Category: CBSE Sample Papers

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology Term 2 Set 3 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections of 23 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Sedion-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A
(2 Marks)

Question 1.
Study the given diagram.

(a) Identify the name of the cycle.
(b) Name the labels: 1,2 and 3.

Question 2.
There are two types of cellular respiration, aerobic and anaerobic. One occurs in the presence of oxygen (aerobic), and one occurs in the absence of oxygen (anaerobic). Both begin with glycolysis – the splitting of glucose.

The energy yield in terms of ATP is higher in aerobic respiration than that of during anaerobic respiration. Explain.
OR
Even though a very few cells in a C₄ plant carry out the biosynthetic – Calvin pathway, yet they are highly productive. Can you discuss why?

Question 3.
Plant growth regulators (PGRs) have innumerable practical applications. Name the PGRs you should use to: ED
(a) Increase yield of sugar cane.
(b) Promote lateral shoot growth.
(c) Cause sprouting of potato tuber.
(d) Inhibit seed germination.

Question 4.
Radha was running on a treadmill at a great speed for 15 minutes continuously. She stopped the treadmill and abruptly came out. For the next few minutes, she was breathing heavily/fast. By reading this statement, answer the following questions:
(a) What happened to her muscles when she did strenuous exercise?
(b) What is the effect of this exercise on her breathing rate?

Question 5.
The diagram given below is of Actin filament.

(a) Label the different components of actin filament. (1)
(b) What is the source of energy for the contraction of muscles? (1)

Question 6.
Diabetes is known as one of the major causes of blindness, kidney failure, heart attacks, strokes, etc. It is a key fact mentioned in WHO global report, that this disease could be treated and its consequences can be avoided or delayed with diet, physical activity, medication, regular screening and treatment for complications.

Explain the differences between Diabetes mellitus and Diabetes insipidus.

OR

Glucocorticoids hormones are secreted by the middle region of the adrenal cortex. State the importance of glucocorticoids in humans.

Section – B
(3 Marks each)

Question 7.
In the following flow chart, replace the symbols a, b, c and d with appropriate terms. Name the process.

The diagram below represents the substrate-level phosphorylation reaction. In substrate-level phosphorylation reactions, the phosphate group of an intermediate reactant is transferred to an ADP molecule to synthesize ATP.

How is ATP produced during glycolysis is a result of substrate-level phosphorylation? Explain.

Question 8.
Photorespiration is a process which involves loss of fixed carbons as CO₂ in plants in the presence of light. Chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria are three cellular organelles involved in photorespiration. Mention the various steps of photo respiratory pathway.

Question 9.
(a) Given below is the diagrammatic representation of a standard ECG.
(i) Label the different peaks of an ECG.
(b) What does the T wave in a normal electrocardiogram indicates ? (1)

Question 10.
The given diagram shows the lungs of a normal human being. In mammals, the lungs replace the skin very effectively as a respiratory organ.

Explain by giving three reasons.

Question 11.
On an educational trip to Uttaranchal, Ketki and her friends observe that many local people were having swollen necks. Please help Ketki and her friends to find out the solutions to the following questions.

(a) Which probable disease are these people suffering from?
(b) How is it caused?
(c) Do this condition have any effect on pregnancy? If yes, then explain those effects.

Question 12.
The diagram given below is that of a structure present in a human kidney.

(a) Name the part labelled as 1. What is the liquid entering in it called? (1)
(b) Name the two substances present in this liquid that are re-absorbed in the tubule. (1)
(c) Mention the three main steps involved in the formation of the fluid mentioned in (b) above. (1)

Section – C
(5 Marks)

Question 13.
During a class fest, biology teacher shown a diagram representing the stage during mitotic cell division in an animal cell and asked students to examine it carefully and answer the questions which follow.

(a) Identify the stage. Give one reason in support of your answer. (1)
(b) Name the cell organelle that forms the ‘aster’. (1)
(c) Name the parts labeled 1,2 and 3. (1)
(d) Name the stage that comes after the one shown here. How is that stage identified? (2)
OR
The fusion of two gametes during sexual reproduction, each with a complete haploid set of chromosomes results in the production of offspring. Gametes are formed from specialised diploid cells. This type of division is called meiosis. Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half which results in the production of haploid daughter cells. This cell division ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms whereas fertilization restores the diploid phase. Meiosis occurs during gametogenesis in plants and animals. This leads to the formation of haploid gametes.

(a) Mention two points of difference between mitosis and meiosis with regard to:
(i) The number of daughter cells produced.
(ii) The chromosome number in the daughter cells. (2)

(b) Distinguish between metaphase of mitosis and metaphase-I of meiosis. (2)

(c) Name the stage of cell cycle at which one of the following events occur:
(i) Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
(ii) Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place. (1)

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections of 23 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Sedion-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A
(2 Marks each)

Question 1.
RuBisCO is an enzyme that acts both as a carboxylase and oxygenase.

Study the above diagram carefully and explain why RuBisCO carries out more carboxylation in C₄ plants?
Answer:
RuBisCO carries out more carboxylation in C₄ plants because these plants have mechanism that increases the concentration of CO₂ at the enzymatic site. During the C₄ pathway, when the C₄ acid from the mesophyll cells is broken down in the bundle sheath cells, it releases CO₂. This results in the increased intracellular concentration of CO₂. So, RuBisCO functions as the carboxylase and binds with plants and carry out more carboxylation.

Question 2.
What is glycolysis? Where does it occur?
OR
Anaerobic respiration works in contrast to the highly efficient process of aerobic respiration, which relies on oxygen to produce energy. Anaerobic respiration cannot continue for a long in higher organisms. Why? Give any two reasons.
Answer:
Glycolysis is also called as EMP (Embden Meyerhof Parnas) pathway. Glycolysis is the process of breakdown of glucose or similar hexose sugar to two molecules of Pyruvic acid through a series of enzyme-mediated reactions releasing some energy (ATP) and reducing power (NADH). It occurs is cytosol or cytoplasm.
OR
Anaerobic respiration cannot continue for a long in higher organisms because of:

• Low yield of energy.
• Decomposition of large amount of substrates, so that little is left for growth and repairs.
• Toxic effect of end products in higher concentration.
• Inhibition of a number of physiological processes linked with aerobic respiration. (Any two)

Question 3.
A plant hormone is a chemical substance produced naturally in plants which is translocated to another region for regulating one or more physiological reactions, when present in low concentrations.

In how many groups does plant growth regulators are classified?
Answer:
Based on functions, plant growth regulators are broadly classified into two groups:

1. Growth promoters: Such plant growth regulators are involved in growth-promoting activities such as cell division, cell enlargement, pattern formation, etc. These include auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins.
2. Growth inhibitors: Such PGRs are involved in various growth-inhibiting activities such as promotion of dormancy and abscission. These include abscisic acid and ethylene.

Commonly Made Error

• Some students interchange the names of growth inhibitors and growth promoters.

Answering Tip

• Students should remember that all the plant hormones axe not growth promoters but some are growth inhibitors. Students should understand and learn the function of such phytohormones.

Question 4.
Neurons are classified into two categories based upon the presence or absence of myelin sheath:

Myelinated neurons and non-myelinated neurons.
(a) Why is the mode of conduction of electrical impulse along the myelinated neurons advantageous to a non-myelinated neuron? (1)
(b) What is this type of conduction called? (1)
Answer:
(a) This is so because the ionic changes and consequent depolarization takes place only at the nodes of Ranvier, which is free from myelin sheath leading to the jumping of action potential from one node to the next.

(b) This type of conduction of impulse along a myelinated nerve fibre, is called saltatory conduction.

Commonly Made Error

• Students often get confused between the conduction of impulse in myelinated and non-myelinated nerve fiber.

Answering Tip

• Students should focus on the saltatory conduction and understand the topic thoroughly.

Question 5.
Label the parts in the following diagram using the terms given below: ¹/₂ × 4
(i) Afferent arteriole
(ii) Efferent arteriole
(iii) Bowman’s capsule
(iv) Glomerulus

Answer:

Question 6.
George comes on a vacation to India from US. The long journey disturbs his biological system and he suffers from jet lag. What is the cause of his discomfort?
OR

The given gland consists of four separate glands located on the posterior surface of the lobes of the thyroid gland, one pair each in the two lobes.

(a) Name its secretion. How is its secretion regulated? (1)
(b) Mention one parathyroid disorder. (1)
Answer:
It is due to the disturbance in diurnal rhythm. Melatonin plays a very important role in the regulation of a 24-hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body. For example, it helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of the sleep-wake cycle, body temperature and disturbance in this cycle cause discomfort.
OR
(a) The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone or parathormone, the secretion of which is regulated by the circulating calcium ion.

(b) Hypoparathyroidism causes the lowering of blood calcium level thereby leading to parathyroid tetany.

Section – B
(3 Marks)

Question 7.
Auxins are the growth hormones capable of promoting cell elongation. They have been used in horticulture to promote growth, flowering and rooting. Write a line to explain the meaning of the following terms related to auxins.
(a) Auxins precursors (1)
(b) Anti-auxins (1)
(c) Synthetic auxins (1)
OR
By looking at which internal structure of a plant you can tell whether a plant is C₃ or C₄? Explain.
Answer:
(a) Auxin precursors: These are the raw materials used in synthesis of auxins. For example, tryptophan is an Indole-3- acetic acid.
(b) Anti-auxins: These are the compounds which inhibit the action of auxin. For example, TIBA acts as anti-auxins by blocking transport of auxin.
(c) Synthetic auxin: Auxins which are manufactured synthetically and do not grow naturally in plants. E.g. 2,4-D, NAA, etc.

OR

By seeing the V. S. of leaves, one of C₃ plant and the other of a C₄ plant.

• The C₄ plant leaves have Kranz anatomy. The chloroplasts in C₄ leaves are dimorphic.
• The bundle sheath cells in C₄ make several layers around the vascular bundles. The C₃ plants do not have bundle sheath.
• C₄ leaves possess large number of chloroplasts, thick cell wall impervious to gaseous exchange and there are no intercellular spaces e.g., maize and Sorghum leaves. The C₃ plants possess one type of chloroplasts.

Question 8.
Respiration is an energy-releasing and enzymatically controlled catabolic process which involves a step-wise oxidative breakdown of organic substances inside living cells. With the help of this statement about respiration, explain the meaning of: O₂
(a) Step-wise oxidative breakdown 1 + ¹/₂
(b) Organic substances (used as substrates). 1 + ¹/₂
Answer:
(a) Step wise oxidative breakdown means release of small amount of energy, so that same can be trapped and stored for later use. Respiration is a step-wise oxidation of organic molecules in a cell, which involves three main steps: Glycolysis, Krebs cycle and Electron Transport Chain.

(b) Organic substrates are respiratory substrates which are oxidized during respiration to liberate energy inside the living cells. The common respiratory substrates are carbohydrates, proteins, fats and organic acids.

Question 9.
The diagram given below represents a nephron and its blood supply.

(a) Label parts A, B, C and D.
(b) State the reason for the high hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus.
Answer:
(a) Different parts in the diagram are labelled as:

• A – Collecting duct.
• B – Distal convoluted tubule (DCT).
• C – Loop of Henle.
• D – Bowman’s capsule.

(b) As the afferent arteriole splits into many fine branches due to which the volume of capillaries reduce, thus raising the hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus.

Question 10.
The following diagram represents the human heart in one phase of its activity.

(a) Name the phase. (1)
(b) Which parts of the heart are contracting in this phase? (1)
(c) How many valves are closed in this phase? (1)
Answer:
(a) The phase shown in the figure is ventricular systole.

(b) The lower part consisting of the right and left ventricles are contracting in this phase as the blood seems to be flowing into the pulmonary artery and main aorta, while the bicuspid and tricuspid valves are closed.

(c) Two valves i.e., the bicuspid and tricuspid valves leading from the atria to the ventricles are closed during systole to prevent the back-flow of blood into the atria.

Commonly Made Error

• Students are not able to identify the blood vessels correctly.

Answering Tip

• Lay emphasis on differences between pulmonary artery and vein.

Question 11.
During muscle contraction, a neural signal, released by central nervous system, when reaches the neuromuscular junction, it releases a neurotransmitter (Acetylcholine) which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma. This action potential along the length spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm.

(a) Describe the significance of Ca²⁺ ions in the contraction of muscles. (2)
(b) Which neurotransmitter is responsible for contraction of muscle? (1)
Answer:
(a) Calcium plays a key role in the muscle contraction process. During contraction of muscles, from the motor end plate, an action potential passes over the sarcolemma and further into the T-tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum and triggers it to produce Ca²⁺ ions into the sarcoplasm. The binding of calcium ions to the troponin causes its shape and position to change which in turn modifies the position and shape of tropomyosin that binds the troponin. This shift presents the active sites on the molecule, F-actin which prompts the myosin cross-bridges to bind to these active sites.

(b) Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that is responsible for contraction of muscle.

Question 12.
The given diagram represents the human respiratory system. (2)

a. Identify the labels 1,2,3 and 4 marked in the diagram.
b. Name the structure which prevents the collapsing of trachea.
c. Why gaseous exchange continues in the lungs even after expiration?
Answer:
(a) In the given diagram, label 1, 2, 3 and 4 represents trachea, bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli respectively.
(b) Cartilaginous rings are the C-shaped structure which prevents the collapsing of trachea.
(c) Gaseous exchange continues in the lungs even after expiration because of the presence of residual volume.

Section – C
(5 Marks)

Question 13.
Cell division is the process in which division of nucleus and cytoplasms, occurs. The diagram below represents a stage during the cell division. Study the same and then answer the questions than follow:

(a) Name the parts labelled 1, 2 and 3.
(b) Identify the above stage and give a reason to support your answer.
(c) Mention where in the body this type of cell division occurs.
(d) Name the stage prior to this stage and draw a diagram to represent the same.
OR
Meiosis is the process in which a single cell divides twice to form four haploid daughter cells. The process is split into meiosis I and meiosis II, and both meiotic divisions have multiple phases. Meiosis I is a type of cell division unique to germ cells, while meiosis II is similar to mitosis. The diagram given below represents a certain phenomenon which occurs during meiosis.

(a) Name the above phenomenon. (1)
(b) Explain it with reference to homologous chromosomes, chromatids, and crossing-over. (4)
Answer:
(a)

• 1 – Centrioles.
• 2 – Spindle fibres
• 3 – Chromatids

(b) The stage described in the diagram is the late anaphase of mitosis in an animal cell. The stage can be identified by the presence of separated chromatids which are found at the two poles of the cell. The appearance of the furrow in the cell membrane classifies the stage as the late anaphase.

(c) The division shown in the diagram is mitotic division and this kind of cell division occurs in all the cells of the body except for the reproductive cells.

(d) The stage before anaphase is metaphase.

Commonly Made Error

• Students usually find it difficult to identify the correct stage in the process of cell division.

Answering Tip

• Lay emphasis on the diagrams and different stages of cell division. Understand the various changes that a cell undergoes before dividing.

OR

(a) The given phenomenon is the exchange of chromatids between homologous chromosomes called crossing-over. This is the process by which the two chromosomes of a homologous pair exchange equal segments with each other.

(b) Crossing over occurs in the first division of meiosis. At that stage, each chromosome has replicated into two strands called sister chromatids. The two homologous chromosomes of a pair, synapse or come together. While the chromosomes have synapsed, breaks occur at corresponding points in two of the non-sister chromatids, i.e., in one chromatid of each chromosome.

Since the chromosomes are homologous, breaks at corresponding points, means that the segments that are broken off contain corresponding genes, i.e., alleles. The broken sections are then exchanged between the chromosomes to form complete new units, and each new recombined chromosome of the pair can go to a different daughter sex cell.

It results in recombination of genes found on the same chromosome, called linked genes that would otherwise always be transmitted together.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper consists of two Parts – A and B. There are total 12 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Part – A consists of Accounting Process.
• Part – B consists of Financial Accounting and Computers in Accounts.
• Question Nos. 1 to 2 and 5 to 6 are short answer type questions – I carrying 2 Marks each.
• Question Nos. 3 and 7 to 9 are short answer type questions – II carrying 3 Marks each.
• Questions Nos. 4 and 10 to 12 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part-A (12 marks)
Accounting Process

Question 1.
Rectify the following errors:
(a) Credit sales to Mohan ₹ 7,000 were recorded as ₹ 700.
(b) Credit purchases from Rohan ₹ 9,000 were recorded as ₹ 900.
(c) Goods returned to Rakesh ₹ 4,000 were recorded as ₹ 400.
(d) Goods returned from Mahesh ₹ 1,000 were recorded as ₹ 100. [2]

Question 2.
Journalise the following transactions in the books of Kamal: Ganesh informs Kamal that Sahani’s promissory note for ₹ 750 has been dishonoured and that noting charges ₹ 10 has been paid. Kamal sends Ganesh’s a cheque and withdraws the Promissory note. [2]

Question 3.
Calculate the due dates of the bill in the following cases: [3]

Date of the Bill	Period
(a) 31st January 2019	3 months
(b) 28th December 2015	2 months
(c) 31st December 2016	2 months
(d) 31st March 2019	1 month
(e) 27th November 2015	3 months
(f) 15th June 2019	5 months

OR
On 1st January, 2017 Ajay sold goods to Bhushan for ₹10,000. Ajay draws a bill of exchange for two months for the amount due which Bhushan accepts and returns it to Ajay. Bhushan met the bill on the due date. Pass the Journal Entries in the books of Ajay. [3]

Question 4.
From the following list of balance extracted from the books of Sh. Balaji Traders, prepare a Trial Balance as at 31st March 2018:

Part-B [28 Marks]
(Financial Accounting and Computer in Accounts)

Question 5.
Insurance Premium of ₹ 6,500 has been paid on July 1, 2017 for one year. Pass the journal entry to adjust the insurance amount and also show how it will be recorded in final accounts assuming that accounts are closed on 31st March, every year. [2]

Question 6.
Calculate Closing Stock from the following details :
Opening stock ₹ 80,000; Cash sales ₹ 2,40,000; Credit sales ₹ 1,60,000; Purchases ₹ 2,80,000. Rate of gross profit on cost 33 1/3%. [2]

Question 7.
Ram keeps his books under Single Entry System. His Assets and Liabilities were as under:

Particulars	31.03.2012 (Amount) (₹)	31.03.2013 (Amount) (₹)
Cash	1,000	900
Sundry Debtors	39,000	45,000
Stock	34,000	32,000
Plant and Machinery	60,000	80,000
Sundry Creditors	15,000	14,900
Bills Payable	………………	5,000

During 2012 -13, he introduced ₹ 10,000 as additional Capital. He withdrew ₹ 3,000 every month for his household expenses. Ascertain his profit for the year ended 31st March, 2013. [3]
OR
Ajay started business with a capital of ₹ 2,25,000 on 1st April, 2013. During the year, he withdrew ₹ 40,000 for his personal use and introduced ₹ 7,000 as fresh capital. On 31st March, 2014, his position of assets and liabilities stood as follows:

Particulars	(₹)
Cash-in-hand	18,500
Stock	20,000
Bills Receivable	25,000
Debtors	4,00,000
Creditors	1,50,000
Bills Payable	3,000

You are required to prepare statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 March, 2014. [3]

Question 8.
Explain briefly any six advantages of computerized accounting system over the manual system. [3]
OR
What is Accounting Information System? [3]

Question 9.
Following is the information from the books of ABC Ltd. as on 31st Dec., 2013. Pass closing journal entries: [3]

Closing stock as on 31st Dec., 2014 is ₹ 2,000.

Question 10.
Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss account and Balance Sheet from the following particulars as on March 31,2014.

Closing Stock ₹ 30,000.
OR
Prepare Trading and Profit & Loss Account for the year ending 31st March, 2015 and a Balance Sheet as on that date from the following Trial Balance :

Adjustments:
(i) Closing Stock was ₹ 52,000.
(ii) ₹ 1 ,000 were as bad debts and Provision for doubtful debts be created on sundry debtors @5%.
(iii) Interest on capital is to be provided @ 6% p.a.
(iv) An additional capital of ₹ 20,000 introduced by proprietor on 1st Oct., 2014.
(v) Plant & Fixtures to be depreciated by 10% p.a.
(vi) Salaries outstanding on 31st March, 2015 amounted to ₹ 1,000.
(vii) Accrued Interest on investment amounted to 1,500. [5]

Question 11.
Mr. Muneesh maintains his books of accounts from incomplete records. His books provide following information:

Particulars	Jan. 01,2013 (₹)	Dec. 31,2013 (₹)
Cash	1,200	1,600
Bills Receivable	—	2,400
Debtors	16,800	27,200
Stock	22,400	24,400
Investment	—	8,000
Furniture	7,500	8,000
Creditors	14,000	15,200

He withdrew ₹ 300 per month for personal expenses. He sold his investment of ₹ 16,000 at 2% premium and introduced that amount into the business. [5]

Question 12.
Rajiv is not a person who is very keen on promoting computerised accounting system as he may lose his job, but as a accounting manager he has no points to convince the CEO of Nischal Enterprise that it will not be suitable for their business. Help him by giving him some disadvantages of using a computerised Accounting System. [5]

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 5 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper consists of two Parts – A and B. There are total 12 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Part – A consists of Accounting Process.
• Part – B consists of Financial Accounting and Computers in Accounts.
• Question Nos. 1 to 2 and 5 to 6 are short answer type questions – I carrying 2 Marks each.
• Question Nos. 3 and 7 to 9 are short answer type questions – II carrying 3 Marks each.
• Questions Nos. 4 and 10 to 12 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part-A (12 marks)
Accounting Process

Question 1.
Anisha sold goods worth ₹ 19,000 to Naina on March 2,2018. ₹ 4,000 were paid by Naina immediately and for the balance she accepted a bill of exchange drawn up on her by Anisha payable after three months. Anisha discounted the bill immediately with her bank @10% p.a. On the due date, Naina dishonoured the bill and the bank paid ₹ 30 as noting charges.
Calculate the following:
(i) Amount of discount charged.
(ii) Amount due from Naina [2]

Question 2.
The accountant of Sri Balaji Trader’s have made some errors in drafting the Trial Balance. Redraft the trial Balance.

Question 3.
Prepare a Trial Balance for Shyam Sundar and Sons from the following ledger accounts: (3)

Particulars	Amount (₹)
Cash A/c	64,750
Capital A/c	80,000
Purchases A/c	88,000
Machinery A/c	4,000
Dilip’s A/c	15,000
Purchases Return A/c	4,000
Discount Received	650
Sales A/c	73,400
Mahesh Chand & Sons A/c	10,400
Discount Allowed A/c	200
Rent	1,500
Commission Received	2,000
Drawings	6,200

OR
Give the rectifying Journal Entries in the books of Mehra & Company :
(i) Sale of old furniture worth ₹ 1,500 treated as sales of goods.
(ii) Sales Book added ₹ 2,500 short.
(iii) Total of Bills Receivable Book ₹ 2,700 left unposted.
(iv) Rent of Proprietor’s residence, ₹ 3,250 debited to Rent A/c.
(v) Payment of ₹ 800 to Rishabh posted to his credit as ₹ 8,000.
(vi) Goods worth ₹ 5,985 returned by Mishra posted to his debit as ₹ 5,895.

Question 4.
A is in need of funds to the extent of ₹ 1,000. He requests his friend B to help him. B is also in the need of funds. As per the arrangement between them, B accepts 30 days bill on Sept. 1, 2014, for ₹ 2,000. It is agreed that the proceeds of the bill will be shared between A and B equally. A discounts the bill for ₹ 1,980 and hands over half the proceeds to B. On the due date, A sends the remaining amount to B, who meets the bill. Pass the necessary journal entries in the books of A and B. [5]

Part-B (28 marks)
(Financial Accounting and Computer in Accounts)

Question 5.
Give the Journal entries for the following adjustments: [2]
(i) Outstanding salary ₹ 3,500.
(ii) Rent unpaid for one month at ₹ 6,000 per annum.

Question 6.
Opening Capital ₹ 70,000, Profit for the year ₹ 20,000, Drawings ₹ 7,000. During the year, proprietor sold ornaments of his wife for ₹ 20,000 and invested that amount in the business. Calculate the Closing Capital. [2]

Question 7.
Define the following terms: [3 × 1]
(a) Computer
(b) Accounting Information System
(c) Computerised Accounting System
OR
“Accounting Information System suffers from a lot of limitations even though it is categorised to be very efficient in accuracy, time saving, audit trails and prevention of fraud.” Comment. [3]

Question 8.
Manish Chand started a business with a capital of ₹ 80,000 and maintains his account on Single Entry System. Calculate his profit on 31st March, 2016 from the following information:

Liabilities and Assets	31st March, 2016 (₹)
Debtors	40,000
Creditors	30,000
Stock	30,000
Furniture	20,000
Bank Balance	35,000
Cash-in-hand	5,000

During the year, his drawings were ₹ 10,000 and additional capital invested ₹ 20,000.
OR
Mr. Kapil does not keep proper records of his business, he provided following information. You are required to prepare a statement showing the profit or loss for the year 2013-14.

	₹
Opening Capital (01-04-2013)	50,000
Closing Capital (31-03-2014)	1,00,000
Additional capital introduced (2013-14)	20,000
Drawings made during the year (2013-14)	40,000

Question 9.
Identify whether following receipts are capital or revenue. How will they be treated in final accounts:
(i) Sale proceeds of goods ₹20,000
(ii) Commencement of business with ₹ 60,000
(iii) Rent received from premises sublet ₹ 4,000
(iv) Profit on sale of land and building ₹ 5,000
(v) Amount received from sale of assets ₹ 80,000
(vi) Amount received from sale of scraps, i.e., newspapers, boxes, grass, bottles, etc ₹ 300

Question 10.
Mr. Girdhari Lai does not keep the double entry records. His balance as on January 01, 2013 is as follows:

His Balance on 31st Dec., 2013 is as follows:

Particulars	₹
Cash in hand	7,000
Stock	8,600
Debtors	23,800
Furniture	15,000
Plant	20,350
Bills Payable	20,200
Creditors	15,000

He withdrew ₹ 500 per month, out of which he spent ₹ 1,500 for business purpose. Prepare the statement of profit or loss. [5]

Question 11.
From the following balances extracted from the books of Raga Ltd. Prepare a trading and profit and loss account for the year ended March 31,2014 and a balance sheet as on that date.

The additional information is as under:
(i) Oosing stock was valued at the end of the year 20,000.
(ii) Depredation on plant and machinery charged at 5% and land and building at 10%.
(iii) Discount on debtors at 3%.
(iv) Make a provision at 5% on debtors for bad debts.
(v) Salary outstanding was ? 100 and wages prepaid was f 40.
(vi) The manager is entitled a commission of 5% on net profit after charging such commission. [5]
OR
Following is the trial balance of Mr. Deepak as on March 31,2014. You are required to prepare Trading Account, Profit and Loss Account and a Balance Sheet as on date : [5]

Closing Stock ₹ 35,000

Question 12.
State whether the following statements are true or false by giving reasons for the following: [5]
(a) Computer makes the work fast.
(b) Computer Accounting System enables the reports to be generated at ease.
(c) The computer cannot do multiple tasks at one time.
(d) Keyboard is an input device.
(e) The Memory unit is the part of the CPU,

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Biology Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 35 

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections of 23 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Sedion-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

 

Section – A
(2 Marks each)

Question 1.
Two potted plants were kept in an oxygen-free environment in transparent containers. Plant A was exposed to green light and Plant B to sunlight. Which one of the two, will show more photosynthesis and is likely to survive longer and why?
Answer:
Plant B will show more photosynthesis Chlorophyll absorbs maximum light In the blue region Of the spectrum, i.e., 400-450 nm and hence photosynthetic rate will also be high. Plant A will show negligible amount of photosynthesis or no photosynthesis, as chlorophyll does not absorb any light in the green region, i.e., 500- 550 nm but reflects light.

Question 2.
Different substrates get oxidized during respiration. How does Respiratory Quotient (R.Q.) indicate which type of substrate, i.e., carbohydrate, fat or protein is getting oxidized?
R.Q. = \(\frac{A}{B}\)
What do A and B stand for? What type of substrates have R.Q. of 1, < 1 or > 1?
OR
Energy is released during the oxidation of compounds in respiration. How is this energy stored and released as and when it is needed.
Answer:
In R.Q., A stands for CO₂ released, while B stands for O₂ being consumed by unit mass of a substrate. The ratio indicates the type of substrate being consumed in respiration.

Substance like carbohydrates have RQ = 1, during aerobic respiration.

Proteins and fats have R.Q. of < 1 and are found during germination of seeds.

Substrates like organic acids have R.Q. of > 1 under aerobic conditions.
OR
Energy is stored as bond energy of ATP This bond is broken down to release energy when required.
ADP + Pi + Energy → ADP + Pi or ATP
ATP → ADP + Pi + Energy

Question 3.
Given below is the diagram showing different parts of a stem.

In most of the plants, the terminal bud suppresses the development of lateral buds.

(a) What is this phenomenon called? (1)
(b) Name the phytohormone that can promote the phenomenon. (1)
Answer:
(a) This phenomenon is called Apical dominance.
(b) Auxins are the phytohormones which can promote this phenomenon in plants, e.g., NAA and 2,4-D, etc.

Question 4.
The diagram below shows an ECG of a normal human being. (1)

If a patient’s ECG revealed an abnormally long delay between the P wave and the QRS deflection, what would that suggest?
Answer:
If a patient’s ECG revealed an abnormally long delay between P wave and the QRS deflection, it suggests that there is a delay of conduction from the atria to the ventricles, hence the stimulation from SA nodes are conducting stimuli very slowly to the ventricles.

Question 5.
Sohan was experiencing something abnormal during the urination process. He went to a doctor for a check-up, after which he came to know that his kidneys are damaged. Can you predict what is going to happen to him next?
Answer:
The kidneys are considered as master chemists of the body.

1. If they are damaged, it would disturb the normal functioning of his life processes.
2. Due to the effect of toxins produced by some bacteria, the filters of tiny uriniferous tubules also get damaged.
3. They become perforated with larger holes and allow blood cells, and proteins to pass through them along with the urea and water during filtration of blood in the formation of urine. (Any two)

Question 6.
LH is secreted by Adenohypophysis or anterior pituitary gland. (2)
(a) Mention the other hormone along with which it acts on its target cells/organ. (1)
(b) Give two functions of each hormone. (1)
OR
Study the given diagram.

Why is the above gland referred to as the ‘Master gland’?
Answer:
(a) FSH is the other hormone (gonadotropin) along with which it acts on its target cells/organ.

(b) Functions of LH :

• In males, it stimulates spermatogenesis.
• In females, it stimulates ovulation and formation of the corpus luteum.

Functions of FSH:

• In females, it stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles.
• It regulates the growth and development of secondary sexual characters and other reproductive processes.

OR

1. The given diagram is of the pituitary gland. The pituitary is called “Master Endocrine Gland” because of the number of hormones it produces and the control it exercises over the other endocrine glands.
2. It itself is under the control of the releasing hormones secreted by the hypothalamus of the brain.

Thus, there is a chain of orders : the hypothalamus directs the pituitary output, which controls the secretion of hormones by other endocrine glands.

Section – B
(3 Marks)

Question 7.
(a) Given below is the diagram showing ATP synthesis during aerobic respiration, replace the symbols A, B, C, D and E by appropriate terms given below:
F₁ particle, Pi, 2H⁺, Inner mitochondrial membrane, ATE F₀ particle, ADP (2)

(b) Define the term ETS.
Answer:
(a)

• ATP
• F₁ particle
• Pi
• 2H⁺
• Inner mitochondrial membrane

(b) The metabolic pathway through which the electron passes from one carrier molecule to another is called Electron Transport System (ETS).

Commonly Made Error

• Students often identify incorrect names of the labels.

Answering Tip

• Practice self-explanatory diagrams with proper labelling, arrows and headings.

Question 8.
Japanese farmers in their rice field observed that certain rice seedlings grow excessively tall and become weak and sterile. One of the Japanese plant pathologists found that, it is due to some disease, which is caused by a fungus. He named this disease as “bakane” or “foolish seedling” disease. Yabuta extracted the active substance i.e., growth-promoting substances and termed them as gibberellin.

(a) Name the fungus, which caused “bakane” or “foolish seedling” disease. (1 + ¹/₂)
(b) Give three functions of ‘Gibberellin’. (1 + ¹/₂)

OR

“X” is also called as stress hormone because its synthesis is stimulated by drought, water logging and other adverse environmental conditions. It is produced in many parts of the plants but more abundantly inside the chloroplast of green cells.
(a) Identify “X”. (1)
(b) Mention any two functions of this hormone. (1)
(c) How are they antagonistic to gibberellins? (1)
Answer:
(a) Gibberella fujikuroi is the fungus which causes ‘Bakane’ or foolish-seedling disease. Gibberellin, a plant hormone was discovered from the same fungus.

(b) The functions of Gibberellins are :

• Bolting and flowering.
• Stem elongation and fruit ripening.
• Parthenocarpy.
• Early seed production. (Any three)

Commonly Made Error

• Some students get confused between the functions of different hormones.

Answering Tip

• Students should learn the functions of phytohormones or plant hormones thoroughly. They should make a flow chart to learn the functions separately.

OR
(a) The hormone “X” is Abscisic add.
(b) Functions of Absdsic acid:

(i) Abscisic acid owes its name to its role in the abscission of plant leaves. In preparation for winter, ABA is produced in terminal buds. This slows plant growth and directs leaf primordia ‘ to develop scales to protect the dormant buds during the cold season.

(ii) It plays an important role in seed development and maturation.

(c) They are antagonistic to gibberellins as gibberellin promotes stem elongation while absdsic add acts as plant growth inhibitor.

Question 9.
The diagram given below represents a section of human heart.

(a) Which parts of the heart are in the diastolic phase? Give a reason to support your answer. (1)
(b) Label the parts numbered 1 and 2 in the diagram. What type of blood flows through them. (1)
(c) What causes the heart sounds ‘LUBB’ and ‘DUBB’. (1)
Answer:
(a) Ventricles
As Tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open/ Semilunar valves are closed.

(b) 1 – Pulmonary artery, deoxygenated blood.
2 – Pulmonary veins, oxygenated blood.

(c) LUBB – Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves.
DUBB – Closure of semilunar valves.

Commonly Made Error

• Students often identify the parts of the heart in diastolic phase but many of them fail to give a reason to support the answer.

Answering Tip

• Carefully learn each and every part of the heart together with their functions.

Question 10.
(a) How is glomerular filtrate hypertonic and hypotonic in descending and ascending limb of loop of Henle respectively? (1 + ¹/₂)
(b) What is the effect of ADH on collecting tubules? (1 + ¹/₂)
Answer:
(a) Counter-current system is found in two limbs of loop of Henle. The ascending limb transports Na+ and some urea into surrounding medullary tissue. It is impermeable to water. So, it makes urine dilute or hypotonic. The walls of descending limbs are permeable to water and salt, so Na+ and water from the surrounding fluid are absorbed. Thus, the contents of urine become hypertonic.

(b) ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone): ADH is secreted when the osmotic pressure of blood increases due to excess loss of water from the body. The hormone renders the walls of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT), collecting tubule (CT) and collecting duct of a nephron permeable to water and increases the reabsorption of water into the surrounding tissues and particular capillaries.

The urine becomes hyperosmotic and less in volume and water is conserved in the body.

Commonly Made Error

• Students generally get confused between hypertonic and hypotonic terms and write incorrect answer. Students also write incorrect permeability of descending and ascending limbs of loop of Henle.

Answering Tip

• Students should understand the terms/concepts clearly, instead of rote learning.

Question 11.
The given diagram represents the structure of a human brain.

(a) Identify the label A, B and C. (1 + ¹/₂)
(b) What happens if medulla oblongata is damaged due to some accident? (1)
(c) State any one function of cerebellum. (¹/₂)
Answer:
(a) In the given structure of brain, the label A represents the cerebrum, Label B is cerebellum, and label C is brain stem.

(b) Medulla oblongata is a part of brain stem, derived from the hindbrain that is continuous with the spinal cord. Its function is a to regulate the reflex responses controlling respiration, heartbeat, blood pressure, and other involuntary processes. So, if medulla oblongata gets damaged, it can lead to respiratory failure, paralysis, or loss of sensation.

(c) Cerebellum maintains equilibrium and posture.

Question 12.
A patient was complaining of frequent urination, excessive thirst, hunger and tiredness. His fasting blood was found higher than 130 mg/dL on two occasions.
(a) Name the disease. (1)
(b) Give the root cause of this disease. (1)
(c) Explain why the blood glucose level is higher than 130 mg/dL. (1)
Answer:
(a) The disease is Diabetes mellitus.
(b) The failure of the p-cells of the islets of Langerhans of pancreas to produce an adequate amount of insulin, is the root cause of this disease.
(c) It was due to the under secretion of insulin hormone. The under secretion of insulin impairs the following functions:

• Utilisation and uptake of glucose by adipocytes and hepatocytes.
• Conversion of glucose into glycogen by the above target cells.

Section – C
(5 Marks)

Question 13.
Mitosis is the process of cell division in which one cell gives rise to two genetically identical daughter cells, resulting in cell duplication and reproduction. The major purpose of mitosis is for growth and to replace worn out cells., It is divided into four phases, namely, prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.

(a) Why is mitosis an equational division? (1)
(b) What would be the consequences if each of the following irregularities occurs during mitosis?
(i) Nuclear membrane fails to disintegrate. (1)
(ii) Duplication of DNA does not occur. (1)
(iii) Centromeres do not divide. (1)
(iv) Cytokinesis does not occur. (1)
OR
In a biology class, teacher explains the students, the different stages of cell cycle. She has drawn a diagram that explains the events taking place during cell cycle of a somatic cell.

(a) What is G₁ phase in the cell cycle? (2)
(b) What amount of DNA is present in the cell during the G₂ phase? (1)
(c) How does cytokinesis differ in plant and animal cells? (2)
Answer:
(a) Mitosis is an equational division because the daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and an equal amount of cytoplasm.

(b)

1. If nuclear membrane fails to disintegrate, the spindle fibers would not be able to reach chromosomes and they would not move towards opposite poles of the cell.
2. If duplication of DNA does not occur, then the cell might not be able to surpass S phase of the cell cycle. Thus, the cell will not be able to enter M-phase or if in case it enters mitosis, the cycle will cease.
3. If centromeres do not divide, then the daughter cell will receive a complete pair of chromosomes. This may result in trisomy.
4. If cytokinesis does not occur, then it would not result in the formation of daughter cells.

OR

(a) Gj phase:

• In this phase, the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA.
• RNA and proteins are synthesized and the cell grows in size.

(b) Double the amount of DNA present in the original diploid cell.
(c) Differences between cytokinesis in plant cells and animal cells:

Cytokinesis in plant cells	Cytokinesis in animals cells
In these, cell wall formation starts at the centre of the cell and grows outward to meet the existing lateral walls.	In these cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane.
Formation of new cell wall begins with the formation of a precursor called cell plate.	The furrow gradually deepens and ultimately join in the centre dividing the cytoplasm into two.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 3 for Practice

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper consists of two Parts – A and B. There are total 12 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Part – A consists of Accounting Process.
• Part – B consists of Financial Accounting and Computers in Accounts.
• Question Nos. 1 to 2 and 5 to 6 are short answer type questions – I carrying 2 Marks each.
• Question Nos. 3 and 7 to 9 are short answer type questions – II carrying 3 Marks each.
• Questions Nos. 4 and 10 to 12 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part-A (12 marks)
Accounting Process

Question 1.
Calculate the due dates of the following bills:

Date of Bill	Period
(a) 28th January 2018	1 month
(b) 1st December 2017	60 days
(c) 30th April 2018	2 months
(d) 23rd November 2017	2 months

Question 2.
Rectify the following errors :
(a) Goods withdrawn by proprietor for personal use 2,000 were debited to trade expenses account.
(b) Sales return book overcast by ₹ 400.
(c) Credit sales to Mohan ₹ 11,000 were recorded in purchase book.
(d) Credit purchases from Rohan ₹ 6,500 were not posted to his account. [2]

Question 3.
A bill for ₹ 1,000 is drawn by P on Q and accepted by the latter payable at the New Bank of India. Show what entries should be passed in the books of P under each of the following circumstances:
(i) If P retained the bill till due date and then realised it on maturity.
(ii) If he discounted it with his bankers for ₹ 950.
(iii) If he endorsed it to his creditor R in full settlement of his debt.
(iv) If he sent it to his bankers for collection.
Also give necessary entries in each of the cases if the bill is dishonoured.

OR

On 1st January, 2014, A and B drew on each other a bill for ₹ 20,000, payable three months after date for their mutual benefit. On 4th January, they discounted with their bank each other’s bill at 18% per annum. On the due date, each met their own acceptance. Record transactions in the Journal of A and B. [3]

Question 4.
From the following Ledger Balance, draw up the Trial Balance: [5]

Particulars	Balance
Capital	2,00,000
Purchases	2,00,000
Stock	70,000
Sales	3,00,000
Returns Inward	1,50,000
Sundry Debtors	3,00,000
Cash	1,80,000
Creditors	1,00,000

Part-B (28 marks)
(Financial Accounting and Computer in Accounts)

Question 5.
Find out the Gross Profit from the following information: [2]

	₹
Closing stock	70,000
Salaries	30,000
Wages	40,000
Sales	6,88,000
Adjusted purchase	5,50,000

Question 6.
From the following figures calculate the operating profit: [2]

	₹
Net Profit	1,00,000
Rent Received	10,000
Gain on sale of machine	15,000
Interest on loans	20,000
Donation	2,000

Question 7.
What are the main disadvantages of computerized accounting ?
OR
(a) What is the difference between RAM and ROM?
(b) Explain the structure and working of CPU.

Question 8.
Arshi does not keep proper records of his business. She provided the following information. You are required to prepare a statement showing profit and loss for the year.  [3]

Particular	Amount ₹
Owner’s Equity at the beginning of the year	15,00,000
Bills receivable	60,000
Cash in hand	80,000
Furniture	9,00,000
Building	10,00,000
Creditors	6,00,000
Stock in trade	2,00,000
Further capital introduced	3,20,000
Drawings made during the period	80,000

OR
Gopal does not keep proper books of account. Following information is given below:

During the year, he introduced an additional capital of ₹ 20,000 and withdrew ₹ 12,000 from the business. Prepare the statement of profit or loss on the basis of the given information. [3]

Question 9.
Cash Sales ₹ 29,000, Credit Sales ₹ 31,000, Cost of Goods Sold ₹ 52,000, Expenses on Purchases ₹ 3,000,Expenses on Sales ₹ 6,700. Find out Gross Profit and Net Profit. [3]

Question 10.
Following are balances from the trial balance of Mukesh Traders on 31st March, 2016:

Prepare Trading and Profit & Loss Account for the year ended 31st March, 2016 and Balance Sheet as at that date after taking into account the following adjustments:
(i) Closing Stock was valued at ₹ 20,000.
(ii) Insurance was prepaid ₹
(iii) Write off ₹ 2,000 as Bad debt.
(iv) Depredation to be provided on Land and Building @ 5% p.a. and on Plant and Machinery® 10% p.a.
(v) Create provision for doubtful debts @ 5% on debtors.
(vi) Wages include ₹ 4,800 for installation of a new machinery.
OR
From the Balance Sheet given below, calculate the following:
(i) Fixed Assets
(ii) Current Assets
(iii) Current Liabilities
(iv) Working Capital
(v) Capital Employed

Question 11.
Prepare a Trading Account of M/s Prashant Products from the following particulars pertaining to the year 2013-14 :

	₹
Opening stock	1,50,000
Purchases	2,10,000
Returns inward	15,000
Sales	5,00,000
Returns outward	17,000
Factory rent	60,000
Wages	70,000

Question 12.
“All aspects have different elements which are required to complete it.” In the light of this statement explain the various elements that form a computer. [5]

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Standard Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

Max. Marks: 40
Time: 2 Hours
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.

• There are 12 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
• SECTION A-Q. No. 1 to 3 are very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
• SECTION B-Q. No. 4 to 11 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
• SECTION C-Q. No. 12 is case based question carrying 5 marks.
• Alt questions are compulsory.
• Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

Section – A (2 Marks each)

Question 1.
Arrange the following in the increasing order of their property indicated (any 2):
(j) BaCl₂, MgCl₂, BeCl₂, CaCl₂ (ionic character)
(ii) Mg(OH)₂, Sr(OH)₂, Ba(OH)₂, Ca(OH)₂ (Increasing solubility in water)
(iii) MgCO₃,CaCO₃, SrCO₃ and BaCO₃ (thermal stability)

Question 2.
In one litre saturated solution of AgCl [K_sp = 1.6 × 10^-10 0.1 mol of CuCl [K_sp = 1.0 × 10⁶] is added. Find out the resultant concentration of Ag⁺ in the solution.

Question 3.
Give reasons to support your answer:
(i) Although heat is a path function but heat absorbed by the system under certain specific conditions
is independent of path.
(ii) Density, pressure and temperature are intensive properties.

Section – B (3 Marks each)

Question 4.
Account for the following:
(i) The boiling point of pentane is higher than 2,2-dimethylpropane.
(ii) Acetylene is acidic but it does not react with NaOH or KOH.
(iii) AIkynes do not show geometrical isomerism.
OR
Convert the following:
(i) Ethyne into but-2-yne
(ii) Acetic acid into methane,
(iv) Bromoethane into ethane.

Question 5.
Answer the following questions:
(i) Silicon forms \(\mathrm{SiF}_{6}^{2-}\) ion whereas corresponding fluoro compound of carbon is not known. Explain to support your answer.
(ii) What is the state of hybridisation of carbon in (a) \(\mathrm{CO}_{3}^{2}\), (b) Diamond
OR
(i) Why CCl₄ is immiscible in water whereas SiCl₄ is easily hydrolysed?
(ii) Write balanced equations for:
(a) BF₃ + LiH →
(b) A1 + NaOH →

Question 6.
Account for the following:
(i) Down the group, stability of peroxide and superoxide of alkali metals increases.
(ii) LiF is almost insoluble in water whereas LiCl is soluble not only in water but also in acetone.
(iii) Alkali metals are prepared by electrolysis of their fused chlorides.

Question 7.
An alkene A’ contains three C – C, eight C – H σ bonds and one C – C π bond. ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde of molar mass 44 u. Write IUPAC name of A.

Question 8.
Observe the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:
The variation of pressure with volume of the gas at different temperatures can be graphically represented as shown in figure.

(i) An increase in pressure of a gas at constant temperature, how does the volume of gas vary?
(ii) What will be the change in volume of gas observed if the temperature is increased from 200K to
400K at a constant pressure?
(iil)Calculate the volume occupied by 8.8 g of carbon dioxide at 31.1°C and I bar pressure. (R = 0.083
bar L K^-1 mol^-1]

Question 9.
What happens when the following chemical reactions occur:
(i) Beniene is treated with acetyl chloride in presence of anhydrous AlCl₃
(ii) Sodium acetate solution is electrolysed.
(ili)Hexane on heating with vanadium oxide over alumina at 10-20 atm pressure.
OR
(i) Write IUPAC names of the following organic compound:

(ii) Complete the following chemical reaction:

Question 10.
What will be the pressure of the gas mixture when 0.5L of H₂ at 0.8 bar and 2.0L of oxygen at 0.7 bar
are introduced in a 1L vessel at 27°C?

Question 11.
(i) Why BCl₃ molecule has zero dipole moment, while B-Cl bond has a dipole moment?
(ii) Why pπ – pπ bonding occur in halides of boron and not in those of aluminium?
(iii) What is the resonance structures of CO₃^2- and HCO₃^–.
OR
On the basis of the figure given below, answer the following questions:

(i) Why do BCl₃ and AlCl₃ behave as Lewis acids?
(ii) BCl₃ exists as monomer whereas AlCl₃ is dimerised. Why?
(iii) When BCl₃ is treated with water, it hydrolysis and forms [B(OH)₄]^– only whereas, AlCl₃ in acidified
aqueous solution forms [Al(H₂O)₆]³⁺ Explain what is the hybridisation of boron and aluminium in
these species?

Section – C (5 Marks )

Question 12.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
The theory of thermodynamics can be summarised in its three main laws. The zeroth law introduces the notion of thermal equilibrium as an equivalence relation of states, where temperature is the parameter that labels the different equivalence classes. In particular, the transitive property of the equivalence relation implies that if a body A is in equilibrium with a body B, and B is with a third body C, then A and C are also in equilibrium. The first law assures energy conservation. It states that in a thermodynamic process not all of energy changes are of the same nature and distinguishes between work, the type of energy that allows for “useful” operations as raising a weight, and its complement heat, any energy change which is not work.

Finally, the second law establishes an arrow of time. It has several formulations and perhaps the most common one is the Clausius statement, which states that no process is possible whose sole result is the transfer of heat from a cooler to a hotter body. Such a restriction not only introduces the fundamental limit on how and to what extent various forms of energy can be converted to accessible mechanical work, but also implies the existence of an additional state function, the entropy, which has to increase.
(i) Name the system which can neither exchange matter nor energy with the surroundings.
(ii) What is the significance of Zeroth Law?
(iii) What Will be the sign of AS for the following reaction? Why is it so?
N₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2NO(g)
(iv) The enthalpy of combustion of methane, graphite and dihydrogen at 298 K are – 890.3 kj mol^-1, -393.5 kj mol^-1 and -285.8 kj mol^-1 respectively. What is the enthalpy of formation of CH₄?
OR
1 g of graphite is burnt in a bomb calorimeter in excess of oxygen at 298 K and 1 atmospheric pressure according to the equation:
C (graphite) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g)
During the reaction, temperature rises from 298K to 299K. If the heat capacity of the bomb calorimeter is 20.7 kJ/K. What is the enthalpy change for the above reaction at 298K and 1 atm?

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Accountancy Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The Question Paper consists of two Parts – A and B. There are total 12 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Part – A consists of Accounting Process.
• Part – B consists of Financial Accounting and Computers in Accounts.
• Question Nos. 1 to 2 and 5 to 6 are short answer type questions – I carrying 2 Marks each.
• Question Nos. 3 and 7 to 9 are short answer type questions – II carrying 3 Marks each.
• Questions Nos. 4 and 10 to 12 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 3 questions of three marks and 1 question of five marks.

Part-A (12 marks)
Accounting Process

Question 1.
With the help of the information given, complete the Journal entries in the books of B and Co. A two-month Bill for ₹ 60,000 is drawn by B and Co. and accepted by C and Co., payable at the Bank of India. B and Co. gave the bill to their banker for collection. On due date, bill is honoured. Show the entries that will be passed in the books of B and Co. [2]

Answer:

Question 2.
The following Trial Balance has been prepared by an inexperienced accountant. Redraft it in a correct form: [2]

Answer:

Question 3.
Prakash received from Mohan an acceptance for ₹ 30,000 on 1st July, 2014 at 3 months. Prakash got this acceptance discounted at 12% per annum at his bank. On the due date, Mohan paid the required amount. Give Journal entries in the books of Prakash and Mohan. [3]
OR
On 1st January, 2014, A sold goods to B for ₹ 5,000 and on the same day drew upon him a bill at three months for the amount. B accepted the bill and returned it to A. On 4th January, 2014, A discounted the bill with his bank at ₹ 4,900. On the due date, the bill was dishonoured and bank paid ₹ 100 as noting charges. Record these transactions in the Journals of A and B. [3]
Answer:

Working Note:
Discount for whole year = ₹ 3,600
Discount for 3 months = ₹ 900
Cash received = ₹ 30,000 – ₹ 900 = ₹ 29,100
Amount of Discount = 30,000 – 30,000 × \(\frac{12}{100}\) × \(\frac{3}{12}\) = ₹ 900
Note: On payment of the bill, no entry will be made.

Commonly Made Errors:

• Students pass the entry for making of payment on due date in the book of Prakash.
• Some students wrongly pass the entry for discounting of bill through bank in the books of Mohan.

Answering Tip:

• Since Prakash has got the bill discounted with the bank, due date entries will not be passed through his Books of Account.
• Since bill has been discounted by Prakash, the entry will be shown only in his books and not in the books of Mohan.

OR

Commonly Made Errors: Students do not pass the entry dishonour in the books of A.

Answering Tip: Though bill is discounted with bank, then a dishonour entry will be made in the books of A along with the amount of noting charges. This is so because now A is liable to pay the amount of bill to the bank along with noting charges and the same becomes renewable from B.

Question 4.
On 31st March 2018, Arijit Singh finds that he has committed following errors:
(i) Goods costing ₹ 2,500 were sent to customer on sale on approval basis for ₹ 3,000. The entry was made in Sales Book, but the customer has not informed regarding their acceptance by 31st March 2018.
(ii) Unexpired insurance of ₹ 3,000 has not been considered while preparing Profit & Loss A/c.
(iii) An amount of ₹ 17,000 on account of claim against the customer was in dispute and it was estimated that ₹ 8,000 would probably have to be paid on this account.
(iv) Interest accrued on Investment was ₹ 2,400.
(v) Closing Stock was overcast by ₹ 500.
Give necessary journal entries. [5]
Answer:

Commonly Made Errors: Students tend to pass the amount of overcast of Closing Stock to Suspense A/c.

Answering Tip: When Closing Stock is overcast, the Trading Account will show increased gross profit by that amount. Hence, Trading A/c needs to be debited to rectify the error.

Part-B (28 marks)
(Financial Accounting and Computer in Accounts)

Question 5.
S. Sharma closes their financial books on 31 December, 2013. Stock taking takes about two weeks. In 2014, the value of closing stock thus arrived at was ₹ 25,000. During the two weeks in which stock taking took place, purchases made were ₹ 1,000 and sales totalled ₹ 4,000. The firm makes a Gross Profit of 30% on sales. Ascertain the value of closing stock of 31st Dec., 2013. [2]
Answer:
Cost of goods sold during stock taking period = 70% of ₹ 4,000 = ₹ 2,800
Closing stock = Value as on 16th Jan. 2007 + Cost of goods sold during 1-16 Jan. – Cost of goods purchased during 1-16 Jan.
= ₹ 25,000 + ₹ 2,800 – ₹ 1,000 = ₹ 26,800

Commonly Made Errors: Students get confused while solving this question.

Answering Tip: Carefully read the question, understand what information is given in it and then solve the question.

Question 6.
Calculate cost of goods sold from the following:

Opening Stock	₹ 40,000
Wages and Salaries	₹ 10,000
Net Purchases	₹ 50,000
Rent Paid	₹ 15,000
Net Sales	₹ 1,19,000
Closing Stock	₹ 15,000

Answer:
Cost of Goods Sold = Opening stock + Purchases + Direct expenses – Closing stock
= ₹ 40,000 + ₹ 50,000 + ₹ 10,000 – ₹ 15,000
= ₹ 85,000

Commonly Made Errors: Some students wrongly deduct rent paid while calculating cost of goods sold.

Answering Tip: It should be kept in mind that only direct expenses are considered while calculating cost of goods sold.

Question 7.
From the following pass the necessary journal entries:

Adjustments:
(1) Write off further Bad debts of ₹ 5,000.
(2) Provision for Doubtful Debts is to be kept at 5% of Debtors.
(3) Provision for discount on Creditors is to be maintained at 10%. [3]
Answer:

Question 8.
Briefly explain the various components of a Computer Hardware. [3]
OR
Explain the importance or application of computers in accounting. [3]
Answer:

• Mother-Board: Mother-Board is a main board of a computer. It is also called logic board. It allows communication between many crucial electronic components of a system.
• Keyboard: Keyboard is an input device. It is used to input text into the computer. All the keys in keyboard are arranged in specific order
• Speaker: Speaker produces electrical signal produced with the help of amplifier and turn these into sound waves.
• Monitor: It is a computer screen. The Operator can see the result. Now-a-days, LCD Monitors
  are used instead of CRT monitors which were used in old days. ]

Commonly Made Errors:

• While writing the answer students confuse between components of computer hardware and elements of a computer system.
• Carefully read the question and understand what is asked in the question.

OR

The importance of computers in accounting can be understood by the following:

• Accuracy: Accounting through computers is more accurate as there is less possibility of errors.
  In built controls in the computer reduce the possibility of making errors.
• Time Saving: Accounting in computers saves time. A journal entry is required to be passed in accounts whereas the ledgers, trial balance, profit and loss account are automatically prepared.
• Analysis: Accounting data in computers make analysis of the performance easier. Programs can be written-to generate important performance indicators such as ratios, graphs, etc.
• Audit Trail: The information in computers have audit trails therefore, the entry flow of transaction can be easily determined at one click.
• Prevention of Fraud: Information in computers can be prevented from deletion. Moreover, the person who passes the entry is also recorded. Hence, it provides a better control against fraud.
• Data Storage: Accounting through books and registers are cumbersome and also prone to damage. Computer information can be easily stored as well as backup can also be taken.

Question 9.
The Capital of X on 31st March, 2015 is ₹ 2,20,000 and his capital on 31st March, 2014 was ₹ 1,97,000. During the year, he gave a loan of ₹ 38,000 to his brother on private account and withdraw ₹ 2,500 p.m. for personal purpose. He also used a flat for his personal purpose, the rent of which at the rate of <f 1,000 p.m. and electricity charges at an average rate of ₹ 100 p.m. were paid from business account. During the year, he sold his 7% Government Bonds of ₹ 20,000 at 2% premium and bought that money into his business. Besides this, there is no other information. You are required to prepare a Statement of Profit.
OR
The Capital of Anant on 1st April, 2017 was ₹ 5,00,000 and on 31st March, 2018 was ₹ 4,80,000. He informed that he will withdraw from the business ₹ 8,000 per month for private use. He paid ₹ 20,000 for his personal income-tax and the instalment of the loan of his personal house at the rate of ₹ 15,000 per month from the business. He also sold his shares of Tata Finance costing ₹ 1,00,000 at a profit of 20% and invested half of this amount in the business. Calculate the profit or loss of the business.
Answer:

Working Note:

OR

Working Note:

Question 10.
Prepare trading and Profit and Loss account of M/s Sports Equipment for the year ended March 31, 2014 and Balance sheet as on that date:

Closing stock as on March 31st, 2014 ₹ 2,500, [5]

OR

Prepare the trading and profit and loss account and balance sheet of M/s Control Device India on March 31,2014 from the following balances as on that date:

Adjustments:
(i) Closing stock was valued 20,000.
(ii) Interest or capital @ 10%.
(iii) Interest on drawings @ 5%.
(iv) Wages outstanding ₹50.
(v) Outstanding salary ₹20.
(vi) Provide depreciation @ 5% on plant and machinery.
(vii) Make a 5% provision on debtors. [5]
Answer:

OR

Question 11.
Mr. Ashok does not keep his books properly. Following information is available from his books:

Particulars	Jan. 01,2013 (₹)	Dec. 31,2013 (₹)
Sundry creditors	45,000	93,000
Loan from wife	66,000	57,000
Sundry debtors	22,500	—
Land and Building	89,600	90,000
Cash in hand	7,500	8,700
Bank overdraft	25,000	—
Furniture	1,300	1,300
Stock	34,000	25,000

During the year Mr. Ashok sold his private car for ₹ 50,000 and invested this amount into the business. He withdraw from the business ₹ 1,500 per month upto July 31,2013 and thereafter ₹ 4,500 per month as drawings. You are required to prepare the statement of profit or loss and statement of affairs as on December 31st, 2013. [5]
Answer:

Working Notes:

Drawing during the year

Question 12.
(a) Define Accounting Information System. [2]
Answer:
An Accounting Information System is a system of collecting, processing, summarizing and reporting information about a business organization in monetary terms.

(b) State any three purpose of Accounting Information System. [3]
Answer:
The purpose of Accounting Information System is as follows:

• Sales order Processing: The customer’s orders are processed, and invoices are made. This also facilitates the inventory control and sales analysis.
• Inventory Control: Inventory at various levels of manufacturing process can be easily controlled and monitored with the frequent changes happening in the stock.
• Accounts Receivable: The track of all the debtor of the company and the amount owed by them can be easily traced and calculated.
• Accounts Payable: The record of the amount paid and owed to the creditors can be easily tracked.
• Payroll: The computerised recording of the employee time card and the payment to be made accordingly can be easily calculated. It also enables in producing pay checks and efficiency analysis report of individual employee.
• General Ledger: The consolidation of all the accounting information is done easily from the data received.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Chemistry Standard Term 2 Set 5 for Practice

Max. Marks: 40
Time: 2 Hours
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.

• There are 12 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
• SECTION A-Q. No. 1 to 3 are very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
• SECTION B-Q. No. 4 to 11 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
• SECTION C-Q. No. 12 is case based question carrying 5 marks.
• Alt questions are compulsory.
• Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

Section – A (2 Marks each)

Question 1.
Arrange the following in the increasing order of their property indicated (Any 2):
(i) Tin, Silicon, Germanium,Carbon (Catenation)
(ii) Aluminium, Gallium, Boron, Thallium, Indium (Ionisation enthalpy)
(iii) Carbon, Tin, Germanium, Silicon (Electronegativity)

Question 2.
What are allotropes? What is the impact of structure on physical properties of two allotropes?

Question 3.
Give reasons to support your answer:
(i) Lithium forms only monoxide where as sodium forms peroxide. Why?
(ii) Second ionisation energy of group 2 elements is less than group 1 elements.

Section – B (3 Marks each)

Question 4.
Account for the following:
(i) For an electruphilic substitution reaction, the presence of a halogen atom in the benzene ring affect
reaction.
(ii) An alkene A on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and pentan-3- one.
(iii)In an electrophiic substitution reaction of nitrobenzene, the presence of nitro group affect the
reaction.
OR
Convert the following:
(i) Benzene into ethylbenzene
(ii) Phenol into Benzene
(iv) Propyne into propane

Question 5.
Answer the following questions: IBS
(i) The pressure of a 1:4 mixture of dihydrogen and dioxygen enclosed in a vessel is one atmosphere. What would be the partial pressure of dioxygen?
(ii) Which are the two wrong assumptions of the kinetic molecular theory of gases which led to the failure of the ideal gas law?
OR
(i) A vessel of 120 ml capacity contains a certain amount at 35°C and 1.2 bar pressure. The gas is transferred to another vessel of volume 180 mL at 35°C. What would be its pressure ?
(ii) Compressibility factor, Z, of a gas is given as Z = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{n \mathrm{RT}}\)
(a) What is the value of Z for an ideal gas ?
(b) For real gas what will be the effect on the value of Z above Boyle’s temperature ?

Question 6.
Account for the following:
(i) Why is the standard enthalpy of formation of diamond not zero although it is an element?
(ii) Why entropy of steam is more than that of water at its boiling point?
(iii) One mole of acetone requires less heat to vaporise than 1 mole of water.

Question 7.
An unsaturated hydrocarbon ‘A’ adds two molecules of H₂ and on reductive ozonolysis gives butane-1,4- dial, ethanal and propanone. Give the structure of ‘A’, write its IUPAC name and explain the reactions involved.

Question 8.
Observe the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:

(i) What does the diagram in the figure used for?
(ii) Derive relationship between ΔH and ΔU.
(iii) Internal energy of a system belongs to which type of property?

Question 9.
What happens when reactions:
(i) m-xylene is treated with Br₂ in presence of FeBr3.
(ii) Acetylene is passed through dil. H₂SO₄ in presence of HgSO₄.
(iii) Propene on reaction with Bayer’s reagent.
OR
(i) Write IUPAC names of the following:

(ii) Complete the following:

Question 10.
An organic base X has K equal to 1 × 10^-8. In what amount should 0.01 M HCl and 0.01 M solution of X be mixed to prepare 1 litre of a buffer solution having pH = 7?

Question 11.
(i) For the reaction, the standard free energy is ΔG°> 0. What is the value
of K?
(ii) A solution of Na₂CO₃ is alkaline. Given reason.
(iii) Ba(OH)₂ is soluble in water while BaSO₄ is almost insoluble. Given reason.
OR
On the basis of the figure given below, answer the following questions:

(i) In which of the figure, forward reaction is favoured?
(ii) What does it tell about the (heat produced/absorbed in the reaction) type of reaction?
(iii) An equilibrium mixture at 300 K contains N₂O₄ and NO₂ at 0.28 and 1.1 atmospheric pressures respectively. If the volume of the container is doubled, calculate the new equilibrium pressure of the two gases.

Section – C (5 Marks)

Question 12.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
The alkaline earth metals have low ionization enthalpies due to fairly large size of the atoms. Since, the atomic size increases down the group, their ionization decreases. The first ionization enthalpies of the alkaline earth metals are higher than those of the corresponding group 1 metals. This is due to their small size as compared to the corresponding alkali metals. The second ionization enthalpies of the alkaline earth metals are smaller than those of the corresponding alkali metals.

(i) Why do alkaline earth metals act as reducing agents?
(ii) Why the second ionization enthalpies of the alkaline earth metals are smaller than the alkali metals?
(iii) Why do Be and Mg not impart colour to the flame?
(iv) Name an element from group 2 which forms an amphoteric oxide and a water soluble sulphate.
OR
Mention two properties of lithium which are similar to magnesium.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Economics Education with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Economics Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks : 40

General Instructions:

• This is a subjective question paper containing 13 questions.
• This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
• Section A, 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions-Answer them in 30-50 words.
• Section B, 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions-Answer them in 50-80 words.
• Section C, 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions-Answer them in 80-120 words.
• This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Section – A
(2 Marks Each)

Question 1.
Explain any two causes of “Decrease” in the supply of a commodity. (2)
OR
Explain the distinction between ‘change in supply’ and ‘change in quantity supplied.’ (2)

Question 2.
Using the simple aggregative method, calculate the index number for the given data. (2)

Commodity	A	B	C	D
P1	15	22	20	27
p0	10	20	18	25

Question 3.
Why does the government of India fix ‘support price’ for some crops? Explain. (2)

Question 4.
List the merits of Standard Deviation. (2)
OR
Write down any two characteristics of a good measure of dispersion. (2)

Question 5.
What are the effects of ‘price-floor’ (minimum price ceiling) on the market of a good? Use diagram. (2)
OR
Explain the implications of the “freedom of entry and exit” feature of perfect competition.

Section – B
(3 Marks Each)

Question 6.
Can the CPI number for urban non-manual employees represent the changes in the cost of living of the President of India? (3)
OR
Why do we need an index number?

Question 7.
Calculate Price Elasticity of Supply from the following data: (3)

Price Per Unit (₹)	10	12
Total Revenue (₹)	2000	2400

Read the following passage and answer Q.8 and Q.9 that follows:

Competition degrees means the power or the influence that a firm creates over the market which eventually affects the whole structure and thus the system works according to the competition.

Perfect competition, which means that there are a large number of sellers in the market who compete for the customers.

Monopolistic competition, is the type of competition in which there are many sellers who produce quite similar products, but the customers see their products as differently, which creates the competition.

The third is Oligopoly, where few firms compete or collaborate with each other.

The fourth is the Monopoly, which means a single seller selling unique project.

Question 8.
Explain the implication of large number of sellers under perfect competition. (3)

Question 9.
Explain tire implication of’one seller’feature of monopoly. (3)

Question 10.
Define Revenue. State the relation between marginal revenue and average revenue. (3)

Section – C
(5 Marks Each)

Question 11.
Calculate Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation with the help of following data:

x	6	8	12	15	18	20	24	28	31
y	10	12	15	15	18	25	22	26	28

Question 12.
(i) Why is total variable cost curve inverse S-shaped? (2)
(ii) What is Average Fixed Cost of a firm? Why is an Average Fixed Cost Curve a Rectangular Hyperbola? Explain with help of a diagram. (3).

Question 13.
Calculate Coefficient of Variation from the following data: (5)

Number of Goals Scored	0	1	2	3	4
Number of Matches Played	27	9	8	5	4

OR
(a) The following data shows the daily wages for 199 workers in a factory. Find out quartile deviation and coefficient of quartile deviation for the following data: (2)

Wages (₹)	10	20	30	40	50	60	70	80	90	100
Number of Workers	2	8	20	35	42	20	28	26	16	2

(b) List any five characteristics of an ideal measure of dispersion. (3)

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 Physics Standard Term 2 Set 5 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• There are 12 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
• This question paper has three sections: Section A, Section B and Section C.
• Section A contains three questions of two marks each, Section B contains eight questions of three marks each, Section C contains one case study-based question of five marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question of two marks and two questions of three marks. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
• You may use log tables if necessary but use of calculator is not allowed.

Section – A (2 Marks Each)

Question 1.
Why does an iron needle float on clean water but sink when some detergent is added to this water?

Question 2.
Is it possible to increase the temperature of a gas without adding heat to it? If yes, then explain how?
OR
Why does specific heat of gases increase with their atomicity ?

Question 3.
Which is more elastic: steel or rubber? Give reason.

Section – B (3 Marks Each)

Question 4.
Prove that C_P is greater than C_V.

Question 5.
A particle moving in a straight line has velocity υ given by υ² = α – βy² , where a and β are constant and y is its distance from a fixed point in the line. Show that the motion of the particle is S.H.M. Find its time period and amplitude.

Question 6.
Derive Charles’s law on the basis of kinetic theory of gases.

Question 7.
(i) Are all periodic functions simple harmonic motion? Give reason for your answer.
(ii) A simple pendulum performs S.H.M. about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time period T. What is the speed of the pendulum at x = a/21

Question 8.
Derive an expression for work done in isothermal process.
OR
A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift cars with a maximum mass of 3000 kg. The area of cross-section of the piston carrying the load is 425 cm². What maximum pressure would the smaller piston have to bear?

Question 9.
What is the value of elasticity for
(a) Young’s modulus
(b) Bulk modulus

Question 10.
Derive an expression for fundamental frequency and various overtones of a closed pipe open at one end.

Question 11.
A set of 24 tunning forks is arranged in order of decreasing frequency. Each fork gives 4 beats with succeeding one. The first fork is octave of the last. Calculate the frequency of the first and 12^th fork.
OR
Giving reasons for your selection, select pairs out of the following four waves in a medium which will give rise to (i) beats, (ii) destructive interference, (iii) stationary waves.
1. ξ₁ = Acos 2π(υ₁t + \(\frac{x}{\lambda_{1}}\))
2. ξ₂ = Acos 2π(υ₁t + \(\frac{x}{\lambda_{1}}\) + π)
3. ξ₃ = Acos 2π(υ₁t + \(\frac{x}{\lambda_{2}}\))
4. ξ₄ = Acos 2π(υ₁t + \(\frac{x}{\lambda_{2}}\))

Section – C (5 Marks)

Question 12.
CASE STUDY: PROPERTIES OF AN IDEAL GAS
A cubic vessel ABCDEFGH (with faces horizontal + vertical) contains an ideal gas at NTE The vessel
is being carried by a rocket which is moving up at a speed of 500 ms.
(i) The pressure of the gas inside the vessel as observed by us on the ground
(a) remains the same because 500 ms^-1 is very much smaller than v_rms of the gas.
(b) remains the same because motion of the vessel does not effect the relative motion of the gas
molecules and the walls.
(c) will increase by a factor equal to(υ²_rms + (500)²)/υ²_rms where υ_rms was the original mean square velocity of the gas
(d) will be different on the top and bottom wall of the vessel.

(ii) If the face of cube (EFGH) is made up of a material any gas molecule incident on it. At any given time,

(a) pressure on EFGH would be zero.
(b) pressure on all the faces will the equal.
(c) pressure of EFGH =2(Pressure on ABCD)
(d) pressure of EFGH = 1/2 (Pressure on ABCD)

(iii) Gas laws are applicable for ideal gas. Boyle’s law is applicable for an
(a) adiabatic process
(b) isothermal process.
(c) isobaric process
(d) isochoric process.

(iv) Volume versus temperature graphs for a given mass of an ideal gas are shown at two different values of constant pressure. What can be inferred about relation between P₁ and P₂?

(a) P₁ > P₂
(b) P₁ = P₂
(c) P₁ < ₂
(d) data is insufficient

(v) If the top surface of cube is replaced with frictionless movable piston of mass M, then as temperature is increased,

(a) both P and V of the gas will change.
(b) only P will increase according to Charles’s law.
(c) V will change but not P
(d) P will change but not V.