Category: CBSE Sample Papers

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 9 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
• Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below:

In 3000 years of our history, people from all over the world have invaded us, captured our lands, conquered our minds. From Alexander onwards, The Greeks, the Turks, the Moguls, the Portuguese, the British, the French, the Dutch, all of them looted us, took over what was ours. Yet we have not done this to any other nation. Because we respect the freedom of others.

5. That is why my first vision is that of FREEDOM. I believe that India got its first vision of this in 1857, when we started the war of Independence. It is this freedom that we must protect and nurture and build on. If we are not free, no one will respect us.

10. My second vision for India is DEVELOPMENT, For fifty years we have been a developing nation. It is time we see ourselves as a developed nation. We are among top 5 nations of the world in terms of GDP. We have 10 percent growth rate in most areas. Our poverty levels are falling. Our achievements are being globally recognized today. Yet we lack the self-confidence to see ourselves as a developed nation, self-reliant and self-assured.

15.1 have a THIRD vision. India must stand up to the world. Because I believe that, unless India stands up to the world, no one will respect us. Only strength respects strength. We must be strong not only as a military power but also as an economic power. Both must go hand-in-hand.

20. What stops us? Why is the media here so negative? Why are we in India so embarrassed to recognize our own strengths, our achievements? We are such a great nation. We have so many amazing success stories but we refuse to acknowledge them. Why? We are the first in milk production, remote sensing satellites, the second-largest producer of wheat and rice.

25. Look at Dr. Sudarshan, he has transferred the tribal village into a self-sustaining, self-driving unit. There are millions of such achievements but our media is only obsessed in the bad news and failures and disasters.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8)

(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the writer’s opinion of India’s success in development is justified. (1)

(B) State any one trait of the writer that is evident from lines 15-25 and provide a reason for your choice. (1)

(C) The writer said that ‘only strength respects strength’. Why did he say so? 1

(D) Why does the writer say that media is obsessed with the nation’s failures? (1)

(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 1-5.

The way the singer won the attention of all the people in the concert was amazing. (1)

(F) What does the use of the phrase ‘why are we embarrassed’ suggest in the context of the writer’s opinion about the people of India? (1)

(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 15-25 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

I submitted the project after the deadline so the Principal it. (1)

(H) Why does the writer think that a nation needed to be free in order to be respected? (1)

(I) Analyse why many different countries had ruled us and won over us in the past. (1)
Answer:
(A) As per the passage, it is clearly given that Dr. Sudarshan has transferred the tribal village into a self-sustaining, self-driving unit. Clearly stating that Indian’s success in development is justified.

(B) In the given lines, the writer has come across as a person full of appreciation and positive. He is focusing on the great achievements of the nation rather than its failures.

(C) By this, the writer meant that a strong thing never respects a weak thing. So, in order to come across as a strong nation, India should first stand up as a strong nation.

(D) The writer says so because media mostly cover the stories where there are failures, bad news or disasters. It never focuses on the achievements of the nation.

(E) Conquered our minds

(F) The phrase suggests that the writer believes that the people of India lack confidence and trust in their own achievements.

(G) Refused to acknowledge.

(H) The writer thinks that a nation is needed to be free to be respected because freedom is the biggest power to own. If a nation is dependent on another nation to run, it will not be respected by any one.

(I) Many countries had ruled us and won over us in the past because we, as a nation, were very weak and uneducated. We had no idea how to utilize our powers.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below:
Autism Spectrum Disorders (ASD) are a range of psychological conditions characterized by abnormalities in social interaction, behaviour, interests, and communication. The five forms of ASD include Classical autism, Asperger

5. syndrome, Pervasive Developmental Disorder, Rett syndrome, and Childhood Disintegrative Disorder. Although the number of reported cases of ASD have experienced a dramatic increase in the past 25 years, the majority of doctors agree that this increase is due to changes in diagnostic practices and advances in the understanding of psychiatric health.

10. While there is no general consensus among medical professionals about the underlying causes of ASD, theories range from genetic inheritance to environmental factors. One of the most controversial theories to have emerged in recent times is the hypothesis that ASD could be caused by the MMR vaccine, which is an immunization against measles,

15. mumps, and rubella that was first developed in the 1960’s. The vaccine is a mixture of three live viruses and is administered via injection to children when they are one year old. By the late 1990’s, this vaccination had led to the near-eradication of measles in countries that employed widespread inoculation.

20. However, a combination of spurious scientific data and alarmist media attention led to an entirely preventable resurgence in measles cases in the early 21st century.

The first claims of a connection between the MMR vaccine and autism were made in 1998, when an article in The Lancet, a respected

25. British medical journal, reported on eight cases of autism that could possibly be traced back to the administration of an MMR vaccine. The parents of the children in this study contended that the symptoms of autism in their children developed within days of vaccination. During a press conference, Andrew Wakefield, one of the authors of the article,

30. called on British doctors to stop giving combined MMR vaccines, instead advocating for individual inoculations against measles, mumps, and rubella.

Following the publication of this article, Wakefield published several follow-up papers that further questioned the safety of the MMR.

35. vaccine. An onslaught of media coverage then began. Parents appeared on television sharing anecdotal evidence linking their child’s inoculation to the onset of ASD. The popular press quickly seized upon this story; in 2002, over 1200 articles were written about the link between MMR vaccines and ASD. Less than 30% of these article mentioned that an.

40. overwhelming amount of scientific evidence suggested that these vaccinations were completely safe.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the seven questions given below. (1 x 6)

(A) What does the researcher mean by “‘The popular press quickly seized upon this story.”? (1)

(B) Why, according to the doctors, the number of reported cases of ASD have experienced a dramatic increase in the past 25 years? (1)

(C) With reference to factual data, write any one symptom of ASD. (1)

(D) What was the purpose of parents appearing on the television sharing anecdotal evidences? (1)

(E) The story of MMR vaccines and ASD relation got attention proving the power of media. Substantiate. (1)

(F) What suggests that the safety of the vaccines had no great evidence as such? (1)

(G) Identify a word from lines 9-18 indicating a developmental disorder of variable severity with difficulty in social interaction. (1)
Answer:
(A) It is clear through the passage that as the story of the link between the MMR vaccine and ASD got attention, the press started covering all aspects of it. The famous media publishers covered the story in all aspects.

(B) It is given in the passage that according to the medical professionals, the numbers of reported cases of ASD have experienced a dramatic increase in the past 25 years because of the changes in diagnostic practices and advances in the understanding of psychiatric health.

(C) As per the given data, abnormalities in social interaction is one of the symptoms of ASD.

(D) It is given in the passage that after the first claim of the link between the connection between the MMR vaccine and autism, appeared on television sharing anecdotal evidence linking their child’s inoculation to the onset of ASD.

(E) It was due to the extreme press coverage and articles in media that the story got so much of attention. Media covered it in all aspects.

(F) As per the passage, only 30% of the published articles had an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence that suggested that these vaccinations were completely safe whereas this means that 70% supported the claim of vaccines being, unsafe.

(G) Autism.

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
Your school., St. Lo Mart, Chandigarh is organizing its 34th AnnuaL Sports Day in the schooL pLayground. Draft a formaL invitation to invite the Mayor of the city to be the Chief Guest for the event. (3)
Answer:

St. La Mart Chandigarh 28th August 20XX Mr Harsh Shah Mayor ChandigarhSubject: Invitation to be the Chief Guest for the Annual Sports DayRespected Sir, We are delighted to inform you that our school St. La Mart is hosting its 34th Annual Sports Day on Tuesday, 4™ of September 20XX in the School Playground. We would like to invite you to grace the occasion as the Chief Guest to honour the prizes to the winners. Yours faithfully The Principal St. La Mart

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.

(A) You are Renuka Awasthi, a resident of 12/23, Hari Singh Road, Mohali. You have read the advertisement given below. You are qualified for the job. Write an application in 120-150 words along with a resume.

PL Cosmetics, Mohali requires Accounts Officers Qualification: M. Com (Accounts & Law) Experience: Minimum 5 years Job requirement: Maintaining books of accounts, preparation of Balance Sheet, etc. Salary: 50,000 + perks Apply to: Managing Director, PL Cosmetics, Plot. 2, New Jaspreet Colony, Mohali Contact: 9897xxxxxxx

OR

(B) A super specialty COVID hospital was inaugurated in the city by the Health Minister. As a reporter from ‘The Tribune’, write a report in about 120-150 words on the same to be published in the newspaper, covering all the details like 120-bed hospital, fully equipped, life support ambulances, big expenditure.
Answer:
12/23, Hari Singh Road
Mohali
15th November, 20XX
The Managing Director
PL Cosmetics
Plot. 2, New Jaspreet Colong
Mohali

Subject: Application for the post of Accounts offcer.

Sir/ma’am,
This is with reference to your advertisement published in The National Times, dated 12th November, 20XX, that announced the vacancy for the post of Accounts officer in your company. I would like to apply for the same.

I hold a masters degree in Accounts and I am skilled at managing the balance sheet and book-keeping. I have five years experience of being an Accounts Manager in The Tree Club LLP. I am enclosing my Bio-Data to enable you to assess my suitability for the given post. Looking forward to a positive response!

Thanking you
Yours sincerely,
Renuka Awasthi
Incl: Bio-data

Bio-Data

Name : Renuka Awasthi
Father’s Name : Mandeep Awasthi
Date of Birth : 25th May 20XX
Address : 12/23, Hari Singh Road, Mohali
Educational Qualification : (i) M. Com (Accounts & Law) from LPU, Mohali.
(ii) Diploma in Book-Keeping from HT Institute, Mohali
Experience : Accounts Manager in The Tree Club LLP., Delhi for five years
SaLary Expected : Negotiable
References :

• Mrs. Simrandeep Kaur, H.O.D (Accounts) LPU, Mohali, 9123xxxxxx
• Mr Pawandeep Oberoi, Accountant, The Tree Club LLP, Mohali, 9897xxxxxx

OR

Super Specialty COVID Hospital Inaugurated by Smita Patel, Staff Reporter, The Tribune

Agra, 8th June 20XX: ’Manvi’ a super specialty COVID hospital was inaugurated by the Health Minister of the State in the city of Taj on Wednesday, 7th June, 20XX. The 120-bed hospital is fully equipped with advanced life- support ambulances that have been made available round the clock. The hospital has an in-house oxygen bank which is the need of the hour in the current pandemic situations. The ratio of the doctor to its patients is 3:1.

The total expenditure in building the hospital is said to be three crore rupees. Addressing the people, Dr. Paritosh Singhal, the Medical Superintendent, reinforced the need for dedicated and committed staff. He sincerely hoped that the hospital would provide the best COVID care services to the people at a nominal cost.

Section – C
Literature (18 Marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, within 40 words each. (2 x 5)

(A) State the incident that shows the servants demeaned Gandhiji at Rajendra Prasad’s house. (2)
(B) State why the peddler derived pleasure from his idea of the world as a rattrap. You may begin your answer like this:

As the peddler was a destitute rattrap seller, the world had never. (2)

(C) A beautiful thing gives us joy. Are these things worth treasuring or are they momentary? Rationalize. (2)

(D) Give an example which could be used to say that Aunt Jennifer had a mental trauma by her husband. (2)

(E) Mr. Lamb told Derry the story of a man who hid himself in his room. Why did the man do so and with what result? (2)

(F) Validate the ‘new phase’ that had come in Jo’s behaviour. (2)
Answer:
(A) The servants at Rajendra Prasad’s house mistook Gandhiji to be one of the poor sharecroppers as he was wearing simple clothes. So, the servants did not permit Gandhiji to draw water from the well lest he is an untouchable and some drops of water from his bucket pollute the entire source.

(B) As the peddler was a destitute rattrap seller, the world had never been kind to him, so it gave him an unexplainable joy to think ill of it by considering it as a rattrap. It became his cherished pastime to think about the people he knew who had let themselves caught up in the dangerous trap and of others who were still circling around the bait in the rattrap of this world.

(C) A beautiful thing gives us unending joy and pleasure. These things are worth treasuring because they leave an everlasting happy impression on our minds that help us come out of the gloom and melancholy of our depressive lives.

(D) In the poem, Aunt Jennifer finds it so hard to pull the ivory needle through the panel on which she is embroidering the tigers because of her nervousness and anxiety. Her hands are shaking and fingers are fluttering while doing so. This signifies that Aunt Jennifer is under a mental trauma given by her husband.

(E) Mr. Lamb told Derry the incident of a timid man who hid himself in his room and refused to come out as he didn’t want to face any fatal accident because of which he could die. But, in the end, he died inside his room because a picture hanging on the wall fell on his head and killed him.

(F) Earlier, Jo was a passive listener but now she had become quite inquisitive. She was no more an opinionless listener. She would have her own perceptions about things. Her right-to-the-point questions would put Jack in an awkward situation.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)

(A) Towards the end of the poem ‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’, we see two different sides of endings for tigers and the Aunt. Compare and contrast the stark difference in the death of Aunt Jennifer and the tigers prancing on the panel. (4)

(B) The story, ‘The Rattrap’ is both entertaining and philosophical. Resonate the given statement with a rationale. Examine the rattrap in the light of this statement. (4)

(C) How does the story, ‘Should Wizard Hit Mommy’ bear testimony to the fact that the frustrations faced by adults and their personal experiences often intrude upon their interaction with their children? Substantiate with reference to text. (4)
Answer:
(A) There is a huge difference in the way the poem ends for both the tigers and Aunt Jennifer. In the Aunt’s case, when she dies, she is still burdened with the responsibilities of her domestic life and her husband in the form of the wedding ring that surrounds her finger. The aunt dies with the burning desire in her heart to be independent, strong and fearless but these desires are left unfulfilled. She will never be able to get rid of her oppression and her responsibilities, even after her death.

On the other hand, the tigers are shown in the same way throughout the poem and that is – fierce and fearless. They are the kings of the wild world and are never afraid of anything. They roam around the forest with all their might and courage. When aunt dies, her tigers go on prancing in the forest with the same strength and fearlessness forever.

(B) The story, The Rattrap’ is indeed, both entertaining and philosophical. It revolves around a petty rattrap seller who couldn’t survive in his minimal living. Hence, he also steals money to make it up. The retired crofter’s warm and welcoming nature is a treat to read. The way he shares his secrets and treats the peddler as his old friend is lovely. The twist of the ironmaster mistaking the peddler as his old comrade is both funny and interesting. The kind generosity of his daughter Edla towards the peddler is also amazing.

However, the story too bears a philosophical meaning. It teaches us that the company of a loving person or a family member is so important for human beings to live a happy and a healthy life. All the characters display complete isolation from humanly love and warmth, that is why they end up having troubles. Finally, peddler changing his ways and thinking for the world due to Edla’s respect and love towards him is a proof that love and compassion can change a person completely.

(C) It is true that frustrations faced by adults and their personal experiences often intrude upon their interactions with their children. We can see this in the story ‘Should Wizard hit Mommy?’ that when Jo was not ready to accept Jack’s ending of the story, she started interrupting and asking questions that irritated Jack. As a father himself, he couldn’t agree to what Jo was asking him to do with the story. Jo felt that the wizard should hit Mommy Skunk back as revenge. But Jack was frustrated as Mommy Skunk was a ‘mother’ and a mother could not be beaten for thinking good of her child.

Also, we noticed that Jack pondered over while telling Jo about Skunk’s bullying by his friends. He looked despaired. This shows that may be he himself faced some sort of bully in his childhood and his mother would have done the exact same thing that the Mommy Skunk did for her child. So, Jack might be recalling his own incidents while narrating the story and that is why he was getting frustrated on Jo for interrupting him continuously.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Maximum Marks : 40
Time : 2 Hours

Instructions:

• The question paper is divided into 3 sections-A, B and C
• Section A comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in two questions.
• Section B comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in one question.
• Section C comprises of 4 questions. It contains one case study based question. Internal choice has been provided in one question.

Section – A [12 Marks]

Question 1.
Evaluate ∫\(\frac{(2 x-5) e^{2 x}}{(2 x-3)^{3}}\) dx
Or
Evaluate ∫\(\frac{\left(x^{3}+8\right)(x-1)}{x^{2}-2 x+4}\) dx
Answer:

Question 2.
A random sample of 12 families in one city showed an average weekly food expenditure of ₹ 1380 with a standard deviation of ₹ 100 and a random sample of 15 families in another city showed an average weekly food expenditure of ₹ 1320 with a standard deviation of ₹ 120. Test, whether the difference between the two means is significant at a level of significance of 0.01.
Or
A population consisting of 6 units 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 9. Find 95% confidence interval for estimating the population mean.
Answer:
Given, n₁ = 12, n₂ = 15, x̄₁ = 1380, x̄₂ = 1320, s₁ = ₹ 100 and s₂ = ₹ 120

Consider, the null hypothesis that there is no significant difference in the mean expenditure of the families in the two cities.
We know that test statistics

Here, degree of freedom v =12 +15 – 2 = 25 From v = 25, test statistics, t_0.01 = 2.485. Here, the calculated value t is less than the table value. Therefore, the null hypothesis is accepted. Hence, the difference between the two means is not significant.
Or
Mean, x̄ = \(\frac{24}{6}\) = 4
Now, S² = \(\frac{1}{n – 1}\)Σ(x_i – x̄)²
= \(\frac{1}{5}\)[(-3)² + (-2)² + (-1)² + 0² + (1)² + (5)²]
= \(\frac{1}{5}\) [9 + 4 + 1 + 1 + 25] = \(\frac{1}{5}\) × 40 = 8
∴S = √8 = 2√1
∴ Point estimate for a is 2√2.
∴ 95% confidence interval is

Question 3.
A man borrows ₹ 30000 at 12% per annum compound interest from a bank and promises to pay off the loans in 20 annual installments beginning at the end of first year. What is the annual payment necessary? [given (1.12)²⁰ = 9.638]
Answer:
Let ₹ R be the annual payment and ₹ P be the present worth.
Given, P = ₹ 30000, i = \(\frac{12}{100}\) = 0.12 and n = 20

We know that,

Hence, the annual payment should be ₹ 4016.76.

Question 4.
Construct 4-yearly moving averages from the following data

Answer:
Computation of 4-yearly moving averages

Question 5.
The value of a machine purchased 2 yr ago, depreciates at the annual rate of 8%. If its present value is ₹ 85100, find its value, when it was purchased.
Answer:
∴ Present value = Value of 2 yr ago × (1 – i)²
⇒ 85100 = Value of 2 yr ago (1 – 0.08 )²
⇒ 85100 = Value of 2 yr ago × (0.92 )²
⇒ Value of 2 yr ago = \(\frac{85100}{(0.92)^{2}}=\frac{85100}{0.8464}\)
= ₹ 100543.4783

Question 6.
Two tailors A and B, earn ₹ 300 and ₹ 400 per day respectively. A can stitch 6 shirts and 4 pairs of trousers while B can stitch 10 shirts and 4 pairs of trousers per day. To find how many days should each of them work and if it is desired to produce at least 60 shirts and 32 pairs of trousers at a minimum labour cost, formulate this as an LPP.
Answer:
The given data can be summarised as follows:

Let tailor A and tailor B works for x days and y days, respectively.
Then, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
∵ Minimum number of shirts = 60
∴ 6x + 10y ≥60 => 3x + 5y ≥ 30

Minimum number of trousers = 32
∴ 4x + 4y ≥ 32
⇒ x + y ≥ 8

Let Z be the total labour cost.
Then, Z = 300x + 400y
So, the given LPP reduces to Z = 300x + 400y
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, 3x + 5y ≥ 30 and x + y ≥ 8

Section – B [12 Marks]

Question 7.
If the marginal revenue functions of a commodity is MR = 9 – 6x² + 2x, find the total revenue and the corresponding demand functions.
Or
The marginal cost of a product is a constant multiple of number of units (x) produced. Find the total cost and the average cost function, if the fixed costs is ₹ 2000 and cost of producing 20 units is ₹ 3000.
Answer:
We have, MR = 9 – 6x² + 2x
∴ \(\frac{d R}{d x}\) = MR
dR = MRdx
⇒ ∫dR = ∫MRdx [integrating both sides]
⇒ ∫dR = ∫(9 – 6x² + 2x)dx
⇒ R = 9x – 2x³ + x² + K ………..(i)

When, x = 0, we have R = 0, then K = 0
∵ R = 9x – 2x³ + x² [from Eq. (i)]
If p is the price per emit when x units are sold, then
⇒ p = \(\frac{R}{x}\)
⇒ p = \(\frac{9 x-2 x^{3}+x^{2}}{x}\)
p = 9 – 2x² + x
Hence, demand functions is p = 9 – 2x² + x.
Or
Let MC = kx, where k is a constant.
We know that,
dC = (MC)dx
∫ dC = ∫(kx)dx
⇒ ∫dC = ∫(kx)dx [integrating both sides]
C = k ∫xdx = k\(\frac{x^{2}}{2}\) + k

where, k is a constant of integration.
Since, C = 2000, when x = 0
∴ k = 2000
Also, given that, C = 3000, when x = 20
3000 = k\(\frac{400}{2}\) + 2000
⇒ 200k = 1000 ⇒ k = 5
Thus, C = \(\frac{5 x^{2}}{2}\) + 2000 and AC = \(\frac{5 x}{2}+\frac{2000}{x}\) [∵AC = \(\frac{C}{x}\)]

Question 8.
Samples of sales in similar shops in towns A and B regarding a new product yielded the following information.

Is there any evidence of difference in sales in the two towns? [given t₁₈ (0.05) = 2.10]
Answer:
Consider, null hypothesis H₀ : There is no significant difference in sales in similar shops in towns A and B, and alternate hypothesis H₁ : Sales in similar shops in towns A and B are not same.

Test statistics
t = \(\frac{\bar{x}_{1}-\bar{x}_{2}}{S} \times \sqrt{\frac{n_{1} n_{2}}{n_{1}+n_{2}}}\)
where S = \(\frac{n_{1} s_{1}^{2}+n_{2} s_{2}^{2}}{n_{1}+n_{2}-2}\)

Given, n₁ = 11, x̄ = 3.45, Σx_i = 38, Σx_i² = 228
n₂ = 11, ȳ = 4.44, Σy_i = 40, Σy_i² = 222

Here, degree of freedom,
v = n₁ + n₂ – 2 = 11 + 9 – 2 = 18

Since, calculated value of t(- 0.784) is less than tabulated value of t[t₁₈(0.05) = 2.10], therefore the null hypothesis is accepted a 5% level of significance. Hence, there is no difference is sales in two towns.

Question 9.
A firm sets aside a sum of ₹ 10000 annually for 15 yr to pay-off a debenture issue of ₹ 220000. If the fund accumulates at 6% per annum, find the surplus after the full redemption of the debenture issue, [given (1.06)¹⁵ = 2.3965]
Answer:
Given, payment(R)= 10000
Number of periods(n) =15
Rate of interest (i) =6% = 0.06

∴ The surplus = ₹(23.275 – 220000) = ₹ 12750

Question 10.
Fit a straight line trend by the method of least squares to the following data on sales (₹ in lakh) for the period 2005-2012.

Also,
(i) calculate the trend values from 2005 to 2012.
(ii) what will be predicted sales for 2015, assuming that the same rate of change continues?
Answer:
Here, n = 8(even)
So, origin is mean of two middle years
i.e. \(\frac{2008+2009}{2}\) = 2008.5

Since, Σx = 0,
a = \(\frac{\Sigma y}{n}=\frac{1052}{8}\) = 131.5 and
b = \(\frac{\Sigma x y}{\Sigma x^{2}}=\frac{1232}{168}\) = 7.333
Hence, y_t = 131.5 + 7.333x
For the year 2015, x would be 13, therefore
y₂₀₁₅ =131.5+7.333(13)
= 131.5 + 95.329 = 226.829 = ₹ 226.829

Section – C [16 Marks]

Question 11.
Amit has taken a loan of ₹ 1000000 with interest rate 11% per annum for the period of 15 yr. Calculate (reducing) EMI for the above data, [given (1.0091)¹⁸⁰ = 5.1068]
Answer:
We have, loan amount(P) = ₹ 1000000
Interest rate = 11% (per annum)
∴ Monthly Interest Rate
i = \(\frac{11 \%}{12 \text { months }}\)
= \(\frac{0.11}{12}\) = 0.0091

Loan period (n) =15 yr
=15 × 12 = 180 months

Hence, EMI is ₹ 11314.94 (approximately).

Question 12.
A bond has a face value of ₹ 10000 and matures in 15 yr at par. The nominal interest is 7%. What is the price of bond that will yield on effective interest of 8%. [given, (1.08)^-15 = 0.3152]
Answer:
We have,
F= Face value = ₹ 10000
n = Number of periods = 15
I = Annual yield rate = = 008
R = Annual dividend = ₹ (7 × 1oooo) = ₹ 700
C = Maturity value = Face value = ₹ 10000

Let V be the purchase price of the bond, then
V= R\(\left(\frac{1-(1+i)^{-n}}{i}\right)\) + C(1+ i)^-n
V=700\(\left(\frac{1-(1+0.08)^{-15}}{0.08}\right)\) + 10000(1 + 0.08)^-15
V = \(\frac{700}{0.08}\)(1 – (108)^-15) + 10000 (1.08)^-15
V = \(\frac{70000}{8}\)(1 – 0.3152) + 10000(0.3152)
⇒ V = \(\frac{70000}{8}\)(0.6848) + 3152
V = 5992 + 3152 = 9114
Hence, the purchase price of bond is ₹ 9144

Question 13.
A decorative item dealer deals in two items A and B. He has ₹ 15000 to invest and a space to store at the most 80 pieces. Item A costs him ₹ 300 and item B costs him ₹ 150. He can sell items A and B at respective, profits of ₹ 50 and ₹ 28. Assuming, he can sell all he buys, formulate the linear programming problem in order to maximise his profit and solve it graphically.
Or
An aeroplane can carry a maximum of 200 passengers. A profit of ₹ m is made on each executive class ticket and a profit of ₹ n is made on each economy class ticket, where m and nare obtained on multiplying first term and common ratio by 100 of the geometric series 10,60,360,… times. The airline reserves atleast 20 seats for executive class. However, atleast 4 times as many passengers prefer to travel by economy class than by the executive class. Determine, how many tickets of each type must be sold in order to maximise the profit for the airline. What is the maximum profit?
Answer:
Let the number of items of the type A and Bbe x and y, respectively. Then, the required LPP is Maximise Z = 50x + 28 y Subject to the constraints,
x + y ≤ 80, 300x + 150y ≤ 15000
or
2x + y ≤ 100 and x, y ≥ 0

Let us consider the inequalities as equations, we get
x + y = 80 ……(i)
2x + y = 100 ……..(ii)

Table for line x + y = 80 is:

x	0	80
y	80	0

So, it passes through the points (0, 80) and (80, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + y ≤ 80, we get
0+0 ≤ 80
⇒ 0 ≤ 80 (which is true)
So, the half plane is towards the origin.

Table for line 2x + y = 100

x	0	50
y	100	0

So, it passes through the points (0,100) and (50, 0)
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 2x + y ≤ 100,

we get
2 (0) + 0 ≤ 100
⇒ 0 ≤ 100 (which is true)

So, the half plane is towards the origin.
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
x = 20 and y = 60

So, the point of intersection is (20, 60).

The feasible region is OBPC whose comer points are 0(0,0), B(50,0), P(20,60) and C(0, 80).

Corner Points	Value of Z = 50x + 28y
0(0,0)	0
C (0,80)	2240
P(20, 60)	2680 (Maximum)
B (50, 0)	2500

From the above table, the maximum value of Z is 2680 at P(20, 60), i.e. when 20 items of type A and 60 items of type B are purchased and sold. He get maximum profit.
Or
Given geometric series is 10, 60, 360,…
Here, first term (a) = 10 and common ratio
r = \(\frac{60}{10}\) = 6

According to the given condition,
m = a × 100 and n = r × 100
∴ m = 10 × 100 and n = 6 × 100
⇒ m = 1000 and n = 600

Let x passengers travel by executive class and y passengers travel by economy class.
We construct the following table:

Class	Number of tickets	Porfit (in ₹)
Executive	x	1000x
Economy	y	600y
Total	x + y	1000x + 600y

So, our problem is to maximise
Z = 1000x + 600y …(i)
subject to constraints
x + y ≤ 200 …(ii)
x ≥ 20 …(iii)
y – 4x ≥ 0 or y ≥ 4x …(iv)
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 …(v)

Table for line x + y = 200 is

x	0	200
y	200	0

So, line passes through the points (0,200) and (200,0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + y < 200, we get 0 + 0 ≤ 200 ⇒0 ≤ 200, which is true.

So, the half plane is towards the origin. Table for line y = Ax is

x	0	20
y	0	80

So, line passes through the points (0,0) and (20,80). On putting (10, 0) in the inequality y > Ax, we get
0 ≥ 4 × 10 ⇒ 0 ≥ 40, which is not true.
So, the half plane is towards Y-axis.

Now, draw the graph of the line x = 20.
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x ≥ 20, we get
0 ≥ 20, which is not true.

So, the half plane is away from the origin. Also, x,y ≥ 0, so the region lies in the I quadrant.
On solving Eqs. (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get A(20,80), B(40,160) and C (20,180).

∴ Feasible region is ABC A

The comer points of the feasible region are A(20,80), B(40,160) and C(20,180).

The value of Z at the comer points are given below:

Corner points	Value of Z = 1000x + 600y
A(20, 80)	Z = 1000 x 20 + 600 x 80 = 68000
B(40,160)	Z = 1000 x 40 + 600×160 = 136000(Maximum)
C(20,180)	Z = 1000 x 20 + 600×180 = 128000

Thus, the maximum value of Z is 136000 at B(40,160).
Thus, 40 tickets of executive class and 160 tickets of economy class should be sold to maximise the profit and the maximum profit is ₹ 136000.

Case Based/Data Based

Question 14.
The order of a differential equation is the order of the highest order derivative appearing in the equation and the power of the highest order derivative is a degree.
On the basis of above information, answer the following questions.
(i) Find the order of the differential equation
\(\left(\frac{d^{3} y}{d x^{3}}\right)^{3}\) + 5\(\left(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right)^{5}\) – 5y = 0
Answer:
Given, differential equation is
\(\left(\frac{d^{3} y}{d x^{3}}\right)^{3}\) + 5\(\left(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right)^{5}\) – 5y = 0
Clearly, the highest order derivative present in the given differential equation is 3.

(ii) Find the sum of the order and degree of the differential equation
\(\sqrt[4]{\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}}=\sqrt{3 \frac{d y}{d x}}\)
Answer:
Given, a differential equation is

Here, the highest order derivative present in the given differential equation is 2, whose degree is 1.
∴ Required sum of order and degree = 2 + 1 = 3

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Standard Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This question paper comprises two Parts – A and B. There are 12 questions in the question paper. Alt1 questions are compulsory.
• Part-A is compulsory for all candidates.
• Part-B has two options i.e., (i) Analysis of Financial Statements and (ii) Computerized Accounting. Students must attempt only one. of the given options.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

PART-A
(Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organisations, Partnership Firms and Companies)

Question 1.
From the following information, calculate the amount of subscriptions received by Happy Sports Club during the year ended 31^st March, 2020.

Particulars	2018-19 (₹)	2019-20 (₹)
Advance subscription	6,000	9,000
Outstanding subscription	9,000	12,000

The Club has 2,000 members each paying an annual subscription of ₹ 1,000. (2)
Answer:

Question 2.
State the difference between ‘Firm’s Debts’ and ‘Private Debts’ on the basis of:
(A) Liability
(B) Application of firm’s property (2)
Answer:
Difference between Dissolution of Partnership and Dissolution of Partnership Firm

Basis of Difference	Firm’s Debts	Private Debts
(A) Liability	All the partners are jointly or individually liable for repayment of liability.	The liability of repayment lies with the partner from his personal assets.
(B) Application of firm’s property	The firm’s property is first applied for settling the firm’s debts.	Concerned partner’s share in the distributable profit is used for private debts.

Question 3.
In a partnership firm Sushi Limited, Suman, Sunita and Shivani were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. Shivani retires from the firm and her capital after making the necessary adjustments was ₹ 10,00,000. It was decided that Shivani be paid ₹ 11,20,000 in full settlement of her claim.

Record the necessary journal entry in the books of Sushi Limited and also show your workings clearly. (2)
Answer:

Working Notes:
(1) Calculation of Profit Sharing Ratio:
Old Profit Sharing Ratio of Suman, Sunita and Shivani = 3 : 2 : 1
New Profit Sharing Ratio and Gaining Ratio of Suman and Sunita will be 3 : 2, as no information provided of future profit sharing ratio between Suman and Sunita.

(2) Calculation of Shivani’s Share of Goodwill:
Shivani’s Share of Goodwill = Amount Paid – Shivani’s Capital after Adjustments
= ₹ 11,20,000 – ₹ 10,00,000
= ₹ 1,20,000
which will be compensated by Suman and Sunita in their Gaining Ratio, i.e., 3 : 2.
Suman will compensate = ₹ 1,20,000 × \(\frac{3}{5}\) = ₹ 72,000
Sunita will compensate = ₹ 1,20,000 × \(\frac{2}{5}\) = ₹ 48,000

Question 4.
Extract of Receipts and Payments Account for the year ended 31^st March, 2020 of Rajdhani Club are given below:

Additional Information:
(i) The Club has 500 members each paying ₹ 800 as annual subscription.
(ii) Subscription outstanding as on 31^st March, 2019 were ₹ 32,000.
Calculate the amount of subscriptions to be shown as income in the Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31^st March, 2020 and show the relevant data in the Balance Sheet of the Club as at 31^st March, 2020.
OR
How the following items for the year ended 31^st March, 2021 will be presented in the financial statements of Feather Club:

Receipts	Debit Amount (₹)	Credit Amount  (₹)
Tournament Fund	–	3,00,000
Tournament Fund Investments	3,00,000	–
Income from Tournament Fund Investments	–	36,000
Tournament Expenses	24,000	–

Additional Information:
Interest Accrued on Tournament Fund Investments ₹ 12,000. (3)
Answer:

Working Notes:
(1) Total members are 500, each paying an annual subscription of ₹ 800
Hence, total subscription receivable during the year 2019-20 (500 × ₹ 800) ₹ 4,00,000
Less: Amount of subscription received during the year for 2019-20 ₹ 3,72,000
Outstanding subscription for the year 2019-20 ₹ 28,000

(2) The outstanding subscription for 2018-19 is ₹ 32,000 out of which ₹ 12,000 has been received. Hence the balance of ₹ 20,000 (₹ 32,000 – ₹ 12,000) is still in arrear for 2018-19. It will be shown in the Balance Sheet on 31st March, 2020 on assets side.
OR

Question 5.
In a partnership firm ‘Lakshya Limited’, Lalit, Krishna and Gagandeep were partners with capitals of ₹ 12,00,000, ₹ 8,00,000 and ₹ 4,00,000 respectively. They shared profits and losses of the firm in the ratio of their capitals.

On 31^st May, 2021 Gagandeep died, and the firm closes its books of accounts on 31^st March every year. According to their partnership deed, Gagandeep’s representatives would be entitled to get share in the interim profits of the firm on the basis of sales. Sales and profit for the year 2020-21 amounted to ₹ 32,00,000 and ₹ 9,60,000 respectively and sales from 1st April, 2021 to 31st May 2021 amounted to ₹ 6,00,000. The rate of profit to sales remained constant during these two years. You are required to:
(A) Calculate Gagandeep’s share in profit.
(B) Pass journal entry to record Gagandeep’s share in profit. (3)
Answer:
(A) Sales for the year 2020-21 = ₹ 32,00,000
Profit for the year 2020-21 = ₹ 9,60,000
Sales from 1^st April, 2021 to 31^st May 2021 = ₹ 6,00,000
Ratio of Profit to Sales = \(\frac{9,60,000}{32,00,000}\) × 100 = 30%
Profit upto Gagandeep’s date of death = ₹ 6,00,000 × 30% = ₹ 1,80,000
Gagandeep’s Share of Profit upto his date of death = ₹ 1,80,000 × \(\frac{1}{6}\) = ₹ 30,000

Question 6.
On 1^st April, 2021, Karishma Limited issued 16,000, 7% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 5%, redeemable after six years.
The amount per debenture was payable as follows:
On Application – ₹ 80 per debenture
On Allotment – Balance amount
The debentures were fully subscribed and all money was duly received.
Pass necessary journal entries for the issue of debentures.
OR
On 1^st April, 2021, Sharma & Verma Limited took a loan of ₹ 50,00,000 from Canara Bank giving ₹ 60,00,000; 12% Debentures as collateral security.
Pass journal entries in the books of the company regarding issue of debentures, if any, and show this loan in the Balance Sheet of the company as at 31^st March, 2022. (3)
Answer:

OR


Notes to Accounts:

Question 7.
R, S and T were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2 respectively. On 31^st March, 2018, their Balance Sheet stood as:

T died on 1st August, 2018. It was agreed that:
(i) Goodwill be valued at two and a half years’ purchase of average of last four years’ profits which were:
2014-15 : ₹ 65,000; 2015-16 : ₹ 60,000; 2016-17 : ₹ 80,000 and 2017-18 : ₹ 75,000.

(ii) Machinery be valued at ₹ 1,40,000; Patents be valued at ₹ 40,000; Leasehold be valued at ₹ 1,25,000 on 1st August, 2018.

(iii) For the purpose of calculating T’s share in the profits of 2018-19, the profits in 2018-19 should be taken to have accrued on the same scale as in 2017-18.

(iv) A sum of ₹ 21,000 to be paid immediately to the Executors of T and the balance to be paid in four equal half-yearly instalments together with interest @ 10% p.a.
Prepare T’s Executors’ Account.
OR
Aloknath and Bipinchand were partners in AB Traders Limited sharing profits equally. They dissolved the firm on 1^st April, 2021. Bipinchand was assigned the responsibility to realise the assets and pay the liabilities at a remuneration of ₹ 10,000 including expenses. Balance Sheet of the firm as on that date was as follows:

The firm was dissolved on following terms:
(i) Aloknath was to pay his wife’s loan.
(ii) Debtors realised ₹ 30,000.
(iii) Bipinchand was to take investments at an agreed value of ₹ 26,000.
(iv) Creditors and Bills Payable were payable after two months but were paid immediately at a discount of 15% p.a.
(v) Bills Receivable were received allowing 5% rebate.
(vi) A Debtor previously written off as Bad Debt paid ₹ 15,000.
(vii) An unrecorded asset realised ₹ 10,000.
Prepare Realisation Account and Partners’ Capital Account at the time of dissolution of AB Traders Limited. (5)
Answer:

Working Notes:
(1) Calculation of goodwill:
Goodwill = Average Profit × Number of Year’s Purchase

Average Profit = \(\frac{65,000+60,000+80,000+75,000}{4}\)
= \(\frac{2,80,000}{4}\) = ₹ 70,000
Goodwill of Firm = Average Profit × Number of Year’s Purchase
= ₹ 70,000 × 2.5
= ₹ 1,75,000

(2) Calculation of Profit Sharing Ratio:
Old Profit Sharing Ratio of R, S and T = 5 : 3 : 2
T died.
> New Profit Sharing Ratio of R and S = 5 : 3 and
Gaining Ratio of R and S = 5 : 3

(3) Adjustment of Goodwill:
T’s Share in Goodwill = ₹ 1,75,000 × \(\frac{2}{10}\) = ₹ 35,000
This share of goodwill will be compensated by R and S in their gaining ratio, i.e., 5 : 3.
R will compensate = 35,000 × \(\frac{5}{8}\) = ₹ 21,875
S will compensate = 35,000 × \(\frac{3}{8}\) = ₹ 13,125

(4) Calculation of T’s Share of Profit upto his date of his death:
Profit of Firm for 2017-18 = ₹ 75,000
T’s Share of Profit upto his date of his death = ₹ 75,000 × \(\frac{2}{10} \times \frac{4}{12}\) = ₹ 5,000

(5)

(6)

Working Notes:
(1) Calculation of Amount Paid to Creditors:
Amount Paid to Creditors = [₹ 40,000 – (₹ 40,000 × \(\frac{15}{100} \times \frac{2}{12}\))]
= ₹ 40,000 – ₹ 1,000 = ₹ 39,000

(2) Calculation of Amount Paid to Bills Payable:
Amount Paid to Bills Payable = [₹40,000 – (₹ 40,000 × \(\frac{15}{100} \times \frac{2}{12}\))]
= ₹ 40,000 – ₹ 1,000
= ₹ 39,000

Question 8.
Tetra Packers Limited, a packers and movers company has an equity share capital of ₹ 60,00,000. The company needed funds for diversification. The finance manager of the company had the following two options:

Option 1: Issue ₹ 30,00,000,10% Debentures of ₹ 100 each to the public at 5% discount, redeemable at a premium of 10% after six years.
Option 2: Borrow ₹ 30,00,000 @ 15% p.a. from the bank payable in four equal quarterly instalments starting from the end of the fourth year.

After all the discussions, on 1st April, 2021, the board of directors of the company opted for Option 1, to increase the return to the shareholders. The Balance Sheet of the company on 1^st April, 2021 shows a balance of ₹ 3,50,000 in Securities Premium Reserve which the company decided to use for writing off the loss on issue of debentures.
You are required to answer the following questions:
(A) Calculate the number of debentures issued to the public.
(B) Pass journal entry for receipt of application money of debentures.
(C) Pass journal entry to be passed at the time of allotment of debentures.
(D) Pass journal entry to write off loss on issue of debentures.
(E) Prepare Loss on Issue of Debentures Account. (5)
Answer:
(A) Number of Debentures Issued = \(\frac{₹ 30,00,000}{₹(100-4)}\) = 31,250

Question 9.
From the following Receipts and Payments Accounts of Samay Cricket Club and the additional information given, prepare the Income and Expenditure Account for the year ending 31^st March, 2020:

Additional Information:
(i) Salary outstanding is ₹ 1,000.
(ii) Opening Balance of Stock of Postage and Stationery and Cricket goods is ₹ 750 and ₹ 3,210 respectively. Closing stock of the same is ₹ 900 and ₹ 2,800 respectively.
(iii) Outstanding subscription for the year 2018-19 is ₹ 6,600 and for the year 2019-20 is
₹ 8,000. (5)
Answer:

PART-B
Option-1
(Analysis of Financial Statements)

Question 10.
Identify the following transactions as belonging to Operating Activities, Investing Activities, Financing Activities or Cash and Cash Equivalents:
(A) Income tax paid
(B) Interest on Debentures (2)
Answer:
(A) Income tax paid – Operating Activities
(B) Interest on Debentures – Financing Activities

Question 11.
Prepare Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss from the following information:

Particulars	31st March, 2021	31st March, 2020
Revenue from Operations	₹ 5,00,000	₹ 3,20,000
Purchases of Stock-in-Trade	₹ 4,50,000	₹ 2,50,000
Changes in Inventories of Stock-in-Trade	₹ 50,000	₹ 50,000
Other Expenses (% of Cost of Revenue from Operations)	8%	10%
Tax	30%	30%

OR
From the following Balance Sheet of Surga Trading Limited as at 31st March, 2021, prepare Common Size Balance Sheet:

Answer:


* Because of Loss Tax Will not be levied
Working Notes:

Question 12.
Following are the Balance Sheets of Solar Power Ltd. as at 31^st March, 2020 and 2019:


Notes to Accounts:

Additional Information:
During the year, a piece of machinery costing ₹ 48,000 on which accumulated depreciation was ₹ 32,000 was sold for ₹ 12,000.
Prepare Cash Flow Statement. (5)
Answer:

Working Notes:

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Maximum Marks : 40
Time : 2 Hours

Instructions:

• The question paper is divided into 3 sections-A, B and C
• Section A comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in two questions.
• Section B comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in one question.
• Section C comprises of 4 questions. It contains one case study based question. Internal choice has been provided in one question.

Section – A [12 Marks]

Question 1.
Evaluate ∫ log x dx.
Or
The marginal cost function of manufacturing x units of a commodity is 6 + 10x – 6x². The total cost of producing one unit of commodity is ₹ 12. Find the total cost function.
Answer:
Let I = ∫ log dx
I = ∫log x ∙ 1 dx
On applying integration by parts, we get
I = log x ∫1 dx – ∫[\(\frac{d}{d x}\) log x ∫1 dx]dx
I = log x ∙ x – ∫\(\frac{1}{x}\) ∙ x dx + C
I = x log x – ∫1 dx + C
I = x log x – x + C
Or
We have, MC = 6 + 10x – 6x²
∴ \(\frac{d C}{d x}\) = MC
On integrating both sides, we get
∫dC = ∫(6 + 10x – 6x²)dx
C = 6x + 5x² – 2×3³ + K ……. (i)
It is given that the cost of producing one unit of the commodity is ₹ 12, i.e. x = 1 and C = 12
Putting x = 1 and C = 12 in Eq. (i), we get
12 = 6 + 5 – 2 + K
K = 3
On substituting the value of K in Eq. (i), we get
C = 6x + 5x² – 2x³ + 3

Question 2.
Sanchit borrowed a home loan amount of ₹ 5000000 from a bank at an interest rate of 12% per annum for 30 yr. Find the equated monthly installment amount, Sanchit has to pay to the bank, [given (1.01) ^-360 = 0.02781].
Or
A bike costing ₹ 55000 has a useful life of 15 yr. If annual depreciation is ₹ 3000.
Find its scrap value, using linear method.
Answer:
Given, P = ₹ 5000000, i = \(\frac{12}{1200}\) = 0.01
and n = 12 × 30 = 360
Let E be the equated monthly installment Sanchit has to pay to the bank.
∴ E = \(\frac{P \times i}{1-(1+i)^{-n}}\)
Here, E = \(\frac{5000000 \times 0.01}{1-(1+0.01)^{-360}}\)
= \(\frac{50000}{1-(1.01)^{-360}}\) = \(\frac{50000}{1-0.02781}\)
= \(\frac{50000}{0.97219}\) = 51430.27
Hence, Sanchit EMI is ₹ 51430.27

Or

Given, cost of bike = ₹ 55000,
Useful life = 15 yr
and Annual depreciation = ₹ 3000
Let scrap value of bike is ₹ S.
Then, annual depreciation = \(\frac{\text { Original cost }-\text { Scrap value }}{\text { Useful life in years }}\)
⇒ 3000 = \(\frac{55000-S}{15}\)
⇒ 45000 = 55000 – S
⇒ S = 55000 – 45000 = 10000
Hence, scrap value is ₹ 10000

Question 3.
Find the present value of a perpetuity of ₹ 5280 payable at the beginning of each year, if money is worth 8% effective.
Answer:
Given, R = ₹ 5280, i = \(\frac{8}{100}\) = 0.08
and let P be the present value of the given perpetuity.
∴ P = R + \(\frac{R}{i}\)
= 5280 + \(\frac{5280}{0.08}\)
= 5280 + 66000
= 71280
Hence, present value of the given perpetuity is ₹ 71280.

Question 4.
A sampling distribution of the sample means X̄ is formed from a population with mean weight µ = 55 kg and standard deviation σ = 8 kg. What is expected value and standard deviation of X̄, if sample size is 49?
Answer:
We have,
µ = 55 kg
∴ E(X̄) = 55 kg
Standard deviation of X̄ = D(X̄) = \(\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}\)
= \(\frac{8}{\sqrt{49}}\) = \(\frac{8}{7}\) = 1.142 kg

Question 5.
Using 3-yearly moving averages, compute the trend values and short term fluctuations for the following data.

Answer:
Computation of trend value

Question 6.
Determine the maximum value of Z = 11x + 7y, subject to the constraints are 2x + y ≤ 6, x ≤ 2 and x, y ≥ 0.
Answer:
We have,
Maximise Z = 11 x + 7y …….. (i)
Subject to the constraints,
2x + y ≤ 6 ……. (ii)
x ≤ 2 ……. (iii)
and x, y ≥ 0 ……. (iv)
We see that, the feasible region as shaded determined by the system of constraints (ii) to (iv) is OABC and is bounded. So, now we shall use comer point method to determine the maximum value of Z.

Corner points	Value of Z = 11x + 7y
0(0, 0)	Z = 11(0) + 7(0) = 0
A(2, 0)	Z = 11(2) + 7(0) = 22
B(2, 2)	Z = 11(2) + 7(2) = 36
C(0, 6)	Z = 11(0) + 7(6) = 42 (Maximum)

Hence, the maximum value of Z is 42 at C(0, 6).

Section -B [12 Marks]

Question 7.
Two batches of the same product are tested for their mean life. Assuming that, the lives of the product follow a normal distribution with an unknown variance, test the hypothesis that the mean life is the same for both the branches, given the following information.

[given, t₁₆ (0.05) = 2.120]
Or
The Educational Testing Service conducted a study to investigate difference between the scores of male and female students on the Scholastic Aptitude Test. The study identified a random sample of 562 female and 852 male students, who had achieved the same high score on the mathematics portion of the test. That is, female and male students were viewed as having similarly high abilities in mathematics. The verbal scores for the two samples are as given
Female students, x̄₁ = 557 and s₁ = 83
Male students, x̄₂ = 545 and s₂ = 78
Do the data support the conclusion that given a population of female students and a population of male students with similarly high mathematics abilities, the female students will have a significantly higher verbal ability? Test at a 5% level of significance. What is your conclusion?
Answer:
Given, n₁ = 10, n₂ = 8, x̄₁ = 750, x̄₂ = 820,
s₁ = ₹ 12 and s₂ = ₹ 14
Consider, Null hypothesis H₀ : Mean life is same for both the batches.
Alternate hypothesis H₁ : Two batches have different mean lives.
Test statistics,

Since, calculated value |t| = 10.763 > tabulated value
t₁₆(0.05) = 2.120
So, rejected the null hypothesis at 5% level of significance.
Hence, the mean life for both the batches is not the same.

Or

We have, x̄₁ = 557, x̄₂ = 545, s₁ = 83, s₂ = 78,
n₁ = 562 and n₂ = 852
Consider, the null hypothesis be that there is no significant difference between male and female verbal ability,
H₀: µ₁ – µ₂ > 0 and H₁: µ₁ – µ₂ < 0
Test statistics,

Here, the computed value of Z is greater than the table value of Z i.e. 1.96. So, reject the null hypothesis. Hence, there is a significant difference between the male and female verbal ability or female students have higher verbal ability.

Question 8.
The production of a soft drink company in thousand of litres during each month of a year is as follows

Calculate the 5-monthly moving average and show these moving averages on a graph.
Answer:
According to the question,

Months	Production (in thousand litre)
Jan	1.2
Feb	0,8
Mar	1.4
Apr	1.6
May	1.8
June	2.4
July	2.6
Aug	3.0
Sept	3.6
Oct	2.8
Nov	1.9
Dec	3.4

Let the 5-monthly moving average of the Jan-Dec production is m.
So,

On the basis of above data, we can draw the following graph

Question 9.
Mr. Amit invested ₹ 10000 in a mutual fund and the value of investment at the time of redemption was ₹ 25000. If compound annual growth rate (CAGR) for this investment is 9.15%. Calculate the time period for which the amount was invested? [given, log(2.5) = 0.3979 and log(1.0915) = 0.0380]
Answer:
Given, BV = ₹ 10000, EV = ₹ 25000 and CAGR = 9.15%
We know that

Taking log on both sides, we get
\(\frac{1}{n}\) log(2.5) = log(1.0915)
⇒ n = \(\frac{\log (2.5)}{\log (1.0915)}=\frac{0.3979}{0.0380}\)
⇒ n = 10.47 = 10.5 yr

Question 10.
The demand function for a commodity is p = 22 – x – x². Find the consumer’s surplus at equilibrium price p₀ = 10.
Answer:
Given, the demand function is p = 22 – x – x²
at the equilibrium price p₀ = 10
We have,
10 = 22 – x₀ – x²₀
⇒ x²₀ + x₀ – 12 = 0
⇒ x²₀ + 4x₀ – 3x₀ – 12 = 0
⇒ x₀(x₀ + 4) – 3(x₀ + 4) = 0
⇒ (x₀ – 3) (x₀ + 4) = 0
⇒ x₀ = 3 or x₀ = – 4
Since, x₀ ≠ – 4
⇒ x₀ = 3
∴ Consumer’s surplus (CS) at p₀ = 10

Hence, consumer’s surplus is 22.5.

Section – C [16 Marks]

Question 11.
An aeroplane can carry a maximum of 200 passengers. A profit of ₹ 1000 is made on each executive class ticket and a profit of ₹ 600 is made on each economy class ticket. The airline reserves atleast 20 seats for executive class. However atleast 4 times as many passengers prefer to travel by economy class than by the executive class. Determine how many tickets of each type must be sold in order to maximize the profit for the airline. What is the maximum profit?
Or
Determine graphically the minimum value of the objective function Z = – 50x + 20y, subject to constraints are 2x – y ≥ – 5, 3x + y ≥ 3, 2x – 3y ≤ 12 and x, y ≥ 0.
Answer:
Let x passengers travel by executive class and y passengers travel by economy class.
We construct the following table

So, our problem is to maximise
Z = 1000x + 600y ………. (i)
Subject to constraints,
x + y ≤ 200 x ≥ 20
y – 4x ≥ 0 or y ≥ 4x
and x, y ≥ 0
Table for line x + y = 200 is

X	0	200
y	200	0

So, line passes through,the points (0, 200) and (200,0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality x + y ≤ 200, we get
0 + 0 ≤ 200 ⇒ 0 ≤ 200, which is true.
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Table for line y = 4x is

X	0	20
y	0	80

So, line passes through the points (0, 0) and (20, 80).
On putting (10, 0) in the inequality y ≥ 4x, we get
0 ≥ 4 x 10 ⇒ 0 ≥ 40, which is not true.
So, the half plane is towards Y-axis.
Now, draw the graph of the line x = 20.
On putting (0,0) in the inequality x ≥ 20,
we get
0 ≥ 20, which is not true.
So, the half plane is away from the origin.
Also, x, y ≥ 0, so the region lies in the I quadrant.
On solving Eqs. (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get
A(20,80), B(40,160) and C (20,180).
∴ Feasible region is ABCA
The comer points of the feasible region are
A(20,80), 6(40,160) and C(20,180).

The value of Z at the corner points are given below

Corner points	Value of Z = 1000x + 500
A(20, 80)	Z = 1000 x 20 + 600 x 80 = 68000
B(40,160)	Z = 1000 x 40 + 600×160 = 136000 (Maximum)
C(20,180)	Z = 1000×20+ 600×180 = 128000

Thus, the maximum value of Z is 136000 at B(40,160).
Thus, 40 tickets of executive class and 160 tickets of economy class should be sold to maximise the profit and the maximum profit is if 136000.
Or
Given, objective function is
Minimise Z = – 50 x + 20y
Subject to constraints,
2x – y ≥ – 5 … (i)
3x + y ≥ 3 ……(ii)
2x – 3y ≤ 12 ……. (iii)
and x, y ≥ 0 …(iv)
Table for line 2 x – y = – 5 is

X	-5/2	0
y	0	5

So, the line passes through the points (\(\frac{-5}{2}\), 0) and (0, 5).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 2x – y ≥ – 5, we get
0 – 0 ≥ – 5
⇒ 0 ≥ – 5, which is true.
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Table for line 3x + y = 3 is

X	0	1
y	3	0

So, the line passes through the points (0, 3) and (1, 0).
On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 3x + y ≥ 3, we get
0 + 0 ≥ 3
⇒ 0 ≥ 3, which is not true.
So, the half plane is away from the origin.
Table for line 2x – 3y = 12 is

X	0	6
y	-4	o

On putting (0, 0) in the inequality 2 x – 3y ≤ 12,
we get Z
0 – 0 ≤ 12
⇒ 0 ≤ 12, which is time.
So, the half plane is towards the origin.
Also, x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0, so the region lies in the I quadrant.

On drawing the graph of each linear equation, we get the following graph. In I quadrant, these equations has no intersection point.

Thus, we get the common shaded region ABCD, which gives the feasible region and it is unbounded. The comer points of feasible region are A(0, 5), B(0, 3), C(1, 0) and D(6, 0).
The value of Z at comer points are given below

Corner points	Value of Z = – 50x + 20y
4(0, 5)	Z = – 50(0)+ 20(5) = 100
6(0 3)	Z = – 50(0) + 20(3) = 60
C(1. 0)	Z = – 50(1) + 20(0) = – 50
D( 6, 0)	Z = – 50(6) + 20(0) = – 300

Here, feasible region is unbounded, so the minimum and maximum value may or may not be exist.
Now, we draw a dotted line of inequation
– 50x + 20y < – 300
or – 5x + 2y < – 30
Here, we see that half plane determined by – 5x + 2y < – 30 has a point in common with the feasible region.
Hence, no minimum value exists.

Question 12.
A person borrows ₹ 68962 on the condition that the will repay the money with compound interest at 5% per annum in 4 equal annual installments, the first one being payable at the end of the first year. Find the value of each installment.
[given (1.05)^-4 = 0.8227]
Answer:
According to the question, the borrow amount (principal amount = P) is ₹ 68962 .
Rate of interest, i = 5% per annum or \(\frac{5}{100}\)
Total number of installments (n) = 4
Let the value of each installment is a.
We know that
P = \(\frac{a}{i}\) [1 – (1 + i)^-n] …….. (i)

0.1773
a = 19447.82
So, the value of each installment is ₹ 1944732.

Question 13.
A company has issued a bond having face value of ₹ 120000, carrying an annual dividend rate of 8% and maturing in 15 yr. If the prevailing market rate of interest is 10% and the bond is redeemed at par, find the bond value, [given (1.1)^-15 = 0.2394)]
Answer:
Given, face value (F) = ₹ 120000
n = 15
and i = \(\frac{10}{100}\) = 0.1
Here, R = Annual dividend
= 8% of face value
= \(\frac{8}{100}\) × 120000 = ₹ 9600
If a bond is redeemed at par, then C = F

where C is redemption price or maturity value.

= 96000[1 – (1.1)^-15] + 120000(L1)^-15
= 96000(1 – 0.2394) + 120000 × 0.2394
= 96000 × 0.7606 + 28728
= 73017.6 + 28728
= ₹ 101745.6

Case Based/Data Based

Question 14.
In Angrish Academy School, class teacher of Xllth class teaches the topic of definite integration.

If f(x) is the continuous function, integral of f(x) over the interval [a, b] is denoted by


On the basis of above information, answer the following questions.
(i)

Answer:

(ii)

Answer:

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 7 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 7 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
• Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below:

We live in an era where it is difficult to miss fast and junk food and the rise in teenage obesity and related health issues due to it. During teenage, weight gain is normal but when it goes beyond control, the person becomes obese. Our body requires energy to function, which is derived from the food we eat but when the intake of food becomes more than the amount that the body requires, the

5. excess energy is stored as body fat. Contemporary lifestyle sees an increasing consumption of junk food and spending time watching television and playing computer games. Overeating along with lack of physical exercise are the major causes Leading to teenage obesity. Large intakes of high-calorie food and low-nutrient food leads to unnecessary weight gain. Besides these,

10. obesity can also be genetically inherited where some people have the genetic tendency to burn calories more slowly compared to others. Stress is also a reason for obesity where people resort to overeating to alleviate their stress.

Teenage obesity is growing immensely and has been named an ‘obesity epidemic’. A number of health issues arise out of it like diabetes, high blood pressure and cholesterol, sleeping disorders, hormonal imbalance, and asthma. Along with these, obesity can also.

15. result in psychological problems like low self-esteem due to the constant jeering of peers. Obese teens are more prone to being teased and physically bullied compared to others of their age.

Therefore, it is necessary to control excessive weight gain. Inactivity is the major cause of obesity and regular exercise is the best way to control it. Physical activity like jogging, swimming and playing outdoor games can help to keep one fit. A balanced diet with lots of

20. vegetables, fruits and whole grains is also essential. Junk food and soft drinks should be substituted with lots of vegetables, fruit and whole grains in the diet. Drinking around 8-10 glasses of water also helps to reduce calorie intake.

Parents have an important role in controlling teenage obesity as they should try to set examples by following a healthy diet and leading a healthy lifestyle. A combined effort.

25. of the parents and kids can help to control this eating disorder.

Based on gour understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8)

(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the reason why writer feels it is difficult for the teenagers to avoid junk food. (1)

(B) State any one emotion that is evident from lines 10-15 which leads to the problem of over-eating in teenagers. (1)

(C) The writer says that obesity leads to low self-esteem due to ‘constant jeering of peers’. What does it mean? (1)

(D) Why does the writer say that there is an ‘obesity epidemic’? (1)

(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 10 – 20. (1)

The anchor of a ship is used to hold the immense mass of the ship at a place in water.

(F) What does the use of the word ‘alleviate’ suggest in the context of stress? (1)

(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 15-25 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

I agree that the success of the project is truly a. (1)

(H) Even if a teenager follows a good diet, he can still get obese. How do you think it may happen? (1)

(I) Analyse the problems that obesity might lead to. (1)
Answer:
(A) In the passage, the writer feels that it is difficult for the teenagers to avoid junk food because of their contemporary lifestyle, the increase in spending time watching television and playing computer games.

(B) Stress is an emotion that leads to over-eating in teenagers as they would eat food more often in order to reduce the feeling of stress.

(C) Obesity in young age often results in mocking and teasing by the people of same age. Obese children are mocked for their overweight and this leads to low self-esteem and lack of confidence.

(D) The writer calls obesity an ‘epidemic’ because it is spreading at a very fast pace in teenagers and a large number of children are being affected by it.

(E) Control excessive weight

(F) The word ‘alleviate’ means to Lessen or reduce. So, for some people, overeating works as a stress buster as it alleviates the stress they feel.

(G) combined effort

(H) For some teenagers, obesity comes with heredity as it is transferred through genetics to people. So, sometimes, even if a teenager follows a good diet, he may still be obese due to heredity.

(I) As given in the passage, obesity may lead to other health issues like diabetes, high blood pressure, cholesterol, sleep disorders, hormonal imbalance, etc.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below:

The conflict between people takes the form of assertiveness, aggression and violence. It is fuelled by many factors including greed, selfishness, desire, jealousy, envy, fear, hate, and lust for power. From the perspective of yogic philosophy, these fuels for conflict are all caused by the clouding of our perception called ‘avidya’. Because of ‘avidya’ we do not recognise our true 5. spiritual kinship with other people, and we are prone to experience those fuels of conflict. These fuels are widely varied, but have one commonality; experience of any of these emotions or desires is done from the perspective. People who feel these emotions want more or less of something for themselves, as compared to what they see in other people. These people do not identify with others but feel separated from them, left out or isolated.

10. Two powerful tools exist to reduce the effect of these “fuels” within ourselves: cultivating the right attitude, and behaving in constructive ways. Some of us feel envious or jealous when we see another who is happy, successful or content. We may feel disgust or even hatred at the sight of a drifter or a drug addict. We need a change in attitude, a

15. change that will help us purify our minds and become more peaceful. We should practise being pleased when we see someone who is happy. We should try to be compassionate towards those in misery, and be joyful to see the virtues of another. In cultivating this attitude, we become more accepting of the world and more peaceful towards others. Non-possessiveness can be practiced, as can contentment.

20. The behavior-how we act includes both how we treat others, and how we treat ourselves. To become satisfied in our lives and more peaceful in our treatment of others, we should practice non-violence, truthfulness and non-stealing. These qualities help us become happier in our lives and less aggressive towards others. We should decide what is proper here. Practicing meditation is also known to reduce stress and increase happiness.

25. A study was conducted to examine how meditation frequency (from daily to nonpractice) is related to greater happiness, and how dispositional mindfulness and self-compassion could be mediating this relationship. Correlation analyses were conducted for the frequency of meditation practice, dispositional mindfulness (FFMQ), self-compassion (SCS-SF) and happiness (PFH). The results from the data collected by 365 participants through a survey showed 30. that the mindfulness and self-compassion scales were positively and significantly correlated with the happiness measure. Furthermore, as expected, the frequency of meditation was positively and significantly correlated with the mindfulness scales, the self-compassion scales and happiness.

	Frequency of mediation	Happiness
Mindfulness scales
Observing	.445**	.387**
Describing	.210**	.398**
Acting with awareness	.137**	.347**
Non-judging	.327**	.391**
Non-reactivity	.442**	.499**
FFMQ total score	.441**	.555**
Self-compassion scales
Self-kindness	.377**	.598**
Common humanity	.344**	558**
Mindfulness	.421**	.546**
SCS total score	424**	.630**
Happiness	.222**	–

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the seven questions given below. (1 x 6)

(A) What does the writer mean by ‘spiritual kinship’? (1)
(B) Why was this survey on ‘meditation frequency’ undertaken? (1)
(C) With reference to the table, write one conclusion about the relatability of meditation, self-compassion and mindfulness. (1)
(D) What can be concluded by ‘self-kindness’ data with reference to the table? (1)
(E) People experience emotions from “I” perspective. Substantiate. (1)
(F) Write an example to make people learn that a change in our attitude can change somebody’s life? (1)
(G) Identify a word from lines 1-5 indicating a sharing of characteristics. (1)
Answer:
(A) By ‘spiritual kinship’, the writer means the connection of people based on soul or spiritual goodness, rather than physical goodness.

(B) The survey in the passage was taken on ‘meditation frequency’ to learn how meditation helps people to increase their happiness levels and how mindfulness and compassion mediates with it.

(C) As per the table, the mindfulness and self-compassion scales are positively and significantly correlated with the happiness measure in a person.

(D) The table shows that people are most happy when they are kind and easy on themselves.

(E) People often experience the emotions from their own perspective. They seldom think from the perspective of other people and feel that they deserve the greatest things in life and not others.

(F) The best example is the change in our attitude due for a drug addict. When we come across a drug addict, we should not hate him, rather should help him come out of that deadly addiction. Our empathy will increase the addicts’ hope and desire to come clean.

(G) kinship

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
You are Akshay/Akshita Dixit, living at 2-A, Saket Colony, Varanasi. You are planning to host a grand family dinner on the occasion of Diwali. Draft a formal invitation in not more than 50 words to invite all the family members to attend the dinner. (3)
Answer:
The Dixits
2-A, Saket Colony
Varanasi
17th September 20XX

Dear all
We request the pleasure of your precious company at the Grand Family Dinner on the lovely occasion of Diwali this year. The family dinner will take place on Monday, the 23rd of September, 20XX, 8.00 p.m. onwards at our residence. You are all requested to mark the dinner with your lovely presence.

Yours affectionately
Akshay/Akshita Dixit
R.S.V.P
The Dixit Family
Varanasi
Ph.: 989765xxxx

Caution :
Students often get confused when asked to write an invitation in the form of a letter. Do keep in mind that a formal invitation can be written in both formats: card or in the form of a letter.

Question 4.
Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.
(A) You have read an advertisement in The Tribune for the post of Chartered Accountant in DXL Solutions Ltd., Aligarh. You believe you possess the requisite qualifications and experience and would prove to be an asset to the company. Apply for the post giving your complete bio-data stressing your suitability. You are Shreya/Shreyas Jain, 1/10, Mangalam Apt., Ring Road, Aligarh.
OR
(B) You are Vinneta/Vijay Shrama. As a correspondent for the Hindustan Times, Indore, write a report in about 120-150 words for a newspaper regarding the arrest of a gang of motorbike lifters operating in your city, covering all the important details like vehicle lifting in market area parking lots, gang of young men, caught red-handed, police on high alert, selling of vehicles as scraps or otherwise, etc.
Answer:
1/10, Mangalam Apt. Ring Road
Aligarh
21st October 20XX
The HR Manager
DXL Solutions Ltd.
Aligarh

Subject: Application for the post of Chartered Accountant

Sir/Ma’am,
This is in response to your advertisement in The Tribune dated 19th October 20XX, I wish to offer my candidature for the position mentioned above.

I am an ICWA certified CA from 20XX batch and have been serving in Sitaram Furniture Pvt. Ltd, Aligarh as a Chartered Accountant for the Last five years. My professional skills are quite perfect as I deal with the business entries and balance sheet calculation management efficiently. I have gained a lot of experience over these past five years which is a bonus.

I believe that my qualifications and work experience, are good enough to enable me to discharge my duties at your reputed office. I assure you that if selected, I shall work with utmost sincerity and devotion.

Thanking you
Yours faithfully
Shreya/Shreyas Jain

Bio-Data

Name : Shreya/Shreyas Jain
Fothers Name : Mr. M.D. Jain
Address : 1/10, Mangalam Apt. Ring Road, Aligarh
Date of Birth : 23rd February, 19XX
Educational Qualifications :
(i) B.Com. (Hons.) in the year 20XX with 78%
(ii) CA in 20XX
(iii) CFA in 20XX

Experience : CA in Sitaram Furniture Pvt. Ltd for five years.
Salarj Expected : 70,000 p.m. + perks
MaritaL Status : Married
Languages : known Hindi, English, Urdu
References :

• Dr. Indra Patel, Director, Sitaram Furniture Pvt Ltd., Aligarh, 9891xxxxxxx
• Dr. Khan, H.O.D. Commerce, AMU, Aligarh, 9231xxxxxx

OR

Vehicle Lifters of the City Caught
Red-handed

By Vineeta/Vijay Sharma, Staff Correspondent,
The Hindustan Times

Indore, 13th November, 20XX: A gang of unknown motorbike lifters stealing vehicles from the parking lots of the market places in the city was arrested on 12th November, 20XX at Radhi Bazar Parking lot at Jay Conventional Center, Indore. The gang of five young men was caught lifting a white Gixxer 280 RC parked at the lot when the Police got there. The motorbike owner Gyan Praksah, was informed about the activity when he reported about his missing vehicle at the nearest Police Station. Gyan Prakash thanked Police on catching the thieves red-handed and saving his motorbike.

Mr Rahim Khan, the Inspector of Police, said that the police were on high alert since Last week as the number of motorbikes being Lifted from the lot had increased rapidly. The robbers are said to belong to Pitwa, a district in Indore, M.P. They said that they all are local motorbike mechanics so they used to sell the parts of vehicles in the local markets at good prices and enjoy with the money obtained.

Section – C
Literature (18 Marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, with in 40 words each. (2 x 5)
(A) How were Shukla and Gandhiji received in Rajendra Prasad’s house? (2)
(B) The peddler signed himself as “Captain Von Stahle”. Identify the reason behind peddler’s decision with respect to the context. (2)
You may begin your answer like this:
The peddler was a destitute rattrap seller. He was never treated with
(C) According to Keats, do we experience things of beauty only for short moments or do they make a lasting impression on us? (2)
(D) Rationalize the picture of male chauvinism (tyranny) that we find in the poem, ‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’. (2)
(E) On the day of the examination, with what excuse •J’d Evans keep Stephens out of his cell? What was the actual reason? (2)
(F) Derry used to hate the consolation that people gave him. Highlight the consolation that people used to give when they saw his acid burnt face. (2)
Answer:
(A) When Rajkumar Shukla took Gandhiji to Dr Rajendra Prasad’s house to meet the latter, they found that he was out of the town. The servants of his house looked down upon them and mistook Gandhiji to be one of the poor peasants for his simple appearance. They didn’t even allow him to draw water from the well as they thought him to be an untouchable.

(B) The peddler was a destitute rattrap seller. He was never treated with respect and compassion by anyone earlier. So, when Edla Willmanson treated him with the honour that was meant for a real Captain, even after knowing that the peddler was not the one, the peddler returned the same respect and gesture he received, to Edla behaving like a Captain. Thus, he signed himself as Captain Von Stahle.

(C) In the poem, Keats has repeated a notion, i.e. ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever.’ By this, he meant that the effect of a beautiful thing doesn’t fade away with time. It is permanent and everlasting.

(D) The society that we live in is a male- dominated one. Aunt Jennifer is a typical submissive housewife who has to follow her husband’s ordeals unwillingly all the time. Her husband tyrannizes her and reflects a true picture of male chauvinism as he keeps Aunt oppressed and dominated by him.

(E) Evans said he was unable to concentrate on his exam with Stephens literally breathing down his neck. So, he wanted Stephens to be out of his cell. However, the actual reason was that Evans wanted to execute his escape plan.

(F) When people saw Derry’s acid burnt face, they tried to console him by saying that looks do not matter. Derry hated the sympathy showed to him as he knew that he would continue to look like a ‘monstrous beast’ forever.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)
(A) Analyse the symbols and poetic devices employed by Adrienne Rich in the poem ‘Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’. Write your answer in about 120-150 words. (4)

(B) After a long session of dilemmas, Gandhiji agree to a settlement of 25% refund to the farmers. What according to you was important for Gandhiji – the amount refunded or the damaged British prestige? Examine Gandhiji’s decision in the light of this statement, in about 120150 words. (4)

(C) Roger Skunk used to smell bad. He wanted to change his smell with something pleasing in order to earn other creatures’ friendship. If you were in the Skunk’s place would you want to change your smell to something good or would you stay the same? Substantiate with reference to text, in about 120-150 words. (4)
Answer:
(A) Adrienne Rich, the author of the poem, Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers’, has used various symbols and poetic devices in the poem. Aunt Jennifer is embroidering the tigers on her panel. The tigers symbolise the bravery and independence which Aunt Jennifer dreams of attaining, but fails to do so except in her dreams and art In the poem, the character of Aunt Jennifer metaphorically represents the entire women community as a whole. She represents women who are the victims of domestic oppressions and male dominations.

Apart from that, Adrienne has used a number of poetic devices Like metaphors as ‘bright topaz denizens’ wherein the tigers are considered to be the inhabitants of the green forests. The alliteration in ‘fingers fluttering’ also exemplifies the irony in the poem, as the fingers signify both Aunt Jennifer’s physical feebleness and her fearful mind. The alliteration ‘prancing proud’ symbolizes the ever-existence of brave tigers.

(B) Gandhiji was so determinant to get justice for the poor sharecroppers of Champaran. He fought the case on behalf of them. He submitted such strong evidences of the injustice meted out to the sharecroppers that the British had to agree to the refund. Gandhiji asked for a refund of 50 per cent but the British agreed to only repay 25 per cent as they wanted to prolong the dispute between them.

To everybody’s surprise, Gandhiji agreed to accept the 25 per cent of return. For him, the amount of money was not important. What was important was the fact that the British had to surrender part of their money and moreover, their ’prestige’. This repay shattered the Britisher’s pride of ruling the country unjustly.

(C) Roger Skunk was a stinking animal. Due to his bad odour, nobody wanted to play with him or become his friend. So, he wanted to get rid of that odour in order to attract other creatures’ friendship. If I were in Roger Skunk’s place, I would have never gotten my natural odour changed to any other fake smell. The bad smell that I would posses would have been my unique identity and as a Skunk that is necessary to protect me from predators.

Also, I would never change my appearance or identity for others’ approval. I am who I am and that’s what makes me unique. The smell of roses would have garnered good friends for me but as soon as I would have lost the fragrance, I would have lost my friends too. And, I don’t want a fake friendship like that which could end with a little physical change in me.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Maximum Marks : 40
Time : 2 Hours

Instructions:

• The question paper is divided into 3 sections-A, B and C
• Section A comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in two questions.
• Section B comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in one question.
• Section C comprises of 4 questions. It contains one case study based question. Internal choice has been provided in one question.

Section – A [12 Marks]

Question 1.
The marginal revenue function for a commodity is given by MR = 9 + 2x – 6x². Find the demand function.
Or
The marginal cost of producing x pairs of tennis shoes is given by MC = 50 + \(\frac{300}{x+1}\)
If the fixed cost is ₹ 2000, find the total cost function.
Answer:
We have, MR = 9 + 2x – 6x²
We know that \(\frac{dR}{dx}\) = MR
⇒ R = ∫ MR dx + k
⇒ R = ∫(9 + 2x – 6x²)dx + k
⇒ R = 9x + x² – 2x³ + k
When, x = 0, R = 0, we get k = 0, R = 9x + x² – 2x³

Demand function, p = \(\frac{R}{x}\)
When, x = 0, R = 0, we get k = 0
∴ R = 9x + x² – 2x³

Demand function, p = \(\frac{R}{x}\)
∴ p = \(\frac{9 x+x^{2}-2 x^{3}}{x}\) = 9 + x – 2x²
We have, MC = 50 + \(\frac{300}{x+1}\)
∫ dC = ∫MC dx + K [∵ \(\frac{d C}{d x}\) = MC]
∫ C = ∫ (5o+ \(\frac{300}{x+1}\))dx + K
C = 50x + 300log(x + 1) + K …(i)

When x =0, C = 2000, we get K = 2000
∴ C = 50x + 300log(x + 1) + 2000 [from Eq. (i)]

Hence, total cost function is
50x + 300 log(x + 1) + 2000.

Question 2.
Find the present value of perpetuity of ₹ 600 at end of each quarter, if money is worth 8% compounded quarterly.
Answer:
Given, R = ₹ 600
let P be the present value of the perpetuity
Also, given rate of interest is quarterly, then
i = \(\frac{R}{4}\)% ⇒ i = \(\frac{8}{400}\)
∴ P = \(\frac{R}{i}=\frac{600}{\frac{8}{400}}=\frac{600 \times 400}{8}\) = 3000
Hence1 P is ₹ 30000.

Question 3.
What effective rate is equivalent to a nominal rate of 8% per annum compounded quarterly? [given (1.02)⁴ = 1.0824]
Or
Find the present value of an annuity of ₹ 1000 payable at the end of each year for 5 years, if money is worth 6% compounded annually, [given (1.06)^-5 = 07473]
Answer:
We have, r = 8% = \(\frac{8}{100}\) and in = 4
∴ r_e = \(\left(1+\frac{r}{m}\right)^{m}\) – 1
⇒ r_e = \(\left(1+\frac{8}{400}\right)^{4}\) – 1
⇒ r_e = (1 + 0.02)⁴ = (1 .02)⁴ – 1
⇒ r_e = 1.0824 – 1 = 0.0824
Hence, effective rate is (0.0824 × 100)% = 8.24%
Or
Given R = ₹ 1000, i = 6% = 0.06 and n = 5

Hence, present value of ordinary annuity is ₹ 4211.67

Question 4.
A sampling distribution of the sample means X̄ is formed from a population with mean weight µ = 60 kg and standard deviation σ = 9 kg. What is the expected value and standard deviation of X̄, if sample size is 36?
Answer:
Given, mean weight of population (µ)= 60 kg
Standard deviation (σ) = 9 kg
Expected value of X̄ i.e. E(X̄) = g
∴ E(X̄) = 60 kg
SD(X̄) = \(\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}=\frac{9}{\sqrt{36}}\) [∵n = sample size = 36]
SD(X̄) = \(\frac{9}{6}\) = 1.5 kg

Question 5.
Find the trend values using 3-yearly moving average for the loans sanctioned to farmers by a particular branch of a bank in a village.

Answer:
Calculation of 3-yearly moving average

Question 6.
The feasible region of the LPP minimum Z = 3x + 2y
Subject to constraints are
2x + y ≥ 6, x – y ≥ 0, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 is given below:

Determine the optimal solution. Justify your answer.
Answer:
We have, Minimum Z = 3x + 2y
Subject to constraints are
2x + y ≥ 6, x – y ≥ 0, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

The feasible region of the constraints is given below.

Corner point	Value of Z =3x + 2y
P(2,2)	3 × 2 + 2 × 2 = 6 + 4 = 10
Q(3, 0)	3 × 3 + 2 × 0 = 9 + 0 = 9

The smallest value of Z is 9. Since, the feasible region is unbounded, we draw the graph of 3x + 2y < 9. The resulting open half plane has common point with feasible region.
∴ Z = 9 is not the minimum value of Z. Hence, the optimal solution does not exist.

Section -B [12 Marks]

Question 7.
The supply function for a commodity is given by p = x² + 4x + 3, where x is the quantity supplied at the price p. Find the producers surplus when the price of the commodity is ₹ 48.
Answer:
The supply function is given by p = x² + 4x+3
It is given that p₀ = 48

Putting the value of p₀ in p = x² + 4x + 3
⇒ 48 = x² + 4x₀ + 3
⇒ x² + 4x₀ – 45 = 0
⇒ (x₀ + 9)(x₀ – 5) = 0
⇒ x₀ = 5 and x₀ ≠ – 9 [∵ x ≥ 5]

We know that producer surplus,

Hence, produce surplus is ₹ 133.33.

Question 8.
The following table shows the quarterly sales (₹ in crore) of a real estate company. Compute the trend by quarterly moving averages.

Or
Fit a straight line trend by the method of least squares and estimate the trend for the year 2023.

Answer:
The trend value are given by 4-quarterly centered moving average.

Here, n = 7 (odd)
So, middle year i.e 2017 takes as origin. Construct the table as under

y_t = a + bx and y_t = 76 + 24x

Estimated sales = y_t for 2023 = 76 + 24 × 6
= ₹ 220 lakh

Question 9.
A machine produces washers of thickness 0.50 mm. To determine whether the machine is in proper working order, a sample of 10 washers is chosen for which the mean thickness is 0.53 mm and the standard deviation is 0.03 mm. Test the hypothesis at 5% level of significance that the machine is working in proper order.
[given t_0.025 = 2.262 at v = 9]
Answer:
It is given that,
p = Population mean = 0.50 mm
X̄ = Sample mean = 0.53 mm
n = Sample size = 10
and S = Sample standard deviation = 0.03 mm

We define null hypothesis H₀ and alternative hypothesis H₁, as follows
H₀ : µ = 0.50 mm
µ₁ : µ ≠ 0.50 mm

Thus, a two-tailed test is applied under hypothesis H0, we have
t = \(\frac{\bar{X}-\mu}{S} \sqrt{(n-1)}=\frac{0.53-0.50}{0.03}\) × 3 = 3

Since, the calculated value of f = 3 does not lie in the internal – t_0.025 to t_0.025 i.e. – 2.262 to 2.262 for 10 – 1 = 9 degree of freedom. So, we reject H₀ at 0.05 level. Hence, we conclude that machine is not working properly.

Question 10.
A person invested ₹ 15000 in a mutual fund and the value of investment at the time of redemption was ₹ 25000. If CAGR for this investment is 8.88%, calculate the time period for which the amount was invested?
[given log(1.667) = 0.2219 and log(1.089) = 0.037]
Answer:
Given, Begining value (BV) = ₹ 15000
Ending valne (EV) = ₹ 25000
Let number of years = n and CAGR = 8.88%

We Know that

Hence, time period is 6 yr.

Section – C [16 Marks]

Question 11.
S & D chemicals produces two products, an alkaline solution and a base oil that are sold as raw material to companies manufacturing soaps and detergents. On the basis of current inventory levels and estimated demand for the coming month, S & D’s management has decided that combined production of alkaline solution and base oil must be at least 3500 gallons. S & D chemicals are also committed to supply 1250 gallons of alkaline solution to one of its major customer. The alkaline solution and base oil requires respectively 2 h and 1 h of processing time per gallon. The total processing time available for the coming month is 6000 h. The production cost is ₹ 200 per gallon for the alkaline solution and ₹ 300 per gallon for base oil.
Formulate the above as a LPP and solve it by graphical method to help S & D chemicals determine the minimum production cost.
Answer:
Let the company produces x and y gallons of
alkaline solution and base oil respectively, also let C be the production cost.
Minimum Z = 200x + 300y
Subject to constraints are
x + y ≥ 3500 ……….(i)
x ≥ 1250 …….(ii)
2x + y ≤ 6000 ………(iii)
x, y ≥ 0 …….(iv)

Corner Points	Value of Z = 200x + 300y
P(1250, 2250)	925000
Q(1250, 3500)	1300000
R(2500, 1000)	800000 (Minimum)

Minimum cost is ₹ 800000 when 2500 gallons of alkaline solutions and 1000 gallons of base oil are manufactured.

Question 12.
A machine costing ₹ 50000 is to be replaced at the end of 10 yr, when it will have a salvage value of ₹ 5000. In order to provide money at that time for a machine costing the same amount, a sinking fund is set up. If equal payments are placed in the fund at the end of each quarter and the fund earns 8% compounded quarterly, then what should each payment be? [given (1.02)40 = 2.208]
Answer:
We have, cost of machine = ₹ 50000
Salvage value of machine = ₹ 5000
Hence, the money required for new machine after 10 yr = ₹ (50000 – 5000) = ₹ 45000
So, we have S = ₹ 45000, i = \(\frac{8}{400}\) = 0.02 and
n = 10 × 4 = 40

Hence, ₹ 745.03 are set aside each year to purchase new machine.

Question 13.
A couple wishes to purchase a house for ₹ 1500000 with a down payment of ₹ 400000. If they can amortize the balance at an interest rate 9% per annum compounded monthly for 10 yr, find the monthly installment (EMI). Also, find the total interest paid.
[given, (1.0075) ^-120 = 0.4079]
Or
A ₹ 2000, 8% bond is redeemable at the end of 10 yr at ₹ 105. Find the purchase price to yield 10% effective rate, [given (1.1)^-10 = 0.3855]
Answer:
We have, cost of house = ₹ 1500000
Down payment ₹ 400000
∴ Balance amount = Cost of house – Down payment
= ₹ (1500000 – 400000)
= ₹ 1100000

Hence, EMI is ₹ 13933.50.
∴ Total interest paid = n(EMI) – P
= 120 × 13933.50 – 1100000
=1672020- 1100000= 572020

Hence, total interest paid is ₹ 572020
Or
Given, face value of bond = ₹ 2000

Number of periods = 10
i = annual yield rate – 10% = \(\frac{10}{100}\) = 0.1

Redemption value C = 1.05 × 2000 = ₹ 2100
R Annual dividend = 2000 × 8%
= 2000 × \(\frac{8}{100}\) = ₹ 160

Let V be the purchase price of the bond, then

Hence, purchase price of bond is ₹ 1792

Case Based/Data Based

Question 14.
General anesthesia is used for major operations to cure the patients and conduct pain free surgeries. Propofol is a commonly used anesthetic injected for major operations such as knee replacement or open heart surgery. It also acts as a sedative and an analgesic.

A patient is rushed to operation theatre for a 2-hour cardiac surgery. A person is anesthetized when its blood stream contains at least 3 mg of propofol per kg of body weight. The rate of change of propofol (x), in the body is proportional to the quantity of propofol present at that time. Based on the above information.

Answer the following questions:
(i) Show that propofol given intravenously is eliminated exponentially from the patients’ blood stream.
Answer:
Let x denotes the quantity of propofol present in body at any time t

⇒ x = e^-kt+C
⇒ x = e^C e^-kt = Ae^-kt [∵ e^c = A]

Let x = x₀ at t = 0
∴ x₀ = Ae⁰
⇒ A = x₀

∴ x = x₀e^-kt, where x₀ = original quantity

(ii) What dose of propofol should be injected to induce unconsciousness in a 50 yr adult for a two hours operation? [given (2)^1/5 = 1.1487 and assume half-life of propofol = 5 h]
Answer:
Now, x = x₀e^-kt
When x = \(\frac{x_{0}}{2}\) and t = 5, we get
\(\frac{x_{0}}{2}\) = x₀e^-kt
⇒ e^-5k = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
⇒ e^k = (2)^1/5

The quantity of propofol needed in 50 yr adult after 2 h = 50 × 3 = 150 mg

∴ Required dose is 197.93 mg

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 6 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 6 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
• Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below:

It is popularly believed that wireless technology was created in the year 1880, when Alexander Graham Bell and Charles Sumner Tainter invented the telephone. In that moment they changed the very course of human civilisation. Today you would be hard- pressed to find an adult (or even a child) who does not have access to mobile technology.

5. Wireless communication is the transfer of information or power between two or more points that are not connected by an electrical conductor. The most common wireless technologies use radio waves. With radio waves, distances can be short, such as a few metres for Bluetooth, or as far as millions of kilometres for deep-space radio communications. It encompasses various types of fixed, mobile, and portable applications, including two-way radios, cellular telephones, personal digital assistants (PDAs), and wireless networking. In fact, all our Wi-Fi devices also emit radio waves.

10. Wireless networks are gaining popularity due to their convenience. This ease of connectivity comes at a price. On-going research has identified that signals from a wireless network are potentially dangerous to humans. The constant proximity to wireless signals can cause headaches, insomnia, cardiac arrest and other health issues. Researchers have established that Wi-Fi network signals predominantly affect the lower half of the human body and can trigger liver and pancreatic cancer.

15. In 2011, the World Health Organization’s International Agency for Research on Cancer classified wireless radiations from cell phones, baby monitors, tablets, cell towers, radar, Wi-Fi etc. as Class 2B carcinogens. This Class 2B carcinogen classification applies to appliances with an operating frequency ranging from 30 kHz to 300 GHz. This means all this while, as we were scrolling through online entertainment, we have been sitting on a ticking time bomb.

20. With the rapid growth of mobile phone devices in the market, technology has developed in such a way that it has ended up creating a horrifying situation for the human body. The normal biological systems of the human body have not developed in any way to adapt to or protect against harmful radio waves.

25. This has led to a rise in serious ailments such as diseases of brain-like cancer, brain tumours, Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease and so on. Not to forget the short-term effects like hormone disruption, loss of concentration, impairment of cognitive function, behavioral problems, attention deficit: and long-term effects like DNA damage, male infertility.

30. For children, the wireless devices have even more grave consequences because they have thinner bony skulls, more aqueous bodies/ brains, higher rate of cell turnover and, hence their neural systems are not completely developed. Beyond physical impairments, children are also vulnerable to stunted socio-emotional, cognitive and behavioral development.

35. Given the ubiquity of technology in today’s society and the importance of this issue for policy and practice, it is essential to understand the impacts of technology use on the developing brains and bodies of children in the 21st century in order to guide policy delineating safe and effective use. Parents and guardians should be discerning when it comes to guidelines and research, while governments and groups with policy influence should be cautious of prescribing policy without exploring the evidence base in a holistic and thorough manner.

40. International exposure guidelines have been developed to provide protection against established effects from radio frequency fields by the International Commission on Non¬Ionizing Radiation Protection (ICNIRP, 1998) and the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE, 2005). It is up to national authorities to adopt these international standards to protect their citizens against adverse levels of radio wave exposure. They should restrict access to areas where exposure limits may be exceeded.

45. France has banned all wireless devices, including cell phones from all public schools starting September 2018, and California Public Health is actively educating their public regarding risk of harm from wireless radiation. Even in India, several eminent scientists have begun a crusade to caution the Government against the roll-out of 5G technology-based services in the country.

50. We can make smarter choices about the way we use technology by making changes in our everyday usage patterns. For instance, adults carrying cell phones (and other wireless devices) can either turn off the device or convert device to ‘airplane mode’ when servicing or interacting with children and pregnant mothers.

55. Precautionary measures for adults include increasing the distance, duration and frequency of wireless device use; reducing multiple device use; and reducing exposure to high wireless radiation areas. By making minor modifications to our daily routines and habits, we can try and minimize the harmful effects of wireless technology.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8)

(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest that the writer’s statement of wireless signals leading to cancer is true. (1)

(B) State any one trait of children that is evident from lines 30-35 that makes them vulnerable to harmful radio waves.

(C) The writer said that it is ‘hard-pressed’ to find a person without an access to the mobile technology. What does he mean by ‘hard-pressed’? (1)

(D) Why does the writer say that new technologies have created a horrifying situation for the human body? (1)

(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 20-25.

The fast-paced development of the GDP in Turkey has made it one of the strongest countries in the world. (1)

(F) What does the use of ‘airplane mode’ suggest in the context of the writer’s precautions for harmful signals? (1)

(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 50¬58 to complete the following sentence appropriately.

Sleep disorder can be improved if we can make in our daily routine. (1)

(H) France has banned all wireless devices in public schools. How can we this help people? (1)

(I) Analyse the ways in which parents can save their children from harmful signals.
Answer:
(A) As per the passage, in 2011, the World Health Organization’s International Agency for Research on Cancer classified wireless radiations from cell phones, baby monitors, tablets, cell towers, radar, Wi-Fi, etc. as Class 2B carcinogens. This study proves the fact that the writer’s statement of wireless signals leading to cancer is true.

(B) Children have thinner bony skulls and due to this, their neural systems are not fully developed. This makes them vulnerable to harmful radio waves.

(C) The writer said that it is ‘hard-pressed’ to find a person without an access to the mobile technology. By this, he meant that it is very difficult to find such a person.

(D) The writer says so because with the advent of new technologies in the market, it has become horrible for humans to process the signals as the body is not able to adapt or protect against harmful radio waves.

(E) Rapid growth

(F) The writer suggests switching to ‘airplane mode’ in devices as it is a mode wherein the network gets cut off from the phone and there are no signals or radio waves around the device until the mode is removed.

(G) minor modifications

(H) By limiting the use of wireless devices at certain places, the risk of harm to people from the deadly radio waves and signals can be controlled.

It is recommended for parents to keep a check on the use of mobiles and tablets by their children. Parents should limit the timings to use such devices and try to make them avoid it as much as possible.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below:

Cricket is a passion for people around the globe. It is played everywhere from test match arenas to village greens, tropical beaches, and dusty backlots. Cricket is the world’s second most popular spectator sport after soccer.

5. The origin of cricket can be traced back to the Dark Ages. All research concedes that the game is derived from a very old, popular, and uncomplicated pastime by which one player served up an object, be it a small piece of wood or a ball, and another hit it with a suitably fashioned club. The game of cricket was first recorded in 16th-century England, and it was played in grammar schools, farming communities, and everywhere in between. But things really took off when 18th-century nobles realized it was a great sport.

10. The oldest surviving set of cricket laws dates to 1744, which was printed on a handkerchief. Naturally, it’s now in the MCC Museum at Lord’s in London. The oldest permanent fixture is the annual Eton Vs Harrow match, played since 1805. A young Lord Byron turned out for Harrow in the first match, though history doesn’t record how poetic – or “mad, bad, and dangerous” – his bowling was.

15. The first international match was held in 1877 when Australia beat England in Melbourne. The match was dubbed a ‘Test’, since the grueling nature of playing over five days was deemed the ultimate test for any side. However, it was Australia’s first win on the English soil – in 1882 at The Oval in London – that led to matches between the two nations being christened as the ‘Ashes’. Following the defeat, newspapers published an obituary mourning “the death of English cricket,” adding that “the body will be cremated and the ashes taken to Australia.”

20. A One Day International (ODI) is a form of limited-overs cricket, played between two teams with international status, in which each team faces a fixed number of overs, usually 50. The Cricket World Cup is played in this format The international one-day game is a late-twentieth-century development. The first ODI was played on 5 January 1971 between Australia and England at the Melbourne Cricket Ground.

25. Table 1 represents the list of Cricket world cup winning countries as well as the runners-up for every Cricket World Cup played until 2015.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX out of the seven questions given below. (1 x 6)

(A) What does the writer mean by calling the test match as ‘grueling’? (1)

(B) What is the purpose behind keeping a track of the winning teams of Cricket World Cup? (1)

(C) With reference to the table, write one conclusion about Australia’s performance in the Cricket World Cup. (1)

(D) Identify the team that has never won a Cricket World Cup, with reference to the table. (1)

(E) The newspapers published an obituary mourning the ‘death of English Cricket’. Substantiate. (1)

(F) How can we say that cricket is one of the most beloved sports in the world, according to the passage? (1)

(G) Identify a word from lines 15-20 that indicates the process of giving a Christian name to a baby under baptism. (1)
Answer:
(A) The writer wants to justify the name of a ‘test’ match as the schedule for it is of about five days long, which is really a test for both the sides to perform for so long.

(B) It is very important to keep a track of the details of the games that are related to such a large number of spectators and have their history tracing back all the way to the 16th century.

(C) From the table, it is evident that Australia has the most number of wins from the year 1975 to 2015.

(D) According to the table, it is only New Zealand that had been a runner up in the year 2015 but had not been the winner in any year from 1975 to 2015.

(E) In the first international test match between Australia and England, the former won on the English soil. This made Englishmen feeL like they lost their precious kingship in the Cricket and so, they mourned it.

(F) Cricket is indeed one of the most beloved sports in the world as it is the world’s second most popular spectator sport after soccer, according to the passage.

(G) Christened.

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
As a coach of the District Basketball Team, you have been invited by St. Era School to coach students for a basketball match for their upcoming tournament. Draft a formal reply in not more than 50 words accepting the invitation. (3)
Answer:

Mr. Rajan Shah thanks the Principal, staff and the students of St. Era School to invite him to be the coach for their Basketball team for their upcoming Basketball tournament. He cordially accepts the invitation and would like to inform the school that he will reach the school on 23rd August 20XX at 10.00 a.m. sharp. Regards Rajan Shah District Basketball Coach

Question 4.
You have read an advertisement in the newspaper, Gwalior Times for the post of software engineer in AVD Software, Gwalior. You believe that you possess the requisite qualifications and experience and your innovative ideas will prove to be an asset to the company. Write an application in 100-120 words emphasising your strong points and your suitability for the post. Also include your bio-data. You are Dev/Devika, 1-B, Changi Street, Gwalior.

Situation Vacant
Wanted a young talented Software Engineer for AVD Software, Gwalior. The candidate must have a degree from a reputed college and minimum three years’ experience in a software company.

Contact: the HR manager, AVD Software: 9897xxxxxx
OR
You are Amit/Amita. As a Staff Reporter for Deccan Herald, write about a recent daylight robbery that took place in a house in the city, covering all the details like robbery happening in day, robbers armed with guns and bars, owners filing complaints, valuable ornaments lost, etc. in about 120-150 words.
Answer:
21-B, Changi Street
Gwalior
10th September, 20XX
The Manager
AVD Software
Gwalior

Subject: Application for the post of a Software Engineer

Respected Sir/Ma’am,

In response to your advertisement in the Gwalior Times, dated 7th September, 20XX for the post of a software engineer, I hereby offer my candidature for the same. I believe that my skills and qualifications match your requirements.

I have worked as a software engineer at Vibha Telecom for the last five years. It has been my dream to work for a magnificent company like AVD Software. My abilities are quite strong in user-interface and system coding. If given the opportunity, I am sure I will be able to prove my capabilities to you practically.

I would be glad to get this opportunity and speak more about my work in a personal interview. I am available to come to your office at your convenience. For your reference, I am enclosing my detailed bio-data along with the letter.

Sincerely,
Dev/Devi ka
Enel.: Bio-data and Work Experience Certificate

Bio-Data

Name : Dev/Devika
Father’s Name : Mr. Natwar Agarwal
Date of Birth : 2nd November 20XX
Address : 1-B, Changi Street, Gwalior
Hobbies : Reading, Music, Photography and Sports
Languages Know : Hindi, English, and Punjabi
Nationality : Indian
Educational Qualifications : Graduation in Software Engineering from IIT, Delhi Diploma in Graphic Design from Pearl Academy, Gwalior
Experience : Worked as a Manager – Technology for five years at Vibha Telecom, Gwalior
Expected Salary : Negotiable
References :

• Mr. Bharat Bansal (HOD), Pearl Academy, Gwalior
• Mrs. Poorvi Jain, HR, Vibha Telecom, Gwalior

OR

Daylight Robbery in the City
By Amit/Amita, Staff Reporter,
Deccan Herald

Agra, 2nd September, 20XX: The city witnessed a daylight robbery once again in the posh residential area. Agra’s Saket Colony which is housed by city’s rich businessmen is notorious for daylight house break-ins. As per the report filed by the couple of the house at the Saket Police Station, a group of five young robbers, who had covered their faces, broke in the house at 2:00 pm, thinking the inmates to be sleeping during the noon time. When their pet Labrador of the house constantly barked on seeing the robbers, there was a panic in the house.

The robbers were armed with two guns and iron bars. They took away gold jewellery worth 10 lac and three lac rupees in cash from the safe. In the attempt of catching the robbers, Bijoy Kapoor, the owner of the house, got beaten by the iron bar on the head. He had been injured badly with 8 stitches in his head. The police are on search for them everywhere and hope to catch them soon.

Caution :
While writing a newspaper report, if cues aren’t given in the question, students tend to give irrelevant details that read weird. In such questions, try to invent relevant details and keep it realistic.

Section – C
Literature (18 Marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, within 40 words each. (2 x 5)

(A) The peddler first declines the ironmaster’s invitation to his house but then accepts the same from Edla. Why? (2)
(B) “The battle of Champaran is won.” Explain Gandhiji’s exclamation regarding the text.
You may begin like:
A multitude of lawyers told Gandhiji that they were ready to……. (2)
(C) ‘Aunt Jennifer’s efforts to get rid of her fear proved to be futile’. Comment. (2)
(D) Rationalise how beautiful things help us to live a happy life. (2)
(E) What qualities of Mr Lamb attracted Derry to him? (2)
(F) Validate in your opinion, whose version of the Skunk’s story was better: Jo’s or Jack’s. (2)
Answer:
(A) First, the peddler declines the ironmaster’s invitation to his house because the former has the stolen thirty kronors with him and thinks it to be risky to accept the ironmaster’s invitation. However, when Edla invites him for the same, he accepts the invitation because Edla’s sympathy and compassion allays his fears and makes him comfortable. This makes him think that he is free to flee away from the house anytime as he may feel like.

(B) The peddLer was a poor rattrap seller. Everybody treated him badly and looked upon him as an unacceptable human being. No one has ever treated him with kindness and compassion and so, he had lost faith in humanity. But when he knocked at the crofter’s door, he was surprised to receive the warm welcome and the generous hospitability shown by the crofter to him.

(C) Aunt Jennifer’s effort of embroidering tigers will not get her rid of the fear that she has for her husband. It will prove futile because the poet says that even after her death, the fear of her husband’s tyranny will keep on haunting Aunt Jennifer.

(D) Yes, I do sympathise with Aunt Jennifer because she is like any other submissive housewife. She has to do all the household chores without any respite. Her husband is very cruel and often tyrannises her, which makes her an oppressed person.

(E) Derry is a young boy who is filled with pessimism and has a complex personality all due to his burnt face. On the contrary, Mr. Lamb who himself has a disability of having a tin-leg, is full of motivation, confidence and love. His words of encouragement attracted Derry towards him.

(F) In my opinion, Jack’s version of Skunk’s story was better because as a mother, mommy Skunk was correct. She wanted her son not to lose his unique identity. Their bad smell saved them from predators and mommy skunk always wanted her son to be protected. Jack’s story was correct from the end of a mother.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)

(A) A thing of beauty is a joy forever. Support the statement with reference to the poem ‘A Thing of Beauty’. Write your answer in about 120-150 words. (4)

(B) The peddler was a changed man at the end of the story ‘The Rattrap’. Examine the peddler as a person in the light of this statement, in about 120-150 words. (4)

(C) It was sheer negligence on the part of the prison staff that helped Evans to escape. Substantiate with reference to text, in about 120-150 words. (4)
Answer:
(A) The main theme or the message conveyed by the poem ’A Thing of Beauty’ is for Keats, the world of beauty is an escape from the dreary and painful life that a beautiful thing, big or small, gives a permanent joy to person. The nature has given us various rich bounties which are so beautiful to look at and feel. The poet then gives examples of the sun, moon, stars, cool water rills, sheep, daffodils and a lot more that bring instant happiness on our faces as soon as we look at them. Joy increases, with the passing time, as one realls a thing of beauty.

The world is full of grief and sorrows. But the nature has provided us so many beautiful things that give us relief from the gloom of our lives. The beauty of a thing does not get diminished with the passing time but its memories just get increased. A thing of beauty leaves a permanent imprint on our minds forever. Poetry, for Keats, exists not as an instrument of social revolt nor of philosophical doctrines, but for the expression of beauty.

(B) In the story, the peddler gets a revelation that this world is a huge ‘rattrap’ for human beings. It tempts people in the form of worldly riches, joys and materials as baits. When a person tries to get it for himself, he gets trapped into it forever. But later, when he gets easy access to steal the crofter’s thirty Kroners, he does it without giving the crofter’s trust a thought.

In this way, he himself gets attracted to the bait in the form of those thirty Kroners and then gets into the trap by finally stealing the money. He runs into the wood with the stolen money in his pocket, to get out of the place in order to avoid being caught by someone for it.

Later, when he finds that he is lost and is just spinning around the forest like a maze, he realizes that he is caught in the same rattrap that he thinks people end up in. when he loses his way in the forest, with the few kroners in his pocket.

(C) Yes, I agree that the prison staff was negligent towards Evans because when the prison authorities have taken a lot of precautions, how was it so easy for Evans to escape it? The first instance where the negligence is shown is when Officer Jackson sees Evans wearing a hat but doesn’t ask him to remove it. The hat concealed Evans’ clipped hair which he made to impersonate McLeery.

Next, the prison staff does not verify McLeery’s identity when he entered the prison. Then, the staff doesn’t recognize Evans impersonating McLeery. All this helps him to escape prison easily.

At the end, though the Governor is able to catch him red-handed at the capitaL Evans escapes once again, and this time audaciously in the prison van. Therefore, it proves that it is sheer negligence on the part of the prison staff that helps Evans to escape.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 English Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper contains THREE sections-READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
• Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

Section – A
Reading (14 Marks)

Question 1.
Read the passage given below:

The Future of Tourism
Deep in the heart of summer and a dystopian present, if there’s one desire that people share with each other now, it is to escape. If you are lucky enough to be able to take a vacation sometimes – and haven’t yet this year – it’s best to get to it while you still can, because tomorrow’s vacation, predictably, is going to be complicated.

5. As we head into the future, artificial intelligence will grow even better at predicting exactly what sort of holidays we’d like, based on our taste, and packaging the whole experience for us. So, expect those decisions to take far less time. Within a couple of decades, we’ll just be telling our digital assistants our travel dates and companions, letting them handle the rest. It won’t all be perfectly predictable though.

10. Climate change will mean that many summer destinations will become less idyllic, leading to tourism switching to new places. The deepening climate crisis will also lead to various regions becoming more dangerous in terms of hurricanes and tsunami risks. Heading further into the future, we are also going to see a few travel experiences disappear because of the damage we are doing to the environment. Visit coral reef and go on a safari as soon as

15. possible – if those are on your bucket list – those plants and animals might not be there for much longer. New experiences will arrive, on the other hand – giant malls in the Middle East are already providing experiences from skiing to diving indoors.

20. Another inevitable prospect is regulation. Most major tourist hubs are already groaning under the influx of thousands of holidaymakers, so expect higher tourist taxes, or even limits on the number of tourists allowed. After all, we live in a time where even Mount Everest is overcrowded with tourists! There’s also likely to be political instability worldwide, of course, but you will have to look beyond travel. A! will keep track of that. Plane travel might not get significantly faster, but airlines will deploy lower- carbon-

25. footprint technology, airport check-ins will turn biometric to more invasive, but more efficient, they’ll claim – and luggage will get smarter and more difficult to lose despite airlines’ best efforts. You will have more stay options- post-Airbnb home-renting experiences, social travel companies and new tools for interfacing between tourists and locals.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer ANY EIGHT questions from the nine given below. (1 x 8)
(A) Cite a point in evidence, from the text, to suggest the writer’s view of limiting the number of visitors to famous tourist places will occur in future. (1)
(B) State any one reason of visiting safari and coral reefs as soon as possible that is evident from lines 10-18. (1)
(C) The writer thinks that in future ‘digital assistants’ will plan our travels. Why does he think that? (1)
(D) What might be the writer’s intention behind suggesting people to take vacations as soon as they can? (1)
(E) Rewrite the given sentence by replacing the underlined phrase with another one, from lines 16-24. (1)
The entrance examination of NEET is an unavoidable aspect in the journey of becoming a doctor.
(F) What does the use of the phrase ‘it is to escape’ suggest in the context of the writer’s viewpoint about the holidays? (1)
(G) Select a suitable phrase from lines 15-25 to complete the following sentence appropriately. As soon as the mall announced black sale, it went of shoppers. (1)
(H) The vacation in the future will be ‘complicated’. What will complicate the vacations? (1)
(I) Analyse the writer’s motive of writing the context from the tourism point of view. (1)
Answer:
(a) In the passage, the writer says that today, even Mount Everest that is so difficult to climb or even visit, is full of tourists. This increases the possibility of limiting the number of visitors to famous tourist places in future.

(B) The reason why writer suggests visiting the safari or coral reefs is the possible future climate change that will vanish the precious flora and fauna from the world.

(C) The way the artificial intelligence is devel¬oping in the current time, the writer thinks that within a couple of decades, the digital assistant will be there to handle or travel plans.

(D) The writer, through his suggestions, wants people to become aware of the deadly environmental changes that are about to happen in the near future.

(E) Inevitable prospect.

(F) The writer, through the given phrase, means to say that the biggest desire of people in today’s hopeless time, is to get away from their busy world and go on holidays.

(G) under the influx

(H) The dreadful climate changes and the possible environmental changes will complicate the vacations in the future.

(I) The writer wants to give an eye-opener regarding the changes in the nature that will soon occur. The writer opted for tourism point of view in order to grab the interest of the readers and make them realize the problem via it.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below:
Quitting smoking is extremely important – the, biggest reason is that smoking affects nearly every organ of your body. But now, you have an even more immediate reason to kick the habit – COVID-19. While the novel Coronavirus can infect anyone, smokers, in particular, are more prone to fall victim to it. It causes extensive damage to various vital organs and systems of the human body. However, the lungs continue

5. to remain one of the most affected organs. In smokers, the lung function is already impaired, which makes it more difficult for the body to fight off the coronaviruses. Also, as per the newspaper reports “the act of smoking involves contact of fingers and lips and sharing of smoking products, which facilitates the transmission of the virus. So, even those who smoke sparingly are at risk of contracting COVID-19:

10. While it’s crucial that everyone is saved from contracting Covid-19 in the first place, it’s equally important that we do all we cah to keep our lungs healthy in order to avoid the worst effects of the pandemic. For smokers, quitting smoking is an important part of this effort. Once you quit smoking, your body begins to repair the damage, and over time, the risk of life-threatening health problems attacking you reduces dramatically.

15. However, for best results, this should be done in a safe and effective manner. For this, the World Health Organization (WHO) and the United States Food and Drug Administration (USFDA) have recommended using proven interventions such as Nicotine Replacement Therapy (NRT). To help smokers quit using the Nicotine Replacement Therapy, over-the-counter NRTs are easily available. And in India, Nicotex is one of the biggest brands in this category.

20. Cigarette smoking and Covid-19 may be a deadly combination. In smokers, the above- mentioned health problems, coupled with COVID-19, may result in more serious health outcomes. The lung function in smokers is already impaired, and so, as a lung infection, Covid-19 aggressively attacks their lungs, making the situation worse or even resulting in a fatality.

25. As per WHO, “compared to non-smokers, patients who are smokers tend to need more intensive care and ventilation”. Also, fatality rates due to COVID-19 are higher amongst people with chronic respiratory disease. (Source: The Economic Times)

30. A cross-sectional study was conducted to evaluate whether the rate of daily smokers in patients with COVID-19 was different to that in the French population. The participants were COVID-19-infected in- and outpatients in a large French university hospital between February 28, 2020 and March 30, 2020 for outpatients and from March 23, till April 9, 2020 for inpatients. The participants were interviewed on their smoking status, use of cigarette and nicotinic substitutes.

35. The findings of the study revealed that the inpatient group was composed of340 patients, median age 66years: 203 men (59.7%, median age 66 years) and 137 women (40.3%, median age 66 years), with a rate of daily smokers of 4.1% 095% [2.3 – 6.9] (5.4% of men and 2.2% of women). The outpatient group was composed of 139 patients, median age 44 years: 62 men (44.6%, median age 43 years, and 77 women (55.4 %, median age 44 years).

The daily smokers’ rate was 6.1 % 095% [2.7 11.6] (5.1% of men and 6.8 % of women). In the French population, the daily smokers’ rate was – 25.4% (28.2% of men and 22.9% of women).

Table 1-Clinical Characteristics and Smoking Habits of COVID-19 Patients

40. The rate of daily smokers was significantly lower in COVID-19 patients, as compared to that in the French general population after standardization by age and sex. The cross – sectional study in both COVID-19 out- and inpatients shows that daily smokers rate in patients with symptomatic COVID-19 is lower as compared to the general population.

On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer ANY SIX questions from the seven given below. (1 x 6)

(A) What does the researcher mean by saying ‘smokers being more prone to fall victim to novel corona virus’. (1)
(B) The writer thinks that smokers should quit smoking ‘safely and effectively. Why does he think that it should be ‘safe and effective? (1)
(C) With reference to the table, write one conclusion about inpatients with high blood pressure. (1)
(D) What can be concluded by the ‘current active/occasional smoker’ with reference to the table? (1)
(E) It is easier for virus to spread amongst smokers. Substantiate. (1)
(F) Why is smoking and COVID called as ‘deadly combination’? (1)
(G) Identify a word from lines 6-12 indicating an infrequent manner. (1)
Answer:
(A) By the given statement, the researcher mean that as the most affected organ by corona virus is the lung, smokers are more prone to fall victim to it as their lung system is already affected by smoking.

(B) The writer says that smokers should quit smoking ‘safely and effectively’ because when smokers quit directly without relying on any interventions, the chances of relapsing and ill health are higher.

(C) In the table, it is clear that the number of male inpatients with high blood pressure is more than the females.

(D) The ‘current active/occasional smoker’ clearly shows a tremendous difference in the number of smokers in males and females. A very high per cent of smokers belong to males.

(E) It is easier for virus to spread amongst smokers as they share the smokes with each other and the same come in contact with their lips, making them a weak target.

(F) As both the smoking and COVID affects the same vital organ of the body that is lungs, the combination of both smoking and COVID together is called deadly as it leads to fatalities together.

(G) Sparingly.

Section – B
Writing (8 Marks)

Question 3.
The Science Club of your school is organizing a NASA WORLD for the students to take a deep look at the scientific progress of humans. As the Secretary of the Club, draft an invitation to invite the famous Indian Scientist Sr. C.P. Pohai to be the Guest of Honour for the event. You are Shivam/ Shivangi Bhist. (3)
Answer:

The Principal, Staff and the Students of St. Thomas School, Indore invite you to the NASA WORLD As The Guest of Honour For the exclusive event on Monday, the 4th of December 20XX At The Thomas Hall RSVP Shivam/Shivangi Bhisht Secretary, Science Club, St. Thomas School Ph.: 051-234xxxx

Question 4.
You are Mandana/Mandeep from 21/3, Preet Vihar, Delhi. Write an application along with a bio-data in 120-150 words in response to the following advertisement in a local daily.

Wanted an experienced Basketball coach having BPEd Degree for our school. Apply to the Principal, Holy Public School, Noida by 10th September, 20XX.

OR
You are Rajesh Jha, the Sports Captain of your school G.D. Goenka. The annual sports were conducted last month. As the annual sports reporter, write a report in 120-150 words on the conduct of the same, covering all the details like chief guests, march past, activities, award ceremony, etc.
Answer:
21/3, Preet Vihar
Delhi
8th September, 20XX
The Principal
Holy Public School
Noida

Subject: Application for the post of basketball coach.

Sir/Ma’am,
In response to your advertisement in Deccan Herald, dated 6th September, 20XX, for the position of a Basketball coach for your school, I hereby offer my candidature for the same. I believe that my experience and background fit your requirements for the position.

I have a decade of wonderful experience as the Basketball coach for Bal Vidya Mandir, Noida. Apart from being a Basketball coach, I also run my training institute for Basketball enthusiasts. I am a Master degree in Physical Education. I can assure that I can work well with the students of your prestigious school.

You may call me for an interview on any date as per your convenience. I shall be able to join my duties at one month’s notice if appointed. As requested, I have enclosed my bio-data with this letter.

Yours sincerely.
Mandana/Mandeep
Enel.: Bio-data

Bio-Data
Father’s Name : Mr. Sanskrit Awasthi
Age : 43 years
Address : 21/3, Preet Vihar, Delhi
Habbies : PLaying, training, boxing, cricket
Languages Known : Hindi and English Indian
Educational Qualifications : Post Graduation in Physical Education(MPEd) from Ramjas College, Delhi Diploma in Basketball Training from FIT Academy, Gurgaon.
Experience : Basketball Coach in Bal Vidya Mandir, Noida for ten years
Expected Salary : 55,000 to be least
References :
(i) Mrs. Pooja Jha Singh (Director), FIT Academy, Gurgaon, 9897xxxxxx
(ii) Mr. Sneh Yadav (Senior Coach), Bal Vidya Mandir, Noida, 9234xxxxxx

Caution :
Students give general qualifications in the letter that doesn’t match with the asked one. Do invent the qualification details so as to match it with the asked requirement in the advertisement.
OR
13th Annual Sports Day
by Rajesh Jha, Sports Captain
G.D. Goeanka organized its 13th Annual Sports Day on 15th November, 20XX in its Goenka Sports Play area. Honorable Miss Manisha Jain, the winner of Tennis Championship 202XX was invited as the Chief Guest who was warmly welcomed by the Principal and the staff members.The event started with welcoming the eminent personalities, followed by the march past organised by the senior students of the schooL It also included various jumps, races and drills.

The winners were awarded the medals by the chief guest. After the award ceremony, Miss Manisha gave a speech wherein she congratulated the winners and encouraged the students to take up sports and make it their career options for the glory of the nation. The event was a huge success where students and parents felt delighted. After the event was over, Miss Manisha was surrounded by a multitude of students who waited for long to take autographs and pictures with her.

Section – C
Literature (18 Marks)

Question 5.
Answer ANY FIVE of the six questions given below, with in 40 words each. (2 x 5)
(A) How did the Champaran peasants react when they heard that a Mahatma had come to help them? (2)
(B) Crofter’s act surprised the peddler. Highlight the act of the crofter that is being talked about in the given statement with reference to the story ‘The Rattrap’.
You may begin your answer like this:
The peddler was a poor rattrap seller. Everybody treated him badly and looked upon him as….. (2)
(C) Explain the statement, ‘Therefore are we wreathing a flowery band to bind us to earth’. (2)
(D) Rationalize why Aunt Jennifer’s hands are ‘fluttering through her wool’ and she is finding the needle so hard to pull. (2)
(E) Why did Evans not take off his hat when Jackson ordered him to do so? (2)
(F) Jo wasn’t happy with Mommy Skunk hitting the wizard. Explain. (2)
Answer:
(A) When the peasants heard the news that Gandhiji had come to Champaran to help them getting justice, they got so happy and zealous to meet him. Many came on foot to meet him while many came by conveyance. The lawyers that were handling the matters of the peasants also came to brief Gandhiji regarding the agreement.

All these characteristics were in the contrast with Aunt Jennifer’s characteristics. The poet, through the selection of tigers on the panel, might have suggested the inner suppressed desires of the aunt to be fierce and fearless like tigers. She would have wanted to roam around independently and bravely like tigers, without having to fear her husband and her responsibilities towards her home.

(B) The peddler was a poor rattrap seller. Everybody treated him badly and looked upon him as an unacceptable human being. No one has ever treated him with kindness and compassion and so, he had lost faith in humanity. But when he knocked at the crofter’s door, he was surprised to receive the warm welcome and the generous hospitability shown by the crofter to him.

(C) The given statement suggests that when we pluck fresh flowers to make a garland, it makes us come closer to nature and its beauty. The garland of flowers binds us together with the earth and its bounties.

(D) The given phrase is used by the poet in both literal and metaphorical sense. Literally, as Aunt Jennifer for has grown old and weak, she doesn’t have enough strength to pull through the needle. Metaphorically, her nervousness and fright from her household circumstances has made it difficult for her to pull throw the needle.

(E) Evans did not take off his hat when the senior prison guard, Mr Jackson ordered him to do so. This was because it was a part of Evans escape plan. He wanted to disguise himself as McLeery for which he had to fold his hair short with the help of pins. Thus, he had to hide his head inside his cap.

(F) Jo wasn’t happy with Mommy Skunk hitting the wizard. She didn’t like the fact that mommy wanted the wizard to change the smell of roses back to his original bad smell According to Jo, mommy Skunk could not be justified in her act of hitting the wizard.

Question 6.
Answer ANY TWO of the following in about 120 words each. (4 x 2)
(A) Aunt Jennifer created animals that were so different from her own character. Expound with a rationale. Write your answer in about 120-150 words. (4)
(B) Gandhiji’s was not a loyalty to abstractions; it was a loyalty to living, human beings. Examine Gandhiji in the light of this statement in about 120-150 words. (4)
(C) The story, ‘Should Wizard Hit Mommy’ bear testimony to the fact that the frustrations faced by adults and their personal experiences often intrude upon their interaction with their children. Substantiate with reference to the text in about 120-150 words. (4)
Answer:
(A) Aunt Jennifer was a very timid and a weak character. She was an oppressed domestic housewife who was so frightened of her husband. She had no courage to take a stand for herself or her own happiness. Her character was totally different from the creatures of tigers which she embroided on the panel as tigers symbolize strength, courage, bravery, chivalry and fierceness.

All these characteristics were in the contrast with Aunt Jennifer’s characteristics. The poet, through the selection of tigers on the panel, might have suggested the inner suppressed desires of the aunt to be fierce and fearless like tigers. She would have wanted to roam around independently and bravely like tigers, without having to fear her husband and her responsibilities towards her home.

(B) When the case of Champaran was won by Gandhiji and the sharecroppers, the former decided ,o prolong his stay at Champaran. The reason behind this was that Gandhiji realized that the village needed a lot of developments to be done for the sake of people living there. Gandhiji took the initiative of eradicating the cultural and social backwardness of the place. He introduced primary school to educate the poor peasants and their children.

Gandhiji appealed to teachers, and many of his disciples, including his wife and son, to volunteer for the good work. Health conditions in the area were also miserable, so Gandhiji got a doctor to volunteer his services for six months in Champaran. Thus, Gandhiji’s loyalty was not to abstractions; his politics was always intertwined with the practical day-to-day problems of the millions.

(C) It is true that frustrations faced by adults and their personal experiences often intrude upon their interaction with their children. We can see this in the story ‘Should Wizard hit Mommy?’ that when Jo was not ready to accept Jack’s ending of the story, she started interrupting and asking questions that irritated Jack.

As a father himself, he couldn’t agree to what Jo was asking him to do with the story. Jo felt that the wizard should hit Mommy Skunk back as revenge. Bt Jack was frustrated as Mommy Skunk was a ‘mother’ and a mother could not be beaten for thinking good of her child.

Also, we noticed that Jack pondered over while telling Jo about Skunk’s bullying by his friends. He looked despaired. This shows that may be he himself faced some sort of bully in his childhood and his mother would have done the exact same thing that the Mommy Skunk did for her child. So, Jack might be recalling his own incidents while narrating the story and that is why he was getting frustrated on Jo for interrupting him continuously.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 8 with Solutions

Maximum Marks: 35
Time: 2 hours

Instructions:

• The question paper is divided into 3 sections – A, B and C.
• Section A, consists of 7 questions (1-7). Each question carries 2 marks.
• Section B, consists of 3 questions (8-10). Each question carries 3 marks.
• Section C, consists of 3 questions (11-13). Each question carries 4 marks.
• Internal choices have been given for question numbers 7, 8 and 12.

Section – A
(Each question carries 2 Marks)

Question 1.
Give any two operations that are performed on data structure.
Answer:
Insertion It means addition of a new data element in a data structure.
Deletion It means removal of a data element from a data structure. The data element is searched before its removal.

Question 2.
(i) Expand the following
(a) SMTP
(b) HTML
Answer:
(a) SMTP – Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
(b) HTML – HyperText Markup Language

(ii) Which topology contains a backbone cable running through the whole length of the network?
Answer:
Bus topology

Question 3.
Explain any four constraints used in DBMS.
Answer:
There are some types of constraints are

1. NOT NULL Constraint It ensures that a column cannot store NULL value.
2. UNIQUE Constraint It is used to uniquely identify each record in a database.
3. PRIMARY KEY Constraint It ensures that a column have a unique identity, which helps to find a particular record in a table and no column that is part of the primary key constraint can contain a NULL value.
4. FOREIGN KEY Constraint It designates a column or combination of columns as a foreign key and establishes its relationship with a primary key in different tables.

Question 4.
A result is extracted from the database using the cursor object by giving the following statement.

d = cursor . fetcha 11 ( )

(i) How many records will be returned by fetchall() method?
Answer:
All records

(ii) What will be the datatype of object d after the given command is executed?
Answer:
List of tuples

Question 5.
Observe a table ITEM and give the output of following queries.

(i) SELECT SUM (Qty) FROM ITEM WHERE Name LIKE “S%;
Answer:

(ii) SELECT MAX (Qty) FROM ITEM;
Answer:

(iii) SELECT Itemno, Name FROM ITEM WHERE Qty < 50 AND Name LIKE “%u%”;
Answer:

(iv) SELECT Name, Date FROM ITEM WHERE Date LIKE “%12%”;
Answer:

Question 6.
(i) Which component of database system consists of various secondary storage devices on which data is stored?
Answer:
Hardware

(ii) Which type of language of SQL provides statements for creation and deletion of the database tables, views?
Answer:
DDL (Data Definition Language)

Question 7.
Write answer the following questions, which are based on table PERSON given below.

(i) What is cardinality and degree of a relation?
(ii) Display all the person record of age 18 to 22.
Or
(i) Alter table add CITY column in it as a type character.
(ii) Identify the candidate keys of table PERSON.
Answer:
(i) Cardinality – 5, Degree – 4
(ii) SELECT *FR0M PERSON WHERE AGE BETWEEN 18 AND 22;
Or
(i) ALTER TABLE PERSON ADD CITY CHAR(20);
(ii) PID, FNAME, LNAME

Section – B
(Each question carries 3 Marks)

Question 8.
Suppose STACK is allocated 6 memory locations and initially STACK is empty (Top = 0).
Give the output of the program segment.

AAA = 4 BBB = 6
Push (STACK, AAA)
Push (STACK, 4)
Push (STACK, BBB + 2)
Push (STACK, AAA + BBB)
Push (Top > 0):
Element = STACK, pop ( ) print (Element)

Or

Write the Push operation of stack containing person names. Notice that the name should only accept characters, spaces and period (.) except digits. Assume that Pname is a class instance attribute.
Answer:
Output
10
10
8
4
4

Or

def insert():
name_pattern = re.compile (r “[A - Za - zs.]")
while True : n = input ("Enter name:”)
while name_pattern. search (n): :
print (“Invalid name”)
print (“Enter name correctly”)
n = input( )
Sname. append (n)
c = input (“Enter more name <y/n>”).upper ( )
if (c! = ‘y’):
break

Question 9.
(i) Write the syntax to add a column into a table using SQL command.
Answer:
ALTER TABLE table_name ADD
column_name datatype;

(ii) Explain the following SQL commands in brief.
(a) UPDATE
Answer:
UPDATE It is used to modify existing record in a table.
e.g. Change city value of a person to DELHI for PID 101.
UPDATE TABLE SET CITY=‘DELHI’
WHERE PID = 101;

(b) INSERT
Answer:
INSERT It is-used to insert new values in the existing table.
e.g. Add one row with values in a PERSON table.
INSERT INTO PERS0N(PID, FNAME, LNAME, AGE) VALUES(108, ‘Geeta’, ‘Sharma’, 23);

Question 10.
Create a database HUMAN in MySQL. Also, create a table PERSON with given constraints and data types for each column.
PID – Numeric and primary key, FNAME – Character max length 20, cannot be empty,
LNAME – Character max 20 length, AGE – Numeric and must be at least 18.
Answer:
CREATE DATABASE HUMAN;
CREATE TABLE PERSON (
PID INT,
FNAME CHAR(20) NOT NULL,
LNAME CHAR(20),
AGE INT, CHECK (AGE > = 18),
PRIMARY KEY(PID));

Section C
(Each question carries 4 Marks)

Question 11.
Consider the following tables STUDENT and STREAM. Write SQL commands for the statements (i) to (iv).

(i) To display the name of streams in alphabetical order from table STREAM.
Answer:
SELECT STRNAME FROM STREAM ORDER BY STRNAME;

(ii) To display the number of students whose POINTS are more than 5.
Answer:
SELECT COUN(*) FROM STUDENT WHERE POINTS > 5;

(iii) To update GRADE to A’ for all those students, who are getting more than 8 as POINTS.
Answer:
UPDATE STUDENT SET GRADE = ‘A’ WHERE POINTS > 8;

(iv) ARTS+MATHS stream is no more available. Make necessary change in table STREAM.
Answer:
DELETE FROM STREAM WHERE STRNAME = ‘ARTS + MATHS’;

Question 12.
(i) Explain FTP and telnet network protocols in brief.
Or
Define terms – internet and intranet.
Answer:
FTP The File Transfer Protocol is a standard communication protocol used for the transfer of computer files from a server to a client on a computer network. FTP is built on a client-server model architecture using separate control and data connections between the client and the server.

Telnet This is also called as Remote login. It is used to make connection between remote computers. After establishment of connection with remote host, the telnet client becomes a virtual terminal. It provides an error free connection.

Or

Internet Internet is a called as network of networks, where many networks are connected together to make a big worldwide network, which can be accessed by the general public, anywhere anytime. The network connected can be related with business, finance, game, education, etc. These network can share their data, information, documents on the networks using WWW.

Intranet This type of network belongs to only one organisation. Means if the devices of one organisation are connected with each other with an objective to share data with each other then it is called as Intranet.

(ii) Answer the following
(a) Write any two benefits of using computer network.
(b) What do you mean by data transfer rate?
Answer:
(a) Two benefits of using computer network are

1. File Sharing Computer network helps connected user is sharing of data and files with each other.
2. User Communication Connected user can send and receive messages with each other, using email, chat or other applications of messaging.

(b) Data Transfer Rate Data travels in the form of signals over a channel. One signal carries one or more bits over the channel. Data transfer rate is the number of bits transmitted between source and destination in one second. It is also known as bit rate. It is measured in terms of bits per second (bps).

Question 13.
A School in Dehradun has three blocks A, B and C. It is required to setup a network in the school. The head office of the school is in Delhi.

Distance between blocks are as follows
A to C – 100m
A to B – 40m
B to C – 55m
Dehradun Campus to Delhi Head Office – 350km

Number of computers installed at each building

A	15
B	100
C	30
Head Office	10

(i) Suggest most suitable place to install a server.
Answer:
Most suitable building is B block to install a server because it has maximum number of computers.

(ii) Suggest a layout to connect these blocks for wired channel in Dehradun campus.
Answer:

(iii) Suggest placement of switch device in network.
Answer:
Switch needs in every building as they help in sharing of bandwidth.

(iv) The School is planning to make an admission office in Chandigarh far from approximately 300 km, which type of network will be formed (LAN, MAN, WAN)?
Answer:
WAN will be the network as the distance is beyond LAN or MAN.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 9 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Accountancy Standard Term 2 Set 9 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This question paper comprises two Parts – A and B. There are 12 questions in the question paper. Alt1 questions are compulsory.
• Part-A is compulsory for all candidates.
• Part-B has two options i.e., (i) Analysis of Financial Statements and (ii) Computerized Accounting. Students must attempt only one. of the given options.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

PART-A
(Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organisations, Partnership Firms and Companies)

Question 1.
Calculate the amount of subscriptions which will be treated as income for the year ended 31st March, 2021 for each of the following cases:
(i) Subscriptions collected during the year ended 31^st March, 2021 amounted to ₹ 2,50,000.
(ii) Subscriptions in arrear for the year ended 31^st March, 2021 amounted to ₹ 6,000.
(iii) Subscriptions in arrear for the year ended 31^st March, 2020 amounted to ₹ 4,000.
(iv) Subscriptions received in advance for the year ended 31st March, 2022 amounted to ₹ 5,000. (2)
Answer:

Question 2.
Arun, Barun and Charu are sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 :1. Barun retires and on the day of
Barun’s retirement Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 60,000. Arun and Charu decided to share future profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. Pass necessary journal entry for the treatment of goodwill. Also show workings clearly. (2)
Answer:

Working Notes:
(1) Calculation of Gaining Ratio:
Old Profit Sharing Ratio of Arun, Barun and Charu = 3 : 2 : 1
New Profit Sharing Ratio of Arun and Charu = 3 : 2
Gaining Ratio = New Profit Sharing Ratio – Old Profit Sharing Ratio
Arun’s Gain = \(\frac{3}{5}-\frac{3}{6}\) = \(\frac{18-15}{30}\) = \(\frac{3}{30}\)
Charu’s Gain = \(\frac{2}{5}-\frac{1}{6}\) = \(\frac{12-5}{30}\) = \(\frac{7}{30}\)
Gaining Ratio of Arun and Charu = 3 : 7

(2) Calculation of Barun’s Share of Profit:
Goodwill of Firm = ₹ 60,000
Barun’s share of Goodwill = ₹ 60,000 × \(\frac{2}{6}\) = ₹ 20,000
which will be compensated by Arun and Charu in their gaining ratio.
Arun will compensate = ₹ 20,000 × \(\frac{3}{10}\) = ₹ 6,000
Charu will compensate = ₹ 20,000 × \(\frac{7}{10}\) = ₹ 14,000

Question 3.
State the provisions of Section 48 of the Partnership Act, 1932 regarding settlement of Accounts
during the Dissolution of a Partnership Firm. (2)
Answer:
According to Section 48 of the Partnership Act, 1932:
(1) Losses including the deficiencies of Capitals are to be paid:

• First out of profits
• Next out of Capitals of the partners
• Lastly if required, by the partners individually in their profit sharing ratio (as their liability is unlimited)

(2) The Assets of the firm and the amount contributed by the partners to make up the deficiency of capital shall be applied for:

• First to pay the debts of the firm to the third parties.
• Next, Partners Loan(Partner has advanced to the firm)
• Partners capitals
• The residue, if any shall be distributed among the partners in their profit sharing ratio.

Question 4.
Present the following information for the year ended 31st March, 2020 in the financial statements of a Not-for-Profit Organisation:

Particulars	Amount (₹)
Opening balance of Match Fund	10,00,000
Sale of Match Tickets	7,50,000
Donations for Match Fund received during the year	2,48,000
Match Expenses	20,00,000

OR
Present the following information for the year ended 31^st March, 2020 in the financial statements of a Not-for-Profit Organisation:

Receipts	01.04.2019 (₹)	31.03.2020 (₹)
Creditors for Stationery	8,000	6,000
Stock of Stationery	3,000	3,200

During 2019-20 payment made for Stationery was ₹ 60,000.
Answer:

OR

Question 5.
In a partnership firm, prince, Rani and Raja are partners hsaring profits and loses of the firm in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 1. On 1^st April, 2020, Rani died.

It is provided in the partnership deedof the firm that on the death of any partner, deceased partner’s show of goodwill will be valued at half of the profits credit to his/her account during previous four completed years.

The profits or lossesof the firm of lart four years are as:
2016-17 – ₹ 3,60,000 (Profit)
2017-18 – ₹ 1,80,000 (Profit)
2018-19 – ₹ 60,000 (Loss)
2019-20 – ₹ 2,40,000 (Profit

You are required to:
(A) Determine the amount that should be credited to Rani’s Capital Account as her share of goodwill.
(B) Pass journal entry for adjustment of goodwill assuming that Prince and Raja will share future
profits and losses is the ratio of 3 : 3, when Goodwill Account is opened. (3)
Answer:
(A) Total profit of 4 years = ₹ 3,60,000 + ₹ 1,80,000 – ₹ 60,000 + ₹ 2,40,000 = ₹ 7,20,000
Rani’s Share in profit already credited to her account = ₹ 7,20,000 x \(\frac{5}{8}\)
= ₹ 2,70,000
∴ Rani’s Share of Goodwill = ₹ 2,70,000 x \(\frac{1}{2}\)
= ₹ 1,35,000

Question 6.
On 1^st April, 2020, Yashika Ltd. issued 500, 9% Debentures of ₹ 500 each at a discount of 4% and redeemable at a premium of 5% after three years.
Pass necessary journal entries in the books of the company for interest on debentures for the year ended 31^st March, 2021 assuming that interest is payable on 30^th September and 31st March and the rate of tax deducted at source is 10%. The company closes its books on 31 March every year.
OR
Saviour Limited took a loan of ₹ 45,00,000 from Punjab National Bank against the security of tangible assets. In addition to principal security, it issued 35,000 12% Debentures of ₹ 100 each as collateral security.

Pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions, if the company decided to record the issue of 12% Debentures as collateral security and show the presentation in the Balance Sheet of Saviour Limited. (3)
Answer:


OR

Question 7.
A, B and C are partners in a partnership firm sharing profits and losses in the proportion of 1/2, 1/3, 1/6 respectively. They dissolve the partnership firm on 31^st March, 2020 when the Balance Sheet of the firm stood as under:

The Machinery was taken over by B for ₹ 45,000, A took over the Investments for ₹ 40,000 and Freehold property took over by ‘C’ at ₹ 55,000. The remaining Assets realised as follows: Sundry Debtors ₹ 56,500 and Stock ₹ 36,500.

Sundry Creditors were settled at discount of 7%. A office computer, not shown in the books of accounts realised ₹9,000. Realisation expenses amounted to ₹ 3,000.
Prepare Realisation Account and Capital Account of Partners.
OR
Anita, Babita and Geeta are partners in ‘Pleasant Limited’ sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 :1. The Balance Sheet of the firm as at 31^st March, 2021 was:

Babita retires from the partnership firm on 1^st April, 2021 on the following terms:
(i) Provision for Doubtful Debts be raised by ₹ 1,000.
(ii) Stock to be reduced by 10% and Furniture by 5%.
(iii) There is an outstanding claim of damages of ₹ 1,100 and it is to be provided for.
(iv) Creditors will be written back by ₹ 6,000.
(v) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 22,000.
(vi) Babita is paid in full with the cash brought in by Anita and Geeta in such a manner that their capitals are in proportion to their profit sharing ratio and Cash in Hand in the firm remains at ₹ 10,000.
You are required to prepare Revaluation Account and Partners’ Capital Accounts at the time of Babita’s retirement. (5)
Answer:


OR


Working Notes:
(1) Calculation of Profit Sharing Ratio:
Old Profit Sharing Ratio of Anita, Babita and Geeta = 3 : 2 : 1
Babita retires from the firm.
New Profit Sharing Ratio of Anita and Geeta = 3 : 1 and
Gaining Ratio of Anita and Geeta = 3 : 1

(2) Adjustment of Goodwill:
Goodwill of Firm = ₹ 22,000
Babita’s Share of Goodwill = ₹ 22,000 × \(\frac{2}{6}\) = ₹ 7,333
This share of goodwill will be compensated by Anita and Geeta in their gaining ratio, i.e., 3 : 1
Anita will compensate = ₹ 7,333 × \(\frac{3}{4}\) = ₹ 5,500
Geeta will compensate = ₹ 7,333 × \(\frac{1}{4}\) = ₹ 1,833

(3) Adjustment of Partners’ Capital after Babita’s Retirement:
Amount to be brought in by Anita and Geeta = Cash to be paid to Babita + Minimum Balance of
Cash – Existing Balance of Cash
= ₹ 48,200 + ₹ 10,000 – ₹ 18,000
= ₹ 40,200
Combined Capital of Anita and Geeta after of all adjustments = ₹ 35,800 + ₹ 28,600
= ₹ 64,400
Total Capital of the New Firm = Amount to be brought in by Anita and Geeta +
Combined Capital of Anita and Geeta
= ₹ 40,200 + ₹ 64,400
= ₹ 1,04,600

Anitas New Capital = ₹ 1,04,600 × \(\frac{3}{4}\) = ₹ 78,450
Geeta’s New Capital = ₹ 1,04,600 × \(\frac{3}{4}\) = ₹ 26,150

Question 8.
Tiara Traders Limited was incorporated on 1^st April, 2016 with registered office in Pune. The company’s profit grows year after year, and it begins to expand its operations throughout India. To expand their business in Madhya Pradesh, CEO of the company decided to purchase the business of Khaja Foods Limited, a well-known firm of FMCG in Madhya Pradesh.

On 1^st April, 2020 Tiara Traders Limited bought the business of Khaja Foods Limited consisting Stock-in-Trade of ₹ 12,00,000, building of ₹ 20,00,000 and other sundry assets of ₹ 40,00,000 and loan of ₹ 5,00,000 and sundry creditors of ₹ 15,00,000 for a consideration of ₹ 61,44,000.

Tiara Traders Limited issued 12% Debentures of ₹ 100 each fully paid, at a discount of 4% in satisfaction of purchase consideration to Khaja Foods Limited. On 18^th May, 2020, the company also issued 100, 10% Debentures of ₹ 100 each credited as fully paid-up to the underwriters towards their commission.

You are required to answer the following questions:
(A) Calculate the amount of Goodwill purchased by Tiara Traders Limited of Khaja Foods Limited.
(B) Pass journal entry for the purchase of business of Khaja Foods Limited.
(C) Calculate the number of debentures issued to Khaja Foods Limited.
(D) Pass journal entry for the allotment of debentures to Khaja Foods Limited.
(E) Pass journal entry for the allotment of debentures to the underwriters. (5)
Answer:
(A) Amount of Goodwill = Purchase Consideration – (Value of Assets – VaLue of Liabilities)
= ₹ 61,44,000 – (₹ 72,00,000 – ₹ 20,00,000)
= ₹ 9,44,000

Question 9.
From the following Receipts and Payments Account of Satnam Club and the information supplied, prepare Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31st March, 2020 and calculate Capital Fund as on 31st March, 2019:

Additional Information:
(i) The club has 750 members each paying an annual subscription of ₹ 1,000. Subscriptions Outstanding on 31^st March, 2019 were ₹ 1,80,000.
(ii) On 31^st March, 2020, Salaries Outstanding amounted to ₹ 60,000.
(iii) Salaries paid in the year ended 31^st March, 2020 included ₹ 1,80,000 for the year ended 31^st March, 2019.
(iv) On 1st April, 2019, the club owned Land & Building valued at ₹ 60,00,000; Furniture ? 6,00,000 and Books ₹ 6,00,000.
(v) Provide depreciation on Furniture at 10%. (5)
Answer:

PART-B
Option-1
(Anaiysis of Financial Statements)

Question 10.
Classify the following transactions as Operating Activities for a financial company and a non- financial company:
(A) Dividend received on Shares
(B) Purchase of shares on a Stock Exchange
Answer:
(A) Dividend received on Shares – Financial Company
(B) Purchase of shares on a Stock Exchange – Financial Company

Question 11.
From the following provided from the Statement of Profit and Loss of Lotus Ltd. for the year ended 31^st March, 2021 and 2022, prepare Comparative Statement of Profit and Loss:

Particulars	31stMarch, 2021	31stMarch, 2020
Revenue from Operations	28,00,000	16,00,000
Other Incomes	12,00,000	8,00,000
Other Expenses	34,00,000	22,00,000

Rate of Income Tax was 40%
OR
Prepare Common Size Income Statement from the following information provided of Gungun Limited for the year ending 31^st March, 2021:

Particulars	Amount
Revenue from Operations	7,50,000
Other Incomes	30,000
Purhases of Stock-in-Trade	3,75,000
Changes in Inventories of Stock-in-Trade	25,000
Other Expenses	1,05,000

(3)
Answer:


OR

Question 12.
Following is the Balance Sheet of Mevanca Limited as at 31^st March, 2021:

Notes to Accounts:


Additional Information:
(i) Additional loan was taken on 1^st July, 2020.
(ii) Tax of ₹ 53,000 was paid during the year.
You are required to prepare Cash Flow Statement of Mevanca Limited for the year ended 31^st March, 2021.
Answer:

Working Notes:
(1)

(2) Calculation of Interest on Loan:
Interest on Loan taken on 1st July, 2020 = ₹ 20,000 × \(\frac{10}{100} \times \frac{9}{12}\) = ₹ 1,500
Interest on Loan as on 31st March, 2020 = ₹ 60,000 × \(\frac{10}{100}\) = ₹ 6,000
Total Interest Paid on Loan = ₹ 6,000 + ₹ 1,500 = ₹ 7,500

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 11 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Computer Science Term 2 Set 11 with Solutions

Maximum Marks: 35
Time: 2 hours

Instructions:

• The question paper is divided into 3 sections – A, B and C.
• Section A, consists of 7 questions (1-7). Each question carries 2 marks.
• Section B, consists of 3 questions (8-10). Each question carries 3 marks.
• Section C, consists of 3 questions (11-13). Each question carries 4 marks.
• Internal choices have been given for question numbers 7, 8 and 12.

Section – A
(Each question carries 2 Marks)

Question 1.
List some of the advantages of data structure.
Answer:
There are some advantages of data structure as follows

• Data structures are used in almost every program or software.
• Specific data structures are essential ingredients of many efficient algorithms and make possible the management of huge amounts of data, such as a large integrated collection of databases.
• Some programming languages emphasize on data structures rather than algorithms as the key organizing factor in software design.

Question 2.
(i) Expand the following
(a) TELNET
(b) POP3
Answer:
(a) TELNET → Telecommunication Network
(b) POP3 → Post Office Protocol Version 3

(ii) In URL, http://www.arihant.com/index.html, which component identifies the path of a web page?
Answer:
/index.html

Question 3.
How NOT operator is used with WHERE clause? Give an example.
Answer:
The WHERE clause is used to retrieve some given data according to the condition and NOT operator reverses the result of it.
For example,

mysql>SELECT Name, Class, Games FROM
Student_table WHERE NOT Games = ‘FootBALL’;

Question 4.
(i) What is the default value of host?
Answer:
Localhost is the default value of host.

(ii) Which operation is required when you want to create your records into a database’s table?
Answer:
Insert operation

Question 5.
Write the output for SQL queries (i) to (iv), which are based on the table CUSTOMER.
Table : CUSTOMER

(i) SELECT COUNT(*). GENDER FROM CUSTOMER GROUP BY GENDER:
Answer:

(ii) SELECT CNAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE CNAME LIKE ‘L%’;
Answer:
No rows selected

(iii) SELECT DISTINCT AREA FROM CUSTOMER;
Answer:

(iv) SELECT CID, CNAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE SID = 103;
Answer:

Question 6.
(i) Write any two TCL commands.
Answer:
COMMIT, ROLLBACK

(ii) Write the syntax to create a database in MySQL.
Answer:
CREATE DATABASE <database_name>;

Question 7.
Write the code using Python to create a table Product in database Inventory with following fields

Fields	Datatype
PID	varchar(5)
PName	char(30)
Price	float
Rank	varchar(2)

Or
Write the code to create the connection in which database’s name is Python, name of host, user and password can taken by user. Also, print that connection.
Answer:

import mysql .connector
mycon = mysql.connector.connect (host = “localhost”, user = "system”, passwd = "hel1o”, database = “Inventory”)
cur = mycon.cursor( )
db = cur.execute(“CREATE TABLE Product(PID varchar(5) Primary key,
PName char (30),
Price float,
Rank varchar(2)))”
mycon.close( ) ,

Or

import mysql.connector
mycon = mysql.connector.connect(
host = “local host”,
user = "test”,
passwd = “testData",
database = “Python”)
print(mycon)

Section – B
(Each question carries 3 Marks)

Question 8.
Write the rules that are used while converting an infix expression to postfix using stack.
Or
Write the algorithm for push in a static stack. Also, write a function popdata() with a list of student names as parameter and display only those names that are of length more than 10.
Answer:
Read all the symbols one by one from left to right in the given Infix Expression.

• If the reading symbol is operand, then directly print it to the result (Output).
• If the reading symbol is left parenthesis then Push it onto the Stack.
• If the reading symbol is right parenthesis’)’, then Pop all the contents of stack until respective left parenthesis is popped and print each popped symbol to the result.
• If the reading symbol is operator (+,-,*,/ etc.), then Push it on to the Stack. However, first pop the operators which are already on the stack that have higher or equal precedence than current operator and print them to the result.

Or

Algorithm

If top= MAX-1
Display “Stack Overflow”
Exit
Else
Top=top+l
Stack[Top]=data
Stop

Function

def popdata(Studnames):
size=len(Studnames)-1
while size>=0:
if len(Studnames[size]>10):
print(Studnames[size])
size- =1

Question 9.
(i) Name any two operators used in queries.
Answer:
(a) Arithmetic operators
(b) Comparison operators

(ii) What are the functions of ALTER TABLE command?
Answer:
The main functions of ALTER TABLE command are
(a) Add or drop columns.
(b) Change the column definition of a column.
(c) Add or drop constraint.
(d) Rename a column.

Question 10.
Consider the table MobileStock with following fields
M_Id, M_Name, M_Qty, M_Supplier
Write the Python code to fetch all records with fields M_Id, M_Name and M_Supplier from database Mobile.
Answer:

import mysql.connector as mydb
mycon = mydb.connect (host = “localhost”, user = “root”, passwd = “system”, database = "Mobi1e”)
cursor = mycon.cursor()
sql = “SELECT M Id, M_Name,
M_Supplier FROM MobileStock”
try:
cursor.execute(sql)
display = cursor.fetchal1()
for i in display:
print(i)
except:
mycon.rollback()
mycon.close()

Section – C
(Each question carries A Marks)

Question 11.
Consider the following tables. Write SQL commands for the statements (i) to (iv).
Table : SENDER

Table : RECIPIENT

(i) To display the names of all SENDERS from Mumbai.
Answer:
SELECT SenderName FROM SENDER
WHERE SenderCity = ‘Mumbai’;

(ii) To display the RecID, SenderName, Sender Address, RecName, Rec Address for 5 every RECIPIENT.
Answer:
SELECT RecID, SenderName,
SenderAddress, RecName,
RecAddress
FROM RECIPIENT, SENDER WHERE
RECIPIENT.SenderlD =
SENDER.SenderlD;

(iii) To display RECIPIENT details in ascending order of RecName.
Answer:
SELECT * FROM RECIPIENT ORDER BY RecName;

(iv) To display number of RECIPIENTS from each City. ;
Answer:
SELECT COUNT(*) AS “No. of Recipients”, RecCity FROM RECIPIENT
GROUP BY RecCity;

Question 12.
(i) Explain two problems that can occur during transmission of data.
Or
Write down any two points of differences among LAN, MAN and WAN.
Answer:
Two problems that can occur during transmission of data are as follows
(a) Crosstalk Disturbance caused by the electric or magnetic fields of one signal in an adjacent signal.
(b) Attenuation During transmission, the signal strength is reduced, this phenomenon is called attenuation.

Or

Two major points of differences among LAN, MAN and WAN are as follows:

(ii) Define tree topology. Also, write down its two limitations.
Answer:
A tree topology is an extension and variation of bus topology. Its basic structure is like an inverted tree, where the root acts as a server.

Limitations:
(a) Long cables are required for this kind of topologies.
(b) There is the dependence on the root node.

Question 13.
Quick Learn University is setting up its academic blocks at Prayag Nagar and planning to set up a network. The university has three academic blocks and one human resource centre as shown in the diagram below:

Centre to centre distance between various blocks/centre is as follows:

Law Block to Business Block	40 m
Law Block to Technology Block	80 m
Law Block to HR Centre	105 m
Business Block to Technology Block	30 m
Business Block to HR Centre	35 m
Technology Block to HR Centre	15 m

Number of computers in each of the blocks/centre are as follows:

Law Block	15
Technology Block	40
HR Centre	115
Business Block	25

(i) Suggest the most suitable place (i.e. block/centre) to install the server of this university with a suitable reason.
Answer:
HR centre as it has maximum number of computers.

(ii) Suggest an ideal layout for connecting these block/centre for a wired connectivity.
Answer:

(iii) Which device you will suggest to be placed/installed in each of these blocks/centre to efficiently connect all the computers with in these blocks/centre?
Answer:
Switch

(iv) The university is planning to connect its admission office in the closest big city, which is more than 250 km from university, which type of network out of LAN, MAN or WAN will be formed?
Answer:
WAN