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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers

Minerals and Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

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Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 10 Chapter 5 MCQs On Minerals and Energy Resources

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following minerals are not found in the toothpaste?
(a) Limestone
(b) Aluminium Oxide
(c) Fluoride
(d) Chlorides
Answer:
(d) Chtorides

Explanation: Abrasive minerals like silica, limestone, aluminium oxide and various phosphate minerals do the cleaning in toothpaste.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Where does the shine in toothpaste come from?
(a) Fluoride
(b) Mica
(c) Limestone
(d) Titanium oxide
Answer:
(b) Mica

Minerals And Energy Resources MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following is a soft mineral?
(a) Diamond
(b) Iron
(c) Bauxite
(d) Talc
Answer:
(d) Talc

Mineral And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
A ………….. is interested in the formation of minerals, their age and physical and chemical composition.
(a) Geographer
(b) Oceanology
(c) Geologist
(d) Environmentalist
Answer:
(c) Geologist

MCQ On Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Question 5.
Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral?
(a) Manganese
(b) Copper
(c) Tin
(d) Mica
Answer:
(d) Mica

Explanation: Mica is a non-metallic mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves. It splits easily into thin sheets.

Class 10 Minerals And Energy Resources MCQ Question 6.
Which one of the following states is the largest producer of copper in India ?
(a) Orissa
(b) Karnataka
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
Answer:
(c) Rajasthan

Explanation: The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, Khetri mines in Rajasthan and Singhbhum district of Jharkhand are leading producers of copper.

Mineral And Energy Resources MCQ Question 7.
Which one of the following is a feature of Mica?
(a) It is a rock mineral made up of a series of blocks.
(b) It is a milky and unclear non-metallic.
(c) It is used in the electric and electronic industry due to the excellent di-electric strength.
(d) It cannot be easily split into thin sheets.
Answer:

MCQ Of Minerals And Energy Resources Question 8.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Uranium and Thorium used for generating nuclear power are found in
(a) Gariga Basin
(b) Gulf of Khambhat and Cambay
(c) Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh
(d) Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan
Answer:
(d) Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan

Explanation: Uranium and Thorium are available in Jharkhand and the Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan are used for generating atomic or nuclear power.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 MCQ Question 9.
Which of the following is an offshore oil field?
(a) Ankleshwar
(b) Digboi
(c) Kalol
(d) Mumbai High
Answer:

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Question 10.
Which one of the following non- conventional sources of energy is harnessed near Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh?
(a) Geothermal Energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) Hydel Energy
Answer:
(a) Geothermal Energy

Explanation: To harness geothermal energy, two projects have been set up. One is located in the Parvati valley near Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh and the other is located in the Puga Valley, Ladakh.

MCQ Minerals And Energy Resources Question 11.
Which of the following states have most of the petroleum deposits?
(a) Rajasthan and Kerala
(b) Assam and Gujarat
(c) Gujarat and Goa
(d) Odisha and Punjab
Answer:
(b) Assam and Gujarat

Explanation: Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula, in Gujarat and Assam have most of the petroleum deposits.

Chapter 5 Geography Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
The Kaiga Nuclear Energy Plant is located in which of the following states?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Answer:

MCQ On Minerals And Energy Resources Question 13.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Gondwana coal deposits are found in
(a) Krishna valley
(b) Damodar valley
(c) Brahmaputra delta
(d) Tapi valley
Answer:
(b) Damodar valley

Explanation: The Godavari, Mahanadi, Son and Wardha valleys also contain coal deposits.

MCQs On Minerals And Energy Resources Question 14.
Which of the following parts or states do the Tertiary Coal deposits occur in?
(a) Coastal and Seaside states
(b) the Northern States
(c) North-eastern states
(d) Eastern states
Answer:
(c) North-eastern states

Explanation: Tertiary coals occur in the north-eastern states of Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 15.
What are the large occurrences of minerals in cracks, crevices, faults in igneous and metamorphic rocks called?
(a) Layers
(b) Veins
(c) Lodes
(d) Chamber
Answer:
(c) Lodes

Explanation: In igneous and metamorphic . rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are called lodes.

Question 16.
Where are the Neyveli lignite mines located?
(a) Goa
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(b) Tamil Nadu

Explanation: Principal lignite reserves are in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu and are used for generation of electricity.

Question 17.
Which form of coal has a low carbon and high moisture contents and low heating capacity?
(a) Peat
(b) Lignite
(c) Anthracite
(d) Bituminous
Answer:
(a) Peat

Question 18.
Which one of the following minerals is not obtained from the veins and lodes?
(a) Tin
(b) Zinc
(c) Lead
(d) Gypsum
Answer:
(d) Gypsum

Explanation: Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc and lead etc. are obtained from veins and lodes.

Question 19.
In which of the following states is Khetri Copper Mines located ?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(a) Rajasthan

Explanation: The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, Khetri mines in Rajasthan and Singhbhum district of Jharkhand are leading producers of copper.

Question 20.
In which of the following state is the Narora Nuclear Power Plant located ?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:

Question 21.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Most of India’s mineral reserves are found in
(a) Himalayan region
(b) Coastal region
(c) Peninsular rocks
(d) Plain region
Answer:
(c) Peninsular rocks

Explanation: Peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other non-metallic minerals.

Question 22.
Which one of the following minerals is largely derived from ocean water?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Gold
(d) Copper
Answer:
(b) Magnesium

Question 23.
In which of the following state is Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant located?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Odisha
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu

Question 24.
Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
(a) Kalol Oil Fields
(b) Bauxite Mines
(c) Chandrapur Thermal Power Plant
(d) Mayurbhanj Iron Ore Mines

Identify the following on basis of the hints given.

Question 25.
Identify the process:
(1) This type of mining is done in Jowai and Cherrapunji.
(2) Mining is carried out by family members in the form of a long narrow tunneL
(3) The National Green Tribunal has declared this activity illegal.
Answer:
Rat Hole Mining

Question 26.
Identify the mineral:
(1) It is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development.
(2) India has fairly abundant resources of this mineraL
(3) Magnetite is one type of this mineraL
Answer:

Question 27.
Identify the mineral:
(1) It is a clay-like substance that alumina and later aluminium is obtained from.
(2) These deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium silicates.
(3) They are found in Amarkantak plateau, Maikal hills and the plateau region of Bilaspur-Katni.
Answer:
Bauxite deposits

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 28.
The geological processes of mineral formation are so fast and rates of replenishment are quick in comparison to the present rates of consumption.
Answer:
True

The geological processes of mineral formation are slow and rates of replenishment are lesser in comparison to the present rates of consumption.

Question 29.
Aluminium splits easily into thin sheets.
Answer:
False
Mica splits easily into thin sheets.

Explanation: Mica is a mineral made up of a series of plates or leaves. It splits easily into thin sheets.

Question 30.
Limestone is found in sedimentary rocks of most geological formations.
Answer:
True

Question 31.
Every sector of the national economy except for agriculture needs inputs of energy.
Answer:

Question 32.
Hot springs in India could be used to generate petroleum.
Answer:
False

Hot springs in India could be used to generate electricity,

Explanation: Groundwater absorbs heat from the rocks and becomes hot. Later, it rises to the earth’s surface and turns into steam. This steam is used to drive turbines and generate electricity.

Question 33.
Gangetic delta in Sunderban regions of West Bengal provide ideal conditions for utilising tidal energy.
Answer:
True

Question 34.
Hydel energy refers to the heat and electricity produced by using the heat from the interior of the Earth.
Answer:
False

Geothermal energy refers to the heat and electricity produced by using the heat from the interior of the Earth.

Question 35.
India does not have enough reserves of sunlight, water, wind and biomass.
Answer:

Question 36.
Solar power plants minimise the dependence of urban households on firewood and dung cakes.
Answer:
False
Solar power plants minimise the dependence of rural households on firewood and dung cakes.

Explanation: Rural households use dung cakes, firewood and other resources of energy which become harmful for nature upon overuse since they are dependent upon forests. Solar power plants help reduce this pressure.

Question 37.
Petroleum is also found in fault traps between porous and non-porous rocks.
Answer:
True

Question 38.
Lignite is the highest grade brown coal, which is soft with high moisture content.
Answer:

Question 39.
Some minerals like limestone consist of a single mineral
Answer:
True

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 40.
…………. Is well known for effective use of wind energy ¡n Rojasthan.
Answer:
Jaisalmer/Nagercoil

Question 41.
Coal and petroLeum are …………. sources of energy.
Answer:
Non-renewable sources

Question 42.
Titanium oxide comes from minerals called Rutile, ilmenite and ……………………….
Answer:
Anatase

Question 43.
The toothbrush and tube containing the paste are made of plastics from ……………………
Answer:

Question 44.
……………… study minerals for o better understanding of Landforms.
Answer:

Question 45.
In …………. rocks, minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints
Answer:
Igneous and metamorphic rocks

Question 46.
In ………………. there are large deposits of coat which are mined by the process of Rat Hole mining.
Answer:
Meghalaya

Question 47.
……………………… ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used.
Answer:

Question 48.
Rajasthan has reserves of……………………….
Answer:
Non-ferrous minerals

Question 49.
Kudre of the Kudremukh ValLey in Kannada means
Answer:
Horse

Explanation: The highest peak of the Kudremukh ValLey in the western ghats of Karnotaka resembles the face of a horse.

Question 50.
Manganese is used in the manufacturing of …………….and ferro-manganese alloy.
Answer:
Steel

Question 51.
……………… was the largest bauxite producing state in India in 2016-17.
Answer:
Odisha

Question 52.
Photovoltaic technology converts sunlight directly into………………….
Answer:
Electricity

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 53.
Match the items in Column A with that of Column B.

Column A (minerals/energy sources)	Column B (areas/sources)
(A) Bauxite	(I) KrishnaGodavari basin
(B) Natural energy	(II) Damodar Valley Corporation
(C) Petroleum	(III) Panchpotmali deposits
(D) Electricity	(IV) Ankleshwar

Answer:

Column A (minerals/energy sources)	Column B (areas/sources)
(A) Bauxite	(III) Panchpotmali deposits
(B) Natural energy	(I) Krishna-Godavari basin
(C) Petroleum	(IV) Ankleshwar
(D) Electricity	(II) Damodar Valley Corporation

Question 54.
Match the items in CoLumn A with that of Column B.

Column A (minerals/energy sources)	Column B (areas/sources)
(A) Biogas	(I) Monozite Sands
(B) Tidal Energy	(II) Rural areas of the country
(C) Atomic Energy	(III) Nagercoil
(D) Wind power	(IV) Nagercoil

Answer:

Column A (minerals/energy sources)	Column B (areas/sources)
(A) Biogas	(II) Rural areas of the country
(B) Tidal Energy	(IV) Nagercoil
(C) Atomic Energy	(I) Monozite Sands
(D) Wind power	(III) Nagercoil

Question 55.
Match the items In Column A with that of Column B.

Column A (Belt)	Column B (areas)
(A) Odisha-Jharkhand belt	(I) Karnatako
(B) Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt	(II) Ratnagiri
(C) Bailan-Chitradurga-Chikkomagoluru-Tumakuru belt	(III) Mayurbhanj
(D) Maharashtra-Goa belt	(IV) Chhattisgarh

Answer:

Question 56.
Match the items in Column A with that of Column B.

Column A (Source)	Column B (Energy/Resource)
(A) Kudremukh valley	(I) Natural Gas
(B) Balaghat mines	(II) Iron Ore
(C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands Energy	(III) Geothermal
(D) Parvati Valley	(IV) Copper

Answer:

Column A (Source)	Column B (Energy/Resource)
(A) Kudremukh valley	(II) Iron Ore
(B) Balaghat mines	(IV) Copper
(C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands Energy	(I) Natural Gas
(D) Parvati Valley	(III) Geothermal

Question 57.
Match the items in CoLumn A with that of Column B.

Column A (Resource)	Column B (Category)
(A) Potash	(I) Non-Ferrous Mineral.
(B) Tin	(II) Energy Resource
(C) Manganese	(III) Non-metallic Mineral
(D) Coal	(IV) Metallic Mineral

Answer:

Column A (Resource)	Column B (Category)
(A) Potash	(III) Non-metallic Mineral
(B) Tin	(I) Non-Ferrous Mineral.
(C) Manganese	(IV) Metallic Mineral
(D) Coal	(II) Energy Resource

Question 58.
Match the items of Column A to that of Column B. Choose the correct option.

Column A	Column B
(A) Mayurbhanj Iron Ore Mines	(I) Maharashtra
(B) Chandrapura Thermal Power Plant	(II) Odisha
(C) Bauxite Mines	(III) Gujarat
(D) Kolot Oil Fields	(IV) Amarkantok Plateau

Answer:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(c) (A)-(IIl), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 5

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given betow
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 59.
Assertion (A): The mineral content of the ore must be in sufficient concentration to make its extraction commercially viable.
Reason (R): Cost of extraction is determined by the type of formation or structure which mineral ores may be mined.
Answer:

Question 60.
Assertion (A): Biogas is the most efficient use of cattle dung.
Reason (R): It reduces the quality of manure.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: It improves the quality of manure.

Question 61.
Assertion (A): Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy.
Reason (R): It is necessary to develop a sustainable path of energy development.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Question 62.
Assertion (A): Oceanic tides cannot be used to generate electricity.
Reason (R): Tidal energy can be used to run turbines and thereafter generate electricity.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: Oceanic tides can be used to generate electricity. Floodgate dams are built across inlets. During high tide, water flows into the inlet and gets trapped when the gate is closed. After the tide falls outside the flood gate, the water retained by the floodgate flows back to the sea via a pipe that carries it through a power-generating turbine.

Question 63.
Assertion (A): Groundwater absorbs heat from the rocks and becomes hot.
Reason (R): Geothermal energy exists because the Earth grows progressively hotter with increasing depth. This heat warms the water.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 64.
Assertion (A): Energy saved is energy produced.
Reason (R): Judicious use of our limited energy resources helps in the development of future generations.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are called lodes. In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface. They cool and solidify as they rise. Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc and lead etc are obtained from veins and lodes.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following minerals are found in veins and lodes?
(a) Copper
(b) Limestone
(c) Zinc
(d) Lead
Answer:
(b) Limestone

(B) Which of the following forms do the igneous and metamorphic minerals occur in?
(a) Beds
(b) Cracks
(c) Lodes
(d) Faults
Answer:
(a) Beds
Explanation: Sedimentary rocks occur in beds or layers.

(C) Which of the following statements are not true for Igneous and Metamorphic rocks?
(a) Igneous rocks are found in joints of rocks.
(b) They are found in their solidified forms.
(c) They are pushed out of earth in their liquid/molten and gaseous forms.
(d) They are formed as a result into deposition.
Answer:

(D) Fill in the blank by choosing an appropriate option:
Lodes are occurrences.
(a) Smaller
(b) Larger
(c) Huge
(d) Negligible
Answer:
(b) Larger
Explanation: The smaller occurrences of minerals are called veins and the larger are called lodes.

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
India is fortunate to have fairly rich and varied mineral resources. However, these are unevenly distributed. Broadly speaking, peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other non-metallic minerals. Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula. have
most of the petroleum deposits. Rajasthan with the rock systems of the peninsula, has reserves of many non-ferrous minerals. The vast alluvial plains of north India are almost devoid of economic minerals.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following is not a metallic mineral?
(a) Mica
(b) Iron
(c) Aluminium
(d) Copper
Answer:

(B) Which of the following states in India have the largest petroleum reserves?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Meghalaya
Answer:

(C) Which of the following statements stand true with respect to the geographical distribution of minerals?
(a) These variations exist because of the differences in the economic condition of the area.
(b) These variations exist because of differences in the geological structures.
(c) These variations exist because of differences in temperature ranges of dag and night.
(d) These variations exist because of different population density.
Answer:
(c) These variations exist because of differences in the geological structures.

(D) Which of the following is a non-ferrous mineral?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Iron
(c) Manganese
(d) Steel
Answer:
(a) Bauxite

Explanation: Alumina and aluminium is obtained from bauxite. Bauxite deposits are formed by the decomposition of a wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium silicates.

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The total volume of workable mineral deposits is an insignificant fraction i.e. one per cent of the earth’s crust. We are rapidly consuming mineral resources that required millions of years to be created and concentrated. The geological processes of mineral formation are so slow that the rates of replenishment are infinitely small in comparison to the present rates of consumption. Mineral resources are, therefore, finite and non-renewable. Rich mineral deposits are our country’s extremely valuable but short-lived possessions. Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing costs as mineral extraction comes from greater depths along with decrease in quality.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following reasons stands true with regards to continuous extraction of ores?
(a) Continuous extraction of resources is good.
(b) Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing profits.
(c) Continued extraction of ores causes substandard quality minerals to be brought up.
(d) Continued extraction of ores causes better quality products to be brought up.
Answer:
(c) Continued extraction of ores causes substandard quality minerals to be brought up.

Explanation: Continued extraction of ores leads to increasing costs as mineral extraction comes from greater depths along with decrease in quality.

(B) Which of the following reasons stands true with regards to mineral formation?
(a) Rate of replenishment is slower when compared to rate of usage.
(b) Rate of replenishment is faster when compared to rate of usage.
(c) Rate of replenishment is equal to rate of usage.
(d) Rate of replenishment is not dependent on the rate of usage.
Answer:
(a) Rate of replenishment is slower when compared to rate of usage.

(C) Which of the following resources are finite?
(I) Freshwater
(II) Coal
(III) Petroleum
(IV) Wind Energy
(V) Tidal energy
(VI) Sunlight
(a) (I) & (VI)
(b) (I), (II) & (III)
(c) (II) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III), (IV), (V) & (VI)
Answer:
(b)(I), (II) & (III)

(D) Resources which can not be replenished easily are considered:
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non-Renewable resources
(c) Replenishable Resources
(d) Infinite resources
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are there a wide range of colours, hardness, crystal forms, Lustre and density found ¡n minerals?
Answer:
Formation of a particular mineral, depends upon a combination of elements which in turn depends upon the physical and chemical conditions during formation.

Related Theory:
Geologists classify minerals based on the formation of the minerals, their age and their physical and chemical composition.

Question 2.
How is iron-ore transported from Kudremukh mines to a port near Mangalore?
Answer:

Question 3.
Why are minerals important for us ?
Answer:
Everything we use, from a safety pin to a building to an aeroplane is made up of minerals. Any life processes cannot occur without minerals.

Question 4.
How do minerals occur in sedimentary rocks?
Answer:

Question 5.
Being a tropical country, India has enormous possibilities of tapping solar energy. Suggest any one way to popularize its maximum use.
Answer:
By encouraging the use of resources/use of rooftop solar panels/solar street lighting systems.

Question 6.
A concerted effort has to be made for sustainable development. Suggest any one step in conserving our mineral resources for the future.
Answer:
Improved technologies and recycling of metals can help in conserving our resources.

Question 7.
Which type of minerals are mainly obtained from veins and lodes?
Answer:
Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc etc. are obtained from veins and lodes.

Question 8.
Why is energy needed ? Write one reason.
Answer:
Energy is required for all kinds of activities like cooking, lighting and heating, propelling vehicles and enabling smooth working of machinery in industries.

Question 9.
Differentiate between veins and lodes.
Answer:
The smaller occurrences of minerals in the cracks are called veins. The larger occurrences of minerals in the cracks are called lodes.

Related Theory
In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface.

Question 10.
What are the two types of occurrences of minerals in igneous and metamorphic rocks?
Answer:
Minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks in these forms:
(1) The smaller occurrence called veins.
(2) The larger occurrence called lodes.

Question 11.
What is minerals?
Answer:

Question 12.
Why does aluminium metal have great importance?
Answer:
Aluminium is capable of combining the strength of metals such as iron with qualities like extreme lightness and with good conductivity and great malleability.

Question 13.
Which mineral is used to harden steel during its manufacturing?
Answer:
Manganese is used to harden steel during its manufacturing.

Question 14.
Suggest any one to enhance the use of natural gas in India.
Answer:
Using natural gas for cooking is one way to enhance the use of natural gas in India.

Question 15.
Why should the use of cattle cake as fuel be discouraged?
Answer:

Question 16.
How are Gobar Gas Plants beneficial to the farmers?
Answer:
The residue from Gobar Gas Plants is known to be extremely beneficial for the strength and productivity of soil which benefits the farmers.

Question 17.
Name four bauxite-producing states.
Answer:
Bauxite producing states are:

Jharkhand
Orissa
Gujarat
Maharashtra.

Question 18.
Name three states which are known for the production of mica.
Answer:
Mica producing states are:

Jharkhand
Bihar
Andhra Pradesh.

Question 19.
What are commercial sources of energy?
Answer:
The commercial sources of energy are: Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas, Hydro-electricity and Nuclear energy.

Question 20.
What are conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
The conventional sources of energy are Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas and Electricity.

Question 21.
Name six non-commercial sources of energy.
Answer:

Question 22.
Name three most important coal producing states of India.
Answer:
Three important coal producing states are

Jharkhand,
Orissa
West Bengal.

Question 23.
Mention three areas where petroleum is found in India.
Answer:
Gujarat, Mumbai High and Assam are three areas of petroleum.

Question 24.
What is Anthracite?
Answer:
Anthracite is the highest quality of hard coal.

Question 25.
List four non-conventional energy resources.
Answer:

Question 26.
Suggest two ways of conserving minerals.
Answer:
Recycling of metals and discovering new substitutes for metals are ways of conserving minerals.

Question 27.
Name two non-metallic minerals.
Answer:
Mica and marble are non-metallic minerals.

Question 28.
How do minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks?
Answer:
In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger ones are called lodes.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

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Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQs On Power Sharing

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate Option:
The Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are known as……………..
(a) Indian Tamils
(b) Muslim Tamils
(c) Sri Lankan Tamils
(d) Christian Tamils
Answer:
(c) Sri Lankan Tamils

Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Which of the following terms/phrases appropriately describes “Eelam”?
(a) A city or a town
(b) A Nation/State
(c) Bureaucracy
(d) Cricket Team

Class 10 Power Sharing MCQ Question 3.
Choose the correctly matched pair about the different forms of sharing of power from the following options:
(I) Vertical Power sharing- UK
(II) Horizontal Power sharing- India
(III) Federal Division of Power- Sri Lanka
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (III) only
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Answer:
(b) Horizontal Power sharing- India

Explanation: India follows a system where power to legislate, execute the laws and adjudicate the execution are divided among three different organs of the government- all at the same level. This is called the Horizontal division of Power.

Related Theory
Federat Division of Power is the division of power among governments at different levels. This could be seen in Belgium- where power is divided among Central and Community government at the centre. Sri Lanka does not follow this. Vertical Power sharing can be found in the US and India.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 MCQ Question 4.
With respect to the concept of power-sharing, which of the following statements is not correct about Democracy?
(a) People rule themselves through representatives and institutions of self-governance in a democracy.
(b) People are the source of all political power and this power must be shared among them.
(c) Democratic countries believe in giving respect to ethnically diverse groups and views.
(d) Democracy does not allow the citizens to participate in the political process because power is only shared among representatives.
Answer:
(d) Democracy does not allow the citizens to participate in the political process because power is only shared among representatives. Explanation: Citizens exercise their power in elections where they choose their own representatives. Thus they hold the greatest amount of power.

Power Sharing MCQ Class 10 Question 5.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
…………… elects the communist government in Belgium.
(a) People belonging to the respective language communities.
(b) All the citizens of Belgium.
(c) Belgium’s leaders
(d) Ministers of the central government of Belgium
Answer:

MCQ Of Power Sharing Class 10 Question 6.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Belgium: Dutch-speaking community, Sri Lanka-……………..
(a) Sinhalas
(b) Sri Lankan Tamils
(c) Indian Tamils
(d) Muslims
Answer:
(a) Sinhalas

Ch 1 Civics Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
Which of the following institutions is not one of the three organs of government that share powers?
(a) Legislature
(b) Bureaucracy
(c) Executive
(d) Judiciary
Answer:
(b) Bureaucracy

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which of the following measures does not establish Sinhala supremacy in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala is the only official language.
(b) Preferential Policies for government jobs.
(c) The state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
(d) Equal political rights to Sri Lankan Tamils.
Answer:
(d) Equal political rights to Sri Lankan Tamils.

Explanation: Other measures made Tamils feel neglected and ignored in their own country.

MCQ On Power Sharing Class 10 Question 9.
Modern democracies maintain a check and balance system. Identify the correct option based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.
(a) Central government, state government and local bodies.
(b) Legislature, executive and judiciary.
(c) Among different social groups.
(d) Among different pressure groups.
Answer:
(b) Legislature, executive and judiciary

Explanation: Power sharing among legis¬lature, executive and judiciary is an example of horizontal distribution of power because these organs are placed at the same level and are allotted different powers, functions and jurisdictions. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs exercise unlimited power. This results in a balance of power among various institutions.

Related Theory
India is a federal country with a three-tier system, namely: central government, state government and local bodies. The constitution originally provided for a two-tier system and the third tier was added later, which administered local bodies. These tiers enjoy seperate jurisdictions and powers.

Civics Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 10.
By 1980s which part of Sri Lanka were the political organizations demanding to create an independent Tamil Eelam?
(a) Northern parts
(b) Eastern parts
(c) Western parts
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:

Civics Chapter 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
Belgium is a small country, located in which of the following continent?
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) North America
(d) None the these
Answer:

Class 10 Civics Ch 1 MCQ Question 12.
Which one of the following is a major ethnic group of Sri Lanka?
(a) Christian and Tamil
(b) Buddhist and Hindu
(c) Sinhalia and Tamil
(d) Sinhalia and Christian
Answer:
(c) Sinhalia and Tamil

Explanation: Tamils make up 18% of the ethnicity of Sri Lanka, and the Sinhalese community makes up 74% of the population, forming the largest ethnic composition in Sri Lanka.

Civics Ch 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 13.
There are countries in which the constitution clearly lays down the powers of different levels of government. This is called:
(a) Unitary division of power
(b) Federal division of power
(c) Constitutional division of power
(d) Only (c)
Answer:

Chapter 1 Civics Class 10 MCQ Question 14.
Under which of the following is power shared in the ‘community government’ of Belgium?
(a) Different social groups
(b) Different organs of government
(c) Central and State government
(d) State government and community government.
Answer:

Power Sharing MCQ Questions Question 15.
Which one of the following statements describes a special problem that Brussels presented?
(a) The Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but minority in the capital.
(b) The French-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but minority in the capital.
(c) The Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country and in the capital as welL
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) The Dutch-speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but minority in the capital

Question 16.
Power-sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups. This is an example of which reason of the power-sharing?
(a) Prudential
(b) Moral
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Prudential

Explanation: There are two set of reasons of power sharing-prudential and moral. Prudential reasons stress that power-sharing will bring out better outcomes while moral reasons emphasize the very act of power-sharing as valuable.

Question 17.
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in which of the following year?
(a) 1946
(b) 1947
(c) 1948
(d) 1949
Answer:
(c) 1948

Question 18.
Which country has successfully negotiated differences among ethnic populations?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Belgium
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(b) Belgium

Explanation: The Belgian Government recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to work out an arrangement to settle these ethnic diversities.

Related Theory
Sri Lanka could not solve the problem of their ethnic variation and suffered through a Civil war. Pakistan and Bangladesh however both continue to suffer through problems due to ethnic diversity. Most minority groups are dominated and suppressed in these nations.

Question 19.
What major steps did the Belgian government take to enable everyone to live together within the same country? Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) They amended their constitution four times
(b) They amended their constitution three times
(c) They formed a communist government
(d) Only (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) They amended their constitution four times

Explanation: Between 1970 and 1993, the Belgians amended their constitution four times.

Question 20.
Which of the following was the main reason for the killing of thousands of people in Sri Lanka?
(a) Cold war between Sinhala and Tamil-speaking population
(b) Civil war between Sinhala and Tamil-speaking population
(c) Atomic war between Sinhala and Tamil-speaking population
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Civil war between Sinhala and Tamil¬speaking population

Question 21.
Belgium shares its border with how many countries of Europe?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
Answer:
(b) Four

Explanation: Belgium shares its border with four countries-France, Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.

Question 22.
Which of the following government in Belgium has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues?
(a) The Communist Government
(b) The Community Government
(c) The Central Government
(d) The Provincial Government
Answer:

Question 23.
A country in which principle of majoritarianism led to civil war:
(a) Belgium
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Netherlands
(d) Germany
Answer:
(b) Sri Lanka

Explanation: To secure dominance over the government by virtue of their majority, the government passed various acts favoring Sinhala Speakers. The distrust between the two communities- Sri Lanka Tamils and Sinhala Speaking Majority community turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into Civil war. As a result thousands of people of both communities have been killed.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 24.
Identify the form of power-sharing:
(1) The power-sharing arrangement between different organs of the government at the same level
(2) It is found in India.
Answer:
Horizontal form of power-sharing

Question 25.
Identify the country:
(1) It covers less area than the state of Haryana.
(2) It shares its geographical borders with the Netherlands, France and Germany.
(3) Its population is half that of Haryana.
Answer:

Question 26.
Identify the community:
(1) They form a majority in Belgium.
(2) They do not speak French.
(3) They are concentrated in the Flemish Region.
Answer:
The Dutch-speaking community.

Explanation: Belgium’s 59 percent population lives in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch language.

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 27.
Belgium is a small country in Europe and share borders with France, Italy, Germany and Luxembourg.
Answer:
Belgium is a small country in Europe and share borders with France, the Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.

Question 28.
Of the country’s total population, 59 per cent lives in the Wallonia region and speaks Dutch language.
Answer:

Question 29.
In Srilanka, an Act was passed in 1956 to recognize Tamil as the only official language, disregarding Sinhala.
Answer:
In Srilanka. an Act was passed in 1956 to recognize Sinhala as the only official language, disregarding Tamil.

Question 30.
In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak Dutch while 20 percent are French-speaking.
Answer:
In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak French while 20 percent are Dutch-speaking.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 31.
The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an offcial language, or regional autonomy and ……….
Answer:
Equality of opportunity in securing education andjobs

Explanation: The Act of 1956 established Sinhala supremacy in Sri Lanka and increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils which strained the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities over time.

Question 32.
The Belgian government shifted to a federal from a…………….. form of government.
Answer:
Unitary

Explanation: Change of system from Unitary to Federal enabled Belgium to accommodate regional diversities and cultural differences. Federal set up involved providing equal opportunities of sustenance, livelihood and policymaking to both French and Dutch speaking, division of powers of central government etc

Question 33.
Rural Local Government is popularly known as …………….
Answer:
Panchayats

Explanation: The lowest level of government- the local government is also called Panchayats. Federal division of power has enabled countries to divide central power into subunits.

Question 34.
Between 1970-1993, the Constitution of Belgium was amended …… times.
Answer:
Four

Question 35.
………….. is the headquarters of the European Union.
Answer:
Brussels

Explanation: Brussels, the capital city of Belgium was chosen as the headquarters for a group of European Nations called the European Union.

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 36.
Match the following percentage of the population from column A with the social groups in column B:

Column A (Percentage of Population)	Column B (Social Groups)
(a) 59 Percent	(i) French-speakers
(b) 74 Percent	(ii) Dutch-speakers
(c) 40 Percent	(iii) Tamil-speakers
(d) 18 Percent	(iv) Sinhala-speakers

Answer:

Column A (Percentage of Population)	Column B (Social Groups)
(a) 59 Percent	(ii) Dutch-speakers
(b) 74 Percent	(iv) Sinhala-speakers
(c) 40 Percent	(i) French-speakers
(d) 18 Percent	(iii) Tamil-speakers

Question 37.
Match the following keywords from column A with their explanation in column B:

Column A (Keywords)	Column B(Explanation)
(a) Ethnic	(i) A belief that Let majority community rule a country
(b) Civil war	(ii) Calculation of gains and tosses
(c) Prudential	(iii) Conflict between opposing groups
(d) Majorftarian	(iv) Division based on shared culture

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 1

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 38.
Assertion (A): In a democracy, people are the source of all political power
Reason (R): This is because democracy is the rule of the people, for the people, by the people.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 39.
Assertion (A): Although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of the executive or laws made by the legislatures.
Reason (R): Judges are superior and more experienced than the executive.
Answer:

Question 40.
Assertion (A): Social conflict often leads to violence and political instability.
Reason (R): It brings disharmony among the social groups and destroys the peace of the region.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Imposing the will of the majority community over others, undermines the unity of the nation.
Reason (R): It divides the majority community itself.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: This is because due to majoritarianism the minority community begins to feel like its needs are neglected. It feels isolated and tends to develop feelings of secessionism.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Study the given picture and answer the qustion that follows:

Which of the following statements appropriately describe the picture?
(a) Concentration of power under one centre undermines the concept of democracy.
(b) Concentration of power in one hand helps to make quick decisions.
(c) Democracy can help in division of powers.
(d) Despotic rulers do not leave much scope for power sharing.
Answer:
(a) Concentration of power under one centre undermines the concept of democracy.

Question 2.
Read the source and answer the following question:
Power can be shared among governments at different Levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level. Such a general government for the entire country is usually called the federal government. In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union Government.
Which of the following types of division of powers best describes the power division between the higher and lower levels of government?
(a) Horizontal division
(b) Side by Side division
(c) Triangle division
(d) Vertical Division
Answer:
(d) Vertical Division

Explanation: The division of powers between the government at the central level and at the state level can be seen as a vertical division because these governments are at different levels, forming a hierarchy. Hence the name vertical arrangement.

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
One basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all political power. In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-government. In a good democratic government, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society. Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies.

In modern democracies, which of the following options is not a form of power sharing arrangements?
(a) Among different organs of government, such as the Legislature, executive and judiciary.
(b) Among governments at different levels- a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level.
(c) Among different social groups.
(d) Among different genders.
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The Leaders of the SinhaLa community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of MAJOR.ITALIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.
What do you mean by Majoritarian measures and majoritarianism? Explain with emphasis as to what happened in Sri Lanka.
Answer:
The belief that a majority community can dominate multiple minority communities only because it has more number of people and can administer a country according to its own whims and fancies, without considering or respecting the interests of the minority community is called Majoritarianism. Measures to favour the majority are called majoritarian measures.

Majoritarianism was practiced in Sri Lanka when a democractically elected government assumed power in the parliament and to please the majority, passed laws supporting Sinhala speakers neglecting the interest of Sri lankan Tamils Sinhala speakers were preferred in educational and professional institutions above Sri Lankan Tamils. This turned into civil war due to rising conflicts between the two communities.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
“In the city of Beirut there lived a man called Khalil. His parents came from different communities. His father was an Orthodox Christian and mother a Sunni Muslim. This was not so uncommon in this modern, cosmopolitan city. People from various communities that lived in Lebanon came to live in its capital, Beirut. They lived together, intermingled, yet fought a bitter civil war among themselves.
One of Khalil’s uncles was killed in that war.

At the end of this civil war, Lebanon’s leaders came together and agreed to some basic rules for power sharing among different communities. As per these rules, the country’s President must belong to the Maronite sect of Catholic Christians. The Prime Minister must be from the Sunni Muslim community. The post of Deputy Prime Minister is fixed for Orthodox Christian sect and that of the Speaker for Shi’a Muslims. Under this pact, the Christians agreed not to seek French protection and the Muslims agreed not to seek unification with the neighbouring state of Syria.

When the Christians and Muslims came to this agreement, they were nearly equal in population. Both sides have continued to respect this agreement though now the Muslims are in clear majority. Khalil does not like this system one bit. He is a popular man with political ambition. But under the present system the top position is out of his reach. He does not practise either his father’s or his mother’s religion and does not wish to be known by either. He cannot understand why Lebanon can’t be like any other ‘normal’ democracy.
(A) Why can’t Lebanon be a normal democracy?
Answer:

(B) Give a name to this arrangement in Lebanon.
(a) Democratic arrangement
(b) Unitary Arrangement
(c) Power sharing arrangement
(d) Autocratic arrangement
Answer:
(c) Power sharing arrangement

Explanation: The sharing of highest posts and powers between the two religious sects is catted power sharing arrangement. It is done to accommodate civil war Like situations.

(C) Which of the following types of ethnic diversities is found in Lebanon?
(a) Caste Divisions
(b) Religious Divisions
(c) Gender Division
(d) Regional Division
Answer:
(b) Religious Divisions

Explanation: The Orthodox Christian and Sunni Muslim are the two religious communities- ethnicaLLy diverse from one another are found in Lebanon.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided political power. For a long time it was believed that all power of a government must reside in one person or group of persons located at one place. It was felt that if the power to decide is dispersed, it would not be possible to take quick decisions and to enforce them. But these notions have changed with the emergence of democracy.

One basic principle of democracy is that people rule themselves through institutions of self¬governance. In a good democratic government, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society. Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies. Therefore, it follows that in a democracy political power should be distributed among as many citizens as possible.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which one of the following is not one of the principles of democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power.
(b) People rule themselves through institutions of self-governance
(c) Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies.
(d) State governments are not as powerful as the Central government and work under their thumb.
Answer:
(d) State governments are not as powerful as the Central government and work under their thumb.

Explanation: Democracy is a political system where the will of the people is supreme. Hence it is considered before each decision is taken.

(B) Which of the following is used as another name to the Federal government in India?
(a) The Union Government
(b) The regional government
(c) The Provincial Government
(d) Community government
Answer:

(C) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
……………….. is an institution of self-governance.
(a) Panchayat
(b) Shopping Mall
(c) Restaurant
(d) Automobile Company
Answer:
(a) Panchayat

(D) Choose the correct option from the following for this description:
When power is divided between higher and lower levels of government, we can call it:
(a) Horizontal division of power-sharing
(b) Vertical division of power-sharing
(c) Diagonal Division of Power Sharing
(d) Unitary Division of Power sharing
Answer:
(b) Vertical division of power sharing Explanation: In vertical division of power sharing, central or federal or union government is the top level government meant for the entire country, below it are the state governments meant for states in India while the municipality and panchayat are the government lower than the state governments.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an oftcial language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs. But their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. By 1980s several political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state) in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka. The distrust between the two communities turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into a CIVIL WAR. As a result thousands of people of both the communities have been killed. Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many more lost their livelihoods. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following statements is not true about the Civil War of Sri Lanka?
(a) It was fought between Sri Lankan Muslim Tamils and Buddhist Sinhalese.
(b) It ended in 2009.
(c) It caused a lot of bloodshed among the civilians and the military.
(d) Sri Lankan Tamils caused struggles because their demands of autonomous state were disapproved.
Answer:
(a) It was fought between Sri Lankan Muslim Tamils and Buddhist Sinhalese.
Explanation: It was fought between the two top most communities- Sri Lankan Tamils and Buddhist Sinhali population.

(B) Which of the following statements is/are true about the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka?
(a) Singhalese form the majority only at the capital of Sri Lanka.
(b) Sri Lankan Tamils constituted about 82% of the total population of Sri Lanka.
(c) Singhalese and Tamils equally populate Sri Lanka.
(d) Singhalese dominate Sri Lankan Tamils throughout Sri Lanka.
Answer:
(d) Singhalese dominate Sri Lankan Tamils throughout Sri Lanka.

(C) Choose the correctly matched pair.
(I) Belgium – Linguistically variant populations
(II) India – Racially variant populations
(III) Sri Lanka – Religiously variant Population
(IV) Lebanon – Linguistically variant populations
(a) (I) only
(b) (III) & (IV) only
(c) (I) & (III) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:

(D) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
They wanted a separate state for themselves in Sri Lanka.
(a) Muslims
(b) Sinhalese
(c) Sri Lankan Christians
(d) Sri Lankan Tamils
Answer:
(d) Sri Lankan Tamils
Explanation: Tamils felt that they were ignored and neglected in Sri Lanka.

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow
Two different sets of reasons can be given in favour of power-sharing. Firstly, power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups. Since social conflict often leads to violence and political instability, power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order. Imposing the will of majority community over others may look like an attractive option in the short run, but in the long run it undermines the unity of the nation. Tyranny of the majority is not just oppressive for the minority; it often brings ruin to the majority as well. There is a second, deeper reason why power sharing is good for democracies. Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy. A democratic rule involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise, and who have to live with its effects. People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which one of the following is a prudential reason for power sharing?
(a) Power sharing helps in reducing the possibility of conflict between various social groups
(b) Power sharing is the spirit of democracy.
(c) Power sharing helps to strengthen a democratic political system.
(d) Power sharing makes it easier for governments to gather support.
Answer:

(B) Which of the following cart be an example of social division ending in violence?
(a) Sri Lankan Civil War
(b) Belgian Constitutional Amendment
(c) Indian adoption of Federalism
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Sri Lankan Civil War.
Explanation: Other two were peaceful, methodical processes.

(C) In a democracy, the power is not shared with:
(a) People who live in the democracy
(b) Social Groups which are present in the democracy
(c) Leaders of the governments
(d) Neighbouring countries
Answer:
(d) Neighbouring countries
Explanation: In a sovereign country, no external country can influence it in making any decision.

(D) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Tyranny means
(a) Government by a single or multiple rulers with few powers
(b) Government by a single or multiple rulers with absolute power
(c) Government by a single ruler
(d) Government by multiple rulers
Answer:
(b) Government by a single or multiple rulers with absolute power.
Explanation: Giving absolute powers in the hands of an individual or a group can lead to tyrannical or despotic government.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How and when was Sinhala recognised as the official language of Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Sinhala was recognised as the national language of Sri Lanka in 1956 through an act.

Question 2.
Which factor is responsible for increasing the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils?
Answer:
Majoritarianism of the democratically elected government.

Question 3.
Which types of powers does the Community government of Belgium enjoy? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
The government enjoys powers related to matters regarding culture, education and language of the people.

Question 4.
Who formed the majority in terms of population in Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Sinhala community.

Question 5.
What is a Homogenous Society?
Answer:
It shares a common language, ethnicity and culture. For example- Japan and South Korea.

Question 6.
What does the system of checks and balances ensure in power sharing?
Answer:

Question 7.
Why is power sharing desirable? Explain one reason.
Answer:
Power sharing reduces possibilities of social conflicts and the accumulation of powers in the hands of a particular group of people.

Question 8.
How is community government elected in Belgium?
Answer:

Question 9.
Recognize the form of power sharing which is represented by the Community Government in Belgium.
Answer:
Power sharing among different social groups like the religious and linguistic groups,

Question 10.
An independent Tamil Eelam was one of the main demands of the Tamils in Sri Lanka. What is meant by ‘Eelam’ here?
Answer:
Here ‘Eelam’ means a separate state exclusively meant for the Tamils.

Question 11.
Why is there a need to give space to diverse social groups in the administration of a democratic country? Give any one reason.
Answer:
It is necessary to give space to diverse social groups in the administration of a country to avoid majoritarianism, accumulation of power in the hands of a particular social group which would lead to social conflicts.

Question 12.
Why is power sharing good for democracies? Explain one reason.
Answer:
Power sharing is good for the democracy as it helps to reduce conflicts between the social groups. Since social conflicts often lead to violence and political instability, power sharing is a good way to ensure stability and political order.

Related Theory
Power sharing is a term used to describe a system of governance in which power is proportionately divided between different organs of government, like judiciary, legislature and executive, and between different levels of government.

Question 13.
How did the feeLing of aLienation develop among Sri Lankan Thmils?
Answer:

Question 14.
Differentiate between community government in Belgium and majoritarian government in Sri Lanka.
Answer:

Belgium	Sri Lanka
(1) They adopted a policy of power-sharing.	They adopted a policy of majoritarianism.
(2) They gave equal powers to all communities whether majority or minority	They gave preferences to the majority (Sinhala) group alone disregarding the minority (Tamils).
(3) Hence, peace was maintained in Belgium.	Hence, conflicts arose in the two communities of Sri Lanka,

Question 15.
Why was there an acute problem in Brussels during 1950s and 1960s between the two communities ?
Answer:
There was a problem in Brussels in the 1950s and 1960s because the Dutch speaking people constituted majority in the country but were a minority in the capital.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Sectors of Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers

Economics Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQs On Sectors of Indian Economy

Sectors Of Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following statements is correct about the GDP?
(a) It shows how big the economy of a country is in terms of purchasing power.
(b) It shows the total product of a country in a given year without calculating the national income.
(c) It shows the number of people involved in production in the tertiary sector in a year.
(d) It shows the value of total goods and services produced in a country in a year.
Answer:
(d) It shows the value of total goods and services produced in a country in a year.

Related Theory
The purchasing power of a country depends upon the value of its currency and the power of its currency to buy commodities.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Which organization conducts a survey on employment and unemployment?
(a) NSSO
(b) NREGA
(c) ILO – International Labour Organisation
(d) NITI Aayog
Answer:
(a) NSSO

Explanation: The National Sample Survey Organisation takes a survey every 5 years and data is collated thereafter.

Sector Of Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Identify which of these is a natural product?
(a) Clothes
(b) A Book
(c) Jute
(d) Apple Juice

Sectors Of Indian Economy MCQ Question 4.
Which of the following examples does not fall under the unorganized sector?
(a) A shoemaker mending shoes.
(b) A daily wage laborer working to build a house.
(c) An HR employee working for a software company.
(d) A cook cooking in the house of her boss.
Answer:
(c) An HR employee working for a software company.

Class 10 Sectors Of Indian Economy MCQ Question 5.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
…………….. owns the Reliance Industries.
(a) The government
(b) A private business or a group
(c) A Bank
(d) Jointly by private companies and the govt.
Answer:
(b) A private business or a group

Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 MCQ Question 6.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
NREGA (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005) has guaranteed ……………… days of employment in a year in many districts of India.
(a) 365 days
(b) 100 days
(c) 50 days
(d) 180 days
Answer:
(b) 100 days

Sectors Of The Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 7.
…………..is also known as Underemployment.
(a) Disguised Employment
(b) Overemployment
(c) Visible Employment
(d) Extra Employment
Answer:
(a) Disguised Employment

Explanation: Disguised employment is when people having potential to do full time employment are under utilized.

MCQ On Sectors Of Indian Economy Question 8.
Where will you find the disguised unemployment most? Select the correct option from those given below:
(a) Among agricultural workers working on self- owned small farm lands
(b) Factory workers
(c) Private company owners and employees
(d) Government officials
Answer:
(a) Among agricultural workers working on self-owned small farmlands Explanation: Almost all family works on these lands despite their size and this is why the productivity of these workers is less.

Economics Chapter 2 Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
Choose the incorrect pair from the following:

List I	List II
(a) Mailman	Tertiary sector
(b) Fisherman	Primary sector
(c) Carpenter	Primary sector
(d) Banker	Tertiary sector

Explanation: Carpenter creates furniture out of wood and hence can be classified in the secondary sector. He produces goods by exploiting a natural resource. Both mailman and banking provide services classifying them as tertiary sector employees. Fisherman exploits natural water resources- the fishes and hence are workers of the primary sector.
Answer:
(c) Carpenter – Primary Sector

Economics Class 10 Chapter 2 MCQ Question 10.
Which is not a characteristic of an unorganized sector?
(a) Small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government
(b) Rules and regulations are not followed
(c) Jobs here are high-paid and often regular
(d) No provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays, medical leaves.
Answer:
(c) Jobs here are high-paid and often regular.

MCQ Of Sectors Of Indian Economy Question 11.
MGNREGA 2005 implements the …………… in about 625 districts of India.
(a) Right to Property
(b) Right to Education
(c) Right to Work
(d) Right to Life
Answer:

MCQ Sectors Of Indian Economy Question 12.
Which of the following profession belongs to the Tertiary Sector of the economy?
(a) Fisherman
(b) Farmer
(c) Woodcutter
(d) Teacher
Answer:
(d) Teacher

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Question 13.
In which sector, do workers enjoy job security?
(a) Agriculture sector
(b) Private-sector
(c) Organised sector
(d) Unorganised sector
Answer:
(c) Organised sector

Explanation: Organised Sector includes industries, shops, factories and businesses registered with the government. They follow labor laws and other rules and regulations laid down by the government. They also provide job security, health care benefits and other incentives to its employees.

Related Theory
Agricultural Sector, Unorganised sector and Private Sector are all unregistered or not backed by the government and hence offer no job security or promise of a dignified life.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Important MCQ With Answers Question 14.
Which among the following most appropriately describes underemployment?
(a) Workers are not paid as per their work
(b) Workers are working less than what they are capable of doing
(c) Workers are unskilled
(d) Workers are not willing to work
Answer:
(b) Workers are working less than what they are capable of doing

Explanation: When workers are employed in larger numbers than they’re required, their effort becomes divided. This means that here people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than their true potential, and removing some of them won’t affect production at all. This is underemployment.

Sectors Of Indian Economy MCQs Question 15.
Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) Transporting cloth to the workshops
(ii) Sale in shops and showrooms
(iii) Spinning the yarn
(iv) Weaving of the fabric
Options:
(a) (i)-(iv)-(iii)-(iv)
(b) (iii)-(iv)-(i)-(ii)
(c) (iv)-(i)-(ii)-(iii)
(d) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)

Identify the following on basis of the hints given in each question.

Question 16.
Identify the sector:
(1) Sector is categorized based on types of activities
(2) Activities that are included in this sector are undertaken by directly using natural resources.
(3) Employed the most number of people in 2000
Answer:
Primary or the Agricultural sector

Question 17.
Identify the sector:
(1) Sector is categorized based on types of activities
(2) Activities which are included in this sector are services offered to professionals
(3) No good is produced
Answer:
Tertiary or the Service Sector

Question 18.
Identify the sector:
(1) Sector is categorized based on ownership of activities
(2) Private individuals and companies owns most of the assets
(3) Main driving force of this sector is profit.
Answer:

Question 19.
Read the conditions given below and identify in which sector Naresh is working?

Characteristics	Facilities
Job Security	No
Medical Facility	No
Fixed working Hours	No

Answer:
Unorganised Sector

Fill in the blanks/tables with suitable information:

Question 20.
When we produce goods by exploiting natural products, it is an activity of the ………….

Question 21.
The …………… sector has become most important in terms of share of the total production in developed countries.
Answer:
Tertiary

Explanation: In case of most developed and developing countries, production in all sectors has grown but tertiary sector has grown the most due to reasons like more development and improvement in Lifestyle. It employs a very large number of people in the world.

Question 22.
In the …………………… sector, the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services.
Answer:
Public

Question 23.
………….. is an example of an unorganized sector activity.
Answer:
A daily wage labourer working under a contractor

Related Theory
An Unorganised sector is characterised by small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government. Rules and regulations are not followed in this sector. There’s absence of labour rules and job security in this sector.

Question 24.
Fill the blanks in table with correct answer:

Occupations	Sectors
Tailor	Tertiary
(A)-?	Primary
Astronaut	(B)-?

Answer:

Question 25.
Workers in the ………… sector do not produce goods.
Answer:
Tertiary

Explanation: Workers in Primary and Secondary Sector produce goods while workers in Tertiary sector provide services.

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Match the following sectors in Column A with their status given in Column B:

Column A (Sectors)	Column B (Status)
(a) Public sector	(i) Service sector
(b) Primary sector	(ii) Regular employment
(c) Tertiary sector	(iii) Government owns it
(d) Organised sector	(iv) Exploits natural resources

Answer:

Column A (Sectors)	Column B (Status)
(a) Public sector	(iii) Government owns it
(b) Primary sector	(iv) Exploits natural resources
(c) Tertiary sector	(i) Service sector
(d) Organised sector	(ii) Regular employment

Question 27.
Match the following occupations in Column A with their sectors in Column B:

Column A (Occupations)	Column B (Sectors)
(a) Bee-keeper	(i) Secondary sector
(b) Priest	(ii) Unorganised sector
(c) Construction worker	(iii) Primary sector
(d) Basket weaver	(iv) Tertiary sector

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Economics Chapter 2

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 28.
Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 29.
Assertion (A): GDP (Gross Domestic Product) shows how big the economy is.
Reason (R): GDP of a country is the value of all intermediate goods and services produced within a country during a particular year.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

Explanation: GDP is the total sum of the values of all final goods and services produced by all sectors within a country during a particular year. It indicates how developed and successful an economy is.

Question 30.
Assertion (A): Underemployment can also be called disguised unemployment.
Reason (R): Each person is doing some work but no-one is fully employed according to their true potential. This type of unemployment is hidden unlike the common type of unemployment where the job seeker clearly has no job.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Correct Explanation of (A).

Question 31.
Assertion (A): The data for India, for the last thirty years, shows that while goods and services produced in the tertiary sector contribute the most to GDP, the highest employment is offered by the primary sector.
Reason (R): Tertiary sector offers limited growth.
Answer:

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Government needs to pay attention to aspects of human development such as availability of safe drinking water, housing facilities for the poor, food and nutrition.
Reason (R): Private Sector cannot offer development.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Private sector is based on profit and thus cannot contribute a lot in growth of the people, only the public sector run by the government can fulfill that responsibility.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after.
Reason (R): Because the sector offers high and regular pay.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 34.
Assertion (A): There is also a need for protection and support of the workers in the unorganized sector.
Reason (R): Workers in an unorganised sector get paid really less and are heavily exploited.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The workers of the unorganized sector are often exploited and not paid a fair wage. Their earnings are Low and not regular. These jobs are not secure and have no other benefits. They also face social discrimination.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
1/1/hat it means is that there are more people in agriculture than is necessary. So, even if you move a few people out, production will not be affected. In other words, workers in the agricultural sector are underemployed.
Choose one correct statement from the following:
Underemployment occurs:
(a) when people are not willing to work.
(b) when people are working slowly.
(c) when people are working less than what they are capable of doing.
(d) when people are not paid for their jobs.
Answer:
(c) when people are working less than what they are capable of doing.

Explanation: This kind of condition occurs when people work but their efforts get divided. More than the required amount of workers are involved and hence their productivity is reduced.

Question 2.
Match the items in Column A to the items in Column B.
table-1
(a) (A)-(ll), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(l)
(b) (A)-(lll), (B)-(IV), (C)-(ll), (D)-(l)
(c) (A)-(lll), (B)-(l), (C)-(IV), (D)-(li)
(d) (A)-(l), (B)-(IM), (C)-(ll), (D)-(l)
Answer:

Question 3.
Study the picture given below and identify to what sector does the activity belong to:

(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Tertiary Sector

Explanation: A woman can be seen buying clothes from the other. A service is being provided to the customer using already manufactured goods. Such services are classified under Tertiary Sector.

Related Theory
A sector which provide services and support to Primary and Secondary Sector is called as Tertiary Sector.

Question 4.
Observe the picture given below and answer the question that follows.

Which sector does the worker in given cartoon represent?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Primary

Explanation: The picture is of a farmer. This is a primary sector activity because what she does forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector.

Question 5.
Study this picture. Answer the question that follows:

Identify the sector to which the worker in the picture belongs ?
Answer:
Tertiary Sector.

Explanation: Both of these workers provide services while one is a shopkeeper other is a milk seller and sells already manufactured products. They do not produce anything on their own. and hence come under tertiary sector.

Question 6.
Analyse the table given below and answer the question that follows:
This source shows a database of Workers employed in different sectors (in millions)

Calculate, the percentage of people in organised sector.
(a) 8.4%
(b) 9.6%
(c) 7.6%
(d) 10%
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
However, you must remember that not ail of the service sector is growing equally well. Service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative opportunities for work are available to them. Hence, only a part of this sector is growing in importance. You shall read more about this in the next section.
(A) Which of the following sectors is developing the most?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Organised Sector
Answer:
(c) Tertiary Sector

(B) Why is the Service sector growing unequally?
(a) There are not many types of jobs in Service sector
(b) All jobs offer similar growth but people are unable to utilise it.
(c) All types of jobs are not high paying jobs
(d) Service sector is not growing at all.
Answer:
All types of jobs are not high paying jobs Explanation: Hence some jobs offer higher growth and more offers while others which are not as lucrative do not offer much growth.

(D) Assertion (A): Service sector has the largest share among all three sectors but considerable less number of employees.
Reason (R): Service sector is underdeveloped.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Kanta works in an office. She attends her office from 9.30 a.m. to 5.30 p.m. She gets her salary regularly at the end of every month. In addition to the salary, she also gets provident fund as per the rules laid down by the government. She also gets medical and other allowances. Kanta does not go to the office on Sundays. This is a paid holiday. When she joined work, she was given an appointment letter stating all the terms and conditions of work.
Kamal is Kanta’s neighbour. He is a daily wage labourer in a nearby grocery shop. He goes to the shop at 7:30 in the morning and works till 8:00 p.m. in the evening. He gets no other allowances apart from his wages. He is not paid for the days he does not work. He has therefore no leave or paid holidays.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the
most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the sector Kanta works in.
(a) Unorganised Sector
(b) Private Sector
(c) Public Sector
(d) Organised Sector
Answer:
(a) She is given Medical Leaves.

(B) Which of the following statements is true about the facilities Kanta is provided at her workplace?
(a) She is given Medical Leaves.
(b) Extra payment for less services.
(c) She can be seasonally removed from her job.
(d) She is not given any paid leaves.
Answer:

(C) Identify the sector Kamal works in:
(a) Private Sector
(b) Unorganised Sector
(c) Public Sector
(d) Organised Sector
Answer:
(b) Unorganised Sector

(D) Which of the following statements is different for Kanta and Kamal?
(a) Fixed Hours at work
(b) Physical employment and activities at work
(c) Allowances and paid leaves
(d) They are exactly the same
Answer:
(c) Allowances and paid leaves

Explanation: Kanta receives her allowances because she works in the organised sector but Kamal does not because he works in a shop which belongs to the unorganised sector.

An online point estimate calculator will allow you to determine the best estimation value of the unknown population parameter with many estimation methods.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Where are most of the people employed? Graph 2 presents the percentage share of the three sectors in GDP. Now you can directly see the changing importance of the sectors over the forty years.

A remarkable fact about India is that while there has been a change in the share of the three sectors in GDP, a similar shift has not taken place in employment. Graph 3 shows the share of employment in the three sectors in 1977-78 and 2017-18. The primary sector continues to be the largest employer even now. Why didn’t a similar shift out of primary sector happen in case of employment? It is because not enough jobs were created in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing:
(A) Which of the following sectors has the highest share in the GDP?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Tertiary Sector
(c) Secondary Sector
(d) Both Tertiary and Secondary Sectors are equal in share of the GDP.
Answer:
(b) Tertiary Sector

(B) Which of the following statements is correct about the agricultural sector?
(a) The Agricultural Sector shares the largest contribution in the GDP.
(b) The Agricultural Sector employs the largest number of people in India.
(c) The share of the agricultural sector in the GDP has been rising over years.
(d) The share of the agricultural sector in the GDP has been fixed.
Answer:
(b) The Agricultural Sector employs the largest number of people in India.

(C) What kind of workers are employed in the tertiary sector?
(a) Both Skilled and Semi-Skilled
(b) Unskilled
(c) Only skilled
(d) Only semi-skilled
Answer:
(a) Both Skilled and Semi-Skilled

Explanation: Service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. It employs highly skilled and educated workers and also a number of workers engaged in services such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc.

(D) Which is the Second largest sector in terms of GDP share?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Tertiary Sector
(c) Secondary Sector
(d) Both Tertiary and Secondary Sectors are equal in share of the GDP.
Answer:
(c) Secondary Sector

Question 10.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
For instance, suppose many farmers decide to grow arhar and chickpea (pulse crops). Setting up a dal mill to procure and process these and sell in the cities is one such example. Opening a cold storage could give an opportunity for farmers to store their products like potatoes and onions and sell them when the price is good. In villages near forest areas, we can start honey collection centres where farmers can come and sell wild honey. It is also possible to set up industries that process vegetables and agricultural produce like potato, sweet potato, rice, wheat, tomato, fruits, which can be sold in outside markets. This will provide employment in industries located in semi-rural areas and not necessarily in large urban centres.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the primary sector activity from the following-
(a) Setting up a Dal Mill
(b) Growing Chickpeas
(c) Setting up Honey Collection centres
(d) Opening a cold storage and letting farmers keep their products here
Answer:
(b) Growing Chickpeas

(B) Identify the secondary sector activity from the following:
(a) Selling vegetables in outside markets
(b) Setting up a Dal Mill
(c) Growing arhar and peas
(d) Transporting bottled honey to city markets
Answer:
(b) Setting up a Dal Mill

(C) Identify the tertiary sector activity from the following:
(a) Setting up a Dal Mill
(b) Growing Chickpeas
(c) Setting up Honey Collection centres
(d) Opening a cold storage and letting farmers keep their products here.
Answer:
(d) Opening a cold storage and charging farmers for storage.

(D) Which sector of activities can be most commonly found in semi-rural areas?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) All three are found
Answer:
(a) Primary

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When we produce goods by exploiting natural resources in which category of economic sectors, such activities come?
Answer:
Primary Sector

Question 2.
In which sector is seasonal and disguised unemployment most prevalent in India?
Answer:
Primary Sector or the Agricultural Sector

Question 3.
Which communities generally find themselves in the unorganised sector?
Answer:
The poorest and most underprivileged communities find themselves in the unorganised sector.

Question 4.
In which sector is manufacturing included?
Answer:
Secondary Sector or the Industry Sector

Question 5.
ATM is an example of which sector?
Answer:
Tertiary Sector

Question 6.
Name the sector which continued to be the largest employer even in the year 2000.
Answer:
Agricultural or the primary sector

Question 7.
Iqbal along with five other members of his family worked as a farmer and produced 50 tons of wheat. Due to some dispute in the family, two members opted out of family business, but still remaining members of the family are able to produce 50 tons of Wheat. Can you name which kind of unemployment the members of the family were facing?
Answer:
Disguised employment.

Explanation: This is because people are employed in a work where their effort gets divided and not much productivity is achieved. They appear employed but they are not employed to their full capacity.

Question 8.
Suggest any one way to generate employment in urban areas.
Answer:
Following are the ways in which employment can be generated in urban areas:

Improve local and inter-city transportation.
Increase vocational education courses.

Question 9.
Which category of economic sector does the activity of changing natural products into other forms come under?
Answer:

Question 10.
How is GDP calculated?
Answer:
GDP in India is calculated by the expenditure method. Only final goods and services are counted to get the finaL value. Therefore, GDP = Value of output – Intermediate consumption.

Question 11.
How is public sector different from the private sector?
Answer:
The public sector is owned, managed and controlled by government whereas the private sector is owned, controlled and managed by individuals or group of individuals.

Question 12.
Why is the tertiary sector becoming an important sector in India? Explain the main reason.
Answer:

Question 13.
Look at the picture given below and identify the sector to which the characters (shown) belong to.

Answer:
The workers shown in the picture are associated with agricultural sector also known as Primary sector.
Explanation: Agriculture and related activities are classified under primary sector activities.

Question 14.
Suggest any one way to increase the income of the marginalised groups in India.
Answer:
Marginal farmers need to be supported through adequate facility for timely delivery of seeds, agricultural inputs, credit, storage facilities and marketing outlets.

Question 15.
Study the table below and answer the question that follows:

identify the sector that employs largest number of workers?
Answer:
Primary Sector employs the most number of employees including both Organised and Unorganised sectors.

Question 16.
What is GDP?
Answer:
GDP is the value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year.

Question 17.
Identify what sector does these products belong to?

Answer:
These products belong to Secondary Sector. Explanation: All of these products are created by processing products of the primary sector.
For example, clothes are made of cotton which is produced by cultivating its crops, food is prepared by cooking fruits and vegetables. Products which are created by processing primary sector products are classified into secondary sector.

Question 18.
Explain the main advantage of organised sector with respect to employment.
Answer:
In the organised sector, terms of employment are regular and people have assured work throughout the year.

Question 19.
Suggest any one way to create employment in semi-rural areas.
Answer:
By setting up of small and agro-based industries, employment can be created in semi-rural areas.

Question 20.
The table below shows the estimated number of workers in india in the organised and unorganised sectors. Read the table carefully and answer the question given below:

What percentage of tertiary sector workers in india are employed in Unorganised Sector according to the table?
Answer:

Question 21.
In a city, 5000 people work in offices and factories registered with the government, 3000 own offices, clinics in market places with formal license, 7000 people work on street, construction workers and domestic help whereas 9000 people work in small workshops usually not registered with the government. On the basis of the information given above calculate the percentage of people working in the Organised sector and choose the correct option.
(a) 20%
(b) 33%
(c) 50%
(d) 66%
Answer:
(b) 33%

Explanation: Number of People working in the Organised Sector (Companies with formal license of private business with license):
5000 + 3000 = 8000
Number of People working in the Unorganised Sector (Construction Workers, employees in unregistered workshops):
9000 + 7000 = 16000
Sum = 8000 + 16000 = 24000

Percentage of Organised Workers:
= \(\frac{8000}{24000}\) × 100
= 33%

Question 22.
Give one example each of primary and tertiary economic sectors. [CBSE 2019,12]
Answer:
Activities like agriculture, mining, etc. are examples of the primary sector, whereas activities like banking, tourism, etc. are examples of tertiary sector.

Related Theory
The primary sector is the sector of an economy making direct use of‘natural resources’ or relating to primary industries, whereas the tertiary sector helps in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.

Question 23.
When was MG N REG A passed?
Answer:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Economics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers

Globalisation and the Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/tag/globalisation-and-the-indian-economy-class-10-mcqs-questions/

Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers

Economics Class 10 Chapter 4 MCQs On Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 1.
Which one of the following organisations lag stress on liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment?
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) International Labour Organisation
(c) World Health Organisation
(d) World Trade Organisation
Answer:
(d) World Trade Organisation

Explanation: The World Trade Organisation was created with an aim to regulate and monitor if appropriate rules were being implemented by the countries.

Globalisation And The Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 2.
Choose the correctly matched pair:
(a) Sundaram Fasteners – Indian MNC
(b) Ranbaxy-Chinese MNC
(c) Ford Motors-British MNC
(d) Xiaomi-Korean MNC
Answer:
(a) Sundaram Fasteners-Indian MNC
Explanation: Ranbaxy-Indian MNC
Ford Motors-American MNC
Xiaomi-Chinese MNC

Globalisation Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Entry of MNCs in a domestic market may prove harmful for
(a) Large scale producers
(b) Domestic producers
(c) Native Bankers
(d) Exporters of goods
Answer:
(b) Domestic producers

Explanation: The entry of MNC into the domestic market will prove fruitful to native bankers, large scale producers as they will be involved in the manufacturing and exporters as export will improve. The domestic producers alone will be harmed as it might close down their production.

Globalisation MCQ Class 10 Question 4.
Which one of the following has been major source of foreign investment in the IT industry?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
(b) Oil India Limited
(c) Steel Authority of India Limited
(d) Business process outsourcing
Answer:
(d) Business process outsourcing

Explanation: The other choices are all manufacturing units.

Which among Mex, RCH2X, R2CHX , and R3CX is most reactive towards sn2 reaction.

Globalisation And The Indian Economy MCQ Question 5.
Which one of the following types of countries has been more benefited from Globalisation?
(a) Rich countries
(b) Poor countries
(c) Developing countries
(d) Developed countries
Answer:
(c) Developing countries

Explanation: Employment has been generated to the youth in many developing countries, which means better quality of living.

MCQ On Globalisation Class 10 Question 6.
Which one of the following Indian industries has been hit hard by globalisation?
(a) IT
(b) Toy making
(c) Jute
(d) Cement
Answer:
(b) Toy making

MCQ Of Globalisation Class 10 Question 7.
Removing barriers on or restrictions set by the government is known as:
(a) Globalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Nationalisation
(d) Liberalisation
Answer:
(d) Liberalisation

Globalization Class 10 MCQ Question 8.
Ford Motors set up its first plant in India at
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Delhi

Class 10 Globalisation MCQ Question 9.
…………. has helped most in the spread of production of services.
(a) Manufacturing Industry
(b) Automobile Sector
(c) Call centres
(d) IT Sector
Answer:
(d) IT Sector

Globalisation Refers To MCQ Question 10.
“MNCs keep in mind certain factors before setting up production”. What of the following statements is wrong when that assertion is concerned?
(a) MNCs keep the availability of cheap skilled and unskilled labour in mind.
(b) Proximity to markets is another important factor when MNCs are established.
(c) Presence of a large number of local competitors also changes the opinions of people while establishing an MNC.
(d) Favourable government policies are important for establishment of an MNC.
Answer:
(c) Presence of a large number of local competitors also changes the opinions of people while establishing an MNC. Explanation: MNCs are not interested in the local competitors as most of their products are for the export market.

Globalization Refers To MCQ Question 11.
…………… have led to a huge reduction in port handling costs and increased the speed with which exports can reach markets.
(a) Containers
(b) Airports
(c) Vessels with Stands
(d) Ships
Answer:
(a) Containers

Globalization MCQs Class 10 Question 12.
Cheaper imports, inadequate investment in domestic infrastructure might lead to
(a) the slowdown in the agricultural sector
(b) the slowdown in demands of domestic goods in the country
(c) the slowdown in the industrial sector
(d) slowdown in services
Answer:
(b) the slowdown in demands of domestic goods in the country

MCQ Of Globalisation And Indian Economy Question 13.
Which of the following country is NOT in the list of countries whom Ford Motors exporting its cars?
(a) South Africa
(b) Mexico
(c) Brazil
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Explanation: Ford Motors, an American company, is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world.

Related Theory
Ford Motors came to India in 1995, invested Rs.1700 crore to set up a plant near Chennai in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, manufacturer of jeeps and trucks in India.

MCQ Globalisation Class 10 Question 14.
Which of the following company is the largest producer of edible oil in India?
(a) Parakh Foods
(b) Cargill Foods
(c) Mahindra and Mahindra
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Cargill Foods

Explanation: Cargill Foods is a very large American MNC, producing 5 million pouches of edible oil in India daily.

Related Theory
Cargill has bought over Parakh Foods which had built a large marketing network in various parts of India, also it had four oil refineries whose control has now shifted to Cargill.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ Question 15.
Which of the following statement is NOT correct about a multinational company?
(a) It set up new factories for production.
(b) It may buy existing local companies to expand its business.
(c) It forms partnerships with local companies.
(d) It does not have new technology and large huge money with it.
Answer:
(d) It does not have new technology and huge money with it.

Globalization And The Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 16.
Which one of the following companies is NOT a multinational company?
(a) Tata Motors
(b) Reliance India Ltd.
(c) Ranbaxy
(d) Infosys
Answer:
(b) Reliance India Ltd.

Explanation: Globalisation has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as multinationals themselves. For example, Tata Motor (automobiles), Infosys (IT), Ranbaxy (medicines), Asian Paints (Paints), Sundaram Fasteners (nuts and bolts) are some Indian companies which are spreading their operations worldwide.

Question 17.
With what objective was World Trade Organisation set up?
(a) To liberalise international trade
(b) To allow free trade for all
(c) To establish rules regarding international trade
(d) All of these
Answer:

Question 18.
Which of the following statement clearly defines what an MNC is?
(a) A large company that owns or controls production in more than one nation.
(b) A large company that owns or controls raw material for production.
(c) A large company that deals in automobiles.
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) A large company that owns or controls production in more than one nation.

Question 19.
The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to:
(a) set up new factories
(b) buy existing local companies
(c) form partnerships with local companies
(d) none of these
Answer:

Question 20.
Which of the following attributes are NOT determined by an MNC?
(a) Price, Quality, delivery and raw material
(b) Price, labour conditions, quality, delivery
(c) Delivery and price only
(d) Raw material and transport cost
Answer:
(b) Price, labour conditions, quality, delivery

Question 21.
Large MNCs in developed countries place orders for production with small producers which include:
(a) Garments
(b) Footwear
(c) Sports
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Identify

Question 22.
Identify the following organization on basis of the hints given.
(1) It was established with the aim to liberalise international trade.
(2) 164 countries are its members.
Answer:
The World Trade Organisation

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 23.
The removal of barriers or restrictions by the government is known as globalisation.
Answer:
The removal of barriers or restrictions by the government is called liberalisation. Explanation: Liberalisation helps to remove all types of barriers to allow easy and affordable exchange of ideas, culture and even goods between countries.

Related Theory
Globalisation is the process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries by exchange of trade, ideas, culture, information and even markets.

Question 24.
International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade. [CBSE 2020,15]
Answer:
WTO is an organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade.

Explanation: World Trade Organisation (WTO) forms uniform rules and regulations to make trade simpler across the world.

Related Theory
International Monetary Fund was created to support economic stabilisation of Second World War economies. Nations were hurt and affected and hence needed funding and support to develop again.

Uniform Distribution Calculator solves two basic tasks.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 25.
………… results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.
Answer:
Foreign trade

Explanation: ForeignTrade helps manufacturers to find markets in various countries. It results in tax on imports which governments can use to increase or decrease foreign trade and to decide what kind of goods and how much of each, should come into the country.

Question 26.
………………… is the process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries.
Answer:
Globalisation

Question 27.
………. refers to some restrictions including the tax on Imports which governments can use to increase or decrease foreign trade and to decide what kind of goods and how much of each, shouLd come into the country.
Answer:
Trade barrier

Explanation: Indian government put barriers on foreign trad and foreign investment after independence to protect the producers within the country from foreign competition.

Question 28.
………… is the freedom of markets and abolition of state imposed restrictions on the movement of goods.
Answer:
Liberalisation

Question 29.
……….. is an international organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade:
(a) WTO
(b) UNDP
(c) World Bank
(d) MNC
Answer:

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 30.
Match the following Indian companies from column A with the products these companies deal in from column B:

Column A (Indian Companies)	Column B (Products these companies deal in)
(a) Tata Motors	(i) IT
(b) Infosys	(ii) Automobiles
(c) Ranbaxy	(iii) Paints
(d) Asian Paints	(iv) Medicines

Answer:

Column A (Indian Companies)	Column B (Products these companies deal in)
(a) Tata Motors	(ii) Automobiles
(b) Infosys	(i) IT
(c) Ranbaxy	(iv) Medicines
(d) Asian Paints	(iii) Paints

Explanation: Globalisation has enabled these large Indian companies to emerge as MNCs. Another company that has become an MNC is Sundaram Fasteners which deals in nuts and bolts.

Question 31.
Match the following key terms given in column A with their meanings in column B:

Column A (Key Terms)	Column B (Meanings)
(a) Globalisation	(i) Investment by multinationals
(b) Liberalisation	(ii) Controlling foreign trade
(c) Tax barrier	(iii) Integration between economies
(d) Foreign investment	(iv) Removing trade barriers

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Economics Chapter 4

In each of the following questions, a statemant of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 32.
Assertion (A): People also can play an important role in the struggle for fair globalisation.
Reason (R): Governments have done exceptionally well in implementing the rules of WTO.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Massive campaigns and representation by people’s organisations have influenced important decisions relating to trade and investments at the WTO.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): Not everyone has benefited from Globalisation equally.
Reason (R): People with education, skill and wealth have made the best use of the new opportunities while others have not been able to make the best use of it.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 34.
Assertion (A): Several of the top Indian companies have been able to benefit from the increased competition.
Reason (R): They have been able to get more customers using the existing technology.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Greater competition has forced the companies to invest in newer technologies and more infrastructure, along with better quality products which has helped these companies to gain a better consumer base with help from the competition.

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Foreign companies are demanding more rigidity in labour laws.
Reason (R): Flexible Labour laws give better chances for companies to profit.
Answer:

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Mr. Samson buys a company and then proceeds to buy new machines and furniture for the new company. He buys all his new employees clothes or new uniforms. He buys them new computers and redecorates the entire office.
Which one of the following statements is correct considering the source?
(a) Mr Samson loaned the money to this new office.
(b) Mr Samson spent money on social customs.
(c) Mr Samson invested this money because he bought the furniture, uniforms and machines.
(d) Mr Samson traded this money.
Answer:
(c) Mr Samson invested this money because he bought the furniture, uniforms and machines.

Question 2.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
A news magazine published for London readers is to be designed and printed in Delhi.
The text of the magazine is sent through the Internet to the Delhi office. The designers in the Delhi office get orders on how to design the magazine from the office in London using telecommunication facilities.
Which of the following phenomena helps these companies to execute these activities?
(a) Foreign Trade
(b) Domestic Trade
(c) Globalisation
(d) Investment
Answer:

Question 3.
Choose the correct statement about factors of globalisation in India:
(I) Improvement in transportation techno¬logy.
(II) Liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment.
(III) Favourable rules of World Trade Organisation towards India in comparison to developed countries.
Choose the correct options from the codes given below:
(a) Only (I) and (II)
(b) Only (I) and (III)
(c) Only (II) and (III)
(d) Only (III)
Answer:
(a) Only (I) and (II)

Explanation: WTO is supposed to allow free trade for all. However, in practice, it is seen that developed countries have retained trade barriers unfairly. On the other hand, WTO rules have forced developing countries to remove trade barriers. It is not partial in favour of India because it is an international organisation initiated by developed countries.

Question 4.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
The above evidence indicates that not everyone has benefited from gLobaiisation. People with education, skill and wealth have made the best use of the new opportunities. On the other hand, there are many people who have not shared the benefits. Since globalisation is now a reality, the question is how to make globalisation more ‘fair’? Fair globalisation would create opportunities for all, and also ensure that the benefits of globalisation are shared better.
Identify which of the following statements is not true about Globalization.
(a) Globalisation is the process of rapid integration between countries.
(b) It is movement of more and more investments and technology between countries.
(c) Globalisation is introduction of restrictions or barriers by the government.
(d) It is movement of more and more goods and services between countries.
Answer:
(c) Globalisation is introduction of restrictions or barriers by the government.

Explanation: Globalisation is the process of rapid integration or interconnection between the countries. Through Globalisation more and more goods, services, greater foreign investments, technology and movement of people are taking place between countries. Globalisation doesn’t call for restrictions or barriers. It rather brings the countries in closer contact with each other.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Ford Motors, an American company, is one of the world’s largest automobile manufacturers with production spread over 26 countries of the world. Ford Motors came to India in 1995 and spent Bs. 1700 crore to set up a large plant near Chennai. This was done in collaboration with Mahindra and Mahindra, a major Indian manufacturer of jeeps and trucks. By the year 2017, Ford Motors was selling 88,000 cars in the Indian markets, while another 1,81,000 cars were exported from India to South Africa, Mexico, Brazil and the United States of America. The company wants to develop Ford India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
Ford Motors is a Company.
(a) Uni-national
(b) Bi-national
(c) Regional
(d) Multi-national
Answer:
(d) Multi-national

Explanation: Its production units are present in various countries and hence it is a MNC.

(B) Which of the following local companies did Ford Motors collaborate with?
(a) Hero motors
(b) Honda and Suzuki
(c) Mahindra and Mahindra
(d) Volkswagen
Answer:

(C) Which of the following benefits are availed by the local company on collaborating with Ford Motors?
(a) The demand for cars from local companies in India rises.
(b) Ford Motors supplies new technology to the local company.
(c) Ford Motors takes over the local company.
(d) Ford Motors changes the management of local companies.
Answer:
(b) Ford Motors suppiies new technology to the local companies.

(D) Which of the following statements best describe the benefit to Indian producers in this statement in simple words?
“By the year 2017, Ford Motors was selling 88,000 cars in the Indian markets, while another 1,81,000 cars were exported from india.”
(a) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has decreased.
(b) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has increased.
(c) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has remained the same.
(d) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has completely shifted.
Answer:
(b) The demand of products after the joint collaboration has increased.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Even more remarkable have been the developments in information and communication technology. In recent times, technology in the areas of telecommunications, computers, and the Internet has been changing rapidly. Telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone including mobile phones, fax) are used to contact one another around the world, to access information instantly, and to communicate from remote areas. This has been facilitated by satellite communication devices.

As you would be aware, computers have now entered almost every field of activity. You might have also ventured into the amazing world of the internet, where you can obtain and share information on almost anything you want to know. The Internet also allows us to send instant electronic mail (e-mail) and talk (voice-mail) across the world at negligible costs.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following factors have experienced a change due to the Internet?
(a) All the information in the world can be accessed at the click of a finger.
(b) One can fly from one country to another.
(c) One can establish a telephonic contact between a man in India and Alaska.
(d) One can cook by watching a show on TV.
Answer:

(B) Which of the following ways has the IT sector helped in?
(a) In production of goods
(b) In production of services
(c) In export of goods
(d) In export of services
Answer:
(b) In production of services

Explanation: Information and communication technology (or IT in short) has played a major role in spreading out production of services like Banking, teaching, hospitality across countries.

(C) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
…………………. is not a Telecommunication facility?
(a) Telegraph
(b) Mobiles
(c) Emails
(d) A cars
Answer:
(d) A Car

Explanation: It is a transportation facility.

(D) Complete the following:
Boating- Development in transportation facilities; E- Banking
(a) Development in Transport
(b) Development in Trade
(c) Development in Production
(d) Development in IT
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Having assured themselves of these conditions, MNCs set up factories and offices for production. The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment. Investment made by MNCs is called foreign investment. Any investment is made with the hope that these assets will earn profits.

At times, MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies of these countries. The benefit to the local company of such joint production is two-fold. First, MNCs can provide money for additional investments, like buying new machines for faster production. Second, MNCs might bring with them the latest technology for production.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Statements are given below. Find the correct ones which suit the statement given in the questions.
Investment means spending on:
(I) factories and industrial building
(II) machines
(III) equipments
(IV) gold ornaments for employees
(V) Uniforms
(VI) Vehicles for the company
(a) (I) & (IV)
(b) (I) & (III)
(c) (II), (III) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III), (V) & (VI)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II), (III), (V) & (VI)

(B) FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) attracted by Globalisation in India comes from the:
(a) World Bank
(b) Multinational companies
(c) foreign governments
(d) Indian residents
Answer:
(b) Multinational companies

(C) How does Joint Production with Zara help a local company called Style Quotient?
(a) It brings better technology and production methods to Style Quotient.
(b) Zara gets a new manager.
(c) Style Quotient gets a better transport vehicle.
(d) Employees at Style Quotient get discounts at Zara Store.
Answer:
(a) It brings better technology and production methods to Style Quotient.

(D) Which one of the following is a major benefit (to the MNC) of joint production between a local company and a Multinational Company?
(a) MNC are able to earn more customers.
(b) MNC can control the increase in the price of a good.
(c) MNC can expand its office physically.
(d) MNC can promote the local company.
Answer:
(a) MNC are able to earn more customers

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
35-year old Sushila has spent many years as a worker in the garment export industry of Delhi. She was employed as a ‘permanent worker’ entitled to health insurance, provident fund, overtime at a double rate, when Sushila’s factory closed in the late 1990s. After searching for a job for six months, she finally got a job 30 km away from where she lives. Even after working in this factory for Several years, she is a temporary worker and earns less than half of what she was earning earlier. Sushila leaves her house every morning, seven days a week at 7:30 a.m. and returns at 10 p.m. A day off from work means no wage. She has none of the benefits she used to get earlier. Factories closer to her home have widely fluctuating orders and therefore pay even less. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Has Globalisation been favourable to Sushila and other workers like her?
(a) Yes, there are new jobs
(b) No, there is greater unemployment because people now employ workers on a seasonal basis.
(c) There is no change in employment opportunities.
(d) Workers are not affected by Globalisation.
Answer:
(b) No, there is greater unemployment because people now employ workers on a seasonal basis.

(B) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
Globalisation so far has been more in favour of
(a) Developed countries
(b) Underdeveloped countries
(c) Poor countries
(d) It has had an equal effect.
Answer:
(a) Developed countries

Explanation: They have been able to expand their markets and their consumer bases.

(C) Which one of the following has benefited least because of globalisation in India?
(a) Industrial Sector
(b) Agriculture Sector
(c) Service Sector
(d) IT Sector
Answer:
(b) Agriculture Sector

(D) Which of the following statements are not true about Sushila’s employment terms?
(a) She gets more benefits like Medical leave due to Globalisation.
(b) She has to work longer than usual.
(c) Her wages have doubled.
(d) She had received a promotion
Answer:
(a) She gets more benefits like Medical leave due to Globalisation.
Explanation: all her existing terms have been cancelled and now she has no extra benefits.

Question 9.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow: [CBSE 2020,14] Source A – Production across countries
Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organised within countries. What crossed the boundaries of these countries were raw material, food stuff and finished products. Colonies such as India exported raw materials and food stuff and imported finished goods. Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. This was before large companies called multinational corporations (MNCs) emerged on the scene. Source B – Foreign trade and integration of markets

Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic
markets, i.e., markets of their own countries. Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers, import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.

Source C – Impact of globalisation in India Globalisation and greater competition among producers – both local and foreign producers – has been of advantage to consumers, particularly the well-off sections in the urban areas. There is greater choice before these consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products. As a result, these people today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was possible earlier. Source A – Production across countries
(A) How are MNCs a major force in connecting the countries of the world?
Source B – Foreign trade and integration of markets
Answer:
MNCs act as a major force in connecting various countries of the world.
They interact with Local producers in various counties across the globe to expand their production and markets which results in connection of widely dispersed locations on countries.

(B) How does foreign trade become a main channel in connecting countries?
Source C – Impact of globalisation in India
Answer:
Foreign trade helps to integrate various markets with one another through the means of domestic and international producers who sells the same product in domestic and international markets. The markets of all countries garner similar products and are integrated together.

(C) How is globalisation beneficial for consumers?
Answer:
Globalisation is beneficial for consumers in the following ways:

High quality goods are available at lower prices.
A wide range of choice is available for the consumers.

Question 10.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions related to them :
Source A – Globalisation and the Indian economy
An consumers in today’s world, some of us have a wide choice of goods and services before us. The latest models of digital cameras, mobile phones and televisions made by the leading manufacturers of the world are within our reach. Every season, new models of automobiles can be seen on Indian roads. Source B – Foreign trade and integration of markets
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets, i.e., markets of their own countries. Producers can sell their produce not only in markets located within the country but can also compete in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly, for the buyers, the import of goods produced in another country is one way of expanding the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced. Source C – The struggle for fair globalisation In the past few years, massive campaigns and representation by people’s organisations has influenced important decisions relating to trade and investments at the World Trade Organisation. This has demonstrated that people can also play an important role in the struggle for fair globalisation.
Source A – Globalisation and the Indian economy
(A) How is the impact of globalisation visible on consumers?
Source B – Foreign trade and integration of markets
Answer:

(B) How does foreign trade integrate markets? Explain.
Source C – The struggle for fair globalisation
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State any one example for a trade barrier?
Answer:
Taxes and Import duties

Question 2.
Why did the Indian government remove barriers to a large extent on foreign trade and foreign investment?
Answer:
They removed the trade barriers to help the native industries and boost their trade by letting the foreign competition in the country’s market.

Question 3.
What attracts the foreign investment?
Answer:

Question 4.
Due to which reason the latest models of different items are available within our reach?
Answer:
Foreign Trade integrates different markets and helps the countries to make products from across the world available to their citizens.

Question 5.
Why are MNC setting them Customer Care Centres in India?
Answer:
India has a lot of educated youth who can speak English well and thereby are the perfect candidates to be customer care professionals.

Question 6.
Differentiate between multinational corporations and domestic companies.
Answer:
Multinational corporations operate in two or more countries while domestic companies restrict their operations to a single country.

Related Theory:
Multinational companies move to other countries and expand their business for various reasons. They also give a tough competition to domestic companies.

Question 7.
What is the basic function of foreign trade?
Answer:

Question 8.
The MNC’s of a country sets up a production jointly with the local company of other country. State any one benefit of this joint production to the local company.
Answer:
Benefits of Joint Production:

MNC can provide money for additional investment.
MNC might bring latest technology for production, (any 1 to be mentioned)

Question 9.
Distinguish between investment and foreign investment.
Answer:
When land, assets or buildings are purchased and kept hold of, they are considered as investments, whereas when multinational corporations (MNC’s) invest money or finances in a project of another company in another country, it is considered as foreign investment.

Question 10.
Due to which reason are the latest models of different items available within our reach?
Answer:
The latest models of different items are available within our reach due to ‘globalisation.

Question 11.
Define globalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation is defined as the integration between different countries through foreign trade and foreign investments by various muLti-national corporations (MNCs).

Related Theory:
Globalisation has helped a lot in interlinking economies and markets across the world. Now, people are able to sell their produce in the foreign markets also.

Question 12.
Where do MNCs prefer to set up their offices and factories?
Answer:
MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources.

Explanation: Every MNC wants to attain maximum profit off their business. One of the easiest way to do is to reduce the cost of production by either updating the infrastructure, to include better tecnnology, or by employing cheap labour, finding cheaper sources of energy to be used.

Question 13.
How has globalisation enabled the national companies to emerge as Multinational Companies (MNCs)?
Answer:
Globalisation enabled the national companies to emerge as MNCs:
New opportunities have been provided to the companies/ Helped in collaboration with foreign companies/ Technological and production inputs.

Question 14.
Which is the most common route for investment by MNCs in countries around the world?
Answer:
The easiest way for MNCs is to invest around the world is to buy up local companies and then to expand production by controlling the means.

Question 15.
Define the term Liberalisation.
Answer:
Liberalisation refers to the removal or partial or complete loosening of the restrictions set by the government on foreign investment and trade. It also eases up the process of import and export.

Question 16.
Name some Indian companies which are now emerging as Multi National Corporations.
Answer:
Tata motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy, Asian paints and Sundaram fasteners are some Indian companies which are spreading their operations worldwide.

Explanation: MNCs or Multi National Corporations are companies which are based in various countries and their market and production are both expanded across various countries and continents.

Question 17.
Define the term ‘investment’.
Answer:
The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment.

Explanation: Any investment is made with the hope that these assets will earn profits.

Related Theory:
Investment made by MNCs is called foreign investment.

Question 18.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Answer:
In recent years, the central and state governments in India are taking special steps to attract foreign companies to invest in India. Companies who set up production units in the SEZs do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years.

Question 19.
What are SEZs?
Answer:
SEZs are Special Economic Zones or Industrial Zones set up to attract foreign investment by government of India.

Related Theory:
SEZs have world class infrastructural facilities and other facilities like tax rebates, flexibility in labour laws to attract investors.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Economics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste with Answers

Gender, Religion and Caste Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Students can also read MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 10 Chapter 4 MCQs On Gender, Religion and Caste

Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following countries has a record of high participation of women in the political sphere of the society?
(a) India
(b) Bangladesh
(c) France
(d) Finland
Answer:

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
On an average an Indian woman works…………..more than an average man every day.
(a) One hour
(b) Half an hour
(c) Two hours
(d) One and a half hour
Answer:
(a) One hour

Gender Caste And Religion Class 10 MCQ Question 3.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
………………… provides that equal wages should be paid to equal work.
(a) Wages act
(b) Equal Remuneration Act
(c) Equal Wages Act
(d) Labour Code

Gender Religion And Caste MCQs Question 4.
Fill in the blank in regards to the information about the Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years) of India in 2011?
Ratio 901-925- Himachal Pradesh; Ratio below 850-……………..
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Punjab
(c) Kerala
(d) Haryana
Answer:
(b) Punjab

Gender Religion And Caste MCQ Question 5.
Sexual Division of labour signifies which of the following statements?
(1) Gender division emphasises not all people can do all kinds of work.
(2) Gender division means division between communities.
(3) Caste is the basis of Gender Division.
(4) Type of the work decides whether a man will do it or a woman will do it.
(5) Religion decides which work should be done by who.
(a) (1). (3) & (4) (b) (1), (2) & (4)
(c) (1) & (3) (d) (4) & (1)
Answer:
(d) (4) & (1)

MCQ Of Chapter Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Question 6.
In local self-government institutions, at least one third of all positions are reserved for„
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Children
(d) Scheduled tribes
Answer:
(b) Women

Class 10 Civics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers In Hindi Question 7.
Identify the reason why caste alone cannot determine elections in India.
(I) No party can win the votes of all the voters of a caste or community.
(II) Political parties appease certain castes and ignore others.
(III) No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one single caste, people from different castes live in each constituency.
(IV) Mobilising and securing political support has brought new consciousness among the lower castes.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (I) & (IV) only
(d) (i), (II) & (III) only
Answer:

MCQ On Gender Religion And Caste Class 10 Question 8.
In India, seats are reserved for women in:
(I) Lok Sabha
(II) State legislative assemblies
(III) Cabinet of Chief Minister
(IV) Panchayati Raj bodies
(a) (I), (M) & (IV)
(b) (II), (III) & (IV)
(c) (II) & (III)
(d) (I) & (IV)
Answer:
(d) (I) & (IV)

Explanation: One-Third of seats in local government bodies – in panchayats and municipalities – are now reserved for women. There are more than 10 lakh elected women representatives in rural and urban local bodies.

Question 9.
Which among the following statements about the Constitution of India is wrong?
(a) It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
(b) It gives official status to one religion.
(c) It ensures equality of citizens within religious communities.
(d) It ensures everyone’s freedom to profess any religion.
Answer:

Question 10.
Human rights groups in our country have argued that most of the victims of communal riots in our country are
(a) Women
(b) Children
(c) Religious minorities
(d) People with disabilities
Answer:
(c) Religious minorities

Question 11.
What is the literacy rate of men in India?
(a) 73%
(b) 76%
(c) 75%
(d) 78%
Answer:

Question 12.
What is the child sex ratio (number of girl children per thousand boys) in India?
(a) 999
(b) 872
(c) 919
(d) 912
Answer:
(c) 919

Question 13.
A ………….. proportion of women attend higher educational institutions than men.
(a) Greater
(b) Smaller
(c) Equal
(d) Almost negligible
Answer:
(b) Smaller

Explanation: Women are not allowed to study in a lot of families, especially when the resources are limited because it is considered that men are supposed to work and provide for the family while women are supposed to do caregiving activities.

Question 14.
The proportion of women among the highly paid and valued jobs is still very
(a) Large
(b) Small
(c) Negligible
(d) Equal to that of men
Answer:
(b) Small

Question 15.
Castes in India have:
(a) Stayed the same throughout the time
(b) Changed completely in the last 5 years
(c) Experienced certain changes but not many.
(d) Increased its influence
Answer:
(c) Experienced certain changes but not many.

Question 16.
Which of the following instances express the severest form of communal politics?
(a) Violence and Riots
(b) Elections
(c) Inter-caste marriages
(d) Abstinence from religion
Answer:

Question 17.
The total percentage of Backward Classes estimates their population to be around per cent.
(a) 61%
(b) 54%
(c) 42%
(d) 41%
Answer:
(d) 41%

Question 18.
Which of the following principles compelled political leaders to gear up to the task of mobilising and securing political support?
(a) Universal adult franchise
(b) Communalism
(c) One man- One vote- One woman- no vote
(d) Religion is the base of politics
Answer:
(a) Universal adult franchise

Explanation: Universal adult franchise and the principle of one-person-one-vote compelled political leaders to gear up to the task of mobilising and securing political support. It also brought new consciousness among the people of castes that were hitherto treated as inferior and low.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given:

Question 19.
Identify the following on basis of the hints given:
(1) In 2011, this group of Castes were 16.6 percent of total people in India.
(2) The group is also known as Dalits.
(3) They were subjected to exclusion and untouchability.
Answer:

Correct and Rewrite / True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 20.
Gender division tends to be understood as natural and unchangeable.
Answer:
True

Question 21.
Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of women is housework and bringing up children.
Answer:
True

Question 22.
Earlier, only women were allowed to participate in public affairs, vote and contest for public offices.
Answer:
False

Earlier, only men were allowed to participate in public affairs, vote and contest for public offices.

Explanation: Although women constitute half of humanity, their role in public life, especially politics, is minimal in most societies. In fact women, women had to fight for their voting rights to participate in elections.

Question 23.
Political expression of gender division and political mobilisation does not help to improve women’s role in public life.
Answer:

Question 24.
The percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha has touched 14.36 per cent of its total strength for the first time in 2014.
Answer:
False

The percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha has touched 14.36 per cent of its total strength for the first time in 2019. Explanation: One Third of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies have been reserved for women.

Question 25.
In Indian government, cabinets are largely all-female even when aman becomes the Chief Minister or the Prime Minister.
Answer:
False

In Indian government, cabinets are largely all-male even when a woman becomes the Chief Minister or the Prime Minister.

Question 26.
Although women constitute half of humanity, their role in public life, especially politics, is minimal in most societies.
Answer:
True

Question 27.
Expression of caste differences in politics gives many advantaged communities the space to demand their share of power.
Answer:

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 28.
Castes and Caste system in modern India have undergone a great change because of [CBSE 2019]
Answer:
Urbanisation, growth of literacy and education

Question 29.
The Indian Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion because
Answer:
India is a secular State.

Explanation: Indian Secularism believes in equal respect and equal distance from all religions to promote equality. Western secularism believes abstinence from religion. Indian Constitution does not have any official religion.

Question 30.
The representation of women in Indian Parliament is still low as compared to European countries because
Answer:
women are not educated, trained and encouraged enough.

Question 31.
……………. is the literacy rate among men and ………… is the literacy rate for women in India.
Answer:
76% and 54%

Question 32.
The Equal wages Act was passed in……………
Answer:

Question 33.
In 2011, the Scheduled Castes were ………… and the Scheduled Tribes were of the country’s population.
Answer:
16.6 percent and 8.6 percent

Question 34.
Scandinavian countries like ………. the participation of women in public life is very high.
Answer:
Sweden

Question 35.
The disproportionately large presence of ‘upper caste’ among the urban middle classes in our country is because
Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 4

Question 36.
Assertion (A): It is not politics that gets caste-ridden, it is the caste that gets politicized.
Reason (R): Politics brings caste into the political arena.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 37.
Assertion (A): Elections are all about caste and nothing else.
Reason (R): Every candidate and party needs to win the confidence of more than one caste and community to win elections.
Answer:

Question 38.
Assertion (A): Caste is an important source of economic inequality.
Reason (R): It regulates access to resources of various kinds.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Caste decided the allocation of resources. A Lot of backward classes have become even worse because of inequality of education and opportunities.

Question 39.
Assertion (A): The ruling party and the sitting MP or MLA frequently lose elections in our country.
Reason (R): Caste is the only factor that affects Politics.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Caste is not the only factor that affects politics. The performance of the leaders, their control and their decisions, their ideologies and methodologies also affect the result of elections.

Question 40.
Assertion (A): Caste groups that had access to education under the old system have done very well.
Reason (R): Education helps in development of people.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Unless women control power, their problems will not get adequate attention.
Reason (R): They are not given attention because the decision making bodies have no representation of women and men are unable to relate to women issues.
Answer:

Question 42.
Assertion (A): Politics based on caste identity alone is not very healthy in a democracy.
Reason (R): It can divide the society into different communities and cause inequalities.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 43.
Assertion (A): Caste division leads to tensions, conflict and even violence.
Reason (R): Violence is a positive expression of caste divisions.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Violence is a negative expression of caste divisions. The negative expression of caste division leads to tensions, conflict and even violence.

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Caste matters in electoral politics.
Reason (R): Caste affects the choice of people in elections. People choose according to their castes.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Caste affects the choice of people. A lot of other factors affect electoral politics.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of women is housework and bringing up children women do all work inside the home such as cooking, cleaning, washing clothes, tailoring, looking after children, etc., and men do all the work outside the home. It is notthat men cannot do housework; they simply think that it is for women to attend to these things.
Which of the following concepts have been reflected in this source?
(a) Communalism
(b) Sexual division of labour
(c) Family structure of India
(d) Society of India
Answer:
(b) Sexual division of labour

Explanation: Sexual division of labour entails stereotyping of labour-related works according to sexes. For example, works like cooking, cleaning and washing clothes have been categorised into works to be done by women while works Like earning and providing are categorised into works to be done by men.

Question 2.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Shree was livid. He wanted a wife who would cook for him, wash his clothes and take care of his ailing parents. Instead, Kriti was a woman or a man who believed in equal rights and opportunities for men and women. She wanted Shree to help her at home so she could also go for her job. She also wanted to provide for their family equally.
Which of the following words can replace the underlined sentence?
(a) Feminist
(b) Patriarch
(c) Ideal Housewife
(d) Modern
Answer:
(a) Feminist

Question 3.
Read the table given below and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following is the reason for women’s income generating work figures being drastically less than those of men?
(a) Women work less
(b) Women sleep more
(c) The work of women remains invisible.
(d) The work of women is not worth money.
Answer:
(c) The work of women remains invisible.

Explanation: Work of the women remains invisible. The work done by men is more visible because most of their work leads to generation of income. A bulk of women’s work is household related and thus remains unpaid and invisible.

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Most tailors or cooks in hotels are men. Similarly, it is not that women do not work outside their home. In villages, women fetch water, collect fuel and work in the fields. In urban areas, poor women work as domestic helpers in middle class homes, while middle class women work in offices. In fact the majority of women do some sort of paid work in addition to domestic labour. But their work is not valued and does not get recognition. The result of this division of labour is that although women constitute half of humanity, their role in public life, especially politics, is minimal in most societies.
(A) Give a label to the tendency of stereotyping labour/works based on gender.
(a) Female exploitation
(b) Sexual Division of Labour
(c) Casteist Division of Labour
(d) Labour determinism
Answer:
(b) Sexual Division of Labour
Explanation: A system in which all work inside the home is either done by stereotyping or labelling of certain tasks as female-oriented and others as male oriented.

(B) Who does the employers discriminate against while paying wages?
(a) Women
(b) Men
(c) High Caste groups
(d) Middle Class groups
Answer:

(C) What do feminist movements stand for?
Answer:
Feminist women stand for equal political, social, employment related and educational opportunities for women.

(D) Assertion (A): Political movements and mobilisation helped women gain strength.
Reason(R): It helped them raise their voices against the indiscriminate practices.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The Census of India records the religion of each and every Indian after every ten years. The person who fills the Census form visits every household and records the religion of each member of that household exactly the way each person describes it. If someone says she has ‘no religion’ or that he is an ‘atheist’, this is exactly how it is recorded. Thus we have reliable information on the proportion of different religious communities in the country and how it has changed over the years.
Since Independence, the total population of each community has increased substantially but their proportion in the country’s population has not changed much. In percentage terms, the population of the Hindus, Jains and Christians has declined marginally since 1961. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following committees is also called the Sachar Committee?
(a) Prime Minister’s High Level Committee
(b) Home Affairs Committee
(c) NSSO
(d) Ministry of Statistics and High Committee
Answer:
(a) Prime Minister’s High Level Committee

(B) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
Scheduled Tribes- Adivasis; Scheduled Castes- …………………
(a) Subcastes
(b) Outcastes
(c) Below Castes
(d) Tricaste
Answer:
(b) Outcastes

(C) Who of the following is the perfect definition of an atheist?
(a) Ram worships Lord Krishna and visits temples everyday.
(b) Srikanth does not wear any religious thread and does not let his brother wear any because he believes there is no supreme power.
(c) Ali does not eat any meat during holy month.
(d) Kriya visits the church every day.
Answer:

(D) Which of the following groups have declined in population since 1961?
(a) Hindus
(b) Scheduled Caste
(c) Muslims
(d) Scheduled Tribes
Answer:
(a) Hindus

Explanation: In percentage terms, the population of the Hindus, Jains and Christians has declined marginally since 1961. The proportion of Muslim, Sikh and Buddhist population has increased slightly.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Partly due to their efforts and partly due to other socio-economic changes, castes and caste system in modern India have undergone great changes. With economic development, large scale URBANISATION, growth of literacy and education, OCCUPATIONAL MOBILITY and the weakening of the position of landlords in the villages, the old notions of CASTE HIERARCHY are breaking down.
Now, most of the times, in urban areas it does not matter much who is walking along next to us on a street or eating at the next table in a restaurant. The Constitution of India prohibited any caste-based discrimination and laid the foundations of policies to reverse the injustices of the caste system. If a person who lived a century ago were to return to India, she would be greatly surprised at the change that has come about in the country. Yet caste has not disappeared from contemporary India. Some of the older aspects of caste have persisted.

Even now most people marry within their own caste or tribe.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following leaders have contributed in changing the caste system?
(a) EVRPeriyar
(b) Abdul Kalam
(c) Pt. Nehru
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
(a) EV R Periyar

(B) Which of the following has not been instrumental in changing the Caste system in India?
(a) Urbanisation
(b) Growth of literacy and education
(c) Occupational Mobility
(d) Change in geography of a country
Answer:
(d) Change in geography of a country

(C) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
……………. is an old aspect of caste which has persisted even today.
(a) Caste marriages
(b) Widow remarriage
(c) Untouchability
(d) Child marriage
Answer:
(c) Untouchability
Explanation: Other social issues do not relate to Caste groups in general.

(D) Which of the following is the correct definition of Caste Hierarchy?
(a) Caste hierarchy is a ladder-like formation in which all caste groups are placed from the ‘highest’ to the ‘lowest’ caste.
(b) Caste hierarchy is a pool of castes.
(c) Caste hierarchy is a bucket of castes where they are arranged according to alphabets.
(d) Caste hierarchy is a ladder-like formation in which all lingual groups are attached.
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Unlike gender differences, the religious differences are often expressed in the field of politics.
Consider the following: Gandhiji used to say that religion can never be separated from politics. What he meant by religion was not any particular religion like Hinduism or Islam but moral values that inform all religions. He believed that politics must be guided by ethics drawn from religion. Human rights groups in our country have argued that most of the victims of communal riots in our country are people from religious minorities. They have demanded that the government take special steps to protect religious Minorities. Women’s movement has argued that FAMILY LAWS of all religions discriminate against women. So they have demanded that governments should change these laws to make them more equitable.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following beliefs about religion and Politics were that of Gandhiji?
(a) Religion and politics can never be together.
(b) Religion and politics complete each other.
(c) Religion is important for politics to be ethical
(d) Politics is important for religion to sustain.
Answer:

(B) Which one of the following is not a cause of communalism?
(a) Religion as the basis of the nation.
(b) One religion pitted against the other.
(c) State with an official religion.
(d) Religion-less state.
Answer:
(d) Religion-less state.
Explanation: Religion causes communalism when expressed negatively. A religion-less state will never face the issue of communalism.

(C) Which of the following groups form a religious minority?
(a) Scheduled Castes
(b) Jains
(c) Children below 2 years
(d) Underprivileged people
Answer:
(c) Jains
Explanation: The other three are not religious minorities.

(D) Which of the following laws are discriminatory according to women?
(a) Civic Laws
(b) Criminal Laws
(c) Family Laws
(d) Moral Laws
Answer:
(c) Family Laws
Explanation: The other three are non- discriminatory towards any group.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention one special feature of the caste system in India?
Answer:
In most societies, occupations are passed on from one generation to another. Occupational divisions are sanctioned by rituals.

Question 2.
Name a few political leaders and social reformers who advocated and worked to establish a society without any inequalities
Answer:

Question 3.
What does the term ‘Scheduled’ denote in ‘Scheduled castes’ and ‘Scheduled tribes’?
Answer:
These groups include hundreds of castes or tribes whose names are listed in an official Schedule in the Indian Constitution. Hence, they are called Scheduled.

Question 4.
What was the child sex ratio in India in the 2011 census?
Answer:
The child sex ratio is 919 females to 1000 males.

Question 5.
Read the following information and write a single term for it.
The Constitution of India provides freedom to profess and practice any religion to all its citizens. The Constitution of India prohibits discrimination on religious grounds.
Answer:
The Constitution of India promotes Secularism.

Question 6.
“Caste system is still prevalent in the Indian society.” Suggest anyone measure to abolish it.
Answer:
Casteism can be abolished by providing educational, employment opportunities, and health facilities to all the citizens of the country without any prejudice or discrimination.

Question 7.
“Sometimes elections are all about castes in India.” How can this situation be avoided?
Answer:

Question 8.
Suggest any one way to protect women from domestic oppression.
Answer:
Educating women can help them stay aware. This way, they can also learn about various laws made for their protection and save themselves from domestic oppression.

Question 9.
Suggest any one way to create communal harmony among various communities of India.
Answer:
One way to create communal harmony among communities is to respect and accept all religions equally.

Question 10.
Suggest any one way to change ‘family laws’ of all religions.
Answer:

Question 11.
How much representation do local governments provide for women in India?
Answer:
One-Third of all the seats present in the institutions are reserved for women.

Question 12.
What do you mean by patriarchal society?
Answer:
Patriarchal society is a male-dominated social system wherein males hold primary and maximum power. In this society, women are not given equal chances.

Question 13.
In which constitutional institution have seats been reserved for women?
Answer:
Local Self Government bodies.

Question 14.
By what term is a p jrson known who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women?
Answer:
Feminist

Question 15.
State any one provision in the Indian constitution which makes India a secular state.
Answer:

Question 16.
Has the caste system really disappeared from India? Justify with reasons.
Answer:
No, the Caste System has not disappeared. Politics is still dominated by religion and caste.

Question 17.
What is urbanisation ?
Answer:
Urbanisation is the shift of population from rural areas to urban areas.

Question 18.
Mention any one of the factors that are decisive in elections.
Answer:

Question 19.
Stdte any one negative result of paying exclusive attention to caste in a democracy.
Answer:
This can lead to diversion of interest and attention from poverty, development and corruption.

Question 20.
How has the relationship between caste and economic status changed?
Answer:
It is possible to find very rich and very poor people in every caste which was not true decades ago. Thus , there are cases where caste and economic status are different.

Question 21.
Define Below Poverty line?
Answer:
Below the poverty line means those who spent Rs. 327 or less per person per month in rural and Rs. 454 or less per person per month in urban areas

Question 22.
What is sexual division of labour ?
Answer:
It is a system in which work is divided based on one’s gender.

Explanation: All work inside the home is either done by the women of the family, or organised by them through the domestic helpers.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit with Answers

Money and Credit Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers

Economics Class 10 Chapter 3 MCQs On Money and Credit

Money And Credit Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The exchange of goods for goods is a process of ………………
(a) Buying goods through currency
(b) Selling goods through currency
(c) Bartering goods
(d) Making goods
Answer:
(c) Bartering goods

Money And Credit MCQ Question 2.
What portion of deposits is essential for the banks to maintain in liquid cash for their day to day transaction?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
Answer:
(b) 15%

Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Which of the following statements is an essential feature of barter system?
(a) Money can easily be used to buy any commodity or service.
(b) The barter system is based on the double coincidence of wants.
(c) The barter system promises payments at a later date than the day of transaction.
(d) The barter system helps the people to buy and sell goods easily and quickly.
Answer:
(b) The barter system is based on the double coincidence of wants.

MCQ On Money And Credit Class 10 Question 4.
Which one of the following agencies issues currency notes on behalf of the government of India?
(a) The Finance Minister of India issues them.
(b) Reserve Bank of India issues the currency.
(c) All the banks of the country can issue notes.
(d) World Bank issues notes
Answer:
(b) Reserve Bank of India issues the currency.

Money And Credit Class 10 MCQs Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a modern form of money?
(a) Paper currency
(b) Demand Deposits
(c) Coins
(d) Precious metals
Answer:
(d) Precious metals

Explanation: Gold, Silver and Copper were used to make coins in ancient times.

Class 10 Money And Credit MCQ Question 6.
Why do banks keep a small proportion of the deposits as cash with themselves?
(a) To extend loan to the poor
(b) To extend loan facility
(c) To pay salary to their staff
(d) To pay the depositors who might come to withdraw the money.
Answer:

MCQ Money And Credit Question 7.
Which of the following refers to investment?
(a) The money spent on religious ceremonies.
(b) The money spent on social customs.
(c) The money spent to buy assets such as land.
(d) The money spent on household goods.
Answer:
(c) The money spent to buy assets such as land.

MCQ Of Money And Credit Class 10th Question 8.
Which one of the following is a formal source of credit?
(a) Traders
(b) Cooperative sectors
(c) Money lenders
(d) Friends and relatives
Answer:
(b) Cooperative sector

MCQ Of Money And Credit Class 10 Question 9.
Which among the following issues currency notes on behalf of the central government?
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Commercial Bank of India
(d) Union Bank of India
Answer:
(b) Reserve Bank of India

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India is the monitoring agency and the Central Bank of India that issues currency on behalf of the Government of India. No other person can issue any legalised currency. Other banks are all involved in public dealing of money but don’t issue any currency.

MCQs Of Money And Credit Question 10.
Which one of the following options is NOT correct about a typical Self-Help Group?
(a) It has 15-20 members
(b) It does not have any male members.
(c) Its members usually belonging to one neighbourhood
(d) Saving per member varies in it.
Answer:
(b) It does not have any male members.

MCQ Of Chapter Money And Credit Class 10 Question 11.
What percentage of their deposits as cash, do the banks in India keep with themselves?
(a) 20 per cent
(b) 15 per cent
(c) 12 per cent
(d) 10 per cent
Answer:

MCQs On Money And Credit Question 12.
Money is accepted as a medium of exchange because:
(a) It is authorized by the government of India
(b) It is issued by the Reserve Bank of India
(c) It is legalised as a medium of payment in India
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Money And Credit MCQ Class 10 Question 13.
Find the incorrect option:
(a) Demand deposit share the essential features of money
(b) With demand deposit payments can be made without cash
(c) Demand deposits are a safe way of money transformation
(d) Demand deposit facility is like cheque
Answer:
(d) Demand deposit facility is like cheque.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 3 MCQ Question 14.
What do people do with the extra cash in hand? Choose the most correct option from the following:
(a) They deposit it with one of the informal lenders
(b) They deposit it with an NGO
(c) They deposit it with the bank manager
(d) They deposit it with the banks by opening a bank account in their name.
Answer:
(d) They deposit it with the banks by opening a bank account in their name.

Money And Credit MCQ Questions Question 15.
When do people have the provision to withdraw money? Choose the most appropriate option from the following:
(a) They can withdraw money at the time of severe illness
(b) They cannot withdraw money before it reaches to it maturity level.
(c) They can withdraw money as and when they require
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) They can withdraw money as and when they require.

Explanation: People deposit money with the bonks by opening a bank account in their name and receive an amount as interest from the bank on this deposit which can be withdrawn by them as and when they require it.

Related Theory
Since the deposits in the bank accounts can be withdrawn on demand, these deposits are called demand deposits.

Question 16.
Money borrowed from banks and cooperative societies comes under which source of credit?
(a) Informal
(b) Formal
(c) Semi-Formal
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Formal

Explanation: Formal sources of credit include Banks and Cooperative Societies which: provide credit at the low rate of interest to the borrowers and are regulated and supervised by the RBI on behalf of the Central Government in India.

Related Theory
The informal lenders include moneylenders, traders, employers, relatives and peer groups. Such lenders are not monitored or regulated by any agency. Most of the times, lenders fix extremely high rates of interest and push borrowers into debt traps through their informal rules.

Unorganized sources of Credit correspond to Informal sources of credit and cannot be trusted.

Question 17.
In a self-help group most of the decisions regarding savings and loan activities are taken by which one of the following:
(a) Bank
(b) Members
(c) NGOs
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Members

Question 18.
Formal sources of credit do not include
(a) Banks
(b) Cooperatives
(c) Employers
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Employers

Explanation: Employers, moneylenders, neighbors, friends, relatives etc fall under informal sources of credit who charge high interest on loans that they give to the borrowers.

Question 19.
Arrange the following forms of currency according to their usage from oldest to recent use:
(i) Paper Currency
(ii) Grain and cattle
(iii) Coins
(iv) Net banking and digital payments
(a) (iii)-(iv)-(i)-(ii)
(b) (ii)-(iii)-(i)-(iv)
(c) (i)-(ii)-(iiii)-(iv)
(d) (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i)
Answer:
(b) (ii)-(iii)-(i)-(iv)

Explanation: In early times, Grain and Cattle were used as barter to buy items of necessity. This was later replaced by silver, gold and copper coins. Post the invention of paper, paper currency dominated the scene. Today net banking and digital payments have replaced paper currency.

Question 20.
Bank deposits are also called
(a) Collateral
(b) Demand deposits
(c) Cheque
(d) Currency
Answer:
(b) Demand deposits

Explanation: Banks provide the facility of depositing surplus cash of citizens safely. They also provide interest on this deposit. Customers can withdraw or deposit cash at any time according to their demand. Hence this is called a demand deposit.

Question 21.
Terms of credit do not include:
(a) Bank deposits
(b) Interest rate
(c) Collateral
(d) Mode of repayment
Answer:
(a) Bank deposits

Explanation: Interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement, and the mode of repayment together comprise what is called the terms of credit. Together, they are all that a lender or borrower needs to consider before borrowing or lending money.

Question 22.
Rampur is an area where 80% people borrow money from the bank while 10% don’t borrow and the rest 10% take it from their friends, relatives or local moneylenders. Where will Rampur be situated?
(a) In an Urban Region
(b) Semi-Urban area
(c) In a Rural region
(d) Capital of a country
Answer:
(a) In an Urban Region

Explanation: Rampur is located in an area with proper access to banks, however not all the people are convinced borrowers from the bank. In an urban area, most people go to the bank while some people might also resort to friends and relatives for money, due to small or extremely urgent need.

Related Theory
The country’s capital is generally a High-tech city with all educated and skilled people. Hence Rampur can’t be a Capital. It cannot be situated in a rural area because of the large number of banks and easy accessibility. It cannot be a Semi-urban area due to similar reasons.

Question 23.
Find the correct option:
(a) Collateral is what pushes the lender in to a painful debt trap situation.
(b) Collateral is the amount that RBI gets from other banks.
(c) Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee to a lender against the amount borrowed.
(d) Collateral does not include jewellery.
Answer:
(c) Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee to a lender against the amount borrowed.

Explanation: Collateral acts like a guarantee to a lender until loan is repaid, if the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender can reimburse his loan by selling the collateral or confiscating it.

Related Theory
Property such as land titles, deposits with banks(Jewellery, bonds), livestock are some common examples of collateral used for borrowing. Collateral is a safety valve to lender’s benefit. It does not put the lender in a debt trap because lender lends and not borrows.

Identify

Question 24.
Identify the financial institution on basis of the hints given:
(1) Monitors other Banks
(2) Regulates lending activities
(3) Issues Currencies
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 25.
Banks and cooperatives are informal sources of credit.
Answer:
False
Banks and cooperatives are formal sources of credit.

Explanation: Informal sources of credit are locaL moneylenders, sahukars, jewelers, relatives or friends who lend without any proper documentation and charge exorbitant rates of interest. Banks and Cooperatives are backed by the government and hence are formal sources of credit.

Double coincidence of wants is an essential feature of Barter system.

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 27.
………….. is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee until the loan is repaid to the lender.
Answer:
Collateral

Explanation: Property such as land, building, vehicle, livestock, jewellery, bonds deposits with banks are some common examples of collateral used for borrowing.

Match the Columns

Choose the correct pairs option from the following:
Match the correct people involved in a variety of occupations with the appropriate reason they might borrow money for:

Column A	Column B
(a) Auto-rickshaw driver	(i) To buy a house
(b) A businessman whose factory has closed down	(ii) To buy a shop of his own
(c) Small trader	(iii) To revive his business
(d) A person in government service	(iv) To buy his own vehicle

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Auto-rickshaw driver	(iv) To buy his own vehicle
(b) A businessman whose factory has closed down	(iii) To revive his business
(c) Small trader	(ii) To buy a shop of his own
(d) A person in government service	(i) To buy a house

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Economics Chapter 3

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c), or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 29.
Assertion (A): Not all the money that is deposited in the bank by the depositors is kept by the banks themselves.
Reason (R): They use it to further extend loans to people so that the difference between interest earned and interest is given can be further invested and the chain will continue to go on.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Banks make use of the deposits to meet the loan requirements of people. In this way, banks mediate between those who have surplus funds (the depositors) and those who are in need of these funds (the borrowers). They don’t invest the interest earned again, they use it to provide income to their employees.

Question 30.
Assertion (A): If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender does not have the right to sell the asset or collateral to obtain payment.
Reason (R): Collateral acts like a guarantee against the borrowed money.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell the asset or collateral to obtain payment.

Question 31.
Assertion (A): The terms of credit vary substantially from one credit arrangement to another.
Reason (R): Interest rates, time periods vary from one arrangement to other.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 32.
Assertion (A): Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas.
Reason (R): They pool their funds together.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Cooperatives are formed with the purposes of sharing resources and collecting resources.

Question 33.
Assertion (A): Banks have to submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to whom, at what interest rate, etc.
Reason (R): This is done to ensure the rich get enough loans.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Banks have to submit periodical reports and this is done to ensure appropriate amounts of loans are given to the poor and vulnerable classes.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Match the items in Column A to those in Column B

Column A (Organisation)	Column B(Its Field of Interest)
(A) NSSO	(I) Data on Self Help Groups
(B) NABARD	(II) Economic planning
(C) RBI	(III) Formal and Informal Sector Credit data and survey
(D) NITI AAYOG	(IV) Monitors the banks and credit activities

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer:

Question 2.
Study the picture given below and answer the question that follows:

Currency in the era of kings were made from:
(a) Gold, Silver and Copper
(b) Ivory and Bones
(c) Grains and Water
(d) Rice and Water
Answer:
(a) Gold, Silver and Copper

Question 3.
Rita has taken a loan of ? 7 lakhs from the bank to purchase a car. The annual interest rate on the loan is 14.5 per cent and the loan is to be repaid in 3 years in monthly instalments.
The bank retained the papers of the new car as collateral, which will be returned to Rita only when she repays the entire loan with interest.
Analyse the loan information given above, and point out which one of the following is the correct option that describes the above statements accurately.
(a) Mode of re-payment
(b) Terms of credit
(c) Interest on loan
(d) Deposit criteria
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
No individual in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees. Hence, the rupee is widely accepted as a medium of exchange.
Who legalises the use of rupee as a medium of payment that cannot be refused in settling transactions in India?
(a) SBI
(b) Indian Law
(c) RBI
(d) The constitution of France
Answer:
(b) Indian Law

Question 5.
Observe the picture carefully.

Describe this image in your own words.
Answer:
This image showcases a meeting of a women self-help group.

Explanation: A typical Self Help Group has 15-20 members, usually belonging to one neighbourhood, who meet and save money regularly. Members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their needs on smaller rates of interest.

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives, industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place. Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.
(A) The Cooperatives can be classified into sector.
(a) Formal
(b) Informal
(c) Mixed
(d) Unorganised sector
Answer:
(a) Formal
Explanation: Cooperatives are registered and monitored by regulating authorities.

(B) The cooperatives lend without which of the following terms of credit:
(a) Collateral
(b) Interest Rate
(c) Identification
(d) Specific time period for repayment
Answer:
(a) Collateral

(D) Assertion (A): Informal sector loans prove to be worse than formal sector loans.
Reason(R): Formal sector loans need less paperwork.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Informal sector loans prove to be worse than formal sector loans because the former have no paperwork or documentation. It leads lenders into debt traps.

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Swapna, a small farmer, grows groundnut on her three acres of land. She takes a loan from the moneylender to meet the expenses of cultivation, hoping that her harvest would help repay the loan. Midway through the season the crop is hit by pests and the crop fails. Though Swapna sprays her crops with expensive pesticides, it makes little difference. She is unable to repay the moneylender and the debt grows over the year into a large amount. Next year, Swapna takes a fresh loan for cultivation. It is a normal crop this year. But the earnings are not enough to cover the old loan. She is caught in debt. She has to sell a part of the land to pay off the debt Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Swapna obtains credit from which of the following sectors?
(a) Formal Sector
(b) Informal Sector
(c) Public sector
(d) Private sector
Answer:
(b) Informal Sector

(B) Which of the following conditions holds true for Swapna?
(a) Her crop was destroyed and this raised her income.
(b) She borrowed from the moneylender and it did not do anything to add to her incomes and thus it was a bad credit.
(c) She was easily able to pay back what she borrowed.
(d) The credit was good but Swapna was not a good farmer.
Answer:

(C) How could Swapna improve her situation?
(a) She could borrow more.
(b) She could borrow less.
(c) She could stop farming.
(d) She could borrow form bank
Answer:
(d) She could borrow from banks.
Explanation: Formal Sector lends at a lowest rate and thus helps the lender to actually increase his income and lifestyle.

(D) What does Swapna’s situation portray about the rural households and credit?
(a) Rural Households cannot handle credit.
(b) Rural Households need more credit.
(c) Rural Households borrow mostly from Informal sources.
(d) Rural Households borrow throughout the year.
Answer:
(c) Rural Households borrow mostly from informal sources.

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In recent years, people have tried out some newer ways of providing loans to the poor. The idea is to organise rural poor, in particular women, into small Self Help Groups (SHGs) and pool (collect) their savings. A typical SHG has 15-20 members, usually belonging to one neighborhood, who meet and save regularly. Saving per member varies from Rs. 25 to Rs. 100 or more, depending on the ability of the people to save. Members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their needs. The group charges interest on these loans but this is still less than what the moneylender charges. After a year or two, if the group is regular in savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from the bank. The loan is sanctioned in the name of the group and is meant to create self-employment opportunities for the members.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Apart from saving and lending, what else is the Self Help Group useful for?
(a) It is a place for taking political decisions
(b) It is a place for discussing social issues
(c) It is a place for entertainment
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
Explanation: The regular meetings of the group provide a platform to discuss and act on a variety of social issues such as health, nutrition, domestic violence, etc.

(B) What is their saving per member in the group?
(a) Between 20-100 rupees
(b) Below 20 rupees
(c) Above 100 rupees
(d) Varies with states
Answer:
(a) Between 20-100 rupees

(C) What does a Self Help Group have to do to become eligible to borrow from the bank?
(a) Save more
(b) Spend more
(c) Save regularly
(d) Save, lend and repay regularly
Answer:
(d) Save, lend and repay regularly

Explanation: After a year or two, if the group is regular in savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from the bank.

(D) Who takes the decisions regarding the savings and loan activities in a Self Help Group?
(a) Head of the Self Help Group
(b) Mayor
(c) Zila Parishad
(d) All the members of the Self Help Group
Answer:
(d) All the members of the Self Help Group.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In rural areas, the main demand for credit is for crop production. Crop production involves considerable costs on seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, water, electricity, repair of equipment, etc. There is a minimum stretch of three to four months between the time when the farmers buy these inputs and when they sell the crop. Farmers usually take crop loans at the beginning of the season and repay the Loan after harvest. Repayment of the loan is crucially dependent on the income from farming. Credit, instead of helping Swapna improve her earnings, left her worse off. This is an example of what is commonly called debt-trap. Credit in this case pushes the borrower into a situation from which recovery is very painful
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following will be an appropriate reason farmers can lend money?
(I) to arrange for funds for sister’s marriage.
(II) to buy a new factory
(III) to build a new swimming pool
(IV) to buy new fertiliser
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III) only
(c) (I) & (IV) only
(d) (I), (II) & (IV) only
Answer:
(c) (I) & (IV) only

(B) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Farmers generally borrow loans from sector.
(a) Unorganised
(b) Organised
(c) Formal
(d) Informal
Answer:
(a) Unorganised

(C) Which of the following situations will lead to a debt trap?
(a) When loans do not add anything to the income of the borrower, it becomes difficult for him to repay, then he has to borrow more to repay, this leads to a debt trap.
(b) When loans help to increase the income, a debt trap is formed.
(c) When loans are paid on time, a debt trap is formed.
(d) When loans are borrowed again and again, a debt trap is formed.
Answer:
(a) When loans do not add anything to the income of the borrower, it becomes difficult for him to repay, then he has to borrow more to repay, this leads to a debt trap.

(D) Which role does credit play according to the situation given in the source?
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Neutral
Answer:
(b) Negative

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do deposits with banks become their source of income?
Answer:
They charge different rates of interest on the money they loan and the deposits of the customers. The difference forms their revenue and source of income.

Question 2.
Why do farmers require credit?
Answer:
Farmers require credit to buy seeds, fertilisers or other equipment related to farming apart from personal or family needs.

Question 3.
M. Salim wants to withdraw Rs. 20,000 in cash for making payments to Prem after Prem receives the money he deposits it in his own account? What is the result?
(a) Salim’s balance in his bank account increases and Prem’s balance increases.
(b) Salim’s balance in his bank account decreases and Prem’s balance increases.
(c) Salim’s balance in his bank account increases, and Prem’s balance decreases.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Salim’s balance in his bank account decreases and Prem’s balance increases.

Question 4.
Why is the higher cost of borrowing bad for investors?
Answer:

Question 5.
Why is it difficult for poor people to get loans from the Banks?
Answer:
It is difficult because often they do not have the required collateral or documents necessary for borrowing money.

Question 6.
Krishna is working in a neighboring field on very less wage. Expenses on sudden illnesses or functions in the family are also met through loans. The landowner charges an interest rate of 5% per month. At present, she owes the landowner ₹ 5,000.
Analyse his credit arrangements given above.
Answer:

Question 7.
How is money beneficial in transactions?
Answer:
Money has made transactions easy as it solves the problem of double coincidence of wants by acting as a medium of exchange.

Related Theory
Double coincidence of wants occurs when two individuals swap their goods, in exchange for one another’s. This is also referred to as the ‘perfect barter exchange’.

Question 8.
Give one example each of modern currency and older currency.
Answer:
Examples of modem currency are paper bills/notes, coins, credit cards etc., whereas examples of older currency are coins made of precious metals like gold or silver and also terracotta coins, etc.

Related Theory
Money can be defined as anything that acts as medium of exchange, store of value and unit of accounting to facilitate the economic activities and transactions.

Question 9.
Explain the inherent problem of the ‘barter system’.
Answer:

Question 10.
Why are demand deposits considered as money?
Answer:
Demand deposits are considered as money because they can be withdrawn from the bank as and when needed. Also, they are accepted widely as a means of payment by way of a cheque instead of cash.

Related Theory
People with surplus money or extra amount deposit it in banks. Banks keep the money safe and give an interest on it. The deposits can be drawn at any time on demand by the depositors. That is why they are called demand deposits.

Question 11.
Which bank issues ‘currency notes’ in Indie on behalf of the central government?
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes in India on behalf of federal government.

Related Theory
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages and monitors the working of other banks and also plays the role of a bank to other banks as well as the government

Question 12.
How do the deposits with banks become their source of income?
Answer:
Banks use a major portion of its deposits to extend loans to people, for which they charge high interests and this is how the deposits with banks become their source of income.

Related Theory
The banks mediate between the depositors and the borrowers. Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they pay on the deposits. The difference between the interest charged from the borrowers and what is paid to the depositors is, thus, the main source of income for the banks.

Question 13.
Why is money called a medium of exchange?
Answer:
Money is accepted as a ‘medium of exchange’ because it acts as an intermediary in the process of exchange. A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or service.

Related Theory
Money helps to facilitate trade because people in the economy generally recognise it as valuable. Earlier, barter system was used as a medium of exchange and later, gold was adopted as an intermediary.

Question 14.
What can be the alternative mode of payment in place of cash money?
Answer:
Cheques and demand deposits’ are two alternative modes of payment that can be used in place of cash money.

Related Theory
Digital payment through the internet and mobile wallets is also a good alternative for cash. Plastic money like credit and debit cards are also used instead of cash in the market.

Question 15.
Explain the meaning of currency.
Answer:
Currency in the form of money: paper notes and coins.

Question 16.
How is a double coincidence of wants not appreciable in the contemporary scenario?
Answer:
Double coincidence of wants not appreciable: What a person desires to sell is exactly not what the other wishes to buy.

Question 17.
Why do banks ask for collateral while giving loans?
Answer:
Banks use collateral as a guarantee until the loan is repaid.

Question 18.
How do the Demand Deposits offer facilities
Answer:
Demand Deposits offer facilities as:
It offers essential characteristics of money/ Safe transfer of money.

Question 19.
What is credit?
Answer:

Question 20.
What are formal sources of credit?
Answer:
Banks and Cooperative societies which charge less interest on loan are called formal sources of credit.

Question 21.
Give one reason that prevents a rural poor from getting a formal loan.
Answer:
Lack of collateral

Question 22.
What is a cheque?
Answer:
A cheques is a paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from the person’s account to the person in whose name the cheque has been issued.

Question 23.
What do terms of credit include?
Answer:
The terms of credit include interest rate, collateral, documentation requirement, mode of payment.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Economics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers

Civics Class 10 Chapter 6 MCQs On Political Parties

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The rise of political parties is directly linked to
(a) Emergence of representative democracies
(b) rise of large scale economies
(c) rise of mechanism of restrain and support the government
(d) rise of internet
Answer:
(a) Emergence of representative democracies

MCQ On Political Parties Class 10 Question 2.
Which one of the following is a National Political Party”?
(a) Samajwadi Party
(b) Rashtriya Janata Dal
(c) Rashtriya Lok Dal
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Answer:
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party

MCQ Of Political Parties Class 10 Question 3.
Which one of the following facilities is offered by the “Election Commission” to a recognised political party?
(a) Party Name
(b) Election Funds
(c) Election Symbol
(d) Manifesto
Answer:
(c) Election Symbol

Class 10 Political Parties MCQ Question 4.
Who among the following recognises “Political parties” in India? [CBSE 2014]
(a) Election Commission
(b) President of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Supreme Court
Answer:
(a) Election Commission

Related Theory
More than 750 parties are registered with the Election Commission of India.

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 5.
……………… in which one of the following states does “Shiv Sena” exist as a regional political party?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:

Political Parties MCQ Class 10th Question 6.
Who among the following organised the dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930? [CBSE 2012]
(a) Kanshi Ram
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Gandhiji
(d) Alluri Sitaram Raju
Answer:
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Explanation: Dr. Ambedkar was known as the father of Indian Constitution and worked extensively for the Depressed classes. He arranged them into an association in 1932. It gave the Depressed Classes (Later to be known as the Schedule Castes) reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils, but they were to be voted in by the general electorate.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers Question 7.
Which one of the following political parties seeks to represent and secure power for Dalits, OBCs and Adivasis?
(a) Bahujan Samaj Party
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party
(c) Forward Bloc
(d) Janata Dal (s)
Answer:

MCQ Political Parties Class 10 Question 8.
The political party which believes in Marxism-Leninism is:
(a) Nationalist Congress Party
(b) Communist Party of India
(c) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK)
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party
Answer:
(b) Communist Party of India

Explanation: It was formed in 1925. The party espouses secularism and democracy.
It is opposed to the forces of secessionism and communalism. It accepts parliamentary democracy as a means of promoting the interests of the working class, farmers and the poor.

Political Parties Class 10 MCQs Question 9.
Which one of the following countries has one party system?
(a) China
(b) Indo-China
(c) Japan
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) China

Explanation: In some countries, only one party is allowed to control and run the government. These are called one-party systems.

MCQ Of Chapter Political Parties Class 10 Question 10.
Which of the following countries have bi-party system?
(a) United Kingdom and Belgium
(b) United States of America and Canada
(c) United Kingdom and United States of America
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) United Kingdom and United States of America

Political Party Class 10 MCQ Question 11.
Which of the following political party was founded in 1998?
(a) All India Trinamool Congress
(b) Nationalist Congress Party
(c) Aam Admi Party
(d) Bharatiya Janata Party
Answer:
(a) Alt India Trinamool Congress

Explanation: All India Trinamool Congress was founded under the leadership of Mamta Banerjee and is currently ruling in West Bengal since 2011.

Related Theory
This party became a national political party in 2016.

Political Parties MCQ Class 10 Question 12.
In this party system, generally power changes between two main parties:
(a) Bi-party system
(b) Single party system
(c) Multi-party system
(d) None of these
Answer:

MCQs Of Political Parties Class 10 Question 13.
What does UPA stands for?
(a) United Party Alliance
(b) United Progressive Alliance
(c) Unified Political Alliance
(d) None of the above
Answer:

MCQ Of Political Parties Question 14.
Which of the following statements are not associated with a regional political party in India?
(a) It gets 6 per cent of the total votes in the Lok Sabha election
(b) It gets 2 seats in the elections for state legislatures
(c) It gets 6 percent of the total votes in an election to the legislative assembly of a state
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) It gets 6 per cent of the total votes in the Lok Sabha election

MCQs On Political Parties Question 15.
Which of the following institutions in India has passed an order for every candidate who contests elections to file an giving details of property and criminal cases?
(a) Supreme court of India
(b) Election Commission of India
(c) Constitution of India
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Supreme court of India

Question 16.
The rise of political parties can be linked directly to the emergence of:
(a) Direct democracy
(b) Dictatorship
(c) Monarchy
(d) Representative democracy
Answer:
(d) Representative Democracy

Explanation: Political Parties are a symbol of Representative Democracy. Political parties are groups of politically aware citizens who’re interested in running the government/country as representatives of common people.

Related Theory
Large societies/countries need Representative Democracies. In a representative democracy, repre-sentatives are chosen through public support in elections to form a responsible government because direct democracy is not possible or feasible in these countries. Representatives take care of the needs and requirements of the people who’ve voted for him.

In direct democracies, people do not chose any representatives, rather decide everything through methods like referendum where everyone votes in negative or affirmative at the time of decision making.

Dictatorship is the rule of a single person. No Political parties are allowed to rise in Dictatorship because all powers lie in the hands of an individual and the will of the people is not considered important.

In Monarchy, power is vested in the hands of a non- elected ruler. This position is hereditary. The ruler runs the country and there’s no significance attached to the needs of the people.

Question 17.
What does NDA stands for?
(a) Natural Democratic Alliance
(b) Nominative Democratic Alliance
(c) Nautical Democratic Alliance
(d) National Democratic Alliance
Answer:
(d) National Democratic Alliance

Explanation: NDA is led by BJP and is ruling in the centre currently.

Question 18.
Which of the following political party draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Ramaswamy Naicker and Dr. Ambedkar?
(a) BJP
(b) BSP
(c) NCP
(d) CPI
Answer:
(b) BSP

Explanation: BSP was formed in 1984 under the leadership of late Kanshi Ram.

Related Theory
This party enjoys its main base in the state of Uttar Pradesh and formed governments in this state several times by taking support of different parties at different times.

Question 19.
Arrange political parties according to their year of formation in increasing order:
(i) BSP
(ii) BJP
(iii) INC
(iv) CPI
Options:
(a) (i)-(iv)-(iii)-(ii)
(b) (iii)-(iv)-(i)-(ii)
(c) (iv)-(i)-(ii)-(iii)
(d) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)
Answer:
(d) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)

Explanation: INC — 1885 CPI— 1925 BJP— 1980 BSP — 1984

Question 20.
Uniform civil code for all people living in the country irrespective of religion is the agenda of:
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party
(c) Nationalist Party of India
(d) Nationalist Congress Party
Answer:
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party

Question 21.
Which one of the following party systems is against the basic principle of democracy?
(a) Multi-party system
(b) Bi-party system
(c) Single party system
(d) None of the above
Answer:

Question 22.
This party was founded in 1964 and believes in Marxism-Leninism. Identify the party:
(a) Communist Party of India
(b) Community Party of India
(c) Communist Party of India-Marxist
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Communist Party of India-Marxist

Explanation: This party is known as CPI-M and was formed after a spilt in the CPI in 1964.

Question 23.
In India, which of the following alliance is NOT active?
(a) National Democratic Alliance
(b) United Progressive Alliance
(c) Left Front
(d) Right Front
Answer:
(d) Right Front

Explanation: In India, there are three major alliances since the 2004 parliamentary elections-NDA (led by BJP), UPA (led by the Congress Party) and the Left Front.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given in each question.

Question 24.
Identify the party:
(1) Several parties compete for power
(2) More than two parties have a reasonable chance of coming to power.
(3) The government is formed by various parties coming together.
Answer:
Multi-party system.

Question 25.
Identify the party:
(1) Launched on 1 January, 1998 under the leadership of Mamata Banerjee.
(2) The party’s symbol is flowers and grass.
(3) Committed to secularism and federalism.
Answer:
All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)

Explanation: It has been in power in West Bengal since 2011. It also has a presence in Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura. In the General Elections held in 2019, it got 4.07 per cent votes and won 22 seats, making it the fourth largest party in the Lok Sabha.

Question 26.
Identify the party:
(1) It is critical of the new economic policies that allow free flow of foreign capital and goods into the country.
(2) It was in power in West Bengal without a break for 34 years.
(3) It was founded in 1964.
(4) The party believes in Marxism-Leninism
Answer:

Correct and Rewrite /True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 27.
India has evolved a multiparty system because the social and geographical diversity in such a large country is not easily absorbed by two or even three parties.
Answer:
True

Question 28.
‘National parties’ have one unit in one state only.
Answer:
False
‘National parties’ have units in various states all across the country.

Question 29.
Political parties are not crucial for the working of democracy.
Answer:

Question 30.
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Mayawati.
Answer:
False

Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.

Explanation: Formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram, BSP seeks to represent bahujan samaj and secure power for them, which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities. Mayawati is one of the leaders affiliated to the party.

Question 31.
The election commission is the most visible institution of any Democracy.
Answer:
False

A Political Party is the most visible institution of any Democracy.

Explanation: Political Parties link the lower most unit of the society- Humans to the entire administration and political system. They become a medium through which Democracy is executed at times of elections. They are the most visible institution because they play the most important role in helping people choose their true and correct representatives. They compete to bring up different issues and problems and compete for public support.

Question 32.
The Supreme Court passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organizational elections and file their income tax returns.
Answer:
The Election Commission of India passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organizational elections and file their income tax returns.

Question 33.
Indian National Congress wants that high in government be confined to natural-born citizens of the country.
Answer:
Nationalist Congress Party wants that high offices in government be confined to natural-born citizens of the country.

Fill in the blanks/tables with suitable information:

Question 34.
Complete the following table with regards to information about political parties:

Answer:
(A) 4
(B) 2

Question 35.
The ……….. was leading the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) government from 2004 to 2014.
Answer:
Indian National Congress

Question 36.
Any democratic system must allow at least parties to contest elections to provide fair chances.
Answer:

Question 37.
The body which recognizes and registers Political Parties in India is called
Answer:
Election Commission

Explanation: It is a specific body created to conduct elections in India and to check, recognise and moniror political parties. Central Election Commission recognises National Parties. State Election Commissions are subunits of central election commission at the state level.

Question 38.
The Bharatiya Janta Party came into power in 1998 as the leader of the ………….. coalition.
Answer:
NDA

Explanation: Bharatiya Janata Party headed the National Democratic Alliance led Coalition Government in 1998.

Related Theory
Coalition government means when any party is incapable of proving majority, single handedly, multiple parties come together and form a government.

Question 39.
………… was the last party to become a national level party in India.
Answer:
All India Trinamool Congress

Explanation: All India Trinamool Congress was formed in 1998 under the leadership of Mamta Banerjee, recognised as a national party in 2016 and in power in West Bengal since 2011.

Question 40.
………….. is the oldest party of India.
Answer:

Question 41.
…………. is a National Political Party in India formed in 1984 by late Kanshi Ram.
Answer:
Bahujan Samaj party

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 42.
Match the following political parties from column A with their ideologies given in column B:

Column A (Political Parties)	Column B (Ideologies)
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party	(i) Believes in Marxism- Leninism
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party	(ii) Supports new economic reforms with a human face
(c) Indian National Congress	(iii) Seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj
(d) Communist Party of India	(iv) Uniform civil code

Answer:

Column A (Political Parties)	Column B (Ideologies)
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party	(iv) Uniform civil code
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party	(iii) Seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj
(c) Indian National Congress	(ii) Supports new economic reforms with a human face
(d) Communist Party of India	(i) Believes in Marxism- Leninism

Question 43.
Match the following political parties from column A with their years of foundation given in column B:

Column A (Political Parties)	Column B (Year of Foundation)
(a) Communist Party of India	(i) 1885
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party	(ii) 1984
(c) Bahujan Samaj Party	(iii) 1980
(d) Indian National Congress	(iv) 1925

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Civics Chapter 6

Question 44.
Assertion (A): The quality of democracy depends on the degree of public participation.
Reason (R): Public participation brings transparency.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The problem of bad politics can be solved by more and better politics which can be achieved only when people participate more.

Question 45.
Assertion (A): It is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an affidavit giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him.
Reason (R): It makes the voters more informed.
Answer:

Question 46.
Assertion (A): The fourth challenge is that very often parties do not seem to offer a meaningful choice to the voters.
Reason (R): The politicians are the same everywhere.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Parties and politicians agree on more fundamental aspects but differ only in details on how policies are to be framed and implemented. In India, the differences among all the major parties on the economic policies have reduced. Those who want really different policies have no option available to them.

Question 47.
Assertion (A): Party system is something any country can choose.
Reason (R): It evolves over time.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: The party system is not something any country can choose. It evolves over a long time, depending on the nature of society, its social and regional divisions, its history of politics and its system of elections.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
Thus, parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society. Parties are about a part of the society and thus involve PARTISANSHIP. Thus a party is known by which part it stands for, which policies it supports and whose interest it upholds.

Which out of the following is not a feature of ‘Partisanship’?
(a) inability to take a balanced view.
(b) Partiality towards one group.
(c) Representation of only certain interests.
(d) Equal significance to all issues in the country.
Answer:
(d) Equal significance to all issues in the country. Explanation: Partisanship means inability to hold a balanced view. When one is a partisan, he is biased towards a group.

Question 2.
Observe the table given below and answer the question that follows:

Which area of the world shows maximum political participation through parties?
(a) America
(b) South Asia
(c) Africa
(d) Europe
Answer:
(b) South Asia

Explanation: The proportion of those who said they were members of some political party is higher in India than many advanced countries like Canada, Japan, Spain and South Korea,

Question 3.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. They agree on some policies and programmes for the society with a view to promote the collective good.
Which one of these is NOT a function of a political party?
(a) To reflect fundamental political divisions in a society.
(b) To contest elections.
(c) To play a decisive role in making laws.
(d) To form and run governments.
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
Only a handful of parties are effectively in the race to win elections and form the government. So the question, then is: how many major or effective parties are good for a democracy? In some countries, only one party is allowed to control and run the government. These are called one-party systems. China is one such country.
Based on your reading, complete the following statement:
The is the only political party that is allowed to function in China.
Answer:
The Chinese communist party

Explanation: China follows the One party system where only one party is allowed to contest elections. It is a flawed form of Democracy.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
Formed in 1999 following a split in the Congress party. Espouses democracy, Gandhian secularism, equity, social justice and federalism. Wants that high in government be confined to natural born citizens of the country. Identify this political party.
Answer:
Nationalist Congress party

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Most of the major parties of the country are classified by the Election Commission as ‘State parties’. These are commonly referred to as regional parties. Yet these parties need not be regional in their ideology or outlook. Over the last three decades, the number and strength has expanded. This made the Parliament of India politically more and more diverse. As a result, the national parties are compelled to form alliances with State parties. Since 1996, nearly every one of the state parties has got an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national level coalition government. This has contributed to the strengthening of federalism
and democracy in our country.
(A) What is a State party?
Answer:

(B) Which one of the following parties is active in Punjab?
(a) Samajwadi Party
(b) Akali Dali
(c) Trinamool Congress Party
(d) Communist Party of India
Answer:
(b) Akali Dal
Explanation: Samajwadi Party is active in UP, Trinamool congress and Communist Party of India are national parties.

(C) Which of the following has contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy in our country?
(a) that every regional political party has been a part of national governments through coalitions.
(b) that every national political party has been a part of state governments through coalitions.
(c) that every national and regional political party has been a part of state and national level coalition governments.
(d) that the national parties have allowed state parties to thrive.
Answer:
(a) that every regional political party has been a part of national governments through coalitions.
Explanation: Since 1996, there has been a trend of coalition governments in India in the centre particularly.

(D) Assertion (A): Over the last three decades, the number and strength of regional political parties has expanded.
Reason(R): More people are aware and enthusiastic to participate in the political process and articulate their interests through gaining power.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Seeks to represent and secure power for the bahujan samaj which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities. Draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Periyar
Ramaswami Naicker and Babasaheb Ambedkar. Stands for the cause of securing the interests and welfare of the dalits and oppressed people. It has its main base in the state of Uttar Pradesh and substantial presence in neighbouring states like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Delhi and Punjab. Formed government in Uttar Pradesh several times by taking the support of different parties at different times. In the Lok Sabha elections held in 2019, it polled about 3.63 per cent votes and secured 10 seats in the Lok Sabha.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Identify the party mentioned in the source.
(a) BJP
(b) AITC
(c) Janata Dal
(d) BSP
Answer:
(d) BSP

Explanation: It was formed in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram. It seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj which includes the Dalits, Adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities.

(B) Fill in the blank by choosing an appropriate option:
AITC – Bengal; NCP- ………………
(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Kashmir
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

(C) Categorise the given party as a regional or national party based on the necessary criteria laid by Election Commission.
(a) Regional Party
(b) National Party
(c) Not recognised Party
(d) Recognised party but elects candidates for local self government bodies.
Answer:

(D) Identify the symbol of the party.
(a) Lion
(b) Lotus
(c) Elephant
(d) Grass and Flowers.
Answer:
(c) Elephant

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Political parties are easily one of the most visible institutions in a democracy. For most ordinary citizens, democracy is equal to political parties. If you travel to remote parts of our country and speak to the less educated citizens, you could come across people who may not know anything about our Constitution or about the nature of our government. But chances are that they would know something about our political parties. At the same time this visibility does not mean popularity. Most people tend to be very critical of political parties. They tend to blame parties for all that is wrong with our democracy and our political life.
Parties have become identified with social and political divisions.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Consider the following statements and mark which of them are true:
(I) Political parties do not enjoy much trust among the people in South Asia.
(II) Political parties are one of the least trusted institutions all over the world.
(III) The proportion of those who said they were members of some political party was higher in India than many advanced countries like Canada, Japan, Spain and South Korea.
(IV) Over the last three decades the proportion of those who report to be members of political parties in India has gone up steadily.
(V) Political parties are easily one of the most invisible institutions in a democracy.
(a) (l)&(V)
(b) (I) & (III)
(c) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II), (III), (IV) & (V)
Answer:
(c) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)

(B) Which of the following can be the right definition of Political parties?
(a) A political party is a group of people who contest elections.
(b) A political party is a group of people who come together for power.
(c) A political party is a group of people who are of different ideologies and contest elections for authority and power.
(d) A political party is a group of people who influence decision making.
Answer:
(c) A political party is a group of people who are of different ideologies and contest elections for authority and power.

(C) Why do people blame parties?
(a) Because there are no other way to blame anyone.
(b) Because they are undemocratic.
(c) Because they represent democracy the best.
(d) Because they are the most visible democratic institutions.
Answer:
(d) Because they are the most visible democratic institutions.
Explanation: They are the true representatives of democracy across the country. They are blamed due to that connection.

(D) What is the main purpose of a political party?
(a) To look for issues.
(b) To increase political participation.
(c) To change the country territorially.
(d) To bring reformation in political system of the country.
Answer:
(b) To increase political participation Explanation: Political parties incorporate more people through adding them as members, activists etc.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
We have seen how crucial political parties are for the working of democracy. Since parties are the most visible face of democracy, it is natural that people blame parties for whatever is wrong with the working of democracy. All over the world, people express strong dissatisfaction with the failure of political parties to perform their functions well. This is the case in our country too. Popular dissatisfaction and criticism has focussed on four problem areas in the working of political parties. Political parties need to face and overcome these challenges in order to remain effective instruments of democracy.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following challenges affects the internal working of a political party?
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties.
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.
(c) The challenge of dynastic succession.
(d) The challenge of not giving adequate choices to people.
Answer:
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.

Explanation: Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly. Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party. This affects internal working of a party.

(B) Mishra ji, a political party head is not ready to leave his position as the head of a party for any other leader except his son. Which challenge does this situation represent?
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties.
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.
(c) The challenge of dynastic succession.
(d) The challenge of not giving adequate choices to people.
Answer:

(C) Following are some suggestions to reform parties. Which of them is helpful to curb the misuse of money and muscle power in politics?
(I) There should be state funding of elections.
(II) Parties should give one-third of its tickets to women candidates.
(III) Parties should look for leaders from rural areas.
(IV) A body should be set up for regulation of economic affairs of the party.
(a) (I) & (IV)
(b) (II) & (III)
(c) (I), (II), (III)
(d) (IV) only
Answer:

(D) Berlusconi was the Prime Minister of Italy. He is also one of the top businessmen in Italy. He is the leader of the Forza Italia founded in 1993. His company owns TV channels, the most important publishing company, a football club (AC Milan) and a bank. Identify the challenge posed.
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties.
(b) The challenge of lack of internal democracy within parties.
(c) The challenge of dynastic succession.
(d) The challenge of not giving adequate choices to people.
Answer:
(a) The challenge of growing role of money and muscle power in parties

Explanation: He controlled the economic market and could make decisions which forfeited him keeping aside all the interests of the people in his country.

Question 10.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow:
The first challenge is lack of internal democracy within parties. Allover the world there is a tendency in political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top. Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly. Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party. They do not have the means or the connections needed to influence the decisions. As a result the leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party.
The second challenge of dynastic succession is related to the first one. Since most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning, there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Questions:
(A) Name one state and one national political party in India?
Answer:
National Party: Indian National Congress State Party: Janata Dal(U) of Jharkhand

(B) What is the challenge of dynastic succession faced by a party?
Answer:
The challenge of Dynastic Succession in parties is a result of favouritism and nepotism practiced openly. It becomes difficult for an outsider/common man to rise to influential positions in a party regardless of his talent. Most powerful positions are reserved for relatives or friends.

(C) Suggest reforms which can help political parties to face the lack of internal democracy.
Answer:
To face lack of internal democracy, a party should make its functioning more transparent. Regular meetings should be held, communication should be made stronger, favouritism should be removed and everybody should be given an equal chance to contribute to party affairs. Apart from this, selection process or utilisation of funds should be made transparent by setting up a committee-properly represented by all areas of members present in the country

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Examine the reason to accept a multi-party system in India.
Answer:
India is a diverse country and needs to accommodate its diversity to help in better administration. This is possible only through a Multi-party system.

Question 2.
Correct the following statements and rewrite it.
Bahujan Samaj Party was formed under the leadership of the Mayawati.
Answer:
Bahujan Samaj Party was formed under the leadership of the Mayawati.

Question 3.
Name any one political party that has National level political organization but not recognized as the National Political Party.
Answer:
Rashtriya Janata Dal or Samajwadi Party

Question 4.
Name an Alliance formed by the Congress Party?
Answer:

Question 5.
What is the guiding philosophy of Bharatiya Janata Party?
Answer:
India’s ancient culture, values and cultural nationalism (or ‘Hindutvaj is the guiding philosophy of BJP.

Question 6.
Name any two Regional parties of West Bengal.
Answer:
Forward Bloc and Trinamool Congress

Question 7.
If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all other members are neglected then what challenge is being faced by that party?
Answer:
The challenge of dynastic succession

Question 8.
Suggest any one way to make political parties more responsive to people’s needs and demands.
Answer:
Political parties can be- made more responsive through organised petitions, agitations and publicity by various groups.

Explanation: This shall make political parties pay more attention to people’s needs to secure their support.

Question 9.
Name any one regional party of Uttar Pradesh.
Answer:
The Samajwadi Party is one of the regional parties of Uttar Pradesh.

Related Theory
Regional political party (or state party) is a party that has its presence only in one or some states. Regional parties may not always be regional in their ideology or outlook.

Question 10.
Why is one party political system not considered a good democratic system?
Answer:
One party political system is not considered a good democratic system because it doesn’t offer a meaningful choice to the citizens of the country as they have no options to choose from.

Related Theory
Because of this, the right to vote given to the citizens of a democracy having one party political system is useless as there is only one party which wins the elections every time.

Question 11.
Suggest any one way to promote public participation in political parties for enhancing the quality of democracy.
Answer:

Question 12.
Name any two Indian national political parties.
Answer:
Indian national political parties are:

Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
Indian National Congress (INC)
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)
All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)

Related Theory
A national political party is a party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four States and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha.

Question 13.
Which organization recognize ‘political parties in India?
Answer:
The Election Commission of India is responsible for recognizing and registering ‘political parties in India.

Related Theory
The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for organizing and administering election processes in India at national, state and district levels.

Question 14.
What is defection?
Answer:

Question 15.
Name any one political party that is a national-level political organization but is not recognized as a national political party.
Answer:
Samajwadi Party is a political party that has a national-level political organization but is not recognized as a national political party.

Related Theory
Other examples of such political parties are Rashtriya Janata Dal and Samata Party. Such parties have their units in several states.

Question 16.
In which year did the Communist Party of India split into two parties?
Answer:
1964

Question 16.
Explain the meaning of political party.
Answer:

Question 17.
Why do political parties involve partisanship?
Answer:
Political parties involve partisanship because The parties are a part of the society and thus they involve partisanship.

Question 18.
Which type of government is formed when two or more political parties come together to form a government?
Answer:
Coalition Government

Explanation: At times, when no single party is able to gather majority votes, two or more parties come together to form a government. This is called Coalition Government.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Civics MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resource and Development with Answers

Resource and Development Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

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Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQs On Resource and Development

Resources And Development Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The burial ground is a …………………..
(a) community-owned resource
(b) national resource
(c) individual resource
(d) international resource
Answer:
(a) community-owned resource

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 MCQ Question 2.
Which of the following elements/minerals is the black soil deficient in?
(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Magnesium
(c) Potash
(d) Phosphoric contents
Answer:
(d) Phosphoric contents

Class 10 Resources And Development MCQ Question 3.
Which of the following soils are formed by intense leaching?
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Red soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Desert soil
Answer:
(c) Laterite Soil

Explanation: Lateritic soils are mostly deep to very deep, acidic (pH < 6.0), generally deficient in plant nutrients and occur mostly in southern states, the Western Ghats region of Maharashtra, Odisha, some parts of West Bengal, and the North-east region.

Resources And Development MCQ Question 4.
Match the items in column A with that of Column B.

Column A	Column B
(A) Potential	(I) Solar Energy
(B) Stock	(II) Ponds
(C) Individual	(III) Wind energy in Rajasthan
(D) Renewable	(IV) Hydrogen

Answer:
(a) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
(b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
(d) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

Resource And Development Class 10 MCQ Question 5.
What is the arrangement of soil in different layers or horizons known as?
(a) Soil Composition
(b) Soil Erosion
(c) Soil Profile
(d) Soil Texture
Answer:
(c) Soil Profile

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
Which of the following is a name given to an area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area?
(a) Net sown area
(b) Forest cover
(c) Wasteland
(d) Gross cropped area
Answer:
(d) Gross cropped area

Geography Class 10 Chapter 1 MCQ Question 7.
Which of the following contexts was advocated on the international level for the first time the conservation of the resource?
(a) The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation for the first time in a more systematic way in 1968.
(b) The Brundtland Committee Report published it.
(c) It was discussed in an Indian Affairs with America Discussion.
(d) It was discussed through a book called Small is Beautiful.
Answer:
(a) The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation for the first time in a more systematic way in 1968.

Resource And Development MCQ Question 8.
The soil has a self-aeration capacity.
(a) Alluvial
(b) Red soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Mountain soil
Answer:
(c) Black Soil

Ch 1 Geo Class 10 MCQ Question 9.
India’s territorial water extends up to a distance of :
(a) 22.5 Nautical Miles
(b) 12 Nautical miles
(c) 19.2 Nautical miles
(d) 200 nautical miles
Answer:

MCQ On Resources And Development Class 10 Question 10.
Red soil is mostly found in:
(a) Parts of Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Upper Ganga Plains
(c) Eastern and Southern part of Deccan Plateau
(d) Piedmont zone of Western Ghats
Answer:
(d) Piedmont zone of Western Ghats

Explanation: Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, southern parts of the middle Ganga plain, and along the piedmont of the Western Ghats.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Question 11.
Which of the following is not important for soil formation?
(a) Relief
(b) Parent rock
(c) Climate
(d) Duration of sunlight in a day
Answer:
(d) Duration of sunlight in a day

Geography Chapter 1 Class 10 MCQ Question 12.
In which of the following state is black soil found?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand [Diksha]
Answer:
(b) Gujarat

Explanation: Black soil is mainly found in Gujarat and Maharashtra states of India. This soil is considered good for the cotton crop and so is known as ‘black cotton soil’ or ‘regur soil’.

Related theory
Black soil is typical of the Deccan trap (Basalt) region spread over northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows. Black soils are well-known for their capacity to hold moisture.

MCQ Of Resources And Development Question 13.
Which of the following is not a measure to reduce soil erosion?
(a) Creating deep channels (gullies)
(b) Contour plowing
(c) Strip cropping
(d) Planting of shelterbelts
Answer:

MCQ Of Resources And Development Class 10 Question 14.
Under which of the following type of resource can tidal energy be put?
(a) Replenishable
(b) Abiotic
(c) Human-made
(d) Non-recyclable
Answer:
(a) Replenishable

Explanation: Replenishable resources are also known as renewable resources. Solar energy, wind energy, water, thermal and tidal energy are the examples of replenishable resources.

Related Theory
Abiotic: These are the type of resources that are derived from nonliving things in the environment such as sunlight, air, etc.

Human-made: These are also known as capital resources which are created by humans such as money, infrastructure etc.

Non-recyclable: These resources are those substances which cannot be used again in any form.

Class 10 Geo Ch 1 MCQ Question 15.
The Rio Convention endorsed the Global Forest Principles and adopted which of the following for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century?
(a) Agenda 21
(b) Agenda 22
(c) Agenda 20
(d) Agenda 25
Answer:
(a) Agenda 21

Explanation: Agenda 21 aims at achieving global sustainable development. It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global cooperation on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities.

Related Theory
One major objective of the Agenda 21 is that every local government should draw its own local Agenda 21.

Question 16.
Which of the following book includes ‘Gandhian Philosophy’ on conservation of resources?
(a) Small is Beautiful
(b) Our Common Future
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Small is Beautiful

Explanation: In 1974, Gandhian philosophy was presented by Schumacher in his book ‘Small is Beautiful.’

Related Theory
Gandhi ji was very apt in voicing his concern about resource conservation in his words:”There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed.” He was against mass production and wanted to replace it with production by the masses.

Question 17.
In which of the following states is the terrace cultivation practiced?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand [Diksha]
Answer:
(d) Uttarakhand

Explanation: In hilly areas, steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces on which terrace cultivation is practiced. Terrace cultivation restricts soil erosion in hilly areas such as Uttarakhand.

Question 18.
Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised are called
(a) Potential
(b) Developed
(c) Stock
(d) Reserve
Answer:
(a) Potential

Explanation: Resources which are found in a region but have not been utilised to their full capacity are called potential resources. For example, Rajasthan and Gujarat have huge potential for the development of wind and solar energy, but so far these have not been developed properly.

Related Theory
Resources surveyed and determined for utilisation are called Developed Resources. Development of resources depends upon the technology being used to determine and exhaust their quantity and quality. Useful resources which are not being used to their complete capacity due to lack of technology are called Stock. For example, hydet energy in most countries.

Reserves are subsets of the stock: which can be used with the help of existing technical know-how’. Their use has not yet begun. For example, energy of water stored in dams.

Question 19.
The village of Sukhomajri and the district of Jhabua have shown that it is possible:
(a) To reverse land degradation
(b) To reverse economic prosperity
(c) To reserve water
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) To reverse land degradation

Explanation: People’s management is essentiaL for ecological restoration. For example, tree density in Sukhomajri increased from 13 per hectare in 1976 to 1272 per hectare in 1992.

Related Theory
Sukhomajri village is located in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 20.
Which of the following soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai?
(a) Black soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Alluvial Soil

Question 21.
In which of the following state deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation?
(a) Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Odisha
(c) Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 22.
Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crises. Which of the following is NOT associated to this statement?
(a) Global warming
(b) Ozone layer maintenance
(c) Environmental pollution
(d) Land degradation
Answer:

Question 23.
Choose the feature which is NOT associated with Arid soils:
(a) These soils develop a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks
(b) In some areas the salt content is very high and common salt is obtained from these soils
(c) The lower horizon of the soil is occupied by Kankar nodules
(d) These soils become cultivable after proper irrigation.
Answer:
(a) These soils develop a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks

Question 24.
Which one of the following is an example of Cultivable Wasteland?
(a) Gross cropped Area
(b) Uncultivable Land
(c) Barren Wasteland
(d) Current fallow Land
Answer:
(b) Uncultivable Land.

Identify the following on basis of the hints given in each question.

Question 25.
Identify the soil:
(1) It develops under tropical and subtropical climates with an alternate wet and dry season.
(2) Mostly deep to very deep, acidic (pH<6.0), generally deficient in plant nutrients
(3) It is humus rich, but under sparse vegetation and in a semi-arid environment, it is generally humus poor.
(4) They are prone to erosion.
Answer:

Question 26.
Identify the soil:
(1) It consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
(2) Soil particles appear somewhat bigger in size when we move closer to the river valley.
(3) Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai.
Answer:
Alluvial Soil

Correct & Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 27.
Resources that are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation are called potential resources.
Answer:
False.

Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation are called developed resources.

Related Theory
Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utitised are called Potential Resources.

Question 28.
Forest area in the country is far better than the desired 33 per cent of geographical area.
Answer:
Forest area in the country is far lower than the desired 33 per cent of geographical area.

Question 29.
The black soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
Answer:

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 30.
Laterite soil is very useful for growing …………….among other beverage crops.
Answer:
tea

Explanation: After adopting appropriate soil conservation techniques particularly in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, tea can be grown.

Question 31.
The ………………….. soils texture varies according to the mountain environment where they are formed.
Answer:
Forest

Question 32.
The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is called ………………
Answer:
Badland

Question 33.
With people being made the decision-makers by the Madhya Pradesh government, 2.9 million hectares or about 1 per cent of India’s land area, are being greened across the state through ……………….
Answer:
Watershed management

Question 34.
Resource on the basis of exhaustibility

Resource	Examples/Type
(a) ____________	Solar and wind energy
(b) ____________	Mineral and fossil fuels

Answer:
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non-Renewable resources

Explanation: The resources which can be renewed or reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes are known as renewable or replenishable resources. For example, solar and wind energy, water, forests and wildlife, etc.

Resources which get exhausted with use, can not be reproduced or rejuvenated and take millions of years to form are called non-renewable resources. For example, minerals and fossil fuels.

Question 35.
Sustainable development encourages usage of…………… energy resources.
Answer:

Question 36.
The running water cuts through the clayey soil and makes deep channels. This is called……………..
Answer:
Gully erosion

Question 37.
Complete the following table with the correct information with regards to types of resources:

Resource	Examples
Biotic	(A) ?
(B) ?	Water

Answer:
(A) Forests
(B) Abiotic

Explanation: Biotic Resources are obtained from the biosphere and have life such as human beings, flora and fauna, fisheries, livestock, etc. All those things which are composed of non-living things are called abiotic resources. For example, rocks and metals.

Question 38.
………………… soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast.
Answer:
Alluvial Soil

Explanation: This is the most widely spread and fertile soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra, all of which flow towards the eastern coast of the country.

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 39.
Match the following terms from column A with their explanation from column B:

Column A (Terms)	Column B (Explanation)
(a) Bangar	(i) New alluvial
(b) Khadar	(ii) Old alluvial
(c) Regur	(iii) Arable land left without cultivation for a year or more
(d) Fallow Land	(iv) Cotton soil

Answer:

Question 40.
Match the following efforts of resource conservation from column A with years from column B:

Column A (Resource Conservation Efforts)	Column B (Years)
(a)The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation	(i) 1992
(b) Gandhi on Philosophy presented in Small is Beautiful	(ii) 1987
(c) Brundtt and Commission Report on ‘Sustainable Development	(iii) 1974
(d) Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro	(iv) 1968

Answer:

Column A (Resource Conservation Efforts)	Column B (Years)
(a)The Club of Rome advocated resource conservation	(iv) 1968
(b) Gandhi on Philosophy presented in Small is Beautiful	(iii) 1974
(c) Brundtt and Commission Report on ‘Sustainable Development	(ii) 1987
(d) Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro	(i) 1992

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 1

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c), or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 41.
Assertion (A): Human beings interact with nature through technology and create institutions to accelerate their economic development.
Reason (R): Resources are essential for human development.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Resources help us develop economically. All economic activities are dependent on resources. Hence, it is through institutions like factories, organizations etc that humans are able to exploit and use natural resources.

Question 42.
Assertion (A): Public parks, picnic spots, playgrounds in urban areas are community-owned resources.
Reason (R): They are accessible to all the people living there.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 43.
Assertion (A): An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for sustained quality of life and global peace.
Reason (R): They promote equality among classes.
Answer:

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of life.
Reason (R): We cannot breathe without them.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: We can breathe without resources but they are essential for survival because they help us develop and attain new avenues.

Question 45.
Assertion (A): Rich resources in colonies were the main attractions for the foreign invaders.
Reason (R): Foreign invaders exploited these resources through better technologies and earned wealth through this drain.
Answer:

Question 46.
Assertion (A): The pattern of net sown area varies greatly from one state to another.
Reason (R): The land under permanent pasture has decreased.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Different states have different net sown area. Over 80 per cent of the total area in Punjab and Haryana and 10 percent in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Andaman Nicobar Islands.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the following source and answer the question that follows:
Total geographical area of India is 3.28 million sq km. Land use data, however, is available only for 93 per cent of the total geographical area because the land use reporting for most of the north-east states except Assam has not been done fully.
The land use in which of the following states has not been conducted properly?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Odisha
Answer:
(c) Meghalaya

Explanation: Land use has not been properly carried out in North western states.

Question 2.
Read the details given in the source below and identify the kind of soil whose features have been mentioned.
This type of soil is typical of the Deccan trap (Basalt) region spread over northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows. They are well-known for their capacity to hold moisture. In addition, they are rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime. They are made up of extremely fine i.e. clayey material.
Answer:
Black Soil

Explanation: Black soil is also known as ‘Regur Soil’ or ‘Cotton Soil’ as it is good for the cultivation of cotton crop in the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat in India.

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources. There are some regions which can be considered self-sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has an abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development.

The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and Local levels.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following states are rich in mineral resources?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) UP
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Bihar
Answer:
(c) Chhattisgarh

(B) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
Cold Desert – Ladakh; Warm Desert- …………..
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
Answer:

(C) Which of the following resources are potential resources?
(a) Mineral
(b) Wind energy
(c) Coal
(d) Petroleum
Answer:
(b) Wind energy

Explanation: Other resources have been put to use.

(D) Why is resource planning necessary?
(a) Resources will be completely used up if they are planned well.
(b) Resources will be exhausted if they were not planned well.
(c) Resources will be used better if planned.
(d) Resources are supposed to be planned all along.
Answer:
(b) Resources will be exhausted if they were not planned well.

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
This is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems- the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.

The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. As we move inlands towards the river valleys, soil particles appear somewhat bigger in size. In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. near the place of the break of slope, the soils are coarse. Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai.
Apart from the size of their grains or components, soils are also described on the basis of their age. According to their age alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar) and new alluvial (Khadar). The bangar soil has higher concentration ofkanker nodules than the Khadar. It has more fine particles and is more fertile than the bangar.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following crops will the alluvial soil support?
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Rice
(d) Coffee
Answer:
(c) Rice

(B) The Alluvial Soil is deposited by
(a) Lava
(b) Rivers
(c) Earthquakes
(d) Snowfall
Answer:
(b) Rivers

(C) Which of the states is the alluvial soil not found at all?
(a) UP
(b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
(d) Bihar
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Explanation: Alluvial Soils are spread in the northern and north western parts of the country through river basins.

(D) Which of the following characteristics is true about the Bangar soil?
(a) Bangar is the most fertile alluvial soil.
(b) Bangar is a new alluvial.
(c) The Bangar soil has higher concentration ofkanker nodules than the Khadar nodules.
(d) Bangar soil has smaller particles than Khadar soil.
Answer:

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion. The processes of soil formation and erosion go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance between the two. Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation, overgrazing, construction and mining etc., while natural forces like wind, glacier and . water lead to soil erosion. The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies. The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin such lands are called ravines. Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the top soil is washed away.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following erosions destroy the subsoil?
(a) Gully erosion
(b) Sheet erosion
(c) Wind erosion
(d) Tree erosion
Answer:
(a) Gully erosion
Explanation: Other types of erosion basically affect the topsoil sheet and not the subsoil directly.

(B) Which of the following statements about soil erosion is not true?
(a) Soil erosion does not affect the soil cover.
(b) Soil erosion can be caused by glaciers.
(c) Ravines are caused due to soil erosion.
(d) Soil formation and soil erosion go hand in hand.
Answer:
(a) Soil erosion does not affect the soil cover.

(D) Where are the ravines found?
(a) Mahanadi Basin
(b) Chambal Basin
(c) Ganga Basin
(d) Yamuna Basin
Answer:
(b) Chambal Basin

Question 6.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
We have shared our land with the past generations and will have to do so with the future generations too. Ninety-five per cent of our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are obtained from land. Human activities have not only brought about degradation of land but have also aggravated the pace of natural forces to cause damage to land. Some human activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, mining and quarrying too have contributed significantly in land degradation. Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of over-burdening. In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha, deforestation due to mining has caused severe land degradation.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following statements is not correct about Land degradation?
(a) Land Degradation affects the soiL
(b) Quarrying leads to Land Degradation.
(c) Land degradation is caused due to waterlogging leading to increase in salinity and alkalinity in the soil.
(d) Land degradation is good for the environment.
Answer:
(d) Land degradation is good for the environment.
Explanation: It is severely bad for the environment and our resources.

(B) The main cause of land degradation in Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh is:
(a) Mining
(b) Over irrigation
(c) Deforestation
(d) Overgrazing
Answer:
(b) Over irrigation

(C) which one of the following does not check land degradation:
(a) control on overgrazing
(b) creating shelter belts
(c) deforestation
(d) afforestation
Answer:

(D) what is common between the land degradation caused in Jharkhand and Odisha?
(a) In both places, it is caused due to afforestation.
(b) It is caused by mining in both places.
(c) The subsoil in these areas is very thin.
(d) Their resources are completely exhausted due to land degradation.
Answer:

Question 7.
Read the source and answer the questions that follow.
Natural resources are the things that exist freely in nature human beings use for survival. These things include the water, land, forests, animals, rocks, fossil fuels, and minerals inside the Earth. Human beings did not create natural resources. They have always been a part of the Earth before humans appeared. Most of the natural resources are connected to each other in some way. For example, water is a natural resource, and there was a limited supply, then other resources such as animal and plants would be affected. Natural resources are consumed directly or indirectly. For example, when animals eat plants they are consuming a natural resource directly.

However, the many trees of rain forest act as climate control, food control, and storm protection. The trees of a forest can also be used as raw materials for making houses, furniture, paper, or other items. Natural resources can be a solid, liquid, or gas. They can also be organic, coming from living things, or inorganic, coming from a non-living source. They can also be made out of metal or be non- metallic.
(A) What are resources?
Answer:
Anything available in nature which could be brought to human use by human-made technology is called a resource.

(B) Mention one other way of classifying a resource apart from the mentioned classification.
Answer:

(C) Mention two characteristics of a natural resource?
Answer:
Natural resources are found freely in nature and have been present on earth even before human beings appeared.
They are closely connected to each other and can be both organic or inorganic in nature.

Very Short Answer “Type Questions

Question 1.
Which soil has a self-aeration capacity?
Answer:
Black Soil

Question 2.
What is the percentage share of plains in the total land area?
Answer:
43% of the total Land in the country are plains.

Question 3.
Classify resources based on origin.
Answer:
Based on origin of resources- resources can be classified as biotic and abiotic resources.

Question 4.
What are the resources which are found in a region but have not been utilised called?
Answer:
These are Potential Resources.

Question 5.
How is the cement industry responsible for land degradation?
Answer:

Question 6.
In which state has mining called land degradation?
Answer:
Chhattisgarh

Question 7.
Which soil type is made up of lava flows?
Answer:
Black Soil

Question 8.
Mention the factors on which the land-use pattern of India depends upon. [CBSE 2012]
Answer:
The use of land is determined by physical as well as human factors.
(1) Physical factors: Topography, climate and soil types.
(2) Human factors: Population density, technological capability, culture and traditions.

Question 9.
Give one example of the main commercial crop cultivable in laterite soil.
Answer:
Tea/coffee.

Question 10.
Classify resources on the basis of exhaustibility.
Answer:
On the basis of exhaustibility, resources can be classified as:
(1) Renewable/ Non-exhaustible resources
(2) Non-renewable/ Exhaustible resources.

Related Theory
Renewable resources: These are resources which can be replenished over a period of time. Example: solar energy.
Non-renewable resources: These are resources that cannot be renewed and are available in limited quantities. Example: coal.

Question 11.
Highlight the importance of contour ploughing.
Answer:
Contour ploughing helps in the prevention of soil erosion caused by wind and water.

Related Theory
Contour ploughing is a method of tilling and ploughing hillsides or sloping lands along the contour lines.

Question 12.
Read the features of a soiL and name the related soil
(1) This soiL ranges from red to brown in colour.
(2) It is generally sandy in texture and is saline.
(3) It Lacks humus and moisture.
Answer:

Question 13.
“Degradation of Land is a cause of word.”
Give one reason to support the statement.
Answer:
Degradation of Land is a cause of worry because it can cause ecological imbalance.

Question 14.
Give one example of community owned resources.
Answer:
Village grazing grounds, public parks and picnic spots.

Explanation: There are resources which are accessible to all the members of a community.

Question 15.
How is overgrazing responsible for land degradation in Gujarat?
Answer:

Question 16.
“Conservation of resource is vital for development.” Give one example regarding the statement.
Answer:
Conservation of resources: afforestation, water treatment.

Question 17.
How are mining activities responsible for land degradation in Jharkhand?
Answer:
Mining activities are responsible for land degradation in Jharkhand because mining sites are abandoned after the excavation work is complete, leaving deep scars on the land.

Related Theory
To get rid of this land degradation, proper management of wastelands and control of mining activities needs to be initiated.

Question 18.
Water is a compound of two inflammable gases, hydrogen and oxygen, which can be used as a rich source of energy. However, we do not have the required technical ‘knowhow’ to use them for this purpose. What kind of resources can these gases be put in?
Answer:
The gases can be put in: The Stock Resources.

Question 19.
Which soil is most retentive of moisture?
Answer:
Black Soil retains the most moisture.
Explanation: Black Soils are made up of extremely fine i.e. clayey material which helps them absorb more water.

Question 20.
Highlight the reason for land being known as the utmost important natural resource.
Answer;

Question 21.
Which type of soil is most suitable for growing the crop of cashew nut?
Answer:
Soil for the growth of Cashew nuts: Red Laterite soil.

Question 22.
Favorable conditions for wind energy exist in Western Rajasthan and Gujarat, but they have not been utilized and developed to the maximum, it falls in which category of resources?
Answer:
Wind energy received in Western Rajasthan exist as:
Potential Resources

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries with Answers

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 10 Chapter 6 MCQs On Manufacturing Industries

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which one of the following has helped to earn or been a major source of foreign exchange for the IT industry?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
(b) Software Technology Parks of India
(c) Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
(d) Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)
Answer:
(d) Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)

Explanation: Business process outsourcing (BPO) is a method of subcontracting various business-related operations to third-party vendors. This delegates the roles and responsibilities and has been in huge demand. This has earned huge reserves of foreign exchange for the IT industry.

Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 2.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the National Jute Policy of 2005?
(a) Creating awareness about the use of biodegradable materials and packaging
(b) Ensuring good prices to the jute farmers
(c) Increasing the productivity of raw material
(d) Improving the quality of Jute
Answer:
(a) Creating awareness about the use of biodegradable materials and packaging Explanation: In 2005, National Jute Policy was formulated with the objective of increasing productivity, improving quality, ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing the yield per hectare.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 MCQ With Answers Question 3.
Air pollution is caused by which of the following:
(a) Organic and inorganic industrial effluents poured into water bodies.
(b) Presence of high proportion of sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and air-borne particulate materials.
(c) Waste thrown on grounds
(d) Unwanted sound waves from industries, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills.
Answer:
(b) Presence of high proportion of sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and air-borne particulate materials.

MCQ Of Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 4.
Which of the following is a negative effect of industrialisation?
(a) Economic growth and Globalisation
(b) Pollution and Environmental degradation
(c) Foreign exchange earnings
(d) Rapid urbanisation
Answer:

MCQ On Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 5.
What was the aim of establishing industries in Tribal and Backward areas?
(a) Developing New Cities
(b) Bringing down Regional Disparities
(c) Eradication of Unemployment and Poverty
(d) Quality Production
Answer:
(b) Bringing down Regional Disparities

Class 10 Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 6.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Export of manufactured goods expands
(a) Mass production
(b) Quality production
(c) Trade and Commerce
(d) Industry
Answer:
(c) Trade and Commerce

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQs Question 7.
The trend of growth rate in manufacturing over the last decade has been around per cent per annum.
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 7
Answer:
(d) 7

Explanation: The desired growth rate over the next decade is 12 per cent. Since 2003, manufacturing is once again growing at the rate of 9 to 10 per cent per annum.

Manufacturing Industries MCQ Class 10 Question 8.
What are basic or key industries?
(a) An industry which supplies their products as raw materials to manufacture other goods.
(b) An industry which produces goods for direct use by consumers.
(c) An industry defined with reference to the maximum investment.
(d) An industry that uses light raw materials and produces light goods.
Answer:

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9.
TISCO, Bajaj Auto Ltd, Dabur Industries belong to which of the following types of industries?
(a) Cooperative industry
(b) Joint sector
(c) Public sector
(d) Private sector
Answer:
(d) Private sector

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 MCQ Question 10.
Which of the following is an important spinning centre of the country?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(a) Gujarat

Explanation: Spinning continues to be centralised in Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.

Class 10 Geography Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 11.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option with regards to India’s production of different goods.
Raw Jute- …………………..; Steel – Second Largest
(a) Least
(b) Second Largest
(c) Largest
(d) Third largest
Answer:
(c) Largest

Explanation: India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands at second place as an exporter after Bangladesh.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Question 12.
India was the largest producer of steel in the world in which of the following years?
(a) 2010
(b) 2020
(c) 2004
(d) 2016
Answer:

MCQ Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 13.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
…………….. has gained popularity as a substitute of steel, copper, zinc and lead in a number of industries.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Pyrite
(c) Bronze
(d) Iron ore
Answer:
(a) Aluminium

Explanation: Aluminium is light, resistant to corrosion, a good conductor of heat, malleable and becomes strong when it is mixed with other metals. That is why it has been considered a perfect substitute of steel, copper and lead.

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 14.
Which of the following compounds are manufactured by Inorganic Chemicals?
(a) Pharmaceuticals
(b) Synthetic Rubber
(c) Dye
(d) Caustic Soda
Answer:
(d) Caustic Soda

Explanation: Inorganic chemicals comprise of sulphuric acid (used to manufacture fertilisers, synthetic fibres, plastics, adhesives, paints, dyes stuffs), nitric acid, alkalies, soda ash and caustic soda.

Manufacturing Industries MCQ Questions Question 15.
Which of the following compounds are manufactured or produced by Organic Chemicals?
(a) Cement
(b) Nitric Acid
(c) Synthetic rubber
(d) Metals
Answer:
(c) Synthetic rubber

Explanation: Organic chemicals include petrochemicals and help synthetic fibers, synthetic rubber, plastics, dye-stuffs, drugs and pharmaceuticals.

Question 16.
Which of the following compounds involved isn fertilising has to be completely imported because it is not found anywhere in India?
(a) Phosphate
(b) Ammonium sulphate
(c) Potash
(d) Nitrogenous fertilisers
Answer:

Question 17.
Which of the following cities has emerged as the electronic capital of India?
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Mumbai
(d) Gurgaon
Answer:
(b) Bengaluru

Question 18.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Wastes from nuclear power plants, nuclear and weapon production facilities cause
(a) Cancers, birth defects and Miscarriages
(b) Weight, Height related issues
(c) Viral diseases
(d) Hair Fall and other Bacterial diseases
Answer:
(a) Cancers, birth defects and Miscarriages

Question 19.
Which gas produces air pollution?
(a) Sulphur dioxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Argon
Answer:
(a) Sulphur dioxide

Explanation: Air pollution is caused by the presence of a high proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide. Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles like dust, sprays mist and smoke.

Question 20.
Which one of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Jute
(d) Steel
Answer:
(a) Aluminium

Explanation: There are 8 aluminium smelting plants in the country located in Odisha, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

Related Theory
Nalco and Balco are famous plants located in Odisha.

Question 21.
The first cement plant was set up in Chennai in the year:
(a) 1901
(b) 1902
(c) 1903
(d) 1904
Answer:
(d) 1904

Related Theory
There are 128 large plants and 332 mini cement plants in the country.

Question 22.
Which of the following industry uses limestone as a raw material?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Sugar
(d) Jute
Answer:

Question 23.
Which one of the following industries is the second most important metallurgical industry in India?
(a) Chemical Industry
(b) Aluminium Smelting
(c) Iron and Steel Industry
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Aluminium Smelting

Explanation: Aluminium is light, resistant to corrosion, a good conductor of heat, it is malleable and is used for manufacturing aircraft, utensils, and wires.

Question 24.
Which of the following metal has gained popularity as a substitute of steel, copper, zinc and lead in a number of industries?
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) Aluminium
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Aluminium

Question 25.
Which one of the following is a private sector industry?
(a) BHEL
(b) TISCO
(c) OIL
(d) SAIL
Answer:
(b) TISCO

Explanation: Private sector industries are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals for example TISCO, Bajaj Auto Ltd., Dabur Industries, etc.

Related Theory

BHEL and SAIL are public sector industries, owned and operated by government agencies.
OIL is a joint sector industry, jointly owned by private and public sectors.

Question 26.
Which of the following industry is an example of basic industry?
(a) Copper Smelting
(b) Aluminium Smelting
(c) Iron and Steel Industry
(d) All of these
Answer:

Question 27.
Which of the following country is the largest producer of iron and steel in the world?
(a) USA
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Russia
Answer:
(c) China

Explanation: China is also the world’s largest consumer of steel.

Question 28.
Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector plants?
(a) NTPC
(b) SAIL
(c) TATA Steel
(d) MNCC
Answer:
(b) SAIL

Related Theory

SAIL stands for Steel Authority of India Ltd.
NMCC stands for National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council.
NTPC stands for National Thermal Power Corporation.
TATA Steelworks as an agency through which TISCO markets its produce.

Question 29.
Which one of the following raw materials is used to harden the steel?
(a) Limestone
(b) Manganese
(c) Coking coal
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Manganese

Question 30.
Iron and steel industry require iron ore, coking coal, and Limestone in the ratio of approximately:
(a) 4: 2:1
(b) 1: 2:4
(c) 4:1: 2
(d) 2:4:1
Answer:
(a) 4: 2:1

Related Theory
Some quantities of manganese are also required to harden the steel.

Question 31.
Tata Iron and Steel Company is an example of:
(a) Agricultural Sector
(b) Public Sector
(c) Private Sector
(d) Joint Sector
Answer:

Question 32.
Match the items of Column A with that of Column B?

Column A (Final Products)	Column B (Raw Materials)
(A) Aluminium	(I) Cotton
(B) Textiles	(II) Limestone
(C) Yarn	(III) Bauxite
(D) Cement	(IV) Wool

(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), D-(IV)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), D-(II)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), D-(IV)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), D-(IV)
Answer:
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), D-(II)

Identify
Identify the following on basis of the hints given.

Question 33.
Identify the following industry:
(1) It contributes approximately 3 per cent of the GDP.
(2) It is the third largest in Asia and occupies the twelfth place in the world in terms of its size.
(3) The industry is its own largest consumer.
Answer:
Chemical Industry

Question 34.
Identify the following type of pollution:
(1) This types of pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and effluents discharged into rivers.
(2) Main pollutants are paper, pulp, chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum refineries, tanneries.
(3) Fly ash, phospho-gypsum and iron and steel slags are few major solid wastes.
Answer:

Question 35.
Identify the following type of pollution:
(1) This type of pollution results in irritation and anger.
(2) It can also cause hearing impairment, increased heart rate and blood pressure among other physiological effects.
(3) Possible pollutants are industrial and construction activities, machinery, factory equipment, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills also make a lot of noise.
Answer:
Noise Pollution

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 36.
The handspun khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a large-scale industry.
Answer:
False
The handspun khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a cottage industry.

Question 37.
BHEL, SAIL are examples of joint sector industries.
Answer:
False
BHEL, SAIL are examples of Public sector industries which are owned and operated by government agencies.

Explanation: In Joint Sector industries- both public and the private companies are joint owners of any agency. Maruti Suzuki India Ltd (Formerly known as Maruti Udyog Ltd.) is in joint sector while BHEL and SAIL are both owned by the government.

Question 38.
The first jute mill was set up near Mumbai in 1859 at Rishra
Answer:
False
The first jute mill was set up near Kolkata in 1859 at Rishra

Fill in the blanks with suitable information:

Question 39.
Lime stone, silica, alumina and gypsum are raw materials of the industry.
Answer:
Cement industry.

Question 40.
The industry is the basic industry since all the other industries, whether heavy, medium and tight, depend on it for machinery.
Answer:
Iron and steel industry.

Explanation: The iron and steel industry is known as the basic industry because all other industries are dependent on it for their machinery. All raw materials are also provided by the iron and steel industry.

Question 41.
The first successfuL textiLe mill was established in …………… in 1854. [Dikshci]
Answer:
Mumbal.

Explanation: The two worLd wars were fought in Europe. India was a British colony. There was a demand for cLoth in UK. Hence, they gave a boost to the development of the cotton textile industry and established first cotton mill in Mumbai.

Question 42.
The ………… industry is used for manufacturing aircraft, utensils and wires.
Answer:

Question 43.
Business Processes Outsourcing (BPO) is an example of the………….industry in India.
Answer:
Information technology and the Electronics industry

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 44.
Match the following industries from Column A with their locations from Column B:

Column A (Industries)	Column B (Location)
(a) Textile mill	(i) West Bengal (Kolkata)
(b) Jute mill	(ii) Maharashtra (Mumbai)
(c) Cement industry	(iii) Jharkhand (Jamshedpur)
(d) Iron and Steel	(iv) Tamil Nadu (Chennai)

Answer:

Column A (Industries)	Column B (Location)
(a) Textile mill	(ii) Maharashtra (Mumbai)
(b) Jute mill	(i) West Bengal (Kolkata)
(c) Cement industry	(iv) Tamil Nadu (Chennai)
(d) Iron and Steel	(iii) Jharkhand (Jamshedpur)

Question 45.
Match the folLowing Industries with their correct Locations:

Column A	Column B
(a) Cotton Textile Industry	(i) Bokaro
(b) Iron and Steel Plant	(ii) Singrauli
(c) Software Park	(iii) Surat
(d) Thermal Power Plant	(iv) Noida

Answer:

Question 48.
Match the following types of industries from Column A with their examples from Column B:

Column A (Types of Industries)	Column B (Examples)
(a) Cooperative sector industry	(i) SAIL
(b) Public sector industry	(ii) Oil India Ltd.
(c) Joint sector industry	(iii) Bajaj Auto Ltd.
(d) Private sector industry	(iv) Sugar mills in Maharashtra

Answer:

Column A (Types of Industries)	Column B (Examples)
(a) Cooperative sector industry	(iv) Sugar mills in Maharashtra
(b) Public sector industry	(i) SAIL
(c) Joint sector industry	(ii) Oil India Ltd.
(d) Private sector industry	(iii) Bajaj Auto Ltd.

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 6

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 47.
Assertion (A): Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries or petrochemical plants.
Reason (R): Organic chemicals are made of petrochemicals that cannot be transported over distances.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 48.
Assertion (A): There is a tendency for the mills to shift and concentrate in the southern and western states, especially in Maharashtra. Reason (R): Raw material is cheaper there.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Raw material or sugarcane has greater sugar content. That helps get greater results and better final products.

Question 49.
Assertion (A): Manufacturing activities also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income.
Reason (R): it replaces the secondary and tertiary sector activities.
Answer:

Question 50.
Assertion (A): Agriculture and industry are exclusive of each other.
Reason (R): They go hand in hand.
Answer:

Question 51.
Assertion (A): Internal demand for jute has been on the increase.
Reason (R): This is because of the government policy of mandatory use of plastic packaging. It replaces the secondary and tertiary sector activities.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: The rise in demand is because of the government policy of mandatory use of jute packaging.

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Study the data given below and answer the question that follows:

Year	Production (In million tonnes per annum)
2005	45.7
2006	49.4
2007	53.0
2008	57.8
2009	56.6
2010	68.3
2011	72.2

Through the data given above, identify which metal is being produced:
(a) Iron
(b) Aluminum
(c) Steel
(d) Bauxite
Answer:
(c) Steel

Explanation: In 2010-11 with 72.2 million tonnes of steel production, India ranked 4th among the world crude steel producers.

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more valuable products is called manufacturing. Do you know that paper is manufactured from wood, sugar from sugarcane, iron and steel from iron ore and aluminium from bauxite? Do you also know that some types of clothes are manufactured from yarn which itself is an industrial product? People employed in the secondary activities manufacture the primary materials into finished goods.
The workers employed in steel factories, cars, breweries, textile industries, bakeries etc. fall into this category. Some people are employed in providing services. In this chapter, we are mainly concerned with manufacturing industries which fall in the secondary sector. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Manufacturing sector is dependent upon:
(I) Primary Sector for Raw materials
(II) Tertiary Sector for Machinery
(III) Secondary Sector for Raw materials
(IV) Tertiary Sector for Banking, Transportation
(V) Quaternary Sector for Raw materials
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) & (III)
(c) (I), (III) & (V)
(d) (I) & (IV)
Answer:

(B) Which of the following sectors do the workers employed in steel factories, cars, breweries, textile industries, bakeries belong to?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector
(d) Quaternary Sector
Answer:
(b) Secondary Sector

Explanation: Workers employed in the factories, cars, breweries, textile industries, bakeries are involved in the manufacturing activities which belong to the Secondary Sector.

(C) Which of the following is not true about manufacturing industries?
(a) Manufacturing industries are very important for the economic prosperity of the country.
(b) Manufacturing industry activities fall under the tertiary sector.
(c) Manufacturing activities transform raw materials to finished goods.
(d) Manufacturing activities are the next step to agricultural activities.
Answer:
(b) Manufacturing industry activities fall under the tertiary sector.

(D) Which of the following raw material is also an industrial product?
(a) Cotton
(b) Wool
(c) Yarn
(d) Bauxite
Answer:
(c) Yarn

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Our manufactured goods must be at par in quality with those in the international market. Only then, will we be able to compete in the international market.
Over the last two decades, the share of the manufacturing sector has stagnated at 17 per cent of GDP – out of a total of 27 per cent for the industry which includes 10 per cent for mining, quarrying, electricity and gas. This is much lower in comparison to some East Asian economies, where it is 25 to 35 per cent. The trend of growth rate in manufacturing over the last decade has been around 7 per cent per annum. The desired growth rate over the next decade is 12 per cent. Since 2003, manufacturing is once again growing at the rate of 9 to 10 per cent per annum. With appropriate policy interventions by the government and renewed efforts by the industry to improve productivity, economists predict that manufacturing can achieve its target over the next decade. The National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (NMCC) has been set up with this objective. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) What is the criterion to fulfill for Indian goods to be able to compete in the international market?
(a) Indian goods should be less expensive
(b) Indian goods should be more expensive.
(c) The quality of Indian goods should be enhanced.
(d) The quality of Indian goods should be decreased.
Answer:
(c) The quality of Indian goods should be enhanced.

(B) What is the current share of contribution of the manufacturing sector to the Indian GDP?
(a) 17
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 27
Answer:
(a) 17

(C) How can we improve the productivity of the manufacturing sector?
(a) Reinvigorate the primary sector.
(b) Change the tertiary sector
(c) Policy interventions by the government
(d) Change the activities involved in the secondary sector
Answer:

(D) What is the difference between Indian and the East Asian economies with respect to the contribution of the Manufacturing Sector?
(a) Contribution is greater in the East Asian Economies.
(b) Contribution is lesser in the East Asian Economies.
(c) Contribution is equal in the East Asian Economies.
(d) There is no contribution in the East Asian Economies.
Answer:
(a) Contribution is greater in the East Asian Economies.
Explanation: The share of the manufacturing sector for the last two decades has stagnated at 17 per cent of GDP – out of a total of 27 per cent for the industry which includes 10 per cent for mining, quarrying, electricity and gas.

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Organic chemicals include petrochemicals, which are used for manufacturing of synthetic fibers, synthetic rubber, plastics, dye¬stuffs, drugs and pharmaceuticals. Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries or petrochemical plants. The chemical industry is its own largest consumer. Basic chemicals undergo processing to further produce other chemicals that are used for industrial application, agriculture or directly for consumer markets. The fertilizer industry is centred around the production of nitrogenous fertilizers (mainly urea), phosphatic fertilizers and ammonium phosphate (DAP) and complex fertilizers which have a combination of nitrogen (N), phosphate (P), and potash (K).
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following compounds are not found in India?
(a) DAP
(b) N
(c) P
(d) K
Answer:
(d) K

(B) Which of the following industries is its own largest consumer?
(a) Fertilizer industry
(b) Chemical industry
(c) Cement Industry
(d) Automobile Industry
Answer:
(d) Chemical industry

Explanation: The chemical industry is its own largest consumer. Basic chemicals undergo processing to manufacture chemicals used for industrial application, agriculture or directly for consumer markets.

(C) Which of the following industries uses its own products as a raw material to produce products further?
(a) Fertilizer industry
(b) Iron and Steel Industry
(c) Cotton Industry
(d) Chemical Industry
Answer:
(d) Chemical Industry

(D) Why are the organic chemical plants located near oil refineries or petrochemical plants?
(a) These plants use petrochemicals which are found in specific places.
(b) These plants need specific locations to be established because they blast in the heat.
(c) These plants can only be located close to the oceans.
(d) These plants require airway transportation of the materials.
Answer:
(a) These plants use petrochemicals which are found in specific places.

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
After an industrial activity starts, urbanisation follows. Sometimes, industries are located in or near the cities. Thus, industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand. Cities provide markets and also provide services such as banking, insurance, transport, labour, consultants and financial advice, etc. to the industry. Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres known as agglomeration economies. Gradually, a large industrial agglomeration takes place. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following statements supports the assertion that urbanisation and industrialisation go hand in hand?
(a) Urbanisation gives rise to new markets, industries fill these markets with products.
(b) Industrial activities retard urbanisation and in turn urbanisation retards industrialisation.
(c) Industries encourage establishment of satellite towns around the city.
(d) Urbanisation creates more industries but industries do not support urbanisation.
Answer:
(a) Urbanisation gives rise to new markets, industries fill these markets with products. Explanation: Urbanisation follows industrialisation and vice versa. Industrialisation stimulates urbanisation and with urbanisation, comes an increase in the number of industries in the area due to greater demand and improving lifestyles.

(B) What is the correct meaning of agglomeration economies?
(a) Many industries set up in rural centres.
(b) Industries are established in one area only
(c) Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres.
(d) Industries are set up in the rich part of the town.
Answer:

(C) Which of the following services are provided by cities to industries?
(I) Banking
(II) Accomodation
(ill) Lodging
(IV)Markets
(V) Labour
(VI) Raw materials
(VII) Water
(a) (I), (II) & (VI)
(b) (I) & (VII)
(c) (II), (III) & (V)
(d) (I), (II), (III), (IV) & (V)
Answer:
(d)(1), (II), (III), (IV) &(V)

(D) Find one word from the passage which means the same as the statement given below:
“Assemblage or mixture of things or objects”
(a) Economies
(b) Agglomeration
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Industrialisation
Answer:

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why has the ‘National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council’ been set up?
Answer:
The NMCC was created to improve the growth rate in the manufacturing sector through policy interventions.

Question 2.
Suggest anyone measure to promote handspun/khadi in India.
Answer:

Question 3.
Why is the ‘least cost’ known as a decision making factor for ideal location of an industry?
Answer:
The cost is the most important factor and has to be least to maximise profit. The place with least cost is the most decision making factor to choose an ideal location.

Question 4.
Classify industry on the basis of the bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods.
Answer:
On the basis of bulk and weight of raw material and finished goods, the industries are classified into:
(1) Heavy industries: For example, iron and steel.
(2) Light industries that use light raw materials and produce light goods: For exampLe, electrical industries.

Question 5.
What are the benefits of cities in industrialisation?
Answer:
Cities provide markets and provide services such as banking, insurance, transport, labour, consultants and financial advice etc. to the industry.

Question 6.
Name the places where most manufacturing units were located before independence.
Answer:
Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.

Question 7.
Mention where silk textile industries are located.
Answer:

Question 8.
What is the position of India in the production of gur and khandsari?
Answer:
India is the largest producer of gur and khandsari.

Question 9.
Give one example of an integrated steel plant.
Answer:
TISCO.

Question 10.
By which authority, the steel of all Public Sector Undertakings is marketed ?
Answer:
Steel Authority of India Ltd.

Question 11.
What is the main cause for rapid strides in the cement industry in the 1980-1990s ?
Answer:
Decontrol of price and distribution since 1989 used to make rapid strides in capacity, process, technology and production.

Question 12.
When was the first cement plant set up?
Answer:
1904

Question 13.
What is the precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country?
Answer:
Industrial development.

Question 14.
Give a few examples of consumer industries?
Answer:

Question 15.
Which country has the largest installed capacity of spindles in the world?
Answer:
China

Question 16.
Suggest any one way to promote the jute textile industry in India. [CBSE 2020,15]
Answer:
The jute textile industry can be improved by promoting jute packaging/jute products as environment friendly, biodegradable products and viable alternative to synthetic fibres.

Question 17.
Which industry is an example of joint sector industry?
Answer:
Oil India Limited is a joint sector industry.

Related Theory
Joint sector Industry are industries jointly owned by state and individual industrialists. They’re an example of Public-private partnership.

Question 18.
What is a basic industry?
Answer:
An industry which supply its products or raw materials to manufacture other goods is called a basic industry. Example: Iron and steel industry.

Explanation: Basic industries are also known as key industries. For example, aluminum smelting, copper smelting.

Question 19.
What is the full form of NMCC?
Answer:
National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council.

Related Theory
NMCC has been set up to increase productivity of manufacturers by incorporating appropriate policy interventions.

Question 20.
Name the only industry which is self reliant in its value chain.
Answer:
Textile industry is the only industry to be self- reliant and complete in the value chain – from raw material to the final products etc.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of the National Economy with Answers

Lifelines of the National Economy Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

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Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 10 Chapter 7 MCQs On Lifelines of the National Economy

Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Which of the following two stations did the first train of India steam off to and when?
(a) Kolkata to Raniganj, 1874
(b) Mumbai to Thane, 1853
(c) Mumbai to Ahmedabad, 1854
(d) Chennai to Arkonam, 1856
Answer:
(b) Mumbai to Thane, 1853

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers Question 2.
Which of the following modes of transport would one be able to find on the higher dissected terrain of mountainous regions like the Himalayas?
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Inland waterways
(d) Airways
Answer:
(b) Roadways

Lifelines Of National Economy MCQ Question 3.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
………………… is the oldest artificial port and the second most important port of the country.
(a) Mumbai port
(b) Kandla port
(c) Chennai port
(d) Ennore port
Answer:

Life Lines Of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 4.
Which of the following networks of pipelines bring mineral oil to the refinery of Barauni and the petrochemical complex of Haldia?
(a) Pipeline from Upper Assam oilfields to Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh)
(b) Pipeline from Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar
(c) Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur Pipeline
(d) Pipeline from Mumbai High to Goa and then to Trombay
Answer:
(a) Pipeline from Upper Assam oilfields to Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh)

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Question 5.
Which one of the following groups of cities is connected by the National Highway No. 1?
(a) Delhi – Amritsar
(b) Delhi – Kolkata
(c) Delhi – Mumbai
(d) Varanasi – Kanyakumari
Answer:
(a) Delhi – Amritsar

Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Questions And Answers Question 6.
Which two extreme locations are connected by the North-South Corridor?
(a) Amritsar and Tuticorin
(b) Srinagar and Thiruvananthapuram
(c) Srinagar and Tuticorin
(d) Srinagar and Kanyakumari
Answer:
(d) Srinagar and Kanyakumari

Explanation: The North South Corridor is the one of the Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways that connects the mega cities of India.

MCQ Of Lifelines Of National Economy Question 7.
Which one of the following is not an advantage of pipeline transportation?
(a) Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil and gas from fields to refineries.
(b) Solids can be transported in slurry form through pipelines.
(c) Pipelines rule out trans-shipment losses or delays.
(d) Pipeline requires a lot of capital and extra maintenance.
Answer:
(d) Pipeline requires a lot of capital and extra maintenance.

Explanation: Pipelines do not need any extra maintenance. Its initial cost of laying is high.

MCQ On Lifelines Of National Economy Question 8.
……………… is considered as the First Class Mail by the Indian postal network.
(a) Cards and envelopes
(b) Registered periodicals
(c) Magazines and New Books
(d) Registered newspapers packets
Answer:
(a) Cards and envelopes

Class 10 Lifelines Of National Economy MCQ Question 9.
National Highways are constructed and maintained by
(a) NHAI
(b) CPWD
(c) SPWD
(d) BRO
Answer:
(b) CPWD

Explanation: National Highways link extreme parts of the country. These are the primary road systems.

Ncert Class 10 Social Science Objective Questions Question 10.
Which one of the following is the oldest port of the eastern coast of India?
(a) Kolkata (Haldia)
(b) Visakhapatnam
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Chennai (Madras)
Answer:

Lifelines Of National Economy Class 10 One Mark Questions Pdf Question 11.
Pawanhans Helicopters Ltd. Provides helicopter services to which of the following in its off-shore operations?
(a) Oil India Ltd.
(b) Oil and Natural Gas Commission
(c) NTPC
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Oil and Natural Gas Commission

Class 10 Social Science MCQ Question 12.
Air travel is not within the reach of the common people. It is only in which part of the country that special provisions are made to extend the services to the common people?
(a) Northern states .
(b) North-eastern states
(c) North-western states
(d) Coastal states
Answer:

Social Science MCQ Class 10 Question 13.
Which of the following is an example of an inland riverine port in India?
(a) Chennai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Tuticorin
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Kolkata

Explanation: Kolkata port serves a very Large and rich hinterland of Ganga-Brahmaputra basin.

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Social Science With Answers Question 14.
Which two of the following extreme locations are connected by the east-west corridor?
(a) Mumbai and Nagpur
(b) Silchar and Porbandar
(c) Mumbai and Kolkata
(d) Nagpur and Siliguri [Diksha]
Answer:

Social MCQ Class 10 Question 15.
Which of the following is the longest National Waterway of India?
(a) The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia
(b) The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri
(c) The West-Coast Canal in Kerala
(d) None of these
Answer:

Question 16.
Which of the following ports was planned with a view to decongesting the Mumbai port?
(a) Kandla port
(b) Paradip port
(c) Tuticorin port
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru port
Answer:
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru port

Question 17.
Which one of the following is the longest National Highway?
(a) NH-7
(b) NH-8
(c) NH-1
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) NH-7

Explanation: National Highway-7 is the longest and traverses 2369 km between Varanasi and Kanyakumari via Jabalpur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Bangalore and Madurai while Delhi and Mumbai are connected by National Highway-8. The historical Sher Shah Suri Marg is called National Highway No.l connects Delhi and Amritsar.

Question 18.
Which one of the following places is NOT associated with oil refineries?
(a) Mathura
(b) Barauni
(c) Panipat
(d) Surat
Answer:
(d) Surat

Question 19.
Which of the following mode of transport is fuel-efficient and environment-friendly?
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(d) Waterways

Explanation: It’s the cheapest and most fuel-efficient type of transport as the friction of water is far less than that of land nor do they require road construction. Through waterways, heavy and bulky goods can be transported to distant lands.

Question 20.
Which of the following port is located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour?
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Kochi
(c) Marmagao
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Kochi

Related Theory
Kochi is the extreme south-western port of India.

Question 21.
Which of the following organisations is responsible for construction and maintenance of the strategic roads in India?
(a) CPWD
(b) SPWD
(c) NHAI
(d) BRO
Answer:
(d) BRO

Explanation: Border Road Organisation (BRO) was established in 1960.

Question 22.
Which one of the following states is NOT connected with the HVJ pipeline?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 23.
Which one of the following major ports has been developed to decongest Kolkata port?
(a) Kandla
(b) Haldia
(c) Paradwip
(d) Marmagao
Answer:
(b) Haldia

Explanation: Haldia port was developed as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on the Kolkata port

Question 24.
Arrange the following options in the correct sequence:
(i) Science and technology helped improve transport.
(ii) Rapid moving and effiicient transport brought a change.
(iii) Transport and trade were restricted to a limited area.
(iv) Improved communication played a major role in this change.
Options:
(a) (i)—(ii)—(iii)—(iv)
(b) (i)—(iii)—(ii)—(iv)
(C) (iii)—(i)—(i0—(iv)
(d) (iv)—(iii)—(ii)—(i)

Identify the following on basis of the hints given.

Question 25.
identify the type of transport:
(1) Fastest mode of transport
(2) Can cover all dissected and undulating terrains
(3) Especially famous in the North Easterm states
Answer:
Airways

Question 26.
Identify the industry:
(1) Industry in India has grown substantially over the last three decades.
(2) 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.
(3) The industry promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.
Answer:
Tourism

Question 27.
Identify the port:
(1) It is located on the Western Coast.
(2) It is the premier iron ore exporting sea port of the country.
Answer:
Marmagao Port

Correct and Rewrite/ True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 28.
Roadways are the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.
Answer:
False

Railways are the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.

Question 29.
India’s first train steamed off from Mumbai to Thane in 1853 covering a distance of 34 km.
Answer:
True

Question 30.
Akashwani, the national television channel of India is one of the largest terrestrial networks in the world.
Answer:
False

Doordarshan.the national television channel of India is one of the largest terrestrial networks in the world.

Fill in the blanks/tables with suitable information:

Question 31.
Television is a means of …………………..
Answer:
mass communication

Question 32.
…………….. is the extreme south-western port located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour.
Answer:
Kochi

Question 33.
…………… a Government of India undertaking constructs and maintains roads in the bordering areas of the country.
Answer:

Question 34.
Complete the following table with appropriate terms in place of (a) and (b).

Answer:
(a) Pipelines
(b) Overseas Waterways

Question 35.
The is the largest public sector undertaking in India.
Answer:
Indian Railways government and hence it is a public sector enterprise. Railways in India bind the economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of industries and agriculture.

Question 36.
…………. is the deepest, land-locked and well-protected port of India.
Answer:
Vishakhapatnam

Related Theory:
Railways employ a very large number of people in the country. It is monitored and run by the

Question 37.
Fill the blanks in the table with required information:

Answer:

Match the Columns Choose the correct pairs:

Question 38.
Match the following roads from column A with the organisations responsible for their construction and maintenance from column B:

Column A (Types of Road)	Column B (Organisation)
(a) Super Highways	(i) Zila Parishad
(b) National Highways	(ii) State Public Works Department
(c) State Highways	(iii) Central Public Works Department
(d) District Roads	(iv) National Highway Authority of India

Answer:

Column A (Types of Road)	Column B (Organisation)
(a) Super Highways	(iv) National Highway Authority of India
(b) National Highways	(iii) Central Public Works Department
(c) State Highways	(ii) State Public Works Department
(d) District Roads	(i) Zila Parishad

Question 39.
Match the following national highways from column A with the places/cities connected by them from column B:

Column A (National Highways)	Column B (Places/Cities Connected)
(a) NH-1	(i) Varanasi and Kanyakumari
(b) NH-8	(ii) Most parts of Rajasthan
(c) NH-7	(iii) Delhi and Mumbai
(d) NH-15	(iv) Delhi and Amritsar

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 7

In each of following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answers to codes (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 40.
Assertion (A): There is a vast potential for development of tourism in all parts of the country.
Reason (R): There is a lot of scope in various fields of tourism.
Answer:

Question 41.
Assertion (A): No country can survive without international trade.
Reason (R): Resources are not space bound.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

Explanation: Resources are space bound and thus a country has to import and export resources to be able to fulfill their needs.

Question 42.
Assertion (A): Air travel has made access easier.
Reason (R): No other mode of transport could travel across regions in the presence of big rivers, dissected relief, dense forests and frequent floods and international frontiers, etc. in the absence of air transport.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 43.
Assertion (A): 60 per cent of the country’s trade volume (68 per cent in terms of value) is moved by sea.
Reason (R): Seaways carry heavy loads to farther distances at very affordable rates.
Answer:

Question 44.
Assertion (A): The railways have become more important in our national economy than all other means of transport put together.
Reason (R): It carries the most loads and maximum number of people across the country.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Goods and services do not move from supply locales to demand locales on their own. The movement of these goods and services from their supply locations to demand locations necessitates the need for transport. Some people are engaged in facilitating these movements. These are known to be traders who make the products come to the consumers by transportation. Thus, the pace of development of a country depends upon the production of goods and services as well as their movement over space. Therefore, efficient means of transport are prerequisites for fast development.

Movement of these goods and services can be over three important domains of our earth i.e. land, water and air. Based on these, transport can also be classified into land, water and air transport expanded far and wide. Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport. Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of equally developed communication systems. Therefore, transport, communication and trade are complementary to each other.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following groups are involved in transport of goods and services from one nation to another?
(a) Entrepreneurs
(b) Labourers
(c) Traders
(d) Farmers
Answer:
(c) Traders
Explanation: Traders contribute to movement and transfer of goods from one place to another.

(B) Which of the following does not decide the pace of development of the country?
(a) Production of goods
(b) Production of Services
(c) Economy of the country
(d) Number of castes in a country
Answer:
(d) Number of castes in a country

(C) Which of the following supports the statement, “transport, communication and trade are complementary to each other”?
(a) World has been converted into a large village.
(b) There is fast moving transport.
(c) Transport and communication together help the trade to flourish.
(d) Transport cannot exist without trade.
Answer:
(c) Transport and communication together help the trade to flourish.

(D) Which of the following necessitates the need of transport?
(a) Communication
(b) Trade
(c) Education
(d) Lifestyle
Answer:

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In India, roadways have preceded railways. They still have an edge over railways in view of the ease with which they can be built and maintained. The growing importance of road transport vis-a-vis rail transport is rooted in the following reasons; construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines, roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography, roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains such as the Himalayas, Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances, it also provides door-to-door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower, road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport such as they provide a Link between railway stations, air and sea ports.
In India, roads are classified in the following six classes according to their capacity.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following types of roads received special impetus under the Pradhan Mantri Grameen SadakYojana?
(a) National Highways
(b) State Highways
(c) Rural Roads
(d) District Roads
Answer:
(c) Rural Roads

(B) Roads linking a state capital with different district headquarters are known as:
(a) National highways
(b) District roads
(c) State highways
(d) Other roads
Answer:
(b) District roads

(C) Which of the following features about Roadways makes it most popular?
(I) Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography.
(II) Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes.
(III) Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons.
(IV) Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport.
(a) (I) only
(b) (II) only
(c) (II) & (III) only
(d) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
Answer:

(D) In India, has preceded over railways.
(a) Waterways
(b) Airways
(c) Roadways
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(c) Roadways

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Since the ancient period, India was one of the seafaring countries. Its seamen sailed far and near, thus, carrying and spreading Indian commerce and culture. Waterways are the cheapest means of transport. They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods. It is a fuel-efficient and environment friendly mode of transport. India has inland navigation waterways of 14,500 km in length. Out of these only 5685 km are navigable by mechanised vessels.

The following waterways have been declared as the National Waterways by the Government The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 km)-N.W. No.1

The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km)-N.W. No.2
The West-Coast Canal in Kerala (Kottapuram-Kollam, Udyogamandal and Champakkara canals-205 km) – N.W. No.3
Specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada Puducherry stretch of canals (1078 km) – N.W. No.4

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) The National Waterway No. 1 is navigable between which of the following places?
(a) Between Sadiya and Dhubri
(b) Between Allahabad and Haldia
(c) Between Kottapuram and Komman
(d) Between Udyogamandal and Champakkara
Answer:
(b) Between Allahabad and Haldia

(B) Which of the following is the cheapest mode of transportation?
(a) Airways
(b) Waterways
(c) Roadways
(d) Railways
Answer:
(c) Waterways

(C) Fill in the blank with an appropriate option:
………………….. channel covers Kerala.
(a) West Coast Canal
(b) East Coast Canal
(c) North Coast Canal
(d) South Coast Canal
Answer:
(a) West Coast Canal

(D) Which of the following National Waterways is the longest waterway?
(a) The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia
(b) The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri
(c) The West-Coast Canal
(d) Specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada Puducherry stretch of canals.
Answer:
(a) The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia

Explanation: The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 km)-N.W. No.1

Related Theory

The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km)-N.W. No.2
The West-Coast Canal in Kerala (Kottapurma-Kollam, Udyogamandal and Champakkara canals-205 km) – N.W. No.3
Specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada Puducherry stretch of canals (1078 km) – N.W. No.4

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
With a long coastline of 7,516.6 km, India is dotted with 12 major and 200 notified non¬majors (minor/intermediate) ports. These major ports handle 95 per cent of India’s foreign trade. Kandla in Kuchchh was the first port developed soon after Independence to ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port, in the wake of loss of Karachi port to Pakistan after the Partition. Kandla also known as the Deendayal Port, is a tidal port. It caters to the convenient handling of exports and imports of highly productive granary and industrial belt stretching across the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) The New Mangalore port caters to the export of iron ore concentrates from:
(a) Chhota Nagpur Plateau Iron Ore Mines
(b) Kudremukh Iron Ore Mines
(c) Amarkantak Iron Ore Mines
(d) Jhalaabai Mines
Answer:
(b) Kudremukh Mines
Explanation: New Mangalore port. Located in Karnataka caters to the export of iron ore concentrates from Kudremukh mines.

(B) Which of the following ports did India lose to Pakistan after partition?
(a) Kandla
(b) Karachi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Haldia
Answer:

(C) Which of the following statements defines a tidal port?
(a) Tidal ports are the ports in which the water level within the port is subject to change with the ocean tides.
(b) Tidal ports are the ports in which the water level within the port is subject to change with floods.
(c) Tidal ports are the ports in which ocean water changes with sea breeze and land breeze.
(d) Tidal ports are the ports where ravines are formed on the beach.
Answer:

(D) Which of the following ports specialises in the Iron Ore exports?
(a) Tuticorin Port
(b) Chennai Port
(c) Paradip Port
(d) Kandla Port
Answer:
(c) Paradip Port

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which authority maintains and lays National Highways?
Answer:
The Central Public Works Department (CPWD) maintains and Lays National Highways.

Question 2.
What is the new arrival on the transportation map of India?
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the major objective to develop superhighways?
Answer:
One major objective of developing superhighways is to connect the megacities of India with each other.

Question 4.
Why was Jawaharlal Nehru port developed?
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru port was developed to decongest the Mumbai Port.

Question 5.
Why was the Haldia port set up?
Answer:
Haldia port was established to help decongest the Kolkata Seaport.

Question 6.
Suggest any one way to improve the postal system in India?
Answer:
A robust feedback system can be put in place to ensure a better customer satisfaction.

Question 7.
Name the oldest artificial sea port of India.
Answer:

Question 8.
Name the organisation which undertakes construction and maintenance of border roads.
Answer:
‘Border Roads Organisation (BRO)’ undertakes construction and maintenance of ‘border roads’.

Related Theory
Border roads are the roads constructed along the northern and north-eastern borders of our country. Border Roads Organisation (BRO) was set up in 1960 by the government of India. BRO is regarded as a symbol of nation building, national integration and an inseparable component in maintaining the security of the country.

Question 9.
Name the deepest, landlocked and well protected sea port of India.
Answer:
Vishakhapatnam is the deepest, landlocked and well protected port of India.

Related Theory
Vishakhapatnam port was originally conceived as an outlet for iron are exports.

Question 10.
Name the state related to National Waterways No. 3.
Answer:
Kerala is the state related to NationaL Waterways No. 3.

Related Theory
Waterways are the cheapest means of transport. They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods. It is a fuel-efficient and environment-friendly mode of transport. India has inland navigation waterways of 14,500 km in length.

Question 11.
Suggest any one way to improve pilgrimage tourism through Indian Railways.
Answer:

Question 12.
Name the river which is related to National Waterway No. 1.
Answer:
The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 km) is related to National Waterways No. 1.

Question 13.
Name the new port that was developed to relieve the growing pressure on the Mumbai port.
Answer:
Kandla Seaport was developed to relieve growing pressure on the Mumbai port.

Question 14.
Name the largest public sector undertaking in India.
Answer:
The Indian Railways

Question 15.
Name the sea port that was developed to relive the growing pressure on the Kolkata port.
Answer:
Haldia Seaport was developed to relive the growing pressure on the KoLkata port.

Question 16.
Name any two terminal cities connected with National Highway No.7.
Answer:

Question 17.
Name one inland riverine port.
Answer:
Kolkata Port is an inland riverine port.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Geography MCQ:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers

Agriculture Class 10 MCQ Online Test With Answers Questions

October 22, 2024

Students can also read Online Education MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Questions with Answers hope will definitely help for your board exams. https://ncertmcq.com/mcq-questions-for-class-10-social-science-with-answers/

Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers

Geography Class 10 Chapter 4 MCQs On Agriculture

Agriculture Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Muskmelon grows in ………
(a) Rabi season
(b) Kharif season
(c) Zaid season
(d) They are grown in both Zaid and Rabi seasons.
Answer:
(c) Zaid season

Explanation: Muskmelon is grown in the Zaid Season. Zaid season comes between Kharif and Rabi season.

Agriculture MCQ Class 10 Question 2.
Which of the following pulses do not help in restoring soil fertility?
(a) Moong
(b) Gram
(c) Peas
(d) Arhar
Answer:
(d) Arhar

Explanation: Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions. All leguminous crops or pulses except arhar help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. Therefore, these are mostly grown in rotation with other crops.

Class 10 Agriculture MCQ Question 3.
Coffee cultivation was first introduced in:
(a) Himalayas
(b) Aravalli Hills
(c) Garo Hills
(d) Baba Budan Hill
Answer:

MCQ Of Agriculture Class 10 Question 4.
What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds?
(a) 21%
(b) 12%
(c) 2%
(d) 40%
Answer:
(b) 12%

MCQ On Agriculture Class 10 Question 5.
Which one of the following is not true for pulses?
(a) Pulses are grown in both Kharif and Rabi Seasons.
(b) Pulses require intensive and excessive irrigation facilities
(c) They are grown in rotation to replenish fertility of the soil.
(d) Pulses are leguminous crops.
Answer:
(b) Pulses require intensive and excessive irrigation facilities

Explanation: Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 6.
If rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, in which state is it a subsistence crop?
(a) Odisha
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Odisha

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 MCQ Question 7.
From which of the following countries was the Arabica variety of coffee initially brought to India?
(a) Yemen
(b) Nepal
(c) Britain
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Yemen

MCQ Agriculture Class 10 Question 8.
Which of the following is an equatorial crop but is also grown as a subtropical and tropical crop?
(a) Jute
(b) Wheat
(c) Rubber
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(c) Rubber

Class 10 Geography Agriculture MCQ Question 9.
The state of is a major producer of Jute.
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(d) West Bengal

Ch 4 Geo Class 10 MCQ Question 10.
Ragi has high nutritional value and is rich in
(a) Iron, calcium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Phosphate
(d) Vitamin C
Answer:

Class 10 Geography Agriculture MCQ Question 11.
Why is there enormous pressure on agricultural land in India? Choose the correct option:
(a) Landholding size is very small.
(b) High density of population.
(c) Small scale farmers do not have the technology to have a lot of produce.
(d) Farmers of less land holdings are not able to afford the right techniques of farming.
Answer:

MCQs On Agriculture Class 10 Question 12.
Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
Intensive Subsistence Farming- Labour intensive and Machine based; Primitive Farming-
(a) Machine based
(b) Traditional methods based
(c) Labour intensive
(d) Modern
Answer:
(b) Traditional methods based

MCQs Of Agriculture Class 10 Question 13.
Which group of crops can be classified under the classification of millets?
(a) Maize and Wheat
(b) Sesamum and Groundnut
(c) Urad and Arhar
(d) Bajra and Ragi
Answer:
(d) Bajra and Ragi

Geography Class 10 Chapter 4 MCQ Question 14.
Match the items of Column A with that of Column B.

Column A (Fruits)	Column B (Significant Areas of Growth)
(A) Guava	(I) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Orange	(II) Kerala
(C) Apple	(III) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Banana	(IV) Maharashtra (Nagpur)

Answer:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(d) (A) -(I), (B) – (III), (C) -(II), (D) -(I)

Class 10 Geo Ch 4 MCQ Question 15.
Which type of farming has the use of higher doses of modern inputs, e.g. high yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides?
(a) Primitive subsistence
(b) Plantation farming
(c) Small Farming or Zero Based Farming
(d) Commercial Farming
Answer:
(d) Commercial Farming

Agriculture Class 10 MCQs Question 16.
Read the table and fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:

(a) (A) More than 500 cm, (B) Below 20 degrees
(b) (A) More than 100 cm, (B) Above 40 degrees
(c) (A) More than 200 cm, (B) Above 25 degrees
(d) (A) less than 100 cm, (B) Above 20 degrees
Answer:
(c) (A) More than 200 cm, (B) Above 25 degrees Explanation: Rubber requires a moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and a temperature above 25°C.

Rice is a kharif crop which requires high temperature, (above 25°C) and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. In areas of less rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation.

Question 17.
Which of the following is a rabi crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Gram
(c) Millets
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(b) Gram

Explanation: Rice, millets and cotton are kharif crops grown with the onset of monsoon in parts of the country and harvested in September- October.

Related Theory
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard while in between the rabi and the kharif season, a short season is known as the Zaid season. Crops grown in this short season are watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops.

Question 18.
Which of the following is an age-old economic activity in our country?
(a) Mining
(b) Agriculture
(c) Sericulture
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b)Agriculture

Explanation: India is an agriculturally important country. Two-third of its population is engaged in agricultural activities.

Question 19.
Which of the following price is announced by the government in support of a crop?
(a) Minimum Subsidised Prices
(b) Maximum Support Prices
(c) Minimum Support Prices
(d) Maximum Subsidised Prices
Answer:
(c) Minimum Support Prices

Question 20.
Given below are some geographical conditions required for the growth of tea crops in India except one. Find it out:
(a) Tea is a labour intensive industry
(b) It requires warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year
(c) It grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates
(d) It is a beverage crop introduced by the British in India.
Answer:
(d) It is a beverage crop introduced by the British in India.

Explanation: Tea is plantation agriculture and was introduced by the British in India.

Related Theory
India is the leading producer as well as exporter of tea in the world. Major tea-producing states are Assam, I/Vest Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Question 21.
Which of the following is a leguminous crop?
(a) Pulses
(b) Jowar
(c) Millets
(d) Sesamum
Answer:
(a) Pulses

Explanation: India is the largest producer as well as the consumer of pulses in the world.

Related Theory
Pulses are the major source of protein in a vegetarian diet. Major pulses grown in India are tur (arhar), urad, moong, masur, peas, and gram.

Question 22.
The ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is known as ‘Milpa’ in which country?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Vietnam
(c) Brazil
(d) Mexico
Answer:

Question 23.
Barley, peas, gram, wheat, and mustard are grown in which cropping season?
(a) Kharif season
(b) Rabi season
(c) Zaid season
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Rabi season

Question 24.
Being leguminous crops, pulses help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air except:
(a) Urad
(b) Arhar
(c) Moong
(d) Masur
Answer:
(b) Arhar

Explanation: Arhar is also known as tur.

Question 25.
Which of the following right leads to the division of land among upcoming generations in India?
(a) The right to property
(b) The right of inheritance
(c) The right of successor
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) The right of inheritance

Question 26.
Arrange the following in the correct sequence:
(i) Sugar
(ii) Transport
(iii) Grocery Item
(iv) Sugarcane
Options:
(a) (i)—(iv)—(iii)—(ii)
(b) (iii)—(iv)—(i)—(iO
(c) (iv)—(i)—(ii)—(iii)
(d) (iii)—(iv)—00—0)

Identify the following on basis of the hints given.

Question 27.
Identify the following product:
(1) The Arabica variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in the country.
(2) Its cultivation was introduced on the Baba Budan Hills
(3) Today it is cultivated in Nilgiri in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Coffee

Question 28.
Identify the following crop:
(1) It requires a moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperature above 25°C.
(2) It is an important industrial raw material.
(3) It is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka dnd Andaman and Nicobar islands and Garo hills of Meghalaya.
Answer:

Correct & Re-write / True-False
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct the statement.

Question 29.
The Arabica variety initially brought from Saudi Arabia is produced in the country.
Correct statement is as follows:
Answer:
The Arabica variety initially brought from Yemen is produced in the country.

Question 30.
Cotton requires high temperature, 220 frost- free days and heavy rainfall for its growth.
Correct statement is as follows:
Answer:
Cotton requires high temperature, 210 frost- free days and light rainfall for its growth.

Question 31.
The ‘right of inheritance’ leading to the division of land among successive generations has rendered land-holding size economical.
Correct statement is as follows:
Answer:
The ‘right of inheritance’ leading to the division of land among successive generations has rendered Land-holding size uneconomical

Question 32.
Rice a rabi crop, is grown with the withdrawal of monsoon in different parts of India.
Answer:

Question 33.
Maize is a crop which is used both as food and fodder.
Answer:
True

Question 34.
India is the third-largest producer of Rice after China and Pakistan.
Answer:
False

India is the second-largest producer of Rice after China.

Related Theory
Rice is a kharif crop that requires high temperature, (above 25 degrees C) and high humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm. It grows in plains of North and North-eastern India.

Fill in the blanks/tables with suitable information:

Question 35.
Complete the following table with correct information for A and B:

Answer:
(A) 75-100 cms
(B) 21°C to 27°C

Explanation: Sugarcane grows well in a hot and humid climate with temperature of about 21-27°C.

Brazil is the largest producer of Sugarcane in the world.

Question 36.
………….. is a ‘slash and burn’ agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family.
Answer:
Primitive Subsistence Farming

Explanation: Primitive subsistence farming is known as Jhumming in north-eastern states like Assam. Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland. Pamlou in Manipur, Dipa in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, and in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Related Theory
The slash and bum agriculture is known as ‘Milpa’ in Mexico and Central America, ‘Conuco’ in Venezuela, ‘Roca’ in Brazil, ‘Masole’ in Central Africa, ‘Ladang’ in Indonesia, ‘Ray’ in Vietnam.

Question 37.
India is the …………. producer of sugarcane in the world.
Answer:

Question 38.
Complete the following table with correct information with regard to cultivation of Rice:

Answer:
(A) Kharif Cropping Season
(B) 16°C – 27°C.

Match the Columns

Question 39.
Match the following crops from column A with the states these are grown in from column B:

Column A (Crops)	Column B (States)
(a) Tea	(i) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Wheat	(ii) Karnataka
(c) Coffee	(iii) Punjab
(d) Sugarcane	(iv) Assam

Answer:

Column A (Crops)	Column B (States)
(a) Tea	(iv) Assam
(b) Wheat	(iii) Punjab
(c) Coffee	(ii) Karnataka
(d) Sugarcane	(i) Uttar Pradesh

Question 40.
Match the following terms from column A with their meanings from column B:

Column A (Terms)	Column B (Meanings)
(a) Horticulture	(i) Grown with the onset of monsoon
(b) Sericulture	(ii) Grown in winter season
(c) Robi Crops	(iii) Cultivation of fruits and vegetables
(d) Kharif Crops	(iv) Production of silk

Answer:

Column A (Terms)	Column B (Meanings)
(a) Horticulture	(iii) Cultivation of fruits and vegetables
(b) Sericulture	(iv) Production of silk
(c) Robi Crops	(ii) Grown in winter season
(d) Kharif Crops	(i) Grown with the onset of monsoon

Question 41.
Match the following crops given in Column A with the states they are found in Column B. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Column A	Column B
(a) Cotton	(i) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Jute	(ii) Maharashtra
(c) Wheat	(iii) Rajasthan
(d) Bajra	(iv) West Bengal

Answer:

Assertion Reasoning questions Class 10 Geography Chapter 4

In each of the following questions, a statement of
Assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R). Select the correct answer to codes (a), (b) (c) or (d) as given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Question 42.
Assertion (A): The Government of India buys wheat and rice from farmers at a fair price.
Reason (R): The public sector contributes to economic development.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: The government announces the minimum support price and remunerative and procurement prices for important crops to avoid the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen. It buys crops from farmers at a fairer price to boost their living.

Question 43.
Assertion (A): Indian agriculture finds itself at a crossroads.
Reason (R): Though the GDP growth rate is increasing over the years, it is not generating sufficient employment opportunities in the country
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: Indian agriculture is growing but there is a deceleration in this sector. Employment opportunities are not increasing.

Question 44.
Assertion (A): Stagnation in agriculture will not lead to a decline in other spheres of the economy having wider implications for society.
Reason (R): All three economic sectors are dependent on each other.
Answer:
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Explanation: Stagnation in agriculture will lead to a decline in other spheres of the economy having wider implications for society.

Question 45.
Assertion (A): The Government of India made concerted efforts to modernize agriculture.
Reason (R): Indian farmers are facing stagnation in production due to inferior technology.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 46.
Assertion (A): Subsidy on fertilizers is decreased leading to an increase in the cost of correct explanation of (A). production.
Reason (R): Subsidy is the discount on agricultural products.

Question 47.
Assertion (A): Under globalization, particularly after 1990, the farmers in India have been exposed to new challenges.
Reason (R): Indian products could not compete with International products due to inferior quality and expensive prices.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 48.
Assertion (A): The Bhoodan-Gramdan movement initiated by Vinoba Bhave is also known as the Bloodless Revolution.
Reason (R): Due to this revolution, drastic land reforms occurred where lands were donated to the poor landless farmers without any violence.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(Competency Based Questions (CBQs))

Question 1.
Read the given source and answer the question that follows:
In 2016 India was the second Largest producer of groundnut in the world after china. Groundnut is a kharif crop and accounts for about half of the major oilseeds produced in the country.
The second largest producer of groundnut in India is
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala
Answer:
Rajasthan

Question 2.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
A few economists think that Indian farmers have a bleak future if they continue growing foodgrains on the holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises. India’s rural population is about 833 million (2011) which depends upon 250 million (approximate) hectares of agricultural land, an average of less than half a hectare per person.
Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops. This will increase incomes and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously. Answer the following MCQs by choosing the
most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following is a high value crop?
(a) Apple
(b) Banana
(c) Jatropha
(d) Sugarcane
Answer:

(B) Which of the following is a major problem of Indian agriculture?
(a) Indian agriculture employs most people in India.
(b) Indian agriculture takes place on small farm holdings which are not lucrative.
(c) Indian agriculture is the backbone of Indian economy.
(d) Indian agriculture produces rice, pulses, wheat and sugarcane.
Answer:
(b) Indian agriculture takes place on small farm holdings which are not lucrative.

(C) How will diversification of Indian cropping pattern help?
(I) It will save the environment.
(II) It will attract investment from people.
(III) It will increase incomes.
(IV) It will replenish fertility of soil.
(V) It will supply nitrogen to the soil.
(a) (I) & (III)
(b) (IV) & (V)
(c) (II) & (IV)
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Answer:
(d) (I), (II) & (III)
Explanation: Diversification might or might not help with the soil’s fertility.

(D) Which of the following led to reduction of size of holdings?
(a) Right to work
(b) Right to inheritance
(c) Right to produce
(d) Right to play
Answer:
(b) Right to inheritance
Explanation: Under right to inheritance, the farm gets divided among the next generation in even parts.

Question 3.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Globalisation is not a new phenomenon. It was there at the time of colonisation. In the nineteenth century when European traders came to India, at that time too, Indian spices were exported to different countries of the world and farmers of south India were encouraged to grow these crops. Till today it is one of the important items of export from India. During the British period cotton belts of India attracted the British and ultimately cotton was exported to Britain as a raw material for their textile industries. Cotton textile industry in Manchester and Liverpool flourished due to the availability of good quality cotton from India.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Where was the Champaran movement held?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Bihar
(d) Chhattisgarh
Answer:
(c) Bihar
Explanation: Champaran Movement was held in 1917 in Bihar.

(B) Which of the following is true about Globalisation?
(a) Globalisation is a relatively new phenomenon.
(b) Globalisation has helped change the face of Indian agriculture.
(c) Indian spices were transported across the world because of Globalisation.
(d) Indian resources attracted British merchants for the barter system.
Answer:
(c) Indian spices were transported across the world because of Globalisation.

(C) Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option:
The Manchester cotton industry received their raw materials from
(a) Indonesia
(b) Switzerland
(c) India
(d) France
Answer:
(c) India

(D) Why was the Champaran movement held?
(a) Peasants were being forced to plant saffron.
(b) Farmers of that region were forced to grow indigo on their Land. They could not grow food crops for their sustenance.
(c) Farmers were forced to grow jute.
(d) Farmers were forced to grow apples.
Answer:

Question 4.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal, coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states. Since the production is mainly for market, a well developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following types of farming can the plantation type of agriculture be classified into?
(a) Primitive Agriculture
(b) Intensive Agriculture
(c) Commercial Agriculture
(d) Slash and Burn Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Commercial Agriculture

(B) Which of the following is not a plantation crop?
(a) Silk
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Coffee
(d) Banana
Answer:
(a) Silk

Explanation: Silk is not planted but reared from silkworms. This practice is called Sericulture.

(C) Which of the following statements supports the assertion, “The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry”?
(a) It uses transportation facilities.
(b) Plantations cover large tracts of land.
(c) A single crop is grown on a large area.
(d) All the production is for the market.
Answer:
(d) All the production is for the market.
Explanation: All the production is for sale and not for consumption. This shows that plantation has an interface of an industry and agriculture together.

(D) Where of the following states is coffee grown the most?
(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Goa
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(d) Karnataka

Question 5.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Jowar is the third most important food crop with respect to area and production. It is a rain-fed crop mostly grown in the moist areas which hardly needs irrigation. Major Jowar producing States are Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

Bajra grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soil. Major Bajra producing States are Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Haryana. Ragi is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils. Major ragi producing states are: Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Jharkhand and Arunachal Pradesh.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(A) Which of the following types of crops does bajra beLong to?
(a) Fibre Crop
(b) Horticulture Crops
(c) Non food Crops
(d) Food Crops
Answer:

(B) Which of the following is the rain-fed crops?
(a) Wheat
(b) Ragi
(c) Jowar
(d) Cotton
Answer:

(D) Which of the following soils supports the crop of bajra?
(a) Red Soil
(b) Alluvial Soil
(c) Black Soil
(d) Yellow Soil
Answer:
(c) Black Soil

Question 6.
Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:
Source A: Types Of Farming
This type of farming is still practiced in few pockets of India. It is practiced on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks, and family community labour. This type of farming depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown.

Source B: Commercial Farming In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states. Since the production is mainly for market, a well-developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.

Source C: Cropping Pattern In states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. These are Aus, Aman and Boro. In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there Is a short season during the summer months known as the Zaid season. Some of the crops produced during ‘zaid’are watermelon and muskmelon. Source A: Types of Farming
(A) Identify the tyoe of Farming through its description in the source.
Source B: Commercial Farming
Answer:
This type of farming is Primitive Subsistence Farming. This type of farming is only used for consumption and subsistence purposes.

(B) What do you mean by Plantation Crops? Source C: Cropping Pattern
Answer:
A plantation crop is a crop which is cultivated on large scale farms called plantations for export purposes. Plantation farming is a kind of commercial farming and is mainly done for trade. Coffee is a plantation crop.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which crop is a kharif crop in north and rabi crop in south India?
Answer:
Sesamum

Question 2.
By which name is the specialized cultivation of fruits and vegetables known?
Answer:
Horticulture Crops

Question 3.
Describe “Jhumming Cultivation” in one sentence.
Answer:
In Jhumming cultivation, agriculture is practiced on a big chunk of land which is then left alone after it loses its fertility. This replenishes its fertility on its own.

Question 4.
India is the largest producer as well as consumer of which agricultural product in the world? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
Pulses

Question 5.
What soil is perfect for the growth r c cashew nuts?
Answer:
Laterite Soil

Question 6.
Which crop is the major crop of Rabi?
Answer:

Question 7.
Which factors have helped Punjab and Haryana to grow more and more rice?
Answer:
Development of Dense Canal Network and use of new fertilisers have helped Punjab and Haryana to grow more rice.

Question 8.
Wheat is grown in which crop season?
Answer:
Rabi Season

Question 9.
Name any one kharif crop.
Answer:
Paddy

Question 10.
Define the Green Revolution.
Answer:
The Green Revolution is referred to as the process of increasing agricultural production by incorporating modern tools and techniques.

Question 11.
Define the White Revolution.
Answer:
The White Revolution is the movement which led to dairy development movement by the Government of India.

Question 12.
Name any two schemes introduced by the Government of India for the benefit of the farmers.
Answer:
Kissan Credit Card Scheme, Personal Accident Insurance Scheme.

Question 13.
Write the temperature requirement of the maize crop.
Answer:

Question 14.
Which crop is known as ‘golden fibre’?
Answer:
Jute

Question 15.
Write the amount of annual rainfall required for the cultivation of wheat.
Answer:
50-75 cm of rainfall is the amount of rainfall required for the cultivation of wheat.

Related Theory:
Wheat is a rabi crop that requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening. It requires 50-75 cm of annual rainfall evenly- distributed evenly over the growing season.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers

Class 10 Social Science Geography MCQ: