Raju

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography Term 2 Set 3 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D & E.
• In Section A question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer Type Questions. Attempt any 3 Questions.
• In Section B question number 4 is Source Based Question.
• In Section C question number 5 &6 are Short Answer Based Questions.
• In Section D question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer Based Questions.
• In Section E question number 10 is a Map Based Question.

Section – A

(Very Short Answer Type Questions) (2 x 3 = 6)
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
Explain the features of El-Nino. [2]
OR
Differentiate between forest cover and forest area. [2]

Question 2.
What determines the boundaries of different biome? [2]

Question 3.
‘Tropical regions are the diverse regions of the world.” Explain. [2]

Section – B
            Source Based Question (1 x 3 = 3)

Question 4.
Alluvial Soil:
Alluvial soils are widespread in the northern plains and the river valleys. These soils cover about 40 per cent of the total area of the country. They are depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers and streams. Through a narrow corridor in Rajasthan, they extend into the plains of Gujarat. In the Peninsular region, they are found in deltas of the east coast and the river valleys. The colour of the alluvial soils varies from light grey to ash grey. Its shades depend on the depth of the deposition, the texture of the materials, and the time taken for attaining maturity. Alluvial soils are intensively cultivated.

Attempt All Questions:
(i) Where is alluvial soil found in India? [1]

(ii) Why is alluvial soil known as depositional soil? [1]

(iii) What factors determine the colour of alluvial soil? Mention any two of them. [1]

Section – C
            Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 3 = 6)

Question 5.
Explain different types of winds. [3]

Question 6.
Name the three types of precipitation? [3]
OR
How do ocean currents affect the climate? Explain. [3]

Section – D
Long Answer Type Questions (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 7.
Explain any five factors that determine the climate of India based on location and relief. [5]

Question 8.
‘Forest and tribals are very closely related.’ Justify the statement. [5]
OR
Explain the features of the laterite soil. [5]

Question 9.
How is the economic life in India affected by the monsoon? [5]

Section – E 
Map Based Questions (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 10.
On the outline map of India indicate and mark the following features. (Attempt any 5)
(i) A place in North India where forest soil is found.
(ii) An Island group of India located in the Bay of Bengal.
(iii) This Biosphere Reserve is one of the world’s richest regions from a marine biodiversity perspective.
(iv) The location of Forest Survey of India headquarter.
(v) Largest mangrove forest in India .
(vi) Area of winter rainfall.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Geography Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A, B, C, D &E.
• In Section A question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer Type Questions. Attempt any 3 Questions.
• In Section B question number 4 is Source Based Question.
• In Section C question number 5 & 6 are Short Answer Based Questions.
• In Section D question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer Based Questions.
• In Section E question number 10 is a Map Based Question.

Section – A

Very Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 3 = 6)
(Attempt All Questions)

Question 1.
Discuss the reasons which impede the formation of dew or frost. [2]
OR
How does the unequal distribution of heat over the planet earth in space and time cause variations in weather and climate? [2]
Answer:
The formation of dew or frost is impeded by:

• Dry air.
• Wind mixes the air and prevents its lower portion from reaching the dew point.
• Clouds which slow down terrestrial radiation.

Or
In the areas where there is high temperature, the wind blows from low temperature areas. Therefore, wind moves upward from equatorial regions and blows towards two poles. Due to this wind, the pressure on both the poles increases. Unequal distribution of temperature is the main cause of blowing of the wind. The unequal distribution of temperature, gives rise to rainfall and cyclone. Thus, unequal distribution of heat over the earth in space and time causes variations in weather and climate.

Question 2.
What are the features of black soil? [2]
Answer:
Features of black soil:

1. The Black soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’. These soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
2. They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, this soil develops wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self ploughing’.
3. Because of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the moisture for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially, the rain fed ones, to sustain even during the dry season.

Question 3.
‘In spite of abundant rainfall, India is a water thirsty land.’ Explain. [2]
Answer:
Inspite of abundant rainfall, India is a water thirsty land because:

1. The occurrence of rainfall is restricted to a few months, i.e., June to September.
2. Even though monsoons occur, due to high temperature, there is a quick evaporation of rainwater and rapid run off.
3. Monsoons suffer from delay and long breaks.

Section – B
Source Based Question (1 x 3 = 3)

Question 4.
Water Vapour:
Water vapour is also a variable gas in the atmosphere, which decreases with altitude. In the warm and wet tropics, it may account for four per cent of the air by volume, while in the dry and cold areas of desert and polar regions, it may be less than one percent of the air. Water vapour also decreases from the equator towards the poles. It also absorbs parts of the insolation from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated heat. It thus, acts like a blanket allowing the earth neither to become too cold nor too hot. Water vapour also contributes to the stability and instability in the air.

Attempt All Questions:

(i) Why do water vapours decrease with an increase in height? [1]
Answer:
The amount of water vapours in the air tend to decrease with altitude. This is because temperatures decrease with height and the availability of a moisture source is farther away.

(ii) Why do water vapours decrease from equator to pole? [1]
Answer:
Water vapours decrease from Equator to Pole due to temperature as lower temperatures mean lower absolute humidity.

(iii) What percentage of water vapours are found in the warm and wet tropics. [1]
Answer:
The volume of water vapours is about 4% in very warm and humid tropical air.

Section – C
Short Answer Type Questions (2 x 3 = 6)

Question 5.
What are the main factors responsible for the formation of soil? [3]
Answer:
Soil is the mixture of rock debris and organic materials which develop on the earth’s surface. The major factors affecting the formation of soil are relief, parent material, climate, vegetation and other life-forms and time. Besides these, human activities also influence it to a large extent. Components of the soil are mineral particles, humus, water and air. The actual amount of each of these depends upon the type of soil.

Question 6.
How has the water been distributed on the Earth’s surface? [3]
OR
What do you know about thunderstorms? [3]
Answer:
The distribution of water on earth is quite uneven. Many locations have plenty of water while others have very limited quantities. The hydrological cycle, is the circulation of water within the earth’s hydrosphere in different forms i.e. the liquid, solid and gaseous phases. It also refers to the continuous exchange of water between the oceans, atmosphere, land surface and subsurface and the organisms.

About 71 percent of the planetary water is found in the oceans. The remaining is held as freshwater in glaciers and ice caps, groundwater sources, lakes, soil moisture, atmosphere, streams and within life. Nearly 59 per cent of the water that falls on land returns to the atmosphere through evaporation from over the oceans as well as 1 from other places. The remainder runs-off on the surface, infiltrates into the ground or a part of it becomes a glacier.

Commonly Made Error:
While discussing the distribution of water on Earth, the students fail to mention the percentage of water distributed all across.

Answering Tip:
The distribution of water on earth is quite uneven. Only 3% of water on the surface is fresh; the remaining 97% resides in the ocean.
Or

1. Thunderstorm is a violent short-lived weather disturbance which is almost always associated with lightning, thunder, dense clouds, heavy rain or hail, and strong gusty winds.
2. Thunderstorms are caused by intense convection on moist hot days.
3. Thunderstorms arise when layers of warm, moist air rise in a large, swift updraft to cooler regions of the atmosphere.
4. A thunderstorm is a well-grown cumulonimbus cloud producing thunder and lightning.

Section – D
Long Answer Type Questions (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 7.
What is soil conservation? Suggest some measures to conserve soil? [5]
Answer:
Soil conservation is a methodology to maintain soil fertility, prevent soil erosion and exhaustion, and improve the degraded condition of the soil.

Measures taken to conserve soil are:

1. The first step is to check open cultivable lands on slopes from farming.
2. Lands with a slope gradient of 15 – 25 per cent should not be used for cultivation. If at all the land is to be used for agriculture, terraces should carefully be made.
3. Over-grazing and shifting cultivation in many parts of India have affected the natural cover of land and given rise to extensive erosion. It should be regulated and controlled by educating villagers about the consequences.
4. Contour bunding, Contour terracing, regulated forestry, controlled grazing, cover cropping, mixed farming and crop rotation should be encouraged.
5. In arid and semi-arid areas, efforts should be made to protect cultivable lands from encroachment by sand dunes through developing shelter belts of trees and agro-forestry.

Question 8.
‘The planet has warmed up from the temperature records.”Explain. [5]
OR
Why does tropical cyclone originate over the seas? In which part of the tropical cyclone do torrential rains and high-velocity winds blow and why? [5]
Answer:
The planet has warmed up from the temperature records. Temperature data are available from the middle of the 19th century mostly for western Europe. The reference period for this study is 1961-90. The temperature anomalies for the earlier and later periods are estimated from the average temperature for the period 1961 – 90. The annual average near-surface air temperature of the world is approximately 14°C. Earth’s temperature has risen by 0.14° F (0.08° C) per decade since 1880, and the rate of warming over the past 40 years is more than twice that: 0.32° F (0.18° C) per decade since 1981.

The greatest warming of the 20th century was during the two periods, 1901 – 44 and 1977 – 99. Over each of these two periods, global temperatures rose by about 0.4°C. In between, there was a slight cooling, which was more marked in the Northern Flemisphere. The globally averaged annual mean temperature at the end of the 20th century was about 0.6°C above that recorded at the end of the 19th century. The seven warmest years during the 1856 – 2000 were recorded in the last decade. The year 1998 was the warmest year, probably not only for the 20th century but also for the whole millennium.

Question 9.
Discuss the factors affecting the speed and direction of the wind? [5]
Answer:
The air in motion is called wind. The wind blows from high pressure to low pressure. The wind at the surface experiences friction. In addition, rotation of the earth also affects the wind movement. The force exerted by the rotation of the earth is known as the Coriolis force. Thus, the horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of three forces – the pressure gradient force, the frictional force and the Coriolis force. In addition, the gravitational force acts downward.
(i) Pressure Gradient Force:
The differences in atmospheric pressure produces a force. The rate of change of pressure with respect to distance is the pressure gradient. The pressure gradient is strong where the isobars are close to each other and is weak where the isobars are apart.

(ii) Frictional Force:
It affects the speed of the wind. It is greatest at the surface and its influence generally extends upto an elevation of 1 – 3 km. Over the sea surface the friction is minimal.

(iii) Coriolis Force:
Due to the Earth’s rotation, winds do not cross the isobars at right angles as the pressure gradient force directs, but get deflected from their original path. This deviation is the result of the Earth’s rotation and is called the Coriolis Effect or Coriolis Force. Due to this effect, winds in the northern hemisphere get deflected to the right of their path and those in the southern hemisphere to their left, following Farrel’s Law. The Coriolis Force changes wind direction but not its speed. This deflection force does not seem to exist until the air is set in motion and increases with wind velocity, air mass and an increase in latitude.

(iv) Pressure and Wind:
The velocity and direction of the wind are the net results of the wind generating forces. The winds in the upper atmosphere, 2-3 km above the surface, are free from the frictional effect of the surface and are controlled by the pressure gradient and the Coriolis force. When isobars are straight and when there is no friction, the pressure gradient force is balanced by the Coriolis force and the resultant wind blows parallel to the isobar.

(v) Centripetal Acceleration:
Due to the inward acceleration of air towards the centre of rotation on the rotating earth, it is possible for the air to maintain a curved path (parallel to the isobars), about a local axis of hig|i or low pressure. It is known as centripetal acceleration.

Section – E
Map Based Questions (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 10.
On the outline map of India indicate and mark the following features. (Attempt any 5)
(i) Onset of monsoon in Chandigarh
(ii) Onset of monsoon in Mumbai
(iii) A place in North India where alluvial soil is found
(iv) A place where black soil is found
(v) A place where Arid Soil is found in North India
(vi) Largest mangrove forest in India
Answer:

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology Term 2 Set 5 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections of 23 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Sedion-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A
(2 Marks)

Question 1.
Answer the following questions based on the equation given below:
2H₂O → 2H⁺ + O₂ + 4e^–
(a) Where in plants does this reaction occur?
(b) What is the importance of this reaction?

Question 2.
Study the pathway given below.

(a) Which group of plants exhibits these two types of cells? What is the first product of C₄ cycle? (1)
(b) Which enzyme is there in bundle sheath cells and mesophyll cells?
OR
Six turns of Calvin cycle are required to generate one mole of glucose. Explain.

Question 3.
The figure given below shows the stages of ripening in a banana.

(a) Name the plant hormone responsible for the above changes.
(b) Mention the site of synthesis as well as function of this hormone.

Question 4.
An aquarium fish and a pigeon were fed on protein diet.

(a) Which group of plants exhibits these two types of cells? What is the first product of C₄ cycle? (1)
(b) Which enzyme is there in bundle sheath cells and mesophyll cells? (1)
OR
(a) In what different forms would they excrete their nitrogenous wastes? (1)
(b) Why do they excrete so differently? (1)

Question 5.
The pressure exerted by an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called partial pressure. It is directly proportional to its concentration in a mixture. It is expressed as pO₂, pCO₂, etc.
(a) How does it help in gaseous exchange during respiration? (1)
(b) State the pO₂ and pCO₂ in the blood after tissue respiration. (1)

Question 6.
The diagram alongside represents the simplified pathway of the circulation of blood.

(a) Name the blood vessels labelled 1 and 2. (1)
(b) State the function of blood vessels labeled 5 and 8. (1)
OR
The diagram given alongside represents the human heart in one phase of its functional activities. Study the same and answer the questions that follow:

(a) Name the phase. Which part of the heart is contracting in this phase?
(b) Label the parts A, B and C.

Section – B
(3 Marks each)

Question 7.
In a certain ‘X’ organism, a process is occurring throughout the day in which cells are participating. Water, ATP and carbon dioxide are evolved during the process and is not light-dependent process.
(a) Which process is discussed above? (1)
(b) Is this a catabolic or anabolic process? (1)
(c) Write the raw materials required for this process. (1)

Question 8.
The final product of glycolysis is pyruvic acid. Write the three metabolic fates of the pyruvic acid in anaerobic and aerobic conditions as seen in the diagram below:

The diagram below shows ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis.

(a) Label the parts 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the diagram? (2)
(b) What role is played by ATPase? (1)

Question 9.
The lymphatic system in the human body is made up of lymph, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic nodes, and lymphoid tissue. What is the functional role of the lymphatic system?

Question 10.
Unlike plant hormones, animal hormones are often produced in specialized hormone-synthesizing glands. The hormones are then secreted from the glands into the blood stream, where they are transported throughout the body.

(a) List the endocrine gland that is absent in males and the one absent in the female. (1)
(b) Which is the endocrine gland that secretes calcitonin? What role does this hormone play? (1)
(c) Why do old people have a weak immune system? (1)

Question 11.
The given diagram represents the structure of human brain. The brain is the central information processing organ of our body, and acts as the ‘command and control system’. It controls the voluntary movements; balance of the body, thermoregulation, and the brain also processes vision, hearing, speech, etc. The brain can be divided into three parts : Forebrain, Midbrain and Hindbrain.

(a) Where in the human brain is the centre for hunger located? (1)
(b) List the names of any two structures that protect the brain. (1)
(c) What does the white and grey matter in the human brain indicate? (1)

Question 12.
The figure given below shows a part of a nephron.

(a) In which region of the kidney is the above structure present? (1)
(b) What is the technical term used for the process that occurs in part 3? (1)
(c) Why is fluid X not called urine? Justify your answer. (1)

Section – C
(5 Marks)

Question 13.
The completion of prophase is marked by the following characteristic events :

Chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes. They are seen to be composed of two chromatids attached together at the centromere. Centrosome which had undergone duplication during interphase, begins to move towards opposite poles of the cell. They radiate out microtubules called asters. The two asters together with spindle fibres form mitotic apparatus. Cells at the end of prophase do not show Golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope.

(a) Which phase of mitosis is the starting point of metaphase? (1)
(b) Nuclear membrane disappears in meiosis at the end of which stage? (1)
(c) Which term is used to refer the stage between two meiotic divisions? (1)
(d) What is crossing over? At which stage of meiosis I it takes place? (2)
OR
A cell, which has 32 chromosomes, undergoes mitotic division.

(a) What will be the chromosome number (N) during metaphase? (1)
(b) What would be the DNA content (C) during anaphase? (1)
(c) Draw a labeled diagram of anaphase of mitosis. Write any two key features of this phase. (3)

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections of 23 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Sedion-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A
(2 Marks each)

Question 1.
Certain plants growing in the tropical regions suffer from photorespiratory loss.
(a) How do they overcome it? (1)
(b) Mention the anatomical adaptation? (1)

Question 2.
The diagram below shows the movement of substances into in and out of a chloroplast with labelling 1,2,3 and 4.

(a) What do labels 1 to 4 represent? (1)
(b) Name the products used to drive the dark reaction that is formed during the light reaction of photosynthesis. (1)
OR
The two parts of AT Pase enzyme are a headpiece and a stalk.

(a) State their arrangement in the thylakoid membrane. (1)
(b) Which part of the enzyme shows conformational changes? (1)

Question 3.
Many discoveries in science have been accidental. This is true for plant hormones also. Can you justify this statement by giving an example?

Question 4.
The diagram below shows a nephron of the mammalian kidney.

(a) Which among the regions (marked as 1,2,3 and 4) is the main region responsible for restoring the metabolic level of the blood plasma to its pre- renal level? (1)
(b) What is the role of Henle’s loop? (1)

Question 5.
In the human heart, blood from the lungs enter the heart through the left atrium, pumps into the left ventricle, out the aorta and through the body, and then returns into the right atrium, pumps into the right ventricle and exits to the lungs.

Name the labels marked from 1 to 5 in the below diagram and by using the labels, Explain the process of blood flow in humans in a sequential manner.

Question 6.
In a urine sample of a person, increased content of glucose and ketone bodies was found.
(a) Name the hormone and gland associated with this condition. (1)
(b) Name the condition. How can it be rectified? (1)
OR
In humans, blood calcium levels are maintained because the bones act as a calcium sink in which calcium can either be stored or procured based on the body’s needs.

(a) If a person secretes too much of parathyroid hormone (one possible factor in the bone disease osteoporosis), what happens to calcium levels in the body? (1)
(b) Mention one parathyroid disorder. (1)

Section – B
(3 Marks)

Question 7.
The diagram below explain the mitochondrial ETS.

(a) Expand and define the term ETS. (1)
(b) Identify F, Q, R, S in the diagram. (1)
(c) Why oxygen is the ultimate acceptor of electrons in ETS? (1)

Question 8.
During the process of glycolysis, glucose goes through partial oxidation for the formation of pyruvic acid (2 molecules). It is obtained from the sucrose in plants which is the resulting product of photosynthesis. Invertase converts sucrose into fructose and glucose, which enter into the glycolytic pathway. These are phosphorylated to produce glucose-6-phosphate which isomerizes to generate fructose-6-phosphate. A sequence of 10 reactions regulated by different enzymes occurs in glycolysis to yield pyruvate from glucose.

(a) State where it occurs and its end products. (1)
(b) In both aerobic and anaerobic respiration, determine the fate of these products. (2)
OR
Study the figure carefully showing major pathway of anaerobic respiration.

(a) Identify 1,2,3 and 4 in the given flow chart. (2)
(b) What is another name of Glycolysis? Where does it occur? (1)

Question 9.
Study the given diagram of synapse carefully.

(a) Identify the structure which transmits signal across a chemical synapse.
(b) State any two differences between chemical and electrical transmission.

Question 10.
Aashi was given sample of two muscles marked as 1 and 2. When she compared the muscles, she found that muscle 1 contains large amount of myoglobin and utilise large amount of stored oxygen for ATP production whereas muscle 2 contains few myoglobin, mitochondria and high sarcoplasmic reticulum.

(a) Identify the muscle 1 and 2.
(b) What is the function of myoglobin?
(c) What kind of muscle fibres form the extensor muscle on the back of human body? How do these fibres help?

Question 11.
In humans, the mechanism of breathing involves two stages i.e., Inspiration and expiration. The inspiration is an active process as it requires expenditure of energy for muscle contraction. During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscle contract simultaneously. The expiration is a passive process as it does not require the expenditure of energy. In normal breathing, there are about 12 – 16 complete respiratory cycles per minute.

(a) Mention the main parts involved in initiating a pressure gradient between the lungs and the atmosphere during normal respiration. (1)
(b) State the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal breathing. (2)

Question 12.
The diagram alongside represents the circulation of blood in human body. Answer the questions that follow:

(a) Name the blood vessels labelled A, C, F and G. (1)
(b) Name the blood vessel that supplies the walls of the heart with oxygen. (1)
(c) Mention one structural difference between blood vessels represented D and E. (1)

Section – C
(5 Marks)

Question 13.
While examining the mitotic stage in a tissue, one finds some cells with 16 chromosomes and some with 32 chromosomes.

(a) What possible reasons could you assign to this difference in chromosome number? Do you think cells with 16 chromosomes could have arisen from cells with 32 chromosomes or vice versa? (3)
(b) The following events occur during the various phases of the cell cycle. Name the phase against each of the events.
(i) Disintegration of nuclear membrane __________
(ii) Appearance of nucleolus __________
(iii) Division of centromere __________
(iv) Replication of DNA __________ (2)
OR
Shown below are four stages (A, B, C, D) (not in sequence) of a certain kind of cell division.

(a) Is the given cells undergoing mitosis or meiosis? (1)
(b) What should be the correct sequence of these four stages among themselves? (1)
(c) Name the stage that should precede the earliest of these stages. (1)
(d) Draw the stage named above inside the blank space provided. (2)

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology Term 2 Set 3 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections of 23 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Sedion-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A
(2 Marks)

Question 1.
Study the given diagram.

(a) Identify the name of the cycle.
(b) Name the labels: 1,2 and 3.

Question 2.
There are two types of cellular respiration, aerobic and anaerobic. One occurs in the presence of oxygen (aerobic), and one occurs in the absence of oxygen (anaerobic). Both begin with glycolysis – the splitting of glucose.

The energy yield in terms of ATP is higher in aerobic respiration than that of during anaerobic respiration. Explain.
OR
Even though a very few cells in a C₄ plant carry out the biosynthetic – Calvin pathway, yet they are highly productive. Can you discuss why?

Question 3.
Plant growth regulators (PGRs) have innumerable practical applications. Name the PGRs you should use to: ED
(a) Increase yield of sugar cane.
(b) Promote lateral shoot growth.
(c) Cause sprouting of potato tuber.
(d) Inhibit seed germination.

Question 4.
Radha was running on a treadmill at a great speed for 15 minutes continuously. She stopped the treadmill and abruptly came out. For the next few minutes, she was breathing heavily/fast. By reading this statement, answer the following questions:
(a) What happened to her muscles when she did strenuous exercise?
(b) What is the effect of this exercise on her breathing rate?

Question 5.
The diagram given below is of Actin filament.

(a) Label the different components of actin filament. (1)
(b) What is the source of energy for the contraction of muscles? (1)

Question 6.
Diabetes is known as one of the major causes of blindness, kidney failure, heart attacks, strokes, etc. It is a key fact mentioned in WHO global report, that this disease could be treated and its consequences can be avoided or delayed with diet, physical activity, medication, regular screening and treatment for complications.

Explain the differences between Diabetes mellitus and Diabetes insipidus.

OR

Glucocorticoids hormones are secreted by the middle region of the adrenal cortex. State the importance of glucocorticoids in humans.

Section – B
(3 Marks each)

Question 7.
In the following flow chart, replace the symbols a, b, c and d with appropriate terms. Name the process.

The diagram below represents the substrate-level phosphorylation reaction. In substrate-level phosphorylation reactions, the phosphate group of an intermediate reactant is transferred to an ADP molecule to synthesize ATP.

How is ATP produced during glycolysis is a result of substrate-level phosphorylation? Explain.

Question 8.
Photorespiration is a process which involves loss of fixed carbons as CO₂ in plants in the presence of light. Chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria are three cellular organelles involved in photorespiration. Mention the various steps of photo respiratory pathway.

Question 9.
(a) Given below is the diagrammatic representation of a standard ECG.
(i) Label the different peaks of an ECG.
(b) What does the T wave in a normal electrocardiogram indicates ? (1)

Question 10.
The given diagram shows the lungs of a normal human being. In mammals, the lungs replace the skin very effectively as a respiratory organ.

Explain by giving three reasons.

Question 11.
On an educational trip to Uttaranchal, Ketki and her friends observe that many local people were having swollen necks. Please help Ketki and her friends to find out the solutions to the following questions.

(a) Which probable disease are these people suffering from?
(b) How is it caused?
(c) Do this condition have any effect on pregnancy? If yes, then explain those effects.

Question 12.
The diagram given below is that of a structure present in a human kidney.

(a) Name the part labelled as 1. What is the liquid entering in it called? (1)
(b) Name the two substances present in this liquid that are re-absorbed in the tubule. (1)
(c) Mention the three main steps involved in the formation of the fluid mentioned in (b) above. (1)

Section – C
(5 Marks)

Question 13.
During a class fest, biology teacher shown a diagram representing the stage during mitotic cell division in an animal cell and asked students to examine it carefully and answer the questions which follow.

(a) Identify the stage. Give one reason in support of your answer. (1)
(b) Name the cell organelle that forms the ‘aster’. (1)
(c) Name the parts labeled 1,2 and 3. (1)
(d) Name the stage that comes after the one shown here. How is that stage identified? (2)
OR
The fusion of two gametes during sexual reproduction, each with a complete haploid set of chromosomes results in the production of offspring. Gametes are formed from specialised diploid cells. This type of division is called meiosis. Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half which results in the production of haploid daughter cells. This cell division ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms whereas fertilization restores the diploid phase. Meiosis occurs during gametogenesis in plants and animals. This leads to the formation of haploid gametes.

(a) Mention two points of difference between mitosis and meiosis with regard to:
(i) The number of daughter cells produced.
(ii) The chromosome number in the daughter cells. (2)

(b) Distinguish between metaphase of mitosis and metaphase-I of meiosis. (2)

(c) Name the stage of cell cycle at which one of the following events occur:
(i) Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
(ii) Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place. (1)

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections of 23 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Sedion-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A
(2 Marks each)

Question 1.
RuBisCO is an enzyme that acts both as a carboxylase and oxygenase.

Study the above diagram carefully and explain why RuBisCO carries out more carboxylation in C₄ plants?
Answer:
RuBisCO carries out more carboxylation in C₄ plants because these plants have mechanism that increases the concentration of CO₂ at the enzymatic site. During the C₄ pathway, when the C₄ acid from the mesophyll cells is broken down in the bundle sheath cells, it releases CO₂. This results in the increased intracellular concentration of CO₂. So, RuBisCO functions as the carboxylase and binds with plants and carry out more carboxylation.

Question 2.
What is glycolysis? Where does it occur?
OR
Anaerobic respiration works in contrast to the highly efficient process of aerobic respiration, which relies on oxygen to produce energy. Anaerobic respiration cannot continue for a long in higher organisms. Why? Give any two reasons.
Answer:
Glycolysis is also called as EMP (Embden Meyerhof Parnas) pathway. Glycolysis is the process of breakdown of glucose or similar hexose sugar to two molecules of Pyruvic acid through a series of enzyme-mediated reactions releasing some energy (ATP) and reducing power (NADH). It occurs is cytosol or cytoplasm.
OR
Anaerobic respiration cannot continue for a long in higher organisms because of:

• Low yield of energy.
• Decomposition of large amount of substrates, so that little is left for growth and repairs.
• Toxic effect of end products in higher concentration.
• Inhibition of a number of physiological processes linked with aerobic respiration. (Any two)

Question 3.
A plant hormone is a chemical substance produced naturally in plants which is translocated to another region for regulating one or more physiological reactions, when present in low concentrations.

In how many groups does plant growth regulators are classified?
Answer:
Based on functions, plant growth regulators are broadly classified into two groups:

1. Growth promoters: Such plant growth regulators are involved in growth-promoting activities such as cell division, cell enlargement, pattern formation, etc. These include auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins.
2. Growth inhibitors: Such PGRs are involved in various growth-inhibiting activities such as promotion of dormancy and abscission. These include abscisic acid and ethylene.

Commonly Made Error

• Some students interchange the names of growth inhibitors and growth promoters.

Answering Tip

• Students should remember that all the plant hormones axe not growth promoters but some are growth inhibitors. Students should understand and learn the function of such phytohormones.

Question 4.
Neurons are classified into two categories based upon the presence or absence of myelin sheath:

Myelinated neurons and non-myelinated neurons.
(a) Why is the mode of conduction of electrical impulse along the myelinated neurons advantageous to a non-myelinated neuron? (1)
(b) What is this type of conduction called? (1)
Answer:
(a) This is so because the ionic changes and consequent depolarization takes place only at the nodes of Ranvier, which is free from myelin sheath leading to the jumping of action potential from one node to the next.

(b) This type of conduction of impulse along a myelinated nerve fibre, is called saltatory conduction.

Commonly Made Error

• Students often get confused between the conduction of impulse in myelinated and non-myelinated nerve fiber.

Answering Tip

• Students should focus on the saltatory conduction and understand the topic thoroughly.

Question 5.
Label the parts in the following diagram using the terms given below: ¹/₂ × 4
(i) Afferent arteriole
(ii) Efferent arteriole
(iii) Bowman’s capsule
(iv) Glomerulus

Answer:

Question 6.
George comes on a vacation to India from US. The long journey disturbs his biological system and he suffers from jet lag. What is the cause of his discomfort?
OR

The given gland consists of four separate glands located on the posterior surface of the lobes of the thyroid gland, one pair each in the two lobes.

(a) Name its secretion. How is its secretion regulated? (1)
(b) Mention one parathyroid disorder. (1)
Answer:
It is due to the disturbance in diurnal rhythm. Melatonin plays a very important role in the regulation of a 24-hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body. For example, it helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of the sleep-wake cycle, body temperature and disturbance in this cycle cause discomfort.
OR
(a) The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone or parathormone, the secretion of which is regulated by the circulating calcium ion.

(b) Hypoparathyroidism causes the lowering of blood calcium level thereby leading to parathyroid tetany.

Section – B
(3 Marks)

Question 7.
Auxins are the growth hormones capable of promoting cell elongation. They have been used in horticulture to promote growth, flowering and rooting. Write a line to explain the meaning of the following terms related to auxins.
(a) Auxins precursors (1)
(b) Anti-auxins (1)
(c) Synthetic auxins (1)
OR
By looking at which internal structure of a plant you can tell whether a plant is C₃ or C₄? Explain.
Answer:
(a) Auxin precursors: These are the raw materials used in synthesis of auxins. For example, tryptophan is an Indole-3- acetic acid.
(b) Anti-auxins: These are the compounds which inhibit the action of auxin. For example, TIBA acts as anti-auxins by blocking transport of auxin.
(c) Synthetic auxin: Auxins which are manufactured synthetically and do not grow naturally in plants. E.g. 2,4-D, NAA, etc.

OR

By seeing the V. S. of leaves, one of C₃ plant and the other of a C₄ plant.

• The C₄ plant leaves have Kranz anatomy. The chloroplasts in C₄ leaves are dimorphic.
• The bundle sheath cells in C₄ make several layers around the vascular bundles. The C₃ plants do not have bundle sheath.
• C₄ leaves possess large number of chloroplasts, thick cell wall impervious to gaseous exchange and there are no intercellular spaces e.g., maize and Sorghum leaves. The C₃ plants possess one type of chloroplasts.

Question 8.
Respiration is an energy-releasing and enzymatically controlled catabolic process which involves a step-wise oxidative breakdown of organic substances inside living cells. With the help of this statement about respiration, explain the meaning of: O₂
(a) Step-wise oxidative breakdown 1 + ¹/₂
(b) Organic substances (used as substrates). 1 + ¹/₂
Answer:
(a) Step wise oxidative breakdown means release of small amount of energy, so that same can be trapped and stored for later use. Respiration is a step-wise oxidation of organic molecules in a cell, which involves three main steps: Glycolysis, Krebs cycle and Electron Transport Chain.

(b) Organic substrates are respiratory substrates which are oxidized during respiration to liberate energy inside the living cells. The common respiratory substrates are carbohydrates, proteins, fats and organic acids.

Question 9.
The diagram given below represents a nephron and its blood supply.

(a) Label parts A, B, C and D.
(b) State the reason for the high hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus.
Answer:
(a) Different parts in the diagram are labelled as:

• A – Collecting duct.
• B – Distal convoluted tubule (DCT).
• C – Loop of Henle.
• D – Bowman’s capsule.

(b) As the afferent arteriole splits into many fine branches due to which the volume of capillaries reduce, thus raising the hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus.

Question 10.
The following diagram represents the human heart in one phase of its activity.

(a) Name the phase. (1)
(b) Which parts of the heart are contracting in this phase? (1)
(c) How many valves are closed in this phase? (1)
Answer:
(a) The phase shown in the figure is ventricular systole.

(b) The lower part consisting of the right and left ventricles are contracting in this phase as the blood seems to be flowing into the pulmonary artery and main aorta, while the bicuspid and tricuspid valves are closed.

(c) Two valves i.e., the bicuspid and tricuspid valves leading from the atria to the ventricles are closed during systole to prevent the back-flow of blood into the atria.

Commonly Made Error

• Students are not able to identify the blood vessels correctly.

Answering Tip

• Lay emphasis on differences between pulmonary artery and vein.

Question 11.
During muscle contraction, a neural signal, released by central nervous system, when reaches the neuromuscular junction, it releases a neurotransmitter (Acetylcholine) which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma. This action potential along the length spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm.

(a) Describe the significance of Ca²⁺ ions in the contraction of muscles. (2)
(b) Which neurotransmitter is responsible for contraction of muscle? (1)
Answer:
(a) Calcium plays a key role in the muscle contraction process. During contraction of muscles, from the motor end plate, an action potential passes over the sarcolemma and further into the T-tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum and triggers it to produce Ca²⁺ ions into the sarcoplasm. The binding of calcium ions to the troponin causes its shape and position to change which in turn modifies the position and shape of tropomyosin that binds the troponin. This shift presents the active sites on the molecule, F-actin which prompts the myosin cross-bridges to bind to these active sites.

(b) Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that is responsible for contraction of muscle.

Question 12.
The given diagram represents the human respiratory system. (2)

a. Identify the labels 1,2,3 and 4 marked in the diagram.
b. Name the structure which prevents the collapsing of trachea.
c. Why gaseous exchange continues in the lungs even after expiration?
Answer:
(a) In the given diagram, label 1, 2, 3 and 4 represents trachea, bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli respectively.
(b) Cartilaginous rings are the C-shaped structure which prevents the collapsing of trachea.
(c) Gaseous exchange continues in the lungs even after expiration because of the presence of residual volume.

Section – C
(5 Marks)

Question 13.
Cell division is the process in which division of nucleus and cytoplasms, occurs. The diagram below represents a stage during the cell division. Study the same and then answer the questions than follow:

(a) Name the parts labelled 1, 2 and 3.
(b) Identify the above stage and give a reason to support your answer.
(c) Mention where in the body this type of cell division occurs.
(d) Name the stage prior to this stage and draw a diagram to represent the same.
OR
Meiosis is the process in which a single cell divides twice to form four haploid daughter cells. The process is split into meiosis I and meiosis II, and both meiotic divisions have multiple phases. Meiosis I is a type of cell division unique to germ cells, while meiosis II is similar to mitosis. The diagram given below represents a certain phenomenon which occurs during meiosis.

(a) Name the above phenomenon. (1)
(b) Explain it with reference to homologous chromosomes, chromatids, and crossing-over. (4)
Answer:
(a)

• 1 – Centrioles.
• 2 – Spindle fibres
• 3 – Chromatids

(b) The stage described in the diagram is the late anaphase of mitosis in an animal cell. The stage can be identified by the presence of separated chromatids which are found at the two poles of the cell. The appearance of the furrow in the cell membrane classifies the stage as the late anaphase.

(c) The division shown in the diagram is mitotic division and this kind of cell division occurs in all the cells of the body except for the reproductive cells.

(d) The stage before anaphase is metaphase.

Commonly Made Error

• Students usually find it difficult to identify the correct stage in the process of cell division.

Answering Tip

• Lay emphasis on the diagrams and different stages of cell division. Understand the various changes that a cell undergoes before dividing.

OR

(a) The given phenomenon is the exchange of chromatids between homologous chromosomes called crossing-over. This is the process by which the two chromosomes of a homologous pair exchange equal segments with each other.

(b) Crossing over occurs in the first division of meiosis. At that stage, each chromosome has replicated into two strands called sister chromatids. The two homologous chromosomes of a pair, synapse or come together. While the chromosomes have synapsed, breaks occur at corresponding points in two of the non-sister chromatids, i.e., in one chromatid of each chromosome.

Since the chromosomes are homologous, breaks at corresponding points, means that the segments that are broken off contain corresponding genes, i.e., alleles. The broken sections are then exchanged between the chromosomes to form complete new units, and each new recombined chromosome of the pair can go to a different daughter sex cell.

It results in recombination of genes found on the same chromosome, called linked genes that would otherwise always be transmitted together.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper consists of two Parts – A and B. There are total 12 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Part – A consists of Accounting Process.
• Part – B consists of Financial Accounting and Computers in Accounts.
• Question Nos. 1 to 2 and 5 to 6 are short answer type questions – I carrying 2 Marks each.
• Question Nos. 3 and 7 to 9 are short answer type questions – II carrying 3 Marks each.
• Questions Nos. 4 and 10 to 12 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part-A (12 marks)
Accounting Process

Question 1.
Anisha sold goods worth ₹ 19,000 to Naina on March 2,2018. ₹ 4,000 were paid by Naina immediately and for the balance she accepted a bill of exchange drawn up on her by Anisha payable after three months. Anisha discounted the bill immediately with her bank @10% p.a. On the due date, Naina dishonoured the bill and the bank paid ₹ 30 as noting charges.
Calculate the following:
(i) Amount of discount charged.
(ii) Amount due from Naina [2]

Question 2.
The accountant of Sri Balaji Trader’s have made some errors in drafting the Trial Balance. Redraft the trial Balance.

Question 3.
Prepare a Trial Balance for Shyam Sundar and Sons from the following ledger accounts: (3)

Particulars	Amount (₹)
Cash A/c	64,750
Capital A/c	80,000
Purchases A/c	88,000
Machinery A/c	4,000
Dilip’s A/c	15,000
Purchases Return A/c	4,000
Discount Received	650
Sales A/c	73,400
Mahesh Chand & Sons A/c	10,400
Discount Allowed A/c	200
Rent	1,500
Commission Received	2,000
Drawings	6,200

OR
Give the rectifying Journal Entries in the books of Mehra & Company :
(i) Sale of old furniture worth ₹ 1,500 treated as sales of goods.
(ii) Sales Book added ₹ 2,500 short.
(iii) Total of Bills Receivable Book ₹ 2,700 left unposted.
(iv) Rent of Proprietor’s residence, ₹ 3,250 debited to Rent A/c.
(v) Payment of ₹ 800 to Rishabh posted to his credit as ₹ 8,000.
(vi) Goods worth ₹ 5,985 returned by Mishra posted to his debit as ₹ 5,895.

Question 4.
A is in need of funds to the extent of ₹ 1,000. He requests his friend B to help him. B is also in the need of funds. As per the arrangement between them, B accepts 30 days bill on Sept. 1, 2014, for ₹ 2,000. It is agreed that the proceeds of the bill will be shared between A and B equally. A discounts the bill for ₹ 1,980 and hands over half the proceeds to B. On the due date, A sends the remaining amount to B, who meets the bill. Pass the necessary journal entries in the books of A and B. [5]

Part-B (28 marks)
(Financial Accounting and Computer in Accounts)

Question 5.
Give the Journal entries for the following adjustments: [2]
(i) Outstanding salary ₹ 3,500.
(ii) Rent unpaid for one month at ₹ 6,000 per annum.

Question 6.
Opening Capital ₹ 70,000, Profit for the year ₹ 20,000, Drawings ₹ 7,000. During the year, proprietor sold ornaments of his wife for ₹ 20,000 and invested that amount in the business. Calculate the Closing Capital. [2]

Question 7.
Define the following terms: [3 × 1]
(a) Computer
(b) Accounting Information System
(c) Computerised Accounting System
OR
“Accounting Information System suffers from a lot of limitations even though it is categorised to be very efficient in accuracy, time saving, audit trails and prevention of fraud.” Comment. [3]

Question 8.
Manish Chand started a business with a capital of ₹ 80,000 and maintains his account on Single Entry System. Calculate his profit on 31st March, 2016 from the following information:

Liabilities and Assets	31st March, 2016 (₹)
Debtors	40,000
Creditors	30,000
Stock	30,000
Furniture	20,000
Bank Balance	35,000
Cash-in-hand	5,000

During the year, his drawings were ₹ 10,000 and additional capital invested ₹ 20,000.
OR
Mr. Kapil does not keep proper records of his business, he provided following information. You are required to prepare a statement showing the profit or loss for the year 2013-14.

	₹
Opening Capital (01-04-2013)	50,000
Closing Capital (31-03-2014)	1,00,000
Additional capital introduced (2013-14)	20,000
Drawings made during the year (2013-14)	40,000

Question 9.
Identify whether following receipts are capital or revenue. How will they be treated in final accounts:
(i) Sale proceeds of goods ₹20,000
(ii) Commencement of business with ₹ 60,000
(iii) Rent received from premises sublet ₹ 4,000
(iv) Profit on sale of land and building ₹ 5,000
(v) Amount received from sale of assets ₹ 80,000
(vi) Amount received from sale of scraps, i.e., newspapers, boxes, grass, bottles, etc ₹ 300

Question 10.
Mr. Girdhari Lai does not keep the double entry records. His balance as on January 01, 2013 is as follows:

His Balance on 31st Dec., 2013 is as follows:

Particulars	₹
Cash in hand	7,000
Stock	8,600
Debtors	23,800
Furniture	15,000
Plant	20,350
Bills Payable	20,200
Creditors	15,000

He withdrew ₹ 500 per month, out of which he spent ₹ 1,500 for business purpose. Prepare the statement of profit or loss. [5]

Question 11.
From the following balances extracted from the books of Raga Ltd. Prepare a trading and profit and loss account for the year ended March 31,2014 and a balance sheet as on that date.

The additional information is as under:
(i) Oosing stock was valued at the end of the year 20,000.
(ii) Depredation on plant and machinery charged at 5% and land and building at 10%.
(iii) Discount on debtors at 3%.
(iv) Make a provision at 5% on debtors for bad debts.
(v) Salary outstanding was ? 100 and wages prepaid was f 40.
(vi) The manager is entitled a commission of 5% on net profit after charging such commission. [5]
OR
Following is the trial balance of Mr. Deepak as on March 31,2014. You are required to prepare Trading Account, Profit and Loss Account and a Balance Sheet as on date : [5]

Closing Stock ₹ 35,000

Question 12.
State whether the following statements are true or false by giving reasons for the following: [5]
(a) Computer makes the work fast.
(b) Computer Accounting System enables the reports to be generated at ease.
(c) The computer cannot do multiple tasks at one time.
(d) Keyboard is an input device.
(e) The Memory unit is the part of the CPU,