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Here we are providing 1 Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 11 Rebels and the Raj: The Revolt of 1857 and its Representations are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

One Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 11 Rebels and the Raj: The Revolt of 1857 and its Representations

Question 1.
Who was the last Mughal emperor?
Answer:
Bahadur Shah Zafar.

Question 2.
Who started Doctrine of Lapse?
Answer:
Lord Dalhouse.

Question 3.
Which state was captured by the British on the issue of misgovernance?
Answer:
Awadh.

Question 4.
Who was Nawab of Awadh when it was captured in 1850 A.D.?
Answer:
Nawab Wajid Ali Shah.

Question 5.
Who led the revolt of 1857 in Kanpur?
Answer:
Nana Saheb, the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II.

Question 6.
Who led the revolt of 1857 in Awadh?
Answer:
Begum Hazrat Mahal and her son Birjis Qadr.

Question 7.
Name the famous state captured under Doctrine of Lapse?
Answer:
Jhansi.

Question 8.
What was the immediate cause of the revolt of 1857?
Answer:
The issue of greased cartridges.

Question 9.
Who said that ‘Awadh is just like a cherry that will drop into our mouth one day’?
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie.

Question 10.
When and who started Subsidiary Alliance?
Answer:
Subsidiary Alliance was started by Lord Wellesley in 1798 A.D.

Question 11.
Where was Nawab Wajid Ali Shah exiled?
Answer:
He was exiled to Calcutta.

Question 12.
Name the major centres of the revolt of 1857.
Answer:
Merrut, Delhi, Lucknow, Kanpur, Jhansi etc.

Question 13.
Who painted ‘In Memoriam’?
Answer:
Joseph Noel Paton.

Question 14.
Who said, “Khoob Lari mardani woh to Jhansi Wali Rani thi”?
Answer:
Subhadra Kumari Chauhan.

Question 15.
What was the role of cartridges covered with fat of animals in the mutiny of 1857 ?
Or
What was the immediate cause for the mutiny of 1857? ,
Answer:
In 1857, the soldiers were given new cartridges coated with the fat of cows and pigs. The soldiers had to peel them out with their teeth before using them. It corrupted their caste and religious norms. Therefore, the Hindu and the Muslim soldiers refused to use these cartridges. They revolted against the British to preserve their faith.

Question 16.
Give an example of a revolt by a famous tribe before the mutiny of 1857.
Answer:
Many peasant revolts were witnessed in different parts of the country before the rebellion of 1857. For example, Fraizies revolted against the oppression of farmers by the Zamindars of the Britishers. They were from a Muslim community.

Question 17.
Where was the fight for freedom fought in India ? How did the Britishers crush it ?
Answer:
The struggle for the freedom of India was fought in Delhi, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Punjab. The British crushed it with the help of their ewn power and the cooperation of a few kings of the Indian states.

Question 18.
How the revolt of 1857 acquired legitimacy ?
Answer:
Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah accepted to become the leader of revolt. Now revolt could be carried on in the name of Mughal emperor. In this way, Revolt of 1857 acquired legitimacy.

Question 19.
How events moved swiftly after 13th May in the mutiny of 1857 ?
Answer:
(i) Delhi was captured by rebels.
(ii) Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah gave his support to the mutiny.

Question 20.
“Rebel Sepoys (1857) began their actions with any signal.” Give any two signals in this regard.
Answer:
(i) At many places it was the firing of the evening gun.
(ii) At few other places this signal was the sounding of the bugle.

Question 21.
“Rumours and prophecies played a part in moving people to action before the Revolt of 1857.” Write any of the two rumours or prophecies in this regard.
Answer:
(i) There spread a rumour that the British had mixed bonedust of cows and pigs into the flour which was sold in the market.
(ii) A prophecy was made that on the centenary of the Battle of Plassey, on 23th June 1857, the British rule would come to an end.

Question 22.
Why did the British become increasingly interested in acquiring the territory of Awadh ?
Answer:
(i) The Britishers felt that the soil of Awadh was very good for cultivation of indigo and cotton.
(ii) They also thought that this state could be developed into a principal market of North India.

Question 23.
When and who annexed Awadh into the British empire ?
Answer:
Awadh was conquered and annexed into the British empire by Lord Dalhousie in 1856.

Here we are providing 1 Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 10 Colonialism and the Countryside: Exploring Official Archives are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

One Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 10 Colonialism and the Countryside: Exploring Official Archives

Question 1.
When and who started permanent settlement of land?
Answer:
It was started by Lojrji Cornwallis in 1793 A.D.

Question 2.
How much of the Zamindaries changed lands after the introduction of permanent settlement of land?
Answer:
Around 75% of the total Zamindaries.

Question 3.
Why did Zamindars default on payments?
Answer:
Because of high revenue demand and accumulation of unpaid balance.

Question 4.
What was sunset law?
Answer:
If payment was not paid before the sunset of the fixed date, land will be confiscated.

Question 5.
Who were the most powerful in North Bengal?
Answer:
The Jotedars were the most powerful in North Bengal.

Question 6.
When was the fifth report submitted to the British Parliament? .
Answer:
In 1813 A.D.

Question 7.
Where did Francis Buchanan travel?
Answer:
Buchanan travelled through the Rajmahal hills.

Question 8.
What work did Paharias do?
Answer:
They were hunters, shifting cultivaters, food gatherors, charcoal producers, silkworm rearers etc.

Question 9.
Why did the British encouraged clearing of forests?
Answer:
Because they wanted to bring more land under cultivation to get more taxes.

Question 10.
What was Damin-i-Koh?
Answer:
This was a land demarcated for Santhals in 1832.

Question 11.
Who were called Dikus?
Answer:
Moneylenders were called Dikus.

Question 12.
Who was David Ricardo?
Answer:
He was an Economist who gave certain ideas to the British government about land rent.

Question 13.
When was Cotton Supply Association founded?
Answer:
In 1857 A.D.

Question 14.
What was the objefetive of Cotton Supply Association?
Answer:
To encourage cotton production in every part of the world.

Question 15.
Why were the estates of the Zamindars auctioned in the colonial Bengal ?
Or
Why were many Zamindars .auctioned after the permanent sattlement in Bengal ? Give two reasons. (C.B.S.E. 2017 (D))
Answer:
(i) Sometimes the big Zamindars were unable to pay the revenue. The amount of unpaid revenue went on accumulating year after year.
(ii) So the government often auctioned the estates of those Zamindars who failed to pay the due revenue.

Question 16.
When was the Fifth Report submitted to the British Parliament ? What was its objective ?
Answer:
The Fifth Report was submitted to the British Parliament in 1813. It was about the administration and activities of the East India Company in India and proved helpful in regulating and controlling their rule.

Question 17.
What was Sunset Law of revenue ?
Answer:
According to Permanent Settlement of Land, it was necessary for the Zamindars to pay the revenue punctually. But according to Sunset Law, if any Zamindar was unable to pay the revenue by sunset of the specified date, then the Zamindari was bound to be auctioned by the government to recover the dues.

Question 18.
Why the Jotedars were more powerful in villages than that of the Zamindars ? Give two reasons.
Answer:
(i) The Zamindars lived in urban areas and Jotedars were located in villages with poor villagers. They had direct control over large section of villagers.
(ii) Jotedars were often amongst the purchasers in case of auction of the Zamindaris.

Question 19.
Why ryots (peasants) remained loyal to the former zamindar instead of the new Zamindars ? Give two reasons.
Answer:
(i) The ryots considered themselves bound to the former Zamindar through a sense of loyalty and saw the former Zamindar as a figure of authority.
(ii) The sale of Zamindari disturbed their pride and their sense of identity.

Question 20.
Which two factors helped the Zamindars to consolidate their power in the beginning of 19th century ?
Answer:
(i) In the beginning of the 19th century, the depression in prices remained no more and prices of agriculture produce became high.
(ii) Government made rules of revenue payments flexible which helped the Zamindars to consolidate their power.

Question 21.
When Cotton Supply Association and the Manchester Cotton Company were founded in Britain? What was their objective ?
Answer:
Cotton Supply Association in Britain, was founded in 1857 and Manchester Cotton Company was formed in 1859. Their objective was to encourage production of cotton in every part of the world so that their Company could grow.

Question 22.
Tell any two drawbacks of the RyotWari system of revenue introduced in the Bombay Deccan in 1920.
Answer:
(i) At many places, the amount of revenue was very high. Therefore, many peasants deserted their villages and migrated to new regions.
(ii) Many areas had poor soil and fluctuating rainfall. When the rains failed, the peasants had bad crop due to which they found it impossible to pay the revenue.

Question 23.
India was seen as a country that could supply cotton to Lancashire if the American supply dried up. Why was it so ?
Answer:
The land of India was suitable for the cultivation of cotton.

Question 24.
Examine the impact of limitation law passed by the British in 1859 ? (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
This law was meant to chack the accumulation of interest one time and three years validity of the bonds sighed between money lenders and reyots. Consequently the money lenders manipulated and forced the people to sign the deeds after 3 years.

Here we are providing 1 Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 8 Peasants, Zamindars and the State: Agrarian Society and the Mughal Empire are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

One Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 8 Peasants, Zamindars and the State: Agrarian Society and the Mughal Empire

Question 1.
Who was Abul Fazl?
Answer:
Abul Fazl was the court historian of Akbar.

Question 2.
Who wrote Ain-i-Akbari ?
Answer:
Abul Fazl wrote Ain-i-Akbari.

Question 3.
Which different names were used for peasants during the Mughal Empire?
Answer:
Raiyat, Kisan, Asami etc.

Question 4.
What are Rabi and Kharif crops?
Answer:
Autumn crops are Kharif crops and Spring crops are Rabi crops.

Question 5.
What was Jins-i-Kamil?
Answer:
Jins-i-Kamil means the perfect crops.

Question 6.
Who headed the Panchayat in the Mughal Empire?
Answer:
The Panchayat was headed by a headman or muqaddam or mandal.

Question 7.
Give one important fuction of Panchayats during the Mughal Empire.
Answer:
To ensure that caste boundaries among the various communities living in the village were upheld.

Question 8.
What was begar?
Answer:
Unpaid labour done by the peasants.

Question 9.
Name few artisans lived in the villages.
Answer:
Potters, Blacksmiths, Carpenters, Barbers, Goldsmiths etc. /

Question 10.
What work did women do in the fields during the Mughal Empire?
Answer:
Sowing, weeding, thrashing and winnowing the harvest.

Question 11.
Who were called Jangli in the Mughal Empire?
Answer:
Forest dwellers were called Jangli in the Mughal Empire. ,

Question 12.
What peshkash was expected from the forest people?
Answer:
They were expected to supply elephants to the empire.

Question 13.
What was a Pargana?
Answer:
Pargana was an administrative subdivision of a Mughal province.

Question 14.
On the basis of which relations, the rural society of 16th and 17th century was organised ?
Answer:
Rural society of 16th and 17th century was made up of small peasants and rich landlords. Both of these were involved in agricultural production and had their right over the share of the produce. As a result, the relationship of cooperation, conflict and competition was created among them. These relationships were the base of organising rural society.

Question 15.
Discuss the four factors that helped in the continuous development of agriculture in India of the Mughal period.
Or
Mention the factors that accounted for the constant expansion of agriculture during 16th and 17th centuries. (C.B.S.E. 2010 (D))
Answer:
These factors were :
(i) Excess of land
(ii) Availability of workers
(iii) Dynamism of farmers
(iv) Development of artificial means of irrigation.

Question 16.
With which community the social existence of peasant was associated during 16th and 17th centuries ? Which were three other constituents of this community ?
Answer:
Social existence of peasant, during 16th and 17th centuries was associated with collective village community. Its three other constituents were—the cultivators, the’ Panchayat and the village headman.

Question 17.
Which people were included in the village Panchayat of the Mughal period ? With which name was the head of Panchayat known ?
Answer:
Village,Panchayat during the Mughal period was an assembly of elders of the village. They were generally important persons of village who had’ hereditary rights over their property.

Question 18.
What does Jins-i-Kamil mean ? Why did the Mughal rule encourage it ?
Answer:
Literally, Jins-i-Kamil means perfect crops. Such crops included cotton and sugarcane besides oilseeds and lentils. The Mughal state encouraged -all the peasants to’grow and cultivate only those crops which brought in more revenue.

Question 19.
Deserting village was considered as an aggressive method in case of no justice given by Panchayat. Why ?
Answer:
In case of conflict between lower caste peasants and state officials or local zamindars, compromises were used. In cases where reconciliation failed, peasants took more drastic form of resistance and that was deserting the village.

Question 20.
Which type of region was Jungle (forest) from the point of view of Mughal empire ?
Answer:
For the Mughal state, the forest or Jungle was a subversive place, a place of refuge or shelter for trouble makers. Once Babur said that “Jungles were those defences behind which the people of the pargana became stubbornly rebellious and; paid no taxes.” v

Question 21.
What were the four means by which the people belonging«*to weaker* sections of society could attain the status of zamihdars ?
Answer:
These means were as follows :
(i) By settlements On new lands
(ii) By transfering of the land ownership
(iii) By the royal orders
(iv) By purchasing the land

Question 22.
Name those four large territorial empires in Asia which had managed to consolidate power and resources during 16th and 17th centuries.
Answer:
(i) The Mughal empire in India
(ii) Ming empire in China
(iii) Safavid empire of Iran
(iv) Ottoman empire in Turkey.

Question 23.
Abul Fazl, the writer of Ain-i-Akbari, had a high degree of caution in writing his book. Give two arguments.
Answer:
(i) He revised the manuscript five times.
(ii) He verified the oral testimonies and verified as well as cross-checked them from various facts and sources. He left no stone unturned to check the authenticity of the oral testimonies.

Question 24.
Discuss any two limitations of Ain-i- Akbari.
Answer:
These limitations are as follows :
(i) There were errors in totalling. They might be due to slips of arithmetic or transcription.
(ii) There was no uniform collection of data from all the provinces.

Question 25.
Why were women considered an important resource in agrarian society? Mention two reasons. (C.B.S.E. 2009 (D))
Answer:
(i) Women worked shoulder to shoulder with men in the fields.
(ii) Men tilled and ploughed the fields and on the other hand, women sowed, weeded, threshed and winnowed the harvest.

Question 26.
Mention two factors for enjoying social and economic privileges by the Zamindars in the Mughal India. (C.B.S.E. 2009 (D))
Answer:
(i) Caste was one of the factors that accounted for elevated status of Zamindars.
(ii) Zamindars performed certain services (Khidmat) for the State.
Banjar Land : It was also a type of land which was uncultivated for five years and more.

Question 27.
Mention two main purposes of Ain-i- Akbari. (C.B.S.E. 2009 (O.D.))
Answer:
(i) The main purpose of Ain-i-Akbari was to record information about the people and society during the Mughal regime.
(ii) Another purpose of Ain-i-Akbari was to give detailed accounts of the organisation of the court, administration and army.

Question 28.
Who headed the Panchayats during seventeenth century ? How was he chosen ? (C.B.S.E. 2008 (O.D.))
Answer:
The panchayats during seventeenth century were headed by a head man known as muquaddam or mandal. Some sources suggest that the headman was chosen through the consensus of the village elders and that this choice had to be ratified by the zamindars.

Question 29.
Mention the major crop of Western India during 17th century. How did it come to India ? (C.B.S.E. 2010 (O.D.))
Answer:
Maize (makka) was the major crop of Western India during 17th century. During the 17th century, several new crops from different parts of the world reached the Indian sub-continent via Africa and Spain.

Question 30.
Why were the forest dwellers termed Jungli ? Give any two reasons ? (C.B.S.E. 2010 (O.D.))
Answer:
(i) This word was used for the people whose livelihood came from forest products. Forests were the means of their livelihood.
(ii) These people moved from one place to another.

Question 31.
What does the third part of the Ain, ‘Mulk Abadi’ deal with ? (C.B.S.E. 2010 (O.D.))
Answer:
Mulk Abadi gives detailed information about fiscal aspects and revenue rates of centre and states. Twelve provinces are also mentioned in it. It shows a very detailed and interesting picture of the agrarian society of north India.

Question 32.
How were the village artisans compensated by the villagers for their services ? Write about any one. (C.B.S.E. 2010 (D))
Answer:
Village artisans were compensated by the villagers by giving them one part of their produce or were given one piece of waste land kept with them.

Question 33.
How did the Zamindars derive their power during the Mughal period ? Mention any two ways. (C.B.S.E. 2010 (D))
Answer:
(i) Caste was one factor which accounted for the higher status of Zamindars. Another factor was that they performed certain services for the state.
(ii) The Zamindars held extensive personal lands termed milkiyat meaning property.

Question 34.
Mention any two steps taken by the Mughals to create the revenue as an administrative apparatus. (C.B.S.E. 2013 (O.D.))
Answer:
(i) This apparatus included the office of the diwan who was responsible for supervising the fiscal system of the empire.
(ii) Revenue officials and record keepers penetrated the agricultural domain and became a decisive agent in shaping agrarian relations.

Question 35.
Mention two factors that brought a stability in the silver currency during the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries. (C.B.S.E.2013 (O.D.))
Answer:
An expanding trade of Asia with other regions brought in huge amounts of silver bullion into Asia to pay for goods procured from India. A large part of that bullion gravitated towards India. As a result, this period saw a great stability in the silver currency.

Question 36.
Explain the sources of revenue of village Panchayats during the Mughal rule in India. (C.B.S.E. 2018)
Answer:
During the Mughal rule in India, the Panchayati derived its funds from contributions made by individuals to’ a common financial base, levying fines, agricultural taxes etc.

 

 

Here we are providing 1 Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 7 An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

One Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 7 An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara

Question 1.
Who founded the ruins of Hampi?
Answer:
Colonel Colin MacKenzie founded the ruins of Hampi.

Question 2.
Who founded the Vijayanagara Empire in 1336 C.E.?
Answer:
Two brothers Harihara and Bukka founded the Vijayanagara empire in 1336 A.D.

Question 3.
Which European company arrived on the Indian scene in 1498 A.D.?
Answer:
The Portugues.

Question 4.
Who was the most powerful ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire?
Answer:
Krishnadeva Raya.

Question 5.
When did Krishnadeva Raya die?
Answer:
In 1529 A.D.

Question 6.
Between whom the battle of Rakshasi- Tangadi was fought?
Answer:
Between Vijayanagara and the combined forces of Bijapur Ahmadnagar and Gulconda.

Question 7.
Name the major political innovation of the Vijayanagara empire.
Answer:
The system of Amara-Nayakas.

Question 8.
Who were the Amara-Nayakas?
Answer:
They were the military commanders who were given territories to govern by the Raya or the Kings.

Question 9.
What is Mahanavami dibba?
Answer:
It was the massive platform rising from a base of about 11,000 feet to a height of 40 feet.

Question 10.
Where did kings met advisers?
Answer:
At Lotus Mahal.

Question 11.
Which temple was used by the King and his family?
Answer:
Hazara Rama Temple.

Question 12.
When and by whom was the ‘ Vijayanagara Empire founded ? Also explain its expansion.
Or
Who founded the Vijayanagara ‘.Empire in 1336 C.E. ? (C.B.S.E. 2013 (D))
Answer:
Two brothers namely Harihara and Bukka laid the foundation of Vijayanagara Empire in 1336 C.E. It stretched from the river Krishna in the north to the extreme south of the peninsula.

Question 13.
Name different dynasties which ruled over Vijayanagara.
Answer:
(i) Sangam dynasty
(ii) Saluva dynasty
(iii) Tuluva dynasty
(iv) Aravidu dynasty.

Question 14.
What was the period of rule by Krishna Deva Raya ? Which two cities of Bahmani Kingdom were controlled by him ?
Answer:
Krishna Deva Raya ruled from 1509 to 1529 C.E. He had controlled both Gulbarga and Bidar.

Question 15.
Between whom was the battle of Talikota (Rakshasi Tangadi) fought ? Name the Kingdom defeated in this battle.
Or
What was the battle of ‘Rakshasi Tangadi’ (Talikota) ? (C.B.S.E. 2013 (O.D.))
Or
Examine the outcome of the battle of Rakshasi – Tangadi (Talikota) (C.B.S.E. 2017 (O.D.))
Answer:
The battle of Talikota was fought in 1565 C.E. between the organisation of Sultans of Deccan and ruler of Vijayanagara Sadashiva Raya. The Kingdom of Vijayanagara was defeated in this battle.

Question 16.
How did the name Hampi (another name for Vijayanagara) come into use ? When and who discovered its ruins ?
Answer:
Hampi was another name for Vijayanagara. This name was derived from the local mother goddess named Pampadevi. The ruins of Hampi were discovered in 1800 C.E. by Colonel Colin Mackenzie, an engineer and antiquarian. In fact, Colin Mackenzie was an employee of the English East India Company.

Question 17.
Who were Amara-Nayakas ? Identify any two works done by them.
Or
Who were the Amara-Nayakas under the Rayas in Vijayanagara? What did they do ? (C.B.S.E. 2009 (D))
Answer:
Amara-Nayakas were the military commanders of Vijayanagara. They performed the following works :
(i) They collected taxes and other dues from peasants, traders and craft persons.
(ii) They provided an effective fighting force to the rulers of Vijayanagara.

Question 18.
Give any two features of Mahanavami Dibba of Vijayanagara.
Answer:
(i) Mahanavami Dibba is a massive platform located on one of the highest points in the city. It supported a wooden structure as well.
(ii) The base of the platform is covered with relief carvings.

Question 19.
Mention any two ceremonies performed on the occasion of Mahanavmi Dibba. (C.B.S.E. 2010 (O.D.))
Answer:
(i) Worship of the image
(ii) Worship of the State horse

Question 20.
Mention the two most striking features about the geographical location of Vijayanagara. (C.B.S.E. 2010 (D))
Answer:
(i) The most striking feature about the location of Vijayanagara is the natural basin formed by the river Tungabhadra which flows in a north easterly direction.
(ii) Huge fortification was another major feature of Vijayanagara.

Question 21.
Mention the rituals associated with Mahanavmi Dibba, situated in the Royal Centre of Vijayanagar. (C.B.S.E. 2010 (D))
Answer:
(i) Worship of the image
(ii) Worship of the State horse
(iii) The sacrifice of buffaloes and other animals.

Question 22.
What was the Battle of ‘Rakshasi Tangadi’ (Talikota) ? How was this battle responsible for the decline of Vijayanagara ?
Answer:
The Battle of Talikota was fought in 1565 C.E. between the combined forces of the Deccan Sultans and ruler of Vijayanagara Sadashiva Raya. In this battle Vijayanagara was defeated which led to the decline of Vijayanagara.

Question 23.
Which dynasty did Krishna Deva Raya belong to? Mention any one of his expansion and consolidation policies. (C.B.S.E. 2013 (D))
Answer:
Krishna Deva Raya belonged to Tuluva dynasty. Till 1512 C.E. he took control over the areas between Tungabhadra and Krishna river. Then he suppressed the rulers of Orissa (Odisha).

Here we are providing Class 12 Geography Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Primary Activities. Geography Class 12 Important Questions are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Important Extra Questions Primary Activities

Primary Activities Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What are economic activities ?
Answer:
Activities which generate income are called economic activities.

Question 2.
Name any four primary activities ?
Answer:
Hunting, fishing, forestry and agriculture.

Question 3.
Name two activities of, the 1 earliest man. (C.B.S.E. 2011)
Answer:
Hunting and gathering.

Question 4.
What is Chickle ?
Answer:
It is made from the milky juice of zapota tree.

Question 5.
Name the tree whose bark is used for quinine.
Answer:
Cinchona.

Question 6.
Name three products obtained from gathering for commercial uses.
Answer:
Quinine, Rubber, Balata and Gum.

Question 7.
Which animals are reared in Sahara ?
Answer:
Sheep, Goats and Camel.

Question 8.
Which animals are reared in mountainous and Tundra regions ?
Answer:
Yak in Tibet, Llamas in Andes and Reindeer in Tundra.

Question 9.
Which tribes practise seasonal Transhumance in Himalayas ?
Answer:
Gujjars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and Bhotiyqs.

Question 10.
Who introduced plantation agriculture ?
Answer:
It was introduced by Europeans in colonies.

Primary Activities Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What are economic activities ? How are these grouped into different types ? (C.B.S.E. 2015)
Answer:
Man adopts some activities for his livelihood. Human activities which generate income are called economic activities. These are, broadly grouped into following types :
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quarternary.

Question 2.
What were the two sources of sustenance of earliest man ?
Answer:
The earliest human beings depended on environment sustenance. Environment provided two foods:
(a) Animals which he hunted.
(b) Edible plants which he gathered from forests.

Question 3.
Name three areas where gathering is still practised.
Answer:
Gathering is practised in :

• High latitude zone of Canada, Northern Eurasia and Southern Chile.
• Low latitude zone of Amazon Basin and tropical Africa.
• Northern Australia and interior parts of S.E. Asia.

Question 4.
What is Nomadic Herding ? How ; do they meet their basic needs ? (C.B.S.E. 2011)
Answer:
Nomadic herding is a primitive subsistence activity. People move from one place to another along with their livestock in search of grass and water. These animals provide clothing, shelter, tools and transport.

Question 5.
Mention any two main regions of commercial dairy farming.
Answer:
Two main region of commercial farming are:

• North-West Europe region (Denmark and Netherlands)
• North-East American region (USA and Canada)
• Temperate grasslands Australia and Newzeland.

Question 6.
What is Commercial grazing ? What are its characteristics ?
Answer:
Commercial grazing is a large scale organised livestock farming. Sheep, cattle, goats and horses provide meat, wool, hide and skin.
(i) It is capital intensive and organised on scientific basis.
(ii) Livestock is reared on ranches.
(iii) Main emphasis is on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control and health care.
(iv) Products are exported to world markets.

Question 7.
Name some important plantation crops.
Answer:
Important plantation crops are tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil palm, sugarcane, bananas and pineapple.

Question 8.
What do you mean by ‘Bush fallow’ ?
Answer:
Bush fallow is the other name given to shifting cultivation. The forests are cleared by cutting or by burning the bushes and trees. The land cleared is used for cultivation of crops. It is known as ‘Slash and Burn’ or ‘Bush fallow’ agriculture.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘Jhumming’ ?
Answer:
It is a type of shifting cultivation practised in hilly regions of N.E. India. In the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland and Mizoram, the primitive tribes follow Jhumming. They cut down trees, clear the undergrowth and burn the field of wood and shrubs. After some years when the fertility of this land is reduced, new areas are cleared for cultivation of crops in the same manner.

Question 10.
“Dairy farming has developed due to urbanisation.” Explain with examples. (C.B.S.E. 2013)
Or
Mention any two regions of commercial dairy farming. (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Dairy farming is developed near urban centres. It is located near industrial and commercial towns which provide a market for dairy products. It is closely related to urbanisation. There is a great demand for milk products in towns due to increasing population. In Europe, N.E. American region and temperate grass lands Australia and New Zealand most of dairy centres are organised near big towns.

Question 11.
What is the importance of ‘dairy farming’ ? Why is it mainly practised near urban and industrial centres of the world ? Explain any two reasons. (C.B.S.E. 2011)
Answer:
Dairy farming is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals. Cattles are kept to provide milk. Milk is used to form many products like butter, cheese, condensed milk, etc.
It is practised mainly near urban and industrial centres due to the following reasons :
(i) These provide neighbourhood market for fresh milk and dairy products.
(ii) These provide means of transportation, refrigeration, pasteurization and preservation processes.

Question 12.
“Extensive agriculture is generally done by machines.” Why ?
Answer:
Extensive agriculture is large scale farming on large holdings with the help of machines. These areas have low population density. Man-land ratio is high and labour is costly. Therefore, it is necessary to use large farm machinery for extensive farming.

Question 13.
On what factors does mining depend ?
Or
State the two groups of factors which affect the profitability of mining. (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Factors Affecting Mining Activity
The profitability of mining operations thus, depends on two main factors :
(i) Physical factors include the size, grade and the mode of occurrence of the deposits.
(ii) Economic factors such as the demand for the mineral, technology available and used, capital to develop infrastructure and the labour and transport costs.

Question 14.
Distinguish between open cast mining and underground mining.
Or
Describe any three features of open-cast mining. (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi Set-Ill 2017)
Answer:
Open cast Mining
Depending on the mode of occurrence and the nature of the ore, mining is of two types : Surface and Underground mining. The surface mining also known as open-cast mining. It is the easiest and the cheapest way of mining minerals that occur close to the surface. Overhead costs such as safety precautions and equipment is relatively low in this method. The output is both large and rapid.

Underground Mining
When the ore lies deep below the surface, underground mining method (shaft method) has to be used. In this method, vertical shafts have to be sunk, from where underground galleries radiate to reach the minerals. Minerals are extracted and transported to the surface through these passages. It requires specially designed lifts, drills, haulage vehicles, ventilation system for safe and efficient movement of people and material. This method is risky. Poisonous gases, fires, floods and caving can lead to fatal accidents.

Question 15.
Mention any six characteristics of plantation agriculture. (C.B.S.E. 2009)
Answer:
Characteristics of Plantation Agriculture :
(i) Plantation farms are generally large (more than 40 hectares) and known as estates or plantations.
(ii) The European skill, organisation and large capital are used on plantations.
(iiii) These use scientific methods of cultivation and a single crop specialisation.
(iv) Local or migrated labour is used on plantation such as Negroes in the cotton belt of U.S.A. and Tamils in tea plantations of Sri Lanka. The plantation system depends on the exploitation of cheap labour.
(v) It aims at high yield, high quality production and a large output for export.
(vi) Plantations are located in coastal areas with developed network of roads, railways, harbours and navigable rivers.

Question 16.
Mention any six char- I acteristics of ‘commercial livestock rearing’ in the world. (C.B.S.E. 2009, 2014)
Answer :
Main characteristics :

• It is capital intensive and is organised on scientific basis.
• Livestock is reared on large farms called ranches.
• Main emphasis is on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control and health care.
• The products like meat, wool, hides and skins are exported.
• It is a commercial form of grazing.
• It is practised in temperate and tropical grasslands where fodder crops are also grown.

Question 17.
What are primary activities ? Why are these dependent on environment ? Give some examples.
Answer:
The primary activities are those activities in which man obtains products directly from nature. These are directly dependent upon environment as these refer to utilisation of earth’s resources such as land, water, vegetation, building materials and minerals.
Examples : These include hunting and gathering, pastoral activities, fishing, forestry, agriculture and mining.

Question 18.
‘Primitive Societies depended on wild animals’ Explain with examples.
Answer:
(i) The people located in very cold and extremely hot climate survived on hunting. They used primitive tools made of stones, twigs or arrows. So the number of animals killed was limited.
(ii) The people in coastal areas still catch fish. Fishing has experienced modernisation due to technological progress. Many species now have become extinct.

Question 19.
What is primitive subsistence or shifting farming ? Describe its different types. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Primitive Subsistence farming or Shifting Agriculture. Shifting agriculture is practised by many primitive tribes of forests in tropics. People keep on shifting from one part of the forest to another. A patch of land is cleared through fire. It is cultivated for a short period. When the fertility of the soil is exhausted, the fields are abandoned. New areas are cleared. This is also called ‘slash-and-burn’ agriculture.

The cultivated patches are small. Tool like stick and hoe are primitive. Yields are low. Loss of fertility is a great problem. Areas and Crops. Fields are scattered; Primitive tools are used; Rice, millets, yams, beans and cassava are grown. Jhumming in N.E. States of India (Nagaland), Milpa in Central America, Ladang in Indonesia and Malaysia are the popular names given to shifting agriculutre.

Question 20.
What is intensive subsistence farming ? Describe its two types.(C.B.S.E. 2011)
Or
Classify intensive subsistence agriculture into two categories practised in the world. How are they different from each other? Exlain. (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Intensive subsistence farming is practised in densely populated area of Monsoon region. In it, large labour is applied to small farms to obtain high yield, and to produce many crops a year.

(i) Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation. This type of agriculture is characterised by dominance of the rice crop. Land holdings are very small due to the high density of population. Farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land.

Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural operations are done by manual labour. Farm yard manure is used to maintain the fertility of the soil. In this type of agriculture, the yield per unit area is high but per labour productivity is low.

(ii) Intensive subsidence agriculture dominated by crops other than paddy. It is not practical to grow paddy in many parts of monsoon Asia. Wheat, soyabean, barley and sorghum are grown in northern China, Manchuria, North Korea and North Japan. In India, wheat is grown in the western parts of the Indo-Gangetic plains.

Question 21.
Write notes on :
(a) Market gardening
(b) Truck farming
(c) Flower culture
(d) Fruit culture (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
Horticulture. The specialised cultivation of fruit and vegetables and flowers solely for the urban markets is known as horticulture.

Area. It is well developed in the densely populated industrial and urban centres where demand is large. The main areas are N.W. Europe and N.E. parts of U.S.A.

Types of Horticulture :
(a) Market Gardening.
Vegetables are grown in sub-urban areas to meet the daily demand. London, Moscow and California are important centres.

(b) Truck Farming. Areas having favourable climate and so it grows fruits and vegetables for distant markets. It involves movement by trucks and is thus known as truck farming. California is the greatest vegetable growing state.

(c) Flower Culture. Netherlands specializes in the cultivation of spring flowers such as Tulips which are flown to all the major cities of Europe.

(d) Fruit Culture. In warm and sunny climate a variety of fruits are grown such as mangoes, apples, oranges, grapes, bananas, etc. Mangoes are exported from India to foreign markets of Russia, Middle East and Southern continents supply fruit in winter.

Question 22.
Differentiate between co-operative farming and collective farming stating any five points of distinction. (CBSE 2016)
Or
Define the term ‘Co-operative farmings.(Out side Delhi 2011)
Or
What is the basic principle of Collective farming ? (Outside Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Co-operative Farming
(i) A group of farmers form a co-operative society by pooling in their resources voluntarily for more efficient and profitable farming.

(ii) Individual farms remain intact and farming is a matter of cooperative initiative.

(iii) Co-operative societies help farmers, to procure all important inputs of farming, sell the products at the most favourable terms and help in processing of quality products at cheaper rates.

(iv) Co-operative movement originated over a century ago and has been successful in many western European countries like Denmark, Netherlands, Belgium, Sweden, Italy etc.

(v) In Denmark, the movement has been so successful that practically every farmer is a member of a co-operative.

Collective Farming
(i) Collective farming or the model of Kolkhoz was introduced in erstwhile Soviet Union to improve the inefficiency of the previous methods of agriculture and to boost agricultural production for self-sufficiency.

(ii) The farmers pool in all their resources like land, livestock and labour.

(iii) However, they are allowed to retain very small plots to grow crops in order to meet their daily requirements.

(iv) Yearly targets are set by the government and the produce is also sold to the state at fixed prices. Produce in excess of the fixed amount is distributed among the members or sold in the market.

(a) The farmers have to pay taxes on the farm produces, hired machinery, etc. Members are paid according to the nature of the work allotted to them by the farm management.

Question 23.
Explain any five characteristics ‘ of extensive ‘commercial grain cultivation’ practised in the World. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
(i) It is practised in Temperate grasslands.
(ii) Wheat is the main crop grown.
(iii) The size of farm is very large.
(iv) Mechanised agriculture is practised.
(v) Yield per hectare is low.
(vi) Field per person is high.

Question 24.
Define the term “mixed farming9. Explain any four characteristics of mixed farming practised in the world.
(CBSE – 2014)
Answer:
Mixed farming involves the growing of crops and raising of livestock on the same farm. Cattle rearing, poultry farming, and dairy farming are also practised.

Characteristics :

• Wheat, barley, oat and fodder crops are grown.
• It involves high capital expenditure and machinery.
• It makes extensive use of chemical fertilisers.
• Crop rotation and inter-cropping is practised to retain soil fertility.

Question 25.
Distinguish between the following :
Or
Describe any five characteristics of ‘subsistence agriculture’ practised in the world. (Delhi 2019)
(i) Subsistence and Commercial Agriculture.
(ii) Intensive and Extensive Agriculture.
Answer:
(i) Subsistence Agriculture and Commercial Agriculture

Subsistence Agriculture

Commercial Agriculture

1. Subsist ence a griculture is the type of farming in which crops are grown for local consumption. 2. Sedentary agriculture and intensive agriculture are its main types. 3. It is practised in densely populated areas of monsoon region like India. China. Indonesia. Bangladesh, etc. 4. Rice is the main crop in S E. Asia. Other cereals are grown in dry areas. 5. Size of the land holding is small. 6. Simple implements, with large human labour, are used. 7. Green manures and fertilizers are used to increase the fertility

1. Commercial agriculture includes the growing of crops for market. 2. Plantation farming and extensive farming are its main types. 3. It is practised in sparsely populated areas of temperate grasslands. Tropical regions have plantations. Mixed farming and dairy farming in Europe are other forms of it. 4. Wheat is grown in temperate regions. Tea, coffee, sugarcane are grown in tropical region. 5. Size of the land holding is large. 6. Lt is highly mechanised farming. 7. Chemical fertilizers are widely used.

(ii) Intensive and Extensive Agriculture (CBSE Output Delhi 2017)

Intensive Agriculture

Extensive Agriculture

1. Intensive agriculture means the application of large amount of labour and capital to small fields to obtain high yield per unit area of land and to produce many crops a year. 2. It is carried on in densely populated areas like China. India. N.W. Europe etc. where availability of per capita land is low. 3. It is practised in old world countries and is known as oriental agriculture also. 4. It is of two types. In wet areas, it is intensive subsistence dominated by wet paddy. In other areas, it is dominated by other food crops. 5. The size of land holdings is small. 6. Much human labour is used. Machinery is not so widely used. 7. Livestock farming is little developed due 1o poor pastures.

1. Extensive agriculture means highly mechanised farming on large holdings, employing little labour to get a large total yield. But it is a capital intensive farming. 2. It is best developed in sparsely populated areas like Steppes, Prairies, the Pampas and Downs (Temperate Grasslands) where large land holdings are available. 3. It is a new development and is carried out- in new world countries. 4. It has a marked speci-alisation of wheat monoculture. It is a type of plantation agriculture in mid-latitudes 5. The size of land holdings is very large (16,000 Hectares). 6. It is highly mechanised farming. A small labour force is used. 7. Livestock farming supplements agriculture due to availability of grasslands.

Primary Activities Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
(a) What is Gathering ? What are its main characteristics ?
(b) In which areas, is it still practised ?
(c) What products are gathered from it ?
(d) Examine the future of gathering in the world.
Or
Why has gathering little chance of becoming important at the global land? Explain one reason. (C.B.S.E. Set-III outside 2017)
Or
Gathering and hunting are the primitive economic activities meant for the subsistance of tribal societies, but in modern times gathering is market oriented and has become commercial. Examine the statement. (C.B.S.E. 2018)
Answer:
Gathering is one of the oldest activity of man. Man survived on edible plants gathered from forests to meet food requirements.
(а) Characteristics.

• It is practised in regions with harsh climatic conditions
• It involves primitive societies who extract both plants and animals to satisfy their needs for food, shelter and clothing.
• This type of activity requires a small amount of capital investment.
• It operates at very low level of technology.
• The yield per person is very low and little or no surplus is produced.

(b) Areas. Gathering is practised in :

• high latitude zones which include northern Canada, northern Eurasia and southern Chile.
• Low latitude zones such as the Amazon Basin, tropical Africa, Northern fringe of Australia and the interior parts of Southeast Asia.

(c) Products
In modern times some gathering is market oriented and has become commercial.

• Gatherers collect valuable plants such as leaves, barks of trees and medicinal plants and after simple processing sell the products in the market.
• They use various parts of the plants, for example, the bark is used for quinine, tanin extract and cork
• leaves supply materials for beverages, drugs, cosmetics, fibres, thatch and fabrics; nuts for food and oils and tree trunk yield rubber, balata, gums and resins.

(d) Future of gathering
Gathering has little chance of becoming important at the global level. Products of such an activity cannot compete in the world market. Synthetic products often of better quality and at lower prices have replaced many items.

Question 2.
Describe the main features of Pastoral nomadism and the areas associated with it.
Answer:
Pastoralism. The domestication of animals was one of the early steps in the development of civilisation. People living in different climatic conditions selected and domesticated animals found in those regions e.g. cattle and horses in the grasslands, sheep and reindeer in the tundra regions, camel in the tropical deserts, and llama and yak in the high altitudes of the Andes and the Himalayas respectively.

These animals were the chief sources of milk, meat, wool and hides. In the tropical and temperate grasslands of the world, livestock, herding and rearing constitutes as pastoral nomadism.

Pastoral nomadism. It is a subsistence activity depending on animals. Since these people do not live a settled life, they are called nomads. Each nomadic community occupies a well-defined territory. The animals depend entirely on natural vegetation.

Cattle are reared in grasslands receiving more rain and having soft and long grasses. Sheep are reared in low rainfall areas with short grasses. Goats are common in the rugged terrain with scanty grasses. There are six widely distributed species reared by pastoral nomads : sheep, goats, camels, cattle, horses and donkeys.

Transhumance. In some parts of the world, the movement of herders follows the change in seasons. For example, in the mountainous regions such as the Himalayas, Gujars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and Bhotiyas migrate from the plains to the mountains in summers and from mountains to the plains in winters. Similarly, in the tundra region, the nomadic herders move from south to north in summers and from north to south in winters. Such seasonal migration of people with their animals is known as transhumance.

Areas. Pastoral nomadism is associated with seven distinct areas—high latitude sub-Arctic, Eurasian Steppe, mountainous south-west Asia. Saharan and Arabian deserts, sub-Saharan Savannas, the Andes and the Asian high altitude plateaus. These may broadly be grouped under three broad regions.

(i) Sahara, the largest region extends over nearly 13,000 km., from the Sahel and Sahara in Africa to Mongolia and Central China.
(ii) Tundra, the second region includes the southern border of the tundra region in Eurasia.
(iii) S.W. Africa, the third region comprises of south-west Africa. These areas are either too hot and dry or too cold. Today, nomadic herding supports only 15 to 20 million people in the world.

Question 3.
Describe the development of commercial grazing in different types of grasslands.
Answer:
Commercial Grazing. Commercial grazing is a large scale domestication of animals, on permanent ranches, with scientific methods and fodder crops. It is practised in temperate grasslands. These areas with moderate rain, mild temperature and large surplus land favour the commercial form of grazing. Cattle are kept to produce the products of meat, wool, dairy products for export.

(a) Temperate Grasslands
(i) Prairies. The Prairies grasslands of North America have many large ranches. Better breeds of cattle like Hereford, Friesian and Jersey cow are kept. Merino sheep are grazed on Edward and Mexico plateau. Cattle are fattened on corn for sending to slaughter houses. It is said in the U.S.A., ‘corn goes to market on hoofs’.

(ii) Pampas. S.E. South America includes the grazing lands of Pampas, Patagonia, Uruguay and southern Brazil. The Pampas with 50 to 100 cms rain, cool climate, Alfa-Alfa grass have helped commercial grazing of cattle for beef and wool. Uruguay and Brazil with green grasses are leading exporters of cattle products.

(iii) Australia. Temperate grasslands of Australia include ‘Downs’ grasslands over large areas of Victoria, N.S. Wales, and South Australia. Australia is the leading commercial grazing country of the world. Natural pastures, cool climate, artesian wells, large ranches favour commercial grazing.

(iv) New Zealand. The economic development of New Zealand depends upon sheep and cattle grazing. New Zealand is the leading exporter of beef, wool, butter. Sheep and dairy cattle are kept on small farms.

(v) South Africa. The veld region of South Africa plateau is a region of temperate grasslands. Sheep and Angora goats are grazed for beef and wool.

Question 4.
What is plantation Agriculture ? What are its characteristics ? Name the areas and crops grown there.
Or
Describe any five features of plantation agriculture practised in different regions of the world? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2017, Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Plantation Agriculture :
Plantation agriculture is a large scale specialised commercial farm of a single cash crop on estates or plantations. Some of the main crops are rubber, oil palm, cotton, tea, cocoa, bananas, pineapples, coffee and sugarcane. The plantations were established by the Europeans during the colonial period in tropics.

Areas. Plantations are found in many parts of tropical regions of Asia, Africa and America.
(i) West Indies, Cuba and Jamaica.
(ii) Guinea and west coast of Africa.
(iii) India, Sri Lanka, Malaysia and Indonesia, Phillipines.

Characteristics :
(i) Plantation farms are generally large (more than 40 hectares) and known as estates or plantations.
(ii) The European skill, organisation and large capital are used on plantations. These use scientific methods of cultivation and a single crop specialisation.
(iii) Local or migrated labour is used on plantation such as Negroes in cotton belt of the U.S.A. and Tamils in tea plantations of Sri Lanka. The plantation system depends on the exploitation of cheap labour.
(iv) It aims at high yields, high quality production and a large output for export.
(v) Plantations are located in coastal areas with developed network of roads, railways, harbours and navigable rivers.

Areas :
(a) Most of the estates are owned by Europeans. British companies own rubber plantations of Malaysia, Tea estates of India and Sri Lanka and Banana plantations in West Indies.
(b) The French established cocoa and coffee plantation in west Africa.
(c) The British established sugarcane and banana plantations in West Indies.
(d) Spanish and Americans established coconut and sugarcane plantation in Phillipines.

Question 5.
Write detailed notes on :
Or
(a) Compare the features of Mixed farming and Diary farming in five points? (Sample Paper 2018-19)
(a) Mixed Farming
(b) Dairy Farming
Answer:
(a) Mixed Farming: Mixed farming involves the growing of crops and raising of animals on the same farm. Besides cultivation, other subsidiary occupations like cattle rearing, poultry farming, dairy farming etc. are practised.

Livestock is fed on fodder crops in winter. In summer, cattle graze on pastures. Many factors have favoured the development of mixed farming :

• Urban and industrial population.
• Facilities of transport.
• Nearness to market.
• Certain rainfall.
• Intensive methods.

Areas. It is practised in highly developed parts of the world. Mixed farming is found through- out Europe, Eastern and Northern America, Pampas, S.E. Australia, New Zealand and South Africa. Characteristics :
(i) This type of farming is highly intensive, scientific and specialised.
(ii) Mixed farms are moderate in size.
(iii) It represents truly mixed economy because crops and livestocks are equally integrated.
(iv) Cereals are grown with other crops practising crop rotation, inter cropping and crop-combination.
(v) Mixed farming is characterised by high capital expenditure on machinery and farm building.
(vi) Chemical fertilizers are extensively used to maintain the fertility of the soils.
(vii) The labour is skilled and expert in farming.

(viii) Mixed farming has threefold advantages:

• It protects the farmers against the risk of poor prices, crop failure and diseases.
• Labour is evenly spread throughout the year.
• Soil fertility is maintained by crop rotation.

(ix) Livestock is fed on fodder crop, pastures and other crops.
(x) The farmers have a higher standard of living.

(b) Dairy Farming: Dairy farming is an advanced type of farming. Cattle are kept to produce milk. Milk is a highly nutritious food. Milk is used to form many products like butter, cheese, condensed milk, etc. Dairy cattle include many breeds of cows and buffaloes.

Geographical factors favouring dairy farming :

• A cool-temperate climate
• Moderate temperatures
• Sufficient rainfall
• Rich pastures
• Nearness to markets
• Skilled labour
• Capital
• Developed means of transport.
• Technical knowledge.

Modern methods of refrigeration, cold storage, milking and preparing dairy products need technical and scientific knowledge.

Major Dairy Regions. The major dairy regions of the world are found in the cool-temperate regions of the world.

1. N.W. Europe. This dairy region extends from Atlanic coast to Moscow for a distance of 3000 kms. This industry is highly developed in Denmark and the Netherlands. Denmark has 9000 co-operative societies engaged in dairy farming.

2. N.E. American Region. This dairy region extends from Atlantic coast to great lakes of North America. The U.S.A. and Canada are among the leading dairy countries of the world. St. Lawrence valley and Wisconsin states are the main area of dairy region.

3. Australia-New Zealand (Tasmania) Region. New Zealand and Australia have well developed dairy farming. Cattle are reared in North Iceland, Tasmania, Queensland and New South Wales. New Zealand is the largest exporter of butter and cheese in the world.

Primary Activities Important Extra Questions HOTS

Question 1.
Large scale mechanised grain cultivation results in low yield per acre, but High yield per man.” Discuss.
Answer:
Extensive agriculture is practised in temperate grasslands. It is a large scale mechanised farming on large farms. It results in low yield per acre but high yield per man.

(i) Wheat is the main cereal grown. The average yield is 20 Bushels per acre. It is low as compared to yield of wheat in countries having intensive cultivation, for example in Belgium it is 60 Bushels per acre.

(ii) The farms are highly mechanised. A single machine can do the work of 50 to 100 labourers. Labour force is small and the yield per man is high.

(iii) It is practised in sparsely populated areas. Therefore production per man is high.

(iv) The size of the farms is very large. The methods are not intensive. The total output is large but the yield per acre is low.

Here we are providing 1 Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 6 Bhakti-Sufi Traditions: Changes in Religious Beliefs and Devotional Texts are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

One Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 6 Bhakti-Sufi Traditions: Changes in Religious Beliefs and Devotional Texts

Question 1.
Name the principal deity followed at Puri, Orissa.
Answer:
Jagannatha, a form of Lord Vishnu.

Question 2.
Who were Alvars?
Answer:
Alvars were those who immersed in the devotion of Lord Vishnu.

Question 3.
Who were Nayanars?
Answer:
Devotes of Lord Shiva were called Nayanars.

Question 4.
Name a composition written by Alvars.
Answer:
Nalayira Divyapradandham.

Question 5.
Name a woman devotee each of Alvars and Nayanars?
Ans.
Andal (Alvar) and Karaikkal Ammaiyar (Nayanar).

Question 6.
Who were Virashaivas?
Answer:
The followers of Basavanna in Karnataka were called Virashaivas or Lingayats.

Question 7.
Who challanged the idea of caste and the pollution attributed to certain groups by Brahmanas?
Answer:
Lingayats.

Question 8.
Who conquared Sindh in 711 A.D.?
Answer:
Muhammad Qasim, an Arab General Conquered Sindh in 711 A.D.

Question 9.
Who were Ulamas?
Answer:
Religious scholars of Muslims were called ulamas. They guided the rulers to rule according to the Sharia.

Question 10.
Which branch of the Ismailis developed new modes of communication, dissemination ideas derived from the Quran?
Answer:
The Khojahs.

Question 11.
What is Ziyarat?
Answer:
Practice of visiting tomb shrine of Sufi Shaikh was called Ziyarat.

Question 12.
Who composed Padmavat?
Answer:
Malik Muhammad Jayasi composed Padmavat.

Question 13.
Who preserved the Kabir Bijak?
Answer:
The Kabirpanth preserved the Kabir Bijak in Varanasi.

Question 14.
What was the most striking feature of sculpture as well as of texts of phase of 8th to 18th century ?
Answer:
Probably the most striking feature of sculpture as well as of texts was the increasing visibility of different gods and goddesses. This indicates toward continuation and extension of worship of major deities, i.e., Vishnu, Shiva and the Goddess. Each of these deities were visualised in a number of forms.

Question 15.
Who were the Jogis ?
Answer:
The Jogis were the disciples of Gorakh Nath and Aughur Nath. They were very popular in the North India and influenced the Sufi saints.

Question 16.
Who brought up Saint Kabir and what are his followers known as ?
Answer:
Saint Kabir was brought-up by a weaver Niru and his wife Nima. Followers of Kabir are known as Kabirpanthi.

Question 17.
What is the position of Bhakti in Indian tradition ?
Answer:
Bhakti is considered as a part of devotion in Indian tradition. One can attain God through this. Lord Krishna himself told about this in Bhagwat Gita.

Question 18.
Name the two Sufi Shaikhs during the period of Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
During the period of Delhi Sultanate, there were two Shaikhs namely Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti and Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya.

Question 19.
Why did the Nayanar saints express their opposition towards Jainism and Buddhism ?
Answer:
The compositions of the Nayanars were marked for their opposition to Buddhism and Jainism. The historians believe that this hostility was due to competition for seeking the royal patronage. The Nayanars were inspired by this feeling.

Question 20.
Explain two religious beliefs and behaviours of Lingayats.
Answer:
(i) Lingayats believed that once , a devotee dies, he will be united with Shiva and will not return to this world.
(ii) They do not practice funerally rites instead they ceremonially bury their dead.

Question 21.
Why and which changes came in status of Brahmanas in North India in 13th century ?
Answer:
During last years of 12th century, Brahmanas had a very important place in Rajput kingdoms and they performed a number of secular and ritual functions. No one tried to challenge their position directly. But when Turks established Delhi Sultanate in 13th century, this condition changed. This undermined the power of many Rajput kingdoms and the Brahmanas associated with these kingdoms.

Question 22.
What do you mean by Zimmi ?
Or
Give the meaning of Zirnrna. Who were Zimmis ? (C.B.S.E. 2011 (O.D.))
Answer:
The word ‘Zimmi’ was derived from the Arabic word ‘Zimma’ which meant ‘protection’. In other words, the Zimmis were the protected people. They were non-Muslims and included Hindus, Jains, Jews and Christians. They lived under Muslim rulership and paid a tax called ‘Jaziya’. So they were entitled for protection by the Muslims.

Question 23.
By giving example clarify that Muslim rulers often adopted a fairly flexible policy towards their subjects.
Answer:
There is no denying the fact that Muslim rulers often adopted a fairly flexible policy towards their subjects. For example, many rulers gave land grants and tax exemptions to Jaina, Hindu, Christian, Zoroastrian and Jewish religious institutions. They also expressed their respect and devotion towards non- Muslim religious leaders. These grants were given by rulers like Akbar, Aurangzeb, etc.

Question 24.
Who were Mlechchhas ?
Answer:
‘Mlechchha’ word is used for migrating communities. This name indicates that they did not believe and observe the norms of caste, society and spoke those languages which were not derived from Sanskrit.

Question 25.
Write two rituals of initiation into ‘Silsila’.
Answer:
There were special rituals of initiation into Silsila and these were:
(i) One has to take an oath of allegiance.
(ii) He should wear a patched garment and shave his hair.

Question 26.
Where was the dargah of Shaikh Nizam- ud-din Aulia situated ? What was the feature of its open kitchen (langar) ?
Answer:
Dargah of Shaikh Nizam-ud-din Aulia was situated on the banks of the river Yamuna in Ghiyaspur, on the outskirts of the then city of Delhi. The main feature of its open kitchen was that it was run on unasked-for charity or ‘futuh’.

Question 27.
Name those three poets or historians who visited Shaikh Nizam-ud-din and wrote about the Shaikh ?
Answer:
Amir Hasan Sijzi, Amir Khusro and the court historian Ziya-ud-din Barani were poets or historians who visited Shaikh Nizam-ud-din Aulia and wrote about the Shaikh.

Question 28.
Name four practices adopted by Shaikh Nizam-ud-din Auliya which represent that he tried to assimilate love traditions.
Answer:
(i) Bowing before the Shaikh.
(ii) Offering water to visitors.
(iii) Shaving the heads of inmates.
(iv) Yogic exercise.

Question 29.
What are Kabir’s Ulatbansi compositions ?
Answer:
The Ulatbansi compositions of Kabir are intrinsically upside-down sayings. They are written in a form in which everyday meanings are inverted. They express difficulty in capturing the nature of the ultimate reality. They express Kabir’s mystical experiences.

Question 30.
Name two compositions of Kabir which convey a sense of Kabir’s mystical experiences.
Answer:
Kabir’s compositions like “the lotus which blooms without flower” and the “fire raging in the ocean” conveys a sense of Kabir’s mystical experiences.

Question 31.
What is written about religion of Kabir in Vaishnav traditions? Who was his Guru ?
Answer:
Hagiographies within the Vaishnava tradition suggest that Kabir was born a Hindu (Kabirdas) but was brought up by a poor Muslim family who belonged to the weaver community. Vaishnava traditions also suggest that Kabir was initiated into Bhakti by a Guru Ramananda.

Question 32.
Who was Mirabai ? Discuss any of her two works.
Answer:
Mirabai was the most famous poetess of the Bhakti tradition. She composed many bhajans in praise of Lord Krishna whom she considered as her lover. Her songs are very popular in Gujarat and Rajasthan. She was against caste system and stood in defiance to the norms of the caste society.

Question 33.
Mention the two earliest Bhakti Movements of Tamil Nadu, giving the main difference between them. (C.B.S.E. 2011 0))
Answer:
The two earliest Bhakti Movements of Tamil Nadu were started under Alvars and Nayanars. Alvars were disciples of Vishnu and Nayanars were disciples of Lord Shiva.

Question 34.
Name the two women poet saints of Tamil Nadu. Whom did they ‘ worship ? (C.B.S.E. 2011 (D))
Answer:
Andal and Karaikkal Ammaiyar were the two women poet saints of Tamil Nadu. Andal was the devotee of Vishnu and Karaikkal was the devotee of Lord Shiva.

Question 35.
Mention two features of the protest movement started by Nayanars and Alvars ? (C.B.S.E. 2011 (D))
Or
Point out similarity between Lingayats and Nayanars. (C.B.S.E. 2008, 2016 (O.D.))
Answer:
(i) Both Alvars and Nayanars started a movement of protest against the caste system and the dominance of Brahmanas.
(ii) They even opposed Buddhism and Jainism.

Question 36.
Kabir Bijak and Kabir Granthavali are the two distinct but overlapping traditions. How are they preserved ? (C.B.S.E. 2015 (O.D.))
Answer:
The Kabir Bijak has been preserved by the Kabirpanth in Varanasi and elsewhere in Uttar Pradesh. The Kabir Granthavali is associated with Dadupanth in Rajasthan. Many of his compositions are found in the Adi Granth Sahib.

Question 37.
“The message of Guru Nanak Devji was based on divinity.” Mention any two aspects of it.
Answer:
(i) According to Guru Nanak Devji, there is no gender or form of the ‘Absolute’ or rab.
(ii) He proposed a simple way to connect to the Divine by remembering and repeating the Divine Name expressing his ideas through hymns called ‘shabad in Punjabi’.

 

Here we are providing 1 Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travellers: Perceptions of Society are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

One Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travellers: Perceptions of Society

Question 1.
When and where was Al-Biruni born?
Answer:
A1 Biruni was born in 973 AD, in Khwarizm in present day Uzbekistan.

Question 2.
What did Al-Biruni do when he spend many years in India?
Answer:
Al-Biruni spent many years in the company of brahamana, priests and scholars, learning Sanskrit and studying religious and philosphical texts.

Question 3.
Name the book written by Al-Biruni.
Answer:
Al-Biruni wrote the ‘Kitab-ul-Hind’.

Question 4.
Name the book written by Ibn Battuta.
Answer:
Rihla, in Arabic language, was written by Ibn-Battuta.

Question 5.
When did Ibn-Battuta visit Mecca ?
Answer:
In 1332-33 CE.

Question 6.
Who was known as the inveterate traveller?
Answer:
Ibn Battuta was known as the inveterate traveller.

Question 7.
Who was Duarte Barbosa?
Answer:
He was a Portuguese writer who created a detailed account of trade and society in south India.

Question 8.
Who was Francois Bernier?
Answer:
He was a French man, a doctor, political philosophers and historian who remained in India for 12 years between 1656-1668 CE.

Question 9.
Who gave a detailed description of Caste system in India?
Answer:
Al-Biruni

Question 10.
Who disapproved the nation of pollution?
Answer:
Al-Biruni.

Question 11.
Who described Delhi as a vast city with a great population?
Answer:
Ibn-Battuta.

Question 12.
With which purpose did the people travel ? Write any four objectives.
Answer:
The people used to travel:
(i) In search of work.
(ii) To escape from natural disasters.
(iii) To satisfy their sense of adventure.
(iv) With multi-purpose objectives as traders, merchants, soldiers, priests and pilgrims.

Question 13.
Where did Al-Biruni live ? How did he reach Ghazni ?
Answer:
Al-Biruni lived in Khwarizm in present day Uzbekistan. Ghazni’s Sultan Mahmud attacked Khwarizm in 1017 C.E. and took back many poets and scholars to Ghazni. Al-Biruni was one of them.

Question 14.
Give any two characteristics of the writings of Al-Biruni.
Answer:
(i) Al-Biruni wrote in Arabic language.
(ii) He adopted a critical approach in his writings. In each chapter, he began with a question. Then he gave a detailed description. He concluded with a comparison with other culture.

Question 15.
“Al-Biruni w as capable of translating different texts in other languages.” Give example.
Answer:
Al-Biruni was well-versed in many languages which is why he was capable of translating different texts in other languages. He translated many Sanskrit texts in Arabic language including grammar of Patanjali. He even translated accounts of a Greek mathematician for his Brahmana friends.

Question 16.
How did Al-Biruni know about the works of the Greek philosophers ?
Answer:
Al-Biruni did not know the Greek language. Even then he was familiar with the works of the Greek philosophers. He had read their translations in Arabic.

Question 17.
Name the book written by Ibn-Battuta. What was his observation about female slaves in the sub-continent ? (C.B.S.E. 2009 (O.D.))
Answer:
Ibn-Battuta’s book was entitled ‘Rihla’. According to it, the slaves were engaged to do domestic work. He wrote in his book that not only male slaves but the Sultan also employed female slaves to keep a watch on his nobles.

Question 18.
Give a brief introduction of ; Francois Bernier. How long did he remain in India ? (C.B.S.E. 2011 (D))
Answer:
Francois Bernier was a French traveller. He himself was a doctor, political philosopher and a historian. He remained in India for 12 years from 1656 till 1668 C.E. and was closely associated with the Mughal court.

Question 19.
Mention any two characteristics of the cities in the Indian sub-continent, as described by Ibn-Battuta. (C.B.S.E. 2011 (O.D.))
Answer:
According to Ibn-Buttuta:
(i) Indian cities were very prosperous.
(ii) Indian cities were densely populated.

Here we are providing 1 Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 4 Thinkers, Beliefs and Buildings: Cultural Developments are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

One Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 4 Thinkers, Beliefs and Buildings: Cultural Developments

Question 1.
Name the Begum of Bhopal who provided manely for the preservation of Sachi Stupa?
Answer:
Shahjehan Begum and her successor Sultan Jahan Begum.

Question 2.
Which thinkers emerged in the world during the mid-first millennium BCE ?
Answer:
Zarathustra in Iran, Kong Zi in China, Socrates, Plato and Aristotle in Greece and Mahavira and Gautam Budha in India.

Question 3.
When was Rigveda compiled?
Answer:
Between C. 1500 and 1000 BCE.

Question 4.
What is Rigveda consist of ?
Answer:
Rigveda consists of hymns in praise of many deities such as Indra and Soma.

Question 5.
Who performed rajasuya and ashvamedha sacrifices?
Answer:
They were performed by Chiefs and Kings with the help of Brahmins.

Question 6.
What is meant by Kutagarashala?
Answer:
A hut with a pointed roof.

Question 7.
Who questioned the authority of the Vedas ?
Answer:
Mahavira and the Buddha questioned the authority of the Vedas.

Question 8.
Who started Jainism?
Answer:
Rishabdev was first Tirthankar and Mahavira was the 24th Tirthankar of Jainism.

Question 9.
Name the religious texts of Jainism.
Answer:
Angas are the religious texts of Jainism.

Question 10.
Where did Buddhism spread?
Answer:
India, China, Korea, Japan, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Thiland and Indonesia.

Question 11.
What was the name given to Buddha at the time of his birth?
Answer:
Siddhartha.

Question 12.
Who was called the Enlightened one?
Answer:
Gautama Buddha was called the Enlightened one.

Question 13.
What is world according to the Buddhist philosophy?
Answer:
The world is transient and constantly changing.

Question 14.
What was Sangha?
Answer:
Sangha was an organisation of monks of Buddhism who became teachers of Dhamma.

Question 15.
What names were given to males and females who entered Sanghas?
Answer:
Bhikkhus and Bhikkhunis.

Question 16.
Except Sanchi, where was another stupa of Buddhism?
Answer:
At Amravati.

Question 17.
Which sources are used by the historians to reconstruct the exciting world of ideas and believes from 600 B.C.E. up to 600 C.E. ?
Answer:
(i) Buddhist, Jaina and Brahmanical texts.
(ii) Large and impressive body of material remains including monuments and inscriptions.

Question 18.
Where is the stupa of Sanchi situated ? Explain any one of its feature.
Answer:
The Sanchi stupa is a wonderful ancient building in the state of Bhopal. It is situated in a village named Sanchi Kanakhera. This village is on the top of a hill. In fact, the stupa is nearly twenty miles north-east of Bhopal and looks like a crown.

Question 19.
What was the daily routine of the Buddhist monks ?
Answer:
(i) The Buddhist monks led a simple life.
(ii) They depended on offerings and alms. They kept only a bowl with them to accept food.

Question 20.
Why did Siddhartha adopt the path of Sanyas or renunciation ?
Answer:
Having seen an old man, a sick man and a dead man, Siddhartha (Buddha) realised that this world was a home of sorrows and sufferings. He realised that decay and destruction of the human body was inevitable. However, he felt relieved when he saw a homeless mendicant. He decided that he would also adopt the same path. So, he left his palace and set out in search of truth and enlightenment.

Question 21.
How was the internal functioning of the Buddhist sangha ?
Or
Mention the internal functioning of the Buddhist sanghas. (C.B.S.E. 2010 (O.D.))
Answer:
The internal functioning of the Buddhist sangha was based on the traditions of ganas and sanghas. According to this, consensus was arrived at through mutual discussions. If they were unable to reach consensus then decisions were taken by a vote on the subject.

Question 22.
In the primitive times, what places were considered sacred by the people ? Give three points.
Answer:
From the earliest times, people regarded those places as sacred that had the following features:
(i) The sites with special trees.
(ii) The sites with unique rocks.
(iii) The sites having awe-inspiring beauty.

Question 23.
What are stupas ?
Answer:
The stupas are the sacred mounds associated with Buddha. It is a Sanskrit word, which means a heap. It is a simple semi-circular mound of Earth. Later on, it was called anda.

Question 24.
Name any two features of the stupa at Amaravati.
Answer:
(i) The stupa at Amaravati was the largest and the most magnificent stupa of the Buddhists.
(ii) It had high gateways and beautiful statues.

Question 25.
What is meant by Hagiography ?
Answer:
Hagiography is a biography of a saint or religious leader. It generally praises the saint’s achievement and may not always be literally accurate. They are important because they tell us about the beliefs of the follwers of that particular tradition.

Question 26.
What type of thinking did archaeologist H.H. Cole had about shifting of ancient monuments ?
Answer:
Cole was totally against taking away of ancient monuments. He considered this loot as suicidal. He was of the view that museums should have plaster- caste facsimiles of the sculpture whereas the originals should remain at their actual place.

Question 27.
When was the stupa of Sanchi discovered ? What was the condtion of its gateways at that time ?
Answer:
Stupa of Sanchi was discovered in 1818 C.E. It had four gateways. Three of these gateways were in good condition but the fourth gateway was lying scattered at its actual place.

Question 28.
What differences of opinions were there among the historians regarding the sculpture of a woman surrounded by the lotuses and the elephants found at Sanchi ?
Answer:
Some historians believed that this is the figure of Maya, the mother of Buddha, while some identify her with a popular goddess, Gaja Lakshmi. Gaja Lakshmi was the goddess of good fortune who is associated with elephants.

Question 29.
Define garbhagriha and Shikhar.
Answer:
Garbhagriha : It was an early temple (small square room) where the image of deity was kept. Worshippers entered from its single doorway to offer worship to the image.
Shikhar: A tall structure built over the central shrine was known as Shikhar.

Question 30.
What were Upanishads ? Which ideas were found in them to show that people were curious ?
Answer:
Upanishads were texts of deep ideas associated with life, death and almighty. They tell us that people were curious about the meaning of life, the possibility of life after death and rebirth. They also wanted to know what is the relation between rebirth and past actions.

Question 31.
How Buddha’s and Mahavira’s ideas about trials and tribulations of worldly existence were in contrast from that of Brahmanical ideas ?
Answer:
According to Brahmanism, an individual’s existence was determined by his or her birth in a specific caste or gender. His trials and tribulations were associated with it. On contrary to it, Buddha and Mahavira suggested that men and women themselves should try to attain liberation from trials and tribulations of worldly existence.

Question 32.
Who were Tirthankaras ?
Answer:
According to Jaina traditions, there were twenty three other teachers, before Mahavira, which were known as Tirthankaras. It literally means those who guide individuals across the river of existence.

Question 33.
How did Buddha attain true enlightenment ?
Answer:
Buddha left pleasures of life at a young age in search of true enlightenment. He wandered about for years and kept discussing with different thinkers. In the end he himself decided to find his way. He meditated for several days under a Banyan tree at Bodh Gaya. In the end, he attained enlightenment and came to be known as the Buddha.

Question 34.
Who was Vardhman Mahavira ? How was he enlightened ?
Answer:
Vardhman Mahavira was the most important teacher of Jainism. He was a Kshatriya prince. He was related to Licchavi clan of Vajji sangha. He left his home at the age of 30, started to live in forests and meditated for 12 years. Then, he got enlightened.

Question 35.
What do you mean by the concept of Trideva’s or three deities in Hinduism ?
Answer:
The meaning of Trideva in Hinduism is by three dieties out of which the first one is the creator, the second one is sustainer and the third one is the destroyer. These three are the natural rules of the whole universe. Brahma is the creator of the universe, Vishnu takes care of it and Mahesha is the destoyer of evil.

Question 36.
Why European scholars considered the images of the Buddha and Bodhisattas as the best examples of Indian art of sculptures ?
Answer:
Buddha and Bodhisatta images were very much similar to Greek images. European scholars were very much familiar with Greek traditions which is why they considered these images as the best example of the Indian art of sculpture.

Question 37.
Why Buddhism became popular ?
Answer:
(i) Buddhism was a simple religion which had no place for superstitions and other rituals.
(ii) Buddhism was propagated in Prakrit language used by common masses.
(iii) Many kings became patrons of Buddhism.
(iv) Buddhist Bhikkhus were individuals with great character.

Question 38.
Who were Ajivikas ?
Answer:
Ajivikas were the supporters of materialism. They started fatalism in Buddhism and were given financial help by Ashoka the Great.

Question 39.
Mention how, according to Jainism, one can free himself from the cycle of Karma. (C.B.S.E. 2010 (O.D.))
Answer:
According to Jainism, the cycle of birth and rebirth is shaped through Karma. If one is to escape this cycle of Karma, one must practise asceticism and penance. It is only possible if one renounces the world. So, one has to live in a monastry to attain salvation.

Question 40.
Mention any four social groups from which the followers of Buddha came. (C.B.S.E. 2010 (D))
Answer:
(i) Kings
(ii) Wealthy men
(iii) Grihapatis
(iv) Humbler folk: workers, slaves, crafts people.

Question 41.
Mention the contents of Jatakas. What do they depict? (C.B.S.E. 2010 (D))
Answer:
Jatakas contain several animal stories. These were used as symbols of human attributes. Actually, Jatakas are the stories of earlier birth (Boddhitsava) of Mahatma Buddha.

Question 42.
Mention any two ways through which the Gandatindu Jatakas describe the political relations between the King and his subjects. (C.B.S.E. 2013 (D))
Answer:
(i) The story indicates that the relations between the King and his subjects could often be strained due to demand of high taxes from them.
(ii) Escaping into the forest by the subjects remained an option as reflected in the Tataka story.

Here we are providing 1 Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 3 Kinship, Caste and Class: Early Societies are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

One Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 3 Kinship, Caste and Class: Early Societies

Question 1.
Under whose leadership the process of preparing critical edition of Mahabharata started?
Answer:
Under the leadership of V.S. Sakhankar.

Question 2.
How many years did it take to complete the critical edition of Mahabharata?
Answer:
47 years.

Question 3.
What is Kinfolk?
Answer:
Larger network of families is called Kinjolk.

Question 4.
Which system of lineage was followed by most of the ruling dynasties?
Answer:
They followed the system of patriliny.

Question 5.
Who did not have any claim to the resources of the household?
Answer:
Daughters did not have any such claim.

Question 6.
When was Manusmriti compiled?
Answer:
Manusmriti was complied between C. 200 BCE and 200 C.E.

Question 7.
How many forms of marriage were recognised in Dharmasutras and Dharmashastras?
Answer:
Eight forms of marriage.

Question 8.
On what basis Brahmanas were classified from 100 BCE onwards ?
Answer:
They were classified on the basis of their gotras.

Question 9.
Where did Satavahanas rule?
Answer:
Satavahanas ruled over parts of western India and the Deccan.

Question 10.
What is polygynous?
Answer:
When a male marries with more than one female, it is called polygynous.

Question 11.
Through which side the Satavahana rullers were identified?
Answer:
They were identified through metronymics or through mother side.

Question 12.
From where did Shakas Came?
Answer:
Shakas came from Central Asia.

Question 13.
Who were regarded as Mlechchhas?
Answer:
Shakas were regarded as Mlechchhas.

Question 14.
Where did the duties of the Chandalas lay down?
Answer:
The Manusmriti laid down the duties of the Chandalas.

Question 15.
Which Chines monk come to India during fifth century CE?
Answer:
Fa Xian.

Question 16.
With whom is the central story of Mahabharata associated ?
Answer:
The central story of Mahabharata is about two sets of warring cousins. This text also contains sections laying down norms of behaviour for different social groups. The principal characters, occasionally, seem to follow these norms.

Question 17.
Why and among whom, the war of Mahabharata was fought ? What was its result ?
Answer:
The war of Mahabharata was fought between Kauravas and Pandavas. It was fought to acquire land and authority. Both the parties were related to the Kuru clan. The war was won by the Pandavas.

Question 18.
Distinguish between Patriliny and Matriliny.
Answer:
Patriliny means to trace descent from father to son, grandson and so on. On the other hand, matriliny means to trace the descent through the mother.

Question 19.
What were Dharmasutras and Dharmashastras ?
Answer:
Brahmanas layed down codes of social behaviour in great detail. They were supposed to be followed by Brahmanas in particular and by rest of society in general. From 50 BCE, these norms were compiled in Sanskrit texts which were known as Dharmasutras and Dharmashastras.

Question 20.
What were the two most important rules about the gotrak ? Mention two rules about gotra, particularly of women, according to Brahmanical practice after 1000 B.C.E. I I (C.B.S.E. 2009 (O.D.))
or
Mention the two rules about classification of people in terms of gotra under Brahmanical practice around 1000 BCE onwards. (C.B.S.E. 2012 (O.D.))
Answer:
(i) After marriage, every woman gave up the gotra of her father and adopted the gotra of her husband.
(ii) Members of the same gotra could not marry.

Question 21.
Who was Gandhari ? What advice had she given to Duryodhna ? What was its impact on Duryodhna ?
Answer:
Gandhari was the mother of the Kauravas. She had advised her eldest son Duryodhna not to wage a war against the Pandavas. But it had no effect on Duryodhna. He fought against the Pandavas and was defeated.

Question 22.
Who were Gotama and Vashishtha ? Which earlier rulers gotra’s names were taken by their names ? Give examples.
Answer:
Gotama and Vashishtha were Vedic seers. Gotras of Satvahana kings were taken by their names like :
(i) Raja Gotami-puta Siri-Satakani.
(ii) Raja Vasithi-puta (Sami) Siri Pulumayi.

Question 23.
Where did endogamy prevail in India during 600 B.C.E.—600 C.E. ? What was its importance ?
Answer:
Endogamy existed in certain South Indiafi communities between 600 BCE—600 CE and it still exists. Such marriages among kinfolk ensured a close knit community.

Question 24.
What does the names of Satavahana rulers indicate towards status of mothers in the society ? Is this thing applicable on succession to the throne ?
or
How were mothers important under the Satavahana rule ? Give an example to support your answer.(C.B.S.E. 2012 (O.D.))
Answer:
Satavahana rulers were identified through metronymics which means that names were derived from that of the mother. It indicates that mothers had an important place in the society. This thing is not applicable on succession to the throne as it was generally patrilineal.

Question 25.
According to the Purusha Sukta of the Rig Veda, how did the four Varnas emerge under the Varna system ?
Answer:
According to the Purusha Sukta of the Rig Veda, the four Varnas emerged from the sacrifice of the Purusha, the primeval man. All the four social categories emanated from his body. His mouth became the Brahmanas and the arms came out to be Kshatriyas. His thighs became the Vaishya and from his feet, the fourth Varna was born.

Question 26.
Who were designated as Chandalas by Brahamanas ? What was their place in society ?
Answer:
Some people were engaged in occupations like handling corpses and dead animals. These occupations were considered as impure. Those who performed such tasks were designated as Chandalas. They were placed at the very bottom of the hierarchy.

Question 27.
What has been said about the right on paternal property in the Manusmriti ?
Or
How was paternal estate to be I ’ divided after the death of the parents, I according to Manusmriti ? (C.B.S.E. 2012 (O.D.))
Answer:
According to the Manusmriti, the paternal property should be equally divided among all the sons after the death of their parents. However the eldest son is entitled to a special share. The women were not allowed to demand any share in this property.

Question 28.
Tell any two evidences to show that the people were linked to matriliny.
Answer:
(i) Many inscriptions of the powerful Satavahanas have been found. They tell us that many rulers had their lineage from matriliny.
(ii) There is a list of hierarchy of ancestors in the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad. It contains a list of successive generations of teachers and students. Most of them were designated as metronymics.

Question 29.
What is the Bhagavad Gita ?
Answer:
The Bhagavad Gita is perhaps the most important didactic section of the Mahabharata. It contains the advice offered by Lord Krishna to Arjuna in the battlefield of Kurukshetra.

Question 30.
Who, according to traditions, is considered as the author of Mahabharata ? From whom did he scribe the epic ?
Answer:
According to literary traditions, Maharishi Ved Vyasa is considered as the author of Mahabharata. He scribed this epic from the Lord Ganesha.

Question 31.
Mention two ideal occupations of Brahmanas according to Dharmashastras. (C.B.S.E. 2009 (D))
Answer:
According to Dharmashastras, two ideal occupations of Brahmanas are:
(i) Study and teach the Vedas.
(ii) Perform sacrifices and get sacrifices performed as well as give and receive gifts.

Question 32.
How were the Shakas, who came from Central Asia, regarded by the Brahmanas ? Name their best known ruler and one of his contributions. (C.B.S.E. 2009 (D))
Answer:
Shakas, who came from Central Asia were regarded as Mlechchhas or the barbarians or outsiders by the Brahmanas. Rudradaman was their best known ruler and one of the major contributions of Rudradaman was that he rebuilt Sudarshana lake.

Question 33.
Mention any two ideal occupations of Kshatriyas according to Dharma-shastras. (C.B.S.E. 2009 (D))
Answer:
(i) Kshatriyas were expected to engage in warfare, protect people and administer justice.
(ii) They were expected to study the Vedas, get sacrifices performed and give gifts.

Question 34.
Mention two such population which were beyond the four varnas and I) were viewed with suspicion. Give one characteristic of each. (C.B.S.E. 2012 (O.D.))
Answer:
(i) Forest dwellers for whom hunting and gathering remained an important means of subsistence.
(ii) Mlechchhas who spoke non-Sanskritic languages.

Here we are providing 1 Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 2 Kings, Farmers and Towns: Early States and Economics are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

One Mark Questions for History Class 12 Chapter 2 Kings, Farmers and Towns: Early States and Economics

Question 1.
Who composed Rigveda?
Answer:
Rigveda was composed by the people living along the Indus and its tributaries.

Question 2.
Who deciphered Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts and when?
Answer:
Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts were dociphered by James Princep, an officer in the mint of the East India Company:

Question 3.
Name the titles adopted by Ashoka.
Answer:
Devampiya and Piyadassi.

Question 4.
How many Mahajanapadas were there?
Answer:
There were around sixteen Mahajanapadas.

Question 5.
What were Ganas or Sanghas?
Answer:
These were Oligarchies where power was shared by a number of men.

Question 6.
What were Dharmasutras?
Answer:
Brehmanas started composing Sanskrit texts from sixth century BCE onwards which were called Dharmasutras.

Question 7.
Name the most powerful Mahajanapada.
Answer:
Magadha was the most powerful Mahajanapada.

Question 8.
Name the famous and powerful rulers of Magadha.
Answer:
Bimbisara, Ajatasatru and Mahapadma Nanda.

Question 9.
Name the capital of Magadha.
Answer:
Rajagaha in the earlier part but was shifted to Pataliputra in the fourth century BCE.

Question 10.
Who started the Mauryan Empire?
Answer:
Chandragupta Maurya.

Question 11.
Name the sources of history about the Mauryan Empire.
Answer:
India written by Magasthenes, Arthashastra by Chanakya, Ashokan inscriptions etc.

Question 12.
Name the five major political centres in the Mauryan Empire.
Answer:
Pataliputra, Taxila, Ujjayini, Tosali and Suvarnagiri.

Question 13.
For how many years the Mauryan Empire lasted?
Answer:
Around 150 years.

Question 14.
Where the Clossal statues of Kushana rulers have been found?
Answer:
In a shrine at Mat near Mathura (Utter Pradesh).

Question 15.
Who adopted the title of Devaputra?
Answer:
Many Kushana rulers adopted the title of Devaputra.

Question 16.
Who composed Prayaga Prashasti?
Answer:
Prayaga Prashasti was composed by Harishena, the court poet of Samudraguta.

Question 17.
When were Jataka tales written?
Answer:
Jataka tales were written in Pali language around the middle of first millennium CE.

Question 18.
Who was James Princep ? Which two ancient scripts were deciphered by him ?
or
Who was James,Princep ? Mention anyone of his contribution in the development of Indian epigraphy. (C.B.S.E. 2014 (O.D.))
Answer:
James Princep was an officer of the English East India Company. He was able to decipher the ancient Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts.

Question 19.
What was the early capital of Magadha ? Tell its one feature. In the 4th century B.C.E., which city was made the capital of Magadha ?
Answer:
Rajagaha (present-day Rajgir) was the early capital of Magadha. Thet city signified the “House of the King”. It was a fortified settlement and was located among the hills. In the 4th century B.C.E., its capital was shifted to Pataliputra, present-day Patna.

Question 20.
Who was Ashoka ? Which famous state did he annex into the Mauryan empire ?
Answer:
Ashoka was the grandson of Chandragupta Maurya. He was the most famous ruler of the Mauryan empire. He annexed the state of Kalinga in the Mauryan empire.

Question 21.
Give brief description of languages and scripts of inscriptions of Ashoka.
Answer:
Prakrit was the language used on most of the inscriptions of Ashoka. These were written in Brahmi script. ,

Question 22.
What is meant by Tamilakam ? Name three Chiefdoms emerging in Mauryan Tamilakam. Also give their one feature.
Answer:
Tamilakam means the area of Deccan and further South in the sub-continent. It included parts of present day Andhra Pradesh and Kerala with Tamil Nadu. Chiefdoms of the Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas emerged in Tamilakam. These Chiefdoms proved to be very prosperous and stable.

Question 23.
What was the capital of the Mauryan empire ? Also write the names of four provincial centres.
Answer:
Pataliputra was the capital of the Mauryan empire. Taxila, Ujjayini, Tosali and Suvarnagiri were four provincial centres.

Question 24.
Name three types of source about the history of Gupta rulers.
Answer:
(i) Literature
(ii) Coins and inscriptions
(iii) Prashastis, composed by poets in praise of kings.

Question 25.
When and who built Sudarshana Lake ? Which rulers got this lake repaired ?
Answer:
According to an inscription, Sudarshana Lake was an artificial reservoir which was built by a local governor during the rule of the Mauryas. It was repaired by a Saka ruler Rudradaman and one of the rulers of the Gupta Dynasty.

Question 26.
Briefly describe about ‘Banabhatta’ and ‘Harshacharita’.
Answer:
Banabhatta was a court poet of the ruler of Kanauj, Harsha Vardhana. The Harshacharita is a biography of Harsha Vardhana composed by Banabhatta.

Question 27.
Who was Prabhavati Gupta ? Tell a rare example found about her.
Answer:
Prabhavati Gupta was the daughter of Chandragupta II (375—415 C.E.) who was a famous ruler of early India. She was married in a Vakatak family of Deccan Peninsula. She had donated land which is a rare example of donation by any womah.

Question 28.
What is meant by Periplus ? On what does Periplus of the Erythraean Sea throws light ?
Answer:
Periplus is a Greek word. It means sailing around or sea voyage. Periplus of the Erythraean Sea throws light on the sea trade of early India.

Question 29.
Explain the names and meanings of the two titles adorned by Ashoka.
Answer:
Ashoka adopted the two titles ‘Devanampiya’ and ‘Piyadassi’. Devanampiya meant the “Belpved of the Gods” and Piyadassi meant “Pleasant to Behold”. These titles have been found in many inscriptions.

Question 30.
‘In some inscriptions, only titles adopted by Ashoka are given but on others, both his name and titles are given.’ How did historians assess that all these inscriptions are made by a single ruler ?
Answer:
All the inscriptions were examined and it was concluded that their subject, language, script, method, etc., are similar to each other. That is why historians assessed that all these inscriptions are made by a single ruler.

Question 31.
Why the cities especially capital cities, during Mahajanapada age, were fortified ?
Answer:
Capital city has a special importance. All the political, social, economic and cultural activities are regulated from the capital. It is also necessary to secure it from the enemy. These things were also applicable on capital cities during the Mahajanapada age. That is why walls were made around the city and were fortified.

Question 32.
Why Ashoka’s lion emblem is today considered important ?
Answer:
Ashoka’s lion emblem has been adopted as the national symbol by the Indian Government. It is the symbol of our unity, courage, progress and high ideals. That is why it is considered important.

Question 33.
How large was the army of the Mauryan ruler according to Greek sources ?
Answer:
According to Greek sources, the Mauryan ruler had a standing army of 600,000 foot-soldiers, 30,000 cavalry and 9,000 elephants.

Question 34.
What resources were needed by the Maurayas to retain their large army ?
Answer:
(i) Excessive revenue
(ii) Great number of military equipments
(iii) Huge supplies of food
(iv) Place for the camping for its armed forces.

Question 35.
Why did people bring gifts for Pandya Chiefs ? What would the Chiefs have used these for ? .
Answer:
People respected Pandya Chiefs because they were very much happy and prosperous during their rule. That is why they brought gifts for Pandya Chiefs. Chiefs could have used those gifts themselves or could have distributed them among their supporters.

Question 36.
Why did the rulers arrange for irrigation ?
Answer:
The rulers made arrangements for irrigation to increase the agricultural production. There were two reasons for it :
(i) Agriculture was the main source of state income.
(ii) Agriculture could provide food to the people.

Question 37.
Who was the author of ‘Periplus of the Erythraean Sea’ ? Why did he prepare a list of different types of goods ?
Answer:
Author of the ‘Periplus of the Erythraean Sea’ was an anonymous Greek sailor. He prepared a list of varied type of goods to show foreign trade
through sea route. He wanted to express that bulk of pepper and malabathrum (possibly cinnamon) was exported from India. In lieu of that all kinds of transparent stones, diamonds, sapphires and tortoise shells were imported in India.

Question 38.
How did the city of Pataliputra emerge ?
Answer:
Pataliputra emerged from a village called Pataligram. In 5th century B.C.E., the Magadhan rulers decided to shift their capital from Raj agriha to this city and they renamed it. By fourth century B.C.E., it become the capital of Mauryan empire and became one of the largest cities of Asia. But later on , its importance declined.

Question 39.
Who was the Grihapati ?
Answer:
Grihapati was the head of the family. He was the owner, master or head of a household. He had control over the females, children, servants and slaves who lived in the house. He was the master of the land, animals and other such things of the family. Sometimes this term was used for those urban elite and traders who lived in the towns. It was a symbol of status for wealthy merchants.

Here we are providing Class 12 Geography Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Human Development. Geography Class 12 Important Questions are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Important Extra Questions Human Development

Human Development Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Name the two South-Asian economists who first put forward the idea of human development.
Answer:
Mahabub-Ul-Haq and Amartya sen.

Question 2.
Who created Human Development index ?
Answer:
A Pakistani economist Dr. Mahabub-ul-Haq in 1990.

Question 3.
What criterion was used to measure development ? (C.B.S.E. 2013)
Answer:
Economic growth and Education.

Question 4.
Name four pillars of Human development. (C.B.S.E. 2014)
Answer:
(i) Equity
(ii) Sustainability
(iii) Productivity
(iv) Empowerment.

Question 5.
What are two requirements for empowerment ?
Answer:
Good governance and people oriented policies.

Question 6.
What is the measure of access to resources ?
Answer:
Purchasing power.

Question 7.
Expand ILO.
Answer:
International Labour Organisation.

Question 8.
Expand UNDP.
Answer:
United Nation Development Programme.

Question 9.
Expand GNH.
Answer:
Gross National Happiness.

Question 10.
Which country introduced Gross National Happiness ?
Answer:
Bhutan.

Human Development Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is development ? State its three aspects.
Answer:
Development means a qualitative change. It includes three aspects :
(а) Quality of life of people
(b) Opportunities
(c) Freedom of people.

Question 2.
Describe the concept of Human development as described by Dr. Haq.
Answer:
Dr. Haq described that Human development enlarges peopl’s choices and improves their lives. People are central to all development. The choices keep on changing. It is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives. People must be healthy, be able to develop their talents, and be free to achieve their goals.

Question 3.
What was the main objective of development according to Prof. Amartya Sen ?
Answer:
He saw an increase in freedom as the main objective of development. It is the most effective way of bringing about development. Social and political institutions increase freedom.

Question 4.
Distinguish between growth and development. (C.B.S.E. 2013, Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Growth and development refers to changes that take place over a period of the growth; quantitative and value neutral. It is positive or negative. It shows increase or decrease.

Development means a qualitative change. It always has a positive value. Development means increase in the existing conditions. Development occurs when positive growth takes place.

Question 5.
What are the attributes of a meaningful life ?
Answer:
A meaningful life is not just a long one. It must be a life with some purpose such as :
(а) People must be healthy
(b) People must be able to develop their talents
(c) They must participate in society activities
(d) People must be free to achieve their goals.

Question 6.
What does the term Equity mean ? What are the problems for it ?
Answer:
Equity means making equal access to opportunities available to every body. The opportunities available to people must be equal. But there are some problems, such as :
(a) Gender discrimination
(b) Race discrimination
(c) Variable income
(d) Caste

Question 7.
What is sustainability ? Name three types of resources which must be used for sustainability.
Answer:
Sustainability means continuity in the availability of opportunities. Each generation must have
the same opportunities. For this, the resources should not be miused. The following resources must be used :
(a) Environmental
(b) Financial
(c) Human

Question 8.
What is productivity ? How can it be enriched ?
Answer:
Productivity means human labour productivity in terms of human work. It can be enriched by :
(i) By building capabilities in people
(ii) By increasing their knowledge
(ii) By providing better health facilities
(iv) By increasing effciency.

Question 9.
What is empowerment ? How can people be empowered ?
Answer:
Empowerment means to have power to make choices. People can be empowered by :
(i) By increasing freedom
(ii) By increasing capabilities
(iii) By good governance
(iv) By people oriented policies

Question 10.
Name the four important approaches for studying human development.
Answer:
(i) The Income approach
(ii) The Welfare approach
(iii) Minimum Needs approach
(iv) Capabilities approach.

Question 11.
On which key areas is HDI based ? What is the range of HDI Score ?
Answer:
HDI is based on following key areas :
(a) Health
(b) Education
(c) Access to Resources. HDI score ranks 0 to 1.

Question 12.
What is Gross National Happiness ? What are its important aspects ? (C.B.S.E. 2014)
Or
“The Gross National Happiness is the measure of the country is Progress.”Evaluate the statement. (Out Side Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Bhutan is the only country in the world to proclaim GNH as the measure of human development. It means material progress cannot come at the cost of happiness. GNH encourages us to think of the spiritual, non-material and qualitative aspects of the development.

Human Development Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
What do you mean by ‘Human Development’ ? Explain its concept.
Or
“The size of a territory and per capital” income are not directly related to human development.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer:
Human Development. Development is a dynamic concept. It is a process of growth and realisation of potential utilising resources into full use. Its main purpose is to raise the economic growth. The purpose of development is to create an environment in which no child goes without education, where no human being is denied health care and where all people can develop their potential capacities.

Human Development Indicators.
The World Bank provides every year the world development report. It provides data of production, consumption, demand, energy, capital trade, population growth, health, education of some 186 countries. This report is based on some indicators. The three basic components of human development are

• Longevity
• Knowledge
• Standard of living.

India ranks 134th in the world while Norway ranks First.

The following are the main indicators of human development:
(i) Life expectancy at Birth
(ii) Literacy
(iii) Per capita income
(iv) Demographic characteristics such as infant mortality rate, natural increase rate, the age structure.

(i) Life expectancy at Birth.
Life expectancy at birth is the average number of years that a newborn baby is expected to live. The average life expectancy of the world is 65 years. North America with an average age of 77 years has the highest life expectancy; while Africa has the lowest life expectancy rate of 54 years. The developed countries with high level of nutrition, education, medical care and standard of living have high life expectancy rate.

(ii) Literacy. The literacy is an important and reliable indicator of socio-cultural, economic and cultural development of a country. Literacy is essential for eradicating poverty. The ability to read and write influences demographic features such as fertility, mortality, occupations etc. In developed countries, the literacy rate is above 90 percent. While in developing countries it is less than 60 percent.

(iii) Per Capita Income. GDP and GNP showing the per capita income of a country is an important indicator of human resource development. The higher the per capita income, the more developed the country is. Workers in developed countries earn more than that in developing countries. In many countries of Europe the GDP is over 20,000 $ per year as compared to $ 100 of many countries of Africa and Asia. The GDP of developing countries indicates the low out-put of goods and services.

(iv) Demographic Characteristics. The demographic characteristics of a country are influenced by the economy of a country. These differ in developed and developing countries.

(a) The infant mortality rate is high in developing countries. People are not able to provide food and medicines.

(b) Natural increase rate (The difference between crude birth rate and death rate) is high in developing countries. It places a pressure on economy. In countries of Africa, the crude birth rate is as high as 40 per 1000 while in developed countries it is as low as 10.

(c) The age structure is also different in developed and developing countries. Developing countries have a high percentage of dependent population (i.e. children). But the over all percentage of dependent population is lower in developed countries.

Question 2.
Name the four pillars of development. Describe impact of each giving examples. (C.B.S.E. 2011)
Or
What is human development? Analyse the four pillars of human development? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2017 Set-I) (C.B.S.E.Delhi 2017)
Answer:
The four Pillars of Human Development:
Just as any building is supported by pillars, the idea of human development is supported by the concepts of
(i) equity
(ii) sustainability
(iii) productivity and
(iv) empowerment.

1. Equity : Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody. Tire opportunities available to people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income and in the Indian case, caste. Example. In India, a large number of women and persons belonging to socially and economically backward groups drop out of school. They do not have access to knowledge.

2. Sustainability means continuity in the availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities. All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future. Misuse of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations. Example : To sustain future, the importance of sending girls to school be realised.

3. Productivity : Productivity here means human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human work. Such productivity must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people. Ultimately, it is people who are the real wealth of nations. Therefore, efforts to increase their knowledge, or provide better health facilities ultimately leads to better work efficiency.

4. Empowerment : Empowerment means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing freedom and capability. Good governance and people-oriented policies are required to empower people. The empowerment of socially and economically disadvantaged groups is of special importance.

Question 3.
Name the different approaches to Human Development. Describe each.
Or
Explain three characteristics of welfare approach of human development. (Sample Paper 2018-19)
Answer:
Approaches to Human Development
There are many ways of looking at the problem of human development.
Some of the important approaches are:
(a) The income approach
(b) The welfare approach
(c) Minimum needs approach; and
(d) Capabilities apprroach.

Measuring Human Development

The human development index (HDI) ranks the countries based on their performance in the key areas of health, education and access to resources. These ranking are based on a score between 0 to 1 that a country earns from its record in the key areas of human development

Indicators of HDI

• Life expectancy at Birth to assess health
• Adult literacy rate to access to knowledge
• Access to Resources to assess purchasing power

Each of these dimensions is given a weightage of 1/3. The human development index is a sum total of the weights assigned to all these dimensions. The closer a score is to one, the greater is the level of human development. Therefore, a score of 0.983 would be considered very high while 0.268 would mean a very low level of human development.

(a) Income Approach : This is one of the oldest approaches to human development. Human development is seen as being linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual enjoys. Higher the level of income, the higher is the level of human development.

(b) Welfare approach : This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on edcuation, health, social and secondary amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximising expenditure on welfare.

(c) Basic needs approach : This appraoch was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Six basic needs i.e. health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The questions of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections.

(d) Capability approach : This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is the key to increasing human development.

Question 4.
Describe the distribution of HDI countries with High index value, Medium Index value and Low index value.
Or
What is meant by human development? Classify countries into four groups on the basis of the human development scores earned by them. Explan one feature of each group. (C.B.S.E Outside Delhi Set-II 2017)
Answer:
Size of a country and per capita income are not directly related to human development. Often smaller countries and poorer countries have been ranked higher. For example Sri Lanka (92) has a higher rank than India (136). Countries can be grouped into three categories :

Level	Score in development Index	Number of countries
High	above 0.8	47
Medium	0 5 to 0.799	100
Low	Below 0.6	37

(A) Countries with High index value Countries with high HDI are those which have a score of 0.8. According to the Human Development Report of 2014, this group includes 47 countries.

Top Ten Countries with High Value Index, 2014

SI. No.	Country	SI. No.	Country
1.	Norway	6.	Germany
2.	Australia	7.	New Zealand
3.	Switzerland	8.	Canada
4.	Netherlands	9.	Singapore
5.	United States	10.	Denmark

Reasons :
(i) Education and healthcare is an important government priority
(ii) Countries with higher human development are those where a lot of investment in the social sector has taken place.
(iii) Good governance
(iv) The degree of social diversity in these countries is not very high
(v) Many of the countries with a high human development score are located in Europe and represent the industrialised western world.

(B) Countries with Medium Index Value : Countries with medium levels of human development form the largest group. There are a total of 100 countries in this group.

Reasons
(1) Most of these are countries which have emerged as developing countries.
(2) Some countries from this group were former colonies.
(3) Many others have emerged after the break up of the erstwhile Soviet Union in 1990.
(4) Many of these countries have been rapidly improving their human development score by adopting more people-oriented policies and reducing social discrimination.
(5) Most of these countries have a much higher social diversity than the countries with higher human development scores.
(6) Many in this group have faced political instability and social uprisings at some points of time in their recent history.

(C) Countries with Low Index Value : As many as 37 countries record low levels of human development.

Reasons.
(1) A large proportion of these are small countries.
(2) These have been going through political turmoil and social instability in the form of civil war, famine or a high incidence of diseases. There is an urgent need to address the human development requirements of this group through well thought out policies.
(3) Some Statements are misleading that low level is due to culture or religion or community.
(4) Places with low levels of human development tend to spend more on defence rather than social sectors. This shows that these countries tend to be located in areas of political instability and have not been able to initiate accelerated economic development.

Human Development Important Extra Questions HOTS

Question 1.
‘Equity is one of the most important pillers of human development’. Explain any three human values that are required to give equal access to opportunities to every body.
Answer:
The idea of human development is supported by the pile of equity, sustainability, Productivity and empowerment. Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to the people. The human values provide equal access to the opportunity to everybody, irrespective of the following:

• Gender of the people
• Race of the people
• Income of the people

Sustainability means continuity in the availability of opportunities. Productivity means human labour productivity. People are the real wealth of the nation. Empowerment means to have the power to make choices.