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Here we are providing Class 12 Hindi Important Extra Questions and Answers Vitan Chapter 3 अतीत में दबे पाँव . Important Questions for Class 12 Hindi are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

अतीत में दबे पाँव Class 12 Important Extra Questions Hindi Vitan Chapter 3

प्रश्न 1.
हड़प्या शहर के साक्ष्यों की पूर्ण रूप से प्राप्ति क्यों नहीं हो पाई है ?
उत्तर
हड़प्पा शहर के अधिकांश साक्ष्य रेल लाइन बिछाने के दौरान पूरी तरह से नष्ट हो गए थे। वे आधुनिक काल के विकास की भेंट चढ़ गए हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
मोहनजोदड़ो शहर की व्यापकता के विषय में लिखिए। (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2013, Set-II, III)
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो शहर अपने समय में बहुत ही बड़ा रहा होगा। लगभग पाँच सौ वर्ष पहले यह आज के ‘महासागर’ से भी बड़ा रहा होगा। यह शहर दो सौ हेक्टर क्षेत्र में फैला हुआ था और इसकी जनसंख्या लगभग पचासी हजार थी। यह घाटी भी सभ्यता का केंद्र रही होगी।

प्रश्न 3.
मोहनजोदड़ो कहाँ बसा हुआ था ? इस शहर के नाम का अर्थ क्या है और इसे अब किस नाम से पुकारते हैं ?
अथवा
मोहनजोदड़ो का शाब्दिक अर्थ क्या है? यह कहाँ स्थित है? (A.I. C.B.S.E. 2014, Set-I, II, III)
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो पाकिस्तान के सिंध प्रांत में स्थित पुरातत्विक स्थान पर बसा हुआ था जहाँ कभी सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता थी। ‘मुअनजो-दड़ो’ का शाब्दिक अर्थ है-मुदों का टीला। वर्तमान में इसे मोहजोदड़ो नाम से पुकारा जाता है।

प्रश्न 4.
मोहनजोदड़ो कहाँ बसा हुआ था ? इसे विशेष प्रकार से क्यों बसाया गया था ? यह क्यों प्रसिद्ध है? (C.B.S.E. 2011. A.I. C.B.S.E. 2011 Set-1, 2012. Set-1)
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता के समय छोटे-मोटे टीलों पर बसा हुआ था। ये टीले प्राकृतिक नहीं थे। ईंटों से धरती की सतह को ऊँचा उठाकर इसे बसाया गया था। इसे टीलों पर इसलिए बनाया गया था कि बाढ़ आदि के कारण सिंधु नदी के जल से इसे बचाया जा सके। यह अपनी ऐतिहासिकता और सांस्कृतिक प्रतीक होने के कारण प्रसिद्ध है।

प्रश्न 5.
वर्तमान में सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता को किस रूप में देखा और महसूस किया जा सकता है ?
उत्तर
वर्तमान में सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता को इसकी सूनी पड़ी गलियों-सड़कों पर घूमकर देखा जा सकता है। इसकी टूटी-फूटी दीवारों, खंडहरों, घरों, दहलीजों, सीढ़ियों, पायदानों आदि को देखा और महसूस किया जा सकता है। इसके माध्यम से इतिहास के पार झाँका जा सकता है।

प्रश्न 6.
मोहनजोदड़ो के अवशेष कितने पुराने हैं ? इन्होंने भारत को प्राचीन सभ्यताओं की किस श्रेणी में ला खडा किया है ?
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो के अवशेष ईसा पूर्व के हैं। इसके सबसे बड़े चबूतरे पर बने बौद्ध स्तूप में छब्बीस सदी पहले की ईंटें लगी हुई हैं जिसमें भिक्षुओं के भी कमरे है। इस खोज ने भारत को मिस्र और मेसोपोटामिया (इराक) की प्राचीन सभ्यताओं के समकक्ष खड़ा कर दिया है।

प्रश्न 7.
इस आदिम शहर की सभ्यता-संस्कृति की अधिकांश वस्तुएँ अब कहाँ हैं ?
उत्तर
इस आदिम शहर की सभ्यता-संस्कृति से संबंधित वस्तुएँ अब कराची, लाहौर, दिल्ली और लंदन के संग्रहालयों में सुरक्षित हैं।

प्रश्न 8.
सिंध क्षेत्र में सरदियों में वातावरण कैसा होता है?
उत्तर
सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता का क्षेत्र सिंध राजस्थान से कुछ मिलता-जुलता है। सर्दियों में भी दोपहर के समय धूप चौंधियानी वाली होती है। वह राजस्थान की धूप की तरह पारदर्शी नहीं है जिस कारण सारा वातावरण और दिशाएँ फीके-से रंग में रंगी हुई प्रतीत होती हैं। रेत के टीले नहीं हैं और खेतों में हरियाली है। खुला आसमान, सूना परिवेश, धूल, बबूल और अधिक गर्मी और सर्दी यहाँ के वातावरण की विशिष्टताएँ हैं।

प्रश्न 9.
मोहनजोदड़ो में कौन-सा निर्माण अभी भी अपने मूल स्वरूप के बहुत नजदीक दिखाई देता है? अन्य संरचनाओं की स्थिति कैसी है?
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो में ‘अनुष्ठानिक महाकुंड’ ही अभी तक अपने मूल स्वरूप के बहुत निकट दिखाई देता है जो अद्वितीय वस्तु कला का नमूना है। अन्य इमारतें और संरचनाएँ इतनी उजड़ी हुई हैं कि कल्पना से ही उनके उपयोग का अंदाजा लगाया जा सकता है।

प्रश्न 10.
मोहनजोदड़ो की सड़कों की क्या विशेषता है ?
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो की लगभग सभी सड़कें सीधी या फिर आड़ी। आज के वास्तुकारक इसे ‘ग्रिड प्लान’ कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 11.
विश्व के कौन-से नगर ‘ग्रिड प्लान’ के अनुसार बने हुए हैं ?
उत्तर
विश्व के प्रसिद्ध नगर ब्रासीलिया, चंडीगढ़ और इस्लामाबाद ‘ग्रिड’ शैली के शहर हैं जो आधुनिक नगर नियोजन के प्रतिमान ठहराए जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 12.
महाकुंड की विशेषताएँ लिखिए। (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2013, Set-I)
उत्तर
स्तूप की दाईं तरफ एक लंबी गली के आगे महाकुंड है। गली को दैव मार्ग (डिविनिटि स्ट्रीट) नाम दिया गया है। माना जाता है कि उस सभ्यता में सामूहिक स्नान किसी अनुष्ठान का हिस्सा होता था। कुंड चालीस फुट लंबा और पच्चीस फुट चौड़ा और सात फुट गहरा है। इसमें उत्तर और दक्षिण की ओर से सीढ़ियाँ उतरती हैं। इसके तीन तरफ़ साधुओं के लिए कमरे बने हैं। उत्तर दिशा में दो पंक्तियों में आठ स्नानघर हैं और इसमें से किसी का भी दरवाजा दूसरे दरवाजे के सामने नहीं खुलता।

इस कुंड में पक्की ईंटों का जमाव है जिससे पानी रिस न सके और बाहर का गंदा पानी भीतर न जा सके। कुंड के तल और दीवारों पर ईंटों के बीच चूने और चिरोड़ी के गारे का प्रयोग किया गया है। पीछे की दीवारों के साथ दूसरी दीवार खड़ी की गई है जिसमें सफ़ेद डामर का प्रयोग है। कुंड के जल के लिए दोहरे घेरेवाला एक कुआँ है। कुंड से पानी को बाहर निकालने के लिए पक्की ईंटों से बनी हुई नालियाँ हैं जो ढकी हुई हैं।

प्रश्न 13.
‘कोठार’ क्या थे? इनका निर्माण क्यों किया गया था ?
उत्तर
‘कोठार’ अनाज इकट्ठा करने के लिए भंडार थे जिनमें शायद ‘कर’ के रूप में प्राप्त किया गया अनाज रखा जाता था। यहाँ नौ-नौ चौकियों की तीन कतारें हैं। उत्तरी दिशा में एक गली बनी हुई है जहाँ ढुलाई के लिए शायद बैलगाड़ियाँ लाई जाती होंगी।

प्रश्न 14.
कृषि के लिए इस क्षेत्र का उपयोग कैसे होता था ?
अथवा
सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता में किन-किन कृषि उपजों उत्पादन के प्रमाण प्राप्त होते हैं? ‘अतीत में दवे गंव के 50-5 पर लिखिए।
(C.B.S.E. 2014, Set-IT)
उत्तर
प्रसिद्ध इतिहासकार इरफान हबीब का मानना है कि यहाँ के लोग रबी की फसल लेते थे। कपास, गेहूँ, जौ, सरसों और चने की रोटी के प्रमाण मिले हैं। विद्वानों का मानना है कि यहाँ ज्वार, बाजरा और रागी भी पैदा की जाती थी। खजूर, खरबूजे और अंगूर भी उगाए जाते थे। झाड़ियों से बेर इकट्ठे किए जाते थे। कपास की खेती भी होती थी। कपास को छोड़कर अन्य सभी फ़सलों के तो बीज भी यहाँ से प्राप्त हुए हैं।

प्रश्न 15.
‘कॉलेज ऑफ़ प्रीस्ट्स’ किसे कहा गया है ? इसका निर्माण क्यों किया गया होगा ?
उत्तर
महाकुंड के उत्तर-पूर्व में एक बहुत बड़ी इमारत के अवशेष हैं जिसके तीन तरफ़ बरामदे और बीचोंबीच खुला स्थान है। इसमें बीस खंभों वाला एक बड़ा हॉल है। दक्षिण की तरफ़ एक ओर टूटी-फूटी इमारत है। माना जाता है कि बरामदों के साथ अनेक छोटे-छोटे कमरे होंगे। पुरातत्व शास्त्री मानते हैं कि धार्मिक अनुष्ठानों में ज्ञानशालाएँ साथ-साथ सटाकर बनाई जाती थीं इसलिए इसे ‘कॉलेज ऑफ़ प्रीस्ट्स’ कहते हैं। यह भी अनुमान लगाया जाता है कि यह राज्य सचिवालय सभा-भवन या कोई सामुदायिक केंद्र रहा होगा।

प्रश्न 16.
मोहनजोदड़ो की भवन-निर्माण कला की कौन-सी विशेषता चंडीगढ़ के संरचनाकार काबूजिए ने आपकी वास्तुकला में सम्मिलित की थी ?
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो में सड़क के दोनों ओर घर हैं पर सड़क की ओर सब घरों की पीठ दिखाई देती है। कोई भी घर मुख्य सड़क की ओर नहीं खुलता। उस सबके दरवाजे अंदर गलियों की ओर हैं। चंडीगढ़ के संरचनाकार काबूजिए ने भी 50 वर्ष पहले यही किया था। वहाँ किसी भी घर में प्रवेश करने के लिए मुख्य सड़क से पहले सेक्टर के भीतर जाना पड़ता है। फिर गली में और फिर घर में जा सकते हैं। शायद का«जिए की वास्तुकला में भी कोई प्रेरणा चेतन-अवचेतन में इसी प्रकार सफ़र करके पहुँची हो।

प्रश्न 17.
मोहनजोदड़ो में जल निकासी की व्यवस्था किस प्रकार की गई थी?
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो में सभी नालियाँ ढकी हुई थीं जो सड़क के दोनों तरफ़ समांतर बनी हुई थीं। हर घर में एक स्नानघर था। घरों के भीतर से गंदा पानी नालियों से बाहर हौदी तक आता था और फिर नालियों के जाल में मिल जाता था। कहीं-कहीं नालियाँ बिना ढकी हुई थीं।

प्रश्न 18.
मोहनजोदड़ो को ‘जल संस्कृति’ का नाम क्यों दिया जाता है ?
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो में जल का प्रबंधन बहुत अच्छे और सुविचारित ढंग से किया गया था। इतिहासकारों के अनुसार सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता पहली ऐसी ज्ञात संस्कृति है जिन्होंने कुएँ खोदकर भू-जल तक पहुँचने की क्षमता प्राप्त की थी। केवल मोहनजोदड़ो में ही लगभग सात सौ कुएँ थे। नदी, कुएँ, कुंड, स्नानागार और बेजोड़ जल-निकासी के कारण ही मोहनजोदड़ो को ‘जल संस्कृति’ का नाम दिया जाता है।

प्रश्न 19.
मोहनजोदड़ो में ‘मुखिया’ के घर की क्या विशेषता है ?
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो में अधिकतर घर तीस-गुणा-तीस फुट के हैं और कुछ घर इसमें दुगुने-तिगुने भी हैं पर सबकी न्यूनाधिक वास्तु शैली एक-सी है। पर जिसे ‘मुखिया’ का घर कहते हैं उसमें करीब बीस कमरे और दो आँगन हैं।

प्रश्न 20.
‘नर्तकी’ का प्रसिद्ध शिल्प कहाँ से प्राप्त हुआ था ? अब यह कहाँ पर है ?
उत्तर
हेरल्ड ग्रीव्ज ने मुख्य सड़क के दक्षिण की ओर खुदाई करवाई थी। एक छोटे घर से ‘नर्तकी’ शिल्प प्राप्त हुआ था जिसके विषय में पुरातत्वविद मार्टिमर वीलर ने कहा था कि ‘संसार में इसके जोड़ की दूसरी चीज़ शायद ही होगी। अब यह मूर्ति दिल्ली के राष्ट्रीय संग्रहालय में सुरक्षित है।

प्रश्न 21.
मोहनजोदड़ो में सब कुछ का आधार कैसा है ?
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो में कुओं को छोड़कर सब कुछ वर्गाकार या आयताकार है। नगर की योजना, बस्तियाँ, घर, कुंड, छोटी-बड़ी इमारतें, ठप्पेदार मुहरें, चौपड़ का खेल, गोटियाँ, तौलने के बट आदि सब चौकोर या आयताकार ही हैं।

प्रश्न 22.
मोहनजोदडो में पर्याप्त वर्षा और जंगलों का अनुमान किन आधारों पर लगाया जाता है?
उत्तर
1. घरों में खिड़कियाँ या दरवाजों पर छज्जों के चिह्न न होने से उन दिनों शायद बहुत तेज़ धूप नहीं पड़ती होगी क्योंकि कड़ी धूप से बचने के लिए छाया के लिए छज्जे बनाने का प्रचलन अब भी है।
2. जानी-मानी मुहरों पर शेर, हाथी, गेंडा आदि के चित्र होने के कारण, जो मरुभूमि पर नहीं पाए जाते।
3. किसी भी नहर के प्रमाण न मिलने से।

प्रश्न 23.
लेखक को मोहनजोदड़ो के सूनेपन को देखकर जैसलमेर के कुलधरा की याद क्यों आ गई थी ?
उत्तर
जैसलमेर के मुहाने पर पीले पत्थरोंवाला गाँव कुलधरा खूबसूरत है पर वहाँ सब लोग नहीं रहते। सभी गाँववासी डेढ़ सौ वर्ष पहले तत्कालीन राजा से हुई तकरार के कारण अपने स्वाभिमान की रक्षा के लिए रातोंरात गाँव छोड़कर चले गए थे। वे अपना सारा सामान तो ले गए थे पर उनके खंडहर हो चुके घर अभी भी ज्यों-के-त्यों खड़े हैं। लेखक को मोहनजोदड़ो के खंडहर देखकर वही दृश्य याद आ गया था।

प्रश्न 24.
मोहनजोदड़ो की सभ्यता के भग्नावशेषों में किसी भी हथियार का न मिलना क्या सिद्ध करता है?
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो की सभ्यता के भग्न अवशेषों में से 50,000 से अधिक वस्तुएँ प्राप्त हो चुकी हैं। पर उनसे हथियार एक भी प्राप्त नहीं हुआ। साथ ही राजसत्ता या स्वामित्व प्रदर्शित करनेवालों को अवशेष प्राप्त हुए हैं। इससे ऐसा प्रतीत होता है कि सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता का समाज अति अनुशासित और मजबूत था जिसे राजसत्ता की आवश्यकता ही नहीं थी। सबका समाज न तो धर्म द्वारा शासित था और न ही राजनीति के द्वारा चालित वह अपने ही बल पर अनुशासित था।

प्रश्न 25.
मोहनजोदड़ो की सभ्यता कैसी रही होगी? पाठ के आधार पर अनुमान से लिखिए। (C.B.S.E. 2011, 2014 Set-1)
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो की सभ्यता भव्यता और उच्चता की पुजारी नहीं थी। वह निम्न या मध्यवर्गीय थी जिसकी भव्यता उनके भीतरी अनुशासन में छिपी हुई थी। वे लोग सभ्य, धर्म-प्रेमी, कला-प्रेमी और सुसंस्कृत थे पर उनकी सभ्यता ‘लो प्रोफाइल’ थी।

प्रश्न 26.
मोहनजोदड़ो की सभ्यता से हमारा युग आज भी कुछ-कुछ जुड़ा हुआ था। कैसे?
उत्तर
मोहनजोदड़ो से जुड़ी सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता के समय ठोस पहियोंवाली बैलगाड़ियाँ चला करती थीं, जिनके अवशेष प्राप्त हुए हैं। ऐसी ही बैलगाड़ियाँ कुछ वर्ष पहले तक गाँवों में चला करती थीं। लेखक का मानना है कि उनके गाँव में दुल्हन पहली बार ससुराल में ऐसी बैलगाड़ियों में ही आया करती थीं।

निबंधात्मक प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न
1. मोहनजोदड़ो की नगर-योजना का वर्णन कीजिए।
अथवा
“सिंधु सभ्यता एक नगर-संस्कृति थी” वर्णन करें।
अथवा
मोहनजोदड़ो का अनूठा नगर नियोजन आधुनिक नगर नियोजन के प्रतिमान नगरों से बेहतर क्यों है? स्पष्ट कीजिए। (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2013, Set-III)
उत्तर
सिंधु घाटी की खुदाई से मिले अवशेषों से यह तथ्य स्पष्ट हो जाता है कि सिंधु सभ्यता एक नगर संस्कृति थी। जिस योजना के अनुसार मोहनजोदड़ो नगर बसा हुआ था यह योजना अपने आप में एक अनूठी योजना थी। यहाँ की सभी सड़कें सीधी हैं या फिर आड़ी। इस नगर में प्रशासनिक इमारतें, सभा भवन, ज्ञानशाला और कोठार हैं। सड़क के दोनों ओर घर हैं। लेकिन सड़क की ओर किसी भी घर का दरवाजा नहीं खुलता। सभी घर सड़क की ओर पीठ करके बनाए गए हैं।

यही शैली आधुनिक काल में चंडीगढ़ शहर को बसाने में इस्तेमाल की गई है। आपको किसी के घर जाने के लिए मुख्य सड़क से पहले सेक्टर के भीतर दाखिल होना पड़ता है; फिर गली में और फिर घर में प्रवेश किया जा सकता है। घर छोटे भी और बड़े भी हैं। लेकिन सभी घर कतार में खड़े हैं। अधिकतर घरों का आकार तीस गुणा तीस फुट का है। कुछ घर इससे बड़े भी हो सकते हैं। ये सभी घर नियोजित एवं व्यवस्थित थे।

नगर में एक बड़ा घर भी है शायद यह घर ‘मुखिया’ का घर रहा होगा। इस घर में दो आँगन और लगभग बीस कमरे रहे होंगे। इस नगर में उपासना केंद्र भी है और ‘रंगरेज़ का कारखाना’ भी। दो मंजिला घरों की संख्या भी काफ़ी है। यह भी अनुमान लगाया जा सकता है कि भूमि तल के मकानों में मजदूर आदि रहते थे और प्रथम तल पर मकान मालिक रहा करते थे। कुछ बड़े घरों में छोटे कमरे भी हैं।

इसका अर्थ यह हो सकता है कि शहर की जनसंख्या काफ़ी रही होगी। बड़े घरों के आँगन में चौड़ी सीढ़ियाँ हैं। कुछ घर दो मंजिला तो दिखते हैं परंतु उनपर सीढ़ियों के निशान नहीं हैं शायद ऊपर चढ़ने के लिए लकड़ी की सीढ़ियों का प्रयोग किया जाता होगा जो कालांतर में नष्ट हो गई होंगी।’ छोटे घरों की बस्ती में छोटी या संकरी सीढ़ियाँ हैं। उनके पायदान जरा ऊँचे हैं। ऐसा शायद जगह की कमी के कारण किया गया होगा। इस प्रकार सिंधु सभ्यता एस एक नगर संस्कृति पर आधारित सभ्यता थी। किती

प्रश्न 2.
मोहनजोदड़ो के अजायबघर में खुदाई के समय मिली कौन-कौन सी चीजें रखी हैं?
उत्तर
लेखक ओम थानवी जब मोहनजोदड़ो की यात्रा पर गए तो उनके गाइड ने एक छोटा अजायबघर भी दिखाया था। लेखक के अनुसार-“यह अजायबघर छोटा है जैसे किसी कस्बाई स्कूल की इमारत हो, सामान भी ज्यादा नहीं है।” इस अजायबघर में रखी चीजों की संख्या पचास हजार से अधिक रही होगी। मोहनजोदड़ो की खुदाई से मिली अहम चीजें अब कराची, दिल्ली और लंदन के अजायबघरों में रखी हुई हैं। इस अजायबघर में जो चीजें रखी गई हैं वे सिंधु सभ्यता के साक्षात दर्शन करवा देती हैं।

काला पड़ गया गेहूँ, ताँबे और काँसे के बरतन, मुहरें, वाद्य, चाक पर बने विशाल मृद-भांड, उनपर काले-भूरे चित्र, दो तीये के आइने, कंघी, मिटी के बरतन, दो पाटन की चक्की, मिट्टी की बैलगाड़ी और दूसरे खिलौने। रंग-बिरंगे पत्थरों के मनकोंवाले हार, चौपड़ की गोटियाँ, कंगन और सोने के कंगन। सोने के कंगन अब शायद चोरी हो गए हैं। इस प्रकार सभ्य समाज का जो साजो-सामान होता है वह सब सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता में देखने को मिलता है। इस प्रकार सिंधु सभ्यता दुनिया की प्राचीनतम सभ्यताओं में सबसे अनूठी एवं संस्कृति प्रधान सभ्यता है।

प्रश्न 3.
दुनिया के सबसे पुराने शहरों में दो भारतीय नगरों के नामों का उल्लेख कर उनकी प्रमुख विशिष्टताएं लिखिए।
अथवा
मोहनजोदड़ो कहाँ है? वह क्यों प्रसिद्ध है?
अथवा
मोहनजोदड़ो क्यों प्रसिद्ध है? दो कारण लिखिए। (C.B.S.E. 2012,A.I.C.B.S.E. 2012, Set-1)
उत्तर
‘मोहनजोदड़ो’ और ‘हड़प्पा’ भारत के वे प्राचीन शहर हैं जो दुनिया के सबसे पुराने शहरों में प्रमुख स्थान रखते है। ये दोनों सिंधु घाटी के परिपक्व दौर के शहर है। मोहनजोदड़ो तान युग के शहरों में सबसे बड़ा है। इसकी खुदाई से बड़ी संख्या में इमारतें, सड़कें, धातु-पत्थर की मूर्तियाँ, मुहरें, खिलौने, चाक पर बने चित्रित भांडे, साजो-सामान आदि मिलते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
‘अतीत में दबे पाँव’ पाठ के आधार पर स्पष्ट करें कि ध्वस्त खंडहर अपने समय की सभ्यता और संस्कृति के जीवंत दस्तावेज होते हैं। (IC.B.S.E. 2012)
अथवा
सिंधु घाटी के लोगों में कला या सुरुचि का महत्व ज्यादा था-टिप्पणी कीजिए। (A.I. C.R.S.E. 2014, Set-I, II, III)
उत्तर
सिंधु घाटी की खदाई में मिले स्तूप, गह, स्नानागार, टूटे-फूटे घर, चौडी और कम चौडी सडकें. गलियाँ. बैलगाडियाँ, सिलाई-कदाई की सूया, छोटी-छोटी नावे किसी भी सभ्यता एवं संस्कृति का इतिहास कही जा सकती हैं। इन टूटे-फूटे घरों के खंडहर उस सभ्यता की ऐतिहासिक कहानी बयान करते हैं। मिट्टी के बरतन, मूर्तियाँ, औजार आदि चीरों उस सभ्यता की ऐतिहासिक पृष्ठभूमि को नापने का हो सकते हैं परंतु मोहनजोदड़ो के ये टूटे-फूटे घर अभी इतिहास नहीं बने हैं।

इन घरों में अभी धड़कती जिंदगियों का अहसास होता है। संस्कृति और सभ्यता से जुड़ा सामान भले ही अजायबघर में रख दिया हो परंतु शहर अभी वहाँ है जहाँ कभी था। अभी भी आप इस शहर की किसी दीवार के साथ पीठ टिकाकर सुस्ता सकते हैं। वे घर अब चाहे खंडहर बन गए हों परंतु जब आप इन घरों की देहरी पर कदम रखते हैं तो आप थोड़े सहम जाते हैं क्योंकि यह भी किसी का घर रहा होगा। जब प्रवेश करते है तो डर लगना स्वाभाविक है।

आप किसी रसोई की खिड़की के साथ खड़े होकर उसमें पकते पकवान की गंध ले सकते है। अभी सड़कों के बीच से गुजरती बैलगाड़ियों की रुन-झुन की आवाज़ सुन सकते हैं। ये सभी घर टूटकर खंडहर बन गए है परंतु इनके बीच से गुजरती साँय-सॉय करती हवा आपको कुछ कह जाती है। अब ये सब घर एक बड़ा घर बन गए हैं। सब एक-दूसरे में खुलते हैं। लेखक का मानना है कि “लेकिन घर एक नक्शा ही नहीं होता। हर घर का एक चेहरा और संस्कार होता है। भले ही यह पाँच हजार साल पुराना घर क्यों न हो।”

इस प्रकार लेखक इन टूटे-फटे खंडहरों से गजरते हए इन घरों में किसी मानवीय संवेदनाओं का संस्पर्श करते हैं। इस प्रकार कहा जा सकता है कि टूटे-फूटे खंडहर, सभ्यता और संस्कृति के इतिहास होने के साथ-साथ जीवंत दस्तावेज भी होते हैं।

प्रश्न 5.
‘अतीत में दबे पाँव’ पाठ के आधार पर सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता की विशेषताओं का उल्लेख कीजिए। (A.I.C.B.S.E.2016, Set-11,Outside Delhi, 2017)
उत्तर
“अतीत में दबे पाँव’ साहित्यकार ओम थानवी की विरचित एक यात्रा वृतांत है। इसमें लेखक ने सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता की निम्नांकित विशेषताओं का उल्लेख किया है
(1) अनुशासन प्रिय- सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता एक अनुशासन प्रिय सभ्यता है। इसके महानगरों मोहनजोदड़ो एवं हड़प्पा के अवशेषों को देखकर प्रतीत होता है कि इस सभ्यता के लोग अनुशासनबद्ध होकर जीवनयापन करते थे।
(2) समाज पोषित- सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता राजपोषित या धर्मपोषित न होकर समाजपोषित सभ्यता थी। यहाँ के निवासी सामाजिक रूप से परस्पर अवरुद्ध थे।
(3) मानवता पर आधारित- सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता मानवता पर आधारित थी। यहाँ के अर अनुमान लगाया जा सकता है। यहाँ की सामाजिक, आर्थिक, धार्मिक एवं सांस्कृतिक परिस्थितियाँ मानवता पर आधारित थीं।
(4) कृषि पर आधारित सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता का मुख्य व्यवसाय कृषि एवं पशुपालन था। इसमें पशुओं के साथ सहज जीवन जिया जाता था। यहाँ की खुदाई से मिली बैलगाड़ी तथा कृषि यंत्र इसके प्रमाण हैं।
(5) जल संस्कृति-सिंधु घाटी की सभ्यता को जल संस्कृति की सभ्यता माना जाता था क्योंकि इसकी जल व्यवस्था अति उत्तम एवं श्रेष्ठ थी। मोहनजोदड़ो में ही लगभग 700 कुएँ थे। इस सभ्यता में जल-निवासी का बेजोड़ नमूना था।

Here we are providing Class 11 History Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 1 From the Beginning of Time. Class 11 History Important Questions with Answers are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Class 11 History Chapter 1 Important Extra Questions From the Beginning of Time

From the Beginning of Time Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
When and where did the earliest form of human evolve?
Answer:
About 5.6 million years ago (MYA) in Africa.

Question 2.
What are the main sources of information about the earliest forms of humans?
Answer:
These are-

1. Human fossils
2. stone tools and
3. cave painting.

Question 3.
What name to the genus of humans was given to the fossils found at Neander Valley?
Answer:
Homo Neanderthalensis.

Question 4.
Where are found earliest fossils of Homo erectus?
Answer:
In Africa and Asia.

Question 5.
Write the names of the countries in Africa where the earliest human forms were found?
Answer:
These were-

1. Chad
2. Ethiopia
3. Tanzania and
4. Kenya.

Question 6.
What similarities are found in humans and mammals (i.e. apes and monkeys)?
Answer:

1. Monkeys and humans know various uses of hands.
2. Monkey can walk like man viz. bipedal.
3. The shape of the skull, forehead, eyes, and ears are7 similar.
4. Five fingers are found in the hands of humans and that of monkeys/apes.

Question 7.
On what grounds can you say Africa the first continent where the earliest human form was developed?
Answer:

1. African apes resemble more to hominids (earliest form)
2. The fossils found in Africa relate to about 5.6mya.

Question 8.
Who had discovered the first Homo habilis in Tanzania?
Answer:
It was Mary working under chairperson L.S.B. Leakey.

Question 9.
Why was the earliest species named Homo habilis?
Answer:
It was because that species was associated with the Paleolithic age.

Question 10.
Name the place where evidence of flakes and hand axes are found.
Answer:
At Kilombe and Olorgesailie in Kenya during the period 7 lakh and 5 lakh years ago.

Question 11.
When did the earliest man start living in the caves and open-air sites?
Answer:
It was between four lakh and 1 – lakh years ago because a caveat Lazaret in Southern France has been discovered. Flere a shelter measuring 12 x 4metres was built against the cave wall.

Question 12.
What evidence had shown that the primitive man learned first the use of fire 1 – lakh years ago?
Answer:
A Hearth, pieces of baked clay, and burnt bone and stone tools have been found at Chesowanja, Kenya, and Swartkrans in South Africa.

Question 13.
What is the controversy existed among archaeologists regarding the paintings discovered from the sites?
Answer:
Some say the paintings of animals are associated with rituals because of the importance of hunting. Some others tell these caves as meeting places for small groups of people or locations for group activities. These paintings would have served as the media for pursuing information from one generation to another.

Question 14.
What period has been considered as a development of language among primates?
Answer:
Some suggest the period of Homo habilis because of certain brain features developed till then. It means the language was developed about 21akh years ago. Some scholars say it developed around 40,000 to 35,000 years ago. They connect it with the time when primates learned art and painting.

Question 15.
What behavioral patterns or response was seen among hunting-gathering society living in Kalahari desert?
Answer:
It was a hunting-gathering society named! Kung San visited by a member of an African pastoral group in 1870 at the Kalahari Desert. He saw the special features of their feet and found their villages empty as they are afraid of him and hid in the bush.

From the Beginning of Time Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What do you understand by the term Hominid? Explain.
Answer:
It is a member of the Superfamily Hominoidea from which hominids evolved E.g. apes. Their body is larger, they are without tail, upright posture, bipedal locomotion, and expert hands in making and using tools.

Question 2.
What do you mean by the term “glaciations”? How was the period following glaciations suitable for the origins of Homo?
Answer:
Glaciations in the period of the Ice age. The temperature receded and the larger parts of the earth were covered with ice. Periods of warm, wet, and cold dry climate have been known to alternate from the beginning of time. Grassland areas expanded owing to a sudden change in temperature, the earlier genus Australopithecus had got extinction due to the loss of forests. Thus, the species adapted to drier conditions originated among which Homo (i.e. modern-looking humans) was one of the species.

Question 3.
Why is Tanzania considered important from the angle of the discovery of the earliest societies’
Answer:
It was Olduvai George or ravine located in the Serengeti plain of northern Tanzania in Africa where the archaeologists found the maximum amount of information about hominid activity over the last 2 million years. Olduvai is a deep ravine extended more than forty kilometers in length. Animal bones and remains of forty individuals . have been found here. There were also found traces of 150 species of extinct animals. Mary and Lousie Leakey had identified these fossils and remains of 1.85mya in the early twentieth century. They also found chopping tools and flake tools there.

Question 4.
What were the ways of obtaining food among early societies?
Answer:
As per evidence obtained by archaeologists, there were four ways of obtaining food prevalent among early societies of primates. These were-

1. gathering
2. hunting
3. scavenging and
4. fishing.

Collection of edible seeds, nuts, berries, fruits, and tubers denote gathering activity. The archaeologists say, “there is very little evidence for gathering activity”. There is controversy about scavenging or foraging for meat and marrow activity adopted by hominids. The majority of opinions establish eating of the dead animals by them. It is equally possible that rodents, eggs, birds, reptiles, and insects may have been eaten by hominids. Hunting activity was adopted after a long period of scavenging activity. It came into existence around 5 lakh years ago. Evidence of hunting activity was collected from Boxgraove in England and Schoringen in Germany.

Question 5.
Whether modern humans originated from one region or several regions simultaneously? Explain logically.
Answer:
There are two divergent views about the origin of modem humans:

1. Regional continuity model (with multiple regions of origin) and
2. Replacement model (with a single origin in Africa).

According to the former view, modern humans evolved at different rates in different regions. This is the reason, variations in the first appearance is found. It has been seen that there are differences in populations of Homo erectus and Homo Heidel biogenesis of the same region.

The latter view favors complete replacement everywhere of all older forms of humans with modem looking humansGenetic and physiological similarity supports this view. Fossils found at Omo in Ethiopia support this view.

Question 6.
Describe any aborigine society at present which can throw light on the hunting-gathering societies of the past.
Answer:
The living memories of Hazda aborigine in Tanzania (Africa) throw light on the hunting-gathering societies millions of years ago. We see thorn scrub and acacia trees grown in Eastern Hazda, a dry land rocky Savanna. There is no dearth of wild foods in this Savanna. Animals live elephants, rhinoceros, buffalo, giraffe, zebra, wiser back, gazelle, warthog, lion, leopard, and hyenas are amply found here.

Apart from the flesh of these animals, Hazda society enjoys its food of roots, berries, baobab fruit, etc. Smaller animals for food are also available here. This are-porcupine, hare, jackal, tortoise, etc. Seven species of bees are also found here and honey is eaten. They make their home in the trees and caves in the rocks. They assert no rights over land and every individual of society is free to live where he desires. They do frequent change and shift in their camps or dwelling places.

Question 7.
Explain the physical features of Australopithecus, the genus of the earliest primate.
Answer:
This name was given to the apes whose fossils found in South Africa. Their species is still found. This earliest form of human still retained smaller brain size, large back teeth, and limited dexterity of the hands. It is tough for them to walk regular bipedal. They still live in trees. They have long fore-limbs, curved hand and foot bones, and mobile ankle joints. With the course of time, they could have started making tools and exerted pressure on walking. This regular exercise of body parts should have brought them in modem looking man – it can be guessed.

Question 8.
Describe the gradual evolution of modem looking humans in the sequence.
Answer:
While going over the pedigree of earlier societies, we observe that they are classified into the group, the superfamily, family, genus, and species according to gradual changes in their physical forms. The order of group contains primates in which the earliest apes/monkeys of the world in Africa and Asia are kept. At time scale, it refers to 36 – 24 million years ago (mya). The second step of evolution which took place during 24mya is put underclass – superfamily. It was the period of Hominids consisting of Gibbons, orangutan, and African apes (viz. gorilla, Chimpanzee, and bonobo or pygmy Chimpanzee).

The Hominoids thereafter classified in the family during 6.4mya. These were only early humans known as Hominids. The so-called time i.e., 5.6mya grouped as a genus consisting of Australopithecus and Homo. The change in their physical features and activities during the period 2.2mya, 1.8mya, and 0.8mya were grouped in species because “Homo” had got three simultaneous growing species i.e. Habilis, Erectus, and archaic Sapiens respectively. Finally, during 0.19 to 0.16mya certain specific changes in body, mind, motors, and instincts were seen, and the historians as also archaeologists had declared the resultant Homo as Sapiens sapiens or the modem-looking humans.

Question 9.
How can you say that the Homo heidelbergensis and Homo Neanderthalensis primates found in Germany were migrated from Africa?
Answer:
The first and foremost ground is that the group of African apes is most closely related to hominids. Secondly, the earliest hominid fossils are present in East Africa from about 5.6mya. while those found outside Africa are no earlier than l.Omya. One more thing that supports our assumption is that the early hominid fossils belong to the genus Australopithecus. The fossils of Homo heidelbergensis and Homo Neanderthalensis of Germany pertain to 0.8 and 0.1 mya i.e. after 4 -mya of the fossils found in Africa. Fossils of Neanderthals discovered from Europe, Western and Central Asia belong to roughly 1,30,0 to 35,000 years ago. On these premises, we can state that the earliest societies migrated from Africa to other continents including Asia and Europe.

Question 10.
When did the primates begin the use of caves and open-air sites? Give your answer with archaeological evidence.
Answer:
On the basis of archaeological evidence, it can be stated that the primates should have used to live in caves and open-air sites sometime between 4 and 1-j lakh years ago. Two hearths, shelter 12 x 4metre and flimsy shelters had been discovered. The sites from where artifacts and other things found are Kilombe and Olorgesailie in Kenya (dated between 71akh and 51akh years ago) and Terra Amata in France (Dated between 4 lakh and 1- lakh years ago).

Construction of huts, post holes, tents, storage pits and circular pattern of dwelling places started around 35,000 years ago as traces of likewise construction has been discovered by Archaeologists. The evidence of hearth can be understood as the best evidence for use of fire by primitive people during 1-lakh years ago. Such evidence is found at Chesowanja, Kenya, and Swartkrans in South Africa.

Question 11.
Write the stages of development of language in earliest societies? Do you think humans know a fully developed language from the outset?
Answer:
We see every manner, effort, and application of physical organs as also mental intuitions/ instinct among primates started in a seriatim and never it got a windfall or phenomenon with the pace of increase in needs, the man had ab-initio did invention or forage. The exact time for spoken language cannot be stated as there is lying certain controversy. The fossils of Homo habilis (dated between 2.2 and 2mya) discovered from Omo in Ethiopia and Olduvai Gorge, Tanzania (dated between 1.85 and 1.6mya) had certain features that would have made it possible for them to speak. Hence, we associate that period with the beginning of spoken language among primitive people.

The vocal tract was developed in them 21akh years ago. Some relate the beginning of spoken language to 40,000 to 35,000 years ago when they learned art and painting. Among hominids, the language was in the form of gestures and hand movements. According to some other scholars, the primates learned first singing and humming. It was vocal but non-verbal communication. It has been considered that humans may have possessed a small number of speech sounds in the initial stage and gradually, it would have developed in straight forward language.

Question 12.
Whether the information about living hunters and gatherers can be used to reconstruct the life of humans in the remote past?
Answer:
Currently, there are two opposing views on this issue. A group of scholars applies existing data of hunting-gathering societies for interpretation of the remains of the past. They say the hominid sites dated 2mya of Turkana lakeside could have been dry season camps of early humans. Some other scholars refuse this view. According to them, likewise, ethnographic data cannot be used for understanding the past societies as the two are absolutely different e.g. present-day societies pursue some other economic activities simultaneous to hunting and gathering.

They do exchange and trade of minor forest produce or work as paid labor in the fields of neighboring farmers. There is also little consensus on the division of labor in food procurement. Somewhere we see women engage them in gathering and men hunt but at some other places, both of them are equally engaged in gathering, hunting, and tool making. However, we can say it with confirmation that women had a predominant role in contributing to the food supply in such societies. In such a circumvent position, it is difficult to make any such reference for the past.

Question 13.
What questions have been raised regarding printing, engraving, and female-male figurines discovered in remains dated 30,0 years ago? Write the explanations to them also.
Answer:
We know that several remains of artifacts, including painting, engraving, etc. have been discovered in the cave of Altamira in Northern Spain, Dolni Vestonice, Predmosti, Lascaux cave, and Grotte Chauvet in France dated back 50,000 years ago.
The questions raised about them are-

1. Why do some areas of caves have paintings and not others?
2. Why some animals were painted and not others?
3. Why men were painted individually and in groups?
4. Why women depicted were only in groups?
5. Why men were painted near animals but never women? And
6. Why groups of animals were painted in the areas of caves where sounds carried well?

Explanation-

1. Paintings of animals were associated with ritual and magic because of the importance of hunting,
2. It might have possible that those caves were meeting places for small groups of people or locations for group activities,
3. It is difficult to tell something certain about the function of female figurines.

Question 14.
Mention the name of sites and the period, the earliest fossils of modern humans discovered by archeologists.
Answer:
The human fossils were found first in Ethiopia (Africa) at Omo Kibish I. These fossils relate to the period 1.951akh to 1.60lakh years ago. The fossils found in Border cave, Die Kelders, and Klasies River mouth (Africa) are of 1.201akh – 50,000 years ago. Human fossils discovered at Dares Solton in Morocco relate to 70,000 – 50,000 years ago. Similarly, the fossils at Qafzeh Skhul in Israel relate to the period 1 lakh – 80,000 years ago. Fossils found at Niah cave in Borneo dated to 40,000 the others at Lake Mungo in Australia dated to 45,000 – 35,000 years ago, that of Liujiang and Zhoukoudien in China dated to 20,000 – 15,000 years ago and that of Cro-Magnon (near Les Eyzies) in France dated to 35,000 years ago.

Question 15.
What do you understand by the term Paleolithic?
Answer:
The term Paleolithic is derived from the Greek terms Palaios meaning ancient and Lithos meaning stone. Archaeologists refer to the period between 2.5mya and 9000 years ago as the Paleolithic or the old stone age in Europe. Stone tools were used first dated to 2.5mya and agriculture began dated to 9000 years ago.

From the Beginning of Time Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
When did the earliest form of humans evolve and where? Why are there opposing views about the time period of evolution of the earliest form of human^, the ways of their obtaining food, certain changes in physical features, etc.?
Answer:
Human fossils, stone tools, artifacts, and paintings are the only source of information regarding the beginning of human existence. It has been estimated on the basis of these sources of information that the earliest form of humans had evolved from chimpanzees in Africa. Different sites were excavated under the supervision of archaeologists in Africa. These were –

1. Bahr el Ghazal, Chad
2. Hadar and Omo in Ethiopia,
3. Laetoli, Tanzania
4. Allia Bay and Kanapoi in Kenya and
5. Lothagam in Kenya.

The fossils found in Lothagam (Kenya) are dated to 5.6mya. On the basis of this information, it has been estimated that the earliest human form would have evolved in 5.6million years ago. Excavation of sites started in the year 1859 when Charles Darwin’s works – “On The Origin Of Species” got published. It had clarified the evolution of humans from animals a long time ago and it was not at all God’s specific creation.

The gradual process of evolution started as early as 24 mya from the old world monkeys of Asia and Africa. They were called Primates.

Hominids (comprising gibbons, Asian orang-utan, and African apes) evolved during 24mya. Hominids (early humans) evolved far back 6.4mya named as family. Australopithecus evolved from hominids 5.6mya and named Genus. Then there evolved Homo which took certain physical changes in three stages i.e.; Habilis, Erectus, and archaic sapiens. Finally, dated to 0.19 – 0.16mya, the sapiens or modern-looking humans came into existence.

Reason for Controversy- An investigation on primal forms of humans started in 1859 with the publication of Darwin’s book. Till then, nothing was done as the man had been considered specific creation. of god. Hence, it is usual to construct divergent views on several aspects relating to the evolution of human forms. The fossil of the earliest human was discovered on 17th July 1959 at Olduvai George in Tanzania by Mary and L.S.B. Leakey. Maximum information was thus, gathered from the human fossils found there. There are divergent views on the integration of the genus Australopithecus from Africa to Europe and Asia.

This genus was of an earlier time than Homo habilis but there is sufficient resemblance in two. Homo erectus resembles Homo sapiens and it was found both in Africa and Asia. On the V basis of that resemblance, some scholars confirm their migration from Africa to Asia while some others argue that Homo erectus did not leave Africa until one million years ago. They assume it automatic change in archaic forms of Homo sapiens after 0.5mya. Again, we see divergent views about the origin of modem humans (i.e. Homo sapiens sapiens). Some scholars say its evolution at one place i.e. Africa while some others say its simultaneous origin in several countries i.e. Africa, Asia, and Europe.

In a nutshell, we would like to state that owing to the most ancient period when the evolution process of humans started, the different missions of archaeologists to investigate about past history of humans, certain study manners on the fossils, artifacts, tools, and many other diverse pieces of evidence gathered by them are the causes for divergent views on each aspect of the earliest human societies. However, it remains to state that proper analysis has been made and a generalized view is supported in the process. The generalization of views finalliy leads us to the facts about the earliest human forms. Hence, divergen1 views are all possible while working out the things of so longer past

Here we are providing Class 11 Geography Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Natural Hazards and Disasters. Important Questions for Class 11 Geography are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Important Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Natural Hazards and Disasters

Natural Hazards and Disasters Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What do you mean by disaster?
Answer:
Disaster is a calamity, tragedy, or consequence of hazards.

Question 2.
Name some common natural hazards.
Answer:
Some common natural hazards are volcanic eruptions, earthquakes, droughts, floods, cyclones arid soil erosion.

Question 3.
What is a catastrophe?
Answer:
A sudden or widespread disaster is known as a catastrophe.

Question 4.
What are the causes of human-induced hazards?
Answer:
The human-induced hazards are caused by human activities such as a nuclear explosion, fire, industrial, etc.

Question 5.
What is the use of the Richter scale?
Answer:
It is used to measure the seismic energy radiated by an earthquake.

Question 6.
How are the earthquakes of non-tectonic origin caused?
Answer:
By volcanic eruptions, rock-bursts, subsidence in mines, impounding of reservoirs, etc.

Question 7.
Name the factors on which the intensity of storm waves of a cyclone depends?
Answer:
The intensity of storm waves depends on the wind, speed, pressure gradient, topography, and profile of the coastline.

Question 8.
How does flood occur?
Answer:
The flood occurs when a river overflows its banks and spreads out over the plains.

Question 9.
Which months experience the maximum number of storms in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea?
Answer:
October and November.

Question 10.
What is a flash flood?
Answer:
It is a sudden violent flood caused by exceptionally heavy rain in a normally dry valley in a semi-arid area.

Question 11.
What is the main cause of drought?
Answer:
The inadequate and uneven distribution of rainfall.

Question 12.
Identify two forms of landslides.
Answer:
Translational and rotational.

Question 13.
What does ‘MB’ stand for?
Answer:
Mb stands for millibar, the unit of measurement for pressure.

Question 14.
What are avalanches?
Answer:
A large mass of snow mixed with earth, stones, and ice loosened from a mountainside and drawn swiftly by gravity to the valley is called avalanches.

Question 15.
Which of the cyclones is more destructive?
Answer:
A tropical cyclone is more destructive.

Question 16.
Name three states which are affected by cyclones.
Answer:
Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu.

Question 17.
What is the velocity of a cyclone and its normal duration?
Answer:
20 km per hour.

Question 18.
To which theory the earthquake is related?
Answer:
Plate tectonics.

Question 19.
How much area in India is drought-prone?
Answer:
19%.

Question 20.
What is a landslide?
Answer:
It is the rapid sliding of large masses of bed rocks or regoliths.

Question 21.
What defines the Disaster Management Bill 2005?
Answer:
It defines a disaster as a catastrophe, mishap, calamity, or grave occurrence affecting any area arising from man-made causes.

Question 22.
Name the different types of droughts in India.
Answer:
Four types of droughts: Meteorological, Agricultural, Hydrological and Ecological droughts.

Question 23.
In India which state is flooded during winter?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu coast.

Question 24.
What is ‘storm surge’?
Answer:
The severe cyclonic storms with an average speed of 180 km/h result in a sudden rise in the sea level known as storm surge.

Question 25.
What type of disasters are caused by cyclones?
Answer:
Earthquakes, tsunamis, and volcanic eruptions,

Natural Hazards and Disasters Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is an earthquake and what is its intensity?
Answer:
An earthquake is the sudden movement of the crust of the earth resulting in tremors and vibrations. Like magnitude, the intensity is also one of the ways to measure the strength of an earthquake. Intensity relates to the force of an earthquake. It is the measure of the damage caused by the earthquake.

Question 2.
Name a high and very high-risk seismic area of India.
Answer:
From the earthquake point of view, the high-risk areas are the Ganga plains and western Rajasthan, whereas the very high-risk areas are the Himalayan mountain, north-eastern India, Kachchh, west coast around Ratnagiri and Andaman and Nicobar islands.

Question 3.
What are the basic requirements for the formation of a cyclone?
Answer:
The following are the basic requirements for the formation of a cyclone:

1. The temperature of the oceanic surface over 26°C.
2. The appearance of a closed isobar.
3. Pressure dropping below 1000 Mb.
4. Areas of circular movement, first spreading to a radius of 30-50km., then increasing gradually to 100-200 km. and even to 1000 km.
5. Verticallythewindspeedfirstrisingtoaheightof6km., then much higher.

Question 4.
What is the velocity of a cyclone and its normal duration?
Answer:
The speed of movement of a cyclone per unit of time is called its velocity. The cyclones move at an average velocity of about 20 km. per hour. Its normal duration is five to seven days.

Question 5.
Mention the flood-prone areas of India.
Answer:
The flood-prone areas of India include the Ganga basin covering Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal, the Brahmaputra basin in Assam, and the Baitarni, the Brahmani and Subarnrekha basins of Orissa.

Fig.7.3 ‘Flood-prone areas of India’

Question 6.
Name two human activities that cause a flood in India.
Answer:
These are the two factors that increase the incidence of a flood.

1. Deforestation,
2. Drainage congestion (caused by the badly planned construction of bridges, roads, railway tracks, and other developmental activities).

Question 7.
What are the consequences of landslides on humans?
Answer:
There are the following consequences of landslides:

1. Damage to planted vegetation and crops.
2. Disruption of communication due to the blocking of roads and rivers.
3. Destruction of human settlements over slopes and loss of human life.

Question 8.
What is disaster management?
Answer:
The term disaster management includes all aspects of prevention and protection measures, preparedness, and organization of relief operations for mitigating the impact of disasters on human beings and socio-economic aspects of the disaster-prone area.

Question 9.
How embankments worsen the problem of a flood?
Answer:
The construction of embankments, the river water spreads out the stream and flows oven, it worsens the problem of a flood. The width of the river stream becomes narrow and a flood occurs.

Question 10.
What are the major hazards that occur in India?
Answer:
Drought, floods, cyclones, landslides, and earthquakes are some of the major hazards which occur in India. These natural hazards or disasters are the results of sudden earth movements that change the face of the earth in a short period causing heavy loss of life and property.

Question 11.
What do you understand by ‘tsunami’?
Answer:
‘Tsunami’ is a series of waves generates under the body of water by an impulsive disturbance that vertically displaces the water column. Earthquakes, landslides, volcanic eruptions, and the impact of cosmic bodies like asteroids can generate a tsunami.

Question 12.
Define solifluction.
Answer:
Solifluction is the slow movement of rock debris, saturated with water and not confined to definite demands, down a slope under the force of gravity. It occurs particularly when thawing releases such surface deposits while the underlying layers are still frozen. The term is usually applied to saturated deposits.

Question 13.
Define pressure gradient.
Answer:
The amount of change in atmospheric pressure between two points is called the pressure gradient. It is indicated by the distance apart on a level surface of the isobar. Closely spaced isobars indicate a steep gradient and those widely spread represent gentle gradients.

Question 14.
Why north bank tributaries of the Brahmaputra river create more floods than those of the south bank?
Answer:
It is because the northern tributaries have steep slopes, shallow and braided channels, and coarse sandy beds; they carry a heavy silt charge and have a tendency to bring fresh floods. The south bank tributaries, on the other hand, have comparatively flatter gradients and deeper channels, they are clayey and have more stable banks and beds.

Natural Hazards and Disasters Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Discuss the three components of the impact phase of disaster management.
Answer:
The term disaster management includes all aspects of preventive and perspective measures, preparedness, and organization of relief operations for mitigation of the impact of the disaster on human beings and socio-economic aspects of the disaster-prone areas.-The whole process of disaster management can be divided into three phases, impact phase, rehabilitation and reconstruction phase, and integrated large term development and preparative phase.

The impact phase contains three components – forecasting of disaster, close monitoring of agents causing disasters, and management activities after the disaster has occurred. As far as forecasting of disaster is concerned, flood forecasting can be done by studying rainfall in the catchment area. The approach of cyclones can be tracked and monitored by satellites. Based on these details, early warning and evacuation efforts may be made.

Close monitoring of agents responsible for disaster can help the deployment of terms to help evacuation and supply of food clothing and drinking water. Disaster leaves a trail of death and destruction. This will require medical care and the help of the affected people. Under the long-term development phase, preventive and precautionary measures of various kinds should be chalked out.

Question 2.
What should people do and don’t do in an area going to be hit by a cyclone?
Answer:
In order to draw the attention of the people of the world, the UNESCO observed International Decade for natural disaster Reduction during 1990-2000. Along with other nations of the world, India observed World Disaster Reduction Day in October during the decade. Do’s and Don’ts for the people in cyclone-hit areas, which were issued by the Government of India are as follows:

1. Listen to the radio for advance information and advice. Allow a considerable margin for safety.
2. When the storm force winds or severe gales are forecast for your area: store or secure loose boards, corrugated iron, rubbish lines, or anything else that could become dangerous; tape up large windows to prevent them from shattering; and move to the nearest shelter or evacuate the area if this is ordered by the ‘ appropriate government agency.
3. When the storm hits it is advisable: to stay indoors and take shelter in the strongest part of your house; listen to the radio and follow instructions; open windows on the sheltered side of the house if the roof begins to lift; find shelter if you are caught out in the open, and do not go outside during a lull in the storm.

Question 3.
Describe the flood in India as a disaster. Write an essay on floods as a disaster.
Answer:
Floods are a major cause of human misery in India every year. Out of a number of natural disasters that the country has experienced, floods are the most important ones. India is the most flood-affected country in the world next to Bangladesh. Twenty percent of the global deaths caused by floods in the world are in India.

In spite of the fact that floods are a natural disaster, it often turns out to be a social disaster as the people who are severely affected are generally the poor because they live on the periphery of the human habitat. The annual flood-affected population has arisen faster than the growth of India’s population. The flood-affected area and damages have also increased recently; the reason for this increase is the encroachment of flood plain by the people.

The most flood-prone basins in the country are those of the Ganga-in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal, the Brahmaputra in Assam, and the Batumi, the Brahmani, and the Subarnrekha basins in Orissa. Sometimes floods occur also in Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Haryana, and Gujarat.

Flood Control – Floods are not new in India. The practice of building flood protection embankments along rivers is an ancient one. We had flood protection embankments on the Godavari, Krishna, and the Kaveri deltas and in the Indo-Ganga plain.

The nationwide flood protection programs, however, began only after independence. At the time of independence in 1947, India had some 5280 km. of embankments along different rivers. Of this 3500 km. were in the Sundarbans in the West Bengal and 1209 km. along the Mahanadi in Orissa. This provided protection to about 3 million hectares of land.

In 1954 a spate of severe floods came. Enormous devastation was caused in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Assam. Long term programs for the construction of dams and embankments were drawn. Central and state flood control boards were set up. In spite of various measures taken up to minimize the fury of floods, they are still a regular feature in the Ganga and the Brahmaputra basin.

Reducing Impact of Flood-The building of embankments was the only way floods could be controlled in the forties.

Fig.7.3: “Heavily embankment areas of India’

The dams and reservoirs were considered useful to control runoff water and reduce flooding. Now there are several other measures to reduce the severity of the flood. The felling of trees and deforestation on mountain slopes and in catchment areas need control. Weather forecast and flood warning feature is a regular feature.

Question 4.
What is a tsunami? How it occurs and what are its consequences? Describe in detail.
Answer:
A tsunami is a series of waves generated in the body of water by an impulsive disturbance that vertically displaces the water column. Earthquakes, landslides, volcanic eruptions, and even the impact of cosmic bodies such as asteroids can generate a tsunami. When the Indian plate in the north-east gets locked with the Eurasian plate, it creates high stress, and the accumulation of high energy causes an earthquake.

Cause – Nomially the seismic waves cause only one instantaneous vertical wave but after the initial disturbance, a series of after waves are created in the water that oscillates between the high crest and low trough in order to restore the water level. The speed of waves in the ocean depends upon the depth of water. It is more in shallow water than at the ocean depth.

Consequences – The impact of the tsunami is less over the ocean and more near the coast where they cause large scale devastation. Therefore, a ship at sea is not much affected by tsunamis. The tsunami wave raises the ship only one meter because over deep water tsunami has a very long wavelength and limited wave height. Over shallow water, tsunami causes large-scale destruction along the shores, here wavelength gets reduced and height can be up to 15 meters.

• After reaching the coast they release enormous energy and destroy the port cities and towns, structures, buildings, and other settlements.
• The loss of property’ and life by the tsunami is much higher as compared to other natural hazards in the coastal areas.

Mitigation steps – It is difficult to mitigate the hazards caused by the tsunami because of the fact that losses are on a much large scale.

Question 5.
What is an earthquake? Discuss the causes and consequences of an earthquake.
Answer:
An earthquake is a sudden movement of the crust of the earth. An earthquake occurs when the Indian plate gets locked up with a Eurasian plate, high stress is developed which results in the release of high energy. It is a sudden shaking of the crust which results in tremors and vibrations.

Causes – The following are the causes of earthquakes:

1. Volcanic eruption
2. Tectonic causes
3. Elasticity of rocks
4. Local causes

Consequences –

1. If the intensity of an earthquake is more than 6 on the Richter scale, there is a loss of life and property on a large scale.
2. In the young fold mountains, the earthquake leads to cracks in the rocks and causes landslides.
3. Due to earthquake, there are short circuits of electrical wires which damage and blast the equipment.
4. Usually, earthquakes lead to distortion and displacement of the surface rocks which block the flow of the river coming in the ways.

Here we are providing Class 11 History Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 6 The Three Orders. Class 11 History Important Questions with Answers are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Class 11 History Chapter 6 Important Extra Questions The Three Orders

The Three Orders Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What were three orders in European Communities?
Answer:
These were like limits of administration of the government. There were social categories-

1. Christian Priest,
2. nobility and
3. peasants under the feudal system of governance.

Question 2.
What was the achievement of Marc Bloch?
Answer:
He had composed a book on “The Feudal Society”. Here he gives a detailed account of social relations, hierarchies, land management, and culture of the French society between 900 and 1300 CE.

Question 3.
How did European historians become successful in writing the histories of regions even that of individual villages?
Answer:
It would possible because of the availability of a number of documents, details of landowners’ life, prices, and legal cases. Eg. Churches records of births, marriages, and deaths.

Question 4.
What do you understand by the medieval era?
Answer:
It is the period between the fifth and the fifteenth century i.e. history of above 1000 ( a millennium) years.

Question 5.
What is a Feudalism?
Answer:
This German word had been used by historians to describe ‘ the economic, legal, political and social relationship that existed in Europe in the medieval era.

Question 6.
Why did the social organization was centered on the control of land in Europe?
Answer:

1. There was a lack of any integrated political force.
2. Continuous military conflict was witnessed.
3. Fencing became important in order to protect one’s land.

Question 7.
What features the feudal system had derived from the past?
Answer:
These were-

1. Traditions descended from the Roman empire and
2. Customs observed by Germans.

Question 8.
What was the role of Christianity in the feudal system of society in Europe?
Answer:

1. It was the religion when had survived the collapse of Rome.
2. It was pervaded throughout Europe.

On this basis, a priest (Clergy) was the first order of feudal society in Europe. Pope was the supreme head of the Catholic Church and Christians in Europe were guided by Bishops and clergies. The church was the law-making body and independent from the king.

Question 9.
What is the meaning of feudalism from an economic angle?
Answer:
It was based on the relationship between lords and peasants.

Lords were the nobles with large estates, joined by the whole. Peasants were owners of smallholdings and they had to cultivate the land owned by their lords and military protection was given to them in exchange for such services to the lords.

Question 10.
How can you say that feudalism had covered social and political aspects of life also?
Answer:
Social aspect-Render services to lords in order to receive military protection.

Political aspect-Peasants were subordinated to judicial provisions made by lords.

Question 11.
Describe the typography of Gaul or France.
Answer:
It was a province of the Roman empire. It had two coastlines, mountain ranges/long rivers, forests, and large tracts of plains.

Question 12.
Why was Gaul renamed as France?
Answer:
On the decline of the Roman empire, Franks, a German tribe renamed it France for their tribe name being Franks.

Question 13.
Where was the island of England-Scotland located?
Answer:
It was located across a narrow channel in Normandy province of the French empire.

Question 14.
What was the source of origin of the three orders?
Answer:
It was the speech of a bishop which stated that here below, some pray, others fight, still others work i.e. the elegy, the nobility, and the peasantry.

Question 15.
Mention the essence of an article composed by Abbess Hildegard of Bingen in the twelfth century?
Answer:
She had mentioned that as cows, donkeys, sheep, goats have certain different characteristics and cannot be put in a single enclosure, human being similarly; require different settings in society.

Question 16.
What was the first order?
Answer:
As the Catholic Church was the law-making body in the feudal system, Pope was the head of the western church in Rome. Bishops and Clerics used to guide the Christians in Europe therefore; they were the first order in feudal society.

Question 17.
What were the criteria for the eligibility of a priest?
Answer:

1. He should be physically and mentally sound.
2. He should neither be a woman nor a peasant.
3. He will observe celibacy throughout life.

Question 18.
What was the posture while offering pray at the church?
Answer:
The devotee would kneel (sit on the knee, bent), Hands clasped and head bowed.

Question 19.
Why was the nobility called lord?
Answer:
It was a replica or copy of the formality in the Church. It was meant by the one who provides bread.

Question 20.
Who were the monks?
Answer:
These were the groups of deeply religious people who choose to live isolated lives. Their community was Abbey or monastery.

Question 21.
Whether there were conditions of eligibility for the monks?
Answer:
Yes, these conditions were-

1. He would take vows to remain in the abbey for the rest of his life.
2. He would spend this time in prayer, study, and manual labor.
3. Women and men both were eligible to become nuns and monks respectively.
4. They i.e. monks and nuns would pass their lives in celibacy.

Question 22.
Why are monasteries called Benedictine monasteries?
Answer:
The first monastery was established by St. Benedict of Italy in 529 CE. Hence, these are so addressed.

Question 23.
How many chapters of rules were composed and abide by monks in Benedictine monasteries?
Answer:
These were with 73 chapters. Chapter 48 states that the monastery should be laid out in such a way that all necessities be found within its bounds i.e. water, milk, garden, and workshops.

Question 24.
How can you say that corruption had gripped the monasteries?
Answer:

1. The poem “Piers Plowman” by the poet Langland of England.
2. Chaucer’s Canterbury Tales-are the sources that confirm this fact of growing corruption in monasteries.

Question 25.
Who were the people or section of society put under second-order?
Answer:
It was nobility or the large estate owners. This section of society was the vassal of the king. Under a mutual promise, the king was accepted as seigneur or lord by the nobility and they would remain loyal to the king.

Question 26.
What was the mutual promise between lord and nobility?
Answer:

1. The vassal (nobility) and the king (lord) would do the exchange of vows taken on the Bible in a Church.
2. The vassal (nobility) would be given a-written charter or a clod of earth as a symbol of the land (estate).

Question 27.
What were the privileges with the nobility or the second-order?
Answer:

1. Absolute control over the property in perpetuity.
2. Conferred with rights to raise troops (feudal levies)
3. Right to own court of justice for disposal of disputes, duels, among peasants.
4. Right to coin this other money.

Question 28.
What were the major features of the estate owned by nobility?
Answer:

1. A manor,
2. private fields and pastures,
3. homes and fields of tenant-peasants.

Question 29.
Whether the nobles cultivate their private fields themselves?
Answer:
No, these also will be cultivated by the tenant-peasants. The peasants would also act as infantry if any battle is waged there.

Question 30.
Describe a small and a large estate?
Answer:
In a small estate, there were a dozen families while in a large estate, more than fifty families apart from manor residents were living. There were fields, meadows, pastures, forest-land in an estate with Church and a castle for defense.

Question 31.
Whether craftsmen besides tenant-peasants were also accommodated in an estate?
Answer:
Yes, there were families of carpenters, blacksmiths, etc. craftsmen apart from the peasants.

Question 32.
Whether families (women and children) dwelling in an estate were also engaged with the work?
Answer:
Yes, the women would spin and weave cloth and children would work in the lord’s wine-presses.

Question 33.
Do you say the manorial estate was self-sufficient?
Answer:
No, the items like salt, millstone, metalware, furniture, musical instruments, and ornaments were obtained from outside sources.

Question 34.
Why were Knights accommodated under an award of a fief in memorial estates?
Answer:
It was because-

1. Peasants as soldiers were inefficient to warcraft.
2. Internal wars in Europe were fought regularly.

Question 35.
What was Fief?
Answer:
It was a smaller estate measuring between 1,000 and 2,000 acres awarded by the lord of a manorial estate i.e. nobleman. It was consisting of structures like a house for the knight and his family, a church, houses for dependents, a water mill, and a wine-press.

Question 36.
What services promised by the knights to their lords (noblemen)?
Answer:

1. He will pay a fixed amount periodically as agreed to in the form of a fee to his lord.
2. He will fight for him with his soldiers in the war.
3. He will remain loyal foremost to his own lord if owing to certain necessities, he may serve under more than one lord.

Question 37.
What was the third order of feudal society in Europe?
Answer:
It was consisting of two kinds of peasants viz. some were owning their land while the other was serf or slave who had to cultivate lord’s land.

Question 38.
Describe the works done by serfs.
Answer:

1. Cultivate the fields that belonged to the lord but assigned to them from which they were given a minimal share of produce.
2. Cultivate the fields that belonged exclusively to the lord for which no wage was given.
3. Do all other works as desired from time to time by the lord but all without wage (Begar).

Question 39.
How do you think England would have so named?
Answer:
The Angles and Saxons tribes of Central Europe settled here hence, the initial “Angle-land” subsequently, called England.

Question 40.
With what even the feudalism had developed in England?
Answer:
It was the eleventh century when the Duke of Normandy, William crossed the English channel with the army and occupied England after defeating the Saxon king there.

Question 41.
Whether agriculture was the mainstay at Europe’s economy? If not why?
Answer:
No, the agricultural land was limited during the fifth to tenth centuries. Entire Europe was covered with dense forests. The intense cold climate was the next barrier to agriculture operations because prolonged winter had shortened the growing season for crops.

Question 42.
Describe primitive manners of agricultural operations?
Answer:

1. Wooden plow used,
2. bullock was the only source for plowing,
3. manpower was used for almost and in all operations,
4. fields had to be dug by hand once in four years because wooden plow was unable to fully draw out the natural productivity of the soil.

Question 43.
What was the primitive crop rotation?
Answer:
The land was divided in half and one field was planted, in autumn while the other field was left fallow. Similarly, rye was grown in the first year’s fallow field but the other was left fallow.

Question 44.
Describe some features of new agricultural technology?
Answer:

1. Heavy iron-tipped plows and moldboards were used,
2. Shoulder-harness of bullock came into use,
3. Shod were fitted with horses to prevent their foot decay,
4. Water and canal powered mills were set-ups,
5. Three field system of land-use followed,
6. Peas and beans were given preference,
7. Arable land was used for growing crops.

Question 45.
What changes were brought about by the increased use of money in transactions?
Answer:

1. Lords asked rent to be paid in cash.
2. Peasants preferred selling their crops to the traders.
3. Inflation took place in times of poor harvests.

Question 46.
What was the fourth-order in the feudal society of Europe?
Answer:
A new type of economic organization consisting of merchants, traders, craftsmen guilds, etc. was the fourth-order of that society. In brief, we can state that towns and towns’ people were the fourth-order.

Question 47.
Which three areas were developed with the expansion in agriculture?
Answer:
These were-

1. Population,
2. trade and
3. towns.

Question 48.
What were the main items of trading in the eleventh century?
Answer:
These were-Fur, tin, hawks, and cloth.

Question 49.
Who had contributed to the construction of Cathedral towns?
Answer:
These were large churches and rich merchants contributed to their construction. Similarly, different groups of people contributed with their own labor, material, or money.

Question 50.
What factors are attributed to the crisis of the fourteenth century?
Answer:
These factors were-

1. Change in climate from hot to cold summers,
2. Shortage of metal money due to a shortfall in the output of silver mines in Austria and Serbia.
3. Bubonic plague spread and it took a toll on twenty percent of the total populace in Europe.

Question 51.
What consequences were seen of the catastrophe in the form of bubonic plague?
Answer:

1. A number of people were dislocated,
2. Depopulation resulted in a major shortage of labor,
3. imbalances created between agriculture and manufacture,
4. prices plummeted for agricultural products including food grains.

Question 52.
What were the m&in features of the so-called new-monarchy?
Answer:

1. These were monarchy of the absolutist ruler.,
2. A standing army was organized,
3. There was permanent bureaucracy,
4. the national taxation system was implemented.

Question 53.
What social changes had taken way to the growth of the monarchy-feudal system?
Answer:

1. Owing to the catastrophe of bubonic plague, they set a condition of de-population which gradually shattered the feudal system,
2. The resultant slow pace of economic growth had given the opportunity to kings to increase their control,
3. Strong infantry equipped with guns and siege artillery, assisted the kings to establish their monarchy.

Question 54.
Mention the time tag of the new monarchy ruled in France, Spain, and England.
Answer:
It was the period between 1461-1559 in France, 1474-1556 in Spain, and 1485-1547 in England.

Question 55.
What problems the monarchy did face in course of the consolidation of its powers?
Answer:
It was the problem of rebellion by the erstwhile nobility particularly on the question of taxation. Royal dominance had grossly annoyed them and there were four rebellions took place in 1497,1536, 1547, and 1553 respectively.

The Three Orders Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What other functions apart from cultivating their own land were assigned with the peasants?
Answer:

1. To render military service at least forty days every year.
2. To work without wage in the fields owned by the lord at least three days a week. This labor was heated as rent for self-owned land.

To dig ditches, gather firewood, build fences, and repair roads and buildings.

To engage women and children in works like spinning, weaning clothes, making candles, and press grapes to prepare wine for the lord.

Question 2.
Imagine the background for the origin of Feudalism in Europe?
Answer:
We have come to know that the eastern part of the Roman empire was gradually declined and fell into pieces under a number of tribes that came down from the north. In the western part of that empire comprising Portugal, Spain, Corsica, Sardinia, Italy, Austria, German States, Normandy, Gaul (France), Burgundy, etc. in the north of the Mediterranean, Christianity made its hold and saved it from ruination. It had become the official religion of the Roman Empire from the fourth century.

It is plausible to mention that religion always is felt on a nerve by human beings. Being its scope infinitesimal, a few people shrewd in society or known to manage the mass had always resorted to the most sensitive issue of religion and established social organizations. History is evident of such phenomenon of religion. A similar thing, we can see in the regeneration and organization of society under the feudal system during the fifth to fifteen century CE.

The three orders are the symbol of the three-prong management of the masses. It was knitted by the church whose head was Pope of Rome with Bishops and Clerics in Europe. Pope’s orders were called Papal-bull and followed by the masses. It was the first order, the second order was nobility including the king, and the third-order was the peasants.

Conclusion-Thus, on the above grounds, we can state that it was the phenomenon of the Church which had developed the practice of vassalage and established a feudal system.

Question 3.
Discuss the practice of vassalage under three orders?
Answer:
This practice was earlier followed by Germans in which Franks were also a tribe. Hence, it is attributed to brought in by the Franks, a Germanic tribe.

The noble i.e. second order was vassals c (the king and peasants were vassals of the landowners. The first order i.e. the church with its network of Bishops, Clerics, monks, etc. proliferated in monasteries cathedrals were independent of the king i.e. Seigneur (lord) of the nobility and actual law-making power was in its hands. The harangues delivered by the Abbey and Abbess including priests fixed an idea to the public that as cows, donkeys, sheep, goats require distinct enclosures/stables, the same way, division of society in people who pray, the others who fight, and a majority of others who possess the ability to act upon.

Thus, as the king was lord to nobility, the nobility was the lord to the peasants. Land owning was the essence of such arrangement therefore, the third-order was called peasants otherwise; they were no better than slaves to the manor and his manorial estate. Thus, two orders in feudal society in another sense were oppressor and the third was oppressed.

Question 4.
Whether you see manual estates like the private states in India during the British regime? Justify your answer.
Answer:
It has been truly stated that the history of every man, tribe, clan, etc. has a long-lasting impact because it becomes instincts and thus, repeated irrespective of the place, time, and circumstances. Britishers were from England and England was the part of Europe hence, the same feudal compositions, they made ready to rule India. Had they not acquired the instincts of Europe, they should have neither ruled India by dividing it into two parts i.e. British India and Princely states.

We observe similarities in both cases. The feudal system in Europe was of three orders i.e. Priest, nobility, and peasants. In India, during the British regime; it was the crown, the company, and the masses. As nobility was owned large estates, the governors-general were representatives to the British crown in India and Common people were as third-order while the princely states were pari-passu to the second-order in the feudal society of Europe i.e. Peasants.

Question 5.
Describe the major features of a manorial estate and tell if each estate you see similar to a kingdom.
Answer:
The manorial estate according to its feature was a kingdom in itself. We see here a manorial estate accommodating Church, Knights, families of manor or nobleman including more than fifty families and an area measuring several thousand acres.

Like a Kingdom, the manorial house was built in the middle as Hf its capital. A manor had employed on his fields, two kinds of peasants, some were free while some others were serfs. The women and children of these peasants were also engaged in works like spinning the thread and wearing fabric and press the grapes to prepare wine for the lord or manor.’There were blacksmiths and carpenters for maintenance of the lord’s implements and repair his weapons.

There were knights given accommodation and land measuring between 1000 and 2000 acres or more in order to fight in wars which had become a routine affair those days. The manor has absolute rights to charge rent- levies from the peasants by employing them in begar. He had absolute power to establish the judiciary in order to dispose of the petty disputes between peasants or his vassals. The estate was consisting of a consolidated region with meadows, pastures, forest-land, plains, rivers, reservoirs, churches, colonies, etc.

On the basis of the above, features and the powers conferred to the manor or nobleman in Europe exhibit that manorial estate was a smaller kingdom in itself with the exclusive judiciary and administrative powers.

Question 6.
Discuss examples of expected patterns of behavior between people of different social levels, in a medieval manor, a palace, and in a place of worship.
Answer:
(a) BahaviOur pattern in a medieval manor-The manor or the nobleman was an autocrat to the people housed in his estate. He never provided the children of peasants opportunity of schooling and education. Instead, they were exploited for pressing grapes and preparing wine for the manor. Similarly, women were also engaged in begar for spinning the thread and weaving cloth for the manor.

He has all monopoly in the estate. He used to charge fees from the Knights and military services against the fief awarded. Peasants were compelled to provide military services at least forty days in a year and do beggars three days a week. The manor had given this free service in the name of labor rent. The serfs were more oppressed than the peasants. There were a number of restraints and restrictions imposed on them.

(b) Behaviour pattern in a palace–Every person entering in the palace had to sit on knee bent, with hands clasped and head bowed.

The King was addressed as lord (i.e. God) or signer. A poem “Doon de Mayence” refers to the allegiance of the Knights as-“If my dear lord is slain, his fate I’ll share if he is hanged, then hang me by his side….”:

(c) Place of the worship-The church was the supreme power, feudal society of Europe. Church had its own laws independent of the king. Christians in Europe were guided by bishops and clerics. Women, serfs, and persons physically handicapped were not eligible to become a priest. The priest was not allowed to marry. The church has the right to collect “Thithe” viz a tax assessed as a one-tenth share of whatever the peasants produce in their field in a year. Bishops were luxurious people and awarded .with large estates. Feudal etiquette and ceremonies were followed in the church.

Conclusion-On the basis of the above behavior patterns, it can be stated that feudal organization of society was merely a facade of religion and assurance to provide protection from the localized wars to the masses, was nothing else but a device to exploit the third order by the Church as also by the nobility. We do not see educational institutions except a few classes on Christianity in churches. In brief, there were only two orders in feudal society i.e. A class of oppressors and another of the oppressed under one or other tactics.

Question 7.
“It is ignorance that generates fear of life and the man falls in a few shrewd hands for exploitation’. Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer referring to the instinct of fear among common masses in Europe.
Answer:
While perusing the feudal society in Europe, the above statement appears all correct. Actually, this fact was known to the Church, the supreme authority in Christianity. The vassalage was the creation of Bishops and Cleries whose supreme head was the Pope of Rome. After going over the pains and atrocities inflicted on the peasants, we would like to state them not religious people but shrewd. In order to bag all luxuries in their favor as we see, bishops owned large estates and called religious nobility, they befooled the mass and kept them in cages as an instrument to produce the luxurious living of the Clerics.

We don’t see any efforts made by the lords for their subject except in monasteries, where only manner-how to sing prayers in church-was taught to the selected children of noblemen and not of the masses. Instead of doing this, all children in manorial estates were engaged on begar for preparation of wine for the lords. The priests and noblemen deliberately killed their childhood by their murderous instinct so that nobody could oppose the feudal system in the future and they should enjoy from one generation to another in perpetuity, the luxurious.

The ignorance imposed on people made them fearful and they realized wars made them frightened. If a man of average mind, sees the controls of a nobleman; he would have preferred living in a forest instead of the estate or die at the hands of invaders. That fear was thrust in their heart and being illiterate, they posed blind-faith on clerics and the lords. Thus, it was ignorance that compelled them to live a life worse than wild-animals.

Question 8.
What were the main factors for the crisis of the fourteenth century? Discuss.
Answer:
The major factor was that of change in the climate. By the end of the thirteenth century, the warm summers of the previous 300 years had given way to bitterly cold summers. The crop growing season was reduced by a month and it became difficult to grow crops on higher ground. Storms and oceanic flooding destroyed the major part of the fertile plains.

Result-The income from taxes was reduced.

The second factor was that of marginal utility on agricultural production because regular cropping had made the fertility of the soil marginal. Soil conservation was not taken care of, during two hundred years of regular farming. Meadows lost grasses and it reduced the number of cattle.

The third factor was that of unprecedented growth in population during the last two hundred years of farming.

Result-Over population but less agricultural production brought starving conditions between 1315 and 1317 coupled with massive deaths of cattle in the 1320s.

The fourth factor was the depletion of the silver stock in the mines of Austria and Serbia. This situation barred minting and coinage thereby loss of trade and commerce.

The fifth and the worst factor was the spread of the bubonic plague (Black Death) between 1347 and 1350.

Result-This catastrophe took a toll on 20 percent of the total population in Europe.

Conclusion-The degeneration of agricultural yield and de-population conditions provided the major cause for the destruction of feudal set-up in European society.

Question 9.
“Social unrest in Europe immediately after the crisis of the fourteenth century was an indication of certain political changes there”-Do you agree with this statement? Justify.
Answer:
Yes, this statement is all justified. The de-population caused by the catastrophe of the plague, changes in the environment, oceanic floodings, and shortage of metal money, proved an indication of certain political changes as the society at that juncture, took notice of the situation in its apparent form. The so-called lords suffered a price decline for food grains as millions of people have succumbed to the bubonic plague. Again, wages of laborers increased because of the short supply of man-power.

The lords gave-up the money contracts and revived labor services i.e. Begar. It was met with severe opposition by the better educated and more prosperous peasants. Their annoyance to the system has appeared in revolts of 1323, 1358, and 1381 in Flanders, France, and England respectively. It is true that revolutions were crushed but they again took a violent turn shortly. Thus, the peasants ensured that the feudal privileges of earlier days could not be reinvented.

Question 10.
Discuss how the new monarchy replaced the feudal set-up of European society?
Answer:
In this context, we would like to say that everything or action or arrangement has its climax and nothing is perpetual in this transitory world or in other words, nature. Like the birth, youth, old, and death stages of each organism, each set-up has to pass through different stages. Something similar had happened to the feudal society also. Christianity got its birth on fall of the Roman empire, it became stronger or youth when the church, monasteries, Cathedrals were built, and a network of three orders made successfully by the Catholic church and had to die with the crisis of the fourteenth century, i.e. change in environment, depletion of gold and silver stock, marginal fertility of the soil and spread of bubonic plague all over Europe.

These situations made feudal set-up tougher to maintain as starving conditions had emerged. It brought revolts of peasants in and the European Kings began to strengthen their military and financial power. The Kings have duly understood the situation and took * immediately these changes. These new Kings were called new monarch by the historian because they were no more feudal lords. These were autocratic absolutist rulers. Louis XI of France, Maximilian of Austria, leary VII of England, and Isabelle and Ferdinand of Spain were these autocratic rulers.

Measures opted by new monarchs-

1. Organization of standing armies on modern lines,
2. Permanent bureaucracy in place of nobility and manors,
3. Formation of national policy for taxation and
4. exploration of new’ lands outside Europe.

These rulers had ruled out the earlier system of feudal levies and introduced professionally trained infantry equipped with guns and siege artillery under their direct control. The nobility first resisted monarchy through rebellions but became loyal subsequently, when they were badly defeated. They were given permanent positions by the new monarchs.

Question 11.
Following are the events of the eleventh to fourteenth Centuries. Read them and connect them into a narrative account.

1066	Normans defeat Anglo-Saxons and Conquer England.
1100	onwards Cathedrals being built in France
1315-17	The great famine in Europe.
1347-50	Black Death.
1338-1461	Hundred Years War between England and France.
1381	Peasants’ revolts

Answer:
1. Norman defeated Anglo-Saxons and conquered England-Normandy was a port town in Gaul (France). William was the Duke of that province. He crossed the English Channel with an army and defeated the Saxon King of England. These two were the tribes of Central Europe and settled in England in the sixth century. “Angle’s land” was later-on called England. Here from, started the history of England. After this event, France and England fought a number of battles.

2. Cathedral being built in France-Up to that time, each craft or industry was organized into the guild (i.e. An Association), new trade routes with West Asia (China, Japan, Afghanistan) were developed, and a number of towns grew’ and trade expanded continuously.

Owing to the prosperous conditions of Europe in trade, agriculture, craftsmanship, etc., rich merchants began contributing huge amounts regularly to the churches. It inspired the religious community (monasteries) to start the construction of Cathedrals. As crafts guild were easily available for supply of craftsmen, plans of construction wet easily implemented. People from different groups of society contribute their labor, materials, or money in France for the construction of Cathedrals. Their construction took a number of years to complete and became centers of pilgrimage. Owing to this, small towns were developed around them.

3. Great Famine in Europe-Famine has direct nexus with the sudden decline in production of foodgrains and certain other allied disturbances. Famine in Europe caused the starvation of the masses owing to the presence of the following factors-
1. Sudden change in climate after a lapse of 300 years. It reduced the seasons for growing crops by a month hence, foodgrain production became a herculean task. Again, the land tilled continuously for more 4 than two hundred years had lost utility and became marginal. Soil conservation techniques were not approved by Europeans.

2. Owing to bumper production during the last 300 years, the pace of population growth remained unchecked. Thus, plummeting foodgrain production and an ever-increasing population had hard hit the consumption trend. Allied factors of famine were
(a) depletion of silver stock in mines,
(b) loss of trade and commerce,
(c) the spread of plague and
(d) social unrest.

4. Black Death –
This catastrophe was brought by bubonic plague arrived with mice from distant countries while carrying goods on ships. It took a toll of 20 percent of the people of the whole of Europe with 40 percent loss of lives in some places. Its devastating impact can be guessed from the fact that Europe with 73 million population in 1300 CE reduced to 45 million in 1400 CE. An Italian author, Giovanni Boccaccio states-“They sickened by the thousands daily, and died unattended and without help. Many died in the open street, others dying in their houses, made it known by the stench of their rotting bodies”.

5. Hundred Years war between England and France-In the map of Western Europe, one can observe both countries fall at the – banks of the English Channel. North sea falls at the east of England and attire North of France. The Western part of both countries is covered by the sea. The history states that Scandinavian merchants were sailing ‘ south from the North sea to exchange furs and hunting-hawks for cloth and English traders sold them tin. We also know that the Duke of Normandy in France had crossed the English Channel with an army and defeated the Saxon King of England in the eleventh century.

The abovesaid topography, trade, and war campaigns had made staunch rival, the people of England and France to each-other. This rivalry or enmity ran continuously at least one hundred years after the event, England was defeated by France.

6. Peasants’ revolts-Atrocities of nobility on peasants took a spurt in the circumstances when bubonic plague took tall of several million people, climate took to change, the fertility of soil decayed due to longer land-use, and famine failed. They tried to give up the money contracts, they had entered into earlier and revive labor services. It was an intolerable position hence, peasants’ revolt took place in Flanders in 1323, in France in 1358, and in England in 1381. These revolts were mercilessly crushed but the peasants ensured that the feudal privileges of earlier days could not be reinvented.

Question 12.
Distinguish between Primitive land-use and the New Agriculture Technology.
Answer:

Primitive Land Use	New Agricultural Technology
1. Wooden plow was used.	1. Heavy iron-tipped plow and moldboards were brought into use.
2. Agriculture was labor-intensive and mostly they had to dig the fields bÿ hand.	2. Agriculture was less labor-intensive as compared to the primitive land use.
3. Animals were neck-harnessed.	3. Animals were shoulder harnessed.
4. Under crop rotation, the Land was divided in half i.e. winter wheat sown in one field while the other was left fallow.	4. Three field system was adopted. viz, two out of three fields were regular for two years i.e. wheat or rye in autumn and the second field for growing peas, beans and the third was left fallow.
5. Agricultural production declined.	5. Yield was increased and thus, food availability doubled.

Question 13. Do you think New towns and towns’ people can be considered as a fourth-order? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, it was really considered as a fourth-order in the feudal set¬up of European society on the following grounds-

1. Towns were developed initially with the fair and small market centers as a result of expansion and increase of agricultural production.
2. The social and political conditions of the town were absolutely distinct and different from the former three orders. If a serf could stay for one year and one day in a town (without his lord discovering him), he would be treated as a free man.
3. There were bankers and lawyers in the towns. Thus, tertiary occupations had ample scope there.
4. Here was a distinct economic organization in the form of the guild. Each craft or industry was organized into a guild, an association that controlled the quality of the product, its price, and its sale.
5. Craftsmen found it easier to settle in one place where goods could be produced and traded for food.
6. The rich town merchants were developed better than the position of nobility but they were generous to the people engaged in their businesses.
7. Later-on, Cathedral towns were formed. Cathedrals have belonged to monasteries and rich merchants. The craftsmen contributed generously, their labor, money, and expertise. These were built in a number of years and became centers of pilgrimage. Gradually, small towns were developed around them and they were called Cathedral towns.

Conclusion-On the basis of an above distinct entity, we can state the towns and towns’ people, as the fourth-order of the social set-up in Europe.

Question 14.
What special features of medieval European towns do you see in the drawing given in this theme? How were they different from towns in other places and other periods of time?
Answer:
Features of medieval European towns

1. We see in the drawing that a ring road at the periphery and a fine network of roads inside embracing all structures.
2. The entire town was duly fenced i.e. a fence wall is built outside the ring road at the periphery with circular gates all around.
3. A ditch or perhaps river has been shown flowing outside the fence. There are bridges for its crossing and finely built posts for inspection of incoming people.
4. The planning of town seems drawn by an expert architect more than the modern architect.
5. There are approach roads, paved paths, market places, residential blocks, administrative blocks, churches, and parks with lush green trees planted in rows.

These towns were different from towns in other places and other periods of time because, at other times, no town planning was made by the Europeans. There were three orders set-up and manorial estates were only fenced and demarketed. So grand planning was needed a lot of money and contribution from all sections of the society.

The town which planning we see in this theme was Cathedral town and we know that such towns, i.e. Cathedral towns were built when Europe became self-sufficient in foodgrain productivity, promotion of trade and commerce to new heights and population increased from 62 millions of 1200 CE to 73 million in 1300 CE. The rich merchants contributed generously and craftsmen as also common people took a keen interest in building such Cathedral towns. These became places of pilgrim and markets settled around them.

Question 15.
Do you think, the new monarchy was a modified form of feudalism?
Answer:
Yes, it was actually a modified form of feudalism owing to, contrary circumstances, the nobility faced. These were-sudden changes in climate, agricultural production plummeted, land overused hence, marginal fertility, and the catastrophe of bubonic plague which distorted the system of feudalism. Scarcity of labor caused an escalation in the rate of wage, laborers some way became independent and it brought peasants revolt in Flander, France, and England.

In these circumstances, the Kings did some contingent arrangements like a standing army, permanent bureaucracy, and taxation system at the national level. The nobility first revealed its dissent which was witnessed as rebellions of 1536, 1547, 1549, and 1553. These all crushed mercilessly by the Kings, eg. Louis XI of France. It then surrendered and transformed into loyalists. We see, the same class of people i.e. nobleman continued to dominate the political scene. They were given permanent positions in the administrative set-up.

Conclusion-Thus, on the above counts, we can state that a new monarchy was just a modified form of the feudal system.

Question 16.
Discuss the structure of the new monarchy established on the ruins of feudalism.
Answer:
The King in the new monarchy was at the center of an elaborate courtier society and a network of patron-client relationships. The prosperous nobles were needed the kings in a monarchy because but for their cooperation, it was felt difficult to sustain their status as a King. In brief, money was directly needed hence, the bankers and merchant classes became the members of that assembly. Administrative expenses and salaries to soldiers were paid mainly from the contribution and support given by that section of society to the King.

Later on, there was constituted a consultative assembly known as Estates-General consisting of three houses, i.e. clergy, nobility, and the common people. It was called only once in 1614 in the regime of child-king Louis’s XIII of France and the period between 1614 to 1789 remained in consultation to Estates-General as no meetings were called by the succeeding Kings. In England, there was a great council in the regime of Anglo-Saxon tribes even before the Norman conquest.

That ‘ Council was consulted regularly to decide the assessment of taxes etc. issues. That council was developed into the Parliament consisted of the House Of Lords and the House of Commons. Lords and Clergy v were the members of the house of Lords while town and rural area people were the representatives of the house of commons. Gradually, the Parliament became powerful enough as it executed King Charles I who did not call Parliament session for as long the period as, eleven years. Thus, a republic was established in England. However, it could not run for long and soon there was, the monarchy restored but regular sessions of Parliament were called since that event-C i.e. execution of King Charles I had taken place.

The Three Orders Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
‘Three orders’ phrase signifies that there is involved religion in the ruling system of the community. To what extent, do you agree with his statement? Explain.
Answer:
Three orders, on perusal of this term, we conclude the der of the society in three different sections i.e.

1. The priests,
2. The nobility and
3. the peasants.

A brief account of these orders can be given as under:
1. The Priests–It was the first and the supreme order of the society in Europe between the period fifth and the fifteen centuries. It was the Federal type of Administration whose network was made by the Feudal form of nobility. The church was the supreme authority. It was actually the law-making section. It had defined the supreme place of the Pope, the religious preceptor. He used to live in Rome and administration was run through Papal Bull by him in Europe with the machinery of the bishops and Clerics.

2. The Nobility-Nobility was the second order of European society. It has the executive powers of the Fevidal system of governance. Hereby the nobles i.e. the large Estate owners or manors used to nominate one among them as Seigneur (senior). All other nobles then became vassal to him while the peasants were the vassals of their landowners i.e. manors.

The King or senior also had a large state, owned and cultivated by two kinds of peasants viz. one who was smaller peasants owned their lands and the others who were serfs i.e. slaves. Every manor had owned his large estate consisting of a number of buildings including the manor house, knight house, homes for peasants, and surfs. The land was constituting of meadows, pastures, cultivated land, an area under forest, roads, bridges, etc. This estate was like a castle and a smaller Kingdom in itself.

Sources of income were the taxes imposed on peasants in the ratio of 1/10 of the gross agricultural production, the begar made by both peasants i.e. free peasants and the surfs. The manor or noble had to pay the taxes in cash or kind to the coffer or pool of the King.

3. The peasants-Peasants were of two types. Some were free while others were unfree or surfs. Free peasants held their farms as tenants of the Lord or manor. They were compelled to provide at least forty days of military services per annum, three days of the week in working or farming, cultivating the fields of their manor, but without getting any remuneration for their works so done. It was considered under the law as Iabourrent. Their women and children were all deployed in works like pressing grapes for King’s nobles, spun thread, wove cloth, made candles, etc. The serfs had not owned any lands.

They had to cultivate the land of the manor but except for getting their food and daily needs, they were paid nothing. There were a number of restrictions imposed on them. They would not allow marriage or other ties unless a fee was paid for the same. Serfs would use only their lord’s mill to grind their flour, his oven to bake their bread, and his wine-presses to distill wine and beer.

The economic relations, land use, and new agricultural technology, new towns and towns’ people all had witnessed a change in the society. We know that during the period from the fifth to the eleventh century, the environment was excessively cold hence, no progress, the agriculture could witness but from the eleventh century, the temperature began to change from cooler to warmer. Hence, a number: of species in the plant kingdom and animal kingdom started to grow. The vegetation cover made the environment fertile for the growth of several crops including wheat, peas, beans, oats, and barley. Thus, agriculture production increased manifold.

It subsequently, developed – trade and commerce, and people took a keen interest in the development, of new agricultural tools and machinery. They began to use heavy iron-tipped plows and moldboards in place of wooden plows drawn by a team of oxen. Oxen were got shoulder harness in place, of neck harness. More water-powered and wind-powered mills were set up all over Europe for purposes like milling corn and pressing grapes. The most revolutionary change in land-use was the shift from a two-field to a three-field system. They could plant one with is wheat or rye in autumn for human consumption.

The second could be used in spring to raise peas, beans, and lentils for human use. The third field lay fallow. Each year, they rotated the use among the three % fields. Trade started from the silk route and maritime route. An increase, in agricultural production, resulted in an increased population from 62. millions of 1200 to 73 million in 1300 CE. An increase in population and agricultural yield both resulted in the revival of the towns which were deserted along-with the decline of the Roman Empire.

In towns, people instead of services paid a tax to the lords who owned the land on which the town stood. Towns offered the prospect of paid work and freedom from the lord’s control, for young people from peasants. families. Trade and Commerce made the merchant section of society very prosperous and they began to donate money to the clergy to construct the Cathedrals i.e. worshipping place of monasteries.

There were grand buildings sometimes, made within the complex of Churches. Soon, there developed markets around these Cathedral structures and craftsmen guilds settled towns.

Conclusion-Thus, on the above description, we see that the feudal system in England was developed, nourished, and administered by the religion i.e. Christianity. People were linked with vassalage similar to the practice among Germanic people. Nobles were vassals of the King who himself (i.e. the king) was a noble and peasants were vassals of nobles (manors) but the power of the Church was supreme.

Here we are providing Class 11 Geography Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Soils. Important Questions for Class 11 Geography are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Important Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 Soils

Soils Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is soil?
Answer:
Soil is a layer of unconsolidated material at the surface of the earth which has been derived from rocks and organic matter.

Question 2.
How is soil formed?
Answer:
It is formed by gradual disintegration under the influence of various agents.

Question 3.
Name the major factors in the formation of soils.
Answer:
Parent material, relief, climate, vegetation and drainage.

Question 4.
Name the three horizons of the soil.
Answer:

1. A horizon – topmost
2. B horizon – less leached
3. C horizon – illuvial

Question 5.
Name the physical properties of the soil.
Answer:
Size, shape and arrangement of particles, the volume and effective depth of the soil.

Question 6.
What is ravine?
Answer:
It is a small narrow valley with steep sides. It is larger than a gully and smaller than a canyon.

Question 7.
Why soil conservation is important?
Answer:
Because it is the most important natural resource for plants, animals and human beings.

Question 8.
Define soil texture.
Answer:
Soil texture is the arrangement and relationship of particles of the soil.

Question 9.
What does the black colour of the soil indicate?
Answer:
It indicates the presence of rich organic matter in the soil.

Question 10.
What is meant by slight, moderate and severe erosion?
Answer:
If the soil erosion is less than 25% of the surface – light.

• If it is between 25%-75% – moderate.
• If it is more than 75% – severe.

Question 11.
Which organisms play an effective role in the fertility of the soil?
Answer:
These are bacteria, fungi, earthworms, ants and other insects and animals.

Question 12.
Which two groups the soils used to be classified into in ancient India?
Answer:
Urvara and Usara, meaning fertile and sterile respectively.

Question 13.
What does ICAR stand for?
Answer:
ICAR stands for Indian Council of Agricultural Research.

Question 14.
On which criteria, the ICAR classification is based?
Answer:
The ICAR classification is based on genesis, colour, composition and location.

Question 15.
Identify the various categories of soils in India as classified by ICAR.
Answer:
Alluvial soil, black soil, red and yellow soils, laterite soil, arid soils, saline soils, organic soil and forest soils.

Question 16.
What is Regur?
Answer:
‘Regur’ is black soil.

Question 17.
Which two types of soils have been developed in the upper and middle Ganga plain?
Answer:
Khadar and Bhangar. Khadar is a newer alluvial whereas Bhangar is older alluvial.

Question 18.
Give some examples of coarse grain.
Answer:
Jowar, Bajra, ragi, etc.

Question 19.
Which chemical is added to the soils in order to solve the problem of salinity?
Answer:
Gypsum is added to the soil in order to solve the problem of salinity.

Question 20.
What is ‘jumping’?
Answer:
‘Jumping’ is the name of shifting agriculture in India. This is the oldest type of agriculture. This is also known as ‘slash and bum’ method.

Question 21.
Which regions are known for cotton cultivation in India?
Answer:
The Deccan plateau and the Coimbatore upland are known for cotton cultivation in India.

Question 22.
Name the two most active agents of soil erosion.
Answer:
Wind and running water are the two active agents of soi 1 erosion.

Question 23.
What exhibits badland topography?
Answer:
Areas with poor vegetation and steep slope, particularly in undulating terrain and along with the river courses, often exhibit badland topography.

Question 24.
What are the ill effects of soil erosion?
Answer:
Ill effects of soil erosion are the removal of fertile soil, sudden and heavy floods, sitting of river beds, lowering of water bodies and lowering of the soil moisture.

Question 25.
Name three primary forms of soil structure.
Answer:
The three primary forms of soil structure are granular, blacky and peaty.

Question 26.
What are ferruginous gneiss and schist rocks?
Answer:
Time rocks containing iron are known as ferruginous gneiss and schist.

Question 27.
From which the black soil is derived?
Answer:

1. Deccan trap and
2. the ferruginous gneiss and schist rock.

Soils Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Explain how the soil organisms play an effective role in the fertility of the soil?
Answer:
A large number of soil organisms including bacteria, fungi, earthworms, ants, insects and animals play an effective role in the fertility of the soil. They multiply very quickly under favourable conditions and add nutrients to the soil.

Question 2.
How did the soils use to be classified in ancient India?
Answer:
In ancient India, the soils used to be classified into two main groups, viz., Urvara which were fertile and Usara which were sterile. The Urvara soils were subdivided into different types on the basis of crops grown, such as barley soil, rice soils, etc. Similarly, Usara soils were sub-divided into salt land, deserts, etc.

Question 3.
Discuss the types and characteristics of alluvial soils.
Answer:
Alluvial soils are depositional soils transported by the streams and winds. They are largely sandy loam in texture. The colour of the alluvial soils varies from light grey to ash grey. Its shades depend on the depth of the deposition, the texture of the materials, and the time taken for its formation.

Question 4.
What are ravines? How are they different from gullies?
Answer:
A ravine is a small, narrow valley with steep sides, larger than a gully, but smaller than a canyon.

A gully, on the other hand, is a narrow channel worn in the earth by water. It is especially a miniature valley resulting from a heavy downpour of rain. Further erosion and deepening of a gully leading to the formation of a ravine.

Question 5.
Differentiate among soil erosion, soil exhaustion and soil degradation.
Answer:
The removal of the soil by running water in wet areas and wind in dry areas is known as soil erosion. The removal of its organic and mineral content is referred to as soil exhaustion. Whereas the misuse of the soils leads to soil degradation i.e. decline in the quality of soil, However, the agencies involved in soil erosion, exhaustion and degradation are common. They are running water, wind, snow, animals and human beings.

Question 6.
Which elements are required by plants as nutrients?
Answer:
A large number of elements namely, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, magnesium, calcium, iron, manganese, zinc, copper, boron and molybdenum are required by a plant as nutrients.

Question 7.
Classify the soil on the basis of various types of water in India.
Answer:
There are four types of soils identified on the basis of different types of water. They are Barani, Chari, Nahari and sailable. Soils dependent on rainwater are called Barani, that on well irrigation Chari, that on canal irrigation Nahari and that on river percolation sailable.

Question 8.
Define alluvium.
Answer:
The alluvium is the unconsolidated, loose material left only soil but also the gravel and sand brought down by a river and deposited in its bed, flood plain, delta or estuary, or in a lake, or land down like cone deposits on the flood plains of the large rivers.

Question 9.
Which type of soil is derived from Deccan lavas? Explain its important characteristics?
Answer:
Black soil is derived from Deccan lavas. The important characteristics are:

1. It chemically consists of lime, iron, magnesia and alumina.
2. It is generally clayey, deep and impermeable.

It lacks in phosphorous, nitrogen and organic matter but contains potash.

Question 10.
Which type of soil is the most dominant type and where is it found? Describe its two properties.
Answer:
Alluvial soils are the most widespread soil covering an area of 8 lakh sq. km. from Punjab to Assam. It is found over about 43.7% area in India. It is found in river basins, flood plains and coastal areas. This soil is rich in potash but poor in nitrogen. Alluvial soi Is are of three types:

1. Khadar soils -f fine and deposited in flood plains.
2. Bangar soils – older alluvium soil.
3. Newest alluvial soils – fine alluvial soil found in delta.

Question 11.
What are the characteristics of laterite soils?
Answer:

1. The laterite soils are brick coloured.
2. These are shallow, acidic and less fertile.
3. these less fertile due to leaching of soil.
4. These are poor in nitrogen, potash but rich in iron. This is found in Tamil Nadu.

Question 12.
What is the parent material of soil?
Answer:
The soils are formed due to the weathering and erosion of rocks exposed on the surface. The material which has undergone weathering and erosion and had contributed to soil formation is known as the parent material. The type and nature of parent materials play a vital role in determining the properties of soil.

Question 13.
What is contour ploughing?
Answer:
The method of tilting or ploughing hillsides or sloping lands among the contour lines, that is, around rather than up and down a slope mainly with a view of conserving soil and water.

Question 14.
How can we improve the fertility of soils?
Answer:
The fertility of the soil means the presence of humus contents and enough soil nutrients which provides nourishment to the plants. To improve the fertility of the soil following methods should be used:

Question 15.
Distinguish between soil erosion and soil conservation.
Answer:

Soil erosion	Soil conservation
(1) Ills black in colour and hence called black soil.	(1) It is yellow in colour.
(2) It is formed by the decomposition of lava.	(2) It is formed by leaching in tropical areas.
(3) It is suitable for the cultivation of cotton.	(3) It is suitable for millets.
(4) Et is found in Deccan plateau.	(4) It is found over a low plateau in Bihar.

Soils Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Describe the areas affected by soil erosion. What are the factors responsible for it? Suggest measures to conserve it.
Answer:
The areas affected by the soil erosion are West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Delhi, Rajasthan and many other parts of India.

1. Potato cultivation in theregionofMeghalayaonNilgiri hills causes soil erosion.
2. Cleaning of forests in the Himalayas and on the Western Ghats.
3. Excessivegrazingbycattleontheslopesofhillscauserapidsoil erosion.
4. On steep slopes due to running water soil-erosion increases.
5. Strong winds cause soil erosion. They blow away soil in dry areas.
6. Heavy rainfall causes soil-erosion.
7. Jumping by the tribal population in different parts of the country have caused considerable depletion of the soils.
8. Deforestation causes soil erosion.

The followings are the measures to conserve the soils:

1. By scientific use of land.
2. Crop-rotation, contour ploughing and bunding.
3. Afforestation in the upper reaches of river basins.
4. Increased use of organic manures.
5. Construction of water barriers against gullies in wet regions.
6. Replacing flood irrigation by sprinklers and drip irrigation.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Arid soils and Saline soils.
Answer:
Arid soils – Arid soi 1 is red to brown in colour. They are generally sandy and alkaline. In some areas, the salt content is so high that common salt is obtained by evaporating the saline water. In a dry climate, due to high temperature and accelerated evaporation. They lack moisture and humus content is normal. Lower horizons of soils are occupied by Kankar due to increased calcium downward. This type of soil is found in Rajasthan where desert topography is found. These soils contain less humus and. organic matter. These are suitable for Jowar, Bajra, Ragi and oilseeds, etc.

Saline soils – These are known as Usara soils. It contains a larger portion of sodium, potassium and magnesium. It is poorly fertile. These require more salts largely because of the dry climate and poor drainage. These are found in arid and semi-arid regions and water-logged and swampy areas. Its structure ranges from sandy to loamy. It lacks nitrogen and calcium. Saline soils are found in the region of western Gujarat, deltas of the eastern coasts and Sunderban area of West Bengal. With the excessive use of cultivation and irrigation, the fertile alluvial soils are becoming saline.

Question 3.
Describe the major characteristics and distribution of the soils in India.
Answer:
Characteristics and distribution of soils in India:
1. Alluvial soil – It is fine silt deposited in the plains by rivers, brought from the mountain regions. It is very fertile and famous for agriculture. Relatively fine and new soil of the flood plains and deltas is known as Khadar and older deposits as Bangar. Great plains of the north and deltas of peninsular rivers abound in alluvial soil.

2. Black soil – Black soil is made of volcanic rocks of lava flows. The soil is fertile and clayey. It can maintain moisture for long periods. Due to black in colour, it is said to be black soil. Cotton is grown abundantly in this soil. Locally it is named as regur soil. Gujarat, parts of M.P. and Maharashtra have black soil over large areas.

3. Red soil – Red soil has developed on the crystalline igneous rocks. They are less fertile but with the help of manures and fertilisers, good crops are raised in it. Relatively hot and dry parts of southern and eastern peninsula abound in red soils.

4. Laterite soil – Due to heavy rains fertile portion of the soil has been washed away leading to leaching. Hence the soil is infertile. Hilly regions of Western Ghats and Chhotanagpur plateau with heavy rainfall and hot weather are represented by this type of soil.

5. Mountain soils are found in the Himalayan region. They are good for tea growing. Desert soil is found in Rajasthan. They are sandy and do not produce any significant crop.

Question 4.
Discuss the type of physical conditions leading to the formation of peaty and organic soils.
Answer:
The peaty and organic soils are found in the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity, where there is a good growth of vegetation. A large amount of dead organic matter accumulates in these areas and this gives rich humus and organic content to the soil. Hence, they are peaty and organic soils. Organic matter in these soils may go even up to 40 to 50%.

These soils are normally heavy and black in colour. They occur widely in the northern part of Bihar, the southern part of Uttaranchal and coastal areas of West Bengal, Orissa and Tamil Nadu. Such soils are used for cultivation of high and less soil exhaustive crops.

Question 5.
(a) So long a balance exists between the processes of soils formation and soil erosion, there is no nutrient, but when the balance has distributed the erosion of the soil becomes a menace. Comment.
Answer:
The removal of soil by running water and the erosion process of running water and wind are continuous. Generally, there is a balance between these two processes. The rate of removal of fine particles from the surface is the same as the rate of addition of particles to the soil layer. Sometimes such a balance is distributed by natural or human factors, leading to a greater rate of removal of soil. When this happens, the entire soil layer may be removed in a few years.
Indiscriminate felling of trees, careless overgrazing of pasture lands, unscientific drainage operations and improper land use are some of the important causes which upset this balance.

(b) What are ravines? How are they different from gullies?
Answer:
Ravines: A ravine is a small narrow valley with steep sides, larger than a gully, but smaller than a canyon.

A gully, on the other hand, is a narrow channel worn in the earth by water. It is especially a miniature valley resulting from a heavy downpour of rain. Further erosion and deepening of a gully leading to the formation of a ravine.

Here we are providing Class 11 Geography Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation. Important Questions for Class 11 Geography are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Important Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation

Natural Vegetation Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is natural vegetation?
Answer:
Natural vegetation means a plant community that has been left undisturbed over a long period of time, so as to allow its species to adjust themselves to climate and soil conditions as fully as possible. Natural vegetation is found in mountain regions,

Question 2.
How many types the natural vegetation in India can be classified into?
Answer:
Based on the structure, physiognomy and florists nature of the | plants, the natural vegetation in India can be divided into:

1. Tropical evergreen forests
2. Tropical dry deciduous and evergreen forests
3. Semi-desert and desert vegetation
4. Wetlands littoral and swamp forests
5. Montane vegetation
6. The grasses

Question 3.
What is boreal?
Answer:
The species which are brought from outside are known as exotic and about 40% of the plant species in India are found to be exotic. The plant species which are brought from the Sino-Tibetan area are known as ‘boreal’.

Question 4.
Describe the vegetation in central parts of the plateau.
Answer:
In the central part of the Indian plateau dry tropical or deciduous
and thorny vegetation is found. This region receives less than 70 cm. rainfall and is covered with thorn forest type of vegetation. This part! presents vast undulating poor grassland. Summer is very long and dry,
the landscape changes to the pale carpet of grasses with grey stone surfaces.

Question 5.
Give any three characteristic features of tropical deciduous forests.
Answer:

1. TheyarefoundonfoothillsofHimalayasandmanyparts of peninsular plateau.
2. During the dry season, they shed their leaves. Teak, Shisham, sal, rosewood are the main species.
3. They have important economical significance.

Question 6.
What do you mean by biosphere reserve? Where and when was the first biosphere reserve of India developed?
Answer:
The vast areas which have been reserved for the preservation and protection of flora and fauna of the country in their natural form are known as bio-reserves. In these areas, the plants and animals are kept to protect for the future generation. The first Biosphere in India was developed at Nilgiri.

Question 7.
Describe the location and characteristic features of Kaziranga National Park.
Answer:
Kaziranga National Park is located inNagaonandGolaghatdistricts on the southern bank of Brahmaputra river at the foot of Mikir hills. It lies in the flood plains of the Brahmaputra river. The riverine habitat consists primarily of tall, dense grasslands interspersed with open forests. One homed rhinoceros and elephants are the main inhabitants of this park.

Question 8.
Write a short note on Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve.
Answer:
It is located in the swampy delta of the two great Indian rivers the Brahmaputra and the Ganga in West Bengal. It extends over a vast area of mangrove forest, swamps and forested islands, covering over 1300 sq. km. Sunderban is the home of nearly 200 Royal Bengal Tigers. Adapting themself to the saline and freshwater environment, the tigers at the park are good swimmers.

Question 9.
How can we utilise our forests resources for the future? Give three methods.
Answer:

1. We have to stop the reckless cutting of forests.
2. To reduce the pressure on forests, the substituent of timber should be found out.
3. To fulfil the basic needs of fuel and fodder of the people, social forestry and farmer forestry should be introduced.
4. More and more trees should be planted.

Question 10.
Name the various Bio-reserves in India.
Answer:

1. Nilgiri (Karnataka)
2. Nanda Devi (Uttranchal)
3. No Krek (Meghalaya)
4. Andaman Nicobar
5. Valley of flowers (Uttranchal)
6. Gulf of Mannar (Tamil Nadu)
7. Rann of Kutchh (Gujarat)
8. Kaziranga National Park (Assam)

Question 11.
What are the characteristic features of the tropical evergreen forests?
Answer:

1. There is a dense growth of vegetation which causes difficulty. of accessibility. A number of species are very large.
2. There is a lack of pure stands.
3. High temperature and heavy rainfall make conditions unsuitable for living.

Question 12.
What is the difference between National parks and Sanctuaries?
Answer:

National parks	Sanctuaries
(1) This is an area of multi ecosystems.	(1) The area of wildlife sanctuaries are also dedicated to protecting wildlife and species.
(2) This area has not been materially altered by human occu¬pation.	(2) There is no entry without permission.
(3) This is dedicated to protecting wildlife.	(3) Hunting and grazing are prohibited.
(4) Plant and animal species, for scientific education, recreation and geomorphological sites are present.	(4) Man’s activity is allowed in the sanctuaries.

Question 13.
How vegetation is different from forests?
Answer:
Vegetation is not limited to forests only. It is something more than the forests. Vegetation includes trees, grasses, shrubs, etc. Vegetation gives a distinct type of landscape to the region as grassland, woodland.

Forests are all type of vegetation. It refers to the society of trees in close growth. Forests are very useful for mankind.

Question 14.
Define reafforestation and afforestation.
Answer:
Reafforestation is the saplings of two plants which are planted to replace every felled tree. It is practised to avoid the evils of Jumping.

Afforestation is the planting of one sapling to get one tree. It is practised to bring more area under forest.

Natural Vegetation Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Why have certain species of animals become extinct in our country? What is being done to preserve wildlife?
Answer:
Wildlife has a very important role for mankind. But we have depleted its habitat, the forests, very fast. We have hunted wild animals and poached them indiscriminately. The result is that many of these wild animals face the danger of extinction. The major animals which face extinction are antelopes, lion, tigers, blackbuck, bustard, etc. Hence, to see the future need, there is an urgent need to conserve them.

Steps to be taken to preserve wild-life:

1. Hunting and poaching of wild animals have been banned.
2. Strict and severe punishment is accorded to defaulters.
3. National parks, zoos, sanctuaries and biosphere reserves have been set up more and more in number all over the country.
4. Maintenance of the existing trees.
5. More and more birds and animals are being declared national birds and animals.
6. ‘Project Tiger’ and ‘Project Elephant’ programmes have been ‘ launched to preserve and conserve wildlife.

Question 2.
Describe the various regions of concentration of forests in varying degrees in India.
Answer:
On the basis of the percentage of the actual forest cover, the states have been grouped into four regions. They are:

1. The region of high concentration
2. The region of medium concentration
3. The region of low concentration
4. The region of very low concentration

1. The region of the high concentration-This region includes the states where the percentage cover of the forest is more than 40%. All the eastern states except Assam fall in this category. Favourable climate, especially rainfall and temperature, is responsible for the high concentration of forests. There is variation in forest cover in the region. In the states of Mizoram, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh and in the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, forests occupy more than 80% of the geographical area. Manipur Meghalaya, Tripura, Sikkim and Dadra and Nagar Haveli have a percentage of forest between 40 and 80.

2. The region of moderate concentration – It includes the states of Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Goa, Kerala, Assam and Himachal Pradesh. Goa has the lightest (33.79)% of the actual forest followed by Orissa and Assam. Rest of the states have less than 30% of their area.

3. The region of low concentration – This region is also not continuous. The states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu form peninsular sub-region while those of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar form the northern sub-region.

4. The region of very low concentration – The northwestern part of India falls in this category. The states included are Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Gujarat, Chandigarh and Delhi. West Bengal in the east also comes under this region. Physical and human factors have been responsible for a very low concentration of forests in these areas.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the strange creatures of India.
Answer:
The strange creatures of India are Gangetic dolphin, Civets, Indian Pangolin, GreatlndianHorbill, Indian giant squirrel, mouse, deer and flying-fox.

Gangetic Dolphin – It lives in the Ganga river. It is born blind and lives sightless for the rest of its life.

Civets- It is a cat I like creature, lives solitary, comes out at night to hunt small birds, mammals and reptiles. It remains hiding during the day.

Indian pangolin – It has a scaly body. As protection against predators, it rolls itself into a ball and raises its sharp scales.

Great Indian Hornbill – It is a large bird with strange nesting habits; the female seal herself into d hollow in a tree and the male dutifully brings her food during the entire period of incubation.

Indian giant squirrel – It is a large nocturnal rodent which lives in the upper canopy of trees. It flaps between its body and its extremities act like parachutes and enable the large mammal to glide from tree to tree.

Mouse deer-This is a deer of 30 cm. in height. To evade predators, it hides beneath the low bushes and vegetation.

Flying fox – It is one of the world’s largest bats and is found all over India. Its wingspan is more than 1.5 m. and can fly over 220 km.

Question 4.
What is a Biosphere reserve? How many Biospheres are found in India? Describe in short.
Answer:
A Biosphere Reserve is a unique and representative ecosystem of terrestrial and coastal areas which are internationally recognized within the framework of UNESCO’S Man and Biosphere Programme.

There are 4 biosphere reserves in India. Four biosphere reserves namely

1. Nilgiri,
2. Nanda Devi,
3. Sunderbans,
4. Gulf of Mannar has been recognised by UNESCO on world network.

1. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve- It is the first of the fourteen biosphere reserves of India and was established in September 1986. The total area of the biosphere reserve is around 5520 sq. km. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve possesses different habitat types, unspoilt areas of natural vegetation types with several dry and moist deciduous, semi-evergreen and wet evergreen forests, evergreen sholes, grasslands and swamps. It includes the largest known population of two endangered animal species, namely the Nilgiri Tahr and the Lion-tailed Macaque. About 80% of the flowering plants reported from the Western Ghats occur in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

2. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve – It is situated in Uttranchal, includes parts of Chamoli, Almora, Pithoragarh and Bageshwar districts. The major type of the reserve is temperate forest. A few important species are silverweed, orchids, Latifolie and rhododendron. The biosphere reserve has a rich fauna, for example, snow leopard, black bear, brown bear, musk deer, snow-cock, golden eagle.

3. Sundarban Biosphere Reserve – This reserve is located in the swampy delta of the river Ganga in West Bengal. It spreads over a vast area of 9,630 sq. km and consists of mangrove forests, swamps and s- forested islands. It is a home of nearly 200 Royal Bengal Tigers.

4. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve – It covers an area of 1,05,000 hectares on the south-east coast of India from Sri-Lanka. The biosphere reserve comprises 21 islands with estuaries, beaches, forests of the nearshore environment, seagrass, coral reefs and mangroves.

Question 5.
Describe the importance of social forestry in India.
Answer:
The social forestry was used for the first time by the National Commission on Agriculture in 1976 to denote tree raising programmes to supply firewood, small hunters and minor forest produce to the rural population. Ambitious social forestry programmes have been launched by several state governments. The forest departments in most states have set up separate social forestry wings.

Social forestry programmes have mainly three components viz., farm forestry, wood lots and community wood lots. Farm forestry encourages farmers to plant trees on their own farmer; wood lots are planted by the forest departments for the needs of the community especially along roadsides, canal banks and other such public lands, and community wood lots are planted by the community themselves on community lands, to be shared equally by them.

Here we are providing Class 12 Hindi Important Extra Questions and Answers Aroh Chapter 16 नमक. Important Questions for Class 12 Hindi are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

नमक Class 12 Important Extra Questions Hindi Aroh Chapter 16

प्रश्न 1.
क्या सब कानून हुकूमत के ही होते हैं, कुछ मुहब्बत, मुरौवत, आदमियत, इंसानियत के नहीं होते? ऐसा क्यों कहा:गया है?
उत्तर
ऐसा इसलिए कहा गया है कि आज के युग में कानून केवल हुकूमत के लाभ हेतु बनाए जाते हैं, सामान्य जनता के लिए नहीं। हुकूमत के लिए सरहदों के इस पार या उस पार सामान के लाने या ले जाने पर कोई पाबंदी नहीं। वह जब चाहे कुछ भी इधर से उधर ले जा सकती है, लेकिन सामान्य जनता को अनेक कस्टम से होकर गुजरना पड़ता है। वही सामान सामान्य व्यक्ति के लिए गैर-कानूनी माना जाता है। कहने का आशय यह है कि कानूनों से अलग भी एक दुनिया रोती है, जिसमें मुहब्बत, मुरौवत और इंसानियत शामिल है। यह दनिया हकमत के कानून से ऊपर मानी जाती है।

प्रश्न 2.
भावना के स्थान पर बुद्धि धीरे-धीरे उस पर हावी हो रही थी ऐसा क्यों कहा गया है?
उत्तर
सफ़िया को अगले दिन पाकिस्तान से रवाना होना था, इसलिए उसने रात में सारा सामान बाँध लिया। केवल कीनू की टोकरी और एक नमक की पुड़िया ही शेष रह गई थी। अब यह इसी द्वंद्व में थी कि इस नमक की पुड़िया को किसमें और कहाँ रखकर ले जाए जिससे यह कस्टम अधिकारियों की आँखों से बच सके। वह अधिक भावुक होकर इस प्रकार बार-बार चिंतन कर रही थी। लेकिन अब वह निर्णय पर पहुंच चुकी थी कि इसे कहाँ रखकर ले जाऊँगी। इसीलिए ऐसा कहा गया है कि भावना के स्थान पर बुद्धि धीरे-धीरे उस पर हावी हो रही थी।

प्रश्न 3.
मुहब्बत तो कस्टम से इस तरह गुजर जाती है कि कानून हैरान रह जाता है? ऐसा क्यों कहा गया है?
उत्तर
मुहब्बत तो कस्टम से इस तरह गुजर जाती है कि कानून हैरान रह जाता है, ऐसा इसलिए कहा गया है कि कस्टम पर भारत और पाकिस्तान दोनों वतन के लोग हैं। कोई विस्थापित होकर इधर आया है तो कोई उधर गया है लेकिन आज तक भी वे अपने वतन से मुहब्बत करते हैं, इसलिए जब भी कोई हमवतन कोई गैर-कानूनी सामान भी लेकर आता है तो उसे अपने वतन से मुहब्बत के कारण भावनात्मक रूप से छोड़ दिया जाता है। इन्हीं भावनाओं के बल पर व्यक्ति कस्टम से इधर-उधर गुजर जाता है।

प्रश्न 4.
हमारी जमीन, हमारे पानी का मज़ा ही कुछ और है-ऐसा क्यों कहा गया है?
उत्तर
मनुष्य का स्वाभाविक गुण है कि वह अपनी जन्मभूमि से आजीवन जुड़ा रहता है। उसे अपनी जमीन अन्य स्थलों की अपेक्षा अधिक
प्यारी लगती है। वह भावनात्मक रूप से उसके साथ रहता है। उसकी प्रत्येक वस्तु से उसका गहन लगाव होता है, इसलिए ऐसा कहा गया है कि हमारी जमीन, हमारे पानी का मजा कुछ और ही है।

प्रश्न 5.
फिर पलकों से कुछ सितारे टूटकर दूधिया आँचल में समा जाते हैं। इस पंक्ति का आशय स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर
इस पंक्ति का आशय यह है कि जब सफ़िया सिख बीबी को पूछती है कि आपको हिंदुस्तान आए कितने वर्ष हो गए तो सिख बीबी उसे बताती है कि वे तब आए थे जब हिंदुस्तान और पाकिस्तान विभाजन हुआ था। वह आज भी अपना वतन लाहौर मानती है। इसलिए अपने वतन तथा जन्मभूमि को याद करके सिख बीबी की आँखों से कुछ आँसू सितारों की भाँति टूटकर उसके सफेद आँचल में समा जाते हैं। वह विस्थापन को याद करके फूट-फूटकर रोने लगती है।

प्रश्न 6.
आशय स्पष्ट कीजिए:- “किसका वतन कहाँ है-वह जो कस्टम के इस तरफ़ है या उस तरफ़?”
उत्तर
प्रस्तुत पंक्ति से आशय है कि सफ़िया नमक की पुड़िया लेकर पाकिस्तान से कस्टम से होकर हिंदुस्तान के कस्टम तक आई। दोनों कस्टम से वह भावनात्मक रूप से बच गई। अमृतसर आकर जब वह पुल पर चढ़ रही थी उस समय पुल के पास कस्टम वाले सिर झुकाए खड़े थे तो उस समय वह सोच रही थी कि किसका वतन कहाँ है-वह जो कस्टम के इस तरफ है या उस तरफ।

प्रश्न 7.
सफ़िया सिख बीबी को देखकर हैरान क्यों रह गई थी?
उत्तर
सफ़िया को सिख बीबी बिल्कुल अपनी माँ जैसी ही प्रतीत हुई थी। उसका शरीर भी भारी-भरकम था, वैसी ही छोटी-छोटी चमकदार आँखें थीं जिनमें नेकी, मुहब्बत और रहमदिली की रोशनी जगमगाती थी। उसने वैसा ही मलमल का सफ़ेद दुपट्टा ओढ़ा हआ था जैसा उसकी माँ महर्रम में ओढ़ा करती थी।

प्रश्न 8.
औरत सफ़िया के पास क्यों आ बैठी थी? उसने क्या बताया था?
उत्तर
जब सफ़िया ने उसकी ओर कई बार प्रेम से देखा तो वह उसके पास आ बैठी थी और जब उसे यह पता लगा कि वह लाहौर जा रही थी तो उसने लाहौर शहर की प्रशंसा करते हुए कहा था कि वह बहुत प्यारा शहर है। वहाँ के लोग बहुत खूबसूरत होते हैं जो अच्छा खाने, नफ़ीस कपड़ों, सैर-सपाटे के रसिया और जिंदादिली की तस्वीर होते हैं।

प्रश्न 9.
सिख बीबी क्या हिंदुस्तान में बसने के बाद प्रसन्न थी? कैसे?
उत्तर
सिख बीबी तब हिंदुस्तान में आई थी जब विभाजन के बाद उसे लाहौर छोड़ना पड़ा था। अब उनके परिवार का अच्छा व्यापार है, कोठी है, वह प्रसन्न है पर उसका दिल तो अभी भी लाहौर में ही बसता है। उसे याद कर उसकी आँखों से आँसू की बूंदें अभी भी टपक ही पड़ती हैं।

प्रश्न 10.
सफ़िया के भाई ने साहित्यकारों के विषय में क्या कहा था? क्यों?
उत्तर
सफ़िया के भाई ने साहित्यकारों के विषय में कहा था कि उनका दिमाग थोड़ा-सा अवश्य ही घुमा हुआ होता है, वे सामान्य नहीं होते। ऐसा उसने इसलिए कहा था कि सफ़िया लाहौर से थोड़ा-सा नमक हिंदुस्तान लाना चाहती थी। वह इस गैर-कानूनी काम को सब को बताकर, दिखाकर करना चाहती थी।

प्रश्न 11.
कस्टम अधिकारी ने सफ़िया से क्या कहा था?
उत्तर
कस्टम अधिकारी ने सफ़िया के बैग में नमक रखते हुए कहा था कि जामा मस्जिद की सीढ़ियों को उसका सलाम कहना और उस सिख बीबी को नमक देते हुए कहना कि लाहौर अभी तक उनका वतन था और दिल्ली उसका। शेष सब धीरे-धीरे ठीक हो जाएगा।

प्रश्न 12.
कहानी के आधार पर सफ़िया के भाई की चारित्रिक विशेषताएँ लिखिए।
उत्तर
सफ़िया का भाई पुलिस अधिकारी था जो पाकिस्तान में कार्यरत था। उसके मन में हिंदुस्तान-पाकिस्तान के बीच का भेदभाव स्पष्ट रूप से बहुत बड़ा था। वह लाहौरी नमक को किसी भी अवस्था में हिंदुस्तान ले जाने के पक्ष में नहीं था और उसने ऐसा करना और-कानूनी माना था। स्वयं संवेदना शून्य होने के कारण वह कस्टम अधिकारियों को भी अपने जैसा ही समझता है और अपनी बहन को नमक न ले जाने की सलाह देता है।

प्रश्न 13.
‘नमक’ कहानी की मूल संवेदना अपने शब्दों में लिखिए। (Outside Delhi 2017, Set-II)
अथवा
नमक कहानी की मूल संवेदना स्पष्ट कीजिए। (C.B.S.E. 2018)
उत्तर
‘नमक’ भारत-पाक विभाजन के बाद सरहद के दोनों तरफ से विस्थापित लोगों के दिलों को टटोलती एक मार्मिक कहानी है। इसमें लेखिका ने चित्रित किया है कि एक लकीर खींच देने से जमीन और जनता को कागजी रूप से तो विभाजित किया जा सकता है किंतु वास्तविक रूप में नहीं। यह सत्य है कि जमीन को चाहकर भी नहीं बाँटा जा सकता और न ही कोई जनता की भावनाओं को दबा सकता है।

विस्थापित होकर आई सिख बीवी आज भी लाहौर को ही अपना वतन मानती है और यही कारण है कि वह सौगात के तौर पर लाहौरी नमक मंगवाना चाहती है। पाकिस्तानी कस्टम अधिकारी भी यही कहता है कि दिल्ली मेरा वतन है। जब साफीया पाकिस्तान से नमक लेकर चली तो कस्टम अधिकारी ने कहा था कि जामा मस्जिद की सीढ़ियों को मेरा सलाम कहिएगा।

महत्वपूर्ण गद्यांशों के अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर

1. “हाँ बेटी ! जब हिंदुस्तान बना था तभी आए थे। वैसे तो अब यहाँ भी कोठी बन गई है। बिजनेस है, सब ठीक ही है, पर लाहौर याद आता है। हमारा वतन तो जी लाहौर ही है।” फिर पलकों से कुछ सितारे टूटकर दूधिया आँचल में समा जाते हैं। बात आगे चल पड़ती, मगर घूम-फिरकर फिर उसी जगह पर आ जाती-‘साडा लाहौर’!

अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न
1. प्रस्तुत गद्यांश की लेखिका तथा पाठ का नाम लिखिए।
2. ‘हाँ बेटी’ ! जब हिंदुस्तान बना था तभी आए थे’ यह बात कौन किससे कहता है?
3. सिख बीबी की आँखों में आँसू क्यों आ गए हैं?
4. सिख बीबी सफ़िया से बातें करते हुए घूम-फिरकर कहाँ आ जाती थी?
उत्तर
1. प्रस्तुत गद्यांश की लेखिका रजिया सज्जाद जहीर हैं तथा पाठ का नाम ‘नमक’ है।
2. यह बात सिख बीबी सफ़िया से कहती हैं।
3. जब सफ़िया ने सिख बीबी से पूछा कि उन्हें हिंदुस्तान आए कितने दिन हो गए तो सिख बीबी को फिर से अपने वतन की याद आ गई। अपने वतन लाहौर तथा अपने बचपन को याद करते ही सिख बीबी की आँखों में आँसू आ गए।
4. जब सफ़िया सिख बीबी से बातें कर रही थी तो सिख बीबी बार-बार बातें करते हुए घूम-फिरकर अपने वतन की बातें करने लगती थीं। वह बार-बार यही कहती थी कि ‘साडा लाहौर।’

2. एक बार झाँककर उसने पुड़िया को देखा और उसे ऐसा महसूस हुआ मानो उसने अपनी किसी प्यारे को कब्र की गहराई में उतार दिया हो ! कुछ देर उकडूं बैठी वह पुड़िया को तकती रही और उन कहानियों को याद करती रही जिन्हें वह अपने बचपन में अम्मा से सुना करती थी, जिनमें शहजादा अपनी रान चीरकर हीरा छिपा लेता था और देवों, खौफनाक भूतों तथा राक्षसों के सामने से होता हुआ सरहदों से गुजर जाता था। इस जमाने में ऐसी कोई तरकीब नहीं हो सकती थी वरना वह अपना दिल चीरकर उसमें यह नमक छिपा लेती। उसने एक आह भरी।

अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न
1. एक बार झाँककर किसने और कहाँ देखा?
2. सफ़िया की टोकरी में कौन-से फल थे? उसने उसे क्यों खाली कर दिया?
3. सफ़िया ने जब टोकरी में पुड़िया झाँककर देखा तो उसे कैसा महसूस हुआ?
4. पुड़िया को टोकरी में देखकर सफ़िया को कौन-सी कहानियाँ याद हो आई?
उत्तर
1. एक बार झाँककर सफ़िया ने अपनी खाली टोकरी में देखा।
2. सफ़िया की टोकरी में किनु के फल थे। उसने अपनी टोकरी इसलिए खाली कर दी क्योंकि वह उसमें एक नमक की पुड़िया छिपाकर हिंदुस्तान लाना चाहती थी।
3. सफ़िया ने जब टोकरी में पुड़िया को झाँककर देखा तो उसे ऐसा महसूस हुआ, मानो उसने अपने किसी प्यारे को कब्र की गहराई में उतार दिया हो।
4. पुड़िया को टोकरी में देखकर सफ़िया को अपने बचपन की कहानियाँ याद हो आईं जिन्हें उसकी अम्मा सुनाया करती थी। उनमें शहज़ादा अपनी रान चीरकर हीरा छिपा लेता था और देवों, भूतों तथा राक्षसों के सामने होता हुआ सरहदों से गुज़र जाता था।

3. रात को तकरीबन डेढ़ बजे थे। मार्च की सुहानी हवा खिड़की की जाली से आ रही थी। बाहर चाँदनी साफ़ और ठंडी थी। खिड़की के करीब लगा चंपा का एक घना दरख्त सामने की दीवार पर पत्तियों के अक्स लहका रहा था। कभी किसी तरफ से किसी की दबी हुई खाँसी की आहट, दूर से किसी कुत्ते के भौंकने या रोने की आवाज़, चौकीदार की सीटी और फिर सन्नाटा ! यह पाकिस्तान था।

अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न
1. उपर्युक्त गद्यांश की लेखिका तथा पाठ का नाम बताएँ।
2. सफ़िया पाकिस्तान क्या लेने गई थी?
3. रात्रि का वातावरण कैसा था?
4. रात्रि के डेढ़ बजे तक भी सफ़िया क्यों नहीं सो पाई?
उत्तर
1. उपर्युक्त गद्यांश की लेखिका ‘रजिया सज्जाद जहीर’ तथा पाठ का नाम ‘नमक’ है।
2. सफ़िया पाकिस्तान अपने परिवार वालों से मिलने गए थी। यहाँ उसके तीन सगे भाई, अनेक दोस्त तथा भतीजे-भतीजियाँ रहते थे।
3. रात्रि का वातावरण बड़ा मनमोहक था। मार्च की सुहानी हवा चल रही थी। चाँदनी साफ़ और ठंडी थी।
4. सफ़िया को अगले दिन हिंदुस्तान आना था। वह सिख बीबी द्वारा मैंगाए गए नमक की पुड़िया को किसी भी तरह कस्टम वालों से बचाकर लाना चाहती थी। वह डेढ़ बजे तक उसी पुड़िया को छुपाने में लगी रही, इसीलिए वह रात्रि के डेढ़ बजे तक सो नहीं पाई।

4. प्लेटफॉर्म पर उसके बहुत-से दोस्त, भाई रिश्तेदार थे, हसरत भरी नज़रों, बहते हुए आँसुओं, ठंडी साँसों और भिंचे हुए होंठों को बीच में से काटती हुई रेल सरहद की तरफ बढ़ी। अटारी में पाकिस्तानी पुलिस उतरी, हिंदुस्तानी पुलिस सवार हुई। कुछ समझ में नहीं आता था कि कहाँ से लाहौर खत्म हुआ और किस जगह से अमृतसर शुरू हो गया। एक जमीन थी, एक ज़बान थी, एक-सी सूरतें और लिबास, एक-सा लबोलहजा और अंदाज थे, गालियाँ भी एक ही सी थीं जिनमें दोनों बड़े प्यार से एक-दूसरे को नवाज़ रहे थे। बस मुश्किल सिर्फ इतनी थी कि भरी हुई बंदूकें दोनों के हाथों में थीं।

अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न
1. पाकिस्तानी पुलिस रेल से कहाँ उतरी और क्यों?
2. लेखिका की समझ में यह क्यों नहीं आया कि लाहौर कहाँ से खत्म हुआ और अमृतसर कहाँ से शुरू ?
3. सरहद के दोनों ओर क्या समानताएँ थीं?
4. सरहद के दोनों ओर अनेक समानताएँ होने पर भी क्या मुश्किल थी?
उत्तर
1. पाकिस्ताना पुलिस अटारी स्टेशन पर उतरी क्योंकि यहाँ आकर पाकिस्तान की सरहद समाप्त हो गई थी और हिंदुस्तान की सरहद प्रारंभ। यहाँ आकर हिंदुस्तानी पुलिस रेल में सवार हो गई।
2. लेखिका को यह इसलिए समझ नहीं आता था क्योंकि दोनों तरफ एक जैसी ज़मीन थी, एक जैसी जबान, एक-सी सूरतें और लिबास थे, एक जैसा लबोलहजा तथा अंदाज था और गालियाँ भी एक ही सी थीं।
3. सरहद के दोनों ओर एक जैसी जमीन थी, एक जैसी भाषा, एक-सी सूरतें, लिबास, लबोलहजा और अंदाज थे, गालियाँ भी एक ही सी थीं।
4. सरहद के दोनों ओर अनेक समानताएँ थीं लेकिन मुश्किल केवल इतनी थी कि सरहद के दोनों ओर तैनात पुलिसवालों के हाथों में भरी हुई बंदूकें थीं।

5. जब सफ़िया की बात खत्म हो गई तब उन्होंने पुड़िया को दोनों हाथों में उठाया, अच्छी तरह लपेटा और खुद सफ़िया के बैग में रख दिया। बैग सफ़िया को देते हुए बोले, “मुहब्बत तो कस्टम से इस तरह गुज़र जाती है कि कानून हैरान रह जाता है।” वह चलने लगी तो वे खड़े हो गए और कहने लगे, “जामा मस्जिद की सीढ़ियों को मेरा सलाम कहिएगा और उन खातून को यह नमक देते वक्त मेरी तरफ़ से कहिएगा कि लाहौर अभी तक उनका वतन है और देहली मेरा, तो बाकी सब रफ़्ता-रफ़्ता ठीक हो जाएगा।” (A.I. C.B.S.E. 2016)

अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न
1. पुड़िया में ऐसा क्या था जो कहानी बन गया? संक्षेप में समझाइए।
2. आशय समझाइए-‘जामा मस्जिद की सीढ़ियों को मेरा सलाम कहिएगा।’
3. ‘बाकी सब रफ़्ता-रफ्ता ठीक हो जाएगा’-पक्ष या विपक्ष में दो तर्क दीजिए।
4. नमक का लाना-ले जाना प्रतिबंधित होते हुए भी कस्टम अधिकारी ने अनुमत्ति क्यों दे दी? तर्कसम्मत उत्तर दीजिए।
उत्तर
1. पुड़िया में लाहौरी नमक था। जिसे सफ़िया लाहौर से कीनू की टोकरी में छिपाकर लाई।
2. इस पंक्ति का आशय है कि कस्टम अधिकारी ने सफ़िया को नमक की पुड़िया देते हुए कहा था कि जामा मस्जिद की सीढ़ियों को मेरा सलाम कहना। यह कस्टम अधिकारी का अपने वतन के प्रति देशभक्ति का प्रतीक है।
3.

• धीरे-धीरे दोनों देशों के संबंध मधुर बन जाएंगे।
• लोगों के दिलों की दुरियाँ कम हो जाएँगी।

4. कस्टम अधिकारी ने नमक के पीछे मानवीय भावनाओं तथा देशभक्ति की भावना को समझ लिया था। इसलिए उसने नमक ले जाने दिया।

Here we are providing Class 11 Geography Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems. Important Questions for Class 11 Geography are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Important Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 10 Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems

Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
Atmospheric pressure is the weight of the column of air on the surface of the earth at sea level.

Question 2.
What is atmospheric pressure at sea-level?
Answer:
The atmospheric pressure at sea level is about 1 kilogram per cm2.

Question 3.
What are factors determining the amount of pressure at a particular point?
Answer:
The amount of pressure exerted by air at a particular time is determined by temperature and density.

Question 4.
How the air pressure is the measure?
Answer:
The air pressure is measured as a force per unit area. The units of measurements are millibar (Mb).

Question 5.
What kind of relationship exists between pressure and temperature?
Answer:
There exists an inverse relationship between pressure and temperature.

Question 6.
In which direction the earth rotates on its axis?
Answer:
On its axis, the earth rotates from west to east.

Question 7.
How many pressure belts are there in all?
Answer:
There are seven pressure belts in all.

Question 8.
Give the latitudinal extent of the sub-polar low-pressure belt.
Answer:
Between 45” North and Arctic Circle in the northern hemisphere, and 45° South and Antarctic Circle in the southern hemisphere.

Question 9.
What are the other names used for westerlies?
Answer:
The other names used for westerlies are ‘roaring forties’, ‘furious fifties’, and ‘striking sixties’.

Question 10.
Name two places with the heaviest rainfall in India.
Answer:
The two places with the heaviest rainfall in India are Mawsinram and Cherrapunji.

Question 11.
What do the properties of air masses include?
Answer:
The properties of air masses include their temperature, humidity, hydrostatic moisture content, stability, and abundance of minor content.

Question 12.
Where are the polar maritime air masses located?
Answer:
They are located over warmer high latitude oceans of North Pacific, North Atlantic Ocean, and entire sweep of southern hemisphere oceans, fringing Antarctica.

Question 13.
Give the full form of ITCZ.
Answer:
Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone.

Question 14.
What is a millibar?
Answer:
It is a unit of measurement of atmospheric pressure.

Question 15.
What are the two types of pressure systems?
Answer:
The two types of pressure systems are high-pressure systems and low-pressure systems.

Question 16.
What is a pressure gradient?
Answer:
The pressure gradient is defined as the decrease in pressure per unit distance in the direction in which the pressure decreases most rapidly.

Question 17.
What are isobars?
Answer:
The isobars are imaginary lines drawn through places having equal atmospheric pressure at sea-level.

Question 18.
Why does pressure decrease with altitude?
Answer:
Because the air becomes thinner or its density decreases rapidly upwards from the surface of the earth.

Question 19.
What are tertiary winds?
Answer:
These are local winds like land and sea breeze.

Question 20.
Name the instrument by which the atmospheric pressure is measured.
Answer:
Barometer.

Question 21.
What is the standard sea-level pressure in millibars?
Answer:
1013.25 Mb.

Question 22.
How do air pressure and winds influence the weather?
Answer:
They control temperature and precipitation.

Question 23.
What is the normal rate of pressure decrease with altitude?
Answer:
1 Mb for every ascent of 110 meters.

Question 24.
Name the hot winds which blow in the USA and Canada.
Answer:
Chinook.

Question 25.
Where do you find the maximum and minimum deflection of winds by the Coriolis effect?
Answer:
At poles and equator respectively.

Question 26.
Name two broad types of cyclones.
Answer:
Temperate and tropical cyclones.

Question 27.
What are the two other names of temperate cyclones?
Answer:
Depressions and western disturbances.

Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
How do air pressure and winds influence the weather?
Answer:
Air pressure and winds control temperature and precipitation. Even a minor change in pressure changes the velocity and direction of winds and this, in turn, brings about changes in temperature and precipitation.

Question 2.
What is Coriolis force and who discovered it first?
Answer:
On the rotating earth, a point on the equator moves the fastest. As we go towards the poles, the speed decreases, reaching about zero at the pole. It is because of this difference in speed that any moving body, such as winds and ocean currents, gets deflected when it moves towards the equator or away from the equator. This force or deflection is called Coriolis. It was discovered by Coriolis, a French mathematician.

Question 3.
Explain Ferrel’s law.
Answer:
Ferrel’s law states that all moving bodies like wind and ocean currents get deflected from their normal paths towards the right in the northern hemisphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere. The role of deflection increases with the distance from the equator. As a result, by the time the poleward directed winds reach 25 degrees latitude, they are deflected into nearly west to east flow.

Question 4.
Explain the occurrence and importance of ITCZ.
Answer:
The ITCZ means Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone. It is also known as Inter-Tropical Front (ITF). It is an equatorial front. It is a broad trough of low pressure defined more sharply over land than over the ocean. The tropical maritime air masses converge here. In ITCZ, the north-east trade winds and the south-east trade winds meet. This zone is mainly stationed over the equator but moves north and south according to the season. The air mass may be almost stagnant, the winds light and variable. Hence the air belt is calm, known as doldrums.

Question 5.
What is a pressure gradient?
Answer:
The pressure gradient is the rate at which pressure rises or falls. The gradient is steep when pressure changes in a short distance and mild when pressure changes at long distances. The pressure gradient is shown by isobars. When isobars are closer, the pressure gradient is steep and vice-versa.

Question 6.
What are tertiary winds?
Answer:
These winds are generated by the influence of the surrounding terrain. They include mountain and valley winds, land and sea-breezes, and other local winds such as loo, foehn, chinook and mistral, etc. Some winds are hot and some winds are cold winds. All are local winds.

Question 7.
What are roaring forties?
Answer:
The southern hemisphere has mostly sea and very little land. Westerlies, therefore, blow without any hindrance and with great velocity. Their roar can be heard far and wide. The westerlies here are called roaring forties.

Question 8.
Give the relation between pressure and temperature.
Answer:
The pressure and temperature have an inverse relationship with each other. As the air gets heated, it expands and rises upwards. The higher the temperature, the lower is the pressure. On the other hand, cold air contracts and becomes heavy. It results in high pressure.

Question 9.
What do you understand by Horse Latitude?
Answer:
The latitudes near the tropics are known as horse latitudes. In this zone, no permanent winds blow. It is a region of high pressure due to descending winds.

The sailing ships from Europe to America had to face problems due to the absence of backing winds. Therefore, some horses were thrown into the sea to make their ships lighter and to move further. This is why these latitudes are known as horse latitudes.

Question 10.
What is a jet stream? Explain.
Answer:
The winds with a high velocity which blow at high altitude are called the jet stream. This strong current of air is located near 90° north latitude. It affects the weather patterns of the world. High flying planes use these as super tailwinds to save time and fuel.

Question 11.
Describe the local winds in brief.
Answer:
Winds having special characteristics under local conditions are known as local winds.

1. Hot winds: Chinook in Canada and USA, foehn in Switzerland.
2. Dry winds: Sirocco in south Europe, Khanzim in Egypt, Hermatton in West Africa, Simoon of Arabia, Santa Anna of California, Zenda of Argentina.
3. Cold winds: Boro and Mistral in Southern Europe, Pampero in Argentina, Buran in Siberia.

Question 12.
Write a short note on ‘doldrums’.
Answer:
The doldrum is an equatorial low-pressure belt between 5°N to 5°S latitudes. It is known as the-belt of calm. The air is constantly heated due to the high temperature. The air expands and rises as convection currents. There are no surface winds. Sailing ships often found them becalmed in this belt due to the absence of backing winds.

Question 13.
What is the importance of air mass?
Answer:
Air mass is important for climatological study. Air masses are related to atmospheric disturbances, cyclones, storms, and fronts.

• The distribution and location of air provide an essential understanding of regional climate.
• Air masses transfer heat from lower latitude to higher latitudes.
• Atmosphericdisturbancesdevelopalongfrontsofdifferentairmasses.
• Air masses are associated with particular types of wind belts and determine the weather characteristics.

Question 14.
What do you understand by valley breeze?
Answer:
The valley breeze occurs during day time. Due to insolation, the valley bottom gets heated. The hot air becomes light and ascends towards the upper slopes. It is known as the valley breeze.

Fig. 10.3: Slopes heated by insolation

Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Distinguish between:
1. planetary and periodic winds,
2. the sea breeze and land breeze.
Answer:
1. Planetary and periodic winds:
Planetary winds are related to the general circulatory pattern of winds on the rotating earth’s surface. These winds constitute the large-scale motion of the atmosphere under the influence of pressure gradients. They ignore seasonal heating and land-water contrast on the earth’s surface. They are also called permanent or primary wind system of the earth’s surface and comprise trade winds, westerlies, and polar easterlies. These winds blow constantly in a particular direction throughout the year.

Fig. 10.4: Planetary winds

The winds that change their direction periodically with the change in season are called periodic or secondary winds. Monsoon, air masses and fronts, cyclones and anticyclones, land and sea breezes, and mountain and valley breezes are the wind systems that periodically change their courses diurnally or seasonally.

2. Land and sea breezes:
Daily temperature contacts between land and water produce a small diurnal reversal of winds called land and sea breezes. Both are basically caused by differential heating of land and sea.

During the day, the land gets heated up much faster than the sea. The sea remains comparatively cool with higher pressure, so the sea breeze blows in from the sea to land during the day. Its speed is between 5-20 miles/hour and it is generally stronger in tropical than temperate regions.

Its influence does not normally exceed 15 miles from the coast. It is most deeply felt when one stands facing the sea in a coastal area.

At night, the reverse takes place. As the land cools down much faster than the sea, the cold and heavy air produces a region of local high pressure. The sea conserves its heat and remains quite warm. Its pressure is comparatively low. A land breeze thus blows out from land to sea.

Fishermen in the tropics often take advantage of the outgoing land breeze and sail out with it.

Question 2.
Describe the global pattern of the distribution of pressure.
Answer:
The horizontal distribution of pressure, or its global pattern in general, presents an alternate belt of low and high-pressure areas.

There is an inverse relationship between pressure and temperature. The equatorial region having high temperature has low pressure, while the polar regions with low temperature have high pressure. These pressure belts are thermally induced. Logically, there should have been a gradual increase in pressure from the equator towards the poles.

Fig. Pressure belts of the world (See fig.9.1)

There are two intermediate zones of subtropical highs in the vicinity of 30°N and S and two sub-polar lows in the vicinity of 60°N and S. The dynamic control, viz., pressure gradient force, rotation of the earth, are responsible for the formation of these pressure belts.

Thus there are seven pressure belts:

1. An equatorial trough of low pressure.
2. Sub-tropical high-pressure belt (Northern hemisphere)
3. Sub-polar low-pressure belt (Northern hemisphere)
4. Sub-polar low-pressure belt (Southern hemisphere)
5. Sub-tropical high-pressure belt (Southern hemisphere)
6. Polar high (Northern hemisphere)
7. Polar high (Southern hemisphere)

Question 3.
Discuss the seasonal variations in the pressure distribution over the earth’s surface.
Answer:
Despite a broad generalized pattern of pressure distribution on the earth, pressure conditions vary considerably on the basis of prevailing weather conditions in different parts of the world. The horizontal distribution of pressure on the earth’s surface is shown by isobar. Just as there is a daily range of temperature on the surface of tire earth, so there is the diurnal rhythm of pressure.

The direction and rate of change in pressure are called pressure gradient. It is at right angles to isobars, just as the slope of the land surface is at right angles to contour, lines. The rate of change or steepness of the gradient is shown by the spacing of isobars. Closely spacing isobars show’ steep pressure gradient, and widely spaced isobars show’ gentle gradient.

The zonal distribution of pressure is modified by continents and oceans, in summer, the relatively hot continents intensify the low-pressure cells and weaken or destroy high-pressure cells. In a similar manner, the corresponding cooler oceans weaken the low-pressure cells and the high-pressure cells. In winter the situation is reversed. ,

Fig. 10.6: Horizontal distribution of pressure and winds

Question 4.
What are cyclones? Describe the various types of cyclones.
Answer:
Cyclones constitute the most fundamental and climatically the most significant atmospheric disturbances affecting the weather. On the basis of the areas of their origin, they are classified into two types: temperate and tropical.

Temperate cyclones: Temperate1 cyclones are concentrated in the middle latitudes between 35° and 65° in both hemispheres. They are generally extensive having a vertical thickness ranging from 9 to 11 km. and a diameter of about 1,000 km. It is just like a spearhead, having the shape of an upturned ‘V’. The approaching temperate cyclones are noticed by the appearance of dark clouds in the background of white clouds.

According to polar front theory, the highs and lows of westerly wind belts result from the interactions and alteration of two contrasting types of air masses, one in the polar region and the other in the subtropics. Cold air from highs moves toward the equator and is deflected westward, forming the northeast and southeast polar winds. Warmer air from the subtropical highs moves toward the poles and by an eastward deflection from the westerly winds.

Fig. 10.7: Temperate cyclones

As soon as the cyclone approaches, there is drizzle followed by heavy rainfall. The velocity of the wind increases. On the approach of the warm front, the fall in the pressure stops, and the sky becomes clear. This gives the clue that the center of the cyclones has reached. Immediately after this, the temperature begins to fall and the sky becomes cloudy and raining again. This indicates the approach of a cold front.

Tropical cyclones: These are violent storms that originate over tropical seas and move over the coastal areas bringing about large-scale destruction caused by violent winds, very heavy rainfall, and storm surges. They are known as cyclones in the Indian ocean, hurricanes in the Atlantic, typhoons in the western Pacific and South China sea, and willy-willies in west Australia. The conditions favorable for the formation and intensification of tropical storms are:

• Large sea surface with a temperature higher than 27°C.
• Presence of the Coriolis force.
• Small variations in the vertical wind speed.
• A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low level cyclonic
  circulation.
• Upper divergence above the sea level system.

The cyclone creates stone surges and they inundate the coastland. Over the Indian sea, the cyclonic storms occur in the pre-monsoon

Question 5.
Define and describe the fronts.
Answer:
The contact line between air masses of different properties is called a front. A cold front develops where the cold air mass moves under warm air mass and lifts it up. On the other hand, the trailing edge of a cold air mass that is followed by warm air is called a warm front. In each case, precipitation is likely to occur because warm air is rising over the cold air. Thus duration and intensity of precipitation along the few from.s are quite different. The cold front is steep and produces showery and sometimes violet precipitation for a longer period of time. If the cold front moves faster than the warm front in such a trap, part or all the pocket of warm air may be lifted from the surface, thus producing air occluded front. Often exculpation of the air masses lose earlier characters and form new fronts.

Here we are providing Class 12 Hindi Important Extra Questions and Answers Aroh Chapter 15 चार्ली चैप्लिन यानी हम सब. Important Questions for Class 12 Hindi are the best resource for students which helps in class 12 board exams.

चार्ली चैप्लिन यानी हम सब Class 12 Important Extra Questions Hindi Aroh Chapter 15

प्रश्न 1.
हमारा चेहरा चाली चाली कब हो जाता है? हम किन क्षणों में पलायन के शिकार हो जाते हैं?
उत्तर :
जब हम सत्ता, शक्ति, बुद्धिमत्ता और पैसे के चरमोत्कर्ष में आईना देखते हैं तो हमारा चेहरा चार्ली-चार्ली हो जाता है। हम अपने चरमतम शूरवीर क्षणों में कायरता और पलायन के शिकार हो जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
चार्ली का चरित्र-चित्रण कीजिए।
अथवा
चार्ली चैप्लिन के व्यक्तित्व की तीन विशेषताओं का उल्लेख कीजिए। (A.I. 2016, Set-II) (C.B.S.E. 2011, Set-I. C.B.S.E. Delhi 2017. Set-III)
अथवा
‘अभी चार्ली चैप्लिन पर बहुत कुछ लिखा जा सकता है’- लेखक ने यह बात क्यों और किस संदर्भ में कही है?
उत्तर
चाली दुनिया के महान हास्य अभिनेता और निर्देशक थे। वे एक परित्यक्ता और दसरे दर्जे की स्टेज अभिनेत्री के बेटे थे। जब उनकी माँ पागलपन का शिकार हो गई, तब उन्होंने जीवन में बहुत संघर्ष किया। उन्होंने अत्यंत गरीबी में बचपन बिताया। साम्राज्य, पूँजीवाद और सामंतशाही से मगरूर समाज ने इन्हें दुत्कारा; लेकिन इन्होंने जीवन से हार नहीं मानी। चार्ली का बच्चों जैसा दिखना उनकी खास विशेषता है। उनकी सबसे बड़ी विशेषता है कि वे किसी भी संस्कृति को विदेशी नहीं लगते। चार्ली ने न सिर्फ फ़िल्म कला को लोकतांत्रिक बनाया बल्कि दर्शकों की वर्ग तथा वर्ण-व्यवस्था को भी तोड़ा। उनके विषय में विश्व भर में बहुत लिखा जा चुका है और अभी बहुत कुछ लिखा जा सकता है।

प्रश्न 3.
चाली की कौन-कौन सी फ़िल्में उच्चतर अहसास की माँग करती हैं ?
उत्तर
चार्ली की अधिकांश फ़िल्में बुद्धि की अपेक्षा भावनाओं पर टिकी हुई हैं। मैट्रोपोलिस, दी कैबिनेट ऑफ़ डॉक्टर कैलिगारी, द रोवंथ सील,लास्ट इयर इन मारिएनबाड, द सैक्रिफाइस जैसी उत्कृष्ट फिल्में उच्चतर अहसास की माँग करती हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
बचपन में जिन घटनाओं ने चार्ली के जीवन पर अधिक असर डाला, उनका चित्रण कीजिए।
उत्तर
चार्ली चैप्लिन एक महान हास्य कलाकार थे। उनका जीवन अत्यंत संघर्षमय रहा। बचपन की दो घटनाओं ने उनके जीवन पर गहन और स्थायी प्रभाव डाला।
(i) एक बार जब वे बीमार थे, तब उनकी माँ ने उन्हें ईसा मसीह का जीवन बाइबिल से पढ़कर सुनाया था। ईसा के सूली पर चढ़ने के प्रकरण तक आते-आते माँ और चार्ली दोनों रोने लगे।

(ii) बालक चार्ली उन दिनों एक ऐसे घर में रहता था, जहाँ से कसाईखाना दूर नहीं था। वह रोज सैकड़ों जानवरों को वहाँ पर जाते देखता था। एक बार एक भेई किसी तरह जान छुड़ाकर भाग निकली। उसे पकड़ने वाले उसका पीछा करते हुए कई बार फिसले, गिरे और पूरी सड़क पर लोग ठहाके लगाने लगे। आखिरकार उस गरीब जानवर को पकड़ लिया गया और फिर उसे कसाई के पास ले जाने लगे। तब चार्ली को अहसास हुआ कि उस भेड़ के साथ क्या होगा। वह रोता हुआ माँ के पास दौड़ा और कहने लगा, “उसे मार डालेंगे! उसे मार डालेंगे!”

प्रश्न 5.
चार्ली की पहली फ़िल्म कौन-सी थी, जिसने लेखक के द्वारा लिखे जाने वाले निबंध के साथ अपना 75वाँ वर्ष पूरा किया था? चाली की प्रमुख देन क्या है?
उत्तर
चार्ली की पहली फ़िल्म ‘मेकिंग ए लिविंग’ है, जिसने लेखक के निबंध ‘चार्ली चैप्लिन यानी हम सब’ के साथ ही अपने 75 वर्ष पूरे किए थे। अपनी कला और हास्य से चाली ने पिछली पाँच पीड़ियों का भरपूर मनोरंजन किया है, उन्हें मुग्ध किया है और जी खोलकर हँसने के लिए विवश किया है।

प्रश्न 6.
विकासशील और विकसित देशों में चाली मरकर भी अभी तक जिंदा कैसे हैं?
उत्तर
चार्ली को दुनिया से गए हुए वर्षों बीत चुके हैं, पर विकासशील और विकसित देशों में वे मरकर भी नहीं मरे/16 अप्रैल सन 1989 को इनके जन्म के एक सौ वर्ष पूरे हो चुके थे, पर इनके नाम और अभिनय कला से अभी भी बच्चा-बच्चा परिचित है। वे आज भी विश्व के करोड़ों बच्चों को हँसा रहे हैं। वे सिनेमा, टेलीविज़न और वीडियो के कारण मरकर भी अभी तक जिंदा हैं।

प्रश्न 7.
चाली के विषय में नई जानकारी किससे प्राप्त हो सकेगी और इस विषय में अभी कितने समय तक कछ कहा जाएगा?
उत्तर
चार्ली के जीवन व कला से जुड़ी कुछ ऐसी फ़िल्में व इस्तेमाल की गई रीलें मिली हैं, जिनके विषय में पहले कोई कुछ नहीं जानता था। उनके बारे में अगले पचास वर्ष तक कुछ न कुछ कहा जाएगा।

प्रश्न 8.
चार्ली की फ़िल्मों के प्रशंसक किस वर्ग के माने जाते हैं?
उत्तर
चार्ली की फ़िल्मों के प्रशंसक पागलखाने के मरीजों व विकल मस्तिष्क वाले लोगों से लेकर आइन्सटीन जैसे महान वैज्ञानिक हैं।

प्रश्न 9.
चार्ली की सबसे बड़ी देन क्या है?
उत्तर
चार्ली ने कला को लोकतांत्रिक बनाया और दर्शकों के वर्ग और वर्ण-व्यवस्था को तोड़ा है। वे समाज के प्रत्येक स्तर पर पसंद किए जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 10.
चार्ली को ‘घुमंतू’ और ‘बाहरी’ चरित्र किसने बना दिया था?
उत्तर
चार्ली को उसकी नानी की खानाबदोशी (जिप्सी) और पिता की यहूदी वंशी परंपरा प्राप्त हुई थी, जिसने उसे सदा के लिए ‘बाहरी’ और ‘घुमंतू’ चरित्र बना दिया था।

प्रश्न 11.
चार्ली अपने चरित्र में किस छवि को प्रस्तुत करते रहे और क्यों?
उत्तर
चार्ली अपने चरित्र में खानाबदोश, बद् और अवारागर्द की छवि को प्रस्तुत करते रहे। उन्होंने कभी भी मध्यवर्गी, बुर्जुआ या उच्चवर्गीजीवन-मूल्यों को नहीं अपनाया। शायद इसका कारण उनके अवचेतन में जिप्सी नानी और यहूदीवंशी पिता का प्रभाव रहा था।

प्रश्न 12.
दर्शकों को चाली के चरित्र में सबसे अधिक क्या लुभाता था?
उत्तर
दर्शकों को चाली का हर दसवें सेकंड में स्वयं को किसी-न-किसी मुसीबत में डाल लेना सबसे अधिक लुभाता था। |

प्रश्न 13.
चाली और उसकी माँ ने साहित्य व नाट्य को स्नेह, करुणा और मानवता के समृद्ध विषय कब प्रदान किए थे?
उत्तर
बचपन में जब चाली बीमार पड़े और ओकले स्ट्रीट के तहखाने के धियारे कमरे में उसकी माँ ने ईसा के सूली पर चढ़ने के प्रकरण को सुनाया था, तो दोनों माँ-बेटा रोने लगे थे। तब उन्होंने साहित्य और नाट्य को स्नेह, करुणा और मानवता के समृद्ध विषय प्रदान किए थे।

प्रश्न 14.
चाली अपनी फ़िल्मों में अपने अभिनय के द्वारा त्रासदी और हास्योत्पादक तत्वों के सामंजस्य को किसके कारण मानते थे?
उत्तर
बालक चाली ने अपने घर के निकट कसाईखाने की ओर एक भेड़ को ले जाते हुए देखा था, जो किसी तरह अपनी जान बचाकर भाग निकली। उस गरीब जानवर को पकड़ने की कोशिश में लोग कई बार फिसले थे; गिरे थे और सड़क पर लोगों ने उन्हें देखकर ठहाके लगाए

प्रश्न 15.
चाली की रचनाओं से भारतीय काव्य-शास्त्र और सौंदर्यशास्त्र क्या सीख सकता है?
उत्तर
भारतीय काव्य-शास्त्र और सौंदर्यशास्त्र में हास्य व करुण रस को परस्पर विरोधी रस माना जाता है। यह माना जाता है कि करुणा से भरी स्थिति में हास्य उत्पन्न नहीं हो सकता और हास्य की स्थिति में करुणा का भाव जागृत नहीं हो सकता। लेकिन चार्ली की फ़िल्मों में इन दोनों का सुंदर मेल दिखाया गया है, जिन्हें देखकर भारतीय काव्य-शास्त्र या सौंदर्यशास्त्र इस नए प्रयोग को सीख सकता है।

प्रश्न 16.
भारतीय हास्य परंपरा और चार्ली की हास्य परंपरा में क्या अंतर है ? स्पष्ट कीजिए।
अथवा
चार्ली चैप्लिन के भारतीयकरण से क्या तात्पर्य है?(A.L. C.B.S.E. 2012, Set-I)
उत्तर
भारतीय हास्य परंपरा दूसरों के ऊपर आधारित है। इसमें दूसरों को पीड़ित करने वालों की प्रायः हँसी उड़ाई जाती है, जबकि चार्ली स्वयं अपनी कमजोरियों और फजीहतों पर हँसते-हँसाते हैं। भारतीय हास्य परंपरा में करुण और हास्य रस का मेल नहीं दिखाया जाता, जबकि चाली करुण दृश्य के फौरन बाद एकाएक हँसा देते हैं और हँसते हुए को पल-भर बाद रुला देते हैं। ऐसा कर वे करुण और हास्य रस में समन्वय करा देते हैं। चार्ली ने भारतीयों को अपने पर हँसना सिखाया और यही चार्ली का भारतीयकरण है।

प्रश्न 17.
किन दो महान भारतीयों ने चाली का सान्निध्य पाना चाहा था ?
उत्तर
महात्मा गांधी और नेहरू जी ने कभी चाली का सानिध्य पाना चाहा था।

प्रश्न 18.
चार्ली से प्रभावित होकर सबसे पहले किस भारतीय अभिनेता ने कौन-सी फ़िल्में बनाई थीं ? इन फ़िल्मों की विशेषता क्या थी?
उत्तर
चार्ली से प्रभावित होकर भारतीय अभिनेता राजकपूर ने ‘अवारा’ और ‘श्री 420’ जैसी फ़िल्में बनाई थीं। इनकी विशेषता यह थी कि इनमें करुण और हास्य रस का समन्वित प्रयोग किया गया था। खानाबदोश, अवारागर्दी करने वालों, अपने पर हँसने वालों को इनका आधार बनाया गया था।

प्रश्न 19.
राजकपूर के अतिरिक्त किन भारतीय अभिनेताओं ने चार्ली का अनुकरण किया था?
उत्तर
राजकपूर के बाद दिलीप कुमार, देव आनंद, शम्मी कपूर, अमिताभ बच्चन, श्रीदेवी आदि ने फ़िल्मों में चार्ली का अनुकरण किया था। इन फ़िल्मों में से कुछ के नाम हैं-बाबुल, शबनम, कोहिनूर, लीडर, गोपी, नौ दो ग्यारह, फंटूश, तीन देवियाँ, अमर अकबर एंथनी आदि।

प्रश्न 20. भारत में स्वयं पर हंसने के अवसर प्रायः कहाँ और कब देखने को मिलते हैं?
उत्तर
भारत में होली के अवसर पर प्रायः स्वयं पर हँसने के अवसर दिखाई दे जाते हैं। लोग इस दिन स्वयं को महामूर्ख सिद्ध करने में भी प्रसन्नता अनुभव करते हैं। गाँवों में लोक-संस्कृति के उत्सवों में भी लोग अपने पर हँस लेते हैं।

प्रश्न 21.
चाली की फ़िल्मों में भाषा का प्रयोग नहीं होता था इसलिए इन्हें किन चुनौतियों का सामना करना पड़ता था?
उत्तर
चार्ली की फ़िल्मों में भाषा का प्रयोग नहीं होता था। वह बोलकर अपने भावों को अभिव्यक्त नहीं करते थे, इसलिए उन्हें मानव के स्वभाव को ऐसे सजीव ढंग से अभिनीत करना पड़ता था जो पूरी तरह से स्वाभाविक और संप्रेषणीय हो। इसी कारण उनमें क्रियात्मकता की अधिकता होती थी।

प्रश्न 22.
चाली की फ़िल्में सार्वभौमिक क्यों बन गई?
उत्तर
चार्ली की फ़िल्मों में भाषा का प्रयोग नहीं था। वे मानवीय क्रियाओं पर आधारित अति सहज, स्पष्ट और प्रभावशाली थीं जो विश्व के किसी भी मानव को समझ आ जाती थीं। उन्हें चार्ली का चरित्र और व्यक्तित्व अपने आस-पास के परिवेश में रहने वालों से मिलता-जुलता प्रतीत होता था, इसलिए उनकी फ़िल्में सार्वभौमिक बन गई।

प्रश्न 23.
चार्ली प्रायः हँसकर किस तथ्य का परिचय कराना चाहता था?
उत्तर
चार्ली ने निकटता से तथाकथित महान लोगों को देखा था और उसे पता था कि अन्य सामान्य लोगों की तरह वे भी तुच्छ, लालची, नीच और छोटे ही थे। उसने अपने बचपन में कई बार ऐसे महान लोगों की दुत्कार झेली थी, लिए वह अपनी फ़िल्मों में लोगों से प्रायः हँस कर ऐसे लोगों का परिचय कराना चाहता था।

महत्वपूर्ण गद्यांशों के अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर

1. पौन शताब्दी से चैप्लिन की कला दुनिया के सामने है और पांच पीड़ियों को मुग्ध कर चुकी है। समय, भूगोल और संस्कृतियों की सीमाओं से खिलवाड़ करता हुआ चाली आज भारत के लाखों बच्चों को हंसा रहा है जो उसे अपने बुढ़ापे तक याद रखेंगे। पश्चिम में तो बार-बार चाली का पुनर्जीवन होता ही है, विकासशील दनिया में जैसे-जैसे टेलीविजन और वीडियो का प्रसार हो रहा है, एक बहुत बड़ा दर्शक वर्ग नए सिरे से चाली को घड़ी ‘सुधारते’ या जूते ‘खाने’ की कोशिश करते हुए देख रहा है।

अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न
1. चाली चैप्लिन की कला कब से है? वह कितनी पीढ़ियों को मुग्ध कर चुकी है?
2. चाली किनके साथ खिलवाड़ करता है?
3. पाठ के अनुसार पश्चिम में किसका पुनर्जीवन होता है?
4. विकासशील देशों में चाली की प्रसिद्धि कैसे बढ़ रही है?
5. चाली को बुढ़ापे तक कौन याद रखेंगे और क्यों?
उत्तर
1. चार्ली चैप्लिन की कला पौन शताब्दी से है। वह पाँच पीढ़ियों को मुग्ध कर चुकी है।
2. चाली समय, भूगोल और संस्कृतियों की सीमाओं से खिलवाड़ करता है।
3. पाठ के अनुसार पश्चिम में चाली का बार-बार पुनर्जीवन होता है।
4. विकासशील देशों में जैसे-जैसे टेलीविजन और वीडियो का प्रसार हो रहा है, वैसे-वैसे चाली की प्रसिद्धि बढ़ रही है। एक बहुत बड़ा दर्शक वर्ग नए सिरे से चार्ली को घड़ी सुधारते या जूते खाने की कोशिश करते हुए देख रहा है।
5. चाली को भारत के लाखों बच्चे बुढ़ापे तक याद रखेंगे क्योंकि समय, भूगोल और संस्कृतियों की सीमाओं से खिलवाड़ करता हुआ आज चाली, उन्हें अपने करतब से हँसा रहा है।

2. कोई भी शासक या तंत्र जनता का अपने ऊपर हंसना पसंद नहीं करता। एक परित्यक्ता, दूसरे दर्जे की स्टेज अभिनेत्री का बेटा होना, बाद में भयावह गरीबी और माँ के पागलपन से संघर्ष करना, साम्राज्य, औद्योगिक क्रांति, पूंजीवाद तथा सामंतशाही से मगरूर एक समाज द्वारा दुरदुराया जाना-इन सबसे चैप्लिन को वे जीवन-मूल्य जो करोड़पति हो जाने का बावजूद अंत तक उनमें रहे।

अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न
1. उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के पाठ तथा लेखक का नाम लिखिए।
2. चाली चैप्लिन कौन था?
3. चाली चैप्लिन को समाज ने क्यों ठुकराया था?
4. चाली चैप्लिन को जीवन-मूल्य कहाँ से प्राप्त हुए?
उत्तर
1. उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के पाठ का नाम ‘चाली चैप्लिन वानी हम सब’ हैं। इस के लेखक विष्णु खरे है।
2. चार्ली चैप्लिन पश्चिम का एक बहुत बड़ा हास्य कलाकार था। वह एक परित्यक्ता और दूसरे दर्जे की स्टेज अभिनेत्री का बेटा था।
3. चाली चैप्लिन एक परित्यक्ता और दूसरे दर्जे की स्टेज अभिनेत्री का बेटा था। इसके अतिरिक्त वह अत्यंत गरीब था। इस कारण पूँजीवादी और सामंतशाही समाज ने चाली को ठुकराया था।
4. चाली का बचपन गरीबी में व्यतीत हुआ। इसके साथ-साथ उसे अपनी माँ के पागलपन से भी संघर्ष करना पड़ा। उसे साम्राज्य, औद्योगिक क्रांति, पंजीवाद तथा सामंतशाही से मगरूर एक समाज ने ठुकराया। इन सबसे ही चाली चैप्लिन को जीवन मूल्य प्राप्त हुए।

3. दरअसल सिद्धांत कला को जन्म नहीं देते, कला स्वयं अपने सिद्धांत या तो लेकर आती है या बाद में उन्हें गहना पड़ता है। जो करोड़ों लोग चाली को देखकर अपने पेट दुखा लेते हैं उन्हें मैल ओटिंगर या जेम्स एजी की बेहद सारगर्भित समीक्षाओं से क्या लेना-देना? वे चाली को समय और भूगोल से काट कर देखते हैं और जो देखते हैं उसकी ताकत अब तक ज्यों-की-त्यों बनी हुई है।

अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न
1. सिद्धांत कला को जन्म क्यों नहीं देते?
2. किन लोगों को मैल ओटिंगर या जेम्स एजी की सारगर्भित समीक्षाओं से कोई सरोकार नहीं है।
3. ऐसे लोग चाली को कैसे देखते हैं?
4. किसकी ताकत आज तक ज्यों-की-त्यों बनी हुई है?
उला
1. सिद्धांत कला को इसलिए जन्म नहीं देते, क्योंकि कला स्वयं अपने सिद्धांत या तो लेकर आती है या बाद में उन्हें गढ़ना पड़ता है।
2. जो लोग चाली को देखकर आनंदित या प्रसन्न होते हैं, उन लोगों को मैल आटिंगर या जेम्स एजी की सारगर्भित समीक्षाओं से कोई सरोकार नहीं है।
3. ऐसे लोग चाली को समय और भूगोल से काटकर देखते हैं।
4. लोगों के अनुसार चाली की ताकत आज तक ज्यों-की-त्यों बनी हुई है।

4. भारतीय कला और सौंदर्यशास्त्र को कई रसों का पता है, उनमें से कुछ रसों का किसी कलाकृति में साथ-साथ पाया जाना श्रेयस्कर भी माना गया है, जीवन में हर्ष और विषाद आते रहते हैं यह संसार की सारी सांस्कृतिक परंपराओं को मालूम है, लेकिन करुणा का हास्य में बदल जाना एक ऐसे रस-सिद्धांत की मांग करता है जो भारतीय परंपराओं में नहीं मिलता।

अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न
1. भारतीय कला और सौंदर्यशास्त्र में मुख्यतः कितने रसों का वर्णन मिलता है?
2. जीवन क्या है?
3. जीवन में क्या आते-जाते रहते हैं? यह सब किनको मालूम है?
4. वह कौन-सा कलाकार था, जो करुणा को हास्य में बदल देता था?
उत्तर
1. भारतीय कला और सौंदर्यशास्त्र में मुख्यतः नौ रसों का वर्णन मिलता है; जैसे-हास्य, करुण, रौद्र, भयानक, अद्भुत, शृंगार आदि।
2. हर्ष-विषाद, सुख-दुख, राग-विराग, मिलन-विरह आदि का सामंजस्य ही जीवन है।
3. जीवन में हर्ष-विवाद, सुख-दुख आते-जाते रहते हैं। यह सब संसार की समस्त सांस्कृतिक परंपराओं को मालूम है।
4. चार्ली चैप्लिन दुनिया के एक महान हास्य कलाकार थे। उनमें अद्भुत कला थी। वे अपनी इसी अद्भुत कला से करुणा को हास्य में बदल देते थे।

5. चार्ली की अधिकांश फ़िल्में भाषा का इस्तेमाल नहीं करतीं इसलिए उन्हें ज्यादा-से-ज्यादा मानवीय होना पड़ा। सवाक् चित्रपट पर कई बड़े-बड़े कॉमेडियन हुए हैं, लेकिन वे चैप्लिन की सार्वभौमिकता तक क्यों नहीं पहुँच पाए इसकी पड़ताल अभी होने को है। चार्ली का चिर-युवा होना या बच्चों जैसा दिखना एक विशेषता तो है ही, सब से बड़ी विशेषता शायद यह है कि वे किसी भी संस्कृति को विदेशी नहीं लगते।

अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर

1. चाली को फ़िल्मों में अधिक से अधिक मानवीय क्यों होना पड़ा?
2. चार्ली की सर्वोत्तम विशेषता क्या है?
3. बड़े-बड़े कॉमेडियन चैप्लिन की सार्वभौमिकता तक क्यों नहीं पहुँच पाए होंगे?
4. चार्ली की कौन-कौन सी विशेषताएँ हैं?
उत्तर
1. चार्ली को फ़िल्मों में इसलिए अधिक से अधिक मानवीय होना पड़ा, क्योंकि उनकी अधिकांश फ़िल्मों में भाषा का प्रयोग नहीं नहीं होता था।
2. चार्ली की सर्वोत्तम विशेषता यह है कि वे किसी भी संस्कृति को विदेशी नहीं लगते।
3. बड़े-बड़े कॉमेडियन चैप्लिन की सार्वभौमिकता तक इसलिए नहीं पहुँच पाए होंगे, क्योंकि उनमें वे गुण नहीं होंगे जो चैप्लिन में थे। न उनमें चैप्लिन जैसा कलाकार होगा और न ही भावनाओं का आवेग।
4. (i) चार्ली चिर-युवा हैं।
(ii) वे बच्चों जैसे दिखते हैं।
(iii) वे किसी भी संस्कृति को विदेशी नहीं लगते।
(iv) उनमें भावनाओं को हास्य के माध्यम से अभिव्यक्त करने की अद्भुत क्षमता है।

6. अपने जीवन के अधिकांश हिस्सों में हम चाली के टिली ही होते हैं जिसके रोमांस हमेशा पंक्चर होते रहते हैं। हमारे महानतम क्षणों में कोई भी हमें चिढ़ाकर या लात मारकर भाग सकता है। अपने चरमतम शूरवीर क्षणों में हम क्लैब्य और पलायन के शिकार हो सकते हैं। कभी-कभार लाचार होते हुए जीत भी सकते हैं। मूलतः हम सब चाली हैं क्योंकि हम सुपरमैन नहीं हो सकते। सत्ता, शक्ति, बुद्धिमला, प्रेम और पैसे के चरमोत्कर्षों में जब हम आईना देखते हैं तो चेहरा चार्ली-चार्ली हो जाता है।

अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर।

1. अपने जीवन के अधिकांश हिस्सों में हम चार्ली के टिली कैसे हो जाते हैं?
2. हमारा चेहरा कब चार्ली-चाली हो जाता है?
3. चाली के रोमांस हमारे जीवन में कैसे घटित होते हैं?
उन्ना
1. जीवन हर्ष-विषाद, राग-विराग, सुख-दुख, करुणा-हास्य आदि का सामंजस्य है। चार्ली जिस प्रकार करुणा में हास्य का पुट भर देते हैं, उसी प्रकार हम जीवन के अधिकांश हिस्सों में रोते-रोते हँसने तथा हँसते-हँसते रोने लगते हैं। कई बार सुखी होकर भी हम दुखी दिखाई देते हैं तथा दुखी होकर भी सुखी लगते हैं। इस प्रकार हम जीवन के अधिकांश हिस्सों में चार्ली के टिली हो जाते हैं।
2. जब हम सत्ता, शक्ति, बुद्धिमत्ता, प्रेम और पैसे के चरमोत्कर्षों में आईना देखते हैं, तब हमारा चेहरा चार्ली-चार्ली हो जाता है।
3. हमारे महानतम क्षणों में कोई भी हमें चिढ़ाकर या लात मारकर भाग सकता है। उन शूरवीर क्षणों में हम पलायन के शिकार हो जाते हैं। कभी-कभार लाचार होते हुए जीत भी जाते हैं। इस प्रकार चार्ली के रोमांस हमारे जीवन में घटित होते रहते हैं।

7. भारतीय परंपरा में व्यक्ति के अपने पर हँसने, स्वयं को जानते-बूझते हास्यास्पद बना डालने की परंपरा नहीं के बराबर है। गाँवों या लोक संस्कृति में तब भी वह शायद हो, नगर-सभ्यता में तो वह थी ही नहीं। चैप्लिन का भारत में महत्व यह है कि वह ‘अंग्रेजों जैसे’ व्यक्तियों पर हँसने का अवसर देते हैं। चार्ली स्वयं पर सबसे ज्यादा तब हँसता है जब वह स्वयं को गर्वोन्मत, आत्मविश्वास से लबरेज, सफलता, सभ्यता-संस्कृति तथा समृद्धि की प्रतिमूर्ति, दूसरों से ज्यादा शक्तिशाली तथा श्रेष्ठ अपने ‘वज्रादपि कठोराणि’ अथवा ‘मृदूनि कुसुमादपि’ क्षण में दिखलाता है।

अर्थग्रहण संबंधी प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न
1. अनुच्छेद में किसकी चर्चा है? वह क्यों प्रसिद्ध है?
2. “अपने आप को जानते-बूझते हास्यास्पद बना डालने की परंपरा नहीं के बराबर है।”- इस कथन का आशय स्पष्ट कीजिए।
3. “अंग्रेजों जैसे” कहने का क्या आशय है? स्पष्ट कीजिए।
4. चार्ली अपने पर कब हँसता है? (Delhi C.B.S.E., 2016)
उत्तर
1. अनुच्छेद में चार्ली की चर्चा है। वह इसलिए प्रसिद्ध है क्योंकि वह अंग्रेज जैसे व्यक्तियों पर हँसने का अवसर देता है।
2. इस कथन का आशय है कि भारतीय संस्कृति हमें अपना मजाक उड़ाने तथा दूसरों को हँसाने की शिक्षा नहीं देती। यह हमें स्वाभिमानी बनने की प्रेरणा देती है।
3. इसमें अंग्रेजों पर व्यंग्यात्मक टिप्पणी की गई है। अंग्रेजों पर हँसकर हम प्रसन्न होते हैं।
4. चार्ली अपने पर तब हँसता है जब वह स्वयं को गर्वोन्मत, आत्मविश्वास से लबरेज, सभ्यता-संस्कृति एवं समृद्धि की प्रतिमूर्ति समझता है। दूसरों से अधिक शक्तिशाली एवं श्रेष्ठ वज्रादायी कठोराणी अथवा मृदूनि कुसुमादायी क्षणों में प्रदर्शित करता है।

Here we are providing Class 11 Geography Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature. Important Questions for Class 11 Geography are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Important Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 9 Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature

Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is insolation?
Answer:
The incoming solar radiation is called insolation.

Question 2.
How much energy radiated by the sun is intercepted by the earth?
Answer:
Only A of the billionth fraction of the energy radiated from the sun is intercepted by the earth.

Question 3.
What is isotherm?
Answer:
Isotherms are imaginary lines joining places having equal temperatures.

Question 4.
Where does the energy radiate from the sun come from?
Answer:
The energy radiated from the sun comes from nuclear reactions in its core.

Question 5.
What is the temperature at the core of the sun?
Answer:
The temperature at the core of sun-is about 15,000,000°C.

Question 6.
What is the radiant energy of sun commonly known as?
Answer:
The radiant energy of the sun is commonly known as short waves or electromagnetic waves.

Question 7.
At what speed the short waves travel?
Answer:
The short waves travel at a speed of light, i.e., about 2,98,000 km. per second.

Question 8.
What is terrestrial radiation?
Answer:
The longwave radiation, i.e., re-emittance of the energy received from the earth’s surface, is terrestrial radiation.

Question 9.
Name the processes which control the heat budget of the earth ., and the atmosphere.
Answer:
They are the processes of absorption, reflection and scattering.

Question 10.
Define heat budget.
Answer:
The gains and losses in heat by incoming and outgoing radiation is known as heat budget.

Question 11.
What is advection?
Answer:
Transfer of heat through the horizontal movement of the air is called advection.

Question 12.
What is meant by temperature gradient?
Answer:
The rate of change of temperature is called the temperature gradient.

Question 13.
Name two months of the year which represent the seasonal extremes of temperature.
Answer:
January and July months represent the seasonal extreme of temperature.

Question 14.
Define Planck’s law.
Answer:
Planck’s law states that hotter a body, the more energy it will ‘ radiate and shorter is the wavelength of that radiation.

Question 15.
What is specific heat?
Answer:
Specific heat is the energy needed to raise the temperature of one grain of a substance by one degree Celsius.

Question 16.
What is insolation?
Answer:
The incoming solar radiation is termed as insolation. It comes in the form of short waves.

Question 17.
What are the methods by which the atmosphere is heated?
Answer:
The atmosphere gets heated in the following ways:
(a) Radiation,
(b) Conduction,
(c) Convection,
(d) Advection.

Question 18.
Why do isotherms bend while crossing the continents and oceans?
Answer:
Due to differential heating and cooling of land and seawater.

Question 19.
How much energy radiated by the sun is intercepted by the earth?
Answer:
1/2000 million part of the total energy radiated by the sun is intercepted by the earth.

Question 20.
Which is the most important process of heating the atmosphere?
Answer:
Terrestrial radiation.

Question 21.
What is the temperature?
Answer:
Warmth or coolness of the air is called its temperature.

Question 22.
What is the extent of the Torrid Zone?
Answer:
23’/2°N to 23’/2°S.

Question 23.
What is the extent of the Frigid Zone?
Answer:
66V20 to poles.

Question 24.
Name the type of climate found in coastal areas.
Answer:
Maritime (moderate).

Question 25.
Why is the temperature of the earth increasing?
Answer:
Due to the increase in carbon dioxide.

Question 26.
What is insolation?
Answer:
The incoming solar radiation is termed as insolation.

Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is air drainage?
Answer:
The cold air acts almost like water and moves down the slope to pile up deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is called air drainage. It protects plants from frost damages.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of isotherms?
Answer:
Main characteristics of isotherms are:

1. Isotherms run along the latitudes.
2. Isotherms take sudden bends at the land-water edge because of land-water contact.
3. They are drawn at equal space which indicates the latitudinal thermal gradient.
4. Isotherms change their positions.

Question 3.
Discuss the variation in the distribution of insolation over the earth’s surface.
Answer:
The incoming solar radiation is called insolation. Insolation is * greatest at the equator. It decreases polewards. The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 4 times of that received at the poles. In tropical regions, the amount of insolation is only large but there is also little seasonal variation. It is because all their places between Tropic of Cancer and Capricorn experience overhead sun twice during the course of a year. Insolation is maximum twice in a belt between 23°30’ and 66°30′.

Question 4.
What are the effects of the atmosphere on insolation?
Answer:
The energy from the sun passes through different layers of the atmosphere before it reaches the ground. Atmospheric gases are essentially transparent to visible light, but suspended particles of liquid or solid material can absorb or reflect light. A thick cloud may allow less than 10% of sunlight to reach the earth’s surface. Clouds generally behave like mirrors. They reflect sunlight off in different directions rather than absorbing. Reflected sunlight is permanently lost from the earth. The blue colour of the daytime sky is due to the scattering of sunlight.

Question 5.
Define temperature.
Answer:
The temperature is the measurement of available or sensible heat energy in a system. It is a measure of hotness or coldness of the body. Such property determines whether the heat will flow out or into an object when it comes in contact with other objects.

Question 6.
Explain why the angle of the sun’s rays falls variably on different latitudes.
Answer:
The earth revolves around the sun once in a year in an elliptical path called the ‘plane of ecliptic’. At the same time, the earth rotates on its axis in 24 hours. The earth’s axis is tilted making an angle of 66°30′ from the plane. Due to inclination of the earth’s axis, the angle of the sun’s rays falling on the earth’s surface varies from vertical on the equator to more and more slanting as one moves towards the poles.

Question 7.
Explain how the ocean currents influence the temperature distribution over the earth surface.
Answer:
Ocean currents are large movements of ocean water from places of warm temperature to colder temperature or vice-versa. Their movement affects the temperature of the adjacent areas. The warm currents raise the temperature of adjoining colder landmasses. The climate of north-western Europe is modified to a large extent by ocean currents of the North Atlantic Ocean. The cold currents of the western coast of South Africa or South America lower the temperature of adjacent warmer lands.

Question 8.
What is the role played by prevailing winds in temperature modification?
Answer:
Prevailing winds also affect the temperature conditions of the areas. The moderating effects of oceans are brought to the adjacent lands through winds. On the contrary, off-shore winds take the effects of warm or cold currents away from the land.

Question 9.
What is the difference between direct radiation and diffused radiation?
Answer:
The sun emits short wave radiation to space and the earth’s surface. The solar energy strikes the upper limits of the atmosphere and it gradually reaches the earth’s surface directly or indirectly (scattered) and is absorbed. It is estimated that out of 100 units of incoming solar energy, 22 units travel directly to the earth’s surface. This energy flow is called direct radiation. Some of the scattered rays eventually also find their way down indirectly to the earth’s surface. They are collectively called diffused radiation.

Question 10.
What is global warming? What are its causes?
Answer:
The burning of fossil fuels, the cultivation of the soil, industrialisation of land on a large scale, rapid means of transport and deforestation have caused an imbalance in the atmosphere. These activities are increasing the amount of carbon dioxide. Thus, the greenhouse effect has raised the average temperature of the earth by 0,5°C. By the year 2000, the earth’s average temperature will go up by 2°C.

This is called global warming. It is causing a rise in the sea level due to melting of glaciers. It is threatening to submerge many coastal areas.

Question 11.
Why do different parallels receive different amounts of insolation?
Answer:
Due to the inclination of the earth’s axis, the angle of the sun’s rays falling on the earth’s surface varies from vertical on the equator to more and more slanting as one moves towards the poles. This latitudinal difference in the angle of incidence of sun’s rays leads to different amounts of insolation received at different parallels.

Fig.9.5: Incidence of the sun’s rays on the earth’s surface

Question 12.
How does the angle of the sun’s rays falling on the ground affect the amount of insolation?
Answer:
The amount of insolation reaching the earth’s surface depends largely on the inclination or angle of the sun’s rays. Vertical rays and those nearly 80 in the lower latitudes are more effective in increasing temperature than the oblique rays in the higher latitudes, although the duration of sunshine may be much longer in the latter case. Moreover, the oblique rays spread over a larger area on the earth’s surface whereas the vertical rays are concentrated over a smaller area, the intensity of heat being lighter in the area insolated by vertical rays.

Question 13.
Differentiate between advection and convection.
Answer:
Transfer of heat through the horizontal movement of the air is called advection, whereas the vertical mixing of the air is termed as convection. Convection is caused by the circulatory movement of the air itself and the pull of gravity.

Question 14.
Isotherms do not show the correct temperature of a place. Discuss.
Answer:
Isotherms show the temperature of a place supposing it to be at sea level. The temperature is reduced to sea level to avoid the effect of relief. Thus, isotherms do not show the actual temperature of a place.

Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Discuss the impact of tilting of earth’s axis on insolation in the northern and southern hemisphere.
Answer:
The earth rotates on its axis in 24 hours. The earth’s axis is tilted at an angle of 66°30′ from the plane.

Fig.9.6 : Solstices and equinoxes

When the northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun, it receives the maximum amount of insolation. On 21 st June, the sun is overhead the Tropic of Cancer and it is the longest day of the year for the northern hemisphere. All this time, the southern hemisphere is away from the sun and 21st June is the shortest day of the year for the southern hemisphere. On 21st March and 23rd September, the sun is over the equator and the length of the day is the same everywhere throughout the world. This position is called the equinox.

On 21st December, the southern hemisphere is in front of the sun and receives the maximum daylight. It is, however, the tropics that receive the maximum insolation.

Question 2.
Discuss the impact of altitude on temperature over the atmosphere.
Answer:
Altitude is the height of a point above mean sea level, measured vertically. The temperature decreases with increasing height and latitude from the earth’s surface. This vertical decrease in temperature takes place at the rate of 0.65° per 100 metres or 165 metres per 1°C. These variations are normal throughout the troposphere and are termed as normal lapse rate. The atmosphere near the surface is denser and contains a large amount of water vapour and dust particles. Being closer to the land surface, it absorbs more terrestrial heat than that of the upper air. Hence, the temperature is higher in the lower part of the atmosphere than in the upper part, where the air is cleaner. That is why the higher we go, the cooler it is. Ootacamund, Mount Abu, Panchmarhi are cooler in summer than plains.

Question 3.
What are the basic mechanisms of heat transfer? Discuss the importance of these mechanisms with reference to the atmosphere.
Answer:
There are three basic mechanisms of heat transfer:

1. Radiation,
2. Conduction, and
3. Convection.

1. Radiation: Radiation is the act of transmitting energy in the form of particles of electromagnetic waves. The process is similar to that of transmission of light from an electric bulb. There are two forms of radiations: solar radiation and terrestrial radiation. The atmosphere gets heated up, in fact, through terrestrial radiation and not by solar radiation.

2. Conduction: When two bodies of unequal temperatures are in contact with one another, there is a flow of energy in the form of heat from warmer to cooler body. The layer of air resting upon the warmer earth becomes heated by the process of conduction. The actual conduction during the course of the day affects only the lowest layer of the atmosphere.

3. Convection: Convection is the process of heat transfer caused by the dying circulatory movement of the fluid itself. It takes place due to difference in temperature, and hence in density, and the pull of gravity. Convection produces vertical movement. The horizontal movement of a similar nature is called advection.

Fig97: Convection circulation

A cyclic circulation helps in transforming the heat of lower layers to the upper layers of the atmosphere. This process of heating is convection.

Question 4.
How is the atmosphere heated? Discuss the role of terrestrial radiation in this process.
Answer:
The only source of heat for the earth or the atmosphere is the sun. But the sun does not heat the atmosphere directly. The solar radiation or energy emitted from the sun travels through space and reaches the earth’s surface in the form of insolation or incoming solar radiation. The incoming solar radiation has no significant role in heating the atmosphere. But it helps the earth’s surface. The earth, in turn, reradiates this energy in the form of terrestrial radiation.

Thus the earth functions as a transformer in an electric circuit, receiving energy in one state and transmitting it to another. The sun heats the earth and earth heats the atmosphere. Nearly 51 % of solar energy reaches the earth directly or indirectly. The sun emits short wave radiations to space. The earth, on the other hand, radiates it back in long waves. The terrestrial radiation warms up the layers of atmosphere above it by direct contact or through the transmission of heat by upward movement of air currents.

Fig.9.8: The annual radiation budget of the earth. Units are percentages of the total solar radiation received at the outer edge of the atmosphere.

Question 5.
How many shapes the sun has? Describe photosphere.
Answer:
The sun has three shapes: the core and the interior. The innermost portion of the sun is extremely hot and hence here hydrogen atoms combine to form a smaller number of heavier helium atoms. In this process, certain mass is converted into energy.

The Photosphere: Photosphere is the solar surface. The energy produced in the core reaches to this surface. Most of the sun’s energy comes from the photosphere and we see it as a solar disc. In the photosphere, there are granules that transport energy from the base of the photosphere to its surface. Sunspots are dark regions on the photospheres. They are formed due to strong magnetic fields. The energy is released in the form of x-ray and ultra-violet radiations from the sunspots.

Above the photosphere occurs the sun’s atmosphere. The lower part is chromosphere and the upper is the corona. They are visible only during solar eclipses. Corona exudes electromagnetic energy. These energy particles can be captured by earth’s magnetic field in the ionosphere and their interaction with gases produce the aurora.

Here we are providing Class 11 Geography Important Extra Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Composition and Structure of Atmosphere. Important Questions for Class 11 Geography are the best resource for students which helps in class 11 board exams.

Important Questions for Class 11 Geography Chapter 8 Composition and Structure of Atmosphere

Composition and Structure of Atmosphere Important Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
How is the atmosphere held to the earth?
Answer:
The atmosphere is held to the earth by the force of gravity.

Question 2.
What is heterosphere?
Answer:
The layer of the atmosphere 90 km above the surface of the earth where the composition begins to change with a progressive increase in the lighter gases, is called heterosphere.

Question 3.
Which are the major constituents of clean dry air of atmosphere?
Answer:
Oxygen and nitrogen are the major constituents of clean dry air of the atmosphere.

Question 4.
Which gas of the atmosphere does not take part in a chemical reaction?
Answer:
‘Argon’ does not take part in a chemical reaction.

Question 5.
What are aerosols?
Answer:
Aerosols are huge amounts of s0lid and liquid particles present in the atmosphere.

Question 6.
Which gas despite its small percentage is crucial in atmospheric processes?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is an important gas in the atmospheric processes.

Question 7.
What is the atmosphere?
Answer:
The atmosphere is a gaseous envelope extending thousands of kilometres above the earth’s surface.

Question 8.
What energises the atmosphere?
Answer:
The atmosphere is energised by the sun.

Question 9.
Where does much of life exist on the earth?
Answer:
Much of life exists at the bottom of the atmosphere where it meets the lithosphere and the hydrosphere.

Question 10.
Name two broad layers of the atmosphere.
Answer:
Homosphere and heterosphere are two broad layers of the atmosphere.

Question 11.
Name the three thermal layers of the homosphere.
Answer:
Troposphere, stratosphere and mesosphere.

Question 12.
What is wind?
Answer:
The horizontal motion of the air is known as wind.

Question 13.
Mention some forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Rain, hail, sleet or snow are some forms of precipitation.

Question 14.
Which gas acts as a filter and protects us from ultraviolet rays?
Answer:
Ozone gas protects us from the ultraviolet rays and acts as a filter.

Question 15.
Which layer transmits the radio waves?
Answer:
Ionosphere.

Question 16.
Name the gas which is found in the upper part of the atmosphere.
Answer:
Hydrogen.

Question 17.
What are the two causes of depletion of the ozone layer?
Answer:
Use of carbons and deforestation are the two causes of depletion of the ozone layer.

Question 18.
Name the gas which is most essential for life.
Answer:
Oxygen.

Question 19.
What are the principal elements of weather and climate?
Answer:
Temperature, pressure, wind, moisture and precipitation are the principal elements of weather and climate.

Question 20.
Why do the jet aircraft fly through the lower stratosphere?
Answer:
Because it provides the easiest flying conditions. It is the layer of calm and clean air. There is no water vapour and clouds are present.

Question 21.
What are the constituents of dust particles?
Answer:
Smoke-soot, ash, pollen are the main constituents of dust particles.

Question 22.
What is the weather?
Answer:
The cumulative effect of wind, temperature, pressure, clouds, humidity and precipitation is called weather.

Question 23.
What is the role of elements of weather?
Answer:
They influence temperature and precipitation.

Composition and Structure of Atmosphere Important Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Why are the vapour and dust particles important variables of weather and climate?
Answer:
The water vapour and dust particles are important variables of weather and climate because they are the source of all forms of condensation and principal absorbers of heat received from the sun or radiated from the earth. Besides, they affect the stability of the atmosphere.

Question 2.
What is meant by a normal lapse rate?
Answer:
The temperature decreases with altitude because the atmosphere is heated more by the heat radiated from the earth’s surface. Wanner air lying under the cooler air goes up or turns downward. In this layer, the temperature decreases vertically at a rate of 0.65°C per 100 metres. It is called the normal lapse rate.

Question 3.
What is homosphere?
Answer:
The atmospheric layer up to an altitude of 90 km. above the surface of the earth is generally called homosphere. It is uniform in term of these major gases – nitrogen, oxygen and argon. In addition, it also contains some rare gases like neon, krypton and xenon.

Question 4.
Name the gases and other materials which compose the atmosphere.
Answer:
Nitrogen, oxygen and argon are the most important gases of the atmosphere. In addition, it contains gases like carbon dioxide, neon, helium, ozone, hydrogen, methane, krypton and xenon. Besides, there are also present huge amounts of solid and liquid particles collectively called aerosols.

Question 5.
Discuss the properties of nitrogen gas.
Answer:
Nitrogen is the most abundant gas of the atmosphere. By volume, it constitutes 78.8% of the total gases present in the atmosphere. Nitrogen does not easily enter into chemical union with other substances but gets fixed into the soil. It serves mainly as diluent or dissolver. It regulates combustion.

Question 6.
What is the importance of carbon dioxide on the earth?
Answer:
By volume carbon dioxide constitutes 0.03% of the total gases of the earth’s atmosphere. Although it forms a small portion, it is an important gas in the atmospheric processes. It can absorb the heat and thus allows the lower atmosphere to be warmed up by heat radiation coming from the sun and from the earth’s surface. Green plants in the process of photosynthesis utilise carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

Question 7.
Explain the difference between weather and climate.
Answer:
The weather of any place is the sum total of its temperature, pressure, winds, moisture and precipitation conditions for a short period of time. Climate, on the other hand, is the composite weather conditions over a considerable period of time.

Question 8.
Identify the climatic controls.
Answer:
The various climatic controls are given below :

1. Latitude or sun.
2. Distribution of land and water
3. The great semi-permanent high and low-pressure belts
4. Winds
5. Altitude
6. Mountain barriers
7. Ocean currents
8. Storms of various kinds

Question 9.
What is the importance of the atmosphere for the earth?
Answer:
The earth is the only known planet to have life. The atmosphere, which is unlike that of any other planet, encircles and protects the earth. Changes in the composition of the atmosphere are closely associated with the evolution of the earth. One of the most important transition was the increase in oxygen when photosynthetic plants evolved.

The atmosphere is a mixture of gases, the largest proportion of which is nitrogen. However, the most important is oxygen, without which life could not be sustained. The very survival of life processes is associated with the atmosphere.

The influence of the atmosphere on humans particularly is not only direct but also indirect through natural vegetation, soil and topography.

Question 10.
What is tropopause?
Answer:
The tropopause is the plane which separates the troposphere and stratosphere. It is the boundary between these two layers. It is a thin transitional zone between two layers.

Question 11.
Explain three major features of the troposphere.
Answer:
Three major features are :

1. It is 16 km thick at the equator and 10 km thick at the poles.
2. The temperature decreases with the altitude at the rate of l°C per 165 metres.
3. Biological activities take place in this layer.

Question 12.
What are the main characteristics of the lowermost layer of the atmosphere?
Answer:
The lowermost layer is the troposphere.

• Its average height is 16-18 km.
• All biological activities occur in this layer.
• All the atmospheric processes take place in this layer.
• It is 16 km thick at the equator and 10 km thick at the poles.

Composition and Structure of Atmosphere Important Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Distinguish between troposphere and stratosphere.
Answer:

Troposphere	Stratosphere
(1) It is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere.	(1) It is the second layer of the atmosphere above the earth.
(2) Its height varies from 10-18 km. at the equator.	(2) Its height is up to 50 km.
(3) Temperature decreases at the rate of 1 °C per 165 metres in this layer.	(3) In this layer temperature is very low and fairly constant.
(4) It is the zone of convection currents of the atmosphere.	(4) It is a zone of non-convection currents of the atmosphere.
(5) Water vapour, dust particles, clouds are found in this layer.	(5) There is no water vapour but dust particles and clouds are found.
(6) Atmospheric processes occur in this layer.	(6) This zone is free from atmospheric disturbances.

Question 2.
What is the difference between condensation and precipitation?
Answer:
Condensation is the physical process of the transition of a substance from the vapour to the liquid state, e.g., as a result of cooling or increase of pressure. It occurs in the atmosphere when the air is saturated or when it is cool. Thus, the change of state of the moisture from invisible water vapour to visible liquid (water) or solid (ice or snow ) state is known n as condensation. It is opposite of evaporation.

Precipitation, on the other hand, means ‘throwing down of moisture’. Continuous condensation in the body of the air helps the water droplets to grow in size so that the resistance of the air fails to keep them suspended. In such cases, only an ascending air current can keep them floating in the air. In the absence of such a current, the products of condensation begin to fall on the earth’s surface. The process whereby the water vapour first condenses in the air and then falls on to the earth is called precipitation.

Question 3.
Discuss the principal elements of weather and climate and the major climatic controls.
Answer:
The principal elements of weather and climate are temperature precipitation, moisture, pressure and winds. These are called elements because they are the ingredients out of which various weather and climate types are compounded. The temperature and precipitation are the main basic elements to which pressure, winds and other elements are related.

Temperature expresses the intensity of heat. Practically all the heat energy on the earth is the result of insulation or the increasing solar radiation. Unequal distribution of temperature over the earth’s surface causes differences in atmospheric pressure, which causes winds.

Higher the temperature, the greater is the capacity’ of air to hold moisture on cooling. The air is not able to retain all the moisture it gathers while warm. This leads to condensation and precipitation.

Thus, the temperature is the basic element on which other elements of climate depend.

The climatic controls are :
Latitude (or sun), distribution of land and water, the great semi¬permanent high and low-pressure belts, winds, altitude, mountain barriers, ocean currents and storms of various kinds.

Question 4.
Define the atmosphere. Explain its importance to human life.
Answer:
The atmosphere is a mixture of air and various gases which envelopes the earth all around. It represents the gaseous realm of the earth. It is held to the earth by the force of gravity.

Importance of atmosphere:

1. It contains gases like oxygen (essential for breathing) for man and animals and carbon dioxide for plants.
2. By trapping the heat, it acts as a greenhouse. It keeps the earth
   warm.
3. One of its layer, the ionosphere, reflects radio waves back to the earth and makes radio communication possible.
4. It protects us from the deadly cosmic rays and meteors which are continuously showered on the earth from outer space.
5. All the weather phenomenon take place in the atmosphere. Presence of water vapour in the atmosphere brings many changes such as condensation and precipitation. These processes influence the human life, plants and animals.
6. It absorbs ultraviolet rays.
7. It acts as an air conditioner by moderating the extremes of heat ‘ and cold.
8. It is a storehouse of water vapour.

Question 5.
Discuss the proportion of the constituent gases of the atmosphere.
Answer:
The atmosphere is a mixture of various gases. It includes :
Nitrogen (N,), Oxygen (O,), Argon (Ar), Carbon dioxide (CO,), Neon (Ne), Helium (He), Ozone (O,), Hydrogen (H), Methane (CH4), Krypton (Kr) and Xenon (Xe).

Nitrogen (N2): It is a colourless, odourless gas, the main constituent (i.e. 78.8% by volume) of the atmosphere. It is an essential constituent of living organisms. It is an important element for plants.

Oxygen (O,): Constitutes 20.94% of the total volume of the atmosphere. It is the second most abundant gas. It is essential to plant and animal life.

Argon (Ar): It constitutes one per cent volume of the total atmosphere. It is an inert gas, does not take part in any chemical reaction.

Carbon dioxide: It constitutes a very small amount (0.03%). It is an important gas in the atmospheric process. It can absorb heat and thus allows the lower atmosphere to be warmed up by heat radiation from the sun and from the earth’s surface. Green plants in the process of photosynthesis utilise carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

Neon (Ne): Neon is an inert gaseous element occurring in’ trivial quantities (0.0018%) in the atmosphere.

Helium (He): It exists primarily in the sun’s atmosphere. It is an inert element of the atmosphere.

Ozone (03): It is an allotropic form of oxygen (02). Its main concentration lies between 20 to 25 km. from the earth’s surface.

Hydrogen (H): It is the lightest element. It is gaseous and inflammable. It is used in many chemical processes.