? (C.B.S.E. 2016)
Answer:
When ZnO is heated, it loses oxygen as:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 10
The Zn2+ ions are entrapped in the interstitial sites and electrons are entrapped in the neighbouring interstitial sites to maintain electrical neutrality. This results in metal excess defect. Due to the presence of free electrons in the interstitial sites the colour is yellow.

Question 8.
(a) What type of semiconductor is obtained when silicon is doped with boron?
Answer:
(a) When silicon is doped with boron having three valence electrons, the bonds formed create electron deficient sites called holes. Under the influence of applied electric field, one electron from neighbouring atom moves to fill the hole but creates another hole at its own place. Therefore, the electrical conductance is due to movement of positive holes. Therefore, this type of semi-conductor is called p-type semi-conductor.

(b) What type of magnetism is shown in the following alignment of magnetic moments?
↑    ↑    ↑    ↑   ↑   ↑    ↑
Answer:
Ferromagnetic.

(c) What type of point defect is produced when AgCI is doped with CdCl2? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2013)
Answer:
CdCl2 on adding to AgCl introduces impurity defect. The addition of one Cd2+ ion will replace two Ag+ ions to maintain electrical neutrality. One of the positions of Ag+ will be occupied by Cd2+ ion and the other will be left as a hole. Thus, a hole is created similar to Schottky defect.

Question 9.
Account for the following:
(i) Schottky defects lower the density of related solids.
Answer:
In Schottky defect, there are holes due to missing cations and anions. Due to the presence of holes in solid, the density decreases.

(ii) Conductivity of silicon increases on doping it with phosphorus. (C.B.S.E. 2013)
Answer:
Pure silicon has a network lattice in which all the four valence electrons are bonded to four other atoms. Therefore, it is an insulator. However, when silicon is doped with phosphorus (s2p3) having five valence electrons, the impurity leads to excess of electrons after forming four covalent bonds like silicon. The extra electrons serve to conductivity and therefore, the conductivity of silicon doped with phosphorus increases.

Question 10.
Examine the given defective crystal
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 11
Answer the following questions:
(i) What type of stoichiometric defect is shown by the crystal?
Answer:
Schottky defect

(ii) How is the density of the crystal affected by this defect?
Answer:
Density of the crystal decreases.

(iii) What type of ionic substances show such defect? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Crystals having
(a) high coordination number and
(b) ions (cations and anions) of almost similar sizes. For example: KCl, KBr.

Question 11.
An element crystallises in a fcc lattice with edge length of 400 pm. The density of the element is 7 g cm-3. How many atoms are present in 280 g of the element? (C.B.S.E. 2016)
Answer:
Edge length, a = 400 pm
= 400 × 10-10 cm
Volume of unit cell = (400 × 10-10)3
= 64 × 10-24 cm-3
Mass of element = 280 g
Density = 7 g cm-3
Volume of 280 g of the element = \(\frac{280 \mathrm{~g}}{7 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~cm}^{-3}}\)
= 40 cm3
No. of unit cells in this volume
= \(\frac{40 \mathrm{~cm}^{3}}{64 \times 10^{-24} \mathrm{~cm}^{3}}\)
= 6.25 × 1023 unit cells
Since the structure is fcc, number of atoms in a unit cell = 4
∴ No. of atoms in 280 g of element
= 4 × 6.25 × 1023
= 2.5 × 1024 atoms

Question 12.
An element crystallises in a fcc lattice with cell edge of 250 pm. Calculate the density of 300 g of this element containing 2 × 1024 atoms. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Length of edge, a = 250 pm = 250 × 10-10 cm
Volume of unit cell = (250 × 10-10)3
= 15.625 × 10-24 cm3
Mass of unit cell = No. of atoms in unit cell × mass of each atom
Since the element has fcc arrangement, number of atoms per unit cell, Z = 4
Mass of an atom = \(\frac{300}{2 \times 10^{24}}\) = 1.50 × 10-22 g
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 12

Question 13.
An element crystallises in fcc lattice with a cell edge of 300 pm. The density of the element is 10.8 g cm-3. Calculate the number of atoms in 108 g of the element. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Edge length of the unit cell = 300 pm
= 300 × 10-10 cm
Volume of unit cell = (300 × 10-10) 3
= 27 × 10-24 cm3
Mass of element = 108 g
Volume of 108 g element = \(\frac{108 \mathrm{~g}}{10.8 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~cm}^{-3}}\)
= 10 cm3
No. of unit cells = \(\frac{10}{27 \times 10^{-24}}\)
= 3.7 × 1023 unit cells
Since the structure is fcc, number of atoms per unit cell = 4
Number of atom is 108 g = 3.7 × 1023 × 4
= 1.48 × 1024.

Question 14.
(a) An element crystallises in bcc lattice with a cell edge of 3 × 10-8 cm. The density of the element is 6.89 g cm-3. Calculate the molar mass of the element. (NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol-1)
Answer:
Density of element, d = 6.89 gcm-3
Cell edge, a = 3 × 10-8 cm
Z = 2 (bcc)
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 13

(b) What type of semiconductor is obtained when
(i) Ge is doped with In?
(ii) Si is doped with P? (C.B.S.E. 2019 Al)
Answer:
(i) p-type
(ii) n-type

Question 15.
(a) A compound is formed by two elements M and N. The element N forms ccp and M atoms occupy 1/3rd of tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound?
(b) Which of the following lattices has the highest packing efficiency
(i) simple cubic
(ii) body centred cubic and
(iii) hexagonal close packed lattice?
(c) An element with molar mass 2.7 × 10-2 kg mol-1 forms a cubic unit cell with edge length 405 pm. If the density is 2.7 × 103 kg m-3. What is the nature of the cubic unit cell?
Answer:
(a) Since N forms ccp arrangement, it will have 4 atoms in a unit cell.
Number of N atoms in unit cell = 4
For each atom, there are two tetrahedral voids so that there are 8 tetrahedral voids per unit cell.
No. of M atoms = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 8 = \(\frac{8}{3}\)
Formula = M8/3N4
or = M2 N3.

(b) The packing efficiencies are:
simple cubic = 52.4%
body centred cubic = 68%
hexagonal close packed = 74%
∴ Hexagonal close packed lattice has highest packing efficiency.

(c) Edge length = 405 pm = 405 × 10-12 m
Density of the cell = 2.7 × 10-3 kg m-3
Molar mass = 2.7 × 10-2 kg mol-1
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 14
Since the unit cell contains 4 atoms, it is cubic close packed structure, ccp.

Question 16.
How will you distinguish between the following pair of terms:
(i) Hexagonal close packing and cubic close packing
(ii) Crystal lattice and unit cell.
(iii) Tetrahedral void and octahedral void.
Answer:
(i)

Hexagonal close packing cubic close packing
(i) In hcp, the spheres of the third layer are exactly aligned with those of the first layer. This arrangement is represented as AB AB …………… type. (i) In ccp, the spheres of the third layer are not aligned with those of the first layer or second layer. The layers of fourth layer are aligned with those of the first layer. This pattern is represented as ABC ABC ………
(ii) In hcp, the tetrahedral voids of the second layer may be covered by the spheres of the third layer. (ii) In ccp, the third layer may be placed above the second layer in a manner such that its spheres cover the octahedral voids.

(ii) The three dimensional arrangement of constituent particles of a substance (atoms, ions or molecules) is called crystal lattice.
The smallest repeating pattern in a crystal lattice which when repeated in three dimensions gives the crystal is called unit cell.

(iii) A void surrounded by four spheres is called a tetrahedral void while a void surrounded by six spheres is called an octahedral void.

Question 17.
(i) How many lattice points are there in one unit cell of each of the following lattice?
(a) face centred cubic
(b) face centred tetragonal
(c) body centred.
Answer:
(i) (a) In face centred cubic arrangement, number of lattice points are:
8 (at corners) + 6 (at face centres)
Lattice points per unit celt
= 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) + 6 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 4

(b) In face centred tetragonal, number of lattice points are:
= 8 (at corners) + 6 (at face centres) Lattice points per unit cell 1 1
= 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) + 6 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 4

(c) In body centred cubic arrangement number of lattice points are:
= 8 (at corners) + 1 (at body center) Lattice points per unit cell
= 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) + 1 = 2

(ii) Explain: (a) The basis of similarities and differences between metallic and ionic crystals.
(b) Ionic solids are hard and brittle.
Answer:
(a) Basis of similarities
1. Both ionic and metallic crystals have electrostatic forces of attraction. In ionic crystals, these are between the oppositely charged ions while in metals, these are among the valence electrons and the kernels. That is why both ionic and metallic crystals have high melting points.
2. In both cases, the bond is non- directional.

Basis of differences
1. In ionic crystals, the ions are not free to move and therefore, they do not conduct electricity in the solid state. They conduct electricity in the molten state or in their aqueous solution. However, in metals, the valence electrons are free to move and hence they conduct electricity in the solid state.
2. Ionic bond in ionic crystals is strong due to electrostatic forces of attraction. However, metallic bond may be weak or strong depending upon the number of valence electrons and the size of the kernels.

(b) Ionic crystals are hard because there are strong electrostatic forces of attraction among the oppositely charged ions. They are brittle because the ionic bond is non-directional.

Question 18.
(a) If the radius of the octahedral void is r and radius of the atoms in close packing is R. Derive relation between r and R.
Answer:
A sphere of radius r filling in an octahedral void of spheres of radius R is shown in figure.
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 15
If the length of the unit cell is a cm, then
In right angled ∆ABC, AB = BC = a cm
The diagonal AC is:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 16
Thus, for an atom to occupy an octahedral void, its radius must be 0.414 times the radius of the sphere.

(b) Copper crystallises into a fcc lattice with edge length 3.61 × 10-8 cm. Show that the calculated density is in agreement with its measured value of 8.29 g cm-3.
Answer:
Density, d = \(\frac{Z \times M}{a^{3} \times N_{A}}\)
For fcc lattice, Z = 4
Atomic mass, M of copper = 63.5 g/mol-1
a = 3.61 × 10-8 cm
∴ p = \(\frac{4 \times 63.5}{\left(3.61 \times 10^{-8}\right)^{3} \times 6.022 \times 10^{23}}\)
= 8.96 g cm-3
This value is close to measured value.

Question 19.
What is a semiconductor? Describe the two main types of semiconductors and contrast their conduction mechanism.
Answer:
The substances whose conductance lies between that of conductors (metals) and insulators are called semiconductors. They have conductivity values ranging from 10-6 to 104-1m-1. Two main types of semiconductors are n-type and p-type.

(i) n-type semiconductors: These are the semiconductors in which the current is carried by the electrons in the normal way. For example, silicon and germanium belong to group 14 of the periodic table and have four valence electrons each. In their crystals, each atom forms four covalent bonds with its neighbours.

When it is doped with an element of group 15 such as P or As, which contains five valence electrons, they occupy some of the lattice sites in silicon or germanium crystal. Four of the five valence electrons are used in the formation of four covalent bonds with the four neighbouring Si atoms and the fifth electron is extra and becomes delocalised.

This delocalised electron will be able to conduct electricity and such type of conduction is called n-type conduction. Hence silicon or germanium doped with extra electron of impurity are called n-type semiconductors.

(ii) p-type semiconductors: These are the semiconductors in which current is carried by the movement of positive holes. For example, when Ge or Si are doped with electron deficient atoms such as Ga or In (of Group 13) containing three valence electrons, the atoms of Ga or In will replace Ge atoms.

Each In or Ga atom will use its three electrons for forming three covalent bonds with neighbouring Ge atoms and the place for fourth bond will remain missing and is called electron vacancy or hole. Such holes can move through the crystals like a positive charge giving rise to conductivity. This type of conduction is called p-type conduction. Hence, Si or Ge doped with electron deficient atoms as impurity are called p-type semiconductors.

Question 20.
Explain the following with suitable examples:
(a) Ferromagnetism
(b) Paramagnetism
(c) Ferrimagnetism
(d) Anti-ferromagnetism
(e) 12-16 and 13-15 group compounds.
Answer:
(a) Ferromagnetism: When there is spontaneous alignment of magnetic moments of domains in the same direction, we get ferromagnetism. These have strong magnetic effects and ordering of domains persists even when magnetic field is removed and – ferromagnetic substance becomes permanent magnet.

(b) Paramagnetism: The substances which have permanent magnetic dipoles and are attracted by the magnetic field are called paramagnetic substances. This property of attraction by the magnetic field is known as paramagnetism. The paramagnetic substance are atoms, molecules or ions having unpaired electrons. For example, O2, Cu2+, Fe2+, etc. They lose their magnetism in the absence of magnetic field.

(c) Ferrimagnetism: When the magnetic moments of the domains are aligned in parallel or anti-parallel directions in unequal numbers resulting in net magnetic moment, we get ferrimagnetism.

(d) Anti-ferromagnetism: It arises when the alignment of magnetic moments is in a compensatory way so that the resultant magnetic moment is zero (e.g., MnO).

(e) The solid binary compounds prepared by combining elements of group 12 and 16 are called 12-16 compounds. For example CdS, ZnS, etc. The compounds prepared by combining elements of group 13 and 15 are called 13-15 compounds. For example, AlP, GaAs, etc. These compounds are used as semiconductors.

Question 21.
Give the points of differences between Schottky defect and Frenkel defect ?
OR
Explain:
(i) Why is Frenkel defect not found in pure alkali metal halides ?
(ii) Zinc oxide is white but it turns yellow on heating.
(iii) CaCl2 will introduce Schottky defect when added to AgCl crystal.
Answer:
The important differences between Schottky and Frenkel defects are given ahead:

Schottky defect Frenkel defect
1. It is produced be cause of missing atoms or ions from their normal sites. 1. It is produced when some atoms or ions leave their normal sites and occupy interstitial sites.
2. The presence of Schottky defect lowers the density of the crystal. 2. It does not affect the density of the crystal.
3. It is generally exhibited by ionic solids having high coordination number and in which cations and anions are of equal size. e.g., NaCl, CsCl. 3. It is generally exhibited by ionic solids having low coordination number and in which anions are larger in size than cation e.g., ZnS, AgCl.

OR
(i) Frenkel defect is not found in pure alkali metal halides because the ions cannot get into the interstitial sites due to their larger size.

(ii) When ZnO is heated it loses oxygen as:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 17
The Zn2+ ions are entrapped in the interstitial sites and electrons are entrapped in the neighbouring interstitial sites to maintain electrical neutrality. This results in metal excess defect. Due to the presence of free electrons in the interstitial sites the colour is yellow.

(iii) CaCl2 on adding to AgCl introduces impurity defect. The addition of one Ca2+ ion will replace two Ag+ ions to maintain electrical conductivity. One of the position of Ag+ will be occupied by Ca2+ ion and other will be left as a hole. Thus, a hole is created similar to Schottky defect.

Question 22.
What do you understand by a space lattice and a unit cell?
Answer:
(a) Space lattice is a regular arrangement of the constituent particles (atoms, ions or molecules) of a crystalline solid in three dimentional space.

The positions which are occupied by atoms, ions or molecules in the crystal lattice are called lattice points or lattice sites. A two dimensional and a three dimensional space lattice is shown in Fig. 1 (a) and 1 (b) respectively.
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 18
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 19
Fig. 1. (a) Two dimensional and
(b) Three dimensional space lattice.

A unit cell is the smallest repeating unit in space lattice which when repeated over and over again results in the crystal of the given substance. The unit cell gives the shape of the entire crystal. The crystal may be considered to consist of an infinite number of unit cells. The unit cell in the above crystal lattice [Fig. 1 (b)] is shown in The complete crystal lattice can be obtained by extending the unit cell in all the three directions.
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 20

Question 23.
What are tetrahedral and octahedral holes (voids) in close packed stacks of spheres? Explain.
Answer:
Tetrahedral and octahedral holes. The close packed arrangement of spheres has two types of holes or voids:
Tetrahedral holes: Tetrahedral hole Is produced when one sphere rests upon three other touching spheres. The space which is left between these touching spheres is called tetrahedral hole or tetrahedral site. The tetrahedral hole is shown in Fig. (a). It may be noted that in close packed arrangement (ccp or hcp), there are twice as many tetrahedral holes as there are spheres.

Octahedral hole.: This type of hole is formed at the centre of six spheres which form a regular octahedral. This is shown in Fig. (b). From the figure, it is clear that the octahedral hole is formed by two sets of equilateral triangles which point in opposite directions. It may be noted that there are same number of octahedral holes as the number of spheres.
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 21
Fig. (a) Tetrahedral hole (b) Octahedral hole.

Question 24.
(a) Why does table salt, NaCl, some times appear yellow in colour?
(b) Why is FeO(s) not formed in stoichiometric composition?
(c) Why does white ZnO (s) becomes yellow upon heating?
Answer:
(a) The yellow colour of sodium chloride crystals is due to metal excess defect. In this defect, the unpaired electrons get trapped in anion vacancies. These sites are called F-centres. The yellow colour results by excitation of these electrons when they absorb energy from the visible light falling on the crystals.

(b) In the crystals of FeO, some of the Fe2+ cations are replaced by Fe3+ ions. To balance the charge, three Fe2+ ions are replaced by two Fe3+ ions to make up for the loss of positive charge. As a result, there would be less amount of metal as compared to stoichiometric proportion.

(c) When ZnO is heated it loses oxygen as:
Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions Chapter 1 The Solid State 22
The Zn2+ ions are entrapped in the interstitial sites and electrons are entrapped in the neighbouring interstitial sites to maintain electrical neutrality. This results in metal excess defect and F-centres are created. Due to the presence of electrons in the interstitial voids, the colour is yellow.

Question 25.
(a) Explain why does conductivity of germanium crystals increase on doping with gallium.
(b) In a compound, nitrogen atoms (N) make cubic close packed lattice and metal atoms (M) occupy one-third of the tetrahedral voids present. Determine the formula of the compound formed by M and N?
(c) Under which situations can an amorphous substance change to crystalline form?
Answer:
(a) On doping germanium with gallium, some of the positions of lattice of germanium are occupied by gallium. Gallium atom has only three valence electrons. Therefore, fourth valency of nearby germanium atom is not satisfied and this site remains vacant. This place is deficient of electrons and is called electron hole or electron vacancy.

Electron from neighbouring atom moves to fill the gap, thereby creating a hole in its original position. Under the influence of electric field, electrons move towards positively charged plates through these holes and conduct electricity. The holes appear to move towards negatively charged plates. The movement of electrons (or electron holes) results in increase in conductivity of germanium.

(b) N atoms make up ccp arrangement and there are two tetrahedral sites per atom of N.
No. of N atoms per unit cell = 4
No. of tetrahedral sites = 4 × 2 = 8
No. of sites occupied by M = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 8 = \(\frac{8}{3}\)
∴ No. of M atoms per unit cell = \(\frac{8}{3}\)
Formula M8/3N4 or M8N12 or M2N3

(c) On heating, amorphous solids become crystalline at some temperature. For example, some glass objects from ancient civilisations are found to become milky in appearance because of some crystallisation.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 2 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions and marking scheme Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This paper is divided into two parts: A and B. All questions are compulsory.
2. Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read these instructions very carefully and follow them.
3. Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

Part-A
Multiple Choice Questions (40 Marks)

Reading (20 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below. (10 Marks)

The choices we make on a daily basis – wearing a seatbelt, lifting heavy objects correctly or purposely staying out of any dangerous situation – can either ensure our safety or bring about potentially harmful circumstances.

You and I need to make a decision that we are going to get our lives in order. Exercising self-control, self-discipline and establishing boundaries and borders in our lives are some of the most important things we can do. A life without discipline is one that’s filled with carelessness. We can think it’s kind of exciting to live life on the edge.

We like the image of “Yeah! That’s me! Living on the edge! Woo-hoo!” It’s become a popular way to look at life. But if you see, even highways have lines, which provide margins for our safety while we’re driving. If we go over one side, we’ll go into the ditch. If we cross over the line in the middle, we could get killed. And we like those lines because they help to keep us safe. Sometimes we don’t even realise how lines help to keep us safe.

I’m not proud of this, but for the first 20 years of my life at work, I ignored my limits. I felt horrible, physically, most of the time. I used to tell myself “I know I have limits and that I’ve reached them, but I’m going to ignore them and see if or how long I can get by with it.” I ran to doctors, trying to make myself feel better through pills, vitamins, natural stuff and anything I could get my hands on. Some of the doctors would tell me, “It’s just stress.” That just made me mad. I thought stress meant you don’t like what you do or can’t handle life, and I love what I do. But I kept pushing myself, travelling, doing speaking engagements and so on – simply exhausting myself.

Finally, I understood I was living an unsustainable life and needed to make some changes in my outlook and lifestyle.
You and I don’t have to be like everyone else or keep up with anyone else. Each of us needs to be exactly the way we are, and we don’t have to apologise for it. We’re not all alike and we need to find a comfort zone in which we can enjoy our lives instead of making ourselves sick with an overload of stress and pressure.

On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer any ten questions from the twelve that follow. (10 x 1 = 10)

(i) The reason why living on the edge has become popular, is because of the:
(a) constant need for something different
(b) population being much younger
(c) exhausting effort to make changes
(d) strong tendency to stay within our limits
Answer:
(a) constant need for something different

(ii) Choose the option that best captures the central idea of the passage from the given quotes.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 1
(a) Option (1)
(b) Option (2)
(c) Option (3)
(d) Option (4)
Answer:
(d) Option (4)

(iii) Which of the characteristics are apt about the writer in the following context: “I know I have limits and that I’ve reached them, but I’m going to ignore them and see if or how long I can get by with it.”?
1. Negligent
2. Indecisive
3. Spontaneous
4. Reckless
5. Purposeless
6. Patient
(a) 2 and 5
(b) 3 and 6
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Answer:
(c) 1 and 4

(iv) Which of the following will be the most appropriate title for the passage?
(a) Much too soon
(b) Enough is enough
(c) How much is too much?
(d) Have enough to do?
Answer:
(c) How much is too much?

(v) The phrase “potentially harmful circumstances” refers to circumstances that can:
(a) certainly be dangerous
(b) be fairly dangerous
(c) be possibly dangerous
(d) seldom be dangerous
Answer:
(c) be possibly dangerous

(vi) Select the option that makes the correct use of “unsustainable”, as used in the passage, to fill in the blank space.
(a) In the long run, the ………………. officials followed emergency procedures.
(b) Emergency procedures were ………………… by the officials.
(c) Officials reported an ……………….. set of events during the emergency.
(d) Officials admit that the emergency system is ………………. in the longer run.
Answer:
(d) Officials admit that the emergency system is ………………. in the longer run.

(vii) The author attempts to …………………. the readers through this write-up.
(a) rebuke
(b) question
(c) offer aid to
(d) offer advice to
Answer:
(d) offer advice to

(viii) The author uses colloquial words such as “yeah” and “Woo-hoo!”. Which of the following is NOT a colloquial word?
(a) Hooked
(b) Guy
(c) Stuff
(d) Stress
Answer:
(d) Stress

(ix) What does the author mean when he says, “to get our lives in order”?
(a) To resume our lives
(b) To organise our lives
(c) To rebuild our lives
(d) To control our lives
Answer:
(b) To organise our lives

(x) Choose the option that correctly states the two meanings of ‘outlook’, as used in the passage.
1. A person’s evaluation of life
2. A person’s experiences in life
3. A person’s point of view towards life
4. A person’s regrets in life
5. A person’s general attitude to life
(a) (1) and (4)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (3) and (5)
(d) (4) and (5)
Answer:
(c) (3) and (5)

(xi) The author explains the importance of discipline and boundaries in our lives using the example of:
(a)road accidents
(b) traffic rules
(c) lines on the highway
(d) safe driving
Answer:
(c) lines on the highway

(xii) What is the message conveyed in the last paragraph of the passage?
(a) Love what you do
(b) Love yourself to love others
(c) Be the best version of yourself
(d) Be yourself
Answer:
(c) Be the best version of yourself

Question 2.
Read the passage given below: (10 Marks)

The UN’s 2017 International Year tells that sustainable tourism is an important tool for development, most importantly in poor communities and countries. Today sustainability – environmental, social, and economic – is increasingly recognised as the benchmark for all tourism business. As noted by the UN World Tourism Organisation, 57% of international tourist arrivals will be in emerging economies, by 2030. The various ‘Tourism Terms’ are defined as follows:

Category

Definition

Ecotourism Responsible travel to natural areas that conserves the environment, socially and economically sustains the well-being of local people, and creates knowledge and understanding through interpretation and education of all involved (including staff, travellers, and community residents).
Ethical Tourism

 

Tourism in a destination where ethical issues are the key driver, e.g. social injustice, human rights, animal welfare, or the environment.
Geotourism Tourism that sustains or enhances the geographical character of a place – its environment, heritage, aesthetics, culture, and well-being of its residents.
Pro-Poor Tourism Tourism that results in increased net benefit for the poor people in a destination.
Responsible Tourism Tourism that maximises the benefits to local communities, minimises negative social or environmental impacts, and helps local people conserve fragile cultures and habitats or species.
Sustainable Tourism Tourism that leads to the management of all resources in such a way that economic, social, and aesthetic needs can be fulfilled while maintaining cultural integrity, essential ecological processes, biological diversity, and life-support systems.

Based on data collected by a survey by Travel Bureau, the following market profile of an ecotourist was constructed:

Age:
35 – 54 years old, although age varied with activity and other factors such as cost.

Gender:
50% female and 50% male, although clear differences based on activity were found.

Education:
82% were college graduates, a shift in interest in ecotourism from those who have high levels of education to those with less education was also found, indicating an expansion into mainstream markets.

Household composition:
No major differences were found between general tourists and experienced ecotourists.**

Party composition:
A majority (60%) of experienced ecotourism respondents stated they prefer to travel as a couple, with only 15% stating they preferred to travel with their families, and 13% preferring to travel alone. (** experienced ecotourists = Tourists that had been on at least one “ecotourism” oriented trip.)

Trip duration:
The largest group of experienced ecotourists- (50%) preferred trips lasting 8-14 days.

Expenditure:
Experienced ecotourists were willing to spend more than general tourists, the largest group (26%).

Important elements of trip:
Experienced ecotourists top three responses were: (a) wilderness setting, (b) wildlife viewing, (c) hiking/trekking.

Motivations for taking next trip:
Experienced ecotourists top two responses were (a) enjoy scenery/nature, (b) new experiences/places.

On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer any ten questions from the twelve that follow. (10 x 1 = 10)

(i) In the line “ ………………… recognised as the benchmark”, the word “benchmark” does not refer to:
(a) a basis for something
(b) the criterion required
(c) the ability to launch something new
(d) a standard point of reference
Answer:
(c) the ability to launch something new

(ii) The World Tourism Organisation of the UN, in an observation, shared that:
(a) emerging economies of the world will gain 57% of their annual profits from International tourists
(b) countries with upcoming economies shall see maximum tourist footfall from all over the world in the next decade
(c) a large number of international tourists in 2030 will be from developing countries
(d) barely any tourist in the next decade shall travel from an economically strong nation to a weak one
Answer:
(b) countries with upcoming economies shall see maximum tourist footfall from all over the world in the next decade

(iii) One of the elements that is important to ecotourists on trip is:
(a) wild and untouched surroundings
(b) cultural exchange
(c) car and bus rides
(d) fully furnished flats
Answer:
(a) wild and untouched surroundings

(iv) Choose the option that lists the correct answers for the following:
1. Asha Mathew, an NRI, loves animals and wishes to travel to places that safeguard their rights and inculcate awareness of their rights. What kind of tourist is she?
2. Gurdeep Singh from UK is an environmental scientist and has always chosen to travel to places that are examples of a symbiotic relationship between man and nature. What kind of tourist is he?
(a) (1) is an ecotourist and (2) is a geotourist
(b) (1) is an ethical tourist and (2) is a geotourist
(c) (1) is a sustainable tourist and (2) is a pro-poor tourist
(d) (1) is a geotourist and (2) is a responsible tourist
Answer:
(b) (1) is an ethical tourist and (2) is a geotourist

(v) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the inherent qualities of geotourism.
1. Showcases adventure sports
2. promotes landscape appreciations
3. promises luxurious travel
4. includes being environmentally responsible
5. believes in commercialising forests
6. f initiates donations for the underprivileged
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 5 and 6
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 5
Answer:
(c) 2 and 4

(vi) In the market profile of an ecotourist, the information on gender indicates that:
(a) female ecotourists were more than the male ecotourists
(b) the activity preferences were varied in females and males
(c) the choice of things to do on a trip were quite similar for both the genders
(d) male ecotourists were frequent travellers
Answer:
(b) the activity preferences were varied in females and males

(vii) The education aspect in the market profile of the ecotourist revealed that:
(a) mainstream market trends were popular with undergraduates
(b) ecotourists were only those who had basic education
(c) mainstream markets were popular tourist destinations for educated ecotourists
(d) ecotourism was no more limited to the small group of highly educated travellers
Answer:
(d) ecotourism was no more limited to the small group of highly educated travellers

(viii) According to the survey conducted by the Travel Bureau, the total percentage of experienced ecotourists who DID NOT prefer to travel alone was:
(a) 60%
(b) 75%
(c) 15%
(d) 13%
Answer:
(b) 75%

(ix) According to the survey, one of the most powerful driving forces leading experienced ecotourism to invest in new trips was:
(a) setting up work stations in new places
(b) the chance to go camping in the wild
(c) competing with other ecotourists as frequent travellers
(d) the opportunity to travel to new places
Answer:
(d) the opportunity to travel to new places

(x) Choose the option that lists statement that is NOT TRUE.
(a) Economically backward countries will benefit from sustainable tourism.
(b) The tourism business currently recognises sustainability as an important factor.
(c) Emerging economies will receive negligible international tourists in the near future.
(d) The sustainability factor in tourism is a significant means for development.
Answer:
(c) Emerging economies will receive negligible international tourists in the near future.

(xi) The survey clearly showed that the age range of ecotourists:
(a) remained the same for the choice of tourist attractions to visit
(b) changed with the monetary requirements for the trip
(c) fluctuated due to male-female ratio
(d) was constant across various features of the trip
Answer:
(b) changed with the monetary requirements for the trip

(xii) Who isn’t an experienced ecotourist?
(a) The person who has travelled as an ecotourist once earlier.
(b) The person who is yet to travel even once as an ecotourist.
(c) The person who is a regular ecotourism enthusiast and traveller.
(d) The person who is not regularly travelling on ecotourism trips.
Answer:
(b) The person who is yet to travel even once as an ecotourist.

Literature (10 Marks)

Question 3.
Read the extracts given below and attempt any one by answering the questions that follow. (5 x 1 = 5)

A. Suddenly she was startled by a voice. “Listen, child,” said the voice, “you shouldn’t stand like that. Sit down.”
Sitting down, she looked to see who had spoken. It was an elderly man who had honestly been concerned for her, but she was annoyed by his attention.
“There’s nobody here who’s a child,” she said haughtily. “I’ve paid my thirty paise like everyone else.”
The conductor chimed in. “Oh, sir, but this is a very grown-up madam. Do you think a mere girl could pay her own fare and travel to the city all alone?”
Valli shot an angry glance at the conductor and said, “I am not a madam. Please remember that. And you’ve not yet given me my ticket.”
“I’ll remember,” the conductor said, mimicking her tone. Everyone laughed, and gradually Valli too joined in the laughter.

(i)How did Valli feel when the elderly man expressed concern that she was standing?
(a) Rather shocked
(b) Somewhat happy
(c) Fairly displeased
(d) Quite embarrassed
Answer:
(c) Fairly displeased

(ii) Choose the option that lists the set of statements that are NOT TRUE according to the given extract.
1. Valli was travelling without a guardian.
2. The conductor was bullying Valli.
3. Valli was nervous in her interactions.
4. Valli was a child passenger.
5. Valli followed the elderly man’s advice.
6. Valli’s response to the elderly man was respectful.
7. It took Valli some time to participate in the jocular conversations.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 5, 6 and 7
(c) 3, 5 and 7
(d) 2, 3 and 6
Answer:
(d) 2, 3 and 6

(iii) Pick the option that correctly classifies fact/s (F) and opinion/s (O) of the students below.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 2
(a) F – 1, 2 and 0-3,4
(b) F – 2, 3,4 and 0-1
(c) F-2, 4 and 0-1, 3
(d) F – 3 and O – 1, 2, 4
Answer:
(d) F – 3 and O – 1, 2, 4

(iv) Which word does ‘chimed in’ NOT correspond to?
(a) Intervened
(b) Interrupted
(c) Intersected
(d) Interjected
Answer:
(c) Intersected

(v) Choose the characteristic displayed by the conductor when he addressed Valli and declared that she couldn’t be ‘a mere girl’.
(a) Encouragement
(b) Indulgence
(c) Embarrassment
(d) Authority
Answer:
(b) Indulgence

B. The baker or bread-seller of those days had a peculiar dress known as the kabai. It was a single piece long frock reaching down to the knees. In our childhood we saw bakers wearing shirt and trousers which were shorter than full-length ones and longer than half pants. Even today, anyone who wears a half pant which reaches just below the knees invites the comment that he is dressed like a pader

(i) Choose the answer that lists the correct option about the recording of the baker’s monthly accounts.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 3
(a) Option (1)
(b) Option (2)
(c) Option (3)
(d) Option (4)
Answer:
(c) Option (3)

(ii) When the writer says, ‘Baking was indeed a profitable profession in the old days.’, he means that:
(a) baking isn’t as popular in Goa currently
(b) bakers have chosen to adopt other professions
(c) baking, as a job, isn’t as gainful as it used to be
(d) bakers’ goods were of a better quality in earlier times
Answer:
(c) baking, as a job, isn’t as gainful as it used to be

(iii) The statement that is TRUE about payment collection, according to the passage is:
(a) The baker received payment on a daily basis.
(b) The baker was paid for his services at the end of the month.
(c) The baker insisted that customers pay before the month-end.
(d) The baker chose to receive payment any day of the month.
Answer:
(b) The baker was paid for his services at the end of the month.

(iv) The kabai was a ‘peculiar’ outfit as it was:
(a) a tight-fitting apparel
(b) too colourful
(c) made of unsuitable materials
(d) a dress-like attire
Answer:
(d) a dress-like attire

(v) The extract uses the phrase, ‘invites (the) comments’. Which of the following expressions is incorrect with respect to the word ‘invites’?
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 4
(a) Option (1)
(b) Option (2)
(c) Option (3)
(d) Option (4)
Answer:
(b) Option (2)

Question 4.
Read the extracts given below and attempt any one by answering the questions that follow. (5 × 1 = 5)

A. But he’s locked in a concrete cell,
His strength behind bars,
Stalking the length of his cage,
Ignoring visitors.
He hears the last voice at night,
The patrolling cars,
And stares with his brilliant eyes At the brilliant stars

(i)
The fact that the tiger is ‘stalking the length of his cage’ tells us that he is:
(a) restless
(b) reckless
(c) resilient
(d) reverent
Answer:
(a) restless

(ii) What is the rhyme scheme of the given stanzas?
(a) abcb; abcb
(b) abcb; abed
(c) abed; abed
(d) abed; abeb
Answer:
(d) abed; abeb

(iii) These stanzas bring out the contrast between:
(a) zoos and cities
(b) strength and weakness
(c) freedom and captivity
(d) visitors and patrolling cars
Answer:
(c) freedom and captivity

(iv) What is the caged tiger NOT likely to say to the visitors?
(a) “Stop staring”
(b) “Set me free”
(c) “Join me”
(d) “Go away”
Answer:
(c) “Join me”

(v) The tiger’s ‘brilliant eyes’ reveal that he:
(a) hopes to be free and in the wild, someday
(b) is looked after well and is nourished and healthy
(c) enjoys staring at the bright stars each night
(d) is well-rested and hence, wide-awake
Answer:
(a) hopes to be free and in the wild, someday

B. I saw it go
Merrily bouncing, down the street,and then
Merrily over – there it is in the water!
No use to say ‘O there are other balls’:
An ultimate shaking grief fixes the boy
As he stands rigid, trembling, staring down
All his young days into the harbour where
His ball went

(i) The poet uses the ball as a symbol of the boy’s:
(a) sense of adventure
(b) carefree childhood days
(c) ability to bounce back
(d) extended family
Answer:
(b) carefree childhood days

(ii) The poet feels that there is no point consoling the boy as:
(a) it would give him false hope
(b) he might demand for a new ball
(c) it might distress him further
(d) whatever he has lost is irretrievable
Answer:
(d) whatever he has lost is irretrievable

(iii) The word ‘harbour’ DOES NOT have a meaning similar to:
(a) port
(b) pier
(c) dock
(d) cargo
Answer:
(d) cargo

(iv) ‘Merrily over – there it is in the water! ’ The dash here is meant to convey:
(a) some familiar experience
(b) a feeling of excitement
(c) a sense of unexpected interruption
(d) some thoughtful moments
Answer:
(c) a sense of unexpected interruption

(v) The word that DOES NOT indicate a physical manifestation of sorrow in the boy, is:
(a) worthless
(b) shaking
(c) trembling
(d) rigid
Answer:
(a) worthless

Grammar (10 Marks)

Question 5.
Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete the note about the Wangala Festival of Meghalaya. (3 × 1=3)

The Wangala (i) ……………. festival for the Garo in Meghalaya, Assam and Nagaland. It is a
postharvest festival (ii) ………………… the end of the agricultural year. It is popularly known as ‘The Hundred Drums’ festival. During the signature dance, the leading warrior (iii) ……………….. with synchronised dance steps and specific hand-head movements.
(i) (a) is important
(b) are on important
(c) was the important
(d) is on important
Answer:
(d) is on important

(ii) (a) being celebrated for marking
(b) celebrated to mark
(c) celebrated to marking
(d) being celebrated mark
Answer:
(b) celebrated to mark

(iii) (a) leads the youngsters
(b) is lead the youngsters
(c) was leading the youngsters
(d) had leads the youngsters
Answer:
(a) leads the youngsters

Question 6.
Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete Venu’s narration. (3 × 1 =3)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 5
I saw Supanddi standing in the field. When I (i) ………………. doing there, he (ii) ……………. he
was trying to win a Nobel prize. I was confused and enquired how standing in the rice field
would help him do so. He stunned me by saying that he (iii) ……………….. won Nobel prizes
had all been outstanding in their fields!

(i) (a) exclaimed what he was
(b) told him what he was
(c) asked him what he was
(d) says to him about what
Answer:
(c) asked him what he was

(ii) (a) ordered that
(b) refused that
(c) questioned that
(d) replied that
Answer:
(d) replied that

(iii) (a) has heard that people who has
(b) was hearing that people who were
(c) had heard that people who had
(d) did hear that people who had
Answer:
(c) had heard that people who had

Question 7.
Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct options for any four of the six sentences given below. (4 × 1 = 4)

(i) You ……………. consult the Thesaurus if you need groups of synonyms for those words.
(a) had to
(b) need to
(c) used to
(d) might
Answer:
(d) might

(ii) Everybody …………………. keen to participate in the upcoming nukkad natak.
(a) are
(b) has
(c) is
(d) were
Answer:
(c) is

(iii) The good news is that ………………. volunteers dropped out this month than the last two.
(a) fewer
(b) less
(c) few
(d) a little
Answer:
(a) fewer

(iv) It was ………………. historic day for the organisation when ………………… honour was bestowed upon its employees.
(a) a; an
(b) an; the
(c) the; a
(d) an; a
Answer:
(a) a; an

(v) At this time tomorrow we ………………….. our project details to ma’am.
(a) are presenting
(b) shall be presenting
(c) have been presenting
(d) will have presenting
Answer:
(b) shall be presenting

(vi) The Komodo dragon ……………….. follow its prey till it eventually dies due to its venomous bite.
(a) must
(b) will
(c) could
(d) may
Answer:
(b) will

Part-B – Subjective Questions (40 Marks)

Writing (10 Marks)

Question 8.
Attempt any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)

A. You are Tabassum/Tarun, a resident of Satya Nagar Colony, Bhubaneshwar, Orissa. You have noticed that some residents of your colony are repeatedly flouting quarantine rules laid out during the outbreak of the COVID-19 pandemic.
Write a letter to the SHO of the local Police Station, drawing attention towards the same. Explain how such acts impact the health of the community and request immediate intervention and strict action.
Answer:
(3 marks for content
2 marks for expression (1 mark – grammatical accuracy, appropriate words and spellings + 1 mark – cohesion via connecting ideas, logical progression & coherence through relevance of ideas.)
Suggestive Points:
Complaint about some residents not following the quarantine rules

  • There is an evident disregard to the rules of social distancing
  • people roaming without masks in the colony
  • no staying indoors
  • The Resident Welfare Association is not taking any steps to prevent such behaviour
  • Any other relevant point

Impact

  • Putting everyone’s life at risk through their casual behaviour
  • Aggravates mental stress
  • Any other relevant point

Appeal

  • Request to look into the matter at the earliest
  • Take immediate action
  • Any other relevant point

B.You are Vaijanthi/Vijay from Prakasham Nagar, Secunderabad, Andhra Pradesh. Write a letter to Book Haven Store, requesting home delivery of the books, stationery and art materials you had ordered telephonically. Share the reason for being unable to pick up the goods in person. Confirm your address details and a convenient time slot.
Answer:
Reference:
Reference to order placed telephonically for pick-up in person
Inform:

  • Inform about inability to pick in person, provide reason/s and forward request to deliver the goods at home
  • Give reason – Illness, family emergency, professional commitments, any other relevant reason

Request
Details
Present details of suitable time slot, conformation of address and phone number

Question 9.
Attempt any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)

A. The chart below displays data about the number of digital devices purchased in Rishunagar across the years 2015-2019. Write a paragraph analyzing the given data.
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Set 3 with Solutions 6
Answer:
[3 marks for content
2 marks for expression (1 mark – grammatical accuracy, appropriate words and spellings + 1 mark – cohesion via connecting ideas, logical progression & coherence through relevance of ideas and style)]
Competency applied for overall expression:

  • single paragraph
  • use of appropriate functional language required to show trend progression and comparison (more/less/increase/decrease/stable etc.) to achieve cohesion

Introductory sentence:

  • Paraphrase Q. information Identification of main trends
  • at least 4 clearly identified trends
    Note – focusing and extending one particular trend would be considered as one trend only.

Concluding line:
stating main inference from the data provided

B. Read the following excerpt from an article that appeared in the magazine section of a local daily:
The ban on single-use plastic is impractical. The purpose of articles like bags and packaging is ultimately to make human life easier. Plastic articles do this well, so they shouldn’t be banned. Write a paragraph to analyse the given argument.
You could think about what alternative explanations might weaken the given conclusion and include rationale / evidence that would strengthen / counter the given argument.
Answer:
Competency applied for overall expression:

  • single paragraph
  • use of appropriate functional language required to show comparison/contrast/emphasis etc. to achieve cohesion

Introductory sentence:
stating the given assumption in the question as the introduction

Arguments rationalizing against/in favour of assumption:
at least 2 clearly listed arguments countering/favouring the premise
Note – focusing and extending one particular trend would be considered as one trend only.

Concluding line:
reiterating main inference/position

Literature (30 Marks)

Question 10.
Answer any two questions in 20-30 words each, from (A) and (B) respectively. (4 × 2 = 8)
A. (any two) (2 × 2 = 4)
(i) How did Peggy justify her cruel behavior towards Wanda?
Answer:
1 mark for content
1 mark for expression (coherence and cohesion + accuracy)

  • she felt Wanda lied about her dresses – Wanda wasn’t ordinary as she had a funny name
  • she believed that she was just having fun and didn’t mean harm

(ii) Describe how Custard’s reaction was different from that of others, on seeing the pirate?
Answer:
Custard was always teased as being the cowardly one, by all others – When the pirate arrived, others ran away to hide – Custard was the only one who stood up to fight with him/who attacked him.

(iii) Who, according to Nelson Mandela, is a courageous man?
Answer:
not someone who doesn’t experience fear – someone who doesn’t give in to it – one who wins over fear

B. (any two) (2 × 2 = 4)
(i) Why did Oliver Lutkin’s mother laugh as she chased him and Bill away?
Answer:
she knew her son Lutkins was pretending to be Bill – the narrator’s predicament amused her

(ii) Why was it important for Mrs Pumphrey to be a little cruel in order to be kind towards Tricki?
Answer:
she was overfeeding Tricki; being overindulgent – she needed to cut down Tricki’s food intake to help him regain his health (be cruel to be kind)

(iii) List any one characteristic of Bholi’s teacher with reference to her first day at school. Give a reason for your answer.
Answer:
kind/encouraging/empathetic/assuring/any other relevant trait from the text – Reason from text required

Question 11.
Answer any two questions in 40-50 words each, from (A) and (B) respectively. (4 × 3 = 12)

A. (any two) (2 × 3 = 6)

(i) Annie writes that it was fortunate that Mr Keesing took the joke the right way. Why does she feel so?
Answer:
2 marks for content
1 mark for expression (coherence and cohesion + accuracy)
poem referred to the father swan who bit his three ducks because they quacked too much; allusion to Mr Keesing – Poem written to turn the joke around on Mr Keesing; metaphorically convey the value of talking – fortunate that Mr Keesing got the joke, else, the disciplinary action could have been severe.

(ii) The use of symbolism in the poem ‘Fire and Ice’ conveys the poet’s message effectively.
Expand with reference to the poem.
Answer:
poem discusses the way the world can end – Fire stands for greed/lust/human desire; Ice stands for hatred/coldness/human indifference; – world can end with either greed or indifference

(iii) Justify the poet’s allusion to Rapunzel in ‘Amanda’.
Answer:

  • it is justified as Rapunzel lived with a witch who would constantly keep a check on her and had several rules to be followed.
  • Amanda too, feels caged by the impositions – Amanda desires peace in isolation like Rapunzel had in her tower; clarifying she will not let her hair down for anyone

B. (any two) (2 × 3 = 6)

(i) Griffin’s brilliance as a man of science fades before his darker traits. Comment.
Answer:
Brilliant scientist (give example) – he was a lawless person, he was disliked by most people, was quick tempered, burnt the house of the landlord to take a revenge on him, stole money at priest’s house, (any other trait that reveals his darker side) – undoubtedly brilliant but his brilliance eclipsed by his negative traits.

(ii) Why do you think Mr Weiherer was pleased that Richard Ebright not only put in the nightly research hours towards butterflies, but also his other interests?
Answer:
Mr Weiherer was pleased that Ebright balanced academics as well as recreational pursuits (hobbies etc.); – Asa teacher, he wanted Ebright’s growth as a well-rounded personality.

(iii) What made Mme Forestier exclaim in astonishment, when she saw Matilda, years after the Minister’s ball?
Answer:
The change in Matilda’s physical appearance (comparison from what she was at the time of the minister’s ball, to current)

Question 12.
Answer any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)

A. Natalya and Ivan argued about the ownership of Oxen Meadows and the superiority of their respective dogs in the play, The Proposal.
Imagine yourself as the playwright of the play. Based on your understanding of the personality traits of Natalya and Ivan, write a dialogue based on an imaginary event, showcasing another argument between them.
Answer:
[3 marks for content
2 marks for expression (1 mark – grammatical accuracy, appropriate words and spellings + 1 mark – cohesion via connecting ideas, logical progression & coherence through relevance of ideas.)]

Extrapolating via dialogue writing:
All relevant responses corresponding to the competencies listed for content and expression will be accepted.
Content:

  • Response (dialogues) need to be creatively composed to match the personality of the two characters from the play.
  • Language included, must correspond to that of an argument, and show an understanding of the common expressions/exclamations attributed to the characters in the play.

NOTE – Marks to be allotted for creation. No marks to be deducted for lack of appropriacy in the form or structure involved in a writing task. The response is to be treated as a literary creation.

Expression

  • Logical progression in developing the conversation – cohesion
  • Response relevance for overall sense according to the situation chosen – coherence
  • Accuracy in use of grammatical structures, vocabulary and spellings

B. Read the extracts given below and comment on the difference in the nature of help both the characters, of these two stories, received.

(i) Suddenly I came out of the clouds and saw two straight lines of lights in front of me. It was a runway! An airport! I was safe! I turned to look for my friend in the black aeroplane but the sky was empty. [The Black Aeroplane]

(ii) All through the night Lencho thought only of his one hope: the help of God.. .The following Sunday, at daybreak he began to write a letter.. .It was nothing less than a letter to God… The following Sunday Lencho came a bit earlier than usual to ask if there was a letter for him…. Lencho showed not the slightest surprise on seeing the money, such was his confidence. [A Letter to God]
Answer:

  1. Both need help
  2. In The Black Aeroplane, he is helped by a stranger in a black aeroplane in the storm, without lights
  3. steered through the dark clouds; was told there was no other aeroplane in the air other than his
  4. wasn’t clear who helped him
  5. open to interpretation
  6. help is not asked for but he receives it
  7. is thankful
  8. In A Letter to God – different nature of aid
  9. Lencho writes a letter to God asking for money; his conviction in God touches the postmaster
  10. postmaster raises money and sends it to him
  11. he asks for help
  12. the source of his aid is clearly revealed
  13. not satisfied

Question 13.
Answer any one of the following in 100-120 words. (5 Marks)

A. Hari Singh says- “He knew it but neither his lips nor his eyes showed anything.”
Anil successfully addressed the situation by not addressing it at all. Elaborate based on your reading of The Thief’s Story.
Answer:
3 marks for content
2 marks for expression (1 mark – grammatical accuracy, appropriate words and spellings + 1 mark – cohesion via connecting ideas, logical progression & coherence through relevance of ideas.)

  • despite knowing that the money had been taken (dampness of notes) Anil chose to remain quiet about the matter
  • pretended that all was normal – realised that Hari Singh’s honesty had prevailed over his temptation
  • wanted to reward him/encourage him
  • discussing the theft would have been counterproductive

B. Read the following quote by an American author, E. E. Hale.
“I am only one but, I am one. I cannot do everything but I can do something. And I will not let what I cannot do interfere with what I do.”
Bholi’s evolution from a ‘dumb cow’ to a ‘masterpiece’ supports the given quote. Justify.
Answer:
The evolution process supported by examples from the text:

  • dumb cow – people’s perception of her lack of sense, stammering which kept her quiet and submissive demeanour, most of the times
  • going to school – guidance of the teacher and education, overcame stammering, instilled confidence and a sense of self-esteem
  • did not succumb to the greedy demands of the prospective groom and spoke out

Conclusion:
This journey of Bholi’s growth clearly showcases the idea of being an individual and not being exploited by people or circumstances. Instead, evolves to being a person being proactive and contributing to the wellbeing of others around (which is exactly what she decides to do).

Moving Charges and Magnetism Class 12 Important Extra Questions Physics Chapter 4

Here we are providing Class 12 Physics Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism. Important Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers are the best resource for students which helps in Class 12 board exams.

Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Important Extra Questions Moving Charges and Magnetism

Moving Charges and Magnetism Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Under what condition is the force acting on a charge moving through a uniform magnetic field minimum?
Answer:
When the charge moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field.

Question 2.
What Is the nature of the magnetic field in a moving coil galvanometer?
Answer:
Radial magnetic field.

Question 3.
State two properties of the material of the wire used for suspension of the coil in a moving coil galvanometer.
Answer:

  1. High tensile strength.
  2. SmalL vaLue of torque per unit twist.

Question 4.
Write one condition under which an electric charge does not experience a force in a magnetic field.
Answer:
When it moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field.

Question 5.
Mention the two characteristic properties of the material suitable for making the core of a transformer. (CBSE AI 2012)
Answer:

  1. Low retentivity
  2. High permeability

Question 6.
Write the expression, in a vector form, for the Lorentz magnetic force due to a charge moving with velocity \(\vec{V}\) in a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). What is the direction of the magnetic force? (CBSE Delhi 2014)
Answer:
The expresion is \(\vec{F}\) = q(\(\vec{V}\) × \(\vec{B}\)). The force is perpendicular to both the velcoity and the magentic field vector.

Question 7.
Write the condition under which an electron will move undeflected in the presence of crossed electric and magnetic fields. (CBSE Al 2014C)
Answer:
An electron moves perpendicular to both fields.

Question 8.
What can be the cause of the helical motion of a charged particle? (CBSE Al 2016)
Answer:
The charge enters the magnetic field at any angle except 0°, 180°, and 90°.

Question 9.
Write the underlying principle of a moving coil galvanometer. (CBSE Delhi 2016)
Answer:
A current-carrying loop placed in a magnetic field experiences a torque.

Question 10.
A proton and an electron traveling along parallel paths enter a region of the uniform magnetic field, acting perpendicular to their paths. Which of them will move in a circular path with a higher frequency? (CBSEAI and Delhi 2018)
Answer:
The frequency of revolution is given by
v = \(\frac{B q}{2 \pi m}\) ⇒ v ∝ \(\frac{1}{m}\) .

As for me < mp
therefore ve >vp

Question 11.
Two protons of equal kinetic energies enter a region of the uniform magnetic field. The first proton enters normal to the field direction while the second enters at 30° to the field direction. Name the trajectories followed by them. (CBSEAI and Delhi 2018C)
Answer:
Normal: circular
At an angle of 30°, it will follow a helical path.

Question 12.
Consider the circuit shown here where APB and AQB are semi-circles. What will be the magnetic field at the center C of the circular loop?
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 1
Answer:
Zero, because magnetic fields due to APB and AQB are equal in magnitudes but opposite in directions.

Question 13.
Which one of the following will have a minimum frequency of revolution,
when projected with the same velocity v perpendicular to the magnetic field B: (i) α – particle and (ii) β – particle.
Answer:
Frequency of revolution v = \(\frac{q B}{2 \pi m}\) and \(\frac{q}{m}\) of α – particle is less, hence α – particle will have minimum frequency of revolution.

Question 14.
An ammeter and a milli-ammeter are converted from the same galvanometer. Out of the two, which current-measuring instrument has higher resistance?
Answer:
A milli-ammeter has higher resistance.

Question 15.
Equal currents I and I are flowing through two infinitely long parallel wires. What will be the magnetic field at a point mid-way when the currents are flowing in the same direction?
Answer:
Zero, because fields due to two wires will be equal but opposite.

Question 16.
The figure shows a circular loop carrying current l. Show the direction of the magnetic field with the help of lines of
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 2
Answer:
The magnetic field lines are as shown
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 3
Question 17.
An electron is moving with velocity v along the axis of a long straight solenoid carrying current I. What will be the force acting on the electron due to the magnetic field of the solenoid?
Answer:
Zero, as a force on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field, is F= Bqv sin θ
Here both v and B are along the axis of – solenoid, so θ = 0° between them. Hence F= qvB sin θ = 0.

Moving Charges and Magnetism Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
A charged particle having a charge q is moving with a speed of v along the X-axis. It enters a region of space where the electric field is \(\overrightarrow{\boldsymbol{E}}(\boldsymbol{E} \hat{\boldsymbol{j}})\) and a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) are both present. The particle, on emerging from the region, is observed to be moving, along the X-axis only. Obtain an expression for the magnitude of \(\vec{B}\) in terms of v and E. Give the direction of \(\vec{B}\).
Answer:
Since the particle continues to move along the X-axis, therefore, the magnetic force acting on it should be completely balanced by the electric force. Since the electric force acts along the Y-axis, therefore, the magnetic force must be along the Z-axis.
Thus is equilibrium q E = B q v or v = E/B

Question 2.
A stream of electrons traveling with speed v m s-1 at right angles to a uniform magnetic field ‘B’ is reflected in a circular path of radius ‘r’ . Prove that \(\frac{e}{m}=\frac{v}{r B}\)
Answer:
Let a stream of electrons be traveling with speed v at right angles to a uniform magnetic field B then force due to magnetic field provides the required centripetal force which deflects the electron beam along a circular path of radius ‘r’ such that
Bev = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
or
\(\frac{e}{m}=\frac{v}{r B}\)
where e = electronic charge and m = mass of the electron.

Question 3.
Which one of the two, an ammeter or a milliammeter, has a higher resistance and why?
Answer:
The shunt resistance connected to convert a galvanometer into an ammeter or a milliammeter is given by the expression S = \(\frac{I_{g} G}{I-l_{g}}\) where S is shunt resistance, G galvanometer resistance, l total current through G and S, and lg galvanometer current. In the case of milliammeter, l is small.

Therefore Smilliammeter > Sammeter . Hence the resistance of a milliammeter is greater than that of an ammeter.

Question 4.
A straight wire of length L carrying a current l stays suspended horizontally in mid-air in a region where there is a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). The linear mass density of the wire is l. Obtain the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field.
Answer:
The magnetic force acting on the straight wire balances the weight of the wire.
Therefore, in equilibrium we have Mg = BIL, here M = L l, therefore we have L l g = BlL or B = l/ l g
This field acts vertically upwards.

Question 5.
In the figure below, the straight wire AB Is fixed while the loop Is free to move under the influence of the electric currents flowing in them. In which direction does the loop begin to move? Give a reason for your answer.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 4
Answer:
The loop moves towards the straight wire AB. In the loop in the side nearer to the wire AB current l2 is in the same direction as l1 and hence attractive force acts. However, on the side farther away from the wire AB current l2 is in the opposite direction and the force is repulsive. But as the magnitude of attractive force is greater than the repulsive force, the net force is attractive in nature and hence, the loop moves towards the wire AB.

Question 6.
A coil of ‘N’ turns and radius ‘R’ carries a current ‘l’. It is unwound and rewound to make a square coil of side ‘a’ having the same number of turns (N). Keeping the current ‘l’ same, find the ratio of the magnetic moments of the square coil and the circular coil. (CBSE Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
The magnetic moment of a current loop is given by the relation M = nlA
For the circular loop Mc = NlπR² …(1)

Now when the coil is unwound and rewound to make a square coil, then
2 πR = 4a or a = πR/2

Hence magnetic moment of the square coil is
Ms = Nl a² = Nl (πR/2)² = Nl π²R²/4 …(2)

From (1) and (2) we have
\(\frac{M_{S}}{M_{C}}=\frac{N l \pi^{2} R^{2} / 4}{N l \pi R^{2}}=\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 7.
Write the expression for Lorentz magnetic force on a particle of charge ‘q’ moving with velocity v in a magnetic field B. Show that no work is done by this force on the charged particle. (CBSE Al 2011)
Answer:
The expression is \(\vec{F}\) = q(\(\vec{v}\) × \(\vec{B}\)). This force always acts perpendicular to the direction of motion of the charged particle. Therefore the angle between \(\vec{F}\) and \(\vec{r}\) is 90°. Hence work done is W = \(\vec{F}\). r = Fr cos 90° = 0

Question 8.
(a) State Biot-Savart law in vector form expressing the magnetic field due to an element \(\vec{dl}\) carrying current l at a distance \(\vec{r}\) from the element.
Answer:
It states that for a small current element dl the magnetic field at a distance r is given by
\(\overrightarrow{d B}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{I \overline{(d L} \times \hat{r})}{r^{2}}\).

(b) Write the expression for the magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of a circular loop of radius r carrying a steady current l. Draw the field lines due to the current loop. (CBSE Al 2014C)
Answer:
The magnetic field at the center of a circular loop is given by
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l}{2 r}\)

The field lines are as shown.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 5
Question 9.
Draw the magnetic field lines due to current passing through a long solenoid. Use Ampere’s circuital law, to obtain the expression for the magnetic field due to the current l in a long solenoid having n number of turns per unit length. (CBSE Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
The diagram is as shown.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 6
Consider a rectangular path abed of length L as shown in the figure below. Let us apply Ampere’s circuital law to this rectangular path so that we have
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 23
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 24
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 25
But by Ampere’s circuital law we have
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \vec{d} L\) = μ0Nl = μ0(nL)l …(2)

From equations (1) and (2) we have
BL = μ0nLl
or
B = μ0 n l

But n = N/L, therefore we have
B = μ0 \(\frac{N l}{L}\)

This gives the value of a magnetic field inside a solenoid.

Question 10.
(a) Why do we use a shunt to convert a galvanometer into an ammeter?
Answer:
Since an ammeter is an instrument used to measure the current in the circuit, so it has to be connected in series in the circuit to measure the whole current. Hence its resistance must below. A low shunt resistance makes it suitable for measuring current.

(b) A galvanometer of resistance 15 Ω shows a full-scale deflection on the meter scale for a current of 6 mA. Calculate the value of the shunt resistance required to convert the galvanometer into an ammeter of range 0-6 A. (CBSE 2019C)
Answer:
Given G = 15 Ω, lg = 6 mA = 6 × 10-3 A, l = 6 A, S = ?
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 7
Question 11.
An electron beam projected along + X-axis experiences a force due to a magnetic field along the + Y-axis. What is the direction of the magnetic field?
Answer:
The direction of the magnetic field is along  Z-axis. This is because the direction of motion, the magnetic field, and the force are perpendicular to one other as an electron carries a negative charge.

Question 12.
A current is set up in a long copper pipe. Is there a magnetic field
(i) inside,
Answer:
There is no magnetic field inside the pipe.

(ii) outside the pipe?
Answer:
There is a magnetic field outside the pipe.

Question 13.
Which one of the following will experience a maximum force, when projected with the same velocity V perpendicular to the magnetic field (i) alpha particle and (ii) beta particle?
Answer:
The force experienced by a charged particle is given by the expression F = B q v. Since an alpha particle has a moving charge than the beta particle, therefore the alpha particle will experience more force.

Question 14.
An electron and a proton moving parallel to each other in the same direction with equal momenta enter into a uniform magnetic field which is at right angles to their velocities. Trace their trajectories in the magnetic field.
Answer:
Because both electron and proton have the same charge and momentum, therefore they will describe circles of equal radii as shown.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 8
Question 15.
Is the steady electric current the only source of the magnetic field? Justify your answer. (CBSE Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
No, the magnetic field is also produced by alternating current.

Question 16.
A deuteron and an alpha particle having the same momentum is in turn allowed to pass through a magnetic field B, acting normal to the direction of motion of the particles. Calculate the ratio of the radii of the circular paths described by them. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Pd = Pα
Now r = \(\frac{mv}{Bq}\) ⇒ r ∝ \(\frac{1}{q}\)

Therefore, \(\frac{r_{d}}{r_{\alpha}}=\frac{q_{\alpha}}{q_{d}}=\frac{2 e}{e}\) = 2

Question 17.
Two wires of equal length are bent in the form of two loops. One of the loops is square-shaped and the other is circular. These are suspended in a uniform magnetic field and the same current is passed through them. Which loop will experience a greater torque? Give reasons.
Answer:
Torque experienced by a current-carrying loop placed in a uniform magnetic field is given by the expression τ = BlnA. In other words, torque is directly proportional to the area of the loop. Since a circular wire has more area than a square wire for the same dimension, therefore the circular wire experiences more torque than the square wire.

Question 18.
Which one of the following will have a minimum frequency of revolution, when projected with the same velocity v perpendicular to the magnetic field B: (i) alpha particle and (ii) beta particle?
Answer:
The frequency of revolution of a charged particle in a magnetic field is given by Bq
v = \(\frac{Bq}{2πm}\).

The ratio of q/m for an alpha particle is less than that for a beta particle; therefore, the alpha particle will have a minimum frequency of revolution.

Question 19.
Using the concept of force between two infinitely long parallel current-carrying conductors, define one ampere of current. (CBSE AI 2014)
Answer:
One ampere is that much current which when flowing through each of the two infinitely long straight conductors held 1 meter apart in space, produce a force of F= 2 × 10-7 N per meter of their length.

Question 20.
(a) Write the expression for the force \(\vec{F}\) , acting on a charged particle of charge ‘q’, moving with a velocity v in the presence of both electric field \(\vec{E}\) and magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) . Obtain the condition under which the particle moves undeflected through the fields.
Answer:
(a) The required expression is \(\vec{F}=q \vec{E}+q(\vec{v} \times \vec{B})\)

The particle will move undeflected if the force acting on it due to the electric field balances the force acting on it due to the magnetic field. Thus qE = Bqv or v=E/B

(b) A rectangular loop of size l × b carrying a steady current I is placed in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) . Prove that the torque τ acting on the loop is given by \(\vec{τ}\) = \(\vec{m}\) × \(\vec{B}\) , where m is the magnetic moment of the loop. (CBSE AI 2012, Delhi 2013)
Answer:
The figure below shows a rectangular loop of wire with length ‘a’ and breadth ‘b’. A line perpendicular to the plane of the loop (i.e. a normal to the plane) makes an angle Φ with the direction of the magnetic field B, and the loop carries a current / as shown. Let the forces acting on the various sides of the loop be \(\vec{F}_{1}\), \(\vec{F}_{2}\), \(\vec{F}_{3}\) and \(\vec{F}_{4}\) as shown.

It follows from the expression for the force experienced by a conductor in a magnetic field that force on arm AB is
\(\vec{F}_{1}=I(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AB}} \times \vec{B})\) …(1)
(in the plane of the paper and is directed upwards as shown).

The force on arm CD is given by \(\vec{F}_{2}=l(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{CD}} \times \vec{B})\) …(2)
(in the plane of the paper and is directed downwards as shown.)

Since these two forces are equal and opposite and have the same line of action therefore they cancel out each other’s effect and their resultant effect on the coil is zero.

Now the force on arm BC is
\(\vec{F}_{3}=l(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{BC}} \times \vec{B})\) …(3)
(acts perpendicular to the plane of the paper and is directed outwards as shown) Finally the force on arm DA is
\(\vec{F}_{4}=I(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DA}} \times \vec{B})\) …(4)
(acts perpendicular to the plane of the paper and is directed inwards as shown in figure).

Both forces F3 and F4 make an angle of 90° with the direction of the magnetic field. Therefore, in magnitude, these forces are given by
F3 = F4 = laB sin90° = laB …(5)

The lines of action of both these forces are perpendicular to the plane of the paper. The two forces F3 and F4 lie along different lines and each give rise to a torque about the X-axis. The two torques produce a resultant torque in + X direction. The arm of the couple (perpendicular distance between the lines of action of the two forces) from the figure below is given by
An arm of couple = b Sin Φ …(6)

Therefore, by the definition of torque we have
Torque = either force × arm of couple Using equations (5) and (6) we have
Torque = l B a × b Sin Φ
But a b = A, area of the coil, therefore τ = l B A Sin Φ
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 48
Question 21.
Show that a force that does no work must be a velocity-dependent force. (NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:
We know that work is the dot product of force and displacement, therefore
dW = \(\vec{F} \cdot d \vec{l}\) = 0
Or
dW = \(\vec{F}\) .\(\vec{v}\)dt = 0
Or
\(\vec{F} \cdot \vec{v}\) = 0

Thus F must be velocity dependent which implies that the angle between F and v is 90°. If v changes direction then the direction of F should also change so that the above condition is satisfied.

Question 22.
Five long wires A, B, C, D, and E, each carrying current l is arranged to form edges of a pentagonal prism as shown in the figure. Each carries current out of the plane of the paper.
(a) What will be magnetic induction at a point on axis 0? Axis is at a distance R from each wire.
(b) What will be the field if the current in one of the wires (say A) is switched off?
(c) What if the current in one of the wires (say) A is reversed? (NCERT Exemplar)
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 9
Answer:
(a) Zero Mn I
(b) \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{2 \pi} \frac{1}{R}\) perpendicular to AO towards left
(c) \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{\pi} \frac{1}{R}\) perpendicular to AO towards left

Moving Charges and Magnetism Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
(a) A particle of charge ‘q’ and mass ‘m’, moving with velocity \(\vec{v}\) is subjected to a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) perpendicular to its velocity. Show that the particle describes a circular path. Obtain an expression for the radius of the circular path of the particle.
Answer:
Let a charged particle of charge q and mass m be moving with velocity \(\vec{v}\) right angle to the field (i.e. in the plane of the paper), then magnetic force \(\vec{F}\) acting on the charge q will be
\(\vec{F}=q(\vec{v} \times \vec{B})\)
or
F = qvB sin 90°
or
F = qvB … (1)
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 10
As this forces fact at a right angle to the velocity V of the charged particle, the slot is unable to change the velocity but can make the charged particle move In a circular path.

If r is the radius of the circle, then the centripetal force required by the charged particle will be
\(F_{c}=\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)

This centripetal force Is provided by the magnetic force acting on the charged particle.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 11
(b) Explain, how its path will be affected if the velocity \(\vec{v}\) makes an angle (θ ≠ 90°) with the direction of the magnetic field. (CBSE 2019C)
Answer:
If (θ ≠ 90°), the velocity \(\vec{v}\) of the moving charge can be resolved into two components v cos θ, in the direction of the magnetic field and make it v sin θ, in the direction perpendicular to the magnetic field. The charged particle under the combined effect of the two components of velocities wilt cover linear as well as a circular path, i.e. helical path whose axis is parallel to the magnetic field.

Question 2.
(a) Obtain the conditions under which an electron does not suffer any deflection while passing through a magnetic field.
Answer:
No deflection suffered by the electron if it moves parallel or anti-parallel to the magnetic field.

(b) Two protons P and Q moving with the same speed pass through the magnetic fields \(\vec{B}_{1}\) and \(\vec{B}_{2}\) respectively, at right angles to the field directions. If \(\left|\vec{B}_{2}\right|>\left|\vec{B}_{1}\right|\), which of the two protons will describe the circular path of smaller radius? Explain. (CBSEAI 2019)
Answer:
The radius of the circular path traveled by a charged particle in a magnetic field is given by
r = \(\frac{mv}{Bq}\)

Therefore, \(\frac{r_{1}}{r_{2}}=\frac{B_{2}}{B_{1}}\)

As \(\left|\vec{B}_{2}\right|>\left|\vec{B}_{1}\right|\) therefore, r2 < r1

Question 3.
A straight wire of length L is bent into a semi-circular loop. Use Biot-Savart law to deduce an expression for the magnetic field at its center due to the current l passing through it. (CBSE Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
Consider a straight wire of length L. Let it be bent into a semicircular arc of radius r as shown,
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 12
Then πr = L or r = L/π

Let a current I be passed through it. Divide the semi-circular loop into a large number of elements; consider one such element PQ of length dl. Then the small magnetic field cfB produced at the point O is

dB = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{l d l \sin 90^{\circ}}{r^{2}}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{l d l}{r^{2}}\) outwards at point O.

Therefore total magnetic field at point O is
B = \(\int_{0}^{\pi r} \frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{l d l}{r^{2}}=\frac{\mu_{0} l}{4 r}=\frac{\mu_{0} l \pi}{4 L}\)

Question 4.
A circular coil of N turns and radius R carries a current l. It is unwound and rewound to make another coil of radius R/2, current l remaining the same. Calculate the ratio of the magnetic moments of the new coil and the original coil. (CBSE AI 2012)
Answer:
The magnetic moment of a current-carrying coil is given by
M = n lA = n l πR²

When the coil is unwound and wound into another coil of radius R/2, the number of turns will double, i.e. n = 2
Therefore, n1 = 1, n2 = 2, R1 = R, R2 = R/2, hence

Therefore \(\frac{M_{2}}{M_{1}}=\frac{n_{2} / \pi R_{2}^{2}}{n_{1} / \pi R_{1}^{2}}=\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 5.
Two identical coils P and Q each of radius R are lying in perpendicular planes such that they have a common center. Find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field at the common center when they carry currents equal to l and \(\sqrt{3}\) l respectively. (CBSE Al 2019)
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 13
Answer:
Magnetic field at the common centre due to coil P
\(B_{1}=\frac{\mu_{o} l}{2 R}\)

Magnetic field at the common centre due to coil Q
\(B_{2}=\frac{\mu_{0} \sqrt{3} l}{2 R}\)
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 14
The two fields are mutually perpendicular, therefore, the resultant field at the common centre is
B = \(\sqrt{B_{1}^{2}+B_{2}^{2}}=\sqrt{\left(\frac{\mu_{o} l}{2 R}\right)^{2}+\left(\frac{\mu_{0} \sqrt{3} 1}{2 R}\right)^{2}}\)
= \(\frac{\mu_{o} l}{R}\)

Let the resultant field make an angle θ with magnetic field B<sub>2</sub> as shown
tan θ = \(\frac{B_{1}}{B_{2}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) ⇒ θ = 30°

Question 6.
Find the condition under which the charged particles moving with different speeds in the presence of electric and magnetic field vectors can be used to select charged particles of a particular speed. (CBSE A! 2017)
Answer:
Consider crossed electric and magnetic fields. Let the particle enter perpendicular to both these fields. Due to this, the electric and magnetic forces are in opposite directions. Suppose, we adjust the value of E and B such that the magnitudes of the two forces are equal. Then, the total force on the charge is zero and the charge will move in the fields undeflected.

This happens when, or qE = qvB or v = E/B

This condition can be used to select charged particles of a particular velocity out of a beam containing charges moving at different speeds (irrespective of their charge and mass). The crossed E and B fields, therefore, serve as a velocity selector. Only particles with speed E/B pass undeflected through the region of crossed fields.

Question 7.
(a) Define the SI unit of current in terms of the force between two parallel current-carrying conductors.
Answer:
One ampere is that much current which when flowing through each of the two infinitely long straight conductors held 1 meter apart in space, produces a force of F = 2 × 10-7 N per meter of their length.

(b) Two long straight parallel conductors carrying steady currents la and lb along the same direction are separated by a distance d. How does one explain the force of attraction between them? If a third conductor carrying a current l in the opposite direction is placed just in the middle of these conductors, find the resultant force acting on the third conductor. (CBSE AI, Delhi 2018C)
Answer:
The magnetic field produced by one current applies a force on the other current-carrying conductor. By Fleming’s left-hand rule the forces acting on each due to other is directed towards each other. This shows attraction.

Force on C conductor due to conductor A
Fca = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{a} l_{c}}{\pi d}\) repulsive

Force on C conductor due to conductor B
Fcb = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{b} l_{c}}{\pi d}\)

\(F_{\mathrm{ac}}-F_{\mathrm{bc}}=\frac{\mu_{0} l_{\mathrm{c}}}{\pi d}\left(l_{a}-l_{b}\right)\)

Question 8.
ExplaIn how will you convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter to read a maximum potential of ‘V’ volt. Can one use a voltmeter to measure the emf of a cell? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Suppose a galvanometer having resistance G is to be converted into a voltmeter, which can measure the potential difference from O to V volt. Let a high resistance R be joined in senes with the galvanometer for this purpose. Its value is so chosen that when the galvanometer with the resistance is connected between two points having a potential difference of V volt, the gaLvanometer gives full-scale deflection. It is clear from the figure below that
V = lg (R + G)
or
R = \(\frac{v}{l_{g}}\) – G
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 15
On connecting the above high resistance in series with a galvanometer, the galvanometer is converted into a voltmeter of range V volt.

A voltmeter cannot measure the emf of the cell as it draws current from the cell while measuring the potential differences.

Question 9.
Explain how will you convert a galvanometer into an ammeter to read a maximum current of ‘l’ ampere. An ammeter is always connected in series with a circuit. Why? (CBSE AI 2019)
Answer:
Suppose a galvanometer of resistance G is to be converted into an ammeter having range 0 to l ampere. Let lg be the current,
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 16
which gives full-scale deflection in the galvanometer. Suppose S is the appropriate shunt required for this purpose, i.e. when shunt S Is used, current ‘g passes through the galvanometer and the remaining (l – lg) passes through the shunt as shown in the figure below. Since the shunt and the galvanometer are connected In parallel therefore the potential differences across both wilL be the same. Hence
lg G = (l – lg) S ….(1)

S = \(\frac{l_{s} G}{l-l_{s}}\) ….(2)

An ammeter is used to measure current; therefore, it is connected in senes so that the entire current passes through it. Moreover, an ammeter is a low resistance device.

Question 10.
A steady current (l1) flows through a long straight wire. Another wlrè carrying steady current (l2) In the same direction is kept close and parallel to the first wire. Show with the help of a diagram how the magnetic field due to the current l1 exerts a magnetic force on the second wire. Write the expression for this force. (CBSE AI 2011)
Answer:
The diagram is as shown below.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 17
Magnetic field B1 is produced by the wire carrying current l1 on a wire carrying current l2. Thus the second current-carrying wire is placed in the magnetic field produced by the first as a result it experiences a force is given by F = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{1} l_{2}}{2 \pi r}\) per unit length.

Question 11.
(a) State Ampere’s circuital law expressing it in the integral form.
(b) Two long coaxial insulated solenoids S1 and S2 of equal lengths are wound one over the other as shown in the figure. A steady current ‘l’ flows through the inner solenoid S1 to the other end B, which is connected to the outer solenoid S2 through which the same current ‘l’ flows in the opposite direction so as to come out at end A. If n1 and n2 are the numbers of turns per unit length, find the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field at a point
(i) inside on the axis and
(ii) outside the combined system. (CBSE Delhi 2014)
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 18
Answer:
(a) The line integral of B around any closed path equals µol, where l is the total steady current passing through any surface bounded by the closed path.” Mathematically
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d L}=\mu_{0} I\)

(b) (i) The magnetic field due to a current-carrying solenoid:
B = µon l

where n = number of turns per unit length
l = current through the solenoid

Now, the magnetic field due to solenoid S1 will be in the upward direction and the magnetic field due to S2 will be in the downward direction (by right-hand screw rule).
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 19
In the upward direction

(ii) The magnetic field is zero outside a solenoid.

Question 12.
Three long straight parallel wires are kept as shown in the Figure. The wire (3) carries a current l
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 20
(i) The direction of flow of current l in wire (3) is such that the net force, on a wire (1), due to the other two wires, is zero.
(ii) By reversing the direction of l, the net force on the wire (2), due to the other two wires, becomes zero. What will be the direction of current l, in the two cases? Also obtain the relation between the magnitudes of currents l1, l2, and l. (CBSE Delhi 2016C)
Answer:
Case 1: The direction of flow of current in the wire (3) will be opposite to the direction of flow of current in the wire (1), i.e. downwards.
Also \(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{1} l}{2 \pi(2 a)}=\frac{\mu_{0} l_{1} l_{2}}{2 \pi a}\)
or
l = 2l2

Case 2: The direction of flow of current in wire (3) will be same as the direction of flow of current in wire (1), i.e. upwards. For zero force on wire (2) we have
\(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{1} l_{2}}{2 \pi a}=\frac{\mu_{0} l l_{2}}{2 \pi a}\)
or
l = l1
Therefore l = l1 = 2 l2

Question 13.
Show mathematically that the cyclotron frequency does not depend upon the speed of the particle.
Answer:
Due to the presence of the perpendicular magnetic field the particle moves in a circle of radius r given by
r = \(\frac{m v}{q B}\) ….(1)

The path of the particles in the dees is a semicircle and the time the particle spends in each dees is length of the semi circular path velocity
t = \(\frac{\text { length of the semi circular path }}{\text { velocity }}\)
= \(\frac{\pi r}{v}=\frac{\pi m}{B q}\) …(2)

using equation (1)
The above time is independent of the radius of the path and the velocity of the charged particle. Now the time period of the cyclotron is twice the time spent by the particle in each dee. Thus

T = 2t = \(\frac{2 \pi m}{B q}\) …(3)

Hence cyclotron frequency or the magnetic resonance frequency is given by
v = \(\frac{1}{T}=\frac{B q}{2 \pi m}\) …(4)

which is independent of the speed of the particle.

Question 14.
State the principle of a cyclotron. Show that the time period of revolution of particles in a cyclotron is independent of their speeds. Why is this property necessary for the operation of a cyclotron? (CBSE Al 2016)
Answer:
Principle of cyclotron: It is based on the principle that the positive ions can be accelerated to high energies with a comparatively smaller alternating potential difference by making them cross the electric field again and again, by making use of a strong magnetic field.

The necessary centripetal force required by charged particle to revolve in a circular path in magnetic field is provided by force due to magnetic field, i.e.
\(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\) = Bqv
or
v = \(\frac{\text { Bqr }}{m}\)

So, the frequency of revolution is then given by
T = \(\frac{2 \pi r}{v}=2 \pi r \times \frac{m}{B q r}=\frac{2 \pi m}{B q}\)

It is clear from the expression that T is Independent of speed.

If this condition is not met the charged particle will very soon go out of step with the applied electricity and will not be accelerated.

Question 15.
(a) Write the expression for the magnetic force acting on a charged particle moving with velocity v in the presence of magnetic field B.
Answer:
\(\vec{F}\) = q\((\vec{v} \times \vec{B})\)

(b) A neutron, an electron and an alpha particle moving with equal velocities enter a uniform magnetic field going into the plane of the paper as shown. Trace their paths in the field and justify your answer. (CBSE Delhi 2016)
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 21
Answer:
The path area is shown.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 22
The radius of the circular path traveled by each particle is given by the expression
r = \(\frac{m v}{B q}\) since B and v is the same therefore

we have r ∝ \(\frac{m}{q}\). Since neutron does not have a charge therefore it passes straight without deflection. The ratio m/q for an alpha particle is greater for an alpha particle therefore its path will be less curved.

Also by Fleming’s left-hand rule the alpha particle and the electron will experience a force in the direction as shown.

Question 16.
A long solenoid of length ‘L’ having N turns carries a current l. Deduce the expression for the magnetic field in the interior of the solenoid. (CBSE AI 2011C)
Answer:
Consider a rectangular path abed of length L as shown in the figure below. Let us apply Ampere’s circuital law to this rectangular path so that we have
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 23
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 24
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 25
But by Ampere’s circuital law we have
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \vec{d} L\) = μ0Nl = μ0(nL)l …(2)

From equations (1) and (2) we have
BL = μ0nLl
or
B = μ0 n l

But n = N/L, therefore we have
B = μ0 \(\frac{N l}{L}\)

This gives the value of a magnetic field inside a solenoid.

Question 17.
Using Biot-Savart’s law, derive an expression for the magnetic field intensity at the center of a current-carrying circular coil.
Answer:
Consider a circular loop of radius r carrying a current l and having a center at O as shown in the figure below.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 26
Consider a small current element dL on the loop. Then by Biot-Savart’s law the magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of the loop due to the current element we have
dB = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{l d L \sin \theta}{r^{2}}\) …(1)

In this case, the angle between the current element dL and the radius vector is 90° therefore equation (1) can be written as
dB = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{l d L}{r^{2}}\) ….(2)

The circular loop can be considered to be consisting of such small elements placed side by side, and then the magnetic intensities of these elements will be in the same direction. Thus, the net intensity of B at the center of the loop is given by
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 27
Question 18.
A charged particle q is moving in the presence of a magnetic field B which is inclined to an angle 300 with the direction of the motion of the particle. Draw the trajectory followed by the particle In the presence of the field and explain how the particle describes this path. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Two components of velocity vector V are responsible for the helical motion. Force on the charged particle due to the component normal to the magnetic field acts perpendicular to the velocity and the magnetic field and makes the particle follow a circular path. The component of velocity which is along the magnetic field does not cause any force on the particle, hence the particle continues to move in a straight line path due to this component so, the resultant path will be helical.

The path is as shown.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 28
Question 19.
Two parallel coaxial circular costs of equal radius ‘R’ and an equal number of turns ‘N’, carry equal currents ‘I’ in the same direction and are separated by a distance ‘2R’. Find the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field produced at the mid-point of the line joining their centers.
Answer:
The magnetic field at a distance R from a circular coil is given by the expression
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 29
Both are directed in the same direction, therefore the resultant magnetic field at the center is
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} N l R^{2}}{\left(2 R^{2}\right)^{1 / 2}}\)

Question 20.
(a) State Biot-Savart’s law. Using this law, derive the expression for the magnetic field due to a current-carrying circular loop of radius ‘R’, at a point which is at a distance ‘x’ from Its center along the axis of the loop.
Answer:
It states that for a small current element the small magnetic field is given by the expression Biot-Savart’s law for a small current element \(\overrightarrow{d B}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{I \overline{(d L} \times \hat{r})}{r^{2}}\).

(b) Two small identical circular loops, marked (1) and (2), carrying equal currents, are placed with the geometrical axes perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. Find the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field produced at point O.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 30
Answer:
The magnetic field at O due to the circular loop 1 is B1 = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l R^{2}}{2\left(x^{2}+R^{2}\right)^{1 / 2}}\) directed towards left.

The magnetic field at O due to the circular loop is B1 = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l R^{2}}{2\left(x^{2}+R^{2}\right)^{1 / 2}}\) directed upwards.

The net magnetic field is therefore
B = \(\sqrt{B_{1}^{2}+B_{2}^{2}}=\sqrt{2} B_{1}=\frac{\mu_{0} l R^{2}}{\sqrt{2}\left(x^{2}+R^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}}\)

The direction of the net magnetic field is 45° with the axis of the loop as shown in the figure below.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 31

Question 21.
Derive an expression for the magnetic field along the axis of an air-cored solenoid, using Ampere’s circuital law. Sketch the magnetic field lines for a finite solenoid. Explain why the field at the exterior mid-point Is weak while at the interior it is uniform and strong.
Answer:
A solenoid is a coil of wire with a Length, which is Large as compared with its diameter.

Consider an ideaL soLenoid carrying current l and having n turns per unit length.
(a) Consider a rectangular path abed of length L as shown in the figure below. Let us apply Ampere’s circuital law to this rectangular path so that we have
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 23
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 24
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 25
But by Ampere’s circuital law we have
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \vec{d} L\) = μ0Nl = μ0(nL)l …(2)

From equations (1) and (2) we have
BL = μ0nLl
or
B = μ0 n l

But n = N/L, therefore we have
B = μ0 \(\frac{N l}{L}\)

This gives the value of a magnetic field inside a solenoid.

(b) The sketch Is as shown below.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 32
The magnetic field gets added inside the solenoid whereas it is not added outside the solenoid.

Question 22.
(a)Using Ampere’s circuital law, obtain the expression for the magnetic field due to a long solenoid at a point inside the solenoid on its axis.
Answer:
Consider a rectangular path abed of length L as shown in the figure below. Let us apply Ampere’s circuital law to this rectangular path so that we have
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 23
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 24
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 25
But by Ampere’s circuital law we have
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \vec{d} L\) = μ0Nl = μ0(nL)l …(2)

From equations (1) and (2) we have
BL = μ0nLl
or
B = μ0 n l

But n = N/L, therefore we have
B = μ0 \(\frac{N l}{L}\)

This gives the value of a magnetic field inside a solenoid.

(b) In what respect is a toroid different from a solenoid? Draw and compare the pattern of the magnetic field lines in the two cases.
Answer:
(b) In a toroid magnetic field is uniform whereas in a solenoid it is different at the two ends and the center.
The magnetic field lines around the two are as shown.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 33
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 34
(c) How is the magnetic field inside a given solenoid made strong? (CBSE Al 2011)
Answer:
(i) By inserting a ferromagnetic substance inside the solenoid.
(ii) By increasing the amount of current through the solenoid.

Question 23.
(a) Explain, giving reasons, the basic difference in converting a galvanometer into
(i) a voltmeter
Answer:
A voltmeter is always connected in parallel with the section of the circuit whose potential difference has to be measured. Further, it must draw a small current, otherwise, the voltage measurement will disturb the original setup by an amount that is very large. Thus a large resistance is connected to the galvanometer in series so as to minimize this effect.

(ii) an ammeter
Answer:
An ammeter measures current and is to be connected in series in a circuit. A galvanometer has a large resistance, therefore a shunt is connected to it in order to decrease its resistance such that the current in the circuit is not altered.

(b) Two long straight parallel conductors carrying steady currents l1 and l2 are separated by a distanced’. Explain briefly, with the help of a suitable diagram, how the magnetic field due to one conductor acts on the other. Hence deduce the expression for the force acting between the two conductors. Mention the nature of this force. (CBSE At 2012)
Answer:

Consider two long, straight parallel wires separated by a distance ‘a’ and carrying currents l1 and l2 in the same direction as shown. We can easily determine the force on one wire due to the magnetic field set-up by the other wire. Wire 2, which carries a current l2, sets up a magnetic field B2 at the position of wire 1.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 40
The direction of B2 is perpendicular to the wire, as shown in figure. Now the magnetic force on length L of wire 1 is
\(\vec{F}_{1}=l_{1}\left(\vec{L} \times \vec{B}_{2}\right)\)

Since L is perpendicular to B2, the magnitude of F, is given by F1 = l1 L B2 …(1)
But the field due to wire 2 is given by the relation
B2 = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{2}}{2 \pi a}\) ….(2)

Therefore, from equations 1 and 2 we have
F1= l1 L B2 = l1 L\(\left(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{2}}{2 \pi a}\right)=\frac{L \mu_{0} l_{1} l_{2}}{2 \pi a}\)

We can rewrite it in terms of force per unit length as
\(\frac{F_{1}}{L}=\frac{\mu_{0} l_{1} l_{2}}{2 \pi a}\) ….(3)

The direction of F1 is downward, towards wire 2, since \(\vec{L} \times \vec{B}\) is downwards. If one considers the field set up at wire 2 due to wire 1, the force F2 is found to be equal and opposite to F1 which is in accordance with Newton’s third law of motion. When the currents are in opposite directions, the forces are reversed and the wires repel each other. Hence we find that the force per unit length of wire between two parallel current-carrying wires is given by
F = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{1} l_{2}}{2 \pi a}\)

Therefore, two conductors carrying current in the same direction attract each other whereas two conductors carrying current in the opposite directions repel each other.

The above expression can be used to define ampere, the SI unit of current.
Let l1 = l2 = 1 ampere, a = 1 m then F = 2 × 10-7 Nm-1

Thus we have
One ampere is that much current which when flowing through each of the two infinitely long straight conductors held 1 meter apart in space, produce a force of F = 2 × 10-7 N per meter of their length.

Question 24.
(a) State the underlying principle of a moving coil galvanometer.
Answer:
A current-carrying coil placed in a magnetic field experiences a torque.

(b) Give two reasons to explain why a galvanometer cannot as such be used to measure the value of the current in a given circuit.
Answer:

  1. A galvanometer is a very sensitive device; it gives a full-scale deflection for a current of the order of a few pA.
  2. The resistance of the galvanometer is not very small, hence it will change the value of current in the circuit branch when connected in series in that branch.

(c) Define the terms:
(i) voltage sensitivity and
(ii) current sensitivity of a galvanometer. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:

  • Voltage sensitivity: Voltage sensitivity is defined as the deflection per unit potential difference applied.
  • Current sensitivity: It is defined as the deflection per unit current.

Question 25.
(a) State Biot-Savart law. Deduce the expression for the magnetic field due to a circular current carrying loop at a point lying on its axis.
Answer:
It states that for a small current element the small magnetic field is given by the expression Biot-Savart’s law for a small current element \(\overrightarrow{d B}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{I \overline{(d L} \times \hat{r})}{r^{2}}\).

(b) Two long parallel wires carry currents l1 and l1 flowing in the same direction. When a third current-carrying wire is placed parallel and coplanar in between the two, find the condition when the third wire would experience no force due to these two wires. (CBSE AI 2012C)
Answer:
Two current-carrying wires carrying current in the same direction attract and those carrying current in the opposite direction repel. The current in the third wire at the center should be opposite to the current in the two wires.

The conditions should be

  • The center wire should carry current in the opposite direction to the two wires and
  • The center wire should be closer to the wire carrying lesser current.

Question 26.
(a) Derive the expression for the torque on a rectangular current-carrying loop suspended in a uniform magnetic field.
Answer:
The figure below shows a rectangular loop of wire with length ‘a’ and breadth ‘b’. A line perpendicular to the plane of the loop (i.e. a normal to the plane) makes an angle Φ with the direction of the magnetic field B, and the loop carries a current / as shown. Let the forces acting on the various sides of the loop be \(\vec{F}_{1}\), \(\vec{F}_{2}\), \(\vec{F}_{3}\) and \(\vec{F}_{4}\) as shown.

It follows from the expression for the force experienced by a conductor in a magnetic field that force on arm AB is
\(\vec{F}_{1}=I(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AB}} \times \vec{B})\) …(1)
(in the plane of the paper and is directed upwards as shown).

The force on arm CD is given by \(\vec{F}_{2}=l(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{CD}} \times \vec{B})\) …(2)
(in the plane of the paper and is directed downwards as shown.)

Since these two forces are equal and opposite and have the same line of action therefore they cancel out each other’s effect and their resultant effect on the coil is zero.

Now the force on arm BC is
\(\vec{F}_{3}=l(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{BC}} \times \vec{B})\) …(3)
(acts perpendicular to the plane of the paper and is directed outwards as shown) Finally the force on arm DA is
\(\vec{F}_{4}=I(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DA}} \times \vec{B})\) …(4)
(acts perpendicular to the plane of the paper and is directed inwards as shown in figure).

Both forces F<sub>3</sub> and F4 make an angle of 90° with the direction of the magnetic field. Therefore, in magnitude, these forces are given by
F3 = F4 = l a B sin90° = l a B …(5)

The lines of action of both these forces are perpendicular to the plane of the paper. The two forces F3 and F4 lie along different lines and each give rise to a torque about the X-axis. The two torques produce a resultant torque in the + X direction. The arm of the couple (perpendicular distance between the lines of action of the two forces) from the figure below is given by
The arm of couple = b Sin Φ …(6)

Therefore, by the definition of torque we have
Torque = either force × arm of couple Using equations (5) and (6) we have
Torque = l B a × b Sin Φ
But a b = A, area of the coil, therefore τ = l B A Sin Φ
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 48
(b) A proton and a deuteron having equal momenta enter in a region of the uniform magnetic field at a right angle to the direction of the field. Depict their trajectories in the field. (CBSE Delhi 2013)
Answer:
The radius of the curved path which will be followed by the two particles is given by the expression r = \(\frac{m v}{B q}\)

As md > mp it will follow the path of a bigger radius.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 35

Question 27.
State Biot-Savart law, expressing it in the vector form. Use it to obtain the expression for the magnetic field at an axial point, distance ‘d’ from the center of a circular coil of radius ‘a’ carrying current ‘l’. Also, find the ratio of the magnitudes of the magnetic field of this coil at the center and at an axial point for which d = a \(\sqrt{3}\) (CBSE Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
(a) It states that the magnetic field due to a current element dl at a distance r from it is given by the expression

dB = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{l d l \sin \theta}{r^{2}}\). In vector form it is written as
\(\overrightarrow{d B}=k_{m} \frac{l mid \overrightarrow{d L} \times \hat{r}}{r^{2}}\)

Consider a circular loop of wire of radius R located in the YZ plane and carrying a steady current / as shown in the figure below. Let us calculate the magnetic field at an axial point P a distance x from the center of the loop. From the figure it is clear that any element dL is perpendicular to r, furthermore, all the elements around the loop are at the same distance r from P, where r2 = X2 + R2. Hence by Biot-Savart’s law, the magnetic field at point P due to the current element dL is given by
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 44
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 45
The direction of the magnetic field dB due to the eLement dL is perpendicular to the plane formed by r and dL as shown in the figure above. The vector dB can be resolved into components dB aLong the X-axis and dB which is perpendicular to the X-axis. When the components perpendicular to the X-axis are assumed over the whole loop, the result is zero. That is, by symmetry any element on one side of the loop will set up a perpendicular component that cancels the component setup by an element diametrically opposite it. Therefore, it is obvious that the resultant magnetic field at P will be along the X-axis. This result can be obtained by integrating the components dBx = dB cos θ.
Therefore, we have
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 46
where the integral is to be taken over the entire loop since θ,x and R are constants for all elements of the loop and since
cos θ = \(\frac{R}{\sqrt{x^{2}+R^{2}}}\)

B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l R}{4 \pi\left(x^{2}+R^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}} \oint d L=\frac{\mu_{0} l R^{2}}{2\left(x^{2}+R^{2}\right)^{1 / 2}}\)

To find the magnetic field at the centre of the loop setting x = O in equation the above equation we have B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l}{2 R}\)

Now magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil is
\(B_{C}=\frac{\mu_{0} l}{2 a}\) …(1)

Also magnetic field on the axial line when
d = a\(\sqrt{3}\) is
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 36
From (1) and (2) we have
\(\frac{B_{C}}{B_{\text {axial }}}=\frac{\mu_{0} l}{2 a} \times \frac{16 a}{\mu_{0} l}\) = 8

Question 28.
A straight wire carrying a current of 12 A is bent into a semi-circular arc of radius 2.0 cm as shown in figure (a) Consider the magnetic field B at the center of the arc
(a) What is the magnetic field due to the straight segments?
(b) In what way the contribution to B from the semicircle differs from that of a circular loop and in what way does it resemble?
(c) Would your answer be different if the wire were bent into a semi-circular arc of the same radius but in the opposite way as shown in figure (b)? (NCERT)
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 37
Answer:
(a) dl and r for each element of the straight segments are parallel. Therefore \(d \vec{L} \times \hat{r}\) =0. Straight segments do not contribute to the magnetic field at the center of the semicircular arc.

(b) For all segments of the semicircular arc \(d \vec{L} \times \hat{r}\) are all parallel to, each other (into the plane of the paper). All such contributions add up in magnitude. Hence the direction of B for a semicircular arc is given by the right-hand rule and magnitude is half that of a circular loop. Thus
B = \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{\mu_{0} l}{2 r}=\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 12}{4 \times 2 \times 10^{-2}}\) = 9 × 10-4 T normal to the plane of the paper going into it.

(c) Same magnitude of B but opposite in direction to that in (b)

Question 29.
A long straight wire carrying a current of 25 A rests on a table as shown in the figure. Another wire PQ of length 1 m, mass 2.5 g carries the same current but in the opposite direction. The wire PQ is free to slide up and down. To what height will PQ rise? (NCERT Exemplar)
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 38
Answer:
Given l1 = l1 = 25 A, L = 1 m, m = 2.5 g = 2.5 × 10-3 kg
The repulsive force between PQ and the wire on the table will balance the weight of wire PQ. Let this happen when PQ is at a height h above the wire, then
F = mg
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 39
Question 30.
Two straight parallel conductors carry steady currents l1 and l2 separated by a distance d. if currents are flowing in the same direction, show how the magnetic field set-up in one produces an attractive force on the other. Obtain the expression for force. Hence define one ampere. (CBSE Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Consider two long, straight parallel wires separated by a distance ‘a’ and carrying currents l1 and l2 in the same direction as shown. We can easily determine the force on one wire due to the magnetic field set-up by the other wire. Wire 2, which carries a current l2, sets up a magnetic field B2 at the position of wire 1.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 40
The direction of B2 is perpendicular to the wire, as shown in figure. Now the magnetic force on length L of wire 1 is
\(\vec{F}_{1}=l_{1}\left(\vec{L} \times \vec{B}_{2}\right)\)

Since L is perpendicular to B2, the magnitude of F, is given by F1 = l1 L B2 …(1)
But the field due to wire 2 is given by the relation
B2 = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{2}}{2 \pi a}\) ….(2)

Therefore, from equations 1 and 2 we have
F1= l1 L B2 = l1 L\(\left(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{2}}{2 \pi a}\right)=\frac{L \mu_{0} l_{1} l_{2}}{2 \pi a}\)

We can rewrite it in terms of force per unit length as
\(\frac{F_{1}}{L}=\frac{\mu_{0} l_{1} l_{2}}{2 \pi a}\) ….(3)

The direction of F1 is downward, towards wire 2, since \(\vec{L} \times \vec{B}\) is downwards. If one considers the field set up at wire 2 due to wire 1, the force F2 is found to be equal and opposite to F1 which is in accordance with Newton’s third law of motion. When the currents are in opposite directions, the forces are reversed and the wires repel each other. Hence we find that the force per unit length of wire between two parallel current-carrying wires is given by
F = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{1} l_{2}}{2 \pi a}\)

Therefore, two conductors carrying current in the same direction attract each other whereas two conductors carrying current in the opposite directions repel each other.

The above expression can be used to define ampere, the SI unit of current.
Let l1 = l2 = 1 ampere, a = 1 m then F = 2 × 10-7 Nm-1

Thus we have
One ampere is that much current which when flowing through each of the two infinitely long straight conductors held 1 meter apart in space, produce a force of F = 2 × 10-7 N per meter of their length.

Question 31.
(a) In a moving coil galvanometer, why is the magnetic field required to be radial?
Answer:
The radial field is always normal to the surface of the coil in all positions of the coil, i.e. θ = 0. The radial field ensures a linear relation between 0 and l in a moving coil galvanometer.

(b) A 100 turn closely wound circular coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 3.2 A.
Calculate (i) the magnetic field at the centre of the coil, and
(ii) its magnetic moment. (CBSE2019C)
Answer:
Here N = 100, r = 10 cm = 0.1 m,
l = 3.2 A, B = ?, p = ?
(i) At the centre of the coil
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 41
(ii)Magnetic moment
p = NIA
= 100 × 3.2 × π × (0.1 )2 ≃ 10 Am2

Question 32.
State Ampere’s circuital law. Use this law to find a magnetic field due to a straight infinite current-carrying wire. How are the magnetic field lines different from the electrostatic field lines? (CBSE Al 2016)
Answer:
Statement: “The line integral of B around any closed path equals μ0 l, where l is the total steady current passing through any surface bounded by the closed path.”

Consider a long circular wire of radius ‘a’ carrying a steady current (dc) that is uniformly distributed along the cross-section of the wire as shown in the figure. Let us calculate the magnetic field in the regions r ≥ a and r < a. In region 1 let us choose a circular path of radius r centered at the wire. From symmetry, we find that B is perpendicular to dL at every point on the circular path.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 42
Since total current linked with the circular path is l0, therefore by Ampere’s law we have
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 43

for r ≥ a
Magnetic field lines form closed loops while electrostatics field lines do not.

Question 33.
(a) State Biot-Savart law in vector form.
Answer:
It states that for a small current element the small magnetic field is given by the expression Biot-Savart’s law for a small current element \(\overrightarrow{d B}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{I \overline{(d L} \times \hat{r})}{r^{2}}\).

(b) Deduce the expression for the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a current-carrying circular loop of radius ‘R’, distant V from the center, hence write the magnetic field at the center of a loop. (CBSE AI 2015, Delhi 2018C)
Answer:
Consider a circular loop of wire of radius R located in the YZ plane and carrying a steady current / as shown in the figure below. Let us calculate the magnetic field at an axial point P a distance x from the center of the loop. From the figure it is clear that any element dL is perpendicular to r, furthermore, all the elements around the loop are at the same distance r from P, where r2 = X2 + R2. Hence by Biot-Savart’s law, the magnetic field at point P due to the current element dL is given by
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 44
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 45
The direction of the magnetic field dB due to the element dL is perpendicular to the plane formed by r and dL as shown in the figure above. The vector dB can be resolved into components dB along the X-axis and dB which is perpendicular to the X-axis. When the components perpendicular to the X-axis are assumed over the whole loop, the result is zero. That is, by symmetry any element on one side of the loop will set up a perpendicular component that cancels the component setup by an element diametrically opposite it. Therefore, it is obvious that the resultant magnetic field at P will be along the X-axis. This result can be obtained by integrating the components dBx = dB cos θ.
Therefore, we have
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 46
where the integral is to be taken over the entire loop since θ,x and R are constants for all elements of the loop and since
cos θ = \(\frac{R}{\sqrt{x^{2}+R^{2}}}\)

B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l R}{4 \pi\left(x^{2}+R^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}} \oint d L=\frac{\mu_{0} l R^{2}}{2\left(x^{2}+R^{2}\right)^{1 / 2}}\)

To find the magnetic field at the centre of the loop setting x = O in equation the above equation we have B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l}{2 R}\)

Question 34.
Derive an expression for the maximum force experienced by a straight conductor of length 1, carrying current I and kept in a uniform magnetic field, B.
Answer:
Consider a straight segment of a conducting wire; with length L and cross-section at area A, the current is from bottom to top as shown In the figure below. The wire is in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of the diagram and directed into the plane. Let us assume that the moving charges are positive.

The drift velocity is upward, perpendicular to B. The average force experienced by each charge is
\(\vec{f}=q\left(\vec{v}_{d} \times \vec{B}\right)\) …..(1)

Directed to the left as shown in the figure
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 47
Since \(\vec{V}_{d}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are perpendicular, the magnitude of the force is given by
f = q vd B …(2)

Let n be the number density of charges, i.e. number of charges per unit volume. A segment of the conductor with length L has volume V = A L and contains a number of charges N given by
N = n A L …(3)

Now the total force F on all the charges moving in this segment is
F = N f = (n A L) q vd B = (n q vd A) (L B)

But n q vd A = l, therefore the above equation becomes
F = B l L …(4)

Question 35.
Derive an expression for the torque on a rectangular coil of area A, carrying a current l and placed in a magnetic field B, the angle between the direction of 8 and the vector perpendicular to the plane of the coil is θ. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
The figure below shows a rectangular loop of wire with length ‘a’ and breadth ‘b’. A line perpendicular to the plane of the loop (i.e. a normal to the plane) makes an angle Φ with the direction of the magnetic field B, and the loop carries a current / as shown. Let the forces acting on the various sides of the loop be \(\vec{F}_{1}\), \(\vec{F}_{2}\), \(\vec{F}_{3}\) and \(\vec{F}_{4}\) as shown.

It follows from the expression for the force experienced by a conductor in a magnetic field that force on arm AB is
\(\vec{F}_{1}=I(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{AB}} \times \vec{B})\) …(1)
(in the plane of the paper and is directed upwards as shown).

The force on arm CD is given by \(\vec{F}_{2}=l(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{CD}} \times \vec{B})\) …(2)
(in the plane of the paper and is directed downwards as shown.)

Since these two forces are equal and opposite and have the same line of action therefore they cancel out each other’s effect and their resultant effect on the coil is zero.

Now the force on arm BC is
\(\vec{F}_{3}=l(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{BC}} \times \vec{B})\) …(3)
(acts perpendicular to the plane of the paper and is directed outwards as shown) Finally the force on arm DA is
\(\vec{F}_{4}=I(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DA}} \times \vec{B})\) …(4)
(acts perpendicular to the plane of the paper and is directed inwards as shown in figure).

Both forces F3 and F4 make an angle of 90° with the direction of the magnetic field. Therefore, in magnitude, these forces are given by
F3 = F4 = l a B sin90° = l a B …(5)

The lines of action of both these forces are perpendicular to the plane of the paper. The two forces F3 and F4 lie along different lines and each give rise to a torque about the X-axis. The two torques produce a resultant torque in the + X direction. The arm of the couple (perpendicular distance between the lines of action of the two forces) from the figure below is given by
The arm of couple = b Sin Φ …(6)

Therefore, by the definition of torque we have
Torque = either force × arm of couple Using equations (5) and (6) we have
Torque = l B a × b Sin Φ
But a b = A, area of the coil, therefore τ = l B A Sin Φ
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 48
Question 36.
Draw a schematic sketch of a cyclotron. State its working principle and write its two uses. (CBSE 2019C)
Answer:
Cyclotron
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 49
Working Principle: It is based on the principle that a positively charged particle can acquire very large energy with the small alternating potential difference if the particle is made to cross again and again the electric field produced by alternating potential difference applied and a strong perpendicular magnetic field is applied.

Uses:
(a) It is used to accelerate positively charged particles to very high energies.
(b) Cyclotrons are a source of high-energy beams for nuclear physics experiments.

Question 37.
(a) Draw a schematic sketch of a moving coil galvanometer and describe briefly its working.
Answer:
Principle: It is based on the principle that the positive ions can be accelerated to high energies with a comparatively smaller alternating potential difference by making them cross the electric field again and again, by making use of a strong magnetic field.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 51
Construction: It consists of two D-shaped, hollow metal dees D1 and D2. The dees are placed with a small gap in between them. The dees are connected to a source of high frequency alternating potential difference. The dees are evacuated in order to minimize energy losses resulting from collisions between the ions and air molecules. The whole apparatus is placed between the poles of an electromagnet as shown in the figure below. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the dees.

Working: In a cyclotron, particles of mass m and charge q move inside an evacuated chamber in a uniform magnetic field B that is perpendicular to the plane of their paths. The alternating potential difference applied between the hollow electrodes D1 and D2 create an electric field in the gap between them which changes precisely twice in each revolution so that the particles get a push each time they cross the gap.

The pushes increase their speed and kinetic energy, boosting them into paths of larger radius. The electric field increases the speed and the magnetic field makes the particles move in circular paths. Due to the presence of the perpendicular magnetic field the particle moves in a circle of radius r given by
r = \(\frac{m v}{q B}\) …(1)

The path of the particles in the dees is a semicircle and the time the particle spends in each dee is semi-circular
τ = \(\frac{\text { length of the semi-circular path }}{\text { velocity }}=\frac{\pi r}{v}=\frac{\pi m}{B q}\) by using equation (1)

The above time is independent of the radius of the path and the velocity of the charged particle. Hence the charged particle spends the same time in each dee and encounters a dee of opposite polarity whenever it comes into the gap between the dees and thus is continuously accelerated.

(b) “Increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer does not necessarily increase the voltage sensitivity.” Justify’ this statement. (CBSE Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Voltage and current sensitivities are related as VS = \(\frac{CS}{R}\) .

An increase in current sensitivity may lead to an increase in the resistance of the coil. Thus the factor CS/R may not be affected.

Question 38.
Explain with the help of a labeled diagram the underlying principle, construction, and working of a moving coil galvanometer.
Answer:
It is an instrument used to detect weak currents in a circuit.

Principle: It is based on the principle that, whenever a loop carrying current is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a torque, which tends to rotate it.

Construction: It consists of a rectangular or circular coil made by winding a fine insulated copper wire on an aluminum frame. A thin phosphor bronze strip from a torsion head, which is connected to a terminal screw, suspends this coil. The lower end of the coil is connected to a fine spring which is connected to another terminal screw. The coil hangs in space between the pole pieces of a powerful horseshoe magnet NS as shown in the figure below. The pole pieces are made concave cylindrical.

This provides a radial magnetic field. Since the field is radial, therefore the plane of the coil remains parallel to the magnetic field in all the orientations of the coil. In between the pole pieces, within the coil, lies a soft iron cylindrical piece called ‘core’. The core does not touch the coil anywhere. The whole arrangement is enclosed in a non-magnetic box to protect it from air currents. Three leveling screws are provided at the base.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 50
Question 39.
Explain with the help of a labeled diagram the underlying principle, construction, and working of a cyclotron. (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Principle: It is based on the principle that the positive ions can be accelerated to high energies with a comparatively smaller alternating potential difference by making them cross the electric field again and again, by making use of a strong magnetic field.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 51
Construction: It consists of two D-shaped, hollow metal dees D1 and D2. The dees are placed with a small gap in between them. The dees are connected to a source of high frequency alternating potential difference. The dees are evacuated in order to minimize energy losses resulting from collisions between the ions and air molecules. The whole apparatus is placed between the poles of an electromagnet as shown in the figure below. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the dees.

Working: In a cyclotron, particles of mass m and charge q move inside an evacuated chamber in a uniform magnetic field B that is perpendicular to the plane of their paths. The alternating potential difference applied between the hollow electrodes D1 and D2 create an electric field in the gap between them which changes precisely twice in each revolution so that the particles get a push each time they cross the gap. The pushes increase their speed and kinetic energy, boosting them into paths of larger radius. The electric field increases the speed and the magnetic field makes the particles move in circular paths. Due to the presence of the perpendicular magnetic field the particle moves in a circle of radius r given by
r = \(\frac{m v}{q B}\) …(1)

The path of the particles in the dees is a semicircle and the time the particle spends in each dee is semi-circular
τ = \(\frac{\text { length of the semi-circular path }}{\text { velocity }}=\frac{\pi r}{v}=\frac{\pi m}{B q}\) by using equation (1)

The above time is independent of the radius of the path and the velocity of the charged particle. Hence the charged particle spends the same time in each dee and encounters a dee of opposite polarity whenever it comes into the gap between the dees and thus is continuously accelerated.

Question 40.
The figure below shows a long straight wire of circular cross-section (radius a) carrying steady current l. The current is uniformly distributed across this cross-section. Calculate the magnetic field in the region r < a and r > a. Draw a graph showing the variation of a magnetic field for the above two cases.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 52
Answer:
Consider a long circular wire of radius ‘a’ carrying a steady current (dc) that is uniformly distributed along the cross-section of the wire as shown in the figure. Let us calculate the magnetic field in the regions r ≥ a and r < a. In region 1 let us choose a circular path of radius r centered at the wire. From symmetry, we find that B is perpendicular to dL at every point on the circular path. Since total current linked with the circular path 1 is l0, therefore by Ampere’s law we have
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 53
for r ≥ a

Now consider the interior of the wire, i.e. region 2 where r < a. In this, the current l enclosed by the path is less than l<sub>0</sub>. Since the current is assumed to be uniform over the area of the wire,
Therefore
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 54

Now applying Ampere’s circuital rule to region 2 we have
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 55
The magnetic field versus r for this system is as shown in the figure below.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 56
Question 41.
Draw the magnetic field lines due to a circular loop of area \(\vec{A}\) carrying current I. Show that it acts as a bar magnet of magnetic moment \(\vec{m}=I \vec{A}\). (CBSE Al 2015)
Answer:
The magnetic field lines are as shown
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 57
Magnetic field due to circular loop on its axis at far off points
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 I A}{X^{3}}\)

Magnetic field due to a bar magnet at its axial point is
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 m}{x^{3}}\)

Comparing the above two we have m = IA

Question 42.
(a) State Ampere’s circuital law. Use this law to obtain the expression for the magnetic field inside an air-cored toroid of average radius ‘r, having ‘n’ turns per unit length and carrying a steady current.
(b) An observer to the left of a solenoid of N turns each of cross-section area ‘A’ observes that a steady current I in it flows in the clockwise direction. Depict the magnetic field lines due to the solenoid specifying its polarity and show that it acts as a bar magnet of magnetic moment m = NIA. (CBSE Delhi 2015)
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 58
Answer:
(a) “The line integral of 8 around any closed path equal μ0l, where l is the total steady current passing through any surface bounded by the closed path.” Consider a toroidal solenoid. Let N be the number of turns and l be the current passed through it. For a solenoid whose coils are closely spaced, the field inside the solenoid is tangent to the dotted circular path as shown in the figure and is the same at all points lying on the dotted line.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 59
Therefore we have
\(\oint \vec{B} \cdot d \vec{L}\) = B ∮dL = B (2 π r) …(1)

By Ampere’s circuital law we have ∮\(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{B}} \cdot d \vec{L}\) = μ0Nl …(2)

From equations 1 and 2 we have
B (2 π r) = μ0NI
or
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} N I}{2 \pi r}\) but
\(\frac{N}{2 \pi r}\) = n

i. e. number of turns per unit length Therefore we have B = μ0 n I

This gives the field inside a toroidal solenoid.

(b) The magnetic field lines and the polarity of the solenoid is as shown.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 60
Magnetic field due to the coil on its axis at far off points
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 N I A}{x^{3}}\)

Magnetic field due to a bar magnet at its axial point is
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 m}{x^{3}}\)

Comparing the above two we have m = NIA

Question 43.
(a) Use Biot-Savart law to derive the expression for the magnetic field due to a circular coil of radius R having N turns at a point on the axis at a distance ‘x’ from its center.
Draw the magnetic field lines due to this coil.
(b) A current l enters a uniform loop of radius R at point M and flows out at point N as shown in the figure. Obtain the net magnetic field at the center of the loop. (CBSE Delhi 2015C)
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 61
Answer:
(a) According to Biot-Savart law:
The magnitude of magnetic field d \(\vec{B}\) , is due to a current element d \(\vec{l}\), is proportional to current l and element length, dl.

inversely proportional to the square of the distance r.

Its direction is perpendicular to the plane containing d \(\vec{l}\) and \(\vec{r}\) .

In vector notation,
\(\overrightarrow{d B}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}, \frac{d \vec{l} \times \vec{r}}{r^{3}}\)

Using Biot-Savart law, obtain the expression for the magnetic field due to a circular coil of radius r, carrying a current I at a point on its axis distant x from the centre of the coil. (CBSE Delhi 2018C)
Answer:
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 69
we have \(\overrightarrow{d B}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} I \frac{|d \vec{i} \times \vec{r}|}{r^{3}}\)
r² = x² + R²

∴ dB = \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{4 \pi} \frac{d l}{\left(X^{2}+R^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}}\)

Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 70
The magnetic fieLd Lines are as shown.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 62
(b) At point O, the net magnetic field is the sum of fields due to two current segments carrying currents /1 and l2. If the potential difference between points A and B be V, then
V = I1 R1 = I2R2
where R, is the resistance of segment subtending an angle 90° at O and R2 is the resistance of segment subtending an angle (360° – 90°) at O.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 63
Now R1 = \(\frac{\pi / 2}{2 \pi} R=\frac{R}{4}\)
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 64
Now field B1, at O due to smaller segment is
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 65
directed inwards.

Now field B2 at 0 due to larger segment is
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 66
directed outwards

Hence net magnetic field in the center is
B1 – B2 = \(\frac{3 \mu_{0} I}{32 r}-\frac{3 \mu_{0} I}{32 r}\) = 0

(ii) The velocity of the particle inside a cyclotron is given by v = \(\frac{B q r}{m}\) , which again depends upon the q/m ratio. The q/m ratio of an a particle is less than that of a proton, therefore a proton will come out with higher velocity.

Question 44.
(a) Define the SI unit of current in terms of the force between two parallel current-carrying conductors.
(b) Two long straight parallel conductors carrying steady currents la and lb along the same direction are separated by a distance d. How does one explain the force of attraction between them? If a third conductor carrying a current lc in the opposite direction is placed just in the middle of these conductors, find the resultant force acting on the third conductor. (CBSE Delhi 2018C)
Answer:
(a) The ampere is the value of that steady current which, when maintained in each of the two very long, straight, parallel conductors of negligible cross¬section, and placed one meter apart in vacuum, would produce on each of these conductors a force equal to 2 × 10-7 newton per meter of length.
(b) The wire (ii) experiences a force due to the magnetic field caused by the current flowing in wire (i).
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 67
The magnetic field at any point on the wire (b) due to the current in the wire (a) is perpendicular to the plane of two wires and pointing inwards and hence force on it will be towards wire (a). Similarly, the force on the wire (a) will be towards wire (b). Hence two wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 68
Force on wire (3) due to wire (1)
\(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{a} l_{c}}{2 \pi\left(\frac{d}{2}\right)}\) towards right

Force on wire 3 due to wire 2
\(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{b} l_{c}}{2 \pi\left(\frac{d}{2}\right)}\) towards Left

Net force on wire 3
\(\frac{\mu_{0} I_{c}}{\pi d}\left[I_{a}-I_{b}\right]\) towards right nd °

Also accept
\(\frac{\mu_{0} I_{c}}{\pi d}\left[I_{b}-I_{a}\right]\) towards left

Question 45.
(a) State Biot-Savart law and express it in the vector form.
Answer:
(a) According to Biot-Savart law:
The magnitude of magnetic field d \(\vec{B}\) , is due to a current element d \(\vec{l}\), is proportional to current l and element length, dl.

inversely proportional to the square of the distance r.

Its direction is perpendicular to the plane containing d \(\vec{l}\) and \(\vec{r}\) .

In vector notation,
\(\overrightarrow{d B}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}, \frac{d \vec{l} \times \vec{r}}{r^{3}}\)

(b) Using Biot-Savart law, obtain the expression for the magnetic field due to a circular coil of radius r, carrying a current I at a point on its axis distant x from the centre of the coil. (CBSE Delhi 2018C)
Answer:
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 69
we have \(\overrightarrow{d B}=\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} I \frac{|d \vec{i} \times \vec{r}|}{r^{3}}\)
r² = x² + R²

∴ dB = \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{4 \pi} \frac{d l}{\left(X^{2}+R^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}}\)

Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 70
Question 46.
Derive an expression for the velocity y0 of a positive ion passing undeflected through a region where crossed uniform electric field E and magnetic field B are simultaneously present. Draw and justify the trajectory of identical positive ions whose velocity has a magnitude less than \(\left|v_{c}\right|\).
OR
A particle of mass m and charge q is in motion at speed Y parallel to a long straight conductor carrying current I as shown below.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 71
Find the magnitude and direction of the electric field required so that the particle goes undefeated. (CBSE Sample Paper 2018-19)
Answer:
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 72
If the ion passes undeflected, therefore the magnetic and electric forces acting on the ion must be equal and opposite.
Therefore
qE = Bqvc
vc = \(\frac{E}{B}\)

The trajectory would be as shown. Justification: For positive ions with speed v < vc. Force due to electric field wilt remains the same as It does not depend upon Vc.

But force due to the magnetic field will become Less than the initial value. This unbalances the two, electric and magnetic, forces hence, the ion will experience a net electric force. This will accelerate the ion along the direction of the electric field. Since initiaL velocity is perpendicular to E, the trajectory would be parabolic.
OR
For the charged particle to move undeflected

Electric force = magnetic force
qE = Bq v
or
E=Bv

Now magnetic field at a distance r from the long straight conductor is
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2 \pi r}\)

This magnetic force Will act towards the wire.

Hence electric field is

E = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l v}{2 \pi r}\)

This electric field should act away from the wire.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 73
Numerical Problems:

Formulae for solving numerical problems

  • Magnetic field due to a small current element dB = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{l mid d L \sin \theta}{r^{2}}\)
  • Magnetic field due to an infinitely long straight conductor B = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2l}{a}\)
  • Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil B = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 \pi l}{r}\)
  • Force on a charge moving in a magnetic field F = Bq v Sin θ
  • The magnetic field inside a solenoid B = µ0 n I
  • Force on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field F = BIL Sin θ
  • Force between two current carrying conductors \(\frac{F_{1}}{L}=\frac{\mu_{0} l_{1} l_{2}}{2 \pi a}\)
  • Torque on a current loop τ = BI n A sin θ
  • Current in a galvanometer l = \(\frac{C}{n B A}\) sin θ
  • Shunt required S = \(\frac{l_{8} G}{l-I_{g}}\)
  • Resistance required R = \(\frac{v}{l_{g}}\) – G
  • Radius of a charged particle in a magnetic field r = \(\frac{m v}{B q}=\frac{\sqrt{2 m E}}{B q}\)

Question 1.
A proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are in turn allowed to pass through a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to their direction of motion. Compare the radii of the paths of the proton and the alpha particle.
Answer:
Given Eα = Ep, mα = 4 mp, qα = 2qp, B is same for both. Now the radius of the path followed is given by the expression
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 74
Question 2.
A circular coil of 30 turns and radius 8.0 cm carrying a current of 6.0 A is suspended vertically in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 1.0 T. The field lines make an angle of 60° with the normal to the coil. Calculate the magnitude of the counter-torque that must be applied to prevent the coil from turning.
Answer:
Given n = 30, r = 8.0 cm = 8 × 10-2 m,
l = 6.0 A, B = 1.0 T, θ = 60°, τ = ?
Using the formula for torque
τ = BlnA

we have τ = Blnπr² sin θ
τ = 1 × 6 × 30 × 3.14 × (8 × 10-2)2 × sin 60°
= 3.1 N m

Question 3.
How can a moving coil galvanometer be converted into an ammeter? To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer by 50%, its resistance is increased so that the new resistance becomes twice its initial resistance. By what factor does its voltage sensitivity change?
Answer:
Voltage sensitivity
= \(\frac{\alpha}{V}=\frac{\alpha}{I R}=\frac{\text { current sensitivity }}{R}\)

When the current sensitivity increases by 50 % resistance becomes 2R.

New voltage sensitivity
= \(\frac{1+0.5}{2}\) = 0.75

Hence the voltage sensitivity decreases and becomes 75% of its original value.

Question 4.
A long straight conductor PQ carrying a current of 75 A is fixed horizontally. Another long conductor XY is kept parallel to PQ at a distance of 5 mm, in air. Conductor XY is free to move and carries a current l. Calculate the magnitude and direction of current l for which the magnetic repulsion just balances the weight of conductor XY (Mass per unit length for conductor XY is 10-2 kg m-1.)
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 75
Answer:
Given l1 = 75 A, r = 5 mm = 5 × 10-3 m, l2 = ? mass per unit length = 10-2kg m-1.

The force between the two wires should be repulsive and should balance the weight of the wire XY. Thus the current in wire XY will be opposite to that in wire PQ.

The force between the two current-carrying conductors is given by
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 76
Question 5.
A galvanometer has a resistance of 30 Ω. It gives full-scale deflection with a current of 2 mA. Calculate the value of the resistance needed to convert it into an ammeter of range 0-0.3 A.
Answer:
Given G = 30 Ω, lg = 2 mA= 2 × 10-3 A, S = ?, I = 0.3 A
Using the formula S = \(\frac{I_{g} G}{I-I_{g}}\)

we have
S = \(\frac{I_{g} G}{I-I_{g}}\) = \(\frac{30 \times 2 \times 10^{-3}}{0.3-2 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 0.20 Ω

Question 6.
An infinitely long straight current-carrying wire produces a magnetic field 8, at a point distant ‘a’ from it. What must be the radius of a circular loop, so that, for the same current through it, the magnetic field at (i) its center equals B/2 and (ii) an axial point, distant equal to the radius of the loop, equals B?
Answer:
The magnetic field at a distance ‘a’ from an infinitely long straight conductor is
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2 \pi a}\)

(i) Given Bc = B/2. Let r be the radius of the circular coil for which the magnetic field is B/2.

Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil is \(B=\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2 \pi a}\) Therefore
\(\frac{\mu_{0} l}{2 r}=\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{\mu_{0} l}{2 \pi a}\) or r = 2 π a

(ii) Magnetic field at the axial line of a loop is
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l R^{2}}{2\left(x^{2}+R^{2}\right)^{1 / 2}}\)

Here x = R radius of the loop.
Therefore \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2 \pi a}=\frac{\mu_{0} I R^{2}}{2\left(R^{2}+R^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}}\)

solving for R we have R = \(\frac{\pi a}{\sqrt{8}}\)

Question 7.
Calculate the value of resistance needed to convert a galvanometer of resistance 120 ft, which gives a full-scale deflection for a current of 5 mA, into a voltmeter of 0 – 50 V range.
Answer:
Given G = 120 Ω, lg = 5 × 10-3A, V= 50 V, R =?

Using the relation R = \(\frac{v}{l_{g}}\) – G we have
R = \(\frac{50}{5 \times 10^{-3}}\) -120 = 9880 Ω

Question 8.
Two infinitely long straight wires A1 and A2 carrying currents l1 and l2 flowing in the same directions are kept distance apart. Where should a third straight wire A3 carrying current 1.5 l be placed between A1 and A2 so that it experiences no net force due to A1 and A2? Does the net force act on A3 depend on the current flowing through it? (CBSE Delhi 2019)
Answer:
The diagram is as shown.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 77
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 78
If no force is experienced by the conductor A3, then
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 79
The net force on A3 does not depend upon the current flowing through it.

Question 9.
An ammeter of resistance 0.80 Ω can measure current up to 1.0 A.
(a) What must be the value of shunt resistance to enable the ammeter to measure current up to 5.0 A?
Answer:
Given G = 0.80 Ω, /g = 1.0 A, l = 5.0 A, S = ?, R<sub>A</sub> = ?
(a) Using the expression
S = \(\frac{I_{g} G}{I-I_{0}}=\frac{1 \times 0.8}{5-1}=\frac{0.8}{4}\) = 0.2 Ω

(b) What is the combined resistance of the ammeter and the shunt? (CBSE Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Now RA = \(\frac{G S}{G+S}=\frac{0.8 \times 0.2}{0.8+0.2}\) = 0.016 Ω

Question 10.
A wire AB is carrying a steady current of 12 A and is lying on the table. Another wire CD carrying 5A is held directly above AB at a height of 1 mm. Find the mass per unit length of the wire CD so that it remains suspended at its position when left free. Give the direction of the current flowing in CD with respect to that in AB. (Take the value of g = 10 m s-2) (CBSE AI 2013)
Answer:
Given l1 = 12 A, r = 1 mm = 1 × 10-3 m, l2 = 5 A, mass per unit length = ?

The force between the two wires should be repulsive and should balance the weight of the wire CD. Thus the current in wire CD will be opposite to that in wire AB.

The force between the two current¬carrying conductors is given by
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 80

Question 11.
A square loop of side 20 cm carrying a current of I A is kept near an infinitely long straight wire carrying a current of 2 A in the same plane as shown in the figure.
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 81
Calculate the magnitude and direction of the net force exerted on the loop due to the current carrying conductor. (CBSEAI 2015C)
Answer:
Here, PQ = 20 cm = 20 × 10-2 m,
PS = 20 cm = 10 × 10-2 m

Distance of PQ from AB,
r1 = 10 cm = 10 × 10-2 m

Distance of RS from AB,
r2 = (10 + 20) = 30 cm = 30 × 10-2 m
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 82
Current through long wire AB, l1 = 2 A
Current through rectangular loop, l2 = 1 A

Force on the arm PQ,

F1 = \(\frac{\mu_{0} I_{1} I_{2}}{2 \pi a}\) × length PQ

F2 = \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-7} \times 2 \times 1 \times 20 \times 10^{-2}}{10 \times 10^{-2}}\) = 8 × 10-7 N
= 8 × 10-7 N (towards AB)

Force on the arm RS,
F1 = \(\frac{\mu_{0} I_{1} I_{2}}{2 \pi a}\) × length RS

F2 = \(\frac{2 \times 10^{-7} \times 2 \times 1 \times 20 \times 10^{-2}}{30 \times 10^{-2}}\) =2.66 × 10-7

= 2.66 × 10-7 N (away from AB)

Effective force on the Loop,
F= F1 – F2
=8 × 10-7 – 2.66 × 10-7
= 5.34 × 10-7 N (towards AB)

Question 12.
A square-shaped plane coil of area 100 cm2 of 200 turns carries a steady current of 5A. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T acting perpendicular to the plane of the coil. Calculate the torque on the coil when its plane makes an angle. of 60° with the direction of the field. In which orientation will the coil be in stable equilibrium? (CBSE Al 2015C)
Answer:
Given A= 10-2 m², n = 200, l = 5 A, θ = 60°, B = 0.2 T, τ = ?
Using the expression τ = B I n A sin θ we have
τ = 0.2 × 5 × 200 × 10-2 × sin 60° = 20 Nm
Stable equilibrium, when the magnetic field is in the direction of the coil.

Question 13.
A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m carries a current of 2 A. It is suspended in mid-air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field B (figure). What is the magnitude of the magnetic field? (NCERT)
Class 12 Physics Important Questions Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism 83
Answer:
For the wire to be suspended in mid-air, it must experience an upward force F of magnitude F = B I L to balance its weight W= mg
Therefore, BI L = mg
B = \(\frac{m g}{1 L}=\frac{0.2 \times 9.8}{2 \times 1.5}\) = 0.65 T

Question 14.
A cyclotron’s oscillator frequency is 10 MHz. What should be the operating magnetic field for accelerating proto is? If the radius of its dees is 60 cm what is the kinetic energy (in m MeV) of the proton beam produced by the accelerator (e =1.60 × 10-19 C, mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg, 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10-13 J) (NCERT)
Answer:
The oscillator frequency should be the same as the proton’s cyclotron frequency, i.e. 10 MHz = 107 Hz.
Therefore
B = \(\frac{2 \pi m v}{q}\)

= \(\frac{2 \times 3.14 \times 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \times 10^{7}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 0.66 T

Final velocity of protons is
V = r × 2πv = 0.6 × 6.3 × 107 = 3.78 × 107 m s-1.

E = 1/2mv² = 1.67 × 10-27 × 14.3 × 1014 / (2 × 1.6 × 10-13) = 7 MeV

Question 15.
A solenoid of length 0.5 m has a radius of 1 cm and is made up of 500 turns. Does it carry a current of 5 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid? (NCERT)
Answer:
Given n = 500/0.5 = 1000 turns per unit length. l = 5 A
The length L = 0.5 m and radius r = 0.01 m. Thus, L/a = 50,
Hence we have
B = μonl = 4π x 10-7 × 1000 × 5 = 6.28 × 10-3 T

Question 16.
A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of a radius 8.0 cm, carries a current of 0.40 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the center of the coil? (NCERT)
Answer:
Given n = 100, r = 8.0 cm = 8.0 × 10-2 m,
l = 0.40 A,B = ?

Using the expression B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} n l}{2 r}\)
we have
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} n l}{2 r}=\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 100 \times 0.40}{2 \times 8.0 \times 10^{-2}}\)

Question 17.
A horizontal overhead power line carries a current of 90 Ain the east to west direction. What is the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field due to the current 1.5 m below the line? (NCERT)
Answer:
Given l = 90 A, r = 1.5 m, B = ?
Using the expression B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l}{2 \pi r}\) we have

B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l}{2 \pi r}=\frac{4 \pi \times 10^{-7} \times 90}{2 \times \pi \times 1.5}\) = 1.2 × 10-5 T
The magnetic field will be towards the south.

Question 18.
A square coil of side 10 cm consists of 20 turns and carries a current of 12 A The coil is suspended vertically and the normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle of 30° with the direction of a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 0.80 T. What is the magnitude of torque experienced by the coil? (NCERT)
Answer:
Given L= 10 cm=0.1 m, A = (0.1)² = 0.01 m², n = 20 , l = 12 A, θ = 30°, B = 0.80T, τ = ?

Using the expression τ = B l n A sin θ we have
τ = 0.80 × 12 × 20 × 0.01 × sin 30° = 0.96 Nm

Question 19.
A straight horizontal conducting rod of length 0.45 m and mass 60 g is suspended by two vertical wires at its ends. A current of 5.0 A is set up in the rod through the wires.
(i) What magnetic field should be set up normally to the conductor in order that the tension in the wires is zero?
(ii) What will be the total tension in the wires if the direction of the current is reversed keeping the magnetic field the same as before? (Ignore the mass of the wires.) g = 9.8 ms-2 (NCERT)
Answer:
Given L = 0.45 m, m = 60 g, I = 5.0 A, B = ?
(i) The tension in the wires will be zero if the weight of the rod is balanced by the force on it due to the magnetic field.
Therefore we have
B I L = mg
B = \(\frac{m g}{I L}=\frac{0.06 \times 9.8}{5.0 \times 0.45}\) = 0.26 T

Thus a horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 0.26 T normal to the conductor should be applied in such a direction that Fleming’s left-hand rule gives a magnetic force in the upward direction.

(ii) The tension will become twice the weight of the wire i.e.,
T = B / L + mg = mg + mg = 2 mg
Or
T= 2 × 0.06 × 9.8 = 1.176 N

Question 20.
A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 12 ohms and the meter shows full-scale deflection for a current of 3 mA. How will you convert the meter into a voltmeter of range 0 to 18 V? (NCERT)(CBSE 2019C)
V= 18 V, R = ?
We will connect a resistance R = \(\left(\frac{V}{l_{g}}-G\right)\) in series with the galvanometer.

Therefore R = \(\frac{18}{3 \times 10^{-3}}\) – 12 = 5988 Ω

Question 21.
A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15 ohms and the meter shows full-scale deflection for a current of 4 mA. How will you convert the meter into an ammeter of range 0 to 6A? (NCERT)
Answer:
Given G = 15 Ω, lg = 4 mA = 4 × 10-3 A, l = 6 A, S = ?

We will connect a resistance S = \(\frac{l_{s} G}{l-l_{s}}\) in parallel with the galvanometer.
Therefore S = \(\frac{4 \times 10^{-3} \times 15}{6-\left(4 \times 10^{-3}\right)}\) = 0.01 Ω
Or
S = 10 mΩ

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course B Set 1 with Solutions

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi with Solutions and marking scheme Course B Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course B Set 1 with Solutions

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सामान्य निर्देश:
(क) इस प्रश्न-पत्र के दो खंड हैं- ‘अ’ और ‘ब’।
(ख) खंड ‘अ’ में कुल 10 वस्तुपरक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। सभी प्रश्नों में उपप्रश्न दिए गए हैं। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
(ग) खंड ‘ब’ में कुल 7 वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न पूछे गए हैं। प्रश्नों में आंतरिक विकल्प दिए गए हैं। दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

खंड ‘अ’- वस्तुपरक प्रश्न (अंक 40)

अपठित गद्यांश (अंक 10)

प्रश्न 1.
नीचे दो गद्यांश दिए गए हैं किसी एक गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (5 x 1 = 5)
मानव तथा समाज में परस्पर घनिष्ठ संबंध है। मनुष्य अपनी व्यक्तिगत उन्नति करते हुए भी सामाजिक संबंध के लिए सदा व्याकल रहता है। समाज एक परिवर्तनशील इकाई है। यग परिवर्तन के साथ समाज अपना स्वरूप बदलता रहता है। आधुनिक युग में समाज गाँव या नगर तक सीमित नहीं रहा।

आज उसका क्षेत्र देश के कोने-कोने तक विस्तीर्ण हो गया है। इसी कारण प्रभात होते ही मनुष्य अपने इस विस्तृत समाज का ज्ञान प्राप्त करने के लिए बेचैन रहता है। इसकी जानकारी प्राप्त करने का सरल, सुलभ और सस्ता साधन है- समाचार-पत्र। समाचार-पत्रों के इतिहास से यही स्पष्ट होता है कि इसका जन्म सातवीं शताब्दी में चीन में हुआ था, पर इसका प्रारंभिक रूप इतना विकसित नहीं था। मुद्रण कला के आविष्कार के बाद सन 1609 में जर्मनी से सर्वप्रथम समाचार-पत्र प्रकाशित हुए।

1662 में ब्रिटेन ने भी इस ओर ध्यान दिया और समाचार-पत्रों का प्रकाशन आरंभ किया। भारत में इसका जन्म ब्रिटिश काल में हुआ। सन 1835 में यहाँ से सर्वप्रथम ‘इंडिया गजट’ प्रकाशित हुआ। तत्पश्चात इनकी संख्या बढ़ती गई। हिंदी का प्रथम समाचार-पत्र ‘उदंत मार्तंड’ नाम से प्रकाशित हुआ। समय एवं परिस्थितियों के साथ-साथ इनकी संख्या बढ़ती गई जिससे संख्या में वृद्धि हुई।।

(i) ब्रिटेन में समाचार-पत्रों का प्रकाशन कब प्रारंभ हुआ?
(क) सन 16 वीं शताब्दी में
(ख) सन 1835 में
(ग) सातवीं शताब्दी में
(घ) सन 1662 में
उत्तर
(घ) सन 1662 में

(ii) सबसे पहला समाचार-पत्र किस देश से प्रकाशित हुआ?
(क) ब्रिटेन से
(ख) भारत से
(ग) जर्मनी से
(घ) चीन से
उत्तर
(ग) जर्मनी से

(iii) हिंदी का प्रथम समाचार–पत्र किस नाम से प्रकाशित हुआ?
(क) पंजाब केसरी
(ख) इंडिया गजट
(ग) बंगाल गजट
(घ) उदंत मार्तंड
उत्तर
(घ) उदंत मार्तंड

(iv) अपने समाज की जानकारी प्राप्त करने के लिए किस साधन का प्रयोग किया जाता है?
(क) इतिहास द्वारा
(ख) समाचार-पत्रों द्वारा
(ग) मुद्रण कला द्वारा
(घ) दिए गए सभी साधनों द्वारा
उत्तर
(ख) समाचार-पत्रों द्वारा

(v) समाचार-पत्रों का जन्म किस शताब्दी में हुआ?
(क) सोलहवीं शताब्दी
(ख) सातवीं शताब्दी
(ग) बीसवीं शताब्दी
(घ) ग्यारहवीं शताब्दी
उत्तर
(ख) सातवीं शताब्दी

अथवा

यह एक सर्वविदित तथ्य है कि मानवीय गुणों का अधिकाधिक विकास विपरीत परिस्थितियों में ही होता है। जीवन में सर्वत्र इस सत्य के उदाहरण भरे हुए हैं। कष्ट और पीड़ा आंतरिक वृत्तियों के परिशोधन के साथ ही एक ऐसी आंतरिक दृढ़ता को जन्म देते हैं जो मनुष्य को तप्त स्वर्ण की भाँति खरा बनाता है।

विपत्तियों के पहाड़ से टकराकर उसका बल बढ़ता है। हृदय में ऐसी अद्भुत वृत्ति का जन्म होता है कि एक बार कष्टों से जूझकर वह फिर उनको खेल समझने लगता है।

उसके हृदय में विपत्तियों को ठोकर मारकर अपना मार्ग बना लेने की वीरता उत्पन्न हो जाती है। मन की भाँति ही शरीर की दृढ़ता शारीरिक श्रम के द्वारा आती है। शारीरिक परिश्रम उसके शरीर को बलिष्ठ बनाता है। विपत्तियों में तप कर दृढ़ हुए शरीर की भाँति परिश्रम की अग्नि में तपकर शरीर का लोहा इस्पात बन

(क) मा जाता है। एक शायर ने खूब कहा है कि ‘मुश्किलें इतनी पड़ी मुझ पर कि मंज़िल आसान हो गई’। सत्य से परिचित कराने के लिए जो कार्य कष्टों का आधिक्य करता है, शारीरिक दृढ़ता के लिए वही कार्य श्रम करता है। दोनों ही ऐसे हथौड़े हैं जो पीट-पीटकर शरीर और मन में इस्पाती दृढ़ता को जन्म देते हैं।

(i) विपरीत परिस्थितियाँ कारण हैं
(क) अनुकूल परिस्थितियों को रोकने की
(ख) समस्या समाधान की
(ग) सामाजिक चुनौतियाँ स्वीकारने की
(घ) मानवीय गुणों के विकास की
उत्तर
(घ) मानवीय गुणों के विकास की

(ii) मनुष्य को सोने जैसा शुद्ध बनाने में सहायक है
(क) शरीर की दृढ़ता
(ख) विश्वास की दृढ़ता
(ग) आंतरिक दृढ़ता
(घ) विपत्तियों से टकराव
उत्तर
(ग) आंतरिक दृढ़ता

(iii) विपत्तियों के बीच अपना मार्ग बना लेने की क्षमता कब उत्पन्न होती है?
(क) बाधाओं से बचकर
(ख) कष्टों से खेलकर
(ग) कष्टों से जुड़कर
(घ) साधन संपन्न बनकर
उत्तर
(ख) कष्टों से खेलकर

(iv) ‘लोहा इस्पात बन जाता है’ कथन का आशय है
(क) दुर्बल सबल बन जाता है
(ख) बलहीन बलवान बन जाता है
(ग) सबल अति प्रबल बन जाता है
(घ) निर्मल प्रबल बन जाता है
उत्तर
(ग) सबल अति प्रबल बन जाता है

(v) गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक होगा
(क) मन और शरीर
(ख) मानसिक पीड़ा और शारीरिक पीड़ा
(ग) मन और शरीर की दृढ़ता
(घ) मानव का विकास
उत्तर
(ग) मन और शरीर की दृढ़ता

प्रश्न 2.
नीचे दो गद्यांश दिए गए हैं किसी एक गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए और उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए। (5 x 1 =5)
समाज में सर्वाधिक ताकत यदि किसी के पास है तो वह युवा वर्ग के पास है। लेकिन ताकत सदैव अग्नि के समान होती है और अग्नि के दो ही प्राकृतिक रूप विद्यमान हैं- एक रूप तो यह कि अग्नि जला सकती है इस कदर जला सकती है कि सारे विश्व को राख के ढेर में बदल दे और दूसरा रूप यह है कि अग्नि प्रकाश दे सकती है। यह इस कदर प्रकाशित कर सकती है कि सारे विश्व का अंधकार समाप्त कर दे। मनुष्य एक बुद्धिमान प्राणी है जो इन दोनों का प्रयोग अपने हित के लिए करना जानता है।

यदि रोटी को बिना तवे की सहायता से सेंका जाए तो रोटी सिंक नहीं पाएगी बल्कि जल जाएगी। जिस प्रकार मनुष्य को रोटी बनाने के लिए तवे की ज़रूरत पड़ती है ठीक उसी प्रकार से ताकत का इस्तेमाल करने के लिए संयम की आवश्यकता होती है। जिस प्रकार तवा रोटी को जलने से बचाता है, रोटी को पकने में मदद करता है उसी प्रकार संयम ताकत का सही दिशा में प्रयोग करना सिखाता है। सृजन करने में मदद करता है। ताकत का आप जिस दिशा में प्रयोग करेंगे वह उसी दिशा मे रंग दिखाएगी किंतु इतना समझ लीजिए कि जिस प्रकार अग्नि को विनाशक बनाना आसान है, सृजनकर्ता बनाना कठिन है, उसी प्रकार ताकत के प्रयोग से विनाश करना आसान है लेकिन निर्माण करना अत्यंत मुश्किल।

(i) समाज का सर्वाधिक शक्तिशाली वर्ग है
(क) पुरुष वर्ग
(ख) किशोर वर्ग
(ग) युवा वर्ग
(घ) मजदूर वर्ग
उत्तर
(ग) युवा वर्ग

(ii) अग्नि के दो रूपों से तात्पर्य है
(क) राख के ढेर में बदलने वाली, गर्मी वाली
(ख) भोजन पकाने वाली, अंधकार को खत्म करने वाली
(ग) बलवान और प्रकाश वाली
(घ) जलाने वाली और प्रकाश देने वाली
उत्तर
(घ) जलाने वाली और प्रकाश देने वाली

(iii) ताकत का सही इस्तेमाल करने के लिए आवश्यकता होती है
(क) जल्दबाजी की
(ख) संयम की
(ग) समय की
(घ) मनुष्य की
उत्तर
(ख) संयम की

(iv) ताकत के प्रयोग से आसान हो जाता है
(क) रोटी सेंकना
(ख) साहस करना
(ग) निर्माण करना
(घ) विनाश करना
उत्तर
(ग) निर्माण करना

(v) गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक होगा
(क) ताकत का सही प्रयोग
(ख) अग्नि और हम
(ग) अग्नि के उपयोग
(घ) साहस भरी जिंदगी
उत्तर
(क) ताकत का सही प्रयोग

अथवा

अपने इतिहास के अधिकांश कालों में भारत एक सांस्कृतिक इकाई होते हुए भी पारस्परिक यद्धों से जर्जर होता रहा। यहाँ के अनेक शासक अपने शासन-कौशल में धूर्त एवं असावधान थे। समय-समय पर यहाँ दुर्भिक्ष, बाढ़ तथा प्लेग के प्रकोप होते रहे जिससे हज़ारों व्यक्तियों की मृत्यु हुई। जन्मजात असमानता धर्मसंगत मानी गई। जिसके फलस्वरूप तथाकथित दबे-कुचले व्यक्तियों का जीवन अभिशाप बन गया।

इन सबके होते हुए भी हमारा विचार है कि पुरातन संसार के किसी भी भाग में मनुष्य के मनुष्य से तथा मनुष्य के राज्य से ऐसे सुंदर एवं मानवीय संबंध नहीं रहे थे। किसी भी अन्य प्राचीन सभ्यता में गुलामों की संख्या इतनी कम नहीं रही, जितनी भारत में और न ही अर्थशास्त्र के समान किसी प्राचीन न्याय ग्रंथ ने मानवीय अधिकारों की इतनी सुरक्षा की। मनु के समान किसी अन्य प्राचीन स्मृतिकार ने युद्ध में न्याय के ऐसे उच्च आदर्शों की घोषणा भी नहीं की।

प्राचीन भारत के युद्धों के इतिहास में कोई भी ऐसी कहानी नहीं हैं जिसमें नगर के नगर तलवार के घाट उतारे गए हों अथवा शांतिप्रिय नागरिकों का सामूहिक वध किया गया हो। असीरिया के बादशाहों की भयंकर क्रूरता जिसमें वे अपने बंदियों की खालें तक खिंचवा लेते थे। प्राचीन काल में पूर्णतः अप्राप्य है निसंदेह कहीं-कहीं क्रूरता एवं कठोरतापूर्वक व्यवहार था परंतु अन्य प्रारंभिक मानवीयता है।

(i) एक सांस्कृतिक इकाई होते हुए भी भारत के इतिहास की क्या विशेषता रही है?
(क) उन्नति की राह पर आगे बढ़ना
(ख) अन्य संस्कृतियों को अपनाना
(ग) पारस्परिक युद्ध से जर्जर होना
(घ) प्रगति न कर पाना
उत्तर
(ख) अन्य संस्कृतियों को अपनाना

(ii) जन्मजात असमानता को धर्मसंगत मानने से नीचे कुल के व्यक्तियों का जीवन कैसा हो गया?
(क) श्राप मुक्त हो गया
(ख) अभिशाप बन गया
(ग) सँवर गया
(घ) श्रेष्ठतम बन गया
उत्तर
(ख) अभिशाप बन गया

(iii) अर्थशास्त्र क्या है?
(क) प्राचीन धर्म ग्रंथ
(ख) मानवीय अधिकारों का प्रामाणिक लेख
(ग) मानवीय अधिकारों की एक पुस्तक
(घ) मानवीय अधिकारों का प्राचीन ग्रंथ
उत्तर
(ग) मानवीय अधिकारों की एक पुस्तक

(iv) प्राचीन भारत में क्या अप्राप्य है?
(क) बादशाहों की युद्ध प्रियता के प्रमाण
(ख) बादशाहों की क्रूरता एवं बंदियों के प्रति उनके अत्याचारों के प्रमाण
(ग) बादशाहों के स्मारक
(घ) बादशाहों की लोगों के प्रति संवेदनहीनता
उत्तर
(ख) बादशाहों की क्रूरता एवं बंदियों के प्रति उनके अत्याचारों के प्रमाण

(v) हमारी प्राचीन सभ्यता की सर्वाधिक महत्वपूर्ण विशेषता है
(क) उसकी मानवीयता
(ख) उसकी संवेदनशीलता
(ग) उसके मानवीय संबंध
(घ) उसकी भावनाएँ
उत्तर
(क) उसकी मानवीयता

व्यावहारिक व्याकरण (अंक 16)

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित पाँच भागों में से किन्हीं चार भागों के उत्तर दीजिए। (4 x 1 = 4)

(i) ‘प्यास का मारा कौआ घड़े पर बैठ गया।’ वाक्य में रेखांकित पदबंध है
(क) संज्ञा पदबंध
(ख) सर्वनाम पदबंध
(ग) क्रिया पदबंध
(घ) विशेषण पदबंध
उत्तर
(ग) क्रिया पदबंध

(ii) निम्नलिखित में से कौन–सा रेखांकित पदबंध संज्ञा पदबंध है?
(क) लोहे की बड़ी अलमारी से कोट निकालो
(ख) पत्थर लुढ़कते चले जा रहे थे।
(ग) कुछ लोग सोते-सोते चलते हैं।
(घ) उस घर के कोने में बैठा हुआ आदमी जासूस है।
उत्तर
(क) लोहे की बड़ी अलमारी से कोट निकालो

(iii) दिए गए विकल्पों में से सर्वनाम पदबंध कौन-सा है?
(क) इतनी लगन से काम करने वाला मैं
(ख) बंगले के पीछे खड़ा लड़का
(ग) बरगद और पीपल की घनी छाँव
(घ) मेरे आगरा वाले मित्र
उत्तर
(क) इतनी लगन से काम करने वाला मैं

(iv) ‘हमारा बगीचा इस सड़क से उस सड़क तक फैला है।’ वाक्य में रेखांकित पदबंध है
(क) संज्ञा पदबंध
(ख) सर्वनाम पदबंध
(ग) क्रियाविशेषण पदबंध
(घ) विशेषण पदबंध
उत्तर
(ग) क्रियाविशेषण पदबंध

(v) ‘सत्य की राह पर चलने वाले व्यक्ति देश का गौरव होते हैं।’ वाक्य में रेखांकित पदबंध है
(क) संज्ञा पदबंध
(ख) सर्वनाम पदबंध
(ग) क्रिया पदबंध
(घ) विशेषण पदबंध
उत्तर
(क) संज्ञा पदबंध

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित पाँच भागों में से किन्हीं चार भागों के उत्तर दीजिए। (4 x 1 = 4)

(i) ‘जैसा करोगे वैसा भरोगे’- रचना के आधार पर वाक्य भेद है
(क) इच्छावाचक
(ख) सरल वाक्य
(ग) मिश्रित वाक्य
(घ) संयुक्त वाक्य
उत्तर
(ग) मिश्रित वाक्य

(ii) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में संयुक्त वाक्य है
(क) परिश्रम करने से सफलता मिली।
(ख) क्योंकि उसने परिश्रम किया उसे सफलता मिली।
(ग) उसने परिश्रम किया और उसे सफलता मिली।
(घ) परिश्रम करने वाले ने सफलता प्राप्त की।
उत्तर
(ग) उसने परिश्रम किया और उसे सफलता मिली।

(iii) ‘वह आया था परंतु मैं न मिल सका।’- रचना के आधार पर वाक्य भेद है
(क) संयुक्त वाक्य
(ख) मिश्रित वाक्य
(ग) सरल वाक्य
(घ) निषेधात्मक वाक्य
उत्तर
(क) संयुक्त वाक्य

(iv) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में सरल वाक्य है
(क) अपराध सिद्ध हुआ और उसे सजा हुई।
(ख) जब अपराध सिद्ध हो गया तब उसे सजा हो गई।
(ग) जैसे ही अपराध सिद्ध हुआ वैसे ही उसे सजा हो गई।
(घ) अपराध सिद्ध होने पर उसे सजा हुई।
उत्तर
(घ) अपराध सिद्ध होने पर उसे सजा हुई।

(v) निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में मिश्र वाक्य है
(क) वेतन मिलेगा और क़र्ज़ उतर जाएगा।
(ख) अगर तुम झूठ नहीं बोलते तो तुम्हें नौकरी मिल जाती।
(ग) हमें बड़ों का आदर करना चाहिए।
(घ) थोड़ा रुकिए और आगे जाइए।
उत्तर
(ख) अगर तुम झूठ नहीं बोलते तो तुम्हें नौकरी मिल जाती।

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित पाँच भागों में से किन्हीं चार भागों के उत्तर दीजिए। (4 x 1 = 4)
(i) ‘ग्रंथ रूपी रत्न’ का समस्तपद है
(क) रत्नग्रंथ
(ख) ग्रंथरत्न
(ग) ग्रंथ रत्ना
(घ) रत्न रूपा
उत्तर
(ख) ग्रंथरत्न

(ii) निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समस्तपद द्वंद्व समास है?
(क) नीलगगन
(ख) आजन्म
(ग) तिराहा
(घ) सच-झूठ
उत्तर
(घ) सच-झूठ

(iii) किस समस्तपद में अव्ययीभाव समास है?
(क) लगातार
(ख) हाथोंहाथ
(ग) घोडागाड़ी
(घ) मदांध
उत्तर
(ख) हाथोंहाथ

(iv) ‘हवनसामग्री’ किस समस्तपद का विग्रह है?
(क) हवन की सामग्री
(ख) हवन के लिए सामग्री
(ग) हवन हेतु सामग्री
(घ) हवन का सामग्री
उत्तर
(ख) हवन के लिए सामग्री

(v) कर्मधारय समास है
(क) सत्याग्रह
(ख) पुरुषोत्तम
(ग) गुणहीन
(घ) रथचालक
उत्तर
(ख) पुरुषोत्तम

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित चारों भागों के उत्तर दीजिए। (4 x 1 = 4 )

(i) उससे सावधान रहना है वह तो ……… है। उपयुक्त मुहावरे से वाक्य पूरा करें।
(क) हाथ मलना
(ख) बाज न आना
(ग) आस्तीन का साँप
(घ) चूड़ियाँ पहनना
उत्तर
(ग) आस्तीन का साँप

(ii) ‘आँखें फोड़ना’ मुहावरे का अर्थ है(
(क) बड़े ध्यान से पढ़ना
(ख) बहुत कष्ट झेलना
(ग) पसीना बहाना
(घ) बहुत मेहनत करना
उत्तर
(घ) बहुत मेहनत करना

(iii) रीमा परीक्षा में इतने अंक पाकर ………..”। उपयुक्त मुहावरे से रिक्त स्थान पूर्ण करें।
(क) फूला ना समाना
(ख) हवा से बातें करना
(ग) आसमान में उड़ना
(घ) हवाई किले बनाना
उत्तर
(क) फूला ना समाना

(iv) ‘बाट जोहना’ मुहावरे का अर्थ है
(क) पता ना मिलना
(ख) उपाय ना मिलना
(ग) प्रतीक्षा करना
(घ) अवसर न मिलना
उत्तर
(ग) प्रतीक्षा करना

पाठ्यपुस्तक (अंक 14)

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश को पढ़कर प्रश्नों के सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्पों का चयन कीजिए। (4 x 1 =4)

उसी उदार की कथा सरस्वती बखानती,
उसी उदार से धरा कृतार्थ भाव मानती।
उसी उदार की सदा सजीव कीर्ति कूजती;

तथा उसी उदार को समस्त सृष्टि पूजती।
अखंड आत्मभाव जो असीम विश्व में भरे,
वही मनुष्य है कि जो मनुष्य के लिए मरे।।

(i) धरा कैसे व्यक्तियों को पाकर स्वयं को धन्य मानती
(क) सदाचारी व्यक्तियों को
(ख) परोपकारी व्यक्तियों को
(ग) ईमानदार व्यक्तियों को
(घ) पुण्य आत्मा को
उत्तर
(ख) परोपकारी व्यक्तियों को

(ii) अखंड आत्मभाव का अर्थ है
(क) आत्मा एक है
(ख) आत्मीयता का भाव
(ग) आत्मा शुद्ध है
(घ) आत्मा पवित्र है
उत्तर
(ख) आत्मीयता का भाव

(iii) कवि ने सच्चा मनुष्य किसे कहा है?
(क) जो सच बोलता है।
(ख) जो दूसरे मनुष्य के लिए मरता है
(ग) जो ईमानदारी की राह पर चलता हैं
(घ) जो कभी झूठ नहीं बोलता है
उत्तर
(ख) जो दूसरे मनुष्य के लिए मरता है

(iv) ‘कृतार्थ’ का संधि-विच्छेद है
(क) कृत + अर्थ
(ख) कृ + अर्थ
(ग) कृता + अर्थ (घ) कृता + र्थ
उत्तर
(क) कृत + अर्थ

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर प्रश्नों के सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्पों का चयन कीजिए। (5 x 1 = 5)
महज़ इम्तिहान पास कर लेना कोई चीज़ नहीं, असल चीज़ है- बुद्धि का विकास। जो कुछ पढ़ो, उसका अभिप्राय समझो। रावण भूमंडल का स्वामी था। ऐसे राजाओं को चक्रवर्ती कहते हैं। आजकल अंग्रेजों के राज्य का विस्तार बहुत बढ़ा हुआ है पर इन्हें चक्रवर्ती नहीं कह सकते।

संसार में अनेक राष्ट्र अंग्रेज़ों का आधिपत्य स्वीकार नहीं करते, बिलकुल स्वाधीन हैं। रावण चक्रवर्ती राजा था, संसार के सभी महीप उसे कर देते थे। बड़े-बड़े देवता उसकी गुलामी करते थे। आग और पानी के देवता भी उसके दास थे, मगर उसका अंत क्या हुआ? घमंड ने उसका नामो-निशान तक मिटा दिया, कोई उसे एक चुल्लू भर पानी देने वाला भी ना बचा। आदमी और जो कुकर्म चाहे करे पर अभिमान ना करे, इतराए नहीं। अभिमान किया और दीन दुनिया दोनों से गया।

(i) भूमंडल का स्वामी कौन था?
(क) आग के देवता
(ख) पानी के देवता
(ग) रावण
(घ) शाहेरूम
उत्तर
(ग) रावण

(ii) लेखक के भाई ने असल चीज़ किसे बताया?
(क) इम्तिहान पास कर लेना
(ख) बुद्धि का विकास
(ग) अभिमान करना
(घ) कठिन मेहनत करके कुछ पाना
उत्तर
(ख) बुद्धि का विकास

(iii) अंग्रेज़ चक्रवर्ती क्यों नहीं बन पाए?
(क) क्योंकि वह बहुत क्रूर थे।
(ख) हिंदुस्तानियों से नफरत करते थे
(ग) कई राष्ट्रों ने अंग्रेज़ों का आधिपत्य स्वीकार नहीं किया था
(घ) अंग्रेजों की रणनीति ठीक नहीं थी
उत्तर
(ग) कई राष्ट्रों ने अंग्रेज़ों का आधिपत्य स्वीकार नहीं किया था

(iv) मनुष्य को भूल कर भी क्या नहीं करना चाहिए?
(क) कर्म
(ख) अभिमान
(ग) नशा
(घ) दूसरों का बुरा
उत्तर
(ख) अभिमान

(v) रावण के विनाश का कारण क्या था?
(क) सारे संसार को अपना दास समझना
(ख) देवताओं को भी अपने आगे सर झुका कर खड़े रखना
(ग) मन में अहंकार रखना
(घ) उपरोक्त सभी
उत्तर
(घ) उपरोक्त सभी

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर प्रश्नों के सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्पों का चयन कीजिए। (5 x 1 =5)
निकोबारी उसे बेहद प्रेम करते थे। तताँरा एक नेक और मददगार व्यक्ति था। सदैव दूसरों की सहायता के लिए तत्पर रहता। अपने गाँववालों को ही नहीं, अपितु समूचे द्वीपवासियों की सेवा करना अपना कर्तव्य समझता था। उसके इस त्याग की वजह से वह चर्चित था। सभी उसका आदर करते।

वक्त मुसीबत में उसे स्मरण करते और वह भागा-भागा वहाँ पहुँच जाता। दूसरे गाँवों में भी पर्व-त्योहारों के समय उसे विशेष रूप से आमंत्रित किया जाता। उसका व्यक्तित्व तो आकर्षक था ही, साथ ही आत्मीय स्वभाव की वजह से लोग उसके करीब रहना चाहते।

पारंपरिक पोशाक के साथ वह अपनी कमर में सदैव एक लकड़ी की तलवार बाँधे रहता। लोगों का मत था, बावजूद लकड़ी की होने पर तलवार में अद्भुत दैवीय शक्ति थी। तताँरा अपनी तलवार को कभी अलग न होने देता। उसका दूसरों के सामने उपयोग भी न करता। किंतु उसके चर्चित साहसिक कारनामों के कारण लोग-बाग तलवार में अद्भुत शक्ति का होना मानते थे। तताँरा की तलवार एक विलक्षण रहस्य थी।

(i) निकोबारी तताँरा को प्यार क्यों करते थे?
(क) क्योंकि वह नेक और मददगार था
(ख) बुद्धिमान था
(ग) चालाक था
(घ) रूपवान था
उत्तर
(क) क्योंकि वह नेक और मददगार था

(ii) तताँरा के विषय में सही है
(क) वह किसी की मदद नहीं करता था
(ख) वह सबके साथ उपेक्षापूर्ण व्यवहार करता था
(ग) वह सबकी मदद करता था
(घ) दिए गए सभी विकल्प उचित हैं
उत्तर
(ग) वह सबकी मदद करता था

(iii) तताँरा की तलवार किसकी थी?
(क) लकड़ी की
(ख) सोने की
(ग) ताँबे की
(घ) लोहे की
उत्तर
(क) लकड़ी की

(iv) लोगों के अनुसार किसमें अद्भुत दैवीय शक्ति थी?
(क) तताँरा की पोशाक में
(ख) तताँरा की तलवार में
(ग) तताँरा के व्यवहार में
(घ) तताँरा के व्यक्तित्व में
उत्तर
(ख) तताँरा की तलवार में

(v) लोग-बाग तताँरा की तलवार में अद्भुत शक्ति का होना क्यों मानते थे?
(क) दूसरों की मदद करने के कारण
(ख) उसके चर्चित एवं साहसिक कारनामों के कारण
(ग) उसमें अपारशक्ति छिपी होने के कारण
(घ) लकड़ी की बनी होने के कारण
उत्तर
(ख) उसके चर्चित एवं साहसिक कारनामों के कारण

खंड ‘ब’- वर्णनात्मक प्रश्न (अंक 40) मार

पाठ्यपुस्तक एवं पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक (अंक 14)

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 25-30 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 x 2 = 4)

(क) बड़े भाई साहब के अनुसार जीवन की समझ कैसे आती है?
(ख) गाँव में किस पर्व का आयोजन होता था? उसमें क्या होता था?
(ग) मीरा ने कृष्ण से अपनी सहायता करने का आग्रह क्यों किया है?
उत्तर
(क) बड़े भाई साहब के अनुसार जीवन की समझ केवल किताबी ज्ञान से नहीं आती बल्कि अनुभव से आती है। इसके लिए उन्होंने अम्माँ, दादा व हेडमास्टर की माँ के उदाहरण भी दिए हैं कि वे पढ़े-लिखे न होने पर भी हर समस्याओं का समाधान आसानी से कर लेते हैं। अनुभवी व्यक्ति को जीवन की समझ होती है, वे हर परिस्थिति में अपने को ढालने की क्षमता रखते हैं।

(ख) गाँव में पशु पर्व का आयोजन होता था। इसमें हृष्ट-पुष्ट पशुओं का प्रदर्शन तो होता ही था। साथ-साथ पशुओं से युवकों की शक्ति-परीक्षा की प्रतियोगिता भी होती थी। इसके अतिरिक्त, नृत्य-संगीत और भोजन का भी आयोजन होता था।

(ग) मीरा ने कृष्ण से अपनी सहायता करने का आग्रह इसलिए किया क्योंकि वे मानती हैं कि उनके आराध्य श्रीकृष्ण भक्त-वत्सल हैं। वे भक्तों की एक पुकार पर उनका उद्धार करने के लिए दौड़े चले आते हैं। भक्तों के प्रति इसी असीम प्रेम के कारण उन्होंने द्रौपदी, प्रह्लाद और गजराज के कष्टों को दूर किया। उसी प्रकार मीरा मानती हैं कि वह उनकी अनन्य दासी है इस नाते प्रभु उसके भी कष्टों को दूर करें।

प्रश्न 11.
रूढ़ियाँ जब बंधन लगने लगे तब उनका टूट जाना ही अच्छा है। क्यों? लगभग 60 से 70 शब्दों में स्पष्ट कीजिए। (1 x 4 =4)
उत्तर
रूढ़ियाँ और बंधन समाज को अनुशासित करने के लिए बने होते हैं, परंतु जब उनके कारण मनुष्यों की भावनाओं को ठेस पहुँचने लगे और वे सब बोझ लगने लगें तो उनका टूट जाना ही अच्छा होता है। तताँरा-वामीरो की कहानी में हमने जाना कि रूढ़ियों के कारण इनका प्रेम-विवाह नहीं हो सकता था, जिसके कारण दोनों को जान गवानी पड़ी। जहाँ रूढ़ियाँ किसी का भला करने की जगह नुकसान करें और जहाँ रूढ़ियाँ आडंबर लगने लगें वहाँ उनका टूट जाना ही बेहतर होता है।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर लगभग 40-50 शब्दों में लिखिए। (2 x 3 = 6)
(क) किन घटनाओं के कारण टोपी को कक्षा में शर्म आने लगी थी?
(ख) पी० टी० अध्यापक कैसे स्वभाव के व्यक्ति थे? विद्यालय के कार्यक्रमों में उनकी कैसी रुचि थी?
(ग) हरिहर काका के मामले में गाँववालों की क्या राय थी और उसके क्या कारण थे?
उत्तर
(क) टोपी को जब नवीं कक्षा में पहले व दूसरे साल फेल होना पड़ा, तो परिवार के साथ-साथ विद्यालय में भी अध्यापकों ने उसकी उपेक्षा करनी शुरू कर दी तथा नए सहपाठियों से भी उसे सहानुभूति नहीं मिल सकी। अंग्रेजी अध्यापक ने तो एक दिन उसके द्वारा उत्तर देने के लिए हाथ उठाने पर उससे यहाँ तक कह दिया कि वह उन्हें अन्य विद्यार्थियों से प्रश्न पूछने दे, उससे तो वे अगले साल भी पूछ लेंगे। उनके इस कटाक्ष पर जब बच्चे हँसे, तो टोपी शर्म से पानी-पानी हो गया। कक्षा में उसके नए सहपाठी उससे बहुत छोटे थे और उनके बीच में यह अंतर बहुत बड़ा दिखाई देता था। अत: वे दूर ही रहना चाहते थे और मौका मिलने पर उसकी हँसी भी उड़ाते थे। इन्हीं सब कारणों से टोपी को कक्षा में शर्म आने लगी थी।

(ख) पी०टी० अध्यापक बहुत सख्त व अनुशासनप्रिय व्यक्ति थे। विद्यालय में वे जरा-सी गलती होने पर विद्यार्थियों की चमड़ी उधेड़ देते थे। विद्यालय की प्रार्थना सभा में वे बच्चों को पंक्तिबद्ध खड़ा करते थे और यदि कोई बच्चा थोड़ी-सी भी शरारत करता, तो उसकी खाल खींच लेते थे।

स्काउट परेड के आयोजन में उनकी महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका रहती थी। बच्चों को अपने मार्गदर्शन में कुशलतापूर्वक परेड करवाते थे और परेड के समय बच्चों को ‘शाबाशी’ भी देते थे इसलिए बच्चों को उनकी यही शाबाशी फौज के तमगों-सी लगती थी और कुछ समय केलिए उनके मन में पी०टी० साहब के प्रति आदर का भाव जाग जाता था।

(ग) हरिहर काका के मामले में गाँव के लोगों के दो वर्ग बन गए थे। दोनों ही पक्ष के लोगों की अपनी-अपनी राय थी। आधे लोग परिवार वालों के पक्ष में थे। उनका कहना था कि काका की ज़मीन पर हक़ तो उनके परिवार वालों का बनता है। काका को अपनी ज़मीन-जायदाद अपने भाइयों के नाम लिख देनी चाहिए, ऐसा न करना अन्याय होगा। दूसरे पक्ष के लोगों का मानना था कि महंत हरिहर की ज़मीन उनको मोक्ष दिलाने के लिए लेना चाहता है।

काका को अपनी ज़मीन ठाकुर जी के नाम लिख देनी चाहिए। इससे उनका नाम और यश भी फैलेगा और उन्हें सीधे बैकुंठ की प्राप्ति होगी। इस प्रकार जितने मुँह थे उतनी बातें होने लगीं। प्रत्येक का अपना मत था। इन सबका एक कारण था कि हरिहर काका विधुर थे और उनकी अपनी कोई संतान न थी जो उनका उत्तराधिकारी बनता। पंद्रह बीघे ज़मीन के कारण इन सबका लालच स्वाभाविक था।

लेखन (अंक 26)

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर दिए गए संकेत-बिंदुओं के आधार पर लगभग 80-100 शब्दों में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए। (1 x 6 = 6)
(क) बेटी बचाओ, बेटी पढ़ाओ
संकेत-बिंदु-

  • लिंग अनुपात
  • सुकन्या समृद्धि योजना लागू करना
  • योजना के उद्देश्य एवं लक्ष्य
  • निष्कर्ष

(ख) साक्षरता अभियान
संकेत-बिंदु-

  • साक्षरता का अर्थ
  • साक्षरता की दर
  • निरक्षरता के कारण
  • निष्कर्ष।

(ग) अंतरिक्ष में भारत के बढ़ते कदम
संकेत-बिंदु-

  • अंतरिक्ष में भारत का इतिहास
  • विदेशी सहायता से उपग्रह भेजना
  • स्वदेशी यान से उपग्रह भेजना
  • स्वदेशी यान से विदेशी उपग्रह अतंरिक्ष में भेजना
  • निष्कर्ष।

उत्तर
(क) बेटी बचाओ बेटी पढ़ाओ वर्ष 1961 की जनगणना में एक हज़ार लड़कों के मुकाबले बालिकाओं की 961 संख्या संज्ञान में आई। उसके बाद वर्ष 1991 में यह संख्या एक हजार के मुकाबले घटकर 941, वर्ष 2001 में 927 तथा वर्ष 2011 में घटकर 918 हो गई।

इसे सामाजिक संतुलन के लिए खतरा मानते हुए लिंग अनुपात में सुधार करना अति आवश्यक हो गया। केंद्रीय सरकार के महिला एवं बाल विकास, स्वास्थ्य एवं परिवार कल्याण तथा मानव संसाधन विकास मंत्रालय की पहल पर देश के सभी 640 जिलों में से निम्न लिंगानुपात वाले 100 जिलों का चयन कर प्रधानमंत्री ने 22.01.2015 को हरियाणा के पानीपत से ‘बेटी बचाओ, बेटी पढ़ाओ’ योजना की शुरुआत की।

बाद में 100 जिलों को 161 जिलों तक बढ़ाया गया ताकि भ्रूण-हत्या पर रोकथाम, बालिकाओं की सुरक्षा व समृद्धि तथा उनकी शिक्षा में भागीदारी सुनिश्चित की जा सके। इसके लिए वर्ष 2014 में ‘सुकन्या समृद्धि योजना’ की भी शुरुआत की गई। यह योजना मूलत: 10 वर्ष तक की बालिकाओं के लिए है। इसके अंतर्गत बालिका के खाते में एक वित्तीय वर्ष में कम से कम एक हज़ार और अधिक से अधिक डेढ़ लाख रुपये या इसके बीच की कितनी भी रकम जमा कर सकते हैं।

यह पैसा खाता खुलने के 14 साल तक जमा करना पड़ता है। परंतु खाता बेटी के 21 वर्ष के होने पर ही मैच्योर होता है। हालाँकि बेटी के 18 साल के होने पर आधा पैसा निकलवा सकते हैं। इस योजना के अंतर्गत मूलधन पर प्रतिवर्ष 9.1 फीसदी ब्याज मिलता रहेगा। इसी प्रकार की योजनाओं के माध्यम से भ्रूण-हत्या पर लगाम लगाकर, बालिकाओं की सुरक्षा व समृद्धि पर ध्यान देकर तथा लड़कियों की शिक्षा पर ध्यान देकर हम देश की नारी का सम्मान करते हुए नए भारत का निर्माण कर सकते हैं। योजना लाग करने के अच्छे परिणाम मिल रहे हैं। जहाँ एक ओर कन्याओं को आर्थिक लाभ मिलने से बेहतरी हुई है वहीं दूसरी ओर बालिकाओं के लिंग अनुपात में भी
सुधार आया है।

(ख) साक्षरता अभियान
साक्षरता का अर्थ है- साक्षर होना, अर्थात पढ़ने व लिखने की क्षमता से संपन्न होना। भारत में राष्ट्रीय साक्षरता मिशन के अनुसार यदि कोई व्यक्ति अपने हस्ताक्षर करने के साथ-साथ रुपये-पैसों का हिसाब-किताब कर सकने में सक्षम है तो उसे साक्षर माना जाता है। वर्ष 1947 में भारत की साक्षरता दर कुल जनसंख्या का 12 प्रतिशत थी। वर्तमान में 74 प्रतिशत भारतीय साक्षर हैं।

यह विश्व की कुल साक्षर आबादी की 85 प्रतिशत दर से बहुत कम है। भारत में केरल राज्य 94 प्रतिशत पढ़ी-लिखी जनता के साथ सबसे ऊपर तथा बिहार 64 प्रतिशत साक्षरता दर के साथ सबसे नीचे है। यूनेस्को के अनुसार भारत पूरी दुनिया में सबसे ज्यादा अनपढ़ों का देश है। इस निरक्षरता का मुख्य कारण निर्धनता है। निर्धन व अशिक्षित माँ-बाप जो जीवन-यापन की मूलभूत आवश्यकताओं से भी वंचित हैं, अपने बच्चों को या तो विद्यालय में प्रवेश नहीं दिलवाते या फिर बच्चे बीच में ही विद्यालय छोड़ जाते हैं।

जागरूकता न होने के कारण कमजोर वर्ग सरकार की कल्याणकारी योजनाओं को अपना नहीं पाता और शिक्षा पर खर्च होने वाली अपार धनराशि भ्रष्टाचार की भेंट चढ़ जाती है। हालाँकि जब से भारत सरकार ने शिक्षा का अधिकार लागू किया तब से भारत की साक्षरता दर में काफी सकारात्मक परिणाम देखने को मिले हैं।

सन 1978 में प्रौढ़ शिक्षा अभियान के तहत 15 वर्ष से 35 वर्ष के नागरिकों को शिक्षित करने की योजना थी तथा इसके बाद भी कई सरकारी योजनाएँ बनीं। समाजसेवी संस्थाओं ने भी इस क्षेत्र में काफी काम किया, परंतु पाठ्यक्रमों का अरुचिकर होने या किसी अन्य त्रुटियों की वजह से ये योजनाएँ फलीभूत नहीं हो पाईं। भ्रष्ट प्रशासन की वजह से यह समस्या और बढ़ गई। निष्कर्षतः हम कह सकते हैं किप्रशासन व समाज दोनों के योगदान से ही इस समस्या से निपटा जा सकता है।

(ग) अंतरिक्ष में भारत के बढ़ते कदम अंतरिक्ष की खोज में अमेरिका, रूस तथा चीन ने काफी सफलताएँ प्राप्त की हैं। 1970 के दशक में भारत ने भी अपने कदम इस ओर बढ़ाए तथा सर्वप्रथम 19 अप्रैल 1974 को प्रथम भारतीय उपग्रह ‘आर्यभट्ट’ को सोवियत रूस की भूमि से अंतरिक्ष में छोड़ा गया। हालाँकि कुछ दिनों बाद ‘आर्यभट्ट’ ने अपना काम करना बंद कर दिया था, फिर भी यह किसी बड़ी उपलब्धि से कम न था। इसके बाद दूसरा उपग्रह ‘भास्कर’ अंतरिक्ष में छोड़ा गया। फिर 1980 में प्रथम स्वदेशी प्रक्षेपण यान एस.एल.वी. 3 ने ‘रोहिणी’ नामक उपग्रह पृथ्वी की कक्षा में स्थापित किया।

इसके बाद ‘रोहिणी-2’ को अंतरिक्ष में भेजा तथा दो अन्य प्रक्षेपण यान (रॉकेट) विकसित किए, जिससे भारत उपग्रह प्रक्षेपण तकनीक वाले देशों की सूची अर्थात अंतरिक्ष क्लब में शामिल हो गया। भारत ने कई दिशाओं में कदम बढ़ाते हुए ठोस ईंधन वाले एस.एल.वी. यानों के साथ-साथ तरल ईंधन वाले यानों का निर्माण किया। वहीं दूसरी ओर स्कवाड्रन लीडर राकेश शर्मा सोवियत रूस की मदद से पहले भारतीय अंतरिक्ष यात्री बने।

कई उपग्रह अंतरिक्ष में इसी प्रकार भेजने के बाद बड़ी सफलता तब मिली जब 22.10.2008 को चंद्रयान को अंतरिक्ष में भेजा गया। फिर 24.09.2014 को मंगलयान पहले ही प्रयास में मंगल ग्रह की यात्रा करने में सफल रहा। इसके बाद भारत ने नया इतिहास रचते हुए 15.02.2017 के रिकार्ड 104 (भारत के 03 तथा विदेशों के 101) उपग्रह हमारे देश के श्रीहरिकोटा से पी.एस.एल.वी-सी 37 प्रक्षेपण यान से अंतरिक्ष में सफलतापूर्वक भेजे गए।

अभी हाल ही में 22.07.2019 को चंद्रयान-2 अंतरिक्ष में भेजा गया, जिसे 06.09.2019 को चंद्रमा पर उतरकर वहाँ की सतह तथा वायुमंडल संबंधी महत्वपूर्ण जानकारी को पृथ्वी पर भेजना था किंतु अफ़सोस कि यह अभियान असफल रहा। चंद्रयान पर उतरने के बाद कंट्रोल रूम से संपर्क टूट गया। फिर भी हमारा देश इस समय इस क्षेत्र में अग्रणी राष्ट्रों की सूची में शामिल है। एक समय था जब अपना देश 1975 में आर्यभट्ट उपग्रह का 5 करोड़ रुपये का खर्च सहन नहीं कर पा रहा था। अतः इसे अन्य देश से प्रक्षेपित किया था किंतु आज दूसरे देशों के उपग्रह अंतरिक्ष में सफलतापूर्वक प्रक्षेपित कर करोड़ों डालर की मूल्यवान विदेशी मुद्रा अर्जित कर रहा है।

प्रश्न 14.
बीमारी होने के कारण परीक्षा न दे सकने पर प्रधानाचार्या को ‘चिकित्सा-अवकाश’ के लिए एक आवेदन-पत्र लिखिए।
अथवा
‘कला-छाया’ नाम की एक संस्था दूरदर्शन के लिए कार्यक्रम बनाती है। संस्था को कुछ ऐसे युवकों की आवश्यकता है जो अभिनय जानते हों तथा कम से कम दसवीं पास हों। साथ-साथ हिंदी-अंग्रेज़ी का ज्ञान रखते हों। अपनी योग्यताओं का विवरण देते हुए ‘कला-छाया’ को एक आवेदन-पत्र लिखिए।
उत्तर
परीक्षा भवन
नई दिल्ली
श्रीमती प्रधानाचार्या
अ०ब०स० उच्च विद्यालय
दिल्ली
विषयः चिकित्सा अवकाश हेतु आवेदन-पत्र।
महोदया
निवेदन यह है कि मैं दसवीं कक्षा की छात्रा हूँ। पिछले चार-पाँच दिन से हो रहे वायरल बुखार से परेशान होकर आपको पत्र लिख रही हूँ। ज्वर के कारण मैं स्कूल नहीं आ पाई। खून की जाँच से पता चला है कि मुझे डेंगू हो गया है। इस कारण मैं आगामी दस दिन तक विद्यालय नहीं आ पाऊँगी। कमज़ोरी के कारण शरीर कार्य करने में असमर्थ है। इस कारण 28 जुलाई से 7 अगस्त तक होने वाली परीक्षाओं में भी मैं सम्मिलित नहीं हो पाऊँगी। आपसे प्रार्थना है कि मुझे इन दस दिनों का चिकित्सा-अवकाश प्रदान करें। आपकी अति कृपा होगी। आपकी आज्ञाकारी शिष्या
क०ख०ग०
दिनांक: 10
अप्रैल,
20xx

अथवा

परीक्षा भवन
नई दिल्ली
प्रबंधक महोदय
कला-छाया मंच, दिल्ली। विषयः अभिनय हेतु अपनी योग्यताओं का विवरण देते हुए आवेदन-पत्र। मान्यवर विश्वसनीय सूत्रों से ज्ञात हुआ है कि आपकी संस्था को कुछ ऐसे युवकों की आवश्यकता है जो अभिनय जानते हों और हिंदी-अंग्रेज़ी शुद्ध बोल सकते हों। इस कार्य हेतु मैं स्वयं को एक उम्मीदवार के रूप में प्रस्तुत करता हूँ। मुझसे संबंधित पूर्ण विवरण इस प्रकार है
नाम – समीर वासू
पिता का नाम – कुलवंत सिंह वासु
पता – क.ख.ग. गली नं: 5
रोहिणी, दिल्ली-110085
शिक्षा – दसवीं पास (92 प्रतिशत)
अन्य योग्यताएँ – विद्यालय स्तर पर मैंने अनेक नाटकों व नुक्कड़ नाटकों में अभिनय किया है। अभिनय का डिप्लोमा भारतीय नाटक संस्थान से प्राप्त किया है। हिंदी, अंग्रेज़ी शुद्ध बोलने व लिखने में सक्षम हूँ तथा स्वयं भी छोटे-छोटे नाटक लिख सकता हूँ।
आशा है मेरी योग्यताओं को देखते हुए आप मुझे अपने यहाँ कार्य करने का अवसर अवश्य प्रदान करेंगे। धन्यवाद सहित।
भवदीय,
समीर वासु

प्रश्न 15.
गुमशुदा बच्चे की तलाश के लिए अख़बार में प्रकाशित करने हेतु एक सूचना 30 से 40 शब्दों में तैयार कीजिए।
अथवा
ग्रीष्मावकाश में बालभवन द्वारा आयोजित होने वाली बाल चित्रकला कार्यशाला की सूचना 30-40 शब्दों में तैयार कीजिए।
उत्तर
गुमशुदा की तलाश
सूचना
दिनांक: 6 अक्टूबर, 20xx
सर्वसाधारण को सूचित किया जाता है कि चार साल का एक बच्चा जिसका नाम सलीम है, उसने काली शर्ट व लाल निकर पहनी है, वह रोहिणी सेक्टर-27 का निवासी है तथा पैरों में काले रंग के जूते पहने हैं, वह थोड़ा तुतलाकर बोलता है। वह दिनांक 30 सितंबर, 20xx सेक्टर-27 रोहिणी से लापता है। इस बच्चे के बारे में किसी प्रकार की जानकारी देने के लिए कृपया इस नं. पर संपर्क करें-7865xxxxxx, 891765xxxx
धानाध्यक्ष
रोहिणी, दिल्ली.

अथवा

बालभवन, आई०टी०ओ०, नई दिल्ली
सूचना
बाल चित्रकला कार्यशाला का आयोजन

दिनांक : 4 मई, 20xx
आप सभी को सूचित किया जाता है कि बाल भवन इस ग्रीष्मावकाश में दो विभिन्न आयु वर्ग समूहों- कनिष्ठ समूह (5-10 वर्ष) तथा वरिष्ठ समूह (11 से 16 वर्ष) के बच्चों के लिए चित्रकला कार्यशाला का आयोजन कर रहा है। इच्छुक अभिभावक बच्चों का पंजीकरण निर्धारित तिथि व स्थान पर आकर करवा सकते हैं। सारी सामग्री बाल भवन द्वारा दी जाएगी।

कार्यशाला आयोजन – 1 जून से 15 जून
कार्यशाला का समय – प्रातः 10 बजे से दोपहर 2 बजे तक
पंजीकरण की तिथि 10 मई से 12 मई तक
पंजीकरण का स्थान बालभवन का स्वागत कक्ष
पंजीकरण का समय – प्रातः 9 बजे से 4 बजे तक
पंजीकरण का शुल्क – 400 रुपये निदेशक
बाल भवन, नई दिल्ली

प्रश्न 16.
‘समीर किताब भंडार, के लिए 25 से 50 शब्दों में एक आकर्षक विज्ञापन बनाएँ।
अथवा
‘राजकुमारी बैग्स’ नाम से बैगों की दुकान का 25 से 50 शब्दों में आकर्षक विज्ञापन बनाएँ।
उत्तर
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course B Set 1 with Solutions 1
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Hindi Course B Set 1 with Solutions 2

प्रश्न 17.
दिए गए विषय पर 100-120 शब्दों में लघु कथा लिखिए।
• हार के आगे जीत है।
अथवा
• समय किसी की प्रतीक्षा नहीं करता।
उत्तर
किसी दूर गाँव में एक पुजारी रहते थे जो हमेशा धर्म-कर्म के कामों में लगे रहते। एक दिन किसी काम से गाँव के बाहर जा रहे थे तो अचानक उनकी नज़र एक बड़े से पत्थर से पड़ी। तभी उनके मन में विचार आया कि कितना विशाल पत्थर है? क्यूँ ना इस पत्थर से भगवान की एक मूर्ति बनाई जाए। यही सोचकर पुजारी ने वो पत्थर उठवा लिया। गाँव लौटते समय पुजारी ने वो पत्थर का टुकड़ा एक मूर्तिकार को दे दिया, जो बहुत प्रसिद्ध मूर्तिकार था।

अब मूर्तिकार जल्दी ही अपने औज़ार लेकर पत्थर को काटने में जुट गया। जैसे ही मूर्तिकार ने पहला वार किया, उसे एहसास हुआ कि पत्थर बहुत ही कठोर है। मूर्तिकार ने एक बार फिर से पूरे जोश के साथ प्रहार किया लेकिन पत्थर टस से मस भी नहीं हुआ। अब तो मूर्तिकार का पसीना छूट गया। वो लगातार हथौड़े से प्रहार करता रहा लेकिन पत्थर नहीं टूटा। उसने कई प्रयास किए लेकिन पत्थर तोड़ने में नाकाम रहा।

अगले दिन जब पुजारी आए तो मूर्तिकार ने भगवान की मूर्ति बनाने से मना कर दिया और सारी बात बताई। पुजारी जी ने दुखी मन से पत्थर वापस उठाए और गाँव के ही एक छोटे मूर्तिकार को वो पत्थर मूर्ति बनाने के लिए दे दिया। अब मूर्तिकार ने अपने औज़ार उठाया और पत्थर काटने में जुट गया, जैसे ही उसने पहला हथौड़ा मारा पत्थर टूट गया क्योंकि पत्थर पहले मूर्तिकार की चोटों से काफ़ी कमज़ोर हो गया था। पुजारी यह देखकर बहुत खुश हुआ और देखते ही देखते मूर्तिकार ने भगवान शिव

की बहुत सुंदर मूर्ति बना डाली। पुजारी जी मन ही मन पहले मूर्तिकार की दशा सोचकर मुस्कुराए कि उस मूर्तिकार ने कई प्रहार किए और थक गया, काश उसने एक आखिरी प्रहार भी किया होता तो वो सफल हो गया होता।

अथवा एक नगर में एक बहुत ही अमीर आदमी रहता था, उस आदमी ने अपना सारा जीवन पैसे कमाने में लगा दिया। उसके पास इतना धन था कि वह उस नगर को भी खरीद सकता था, लेकिन उसने अपने संपूर्ण जीवन में कभी किसी की मदद तक नहीं की। इतना धन होने के बावजूद, उसने अपने लिए भी उस धन का उपयोग नहीं किया, न कभी अपनी पसंद के कपड़े, भोजन एवं अन्य इच्छा कि पूर्ति तक की। वह अपने जीवन में केवल पैसे कमाने में व्यस्त रहा।

वह पैसा कमाने में इतना व्यस्त एवं मस्त हो गया कि उसे उसके बुढ़ापे का भी पता नहीं चला, और वह जीवन के आखिरी पड़ाव पर पहुँच गया। इस तरह उसके जीवन का अंतिम दिन भी नज़दीक आ गया और यमराज उसके प्राण लेने धरती पर आए, जिसे देखकर वह आदमी डर गया। यमराज ने कहा, “अब तेरे जीवन का अंतिम समय आ गया है, और मैं तुझे अपने साथ ले जाने आया हूँ।” सुनकर वह आदमी बोला- “प्रभु अभी तक तो मैंने अपना जीवन जिया भी नहीं, मैं तो अभी तक अपने काम में व्यस्त था

अतः मुझे अपनी कमाई हुई धन-दौलत का उपयोग करने के लिए समय चाहिए।” यमराज ने उत्तर दिया, “मैं तुम्हें और समय नहीं दे सकता, तुम्हारे जीवन के दिन समाप्त हो गए हैं, और अब दिनों को और नहीं बढ़ाया जा सकता। समय किसी के लिए नहीं रुकता।

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 5 for Practice

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 5 for Practice

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 32 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A – Question no. 1 to 16 are Objective Type Questions of 1 mark each.
(iii) Section B – Question no. 17 to 22 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
(iv) Section C – Question no. 23 to 26 are source based questions, carrying 4 marks each.
(v) Section D – Question no. 27 to 31 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
(vi) Section E – Question no. 32 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 32.1 from History (2 marks) and 32.2 from Geography (3 marks).
(vii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(viii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever

Section-A

Question 1.
In which year was Treaty of Vienna signed?
(a) 1811
(b) 1810
(c) 1815
(d) 1812

Question 2.
When did the Jallianwala Bagh massacre take place?
(a) 1919
(b) 1921
(c) 1922
(d) 1928

Question 3.
Who was called the ‘Bismarck of Italy’?
(a) Mazzini
(b) Garibaldi
(c) Cavour
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder

Question 4.
Fill in the blank:
…………………. resources are formed on a region, but have not been utilised.
Or
…………………… in India has grown over the last three decades substantially.

Question 5.
Choose the correctly matched pair about different industries in India from the following
options.
(a) Automobile Industry – Odisha
(b) Cotton Textile Industry – Amritsar
(c) Iron and Steel Plant – Naraura
(d) Software Technology – Gandhinagar

Question 6.
Fill in the blank:
Maharashtra: Black soil, Karnataka: Laterite soil, ……………. : Arid soil
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Kerala
(d) Assam

Question 7.
Identify the programme launched by the Government of India with the help of the following features.

  • A programme to transform India into digital empowered society
  • Launched by 1 July 2015 by the Prime Minister Narendra Modi
  • The menifesto concentrates on e-govemance

Question 8.
Why does jute loose its markets? Choose the appropriate reason from the following options:
(a) Its high cost
(b) Synthetic fibres captured the market
(c) It is very fragile
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 9.
…………….. recognises a party as National Party or State Party.
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Election Commission of India
(d) The Chief Election Commission

Question 10.
What is federalism?
Or
What is jurisdiction?

Question 11.
Democracy must be a rule of the poor. How?
Or
What is most distinctive feature about democracy?

Question 12.
Read the following data and find out the differences between literary rate of India as per census 2001 and 2011 respectively.

2001 2011
Persons 64.83% 74.04%
Males 75.26% 82.14%
Females 53.67% 65.14%

(a) Persons-6.88%, Males-9.21%, Females-53.67%
(b) Persons-9.21%, Males-6.88%, Females-11.87%
(c) Persons-74.4%, Males-82.14%, Females-65.46%
(d) Persons-1.21%, Males-9.19%, Females-11.47%

Question 13.
Read the information given below and select the correct option.

Megha has taken a loan of Rs. 5 lakhs from the bank to purchase a house. The annual interest rate on the loan is 12 per cent and the loan is to be repaid in 10 years in monthly instalments. Megha had to submit to the bank, documents showing her employment records and salary before the bank agreed to give her the loan. The bank retained as collateral the papers of the new house, which will be returned to Megha only when she repays the entire loan with interest.

Megha has taken loan from:
(a) formal sector
(b) informal sector
(c) primary sector
(d) secondary sector

Or

Most of the people like Megha take loan from formal sector. Which is the following statements about this sector is correct?
(a) It charges high interest on loan.
(b) It includes traders and employers.
(c) It saves people from debt-trap.
(d) It works under the supervision of the State Bank of India.

Question 14.
Where are most of the people employed?
(a) In primary sector
(b) In secondary sector
(c) In tertiary sector
(d) In quinary sector

Question 15.
Read the given statements in context of ‘liberalisation’ and choose the correct answer.
(a) Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is called liberalisation.
(b) After Independence, the Indian government had put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment.
(c) This was considered necessary to protect the consumers within the country from internal competition.
(d) With liberalisation of trade businesses are allowed to make decisions freely on import and export.

Question 16.
In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Different people having different developmental goals.
Reason (R): Different people having different life situations.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Section-B

Question 17.
How can battles be fought with Satyagraha?

Question 18.
Describe the events of the French Revolution which had influenced the people belonging to
other parts of Europe.
Or
The Habsburg Empire was a patchwork of many different regions and peoples. Elucidate this statement.

Question 19.
What are the various forces of nature that contribute to the formation of soil? What is the
importance of soil?

Question 20.
Describe the role of citizens in a democracy.
Or
“A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of democratic project.” Justify the statement.

Question 21.
Why are transactions made in money? Explain with suitable examples.

Question 22.
What is the basic idea behind the SHGs for the poor? Explain in your own words.

Section-C

Question 23.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows. (4 × 1 = 4)

In 1815, representatives of the European powers – Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria – who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.

A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future. Thus the kingdom of the Netherlands, which included Belgium, was set up in the north and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south. Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers, while Austria was given control of northern Italy. But the German confederation of 39 states that had been set up by Napoleon was left untouched. In the east, Russia was given part of Poland while Prussia was given a portion of Saxony. The main intention was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon, and create a new conservative order in Europe.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 23.1.
Which of the following revolutions is known as the first expression of nationalism?
(a) Russian Revolution
(b) French Revolution
(c) The Revolution of the Liberals
(d) Glorious Revolution

Question 23.2.
What was the purpose to convene the Vienna of Congress in 1815?
(a) To declare war against France
(b) To declare competition of German unification
(c) To begin the process of Italian unification.
(d) To restore conservation regime in Europe

Question 23.3.
How can you say that the Congress of Vienna ensured peace in Europe?
(a) Laying out a balance of power between all big powers in Europe
(b) Austria was not under Northern Italy
(c) By giving power to German confederation
(d) With the restoration of Bourbon dynasty

Question 23.4.
Which of the following groups of countries that collectively defeated Napoleon?
(a) Poland, Italy, France and Hungary
(b) Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria
(c) Scotland, Sweden, Russia and Germany
(d) Germany, Hungary, Italy and Britain

Question 24.
Read the text given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Kandla in Kuchchh was the first port developed soon after Independence to ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port, in the wake of loss of Karachi port to Pakistan after the Partition. Kandla also known as the Deendayal Port, is a tidal port. It caters to the convenient handling of exports and imports of highly productive granary and industrial belt stretching across the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and states of Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat. Mumbai is the biggest port with a spacious natural and well-sheltered harbour.

The Jawaharlal Nehru port was planned with a view to decongest the Mumbai port and serve as a hub port for this region. Marmagao port (Goa) is the premier iron ore exporting port of the country. This port accounts for about fifty per cent of India’s iron ore export. New Mangalore port, located in Karnataka caters to the export of iron ore concentrates from Kudremukh mines. Kochchi is the extreme south-western port, located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour.

Moving along the east coast, you would see the extreme south-eastern port of Tuticorin, in Tamil Nadu. This port has a natural harbour and rich hinterland. Thus, it has a flourishing trade handling of a large variety of cargoes to even our neighbouring countries like Sri Lanka, Maldives, etc. and the coastal regions of India. Chennai is one of the oldest artificial ports of the country. It is ranked next to Mumbai in terms of the volume of trade and cargo.

Vishakhapatnam is the deepest landlocked and well-protected port. This port was, originally, conceived as an outlet for iron ore exports. Paradwip port located in Odisha, specialises in the export of iron ore. Kolkata is an inland riverine port. This port serves a very large and rich hinterland of Ganga- Brahmaputra basin. Being a tidal port, it requires constant dredging of Hoogly. Haldia port was developed as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on the Kolkata port.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 24.1.
……………………. is the biggest port while Kandla is the tidal port in ………………..
(a) Kolkata; Vishakhapatnam
(b) Mumbai; Gujarat
(c) Tuticorin; Kolkata
(d) New Mangalore, Mumbai

Question 24.2.
Major ports handle about 95 per cent of India’s foreign trade. Identify which port
belongs to which state:

Ports

States

a. Tuticorin 1. Kerala
b. Kochi (Kochchi) 2. Tamil Nadu
c. Paradwip 3. West Bengal
d. Haldia 4. Odisha

Choose the correct option-
(a) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
(b) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
(c) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(d) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

Question 24.3.
Why is Chennai port called an artificial port?
(a) It provides access to oceans.
(b) It facilitates people to catch fish and supplement their food needs.
(c) It provides links with other countries or far-off places.
(d) A wall has been built to faciliate the anchor of ships as there is no zigzag coastline.

Question 24.4.
Kandla is also known as
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
(b) Bal Gangadhar Port
(c) Deendayal Port
(d) a deepest landlocked port

Question 25.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4)

Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements control or influence those in power. In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among various contenders for power. In contemporary democracies, this takes the form of competition among different parties. Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand. In the long run, power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups.

Sometimes this kind of sharing can be direct, when two or more parties form an alliance to contest elections. If their alliance is elected, they form a coalition government and thus share power. In a democracy, we find interest groups such as those of traders, businessmen, industrialists, farmers and industrial workers. They also will have a share in governmental power, either through participation in governmental committees or bringing influence on the decision-making process.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 25.1.
Power sharing is essential for democracy because-
(a) it helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts between different organs of the government.
(b) it help to reduce the possibility of conflicts between different social groups.
(c) it fulfils the demands of different social groups.
(d) None of the above

Question 25.2.
Power sharing between different organs of the government is being referred to
(a) union government
(b) community government
(c) vertical division of powers
(d) horizontal distribution of powers

Question 25.3.
……………. is also called checks and balances.
(a) Horizontal distribution of powers
(b) Vertical distribution of powers
(c) Vertical division of powers
(d) Horizontal distribution of powers

Question 25.4.
Which of the following is not the benefits of power sharing?
(a) It reduces the possibility of conflicts between social groups.
(b) It ensures political stability in the long run.
(c) All political parties get their expected share.
(d) It upholds the spirit of democracy.

Question 26.
Read the source given below and answer the following questions. (4 × 1 = 4 )

“Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 metres during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the country is overusing their groundwater reserves. In another 25 years, 60 per cent of the country would be doing the same if the present way of using this resource continues. Groundwater overuse is particularly found in the agriculturally prosperous regions of Punjab and Western U.P., hard rock plateau areas of central and south India, some coastal areas and the rapidly growing urban settlements.”

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.

Question 26.1.
Groundwater is a
(a) renewable resource
(b) non-renewable resource
(c) reserve stock
(d) None of these

Question 26.2.
Why is groundwater overused?
(a) Due to overpopulation
(b) Due to industialisation
(c) Due to commercialisation of agriculture
(d) All of these

Question 26.3.
Development is possible without the overuse of resources. In this context choose the correct option which describes the importance of sustainable development.
(a) It helps in maintaining ecological balance.
(b) It promotes an efficient use of natural resources.
(c) It lays emphasis on quality of life.
(d) All of these

Question 26.4.
Which of the following is not a measure of sustainable development?
(a) Using natural resources properly and scientifically
(b) Reducing pollution or environmental degradation
(c) Preventing infectious diseases
(d) Adopting measures to check global warming

Section-D

Question 27.
What were the impact of the First World War on national movement in India?
Or
Why did the Non-Cooperation Movement gradually slowdown in the cities? Give reasons.

Question 28.
Explain some of the human activities which are mainly responsible for land degradation in
India.
Or
“The challenge of sustainable development requires control over industrial pollution.” Explain the statement with examples.

Question 29.
What major steps were taken towards decentralisation in 1992?

Question 30.
What are the various characteristics of democracy?

Question 31.
How can globalisation be made fairer? Explain.
Or
“There has been a big change in the three sectors of economic activities, but a similar shift has not taken place in the share of employment.” Explain the statement on the basis of facts.

Section-E

Map Skill Based Question

Question 32.1
Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
(B) The place connected to the calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Question 32.2
On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable symbols.
(a) Paradwip Port
(b) Jamshedpur Iron and Steel Plant
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport
(d) Chennai Software Technology Park
(e) Kakrapara Nuclear Power Plant
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2 with Solutions4